PRELIMS FITNESS – 2023

TEST 53
EXPLANATION

Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity:

1. Insects constitute more than two-thirds of global faunal diversity
2. It includes both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems.
3. Only diversity between species and ecosystems is considered for assessment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
More than 70 percent of all the species recorded are animals in the earth's biodiversity, while plants
(including algae, fungi, bryophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms) comprise no more than 22 percent of
the total. Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group, making up more than 70
percent of the total. That means out of every 10 animals on this planet, 7 are insects. So, statement 1 is
correct.
Biodiversity is defined as the variability among living organisms from all sources, including terrestrial,
marine and other aquatic ecosystems and the ecological complexes of which they are a part. So, statement
2 is correct.
Diversity within species is also considered for assessing biodiversity. Species diversity is a function of
species richness, the number of species in a given locality and species evenness, the degree to which the
relative abundances of species are similar. While this notion may be easy to conceptualize, it has proven
difficult, and at time contentious, to quantify. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Genetic diversity?
1. It is the variation in genes within a particular species.
2. It allows species to adapt to any environment.
3. It determines the long term survival of the species
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Genetic diversity: the sum of various genes within a species or a population. Genetic diversity refers to the
vast numbers of different species and the diversity within a species.
➢ It is concerned with the variation in genes within a particular species.
➢ It allows species to adapt but not to any environment. Some species may survive, and some may not.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
➢ This diversity aims to ensure that some species survive drastic changes and thus carry on desirable
genes.
➢ The survival of individuals ensures the survival of the population.

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 ➢ The genetic diversity gives us beautiful butterflies, roses, parakeets or coral in myriad hues, shapes
and sizes.
So, Option (c) is correct.

Q.3) Identify the correct statements among the following :

1. Species richness measures the proportion of species at a given site.
2. Species evenness refers to the number of species found in a community.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Biodiversity is measured by two major components:
Species richness and species evenness.
(i) Species richness
It is the measure of the number of species found in a community. So, statement 1 is not correct.
a) Alpha diversity
It refers to the diversity within a particular area or ecosystem and is usually expressed by the number of
species (i.e., species richness) in that ecosystem.
b) Beta diversity
It is a comparison of diversity between ecosystems, usually measured as the change in the number of
species between the ecosystems
c) Gamma diversity
It is a measure of the overall diversity of the different ecosystems within a region.
(ii) Species evenness
It measures the proportion of species at a given site, e.g., low evenness indicates that a few species
dominate the site.
So, statement 2 is
not correct.

Q.4) Identify the correct statements among the following.

1. Only poisonous snakes have fangs.
2. Venom coming from the fangs can paralyze the prey.
3. The Indian cobra is critically endangered on the IUCN Red list.

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 Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Not all snakes have fangs. Only the poisonous ones do. Fangs are sharp, long, hollow teeth that are
hooked up to small sacs in the snake's head behind their eyes. These sacs produce a poisonous liquid
called venom. When a snake bites, venom is released and starts to work immediately to kill or paralyze
the prey. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Recently the presence of king cobras has been confirmed in Chhattisgarh. There was no known evidence
of the longest venomous snake in Chhattisgarh or all of central India before this. The discovery raises
questions on how climate change might be impacting the species, experts said.
King cobra populations and habitat have been shrinking, and the International Union for the
Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List has declared it as 'vulnerable.'
So, statement 3 is not correct.

Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding Aestivation :

1. It is a survival strategy in hot and arid conditions.
2. During this phase, organisms undergo physiological and biochemical adjustments.
3. It is observed only in vertebrates.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only
EXPLANATION:
Aestivation is generally defined as a type of dormancy, which is a survival strategy used to sustain a lack
of food and other extreme conditions. Animals that aestivate become inactive and stop feeding in response
to warm temperatures. Estivation is summer dormancy, that is, long-term torpor during summer for the
survival of hot and dry periods. Many desert plants survive extended periods of high temperatures and

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 low rainfall. Some survive as desiccated seeds (5%–10% water content), particularly annual species, but
some survive desiccation as adults. So, Statement 1 is correct.
During Aestivation, the animals undergo important physiological and biochemical adjustments, such as
changes in energy consumption, metabolic activity, and immune response. The molecular mechanisms
underpinning these adjustments mainly include transcriptional. Hypometabolism is considered key for
the response to high temperature, drought, and other extreme conditions. The decrease in metabolic rate
in aestivating animals, which can reach 70–80% of the resting value, and nearly 100% in some species,
conserves energy to extend survival time. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Aestivation has been observed in many vertebrates and invertebrates. Amongst invertebrates (e.g.,
earthworms and insects), Aestivation usually involves an inactive stage with a water-resistant covering.
For example, aestivating earthworms form a mucus cocoon to resist desiccation, and many insect pupae
are remarkably resistant to water loss. Amongst vertebrates, fishes, amphibians, and reptiles enter a
similar estivation state. Fishes and amphibians often form a cocoon of dried mucus (e.g., African
lungfishes) or shed epidermal layers (e.g., some desert frogs) to resist epidermal water loss; the cocoon
covers the entire body surface except for the nostrils. Reptiles have a relatively water-impermeable
epidermis and do not need to form a cocoon to reduce evaporative water loss. So, Statement 3 is not
correct.

Q.6) With reference to Algae, consider the following statements.

1. Algae can conduct photosynthesis.
2. They are capable of reproducing through sexual and asexual modes of reproduction.
3. The Red tide, which is causing havoc in coastal areas, is due to algae.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Algae are a diverse group of aquatic organisms that have the ability to conduct photosynthesis. Certain
algae are familiar to most people; for instance, seaweeds (such as kelp or phytoplankton), pond scum or
the algal blooms in lakes. However, there exists a vast and varied world of algae that are helpful to us and
critical to our existence. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Algae are capable of reproducing through asexual or vegetative methods and via sexual
reproduction. According to the authors of "Algae," asexual reproduction involves the production of a
motile spore, while vegetative methods include simple cell division (mitosis) to produce identical offspring
and the fragmentation of a colony. Sexual reproduction involves the union of gametes (produced
individually in each parent through meiosis). So, Statement 2 is correct.
Red tides are one form of harmful algal bloom (HAB) and pose serious threats to humans, marine
mammals, seabirds, fish, and many other organisms that ingest the toxin. Red tide is seen in offshore
waters when there are high amounts of algae known as Karenia brevis, which produce brevetoxins that
can kill marine life. The accumulation of the algae can also form blooms that turn the water reddish-
brown. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.7) Which of the following organisms undergo Hibernation ?

1. Bats
2. Hedgehogs

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 3. Butterflies
4. Hamsters
Select the correct option from the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Hibernation is a way for many creatures – from butterflies to bats – to survive cold, dark winters without
having to forage for food or migrate to somewhere warmer. Instead, they turn down their metabolisms to
save energy. Animals in hot climates also undergo a form of Hibernation called Aestivation. This works in
a similar way and enables them to survive extreme heat, drought or lack of food. Hibernating is much
more profound than simply sleeping, though. Depending on the species, it can vary from long, deep
unconsciousness to light spells of inactivity. But Hibernation carries risks as the dormant animal is
vulnerable to predators and the unpredictable climate.
Organisms undergo Hibernation:
➢ Small mammals, such as chipmunks, dormice, hamsters, hedgehogs and bats. Also, many
insects, amphibians and reptiles.
➢ Some insects, such as butterflies, ladybirds and some bees, overwinter in the adult stage. Of our
butterflies, 9 overwinter as an egg, 32 as a caterpillar, 11 as a pupa and 6 as an adult, including
the brimstone, red admiral, small tortoiseshell, comma and peacock (plus the very rare
Camberwell beauty.)
➢ Bears are the animals most known for hibernating, but they aren't the only ones. Turtles, snakes,
wood frogs, and groundhogs are other animals that engage in some form of Hibernation, torpor,
or estivation.
So, option (d) is correct.

Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding Hibernation.

1. Hibernation is an adaptation to adverse winter conditions.
2. Organisms increase their metabolic activity and body temperature to suit the surrounding
environment.
3. During Hibernation, animals reduce their heart rate and breathing rate
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Hibernation is a hypothermic condition when animals save energy during cold seasons by lowering body
temperature, metabolism, breathing, and heart rate. While Hibernation is most often seen as a seasonal
behaviour, it's not exclusive to cold-weather critters. There are tropical hibernators that may do so to stay
cool in the heat. Temperature isn't always a factor. Some species hibernate in response to food shortages.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
Hibernation is a state of greatly reduced metabolic activity and lower body temperature. To slow
their metabolism, animals cool their bodies by 5° to 10°C (9° to 18°F) on average. Arctic ground squirrels
are known for their remarkable ability to withstand extremely cold temperatures by entering into a state

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 of Hibernation, known as torpor, during the winter months. During torpor, the body temperature of Arctic
ground squirrels can drop to subfreezing temperatures, which allows them to conserve energy and survive
in harsh Arctic conditions. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
When hibernating, an animal's metabolism slows significantly: its heartbeat slows, it breathes more
slowly (some animals even stop breathing for periods of over an hour). When dwarf lemurs hibernate, they
reduce their heart rates from over 300 beats per minute to fewer than six. And instead of breathing about
every second, they can go up to 10 minutes without taking a breath. Their brain activity becomes
undetectable. This is very different from sleep, which is a gentle resting state
where unconscious functions are still performed. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.9) Identify the correct statements regarding Hydrophytes.

1. They are macrophytes that thrive in water or soil saturated with water.
2. These plants live in a habitat of high oxygen concentration.
3. Lotus, Vallisneria and Hydrilla are notable Hydrophytes.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
EXPLANATION:
Macrophytes are plants growing in soil that is permanently or periodically deficient in oxygen due to
excessive water content. They are called hydrophytes when they grow in water-saturated soil. According
to their relation to water and air, the hydrophytes are grouped into the following categories:
(a) Submerged hydrophytes
(b) Amphibious hydrophytes
(c) Floating hydrophytes
So, Statement 1 is correct.
They live in habitats where oxygen concentration is low. The aquatic environment provides a matrix for
plant growth in which temperature fluctuation is minimal and the nutrients occur mostly in a dissolved
state, but light and oxygen become deficient with the increased m depth of water bodies. So, Statement
2 is not correct.
Examples of Hydrophytes are Utricularia, Vallisneria, Hydrilla Chara Nitella Lotus, Ceratophyllum, Trapa,
Pistia, Eichhornia (water hyacinth), Wolffia, Lemna, etc. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.10) Consider the following statements :

1. Unlike Nocturnal, Diurnal organisms are active during the day.
2. Artificial light at night can disrupt plant-pollinator interactions and can have consequences
for plant reproductive output.
3. A nocturnal animal can become diurnal with environmental changes.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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EXPLANATION:
Diurnal animals are animals that are active during the day. Unlike nocturnal animals, who are active
during the night, diurnal animals roam, eat and mingle in daylight before falling asleep at night. Animals
that are active at intermittent times during both night and day are cathemeral. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
Artificial light at night has rapidly spread around the globe over the last decades. Evidence is increasing
that it has adverse effects on the behavior, physiology, and survival of animals and plants, with
consequences for species interactions and ecosystem functioning. For example, artificial light at night
disrupts plant-pollinator interactions at night and this can have consequences for the plant reproductive
output, artificial light at night on plant-pollinator interactions is not limited to the night, but can also
propagate to the daytime with so far unknown consequences for the pollinator community and the
diurnal pollination function and services they provide. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Nocturnal animals have adapted to hunt, forage, and carry out other activities during the night. However,
if their environment changes, they may need to adjust their behaviour to survive. For example, if a
predator appears in their environment that hunts at night, the nocturnal animal may have to start being
active during the day to avoid becoming prey. Similarly, if a food source becomes more abundant during
the day, a nocturnal animal may start to shift its activity patterns to take advantage of this resource.
The ambient temperature can even convert nocturnal animals to diurnality, as this can be a way for the
animals to conserve metabolic energy. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.11) Which of the following are the features of Xerophytes?

1. They are suited to dry habitats.
2. They have thick and fleshy stems or leaves.
3. They have leafy wax coatings
4. Drop leaves during cold periods.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Xerophytes are a group of plants that survive in dry regions. They grow in deserts and dry hilly regions.
They adapt to dry and sandy or rocky soils with poor water content and extreme atmospheric conditions.
Xerophytes can withstand drought, intense light, extreme temperature and strong wind. Such habitat is
termed as xeric.
The adaptations in xerophytes can be morphological (structural) or physiological or both. The adaption
in xerophytes include
➢ waxy leaf coatings
➢ ability to fold leaves to reduce sunlight absorption and
➢ development of a dense, hairy leaf covering
➢ Leaves are soft and fleshy
➢ ability to drop leaves during dry periods
So, option (a) is correct.

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Q.12) Which of the following are Nocturnal animals?
1. Catfish
2. Firefly
3. Hedgehog
4. Leopard
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Nocturnal animals are animals that are active at night. They often have special adaptions for nocturnal
living, including large eyes for low-light vision, and heightened senses of hearing and smell. Examples of
nocturnal animals include aardvarks, bats, moths, owls, raccoons, Tasmanian devils and wolves, Aye-
Aye, Badgers, Flying Squirrels, Night Monkeys, Raccoons, Rats, Tasmanian Devil,
Catfish:
Many, but not all, catfish are nocturnal and most are found in freshwater habitats. Around half of all
catfish species have venomous spines.

Firefly:
Fireflies produce light mainly to attract mates, but some species use their light to attract prey. There are
around 2,000 species in the firefly family Lampyridae. Most are nocturnal animals that are able to
produce light via chemical reactions that take part in special parts of the body (a process known
as bioluminescence).

Hedgehogs:
Hedgehogs that live in cold regions hibernate during the winter. Found in Europe, Asia, and Africa.

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 Leopard:
Like many wild cats, the leopard is mainly nocturnal. The eyes of all cats have a lining called a tapetum
lucidum, which reflects light back through the retina, thereby improving the animal's night vision. It is
the presence of the tapetum lucidum that makes a cat's eyes glow at night. The leopard is found
throughout much of Africa and Asia.

So, option (d) is correct.

Q.13) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Seed Vault.
1. The Indian seed vault was set up at Manila in Himachal Pradesh.
2. Seeds are stored here at extremely low temperatures and low humidity.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
At a height of 17,300 feet above sea level, India's doomsday vault lies in Chang La (a high-altitude
mountain pass in Ladakh) and is the ultimate insurance policy for the country's food supply, offering
options for future generations to overcome the challenges of climate change and population growth. Built
jointly by the Defence Institute of High Altitude Research (DIHAR) and the National Bureau of Plant
Genetic Resources (NBPGR) in 2010 under the aegis of the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO), this permafrost seed bank is the second largest in the world. So, Statement 1 is
not correct.
Chang La offers up subzero temperatures and extremely low humidity and is in a rare zone safe from
flooding and earthquakes. And what is nestled within the Chang La Vault is a bank of 10,000 seeds and

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 200 plant species preserved in permafrost at -18° C, ready to be restored in the event of a cataclysmic
emergency. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Q.14) Consider the following statements.
1. The food web consists of all the food chains in a single ecosystem
2. Only Plants are called Autotrophs
3. Animals and humans are known as consumers in a food chain.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
A food web illustrates all possible transfers of energy and nutrients among the organisms in an ecosystem,
whereas a food chain traces only one pathway of the food. An ecosystem may consist of several interrelated
food chains. More typically, the same food resource is part of more than one chain, especially when that
resource is at the lower trophic levels. The food web provides more than one alternative for food to most
organisms in an ecosystem, increasing their chance of survival.

So, Statement 1 is correct.

An autotroph is an organism that can produce its own food using light, water, carbon dioxide, or other
chemicals. Because autotrophs produce their own food, they are sometimes called producers. Plants are
the most familiar type of autotroph, but there are many different kinds of autotrophic organisms.
➢ Algae, which live in water and have larger forms known as seaweed, are autotrophic.
➢ Phytoplankton, tiny organisms that live in the ocean, are autotrophs. Some types
of bacteria are autotrophs.
➢ Most autotrophs use a process called photosynthesis to make their food.
So, Statement 2 is not correct

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 A sequence of organisms that feed on one another forms a food chain. A food chain starts with producers
and ends with top carnivores. The sequence of eaten and being eaten produces a transfer of food energy,
known as the food chain. The plant converts solar energy into chemical energy by photosynthesis. Small
herbivores consume plant matter and convert them into the animal matter. These herbivores are eaten
by large carnivores. Thus, Animals and humans are known as consumers in a food chain. So, Statement
3 is correct.

Q.15) It refers to a variety of living organisms on earth. Organisms differ markedly in their genetic
makeup and do not interbreed in nature. However, closely related ones have similar hereditary
characteristics.
Which of the following is such a phenomenon?
(a) Genetic Diversity
(b) Species Diversity
(c) Ecosystem Diversity
(d) Biodiversity
EXPLANATION:
Species diversity:
➢ It refers to the variety of living organisms on earth.
➢ Species differ from one another markedly in their genetic makeup and do not interbreed in nature.
➢ Closely-related species, however, have in common many of their hereditary characteristics. For
instance, about 98.4 percent of the genes of humans and chimpanzees are the same.
➢ It is the ratio of one species' population over the total number of organisms across all species in
the given biome.
➢ 'Zero' would be infinite diversity, and 'one' represents only one species present
So, option (b) is correct

Q.16) Identify the correct statements among the following.

1. In-situ conservation is conserving the plants and animals in their natural habitats.
2. The possibility of longer and more productive life is achieved in in-situ conservation than in
ex-situ conservation
Select the correct option from the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
In-situ conservation: Conserving the animals and plants in their natural habitats is known as in-situ
conservation. The established natural habitats include:
➢ National parks
➢ Sanctuaries
➢ Biosphere reserves
➢ Reserved forests
➢ Protected forests
So, Statement 1 is correct.
Ex-situ conservation: Conserving biodiversity outside the areas where they naturally occur is known as
ex-situ conservation.

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 Benefits of ex-situ conservation
➢ New reproductive technologies will maximize the probability of reproductive success for
endangered species.
➢ Human intervention has made it possible to monitor the health of organisms, and help is
always near when needed.
➢ There are thousands of zoos, botanical parks, and gene banks, all of which are working to
conserve endangered species.
➢ Organisms are well-attended to and provided with everything they need to thrive. This results
in a longer and more productive life.
The Disadvantages of in-situ conservation
➢ The animals are more likely to be affected by natural threats like poaching and predation.
➢ When a species' population is threatened, it can be difficult to control some of the factors that
are harming it—for example, disease and climate change.
➢ Genetic diversity may have already been dramatically decreased.
➢ Environmental conditions threatening the area's organisms, e.g., disease or interspecific
competition, may still be present.
Thus, the possibility of longer and more productive life is achieved in ex-situ conservation than in in-
situ conservation. So, Statement 2 is not correct

Q.17) Consider the following statements

1. Alpha diversity refers to the overall diversity of the different ecosystems within a region.
2. Beta diversity refers to the diversity within a particular area.
3. Gamma diversity is a comparison of diversity between ecosystems.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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EXPLANATION:
Species richness It is the measure of the number of species found in a community

➢ Alpha diversity refers to the diversity within a particular area or ecosystem and is usually
expressed by the number of species (i.e., species richness) in that ecosystem. So, Statement 1
is not correct
➢ Beta diversity is a comparison of diversity between ecosystems, usually measured as the change
in species between the ecosystems. So, Statement 2 is not correct
➢ Gamma diversity is a measure of the overall diversity of the different ecosystems within a region.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.18) Which biomes are naturally and commonly found in India?

1. Tropical humid forests
2. Coniferous forests
3. Alpine Meadows
4. Kelp forest
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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EXPLANATION:
The term biome means the main groups of plants and animals living in areas of certain climate
patterns. It includes the way in which animals, vegetation and soil interact together. The plants and
animals living in the area are adapted to that environment.
The five biomes of India are:
1) Tropical Humid Forests
2) Tropical Dry or Deciduous Forests (including Monsoon Forests)
3) Warm deserts and semi-deserts
4) Coniferous forests and
5) Alpine meadows
So, option (a) is correct.
Kelp is large brown algae living in cool, relatively shallow waters near the shore. They grow in dense
groupings, much like a forest on land. These underwater towers of kelp provide food and shelter for
thousands of fish, invertebrates, and marine mammal species. Kelp forests can be seen along much
of the west coast of North America. Thus, Kelp forests are underwater areas with a high density of
kelp, which covers a large part of the world's coastlines that are not found on Indian coastlines.

So, Statement 4 is not correct.

Q.19) Which of the following can be considered Vertebrates?

1. Fish
2. Frog
3. Penguins
4. Crustaceans
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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EXPLANATION:
Vertebrates are animals with backbones and spinal columns. Vertebrates are the most advanced
organisms on earth. Although vertebrates represent only a very small percentage of all animals, their
size and mobility often allow them to dominate their environment.
Examples of vertebrates:
➢ Fishes
➢ Amphibians(frog)
➢ Aves
➢ Mammals(penguins)

So, option (c) is correct

Invertebrates do not have backbones. More than 98% of animal species in the world are invertebrates.
Invertebrates don't have an internal skeleton made of bone. Many invertebrates have fluid-filled,

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 hydrostatic skeletons, like jellyfish or worms. Others have a hard outer shell, like insects and
crustaceans. So, Statement 4 is not correct

Q.20) Which of the following statements are correct regarding Lichens?

1. It is a symbiotic relationship between cyanobacteria and fungi.
2. They usually grow on rocks and deadwood.
3. They grow in extreme environments like tundra, rocky coast and hot, dry deserts
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
A lichen is a peculiar combination of algae (cyanobacteria) and a fungus–the two live, deriving mutual
benefit.
➢ They are a group of greyish-green plants that grow on rocks, tree trunks, dead wood, etc.
➢ The algae manufacture food which becomes available to the fungus, and they absorb and retain
water and thus keep the algal cells moist. An example of symbiosis.
➢ They are most common in wetlands, rare in rivers and streams and are not found in groundwater.
➢ They can survive in some of the most extreme environments on earth: arctic tundra, hot, dry
deserts, rocky coasts, and toxic slag heaps. They can live inside solid rock, growing between the
grains, and in the soil as part of a biological soil crust in arid habitats such as deserts.
So, option (d) is correct

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Q.21) With reference to the Livestock population in the country, consider the following statements.
1. West Bengal has the highest cattle population in the country.
2. Andhra Pradesh has the highest poultry population.
3. The highest number of Buffaloes are domesticated in Rajasthan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The livestock census has been conducted throughout the country periodically since 1919. The Census
usually covers all domesticated animals, and head counts of these animals are taken. So far, 19 Livestock
Censuses have been conducted in participation with State Governments and UT Administrations. The
20th Livestock Census was launched during the month of October 2018.
➢ West Bengal had the highest cattle population across India, at about 19 million in 2019. Uttar
Pradesh ranked second that year, followed by Madhya Pradesh. The cattle population across the
country grew by 0.8 percent between 2012 and 2019. Furthermore, the livestock population
amounted to nearly 535.8 million, with cattle, buffaloes and goats making up the largest share. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
Tamil Nadu had the largest poultry population in India, amounting to 120.8 million in 2019. That same
year, Andhra Pradesh ranked second, followed by Telangana. The poultry population in the country stood
at 851.8 million, recording a growth of 16.8 percent between 2012 and 2019. So, Statement 2 is not
correct.
Uttar Pradesh had the highest buffalo population in India, at about 33 million in 2019. Rajasthan ranked
second that year by a large difference, followed by Gujarat. Buffalo's population across the country grew
by over one percent between 2012 and 2019. Furthermore, the livestock population amounted to nearly
535.8 million, with cattle, buffaloes and goats making up the largest share. So, Statement 3 is not
correct.

Q.22) Consider the following statements regarding Reptiles.

1. Reptiles are mostly oviparous.
2. They have scales on their bodies.
3. There are four-legged reptiles
4. Lizards and snakes are common reptiles.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Reptiles are air-breathing vertebrates covered in special skin made up of scales, bony plates, or a
combination of both. They include crocodiles, snakes, lizards, turtles, and tortoises. All regularly shed
the outer layer of their skin. Their metabolism depends on the temperature of their environment. The
characteristic of reptiles:
➢ Cold-blooded
➢ Have scales

17
 ➢ Have dry skin
➢ Usually, lay eggs
➢ Ear holes instead of ears
➢ Four legs or no legs.
➢ Most reptiles (chelonians, crocodilians, tuataras, lizards, and snakes) are oviparous. They lay
eggs with relatively undeveloped embryos and a large yolk mass containing enough energy to
support embryonic development.
So, option (d) is correct.

Q.23) Arrange the following regions in the descending order of their floral Endemism.
1. Peninsular India, including Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
2. Eastern Himalayas and North-Eastern region.
3. North-Western Himalaya.
4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) 2-1-3-4
(b) 3-2-1-4
(c) 1-2-3-4
(d) 1-3-4-2
EXPLANATION:
Floral Endemism is the phenomenon of flower species being unique to a defined geographical area. Its
measure defines the diversity of species at any location. Floral Endemism - order
➢ peninsular India, including the western and Eastern Ghats (about 2,600 species),
➢ Eastern Himalaya and north-eastern region (about 2,500 species),
➢ north-western Himalayas (about 800 species) and
➢ Andaman & Nicobar Islands (about 250 species).
So, option (c) is correct.

Q.24) Consider the following statements regarding Bryophytes.

1. They are rootless plants that usually grow in moist places.
2. They are perennial, evergreen plants that can be seen in the Himalayas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Bryophytes:
➢ Bryophytes are small, non-vascular plants, such as mosses, liverworts and hornworts. They play
a vital role in regulating ecosystems because they provide an important buffer system for other
plants, which live alongside and benefit from the water and nutrients that bryophytes collect.
➢ The plant body is differentiated into a small stem and simple leaves, but true roots are absent.
They usually grow in moist places. E.g., Liverworts, mosses
➢ They are India's second largest group of green plants, distributed largely in Eastern Himalaya,
North-eastern India, Western Himalaya and the Western Ghats.

18
 ➢ Most bryophytes lack complex tissue organization yet show considerable diversity in form and
ecology. They are widely distributed throughout the world and are relatively small compared with
most seed-bearing plants.

So, option (c) is correct.

Q.25) Consider the following statements and choose the not correct ones among the following.
1. Microorganisms like Bacteria and Fungi lack highly developed cells and tissues.
2. Insects have an exoskeleton that covers their entire body.
Select the option from the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Fungi are eukaryotes and have a complex cellular organization. Like eukaryotes, fungal cells contain a
membrane-bound nucleus with DNA wrapped around histone proteins. A few types of fungi have
structures comparable to bacterial plasmids (loops of DNA). Fungal cells also contain mitochondria and
a complex system of internal membranes, including the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus.
Bacteria lack a membrane-bound nucleus and other internal structures and are therefore ranked among
the unicellular life forms called prokaryotes. Thus, bacteria lacks developed cell structure, whereas fungi
have developed cell structure. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Insects
➢ Insects have an exoskeleton that covers their entire body.
➢ An insect consists of 3 body parts and 6 legs, and an antenna.
➢ e.g: beetle, butterfly, moth, dragonfly, bee, wasp and praying mantis.
So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.26) It is the world's first Hoolok Gibbon Breeding center. The Hoolock Gibbon breeding program
launched in 2007 is the country's first lesser ape conservation center. It is also home to Royal
Bengal Tiger, Great Indian Hornbill, Leopards and many rare birds. Identify the correct answer.
(a) Namdapha national park
(b) Mouling zoological reserve
(c) Itanagar biological park
(d) Dibang wildlife sanctuary
EXPLANATION:
Itanagar Biological Park (zoo) is the world's first Hoolok Gibbon Breeding Center.
➢ Located in Arunachal Pradesh.

19
 ➢ The zoo covering an area of over 250 hectares, launched the Hoolock Gibbon Conservation
Breeding Programme in 2007 and is the first lesser apes' conservation center in the country.
➢ The sanctuary has geographical boundary limits as River Pam to the east, Pachin in the south,
Neorochi in the northeast and Chingke stream in the north. The terrain is mostly hilly. Since the
sanctuary is close to the city, it plays an important role in environmental education.
➢ The Itanagar Sanctuary is rich in biodiversity. The animals found in the sanctuary include Tiger,
Leopard, Clouded leopard, Asian Elephant, Gaur, sloth Bear, Barking Deer, Marbled Cat, Capped
Langur, and Slender Loris. The state bird Hornbill is a regular sight in the sanctuary. The white-
winged duck (Cairina scutellate) is also found. So, option (c) is correct.

Q.27) Identify the correct statements among the following.

1. Unlike Gymnosperms, Angiosperms are closed-seeded plants.
2. Mangroves belong to the family of Angiosperms.
3. India has more than 70% of the world's known flowering plants.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Angiosperms, also called flowering plants, have seeds that are enclosed within an ovary (usually a fruit),
while gymnosperms have no flowers or fruits and have unenclosed or "naked" seeds on the surface of
scales or leaves. Gymnosperm seeds are often configured as cones. The characteristics differentiating
angiosperms from gymnosperms include flowers, fruits, and endosperm in the seeds. So, Statement 1
is correct.
The mangrove refers to individual trees or shrubs that are angiosperms (flowering plants) and belong to
more than 80 species within 12 genera and five families. Mangroves only grow in areas with minimal wave
action, high salinity, and low soil oxygen. All the trees have shallow roots, form pure stands, and have
adapted to the harsh environment in which they grow. So, Statement 2 is correct.

India has a total geographical area of about 329 million hectares with a coastline of over 7500 km. India
has 12 biogeographical provinces, 5 biomes and 3 bioregion domains. Though the geographical area cover
of the country represents about 2.4% of the world's total landmass, it harbors a total of 47,513 plant
species out of about 0.4 million hitherto known in the world, representing as much as 11.4% of world
flora. About 28% of plants that occur in India are endemic to the country. India has more than 7% of the
world's known flowering plants. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

20
Q.28) Upon fulfilling which of the following conditions, a specie is considered critically
Endangered by IUCN in its Red List of Species.
(a) Reduction in population by more than 90% in the last ten years.
(b) Population size less than 100 mature individuals.
(c) Extinction in the wild.
(d) (a) & (b) & (c)
EXPLANATION:
The Red Data Book was first issued in 1966 by the IUCN's Special Survival Commission as a guide for
the formulation, preservation and management of the species listed. It is a loose-leaf volume of
information on the status of many kinds of species.
Critically Endangered (CR):
A taxon is Critically Endangered when the best available evidence indicates that it meets any of the
criteria for Critically Endangered.
Criteria:
➢ reduction in population (> 90% over the last 10 years),
➢ population size (a number less than 50 mature individuals),
➢ quantitative analysis showing the probability of extinction in the wild in at least 50% in their 10
years) and it is therefore considered to be facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
So, option (a) is correct

Q.29) Consider the following statements regarding Echinoderms.

1. They are marine mammals that live in water bodies.
2. They have arms and spines that radiate from the center of their body.
3. Sea cucumber and sea urchin are some common Echinoderms.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

21
EXPLANATION:
Echinoderms are marine animals recognizable by their (usually five-point) radial symmetry.
Echinoderms include starfish, sea urchins, sand dollars, sea cucumbers, and crinoids (sea lilies).
Echinoderms are found at every ocean depth. The phylum contains about 7000 living species. There
are no known freshwater or terrestrial species. They are one of the groups of organisms that
successfully proliferate in the deep-sea environment. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
➢ Vertebrates are animals with backbones and spinal columns. Vertebrates are the most
advanced organisms on earth. Although vertebrates represent only a very small percentage of
all animals, their size and mobility often allow them to dominate their environment.

➢ Invertebrates do not have backbones. More than 98% of animal species in the world are
invertebrates. Invertebrates don't have an internal skeleton made of
bone. Many invertebrates have fluid-filled, hydrostatic skeletons, like jellyfish or worms.
Others have a hard outer shell, like insects and crustaceans.
Most echinoderms have arms or spines that radiate from the center of their body. Echinoderms are
characterized by radial symmetry and several arms (5 or more). The body actually consists of five
equal segments, each containing a duplicate set of various internal organs. They have no heart, brain,
or eyes, but some brittle stars seem to have light-sensitive parts on their arms. Echinoderms have
tentacle-like structures called tube feet with suction pads situated at their extremities. These tube
feet are hydraulically controlled by a remarkable vascular system. The resulting locomotion is
generally very slow. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Echinoderms are a phylum of marine invertebrates (Animals that lack a backbone). Common
echinoderms include starfish, brittle stars, sea cucumbers, sea urchins, sand dollars, and crinoids.
22
 They are one of the most diverse groups of marine invertebrates and play important ecological roles
from the near-shore environment to the deep seas. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.30) Concerning Polar Bear, consider the following statements.

1. Polar bears are the second largest land carnivore after Brown Bears.
2. Polar Bears prefer to hunt Seals as their main diet
3. Polar Bears are territorial
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 only
EXPLANATION:
Polar bears (Ursus maritimes) are a vulnerable species with a habitat range mostly within the Arctic
Circle. A member of the bear family, polar bears take their common name because of the proximity of
their habitat to the North Pole.
Polar bears are only found near the Arctic circle and are not native to the South Pole. Polar bears are the
largest member of the bear family and are the largest carnivorous land animals. According to the World
Conservation Union (IUCN), there are only about 20,000-25,000 polar bears in the world, making them a
threatened species. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Although about half of a polar bear's life is spent hunting for food, their hunts are rarely successful. A
polar bear's main prey consists of ringed seals and bearded seals, which they hunt in a variety of ways.
Either by breaking into pupping dens, waiting at breathing holes or at the water's edge, or stalking seals
that have hauled out to rest on the ice. Besides catching seals, polar bears will also scavenge carcasses
or settle for small mammals, birds, eggs and vegetation. So, Statement 2 is correct.

23
 Polar bears are classified as marine mammals Because they spend most of their lives on the sea ice of the
Arctic Ocean, depending on the ocean for their food and habitat; polar bears are the only bear species to
be considered marine mammals.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.
There are five countries included in the range of polar bears. These are Denmark (Greenland), Norway,
Russia, the United States, and Canada. Within the United States, polar bears are only found in the state
of Alaska.

Q.31) Which of the following are in-situ conservation arenas?

1. National parks
2. Wildlife sanctuaries
3. Reserved forests
4. Protected forests
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Conservation of biological diversity leads to the conservation of essential ecological diversity and
preserves the continuity of food chains.
Modes of Conservation
➢ Ex-situ conservation: Conserving biodiversity outside the areas where they naturally occur is
known as ex-situ conservation. Ex-situ conservation is the relocation of endangered or rare
species from their natural habitats to protected areas equipped for their protection and
preservation. It is an essential alternative strategy when in situ conservation is inadequate.
Seed banks and botanical, horticultural and recreational gardens are important centers for
ex-situ conservation.
➢ In-situ conservation: In situ conservation is the on-site conservation of genetic resources in
natural populations of plants or animal species, such as forest genetic resources, in natural
populations of tree and animal species. The process of protecting an endangered plant or

24
 animal species in its natural habitat is commonly known as in situ conservation. Conserving
the animals and plants in their natural habitats is known as in-situ conservation. The
established natural habitats are:
• National parks
• Sanctuaries
• Biosphere reserves and
• Reserved forests
• Protected forests
So, option (d) is correct.

Q.32) Which of the following Bio-geographic zones constitutes the maximum portion of the Indian
landmass?
(a) Himalayas
(b) Deccan plateau
(c) Semi-arid zone
(d) Gangetic plain zone
EXPLANATION:
Biogeography deals with the geographical distribution of plants and animals. There are 10 biogeographic
zones that are distinguished clearly
in India. They are as follows—
➢ Out of 10 biogeographic zones, the Deccan peninsula is the largest of the zones, covering much of
the southern and south-central plateau with predominantly deciduous vegetation—43% of the
country's landmass.
So, option (b) is correct.
➢ Trans-Himalayas. An extension of the Tibetan plateau, harboring high-altitude cold desert in
Laddakh (J&K) and Lahaul Spiti (HP), comprising 5.7 % of the country's landmass.
➢ Himalayas. The entire mountain chain runs from north-western to north-eastern India,
comprising a diverse range of biotic provinces and biomes, 7.2 % of the country's landmass.
➢ Desert. The extremely arid area west of the Aravalli hill range comprises both the salty desert of
Gujarat and the sand desert of Rajasthan 6.9% of the country's landmass.
➢ Semi-arid. The zone between the desert and the Deccan plateau, including the Aravalli hill range.
15.6 % of the country's landmass.
➢ Western ghats. The hill ranges and plains run along the western coastline, south of the Tapti river,
covering an extremely diverse range of biotic provinces and biomes. 5.8% of the country's
landmass.
➢ Gangetic plain. Defined by the Ganges river system, these plains are relatively homogenous, 11%
of the country's landmass.
➢ North-east India. The plains and non-Himalayan hill ranges of north-eastern India, with a wide
variation of vegetation. 5.2% of the country's landmass.
➢ Islands. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal, with a highly diverse set of biomes
0.03% of the country's landmass.
➢ Coasts. A large coastline is distributed both to the west and east, with distinct differences between
the two; Lakshadeep islands are included in this, with the percent area being negligible.

25
Q.33) It refers to a scientifically planned collection of living trees, shrubs, herbs, climbers and other
plants worldwide. It acts as germplasm collection and aids in developing new hybrids. Which of
the following suits the above description?
(a) Botanical garden
(b) Zoo
(c) Plant conservation reserve
(d) Seed bank

26
EXPLANATION:
A botanic garden can be called an open museum of living collection of a myriad of plants, where trees,
shrubs, herbs, climbers, lianas etc., are scientifically arranged, properly labelled based on an
internationally accepted classification, and more closely allied groups/plants are specially grown
together for better understanding of species. According to Almond (1993), the Botanic Garden is an ever-
changing museum of living plants.
Purpose of botanical gardens
➢ To study taxonomy as well as the growth of plants.
➢ To study the introduction and acclimatization process of exotic plants.
➢ It acts as a germplasm collection.
➢ It helps the development of new hybrids.
➢ It augments conserving rare and threatened species.
So, option (a) is correct.

Q.34) Identify the correct statements among the following:

1. Angiosperms are flowering plants that have enclosed seeds.
2. Both Bacteria and Fungi lack chlorophyll.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Angiosperms are a group of plants that produce flowers and have enclosed seeds. The seeds
are enclosed within a protective ovary that develops into a fruit after fertilization.
Angiosperms are the most diverse group of plants, with over 300,000 known species.
These are the most highly developed plants that bear flowers having conspicuous
accessories and essential whorls. Carpels have the ovary, style and stigma
They include a wide range of plants, such as trees, shrubs, herbs, and vines, and are an
important source of food, fiber, medicine, and ornamental plants.
India has more than 7% of the world's known flowering plants. So, Statement 1 is correct.
While it is true that fungi do not have chlorophyll, some bacteria do have chlorophyll-like
pigments that enable them to carry out photosynthesis. Bacteriochlorophylls (BChl) are
photosynthetic pigments that occur in various phototrophic bacteria. Bacteria with
chlorophyll are called photosynthetic bacteria or photoautotrophic bacteria. They are able
to use sunlight to produce energy, similar to plants and algae. However, most bacteria do
not have chlorophyll and do not produce their own food through photosynthesis. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.

Q.35) Which of the following are Bacterial diseases ?

1. Cholera
2. Anthrax
3. Pneumonia
4. Measles
5. Chickenpox

27
 Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
EXPLANATION:
➢ Cholera is a bacterial disease caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. It is usually transmitted
through contaminated water or food and can cause severe diarrhea and dehydration.
➢ Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused by gram-positive, rod-shaped bacteria known as
Bacillus anthracis. It occurs naturally in soil and commonly affects domestic and wild animals
around the world. People can get sick with anthrax if they come in contact with infected animals
or contaminated animal products.
➢ Pneumonia - Viruses, bacteria, and fungi can all cause pneumonia. The common causes of viral
pneumonia are
➢ Influenza viruses
➢ Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
➢ SARS-CoV-2 (the virus that causes COVID-19)
➢ Common causes of bacterial pneumonia are Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) and,
especially in kids, Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
Measles and chickenpox, on the other hand, are viral diseases.
➢ Measles is an acute viral respiratory illness. It is characterized by fever (as high as 105°F) and
malaise, cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis; it is followed by a maculopapular rash. The rash
usually appears about 14 days after a person is exposed.
➢ Chickenpox is an infection caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It causes an itchy rash with small,
fluid-filled blisters. Chickenpox is highly contagious to people who haven't had the disease or
been vaccinated against it.
So, option (b) is correct.

Q.36) Consider the following statements regarding Fungi.

1. Fungi are non-green non-differentiated plants characterized by the absence of chlorophyll.
2. The maximum diversity of fungi is found in eastern ghats in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Fungi are non-green, non-differentiated plants or non-vascular organisms characterized by the total
absence of chlorophyll. They obtain their nutrients by absorbing them from the environment. Some fungi
are saprophytes, which means they obtain their nutrients from dead and decaying organic matter.
Other fungi are parasites, which means they obtain nutrients from living hosts. Fungi store their food in
the form of starch, and like animals, fungi absorb dissolved molecules and consume them by releasing
digestive enzymes into the surrounding environment. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include microorganisms such as yeasts, moulds and mushrooms.
➢ These organisms are classified in the kingdom of fungi. Moulds and mushrooms are familiar
examples of saprophytic fungi.

28
 ➢ The pH determines the proliferation of any microbial species in a particular environment and the
rate at which it can produce.
➢ Most fungi prefer an acidic environment. They contain a cell wall and are omnipresent.
➢ The maximum diversity of fungi is in the Western Ghats, followed by the eastern Himalayas and
the western Himalayas. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Q.37) Recently, many in India have been infected with the H3N2 virus. In this context, identify the
correct statements regarding the same.
1. It is a type of influenza A virus.
2. It is a respiratory tract infection that causes illness every year.
3. It is a sub-variant of the H1N1 virus (Swine flu).
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
EXPLANATION:
Seasonal influenza is an acute respiratory infection caused by influenza viruses which circulate in all
parts of the world. There are 4 types of seasonal influenza viruses, types A, B, C and D. Influenza A and
B viruses circulate and cause seasonal epidemics of disease. H3N2 virus is a type of influenza virus called
the influenza A virus. Only influenza-type A viruses are known to have caused pandemics. This subtype
of influenza A virus was discovered in 1968 in humans. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Influenza A viruses are further classified into subtypes according to the combinations of hemagglutinin
(HA) and neuraminidase (NA), the proteins on the surface of the virus. Influenza A viruses naturally infect
humans. H3N2 virus infection is a respiratory viral infection that causes illnesses every year. So,
Statement 2 is correct.
Influenza A viruses of the H1N1, H3N2, and (rarely) H1N2 subtypes are currently circulating among
humans, whereas H2N2 viruses circulated among humans in the mid-1900s. H3N2 is not a sub-variant
of the H1N1 virus. H1N1 and H3N2 are both subtypes of the influenza A virus, but they are distinct
subtypes with different surface proteins. H1N1 and H3N2 viruses have different hemagglutinin (H)
proteins, which is one of the prime ways they are distinguished from each other. So, Statement 3 is not
correct.

Q.38) Which of the following are the features of invertebrates?

1. They do not have backbones.
2. But they have an internal skeleton made of bone.
3. More than 95% of animal species in the world are invertebrates.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

29
EXPLANATION:
Invertebrates are animals that do not have a backbone or vertebral column. This means that they lack
the structural support provided by the backbone and instead rely on other means to support their bodies.

So, Statement 1 is correct.

Invertebrates don't have an internal skeleton made of bone. Many invertebrates have a hard outer covering
or exoskeleton, such as crustaceans and insects, while others have soft bodies, such as jellyfish and
worms. Some invertebrates, such as mollusks, have a shell or other hard structure that provides some
support and protection. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Invertebrates are incredibly diverse and include a wide range of organisms, such as insects, spiders,
crustaceans, mollusks, and worms. In contrast, vertebrates, which are animals with a backbone, are
relatively rare and make up only a small fraction of the total number of animal species.
Vertebrates include animals such as fish, birds, mammals, and reptiles. Thus it is true that Invertebrates
make up more than 95% of all animal species on earth. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.39) Consider the following statements:

1. The Wassenaar Arrangement is a voluntary export control regime that exchanges information
on the transfer of conventional weapons and dual-use goods.
2. It consists of 42 member states, including all the P5 countries.
3. Recently, India assumed the chairmanship from Ireland of the plenary of the Wassenaar
arrangement.
Select the correct answer using the code given below code:
(a) 1 and 2 only

30
 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Wassenaar Arrangement, formally established in July 1996, is a voluntary export control regime
whose 42 members exchange information on transfers of conventional weapons and dual-use goods and
technologies.
The Wassenaar Arrangement is a multilateral export control regime that promotes transparency and
greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies through
regular information exchanges among its members. The regime aims to track such transfers and prevent
"destabilizing accumulations" of conventional arms and dual-use goods. So, Statement 1 is correct.
It has 42 members, and with the exception of China, all the other permanent UNSC members (P5) are
signatories. India has been admitted as the 42nd member, which will strengthen India's credentials as
a responsible nuclear power.
The Participating States of the Wassenaar Arrangement are:
➢ Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Czech Republic, Denmark,
Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, India, Ireland, Italy, Japan, Latvia,
Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Mexico, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal,
Republic of Korea, Romania, Russian Federation, Slovakia, Slovenia, South Africa, Spain,
Sweden, Switzerland, Türkiye, Ukraine, United Kingdom and United States.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Wassenaar Arrangement Plenary is the decision-making body of the Arrangement. It is composed
of representatives of all Participating States and normally meets once a year, usually in December.
At the 26th annual plenary of the Wassenaar Arrangement held in Vienna from November 30 - December
1, Ireland's ambassador Eoin O'Leary handed over the chairmanship to India's ambassador Jaideep
Mazumdar, who is the permanent representative to the UN and international organisations in Vienna.
India joined the Wassenaar Arrangement in December 2017 as its 42nd participating state. So,
Statement 3 is correct.
Q.40) Consider the following statements:
1. Australia Group
2. Nuclear supplier group
3. Missile technology control regime
4. Zangger Committee
5. International Energy Agency.
In which of the above organization is India not a member?
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 2, 3 and 5 only
EXPLANATION:
Australia Group
➢ It seeks to ensure that exports do not contribute to the development of chemical or biological
weapons.
➢ It has 43 members, including India.
➢ China is not a member of AG nor of, MTCR nor Wassenaar Arrangement. So, Statement 1 is
correct.

31
 Nuclear supplier group
➢ It is a voluntary, non-legally binding export control regime.
➢ Originally called "London Club," it was founded in response to the Indian nuclear test in 1974.
➢ It is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to contribute to the nonproliferation of
nuclear weapons through the implementation of two sets of Guidelines for nuclear exports and
nuclear-related exports.
➢ According to this, a supplier authorizes a transfer only when satisfied that the transfer would not
contribute to the proliferation of nuclear weapons.
➢ It has 48 members, with the European Commission and the Chair of the Zangger Committee as
observers.
➢ After India U.S Civil Nuclear Agreement, India has been trying to become a member. But its
membership has been blocked by China. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Missile technology control regime
➢ It was established in 1987 by Japan.
➢ It aims to limit the spread of ballistic missiles and other unmanned delivery systems that could
be used for chemical, biological, and nuclear attacks.
➢ It has 35 members, which include most of the world's key missile manufacturers, including India.
➢ It seeks to restrict the exports of missiles and related technologies of any type of weapon of mass
destruction.
So, Statement 3 is correct.
Zangger Committee
➢ This committee, also known as the Nuclear Exporters Committee, sprang from Article III.2 of the
Treaty on the Nonproliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), which entered into force on March 5,
1970. Under the terms of Article III.2, International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards
must be applied to nuclear exports.
➢ The - currently 39 - Member States of the Zangger Committee are:
Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belarus, Belgium, Bulgaria, Canada, China, Croatia, Czech
Republic, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Ireland, Italy, Japan,
Kazakhstan, Republic of Korea, Luxemburg, The Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Poland,
Portugal, Romania, Russian Federation, Slovakia, Slovenia, South Africa, Spain, Sweden,
Switzerland, Türkiye, Ukraine, United Kingdom and United States of America.
➢ India is not a member. So, Statement 4 is not correct.
International Energy Agency
Membership in the IEA, which is restricted to advanced economy members of the Organization for
Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), requires them to demonstrate their net oil importer
status, have reserves equivalent to 90 days' average of crude oil and/or oil products imports in the prior
years, and have a demand restraint program for reducing national oil consumption by up to 10 percent.
➢ Since its inception, China, Indonesia, Thailand, Singapore, Morocco, and now India have become
associated with the IEA.
So, Statement 5 is not correct.

Q.41) With respect to the SMART program, consider the following statements:
1. It is a scheme of the Ministry of education and the Ministry of AYUSH combined.
2. It aims to boost scientific research and development in Ayurveda colleges and Hospitals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below code:
(a) 1 only

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 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) and the Central Council for Research
in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS), the two prominent institutions under the Ministry of Ayush, Government
of India for regulating medical education and conducting scientific research, respectively, have launched
'SMART' (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research in Teaching Professionals) program. Not launched
under the ministry of education. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The 'SMART' (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research in Teaching Professionals) programme aimed
to boost scientific research in priority healthcare research areas through Ayurveda colleges and
hospitals. This program has the potential to transform clinical research in Ayurveda. It was observed
that the research potential of the large community of Ayurveda teachers remains underutilized mostly.
Therefore, the 'SMART' program will have a deep, long-term rejuvenating impact on research in the field
of Ayurveda, and it will be a great service to the nation. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.42) The term "Parastronaut" is related to,

(a) It is related to individuals with disabilities as astronauts.
(b) It is related to individuals with disabilities as Para gliders.
(c) It is a half-humanoid robot to be sent to the International Space station
(d) None of the above three statements, a, b and c, are correct.
EXPLANATION:
The European Space Agency named the first ever "parastronaut" in a major step towards allowing people
with physical disabilities to work and live in space. The Parastronaut Feasibility project is described by
ESA as a "serious, dedicated and honest attempt to clear the path to space for a professional astronaut
with a physical disability. So, Option (a) is correct.

Q.43) The World Social Report published by,

(a) UNESC
(b) UNDESA

33
 (c) UN- HABITAT
(d) World Bank
EXPLANATION:
The World Social Report (previously Report on the World Social Situation) is prepared by the Division for
Inclusive Social Development of the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA).
Key highlights of the Report-
➢ The Report calls for concrete measures to support the greying global population amidst escalating
pension and healthcare costs.
➢ In 2021, 761 million people worldwide were aged 65 and older, which will rise to 1.6 billion by
2050. The number of people aged 80 years or older is growing even faster.
➢ Globally, a child born in 2021 can expect to live, on average, to age 71, with women living longer
than men. This is nearly 25 years more than a baby born in 1950.
➢ Northern Africa, Western Asia and sub-Saharan Africa are on track to experience the fastest
growth in the number of older people over the next 30 years. Today, Europe and Northern America
combined, have the highest share of this population.
➢ However, the Report points to inequalities in our ageing world because not everyone has benefited
equally from the improvements in health and education that are driving this transformation.
➢ While many older people are in excellent health or "economically active," others live with ailments
or are in poverty.
➢ In more developed regions, pensions and other public transfer systems provide over two-thirds of
the consumption by older persons. Their counterparts in less developed regions tend to work
longer and rely more on accumulated assets or family assistance.
➢ Life expectancy is strongly influenced by factors such as income, education, gender, ethnicity and
place of residence.
➢ Some combinations of these factors have too often led to the systemic disadvantage that begins
early in life.
So, Option (b) is correct.
➢ The Report recommends that countries rethink long-held policies and practices associated with
livelihoods and work.
So, Option (b) is correct.

Q.44) With reference to National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited, Consider the following
statements
1. NARCL is set up by banks to aggregate and consolidate select stressed assets in the financial
system for subsequent resolution
2. Private sector banks hold majority stakes in NARCL
34
 3. NARCL acquires stressed assets in a 15:85 ratio of cash and Security receipts
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited has been incorporated under the Companies Act and
has applied to the Reserve Bank of India for a license as an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC). NARCL
has been set up by banks to aggregate and consolidate stressed assets for their subsequent resolution.
PSBs will maintain 51% ownership in National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited.
The National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd, or NARCL, is the name of the asset reconstruction
company incorporated to take over and dispose of the stressed assets of commercial banks. The primary
role of NARCL is to obtain and culminate the Non-Performing Asset (NPA) accounts, whereas the entire
debt resolution process will be handled by the service/operational entity- India Debt Resolution
Company Ltd (IDRCL), which will be a mere facilitator. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited (NARCL) has a base capital of 6000 crore rupees
with the Public Sector Banks. (PSBs) owning 51% stake. Canara Bank is NARCL's largest shareholder,
with 12% in the ARC. Companies like SBI, Union Bank, Bank of Baroda and Indian bank each have
9.9%. Punjab National Bank(PNB) and Bank of India(BOI) have 9%, respectively. Bank of Maharashtra,
IDBI and ICICI hold 5%, whereas UCO Bank holds 4%, Indian Overseas Bank(IOB), Axis and HDFC have
a stake of 3% each. The remaining stake is held by other smaller banks. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Given that in phase I, assets worth ₹90,000 crores (out of a total planned acquisition of ₹2,00,000 crores)
that have already been fully provided for are expected to be acquired, recovery will instantly strengthen
banks' balance sheets. Further, by concentrating on legacy large-value accounts of more than ₹500
crores, the NARCL may lead to faster resolution of overall stress.
The settlement of these accounts acquired by National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited is done
in a 15:85 ratio, where 15% of the settlements are made by cash, whereas the remaining 85% is done by
government security receipts (SRs). Government SRs are issued by Asset Restructuring
Companies(ARCs) when NPAs of these banks or financial institutions are acquired by them for the
purpose of recovery. They are issued in favor of lenders by a unique government guarantee for their face
value. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.45) With reference to water hyacinth in India, consider the following statements
1. Water hyacinth is an invasive species native to south Africa
2. It can act as a water purifier by removing heavy metals from water when present in small
quantities
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Water hyacinth is a free-floating and flowering invasive aquatic plant that originated from Amazon Basin,
South America. It has spread mainly to the tropics and subtropics since the 1800s. The reproduction
systems of water hyacinths are both sexual and asexual reproduction. Sexual reproduction is by

35
 producing seeds through flowers, whereas asexual reproduction is by budding through vegetative
reproduction systems. The invasive plant doubles itself within 5–15 days. The most favorable conditions
for the optimum growth of water hyacinth are nutrient-rich water, and temperature ranges from 28°C to
30°C, pH value between 6.5 and 8.5, salinity < 2%, 20 mg/L N, 3 mg/L P, and 53 mg/L K.
Water hyacinth has significant negative impacts on ecosystem services limiting cultural services that
people obtain from an ecosystem. It significantly affects the lake hydrology by increasing the
evapotranspiration of lake water.
➢ Water hyacinth (Pontederia crassipes), is an invasive species native to South Africa. The plant has
naturalized itself in many other parts of the world. While the plant has some uses too, when it
covers the entire surface of a water body, it becomes a threat to aquatic biodiversity.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
Water hyacinth acts as a water purifier by removing heavy metals from water when present in small
quantities. However, the plant is a prolific spreader, and when it covers the entire surface of a water body,
it does not allow sunlight to penetrate the water and also starts depleting oxygen. This leads to the death
of aquatic animals and plants, which in turn decompose and further reduce oxygen levels.
Estimates show that 1 hectare of water hyacinth grown on sewage can purify wastewater and produce
0.8 tons of dry matter per day; this can be converted to 200 m3 gas, which is enough to generate 250 kW
power. So, Statement 2 is correct.
An artificial lake in Madhya Pradesh's Shivpuri district has virtually disappeared under a thick layer of
an invasive aquatic plant, threatening the biodiversity of the water body. The Sankhya Sagar was declared
a Ramsar site in July 2022. More than six months since the declaration of the lake as a Ramsar site, it
is now covered in water hyacinth (Pontederia crassipes), an invasive species native to South Africa.

Water Hyacinth - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics

Q.46) In which one of the following states is Changthang Wildlife sanctuary located?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Ladakh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Sikkim

36
EXPLANATION:
The Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary (or the Changthang Cold Desert Wildlife Sanctuary) is a high-altitude
wildlife sanctuary located in the Ladakh adjunct of the Changthang plateau in the Leh District of the
union territory of Ladakh.
It is important as one of the few places in India with a population of the Kiang or Tibetan Wild Ass, as
well as the rare Black-necked Crane. Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary covers an area of 4000 km. An Inner
Line Permit (ILP) is required to visit the areas that lie on the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
Recently India launched its first Night Sky Sanctuary in Ladakh to boost Astro tourism as a part of
Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary.
➢ The project is an initiative by the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council (LAHDC), the
Union Territory administration, and the Indian Institute of Astrophysics.
➢ The project aims to preserve the night sky from unwanted light pollution and illumination, which
is a serious threat to scientific observations and natural sky conditions.
So, Option (b) is correct.

Q.47) With reference to the WTO 12th Ministerial Conference held in Geneva, Consider the following
statements
1. The Agreement on Fisheries subsidies, adopted by consensus, sets new binding multilateral
rules to curb harmful subsidies responsible for fish stock depletion.
2. Italy became the first country to submit its instrument of acceptance of a historic new
agreement on fisheries subsidies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The WTO's 12th Ministerial Conference (MC12) took place from 12 to June 17, 2022, at WTO headquarters
in Geneva. Ministers from across the world attended to review the functioning of the multilateral trading
system, to make general statements and to take action on the future work of the WTO. The Conference
was co-hosted by Kazakhstan and chaired by Mr. Timur Suleimenov, Deputy Chief of Staff of Kazakhstan's
President. The Conference concluded successfully on June 17 with an Agreement on a package of key
trade initiatives.
Given that the landmark agreement was adopted during the 12th Ministerial Conference in 2022 held in
Geneva, the location of the WTO, Switzerland is a fitting pioneer in the acceptance process, allowing the
WTO to finally deliver our contribution to safeguarding global fish stocks and the livelihood and food
security of millions of people worldwide.
So, Statement 1 is correct.

37
 Switzerland is the first WTO member to ratify the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies. The prohibition of
harmful marine capture subsidies is a major contribution of the multilateral trading system toward
achieving the UN's sustainable development goals. Switzerland's action will create real momentum for
more WTO members to formally accept the Agreement. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Q.48) With reference to Municipal Bonds, sometimes seen in the news, which of the statements given
below is/are correct?
1. Municipal Bonds are debt securities issued by states, cities, countries and other government
entities to fund day to day obligations and to finance capital projects.
2. RBI has launched an information database on municipal bonds to develop the bond markets
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Municipal bonds are debt securities issued by states, cities, countries and other governmental entities to
fund day-to-day obligations and to finance capital projects such as building schools, highways or sewer
systems. By purchasing municipal bonds, you are, in effect, lending money to the bond issuer in exchange
for a promise of regular interest payments, usually semi-annually, and the return on the original
investment, or "principal." A municipal bond's maturity date (the date when the issuer of the bond repays
the principal) may be years in the future. Short-term bonds mature in one to three years, while long-term
bonds won't mature for more than a decade. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Markets regulator SEBI has launched an information database on municipal bonds. As part of efforts to
develop the bond markets, an outreach program on municipal bonds and municipal finance was organized
by SEBI in the national capital. So. Statement 2 is not correct.

Q.49) Consider the Following pairs:

Place of pilgrimage: Location
1. Amarnath Shrine: - Jammu and Kashmir
2. Mahamuni Buddha mandir: - Tripura
3. Baidyanath Temple - Jharkhand
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
India's rich heritage culture was showcased in tableaux at Kartavya Path on the occasion of the 74th
Republic Day. Twenty-three tableaux - 17 from states and Union Territories and six from various
Ministries and Departments, depicting the nation's rich cultural heritage, economic progress and strong
internal and external security rolled down the Kartavya Path.
➢ The tableau of Jammu and Kashmir with its theme 'Naya J&K' showcased the holy Amarnath
Shrine, Tulip gardens and lavender cultivation

38
 ➢ Tripura's tableau with the theme 'Sustainable Livelihood through tourism and organic farming in
Tripura with active participation of women', displayed at the Republic Day parade. It also shows
Mahamuni Buddha Mandir.

➢ The tableau of Jharkhand showcased the famous Baidyanath Temple located in Deoghar. Lord
Birsa Munda is depicted in the front of the tableau

Q.50) The inaugural of the Critical and Emerging Technologies (iCET) dialogue has recently been
completed. In this context, consider the following statements :
1. The initiative focuses on artificial intelligence, quantum, and telecom technologies, including
6G.
2. It facilitates the longer-term strategic development of complementary semiconductor
ecosystems.
3. The meeting is held between the National Security Advisor of India and Russia.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
President Biden and Prime Minister Modi announced the U.S.-India initiative on Critical and Emerging
Technology (iCET) in May 2022 to elevate and expand our strategic technology partnership and defense
39
industrial cooperation between the governments, businesses, and academic institutions of our two
countries.
India and the U.S. have decided to deepen cooperation on defence, artificial intelligence, quantum
technologies, high-performance computing, co-production of jet engines, semiconductor supply chains,
human spaceflight, commercial space launches, and telecom technologies, including 6G.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
Welcoming a task force organized by the U.S. Semiconductor Industry Association (SIA) in partnership
with the India Electronics Semiconductor Association (IESA) with participation from the Government of
India Semiconductor Mission to develop a "readiness assessment" to identify near-term industry
opportunities and facilitate the longer-term strategic development of complementary semiconductor
ecosystems. Collaboration on resilient semiconductor supply chains, supporting the development of a
semiconductor design, manufacturing and fabrication ecosystem in India. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The meeting was held between National Security Advisor Ajit Doval and US NSA Jake Sullivan in
Washington, DC. The two NSAs met for the first meeting of the US-India initiative on Critical and Emerging
Technology (iCET), which was decided between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and U.S. President Joe
Biden in May 2022 on the sidelines of the Quad meeting in Tokyo. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

40