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CLASS: IX

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE CHAPTER: INDIA, SIZE AND LOCATION

1. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): The Indian landmass has a central location between the East and the West

Asia. The Trans Indian Ocean routes which connect the countries of Europe in the West and the countries
of East Asia provide a strategic central location to India.

Reason (R): In the beginning of 19th century India’s cotton exporting percentage had been declined in
the European country.

Options:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is correct but R is wrong

d) A is wrong but R is correct.

2. The sun rises earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat. According to longitudinal
extend of the country, what time will the watch show in Gujarat if it is 6 PM in Arunachal Pradesh?

a) 4 PM b) 5 PM c) 6 PM d) 7 PM

3. Match the following Capital with their State and choose the correct option.

State Capital
i) Jharkhand a) Dispur
ii) Dadra-Nagar Haveli b) Silvasa
iii) Andaman-Nicobar c) Ranchi
iv) Assam d) Port blair

a) i)- d), i) – a), ii) – c), iv) – b). c) i)- c), i) – b), ii) – d), iv) – a).
b) i)- a), i) – b), ii) – d), iv) – c). d) i)- b), i) – d), ii) – c), iv) – a).

4. The southernmost latitude of India including islands is……………………. .

5. What influences the duration of the day and night as one move from south to north?

a) Longitudinal extent b) Tropic of cancer

b) Tropic of Capricorn d) None of the above.

6. Find the incorrect statements:

A. The main land of India extends between latitudes 8.4’N to 37.6’E.

B. The land mass of India has an area of 3.28 billion square Km.

C. India is bounded by the young fold mountain in the northwest.

D. Since the opening of the Suez Canal in 1867, India’s distance from Europe has been reduced by
7,000 Km.

a) Only C and A b) Only A,B and D c) Only C d) Only A

7. Complete the following table with correct information.

India Size and Eastern most Tropic of Cancer Distance from the
Location longitude of India located on latitude North to South in Km.
A ? B ? C ?

8. Which time zone does India follow?

a) ISMT b) GMT c) ITCZ d) None of the above.

9. If you want to visit Lakshadweep during your winter holidays, which water body would you have to
cross?

a) Andaman Sea b) Nicobar Sea c) Baltic Sea d) none of the above.

10. As per the total length of coastal line, India has seventh Rank in the World.

a)True b) False

11. What commodity was taken from India to various parts of the world?

a)Spices b) Pulses c) Wheat d) Cotton


12. As per the world map shown above, in which zone does India lies?

a)Tropical and Temperate zone b) Tropical and Sub-Tropical Zone

c) Sub-Tropical and Temperate Zone d) Temperate and Polar Zone.

13. What is the east-west extension of India in Kilometers?

a) 2,933 Km b) 2,399 Km c) 3,299 Km d) 3,929 Km.

14. India lies in the Eastern and Southern hemisphere.

a)True b) False

CHAPTER: PHYSICAL FEATURE OF INDIA

1: Which of the folowing is responsible for the variation in the colour of soil in different parts of India?

(a) Difference in rock formation


(b) Land use
(c) Weathering
(d) Erosion and deposition

2: Which of the following has not been a factor in the creation and modification of India’s relief features?

(a)Geological formation (b) Population density

(c) Weathering (d) Erosion and deposition


3: Which of the following is a plausible theory presented by Earth scientists to explain the formation of
continents and oceans and the various landforms?

(a) Theory of Motion (b) Theory of Plate Tectonics

(c) Theory of Evolution (d) Theory of Relativity

4: According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ the earth’s crust is formed of how many major plates?

a) Three b) five c) Seven d ) eight

5: According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ the movement of the plates results in some geological
activity. Which one of the following is not such a geological activity?

a) Folding b) faulting c) volcanic activity d) Glaciations

6: According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ when some plates come towards each other, which of the
following is formed?

(a) Convergent boundary (b) Divergent boundary

(c) Transform boundary (d) Colliding boundary

7: According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ when some plates move away from each other, which of
the following is formed?

(a) Convergent boundary (b) Divergent boundary

(c) Transform boundary (d) Colliding boundary

8: According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ in the event of two plates coming together, which of the
following is not possible?

(a) The plates may collide and crumble. (b ) The plates may move horizontally past each other

(c ) The plate may different from divergent boundry (d) One plate may slide under the other.

9: According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ what have been the effects of the movement of the
plates?

(a) Change in position and size of continents. (b) Formation of ocean basins.

(c ) Evolution of present landform and relief of India (d) All of the above.

10: A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as _.

11: Which of the following divisions of India has the oldest landmass?
(a)Northern Plains (b) Himalayas

(c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Indian Desert

12: The Peninsular Plateau of India is part of which of the following landmass?

(a) Angara land (b) Gondwana land (c ) Tethys (d) Eurasian Plate

13: Which of the following countries or continents was not a part of the ancient landmass of
Gondwanaland?

(a) India (b) Australia (c ) Europe (d) South America

14: The northward drift of the Indo-Australian plate resulted in its collision with the much larger Eurasian
plate. Which of the following was the result of this collision?

(a) The Gondwanaland split into a number of plates. (b) The continents of Europe and Asia were formed.

(c) Sedimentary rocks accumulated in the Tethys geosynclines were folded. (d) India and Australia were
formed.

15: Which of the following physiographic divisions of India was formed out of accumulations in the
Tethys?

(a)Northern Plains (b) Himalayas

(c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Indian Desert

16: The Himalayan uplift out of the Tethys Sea and subsidence of the northern flank of the peninsular
plateau resulted in the formation of a large basin. Which of the folowing physical divisions of India was
formed due to filling up of this depression?

(a)Northern Plains (b) Himalayas (c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) the Coastal Plains

17: Geologically which of the following physiographic division of India is supposed to be the most stable
land blocks?

(a)Northern Plains (b) Himalayas (c) the Peninsular Plateau (d) The Indian Desert

18: From west to east, the divisions of the Himalayas are demarcated by river valleys. The part of the
Himalayas lying between the Satluj and kali river……….

(a) Punjab Himalayas (b) Kumaon Himalaya (c) Nepal Himalayas (d) Assam Himalayas

19: Which two hills are located in the south-east of Eastern Ghats?

(a) Mizo Hills and Naga Hills (b) Javadi Hills and Shevroy Hills
(c) Patkoi Hills and Manipuri Hills (d) Mizo Hills and Patkoi Hills

20: which islands of India are called Coral Islands?

(a) Lakshdeep (b) Andman and Nikobar (c ) both (d) none of these

21: The wet and swampy belt of the Northern Region is known localy as :

(a) Bhabar (b) Terai (c) Doab (d) Bhangar

CHAPTER: WHAT IS DEMOCRACY? WHY DEMOCRACY?

1. Which one of the following best signifies this Cartoon?

a) Malpractices in election b) Monarchy form of government system.

c) Democracy in Mexico d) None of the above

2. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): In a democracy the final decision-making power must rest with those elected

by the people

Reason (R): In 2002 Genera Musharraf issued a Legal Framework Order, according to this the President
can dismiss the national and provincial assemblies.

Options:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.


c) A is correct but R is wrong

d) A is wrong but R is correct.

3. Correct the following statement and rewrite:

Estonia has made its citizenship rules in such a way that people belonging to German minority find it
difficult to get the right to vote.

4. Here is the two reactions on ‘Democracy’. Which one of these is merit of democracy.

Rohit:- Democracy provide us a platform to choose our leaders.

Saniya:- Leaders keep changing in a Democracy. This leads to instability.

5. Who appoints the President of China?

a)People b) UNO c) National People’s Congress d) Monarch.

6. Modern democracies involve a large number of people.

a)True b) False.

7. Which of these is not a good argument in favour of democracy?

a) People feel free and equal in a democracy.

b) Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others.

c) Democratic government is more accountable to the people.

d) Democracies are more prosperous than others.

8. Rajesh and Muzaffar read an article. It showed that no democracy has ever gone to war with another
democracy. Wars take place only when one of the two governments is non- democratic. The article said
that this was a great merit of democracy. After reading the essay, Rajesh and Muzaffar had different
reactions. Rajesh said that this was not a good argument for democracy. It was just a matter of chance. It
is possible that in future democracies may have wars. Muzaffar said that it could not be a matter of
chance. Democracies take decisions in such a way that it reduces the chances of war.

Which of the two positions do you agree with above conversation ?

9. Why does India have so much difference of opinions and interests?

a) Because people have right to expression. b) Because people like to talk a lot.

c) Because of its wide social diversity. d) None of the above.


10……………………… is the form of government in which all powers vested with an individual?

11. Write any one argument against democracy. ……………………………….

12. Complete the following table with correct information.

Name of the party Every election won by How many members


ruled Zimbabwe since which party in Mexico in the parliament of
independence. china.

A ? B ? C ?

13. Which is the most common form of democracy in today’s world?

a) Presidential democracy c) Representative democracy

b) Direct democracy d) Participatory democracy.

14. Democracy is based on a fundamental principle of ………………………………….

15. Which one of the following option best signifies above cartoon?

a) Election of Iran c) Election of India

b) Election in Saudi Arabia d) Election of Iraq

CHAPTER: CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN

1. During negotiations for making the Constitution, the whites agreed to

(a) The principle of majority rule

(b) One person one vote


(c) Accept some basic rights for the poor and the workers

(d) All the above

2. Which of the following sentences is correct?

(a) All countries that have constitutions are necessarily democratic

(b) All countries that are democratic necessarily have constitutions

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above)

5. When did Motilal Nehru draft a Constitution for India?

(a) 1927 (b) 1926 (c) 1929 (d) 1928

6. Where was the 1931 session of Indian National Congress held?

(a)Nagpur (b) Karachi (c) Calcutta (d) Delhi

7. Which of these features were accepted by all the Indian leaders much before they sat down to make
the Constitution?

(a) Universal adult franchise (b) Right to freedom

(c) Protection of the rights of minorities (d) All the above

8. According to which Act were the elections held to provincial legislatures in India in 1937?

(a) Government of India Act, 1935 (b) Government of India Act, 1919

(c) Government of India Act, 1909 (d) None of the above

9. Which of these inspired our leaders while framing the Constitution?

(a) Ideals of the French Revolution (b) Parliamentary democracy in Britain

(c) Bill of Rights in US (d) All the above

10. Which revolution in the world inspired the Indians to set up a socialist economy?

(a)French Revolution (b) Turkish Revolution

(c) Russian Revolution (d) American War of Independence

11. Name the body which framed the Constitution of India?


(a) General Assembly (b) Constituent Assembly

(c) Constitutional Assembly (d) People’s Assembly

12. When did the Assembly adopt the Constitution?

(a)26 November, 1949 (b) 26 December, 1949 (c) 26 January, 1950 (d) 26 January, 1949

13. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Abul Kalam Azad

14. How many amendments were considered before adopting the Constitution?

(a) Around 500 (b) Around 2000 (c) Around 1550 (d) Around 1000

15. Who said the following?

“I shall work for an India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country .....

In Which all communities shall live in perfect harmony?”

(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Sarojini Naidu

16. Who among these leaders was a bitter critic of Mahatma Gandhi?

(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (b) Sarojini Naidu (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

17. “The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from Every eye.”
Who was Nehru referring to in his speech?

(a) Abdul Ghaffar Khan (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Valabhbhai Patel

18. The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values. What is it called?

(a) Preface (b) Preamble (c) Introduction (d) Article

19. Match these guiding values with their meanings.

(A) Sovereign (i) government wil not favour any particular religion

(B) Republic (i) People will have supreme right to make decisions without outsideInterference

(C) Fraternity (ii) Head of the state is an elected person

(D) Secular (IV) There should be a feeling of brotherhood among al the people (a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(i),
D-(IV) (b) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) A-(i), B-(IV), C-(ii), D-(i) (d) A-(IV), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(i)

20. which of these countries is/are examples of a Republic?

(a) USA (b) India (c) South Africa (d) All the above

21. what kind of „Justice‟ does our Preamble provide?

(a) Economic Justice (b) Political Justice (C) Social Justice (d) All the above

22. which of these positions is correct in relation to the „Sovereign‟ status of India?

(a) USA can decide India’s foreign policy

(b) USSR can support the CPI (M) in setting up its government here

(c) The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies

(d) Pakistan can control India’s Armed Forces

23. Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) B. R. Ambedkar (d) Mahatma Gandhi

24. which of the following days is celebrated to mark the enforcement of the constitution?

(a) Republic Day (b) Independence Day (c) Gandhi Jayanti (d) Constitution Enforcement Day

25. The Indian constitution has borrowed from

(i) Ideas from French Revolution (i) The British Constitution

(ii) The Bil of Rights of the US (IV) Israeli Constitution

(a) i, i, iv (b) i, i, ii, (c) i, ii, iv (d) i, i, iv

26. The Constituent Assembly met for how many days?

(a) 114 (b) 280 (c) 365 (d) 150

27. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian constitution?

(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) C. Rajgopalachari (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

28. When did the Indian constitution come into force?

(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 15th August, 1947 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Jan, 1930
29. Who prepared the draft of a constitution for India in 1928?

(a) Motilal Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Jawaharlal Nehru

30. When was the Constitution of India adopted?

(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 26th Jan, 1949 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Nov, 1950

31. Drafting Committee was chaired by:

(a) Gandhiji (b) Pt. J.L. Nehru (c) Baldev Singh (d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar

CHAPTER: FRENCH REVOLUTION

1. A broken chain symbolized

a) Chains used to fetter slaves b) Strength lies in unity c) Royal power d) Act of becoming free

2. Which of the following was the main objective of the constitution of 1791?

a) To limit the power of the King alone

b) Do away with feudal privileges

c) Give equal rights to women

d) Established a constitutional monarchy.

3. Identify the statement which is wrong with reference to Robespierre.

a) He banned the use of white flour

b) He rationed meat and bread

c) He exempted his party men from punishment

d) He converted churches into barracks or offices.

4. The reason of increased demand for food grains in France during 1715 to 1789.

a) Rapid industrialization of agriculture land

b) Big famines for many years

c) Heavy export of food grains from France to England

d) High rise in population during these years.


5. What did Bastile symbolize?

a)Benevolence of the king b) Despotic power of the king

c) Armed might of France d) Prestige and power.

6. The population of France in 1789.

a) 123 milion b) 225 milion c) 28 mil ion d) 30 milion

7. What is Bastile?

a) Fort b) palace c) jail d) none of these

8. Basic right set forth in Olympe de Gouges declaration.

a) Women is born free and remains equal to main in rights.

b) The goal of al political association is the preservation of the natural rights of man and woman.

c) The sources of al sovereignty reside in the nation, which is nothing but the union of woman and man.

d) All of the above

9) What was Tithe?

a) Farmer b) Tax c) Artist d) None of these

10. ‘Two treatises of government” was written by…….

a) Rousseau b) John Lock c) Montesquieu d) None of these

11. Which of the following refer to the political body representing the three estates of pre- revolutionary
France?

a)Parliament of France b) National Assembly c) Estates General d) Estates Committee.

12. The National Assembly of France voted in April 1792, to declare war against.

a) Britain b) Prussia and Austria c) Italy and Germany d) Russia and Prussia

13. Reason for the Subsistence Crisis caused in France.

a) The wages of people were low b) There was widespread unemployment

c) Increase in population led to rapid increase in the demand of food grains.

d) The government imposed various taxes.


14.The Bastile was hated by al in France because.

a) It stood for the despotic power of the King b) It was a fortress prison

c) Prison in charge tortured the inmates d) It housed dreaded criminal.

15. On what charges was Louis XVI guillotined?

a) Cruelty b) Treason c) Absolute rule d) Misgovernance.

CHAPTER: 2) Russian Revolution

Read the given text and answer the following questions:

“Women workers, often… inspired their male co-workers… At the Lorenz telephone factory…. Marta
Vasileva almost single handedly called a successful strike. Already that morning, in celebration of
Women’s Day, women workers had presented red bows to the men … Then Marta Vasileva, a milling
machine operator stopped work and declared an impromptu strike. The workers on the floor were ready
to support her… The foreman informed the management and sent her a loaf of bread. She took the
bread but refused to go back to work. The administrator asked her again why she refused to work and
she replied, “I cannot be the only one who is satiated when others are hungry”. Women workers from
another section of the factory gathered around Marfa in support and gradually all the other women
ceased working. Soon the men downed their tools as well and the entire crowd rushed onto the street.

1.who was Marfa Vasileva ?

2.Why is International Women’s Day celebrated ?

3 Write about the role of women in Russian Revolution ?

4.Which of the following was the main reason for Lenin not to support peasant’s role in a

socialist movement?

a. All the Russian peasants were wealthy.

b. Russian peasants were already practicing socialism by pooling their land.

c. Peasants were not one united group as there were capitalist peasants also.

d. Peasants were illiterate.

2. Which of the following was the immediate cause of the workers to start a strike in

Petrograd on 23rd February, 1917?

a. Food shortage b. Suspension of the Duma


c. Lockout at a factory d. None of the above

3. Which of the following is correctly matched?

A. Lenin ------ Head of Military Revolutionary Committee

B. Trotsky ------ Leader of the Socialist revolutionaries

C. Kerensky ------ Prime Minister of the Provisional Government

D. Stalin ------ Military commander Under Kerensky

4. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).

Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): Workers were a divided social
group. Some had strong links with the

villages from which they came.

Reason (R): Workers were divided by skill.

Options:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

5. Identify the incorrect statement about the Five-Year Plans.

a. It was introduced in 1917 by the Bolsheviks. b. It set target for five-year period.

c. All prices were fixed. d. It led to economic growth.

6. Which of the following was/were believed to be cause/s of grain shortages during Stalin’s

time?

I. Five-Year Plan

II. Holding of stocks by rich peasants and traders

III. Small size holdings

IV. Collective farms


Options:

a. ii-iii b. ii-iv c. iii-iv d. Only iv

7. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

a. Lenin ------ Head of Bolsheviks

b. Stalin ------ Successor of Lenin

c. Kulaks ------ Socialist revolutionaries

d. Jadidists ------ Muslim reformers

8. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read

the statements and choose the appropriate option. 1m

Assertion (A): From 1929, the party forced all peasants to cultivate in collective farms.

Reason (R): Enraged peasants resisted the authorities and destroyed their livestock.

Options:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

9. Which of the following steps of the Bolsheviks suggest that they encouraged colonial

people to follow their experiment.?

a. Organised Conference of the East where non-Russians participated

b. It forced colonial people to rise in revolution

c. It conquered the poor countries of Asia

d. It fought against Great Britain in the Second World war to liberate the colonies

10. Arrange the following in chronological orderi. Bloody Sunday incident

ii. Treaty of Brest Litovsk

iii. Introduction of Collectivisation


iv. February Revolution

A. i- ii- iii- iv B. ii-iv-iii-i C. i-iv-iii-ii D. i- iv-ii- iii

11. What was Duma?

a. Title given to Tsar b. Elected consultative parliament

c. The group of revolutionary d. political party

12. Who was the leader of Bolshevik party?

a.Karl Marx b.Stalin c.Lenin d. Louise Blanc

CHAPTER: 2) People as a resource

1) People as a resource refers to the

(a)educational skills (b) productive skills

(c) Health skills (d) none of the above

2) If a person cannot find jobs during some months of the year, which type of employment is this called?

(a)Structural unemployment (b) Cyclical unemployment

(c) Seasonal unemployment (d) none of these

3) Forestry and dairy are related to which sector?

(a)Primary Sector (b) Tertiary Sector

(c) Secondary Sector (d) None of the above

4) From the following in which fields is disguised unemployment found?

(a)Industries (b) Agriculture

(c) Mining (d) Fisheries’

5) What is the aim of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan?

(a) To provide elementary education to women

(b) To provide elementary education to the rural poor

(c) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years

(d)To provide elementary education to the urban poor


6) The scheme for the establishment of residential schools to impart education to talented children
from rural areas is

(a)Kendriya Vidyalayas (b) Navodaya Vidyalayas

(c) Sarvodaya Vidyalayas (d) None of the aboves

7) One who can read and write in any language with understanding is termed as:

(a) Student (b) Adult

(c) Child (d) Literate

8) Quality of population depends upon:

a) Literacy rate. b) Health

c) Skill d) All of the above

9) PHC stands for:

a) Public Health club. b) Private Health club

c) Primary health centre d) None of these

10) The number of females per thousand males refers to:

a) Sex ratio. b) Literacy rate

c) Mortality rate d) Birth rate

11) Educated unemployment is because of:

a) Slow industrial growth. b) Improper education system

c) Both a & b d) none of these

12) Number of deaths per 1000 people in a year is called:

a) Death rate. b) Birth rate

c) Decrease rated) population decrease

13) Self consumption is:

a) Non-production activity b) Non-market activity

c) Non economic activity d) None of the above


14) Strike the odd one out:

a) Education b) Medical care c) Training d) Computers

15) Mid day meal scheme is introduced to improve the:

a) Quality of education b) Improve nutritional status

c) Income of school d) None of these

Read the source and give answers

Investment in human resource (via education and medical care) can give high rates of return in future.
This investment on people is the same as investment in land and capital. A child, too, with investments
made on her education and health, can yield a high return in future in the form of higher earnings and
greater contribution to the society. Educated parents are found to invest more heavily on the education
of their child. This is because they have realized the importance of education for themselves. They are
also conscious of proper nutrition and hygiene. They accordingly look after their children's needs for
education at school and good health. A virtuous cycle is, thus, created in this case. In contrast, a vicious
cycle may be created by disadvantaged parents, who themselves are uneducated and lack in hygiene,
keep their children in a similarly disadvantaged state. Countries, like Japan, have invested in human
resource. They did not have any natural resource. These countries are developed/rich. They import the
natural resource needed in their country. How did they become rich/ developed? They have invested on
people, especially in the field of education and health. These people have made efficient use of other
resources, like land and capital. Efficiency and the technology evolved by people have made these
countries rich/developed

16. The investment in people (human resource) is same as investment in :

(a) Transport and Communication (b) Goods and Services

(c) Land and Capital (d) Capital and Investment

17. Educated parents are found to invest more heavily on the ________ of their child.

(a) food (b) shelter

(c) clothing (d) education

18. Contrast of virtuous cycle is : (1)

(a) Life Cycle (b) Vicious Cycle

(c) Growth Cycle (d) Season Cycle

19. Countries like _________ have invested in human resources because they do not have natural
Resources .

(a) China (b) Bangkok

(c) Japan (b) Malaysia

CHAPTER: 3 Poverty As Challenge

1.Vulnerability to poverty is determined by the options for finding an alternative living in terms of:

(a) assets (b) education

(c) health (d) all of the above

2.Which of the following social radiators is not looked at by social scientists for poverty?

(a) Literacy level (b) Lack of access to health care

(c) Lack of access to see movies and to go to restaurants

(d) Lack of access to safe drinking water

3.Which organisation carries out survey for determining the poverty line?

(a) NSSO (b) CSO (c) Planning Commission (d) None of the above

4.The country which has the largest single concentration of the poor people in the world is :

(a) China (b) Pakistan (c) India (d) Nepal

5.How many people were poor in India between 2011-12?

(a) 25 crore (b) 27 crore (c) 29 crore (d) 31 crore

6.Which one is not the major cause of income inequality in India?

(a) Unequal distribution of land (b) Lack of fertile land

(c) Gap between the rich and the poor (d) Increase in population

7.Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana was started in:

(a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1993

8.For making comparisons between developing countries, which uniform standard (per person per day)
for the poverty line is used in terms of minimum availability?

(a) $1 (b) $2 (c) $3 (d) $5


9.Which two states of India continue to be the poorest states?

(a) Orissa, Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand

(c) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra (d) None of the above

10. In which state is the public distribution system responsible for the reduction in poverty?

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

11.Every____ person in India is poor.

(a) Third (b) Fourth (c) Fifth (d) Tenth

12.Which social group is most vulnerable to poverty in India?

(a) Schedule castes (b) Schedule tribes

(c) Casual labourers (d) All of the above

12.Which two states of India continue to be the poorest states?

(a) Madhya Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir (b) Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand

(c) Orissa, Bihar (d) None of the above

13.Among the economic groups, which of the following groups are the most vulnerable groups in India?

(a) Rural agricultural labour households and urban casual labour households

(b) Farmers with 1-hectare land

(c) Urban small shopkeepers

(d) Urban daily wages

14.Antyodaya Anna Yojana was launched in :

(a) 2003 (b) 1999 (c) 2000 (d) 2005

15.Social exclusion denies certain individuals the

(a) facilities (b) benefits

(c) opportunities (d) all the above

16.Which industry suffered the most during colonial period?

(a) Cotton (b) Textile (c) Food (d) Both (a) and (b)
17.Which organisation carries out a survey for determining the poverty line?

(a) NSSO (b) PMRY

(c) PMGY (d) None of the above

18.In which state has the high agricultural growth helped to reduce poverty?

(a) Jammu & Kashmir (b) West Bengal

(c) Punjab (d) Gujarat

18.In which state have the land reform measures helped to reduce poverty?

(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Punjab (c) West Bengal (d) Kerala

19.Poverty ratio in India as compared to Pakistan is

(a) same (b) half (c) two times (d) two and a half times

20.How many people in India live below the poverty line?

(a) 50 million (b) 88 million (c) 60 million (d) 76 million

21.Who is an Urban poor as per the year 2011-12?

(a) Income Rs 450 per month per person

(b) Income Rs 500 per month per person

(c) Income Rs 1,000 per month per person

(d) Income Rs 454 per month per person

22.What is accepted average calories required in India in urban areas?

(a) 2100 (b) 2400 (c) 2800 (d) 2500

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