1.Which of the following is a key area in which marketers scan the marketing environment?

Demographic forces
2. For Canada Post, increased e-commerce spending and competition from UPS and FedEx are
examples of
environmental trends
3. Successful marketing programs must
address new opportunities in the marketplace
4. Demographic, socio-cultural, economic, technological, competitive, and regulatory forces are
all considered with a(n)
environmental scan
5. A good marketer can identify potential opportunities by paying close attention to
environmental ________; it is important to continuously monitor the business environment in
which a company operates.
Forces
6. True or false: Marketers scan the elements of the marketing environment to identify business
risks and opportunities.
T
7. The Opportunities and Threats for a SWOT analysis
are external forces uncovered using an environmental scan
8. An environmental scan may indicate that coffee manufacturers, coffee retailers, and coffee
distributors are likely to be affected by a downward
trend in coffee consumption.

10. Marketers and consumers do not function within a vacuum. To connect with consumers,
marketers consider
the marketing environment
11. Which of the following is NOT one of the key areas in the marketing environment?
Production costs
12. Company X is assessing its internal strengths and weaknesses as well as its external
opportunities and threats. This is normally referred to as a(n)
SWOT analysis
13. Environmental scanning is necessary for an organization to
interpret trends that may be a source of opportunity.
14. The environmental scan is part of the situation (SWOT) analysis.
T
15. The SWOT analysis stands for
Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
16. The process of continually acquiring information on events occurring outside the organization
to identify and interpret potential trends is called
environmental scanning.
17. The purposes of the environment scan include
ensuring product offerings are relevant and meaningful
identify opportunities and threats
18. Identify the elements of a SWOT analysis. (Check all that apply.)
Opportunities
Weaknesses
19．Which elements of the SWOT analysis come from the environmental scan?
Opportunities
Threats
20. Which of the following is not part of an environmental scan?
assessing internal strengths and weaknesses
21. Which of the following are among the goals of environmental scanning?
Interpreting and identifying trends
Continually acquiring information on external events
22. The statistical study of populations is called
Demographics
23. The environmental scan looks at external forces or elements in order to identify threats , and
opportunities
24. Normally, the first step in developing a SWOT analysis is
the environmental scan
25. In Canada, Statistics Canada is an important source of
demographic data
26. Which of the following are external areas that are looked at by an environmental scan?
Regulatory
Socio-cultural
Economic
27. Describing a population with characteristics like age, gender, ethnicity, and income is referred
to as
Demographics
28. Which of the following are typical demographic measures
Income
Education
29. Which of the following are demographic trends identified by Statistics Canada
increased population in big cities
an aging population
30. The term ________ indicates the characteristics of human populations and segments,
especially those used to identify consumer markets.
Demographics
31. According to the 2016 Census of Canada, the fastest growth rate is in the
Aging population
32. Which of the following is not part of an environmental scan?
assessing internal strengths and weaknesses
33. As a result of the "greying market" in Canada, companies have developed products such as
face creams, hair dyes, and pain relievers.
34. Which of the following is NOT one of the four main generational cohorts in Canada:
Silent generation
35. Which of the following are considered demographics?
Occupation and income
Age and gender
Ethnicity and race
36. Baby Boomers are those people born between the years
1946 and 1965.
37. _________ provides demographic data through its census information, which is collected
every five years.
Statistics Canada
38. Senior citizens represent approximately ___% of the Canadian population.
17
39.Many Canadian hospitals are reviewing the need for more orthopedic surgeons due to
the aging population.
40. Identify an example of a generational group living in Canada.
Generation Z
41. Baby boomers would be least likely to purchase which of the following products or services?
High-risk investments
42. Which generational cohort was born between 1946 and 1965？
Baby boomers
43. Perhaps surprisingly, baby boomer interests include
smartphones and tablets
44. Perhaps surprisingly, 75% of Baby boomers
connect to the internet
45. Which of the following statements regarding Generation X are correct
they make up about 20% of the population
they are sandwiched between the Baby boom and Generation Y
46. Identify the characteristics that describe Generation X. (Check all that apply.)
Less prone to materialism and extravagance than the baby boomers
Knowledgeable consumers
47. Which of the following are common purchases among Baby boomers
travel/vacation packages
health/wellness supplements
48. Which of the following is the most likely purchase for a Baby boomer
large-screen mobile device
49. Approximately __ % of Baby boomers in Canada use smartphones.
70%
50. Which statements regarding Generation X are correct
they like technology products
they are brand loyal
51. The group of people born between 1966 and 1980 are called
Generation X
52. The Generation Y cohort is also sometimes called _____.
the Millennials
53. Which of the following best describes Generation X?
Highly educated
54. What are some characteristics of Generation Y? (Check all that apply.)
They are mostly children of baby boomers.
They are interested in music, video games, and computers.
55. The group of people born between 2001 and beyond are called
Generation Z
56. Though a relatively smaller group, this group born between 1966 and 1980 has become a
dominant force and the focus of marketers today.
Generation X
57. The Net Generation generally refers to which group?
Generation Z
58. Which of these generational cohorts represents the most recent period of increasing births?
Generation Y
59. Which statement best reflects Generation Z?
They have lived in an online world with instant information and gratification
60. Generation Y or ___ is the group of people born between 1981 and 2000.
Millennials
61. The four generation groups in Canada each use media quite differently.
T
62. Generation Z has grown up with the Internet and are seen as pioneers of
social media
63. Fueled by immigration, ________ have experienced the fastest population growth in Canada.
Big cities
64. Generation Z are best described as
avid users of social media
65. What are some characteristics of Generation Z? (Check all that apply.)
They tend to be frugal and comparison shop.
They were born into the online world.
66. A notable trend in the changing Canadian population is
growth in immigration from Asia
67. The four major Canadian generations differ in terms of
consumer tastes
consumption patterns
68. Roughly ___ of Canadians live in Toronto, Montreal and Vancouver.
35%
69.Developing marketing programs that reflect the unique aspects of different ethnic groups is
known as
multicultural marketing.
70. Identify the nation with the largest population.
China
71. In Canada, the number of "non traditional" families has
Increased
72. The latest Canadian census shows that ____ of the nation's growth between 2018 and 2019
was due to immigration.
83%
73. _________ forces include ideas and attitudes that are learned and shared.
Socio-cultural
74. Recent socio-cultural changes in Canada include4
gender role modification
use of communications media
75. When Rogers Communications offers foreign-based programming, it reflects
the diverse multicultural groups in Canada
76. Over 75% of the world population lives within
Africa and Asia
77. In Canada, the average family size has
decreased
78. Consumer communications and demands for information have changed in the following ways:
increase in the number of communication devices
widespread use of the Internet
79. Cultural values of a population are the basis for ________ forces.
Social
80. Which of the following are typical Canadian socio-cultural values
access to public health-care
access to education
81. Research suggests that typical consumers
use electronic devices for different roles throughout the day
82. Many shoppers check competitive online product reviews and prices while in a store. This is
called
Showrooming
83. ________ allow consumers to communicate with friends, express opinions, and conduct
research before purchasing products.
Social media sites
84. Which of the following best describes the trend in interpersonal communication in Canada?
It uses more electronic devices.
85. Which of the following social networks are growing in usage among Canadians?
Facebook
YouTube
86. The trend away from broadcast TV has been significant in Canada as more Canadians choose
online viewing options. People who cancel TV cable or satellite are called
cord cutters
87. Internet analytics company "comScore" reveals that typical consumers start the day
checking email on a smartphone
88. Online video viewing trends include
social TV
use of streaming services
89. Despite the ease of online purchasing, many consumer still prefer to buy in-store. Often,
these consumers will do online research to find the best products and prices before heading to
the store to purchase. This is called
reverse showrooming
90. Marketers use social media to _____.
communicate with consumers
91. Which of the following is NOT a Canadian food trend?
A move towards products that contain gluten
92. The social network most used by Canadians is
Facebook
93. Which of the following is true regarding Canadian TV viewing trends? (Check all that apply.)
Canadians watch over 25 hours per week of TV.
Online streaming is changing consumer viewing habits.
94. Which of the following are current trends in food consumption in Canada? (Check all that
apply.)
Fresh products
Growth in demand for gluten-free foods
95. Increasingly, online videos are watched
on-demand and in "binges" Canadian food consumption
96. Canadian food consumption
a demand for fresh ingredients and nutrition
a blend of ethnic cuisine
97. Patak's offers consumers a full line of Indian sauces in mainstream supermarkets. This reflects
a trend towards ethnic foods
98. The movement by Canadians towards fresh and healthy food options is reflected in which of
the following
customized meal delivery services
freshly prepared meal options in grocery stores
99.As Canadians switch from processed to fresh products, frozen food marketers have
focused on freshness and nutrition
100. Fashion leader Zara introduced a line of ungendered clothing. This reflects
the changing attitudes regarding male and female roles
101. By 2036 and beyond, Statistics Canada estimates that __% of Canadians will be over 65 years
old.
25%
102. The introduction of ethnic food aisles with Asian, South American and European products
exemplifies
a trend in Canadian food preferences
103. Marketer response to Canadian health trends include
pharmaceuticals to aid weight loss
exercise tracking apps
104. A significant grocery trend, worth $2.4B in Canada, is
home meal replacement
105. In order to help address childhood obesity, 17 of Canada's largest food companies agreed to
restrict advertising towards children
106. A Diesel clothing advertising campaign uses the tagline, "This ad is gender neutral." This
exemplifies
the changing attitude towards gender roles
107. Canada's aging population has an increasing interest in
healthy eating and exercise
108. Smart phone apps to monitor eating, exercise, blood pressure and sleep patterns all reflect
a Canadian trend towards concern for health
109. Campbell, Danone, Kellogg and McDonald's all agreed to focus on more nutritious choices in
child-directed advertising. This reflects
corporations responding to social trends
110. Consumer who consider the environmental impact of every purchase they make are called
green consumers
111. Approximately ___ of Canadians say they will pay more for products that are ethically
produced.
75%
112. Which component of an environmental scan pertains to the income, expenditures, and
resources affecting the cost of running a business or household?
Economy
113. Which of the following products would expect the biggest drop in demand due to a poor
economy?
Automobiles
114. The rate of inflation, economic growth rate and unemployment rate are all considered
macroeconomic forces
115. Canadians show a keen interest in
recycling and "green" initiatives
116. Inflation is defined as
a period of increasing prices
117. The Fairtrade organization provides certification to consumer products that
meet environmental and ethical standards
118. Identify the forces of the economy. (Check all that apply.)
Macroeconomic forces
Microeconomic forces
119. Two consecutive periods of negative economics growth is generally referred to as
Recession
120. Some products do sell better in a poor economy.
T
121. Despite a slow-moving economy and the Covid pandemic, housing prices in Toronto showed
consistent increases. This is attributed to an increase in people working and spending more time
in their homes and
low interest rates
122. Macroeconomic forces include:
economic growth rate
inflation rate
123. When unemployment is high
spending typically declines
124. During inflationary periods, consumers will purchase ________, unless consumer incomes
also rise.
Less
125. Microeconomic forces refer to
supply and demand of goods and services
126. After-tax income that consumers have left for spending and savings is called
disposable income
127. During recession, consumers tend to focus their spending on
necessity items
128. In times of high interest rates, consumers may reduce purchases due to
the opportunity to earn more interest
the high cost of borrowing
129. Declines in spending due to uncertainty of future income is normally associated with high
unemployment
130. An increase in disposable income for a business' customers would be
a microeconomic force
131. _____ refer to inventions or innovations that stem from scientific or engineering research.
Technological forces
132. Disposable income is after-tax income that is typically used for
rent, clothing and transportation
133. Traditional books, CDs, and mail delivery have all been replaced with the help of digital
technologies that change our daily lives. This is called
disruptive technological change
134. The Internet of Things has resulted in
an explosion of interest in analytics data to predict consumer behavior
135. The best income measure to predict a consumer's spending on restaurant meals or
vacations is
discretionary income
136. Which of the following refers to inventions or innovations from applied science or
engineering research?
Technological forces
137. Marketers now create content that can be accessed across computers, smartphones and
tablets. This reflects
consumer demand to seamlessly move between devices
138. __ percent of Canadian households have internet access.
96%
139. Disruptive technological changes are those that significantly alter our daily lives. A good
example is a(n)
search engines and e-books
140. Although e-commerce makes up a small percentage of all retail purchases, ___ percent of
Canadians shopped online in 2019.
80%
141. The Internet of Things refers to
the network of products embedded with connectivity-enabled electronics
142. More than __ percent of the Canadian population use mobile payment technology.
20%
143. The after-tax income a consumer has left after paying for necessities such as food, shelter,
and clothing is called _____.
discretionary income
144. Which of the following best exemplifies a recent technological change that has been
embraced by Canadian consumers?
Smartphones
145. To do a thorough environmental scan, a marketer must consider both current and potential
________ in designing a marketing strategy.
Competitors
146. Nearly all Canadian households have internet access.
T
147.Companies that sell very similar products are normally called
Direct competitors
148. A key concern for Canadians using social networks is
Privacy
149. In terms of mobile payment, Canada
is among the top tier of countries to adopt this technology
150. Companies that sell different products (in different categories) designed to satisfy the same
want or need are called
indirect competitors
151. Which of the following environmental forces refers to the alternative firms that could
provide a product to satisfy a specific market's needs?
Competition
152. _____ is when there is only one seller in the market.
Monopoly
153. Direct competitors are sometimes called
head-to-head competitors
154. A potential problem with oligopolies is the ability (and possibly temptation) to
fix prices at high levels
155. In Canada, smartphone penetration has reached __ percent.
90%
156. The market for running shoes is dominated by major brands such as Nike, Adidas, New
Balance, Reebok, Puma and Asics. This is most likely an example of _____.
monopolistic competition
157. For Pizza Hut, Domino's would be ________ competition, while Swiss Chalet would be
________ competition.
Direct；indirect
158. Perfect competition is best exemplified by
grains or vegetables
159. In Canada, the Competition Bureau monitors monopolies to
ensure consumers receive fair prices
160. Which environmental force consists of restrictions provincial and federal laws place on
business with regard to the conduct of its activities?
Regulatory
161. When a few companies control a market it is called
Oligopoly
162. When a large number of sellers compete with each other by offering customers similar or
substitute products it is called
monopolistic competition
163. Key groups that regulate marketing practices in Canada include
CRTC - Canadian Radio-television and Telecommunications Commission
CMA - Canadian Marketing Association
164. The ___ is an independent law-enforcement agency responsible for enforcement of the
Competition Act and the Consumer Packaging and Labelling Act.
Competition Bureau
165. _________ is characterized by many sellers with nearly identical products that consumers
are readily willing to substitute for a low price.
Perfect competition
166. Advertising Standards Canada (ASC) is a self-regulating non-government group run by
media and marketing professionals
167. Which of the following statements about regulations as an environmental force is true?
They often place restrictions on the activities of businesses.
168. A potential problem with oligopolies is the ability (and possibly temptation) to
Fix prices at high levels
169. Mobile marketing practices in Canada fall under both general regulatory bodies and specific
agencies dedicated to mobile and digital communications.
T
170. The independent law-enforcement agency in Canada that ensures a competitive market is
the Competition Bureau
171. The government agency that sets and enforces broadcasting guidelines is called the
Canadian Radio-television and Tele-communications Commission
172. Which of the following reflect the duties of Advertising Standards Canada (Ad Standards)
provide advice and pre-clearance services for advertisers
set advertising guidelines
173. The CRTC has jurisdiction over telemarketing through the ______ which gives consumers the
ability to have their phone numbers removed from call lists.
Do Not Call List
174. The _______ guides marketing practices in Canada, including ant-spam legislation, digital
marketing, promotional contests, and marketing to children.
Canadian Marketing Association
175.Canadian Wireless Telecommunications Association (CWTA) regulations include
protocols to ensure messaging is permission-based
customer opt-out of messages by using the keyword STOP
176. Duties of the Canadian Radio-television and Telecommunications Commission (CRTC) include
enforcement of regulations regarding broadcasting
approval of broadcasting licenses
177. Each of the following is exempt from the Do Not Call List EXCEPT
household services
178. The CMA guides the practices of the marketing industry through its Code of Ethics and
Standards of Practice. The acronym CMA stands for
Canadian Marketing Association
179. In Canada, the wireless industry is guided on issues relating to cellular phones, text
messaging, and satellite carriers by _______.
Canadian Wireless Telecommunications Association
180. PIPEDA (Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act) requirements
include
safe storage of consumer information and communication of security breaches
individual consent for the collection of personal information
181. Restrictions regarding commercial electronic communications include
required opt-in consent from recipients
inclusion of accurate sender info
182. Many web sites utilize ______ that store a text file in a consumer's computer to track his or
her browsing interests.
Cookies
183. In order to stay relevant with consumers, marketers
routinely conduct environmental scans
184. The first step in the environmental scan is to
collect information on external forces
185. Which of the following pieces of personal information are protected under Canadian law?
income
purchase habits
186. Spam refers to
unsolicited electronic messages
187. The second step in the environmental scan answers the question
where do we want to be?
188. Online behavioral advertising refers to web-based programs that
track consumers' browsing in order to place targeted ads
189. Marketers routinely conduct environmental scans in order to
stay relevant with consumers
190. The third step in the environmental scan is focused on
brainstorming ideas that address current trends and business objectives
191. The first step in the environmental scan answers the question
where are we now?
192. The second step in the environmental scan includes which of the following?
setting business objectives
analyzing the impact of trends
193. The third step in the environmental scan answers the question
how will we reach our objectives?

1. For purchases ranging from candy bars to cellular phones, consumers go through a series of
stages called the
·purchase decision process
2. Click and drag on elements in order
·Rank the stages of the purchase decision process in the correct sequence. (Place the first stage
at the top.)

3. The complexity of a purchase decision for a consumer is normally reflected in their

·involvement level
4. Which statement about business purchase decisions is most correct?
·Business purchase decisions follow a similar process to that of consumers
5. The perception of a difference between what a person has and what they would like to
have creates a situation known as
·problem recognition.
6. The purchase decision process
·describes the way consumers make choices about purchases
7. The five stages of purchase decision process are problem recognition, information search,
_______, purchase decision and ________ behavior.
·alternative evaluation; postpurchase
8. Which of the following represents an example of the first stage in the purchase decision
process?
· Realizing you're running low on gas.
9. The time spent by consumers in each stage of the purchase decision process
·depends on multiple factors
10. Sarah sees her friends using their smartphones for calls, web searches and social media and
realizes that a new mobile device might be worthwhile. This best exemplifies
·problem recognition
11. True or false: Businesses make decisions that follow a similar purchase decision process when
considering products and services from suppliers.
·TURE
12. Information search is the ________ stage in the purchase decision process.
·Second

13. The first step in the consumer decision process is

·problem recognition
14. A consumer is most likely to primarily use a(n)_________ when he buys a brand such as
Apple to which he is very brand loyal, or if he has previously owned an iPod and an
iPhone previously.
·internal search
15. Which of the following is NOT a way to perform an internal search for information when
deciding where to go get lunch?
·You go to a new area of town and look around.
16. The consumer buying decision process begins when which of the following occurs within the
consumer?
·Consumers recognize that there is a difference between their actual and ideal situations.
17. For complex decisions, consumers may seek out information. This is called
·external search
18. A consumer's need recognition can be triggered by
·advertisements
·friends
·salespeople
19. After a consumer completes the problem recognition stage in the purchase decision process,
he or she then begins the ________ stage.
·information search
20. Which of the following factors increase the depth and duration of a consumer's information
search?
·High risk involved with making a wrong decision
·Little past experience and knowledge
21. A consumer who uses only past experiences and their own knowledge to inform the purchase
decision process is focused on
·internal search
22. Which of the following is NOT an external search for information when looking to purchase a
new car?
·You recall each of the four Toyota cars your mother has owned, which you loved.
23. Russell, a loyal customer of the brand TechSmart, is planning to buy a new smart phone.
Which of the following information sources is an example of internal search?
·He has used and liked the previous version of the phone that is also his preferred brand.
24. Which of the following purchase decisions will probably require the most extensive
information search?
· Plastic surgery
25. Armed with a smartphone, most consumers will check product reviews and prices while in-
store. This is called
·showrooming
26. Information that is gathered about various products and brands in the information search
stage must then be sorted out so that alternatives can be ________ in the next stage of the
purchase decision process.
·evaluated
27. Routine purchases may only require ______ information search, whereas one-time high
expense purchases require more ______ information search time.
`internal; external
28. The objective and subjective attributes that are considered as a consumer evaluates a
product are known as
·evaluative criteria.
29. An ______ search is when the buyer looks for information beyond personal knowledge to
help make the buying decision, such as checking the Internet, asking a friend, or visiting a
showroom.
·external
30. Becky debated between having salad or fish for dinner. She chose salad without dressing,
assuming it to be lighter and noticing that it was also cheaper. Becky used ________ in her
decision.
·evaluative criteria
31. An evoked set is
·the group of brands that a consumer believes would be acceptable for purchase.
32. Many retailers now incorporate online tools into their marketing, sales and in-store
customer service to meet the needs of modern consumers who wish to check product
reviews and prices before purchasing. This approach is a response to the consumer
behavior called
·showrooming
33. Jamila is in the market to buy a new automobile but she will only consider purchasing
models made by American companies. The American car makers are part of Jamila's
______ set.
·evoked
34. Having completed an information search, a consumer's next step in decision making is
______.
·evaluation of alternatives
35. The decision stage of the consumer decision process includes which of the following:
·which brand to buy
·when to buy
·where to buy
36. Consumers actually consider both ________ attributes of products, known as evaluative
criteria, during the alternative evaluation stage of the purchase decision process.
·objective and subjective
37. A consumer who has decided to purchase a new smartphone has gone through both an
internal and external information search and finalized two possible choice in their
"evoked set". They are now in the purchase decision stage of the consumer decision
process and must consider
·which product to buy
·when to purchase
38. Jon bases his decision to purchase textbooks on price, condition, and location. In this
scenario, the listed factors are Jon's _____ for the purchase.
·evaluative criteria
39. Donald has decided to purchase a new IPhone from the kiosk at his local mall. He is unsure
whether to purchase immediately or wait for news regarding a new product launch that may
reduce the price of the current model he likes. Donald is in which stage of the consumer decision
process?
·purchase decision

40. The consumer's evoked set is the group of brands that a consumer would consider

acceptable among all the brands of which he or she is aware.

41. Jackson wants to buy a new cell phone. Of the brands that Jackson recalls, those he thinks

he would actually buy are his evoked set.

42. The addition of technology like smartphones and the access to information have resulted in a
longer consumer decision process for most items.
·F
43. From whom to buy from and ________ to buy are the two choices left for a consumer
once she has made the decision on an alternative.
·when
44. In terms of the decision process, mobile devices
·enable the purchase decision
45. Jenny has decided to purchase a Dell laptop but is having trouble deciding where she should
purchase her laptop. She is considering purchasing the laptop at the Best Buy store or from
Dell.ca. Which of the following are likely to be evaluative criteria in this decision?
·Return policy and process
·Cost
46. Potential influences during the purchase decision include
·store atmosphere
·financial circumstances
47. Cineplex allows customers to purchase theatre tickets online on a home computer, at the box
office or at an on-site kiosk, all in response the changes in consumer behavior because of
·mobile devices
48. Mobile devices help us gather information, evaluate alternatives and make purchase
decisions. This exemplifies
·the effect of technology
49. Mobile devices have allowed the purchase decision to evolve by making which decision stages
easier?
·information search
·purchase decision

50. The final step, and a very important element in retaining and building a loyal customer base,
in the purchase decision process is the _______ stage。
·post-purchase behavior
51. Postpurchase behavior is critical to marketing managers primarily because
·it is the opportunity for marketers to measure and track satisfaction.
52. Many companies have dedicated employees to monitor social media sites like Twitter and
interact with unsatisfied customers in this stage of the decision process
·post purchase
53. Best Buy understands the trend for consumer to employ showrooming while in-store. In fact,
they make it easier for consumers to access the information they need through
·their personal mobile device

54. After her purchase of a car, Mariah experienced cognitive dissonance as she agonized

over whether or not she made the right choice.

55. The final step in the purchase decision process is known as
·postpurchase behavior.
56. A buyer is most likely to skip some stages of the purchase decision process when he is buying
what type of good or service?
·Low-priced, frequently purchased products
57. Which of the following may occur during the postpurchase behavior stage of the purchase
decision process?
·Feeling satisfied or dissatisfied
·Having cognitive dissonance
·Comparing a product to one's expectations
58. In terms of the post purchase stage of the decision process, social media platforms
·can be very useful for companies to connect with unsatisfied customers
59. Many consumers have "regular" brands they purchase for products like condiments, soft
drinks and toothpaste. For these products, the consumers won't go through all of the steps in the
decision process because
·they have a low involvement level
60. A high-involvement purchase will typically have which characteristics?
·Is typical for products that could reflect on one's social image
·Requires extensive external search
61. Karen just got a haircut and she is not sure it was the right decision for her. To relieve her
cognitive dissonance, she might engage in which behaviors now?
·Noticing other fashionable consumers with similar haircuts
·Asking her friends for feedback on the cut
62. Which of the following are problem-solving variations for consumer purchase decisions?
(Check all that apply.)
·Limited
·Routine
·Extended
63. In which one of the following situations is the consumer most likely to skip some stages of the
purchase decision process?
·Brian is buying a cup of coffee at the corner coffee shop, which he does most days
64. Katie buys orange juice from the grocery store without even thinking about it. She buys it
every time she shops, and always pick the same brand, from the same fridge shelf. Katie is
engaging in _______ problem solving.
·routine
65.For routine purchases, marketers try to maintain habitual purchase behavior by
·building strong brand relationships with consumers
66. Randall did not go through all the stages of the decision process when he bought beer at the
Beer Store. This is because he has ________ involvement in this purchase.
·low
67. Harrison needs a new toaster. He asks his friends what brand they have and is looking for one
that can toast bagels. He does not think about looking at any other attributes such as energy
consumption or warranties. What type of problem solving is Harrison undertaking?
·Limited
68. When a product is expensive, can have serious personal consequences, or could reflect on
one's social image, those considering buying it are likely to
·be highly involved.
69. Buyers of most limited problem-solving products are willing to switch brand choices without
much thought. For that reason, many marketers
·attempt to make the purchase a routine problem solving issue by building brand connections
70. Extended, limited, and routine are variations of ________ for consumer decisions.
·problem solving
71. A consumer who is highly involved in a product purchase will typically go through which
decision stages?
·Does all five stages with emphasis on external search and alternative evaluation
72. Benny is shopping at the grocery store. He picks up milk, bread, eggs, and frozen pizza, the
same items he typically buys at each visit. What variation of problem solving is Benny using here?
·Routine
73. According to the consumer behavior model, which of the following are major categories of
influence on the purchase decision process?
·Psychological influences
·Sociocultural influences
74. Wilma stops at the same Tim Hortons for coffee nearly every morning on his way to work.
Fred, Wilma's husband, follows a nearly identical route to his work. However, Fred always stops
at the McDonalds along the route closer to his office for a Tea and muffin deal. While Wilma and
Fred make different choices, both display
·routine problem solving
75. The five situational influences that have an impact on the purchase decision process are
·the purchase task, social surroundings, physical surroundings, temporal effects, and antecedent
states.
76. Mason is trying to decide where to go for lunch. He wants to try a new place. He asks his
coworkers for suggestions about where he should go. He is demonstrating which type of problem
solving?
·limited
77. Which of the following is the best example of a temporal effect acting as a situational
 influence on the purchase decision?
·On your way to school, you are standing in a line to order your morning coffee, and your friends
are waiting for you.
78. In an attempt to shift consumers from limited to routine problem solving, many leading
brands will
·try to dominate shelf space with multiple brands options
·use reminder advertising campaigns to connect with consumers
79. Motivation, perception, and lifestyle are considered what type of influence on the purchase
decision process?
·Psychological
80. For most consumers, which of the following are likely to reflect extended problem-solving?
·house purchase
·retirement investments
81. The energizing force that stimulates behavior to satisfy a need, such as having no laundry
detergent to do the wash or running out of printer paper when you have a term paper due is
known as
·motivation.
82. According to the consumer behavior model, sociocultural, psychological, and situational
influences affect
·the purchase decision process.
83.
84.

85. Which of the following describes the situational influence known as physical surroundings?
·The store layout, decor, and music
86. Arthur lost his watch and needed to buy a new one. This time, he decided to purchase a Rolex
instead of a Timex watch because he felt that Rolex signaled his status better and was a more
prestigious watch. His purchase fulfilled which needs?
·Esteem
87. Which of the following are considered psychological influences on the purchase decision
process? (Check all that apply.)
·Value, beliefs, and attitudes
·Learning
88. The motivation that drives John to buy a bottle of water after a 6-mile run and drink it quickly
is a(n) _______ need.
·physiological

89. motivation is the energizing force that stimulates behaviour to satisfy a need.

90. Garrett was just convinced to buy life insurance. In terms of the hierarchy, he is driven by his
________ needs when he seeks financial security.
·safety
91.

92. Kate just moved to a new town and she joined a local tennis club to meet some people in her
area despite the fact that she had not played in many years. In terms of the hierarchy, by joining
the club she hoped to fulfill her _______ needs.
·social
93. Jonah is impressed by the large in-ground swimming pool his next door neighbor bought.
He goes to Aqua-life Pools and has an even bigger one installed in his yard. In terms of

Maslow's hierarchy of needs, Jonah is responding to his esteem needs for status and
prestige. (Use one word to answer.)
94. An individual's needs for basics such as water, food, and shelter can be categorized as
_____.
·physiological needs

95. When a college tries to attract students with the phrase "Applied Dreams", what type of
motivational needs does it target?
·Self-actualization
96. The fact that Ethan wants to eat something after a long day trekking in the mountains is
indicative of his _____ needs for food.
·physiological
97. A person's character traits that influence behavioural responses refers to his or her _____.
·personality
98. Michelin placed advertisements with babies sitting inside tires to focus the target market on
·safety needs
99. ________ traits include assertiveness, extroversion, and dominance.
·Personality
100. Many people enjoy spending time on social media apps like Facebook, sharing photos and
commenting on posts shared by their "friends". These platforms fulfill
·social needs
101. Marketers recognize that people have which two types of self-concepts?
·Actual and ideal
102. Monique really wants a new car, especially now that she admires a coworker's new vehicle
every day. What need seems to be motivating Monique to also buy a new car?
·Personal need for status and respect
103. Apple named the iPhone as such to allow the consumer to organize the new object into the
phone category, and simultaneously categorize it as an Apple product. Apple facilitated
consumers'
·perception.
104. Taking a trip to climb Mount Kilimanjaro to fulfill a personal dream would best be called
·a self-actualization need.
105. The process by which a person selects, organizes, and interprets information to create a
meaningful picture of the world is called
·perception.
106. ________ is often identified by researchers through the use of key traits, or enduring
·Personality
107. Humans operate in a complex, information-filled world. Our brains organize and interpret all
of the information using
·selective perception
108. Research suggests that aggressive personality types are more likely to purchase
·cologne and expensive clothing brands
109. According to the concepts of selective exposure and selective comprehension, you are most
likely to pay attention to and interpret information that
·is consistent with your attitudes and beliefs.
110. A person's ________ is the way people see themselves and the way they believe others see
them.
·self-concept
111. One person sees a Tesla automobile as a mark of achievement while another person sees it
as a move to be more environmentally friendly. This demonstrates
·perception
112. ________ is an individualistic process; one sees the Cadillac as a mark of achievement,
another sees it as ostentatious.
·Perception
113. Selective _______ involves consumers interpreting information so that it is consistent with
their attitudes and beliefs.
·comprehension
114. Selective _____ filters information we are exposed to so that only some of it is understood
or remembered.
·perception
115. Many car dealers will provide consumers with brochures or business cards that direct them
to informational websites to help overcome the fact that consumers do not remember most
information they are exposed to. This is called
·selective retention
116. Consumers are more likely to "see" a Mcdonalds advertisement when they are hungry
rather than after they have eaten. This phenomena is called
·selective exposure
117. Worrying about the expense of a purchase, the possibility that it will harm you in some way,
or that your friends will make fun of it are all examples of perceived
·risk.
118. Danilo just received a quote from his car dealer and now must decide on this purchase. He is
not sure he can afford the car, or if it gets high enough crash ratings. Danilo is contemplating
perceived
·risk.
119. A bumper-to-bumper warranty on a new vehicle purchase can help
·reduce buyers' perceived risk
120. Sales of the small Toro snowblower increased when they changed the name from "Snow
Pup" to "Snow Master". This was due to the perceptions each name created for consumers and
·selective comprehension
121. Selective retention refers to the fact that consumers
·do not remember most information they see
122. n which of the following situations is cognitive learning occurring?
·Bob (a Samsung user) hears the same ad for an iPhone 12 times, asks friends for opinions, listens
to a salesperson at Best Buy, and buys the item.
123. ____________ are anxieties consumers feel because they are unsure about purchases.
·Perceived risks
124. What behavior does Beth show when she seems to know the exact location in the grocery
store for every item on her shopping list?
·Learning
125. Alexis chose Armand Plumbing for her remodel. She had noticed the Better Business Bureau
logo on the website, and it probably worked to limit her perceived
·risk.
126. A process that is a repeated cycle of "drive, cue, response, and reinforcement" is called
·behavioral learning.
127. Strategies to reduce perceived risk include
·free trial periods
·celebrity or expert endorsements
 128. Chris goes to Starbucks every morning and plans to today because he has never been
disappointed with his purchase before. According to behavioral learning theory, the
reward he gets from enjoying his purchase is called
·reinforcement.
129. Selective _______ involves consumers interpreting information so that it is consistent with
their attitudes and beliefs.
·comprehension
130. Several decades ago many consumers thought that all coffee tasted the same. What
theory suggests that consumers might be able to perceive differences between the
tastes of Starbucks coffee and other coffee offerings?
·Stimulus discrimination
131. Over consumers' lifetimes, they develop responses to different types of information and
commercial offers. This is called
·learning
132. _______ refers to those behaviours that result from repeated experience and reasoning.
·Learning
133. The process of developing automatic responses to a situation built up through repeated
exposure to it is called
·behavioral learning.
134. The process by which a firm attempts to have the consumer associate two ideas such as a
drug and headache relief is called
·cognitive learning.
135. While placing a take-out order and her favorite local restaurant, Brenda recalls that ordering
extra spicy last time resulted in an upset stomach. She decides to order her food "mildly spicy",
reflecting
·behavioral learning
136. When Marriott uses its name on a second line of properties, Courtyard by Marriott hotels, it
uses the behavioral learning theory called stimulus
·generalization.
137. An advertisement for a security company cites various crime statistics to make consumers
aware of growth in home theft and how security systems impact the rate of victimization. The
consumer looking at the ad will have to use ________ learning in order to process the
information.
·cognitive
138. Thinking, reasoning, and mental problem solving without direct experience are
characteristic of ________ learning.
·cognitive
139. When a consumer has a favourable attitude toward a product and consistent purchases of a
specific brand, it is called
·brand loyalty
140. Advertisements for electric vehicles refer to the ability to drive past gasoline stations
without spending any money. This approach relies on
·cognitive learning
141. Consumer habits and desire for simplicity in shopping for routine purchases push most
 shoppers towards brands .
142. A(n) _____ is a learned predisposition to respond to an object or class of objects in a
consistently favourable or unfavourable way.
·attitude
143. A consumer's attitude toward Apple is formed because she has developed ________ over
time that Apple's products are cutting-edge, innovative, and must-haves.
·beliefs

144. Consumers often purchase a specific product brand in order to reduce risk and save
time.
145. One's perception of how a product or brand performs on different attributes are called
·beliefs
146. There are three approaches used by marketers to change consumers' attitude. They are
changing the perceived importance of attributes, adding new attributes to the product, and
·changing beliefs about certain attributes
147. For marketers, consumer habit formation can be critical for
·brand loyalty
148. Gretta has never tried Pert shampoo but she doubts that a shampoo can be effective as a
two-in-one shampoo and conditioner. Her negative predisposition toward the brand is her
·attitude.
149. Which of the following would be the best way for Proctor and Gamble to change a
consumer's attitude towards Tide?
·Add a new ingredient to its formula
150. Attitudes towards products are shaped by our
·values and beliefs.
151. Lifestyle is a mode of living that is identified by
·how people spend their time and resources.
152. Beliefs about product attributes create the favourable or unfavourable attitude a
consumer has toward certain products or services.
·True
153. Which of the following statements about attitudes is TRUE?

·Some attitudes are enduring and stable within a culture.

154. A market research firm has identified a particular group of consumers. They seem to value
thriftiness and care for the environment, yet at the same time, they like their comfort and live in
homes located near downtown. In describing these new segment of consumers the market
research firm is using which two of these to identify them?
·geography
·psychographics
155. When Pepsi stamped freshness dates on its cans it added an attribute in the consumer's
mind that changed ______ toward Pepsi and colas in general.
`attitudes
156. The prominent psychographic system in which consumers are segmented according to their
primary motivations for buying and their resources is
·VALS.
157. Psychographics is considered to be a measure of consumers'
·lifestyles.
158. Canadian psychographics are
·significantly different from those in America
159. Psychographic clusters tie lifestyle traits to
·postal codes
160. Lifestyle analysis has not proven useful in segmenting and targeting consumers for
products and services.
·F
161. The sociocultural factors that influence consumer behavior include which of the following?
·Culture
·Friends and family
162. Opinion leadership and word-of-mouth activity are both examples of
·personal influence
163. Which two of the following are the variables with which the VALS system categorizes
buyers?
·Their resources
·Their primary motivation for buying and having products
164. The Canadian psychographic segmentation tool similar to the American VALS system is
·Environics PRIZM
165. Opinion leaders are more likely important for products like
·automobiles
166. The Environics Analytics PRIZM5 system breaks Canadians into 68 distinct segments based
on demographics, psychographics and
·geographics by postal code
167. The sociocultural influences that affect the consumer's behavior include all of the following
EXCEPT which?
·Perception

168. Two aspects of personal influence are

·word-of-mouth activities
·opinion leadership
169. Using a celebrity spokesperson in order to sell a product is an example of using the influence
of _______ leaders.
·opinion
170. Both Leonardo DiCaprio and Maria Sharapova have appeared in ads for TAG Heuer watches.
This is an example of
·opinion leadership
171. Individuals who have social influence over others are called
·opinion leaders
172. The influencing of people during conversation, in either positive or negative ways, is called
·word of mouth.
173. Which of the following scenarios describes negative word of mouth?
·Joe tells many of his friends because he feels like he paid too much for poor service.
174. The term __________ refers to a brand becoming popular due to people talking about it
with friends and family.
·buzz marketing
175. When Cindy Crawford or Michael Phelps appear on Omega watch print ads, Omega uses
their _______ leadership to influence consumers.
·opinion
176. When companies hire people to talk up a brand with others it is called
·product seeding
177. Many companies will pay celebrities to post about their products on popular social media
platforms. This exemplifies these celebrities as
·opinion leaders
178. Word of mouth using online media is called _____.
·viral marketing
179. Word of mouth is important in influencing many product decisions because
·it is seen as trustworthy

180. A reference group is a group of people who influence a person's attitudes, values,
and behaviours.
181. Jay feels that he has been treated poorly and quite unfairly by the electronics store at
which he bought his speakers. He is a customer who is very likely to spread negative
________ about the firm to his friends and family.
·word of mouth
182. Tom's volleyball team has a lot of influence in his buying behavior for a vast array of
products. The team serves as a(n) ________ to Tom by offering information about brands,
providing rewards in the form of compliments for well-selected purchases, and contributing to
Tom's self-image.
·reference group
183. Some alcohol companies will hire interns to socialize in popular night clubs and give patrons
free samples of new drinks using the sponsor's products. This exemplifies
·buzz marketing
184. Which of the following are types of reference groups with clear implications for marketers?
·Dissociative group
·Aspiration group
185. Based on the Word of Mouth Marketing Association (WOMMA) guidelines, brand
representatives must
·disclose their relationship with the brand
186. Identify the sources of family influences on consumer behavior. (Check all that apply.)
·Decision-making
·Consumer socialization
187. Typical venues for viral marketing include
·social networks
·emails
188. The process by which children learn how to save money and use a bank account is part of an
overall process known as
·consumer socialization.
189. Which of the following is NOT a reference group that might influence a buyer's choices and
behaviors?
·Culture
190. Johanne met her friend Rachel for lunch and admired her new Gucci hand-bag. Later, when
Johanne was shopping, she decided to purchase a Gucci bag for herself. This exemplifies
·the power of reference groups

191. The family life cycle concept describes the distinct phases that a family progresses
through from formation to retirement, each phase bringing with it identifiable
purchasing behaviours.
192. Chris has been a member of the GTA Kings recreational hockey team for the past 5
seasons. He has noticed that his choices in hockey equipment almost always reflect the
groups choices. This is an example of a(n)
·membership group
193. When Nabisco sells its cookies, it must consider who is the consumer, the decision maker,
and the buyer. It may be the same person for all three roles, but often different ______ members
play various roles in the purchase of Nabisco's cookies such as Fig Newtons and Oreos.
·family
194. Consumer socialization, family life cycle passage, and decision making are all sources of
_____ on consumer behaviour.
·family influences
195. The marketing manager for a brand of root beer often has difficulty convincing buyers to pay
for high-quality soda. Frequently, women buy it but do not drink it. They will buy store brands for
other family members, hoping to save money. This exemplifies a problem in family decision roles:
sometimes the ________ is not the ________.
·user; buyer
196. When Time, Inc. publishes a kid's version of its Sports Illustrated publication it is attempting
to influence today's children to purchase SI when they become adults. This process is an example
of
·consumer socialization.
197. Which of the following statements regarding shopping roles are correct
·despite limited spending capabilities, children have massive influence on purchases
·pre-teens and teens may be the information gatherers and gatekeepers for many family
purchases
198. A set of values, ideas, and attitudes that is learned and shared among members of a group is
called
·culture.
199. Eli used to go trekking in the Colorado mountains with his wife Susan. But now that they
have a child, they are going for shorter strolls and rarely take a vacation. This is an example of
how ________ can make people change their behavior.
·the family life cycle
200. Canadian cultural values include
·politeness
·pride and humility
201. ________ is done jointly between Bob and Jenny, a married couple. Bob wants to be
involved in deciding on vacation spots, and Jenny wants to be involved in doing the income taxes.
·Family decision making
202. Lucy often advises Johnny about which kind of shirt he should buy. Lucy is most likely acting
in the role of a(n) ________ in the family decision process.
·influencer
203. In terms of family grocery shopping
·husbands do about half the shopping
204. It is a difference in ________ that guides consumers in China to prefer cookies that are
slightly sweeter and buyers in South America to prefer cookies that are much sweeter than in the
United States.
·culture
205. Subcultures can be defined by
·values
·regions
206. The identification of Canadian culture with stereoptypes is exemplified through
·Molson's "rant ad" beer commercials
207. Immigration has had a major influence on Canada's food markets.
·True
208. The largest subculture in Canada is
·French Canadians
209. French-speaking Quebecers exhibit different consumption behaviour than the rest of
Canada. French Qubecers tend to
·have a taste for beauty products
·pay more for convenience
210. The subcultures we see most in Canada that make up nearly 40 percent of the Canadian
population are:
·French, German, Italian, Chinese, and Ukrainian.
211. Which of the following traits are commonly used to describe the Chinese Canadian
subculture?
·relatively educated and affluent
·prefer media in their own language
212. In terms of cuisine choices, Canada
·is welcoming of diverse cuisines from around the world
213. The multi-ethnic and multicultural nature of Canada has led to
·an advantage for Canadians doing business in other countries
214. French-speaking Canadians make up about ____ of the population of Canada.
·30%
215. Any Canadian business interested in other countries must consider the buyers through
·cross-cultural analysis
216. ______ Canadians identify "happiness" and "freedom" as primary goals. They value family
life but have lower marriage rates.
·French
217. With significant populations in both Toronto and Vancouver, _______ Canadians are an
increasingly important subculture.
·Chinese
218. Socially preferred modes of conduct that persist over time are often called
·values
219. ______ is often regarded as one of the most multicultural countries in the world.
·Canada
220. Which of the following exemplify societal cultural values? (Check all that apply.)
·McDonalds selling non-beef burgers in India.
·Germans aversion to purchasing on credit.
221. Generally, customs ________ from country to country.
·can vary significantly
222. The study of similarities and differences among consumers in two or more nations is called
·cross-cultural analysis
223. Which of the following statements about customs are correct
·bribes and kick-backs are common in some countries
·In France, men wear more than twice the number of cosmetics compared to women
224. Cultural symbols are important to marketers because
·they represent a group or society
225. A society's values represent
·socially acceptable conduct
226. The German word for "debt" is the same as the word for "guilt". This is a reflection of
·German societal values
227. The "thumbs-up" symbol, while popular in Canada, is offensive in Russia and Poland. This
points to the need for marketers to
·maintain a cultural sensitivity when choosing images
228. ______ are what is considered normal and expected about the way people do things in a
specific country or culture.
·Customs
229. While Canada has two official languages, there are about ___ official languages worldwide.
·100
230. Some countries have business customs that are illegal in other countries. Which of the
following are examples of this? (Check all that apply.)
·Gift giving
·Bribery of government officials
231. Many product names, when translated, convey unintended or undesirable meanings in
other languages. This supports the use of
·back-translation
232. Objects, ideas or processes that represent a society are called
·cultural symbols
233. Tiffany & Company sells its fine china in sets of five, not four, in Japan. This is due to
·Japanese superstition regarding the word for "four"
234. Pepsi used an alternate spelling of the product for a campaign in Argentina in response to
·the local pronunciation of Pepsi
235. A technique used to catch errors in language translation is
·back translation

1. Numeric data that are collected to track performance are called

metrics
2. The purpose of marketing research is
to help marketers make better decisions
3. Estimating demand for a product that is completely new to the marketplace can be
extremely difficult. This exemplifies
the challenging nature of marketing research
4. In studying the health care needs of First Nations communities, Peckham & Associates
reviewed available data from Stats Canada, used qualitative research to determine the scope
and nature of the project, and used quantitative research to ensure coverage and
involvement across each community. This demonstrates
the systematic approach used in market research
5. Place the stages of the basic approach that is commonly used to conduct market research
studies in the correct order. (Place the first step at the top.)

6. Metrics refers to
numeric data used to track performance
7. The first step in the market research process is
defining the problem clearly
8. The process of planning, collecting, and analyzing information in order to recommend actions
to improve marketing activities is called
market research
9. Which of the following statements reflect the challenging nature of marketing research?
people may be reluctant to answer questions regarding their motivations
consumers often don't know what they want
10. As part of a move to a larger stadium, The Saskatchewan Roughriders contracted a research
firm to help them: understand the different demographic segments in their fan base,
 understand how the team is currently perceived by residents, and uncover the relationship
current fans have with the team logo and brand. This demonstrates
the systematic approach to marketing research
11. ______ are specific, measurable goals that the decision maker seeks to achieve.
Objectives
12. Select all of the following that are stages in the marketing research process.

Take marketing actions

Develop findings

Define the problem

13. Most market researchers agree that "a problem well-defined is a problem half-solved". This
refers to which stage in the market research process
problem definition
14. In order for research to be effective, different research outcomes
should lead to different marketing actions
15. The second step in the market research process is research design. This includes

determining how data will be collected

identifying what info is needed

16. To be effective, market research must collect information that is
Relevant
17. Research objectives must be ____ to the defined problem.
directly related
18. If research objectives are too broad ___, while if they are too
narrow ___.
they may not be researchable, the results may not be valuable
19. Researchers may choose not to conduct new data collection if
existing data is sufficient to help make the marketing decisions
20. Which of the following are determined in the research design
step of marketing research?
Identifying the information required
Determining how the information can be collected
21. In marketing research, how we obtain the data can be as
critical as the specific data we obtain.
T
22. Which of the following characteristics is most important in
identifying which data to collect for marketing research?
Data that is relevant to decisions for marketing actions
23. The process of gathering data from a subset of the total
population, rather than from all members, is called
Sampling
24. Which of the following does a researcher's sampling plan
identify? (Check all that apply.)
How the sample will be selected
Who is to be sampled
25. New research data can be collected
in person
online
by telephone
26. The two basic approaches to sampling are
non-probability sampling
probability sampling
27. For Fisher-Price considering marketing research for its Chatter
Telephone, determining the ________ was particularly challenging,
since it needed to obtain data from three- and four-year-olds.
Methods
28. _______ sampling involves precise rules to select the sample
so that each element of the population has a specific chance of
being selected.
Probability
29. Market researchers use smaller "samples" of the population
they are studying because
it saves cost
it saves time
30. The use of arbitrary judgement by the market researcher in
selecting a sample is called
non-probability sampling
31. Sampling errors could result from
choosing the wrong people into the sample
32. Preliminary research that clarifies the scope and nature of a
marketing problem is referred to as
exploratory research
33. In deciding what information is required to aid in a marketing
decision, we must decide whether to use
primary or secondary data
34. The two basic approaches to sampling are probability
sampling and non-probability sampling.
35. Identify the sampling technique in which researchers are
most comfortable drawing conclusions about an entire
population.
Probability sampling
36. True or false: Probability sampling is always preferable to
non-probability sampling.
F
37. Data collected by our company over the past two years is
called
internal secondary data
38. Research that generally provides researchers with a better
understanding of the dimensions of the marketing problem or
opportunity before focusing on areas that require further
research is called _____.
exploratory research
39. The two broad types of data are
secondary
primary
40. True or false: Secondary data refers to the facts and figures
that are newly collected for a project.
F
41. _______ sampling involves precise rules to select the sample
so that each element of the population has a specific chance of
being selected.
Probability
42. Secondary data comes in two forms:
Internal
External
43. _______ are facts and figures that have already been recorded
before the project at hand.
Secondary data
44. An organization may start a new marketing research study by
examining internal secondary data like customer complaints
primarily because
using this information can result in time and cost savings.
45. Data collected from published sources outside the
organization is called
external secondary data
46. Often, internal secondary data sources are divided into
marketing inputs and marketing outcomes
47. Primary data are _____.
facts and figures that are newly collected for the project
48. The Canadian Census occurs every five years. It collects
information across all Canadian households including:
occupation
ethnic background
age
49. The two types of secondary data are
external and internal
50. Organizations may use ________ such as its own detailed sales
breakdowns by product line as the starting point for a research
 project because the potential huge savings in time and cost
savings.
internal secondary data
51. External secondary data sources include:
online searches
outside publications
52. __ provide subscribers with a standard set of consumer
economic, purchase, or satisfaction data on a regular basis.
Syndicated panels
53. Internal sources of secondary data include:
sales records
advertising expenses
54. The federal government's statistical agency is called
Statistics Canada
55. Published articles, private research reports, news media
reports, and competitive market share reports are all examples
of
secondary data
56. Companies like Nielsen TV ratings and JD Power's pay
households or businesses to record their purchases and product
usage. These are refereed to as
syndicated panels
57. Data that is original and specifically collected for the project
at hand is called
Primary data
58. Primary data is often preferred over secondary data because
secondary data may not be accurate
secondary data may be out of date
59. Statistics Canada collects and reports data on which of the
following
culture and leisure
international trade
60. A _______ is an informal interview in which six to eight people
are brought together in a room with a moderator for discussion.
focus group
61. Some consumer packaged goods firms that sell to
wholesalers may not have the means to gather pertinent data
directly from consumers that buy its products, especially over
time. A good source of this information is
secondary data
62. Open-ended questions and group discussion are
characteristics of which research method?
focus groups
63. Compared to primary data, secondary data is
 lower in cost
64. data is data that is original and specifically collected for
the project at hand.
Primary
65. Detailed individual interviews where a researcher discusses
topics at length in a free-flowing conversation are called
in-depth interviews
66. A popular exploratory research technique that involves six to
eight people together with a moderator is a(n)
focus group
67. _____ research communities involve the use of consumer
groups brought together using the internet and/or social media
sites.
Online
68. Typically, focus groups are moderated and also include
observers
videotaping
69. Typically, online communities
include 200 - 300 people
involve two-way communication
70. Private online forums where respondents can post responses
to questions are called
online bulletin boards
71. Individual interviews that may take a few hours and include
free-flowing conversation and recording are called in-depth
interviews
72. Internet communications technology has made possible
private groups to answer questions, respond to ideas and
collaborate with researchers in real time. These are called
online research communities
73. Many companies monitor online conversations and images in
order to measure public sentiments, message reach, and
popularity. This is called
social listening
74. Which of the following statements are correct regarding
social listening:
Consumer data is subject to social media privacy policies
Social listening can yield important information for marketers
75. Which of the following are true regarding online research
communities?
They involve two-way communication
Members are often paid for their time
They are intended to provoke discussion and debate
76. While not as rich with information as an online community,
online bulletin boards have the advantage of
ease of administration
77. Quantitative research techniques include:
surveys
observation
78. Social listening metrics typically include:
message reach
positive and negative sentiments
79. The main advantage of quantitative research is _______, while
the main disadvantage is ______.
statistical accuracy, high costs
80. True or false: In the context of the ethical issue raised by
social listening, while participants in social networks realize many
of their comments and pictures are publicly posted, they may not
be aware that their conversations may be monitored and used for
research purposes.
T
81. Observational research can be qualitative or quantitative.
T
82. Often, _____ are used to gather quantitative information from
large numbers of people using mail, the telephone or the
internet.
Surveys
83. Statistically reliable information that comes from observation
or questioning is called
quantitative research
84. Typically, quantitative research is conducted using
observation
surveys
85. While internet surveys can be difficult to verify, the do allow
for
ease of reaching specific target markets
86. The three quantitative research techniques are
surveys
observation
experiments
87. Watching how people behave, either in person or using
machines to record, is called
observational research
88. An advantage of studies is the spreading of cost across
many clients.
Syndicated
89. Survey questions can be standardized in the form of a(n)
_____ to obtain accurate data from a large representative sample
Questionnaire
90. Survey panels typically collect information from large
samples on a regular basis so that researchers can
assess changes in behaviors and attitudes
91. Mail surveys can be less ____. Internet surveys __________.
costly, are becoming popular
92. Which of the following is not a primary quantitative research
technique?
Focus groups
93. Regular studies conducted by research firms for a variety of
clients are called
syndicated studies
94. A(n) __ survey includes large numbers of respondents in
routine surveys and also offers the ability for marketers to add a
small number of their own questions.
Omnibus
95. A _____ includes a large sample of respondents that
voluntarily complete questionnaires on a regular basis so that
researchers can assess changes in behaviour and attitudes.
survey panel
96. _____ involve measuring changes in consumer behavior over
time in response to a product introduction or promotional offer.
Experiments
97. For new products, large companies often use _______ to
determine whether consumers will buy.
test markets
98. Disadvantages of test markets include:
high cost
visibility to competition
99. Some research firms run regular ________ using large groups
of volunteer participants. With these studies, individual
marketers can add a small number of questions to the surveys in
a cost-effective way.
omnibus surveys
100. The _______ step is the point where collected data is turned
into actionable information.
compile, analyze, and interpret
101. Experiments can be conducted in a controlled environment or
_______ for a limited time period.
in the market
102. is a simulation or short-term experiment to predict
consumer behavior
 test
market
103. Both McDonald's and Tim Hortons have used __ in London,
Ontario to determine whether consumer will buy new products.
test markets
104. Marketing research helped the Saskatchewan Roughriders
better understand the components of fan loyalty and
engagement
105. ______ visualize data in a way that tells a story or makes it
easier to understand.
Dashboards
106. After data has been collected, the next step is to
compile and analyze the data
107. Which of the following are typical metrics measures:
market share
revenue
buzz
108. Market share and brand development index are two key
drivers of
brand health
109. Market share represents
the percentage of our sales relative to industry sales for a
particular product
110. Which of the following reflect findings by the Saskatchewan
Roughriders based on marketing research findings:
understanding fans' motives
facilitation of supporter engagement
111. The metric most applicable to marketers trying to determine
regional growth opportunities for a brand is
brand development index
112. Dashboards visualize data
to make it easy to understand and use
113. Identify the possible sources of metrics data. (Check all that
apply.)
Sales reports
App downloads
Social media pages
114. The two key drivers of brand health are:
brand development index
market share
115. Major data analysis methods include:
data mining
big data
116. The percentage of sales for our product relative to the entire
industry sales is called
market share
117. Big data is referred to as high in
volume
velocity
variety
118. ________ shows how well a brand's sales are developed in a
region relative to the region's population size.
Brand development index
119. The "intelligent enterprise" normally refers to an organization
that
uses data, technology and analytics to guide actions
120. Analyzing marketing data today often involves
complex methods utilizing information systems
121. ______ refers to the massive amounts of data that is high in
volume, velocity and variety.
Big data
122. IBM, Tesla, and Amazon use artificial intelligence to operate
Watson, guide self-driving cars, and make purchase
recommendations. These organizations exemplify
intelligent enterprises
123. Modern marketers often use a combination of data,
technology and analytics to lead effective marketing programs.
These organizations are often called
intelligent enterprises
124. The practice of examining large databases to find statistical
relationships between consumer purchasing patterns is called
data mining
125. Statistical models that use data mining and probability
analysis to foretell consumer behavior is called
predictive modelling
126. Target uses __ to show which items an expectant mother
purchases based on her expected due date.
predictive modelling
127. Analytics can help a company answer questions, provide
customer insights and
predict patterns
128. Components of the intelligent enterprise normally include:
use of artificial intelligence platforms
data storage and management
129. Identify the main categories of big data analytics. (Check all
that apply.)
Descriptive
 Predictive
130. When supermarkets placed beer and potato chips nearby
diapers, they were following information gained through
data mining
131. Predictive modelling uses __ and probability analysis to
foretell consumer behavior.
data mining
132. The simplest and most common form of analytics is
descriptive analytics
133. Target has used __ to identify 25 products that, when bought
together or over time, predict a woman's likelihood of being
pregnant as well as her expected due date.
data mining
134. The process of taking metrics data and applying smart
thinking and technology to help make better business decisions
is called
Analytics
135. Perhaps the most well known example of __ is Google Analytics.
web analytics
136. Big data analytics falls into two categories:
descriptive
predictive
137. Social media interactions such as __ are analyzed using social
analytics to determine the success of marketing programs on social
platforms.
views, shares, and sentiments
138. Descriptive analytics focus on
what has happened
139. Marketer use __ to measure social media campaign performance,
determine a brand's buzz level, and gauge brand sentiment.
social listening
140. Tools that measure web page views, time on site, bounce rate and
returning visitors are called
web analytics
141. Marketers can assess the performance of a social media campaign
using _______ to measure brand buzz or identify key influencers.
social media analytics
142. The most popular free social analytics tool is
Hootsuite
143. pays attention to real-time public conversations on social networks
to discover trends, common themes, attitudes and areas of interest. (two
words)
Social listening
144. The use of automated software to rate customers on the basis of how
recently they purchased, their frequency of purchases, and the value of
their purchases is called
RFM analysis
145. RFM systems are often use with __ to analyze and segment customers.
CRM
146. A marketer wishes to combine data from varied sources in order to
understand consumer purchase patterns and predict outcomes. They are
most likely to use
predictive analytics
147. Hootesuite and Salesforce Marketing Cloud are both examples of
social analytics tools
148. RFM analysis refers to
frequency
monetary value
149. RFM (recency, frequency, monetary value) systems can be used both
to categorize customers and to
predict their behavior
150. _____ refers to the processing of large amounts of data using software
to find insightful patterns that lead to better business decisions.
Data mining
151. Combining data from sources like CRM databases, social media
analytics, and customer service databases to reveal consumer patterns is
called analytics.
Predictive
152. Once data has been analyzed, the researcher will
prepare a report to communicate findings
153. Using sophisticated computer software with large amounts of data in
order to find consumer insights is called
data mining
154. Reflecting on both the decision and the decision process are part of
the evaluation process
155. Future trends in market research include
ethical and legal data considerations
growth in use and techniques available
156. In order to have value, marketing data
must help in guiding marketing actions
157. The evaluating process includes which two aspects?
evaluating the decision
evaluating the decision process
158. In the future, organizations are expected to
increase investment in technology and people who can create actionable
research data
1. Business marketing is also commonly referred to as ________ marketing.
business-to-business
2. Which of the following statements are true regarding business marketing?
Marketing plans are important for business marketing
Organizational buyer behavior differs from consumer buyer behavior
3. Organizational buyers include manufacturers, wholesalers and government agencies
4. An example of an organizational purchase is
a company buying smartphones for its sales force
5. Total purchases of an organization in a year
are far greater than those of individuals
6. The marketing of products to companies, governments or non-profit organizations for use in
the creation of goods and services they market is referred to as
business marketing
7. Organizational buyers include which types of buyers
Reseller/ industrial/ governments
8. True or false: the buying behavior of organizational buyers is identical to that of individual
consumers. F
9. Firms that reprocess a product or service they buy before selling it are called
industrial markets
10. Organizational buyers may purchase goods
for resale
for their own use
11. Which of the following exemplify organizational buying?
A business buys smartphones for employees to use while in the office and travelling for work
A retailer purchases items to resell
A manufacturer purchases raw materials they will reprocess
12. The industrial market in Canada
includes over 1 million small businesses
13. Which of the following statements is most correct?
Organizations purchase larger volumes than consumers
14. Organizations that buy physical products and sell them without any reprocessing are called
Resellers
15. Non-profit organizations are considered organizational buyers. T
16. Automobile companies typically purchase goods and services from many suppliers called
industrial sellers
17. Organizational buyers include manufacturers, wholesalers and
government agencies
18. With over $280 billion spending in 2013, ______ is one the largest buyers in Canada
the federal government
19. Which of the following statements regarding Industrial markets are true?
The industrial market includes services such as insurance, real estate businesses,
transportation and communication.
Primary markets refer to agriculture, fishing, mining and forestry.
20. Reseller markets include
retailers
wholesalers
21. Organizations that operate without having financial profit as a goal are called
non-profit organizations
22. Organizational buyers include which types of buyers
Reseller/ governments/ industrial
23. Firms that reprocess a product or service they buy before selling it are called industrial
markets
24. Federal, provincial, regional and municipal agencies that buy goods and services for their
constituents are called government markets
25. The NAICS classification system helps to facilitate and measure economic activity between
Canada, Mexico and the United States
26. The industrial market in Canada includes over 1 million small businesses
27. Which statement is correct?
The six-digit NAICS code is used to designate the economic sector, industry and country of
industrial goods.
28. The Boy Scouts, Girl Guides, and Canadian Cancer Society are all examples of
non-profit organizations
29. The business buying decision is often a lengthy process that requires extensive research. As a
result, many industrial sellers utilize
content marketing
30. Many schools have foundation offices that raise money for student awards and aid. This is an
example of non-profit marketing
31. Automobile companies typically purchase goods and services from many suppliers called
industrial sellers
32. In Canada (and the US), industrial, government, reseller, and non-profit markets are classified
using the NAICS system
33. The North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) groups economic activity
using a six-digit code
by industry group
34. Approximately ___ of Business-to-business (B2B) marketers use content marketing strategies.
90%
35. The purpose of content marketing is to keep potential customers engaged
36. Typical non-profit organizational buyers in Canada include:
Hospitals
Cultural groups
37. Specialty social media software, like that provided by Contently, allows organizational sellers
to offer current content marketing solutions
38. Firms that reprocess a product or service they buy before selling it are called industrial
markets
39. For both consumer and organizational buying- purchases are made to solve problems
40. Industrial demand for products and services is driven by demand for consumer products and
services. This is referred to as derived demand
41. Content marketing can include:
social media posts
e-news and videos
42. The business buying decision is often a lengthy process that requires extensive research. As a
result, many industrial sellers utilize content marketing
43. A pulp and paper company is concerned with consumer switching away from printed news
and towards online sources. This reflects derived demand
44. Content marketing solutions including media monitoring and engagement insights can be
outsourced to third-party providers. An example of this is Contently
45. Organizational objectives and policies make buying decisions different than consumer
decisions
46. Derived demand refers to _____.
the demand for industrial goods that is driven by demand for consumer products
47. Which of the following businesses depends most upon derived demand
Magna auto parts
48. When customers buy the same quantity regardless of prices, demand is inelastic
49. Specialty social media software, like that provided by Contently, allows organizational sellers
to offer current content marketing solutions
50. An increase in the cost of pulp and paper could result in increased prices for the pizza boxes
bought by local pizzerias. These higher prices are unlikely to change their demand for boxes,
however, reflecting inelastic demand
51. For both consumer and organizational buying
purchases are made to solve problems
52. Industrial demand for products and services is driven by demand for consumer products and
services. This is referred to as derived demand
53. Industrial demand for specialized machinery can vary from year to year as these items tend
to have a long life expectancy and are therefore purchased infrequently. This reflects
fluctuating demand
54. Typically, organization order sizes are _____ compared to consumer order sizes.
much larger
55. Inelastic demand is most likely for B2B products
56. A car manufacturer orders the same quantity of tires even though the price has increased.
This is an example of inelastic demand
57. Organizational objectives and policies make buying decisions different than consumer
decisions
58. Competitive bids are commonly used in organizational buying
59. Often, small changes in demand for consumer goods can result in large changes in demand
for industrial goods. This is referred to as fluctuating demand
60. Kellogg sells breakfast cereals while Bombardier sells business jets. Which company has a
larger customer base?
Kellogg
61. When customers buy the same quantity regardless of prices, demand is
Inelastic
62. When Nissan switched its advertising agency or purchased a new computer system the
buying objective was ultimately to
improve profits
63. An increase in the cost of pulp and paper could result in increased prices for the pizza boxes
bought by local pizzerias. These higher prices are unlikely to change their demand for boxes,
however, reflecting inelastic demand
64. When a planned organizational purchase is worth $5,000 or more, _____ is often used.
competitive bidding
65. A hospital purchase of a large piece of diagnostic equipment would most likely be motivated
by a need to serve patients better
66. Industrial demand for specialized machinery can vary from year to year as these items tend
to have a long life expectancy and are therefore purchased infrequently. This reflects
fluctuating demand
67. Generally, firms selling products or services to consumers have ____ potential buyers than
firms selling to other businesses. More
68. Commonly used organizational buying criteria include
past performance
delivery schedules
69. Typically, organizations buy products and services for one of two reasons
increase sales
reduce costs
70. In developing stores in new markets, Tim Hortons will provide potential contractors with
detailed specifications and ask for bids. This is called reverse marketing
71. This motivation is more common in organizational purchase than with those made by
individual consumers
fear of making a mistake
72. The purchase objective of non-profit organizations is usually- to better meet their needs
73. In choosing a company to manufacture signs for his business, John requests to visit the
factory of 3 potential suppliers to evaluate their work and the scale of their operations. John
is exemplifying dealing with risk in a business decision-making setting
74. Often, small changes in demand for consumer goods can result in large changes in demand
for industrial goods. This is referred to as fluctuating demand
75. The factors an organization considers in evaluating suppliers are called buying criteria
76. While most consumer decisions are relatively simply, organizational buying decisions can be
more complex and include:
technical specifications
delivery schedules
price considerations
77. Many firms specify their buying criteria directly to potential suppliers and solicit bids. This is
called reverse marketing
78. Risk in business decisions can be in two forms
Organizational
Personal
79. A buyer who chooses not to work with a new supplier even though they offer better value is
using risk avoidance
80. ______ buying is more likely to involve complex and lengthy negotiations.
Organizational
81. A situation where two organizations agree to purchase each other's products is called
Reciprocity
82. A ________ exists when a buyer and supplier adopt mutually beneficial objectives, policies
and procedures in order to better serve ultimate consumers.
supply partnership
83. Organizational buyers use a decision process to establish the need for products and services
and to identify and evaluate potential suppliers
84. The five buying stages for organizations are ______ the buying stages for consumers.
similar to
85. A local car dealer hires a commercial contractor to build their new dealership under the
agreement that the contractor will purchase their work vehicles through the dealer for the
following two years. This exemplifies a reciprocal arrangement
86. The people in an organization who participate in the buying process are called buying center
87. Which of the following best describes a supply partnership?
They are long-term relationships built on mutual benefits.
88. A formal buying centre approach used by chain stores is called buying committee
89. Which of the following are key questions in understanding a buying centre?
Which individuals are in the buying centre for this purchase?
How does each member perceive the potential suppliers?
90. There are important similarities and differences between ________ and ______.
organizational buyers, consumers
91. The buying decision process of an organization purchasing smartphones is typical of the
process for consumers
92. A buying centre refers to
the people in an organization concerned with a purchase decision
93. Which of the following organizational buyers is most likely to use a formal buying committee?
Retail chain store
94. In general, members of an industrial buying centre will be from different areas of the
organization and having different buying criteria
95. Generally, a buying centre includes members who have valuable input into the decision
96. Roles in the buying centre include
influencers
gatekeepers
deciders
97. The three types of buying situations are often called buy classes
98. Normally, a buying centre will include people who
will make the purchase decision
will influence the purchase decision
99. Office supplies are typically a straight rebuy situation
100. A restaurant owners would like to maintain the current menu but is considering changing
their purchases of produce to allow for new "fresh" options. This is most likely a modified
rebuy
101. The office staff who will use new software that is purchased would be considered ____ in
the buying centre
Users
102. The three buy classes include
straight rebuy
new buy
modified rebuy
103. In a new buy situation the company is buying the product or service for the first time
104. A ______ occurs when the purchasing manager reorders an existing product from the
current supplier.
straight rebuy
105. When a company is buying a product it has experience with but wishes to change the
product specifications or supplier, it is called a modified rebuy
106. _____ have the formal authority and responsibility to select the supplier and negotiate the
terms. Buyers
107. A local College is considering the purchase of marketing research analytics software for its
computer labs in the Business area. This is most likely a new buy
108. The buying centre for a new buy will
be larger
have more areas represented
109. While consumer market segmentation groups buyers based on common needs, business
market segmentation divides markets based on size, buying situation and location
110. The NAICS codes are useful for ___ businesses in order to identify target markets.
Segmenting
111. In a new buy situation the company
is buying the product or service for the first time
112. Many B2B marketers divide potential buyers into large and small accounts and have
separate distribution channels to reach each group. This is an example of segmentation base
upon customer size
113. Of the three buy classes, _______ involve the most complexity and risk for the purchaser.
new buy
114. A marketer may choose to divide up potential customers into "new buys" and "rebuys". This
is segmentation based on the buying situation
115. Market segmentation is utilized with business customers so that marketers can develop
strategies that fit buyer needs
116. Steelcase groups customers into industries including banking, education and hospitality
using NCAIS codes. This is an example of segmentation
by customer type
117. Grouping customers based on geographic location or population density is an example of
segmentation by customer location
118. American Express has a Small Business Services unit to assist small business owners. This
reflects segmentation by customer size
119. Premier Group Insurance focuses sales efforts on businesses that identify as leaders within
their industries who want to offer employees the best possible health coverage. This
exemplifies segmentation by benefits sought
120. A software company divides salespeople into distinct units that focus either on current
customers or potential customers. This approach reflects segmentation by buying class
121. Which statement best reflects the online buying behavior of organizations?
Organizational buying dominates online transactions
122. XYZ Restaurant Supply, located in Toronto, offers site visits for sales and consultation for
restaurants located with the GTA. This exemplifies geographic segmentation
123. True or false: Online buying is popular in organizational markets because it helps broaden
potential customer base for businesses. T
124. Some B2B marketers may decide to focus on customers who purchase based on product
quality or service rather than price. This exemplifies the need for segmentation based on
benefits sought
125. Increasingly, e-marketplaces and online auctions are dominated by organizational buyers
126. A marketer may choose to divide up potential customers into "new buys" and "rebuys". This
is segmentation based on the buying situation
127. Portals, exchanges, and e-hubs are all varieties of e-marketplaces
128. Grouping customers based on geographic location or population density is an example of
segmentation by customer location
129. Many large, international businesses have found cost savings through mandating suppliers
connect with them through private exchanges
130. Organizations utilize online purchasing because
it reduces transaction costs
it is efficient and timely
131. Online auctions have grown in popularity with organizational buyers and sellers. Two types
of online auction are _____ and _____.
traditional, reverse
132. Which of the following best exemplifies the organizational benefits to online purchasing?
Boeing sells $400 million in spare parts per year online
133. Online communities that bring together buyer and seller organizations are called e-
marketplaces
134. This type of online auction is frequently used by manufacturers to sell surplus or refurbished
merchandise.
traditional auction
135. With this type of online auction, the buyer communicates a need for a specific product or
service and potential suppliers are invited to bid in competition with each other.
reverse auction
136. E-marketplaces charge fees for their services but can help bring buyers and sellers together
in an efficient virtual market. Typically, they take on of the following two forms
private exchanges
independent exchanges
137. Many e-marketplaces offer multiple services, often including auctions
138. A ______ allows potential buyers to bid on items for sale with all bids visible and ends when
one (high priced) bidder remains. traditional auction
139. General Electric frequently uses its Global exchange site to list needs for products and
services and invite competitive bids. This is called a reverse auction
140. This type of online auction is frequently used by manufacturers to sell surplus or refurbished
merchandise.
traditional auction
141. With this type of online auction, the buyer communicates a need for a specific product or
service and potential suppliers are invited to bid in competition with each other.
reverse auction

1.

2. ______ helps marketers place their product offerings in the context of a competitive
market by allowing them to see the bigger picture from a consumer perspective.
Market segmentation
3. Which of the following are important facts on which market segmentation is based?
(Check all that apply.)
Limited company resources
Diverse consumer needs
4. Consumer markets consist of goods and services purchased for personal use while
business markets involve
products and services used as part of running a business
5. The process of aggregating prospective buyers into groups that have common needs
and will respond similarly to a marketing action is called
market segmentation.
6. The most important fundamental concept in marketing is
segmentation, targeting and positioning
7. The process that helps marketers identify which segments to focus on and where
future opportunities may lie is called
market segmentation
8. In order to decide who to serve, marketers take large populations and
segment them based on wants, needs and resources
9. A person might buy an iPad to connect with others on social networks, while a
business might buy iPads for salespeople to help them with customer presentations. In
these situations, the iPad is
both a consumer and business product
10. Each market ________ consists of people who are relatively similar to each other
in terms of their consumption behavior.
Segment
11. Market segmentation is the process of dividing the market into groups of
customers who are similar in which two of the following respects?
They will respond similarly to a marketing action.
They have common needs.
12. The _________ strategy involves a firm using different marketing mix activities to
help consumers perceive the product as being different and more suitable than
competing products.
product differentiation
13. Positioning happens in the minds of prospective consumers.
T
14. Which of the following is NOT a market segmentation strategy
product development
15. Market segments are the relatively ________ groups of prospective buyers that
result from the segmentation process.
Homogenous
16. Which of the following best describes mass marketing?
It is used in a limited capacity due to competition and consumer wants
17. A product differentiation strategy should achieve which of the following?
It should help consumers perceive the product as being different and more
suitable than competing ones.
18. Which of the following could be part of positioning a product?
creating a unique image for a product
changing the price to reflect a different value to consumers
19. Mass marketing, segment marketing, niche marketing and individualized
marketing are all
forms of market segmentation
20. Which of the following best exemplify mass marketing?
Utilities
fruits and vegetables
21. Toyota markets cars, trucks, sport utility vehicles and minivans under a range of
brands and models, each with a unique target market. Toyota is using a
segment marketing strategy
22. When a product is widely offered to a large population with no product or market
differentiation, it is called
mass marketing
23. The food, car and smartphone industries are dominated by large organizations that
utilize a
segment marketing approach
24. Fruit and vegetable markets with products like broccoli, onions and potatoes best
exemplify
mass marketing
25. The most common marketing strategy is _______ where companies offer different
products to specifically meet the needs of various target markets
segment marketing
26. General Motors produces cars under the Cruze, Camaro, Sierra, Corvette, and
Cadillac brands. Each brand has been created to appeal to a specific market segment.
This reflects a
segment marketing strategy
27. Kellogg's offers All Bran and Muslix for health-oriented adults, and Fruit Loops
and Corn Flakes for families with children. This reflects
market segments based on target market needs
28. Over the past few decades, many large organizations have moved from a __
approach to a __ approach, due to changing consumer wants and needs.
mass marketing; segment marketing
29. Bick's creates customized products for its large food service accounts. Some
products are packed in small jars, while others are sliced and ready to go on prepared
hamburgers. This is an example of
business-to-business segment marketing
30. Toyota sells the Yaris, a small two-door hatchback designed for young individuals
or couples and the Prius C, a four-door hatchback for young families living in the city.
Toyota is using a
segment marketing strategy
31. Tesla Motors only manufactures and sells electric vehicles sold through a small
number of exclusive stores. Tesla is using a
niche marketing strategy
32. In taking on large corporations that dominate product categories, new or smaller
firms like Eco-Max laundry detergent utilize a(n)
niche marketing strategy
33. Proctor & Gamble (P&G) introduced Tide, the first "heavy-duty synthetic
detergent" to the market. Initially, Tide used a mass marketing approach. Over time,
this strategy changed
as they recognized diverse consumer needs
34. Individualized marketing strategies are sometimes called customized or _____
marketing.
one-to-one
35. Coca Cola offered customers the ability to customize mini Coke cans. This
exemplifies
individualized marketing
36. Which of the following best exemplifies market segmentation in the business-to-
business market?
French's packages its condiments differently for restaurants and food manufacturers
37. The target market is
the specific group to which marketers aim their efforts
38. The strategy where a company restricts its efforts to marketing a limited product
line to a narrow segment of the market is called
niche marketing
39. With its focus on expensive electric vehicles and non-traditional sales and
distribution, Tesla can be described as using a
niche marketing
40. Internet and database technologies allow marketers to track consumers and offer
customized products. This is called
individualized marketing
41. The target market profile contains specific information about the target group in
four areas:
demographics
geographics
psychographics
behavioristics
42. Hershey uses its website to allow consumers to customize the plume at the top of
Hershey Kisses with a personalized message. This is called
individualized marketing
43. Target market factors such as province, city size and type of location (urban,
suburban or rural) are examples of
geographics
44. The group of existing and potential customers to which we direct our marketing
efforts is called the
target market
45. The best example of a product that would rely upon geographics in describing the
target market is
Smart car
46. Demographics include
income
age
47. In describing a target group's demographic, psychographic and behavioral
characteristics, we are assembling
a target market profile
48. Recently in Canada, we have seen many new options for delivered home meal
kits. Advertisements typically depict working couples who have little time to shop and
prepare meals from scratch. This reflects
Demographics
49. A consumer's attitudes to life, values, and general interests are described by
Psychographics
50. Target market factors such as family composition, occupation, education and
home ownership are all
Demographics
51. When Pepsi-Cola presents their product as the choice for those with a youthful
attitude to life, they are using
Psychographics
52. Behavioristics directly refers to ___ and ___ consumers buy and use products.
Why
How
53. Database marketing analytics can help with a __ approach by providing info on
consumer purchases over time.
Behavioristics
54. A true statement about psychographics is that _____.
it is one of the most difficult variables to identify for marketers
55. Many telecommunications companies offer different plans based on users' needs
for basic talk, text, and data usage. This exemplifies
Behavioristics
56. Which of the following are most likely to rely on psychographics?
fragrance company
expensive casual clothing company
57. How and why consumers buy and use products is described by
Behavioristics
58. Behavioristics helps marketers understand
what triggers consumer purchases
59. Ski and snowboard manufacturers understand that occasional recreational buyers,
weekend warriors and season pass holders all have different needs and approaches to
buying products. These markets are best understood using
Behavioristics
60. The favourable attitudes that a consumer has over time toward a brand is called
brand loyalty
61. Marketers often use research data and add fictional elements, such as name and
image, to make the target seem more human. These characters are called
Personas
62. Lululemon has created a persona for their primary target: Ocean is a 32 year
old, engaged female with an income of $100,000, who owns a downtown condo and
enjoys travel.
63. Companies such as Nielsen, Euromonitor and AIMIA provide __________ for
their clients that help them better understand customers.
segmentation analytics
64. Brand loyalty is important to marketers because
it protects against competition
65. The _____ segmentation system divides the Canadian population into 68 lifestyle
clusters such as Cosmopolitan Elite, Lunch at Tim's, and Les Chics.
PRIZM5
66. Which of the following reflects findings from the Environics Analytics "Six Key
Tribes of Millennials"?
one in four are actively involved in a cause
most want a work-life balance
67. Phoebe and Keisha both represent detailed portraits of target consumers developed
by LivingLou.com Canadian food blogs. These are examples of
Personas
68. Segmentation analytics can help companies to
identify market trends
69. Pitney Bowes Psyte HD and SuperDemographics both provide Canadian
segmentation systems based upon
postal codes
70. Successfully segmenting a market requires an understanding of customers and
analytic and strategic thinking
71. The PRIZM5 segmentation system slices the Canadian population into 68
segments based on
lifestyles
demographics
72. Recent work by Environics Analytics has resulted in a breakdown of Millennials
(born 1980 - 1995) into "Six Key Tribes" that vary based on
career aspirations and social engagement
73.The first step in the market segmentation process is to identify consumer needs and
common market characteristics.
74. Both database analytics and market research can be used in the marketing
segmentation process to
help identify consumer needs
75. Postal code based lifestyle clusters can be useful for marketers in
reaching target markets cost-effectively
76. The steps involved in the process of segmenting consumer markets is similar to
that of business-to-business markets.
T
77. A key step in market segmentation is identifying customer needs. It is critical that
this be performed
from the perspective of the customer
78. The first step in market segmentation is
identifying consumer needs
79. While marketers saw the growth in sales of cereals with whole grains, consumers
saw whole grain products as only one of many that had a health-conscious appeal.
This exemplifies the need to
view market segmentation from the consumer perspective
80. In order to be valuable to marketers, consumer clusters should have
common needs and/or usage
81. When marketers are working to identify common consumer interests and trends
and identify current products in the category, they are involved in
market segmentation
82. Data for customer segmentation will often come from
Customer Relationship Marketing (CRM) databases
Recency, Frequency, Monetary value (RFM) analytics
83. Typically, laundry detergent customers are most often grouped based on
attitudes and needs
84. In market segmentation, clusters refer to
groups of products that point to a common need
85. A key step in market segmentation is
financial analysis
86. Often, market segmentation includes an RFM analysis of customers. This software
rates customers on recency, frequency and spending
87. Marketers often consider market size and expected growth to help analyze
segment choices and
help select the target segment
88. While bleach is considered a key ingredient in laundry detergents aimed at
fighting tough stains, many consumers do not directly connect product ingredients
with their needs for fighting tough stains. This exemplifies the need for marketers to
maintain a focus on how customers consider their needs
89. Essential decisions regarding the marketing mix (product, price, place, and
promotion) are typically made
once a target market has been selected
90. The final step in the market segmentation process is
evaluating program success
91. In order to determine the attractiveness of any market segment, marketers must
understand
the segment size and sales potential
92. Which of the following factors are typically considered in choosing target
markets?
competitive offerings
fit with company capabilities
market size
93. Product positioning refers to the place a product/service occupies in the
consumer's mind based on important attributes relative to competitive brands. (Use
one word per blank.)
94. Once a target segment has been chosen, marketers must
identify the marketing program
95. Marketers consider actual sales, costs and profits against projections
as the final step in the segmentation process
96. ________ refers to the place a product occupies in the consumer's mind on
important attributes relative to competitive products.
Product positioning
97. Product positioning relies on _________ evaluations of a product's important
attributes.
consumers'
98. Product positioning as a leader or prestigious brand rely on
Image
99. Which of the following best represents positioning based on product attributes?
Subway advertises as a "fresh, healthy" alternative
100. Which two of the following are true of product positioning?
It exists in the mind of the consumer.
It is in relation to competitive products.
101. Perhaps the best example of positioning based on price is
Walmart
102. Marketers create ______ to clearly and simply outline the positioning of a
product in the market.
positioning statements
103. Google positions itself as an innovative and trusted market leader. This is an
example of _____ in product positioning.
Image
104. Positioning statements are simple, clear, and focused. Which of the following are
elements that are identified by positioning statements? (Check all that apply.)
Target market and need
How a product meets consumer needs
105. When Danier claims to be the premier leather retailer in Canada, it is positioning
itself based upon
product attributes
106. A positioning statement normally identifies the target market, the brand name,
the product category and the unique attributes/benefits.
107. Products with brand parity and little product differentiation may often position
based on
Price
108. A _______ is a formalized statement that identifies the image a branded product
represents in the market.
positioning statement
109. "Tesla is the only stylish car that can go from 0 to 100 in 3 seconds without a
drop of oil." This is an example of a(n)
positioning statement
110. Product repositioning is
changing the place a product occupies in a consumer's mind relative to competitive
products.
111. When properly done, a positioning statement creates a clear and simple image
in the minds of consumers
112. McDonald's introduction of McCafes with new beverages and restaurant
redesigns is an example of
Repositioning
113. A positioning statement identifies:
branded product name
product benefits
114. also known as perceptual maps, are visual representations of how products or
product groups are positioned within a category to consumers or customers.
Positioning maps
115. "For upscale families who desire a carefree driving experience, Volvo is a
premium-priced automobile that offers the utmost in safety and dependability." This
sentence is a good example of a(n)
positioning statement
116. One main purpose of a perceptual mapping exercise is for the firm to see where
competitors are positioned in the consumer's mind, and
where the firm is in relation to competition and the ideal point.
117. If consumers' tastes shift, marketers may need to change how they think about a
product in a process known as
repositioning.
118. In the past, A&W was known for root beer and order/service provided to
customers parked in their cars. Recently, A&W has modernized their logo and
storefronts and focused on product quality in advertising. This reflects
Repositioning
119. To create a perceptual map, marketers attempt to understand customer
evaluations for a product and its competitors in order to determine these products'
________ on the map.
Positions
120. What analytical tool is used to display, in two dimensions, the locations of
products or brands in the consumer's mind?
Positioning map
121. Positioning maps can be used to identify where a product stands in a market in
relation to competitors or to
reveal gaps in the market
122. The three key steps in the effective use of positioning maps include:
Discovering how a brand rates in customers' minds
Identifying customers' key attributes for a product

1. The essence of marketing is

meeting the needs of targeted markets
2. In marketing, the term product could mean a(n) Idea good service
3. Tangible attributes include things you can touch
4. Which statement is most correct?
Given the widespread consumer use of internet resources, most offline products still
maintain a strong web presence.
5. Select all that apply
The three main categories of products are
durables
services
non-durables
6. "Managing and developing products and brands that meet the needs of target markets" best
describes marketing
7. The best example of a non-durable good is gasoline
8. In marketing, which of the following are included in a product? (Check all that apply.)
 Tangible attributes；Intangible attributes
9. The best example of a durable good is computer
10. Karen loves the way her new piece of jewellery looks. She also notices that she feels better
whenever she is wearing it. This refers to
the intangible product attributes
11. Google, Twitter, and gaming websites are all examples of the online environment
12. A _____ is an intangible activity, benefit or satisfaction. Service
13. The three main categories of products include: durable goods, non-durable goods, and
services
14. An item that is consumed only once (like food or fuel) is called a(n) non-duarable
15. Beyond providing bank accounts, most banks provide ABMs, foreign exchange and monthly
statements. These are considered supplementary services
16. A product that lasts for an extended period of time is called a(n) durable good
17. A Consumerology report notes that 56% of Canadians have stopped using a product due to
poor customer service. This reflects the importance of service to purchase decisions
18. Which two of the following would be considered services?
19. Which two of the following would be considered services? An airline trip；Financial advice
20. The service economy in Canada accounts for approximately __% of GDP. 71
21. Online services that have no tangible component are called virtual services
22. The primary service provided by an airline is travel between two locations. Many airlines try
to add value for customer by adding __ such as in-flight entertainment and complimentary
beverages.
supplementary services
23. The product-service hybrid concept helps us understand that many products create value for
consumers through a combination of goods and services
24. Many product purchases are accompanied by free delivery, extended payment or online
support. These are examples of complimentary services
25. Which of the following best exemplify the middle of the service continuum fast food
restaurant
26. are intangible activities or benefits that an organization provides to satisfy consumers' needs
in exchange for money or something else of value. Services
27. Which of the following represent virtual services? online travel sites；online gaming sites
28. Which of the following characteristics is not one that distinguishes services from other
products? Immobility
29.
30. A fast food restaurant provides customers with tasty and inexpensive food items. For many
customers, the speed and convenience offered is also a significant part of the overall value.
This exemplifies the hybrid combination of product and service
31. Because a service, either completely or partially, has qualities that cannot be touched, held,
seen, tasted, or otherwise evaluated prior to purchase, it is described as being intangible.
32. The service continuum shows a range from ______-dominant to ______-dominant. goods,
service
33. A Singapore Airlines ad may show the airline's new seats and emphasize their size in order to
address which issue that is unique to services? Intangible
34. Which two of the following factors are unique with respect to services, and are part of the
four I's? Intangibility；Inseparability
35. Services marketing differs from the marketing of tangible goods in all of the following ways
EXCEPT which of the following? Inconvertibility
36. Because services are intangible, they are difficult for consumers to evaluate before the
purchase.
37. The primary reason there is greater inconsistency in services than in tangible goods is
because the people who provide services vary in capability or daily performance.
38. A restaurant is dependent on different chefs, servers, hosts, and conditions within the
restaurant that alter the uniformity of the output, which is an example of the ________ of
services. Inconsistency
39. A hair salon displays photos of attractive and happy customers in an attempt to demonstrate
value with an intangible good
40. Esperanza has realized that she does not enjoy taking a taxi to work because there is
substantial ________ in the delivery of the service depending on who is driving her cab that
day. Inconsistency
41. The quality of a service is dependent on the people who provide it. This reflects
the inconsistency with services
42. Standardization of practices and intense training for employees who work in guest relations
at the Ritz-Carlton will help to minimize the negative effects of ________ in services.
Inconsistency
43. A student may be dissatisfied with her education, despite attending a highly regarded
university, if she dislikes her instructors, advisers, or administrators. This type of problem
arises due to the _______ of services. Inseparability
44. The quality of a spa facility could be excellent, but if the consumer isn't satisfied with a
treatment, the perceived quality of the spa will be low. This illustrates the concept of
inseparability
45. Many services cannot be stored and accessed when demand arises. This relates to the _____
issue with services. Inventory
46. When a service provider is available but there is no demand for the service, this is known as
idle production capacity.
47. In comparison to in-person services, online products often overcome inconsistency issues
through use of standardized software
48. Service-oriented businesses often use part-time employees during busy times in order to
maintain service levels without increasing overall idle production capacity
49. . ne of the basic ways in which services differ from tangible goods is that the service and the
deliverer of it are________ from each other. Inseparable
50. Melvis dislikes a local car dealership because of one bad experience with a salesperson that
occurred several years back. This exemplifies the inseparability of the service from the
provider

51. Two major inventory problems with services are difficulties in sales forecasting；difficulty in
storing services
52. Idle production capacity occurs when a service is available when there is little demand.
53. The core product, actual product and augmented product all represent layers of a product
54. In order to minimize the idle production capacity of service employees, grocery stores often
bring in additional employees during predicted busy times and reduce staffing in typically
slow times
55. In the case of a bicycle, transportation would likely be the core product
56. Under the total product concept, product refers to the physical good or service a consumer
purchases. actual
57. The warranty or safety rating of an automobile are typically considered part of the
augmented product

58. The three layers of products include core actual augmented

59. For many products, packaging and labelling are important as they communicate brand
positioning
60. The fundamental benefit a consumer derives from having a product is called the core
product
61. One of the basic ways in which services differ from tangible goods is that the service and the
deliverer of it are ________ from each other. Inseparable

62. Which of the following are potential benefits of packaging? reinforcing brand image；
communicating product information
63. The augmented product refers to additional features and attributes that come with a product
64. Packaging is an important concept for both physical products and online products
65. In the case of online products, packaging and branding is normally communicated through
websites
66. First and foremost, packaging allows for product storage, ease of use and ease of transport.
These benefits refer to the ______ benefits. Functional
67. Grolsch beer comes in a unique bottle. This is an example of using packaging to differentiate
a product
68. Well designed packaging helps to provide product information, directions on usage and
nutritional content. These all represent communication benefits
69. In the case of an online product, packaging is best represented by a website
70. Product protection and ease of transportation represent functional benefits of packaging
71. The communication benefits of packaging include directions on usage, nutritional content.
72. In the case of a bicycle, the piece of equipment directly associated with a brand name, design
and features, is called the actual product
73. True or false: Packaging is often referred to as the "silent salesperson" for consumer goods. T
74. The craft beer industry exemplifies two important components of packaging establishing
brand identity assuring product consistency
75. A group of similar products with the same brand name are called a(n) product line
76. Which of the following is a good example of a product line? Gatorade G Series
77. Product lines are not used for digital brands. F
78. Packaging and labeling decisions are ______ components of overall product branding.
Very important
79. Collectively, the product lines offered by a company are referred to as the product mix
80. Many consumers use packaging to help them identify product choices quickly and easily. In
fact, changes in packaging can have serious negative affects on sales. This reflects the role of
packaging in assuring consistency
81. A product line can be identified through the brand name
82. Aside from breakfast cereals, Kellogg's sells products that include crackers and chips, snack
bars and pastries. Together, these product lines are referred to as the product mix
83. For Coca-Cola, soft drinks, waters, juice drinks, sports drinks, and iced teas all represent
product lines
84. Google offers advertising services for business and word processing tools for consumers.
These are examples of product lines
85. Product depth refers to the variety within product lines
86. The number of products offered by a company is called their product mix
87. ________ products are purchased by the ultimate consumer, whereas ________ products
are purchased by organization to assist them in providing other products for sale.
Consumer; business
88. An example of the product mix is the various Kellogg's product lines
89. Some products can be both ________ products and ________ products; for example, Apple
iMac computers may be purchased by individuals for personal use or by organizations for
office use. consumer; business
90. Product mix width refers to number of product lines
91. Which of the following are the types of products classified depending on their usage?
Consumer products; Business products
92. Which of the following are types of consumer products? Shopping products; Convenience
products; Specialty products
93. Some products can be both consumer and business products depending on their usage. T
94. Which of the following types of consumer products is characterized by relatively inexpensive
items with widespread availability? Convenience products
95. Laundry detergent would most likely be considered which type of consumer product?
Convenience product
96. Items that are typically bought in downtown areas or malls are considered shopping goods
97.
98. Which of the following are examples of shopping products? Jeans；smartphones；shoes
99. Inexpensive items that a consumer purchases frequently and with minimal shopping effort
are known as ________ products. Convenience
100. Which of the following types of consumer products is characterized by unique brands and
high levels of brand loyalty? Specialty products
101. Which of the following are convenience products? Cookies；milk；single-serving Coca-Cola
102. Which of the following types of consumer products is characterized by fairly expensive items
available at a large number of selective outlets? Shopping products
103. Which of the following are specialty products? Expensive vacation package；Rolex watch
104. An airline ticket would most likely be considered which type of consumer product? Shopping
product
105. Items that the consumer makes a special effort to search out and buy are known as specialty
products
106. Items like pet insurance or a thesaurus typically don't interest consumers until they are
made aware of them in a specific situation (like the first visit to a veterinary office with a new
pet). These items are called unsought goods
107. Which of the following types of products is characterized by derived demand? Business
products
108. Shoshana drives more than 100 km to visit a bridal store she has seen in magazines. This
exemplifies specialty goods
109. Items that the consumer either does not know about or is not interested in are called
products. Unsought
110. Business products can be classified as which two of the following? Production goods ；
Support products
111. Sales of business products are often the results of ________ demand; that is, sales of
business products frequently result from the sale of consumer products. Derived
112. Items used in the manufacturing process that become part of the final product are called
production goods
113. Which of the following would be production goods for an auto manufacturer?
Windshields；brake assemblies
114. Items used to assist in producing other goods and services are called goods. Support
115. For business products, ________ become part of a final product while ________ are used to
assist in producing other goods and services. production goods; support products
116. Business support goods and services include services；installations
117. In contrast to support goods, production goods become part of the final product
118. Raw materials (like lumber or steel) and component parts (like door hinges or windshields)
are considered production goods
119. Buildings, tools, and supplies are ________ products for organizations. Support
120. Branding can include which of the following? Product name；Unique symbol
121. Large production equipment, paper supplies, and accounting services are all considered
support goods
122. Mo visits a local convenience store to purchase a soft drink. Although several colas are
available, Mo instantly reaches for a Coca-Cola, his regular brand. This exemplifies the
importance of branding in customer loyalty
123. The value of a brand that results from favourable exposure and interactions consumers have
over time is called brand equity
124. Items used to assist in producing other goods and services are called goods. Support
125. The brand element that is entirely visual is the logo
126. Branding elements are intended to make a product distinguishable from those of
competitors.
127. Successful brands are often described as having "presence". This simply means they are
used regularly
128. Branding is particularly useful to help establish customer loyalty.
129. Some online brands have very high levels of recognition, including Google Amazon
130. In simple terms, brand equity allows a company to sell a product for more than similar non-
branded products
131. The visual branding element that stands for corporate names or trademarks is known as the:
logo
132. Baby Boomers tend to rate __ brands like VISA and Canadian Tire highest, while Millennials
and Generation Z focus much more on __ brands. traditional, digital
133. According to Ipsos Reid research, some of the key elements of successful brands include
trustworthiness engagement
134. Which of the following best describes online brands? Online brands dominate the list of best
known brands in Canada
135. Well known global brands include: Coca-Cola Apple Amazon
136. When a company uses a brand name solely for a specific product category it is called a(n)

brand. Individual

137. Which statement is most correct? Brands influence generations differently

138. Which of the following is an example of an individual brand? Tide
139. A brand that is sold in a similar way around the world is referred to as a(n) global brand
140. An individual brand refers to a brand name used solely for a specific product category
141. In Canada, the Rogers brand offers consumers multiple different communications products,
while Koodo focuses on plans for mobile devices. Koodo represents a(n) Individual brand
142. A __ brand is when a company uses a brand name to cover a number of different product
categories. Family
143. Recently, Proctor & Gamble applied the Crest brand to teeth-whitening products. This is an
example of brand extension
144. The President's Choice brand has been extended into sub-brands like PC Blue, PC Organics
and PC Green. Advantages of this strategy include transfer of brand equity cost savings
145. Forms of brand protection include: trademarks patents
146. are legal rights that are granted by the government to protect new technologies, processes
or formulations from other companies. Patents
147. The Crest brand was originally used only for toothpaste but now is used for dental floss,
mouthwash and teeth-whitening products. Crest is now best described as a(n) family brand
148. Auto companies commonly used __, offering new vehicles that benefit from the quality
associated with the original brand name. brand extension
149. In Canada (and many other countries), written words, recordings, and other forms of
 communications are protected by copyrights
150. A sub brand that does not live up to the image of the family brand can result in loss of brand
equity
151. Trademarks are limited to a period of __ years. They __ be renewed. 10, can
152. Many companies protect brands using patents, copyrights and trademarks. This reflects their
investment in creating and protecting brand equity
153. In Canada, a patent protects the owner for a period of 20 years
154. A __ brand is when a company uses a brand name to cover a number of different product
categories. Family
155. In general, brand names and hashtags on social media platforms are easily protected and
defended under trademark and copyright law. False
156. Which of the following are covered under a copyright? Literature music
157. Key issues regarding consumers' brand loyalty include will they insist on a particular brand?
will they choose another if their first choice is not available?
158. Brand names, images and designs are protected using trademarks
159. Which two of the following are essential to brand loyalty? A favorable attitude toward a
single brand；A consistent purchase behaviour of single brand
160. The legal trademark battle between Scrabble and Scrabulous demonstrates the difficulty in
enforcement
161. For marketers, brand __ is more valuable than brand __. insistence, loyalty
162. Which of the following statements are correct regarding brand loyalty
Some brand loyal consumers will switch brands if their brand is not available.
Most people have different levels of brand loyalty depending on the product or category.
163. Many successful brands take on human characteristics such as unique, non-conformist or
youthful. This is called brand personality
164. A favorable attitude toward a single brand, and the consumer's consistent purchase of that
brand exemplify brand loyalty.
165. Which of the following best exemplifies brand personality Pepsi-Cola as youthful in spirit
166. Marketing theory suggests that good brand names suggest the product benefits. A good
example of this is Easy Off oven cleaner
167. The three types of brands are manufacturer；generic；private label
168. Arrange the consumers who show various levels of brand loyalty in the correct order. (Place
the consumers who are least loyal at the top and the ones who are most loyal at the
bottom.)

169. The set of human characteristics associated with a brand is called the brand personality
170. Tylenol manufactures and markets pain relief products. This is a ____ brand. Manufacturer
171. This brand is often cited as personifying "masculinity, defiance, and rugged individualism".
Harley-Davidson
172. The key factors in determining a good brand name include suggestion of benefits ；
memorability
173. President's Choice products exemplify private label brands
174. Tylenol, Pepsi-Cola and Nike are all examples of manufacturer's brands
175. A brand that is owned and produced by the manufacturer is called a(n) manufacturer's
brand
176. Private label brands are also commonly referred to as store brands
177. Apple products exemplify manufacturer's brands
178. Church & Dwight produce and sell the Gravol brand pharmaceutical throughout Canada.
This exemplifies a(n) manufacturer's brand
179. Relative to most other countries, Canadian shoppers purchase more private-label brands
180. President's Choice, Mastercraft and Selections are all examples of private-label brands
181. Private-label brands are also commonly referred to as brands. Store
182. A product with no branding at all is often referred to as a generic brand
183. Which of the following types of brands are sold in the Canadian pharmaceutical industry?
private-label brands generic brands；manufacturer's brands
184. Many Canadian retailers sell private-label brands because they earn more profit for the
retailer；they can be sold at prices lower than manufacturer's brands
185. Life Brand is sold only at Shoppers Drug Mart and is produced for Shoppers by an
independent manufacturer. It is an example of a(n) private label brand
186. A cheap alternative product that has little promotional support is called a(n) generic
187. In Canada, the generic _____ industry is important with 5,000 employees and exports to
more than 100 other countries. Drug

Session7-Chapter8
1. McDonald's introduction of McCafes with new beverages and restaurant
redesigns is an example of
Repositioning
2. The product life cycle includes the following stages
maturity
growth
decline
3. Marketers try to manage products so that they
extend the product life
keep them from going into decline
4. Most often, the life cycles for online products are _____ those for physical
products.
shorter than
5. The product life cycle depicts
profits over time
unit sales over time
6. In the past, A&W was known for root beer and order/service provided to
customers parked in their cars. Recently, A&W has modernized their logo
and storefronts and focused on product quality in advertising. This reflects
 Repositioning
7. The concept that products go through life stages is referred to as
the product life cycle
8. The product life cycle concept is useful for marketers to
keep products from reaching the decline stage
manage a product from its launch
9. Many social media platforms regularly add new features or updates. This
reflects
the shorter product life cycles for most online products
10. Arrange the stages of the product life cycle in order. (Place the first stage
at the top.)

11. Currently, the e-reader market is fiercely competitive with falling prices,
intense advertising and product augmentation. This reflects which stage in
the product life cycle
Maturity
12. Sony helped pioneer portable music players with the Walkman. As
technology and consumers changed, Sony developed the CD Walkman and
then the MP3 player. The latest Walkman product is an app developed for
use on other portable devices. The evolution of products exemplifies
the product life cycle for a product class and specific products
13. Which of the following is true regarding the introductory stage of the
product life cycle?
Competition is minimal.
14. In the introductory stage, marketers may set low initial prices in order to
encourage rapid acceptance
limit competitive entry
15. During the _____ stage of the product life cycle, a product experiences
minimal sales that are growing slowly, minimal or nonexistent profits, and
very few competitors.
Introduction
16. Since the first iPhone launch in 2007, the product's features, pricing and
marketing have changed significantly. This reflects
management of the product through the product life cycle
17. In the introductory stage of the product life cycle for the iPhone, a high
price was set. This reflects
a skimming price strategy
18. High research and development costs and low profits are most likely
characteristics of the _____.
 introductory stage
19. The greatest challenge for marketers of products in the introductory stage
is
generating product awareness
20. Increased sales and profits are typical of the
growth stage
21. With its iPhone, Apple employed high prices in the introductory stage of
the product life cycle. This was done to
support high brand value and continued innovation
22. In the growth stage of the product life cycle, many marketers will
focus on advertising to build brand equity
23. The initial iPad was followed up with the iPad 2 and competition from
Samsung, HP, LG and Acer. Although there was some price-based
competition, most sellers focused on product uniqueness and capabilities.
Most competitors saw sales increase. This reflects the
growth stage
24. The growth stage of the PLC is characterized by
increased competition
25. The maturity stage of the PLC is characterized by
a slowdown of growth in both sales and profits
26. In the growth stage, competitors fight through:
introducing unique design features
lowering prices
27. In the introductory stage, the challenge in distribution is
to gain channel acceptance to sell the product
28. In the maturity stage of the PLC, marketing challenges include
encouraging consumers to continue purchasing
product augmentation or repositioning
29. The Instant Pot saw slow, steady sales from its introduction in 2010. A
sharp increase in sales and movement into the growth stage of the
product life cycle is attributed to
social media word of mouth and food bloggers
30. Heinz Ketchup, Kraft Dinner and TSN Network are all most likely in the
maturity stage of the PLC
31. When sales and profits steadily decrease over time, a product is in the
______ stage of the product life cycle.
Decline
32. At this stage of the product life cycle, sales growth slows and marketing
activity focuses on gaining or defending market share (often using pricing).
Maturity stage
33. Short-term promotional tactics like coupons and contests are most likely to
occur in the
maturity stage of the product life cycle
34. Products like Heinz Ketchup, Hellmann's Mayonnaise, and Kraft Dinner
 exemplify
a long maturity stage in the product life cycle
35. Product obsolescence due to technological innovation or changing
consumer needs signal
the decline stage of the PLC
36. Laptop and tablet computers are most likely in the __ stage of the product
life cycle, while desktop computers are most likely in the __ stage.
maturity, decline
37. In the decline stage of the product life cycle, some companies will pursue a
harvesting strategy. This entails
keeping the product but reducing support to maintain some level of profit
38. Which of the following statements regarding product life cycles is most
accurate?
Life cycle length varies by product, industry and level of technology.
39. Which of the following statements is most correct?
Product life cycles vary in shape and length
40. When the introductory period is extended due to the efforts required to
educate consumers on the usage or benefits, the product is referred to as
high-learning
41. Which of the following product is in the decline stage of the product life
cycle?
DVD movies
42. The best example of a high-learning product is
DVD movie
43. Effective marketing strategies in the decline stage include
harvesting
product deletion
44. Which of the following products is likely to have the shortest product life
cycle?
Smartphones
45. Product life cycles can be categorized into
low-learning products
fad products
high-learning products
46. The term "high-learning" product refers to one where
it takes time and effort to educate consumers on product usage and
benefits
47. In general, _______ products have a short introductory stage of the product
life cycle.
low-learning
48. For many older Canadians, the move to streaming TV and movie services
has been slow. This reflects
a high-learning product
49. Which of the following best exemplifies a low-learning product?
 Smartphone
50. A product with obvious benefits and very little learning required is referred
to as
low-learning
51. Product life cycles for fashion products tend to go from introduction to
decline over a two or three year period, only to resurface again a few
years later.
52. Many users of iPhones were quick to adopt the Apple Watch. This
exemplifies
a low-learning technology product
53. Bell bottom pants, crop tops and leggings are all examples of
fashion products
54. Pokémon Go saw a very quick rise in popularity followed by a very quick
decline. This exemplifies a
fad product
55. Which of the following strategies can be used to extend product life
cycles?
Targeting new customer groups
Improving the product
Finding new uses for the product
56. Characteristics of fashion products include
relatively short life cycles
cyclical product life cycle
57. Which of the following would most likely follow a fashion product life cycle?
UGG boots
58. Which of the following are often used by marketers to address new market
trends?
line extensions
product improvements
59. ____ refers to a product with a very short product life cycle that proceeds
from growth to decline with no obvious maturity stage.
Fad
60. Marketers often extend the life cycle of a product by _____.
repositioning the product
61. Product modification is one of the approaches marketers use to extend
product life cycles. A good example is
Kraft eliminating yellow colouring from Kraft Dinner
62. Many long established brands use ______ to extend their product life
cycles.
line extensions
63. Product improvements and product line extensions are often used by
marketers to
address new trends in a market
64. Tide Coldwater and Tide Free & Gentle are both examples of
 line extensions
65. Market modification strategies include
finding new customers
increasing customer usage rates
66. In the food industry, marketers often address consumer concerns by
changing product formulations (i.e. removing unhealthy ingredients). This
is an example of
product improvements
67. Which of the following best describes the difficulty in finding new
customers for existing products?
It can be expensive
68. With a market penetration strategy, marketers encourage existing
customers to
use the product more frequently
69. A ______ is the term used when a new item is added to an already existing
product line.
line extension
70. Cheerios adding Banana Nut Cheerios to its well-established product line is
an example of a(n)
line extension
71. When the Florida Orange Growers Association promoted orange juice as
more than just a breakfast drink, they were employing a
market penetration strategy
72. Product life cycle strategies that focus on customers are generally called
market modifications
73. In an attempt to drastically increase potential customers, Harley-Davidson
introduced a marketing program aimed at females
74. For companies with a strong and loyal customer base, the simplest
strategy to sell more is to
encourage more frequent usage
75. Rice Krispies was able to increase sales by promoting its use as a baking
ingredient in home-made Rice Krispie Squares. This exemplifies
creating a new use situation
76. In order to increase sales, Campbell Soup Company could
advertise more in summer when customers may not think of soup
77. Changing a product's attributes or the way it is perceived by consumers
can help to boost sales. This is normally called
Repositioning
78. In the maturity stage of the product life cycle, companies most likely will
choose to
refresh the product with added features
79. Campbell's Soup often includes recipes on the labels for some soups. This
exemplifies
creating new product uses
80. The 2020 BrandSpark Canadian Shopper Study found that consumers are
willing to pay more for a new product if it is better than what is currently
available. This exemplifies __ as a driver of success.
Value
81. Repositioning refers to changing
the way consumers perceive and value a product
82. Which of the following were identified as new product successes by
BrandSpark Best New Product Awards in the food and beverages category?
Sabra Avocado Toast
83. _______ are the lifeblood of a company and a way to secure future profits.
New products
84. Apple has consistently offered new versions of iPhones, iPads, iPods and
computers. Apple utilizes a(n) _______ strategy to manage product life
cycles.
new product
85. The three types of innovation are
radical innovations
minor innovations
continuous innovations
86. Which of the following do Canadian consumers report as most likely to
generate product satisfaction?
Value
87. For most minor innovations, the marketing challenge is to
generate awareness for the innovation
88. The success of Neutrogena Hydro Boost Body Gel Cream Fragrance Free
demonstrates that consumers value
a moisturizer without fragrance
89. In order to stay relevant and profitable, most companies
develop new products
90. New technologies used in both cycling and ski helmets improve protection
against brain injuries without changing the way consumers use the
products. This exemplifies
minor innovation
91. New products are categorized based on
the degree of newness
how much time a consumer needs to learn to use the product
92. Minor product modifications that require no adjustments on behalf of the
consumer are called
minor innovations
93. New products that include more than just a minor improvement but that
do not require significant changes in consumer behavior are called
continuous innovations
94. Which of the following are best described as continuous innovations?
Apple watch
 electric car
95. Colgate adding features in a new toothpaste exemplifies
minor innovation
96. With radical innovation, the marketing challenge is to
educate consumers on the product usage and benefits
97. The marketing challenge for continuous innovations is to
communicate the superior benefits to consumers
98. If legal, self-driving cars would change the way people look at driving, and
possibly, car ownership. As such, they exemplify
radical innovation
99. Which of the following best exemplifies continuous innovation?
A new social media platform
100. The adoption curve depicts
the rate of consumer acceptance of new innovations
101. ______ describes the introduction of a product that is entirely new to
the market.
Radical innovation
102. Which of the following best exemplifies radical innovation?
Drones
103. Place the adopter groups in the order of their readiness to adopt a
new product. (Place the adopters that are first to purchase new products at
the top.)

104. Regarding the adoption curve, the innovators and early adopters are
relatively small groups and
yet important in generating interest with the early and late majority
105. Some consumers are more ready than others to buy a product
innovation. This is reflected in
the adoption curve
106. New product development is best described as
expensive
high risk
107. Major groups in the adoption curve include
innovators
laggards
early adopters
108. The sale of 3-D televisions has been slow to gain momentum and
 general market acceptance. The majority of buyers have yet to accept the
new technology due to
lack of acceptance among the innovators and early adopters who are
critical to majority acceptance
109. Many companies utilize rigorous product development processes
due to the high costs of development and the high risk of failure
110. The most common forms of growth take either a _____ or _____ slant.
market penetration
product development
111. "New Coke" represents a well-known example of
new product development failure
112. In developing new products, Loblaws puts chefs, nutritionists, product
developers and marketers together using the
team-based approach
113. New product failures are relatively common and very expensive for
companies. As a result, many companies
employ rigorous new product development processes
114. Although there are numerous stages in the new-product process, firms
develop a strategy, then start ________ and continue the process through
the final step of ________,
idea generation; commercialization
115. In the context of strategic approaches to new product development,
identify the higher-risk considerations of a company. (Select all that apply.)
Diversification
Market development
116. In which stage of the new-product process does an organization use a
SWOT analysis and develop a product protocol?
New-product strategy development
117. Identify the general structures companies use to manage innovation.
(Select all that apply.)
Cross-functional team-based approach
New product development department
118. In order to focus ___, Apple has a philosophy based on two questions:
Did we make a good product? Did we enrich people's lives?
new product strategy
119. Which of the following would be considered good methods for
generating ideas for new products?
Using one's own R&D laboratory
Asking suppliers for ideas
Conducting consumer research
120. The new-product process starts with new-product strategy
development. Arrange the steps that follow this one in the correct order.
(In other words, place steps 2 through 7 of the new-product process, with
step 2 on top.)
121. In researching consumers and developing new products, P&G spends
___ each year.
billions of dollars
122. In the ________ stage of the new-product process an organization
defines the role of a new product in terms of the firm's overall objectives.
new-product strategy development
123. True Büch concentrates on the development of new flavours that
follow trends in health foods and botanicals. This reflects
a new product strategy
124. ________ is the stage of the new-product process that results in a pool
of concepts as candidates for new products.
Idea generation
125. Tide Pods quickly garnered more than 70% of the "unit dose"
detergent market, with estimated sales over $500 million. This exemplifies
the importance of new products for future revenues
126. ________ is the stage of the new-product process that internally and
externally analyzes new-product ideas to eliminate those that warrant no
further effort.
Screening and evaluation
127. Prior to developing prototypes, a company may evaluate a new
product idea by presenting it to potential consumers with details on
benefits, pricing, distribution and promotion. This is referred to as a(n)
concept test
128. ________ is the stage of the new-product process in which features of
the product and a marketing strategy are specified, and financial
projections are made.
Business analysis
129. Organizations should consider whether a new product will require new
machinery to produce, has the potential to cannibalize existing products,
or if it will require new patents during which stage of the new-product
process?
Business analysis
130. The new-product process stage of screening and evaluation involves
determining which ideas should be eliminated from further effort.
131. The new-product process stage of development (stage 5) involves
which two of the following?
Turning the idea into prototypes
Manufacturing trials
132. Issues addressed in a concept test typically include
how customers perceive the product idea
how the new product would be used
133. The new-product process stage of business analysis involves which
two of the following?
Specifying the marketing strategy needed to bring a new product
to market
Making financial projections for a new product
134. In the development stage of new product development, extensive
safety testing is common for which of the following industries?
food
pharmaceuticals
children's toys
135. Typically, the ___ stage is the last checkpoint before significant
resources are invested in creating a prototype.
business analysis
136. ________ is the stage of the new-product process that involves
exposing actual products to prospective consumers under realistic
purchase conditions to see if they will buy.
Market testing
137. ________ is the stage of the new-product process in which an idea is
turned into a prototype.
Development
138. Both McDonald's and Tim Hortons have used London, Ontario to
introduce products on a limited basis and gauge consumer reactions. This
exemplifies
test marketing
139. Safety tests, even for usage that is not as intended for a new product,
are important to conduct in the ________ stage of the new-product process.
Development
140. An emerging trend in marketing is to use virtual reality to present
consumers with a range of products inside a simulated store environment
as part of
test marketing
141. The new-product process stage of market testing involves which two
of the following?
Using realistic purchase conditions to see if consumers will buy
Exposing actual products to prospective consumers
142. ________ is the stage of the new-product process that positions and
launches a new product in full-scale production and sales.
 Commercialization
143. Which of the following are ways that test marketing is used?
To determine whether consumer will actually buy a new product.
To try different ways of marketing a new product.
144. A simulated test market involves
the use of computer software to present potential consumers with choices
in a store-like environment
145. The new-product process stage of commercialization involves which of
the following?
Launching full-scale production for a new product

1. The growth in number of devices used and media types available to consumers
has resulted in
·a blurring of reality, entertainment and marketing communications
2. To be successful, a marketing campaign
·uses specific elements of the promotional mix to engage potential customers
3. Modern promotions planning is called
·Integrated Marketing Communications
4. Promotional programs can be directed to
·wholesalers
·the ultimate consumer
·retailers
5. Each element in a(n) _____ has a distinct role as well as a distinct purpose.
·IMC campaign
6. Modern digital communications platforms typically allow consumers to determine
whether they receive marketing communications, and if so, when, where, and on
what device.
·True
7. In an IMC campaign, TV ads could be used to ______, while social media is used to
______.
·gain awareness, build engagement
8. Which of the following are elements of the promotional mix?
·advertising
·sales promotion
9. In the context of online advertising, _____ advertising refers to the use of online
ads with graphics, video or animation.
·display
10. The two key issues a marketer must consider in putting together the promotional
mix are
·coordinating the use of all elements to a common goal
·finding the correct balance of specific promotional elements
11. Arrange the stages in the customer advocacy funnel in the correct order.
(Place the first stage at the top.)
12. Promotional programs aimed at consumers often use __ because the number of
potential buyers is large.
·mass media
13. Increasingly, marketers try to design communications programs that coordinate
all promotional activities to provide a consistent message to the target market. This is
called
·integrated marketing communications
14. A marketer wishing to increase consumer engagement with a product would
most likely use
·social media
15. As part of an integrated marketing communications campaign, a marketer might
use sales promotions to
·encourage product trial
16. Many TV advertisers try to capture online viewers with the use of
·display ads
17. The concept that, over time, customers build relationships with brands from
initial awareness to advocacy is called
·the customer advocacy funnel
18. All marketing communications can be characterized as either ______ or _____.
·inbound
·outbound
19. Typical forms of outbound marketing include
·ads on TV and radio
·newspaper and radio advertising
20. Offering potential customers free sample can encourage trial without using
discounted prices that can become problematic over time.
21. Identify the typical forms of inbound marketing. (Check all that apply.)
·social networks
·pay-per-click ads
·search engine optimization
22. Many large business use ________ to gain customer attention and position
products and _____ to connect with consumers on a more personal level.
·outbound marketing, inbound marketing
23. Marketing communications are normally described as either __ or __.
·inbound, outbound
24. Most communications agencies provide guidance on each of following EXCEPT
·product design
25. The traditional marketing approach where marketers seek out consumers by
broadcasting messages using advertising, direct mail, personal selling and
telemarketing is called
·outbound marketing
26. Marketing approaches focused on communicating with the channel of
distribution to gain support of retailers and wholesalers are normally called
·push strategies
27. A marketer wishing to increase consumer engagement with a product would
most likely use
·social media
28. Advertising, public relations and event sponsorship are all normally considered
·pull strategies

29. Techniques that encourage interested consumers to find a company's products

and connect with them are called
·inbound marketing
30. Often, smaller businesses will rely on ______ because it is less expensive.
·inbound marketing
31. In the ___ approach to marketing communications, all elements should work
together in a coordinated fashion.
·IMC
32. Communications experts provide companies with help
·devising creative strategies
·planning and buying media
33. Typical IMC objectives include
·increasing brand loyalty
·building brand awareness
34. Typical examples of push strategies include
·sales or quantity discounts
35. Frequency refers to
·the number of times the target audience is exposed to a communication
36. When marketers focus on communicating with ultimate consumers in order to
build awareness, trial, and product demand, they are using _____.
·pull strategies
37. To the extent that time and money permit, the target audience for the promotion
program should
·match the target market for the firm's product.
38. The points of interaction that can be used to connect with consumers are called
·consumer touch points
39. Place the steps in the marketing communications process in the correct order
of occurrence. (Place the first step at the top.)

40. The approach to promotional budgeting determined by outlining the objectives

and tasks and then estimating costs
·Objective and task budgeting
41. Specifying objectives is the __ step in the marketing communications process.
·first
42. Which of the following activities typically requires the most creativity?
·Designing the promotion
43. Reach measures
·number of people exposed to a communication
44. Identifying the target market for a promotional campaign and their __ is the
second step in the process.
·media usage
45. Touch points are critical in that they represent
·the situations where a company comes into contact with potential consumers
46. Messages that reinforce branding and focus on persuading consumers to
purchase are most commonly used in the
·growth stage
47. Percentage of sales and competitive parity are two methods of
·setting a promotional budget.
48. Successful promotion designs are often the result of
·insight regarding consumer's interest and purchasing behavior.
49. The order in which each promotional tool is introduced, along with the frequency
of use, refers to the
·promotional schedule
50. True or false: promotional programs can be evaluated before a launch, during a
campaign, and upon completion.
·True
51. In the introductory stage of the product life cycle, marketing communications will
focus on _____. In the maturity stage they will focus on _____.
·building awareness, encouraging loyalty
52. Collectively, advertising, public relations, direct response, personal selling, sales
promotions, and event marketing are referred to as
·marketing communications tools
53. By paying for ________, a company can control what it wants to say, when to
send its message, and to some extent, to whom the message is sent.
·advertising
54. Which of the following activities are likely to be affected by seasonality?
·Scheduling the promotion
55. An IMC audit is a tool used to evaluate a company's current processes and assets
such as internal communication, key audiences, databases, advertising messages,
and promotions expertise. This is part of
·the evaluation stage.
56. Any paid form of nonpersonal communication about an organization, good,
service, or idea by an identified sponsor is known as
·advertising.
57. A one-time, full-page ad in Maclean's magazine typically costs approximately
·$40,000

58. The marketing communications tools are often referred to as the promotional
mix.
59. While often effective at increasing short-term sales, this element of the
promotional mix can often lead to competitive wars.
·sales promotions
60. An advertising message is normally guided by which two of the following
·key product benefits to buyers
·the chosen message appeal
61. A manufacturer places a full-page, four-color ad in Maclean's magazine about its
new product at the cost of nearly $39,330, which is an example of
·advertising.
62. Most advertising messages are made up of both
·persuasive elements
·informational elements
63. Producing a TV ad can cost upwards of $200,000. Placing the ad during a prime-
time broadcast typically costs at least
·$150,000
64. MADD advertisements often depict the impact that alcohol and drugs can
have on driving performance with disastrous images. These represent fear
appeal.
65. Research has shown that anti-smoking ads have
·increased the allure of smoking with youth
66. Use of sex appeal can be found in ads across almost any product category, from
automobiles to toothpaste.
·True
67. An advertising message usually focuses on
·the key benefits of the product that are important to buyers
68. Fear, sex, and humour are common types of message __.
·appeals
69. Ads using sex appeal often stand out in a cluttered media environment. However,
this approach
·does not always impact recall, recognition or behavior
70. A message which tries to persuade the consumer that they can avoid some
negative experience through product purchase is called
·fear appeal
71. Humor appeals can be found
·in a wide range of product categories
72. Ads using fear appeal must balance being strong enough to get the audience
attention against
·causing viewers to turn away or tune out the message
73. Some large, global companies avoid the use of humor appeals because
·humor does not translate well across cultures
74. The idea that using a product will increase the attractiveness of the user is called
·sex appeal
75. In selecting specific media, marketers must consider campaign objectives,
product characteristics, budget constraints, and above all else
·the target market
76. An advertiser wishing to use video images with sound to engage consumers will
normally consider
·internet
·television
77. The use of sex appeal in advertisements has changed because of
·changing gender roles in society
78. A company wishing to equate their brand with excitement or fun may choose to
use humor appeal。
79. Geico's gecko, the Old Spice man, and Travelocity's gnome are used as part of a
__ appeal.
·humor
80. The movement away from network TV and towards Internet-based programming
has led to
·new advertising options
81. Selection of media is based on
·target market
·campaign objectives
82. TV-type ads that play before video segments are watched online are called
·pre-roll advertising
83. Which of the following are major advertising options?
·television
·internet
84. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using television advertising, especially
on broadcast networks?
·Changing consumer viewing habits
85. Over the last few years, newspapers have faced challenges including
·consumer movement to digital news
·declining circulation rates
86. __ has changed both the way Canadians view TV-type programming and the
advertising industry.
·Streaming service
87. Ads that play before an online video are called pre - roll advertising.
88. Community newspapers are an excellent choice for local retailers and for
community events advertising. A limitation is that they are typically published
·either weekly or monthly
89. Channel surfing, digital recording and on-demand digital programming all
·reduce the effectiveness of TV advertising
90. Challenges faced by the Canadian newspaper industry include
·decreased advertising revenues
·a move to digital formats
91. Despite a movement towards digitization, newspapers are still highly trusted and
recognized. Advertising opportunities exist in each of the three types:
·paid daily paper

·free community paper

·free daily paper
92. ________ can be achieved with newspapers by advertising in the Toronto Star,
Globe and Mail, or National Post.
·National reach
93. Newspapers are still an important advertising medium that are well-recognized
for providing reliable information.
·True
94. The marketing advantage of which medium is the great number of special-
interest publications that appeal to narrowly defined segments?
·Magazines
95. Aside from traditional broadcast radio, many listeners use ______ or ______
programming.
·satellite
·streamed
96. Advertising that reaches consumers outside the home is generally called
·out-of-home advertising
97. Given that consumers spend 70% of their time outside of their homes, __
advertising is an effective medium for generating reach quickly.
·outside-of-home
98. Out-of-home advertising includes
·digital signs
·billboards
99. What percentage of magazine readers are utilizing a digital platform?
·Approx. 50%
100. Online advertising is similar to print advertising
·because messages are typically visual
101. Currently, Canadians over the age of 12 average __ hours per week listening to
radio.
·16
102. A key advantage of internet advertising is
·the ability to incorporate audio and video
103. Which of the following are examples of out-of-home advertising?
·bus shelter ads
·washroom ads
·electronic billboards
104. Going viral refers to
·the benefit gained when a video ad is shared
105. This advertising medium is often used to build awareness or product interest,
with nearly 80% of adults saying they pay attention.
·out-of-home advertising
106. Tracking viewer behavior and tying exposure to online advertisements to
purchases
·is still in development
107. Place-based media choices like airports, health clubs, restaurant washrooms and
schools, are all examples of
·outside-of-home advertising
108. More than half of spending on mobile advertising spent was directed to
·search
109. Internet represents a relatively new medium for many advertisers. It attracts a
wide variety of industries and is the largest medium in terms of advertising spending.
110. Consumers indicate that they are most likely to pay attention to TV ads, with __
second.
·mobile
111. Rich media refers to
·interactive ads with drop-down menus, built-in games and search abilities
112. __ ads can be created to appear as pre-roll video ads on smartphones.
·Mobile video
113. When people share ads with friends, it is referred to as "going viral
114. The higher the buyer turnover
·the more advertising is required
115. A key disadvantage of online advertising is
·the difficulty in measuring ad impact
116.Mobile advertising makes up __ of overall internet advertising spending in
Canada.
·one third
117. Continuous scheduling runs consistently throughout the year, while Flighting
scheduling leave large gaps between advertising periods to reflect seasonal demand.
The combination of these two approaches, often used with new product
introductions, is called
·Pulse scheduling
118. Mobile ads are most effective in (pick two)
·increasing brand awareness
·increasing purchase consideration
119. Breakfast cereals tend to have stable demand throughout the year and
therefore typically use
·a continuous advertising schedule
120. Common types of mobile advertisements include
·pay-per-click ads
·in-app ads
121. Product placement refers to
·the inclusion of a product in a TV show or movie
122. Key issues in advertising scheduling include
·purchase frequency
·forgetting rate
123. The Marvel franchise of movies is a good example of
·branded entertainment
124. Sales promotion refers to a short-term inducement of valued offered to
arouse interest in buying a good or service.
125. Three basic approaches for scheduling advertising are
·flighting
·continuous
126. The two types of sales promotion are
·consumer and trade
127. Skis and golf clubs both have strongly seasonal demand. For that reason, these
products are best suited to
·flighting advertising scheduling
128. Coupons, premiums, contests, and samples are all types of
·consumer promotions
129. The paid appearance of a product in a TV show or movie is called
·product placement
130. Coupons, Contests, Loyalty Programs and Point-of-Purchase Displays are all
considered to be
·Sales Promotions
131. When Coca-Cola pays American Idol to display its product on set in front of the
judges this is
·product placement
132. This consumer promotion has been run annually for the past 30 years in
Canada.
·McDonald's Monopoly
133. Free samples, point-of-purchase displays, sweepstakes, and contests are all
examples of which of the following promotional elements?
·Sales promotion
134. Mobile coupons, loyalty card storage and text alerts are all forms of
·mobile sales promotions
135. Consumer promotions are aimed at ______ while trade promotions focus on
_____.
·consumers, intermediaries
136. SMS, multi-media messaging, e-mail messaging and in-person phone calls are all
forms of
·mobile messaging
137. ______ are short-term tools to encourage immediate consumer purchases.
·Consumer promotions
138. One popular use of CSC in Canada is
·the March of Dimes fundraiser
139. Which of the following are considered forms of sales promotion?
·Loyalty programs
·Sweepstakes
140. Both ___ and ___ are mobile communications approaches that allow marketers
to send text messages or multi-media messages to customers who have opted-in.
·SMS, MMS
141. McDonald's "Monopoly" game is an example of
·consumer promotions
142. Mobile e-mail is an important mobile tool. Research suggests that about ____ of
sent emails were opened on mobile devices.
·half
143. Many retail businesses have begun sending messages to shopper's phones while
they are in-store. These are called
·proximity marketing
144. Which of the following are considered part of mobile messaging?
·email messaging
·SMS
145. While popular for things such as weather updates or contests, common short
codes (CSC) are
·administered by the CWTA
146. The QR code is a common type of
·matrix 2D code
147. Many airlines use __ to communicate flight updates with passengers who opt in.
·SMS
148. Mobile email is ___ in the overall mobile marketer's toolkit.
·an important tool
149. During the Covid pandemic, many restaurants asked patrons to access digital
menus using their mobile devices
·to scan QR codes
150. Proximity marketing refers to
·distributing marketing messages to mobile devices based on their location
151. A _____ is a two-dimensional response code that, when scanned by a mobile
device provides information, launches websites, prompts downloads or sends
messages.
·matrix 2D barcode
152. Which of the following are uses of proximity marketing?
·In-mall coupons sent to shoppers using its free Wi-Fi network
·Use of Bluetooth technology to send text, images and video to invite trial from
nearby consumers
153. A good example of near field communications is
·Google Wallet
154. Geofencing uses GPS to trigger an event when a mobile device enters a
specific geographic area.
155. As part of a Christmas campaign, Mattel toys placed posters in subway
stations complete with images of toys that could be scanned using _____ to
complete a purchase.
·QR code
156. Many business now offer visitors free Internet services through ______. Once
customers log in to use the service, they can be sent content or offers.
·WiFi hotspots
157. Marketing information that consumers can opt in to receive in a restricted geo-
location like a shopping mall or downtown area is called
·proximity marketing
158. Location apps such as Foursquare or Yelp ask users to post their locations to
receive offers from local merchants. This is generally called
·mobile check-in services
159. The local distribution of marketing content by a coffee shop to mobile devices
that are using its free WiFi is called
·proximity marketing
160. ______ uses mobile apps like Google Maps or Urbanspoon to find local services
that are rated.
·Mobile discovery
161. Near field communications
·allow transfer of images, documents or monetary transactions
162. Short-term tools used to generate support with wholesalers, distributors or
retailers are called
·trade promotions
163. ______ uses GPS to trigger an event to happen when a device enters a certain
geographic area.
·Geofencing
164. personal selling is the two-way flow of communication between a buyer and
a seller designed to influence the buyer's purchase decision.
165. Many businesses offer customers free WiFi
·once they provide log in information
166. Prospecting, approach, presentation and close are all stages in
·the selling process
167. Examples of mobile check-in services include
·Yelp
168. In the past, ______ controlled the messaging. However, today it is more
common that ______ are in control.
·marketers, consumers
169. Google Maps exemplifies
·mobile discovery
170. Smartphone penetration in Canada has reached __ %.
·90
171. Common ______ include trade shows, allowances, discounts and coop
advertising.
·trade promotions
172. In terms of access to, and usage of, Internet technologies
·Canada is best described as very connected
173. Which of the following promotional elements refers to a two-way flow of
communication between a buyer and a seller and is designed to influence the buyer's
purchase decision?
·Personal selling
174. Identify true statements about social networks? (Check all that apply.)
·They allow members to share messages, photos or information.
·They allow members to create a network of friends or contacts.
175. Selling is best described as
·a detailed process
176. Affordable internet technology has resulted in __ having increased control over
marketing messages.
·consumers
177. Smartphones are commonly used for taking photos, messaging, accessing
social networks, listening to music, streaming TV and movies, and talking with
others.
178. Which social media platform is focused on users as members of professional
communities?
·LinkedIn
179. Most consumers in Canada
·are connected digitally throughout the day
180. For Canadians, time spent on digital forms of media is expected to __, while
time spent on all other forms of media is __.
·increase, decreasing
181. One of the most popular online activities in Canada is
·engaging with social networks
182. ______ Canadians spend more time on the Internet, while _____ Canadians
watch more television.
·Younger, older
183. The largest recipient of advertising dollars in Canada is
·the Internet
184. Which of the following are among the most popular social media platforms in
Canada?
·Facebook
·LinkedIn
185. Which of the following best exemplifies the changes in media
·major news organizations using YouTube channels
186. Which of the following are changes in communications related to the digital
world?
·Young adults using online news sources.
·TV viewing on computers and smartphones.
187. Which of the following best illustrates the depth of change in the newspaper
industry in Canada?
·the Globe and Mail underwent a digital redesign in order to remain competitive
188. Collectively, the media, communications agencies, research companies,
associations and regulatory bodies make up the
·marketing communications industry
189. Canadian adults spend over __ hours per day using some form of media.
·9
190. The main forms of media include
·radio
·Internet
·mobile
·out-of-home
191. Place the recipients of Canadian advertising dollars in order from largest to
smallest (largest at the top).
192. A good example of paid media is

·TV advertising
193. Magazines, newspapers, radio and TV stations have all
·begun to create their own online presence
194. The media channels a company controls either fully or partially are called
·owned media
195. In response to the consumer movement towards online news, companies like
the Globe and Mail have
·developed online news sites with varied access and fees
196. The five main areas of the marketing communications industry include
·research companies
·regulatory groups
·media
197. Today, much of public relations is about generating
·earned media
198. Internet, TV, newspaper, magazine, radio, out-of-home, and mobile are
·the main forms of media
199. Media time that is purchased so that messages can be sent through channels
that are controlled by others is called
·paid media
200. Marketing communications agencies include
·broad-spectrum agencies
·specialty agencies
201. Websites, microsites and social media pages are all examples of
·owned media
202. Provision of reliable information, audience measurement and identification of
consumer trends are all typical functions of
·research companies
203. Free publicity secured through unpaid media mentions and consumers who
spread support through word-of-mouth or social media is called
·earned media
204. The Canadian Marketing Association (CMA), Interactive Advertising Bureau of
Canada (IAB) and Institute of Communication Agencies (ICA) are examples of
·associations
205. Marketing communications agencies provide
·expertise on how best to communicate messages to audiences.
206. Which of the following are the main regulatory groups in Canada that work
toward limiting intentional and unintentional deceptive marketing practices? (Check
all that apply.)
·The Canadian Marketing Association
·Advertising Standards Canada
·The Competition Bureau
207. Research companies in the marketing communications industry typically provide
·data on audience measurement and consumer trends
208. In the marketing communications industry, associations serve members through
·maintaining industry data and statistics
·hosting events and workshops
209. Ad Standards is a national
·self-regulated non-profit Canadian group

1. Typically, the goals of an influencer marketing campaign can include

clicks
purchases
2. Public Relations is a form of communication management that seeks to influence the image
of an organization and its products and services primarily using publicity.
3. Attempts to influence feelings, opinions, or beliefs held by customers and others about a
company and its products are called Public Relations.
4. Publicity, lobbying efforts, and press conferences are some of the tools used in
public relations
5. In particular, public relations professionals are well trained in
crisis management
6. Using celebrities or social media users with a large number of followers to help brands
connect with their audience members is called
influencer marketing
7. News stories, editorials, and announcements about organizations, goods, and services are
examples of
publicity.
8. Which of the following activities could be considered public relations efforts?
Introducing company-wide changes to the public
Handling unfavorable press
Building a positive image of the firm
9. Which of the following promotional elements refers to a form of communication
management that seeks to influence the feelings, opinions, or beliefs held by customers and
others about a company and its products, using tools like special events, lobbying, and press
conferences?
 Public relations
10. Public relations tools include
press kits
news conferences
social media releases
11. Which two of the following would be considered public relations tools?
A press release announcing a new product
A news conference held to explain the resignation of a CEO
12. In responding to a crisis, Coca-Cola utilized _______ to manage public communications.
public relations
13. One of the most frequently used public relations tools is
the press release
14. is a non-personal form of communication about a company, brand, or individual that appears
in the media and is not paid for directly by an organization.
Publicity
15. Press conferences are often used by public relations
during crisis management
when there is a new product launch

16. The American Red Cross relies on public service announcements to solicit blood donations,
which is an example of using
public relations tools.
17. The goal of special events is normally to
create positive brand associations with the target market
18. An announcement written by an organization and sent to the media is called a(n) _____.
press release
19. Company reports include each of the following EXCEPT
social media
20. News stories, editorials, and announcements about organizations, goods, and services are
examples of
publicity.
21. An advantage of a social media release is
they can encourage sharing and comments
22. Direct response marketing is a marketing communications tool designed to communicate
with consumers in a targeted and personalized way using either traditional or online
approaches.
23. Some companies send materials to the press media and invite them to an informational
meeting. This is called a(n)
press conference
24. Online approaches to direct marketing include email campaigns, and websites. Offline
approaches include
direct mail
25. Company-sponsored conferences, seminars, and sporting or entertainment events are
collectively called
 special events
26. Formal company reports are normally published
Annually
27. A relatively new tool, ______ utilize online multimedia to communicate with recipients.
social media releases
28. Lead generation entails consumer requests for information. Traffic generation measures
visits to a store or website
29. Which of the following promotional elements refers to communicating specifically with
consumers to generate a response like an order, a visit, or a request for more information?
Direct marketing
30. Which of the following best describes the use of direct marketing tools?
Often both online and offline tools are used together in a coordinated effort
31. The BMW 40th anniversary of the M Series vehicle was celebrated with a YouTube video and
a mail send out of an actual wheel print to prospective buyers. The video received over
500,000 hits and was shared extensively. This exemplifies successful use of
Advertising
32. Email marketing can be used effectively if
consumers choose to opt-in or grant permission

33. Creation or involvement of a brand in an experience or occasion that helps awareness,

positive associations or generates a direct response is referred to as
event marketing
34. Two commonly used metrics for direct marketing campaigns are
lead generation
traffic generation
35. Direct response marketing is a marketing communications tool designed to communicate
with consumers in a targeted and personalized way using either traditional or online
approaches.
36. Which auto company sent existing and prospective customers an actual print of the wheel
tread of an M series vehicle as part of a direct marketing campaign?
BMW
37. In order to be legal in Canada, email marketing must
include the use of opt-in lists
38. Which of the following best exemplifies sponsorship?
Rogers pays to be the title sponsor of an annual tennis tournament in Canada
39. Baskin-Robbins Canada was involved in many parts of Toronto Fashion Week. This is an
example of
event marketing
40. Lead generation entails consumer requests for information. Traffic generation measures
visits to a store or website
41. The Toronto International Film Festival (TIFF) has attracted more than 500,000 attendees and
created over 2 million interactions with the public. The lead sponsor of TIFF is
Bell
42. Which of the following promotional elements refers to communicating specifically with
 consumers to generate a response like an order, a visit, or a request for more information?
Direct marketing
43. ________ are online media where active users submit news, photos, and videos often
accompanied by a feedback process to identify popular topics.
Social media
44. The BMW 40th anniversary of the M Series vehicle was celebrated with a YouTube video and
a mail send out of an actual wheel print to prospective buyers. The video received over
500,000 hits and was shared extensively. This exemplifies successful use of
direct marketing
45. With ______, a company pays a fee in exchange for inclusion in an event or access to
advertising opportunities.
Sponsorship
46. Online marketing tools include
websites and microsites
social media marketing
47. Companies like Bell, the Royal Bank, and L'Oréal Paris sponsor the Toronto International Film
Festival (TIFF)
to take advantage of the branding a promotional opportunities

48. Which of the following is NOT true of social media?

They are only used by individuals, not business firms
49. Which of the following are central to successful website rankings on search engines?
design
content
50. Websites, search engines, social media and mobile marketing are all generally referred to as
online marketing tools
51. ______ websites are electronic storefronts focused on allowing browsers to make
purchases。
Transactional
Promotional
52. McCain's "modifry" contest utilized a __ , encouraging customers to submit recipes using
McCain French fries.
Microsite
53. Corporate websites are designed for
easy access to company and product information
54. Many websites include _____ in order to keep content fresh and maintain high search engine
rankings.
Blogs
55. Pay-per-click advertising and search engine optimization are the two main areas of
search engine marketing
56. Promotional websites created for short-term purposes, often as part of consumer contests,
are called
Microsites
57. Corporate websites are important destinations for consumers that want access to company
 and product information.
58. Search engine marketing (SEM) includes
search engine optimization
pay-per-click advertising
59. ______ websites are electronic storefronts focused on allowing browsers to make purchases.
Transactional
60. Most auto companies use __ websites.
Promotional
61. ___ looks at website design, coding, content, and updates to ensure websites are highly
rated by search engines.
SEO
62. Pay-per-click advertising is also often referred to as search advertising.
63. Credibility in influencer marketing is based on
the number of followers
64. The Walmart website is best described as
Transactional
65. Websites that showcase products and services but do NOT promote online sales are normally
referred to as
Promotional

66. Which of the following are typical ways influencers are compensated for their time and
effort?
negotiated pay
reimbursement of expenses
free products
67. Marketers typically maximize search engine optimization with the use of
web marketing specialists
68. Listening to consumers, identifying influencers and then providing information are
the basic steps to successful word-of-mouth marketing communications
69. Some websites and search engines generate revenue through ___ strategies that charge
advertisers whenever their ads are clicked.
PPC
70. Influencer marketing operates on the same basic principles as
traditional word-of-mouth or reference groups
71. For most consumers, social media is accessed most often through
mobile devices
72. The two key components of social media are
ability to share opinions, images, articles, etc.
creation of contact networks
73. Most often, social media influencers exist
within specific categories
74. Word-of-mouth communications typically work on three levels
professional level
influencer level
 viral level
75. Facebook and Twitter are ______ where users share opinions, articles and images.
Urbanspoon and Yelp are ______ designed to allow users to post ratings or reviews of their
purchases.
social communities, social review sites
76. Which statement best describes the social media landscape?
Social media and mobile marketing are intertwined and rapidly evolving
77. Expected features of Web 3.0 include
more user customization
the Internet of Things
advanced location-based applications
78. Online media that allows members to create a network of contacts to share comments,
images, videos and articles is referred to as social media
79. Social networks rely heavily on ___, comments, images, articles or videos contributed by
members.
user-generated content
80. Identify the broad areas of social media. (Select all that apply.)
Discovery sites
Social communities
Social bookmarking sites
81. The terms Web 2.0 and Web 3.0 are often used interchangeably with
social media
82. In classifying social media platforms by media richness, marketers consider
the degree of audio, visual, and personal communications
83. Blogs, posts, opinions, images and videos are all forms of
UGC
84. While there are popular social media platforms across the spectrum of media richness and
self-disclosure, the majority of popular platforms still fall under
Social Networking Sites
85. Most modern consumers receive information, news and education from
print and electronic media
TV & radio news
social media
86. _____ refers to when companies create and share expertise in order to inform and engage
potential customers.
Content marketing
87. Which the large number and variety of social media networks, marketers find it useful to
classify networks to help them better reach potential customers. Two factors used are
Self-disclosure
88. Video blogs or __ are blogs that are posted in a video format.
Vlogs
89. Social media platforms that rate highest in both richness of media and self-disclosure include
gaming sites like the Sims and Call of Duty
90. For many marketers, the communications effort using traditional media
 is complemented with social media
91. Typical content marketing tools include
research papers
webinars
92. An online diary used by organizations and individuals to post updates that can include
opinions, activities and experiences is called a(n)
Blog
93. Wikipedia is an example of a wiki
94. When compared to conventional forms of marketing communications, social media is
typically ____ expensive and more ______.
less, labour-intensive
95. When brands reach out to consumers online through social networks it is called
social media marketing
96. Which of the following are typical activities for marketers on social media platforms?
use metrics to measure engagement
join conversations
97. Which of the following are benefits ascribed to social media by marketers?
building brand loyalty
increased traffic

98. A ___ is a collaborative website that allows multiple users to create, add, edit or delete
content.
Wiki
99. For many marketers, a key distinction between traditional media and social media is
the loss of complete messaging control with social media
100. Social media marketing normally includes
creating brand pages on social media platforms
monitoring and responding to questions and comments
101. Many marketers suggest that __ is the most important benefit of social media.
brand exposure
102. When using social media, marketers must understand the delicate nature required
handle negative interactions
103. With social media platforms, consumers participate in messaging. While beneficial, it can
also result in
loss of control
104. _____ used to social media to post images created by users of their product. They regularly
showcase recipes developed by well-known chefs and encourage user-generated content in
the form of photos and cooking tips.
McCain
105. A critical component to success in social media marketing is the understanding of
the management and measurement tools
106. Current research shows that unhappy customers are most likely to post their complaints on
Facebook and Twitter
107. _____ is often used by companies to post instructional videos or how-to content.
 YouTube
108. Social media is similar to other forms of marketing communications in its ability to reach
both large and small audiences. It differs, however, in that
the company does not have full control over the messaging
109. Which of the following are not among the most popular social networks in Canada?
Relive
110. Doritos effectively engaged a younger target market and revitalized their brand with the use
of and IMC campaign involving
social media
111. Success with social media marketing requires
knowledge of the social networks
understanding of the management and evaluation tools
112. For newsy updates, ______ is the most suitable social media platform.
Twitter
113. Which of the following statements regarding Facebook is most accurate?
It is a free network where people connect with friends.
114. In 2019, two of the most popular social media networks in Canada were
Facebook
YouTube

115. The three Facebook tracks are personal, group, and page
116. In addition to creating engaging posts, contests and images on Facebook, marketers can
purchase advertisements
117. Which of the following is TRUE of Facebook?
It is usually the centre of a brand's social media program.
118. The Facebook "page" track is most commonly used by
public figures and brands
119. For brand managers, the most appealing benefits of Facebook are
tracking consumer trends
ability to track and measure program effectiveness
120. The Facebook live video-streaming capability, called Facebook live, can increase a brand's
reach in a timely manner.
121. On Facebook, the marketer's challenge is to create regular engaging content followers will
like.
122. Successful use of Facebook for marketers requires attention to important details, including
dedication to monitoring and replying to customer contacts
the need to understand what content customers want to see
123. To help promote the "Straight Outta Compton" movie, Universal Pictures had more than 100
celebrities share their hometown using hashtags to their Facebook timeline.
124. A more recent Facebook tool, ______ allows marketers to live video-stream events or
activities in order to reach the target market in a more personal way.
Facebook Live
125. Which of the following are tips that marketers should use to maximize consumer
engagement with their brand on Facebook? (Check all that apply.)
 Post only when most users are logged in.
Engage by replying to comments.
126. While limiting "tweets" to 280 characters, the Twitter platform is home to more than 300
million global users tweeting in 40+ languages.
127. Universal Pictures and Beats by Dre partnered to promote the movie ___ using a special app
and Facebook, achieving more than 10 million "shares".
Straight Outta Compton
128. Twitter is based upon the principle of "followers."
129. This social media platform is ideal to reach Canadians with both pre-planned and
spontaneous messages that respond to news or "buzz".
Twitter
130. Through __, brands make themselves relevant during events or newsworthy occurrences.
real-time marketing
131. This social media site is used by people to discover and be inspired by interesting and
entertaining videos.
YouTube
132. Brands can best use YouTube to
upload videos
create sponsored Channels

133. Marketing experts suggest that "tweets" are

consistent with the use of graphics
organized and scheduled regularly
134. During the 2013 Super Bowl, Oreo responded to a power outage with a visual tweet "Power
out? No problem, you can dunk in the dark". This spontaneous use of the opportunity is
called real-time marketing
135. The __ Stratos videos are likely the most successful viral videos in history, with over 900,000
Facebook interactions and 20,000 Twitter mentions in tow days, and an estimated reach of
nearly 50 million people.
Red Bull
136. Facebook purchased the photo-sharing social media site ______ in 2012. This site allows
users to quickly share photos and videos that are easily searchable.
Instagram
137. Which of the following is TRUE of YouTube?
Unregistered users may view video on the site.
138. Successful Instagram posts typically follow which of the following?
Including a call to action
Posting when the audience is engaged
139. Marketers can target ads on YouTube in the form of
in-stream video ads
sponsored videos
banner ads
140. The main purpose of the LinkedIn site is professional networking and job searching.
141. Well planned and executed YouTube videos can reach an audience very quickly through
 viewing, rating and sharing across user groups. This phenomenon is called
going viral
142. A key element of many social media platforms, like Instagram, is
the ability to connect accounts to Facebook and Twitter platforms
143. Which of the following are ways that LinkedIn can be used?
To review and profile a manager offering a job
To find jobs, people, and business opportunities recommended by a connection
To advertise to targeted people based on job titles, age, or location
144. Instagram is best suited to messages with strong visual impact
145. Brand managers can use ________ for business-to-business image building, using profiles of
company employees, and networking with industry-related groups.
LinkedIn
146. Which statement best describes the world of social media?
Social media is a fast-moving, evolving environment.
147. Which two of the following are critical to the successful use of social media by marketers?
Measurement of results against pre-determined objectives
Careful planning
148. For business-to-business marketing, __ has the distinct advantage of business focus and
sharp targeting capabilities.
LinkedIn
149. In the process of building social media programs into marketing initiatives, which of the
following questions help steer content and the tools of engagement?
Who will be creating social media content?
How does your target market use social media?
150. Social media best practices necessitate
awareness of the changes and preparation for the unexpected
151. Compared to those for traditional media, social media performance measures related to
outputs or revenues can be ________ because it is easier to ________.
more specific; track social network users electronically.
152. Marketers plan their social media marketing efforts in order to increase brand engagement
and
earn a positive return on investment
153. Which of the following are engagement metrics?
Views
Followers
Comments
154. The cost of reaching 1,000 people or __ is commonly used to compare different possible
advertising platforms.
CPM
155. The first step in building a social media program is
identifying the company policies for social media and the voice/tone
156. Typical third-party social media tools like __ allow marketers to increase their effectiveness
in an timely manner.
social media analytics and monitoring software
157. Social media optimization metrics include
cost-per-click (CPC)
cost-per-acquisition (CPA)
retention rate
158. Which of the following are social media performance measures linked to inputs or costs?
Cost per acquisition
Cost per thousand
Cost per click
159. Which of the following are "best practices" for companies starting to use social media?
Obtain senior management commitment.
Dedicate, train and hire social media marketing experts
160. Which of the following has become the most common tool for managing daily lives.
mobile device
161. Which of the following devices are most popular across the world?
Mobile devices
162. The best social media campaigns are
integrated with all other marketing communications
163. Cellphones, tablets, e-readers, and portable gaming devices are most likely examples of
mobile devices

164. Aside from smartphones, tablets and e-readers, what devices are expected to increase in
popularity in the near future?
Wearable devices
165. Mobile is now best described as the driving force in marketing
166. Most people check mobile devices
several times per day
167. Increasingly, consumers use ______ as they research products, check reviews and ultimately
make a purchase.
multiple platforms
168. __ is the practices that enable organizations to communicate and engage with their
audiences in an interactive and relevant way through any mobile device.
Mobile marketing
169. These mobile devices, while cheaper than smartphones, do not allow users to download or
use apps.
feature phone
170. A key feature in all mobile devices is Internet access
171. An advanced cellphone that uses applications and allows users to call, text, email, browse
the Internet, listen to music, and take/view photos and videos is called a(n)
Smartphone
172. Devices like smartwatches, Fitbit health monitors and Google Glass are all called
Wearables
173. Typical daily uses of mobile devices include
checking recommendations
making purchases
 information gathering
174. A cellphone that is Internet-enabled and allows for e-mailing, texting and browsing but
cannot download or use apps is called a(n)
feature phone
175. Mobile ownership in Canada has reached 90%
176. Key features of smartphones typically include:
GPS navigation
ability to use apps
photo capability
177. Despite an initial slow start, many Wearables such as smartwatches and Fitbit are now
rapidly growing in popularity.
178. While growing in popularity, this type of mobile app is still not one of the top ten among
Canadians.
mobile banking
179. E-commerce sales now represent 10% of overall retail sales in Canada.
180. The two most popular mobile platforms in Canada include:
Android (Google)
iOs (Apple)

181. There is a growing trend of ______ whereby consumers use mobile devices in-store to check
competitive prices and product reviews.
Showrooming
182. Recent research has shown that the use of mobile marketing to reach consumers with
reminders, offers, or useful tools
improves consumer brand attitudes
183. According to Hootsuite, which two internet-based features are used by the highest
percentage of Canadian mobile subscribers?
watching videos
messenger apps
184. In most cases, consumers need to opt in to receive mobile messaging. For that reason,
marketers must create
both value and interest
185. By 2019, mobile spending had reached approximately __ of e-commerce sales in Canada.
one third
186. Compared to a website that is viewed on a desktop computer, those intended for mobile
devices must be
faster and easy to use
187. Mobile devices allow retailers to connect with customer in new ways like loyalty apps and
location-based offers. At the same time, the trend of ______ can hurt retail business.
Showrooming
188. Which statement best describes the relationship most consumers have with their mobile
device?
Consumers carefully guard their mobile device
189. Identify the common approaches to mobile web design. (Check all that apply.)
Designing separate websites with streamlined content
Optimizing website by responsive design platforms that offer flexible layouts
190. Best practices for mobile marketers include
show respect for user privacy
provide value in a non-disruptive way
191. ______ are software programs designed for mobile devices that engage with information,
entertainment or other interactivity.
Mobile applications
192. A website designed for the smaller screens of mobile devices is known as mobile web.
193. Apps tend to be highly rated when they are quick, simple and free.
194. Common approaches to mobile web design include
responsive designs that adjust automatically
separate mobile websites with consistent theming
195. The most popular social networking app in Canada is
Facebook
196. Apps can generate revenue through
selling ads
download fees

197. With more than 2 million apps each, the two largest providers are
Apple App Store
Google Play
198. The key distinction in terms of apps created for marketing programs is based on
whether they run on the device or a website
199. The most popular apps with Canadians include:
music
weather
200. Mobile web apps can run on any platform but, compared to native apps,
the user experience is not as rich
201. While many apps are free to download, they generate revenue through
selling products or ads
202. The three types of apps created for marketing programs include
native apps
hybrid apps
web apps
203. Some apps combine the functionality of native apps with the flexibility of web apps. These
are called hybrid apps
204. Which well-known coffee retailer successfully created an app that combined its payment
card and loyalty card?
Starbucks
205. Apps created specifically to be hosted and run on a mobile device are called
native apps
206. Apps that run off browsers rather than actual mobile devices are called
 web apps
207. Hybrid apps combine the functionality of a native app with the flexibility of a web app.
208. Commonly, apps from companies like the Weather Network provide functionality to users
and sell advertising space
209. According to Canada's Anti-Spam Legislation (CASL), use of push notifications requires
consumer opt-in
210. A native app is created to be hosted and run on a mobile device without the need to be
continuously online.
211. The mobile marketing industry is
regulated by the same guidelines that apply to the marketing industry.
212. Canadian regulators of the mobile space include
Canadian Radio-television and Telecommunications Commission (CRTC)
Canadian Wireless Telecommunications Association (CWTA)
Mobile Marketing Association (MMA)
213. Many apps allow users the option of choosing to receive notifications for sales, changing
weather or special events. This function is normally called
push notifications
214. In Canada, wireless contracts must be easy to understand and can be cancelled
after two years

215. The CSC keyword STOP can be used in Canada to stop participation.
216. Marketing industry legislation that is particularly applicable to mobile marketing relates to
privacy and spam
217. The Mobile Marketing Association administers the ______ which guides the industry with
standards, guidelines and best practices with respect to mobile marketing.
Global Code of Conduct
218. A challenge for regulators of mobile marketing is
keeping pace with changes in technology and practices
219. In Canada, the mobile space is relatively unregulated. False.
220. In Canada, the CRTC regulates ______, introduced as a mandatory code of conduct for
wireless providers.
the Wireless Code
221. The Canadian Wireless Telecommunications Association administers guidelines on ___
pricing and practices. Included are restrictions regarding opt-out, pricing, and information
requests.
common short code (CSC)
222. With over 800 members across 50 countries, the Global Code of Conduct is administered by
the MMA or __.
Mobile Marketing Association
223. Most experts agree that mobile elements to a marketing campaign
must be central to the overall marketing program
224. Mobile marketing best practices include
integrating mobile marketing programs into traditional marketing campaigns
understanding that mobile is used for search, discovery and purchasing
225. The mobile first approach means that
mobile becomes a central element in a marketing program
226. Which of the following most accurately describes mobile marketing best practices?
Mobile is part of any campaign and should be designed in from the start