Test Bank For Connect Core Concepts in Health Brief 16th Edition Paul Insel Walton Roth

Test Bank for Connect Core Concepts in Health, BRIEF, 16th Edition, Paul Insel, Walton Roth
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BRIEF, 16th Edition, Paul Insel, Walton Roth
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Connect Core Concepts in Health BRIEF, 16e (Insel)
Chapter 6 Sexuality, Pregnancy, and Childbirth
1) Gonads include the

A) scrotum and vulva.
B) penis and uterus.
C) vagina and urethra.
D) ovaries and testes.
Answer: D
Section: Sexual Anatomy
Topic: Female Sex Organs
Learning Objective: Describe the structure and function of human sexual anatomy.
Bloom's: Remember
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
2) The external female sex organs are called the

A) labia majora and labia minora.
B) uterus and fallopian tubes.
C) vulva.
D) gonads.
Answer: C
Bloom's: Remember
3) Which of the following contains spongy tissue that becomes engorged with blood during sexual
excitement?
A) labia majora
B) clitoris
C) vulva
D) labia minora
Answer: B
Bloom's: Remember
1
Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior
written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
4) The passage that leads to the internal female reproductive organs is the
A) uterus.
B) cervix.
C) clitoris.
D) vagina.
Answer: D
Bloom's: Remember
5) Womb is another term for

A) uterus.
B) cervix.
C) clitoris.
D) vagina.
Answer: A
Bloom's: Remember
6) The fallopian tubes link the

A) bladder and urethra.
B) uterus and vagina.
C) ovaries and uterus.
D) cervix and uterus.
Answer: C
Bloom's: Remember
2
7) The fertilized egg is implanted in the ________, where it grows into a fetus.
A) uterus
B) vagina
C) ovary
D) cervix
Answer: A
Bloom's: Remember
8) Sperm are manufactured in the

A) testes' tubules.
B) vas deferens.
C) epididymis.
D) seminal vesicle.
Answer: A
Topic: Male Sex Organs
Bloom's: Remember
9) The epididymis is the

A) organ in which sperm mix with a fluid to become semen.
B) sperm-storing structure on the surface of each testicle.
C) source of nutrition for sperm.
D) site of pre-ejaculatory fluid production.
Answer: B
Bloom's: Remember
3
10) The removal of a male's foreskin is
A) circumcision.
B) illegal in all 50 states.
C) widely accepted worldwide.
D) a completely painless procedure.
Answer: A
Bloom's: Understand
11) The prostate gland

A) has no known function in male reproduction.
B) produces part of the seminal fluid.
C) secretes a pre-ejaculatory fluid to neutralize the sperm passageway.
D) is the site of sperm production.
Answer: B
Bloom's: Remember
12) Which of the following is the route sperm take from the testes to the urethra?
A) through the epididymis to the vas deferens; then through the prostate gland to the seminal
vesicles; and then to the ejaculatory ducts
B) through the vas deferens to the epididymis; then through the prostate gland to the seminal
vesicles; and then to the ejaculatory ducts
C) through the seminal vesicles to the vas deferens; then through the prostate gland to the
epididymis; and then to the ejaculatory ducts
D) through the epididymis to the vas deferens; then to the seminal vesicles; and then through the
prostate gland to the ejaculatory ducts
Answer: D
Bloom's: Understand
4
13) The purpose of the seminal vesicles is to
A) lubricate the urethra.
B) allow for an orgasm without ejaculation.
C) serve as an indicator that ejaculation is about to occur.
D) provide nutrients for semen.
Answer: D
Bloom's: Remember
14) The purpose of pre-ejaculatory fluid is to

A) lubricate the urethra.
B) allow for an orgasm without ejaculation.
C) serve as an indicator that ejaculation is about to occur.
D) provide nutrients for semen.
Answer: A
Bloom's: Remember
15) The rounded head of the clitoris or penis is the

A) glans.
B) scrotum.
C) mons pubis.
D) hood.
Answer: A
Topic: Female Sex Organs; Male Sex Organs
Bloom's: Remember
5
16) Male circumcision involves removal of the
A) glans.
B) prepuce.
C) scrotum.
D) epididymis.
Answer: B
Bloom's: Remember
17) Your gender role is determined by

A) your genetic makeup.
B) the gender of the partner you choose.
C) everything you do in your daily life that expresses your maleness or femaleness.
D) your parents.
Answer: C
Section: Gender Roles and Sexual Orientation
Topic: Gender Role
Learning Objective: Differentiate among the concepts of sex, gender, gender role, and sexual
orientation.
Bloom's: Remember
18) Individuals whose biological sex and assigned gender role match the gender they identify with
are called
A) cisgender.
B) transgender.
C) monogender.
D) unigender.
Answer: A
Topic: Gender Role; Gender Identity; Sex
orientation.
Bloom's: Remember
6
19) Which of the following terms best describes people who feel their biological sex does not
match their gender?
A) androgynous
B) transsexual
C) gender nonconforming
D) asexual
Answer: B
Topic: Gender Role; Gender Identity
orientation.
Bloom's: Remember
20) Androgyny is best characterized as having

A) neither female nor male genitalia.
B) no overtly male or female identity or characteristics.
C) gender-role confusion.
D) gender identity disorder.
Answer: B
orientation.
Bloom's: Remember
7
21) Which of the following accurately represents the difference between a trans woman and a trans
man?
A) A trans woman has made a male-to-female transition; a trans man has made a female-to-male
transition.
B) A trans woman has made a female-to-male transition; a trans man has made a male-to-female
transition.
C) A trans woman is a male-identifying person dressing as a woman; a trans man is a
female-identifying person dressing as a man.
D) A trans woman is a female-identifying person dressing as a man; a trans man is a
male-identifying person dressing as a woman.
Answer: A
orientation.
Bloom's: Analyze
22) Which of the following is true of sexual orientation?

A) It is defined by a continuum of attraction.
B) It involves choosing to be either heterosexual or homosexual.
C) It consists of random, unpredictable sexual impulses.
D) It is independent of emotional and romantic attraction.
Answer: A
Topic: Sexual Orientation
orientation.
Bloom's: Understand
23) People who identify as bisexual

A) are more or less equally attracted to men and women.
B) used to be attracted to one gender but now like another.
C) cannot decide which gender they really like.
D) have markedly low sexual desire.
Answer: A
Topic: Sexual Orientation
orientation.
Bloom's: Understand
8
24) Male sex hormones are called
A) androgens.
B) estrogens.
C) progestogens.
D) testosterones.
Answer: A
Section: Hormones and the Reproductive Life Cycle
Topic: Sexual Development Across the Lifespan
Learning Objective: Outline the role of hormones in sexual development across the lifespan.
Bloom's: Remember
25) What are the two groups of female sex hormones?

A) endorphins and estrogens
B) estrogens and progestogens
C) progestogens and endorphins
D) estrogens and androgens
Answer: B
Bloom's: Remember
26) Which of the following do/does NOT produce testosterone?

A) testes
B) ovaries
C) adrenal glands
D) pituitary gland
Answer: D
Bloom's: Remember
9
27) The hormones secreted by the ________ gland(s) regulate the release of hormones by other
glands.
A) adrenal
B) Bartholin's
C) Cowper's
D) pituitary
Answer: D
Bloom's: Understand
28) How many pairs of chromosomes do human cells normally contain?

A) 12
B) 23
C) 32
D) 46
Answer: B
Topic: Sexual Development Across the Lifespan; Sex Chromosomes
Bloom's: Remember
29) Which of the following chromosomal configurations denotes female biological sex?
A) YY
B) YX
C) XY
D) XX
Answer: D
Topic: Sexual Development Across the Lifespan; Sex Chromosomes
Bloom's: Remember
10
30) Which of the following chromosomal configurations denotes male biological sex?
A) YY
B) XY
C) XX
D) YX
Answer: B
Topic: Sex Chromosomes
Bloom's: Remember
31) Which of the following describes Klinefelter syndrome?

A) It can cause infertility in men.
B) It occurs when a woman has only one complete X chromosome.
C) It causes women to appear masculine.
D) It occurs when a man carries two or more X chromosomes.
Answer: D
Bloom's: Remember
32) The period during which the male and female reproductive systems mature is called
A) menopause.
B) puberty.
C) growing pains.
D) menarche.
Answer: B
Topic: Sexual Development Across the Lifespan; Puberty
Bloom's: Remember
11
33) All of the following are signs of female puberty EXCEPT
A) underarm hair.
B) breast development.
C) the onset of menstruation.
D) decrease in growth rate.
Answer: D
Bloom's: Remember
34) What is the correct order of phases in the menstrual cycle?

A) (1) estrogenic phase, (2) menses, (3) ovulation, (4) progestational phase
B) (1) menses, (2) estrogenic phase, (3) ovulation, (4) progestational phase
C) (1) progestational phase, (2) ovulation, (3) estrogenic phase, (4) menses
D) (1) menses, (2) ovulation, (3) estrogenic phase, (4) progestational phase
Answer: B
Topic: Sexual Development Across the Lifespan; Menstrual Cycle
Bloom's: Understand
35) A female whose pituitary gland does not produce enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
is likely to experience which of the following?
A) high levels of estrogen
B) low levels of estrogen
C) pregnancy
D) menarche
Answer: B
Bloom's: Apply
12
36) The release of an egg from an ovary is characteristic of
A) menses.
B) the progestational phase.
C) the estrogenic phase.
D) ovulation.
Answer: D
Bloom's: Understand
37) What happens to the corpus luteum if pregnancy occurs?

A) It begins to produce progesterone and estrogen.
B) It degenerates almost immediately, and the levels of estrogen and progesterone decline.
C) It is maintained by human chorionic gonadotropin, so it continues to produce hormones.
D) It forms the placenta for the embryo.
Answer: C
Bloom's: Remember
38) Women who experience dysmenorrhea have ________ menstruation.

A) lengthy
B) infrequent
C) painful
D) absent
Answer: C
Topic: Menstrual Cycle
Bloom's: Remember
13
39) Alison misses class for a few days at the exact same time during her menstrual cycle each
month and complains of severe back pain, abdominal cramping, and fatigue. Her parents think she
is overreacting and that she should go to school. Which of the following is the best explanation for
Alison's absences?
A) She's just avoiding school.
B) She has PMS.
C) She has a parasitic infection.
D) She has PMDD.
Answer: D
Bloom's: Apply
40) Yuna has suffered from PMS for years but doesn't want to take the oral contraceptive her
doctor recommended she try. Wary of medications and of taking too many supplements, Yuna has
decided to try increasing her daily physical activity and altering her diet to see if she can improve
her symptoms. Which of the following dietary modifications is most likely to relieve her
symptoms?
A) drinking more alcohol to numb the pain
B) eating salted nuts because they are high in sodium
C) eating more calcium-rich foods like fat-free yogurt and leafy green vegetables
D) drinking less water so less can be retained to cause bloating
Answer: C
Bloom's: Apply
41) The first visible sign of sexual maturity in boys is usually

A) the growth of testicles.
B) the development of body hair.
C) deepening of the voice.
D) the appearance of facial hair.
Answer: A
Bloom's: Remember
14
42) The cessation of menstruation is called
A) menopause.
B) menarche.
C) dysmenorrhea.
D) andropause.
Answer: A
Topic: Sexual Development Across the Lifespan; Aging and Sexuality
Bloom's: Remember
43) Which of the following statements about hormone replacement therapy is accurate?
A) It has been known to advance bone loss.
B) It has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer.
C) It has been associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease.
D) It is increasingly prescribed by doctors to combat a range of side effects of menopause.
Answer: B
Bloom's: Understand
44) Which of the following best describes aging male syndrome?

A) It usually begins at 50.
B) It occurs over a shorter period than menopause.
C) It may involve loss of muscle mass and increase in fat mass.
D) It cannot be alleviated with medical treatment.
Answer: C
Bloom's: Understand
15
45) Areas of the body that produce sexual arousal when touched are called
A) erogenous zones.
B) stimulation glands.
C) estrogenic sites.
D) G spots.
Answer: A
Section: How Sex Organs Function During Sexual Activity
Topic: Sexual Stimulation
Learning Objective: Describe how the sex organs function during sexual activity.
Bloom's: Remember
46) The engorgement of tissues that results when more blood flows into an organ than is flowing
out is called
A) vasocongestion.
B) orgasm.
C) vasoconstriction.
D) menarche.
Answer: A
Topic: The Sexual Response Cycle
Bloom's: Remember
47) Which of the following commonly occurs during the excitement stage of sexual response?
A) The vagina or penis rhythmically contracts.
B) The testes pull upward within the scrotum.
C) The upper end of the vagina lengthens.
D) The seminal vesicles release secretions.
Answer: B
Bloom's: Understand
16
48) The plateau phase of the sexual response cycle is characterized by
A) leveling off of reactions in the excitement phase.
B) intensification of reactions from the excitement phase.
C) an inability to reach orgasm due to lack of stimulation.
D) the beginning of the resolution phase.
Answer: B
Bloom's: Understand
49) Rhythmic contractions of the male and female reproductive structures occur during the
________ phase.
A) excitement
B) plateau
C) orgasmic
D) resolution
Answer: C
Bloom's: Remember
50) Male and female reactions during the sexual response cycle differ in which of the following
ways?
A) Men experience a fusion of the plateau and orgasmic phases.
B) Women experience a more uniform progression through the phases.
C) Women go straight from excitement to orgasm without a plateau phase.
D) Men enter a refractory period in which they cannot be restimulated to orgasm.
Answer: D
Bloom's: Understand
17
51) All of the following changes occur during the orgasmic phase EXCEPT
A) the female ejaculate is released from a woman's urethra.
B) the semen mixes with secretions from the prostate gland and seminal vesicles.
C) the penis and vagina contract rhythmically.
D) the uterus suddenly elevates.
Answer: D
Bloom's: Remember
52) Priya has been having painful intercourse with her boyfriend for three weeks and she's noticed
some vaginal discharge. She and her boyfriend had negative STI tests a few months ago and use
condoms. Which diagnosis is she most likely to receive when she visits the campus health center
for an exam?
A) vaginitis
B) endometriosis
C) pelvic inflammatory disease
D) vulvodynia
Answer: A
Topic: Sexual Health Problems
Bloom's: Analyze
53) Endometriosis is a(n)

A) infection of the uterus, oviducts, or ovaries.
B) thinning of endometrial tissue that increases oviduct diameter.
C) growth of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus.
D) inflammation of endometrial tissue inside the uterus.
Answer: C
Bloom's: Remember
18
54) The term impotence is an older name for
A) erectile dysfunction.
B) premature ejaculation.
C) delayed ejaculation.
D) orgasmic dysfunction.
Answer: A
Topic: Male Sexual Dysfunctions
Bloom's: Remember
55) An overweight male attempting to engage in intercourse while taking antidepressants is most
likely to experience which of the following?
A) multiple orgasms
B) premature ejaculation
C) erectile dysfunction
D) an intense orgasm
Answer: C
Bloom's: Understand
56) All of the following are potential psychosocial causes of sexual dysfunction EXCEPT
A) lack of sexual skills.
B) anxiety.
C) psychosexual trauma.
D) low testosterone.
Answer: D
Topic: Male Sexual Dysfunctions; Female Sexual Dysfunctions
Bloom's: Remember
19
57) Dyspareunia is the
A) inability to achieve a vaginal orgasm in women.
B) experience of painful intercourse in women.
C) inability to ejaculate live sperm in men.
D) experience of involuntary orgasm in men.
Answer: B
Bloom's: Remember
58) Which of the following is the most common treatment for orgasmic dysfunction in women?
A) masturbation
B) generous amounts of lubricant
C) desensitization techniques
D) Viagra
Answer: A
Topic: Female Sexual Dysfunctions
Bloom's: Understand
59) An umbrella term for behavior aimed at sexual self-stimulation is

A) autoeroticism.
B) coercion.
C) masturbation.
D) foreplay.
Answer: A
Section: Sexual Behavior
Topic: Sexual Behavior and Expression
Learning Objective: Identify forms of sexual behavior and expression.
Bloom's: Evaluate
20
60) Oral stimulation of the female genitalia is called
A) cunnilingus.
B) masturbation.
C) fellatio.
D) coitus.
Answer: A
Bloom's: Remember
61) Oral stimulation of the penis is called

A) cunnilingus.
B) masturbation.
C) fellatio.
D) coitus.
Answer: C
Bloom's: Remember
62) The most extreme form of sexual coercion is

A) seduction.
B) harassment.
C) solicitation.
D) rape.
Answer: D
Bloom's: Remember
21
63) Christopher has applied for a job but finds out that he's been passed over for another applicant
without even getting to interview. When he asks the recruiter why, she says the company's HR
department found "compromising photos" of him on social media. This is an example of a
potential consequence of
A) prostitution.
B) sexting.
C) 21st century dating.
D) foreplay.
Answer: B
Topic: Commercial Sex
Bloom's: Apply
64) Which of the following is a good way to start a conversation about sex with your partner?
A) "Are you having an affair? You never want to have sex with me anymore."
B) "Why do you think you don't pay attention to me anymore?"
C) "It's really hard to talk about sex with you because I don't want to upset you."
D) "Isn't it funny how difficult it is for people to talk about sex?"
Answer: D
Topic: Responsible Sexual Behavior
Bloom's: Remember
65) ________ is a complex process that begins with the joining of the nucleus of an egg with the
nucleus of a sperm.
A) Fertilization
B) Implantation
C) Genetic coding
D) Insemination
Answer: A
Section: Understanding Fertility and Infertility
Topic: Conception
Learning Objective: Summarize conception.
Bloom's: Remember
22
66) What is the proper term for a newly fertilized egg?
A) embryo
B) zygote
C) blastocyst
D) fetus
Answer: B
Topic: Conception
Bloom's: Remember
67) What happens if an egg is not fertilized?

A) It returns to the ovary.
B) It disintegrates after 24 hours.
C) It implants in the lining of the uterus.
D) It passes through the uterus intact and is excreted.
Answer: B
Topic: Conception
Bloom's: Understand
68) Where does conception normally occur?

A) within the ovary
B) in the wall of the uterus
C) in the vagina
D) inside the fallopian tube
Answer: D
Topic: Conception
Bloom's: Remember
23
69) Each human cell contains ________ chromosomes and each egg or sperm has ________
chromosomes.
A) 23; 46
B) 46; 23
C) 23; 23
D) 46; 46
Answer: B
Topic: Conception
Bloom's: Remember
70) The basic units of heredity that provide the blueprint for functional and health characteristics
of an individual are ________ which are contained within ________.
A) chromosomes; genes
B) trophoblasts; gametes
C) gametes; trophoblasts
D) genes; chromosomes
Answer: D
Topic: Conception; Heredity/Genetics
Bloom's: Understand
71) Where does the blastocyst embed itself?

A) uterus
B) cervix
C) vagina
D) oviduct
Answer: A
Section: Fetal Development
Topic: Conception
Bloom's: Remember
24
72) Alice delivered a set of fraternal twins. Which statement about them is TRUE?
A) Their genetic code is exactly alike.
B) They resulted from an ovum that was fertilized by two sperm.
C) They resulted from two ova, each fertilized by a separate sperm.
D) They are the product of two ova fertilized by a single sperm.
Answer: C
Topic: Conception
Bloom's: Understand
73) Which is correct regarding monozygotic twins?

A) They have identical genetic material.
B) They are no more alike than other siblings.
C) They arise from one ovum fertilized by two separate sperm.
D) They arise from two eggs fertilized by two separate sperm.
Answer: A
Topic: Conception
Bloom's: Understand
74) Among infertility couples, about how often is the difficulty in conceiving due to male
infertility?
A) very rarely is this the case
B) about ten percent of the time
C) about a quarter of the time
D) over three quarters of the time
Answer: C
Topic: Infertility
Learning Objective: List causes and treatments for infertility.
Bloom's: Remember
25
75) Among the following factors, which is the most common cause of female infertility?
A) tubal blockage
B) hypothyroidism
C) failure to ovulate
D) endometriosis
Answer: C
Topic: Infertility
Bloom's: Remember
76) Which of the following is the most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease?
A) advanced age
B) urinary tract infections
C) untreated chlamydia
D) endometriosis
Answer: C
Topic: Infertility
Bloom's: Understand
77) What is the condition in which the uterine lining grows outside of the uterus?
A) pelvic inflammatory disease
B) endometriosis
C) uterine prolapse
D) ectopic pregnancy
Answer: B
Topic: Infertility
Bloom's: Remember
26
78) What is a common treatment approach for infertility resulting from a low sperm count?
A) surrogacy
B) intrauterine insemination
C) infrequent intercourse to build up sperm stores
D) erectile dysfunction drugs
Answer: B
Topic: Conception; Infertility
Bloom's: Understand
79) Susan recently gave birth to twins: a boy and a girl. She delivered about 4 weeks before her due
date. Which is correct?
A) They share the same DNA and are monozygotic.
B) They are no more alike than siblings from two separate pregnancies.
C) They will have identical risk of contracting diseases that arise as a result of recessive genes.
D) They are at decreased risk for early post-birth complications.
Answer: B
Topic: Conception
Bloom's: Analyze
80) Roger and Meredith are having difficulty conceiving, so Roger makes an appointment with his
physician for consultation. Statistically speaking, which would be considered the most likely cause
of Roger's infertility?
A) tubal blockage
B) testicular disease
C) problems with sperm transport
D) hypothalamic pituitary disease
Answer: B
Topic: Infertility
Bloom's: Apply
27
81) Hans has a low sperm count. His wife Sharon is fertile and has a child from a previous
marriage. They are exploring options to improve their chance of conceiving. Which option makes
sense given the situation?
A) use of a gestational surrogate
B) intrauterine insemination
C) fertilization
D) erectile dysfunction medication
Answer: B
Topic: Infertility
Bloom's: Analyze
82) Phoebe's doctor has determined that her infertility is caused by blocked fallopian tubes. With
no history of pelvic or sexually transmitted infections, what statistically is the most likely cause of
the blockage?
A) scarring from abnormal hormone levels
B) endometriosis
C) a congenital defect in the oviduct
D) a tumor
Answer: B
Topic: Infertility
Bloom's: Analyze
83) Which hormone confirms pregnancy?

A) estrogen
B) unconjugated estriol
C) prostaglandin
D) human chorionic gonadotropin
Answer: D
Section: Pregnancy
Topic: Pregnancy Tests
Learning Objective: Describe physical and emotional changes during pregnancy.
Bloom's: Remember
28
84) Early signs of pregnancy may include all of these EXCEPT
A) nausea.
B) fatigue.
C) decreased urination.
D) breast tenderness.
Answer: C
Section: Pregnancy
Topic: Physical Changes During Pregnancy
Bloom's: Understand
85) Which is the best description of Hegar's sign?

A) a bluish discoloration of the cervix
B) the softening of the uterus near the cervix
C) a positive result with a home pregnancy test
D) the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin
Answer: B
Section: Pregnancy
Bloom's: Remember
86) According to the National Academy of Medicine, what is the recommended range of weight
gain for a woman with a normal body mass index during a healthy pregnancy?
A) 11-20 pounds
B) 15-25 pounds
C) 25-35 pounds
D) 28-40 pounds
Answer: C
Section: Pregnancy
Bloom's: Remember
29
87) Which is correct regarding the settling of the fetus deeper into the pelvic cavity?
A) This occurs at the end of the first trimester.
B) This process is called lightening.
C) This is known as quickening.
D) This occurrence indicates delivery within 24 hours.
Answer: B
Section: Pregnancy
Bloom's: Remember
88) During which trimester would it be normal to experience Braxton Hicks contractions and
lightening?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) at the start of labor
Answer: C
Section: Pregnancy
Bloom's: Remember
89) What is the primary driver for cell differentiation and subsequent fetal development?
A) genes
B) fertilization
C) alpha-fetoprotein codes
D) chorionic gonadotropin
Answer: A
Topic: Fetal Development
Learning Objective: Identify key stages in fetal development.
Bloom's: Understand
30
90) How many days after fertilization before an embryo is formed?
A) about 2 days
B) 4-5 days
C) 12-14 days
D) about 21 days
Answer: C
Bloom's: Remember
91) What is the purpose of the outer shell of the blastocyst?

A) It differentiates to form the placenta, umbilical cord, and amniotic sac.
B) It forms the arms and legs of the embryo.
C) It differentiates into the heart, brain, and spinal cord.
D) It forms the genitals of the embryo.
Answer: A
Bloom's: Remember
92) Which statement best describes the function of the placenta?

A) It connects the mother's and the baby's blood supplies.
B) It facilitates a two-way exchange of nutrients and waste materials.
C) It is a barrier that protects the developing baby from all harmful substances.
D) It functions as a one-way exchange of nutrients from the mother to the fetus.
Answer: B
Bloom's: Understand
31
93) During which trimester do the heart, brain, and liver form?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) throughout the pregnancy
Answer: A
Bloom's: Remember
94) What is the earliest point in pregnancy in which a fetus is likely to be able to survive outside of
the uterus?
A) about 38 weeks
B) 34-35 weeks
C) 24-26 weeks
D) 21-22 weeks
Answer: C
Bloom's: Remember
95) Ultrasonography is LEAST useful in determining

A) chromosomal disorders.
B) anatomical abnormalities.
C) gestational age.
D) fetal position.
Answer: A
Bloom's: Understand
32
96) What is the primary purpose of the quadruple marker screen (QMS)?
A) detection of fetal anomalies
B) determination of gender
C) to establish gestational age
D) to screen for rH status
Answer: A
Topic: Fetal Abnormalities; Fetal Screening Tests
Bloom's: Remember
97) Terri is a mother of one child with Down syndrome. She is 11 weeks pregnant with her second
child. Her physician may recommend which non-invasive test for fetal evaluation at this time?
A) amniocentesis
B) chorionic villus sampling
C) cell free DNA
D) ultrasonography
Answer: C
Learning Objective: List components of good prenatal care.
Bloom's: Analyze
98) Jan checks in with her doctor at 23 weeks and is told she is at risk for a premature birth due to
her continued use of drugs during her pregnancy. Her physician is hopeful she can retain the fetus
at least until the 28th week. Which developmental milestone critical to fetal survival is the doctor
most concerned about?
A) lung development
B) liver function
C) brain function
D) heart development
Answer: A
Topic: Fetal Development; Avoiding Hazards During Pregnancy
Bloom's: Analyze
33
99) What is the topic of study in fetal programming theory?
A) the interaction of chromosomal abnormalities and maternal diet
B) the relationship between gestational conditions and subsequent adult diseases
C) infectious agents and their effect on fertility
D) childbirth and early childhood development
Answer: B
Topic: Fetal Programming
Bloom's: Remember
100) To decrease the risk of ________, women who are capable of becoming pregnant are urged to
consume at least 400 micrograms daily of ________.
A) neural tube defects; folic acid
B) upper respiratory infections; vitamin C
C) osteoporosis; calcium
D) anemia; iron
Answer: A
Section: The Importance of Prenatal Care
Topic: Prenatal Care; Prenatal Nutrition
Bloom's: Understand
101) Janene's home pregnancy test indicated she is pregnant. What should Janene do at this time?
A) She should contact her health care provider so that she can receive the appropriate prenatal care.
B) She should be patient and retest in two weeks because of the high incidence of false positive
results with home pregnancy tests.
C) She should reduce her alcohol consumption from five drinks per week to two drinks per week.
D) She should join a medically supervised weight-loss program to help her lose the excess 20
pounds she is currently carrying.
Answer: A
Topic: Pregnancy Tests; Prenatal Care
Bloom's: Analyze
34
102) Tanika was a competitive triathlete prior to her pregnancy, often swimming 3 days a week,
biking 2 days a week and running 4 days a week. What is the general exercise recommendation for
her during her pregnancy?
A) She should stop all exercises except for swimming.
B) She can continue to exercise and engage in her activities in moderation, avoiding overheating.
C) She should stop exercising.
D) She can safely increase the intensity of exercise.
Answer: B
Topic: Prenatal Physical Activity
Bloom's: Apply
103) Patricia is pregnant with her first child and she is concerned about her physical appearance
and the weight she knows she will gain as her pregnancy progresses. She seeks out the assistance
of a registered dietitian. What guidance did the dietitian likely give her?
A) Now that she has confirmed her pregnancy, she should get 400 micrograms of folate per day
either from food or supplements.
B) She should supplement with high doses of vitamin A to support fetal eye development.
C) She should insure she gets enough iron and calcium because the fetus will compete with her for
iron and calcium if her intake is insufficient.
D) She should follow standard guidelines to increase her calorie intake by about 750-1000
kilocalories per day.
Answer: C
Topic: Prenatal Nutrition
Bloom's: Analyze
104) Sandra smoked throughout her pregnancy and continues to smoke post-partum. Her infant is
at higher risk for
A) measles.
B) neural tube defects.
C) SIDS.
D) cleft palate.
Answer: C
Topic: Avoiding Hazards During Pregnancy; Infant Mortality
Bloom's: Understand
35
105) Which is the most common cause of life-threatening infections in newborns?
A) Zika virus
B) hepatitis B
C) genital herpes
D) group B streptococcus
Answer: D
Topic: Avoiding Hazards During Pregnancy; Prenatal Care
Bloom's: Remember
106) Which is correct regarding pregnancy and HIV infections?

A) Transmission of the virus to the fetus is unlikely.
B) Antiviral drugs can reduce the risk of transmission to the baby.
C) The fetus was infected immediately upon conception.
D) Delivery by cesarean section will prevent infection.
Answer: B
Topic: Avoiding Hazards During Pregnancy; Prenatal Care
Bloom's: Understand
107) Which is correct regarding Kegel exercises?

A) The purpose is to strengthen pelvic floor muscles.
B) These are primarily to improve infant neck muscles.
C) This form of cardiovascular exercise is particularly helpful in pregnancy.
D) These exercises build upper body strength.
Answer: A
Topic: Prenatal Activity and Exercise; Preparing for Birth
Bloom's: Understand
36
108) Which is the most common cause of spontaneous abortions?
A) genetic abnormalities of the fetus
B) nutritional deficiencies of the pregnant woman
C) tobacco use by the pregnant woman
D) excessive alcohol consumption by the pregnant woman
Answer: A
Section: Complications of Pregnancy and Pregnancy Loss
Topic: Avoiding Hazards During Pregnancy; Pregnancy Complications
Learning Objective: List causes of pregnancy complications and loss.
Bloom's: Understand
109) A pregnancy in which the blastocyst embeds itself and develops in the ________ is
considered a(n) ________.
A) oviduct; emergency
B) cervix; normal pregnancy
C) vagina; normal pregnancy
D) uterus; emergency
Answer: A
Topic: Pregnancy Complications
Bloom's: Understand
110) Which statement is correct regarding low birth weight (LBW)?

A) About half of instances of LBW are related to poor maternal health, smoking or other maternal
issues.
B) LBW is another term for prematurity.
C) Premature babies and LBW babies are equally likely to have health problems.
D) About 25% of all births in the United States in 2017 were considered LBW babies.
Answer: A
Bloom's: Understand
37
111) Tom and Mika are new parents. What is the best guidance to reduce the risk for sudden infant
death syndrome (SIDS)?
A) They should use soft bedding for the baby to encourage sound sleep.
B) They should place their baby on its back for sleeping.
C) The baby's room should be kept warmer than the rest of the house.
D) They should place a plush toy next to the baby to reduce nighttime stress.
Answer: B
Topic: Newborns and the Postpartum Period
Bloom's: Apply
112) Which statement is correct regarding the third stage of labor?

A) This stage is when the most intense uterine contractions occur.
B) During this stage there is movement of the baby's head into the birth canal.
C) Rupture of the amniotic sac occurs in this stage.
D) Delivery of the placenta occurs in this stage.
Answer: D
Section: Childbirth
Topic: Labor and Delivery; Childbirth
Learning Objective: Describe the process of labor and delivery.
Bloom's: Remember
113) Which statement is FALSE regarding breastfeeding?

A) Breastfeeding contributes to postpregnancy weight loss.
B) Breastfeeding can enhance the emotional attachment between mother and infant.
C) Breastfeeding soon after delivery may increase uterine bleeding.
D) Breast milk is more easily digested by an infant when compared to formula.
Answer: C
Section: Childbirth
Learning Objective: Identify key issues of the postpartum period
Bloom's: Understand
38
114) Which statement about postpartum depression is TRUE?
A) It usually spontaneously resolves in a few days.
B) It affects the new mother's participation in normal daily activities.
C) There is little that the mother's social support system can do to help.
D) It is primarily the result of the mother's negative attitudes.
Answer: B
Section: Childbirth
Learning Objective: Identify key issues of the postpartum period
Bloom's: Understand
Paul and Fatima are in their late 20s and have been married for 2 years. Their sexual intimacy
includes various sexual behaviors. Paul has noticed that while he has no difficulty getting an
erection, he does have difficulty ejaculating when he and Fatima are having intercourse. Fatima
rarely feels sexually satisfied during intercourse and often relies on self-stimulation to achieve an
orgasm. Fatima doesn't see her lack of orgasm with Paul as a problem; however, Paul does. Paul is
beginning to make excuses for not having sex.
115) Of the following possibilities, Fatima's sexual response is most likely due to
A) vaginismus.
B) orgasmic dysfunction.
C) a need for direct stimulation of the clitoris to achieve orgasm.
D) guilt over sexual behaviors she engages in.
Answer: C
Topic: Male Sexual Dysfunctions; Sexual Response Cycle
Bloom's: Apply
116) Paul's concern over Fatima's lack of orgasm has led to

A) erectile dysfunction.
B) lack of desire.
C) orgasmic dysfunction.
D) autoeroticism.
Answer: B
Topic: Male Sexual Dysfunctions; Sexual Response Cycle
Bloom's: Apply
39
117) Which of the following would be the best initial approach to resolving the conflict in Paul and
Fatima's sexual relationship?
A) Fatima should fake orgasm to make Paul more comfortable and boost his confidence.
B) Paul should seek a prescription drug for his sexual dysfunction.
C) Fatima and Paul should drink before having sex to become more relaxed about it.
D) Fatima and Paul should establish open communication about what they want in their sexual
relationship.
Answer: D
Topic: Responsible Sexual Behavior; Sexual Response Cycle
Learning Objective: Describe how the sex organs function during sexual activity.; Identify forms
of sexual behavior and expression.
Bloom's: Apply
Amy and Keith, both in their mid-twenties, have decided to have a baby. Both are in good health
and are physically active, although Keith is a smoker. Amy maintains her weight at about 125
pounds. While they know that parenting is a big responsibility, they are excited about the idea of
becoming parents. The one thing that they are concerned about is the history of genetic illnesses
that exists in each of their families. After 6 months of not being successful in conceiving, Amy also
becomes concerned that she may be infertile. She wants to see a fertility specialist.
118) What action can Amy or Keith take to increase their chances of conceiving?
A) At 5'3 and 125 pounds, Amy should try to lose about 15 pounds.
B) Keith should quit smoking.
C) They should soak in the hot tub for 15-30 minutes prior to intercourse.
D) Amy and Keith should both take supplemental vitamin E.
Answer: B
Topic: Conception
Bloom's: Apply
40
119) After another four months, Amy learns that she is six weeks pregnant. During her first
prenatal visit, Amy can expect all of the following EXCEPT
A) encouragement to continue moderate exercise.
B) instructions to avoid alcohol, tobacco, and other drugs.
C) a blood test.
D) determination of the baby's gender through ultrasonography.
Answer: D
Topic: Prenatal Care
Bloom's: Understand
120) Because of Amy's and Keith's concerns about genetic illnesses, their doctor will likely
encourage them to have diagnostic screening tests. Which one would be the earliest test to indicate
a genetic abnormality?
A) a sonogram
B) a quadruple marker screening
C) chorionic villi sampling
D) amniocentesis
Answer: C
Bloom's: Apply
121) The purpose of the vulva is to produce germ cells.
Answer: FALSE
Bloom's: Understand
122) In women, the urethra is located in front of the vagina.
Answer: TRUE
Bloom's: Remember
41
123) In men, urine often mixes with semen before exiting the urethra.
Answer: FALSE
Bloom's: Remember
124) Infants born with genitals that can't be assigned to male or female upon visual inspection are
called pansexual.
Answer: FALSE
Topic: Sex; Gender
Bloom's: Understand
125) Pre-ejaculatory fluid may contain sperm.
Answer: TRUE
Bloom's: Understand
126) Ovaries produce testosterone.
Answer: TRUE
Bloom's: Remember
127) Gonads become ovaries when testosterone is present.
Answer: FALSE
Topic: Female Sex Organs; Male Sex Organs
Bloom's: Understand
42
128) Pansexual individuals are defined as having a biological sex that is different from their
gender.
Answer: FALSE
Topic: Gender Role; Gender Identity; Sexual Orientation
orientation.
Bloom's: Remember
129) Gender nonconforming refers to people who alternate between wanting to be female and
wanting to be male.
Answer: FALSE
orientation.
Bloom's: Remember
130) Turner syndrome occurs when women have only a single complete X chromosome.
Answer: TRUE
Bloom's: Remember
131) FSH triggers menses.
Answer: FALSE
Bloom's: Remember
43
132) Magnesium is the only supplement proven to provide relief from PMS and PMDD symptoms
because it helps reduce muscle cramping.
Answer: FALSE
Topic: Puberty; Menstrual Cycle
Bloom's: Remember
133) The reproductive system of girls matures later in life than the reproductive system of boys.
Answer: FALSE
Bloom's: Remember
134) Menopause symptoms may be positively influenced by a diet rich in fish and vegetables.
Answer: TRUE
Topic: Aging and Sexuality
Bloom's: Understand
135) In the plateau phase, males experience a refractory period.
Answer: FALSE
Topic: Sexual Response Cycle
Bloom's: Remember
136) Sexual dysfunction usually occurs in the mind.
Answer: FALSE
Bloom's: Understand
44
137) Vaginitis is the term used for involuntary contractions of pelvic muscles.
Answer: FALSE
Bloom's: Remember
138) Epididymitis is usually caused by infection from sexually transmitted infections.
Answer: TRUE
Bloom's: Understand
139) The majority of erectile problems are linked to other health conditions.
Answer: TRUE
Bloom's: Remember
140) Asexual people are interested in oral sex, but not in penetrative sex.
Answer: FALSE
Bloom's: Understand
141) Many prostitutes report being sexually abused as children.
Answer: TRUE
Topic: Commercial Sex
Bloom's: Remember
45
142) Immature eggs are released from the ovary and mature only after reaching the uterus 3-4 days
later.
Answer: FALSE
Topic: Conception
Bloom's: Remember
143) Enzymes from hundreds of sperm are required to allow fertilization to occur.
Answer: TRUE
Topic: Conception
Bloom's: Remember
144) Endometriosis is responsible for about 50% of the cases of infertility in women.
Answer: FALSE
Topic: Infertility
Bloom's: Remember
145) Younger women are at a greater risk for infertility.
Answer: FALSE
Topic: Infertility
Bloom's: Remember
146) Infertility treatments are highly successful and result in a live birth more than 75% of the
time.
Answer: FALSE
Topic: Conception
Bloom's: Remember
46
147) Identical twins are always the same gender.
Answer: TRUE
Topic: Conception
Bloom's: Remember
148) A common treatment for male infertility due to low sperm count is to restrict intercourse
frequency.
Answer: FALSE
Topic: Conception
Bloom's: Understand
149) A woman with a BMI of 18 and a woman with a BMI of 32 are both expected to gain about
the same amount of weight during a healthy pregnancy. Each should gain about 15-18 pounds.
Answer: FALSE
Section: Pregnancy
Bloom's: Understand
150) The uterus does not enlarge until about the fourth month of pregnancy.
Answer: FALSE
Section: Pregnancy
Bloom's: Understand
47
151) A woman's emotional response to her pregnancy hinges solely on whether or not the
pregnancy was planned.
Answer: FALSE
Section: Pregnancy
Topic: Emotional Responses to Pregnancy
Bloom's: Understand
152) The process of differentiation occurs within the first trimester.
Answer: TRUE
Bloom's: Remember
153) The endometrium is the source of nutrition for a blastocyst.
Answer: TRUE
Bloom's: Remember
154) The chorionic villi form the placenta.
Answer: TRUE
Bloom's: Remember
155) An advantage of chorionic villus sampling, when compared to amniocentesis, is that it can be
performed in the first trimester, which allows for earlier intervention if a defect is detected.
Answer: TRUE
Topic: Fetal Screening Tests
Bloom's: Understand
48
156) Food safety is of concern to pregnant women primarily because of the risk of dehydration
from nausea and vomiting. There is no risk to the fetus because foodborne pathogens can NOT be
passed to the fetus.
Answer: FALSE
Topic: Prenatal Care; Prenatal Nutrition
Bloom's: Understand
157) It is important for a pregnant woman to supplement with vitamin A in order to prevent
formation of neural tube defects in her developing child.
Answer: FALSE
Topic: Fetal Development; Fetal Abnormalities; Prenatal Nutrition
Bloom's: Remember
158) Rubella exposure is only a concern during the third trimester.
Answer: FALSE
Topic: Avoiding Hazards During Pregnancy
Bloom's: Remember
159) A fetus will only be affected by alcohol if the woman drinks excessively during the third
trimester.
Answer: FALSE
Topic: Avoiding Hazards During Pregnancy
Bloom's: Understand
49
160) An HIV positive mother is NOT at risk of transmitting the HIV virus to her newborn through
breastfeeding.
Answer: FALSE
Bloom's: Understand
161) Signs of preeclampsia include painless bright red vaginal bleeding with or without
contractions.
Answer: FALSE
Bloom's: Remember
162) Although preeclampsia can cause liver and kidney damage to the pregnant mother, it is NOT
life-threatening to the fetus.
Answer: FALSE
Bloom's: Remember
163) The Apgar score includes assessment of the newborn's color, heart rate, muscle tone,
respiration, and reflexes and is performed within the first 5 minutes after birth.
Answer: TRUE
Section: Childbirth
Topic: Newborns and the Postpartum Period; Labor and Delivery
Bloom's: Remember
50
164) Describe the journey for sperm in men and eggs in women. Briefly describe one condition for
each that could cause complications in these processes.
Answer: Answers will vary.

Topic: Female Sex Organs; Male Sex Organs; Sexual Development Across the Lifespan
Bloom's: Understand
165) Describe and explain the differences between premenstrual syndrome and premenstrual
dysphoric disorder. List at least five coping strategies.

Bloom's: Apply
166) Name and describe the four phases of the human sexual response cycle.

Topic: Sexual Response Cycle
Bloom's: Understand
167) Identify and describe a common male sexual health problem and a common female sexual
health problem. For each, describe possible causes and treatments.

Topic: Sexual Health Problems; Sexual Response Cycle
Bloom's: Understand
51
168) Describe the process of fertilization and early development, starting with the release of an egg
from an ovary and continuing to the implantation of an embryo in the uterus. Make sure to indicate
relative timing of each key stage.

Topic: Conception; Fetal Development
Learning Objective: Summarize conception.; Identify key stages in fetal development.
Bloom's: Understand
169) Identify two causes of female infertility and two causes of male infertility. Then describe and
discuss in vitro fertilization and intrauterine insemination. Outline a situation where one treatment
may be considered more appropriate than the other.

Topic: Infertility
Bloom's: Analyze
170) Lupe has an underlying medical condition, so early recognition of pregnancy is important for
her. Provide a description of three of the early physical signs and symptoms of pregnancy that she
should be alert for.

Section: Pregnancy
Bloom's: Apply
171) Julia is newly married at age 18 and is eager to start a family. She has a prenatal consultation
where her doctor gave her some guidance on nutrition, exercise, and substance use. Discuss how
these items can affect her health and that of her developing fetus once she becomes pregnant.

Topic: Prepregnancy Planning and Counseling; Preconception Care
Bloom's: Apply
52
Test Bank for Connect Core Concepts in Health, BRIEF, 16th Edition, Paul Insel, Walton Roth
172) Describe the process of labor and delivery, including key events that occur in each stage.

Section: Childbirth
Topic: Newborns and the Postpartum Period; Labor and Delivery
Bloom's: Understand
173) Some women experience complications in their pregnancy such as preeclampsia, placenta
previa, placental abruption, gestational diabetes and others. Select one complication and discuss it,
including a description of the condition as well as any prevention or treatment options and what
effect the complication may have on the mother and/or unborn child.

Topic: Infant Mortality; Pregnancy Complications
Bloom's: Apply
53
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Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters

1) Gonads include the

2) The external female sex organs are called the

5) Womb is another term for

6) The fallopian tubes link the

8) Sperm are manufactured in the

9) The epididymis is the

11) The prostate gland

14) The purpose of pre-ejaculatory fluid is to

15) The rounded head of the clitoris or penis is the

17) Your gender role is determined by

20) Androgyny is best characterized as having

22) Which of the following is true of sexual orientation?

23) People who identify as bisexual

25) What are the two groups of female sex hormones?

26) Which of the following do/does NOT produce testosterone?

28) How many pairs of chromosomes do human cells normally contain?

31) Which of the following describes Klinefelter syndrome?

34) What is the correct order of phases in the menstrual cycle?

37) What happens to the corpus luteum if pregnancy occurs?

38) Women who experience dysmenorrhea have ________ menstruation.

41) The first visible sign of sexual maturity in boys is usually

44) Which of the following best describes aging male syndrome?

53) Endometriosis is a(n)

59) An umbrella term for behavior aimed at sexual self-stimulation is

61) Oral stimulation of the penis is called

62) The most extreme form of sexual coercion is

67) What happens if an egg is not fertilized?

68) Where does conception normally occur?

71) Where does the blastocyst embed itself?

73) Which is correct regarding monozygotic twins?

83) Which hormone confirms pregnancy?

85) Which is the best description of Hegar's sign?

91) What is the purpose of the outer shell of the blastocyst?

92) Which statement best describes the function of the placenta?

95) Ultrasonography is LEAST useful in determining

106) Which is correct regarding pregnancy and HIV infections?

107) Which is correct regarding Kegel exercises?

110) Which statement is correct regarding low birth weight (LBW)?

112) Which statement is correct regarding the third stage of labor?

113) Which statement is FALSE regarding breastfeeding?

116) Paul's concern over Fatima's lack of orgasm has led to

121) The purpose of the vulva is to produce germ cells.

122) In women, the urethra is located in front of the vagina.

125) Pre-ejaculatory fluid may contain sperm.

126) Ovaries produce testosterone.

127) Gonads become ovaries when testosterone is present.

131) FSH triggers menses.

135) In the plateau phase, males experience a refractory period.

136) Sexual dysfunction usually occurs in the mind.

138) Epididymitis is usually caused by infection from sexually transmitted infections.

141) Many prostitutes report being sexually abused as children.

145) Younger women are at a greater risk for infertility.

152) The process of differentiation occurs within the first trimester.

153) The endometrium is the source of nutrition for a blastocyst.

154) The chorionic villi form the placenta.

158) Rubella exposure is only a concern during the third trimester.

Answer: Answers will vary.

Answer: Answers will vary.

Answer: Answers will vary.