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Lesson Quiz

15.1 Human Chromosomes

Directions
For multiple choice questions, write the letter that best answers the question or completes the
statement on the line provided. For other question types, follow the directions provided.

For questions 1 and 2, circle each choice that correctly completes the sentence.

1. An arrangement of all the chromosomes of a diploid cell is called a(n)

(phenotype / genotype / karyotype / genome.) For a human cell, this
arrangement contains 22 pairs of (autosomes / sex chromosomes / genomes /
karyotypes) and one pair of (autosomes / sex chromosomes / genomes /
karyotypes).

2. A(n) (karyotype / genome / pedigree / Punnett square) shows family

relationships and the presence or absence of a trait in each member. It can be
useful for identifying a trait caused by a(n) (autosomal / sex-linked / inactive /
foreign) gene, such as colorblindness, because they are more common in one
gender than the other.

_______ 3. The diagram shows four pairs of chromosomes from a human karyotype.

1 2 3 4
Which pair of chromosomes are the sex chromosomes?
a. Pair 1
b. Pair 2
c. Pair 3
d. Pair 4

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_______ 4. Deana is studying the karyotype of an unknown human donor. She

observes that in each of the chromosome pairs, the two chromosomes have the
same size and shape.
What can Deana conclude from these observations?
a. The donor is female.
b. The donor is male.
c. The donor will express only the dominant forms of traits.
d. The donor will express only the recessive forms of traits.

_______ 5. In humans, the allele for Rh factor comes in two forms: Rh+ and Rh–.
Inheritance of the alleles determines whether an individual has either Rh+ blood
or Rh– blood.
To identify the dominant form of the allele, which of these questions is the MOST
USEFUL to investigate?
a. Which of the two alleles is more common in the human population?
b. Which of the two blood types is more common in the human population?
c. Which blood type forms when an individual receives two copies of one of the
alleles?
d. Which blood type forms when an individual receives one copy of each allele?

_______ 6. Myron constructed the pedigree shown below to study the inheritance of a
specific trait in his family. A single gene that has two alleles determines whether
or not the trait is expressed.
In the pedigree, Myron’s parents are represented by a circle and square in the
top row. The three sons of the parents are represented by squares in the second
row. The shaded square represents the son who expresses the trait that Myron is
studying.

The pedigree provides the strongest evidence for which of these conclusions?
What can be concluded about the trait?
a. The trait is harmful and may be a genetic disorder.
b. The allele for the trait is dominant.
c. The allele for the trait is recessive.

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d. Only males may express the trait.

Lesson Quiz Answer Key

15.1 Human Chromosomes

1. karyotype, autosomes, sex chromosomes

2. pedigree, sex-linked

3. d

4. a

5. d

6. c

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Lesson Quiz

15.2 Human Genetic Disorders

Directions
For multiple choice questions, write the letter that best answers the question or completes the
statement on the line provided. For other question types, follow the directions provided.

1. For each missing word or phrase, circle the choice that correctly completes the
sentence.

Gametes with an abnormal number of chromosomes may form as a result of

(crossing over / point mutations / frameshift mutations / nondisjunction)
during the process of (mitosis / meiosis / transcription / translation).

_______ 2. Which of the following events is the cause of the other three events?
a. An altered gene is transcribed into mRNA.
b. The function of a protein is altered, affecting phenotype.
c. The sequence of amino acids is altered in a protein.
d. The sequence of nucleotides changes in a gene.

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_______ 3. The diagram shows a mutation in the human beta-globin gene. The effect of the
mutation is sickle-shaped red blood cells, which is the cause of sickle cell
disease.

Sickle cell disease provides an example for which principle of molecular

genetics?
a. A point mutation always causes a significant change in phenotype.
b. A point mutation always causes a change to an amino acid sequence, which
may affect phenotype.
c. A significant change in phenotype may cause a genetic mutation.
d. A change to one amino acid in a protein may cause a significant change in
phenotype.

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_______ 4. Huntington’s disease is caused by the inheritance of a dominant allele for a gene
that affects the brain. The symptoms of the disease include the loss of mental
abilities and muscle coordination.
A scientist claims that an individual could carry the allele for Huntington’s
disease, yet show none of its symptoms. Which feature of Huntington’s disease
supports this claim?
a. Huntington’s disease occurs only when two copies of the dominant allele are
inherited.
b. Huntington’s disease may occur when two copies of the recessive allele are
inherited.
c. Huntington’s disease may occur when only one copy of the dominant allele is
inherited.
d. The symptoms of Huntington’s disease generally begin appearing in middle
age.

_______ 5. The diagram shows a section of the karyotype from a human donor.
Chromosome pairs 19 through 22 are labeled.

Which statement describes the gametes that joined together to form this
karyotype?
a. The gametes formed normally, and then one chromosome was added when
they joined together.
b. The gametes formed normally, and then one chromosome split apart when
they joined together.
c. One gamete formed abnormally because a pair of homologous chromosomes
failed to separate.
d. Both gametes formed abnormally because in each gamete, one pair of
homologous chromosomes failed to separate.

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_______ 6. Julio knows that sickle cell disease is a serious genetic disorder. He learns that in
the United States, approximately 1 in 12 people of African ancestry carries the
sickle cell allele. He asks, “Why is the sickle cell allele present in such a high
frequency?”
Which statement would be MOST USEFUL to include in an answer to Julio’s
question?
a. Having one copy of the sickle cell allele provides resistance to malaria.
b. The sickle cell allele causes a significant change to a blood protein.
c. The sickle cell allele formed from a point mutation.
d. Two copies of the sickle cell allele are necessary to express the disorder.

Lesson Quiz Answer Key

15.2 Human Genetic Disorders

1. nondisjunction, melosis

2. d

3. d

4. d

5. c

6. a

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Lesson Quiz

15.3 Studying the Human Genome

Directions
For multiple choice questions, write the letter that best answers the question or completes the
statement on the line provided. For other question types, follow the directions provided.

1. For each missing word or phrase, circle the choice that correctly completes the
sentence.

Natural enzymes called (RNA transcriptase / genomic enzymes / DNA

replicase / restriction enzymes) can cut and copy DNA at specific sites. Then
the DNA fragments can be separated by the process of (gel electrophoresis /
genomic imprinting / DNA replication / RNA transcription).

_______ 2. What did scientists in the Human Genome Project look for in DNA to identify the
locations of genes?
a. promoters
b. CFTR
c. sex-linked genes
d. autosomes

_______ 3. Roberta cites the following statement as evidence for a claim.

“The chicken genome has about 17,000 genes, and the grape has about
30,000 genes.”
Which claim would be MOST strongly supported by this statement?
a. The number of human genes is not especially large compared to other
organisms.
b. Humans have many more genes than other species.
c. Humans are genetically very similar to other species, and differ by only a few
key genes.
d. Humans are genetically very different from other species, and share few if
any genes with them.

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_______ 4. A scientist identifies a sequence at random from the human genome. Which
description of the sequence is the most likely?
a. The sequence is located on an sex chromosome.
b. The sequence is part of a gene for cell growth and development.
c. The sequence is part of a gene for immunity and defense.
d. The function of the sequence is unknown or unidentified.

_______ 5. Lori is studying two human genes that she identifies as Gene T and Gene U. She
learns that Gene T is expressed only if it is inherited from the male parent, while
Gene U is expressed only if it is inherited from the female parent. Both genes are
located on autosomal chromosomes.
Which mechanism helps explain the pattern of expression of both genes?
a. Transcription factors bind to regulatory regions near the genes, and these
factors may be inherited.
b. Epigenetic markers attach to the genes and histones to cause genomic
imprinting, and these markers may be inherited.
c. The enzyme RNA transcriptase binds to a promoter region near each gene,
and this enzyme is inherited.
d. The alleles for the genes display codominant inheritance.

_______ 6. Estelle is studying the transposable elements of the human genome, many of
which are repeated many times. She wonders what would be the effect of a point
mutation in one of these transposable elements. Current scientific research
MOST STRONGLY supports which of these answers to Estelle’s question?
a. The mutation would alter the amino sequence of a protein, because
transposable elements are transcribed into mRNA.
b. The mutation would affect the expression of a gene, because transposable
elements control transcription factors.
c. The mutation would alter the translation of codons, because transposable
elements are used to make tRNA.
d. The mutation may or may not have any effect, due to the unknown function of
transposable elements.

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Lesson Quiz Answer Key

15.3 Studying the Human Genome

1. restriction enzymes, gel electrophoresis

2. a

3. a

4. d

5. b

6. d

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Chapter Test

15 The Human Genome

Directions
For multiple choice questions, write the letter that best answers the question or completes the
statement on the line provided. For other question types, follow the directions provided.

_______ 1. A karyotype is assembled from the cell of a human donor who has a genetic
disorder. Which disorder can be determined by studying the karyotype?
a. an X-linked genetic disorder, such as color blindness
b. a genetic disorder caused by a point mutation, such as sickle cell disease
c. a chromosomal disorder, such as Down syndrome
d. a genetic disorder caused by a dominant allele, such as Huntington’s disease

_______ 2. Frieda is studying an example of a human karyotype. She makes the following
claim about the karyotype.
“I can determine which sex chromosome was donated by the male parent, and
which sex chromosome was donated by the female parent.”
Frieda’s claim is accurate under which of these conditions?
a. The karyotype was taken from a male.
b. The karyotype was taken from a female.
c. The karyotype includes three copies of an autosome.
d. The karyotype was taken from a newborn baby.

_______ 3. A scientist has identified a protein that she claims is the product of a sex-linked
gene. To gather evidence to support this claim, which action would be MOST
useful for the scientist to take?
a. Look for a gene that is expressed only in adults.
b. Look for a gene that is expressed only in females.
c. Locate the gene on the X or Y chromosome.
d. Locate the gene on an autosome.

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_______ 4. Steven develops a pedigree for earlobe attachment in a large family. Earlobes
can be either free or attached. What information about earlobe attachment can
Steven MOST LIKELY determine by analyzing the pedigree?
a. the type of mutation that caused the two forms of the trait
b. the location of the gene for the trait on a chromosome
c. the percentage of each form of the trait in the human population
d. the dominant and recessive forms of the trait

_______ 5. Raul is using a computer model to investigate meiosis. He directs the model to
show a nondisjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis I. How many copies of
chromosome 21 should the model display in each gamete that is produced?
a. 1 copy
b. 2 copies
c. either 3 copies or 1 copy
d. either 2 copies or no copies

_______ 6. The diagram shows a restriction enzyme, called BamI, that is attached to a
section of a DNA molecule.

How will the restriction enzyme act?

a. It will cut the DNA at a specific location, and into two pieces.
b. It will cut the DNA at a specific location, and into three or more pieces.
c. It will cause a point mutation, such as by substituting guanine (G) for
cytosine (C).
d. It will cause a frameshift mutation, such as by removing guanine (G).

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_______ 7. A scientist has divided a DNA molecule into several fragments. Next, the scientist
would use gel electrophoresis to accomplish which task?
a. cutting the fragments into smaller pieces at specific locations
b. identifying the fragments that end in specific nucleotide sequences
c. separating the fragments into two groups, based on electric charge
d. separating the fragments by size

_______ 8. A genetic disorder is caused by an allele of a sex-linked gene, located on the Y

chromosome. How is the disorder inherited?
a. only from the mother to a son
b. only from the father to a son
c. only from the father, to either a son or daughter
d. from either parent to a son only

_______ 9. Horace is using a computer model to study the relationship between the genes
and phenotype of an individual. In one experiment, Horace alters the nucleotide
sequence in one of the model genes. In response, the computer shows that the
eye color of the individual changes from brown to blue.
How did the change in the gene cause the change in phenotype?
a. by affecting the arrangement of glucose molecules in a carbohydrate
b. by directing the cell to produce a carbohydrate instead of a protein
c. by affecting the amino acid sequence of a protein
d. by altering the number of chromosomes in the cell

_______ 10. Which of these statements accurately compares the human genome to the
genomes of other species?
a. The human genome contains the greatest number of genes.
b. The human genome contains the greatest number of base pairs of DNA.
c. The human genome uses a unique and complex genetic code.
d. The human genome is similar to other genomes in length, number of genes,
and other characteristics.

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_______ 11. In recent years, scientists and the public have raised a number of ethical and
legal questions about DNA. Many of the questions involve issues of ownership
and privacy of personal genetic information. Issues like these became relevant to
society because which of these scientific achievements?
a. the discovery of the double-helix structure of DNA
b. the application of restriction enzymes and gel electrophoresis to sequence
DNA
c. the discovery of the universal genetic code
d. the completion of the Human Genome Project

_______ 12. Lucille has her personal genome analyzed. The report states that her genome
includes one copy of the defective allele that causes cystic fibrosis, an autosomal
recessive disease. Lucille is surprised by the report, because she is unaware of
the disease in her family history, and she shows no symptoms of it.
Lucille asks a genetic counselor if her future children are at risk for suffering the
serious symptoms of cystic fibrosis. Which of the following replies is the most
accurate response to Lucille’s question?
a. A future child has a 25 percent chance of suffering from cystic fibrosis.
b. A future child has a 50 percent chance of suffering from cystic fibrosis.
c. A future child might suffer from cystic fibrosis if the father’s genetic report is
the same as Lucille’s report.
d. A future child has no risk of suffering from cystic fibrosis.

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Refer to the passage and diagram to answer questions 13 to 16.

A team of scientists is studying the inheritance of eyelash length in humans. Eyelash length is
either long or short, and is controlled by a single autosomal gene.

The eyelash lengths of the members of one family are shown in the pedigree below. The
pedigree labels the generations I, II, and III. The male and female in Generation I are the
parents of the three males shown in Generation II, and are the grandparents of the three
females shown in Generation III.

_______ 13. Based on the pedigree, are short eyelashes determined by a recessive allele or a
dominant allele? What reason explains this answer?
a. A dominant allele, because short eyelashes are less common in the family
b. A dominant allele, because short eyelashes are absent in generation I.
c. A recessive allele, because short eyelashes are less common in the family.
d. A recessive allele, because two parents with long eyelashes can have
children with short eyelashes.

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_______ 14. Three family members each have short eyelashes. These family members
include one male and two females.
Which statement accurately compares the genotypes for eyelash length among
the three family members?
a. All three of the family members have the same genotype for eyelash length.
b. The two females have the same genotype for eyelash length, while the male
has a different genotype.
c. Either two or three family members may have the same genotype for eyelash
length, or each genotype may be unique.
d. The three family members each have a unique genotype for eyelash length.

_______ 15. Some of the family members must be heterozygous for the trait of eyelash
length, meaning their genotypes include one allele for long eyelashes and one
allele for short eyelashes. In which generation are these family members?
a. I. and II. only
b. III. only
c. II. and III. only
d. I., II., and III.

16. The man with short eyelashes in Generation II marries a woman with long
eyelashes. This woman reports that everyone in her family also has long
eyelashes. Can the man and woman be sure that all of their children will have
long eyelashes? Explain.

_________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________

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Refer to the paragraph and diagram to answer questions 17 to 19.

The diagram below shows a section of a karyotype. The karyotype was created from a cell
sample that was obtained from a patient at a hospital.

_______ 17. Which conclusion about the patient do the karyotype data most strongly support?
a. The patient has no abnormalities or disorders that are due to the
chromosomes shown in the karyotype.
b. The patient has an abnormal number of autosomes that likely is causing
severe symptoms.
c. The patient has an abnormal number of sex chromosomes that likely is
causing severe symptoms.
d. The patient may or may not have a chromosomal disorder, depending on the
full karyotype.

18. For each missing word or phrase, circle the choice that correctly completes the
sentence.

The karyotype supports the following explanation of events. During the process
of gamete formation in the (male / female / male or female) parent of the
patient, one pair of chromosomes failed to (elongate / replicate / uncoil /
separate) during a stage of (mitosis / meiosis / DNA replication).

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19. Can the gender of the patient (male or female) be identified from the section of
the karyotype shown here? If not, could the gender be identified from the
complete karyotype? Explain.

_________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________

Refer to the paragraph and diagram to answer questions 20 to 22.

Scientists use a process called gel electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments. The process
involves placing a mixture of DNA fragments at one end of a slab of porous gel. Then a power
source is used to generate an electric potential across the gel.

The biology students prepare the data table shown below to organize the results of the
simulation.

_______ 20. Gel electrophoresis is successful because of which property of the DNA
fragments?
a. The DNA fragments may be positively-charged, negatively-charged, or
neutral.
b. The DNA fragments travel at different speeds through the gel.
c. The DNA fragments travel at the same speed through the gel.
d. The DNA fragments chemically react with the gel in different ways.

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_______ 21. Which pair of DNA fragments would be least likely to separate during gel
electrophoresis?
a. two fragments of the same length
b. two fragments from the same DNA molecule
c. two fragments that both contain repeating sequences
d. two fragments that both contain more adenine than guanine

22. Why might scientists want to separate DNA into fragments? Explain a common
reason.

_________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________

_______ 23. A scientist describes the karyotype of a human egg cell as (23, X). The egg cell
unites with a sperm cell to form the first cell of a healthy baby boy. What is the
karyotype of the sperm cell?
a. (23, X)
b. (23, Y)
c. (23, XY)
d. (46, Y)

_______ 24. Sickle cell disease and cystic fibrosis are both serious genetic disorders. Which
statement provides the strongest explanation for why the alleles remain relatively
common in the human population?
a. The disease-causing alleles continue to arise from mutations to normal
genes.
b. The symptoms of the diseases are becoming less serious over time.
c. Inheriting two copies of a disease-causing allele can be advantageous.
d. Inheriting only one copy of a disease-causing allele can be advantageous.

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_______ 25. Mr. and Mrs. Howard are deciding whether to have children. A physician advises
them both to be tested for the allele that causes Tay-Sachs Disease, which is a
fatal genetic disorder. The couple asks the following question to the physician:
“Neither of us have Tay-Sachs Disease, so how could our children inherit it?”
Which is the most accurate and useful response to the Howards’ question?
a. Tay-Sachs is caused by a recessive allele, so you both could be carriers.
b. Tay-Sachs is caused by a dominant allele, so either of you could be a carrier.
c. Tay-Sachs is caused by an X-linked allele, so you both could be carriers.
d. Tay-Sachs is caused by a Y-linked allele, so you both could be carriers.

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Chapter Test Answer Key

15 The Human Genome

1. c

2. a

3. c

4. d

5. d

6. a

7. d

8. b

9. c

10. d

11. d

12. c

13. d

14. a

15. d

16. The eyelash lengths of future children cannot be predicted with certainty. Although the
woman's family has only long eyelashes, it is possible that a copy of the recessive allele for
short eyelashes has been passed silently in her family. If so, the children of this couple may also
have short eyelashes.

Rubric:
1 pt: State that the eyelash lengths cannot be predicted with certainty.
1 pt: Explain why the genotype of the mother may include the allele for short eyelashes.

17. b

18. male or female, separate, meiosis

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19. The section of the karyotype does not suffice to show gender because it does not show the
sex chromosomes. The complete karyotype shows the sex chromosomes, so gender could be
identified from it.

Rubric:
1 pt: Explain that the karyotype does not show gender because it does not show the sex
chromosomes.
1 pt: Explain how gender could be determined from the complete karyotype.

20. b

21. a

22. Scientists often separate DNA into fragments in order to isolate one or more genes, and
then read the sequence of nucleotides in a gene. DNA is a huge molecule, and it is difficult to
analyze it whole. Separating it into pieces allow scientists to focus on the genes or other pieces
that they choose to study.

Rubric:
1 pt: Identify a common reason for separating gene fragments, such as isolating genes for
sequencing.
1 pt: Explain that DNA is a huge molecule that is easier to study in pieces.

23. b

24. d

25. a

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Lesson Quiz

16.1 Changing the Living World

Directions
For multiple choice questions, write the letter that best answers the question or completes the
statement on the line provided. For other question types, follow the directions provided.

For questions 1 and 2, circle the choice that correctly completes the sentence.

1. In the process of (selective breeding / natural selection / hybridization /

DNA replication), plants or animals with desired traits are mated. By repeating
the process over many generations, useful plant strains or animal breeds are
developed. The process is an example of (bioremediation / natural selection /
biotechnology / feedback inhibition).

2. Breeders use the strategy of (DNA replication / natural selection /

DNA transcription / hybridization) to produce offspring with a combination of
traits from both parents. Breeders also use the strategy of (natural selection/
inbreeding / hybridization / feedback inhibition) by mating organisms with
similar traits, which ensures that traits are preserved.

_______ 3. A team of scientists is studying several plant species that they think could
become new farm crops. The scientists want to apply selective breeding to
develop one of the species into useful crop plants.
Which property of a plant species would be MOST USEFUL for meeting the
scientists’ goal?
a. very low genetic variation
b. very high genetic variation
c. producing only a few fruits and seeds each growing season
d. growing slowly from seedlings to maturity

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_______ 4. A scientist treats a population of bacteria with a combination of mutagens,

including high-energy radiation and certain chemicals. Which is the MOST
LIKELY benefit of this treatment?
a. The genetic variation of the population decreases, allowing the bacteria to be
easier to kill.
b. The genetic variation of the population increases, and some of the mutants
have useful properties.
c. Many bacterial genes are deactivated, making the bacteria less harmful.
d. The bacterial genome increases in length, and some of the new genes may
have useful products.

_______ 5. Certain drugs can be used in plant breeding to make polyploid plants. These
drugs ______________
a. change the number of chromosomes found in cells.
b. change eukaryotic plants into prokaryotic plants.
c. frequently cause mutations, which create new alleles and genes.
d. insert foreign DNA into plant chromosomes.

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Lesson Quiz Answer Key

16.1 Changing the Living World

1. selective breeding, biotechnology

2. hybridization, inbreeding

3. b

4. b

5. a

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Lesson Quiz

16.2 The Process of Genetic Engineering

Directions
For multiple choice questions, write the letter that best answers the question or completes the
statement on the line provided. For other question types, follow the directions provided.

For questions 1 and 2, circle the choice that correctly completes the sentence.

1. Scientists use a technique called (the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) /

recombinant DNA / gel electrophoresis / DNA ligation) to make multiple
copies of DNA sequences. Scientists can also make (messenger RNA /
polyploidy / plasmids / recombinant DNA) by combining DNA from two
different sources. One of the sources may be bacteria, which have circular DNA
molecules called (polyploidy / recombinant DNA / plasmids / telomeres).
When bacteria undergo transformation, they can be identified by
(genetic markers / nucleotides / polyploidy / telomeres).

_______ 3. A scientist has a very small sample of DNA. To analyze the DNA, which would be
the MOST USEFUL first step for the scientist to follow?
a. Use restriction enzymes to make multiple copies of the DNA.
b. Use the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to make multiple copies of
the DNA.
c. Transfer the DNA into bacteria, and allow the bacteria to be replicated
many times.
d. Use restriction enzymes to cut the DNA into many small pieces.

_______ 4. What can scientists accomplish by applying recombinant-DNA technology?

a. changes to the roles of DNA and RNA in protein synthesis
b. changes to the genetic code as it is used by a living organism
c. changes to the genetic composition of a living organism
d. changes to the percentage of DNA that is replicated by a living organism

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_______ 5. Insect pests often feed on crop plants in farmers’ fields. To address this problem,
scientists have developed transgenic crop plants that produce their own pest-
killing chemicals. In nature, these chemicals are produced by certain bacteria.
Which of the following actions was MOST LIKELY involved in the development of
the transgenic crop plants?
a. Sections of the genome of the host plant were spliced and removed.
b. DNA from the host plant was inserted into the genome of bacteria.
c. Recombinant DNA was inserted into the genome of the host plant.
d. The host plant was artificially crossed with an insect pest.

_______ 6. The diagram describes the process of using restriction enzymes to cut two DNA
molecules, and then attach two of the cut pieces together.

What property of the two DNA molecules allows this process to be useful for
developing a transgenic organism?
a. The two DNA molecules are from different sources.
b. The two DNA molecules are from the same source, but not identical.
c. The two DNA molecules are identical.
d. The two DNA molecules are not identical, but are exactly the same size.

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Lesson Quiz Answer Key

16.2 The Process of Genetic Engineering

1. the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), recombinant DNA, plasmids, genetic markers

3. b

4. c

5. c

6. a

Lesson Quiz
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16.3 Application of Biotechnology

Directions
For multiple choice questions, write the letter that best answers the question or completes the
statement on the line provided. For other question types, follow the directions provided.

For questions 1 and 2, circle the choice that correctly completes the sentence.

2. Scientists use (polymerase chain reaction (PCR) / hybridization /

DNA microarray / restriction fragment) technology to study hundreds or
thousands of genes at the same time.

Lesson Quiz Answer Key

16.3 Applications of Biotechnology

2. DNA microarray

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Chapter Test

16 Biotechnology
Directions
_______ 2. Is selective breeding an example of biotechnology? Why or why not?
a. Yes. Selective breeding involves the application of technology to living things.
b. Yes. Selective breeding allows a species to incorporate beneficial genes from
another species.
c. No. Selective breeding is a process that occurs naturally among plants or
animals.
d. No. Selective breeding does not involve technical processes that occur in
laboratories.

_______ 4. Dog breeders often use the technique of inbreeding. Choosing which of these
mating pairs of dogs is an example of inbreeding?
a. a male poodle and a female poodle, each with similar traits
b. a male poodle and a female collie that are about the same size, but differ in
other traits
c. a male poodle and a female dachshund that have similar personalities, but
differ in other traits
d. a male dachshund with a much larger female dog, such as a Great Dane

_______ 5. Under which of these conditions would scientists use the polymerase chain
reaction (PCR) before they analyze a DNA sample?
a. The DNA sample comes from a bacterium or virus.
b. The DNA sample has been cut into fragments by restriction enzymes.
c. Only a small amount of the DNA sample is available.
d. The DNA sample includes regions that are transcribed into mRNA.

_______ 6. A team of scientists is studying the genome of the pine tree. They have identified
a gene that produces a protein that is specific to pine trees. Accomplishing which
of the following tasks would require the scientists to incorporate the gene into
recombinant DNA?
a. identifying the sequence of nucleotides in the gene
b. making multiple copies of the section of DNA that contains the gene
c. engineering bacteria to use the gene to produce the pine tree protein
d. identifying the transcription factors that control the expression of the gene

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 NameClass Date

_______ 7. A team of scientists splices a human gene into bacterial plasmids. The human
gene codes for insulin. Then they use the plasmids to transform bacteria. Their
goal is to develop bacteria that will synthesize insulin.
How is it useful for the plasmids to also contain genes for antibiotic resistance?
a. The genes for antibiotic resistance increase the rate that bacteria take up the
plasmids.
b. The genes for antibiotic resistance act as genetic markers for identifying the
transformed bacteria.
c. The genes for antibiotic resistance help activate the gene for insulin.
d. The genes for antibiotic resistance help the transformed bacteria survive in

_______ 24. The CRISPR system allows biologists to alter the nucleotide sequence of specific
genes. Which of these tasks could theoretically be achieved by applying the
CRISPR system instead of other techniques of genetic engineering?
a. transferring a functional gene from one organism to another
b. deactivating a disease-causing gene
c. replacing a defective gene with a normal gene
d. copying the targeted gene

Chapter Test Answer Key

16 Biotechnology
2. a

4. a

5. c

6. c

7. b

24. b

Lesson Quiz
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