Database Question Common Answer

A decrease in the amount of haemoglobin in the

HP0002 hypoxia
red blood cells leads to a condition called:-

The volume of oxygen in the atmosphere is

HP0003 21
approximately:-

the amount of oxygen required by

HP0004 The breathing rate is determined by:-
the body.

HP0005 Blood is pumped around the body by the:- right atrium of the heart

HP0006 Oxygen rich blood:- is found in the right ventricle.

The pumping or discharge chambers of the heart

HP0010 the left atrium and the right atrium
are:-

When measuring blood pressure the lowest reading

HP0012 the systolic pressure
obtained is referred to as:-

A person suffering from sustained low blood

HP0013 dizziness or fainting
pressure may experience:-

the total pressure of the gas mixture

HP0016 In terms of the Gas laws, Dalton's Law states that:- is equal to the sum of its partial
pressures

increases with the consumption of

HP0020 A pilot's susceptibility to hypoxia:-
alcohol drugs and tobacco

an insufficient partial pressure of

HP0021 Hypoxic hypoxia occurs as a result of:-
oxygen

the time available to recognise the

HP0022 The time of useful consciousness is:- onset of hypoxia and take corrective
action

breathing into a paper bag will

increase the body's level of carbon
HP0024 In order to treat hyperventilation:-
dioxide which in turn will return the
breathing rate to normal.

HP0025 Anaemic hypoxia may be caused by:- poor blood circulation

 remaining at an altitude which will
Prevention of hypoxia in a non-pressurised aircraft
HP0027 provide an adequate oxygen
is best achieved by:-
pressure gradient.

A consequence of hyperventilation is that there will a shortage of carbon dioxide in the

HP0029
be:- blood

Whilst using oxygen masks passengers should be

HP0033 cautioned against breathing rapidly or deeply in hyperventilation
order to avoid:-

the amount of oxygen in each breath

HP0034 According to Dalton's Law:-
remains constant at any altitude

As altitude is gained the amount of oxygen in each

HP0035 remains constant
breath:-

the period of time a pilot can

HP0036 The "time of useful consciousness" means:- function without oxygen before
losing consciousness

The "time of useful consciousness" at 25 000 ft

HP0038 5 minutes
following rapid decompression is approximately:-

The amount of light which enters the eye is

HP0039 iris
controlled by the:-

In order to correct long sightedness,

HP0040 a convex lens is used
(hypermetropia):-

In order to correct long sightedness,

HP0040 a convex lens is used
(hypermetropia):-

HP0041 With reference to the eye, the rods:- are used for peripheral vision

Vision in low levels of illumination or at night is

HP0042 the rods
dependant upon:-

Control over the light entering the eye is exercised iris which expands increasing the
HP0043
by the:- size of the pupil

looking to the side of the object in

HP0045 Good night vision is best achieved by:-
order to focus the object on the rods

HP0046 In order to correct short sightedness, (myopia):- a concave lens is used

change the size of the pupil to allow

HP0048 Accommodation is the ability of the eye:-
more or less light into the eye
 During the approach to land on an unfamiliar
HP0050 upward sloping runway a pilot may have a fly a high approach.
tendency to:-

During the approach to land on a very wide

HP0052 fly a low approach.
unfamiliar runway a pilot may have a tendency to:-

semi-circular canals and the

HP0053 The vestibular apparatus comprises the:-
Eustachian tube.

HP0055 Presbycusis is the term used to define:- a decrease in hearing ability with age

HP0058 Vertigo is:- a false sense of rotation

should be treated by looking at and

Spatial disorientation is usually a temporary
HP0060 believing the aircraft flight
condition which:-
instruments

is associated with the inner ear and

HP0063 Non-conductive, or noise-induced, hearing loss:-
is usually irreversible

A deterioration in hearing with age is referred to

HP0065 presbycusis
as:-

A deterioration in hearing with age is referred to

HP0065 tinnitus
as:-

is associated with the inner ear and

HP0066 Conductive hearing loss is:-
is always temporary

HP0067 The term tinnitus is used to define:- the natural loss of hearing with age

A method which may be used to help passengers have them fix their eyes in the
HP0069
avoid airsickness is to:- distance on the natural horizon

HP0070 The symptoms of motion sickness include:- pale skin nausea and sweating

The best treatment for a pilot suffering from acute

HP0071 a restful uninterrupted natural sleep
fatigue is:-

If a passenger is observed suddenly suffering from

HP0072 severe chest pains and then collapses, the cause is hypoxia
likely to be:-

HP0073 Fainting is caused by :- lack of oxygen at altitude

HP0075 Following scuba diving, a pilot:- may not fly within 24 hours

If a passenger is observed suffering from mild chest

HP0077 pains, dizziness, breathlessness and a pale hyperventilation
complexion the cause is likely to be:-
The symptoms of low blood glucose (blood sugar),
HP0078 include a sensation of dizziness and shaking. This by eating regularly
can be corrected:-

is best treated by a peaceful and

HP0079 Acute fatigue:-
uninterrupted sleep

occurs over a very long period and

HP0080 Chronic fatigue:- requires a prolonged recovery
period.

Sleep management is an important part of personal

HP0081 fitness and the type of sleep associated with paradoxical sleep.
physical rejuvenation is called:-

The type of sleep associated with brain

HP0082 rapid eye movement (REM) sleep
rejuvenation is called:-

The most common symptoms of carbon monoxide

HP0084 tunnel vision.
poisoning are:-

A leaking aircraft engine exhaust may pose a threat increased amounts of carbon
HP0086
to aircrew and passengers because:- monoxide may enter the cabin

A method of processing information referred to as works independently of the central

HP0089
a closed loop system:- decision maker

Memory which deals with the storage of

HP0091 semantic memory
information in word form is called:-

The short term or working memory is capable of

HP0093 7 types of unrelated information
dealing with a maximum of:-

HP0094 Acute stress is considered to be:- a short-term condition

noise and vibration combined with

The most likely causes of environmental, or
HP0095 variations in temperature and
physical stress in an aircraft are:-
humidity
condition which builds up over a
HP0097 Acute stress is usually a:- short period of time requiring a very
long recovery period.
HP0098 Chronic stress is usually a:- long term condition

“Environmental capture” is an error which is

HP0099 skill-based behaviour
associated with:-

HP0101 A motor programme is:- a skill which is acquired by practice

indicate the pressure of the blood

HP0105 The term “blood pressure” is used to:-
against the walls of the main arteries

Platelets are a type of blood cell which are

HP0106 the formation of blood clots
responsible for:-

Pilots who are suffering from blocked sinuses and

HP0108 continue to fly may be subject to severe pain, and a climb in a non-pressurised aircraft.
even suffer ear damage, particularly during:-

When crossing time zones adjustment of the body is easier when flying from west to
HP0110
clock:- east

the ability to store information in the

HP0112 Semantic memory is the term used to describe:-
form of words language or numbers

A method of processing information which requires

HP0113 an open loop system
feedback to the central decision maker is called:-

The best method for an individual to acquire sleep

HP0116 maintain a normal sleep period
“credits” is to:-

HP0117 Chronic insomnia is often the result of:- disturbed body rhythms.

The tiny air sacs in the lungs which allow oxygen to

HP0118 diffuse into the blood and carbon dioxide to diffuse alveoli
into the lungs are called:-

Adaptation of the eye for night vision may take up

HP0120 30 minutes
to:-

the light rays will be focused on the

It may be impossible to see a distant, faintly lit
HP0121 fovea which contains a
object at night by looking directly at it because:-
concentration of rods

HP0125 Angina is characterised by:- severe chest pains and collapse

A situation in which a pilot makes a correct decision

HP0126 environmental capture
but initiates the incorrect reaction is referred to as:-
 require the conscious involvement
HP0129 Skill-based behaviour consists of actions that:-
of the brain

decisions made based on knowledge

HP0130 Knowledge-based behaviour is associated with:-
stored in the long-term memory.

The transfer of oxygen from the lungs to the blood the low levels of oxygen in the
HP0132
is a function of:- blood.

the transfer of oxygen into the blood

HP0136 As the partial pressure of oxygen decreases:-
decreases

the body’s demand for oxygen

HP0137 As the partial pressure of oxygen increases:-
increases

Permanent hearing loss may result from damage to

HP0142 cochlea
the:-

Constant and excessive exposure to loud noise may

HP0144 eventually lead to permanent hearing loss as a cochlea
result of damage to the:-

a natural loss of hearing as a result

HP0145 Presbycusis is:-
of age

Decompression sickness, associated with reduced the formation of bubbles of nitrogen

HP0146
air pressure, is characterised by:- in various parts of the body

With regard to decompression sickness, the pain

HP0147 experienced by the formation of nitrogen bubbles the bends
in the body’s joints is referred to as:-
With regard to decompression sickness, the itching
HP0148 sensation created by the formation of nitrogen the creeps
bubbles in the skin is referred to as:-
With regard to decompression sickness, the
HP0150 formation of nitrogen bubbles in the lungs leads to the chokes.
a condition known as:-

In the human ear, angular accelerations are sensed

HP0152 semi-circular canals
by the:-

In the human ear, linear accelerations are sensed

HP0153 otolith or static organ.
by the:-

The purpose of the otolith, or static, organ in the

HP0154 sense linear accelerations
human ear is to:-

According to Boyles Law, providing the as the pressure of a gas increases

HP0155
temperature is constant:- the volume decreases
 During a level turn, with no external reference, a
false sense that the aircraft is flying straight and
HP0157 level may be felt by the pilot. During the roll out a vertigo
sense of turning in the opposite direction may be
felt. This is referred to as:-

During a level turn, with no external reference, a

false sense that the aircraft is flying straight and
HP0157 level may be felt by the pilot. During the roll out a the coriolis illusion
sense of turning in the opposite direction may be
felt. This is referred to as:-

The “oculogravic or somatogravic illusion” is the the body rotating when in fact no
HP0159
sensation of:- rotation is occurring.

The “oculogravic or somatogravic illusion” is the

HP0159 tumbling backwards
sensation of:-

At night a stationary light which is stared at for a

HP0161 few seconds may appear to move. This illusion is autokinesis.
known as:-

Autokinesis is a visual illusion which may occur at the eye only focuses at a distance of
HP0162
night when:- 1 to 2 metres ahead.

Autokinesis is a visual illusion which may occur at

HP0162 a stationary light appears to move
night when:-

Equalisation of the pressure between the outer ear

HP0164 Eustachian tube
and the middle ear is achieved through the:-

The transmission of electrical signals, for

HP0167 conversion into sound, from the ear to the brain is auditory nerve.
achieved via the:-

In an effort to avoid motion sickness a method fix their eyes in the distance on the
HP0169
which may help passengers is to:- natural horizon

An increase in positive “g” may initially result in a

HP0170 grey out
condition known as:-

“Grey out” is a condition which may occur as a

HP0171 positive “g” manoeuvres
result of:-

A sudden increase in negative “g” may result in a

HP0172 red out
condition known as:-

“Red out” is a condition which may occur as a result

HP0173 excessive negative “g” manoeuvres
of:-
 “Black out” is a condition which may occur as a
HP0175 sustained positive “g” manoeuvres
result of:-

the blood rushes away from the

HP0176 During sustained positive “g” acceleration:- head causing loss of vision grey out
or black out.

An increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the will cause a tingling sensation in the
HP0178
blood:- finger tips.

The term “chunking” is used to define the process transferring information into the
HP0179
of:- long term memory

The condition known as cyanosis is associated

HP0181 high blood pressure
with:-

The ability to make a judgement based on learned

HP0185 cognitive judgment
skills or experience is referred to as:-

Cognitive judgement involves decision making

HP0186 a complex thought process
based on:-

HP0187 Perceptual judgement is judgement based on:- a complex thought process

excessive levels of carbon dioxide in

HP0190 Hypoxia is caused by:-
the body tissues

HP0191 Hyperventilation may be caused by:- too little carbon dioxide in the blood

The ability of the eye to change the curvature of

HP0197 accommodation
the lens in order to focus on an object is called:-

HP0198 Visual acuity is:- the ability of the eye to see clearly
 Right

anaemia

21

the level of carbon dioxide in the

blood

left ventricle of the heart.

is bright red in colour

the left ventricle and the right

ventricle.

the diastolic pressure

dizziness or fainting

the total pressure of the gas mixture

is equal to the sum of its partial
pressures

increases with the consumption of

alcohol drugs and tobacco

an insufficient partial pressure of

oxygen

the time available to recognise the

onset of hypoxia and take corrective
action

breathing into a paper bag will

increase the body's level of carbon
dioxide which in turn will return the
breathing rate to normal.

a reduction in the amount of

circulating haemoglobin.
 remaining at an altitude which will
provide an adequate oxygen
pressure gradient.

a shortage of carbon dioxide in the

blood

hyperventilation

the proportion of oxygen remains at

21% throughout the atmosphere

decreases.

the time taken by a pilot to

recognise the onset of hypoxia and
take corrective action.

2 – 3 minutes

iris

a convex lens is used

a convex lens is used

are used for peripheral vision

the rods

iris which expands increasing the

size of the pupil

looking to the side of the object in

order to focus the object on the rods

a concave lens is used

change the curvature of the lens in

order to focus on an object
 fly a low approach.

fly a high approach.

semi-circular canals and the otolith

organs

a decrease in hearing ability with age

a false sense of rotation

should be treated by looking at and

believing the aircraft flight
instruments

is associated with the inner ear and

is usually irreversible

presbycusis

presbycusis

is associated with the outer ear and

is either temporary or can be
reversed

ringing in the ears

have them fix their eyes in the

distance on the natural horizon

pale skin nausea and sweating

a restful uninterrupted natural sleep

a heart attack

a reduced flow of blood to the brain.

 may not fly within 24 hours

an angina attack

by eating regularly

is best treated by a peaceful and

uninterrupted sleep

occurs over a very long period and

requires a prolonged recovery
period.

slow wave sleep

rapid eye movement (REM) sleep

headaches and nausea

increased amounts of carbon

monoxide may enter the cabin

requires feedback to the central

decision maker

semantic memory

7 types of unrelated information

a short-term condition

noise and vibration combined with

variations in temperature and
humidity

short term condition

 long term condition

skill-based behaviour

a skill which is acquired by practice

indicate the pressure of the blood

against the walls of the main arteries

the formation of blood clots

a descent

is easier when flying from east to

west

the ability to store information in the

form of words language or numbers

a closed loop system.

maintain a normal sleep period

long-term stress

alveoli

30 minutes

the light rays will be focused on the

fovea which contains a
concentration of cones

mild chest pains which subside on

resting.

an action slip
 operates without the constant
attention of the brain.

decisions made based on knowledge

stored in the long-term memory.

the pressure of the oxygen

the transfer of oxygen into the blood

decreases

the transfer of oxygen into the blood

increases.

cochlea

cochlea

a natural loss of hearing as a result

of age

the formation of bubbles of nitrogen

in various parts of the body

the bends

the creeps

the chokes.

semi-circular canals

otolith or static organ.

sense linear accelerations

as the pressure of a gas increases

the volume decreases
 the leans

the leans

tumbling backwards

tumbling backwards

autokinesis.

a stationary light appears to move

a stationary light appears to move

Eustachian tube

auditory nerve.

fix their eyes in the distance on the

natural horizon

grey out

positive “g” manoeuvres

red out

excessive negative “g” manoeuvres

sustained positive “g” manoeuvres

the blood rushes away from the

head causing loss of vision grey out
or black out.

will cause an increase in the

breathing rate

combining data to increase the

capacity of the working or short
term memory

hypoxia.

perceptual judgement

a complex thought process

experience.

a decrease in the partial pressure of

oxygen

anxiety caused by a stressful

situation.

accommodation

the ability of the eye to see clearly

 Database Question

The volume of oxygen in the atmosphere is

met0001
approximately:-

An aircraft is flying at FL095, OAT +5°C. The

met0006
temperature deviation from ISA is:-

The layer between the troposphere and the

met0008
stratosphere is called:-

met0009 Air has a tendency to flow from:-

met0011 The average height of the troposphere:-

met0012 In a temperature inversion:-

Dewpoint temperature is the temperature at

met0014
which:-

met0015 Instability in the atmosphere is associated with:

The term "insolation" or "solar radiation" is used to

met0017
define the:-

In terms of visibility, the difference between fog

met0019
and mist is that:-

met0020 Adiabatic process is the term used to describe:-

met0021 Relative humidity:-

The dewpoint temperature is the temperature at

met0022
which a particular air mass:-

met0023 According to Buys Ballots Law, an observer:-

 In the Southern Hemisphere, the wind around a
met0024
low pressure blows:-

met0027 The Coriolis Force is created by:

met0028 A land breeze will be found at coastal areas:-

During summer in Southern Africa, the Inter

met0029 Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is generally
located:-

The type of wind which flows upslope during the

met0031
day is called:-

met0033 A "trough" is:-

met0034 A sea breeze will be found at coastal areas:-

In a high pressure system in the southern

met0035
hemisphere:-

met0038 Cirrus type cloud refers to:-

The type of cloud which is formed by convection is

met0039
called:-

met0040 Nimbostratus cloud is:-

met0041 Cumulonimbus cloud is characterised by:-

On a clear night, light winds and moist air blowing

met0044
over the land will most probably create:-

The ideal conditions for the formation of advection

met0046
fog are:-

met0049 Polar maritime air is characterised by:-

The factor most likely to cause a decrease in the

met0050
stability of an air mass is:-
 A cold front approaching South Africa will be
met0051
characterised by:-

The type of clouds which typically characterise a

met0052
cold front are:-

A front caused by cold air cutting under warm air is

met0053
referred to as:-

met0057 The indications of the approach of a warm front:-

On landing, an aircraft's altimeter indicates the

airfield elevation of 4500 ft with QNH correctly set.
met0061 During the pre-flight inspection the following
morning the altimeter indicates 4200 ft. During the
night:-

met0063 The symbol SCT is used to indicate:-

met0064 The symbol FEW is used to indicate:-

The term CAVOK is used in weather forecasts to

met0065
indicate:-

The information which is provided by the ATIS

met0066
includes:-

In winter, an aeroplane which has been parked

met0068 outside during a night with clear skies may expect
to be covered with:-

The presence of a coastal low, on the east coast of

met0074
South Africa, may be characterised by:-

The characteristics of the South African summer

met0075
include:-

met0077 A common characteristic of a stable air mass is:-

With reference to the TAF for Port Elizabeth (FAPE)

on page 8 of the Meteorology Manual, an aircraft
met0080
that intends landing between 1300 and 1500 local
time would expect:-
 With reference to the TAF for Durban (FADN) on
page 8 of the Meteorology Manual, an aircraft
met0081
landing between 1800 and 2000 local time would
expect the surface wind to be:-

With reference to the METAR for Johannesburg

met0083
(FAJS) on page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:-

With reference to the METAR for Johannesburg

met0083
(FAJS) on page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:-

With reference to the METAR for George (FAGG) on

met0084
page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:-

The characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass

met0086
include:-

met0087 The characteristics of a stable air mass include:-

The weather condition associated with a surface

met0090
temperature inversion is:-

A concave or almond-shaped cloud which appears

met0093 to be stationary in the vicinity of mountains or hills
is called referred to as:-

Whilst flying in the vicinity of a mountain range a

met0094 pilot observes formations of static lenticular cloud.
The pilot should expect:-

In stable conditions, with a strong wind blowing

met0095
over a mountain range or high ridge of hills:-

The most hazardous type of thunderstorms to

met0099
aircraft are:-

The greatest intensity of a thunderstorm occurs

met0100
during:-

When flying from an area of high pressure to an

met0102
area of low pressure:-

met0104 A METAR is:-

met0105 A TAF is:-

met0106 Air density will:-

met0107 The term veering refers to:-

met0108 The term backing refers to:-

The flow of air from a high to a low in the southern

met0109
hemisphere is deflected by the coriolis force:-

met0110 Following the passage of a cold front:-

With reference to the Significant Weather Chart 3

on page 15 of the Meteorology Manual. An aircraft
met0116
intending to fly from Port Elizabeth (PE) along the
coast towards Cape Town (CT) would experience:-

With reference to the Winds and Temperatures

chart on page 16 of the Meteorology Manual. The
met0120
wind direction on the Natal North Coast at 5000 ft
is:-

With reference to Station 6 of the Synoptic Station

met0123 Models - 1, on page 5 of the Meteorology Manual.
The present weather is:-

With reference to Station 2 of the Synoptic Station

Models - 1 on page 5 of the Meteorology Manual.
met0125
The barometric tendency during the past three
hours was:-

With reference to Station 4 of the Synoptic Station

met0126 Models - 1 on page 5 of the Meteorology Manual.
The medium cloud indicated is:-

With reference to Station 5 of the Synoptic Station

Models - 1 on page 5 of the Meteorology Manual.
met0127
The pressure change during the past three hours
was:-

With reference to Station 14 of the Synoptic Station

met0129
Models - 2 on page 6 of the Meteorology Manual.:-
met0131 According to ISA, the sea level density of the air is:-

met0132 The term "lapse rate" is used to describe:-

In the southern hemisphere the wind is deflected

met0133
to the left by the:-

In the southern hemisphere an aircraft which is

met0134
being subjected to left drift is:-

The type of cloud which can be expected to form as

met0138 a result of a moist unstable air mass being forced
upwards is:-

The weather conditions associated with a ridge of

met0139
high pressure include:-

Precipitation in the form of rain can be expected

met0142
from:-

Precipitation in the form of light drizzle can be

met0143
expected from:-

met0144 Virga is:-

met0147 Frontal fog is found

met0148 Rime ice may be expected to form on an aircraft:-

met0149 Page 9 of Manual look at FAGM:

With reference to the METAR for Upington (FAUP)

met0150
on page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:-

With reference to the METAR for George (FAGG) on

met0151
page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:-

With reference to the TAF for George (FAGG) on

met0153 page 8 of the Meteorology Manual, the expected
weather includes:-
 With reference to the Winds and Temperatures
met0154 chart on page 16 of the Meteorology Manual. The
temperature at 5 000 ft at S30° E015° is:-

With reference to the Winds and Temperatures

chart on page 16 of the Meteorology Manual. The
met0155
wind direction and velocity (W/V) at 4000 ft at S25°
E015° is:-

met0156 Carburettor icing:-

Coastal lows along the South African coast are

met0158
generally created by:-

met0165 Cooling of the earth's surface during the night:-

Air at the surface which is forced to rise as a result

met0170
of convergence:-

A warm, dry wind blowing down a mountain during

met0171
the day is a typical characteristic of:-

The type of wind which may be experienced at

met0172
coastal areas during the day is:-

met0174 An anabatic wind:-

An air mass which is approaching South Africa from

met0179
the Antarctic is classified as:-

met0180 A continental air mass:-

As a polar maritime air mass passes over South

met0182
Africa during summer it will:-

met0184 Convergence is associated with:-

met0185 Divergence is associated with:-

When warm air is forced to rise up and over cold

met0186
air:-
 Following the passage of a warm front in South
met0188
Africa, the winds will:-

Following the passage of a warm front in South

met0189
Africa:-

Following the passage of a warm front in South

met0190
Africa:-

met0191 An occluded front occurs when:-

The south westerly buster which affects the coast

met0195
of KwaZulu-Natal (South Africa) is caused by:-

The Black South Easter is a wind which occurs in

met0196
South Africa when:-

The South African Berg Wind is generally caused

met0198
by:-

When the standard pressure setting, 1013 hPa, is

set on the subscale of the altimeter of an aircraft
met0199
on the ground at an aerodrome, the altimeter will
indicate:-

met0200 Density altitude is:-

When QFE is set on the subscale of the altimeter of

met0201 an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome, the
instrument will read:-

When QNH has been set on the subscale of an

met0204
altimeter, the instrument will indicate:-
 Right

0.21

+9°C.

the tropopause.

out of an area of high pressure and into

an area of low pressure

is greatest at the equator

the temperature increases with an

increase height

air will become saturated at a constant

pressure

a steep positive environmental lapse

rate

heating of the earth's surface by the

sun

fog has a visibility of less than 1000

metres

the cooling of air as it rises and expands

decreases with an increase in

temperature.

becomes saturated

standing with their back to the wind in

the Southern Hemisphere will have low
pressure on their right.
 clockwise with the area of lowest
pressure in the centre.

the rotation of the earth

at night

in the southern hemisphere

anabatic

a wedge of low pressure

during the day

the wind rotates anticlockwise with an

outwards and downwards flow.

high thin cloud

cumulus

commonly associated with a warm

front

severe turbulence

radiation fog

warm moist air blowing over a cold

surface

stable conditions at its source.

warming of the air mass from below

 north westerly winds

Cumulus and Cumulonimbus

a cold front.

cirrus followed by cirrostratus or

altostratus type clouds.

the pressure has increased

3 to 4 oktas of cloud

1 to 2 oktas of cloud

visibility 10 km or more and no cloud

below 5000 ft

the airfield's surface wind QNH visibility

and runway in use

hoar frost

overcast conditions with light rain or

drizzle

the presence of moist south easterly

trade winds

the presence of stratiform clouds

3 to 4 oktas of cloud at 1500 ft

 140/12.

the variation in the observed wind

direction is between 350° and 070°

the variation in the observed wind

direction is between 350° and 070°

the dew point temperature is 15°

cumuliform clouds with rain showers

poor surface visibility

an increase in temperature with

altitude.

lenticular cloud

considerable turbulence

mountain wave turbulence is to be

expected

thunderstorms embedded in frontal

clouds.

the mature stage

the altimeter will tend to over read

a report of actual weather at an

aerodrome

a weather forecast for an aerodrome

decrease with an increase in humidity

a wind that is changing in a clockwise

direction

a wind that is changing in an

anticlockwise direction

to the left

the pressure will begin to rise.

initially drizzle from stratocumulus

cloud becoming rain towards Cape
Town

115° (T)

moderate intermittent drizzle

falling then steady.

thick altostratus or nimbostratus

a fall in pressure of 3 hPa

the visibility is 200 metres in haze

 1225 grammes per cubic metre and
decreases with altitude

decrease in temperature with altitude

coriolis force.

flying towards an area of low pressure

clouds with substantial vertical

development

air which is subsiding

altocumulus

stratus or stratocumulus clouds

rain which evaporates before it reaches

the surface

Ahead of a warm front

when super-cooled drops of water

freeze on impact

there is no cloud below 5000 ft.

the visibility is 1000 m with fog in the

vicinity

light rain temporarily becoming heavy

rain between 1200 and 2000 local time
 ISA+7°C.

221/11

is indicated by a rough running engine

and a gradual decrease in RPM

a strong flow of air from the interior

is greatest during clear skies over rocky

or desert areas.

is generally unstable

the föhn wind

a sea breeze

flows up a slope during the day.

polar maritime

forms over the land and remains fairly

dry throughout.

absorb heat in the lower layers and

become unstable

rising air and a low pressure system with

instability

a cold occlusion will form

 back.

the pressure will continue to fall but at

a slower rate and then start to rise

the pressure will begin to rise

a cold front overtakes a warm front

the anti-cyclonic flow of air from a high

pressure system ridging in behind a
coastal low

there is a well developed high pressure

system to the west of Cape Town with
strong pressure gradients and a long
sea track

a strong high pressure system over

southern Africa

pressure altitude

derived by correcting the pressure

altitude for temperature.

zero

the aircraft's altitude above sea level.

 Database Question Common Answer

The position which separates the laminar air flow

pof0002 from the turbulent air flow around an aerofoil is the transition point
called:-

In accordance with Bernoulli's theory when air the velocity increases and the
pof0003
flows through the throat of a venturi tube:- pressure decreases

Bernoulli's principle states that if the velocity of air

pof0004 pressure energy must decrease
flowing through a venturi is increased, then the:-

The angle of attack of an aeroplane is defined as at which the wing is mounted on the
pof0005
the angle:- fuselage

The angle between an aerofoil's chord line and the

pof0007 the angle of attack
relative airflow is referred to as:-

pof0008 The lift force produced by an aerofoil always acts:- perpendicular to the relative airflow.

An increase in the angle of attack of an aerofoil increase the pressure below the
pof0010
will:- wing and increase drag.

On an aerofoil, the point through which the total

pof0014 centre of pressure
lift acts is called the:-

As the angle of attack of an aerofoil in normal level

pof0015 move aft
flight is increased, the centre of pressure will:-

With reference to the lift formula. If an aeroplane's

pof0016 speed is doubled whilst the angle of attack remains be four times greater.
constant, the parasite drag will:-

On an aerofoil, the point through which the total

pof0017 the centre of pressure.
lift force acts is known as:-

there will be a greater increase in

pof0021 If the gross weight of an aircraft is increased:-
induced drag than in parasite drag

In respect of an aeroplane's wing, the term "aspect

pof0023 the wingspan to the wing tip
ratio" refers to the ratio of:-

Whilst maintaining level flight, a decrease in speed

pof0024 induced drag.
will result in an increase in:-

Adverse aileron yaw, (aileron drag), will be most

pof0025 at high speeds
noticeable:-
 A design feature which is used to reduce induced
pof0026 the use of a low aspect ratio wing
drag is:-

pof0028 An increase in induced drag can be expected:- when the angle of attack is increased

pof0030 An aeroplane which has a high lift/drag ratio:- will have poor climb performance

pof0031 Induced drag is created by:- an increase in speed

pof0032 Induced drag is created by:- the lift produced by the wings.

In comparison to a high aspect ratio wing, a low

pof0033 have increased longitudinal stability
aspect ratio wing will:-

In comparison to a high aspect ratio wing, a low

pof0033 create less induced drag.
aspect ratio wing will:-

When a wing has been given washout, it means be narrower in width at the tip than
pof0035
that the wing will:- it is at the

If, during level flight, altitude must be maintained

pof0037 angle of attack must be increased
whilst reducing speed the:-

During normal level flight a reduction in power will the thrust line acts horizontal to and
pof0039
cause the nose of an aeroplane to drop because:- above the d

pof0041 During a straight climb at a constant speed:- lift is greater than weight

The relationship between the four forces in level lift is equal to weight and thrust is
pof0042
flight is that:- equal to dra

In order to maintain elevator control effectiveness, locate the centre of gravity at the
pof0043
when loading an aeroplane it would be better to:- centre of pres

The forces acting on an aeroplane in a climb are so the value of lift is greater than that
pof0044
arranged that:- of weight<

the centre of pressure is located at

pof0045 Whilst maintaining straight and level flight:-
the centre of

During straight and level flight the centre of gravity

pof0047 aft of the centre of pressure
is normally located:-
 The total lift produced by the wings during a the vertical component of lift and
pof0049
balanced level turn, must equal:- the centripetal

The total lift produced by the wings during a

pof0049 only the weight of the aeroplane
balanced level turn, must equal:-

A change in pitch will cause an aircraft to rotate

pof0050 lateral axis and centre of gravity
around its:-

A change in bank will cause an aircraft to rotate longitudinal axis and centre of
pof0051
around its:- gravity

During entry into a left hand turn from straight and

correct the adverse yaw created by
pof0054 level flight, rudder is normally applied in the same
lowering the ai
direction as ailerons in order to:-

Ailerons may have to be used to prevent the

pof0055 all turns.
aeroplane from underbanking during:-

If only rudder is applied during straight and level

pof0058 yaw followed by roll and a spiral dive
flight the following will occur:-

In order to reduce the effect of aileron drag, a

pof0059 is differential ailerons
common design feature used:-

increases as the angle of attack is

pof0060 Adverse aileron yaw (aileron drag):-
increased.

Differential ailerons are a means used on some

pof0061 reduce aileron drag
aeroplanes in order to:-

both ailerons travel through a

pof0062 The operation of frise ailerons is such that:-
greater arc up and

Frise ailerons are a design feature which may be aerodynamically balance the
pof0063
installed on some aeroplanes in order to:- controls

Frise ailerons are a design feature which may be reduce the effort required by the
pof0063
installed on some aeroplanes in order to:- pilot to operate

During a level turn to the left, the ball of the slip

pof0064 indicator is deflected to the left of centre. This a slipping turn
indicates a:-

The initial effect of uncorrected aileron drag, or cause an initial yaw to the left when
pof0065
adverse aileron yaw is to:- rolling left

pof0066 The use of a Horn balance in an aeroplane:- increases aileron effectiveness

 A mass balance, extending ahead of the hinge line,
pof0067 is attached to the leading edge of a control surface increase the control effectiveness
in order to:-

pof0069 An aircraft which has its CG too far aft would:- be difficult to control in pitch

In order to remove aerodynamic forces from the

so that they remain neutral in
pof0070 controls, balance tabs are adjusted by the pilot in
relation to the con
flight:-

An anti-balance, or anti-servo, tab which is move in the opposite direction to

pof0071
incorporated in a stabilator will:- the control surf

An anti-balance, or anti-servo, tab which is only move when activated by the

pof0071
incorporated in a stabilator will:- trim control in th

allow an aeroplane to glide at a

pof0074 Application of flap will:-
steeper angle<BR< span>

pof0075 Application of flaps during a turn will:- increase the stall speed

pof0075 Application of flaps during a turn will:- decrease the stall speed

pof0076 Application of trailing edge flaps will:- increase the Lift/Drag ratio

Flaps are provided on many light aeroplanes in decrease the stalling angle of attack
pof0077
order to:- at low speed

Trailing edge flaps are provided on an aeroplane in

pof0078 improve longitudinal stability
order to:-

During a flapless approach to land the nose

pof0079 position of the aeroplane will, in relation to a lower
normal approach with full flap, be:-

pof0080 The application of trailing edge flaps will:- increase the stalling angle of attack

pof0081 Application of trailing edge flaps will cause:- an increase in longitudinal stability

pof0082 An aeroplane will stall as a result of:- exceeding the critical angle of attack

will remain constant irrespective of

pof0083 The stalling angle of attack of a particular aerofoil:-
airspeed ban
 remains constant regardless of
pof0084 The stalling angle of attack of an aeroplane:-
airspeed or weight

During a turn an aeroplane stalls at a higher IAS because the critical angle of attack is
pof0085
than it does with the wings level:- reached at

During the approach to a power off stall in level control effectiveness decreases at a
pof0086
flight:- steady rate.<

The effect of maintaining engine power at the stall to cause a reduction in the stalling
pof0088
will be:- angle o

The potential of a normal spin to develop into a flat

pof0090 an aft centre of gravity.
spin increases with:-

In order to initiate spin recovery the controls ailerons and elevator are applied
pof0091
should be used in the following manner:- simultaneously.<

A passenger carrying aeroplane is usually designed

pof0094 dynamic stability
to have:-

Longitudinal dihedral is a design feature which may

pof0096 in the pitching plane
be used to improve stability:-

Longitudinal dihedral is a design feature used as a

pof0097 about the lateral axis
method of improving stability:-

Longitudinal dihedral is a design feature used as a

pof0097 about the longitudinal axis
method of improving stability:-

pof0098 Directional stability in an aeroplane is achieved:- through the vertical fin.

A design feature used in some aeroplanes to

pof0100 is washout
improve lateral stability:-

The force required by an aeroplane to make it turn called centrifugal force and is
pof0102
is:- produced by the wi

roll then yaw followed by a spiral

pof0104 The primary and further effects of rudder are:-
dive.

An increase in the angle of attack of an aerofoil decrease the pressure below the
pof0106
will:- wing and increase

An increase in the angle of attack of an aerofoil increase the pressure above the
pof0106
will:- wing and reduce dr
 During level flight, the centre of gravity is located forward of the centre of
pof0107
normally:- pressure

When lowering trailing edge flaps, the initial effect the centre of pressure generally
pof0111
is that:- moves aft

During a steady climb the arrangement of the four

pof0112 thrust is greater than drag
forces is such that:-

With reference to the figure below, Position B on

pof0113 the minimum drag speed
the total drag curve indicated represents:-

With reference to the figure below, Curve B on the

pof0115 parasite drag
graph indicated represents:-

pof0118 In order to maintain altitude during a turn:- only the power should be increased

The four forces acting on an aeroplane in level an increase in thrust will cause the
pof0119
flight are normally arranged so that:- nose to pitch

Wingtip stalling may be reduced by the

pof0122 washout
incorporation of:-

pof0124 The primary purpose of Fowler flaps is to:- increase the surface area of a wing

the centre of pressure moves aft of

pof0128 At high angles of attack:-
the centre of

If the pressure of a parcel of air is kept constant temperature is decreased the

pof0129
and the:- density will decreas

If the pressure of a parcel of air is kept constant temperature is increased the density
pof0129
and the:- will decreas

pof0130 With regard to humidity and air density:- humid air is less dense

If the temperature of a dry parcel of air is kept an increase in pressure will result in
pof0131
constant:- a decrease

The layer of air in contact with the surface of an

pof0132 the boundary layer
aerofoil during flight is referred to as:-

The portion of the air flow over an aerofoil, in flight,

pof0133 which comes into immediate contact with the skin friction
surface is slowed down due to the effect of:-
 The correct operation of a balance tab can be
balance tab remains fixed in the
pof0134 checked before flight by moving the elevator and
same position<BR< span>
observing that the:-
Dust which is on the surface of a wing before flight
pof0135 will often still be there at the end of the flight streamlining
because of:-
The correct operation of anti-balance tab can be
anti-balance tab moves in the
pof0136 checked before flight by moving the stabilator and
opposite direction t
observing that the:-

both wings are at the stalling angle

pof0137 During the autorotation stage of a spin to the left:-
of attack<BR< span>

In an aircraft which is spinning to the left the may increase the lift on the
pof0138
application of ailerons to the right:- outboard section of t
In order to prevent the effects of gusts or
manouevring on the structural integrity of an
pof0139 Vne
aircraft, it should not be flown under normal
operating conditions above:-
the resultant of centripetal force and
pof0140 Load factor is the term given to:-
gross weigh

During a balanced, level turn at 60° angle of bank in

pof0141 twice the gross weight
an aeroplane, the load factor is:-

The force required to turn an aeroplane in flight is

pof0142 centrifugal force
called the:-

pof0144 The symbol V in the lift formula refers to:- IAS

In terms of the International Standard Atmosphere 1225 grammes per cubic metre and
pof0147
(ISA), the sea level density of the air is:- remains constant

pof0148 Newton's First Law refers to:- equilibrium.

pof0149 Newton's Second Law refers to:- acceleration

IAS corrected for temperature and

pof0152 True airspeed (TAS) is:-
altitude

pof0154 An increase in weight will:- decrease the glide angle

pof0155 When gliding into wind:- the rate of descent will decrease.
 the range can be increased by flying
pof0157 During a glide:-
at a faster s

If power is reduced during a descent but the speed

pof0158 the range will increase.
is kept constant:-

When climbing to clear obstacles in the take-off

pof0160 at the maximum rate of climb speed
path an aeroplane should climb:-

When climbing the maximum height gained in the by climbing at the best angle of
pof0162
shortest distance will be achieved:- climb speed

The position which separates the laminar air flow

pof0002 from the turbulent air flow around an aerofoil is the transition point
called:-

pof0032 Induced drag is created by:- the lift produced by the wings.

When a wing has been given washout, it means have a decrease in the angle of
pof0035
that the wing will:- attack towards the

pof0041 During a straight climb at a constant speed:- lift is greater than weight

pof0069 An aircraft which has its CG too far aft would:- be difficult to control in pitch

During the aerodynamic stage of a spin known as the outer wing is partially unstalled
pof0092
autorotation:- whilst the i

In an aircraft which is spinning to the left the

pof0138 may delay the spin recovery.
application of ailerons to the right:-

pof0154 An increase in weight will:- decrease the glide angle

With reference to the figure below, the speed at

pof0163 the best angle of climb speed
point A indicates:-
 Right

the transition point TRUE

the velocity increases and the

TRUE
pressure decreases

pressure energy must decrease TRUE

between the chord line and the

FALSE
relative airflow

the angle of attack TRUE

perpendicular to the relative airflow. TRUE

increase the pressure below the

TRUE
wing and increase drag.

centre of pressure TRUE

move forward FALSE

be four times greater. TRUE

the centre of pressure. TRUE

there will be a greater increase in

TRUE
induced drag than in parasite drag

the wingspan to the mean

FALSE
aerodynamic chord.

induced drag. TRUE

at a high angle of attack FALSE

 washout. FALSE

when the angle of attack is increased TRUE

will have a shallow gliding angle FALSE

the pressure difference between the

FALSE
top and bottom surfaces

the lift produced by the wings. TRUE

create more induced drag FALSE

create more induced drag FALSE

have a decrease in the angle of

FALSE
incidence towards the wingtip

angle of attack must be increased TRUE

the centre of gravity is located

FALSE
forward of the centre of pressure

lift is less than weight FALSE

lift is equal to weight and thrust is

FALSE
equal to drag

have a forward centre of gravity FALSE

the value of lift is less than that of

FALSE
weight

the centre of pressure is located

FALSE
behind the centre of gravity.

forward of the centre of pressure FALSE

 the vertical component of lift and
FALSE
the centripetal force.

the vertical component of lift and

FALSE
the centripetal force.

lateral axis and centre of gravity TRUE

longitudinal axis and centre of

TRUE
gravity

correct the adverse yaw created by

lowering the aileron on the right FALSE
wing

a gliding turn FALSE

yaw followed by roll and a spiral dive TRUE

is differential ailerons TRUE

increases as the angle of attack is

TRUE
increased.

reduce aileron drag TRUE

the hinge line of both ailerons is

located slightly aft of their leading FALSE
edges.

reduce aileron drag FALSE

reduce aileron drag FALSE

a slipping turn TRUE

cause an initial yaw to the right

FALSE
when rolling left

improves the aerodynamic balance

FALSE
of the controls
 prevent control flutter. FALSE

be difficult to control in pitch TRUE

to operate in the opposite direction

to the primary control surface to FALSE
which they are attached.

move in the same direction as the

FALSE
control surface

move in the same direction as the

FALSE
control surface

allow an aeroplane to glide at a

FALSE
steeper angle

decrease the stall speed FALSE

decrease the stall speed TRUE

reduce the L/D ratio FALSE

increase both the lift and the drag FALSE

increase the value of lift created by

the wing at a particular angle of FALSE
attack and airspeed

higher. FALSE

decrease the lift/drag ratio and

FALSE
increase the glide angle.

FALSE

exceeding the critical angle of attack TRUE

will remain constant irrespective of

FALSE
airspeed bank angle or weight
 remains constant regardless of
TRUE
airspeed or weight

because the critical angle of attack is

FALSE
reached at a higher IAS.

control effectiveness decreases at a

FALSE
steady rate.

to cause a reduction in the stalling

FALSE
speed

an aft centre of gravity. TRUE

rudder is applied before elevator FALSE

dynamic stability TRUE

in the pitching plane TRUE

about the lateral axis TRUE

about the lateral axis FALSE

through the vertical fin. TRUE

is dihedral FALSE

called centripetal force and is

FALSE
created by the wings

yaw then roll followed by a spiral

FALSE
dive

decrease the pressure above the

FALSE
wing and increase drag

decrease the pressure above the

FALSE
wing and increase drag
 located forward of the centre of
TRUE
pressure

the centre of pressure generally

TRUE
moves aft

thrust is greater than drag TRUE

the minimum drag speed TRUE

parasite drag TRUE

the angle of attack must be

FALSE
increased

an increase in thrust will cause the

FALSE
nose to pitch up

washout TRUE

increase the surface area of a wing TRUE

the effect of aileron drag will be

FALSE
more noticeable

temperature is increased the density

FALSE
will decrease

temperature is increased the density

FALSE
will decrease

humid air is less dense TRUE

an increase in pressure will result in

FALSE
an increase in density

the boundary layer TRUE

skin friction TRUE

 balance tab moves in the opposite
FALSE
direction to the elevator.

skin friction. FALSE

anti-balance tab moves in the same

FALSE
direction as the elevator

the left wing will have a greater

FALSE
angle of attack than the right wing.

may delay the spin recovery. FALSE

Vno FALSE

the resultant of centrifugal force and

FALSE
gross weight during a turn

twice the gross weight TRUE

centripetal force FALSE

TAS FALSE

1225 grammes per cubic metre and

FALSE
decreases with altitude

equilibrium. TRUE

acceleration TRUE

CAS/RAS corrected for temperature

FALSE
and altitude.

have no effect on the glide angle FALSE

the glide angle will increase FALSE

application of flap will reduce the
FALSE
best L/D ratio.

the rate of descent will increase FALSE

at the best angle of climb speed FALSE

by climbing at the best angle of

TRUE
climb speed

the transition point TRUE

the lift produced by the wings. TRUE

FALSE

FALSE

be difficult to control in pitch TRUE

the outer wing is partially unstalled

FALSE
whilst the inner wing is stalled

may delay the spin recovery. TRUE

have no effect on the glide angle FALSE

the best angle of climb speed TRUE

 w
h
ae
sC
h
eo
m
n
p
m
ag
lo
i
acn
n
Database Question tye
eA
l
n
ic
in
sey
sd
lw
acgen0001 If cyclic is moved forward: x
eic
m
rn
eo
d
eskv
The horizontal stabiliser on the tail w
xsee
heli h
rci
boom: ed
isev
p
cse
fih
sto
m
n
ih
acgen0001 The primary purpose of cowl flaps is to:- h rp
tvy
ew
reo
ed
ao
srr
rvtd
n
tao
d
esru
The cylinder head temperature gauge sr
acgen0002 ele
usually obtains its reading from:- esai
w
n
h
td
ch
go
Engine cylinder barrels and heads are eiw
acgen0003 w
fe
usually fitted with fins in order to:-
en
mll
erau
The most likely cause of the over u
iri
acgen0005 extension of an oleo in an undercarriage ccn
d
o
leg is:- o
sti
ro
an
ralti
acgen0006 An over-inflated tyre may result in:- n
eih
n
td
cn
eh
tgt
ell
The purpose of a torque link on a h
o
acgen0007 ye
nosewheel shock strut assembly is to:- o cw
te
atc
n
al
eo
tii
srr
gtr
en
ep
ec
o
rd
tfe
sw
o
tsi
p
h
u
te
rh
er
at.
tt
yh
ir
en
e
.ga
it
re
fm
rp
ae
m
r
ea
t
u
r
e
.
 A semi-monocoque fuselage design is
acgen0008
one in which:-
t
h
e

i
n
f
l
a
t
i
o
rt
n
eh
aa
er
vr
ea
n
tlo
o
th
vrs
h
e
The most important structural ee
acgen0009 aw
component of a wing:-
n
tu
h
rx
o
e
The part of a wing to which the ailerons isie
acgen0010 b
eb
and flaps are usually attached is the:- ll
sri
w
h
aet
ear
acgen0011 Tyre creep may cause:- ye
kysr
le
as
m
A shimmy in the nosewheel whilst w
ip
acgen0012 p
h
taxying indicates that:- a-r
eyrm
ee
.s
o
A shimmy in the nosewheel whilst ln
fs
acgen0012
taxying indicates that:- ro
u
io
cr
sm
o
A fuselage which is constructed to allow e
acgen0013 q
the skin to take some of the load is:- o
tu
iu
h
es
te
st
o
tio
fn
ro
n
u
b
ecl
atr
o
lu
w
a
 n
i
s
2
0
d
t
°u
lh
ro
e
aiw
o
n
m
The primary load carrying component of id
ga
acgen0014
an aluminium stressed skin wing:- li
2
trn
The most likely cause of the under- i5
h
acgen0016 extension of an oleo in an undercarriage s°ep
s
leg is:- rp
sb
n
ea
teo
sr
acgen0017 Tyre creep may be expected to occur:- o
flrs
ro
m
u
ern
ar
xegle
d
b
In a Truss, or Girder-type fuselage the yh
acgen0018 e
main structural component is a: iacTrl
u
n
p
D
b
a
o
The timing of the ignition of the fuel and srC
o
n
m
acgen0020 air mixture in an internal combustion tep
d
engine is arranged to occur:- h
-d
ir
eaip
eu
n
A condition which may occur in only one n
grh
u
sg
acgen0022 cylinder of an engine as a result of too a id
em
ns.c
lean mixture is:- n
igi
p
o
gith
o
n
n
io
n
Valve overlap in the four stroke engine tn
acgen0031 id
otp
gr
will occur between the:-
elu
n
h
reao
cean
In a piston engine, the piston will have lstf
rd
acgen0033 passed BDC and be moving towards TDC rics
u
during:- tm
o
u
atp
h
n
p
m
ryro
The type of pump utilised in a piston e
ep
w
e
acgen0034 engine to provide high pressure oil atser
lubrication is a:- p
teao
n
h
rr
ersin
d p
eo
ss
Lubrication of the main bearings and lu
b
sd
acgen0035 kesm
crankshaft of the engine is provided:- tisi
eo
iu
ap
fn
ru
sm
n
.r
o
d
Dry sump piston engine lubrication tp
acgen0036 systems make use of a scavenge pump d
rike
resc
to:- ib
asto
b
arp
tf
In a wet sump piston engine lubrication u
co
lai
acgen0037
system:- stkao
o
esn
id
tih
A high oil temperature coupled with low lo
acgen0039 n
o
oil pressure:- tlgf
b
h
tu
erh
tlb
to
The oil in a wet sump lubrication system eh
rw
acgen0040 o
passes through the oil cooler:- u
iew
ego
ce
h
iao
p
An oil pressure gauge is usually located n
o
lrit
acgen0041
in the oil line of a wet sump system:- u
ielt
to
sh
asn
The purpose of the pressure relief valve etn
acgen0042 .
u
in a lubrication system is to:- h
krp
p
eep
r
ele
p
ys
n
u
.s
gm
u
ip
rn
 ettl
h
ah
eei
w
ria
gid
gvfh
leh
iu
b
led
n
ev
o
rgo
lcs
The temperature of the oil in a wet lp
so
acgen0043 sump lubrication system is usually titf
measured:- n
as
h
ritar
aen
o
gik
The function of the distributor in a n
cgm
en
acgen0045 o
ru
magneto is to:-
itesite
sh
ln
tgau
o
u
The purpose of baffles in an aircraft’s etch
rta
n
acgen0047 recigto
fuel tank is to:- lesd
o
tih
lu
o
aen
iry
The purpose of an impulse coupling in a lsn
m
b
gu
o
acgen0049 eygn
p
magneto is to: si
riap
n
ab
tn
aw
p
The electrical current produced by a o
h
eo
rit
acgen0050
magneto:- red
u
kth
w
ao
iseh
te
fsltrp
lu
cad
If the earth wire from a magneto to the tllw
o
acgen0053 tu
eh
rd
aircraft structure is broken:- h
eilw
iatu
rgef
ln
ris
ltsgn
w
im
au
egn
The fuel supply line from the fuel tank to am
atm
acgen0054 p
gal
the engine normally:-
eatf
p
n
gslrg
d
o
sen
o
yn
d
ite
In some magneto ignition systems an
acgen0055 impulse coupling is used as a method o
eirago
trt
of:- rh
uo
io
itn
sco
o
h
w
The presence of carburettor icing would afh
tn
acgen0056 rw
eio
teh
be indicated by:- ao
itrn
erlu
tct
rcagh
acgen0058
When the throttle is opened quickly, the teacfh
h
throttle accelerator pump will:- taeh
riau
cise
rm
beau
o
n
An accelerator pump is often vip
u
b
ln
rem
acgen0060 incorporated in a carburettor in order u
rd
rtn
o
to:- ierri
efh
txtien
au
est
An engine which starts to run rough and tft
acgen0061 then slowly loses power is probably to
ru
tid
u
o
iareo
suffering from:- efr
esrtc
rb
lft
ih
ro
acgen0063 When leaning the fuel/air mixture:- icd
u
b
ettm
p
ten
ao
iuo
tcgn
rvsts
eagsie
acgen0064 The application of carburettor heat:- ah
iru
eie
.n
tfst
gtrii
letu
n
b
o
ylh
rain
acgen0065 Carburettor icing is most likely to occur:- o
iesR
tvf
gP
ta
h
M
relt
revh
p
ye
d
tu
o
h
w
co
h
ee
rir
d
gb
ih
o
 d
r
u
e
c
es
d
e
t
it
w
si
The blade angle of a propeller varies ai
acgen0070 n
lc
from hub to tip in order to:- gls
o
m
n
The correct sequence for increasing iag
acgen0074 power in an aeroplane with a Constant sn let
Speed Unit (CSU) is:- cln
ar
ten
During take-off in an aeroplane eb
rt
h
equipped with a Constant Speed Unit laae
acgen0076 sat
(CSU), it would be most beneficial to m
ae
have:- ed
sal
tieo
ta
n
h
h
If an aeroplane, with a fixed pitch aieg
en
propeller, is placed in a shallow dive so n D
c
acgen0078 gm
C
that forward speed increases with no o
tR
change in power setting, the RPM will:- w lfin
h
ieP
srxe
M
lo
u
t
After starting an engine black smoke is lp m
at
u
acgen0079 seen coming from the exhaust. This h
p
rn
indicates:- cyh
lfeto
eo
d
yp
u
n
n
rei
An operational advantage of the tlo
acgen0083 w
sr
alternator is that it:- icil
itl
n
h
ec
u
lo
The correct level of electrolyte in a lead eh rh
eo
acgen0085 acid battery should be maintained by the ao ekru
addition of:- b
tin
srlt
o
cia
One of the advantages of refuelling an tw u
cd
acgen0086 aeroplane with full tanks after flight is h
p
iash
eve
that:- rlci
o
iln
lm
d
g
tiu
b
One of the benefits of the DC generator p axcea
acgen0087 rgt
is that it:-
eo
ceu
rto
m
rp
eo
d
Control of the voltage output from a DC en reeo
rccv
acgen0089 .te
generator is achieved through a:- ew
teag
eo
irm
The use of fuel with a lower octane u
rtn
efp
acgen0092 rating than that recommended by the lai
h
ea
aircraft manufacturer may lead to:- tseetr
tir
h
eo
The storage capacity of a battery is l.e-
co
acgen0093 rln
usually expressed in:- iyh
o
rA
o
w
n
cC
u
A rectifier is required in an alternator in o ru
sit
acgen0099
order to:- o
sp
i.
tu
ec
A reverse current cut-out relay, or circuit tee
f
acgen0100 breaker, is used in a generator supplied p d
rd
u
electrical system to:- so
t.
m
i
b
n
et
io
n
gD
 cv
aap
t
lrth
vere
eso
tsu
th
w
u
gh
eo
ih
re
The purpose of the engine driven vn
ie
acgen0101 vacuum pump used in an aircraft's ae3
csf
d
gyroscopic instrument system is to:- rlih
w
m
lt
-cio
a
The purpose of the engine driven riaitlw
acgen0102 vacuum pump used in an aircraft's m
e5
tsh
gyroscopic instrument system is to:- l
eaei
o
td
iln
jfr
Over-speeding of vacuum driven gyro etn
o
ee
acgen0105 rch
b
rotor is prevented by:- tm
c
eh
aeu
sa
cetr
The suction required to operate vacuum iavsero
acgen0106
driven gyroscopes is usually between:- n rd
u
o
in
e
so
ln
tn
u
ep
fjttso
A left-zero ammeter is incorporated in n eau
ta
acgen0108 etm
an electrical system to:- sgrti
fh
d
etu
h
n
fer
tm
ee
iicb
ec
o
A voltmeter may be incorporated in an n cu
en
gt
acgen0109 d
o
rftya
electrical system to:- eciyo
trn
d
ckrh
o
cd
ap
eao
u
tisr
n
o
n
o
The instruments that would be affected tteo lu
acgen0112 rlh
by a static vent blockage are:- it.e
p
en
o
sar
cu
rs
o
en
tvef
If the alternate static vent, located in the d sra
aircraft's cockpit, is opened in flight in tsci
acgen0113 th
vcu
response to a blocked external static o
h
vent, the altimeter will:- erau
er
eilm
at
n
b
If the alternate static vent, located in the liisp d
atrc
aircraft's cockpit, is opened in flight in syu
itica
acgen0113
response to a blocked external static sm
crtm
vent, the altimeter will:- ltp
u
aeae
s.etr
ftsu
m
eytep
The instruments which would be a
r
acgen0115 affected by a blockage in both pitot tube leti
and static vent are:- leh
o
sV
yd
evS
eIlp
i
arn
o
l-aed
A blockage of the static vent during a w
acgen0117 trn
descent would cause the ASI to:- sie
ied
scr
tau
a
u
d
rA
t
d
Sih
o
If, during a descent, the static vent eIsr
acgen0119 a
becomes blocked the altimeter will:- e.
n
ad
t
t
h
w
eh
i
o
c
u
h
t
st
 eatn
itr
d
o
b
ite
rcm
am
aa
ip
atp
eri
elxrn
sed
ep
p
so
If, during level flight, the static vent asces
acgen0121 p
becomes blocked the ASI reading will:- o eso
n u
erd
u
n
d
r
rse
a
The green arc on an airspeed indicator rcetc
acgen0124 tea
represents:- o
ic
d
iu
rn
stn
estrt
gici
b
acgen0126 In a simple airspeed indicator:- efef
h
rn
face
stieg
td
p
w
aed
eed
acgen0127 In a simple airspeed indicator:- sttd
eeh
td
h
o
d
n
aeo
efi
tco
tsr
acgen0128 Calibrated or Rectified airspeed is:- h
itreh
tsaen
h
ien
ap
sen
agit
escst
n
iie
acgen0129 True airspeed is:- trcen
scd
aeu
ets
tam
p
rtac
The basic principle of operation of an isteh
u
rn
acgen0130 airspeed indicator is to measure the o
cu
en
m
ad
ru
differential between:- tlsem
rp
aeh
cn
ep
erte
As altitude is increased the capsule ab
n
iceo
acgen0136 u
ett
inside an altimeter will:- sstea
o
esh
aen
ctd
As altitude is decreased the capsule u
h
em
d
a
acgen0137 areo
o
sp
inside an altimeter will:- fesw
p
e
ro
n
raeo
The presence of black oily deposits in erim
arss
acgen0140 the firing end cavity of a spark plug d
n
etap
aiesp
would probably indicate:- ien
tu
co
td
rei
During a descent the pressure in the rsh
aio
acgen0144 capsule of a vertical speed indicator (VSI) d eitsn
in
will:- atn
ecw
sicctr
During a climb the pressure inside the eio
aeerh
tn
acgen0145 case of a vertical speed indicator (VSI) saeh
will:- r
esao
ete
During a descent the pressure inside the sp rtr
o
h
reo
acgen0146 case of a vertical speed indicator (VSI) rfei
will:- o
o
sn
ir
tp
sr
n
h
ai
ru
The instantaneous vertical speed
e
acgen0147 indicator (IVSI) utilises an accelerometer lsrc
to:- stteh
isa
tn
ta
u
w
siru
During the initiation of a climb the ted
ctm
acgen0148 accelerometer in an instantaneous rh
ei
vertical speed indicator (IVSI) will:- u
w
ix
p
m
rin
t
eetu
n
h
str
tih
se
n
e
u
d
r
u
tec
rh
a
 sn
h
eo
ea
ru
t
b
iva
glr
ilie
td
-g
is
h
An operational problem of the ten
acgen0149 conventional VSI which does not occur in th yo
d
the Instantaneous VSI is:- tu
a
u
eacln
n
ged
The two properties associated with a d
sl
acgen0151
spinning gyroscope are:- im
V
et
p
o
eo
s
h
rn
vce
With reference to the Attitude Indicator etrea
acgen0154 or Artificial Horizon, as an aircraft co
iu
h
re
changes its pitch attitude or bank:- fcretso
sao
itt
sn
ap
lh
ai
The gyroscope used in a direction o
teg
acgen0155 o
sih
ai
indicator is a:- n
p
xn
erao
ri.ten
Apparent wander in a Direction Indicator iesrla
acgen0157 n
reclo
is caused by:-
gfr
yw
ta
Wear in the bearings and gimbals as well m irfat
acgen0159
as air turbulence will have the effect of:- o latn
h
u
.’e
ln
d
n
es
d
The indications on a turn indicator ts
acgen0162 during a turn to the right whilst taxying reeh lta
are:- d
o
h
r
w
efn
t
If the rotor speed of a turn indicator b
rh
g
acgen0164 eain
increases above normal:- a
te
w
elgu
ted
y
acgen0166 The turn indicator makes use of a:- h
egslri
en
yseo
rea
Control of the precession of the gyro in a ato rsl
acgen0167 n
turn indicator is achieved by:- h
h
gerao
lau
xb
The needle of a turn co-ordinator egtli
acgen0168 ai
shows:- ed
sl
o
m
afb
o
sn
afh
cb
lo
ea
acgen0169 The diagram below indicates a:- stw
d
n
au
l
kn
rait
d
n
p
u
rr
p
ti
n
h
g
n
acgen0170 The diagram below indicates a:- eh
g
t
ct
au
t
su
r
ern
.n
o
.
f

t
h
 e
af
n
u
l
iel
sa
ar
l
The type of gyro used in an attitude ete
acgen0172 frh
indicator is:- ai
en
xcg
During take-off the error which may be eytp
acgen0173 expected from an air-driven Artificial d
iro
Horizon, or Attitude Indicator:- o
sp
.i
n
o
tp
ie
During flight the gyro in a Direction irn
acgen0174
Indicator aligns itself with:- ero
tr
-n
io
An aircraft engine is designed to operate ir
gsn
on a specific octane rating. Using fuel of u
acgen0177 n
a higher octane than recommended may n
icts
result in:- sti
ap
h
ilu
ao
A manually operated primer pump scw
n
acgen0179 should always be used to prime a cold et
engine for start because:- h
d
ae
n
b
ety
an
h
p
When attempting to start an engine lge
acgen0182
which has been over-primed or flooded:- p io
an
cp
re
ao
e
lw
n
f
In the southern hemisphere, an aircraft eti
is to maintain a constant heading of 090° m r
ra
acgen0186 (M) on a magnetic compass. If the te
aircraft speed is increased from 80 kts to go u
sin
110 kts the compass would:- u
r
setn
atp
ain
u
t
The deviation error found in a magnetic cd to
acgen0187 f
compass:-
tifo
th
fxih
When executing a turn from 160° e1
en
through south to 210°, in the southern d la
9
acgen0189 hemisphere, using only a magnetic d
0
n
s
compass, the most appropriate heading rv°so
to roll out on would be:- iaa
u
cl
lw
th
u
ith
ete
Compass deviation in a particular n
rh
acgen0192
aircraft:- fien
d
o
n
a
rt
sto
acgen0195 In comparison to a generator:- elrh
aeo
cw
w
lh
ai
yli
h
rl
ect
aro
b
d
ae
ikf
teg
n
ger
p
 vu
o
t
la
u
ta
m
o
le
rl
o
o
tw
rfM
o
The operating principle of a DC o
S
acgen0197 tu
generator is that it:- Lfc
h
tlo
eeu
tan
siev
am
d
A hydraulic system operates on the basic ee
d
acgen0199 fp
err
principle that:- iectt
o
lh
r
p
teaeD
let
The pilot of an aircraft which is equipped aC
ari
with manifold pressure gauge would be u
sn
acgen0200 en
reis
able to identify the presence of ed
carburettor icing by:- cen
p
rit
tlao
en
io
ifa
With reference to the figure below, the
acgen0201 trs
trailing edge flap type indicated is:- A
R
fae1
C
P
lft5
d
.yl
FM
o
°o
ap
C
w
p
tarl
th
ee
With reference to the figure below, the easr
acgen0203 an
trailing edge flap type indicated is:- s
eu
1
d
fh
x2
rl
ih
lea
2
ga5
p
h
u
w
p
.e
sgi
rtrel
acgen0204 The effect of slats is to:-
aal
ap
m
r
tin
b
m
a
According to the International Standard d
gu
acgen0205 p
eit
Atmosphere (ISA) there is a:- ab
les
re
ste
According to the International Standard trp
o
cm
u
acgen0206 Atmosphere (ISA), the density of air at feo
at
sea level is:- b
fo
rn
leu
r1
sy
ac.m
n
Application of “alternate air” in a fuel m
th
acgen0208 iu
9
io
injection system:- teb
tn
8
u
aai°t
d
tn
ctcC
An aircraft’s pitot tube is usually eo
acgen0210 tikd
mounted:- en
m
/t
d
age1
b
h
tn
ye
t0
acgen0211 Pitot pressure is taken from:- ih
d
b
r0
n
ete0
aa
fh
itr
o
fer
acgen0212 Normal static pressure is taken from:- h
elrt
felo
efl
aw
lo
u
retep
u
w
eirn
lvtd
aeo
tir
iari3
visn
6
ergp
 tt
n
s
h
h
si
eo
h
n
ro
u
lru
to
d
lh
rd
The effect of having two static vents e
b
acgen0213 located one on either side of an aircraft’s ew b
fuselage is that:- ai
eri
lp
elru
The alternate static valve draws air rm
acgen0214 csa
from:- ear
b
h
p
iaw
eel
an
If the speed of an aeroplane fitted with a fad an
fixed pitch propeller decreases, but the rtc
acgen0215 tb
ee
n
throttle setting remains constant the ah
RPM will:- cd
aid
cn
eo
u
cc
gcko
The component of a hydraulic system u
ske
acgen0219 which stores hydraulic fluid under n
m
ap
pressure is called:- ild
lu
im
n
ylet
g
Loss of pressure in a hydraulic system is ah .o
o
acgen0220 tt
h
indicated to the pilot:- n
n
o
al
crv
u
ye
In the event that a fuse in an electrical is
acgen0222 n
circuit has blown:- u
o
w
gn
ai
lct
In the event that a circuit breaker in an aleh
acgen0223 y
electrical circuit has tripped:-
h
aa
ifr
get
Control of the precession of the gyro in a fh d
eu
turn indicator is achieved by:- rs
r
eo
a
tl
o
o
lf
ro
w
ts
ih
p
n
ee
g
e
sd
aa
m
ce
o
o
r
la
it
n
i
gn
g
o
f
f

p
e
r
i
o
d
 Right

Helps generate aerodynamic lift to prevent

tailboom from dipping

control the flow of air over the engine cylinders in

order to maintain the correct operating
temperature.

a cylinder which tests show runs the hottest

improve engine cooling

high air pressure.

excessive tread wear in the centre of the tyre.

keep the nosewheel correctly aligned with the

airframe
the shape and rigidity of the fuselage is provided by
formers and stringers whilst the stressed skin
carries part of the load

is the main spar

rear or auxiliary spar.

the inflation valve to break away from the inner

tube

the torque links are worn or have failed

the torque links are worn or have failed

a semi-monocoque structure
 is the main spar

low air pressure

during the normal landing.

longeron

between 20° and 25° before TDC during the

compression stroke

pre-ignition

exhaust and induction strokes

the compression and exhaust strokes.

gear type pump.

by both high pressure oil and splash lubrication.

pump oil from the sump back to the oil tank

oil is stored in the engine sump and distributed

throughout the engine by a pressure pump

are an indication of low oil supply.

before being fed to the engine components

between the pressure relief valve and the sump

maintain a constant oil pressure over a range of

engine power changes
 after leaving the oil cooler

provide high voltage to the spark plugs

prevent the fuel from surging about during flight

produce a strong retarded spark usually in the left

magneto for easier starting

is created by a rotating magnet

the engine will continue to run with the magneto

switch in the off position

draws fuel from a position higher than the sump to

allow water or other impurities to settle at the
bottom of the tank

producing a strong retarded spark during the low

RPM of engine start.

the engine starting to run rough and a decrease in

RPM

discharge additional fuel into the venturi

provide extra fuel when the throttle is opened

rapidly.

carburettor icing.

the ratio of fuel to air is reduced

will also richen the mixture because of the higher

air temperature

at the venturi butterfly valve or inlet manifold

ensure that the thrust produced is constant along
the propeller blade

richen the mixture increase the RPM then increase

the manifold pressure setting

a small blade angle

increase

that the mixture is too rich

will still produce electrical power at low RPM

distilled water

full tanks will minimise condensation forming

overnight

does not rely on battery power to bring it on line.

voltage regulator

detonation

ampere-hours.

convert the AC output into DC

prevent the flow of current from the battery to the

generator
 remove air from the instrument case

decrease the pressure within the instrument case.

a pressure relief valve which is located just before

the vacuum pump.

3 - 5 inches of mercury

indicate the flow of current from the alternator.

indicate the voltage in the electrical system

the altimeter airspeed indicator and vertical speed

indicator.

over-read because the cockpit pressure is usually

lower than the outside pressure

over-read because the cockpit pressure is usually

lower than the outside pressure

the altimeter VSI and ASI

over-read

continue to indicate the altitude at which the

blockage occurred.
 remain constant

the normal operating speed range

pitot pressure is fed to the capsule

static pressure is fed to the case.

indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and

position error

calibrated or rectified airspeed corrected for

temperature and density

between static and pitot pressure

expand causing the instrument to shown an

increase in altitude

contract causing the instrument to shown a

decrease in altitude

that oil is slipping past the piston rings and is being

burnt in the combustion chamber

increase

decrease at a slower rate than that inside the

capsule

increase at a slower rate than that inside the

capsule

decrease the static pressure of the capsule during

the initiation of a descent.

cause a rapid decrease in static pressure in the

capsule.
 manoeuvre-induced error

rigidity and precession.

the gyro remains in the vertical relative to the

earth.

Horizontal axis gyro

the rotation of the earth

causing real wander of a gyro

the ball should move to the left and the needle

should show a right turn.

the pointer will show a higher rate of turn

rate gyro

the tension of a spring mounted between the

gimbal and the case of the instrument

the rate of turn

balanced turn

slipping turn.
 an earth gyro.

is a temporary error in both pitch and roll

a fixed point in space

lead fouling of the spark plugs

the primer is more effective than the throttle

accelerator pump and will pump more fuel into the
venturi as a result

the mixture should be in the full lean position until

the engine fires and then richened slowly to keep
the engine running

show an apparent turn to the south

is caused by local magnetic fields within the aircraft

190°

varies with each heading

the power output of an alternator will be greater at

a lower rpm
 it is self-excited and does not require the use of a
battery

when pressure is increased on a confined volume of

fluid the increased pressure will be transmitted by
the fluid

a decrease in manifold pressure

a split flap

a Fowler flap.

allow the aeroplane to fly at a higher angle of

attack and a lower airspeed

MSL temperature of 15°C and lapse rate of

1.98°C /1000 ft up to 36 090 ft

1225 grammes per cubic metre

feeds air from within the engine cowling to the

induction system

directly into the airflow

a tube mounted in the relative airflow

a port located in an area of undisturbed air

 position error will be reduced

within the aircraft cockpit.

decrease

an accumulator

a warning light usually red

it should be replaced only once with a fuse of the

same rating

it should be pushed back in only once after allowing

a cooling off period

the tension of a spring mounted between the

gimbal and the case of the instrument
 Database Question

An aircraft is flying from A (32° E) in an westerly direction to B (12° W) along the equator.
nav0003
The aircraft:-

nav0005 On the earth:-

nav0007 Convergency is defined as being:-

nav0010 When applied to an aeronautical chart, the term “topographical chart” means:-

nav0014 The scale of a chart is expressed as 15 cm to 25 nm. As a representative fraction, this is:-

An aeronautical chart which portrays the earth's features with a very little distortion, is
nav0015
known as:-

An aeronautical chart which portrays the earth's features with a very little distortion, is
nav0015
known as:-

nav0024 The scale of a Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection is correct:

nav0025 On a chart constructed using the Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection:

nav0026 On a chart constructed using the Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection:-

On a chart constructed using the Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection, a rhumb line
nav0029
track:-

nav0031 When magnetic variation is indicated as "West", it means that:-

nav0032 When magnetic variation is indicated as "East", it means that:-

An aircraft on a cross country flight is to maintain a heading of 290° (M). From the figures
nav0034 extracted from the compass correction card in the figure below, the compass heading to
steer is:-
 An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is to maintain a constant heading of 270° (M) on a
nav0035
magnetic compass. If the aircraft's speed is increased the compass would:-

An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is to maintain a constant heading of 360° (M) using
nav0038
a magnetic compass. If the airspeed is decreased the compass would:-

nav0040 Compass deviation:-

nav0045 One kilometre is defined as:-

Overhead HEIDELBERG VOR (HGV), (S26° 42' E028° 18'), en route DURBAN
nav0047 INTERNATIONAL, (S29° 58' E030° 58'), TAS 120, W/V 100/15. The mean magnetic heading
to steer is:-

Overhead PILANESBERG, (S25° 32, E027° 12'), at 0730 UTC, en route MAPUTO, (S25° 55'
nav0049
E032° 34'), FL095, OAT -5°C, RAS 103 kts, W/V 240/10. The ETA for MAPUTO is:-

With reference to the figure below, the symbol, appearing on a South African 1:1000 000
nav0065
aeronautical chart, indicates:-

With reference to the figure below, the symbol, appearing on a South African 1:1000 000
nav0070
aeronautical chart, indicates that:-

An aircraft flies from A to B, distance 133 nm, in 1 hour and 12 minutes. If there is a
nav0075
headwind of 12 kts the TAS is:-

Track 183° (T), Heading 209° (M), TAS 110 kts, Groundspeed 118 kts, variation 19° W. The
nav0078
W/V is:-

nav0081 Track 115° (T), Heading 110° (T), TAS 115 kts, Groundspeed 105 kts. The W/V is:

nav0082 Track 184° (T), Drift 5° left, Variation 22°W, deviation 4° West. The compass heading is:-
 At 1415 an aircraft was overhead a VOR maintaining radial 215° en route for B, heading
nav0083
210° (M). At 1430, the pilot decides to return to the VOR. The heading to steer is:-

An aircraft is flying from Alpha to Bravo, total distance 96 nm. After flying for 40 nm a fix is
nav0084
obtained which places the aircraft 3 nm right of track. The track error is:-

An aircraft is flying from EAST LONDON, (S33° 03' E027° 50'), to COOKHOUSE NDB, (S32°
nav0086 45' E025° 49'), drift 8°L. The relative bearing required from the COOKHOUSE NDB to
maintain the track is:-

Track 145° (T), W/V 220/20, TAS 125 kts, variation 22°W. The magnetic heading to steer
nav0089
is:-

An aircraft with a TAS of 110 kts, flies from A to B, distance 148nm, in 1 hr 14 mins. The
nav0090
TAS required to fly from B back to A in 1 hr 20 mins is:-

nav0091 FL105, temperature ISA + 1°, RAS 85 kts. The TAS will be:-

Track 002° (T), W/V 315/15, TAS 115 kts, variation 18°W, deviation 2° West. The compass
nav0094
heading to fly is:-

nav0099 Official day is defined as the period:-

nav0102 Sunset is defined as:-

nav0103 Sunrise is defined as:-

nav0104 South Africa uses a standard time factor of:-

nav0106 Aircraft heading 175° (C), variation 18° W, Deviation 4° W. The aircraft’s true heading is:-

nav0108 When compass deviation is indicated as "West", it means that:-

An aircraft is to fly from A to B, distance 235 nm, TAS 90 kts, tailwind 5 kts, cruise fuel flow
nav0111 8.5 USG/Hr, assume 3 USG is required to take-off and climb to cruising altitude and the
reserve fuel requirement is 9 USG. The total fuel required is:-

If the local mean time at airfield A, longitude E018° 45', is 0818 then, if both positions are
nav0112
in South Africa, the time, UTC, at airfield B, longitude E021° 45' will be:-

nav0114 Distance 185 nm, GS 95, fuel flow 6.8 USG/hr. The trip fuel is:-
nav0121 Distance flown 88 nm, flight time 43 minutes. The groundspeed is:-

nav0123 W/V 290/15, TAS 90 kts, Track 320° (T). The heading is:-

nav0125 When referring to direction on the earth the cardinal points are:-

Aircraft heading 008° (T), variation 24° W, Deviation 4° West. The aircraft’s compass
nav0129
heading is:-

nav0132 TAS 110 kts, W/V 155/15, Track 085° (T). The drift is:-

nav0167 40 US gallons equals:-

nav0171 Airfield elevation 2800 ft, QNH 1023. The pressure altitude is:-

nav0172 Airfield elevation 3000 ft, QNH 1003. The pressure altitude is:-

nav0173 Airfield elevation 4150 ft, QNH 1018. The pressure altitude is:-

nav0174 Airfield elevation 1090 ft, QNH 1016, temperature +22°C. The density altitude is:-

nav0174 Airfield elevation 1090 ft, QNH 1016, temperature +22°C. The density altitude is:-

nav0184 Using the following information, W/V 220/10, Hdg 176° (T), TAS 100 kts:-

nav0188 W/V 045/12, Track 101° (T), drift 6° right, TAS 95 kts. The groundspeed is:-

nav0195 If official night ends at 0500, the time of sunrise is:-

nav0197 If official night in South Africa starts at 1645 UTC, the local time of sunset is:-

nav0198 If official day in South Africa starts at 0325 UTC, the local time of sunrise is:-
nav0199 If the time of sunset in South Africa is given as 1615 UTC, official night begins at:-

nav0202 The axis about which the earth rotates is between:-

nav0203 The longitude of a position refers to its location:-

nav0206 The reference for the measurement of latitude is:-

nav0208 Convergency:-

nav0213 The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is called:-

With reference to the figure below, the symbol, appearing on a South African 1:1000 000
nav0214
aeronautical chart, indicates:-

nav0218 Flight time A to B = 1 hour 15 minutes, fuel flow 7.3 USG/hr. The trip fuel is:-

The mean magnetic track and distance from BISHO (S32° 55’ E027° 16’) to BURGERSDORP
nav0224
(S30° 58’ E026° 20’) is:-

An aircraft, maintaining a heading of 295° (C), obtains a relative bearing of 345° from an
nav0231 NDB. If the aircraft’s variation is 20° W and deviation is 3° E, the bearing to plot from the
NDB is:-
At 0830 an aircraft was overhead NELSPRUIT (S25° 30’ E030° 55’) on track for
nav0233 PILANESBURG (S25° 22’ E027° 12’). At 0924 the aircraft crosses radial 020 WIV (S25° 50’
E029° 12’). The groundspeed is:-

An aircraft climbs from 2500 ft to 9500 ft at a constant rate of climb of 350 fpm. If the
nav0243
mean climb groundspeed is 85 kts the distance covered during the climb is:-

nav0251 When referring to direction on the earth the quadrantal points are:-

nav0252 When referring to direction on the earth the cardinal points are:-

nav0255 When magnetic variation is indicated as "East":-

nav0256 When magnetic variation is indicated as "West":-

nav0265 Pressure altitude 5000 ft, temperature ISA +23°C. The density altitude is:-

nav0266 Rectified airspeed (RAS) or Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:-

nav0270 Runway 16 in use, surface wind 270/12. The aircraft would have a:-

The significance of the two standard parallels on a Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection
nav0296
is that:-

The type of chart projection which is constructed by placing a cone around an imaginary
nav0299
earth, so that it cuts the earth at two different parallels of latitude is called a:-

The type of chart on which meridians of longitude and parallels of latitude are at 90° to
nav0011
each other is called:-

An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is to maintain a constant heading of 270° (M) on a

nav0035
magnetic compass. If the aircraft's speed is increased the compass would:-

nav0130 TAS 100 kts, W/V 005/15, Track 345° (T). The groundspeed is:-

nav0266 Rectified airspeed (RAS) or Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:-

 Right

flying both a great circle and rhumb

line track

a parallel of latitude is a rhumb line

the angle between adjacent

meridians.

that the earth’s features are

represented with a minimum of
distortion

1: 308 833 308833.33333

orthomorphic

orthomorphic

only at the standard parallels.

convergency is constant throughout

the chart but correct only at the
parallel of origin

a rhumb line will cut each meridian

at the same angle

will always cut every meridian at

the same angle

magnetic north is located to the

west of true north

magnetic north is located to the

east of true north

288° (C)
show an apparent turn to the south

continue to show the same heading.

usually varies on all headings in the

same aircraft

one ten thousandth of the distance

from the equator to either pole

160° (M)

0948 UTC

a VOR facility co-located with a

compulsory reporting point

the aerodrome does not have

runway lights

123 kts

306/16

069/14

215° (C)
 040° (M)

4.5°.

352°

176° (M)

TAS 121

100 kts

017° (C)

from 15 minutes before sunrise to

15 minutes after sunset

being 15 minutes before the start of

official night

when the very first part of the sun

appears above the horizon

UTC +2

153° (T)

compass north is to the west of

magnetic north.

33 USG

0630 UTC

13.3 USG
 123 kts

315° (T).

north east south and west

036° (C)

7° left

151 litres

2500 ft

3300 ft.

4000 ft

2080 ft.

2080 ft.

the track is 172° (T) and the

groundspeed is 93 kts

88 kts

515

1830 LMT

0540 LMT.
 1830 LMT.

true north and true south

east or west of the prime meridian

the equator.

is greater at high latitudes than it is

at low latitudes

variation

an isogonal.

9.1 USG

001° (M) and 127 nm.

083°. 83

102 kts

28 nm

045° 135° 225° 315°

360° 090° 180° and 270°

the value of variation must be

subtracted from a true heading to
obtain a magnetic heading
 the value of variation must be
added to a true heading to obtain a
magnetic heading

7760 ft.

IAS corrected for instrument and

position errors

4 kt tailwind

they are the points where the cone

of the projection cuts through the
imaginary earth’s surface and
therefore the scale of the chart is
only correct at these points

Lambert conformal conic projection

orthomorphic.

show an apparent turn to the south

86 kts

IAS corrected for instrument and

position errors
 Database Question

A loaded aircraft's CG is 88.8", weight 2300 lbs, MAUW 2500 lbs. The pilot decides to add an
fppa0003
additional 22 USG of fuel, SW 6 lbs/USG, (arm 93.0"). The new CG is:-

A loaded aircraft's CG is 88.8", weight 2300 lbs, MAUW 2500 lbs. The pilot decides to add an
fppa0003
additional 22 USG of fuel, SW 6 lbs/USG, (arm 93.0"). The new CG is:-

A loaded aircraft's CG is 88.3", weight 2450 lbs. During flight the aircraft will burn off 280
fppa0005
lbs of fuel (arm 93.0"). The landing CG is:-

A loaded aircraft's CG is 89.2", weight 2470 lbs. During flight the aircraft burns off 173 lbs of
fppa0009
fuel (arm 93.0"). The landing CG will have:-

fppa0016 Airfield elevation 1200 ft, QNH 1003 hPa. The pressure altitude is:-

fppa0028 An increase in temperature at a particular airfield would have the effect of:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Flaps Up Take-off Ground Roll. OAT +20°C, pressure altitude
fppa0047
5000 ft, weight 2400 lbs, 10 kts headwind. The ground roll required is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Flaps Up Take-off Ground Roll. OAT +30°C, pressure altitude
fppa0050 2500 ft, 10 kts headwind, runway length available 1200 ft. The maximum weight for this
take-off is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-8: Time, Distance and Fuel to Climb. Departure airfield pressure
fppa0061 altitude 3000 ft, OAT +30°C, cruising level FL095, OAT 0°C. The distance covered during the
climb is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Engine Performance. Pressure altitude 8 500 ft, OAT ISA+2°C,
fppa0065
65% power. The RPM required is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Engine Performance. Pressure altitude 6 500 ft, OAT +10°C,
fppa0066
60% power. The RPM required is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Engine Performance. Pressure altitude 4 500 ft, temperature
fppa0069
ISA. The RPM at 70% power is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-10: Speed Power - Performance Cruise. Pressure altitude 7 500
fppa0071
ft, OAT+5°C, 65% power. The TAS is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-11: Speed Power - Economy Cruise. Pressure altitude 10 500 ft,
fppa0076
OAT 0°C, 55% power. The TAS is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-13: Range – EconomyCruise. Pressure altitude 10 500 ft,
fppa0085
temperature ISA, 55% power. The range with no reserve is approximately:-
 With reference to Figure 1-15: Time, Fuel and Distance to Descend. Cruising pressure
fppa0092 altitude 9 500 ft, OAT -5°C, destination pressure altitude 2 500 ft, OAT +15°C. The time taken
for the descent is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Gross Weight, 25° Flaps, 30° bank. The Indicated
fppa0112
stall speed is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Weight 2350 lbs, 40° Flaps. The Indicated stall
fppa0113
speed in straight and level is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Weight 2350 lbs, 40° Flaps. The Indicated stall
fppa0113
speed in straight and level is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Weight 2250 lbs, 25° Flaps, 15° bank. The
fppa0116
Indicated stall speed is approximately:-

fppa0123 300 litres of fuel, SG 0.72. The weight of the fuel in lbs is:-

fppa0130 SG 0.73, fuel weight 108 kg. The volume of fuel in litres is:-

An aircraft achieves a performance of 3.8 air nautical miles/litre. If the fuel flow is 7.8
fppa0133
USG/hr the TAS is:-

An aircraft’s performance is 2.0 ground nautical miles/lb. If the fuel flow is 8.5 USG/hr
fppa0134
(SG .71), and there is a headwind component of 8 kts the TAS is:-

An aircraft achieves a performance of 3.5 air nautical miles/litre, fuel flow is 8.5 USG/hr,
fppa0135
tailwind component 7 kts. The groundspeed is:-

fppa0138 The term “utility category” means that an aircraft:-

fppa0139 The maximum zero fuel weight of an aircraft is the empty weight of the aircraft:-

An aircraft flies from A to B with 27 USG of fuel on board. The trip fuel is 14 USG and
fppa0140 alternate and reserve fuel is 9 USG. If the holding fuel flow is 6.5 USG/hr, the aircraft could
hold overhead B, without using the reserve fuel, for:-

fppa0146 The maximum ramp weight of an aircraft:-

fppa0148 A stopway:-

fppa0149 A clearway:-
 Runway length 1550 metres, displaced threshold 30 metres. The take-off distance available
fppa0150
(TODA) is:-

With reference to Figure 1-6. 25° Flaps Take-off Performance. Pressure altitude 4000 ft,
fppa0153 temperature +20°C, 5 kts headwind, take-off distance available 1650 ft. The maximum
weight at which take-off can be made is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 2-2: Loading Graph. If the combined weight of the pilot and front
fppa0156
passenger is 145 Kg, the moment/1000 is:-

With reference to Figure 2-2: Loading Graph. If the total fuel loaded in the aircraft is 35 USG,
fppa0160
the moment/1000 is:-

An aircraft in level flight covers a distance of 158 nm at a groundspeed of 95 kts, consuming

fppa0171
12.5 USG. The fuel flow is:-

On final approach to land an aircraft encounters a sudden decrease in the headwind

fppa0177
component. The aircraft:-

On final approach to land an aircraft encounters a sudden increase in the tailwind

fppa0182
component. The aircraft:-

In order to avoid the wake turbulence when landing behind a heavy aircraft which has just
fppa0185
landed, a lighter aircraft should:-

In order to avoid the wake turbulence whilst following a heavy aircraft during the approach
fppa0187
to land, a lighter aircraft should:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Flaps Up Take-off Ground Roll. Airfield elevation 650 ft, QNH
fppa0189
1018, OAT +25°C, weight 2500 lbs, 5 kts tailwind. The ground roll required is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-17: Landing Performance. Airfield pressure altitude 5000 ft, OAT
fppa0202 +32°C, weight 2500 lbs, 13 kts headwind. The landing distance over a 50ft barrier is
approximately:-

Runway 09 threshold 2250 ft, Runway 27 threshold 2200 ft, length 4300 ft. The percentage
fppa0214
slope of runway 27 is:-

fppa0215 The runway length available for take-off:-

Aircraft empty weight 1500 lbs, crew, passengers and baggage 900 lbs, trip and reserve fuel
fppa0218
180 lbs, taxi fuel 5 lbs, maximum take-off weight 2580 lbs. The maximum ramp weight is:-

With reference to Figure 2-3: CG Range and Weight of the Aeroplane Manual. Empty weight
fppa0220 1490 lbs, CG 84.7 inches, pilot and instructor 350 lbs located at 77.8 inches, fuel 180 lbs
located at 93 inches. The aeroplane:-
Aeroplane empty weight 1490 lbs, CG 84.7 inches, pilot and front passenger 350 lbs located
fppa0221 at 77.8 inches, fuel 210 lbs located at 93 inches, aft passenger 100 lbs located at 116.6
inches, no baggage. The loaded CG of the aeroplane is:-
 A loaded aircraft's CG is 91.0", weight 2400 lbs. A passenger weighing 160 lbs located in a
fppa0224 front seat (arm 77.8") changes place with a passenger weighing 100 lbs located in a rear
seat (arm 116.6"), the pilot loads an additional 50 lbs of fuel (arm 93.0”). The new CG is:-

With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 500 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
fppa0240
temperature +10°C, the required ground roll is:-

With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 4000 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
fppa0241
temperature +15°C, the take-off distance required to clear 50 ft is:-

With reference to Figure 1-24: Landing Distance. Weight 2400 lbs, airfield elevation 2650 ft,
fppa0256
QNH 1018 hPa, temperature +24°C, the landing distance to clear 50 ft is:-

Aeroplane empty weight 1380 lbs, CG 84.5 inches, pilot and front passenger 310 lbs located
fppa0266 at 77.8 inches, fuel 275 lbs located at 94 inches, aft passenger 80 lbs located at 116.5
inches, no baggage. The loaded CG of the aeroplane is:-

fppa0284 Runway length 1020 metres, stopway 30 metres. The landing distance available is:-

Runway length 1150 metres, stopway 30 metres, displaced threshold 25 metres. The
fppa0286
landing distance available is:-

fppa0287 The presence of a permanently displaced threshold:-

fppa0288 The presence of a stopway:-

Runway 31 threshold 725 ft, Runway 13 threshold 800 ft, length 3400 ft. The percentage
fppa0292
slope of runway 13 is:-

With reference to Figure 1-4: Flaps Up Take-off Performance. Airfield elevation 4090 ft, QNH
fppa0305 1016 hPa, OAT -2°C, weight 2360 lbs, zero wind. The take-off distance required over a 50 ft
barrier is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-6. 25° Flaps Take-off Performance. Airfield elevation 1410 ft,
fppa0309 QNH 1010 hPa, temperature +24°C, weight 2340 lbs, 7 kts headwind. The take-off distance
required over a 50 ft barrier is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-8: Time, Distance and Fuel to Climb. Departure airfield elevation
fppa0314
2410 ft, QNH 1010 hPa, temperature ISA, cruise pressure altitude 8500 ft,

With reference to Figure 1-10: Speed Power - Performance Cruise. Pressure altitude 2 500
fppa0326
ft, temperature ISA +4°C, groundspeed 111 kts, headwind 9 kts. The % power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-11: Speed Power - Economy Cruise. Pressure altitude 4 000 ft,
fppa0330
temperature is standard, TAS 110 kts. The % power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-12: Range – Performance Cruise. Pressure altitude 4 000 ft,
fppa0338
temperature ISA +5°C, the range with no reserve is 620 nm. The % power is:-
 An aircraft flies from A to B, distance 225 nm, GS 100 kts, fuel flow 8.5 USG/hr. Taxi, take-off
fppa0377
and climb fuel is 3.3 USG. If the total fuel on board is 35 USG, the reserve fuel is:-

fppa0381 Aquaplaning is more likely to occur on a wet runway at:-

fppa0382 A factor which may increase the possibility of aquaplaning is:-

fppa0383 The basic empty weight of an aircraft is:-

The empty weight of an aircraft including unusable fuel, full oil and fixed equipment is
fppa0397
referred to as:-

With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 3000 ft, 2400
fppa0403
RPM. The fuel flow is:-

With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, 2500
fppa0405
RPM. The % BHP is:-

With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, RPM
fppa0407
2400, the range is:-

With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 1000 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
fppa0411
temperature +10°C, 5 kt headwind. The take-off distance required to clear 50 ft is:-

With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 4500 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
fppa0414 temperature +10°C, dry, grass runway, zero wind. The take-off distance required to clear 50
ft is:-
With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
fppa0415 temperature +30°C, dry, grass runway, 5 kts headwind. The take-off distance required to
clear 50 ft is:-
With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 3000 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
fppa0416 temperature +10°C, dry, grass runway, 2 kts tailwind. The take-off distance required to clear
50 ft is:-

With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
fppa0420
temperature +15°C, dry, grass runway, 10 kts headwind. The required ground roll is:-

With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, RPM
2400, the range is:-
 Right

89.0"

87.7"

moved forward

1500 ft

increasing the density altitude

2490 RPM

2380 RPM

117 kts

103 kts
 25 minutes

54 KIAS

48 KIAS

48 KIAS

48.5 KIAS

476 lbs

148 litres

109 kts

120 kts

plus crew, passengers, baggage and

any cargo

37 minutes

is the maximum take-off weight of

the aircraft plus taxi fuel

includes the stopway

 1550 metres

24.8

19.5

7.5 USG/hr

attempt to land after the point at

which the heavy aircraft landed

1290 ft

1.16% up

2585 lbs

may be operated in the utility

category

85.87 inches
 885 ft

2265 ft

86.01 inches

1020 metres

reduces the landing distance

available

will not affect the landing distance

available

2.2% down

1700 ft

0.75

0.65

0.65
 high groundspeeds

under-inflated tyres

the empty weight of an aircraft

including unusable fuel, full oil and
fixed equipment

the basic empty weight

7.5 gph

2428 ft

2650 ft

2306 ft

1223 ft
 Database

LAW0002

LAW0003

LAW0004

LAW0008

LAW0011

LAW0017

LAW0022

LAW0024

LAW0028

LAW0029

LAW0031

LAW0033

LAW0034

LAW0035

LAW0037
LAW0040

LAW0043

LAW0045

LAW0046

LAW0047

LAW0049

LAW0051

LAW0052

LAW0055

LAW0056

LAW0057

LAW0058

LAW0061

LAW0065

LAW0069

LAW0076
LAW0079

LAW0080

LAW0082

LAW0083

LAW0085

LAW0087

LAW0088

LAW0089

LAW0090

LAW0091

LAW0092

LAW0096

LAW0099

LAW0104

LAW0105
LAW0106

LAW0106

LAW0107

LAW0109

LAW0110

LAW0112

LAW0115

LAW0118

LAW0120

LAW0122

LAW0124

LAW0126

LAW0128

LAW0133

LAW0134

LAW0136
LAW0137

LAW0139

LAW0144

LAW0148

LAW0150

LAW0200

LAW0202
 Question

“Day” is the period between:-

The period of validity of a Class 2 medical for a private pilot under the age of 40 is:-

A private pilot may act as co-pilot on an aircraft:-

No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft:-

An accident involving a South African registered aircraft outside the Republic shall be
reported as soon as possible to the:-

For an aeroplane flying VFR in uncontrolled airspace between 1 500 ft and 5 000 ft above
the ground by day, the required weather minima is:-

Unless otherwise directed by ATC, compliance with the semi-circular rule is required for all
flights operating above:-

An aircraft which is following a railway line within one nautical mile shall, unless otherwise
instructed by ATC:-

The minimum height at which an aircraft may fly across an aerodrome without conforming
to the traffic pattern is:-

The visual ground signal as shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal area at an
aerodrome indicates that:-

"Night" is the period between:-

No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft:-

A private pilot, who is not the holder of an instrument rating, may not act as a flight crew
member if, prior to each flight, their flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed:-

The take-off visibility required for an aeroplane on a VFR flight departing from an
Aerodrome Traffic Zone is:-

The navigation and associated equipment required for aircraft operated under VFR
includes:-
Unless instructed to do otherwise by an ATSU, an aircraft flying at or below 1500 ft above
the surface following a line feature:-

To an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome, a series of red flashes shall mean:-

The symbol indicated in figure below, when displayed in a signal area indicates that:-

An aircraft is to maintain a track of 344° (T), drift 6° right, Variation 20° W, high ground 4300
ft above sea level. The most appropriate VFR flight level to be used is:-

Except with the prior written approval of the Commissioner, no aircraft shall circle over, or
do repeated flights over an open-air assembly of persons at a height less than:-

The mass and centre of gravity of an aircraft must be established at least:-

If an intercepting aircraft, rocking its wings, appears in front and to the right of an
intercepted aircraft, this means:-

The pilot-in-command of an aircraft may propose an amendment to an air traffic control

clearance. The amendment:-

For an aircraft to be operated by day, a serviceable rotating beacon or strobe light:-

A pilot-in-command, subject to ATC approval, may conduct special VFR flight operations:-

Every VFR flight shall be so conducted that the aircraft is flown with visual reference to the
surface and at no time above more than:-

When two heavier-than-air aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of
landing the:-

A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, carrying a passenger by night, unless
such pilot has carried out at least:-

A night rating is valid for:-

A applicant for an aeroplane night flight rating shall have completed not less than:-

"Date of application" when used in connection with the issuing, renewal or reissuing of a
licence, certificate or rating means:-
No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each flight, the flight
time exceeds or is likely to exceed:-

No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each flight, the flight
time exceeds or is likely to exceed:-

The signal shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal area of an aerodrome
indicates:-

An aircraft which is taxying across the apron:-

The holder of a medical certificate who is unable to comply with the appropriate medical
requirements and standards of the certificate:-

When operating outside of an aerodrome circuit area, an aircraft which is overtaking a

slower aircraft at the same height and heading:-

Unless otherwise authorised by an ATSU, for a flight departing into controlled or advisory
airspace an air traffic service flight plan must be filed at least:-

A record of each fuel and oil uplift must be kept:-

A pilot-in-command may conduct special VFR operations, subject to ATC approval, within a:-

An aircraft flight folio must be retained by the owner or operator for a period of:-

In terms of the Civil Aviation Regulations, an air traffic service flight plan must be filed for:-

Prior to undergoing the revalidation skill test a private pilot must have flown a minimum of:-

The applicant for a private pilot licence must undergo the skill test within:-

An incident involving an aircraft within the Republic shall be reported as soon as possible to
the:-

The pilot-in-command, surviving an accident involving an aircraft within the Republic, shall
report such accident as soon as possible to the:-
If because of duty in a State or territory outside the Republic, deferral of the issuing of a
South African medical certificate for a private pilot has to be made, such deferral shall,
subject to an acceptable medical report being obtained locally, not exceed -
If because of duty in a State or territory outside the Republic, deferral of the issuing of a
South African medical certificate for a private pilot has to be made, such deferral shall,
subject to an acceptable medical report being obtained locally, not exceed -

The pilot-in-command of a non-pressurised aircraft shall ensure that breathing oxygen is

available for passengers and crew for all flights between 10 000 ft and 12 000 ft:-

An air traffic service flight plan shall be filed for:-

In an aircraft in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses which must be carried is
equal to at least:-

An aerodrome that is not equipped with night flying facilities may not be used by an aircraft
to take-off and land by night:-

In terms of the Civil Aviation Regulations, an air traffic service flight plan must be filed for:-

A pilot may fly through a declared restricted area provided that:-

For flights conducted in accordance with Part 91, or flying training, operations the relevant
entries in a pilot's logbook must be made within:-

In order to change to another type of aeroplane, not previously flown, within one class
rating:

Unless two-way communication has already been established, the frequency to be used by
an intercepted aircraft and the intercepting aircraft is:-

An aircraft, operating VFR, is maintaining a track of 359° (M). Another aircraft, also VFR, is
maintaining a track of 180° (M). The two aircraft:-

Away from built-up areas or open-air assemblies of persons, the minimum height at which
an aircraft may be flown is:-

Information regarding the latest restricted areas which may affect flights may be found:-

"Cloud ceiling" means:-

An applicant for a night rating must have completed:-

An applicant for a private pilot licence (aeroplane) who is also the holder of a glider pilot
licence may:

To an aircraft in the air at an aerodrome a series of white flashes means:-

Electronic logbooks may be used to record flight time, provided that:

An aircraft which has been involved in an accident may be moved:-

The equipment required in an aircraft to be operated by night includes:-

The holder of a pilot licence must submit to the Commissioner a certified copy of the
summary of his or her logbook at least:-

A licence holder must notify the Commissioner of any change of postal address within:-
 Common Answer Right

15 minutes before sunrise to 15 minutes 15 minutes before sunrise to 15 minutes

after sun after sunset

twenty four months twenty four months

on which a co-pilot is not a requirement on which a co-pilot is not a requirement

within 72 hours following blood donation within 72 hours following blood donation

appropriate aviation authority of the appropriate aviation authority of the

country in which the accident occurred country in which the accident occurred
and the Commissioner and the Commissioner

5 km visibility distance from cloud: 2 000 ft 5 km visibility distance from cloud: 2 000 ft
ho horizontally and 500 ft vertically

1 500 ft AGL 1 500 ft AGL

if flying at or below 1500 ft AGL fly to the if flying at or below 1500 ft AGL fly to the
rig right of the railway line

2000 ft. 2000 ft.

landings are prohibited landings are prohibited

15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes

before sunr before sunrise

within 72 hours of blood donation within 72 hours of blood donation

1000 hours during the preceding 12

100 hours during the preceding 30 days.
months

5 km 5 km

an airspeed indicator and a clock or watch an airspeed indicator and a clock or watch
showing the time in hours minutes and showing the time in hours minutes and
seconds seconds
 shall fly to the right of the line feature shall fly to the right of the line feature

taxi clear of landing area in use taxi clear of landing area in use

aircraft are required to land take-off and aircraft are required to land take-off and
taxi taxi on runways and taxiways only

FL075. FL075.

3000 ft above the surface 3000 ft above the surface

every 5 years every 5 years

“follow me to a landing terrain” “follow me to a landing terrain”

may not be applied by the pilot without may not be applied by the pilot without
ATC appro ATC approval

is required is not required

within a CTR with a cloud ceiling of at least within a CTR with a cloud ceiling of at least
60 600 ft and visibility at least 1 500 m

3/8 of cloud within a radius of 5 nm of the 3/8 of cloud within a radius of 5 nm of the
aircr aircraft

the aircraft at the lower level has right of the aircraft at the lower level has right of
way way

three take-offs and landings by night

three take-offs and landings by night
within the 90 days immediately preceding
within the
the flight

as long as the pilot licence of the holder of

12 months
the rating is valid
10 hours of instrument flight time at least
10 hours of instrument flight time at least 5 take-offs and 5 landings by night and a
5 tak dual night cross country of not less than
150 nm
the date on which the application is
the date on which the application is
received in the prescribed form by the
received in
Commissioner
 400 hours during the preceding 90 days 400 hours during the preceding 90 days

1000 hours during the preceding 12 1000 hours during the preceding 12
months. months.

shall give right of way to a vehicle which is shall give right of way to a vehicle which is
tow towing an aircraft

must furnish proof to the designated

may not exercise the privileges of the medical body or institution that he or she
licence un has recovered from the decrease in
medical fitness.

shall pass the aircraft on the right shall pass the aircraft on the right

30 minutes before departure 30 minutes before departure

in the aircraft flight folio. in the aircraft flight folio.

control zone (CTR) control zone (CTR)

5 years calculated from the date of the last 5 years calculated from the date of the last
entr entry therein.

a flight from a manned aerodrome to an

a flight from a manned aerodrome to an aerodrome traffic zone where no other
aerodrome controlled or advisory airspace will be
entered during the flight

3 hours as pilot-in command in the 3 hours as pilot-in command in the

preceding 6 mon preceding 6 months

6 months of passing the theoretical 6 months of passing the theoretical

knowledge exam knowledge examinations

Commissioner or an air traffic service unit Commissioner or an air traffic service unit

Commissioner Commissioner
 two consecutive periods each of three two consecutive periods each of three
months months

two consecutive periods each of three

a single period of six months
months

in excess of 120 minutes. in excess of 120 minutes.

a flight between two aerodrome traffic

a flight from an unmanned aerodrome to
zones even though no controlled or
an aerodro
advisory airspace will be entered en route

5% or three whichever is the greater 10% or three whichever is the greater.

unless the pilot-in-command is familiar

except in an emergency
with the

a flight crossing an international boundary

a flight crossing an FIR boundary
even though no landings will be made

permission from the appropriate authority permission from the appropriate authority
is obta is obtained

7 days 7 days

the pilot must undergo differences or the pilot must undergo differences or
familiarisat familiarisation training

1215 MHz 1215 MHz

could be at the same flight level. could be at the same flight level.

1000 ft above the highest obstacle within

500 ft above the ground or water
2000 ft

in the latest AIP AIP SUP AIC's and in the latest AIP AIP SUP AIC's and
NOTAMS. NOTAMS.

the height above the surface of the base of

the height above the surface of the base of
the lowest cloud below 20000 feet
the l
covering more than half the sky
10 hours of instrument instruction of
10 hours of instrument instruction of
which not more than 5 hours may have
which not mo
been acquired in an approved FSTD.
 be credited with a maximum of 10 glider
be credited with a maximum of 10 glider
hours towards the issue of the private pilot
hours towa
licence.

land at this aerodrome and proceed to the land at this aerodrome and proceed to the
apron apron

the data is printed on paper at least every the data is printed on paper at least every
90 day 90 days

only if authority to move it has been only if authority to move it has been
granted by granted by the investigator in charge.

an electrical torch for each crew member an electrical torch for each crew member

every 12 months every 12 months

14 days 14 days
 Database Question

hpof0005 The angle of attack of an aerofoil is defined as the angle:-

hpof0015 As the angle of attack of an aerofoil is increased, the centre of pressure will:-

With reference to the lift formula. If the speed is doubled whilst the angle of attack
hpof0022
remains constant, the lift will:-

hpof0026 A design feature which is used to reduce induced drag is:-

hpof0029 Washout is incorporated in some blade designs in order to:-

hpof0044 The effect of blow-back (flap-back) is to:-

hpof0045 The coning angle is determined:-

hpof0049 In a turn, rotor thrust need to overcome:

hpof0053 Rotor drag (rotor torque) is that force which acts:-

When a helicopter, maintaining a constant height above ground whilst hovering, is

hpof0057
subjected to translational lift:-

hpof0061 The correct method of recovering from retreating blade stall is to:-

Translating tendency in a helicopter with anti-clockwise rotating rotor blades is

hpof0064
corrected by:-

When power is applied, a helicopter with an anti-clockwise rotating main rotor will
hpof0065
tend to:-

hpof0070 Lowering the collective lever will:-

hpof0086 Lead-lagging (dragging) is:-

hpof0090 Lateral stability in a helicopter refers to stability in the:-

hpof0092 During autorotation:-

hpof0097 If high rotor RPM is experienced during autorotation from high altitude:-

hpof0098 Directional stability in a helicopter refers to stability in the:-

hpof0101 The effect of the driven, or propeller region during autorotation is to:-

hpof0110 The effect on a helicopter's performance of an increase in humidity is:-

With reference to the figure below, when the cyclic control is operated so as to create
hpof0125
an increase in the pitch angle of the rotor blade in position B, the rotor disc will:-

As the angle of bank during a level turn is increased, additional engine power must be
hpof0129
applied in order to:-

hpof0134 Rectified airspeed (RAS) or Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:-

If you need to descend quickly (another aircraft coming toward you), what's the best
hpof0162
way to do so?

hpof0164 In comparison to a straight climb, during a climbing turn:-

pof0041 During a straight climb at a constant speed:-

 Common Answer Right

between the chord line and the between the chord line and the
relative airflow relative airflow

move forward move forward

be four times greater be four times greater

washout. washout.

reduce induced drag reduce induced drag

reduce the helicopter's forward reduce the helicopter's forward

speed speed

by the combined effect of the

by the combined effect of the rotor
centripetal force and the rotor
thrust and centrifugal force.
thrust
vertical component of lift and
centripetal/centrifugal force/gross
weight

in the plane of rotation and opposite

perpendicular to the relative airflow
to the direction of blade travel.

the collective lever must be lowered the collective lever must be lowered
to maintain height to maintain height

lower the collective lower the collective

applying the left anti-torque pedal. moving the cyclic to the left

yaw to the right which must be yaw to the right which must be
corrected with the left pedal corrected with the left pedal

simultaneously decrease the blade simultaneously decrease the blade

angle all the rotor blades by the angle all the rotor blades by the
same amount same amount

the forward or aft movement of a the forward or aft movement of a

blade in the plane of rotation blade in the plane of rotation
 rolling plane rolling plane

collective is used to control rotor collective is used to control rotor

RPM RPM

the collective pitch lever should be the collective pitch lever should be
raised to reduce it raised to reduce it

yawing plane. yawing plane.

produce rotor drag which opposes

provide a good rotational force.
the rotor RPM

to decrease the lift to decrease the lift

tilt aft tilt left

compensate for the increased

counter the increased centrifugal
induced drag because of greater
force
blade angles

TAS corrected for instrument and IAS corrected for instrument and
position errors. position errors

Cyclic forward, Collective down,

Reduce engine power

the rate of climb will remain the

the rate of climb will reduce
same.

lift is greater than weight lift is less than weight

 Database Question

A loaded helicopter's CG is 96.4", weight 2100 lbs, MAUW 2150 lbs. One passenger
fpph0004 weighing 180 lbs seated in the rear (arm 86.6") disembarks. The pilot decides to add an
additional 10 USG of fuel, SW 6 lbs/USG, (arm 94.0"). The new CG is:-

A loaded helicopter's CG is 97.3", weight 2150 lbs. During flight the aircraft will burn off
fpph0005
165 lbs of fuel (arm 94.0"). The landing CG is:-

A loaded helicopter's CG is 93.0", weight 1950 lbs. A late passenger, weighing 175 lbs is
fpph0010 seated in a rear seat (arm 86.6"), 30 lbs of baggage is loaded into the forward baggage
compartment (arm 70.5"), MAUW 2180 lbs. The new CG is:-

The floor loading of a helicopter's baggage compartment is 40 kg/sq m. The maximum

fpph0012
weight which can be evenly loaded in an area measuring 0.6 m x 0.5 m is:-

The floor loading of a helicopter's baggage compartment is 15 lbs/sq ft. The maximum
fpph0014
weight which can be evenly loaded in an area measuring 2 ft x 1.5 ft is:-

A decrease in a helicopter's take-off and climb performance can be expected when there
fpph0018
is:-

fpph0021 Airfield elevation 1800 ft, QNH 1010. The pressure altitude is:-

fpph0023 The symbol Vy is used to indicate the:-

fpph0027 If the temperature at pressure altitude 9500 ft is ISA +7°C the outside air temperature is:-

With reference to Figure 1-1: Airspeed System Calibration of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0034 Manual. Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) 100 kts, the Indicated Airspeed (IAS) is
approximately:-
 With reference to Figure 1-1: Airspeed System Calibration of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0040
Manual. Indicated Airspeed (IAS) 97 kts, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-2: Density Altitude Chart of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0049 Manual. Pressure altitude 2500 ft, temperature ISA +20° C, the density altitude is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-4: IGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0054 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 3500 ft, temperature +25° C, the gross weight is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-4: IGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0055 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 2500 ft, temperature +25° C, the gross weight is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-4: IGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0059 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 2500 ft, gross weight 2270 lbs. The maximum
allowable temperature is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0062 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 2000 ft, temperature +20° C, the gross weight is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0066 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, gross weight 1900 lbs, the maximum
allowable temperature is:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0067 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 3000 ft, gross weight 2050 lbs, the maximum
allowable temperature for hovering is:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0068 Performance Manual. Gross weight 1950 lbs, the maximum pressure altitude for lift off
on a standard day is:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0069 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 1500 ft, temperature ISA +19° C, the gross weight
is:-

With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0070 Performance Manual. Helipad elevation 2800 ft, QNH 1023, gross weight 2150 lbs, the
maximum allowable temperature for lift off is:-
 With reference to Figure 1-6: Airspeed Limitations (VNE) of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0071
Manual. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, temperature +30° C, the Vne is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-6: Airspeed Limitations (VNE) of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0075 Manual. Pressure altitude 5500 ft, the maximum temperature for a Vne of 105 KIAS is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-6: Airspeed Limitations (VNE) of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0080
Manual. Temperature 0° C, Vne 108 KIAS, the pressure altitude is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-7: Maximum Normal Operating Speed (VNO) of the Helicopter
fpph0089 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 6000 ft, temperature ISA -3° C, the Vno is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-8: Maximum Continuous Power of the Helicopter

fpph0092 Performance Manual. Outside air temperature +35° C, pressure altitude 2000 ft. The
manifold pressure for maximum continuous power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-8: Maximum Continuous Power of the Helicopter

fpph0095 Performance Manual. Outside air temperature +25° C, pressure altitude 4000 ft. The
manifold pressure for maximum continuous power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-8: Maximum Continuous Power of the Helicopter

fpph0096 Performance Manual. Outside air temperature +25° C, pressure altitude 2000 ft. The
manifold pressure for maximum take-off power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-8: Maximum Continuous Power of the Helicopter

fpph0099 Performance Manual. Outside air temperature +25° C, pressure altitude 1000 ft. The
manifold pressure for maximum continuous power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Autorotational Performance of the Helicopter Performance

Manual. A helicopter is carrying out an autorotation from a pressure altitude of 6500 ft
fpph0103
to a pressure altitude of 1500 ft. The horizontal distance covered during the descent is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Autorotational Performance of the Helicopter Performance

Manual. A helicopter is carrying out an autorotation from a pressure altitude of 8000 ft
fpph0104
to a pressure altitude of 4000 ft. The horizontal distance covered during the descent is
approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Wind Component Graph, of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0111 Manual. The angle between the runway and the wind direction is 30° and the wind
speed is 20 knots. The crosswind component is approximately:-
 With reference to Figure 1-3: Wind Component Graph, of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0113 Manual. The angle between the runway and the wind direction is 60° and the wind
speed is 25 knots. The crosswind component is approximately:-

With reference to Figure 1-3: Wind Component Graph, of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0115 Manual. The angle between the runway and the wind direction is 20° and the wind
speed is 15 knots. The crosswind component is approximately:-

After loading passengers and baggage the pilot has 175 lbs available for fuel. If the SG is
fpph0121
0.71 the volume of fuel in USG which can be loaded is:-

fpph0122 SG 0.73, fuel weight 105 kg. The volume of fuel in US Gallons is:-

fpph0126 SG 0.71, fuel weight 240 lbs. The volume of fuel in litres is:-

fpph0127 34 USG of fuel, SG 0.72. The weight of the fuel in lbs is:-

A helicopter achieves a performance of 12 ground nautical miles/USG. If the fuel flow is

fpph0131
48 lbs per hour (SW 6lbs/USG) the groundspeed is:-

A helicopter achieves a performance of 3.5 air nautical miles/litre, fuel flow is 8.5
fpph0135
USG/hr, tailwind component 7 kts. The groundspeed is:-

A helicopter has a total moment of 182465 (lbs/inches) with a centre of gravity of 94.5
fpph0137
inches. The weight of the aircraft is:-

fpph0145 A helicopter has consumed 18.5 USG at 7.3 USG/hr, GS 100. The distance flown is:-

The floor loading of a helicopter's baggage compartment is 20 lbs/sq ft. The maximum
fpph0161
weight which can be loaded in a box measuring 2 ft x 2 ft and weighing 12 lbs is:-
 A helicopter in level flight covers a distance of 158 nm at a groundspeed of 95 kts,
fpph0171
consuming 12.5 USG. The fuel flow is:-

During the climb out after lift-off a helicopter encounters a sudden decrease in the
fpph0179
headwind component. The helicopter:-

In order to avoid the wake turbulence when landing behind a heavy aircraft which has
fpph0186
just taken off, a lighter aircraft should:-

In order to avoid the wake turbulence whilst following a heavy aircraft during the
fpph0187
approach to land, a lighter aircraft should:-

fpph0191 The symbol Vne is used to define the:-

fpph0193 The total weight of a loaded helicopter may be determined by:-

fpph0169 A helicopter burns 18 USG of fuel in 2 hours 18 minutes. The fuel flow is:-

fpph0190 The symbol Vno is used to define the:-

 Common Answer Right

98.32" 97.22"

97.57" 97.57"

92.55" 92.17"

12.0 kg 12.0 kg

35 lbs 30 lbs

a high temperature combined with a a high temperature combined with a

high density al high density altitude

1890 ft 1890 ft

best rate of climb speed best rate of climb speed

+3°C +3°C

104 kts 104 kts

 97 kts 94 kts

4800 ft 4500 ft

2180 lbs 2180 lbs

2300 lbs 2260 lbs

+20 °C +20 °C

2100 lbs 2100 lbs

+25° C +15° C

+20° C +15° C

5000 ft 5000 ft

2150 lbs 2100 lbs

+25° C, +25° C,
106 KIAS 106 KIAS

+30° C +30° C

7500 ft 7500 ft

106 KIAS 106 KIAS

23.7” 23.7”

22.9” 22.9”

23.4” 24.5”

23.6” 23.6”

3.5 nm 3.5 nm

2.75 nm 2.75 nm

10 kts 10 kts
 22 kts 22 kts

5 kts 5 kts

29.5 USG 29.5 USG

33 USG 38 USG

153 litres 153 litres

204 lbs 204 lbs

100 kts 96 kts

106 kts 120 kts

1931 lbs 1931 lbs

253 nm 253 nm

78 lbs 68 lbs
 7.5 USG/hr 7.5 USG/hr

will start to overshoot will start to undershoot

attempt to land before the point attempt to land before the point
where the heavy a where the heavy aircraft lifted off

remain above the heavier aircraft’s

remain below the heavier aircraft’s
flight path and land after the point
flight path
at which the heavy aircraft landed

never exceed speed never exceed speed

dividing the total moment by the dividing the total moment by the
centre of gravity centre of gravity

7.8 USG/hr 7.8 USG/hr

maximum structural cruising speed maximum structural cruising speed

at which a helicopter may be flown at which a helicopter may be flown
 C
o
m
m
o
n
Database Question
A
n
s
What the 'distress' signal? w
e
r
Which airspace has the following separation rules? IFR flights are separated from IFR and
VFR VFR is separated from IFR VFR receives traffic information about other VFR

In class C airspace. . .

How long is a flight plan that has not being activated, valid for?

What is the meaning of the phrase "Acknowledge"?

Choose the correct order

What is the abbreviation for a Control Area?

What direction is the wind related to, when it's direction is given from the tower?

What is the callsign for the "Area Control Centre" unit/service?

How soon must a flight plan be filed, when not in flight?

If intercepted by another aircraft that is rocking its wings and to the right you you, it
means. . .

On what altimeter setting will you fly at or below the transition altitude?

If a marshaller has his arms above his head in a vertical position it means. . .

How much visibility do you require for VFR in a CTR/ATC/ATA?

When are the altimeter setting procedures found in AIC 20-2 applicable?

If you lose radio communications, how many times must you transmit 'blind' transmissions?

What quality would a strength 5 transmission be?

What does QNH refer to?

What keyword is used when you fix an error in a transmission?

A horizontal white or orange T indicates?

If intercepted by another aircraft that is rocking its wings and to the left you you, it
means. . .

What is The meaning of the phrase "Go Ahead"?

What is the transponder code for an emergency?

What squawk code is used to indicate radio failure

What is the 'urgency' signal?

What quality would a strength 3 transmission be?

When must you notify ATC when your ETA's change?

SAR/Normal

What will the altimeter show when QNE is set?

What keyword is used when you fix an error in a transmission?

The semi-circular rule shall apply when flying at...

What does QFE refer to?

When must the IDENT button be used?

A horizontal white or orange T indicates?

When flying 1 500ft or higher, what will you indicated your intended height with on a flight
plan?

What will the altimeter show when QNH is set?

Choose the correct order

The VHF Navigation band is. . .

What will the altimeter show when QNH is set?

Which one of the following is correct?

What type of airspace my only be entered with permission?

If you required assistance, what letter would you lay your signal strips to look like.

What is the callsign for the "Aerodrome Control" unit/service

For which airports may SAR/Normal be filed?

The equipment on board you aircraft is: VHF RT/F, ADF, VOR ILS and mode C transponder.
What would you put on the flight plan under equipment?

What is the meaning of the phrase "Acknowledge"?

When are the altimeter setting procedures found in AIC 20-2 applicable?

What would you squawk if your radio fails?

What does QFE refer to?

What is the meaning of the word AFFIRM

When flying 1 500ft or higher, what will you indicated your intended height with on a flight
plan?

What is a 'distress' condition?

Where is flight level zero?

What does QNE refer to?

What is The meaning of the phrase "Go Ahead"?

What is the callsign for the "Aerodrome Flight Information Service" unit/service?

If a marshaller has his arms above his head in a vertical position it means. . .

On what altimeter setting will you fly at or below the transition altitude?

If a marshaller has his arms extended, bent at the elbows and is moving them up and down
from chest height to head height it means. . .
How soon must a flight plan be filed, when in flight?

What is the direction is a standard circuit?

What is the meaning of the phrase "Confirm"?

What type of airspace may never be entered?

What is the transponder code for unlawful interference?

What keyword is used when you fix an error in a transmission?

A white dumb-bell displayed in a signal area at an airfield means. . .

On what altimeter setting will you fly at or below the transition altitude?

ow much visibility do you require for VFR in a CTR/ATC/ATA?

Which one of the following is correct?

If a marshaller has his arms extended sideways and is slowly moving them up to his head
until they cross, it means. . .

What is the abbreviation for a Control Area?

Which airspace only allows IFR flights?

If a marshaller has his arms above his head in a vertical position it means. . .

What keyword is used when you fix an error in a transmission?

Alerting services is provided by ATSUs to all aircraft requiring

For a flight requiring an ATS Flight plan, at least how long prior to departure must the flight
plan be filled

referring to the picture above, FAR082 has an upper limit of

Select the correct statement

Select the correct order of priority (most to least) for the categories of the messages below:
1. Flight regularity messages
2. metereological messages
3. flight safty messages
4. direction finding messages
5. urgency messages
6. distress messages

in accordance with the geodetic reference system, to convert Local South African time to
UTC, one must

The route designator R987D found on an aeronautical chart indicates

Standard equipment "S" as entered in item 10 of an ATS flight plan represents which of the
following

in VMC, flights intended to land at a point beyond 25nm from any aerodrome with a
published transition altitude must observe a height of

An aircraft with QNH Set on its altimeter, will have its vertical position indicated as

Which of the following would be classifies as a Clas A airspace

Select the correct defenition which refers to the stadard setting of 1013.2 hpa

an aircraft with a standard altimeter setting set on subscale window, will have its vertical
position indicated as
Select the 3 official Search and Rescue phases

The defenition of "Classes of airspace" within the Republic can be found in

Select a factor affecting the range of VHF transmissions

Which of the following would be classified as Class C Airspace

A pilot on a VFR Cross Country flight to a controlled aerodrome, experiences radio failure
outside of a controlled airspace, unless otherwise published in the AIP, the pilot should

The term "Confirm" used in radiotelephony is best described as meaning that

If Search and Rescue was requested on a ATS Flight plan to an uncontrolled aerodrome,
when will the Search and rescue be cancelled

when is it mandatory to file an ATS Flight Plan

select the mandatory reporting points in a circuit at acontrolled airfield

when should a pilot change the altimiter setting from the local QNH to 1013.25hpa

when can SAR/NORMAL be indicated in item 18 of a flight plan

The term "VHF" refers to which of the following

in an attempt to correct a suspected radio failure, a pilot should check

Aerodrome Control shall be responsible for issuing information and instructions to aircraft
under its control in order to achieve

The semicircular rule is based on an aircraft flying a

Select the correct abbreviation for the following airspace:
Class C, controlled airspace established around an aerodrome for the protection of IFR
flights, which extends from ground level to a specific upper limit

referring to the picture above, FAD129, has an upper limit of

An ATS flight plan needs to be ammended on flight when

Which of the following best describes an airspace where ATC may make use of rader to
provide positive control to aircraft

An ATS flight plan needs to be ammended on flight when

According to the AIP, when shall a pilot report position

As stated in the AIP, the official methods to file an ATS flight plan are via

When the number of passengers for your flight is not yet known at the time of filing an ATS
flight plan, which designator should you place in Item 19

The aeronautical abbreviation "FIR" denotes

When can SAR/NIL be indicated in item 18 of the flight plan

Select the correct abbreviation for the following airspace:

A controlled airspace which extends from a specific lower limit to a specific upper limit
and is normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the viccinity of one or more
major aerodromes
 Right

MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY

Class C

IFR flights are separated from IFR and VFR

60 minutes after estimated time of departure

Let me know that you have received and understood this

message.

Aviate - Navigate - Communicate

CTA

Magnetic

Control

30 minutes before departure

Follow me to a landing terrain

QNH

Park in this bay

5km
 All flights 1 500ft AGL and above

Twice

Perfectly readable

Height above mean sea level.

Correction

The take off and landing direction, which is along the bar
towards the crossbar.

Follow me away from a prohibited area

Proceed with your message

7700

7600

PAN-PAN-PAN

Readable with difficulty

A change of 3 min

Can only be filed for flights where the destination is controlled

Pressure Altitude
 Correction

1 500ft AGL and above

Height above airfield elevation.

When instructed to do so by ATC.

The take off and landing direction, which is along the bar
towards the crossbar.

Flight levels

Altitude

Aviate - Navigate - Communicate

108 - 117.975 MHz

Altitude

You can use IFR in both VMC and IMC

Restricted

Tower

Controlled Airports
 S/C

Let me know that you have received and understood this

message.

All flights 1 500ft AGL and above

7600

Height above airfield elevation.

Yes

Flight levels

A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent

danger and/or requiring immediate assistance.

1013.2hPa pressure level

Height above the 1013.2 pressure level.

Proceed with your message

Radio

Park in this bay

QNH

Move Straight Ahead

 10 minutes before entering controlled or advisory airspace.

Left

Have I correctly received the following ...? or Did you correctly

receive the message?

Prohibited

7500

Correction

Aircraft may only use the runways and taxiways

QNH

5km

You can use IFR in both VMC and IMC

 Search and Rescua (SAR)

30 minutes

FL105

a VFR pilot flying on a magnetic of 090 may elect to fly at FL075

to conform to the semi-circular rule

6,5,4,3,2,1

subtract 2 hours from local time to obtain UTC

an advisory route

VHF Radio, ILS, ADF, and VOR

3000ft as the transition level

Altitude

All controlled airspace FL200 and above

the altimetre subscale setting in hectopascals to obtain flight

levels

Flight Level
 Uncertainty, Alert and Distress phase

The AIP's and SARCARS

Aircraft Altitude

All controlled airspace below FL200

remain cleared of controlled airspace and land at an unmanned

aerodrome

I wish to verify the last transmission or instruction from the

transmitting party

When the pilot notifies ATC

for a flight for which alerting action is required

downwind and final approach

on the climb passing through the transition altitude for that

area

only when the destination is a controlled

Very High Frequency

The colume control, selected frequency, and aircraft electrical

system

A safe, orderly and expeditious flow of traffic

magnetic track
 CTR

7500ft AMSL

TAS changes by 5% or more

TMA

ETA changes by 3 mins or more

When flying in controlled advisory airspace or on a flight for

which alerting action is being provided

Telephone, facsmile or internet

TBN

Flight Information Region

only when the destination is an uncontrolled

TMA