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PLEASE FOLLOW THE STEPS AND LEARN THE FINAL RESULT!

40 ••• A wedge of mass M, as shown in Figure 8-46, is


placed on a frictionless, horizontal surface, and a block of
mass m is placed on the wedge, whose surface is also
frictionless. The center of mass of the block moves
downward a distance h, as the block slides from its initial
position to the horizontal floor. (a) What are the speeds of
the block and of the wedge, as they separate from each
other and each go their own way? (b) Check your
calculation plausibility by considering the limiting case
when M >>m.
Picture the Problem Let the system include the earth, block, and wedge and
apply conservation of energy and conservation of linear momentum.
(a) Apply conservation of energy Wext  ΔK  ΔU
with no frictional forces to the or, because Wext = 0,
system to obtain: ΔK  ΔU  0
Substituting for K and U yields: Kf  Ki  Uf  Ui  0
Because Ki = Uf = 0: K f U i  0
Letting b refer to the block and w K b,f  K w,f  U b,i  0
to the wedge yields:
2 mv b  2 Mv w  mgh  0
1 2 1 2
Substitute for Kb,f, Kw,f, and Ub,i to (1)
obtain:
  
Applying conservation of linear Δpsys  Δpb  Δpw  0
momentum to the system yields: or
   
pb,f  pb,i  pw,f  pw,i  0
   
Because pb,i  pw,i  0 : pb,f  pw,f  0
 
Substituting for pb,f and pw,f yields:  mv iˆ  Mv iˆ  0
b w

or
 mv b  Mv w  0
Solve for vw to obtain: m
vw  vb (2)
M
2
Substituting for vw in equation (1) m 
yields:
1
2 mv  M  v b   mgh  0
2
b
1
2
M 

Solve for vb to obtain: 2 ghM


vb  (3)
M m
Substitute for vb in equation (2) and m 2 ghM
vw 
simplify to obtain: M M m
(4)
2 ghm 2

M M  m 
(b) Rewriting equation (3) by 2 gh
vb 
dividing the numerator and m
1
M
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denominator of the radicand by M


yields:
When M >> m: v b  2 gh
Rewriting equation (4) by dividing m
2

the numerator and denominator of 2 gh 


vw  M
the radicand by M yields: m
1
M
When M >> m: vw  0
These results are exactly what we’d expect in this case: the physics is that of a
block sliding down a fixed wedge incline with no movement of the incline.
64 •• Show that in a one-dimensional elastic collision, if the mass and velocity of
object 1 are m1 and v1i, and if the mass and velocity of object 2 are m2 and v2i, then their final
m  m2 2m2
velocities v1f and v2f are given by v1f  1 v1i  v and
m1  m2 m1  m2 2i
2m1 m  m1
v2f  v1i  2 v .
m1  m2 m1  m2 2i
Picture the Problem We can apply conservation of linear momentum and the
definition of an elastic collision to obtain equations relating the initial and final
velocities of the colliding objects that we can solve for v1f and v2f.
Apply conservation of momentum to m1v1f  m2 v2 f  m1v1i  m2 v2i (1)
the elastic collision of the particles
to obtain:
2 m1v1f  2 m2 v2 f  2 m1v1i  2 m2 v2i
Relate the initial and final kinetic 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2

energies of the particles in an elastic


collision:
Rearrange this equation and factor to    
m2 v22f  v22i  m1 v12i  v12f
obtain: or
m2 v2f  v2i v2f  v2i 
(2)
 m1 v1i  v1f v1i  v1f 
Rearrange equation (1) to obtain: m2 v2f  v2i   m1 v1i  v1f  (3)

Divide equation (2) by equation v2 f  v2i  v1i  v1f


(3) to obtain:
Rearrange this equation to obtain v1f  v2 f  v2i  v1i (4)
equation (4):
Multiply equation (4) by m2 and m1  m2 v1f  m1  m2 v1i  2m2v2i
add it to equation (1) to obtain:
Solve for v1f to obtain: m1  m2 2m2
v1 f  v1i  v2 i
m1  m2 m1  m2
Multiply equation (4) by m1 and m1  m2 v2f  m2  m1 v2i  2m1v1i
subtract it from equation (1) to
obtain:
Solve for v2f to obtain: 2m1 m  m1
v2 f  v1i  2 v 2i
m1  m2 m1  m2

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Remarks: Note that the velocities satisfy the condition that v 2f  v1f  v 2i  v1i  . This
verifies that the speed of recession equals the speed of approach.
65 •• Investigate the plausibility of the results of Problem 64 by calculating the final
velocities in the following limits: (a) When the two masses are equal, show that the particles
swap velocities: v1f  v2i i and v2f  v1i (b) If m2 >> m1, and v 2i  0 , show that v1f  v1i
and v 2f  0 . (c) If m1 >> m2, and v 2i  0 , show that v1f  v1i and v2f  2v1i.
Picture the Problem As in this problem, Problem 74 involves an elastic, one-
dimensional collision between two objects. Both solutions involve using the
conservation of momentum equation m1v1f  m2 v2f  m1v1i  m2 v2i and the elastic
collision equation v1f  v2f  v2i  v1i . In Part (a) we can simply set the masses equal
to each other and substitute in the equations in Problem 64 to show that the particles
"swap" velocities. In Part (b) we can divide the numerator and denominator of the
equations in Problem 64 by m2 and use the condition that
m2 >> m1 to show that v1f  v1i+2v2i and v2f  v2i.
(a) From Problem 64 we have: m  m2 2m2
v1f  1 v1i  v2i (1)
m1  m2 m1  m2
and
2m1 m  m1
v2f  v1i  2 v 2i (2)
m1  m2 m1  m2

Set m1 = m2 = m to obtain: 2m
v1f  v 2i  v 2i
mm
and
2m
v2f  v1i  v1i
mm
(b) Divide the numerator and m1
denominator of both terms in 1
m2 2
equation (1) by m2 to obtain: v1f  v1i  v2i
m1 m1
1 1
m2 m2
If m2 >> m1 and v2i = 0: v1f  v1i
Divide the numerator and m1 m1
denominator of both terms in 2 1
m2 m2
equation (2) by m2 to obtain: v2f  v1i  v 2i
m1 m1
1 1
m2 m2
If m2 >> m1: v2f  v 2i

(c) Divide the numerator and m2 m


denominator of equation (1) by m1 to 1 2 2
m1 m1
obtain: v1f  v1i  v
m2 m2 2i
1 1
m1 m1
If m1 >> m2 and v2i = 0: v1f  v1i

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Divide the numerator and denominator m2


of equation (2) by m1 to obtain: 1
2 m1
v2f  v  v
m2 1i m2 2i
1 1
m1 m1
If m1 >> m2 and v2i = 0: v2f  2v1i

Und zum Schluß, weil eigentlich so schön einfach.

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