MGT101 Test Bank

CHAPTER 1—THE MANAGER'S JOB
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Management is the process of
a. maintaining the status quo.
b. planning, organizing and staffing, leading, and controlling.
c. keeping labor from taking over.
d. facilitating groups.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 2

NAT: AACSB: Analytic, Strategy
2. Crafting a strategic(chiến lược) vision(tầm nhìn) is typically the responsibility of a

a. first-level manager.
b. middle-level manager.
c. staff professional.
d. top-level manager.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: p. 3

3. Three roles or activities within entrepreneurial (khởi nghiệp) work that arouse
passion do NOT include:
a. opportunity recognition
b. venture growth
c. human resources
d. venture creation
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: pp. 6-7

NAT: AACSB: Analytic, Leadership Principles
4. Nick is a successful entrepreneur, so he probably emphasizes(nhấn mạnh) which of

the following dimensions in his work?
a. Innovativeness
b. minimizing risks
c. reacting to events rather than being proactive
d. a love for the status quo
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 6
NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking, Leadership Principles
5. On the job, Candice coordinates (kết hợp) the work of a small group of people and
acts as a catalyst. Her job title is most likely
a. vice president.
b. CEO.
c. plant general manager.
d. team leader.

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking, Group Dynamics
6. An important role for the team leader is to

a. act as a catalyst and facilitator.
b. tightly control the work of team members.
c. set a strategic direction for the firm.
d. avoid interactions with team members.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: p. 7

7. Sherri Jackson is a sales manager. She searches the Internet to find new
potential(tiềm năng) markets for her products. Jackson is most directly making use
of ____ resources.
a. Human
b. Financial
c. Physical
d. Information
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 8

NAT: AACSB: Technology, Information Technology
8. Which function of management is most involved with energizing, directing,

activating, and persuading others?
a. Leading
b. Controlling
c. Planning
d. organizing and staffing
9. With respect to(about) creating visions, leaders often fail because they do not
a. have fancy enough visions.
b. Convert their visions into results.
c. use visions for inspiration.
d. bribe people for accomplishing a vision.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: p. 10

10. Controlling is primarily concerned with(liên quan)

a. making rational decisions.
b. comparing actual performance to a predetermined standard.
c. influencing people to perform better.
d. laying out work in a logical manner.

NAT: AACSB: Analytic, Individual Dynamics
11. The two planning roles for manager involve

a. monitoring and disturbance handling.
b. strategy and operations.
c. being a figurehead and a spokesperson.
d. team building and team play.

12. Making sure that competent persons fill positions is part of which managerial role?
a. Organizer
b. Liaison
c. staffing coordinator
d. resource allocator
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: p. 12
NAT: AACSB: Analytic, HRM
13. With respect to managers, poor interpersonal skills

a. have a neutral impact on performance.
b. can lead to job failure.
c. are not important because "Nice guys and gals finish last."
d. only create problems at the first two levels of management.

NAT: AACSB: Communication, Individual Dynamics
14. Political skills should be regarded as a

a. supplement to job competence.
b. way to overcome job incompetence.
c. way of creating ambiguity on the job.
d. privilege of top management.

15. A key part of developing your managerial skills would be to

a. forget about practice as soon as you acquire a skill.
b. practice kick boxing to sharpen your reflexes.
c. obtain feedback on your performance.
d. ignore the comments of others on how well you are doing.

16. At the higher levels of management, the four roles that are the most important
include::
a. organizer, visionary, team builder, facilitator.
b. Liaison (liên lạc), spokesperson, figurehead, and strategic planner
c. environmental specialist, mentor, coach, ethics officer.
d. administrator, implementor, entrepreneur, task coordinator
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: p. 16

17. According to Mintzberg, management is a practice, rather than a science or a

profession because
a. science is about the development of systematic knowledge through
research.
b. management follows an ethical code.
c. the major purpose of management is to help get things done.
d. both a & c
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: p. 16

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking, Individual Dynamics
18. Management as a practice,

a. began during the Industrial Revolution.
b. probably has an almost unlimited history.
c. dates back to World War II.
d. dates back to the Civil War.

19. The primary concern of the administrative management aspect of classical

management was
a. managing a company's information system.
b. teaching nonprofit organizations how to be successful.
c. how organizations should be managed and structured.
d. the application of scientific methods to increase workers' productivity.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 21

20. According to the historically important work of Alfred D. Chandler, when choosing
an organization structure, managers should first
a. study what the competition is doing.
b. be aware of the strategy.
c. draw a hundred boxes to choose from.
d. look for the least expensive structure.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: pp. 21- 22
NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking, Strategy
21. The behavioral approach to management emphasizes

a. developing systems for dealing with personnel problems.
b. the interaction of the firm with the environment.
c. finding the most efficient systems of production.
d. understanding people.

22. An organization may experience entropy when

a. its total output exceeds the sum of the parts.
b. it does not receive fresh inputs from the external environment.
c. too many employees call in sick in a given year.
d. three consecutive new products are winners.

23. An important subset of interpersonal skills for managers is the ability to work
effectively and conduct business with people from different cultures.
a. Multiculturalism
b. Bilingualism
c. Diversity
d. Multinationalism

NAT: AACSB: Diversity, Motivation Concepts
24. You are using evidence-based management when your practice is based on
a. a recent fad.
b. what your CEO thinks is hot.
c. thinking by philosophers.
d. an established principle.
25. Evidence-based management chooses an organizational practice based on

a. the best evidence available.
b. qualitative evidence only.
c. quantitative evidence only.
d. careful forecasts.

CHAPTER 2—INTERNATIONAL MANAGEMENT AND CULTURAL DIVERSITY
MULTIPLE CHOICE
21.The majority of cultures throughout the world are
a. relationship oriented.
b. task oriented.
c. old-age oriented.
d. youth oriented.
1. A distinguishing(phân biệt) feature(tính năng) of a multinational corporation(tập

đoàn) is that it
a. exports some of its products and services.
b. pays comparable wages wherever it conducts business.
c. has a culturally diverse group of executives.
d. has units in two or more countries in addition to its own.

2. The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) creates liberal trading
relationships among
a. North American and Pacific Rim countries.
b. North American and European countries.
c. the United States and Canada.
d. the United States, Canada, and Mexico.

NAT: AACSB: Analytic, Legal Responsibilities
3. A concern(quan tâm) many labor union officials have about NAFTA is that it has
created
a. wealthy Canadian and Mexican workers at the expense of U.S.
workers.
b. a job loss for American workers.
c. widespread violations of child labor laws.
d. limited trade between Mexico and the United States.

NAT: AACSB: Diversity, Legal Responsibilities
4. The major purpose of the European Union (EU) is to turn member countries into
a. Countries with the identical currency.
b. a single marketplace for ideas, goods, and services.
c. free trade agreements with the United States.
d. fierce competitors.

NAT: AACSB: Analytic, Environmental Influence
5. The World Trade Organization

a. imposes tariffs on countries with a history of human rights violations.
b. liberalizes trade among many nations throughout the world.
c. lowers trade barriers and tariffs for developing countries.
d. Increases trade barriers and tariffs for industrialized countries.

6. An advantage of free-trade agreements for a company like Big Moe, the paper
recycler in New Jersey, is that the company can
a. avoid paying United States income tax.
b. avoid paying New Jersey income tax.
c. import trees from China and India more readily.
d. Export more easily.

7. A major advantage of offshoring(đưa ra nc ngoài) for some American companies is

that they
a. lower costs and therefore become more competitive.
b. raise prices to cover the costs of offshoring.
c. develop closer alliances with American labor unions.
d. can avoid participation in international business.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: pp. 40-41

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking, Operations Management
8. A key characteristic(tính chất) of multicultural workers is that they

a. have worked for one or more multicultural organizations.
b. believe in the importance of a favorable balance of trade.
c. are convinced(persuade) that all cultures are equally good.
d. can speak at least two languages fluently.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: p. 43

NAT: AACSB: Diversity, HRM
9. You are attempting to sell a British customer a corporate jet. He tells you that your
proposal "holds of bit of promise." At this point you probably
a. will sign a contract within the hour.
b. are being scrutinized for ethical violations.
c. stand a good chance of making the sale.
d. have no chance of making the sale.

10. Cultural sensitivity is

a. awareness of local and national customs
b. being extra-respectful of rank.
c. realizing the importance of local customs in effective interpersonal
relationships.
d. both a & c

NAT: AACSB: Diversity, Individual Dynamics
11. Billy is a supervisor(người giám sát) from Billings, Montana (United States). You
can tell that Billy is ethnocentric(chủ nghĩa dân tộc) when he
a. worries about the U. S. trade deficit.
b. Decorates his cubicle with photos of cowboys, cowgirls, and their
horses.
c. claims that the "real good people are only from Montana."
d. deliberately hires people who will make his group more diverse.

12. You have good global leadership skills when you can
a. go on an overseas business trip without developing culture shock.
b. effectively lead people from other cultures.
c. get diverse members of your group to work well together.
d. speak two or more languages fluently.

NAT: AACSB: Communication, Leadership Principles
13. A major effect of a weak currency is that companies based in the country with the
weak currency
a. can export more readily.
b. find it more difficult to export.
c. are forced to increase their wages.
d. are forced to decrease their wages.

NAT: AACSB: Analytic, Operations Management
14. A country’s balance of trade is
a. the trade deficit..
b. a trade surplus.
c. the difference between exports and imports in both goods and services.
d. the lowering of the value of currency

NAT: AACSB: Analytic, Creation of Value
15. The trade deficit(thâm hụt) can be attributed to

a. the preference for Americans to purchase lower-priced goods
b. increase in the price of imported petroleum products..
c. the preference to take vacations in foreign countries.
d. all of the choices

16. The symptoms(triệu chứng) of culture shock usually stem from

a. an intense dislike for foreign cultures.
b. an electrifying experience in another country.
c. being abruptly placed in a foreign culture.
d. being forced to learn a foreign language quickly.

17. A major problem for the international business manager is

a. converting currency from one country to another.
b. revenue lost due to pirating in other countries.
c. finding countries with a large enough consumer base.
d. finding Spanish-speaking workers in the United States.

NAT: AACSB: Ethics, Legal Responsibilities
18. A key feature(tính năng) of the global startup is that it

a. deposits its receipts in a Swiss bank.
b. begins business as an international company.
c. begins operations as an import-export company.
d. avoids many taxes by beginning offshore.

19. A success factor for businesses in the global marketplace is to

a. think globally, act locally.
b. diversify into quite different product markets.
c. staff most key positions with people from your own country.
d. conduct almost all business in English.

NAT: AACSB: Diversity, Creation of Value
20. A major success factor in building a business in another country is

a. to hire citizens from the United States.
b. to judge candidates based on U.S. perceptions and criteria.
c. to sell American products.
d. to hire talented citizens of that country to fill important positions.

21. Diversity refers to

a. people with different group identities within the same work
environment
b. developing the right foreign language skill.
c. Acquiring valid information about the firm’s target market.
d. reducing the trade deficit.

NAT: AACSB: Diversity, Group Dynamics
22. English is the official language of business because

a. diversity training has not been implemented in many companies.
b. the Internet and information technology place a heavy emphasis on
English.
c. American companies have an ethnocentric point of view.
d. Everyone in the world speaks English.

NAT: AACSB: Communication, Information Technologies
23. Diversity training sessions

a. focus on the ways that men and women reflect different values and
attitudes.
b. focus on the ways that people of different races reflect different
cultural backgrounds.
c. focus on entering international markets.
d. both a & b

24. Which one of the following is the least likely to be an advantage of cultural
diversity to the organization?
a. The company gains a marketing advantage, including increased sales and profits.
b. The company is able to recruit a wider range of talented people.
c. The company does not have to deal with different perspectives, thereby slowing
down problem solving.
d. The company advertising reduces the number of cultural bloopers and hidden
biases.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: pp. 62-63

NAT: AACSB: Diversity, Strategy
25. With respect to diversity, an employee network group consists of

a. Members of the same buddy group for instant messaging.
b. Company employees who band together to bring complaints to
management.
c. Members of the same diversity training group.
d. Company employees who affiliate on the basis of a demographic or
cultural identity.
NAT: AACSB: Diversity, Group Dynamics
CHAPTER 4—ESSENTIALS OF PLANNING
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Planning is
a. a complex and comprehensive process involving interrelated stages.
b. organizing, implementing, and controlling.
c. finding the best person for a job.
d. communicating effectively with stakeholders.

2. Strategic plans are designed to

a. implement operational plans.
b. establish day-by-day procedures.
c. shape the destiny of the firm.
d. carrying out the functions of management.

3. The purpose of tactical(chien thuat) planning is to

a. establish a general purpose for the organization.
b. translate strategic plans into specific goals and plans for organizational
units.
c. tell entry level workers what to do on a daily basis.
d. compensate for past mistakes.
4. Branch manager Hector establishes recycling goals for his branch(chi nhanh) to
support the company's strategic goal of being a good environmental partner. What
is Hector doing?
a. tactical planning
b. strategic planning
c. long-range planning
d. vision formulation

5. A study of CEO failure indicated that 70 percent of the time their failures were
attributed(dc cho la) to
a. poorly developed plans.
b. poor execution, not poor planning.
c. over-ambitious plans.
d. lack of adequate cost controls.

6. A manager controls the plan when he or she

a. creates a vision statement.
b. creates a mission statement.
c. establishes a budget to pay for the action plan.
d. checks to see how well goals are being attained.

7. A contingency(du phong) plan is implemented(conduct) if the

a. strategic plan is too modest.
b. control processes do not work.
c. original plan cannot be implemented.
d. action plan succeeds.

8. Which one of the following is a component(thanh phan) of true business strategy?

a. a high level of operational effectiveness
b. a set of activities common to other firms
c. giving customers trade-offs
d. having quite different activities to make similar products for different
markets

9. A key difference between a vision(tam nhin) and a mission is that

a. the mission relates more to today's realities.
b. a mission is set farther into the future.
c. a vision does not deal with products or services.
d. a vision deals more with operations.

10. A recommended procedure(thu tuc) for formulating(build) strategy is for top-level

managers to
a. form a small committee to do most of the work.
b. gather inputs from large numbers of people.
c. perform the task themselves during a retreat.
d. base strategy on fixing customer complaints.

11. The purpose of the strategic inventory(hang ton kho) is to help the manager
a. size up the environment accurately.
b. determine how much inventory is on hand.
c. involve workers at all levels in formulating strategy.
d. develop operating plans.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: p. 129

12. Which one of the following strategies should be classified as a business-level

strategy?
a. strategic alliances
b. diversification of goods and services
c. product differentiation
d. sticking to core competencies

13. The purpose of a SWOT analysis is to assess

a. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.
b. strategy, weaknesses, options, and time.
c. satisfactions, worst options, and trade-offs.
d. successes, winners, and ominous threats.

14. Which one of the following is not one of the five competitive forces that business
strategists are supposed to take into account?
a. competition among business units within the firm
b. the power of customers to affect pricing and reduce profit margins
c. the threat of similar or substitute products
d. the power of suppliers to influence the company's pricing

15. The firm's purpose and where it fits into the world is identified by the
a. strategy.
b. policy.
c. mission.
d. objective.

16. McDonald's states that it would like "to satisfy the world's appetite for good food,
well-served, at a price people can afford." The preceding reflects McDonald's
a. cost-leadership strategy.
b. mission.
c. annual goal statement.
d. advertising campaign.

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking, Creation of Value
17. Krispy Kreme donuts, a well-known donut retailer (but much smaller than Dunkin
Donuts), most likely emphasizes which one of the following business strategies?
a. cost leadership
b. product differentiation
c. strategic alliances
d. high speed

18. When two pharmaceutical firms get together to market a drug, their strategy is
referred to as
a. high speed.
b. cost leadership.
c. product differentiation.
d. a strategic alliance.

19. Suppose that Starbucks opens a nation-wide chain of carwashes, called Starbucks
Car Wash. After two years, the executive team sells of the car washes, and invests
the cash back into building more Starbucks stores. The strategy illustrated is
referred to as
a. high speed.
b. sticking to core competencies.
c. product diversification.
d. a strategic alliance.

20. A functional strategy for becoming and remaining a successful organization is to

a. form a strategic alliance.
b. find and retain competent people.
c. get to market faster than others.
d. export products.

21. Assume that Motorola developed a cell and camera phone so small it comes with a
strap to wear on the wrist like a watch. Which strategy does this product launch
most likely fit?
a. cost leadership
b. product differentiation
c. Focus
d. high speed

22. Save-A-Lot has become one of the most successful grocery chains by serving the
poor and offering low prices. This is an example of
a. focus strategy.
b. premium pricing.
c. product differentiation
d. cost leadership
23. Policies serve as guidelines to action

a. that still allow for some interpretation.
b. that must be followed quite strictly.
c. for workers below the top-management level.
d. mostly in the areas of finance and human resources.

24. Management by objectives (MBO) includes

a. reviewing group members’ proposals.
b. creating action plans to achieve objectives.
c. establishing unit objectives.
d. all of the choices.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: pp. 142-143

25. Part of Domino’s Pizza’s original success was based on getting pizzas delivered
more quickly than competitors. This strategy is called
a. strategic planning
b. cost leadership
c. focus.
d. high speed

CHAPTER 6—QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES FOR PLANNING AND DECISION

MAKING
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Juanita is a data-driven manager, so she
a. minimizes interaction with people when working.
b. bases her decisions on facts.
c. finely tunes her intuition.
d. emphasizes politics in her decision making.

NAT: AACSB: Analytic, Motivation Concepts
2. Richard is a data-driven manager, so he tells subordinates,

a. "Don't politic, use data."
b. "Politic, don't use data."
c. "Pay for your own lunch while on a business trip."
d. "Donate 10 percent of your gross income to charity."

3. A judgmental forecast is
a. based on a collection of subjective opinions..
b. a qualitative forecasting method.
c. both a & b
d. a quantitative forecasting method.

4. A major reason that forecasting is so important in business is that

a. customers often demand forecasts before they purchase equipment.
b. forecasts accurately describe a company's history.
c. forecasts are good for spotting errors in current operations.
d. spotting trends can give you an edge over the competition.

5. The results of a time-series analysis are best represented by a(n)

a. equation with two variables.
b. chart or graph showing past trends and predicted future trends.
c. verbal summary of expert opinions.
d. pie chart of the various components of the analysis.

6. CEO Maria is so convinced that company sales will triple, that she commits the
company to lavish new expenses without making contingency plans if the sales
growth does not take place. Maria might be falling into the
a. prudence trap.
b. overconfidence trap.
c. recallability trap.
d. subjective thinking trap.

7. The World Future Society predicts that 100 million people with telecommute by the
year 2015, illustrating a(n) ____ forecast.
a. Economic
b. Sales
c. Technological
d. Doomsday

8. The two major variables considered by Gantt charts and milestone charts are
a. planned and actual work.
b. past and present.
c. time and motion.
d. price and cost.

9. The numbers in a PERT network refer to the

a. amount of time consumed by events.
b. completion date for projects.
c. time required to complete activities between events.
d. average of the optimistic and pessimistic times.

10. The critical path is the path through the PERT network with the
a. shortest completion time.
b. longest completion time.
c. most probable time.
d. pessimistic time.

11. With a more refined application of PERT, the optimistic, pessimistic, and most
probable times should be based on
a. Bureau of Labor Statistics estimates.
b. the intuition of someone new to the task.
c. the intuition of a well-experienced worker.
d. a frequency distribution of estimates.

12. In addition to estimating the time required for activities, advanced applications of
PERT estimate the
a. job satisfaction associated with the task.
b. amount of resources to needed to accomplish the job.
c. productivity bonuses paid to workers who finish on schedule.
d. starting day of the project.

NAT: AACSB: Strategy
13. The break-even point occurs when

a. fixed costs and fixed revenues are equal.
b. variable costs and variable revenues are equal.
c. the units produced equal the units sold.
d. total costs and total revenues are equal.

14. Break-even analysis indicates the ____ that will be necessary to justify a new
expense.
a. increase in sales.
b. increase in costs.
c. amount of profit.
d. volume of activity.

15. Fixed cost in break-even analysis refers to the cost that

a. remains constant no matter how many units are produced.
b. covers the initial capital expenditures.
c. covers everything but employee compensation.
d. declines after the break-even point has been reached.

16. A decision tree graphically depicts

a. the alternative solutions available to solve a problem.
b. cause and effect relationships.
c. how much inventory to keep on hand.
d. the states of nature.

17. An expected value for a decision tree is the value you would expect if
a. you calculated how much revenue is needed to break even.
b. your business were sold within 30 days.
c. a particular decision is made a large number of times.
d. you took a poll of what people want.

18. A decision tree is considered particularly useful in

a. evaluating costs over the life of a project.
b. making a sequence of decisions.
c. estimating the length of time required to achieve given return on
investment.
d. determining when to drop a product line.

19. The economic-order quantity (EOQ) suggests the

a. right size orders to take.
b. break-even point for storing inventory.
c. break-even point for sales orders.
d. right amount of inventory to store.

20. Under a just-in-time inventory system, inventory is moved into a plant as soon as
a. the supplier can deliver.
b. the manufacturer has shelf space.
c. it can be bought at the right price.
d. it is needed.

21. Just-in-time inventorys often referred to

a. supply-chain management
b. as lean manufacturing because waste of “fat” is minimized.
c. operations management.
d. as custom manufacturing.

22. The just in time system of inventory control relies on

a. cards, to communicate production requirements from the final point of
assembly to the manufacturing operations that precede it.
b. kanbans
c. both a & b
d. shipping directly from suppliers.

23. Under the inventory system, FIFO, you sell

a. by shipping directly from one of your suppliers.
b. the first goods you obtained last
c. the last goods you obtained first.
d. the first goods you obtained first.

24. Sell the most recently received items first is called

a. FIFO
b. JIT
c. LIFO
d. Wholesaling

25. A Pareto diagram is

a. an inventory method
b. a bar graph that ranks types of output variations by frequency of
occurrence.
c. a forecasting tool.
d. a scenario for the future

CHAPTER 7—JOB DESIGN AND WORK SCHEDULES
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Marvin's job involves selling used trucks. To boost his job satisfaction, Marvin's
boss authorizes him to tell the dealer when a truck needs a paint job in order to sell.
Which task characteristic has been added to Marvin's job?
a. feedback from the job
b. decision-making authority
c. work methods autonomy
d. task significance

2. A job contains high task significance when the

a. work output touches the lives of many people.
b. work output earns a profit for the firm.
c. job holder has varied working hours.
d. job holder receives frequent feedback from the boss.

3. Airplane mechanic Clyde tells his boss, "This job is killing my back. Crawling into
small places every day is more than I can tolerate." Which job sub-dimension is
Clyde complaining about?
a. Ergonomics
b. Interdependence
c. skill variety
d. work methods autonomy
4. A job description is a written statement of the

a. key features of a job.
b. qualifications necessary to fill a job.
c. design features of a job.
d. degree of specialization within a job.

5. A major benefit of job specialization is that it allows for

a. a flexible work force.
b. enrichment of virtually all jobs.
c. excellent coordination of contributors to a total job.
d. the development of expertise at all occupational levels.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: pp. 231-232

6. An enriched job typically includes the element of

a. control over resources.
b. indirect communication authority.
c. routine experiences.
d. limited personal accountability.

7. Control over method in job enrichment means that the worker

a. communicates directly with the client or customer.
b. must present to management an analysis of the best method.
c. chooses the method to accomplish the assigned task.
d. must try a new method for accomplishing the task.

8. In the job characteristics model, the task dimension of autonomy leads to

a. skill variety.
b. a feeling of meaningfulness.
c. a feeling of responsibility for work outcomes.
d. job satisfaction.

9. Before implementing a program of job enrichment it is recommended that the

manager
a. grant immediate pay increases.
b. find out if employees want an enriched job.
c. rewrite job descriptions for all employees involved.
d. empower employees to enrich their own jobs.

10. Workers with high job involvement will

a. identify psychologically with their work.
b. involve others in getting their work done.
c. separate their self-image from their work.
d. search for horizontal job loading.

11. Zeke is in charge of stocking shelves in the soft-drink aisle in a supermarket. To

apply job enlargement, the store manager might
a. allow Zeke to do market research about soft-drink consumption.
b. schedule Zeke to switch back and forth between stocking the soft-drink
and pet-food aisles.
c. give Zeke the additional permanent assignment of also stocking the
dry-cereal section.
d. assign Zeke flexible working hours.

12. Priscilla, a customer service representative at a call center, adds to her job by asking
customers how much they liked their previous purchase. Priscilla is engaged in job
a. simplification.
b. rotation.
c. crafting.
d. specialization.

13. Job embeddedness refers to

a. the array of forces attaching people to their jobs.
b. the physical and mental changes individuals make in the task or
relationship aspects of their job.
c. a temporary switching of job assignments.
d. increasing the number and variety of tasks within a job.

14. Which one of the following is not a common type of job crafting? Making changes
in
a. the pay structure of a job.
b. the number and types of job tasks.
c. the interactions with others on the job.
d. one's view of a job.

15. Which of the following is the least effective method for preventing cumulative
trauma disorder?
a. use the computer mouse whenever possible
b. rotate jobs to reduce repetitive hand and body movements
c. install equipment that minimizes awkward hand and body movements
d. use voice recognition systems as a substitute for keyboarding

NAT: AACSB: Technology, Information Technology
16. An experiment about noise levels with female clerical workers demonstrated that
the workers exposed to noise
a. increased their productivity levels.
b. capitalized more on ergonomic features of their work furniture.
c. experienced inner-ear damage.
d. developed high levels of stress hormones in the blood.

17. A modified work schedule

a. is any formal departure from the traditional hours of work.
b. excludes shift work and staggered work hours.
c. both a & b
d. leads to ergonomic problems.

18. A study showed that a major reason why employees are hesitant to use the flextime
option is that they
a. are concerned about appearing uncommitted to work.
b. dislike starting work so early.
c. dislike staying so late at work.
d. cannot afford the reduction in pay.

19. A potential disadvantage of telecommuting is that workers at home are likely to
a. work on weekends.
b. face distractions at home.
c. feel isolation from coworkers.
d. feel exploited.

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking, HRM
20. Job sharing is a work arrangement in which

a. two people who work part-time share one job.
b. salary and benefits are prorated for the half-time workers.
c. both a & b
d. employees work from home.

21. High-performance work system is a way of organizing work so that

a. jobs are enlarged
b. front-line workers participate in decisions that have an impact on their
jobs and the wider organization.
c. jobs are rotated.
d. telecommuting can take place.

22. According to the policy of job sharing,

a. high-paid workers share pay with low-paid workers.
b. workers without an office share get to use the offices of those
belonging to managers.
c. two part-time workers share one job.
d. workers delegate work to those lower in rank.

23. Contingent workers
a. share jobs with other employees.
b. are only hired when they are needed.
c. always work less than 40 hours per week.
d. work for more than one employer at a time.

24. A major characteristic of a high-performance work system in a manufacturing

environment is that
a. workers are allowed limited rest breaks.
b. time and motion studies dictate work methods.
c. supervisors make all the important decisions.
d. workers participate in making decisions that have an impact.

25. According to the method of creating high-performance jobs by adjusting resources,

bookkeeper Pam will perform at her best when she
a. gets paid more than most bookkeepers.
b. creates her own resources.
c. gets all the resources she needs to do her job.
d. consults regularly with a human resources specialist.

CHAPTER 8—ORGANIZATION STRUCTURE, CULTURE, AND CHANGE
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The clearest example of a staff department in a manufacturing(chế tạo) organization
would be
a. sales.
b. operations.
c. food services.
d. quality assurance.

2. One of the reasons that bureaucracies(bộ máy hành chính) have endured(chịu đựng)
is that they
a. provide ample opportunity for risk taking and thrill seeking.
b. help satisfy people's need for order and security.
c. were designed with the age of the Internet in mind.
d. are almost immune to downsizing.

3. A notable disadvantage of a bureaucracy is that it often leads to

a. unclear managerial responsibility.
b. rigidity in dealing with people.
c. an insufficient amount of rules and regulations.
d. wide of span of control.

4. The organization structure best suited to gaining the advantage of specialization is

____ departmentalization.
a. Functional
b. Geographic
c. Product
d. Matrix

5. A disadvantage of product-service departmentalization is that
a. customer needs may be neglected.
b. field units lack authority.
c. it often leads to duplication of effort.
d. employees rarely identify with the field units.

6. A key advantage of geographic departmentalization is that it allows for

a. decision making at a local level
b. consideration of the local culture.
c. a & b
d. a one size fits all strategy

7. A matrix organization can be described as a(n) ____ structure superimposed on a

____ structure.
a. project; functional
b. product; territorial
c. process; product
d. informal; formal

8. A wide span of control is advised when

a. there is considerable flux in the work setting.
b. group members perform similar tasks.
c. group members are physically dispersed.
d. group members and the manager are highly capable.

9. Downsizing(thu hẹp) is the most likely to be successful when
a. high-value activity is eliminated first.
b. information about the pending layoff is held back from employees.
c. it is part of the business strategy to improve the company.
d. it is a stopgap measure to save the company money.

10. Companies such as Dell purchase complete designs for some digital devices from
Asian developers. This is called
a. division of labor
b. Outsourcing
c. Implementing
d. scenario planning

11. You know that you are a homesourcing agent when you
a. perform call center duties out of your home.
b. sell products from door to door.
c. organize parties in your home to sell products.
d. work in a large call center responding to problems with consumer
products.

12. An example of a horizontal organization structure would be a

a. department producing an engine.
b. team assembling components for company machines.
c. purchasing department.
d. team responsible for filling orders.

13. The radical redesign of work to achieve substantial improvements in performance is
called:
a. Reengineering
b. job design
c. Downsizing
d. resistance to change

14. To become part of the informal organization structure, you should

a. study the company organization chart carefully.
b. become a temporary worker.
c. send your résumé to key managers.
d. establish a network of contacts to help you accomplish work.

15. Flexible organization structures, such as project and matrix structures, are the most
likely to be found in
a. high-technology firms.
b. lumber mills.
c. pasta factories.
d. poultry processing plants.

NAT: AACSB: Technology, Strategy
16. A suggestion for effective delegation is to

a. delegate part of a task.
b. give as much instruction as needed.
c. closely monitor the details.
d. assign the task to the highest-ranking company official.

17. Long John Silver’s central headquarters exercises tight control over such matters as
menu selection; however, franchises make human resource decisions such as hiring.
This is an example of
a. Centralization
b. Decentralization
c. Specialization
d. centralization and decentralization

18. The foundation of an organizational culture is the organization's

a. relative diversity.
b. values.
c. resource allocation and rewards.
d. degree of change.

19. The dimension or organization culture called a sense of ownership, typically comes
about when
a. the company helps employees purchase houses.
b. employees develop pride in the company.
c. the company helps employees get out of debt.
d. employees purchase stock in the company.

20. The primary way that employees learn the organization culture is through
a. the process of socialization.
b. studying the company Website.
c. studying the company intranet.
d. making mistakes and then being corrected.

NAT: AACSB: Analytic, Group Dynamics
21. The right organizational culture can enhance
a. productivity, quality, and morale.
b. person-organization fit.
c. competitive advantage.

22. CEO Justin wants to sustain the company's culture. One of the recommended
actions he can take is to
a. suggest that employees decide on their own culture.
b. bring outsiders into the company whose values clash with the
company's culture.
c. include a statement of the company's desired culture in the annual
report.
d. serve as a role model for the desired attitudes and behaviors.

23. A recommended technique for gaining support for change is to

a. discuss and negotiate sensitive issues.
b. figure out what to do as one goes along.
c. discourage worker participation in the changes.
d. avoid discussion about financial consequences.

24. An important emphasis of a Six Sigma program is to

a. prevent problems.
b. punish employees who perform sloppy work.
c. minimize the behavioral aspects of achieving high quality.
d. base quality standards on individual differences.

25. In the Model for Change, ______________involves reducing or eliminating

resistance to change.
a. Refreezing
b. Changing
c. Thawing
d. Unfreezing .

CHAPTER 9—STAFFING AND HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Human resources executive Sarah says, "I finally have a seat at the table." She most
likely is implying that
a. she is allowed into the executive dining room.
b. her work is tied in with company business strategy.
c. she no longer has to stand in the back of the room during meetings.
d. she will be allowed to negotiate with the labor union.

2. A specific way in which human resources contributes to business strategy is by

a. helping to build high-performance work practices.
b. organizing company picnics.
c. making PowerPoint presentations to top management.
d. helping to prepare job descriptions.

3. An example of a workplace factor that could lead to turnover is

a. a booming economy with many job opportunities.
b. a worker's limited ability to cope with the job demands.
c. job-hopping tendencies of the worker.
d. lack of emotional support from the supervisor.

4. According to the theory of job imbeddedness, whether employees stay with a firm
depends on
a. how long a worker has held the job.
b. how well the employee is liked by coworkers.
c. a variety of factors on and off the job.
d. the worker's demographic characteristics.

5. An affirmative action program must comply with anti-discrimination law and

a. create managerial opportunities for minorities and women.
b. change employee attitudes about discrimination.
c. increase minority hiring by 40 percent.
d. increase minority pay by 40 percent.

6. According to federal laws prohibiting discrimination, it is illegal to discriminate

against people
a. in any aspect of employment.
b. mostly with respect to hiring.
c. mostly with respect to transfer, promotion, layoff, or recall.
d. mostly with respect to recruitment and testing.

NAT: AACSB: Ethics, Legal Responsibilities
7.The general purpose of strategic human resource planning is to
a. develop selection systems to meet the needs of the firm.
b. control costs in carrying out the human resource function.
c. identify skills needed for the success of the business.
d. ensure that business strategy does not neglect people.

8. Recruiting is the process of

a. attracting job candidates.
b. finding candidates with the right characteristics and skills to fill job
openings.
c. both a & b
d. training job candidates.

9. A job specification describes the

a. working conditions encountered on the job.
b. pay and benefits associated with the job.
c. demands of the job.
d. qualifications needed for the job.

10. Online recruiting

a. now accounts for about 80% of external hires.
b. occurs on social networking Web sites such as Facebook, LinkedIn,
and Twitter.
c. is considered discriminatory because they require computer literacy.
d. suffers from not attracting a large enough number of inquiries.

NAT: AACSB: Technology, HRM
11. Much informal learning takes place
a. in meetings
b. on breaks
c. in customer interactions

NAT: AACSB: Communication, Environmental Influence
12. A multicultural employee

a. is able to conduct business in another culture.
b. was raised in a multicultural environment.
c. speaks three or more languages fluently.
d. has experience working in other countries.

13. An example of a knock out question for a flight attendant would be

a. "Would you want a child of yours to be an airplane pilot?"
b. "Are you currently employed?"
c. "Who invented the airplane?"
d. "Are you afraid of flying?"

NAT: AACSB: Communication, Strategy
14. All of the big five personality factors

a. are included in the Americans with Disabilities Act.
b. influence job performance.
c. are part of measuring the person-organization fit.
d. create job problems, if present.

15. The purpose of a realistic job preview is to give the job applicant a(n)
a. accurate picture of the potential problems within the job.
b. accurate picture of the earnings potential within the job.
c. thorough analysis of his or her perceived strengths.
d. thorough analysis of his or her perceived weaknesses.

NAT: AACSB: Communication, HRM
16. Lucy applies for the position of ambulance medic. To give her a job simulation
screening test, the interviewer
a. asks her to say the alphabet backwards in three minutes.
b. has her stop the bleeding of an accident victim.
c. interviews her in an ambulance.
d. interviews her in an operating room.

17. E-learning, is least likely to be effective for teaching

a. financial ratios.
b. product information.
c. interpersonal skills.
d. software skills.

NAT: AACSB: Technology, Individual Dynamics
18. A key advantage of delivering training content by MP3 players is that workers can
a. listen to music while being trained.
b. impress customers with how cool they look.
c. design their own training content.
d. receive training during spare moments.

NAT: AACSB: Technology, Information Technologies
19. Performance, as measured in performance evaluation systems, appears to have the

three following components:
a. task performance, interpersonal performance, and mental performance
b. task performance, citizenship performance, and counterproductive
performance
c. past performance, present performance, and future performance
d. performance related to customers, the manager, and coworkers

20. Forced rankings

a. evaluate employees against a performance standard.
b. measure employees against one another.
c. select an outstanding performer.
d. both a & b.

21. Performance evaluation methods are usually designed to measure

a. Traits
b. behavior.
c. results.

22. 360-degree feedback is

a. a performance appraisal.
b. an evaluation using a sampling of all the people with whom an
employee interacts.
c. both a & b
d. a selection tool.

23.
A ranking system that requires managers to rank each employee within each unit
and
distribute raises and bonuses accordingly is called
a. stack-ranking
b. 360-degree feedback
c. employee benefits
d. workman’s compensation

24. Under a variable pay system, workers receive some of their pay based on
a. demonstration of skills.
b. demonstration of competencies the company needs for its success.
c. number of years of employment.
d. actual job performance.

25. A concern is that in some industries, union demands for compensation

a. include variable pay.
b. have made it difficult for companies to remain competitive.
c. include wellness clinics.
d. seek unfair treatment for workers.

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking, Environmental Influence
CHAPTER 10—LEADERSHIP
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In organizations, leadership can be exerted

a. by many people, as well as managers.
b. only by the top two levels of management.
c. only on permanent assignments.
d. by people with or without leadership capability.
2. Management focuses on
a. continuous improvement of the status quo.
b. change that compels a group to innovate.
c. eliciting cooperation and teamwork.
d. having a vision

3. Team members must identify with the leader in order for the leader to exercise ____
power.
a. Reward
b. Coercive
c. Legitimate
d. Referent

4. A key aspect of leading by example is for the leader to

a. set high goals for group members.
b. be assertive with group members.
c. appeal to the rationality of group members
d. show a consistency between actions and words.

5. Leading by values is similar to influencing people through

a. giving them rewards for good deeds.
b. the organization culture.
c. being assertive.
d. exchange of favors.
NAT: AACSB: Ethics, Ethical Responsibilities
6. When a leader empowers employees, the leader accepts them as

a. part of his or her zone of indifference.
b. workers with higher rank than himself or herself.
c. partners in decision making.
d. leaders by example.

7. Mitch exercises self-leadership when he

a. leads himself to accomplish a difficult but important task.
b. asks for a raise outside of a performance evaluation meeting.
c. gets coworkers to recommend him for a promotion.
d. encourages coworkers to perform well.

8. Empowerment as a leadership technique

a. works better in some cultures than in others.
b. works in all cultures.
c. works to the extent that cultural values support power sharing.
d. both a & c

NAT: AACSB: Diversity, Environmental Influence
9. A major characteristic of high achieving leaders is that they are

a. somewhat indifferent about the technology around them.
b. passionate about their work.
c. low on achievement motivation.
d. medium with respect to emotional intelligence.

10. For best results, the leader should combine self-confidence with
a. humility.
b. arrogance.
c. dishonesty.
d. a little sarcasm.

11. Under a policy of open-book management, workers are

a. expected to be totally honest with management.
b. exposed to financial details of the firm.
c. empowered to set their own wage rates.
d. expected to manage the financial aspects of their organizational units.

12. Feedback is considered very important as a way of

a. influencing behavior.
b. developing charisma.
c. manipulating team members.
d. exerting coercive power.

13. Which one of the following is the least likely to be an effective leadership
behavior?
a. giving and receiving frequent feedback
b. setting high performance standards for group members
c. being the opposite of a servant leader
d. quick recovery from setbacks

14. A major part of effective crisis leadership is for the leader to
a. present a plan for working out of the crisis.
b. point blame for the crisis in the right direction.
c. be excitable and angry.
d. delay decision making until a study of the crisis is completed.

15. A major aspect of being a consensus leader is to

a. retain considerable decision-making authority.
b. hold group discussions before making a decision.
c. confer with group members individually.
d. take a vote before making a final decision.

16. Soliciting suggestions for business improvement from front-line employees is an

example of ____ leadership.
a. Participative
b. Rational
c. Authoritarian
d. Charismatic

17. According to the Leadership Grid, which style of leadership leads to trust and
respect?
a. authoritarian management.
b. sound management.
c. extraverted management.
d. crisis management

18. In Situational Leadership II, leaders adapt their behavior to the level of ____ and
____ of a particular subordinate on a given task.
a. intelligence, personality
b. competence, commitment
c. goals, motives
d. knowledge, experience
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: pp. 370-371

19. Situational Leadership II explains that effective leadership depends on two

independent behaviors:
a. delegating and empowering
b. trusting and believing
c. supporting and directing.
d. directing and coaching

20. A notable characteristic of an entrepreneurial leader is a(n)

a. patient, plodding approach to problems.
b. passion for hierarchy and bureaucracy.
c. exceptional degree of enthusiasm.
d. exceptional degree of pessimism.

21. Transformations take place when the transformational leader

a. raises awareness of the importance of certain rewards.
b. helps people go beyond a focus on minor satisfactions.
c. gets people to look beyond self-interest.
d. all of the choices.

22. Charismatic leaders are able to
a. inspire others.
b. intimidate group members.
c. get coworkers to support each other.
d. get group members to compete against one another.

23. To developing charisma,

a. be laid back and aloof.
b. have low self-efficacy.
c. keep emotions under tight control.
d. make everybody feel important.

24. Shadowing as a mentoring technique involves

a. the mentor providing frequent feedback to the person mentored.
b. having a series of mentors.
c. observing the mentor by following him or her around.
d. showing considerable respect for the mentor in meetings.

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking, Motivation Concepts
fa
25. An example of a leadership skill would be
a. extraversion.
b. motivating others.
c. emotional stability.
d. conscientiousness.

NAT: AACSB: Communication, Motivation Concepts
CHAPTER 11—MOTIVATION
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Employee commitment often comes about as a consequence of

a. being well motivated over time.
b. threats of punishment.
c. being motivated for a single task.
d. having the appropriate job skills.

2. According to recent evidence about employee engagement, most American workers

are
a. so engaged in their work they risk becoming alcoholics.
b. usually engaged in their work for the first four hours of the day.
c. so unengaged in their work they are a liability to their employer.
d. not fully engaged in their work.

NAT: AACSB: Analytic, Group Dynamics
3. The final group of needs in Maslow's need hierarchy is

a. physiological needs.
b. esteem needs.
c. self-actualizing needs.
d. social needs.

4. A factor contributing today to the relevance of the need hierarchy is that

a. job security has reached new heights in recent years.
b. money is no longer a significant motivator.
c. so many workers have to worry about satisfying basic needs.
d. many companies sponsor programs of self-actualization.
5. Drives or needs are hardwired into our brains include the:

a. drive to acquire scare goods.
b. drive to bond.
c. drive to comprehend.

6. The achievement need refers to

a. finding joy in accomplishment for its own sake.
b. improving employee retention.
c. forming friendships.
d. increasing employee turnover.

7. Having pride in your work is considered to be a(n)

a. internal motivator.
b. external motivator.
c. weak motivator.
d. feeling that occurs mostly early in one's career.

8. A recommended way for a manager to motivate through pride is to

a. offer financial incentives for displays of pride.
b. celebrate attaining small goals as much as attaining the major goal.
c. celebrate attaining the major goal, and pay little attention to small
goals.
d. distribute T-shirts, hats, and cups that read, "I am proud."

9. The need for risk taking and thrill seeking

a. almost always has negative consequences for the employer.
b. is ill-suited for the high technology era.
c. can find constructive outlets on the job.
d. lies close to the bottom of the need hierarchy.

10. Job satisfiers or motivators, according to the two-factor theory, relate to the
a. financial bonuses associated with the job.
b. content of the job.
c. working conditions surrounding the job.
d. benefits associated with the job.

11. Which of the following job factors is most accurately classified as a dissatisfier?
a. opportunity for advancement
b. recognition for good work
c. working conditions
d. Responsibility

12. Which one of the following job factors is considered important for motivating the
young generation of workers?
a. close monitoring of work such as through time clocks
b. limited vacations
c. minimizing feedback
d. loads of responsibility

13. An accurate example of a cross-cultural difference in rewards is that
a. most Asian workers want public recognition.
b. workers from a poor country might prefer a practical reward.
c. Italian workers prefer gift certificates to stores like Wal-Mart.
d. Chinese women who sell beauty products dislike tangible rewards.

NAT: AACSB: Diversity, Environmental Influence
14. A goal is most likely to improve performance when it is

a. relatively easy.
b. specific rather than general.
c. not used to evaluate performance.
d. not linked to rewards.

15. Which one of the following statements best fits the category of a superordinate goal
at the manufacturer of latex gloves?
a. "Let's find a way to cut back on skin rashes from wearing our gloves."
b. "The purpose of our latex gloves is to save lives."
c. "Let's exceed last year's sales by 20 percent this year."
d. "Let's diversify into foot protectors."
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: pp. 403-404

16. Laboratory supervisor Sasha, is attempting to use the Pygmalion effect when she
says to her group,
a. "We will soon be implementing a bonus system."
b. "Who in this lab is not smart enough to do his or her job?"
c. "We may not have the best lab group in the company, but we do try."
d. "I know that we will exceed our quota of useful ideas this year."

17. A potential problem with relying on goals to motivate workers is that
a. they might use unethical means to attain goals.
b. they might receive praise from a supervisor.
c. they might receive a sense of satisfaction from a job well done.
d. it might lead to turnover.

18. A team leader wants Kristin, a customer-service representative, to keep up her fine
record of resolving customer complaints. The team leader should compliment
Kristin
a. at the end of every workday.
b. every so often when she resolves a tough problem.
c. even when she is unable to resolve a tough problem.
d. each Monday through Thursday, but not on Friday.

19. The employee motivation program at Dollar General illustrates that

a. people who work in discount stores demand luxury prizes.
b. only financial motivators are effective.
c. with even modest rewards, positive reinforcement can help a company
attain its goals.
d. the most effective rewards are low-priced merchandise.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: pp. 409-410

20. Luis, a commercial real estate agent, says "I'm almost sure that if I close this deal
the company will give me a bonus." Luis is demonstrating a high
a. EP expectancy.
b. PO instrumentality.
c. valence.
d. need for affiliation.
21. Praising workers for good performance is a type of

a. informal recognition..
b. formal recognition.
c. Valence
d. Management

22. A thrust in linking pay to performance is to attempt to link pay to

a. performance as good as the employee's best year.
b. team rather than individual performance.
c. how long the employee has been with the firm.
d. performance that supports the business strategy.

23. Gainsharing is
a. a program allowing employees to participate financially in the
productivity gains they achieved.
b. the same as stock options.
c. a type of empowerment.
d. a management style.

24. Stock options give the people granted the option the opportunity to
a. purchase stock at a later date at a price established now.
b. share directly in the profits of the firm.
c. purchase company stock anytime at a specific discount.
d. purchase stock of any company through online trading.

25. People who justify such high executive compensation say the large payments
are necessary
a. to attract and retain top talent.
b. to keep the executives motivated.
c. both a & b
d. to use profit sharing.

CHAPTER 15—ESSENTIALS OF CONTROL
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The purpose of a preventive (or pre-control) is to prevent

a. existing problems from escalating.
b. problems caused by a deviation from performance.
c. feedback controls from creating damage.
d. quality standards from being too demanding.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: pp. 545-546

2. An example of a feedback control is a(n)

a. financial report.
b. quality specification.
c. in-process inspection of parts.
d. a field visit by top-level management.

3. A control system begins with

a. measuring performance.
b. agreeing on accuracy of measurement needed.
c. agreeing on who will use the measurements.
d. setting appropriate performance standards.
4. In its technical meaning, a budget is a plan for

a. allocating resources.
b. spending money.
c. saving money.
d. developing financial strategy.

5. Office manager Gus has spent all his annual money for paper towels, so he requests
that until the end of the budget cycle, employees bring their own paper towels to the
office. What type of budget does Gus most likely have?
a. pro-forma
b. Master
c. Flexible
d. Fixed

6. Dunkin' Donuts franchise manager Julie estimates how much her three stores will
take in next year, as well as how much she will spend. Julie is most likely preparing
which type of budget?
a. revenue and expense
b. capital expenditure
c. Cash
d. Production

7. Which of the following is a recommended technique for preparing a sensible

budget?
a. Budget liberally for income, and conservatively for expenses.
b. Budget conservatively for income and liberally for expenses.
c. Do not allow for wiggle room.
d. Go light in terms of basing budgets on historical information.

8. In calculating the profit margin, net income is

a. subtracted from cost of goods sold.
b. added to profits.
c. divided by sales.
d. subtracted from sales.

9. The financial ratio, revenue per employee is often used as a(n)

a. measure of productivity.
b. measure of return on capital.
c. index of growth potential.
d. index of bankruptcy potential.

10. The EVA (economic value added) is a guide to estimating how much a company
earns in comparison to
a. competitive firms.
b. a stock index such as the Dow Jones industrial average.
c. the cost of capital.
d. the average return on government bonds.

11. The financial measure of net debt evaluates how much a company owes after taking
into account
a. the effects of inflation on debt.
b. money on hand that could be used to eliminate debt.
c. the amount of debt that could be refinanced.
d. how much debt could be eliminated by declaring bankruptcy.

12. A major purpose of a pro-forma earnings statement is to exclude

a. salaries paid to non-productive employees.
b. kickbacks paid to the company by large customers
c. one-time charges not related to future earnings.
d. operating costs.

13. The basic purpose of measuring cash flow is to estimate how much
a. net cash a company has during a given period.
b. money customers owe a company.
c. time is left before a company goes bankrupt.
d. return stockholders can expect during a given period.

14. Cash from (or used in) operating activities is the

a. heart of cash flow.
b. cash paid to outsiders such as banks or stockholders.
c. cash received from selling stock or assets.
d. cash at the beginning and end of the period covered.

15. The executive team at Midas Muffler and Brake decides to publish a statement of
its available cash that subtracts from the cash, the planned investments in new shops
and new technology. The statement can best be labeled a measure of
a. pro-forma earnings
b. free cash flow.
c. EBITDA (earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation, and
amortization.
d. EVA (economic value added)

16. Which one of the following is not one of the perspectives of the balanced
scorecard?
a. Financial
b. customer service
c. learning and growth
d. cost controls

17. Under a balanced scorecard system, compensation is based on

a. achieving all the factors in the balanced scorecard.
b. financial goals and customer service goals.
c. financial goals and internal process goals.
d. learning and growth goals and internal process goals.

18. An important use of activity-based costing is to estimate the

a. fixed and variable costs necessary to deliver a product or service.
b. amount of resources consumed in producing a product or service.
c. balanced scorecard for a firm.
d. cycle time for delivering a product or service.

19. Positive approaches to cost cutting include

a. videoconferencing to cut travel costs
b. investing in new printers to cut inkjet cartridges costs.
c. keeping sales expenses at or below 10 percent of sales.

20. An example of intellectual capital is the

a. money invested in a mainframe computer.
b. brainpower of a company's product development team.
c. money invested in advertising in trade journals.
d. accounts receivables for services.

21. A caution about cost cutting is that it can lead to

a. low morale and lower quality goods and services.
b. the image of a cheap company
c. both a & b
d. increase the cost of supplies

22. The control information provided by an information system is

a. usually outdated when it arrives.
b. based on activities that take place outside the company.
c. virtually unlimited.
d. quite restricted in scope.

23. Computer-aided monitoring is used for

a. data-loss prevention.
b. recording an employee’s efficiency.
c. monitoring quality

24. Computer-aided monitoring of work raises concerns about

a. privacy issues.
b. supply issues
c. return-on-investment.
d. profit loss.

25. A cost-effective control system

a. provides a satisfactory return on investment.
b. provides financial penalties for departments that exceed budget.
c. eliminates the need for hiring outside consultants.
d. approaches being totally automated.

CHAPTER 16—MANAGING INEFFECTIVE PERFORMERS
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Job performance is considered ineffective when it

a. falls below an accepted standard.
b. leads to employee dismissal.
c. emphasizes quantity more than quality.
d. must be controlled by management.

2. Factors contributing to ineffective performance include
a. insufficient mental ability and education.
b. low motivation and loafing.
c. emotional problems or personality disorder.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: pp. 589-590

3. Priscilla displays low organizational citizenship behavior when she

a. discovers a leaking faucet in the break lounge but does not report it.
b. votes only in national elections.
c. votes only in local elections.
d. holds open the door for a senior citizen.

4. A study found that workers low in organizational citizenship behavior

a. refused to contribute to charities through payroll deduction.
b. spent too much time in community activities during working hours.
c. tended to be the most productive workers.
d. tended to engage in counterproductive workplace behavior.

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking, Environmental Influence
5. A major contributing factor to performance problems among night-shift workers is

that they suffer from
a. acute hunger pangs.
b. mental lapses.
c. nightmares on the job.
d. job burnout.

6. A consultant observed that an explosive sexual harassment case usually

a. has a domino effect leading to more cases of sexual harassment.
b. encourages other types of deviant behavior on the job.
c. increases productivity temporarily because of the excitement.
d. decreases productivity temporarily because of gossip and distraction.

NAT: AACSB: Reflective Thinking, Legal Responsibilities
7. The core of the control model for managing ineffective performers is

a. disciplining workers for substandard performance.
b. problem identification and problem solving.
c. motivating ineffective performs to do better.
d. making clear the sanctions for substandard performance.

8. A recommended confrontation technique is for the manager to

a. communicate care and concern.
b. threaten the worker's job security.
c. make two nice comments for every negative one.
d. appear angry and worried.

9. When referring employees to the EAP, the supervisor should focus on

a. workplace problems created by the employee.
b. the employee's personal deficiencies.
c. the employee's most recent performance appraisal.
d. the wide range of services offered by the EAP.

10. Managerial actions and techniques for ineffective performers include

a. close supervision
b. Coaching
c. Transfer

11. Two business psychologists cited in the management text claim that good coaching
a. is simply good management.
b. cannot be done by managers.
c. should not be part of a manger's responsibility.
d. should be the responsibility of top-level management only.

12. The recommended time to give negative feedback about poor performance is
a. close in time to the incident of poor performance.
b. immediately after regular working hours.
c. just before the start of the workday.
d. as part of the annual performance evaluation.

13. Showing empathy for an employee stems naturally from

a. giving advice.
b. imposing progressive discipline.
c. active listening
d. asking closed-end questions.

14. A good question in coaching employees helps them

a. understand their need for development.
b. recognize that they are wrong.
c. understand that the manager is just doing his or her job.
d. recognize the precise nature of performance standards.
15. A recommended way of giving advice is to

a. promise a reward for following the advice.
b. promise a punishment for not following the advice.
c. ask an insightful question.
d. send an e-mail message to the person.

16. Lester, a credit analyst, is caught selling illegal drugs to co-workers. He will most
likely receive
a. progressive discipline.
b. summary discipline.
c. corrective discipline.
d. a referral to the EAP.

17. Corrective discipline

a. allows employees to correct their behavior before punishment is
applied.
b. is the immediate discharge of an employee.
c. is part of a performance review.
d. results in firing.

18. The final step in progressive discipline is

a. discharge.
b. a visit to the EAP.
c. suspension.
d. appeal.
19. A core principle of discipline and punishment is for the manager to

a. make clear his or her analysis of the worker's personal weaknesses.
b. focus on the person, not the unsatisfactory performance.
c. focus on unsatisfactory performance, not the person.
d. ignore the first two offenses.

20. Employees who believe in a just world are likely to

a. think that punishment is unjust.
b. take an active role in punishing coworkers.
c. demand due process when they have been punished.
d. accept punishment when they have performed poorly.

21. Just punishment informs employees that

a. certain types of misconduct will not be tolerated.
b. they will be discharged.
c. they will be transferred.
d. they will be retrained.

22. The passive-aggressive worker will typically express anger by

a. doing nothing when action should be taken.
b. complaining frequently to the supervisor and co-workers.
c. verbal abuse.
d. physical abuse.
23. Which of the following is the most recommended approach to dealing with a
difficult employee?
a. Avoid humor about the problem being caused.
b. Judge the person quickly
c. Explain the importance of teamwork.
d. Stand fast and do not make unwarranted concessions.

24. To deal with a difficult employee,

a. listen and then confront or respond.
b. give recognition and attention.
c. both a & b
d. give in to all demands.

25. To do a more effective job of firing an employee, it is recommended that the

manager
a. base the firing on second-hand information.
b. be indirect in language to keep the employee off-guard.
c. not conduct the termination session while angry.
d. use e-mail instead of personal contact to avoid dealing with anger.


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CHAPTER 1—THE MANAGER'S JOB

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 2

2. Crafting a strategic(chiến lược) vision(tầm nhìn) is typically the responsibility of a

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: p. 3

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: pp. 6-7

4. Nick is a successful entrepreneur, so he probably emphasizes(nhấn mạnh) which of

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: p. 7

6. An important role for the team leader is to

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: p. 7

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 8

8. Which function of management is most involved with energizing, directing,

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: p. 10

10. Controlling is primarily concerned with(liên quan)

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 10

11. The two planning roles for manager involve

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 11

13. With respect to managers, poor interpersonal skills

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: p. 17

14. Political skills should be regarded as a

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: p. 19

15. A key part of developing your managerial skills would be to

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: p. 19

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: p. 16

17. According to Mintzberg, management is a practice, rather than a science or a

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: p. 16

18. Management as a practice,

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 20

19. The primary concern of the administrative management aspect of classical

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 21

21. The behavioral approach to management emphasizes

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 22

22. An organization may experience entropy when

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: p. 26

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 18

25. Evidence-based management chooses an organizational practice based on

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 17

CHAPTER 2—INTERNATIONAL MANAGEMENT AND CULTURAL DIVERSITY

1. A distinguishing(phân biệt) feature(tính năng) of a multinational corporation(tập

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 36

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 37

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: p. 38

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 39

5. The World Trade Organization

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 39

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: p. 39

7. A major advantage of offshoring(đưa ra nc ngoài) for some American companies is

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: pp. 40-41

8. A key characteristic(tính chất) of multicultural workers is that they

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: p. 43

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: p. 44

10. Cultural sensitivity is

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 42

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: p. 43

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 45

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: p. 46

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: p. 47

15. The trade deficit(thâm hụt) can be attributed to

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: p. 47

16. The symptoms(triệu chứng) of culture shock usually stem from

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 50

17. A major problem for the international business manager is

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: p. 51

18. A key feature(tính năng) of the global startup is that it

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 54