No. of Pages in Booklet -24 uftsar 4 wedi a wem-150 No. of Questions in Booklet -150 Paper Code : 01 SUBJECT : G.K. & Others wie: 230 a ime: 2.30 Hours SSS a Aa Ba a a ea SRT car acts rt | xe ah ever wt at beef dew a GAT MEAG eT we a) er GARRET wet A PTE areal a ef ‘On opening the paper seal/polythene bag of the Question Booklet the candidate should ensure that Question Booklet ‘Number and Barcode of OMR Answer Sheet must be same. If there is any difference, candidate must obtain another ‘on 19p}00 wonsANy /inab lbbajh bat Qalos sae Exon abe — Question Booklet from Invigilator. Candidate himself shall be responsible for ensuring this. tanta & fare Per wh wed 3 oar dfig | wal nel & sin wart 31 wate wet a dae Ww A GAR ATE) ew 8 car wee 3 AH er A wet & ee BY AoE AT re 5, te Wer Soa tof oem AA Mtg fee wT 42,34 afb Roar sear &y spall at at oe Phe we Bot 8 das ow md gem wa Toe Te a ge 8 8 ee eT EI 6. OMR seeran aa ster gftrer @ ace ven G1 oF area th rey ry aT oe, A TER Prret ae om @ ae Ad ala alge BoB Rae 7. wes ar ee AG we SET 1/3 AT TET TAT are Gere BT aes Ger oka feet oA wer bw air mre 1 Pre A we Se MS aT a BY sare ree rr eT AT ST) 8. raree oF erm eas vt at oh et at pte afer 1 af eh eel a arr aah ae ah 8, ot wae Row archer gre Pronger artedt ory 9. ae ae at TAR STATE Ta Oe ATER we AR ra aay apt de Tee eH we als |s ITeTAT ame oT am El 10. Pe we Hoa wee A wh EH a GeATERN we AAR a, ah oer SRS an aA Bu Ha st ‘Sara Ara eT] ore: ae at aren set wed emg eT aT Te TT 8 od sags arr Tg Te &, at ge one @ fog A mre zo wad ge Pate Prorat ae Brey rer A Poy RY elf wt ten A ar RT Barren wens & Ral ae Te INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES. Answer all questions Al questions carry equal marks. Only one answer sw be given for each question. 1f more than one answers are marked, it would be treated as ‘wrong answer. 5. Each question has four altemative responses marked serially a8 1, 2,3, 4, You have to darken only one circle or bubble Indicating the comect answer on the Answer Sheet using BLUE BALL POINT PEN. 6 The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you ae directed wo open the Test Booklet takeout the Answer Sheet and fil inthe particulars carefully with blue ball point pen only 7.1/3 part of the mark(s) of each question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means an incorrect answer or more than one answers for any question. Leaving all the relevant circles or bubbles of any question blank will not be considered as wrong answer. 8. Mobile Phone or any other electronic gadget in the «examination halls trill prohibited. A candidate found with any of such objectionable material with hiner wil be strictly dealt as pe rules. 9, Please coretly fill your Roll Number in O.MR. Sheet '$ Marks can be deducted for filling wrong or incomplete Roll Number 10, If there is any sort of ambiguty/mistake either of printing or factual nature, then out of Hindi and English Version of the ‘question, the English Version willbe treated as standard ‘Warning : 1a candidates found copying or if any unauthorized material is found in hisher possession, FLLR. would be lodged against hinvher in the Police Station and he/she would liable to be prosecuted. Department may also deba him/her permanent fom all future examinations. ea ater gtaar at aa 7H 5 et wel 7A AN! ‘Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. [o1]-W1 Page 1 of 241. “Chappan Ki Pabad of Rajasthan? (1) Dungarpur- ‘Udaipur Banswara (3) Barmer (@) Kota-Jhalawar 2 Match List-I with List-I and select the. 2% correct answer using code given below - List -1 (A) Sandy Arid Plain (B) Luni Basin (C) Shekhawati Region (D) Ghaggar Plain List - Il @ Nai (ii) Degana (ii) Pachpadra (iv) Bap (1) (A) - Gv), 8) - Gid, (C)- Gi, (D)- @) (A) - Gi), B) - @, (© - Gv), O) - Gi) 8) (A)- Gi), B)- Gv), (C)- Gi), D)- @) (A)- Gi, B)- @, © - Gi), (D) - Gv) 3. Which (Origin Place - River) is not a correct match? (1) Diwer - Kothari 2) Khamnor - Luni @) Bijral - Khari ( Bichameda - Som 4. As per Koppen’s climate classification, which among the following are correctly matched? (A) Aw- Jhalawar (B) Cwg - Banswara (© Bshw - Alwar (D) Bwhw ~ Bikaner (1) (B) and (Cc) 8) (B), (©) and (D) (2) (A), (C) and (D) (4) (A)and (D) 5. Which district has the maximum Reserve a r , islocatedin which part =} “our ers” woe S ae WaT sraftera 8? () Geass 2) waagR @) asx (4) wrer-srenars La GA-1a Wea site ver wet BR or was He fey | S afte — ah -1 (a) as Siren Aart (8) a ARs (QC tard vet (D) sR a Aa wh -0 (ate Gi) ST (ii) FATT (yar M@) @B)- Gi), © - Gi), D)-@ (2) (A) , (B) — @, (C) - Gv), D) ~ Gi) ® @) (B) - (iv), (C) ~ Gi), D)~ @) (A) - Gi), B)- @, (© - Gi), (D) - Gv) . ar aT (SqTA wea — wal) Yifera adi 8? (1) fea — stent 2) erik — ait (3) Reet — eae (4) Aorist — de 2 att o cerry weer & organ eT aa woh 8 uel Wileia 8? (A) Aw - Strerars (B) Cw - aiearst (© Bshw - aera (D) Bwhw - @orie ® @w(C) ®) @), (QW (D) @ (A), (C) Fad) @ (A) wD) . oR 7 31 eax 2020 & aque wales Forest in Rajasthan as on 31% Dec 2020? saeftiet oH foe Foret H 2? () Udaipur @ Chittorgarh 1) wea @ Reise (3) Alwar (4) Sawai Madhopur Q) ara 4) wag aig (o1]-M1 Page 2 of 24- Match List - I with List -Il and select the answer from the code given below ~ List-1 (Mineral) (A) Iron Ore (B) Copper (©) Lead and Zine (D) Tungston List - I (Area) (i) Degana-Bhakri (ii) Chauth Ka Barwara (iii) Kho-Dariba (iv) Dabla Singhana (1) A- (0, B- (i), C- (iii), D- (iv) 2) A- (ii), B- (, C- (iv), D- (ii) ®) A- (iil), B - (i), C- @), D- (iv) (4 A- (iv), B- (iti), C- (i), D-() 6 7. As per livestock census 2019, which among 7 the following has the largest population? (1) Goat 2) Buffalo (8) Sheep (@) Camel 8. Kesar Bagh Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in & which district of Rajasthan? (*) Baran ) Udaipur _- @) Dholpur (4) Nagaur 9. In which year, the Government of Rajasthan 9 has framed ‘Rajasthan State Environment Policy’? () 1996 (2) 2010 ( 2002 (4) 2006 10. 10. Which among the following drought years in Rajasthan affected maximum population? ae - 1a eet -118 Bre She cer A Ry ay ae 8 wa SR oT RM ify — (*) A-(@,B- Gi), C- (il), D- (iv) ) A- (ii), B- @, C- (iv), D- (iii) @a- c-(0,D- (iv) (4) A- (iv), B- (iii), C- (i), D-() WY UT 20193 aque, Prafettt Fa forat crea wad atte 8? (1) amy 2) er @ as @ Se Sa arr Tenia sraneg ToT & oh fret ¥ crafter 8? (1) aR @) sea (8) etteage () ari wren wer & fre ad We wi afar Aa ones Re Wrarrere diferh)’ wig? { (1) 1996 @) 2010 ) 2002 (4) 2006 Prati at a a for ahd oena F rane a wale oreo went EE? (1) 2009-10 (2) 2004-05 (1) 2009-10 ) 2004-05 , @) 2013-14 (4) 1991-92 (8) 2013-14 (4) 1991-92 11. In Rajasthan Desert Development Program 11. wore 4 aw fora @rlaa ORAL get — started in the year - (1) 1971-72 2) 1966-67 (1) ae 1971-72 @) at 1966-67 ' 8) 1977-78 (@) 1981-82 @) af 1977-78 —@) a 1981-82 [01] - uw Page 3 of 24 !12. Among the following which are not the inter- state irrigation projects of Rajasthan? (A) Jalkham Project (B) Bhakra ~ Nangal Project (©) Jawai Project ' (D) Beas Project Select the answer using codes given below - (1) AandB (2) Bandc ( CandD @ Aandc 13. The district having highest percentage of decadal growth rate of population of Rajasthan during 2001-2011 is - (1) Jaisalmer (2) Barmer ©) Jodhpur 14. Match list - I with list - II and choose the correct answer from the code given below - List-1 (Energy) (A) Natural Gas (8) Wind {©) Solar Energy (D) Atomic Energy List - 11 @ Banswara (Site) (@ Bada Bagh | (ii) Bheru Khera (iii) Ramgarh (iv) Rawatbhata C-(),D- (iv) ), C- (ii), D - (iv) | 8) A- (iii), B- (i), C- (9, D- (iv) 1 (4) A-(, Be (ili), C- (Hi), D- Gv) 18. Which is the incorrect pair (District/Site)? > w Udaipur - Gomteshwar ) Jaisalnier - Fossil Park (®) Hanumangarh - Badopal | Alwar -Harsora 2 Refit F 8 cet wre at orem fiers fated adi 8? (A) Serr afetorar > @)aegsite oa (© wag uae (D) are Ueto wel GR wr wa A fey aE S sifery — ) ASB @) Baik @ cated @ Aske 13. roe wr fora reat 2001 8 20113 Hea aaa orien gar ex wierd wale e — (1) Shree 2) arse (3) ahege @) aiearsr 14. ht -131 ah a Ga By we Ry ay a 4 aS SR gy — eh -1 (ssf) : (A) apf aa QT (Oa wat (0) weary ~rees) wal et - 11 - (er) . (3s aT = G45 Bet ‘ Gi) errs (iv) wacrreT (1) A- (ii); B - (ili), C- (i @) a- ®) A- (ii, B- (1,C-(, D- (iv) @ A-(),B- (iii); G-(i),D-(v) - 15. OM OI YA Ted 8? () saa @) steer—sfrarer rei @) egimg—adt @) srre—-eRaRT j a | [01] -1 Page 40f 2416. Read the following statements about Bagore ~ (A) Micfoliths have been found from Bagore. (B) _V.N. Misra was one of the excavators of Bagore. (1) Aand B both are correct ) Only Ais correct @) Only Bis correct (4) Aand B both are incorrect 17. Maximum coins of which of the following republican tribes have been found in Rajasthan? (*) Yaudheya @) Malva @) Arjunayana () Rajanya 18. ‘Kakildev’ belongs to which of the following dynasty? (*) Guhils @) Chauhans (3) Rathore @) Kachhawaha 19. Which of the following ruler of Mewar got the Chittor Fort repaired? (1) Maharana Amar Singh 2) Maharana Karan Singh (8) Maharana Jagat Singh (4) Maharaja Takhat Singh 20. Who became the chairman of. the Municipal Board in the Jodhpur Municipality Election held in November 19447 (1) Jai Narayan Vyas @) Mathuradas Mathur () Dawarkadas.Purohit (4) Achaleshwar Prasad 21. Where did Swami Gopal Das. ji establish Hitkarini Sabha in 1907 A.D.? 16. ari 3 ak 4 Prafaiftaa wert ar vey — (A) aik agree fate] (8) 4m. Ra ak & ceria 4 A wal ) awd B et was Q) daa a wee @) daa B wale @ A Bari tad = 17. were 4 Pra 4 8 fee aoa orTonhy @ walt fad ores gy 8? (1) ater (2) Hera @) agfarry 4) RT 18. aifhata’ Pra 4 © fee der 8 waa 8? Oc @ ater (3) wets. (4) Bearer 19. fer 4 a foe tars & eae 4 feriters fect A RET Ben A? () FeRroT oR RS 2) were af fie 8) FER oT Ris @) aerron we Rig 20. aarax 1944 4 anata siege ae oafereT, gia 4 arate as & ara os a? () SEAR a (2) RRTETT ARR 8) gree qed 4) seer Tare 21. eapht atoreraret oH A 1907 ¥. 4 fect wT Hy HUT HET BY ot? (@ Churu (2) Ajmer () ae @) sore @) Tonk (4) Banswara ) cle @) aierarst [01] - w Page 5 of 24 524, 26. 2. 8 [01] -M1 On the recommendation of which of the following Committee, ‘Matsya Sangh’ was merged in Rajasthan? (1) P. Satya Narayana Rao Committee (2) Shankar Rao Dev Committee (8) SK. Dhar Committee’ (4) Fazal Ali Committee | Which of the following communities use term ‘Bader’ for its temples? (1) Ahir Banjara ®) Seervi (4) Dewasi ‘Who among the following served as the Chief Minister of Rajasthan thrice? (1) Jai Narayan Vyas 2) Vasundhara Raje (3) Bhairon Singh Shekhawat (4) Shiv Charan Mathur * Triloka, Hiranand, Sahib Ram and Ramji Das were the painters of which Princely State? (2) Jodhpur () Kota ( Jaipur ©) Bikaner Who among the following is the author of ‘Raga Kalpadrum’? (1) Radhakrishna (3) Pundrik Vitthal @ Bhavbhatt (4) Krishnanand Vyas In which of the following Forts the ‘Nana Sahab’s Jhalra’ and the ‘Ibrahim's Jhalra’ reservoirs located? (1) Taragarh (Ajmer) () Gagron Fort (Jhalawar) (3) Bala Quila (Alwar) (4) Bhatner Fort (Hanumangarh) ‘The Naga branch of Dadu cult was founded by- (1) Garibdas (8) Banwaridas (2) Miskindas (4) Sunderdas 22. fret 8 a foe WAR wt ager oe Are wet ‘or Woe F face far war a? 23. fatter a wtrer ware ont Ht ferg a8e oe wr HaPT Gea 8? (1) sR (2) dart @) Grd @) tart 2. Refit Fa a aH ae wR S gent we? (1) oe areerT a 2) apr wt (3) at Ris sara 4) Ria wer ERE 2. Arie, errs, uta wd waohare fra ah Raed 3 far a : (1) wragR 2) shee @) dare @ wer 26. Prefer YY OT WT Beg HT MTOR # (1) werpeT (2) aa aE @) wste Aga 4) Gorse oT 27. area @I sient sik “gmfer oT BTR ‘wromers fe fret H sraftert 8? (1) arerrg (ror) @) art gt (rears) (3) aren fever (areraR) @ qe oF eqs) 28. ag der at aT eran fred ane wait FH mg ot? (1) eaarer @ wranierr 2) faRerrerT @) dex Page 6 of 2429. Which of the following folk deity has their 29 favafertrar 4 8 fara cha faa or Gea fee | main temple in ‘Kolu’? ‘ae Ae? (1) Gogaji 2) Tejaji ) ah 2) dant (3) Pabuji (4) Mallinathji @) aapit (4) Heirs 30. Which magazine is published by,Rajasthani 30. Tuner} TST weer ye wep sare, Bhasha Sahitya and Sanskriti Academy Sore are Brae ore or eer fee GT Bikaner? e (1) Jagti Jot (2) Madhumati (1) apr oie 2) ER (3) Parampara (4 Maru Bharti (3) WERT (4) Fe aR 31. astern Winds mean - 31. gag 8 oer & — (1) Wind is blowing from East to West () gar dS oRae Hh oie aa we (2) Wind is blowing from West to East ear oes Se GH ake wa HE (3) Wind is blowing from South to East @) gar err a of a oie aa we (4) Wind is blowing from North to East © ea oa Gan wae We 82. Which of the following is‘Macaroni Wheat’? 3% freq #8 ata eH Far AE 8? (1) Triticum aestivum () fgfear qediay (2) Triticum vulgare (2) fefeaa aelar (8) Triticum durum @) Reem sare (4) ‘Triticum dicoccum © Rites sear 33. Arrange the following types to erosion in. 9% yar oeRaa & MR veri at gem Sa order of ‘first to advance’ stages - rel Ht maa BY — {a) Gully erosion (@ Tel aor : (b) Sheet erosion (b) ate srt (©) Rill erosion (9 Ra omer (@) Splash erosion (2) eR aR Order of first to advance stages - wer @ afte aed wa A aed — bdoa @ dboa Baca @ abea @ dbac @ bacd @ dbac @ bacd 34. One ‘hectare cm’ of water is equivalent to 34 ym ‘Bacay Gah! OMA fart chee oS how many litres of water ? wre eet 2? (1) 10,000 litres 2) 20,000 litres. (1) 10,000 atex =) 20,000 alex (3) 50,000|itres (4) 1,00,000 litres 2) 50,000 tex (4) 1,00,000 ahex 35. ‘Total water requirement of Sugarcane crop 98 wi a wa A Get ier Ahr B — is- (1) 100-200hacm —@) 200-300 ha cm (1) 100-200. &. @) 200-3008. SH. ) 300-400hacm — (4) 400-500 hacm (8) 300-4008. ft. 4) 400-5008. Wit. [01] - uM Page-7 of 2436. A day receiving more than 36. Pa. & ate at wet oe aer is called as ‘crop rainy day’. feos weet auf fae’ oer wat 21 25 @ 50 1) 25 @) 5.0 @) 7.5 (4) 10.0 8) 7.5 ( 10.0 87. In semi-arid regions P/PET ratio stands 97- ages aot 4 ast/aitey areca between - aga eat 8 — (1) 0.50 to 0.75 @) 0.03 to.0.20 (1) 050%0.75 2) 0.03 40.20 (3) 0.20 to 0.50 @) 0.75 to 1.00 (3) 0.20%0.50 @) 0.75%1.00 $8. Calculate the commercial dose of herbicide 38. 2.0 dada da & fay woah a ate for 2.0 hectare with following information ~ ol mead al oul 7 (a) Available formulation - 20% WP (a) Sucrer Grier — 20% sagt. : (b) f&sera a art — 4 oa Ura (b) Dose of spray ~ 4gm ai./ha aa tatax (1) 8gm_ @) 20gm 0) 8 am (2) 20 a 8) 40gm (4 100gm @) 40 mr @ 100 974 38. Arrange the following crops in order of‘low 99. ET well at ‘an 8 afte dea a ATS to high’ protein content - STAR OR wR BY — (a) Wheat @ag (b) Groundnut (b) rv (© Rice Oa (4) Soybean (a eer M acbd @obad acbd @ cbad ®@ cadb @ ca,b,d 8) gadb @ cabd 40. The optimum seed rate (kg/ha) for 40 tex amt ot Odi tg seem dw ay (oT cultivation of hybrid rice is about - /®8FER) B () 15 @ 25 0) 15 @) 25 @) 35 @) 45 (8) 35 4) 45 41. Which of the following practices is adopted 41. aq # ‘aera’ at & fed ate Mt Prot to prevent ‘greening’ in Potato? aig uit 8? (1) Closer Spacing 2) Earthing up () ord gag @) fat aera Sowing (3) EarlySowing (4) Normal Sowing © sred gat es 42. Sugar-beet belongs to the family - 42. go fra go 8 wast 8? (1) Chenopodiaceae (2) Pedaliaceae () Sree @ asciet @) Euphorbiaceae (4) Cruciferae @) qifiet seer [01] - Mw Page 8 of 24 {43. what will be the real value of seeds having 80% purity and 70% germination? (1) 48 (2) 52 @) 54 (4) 56 44. Aprisilviculture refers to - (1) Crops+ Animals (2) Crops-+ Grasses (8) Crops+ Flowers (4) Crops + Trees 45. Which crop is used for production of ‘Oitand Fibre’ both? (1) Castor (3) Mesta @ Jute (4) Linseed 46. The active factor of Soil formation is - (1) Climate & biosphere (2) Parent material @) Relief @ Time 47. Diagnostic subsurface horizon is- (1) Epipedon (2) Plager (8) Endopedon ( Histichorizon 48. Salt affected soils of the arid zone are Glassified under which soil order? (1) Ultisols @) Spodosols @) Mollisols (4) Aridisols 49. Organic matter of soil decreases the fixation’ of- ~ () Nitrogen ) Phosphorus * @) Potassium * (4) None of the above 50. The deficiency of copper in plants causes which disease? 43. do or anafae ar eM eT ae Yaa 80 safereret a aiegeer 70 ferent 8? (4g “ @s2 (8) 54 1 456 44. ifiediacas ft dalla aa 8? (1) pee + WY (2) weet + UE Oorr+ a = 4) wa + eT 48. oh Wh waa Ta a tar eet Ss see & fag wait 8? (1) Rest QE (3) er 4) sree 48. yi Patt or airs ORG s — 0) cerang Wi Sta as 5 2) tge veri @ wrenpft (4) wr 41. STE Peri WAG GAR Hee F — y () fits @) ar @) Tener @) Beitew tare 8. ep aa ot aa wana Fare wr fra FAPTT 3 anf Pra oar 8 1) aiecteter @ sierra _@) ahetteter @ Ret S49. gar ft andfi wap! fire aero Reto at BH BRT 8B? () a @) seer @) whee @ arta Fa as wet 50. thet H aa a ot I aha ait deel eich BF (1) Die-back disease (2) Khaira disease (1) ag da @ aaa en are ir . : {) whiptall disease (Barly bight . er nen disease : [01] - Mw Page 9 of 24 ’51. Who gave the DTPA extraction of 51. gar 4 qe dum act a Sashy Pree micronutrient determination method in soil? water fered ener fear rer? (1) Subbiah and Asija (1956) (1) yaar ya ameter (1956) (2) Lindsay and Norvell (1978) 2) fied ve aieaer (1978) (8) Berger and Truog (1939) @ waked gh (1939) (4) Adamus and Hartwing (1982) (@) yan v@ eet (1982) 52. Which one is non-edible oil cake? 82. fey 4 8 ott th ay ere Teh 8? (1) Coconut cake () aRaet welt (2) Rapeseed and mustard cake 2) wean Ud Bet ot Get @) Groundnut cake ®) roche (4) Castor cake 4) ast Get 58. Which autotroph microorganism derive its 93. tq er eanida Gera aor Tee S energy from the oxidation of inorganic aietieer & Gut wes wear 8? compounds? (1) Photoautotrophs () wrehetieiser 2) Chemoautotrophs 2 srsitegire (9) Thermoautotrophs (8) erefsifeigiow (4) None of the above 4) antes 4 a a ae 54. Gypsum is used for reclamation of which soil 54 farara at waa foe wR at yasit b Yee type? 2g fear ora 2? (1) Saline @) Sodic () aah 2) are (3) Acidic (4) Water logged (3) aver @) wa ART Bat 55. Which of the following soil has highest total 55. far 4 @ fe gar BT Ga wsHT wa porosity? afte erat 8? (1) Sandy soil @) Sandy loam soil () weg yar @) agg dae yer (3) Clay-loam soil (4) Loam soil @ were yar @) are Fer 58. Tensiometer used to measure soil moisture 56 qr 4 art wet @ fey ore F fer UT content could be used upto which soil aren ePerahiex yer at fre eR te ya moisture tension? wa Wy ars BVM? (1) 0.85 atmosphere tension. (1) 0.85 areraxor care ) 3.0 atmosphere tension @ 3.0 aenaeo art 3) 5.0 atmosphere tension @) 5.0 anaem aat (4) 12.0 atmosphere tension © 120 RRO TAT 87. Which is the most efficient implement for 57. wie yd ae ater } Ga 4 af GT Ss land grading when animal power is used in fd vg ahh o walt Swe gaa da the job and the fields are of small to medium orn @? size? (1) Bulldozer (2) Buck Scraper 0) gaeier @) a aR (8) Land plane (4) Wooden float @) avs eH @) agi HF vate [01] - Page 10 of 2458. To measure comparatiyely high discharge 58. yw fete Sra wT |e S snwerle wiki Ww flow in an irrigation channel or a well outlet meTET Tat ae at am 3 fey fet at the source, which of the following device is are av ater way dea 8? best suited? (1) Orifice (2) Rectangular weir ) aR a 2) araaror fae (3) V-notch @) Cut-throat flume 3) dae (@) we-sife Ta” 59. Which type of pump discharges the same 5% unit & gata (se) @ freder fa ge oT iT volume of water regardless of the head UFt & Wa AT oT Pde Hear 8? against which they operate? (1) Centrifugal pump (1) Sgtepret (2) Vertical turbine pump @) wel cag iT (3) Reciprocating pump (3) *esfer ie (4) Submersible pump @ warftica oT source of dwarfing genein wheat. 60. a4 dtr & oft ar ee 21 (9) Norin 10 @) Kafir (1) MRA 10 2) aifex (3) Dee-geo-woo-gen (4) Taxas @) S-Ret-qos 4) tea 61. Which among the followingis considered as 91. fq 4 @ Gat Wa gore Au vara F objectionable disease in pearl millet seed smaferorre er a we A aT Ta B? production? . 1) witt ) Blight () face @) gerar (3) Ergot (4) Khaira (8) orfe @ & 62. Mutations that convert the wild type (the 9% scaRtads, ait sitet sor (amie Grierg9) common phenotype) to the mutant form (the aw vara wr get wale) 4 oRafiT rare phenotype) are called as - art & agent &— (1) Recessive (2) Dominant (1) adt saad (2) wat wate mutation mutation a (8) Reverse mutation (4) Forward mutation ee 63. Tendency of the genes to stay together 83 denquia @ dhs vist } ww uri wa Ft during inheritance is called as - waft weer 8 — (1) Independent 2) Segregation () eri rages) erRT assortment ; (®) Genetic Linkage (4) Crossing over (©) sagt wecicra (©) irr fafter 64. Which among the following method/s isnot &% fit 4 8 shh fAR/fRat a wT used for handling segregating generations? faatttia Heat & wart 8g Al fear ora 8? (1) Back Cross (2) Pedigree Q) ae wre (2) dsnaet fafer (3) Both (1) and(2) (4) Mass Selection 8 @ ard @ aa. 65. Grow Out Test (GOT) is used to determitie - 65. at smse Want (GOT) er Sait o fey fear Get 2 (1) Physical purity (2) Genetic purity () atte gaat 2) ong gaat (3) Germination (4) Viability (©) sige (@) staat arver [01] - MI Page 11 of 2468. In which gene pool biological species can be inter crossed easily without any problems with fertility of the progeny? (1) Primary gene pool @) Secondary gene pool @) Tertiary gene pool () Both (2) & (3) 87. Which among the following is major breeding objective in pulses? (1) Erucic acid elimination 2) Flowering synchronization ) Non-shattering (4) Both (2) & (3) 68. Which selection favours optimal phenotypes approximately close to the mean of the expressed variation? (1) Stabilizing 2) Disruptive selection selection (3) Directional (4) Response to selection selection Superiority of Fi's over the better parent is called as- (1) Male sterility (2) Standard heterosis (3) Heterobeltiosis (4) Average heterosis 70. GNG 2171 is an improved variety of - ) Chickpea (4) Mustard @) Groundnut (3) Pearl millet 71. Which of the following is responsible for fruit / 66. fer aS foe vis oa HT ate monital ¥ ‘oer oars &, Wort % fea fet weer at waET 3? ‘ (1) srt oi yer 2) fides cia a Le @) iae ois a @) (2) afk (3) SAY 67. frat 8 otra cael 4 yer worm vey ” (0 efter eRe RT ‘ (2) qe wren (3) at tefer @) (2) sik (3) aH 68. ahr wri ann Rea d me dS ata F SET TMT WTSI wT Wels wea BP () RR ae 2) aera wT © ere aa @) ae wfafeeT 68. Fy dale a oy deme Ue B Atom — (1) ae seme wee FI Q) ae tax sit Becht 81 @) wftag dar sia earl &1 4) aitie tar ath oeentt 8) 70. ofgash 2171 fora weet Gt were fever 8? (1) spre Qa (3) aTORT (4) weet Th. frafetad 4 or wer vat & fry saearl ripening? ee (1) Gibberellins (2) Ethylene (1) Pra (2) gengfert 3) Cytokinin () Abscisic Acid (3) wigcrestrr @ vata ots [01] - wi Page 12 of 247 Match List - I with List - Il and select the correct answer ~ List -1 (@_ Indole Butyric Acid (ii) Gibberellic Acid (iii) Zeatin {iv) Abscisic Acid List -I1 (@) Initiation of cell di (b) Stress hormone (© Root initiation (@) Breaking dormancy (1) i-cii-diii-aiv-b ®) i-Gii-a,ii-d,iv-b ®) i-cii-b,ili-aiv-d @) i-cyti -div-b 73. Diffusion Pressure Deficit (DPD) of a cell is equal to - (1) Osmotic Pressure / Turgor Pressure 2) Osmotic Pressure + Turgor Pressure (8) Osmotic Pressure - Turgor Pressure (4) Turgor Pressure - Osmotic Pressure 74. What is the average physical size range (nm) of Nano Urea particles being manufactured in India? (@) 1-20nm ) 20-50 nm 9) 50-100 nm (4) 100-200 nm ‘75. ‘The term “nanotechnology” was first coined by- () Richard Smalley @) Norio Taniguchi @) Richard Feynman (4) K. Eric Drexler ‘76. The value arrived by dividing the sum of observations by the total number of observations is called as ~ (1) Mean. (2) Median (3) Mode @ Correlation 71. The correlation coefficient is a unit free measure which ranges from ~ 72. htt al eH a qafea sig sie wet SR or we wifey — wt -i @ wie aeRe ws ii) Rrafee ys @ div-b 73. aiftret Ht feat aa =a FS aeae ‘ett 8 - () RRR Ta / eR Ta 2) uereRor ara + ware ca 3) wRreReT ara - weer ert 4) oT ara - RTT eG 74. are 4 Pifie Ast gRRar sot a sift sree wir (Ger) eH e? (1) 1-20nm (2) 20-50nm 3) 50-100 nm (4) 100-200 nm 75. “darth woe ever Rear en — () Rag ere A 2) ADRs ays A 8) Rag data > @) &, eRe Samer 7 76. ee WR Me AT Gee B (1) ae 2) mae 3) aaa (4) weet 77. eerie pie Ue gars Bw ay & ferret La aa 81 (1) Otot (2) -1to+1 () 081 @ 1841 ®) Oto @) Otos ®@) Ooo @) 08S | [01] - w Page 13 of 2478. ‘The error degree of freedom in Randomized Block Design (RBD) with’t’ treatments and ‘r’ replications is calculated by - () rt ) (r-) (1) @) tL @) ta 79. Which vegetable is very deep rooted from following? (1) Pumpkin ) Onion 8) Cabbage @) chilli 80. Which type of seed bed is prepared mostly during winter season? (1) Raised nursery bed (2) Flat nursery bed (8) Sunken nursery bed (4) Allofthe above 81. “Pride of India’ is a variety of - (1) Cabbage @) Cauliflower (3) Brinjal @) Chilli 82. ‘Leaf curl’ disease is caused by - (1) fungus ) bacteria © virus (4) mycoplasma 83. Which is quick growing vegetable crop? 8 agtoe ws often GRAS) Ft STR ok 'r aitpht & eer ae a kata Br BH ToT BH UE B— ra Qcryey @) ta @) rtd 79. frafefaa 4 8 att aga wet as ae asst 8? ) wR @) eas (3) carit 4) Prt 80. gore fore ator Sher ay ala ¥ dare Pra ara 8? () oat ge want (2) Gre FART ©) at ee (Har wa) @) oer weit 81. args alte gPsar ww Prete — () Garin a 2) arnt a @) er a 4) Pet a 82. ‘eis wel’ ST wT OR g - (1) wag @ sary 8) fary (4) agate 83. vite verfta eh aie wat Gr BP (1) Cabbage (2) Cauliflower ) qariet @) arin (3) Radish (4) Carrot (3) ae 4) TIER 84. Which is the most easy and popular method 84 @ftaq oI BI walle orem g wafer fr of planting of fruit plants? aa te? (1) Square system (2) Hexagonal system (1) ator far @) Fequror fer 8) Contour system (4) Quincunx system (8) eritea AR (4) Rw fa 85. Percentage of essential oil present in dry 85. if] BY atti F ferret coriander seeds is - Wikraa staat ea 81 (1) 0.1 to 1.0% @) 2.5't0 3.5% 1) 0,191.0% 2) 25%35% @) 4.005.0% 4) 5.5 06.0% @) 4.085.0% 4) 5.5 86.0% 86. Gladiolus is propagated by - 86. vafsatere Ho mente... & a aa 2) (1) Bulb (2) Corm O) aepag (2) ae (3) Rhizome @ Tuber 8) Weq 4) ae [01] - Mw Page 14 of 2487. “Fairy Ring” problem in lawn is caused by - 87. oitet Hi “chert Rear” ware foe seer ehhh 8? () bacteria @ airborne fungi (1) eee @ agua TEE (3) soilborne fungi (4) virus 8) qaahia oye (4) fay 88. Riceyness in cauliflower is due to - 88. erin 4 Ree a ares — (1) low temperature (2) high temperature QO) Fr A 2 sa TF ; @) high moisture (4) high rainfall @) va a (4) afte ast 89. ‘Pusa Madhuras’ isa variety of - 88. “gar aye wep fret e — (1) Watermelon) Round melon O) Rg a 2) feos Ht (3) Long melon (4) Muskmelon 8) wast Bt @) wear 90. ‘Little leaf’ in Brinjal is transmitted by - 90. dara 4 fate ohm’ wr area e — (1) whitefly (2) fruit fly () aq art 2) wot Fae () leafhopper (4 aphid () uaa wear (ets () tar (gfe) a) 91. ‘Pusa All Green’ is the variety of - 91. ‘ger offer af’ ue fret @ — (1) amaranthus (2) spinach (1) were (2) are (8) fenugreek () lettuce (3) aft ® aaa 92. The pungency in chilli is due to - 92. fir cor crearas fare wreer eta 8? (1) rutin (2) capsaicin () wer @) oR (9) lycopene (4) carotenoid 8) gai @ éterigs 93. The best example of ethylene absorber in 9 Mdfti7 FY gaits S ober or wagRT packaging is - BART F — (1) ferrous oxide (0) Ore oifangs (2) hydrated lime @ gar gn a (3) potassium permanganate (3) déRraa wre (4) Activated charcoal (4) Bearer Berar 94. ‘Surya’ is variety of - 94. ‘eat ya fret & (1) Grape (2) Papaya ) aig Hh @) att a (9) Pomegranate (4) Aonla @) om a 4) aad Ht 95. ‘CA storages’ are based on which system? 95. hy. vsr fret Tal oe arena 8? (1) increase the Oz and reduced the COz O) chro oO after we oda oe concentration atfags of ait (2) reduced the Oz and increase the COz @ siete a or wer an ona oe concentration sifeengs 3 atfrerct @ increase the Nitrogen and Oz (o) area vd sfiedhort a aera concentration : (@ won Bt offre wen ard we (4) increase the sulphur oxide and decrease ae CO. atfeergs HH eit [01] - uM Page 15 of 2498. ‘The finished Jam should not be more than .- % invert sugar. (2) 20 percent (® 67 percent (1) 40 percent 8) 55 percent 97. After processing, the cans should be cooled rapidly to about - (1) 29°C @) 39°C (3) 49°c (@) s9°c 98. High pressure drip irrigation system works at operating pressure of - (1) less than 10 psi @) less than 20 psi (8) less than 30 psi (4) 30 psi or more 99. Which of the following is a day neutral plant? 96. dar ve ¥ smafea weer a Alar err & test et ea sf () 40 wie ) 20 wifereret @) 55 iter @ 67 uiteIa 97. GRRE SUIT, Sal wt det Y over fe una & — () 29°C @) 39°C (3) 49°C (4) 59°C 98. oq war Ru find fra cae R onl Set 2? () 10 tiewsng. 8 Br @) 204mg. FHA @ 308waag. 8 or @ 30 thyasng. a arte 99. fer Fa ot wr thet S Ea a? () Onion @) chili (1) esr 2) ft (3) Fennel (4) Capsicum @) dir @) Reve Prt 100. Shoot gall maker is a part of - 100. ye wife fra weet HT se 8? () Aonla @) Banana (1) tier @ sar ) Apple (4) Ber @ ea @ & 101. Saponins are the active ingredient of - 101. Schifis iet 3S fae wba gem BP 1 (1) Safed musli @) Aloe () abe ah (2) vate (8) Senna (4) Opium poppy @ oT 4) aim 102. Which of the following is not a variety of 102. fq # Q ata W sae ot fer vai a? Ginger? (1) Suprabha (@) Varada © Br @) aah 9) suruchi @ Krishna © wh @ yor 103. Selective and complete removalofthepartof 108. ha ary a aaTeTH atk Ph wT S eer plantis termed as - weer & — (1) Thinning (2) Notching () Rear (2) fer (3) Headingback (4) Nicking @ ae te (4) PART 104. Shree Ganesh ina hybrid of - 104. oft aster frei HW fererepr were 8? (1) Marigold 2) Carrot (1) Yer 2) aR (8) Gladiolus (4) Rose (8) wafsaiere @ Tare 105. Chrysanthemum charm is a variety of - 108. fareoray art fi HS feat fore 8? (1) Tagetes Erecta (2) Tagetes patula (1) tea React @) Stew yea ) Chrysanthemum (4) Rose (8) qararsdt @ Fort [01] - Mw Page 16 of 24Se 106. Total horticultural crop production in India according to the year 2017-18 is - (1) 189 million tonne @) 390 million tonne ) 311 million tonne (4) 405 million tonne 107. Forest Conservation Act was passed on - (1) 1990 (2) 1955, ®) 1980 (4) 2000 108. The branch of forestry that deals with the determination of dimensions is - (1) Agrobiology (2) Agrostology @) Silviculture (4) Forest Mensuration 109. Which among the following statements is incorrect? (1) India ranked 3* in egg production in the world during the year 2020. (2) As per the National Accourits Statistics (NAS), livestock sector contributed 4.35% in 2019-20 to the India’s Gross value addition. (8) In India, land holding less than one hectare is classified as marginal holding. (4 As per year 2019-20 data, Maharashtra and Rajasthan were the country’s largest producers of pulses and oilseeds, respectively. Which of the following is the implementing agency of National Agriculture Market? (1) Chaudhary Charan Singh National Institute of Agricultural Marketing (2) Indian Council of Agricultural Research ( Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (4) Small Farmer's Agribusiness Consortium 1" B 106. 2017-18 @ agar qa weanhat Gael aT weet B — () 189 rete oT @) 390 Piet oT @) 311 Prete oF (4) 405 Petar ca 107. ay eer aiffrar ga Bal - (1) 1990 @) 1955 @) 1980 (#) 2000 108. aifrat at ae wren forel fa orerit a ‘aret fear ore & — () wilatcist 2) wikerettat (8) Rredtcar () vive Aart 109. Freaferttat 4S wl wr eT ToT? () aa afar ¥ sist eres 4 af 2020 4 RR wR a] (2 af 2019-20 & usta cer sleet ob SIR, TEE a Br ARG } wae WET at ¥ 4.35% arent ar @) ana 4, ye deta S oa YP ota aT tii ater B wa attr fer ote @ 4) af 2019-20 & stest & agar, weRIy ai. Tore] a cot aie fered % tad UR a THE UT A) 110. Frafefar HY eM wea of ao a orate whe 8? () ate aeeRig asia oie faa cert @) anda of ager oReg @) off ste mee Gra vere Praia fert SaRTRRTT ©) ag qe BR aTOK da [01] -1 Page 17 of 24‘111. As a premium, what percent of sum insured have to be paid by the farmers for all the Kharif crops under PMFBY? () 25 percent (8) 1.5 percent ©) 2.0 percent @ 1.0 percent 112. Which is used to calculate the expected change in profit for a proposed change in the farm business? (1) Enterprise budget (2) Complete budget ©) Partial Budget (4) None ofthe above 113. What is the structure of co-operative banks in terms of short and medium term credit supply in Rajasthan State? (1) Three-tier (2) Two-tier structure structure (8) One-tier structure (4) Four-tier structure 114. The graded agricultural products, ‘according to the standards fixed by the Agricultural Marketing Advisor, Government of India, bears the label - ( Isl (2) HALLMARK (3) AGMARK (4) None of the above 115. Experiential Learning/Hands on Training, Skill Development Training, Rural Agriculture Work Experience, In Plant Training/industrial attachment & Project work, are the components of which of the following programme? (1) Krishi Vigyan Kendra (2) swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (3) student READY (4) Jawahar Rojgar Yojana 116. As per Ensminger (1962), which of the following statement is not true about the “Philosophy of Exteiision Education”? (1) Extension is a profegsional process. 2) Extension is working in harmony with the culture of the people. 3) Extension is helping people to help themselves. (4) Extension is a two way channel. 11. ia 3 oo A wh aie wall S fey feartt ef srt wh wea dr aor & rere te ear ar Fert after RTA HEAT aga 8? () 2.5 ufeera 2) 2.0 sfeera @) 15 afer ( Lowfeert 12. Bf aaa 4 weniea oats & fore are + atta ora ot ert & fey feeet erat fever one 2? (1) Sem ae 2) oh aur 8) sire aa (4) ga ag Et 13. ag fk mea sao aeo Mah S diet F weord dat St werent wer F Sear eM 8? (1) Prenta see) feeder wet (3) wart wate tikes 4) ae era ea 114. off fA WES, ART WHR ERT WaT aMet 3 aR Ww Iss Pt sone we aaa arate — ©) agcasre ——@) aterm @) wre 4) aus Fa wg ei 115. spa omenRe aera /argra ameafta wRrer, wattar Pore umm, arte py ort ages, wart gergat H steht weer wd Retort ord, fhe arin & sraua () Pe far be 2) eof cei ara eRe atorAT @) we Wr (4) cares Wor AIST N16. YR (1962) 6 aqUR wa } af F ‘ded F fra 4 8 ola ar ert wel sei 8? () WER ve arene wien S| ER aR pala. arta wad oT Bera HR A AGG GAT TRIR 8] @) aE St aT wee B) [o1]-M1 Page 18 of 24117. Who are the members of Gram Sabha of a Gram Panchayat? (1) Only Ward Panchs ) Only male members of the village @) All residents of the village (4) Only those persons registered in the electoral rolls 118. Which of the following program was merged into “Swarnajayanti Gram — Swarojgar Yojana"? (1) Jawahar Rojgar Yojana (JRY) (2) Training of Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM) ) Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Yojana (PMRY) (4) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) Which of the following sequence of Teaching - Learning Process in Extension is correct? (1) Action — Attention — Desire — Satisfaction — Conviction — Interest 2) Desire — Interest ~ Satisfaction — Action — Attention — Conviction 3) Attention - Interest — Desire — Conviction Action — Satisfaction (4) Interest Satisfaction — Conviction — Action 120. Which of the following model of communication has thé element of “Audience response or feedback"? (1) Berlo model 2) Leagan’s model (8) Aristotle's model (4) Westley and MacLean model 121. Frieswal cattle is cross of - (1) HE x Brown Swiss 119, s ~ Desire — Attention — V7. apy ares BA WH S WEI B-GH ehy R () daa ais ta 2) daa tia } you weet ~ @ iad whl Ranh @) daa Aaa yt 4 ustes wai 198. rey AY ate arebon oy “oh ee aT SRT arora” ¥ faera fara wen? (1) Gare orne ae (RY) 2) arfer garit & fed eRe &g WRT (TRYSEM) (3) yeraHat eon ator (PMRY) (4) mere Te usta aver orm a afert (MGNREGA) _ 3 119. fg YP ree Rie sree — sree wba ‘or Gls UT A Ue 8? (1) Bray — eamret ~ gaat — daft, Peer - of (@) gear — wfe — Fgh — oe earretet : ~ fart 8) qrreto. = or — Rear — fet (4) of — geet — earreriot — dig — fReara — frat 120. sare & Prt 9S fre ate # “stra sieve aor weer that 82 ' () Rett Hise Q) dha aise (3) oRecleat Higa ) ae wd eetta Aisa 1. rer er rrr ter 8? () wa ww. ister Riee (2) HF x,Sahiwal @) yaw. x weer (3) HFxRathi £@) va Ww. x wet (4) None of the above 4) onter 4 Rag adh 122. Marwari is breed of - 122. RATS fea seer 2? (1) Camel (2) Goat () Ge (2) weet (3) Horse (4) All ofthe above @) ast @ oredr wit [01] - Mi Page 19 of 24 -123. Avishaan sheep is a cross of how many breeds? M2 Qa @) 3 (4) None of the above 124. According to 20% Livestock Census (2019), goats population in Rajasthan is - (2) 30.20 Millions (4) 40.44 Millions (1) 20.84 Millions (®) 35.46 Millions 125. In cows, normally placenta is expelled - (1) Within 4 to 8 hrs of parturition (2) Within 20 to 24 hrs of parturition (8) Within 30 to 34 hrs of parturition (4) None of the above 126. In cow milk, protein, fat and S.N.F. decline with - (1) Season @) Breeding (8) Age (4) Management 127. What is normal duration of estrus cycle in sheep? (1) 16-19days —@) 19-21 days @) 13-16days (4) 21-24 days 128. Disbudding in the calf is done at the age of - (1) 3-10 days after birth ) 60-70 days after birth (3) 90 - 95 days after birth (4) None ofthe above 7; 129. Most economic and satisfactory method for 123. ofa Fey feet eat wT we 2? m2 8) 3 @4 ® onan Fa aE wet 124. 20 d HyTIT (2019) F agar wre + aoa at wear f — (1) 20.84 fife =) 30.20 Paferat (3) 35.46 fife = (4) 40.44 afer 125. ap urea amr (eel) Tee Paver antl & — () wea } 49 Bue S haw @) waa B 20% 240 $ shee @) waa B 308 34H 3 shoe 4) ontan FS ag ae 126. ary qu F, Peas oreo side, TA 7 WS. WARS. BEA ora 8? () er 2) TF @ amy (4) oe 127. Hy % Sara Ae aw sale Fa a? ) 16-19 @ 19-21 f 8) 13-164 @) 21-2474 128. apg 4 wit Ver (ReafSa) fea wa 4 fear ‘art 8? () or S 3-104 ae 2) ora & 60-704 ae ©) aT S 90-95 fer ae @) ortad 48 ae ae 128. ak Gt weet ot eer Set wr sniie wa preserving forage crop is - wears ale F (1) Making bundles (2) Making straw (1) a wr 2) an aaa (®) Makingheap (4) Makinghay @ & oR @ 2 aR [01] - Mw Page 20 of 24180. On an average, a bull ejaculates - (1) 8 misemen (2) 2mlsemen (3) 3mlsemen (4) 4mlsemen 131. The phenomenon of variability among fungi was first discovered by - (1) Erickson (2) Ward 8) Stakman ( Vander Plank 182. Which one of the following rusts is autoecious in nature? (1) Melampsora lini 2) Puccinia graminis 8) Puccinia coronata (4) Phakopsora meibomiae 133. Which one is not an obligate parasitic fungus? (1) Albugo (3) Alternaria @) Erysiphe () Peronospora 134. Tentoxin is produced by which fungus, which causes spots and chlorosis in plants? (1) Alternaria alternata @) Alternaria brassicae ©) Alternaria brassicicola (4) Alternaria solani 135. The shape of cauliflower mosaic virus is - (1) Spheroidal (2) Rod 3) Geminate (4) Filamentous 136, Downy mildew of Bajra in caused by - (1) Sclerospora graminicola (2) Peronospora parasitica ®) Sclerophthora rayssiae (@) Sclerospora sacchari 137. Ineach virus, there is always - (*) only RNA ) only DNA 8) only RNA or only DNA (4) Both RNA and DNA 190. sheet Uae tis wafer Beas — () 8 fish. ae 2) 2frat. ae © 3 fiat. at 4) 4 fist. arf 181. ake aftadaeter } ae Hr Pree ‘ene at 1g? () OR @ as @ eats 4) rex ew 192. fheafaftaa % @ at woot ego 8? () qemreta fay @) cei ofr 8) uaifrar eer @ wearin agar 133. Site Ue aRaent TM wae aE e? () eq 2) strane @) aeewiftar (4) Rr 134. Seifert fre wan are wes Stet &, Gt hei Fae stk ake wr wre wa B? () seewiftar seewter @) srexitt afrat 138. ehh Hite fay oT snag — () Tere (2) wSyAT @) vir 4) wySTER 136. gorr at aqifia anftar er fre S ore Brat &? 197. yee fey ¥ ater dats — () Sag IRAN. @) daa SAR. @) daa IRAN, aw Sat SAT, @ ares. ak Gy. ei {o1]-1 Page 21 of 24 1 i i j138. Which one is the mycoparasitic fungi? (1) Paecitomyces lilacinus 2) Trichoderma harzianum 8) Coniothyrium minitans (4) Aspergillus niger 139. Powdery mildew of tomato is caused by - most common (1) Erysiphe cichoracearum @) Erysiphe polygoni ©) Erysiphe betae (4) Exysiphe orontit 140. Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched? (1) Rock bee - Apis dorsata @) Little bee - Apis florea @) Indian bee ~ Apis indica () Italian bee ~ Melipona iridipennis Which one of the following pair is correctly matched? (1) Azodrin-monocrotophos 2) Baygon-fenthion (3) Dursban-phosphamidon (4) DDVP-Malathion 142. Rasping and sucking type mouth parts are found in which insect? (1) Aphid () Leafhopper @) Whitefly (®) Thrips 143. The Book ‘Silent Spring’ to create awareness about ill effect of pesticides was written by- (1) Ngozi Okonjo (2) L. Maxwell Iweala () Rachel Carson (4) Clark.& Geier 144. Growing mustard with cabbage as a trap crop is used to attract which insect? 141. a 2 0) Sfteirrghtie feria 2) grgereat efi @) miiaeaar fires 4) weritie sigs 199. carex or ater sutton Wa fra & Greer elaT # O) geet era 2) sttergat dette 8) stage diet ) strange atiet 140. fret ga HS Ghrer vist wet AE 2B? (1) ana agaeet — yfte sieaer 2) a repre — gfe getter 3) anda apres — yfte sfser (©) eeferr aera — Aerie ERATE 141. fret a a ahaa eel GH a? (1) qatar @) Bi @) star_-oieniicty @) Seiten V2. gen a aA Te quit PA a fee aie 4 oy wid &? (1) Ag, @ er der @) ube ae (@) wef sitet 143. searerel & gsr & le wirresa F fe caddie fiir anne ferena fret fered? () ist ster — @) ya. Aaa saan @) daa anit 4) wei Ww 14. ah BURT MRE wa OAS wT A fe Pie B oafia weit 8? (1) Diamond Back moth () eke ys oT 2) Cabbage butterfly 2) ais aft fara (8) Leaf Webber (3) atte aay (4) Cabbage semilooper 4) Far aR oT Site [01] - M Page 22 of 24145. Raking the soil.on the side of trees would destroy large number of over’ wintering pupae of which insect in mango orchard? (1) Capsule borer @) Bark eating caterpillar (3) Fruit fly @ Termite 148. Who give Phases Theory of Locust? (1) Uvarov (2) Prasad (8) Karl Von Frisch (4) Rev. Fr. Newton. 147. The species of Eri silkworm is - » (1) Bombyx mori (2) Philosamia ricini (8) Antheraea paphia (4) Antheraea ricini . Pest population level’at which management action should be taken - (1) Insect equivalent @) ETL @) ELL () Gain threshold 149. First plant parasite nematode discovered was - (2) Heterodera (4) Globodera (1) Meloidogyne 8) Anguina . ‘Grapevine fan leaf disease caused by virus is transmitted by - (1) Xiphinema @) Trichodorus (8) Paratrichodorus (4) Ralstonia 45. on Sam Fy S an ap FH At TT weed fra dle Ht oo semen St Te wey & fey a cit 8? (1) doge ae @ wrt GM act Yet (3) wat aa ) dre 46. fet a dar sae fA fh a? (1) sata @) wae @ ort dia fre 4) fa ET 147. Fret |S ahah yet Bar we a guns 8? (1) sifare ae (2) Rratifiar RRs ) yatta dra (4) goRtar RRR 148. otel Ol ae Bean re we we wars wr Pete fern cian &, FFT HS ahaa 8? () gee Wate 2) Sates, @ gene. 4) a aries 49. del 4 chrar Pars wohtdt gad geet Ghar ra? () aetgcingt =) Be () dasa (@) seitatser 150. aigee Gitta “HT aTET Ba chp” Arne fered ERI theirs Girt 8? (1) feria @) agatsiea @ te geass 4) wereifar Page 23 of 24' Space for Rough Work /w ori @ fag orTe (01) - Page 24 of 24