CSAT - Workbook

CSAT - Workbook
By,
Anil Sapkal (UPSCPREP.COM Mentor)
Shagun Singh (UPSCPREP.COM Mentor)
UPSCprep.com
INDEX
SECTION A - MATHEMATICS
Sr. No. Topic Page No
1 Number System 3
2 Progressions 15
3 Averages 19
4 Percentage 25
5 Profit and Loss 31
6 Simple and Compound Interest 36
7 Ratio, proportion and Variation 39
8 Time and Work 47
9 Time Speed and Distance 53
10 Boats and Streams 60
11 Algebra 63
12 Set Theory 67
13 Mixtures and Alligations 71
14 Probability 76
15 Permutations & Combinations 80
16 Geometry 85
17 Mensuration 89
SECTION 2 - LOGICAL REASONING
Sr. No. Topic Page No
1 Coding – Decoding 92
2 Direction Sense 98
3 Blood Relations 103
4 Rank 110
5 Puzzles and Seating Arrangement 115
6 Sequence and Series 121
7 Calendars & Clock 125
8 Cubes and Dice 132
9 Syllogism 138
SECTION 3 - READING COMPREHENSION 146
SECTION 4 - DATA INTERPRETATION 171
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SECTION 1
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
1.Number System
Core Concepts
1. Number line: It is one of the most crucial concepts in Basic Numeracy. The number line is
a straight line between negative infinity on the left to positive infinity to the right.
2. Important Mathematical Representations
• Even numbers: 2n
• Odd Numbers: 2n-1
• Numbers multiple of 4: 4n, and so on
3. Prime Factors: Representation of numbers in the standard form.
4. Standard Form or Canonical Form: eg. Finding standard form of 144
2 144
2 72
2 36
2 18
3 9
3 3
1
Therefore, Prime factors of 144= 2*2*2*2*3*3 = 2^4*3^2
5. General Form for Writing 2-3 Digit Numbers: In mathematics many a time we have to use
algebraic equations in order to solve questions. In such cases an important concept is the way
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we represent two or three-digit numbers in equation form. For instance, suppose we have a 2-
digit number with the digits ‘AB’. In order to write this in the form of an equation, we have
to use:
10A + B. This is because in the number ‘AB’ the digit A is occupying the tens place. Hence,
in order to represent the value of the number ‘AB’ in the form of an equation — we can write
10A + B. Thus, the number 29 = 2 * 10 + 9 * 1
Similarly, for a three-digit number with the digits A, B and C respectively — the number
‘ABC’can be represented as below:
ABC = 100A+10B+C
Thus, 243 = 2*100 + 4*10 + 3*1
11. The BODMAS Rule: It is used for the ordering of mathematical operations in a
mathematical situation. In any mathematical situation, the first thing to be considered is
Brackets followed by Division, Multiplication, Addition and Subtraction in that order.
Number System
• Integers: Numbers having no decimal point in it

o Positive Integers - 1, 2, 3, …
o Zero
o Negative Integers: -1, -2, -3, …
• Decimals: A decimal number is a number with a decimal point in it, like these: 1.5,
3.21, 4.173, 5.1, etc.
• Natural numbers: These are the numbers (1, 2, 3, etc.) that are used for counting. In
other words, all positive integers are natural numbers. Based on divisibility, there
could be two types of natural numbers: Prime and Composite.
o Prime numbers- A natural number larger than unity is a prime number if it
does not have other divisors except for itself and unity. (Note: Unity (i.e. 1) is
not a prime number.)
o Composite Numbers: It is a natural number that has at least one divisor
different from unity and itself.
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Every composite number n can be factored into its prime factors. (This is
sometimes called the canonical form of a number.)
• Whole Numbers: The set of numbers that includes all natural numbers and the
number zero are called whole numbers. Whole numbers are also called non-negative
integers.
• Real Numbers: All numbers that can be represented on the number line are called
real numbers.
• Rational Numbers: A rational number is defined as a number of the form a/b where a
and b are integers and b ⧣ 0.
• Irrational numbers: Fractions, that are non-terminating, non-periodic fractions, are
irrational numbers. Some examples of irrational numbers are √2, √3, √5, e, pi, etc.
• Co-prime numbers are any two numbers which have an HCF of 1, i.e. when two
numbers have no common prime factor apart from the number 1, they are called co-
prime or relatively prime to each other. Eg. (5, 6), (29,30)
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OPERATIONS ON NUMBERS
1. Exponents and Powers
• Exponents, or powers, are an important part of maths as they are necessary to indicate
that a number is multiplied by itself for a given number of times.
• When a number is multiplied by itself it gives the ‘square of the number’. Thus,
n*n=n2 (eg. 3*3=3^2)
• If the same number is multiplied by itself twice we get the cube of the number. Thus,
n*n*n=n^3 (eg. 3*3*3=3^3)
• n*n*n*n=n^4 and so on.
• With respect to powers of numbers, there are 5 basic rules which you should know:
For any number ‘n’ the following rules would apply:
▪ Rule1:𝑛𝑎 × 𝑛𝑏 = 𝑛𝑎+𝑏 . 𝑇ℎ𝑢𝑠, 43 × 45 = 43+5 = 48
𝑛𝑎 39
▪ Rule 2:𝑛𝑏 = 𝑛𝑎−𝑏 . 𝑇ℎ𝑢𝑠, 34 = 35 .
𝑏 4
▪ Rule 3: 𝑛𝑎 = 𝑛𝑎×𝑏 . 𝑇ℎ𝑢𝑠, 32 = 38 .
1 1
▪ Rule 4: 𝑛−𝑎 = 𝑛𝑎 . 𝑇ℎ𝑢𝑠, 3−4 = 34
▪ Rule5: 𝑛0 = 1. 𝑇ℎ𝑢𝑠, 50 = 1.
These are also popularly known as the rules of indices.
2. Properties
• Commutative property of addition: a + b = b + a.

• Associative property of addition: (a + b) + c = a + (b + c).
• Commutative property of multiplication: a*b = b*a.
• Associative property of multiplication: (a*b) * c= a*(b*c).
• Distributive property of multiplication with respect to addition: (a + b) c = ac + bc.
• Subtraction and division are defined as the inverse operations to addition and
multiplication respectively.
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LCM and HCF

LCM (Least Common Multiple)
• Smallest natural number 'n' which is divisible by n1 & n2
How to find LCM?
• Find Standard forms of n1, n2
• Write down all prime factors
• Raise each prime factor to highest of the powers
• The product will be LCM
Eg. Find the LCM of 150, 210.
• Step 1: Writing down the standard form of numbers

o 150 = 5*5*3*2
o 210 = 5*2*7*3
• Step 2: Write down all the prime factors: that appear at least once in any of the
numbers: 5, 3, 2, 7.
• Step 3: Raise each of the prime factors to their highest available power (considering
each to the numbers).
o The LCM=2^1*3^1*5^2*7= 2*3*25*7 = 1050
Highest Common Factor (HCF) or GFD

• For n1, n2: If n1 and n2 are exactly divisible by the same number x, then x is a
common divisor (CD) of n1, n2. Highest of all such CDs of n1 and n2 is HCF.
How to find HCF?

• Find Standard forms of n1, n2
• Write down all prime factors
• Find Common factors in both n1, n2.
• Raise each prime factor to lesser of the powers
• The product will be HCF
E.g., Find the GCD of 150, 210, 375.
• Step 1: Writing down the standard form of numbers
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o 150 = 5*5*3*2
o 210 = 5*2*7*3
• Step 2: Writing Prime factors common to all the numbers: 5, 2, 3 (Note: we didn’t
consider 7 as it is only a common factor of 210 and not of 150!)
• Step 3: Raising each prime factor to lesser of the power, i.e.- 2^1, 5^1 and 3^1
• Step 4: Hence, the HCF will be 2*5*3 = 30
Important Rule:
HCF (n1, n2) * LCM (n1, n2) = n1*n2
i.e., The product of the HCF and the LCM equals the product of the numbers.
Rule for finding out HCF and LCM of fractions
• HCF of two or more fractions is given by:

𝐻𝐶𝐹 𝑜𝑓 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑠
o
𝐿𝐶𝑀 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑜𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑟𝑠
• LCM of two or more fractions is given by:

𝐿𝐶𝑀 𝑜𝑓 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑠
o
𝐻𝐶𝐹 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑜𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑟𝑠
The Remainder Theorem:

Remainder of a division or expression can be expressed as positive and negative numbers,
though negative numbers cannot be remainders. But we can use them, to find out the correct
remainder easily.
Consider following expression,
107/9, here remainder is positive remainder is +8, and negative remainder is 8-9 = -1.
This method helps in finding the reminders for large expressions, refer to the example given
below.
(1753*1749*83*171 / 17)
Remainders for each number in the numerator,
(+2 * -2 * -2 * 1)/17 = 8/17
Hence, remainder is 7.
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Practice Questions:
1. The LCM of two numbers is 936. If their HCF is 4 and one of the numbers is 72, the other
is:
a.42 b.52 c.62 d. None of these
2. Two alarm clocks ring their alarms at regular intervals of 50 seconds and 48 seconds. If
they first beep together at 12 noon, at what time will they beep again for the first time
a.12:10 PM b.12:12 PM c.12:11 PM d. None of these
3. Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10?
(UPSC 2021)
a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9
4. Two equilateral triangles have the sides of lengths 34 and 85, respectively. The greatest
length of tape that can measure both of them exactly is:
a.18 b.16 c.17 d.15
5. The number of integers n satisfying – n + 2 ≥ 0 and 2n ≥ 4 is:

a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d.3
6. A teacher teaching students of third standard gave a simple multiplication exercise to the
kids. But one kid reversed the digits of both the numbers and carried out the multiplication
and found that the product was exactly the same as the one expected by the teacher. Only one
of the following pairs of numbers will fit in the description of the exercise. Which one is
that?
a.14,22 b. 26,62 c. 19,33 d. 42,28
7. 273 –272 –271 is the same as

a. 269 b. 270 c.271 d. 272
8. How many zeroes are there at the end of the following product?
1 × 5 × 10 × 15 × 20 × 30 × 35 × 40 × 45 × 50 × 55 × 60 (UPSC 2020)
a.10 b. 12 c. 14 d. 15
9. The number 3798125P369 is divisible by 7. What is the value of the digit P?

(UPSC 2021)
a. 1 b. 6 c. 7 d. 9
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10. Find the remainder when 73+75+78+57+197 is divided by 34.

a. 4 b. 5 c.6 d. 8
11. The last digit of the number obtained by multiplying the numbers 81* 82 * 83 * 84 * 85 *
86 * 87 * 88 * 89 will be:
a. 0 b.6 c.7 d.2
12. Consider the following sequence of numbers: 5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3

4 9 6. How many odd numbers are followed by an odd number in the above sequence?
(UPSC 2020)
a.5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
13. In a school, every student is assigned a unique identification number. A student is a

football player if and only if the identification number is divisible by 4, whereas a student is a
cricketer if and only if the identification number is divisible by 6. If every number from 1 to
100 is assigned to a student, then how many of them play cricket as well as football?
a. 4 b. 12 c. 10 d. 8
14. The sum of two integers is 10 and the sum of their reciprocals is 5/12. The integers are?
a. 7,3 b. 9,1 c. 8,2 d. 6,5
15. Three times the first of three consecutive odd integers are 3 more than twice the third.
Find the value of the third integer.
a. 9 b. 11 c. 13 d. 15
16. If 381A is divisible by 9, find the value of smallest natural number A.

a. 5 b. 8 c. 7 d. 6 e.4
17. What is the remainder of 3^2019 when divided by 10? (UPSC 2021)
a.1 b.3 c.7 d.9
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18. What is the remainder when 1421 * 1423 * 1425 is divided by 12?
a. 0 b.9 c.3 d.6
19. A biology class at Central High School predicted that a local population of animals will
double in size every 12 years. The population at the beginning of 2014 was estimated to be
50 animals. If P represents the population n years after 2014, then which of the following
equations represents the class's model of the population over time? (UPSC 2021)
a. P= 12+50n
b. P=12n+50
c. P= 50* 2^12n
d. P = 50 * 2^(n/12)
20. The sides of a hexagonal field are 216, 423, 1215, 1422, 2169 and 2223 metres. Find the
greatest length of tape that would be able to exactly measure each of these sides without
having to use fractions/parts of the tape?
a.18 b. 54 c. 27 d. 9
21. Let XYZ be a three-digit number, where (X + Y + Z) is not a multiple of 3. Then (XYZ +
YZX + ZXY) is not divisible by: (UPSC 2020)
a. 3 b. 9 c. 37 d. (X+Y+Z)
22. Let p, q, r and s be natural numbers such that p - 2016 = q + 2017 = r - 2018 = s + 2019
Which one of the following is the largest natural number? (UPSC 2020)
a. p b. q c. r d. s
23. In the sum ⊗ + 1 ⊗ + 5 ⊗ + ⊗⊗ + ⊗ 1 = 1 ⊗⊗ for which digit does the symbol ⊗

stand? (UPSC 2020)
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
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24. One page is torn from a booklet whose pages are numbered in the usual manner starting
from the first page as 1. The sum of the numbers on the remaining pages is 195. The torn
page contains which of the following numbers. (UPSC 2020)
a. 5, 6 b. 7, 8 c. 9, 10 d. 11,
25. Find the smallest 3-digit number which divided by 5 gives remainder 2.
a.100 b. 102 c.104 d. 105
26.If the numerator and denominator of a proper fraction are increased by the same quantity, then the
resulting fraction is?( UPSC 2019)
a.always less than the original fraction
b. always greater than the original fraction
c. always equal to the original fraction
d. such that nothing can be claimed definitely
27. The number of times the digit 5 will be written when listing the integers from 1 to 1000,
is (UPSC 2019)
a. 269 b. 271 c. 300 d. 302
28. Four-digit numbers are to be formed using the digit 1, 2, 3, and 4; and none of these four
digits are repeated in any manner.Further, (UPSC 2016)
1. 2 and 3are not to immediately follow each other
2. 1 is not to be immediately follow by 3
3. 4 is not appear at the last place
4. 1 is not appear at the first place
How many different numbers can be formed?
a. 6 b. 8 c. 9 d. None of above
29.Consider the following statement in respect of two natural numbers p and q such that p is a
prime number and q is a composite number: (UPSC 2022)
1. p* q can be an odd number.
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2. q / p can be a prime number.

3. p + q can be a prime number.
Which of the above statement are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
30. While writing all the numbers from 700 to 1000, how many numbers occur in which the digit
at hundred’s place is greater than the digit at ten’s placeis greater than the digit at unit’s place?
(UPSC 2018)
a. 61 b. 64 c. 85 d. 91
31.Find the greatest number of 5 digits, that will give us a remainder of 5, when divided by 8 and
9, respectively.
a. 99931 b. 99941 c. 99725 d. None of these
32. A zoo had some lions and some parrots. The kipper counted 15 heads and 50 legs. The number
of lions in the zoo are
a. 9 b. 10 c. 8 d. 11
33. Find the greatest 6 – digit number, which multiple of 12?

34. The HFC of two number is 11, and their LCM is 624. If one of the numbers is 88, find the
other.
35. Find the smallest number which leaves 22, 35, 48, and 61 as remainders when divided by
26,39,52 and 65 respectively.
a. 760 b. 776 c. 766 d. 780 e. None of these
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Answer Key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
A b d d c c b c a b a a b b d d d c c
Q 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A d d b c b b b b c a d c b b d a b
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2.Progressions
Arithmetic Progression
Quantities are said to be in arithmetic progression when they increase or decrease by a

common difference.
E.g., 2, 4, 6, 8, ……. Or 3, 7, 11, 15, …….

General arithmeticseries can be written as,
a, a+d, a+2d, a+3d, a+4d, …… a+nd
where a is the first term and d is the common difference.
The common difference is found by subtracting any term of the series from the next term.
That is, the common difference of an A.P. = (tN – tN – 1).
The nth term of an arithmetic progression is given by: Tn =a+(n–1) d.
Finding the sum of the given number of terms in an arithmetic progression
• Let a denote the first term d, the common difference, and n the total number of terms.
Also, let L denote the last term, and S the required sum; then
S= n(a+L)/2
L = a + (n – 1) d
𝑛
S = [2a+(n–1) d]
2
Arithmetic Mean
Let, a and b be two quantities and A be their arithmetic mean.
A=(a+b)/2
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Geometric Progression
Quantities are said to be in Geometric Progression when they increase or decrease by a

constant factor. The constant factor is also called the common ratio and it is found by
dividing any term by the term immediately preceding it.
If we examine the series a, ar, ar2 , ar3 , ar4 ,...
we notice that in any term the index of r is always less by one than the number of the term in
the series.
Sum of terms in GP
Let a be the first term, r the common ratio, n the number of terms, and Sn be the sum to n
terms.
𝑎(𝑟 𝑛 −1)
𝑆𝑛 = If r > 1, then
𝑟−1
𝑎(1−𝑟 𝑛 )
𝑆𝑛 = If r< 1, then
1−𝑟
Geometric Mean
Let a and b be the two quantities; G the geometric mean.
𝐺 = √𝑎𝑏
Harmonic Progression
If a, b, c, d is in A.P. then 1/a, 1/b, 1/c and 1/d are all in H.P.
Practice Questions:
1. Find the sum of all numbers divisible by 6 in between 100 to 400.

a. 12550 b.12450 c. 11450 d. 11550 e. 11555
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2. Find S10 for the following series: 1, 8, 15, ...

a. 325 b. 426 c.525 d. 225
3. Find the 25th term of the sequence 50, 45, 40, ...
a. -55 b. -65 c. -70 d. -75
4. The 3rd and 8th term of a GP are ⅓ and 81, respectively. Find the 2nd term.
a. 3 b. 1 c. 1/27 d. 1/9
5. What is the nth term of an AP 9, 13, 17, 21, 25, …?

a. 3n +5 b. 4n + 5 c. 4n + 6 d. 5n + 4
6. How many terms are there in the A.P. 20,25, 30,130?

a. 22 b. 23 c. 21 d. 24
7. In an infinite geometric progression, each term is equal to 3 times the sum of the terms that
follow. If the first term of the series is 4, find the product of first three terms of the series?
a. 1/2 b. 1 c. 1/8 d. data insufficient
8. How many natural numbers between 300 to 500 are multiples of 7?

a. 29 b. 28 c. 27 d. 30
9. Rahul saves ₹100 in January 2014 and increases his saving by ₹50 every month over
previous month. What is annual saving for Rahul in the year 2014?
a. ₹4200 b. ₹4500 c. ₹4000 d. ₹4100
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10. A rubber ball is dropped from a certain height. After striking the floor, the ball bounces to
3/4th of the height it was dropped from. If the ball is initially dropped from a heigh of 100
meters, what is the total distance travelled by the ball before it comes to rest?
a. 400 b. 600 c. 800 d. 700
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b a c d b b b a b d
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3.Averages
The average of a number is a measure of the central tendency of a set of numbers. In other
words, it is an estimate of where the centre point of a set of numbers lies.
The basic formula for the average of n numbers x1 , x2 , x3,...xn is
𝑥1 + 𝑥2 + ⋯ + 𝑥𝑛
𝐴𝑣𝑔 =
𝑛
The average [also known as arithmetic mean (AM)] of a set of numbers can also be defined
as the number by which we can replace each and every number of the set without changing
the total of the set of numbers.
Illustration:
• The average of 4 numbers 12, 13, 17 and 18 is:
Avg=(12+13+17+18)/4 = 60/4= 15
This means that if each of the 4 numbers of the set were replaced by 15 each, there
would be no change in the total. This is an important way to look at averages. This
view is a very important way to visualise averages.
This can be visualised as
12 → +3 →15
13 → +2 →15
17 → -2 →15
18 → -3 →15
60 → 0 → 60
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• Average of numbers is always greater than the smallest number in a set and is always
less than the largest number.
o In above example, 12<Avg<18 (i.e. Average is greater than 12 and less than
18)
• The net deficit due to the numbers below the average always equals the net surplus
due to the numbers above the average.
• Ages and averages: If the average age of a group of persons is x years today then after
n years their average age will be (x + n).
Also, n years ago their average age would have been (x – n). This happens due to the
fact that for a group of people, 1 year is added to each person’s age every year.
Practice Questions
1. The average of the first 50 natural numbers is

a. 12.25 b. 21.15 c. 25 d. 25.5
2. In a class, there are three groups A, B and C. If one student from group A and two students
from group B are shifted to group C, then what happens to the average weight of the students
of the class?
a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remain same d.Datainsufficient
3. The average age of 10 boys and the principal is 15 years. When the principal’s age is
excluded, the average age decreases by 1years. What is the age of the principal?
a. 29 b. 31 c. 25 d. 33
4. The average of a batsman after 25 innings was 56 runs per innings. If after the 26th inning
his average increased by 2 runs, then what was his score in the 26th inning?
a. 108 b. 109 c. 110 d. 107
5. If we take four numbers, the average of the first three is 20 and that of the last three is 10.
If the first number is 20, the last number is
a. -20 b. -10 c. -30 d. -15
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6. The average height of 30 girls out of a class of 40 is 160 cm and that of the remaining girls
is 156 cm. The average height of the whole class is?
a. 155 cm b. 157 cm c. 159 cm d. None of these
7. Ram bought 2 toys for Rs. 5.50 each, 3 toys for Rs.3.66 each and 6 toys for Rs.1.833 each.
The average price per toy is (in Rs)
a. 3 b. 10 c. 5 d. 9
8. The captain of a cricket team of 11 members is 26 years old and the wicket keeper is 3
years older. If the ages of these two are excluded, the average age of the remaining players is
one year less than the average age of the whole team. What is the average age of the team?
a. 23 years b. 24 years c. 25 years d. None of these
9. The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than
zero?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 10 d.19
10. Find the average of numbers 87, 84, 86, 90, 82, 88, 78.
a. 85 b. 84 c. 83 d. 82
11. The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 Rs. 10,000. What will be
the average monthly income of a person in the same family if the income of one person
increased by Rs. 1,20,000 per year? (UPSC 2016)
a. Rs.12,000 b. 16,000 c. 20.000 d. 34.000
12. The average marks of 100 student are given to be 40. It was found later that marks of one
student were 53 which were misread as 83. The corrected mean marks are (UPSC 2019)
a. 39 b. 39.7 c. 40 d. 40.3
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13. A family has two children along with their parents. The average of the weights of the
children and their mother is 50 kg. The average of the weights of the children and their father
is 52 kg. If the weight of the father is 60 kg, then what is the weight of the mother?
(UPSC 2019)
a. 48 kg b. 50 kg c. 52 kg d. 54 kg
14. The average score of a batman after his 50th innings was 46.4. after 60th innings, his
average score increases by 2.6. What was his average score in the last ten innings?(UPSC
2020)
a. 122 b. 91 c. 62 d. 49
15. In a class, there are three groups A, B and C. If one student form group B are shifted to
group C, then what happens to the average weight of the students of the class? (UPSC 2020)
a. It increases b. It decreases c. It remains the same
d. No conclusion can be drawn due to the insufficient data
16. The average age of a teacher and three students is 20 years. If all the three students are of
same age and the difference between the age of the teacher and each student is 20 years, then
what is the age of the teacher? (UPSC 2020)
a. 25 years b. 30 years c. 35 years d. 45 years
17. The average age of husband, wife and their child 3 years ago was 27 years and that of
wife and the child 5 years ago was 20 years. The present age of the husband is:
a. 35 years b. 40 years c. 50 years d. None of these
18. The average of first 10 natural numbers is?

a. 5 b. 5.5 c. 6 d. 6.5
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19.There are two classes A and B having 25 and 30 students respectively. In class-A the
highest score is 21 and lowest score is 17. In class-B the highest score is 30 and lowest score
is 22. Four students are shifted form class-A to class-B. (UPSC
2021)
Consider the following statements:
1. The average score of class-B will definitely decrease.
2. The average score of class-A will definitely increase.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
20. Without any stoppage, a person travels a certain distance at an average speed of 42 km/h,
and with stoppages he covers the same distance at an average speed of 28 km/h. How many
minutes per hour does he stop?
a. 14 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 23 minutes d. 28 minutes
21. The average age of 10 men is increased by 3 years when one of them, whose age is 54
years is replaced by a woman. What is age of the woman?
22. The average weight of A,B,C is 40 kg, the average weight of B,D,E is 42 kg and the
weight of F is equal to that of B. what is the average weight of A, B, C, D, E and F?
(UPSC 2022)
a. 40.5 kg b. 40.8 kg c. 41 kg d.Cannotbedetermined as data is inadequate
23. Three maths classes: X, Y and Z take an algebra test. The average score of class X is 83.
The average score of class Y is 76. The average score of class Z is 85. The average score of
class X and Y is 79 and average score of class Y and Z is 81. What is the average score of
classes X, Y, Z?
a.83 b. 80.5 c. 81.5 d. 78
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24. The average marks of a group of 20 students on a test is reduced by 4 when the topper
who scored 90 marks is replaced by a new student. How many marks did the new student
have?
a. 30 b. 10 c. 20 d. 40
25. The average of 9 numbers is 14. If each number is increased by 4, the new average willbe
a. 16 b. 17 c. 15 d. 18
26. The average score of a cricketer in three matches is 44 runs and two other matches, it is
33 runs. Find the average in all the five matches.
a. 39.6 b. 29 c. 49.6 d. 39
27. The average of the first six multiples of 5 is

a. 18.50 b. 21 c. 28 d. 17.50
28. The average of 17 numbers is 10.9. If the average of first nine numbers is 10.5 and that of
the last nine numbers is 11.4, the middle number is
a. 11.8 b. 11.4 c. 10.9 d. 11.7
29. The average of the first ten even numbers is

a. 18 b. 22 c. 9 d. 11
30. Find average of natural numbers from 1 to 67?

a. 33.5 b. 34 c. 50 d. 67
Answer key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A d c c a b c a A d a a b d c c
Q 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A c b b a d d C a b d a d a d b
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4.Percentage
Percent literally means ‘for every 100’ and is derived from the French word ‘cent’, which is a
French word for 100. The basic utility of Percentage arises from the fact that it is one of the
most powerful tools for comparison of numerical data and information.
Mathematical definition of Percentage:
• The concept of percentage mainly applies to ratios, and the percentage value of a ratio
is arrived at by multiplying by 100 the decimal value of the ratio.
For example, a student scores 20 marks out of a maximum possible 30 marks.

His marks can then be denoted as 20 out of30 is (20/30) or (20/30) * 100% =
66.66%.
The process for getting this is perfectly illustrated through the unitary method:
If, 20 out of 30 then X out of 100
20 → 30
X → 100
Therefore,
20
𝑥 = 30 × 100 = 66.66%
Percentage Change:
If original value is changed to the new value, then % change is given as -
𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 − 𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑔𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒

% 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 = 𝑋 100 = 𝑋 100
𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑔𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑔𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
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Practice Questions:
1. Student A scores 20 marks in an examination out of 30 while another student B scores 40

marks out of 70. Who has performed better?
Ans : A
2. In a class, 60% of students are from India and 50% of the students are girls. If 30% of the
Indian students are girls, then what percentage of foreign students are boys? (UPSC 2021)
a. 45% b. 40% c. 30% d. 20%
3. A trader gives successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 10% respectively. The percentage of
the original cost price he will recover is:
a. 35.2% b. 64.8% c. 60.8% 68.8%
4. The length and the breadth of a rectangle are changed by +20% and by –10%, respectively.
What is the percentage change in the area of the rectangle?
a. 8% b. 10.8% c. 20% d. data insufficient
5. What is 10% of 20% of 25% of 100?

a. 0.5 b. 0.75 c. 0.25 d.1.0
6. Which of the following is the largest number?

a. 40% of 400 b. 5% of 800 c. 1000% of 4 d. 200% of 9
7. A’s salary is 20% lower than B’s salary, which is 15% lower than C’s salary. By how
much percent is C’s salary more than A’s salary?
a. 44.05% b. 45.05% c. 46.05% d.47.05%
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8. 20% of a number when subtracted from 108, gives the number itself. Find the number.
a. 50 b. 80 c. 70 d. 90
9. The population of a town is 5,00,000. The rate of increase is 20% per annum. Find the
population at the start of the third year.
a. 6,20,000 b. 7,20,000 c.8,30,000 d. None of these.
10. The population of a town is 6000. If the number of males increases by 10% and the
number of females increases by 20%, then the population becomes 6800. Find the population
of females in the town.
a. 2500 b. 3000 c. 2000 d. 3500
11. If the price of an article is decreased by 20% and then the new price is increased by 25%,
then what is the net change in the price?
a. 0% b. 5% increase c. 5% decrease d. Cannot be determined due to
insufficient data
12. When 70% of a number x is added to another number y, the sum becomes 165% of the
value of y. When 60% of the number x is added to another number z, then the sum becomes
165% of the value of z. Which one of the following is correct? (UPSC
2022)
a. z<x<y b. x<y<z c. y<x<z d. z<y<x
13. Two candidates X and Y contested an election. 80% of voters cast their vote. and there
were no invalid votes. There was no NOTA (None of the above) option. X got 56% of the
votes cast and won by 1440 votes. What is the total number of voters in the voters list?
(UPSC 2022)
a. 15000 b. 12000 c. 9600 d. 5000
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then what is the net change in the price? (UPSC 2021)
insufficient data
15. P scored 40 marks more than Q in an examination. If Q scored 10% less marks than P,
then how much did Q score? (UPSC 2021)
a. 360 b. 380 c. 400 d. 420
16. A student appeared in 6 papers. The maximum marks are the same for each paper. His
marks in these papers are in the proportion of 5: 6: 7: 8: 9: 10. Overall he scored 60%. In how
many numbers of papers did he score less than 60% of the maximum marks?
(UPSC 2021)
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
17. As a result of a 25% hike in the price of rice per kg, a person is able to purchase 6 kg less
rice for Rs 1,200. What was the original price of rice per kg? (UPSC 2020)
a. Rs. 30 b. Rs. 40 c. Rs. 50 d. Rs. 60
18. A and B are heavy steel blocks. If B is placed on the top of A, the weight increases by
60%. How much weight will reduce with respect to the total weight of A and B, if B is
removed from the top of A?
(UPSC 2019)
a. 60% b. 45.5% c. 40% d. 37.5%
19. A student has to get 40% marks to pass in an examination. Suppose he gets 30 marks and
fails by 30 marks, then what are the maximum marks in the examination? (UPSC 2018)
a. 100 b. 120 c. 150 d. 300
20. In a test, a candidate attempted only 8 questions and secured 50% marks in each of the
questions. If he obtained a total of 40% in the test and all questions in the test carried equal
marks, how many questions were there in the test? (UPSC
2015)
a. 8 b. 10 c. 15 d. 1
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21. What is the 10% of 20% of 25% of 100?

a. 0.5 b. 0.75 c. 0.25 d. 1.0
22. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples and still has 420 apples. Originally,
he had:
a. 588 apples b. 600 apples c. 672 apples d. 700 apples
23. Geeta went to the stationers and bought things worth Rs. 25, out of which 30 paise went
on sales tax on taxable purchases. If the tax rate was 6%, then what was the cost of the tax-
free items?
a. 15 b. 15.70 c. 19.70 d. 20
24. A’s salary increases by 20% and then decreases by 20%. What is the net percentage
change A’s salary?
a. 16% b. 4% c. 2% d. 8%
25. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, the final value of the number
is?
a. does not change b. decreases by 2% c. increases by 4% d. decreases by 4%
26. Thirty percent of a number when subtracted form 91, gives the number itself. Find the
number.
a. 60 b. 65 c. 70 d. 75
27.The population of a town is 6000. If the number of males increases by 10% and the
number of females increases by 20 %, then the. population becomes 6800. Find the
population of females in the town.
a. 2500 b. 3000 c. 2000 d. 3500
28. An item is bought for Rs 42 and sold it for Rs. 52.50. Calculate the percentage increase.
a. 20% b. 80% c. 22% d. 25%
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29. In a school there are 1000 students in the year 1999. The number of students increased by
20% in the year 2000. And it is increased by 15% in the year 2001. But it is decreased by
20% in 2002. Then what is the strength in 2002?
a. 1200 b. 1300 c. 1150 d. 1104
30.The difference between 42% of a number and 28% of the same number is 210. What is
59% of that number?
a. 630 b. 885 c. 420 d. 900 d. None of these
Answer key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A a d a a a a d d b c a a a a a
Q 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A b b d c b a d c b d c c d d b
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5. Profit and Loss

Basics:
• The price at which a person buys a product is the cost price (CP) of the product for
that person.
• The price at which a person sells a product is the selling price (SP) of the product for
that person.
• When a person is able to sell a product at a price higher than its cost price, we say that
he has earned a profit. That is,
If SP > CP, the difference, SP – CP is known as the profit or gain.
• Similarly, if a person sells an item for a price lower than its cost price, we say that a
loss has been incurred.
If, however, SP < CP, then the difference, CP – SP is called the loss.
Formulae:
• Profit=SP – CP
• Loss = CP – SP
• Percentage Profit = (Profit/CP) * 100
• Percentage Loss = (Loss/CP) * 100
(Note: in both % profit and % loss, denominator is CP)
Practice Questions:
1. A shopkeeper sold goods for Rs. 2000 at a profit of 25%. Find the cost price for the
shopkeeper.
a. 1600 b. 600 c. 400 d.800
2. A man buys shirt and trousers for Rs. 371. If the trouser costs 12% more than the shirt, find
the cost of the shirt.
a. Rs. 125 b. Rs. 150 c. Rs. 175 d. Rs. 200
3. By selling a watch for Rs. 560, a shopkeeper incurs a loss of 20%. Find the cost price of
the watch
a. 600 b. 700 c. 750 d. 800
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4. By selling bouquets for Rs. 690, a florist gains 15%. At what price should he sell the
bouquets to gain 25% on the cost price?
a. Rs.720 b. Rs.750 c. Rs. 660 d. Rs.780
5. A shopkeeper bought 480 chocolates at Rs. 6 per dozen. If he sold all of them at Rs. 0.75
each, what was his profit per cent?
a. 50% b. 33(1/3) % c. 75% d. 20%
6. If Soham while selling two goats at the same price, makes a profit of 10% on one goat and
suffers a loss of 10% on the other one (UPSC
2014)
a. He makes no profit and no loss. B. He makes a profit of 1%
c. He suffers a loss of 1% d. He suffers a loss of 2%
7. A shopkeeper sells an article at Rs. 40 and gets X% profit. However, when he sells it at Rs.
20, he faces same percentage of loss. What is the original cost of the article?(UPSC 2018)
a. Rs. 10 b. Rs. 20 c. Rs. 30 d. Rs. 40
8. Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it to Ram at 10% profit. Then Ram wanted to sell it
back to Gopal at 10% loss. What will be Gopal position if he agreed?(UPSC 2017)
a. Neither loss nor gain b. Loss 1% c. Gain 1% d. Gain 0.5%
then what is the net change in the price? (UPSC 2021)

insufficient data
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10. A man sells a plot of land at 8% profit. If he had sold it at 15% profit, he would have
received Rs. 630 more. What is the selling price of the land?
a. 9320 b. 9600 c. 9820 d. 9720
11. A person bought a car and sold it for Rs. 3,00,000. If he incurred a loss of 20%, then how
much did he spend to buy the car? (UPSC 2020)
a. Rs. 3,60,000 b. Rs. 3,65000 c. Rs. 3,70,000 d. Rs. 3,75,000
12. If books bought at prices ranging from Rs. 200 to Rs. 350 are sold at prices ranging from
Rs. 300 to Rs. 425, what is the greatest possible profit that might be made in selling eight
books?
13. Rakesh had money to buy 8 mobile handsets of a specific company. But the retailer
offered very good discount on that particular handset. Rakesh could buy 10 mobile handsets
with the amount he had. What was the discount the retailer offered?
(UPSC 2029)
a. 15% b. 20% c. 25% d. 30%
14. A reduction in the price of petrol by 10% enables a motorist to buy 5 litres more for
rupees 180. What is the original price of the petrol?
a. Rs. 4 b. Rs. 5 c. Rs.45 d. Rs. 400
15. By selling a mat for ₹690, Ranveer gains 15%. At what price should he sell the mats to
gain 25% on the cost price.
a. ₹ 720 b. ₹ 750 c. ₹ 660 d. ₹ 780
16. A sly shopkeeper professes to sell sugar at 30% loss but he uses 200 gm weight instead of
500 gm. Find his actual profit%.
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a. 75% b. 65% c. 55% d. 45%

17. A and B started a business with Rs. 1500 and Rs. 2500 and got a profit of Rs. 800. Half of
the profit is shared equally the remaining is shared according to their investment. Find their
profits respectively.
a. Rs. 400 and Rs. 400 b. Rs. 500 and Rs. 300 c.Rs. 300 and Rs. 500
d. Rs. 350 and Rs. 450
18. Raj sold an item for Rs. 6, 384/- and incurred a loss of 30%. At what price should he have
sold the item to have gained a profit of 30%?
a. Rs. 14, 565/- b. Rs. 11, 856/- c. Rs. 13, 544/- d. cannot be determined
19. A vendor bought 6 oranges for Re 10 and sold them at 4 for Re 6. Find his loss or gain
percent.
a. 8% gain b. 10% gain c. 8% loss d. 10% loss
20. Pure ghee costs Re 100 per kg. A shopkeeper mixes vegetable oil costing Re 50 per kg
and sells the mixture at Re 96 per kg, making a profit of 20%. In what ratio does he mix the
pure ghee with the vegetable oil.
a. 3:2 b. 2:3 c. 4:3 d. 3:1
21. Anil buys a calculator for Re 600 and sells it to Vikash at 10% profit. Vikash sells it to
Chandan for 5 % profit. Chandan after using it for certain time, sells it to Dinesh at a loss of
20%. For how much Chandan sell the calculator to Dinesh.
a. Re.550.50 b. 564.40 c. 554.40 d. None of these
22. By celling a cap for ₹29.75, a man gains 6.25%. What will be the cost price of the cap?
a. ₹ 26 b. ₹ 27.5 c. ₹ 28 d. ₹ 27.80
23. Find a single discount equivalent to the discount series of 20%, 25%, 20%.
a. 66% b. 46% c. 52% d. 34%
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24. A person buys a horse for 15 pounds. After one year, he sells it for 20 pounds. After one
year, again he buys the same horse at 30 pounds and sells it for 40 pounds. What is the
overall profit percent for that person over both the transactions?
a. 30.33% b. 33.33% c. 35.33% d. 40.33%
25. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is
25%, then the value of x is:
a. 15 b. 16 c. 18 d. 25
Answer key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A a c b b a c c c a d d c b a b
Q 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
A a d b d a c c C b b
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6. Interest (Simple and Compound Interest)
Concept of time value of money: The value of money is not constant. This is one of the
principal facts on which the entire economic world is based. A rupee today will not be equal
to a rupee tomorrow. Hence, a rupee borrowed today cannot be repaid by a rupee tomorrow.
This is the basic need for the concept of interest. The rate of interest is used to determine the
difference between what is borrowed and what is repaid.
There are two bases on which interests are calculated:
• Simple Interest: It is calculated on the basis of a basic amount borrowed for the
entire period at a particular rate of interest. The amount borrowed is the principal for
the entire period of borrowing.
• Compound Interest: The interest of the previous year/s is/are added to the principal
for the calculation of the compound interest.
Important Terminologies:
• The man who lends money is the Creditor and the man who borrows money is the
Debtor.
• The amount of money that is initially borrowed is called the Capital or Principal
money.
• The period for which money is deposited or borrowed is called Time.
• The extra money that will be paid or received for the use of the principal after a
certain period is called the Total Interest on the capital.
• The sum of the principal and the interest at the end of any time is called the Amount.
o So, Amount = Principal + Total Interest.
• Rate of Interest is the rate at which the interest is calculated and is always specified in
percentage terms.
Simple Interest
𝐼 =𝑝×𝑡×𝑟
Where,
P - Principal; t- time, r- rate of interest (per cent per annum)
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Total Amount = I + P
Compound Interest
Let principal = P, time = t years and rate = r% per annum and let A be the total amount at the
end of n years, then
𝑟 𝑡
𝐴 = (1 + )
100
Practice Questions:
1. Rs. 1200 is lent out at 5% per annum simple interest for 3 years. Find the amount after 3
years.
a. 1380 b. 1290 c. 1470 d. 1200
2. Rs. 2100 is lent at compound interest of 5% per annum for 2 years. Find the amount after
two years.
a. Rs. 2300 b. Rs. 2315.25 c. 2425.5 d. 2447.5
3. Find the difference between the simple and the compound interest at 5% per annum for 2
years on a principal of Rs. 2000.
a. 5 b. 105 c. 4.5 d. None of these
4. In what time will Rs 500 give Rs 50 as interest at the rate of 5% per annum simple
interest?
5. If the difference between the simple interest and compound interest on some principal
amount at 20% per annum for 3 years is Rs 48, then the principal amount must be
a. 550 b. 500 c. 375 d. 400
6. A sum of money doubles itself in 5 years. In how many years will it become four-fold (if
interest is compounded)?
a. 10 b. 17 c. 20 d. 12
7. A person bought a refrigerator worth Rs. 22,800 with 12.5% interest compounded yearly.
At the end of first year he paid Rs. 8,650 and at the end of second year Rs. 9,125. How much
will he have to pay at the end of third year to clear the debt?
(UPSC 2017)
a. 9,990 b. 10,000 c. 10,590 d. 11,250
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8. The simple interest on a sum of money is 25% of the principal, and the rate per annum is
equal to the number of years. Find the rate percent.
a. 4.5% b. 6% c. 5% d. 8%
9. If the difference between compound and simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3
years at 10% per annum is ₹310, what is the sum?
a. ₹8000 b. ₹1000 c. ₹10000 d. ₹5000
10. After how many years will a sum of ₹12,500 become ₹17,500at a rate of 10% per annum?
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
a b a a c a d c c c
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7. Ratio, Proportion and Variation
In general, the ratio of a number x to a number y is defined as the quotient of the numbers x
and y.
Ratios can be expressed as percentages. To express the value of a ratio as a percentage, we
multiply the ratio by 100.
Thus, 4/5 = 0.8 = 80%
Some Important Properties:

• If we multiply the numerator and the denominator of a ratio by the same number, the
ratio remains unchanged.
That is, a/b = ma/mb
• If we divide the numerator and the denominator of a ratio by the same number, the
ratio remains unchanged. Thus,
a/b= (a/m)/(b/m)
• Denominator equation method: The magnitudes of two ratios can be compared by
equating the denominators of the two ratios and then checking for the value of the
numerator.
o eg. Which is larger: 8/3 or 11/4
• If either or both the terms of a ratio are a surd quantity, then the ratio will never
evolve into integral numbers unless the surd quantities are equal. use this principle to
spot options in questions having surds.
• If a/b = c/d = e/f = g/h = k then
K = (a+c+e+g) / (b + d + f + h)
Mathematical use of ratio and Proportions:

• As a bridge between 3 or more quantities:
o If A: B and B:C is given A:C can be found out
• Ratio as a Multiplier
If A: B is 3:1, then the value of B has to be multiplied by 3 to get the value of A.
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Calculations
Calculation methods for Ratio comparisons:
The Cross Multiplication Method
Two ratios can be compared using the cross-multiplication method as follows:
• Suppose you have to compare 12/17 with 15/19. Then, to test which ratio is higher,
cross multiply and compare 12 * 19 and 15 * 17.
If 12 * 19 is bigger the Ratio 12/17 will be bigger. If 15 * 17 is higher, the ratio 15/19
will be higher.
In this case, 15 * 17 being higher, the Ratio 15/19 is higher.
Proportions
When two ratios are equal, then the quantities composing them are said to be proportional.
Thus, if a/b = c/d, then a, b, c, d isproportional. This is expressed as
a: b:c: d or a: b = c: d
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Variations
1. Direct Proportion (A∝ B)

When it is said that A varies directly as B, you should understand the following
implications:
1. Logical implication: When A increases B increases
2. Calculation implication: If A increases by 10%, B will also increase by 10%
3. Graphical implications: See following graph
4. Equation implication: The ratio A/B is constant.
2. InverseProportion(A∝1/B):
When A varies inversely as B, the following implication arises:
a. Logical implication: When A increases B decreases
b. Calculation implication: If A decreases by 9.09%, B will increase by
10%.
c. Graphical implications: see graph above
d. Equation implication: The product A * B is constant.
Practice Questions
1. Rs. 5783 is divided among Aman, Balan, and Chintan in such a way that if Rs. 28, Rs. 37
and Rs. 18 are deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 4:6:9. Find
Aman’s share.
a.1228 b. 1245.5 c. 1328 d. 1356
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2. If 10 persons can clean 10 floors by 10 mops in 10 days, in how many days can 8 persons
clean 8 floors by 8 mops
a. 12 days b. 10 days c. 11 days d. 8 days
3. Rs. 3650 is divided among 4 engineers, 3 MBAs and 5 CAs such that 3 CAs get as much
as 2 MBAs and 3 Engineers as much as 2 CAs. Find the share of an MBA.
4. Divide Rs. 1400 into three parts in such a way that half of the first part, one-fourth of the
second part and one-eighth of the third part are equal.
a. 300, 600, 500 b. 200, 400, 800 c.100, 400, 1000 d. None of these
5. The ratio of water and milk in a 30-litre mixture is 7: 3. Find the quantity of water to be
added to the mixture in order to make this ratio 6:1
a. 30 b. 32 c. 33 d. 35
6. A student appeared in 6 papers. The maximum marks are the same for each paper. His
marks in these papers are in the proportion of 5:6:7: 8: 9: 10. overall he scored 60%. In how
many numbers of papers did he score less than 60% of the maximum marks? (UPSC 2021)
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d.5
7. Out of 120 applications for a post, 70 are males and 80 have a driver license. What is the
ratio of between the minimum to maximum number of males having driver's license.
(UPSC 2013)
a.1:2 b.2:3 c.3:7 d.5:7
8. In a rare coin collection, there is one gold coin for every three non-gold coins. 10 more
gold coins are added to the collection and the ratio of gold coins to non-gold coins would be
1 : 2. Based on the information; the total number of coins in the collection now becomes.
(UPSC 2013)
a. 90 b.80 c. 60 d. 50
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9. The ratio of a two-digit natural number to a number formed by reversing its digits is 4:7.
The number of such pairs is (UPSC 2019)
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
10. The monthly incomes of X and Y are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and their monthly expenses are
in the ratio of 3: 2. However, each saves Rs. 6,000 per month. What is their total monthly
income?
(UPSC 2017)
a. 28,000 b. 42,000 c. 56,000 d. 84,000
11. The monthly incomes of Peter and Paul are in the ratio of 4:3. Their expenses are in the
ratio of 3:2. If each saves Rs. 6,000 at the end of the month, their monthly incomes
respectively are (in Rs.)
(UPSC 2015)
a. 24,000 and 18,000 b. 28000 and 21000 c. 32,000 and 24,000
d. 34,000 and 26,000
12. A sum of Rs. 2,500 is distributed among X, Y and Z in two ratio 1/2 ∶ 3/4 ∶ 5/6. What is
the difference between the maximum share and the minimum share? (UPSC
2020)
a. Rs 300 b. Rs. 350 c. Rs. 400 d. Rs. 450
13. A 6 student appeared in 6 papers. The maximum marks are the same for each paper. His
marks in these are in the proportion of 5:6:7: 8:9:10 overall he scored 60%. In how many
numbers of papers did he score less than 60% of the maximum marks?
(UPSC 2021)
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
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14. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a
proposal to increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of
increased seats?
a. 2 : 3 : 4 b. 6 : 7 : 8 c. 6 : 8 : 9 d. None of these
15. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college is 7: 8. If the percentage increase in
the number of boys and girls be 20% and 10% respectively, what will be the new ratio?
a. 8: 9 b. 17: 18 c. 21: 22 d. Cannot be determined
16. If x varies as y, and y = 4 when x =12, find x when y = 15.
a. 45 b. 54 c. 70 d. 15
17. The ratio of water and milk in a 30-litre mixture is 7:3. Find the quantity of water to be
added to the mixture in order to make this ratio 6:1.
a. 6 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7
18. Rahul has coins of the denomination of ₹ 1, 50 p and 25 p in the ratio of 12:10:7. The
total worth of the coins he has is ₹ 112.5. Find the number of 25 p coins that Rahul has
a. 48 b. 72 c. 60 d. 42
19. Four numbers in the ratio 1:2:4:8 add up to give a sum of 120. Find the value of the
biggest number.
a. 40 b. 30 c. 64 d. 60
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20. The ratio between two numbers is 7:11 and their LCM is 154. The first number is:
a. 14 b. 7 c. 22 d. 32
21. A fort has provisions for 60 days. If after 15 days 500 men strengthen them and the food
lasts 40 days longer, how many men are there in the fort?
22. The ratio of the age of a man and his wife is 4 : 3. After 4 years, this ratio will be 9 : 7. If
at the time of the marriage, the ratio was 5:3, then how many years ago they were married?
23. 60 litres of diesel is required to travel 600 km using a 800 cc engine. If the volume of
diesel required to cover a distance varies directly as the capacity of the engine, then how
many litres of diesel is required to travel 800 km using 1200 cc engine?
a. 80 litres b. 90 litres c. 120 litres d. 170 litres
24. If 20 men or 24 women or 40 boys can do a task in 12 days working for 8 hours a day,
how many men working with 6 women and 2 boys take to do a task four times as big working
for 5 hours a day for 12 days?
a. 8 men b. 2 men c. 122 men d. 24 men
25. If ₹ 232 is divided among 150 children such that each girl and each boy gets ₹1 and ₹2
respectively. Then hoe many girls are there?
a. 52 b. 54 c. 68 d. 62
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Answer key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A b b b b c b c a b b a c b a c
Q 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
A a c d c a c a c c c
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8.Time and Work
In the context of the time and work, you have to understand the following basic concepts of
this chapter:
• If A does a work in ‘a’ day, then in one day A does 1/a of the work.
• If B does a work in b days, then in one day B does 1/b of the work.
• Then, in one day, if A and B work together, then their combined work is (1/a + 1/b) or
(a+b)/ab
• In the above case, we take the total work to be done as “1 unit of work”. Hence, the
work will be completed when 1 unit of work is completed.
o For example, if A can do a work in 10 days and B can do the same work in 12
days, then the work will be completed in how many days.
▪ One day’s work = 1/10 + 1/12 = (12 + 10)/120
▪ [Taking LCM of the denominators] = 22/120
▪ Then the number of days required to complete the work is 120/22.
▪ Note that this is a reciprocal of the fraction of work done in one day.
This is a benefit associated with solving time and work through
fractions. It can be stated as—the number of time periods required to
complete the full work will be the reciprocal of the fraction of the work
done in one time period.
• Formula: (M1*D1*H1)/W1 = (M2*D2*H2)/W2.
o Where, M1 and M2 represent the number of “Men”.
o D1 and D2 represent the number of “Days”.
o H1 and H2 represent the number of “Hours”.
o W1 and W2 represent the “Work Done”.
Practice Questions:
1. A can do work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the
fraction of the work that is left is:
a. ¼ b. 1/10 c.7/15 d. 8/15
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2. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days
can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
3. A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it
for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid
to C?
a. Rs. 400 b. Rs. 800 c. Rs. 1600 d. None of these
4. A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C
together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it?
a. 10 hours b. 12 hours c. 8 hours d. 24 hours
5. Mr. Ram has a sum of money, which is sufficient to pay Usha's wages for 30 days and
Manika's wages for 60 days. If he employs them together, the money is sufficient to pay their
wages for how many days?
a) 12 Days b) 10 Days c) 30 Days d) 20 Days e) 36 Days
6.24 men and 12 women can do a piece of work in 30 days. In how many days can 12 men
and 24 women do the same piece of work? (UPSC 2022)
a. 30 days b. More than 30 days c. Less than 30 days or more than 30

days
d. Data is inadequate to draw any conclusion
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7. Sudhir can do a work in 10 days and Rahul in 15 days. Mohit, who can finish the same
work in 20 days, joins them, then how long will they take to complete the work?
a. 5.12 days b. 4.62 days c. 5.67 days d. 4.82 days
8. Tushar and Ajay together can do a piece of work in 7 days. If Tushar dose twice as much
work as Ajay in a given time, how long will Tushar along take to do the work?
a. 6.33 days b. 10.5 days c. 11 days d. 72 days
9. Aman completed the school project in 20 days. How many days will Kiran take to
complete the same work if he is 25% more efficient than Dev?
10. A, B, C, and D can do a piece of work in 20 days. If A and B can do it together in 50

days, and C alone in 60 days, find the time in which D alone can do it.
11. A can do a piece of work in 12 days. B can do this work in 16 days. A started the work
alone. After how many days should B join him, so that the work is finished in 9 days?
12. 45 men can complete a work in 16 days. Six days after they started working, 30 more
men joined them. In how many days the total work will be completed?
a. 12 b. 6 c. 15 d. 14
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13. If 9 men working 7.5 hours a day can finish a piece of work in 20 days, then how many
days will be taken by 12 men, working 6 hours a day to finish the work? It is being given that
2 men of latter type work as much as 3 men of the former type?
a. 10.5 b. 11 c. 13 d. 12.5
14.. A contractor agreeing to finish a work in 150 days, employed 75 men each working 8
hours daily. After 90 days, only 2/7 of the work was completed. Increasing the number of
men by ____ and each one is working now for 10 hours daily, the work can be completed in
time.
a. 75 b. 225 c. 150 d. 100
15. Twenty women can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen men can complete the same work
in fifteen days. What is the ratio between the capacity of a man and a woman?
a. 3:4 b. 4:3 c. 5:3 d. data inadequate
16. 10 women can complete a work in 7 days and 10 children take 14 days to complete the
work. How many days will 5 women and 10 children take to complete the work?
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d.Cannot be determined e. None of these
17. A man complete 7/8 of a job in 21 days. How many more days will it take him to finish
the job if quantum of work is further increase by 50 %? (UPSC 2021)
a. 24 b. 21 c. 18 d. 15
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18. In a garrison, there was food for 1000 soldiers for one month. After 10 days 1000 more
soldiers joined the garrison. How long would the soldiers be able to carry on with the
remaining food? (UPS C
2013)
a. 25 days b. 20 days c. 10 days b. 15 days
19. The tank-full of petrol in Arun's motor-cycle lasts for 10 days. If he starts using 25%
more every day, how many days will the tank-full of petrol last? (UPSC
2013)
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
20. Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four days and complete 60% of it. Ram takes
leaves and then Shyam works for eight more days to complete the job. How long would Ram
take to complete the entire job alone? (UPSC 2016)
a. 6 days b. 8 days c. 10 days b. 11 days
21. W can do 25% of a work in 30-day, X can do 1/4 of the work in 10 days, Y can do 40%
of work in 40 days and Z can do 1/3 of the work in 13 days. Who will complete the work
first?
a. W b. X c. Y b. Z
22. To complete a piece of work, Samir takes 6 days and Tanvir takes 8 days alone
respectively. Samir and Tanvir took Rs.2400 to do this work. When Amir joined them, the
work was done in 3 days. What amount was paid to Amir?
a. Rs. 300 b. Rs. 400 c. Rs. 800 d. Rs. 500
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23. Ram completed the school project in 20 days. How many days will Arun take to complete
the same work if he is 25% more efficient than Ram?
24. A can fabricate a divider in 30 days , while B alone can assemble it in 40 days, If they
construct it together and get an instalment of RS. 7000, what B's offer?
a. 2000 b. 3000 c. 4000 d. 6500
25. Kim can do a work in 3 days while David can do the same work in 2 days. Both of them
finish the work together and get Rs. 150. What is the share of Kim?
a. Rs. 50 b. Rs. 60 c. Rs. 70 d. Rs. 80
Answer key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A d b a b d d b b c b a b c b b
Q 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
A c d c d c d a c b b
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9. Speed, Time and Distance
The mathematical model that describes motion has three variables, namely: Speed, Time and
Distance. The interrelationship between these three is also the most important formula for
this chapter, namely:
Speed X Time = Distance (Equation for the description of one motion of one body)
The above equation is the mathematical description of the movement of a body. In complex
problems, students tend to get confused regarding the usage of this equation and often end up
mixing up the speed, time and distance of different motions of different bodies.
It must be mentioned here that this formula is the cornerstone of the chapter Time, Speed and
Distance.
Note:
• Basic Time and Distance Problems.

• Average Speed.
• Relative Speed.
• Problems Based onTrains.
• Boats And Streams
• Distance = Speed * Time
• km/hrtom/sec and Vice Versa (Factor Of 5/18).
• Average Speed is Not Averages ofSpeed.
o Average Speed = Total Distance Travelled/Total Time Taken
• Note:All Units Must Be Same**.
Practice Questions:
1.A man in a car can count 25 telephone posts in 1min. If they are known to be 40m apart,
then at what speed is the car travelling?
a. 52.4 km/h b. 57.6 km/h c. 48.2 km/.h d. 44.9 km/h
2. A person travelled a distance of 50 km in 8h. He covered a part of the distance on foot @

of 4km/h and a part on bicycle @ 10km/h. How much distance did he travel on foot?
a. 10 b. 30 c. 20 d. 15
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3. Two cities A and B 360km apart. A car goes from A to B @40km/h and B to A @ 60k/h.
Find average speed.
a. 45 km/hr b. 48 km/hr c. 50 km/hr d. 55 km/hr
4. Mr. Kumar drives to work at an average speed of 48 k/h. The time taken to cover the 60%
of the distance is 10 min more than the time taken to cover the remaining distance. How far is
the office?
a. 30 km b. 40 km c. 48 km d. 56 km
5. A bus is moving 30km/h ahead of a car moving at 50 km/h. How many km apart are they if
it takes 15 min for the car to catch the bus?
a. 5 km b. 7.5 km c. 12.5 km d. 45 km
6. Two trains leave Delhi for Dehradun at 10 and 10:30 am respectively and travel @ 120 k/h
and 150 k/h resp. How many km from Delhi will the two trains meet?
a. 300 km b. 200 km c. 150 km d. 400 km
7. A Shri decided to cover a distance of 6 km in 84 minutes. He decided to cover two thirds

of the distance at 4 km / hr and the remaining at some different speed. Find the speed after
the two third distance has been covered.
a. 5 kmph b. 6 kmph c. 7 kmph d. 3 kmph
8. A worker reaches his factory 3 min late walking @ 5 km/h and 7 min early walking @
6k/h. The distance between the house and the factory is? (UPSC 2014)
a. 3 km b. 4 km c. 5 km d. 6 km
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9. A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 km/hr. If the thief is
100 metres ahead of the policeman, then the time required for the policeman to catch the thief
will be. (UPSC
2013)
a. 2 min b. 3 min c. 4 min d. 6 min
10. A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels a
distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than its original speed. If it takes 3
hours to complete the total journey, what is its original average speed?
(UPSC 2013)
a. 24 b. 33 c. 42 d. 66
11. A person can walk a certain distance and drive back in 6 h. He can also walk both ways in
10 h. How much time will he take to drive both ways? (UPSC 2013)
a. Two hours b. Two and a half hours c. Five and a half hours d. Four hours
12. Two cars start towards each other, from two places A and B which are at a distance of
160 km. They start at the same time 08 :10 AM. If the speeds of the cars are 50 km and 30
km per hour respectively, they will meet each other at (UPSC 2014)
a. 10:10 AM b. 10:30 AM c. 11:10 AM d. 11:20 AM
13. In a 500 metres race, B starts 45 metres ahead of A, but A wins the race while B is still 35
metres behind. What is the ratio of the speeds of A to B assuming that both start at the same
time? (UPSC
2015)
a. 25:21 b. 25:20 c. 5:3 d. 5:7
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14. A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later an
express train left Delhi for Mumbai following the freight train on a parallel track at an
average speed of 60 km/hr. How far from Delhi would the express train meet the freight
train?
(UPSC 2017)
a. 480 km b. 260 km c. 240 km d. 120 km
15. Two persons, A and B are running on a circular track. At the start, B is ahead of A and
their positions make an angle of 30° at the centre of the circle. When A reaches the point
diametrically opposite to his starting point, he meets B. What is the ratio of speeds of A and
B, if they are running with uniform speeds? (UPSC
2018)
a. 6:5 b. 4:3 c. 6:1 d. 4:2
16. While going to office, Sunil travels at a speed of 30 kmph and on his way back, he travels
at a speed of 45 kmph. What is his average speed of the whole journey?
17. X, Y and Z are three contestants in a race of 1000 m. Assume that all run with different
uniform speeds. X gives Y a start of 40 m and X gives Z a start of 64 m. If Y and Z were to
compete in a race of 1000 m, how many metres start will Y give to Z? (UPSC 2019)
a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 35
18. A man takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is
the ratio between rate in still water and rate of current? (UPSC
2020)
a. 1:2 b. 2:1 c. 1:3 d. 3:1
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19. A car travels from a place X to place Y at an average speed of V km/hr, from Y to X at an
average speed of 2v km/hr, again from X to Y at an average speed of 3v km/hr and again
from Y to X at an average speed of 4v km/hr. Then the average speed of the car for the entire
journey
(UPSC 2020)
a. is less than v km/hr b. lies between v and 2v km/hr
c. lies between 2v and 3v km/hr d. lies between 3v and 4v km/hr
20. X and Y run a 3 km race along a circular course of length 300 m. Their speeds are in the
ratio 3:2. If they start together in the same direction, how many times would the first one pass
the other (the start-off is not counted as passing)? (UPSC
2022)
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
21. Shaym and Ram travel the same distance at the rate of 6 km per hour and 10 km per hour
respectively. If Shaym takes 30 minutes longer than Ram, the distance travelled by each is
a. 6 km b. 10 km c. 7.5 km d. 20 km
22. If Varun had walked 1 km/h faster, he would have taken 10 minutes less to walk 2
kilometre. What is Varun’s speed of walking?
23. Walking at ¾ of his normal speed, a man takes 2(1/2) hours more than the normal time.
Find the normal time.
a. 7.5 h b. 6 h c. 8 h d. 12 h
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24. Rajdhani Express travels 650 km in 5 h and another 940 km in 10 h. what is the average
speed of train?
a. 1590 km/h b. 168 km/h c. 106 km/h d. 126 km/h
25. A motor car dose a journey in 17.5 hours, covering the first half at 30 km/h and the
second half at 40 km/h. Find the distance of the journey.
a. 684 km b. 600 km c. 120 km d. 540 km
26. Walking at ¾ of his usual speed, a man is 16 minutes late for his office. The usual time
taken by him to cover that distance is
a. 48 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 42 minutes d. 62 minutes
27. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs 400 km in 4
hours, then the speed of the first train is:
a. 70 km/hr b. 75 km/hr c. 84 km/hr d. 87.5 km/hr
28. If a man can cover 12 metres in one second, how many kilometres can he cover in 3 hours
45 minutes?
a. 150 km b. 156 km c. 162 km d. 168 km
29. Walking with 4/5 of my usual speed, I miss the bus by 5 minutes. What is my usual time?
a. 15 mins b. 20 mins c. 25 mins d. 30 mins
30. Sagar was riding bike towards north, turned left road 1 km turns towards left & road 2
kms found himself 1 km west of starting. How far did he ride north?
a. 1.5 kms b. 2 kms c. 3 kms d. 3.5 kms
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Answer key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A b c b b a a a c b c a a a c a
Q 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A a b d b b c c a c B a d c b b
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10. Boats and Streams
The problems of boats and streams are also dependent on the basic equation of time, speed
and distance:
𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 =
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒
However, as in the case of trains the adjustments to be made for solving questions on boats
and streams are:
• The boat has a speed of its own, which is also called the speed of the boat in still
water (SB).
• Another variable that is used in boats and streams problems is the speed of the stream
(SS).
The speed of the movement of the boat is dependent on whether the boat is moving:
a. In still water the speed of movement is given by → SB.

b. While moving upstream (or against the flow of the water), the speed of movement is
given by→ SU = SB–SS.
c. While moving downstream (or with the flow of the water), the speed of movement is
given by → SD = SB+SS.
Practise Questions
1. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes to cover a certain distance, while it
takes 4 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio between the
speed of the boat and speed of the water current respectively?
a. 2 : 1 b. 3 : 2 c. 8 : 3 d. Cannot be determined
2. A boat takes 11 hours for travelling downstream from point A to point B and coming back
to point C midway between A and B. If the velocity of the stream is 3km/hr and the speed of
the boat in still water is 12 km/hr, what is the distance between A and B?
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a. 115 kms b. 120 kms c. 140 kms d. 90 kms
3. Monu can row 12 km/h in still water. It takes him twice as long to row up as to row down
the river. The rate of stream is
a. 8 km/h b. 4 km/h c. 6 km/h d. 16 km/h
4. A boat goes 48km in 20 h. It takes 4h more to cover the same distance against the stream.
a. 4.4 km/hr b. 2 km/hr c. 3.4 km/hr d. 2.2 km/hr
5. Supriya can swim in still water at a speed of 10 kmph. If speed of the current would have
been 5 kmph, then she could swim 60 km:
a. Upstream in 4 hours b. Downstream in 12 hours
d. Upstream in 6 hours d. Downstream in 4 hours
6. A woman rows downstream 18km and 12km upstream. If he takes 3 hours to cover each
distance, the velocity (in kmph) of the current is
a. 0.25 b. 0.5 c. 075 d. 1
7. If a boat goes 100km downstream in 600 minutes and the speed of the stream is 5 kmph,
the speed of the boat (in kmph) in still water is
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
8. A boat moves with a speed of 5 kmph in still water. When the river flows at 1 kmph, the
boat takes 80 minutes to go from a point A to B and come back. What is the distance between
the two points?
a. 3km b. 2.4km c. 3.2km d. 2.8km
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9. Adhira takes 18 hours for travelling upstream from point P to Q and coming back to a
point R midway between P and Q. If the velocity of the river is 6 kmph and the speed of
Adhira in still water is 10 kmph. What is the distance (in km) between P and Q
a. 30 b. 32 c. 64 d. none of these
10. The ratio of speed of a boat to that of the current of water is 36:5. The boat goes along
with the current in 5 hours 10 minutes. It will come back in
a. 5 hours 20 minutes b. 6 hours 10 minutes c. 6 hours 50 minutes d. 7 hours 10 minutes
Answer key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c d b d b d a c d c
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11. Algebra
Here is a list of the branches and sub-branches of Algebra. These branches are applied
accordingly to find the values of two or more variables. These algebraic branches are as
follows:
1. Elementary Algebra.
2. Advanced Algebra.
3. Abstract Algebra.
4. Communicative Algebra
5. Linear Algebra.
For UPSC CSAT exam only elementary algebra and linear algebra are important.
Polynomial: Polynomial. In mathematics, a polynomial is an expression consisting of

variables (also called indeterminates) and coefficients, that involves only the operations of
addition, subtraction, multiplication, and non-negative integer exponents of variables. An
example of a polynomial of a single indeterminate, x, is x2 − 4x + 7.
Degree of polynomial: Degree of Polynomials 1 Polynomial in One Variable. The degree of

polynomials in one variable is the highest power of the variable in the algebraic expression. 2
Browse more Topics Under Polynomials 3 Multivariable polynomial. For a multivariable
polynomial, it the highest sum of powers of different variables in any of the terms in the
expression.
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Practice Questions
1. The cost of two tables and three chairs is ₹705. If the table costs ₹40 more than the chair,
find the cost of the table and the chair.
a. 125 & 165 b. 155 & 165 c. 150& 180 d. 140 & 150
2. A sum of Rs. 13.50 is made by 38 coins which are either 50 paise or 25 paise. Find the
number of 25 paise coins?
a. 16 b. 24 c. 18 d. 22
3. In an examination consisting of 60 questions, three marks are given for every correct
answer and one mark is deducted for every wrong answer. A student attempts all the
questions and gets 120 marks.
a. 45 b. 42 c. 15 d. 18
4. If the price of a book is reduced by rupees 5 a person can buy 5 more books for rupees 300
find the original list price of the book.
a. Rs 15 b. Rs 20 c. Rs 25 d. Rs 30
5. A two-digit number is such that the ten's digit exceeds twice the units digit by 2 and the
number obtained by interchanging the digits is 5 more than 3 times the sum of the digits. Find
the two-digit number.
a. 86 b. 83 c. 89 d. 80
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6. If the present ages of Nandu and Shobhit are 20 and 24 years respectively, then find the
ratio between the ages of Nandu (before 4years) and Shobhit (after 4 years)
a. 5:9 b. 4:7 c. 2:3 d. 5:6
7. At present, the ratio between the ages of Arun and Deepak is 4: 3. After 6 years, Arun's
age will be 26 years. What is the age of Deepak at present?
a. 19 ½ years b. 15 years c. 12 years d. 21 years
8. The age of a man is three times the sum of the ages of his two sons. Five years hence, his
age will be double of the sum of the ages of his sons. The father's present age is?
9. In 1930, a person's age was 8 times that of his son. In 1938, the father's age became 10
times that of his son's age in 1930. The ages of the son and father in 1940 were.
a. 16 years 58 years b. 15 years 50 years c. 14 years 42 years d. 13 years 34 years
10. A father is nine times as old as his son and the mother is eight times as old as the son. The
sum of the father's and mother's age is 51 years. What is the age of the son?
11. A and B are two heavy steel blocks. If B is placed on the top of A, the weight increases
by 60%. How much weight will reduce with respect to the total weight of A and B, if B is
removed from the top of A?
a. 60% b. 45.5% c. 40% d. 37.5%
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12. In 2002, Meena’s age was one-third of the age of Meera, whereas in 2010, Meena’s age
was half the age of Meera. What is Meena’s year of birth?
a. 1992 b. 1994 c. 1996 d. 1998
13. Ena was born 4 years after her parents' marriage. Her mother is three years younger than
her father and 24 years older than Ena, who is 13 years old. At what age did Ena's father get
married?
Answer Key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
A a d a b b b b c c d d b b
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12.Set Theory
Set theory is the mathematical theory of well-determined collections, called sets, of objects
that are called members, or elements, of the set.
• Sets: A set is a collection of distinct objects, called elements of the set.
E.g.,The set of all even numbers
A= [2, 4, 6, ……….]
• A set simply specifies the contents; order is not important. The set represented by {1,
2, 3} is equivalent to the set {3, 1, 2}
• A set that contains no elements, { }, is called the empty set and is notated ∅
Union, Intersection, and Complement
• The union of two sets contains all the elements contained in both sets. The union is
notated A ⋃ B.
• The intersection of two sets contains only the elements that are in both sets. The
intersection is notated A ⋂ B.
• The complement of a set A contains everything that is not in the set A. The
complement is notated A’
• A universal set is a set that contains all the elements we are interested in. This would
have to be defined by the context.
Illustration:
Consider the sets:
A = {red, green, blue}
B = {red, yellow, orange}
C = {red, orange, yellow, green, blue, purple}
Then,
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• The union contains all the elements in either set:

o A ⋃ B = {red, green, blue, yellow, orange} Notice we only list red once.
• The intersection contains all the elements in both sets: A ⋂ B = {red}
• Suppose the universal set is U = all whole numbers from 1 to 9.
Then, If A = {1, 2, 4}, then A’ = {3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}.
Venn Diagram
• A⋃B =(A) +(B) – (A⋂B)
• A U B U C = (A) + (B) + (C) - (A ∩ B) - (B ∩ C) - (A ∩ C) + (A ∩ B ∩)
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Practice Questions
1. There are 20000 people living in Defence Colony, Gurgaon. Out of them 9000 subscribe to
Star TV Network and 12000 to Moon TV Network. If 4000 subscribe to both, how many do
not subscribe to any of the two?
a. 3000 b. 2000 c. 4000 d. 1000
2. At the birth party of Pranav, a baby boy, 40 persons chose to kiss him and 25 chose to
shake hands with him. 10 persons chose to both kiss him and shake hands with him. How
many persons turn out at the party?
a. 35 b. 75 c. 55 d. 25
3. A class has 175 students. The following data shows the number of students obtaining one
or more subjects. Mathematics 100, Physics 70, Chemistry 40; Mathematics and Physics 30,
Mathematics and Chemistry 28, Physics and Chemistry 23; Mathematics, Physics and
Chemistry 18. How many students have offered Mathematics alone
a. 35 b. 48 c. 60 d. 22
4. In a town of 10,000 families it was found that 40% family buy newspaper A, 20% buy
newspaper B and 10% families buy newspaper C, 5% families buy A and B, 3% buy B and C
and 4% buy A and C. If 2% families buy all the three newspapers, then number of families
which buy A only is
a. 3100 b. 3000 c. 3300 d. 4100
5. In a battle 70% of the combatants lost one eye, 80% an ear, 75% an arm, 85% a leg, x%
lost all the four limbs. The minimum value of x is
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6. In a class of 30 pupils, 12 take needle work, 16 take physics and 18 take history. If all the
30 students take at least one subject and no one takes all three then the number of pupils
taking 2 subjects is
a. 16 b. 6 c. 8 d. 20
7. In a city 20 percent of the population travels by car, 50 percent travels by bus and 10
percent travels by both car and bus. Then persons travelling by car or bus is
a. 80% b. 40% c. 60% d. 70%
8. 20 teachers of a school either teach mathematics or physics. 12 of them teach mathematics

while 4 teach both the subjects. Then the number of teachers teaching physics only is
9. In a group of 60 people, 27 like cold drinks and 42 like hot drinks and each person likes at
least one of the two drinks. How many like both coffee and tea?
a. 8 b. 10 c. 9 d. 26
10.In a test in which 120 students appeared, 90 passed in history, 65 passed in Sociology and
75 passed in political science. 30 students in only one subjects and 55 students in only 2. 5
students no subjects. How many students passed in all the 3 subjects?
a. 25 b. 30 c. 35 d. Data insufficient
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
a c c c a a c a c b
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13. Mixtures and Allegations
The mathematical concept of mixtures is based in the concept of weighted average. Weighted
average is defined as:
Weighted avg. = Sum of totals of all groups / Total number of elements in all groups together
For two groups:
Aw = (n1A1 + n2A2) / (n1 + n2)
If we solve it further, we get the equation as
n1/n2 = (A2-Aw)/(Aw-A1)
This equation is known as allegation equation, which is used to solve the problems on
mixtures.
Alligations formula is rearranged below for easy solutions.
• The basic formula which is used to find the ratio in which the ingredients are mixed
is
𝑄𝑢𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑐ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝐶. 𝑃. 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑟 − 𝑀𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒

=
𝑄𝑢𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑟 𝑀𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝑃𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒 − 𝐶. 𝑃. 𝑜𝑓 𝑐ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑝𝑒𝑟
It is also called the rule of allegation and can also be represented as
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Practice Questions:
Q1. A vessel is filled with liquid, 3 parts of which are water and 5 parts syrup. How much of
the mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water so that the mixture may be half water
and half syrup?
a. 1/6 b. 1/5 c. 2/5 d. 3/5
Q2. Tea worth Rs. 126 per kg and Rs. 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1:
1: 2. If the mixture is worth Rs. 153 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg will be:
a. Rs 175.5 b. Rs 180.0 c. Rs 159.5 d. Rs 170.0
Q3. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B is the ratio 7:5. When 9 litres of mixture
are drawn off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7:9. How many litres
of liquid A was contained by the can initially?
a. 10 b. 20 c. 21 d. 25
Q4. A milk vendor has 2 cans of milk. The first contains 25% water and the rest milk. The
second contains 50% water. How much milk should he mix from each of the containers so as
to get 12 litres of milk such that the ratio of water to milk is 3 : 5?
a. 4 litres, 8 litres b. 6 litres, 6 litres c. 5 litres, 7 litres
d. 7 litres, 5 litres
Q5. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of pulses costing Rs. 15 and Rs. 20 per kg
respectively so as to get a mixture worth Rs. 16.50 kg?
a. 3:7 b. 5:7 c. 7:3 d. 7:5
Q6. A dishonest milkman professes to sell his milk at cost price but he mixes it with water
and thereby gains 25%. The percentage of water in the mixture is:
a. 4% b. 6 1/4% c. 20% d. 25%
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Q7. How many kilogram of sugar costing Rs. 9 per kg must be mixed with 27 kg of sugar
costing Rs. 7 per kg so that there may be a gain of 10% by selling the mixture at Rs. 9.24 per
kg?
a. 36 kg b. 63 kg c. 54 kg d. 42 kg
Q8. A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container 4 litres of milk was taken out
and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times. How much milk is now
contained by the container?
a. 26.34 litres b. 27.36 litres c. 28 litres d. 29.16 litres
Q9. A jar full of whisky contains 40% alcohol. A part of this whisky is replaced by another
containing 19% alcohol and now the percentage of alcohol was found to be 26%. The
quantity of whisky replaced is:
a. 1/3 b. 2/3 c. 2/5 d. 3/5 e. None of these
Q10. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to gain 16% on selling the mixture at cost
price?
a. 1:6 b. 4:25 c. 2:3 d. 4:3
11. A bottle contains 20 litres of liquid Q. 4 litres of liquid A is taken out of its and replace by
same quantity of liquid B. Again 4 litres of the mixture is taken out and replaced by same
quantity of liquid B. What is the ratio of quantity of liquid A to that of liquid B in the final
mixture?
a. 4:1 b. 5:1 c. 16:9 d. 17:8
12. Two equal glasses of same type are respectively 1/3 and 1/4 full of milk. They are then
filled up with water and the contents are mixed in a pot. What is the ratio of milk and water in
the pot?
a. 9:21 b. 11:23 c.7:17 d. 1:3
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13. 30g of sugar was mixed in 180 ml water in a vessel A, 40 g of sugar Was mixed in 280
ml of water in vessel B and 20 g of sugar was mixed in 100 ml of water in vessel C. The
solution in vessel B is (UPSC 2016)
a. sweeter than that in C b. sweeter than that in A
c. as sweet as that in C d. less sweet than that in C
14. There is a milk sample with 50% water in it. If 1/3 of this sample is added to equal
amount pure milk, then water in the new mixture will fall down to.
(UPSC 2017)
a. 25% b. 30% c. 35% d. 40%
15. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of tea worth Rs. 60 a kg and Rs. 65 a kg so
that by selling the mixture at Rs. 68.20 a kg he may gain 10%?
a. 3:2 b. 3:4 c. 3:5 d. 4:5
16. Two vessels A and B contain spirit and water mixed in the ratio 5: 2 and 7: 6 respectively.
Find the ratio in which this mixture be mixed to obtain a new mixture in vessel C containing
spirit and water in the ration 8: 5?
a. 4:3 b. 3:4 c. 5:6 d.7:9
17. The cost of Type I rice is Rs. 15 per kg and Type 2 rice is Rs 20 per kg. If both Type 1
and Type 2 are mixed in the ratio 2: 3, then the price per kg of the mixed variety of rice is: Rs
a. 18 b. 18.50 c. 19 d. 19.50 e. None of these
18. In a pot, there is a mixture of milk and water in the ratio 4 : 5. If it is filled with an
additional 8 litres of milk, the pot would be full and ratio of milk and water would become 6 :
5. Find the capacity of the pot ?
a. 11 litres b. 44 litres c. 33 litres d. 22 liters
19. Priti possessing ₹ 10,000, lent a part of it at 15% simple interest and the remaining at 10%
simple interest. Her total income after 5 years was ₹6500. Find the sum lent at 20% rate.
a. ₹2000 b. ₹4000 c. ₹3000 d. None of these
20. In what ratio should water be mixed with soda costing ₹12 per litre so as to make a profit
of 50% by selling the diluted liquid at ₹15 per litre?
a. 10:1 b. 5:1 c. 1:5 d. 6:1
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21. How much pure alcohol must be added to 400 ml of a solution containing 16% of alcohol
to change the concentration of alcohol in the mixture to 40%
a. 160 ml b. 100 ml c. 128 ml d. 68 ml
22. Wheat costing Rs. 30/kg, Rs. 35/kg and a third variety of wheat are mixed in the ratio of 3
∶ 4 ∶ 2. If the mixture costs Rs. 34/kg, then what will be the cost (in Rs./kg) of the third
variety of wheat?
a. 46 b. 42 c. 32 d. 38
23. The ratio of Iron and Zinc in an alloy is 4 : 5. In another alloy, the ratio of Iron, Copper
and Zinc is 3 : 2 : 7. Equal amounts of the two alloys are molten and mixed together. What
will be the ratio of Iron, Copper and Zinc in the resultant alloy?
a. 6 : 25 : 41 b. 25 : 41 : 6 c. 25 : 6 : 41 d. 4 : 5 : 7
24. In what ratio should Assam Tea costing Rs.300 per kg be mixed with Darjeeling Tea
costing Rs. 400 per kg, so that by selling the mixture at Rs. 408 per kg there is gain of 20%.
a. 1 : 2 b. 3 : 2 c. 2 : 5 d. 1 : 6
25. A hospital uses a mixture of salt and water at Rs. 7.62/litre. This mixture contains 5 %
salt. Another mixture containing 75 % water costs Rs. 7.82/litre. How much does the patient
pay if he buys 5 litres of mixture containing 18% salt?
a. Rs. 83.75 b. Rs. 73.85 c. Rs. 37.85 d. Rs. 38.75
Answer key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A b a c b c c b d b b c c c a a
Q 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
A d a b b c a d c b d
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14. Probability
Probability means possibility. The value of probability of any event is expressed from zero to
one. Probability has been introduced in Maths to predict how likely events are likely to
happen. The meaning of probability is basically the extent to which something is likely to
happen. To find the probability of a single event to occur, first, we should know the total
number of possible outcomes.
Many events cannot be predicted with total certainty. We can predict only the chance of an
event to occur i.e. how likely they are to happen. Probability can range in from 0 to 1, where
0 means the event to be an impossible one and 1 indicates a certain event. The probability of
all the events in a sample space adds up to 1.
For example, when we toss a coin, either we get Head (H)or Tail (T), only two possible
outcomes are possible (H, T). But if we toss two coins in the air, there could be four
possibilities of events to occur, such as
i) Both the coins show heads (HH)
ii) Both show tails (TT)
iii) first shows head and second shows tail(HT)
iv) first shows tail and second showshead (TH)
Total possible outcomes also called Sample Space of event becomes
n(E) = (HH, TT,HT, TH) Total possible outcomes are 4.
The probability formula is defined as the probability of an event to happen is equal to the
ratio of the number of favourable outcomes and the total number of outcomes.
𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑓𝑎𝑣𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠
𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑏𝑎𝑏𝑖𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑦𝑜𝑓𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑡𝑜ℎ𝑎𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑃(𝐸) = 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠
Therefore, probability of getting both heads when two coins are tossed is
P(E) = 1/4 (HH– 1 count; total counts - 4)
If we add probabilities of all possible events, we get sum as 1.
Basic concept on drawing a card:
In a pack or deck of 52 playing cards, they are divided into 4 suits of 13 cards each i.e. spades
♠ hearts ♥, diamonds ♦, clubs ♣.
Cards of Spades and clubs are black cards.
Cards of hearts and diamonds are red cards.
The card in each suit are ace, king, queen, jack or knaves, 10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3 and 2.
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King, Queen and Jack (or Knaves) are face cards. So, there are 12 face cards in the deck of
52 playing cards.
Therefore, i)probability of drawing “2 numbered card of spade” is 1/52. As 52, total possible
cards and one card is available for “2 numbered spade”.
ii) Probability for drawing face card is 12/52 = 4/13. As 12 face cards are available in pack of
total 52 playing cards.
iii) Probability for drawing any numbered card is = (9+9+9+9)/52 = 36/52 =9/13
Practice Questions:
Q1. A card is drawn from a well shuffled pack of 52 cards. Find the probability of:
(i) ‘2’ of spades
(ii) a jack
(iii) a king of red colour
(iv) a card of diamond
(v) a king or a queen
(vi) a non-facecard
(vii) a black face card
(viii) a black card
(ix) a non-ace
(x) non-face card of black colour
(xi) neither a spade nor a jack
(xii) neither a heart nor a red king
Q2. A card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled pack of cards numbered 1 to 20. Find the
probability of
(i) getting a number less than 7
(ii) getting a number divisible by 3.
Q3. A card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 playing cards. Find the probability that the
card drawn is
(i) a king
(ii) neither a queen nor a jack.
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Q4. Three digits are chosen at random from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 without repeating any
digit. What is the probability that the product is odd?
Q5. What is the probability of getting an even number in the single throw of a dice?
a. 1/2 b. 3/5 c. 7/5 d. 1/6
Q6. A complete cycle of a traffic light takes 60 seconds. During each cycle the light is green
for 25 seconds, yellow for 5 seconds and red for 30 seconds. At a randomly chosen time, the
probability that the light will not be green, is?
Q7. Ten identical particles are moving randomly inside a closed box. What is the probability
that at any given point of time all the ten particles will be lying in the same half of the box?
Q8. Two coins are tossed 500 times, and we get:

i) Two heads: 105 times
ii) One head: 275 times
iii) No head: 120 times
Find the probability of each event to occur.
Q9. A tyre manufacturing company kept a record of the distance covered before a tyre
needed to be replaced. The table shows the results of 1000 cases.
If a tyre is bought from this company, what is the probability that :

(i) it has to be substituted before 4000 km is covered?
(ii) it will last more than 9000 km?
(iii) it has to be replaced after 4000 km and 14000 km is covered by it?
Q10. Two players, Seetha and Rashmi, play a tennis match. The probability of Seetha
winning the match is 0.62. What is the probability that Rashmi will win the match?
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11.A bag contains 20 balls. If there are red, 7 white, and 5 green balls, what is the minimum
number of balls a person must pick from the bag to assured of one of each colour?
a. 17 b. 16 c. 13 d. 11
12. A bag contains 15 red balls and 20 black balls. Each ball is numbered either 1 or 2 or 3.
20% of the red balls are numbered 1 and 40% of them are numbered 3. Similarly, among the
black balls, 45% are numbered 2 and 30% are numbered 3. A boy picks a ball at random. He
wins if the ball is red and numbered 3 or if it is black and numbered 1 or 2. What are the
chances of his winning?
a. 1/2 b. 4/7 c. 5/9 d. 12/13
13. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the
probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?
a. 1/2 b. 2/5 c. 8/15 d. 9/20
Answers:
Q1 i ii iii iv v vi vii viii ix x xi xii
12/1 19/2
A 1/52 1/13 1/26 1/4 2/13 3/13 3/26 1/2 3 5/13 9/13 6
Q 2 (i) 2 (ii) 3 (i) 3 (ii) 4 5 6 7 8 (i) 8 (ii) 8 (iii)

11/1 1/2^
A 3/10 3/10 1/13 3 5/42 1/2 7/12 9 0.21 0.33 6/25
Q 9 (i) 9 (ii) 9 (iii) 10 11 12 13

53.5
A 2% 77% % 0.38 16 b d
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15.Permutation and Combination
• Factorial Notation (!)

• n! = n(n – 1) (n – 2) …3.2.1 = Product of n consecutive integers starting from 1.
Note:
1. 0! = 1
2. Factorials of only Natural numbers are defined.
1. n! is defined only for n ≥ 0
2. n! is not defined for n < 0
n
3. Cr = 1 when n = r.
Combinations (represented by nCr) can be defined as the number of ways in which r things at
a time can be SELECTED from amongst n things available for selection.
The key word here is SELECTION. Please understand here that the order in which the r
things are selected has no importance in the counting of combinations.
nCr = Number of combinations (selections) of n things taken r at a time.
〖(𝑛𝐶𝑟 = 𝑛!/𝑟! (𝑛 − 𝑟)!)〗
where n ≥ r (n is greater than or equal to r).
Some typical situations where selection/combination is used:
Selection of people for a team, a party, a job, an office etc. (e.g. Selection of a cricket team of
11 from 16 members)
Selection of a set of objects (like letters, hats, points pants, shirts, etc) from amongst another
set available for selection.
In other words any selection in which the order of selection holds no importance is counted
by using combinations.
5. Permutations (represented by nPr) can be defined as the number of ways in which r
things at a time can be SELECTED & ARRANGED at a time from amongst n things.
The key word here is ARRANGEMENT. Hence please understand here that the order in
which the r things are arranged has critical importance in the counting of permutations. In
other words permutations can also be referred to as an ORDERED SELECTION.
n
Pr = number of permutations (arrangements) of n things taken r at a time.
nPr = n!/ (n – r)!; n ≥ r
• Some typical situations where ordered selection/ permutations are used:
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o Making words and numbers from a set of available letters and digits
respectively
o Filling posts with people
o Selection of batting order of a cricket team of 11 from 16 members
o Putting distinct objects/people in distinct places, e.g. making people sit,
putting letters in envelopes, finishing order in horse race, etc.)
Practice Questions
1. In how many different ways can five friends sit for a photograph of five chairs in a row?
a. 120 b. 24 c. 240 d. 580
2. There are 7 candidates for 3 seats, in how many ways the post be filled?
a. 120 b. 130 c. 100 d. 210
3. How many three-digit numbers can be generated from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, such that the
digits are in ascending order?
a. 80 b. 81 c. 83 d. 84
4. A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical balls are to be placed in
these smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at least one ball (one ball in one
square only). In how many different ways can this be done?
a. 81 b. 91 c. 41 d. 51
5. Groups each containing 3 boys are to be formed out of 5 boys A,B,C,D and E such that no
one group contains both C and D together. What is the maximum number of such different
groups?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
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6. In how many different ways can six players be arranged in a line such that two of them,
Asim and Raheem are never together?
a. 120 b. 240 c. 360 d. 480
7. A person ordered 5 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a
black pair was thrice that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill, the bill clerk interchanged
the number of black and brown pairs by mistake which increased the bill by 100%. What was
the number of pairs of brown socks in the original order? (UPSC
2015)
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25
8. There are 5 tasks and 5 persons. Task-l cannot be assigned to either person-l or person-2.
Task-2 must be assigned to either person-3 or person-4. Every person is to be assigned one
task. In how many ways can the assignment be done? (UPSC
2015)
a. 6 b. 12 c. 24 d. 144
9.How many numbers are there in all from 6000 to 6999 (both 6000 and 6999 included)
having at least one of their digits repeated?
a. 216 b. 356 c. 496 d. 504
10. From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee
so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done?
a. 564 b. 645 c. 735 d. 756
11. In how many ways can the letters of the word 'LEADER' be arranged?
a. 72 b. 144 c. 360 d. 720
12. Find the number of permutations of the letters of the word ALLAHABAD.
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a. 9! b. 5880 c. 7560 d. 5!
13. How many 3-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 9, which are
divisible by 5 and none of the digits is repeated?
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
14. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'DETAIL' be arranged in such a
way that the vowels occupy only the odd positions?
a. 32 b. 48 c. 36 d. 60
15. How many motor vehicle registration number plates can be formed with digits 1,2,3,4,5
(no digits being repeated) if it is given that registration number can have 1 to 5 digits?
a. 100 b. 60 c. 325 d. 205
16. Using all the letters of the word GIFT how many distinct words can be formed?
a. 22 words b. 24 words c. 256 words d. 200 words
17. A person has 4 coins if different denominations. What is the number of different sums of
money the person can form?
a. 12 b. 15 c. 11 d. 16
18. 20 mice were placed in two experimental groups and two control group, with all groups
equally large. In how many ways can the mice be placed into three groups?
.
a. 18!/(5!)3 b. 18!/(5!)5 c. 18!/(5!)4 d. 18!/(5!)6
19. The letters A, B, C, D and E are arranged in such a way that there are exactly two letters
between A and E. How many such arrangements are possible? (UPSC 2022)
a. 12 b. 18 c. 24 d. 36
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20. There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit PIN. The PIN contains digits 1 to 7. There is
no repetition of digits. The digits in the PIN from left to right are in decreasing order. Any
two digits in the PIN differ by at least 2. How many maximum attempts does one need to find
out the PIN with certainty? (UPSC 2022)
a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12
21. There are 9 cups placed on a table arranged in equal number of rows and columns out of
which 6 cups contain coffee and 3 cups contain tea. In how many ways can they be arranged
so that each row should contain at least one cup of coffee?
a. 18 b. 27 c. 54 d. 81
22. In how many of the distinct permutations of the letters in MISSISSIPPI do the four Ss not
come together?
a. 34700 b. 33810 c. 35000 d.36500
23. There are 45 games in total in a competition. Many teams took part in the competition
and each of them must play one with the other teams. In total how many teams took part in
the competition?
a. 5 b. 10 c. 12 d.25
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
a d d a c d d c d d c c d c b b b c c c d b b
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16. Geometry
Basic conversions
A. 1 m = 100 cm = 1000 mm, 1 km = 1000 m

B. 1 inch = 2.54 cm
C. 100 kg = 1 quintal
D. 10 quintal = 1 tonne = 1000 kg
E. 1 litre = 1000 cc, 1000 lit = 1 cubic metre
F. 1 acre = 100 sq m
Angles:
• Acute angle: An angle whose measure is less than 90 degrees. T

• Right angle: An angle whose measure is 90 degrees.
• Obtuse Angle: An angle whose measure is bigger than 90 degrees but less than 180
degrees.
• Straight angle: Is an angle whose measure is 180 degrees
• Reflex angle: An angle whose measure is more than 180 degrees but less than 360
degrees.
• Full Rotation Angle: An angle whose measure is 360 degrees
• Complementary angles: Two angles whose measures add to 90 degrees
• Supplementary Angles: Two angles whose measures add up to 180 degrees.
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Triangles:
• A triangle is a polygon having three sides. Sum of all the angles of a triangle = 180°.
• Properties (General)
o Sum of the length of any two sides of a triangle has to be always greater than
the third side.
o Side opposite to the greatest angle will be the greatest and the side opposite to
the smallest angle the Smallest.
• Area:
o Area = 1/2 base * height (A=1/2 * bh)
Height = Perpendicular distance between the base and vertex opposite to it
o Area = s(s - a)(s - b)(s - c) (Heron’s formula)
where s = (a+b+c)/2 (a, b and c being the length of the sides)
• Congruence of triangles: Two triangles are congruent if all the sides of one are equal
to the corresponding sides of another.
• Two triangles are said to be similar when they have two corresponding angles
congruent and the sides proportional. The area, altitude, and volume of Similar
triangles are in the same ratio as the ratio of the length of their sides.
Circles:
• Area =𝛱* R2
• Circumference = 2 *𝛱*R (R = radius of circle)
Practice Questions:
1. A rectangular plot of lawn shown in the figure has dimensions 'x' and 'y' and is surrounded
by a gravel pathway of width 2 m. What is the total area of the Gravel Pathway?
a. 2x + 2y + 4 b. 2x + 2y + 8 c. 4x + 4y + 8 d. 4x + 4y + 16
2. Find the perimeter of the rectangular plot of land whose area is 660 m2 and whose length
is 33 m.
a. 200m b. 106m c. 53m d. 100m
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3. The length and breadth of a rectangular courtyard is 75 m and 32 m. Find the cost of
levelling it at the rate of ₹3 per m2. Also, find the distance covered by a boy to take 4 rounds
of the courtyard.
a.₹7200 & 856 b.₹6200&428 c.₹6200&256 d.₹7200&428
4. The breadth of the rectangle is 8 cm and its diagonal is 17 cm. Find the area of the
rectangle.
a. 150cm2 b. 120cm2 c. 100cm2 d. 200cm2
5. Length of a side of a square field is 275 m. What will be the cost of levelling the field at a
rate of 10 cent per square metre?
a. 756250 cents b. 758250 cents c. 766250 cents d. 856250 cents
6. An error 2% in excess is made while measuring the side of a square. The percentage of
error in the calculated area of the square is:
a. 3.96 % b. 4.04% c. 4% d. 8%
7. Find the area of the triangle whose sides are 15cm, 20cm and 25cm respectively.
a. 100cm2 b. 180cm2 c. 150cm2 d. 250cm2
8. Find the area of a right-angled triangle with base 6 cm and hypotenuses is 6.5cm.
a. 12cm2 d. 20cm2 c. 10cm2 d. 24cm2
9. If the radius of a circle is decreased by 10%, then the total decrease in the area of the circle
is.
a. 20% b. 16% c. 19% d. 20.5%
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10. If in a triangle area is numerically equal to the perimeter, then the radius of the inscribed
circle of the triangle is
a. 1 b. 1.5 c. 2 d. None of these
11. The area of equilateral triangle is 900√3 sq. m. What is its perimeter?
a. 180m b. 150m c. 120m d. 135m
12. If the diagonal of square is 4√2, then its perimeter is

a. 8 b. 15 c. 10 d. 16
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
d b a b a b c d c c c a
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17. Mensuration
Cuboid
Cubes
Cylinders
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Spheres:
Practice Questions
1. If l, b, h of cuboid are 12, 9 and 10 cm respectively. Find total surface area in cm2.
a. 636 b. 416 c. 256 d. 318
2. A rectangular water tank measures 15x6 m at top and is 10m deep. It is full of water. if
water is drawn out lowering the level by 1m, then find how much water has been drawn out.
a. 110m3 b. 90m3 c. 100m3 d. 105m3
3. The hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is
equal to the sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is
a. 1100m3 b. 1500m3 c. 1200m3 d. 1005m3
4. Edge of a cube is 5cm. find its total surface area and lateral surface area.
a. 150 sq.cm b. 100 sq.cm c. 200 sq.cm d. 300 sq. cm
5. The surface area of a cube is 600 cm2. the length of its diagonal is:
a. 10√3 cm cm b. 10/√2 cm c.10/√3 d. 10√2 cm
6. Find the volume, if the surface area of a cube is 150 sq. cm?
a. 100 cu. cm b. 125 cu. cm c. 200 cu. cm d. 50 cu. cm
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7. Find the weight of a pipe with the following dimensions – exterior diameter is 17 cm,
interior diameter is 15 cm and length is 1000 cm. one cubic cm of iron is 0.9 grams.
a. 46.23kg b. 45.23kg c. 23.45kg d. 23.46kg
8. The curved surface area of a cylinder is thrice the area of its base. if “r” is the radius of the
base and “h” is its height, then r:h is
a. 3:2 b. 4:3 c. 2:3 d. 3:4
9. rhombus having diagonals of length 10 cm and 16 cm, respectively. Find its area.
a.70 b. 65 c. 90 d. 80
10. Find the volume of the largest possible sphere circumscribed by a cube of edge 8 cm.
a. 260 cc b. 268 cc c.280 cc d. 270 cc
11. If the radius of a sphere is decreased by 24 %, by what % surface area will decrease.
a. 48% b. 42.2 % c. 48.2% d. 40%
12. Cylinder’s radius is 12cm filled upto depth of 20cm. A spherical ball is dropped, level
raised by 6.75. What’s the radius of the ball.
a. 9cm b. 3cm c. 12cm d. 6cm
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
a b c a a b b c d b b b
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SECTION 2
LOGICAL REASONING
1. Coding decoding
It is an important part of the Logical reasoning section in all aptitude related examinations.
• Coding is a process used to encrypt a word, a number in a particular code or pattern
based on some set of rules.
• Decoding is a process to decrypt the pattern into its original form from the given
codes.
Positions of letter are majorly used to find the logical pattern, which are in the following
table.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Types of Questions -
• Letter Coding - alphabets of a word are replaced by some other alphabets according to
specific rules to form code.
• Number Coding - a word is replaced by certain numbers according to some specific
rule.
TYPE 1: Coding with Alphabets -
0. In such questions, the “ALPHABETS” of a word are substituted by some other

“ALPHABETS”.
0. You have to find the logical patterns.
Practice Questions:
1. If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in that

code?
a. CPNCBX b. CPNCBZ c. CPOCBZ d. CQOCBZ
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2. In a certain code, TRIPPLE is written as SQHOOKD. How is DISPOSE written in that

code?
a. CHRONRD b. CHRONRD c. ESJTPTF d. ESOPSID
3. If in a code language. COULD is written as BNTKC and MARGIN is written as

LZQFHM, how will MOULDING be written in that code?
a. CHMFINTK b. LNKTCHMF c. LNTKCHMF d. NITKHCMF
4. In a certain code, MONKEY is written as XDJMNL. How is TIGER written in that code?
a. QDFHS b. SDFHS c. SHFDQ d. UJHFS e. None of these
5. If FRAGRANCE is written as SBHSBODFG, how can IMPOSING be written?
a. NQPTJHOJ b. NQPTJOHI c. NQTPJOHJ d. NQPTJOHJ
6. According to a military code SYSTEM is SYSMET and NEARER is AENRER. What is

the code for FRACTION? (UPSC 2016)
a. CARFTINO b. FRACNOIT c. CARFTION d. CARFNOIT
7. If LSJXVC is the code for MUMBAI, the code for DELHI is (UPSC 2018)
a. CCIDD b. CDKGH c. CCJFG d. CCIEF
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8. In a code language ‘MATHEMATICS’ is written as ‘LBSIDNUHDR’. How is

‘CHEMISTRY’ written in that code language? (UPSC
2021)
a. DIDLHRSSX B. BIDNHTSSX C. BIDLTHSSX D. DGFLIRUQZ
9. If TAP is coded as SZO. then how is FREEZE coded?
a. EQDFYG b. ESDFYF c. GQFDYF d. EQDDYD
10. In a certain code, FORGE is written as FPTJI. How is CULPRIT written in that code?
a. CSJNPGR b. CVMQSTU c. CVNSVNZ d. CXOSULW
Answer Key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A b a c a d d a b d c
TYPE 2: Coding with Number
In this type of questions, alphabets are replaced with numbers or digits.
Practice Questions
1. In a certain code, NEWYORK is written as 111, how is NEWJERSEY written in that

code?
a. 104 b. 124 c. 134 d. 114
2. In a certain code, HARYANA is written as 8197151, how is DELHI written in that code?
a. 45389 b. 45289 c. 44389 d. 45489
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3. In a certain code BOMB is written as 5745 and BAY is written as 529, how is BOMBAY
written in that code?
a. 5854329 b. 5745529 c. 5645529 d. 5545529
4. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473,
what will be the code for SEARCH?
a. 276413 b. 214763 c. 214673 d. 246173
5. In a certain coding language, if GO = 32 & SHE = 49 then SOME will be equal to?
a. 56 b. 58 c. 62 d. 64
6. If RAMON is written as 12345 and DINESH as 675849, then HAMAM will be written as
(UPSC 2018)
a. 92233 b. 92323 c. 93322 d. 93232
7. If PALAM could be given the code number 43, what code number can be given to
SANTACRUZ?
a. 75 b. 85 c. 120 d. 123
8. If MASTER is coded as 411259, then POWDER will be coded as
a. 765439 b. 765439 c. 765459 d. 765549
9. In a certain code, 15789 is written aa XTZAL and 2346 is written as NPSU. How is 23549
written in that code?
a. NPTUL b. PNTSL c. NPTSL d. NBTSL
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10. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7, what is the code number for
GOVERNMENT?
a. 6 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10
Answer Key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A b a b c a b d c c c
TYPE 3: Direct Coding
Letters/symbols are assigned as code. These questions are relatively easy as each alphabet is
directly coded as a separate symbol.
E.g., If “LOINESS”: “*? #@! $$’ “MEN”: “^! @” then, “MISSION”: _______
TYPE 4: Deciphering the Message
Messages are given in coded language and code for each word or for particular word is asked.
1. “COL TIP MOT” MEANS “SINGING IS APPRECIABLE”,

“MOT BAJ MIN” MEANS DANCING IS GOOD”,
“TIP NOP BAJ” MEANS “SINGING AND DANCING
Find the code for each word on the basis of above statements.
2. ‘816321’ MEANS ‘THE BROWN DOG FRIGHTENED THE CAT’

‘64851’ MEANS ‘THE FRIGHTENED CAT RAN AWAY’
‘7621’ MEANS ‘THE CAT WAS BROWN’
‘341’ MEANS THE DOG RAN’
Find the code for each word on the basis of above statements.
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Type 5: Coding with Substitution
Practice Questions:
1. If ‘cook’ is called ‘butler’, ‘butler’ is called ‘manager’, ‘manager’ is called ‘teacher’,

‘teacher’ is called ‘clerk’ and ‘clerk’ is called ‘principal’, who will teach in a class?
2. If ‘eye’ is called ‘hand’, ‘hand’ is called ‘mouth’, ‘mouth’ is called ‘ear’, ‘ear’ is called
‘nose’ and ‘nose’ is called ‘tongue’, with which of the following would a person hear?
3. If 'white' is called 'blue', 'blue' is called 'red', 'red' is called ‘yellow' ‘yellow' is called
green 'green' is called 'black', 'black' is called ‘violet’ and 'violet' is called orange', what
would be the colour of human blood?
4. If ‘diamond’ is called ‘gold’, ‘gold’ is called ‘silver’, ‘silver’ is called ‘ruby’ and
‘ruby’ is called ‘emerald’, which is the cheapest jewel?
5. If 'oranges' are called 'apples', 'bananas' are called 'apricots', 'apples' are called 'chillies',
'apricots' are called orange and ‘chillies’ are called 'bananas', then which of the following
are green in colour?
Answers:
Q1: clerk, Q2: Nose, Q3: Yellow, Q4: Ruby Q5: Bananas
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2. Direction Sense
Questions on this topic tests candidate’s direction sense, candidates are given series of
instructions involving movement of a person or thing in different direction (one at time) and
are asked to find the final direction and sometimes the distance from the initial point.
Following figure indicates the positions of various directions and will help the candidate to
develop a direction sense.
Practice Questions:
1. Rahul travels in the north direction, then turns right, then again turns right and thereafter
turns left. In which direction is Rahul travelling now?
a. East b. West c. South d. North
2. A runs 50 m south from her house. Then, she turns left and runs 20 m more, then she turns
towards the north and runs 30 m further and finally starts walking towards her house on the
shortest possible route. In which direction is she walking now?
a. South-West b. South-east c. North-west d. None of the above
3. A person walks 9 km towards the north. From there he walks 5 km towards the South.
Then, he walks 3 km towards east. How far and in which direction is he with respect to his
starting point?
a. 7 km, East b. 5 km, West c. 5 km, North east d. 7 km, West
4. There are four towns P, Q, R and T. Q is situated at the south-west of P, R is at the east of
Q and south–east of P, and T is at the north of R. In which of the following direction T
cannot be located with respect to P?
(a) North (b) East (c) North–east (d) South–east
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5. A lady lost her purse. She went 90 m east to a shop before turning to her right. She went 20
m ahead again before turning to her right. Thereafter, she walked 30 m further to reach his
uncle’s place. From there, she went 100 m north to a street where she found her purse. How
far from the starting point did she find her purse?
a. 60m b. 100m c. 140m d. None of the above
6. Seeta walks 12 km towards the north. From there she walks 6 km towards the South. Then,
she walks 8 km towards east. How far and in which direction is she with respect to his
starting point?
a. 5 km, North East b. 10 km, North East c. 5 km, North
d. 5 km East
7. The location of B is north of A and the location of C is east of A. The distances AB and
AC are 5km and 12km respectively. What is the shortest distance (in km) between the
locations B and C? (UPSC 2014)
a. 60 b. 13 c. 174 d. 60
8. A man walks down the backside of his house straight 25 metres, then turns to the right and
walks 50 metres again; then he turns towards left and again walks 25 metres. If his house
faces to the East, what is his direction from the starting point? (UPSC 2020)
a. South-East b. South-West c. North-East d. North-West
9. A person travels 12 km due North then 15 km due East after that 19 km due West and then
15 km due South. How far is he from the starting point? (UPSC 2016)
a. 5 km b. 9 km c. 37 km d. 61 km
10. A person climbs a hill in a straight path from point ‘O’ on the ground in the direction of
north-east and reaches a point ‘A’ after travelling a distance of 5 km. Then from the point ‘A’
he moves to point ‘B’ in the direction of north-west. Let the distance AB be 12 km. Now how
far is the person away from the starting point ‘O’? (UPSC
2016)
a. 7 km b. 13 km c. 17 km d. 11 km
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11. P, Q and R are three towns. The distance between P and Q is 60 km, whereas the distance
between P and R is 80 km. Q is in the West of P and R is in the South of P. What is the
distance between Q and R?
(UPSC 2019)
a. 140 km b. 130 km c. 110 km d. 100 km
12. One day, Ravi left home and cycled 10 km southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km and
turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometres will
he have to cycle to reach his home straight?
a. 10 km b. 15 km c. 20 km d. 25 km
13. Gaurav walks 20 metres towards North. He then turns left and walks 40 metres. He again
turns left and walks 20 metres. Further, he moves 20 metres after turning to the right. How
far is he from his original position?
a. 20 m b. 30 m c. 60 m d. 50 m
14. A rat runs 20' towards East and turns to right, runs 10' and turns to right, runs 9' and again
turns to left, runs 5' and then turns to left, runs 12' and finally turns to left and runs 6'. Now,
which direction is the rat facing?
a. East b. West c. North d. South
15. Laxman went 15 kms to the west from my house, then turned left and walked 20 kms. He
then turned East and walked 25 kms and finally turning left covered 20 kms. How far was he
from his house?
a. 5 km b. 10 km c. 40 km d. 80 km
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16. Going 50 m to the South of her house, Radhika turns left and goes another 20 m. Then,
turning to the North, she goes 30 m and then starts walking to her house. In which direction is
she walking now?
a. North-west b. North c. South-east d. East
17. There are four towns P. Q, R and T. Q is to the South-west of P, R is to the east of Q and
south-east of P, and T is to the north of R in line with QP. In which direction of P is T
located?
a. South-east b. North c. North-east d. East
18. Kunal walks 10 km towards North. From there he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he
walks 3 km towards East. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting
point?
a. 6 km West b. 7 km West c. 7 km East d. 5 km North-East
19. A man is facing north-west. He turns 90° in the clockwise direction and then 135° in the
anticlockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
a. East b. West c. North d. South
20. Deepak starts walking straight towards east. After walking 75 metres, he turns to the left
and walks 25 metres straight. Again, he turns to the left, walks a distance of 40 metres
straight, again he turns to the left and walks a distance of 25 metres. How far is he from the
starting point?
a. 25 metres b. 50 metres c. 35 metres d. 140 metres
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Answer Key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A a c c c b b b d A b d b c c b a c d b c
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3. Blood Relations
Relations:
Relationship Name of Relation

Mother's or father's son Brother
Mother's or father's daughter Sister
Mother's or father's brother Uncle
Mother's or father's sister Aunt
Mother's or father's father Grandfather
Mother's or father's mother Grandmother
Sister's or brother's son Nephew
Sister's or brother's daughter Niece
Uncle's or aunt's child Cousin
Grandchild's child Great grandchild
*Mother side relations are called maternal relations whereas father side relations are called
maternal relations.
Relationship Name of Relation

Son's wife Daughter-in-law
Daughter's husband Son-in-law
Husband's or wife's sister Sister-in law
Husband's or wife's brother Brother-in-law
Sister's husband Brother-in-law
Brother's wife Sister-in law
To solve the problems in blood relation, one should know how to draw a family tree. A
family tree is a pictorial representation of genealogical data.
The following points help in drawing a family tree.
1. All the female members of the family are represented by a circle. The name of the person
is written inside the circle for convenience.
2. All the male members of the family are represented by a square. The name of the person is
written inside the square for convenience.
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3. The relation between two members of the family is shown by connecting a double-headed
arrow.
4. The spouse relation is represented by the two ends of a double-headed arrow.
5. All the family members of the upper generation are represented above in the family tree.
Ex: father, mother, uncle, aunt etc. The logic can be extended by representing the
grandparents above the parents in the family tree. Ex: grandfather and grandmother.
6. All the family members of the same generation are represented in the middle of the family
tree. Ex: brothers, Sisters, cousins, wife, husband, etc.
7. All the family members of the next generation are represented below in the family tree. Ex:
Daughter, son, niece, nephew.
Practice Questions:
1. A+ B means A is the son of B AND A - B means A is the wife of B. On the basis of the
above statement, what does the expression P + R - Q mean? (UPSC 2017)
a. R is father of P b. P is the wife of R c. Q is the father of P
d. Q is son of P
2. Rahul's father is the only son of Rohan's Father. How is Rohan's wife related to Rahul?
a. Mother b. Aunt c. Grandmother d. Sister
3. Manoj is the brother of Deepak. Rekha is the sister of Seema. Deepak is the son of Rekha.
How is Manoj related to Rekha?
a. Nephew b. Son c. Brother d. None of these
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4. Who is the mother of B?
I. P and Q are sisters.
II. Q's husband is the brother of B's husband.
a) Statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient

b) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient
c) Either I or II is sufficient
d) Data in both the statements together are not sufficient
5. P and Q are the married couple. X and Y are sisters. X is the sister of P. How is Y related
to Q?
a. Brother b. Sister c. Sister-in-law d.Bother-in-law
6. A is B's brother. C is B's mother. D is C's father. E is D's mother. How is A related to D?
(UPSC 2020)
a. Grandfather b. Grandson c. Grandmother d. Daughter
7. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related
to the woman?
a. Nephew b. Son c. Cousin d. Uncle e. Grandson
8. There are six persons A. B, C, D, E and F. C is the sister of F. B is the brother of E's
husband. D is the father of A and grandfather of F. There are two fathers, three brothers and a
mother in the group. Who is the mother?
a. E b. C c. B d. A
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9. Pointing out to a lady, a girl said, "She is the daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my
father's only son." How is the lady related to the girl?
a. Sister-in-law b. Mother c. Aunt d. Can’t be determined
10. Pointing to a lady, a man said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife."
How is the lady related to the man?
a. Mother’s sister b. Grandmother c. Mother-in-law
d. Sister of father-in-law e. Maternal aunt
11. A family get-together consisted of grandmother, father, mother, four sons with their
wives, one son and two daughters to each of the sons. How many females are there in all?
a. 14 b. 16 c. 18 d. 24
12. B is son of C while C and Q are sisters to one another. Z is the mother of Q. If P is the
son of Z, which of the following statement is correct?
a. Q is the grandfather of B b. P is the maternal uncle of A
c. P is the cousin of B d. Z is the brother of C
13. Four persons A, B, C and D consisting of two married couples are in a group. Both the
women are shorter than their respective husbands. A is the tallest among the four. C is taller
than B. D is B's brother. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(UPSC 2015)
a. All four have family ties b. B is shortest among the four
c. C is taller than D d. A is B’s husband
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14. A joint family consists of seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G with three females. G is
a widow and sister-in-law of D's father F. B and D are siblings and A is daughter of B. C is
cousin of B. Who is E?
1. Wife of F
2. Grandmother of A
3. Aunt of C
Which are correct statements?
a. 1 and 2 only b.2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
15. Examine the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C,
D, E and F (UPSC 2017)
1 The number of males equals that of females
2 A and E are sons of F
3 D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl
4 B is the son of A
5 There is one married couple in the family at present
Which one of the following is true from the above information?
a. A, B and C are all females b. A is the husband of D
c. E and F are children of D d. D is the granddaughter of F
16. A joint family consists of seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G with three females. G is
a widow and sister-in-law of D's father F. B and D are siblings and A is daughter of B. C is
cousin of B. Who is E? (UPSC 2019)
1. Wife of F
2. Grandmother of A
3. Aunt of C
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Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
17. A family of two generations consisting of six members P,Q,R,S,T and U has three males
and three females .There are two married couples and two unmarried siblings . U is P's
daughter and Q is K's mother-in-law. T is an unmarried male and S is a male. Which one of
the following is correct?
(UPSC 2020)
a. R is U's husband b. R is S's wife c. S is unmarried
d. None of the above
18. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Anjali said, MHe is the only son of the father
of my sister's brother." How is that person related to Aryali?
a. Mother b. Father c. Maternal uncle d. Cousin

e.None of these
19. Consider the Question and two Statements given below:
Question: Is Z brother of X? (UPSC

2022)
Statement-1: X is a brother of Y and Y is a brother of Z.
Statement-2: X, Y and Z are siblings.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the question and the Statement?
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a. Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the question
b. Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question
c. Both Statement-1 and statement 2 are sufficient to answer the Question
d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question
20. Pointing to a man on the stage, Rita said, "He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of
my husband." How is the man on the stage related to Rita?
a. Son b. Husband c. Cousin d. Nephew
Answer Key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A c a b d c b c a d d a b c d b d b e d a
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4. Rank
Ranking and order is an important under logical reasoning section; it involves an arrangement
of position or ranks of an object or a person either from left to right or top to bottom.
It involves the usage of a few tips and tricks learned in the seating arrangement.
Example:
Rank from left 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A B C D E F G H I J
Rank from right 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Rank of E from left is 5, rank from right is 6. Sum of left and right rank is 11. Total number
of students are 10.
We can write,
Left Rank + Right Rank = Total Number + 1
Practice Questions:
1. In a row of persons, the position of Rahul from the left side of the row is 28th and position
of Rahul from the right side of the row is 35th. Find the total number of students in the row?
a. 61 b. 62 c. 63 d. 60
2. In a row of persons, the position of Anisha Nair from the left side of the row is 27th and
there are 5 persons after her in the row. Find the total no. of persons in the row?
a. 31 b. 32 c. 33 d. 34
3. There are 64 history books arranged in a row at central library Bangalore. Ancient history
is 25th from the left side of the row and Middivel history is 30th from the right side of the
row. What is the total number of books between Ancient and Middivel history?
a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9
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4. There is a pride of lions and its cubs in a row, the position of eldest lioness from the left
side of the row is 9th & position of youngest lioness from the right side of the row is 8th. If
the new-born cub is sitting just in the middle of eldest & youngest and position of cub from
the left side of the row is 15th. Find the total number of lions the row?
a. 28 b. 26 c. 25 d. 29
5. In a row, A is in the 11th position from the left and B is in the 10th position from the right.
If ‘A’ and ‘B’ interchange then A becomes 18th from the left. How many persons are there in
the row other than A and B?
a. 25 b. 26 c. 27 d. 24
6. In a class of 60 students, where girls are twice that of boys. Kamal ranked seventeenth
from the top, if there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank?
a. 3 b. 7 c. 12 d. 23
7. 15 students failed in a class of 52. After removing the names of failed students, a merit
order list has been prepared in which the position of Ramesh is 22nd from the top. What is
his position from the bottom?
a. 18th b. 17th c. 16th d. 15th
8. In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When two boys joined, his rank was
dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end? (UPSC
2013)
a. 27th b. 26th c. 25th d. 28th
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9. In a row of persons, the position of Shubham from the left side of the row is 27th and
position of Shubham from the right side of the row is 34th. Find the total number of
students in the row?
a. 57 b. 58 c. 60 d. 61
10. In a row of 60 Students are standing, Manish is 32nd from the right end. What is his
position from the left end?
a. 25 b. 29 c. 27 d.23
11. In a row of 21 girls, when Monika was shifted by four places towards the right, she
became 12th from the left end. What was her earlier position from the right end of the row?
a. 9th b. 10th c. 11th d. 14th
12. Saiyeev ranks seventh from the top and twenty eighth from the bottom in a class. How
many students are there in the class?
a. 37 b. 36 c. 35 d. 34
13. Rahul ranked ninth from the top and thirty eighth from the bottom in a class. How many
students are there in the class?
a. 45 b. 46 c. 47 d. 48
14. In a row of trees, one tree is fifth from either end of the row. How many trees are there in
the row?
a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11
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15. On sports day in a school, 8 students took part in a race. They were all made to stand in a
straight line. Sumit was standing 5th from the right end, and 3 students are standing in
between Sumit and Ritesh. Based on this arrangement, what is the position of Ritesh from the
left end of the line?
a. 6th b. 2nd c. None of the above d. Cannot be determined
16. Siva ranks 16th from the top and 49th from the bottom in a class. How many students are
there in the class?
a. 60 b. 64 c. 66 d. 69
17. 15 students failed in a class of 52. After removing the names of failed students, a merit
order list has been prepared in which the position of Ramesh is 22nd from the top. What is
his position from the bottom? (UPSC
2017)
a. 18th b. 16th c. 17th d. 15th
18. Three persons A, B and C are standing in a queue. There are five persons between A and
B and eight persons between B and C. If there be three persons ahead of C and 21 persons
behind A, what could be the minimum number of persons in the queue?
a. 41 b. 40 c. 28 d. 27
19. Manisha ranked sixteenth from the top and twenty ninth from the bottom among those
who passed an examination. Six boys did not participate in the competition and five failed in
it. How many boys were there in the class?
a. 40 b. 44 c. 50 d. 55
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20. In a row of girls. Neha is eighth from the left and Heena is seventeenth from the right. If
they interchange their positions. Neha becomes fourteenth from the left. How many girls are
there in the row?
Answer Key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A b b d a a c c a c b d d b b c b b c d d
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5. Puzzles and Seating Arrangement
Basic steps to solve Logical Puzzles
• Take a quick look at the question.
• Develop a general idea regarding the theme of the problem.
• Select the data that is giving you some concrete information out of total information
given. Also, select the data which helps in ruling out certain possibilities.
• Useful secondary information: Generally, the first few sentences of the given data
give you the basic information that is required to know the general idea of the
problem. This is called the ‘useful secondary information’.
• Actual information: Data left after putting aside the useful secondary information is
called actual information. While trying to solve the problem, you should begin with
the actual information while the useful secondary information should be kept in mind.
• Negative Information: Some parts of the actual information may consist of negative
information. Negative information does not inform us of anything exactly but it gives
us a chance to eliminate a possibility. Sentences like “P is not the mother of Q” or “B
is not a hill-station” are called negative information.
Practice Questions:
1. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is

not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the
right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position B is sitting?
a. Between C and D b. Between C and A c. Between E and D
d. Between E and A
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2. A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order, are sitting at a round table. A is between
D and F, C is opposite to D and D and E are not on neighbouring chairs. Which one of the
following pairs must be sitting on neighbouring chairs?
a. A and B b. C and E c. B and F d. A and C
3. Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one wearing
a cap of a different colours like violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able
to see in front of him green and blue, but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red.
G can see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo-coloured cap, then
the colour of the cap, worn by F is (UPSC 2013)
a. Blue b. Violet c. Red d. Orange
4. There are seven persons up on a ladder, A, B, C, D, E, F, and G (not in that order). A is

further up than E but is lower than C. B is in the middl. G is between A and B. E is between
B and F. If F is between E and D, the person on the bottom step of the ladder will be
(UPSC 2014)
a. B b. F c. D d. E
5. Four children are sitting in a row. A is occupying the seat next to B but not next to C. If C
is not sitting next to D, who is/are occupying seat/seats adjacent to D?
(UPSC 2014)
a. B b. A c. B and A d. Impossible to tell
6. In five flats, one above the other, live five professionals. The professor has to go up to
meet his IAS officer friend. The doctor is equally friendly to all, and has to go up as
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frequently as go down. The engineer has to go up to meet his MLA friend above whose flat
lives the professor's friend. From the ground floor to the top floor, in what order do the five
professionals live? (UPSC 2014)
a. Engineer, Professor, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA

b. Professor, Engineer, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA
c. IAS officer, Engineer, Doctor, Professor, MLA
d. Professor, Engineer, Doctor, MLA, IAS officer
7. Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced
equidistant from adjacent chairs. (UPSC 2013)
(i) C is seated next to A
(ii) A is seated two seats from D
(iii) B is not seated next to A
Which of the following must be true?
(I) D is seated next to B
(II) E is seated next to A
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II
8. A group of 630 children is arranged in rows for a group photograph session. Each row
contains three fewer children than the row in front of it. What number of rows is not
possible?
(UPSC 2014)
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
9. Consider that: (UPSC 2014)
1. A is taller than B.
2. C is taller than A.
3. D is taller than C.
4. E is the tallest of all.
If they are made to sit in the above order of their height, who will occupy the mid position?
a. A b. B c. C d. D
10. A society consists of only two types of people fighters and cowards. Two cowards are
always friends. A fighter and a coward are always enemies. Fighters are indifferent to one
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another. If A and B are enemies, C and D are friends, E and F are indifferent to each other, A
and E are not enemies, while Band F are enemies. (UPSC
2015)
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. B, C and F are cowards b. A, E and F are fighters.
c. B and E are in the same category. d. A and F are in different categories.
11. Two men Anil and David and two women Shabnam and Rekha are in a sales group. Only
two speak Tamil. The other two speak Marathi. Only one man and one woman can drive a
car. Shabnam speaks Marathi. Anil speaks Tamil. Both Rekha and David can drive.
Which of the following statements is true? (UPSC 2015)
a. Both the Tamil speakers can drive a car
b. Both the Marathi speakers can drive a car
c. Both of those who can drive a car speak Marathi
d. One of those who can drive a car speaks Tamil
12. In a school, there were five teachers.
A and B were teaching Hindi and English.
C and D were teaching English and Geography.
D and A were teaching Mathematics and Hindi
E and B were teaching History and French. (UPSC 2017)
Who among the teachers was teaching maximum number of subjects?
a. A b. B c. D d. E
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13. If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are not next to each other,
how many possible arrangements are there? (UPSC
2017)
a. 3 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24
14. There are five hobby clubs in a college viz. photography, yachting, chess, electronics and
gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every
third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day
and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups
meets on the same day within 180 days?
(UPSC 2016)
a. 5 b. 18 c. 10 d. 3
15. Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Shikha is to the left of Meena.
Manju is to the right of Meena. Nita is between Meena and Manju. Who would be second
from the left in the photograph?
a. Meena b. Shikha c. Nita d. Manju
16. In a March Past, seven persons are standing in a row. Q is standing left to R but right to P.
O is standing right to N and left to P. Similarly, S is standing right to R and left to T. Find out
who is standing in the middle,
a. P b. Q c. R d. O
17. If A runs less fast than B and B runs as fast but not faster than C; then as compared to A,
C runs (UPSC 2015)
a. slower than A b. faster than A
c. with same speed as A d. Given data is not sufficient to determine
18. Each of A, B, C and D has Rs 100. A pays Rs 20 to B, who pays Rs 10 to C, who gets Rs
30 from D. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(UPSC 2015)
a. D is the poorest b. C is the richest c. B is richer than D
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d. C has more than what A and D have together
19. In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6 persons can speak Tamil, 15 can speak Hindi
and 6 can speak Gujarati. In that group, none can speak any other language. If 2 persons in
the group can speak two language and one person can speak all the three languages, then how
many persons are there in the group? (UPSC
2015)
a. 21 b. 22 c. 23 d. 24
20. A person is standing on the first step from the bottom of a ladder. If he has to climb 4
more steps to reach exactly the middle step how many steps does the ladder have?
(UPSC 2016)
a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11
Answer Key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A d b c c b d c d c d d b c d a b b d c b
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6. Sequence and Series
Types of questions asked -
• Finding missing terms.

• Find the wrong term.
• Prime number series.
• Addition series.
• Subtraction series.
• Multiplication series.
• Division series.
• Mixed
• Series of series.
Practice Questions
1. 4,8, __, 32,64.
a. 16 b. 12 c. 18 d. 24
2. 5, 10, 23, 26, 37,50 (find the wrong term).
a. 23 b. 5 c. 37 d. 50
3. 7, 11, 13, 15, 19, 23 : find the wrong term.

a. 11 b. 13 c. 15 d. 7
4. 4,9,25,49,121,169…… : find next term.

a. 289 b. 361 c. 441 d. 529
5. 3,6,9,12,15, ____, 21
a. 17 b. 18 c. 19 d. 20
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6. 56, 58, 62, 70, 84, 118, 182 : find the wrong term.
a. 58 b. 62 c. 84 d. 118
7. 2,6,30,210, ___, 30030 (UPSC 2012).
a. 2200 b. 2730 c. 2310 d. 2100
8. 2,10,50,260,1250,6250 : wrong term.

a. 50 b. 260 c. 1250 d. 6250
9. Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ... what number should come next?
a. 7 b. 10 c. 13 d. 12
10. Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ... what number should come next?
a. 20 b. 22 c. 23 d. 26
11. Look at this series: 22, 21, 23, 22, 24, 23, ... what number should come next?
a. 22 b. 24 c. 25 d. 26
12. Look at this series: 80, 10, 70, 15, 60, ... what number should come next?
a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 50
13. Consider the sequence given below: 4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96, .... The next term
of the series is (UPSC 2018)
a. 24/3/96 b. 25/3/96 c. 26/3/96 d. 27/3/96
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14. What is X in the sequence 132, 129, 124, 117, 106, 93, X? (UPSC
2019)
a. 74 b. 75 c. 76 d. 77
15. What is X in the sequence 4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64, X? (UPSC
2019)
a. 48 b. 64 c. 125 d. 256
16. Consider the following sequence that follows some arrangement:
c_accaa_aa_bc_b (UPSC 2019)
The letters that appear in the gaps are
a. abba b. cbbb c. bbbb d. cccc
17. Consider the following arrangement that has some missing letters:
abab_b_bcb_dcdcded_d (UPSC 2020)
The missing letters which complete the arrangement are
a. a, b, c, d b. a, b, d, e c. a, c, c, e d. b, c, d, e
18. Considering the following sequence of numbers:
51473985726315863852243496 (UPSC 2020)
How many odd numbers are followed by the odd number in the above sequence?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
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19. In the series _b_a_ba_b_abab_aab; fill in the six blanks (_) using one of the following
given four choices such that the series follows a specific order. (UPSC
2021)
a. bababa b. baabba c. bbaabb d. ababab
20. In the series AABABCABCDABCDE……
Which letter occupies the 100th position? (UPSC

2022)
a. H b. I c. J d. K
Answer Key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A a a c a b c c b b b c a b c b b c b d b
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7. Calendars and Clock
Basic Structure of a Calendar
1. Ordinary year: Any year which 365 days is called an ordinary year. Ex: 1879, 2009,
2019, etc.
2. Leap year: Any year which has 366 days is called a leap year. Ex: 2012, 2016 2020
etc. (if the year is divisible by 4, it is called leap year)
3. The division of the number 365 by 7 gives the quotient 52 and remainder 1 which
indicates that an ordinary year has 52 weeks and one extra day. This extra day is
referred to as an “odd day” throughout the calendar topic.
4. A leap year has 366 days, the division of the number 366 by 7 gives the quotient 52
and remainder 2. This indicates that a leap year has 52 weeks and 2 extra days. These
two extra days are also referred to as “odd days”.
5. An ordinary year has one odd day, whereas a leap year has two odd days.
Concept of an Odd Day

A number of odd days in a month
January has 31 days, irrespective of whether it’s an ordinary year or leap year. The division
of the number 31 by 7 provides the remainder 3 hence January has 3 odd days. On
generalising, any month which has 31 days has 3 odd days and any month which has 30 days
has 2 odd days.
The only exception happens in the case of February. The February month of an ordinary year
has 28 days, division of 28 by 7 provides zero as remainder. Hence, the number of odd days
in February of an ordinary year will have 0 odd days and that of leap years will have 1 odd
day as February in a leap year has 29 days.
Refer to the following three tables for odd days:
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Table 1:
Table 2:
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Table 3:
Clock theory
In every hour
1. (a) Both the Hands coincide once. At this point the angle between them is 0°.
(b) The hands are straight (point in opposite directions) once. At this point the angles
between them are 180°.
(c) The hands are twice perpendicular to each other. At this point the angle between them is
90°.
2. (a) In 60 min the minute hand covers 360°.
3. (a) When the two hands are at right angles, they are 15min spaces apart.
(b) When the two hands are in opposite directions, they are 30 min spaces apart.
(c) In 60 min the minute hand gains 55 min on the hour hand.
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(d) The minute hand moves 12 times as fast as the hour hand.
4. (a) Too Fast: If a clock indicates 7 : 1.5, when the correct time is 7, it is said to be 15 min
too fast.
(b) Too Slow: If a clock indicates 7 : 30, when the correct time is 7: 45 , it is said to be 15
min too slow.
Practice Questions
1. January 3, 2007 was Wednesday. What day of the week fell on January 3, 2008?
a. Tuesday b. Friday c. Thursday d. Saturday
2. If the third day of a month is Monday, then which day of the week will be the fifth day
from the 21st of that month?
a. Tuesday b. Monday c. Wednesday d. Thursday
3. If 5th January 1991 was a Saturday, what day of the week was 4th March 1992?
a. Monday b. Wednesday c. Friday d. Saturday
4. 4th April, 1988 was Monday. What day of the week was it, on 3rd November 1987?
a. Friday b. Tuesday c. Sunday d. Saturday
5. Find the day of the week on 26th January 1950.

a. Tuesday b. Friday c. Wednesday d. Thursday
6. Find the day of the week on 15th August 1947.

a. Tuesday b. Friday c. Wednesday d. Thursday
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7. Find the day of the week on 16th December, 1971.

a. Tuesday b. Sunday c. Friday d. Thursday
8. In a month of 31 days, the third Thursday falls on the 16th. What will be the last day of the
month?
a. 5th Friday b. 4th Saturday c. 5th Wednesday b. 5th Thursday
9. What were the days of the week on 17th August, 2010?

a. Sunday b. Wednesday c. Tuesday b. Friday
10. If a month in a year starts with Monday, then the date of the fourth day after the second
Saturday in that month, will be? (UPSC 2019)
a. 16 b. 17 c. 18 d. 19
11. From January 1, 2021, the price of petrol (in Rupees per litre) on mth day of the year is
80 + 0.1 m, where m = 1, 2, 3, ..., 100 and thereafter remains constant. On the other hand, the
price of diesel (in Rupees per litre) on the nth day of 2021 is 69 + 0.15 n for any n. On which
date in the year 2021 are the prices of these two fuels equal? (UPSC 2021)
a. 21st May b. 20th May c. 19th May d. 18th May
12. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time is 5 :
35 pm.
a. 42.5 degrees b. 167.5 degrees c. 168 degrees d. 49 degrees
13.Seeta and Geeta go for a swim after a gap of every 2 days and every 3 days respectively. If
on 1st January both of them went for a swim together, when will they go together next?
(UPSC 2019)
a. 7th January b. 8th January c. 12th January d. 13th January
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14. If the 3rdday of a month is Monday, which of the following will be the fifth day from 21st
of the month? (UPSC
2014)
a. Monday b. Tuesday c. Wednesday d. Thursday
15. Which year has the same calendar as that of 2009? (UPSC
2019)
a. 2018 b. 2017 c. 2016 d. 2015
16. If in the particular year 12th January is a Sunday, then which one of the following is
correct?
(UPSC 2020)
a) 15th July is a Sunday if the year is a leap year.
b) 15th July is a Sunday if the year is not a leap year.
c) 12th July is Sunday if the year is a leap year.
d) 12th July is a not Sunday if the year is a leap year
17. If second and fourth Saturdays and all Sundays are taken as only holidays for an office,
what would be the minimum number of possible working days of any month of any year?
(UPSC 2017)
a. 23 b. 22 c. 21 d. 20
18. Which day is 10th October, 2027?

a. Sunday b. Monday c. Tuesday d. Saturday
19. Which date of June 2099 among the following is Sunday? (UPSC
2022)
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
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20. A watch which gains uniformly, is 5 min slow at 7 o'clock in the morning on Sunday and
it is 5 min 48 s fast at 7 pm on following Sunday. Which day was it correct?
a. Friday b. Saturday c. Tuesday d. Wednesday
Answer Key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A c c b b d b d a c b b a d c d c b a d d
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8. Cube & Dice

Important Facts:
• A cube has 6 square faces or sides

• A cube has 8 points (vertices)
• A cube has 12 edges
• Only 3 sides of a cube are visible at a time (known as “Joint Sides”) and these sides
can never be on the opposite side of each other
• Things that are shaped like a cube are often referred to as ‘cubic’
• Most dice are cube shaped, with the numbers 1 to 6 on the different faces.
Certain Basic Rules for Dice:

There are certain dice rules in reasoning which can be used to solve dice-based questions:
Rule No. 1:
Two opposite faces of the dice cannot be adjacent to each other.
Here, faces with number 4, 3, 6 and 1 are adjacent to the face number 2.
Therefore, the 4, 3, 6, 1 can’t be opposite to the face number 2.
Therefore, face number 5 is opposite to face number 2.
Rule No. 2:
If two dice are as shown below, and one of the two common faces (Face number 4) is in the
same position, then the remaining faces will be opposite to each other.
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In both the diagrams, two faces numbered 1 & 3 are common.

Also, 5 & 6 are remaining faces. Hence, the face which is number 5 is opposite to the face
number 6.
Rule No. 3:
If in 2 different positions of the dice, the positions (different), the position of the face that’s
common is the same, and then the opposite faces of the faces that remain will be in the same
positions.
Rule No. 4:
If 2 positions of a die are given (Different) and it is also stated that the common face is
different then the face opposite to the given common face would be that which is not shown
on any given face in the 2 given positions. It is also to be noted that the opposite face of the
faces that are left cannot be the same.
Note, in the above shown dice, the face having value 6 is not in the similar position.
The face numbered 1 is not shown.
So, the face opposite to the face with number 6 is 1.
Also, the opposite face of 3 is the face with number 2 and the opposite to face numbered 5 is
the face with number 1.
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Cubes
Following steps must be kept in mind while solving the problems related to painted cubes :
For a cube of side n*n*n painted on all sides which is uniformly cut into smaller cubes of
dimension 1*1*1,
Number of cubes with 0 side painted= (n-2)^ 3
Number of cubes with 1 sides painted =6(n - 2) 2
Number of cubes with 2 sides painted= 12(n-2)
Number of cubes with 3 sides painted= 8(always)
For a cuboid of dimension a*b*c painted on all sides which is cut into smaller cubes of
dimension 1*1*1,
Number of cubes with 0 side painted= (a-2) (b-2) (c-2)
Number of cubes with 1 sides painted =2[(a-2) (b-2) + (b-2)(c-2) + (a-2)(c-2) ]
Number of cubes with 2 sides painted= 4(a+b+c -6)
Number of cubes with 3 sides painted= 8
Practice Questions
Q1. A cube is painted blue on all faces and is then cut into 125 cubes of equal sizes.
How many cubes are not painted on any faces?
a. 8 b. 16 c. 27 d. 36
Q2.In the given cubes, which color is opposite to purple?
a. Red b.Blue c. Yellow d. Green
Q3. Each of the six different faces of a cube has been coated with a different colour i.e. V I B
G Y and O. Following information is given: (UPSC 2015)
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1. Colours Y O and B are on adjacent faces.

2. Colours I G and Y are on adjacent faces.
3. Colours B G and Y are on adjacent faces.
4. Colours O V and B are on adjacent faces.
Which is the colour of the face opposite to the face coloured with “O”?
a. B b. V c. G d. I
Q4. A cuboid has six sides of different colours. The red side is opposite to black. The blue
side is adjacent to white. The brown side is adjacent to blue. The red side is face down.
Which one of the following would be the opposite to brown?
(UPSC 2010)
a. Red b. Black c. White d. Blue
Q5. Six faces of a cube are numbered from 1 to 6, each face carrying one different number.
Further,
1. The face 2 is opposite to the face 6.
2. The face 1 is opposite to the face 5.
3. The face 3 is between the face 1 and the face 5
4. The face 4 is adjacent to the face 2.
Which one of the following is correct?
a. The face 2 is adjacent to the face 3
b. The face 6 is between the face 2 and the face 4
c. The face 1 is between the face 5 and the face 6
d. None of the above
6. Each face of a cube can be painted in black or white colours. In how many different ways
can the cube be painted? (UPSC 2019)
a. 9 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12
7. A solid cube of 3 cm side, painted on all its faces, is cut up into small cubes of 1 cm side.
How many of the small cubes will have exactly two painted faces?
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(UPSC 2018)
a. 12 b. 8 c. 6 d. 4
8. A large cube has all its faces painted with different colours. It is cut into smaller cubes of
equal sizes such that the side of the small cube is one-fifth the side of the large cube. The
number of small cubes with at least two colours on its body is:
a. 54 b. 44 c. 36 d. 27
9. A cube has all its faces painted with different colours. It is cut into smaller cubes of equal
sizes such that the side of the small cube is one-fourth the big cube. The number of small
cubes with only one of the sides painted is: (UPSC
2016)
a. 32 b. 8 c. 16 d. 24
10. A cube has six numbers marked 1,2,3,4,5 and 6 on it’s faces. Three views of the cube are
shown below: (UPSC 2013)
What possible number can exist on the two faces marked and respectively on the cube?
a. 2 and 3 b. 6 and 1 c. 1and 4 d. 3 and 1
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11. Each face of the dice is painted with Purple, Red, Yellow, Blue, Gray and Black as shown
in the given ﬁgure. What colour is painted on the face opposite to Black colour?
a. Red b. Gray c. Purple d. Black

12. A solid cube is painted yellow, blue and black such that opposite faces are of same
colour. The cube is then cut into 36 cubes of two different sizes such that 32 cubes are small
and the other four cubes are Big. None of the faces of the bigger cubes is painted blue. How
many cubes have only one face painted? (UPSC
2019)
a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10
13. If all the faces of a cube are painted, and 9 cuts are made on it, such that the cube gets
divided into maximum number of identical cubes. How many small cubes will not have any
painted faces?
a. 4 b. 8 c. 27 d. 36
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
c c c c a b a b d a a c b
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9. Syllogism
Definition:
Syllogism has been defined as “A form of reasoning in which a conclusion is drawn
from two given or assumed propositions”. It is deductive reasoning rather than inductive
reasoning. It can be stated that an important part of the exam is Syllogism in reasoning.
Let us take two propositions as follows:
1. All men are old.

2. All old wear caps.
We can conclude on the basis of the above two statements that "All men wear caps"
However, the validity of the conclusion is important. Not all conclusions need to be valid.
Only those two propositions which lead to a valid conclusion are relevant to our cause.
For Example
1. All tasks are pending.

2. Some books are pending.
The conclusion that "Some books are tasks" is invalid.
You might be facing some difficulties regarding which type of statement can lead to what
type of conclusion. If you understand the rules given below and their proper use, you are
likely to commit no mistakes.
Basics of Syllogistic Reasoning
"A class is defined to be the collection of all objects that have some characteristics in
common". Classes can be related to each other in many ways. If every member of one class is
also a member of a second class, then the first class is said to be included or contained in the
second. If some but perhaps not all members of one class are also member of another, then
the first class may be said to be contained partially in the second class. Of course, there are
pairs of classes having no members in common, such as the class of all triangles and the class
of all circles.
1. Now let us take 4 statements

2. All persons are kind.
3. No person is kind.
4. Some persons are kind
5. Some persons are not kind.
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The first statement is about two classes and clearly defines that the first class is included in
the second.
The second statement says that the first class is wholly excluded from the second.
The third statement says that at least one member of class 1 is also a member of class 2.
The fourth similarly implies that at least one person is not kind.
Note: it is important to understand the above four statements completely before proceeding
further.
Universal Positive Statement: First of all universal means something which is applicable to
all and positive means, this is of ‘yes’ format. Universal positive statement indicates
something positive applicable to all the items in that category. This is represented by the
letter ‘A’. These statements begin with All, Each and Every.
Some Examples are: All boys are sharp, All girls are cute, All Indians are kind.
Every computer is a fan. Each of the colleges is a school.
All these are ‘A’ type of statements, because they all are conveying universal positive
meanings.
Universal Negative Statement: Again, in this case, the only difference from the last
category is that, in this case, the statement conveys a negative meaning. It implies that it
refers to that kind of statements, which are universal and giving a negative impression. These
types of statements begin with No, None of the, Not a single etc. and are represented by the
letter ‘E’. Some examples of these types of statements are:
No S is P. No person is intelligent. No Rita is Meena. No boy is smart.
None of the girls is busy. Not a single person is sleeping.
Particular Positive Statement:In this case, the statement given gives a positive impression
but it covers only some items and not all. This type of statements begins with some, any, a
few and are represented by the letter ‘I’.
Some examples of I type statements are:
Some lawyers are actors, some fruits are apples, few books are keys.
Some staplers are mobiles.
Particular Negative Statement: Here, the statement again covers only some items, but it
gives a negative impression. These kinds of statements are represented by the letter ‘O’.
Some examples of this are…
Some girls are not crazy, some files are not pencils, some m is not n,
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Some Rohit are not Dhawan’s. Few vegetables are not green.
The definitions of the A, E, I, O statement are very important and the student must be able to
immediately recognize the statement.
With these things in mind, given below is a list of all the four types of statements.
Practice Questions:
Q1. Consider the following three statements:
1. Only students can participate in the race.
2. Some participants in the race are girls.
3. All girl participants in the race are invited for coaching.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
(a) All participants in the race are invited for coaching.
(b) All students are invited for coaching.
(c) All participants in the race are students.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.
Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. All machines consume energy
2. Electricity provides energy
3. Electrically operated machines are cheap to maintain
4. Electrically operated machines do not cause pollution.
Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?
a) All machines are run by electric energy.
b) There is no form of energy other than electricity
c) Most machines are operated on electric energy.
d) Electrically operated machines are preferable to use.
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Q3. Examine the following statements:

1. None but the rich ran afford air-travel.
2. Some of those who travel by air become sick
3. Some of those who become sick require treatment
a) All the rich persons travel by air.
b) Those who travel by air become sick
c) All the rich persons become sick.
d) All those who travel by air are rich

1) I watch TV only if I am bored
2) I am never bored when I have my brother’s company.
3) Whenever I go to the theatre I take my brother along.
Which one of the following conclusions is valid in the context of the above statements?
a) If I am bored I watch TV
b) If I am bored, I seek my brother’s company.
c) If I am not with my brother, thani'll watch TV.
d) If I am not bored I do not watch TV.

1. None but students are the members of the club.
2. Some members of the club are married.
3. All married persons are invited for dance.
Which one of the conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
a) All students are invited for dance
b) All married students are invited for dance
c) All members of the club are married person
d) None of the above conclusions can be drawn
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1. All X-brand cars parked here are white.
2. Some of them have radial tyres
3. All X-brand cars manufactured after 1986 have radial tyres are parked here.
4. All cars are not X-brand.
a) Only white cars are parked here.
b) Some white X-brand cars with radial tyres are parked here.
c) Cars other than X-brand cannot have radial tyres.
d) Most of the X-brand cars are manufactured before 1986.

1. All artists are whimsical.
2. Some artists are drug addicts.
3. Frustrated people are prone to become drug addicts.
From the above three statements it may be concluded that:
a) Artists are frustrated
b) Some drug addicts are whimsical
c) All frustrated people are drug addicts.
d) Whimsical people are generally frustrated

1. Either A & B are of same age or A is older than B
2. Either C & D are of same age or D is older than C
3. B is older than C
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
a. A is older than B
b. B and D are of the same age
c. D is older than C
d. A is older than C
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1. Only those who have a pair of binoculars can become the member of the birdwatcher's
club.
2. Some members of the birdwatcher's club have cameras.
3. Those members who have cameras can take part in photo-contests.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
a) All those who have a pair of binoculars are members of the birdwatcher's club.
b) All members of the birdwatcher's club have a pair of binoculars.
c) All those who take part in photo-contests are members of the birdwatcher's club.
d) No conclusion can be drawn.
Q10. During the summer vacation Ankit went to a summer camp where he took part in
hiking, swimming and boating. This summer, he is looking forward to a music camp where
he hopes to sing, dance and learn to play the guitar.
Based on the above information four conclusions as given below, have been made. Which
one of these logically follows from the information given above?
a) Ankit's parents want him to play guitar.
b) Ankit prefers music to outdoor activities.
c) Ankit goes to some type of camp every summer.
d) Ankit likes to sing and dance.
Q11. Statements: Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers.
Conclusions:
• Some actors are dancers.

• No singer is actor.
A. Only (1) conclusion follows

B. Only (2) conclusion follows
C. Either (1) or (2) follows
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D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows
Q12. Statements: All the harmoniums are instruments. All the instruments are flutes.
Conclusions:
• All the flutes are instruments.

• All the harmoniums are flutes.

Q13. Statements: Some mangoes are yellow. Some tixo are mangoes.
Conclusions:
1. Some mangoes are green.
2. Tixo is yellow.
Q14. Statements: Some ants are parrots. All the parrots are apples.
Conclusions:
• All the apples are parrots.
• Some ants are apples.
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Q15. Statements: Some papers are pens. All the pencils are pens.
Conclusions:
• Some pens are pencils.
• Some pens are papers.
E. Both (1) and (2) follow
Answer Key:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
c d d d b b b d b b d b d b e
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SECTION 3
1. Reading Comprehension
“I can explain it to you, but I can’t comprehend it for you”

-Ed Koch
In reading comprehension, it is one’s capacity to understand and reasoning ability that is

being assessed. The skills to hone are one’s ability to grasp the main ideas from a passage,
linking the various ideas in a given passage and being able to infer and draw conclusions. For
this one requires an extensive vocabulary and advanced reading skills. Since there is no
syllabus to fall back on, aspirants have to rely on their skills to be able to tackle passages they
have never seen.
There needs to be a focus on grammar, at least in the initial stages of preparation as it is the
first step to understanding any language. A strong grammatical basis provides a foundation to
build advanced skills on. Once the candidates have a strong hold on their grammar, the focus
should shift to reading comprehension. For this the more one reads, the more their confidence
will increase.
One thing aspirant must remember even before reading a passage is recognising the
difference between an author’s opinion and their own thoughts about a subject. Unless the
passage asks for it, it is the author’s opinion the aspirants must stick to. What is being
assessed here is the ability to comprehend and assimilate information presented in front of the
reader. This might take some practice as students are often hardwired to stick to their
preconceived thoughts. Since too much time cannot be spent on a single passage to
differentiate between author’s opinion and student’s thoughts, the passages should be
approached in a blank manner, only taking in what the passage is giving.
Techniques to Tackle Comprehension Passages:

1. Key Ideas: Every passage will have a central, key idea that determines other ideas
discussed in the passage. The key sentences should be identified after the first reading
of the passage. They can be underlined or marked by the aspirant.
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2. Summarise the information: while reading the passage the students should develop a
habit of summarising the ideas given and linking them to each other. This requires
differentiating important ideas from additional details that are not important for the
purposes of answering the questions.
3. Linking the ideas: Apart from the central idea, the passage will discuss more ideas
that may be equally important depending on what the question is. It is important for
the aspirants to be able to link the ideas as the questions may ask for implied ideas
within the passage instead of explicit information.
4. Pay Attention to Structural Words: Structural words give an idea about the passage on
the whole and can give clues about the author’s point.
There are usually three kinds of Structural words:
1. Contrast Words: these introduce an opposite view. Examples of these include
yet, despite, although, but, nonetheless, however etc.
2. Continuity Words: these support the author’s view. Examples include
likewise, similarly, moreover, furthermore, in the same way, additionally, etc.
3. Conclusive words: these are used to conclude an idea or a point. Examples
include so, thus, therefore, hence, consequently, as a result etc.
Steps to Approach a Passage:
1. Read the questions carefully: In the questions, the aspirant will get an instruction
regarding what to look for in the passage.
2. Read the passage with the questions in mind: reading the passage after having read
the questions streamlines the process. The passage should be approached according to
the demand in the question.
3. Consider the Options: the aspirant should look at the options next and correspond it
with their answer to find the closest match.
Terminology to Remember
1. Assume: to accept something as true without proof

2. Assumption a thing that is accepted as true without proof
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3. Conclude: to arrive at an end

4. Conclusion: the final outcome or result
5. Crux: the most important point of an issue
6. Imply: indicating/ pointing towards something that is not explicitly stated
7. Implication: to draw a conclusion from something although it is not explicitly stated
8. Inference: to draw a conclusion based on evidence.
Types of Questions
1. Main theme: Questions about the main theme or a central idea is based on the
passage in its entirety. The solution is generally in the introductory or concluding
lines of the passage. Key phrases to look out for are “central idea” or “Crux of the
passage”. Thinking of a title for the passage is a good approach as titles are usually
indicative of the main idea. While solving these questions you do not need to pay
attention to the details. The details are additional information that are emphasising or
supporting the main idea. The main idea may or may not be explicitly stated in the
passage but every point of the passage will be in support of it.
Example Passage
A study conducted on the impacts of climate change over the Cauvery basin of Tamil
Nadu using regional climate models showed an increasing trend for maximum and
minimum temperatures, and a decrease in the number of rainy days. These climatic
shifts will have an impact on the hydrological cycles in the region, lead to more run-
off and less recharge, and affect the groundwater tables. Further, there has been an
increase in the frequency of droughts in the State. This has driven farmers to increase
dependency on groundwater resources to secure their crops.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage given
above?
a. Development of regional climate models helps in choosing climate-

smart agricultural practises.
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b. Heavy dependence on groundwater resources can be reduced by

adopting dry-land roping systems.
c. Climate changes increase the criticality of water resources while
simultaneously threatening it.
d. Climate change causes the farmers to adopt unsustainable livelihoods
and risky coping strategies.
Answer and Explanation

The passage discusses the adverse impact of climate change on the water cycle. The
details of the impact are additional information supporting the main idea. The
question asks for the crux which is a keyword asking for the main idea.
Option (a) and (b) are true on their own, but about agricultural practices and the
passage’s main idea is about the impact of climate change on the hydrological cycle.
Options (c) and (d) are both about impact of climate change but option (d) is about
impact of climate change on the farmers while (c) is about impact on water resources.
So the third option is the best possible answer.
Note: when you answer questions about the main or central idea, you need to make
sure that you have an understanding of the whole passage. The main idea will not be
in the additional details. So it is imperative that you understand the passage in its
entirety. The question also needs to be read carefully.
2. Assumptions of the author: The questions are based on the author’s opinions and
thoughts while writing the passage. The answer in this case is not directly in the passage and
requires critical thinking on the part of the student. It is important to note that it is the
author’s opinion that is being asked and aspirants need to remove their thoughts and opinions
and focus solely on the author. It is important to note the writing style while trying to solve
these questions; how the author is describing things, whether he is making a statement or
posing questions. The key words to look out for in these types of questions are “assumed”,
“assumptions made”, “According to the passage/author”.
Example Passage:
A central message of modern development economics is the importance of income

growth, which means growth in Gross Domestic Product (GDP). In theory, rising
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GDP creates unemployment and investment opportunities. As incomes grow in a

country where the level of GDP was once low, households, communities, and
governments are increasingly able to set aside some funds for the production of things
that make for a good life. Today GDP has assumed such a significant place in the
development lexicon, that if someone mentions “economic growth”, we know they
mean growth in GDP.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Rising GDP is essential for a country to be developed country
2. Rising GDP guarantees a reasonable distribution of income to all households.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation:
The passage is discussing the perceived importance of GDP in today’s world. Since
the question has asked for assumptions made, you need to focus on the opinions of the
author instead of your own thoughts. Of the two assumptions given as part of the
question, the first seems to be reflected in the passage. The second option has the
word ‘guarantees’ meaning an assurance or a promise. However the passage has the
phrase “in theory” which is used in describing something that is supposed to happen
but may or may not happen. The connotation or implication is usually towards the
negative. So option no. 2 is not an assumption. Option no. 1 is the only assumption
that has been made by the author. The answer thus is (a).
Note: Make sure to read the question carefully. It could ask what assumptions have
been made and also what assumptions can be made. The first indicates assumptions of
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the author; the second refers to assumptions that can be made after reading the
passage (by you). The answer may differ based on this technicality.
3. Explicit Information: These are direct questions and perhaps the easiest to solve because
of their direct nature. The answers are fact based and are found within the passage itself. For
these questions the details need to be focused on. It is also important to read the question
properly as many times they are negative. The question may ask what the passage is NOT
saying. Either way, for these questions the second reading of the passage needs to be detail
oriented. The questions are direct or may ask which of the given options are true.
Example Passage:
The sugar maple is a hard maple tree. It can grow as tall as 100 feet and as wide as 4
feet. The sugar maple is commercially valued for its sap, which is used in making
maple syrup. Two northeastern states, Vermont and New York, rank as major
producers of maple syrup. In Canada, Quebec’s annual syrup production surpasses 2.5
million gallons. To make pure maple syrup, holes are made in the trunk of the tree at
the end of winter or in early spring. The water-like sap seeps through the holes and
runs through a plastic spout that is put into the hole. Afterwards, the collected sap is
transferred into tubes that are hooked up to a tank kept in the sugar house. Then, the
sap goes through the boiling process. Boiling enhances flavour and adds colour to the
sap. Once the sugar content of the sap is about 65%–66%, the sap is ready to be
strained and marketed. Maple syrup found in supermarkets, however, is usually not
pure and has other additives. The colour of pure maple may range from golden honey
to light brown. Between 35 to 50 gallons of sap is needed to produce 1 gallon of
maple syrup. Also, popular for the strength and finish of its wood, the sugar maple
tree has been put to use in furniture, interior woodwork, flooring, and crates.
According to the passage, which of the following periods is ideal for sapping?
(a) End of winter or in early spring

(b) Beginning of winter or in early spring
(c) End of winter or late spring
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(d) Throughout the year
This is a question where the answer is explicitly given in the passage.So after reading
the passage a cursory reading, re-read the passage carefully looking for the answer.
These questions are a sure way to score some marks. Based on the information in the
passage, sapping takes place at the end of winter and in early spring. Hence, the
correct answer is (a).
4. Implicit Information: This is the direct opposite of explicit information in that the
answers to these types of questions are not given directly within the passage. They need to be
deduced from the passage after a close reading. They test the aspirant’s reasoning ability
along with their comprehension skills. The implied idea will not be found by merely
evaluating the options. The key words to look out for are “implied” or “implications”. While
reading the passage, the aspirant should think about the consequences of the passage, what
the passage is saying and also what the passage is not saying.
Example Passage
In the immediate future, we will see the increasing commodification of many new
technologies– artificial intelligence and robotics, 3D manufacturing, custom made
biological and pharmaceutical products, lethal autonomous weapons and driverless
cars. The moral question of how a driverless car will decide between hitting a
jaywalker and swerving and damaging the car has often been debated, the answer is
both simple- save the human life - and complex. At which angle should the ar swerve-
just enough to save the jaywalker or more than enough? If the driverless car is in
Dublin, who would take the decision? The Irish Government, or the car’s original
code writer in California, or a software programmer in Hyderabad to whom
maintenance is outsourced? If different national jurisdictions have different fine print
on prioritising a human life, how will it affect insurance and investment decisions,
including transactional ones?
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Which of the following statements best reflect the rational, plausible and practical
implications that can be derived from the passage given above?
1. Too much globalisation is not in the best interest of any country.
2. Modern technologies are increasingly blurring the economic borders.
3. Innovation and capital have impinged on the domain of the State.
4. Public policy of every country should focus on developing its own supply
chains.
5. Geopolitics will have to reconcile to many ambiguities and uncertainties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1, 4 and 5 only
b. 1,2,3 and 5 only
c. 2,3 and 5 only
d. 1,2,3,4 and 5
This passage is about the moral conundrum of new technologies. It is full of examples
and you need to focus on the main idea. It is important to note that the passage is not
criticising new technologies, nor is it offering any solutions. It is merely stating that
new technologies have caused new problems. Option 1 is a direct critique of
globalisation. Since the passage is not a critique of globalisation, Option 1 gets
immediately negated. All the options except (c)have option 1 in them. So the third
option is the correct answer.
5. Inference/Conclusion based questions: These questions ask the aspirant to infer from the
information given in the passage or draw a conclusion. The conclusion could be directly
given in the passage or it could be that the aspirant needs to draw the inferences themselves.
Inferences can usually be drawn from anywhere within the passage while conclusions will
focus on the last few lines. The words to look out for are “concluding remarks”, “infer”,
“inference”.
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Example Passage
Our cities are extremely vulnerable to climate change because of large concentrations
of populations and poor infrastructure. Moreover, population densities are increasing
in them but we have not yet developed the systems to address climate change impacts.
Our cities contribute to 65 percent of the GDP, but there are not enough facilities to
address the issues of air quality, transport, etc., that are vital to identifying sustainable
solutions. We need to involve citizens in city planning and create an ecosystem that
meets the needs of the people.
Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made
from the passage given above?
a. Our cities need to have well-defined administrative set-up with sufficient autonomy.
b. Ever increasing population densities is a hindrance in our efforts to achieve
sustainable development.
c. To maintain and develop our cities we need to adopt sustainability related
interventions.
d. Public-private Partnership mode of development is the viable long-term solution for
the infrastructure and sustainability problems in India.
This passage is about cities that are being affected due to climate change. Since
inference based questions require critical thinking by you, you need to read the
passage very carefully to determine the most logical inference. After reading the
passage, think about what the passage is indicating since the answer is not directly
there in the passage. Here while options a), b) and d) are all true statements, option c)
is the most appropriate option.
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2. Vocabulary
By now it should be clear to you how important having a strong vocabulary is.
To have even a basic understanding of comprehension passages it is important to first
understand the words. However, building up one’s vocabulary requires rigorous practice.
1. Read, Rinse and Repeat: Reading is an essential, unavoidable step of the process. In
order to get familiar with important words that might come up in comprehension
passages, making a habit of reading newspapers is helpful. Some good examples
include Indian Express, The Times of India and The Hindu. Everytime you come
across a new word, it is a good idea to underline or highlight it and relate it to your
own life. Make a note of each new word you come across to refer to later.
2. A Separate Notebook: It is a good idea to have a separate space to write down all the
new words that you come across. As you come across more words, it is likely that
some might escape your memory. Having them all written down in one place for
reference later can be particularly helpful for active recall.
3. Construct Sentences: Memorising a list of new words will only get you so far. Writing
sentences with unfamiliar words you come across makes you actively engage with
each word, which each in turn helps retain it in your memory for much longer. It is
also extra grammar practice that will help you write better essays in future.
4. Flashcards: Flashcards help in active recall which has been proven to improve one’s
memory.
5. Word games: Playing word games could be a way to build your vocabulary while
relaxing. However, be careful to not use this as an excuse to use your phone to
procrastinate.
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A List of Important Words:
Abdicate: 1. (of a monarch) to renounce one's throne

2. to fail to fulfil a responsibility or duty
Synonyms: resign, retire, step down, disown, turn down
Antonym: Accept.
Abject: extremely unpleasant

Synonyms: wretched, miserable.
Abrade: scrape or wear away by friction or erosion

Synonyms: wear, erode
Antonym: rebuild
Abridged: A piece of writing that has been shortened.

Synonyms: Concise, shortened, condensed.
Antonyms: lengthened, expanded
Abundant: having large quantities

Synonyms: plentiful, ample, copious
Antonyms: scarce, sparse.
Acquit: To free someone from a criminal charge by verdict of not guilty.

Synonyms: absolve, clear, exonerate.
Antonyms: Convict.
Adamant: Refusing to be persuaded or change one's mind.

Synonyms: firm, Steadfast, resolute.
Antonym: unsure
Adequate: Satisfactory or acceptable in quality or quantity.

Synonyms: Enough, sufficient, ample.
Antonyms: insufficient, inadequate.
Adverse: harmful or unfavourable.

Synonyms: disadvantageous, dangerous.
Antonyms: favourable, beneficial, positive
Aggravate: make a problem worse or more serious; to annoy.

Synonyms: provoke, antagonise.
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Antonyms: calm, conciliate
Ailing: in poor health.

Synonyms: ill, unwell.
Antonyms: healthy, strong.
Alienated: to feel isolated.

Synonyms: estranged, isolated, set apart.
Antonyms: united
Allude: to hint at; suggest indirectly.

Synonyms: imply, mention in passing.
Antonyms: direct
Ally: a state formally cooperating with another state. verb combine or unite a resource for
mutual benefit.
Synonyms: amalgamate, pool.
Antonyms: split
Ambiguous: unclear or vague.

Synonyms: perplexing, cryptic, dubious.
Antonyms: unambiguous, clear.
Ambivalent: having mixed feelings or contradictory ideas about something. Synonyms:

uncertain, doubtful, inconclusive.
Antonyms: certain, unequivocal.
Amidst: in the middle of, at the time of.
Ample: Enough or more than enough.

Synonyms: plentiful, abundant.
Antonyms: insufficient, scarce.
Annihilate: to destroy completely.

Synonyms: destroy, wipe out, obliterate.
Antonyms: create, build, establish.
Applaud: verb. to show approval or praise (by clapping).

Synonyms: acclaim, cheer.
Antonym: disapprove
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Audacity: 1. a willingness to take bold risks.

2. rude or disrespectful behaviour.
Synonyms: impertinence, impudence, insolence, daring.
Antonyms: politeness.
Complacency: A feeling of smug or uncritical satisfaction with oneself or one's

achievements.
Synonyms: smugness, self-approval, gloating.
Antonyms: dissatisfaction
Complement: a thing that contributes features to something else in a way that improves or
emphasises its quality.
Synonyms: supplement, accompany.
Antonym: contrast
Compliance: to act in accordance with a wish or command.

Synonyms: obey, follow, fulfil,
Antonyms: ignore, disober.
Compliment: a praise or expression of approval.

Synonyms: flattering, appreciative.
Antonym: derogatory
Conundrum:. 1. A confusing and difficult problem 2. A riddle Similar Words: dilemna,

quandary, puzzle, teaser
Deleterious: causing harm or damage.

Synonyms: harmful, amaging, detrimental
Antonyms: beneficial, advantageous
Dichotomy: a division or contrast between two things that are seemingly opposite or
completely different.
Synonyms: contradiction, polarity.
Distinguish: to recognise or treat something as different.

Synonyms: differentiate, discriminate, separate
Distortion: twisted or contorted
Egalitarian: based on the principle that all are equal and deserve equal rights. Noun. a person
who supports equal rights and equality for all people.
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Synonyms: equalitarian, classless, impartial
Emphasise: give special importance or value to something; lay stress on something.

Synonyms: stress, highlight, dwell on.
Antonym: understate
Empirical: based on observation or experience rather than theory or pure logic. Synonyms:
observed, factual, first-hand.
Antonym: theoretical
Exacerbate: make a problem or situation worse

Synonym: aggravate, worsen, intensify.
Antonym: calm, reduce
Fragment: a small part broken off or separated from something.

Synonyms: piece, particle.
Antonym: whole.
Impact: effect or influence. verb. come into forcible contact with another object.
Synonym: impression, collision, crash
Indigenous: originating or occurring naturally in a particular place

Synonyms: native, aboriginal, local
Antonym: migrant, foreign
Integration: the process of uniting different things.

Synonyms: combination, unification, incorporation.
Antonyms: separation, segregation
Jurisdiction: the official power to make legal decisions and judgements

Synonyms: Authority, control, power, dominion.
Mitigate: make (something bad) less severe; lessen the gravity of something.
Synonym: alleviate, reduce, diminish.
Antonym: aggravate, intensify
Muddle: a mix up, confused state.

Synonyms: disarray, disorganise.
Antonym: orderly
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Necessitate: make something necessary as a result or consequence

Synonym: entail, require
Pervasive: spreading widely throughout an area or a group of people.

Synonyms: prevalent, penetrating,
Profusely: In large amounts. similar words: excessively, extensively, abundantly. Opposite

words: Scanty, Sparing.
Quintessential: Representing the most typical example of something.

Synonyms: typical, classic, essential
Reconcile: restore friendly relations between.

Synonyms: appease, placate, pacify
Antonyms: agitate, irritate
Renounce: formally declare abandonment LAW: Refuse or resign a right or position

Synonyms: Relinquish, reject, abdicate, surrender.
Antonyms: accept
Rhetoric: the art of effective or persuasive speaking or writing. Language designed to have a
persuasive or impressive effect, but is often regarded as lacking in sincerity.
Synonyms: oratory, eloquence.
Scrutiny: Critical observation or examination.

Synonym: careful examination, inspection, survey
Antonym: Cursory look
Stringent: (of regulation, requirements or conditions) strict, precise and exacting.

Synonym: strict, firm, rigorous.
Antonym: lenient, flexible
Trajectory: the path followed by something.

Synonym: course, route, path.
Vulnerable: exposed to the possibility of being attacked or harmed, either physically or

emotionally.
Synonyms: at risk, endangered, unguarded.
Antonym: invulnerable, resilient
Withstand: remain undamaged or unaffected by something; offer strong resistance to
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something.
Synonyms: resist, hold out against.
Antonyms: give in, surrender
4. Useful Phrases and Idioms:
1. ‘The best of both worlds’ – means you can enjoy two different opportunities at the same
time.
2. ‘Speak of the devil’ – this means that the person you’re just talking about actually appears
at that moment.
3. ‘See eye to eye’ – this means agreeing with someone.
4. ‘Once in a blue moon’ – an event that happens infrequently.
5. ‘When pigs fly’ – something that will never happen.
6. ‘To cost an arm and a leg’– something is very expensive.
7. ‘A piece of cake’– something is very easy.
8. ‘Let the cat out of the bag’ – to accidentally reveal a secret.
9. ‘To feel under the weather’ – to not feel well.
10. ‘To kill two birds with one stone’ – to solve two problems at once.
11. ‘To cut corners’ – to do something badly or cheaply.
12. ‘To add insult to injury’ – to make a situation worse.
13. ‘You can’t judge a book by its cover’ – to not judge someone or something based solely
on appearance.
14. ‘Break a leg’ – means ‘good luck’ (often said to actors before they go on stage).
15. ‘To hit the nail on the head’ – to describe exactly what is causing a situation or problem.
16. ‘A blessing in disguise’ – An misfortune that eventually results in something good
happening later on.
17. ‘Call it a day’ – Stop working on something
18. ‘Let someone off the hook’ – To allow someone, who has been caught, to not be
punished.
19. ‘No pain no gain’ – You have to work hard for something you want.
20. ‘Bite the bullet’ – Decide to do something unpleasant that you have avoided doing.
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21. ‘Getting a taste of your own medicine’ – Being treated the same unpleasant way you have
treated others.
22. ‘Giving someone the cold shoulder’ – To ignore someone.
23. ‘The last straw’ – The final source of irritation for someone to finally lose patience.
24. ‘The elephant in the room’ – A matter or problem that is obviously of great importance
but that is not discussed openly.
25. ‘Stealing someone's thunder’ – Taking credit for someone else's achievements.
Important Note: These lists are only starting points meant to give you a head start. Only
memorising these will not be enough. It is important you form a habit of practising as much
as possible. A general tip for gaining confidence with unseen passages widely. This not only
helps in increasing the vocabulary but it allows aspirants to grow familiar with the English
language, an essential skill to possess. Since the passages come from a variety of topics
dealing with current affairs, reading widely, across different kinds of reading media, like
(newspapers, novels, blog posts) can help ease one’s fear of unfamiliar passages.
Practice Questions
Read the following passages and answer the questions given below:
Though top leaders of the nationalist movement were the policy makers, the immediate day-
to-day leadership was provided by the middle-class intellectuals. The rural origin of the
industrial labour force together with rampant illiteracy and their simplistic docility attracted
social workers, mainly drawn from the middle-class intellectuals. They had an obvious
advantage. Not being employees, the leaders were free from fear of victimisation and
immune towards the risks of leadership. Being generally well educated, they had a better
perspective and sense of organisation. They could see the issue in a broader context. They
belonged to a higher social plane than the workers and with good education and intellectual
development comparable to the best among the employers they could meet the employers on
their own plane and carry on negotiations on an equal footing. According to the Royal
Commission on Labour in India, ‘the effect of this surge was enhanced by the political
turmoil which added to the prevailing feelings of unrest and assured to provide willing
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leaders of a trade union movement’. But outside leadership had led to the politicisation of the
movement.
1. What conclusion can be drawn based on the passage given above?
I. The middle class intellectuals were active participants in the Nationalistic
movement because the workers did not want to choose a leader among
themselves.
II. The integration of middle class intellectuals as political leaders caused the
movement to become politicised.
a. Only (I)
b. Only (II)
c. Both (I) and (II)
d. Neither (I) and (II)
Inequality is visible, even statistically measurable in many instances, but the economic power
that drives it is invisible and not measurable. Like the force of gravity, power is the
organising principle of inequality, be it of income, or wealth, gender, race, religion and
region. Its effects are seen in a pervasive manner in all spheres, but the ways in which
economic power pulls and tilts visible economic variables remain invisibly obscure.
2. On the basis of the above passage, which of the following best articulates the crux
of the passage?
a. Economic power can be analysed more through its effects than by direct empirical
methods
b. Inequality of different kinds, income, wealth, etc. reinforces power.
c. The nature of economic power, the driving force behind all kinds of inequality, is
obscurity.
d. Economics power is the only reason for the existence of inequality in a society.
A majority of the TB infected in India are poor and lack sufficient nutrition, suitable housing
and have little understanding of prevention. TB then devastates families, makes the poor
poorer, particularly affects women and children, and leads to ostracization and loss of
employment. The truth is that even if TB does not kill them, hunger and poverty will.
Another truth is that deep-sealed stigma, lack of counselling, expensive treatment and lack of
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adequate support from providers and family, couples with torturous side-effects demotivate
patients to continue treatment- with disastrous health consequences.
3. On the basis of the passage above, which one of the following assumptions can be
made?
a. The circumstances in India makes TB an incurable disease in India.
b. Basic amenities like proper nutrition, housing can alleviate the current TB situation in
India.
c. The stigma caused by TB is worse than the disease itself.
d. The poverty stricken people of India are unwilling to seek medical help to cure TB
because of the harmful side effects and high cost of treatment.
The plunder of Latin America left 70 million indigenous people dead in its wake. In India, 30
million died of famine under British rule. Average living standards in India and China, which
had been on par with Britain before the colonial period, collapsed. So too did their share of
world GDP, falling from 65 percent to 10 percent, while Europe’s share tripled. And mass
poverty became an issue for the first time in history, as European capitalism - driven by the
imperatives of growth and profit - prised people off their land and destroyed their capacity for
self-sufficient subsistence. Development for some meant underdevelopment of others.
4. Consider the following statements

A. European capitalism is the root cause of mass poverty
B. Colonialism caused displacement of indigenous population.
C. Europe’s status as a wealthy nation is based on the destruction of third world
countries.
Which of these statements can be inferred to be true based on the passage above?
a. A and B only
b. B only
c. A and C only
d. A, B, and C only
The world map of inequalities reveals that national average income levels are poor predictors
of inequality — among high-income countries, some are very unequal (such as the US),
while others are relatively equal (Sweden). "The same is true among low- and middle-income
countries, with some exhibiting extreme inequality (Brazil and India), somewhat high levels
(China) and moderate to relatively low levels (Malaysia, Uruguay)," stated the World
Inequality Report. The report noted that income and wealth inequalities have been on the rise
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nearly everywhere since the 1980s, following a series of deregulation and liberalisation
programmes which took different forms in different countries. "The rise has not been
uniform: certain countries have experienced spectacular increases in inequality (including the
US, Russia and India) while others (European countries and China) have experienced
relatively smaller rises," it said.
The report pointed out that in 2021, after three decades of trade and financial globalisation,
global inequalities remain extremely pronounced. "They are about as great today as they were
at the peak of Western imperialism in the early 20th century," it said. Lucas Chancel, lead
author of the report, said the COVID crisis has exacerbated inequalities between the very
wealthy and the rest of the population. "Yet, in rich countries, government intervention
prevented a massive rise in poverty, this was not the case in poor countries. This shows the
importance of social states in the fight against poverty," he said.
5. What is the most logical inference that can be drawn from the above passage?
a. The involvement of the state is essential to the alleviation of the poor.

b. The COVID crisis has caused the rich to become richer and poor to become poorer.
c. High income countries are more unequal than low income countries
d. The World Inequality Report states that income levels are not good indicators of
inequality.
Scientists have warned that global warming will keep getting worse until humanity reaches
“net zero” emissions globally — that is, the point at which we are no longer pumping any
additional greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. So in recent years a growing number of
countries and businesses have been pledging to “go net zero” by various dates. But the
concept can easily be abused. It’s one example of climate terminology that can be hard to
decipher.
6. What are the most appropriate implications according to the passage given above?
I.The solution to global warming is to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

II.The language surrounding climate change leaves room for loopholes that are misused.
III.Businesses and countries pledging environmental goals will help making lasting impact on
climate change issues
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IV.Climate change policies require cooperation on a global scale.

V.Businesses pledging “go net zero” are contributing to rising temperatures globally.
a. Only (IV)
b. (II), (IV) Only
c. (I),(II),(III),(V) Only
d. (II),(III),(V) Only
No superhuman brain is required to avoid the various foolish opinions that many of us hold.
A few simple rules will keep you away not from all errors, but from silly errors. If the matter
is one which can be settled by observation, make the observation yourself. Aristotle could
have avoided the mistake of thinking that women have fewer teeth than men, by the simple
method of counting the teeth of Mrs. Aristotle. Thinking that you know, when in fact, you do
not know, is a bad mistake to which many of us are prone.
7. Based on the passage above, which of the following assumptions has been made by the
author?
a. Even great people like Aristotle can make a mistake

b. Silly mistakes can be avoided by resorting to thinking.
c. One does not have to be exceptionally clever to avoid making silly mistakes.
d. We are prone to making avoidable mistakes since we do not care to think for
ourselves.
Those who pay attention to the Olympics tend to view them from one end of a telescope or
the other. Most who tune in for the sporting event every couple of years love the suspense.
They may know, in the recesses of their minds, that the spectacle disguises a rusty and
corrupt system, prone to vote buying in the selection of host cities, appeasement of dictators
and unkept promises. To the fans of the Olympics, the positives outweigh the negatives.
Those who analyse the Olympics more broadly see the balance in reverse. They may
appreciate the athletic achievements, but not enough to outweigh concerns about damage
inflicted by the Olympics.
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8. Which of the following options best reflects the central message of the passage given
above?
a. The Olympic games are a testament to the world’s athletic talent
b. Analyses of the Olympic games reveals a lot of corruption in the host cities
c. Despite the athletic marvels showcased in the Olympics, its many drawbacks cannot
be ignored
d. The Olympics are a polarising event in today’s society
Books today have become mere adjuncts to the world of the mass media, offering light
entertainment and reassurances that all is for the best in this, the best of all possible worlds.
The resulting control on the spread of ideas is stricter than anyone would have thought
possible in a free society. The need for public debate and open discussion, inherent in the
democratic idea, conflicts with the ever-stricter demand for total profit.
9. Which of the following implications is correct based on the passage above?

a. The false sense of security provided by conformist literature can be detrimental to free
thought
b. Light entertainment can be harmful to the democratic idea of a free society in the long
run
c. The most important idea in democracy is dissent
d. Books published earlier used to be more critical of society as opposed to the light
entertainment we get today
Cause and effect assumes history marches forward, but history is not an army. It is a crab
scuttling sideways, a drip of soft water wearing away stone, an earthquake breaking centuries
of tension. Sometimes one person inspires a movement, or her words do decades later,
sometimes a few passionate people change the world; sometimes they start a mass movement
and millions of others; sometimes those millions are stirred by the same outrage or same
ideal, and change comes upon us like a change of weather. What all these transformations
have in common is that they begin in the imagination, in the hope.
10. What is the crux of the passage given above?
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a. Imagination is the breeding ground for ideas that change the world
b. History is not a linear movement
c. Mass movements can be sparked by a single person
d. History should be approached in a holistic manner instead of a cause and effect
manner
The concept of sustainability has often been distorted, co-opted, and even trivialised by being
used without the ecological context that gives it its proper meaning. What is sustained in a
sustainable community is not economic growth, competitive advantage, or any other measure
used by economists, but the entire web of life on which our long-term survival depends. The
first step toward a sustainable community, naturally, must be to understand how nature
sustains life. This involves a new ecological understanding of life, or “ecoliteracy”, as well as
a new kind of systemic thinking - thinking in terms of relationships, patterns and context.
11. What is the most plausible, logical inference drawn from this passage?
a. Ecoliteracy is essential to the understanding of climate change policies

b. Nature and naturalistic living needs to be given more importance over a demand for
total profit
c. Separating sustainability from its ecological context has led to the reduction of its
importance.
d. Ecological understanding of life is essential for a sustainable future.
Education plays a transformatory role in life, particularly so in this rapidly changing and
globalising world. Universities are the custodians of the intellectual capital and promoters of
culture and specialised knowledge. Culture is an activity of thought, and receptiveness to
beauty and human feelings. A merely well informed man is only a bore on God’s earth. What
we should aim at is producing men who possess both culture and expert knowledge. Their
expert knowledge will give them a firm ground to start from and their culture will lead them
as deep as philosophy and as high as art. Together it will impart meaning to human
existence.
12. On the basis of the above passage the following can be said to be true
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I.Without acquiring culture, a person’s education is not complete

II.A society of well educated people cannot be transformed into a modern society
III.It is essential that a society has cultured as well as intellectual people.
Which is/are valid?
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II only
d. I and III only
Global population was around 1.6 billion in 1990- today it is around 7.2 billion and growing.
Recent estimates on population growth predict a glocal population of 9.6 billion in 2050 and
10.9 billion in 2100. Unlike Europe and North America, where only three to four percent of
the population is engaged in agriculture, around 47 percent of India’s population is dependent
upon agriculture. Even if India continues to do well in the service sector and the
manufacturing sector picks up, it is expected that around 2030 when INdia overtakes China
as the world’s most populous country, nearly 42 percent of India's population will still be
predominantly dependent on agriculture.
13. Which of the following reflects the most logical inference based on the passage above?
a. Indian economy greatly depends on its agriculture
b. Prosperity of agriculture sector is of critical importance to India
c. India’s farming communities should switch over to other occupations to improve their
economic conditions
d. India should take strict measures to control its rapid population growth.
All political systems need to mediate the relationship between private wealth and public
power. Those that fail risk a dysfunctional government captured by wealthy interests.
Corruption is one symptom of such failure with private willingness-to-pay trumping public
goals. Private individuals and business firms pay to get routine services and to get to the
head of the bureaucratic queue. They pay to limit their taxes, avoid costly regulations, obtain
contracts at inflated prices. If corruption is endemic, public officials - both bureaucrats and
elected officials- may redesign programmes and propose public projects with few public
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benefits and many opportunities for private profit. Of course, corruption is only one type of
government failure. Efforts to promote good governance must be broader than anti corruption
campaigns. Governments may be honest but inefficient because no one has an incentive to
work productively, and narrow elites may capture the state and exert excess influence on
policy. Bribery may induce the lazy to work hard and permit those not in the inner circle of
cronies to obtain benefits. However, even in such cases, corruption cannot be confined to
‘functional’ areas. It will be a reasonable response to a harsh reality but, over time, it can
facilitate a spiral into an even worse situation.
14. Consider the following statements

I. Productivity linked incentives to public/private officials is one of the indiatives of an
efficient government.
II.The governments which fail to focus on the relationship between private wealth and public
power are likely to biome dysfunctional
Which of the statements given above is/are valid?
a. Only (I)
b. Only (II)
c. Both (I) and (II)
d. Neither (I) nor (II)
All actions to address climate change ultimately involve costs. Funding is vital in order for
countries like India to design and implement adaptation and mitigation plans and projects.
The problem is more severe for developing countries like India, which would be one of the
hardest hit by climate change, given its need to finance development. Most countries do
indeed treat climate change as a real threat and are striving to address it in a more
comprehensive and integrated manner with the limited resources at their disposal.
15. What implications can be drawn from the passage above?

a. Climate change is a complex issue that requires developing countries to adapt their
financial policies
b. Climate change does not affect developed countries
c. Climate change will affect India more than other countries because of its tropical
climate
d. Climate change is not taken seriously by most countries
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Answer Key (Comprehension)
1 (b) 2(c) 3 (b) 4 (d) 5 (a)
6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (a) 10(a)
11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (d) 14 (c) 15 (a)
DATA INTERPRETATION
Statistics is an important part of a civil servant’s job as mentioned before. It could be
anything from unemployment rates in the country/state to the yield of various crops in a
quarter. As officers, you are expected to understand these figures in the form of tables or
charts or graphs and also fish out usable information from them.
In the IAS prelims exam, data can be provided to you in the form of tables, bar graphs, line
graphs, pie charts, etc. You will also be given some information and instructions. Based on
them, you must answer the questions asked. Usually, there would be multiple questions based
on the same data.
Note: To candidates not used to it, the data might look scary, but it really isn’t. Just follow a
procedure and you will be able to solve the questions pretty easily. The problem in Data
Interpretation is based on three basic arithmetic techniques i.e.,
1. Percentage.
2. Ratio.
3. average.
Questions can be asked regarding-
1. Maximum and minimum values.
2. Average value.
3. Percentage.
4. Maximum and minimum ratios of any two parameters.
5. Rate of increase or decrease.
6. Irregularities.
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Practice Questions:
Q1. With reference to the above graph, which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) Train B has an initial acceleration greater than that of Train A.
(b) Train B is faster than Train A at all times.
(c) Both trains have the same velocity at time t0’
(d) Both trains travel the same distance in time to units.
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Q2. Consider the above distance - time graph. The graph shows three athletes A, Band C
running side by side for a 30 km race.
With reference to the above graph consider the following statements :
1. the race was won by A.
2. B was ahead of A up to 25 km 26 mark.
3. C ran very slowly from the beginning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q3. On the basis of above graph ::
• Which region/regions of the curve correspond/corresponds to incubation phase of the

infection ?
• Which region of the curve indicates that the person began showing the symptoms of
infection ?
• Which region of the curve indicates that the treatment yielded effective relief?
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Q4. Follow the above graph and answer the following question ::
• In which year is the average profit of A and B same?
• What is the difference between the average profit of B and A in the year 1998?
• How much more average profit did A make in the year 2000 than in the year 1999?
• What is the trend of the average profit of B from the year 1997 to the year 2000?
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Q5. follow the above table and answer the following question.
The difference in the mean aggregate percentage marks of the students is
(a) 2.5%
(b) 13.75%
(c) 1.25%
(d) Zero
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Q6. From the above graph, which one of the following can be concluded?
(a) On the average A earned more than B during this period.
(b) On the average B earned more than A during this period.
(c) The earnings of A and B were equal during this period.
(d) The earnings of A were less as compared to B during this period.
Q7. On the basis of above graph what is the price of the commodity in the year 1990
a) must have been Rs. 10/-
b) must have been Rs. 12/-
c) must have been anywhere between Rs. 10/- and Rs. 20/-
d) is higher than that in the year 1991
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Q8. Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to the graph given
above?
(a) On 1st June, the actual progress of work was less than expected.
(b) The actual rate of progress of work was the greatest during the month of August.
(c) The work was actually completed before the expected time.
(d) During the period from 1st April to 1st September, at no time was the actual progress
more than the expected progress.
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Q9
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Q10. As per the above graph, if 1 tonne of steel cost Rs 30000 what was the cost (in billion
rupees) of steel production in year 2017.
Q11. On the basis of above table answer the following ::
• If 30% of the total books sold by City B, D, AND E together in July were academic
books, how many non-academic books were sold by them in the same month?
• What is the respective ratio between the total number of books sold by city A in July
and September together and a total number of books sold by city E in August and
October together?
• What is the average number of books sold by City C in July, September and October
together?
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Q12. On the basis of above table, the total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was
approximately what percent of the total expenditure in 2002?
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Q13. On the basis of above table, answer the following questions::
• Total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in 1997 is
approximately what percentage of the total number of candidates qualified from all
the states together in 1998?
• In which of the given years the number of candidates appeared from State P has
maximum percentage of qualified candidates?
• What is the percentage of candidates qualified from State N for all the years together,
over the candidates appeared from State N during all the years together?
• The percentage of total number of qualified candidates to the total number of
appeared candidates among all the five states in 1999 is?
• Combining the states P and Q together in 1998, what is the percentage of the
candidates qualified to that of the candidate appeared?
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Q14. What is the total number of graduate and post-graduate level students in the
institute R?
For question 15-17 follow the above pie chart.
Q15. What percentage of Indian tourist went to either USA or UK ?
Q16. The ratio of the number of Indian tourists that went to USA to the number of Indian
tourists who were below 30 years of age is ?
182
UPSCprep.com
Q17. If amongst other countries, Switzerland accounted for 25% of the Indian tourist traffic,
and it is known from official Swiss records that a total of 25 lakh Indian tourists had gone to
Switzerland during the year, then find the number of 30-39 year old Indian tourists who went
abroad in that year ?
Answer key
Data Interpretation
Q1. D.
Q2. B.
Q3. region A only, region B, region E.
Q4. 1996, Rs 1000, Rs 2000, Non - Decreasing.
Q5. Zero.
Q6. option A.
Q7. option C.
Q8. option D.
Q9. option D.
Q10. 2400.
Q11. 399, 47:58, 243.
Q12. 544.44 lakhs.
Q13. 80%, 2001, 11.15%, 11.84%, 12.35%.
Q14. 8099.
Q15. 50%, 8:3, 75 lakh,
Notes
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2. Important Mathematical Representations

• Odd Numbers: 2n-1

• Numbers multiple of 4: 4n, and so on

3. Prime Factors: Representation of numbers in the standard form.

4. Standard Form or Canonical Form: eg. Finding standard form of 144

Therefore, Prime factors of 144= 2*2*2*2*3*3 = 2^4*3^2

Thus, 243 = 2*100 + 4*10 + 3*1

• Integers: Numbers having no decimal point in it

1. Exponents and Powers

These are also popularly known as the rules of indices.

• Commutative property of addition: a + b = b + a.

LCM and HCF

Eg. Find the LCM of 150, 210.

• Step 1: Writing down the standard form of numbers

Highest Common Factor (HCF) or GFD

How to find HCF?

E.g., Find the GCD of 150, 210, 375.

• Step 1: Writing down the standard form of numbers

Rule for finding out HCF and LCM of fractions

• HCF of two or more fractions is given by:

• LCM of two or more fractions is given by:

The Remainder Theorem:

5. The number of integers n satisfying – n + 2 ≥ 0 and 2n ≥ 4 is:

7. 273 –272 –271 is the same as

9. The number 3798125P369 is divisible by 7. What is the value of the digit P?

10. Find the remainder when 73+75+78+57+197 is divided by 34.

12. Consider the following sequence of numbers: 5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3

13. In a school, every student is assigned a unique identification number. A student is a

16. If 381A is divisible by 9, find the value of smallest natural number A.

23. In the sum ⊗ + 1 ⊗ + 5 ⊗ + ⊗⊗ + ⊗ 1 = 1 ⊗⊗ for which digit does the symbol ⊗

2. q / p can be a prime number.

33. Find the greatest 6 – digit number, which multiple of 12?

Quantities are said to be in arithmetic progression when they increase or decrease by a

E.g., 2, 4, 6, 8, ……. Or 3, 7, 11, 15, …….

The nth term of an arithmetic progression is given by: Tn =a+(n–1) d.

Finding the sum of the given number of terms in an arithmetic progression

Let, a and b be two quantities and A be their arithmetic mean.

Quantities are said to be in Geometric Progression when they increase or decrease by a

If we examine the series a, ar, ar2 , ar3 , ar4 ,...

Let a and b be the two quantities; G the geometric mean.

1. Find the sum of all numbers divisible by 6 in between 100 to 400.

2. Find S10 for the following series: 1, 8, 15, ...

5. What is the nth term of an AP 9, 13, 17, 21, 25, …?

6. How many terms are there in the A.P. 20,25, 30,130?

8. How many natural numbers between 300 to 500 are multiples of 7?

The basic formula for the average of n numbers x1 , x2 , x3,...xn is

• The average of 4 numbers 12, 13, 17 and 18 is:

This can be visualised as

1. The average of the first 50 natural numbers is

18. The average of first 10 natural numbers is?

27. The average of the first six multiples of 5 is

29. The average of the first ten even numbers is

30. Find average of natural numbers from 1 to 67?

Mathematical definition of Percentage:

For example, a student scores 20 marks out of a maximum possible 30 marks.

If, 20 out of 30 then X out of 100

If original value is changed to the new value, then % change is given as -

𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 − 𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑔𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒

1. Student A scores 20 marks in an examination out of 30 while another student B scores 40

5. What is 10% of 20% of 25% of 100?

6. Which of the following is the largest number?

21. What is the 10% of 20% of 25% of 100?

Therefore, Prime factors of 144= 222233 = 2^43^2

Thus, 243 = 2100 + 410 + 3*1