LATIHAN PENGMA DARI (d) corporate culture

HANDBOOK EDISI 12
Dari handbook ya ini BUKAN bocoran 5. Cost efficiency and product quality are
soal ^_^ two examples of ____________ objectives
Btw sorry ya kalo ada yang salah2 jangan of organizations.
lupa dicrosscheck (a) official
Semangat guys (b) operating
-Alan dan Umar- (c) informal
(d) institutional
CHAPTER 10
6. An organization that is downsizing to
1.The most appropriate first question to ask reduce costs is implementing a grand
in strategic planning is ____________. strategy of ____________.
(a) “Where do we want to be in the future?” (a) growth
(b) “How well are we currently doing?” (b) cost differentiation
(c) “How can we get where we want to be?” (c) retrenchment
(d) “Why aren’t we doing better?” (d) vertical integration

2. The ability of a firm to consistently 7. When PepsiCo acquired Tropicana, a

outperform its rivals is called maker of orange juice, the firm's strategy
____________. was growth by ____________.
(a) vertical integration (a) related diversification
(b) competitive advantage (b) concentration
(c) incrementalism (c) vertical integration
(d) strategic intent (d) cooperation

3. In a complex conglomerate business such 8. In Porter’s five forces framework, having

as General Electric, a(n) ____________ ____________ increases industry
level strategy sets strategic direction for a attractiveness.
strategic business unit. (a) many rivals
(a) institutional (b) many substitute products
(b) corporate (c) low bargaining power of suppliers
(c) business (d) few barriers to entry
(d) functional
9. A ____________ in the BCG matrix
4. The ____________ is a predominant would have a high market share in a
value system for an organization as a whole. low-growth market, and the correct grand or
(a) strategy master strategy is ____________.
(b) core competency (a) dog, growth
(c) mission (b) cash cow, stability
(c) question mark, stability
(d) star, retrenchment
10. The alliances that link together firms in
supply chain management relationships are
examples of how businesses try to use
____________ strategies.
(a) B2C
(b) growth
(c) cooperation
(d) concentration
11. The two questions asked by Porter to
identify competitive strategies for a business
or product line are: 1—What is the market
scope? 2—What is the ____________?
(a) market share
(b) source of competitive advantage
(c) core competency
(d) industry attractiveness
12. According to Porter’s model of
competitive strategies, a firm that wants to
compete with its rivals in a broad market by
selling a very low-priced product would
need to successfully implement a
____________ strategy.
(a) retrenchment
(b) differentiation
(c) cost leadership
(d) diversification
13. When Coke and Pepsi spend millions on
ads trying to convince customers that their
products are unique, they are pursuing a/an
____________ strategy.
(a) transnational
(b) concentration
(c) diversification
(d) differentiation
14. The role of the board of directors as an
oversight body that holds top executives
accountable for the success of business
strategies is called ____________.
(a) strategic leadership
(b) corporate governance
(c) logical incrementalism
(d) strategic opportunism
15. An example of a process failure in
strategic planning is ____________.
(a) lack of participation
(b) weak mission statement
(c) bad core values
(d) insufficient financial resources
CHAPTER 11
1. The main purpose of organizing as a
management function is to ____________.
(a) make sure that results match plans
(b) arrange people and resources to
accomplish work
(c) create enthusiasm for the work to be
done
(d) match strategies with operational plans
2. ____________ is the system of tasks,
reporting relationships, and communication
that links together the various parts of an
organization.
(a) Structure
(b) Staff
(c) Decentralization
(d) Differentiation
3. Rumors and resistance to change are
potential disadvantages often associated
with ____________.
(a) virtual organizations
(b) informal structures (c) Team
(c) delegation (d) Matrix
(d) specialized staff
8. The “two-boss” system of reporting
4. An organization chart showing vice relationships is found in the ____________
presidents of marketing, finance, structure.
manufacturing, and purchasing all reporting (a) functional
to the president is depicting a ____________ (b) matrix
structure. (c) network
(a) functional (d) product
(b) matrix
(c) network 9. Better lower-level teamwork and more
(d) product top-level strategic management are among
the expected advantages of a ____________
5. The functional chimneys problem occurs structure.
when people in different functions (a) divisional
____________. (b) matrix
(a) fail to communicate with one another (c) geographical
(b)try to help each other work with (d) product
customers
(c)spend too much time coordinating 10. “Tall” organizations tend to have long
decisions chains of command and ____________
(d) focus on products rather than functions spans of control.
(a) wide
6. A manufacturing business with a (b) narrow
functional structure has recently developed (c) informal
three new product lines. The president of the (d) centralized
company might consider shifting to a/an
____________ structure to gain a stronger 11. A student volunteers to gather
focus on each product. information on a company for a group case
(a) virtual analysis project. The other members of the
(b) informal group agree, and tell her to go ahead and
(c) divisional choose the information sources. In terms of
(d) network delegation, this group is giving the student
____________ to fulfill the agreed-upon
7. ____________ structure tries to combine task.
the best elements of the functional and (a) responsibility
divisional forms. (b) accountability
(a) Virtual (c) authority
(b) Boundaryless (d) decentralization

12. The current trend in the use of staff in
organizations is to ____________.
(a) give staff personnel more authority over
operations
(b) reduce the number of staff personnel
(c) remove all staff from the organization
(d) combine all staff functions in one
department
13. The bureaucratic organization described
by Max Weber is similar to the
____________ organization described by
Burns and Stalker.
(a) adaptive
(b) mechanistic
(c) organic
(d) adhocracy
14. Which type of organization design best
fits an uncertain and changing environment?
(a) mechanistic
(b) bureaucratic
(c) organic
(d) traditional
15. An organization that employs just a few
“core” or essential full-time employees and
outsources a lot of the remaining work
shows signs of using a ____________
structure.
(a) functional
(b) network
(c) matrix
(d) mechanistic
CHAPTER 12
1. Pluralism and the absence of
discrimination and prejudice in policies and
practices are two important hallmarks of
__________.
(a) the glass ceiling effect
(b) a multicultural organization
(c) quality circles
(d) affirmative action
2. When members of minority cultures feel
that they have to behave in ways similar to
the majority culture, this is called
__________.
(a) biculturalism
(b) symbolic leadership
(c) the glass ceiling effect
(d) inclusivity
3. Engineers, scientists, and information
systems specialists are likely to become part
of separate __________ subcultures in an
organization.
(a) ethnic
(b) generational
(c) functional
(d) occupational
4. Stories told about an organization’s past
accomplishments and heroes such as
company founders are all part of what is
called the __________ culture.
(a) observable
(b) underground
(c) functional
(d) core
5. Honesty, social responsibility, and
customer service are examples of
__________ that can become foundations
for an organization’s core culture.
(a) rites and rituals
(b) values
(c) subsystems
(d) ideas
6. Which leadership approach is most
consistent with an organizational culture that
values the full utilization of all diverse
talents of all the organization’s human
resources?
(a) Managing diversity
(b) Affirmative action
(c) Status quo
(d) Rational persuasion
7. When members of a dominant subculture,
such as white males, make it hard for
members of minority subcultures, such as
women, to advance to higher level positions
in the organization, this is called the
__________ effect.
(a) dominator
(b) glass ceiling
(c) brick wall
(d) end-of-line
8. An executive pursuing transformational
change would give highest priority to which
one of these change targets?
(a) an out-of-date policy
(b) the organizational culture
(c) a new information system
(d) job designs in a customer service
department
9. __________ change results in a major
change of direction for an organization,
while __________ makes small adjustments
to current ways of doing things.
(a) Frame breaking; radical
(b) Frame bending; incremental
(c) Transformational; frame breaking
(d) Transformational; incremental
10. The presence or absence of a felt need
for change is a key issue in the __________
phase of the planned change process.
(a) improvising
(b) evaluating
(c) unfreezing
(d) refreezing
11. When a manager listens to users, makes
adaptations, and continuously tweaks and
changes a new MIS as it is being
implemented, the approach to technological
change can be described as __________.
(a) top-down
(b) improvisational
(c) organization development
(d) frame breaking
12. A manager using a force-coercion
strategy will rely on __________ to bring
about change.
(a) expertise
(b) benchmarking
(c) formal authority
(d) information
13. The most participative of the planned
change strategies is __________.
(a) force-coercion
(b) rational persuasion
(c) shared power
(d) command and control
14. True internalization and commitment to
a planned change is most likely to occur
when a manager uses a(n) __________
change strategy.
(a) education and communication
(b) rational persuasion
(c) manipulation and co-optation 4. ____ is the idea that jobs that are similar
(d) shared power in terms of their importance to the
organization should be compensated at the
15. Trying to covertly influence others, same level.
offering only selective information, and (a) Affirmative action
structuring events in favor of the desired (b) Realistic pay
change, is a way of dealing with resistance (c) Merit pay
by __________. (d) Comparable worth
(a) participation
(b) manipulation and co-optation 5. A _____ is a criterion that can be legally
(c) force-coercion justified for use in screening candidates for
(d) facilitation employment.
(a) job description
CHAPTER 13 (b) bona fi de occupational qualification
(c) job specification
1. Human resource management is the (d) BARS
process of developing, _____ and
maintaining a high quality workforce. 6. The first step in strategic human resource
(a) attracting management is to _____ .
(b) compensating (a) forecast human resource needs
(c) appraising (b) forecast labor supplies
(d) training (c) assess the existing workforce
(d) review organizational mission,
2. programs are designed to ensure equal objectives, and Strategies
employment opportunities for persons
historically underrepresented in the 7. In human resource planning, a/an___ is
workforce. used to determine exactly what is done in an
(a) Realistic recruiting existing job.
(b) External recruiting (a) critical-incident technique
(c) Affirmative action (b) assessment center
(d) Employee assistance (c) job analysis
(d) multiperson comparison
3. The Age Discrimination in Employment
Act prohibits discrimination against persons 8. If an employment test yields different
. results over time when taken by the same
(a) 40 years and older person, it lacks ____ ; if it bears no relation
(b) 50 years and older to actual job performance, it lacks ____.
(c) 65 years and older (a) equity, reliability
(d) of any age (b) specificity, equity
(c) realism, idealism
(d) reliability, validity learn that His employer had a(n) plan to help
on such matters.
9. Which phrase is most consistent with a (a) employee assistance
recruiter offering a job candidate a realistic (b) cafeteria benefits
job preview? (c) comparable worth
(a) “There are just no downsides to this job.” (d) collective bargaining
(b) “No organization is as good as this one.”
(c) “There just aren’t any negatives.” 14. Whereas bonus plans pay employees for
(d) “Let me tell you what you might not like special accomplishments, gain-sharing plans
once you start work.” reward them for _____ .
(a) helping to increase social responsibility
10. Socialization of newcomers occurs (b) regular attendance
during the step of the staffing process. (c) positive work attitudes
(a) recruiting (d) contributing to cost reductions
(b) orientation
(c) selecting 15. In labor–management relations, the
(d) training process of negotiating, administering, and
interpreting a labor contract is known as
11. The ____ purpose of performance ____.
appraisal is being addressed when a manager (a) arbitration
describes training options that might help an (b) mediation
employee improve future performance. (c) reconciliation
(a) development (d) collective bargaining
(b) evaluation
(c) judgment CHAPTER 14
(d) legal 1. Someone with a clear sense of the future
and the actions needed to get there is
12. When a team leader is required to rate considered a _____ leader.
10% of team members as “superior,” 80% as (a) task-oriented
“good,” and 10% as “unacceptable” for their (b) people-oriented
performance on a project, this is an example (c) transactional
of the ____ approach to performance (d) visionary
appraisal.
(a) graphic 2. Leader power = ____ power + ____
(b) forced distribution power.
(c) behaviorally anchored rating scale (a) reward, punishment
(d) realistic (b) reward, expert
(c) legitimate, position
13. An employee with domestic problems (d) position, personal
due to substance abuse would be pleased to
3. A manager who says “because I am the (b) high concern for task and high concern
boss, you must do what I ask” is relying on for people
____ power. (c) high emotional intelligence and high
(a) reward integrity
(b) legitimate (d) low job stress and high task goals
(c) expert
(d) referent 8. A leader whose actions indicate an
attitude of “do as you want, and don’t bother
4. When a leader assumes that others will do me” would be described as having a(n)____
as she asks because they want to positively leadership style.
identify with her, she is relying on ____ (a) autocratic
power to influence their behavior. (b) country club
(a) expert (c) democratic
(b) reference (d) laissez-faire
(c) legitimate
(d) reward 9. In Fiedler’s contingency model, both
highly favorable and highly unfavorable
5. The personal traits now considered leadership situations are best dealt with by a
important for managerial success include ____ leader.
____. (a) task-motivated
(a) self-confidence (b) laissez-faire
(b) gender (c) participative
(c) age (d) relationship-motivated
(d) height
10. ____ leadership model suggests that
6. In the leader-behavior approaches to leadership style is strongly anchored in
leadership, someone who does a very good personality and therefore hard to change.
job of planning work, setting standards, and (a) Trait
monitoring results would be considered a(n) (b) Fiedler’s
____ leader. (c) Transformational
(a) task-oriented (d) Blake and Mouton’s
(b) control-oriented
(c) achievement-oriented 11. House’s ____ theory of leadership says
(d) employee-centered that successful leaders find ways to add
value to leadership situations.
7. According to the Blake and Mouton (a) trait
leadership grid, the most successful leader is (b) path–goal
one who acts with (c) transformational
(a) high initiating structure and low (d) life-cycle
consideration
12. A leader who ___ would be described as
achievement-oriented in the path–goal
theory.
(a) sets challenging goals for others
(b) works hard to achieve high performance
(c) gives directions and monitors results
(d) builds commitment through participation
13. The critical contingency variable in the
Hersey-Blanchard situational model of
leadership is
(a) followers’ maturity
(b) LPC
(c) task structure
(d) LMX
14. Vision, charisma, integrity, and
symbolism are all on the list of attributes
typically associated with ____ leaders.
(a) contingency
(b) informal
(c) transformational
(d) transactional
15. The interactive leadership style,
sometimes associated with women, is
characterized by ___ .
(a) inclusion and information sharing
(b) use of rewards and punishments
(c) command and control
(d) emphasis on position power
CHAPTER 15
1. In the psychological contract, job security
is a/an __________, whereas loyalty is a/an
__________.
(a) satisfier factor, hygiene factor
(b) intrinsic reward, extrinsic reward
(c) inducement, contribution
(d) attitude, personality trait
2. Self-serving bias is a form of attribution
error that involves __________.
(a) blaming yourself for problems caused
by others
(b) blaming the environment for problems
you caused
(c) poor emotional intelligence
(d) authoritarianism
3. If a new team leader changes job designs
for persons on her work team mainly
“because I would prefer to work the new
way rather than the old,” the chances are
that she is committing a perceptual error
known as __________.
(a) halo effect
(b) stereotype
(c) selective perception
(d) projection
4. If a manager allows one characteristic of a
person, say a pleasant personality, to bias
performance ratings of that individual
overall, the manager is committing a
perceptual distortion known as __________.
(a) halo effect
(b) stereotype
(c) selective perception
(d) projection
5. Use of special dress, manners, gestures,
and vocabulary words when meeting a
prospective employer in a job interview are
all examples of how people use __________
in daily life.
(a) projection
(b) selective perception
(c) impression management
(d) self-serving bias
6. A person with a/an __________ _
personality would most likely act
unemotionally and manipulatively when
trying to influence others to achieve
personal goals.
(a) extraverted
(b) sensation-thinking
(c) self-monitoring
(d) Machiavellian
7. When a person believes that he or she has
little influence over things that happen in
life, this indicates a/an __________
personality.
(a) low emotional stability
(b) external locus of control
(c) high self-monitoring
(d) intuitive-thinker
8. Among the Big Five personality traits,
__________ indicates someone who is
responsible, dependable, and careful with
respect to tasks.
(a) authoritarianism
(b) agreeableness
(c) conscientiousness
(d) emotional stability
9. The __________ component of an
attitude is what indicates a person’s belief
about something, whereas the __________
component indicates a specific positive or
negative feeling about it.
(a) cognitive, affective
(b) emotional, affective
(c) cognitive, attributional
(d) behavioral, attributional
10. The term used to describe the discomfort
someone feels when his or her behavior is
inconsistent with an expressed attitude is
__________.
(a) alienation
(b) cognitive dissonance
(c) job dissatisfaction
(d) person–job imbalance
11. Job satisfaction is known from research
to be a good predictor of __________.
(a) job performance
(b) job burnout
(c) conscientiousness
(d) absenteeism
12. A person who is always willing to
volunteer for extra work or to help someone
else with his or her work is acting
consistently with strong __________.
(a) job performance
(b) self-serving bias
(c) emotional intelligence
(d) organizational citizenship
13. Which statement about the job
satisfaction-job performance relationship is
most likely based on research?
(a) A happy worker will be a productive
worker.
(b) A productive worker will be a happy
worker.
(c) A productive worker well rewarded for
performance will be a happy worker.
(d) There is no link between being happy
and being productive in a job.
14. A/an __________ represents a rather
intense but short-lived feeling about a
person or a situation, whereas a/an
__________ describes a more generalized 3. A worker with a high need for
positive or negative state of mind. ____________ power in McClelland’s
(a) stressor, role ambiguity theory tries to use power for the good of the
(b) external locus of control, internal locus organization.
of control (a) position
(c) self-serving bias, halo effect (b) expert
(d) emotion, mood (c) personal
(d) social
15. Through ____________, the stress
people experience in their personal lives can 4. In Herzberg’s two-factor theory, base pay
create problems for them at work while the is considered a(n) ____________ factor.
stress experienced at work can create (a) valence
problems for their personal lives. (b) satisfier
(a) eustress (c) equity
(b) self-monitoring (d) hygiene
(c) spillover effects
(d) selective perception 5. Which of the following is a correct
match?
(a) McClelland—ERG theory
CHAPTER 16 (b) Skinner—reinforcement theory
1. Lower-order needs in Maslow’s hierarchy (c) Vroom—equity theory
match well with ____________ needs in (d) Locke—expectancy theory
ERG theory.
(a) growth 6. The expectancy theory of motivation says
(b) affiliation that motivation ! expectancy "
(c) existence ____________ "
(d) achievement ____________.
(a) rewards, valence
2. When a team member shows strong ego (b) instrumentality, valence
needs in Maslow’s hierarchy, the team (c) equity, instrumentality
leader should find that ___________ will be (d) rewards, valence
motivating to him or her.
(a) alternative work schedules 7. When someone has a high and positive
(b) praise and recognition for job “expectancy” in the expectancy theory of
performance motivation, this means that the person
(c) social interactions with other team ____________.
members (a) believes he or she can meet performance
(d) easy performance goals expectations
(b) highly values the rewards being offered
(c) sees a link between high performance (b) Negative reinforcement
and available rewards (c) Shaping
(d) believes that rewards are equitable (d) Merit pay

8. In the ____________ theory of 12. B. F. Skinner would argue that “getting a

motivation, someone who perceives herself paycheck on Friday” reinforces a person for
under-rewarded relative to a coworker might coming to work on Friday, but it does not
be expected to reduce his or her reinforce the person for having done an
performance in the future. extraordinary job on Tuesday. This is
(a) ERG because the Friday paycheck fails the law of
(b) acquired needs ____________ reinforcement.
(c) two-factor (a) negative
(d) equity (b) continuous
(c) immediate
9. In goal-setting theory, the goal of “doing (d) intermittent
a better job” would not be considered a good
source of motivation because it fails the test 13. When a job is redesigned to allow a
of goal person to do a whole unit of work from
____________. beginning To end, it becomes high on which
(a) acceptance core characteristic?
(b) specificity (a) task identity
(c) challenge (b) task significance
(d) commitment (c) task autonomy
(d) feedback
10. The law of _________________ states
that behavior followed by a positive 14. A typical compressed workweek
consequence is likely to be repeated, schedule involves 40 hours of work done in
whereas behavior followed by an ____________ days.
undesirable consequence is not likely to be (a) 3
repeated. (b) 4
(a) reinforcement (c) 5
(b) contingency (d) a flexible number of
(c) goal setting
(d) effect 15. A term often used to describe someone
who is a long-term but part-time hire is
11. ____________ is a positive ____________ worker.
reinforcement strategy that rewards (a) contingency
successive approximations to a desirable (b) virtual
behavior. (c) flexible
(a) Extinction (d) permatemp

CHAPTER 17
1. When a group of people is able to
achieve more than what its members could
by working individually, this is called
____________.
(a) social loafing
(b) consensus
(c) viability
(d) synergy
2. One of the recommended strategies for
dealing with a group member who engages
in social loafing is to __________.
(a) redefine tasks to make individual
contributions more visible
(b) ask another member to encourage this
person to work harder
(c) give the person extra rewards and hope
he or she will feel guilty
(d) just forget about it
3. In an organization operating with
self-managing teams, the traditional role of
____________ is replaced by the role of
team leader.
(a) chief executive officer
(b) first-line supervisor
(c) middle manager
(d) general manager
4. An effective team is defined as one that
achieves high levels of task performance,
member satisfaction, and ____________.
(a) resource efficiency
(b) future viability
(c) consensus
(d) creativity
5. In the open-systems model of teams, the
____________ is an important input factor.
(a) communication network
(b) decision-making method
(c) performance norm
(d) set of membership characteristics
6. The team effectiveness equation states
the following: Team effectiveness ! Quality
of inputs "
(____________ # Process losses).
(a) Process gains
(b) Leadership impact
(c) Membership ability
(d) Problem complexity
7. A basic rule of team dynamics states that
the greater the ____________ in a team, the
greater the conformity to norms.
(a) membership diversity
(b) cohesiveness
(c) task structure
(d) competition among members
8. Members of a team tend to start to get
coordinated and comfortable with one
another in the ____________ stage of team
development.
(a) forming
(b) norming
(c) performing
(d) adjourning
9. One way for a manager to build positive
norms within a team is to ____________.
(a) act as a positive role model
(b) increase group size
(c) introduce groupthink
(d) isolate the team
10. To increase the cohesiveness of a group, 15. Which of the following approaches can
a manager would be best off ____________. help groups achieve creativity in situations
(a) starting competition with other groups where lots of interpersonal conflicts are
(b) increasing the group size likely to occur?
(c) acting as a positive role model (a) nominal group technique
(d) introducing a new member (b) minority rule
(c) consensus
11. Groupthink is most likely to occur in (d) brainstorming
teams that are ____________.
(a) large in size CHAPTER 18
(b) diverse in membership 1. When the intended meaning of the sender
(c) high-performing and the interpreted meaning of the receiver
(d) highly cohesive are the same, a communication is
__________.
12. A team member who does a good job at (a) effective
summarizing discussion, offering new ideas, (b) persuasive
and clarifying points made by others is (c) selective
providing leadership by contributing (d) efficient
__________ activities to the group process.
(a) required 2. The use of paraphrasing and reflecting
(b) task back what someone else says in
(c) disruptive communication is characteristic of
(d) maintenance __________.
(a) mixed messages
13. A ____________ decision is one in (b) active listening
which all members agree on the course of (c) projection
action to be taken. (d) lose–lose conflict
(a) consensus
(b) unanimous 3. Which is the best example of a supervisor
(c) majority making feedback descriptive rather than
(d) nominal evaluative?
(a) You are a slacker.
14. A team performing very creative and (b) You are not responsible.
unstructured tasks are most likely to succeed (c) You cause me lots of problems.
using ___________. (d) You have been late to work three days
(a) a decentralized communication network this month.
(b) decisions by majority rule
(c) decisions by minority rule 4. When interacting with an angry
(d) more task than maintenance activities co-worker who is complaining about a work
problem, a manager skilled at active
listening would most likely try to
__________.
(a) suggest that the conversation be held at
a better time
(b) point out that the conversation would be
better held at another location
(c) express displeasure in agreement with
the co-worker’s complaint
(d) rephrase the co-worker’s complaint to
encourage him to say more
5. When a manager uses e-mail to send a
message that is better delivered face-to-face,
the communication process suffers from
__________.
(a) semantic problems
(b) a poor choice of communication
channels
(c) physical distractions
(d) information overload
6. If a visitor to a foreign culture makes
gestures commonly used at home even after
learning that they are offensive to locals, the
visitor can be described as __________.
(a) a passive listened
(b) ethnocentric
(c) more efficient than effective
(d) an active listener
7. In order to be consistently persuasive
when communicating with others in the
workplace, a manager should build
credibility by __________.
(a) making sure rewards for compliance are
clear
(b) making sure penalties for noncompliance
are clear
(c) making sure they know who is the boss
(d) making sure good relationships have
been established
8. A manager who understands the
importance of proxemics in communication
would be likely to __________.
(a) avoid sending mixed messages
(b) arrange work spaces so as to encourage
interaction
(c) be very careful in the choice of written
and spoken words
(d) make frequent use of e-mail messages to
keep people well informed
9. A conflict is most likely to be functional
and have a positive impact on performance
when it is __________.
(a) based on emotions
(b) resolved by arbitration
(c) caused by resource scarcities
(d) of moderate intensity
10. An appeal to superordinate goals is an
example of a(n) __________ approach to
conflict management.
(a) avoidance
(b) structural
(c) dysfunctional
(d) self-serving
11. The conflict management style with the
greatest potential for true conflict resolution
involves __________.
(a) compromise
(b) competition
(c) smoothing
(d) collaboration
12. When a person is highly cooperative but
not very assertive in approaching conflict,
the conflict management style is referred to
as __________.
(a) avoidance
(b) authoritative
(c) smoothing
(d) collaboration

13. The three criteria of an effective

negotiation are quality, cost, and
__________.
(a) harmony
(b) timeliness
(c) efficiency
(d) effectiveness

14. In classic two-party negotiation, the

difference between one party’s minimum
reservation point and the other party’s
maximum reservation point is known as the
__________.
(a) BATNA
(b) arena of indifference
(c) myth of the fixed pie
(d) bargaining zone

15. The first rule of thumb for gaining

integrative agreements in negotiations is to
__________.
(a) separate the people from the problems
(b) focus on positions
(c) deal with a minimum number of
alternatives
(d) avoid setting standards for measuring
outcomes