August 2023 MCQs PIB Lyst8634

Crack Grade B 1
PIB – AUGUST 2023 MCQs
Q1. Identify the correct statements regarding Pradhan Mantri PVTG

Development Mission
1. Government in Budget 2023-24 has made announcement of Pradhan Mantri

PVTG Development Mission.
2. The mission envisages availability of Rs.15,000 crore from the Development
Action Plan for the Scheduled Tribes.
3. The finance is for the activities to be undertaken in the next 5 years under
the Mission.
4. The scheme follows the strategic approach of Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana
A. 1 2 and 3 only
B. 2 3 and 4 only
C. 1 2 and 4 only
D. 1 3 and 4 only
E. All of the above
Solution- C. 1 2 and 4 only
Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission
Key points:
 For implementing targeted schemes for socially and economically backward

Scheduled tribes, Government in Budget 2023-24 has made announcement of
Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission.
 The mission is aimed to improve socio-economic conditions of the particularly
vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs) by saturating PVTG families and habitations with
basic facilities such as safe housing, clean drinking water and sanitation,
improved access to education, health and nutrition, road and telecom connectivity,
and sustainable livelihood opportunities.
 The mission envisages availability of Rs.15,000 crore from the Development Action
Plan for the Scheduled Tribes, for activities to be undertaken in the next three
years under the Mission.
 The scheme follows the strategic approach of Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana , which
is need-based and strives to optimise utilisation of resources available under
various programs and aims at specific outcomes.
 Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (VKY)-
 The Scheme was launched in 2014 as a Central Sector Scheme by the

Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
 The scheme aims at overall development of tribal people with an outcome-
based approach, ensuring that all the intended benefits, goods and services
through various programmes/schemes of Central and State Governments
covered under the respective Tribal Sub-Plans actually reach them.
 Who are Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)?

www.crackgradeb.com | crackgradeb@gmail.com | 9310558455
Crack Grade B 2
 The Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are those that depend on
hunting for food, have pre-agriculture level technologies, zero or negative
population growth, and extremely low levels of literacy and are in need of greater
support and development.
 On the recommendation of the Dhebar Commission, the Central government
began to identify the most vulnerable tribal groups as a separate category in 1975,
establishing 52 such groups.
 The list was expanded in 1993, when another 23 groups were added, for a total of
75 PVTGs out of 705 Scheduled Tribes spread across 17 states and one Union
Territory (UT) in the country (2011 census), the highest number being found in
Odisha.
 Criteria for identification of PVTGs:
1. Pre-agricultural level of technology

2. Low level of literacy
3. Economic backwardness
4. A declining or stagnant population.
Q2. Identify the correct statements regarding BHARAT Campaign:
1. It aims to provide benefits to farmers by not allowing banks to lend for

agriculture infrastructure projects.
2. This is a month-long campaign from 15 th July 2023 to 15th August 2023.
3. It has been launched by Government under Agriculture Infrastructure Fund
Scheme.
4. As on 31.07.2023, overall Rs.1239 Cr. have been sanctioned by numerous banks
for 1375 projects under BHARAT campaign.
A. 1 2 and 3 only
B. 2 3 and 4 only
C. 1 2 and 4 only
D. 1 3 and 4 only
E. All of the above
Solution- B. 2 3 and 4 only
Key Points:
 A new campaign named 'BHARAT’ (Banks Heralding Accelerated Rural &
Agriculture Transformation) has been launched by the Government under
Agriculture Infrastructure Fund Scheme to provide maximum benefits to the
people and to create a competitive spirit among the Banks and lending
institutions to mobilize agriculture infrastructure projects loan at a faster
pace.
 This is a month-long Campaign from 15th July 2023 to 15th August 2023.
 Top performing Banks under different categories i.e., commercial Banks in public
and private Sector, Regional Rural Banks, Small Finance Banks (SFBs), Non-
Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) and cooperative Banks will be selected at
the end of the Campaign and their special contribution will be recognized.

Crack Grade B 3
 As on 31.07.2023, overall Rs.1239 Cr. have been sanctioned by numerous
banks for 1375 projects under BHARAT campaign.
Background:
 In order to address the existing infrastructure gaps and mobilize investment in
agriculture infrastructure, Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) scheme was
launched in 2020 with an objective to mobilize a medium – long-term debt
financing facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management
Infrastructure and community farming assets through incentives and financial
support.
 The scheme envisages provision of Rs. 1 Lakh Crore by banks and financial
institutions as loans with interest subvention of 3% per annum and credit
guarantee coverage under Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small
Enterprises (CGTMSE) for loans up to Rs. 2 Crores.
 As on date, loans amounting to Rs. 26,064 Crores have been sanctioned for
33,369 projects and these sanctioned projects have mobilized an investment of Rs.
44,208 crores in the agriculture sector.
Q3. Identify the correct statements regarding Financial Aid for welfare of Ex-
Servicemen and their families:
1. The financial assistance under the Vocational Training Grant scheme for widows
of ex-servicemen has been increased from Rs 20,000 to Rs 1,00,000.
2. non-pensioner ex-servicemen/ their widows will now receive an increased
Medical Grant, with the amount being raised from Rs 30,000 to Rs 50,000.
3. The Serious Disease Grant for non-pensioner ex-servicemen/ their widows has
been enhanced from Rs 1,25,000 to Rs 1,50,000.
4. Currently the schemes are being run by Kendriya Sainik Board and funded from
the Armed Forces Flag Day Fund.
A. 1 2 and 3 only
B. 2 3 and 4 only
C. 1 2 and 4 only
D. 1 3 and 4 only
E. All of the above
Solution- 2 3 and 4 only
Key Points:
 The following enhancements have been approved:

 Vocational Training Grant: The financial assistance under the Vocational Training
Grant scheme for widows of ex-servicemen has been increased from Rs 20,000 to
Rs 50,000. This uplifting adjustment reflects the Government’s commitment to
supporting and empowering the widows of the brave soldiers, helping them build
new pathways to self-reliance and stability.
 Medical Grant: Non-pensioner ex-servicemen/ their widows will now receive an
increased Medical Grant, with the amount being raised from Rs 30,000 to Rs
50,000. This augmentation in financial aid recognises the valuable contributions
made by our non-pensioner veterans and their right to comprehensive medical
support, ensuring their well-being even after they have left active service.
Crack Grade B 4
 Serious Disease Grant: The Serious Disease Grant for non-pensioner ex-
servicemen/ their widows has been enhanced from Rs 1,25,000 to Rs 1,50,000.
This move reinforces the dedication to assisting our ex-servicemen in times of
critical health challenges, showing gratitude for their unwavering dedication to the
nation.
 Currently the schemes are being run by Kendriya Sainik Board and funded
from the Armed Forces Flag Day Fund.
Q4 Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) and Common

Service Centre (CSC) launches ____________ Vans for Delhi-NCR. This strategic
initiative aims to disseminate crucial financial education and raise awareness
against fraudulent schemes across the Delhi NCR region.
A. NIVESHAK HELP
B. NIVESHAK SARATHI
C. e-SARATHI
D. DELHI NIVESH
E. FINANCE SARATHI
Solution- B. NIVESHAK SARATHI
Key Points:
 Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) and Common Service
Centre (CSC) launches “Niveshak Sarathi” Vans for Delhi-NCR
 This strategic initiative aims to disseminate crucial financial education and raise
awareness against fraudulent schemes across the Delhi NCR region.
 These specially equipped vans are equipped with a TV screen running “Hisab Ki
Kitab,” a series of investor awareness movies meticulously developed by IEPFA.
 Moreover, they are equipped with a public address system to ensure effective
communication. Complementing these tools, a thoughtfully designed brochure
compiles all the essential elements of financial awareness.
Q5. Identify the correct statements regarding Scheme for PLI AUTO Scheme:
1. PLI-AUTO scheme incentivizes only those eligible AAT products for which
minimum 50% Domestic Value Addition (DVA) is achieved and has been certified
by Testing Agencies (TAs) of MHI.
2. The Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Automobile and Auto Component
Industry (PLI-AUTO) with an outlay of ₹100 crore is a key initiative to drive the
supply chain of Advanced Automotive Technology (AAT)
products.
3. Auto Industry contributes 7% to country’s GDP
4. Ministry of Heavy Industries is responsible for implementation of PLI-AUTO
scheme.
A. 1 2 and 3 only
B. 2 3 and 4 only
C. 1 3 and 4 only

Crack Grade B 5
D. 1 2 and 4 only
E. All of the above
The Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Automobile and Auto Component
Industry (PLI- AUTO Scheme)
 Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI) organised a meeting for “Review of PLI-AUTO
Scheme” under the Chairmanship of Union Minister for Heavy Industries Dr.
Mahendra Nath Pandey.
 The Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Automobile and Auto
Component Industry (PLI-AUTO) with an outlay of ₹25,938 crore is a key
initiative to drive the supply chain of Advanced Automotive Technology
(AAT) products.
 PLI-AUTO scheme incentivizes only those eligible AAT products for which
minimum 50% Domestic Value Addition (DVA) is achieved and has been certified
by Testing Agencies (TAs) of MHI.
 Auto Industry contributes 7% to country’s GDP
Q6. Khanan Prahari App is launched by which ministry
A. Ministry of Mines
B. Ministry of Heavy Industries
C. Ministry of Coal
D. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
E. Ministry of Power
Solution- C. Ministry of Coal
Key Points:
 The mobile app, Khanan Prahari , which allows citizens to report incidents of
illegal coal mining through geo-tagged photographs and textual information is a
significant step taken by the Ministry of Coal towards curbing illegal coal mining
activities.
 The corresponding web portal called as Coal Mine Surveillance & Management
System (CMSMS) has been developed in association with the Bhaskaracharya
Institute of Space Application and Geoinformatics, Gandhinagar, and CMPDI,
Ranchi.
Q7. Identify the correct statements regarding 6 th Census Report on Minor

Irrigation Schemes:
1. As per the report , 23.14 million minor irrigation schemes have been
reported in the country , out of which 21.93 million (94.8%) are Groundwater
and 1.21 million (5.2%) are surface water schemes.
2. Madhya Pradesh possesses largest number of Minor Irrigation Schemes.
3. There has been an increase of about 1.42 million in Minor Irrigation
Schemes during 6th Minor Irrigation Census as compared to 5 th Census.

Crack Grade B 6
4. Out of all Minor Irrigation Schemes , 97.0% are in use , 2.1 % are
temporarily not in use , whereas , 0.9 % are permanently not in use.
A. 1 2 and 3 only
B. 2 3 and 4 only
C. 1 3 and 4 only
D. 1 2 and 4 only
E. All of the above
Key points:
 The Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development

and Ganga Rejuvenation today released the report on the 6th census on minor
irrigation schemes.
 As per the report, 23.14 million minor irrigation (MI) schemes have been
reported in the country, out of which 21.93 million (94.8%) are Ground Water
(GW) and 1.21 million (5.2%) are Surface Water (SW) schemes.
 Uttar Pradesh Possesses Largest Number of MI Schemes Followed by
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
 There has been increase of about 1.42 million in MI schemes during 6th MI
census as compared to 5th Census.
 At the national level, both GW and SW schemes have increased by 6.9% and 1.2%,
respectively.
 Dug-wells have highest share in MI schemes followed by shallow tube-wells,
medium tubewells and deep tube-wells.
 Maharashtra is the leading State in dug-wells, surface flow and surface lift
schemes.
 Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka and Punjab are the leading States in shallow tube-wells,
medium tube-wells and deep tube-wells, respectively.
 Out of all MI schemes, 97.0% are ‘in use’, 2.1% are ‘temporarily not in use’
whereas 0.9% are ‘permanently not in use’.
 Shallow tube-wells and medium tube-wells lead in the category of ‘in use’ schemes
Q8. Identify the correct statements regarding PM- eBus Sewa
1. This scheme aims to augment city bus operation by 10,000 e-buses on PPP
model.
2. Estimated cost of the scheme is Rs 57,613 crore, out of which support of Rs
20,000 crore will be provided by the Central Government.
3. The scheme will support bus operations for 5 years.
4. The scheme will cover cities of three lakh and above population as per
census 2011.
5. The scheme has two segments - A and B , that are , Augmenting the city bus
services and Green Urban Mobility Initiatives respectively .
A. 1 2 3 and 4 only
B. 1 2 4 and 5 only

Crack Grade B 7
C. 1 2 3 and 5 only
D. 2 3 4 and 5 only
E. All of the above
Solution- B. 1 2 4 and 5 only
PM e-Bus Sewa
 The Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has approved a bus
scheme “PM-eBus Sewa” for augmenting city bus operation by 10,000 e-buses on PPP
model.
 The Scheme would have an estimated cost of Rs.57,613 crore, out of which
support of Rs.20,000 crore will be provided by the Central government.
 The Scheme will support bus operations for 10 years.
 The scheme will cover cities of Three lakh and above population as per census 2011
including all the Capital cities of Union Territories, North Eastern Region and Hill
States.
 Under this scheme priority will be given to cities having no organized bus service.
 The scheme will generate 45,000 to 55,000 direct jobs through deployment of around
10,000 buses in city bus operation.
 The Scheme has two segments:

 Segment A – Augmenting the City bus services:(169 cities) The approved bus
scheme will augment city bus operations with 10,000 e-buses on Public Private
Partnership (PPP) model. Associated Infrastructure will provide support for
Development/ up-gradation of depot infrastructure; and Creation of behind-the-
meter power infrastructure (substation, etc.) for e-buses.
 Segment B– Green Urban Mobility Initiatives (GUMI): (181 cities) The scheme
envisages green initiatives like bus priority, infrastructure, multimodal
interchange facilities, NCMC-based Automated Fare Collection Systems, Charging
infrastructure, etc.
 Under the scheme, States/Cities shall be responsible for running the bus services
and making payments to the bus operators. The Central Government will support
these bus operations by providing subsidy to the extent specified in the proposed
scheme.
Q9. Identify the incorrect statements regarding Mission Coking Coal :
1. Ministry of Power launched Mission Coking Coal in FY’22

2.Coking coal production expected to reach 140 MT by 2040.
3. SAIL and BCCL have signed MoU for supply of 1.8 MT of washed Coking
Coal to increase the availability of Coking coal .
4. Ministry of coal have failed to auction coking coal blocks and raw coking
coal.

Crack Grade B 8
A. 1 2 and 3 only
B. 2 3 and 4 only
C. 1 3 and 4 only
D. 1 2 and 4 only
E. All of the above
Solution: E. All of the Above
Mission Coking Coal
 The Ministry of Coal launched "Mission Coking Coal" in FY’22 to address the growing
domestic demand for Coking Coal as projected in the National Steel Policy 2017.
 Coking Coal Production Expected to Reach 140 MT by 2030
 Auction of Coking Coal Blocks: The Ministry of Coal achieved a significant
milestone with the allocation of 16 Coking Coal Blocks. This effort is projected to
contribute a substantial 1.54 MT to Coking Coal production.
 Revitalizing Abandoned Mines: Bharat Coking Coal Limited (BCCL) has opened new
avenues by inviting agencies and companies to undertake Coking Coal extraction
from abandoned or discontinued BCCL-owned mines
 Strategic Collaboration with SAIL: Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) and BCCL
have signed an MoU for supply of 1.8 MT of washed Coking Coal to increase the
availability of Coking Coal.
 Auction for Raw Coking Coal: BCCL and Central Coalfields Limited (CCL) have
organized auction in June 2023. Tata Steel secured auction of 50,000 tonnes of raw
Coking Coal from CCL mines, reinforcing the commitment to domestic sourcing.
 Innovative Greenfield Washeries: A Transaction Adviser, appointed by BCCL, is
diligently formulating the methodology for the refurbishment of existing washeries.
Q10. Identify the correct statements regarding Fisheries sector
1. India holds 1st place in the world in Shrimp culture and 2 nd position in the
world in Aquaculture fish output.
2. India is the 3rd largest fish producing country in the World.
3. India is the fourth largest exporter of marine products in the world.
4. India accounts for 8% of global fish production.
A. 1 2 and 3 only
B. 2 3 and 4 only
C. 1 3 and 4 only
D. 1 2 and 4 only
E. All of the above
Solution- (E) All of the Above
Fisheries Sector in India

Crack Grade B 9
 This important sector in India provides livelihood, employment, and
entrepreneurship opportunities to around 2.8 crore fishers and fish farmers at
the primary level, as well as many lakhs farther up the value chain.
 India is the third largest fish producing country, accounting for around
8% of global fish production.
 Globally, India ranks first in shrimp culture and second in aquaculture
fish output.
 In the recent past, Indian fisheries has witnessed a paradigm shift from
marine dominated fisheries to inland fisheries, with the latter emerging as a
major contributor of fish production from 36% in the mid-1980 to 70% in the
recent past.
 Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of fish in India followed by West
Bengal.
 India is at 4th place in the world in Marine food export.
 In news – Sagar Parikrama Phase VIII

 Sagar Parikrama Yatra is a one-of-a-kind mega fisher's outreach initiative led by
Union Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying that began in March
2022 and would span around 8000 kilometres of India's coastline. The Yatra's goal
is to meet fishers at their doorsteps, hear their difficulties and grievances, witness
village level ground realities, encourage sustainable fishing, and ensure that
government subsidies and initiatives reach the final mile.
 So far, the Yatra has covered seven phases across coastal states/UTs ranging from
Mandavi in Gujarat to Vizhinjam in Kerala.
Q11. Identify the correct statements regarding Digital Health Incentives Scheme
(DHIM):
1. Digital Health Incentive Scheme under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
was extended till 30th September 2023.
2. Under DHIS, incentives are provided to hospitals and diagnostic labs and to
providers of digital health solutions such as Hospital/Health Management
Information System and Laboratory Management Information System for adopting
and enabling transformative digitization under ABDM.
3.The DHIS was launched with effect from 1st January 2023 as part of Ayushmann
Bharat Digital Mission.
4. Under DHIS, the eligible health facilities and digital solutions companies shall
be able to earn financial incentives of upto Rs 4 crores based on the number of
digital health records created and linked to ABHA (Ayushmann Bharat Health
Account) Numbers of the patients.

Crack Grade B 10
A. 1 2 and 3 only
B. 2 3 and 4 only
C. 1 3 and 4 only
D. 1 2 and 4 only
E. All of the above
Solution- B. 2 3 and 4 only
 The National Health Authority (NHA) announces extension of its Digital Health
Incentives Scheme (DHIS) under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) till
31st December 2023.
 Under DHIS, incentives are provided to hospitals and diagnostic labs and to the
providers of digital health solutions such as Hospital/ Health Management
Information System (HMIS) and Laboratory Management Information System
(LMIS) for adopting and enabling transformative digitization under ABDM.
 The DHIS was launched with effect from 1st January, 2023 as part of the
Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission.
 Under the DHIS, the eligible health facilities and digital solutions companies
shall be able to earn financial incentives of up to Rs. 4 crores based on the
number of digital health records created and linked to ABHA (Ayushman
Bharat Health Account) numbers of the patients.
 This incentive can be availed by the health facilities (hospitals, diagnostic labs)
and Digital Solution Companies, registered with ABDM’s Health Facility Registry
(HFR) and fulfilling the eligibility criterion specified under the scheme.
 It is anticipated that the DHIS advantages offered to the DSCs will contribute to
cost reduction or will be transmitted further to the relevant healthcare facilities to
pay their digitization costs, etc
Q12. Recently, a new variety of lotus flower, name _________ is developed by

Lucknow Institute CSIR-NBRI (National Botanical Research Institute) that has 108
petals.
A. LOTUS 108
B. NAMOH 10
C. NAMOH 108
D. NBRI 10
Solution- C. Namoh 108
Key Points:
 Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) Science & Technology; MoS PMO,
Personnel, Public Grievances, Pensions, Atomic Energy and Space, Dr Jitendra
Singh today unveiled the new variety "Lotus" flower developed by Lucknow
Institute CSIR-NBRI (National Botanical Research Institute) that has 108 petals.
 The lotus named ‘NBRI Namoh 108’ is developed by the CSIR-National Botanical
Research Institute (NBRI), a premier plant based, multidisciplinary, state-of-the-
art National R&D center based in Lucknow.

Crack Grade B 11
Q13. National Space Day is a day of the year set aside in India to commemorate
Chandrayaan 3’s successful landing on the Moon. When is the National Space Day
celebrated?
A. 23 August
B. 15 August
C. 28 August
D. 3 August
Solution- A. 23 August
Key points:
 The Cabinet welcomes that 23rd August would be celebrated as the “National
Space Day”
 India is the first country to land near the Moon’s south pole.
 The Cabinet welcomes the naming of two points on the moon as Tiranga Point
(footprint of Chandrayaan-2) and Shiv Shakti Point (Chandrayaan-3’s landing
spot).
 India’s Space economy projected to grow beyond $80 Billion by 2040
Q14. First Global Summit on Traditional Medicines was organised by World Health
Organisation, and co- hosted by Ministry of Ayush, in _______________.
A. New Delhi
B. Gandhinagar
C. Bengaluru
D. Mumbai
E. Chennai
Solution- B. Gandhinagar
Key Points:
 First Global Summit on traditional medicine was organised by World Health
Organisation, and co -hosted by Ministry of Ayush, in Gandhinagar
 Gujrat declaration was emphasised in this summit
 India also conducted five bilateral meets with Nepal, Malaysia, Qatar, Venezuela
and Cuba
 Emphasis on Global centre of Traditional Medicine in Jamnagar, Gujarat by India
 Summit was to direct efforts in direction of World Health Organisation’s strategy
document for 2025-2034 on Traditional Medicine.
Q15. BRICS Health Minister’s Meeting with the theme “Bridging the gap on
sustainable health on the road to Universal Health Coverage 2023” was held in
____________________.
A. Tanzania
B. Kenya

Crack Grade B 12
C. South Africa
D. Mali
E. Nigeria
Solution- C. Kenya
Key Points:
 BRICS Health Minister’s Meeting being held in Durban, South Africa.
 The meeting was held under the theme: “Bridging the Gap on Sustainable
Health on the road to Universal Health Coverage 2023”
 Union Health Minister Dr Mansukh Mandaviya addressed BRICS Health Minister’s
Meeting
Q16. The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for solarization of ______________

New Delhi Campus was signed between the Indian Renewable Development Agency
Ltd. (IREDA) and ________________ .
A. Delhi University
B. Ministry of External Affairs
C. NHPC
D. AIIMS
E. IIT Delhi
Solution- C. AIIMS
Key Points:
 Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) and All India
Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi (AIIMS) have signed a Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU), to initiate the technical assessment of the AIIMS New Delhi
campus for converting it into one which is powered by solar energy.
Q17. India’s Biggest Floating Solar Project of 100 MW capacity is located at
A. Kayamkulam, Kerala
B. Omkareshwar reservoir, Khandwa, Madhya Pradesh
C. Ramagundam, Telangana
D. Rihand Dam, Uttar Pradesh
E. Chandigarh
Solution- C. Ramagundam, Telangana
Key Points:
 NTPC Renewable Energy Limited is the successful bidder for 80 MW Floating Solar
capacity at Omkareshwar Reservoir, Khandwa, Madhya Pradesh.
 With completion of this project, the floating solar capacity of NTPC shall be 342
MW. The biggest Floating Solar project in the country is of 100 MW capacity
located at NTPC Ramagundam in Telangana.
 NTPC is committed to achieve 60 GW of Renewable Energy capacity by 2032 and
be a major player in Green Hydrogen Technology and Energy Storage domain

Crack Grade B 13
Q18. Identify the correct statements regarding Achievements of Ministry of

Housing and Urban Affairs.
1. The investments in the Urban sector have seen significant rise from Rs.
1,78,053 Cr (2004-14) to Rs. 18,07,101
2. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban achieved a milestone of sanctioning of
1.19 crore houses
3. More than 94 lakh houses under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban are in
the name of women or joint ownership.
4. Less than 100 lakh houses have been grounded for construction of which ,
76.34 lakh haven’t been completed and delivered to beneficiaries.
A. 1 2 and 3 only
B. 2 3 and 4 only
C. 1 3 and 4 only
D. 1 2 and 4 only
E. All of the above
Solution- A. 1 2 and 3 only
Achievements of Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Key Points:
 The investments in urban sector have seen a significant rise from Rs. 1,78,053 Cr
(2004- 2014) to Rs 18,07,101 Cr.
 Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana- Urban (PMAY)
 Achieved a milestone of sanctioning of 1.19 crore houses

 More than 113 lakh houses have been grounded for construction of which,
76.34 lakh have been completed and delivered to the beneficiaries.
 More than 94 lakh houses under PMAY-U are in the name of women or joint
ownership.
Q19. Who released the 12th Report on States/UTs performance on Centralized

Public Grievance Redressal and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) for the month of
July, 2023?
A. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

B. Confederation of Indian Industry
C. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
D. NITI Aayog
E. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Solution- C. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances

Crack Grade B 14
 The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG)
released the Centralized Public Grievance Redressal and Monitoring System
(CPGRAMS) 12th monthly report for States for July, 2023.
Q20. Identify the correct statements regarding Vishwakarma Yojana
1. It is a central sector scheme with financial outlay of Rs.13,000 crore for a

period of five years (FY 2023-24 to 2027-28)
2. The scheme aims to strengthen and nurture Guru- Shishya Parampara or
family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople
working with their hands and tools
3. The artisans and craftspeople will be provided recognition through PM
Vishwakarma certificate and ID card, Credit Support upto Rs. 1 lakh (First
Tranche) and Rs. 2 lakh (Second Tranche) with a concessional interest rate of
5%
4. 100 traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM
Vishwakarma.
A. 1 2 and 3 only
B. 1 3 and 4 only
C. 1 2 and 4 only
D. 2 3 and 4 only
E. All of the above
Solution- A. 1 2 and 3 only
 The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved a new Central Sector

Scheme “PM Vishwakarma” with a financial outlay of Rs.13,000 crore for a
period of five years (FY 2023-24 to FY 2027-28).

Crack Grade B 15
 The scheme aims to strengthen and nurture the Guru-Shishya Parampara or
family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with
their hands and tools.
 The scheme also aims at improving the quality, as well as the reach of products
and services of artisans and craftspeople and to ensure that the Vishwakarmas are
integrated with the domestic and global value chains.
 Under PM Vishwakarma scheme, the artisans and craftspeople will be
provided recognition through PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card, Credit
Support upto Rs.1 lakh (First Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) with a
concessional interest rate of 5%.
 The Scheme will further provide Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentive, Incentive for
Digital Transactions and Marketing Support.
 The scheme will provide support to artisans and craftspeople of rural and urban
areas across India.
 Eighteen traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM
Vishwakarma.
 These trades include (i) Carpenter (Suthar); (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv)
Blacksmith (Lohar); (v) Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii)
Goldsmith (Sonar); (viii) Potter (Kumhaar); (ix) Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver),
Stone breaker; (x) Cobbler(Charmkar)/ Shoesmith/Footwear artisan; (xi) Mason
(Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker
(Traditional); (xiv) Barber (Naai); (xv) Garland maker (Malakaar); (xvi) Washerman
(Dhobi); (xvii) Tailor (Darzi); and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker.
Q21. Identify the correct statements regarding Area coverage under

Kharif crops
A. Kharif crop sowing is less than 1000 lakh hectares.

B. Rice sowing area is 360.79 lakh hectares
C. Shri Anna / Coarse cereals sown in 176.39 lakh hectares of area
D. Sugarcane sown in 56.06 lakh hectares of area
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. C, D and E
4. A, D and E
5. All of the above
Solution: (2) B, C and D
Area under coverage Kharif Crops

Key points:
 The Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare has released progress of area
coverage under kharif crops as on 18th August 2023.
 Rice sowing area stood at 360.79 lakh hectares
 Shri Anna/Coarse cereals sown in 176.39 lakh hectares
 Sugarcane sown in 56.06 lakh hectares
 Kharif Crop sowing crosses 1022 lakh hectares of area
Crack Grade B 16
Q22. Identify the correct statements regarding estimates of GDP for First Quarter
(April-June) of 2023-24
A. Real GDP or GDP at Constant (2011-12) Prices in Q1 2023-24 is showing a growth

of 7.8 percent as compared to 13.1 percent in Q1 2022-23.
B. Nominal GDP or GDP at Current Prices in Q1 2023-24 is showing a growth of 8.0

percent as compared to 27.7 percent in Q1 2022-23.
C. The new Investment projects announced by the Private Sector have been lowest in
Q1 of FY2023-24 in 14 years.
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Only C
4. A and B
5. None of the above
Solution: (4) A and B
 The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme

Implementation is releasing in this Press Note the estimates of Gross Domestic
Product (GDP) for the April- June quarter (Q1) of 2023-24, both at Constant
(2011-12) and Current Prices.
 Real GDP or GDP at Constant (2011-12) Prices in Q1 2023-24 is estimated to
attain a level of ₹ 40.37 lakh crore, as against ₹ 37.44 lakh crore in Q1 2022-23,
showing a growth of 7.8 percent as compared to 13.1 percent in Q1 2022-23.
 Nominal GDP or GDP at Current Prices in Q1 2023-24 is estimated at ₹ 70.67
lakh crore, as against ₹ 65.42 lakh crore in Q1 2022-23, showing a growth of 8.0
percent as compared to 27.7 percent in Q1 2022-23.
 The new Investment projects announced by the Private Sector have been
highest in Q1 of FY2023-24 in 14 years.
Q23. Identify the correct statements regarding the Extension of PM

Jan Dhan Yojana beyond 28.8.2018
A. Focus shifted from “Every Household” to “Every Unbanked

Adult”
B. Free accidental insurance cover on Rupay cards increased from
Rs. 1 lakh to Rs. 5 lakhs from accounts opened after 28.8.2018
C. Overdraft limit doubled from Rs 5,000/- to Rs. 20,000/-
D. Increase in upper age limit for overdraft from 60 to 65 years
1. A and B
2. B and C
3. C and D
Crack Grade B 17
4. A and D
5. B and D
Solution: (4) A and D
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
 Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is National Mission for Financial
Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, Banking/ Savings &
Deposit Accounts, Remittance, Credit, Insurance, Pension in an affordable manner
 The Government decided to extend the comprehensive PMJDY programme beyond
28.8.2018 with some modifications
 Focus shifted from ‘Every Household’ to Every Unbanked Adult’
 RuPay Card Insurance - Free accidental insurance cover on RuPay cards
increased from Rs. 1 lakh to Rs. 2 lakhs for PMJDY accounts opened after
28.8.2018.
 OD limit doubled from Rs 5,000/- to Rs 10,000/-
 OD upto Rs 2,000/- (without conditions)
 Increase in upper age limit for OD from 60 to 65 years
Q24. Identify the correct statements regarding the CSIR Prima ET11
A. It is the first indigenous e-Tractor developed be CMERI,
Durgapur.
B. It has substituted levers with switches making it women
friendly.
C. The farmers can charge the tractor using conventional home
charging socket in 7 to 8 hours and operate the tractor for more
than 4 hours at field.
D. It has V2L port, which can shift tractor to do irrigation and other
work when not in use.
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. A and B
5. All of the above
Solution: (5) All of the above
CSIR Prima ET11
Key points:
 CSIR Prima ET11, was the first indigenous e-Tractor developed by the Central
Mechanical Engineering Research Institute (CMERI), Durgapur, Union Minister
of State (Independent Charge) Science & Technology; MoS PMO, Personnel, Public
Grievances, Pensions, Atomic Energy and Space, Dr Jitendra Singh underlined the
role of Agri StartUps in India’s economy and called for the adoption of new and AI
driven technologies in Agriculture.

Crack Grade B 18
 USP of the developed technology is that it Women friendly. For this we have given
special attention in the ergonomics, for eg: All the lever, switches etc has been
placed for easy approach to the women. Further to minimize the effort many
mechanical system is being replaced with electronic switches for easy
operations.
 The farmers can charge the tractor using conventional home charging socket in
7 to 8 hours and operate the tractor for more than 4 hours at field.
 Another distinct feature, we have provided that there is a port called V2L i.e.
vehicle to load, This means when the tractor is not in operation, it battery power
can be utilized for other secondary application like pump and irrigation etc.
Q25. Identify the correct statements regarding the MOUs recently signed
between India and New Zealand
A. They will cooperate in civil aviation to schedule new routes, code

share services , traffic rights and capacity entitlement .
B. They will cooperate in horticulture sector and also, in promoting
the health and other benefits of millets.
C. Both sides, agreed to share deliberations on UPI system at a later
stage.
1. A and B
2. B and C
3. A and C
4. Only A
5. All of the above
Key points:
Civil Aviation –
 The Government of India and the Government of New Zealand have signed a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to boost cooperation in civil aviation. This
will cover the scheduling of new routes, code share services, traffic rights and
capacity entitlement.
Agriculture -
 Memorandum of Cooperation (MoC) between India and New Zealand on
Horticulture
 The New Zealand Minister invited India to join the Global Research Alliance which
is an alliance of 67 countries for sharing researches on mitigation of climate
change impacts on agriculture.
 Shri Tomar informed the New Zealand Minister about India’s initiatives in
celebrating the year 2023 as International Years of Millet and sought their
cooperation in promoting the health and other benefits of Millets.
Crack Grade B 19
Trade and Industry
 Annual meeting of the Joint Trade Committee (JTC)

 Ministers welcomed early discussions between National Payments Corporation of
India (NPCI) and Payments NZ regarding the Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
system and agreed that both sides should continue deliberations on this issue
Q26. Identify the correct statements regarding the National

Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme
A. Recently, Direct Benefit Transfer has been launched in National

Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme.
B. A total of 5 lakh youth has been engaged as apprentices since the inception
of scheme in 2016, till 31st July 2023
C. Around 5 lakh apprentices have completed training in FY 23-24.
D. The Government of India’s proactive efforts to promote quality training
across sectors, led to the number of active establishments subsequently
increase from 6,755 in 2018-19 to 40,655 in 2023-24.
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A and D
4. B and C
Solution: (3) A and D

National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme
Key Points:
 To bolster the participation of both industries and young individuals in
apprenticeship training on a nationwide scale, Shri Dharmendra Pradhan, Union
Minister for Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship today launched
Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) in National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme
(NAPS).
 An amount of approx. Rs. 15 crores were disbursed to one lakh apprentices by the
Minister today marking the launch of DBT in NAPS.
 A total of 25 lakh youth has been engaged as apprentices since the inception
of National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme in 2016, till 31st July 2023.
Around 2.6 lakh Apprentices have completed training in FY 23-24.
 The Government of India’s proactive efforts to promote quality training across
sectors, led to the number of active establishments subsequently increase from
6,755 in 2018-19 to 40,655 in 2023-24.
Crack Grade B 20
Q27. Identify the correct statements regarding the Index of Eight Core
Industries for July 2023
A. The combined Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) increased by 8.0 per cent
(provisional) in July 2023 as compared to the Index of July 2022.
B. The production of Coal, Steel, Natural Gas, Cement, Electricity, Refinery
Products, Fertilizers and Crude Oil increased in July 2023 over the
corresponding month of last year.
C. Final growth rate of Index of Eight Core Industries for April 2023 is revised
to 1.5 per cent from its provisional level 3.5 per cent.
D. The cumulative growth rate of ICI during April to July, 2023-24 reported 6.4
percent (provisional) as compared to the corresponding period of last year.
1. A, B and D
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. B and D
5. A and C
Solution: (1) A, B and D
INDEX OF EIGHT CORE INDUSTRIES FOR JULY , 2023
Key Points:
 The combined Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) increased by 8.0 per cent
(provisional) in July 2023 as compared to the Index of July 2022.
 The production of Coal, Steel, Natural Gas, Cement, Electricity, Refinery Products,
Fertilizers and Crude Oil increased in July 2023 over the corresponding month of
last year.
 Final growth rate of Index of Eight Core Industries for April 2023 is revised
to 4.6 per cent from its provisional level 3.5 per cent.
 The cumulative growth rate of ICI during April to July, 2023-24 reported 6.4
percent (provisional) as compared to the corresponding period of last year.
Q28. Identify the correct statements regarding the Consumer Price Index for
Industrial Workers for July, 2023
A. The All-India CPI-IW for July, 2023 increased by 3.3 points and stood at
139.7
B. The maximum upward pressure in current index came from Food &
Beverages group contributing 2.86 percentage points to the total change.
C. At centre level, Bihar recorded a maximum increase of 8.3 points

Crack Grade B 21
D. Year-on-year inflation for the month stood at 4.56 per cent
1. A and B
2. B and C
3. A and D
4. A and C
5. B and D
Solution: (1) A and B

Consumer price Index
Key Points:
 The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the M/o Labour & Employment, has
been compiling Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers every month on the
basis of retail prices collected from 317 markets spread over 88 industrially
important centres in the country.
 The All-India CPI-IW for July, 2023 increased by 3.3 points and stood at
139.7
 The maximum upward pressure in current index came from Food &
Beverages group contributing 2.86 percentage points to the total change.
 At centre level, Gurugram recorded a maximum increase of 8.3 points
 Year-on-year inflation for the month stood at 7.54 per cent compared to 5.57
per cent for the previous month and 5.78 per cent during the corresponding
month a year before.
 Similarly, Food inflation stood at 11.87 per cent against 6.00 per cent of the
previous month and 5.96 per cent during the corresponding month a year ago.
Q29. Identify the corrects statements regarding the Wholesale Price Index.
A. There is a decline in rate of inflation in July ,2023.

B. The decline is primarily contributed to fall in prices of mineral oils, basic
metals, chemical and chemical products, textiles and food products.
C. The annual rate of inflation based on all India Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
number is (-) 1.36% (provisional) for the month of July, 2023
1. A and B
2. B and C
3. A and C
4. Only A
5. All of the above
Wholesale Price Index
Key Points:
Crack Grade B 22
 The annual rate of inflation based on all India Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
number is (-) 1.36% (Provisional) for the month of July, 2023 (over July, 2022)
against (-) 4.12% recorded in June, 2023 and the Index for July 2023 is 151.9
 Decline in the rate of inflation in July, 2023 is primarily contributed by fall in
prices of mineral oils, basic metals, chemical & chemical products, textiles and
food products.
 Base Year: 2011-12
Q30. Identify the correct statements regarding the Digital India Programme
A. It was launched on 1st July, 2015 to enable digital delivery to citizens.
B. The total outlay of Rs 14,903 crores was done for expansion of Digital
India Programme
C. Under Digital India Programme, 3 centres of excellence in Artificial
Intelligence on health, agriculture and sustainable cities will be set up
D. Bhashini, the AI enabled multi-language translation tool will be rolled
out in all 22 schedule 8 languages under Digital India Programme
E. It will enable availability of digital document verification facility under
DigiLocker to MSMEs
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. C, D and E
4. A, B, D and E
5. All of the above
Digital India Programme
 Digital India programme was launched on 1st July, 2015 to enable digital
delivery of services to citizens. It has proved to be a very successful
program.
 The Union Cabinet, chaired by Hon’ble Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi,
approved the expansion of the Digital India programme. The total outlay is
₹14,903 crores.
 This would enable the following:

 6.25 lakh IT professionals will be re-skilled and up-skilled under the
FutureSkills Prime Programme;
 2.65 lakh persons will be trained in information security under the Information
Security & Education Awareness Phase (ISEA) Programme;
 Bhashini, the AI-enabled multi-language translation tool (currently available
in 10 languages) will be rolled out in all 22 schedule 8 languages;
 Modernisation of the National Knowledge Network (NKN) which connects 1,787
educational institutions;
Crack Grade B 23
 Digital document verification facility under DigiLocker will now be available
to MSMEs and other organisations;
 1,200 startups will be supported in Tier 2/3 cities;
 3 Centres of Excellence in Artificial Intelligence on health, agriculture and
sustainable cities will be set up;
 Cyber-awareness courses for 12 crores college students;
 New initiatives in the area of cyber security including development of tools and
integration of more than 200 sites with National Cyber Coordination Centre
Q31. Identify the correct statements regarding the Special Skill Initiative for
North-East Region
A. As part of the initiative, 2.5 lakhs youth of the NER will be provided with
industry relevant skill training programmes through a wide array of schemes
and initiatives, including Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY),
National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) and Jan Shikshan
Sansthan (JSS).
B. The Government has granted Rs 100 crore to facilitate inclusive
development, nurture entrepreneurial talent and socio-economic growth of
the region.
C. The initiative focuses on Quality enhancement of ITIs under skill
strengthening for industrial value enhancement (STRIVE)
D. The initiative aims to skill 20,000 people under Jan Shikshan Sansthan (JSS)
E. The initiative aims to provide skill training to 10.2 lakh people under
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. C, D and E
4. A, C and E
5. A, C and D
Solution: (5) A, C and D
Special Skill Initiative for North – East Region

Key Points:
 To create a robust skill-centric and industry ready ecosystem in North-Eastern

Region (NER), Union Minister for Education and Skill Development &
Entrepreneurship, Shri Dharmendra Pradhan and Union Minister for Culture,
Tourism & Development Of North Eastern Region (DoNER) Shri G. Kishan Reddy and
Minister of State for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, Electronics & IT Shri
Rajeev Chandrasekhar launched a special initiative ‘Transforming Lives, Building
Futures: Skill Development and Entrepreneurship in North-East” in New Delhi
 As part of the initiative, 2.5 lakhs youth of the NER will be provided with industry
relevant skill training programmes through a wide array of schemes and initiatives,

Crack Grade B 24
including Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY), National Apprenticeship
Promotion Scheme (NAPS) and Jan Shikshan Sansthan (JSS).
 The Government has earmarked a substantial fund of Rs360 crore to facilitate
inclusive development, nurture entrepreneurial talent, and propel the socio-
economic growth of the region.
 To fuel further growth, the concerted efforts are being made to provide vocational
education and skill development programs to cater to the demand for skilled
professionals across sectors, including agriculture, tourism, handicrafts, and
information technology.
 Scheme Details:
 2 Lakh skill training under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
 30,000 Apprenticeship Engagement under National Apprenticeship Promotion
Scheme(NAPS)
 20,000 to be skilled under Jan Shikshan Sansthans (JSS)
 Quality enhancement of ITIs under skill strengthening for industrial value
enhancement (STRIVE)
Q32. Identify the incorrect statements with respect to Coastal Aquaculture

Authority Bill
A. Coastal Aquaculture and activities connected therewith are permitted

activities within CRZ under CRZ notifications.
B. Bill removed the ambiguity in Principal Act between farm and other
verticals of coastal aquaculture
C. Bill mentions imprisonment for a period of 3 years to criminalize civil
transgressions
D. Newer forms of environment friendly coastal aquaculture activity such as
cage culture ,seaweed culture,etc. cannot be taken up in coastal areas , even
within CRZ.
E. Government intends to set up facilities that produce genetically improved
and disease-free stocks for use in coastal aquaculture.
1. A, B and C
2. A, D and E
3. A, B and E
4. D and E
5. C and D
Solution: (3) A, B and E
Coastal Aquaculture Authority Bill
Key Points:
 Coastal Aquaculture Authority (Amendment) Bill, 2023 was cleared by both Houses
of Parliament of India

Crack Grade B 25
 Government intends to reiterate that coastal aquaculture and activities
connected therewith are permitted activities within CRZ under CRZ
notifications
 Amendment Act enables lakhs of small marginal aquaculture farmers to avoid
possible need for obtaining CRZ clearances from multiple agencies
 Bill removed imprisonment for a period of up to 3 years and impose only a
penalty in line with principle of decriminalizing civil transgressions
 Amendment Bill provides for broad basing “coastal aquaculture” to comprehensively
cover all activities of coastal aquaculture under purview of this Act
 Amendment Bill ensure that no coastal aquaculture activity is left out of ambit
of Act and operate in an environmentally compliant manner
 Newer forms of environment friendly coastal aquaculture such as cage culture,
seaweed culture, etc can be taken up in coastal areas and mostly within CRZ
 Bill removed ambiguity in Principal Act between farm and other verticals of
coastal aquaculture
 Government intends to promote ease of doing business in coastal aquaculture by
fine tuning some of operational procedures of Coastal Aquaculture Authority
 Many of administrative matters have been suitably resolved under Amended Act for
administrative efficiency and accountability
 Government intends to set up facilities that produce genetically improved and
disease-free stocks for use in coastal aquaculture
 Sector is now poised to take next big leap in form of diversification of species
Q33. _____________ mobile app has been developed for farmers to increase
awareness about MSP rates, nearest procurement centers, payment tracking, best
farm practices, etc.
A. MSP-Ally
B. Cott-Ally
C. Farmer-Ally
D. Agri-Ally
E. Crop-Ally
Solution: (B) Cott-Ally

Key Points:
Cott-Ally mobile app has been developed for farmers to increase awareness about
MSP rates, nearest procurement centers, payment tracking, best farm practices
etc.

Crack Grade B 26
Q34. Identify the correct statements among the following with respect to
“Assessment of Climate Change over the Indian Region” Report released by
Ministry of Earth Sciences:
A. India’s average temperature has risen by around 0.7 deg. C during 1901-
2018.
B. Frequency of daily precipitation extremes (rainfall intensities >150 mm per
day) decreased by about 5% during 1950-2015.
C. The frequency and spatial extent of droughts over India has increased
significantly during 1951-2015.
D. Sea-level rise in the North Indian Ocean occurred at a rate of 1 mm per year
in the last two and half decades (1993-2017)
1. A and C
2. B and D
3. A and B
4. B only
Solution: (1) A and C

Key Points:
 Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) in 2020 has published ‘Assessment of Climate
Change over the Indian Region’, which contains a comprehensive assessment of
the impact of climate change upon the Indian subcontinent.
 The highlights of the report follows:
 India’s average temperature has risen by around 0.7 deg. C during 1901-2018.
 Frequency of daily precipitation extremes (rainfall intensities >150 mm per
day) increased by about 75% during 1950-2015.
 The frequency and spatial extent of droughts over India has increased
significantly during 1951-2015.
 Sea-level rise in the North Indian Ocean occurred at a rate of 3.3 mm per
year in the last two and half decades (1993-2017).
 Frequency of Severe Cyclonic Storms over Arabian sea has increased during the
post monsoon seasons of 1998-2018
Q35. Which of the following has developed MASI portal for real time monitoring of
the Child Care Institutions (CCIs) and their inspection mechanism across the
country?
A. Ministry of Women and Child Development

B. UNICEF
C. UNESCO
D. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
E. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Solution: (D) National Commission for Protection of Child Right

Crack Grade B 27
Key Points:
National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) has developed an
application ‘MASI’ - Monitoring App for Seamless Inspection for real time monitoring of
the Child Care Institutions (CCIs) and their inspection mechanism across the country.
Q36. Identify the correct statements regarding the PM- KUSUM Scheme
A. The target under Component A is to achieve 1 GW capacity through

installation of small solar power plants each of capacity upto 2 MW on the
barren/fallow land of farmers.
B. The target under component B is to achieve installation of 20 lakh standalone
off-grid solar water pumps
C. The target under Component C is to achieve Solarization of 1 lakh existing
grid-connected agriculture pumps and through feeder level solarization (FLS)
D. The main objectives of scheme include de-dieselization of the farm sector,
providing water and energy security to farmers, increasing the income of
farmers and curbing environmental pollution.
E. The scheme guidelines allow inter-se transfer of quantities under the
Component ‘B’ and Component ‘C’ of the PM-KUSUM
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and E
4. B, D and E
5. A, B and E
Solution: (4) B, D and E
PM – KUSUM Scheme
 Nearly 2.46 lakh farmers have benefitted from PM-KUSUM Scheme

 The Union Minister for New & Renewable Energy and Power has informed that the
main objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan
Mahabhiyan (PMKUSUM) include de-dieselisation of the farm sector, providing
water and energy security to farmers, increasing the income of farmers and
curbing environmental pollution.
 The scheme has the following targets:
 Component ‘A’: 10 GW capacity through installation of small solar power
plants each of capacity up to 2 MW on the barren/fallow land of farmers;
 Component ‘B’: Installation of 20 lakh standalone off-grid solar water pumps;
 Component ‘C’: Solarization of 15 lakh existing grid-connected agriculture
pumps and through feeder level solarization (FLS).
 The scheme guidelines allow inter-se transfer of quantities under Component
‘B’ and Component ‘C’ of PM-KUSUM.
 PM-KUSUM is a demand driven scheme and therefore quantities/ capacities are
allocated under the three components of the scheme based on demand received
from the States/ UTs.
 However, funds are allocated based on type / capacity of systems and progress of
installation reported by the State Implementing Agencies.

Crack Grade B 28
Q37. Identify the correct statements regarding the All India CPI for AL and RL
A. The index is published by Ministry of Commerce

B. The base year for the index is 1986-87
C. The major contribution towards the rise in general index of Agricultural
Labourers and Rural Labourers came from food group
D. Point to point rate of inflation based on the CPI-AL and CPI-RL stood at
7.43% and 7.26% in July
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. A and D
5. Only A
Key Points:
 The index numbers are released by Labour Bureau

 The All-India Consumer Price Index Number for Agricultural Labourers and
Rural Labourers (Base: 1986-87=100) for the month of July, 2023 increased by 19
points each to stand at 1215 (One thousand two hundred and fifteen) and 1226
(One thousand two hundred and twenty-six) points respectively.
 The major contribution towards the rise in general index of Agricultural Labourers
and Rural Labourers came from food group to the extent of 18.23 and 18.28
points respectively mainly due to increase in prices of rice, pulses, milk, meat goat,
fish-fresh/dry, gur, chilies-green/dry, garlic, ginger, onion, vegetables & fruits, etc.
Point to point rate of inflation based on the CPI-AL and CPI-RL stood at 7.43%
and 7.26 in July, 2023 compared to 6.31% and 6.16% respectively in June, 2023
and 6.60% and 6.82% respectively during the corresponding month of the previous
year. Similarly, Food inflation stood at 8.88% and 8.63% in July, 2023 compared to
7.03% and 6.70% respectively in June, 2023 and 5.38% and 5.44% respectively
during the corresponding month of the previous year.
Q38. Identify the corrects statements regarding the PLI 2.0 Scheme
A. PLI 2.0 is expected to generate direct employment to 75,000

professionals.
B. In May 2023, the Government sanctioned the PLI scheme 2.0 for IT
hardware, allocating 17,000 crore, five times the budget from the 2021
scheme.
C. The initiative aims to generate incremental investment of Rs 2,430
crore.
D. It helps in fulfilling the aim to build a $300 billion electronics industry
and $1 trillion Digital Economy by 2026.
1. B, C and D
2. A, C and D
3. B and D
4. A, B and D
Crack Grade B 29
PLI 2.0 Scheme
 Close to 40 applications were submitted under the PLI 2.0 scheme which included
an array of major global IT and domestic champions.
 In May, the Government sanctioned the PLI 2.0 scheme for IT hardware,
allocating Rs 17,000 crore, double the budget from the 2021 scheme.
 This initiative is expected to generate direct employment to 75,000 professionals
along with an incremental investment of Rs 2,430 crore and an incremental
production of Rs 3.35 lakh crore.
 Aim is to build a $300 billion electronics industry and a $1 trillion Digital
Economy by 2026.
Q39. Who has developed World’s first BS-6 Stage II, Electrified Flex Fuel Vehicle?
A. Toyota
B. Hyundai
C. Ministry of Heavy Industries
D. NITI Aayog
E. Mahindra
Solution: (A) Toyota
Key points
 It is Developed by Toyota Kirloskar Motor
 It is capable of using any of the higher blends of ethanol mix beyond 20%
 It has both the flex fuel engine as well as an electric powertrain
 In a short span of 8 years, the Ethanol blending in India has increased by over 8
times. It has increased from 1.53 % in 2014 to around 11.5 % (Mar ’23).
Q40. Floodwatch , a mobile application for real-time flood monitoring is launched

by -
A. Ministry of Home Affairs

B. NDMA
C. Central Water Commission
D. Ministry of Jal Shakti
E. None of the Above
Solution: (C)Central Water Commission
Floodwatch
Key Points:
 The Chairman, Central Water Commission (CWC), Shri Kushvinder Vohra
launched the mobile application, "FloodWatch” with the aim of using mobile

Crack Grade B 30
phones to disseminate information related to the flood situation and forecasts up
to 7 days on a real-time basis to the public.
 The in-house developed user-friendly app has readable and audio broadcast and
all the information is available in 2 languages, viz. English and Hindi.
 Key feature of the app includes real-time flood monitoring where users can check
up-to-date flood situation throughout the country.
 The app utilizes near real-time river flow data from various sources.
 The app also provides flood forecast at nearest location where users can check the
flood advisory at the station nearest to them on the Home Page itself.
Q41. Identify the incorrect statements regarding the Atmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar
Yojana (ABRY)
A. It was launched from October 1, 2020 to stimulate the creation of job

opportunities by extending financial support to employers for establishments
registered with the EPFO
B. It covers both employee and employer contributions (24% of wages) for
establishments over 1000 employees.
C. For establishments upto 1000 employees, only employees EPF contributions
(12% of wages ) are covered.
D. The scheme's ensures the disbursements of benefits to specific eligibility
criteria, met by beneficiary establishments and employees on a year-to-year
basis.
E. As of July 31, 2023, the ABRY has already achieved an enrolment of over
7.58 million new employees, surpassing its initial employment generation
target.
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. C, D and E
4. A, B, C and D
5. B, C, D and E

Key Points:
 The Central Government's innovative employment incentive scheme, the
Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana (ABRY), has exceeded its initial employment
generation goals, showcasing its success in fostering job creation and recovery
during theCOVID-19 pandemic.
 Launched effectively from October 1, 2020, the ABRY was designed to
stimulate the creation of new job opportunities by extending financial
support to employers of establishments registered with the Employees'
Provident Fund Organization (EPFO).
 This scheme aimed to incentivize employment of unemployed individuals,
including those who lost their jobs due to the pandemic, by covering both
the employee and employer contributions (24% of wages) for establishments
with up to 1000 employees.

Crack Grade B 31
 For establishments with over 1000 employees, only the employee's EPF
contributions (12% of wages) were covered in respect of new employees.
 The scheme, which remained open for registrations until March 31, 2022, had set
a target to benefit approximately 7.18 million employees across India.
 As of July 31, 2023, the ABRY has already achieved an enrolment of over
7.58 million new employees, surpassing its initial employment generation
target.
 To date, a total of 1,52,380 establishments, employing 60,44,155 new employees
and upon fulfilling all the eligibility conditions, have availed benefits amounting to
a sum of Rs. 9,669.87 Crore under the ABRY scheme.
 The scheme's ensures the disbursements of benefits to specific eligibility criteria,
met by beneficiary establishments and employees on a month-to-month basis
Q42. Identify the correct statements regarding GeM (Government e-Marketplace)
A. Government e-Marketplace (GeM) is India's online marketplace for public

procurement.
B. GeM, achieved milestone of INR 20 lakh crore in Gross Merchandise Value
(GMV) for the fiscal year 2022-23, representing a doubling of growth within a
single year.
C. According to the Economic Survey 2021-22, GeM's prices were 9.5% lower
than other online platforms for 10 out of 22 commodities.
D. GeM has achieved a cumulative GMV of more than 4.5 lakh crore until 23rd
July 2023
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. A, B and D
5. B and C
GeM (Government e- Marketplace)
Key Points:
 Government e-Marketplace (GeM) is India's online marketplace for public

procurement.
 Launched in 2016, GeM facilitates transparent and efficient procurement for
government departments, organizations, and PSUs. With a vast array of products
and services, GeM is transforming the landscape of public procurement in India.
 This year, in particular, has witnessed monumental growth for GeM, achieving
a milestone of INR 2 lakh crore in Gross Merchandise Value (GMV) for the fiscal
year 2022-23, representing a doubling of growth within a single year.
 Presently, the platform boasts an impressive catalogue of over 2.75 lakh services
spanning across more than 280 categories, complemented by more than 34 lakh
products.

Crack Grade B 32
 The engagement has been very promising with States transacting order value of
approximately INR 42,000 crore in FY 22-23, an increase of approx. 35% over
transacted value in FY 21-22.
 A hallmark of GeM's success lies in its dedication to cost savings, having enabled
the government to save over ₹45,000 crore since 2016.
 According to the Economic Survey 2021-22, GeM's prices were 9.5% lower
than other online platforms for 10 out of 22 commodities.
 GeM has achieved a cumulative GMV of more than 4.5 lakh crore until 23rd
July 2023 (since inception).
Q43. Identify the correct statements regarding PM SHRI Schools
A. Under component scheme, there is a provision of setting up of more than

14500 PM SHRI Schools .
B. It seeks to showcase the implementation of National Education Policy and
emerge as exemplar schools over a period of time .
C. In the first phase of selection of PM SHRI Schools , a total of 6207 schools
were selected from 27 states/UTs .
D. The duration of the scheme is from 2023-24 to 2027-28
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. A and B only
5. B and D only
Solution: (1) A, B and C
Key points:
 The Cabinet has approved a new Centrally Sponsored Scheme named Pradhan
Mantri Schools for Rising India (PM SHRI) on 7th September, 2022 to showcase the
implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and emerge as
exemplar schools over a period of time, and also offer leadership to other schools
in the neighborhood.
 Under the scheme there is provision of setting up of more than 14500 PM SHRI
Schools by strengthening the existing schools from amongst schools managed by
Central government/State/UT Government/local bodies.
 In the first phase of selection of PM SHRI Schools, a total of 6207 schools were
selected from 27 States/UTs along with KVS/NVS in which more than 35 lakh
students are getting benefitted
 The duration of the scheme is from 2022-23 to 2026-27.
Q44. Identify the correct statement regarding 81st Plenary Meeting of the
International Cotton Advisory Committee (ICAC)

Crack Grade B 33
1. India is going to host 81st Plenary Meeting of the ICAC from 2nd to 5th
December 2023.
2. Theme of the meeting is “Cotton Value Chain – Local Innovations for Global
Prosperity”
3. It will take place in Gujrat, India
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3
E. 1,2 and 3
Solution: (B) 1 and 2
Key Points:
 India to host 81st Plenary Meeting of International Cotton Advisory

Committee (ICAC) from 2nd to 5th December 2023 in Mumbai with the theme
“Cotton Value Chain- Local Innovations for Global Prosperity”
 The project for development of cotton markers in order to promote DNA testing of
cotton in the country will be initiated in collaboration with Council of Scientific and
Industrial Research-National Botanical Research Institute (CSIR-NBRI)
Q45. Generation India Foundation (GIF) and Amazon Web Services India Private
Limited (AWS India), in collaboration of which Ministry is providing cloud skills
training to 1,500 learners and connecting them to employment opportunities
under project AMBER?
A. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

B. Ministry of MSMEs
C. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
D. Ministry of Education
E. Ministry of Science and Technology
Solution: (A) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Key Points:
 The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), in

collaboration with Generation India Foundation (GIF) and Amazon Web Services
India Private Limited (AWS India) is providing ‘cloud’ skills training to 1,500
learners and connecting them to employment opportunities, under project
AMBER.
 The initiative has been undertaken under the SANKALP programme of MSDE with
a focus on women to improve gender diversification in the tech industry and
underprivileged groups.

Crack Grade B 34
Q46. Which scheme won the National Award for e-Governance 2023 ?
A. SWAMITVA Scheme
B. PM Jan Dhan Yojana
C. PM KISAN Scheme
D. PLI Scheme
E. MGNREGA
Solution: (A) Points:
SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages Abadi and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village
Areas) Scheme of Ministry of Panchayati Raj has been conferred with the prestigious
National Award for e-Governance 2023 (Gold) for Application of Emerging Technologies
for Providing Citizen Centric Services at the 26th National Conference on e-
Governance (NCeG) organized by the Department of Administrative Reforms and
Public Grievances (DARPG), Government of India on 25th August 2023 in Indore,
Madhya Pradesh.
Q47. Aditya L1 Mission , the first Sun Mission of ISRO was launched on _______?
A. September 1, 2023
B. September 2, 2023
C. September 3, 2023
D. August 31, 2023
E. August 30, 2023
Solution: (B) September 2, 2023
Key points:
 After close on the heels of successful Chandrayaan mission, India is ready with
the first Sun Mission “Aditya-L1”, which ISRO is all set to launch, most likely on
2nd of September.
 The Sun Space Mission Aditya-L1, shall use the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(PSLV) with seven payloads (Instruments on Board).
 It will study the energy sources from the Sun.
 ISRO has also collaborated with ARIES to establish the Aditya-L1 Support Cell
at ARIES.
Q48. Identify correct statement regarding Vivaad se Vishwas- II (Contractual

Disputes)
1. Ministry of Finance, has launched the scheme, “Vivad se Vishwas II –
(Contractual Disputes), to effectively settle the pending contractual
disputes of government and government undertakings.
2. The scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2023-24 by the Union
Finance Minister

Crack Grade B 35
3. The scheme will apply to all domestic contractual disputes where one of
the parties is either the Government of India or an organisation working
under its control
4. Under the scheme, for Court Awards passed on or before 30.04.2023 the
settlement amount offered to the Contractor will be up to 85% of the net
amount awarded/ upheld by the court.
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 4
E. All of the Above
Solution: (E) All of the Above
Key Points:
 The Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, has launched the
scheme, “Vivad se Vishwas II – (Contractual Disputes), to effectively settle
the pending contractual disputes of government and government
undertakings. The scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2023-24 by
the Union Finance Minister.
 Cases satisfying the following criteria will be eligible for settlement under this
scheme
Status of dispute The award shall have been issued upto the following
date
Arbitral Award passed 31.01.2023
Court Award passed 30.04.2023
 The scheme will apply to all domestic contractual disputes where one of
the parties is either the Government of India or an organisation working
under its control.
 Under the scheme, for Court Awards passed on or before 30.04.2023 the
settlement amount offered to the Contractor will be up to 85% of the net
amount awarded/ upheld by the court.

Q49. G20 Pandemic Fund has approved $ ______ Million proposal submitted by
Department of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying , Government of India.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 25
D. 50
E. 30
Solution: (C) 25
Key Points:

Crack Grade B 36
 The G20 Pandemic Fund has approved the $25 million proposal submitted by
the Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal
Husbandry & Dairying (DAHD), Government of India on “Animal Health
Security Strengthening in India for Pandemic Preparedness and Response”.
Q50. Ministry of Power mandated _______% biomass cofiring in Thermal Power

Plants (TPPs) from FY 2024-25.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
E. 10
Solution: (C) 5
Key Points:
 The Union Minister for Power and New & Renewable Energy has informed that there
are 47 Thermal Power Plants which have carried out cofiring of agro residue-based
biomass pellets with coal.
 The Ministry of Power issued modification on 16.06.2023 to revise the biomass
policy dated 08.10.2021 and now it mandates 5% biomass co-firing in Thermal
Power Plants (TPPs) from FY 2024-25.
 This obligation shall increase to 7% from FY 2025-26.

August 2023 MCQs PIB Lyst8634

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

August 2023 MCQs PIB Lyst8634

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Crack Grade B 1

PIB – AUGUST 2023 MCQs

Q1. Identify the correct statements regarding Pradhan Mantri PVTG

1. Government in Budget 2023-24 has made announcement of Pradhan Mantri

Solution- C. 1 2 and 4 only

Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission

 For implementing targeted schemes for socially and economically backward

 The Scheme was launched in 2014 as a Central Sector Scheme by the

 Who are Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)?

1. Pre-agricultural level of technology

Q2. Identify the correct statements regarding BHARAT Campaign:

1. It aims to provide benefits to farmers by not allowing banks to lend for

Solution- B. 2 3 and 4 only

www.crackgradeb.com | crackgradeb@gmail.com | 9310558455

Solution- 2 3 and 4 only

 The following enhancements have been approved:

Q4 Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) and Common

Solution- B. NIVESHAK SARATHI

www.crackgradeb.com | crackgradeb@gmail.com | 9310558455

Solution- C. 1 3 and 4 only

Q6. Khanan Prahari App is launched by which ministry

Solution- C. Ministry of Coal

Q7. Identify the correct statements regarding 6 th Census Report on Minor

www.crackgradeb.com | crackgradeb@gmail.com | 9310558455

Solution- C. 1 3 and 4 only

 The Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development

Q8. Identify the correct statements regarding PM- eBus Sewa

www.crackgradeb.com | crackgradeb@gmail.com | 9310558455

Solution- B. 1 2 4 and 5 only

 The Scheme has two segments:

Q9. Identify the incorrect statements regarding Mission Coking Coal :

1. Ministry of Power launched Mission Coking Coal in FY’22

www.crackgradeb.com | crackgradeb@gmail.com | 9310558455

Solution: E. All of the Above

Mission Coking Coal

Q10. Identify the correct statements regarding Fisheries sector

Solution- (E) All of the Above

Fisheries Sector in India

www.crackgradeb.com | crackgradeb@gmail.com | 9310558455

 In news – Sagar Parikrama Phase VIII

www.crackgradeb.com | crackgradeb@gmail.com | 9310558455

Solution- B. 2 3 and 4 only

Q12. Recently, a new variety of lotus flower, name _________ is developed by

Solution- C. Namoh 108

www.crackgradeb.com | crackgradeb@gmail.com | 9310558455

www.crackgradeb.com | crackgradeb@gmail.com | 9310558455

Q16. The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for solarization of ______________

Q17. India’s Biggest Floating Solar Project of 100 MW capacity is located at

Solution- C. Ramagundam, Telangana

www.crackgradeb.com | crackgradeb@gmail.com | 9310558455

Q18. Identify the correct statements regarding Achievements of Ministry of

Solution- A. 1 2 and 3 only

Achievements of Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

 Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana- Urban (PMAY)

 Achieved a milestone of sanctioning of 1.19 crore houses

Q19. Who released the 12th Report on States/UTs performance on Centralized

A. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Solution- C. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances

www.crackgradeb.com | crackgradeb@gmail.com | 9310558455

Q20. Identify the correct statements regarding Vishwakarma Yojana

1. It is a central sector scheme with financial outlay of Rs.13,000 crore for a

Solution- A. 1 2 and 3 only

 The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved a new Central Sector