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Class 12 - Biology
Sample Paper - 01 (2022-23)

Maximum Marks: 70
Time Allowed: : 3 hours

General Instructions:

i. All questions are compulsory.

ii. The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii. Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3
marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
iv. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only
one of the alternatives in such questions.
v. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section A
1. Which of the following is not a producer?
a) Agaricus
b) Spirogyra
c) Nostoc
d) Volvox
2. Which statements are incorrect for the female reproductive system?
i. The vagina constitutes the female external genitalia.
ii. Each fallopian tube is about 10-12 cm long and consists of the infundibulum and ampulla and fundus.
iii. The edges of the ampulla possess finger-like projections called fimbriae, which help in the collection of the ovum
after ovulation.
iv. The infundibulum leads to a wider part of the oviduct called the ampulla which joins the fundus.
v. The uterus opens into the vagina through a narrow cervix.
vi. The cavity of the cervix is called the cervical canal which along with the vagina forms the birth canal.
a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
b) (i), (ii) and (vi)
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
d) (i), (iii) and (v) only
3. Tropical Botanical garden and research institute is situated at:
a) Meghalaya
b) Andra Pradesh
c) Thiruvananthapuram
d) Shimla
4. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy?
a) Six weeks
b) Eight weeks
c) Twelve-week
d) All of these
5. Match the following list of microbes and their importance:

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(A) Saccharomyces Cerevisiae (i) Production of immune suppressive agents

(B) Monascus Purpureus (ii) Ripening of Swiss Cheese

(C) Trichoderma Polysporum (iii) Commercial production of ethanol

(D) Propionibacterium Sharmanii (iv) Production of blood cholesterol lowering agents
a) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)
b) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii)
c) (A) - (iv), (B) - (ii), (C) - (i), (D) - (iii)
d) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i)
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6. Viviparity is considered to be more evolved because:
a) the embryo takes a long time to develop
b) the young ones are protected by a thick shell
c) the young ones are protected inside the mother's body and are looked after they are born leading to more chances
of survival
d) the young ones are left on their own
7. Identify the incorrect statement:
a) Eichornia crassipes is also called Terrer of Bengal
b) Algal blooms cause deterioration of water quality and fish mortality
c) Amount of organic matter in sewage can be estimated by measuring the Biochemical Oxygen Demand
d) Presence of large amounts of nutrients in water suppresses growth of planktons
8. The pedigree chart shows the inheritance of which of the following mendelian disorder?

a) Sex linked recessive trai

b) Autosomal dominant trait
c) Sex linked dominant trait
d) Autosomal recessive trait
9. During DNA replication the term leading strand is applied to the one which always replicates in:
a) 5 ′ → 3 ′ direction continuously
b) 5 ′ → 3 ′ direction discontinuously
c) 3 ′ → 5 ′ direction continuously
d) 3 ′ → 5 ′ direction discontinuously
10. Which of the followings is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage?
a) Mustard gas
b) Marsh gas
c) Laughing gas
d) Propane
11. A bacterial cell was transformed with a recombinant DNA that was generated using a human gene. However, the
transformed cells did not produce the desired protein. Reasons could be:
a) Human protein is formed but degraded by bacteria
b) A human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot possess

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c) Amino acid codons for humans and bacteria are different
d) All of these
12. What do we understand by reproductive health?
a) Total well-being in physical aspects of reproduction
b) All of these
c) The term simply refers to healthy reproductive organs with normal functions
d) Total well-being in emotional, behavioural and social aspects of reproduction
13. Assertion (A): Chromosomes and genes both occur in pairs.
Reason (R): The two alleles of the gene pair are located on homologous sites on homologous chromosomes.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
14. Assertion (A): Streptococcus thermophilus increases nutritional value of milk.
Reason (R): Milk has lesser vitamin content than curd and yoghurt.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
15. Assertion (A): 7-celled, 8 nucleate and monosporic embryo sac is called Polygonum type of embryo sac.
Reason (R): It was discovered by Hofmeister for the first time in Polygonum.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
16. Assertion (A): Cro-magnon man has more intelligence than the man of present time.
Reason (R): He is regarded as most recent ancestor of today’s man.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
17. Mention two objectives of setting up of Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) by our government.
18. Observe the given figure and answer the questions that follow:

i. Which type of spread of infectious diseases are shown in the given figure? Name any two such diseases.
ii. How do the diseases transmit by the way mentioned in the given figure?
iii. How a person in close vicinity to such diseased person is affected?
19. Differentiate between Turner’s syndrome and Down’s syndrome.
20. Give an example for convergent evolution and identify the features towards which they are converging.

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21. Bacteria can not be seen with naked eyes, but those can be seen with the help of microscope. If you have to carry a
sample from your home to your biology lab to demonstrate the presence of microbes under a microscope. Which sample
would you carry and why?

OR

Mention the product and its use produced by each of the microbes listed below
(i) Steptococcus
(ii) Lactobacillus
(iii) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Section C
22. i. Explain death rate in a population by taking a suitable example.
ii. Write the other two characteristics which only a Population shows but an individual cannot.
23. Two heterozygous parents are crossed. If the two are liked what would be the distribution of phenotypic features in F 1
generation for a dihybrid cross?
24. i. Explain the significance of ecological pyramids with the help of an example.
ii. Why are the pyramids referred to as upright or inverted? Explain.
25. i. Give another name for sexually transmitted diseases.
ii. Name two sexually transmitted diseases that are curable and two diseases that are not curable.
26. The species diversity of the plants (22%) is much less than that of animals (72%). What could be the explanations to how
animals achieved greater diversification?

OR

Of the four major causes for the loss of biodiversity (alien species invasion, habitat loss and fragmentation, over-
exploitation and co-extinctions) which according to you is the major cause for the loss of biodiversity? Give reasons in
support.
27. Stanley Miller and Harold Urey performed an experiment by recreating in the laboratory the probable conditions of the
atmosphere of the primitive earth.
i. What was the aim of the experiment?
ii. In what forms was the energy supplied for chemical reactions to occur?
iii. For how long was the experiment run continuously? Name two products formed.
28. Name the host plant and its part that Meloidogyne incognita infects. Explain the role of Agrobacterium in the production
of dsRNA in the host plant.
Section D
29. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
The following is the illustration of the sequence of ovarian events (a-i) in a human female.

i. Identify the figure that illustrates ovulation and mentions the stage of oogenesis it represents.
ii. Name the ovarian hormone and the pituitary hormone that have caused the above-mentioned event.
iii. Explain changes that occur in the uterus simultaneously in anticipation.

OR

Draw a labelled sketch of the structure of a human ovum prior to fertilization.

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30. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Cancer is a major burden of disease worldwide. Each year, tens of millions of people are diagnosed with cancer around
the world, and more than half of the patients eventually die from it. In many countries, cancer ranks as the second most
common cause of death following cardiovascular diseases. With significant improvements in the treatment and
prevention of cardiovascular diseases, cancer has or will soon become the number one killer in many parts of the world.

i. Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases. Explain contact inhibition and metastasis with respect to disease.
ii. Name the group of genes that have been identified in normal cells that could lead to cancer. How do these genes
cause cancer?
iii. Name any two techniques that are useful in detecting cancers of internal organs.

OR

Why are cancer patients often given a-interferon as part of the treatment?
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Section E
31. With a neat diagram explain the 7-celled, 8-nucleate nature of the female gametophyte.

OR

i. Describe the sequence of the process of microsporogenesis in angiosperms.

ii. Draw a labelled diagram of a 2-celled final structure formed.
32. Study the image below and answer the questions that follows:

i. Identify the structure shown above.

ii. Redraw the structure as a replicating fork and label the parts.
iii. Write the source of energy for this replication and list the enzymes involved in this process. OR
iv. Mention the difference in the synthesis based on the polarity of the two template strands.

OR

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Study the figure and answer the following questions:

i. Identify the polarity from a to a', in the diagram below and mention how many more amino acids are expected to be
added to this polypeptide chain.
ii. Mention the DNA sequence coding for serine and the anticodon of tRNA for the same amino acid.
iii. Why are some untranslated sequence of bases seen in mRNA coding for a polypeptide? Where exactly are they
present on mRNA?
33. The plasmid pBR322 was one of the first EK2 multipurpose cloning vectors to be designed and constructed (ten years
ago) for the efficient cloning and selection of recombinant DNA molecules in Escherichia coli. This 4363-bp DNA
molecule has been extensively used as a cloning vehicle because of its simplicity and the availability of its nucleotide
sequence. The widespread use of pBR322 has prompted numerous studies into its molecular structure and function.
These studies revealed two features that detract from the plasmid's effectiveness as a cloning vector: plasmid instability
in the absence of selection and, the lack of a direct selection scheme for recombinant DNA molecules.

i. Name the organism in which the vector shown is inserted to get the copies of the desired gene.
ii. Mention the area labelled in the vector responsible for controlling the copy number of the inserted gene.
iii. Name and explain the role of a selectable marker in the vector shown.

OR

The melding of a technique for repeated rounds of DNA synthesis with the discovery of a thermostable DNA polymerase
has given scientists the very powerful technique known as polymerase chain reaction (PCR). PCR is based on three
simple steps required for any DNA synthesis reaction: (1) denaturation of the template into single strands; (2) annealing
of primers to each original strand for new strand synthesis; and (3) extension of the new DNA strands from the primers.
In the given figure, one cycle of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is shown:

i. Name the steps A, B and C.

ii. Give the purpose of each of these steps.
iii. State the contribution of Thermus aquaticus in this process.

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Class 12 - Biology
Sample Paper - 01 (2022-23)

Solution

Section A
1. (a) Agaricus
Explanation: Agaricus is a fungus which grows on dead and decaying material.
2. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms the birth canal.
3. (c) Thiruvananthapuram
Explanation: Tropical Botanic Garden and Research Institute (TBGRI) is an autonomous institute established by the
Government of Kerala in 1979 at Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
The institute conducts research in Conservation Biology, Biotechnology, Plant Taxonomy, Microbiology,
Phytopharmacology, Ethnomedicine and Ethnopharmacology for plant improvement and utilisation.
TBGRI also undertakes research on medicinal plants, ornamental plants, and various introduced plants of economic or
aesthetic value. The institute conserves the largest number of plant species among the botanical gardens in Asia.
4. (c) Twelve-week
Explanation: Twelve-week
5. (b) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii)
Explanation: (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii)
6. (c) the young ones are protected inside the mother's body and are looked after they are born leading to more chances of
survival
Explanation: Viviparity is considered to be more evolved because it allowed offspring to develop within the body of the
mother and removed them from predation and environmental pressures.
So, the correct option is 'The young ones are protected inside the mother's body and are looked after they are born
leading to more chances of survival.
7. (d) Presence of large amounts of nutrients in water suppresses growth of planktons
Explanation: Presence of large amounts of nutrients in water suppresses growth of planktons
8. (d) Autosomal recessive trait
Explanation: Autosomal recessive trait
9. (a) 5 ′ → 3 ′ direction continuously
Explanation: 5 ′ → 3 ′ direction continuously
10. (b) Marsh gas
Explanation: Marsh gas
11. (b) A human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot possess
Explanation: A human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot possess
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12. (b) All of these
Explanation: All of these
13. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: In diploid cells, both chromosomes and genes occur in pairs. Two alleles of gene pairs are located on
homologous sites on homologous chromosomes.

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14. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Microbes have been used for long time in production of dairy products like curd, yoghurt, cheese, etc.
Yoghurt is produced by curdling milk with the help of Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus. Yoghurt
has higher nutritional value than milk thus, it can be said that Streptococcus thermophilus increases nutritional value of
milk.
15. (c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: A is true but R is false.
16. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Cro-Magnon man emerged about 34000 years ago. Thus it is regarded as most recent ancestor of today’s
man. It has, therefore, been called as Homo sapiens fossilis. The CroMagnon man was like us, about 1.8 metres, tall
well-built body. Its face was perfectly orthognathous with an narrow, elevated nose, broad and arched forehead,
moderate browridges, strong jaws with man-like dentition and a well developed chin. Its cranial capacity was, however,
somewhat more than ours, being about 1650 cc (ours is 1400 cc). The Cro-Magnon man was the direct ancestor of the
living man.

Section B
17. GEAC is an organisation set-up by the Indian government to make decisions pertaining with genetic research and
experiments. The two objectives of setting up the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) by the Indian
Government are:
i. To make decisions regarding the validity of GM research.
ii. To make decisions regarding the safety of introducing GM organisms for public services.
18. i. The given figure shows the spread of air-borne diseases. Examples - Pneumonia and Tuberculosis.
ii. Air-borne disease-causing microbes are spread throughout the air. The transmission of these microbes occurs through
the little droplets coughed out by an infected person who sneezes or coughs.
iii. A person in the vicinity of such a person can inhale these disease-causing microbes and may become infected.

19. Turner's Syndrome Down's Syndrome

It is caused by the absence of one X It is caused by the presence of an additional copy of chromosome
chromosome (44+XO). number 21 (trisomy of 21).
Only females can get affected. Both males and females can get affected.
Symptoms- Sterile female, rudimentary
Symptoms - Short stature with a small round head, furrowed tongue and
ovaries and lack of secondary sexual
partially open mouth, broad palm with characteristic palm crease.
characters.
20. Similar evolution in species of different lineage is called convergent evolution. Convergent evolution happens in an
isolated geographical area. Flippers of dolphin and penguin are examples of convergent evolution. In both animals;
flippers have different origins but serve similar purpose.
21. Curd can be used as a sample for the study of microbes. Curd contains numerous lactic acid bacteria (LAB) or
Lactobacillus. These bacteria produce acids that coagulate and digest milk proteins. A small drop of curd contains
millions of bacteria, which can be easily observed under a microscope.

OR

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(I) Streptokinase is used to dissolve blood clots that have formed in the blood vessels. It is used immediately after
symptoms of a heart attack occur to improve patient survival. This medicine may also be used to treat blood clots in the
lungs (pulmonary embolism) and in the legs (deep venous thrombosis).
(ii) Lactic acid is used as a food preservative, curing agent, and flavoring agent. It is an ingredient in processed foods and
is used as a decontaminant during meat processing.
(iii) Ethanol fermentation, also called alcoholic fermentation, is a biological process which converts sugars such as
glucose, fructose, and sucrose into cellular energy, producing ethanol and carbon dioxide as a side-effect.
Section C
22. i. Death rate in a population refers to the number of deaths per capita during a given period in a population that is lost
from the initial density. For example, if 4 individuals in a laboratory population of 40 fruit flies died during a
4
specified time (say a week), the death rate in the population during the period is = 0.1 individual per fruitfly per
40
week.
ii. Population attributes: A population has certain characteristics that an individual organism does not:
a. The population has a birth rate (natality) refers to per capita.
b. Death rate (mortality) refers to per capita.
c. Sex-ratio of males to females refers to percentage.

23.

(only two types of gametes will be produced from each parent as the two loci are linked)
24. i. Significance of ecological pyramids:
They graphically represent the relation between producers and consumers in order to calculate energy content,
biomass and number of organisms of that trophic level A trophic level represents only a functional level not a species
as such. A given species may occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at the same time The
ecological pyramids provide an overall idea of the trophic levels occupied by an organism in an ecosystem.
Example: A sparrow is a primary consumer when it eats seeds, fruits, peas and a secondary consumer when it eats
insects and worms.
ii. Upright pyramids When producers are more in number and biomass than the herbivores and herbivores are more in
number and biomass than the carnivores. The energy at a lower trophic level is always more than at a higher trophic
level. Pyramid of energy is always upright.
Inverted pyramids When the numbers of producers are less and consumers increase and become largest in top
consumer level. Pyramid of number and biomass may be inverted.
25. i. Venereal disease (VD)/Reproductive tract infection (RTI)
ii.
a. Curable-Syphilis, Gonorrhea
b. Non-Curable - Hepatitis B, AIDS
26. Animals have achieved greater diversification due to following reasons:
Compared to plants, animals have increased size and genetic variation.
Also the animals possess complex nervous system to control and coordinate various body activities.
Animals possess receptor organs for receiving various environmental stimuli and able to respond against them.
Animals have the ability of locomotion which is absent in plants.

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Due to above reasons, animals have shown greater adaptations to different climatic and geographical locations leading to
evolution of more diverse species.

OR

Out of the four major causes for the loss of biodiversity, loss of habitat and fragmentation is the major cause because of
the following reasons-
i. Habitat loss and fragmentation caused by clearing and over-exploitation of forest areas for agriculture, urbanisation
and industrialisation, results in the destruction of natural habitats.
ii. Increasing human population has overburdened the forest resources and have destroyed forest land, which means loss
of habitat for several species.
iii. In addition, large habitats are broken up into small fragments, because of which mammals and birds requiring large
territories and migratory habitats are badly affected, leading to declining in population.
27. i. To prove Oparin’s theory of origin of life.
ii. Electric discharge using electrodes.
iii. One week; Amino acids and Sugar.
28. The nematode Meloidogyne incognita infects the roots of tobacco plants.
The Agrobacterium is used as vectors carrying nematode specific genes to be introduced in the host plant. These genes
when expressed inside the host plant produce sense and anti-sense RNA strands, complementary to nematode's
functional mRNA. This binding results in the formation of double-stranded RNA and inhibiting or silencing the
translation of RNA specified. This process is called RNA interference.
Section D
29. i. Figure f illustrates ovulation.
ii. It represents secondary oocyte stage of oogenesis.
-Pituitary hormone -LH
iii. Endometrium proliferates and becomes thicker by rapid cell multiplication development and maturation of
ovum is in progress, while the figure 'h' shows that corpus luteum going towards degeneration.

OR

30. i. Contact inhibition is the property exhibited by normal cells. It prevents their uncontrolled proliferation when
they are in contact with other neighbouring cells. But cancerous cells seem to have lost this property and
continue to divide despite being in contact with other cells, which leads to masses of cells called tumours.
Metastasis is the property exhibited by malignant tumours which grow rapidly, invades neighbouring tissues
and is capable of reaching distant sites through blood and lymph thus, spreading malignant tumours to other
organs or parts of the body. These two properties make 'cancer' one of the dreaded diseases.
ii. The group of genes called cellular oncogenes or proto-oncogenes in normal cells could lead to cancer.
These genes are present in inactivated or suppressed form. Some factors, i.e physical, chemical or biological

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called carcinogens are capable of activating these oncogenes and thus, transforming normal cells into a
cancerous one.
iii. The two techniques useful m detecting cancers of internal organs are CT (Computed Tomography) and MRI
(Magnetic Resonance Imaging).

OR

As tumour cells are capable of avoiding recognition and destruction by the immune system, the cancer patients
are given α-interferons which are biological response modifiers. It helps in activating the immune system and
destroy tumours.
Section E

31.

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OR

i. The sequence of the process of microsporogenesis in angiosperms are as follows:

a. Pollen mother cell or microspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to form microspore tetrad or haploid
microspores.
b. As the anther matures, the microspores dissociate from the tetrad and develop into pollen grams.
c. the nucleus of the microspores undergoes mitosis to form a large vegetative cell and a small spindle-shaped
generative cell.
d. They develop a two-layered wall, the outer exine made of sporopollenin and the inner intine made of cellulose
and pectin.
e. Usually, the pollen grams are liberated at this 2-celled stage. In certain species, the generative cell divides
mitotically to form two male gametes and the pollen grains are 3-celled during liberation.
ii.

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32. a. The diagram shown is of the replication fork.
b. Fig: Labeled diagram of replication fork

c. Activated deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate (dNTPs) act as substrate and also provides energy for polymerisation
reaction, similar to ATP.
List of enzymes:
i. Helicases: It unwinds the two strands of DNA.
ii. Single-stranded DNA binding proteins: They bind to the single strands and stabilize them.

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iii. Topoisomerases: They release tension in the uncoiled part by nicking and then resealing the straightened DNA
strands.
iv. RNA polymerase primase: They are needed for primer synthesis to initiate the replication process.
v. DNA polymerase: It adds the new nucleotides thus replicating the DNA. (Prokaryotes have three major types of
DNA polymerases III, II and I).
vi. DNA ligase: The Okazaki fragments are joined by this enzyme at the end of replication.
d. On the template strand with 3' ⟶ 5' polarity (leading strand), the synthesis of new strand is continuous while on the
other template strand with 5' ⟶ 3' polarity (lagging strand), the synthesis of new strand is in discontinuous
fashion forming Okazaki fragments.

OR

i. a to a' is 5' → 3'. No more amino acid will be added to this polypeptide chain because of the encounter of stop
codon, UAA.
ii. TCA codes for serine. Anticodon of tRNA for serine is UCA.
iii. The untranslated regions are required for efficient translation process. They are present before the initiation codon at
the 5' end and after the stop/termination codon, at the 3' end.
33. i. Escherichia coli / E coli
ii. ori.
iii. ampR is the marker gene that helps in identification and elimination of the non-transformant growing in ampicillin
medium and selectively permitting the growth of the transformant resistant to ampicillin. tetR is the marker gene that
helps in identification and elimination of the non-transformant growing in tetracycline medium and selectively
permitting the growth of the transformant resistant to tetracycline.

OR

i. (A) Denaturation, (B) Annealing, (C) Thermus aquaticus.

ii. Denaturation: Heat denatures DNA to separate complementary strands.
Annealing: Primers hybridizes to the denatured DNA strands.
Thermus aquaticus: This enzyme induces denaturation of double-stranded DNA at high temperature.
Extension: Extension of primers resulting in the synthesis of copies of the target DNA sequence.
iii. Enzyme Taq polymerase is isolated from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus. The function of Taq DNA polymerase in
PCR reaction is to amplify the DNA for the production of multiple copies of it. Taq DNA polymerase is a
thermostable DNA polymerase which can even work at a higher temperature.

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