Psychology 4th Edition Schacter Test Bank

Psychology 4th Edition Schacter Test Bank

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1. Our subjective experience of the external world and our mind is called:
A) self-perception.
B) objective reality.
C) consciousness.
D) unconscious processing.

2. The defining feature of consciousness that separates it from unconsciousness is:

A) experience.
B) activation-synthesis.
C) forebrain activity.
D) wakefulness.

3. Which statement about the theater of the mind is FALSE?

A) It is difficult to share what we view in the theater with other people.
B) The movie projected onto our mental screen can be viewed repeatedly if we so
choose.
C) Some things presently occurring are not projected onto our mental screen.
D) There is only a single seat in the theater.

4. A psychologist studying consciousness is analogous to a(n):

A) botanist pondering what it is like to be a daffodil.
B) theoretical physicist attempting to determine what happens to objects that enter a
black hole.
C) meteorologist trying to predict the weather.
D) alchemist trying to turn lead into gold.

5. _____ refers to how things seem to the _____ person.

A) Phrenology; unconscious
B) Phenomenology; unconscious
C) Phrenology; conscious
D) Phenomenology; conscious

6. Phenomenology refers to:

A) how things seem to the conscious person.
B) how things seem to a person during a dream.
C) the comparison of a single phenomenon with a transcendental state.
D) the practice of determining traits by examining bumps on the skull.

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 7. The _____ is the fundamental problem we have in knowing whether the mental
experiences of another person are anything like our own.
A) problem of other minds
B) mind–body problem
C) levels of consciousness issue
D) "unknown observer" issue

8. To illustrate the problem of other minds, philosophers imagine hypothetical zombies

that:
A) are themselves fully conscious.
B) have a mind but must eat brains because they are lacking this critical organ.
C) are themselves unconscious but are indistinguishable from persons who are
conscious.
D) are programmed to act in certain ways but cannot modify their actions based on
experiences.

9. Which statement about the problem of other minds is TRUE?

A) The "consciousness meter" of anesthesiologists has produced tremendous insight
into the conscious experiences of other minds.
B) You can quickly assess if your roommate is or is not an unconscious zombie by
asking her how she feels.
C) By studying another person in tremendous detail, psychologists ultimately will be
able to truly know what it is like to be that person.
D) It cannot be proven if anyone else besides you even experiences consciousness.

10. Recent research has indicated that the two dimensions of mind perception are:
A) feeling and experience.
B) experience and agency.
C) agency and self-control.
D) planning and memory.

11. A _____ perceives as having agency but lacking experience.

A) baby
B) person in a persistent vegetative state
C) robot
D) chimpanzee

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12. _____ perceives as having experience but not agency.
A) A baby
B) God
C) A robot
D) An adult human

13. The psychological approach known as _____ was proposed as a way to make the
problem of other minds a nonissue.
A) structuralism
B) phrenology
C) mentalism
D) behaviorism

14. The issue of how the mind is related to the brain and body is known as the:
A) cocktail-party phenomenon.
B) problem of other minds.
C) mind–body problem.
D) split-brain problem.

15. _____ believed that the human body was a physical machine but that the human mind
was made of an immaterial "thinking substance."
A) Benjamin Libet
B) Sigmund Freud
C) William James
D) René Descartes

16. René Descartes, a French philosopher and mathematician, believed that the mind had its
effects on the brain and body through the:
A) ventricular system.
B) parasympathetic nervous system.
C) hippocampus.
D) pineal gland.

17. Which belief was NOT expressed by René Descartes?

A) The mind is not composed of physical matter.
B) The mind is what the brain does.
C) The mind is a separate entity from the body.
D) The human body functions as a machine.

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18. In Benjamin Libet's experiments, the timing of conscious will was shown to follow
which pattern?
A) Brain activity begins, a conscious wish to act is experienced, and then behavioral
action occurs.
B) A conscious wish to act is experienced, brain activity begins, and then behavioral
action occurs.
C) Behavioral action occurs, brain activity begins, and then a conscious wish to act is
experienced.
D) A conscious wish to act is experienced, behavioral action occurs, and then brain
activity begins.

19. From Benjamin Libet's experiments on timing conscious will, it appears that the:
A) mind directs the brain and behavior.
B) mind and brain simultaneously direct behavior.
C) brain directs behavior but is not associated with mental processes.
D) brain directs the mind and behavior.

20. From Benjamin Libet's experiments on timing conscious will, it appears that:
A) the feeling of conscious will exists because the mind directs brain and behavioral
processes.
B) the feeling of conscious will is the result of brain activity and not the cause of it.
C) within 300 milliseconds after willing an action to occur, brain activity has begun to
direct behavior.
D) conscious will is the result of the mind justifying a behavioral action after the fact.

21. The four basic properties of consciousness are:

A) selectivity, unity, intentionality, and self-consciousness.
B) selectivity, transience, phenomenology, and dichotomy.
C) intentionality, unity, selectivity, and transience.
D) intentionality, dichotomy, selectivity, and transience.

22. Consciousness is always directed toward an object, a property of consciousness termed:

A) selectivity.
B) transience.
C) unity.
D) intentionality.

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23. Consciousness integrates information from all of the bodily senses into a coherent
whole, a property of consciousness termed:
A) selectivity.
B) transience.
C) unity.
D) intentionality.

24. Jenny, the pitcher for her softball team, adjusts her grip on the ball, squints to block the
glare of the hot sun, receives a signal from the catcher, and begins her windup as
teammates chant in nervous anticipation. If asked, Jenny would report she is
experiencing all the sights and sounds of a softball game as a whole scene, rather than
experiencing each perception individually. This illustrates the _____ of consciousness.
A) unity
B) selectivity
C) transience
D) intentionality

25. The capacity to include some objects in consciousness and not others is called the _____
of consciousness.
A) selectivity
B) unity
C) inclusivity
D) transience

26. While watching a competitive basketball game on television, Harry doesn't hear his wife
asking for his help. This illustrates which property of consciousness?
A) selectivity
B) unity
C) inclusivity
D) transience

27. Participants in a research study wear headphones through which different voices are
presented in each ear. They are told to repeat all of the information coming into their left
ear. Later, they are asked to recall information about what was presented in the right ear.
This is an example of the:
A) dichotic listening technique.
B) unity of consciousness.
C) split-brain research methodology.
D) cocktail-party effect.

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28. While repeating information given to them through headphones in their left ear,
participants are also receiving a second message in their right ear. Which aspect of the
second message would MOST likely be noticed?
A) The speaker changes languages.
B) The voice of the speaker changes sexes.
C) The subject of the message switches from the weather to current events.
D) The voice of the speaker is slow and monotone throughout.

29. The dichotic listening technique illustrates which property of consciousness?

A) intentionality
B) selectivity
C) transience
D) unity

30. Katie is in the school gym talking to a group of her friends. All of a sudden, her
attention is diverted to another group of people talking in the opposite corner of the gym
when someone mentions her name in their conversation. This is an example of:
A) inattentional blindness.
B) minimal consciousness.
C) self-consciousness.
D) the cocktail-party phenomenon.

31. No matter how engaged in conversation parents may be, they probably will quickly
notice if their children start crying. This is an example of the:
A) unity of consciousness.
B) division of attention.
C) dual attention phenomenon.
D) cocktail-party effect.

32. Amanda is trying to focus on what her psychology professor is saying, but her mind
keeps wandering to other things, like the fact that the lecture hall is cold, her seat is
hard, there is a message on her cell phone to check, and whether or not Kevin is going to
be at the party tonight. This illustrates the _____ of consciousness.
A) intentionality
B) unity
C) transience
D) selectivity

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33. The fact that our consciousness can wander like a stream is taken as evidence of the
_____ of consciousness.
A) intentionality
B) unity
C) transience
D) selectivity

34. The fact that our consciousness has a tendency to change from one moment to the next
is termed the _____ of consciousness.
A) intentionality
B) unity
C) transience
D) selectivity

35. The Necker cube illusion illustrates the _____ of consciousness.

A) transience
B) unity
C) intentionality
D) selectivity

36. The psychologist who famously described consciousness as flowing like a stream was:
A) Sigmund Freud.
B) William James.
C) John Watson.
D) Wilhelm Wundt.

37. The levels of consciousness that psychologists distinguish are defined in terms of:
A) objective behavioral observations made by an unbiased observer.
B) score on a wakefulness meter initially developed for surgery patients.
C) awareness of the world and self.
D) different patterns of brain activity.

38. While Theresa is asleep, her roommate places Theresa's hand in bowl of cold water.
Theresa removes her hand from the bowl but remains asleep. Theresa is at which level
of consciousness?
A) minimal consciousness
B) full consciousness
C) unconsciousness
D) REM consciousness

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39. Although Alek is clearly sleeping, when Katrina pokes him in the ribs, Alek rolls over.
This demonstrates that Alek is:
A) minimally conscious.
B) fully conscious.
C) self-conscious.
D) REM conscious.

40. A state in which conscious experience can be reported to others is said to be:
A) minimal consciousness.
B) full consciousness.
C) self-consciousness.
D) verbal consciousness.

41. Betsy and Jasmine are arguing about the intellectual abilities of their dog, Amos. Betsy
claims that Amos knows that he is supposed to bark on the command "speak." Jasmine
agrees that Amos speaks on command but contends that Amos is not aware that he has
learned this stimulus-response relation. Betsy and Jasmine are debating whether Amos
is _____ of his clever abilities.
A) preconscious
B) fully conscious
C) self-conscious
D) transient

42. Upon arriving at work, Bailey suddenly becomes aware that she must have zoned out
because she doesn't remember her 20-minute drive. Bailey was _____ during the drive.
A) autoconscious
B) unconscious
C) self-conscious
D) minimally conscious

43. William James has suggested that self-consciousness occurs when:

A) we focus all of our attention on an object.
B) our attention is drawn to ourselves as an object.
C) we can respond to stimuli in our environments.
D) we simplify our lives and stop being fully conscious.

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44. Which behavior is LEAST likely to produce a state of self-consciousness?
A) staring in the mirror
B) thinking about career and personal goals
C) being embarrassed by classmates
D) cheering at a football game with 80,000 other people

45. Which behavior is LEAST likely to produce a state of self-consciousness?

A) sitting in a large lecture hall learning about American history
B) writing about your personal and career ambitions
C) giving a speech in front of your class
D) viewing photographs of yourself

46. Research has demonstrated that looking in the mirror CANNOT briefly make people
more:
A) self-critical.
B) aggressive.
C) helpful.
D) cooperative.

47. Mind wandering is MOST likely to occur when a person:

A) experiences an overload of sensory stimulation.
B) is trying to escape from an unpleasant situation.
C) is tired.
D) engages in repetitive undemanding tasks.

48. Mind wandering is the experience of stimulus-_____ thoughts.

A) independent
B) dependent
C) triggered
D) repetitive

49. One disadvantage associated with mind wandering is:

A) a greater propensity to hallucinate.
B) lowered levels of creativity.
C) feelings of unhappiness.
D) a greater propensity to abuse drugs and alcohol.

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50. In a recent study by Wilson and colleagues (2014), 67% of male participants and 25% of
female participants elected to administer electric shocks to themselves, rather than:
A) give a speech to a group of strangers.
B) sit alone with their thoughts.
C) view pictures of themselves from their pubescent years.
D) write about a challenging time in their lives.

51. Self-recognition in a mirror is limited to:

A) humans over 3 years old, cats, and gorillas.
B) humans, dogs, and apes.
C) a few animals and children over 18 months old.
D) humans over 3 years old.

52. The capacity to recognize one's own mirror image is evident in humans:
A) at birth.
B) by age 6 months.
C) by age 18 months.
D) by age 3 years.

53. Which process MOST accurately describes the experience-sampling technique of

determining the contents of consciousness?
A) Participants keep a dream diary at bedside to record their dreams upon awakening.
B) Participants keep detailed thought journals and update these journals at least twice
a day.
C) Participants report what is on their mind when prompted at random times
throughout the day.
D) Participants talk out loud when something is on their mind and this is recorded.

54. Studies using the experience-sampling technique suggest that our consciousness tends to
be dominated by:
A) our own personal feelings.
B) unconscious motives.
C) feelings of self-consciousness.
D) the sensory inputs of our immediate environment.

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55. Excluding orientation to the immediate environment, studies using the
experience-sampling technique suggest that our consciousness tends to be dominated
by:
A) current concerns.
B) unconscious motives.
C) mate selection.
D) long-term planning.

56. The state of consciousness in which a seemingly purposeless flow of thoughts comes to
mind is termed:
A) daydreaming.
B) hypnosis.
C) introspection.
D) minimal consciousness.

57. Using fMRI, the widespread pattern of brain activity observed when people have
nothing specific to which to attend is termed the:
A) current concerns.
B) conscious will.
C) default network.
D) rebound effect.

58. Which thought is LEAST likely to be part of a college student's default network?
A) Are the concepts learned in class applicable to daily life?
B) Do I need to lose weight?
C) Should I be more or less religious?
D) When will I find time to clean my room?

59. Which thought is probably NOT part of a college student's default network?
A) What am I going to do with my life?
B) Do others find me physically attractive?
C) Why did my last relationship not work out?
D) Do I turn right or left to get to the house party?

60. The mental technique of thought suppression is:

A) the same thing as repression.
B) an unconscious technique.
C) best for negative emotional thoughts.
D) the conscious avoidance of a thought.

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61. When fear of scoring badly on a math exam dominated his thoughts, David intentionally
used _____ to attempt to change his conscious state of mind.
A) self-consciousness
B) mental control
C) repression
D) sensory stimuli

62. If asked not to think about a snowman, a person will MOST likely:
A) think about a snowman much more.
B) think about a snowman much less.
C) think about a snowman only when engaged in a boring task.
D) dream about a snowman.

63. A golfer consciously tries not to pull his drive, but a camera goes off during his
backswing and he ends up pulling his drive into the trees. Pulling the drive BEST
illustrates:
A) thought suppression.
B) ironic processes of mental control.
C) the Freudian unconscious.
D) self-consciousness.

64. A baseball pitcher knows that a batter often hits home runs when the pitch is on the
inner half of the strike zone. The pitcher consciously tries to pitch to the outer half but,
while distracted by a base runner, throws to the inner half and the batter hits a home run.
Pitching to the inner half of the strike zone BEST illustrates:
A) thought suppression.
B) ironic processes of mental control.
C) the Freudian unconscious.
D) self-consciousness.

65. Alex occasionally has self-doubts about his ability as a baseball player. His sports
psychologist advised him that it is extremely important to banish these doubts from
consciousness during games. Alex has found, however, that his self-doubts intensify
following games. This is an example of:
A) the rebound effect of thought suppression.
B) mental control.
C) the overcompensation effect.
D) the dynamic unconscious.

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66. Participants told not to think about a white bear during a brief experiment may find
themselves thinking about the white bear for the rest of the day. This is an example of:
A) the rebound effect of thought suppression.
B) mental control.
C) the overcompensation effect.
D) the dynamic unconscious.

67. The rebound effect of thought suppression is the tendency of a thought to:
A) bounce in and out of consciousness during thought suppression.
B) return to consciousness with greater frequency following thought suppression.
C) become distorted into a false belief following thought suppression.
D) become less likely following prolonged periods of thought suppression.

68. Participants in a research study are told that they must try not to think about a clown
riding a unicycle. According to the theory of ironic processes of mental control:
A) participants will devote way too much of our time and energy trying to accomplish
this rather simple task.
B) participants will successfully repress memories of clowns into their unconscious.
C) part of the participants' minds will actively search for this clown.
D) in suppressing this thought, participants will do poorly on simple cognitive tests
such as addition and subtraction.

69. Which statement about ironic monitoring processes is FALSE?

A) They operate outside of consciousness.
B) They allow us to recognize when unwanted thoughts occur.
C) They contribute to our ability to exert mental control over our consciousness.
D) They decrease our sensitivity to the thoughts that are unwanted.

70. Freud described the _____ as an active system encompassing a lifetime of hidden
memories, a person's deepest instincts and desires, and that person's inner struggle to
control these forces.
A) subconscious
B) superego
C) dynamic unconscious
D) ego

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71. According to Freud, a college student's dynamic unconscious is LEAST likely to
contain:
A) feelings of hatred for her parents.
B) repressed sexual urges.
C) destructive urges toward herself.
D) current goals for the semester.

72. Freud described _____ as a mental process that removes unacceptable thoughts and
memories from consciousness.
A) thought suppression
B) speech errors (or slips)
C) the dynamic unconscious
D) repression

73. Jeremy has no clue that he has unconscious hostile urges to act aggressively against his
boss. This is an example of:
A) a Freudian slip.
B) mental control.
C) subliminal perception.
D) repression.

74. Disapproving of her friend Amy's fiancé, Mindy told her boyfriend that she dreaded
going to Amy's funeral when she meant to say "Amy's wedding." This speech error is an
example of:
A) a lapse of consciousness.
B) repression.
C) a rebound effect of thought suppression.
D) a Freudian slip.

75. While campaigning for President, Hillary Clinton said "prisoner" when she meant to say
"President." This speech error is an example of:
A) a lapse of consciousness.
B) repression.
C) a rebound effect of thought suppression.
D) a Freudian slip.

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76. A criticism of Freud's interpretations of Freudian slips is that:
A) recent research suggests that slips say nothing about the contents of consciousness.
B) in the real world, these types of slips are extremely rare.
C) they reflect the after-the-fact interpretation of the listener, instead of the thoughts
of the speaker.
D) the interpretations do not meet modern standards of statistical significance.

77. The _____ includes all the mental processes that are not experienced by a person but
that give rise to the person's thoughts, choices, emotions, and behaviors.
A) cognitive unconscious
B) dynamic unconscious
C) Freudian unconscious
D) repressed conscious

78. A key difference between the dynamic unconscious and the cognitive unconscious is
that:
A) repression is the major function of the cognitive unconscious.
B) the cognitive unconscious does not emphasize animal urges and repressed
thoughts.
C) the dynamic unconscious is more susceptible to subliminal perception.
D) slips of speech are important for understanding the cognitive unconscious.

79. The cognitive unconscious can BEST be described as a:

A) mediator between animal urges and societal norms.
B) warehouse stored with repressed thoughts and memories.
C) repository filled with the collective experiences of our ancestors.
D) rapid automatic information processer.

80. Modern _____ theories postulate that the brain has different systems regulating
conscious and unconscious information processing.
A) Freudian
B) psychodynamic
C) dual process
D) Gestalt

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81. According to dual-process theory, which function would NOT be processed by the
"fast" System 1?
A) identifying the correct answer to challenging multiple-choice questions on an exam
B) reading the words to multiple-choice questions on an exam
C) walking to class while preoccupied with an exam
D) writing your name on an exam

82. According to dual-process theory, which function would NOT be processed by the
"slow" System 2?
A) debating about what major a college student should declare
B) answering reading-comprehension questions on a standardized college entrance
exam
C) reading the words to a question on an exam
D) considering how best to answer an essay question in the allotted time and space

83. As manager of a new movie theater, Ralph arranged to have messages about popcorn
and candy flashed on the screen during the movie so quickly that they were outside of
conscious awareness. Messages like this are called:
A) subliminal stimuli.
B) ironic processes of mental control.
C) preconscious stimuli.
D) flashbulb stimulation.

84. In a study on the effects of subliminal persuasion, Bargh and colleagues (1996) found
that students exposed to words commonly associated with aging (for example, Florida,
gray, wrinkled):
A) talked more about their grandparents in the debriefing session following the study
than did those not exposed to the "aging" words.
B) walked more slowly down the hall as they were leaving the study than did those
not exposed to the "aging" words.
C) were more likely to agree to volunteer at a senior citizen center when asked
immediately following the study than were those not exposed to the "aging" words.
D) rated saving for retirement as more important immediately following the study than
did those not exposed to the "aging" words.

85. Greenwald (1992) presented the words "enemy loses" subliminally to participants.
These participants then:
A) began to feel positive emotions.
B) began to think of negative things.
C) were more likely to donate to their preferred political party.
D) subsequently overestimated their likelihood of winning an arm-wrestling match.

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86. In a study on roommate preference, people who had to choose which of three
hypothetical candidates would make the best roommate made the BEST decision when:
A) they were allowed to deliberate over the pros and cons of each person.
B) they were forced to make a snap decision immediately after hearing the description
of the three people.
C) they were given time to unconsciously deliberate on the potential roommates while
they were actively engaged in an unrelated problem-solving task.
D) the descriptions of the potential roommates were presented subliminally instead of
consciously.

87. Dreaming is considered to be a(n):

A) form of unconsciousness.
B) altered state of consciousness.
C) normal state of consciousness.
D) period during which our brain is turned off.

88. A form of experience that departs significantly from the normal subjective experience of
the world and the mind is called:
A) an altered state of consciousness.
B) a hypnogogic state of consciousness.
C) subliminal consciousness.
D) the collective unconscious.

89. The hypnagogic state of consciousness occurs:

A) as we begin to fall asleep.
B) while we are dreaming.
C) in the deepest stages of sleep.
D) as we are waking up.

90. Sometimes people experience sensations of falling while _____, a phenomenon termed
_____.
A) dreaming; REM rebound
B) dreaming; hypnopompic levitation
C) falling asleep; hypnotic drop
D) falling asleep; hypnic jerk

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91. A circadian rhythm is a naturally occurring _____ cycle.
A) 8-hour
B) 24-hour
C) 28-day
D) 365-day

92. As a newly graduated registered nurse, Monica begins working the night shift. Her
struggle to stay alert at work is probably due to an interruption of her usual:
A) hypnogogic state.
B) REM sleep pattern.
C) circadian rhythm.
D) pattern of sleep spindles.

93. In the absence of clocks, miners trapped underground for several weeks probably will
adopt a rest-activity cycle that is _____ hours in length.
A) less than 23
B) about 24
C) about 25
D) more than 26

94. When questioned by her parents about her pattern of late-night activity followed by
oversleeping, Meadow might correctly attribute her rest-activity cycle to the fact that
she is a _____-hour person living in a _____-hour world.
A) 23; 24
B) 24; 25
C) 25; 23
D) 25; 24

95. Based on EEG records, it appears that sleep can be divided into _____ phases.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five

96. If a person is awake and driving a car, a recording of the brain's EEG pattern would
probably contain a considerable number of _____ waves.
A) beta
B) kappa
C) alpha
D) delta

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 97. Being fully awake is to quiet resting as:
A) beta-wave activity is to delta-wave activity.
B) sleep spindles are to rapid eye movements.
C) beta-wave activity is to alpha-wave activity.
D) theta-wave activity is to beta-wave activity.

98. Slow-wave sleep is also known as:

A) REM sleep.
B) hypnopompic sleep.
C) stages 3 and 4 sleep.
D) stage 5 sleep.

99. Stage 2 sleep is associated with:

A) sleep spindles.
B) beta waves.
C) alpha waves.
D) delta waves.

100. The brain waves associated with the first stage of sleep are called _____ waves.
A) alpha
B) beta
C) delta
D) theta

101. The brain waves associated with deep sleep are called _____ waves.
A) alpha
B) beta
C) delta
D) theta

102. The stage of sleep characterized by the HIGHEST level of brain activity is stage _____
sleep.
A) 4
B) 5 or REM
C) 2
D) 1

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103. The distinctive characteristic of REM sleep is the presence of:
A) delta-wave brain activity interspersed with hypnic jerks.
B) sawtooth brain wave activity resembling beta waves.
C) sleep spindles and K complexes.
D) low-frequency brain waves large in magnitude.

104. Dreaming is to sensations of plummeting as _____ waves are to _____ waves.

A) beta; theta
B) beta; delta
C) theta; beta
D) delta; beta

105. An electrooculography (EOG) measures:

A) electrical activity in the brain.
B) eye movements.
C) oxygenated hemoglobin in the brain.
D) blood flow to the genitals.

106. Which factor is NOT associated with REM sleep?

A) dreaming
B) sleep walking
C) blood flow to the genitals
D) increased pulse

107. _____ usually occurs during REM sleep.

A) Sexual arousal
B) A decrease in pulse
C) Slow-wave brain activity
D) Sleep walking

108. About what percentage of people awakened during REM sleep will report that they have
been dreaming?
A) 0%
B) 40%
C) 80%
D) 100%

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109. Which statement about dreaming during non-REM (NREM) stages of sleep is TRUE?
A) Dreams are indistinguishable from those that occur in REM.
B) Dreaming does not occur during NREM sleep.
C) Dreams in NREM sleep actually take place in an instant but are perceived as
occurring in real time.
D) Dreams in NREM sleep are less bizarre and more like normal thinking.

110. Which statement about REM sleep is TRUE?

A) REM sleep alternates throughout the night with other stages of sleep and always
occurs immediately after stage 4 sleep.
B) REM sleep alternates throughout the night with other stages of sleep and tends to
decrease in duration throughout the night.
C) REM sleep alternates throughout the night with other stages of sleep and tends to
increase in duration throughout the night.
D) REM sleep occurs once each night, usually right before you wake up.

111. On average, people alternate between REM sleep and slow-wave sleep about every
_____ minutes over the course of a night.
A) 60
B) 90
C) 120
D) 180

112. Which statement about sleep is TRUE?

A) Newborns sleep less than do the elderly.
B) REM sleep is most pronounced in the first 30 minutes of sleep.
C) Over the course of a night, we usually sleep 2 hours for every hour that we had
been awake.
D) We sleep less per night as we age.

113. The world record for staying awake is about _____ hours.
A) 96
B) 170
C) 264
D) 458

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114. REM-sleep deprivation results in:
A) excessive aggression and hypersensitivity to muscle pain.
B) difficulty processing new information and hyposensitivity to pain.
C) memory problems and excessive aggression.
D) symptoms of depression and anxiety.

115. Being deprived of slow-wave sleep results in:

A) fatigue and hypersensitivity to pain.
B) difficulty processing new information and hyposensitivity to pain.
C) excessive aggression and memory problems.
D) symptoms of depression and anxiety.

116. A friend has a big exam tomorrow; what's the BEST advice you can offer?
A) Stay up studying all night but then nap for an hour prior to the exam.
B) Review the material and then, at a reasonable hour, go directly to sleep.
C) Don't study the night before the test; just get a good night's sleep.
D) Listen to a recording (at low volume) of the course lectures as you sleep.

117. Current research indicates that a student who stays up all night "cramming" for an exam
is MOST likely to:
A) develop symptoms of test-taking anxiety.
B) forget the majority of the material soon after the exam.
C) do worse than will students who do not study at all.
D) recall more exam material than will students who got a full night of sleep.

118. Reggie rarely gets enough stage 3 and 4 sleep because his roommates stay up late
partying most nights of the week. It is likely that Reggie will:
A) experience an increase in daydreaming.
B) become aggressive when faced with minor stressors.
C) experience fatigue during the day.
D) experience narcolepsy during the day.

119. Which sequence CORRECTLY lists animals in order in terms of their sleep needs from
least to most?
A) giraffe, human, tiger, brown bat
B) tiger, giraffe, brown bat, human
C) brown bat, human, giraffe, tiger
D) giraffe, tiger, human, brown bat

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120. The MOST commonly reported sleep disorder is:
A) somnambulism.
B) insomnia.
C) sleep apnea.
D) narcolepsy.

121. What percentage of adults meets the criteria for a clinical diagnosis of insomnia?
A) 6%
B) 15%
C) 25%
D) 33%

122. What percentage of adults report symptoms of insomnia?

A) 6–18%
B) 18–30%
C) 30–48%
D) 48–60%

123. An example of primary insomnia is insomnia:

A) induced by working late hours.
B) induced by a drug problem.
C) induced by depression or anxiety.
D) with no obvious causes.

124. An example of secondary insomnia is insomnia:

A) induced by working late hours.
B) induced by a drug problem.
C) induced by depression or anxiety.
D) with no obvious causes.

125. An example of self-induced insomnia is insomnia:

A) induced by working late hours.
B) induced by depression.
C) induced by anxiety.
D) with no obvious causes.

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126. Rhonda has recently started complaining that she is having a hard time getting to sleep
at night. Kiki, her roommate and a psychology major, learned in class that the BEST
advice to give Rhonda is to:
A) take a sleeping pill each night.
B) stop trying to go to sleep and find something else to do.
C) play soothing music at bedtime.
D) study before attempting to go to sleep.

127. Which statement about sleeping medications is TRUE?

A) Sleeping pills usually are effective for the long-term management of insomnia.
B) Sleeping pills can be effective for short-term treatment of insomnia.
C) The proportion of time spent in REM sleep is increased by sleeping pills.
D) Most sleeping pills are not addictive.

128. Which statement about sleeping medications is TRUE?

A) Sleeping pills usually are effective for the long-term management of insomnia.
B) Sleeping pills reduce the time spent in both REM sleep and the deep stages of
sleep.
C) Sleeping pills increase the quality of deep sleep but decrease time spent in REM
sleep.
D) Most sleeping pills are not addictive.

129. _____ is a sleep disorder associated with an interruption in breathing for short periods of
time.
A) Sleep apnea
B) Snoring
C) Sleep asthma
D) Hypersomnia

130. People with sleep apnea:

A) often stop breathing for 10 minutes at a time.
B) dream vividly all night long.
C) usually snore.
D) spend most of their night in stage 4 sleep.

131. Which person is MOST likely to suffer from sleep apnea?

A) Randy, a teenager with asthma
B) Jim, a 300-pound retired executive
C) Colleen, a new mother who is sleep deprived
D) Elizabeth, a college student suffering from an anxiety disorder

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132. The sleep disorder characterized by walking while asleep is called:
A) sleep ambulation.
B) narcolepsy.
C) hypersomnia.
D) somnambulism.

133. Which statement about sleepwalking is TRUE?

A) Sleepwalkers can hurt themselves while walking.
B) It is dangerous to awaken a sleepwalker.
C) Sleepwalkers usually walk with their hands outstretched.
D) Sleepwalkers typically walk with their eyes closed.

134. Which person is MOST likely to experience somnambulism?

A) Kyle, a college student who frequently consumes alcohol before bed
B) Lourdes, an elderly woman
C) Walt, an overweight middle-aged man
D) Julie, an 8-year-old girl

135. Which statement about sleepwalking is FALSE?

A) It is more common in children than it is in adults.
B) It occurs during REM sleep.
C) It usually occurs earlier in the night.
D) It is safe to wake a sleepwalker.

136. Which statement about sleepwalking is TRUE?

A) It typically occurs in the early morning hours.
B) It peaks in the teenage years.
C) It occurs in the deeper stages of sleep.
D) It is not safe to wake a sleep walker.

137. Charlie is a long-distance truck driver. The sleep disorder that would be MOST
dangerous to him is:
A) night terrors.
B) nightmares.
C) narcolepsy.
D) somnambulism.

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138. In the middle of a conversation, a friend suddenly falls deeply asleep. When he
awakens, he states that this has happened on several occasions when he becomes
excited. He probably has a disorder known as:
A) sleep apnea.
B) narcolepsy.
C) night terrors.
D) sleep paralysis.

139. Which statement about narcolepsy is TRUE?

A) It is primarily the result of extreme sleep deprivation.
B) There is a genetic component to this disorder.
C) Sleep attacks are not accompanied by dreams.
D) Medications are not useful to treat this disorder.

140. Which statement about narcolepsy is FALSE?

A) It is primarily the result of extreme sleep deprivation.
B) There is a genetic component to this disorder.
C) Sleep attacks are accompanied by dreams.
D) The disorder can be managed effectively with medication.

141. Sleep paralysis is a sleep symptom that is sometimes associated with:

A) sleep apnea.
B) narcolepsy.
C) night terrors.
D) sleepwalking.

142. Sleep paralysis typically occurs when people awake during which stage of sleep?
A) stage 1
B) stage 2
C) stage 3 or 4
D) REM

143. The sleep disorder MOST associated with reports of waking up immobilized with
perceptions of aliens examining your body is most associated with which sleep
disorder?
A) insomnia
B) sleep paralysis
C) night terrors
D) narcolepsy

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144. Six-year-old Jake awakened from stage 4 sleep with signs of intense arousal, including a
racing pulse, rapid respiration, and powerful feelings of fear. Jake has probably
experienced:
A) sleep apnea.
B) narcolepsy.
C) night terrors.
D) sleep paralysis.

145. Which statement about night terrors is FALSE?

A) They are most common in children.
B) Upon awakening suddenly, terrified people will report vivid nightmares.
C) They usually occur in non-REM sleep.
D) They usually occur early in the sleep cycle.

146. Which statement about dream consciousness is TRUE?

A) People tend to remember the majority of their dreams hours after the dream is over.
B) Emotions felt in dreams are of a lower intensity than those felt in when awake.
C) Dreaming thought is illogical.
D) Dreams are exclusively visual; it is impossible to dream an auditory experience.

147. Which statement about dream consciousness is FALSE?

A) People can experience the sensations of smell and touch in their dreams.
B) People are notoriously bad at being able to recall their dreams.
C) People often dream about mundane topics.
D) Conscious concerns rarely appear in dreams.

148. A college professor who writes 100 multiple-choice questions immediately before going
to bed is MOST likely to dream about:
A) fragmented lists of a, b, c, and d.
B) ideas for additional questions.
C) the question she last wrote.
D) the chapter theme about which she is writing.

149. Which statement about nightmares is TRUE?

A) Children have more nightmares than do adults.
B) Women have more nightmares than do men.
C) People who have experienced traumatic events actually have fewer nightmares than
do others.
D) Nightmares often involve the perception of pain.

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150. In Freud's view, dreams represent:
A) the current concerns of a person.
B) hidden wishes.
C) an attempt by the brain to understand random neural activity during sleep.
D) universal symbols.

151. According to Freud, the manifest content of a dream is:

A) normally sexual in nature.
B) just random neural activity during sleep.
C) the apparent topic or superficial meaning.
D) the hidden underlying meaning of the dream.

152. According to Freud, the latent content of a dream is:

A) the part of the dream that we do not remember.
B) just random neural activity during sleep.
C) the apparent topic or superficial meaning.
D) the hidden underlying meaning of the dream.

153. Allison dreamt that she was naked in front of her male classmates. Freud would state
that the manifest content of this dream is Allison:
A) being naked in front of her male classmates.
B) having desire to engage in sexual relations with her classmates.
C) feeling vulnerable about a new relationship.
D) being anxious about her grade in the course.

154. Allison had a fuzzy dream about being naked in front of her classmates. Freud would
state that the latent content of this dream is:
A) the portions of the dream that Allison cannot recall.
B) Allison being naked in front of her classmates.
C) the result of meaningless, random neural firing.
D) Allison being anxious about her grade in the course.

155. If a person repeatedly dreams that a parent has been eaten by a tiger, Freud would label
the story line of this dream as _____ content.
A) covert
B) latent
C) manifest
D) subconscious

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156. Jimmy has a recurring dream about trying to rescue his very attractive neighbor's cat
from a tree. Unfortunately, in his dream, the ladder in Jimmy's garage is never tall
enough to reach the cat. Freud probably would say that the underlying meaning of this
dream revolves around:
A) a cat being stuck in a tree.
B) Jimmy's desire to behave altruistically.
C) Jimmy's sexual insecurities.
D) Jimmy's fear of heights.

157. The primary problem with Freud's approach to dream analysis is that:
A) people do not remember their dreams in enough detail for dream analysis to be
useful.
B) the manifest content of dreams rarely involves sex.
C) people rarely dream about suppressed thoughts.
D) the latent content of a dream can be interpreted in many ways.

158. The fact that football players often dream of fumbling the ball and actors dream of
forgetting their lines underscores the point that dreams involve the return of:
A) full consciousness.
B) latent sexual inadequacies.
C) suppressed thought.
D) what occurred earlier in the day.

159. The theory that suggests dreams are the mind's attempt to make sense of random neural
activity occurring in the brain during sleep is the _____ model.
A) sensory–synthesis
B) neural–synthesis
C) interpretation–synthesis
D) activation–synthesis

160. According to the activation–synthesis model, a dream begins:

A) with an underlying meaning that is subsequently masked by manifest content.
B) randomly and never acquires meaning.
C) randomly but develops meaning as the mind interprets it.
D) with an underlying meaning that the mind then interprets randomly.

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161. Freudian theory and the activation–synthesis model:
A) both believe that dreams begin with meaning.
B) both believe that dreams begin randomly.
C) differ in that Freud believed dreams begin with meaning and do not originate
randomly.
D) differ in that the activation–synthesis model states that dreams begin with
meaning and do not originate randomly.

162. The brain region that is very active during a nightmare is the:
A) prefrontal cortex.
B) primary visual cortex.
C) olfactory bulb.
D) amygdala.

163. Adolpho is dreaming. Which brain region is likely to be MOST active?

A) thalamus
B) prefrontal cortex
C) amygdala
D) pineal gland

164. Which brain region decreases in arousal during REM sleep?

A) amygdala
B) brain stem
C) prefrontal cortex
D) visual association area

165. The fact that dreams feel unplanned and rambling has been attributed to _____ of the
_____.
A) inhibition; amygdala
B) deactivation; prefrontal cortex
C) inhibition; visual association cortex
D) activation; amygdala

166. During REM sleep, the motor cortex is activated, but the body is very still. This pattern
occurs because _____ running through the brain stem _____ motor activation.
A) dendrites; signal
B) neurotransmitters; antagonize
C) sensory neurons; inhibit
D) spinal neurons; inhibit

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167. During a dream, the areas of the brain associated with visual _____ are activated.
A) sensation
B) perception
C) illusions
D) imagery

168. The term _____ refers to all chemicals that influence consciousness or behavior by
altering the brain's chemical message system.
A) teratogens
B) psychoactive drugs
C) hallucinogens
D) inhalents

169. Which statement concerning studies of cocaine self-administration by rats is FALSE?

A) Rats will learn to press a lever if doing so produces a cocaine injection.
B) Rats frequently will choose cocaine over sweets.
C) Rats will increase their intake of cocaine over time.
D) Rats will occasionally binge on cocaine to the point of giving themselves
convulsions.

170. Which drug will animals NOT self-administer?

A) heroin
B) MDMA (Ecstasy)
C) phencyclidine (PCP)
D) mescaline (shrooms)

171. When he began drinking alcohol, Patrick would drink two beers after work to feel
relaxed. Six months later, Patrick needs to drink a six-pack of beer to feel the same level
of relaxation. This illustrates:
A) drug tolerance.
B) withdrawal.
C) a placebo effect.
D) expectancy effects.

172. Rick needed more and more morphine to control his pain after surgery; his doctor
realized that Rick was developing a(n) _____ morphine.
A) adverse reaction to
B) withdrawal syndrome for
C) tolerance for
D) internal neural synthesis for

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173. Because of her insomnia, Mia's physician prescribed sleeping pills to help her fall
asleep. Over time, Mia has had to increase the dosage she takes in order to fall asleep,
indicating that she has developed a(n) _____ the medication.
A) adverse reaction to
B) withdrawal syndrome for
C) tolerance for
D) internal neural synthesis for

174. New smokers often progress from their first cigarette to smoking a half to a full pack a
day in just a few weeks, illustrating:
A) drug tolerance.
B) withdrawal.
C) a placebo effect.
D) expectancy effects.

175. Research involving animals self-administering drugs suggests that which drug or drug
class is LEAST likely to be abused?
A) depressants
B) marijuana
C) antipsychotics
D) stimulants

176. The presence of _____ when the use of an addictive drug is stopped may result in _____
drug use.
A) withdrawal symptoms; suppression of further
B) euphoria; suppression of further
C) withdrawal symptoms; further
D) drug urges; suppression of further

177. Peggy cut back on her coffee consumption and quickly developed a headache. This
withdrawal symptom BEST illustrates:
A) drug tolerance.
B) physical dependence.
C) psychological dependence.
D) caffeine myopia.

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178. A regular heroin user, Johnny will become very sick if he goes a half day without using.
This BEST illustrates:
A) drug tolerance.
B) physical dependence.
C) psychological dependence.
D) the role of expectancy effects.

179. Marilyn often mentions to her friends that she craves a cigarette after meals, even
though she has not smoked in more than 5 years. This craving is likely due to:
A) psychological dependence.
B) physical dependence.
C) the placebo effect.
D) drug tolerance.

180. A recovering alcoholic who hasn't had a drink in over a year, Tony still sometimes
craves a drink when he sees a beer commercial on television. This craving is likely due
to:
A) psychological dependence.
B) physical dependence.
C) the placebo effect.
D) drug tolerance.

181. Which statement about choosing between a smaller sooner reward and a larger delayed
reward is TRUE?
A) Drug users always select the smaller sooner reward.
B) Non-drug users always select the larger delayed reward.
C) As the delay to both options increase, humans behave more irrationally.
D) As the smaller sooner reward becomes more immediate, humans behave more
irrationally.

182. Drug users continue to use, even though it ultimately destroys their lives, primarily
because the rewards associated with drug use are:
A) immediate.
B) larger than those associated with staying clean.
C) socially mediated.
D) amplified by expectancy effects.

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183. Which statement about drug addiction is TRUE?
A) It refers only to a physical dependence on a drug.
B) It is an incurable condition.
C) Its definition changes across cultures and time.
D) It refers to the recreational, but not medicinal, use of drugs.

184. Which statement about drug addiction is TRUE?

A) The majority of drug abusers overcome their drug problems.
B) Recreational drug use inevitably leads to drug addiction.
C) Only a small percentage of cigarette smokers will ever be able to quit successfully.
D) Large-scale studies have concluded that drug addiction is an incurable disease.

185. _____ are substances that reduce the activity of the central nervous system.
A) Agonists
B) Hallucinogens
C) Depressants
D) Amphetamine and cocaine

186. Approximately what percentage of people in the United States aged 12 and older have
consumed an alcoholic beverage in the last month?
A) 32%
B) 52%
C) 72%
D) 82%

187. Approximately what percentage of young adults (aged 18 to 25) in the United States
have consumed an alcoholic beverage in the last month?
A) 42%
B) 52%
C) 62%
D) 92%

188. Binge drinking is defined as consuming _____ or more alcoholic drinks in succession.
A) 5
B) 7
C) 9
D) 12

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189. Approximately what percentage of people in the United States aged 12 and older have
binged on alcohol in the last month?
A) 8%
B) 13%
C) 24%
D) 42%

190. Approximately what percentage of young adults (aged 18 to 25) in the United States
aged 12 and older have binged on alcohol in the last month?
A) 8%
B) 13%
C) 24%
D) 42%

191. The MOST commonly used depressant drug is:

A) caffeine.
B) alcohol.
C) marijuana.
D) heroin.

192. Generally, as alcohol levels in the bloodstream increase, a person's behavior becomes:
A) less aggressive.
B) more agitated.
C) slower and less coordinated.
D) more euphoric.

193. Alcohol, like other _____, increases the activity of the neurotransmitter _____.
A) stimulants; serotonin
B) narcotics; norepinephrine
C) depressants; GABA
D) hallucinogens; dopamine

194. The _____ theory of alcohol action suggests that the appearance of aberrant behavior
while drinking reflects the person's beliefs of typical alcohol effects.
A) balanced placebo
B) expectancy
C) myopia
D) drug tolerance

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195. In a _____ placebo design, behavior is observed following the presence or absence of an
actual stimulus and also following the presence or absence of a placebo stimulus.
A) balanced
B) double-blind
C) single-blind
D) pre-post

196. When Brent attends the annual party for his fraternity, he usually begins acting rowdy
after just one beer. When he is watching a movie with his girlfriend, however, one beer
makes him feel relaxed. Brent's seemingly discrepant behaviors is MOST likely
explained by:
A) expectancy theory.
B) alcohol's effects on the GABA system.
C) alcohol myopia.
D) alcohol's effects on endogenous opiates.

197. At a minimum, a balanced placebo design arranges how many unique test conditions?
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) eight

198. Four participants sign up for an experiment examining the effects of alcohol on
sociability. One participant is given an alcoholic beverage to drink and is told that it is
alcohol. A second participant is given an alcoholic beverage to drink but is told that it is
nonalcoholic. A third participant drinks a nonalcoholic beverage but is told that it
contains alcohol, and a fourth participant is given a nonalcoholic beverage and is told
that it is nonalcoholic. This illustrates a _____ placebo design.
A) pre-post
B) deceptive
C) double-blind
D) balanced

Page 36
199. Four participants sign up for an experiment examining the effects of alcohol on
sociability. One participant is given an alcoholic beverage to drink and is told that it is
alcohol. A second participant is given an alcoholic beverage to drink but is told that it is
nonalcoholic. A third participant drinks a nonalcoholic beverage but is told that it
contains alcohol, and a fourth participant is given a nonalcoholic beverage and is told
that it is nonalcoholic. Suppose that the effects of alcohol on sociability were entirely
due to expectancy effects. Which participant(s) would behave more socially after
drinking?
A) the second participant only
B) the third participant only
C) the first and third participants
D) the first and second participants

200. Four participants sign up for an experiment examining the effects of alcohol on
sociability. One participant is given an alcoholic beverage to drink and is told that it is
alcohol. A second participant is given an alcoholic beverage to drink but is told that it is
nonalcoholic. A third participant drinks a nonalcoholic beverage but is told that it
contains alcohol, and a fourth participant is given a nonalcoholic beverage and is told
that it is nonalcoholic. Suppose that the effects of alcohol on sociability were entirely
due to the alcohol and had nothing to do with expectancies. Which participant(s) would
behave more socially after drinking?
A) the second participant only
B) the third participant only
C) the first and third participants
D) the first and second participants

201. The _____ theory of alcohol action suggests that the appearance of aberrant behavior
while drinking reflects the fact that alcohol hampers attention, resulting in simplistic
responses to complex situations.
A) dual-depressant
B) homeostasis
C) expectancy
D) myopia

202. The theory of alcohol myopia suggests that consuming alcohol:

A) causes the drinker to become more nearsighted.
B) causes people to react in simple ways to complex situations.
C) enables the drinker to relax inhibitions.
D) leads the drinker to become socially inhibited.

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203. Gary's ex-girlfriend enters the bar with her new boyfriend. According to the alcohol
myopia theory, Gary might:
A) experience inattentional blindness and fail to perceive her new boyfriend.
B) casually say, "Hi," and go back to conversing with his friends.
C) purposefully keep some distance so that his ex will be out of sight.
D) become overly emotional and make a scene.

204. In one alcohol myopia study, men watched a video of women behaving either friendly
or unfriendly. One group of men watched the videos after consuming alcohol and a
second group watched the videos sober. The men were then asked if they would make
an aggressive sexual advance to the women in the videos. Which outcome was
obtained?
A) Both groups of men were more likely to make an aggressive sexual advance to the
unfriendly women than to the friendly women.
B) The intoxicated men were more likely than were the sober men to make an
aggressive sexual advance to the unfriendly women.
C) Both groups of men were equally likely to make an aggressive sexual advance to
the friendly women.
D) The intoxicated men were more likely than were the sober men to make an
aggressive sexual advance to the friendly women.

205. The use of _____ contributes MOST to the majority of incapacitated rapes on college
campuses.
A) Ecstasy
B) marijuana
C) alcohol
D) hallucinogens

206. Barbiturates, such as Seconal and Nembutal, are classified as:

A) hallucinogens.
B) narcotics.
C) depressants.
D) stimulants.

207. The _____ action of barbiturates makes them useful for inducing _____.
A) depressant; sleep
B) stimulant; heightened concentration
C) depressant; seizures
D) stimulant; euphoria

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208. Which pair is a CORRECT match of a drug with its class of action?
A) alcohol and stimulant
B) Valium and hallucinogen
C) Nembutal and opiate
D) Xanax and minor tranquilizer

209. Antianxiety drugs, such as Valium and Xanax, are classified as:
A) hallucinogens.
B) narcotics.
C) stimulants.
D) benzodiazepines.

210. Which dangerous efect is NOT typically associated with benzodiazepines?

A) respiratory depression, especially when mixed with alcohol
B) physical dependence
C) extreme elevations in heart rate and blood pressure
D) psychological dependence

211. Huffing refers to:

A) forcefully exhaling to induce dizziness.
B) snorting a drug powder through a straw.
C) sniffing the vapors of glue, gasoline, or propane.
D) smoking marijuana that has been laced with PCP.

212. Which drug is NOT classified as a stimulant?

A) heroin
B) caffeine
C) amphetamines
D) cocaine

213. Amphetamines such as Methedrine and Dexedrine _____ the levels of dopamine and
norepinephrine in the brain.
A) markedly decrease
B) increase
C) slightly decrease
D) usually do not affect

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214. Vanessa is given a drug at a party. She is unsure of what it is and later becomes jittery,
anxious, and full of energy. She has been sweating all night and is not sure why.
Vanessa has likely ingested a:
A) depressant.
B) stimulant.
C) narcotic.
D) hallucinogen.

215. Stimulants such as amphetamines _____ the levels of _____ in the brain.
A) decrease; norepinephrine and dopamine
B) increase; endorphins
C) increase; norepinephrine and dopamine
D) decrease; endorphins

216. _____ a stimulant results in _____.

A) Withdrawal from; fatigue and negative emotions
B) Overuse of; fatigue and anxiety
C) Withdrawal from; feelings of intimacy and euphoria
D) Overuse of; weight gain

217. MDMA is also known as:

A) Methedrine.
B) Ecstasy.
C) methamphetamine.
D) Ritalin.

218. Which psychoactive effect is the result of the drug Ecstasy?

A) increased aggression
B) decreased anxiety
C) stupor and lethargy
D) enhanced feelings of intimacy with another

219. Which drug is often called "speed" on the street?

A) cocaine
B) amphetamine
C) caffeine
D) MDMA

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220. Rita takes a pill at a party and, 30 minutes later, feels a strong, positive, emotional
connection with the other people there. Which drug did Rita MOST likely take?
A) MDMA
B) amphetamine
C) Xanax
D) Oxycontin

221. Users of the drug Ecstasy are highly vulnerable to:

A) becoming involved in violent crimes.
B) bad trips consisting of nightmarish hallucinations.
C) heatstroke and exhaustion.
D) profound memory loss.

222. Recent research has suggested that Ecstasy might have toxic effects on neurons that
produce:
A) GABA.
B) dopamine.
C) serotonin.
D) norepinephrine.

223. The drug _____ was once used as an active ingredient in the soft drink known as _____.
A) heroin; Dr. Pepper
B) nicotine; Pepsi One
C) Ecstasy; Tab
D) cocaine; Coca-Cola

224. The withdrawal syndrome associated with stopping cocaine after an extended period of
use is characterized by:
A) seizures and convulsions.
B) severe flu-like symptoms.
C) an extremely unpleasant psychological crash.
D) an inability to regulate body temperature.

225. Cocaine comes from:

A) certain strains of sugar cane.
B) the coca plant.
C) poppy seeds.
D) the ma huang plant.

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226. Which psychological problem is NOT associated with cocaine use?
A) insomnia
B) paranoia
C) schizophrenia
D) depression

227. Nicotine is classified as a:

A) stimulant.
B) depressant.
C) benzodiazepine.
D) narcotic.

228. Which statement about nicotine is TRUE?

A) It is a benzodiazepine.
B) It produces euphoric effects especially in new users.
C) Long-term use produces dizziness and a queasy stomach.
D) It is used primarily to avoid withdrawal symptoms.

229. Drugs derived from opium that alleviate pain and induce lethargy are known as:
A) hallucinogens.
B) depressants.
C) stimulants.
D) narcotics.

230. _____ are neurotransmitters that are closely related in chemical structure to opiates.
A) Endorphins
B) Dopamine agonists
C) Cannabinoids
D) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

231. The pain associated with prolonged exercise may be alleviated by the release of _____
by the _____.
A) serotonin; liver
B) adrenaline; adrenal glands
C) acetylcholine; pituitary gland
D) endorphins; pituitary gland

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232. Another term for endogenous opioids is:
A) dopamine.
B) serotonin.
C) endorphins.
D) monoamines.

233. Which drug is NOT a narcotic?

A) morphine
B) cocaine
C) heroin
D) Oxycontin

234. Which drug is NOT a narcotic?

A) morphine
B) methadone
C) heroin
D) LSD

235. A key symptom of hallucinogenic drugs is their capacity to:

A) alter sensation and perception.
B) block pain.
C) alleviate anxiety.
D) reverse symptoms of psychosis.

236. Which drug is an example of a hallucinogen?

A) benzodiazepine
B) mescaline
C) amphetamine
D) cocaine

237. Which drug is an example of a hallucinogen?

A) benzodiazepine
B) codeine
C) amphetamine
D) ketamine

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238. Joanna likes to trip on "shrooms." What drug is she ingesting?
A) LSD
B) mescaline
C) psilocybin
D) MDMA

239. _____, a Harvard psychology professor in the 1960s, championed the use of LSD and
told students to "turn on, tune in, and drop out."
A) Albert Hoffman
B) William Dement
C) James Vicary
D) Timothy Leary

240. Which statement about hallucinogens is FALSE?

A) Hallucinogenic drugs produce profound changes in perception.
B) Hallucinogenic drugs do not produce significant dependence.
C) The use of hallucinogens is associated with a substantial risk of overdose.
D) The psychoactive effects of hallucinogens are dramatic and unpredictable.

241. The ingestion of _____ plays a role in some Native American religious practices.
A) psilocybin
B) peyote
C) LSD
D) ketamine

242. Which drug is associated with the FEWEST physical withdrawal symptoms?
A) alcohol
B) cocaine
C) barbiturates
D) LSD

243. Which drug is associated with the FEWEST physical withdrawal symptoms?
A) alcohol
B) cocaine
C) marijuana
D) morphine

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244. The buds and leaves of the _____ plant contain _____, the active ingredient in
marijuana.
A) cannabis; THC
B) coca; MDMA
C) poppy; anandamide
D) peyote; LSD

245. THC binds to the same receptors in the brain as which naturally occurring
neurotransmitter?
A) dopamine
B) serotonin
C) anandamide
D) adenosine

246. Which statement about marijuana is FALSE?

A) The addiction potential of marijuana is not strong.
B) Psychological dependence is possible.
C) Marijuana impairs short-term memory.
D) Marijuana improves motor skills and coordination.

247. About what percentage of adults in the United States have tried marijuana at least once?
A) 18%
B) 25%
C) 42%
D) 67%

248. Why was there a 94% increase in the number of people incarcerated for drug use from
1990 to 2007?
A) The government increasingly used imprisonment to attempt to punish drug use
during this period.
B) Marijuana was outlawed in 1990.
C) Use of all drugs increased dramatically during this period.
D) Use of cocaine increased dramatically during this period.

249. Anne is a drug-abuse therapist treating a 19-year-old male with an alcohol abuse
problem. Anne believes in a harm reduction approach, so she might:
A) discuss with him why he likes to drink.
B) help the person learn to drink in moderation.
C) emphasize that the person can never drink again.
D) stress that he is powerless over his addiction.

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250. _____ refers to an altered state of consciousness characterized by _____ and the feelings
that one's actions are involuntary.
A) Mesmerism; heightened reaction to pain
B) Hypnosis; suggestibility
C) Meditation; impairment of short-term memory
D) Hallucination; normal sensation and perception

251. Michael is under hypnosis, and his therapist is telling him to role-play his father. Which
statement BEST describes Michael's altered state of consciousness?
A) Michael feels like he is voluntarily acting like his father.
B) Michael believes that he is his father.
C) Michael has no awareness that he is currently acting like his father.
D) Michael knows that he is acting like his father but perceives this behavior as
outside his conscious will.

252. Ideas that therapists mention to the volunteer about what the volunteer will do are
termed:
A) suggestions.
B) implantations.
C) triggers.
D) sublimations.

253. Susceptibility to being hypnotized:

A) can easily be predicted by tests of personality.
B) is related to boredom susceptibility.
C) can be predicted by the person to be hypnotized.
D) is negatively related to having a vivid imagination.

254. Which person is MOST likely susceptible to hypnosis?

A) Jamal, a major-league baseball player who is obsessed with statistics
B) Krystal, who easily becomes absorbed in the novels she reads
C) Neil, who suffers from an anxiety disorder and finds it hard to leave his room
D) Sarah, who believes it is impossible for someone to hypnotize her

255. Which person is MOST likely susceptible to hypnosis?

A) Andy, who is skeptical of hypnosis
B) Jermaine, who is chronically sleep deprived
C) Cat, who gets lost in romantic movies set in other times
D) Emily, who struggles to quit smoking

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256. The failure to retrieve memories following hypnotic suggestions to forget is termed:
A) posthypnotic amnesia.
B) hypnogogic amnesia.
C) anterograde amnesia.
D) hypnotic analgesia.

257. A serious problem with using hypnosis to facilitate memory recall is that:
A) hypnosis can help recall of only recent (last 2 years) memories.
B) people may make up memories to satisfy hypnotic suggestions.
C) memories of criminal acts are unlikely to be recovered during hypnosis.
D) memories recalled during hypnosis may relieve physical pain.

258. While under hypnosis, Jenna begins remembering instances in which she was sexually
molested by a neighbor when she was 4 years old. With additional sessions of hypnosis,
Jenna can remember what she was wearing, the smell of the cologne worn by the
perpetrator, and a song that was playing on the radio. Which statement regarding Jenna's
recovered memory is TRUE?
A) Detailed memories cannot be fabricated, thus the memory is true.
B) Given the details of the memory, the sexual assault probably occurred.
C) Even if Jenna is confident that her memory is accurate, it is not necessarily true.
D) Long-term memories do not form at age 4; thus, the claim is necessarily false.

259. The reduction of pain through hypnosis in people who are hypnotically susceptible is
called:
A) hypnotic amnesia.
B) posthypnotic suggestion.
C) the hypnotic placebo effect.
D) hypnotic analgesia.

260. Which statement is the BEST evidence that hypnosis produces an altered state of
consciousness?
A) Under hypnosis, people can regress in age and think like a very young child.
B) Recent research using PET scans has shown that hypnosis is a special case of
imagination.
C) Hypnosis effectively reduces the perception of pain.
D) People can retrieve lost memories while hypnotized.

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261. Based on the results of Stern and colleagues (1977), which statement about the
effectiveness of hypnosis to relieve pain is TRUE?
A) Hypnosis was no more effective than were placebo medications.
B) Hypnosis was about as effective as acupuncture but less effective than was
pain-relieving medication.
C) Hypnosis was equally effective as pain-relieving medication and acupuncture.
D) Hypnosis was more effective than were pain-relieving medication and acupuncture.

262. Recent research on hypnosis and the Stroop effect has revealed that:
A) simply making suggestions to highly suggestible people has the same effects as
hypnosis.
B) hypnosis does not allow people to control behavior that is otherwise beyond their
conscious control.
C) the Stroop effect continues to be evident, even when participants are in a deep state
of hypnosis.
D) the Stroop effect is completely eliminated, despite no changes in brain functioning
associated with conflict monitoring.

263. People who can eliminate the Stroop effect under hypnosis show decreased activity in
which brain region?
A) the prefrontal cortex
B) the primary visual cortex
C) the anterior cingulate cortex
D) the somatosensory cortex

264. People who can eliminate the Stroop effect under hypnosis show decreased activity in
an area of the brain involved with:
A) color vision.
B) conflict resolution.
C) object recognition.
D) verbal meaning.

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Answer Key
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. D
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. D
16. D
17. B
18. A
19. D
20. B
21. C
22. D
23. C
24. A
25. A
26. A
27. A
28. B
29. B
30. D
31. D
32. C
33. C
34. C
35. A
36. B
37. C
38. A
39. A
40. B
41. B
42. D
43. B
44. D

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45. A
46. B
47. D
48. A
49. C
50. B
51. C
52. C
53. C
54. D
55. A
56. A
57. C
58. A
59. D
60. D
61. B
62. A
63. B
64. B
65. A
66. A
67. B
68. C
69. D
70. C
71. D
72. D
73. D
74. D
75. D
76. C
77. A
78. B
79. D
80. C
81. A
82. C
83. A
84. B
85. B
86. C
87. B
88. A
89. A
90. D

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 91. B
92. C
93. C
94. D
95. D
96. A
97. C
98. C
99. A
100. D
101. C
102. B
103. B
104. A
105. B
106. B
107. A
108. C
109. D
110. C
111. B
112. D
113. C
114. C
115. A
116. B
117. B
118. C
119. A
120. B
121. A
122. C
123. D
124. C
125. A
126. B
127. B
128. B
129. A
130. C
131. B
132. D
133. A
134. D
135. B
136. C

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137. C
138. B
139. B
140. A
141. B
142. D
143. B
144. C
145. B
146. C
147. D
148. A
149. A
150. B
151. C
152. D
153. A
154. D
155. C
156. C
157. D
158. C
159. D
160. C
161. C
162. D
163. C
164. C
165. B
166. D
167. D
168. B
169. B
170. D
171. A
172. C
173. C
174. A
175. C
176. C
177. B
178. B
179. A
180. A
181. D
182. A

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183. C
184. A
185. C
186. B
187. C
188. A
189. C
190. D
191. B
192. C
193. C
194. B
195. A
196. A
197. C
198. D
199. C
200. D
201. D
202. B
203. D
204. D
205. C
206. C
207. A
208. D
209. D
210. C
211. C
212. A
213. B
214. B
215. C
216. A
217. B
218. D
219. B
220. A
221. C
222. C
223. D
224. C
225. B
226. C
227. A
228. D

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Psychology 4th Edition Schacter Test Bank

229. D
230. A
231. D
232. C
233. B
234. D
235. A
236. B
237. D
238. C
239. D
240. C
241. B
242. D
243. C
244. A
245. C
246. D
247. C
248. A
249. B
250. B
251. D
252. A
253. C
254. B
255. C
256. A
257. B
258. C
259. D
260. C
261. D
262. A
263. C
264. B

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