Fundamentals of Human Resource Management 7th Edition Noe Test Bank

Fundamentals of Human Resource Management 7th Edition Noe Test Bank
Fundamentals of Human Resource Management 7th

Edition Noe Test Bank
To download the complete and accurate content document, go to:

https://testbankbell.com/download/fundamentals-of-human-resource-management-7t
h-edition-noe-test-bank/
Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters

Chapter 06
Selecting Employees and Placing Them in Jobs
True / False Questions
1. The process of selecting employees remains constant for all organizations and for all jobs.
True False
2. Automated systems always ensure that all highly qualified candidates are included in the selection
process.
True False
3. A reliable measurement generates consistent results.
True False
4. Reliability answers the important question if one is measuring something that matters.
True False
5. Predictive validation is less time consuming and easier than concurrent validation.
True False
6. Content validation is most suitable for measuring abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership
ability.
True False
7. Selection procedures that provide economic value greater than the cost of using them are said to have
utility.
True False
8. Under equal employment opportunity laws, if an employer uses an interview process that eliminates
most candidates who are black or Hispanic, the employer must show that the method is necessary for
selecting candidates who project the right brand image.
True False
6-1
Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of
McGraw-Hill Education.
9. Equal employment opportunity laws affect the kinds of information an organization may gather on
application forms and in interviews.
True False
10. The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that employers obtain a candidate's consent before downloading
his or her résumé from an online job site.
True False
11. An application form can request information regarding an applicant's marital status and race.
True False
12. An HR department at a manufacturing firm wants to ensure that applicants for production jobs provide
complete information about themselves in a standard format. The most effective method would be to
ask candidates to submit a résumé.
True False
13. Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the
elements of a job description.
True False
14. Most organizations check references as soon as they receive a candidate's application form.
True False
15. Aptitude tests assess a person's existing knowledge and skills.
True False
16. Geena is the human resource manager for a machine job that produces custom parts. To make these
products, production employees must be able to quickly learn new methods and machines. To identify
job candidates who can quickly acquire new skills, Geena could administer achievement tests.
True False
17. Race norming refers to establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial groups.
True False
18. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 encourages the use of sex norming as a selection tool.
True False
19. Personality tests are more reliable than intelligence tests.
True False
6-2
20. The Polygraph Act legalized the use of polygraph tests for employment screening in most
organizations.
True False
21. In a nondirective interview, the interviewer always asks questions from an established set of
questions.
True False
22. In a behavior description interview, a candidate is asked by the interviewer how he or she handled a
type of situation in the past.
True False
23. Interviewing is considered the most accurate basis for making a selection decision.
True False
24. Interviews are the least expensive method of employee selection.
True False
25. The multiple-hurdle model is based on a process of increasing the number of candidates at each stage
of the selection process.
True False
26. In an organization, a supervisor usually makes the final employee selection decision.
True False
Multiple Choice Questions
27. Russell, an entrepreneur, wants to hire a human resource professional who can help him make
decisions about who will or will not be allowed to join his organization. In advertising for this
professional, what term should he use to describe the process he wants help with?
A. predictive validation
B. job analysis
C. concurrent validation
D. trend analysis
E. personnel selection
6-3
28. In most organizations, the first step in the personnel selection process is
A. verifying the applicants' qualifications through reference and background checks.

B. negotiating with the employee regarding salary and benefits.
C. screening the applications to see which ones meet the basic requirements for the job.
D. administering tests and reviewing work samples to rate the candidates' abilities.
E. inviting candidates with the best abilities to the organization for one or more interviews.
29. Along with 50 other candidates, Rita applied for the position of analyst at Mechalium Inc. Because
Rita's profile stood out from other candidates' profiles, she was called for an interview in which she
performed well. In the context of the steps involved in the selection process for recruitment, which of
the following would most likely be the next step taken by the recruiter?
A. reviewing Rita's work samples

B. negotiating salary and benefits with Rita
C. verifying Rita's qualifications through background checks
D. sending Rita a job offer letter
E. getting Rita to sign the job offer
30. Gary, the new human resource manager at Alchemy Corp., proposes using automated systems for
screening résumés of applicants. Gary claims that automated systems are better than humans at
picking the right profiles. Which of the following statements weakens Gary's claim?
A. Automated systems might reject qualified people who didn't use the same keywords as the job
description.
B. Automated systems reduce the pace of the selection process by a large margin.
C. Automated systems prevent candidates from knowing the status of their applications.
D. Automated systems do not help in matching résumés to the keywords in job requirements.
E. Automated systems refrain from replying to the candidates when their profiles are rejected.
31. A strategic approach to selection requires ways to measure the effectiveness of selection tools.
According to your text, which of the following is a basic standard for this?
A. The method can be personally relatable.

B. The method will highlight invalid information.
C. The information provided will always be specific to the candidates applying.
D. The method offers practical value.
E. The legality of the selection criteria depends on which country the measurement is performed.
6-4
32. The _____ of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is from random error.
A. reliability
B. validity
C. generalizability
D. utility
E. verifiability
33. Statistics that measure the degree to which two sets of numbers are related are known as _____.
A. aligned statistics
B. important integers
C. reliable ratings
D. natural numbers
E. correlation coefficients
34. A correlation coefficient of -1.0 between two sets of numbers indicates _____.
A. a complete lack of any correlation between the two sets

B. that when one set of numbers goes up, so does the other set
C. that when one set of numbers goes up, the other set goes down
D. a positive correlation between the two sets
E. an indefinite relationship between the two sets
35. What does a correlation of 0 mean?
A. a negative correlation
B. a positive correlation
C. a correlation where one number goes up and the other goes down
D. no correlation at all
E. an error in the correlation coefficients
36. Reliability answers the important question of
A. whether you are measuring something accurately.

B. whether you are measuring something that matters.
C. how you are measuring correlation coefficients.
D. how many errors something can achieve while still being considered useful.
E. intelligence in employees.
6-5
37. The _____ of an employment test is indicated by the extent to which the test scores relate to actual job
performance.
A. reliability
B. validity
C. generalizability
D. utility
E. dependability
38. The HR department at Buckworth Consulting recently developed and employed a certain test in the
selection process for managers. After observing a certain trend in the organization, the HR department
concluded that the test being used was not a valid selection criterion. Which of the following most
likely led to the observation that the test was not valid?
A. Managers who were recruited without the tests performed well when promoted to other roles.
B. Managers who got low scores on the tests performed poorly when promoted to other roles.
C. Managers who fared well in the tests performed well in their roles.
D. Managers who performed well on the tests performed poorly in their roles.
E. Managers who were recruited without the tests performed poorly in their roles.
39. Which of the following is true of validity?
A. Validity cannot be explained using correlation coefficients.

B. Validity identifies how free a measurement is from random error.
C. Validity measures the level of cultural fit.
D. Validity can only be measured in one way.
E. Validity ensures the fairness of employment practices during selection procedures.
40. Which of the following measures of validity is based on showing a substantial correlation between test
scores and job performance scores?
A. criterion-related validity
B. diagnostic validity
C. content validity
D. convergent validity
E. construct validity
6-6
41. Tiara Inc., an international clothing brand, recruited 15 people as brand managers. They all took a test
as part of the recruitment process. Three months after the recruitment, their test scores were
analyzed along with their performance on the job to find a substantial correlation between the two
factors. Which of the following methods of research is exemplified in this scenario?
A. content validation
B. predictive validation
D. construct validation
E. diagnostic validation
42. Identify the correct statement regarding predictive validation.
A. It is the least effective method of measuring validity.

B. It uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and future
performance.
C. It involves administering a test to people who currently hold a job and comparing their scores to
existing measures of their current job performance.
D. It is the quickest and easiest method compared to other ways of measuring validity.
E. Its scores are influenced by applicants' job experiences.
43. Grace is the HR manager of Trelsoft Inc., a software company located in Boston. She wants to
establish the validity of a test designed for computer technicians using a predictive validation strategy.
Accordingly, Grace must administer the test to _____.
A. at least half the present computer technicians in Trelsoft

B. people doing similar jobs in other companies
C. people applying for computer technician jobs in Trelsoft
D. only those computer technicians in Trelsoft who are performing at acceptable levels
E. a random selection of computer technicians currently employed at Trelsoft
44. To test the validity of a selection test for advanced widget designers, Techspark Inc. administers the
test to its current widget designers. The test results are then compared with existing measures of job
performance. In this instance, what type of validation is being used by Techspark?
B. concurrent validation
C. content validation
6-7
45. Identify an accurate difference between predictive validation and concurrent validation.
A. Predictive validation correlates current job roles and job performance; concurrent validation does
not.
B. Predictive validation correlates future job performance and applicant test scores; concurrent
validation does not.
C. Concurrent validation is very time-consuming; predictive validation is not.
D. Concurrent validation is difficult to employ; predictive validation is not.
E. Concurrent validation is utilized on new recruits; predictive validation is not.
46. The consistency between test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems that occur in
a job is known as _____.
A. predictive validity
B. content validity
C. concurrent validity
D. diagnostic validity
47. Buildtron Inc., a construction firm, is in need of a construction superintendent, whose primary
responsibilities involve organizing, supervising, and inspecting the work of several subcontractors.
Buildtron administers a construction-error recognition test, where an applicant has to enter a shed
that has 25 construction errors and has to record as many of these errors as can be detected. What
type of validity is being established in this case?
A. concurrent validity
B. construct validity
C. content validity
D. representative validity
E. predictive validity
48. Which of the following is true about content validity?
A. It is usually measured on the basis of expert judgment.

B. It indicates how free a measurement is from random errors.
C. It is most suitable for tests that measure abstract qualities.
D. A test that scores high on content validity tends to score low on generalizability.
E. It is useful for tests that measure intelligence and leadership quality.
6-8
49. For tests that measure abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership skills, validity would best be
established by _____ validation.
A. criterion-related
B. content
C. concurrent
D. construct
E. predictive
50. A test that is valid in other contexts beyond the context in which it was developed is known as a(n)
_____ method.
A. practical
B. generalizable
C. reliable
D. invalid
E. concurrent
51. David Carr is the HR manager of Witherspoon Inc., a publishing company. He wants to know if a certain
test of cognitive ability, used in the advertising industry, can be successfully used in his organization.
This scenario suggests that he wants to know if this test is a(n) _____ method.
A. substitutable
B. evaluative
C. practical
D. generalizable
E. nondirective
52. According to your text, selection methods should accurately predict how well individuals perform, and
they should
A. produce information that actually benefits the organization.

B. not cost the company a great deal of money.
C. all be applicable to many different roles in many different locations.
D. only be applicable to the company where they are being used.
E. only be used on current employees with leadership aspirations.
6-9
53. The extent to which something provides economic value greater than its cost is called its _____.
A. practicality
B. utility
C. validity
D. accountability
E. reliability
54. Which of the following exemplifies the best use of utility for a selection procedure?
A. Bette's, a suburban diner, spends a lot of time and money recruiting a server.
B. A local gas station has a recruitment procedure that spans four months for the position of a cashier.
C. Tywell Capital, an international investment firm, spends close to a million dollars to hire a renowned
economist as its new CEO.
D. Shinecare, a local car wash, employs a three-month-long selection procedure for hiring one of its
operators.
E. Haleview High School conducts several rounds of interviews to recruiting a maintenance worker.
55. Gromart, an international retailer, opens a store in a town predominantly populated by a particular
racial group. While recruiting employees for the store, it uses a test in the selection process that
favors that same racial group. When questioned about the selection procedure, the management
reasons that the customers are more comfortable with employees of their own race. In the context of
the legal standards of selection, which of the following is an accurate statement?
A. Gromart's actions during the selection process do not violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991 or the
equal employment opportunity law at all.
B. Though Gromart's selection process violates the Civil Rights Act of 1991, it's justifiable under the
equal employment opportunity law.
C. Gromart's selection process is justifiable because the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of
1967 requires employers to make reasonable accommodation according to the demographics of a
locality.
D. Gromart's actions during the selection process do not violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991, but it
violates the equal employment opportunity law.
E. Gromart's actions during the selection process violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991 because
customer preference is not a justifiable reason for discriminatory practices.
6-10
56. Which of the following actions during the selection process would be illegal under the equal employment
opportunity laws?
A. asking candidates whether they are able to perform the essential functions of a job
B. asking all candidates whether they have ever worked under a different name
C. asking candidates how close they are to retirement age
D. asking all candidates which schools they have attended
E. asking candidates whether they will need any reasonable accommodation to complete the selection
process
57. Which of the following is a permissible question to ask in job applications and interviews?
A. How would you feel about working for someone younger than you?
B. Are you a citizen of the United States?
C. What religious holidays do you observe?
D. Where were you born?
E. Will you need any reasonable accommodation for this hiring process?
58. Which of the following is a permissible question for job applications and interviews?
A. What is the nationality of your name?

B. Have you ever been arrested for a crime?
C. Was your college a Catholic university?
D. Do you have any disabilities?
E. Can you meet the requirements of the work schedule?
59. Marianna Baxter attends an interview for the position of a paralegal at one of the biggest law firms in
the country. During the interview, she is asked a particular question which she refuses to answer.
Frustrated by her behavior, the interviewer repeats the question. She refuses to answer it again and
says that it violates her rights under equal employment opportunity law. Which of the following is most
likely the question she was asked?
A. What is your complete name?

B. What is your ancestry?
C. Can you meet the requirements of strict work schedules?
D. Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
E. What organizations or groups do you belong to that you consider relevant to being able to perform
this job?
6-11
60. Which of the following laws requires employers to make "reasonable accommodation" to incapacitated
individuals?
A. The Civil Rights Act of 1991

B. The Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1988
C. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1991
D. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
E. The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938
61. Which of the following statements is true of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1991?
A. Employers can ask pre-employment questions to investigate disabilities.

B. Interviewers are prohibited from asking a candidate if he or she can meet the attendance
requirements for a job.
C. Interviewers are permitted to ask candidates the number of sick leaves he or she took at his or her
previous job.
D. Employers are permitted, in making hiring decisions, to use employment physical exams that could
reveal a psychological or physical disability.
E. Employers are required to make reasonable accommodation to disabled individuals.
62. Rigatel Corp., an investment bank, is in the final stage of its selection process for a business analyst.
Rob is one of the desired candidates for the position. As part of background checks, the bank wants to
look at his credit history. Which of the following acts requires them to obtain Rob's consent before
using a third party to check his credit history?

B. The Fair Credit Reporting Act
C. The Fair Labor Standards Act
D. The Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act
E. The Consumer Credit Protection Act
63. Which of the following is a requirement under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986?
A. Employers must verify and maintain records on the legal rights of applicants to work in the United
States.
B. Employers must file a completed Form I-9 with the Immigration and Naturalization Service and retain
the documents for at least ten years.
C. Employers must pay lower wages to immigrant workers.
D. Employers must verify the legal age of employees who do not hold American citizenship.
E. Employers must ask a potential employee's religion.
6-12
64. Which of the following is an accurate feature of a job application form?
A. It is an expensive way of gathering information from candidates.

B. It ensures that certain standard categories of information are obtained.
C. It prevents human resource personnel from ranking candidates.
D. It has a customized format for every candidate.
E. It is usually unsigned and undated.
65. Irene is filling out an application form for the position of an elementary school teacher. While she is
filling it out, she comes across a section that asks for information about her high school and college
courses and grades. Which of the following sections of the application form is being referred to here?
A. mailing address
B. work experience
C. racial details
D. educational background
E. declaration
66. Identify the detail that can be asked in an application form to gather information about suitable
candidates.
A. marital status
B. history of disabilities
C. number of children
E. applicant's race
67. What is a disadvantage of using résumés as a source of information about job applicants?
A. It is a relatively expensive method of gathering information.

B. It does not allow applicants to highlight accomplishments.
C. Review of résumés is least valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the
D. A résumé is biased in favor of the employer.
E. The content of the résumé is controlled by the applicant.
6-13
68. For what purpose do organizations typically review applicant résumés?
A. as a substitute for interviews

B. as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further
C. as a way to avoid the cost of administering tests related to job performance
D. as a way to control the content of the information and the way it is presented
E. as a way to obtain an objective source of information
69. Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in
A. terms of the elements of a job description.

B. comparison with other applicants' qualifications.
C. terms of the incumbent's competencies.
D. terms of the industrial benchmarks.
E. comparison with other employees in an organization.
70. While applying for the position of administrative assistant, Rachel was asked to provide the name and
phone number of her previous supervisor. She was also provided the alternative of presenting a letter
from her previous supervisor vouching for her performance on the job. Which of the following tools
used in the initial selection process is illustrated in this case?
A. application form
B. résumé
C. background checks
D. aptitude tests
E. references
71. Generally, an organization checks references
A. only if it believes the information provided by an applicant is incorrect.

B. immediately after an applicant submits a résumé.
C. after it has determined that an applicant is a finalist for a job.
D. because it is a legal requirement under equal employment opportunity laws.
E. because it is an unbiased source of information.
6-14
72. If a person who is a reference gives negative information about a job candidate, there is a chance the
candidate will claim _____, meaning the person damaged the applicant's reputation by making statements
that cannot be proved truthful.
A. defamation
B. misappropriation
C. fraud
D. misrepresentation
E. negligence
73. Erika is a human resource manager at Bluetel Inc., a software company. She receives a call from an HR
manager at another software company asking about Marshall, a software engineer who used to work at
Bluetel and has applied for a job at the caller's company. Erika checks the company's records and sees
that a coworker had accused Marshall of racial discrimination, but an investigation did not turn up any
evidence to support the charge. Marshall left the company two months later, saying he was no longer
comfortable there. Erika is concerned about sharing the details of this situation with the caller. If telling
the information to the caller leads to the other company not hiring Marshall, what potentially unlawful
behavior could Marshall accuse Bluetel of engaging in?
A. misappropriation
B. fraud
C. misrepresentation
D. defamation
E. negligence
74. If a former employer gives a glowing statement about a candidate and the new employer later learns of
misconduct on the part of the employee during his or her previous employment, the new employer may
sue the former for _____.
A. negligence
B. misrepresentation
C. defamation
D. misappropriation
E. libel
6-15
75. Jonas had a great résumé and a glowing recommendation from his previous employer. Impressed by his
qualifications and expertise, Vizion Tech Inc. hired him for the position of quality analyst. However, he
engaged in blatant sexual harassment at Vizion after a couple of weeks on the job. During its
investigation of the harassment, Vizion Tech learned that Jonas had been fired for sexual harassment
at his previous employer. If the management of Vizion Tech wanted to hold Jonas's previous employer
accountable, they could sue the company for _____.
A. misrepresentation
B. fraud
C. defamation
D. negligence
E. embezzlement
76. How can individuals acting as references for job applicants minimize the risk of being sued for
defamation or misrepresentation?
A. by giving as much information as possible

B. by exclusively giving out positive information about a candidate
C. by only giving information about observable, job-related behaviors
D. by giving only broad opinions
E. by excluding employment dates and the employee's final salary
77. In general, the results of reference checks for job applicants will be most valid if employers _____.
A. contact many references

B. rely exclusively on the list provided by applicants
C. avoid direct contact with references
D. restrict contact with references through e-mails
E. receive positive opinions about the applicants from their references
78. Donna Hernandez has applied for the position of data systems operator in one of the federal
governmental agencies. As part of the selection process, she takes a civil services examination that
measures her existing knowledge and skills. This scenario exemplifies a(n) _____.
A. psychometric test
B. critical thinking test
C. judgment test
D. aptitude test
E. achievement test
6-16
79. Francisco Holt had applied for the position of an emergency direct care worker at the City Medical
Center. In the last round of the selection process, he had to take part in a testing procedure that
simulated an emergency situation. He had to run a half-mile on the treadmill, followed by a step test, a
posture test, a squat test, and a weight-lifting test. His performance was timed and his heart rate was
monitored throughout the tests. Which of the following tests is exemplified in this case?
A. cognitive ability test

C. psychometric test
D. physical ability test
E. achievement test
80. Tests designed to measure such mental abilities as verbal skills, quantitative skills, and reasoning ability
are referred to as _____ tests.
A. job performance
B. honesty
C. personality inventories
D. cognitive ability
E. physical ability
81. Which of the following is true about cognitive ability tests?
A. They are especially valid for jobs requiring adaptability.

B. They are relatively expensive compared to the other tests.
C. They measure strength, endurance, psychomotor abilities, and other physical abilities.
D. They are free from legal complications.
E. They are especially valid for simple jobs.
82. Identify the limitation of cognitive ability tests.
A. lack of validity of the tests for complex jobs

B. lack of reliable and commercially available tests
C. legal issues related to administering the tests
D. lack of validity of the tests for those jobs that require adaptability
E. relatively high cost of the tests
6-17
83. The controversial practice that treats a range of scores as being similar and thus allows employers to
give preference to underrepresented groups within these similar scores is known as _____.
A. banding
B. generalizing
C. affirmative action
D. sensitizing
E. race norming
84. To evaluates the results of a test used in the selection process for job candidates, Zoemetra Corp.
uses a method wherein scores between 90 and 100 are graded A, scores between 80 and 90 are
graded B, scores between 70 and 80 are graded C, and so on. This practice allows the company to give
preference to unrepresented groups within a range. Which of the following terms describes this method
of evaluating test results?
A. race norming
B. banding
C. desensitizing
D. generalizing
E. modeling
85. A typing test for an administrative assistant's job is an example of a(n) _____ test.
A. job performance
B. cognitive ability
C. physical ability
D. personality inventories
E. emotional intelligence
86. In-basket tests are examples of _____ tests.
A. job performance
B. physical ability
C. honesty
D. personality
E. cognitive ability
6-18
87. A(n) _____ measures the ability to juggle a variety of demands, as in a manager's job where the candidate
is presented with simulated memos and phone messages describing the kinds of problems that confront
a person in the job.
A. paper-and-pencil honesty test

B. in-basket test
C. cognitive ability test
D. exit test
E. work sample test
88. Which of the following statements is true of an assessment center?
A. It is a place where job applicants for manufacturing jobs undergo physical ability tests.
B. It conducts a single test for all job applicants to test their technical potential.
C. It uses multiple selection methods to rate applicants on their management potential.
D. It is a selection method generally used for unskilled applicants.
E. It has the lowest validity because it combines several assessment methods.
89. Identify the correct statement regarding job performance tests.
A. They provide fair evaluations for applicants.

B. They have the lowest level of validity compared to other tests.
C. These tests are highly generalizable.
D. Customization of these tests for various jobs is inexpensive.
E. They are best suited for identifying the particular skills or traits the individual possesses.
90. Which of the following is a "Big Five" personality trait?
A. physical ability
C. aptitude
D. extroversion
E. honesty
91. Identify the traits that are found in a conscientious person.
A. sociable, gregarious, assertive, and talkative

B. dependable, organized, persevering, and achievement-oriented
C. courteous, trusting, good-natured, and tolerant
D. emotionally stable, nondepressed, secure, and content
E. curious, imaginative, artistically sensitive, and broad-minded
6-19
92. Melissa Jetton, a manufacturing supervisor, is popular with her employees and other colleagues. She is
sociable, gregarious, and easy to talk to. However, she is not very organized or achievement-oriented.
In this context, which of the "Big Five" personality traits does she demonstrate?
A. conscientiousness
B. extroversion
C. aggression
D. depression
E. inquisitiveness
93. Ottercut Tech, a software start-up, is putting together a new team to work on the marketing strategies
for their expansion project. In the context of using the "Big Five" personality traits for effective team
building, which of the following employees would be a good addition to a team that encourages a strong
and harmonious culture and is most likely to give the best results?
A. Jamie is very organized; Stella is very cooperative.

B. Mary is not achievement-oriented; Isaac is laid-back.
C. Both John and Adam are domineering.
D. Both Miriam and Ann are aggressive and unforgiving.
E. George is emotionally unstable; Bianca is constantly depressed.
94. Which of the following tests is a legal means to test the integrity of job applicants and generally
involves asking applicants directly about their attitudes toward theft and their own experiences with
theft?
A. polygraph test
B. paper-and-pencil honesty test
D. personality inventory test
E. in-basket test
95. Emma, a manager at Synergy Inc., conducted an interview with Sean for a job as regional sales
manager. During the course of the interview, she asked Sean to take a test that would assess Sean's
integrity by asking him about his attitude toward shoplifting and his own experiences with shoplifting, if
any. Which of the following tests was conducted by Emma?
A. exit test
D. work sample test
E. in-basket test
6-20
96. BuildCo's human resource department is preparing a policy for the drug testing of job applicants. Nate
makes a list of statements to include in the policy and shows the list to his supervisor, Monique. Which
of the following statements should Monique direct Nate to change?
A. Drug testing should be administered systematically to all applicants who have applied for the same
job.
B. Drug test reports should not be sent to applicants.
C. Drug testing should be conducted for employees working in jobs that involve safety hazards.
D. Drug testing should not be conducted in an intrusive environment.
E. Drug-testing programs should allow for strict confidentiality of results.
97. Which of the following is true about medical examinations of job candidates?
A. Medical examinations may not be related to job requirements.

B. Medical examinations are conducted upon the receipt of a candidate's résumé.
C. Medical examinations are conducted specifically for individuals with disabilities.
D. Medical examinations that measure size and strength can never be used for a job.
E. Medical examinations are conducted after a candidate has been given a job offer.
98. A _____ interview allows interviewer discretion in choosing the questions to be asked and generally
includes open-ended questions about the candidate's strengths, weaknesses, career goals, and work
experience.
A. behavioral
B. situational
C. nondirective
D. structured
E. computerized
99. Gina, a marketing manager, sets up a meeting with Xavier, a human resource manager, to ask for his
help in improving her interviewing methods. Gina explains that she is a people person, and her
department is built on teamwork, so when candidates interview for a job, she tries to get to know the
candidates as people. She always begins by saying, "Tell me about yourself," and based on what the
candidate says, she lets the conversation unfold for 30 to 60 minutes. How does this approach limit
Gina's effectiveness as an interviewer?
A. By always starting with the same question, she limits the creativity of the candidates.
B. By using this structured approach, she avoids asking the wrong questions.
C. This type of behavior description interview is too focused on behaviors, rather than teamwork.
D. Her method is a panel interview, which has a low validity for a department built on teamwork.
E. The wide latitude of these nondirective interviews can result in low reliability and often poor validity.
6-21
100. Alexander is being interviewed for the position of an entry-level financial analyst at a well-known asset
management company. Alexander is asked questions about the current state of the U.S. stock market,
the current net worth of certain financial firms, and concepts such as IPOs and mergers from a set of
predetermined questions that the interviewer has prepared. This is an example of a(n) _____.
A. structured interview
B. in-basket interview
C. work-sample interview
D. exit interview
E. nondirective interview
101. During interviews for a sales position at Lock-Spark Inc., the interviewer asks each candidate to
imagine a situation where a customer emails to report that products were damaged during delivery from
Lock-Spark. The interviewer then asks each candidate what he or she would do to handle this
situation. This is an example of a(n) _____ interview.
A. behavior description
B. situational
C. computerized
D. exit
E. in-basket
102. During interviews for medical assistants at the Haleview Medical Center, all the candidates were asked
to talk about a situation in the past when they had to empathize with an emotionally unstable person
and help that person make rational decisions. This was to test whether the candidates would be able to
assist a frantic patient and help him or her make informed decisions. This type of interview is known as
a(n) _____ interview.
A. unstructured
B. nondirective
C. behavior description
D. physical ability
E. exit
103. Pluto Inc. is a car manufacturing company that wants to hire a new product manager. Senior
management decides to have the department heads for production, sales, and human resources
interview the candidates on a variety of topics. This is an example of a(n) _____.
A. behavior description interview

C. situational interview
D. exit interview
E. panel interview
6-22
104. Harley wants to build a start-up company with a small number of people working for him. He decides to
do all the hiring himself. Antonio, a friend of Harley's who is also a lawyer, wants to warn Harley about
the risk of discrimination complaints other companies have received by applicants who were not hired.
Which of the following statements would best express the basis of Antonio's concern about avoiding
discrimination?
A. Interviews are narrow and standardized, so they do not allow interviewers to test the integrity of
interviewees with ease.
B. Interviews are subjective, so they have the potential of assessing candidates based on questions not
related to the job.
C. Interviews are situational, so they provide a means to check the accuracy of information provided by
the candidate.
D. Interviews are expensive, so their validity and reliability are always in question.
E. Interviews require polygraph tests, which give the interviewer an opportunity to ask questions that
can violate the privacy rights of the interviewee.
105. Which of the following statements is true of selection decisions?
A. They should be a simple matter of whom the supervisor likes best.

B. They should be based on the amount of confidence observed in job candidates.
C. They should be based on which candidate best meets the requirements of the position.
D. They should be a simple matter of which candidate will take the lowest offer.
E. They should be based on motivation, not abilities.
106. Which of the following best describes the multiple-hurdle model of personnel selection?
A. It is a process of selecting employees in which a very high score on one type of assessment can
make up for a low score on another.
B. It is a process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some candidates at each stage of the
selection process.
C. It is a selection process in which several members of an organization form a panel and interview
each candidate.
D. It is a testing program that establishes different norms for hiring members of different racial groups.
E. It is a selection process that treats a range of scores as being similar and divides candidates into
groups based on the range into which they fall.
6-23
107. Summerton High School has three open positions for teachers. The school's HR personnel review
résumés to identify the candidates who meet the school's minimum requirements. Next, potential
candidates are then invited for interviews. After this, interviewers discuss the results with HR
personnel and select a short list of candidates, who then appear before a panel of teachers and HR
personnel for the final interview. Summerton's new teachers are then selected from among these
finalists. Which of the following terms describes Summerton's method of selection?
A. compensatory model
B. multiple-hurdle model
C. leadership model
D. behavior description model
E. nondirective model
108. Tara, the purchasing manager at Reed Inc., tells Levi, the human resource manager, that she has
selected a candidate to be her purchasing assistant. She shows him a draft of an email message
offering the candidate the job at the agreed-on starting wage. She asks Levi if there is anything else
she should mention in the message. Levi replies that Tara should add information about _____.
A. the work schedule, starting date, and drug test results

B. the job responsibilities, work schedule, and starting date
C. the work schedule, starting date, and results of the candidate's medical exam
D. the job responsibilities and results of the candidate's medical exam
E. the starting date
Essay Questions
109. Describe the steps involved in a selection process.
6-24
110. Define what is meant by reliability, validity, and utility in the employment selection context.
111. Briefly describe how concurrent and predictive validation research is conducted, and identify at least
two potential advantages of predictive validation.
112. Discuss how the Civil Rights Act of 1991 and the Americans with Disabilities Act impact personnel
selection processes.
6-25
113. Discuss the burden placed on people or organizations contacted as references for job candidates. How
do organizations cope with this burden?
114. Explain the two broad categories of employment tests.
115. Why are drug tests a controversial component of the personnel selection process? What are some of
the ways in which organizations can avoid problems associated with drug testing?
6-26
116. Describe the different types of interviews that can be used for employee selection.
117. How can organizations avoid the pitfalls of using interviews as a selection method?
118. Discuss the multiple-hurdle model and the compensatory models of arriving at a personnel selection
decision.
6-27
Chapter 06 Selecting Employees and Placing Them in Jobs Answer Key
True / False Questions
1. The process of selecting employees remains constant for all organizations and for all jobs.
FALSE
The process of selecting employees varies considerably from organization to organization and from
job to job.
AACSB: Analytical Thinking

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Learning Objective: 06-01 Identify the elements of the selection process.
Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy
Topic: Steps in the Selection Process
2. Automated systems always ensure that all highly qualified candidates are included in the selection
process.
FALSE
As with any automation, an applicant-tracking system is only as good as the process it automates.
A system that just matches a few keywords between résumés and job descriptions might screen
out high-potential employees who didn't use exactly the same term. The problem is even worse if
the employer didn't bother to carefully analyze which keywords are really associated with success
on the job.
AACSB: Technology
Blooms: Understand
Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium
Topic: How Technology Influences Human Resource Management?
3. A reliable measurement generates consistent results.
TRUE
The reliability of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is from random error.
A reliable measurement therefore generates consistent results.

Blooms: Remember
Learning Objective: 06-02 Define ways to measure the success of a selection method.
Topic: Properties of Employee Selection
6-28
4. Reliability answers the important question if one is measuring something that matters.
FALSE
Reliability answers one important question—whether you are measuring something accurately—but
ignores another question that is as important: Are you measuring something that matters?

Blooms: Remember
5. Predictive validation is less time consuming and easier than concurrent validation.
FALSE
Two kinds of research are possible for arriving at criterion-related validity: predictive valuation and
concurrent validation. Predictive validation is more time consuming and difficult, but it is the best
measure of validity.

Blooms: Remember
Topic: Types of Validity
6. Content validation is most suitable for measuring abstract qualities such as intelligence or
leadership ability.
FALSE
The usual basis for deciding that a test has content validity is through expert judgment. Because
establishing validity is based on the experts' subjective judgments, content validity is most suitable
for measuring behavior that is concrete and observable.

Blooms: Understand
6-29
7. Selection procedures that provide economic value greater than the cost of using them are said to
have utility.
TRUE
Selection methods that provide economic value greater than the cost of using them are said to
have utility.

Blooms: Remember
8. Under equal employment opportunity laws, if an employer uses an interview process that eliminates
most candidates who are black or Hispanic, the employer must show that the method is necessary
for selecting candidates who project the right brand image.
FALSE
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 and the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 place
requirements on the choice of selection methods. An employer that uses a neutral-appearing
selection method that damages a protected group is obligated to show that there is a business
necessity for using that method, such as predicting performance of the job. In this context, good
performance does not include "brand image" as a justification for adverse impact.
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Understand
Learning Objective: 06-03 Summarize the government's requirements for employee selection.
Topic: Constraints on the Hiring Process
9. Equal employment opportunity laws affect the kinds of information an organization may gather on
TRUE
Equal employment opportunity laws affect the kinds of information an organization may gather on
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Remember
6-30
10. The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that employers obtain a candidate's consent before
downloading his or her résumé from an online job site.
FALSE
The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires employers to obtain a candidate's consent before using a
third party to check the candidate's credit history or references.

Blooms: Remember
11. An application form can request information regarding an applicant's marital status and race.
FALSE
An application form should not request information that could violate equal employment opportunity
standards. For example, questions about an applicant's race, marital status, or number of children
would be inappropriate.
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Remember
Learning Objective: 06-04 Compare the common methods used for selecting human resources.
12. An HR department at a manufacturing firm wants to ensure that applicants for production jobs
provide complete information about themselves in a standard format. The most effective method
would be to ask candidates to submit a résumé.
FALSE
Asking each applicant to fill out an employment application is a low-cost way to gather basic data
from many applicants. It also ensures that the organization has certain standard categories of
information, such as mailing address and employment history, from each. With résumés, in contrast,
applicants control the content of the information as well as the way it is presented.

Blooms: Analyze
Level of Difficulty: 3 Hard
6-31
13. Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the
TRUE
Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the

Blooms: Remember
14. Most organizations check references as soon as they receive a candidate's application form.
FALSE
Usually an organization checks references only after it has determined that an applicant is a finalist
for a job.

Blooms: Remember
15. Aptitude tests assess a person's existing knowledge and skills.
FALSE
Aptitude tests assess how well a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities. Achievement tests
measure a person's existing knowledge and skills.

Blooms: Remember
Learning Objective: 06-05 Describe major types of employment tests.
Topic: Employment Tests
6-32
16. Geena is the human resource manager for a machine job that produces custom parts. To make
these products, production employees must be able to quickly learn new methods and machines. To
identify job candidates who can quickly acquire new skills, Geena could administer achievement
tests.
FALSE
Achievement tests measure a person's existing knowledge and skills. Aptitude tests assess how well
a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities.

Blooms: Understand
17. Race norming refers to establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial groups.
TRUE
Race norming refers to establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial groups.
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 forbids the use of race or sex norming.

Blooms: Remember
18. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 encourages the use of sex norming as a selection tool.
FALSE
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 forbids the use of race or sex norming.
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Remember
19. Personality tests are more reliable than intelligence tests.
FALSE
Compared with intelligence tests, people are better at faking their answers to a personality test to
score higher on desirable traits. For example, people tend to score higher on conscientiousness
when filling out job-related personality tests than when participating in research-related tests.

6-33
Blooms: Remember
20. The Polygraph Act legalized the use of polygraph tests for employment screening in most
organizations.
FALSE
In 1988, the passage of the Polygraph Act banned the use of polygraphs for screening job
candidates.

Blooms: Remember
21. In a nondirective interview, the interviewer always asks questions from an established set of
questions.
FALSE
In a nondirective interview, an interviewer has great discretion in choosing questions. A candidate's
reply to one question may suggest other questions to ask.

Blooms: Remember
Learning Objective: 06-06 Discuss how to conduct effective interviews.
Topic: Employment Interviews
22. In a behavior description interview, a candidate is asked by the interviewer how he or she handled a
type of situation in the past.
TRUE
A behavior description interview (BDI) is a situational interview in which an interviewer asks a
candidate to describe how he or she handled a type of situation in the past. Questions about
candidates' actual experiences tend to have the highest validity.

Blooms: Remember
6-34
23. Interviewing is considered the most accurate basis for making a selection decision.
FALSE
Despite certain benefits, interviewing is not necessarily the most accurate basis for making a
selection decision. Research has shown that interviews can be unreliable, low in validity, and biased
against a number of different groups.

Blooms: Remember
24. Interviews are the least expensive method of employee selection.
FALSE
Interviews are costly. They require that at least one person devote time to interviewing each
candidate, and the applicants typically have to be brought to one geographic location.

Blooms: Remember
25. The multiple-hurdle model is based on a process of increasing the number of candidates at each
stage of the selection process.
FALSE
The multiple-hurdle model is based on a process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating
some candidates at each stage of the selection process.

Blooms: Remember
Learning Objective: 06-07 Explain how employers carry out the process of making a selection decision.
26. In an organization, a supervisor usually makes the final employee selection decision.
TRUE
Usually a supervisor makes the final decision, often alone. This person may couple knowledge of the
job with a judgment about who will fit in best with others in the department.

Blooms: Remember
6-35
Multiple Choice Questions
27. Russell, an entrepreneur, wants to hire a human resource professional who can help him make
decisions about who will or will not be allowed to join his organization. In advertising for this
professional, what term should he use to describe the process he wants help with?
B. job analysis
D. trend analysis
E. personnel selection
Through personnel selection, organizations make decisions about who will or will not be allowed to
join the organization.

Blooms: Understand
28. In most organizations, the first step in the personnel selection process is
A. verifying the applicants' qualifications through reference and background checks.

B. negotiating with the employee regarding salary and benefits.
C. screening the applications to see which ones meet the basic requirements for the job.
D. administering tests and reviewing work samples to rate the candidates' abilities.
E. inviting candidates with the best abilities to the organization for one or more interviews.
job to job. In most organizations, however, first, a human resource professional reviews the
applications received to see which meet the basic requirements of the job.

Blooms: Understand
6-36
29. Along with 50 other candidates, Rita applied for the position of analyst at Mechalium Inc. Because
Rita's profile stood out from other candidates' profiles, she was called for an interview in which she
performed well. In the context of the steps involved in the selection process for recruitment, which
of the following would most likely be the next step taken by the recruiter?
A. reviewing Rita's work samples

B. negotiating salary and benefits with Rita
C. verifying Rita's qualifications through background checks
D. sending Rita a job offer letter
E. getting Rita to sign the job offer
job to job. In this case, the recruiter would verify Rita's qualifications by employing background and
reference checks after the interview.
AACSB: Knowledge Application

Blooms: Apply
30. Gary, the new human resource manager at Alchemy Corp., proposes using automated systems for
screening résumés of applicants. Gary claims that automated systems are better than humans at
picking the right profiles. Which of the following statements weakens Gary's claim?
A. Automated systems might reject qualified people who didn't use the same keywords as the job
description.
B. Automated systems reduce the pace of the selection process by a large margin.
C. Automated systems prevent candidates from knowing the status of their applications.
D. Automated systems do not help in matching résumés to the keywords in job requirements.
E. Automated systems refrain from replying to the candidates when their profiles are rejected.
As with any automation, an applicant-tracking system is only as good as the process it automates.
A system that just matches a few keywords between résumés and job descriptions might screen
out high-potential employees who didn't use exactly the same term.
AACSB: Technology
Blooms: Apply
Topic: How Technology Influences Human Resource Management?
6-37
31. A strategic approach to selection requires ways to measure the effectiveness of selection tools.
According to your text, which of the following is a basic standard for this?
A. The method can be personally relatable.

B. The method will highlight invalid information.
C. The information provided will always be specific to the candidates applying.
D. The method offers practical value.
E. The legality of the selection criteria depends on which country the measurement is performed.
A strategic approach to selection requires ways to measure the effectiveness of selection tools.
From science, we have five basic standards for this. First, the method provides reliable information.
Second, the method provides valid information. Third, the information can be generalized to apply to
the candidates. Fourth, the method offers high utility (practical value). And fifth, the selection
criteria are legal.

Blooms: Understand
32. The _____ of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is from random error.
A. reliability
B. validity
C. generalizability
D. utility
E. verifiability
The reliability of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is from random error.
A reliable measurement therefore generates consistent results.

Blooms: Remember
6-38
33. Statistics that measure the degree to which two sets of numbers are related are known as _____.
A. aligned statistics
B. important integers
C. reliable ratings
D. natural numbers
E. correlation coefficients
Correlation coefficients are statistics that measure the degree in which two sets of numbers are
related. A higher correlation coefficient signifies a stronger relationship.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Blooms: Remember
34. A correlation coefficient of -1.0 between two sets of numbers indicates _____.
A. a complete lack of any correlation between the two sets

B. that when one set of numbers goes up, so does the other set
C. that when one set of numbers goes up, the other set goes down
D. a positive correlation between the two sets
E. an indefinite relationship between the two sets
Correlation coefficients measure the degree to which two sets of numbers are related. At one
extreme, a correlation coefficient of 1.0 means a perfect positive relationship—as one set of
numbers goes up, so does the other. At the other extreme, a correlation of -1.0 means a perfect
negative correlation—when one set of numbers goes up, the other goes down.

Blooms: Understand
6-39
35. What does a correlation of 0 mean?
A. a negative correlation
B. a positive correlation
C. a correlation where one number goes up and the other goes down
D. no correlation at all
E. an error in the correlation coefficients
A correlation of 0 means there is no correlation at all.

Blooms: Remember
36. Reliability answers the important question of
A. whether you are measuring something accurately.

B. whether you are measuring something that matters.
C. how you are measuring correlation coefficients.
D. how many errors something can achieve while still being considered useful.
E. intelligence in employees.
Reliability answers one important question—whether something is measured accurately—but ignores
another question that is as important: Is something that matters being measured?

Blooms: Understand
37. The _____ of an employment test is indicated by the extent to which the test scores relate to actual
job performance.
A. reliability
B. validity
C. generalizability
D. utility
E. dependability
For a selection measure, validity describes the extent to which performance on the measure (such
as a test score) is related to what the measure is designed to assess (such as job performance).
6-40
Blooms: Remember
38. The HR department at Buckworth Consulting recently developed and employed a certain test in the
selection process for managers. After observing a certain trend in the organization, the HR
department concluded that the test being used was not a valid selection criterion. Which of the
following most likely led to the observation that the test was not valid?
A. Managers who were recruited without the tests performed well when promoted to other roles.
B. Managers who got low scores on the tests performed poorly when promoted to other roles.
C. Managers who fared well in the tests performed well in their roles.
D. Managers who performed well on the tests performed poorly in their roles.
E. Managers who were recruited without the tests performed poorly in their roles.
One way to determine whether a measure is valid is to compare many people's scores on that
measure with their job performance. If the managers who performed well in the tests do not
demonstrate the same level of performance in their respective job roles, it undermines the validity
of the test.

Blooms: Analyze
39. Which of the following is true of validity?
A. Validity cannot be explained using correlation coefficients.

B. Validity identifies how free a measurement is from random error.
C. Validity measures the level of cultural fit.
D. Validity can only be measured in one way.
E. Validity ensures the fairness of employment practices during selection procedures.
A strong positive (or negative) correlation between a measure and job performance means the
measure should be a valid basis for selecting (or rejecting) a candidate. This information is
important not only because it helps organizations identify the best employees, but also because
organizations can demonstrate fair employment practices by showing that their selection process is
valid.

Blooms: Understand
6-41
40. Which of the following measures of validity is based on showing a substantial correlation between
test scores and job performance scores?
A. criterion-related validity
B. diagnostic validity
C. content validity
D. convergent validity
Criterion-related validity is a measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation
between test scores and job performance scores.

Blooms: Remember
41. Tiara Inc., an international clothing brand, recruited 15 people as brand managers. They all took a
test as part of the recruitment process. Three months after the recruitment, their test scores were
analyzed along with their performance on the job to find a substantial correlation between the two
factors. Which of the following methods of research is exemplified in this scenario?
A. content validation
B. predictive validation
In this case, Tiara Inc., is employing the predictive validation method. This method uses the test
scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and future performance.

Blooms: Apply
6-42
42. Identify the correct statement regarding predictive validation.
A. It is the least effective method of measuring validity.

B. It uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and
future performance.
C. It involves administering a test to people who currently hold a job and comparing their scores to
existing measures of their current job performance.
D. It is the quickest and easiest method compared to other ways of measuring validity.
E. Its scores are influenced by applicants' job experiences.
Predictive validation involves using the test scores of all applicants and looking for a relationship
between the scores and future performance. The researcher administers the tests, waits a set
period of time, and then measures the performance of the applicants who were hired.

Blooms: Understand
43. Grace is the HR manager of Trelsoft Inc., a software company located in Boston. She wants to
establish the validity of a test designed for computer technicians using a predictive validation
strategy. Accordingly, Grace must administer the test to _____.
A. at least half the present computer technicians in Trelsoft

B. people doing similar jobs in other companies
C. people applying for computer technician jobs in Trelsoft
D. only those computer technicians in Trelsoft who are performing at acceptable levels
E. a random selection of computer technicians currently employed at Trelsoft
Predictive validation research uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship
between the scores and future performance. The researcher administers the tests, waits a set
period of time, and then measures the performance of the applicants who were hired.

Blooms: Apply
6-43
44. To test the validity of a selection test for advanced widget designers, Techspark Inc. administers
the test to its current widget designers. The test results are then compared with existing measures
of job performance. In this instance, what type of validation is being used by Techspark?
B. concurrent validation
C. content validation
Concurrent validation research administers a test to people who currently hold a job and then
compares their scores to existing measures of job performance. If the people who score highest on
the test also do better on the job, the test is assumed to be valid.

Blooms: Apply
45. Identify an accurate difference between predictive validation and concurrent validation.
A. Predictive validation correlates current job roles and job performance; concurrent validation
does not.
B. Predictive validation correlates future job performance and applicant test scores; concurrent
validation does not.
C. Concurrent validation is very time-consuming; predictive validation is not.
D. Concurrent validation is difficult to employ; predictive validation is not.
E. Concurrent validation is utilized on new recruits; predictive validation is not.
Predictive validation uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the
scores and the future performance of those who were hired. Concurrent validation is administered
as a test to people who currently hold a job, and then compares their scores to existing measures
of job performance.

Blooms: Understand
6-44
46. The consistency between test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems that occur
in a job is known as _____.
A. predictive validity
B. content validity
C. concurrent validity
D. diagnostic validity
The consistency between the test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems that
occur on a job is known as content validity. A test that is "content valid" exposes a job applicant to
situations that are likely to occur on a job.

Blooms: Remember
47. Buildtron Inc., a construction firm, is in need of a construction superintendent, whose primary
responsibilities involve organizing, supervising, and inspecting the work of several subcontractors.
Buildtron administers a construction-error recognition test, where an applicant has to enter a shed
that has 25 construction errors and has to record as many of these errors as can be detected.
What type of validity is being established in this case?
A. concurrent validity
B. construct validity
C. content validity
D. representative validity
E. predictive validity
Content validity is the consistency between the test items or problems and the kinds of situations
or problems that occur on the job. A test that is "content valid" exposes the job applicant to
situations or problems that occur on the job. It tests whether the applicant has the knowledge,
skills, or ability to handle such situations.

Blooms: Apply
6-45
48. Which of the following is true about content validity?
A. It is usually measured on the basis of expert judgment.

B. It indicates how free a measurement is from random errors.
C. It is most suitable for tests that measure abstract qualities.
D. A test that scores high on content validity tends to score low on generalizability.
E. It is useful for tests that measure intelligence and leadership quality.
The usual basis for deciding that a test has content validity is through expert judgment. Experts can
rate the test items according to whether they mirror essential functions of the job.

Blooms: Understand
49. For tests that measure abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership skills, validity would best
be established by _____ validation.
A. criterion-related
B. content
C. concurrent
D. construct
E. predictive
For tests that measure abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership ability, establishment of
validity may have to rely on construct validity. This involves establishing that tests really do
measure intelligence, leadership ability, or other such constructs, as well as showing that mastery of
this construct is associated with successful performance of the job.

Blooms: Remember
6-46
50. A test that is valid in other contexts beyond the context in which it was developed is known as a(n)
_____ method.
A. practical
B. generalizable
C. reliable
D. invalid
E. concurrent
A test that is valid in other contexts beyond the context in which a selection method was
developed is known as generalizable. A generalizable method applies not only to the conditions in
which the method was originally developed, but should also be valid in other contexts.

Blooms: Remember
51. David Carr is the HR manager of Witherspoon Inc., a publishing company. He wants to know if a
certain test of cognitive ability, used in the advertising industry, can be successfully used in his
organization. This scenario suggests that he wants to know if this test is a(n) _____ method.
A. substitutable
B. evaluative
C. practical
D. generalizable
E. nondirective
A generalizable method applies not only to the conditions in which the method was originally
developed—job, organization, people, time period, and so on. It also applies to other organizations,
jobs, applicants, and so on. In other words, a generalizable method is a selection method that is valid
in one context and is also valid in other contexts.

Blooms: Apply
6-47
52. According to your text, selection methods should accurately predict how well individuals perform,
and they should
A. produce information that actually benefits the organization.

B. not cost the company a great deal of money.
C. all be applicable to many different roles in many different locations.
D. only be applicable to the company where they are being used.
E. only be used on current employees with leadership aspirations.
Not only should selection methods such as tests and interview responses accurately predict how
well individuals will perform, but they should also produce information that actually benefits the
organization.

Blooms: Understand
53. The extent to which something provides economic value greater than its cost is called its _____.
A. practicality
B. utility
C. validity
D. accountability
E. reliability
The extent to which something provides economic value greater than its cost is called its utility. In
the context of practical value of selection methods, not only should selection methods such as
tests and interview responses accurately predict how well individuals will perform, but they should
also produce information that actually benefits an organization.

Blooms: Remember
6-48
54. Which of the following exemplifies the best use of utility for a selection procedure?
A. Bette's, a suburban diner, spends a lot of time and money recruiting a server.
B. A local gas station has a recruitment procedure that spans four months for the position of a
cashier.
C. Tywell Capital, an international investment firm, spends close to a million dollars to hire a
renowned economist as its new CEO.
D. Shinecare, a local car wash, employs a three-month-long selection procedure for hiring one of
its operators.
E. Haleview High School conducts several rounds of interviews to recruiting a maintenance worker.
Utility is the extent to which something provides economic value greater than its cost. Despite the
financial cost, hiring a renowned economist as the CEO of an international investment firm provides
the greatest amount of value, and thus utility, of the examples provided.

Blooms: Apply
55. Gromart, an international retailer, opens a store in a town predominantly populated by a particular
racial group. While recruiting employees for the store, it uses a test in the selection process that
favors that same racial group. When questioned about the selection procedure, the management
reasons that the customers are more comfortable with employees of their own race. In the context
of the legal standards of selection, which of the following is an accurate statement?
A. Gromart's actions during the selection process do not violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991 or the
equal employment opportunity law at all.
B. Though Gromart's selection process violates the Civil Rights Act of 1991, it's justifiable under
the equal employment opportunity law.
C. Gromart's selection process is justifiable because the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of
1967 requires employers to make reasonable accommodation according to the demographics of
a locality.
D. Gromart's actions during the selection process do not violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991, but it
violates the equal employment opportunity law.
E. Gromart's actions during the selection process violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991 because
customer preference is not a justifiable reason for discriminatory practices.
Gromart's actions during the selection process violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991 because
customer preference is not a justifiable reason for discriminatory practices. The Civil Rights Act of
1991 and the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 place requirements on the choice of
selection methods.
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Analyze
6-49
56. Which of the following actions during the selection process would be illegal under the equal
employment opportunity laws?
A. asking candidates whether they are able to perform the essential functions of a job
B. asking all candidates whether they have ever worked under a different name
C. asking candidates how close they are to retirement age
D. asking all candidates which schools they have attended
E. asking candidates whether they will need any reasonable accommodation to complete the
selection process
The equal employment opportunity laws affect the kinds of information an organization may gather
on application forms and in interviews. The organization may not ask questions that gather
information about a person's protected status, even indirectly. Age is an example of a protected
status.
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Remember
57. Which of the following is a permissible question to ask in job applications and interviews?
A. How would you feel about working for someone younger than you?
B. Are you a citizen of the United States?
C. What religious holidays do you observe?
D. Where were you born?
E. Will you need any reasonable accommodation for this hiring process?
application forms and in interviews. The organization may not ask questions that gather information
about a person's protected status, even indirectly. Asking if a candidate will need any reasonable
accommodation to complete the selection process is permissible.
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Understand
6-50
58. Which of the following is a permissible question for job applications and interviews?
A. What is the nationality of your name?

B. Have you ever been arrested for a crime?
C. Was your college a Catholic university?
D. Do you have any disabilities?
E. Can you meet the requirements of the work schedule?
application forms and in interviews. The organization may not ask questions that gather information
about a person's protected status, even indirectly. Questioning a candidate's ability to meet the
requirements of a work schedule is permissible.
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Understand
59. Marianna Baxter attends an interview for the position of a paralegal at one of the biggest law firms
in the country. During the interview, she is asked a particular question which she refuses to answer.
Frustrated by her behavior, the interviewer repeats the question. She refuses to answer it again and
says that it violates her rights under equal employment opportunity law. Which of the following is
most likely the question she was asked?
A. What is your complete name?

B. What is your ancestry?
C. Can you meet the requirements of strict work schedules?
D. Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
E. What organizations or groups do you belong to that you consider relevant to being able to
perform this job?
application forms and in interviews. An organization may not ask questions that gather information
about a person's protected status, even indirectly.
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Apply
6-51
60. Which of the following laws requires employers to make "reasonable accommodation" to
incapacitated individuals?

B. The Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1988
C. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1991
D. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
E. The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1991 requires employers to make reasonable
accommodation to disabled individuals. Under the ADA, pre-employment questions may not
investigate disabilities, but must focus on job performance.
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Remember
61. Which of the following statements is true of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1991?
A. Employers can ask pre-employment questions to investigate disabilities.

B. Interviewers are prohibited from asking a candidate if he or she can meet the attendance
requirements for a job.
C. Interviewers are permitted to ask candidates the number of sick leaves he or she took at his or
her previous job.
D. Employers are permitted, in making hiring decisions, to use employment physical exams that
could reveal a psychological or physical disability.
E. Employers are required to make reasonable accommodation to disabled individuals.
The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1991 requires employers to make "reasonable
accommodation" to disabled individuals and restricts many kinds of questions during the selection
process.
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Understand
6-52
62. Rigatel Corp., an investment bank, is in the final stage of its selection process for a business
analyst. Rob is one of the desired candidates for the position. As part of background checks, the
bank wants to look at his credit history. Which of the following acts requires them to obtain Rob's
consent before using a third party to check his credit history?

B. The Fair Credit Reporting Act
C. The Fair Labor Standards Act
D. The Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act
E. The Consumer Credit Protection Act
The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires employers to obtain a candidate's consent before using a
third party to check the candidate's credit history or references. If the employer then decides to
take an adverse action (such as not hiring) based on the report, the employer must give the
applicant a copy of the report and summary of the applicant's rights before taking the action.

Blooms: Apply
63. Which of the following is a requirement under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986?
A. Employers must verify and maintain records on the legal rights of applicants to work in the
United States.
B. Employers must file a completed Form I-9 with the Immigration and Naturalization Service and
retain the documents for at least ten years.
C. Employers must pay lower wages to immigrant workers.
D. Employers must verify the legal age of employees who do not hold American citizenship.
E. Employers must ask a potential employee's religion.
Under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986, employers must verify and maintain records
on the legal rights of applicants to work in the United States by having applicants fill out the U.S.
Citizenship and Immigration Services' Form I-9 and present documents showing their identity and
eligibility to work.

Blooms: Understand
6-53
64. Which of the following is an accurate feature of a job application form?
A. It is an expensive way of gathering information from candidates.

B. It ensures that certain standard categories of information are obtained.
C. It prevents human resource personnel from ranking candidates.
D. It has a customized format for every candidate.
E. It is usually unsigned and undated.
An application form ensures that the organization has certain standard categories of information,
such as a mailing address and employment history, from each candidate. Asking each applicant to fill
out an employment application is a low-cost way to gather basic data from many applicants.

Blooms: Understand
65. Irene is filling out an application form for the position of an elementary school teacher. While she is
filling it out, she comes across a section that asks for information about her high school and college
courses and grades. Which of the following sections of the application form is being referred to
here?
A. mailing address
B. work experience
C. racial details
E. declaration
Employment applications include areas for applicants to provide several types of information. One
area is for the applicant's educational background. This includes space to list high school, college,
and universities attended and degree(s) awarded.

Blooms: Apply
6-54
66. Identify the detail that can be asked in an application form to gather information about suitable
candidates.
A. marital status
B. history of disabilities
C. number of children
E. applicant's race
The application form should not request information that could violate equal employment
opportunity standards. For example, questions about an applicant's race, marital status, or number
of children would be inappropriate. Employment applications include areas for applicants to provide
several types of information. One of them is their educational background. This includes high school,
college, and universities attended and degree(s) awarded.
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Remember
67. What is a disadvantage of using résumés as a source of information about job applicants?
A. It is a relatively expensive method of gathering information.

B. It does not allow applicants to highlight accomplishments.
C. Review of résumés is least valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the
D. A résumé is biased in favor of the employer.
E. The content of the résumé is controlled by the applicant.
An obvious drawback of using résumés as a source of information is that applicants control the
content of the information, as well as the way it is presented. This type of information is therefore
biased in favor of the applicant and may not even be accurate. On the positive side, résumés may
enable applicants to highlight accomplishments that might not show up in the format of an
employment application. Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is
evaluated in terms of the elements of a job description.

Blooms: Understand
6-55
68. For what purpose do organizations typically review applicant résumés?
A. as a substitute for interviews

B. as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further
C. as a way to avoid the cost of administering tests related to job performance
D. as a way to control the content of the information and the way it is presented
E. as a way to obtain an objective source of information
Organizations typically use résumés as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further.

Blooms: Understand
69. Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in
A. terms of the elements of a job description.

B. comparison with other applicants' qualifications.
C. terms of the incumbent's competencies.
D. terms of the industrial benchmarks.
E. comparison with other employees in an organization.
Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the

Blooms: Understand
6-56
70. While applying for the position of administrative assistant, Rachel was asked to provide the name
and phone number of her previous supervisor. She was also provided the alternative of presenting a
letter from her previous supervisor vouching for her performance on the job. Which of the following
tools used in the initial selection process is illustrated in this case?
A. application form
B. résumé
C. background checks
D. aptitude tests
E. references
Application forms often ask that applicants provide the names of several references. Applicants
provide the names and phone numbers of former employers or others who can vouch for their
abilities and past job performance.

Blooms: Apply
71. Generally, an organization checks references
A. only if it believes the information provided by an applicant is incorrect.

B. immediately after an applicant submits a résumé.
C. after it has determined that an applicant is a finalist for a job.
D. because it is a legal requirement under equal employment opportunity laws.
E. because it is an unbiased source of information.
Usually the organization checks references after it has determined that an applicant is a finalist for
a job.

Blooms: Understand
6-57
72. If a person who is a reference gives negative information about a job candidate, there is a chance
the candidate will claim _____, meaning the person damaged the applicant's reputation by making
statements that cannot be proved truthful.
A. defamation
B. misappropriation
C. fraud
D. misrepresentation
E. negligence
If a person who is a reference gives negative information, there is a chance the candidate will claim
defamation, meaning the person damaged the applicant's reputation by making statements that
cannot be proved truthful.

Blooms: Remember
73. Erika is a human resource manager at Bluetel Inc., a software company. She receives a call from an
HR manager at another software company asking about Marshall, a software engineer who used to
work at Bluetel and has applied for a job at the caller's company. Erika checks the company's
records and sees that a coworker had accused Marshall of racial discrimination, but an investigation
did not turn up any evidence to support the charge. Marshall left the company two months later,
saying he was no longer comfortable there. Erika is concerned about sharing the details of this
situation with the caller. If telling the information to the caller leads to the other company not hiring
Marshall, what potentially unlawful behavior could Marshall accuse Bluetel of engaging in?
A. misappropriation
B. fraud
C. misrepresentation
D. defamation
E. negligence
If a person who is a reference for a job candidate gives negative information, there is a chance the
candidate will claim defamation, meaning the person damaged the applicant's reputation by making
statements that cannot be proved truthful.

Blooms: Apply
6-58
74. If a former employer gives a glowing statement about a candidate and the new employer later learns
of misconduct on the part of the employee during his or her previous employment, the new
employer may sue the former for _____.
A. negligence
B. misrepresentation
C. defamation
D. misappropriation
E. libel
If a person who is a reference for a job applicant gives a glowing statement about a candidate, and
the new employer later learns of misdeeds such as sexual misconduct or workplace violence, the
new employer might sue the former employer for misrepresentation.

Blooms: Remember
75. Jonas had a great résumé and a glowing recommendation from his previous employer. Impressed by
his qualifications and expertise, Vizion Tech Inc. hired him for the position of quality analyst.
However, he engaged in blatant sexual harassment at Vizion after a couple of weeks on the job.
During its investigation of the harassment, Vizion Tech learned that Jonas had been fired for sexual
harassment at his previous employer. If the management of Vizion Tech wanted to hold Jonas's
previous employer accountable, they could sue the company for _____.
A. misrepresentation
B. fraud
C. defamation
D. negligence
E. embezzlement
If the former employer gives a glowing statement about a candidate, and the new employer later
learns of misdeeds such as sexual misconduct or workplace violence, the new employer might sue
the former employer for misrepresentation.

Blooms: Apply
6-59
76. How can individuals acting as references for job applicants minimize the risk of being sued for
defamation or misrepresentation?
A. by giving as much information as possible

B. by exclusively giving out positive information about a candidate
C. by only giving information about observable, job-related behaviors
D. by giving only broad opinions
E. by excluding employment dates and the employee's final salary
In order to minimize the risks associated with providing information about job candidates, most
organizations have policies that the HR department will handle all requests for references and that
they will only verify employment dates and sometimes the employee's final salary. In organizations
without such a policy, HR professionals should be careful—and train managers to be careful—to stick
to observable, job-related behaviors and to avoid broad opinions that may be misinterpreted.

Blooms: Understand
77. In general, the results of reference checks for job applicants will be most valid if employers _____.
A. contact many references

B. rely exclusively on the list provided by applicants
C. avoid direct contact with references
D. restrict contact with references through e-mails
E. receive positive opinions about the applicants from their references
In general, the results of reference checking will be most valid if the employer contacts many
references (if possible, going beyond the list of names provided by the applicant), speaks with them
directly by phone, and listens carefully for clues such as tone of voice.

Blooms: Understand
6-60
78. Donna Hernandez has applied for the position of data systems operator in one of the federal
governmental agencies. As part of the selection process, she takes a civil services examination that
measures her existing knowledge and skills. This scenario exemplifies a(n) _____.
A. psychometric test
C. judgment test
D. aptitude test
E. achievement test
Achievement tests measure a person's existing knowledge and skills. For example, government
agencies conduct civil service examinations to see whether applicants are qualified to perform
certain jobs.

Blooms: Apply
79. Francisco Holt had applied for the position of an emergency direct care worker at the City Medical
Center. In the last round of the selection process, he had to take part in a testing procedure that
simulated an emergency situation. He had to run a half-mile on the treadmill, followed by a step
test, a posture test, a squat test, and a weight-lifting test. His performance was timed and his heart
rate was monitored throughout the tests. Which of the following tests is exemplified in this case?
A. cognitive ability test

C. psychometric test
D. physical ability test
E. achievement test
This is an example of a physical ability test. This evaluates one or more of the following areas of
physical ability: muscular tension, muscular power, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance,
flexibility, balance, and coordination.

Blooms: Apply
6-61
80. Tests designed to measure such mental abilities as verbal skills, quantitative skills, and reasoning
ability are referred to as _____ tests.
A. job performance
B. honesty
C. personality inventories
D. cognitive ability
E. physical ability
Tests designed to measure such mental abilities as verbal skills, quantitative skills, and reasoning
ability are referred to as cognitive ability tests.

Blooms: Remember
81. Which of the following is true about cognitive ability tests?
A. They are especially valid for jobs requiring adaptability.

B. They are relatively expensive compared to the other tests.
C. They measure strength, endurance, psychomotor abilities, and other physical abilities.
D. They are free from legal complications.
E. They are especially valid for simple jobs.
Cognitive ability tests—sometimes called "intelligence tests"—are designed to measure such mental
abilities as verbal skills, quantitative skills, and reasoning ability. The tests are especially valid for
complex jobs and for those requiring adaptability in changing circumstances.

Blooms: Understand
6-62
82. Identify the limitation of cognitive ability tests.
A. lack of validity of the tests for complex jobs

B. lack of reliable and commercially available tests
C. legal issues related to administering the tests
D. lack of validity of the tests for those jobs that require adaptability
E. relatively high cost of the tests
The evidence of validity, coupled with the relatively low cost of these tests, makes cognitive ability
tests appealing, except for one problem: concern about legal issues. These concerns arise from a
historical pattern in which use of the tests has had an adverse impact on African Americans.

Blooms: Understand
83. The controversial practice that treats a range of scores as being similar and thus allows employers
to give preference to underrepresented groups within these similar scores is known as _____.
A. banding
B. generalizing
C. affirmative action
D. sensitizing
E. race norming
The concept of banding treats a range of scores as being similar. All applicants within a range of
scores, or band, are treated as having the same score. Then within the set of tied scores,
employers give preference to underrepresented groups.

Blooms: Remember
6-63
84. To evaluates the results of a test used in the selection process for job candidates, Zoemetra Corp.
uses a method wherein scores between 90 and 100 are graded A, scores between 80 and 90 are
graded B, scores between 70 and 80 are graded C, and so on. This practice allows the company to
give preference to unrepresented groups within a range. Which of the following terms describes this
method of evaluating test results?
A. race norming
B. banding
C. desensitizing
D. generalizing
E. modeling
In this case, Zoemetra Corp. is using the method of banding for evaluating the results of the test.
The concept of banding treats a range of scores as being similar. All applicants within a range of
scores, or band, are treated as having the same score. Then within the set of tied scores,
employers give preference to underrepresented groups.
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Understand
85. A typing test for an administrative assistant's job is an example of a(n) _____ test.
A. job performance
C. physical ability
D. personality inventories
E. emotional intelligence
Job performance tests have the advantage of giving applicants a chance to show what they can do.
Testing for job performance may involve a simulated work environment, a difficult team project, or a
complex computer programming puzzle. Examples of job performance tests include tests of
keyboarding speed and in-basket tests.

Blooms: Remember
6-64
86. In-basket tests are examples of _____ tests.
A. job performance
B. physical ability
C. honesty
D. personality
E. cognitive ability
Job performance testing may involve a simulated work environment, a difficult team project, or a
complex computer programming puzzle. Examples of job performance tests include tests of
keyboarding speed and in-basket tests. An in-basket test measures the ability to juggle a variety of
demands, as in a manager's job.

Blooms: Remember
87. A(n) _____ measures the ability to juggle a variety of demands, as in a manager's job where the
candidate is presented with simulated memos and phone messages describing the kinds of problems
that confront a person in the job.
A. paper-and-pencil honesty test

B. in-basket test
D. exit test
E. work sample test
An in-basket test measures the ability to juggle a variety of demands, as in a manager's job. The
candidate is presented with simulated memos and phone messages describing the kinds of problems
that confront a person in the job. The candidate has to decide how to respond to these messages
and in what order.

Blooms: Remember
6-65
88. Which of the following statements is true of an assessment center?
A. It is a place where job applicants for manufacturing jobs undergo physical ability tests.
B. It conducts a single test for all job applicants to test their technical potential.
C. It uses multiple selection methods to rate applicants on their management potential.
D. It is a selection method generally used for unskilled applicants.
E. It has the lowest validity because it combines several assessment methods.
Tests for selecting managers may take the form of an assessment center—a wide variety of specific
selection programs that use multiple selection methods to rate applicants or job incumbents on
their management potential.

Blooms: Understand
89. Identify the correct statement regarding job performance tests.
A. They provide fair evaluations for applicants.

B. They have the lowest level of validity compared to other tests.
C. These tests are highly generalizable.
D. Customization of these tests for various jobs is inexpensive.
E. They are best suited for identifying the particular skills or traits the individual possesses.
Job performance tests have the advantage of giving applicants a chance to show what they can do,
which leads them to feel that the evaluation was fair. The tests also are job specific—that is,
tailored to the kind of work done in a specific job. So they have a high level of validity, especially
when combined with cognitive ability tests and a highly structured interview.

Blooms: Understand
6-66
90. Which of the following is a "Big Five" personality trait?
A. physical ability
C. aptitude
D. extroversion
E. honesty
One way that psychologists think about personality is in terms of the "Big Five" traits: extroversion,
adjustment, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and inquisitiveness.

Blooms: Remember
91. Identify the traits that are found in a conscientious person.
A. sociable, gregarious, assertive, and talkative

B. dependable, organized, persevering, and achievement-oriented
C. courteous, trusting, good-natured, and tolerant
D. emotionally stable, nondepressed, secure, and content
E. curious, imaginative, artistically sensitive, and broad-minded
Conscientiousness is indicated in a person who is dependable, organized, persevering, thorough, and
achievement-oriented.

Blooms: Remember
6-67
92. Melissa Jetton, a manufacturing supervisor, is popular with her employees and other colleagues. She
is sociable, gregarious, and easy to talk to. However, she is not very organized or achievement-
oriented. In this context, which of the "Big Five" personality traits does she demonstrate?
A. conscientiousness
B. extroversion
C. aggression
D. depression
E. inquisitiveness
Melissa possesses the quality of extroversion. It includes traits such as sociable, gregarious,
talkative, and expressive.

Blooms: Apply
93. Ottercut Tech, a software start-up, is putting together a new team to work on the marketing
strategies for their expansion project. In the context of using the "Big Five" personality traits for
effective team building, which of the following employees would be a good addition to a team that
encourages a strong and harmonious culture and is most likely to give the best results?
A. Jamie is very organized; Stella is very cooperative.

B. Mary is not achievement-oriented; Isaac is laid-back.
C. Both John and Adam are domineering.
D. Both Miriam and Ann are aggressive and unforgiving.
E. George is emotionally unstable; Bianca is constantly depressed.
Organizations select team members with similar traits and values in order to promote a strong
culture where people work together harmoniously. Jamie and Stella exhibit qualities of
conscientiousness and agreeableness. Other traits of their personality dimensions include
dependable, organized, persevering, achievement-oriented (Jamie) and courteous, trusting, good-
natured, tolerant, and forgiving (Stella).These traits would fit well with a start-up looking to build a
strong team in a harmonious culture.
AACSB: Communication
Blooms: Apply
6-68
94. Which of the following tests is a legal means to test the integrity of job applicants and generally
involves asking applicants directly about their attitudes toward theft and their own experiences with
theft?
A. polygraph test
D. personality inventory test
E. in-basket test
Paper-and-pencil honesty (or integrity) tests ask applicants directly about their attitudes toward
theft and their own experiences with theft. These were developed in response to the passage of the
Polygraph Act in 1998 that banned the use of polygraphs for screening job candidates.

Blooms: Remember
95. Emma, a manager at Synergy Inc., conducted an interview with Sean for a job as regional sales
manager. During the course of the interview, she asked Sean to take a test that would assess
Sean's integrity by asking him about his attitude toward shoplifting and his own experiences with
shoplifting, if any. Which of the following tests was conducted by Emma?
A. exit test
D. work sample test
E. in-basket test
Paper-and-pencil honesty (or integrity) tests ask applicants directly about their attitudes toward
theft and their own experiences with theft. These were developed in response to the passage of the
Polygraph Act in 1998 that banned the use of polygraphs for screening job candidates.

Blooms: Understand
6-69
96. BuildCo's human resource department is preparing a policy for the drug testing of job applicants.
Nate makes a list of statements to include in the policy and shows the list to his supervisor,
Monique. Which of the following statements should Monique direct Nate to change?
A. Drug testing should be administered systematically to all applicants who have applied for the
same job.
B. Drug test reports should not be sent to applicants.
C. Drug testing should be conducted for employees working in jobs that involve safety hazards.
D. Drug testing should not be conducted in an intrusive environment.
E. Drug-testing programs should allow for strict confidentiality of results.
Drug-testing report should be sent to the applicants who have taken the drug test, along with
information about how to appeal the results and be retested if appropriate.

Blooms: Apply
97. Which of the following is true about medical examinations of job candidates?
A. Medical examinations may not be related to job requirements.

B. Medical examinations are conducted upon the receipt of a candidate's résumé.
C. Medical examinations are conducted specifically for individuals with disabilities.
D. Medical examinations that measure size and strength can never be used for a job.
E. Medical examinations are conducted after a candidate has been given a job offer.
To protect candidates' privacy, medical exams must be related to job requirements and may not be
given until the candidate has received a job offer.

Blooms: Understand
6-70
98. A _____ interview allows interviewer discretion in choosing the questions to be asked and generally
includes open-ended questions about the candidate's strengths, weaknesses, career goals, and work
experience.
A. behavioral
B. situational
C. nondirective
D. structured
E. computerized
In a nondirective interview, an interviewer has great discretion in choosing questions. A candidate's
reply to one question may suggest other questions to ask. Nondirective interviews typically include
open-ended questions about the candidate's strengths, weaknesses, career goals, and work
experience.

Blooms: Remember
99. Gina, a marketing manager, sets up a meeting with Xavier, a human resource manager, to ask for his
help in improving her interviewing methods. Gina explains that she is a people person, and her
department is built on teamwork, so when candidates interview for a job, she tries to get to know
the candidates as people. She always begins by saying, "Tell me about yourself," and based on what
the candidate says, she lets the conversation unfold for 30 to 60 minutes. How does this approach
limit Gina's effectiveness as an interviewer?
A. By always starting with the same question, she limits the creativity of the candidates.
B. By using this structured approach, she avoids asking the wrong questions.
C. This type of behavior description interview is too focused on behaviors, rather than teamwork.
D. Her method is a panel interview, which has a low validity for a department built on teamwork.
E. The wide latitude of these nondirective interviews can result in low reliability and often poor
validity.
Gina has described the use of nondirective interviews, in which the interviewer has great discretion
in choosing questions. The candidate's reply to one question may suggest other questions to ask.
Because these interviews give the interviewer wide latitude, their reliability is not great, and some
interviewers may even ask questions that are not valid or even legal.

Blooms: Analyze
6-71
100. Alexander is being interviewed for the position of an entry-level financial analyst at a well-known
asset management company. Alexander is asked questions about the current state of the U.S. stock
market, the current net worth of certain financial firms, and concepts such as IPOs and mergers
from a set of predetermined questions that the interviewer has prepared. This is an example of a(n)
_____.
A. structured interview
C. work-sample interview
D. exit interview
E. nondirective interview
A structured interview consists of a predetermined set of questions for the interviewer to ask.
Ideally, the questions are related to job requirements and cover relevant knowledge, skills, and
experiences.

Blooms: Apply
101. During interviews for a sales position at Lock-Spark Inc., the interviewer asks each candidate to
imagine a situation where a customer emails to report that products were damaged during delivery
from Lock-Spark. The interviewer then asks each candidate what he or she would do to handle this
situation. This is an example of a(n) _____ interview.
A. behavior description
B. situational
C. computerized
D. exit
E. in-basket
A situational interview is a structured interview in which an interviewer describes a situation likely
to arise on the job and asks a candidate what he or she would do in that situation.

Blooms: Apply
6-72
102. During interviews for medical assistants at the Haleview Medical Center, all the candidates were
asked to talk about a situation in the past when they had to empathize with an emotionally unstable
person and help that person make rational decisions. This was to test whether the candidates would
be able to assist a frantic patient and help him or her make informed decisions. This type of
interview is known as a(n) _____ interview.
A. unstructured
B. nondirective
C. behavior description
D. physical ability
E. exit
A behavior description interview is a structured interview in which an interviewer asks the
candidate to describe how he or she handled a type of situation in the past. Questions about

Blooms: Analyze
103. Pluto Inc. is a car manufacturing company that wants to hire a new product manager. Senior
management decides to have the department heads for production, sales, and human resources
interview the candidates on a variety of topics. This is an example of a(n) _____.
A. behavior description interview

C. situational interview
D. exit interview
E. panel interview
This is an example of a panel interview, where several members of an organization meet to interview
each candidate. A panel interview gives a candidate a chance to meet more people and see how
people interact in an organization.

Blooms: Apply
6-73
104. Harley wants to build a start-up company with a small number of people working for him. He decides
to do all the hiring himself. Antonio, a friend of Harley's who is also a lawyer, wants to warn Harley
about the risk of discrimination complaints other companies have received by applicants who were
not hired. Which of the following statements would best express the basis of Antonio's concern
about avoiding discrimination?
A. Interviews are narrow and standardized, so they do not allow interviewers to test the integrity of
interviewees with ease.
B. Interviews are subjective, so they have the potential of assessing candidates based on
questions not related to the job.
C. Interviews are situational, so they provide a means to check the accuracy of information
provided by the candidate.
D. Interviews are expensive, so their validity and reliability are always in question.
E. Interviews require polygraph tests, which give the interviewer an opportunity to ask questions
that can violate the privacy rights of the interviewee.
Interviews are subjective, so they place the organization at greater risk of discrimination complaints
by applicants who were not hired, especially if those individuals were asked questions not entirely
related to the job.
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Apply
105. Which of the following statements is true of selection decisions?
A. They should be a simple matter of whom the supervisor likes best.

B. They should be based on the amount of confidence observed in job candidates.
C. They should be based on which candidate best meets the requirements of the position.
D. They should be a simple matter of which candidate will take the lowest offer.
E. They should be based on motivation, not abilities.
Selection decisions should not be a simple matter of whom the supervisor likes best or which
candidate will take the lowest offer. Also, observing confidence in job candidates does not
necessarily mean they are competent. Rather, the people making the selection should look for the
best fit between candidate and position. An obvious strategy is to select the candidates who score
highest on tests and interviews. However, employee performance depends on motivation as well as
ability.

Blooms: Apply
6-74
106. Which of the following best describes the multiple-hurdle model of personnel selection?
A. It is a process of selecting employees in which a very high score on one type of assessment can
make up for a low score on another.
B. It is a process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some candidates at each stage
of the selection process.
C. It is a selection process in which several members of an organization form a panel and interview
each candidate.
D. It is a testing program that establishes different norms for hiring members of different racial
groups.
E. It is a selection process that treats a range of scores as being similar and divides candidates
into groups based on the range into which they fall.
The multiple-hurdle model is the process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some
candidates at each stage of the selection process.

Blooms: Understand
107. Summerton High School has three open positions for teachers. The school's HR personnel review
résumés to identify the candidates who meet the school's minimum requirements. Next, potential
candidates are then invited for interviews. After this, interviewers discuss the results with HR
personnel and select a short list of candidates, who then appear before a panel of teachers and HR
personnel for the final interview. Summerton's new teachers are then selected from among these
finalists. Which of the following terms describes Summerton's method of selection?
A. compensatory model
B. multiple-hurdle model
C. leadership model
D. behavior description model
E. nondirective model
Summerton uses the multiple-hurdle model. The multiple-hurdle model is the process of arriving at
a selection decision by eliminating some candidates at each stage of the selection process. Each
stage of the process is a hurdle, and candidates who overcome a hurdle continue to the next stage
of the process.

Blooms: Apply
6-75
108. Tara, the purchasing manager at Reed Inc., tells Levi, the human resource manager, that she has
selected a candidate to be her purchasing assistant. She shows him a draft of an email message
offering the candidate the job at the agreed-on starting wage. She asks Levi if there is anything
else she should mention in the message. Levi replies that Tara should add information about _____.
A. the work schedule, starting date, and drug test results

B. the job responsibilities, work schedule, and starting date
C. the work schedule, starting date, and results of the candidate's medical exam
D. the job responsibilities and results of the candidate's medical exam
E. the starting date
When a candidate has been selected, the organization should communicate the offer to the
candidate. The offer should include the job responsibilities, work schedule, rate of pay, starting date,
and other relevant details. Results of medical exams and drug tests would be confidential and do
not belong in a job offer.

Blooms: Analyze
Essay Questions
109. Describe the steps involved in a selection process.
job to job. First, a human resource professional reviews the applications received to see which meet
the basic requirements of a job. For candidates who meet the basic requirements, the organization
administers tests and reviews work samples to rate the candidates' abilities. Those with the best
abilities are invited to the organization for one or more interviews. For the top few candidates, the
organization checks references and conducts background checks to verify that the organization's
information is correct. Then supervisors, teams, and other decision makers select a person to
receive a job offer. In some cases, the candidate may negotiate with the organization regarding
salary, benefits, and the like. If the candidate accepts the job, the organization places him or her in
that job.

Blooms: Remember
6-76
110. Define what is meant by reliability, validity, and utility in the employment selection context.
Reliability is the extent to which a measurement is free from random error. A reliable measurement
therefore generates consistent results. Validity is the extent to which performance on a measure
(such as a test score) is related to what the measure is designed to assess (such as job
performance). Utility indicates that the selection methods provide economic value greater than the
cost of using them.

Blooms: Remember
111. Briefly describe how concurrent and predictive validation research is conducted, and identify at
least two potential advantages of predictive validation.
Concurrent validation research administers a test to people who currently hold a job and then
compares their scores to existing measures of job performance. If the people who score highest on
the test also do better on the job, the test is assumed to be valid. Predictive validation research
uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and future
performance. The researcher administers the tests, waits a set period of time, and then measures
the performance of the applicants who were hired.
Potential advantages of predictive validation include: (1) Job applicants are typically more motivated
to perform well on the test than job incumbents; (2) Their performance on the tests is not
influenced by their firsthand experience with the job; and (3) The group studied is more likely to
include people who perform poorly on the test—a necessary ingredient to accurately validate a test.

Blooms: Understand
6-77
112. Discuss how the Civil Rights Act of 1991 and the Americans with Disabilities Act impact personnel
selection processes.
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 places requirements on the choice of selection methods. An employer
that uses a neutral-appearing selection method that damages a protected group is obligated to
show that there is a business necessity for using that method. It also prohibits preferential
treatment in favor of minority groups. In the case of an organization using a test that tends to
reject members of minority groups, the organization may not simply adjust minority applicants'
scores upward, a practice known as race norming.
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) requires employers to make "reasonable
accommodation" to disabled individuals and restricts many kinds of questions during the selection
process. Under the ADA, pre-employment questions may not investigate disabilities, but must focus
on job performance. Also, the employer may not, in making hiring decisions, use employment
physical exams or other tests that could reveal a psychological or physical disability.
AACSB: Diversity
Blooms: Understand
113. Discuss the burden placed on people or organizations contacted as references for job candidates.
How do organizations cope with this burden?
Providing information as references for job candidates poses some burden on the people or
organizations contacted for the purpose. Part of that burden is the risk of giving information that is
seen as too negative or too positive. If the person who is a reference gives negative information,
there is a chance the candidate will claim defamation, meaning the person damaged the applicant's
reputation by making statements that cannot be proved truthful. At the other extreme, if the person
gives a glowing statement about a candidate, and the new employer later learns of misdeeds such
as sexual misconduct or workplace violence, the new employer might sue the former employer for
misrepresentation. Because such situations occasionally arise, people who give references tend to
give as little information as possible. Most organizations have policies that the HR department will
handle all requests for references and that they will only verify employment dates and sometimes
the employee's final salary. In organizations without such a policy, HR professionals should be
careful—and train managers to be careful—to stick to observable, job-related behaviors and to avoid
broad opinions that may be misinterpreted.

Blooms: Understand
6-78
114. Explain the two broad categories of employment tests.
Employment tests fall into two broad categories:
1. Aptitude tests: These assess how well a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities. In the
realm of employment testing, the best-known aptitude test is the General Aptitude Test Battery
(GATB), used by the U.S. Employment Service.
2. Achievement tests: These measure a person's existing knowledge and skills. For example,
government agencies conduct civil service examinations to see whether applicants are qualified to
perform certain jobs.

Blooms: Understand
115. Why are drug tests a controversial component of the personnel selection process? What are some
of the ways in which organizations can avoid problems associated with drug testing?
Drug tests are controversial for several reasons. Some people are concerned that they invade
individuals' privacy. Others object from a legal perspective. When all applicants or employees are
subject to testing, whether or not they have shown evidence of drug use, the tests might be an
unreasonable search and seizure or a violation of due process. Taking urine and blood samples
involves invasive procedures and accusing someone of drug use is a serious matter. Employers
considering the use of drug tests should ensure that their drug-testing programs conform to some
general rules. First, administer the tests systematically to all applicants for the same job. Second,
use drug testing for jobs that involve safety hazards. Third, have a report of the results sent to the
applicant, along with information about how to appeal the results and be retested if appropriate.
Fourth, respect applicants' privacy by conducting tests in an environment that is not intrusive and
keeping results confidential.

Blooms: Understand
6-79
116. Describe the different types of interviews that can be used for employee selection.
The different types of interviews that can be used for employee selection are:
1. Nondirective interview: The interviewer has great discretion in choosing questions. The
candidate's reply to one question may suggest other questions to ask. These interviews typically
include open-ended questions about the candidate's strengths, weaknesses, career goals, and work
experience. Because these interviews give the interviewer wide latitude, their reliability is not great,
and some interviewers ask questions that are not valid or even legal.
2. Structured interview: This interview establishes a set of questions for the interviewer to ask.
Ideally, the questions are related to job requirements and cover relevant knowledge, skills, and
experiences. The interviewer is supposed to avoid asking questions that are not on the list.
Although interviewers may object to being restricted, the results may be more valid and reliable
than with a nondirective interview.
3. Situational interview: This is a structured interview in which the interviewer describes a situation
likely to arise on the job and asks the candidate what he or she would do in that situation. This type
of interview may have high validity in predicting job performance.
4. Behavior description interview (BDI): This is a structured interview in which the interviewer asks
the candidate to describe how he or she handled a type of situation in the past. Questions about

Blooms: Understand
6-80
Fundamentals of Human Resource Management 7th Edition Noe Test Bank
117. How can organizations avoid the pitfalls of using interviews as a selection method?
In order to avoid the pitfalls of using interviews as a selection method, human resource staff should
keep the interviews narrow, structured, and standardized. The interview should focus on
accomplishing a few goals, so that at the end of the interview, the organization has ratings on
several observable measures, such as ability to express ideas. The interview should not try to
measure abilities and skills—for example, intelligence—that tests can measure better. Situational
interviews are especially effective for doing this. Organizations can prevent problems related to
subjectivity by training interviewers and using more than one person to conduct interviews. Training
typically includes focusing on the recording of observable facts, rather than on making subjective
judgments, as well as developing interviewers' awareness of their biases. Using a structured system
for taking notes or scoring responses may be helpful for limiting subjectivity and helping the
interviewer remember and justify an evaluation later. Finally, to address costs of interviewing, many
organizations videotape interviews and send the tapes (rather than the applicants) from department
to department.

Blooms: Understand
118. Discuss the multiple-hurdle model and the compensatory models of arriving at a personnel selection
decision.
The multiple-hurdle model is the process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some
candidates at each stage of the selection process. Each stage of the process is a hurdle, and
candidates who overcome a hurdle continue to the next stage of the process. Another, more
expensive alternative is to take most applicants through all steps of the process and then to review
all the scores to find the most desirable candidates. With this alternative, decision makers may use
a compensatory model, in which a very high score on one type of assessment can make up for a low
score on another.

Blooms: Understand
6-81
Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters

Fundamentals of Human Resource Management 7th Edition Noe Test Bank

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Fundamentals of Human Resource Management 7th Edition Noe Test Bank

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Fundamentals of Human Resource Management 7th Edition Noe Test Bank

Fundamentals of Human Resource Management 7th

To download the complete and accurate content document, go to:

Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters

Selecting Employees and Placing Them in Jobs

True / False Questions

3. A reliable measurement generates consistent results.

15. Aptitude tests assess a person's existing knowledge and skills.

19. Personality tests are more reliable than intelligence tests.

24. Interviews are the least expensive method of employee selection.

Multiple Choice Questions

A. verifying the applicants' qualifications through reference and background checks.

A. reviewing Rita's work samples

A. The method can be personally relatable.

A. a complete lack of any correlation between the two sets

35. What does a correlation of 0 mean?

36. Reliability answers the important question of

A. whether you are measuring something accurately.

39. Which of the following is true of validity?

A. Validity cannot be explained using correlation coefficients.

42. Identify the correct statement regarding predictive validation.

A. It is the least effective method of measuring validity.

A. at least half the present computer technicians in Trelsoft

48. Which of the following is true about content validity?

A. It is usually measured on the basis of expert judgment.

A. produce information that actually benefits the organization.

A. What is the nationality of your name?

A. What is your complete name?

A. The Civil Rights Act of 1991

A. Employers can ask pre-employment questions to investigate disabilities.

A. The Civil Rights Act of 1991

A. It is an expensive way of gathering information from candidates.

A. It is a relatively expensive method of gathering information.

A. as a substitute for interviews

A. terms of the elements of a job description.

71. Generally, an organization checks references

A. only if it believes the information provided by an applicant is incorrect.

A. by giving as much information as possible

A. contact many references

A. cognitive ability test

81. Which of the following is true about cognitive ability tests?

A. They are especially valid for jobs requiring adaptability.

82. Identify the limitation of cognitive ability tests.

A. lack of validity of the tests for complex jobs

86. In-basket tests are examples of _____ tests.

A. paper-and-pencil honesty test

88. Which of the following statements is true of an assessment center?

89. Identify the correct statement regarding job performance tests.

A. They provide fair evaluations for applicants.

90. Which of the following is a "Big Five" personality trait?

91. Identify the traits that are found in a conscientious person.

A. sociable, gregarious, assertive, and talkative

A. Jamie is very organized; Stella is very cooperative.

A. Medical examinations may not be related to job requirements.

A. behavior description interview

105. Which of the following statements is true of selection decisions?

A. They should be a simple matter of whom the supervisor likes best.

A. the work schedule, starting date, and drug test results

109. Describe the steps involved in a selection process.

114. Explain the two broad categories of employment tests.

True / False Questions

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

3. A reliable measurement generates consistent results.

AACSB: Analytical Thinking