Interesting arguments, ideas

Victor Wang
October 23, 2013

1. Hmm this is pretty tricky and I wish I actually knew what it meant but here is an application anyway.
(Adapted from Gabriel Dospinescu, 2010 MR U160). Let p be a prime and let n, s be positive integers.
Prove that  
 
X n
vp  (−1)k k s  ≥ vp (n!).
k
p|k,0≤k≤n

hf dkal; f

Solution: Let the sum
be S. Then by a roots of unity filter and the Stirling number representation
of k s (define 00 = 00 = 1),
p−1 X
n  
X n s
pS = k (−ω j )k
j=0
k
k=0
p−1 X
n   s  
X n j k
X k
= (−ω ) S(s, `) `!
j=0 k=0
k `
`=0
p−1 min(s,n) n   
X X X k n
= S(s, `)`! (−ω j )k
j=0
` k
`=0 k=0
p−1 min(s,n) n 
 X 
X X n n−`
= S(s, `)`! (−ω j )k
j=0
` k − `
`=0 k=`
p−1 min(s,n)  
X X n
= S(s, `)`! (−ω j )` (1 − ω j )n−` .
j=0
`
`=0

If j = 0 and ` < n, then we get a zero term. Also, if s ≥ n, then from the ` = n terms we get
p−1
X
n! (−ω j )n = pn!(−1)n [p|n],
j=0

which is a multiple of p1+vp (n!) . Thus it suffices to show that for 1 ≤ j ≤ p − 1,

   
n j n−`
vp `! (1 − ω ) > vp (n!)
`

for all 0 ≤ ` ≤ min(s, n − 1). But using the extension of vp to the ring of algebraic numbers Q̄ (i.e.
vp (x) = d1 vp (f (0)), where f is the minimal polynomial of x), the LHS is just

n − ` − sp (n − `) n − `
vp (n!) − + > vp (n!),
p−1 p−1

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Victor Wang Interesting arguments, ideas

so we’re done (note that n − ` ≥ 1 =⇒ sp (n − `) > 0 in this case).[/hide]

Edit: Two more applications (also from PFTB)!
(Gabriel Dospinescu). Let p > 2 be a prime number and P let m and n be multiples of p, with n odd. For
m
any function f : {1, 2, . . . , m} → {1, 2, . . . , n} satisfying k=1 f (k) ≡ 0 (mod p), consider the product
Qm m
n
k=1 f (k). Prove that the sum of these products is divisible by p . (Yes, we can strengthen it
easily.)
(St. Petersburg 2003). Let p be a prime and let n ≥ p and a1 , a2 , . . . , an be integers. Define
Pf0 = 1
and fk the number of subsets B ⊆ {1, 2, . . . , n} having k elements and such that p divides i∈B ai .
Show that f0 − f1 + f2 − · · · + (−1)n fn is a multiple of p.
2. (MathOverflow, July 2012) By Newton interpolation (or other standard methods), one can easily
determine the number and structure (the latter to a lesser extent) of sequences (a1 , a2 , . . . , an ) (mod n)
represented by integer polynomials given the prime factorization of n (note that we can reduce to the
prime power case by the Chinese remainder theorem). For instance, see this AoPS thread. However,
for such f ∈ Z[x] we have strong restrictions like u − v | f (u) − f (v) for integers u, v.
IMO it’s then natural to wonder about (e.g. the new structure of valid f ) for rational polynomials in
general, where standard interpolation methods (in certain mods) aren’t as clean. (Mostly copied from
my comment below.)
To this end, consider a pair of positive integers (n, m) with n, m > 1 such that for every sequence
(a1 , a2 , . . . , an ) ∈ (Z/mZ)n , there exists an integer-valued polynomial f ∈ Q[x] satisifying f (x) ≡ ai
(mod m) whenever x ≡ i (mod n).
First, it is easy to show that n, m must be powers of the same prime. Indeed, if there exist distinct
primes p, q such that p | n and q | m, then for some sufficiently large integer `, we have q | f (x+n)−f (x)
and q | f (x + q ` ) − f (x) for every x. But gcd(n, q ` ) | n/p, so by Bzout’s identity, q | f (x + n/p) − f (x)
for all x and thus the ai(n/p) must all be congruent (mod q) in order for f to exist.
On the other hand, if n = pi and m = pj for some prime P p and positive integers i, j, then given
n k
a sequence (a1 , a2 , . . . , an ), consider the polynomial g(x) = k=1 ak x . By a simple induction on
d ≥ 0, we can show (using finite differences) that a degree d polynomial f (for convenience, say
deg 0 = −1) satisfying the desired properties exists iff d is the smallest number such that the division
of (x − 1)d+1 g(x) by xn − 1 gives a remainder r(x) with coefficients all divisible by m (call d + 1 the
*order* of the sequence (a1 , a2 , . . . , an ), so the all-zero sequence has order 0). Since (x − 1)n = xn − 1
in Fp , we have (x − 1)jn = (xn − 1)u(x) + pj v(x) for some polynomials u, v with integer coefficients, so
the order of any sequence is finite and at most jn.
However, this leads to the following two questions:
¿ 1. For fixed p, i, j, what is the maximum possible order M of a sequence (a1 , a2 , . . . , an ) ∈ (Z/mZ)n ?
(Resolved in the update.) ¿ 2. How many sequences are there of order r, where r ∈ [0, M ] is a fixed
integer? ¿ 3. Is there a reasonably nice way to describe the sequences of a fixed order r (possibly in
terms of one of the corresponding polynomials f, g)?
Looking at small cases, it seems that the answer to 1 should be pi + (j − 1)φ(pi ), where φ denotes
Euler’s totient function.
**Update:** OK, I think I have a (messy) proof that the answer to question 1 is indeed pi +(j −1)φ(pi ),
but it doesn’t seem to lend itself to 2 or 3 in any way.
k k i
Fix p, i. First note that since (x − 1)p = xp − 1 (in Fp ) for k = i and k = i − 1, we have (x − 1)φ(p ) =
i
Φpi (x) in Fp as well, so (x − 1)φ(p ) = Φpi (x) + pT (x) for some integer polynomial T of degree at most
φ(pi ) − 1, where Φt denotes the tth cyclotomic polynomial. Observe that T (1) = −1, so 1 is not a root
of T in Fp .
Using this key fact, we will induct on j ≥ 1 to construct a sequence of integer polynomials Pj , Qj such
that i i i
(x − 1)p +(j−1)φ(p ) = (xp − 1)Pj (x) + pj (x − 1)Qj (x),

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Victor Wang Interesting arguments, ideas

i−1
−1
vp (Qj (1)) = i − 1, and in Fp , (x − 1)p kQj (x) (i.e. 1 is a root of multiplicity pi−1 − 1).
i i
(x−1)p −(xp −1)
For j = 1, we simply take P1 (x) = 1 and Q1 (x) = p(x−1) , where clearly Q1 (1) = −pi−1 =⇒
i−1
vp (Q1 (1)) = i − 1. Showing (x − 1)p −1 kQj (x) is slightly harder, but not too bad. It’s easy to show
i

by counting prime factors that pk is divisible by p for all 1 ≤ k ≤ pi − 1 and not divisible by p2 iff
i

pi−1 | k. Furthermore, by Babbage’s theorem we have kppi−1 ≡ kp (mod p2 ) for 1 ≤ k ≤ p − 1. Hence


i−1 i−1
for p = 2, we just need to show that (x − 1)p kxp − 1 in F2 , which is obvious; for p > 2 odd, we
need to show
p−1 kpi−1
! i−1
p−1 k p
pi−1
X x X x
(x − 1) k =
k k
k=1 k=1
Pp−1 k
in Fp (note that k p = k by Fermat’s little theorem). But if h(x) = k=1 xk , then h(1) ≡ 0 (mod p)
while h0 (1) ≡ p − 1 (mod p), so 1 is a simple root of h and we’re done with the base case.
i−1
xp −1
Now assuming the result for some j ≥ 1 (so that x−1 | Qj (x) in Fp ), we can write Qj (x) =
i−1
xp −1
x−1 R(x) + pS(x) for two integer polynomials R, S with deg S < pi−1 − 1. (*) Then
i
+jφ(pi ) i
+(j−1)φ(pi ) i
(x − 1)p = (x − 1)p (x − 1)φ(p )

can be written as
i i
(xp − 1)Pj (x)(x − 1)φ(p ) + pj+1 (x − 1)T (x)Qj (x) + pj Φpi (x)(x − 1)Qj (x)

or equivalently after substitution,

i i
(xp − 1)(Pj (x)(x − 1)φ(p ) + pj R(x)) + pj+1 (S(x)Φpi (x) + T (x)Qj (x)),

so we can take i
Pj+1 (x) = Pj (x)(x − 1)φ(p ) + pj R(x)
and
Qj+1 (x) = S(x)Φpi (x) + T (x)Qj (x).
As i−1 i
(x − 1)p | (x − 1)φ(p ) = Φpi (x)
i−1
−1
in Fp and T (1) = −1, we see that (x − 1)p kQj+1 (x).
It remains to show that vp (Qj+1 (1)) = i − 1. By (*) and the definition of Qj+1 , we find Qj+1 (1) =
Φpi (1)S(1)+T (1)Qj (1) = pS(1)−Qj (1) = −pi−1 R(1), so vp (Qj+1 (1)) ≥ i−1. However, if pi | Qj+1 (1),
i−1 i−1
then p | R(1), so writing (*) in Fp we have Qj (x) = (x − 1)p −1 R(x). But then (x − 1)p | Qj (x),
contradicting our inductive hypothesis.
Thus our induction is complete.
Clearly this construction shows that the order of any sequence is at most M = pi + (j − 1)φ(pi ). On
the other hand, it is easy to show that the order of (1, 0, . . . , 0) is M . Indeed, note that g(x) = x for
i
this sequence, and suppose x(x − 1)M −1 /(xp − 1) leaves a remainder with coefficients all divisible by
j
p . From the induction statement, we have
i
M −1 xp − 1
(x − 1) = Pj (x) + pj Qj (x),
x−1

so writing Pj (x) = (x − 1)U (x) + V for an integer V , we get pj | V . But then plugging in 1 to this
equation, 0 = (0)U (1) + (pi )V + pj Qj (1), whence pi | Qj (1), contradiction.

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Victor Wang Interesting arguments, ideas

3. (Classical umbral calculus) Using linear operators, one can deal with recurrences more easily. This
is a powerful idea, for instance, when computing recurrences
Pn mod prime powers. For instance, we
can
Pn apply this to the Touchard polynomials Tn (x) = k=1 S(n, k)xk , using the identity Tn+1 (x) =
n

n
x k=0 k Tk (x) and defining the linear operator L(x ) = Tn (x). We can, of course, set particular
values of x, e.g. ±1 for the Bell and Uppuluri-Carpenter numbers, respectively. Then using the
Frobenius endomorphism we can get some nice recurrences.
This also applies to linear recurrences, e.g. for any starting values, an = an−1 + an−p has period
dividing p2 − 1. However, this can also be done with generating functions, noting that the sequence
must be purely periodic.
4. Solve

xn − 1 = (3 + 3x + · · · + 3x9 + 2x10 + 2x11 + · · · + 2x1209 + x1210 + x1211 + · · · + x146409 )f (x) + 11 · g(x).