“BV. 804.AH: code Wo (136) Set No.-1 Question Booklet No. .. 10412 “ (To be filled up by the candidate by bluve/black ball-point pen) Rall No, Roll No. (Write the digits in words) Serial No. of OMR Answer Sheet Day and Date (Signature of Invigitator) ( —— Re oF irtvigitotcr) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Use only blua/bieck ballpoint pea in he space above and on both sides of the OMR Answer Sheet) 4. Within 30 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet, check the Crab Books i ins all the in correct sequence no ues! siege cue of faulty PQuestion Booklet” ban it to the notice of the Superintendent/Invigilators itnmediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet. 2 Da ot bring any lose paper, witten or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card without its envelope. 3. A separate Answer Sheet is given. It should aot be folded or mutilated, A second Answer Sheet chall not be provided. Only the Answer Sheet will be evaluated. 4. Write your Roll Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above. n 5 On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Namber in the space provided at the top, and by darkening the circles at the bottorn, Also, wherever appticyola write the Question Booklet Number and the Set Number it appwopriate places. 6. No crenwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No, Question Booklet No. and Set No. (any) on OMR sheet and also RolNo. and OMR Sheet No. on the Question Booklet. 7, Any changes in the aforesaid entries is to he verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unfair means. Bes 8. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, yee we & record the ebrest tion om the mg Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle in the corresponding row of the Ansiver -ball-point pen ag mentioned in the ‘guidelines given on the fst page of the Answer Sheet beet ™ 8 For each question, darken cnly one circle on the Answer Sheet. Ifyou darken more than one circle or darken a circle paitaly, de ensvves a ing more 10. Note that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. If you do not tish to attem; question, leave all the circles in the cottesponding vow blank ck question will be awatded zero marks). 11. For ough work, use the inner back page SMe tile cover and the blank moped Page at the end 12. Deposit only the OMR Anstoer Sheet atthe end of the Test. ¥8. You are not permitted to leave the Examination all until the end ofthe Tent, . idate attempts to use any for of unfair means, 14 Torche se Obey Beg a TiS Sal beable to such {omg Pager fe) cafe revere we fata | Total No. of Printed Pages : 48 ofFOR ROUGH WORK/@ ord & feyBV: SC: AW Cooke (136 ) 201} ae 17U/116/20(Set-1) No, of Questions : 200 weit # rea : 200 Time :24 Hours] [Full Marks : 600 wry :22 ave] tg: 600 Note: (| Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 (Three) marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question. sftante seat ot eat wet er are FET oat wer 3 (ht) sit or 21 wee went TaN BS fee ver sar wrer ONGAT eke agate wet a TRAE ae et} (i) If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate ta the correct answer, choose the closest one, af wane Sefer GR eal SERB Pros he at ch Ameen wel oa 1 (i) ‘This paper comprises of for Sections : Mental Ability and General Awareness, Chemistry, Physics and Biology (Botany and Zoology), Each Section contains 50 questions. We sei Fae we @: wae chem qd ae wa, were Aart sift Rare wa ta Be (raft va orf figra) | wees wos 4 50 ue HY SECTION-1 ws -] (MENTAL ABILITY AND GENERAL AWARENESS) (rie ater et arr STA) Find out the average marks scored by 3 students together, if in an examination Saumya scored 40% marks, Refi scored 80% marke-and Riya scored 624 marks and the maximum marks are 800: 3 feemBet arer ver Pa are sha sig a aergy a we oer 9 her 8 40% sie ore Ferd, 7 80% sis se RR % 624 sh wnat FE eM ORI iar 00 & (1) 500 Q 528. (3) 623 (4) 510 a) PTO,17U/116/20(Set-1) 2. Ifa train of 200 m long running at 60 km/hr then how many seconds will it take to cross another train of 300 m iong running in opposite direction at a speed of 90 km/hr? (1) 8sec. 2) see, B) 9sec. (4) 12sec ye tam at 200 Ho wah & son 60 frie se at won S died 8 a Oe Yara wh 300 Hho aed 8 aan fade fren A 90 fro /ad wavs ated & oT oR ah: () 880 Q) 4% @) 9% (4 12% 3. IC chipsin Computer are made of : (1) Lead (2) Silicon (3) Chromium (4) Gold are Fue SA are IC Fay NT eA en GP Q) ter (2) fates @) wa @) wr 4. Which of the following is not language of Computer Programming ? () WINDOWS — @) PASCAL 3) BASIC @ COBOL fy PS weet wre she A ar ae 8? Q) Presa Q) were @) ae ) Bree 5. The planet which is closest to the earth is + () Mercury Q) Mars (3) Neptune @ Venus ae ve wh peal d wad odio & ) Q) Fe @) ET () oF 6. If NQXG means LOVE, then ECMG means : #& NOXG a oef LOVE, dt ECMG 1 sf Eh: (1) CALF (@) GOOD (3) CAKE @) CALM 7. Find the odd one from the following : Freq 4 a Bret or eT TRY @) 16 @) 80 (@) 6 @) 36 8. From which date Goods and Services Tax (GST) has been implemented in India? (t) L April, 2017 @) 1May,2017 3) 1June, 2017 (4) 1 July, 2017 crea 4 AHR FATA we Ts Aerwe (togweete) ory Far Tar? a) 1a, 20172) reg wi7 GB) AN 2017, Agere 207 (2)1M. 12. 13. 17U/116/20(Set-1) In India, Shri Ram Nath Kovind has been elected as : (1) 12th President (2) 13th President (3) 14th President (4) 15th President ad &, terre SIS wr gar Tare (1) 12et ART) 3c EMG) Laat wee 4) Sat Ue ‘The Union Budget 2017-18 was presented in Parliament of India by : (1) Shri Arun Jaitley (2) Shri P. Chidambaram (3) Shti Manmohan Singh (4) Shri Narendra Modi Behar wore 2017-18 faves ar area tere A Aer Par var? (1) Ah ser deat (2) af to fare G) At rates Rie 4) Sate ae In a class of 60 students, the number of girls is twice that of Doys. Kamal, a boy, tanked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 gitls ahead of Kamal, the number of boys in rank after him ie 60 ort war 4, creel at cen weet a gy 21 ore, hye asa Sw a omred wr Ft) at A aefhat ana @ ow & ct aw anf owed ae eat dt deme: a) 3 Q7 (3) 12 @) 13 A class starts at 11: 00 am and lasts fill 2.27 pm. Four periods of equal duration are held during this interval. After every period, a rest of 5 minutes is given to the students. Thus, the exact duration of each period is : (1) 48 minutes 2) 50 minutes) SL. minutes (4). 53 minutes wer en Ra B11: 00 aD rea a 2 are 27 Pre oe we 1 ge OTT Aaa aa Ba qe okt) mde wee B ce wai at 5 Rae ot Pa fear oer 81 Fa THR, wee aoe OF Te safle (1) 48 Fre 2) 50 frie 3) 51 fae 83 Fre ‘Uf3rd December, 1990 is Sunday, what day is 3rd January, 1991 7 () Tuesday @) Wednesday —@) Thursday (8) Friday a 3 fave, 1990efaa 8 ct 3 ome, 1901 sta ae? (Frere @) BAR ©) year () gray (3)17U/116/20(Set-1) 14. 16. a7. 18. Pointing to an old man Sohan said, "His son is my son's uncle”. How is the old man related to Sohan? (l) Father (2) Grandfather @) Brother (4) None of these WH EE oreh Fate srs wet ET TT HEMT = swaT aeon AY asd wT OAT Si" Fe gar one ates & foe van date 2? () Bar Q) wa @) ae (@) eae gp of ae World Population Day is observed on: (1) June5 Q) July 1 3) October 4 (4) December 10 Q) waa @ gage (3) sata (4) ReaD wt The largest Indian State by area is : (1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Maharashtra (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Rajasthan dame 3 sigan aT wT WR Fer TTB (1) Fe Rt (2) mere (3) Ser weer (4) WRT NNP is equal to : (1) GNP + Depreciation (2) GNP - Depreciation (3) GNP + Exports (4) GNP - Exports ww fare ae Q) Po hee 2) ahr a- a (3) ah wa rate (4) oh wa ft Frater Industrial Revolution started in England in + (1) 16th century (2) 18th century (3) 17th century (4) 19th century grdug # ately wit oT gE 0) 168 eee #2) 184 war % Q) 174 wed FG) 198 wah H (4)19, 20. 23. 24, 17U/116/20(Set-1) The highest literate state of India is : (1) Mizoram (2) Goa (3) Tripura (4) Kerala ART Gr wie Pere aT F : (1) rare (2) shar (3) Faye (4) Ber How many states are there in India ? ara & fet aon #7 (1) 29 (2) 27 (3) 28 @ 2 What should come nextin the following letter sequence ? Fr aot Soon Hort gar eh? AABABCABCDABCDEABCD Oa (2) E Bec (4) B Which word will come in the middle if all of following are arranged alphabetically as in the english dictionary 7 af a Pt ork rsh @ em ah oid rae wer ata oreo Ara ot Wt Ste wee He Hom 2 Donkey, Donator, Donjon, Donate, Donative (1) Donkey Q) Donator (3) Donjon (4) Donative Today is Monday, after 61 days it will be ()) Tuesday 2) Monday (3) Sunday (4) Saturday Rael wirare &, ah 61 Rat are sham fea ee? Q) fra @) aR @) Wer ® afar The average of five consecutive odd numbertisél, What is the difference: between the highest and lowest numbers ? af he Pavcor fawer Hearst gy othe 61 a at RR Re Ca TRY oy Sorat ‘Taree Fey A amr er? * a6 4 @ 6 a8 . A is B's sister. C is B's mother. D is C’s father. Bis D's mother, ABs ster Then how is 4 (1) Grandfather Q) Grandmother (9) Daughter (4) Granddauglter (5) Pro.17U/118/20(Set-1) 27, 26. A Baars CBA HED, Ca hres DA Me ma AAT DA an wae? () aa & Q) TAS @ wre (3) afta @ 34 is related to 12 in the same way as 59 is related to : (1) 45 (2) 38 8) 26 (@) 14 Bt ar eae 129 aA cor oa Se fh 59 a aE e: (dy 453 2) 38% @) 264 4) 148 Which of the following is most energy-efficient source of light ? Q) Tube light Q) CFL (3) LED (4) Tungsten Bulb fre 4 ee vane oF aad auit-ordegerer ait @ ? () Ge aRe Q) @io Yao Go 3) Yao Fo Go (4) CaCI Hed A girl facing north rotates 100 degree clockwise then 190 degree anticlockwise. What is new direction of the gisl ? (1) North-East (2) West (3) South-West (4) South we att w fe TR Ren FH ov sl we UG A HS oN 100 feat eRe) fare ae me at GES Gee Rex aA ale 190 PRA ee 1 on Tes wm FE FH Rae? () oreg a atx 2) ater # SR (3) aBoutar aA aie (4) Rtrer at otk In the following chart given characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column-wise. Find out the missing character (7) accordingly : ‘ae fet ma ae A ares A my ea a RA TA re Hw Aes wa Bh OF waa Gi get Tae (7) BRT Se eT eT?30. 3t. 17U/116/20(Set-1) The difference between cow's’ milk and buffalo milk is that : (1) Milk of cow is white but buffalo milk in yellowish in colour. Q) Milk of cow is yellowish but bullalo milk is white in colour. 3) Milk of cow is yellowish in colour butit contain more fat than bufffalo milk. (4) Milk of cow is white in colour but it contain low amount of fat than buffalo milk. are ae she ata B aH ARE Arafat &: () Wat ge ar ee weds eT a S GE oT OT hem Ae Bim 8) 2) ora wr ge rams fy ater & wate Ae aT GT AHS TT wT BT e| @) a Sem Fee Re 8 ee ae a ee EE oer i (8) We or ae be oT Mee ger Tee aT A Ara ta S ges oF BH aI Which of the following crop is not utilized for commercial production of edible oil? (Q) Wheat Q) Rice " (8) Sunflower (4) Maize Por # atta were erates wee erate B wane & fry ayer wet anh e? ae Q) or 8 wey wwe Find out value of ? in following: Fry A? or art at eh ? 12:30::14:? (1) 30 2) 2B @ 35 42 Which one will replace the question mark (7)? fs A wen Pee 2) 3 RUT Oe aT eT? () 36 Q) 8 @) 38 _ &x (7) Pro,17U/116/20(Set-1) 34, 35. 3. 37. 38. 2. Which among the foliowing SAARC nations did not figure in the "World Happiness Report 2017"? (1) Pakistan (2) Bhutan (3) Afghanistan (4) Maldives are eal 8 PF aha der “aed eee Rote - 2017" 4 eB? 1h) whee 2) eA (3) START (4) Ara Who is the author of the book "Winning Like Virat : Think and Succeed like Koh (1) Uday Mahurkar (2) Abhirup Bhattacharya (3) Rajesh Jain (4) Arvind Adiga gree “fahin orga fire + Rep we unis age cect” & oes wt F ? Q) sat BEER 2) siftret agrerat (3) wag oa (4) afte oft ‘At which of the following place union cabinet of India has approved to establish a centre of International Rice Research Institute ? (2) NOIDA (2) Kanpur (3) Varanast (4) Partnagar ome &@ ity darted 4 Hes 4 fe wart we ‘omega arr wa were” (IRRI) Boe FH es oe H aight ae? QQ) ast (2) GPR (3) arerontt (4) da Which country will host next Champions Trophy in 2021 ? (1) Sti Lanka (2) Australia (3) Bangladesh (4) India apni & @k Ta ARR er 2021 a aretors fe A Raver ter A he ? (1) Reiat (2) aRgfeer 3) aioe 4) a Which is the first state in the country to open a Blood Bank for Cattle ? (1) Goa (2) Kerala (3) Odisha (4) Andhra Pradesh Eng TAT ART HTH ant gy } fee ecto" Hi errr a? « saat Q) Ret 4) aie weer (a) an o oof AUS ; Cause of) Fungi @ Virus (4) Amoeba w pace ak gaa oy wt Q) Ee @ wha ay Be! (8)aM. 3 17U/116/20(Set-1) ‘To make curd which microorganism is used ? (1) Acetobacter (2) Leukonostoc (3) Bacillus (4) Lactobacillus wal cart 4 Prafeied 4 8 fra qerote ar sat flan ara & ? Q) Padaace Q) were = 3) aftiea (4) aaah From the following which makes milk sour ? Q) Protozoa 2) Bacteria 3) Virus (4) Nematod Prevfeiftact 4 & ferad gre ge wet eh ? () sterater 2) aden @ aa (4) Pets Gobar Gas mainly consist of (1) Methane (2) Ethelene (3) Acetelene (4) Carbon Monoxide ee ther § Rae: eho Q) eke (2), rete, Q) Rehfedte () or IF ams ‘By which constitutional Amendment Act Fundamental Duties are incorporated in constitution ? (1) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (2) 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 197 (3) 4ath Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 (4) 45th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1980 Fire weber sheet Pam ete etre at all Pr Aen ray 8 ? (1) 42d} daeaPia tzterr afm, 1976 2) 43a daft. deer afePRE 1977 3) A4at Ware victor sO, 1978 (4) apt itera citer afer, t9¢9 | (9) Pro.17U/116/20(Set-1) 44, 47, 48. 49. When joint meeting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are being held ? (1) When President calls (2) When there is opinion difference in Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha (3) When Parliament Session begins (4) None of these shear a aeawar a vigat deer wa ett 2? Q) wath oe Fey Q) Sheen yi ween Haare aA (3) dae or wa ys BAe @) et ae a8 Presidential clection is controlled by : (1) Lok Sabha Speaker (2) Prime Minister 3) Election Commission (4) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs wreath oF ar gare wafer feren wT 8 (1) emery ERI (2 aia ere (3) Frater areity ERT (4) dada eet 3 A are “Entrance of Asia’ is : (1) Saudi Arab” (2) Taiwan (3) Turkey () Japan ‘oftrem am cee ae wee B () wea ona Q) Tea @) @) aT Which country is known as the ‘Land of white elephants’ ? (1) Laos (2) Thailand @) Kenya (4) Myanmar Pre der Gt ase ae A gS are aT ST a? (Q) aR @ ants Q) aa @® SIR ta Computer Language, how many bylesarein one megabyte? prage nm) Hg TaTeS A Pe ares BF? (1) 1,00,000 (2) 10,00,000 8) 10,24,000 () 10,48,576 2 ch one is not correctly match ? tng NES Bengel (2) Mount Abu - Rajasthan ° Kodaikanal-Tamil Nadu (@) Shimla-Uitar Prades (19)17UN16/20(Set-1) Per te shen fart ak ad 3? @) aBier — 90 ae (2) ATE E ony, — CaF @) Wega — aeTy (4) Reve - wae weer . Which country is known as "India of Europe" ? . (1) Spain (2) France (3) ttaly (4) Portugal We wr aR Sa a ST ae oT oT a? (1) (2) eter (3) eect 4) ye SECTION - IL we -ll (CHEMISTRY) (rarer fas) |. No. of electrons in 1.8 ml of water is : ae 18 fh 4 edagiat A dem et (1) 6.02 «105 (2) 3.01 x 10% (3) U.euzsx 1” (4) 60.22 x 10 The volume strength of 1.5 N hydrogen peroxide solution is : 1SN ERR melange Rew ay dep were: Q) 48 2) '84 (3) 3.0 (4) 8.0 The values of Vander Waals constant ‘a' for the gases Oz, Np, NH and CH, are 1.36, 1.39, 4.17 and 2.25 L. atm. mole" respectively. The gas which can most easily be liquified is : Aa O,, N,, NH, ait CH, oT ares ara Rereie wre: 1.36, 1.39, 4.17 at 225 L. atm. mole” 2) HRY Ta A eater OF art eT a: me Q) N, 3) NH; (@) CH, When CaCO; is heated at a constant temperature in a closed container, the pressure due to CO, prodtuced will : (1) Change with the amount of CaCO, taken (2) Change with the size of theeontainer (3) Remain constant as Long as temperature is constant (4 Remain constant everriftetperature is changed (it) Pro17U/116120(Set-1) 55. 56. 57. 58, ye da ae F Ree ag se va CaCO, To Pra ore @, CO, eS areT wt wa: (Q) CaCO, # og Arar A Rett B () pega @) DERG) ae iy ay (15) PTo,17UN16/20(Set-1) 73. 74, 75, 76. 7. 78. Ethane is produced during the electrolysis of potassium salt of : (1) Sucemic acid (2) Malonic acid (3) Aceticacid (4) Fumaric acid wr Rare ceRray wa S fag aimed A GeaHT favor ore B ? 0) State ara (2) Aes are (3) CRMEe ore @) wARe sme Buna-Sisa -(1) Monomer (2) Trimer (3) Copolymer (4) Dimer Buna-S 8 Wa (1) Var Q) ZeR (3) Teagee (4) ster Which of the following is a Natural polymer ? (1) Bakelite (2) Nylon (3) Proteins (4) PYC fra aa Sra Ve malee age 8? (1) Saerge (Q) arava (3) ster gaa Which of the following is an example of thermoset polymer ? (1) Rubber Q) Nylon-66 (3) PVC (4) Bakelite fre 80 Baan ode agaw wt ow sett 2? (1) we (2) aTasti-46 @) aerh (4) deere Nitration of nitrobenzene gives : (1) 1, 2-dinitrobenzene (2) 1,3-dinitrobenzene (3) 1, 4-dinitrobenzene (4) 1,2, 3trinitrobenzene argehiats ar regia Ger @ 1) 1, 2eereregista @) 1, deerme 1,2, 350847 9) 1,4-sreaeetct (4) 1,2, seeaggiots which of the following statement is false about benzaldehyde ? y) Wrreduces Tollen's reagent © dergoes C2nnizza0 reaction @ te aerg05 ‘Ado! condensation (3) Hen dium bisulphite adduct 4p) Teor 80 ® us)<4 80. at. 82. 17U/116/20(Set-1) irefergs 8 daha sia Peiffer wer orm & (1) ae ciere otepetr ot array peat Q) ae SPont ofFiar tere G) 48 esr Ser sas (4) ae aifsan diguemge Yste ere t Following reaction is known as CH,COCH,.2"—#8_, CH, + 1,0, conc.ACT (1) Rosenmund's reaction 2) Clemmensen reduction (3) Wurtz reaction (4) Kolbe's reaction Presttre ofirar at carat ren 8 CHYCOCH, —2"- HE, cH, 1,0. cone HCl () tes Hh afhferear @) eRe omer 8) 345 athe (4) ake ot Prat The correct order of stability of the given radicals is (1) tertiary > secondary > primary (2) tertiary > secondary < primary @) tertiary < secondary > primary (4) tertiary < secondary < primary Rae yas @ enter oe wees () Gites > matte > wets Q) qe > aafte < maf Q) Wes mats 4) Witea < arafie < gratis The most strained cycloalkane is : (1) cyclopropane (2) cyclobutane (3) cyclopentane (4) cyclohexane UR THEE gach eb: (2) agers (2) ergata 3) ages 4) areata The IUPAC name of the compound HCsC-CH,CH=CH, is: (2) Lpenten-4-yne (2 L-pentyn-4-ene (3) Allylacetylene (4) L-pentene-5-yne HC=C-CH.CH=CH, @ TUPAC a14® : Q) Ltecant (2) 1rd ) Wraifeds @ ttr5-onfs (17) PTO,17U/116/20(Set-1) 83. Optical rotation of a racemic mixture is, (1) Positive (2) Negative (3) Zero (4) Temperature dependent ye Witte Parr an otifteret deer & (1) eareteHes (2) Frere QT (4) TT PR 84. The compound having one isopropyl group is (1) 2,2, 3, 3tetramethylpentane (2) 2,2-dimethylpentane (3) 2,2, 3trimethylpentane (4) 2-methylpentane ye anges eye ei thie F (Q) 2,2,3, -egiengeries 2) 2, 2-sreergertier (3) 2,2, 3g1eReagetts (4) 2fiengeries 85, The monomer of natural rubber is : (1) Chloroprene (2) Isoprene (3) Butadiene (4) Acrylonitrile MAG eR Hl Yor &: (1) aintnis (2) orgs 3) FERRET @) Wiseiggigt 86. Which of the following polymers has ester linkages ? (2) Nylon (2) Bakelite 3) Terylene (4) PVC Prater 8a fra wees A cece Kaha WaT ATA 8? (1) sacha (QQ) abenge (3) etter (3) fae 87. Which of the following polymers hes amide linkages ? (a) Nylon (2) Tefion (3) Terylene (4) Polyurethane Peafittar AS Bee agee A gags Wahoo TT @ () ae Q) eet Q@ Rea (4) dietgher 58, The process of vulcanization makes rubber Q) Hard (4) Less elastic (18) a) Soluble in waer (3) Soft91. 92. 93, 17U/118/20(Set-1} wearer ufivar wee at aren & (1) ot 4 gaaster Q) wa 3) years 4) Fr ote The number of $-S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer ($,0,) is: wea gresifeangs PAX (S,0,) 4 SS divs BH dene: Q)3 Q)1 @) 2 (4) 0 Insulin is ; (1) a carbohydrate (2) anamino acid (3) alipid (4) a protein sare: Q) Ve onfege 2) Te Uh ofts (3) % fafts (4) te oe Dunston’s test is used for the identification of : (Q) glycerot (2) acetone @) glycol (4) ethanol Sees or weer fret aeart we oh fy site Star @ ? () frewea Q) Wes (3) TerEatar (4) sate Which of the strongest acid in the following ? Refers ¥ wad waar are ahaa 2? () HCIO, (2) SO, @) HeIo, (2) 1L80, ‘The hardness of water is estimated by : (1) EDTA method (2) lodometric method (3) lodimetric method (4) Gel Permeation Chromatographic method Wet BH BORA Hi steers Fra oT e (1) EDTA ‘af arr Q) aeriige fae art Q) amasttte fae arr Fe RAYE BITS RA grey (19) PTO.17U/116/20(Set-1) 94, 97. 98. 99. Hydrogen gas is not liberated when the following metal is added to dil HCI: a4 HCL 4 Prifafaa #8 fora ag v1 arto segs ta at el ai B? () a Q} Su (@) Ag (4) Mg Important ore of zinc is : (2) calamine 2} aryolite (3) cassiterite (4) malachite fH FT FETE! oro (1) Sores (2) melee (3) deere (4) Farag Most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is (1) benzoic acid (2) nitrobenzene (3) _ toluene (4) benzene gerag fire arate Pees ots arcade frarehet & ? () tage aH (2) aegis @ teat a) eit Acetone is mixed with bleaching powder to give (1) chloroform (Q) acetaldehyde (3) ethanol (4) phosgene Sh Toe F ay whas w Bart a ars () ant (2) whefeserss @) SHia (4) Bed Which of the fotiowing is used widely in the manufacturing of lead storage battery ? (1) antimony (2) lithium (3) arsenic (4) bismuth ag wits deh & Pini i Resfelear 4 a ferrar anew GTS oT dere ? () ert (2) vier Q) aRare (@) ee 1% solution of KCI is dissociated to the extent of 80%. Whai would be the osmotic pressure at 27°C (R = 0.0821 1 atm K7 mot mol. wt. of KCL = 754 g/mote) KC) wT 1% Rrerert 80% A Sta TH PTR 8) 27PC wwe aa em er (R= 0.s2 Lam Ko mol; KCL SAR = 75.4 g/mole\? a) s2taim (2) 82.1 atm 8) 595.atm (4) 59.5 atm (20)100, 102, 103, 17U/116/20(Set-1) Half-life of a reactions is found to be inversely proportional to the cube of initia! concentration. The order of the reaction is : we oftfivar selsig, una wir & ax or qanAuite ver watt) ofifbar vt ate & @) 4 Q) 3 3) 2 (45 SECTION — 11 ars = Ill (PHYSICS) (citer: fast) + Two balls are dropped vertically downwards from rest from the same point after an interval of 1 sec. If acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/sec”, then what will be their separation after 4 sec from the release of the first bell ? () 30m 2) 35m 3) 28m (4) 40m at tel al ww & fz 81 do B oma B Parveen fA Alen ore By ae eer wir aT 10 A/S BLT veel Azo ARAB 4 Rave we ate HE Teach Be ee 2 (1) 30% Q) 35% (3) 25 (4) 404 A person moves 30 my towards North then 20 m East and tRemaav m South: West. The displacement of the person from the starting point shall be: (1) 20m South-West (2) 15m East (3) 30m North-East (4) 10m West We afte 30 A wae Ae 20 A og aft fox 30-V2 + eRtouReH gar 8) metre fag 8 ear fares er? (1) 20% must be applied on this body about that axis for a period of (1) 2sec (2) Wsee 3) Ssec (4) 4sec Ard Aes an orges are Pou gay uRG 1.2 fre /Hio? B) Ser 1500 Ga ess ate sot TOR Get 3 fey ary aw a = 15 WSad/ Ho? GT TE fs wae ane B tee Rear GHA TH Gert eet? a) 286 2) 10% (3) Sto (4) 480 (28)124, 125. 126. 17UH16/20(Set-1) If the RMS value of the AC voltage across the secondary of the transformer in a half wave rectifier is 9 volt. The maximum DC voltage across the load without any filter is about : () 10V (2 4V (3) 8V (4) 6V. fart cater Recaont ¥ reach a facta 4 ofa: pearadll are wr at Te AT GRowrouHe) fier or AT 9 tee 21 aa oe RE Cove) fora wr aT TTT war eh a BHT (reey) Tae ae Get Q) 10a Q) Adee Q) 8atee (@) 6a ‘The impurity atoms with which pure Germanium should be doped to make a N-type Germanium : (1) Sodium (2) Boron (3) Antimony = (4) Aluminium Ye oP (Ge) a Ae A a re omer cAI OB aes Pra ue BW ae Nowa & srderte 4 aaa ve (1) SiRerr 2) aR Q) vet (4) wegen The moderator in a nuclear reactor functions in the following way : (1) Absorbs neutrons (2) Absorbs thermal energy (3), Slows down neutrons (4) Accelerates neutrons after ace Fig Pet corn Gand aReT e, (1) Sagat wr orator (2) ante Sen ar apres Q) BA aH AB eh wr wes @ Aeit OH aft wt agi aor ze ‘An inductor of reactance 10 and a resistor of 262 are connected in series to the terminals of a 6V (rms) a.c. source. The power dissipated in the circuil is : 10 steer & fet Rep wer 20 oft S Pet wee at 6 V (rms) & veredt ore her @ Share a ater war 8 oftuer 4 ete efter or aa a (a) 8W (2) 12W @) 1420 @ law Ina permanent magnet at room temperature ; (2) Magnetic moment of each molecule is zero (2) The indivudual molecules have nor-zero magnetic moment which are al] perfecily aligned (3) Domains are partially alignea (4) Domains are perfectly aligned 27 7) PTO,417U/116/20(Set-1) 128. 129. 130. mR od co fe eh Gas F (1) wet ey or Greate oangel yt aT 81 2) wh ora ssi & ate gaat ore att Et ie: afer ea BI (3) SFr atom: vith ea By is) Sha whe eed Bd 2) Change in temperature of the medium changes : (1) Frequency of sound waves (2) Amplitude of sound waves (3) Wavelength of sound waves (4) Loudness of sound waves anaR mt uftadt & (1) cal aretha orgfth aftafiter er oe 81 (2) ahh meat or omart wee ore Bi (3) Ph ciel on oereet aee orn By (4) af aéih oft yam oat ort 31 The displacement of a particle is given hy r=(!-7)* where x is in metres and f in seconds. The distance covered by the particle in first 4 secands is (1) 4m (2) 8m 3) 12m (4) 16m Apet ao or fener x=(t-2)° Pref Peer oe &, Fel x Mex A vert dae A arg Ta #1 Ue 4 Ses Ham ere ca at wy BE: (1) 4m (2) 8m Q) 12m (4) tom An electvon is moving with an initial velocity v= vgi and is in a magretic field B = Bp} . Then it's de Broglie wavelength. 0) 6) el (1) Remains constant (2) Increases with time (3) Decreases with time (4) Increases and decreases periodically aig gaa finer anew ST veug 8 Ao gabe da B= By A afar 2: ge gag A Gary oer tel Q) aR eA (Q:) era B we aad B @ wes baer aah & (a) ana 2 SAT OR TO 8 (28)131. 17U/116/20(Set-1) Hole is: (1) an anti-particle of electron. (2) a vacancy created when an electron leaves a covalent bond. (3) absence of free electrons. (4) an artificially created particle, fa ster & (1) gota ar freer Q) weit ont Qos gaa | Bes st wR ve Ae Q) Fas gaagiat a argue 4) oR wr O yf ag aor In a Young's double slit experiment, the source is white light. One of the holes is covered by a red filter and another by a blue filter, In this case (1) there shall be alternate interference patterns of red and blue. (2) there shall be an interference pattern for red distinct from that for blue (3) there shall be no interference fringes. (4) there shall bean interference pattern for red mixing with one for blue. TB BARS sey Fait wher wore a B) yo Be wh are Powe a cw Ran ra @ ok aR aw aie fheex S| Fa rae Q) ae aor Ae OS eae ator def St 2) ora ean AS er S ere Yea ate tel BY @) ad fh aac fers ae enh () are SF ar ye afta ted ww el OT a eH S PRT At When a horse pulls.a cart, the latter moves because of : (1) The frictional force due to the road acting on the cart @) The frictional force due to the road acting on the horse @) The pull of the horse on the cart being gréater than the force of reaction on the cart (@ The pull of the horse being greater than the force of reaction on the hurse ae ater arg wt ethan & oh met ry reer SPY oh (1) Fee FO aa STS fra wey a Q) wees ao er ee RK Pere 3) ARS are eta wr wes HE GT ara VALET Aer SIRT BAS re (4) FS gre art ar wa BR ty ey are AUT Het ORES BAYS rQET (2) PTO.17U/116/20(Set-1) 134. 135, 136, 137. If the time period of a simpie pendulum is T its kinetic energy is also periodic with a time period : ve CURT Stee or seh sre T 8 at TAA afer wet Ah one eh ae ‘saer aed ara ee: (i) 2T (2) T 3) @) AIS nin For light diverging rom a point source : (3) The wavefront is spherical (2) The intensity increases ir: proportion to the distance squared (3) The wavefront is parabolic (4) The intensity at the wavefront does not depend on the distance wer Ay vir & ormenfta eet gore a fey (1) sere teh By (2) haar qt A atte orga F aet 21 (3) ata merafire (rerdifere) 24 (4) Bee oy eset ah ox Pre ag weet Two cells of emis approximately 5V and 10V are to be accurately compared using a potentiometer of length 400cm. (A) ‘Ihe battery thal runs the potentiometer should have voltage of 8V. (2) The battery of potentiometer can have a voltage of 15V and R adjusted so that the potential drop across the wire slightly exceeds 10V. (3) The titst portion of 50 cm of wire itself should have a potential drap of 10V. (4) Potentiometer is usually used for comparing resistances and not voltages. 5V dar 10V uferne fo ao aa d a Vel TH Jorn GRye wT G 400 She THE @ faye ERO arh Bt (Q) Praca Harel BA axel) Gee) Ft Aree BV eth aTIeT | (2) Pae® A dear 15V a THA Bt Rw ee THR aarti ae wat B f ae a Pre ae foram 1OV a stst Se a1 (3) wt er 8 Tee 50 Seto om ox Perea 1OV eT eT) (a) Raa om goede are afte aA geet & fey Par wren & fact Sy aay The dimension of torque is same as that of: (2) Momentum — 3) Power (4) Bnergy (30) (4) Impulse136, 139, 140, 141, 17U/116/20(Set-1) warTH Sh fier ae eat: () ess QQ) wT THE (3) after a 8 (4) oot ae 1 mile/hour speed is equal to : (1) 4.46 m/sec (2) 0.447 m/sec (3) 1.612 m/sec (4) 3.213 m/sec Late er ot af ae @ (1) 4.46 Mo /Ro_ (2) 0.447 Mo /%o (3) 1.612 Mo / Bo (4) 3.213 Ho /Po In an inelastic collision of wo objects the following is not conserved : (1) Momentum (2) Total énergy (3) Kinetic energy (4) Potential energy a aga Ht amcmey came 3 eae ar ceemt FET eter: Q) #ar Q) Es vt 3) aR wat 4) Reta at The time T required for a ptanet to complete one revolution about the sun in an orbit with semi-major axis a and semi-minof’ axis: b satisfies the following relation : 2 2 2 ay Scant Q) Fee const @) - const. (4) po const wm ae at ae wi um meme gh oer AT wae oT & aT He SUT a aE Aor ot a cer Stree oat b Prafefur dee a HgE ee T? _ pow Te . T. Tr 2 a) ao Rens @) Syn fenis (3) = fering) grt Rents Fora satellite in a circuilar-cebit following conditions holds : (1) Kinetic energy is greater than potential enaxgye,_ (2) Kinetic energy is less thar potential energy (3) Sum of kinetic and potential energies is positive (4) Sum of kinetic ahebputential energies is negative (31 ) PTO,17U/116/20(Set-1) 142, 143. 144, 145. 146. Cb GEOR wen aS a wee 2 fd Reais ad qh eke: () wets wat Rater oat S sen eh 8 2) 0S Hal Rater Gal G ae atte (3) feat ye Ratton wot wr de aac eter @ (4) alee ya Refs Sat or tT seorers eter 8 An organ pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency 400 Hz. If one end of the pipe is now closed, the fundamental frequency will become : (1) 400 Hz (2) 200 Hz (3) 546 Fiz (8) 600 Hz We ait steer eet Set we Yor & ate Tae 400 seat aM angftr 2) ome oer vor PERT oi ae aR FRAT WTR, ell Aer aTgAaT ST (V) 400 Beat (2) 200 ext (3) 546 Beat (4) 600 seat Two masses of 1 ym and 4 gm are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of magnitudes of their linear momenta is : 1a SR 4 om att) aarl wart att wot a oft oe ate) sas Yew wea @ oRarey oT ature EMT () 451 Q) 2: @) 1:2 @ 1:16 If two adjacent walls and the ceiling of a rectangular room are mirror surfaced, the number of images of himself as observed by an observer will be : oy saree ee AH ST oa Fast Aree ak wa A wae we atin eT aren 2 1 dee are oF fee a Ger cet Gh: a3 @5 G) 7 a9 ‘A man whose weight on earth is 500 N, is lifted to a height of two earth's radii above the surface of earth. His weight will now be : ep aaa CT ae ye ok HON &, See Gorm yah Fh EB edt at pon 3 ap dal we Soe EL ver aR sa aT (1) 500N (2) 166.6N (3) 55.6N. (@) SON ‘Acar rounds a curve of radius 4) mat 48 km/hr. The centripetal acceleration is : ee on 40 ee STF eee eo 48 Poy AH aR S aeM a) ea gate ore 2 a a4im/se? — (2) 13.2 m/sec? (3) 1687 m/sec? (4) 2.43 m/ser (32)147. 148, 143, 150. 181. 17U/116/20(Set-1) The SL. unit of inductance times capacitance is: (1) Second? @) Volt (3) Ohm @) Heriz drow x aay Hh oss ombeta gare e: (1) Bors? 2) tee @) ster (8) 8a A154 F capacitor is charged to 60V. The energy stored in the capacitor is: We Sp PS Geka ot GOV ae aah wed ) data A cae Gat ehh: () 0.0275 2) 9.039) (3) 0.054) (4) 0.992] A2 , F capacitor is charged to 20 V and then connected across a 6 i H inductor. The maximum value of current is : () U5 Amp (2) 20 Amp @) 5 Amp — (4) 95 Amp We 2 uF enor ay ents 20V Te omar fire ure @ sie 6 pn H does & vis fea ora 8) are am Serer ae: (1) 11.5 ere (2) 2.9 eae (3) 15.5 ey (4) 98 Gta The earth's radius is 637 x 10° m and the earth is 15 x 10° km away from the Sun. The fraction of radiation emitted by Sun as intercepted by the earth is : geal ar selare 6.37 x 10°ato 8 atk EES TE LS x 10° Pte BA a A ei ‘eafelt sare ar ary wi) yal oe eT, 2: (1) 451« 10% (2) 1.82«10% 3) 45x 107 @) 621 x10” SECTION -1V wwe -Iv BIOLOGY (Botany and Zoology) ‘ie PIST (erent wa aftr fara) Ficus is an example of which kind of inflorescence ? (1) Spike (2) Racerne (3) Cyathium (4) Hypanthodium oad fra FoR & yom ST wee FP (12) SES -Q) te (3) raha (4) serait (33) PTO,17U/116/20(Set-1) 152. 153. 154, 195. 156. 157. Bicarpellary gynoecium and oblique ovary occurs in : ()) Mustard (2) Brinjal 3) Wheat (8) Onion fasedh arm ce few suse Ie GIT z (haa A (2) ae (3 AA @) api Photorespiration takes place in : (1) Mitochondria (2) Glyoxysomes (3) Peroxisomes @) Golgi bodies ware were] Gal eer 7 (a) mgcteifegen (2) rargaiteORT RT ) Tete (4 Teh ais The first CO: acceptor in Cs plants is Ci tei 4 CO, wt gery Khhanet &: () PEP. (2) Ru.BP. @PGA (4) O.AA The hormone present in the liquid endosperm of wucanut is - (i) Ethylene (2) Gibberellin (3) Auxin (4) Cytokinin cata & aver qorete 4 ora ort aren dist & : Q) eds (2) fae @) afer (@) Tigermghis “Molecular Scissors’ used in genetic engineering is : (i) D.N. A. Polymerase 2) D.N. A. Ligase (3) Restriction endonuclease (4) Helicase orgdfire aftntaal 3 mga 2h arc sree oy (etclager Stun!) & : (1) Go Gao Yo dicta Q) Bo We yo aT (Q) Agar Sey () teh In India, tropical rain forests are found in: (1) Darjeeling (2) Andaman (3) Rajasthan (4) Jammu and Kashmir ana § soroftania a ort are & + wo arfaaia 4 Q) smear a a) awe q (4) Sy ue oe A (34)158, 161. 162. 17U/116/20(Set-1) The major source of methane in Indiais : (1) Rice Fields (3) Sugarcane aa % Aetr or yea wise: Q) oS oa @ ™= Opium is obtained from : (1) dried leaves (3) latex from unripe fruits arity one Pear ara & : Q) aed strat & @) fan ae Get Fa A . Suntemp is obtained from : (1) Crotolaria juncea 3) Musa textilis Wag wr Hh aT @ (1) wleteiRar order e @) er dawergferr & Amino acids are : () Negatively charged @) Zwitter ions ott ore at é (1) womens rai G) satex Tara In ferns, the xylem is : (1) Exarch (2) Mesarch wee a are att 8: (1) ere (2) frees (2) Wheat Fields (4) Fruit Orchards Q) ARS ar (4) wef F ate (2) roots (4) latex from ripe fruits Q we 4) WS oot Fee S (2) Cannabis sativa (4) Cocos nucifera Q) date wera & (Q) arora (2) Positively charged (4) Cations Q) orem state @. ta (3) Endarch @ Polyarch () Fert 9) Sahara PLO.17UN116/20(Set-1) 163. 164, 165, 166. 167. 168. Lycopodium is commonly known as : (1) Horse tail (2) Club moss (3) Quill wort (4) Stone wort og ATSOT Ura aT ATT e (1) ori te (2) aera The (3) fae we (4) Wa ae Pollination in cyeas takes place through : (I) Ant (2) Water (3) Bat (4) Air argare A verry eter & (0) aeat err (2) oFY ert (3) ames at (4) Ba ET During meiosis, crossing over takes place at: (1) Leptotene stage (2) Zygotene stage (3) Pachyiene stage (4) Diplotene stage . seg Pera dere wifey ater et & (1) Berd aero F (2) saracinfot sraeerl (3) Adiga steven * (4) feetée oper ¥ Primary precursor of [. A. A. is: (1) Tryptophan (2) Tyrosine (3) Leucine (4) Methionine LA. Aor grere omrrrtt = (1) frerher @) fee 3) war (4) a8 Link between Giycolysis and Kreb's cycle is: (2) Citricacid (2) Succinic acid (3) Acetyl Co-A (4) Fumaricacid rarities wi dar oH 3 aa ost at “ 2 a OR (1) Ree (2) HRP or @ vata as (4) FARE oF resent in: Double stranded R.N. A-is pre (ty Reon @) Mitochondria (4) Chloroplast @) Bacteria (36)169. 170. 171, 172, 173. 17U/116/20(Set-1) FAC HRo Wo Yo TN wT a (1) det are ¥ 2) meeketgar & (3) stay @) aeikhenee Polyembryony is found in : () Citrus Q2) Liteht (8) Coconut (4) Tomato aa og on () tga ah e (Q) waa F (cre Pneumatophores are found in ; Q) Mangroves (2) Cactus (3) Lichens (4) Bryophytes apeant od and & Q) Fayre Q) arty Q) age 4) meee it Coconut milk is used in ; (1) Dairy industries (2) Cosmetic production (3) Fermentation (4) Tissue culture waa a aR (wrete Pow) wa eer ® Q) ya seit a (2 ered wee weet @) fore & G) wae vias R.Q of fatty substances is generally : (l) Lessthanone ~ 2) One (3) More than one (4) Ten ata cert at Ro aye (RQ) eer eB: Q) We oF Q) Q) wt ata @) er Ramsar convention is related taconservation of: (1) Tiger @) Birds "= @) Wetlands — (4) Bape ‘ephant IRE Wate Perk Wawer By MBG a > ( Q fifger 3) okt (8) wep (37)170/116/20(Set-1) 174, 175. 176. 177. 178. Perisperm in seeds develops fram : (1) Funicle 3) Hilum ‘dhl # cfr chy (Perisperm) FT # : (1) ware & (3) weet S 2) Nucellus (@) Ovary wall Q) tarsem 3 (4) soar RRS Heterospory and ligulate leaves are feature of : (1) Ferns (2) Lycopodium faery dorm ve yee erat cert s : Q wis (2) agataierr s Maltose is : (1) Monosaccharide (3) Polysaccharide areata & () aHReeeES Q) vita Androstenedione is produced in: Q) Granulosa cells (3) Sertoli cells peetenaiis onftr 88 8 () taster Brest (3) weed wierat F Starfish belongs to phylum : (1) Porifera 3) Protoz08 eerie ay we (3) ser mga B sents aa 8? (98) (3) Marsilea (4) Selaginetta (3) afer ® (4) telferetar (2) Disaccharide (4) Oligosaccharide (2) SERIES (4) sifermougs (2) Leydig cells (4) Sperms (2) afr ART F @) ets @) Coelenterata @ Echinodermata (2) Raeter @) sorter179. 180, 181. 182, 183. 17U/116/20(Set-1) Nerve net system is found in : (1) Planarians (2) Insects (3) Hydra (4) Barthworms ad Ae fea ort orem & (2) ARG AQ) area @) Brag 4 (4) Bapn # Antibodies are produced by : (1) Blymphocytes (2) Macrophages (3) T lymphocytes (4) Erythrocytes Gere wena eh (1) B feeaiergext arr Q) Aaréca ger (3) T rermges art (4) SRetages ERT Most abundant white blood cells in human blood is : (1) Basophils (2) Eosinophils (3) Neutrophils (4) Monocytes ware erete Ba Gare WER Arar A ed war wAfirert # (1) aera Q) BIR 3) =p @ Arena Catecholamines are generally secreted from (1) Zona reticularis (2) Zona fasciculata (3) Zona glomerulgsa ) Adrenal meduila ‘Seaton Barer afar aa e : Q) sini gare @) Siar wetgger @) Siren cohireeteT S @ Bre Agere Ultra-filtration of blood takes-place in : (@) PCT of renal tubules 2) DCT of renal tubes (3) Bowman's capsule (4) Loop of Henle war OT aegr-regerd afer ee. () tm ep SB PCTH Ge ERE Dery Q) aa & dae F @) ayy (38) PTO,17U/116/20(Set-1) 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. Urea is secreted into the medullary interstitium from : (1) Descending loop of Henie (2) Ascending loop of Henle (8) PCT (4) Collecting duct aa Ager gexecaterer # erfea ear Fs (2) Bad omega ae Q) FSS ake qe @ cra @) water we A Inactive pancreatic trypsin is activated by : () HEL (2) Na“and K* (2) Enterokinase. (4) Lipase Petre Sfmt Rr wala ete @ : (1) HClgRr (2) Nat wen K+ ERT (3) severe aR (@) rete RT ‘Stroke volume of normal human heart is : wre aaa eed S oeTa BI ATT e () 70m) (2) 140ml (3) 500ml (@ 2500 ml Deoxygenated blood is carried from human heart to lung through : (1) Pulmonary vein Q) Pulmonary artery (3) Vena cava (® Aorta grertiors WRG CAT ATG gaa S oe! A a tr sens: (1) Weta PRT ERT Q) aera eh arr 3) fat Sar ERT @ whet aa Tricuspid valve guards the blood flow between : (i) Rt Atria and Rt, Ventricle (2) Lt Attia and Lt. Ventricle @) Rt Yentricle to pulmonary artery 4 yp Ventricle to gore (40)189. 190, 191, 17U/116/20(Set-1) meets area tar ware Hh ven area 2: () RMT onan yd aie afar S ata (2) anh sniper w ant atea 3 de 2) AH SRReet B eM oe Be (4) We Sas 8 wit 3 ay Cardiac output is increased by : (1) Sympathetic neurons of ANS (2) Parasympatheticnéurans of SAN 8) Cortisol (@) PON aiisae amseye wea 2 : () ANSS Ritifte apy err 2) SANS dufiiafen agiay err (Q) wifeete arr (4) PON grt Inspiratory reserve volume of normal human lungs is: Ward Mra Bay oT FTTH Rohe ae e (1) 500 mi (2) 2500-3000 ml - (3) 1000-1100 ma (4 3000-3500 mi Binding of oxygen to hemoglobin is known as: (1) Oxidation 2) Reduction (3) Oxygenation a. (4) Oxido-reduction Srivcifts & fore otectory dare ah orem # : (1) sitter . (2) sR (3) atteettoc 4 siedel-Reera - {4t) PTO.17U/116/20(Set-1) 192. 193. 194, Which of the following favours the dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhemoglobin at the tissue level ? (Q) High pCO) Q) Low p02 (3) High H* concentration (4) Allof the above eam we we onehiehaifia & atettar 3 qaceer ay Preteen A a ae wre ara 2? (1) 8% pCO, (2) Prt poz @) se Ht wiser (4) sates wh, Jn human, autoexcitable action potential is generated first in: (1) AYN (2) SAN (3) Bundle of HIS (4) Purkinje fibres are 3 eat Prone Ber weed get werT EE a AVNA @ SAN # Q) HS é da 4 (@) Weed og A Bile salts are made in + (1) Pancreas (2) Liver (3) Duodenum — (4) Stomach wget TaN BE Q) sear ¥ (2) apa 3) Teoh * (4) arereret ‘An important feature of human evolution 1s: (1) Increase in heart size (2) Increase in limb size @) Ancrease in brain size (4) Lossof tail gr Prcorer AY Ta Phen = cy een ae 4 ) fra 8 ree 4 GR (a) Fee $ se FH @) fp a eft (42)196. 197. 198, 199. 17U/116/20(Set-1) Which of the following is scientificname of Pheretima posthuma ? (1) Leech Q) Neris @) Earthworm (4) Tapeworm ‘Sefer Hreqar (Pheretima posthuma) P= 4 & freer dene are 8 ? () at @) ara @) yar rere ht Which one of the following is not an absorbent organ in humans ? (1) Nictating membrane (2) BarShell muscles (3) Flat front teeth (incisors) (4) Vermiforms appendix fret Ya aha agus H orenh ait gee 2 (1) Praefer get QQ) wore aiTeRTET 3) wry we wae che ( viet year Biopsy is related with : () Post mortem done to know the cause of death (2) Examining in unconscious state (3) Separating tissues from the body for examination (4) Treating hydrophobia ware Biopsy) warud & Q) FY oT eRe UM & fey wa fhedsy ae a Q) Maret a Ree A ater aed a ~~ 3) chem & for Geet st ates oer eet & . (4) srggehRar or ere we S : After birth in humans in which tissue there is no cell division ? (1) Skeleton Q) Nerve (3) Connective (4) Genital wre S ag arta & Poe oar 4 wy ohare PTT WEF Bien & 2 (1) wane (2) Prez... (3) waht (4) om (43)170/116/20(Set-1) 200. Match List-I with List-Il and choose the correct answer from the code given below: List-I (Discoverer) List-II (Discovery) A Gener i Blood Group B. Watson ii Penicillin & Landsteiner iti Vaccinization D. Fleming iv Double helix Code: AB Cc D Qi i a iv Qii wv i i Q) ii w i it Qi ib ov i Ba are J we Pare afore ak te fee age wa HH BAG eh (etrea) a (Bt) A wR i ite af B. ae i RRR é. aaa ii Creare D. weet iv feast ee A BC D Q)ii i i iv Qi w i i @ii iv i il (44)FOR ROUGH WORK/t5 ori & fr MORK / Hore fryarvatat & fag freer fee ear a ERT YS TA atopoare THT BT GST aber cf aot acre 7 8 8 Fe aye fm et 8 50 Pe ee tera ere He ps Ae ETN ee ger geen erg oh A HT TT we Af EE wot pees ae gfe Wes wT 2 safe wer ener efter ener Bah, eet at Tet EA GT ANT wer a are a a pe eee ty ah a ab ag ate 7 Ape BE GOT TET fer pdr) Beret STA BT BF HEAT POAT TAT! ce min oer is a TTT HE OT SENS ST uy a! i pen eae en rr Pa ee Ha ET tae ere 2) ae eager wT MF ear GS WT TE fr erat we ferett eee a aprie dom reefers sone He dat (Me Se gr Po ae ae ES HAE FES 9 argafer ae 2! 1 ae Aa ee tr ee AR HEME SAT SS ages AT eT TAT SET epee oe ts et 6 mde me a ENO Fe re ah ae ay # ard fed vA THAT EET STIS re md Prd & are eave br 3 727 AFI 9. yee wero Se F A Sat Mea ge org wel cw A ae aT THT TT Sa Ge GB AEA HA TEST TES TT ST ne an end rt a 00 eM STE A ST oF 8 can, HN AA HH mS at Re es ATT ea pe ee gon 3 gape d see ve or TT ES a saan cer Pet ae are oT ETN Ta 8 och aber ars HAE GA STS 7H HH) Se ae ent cra wef, STE Roe ers FS