[Single Best Choice Questions | SEAT NO:. 1. Which of the following is not a malignant tumor of epithelial origin: a. Melanoma b. Choriocarcinoma c. Mesothelioma T d. Embryonal carcinoma e. Seminoma 2. There is several ways that tumor can escape immune surveillance loss of which class of molecule on the ‘surface of tumor cells target would result in loss of susceptibility for killing by CD8+cells: a. MHC class-Il b. MHC class-| T c. CD4 d. CD8 e. CD3 3. . Fungi that are localized and enter by trauma are classified as: a. Superficial b. Cutaneous c. Subcutaneous T d. Systemic e. Opportunistic 4. Within minutes of bee sting, a 23 years old man develops generalized pruritis and hyperemia of the skin, followed short swelling of the face and eyelids, dyspnea and laryngeal edema. The reaction is mediated by: a. Antigen antibody complex b. Cytotoxic T-cells c. IgA antibodies d. IgE antibodies T e. IgG antibodies ~ » |. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be diagnosed by the pigment known as: . Pyocyanin T b. Xanthophyll . Chlorophyll d. Canthaxanthin e. Carotene List below are five bacteria along with their mode of transmission. Which of the following pair is most accurate: a. Borrelia burgdorferi Tick bite T b. Rickettsia rickettsii--- Contaminated food c. Yersinia pestis ---- Mosquito bite d. Leptospirosis —-—- Flea bite e. Coxiella bumetti —-- Bat '. Acondition in which two complete chromosomes are present is called: .. Polyploidy . Euploidy T . Aneuploidy |. Hexaploidy . Octaploidy eoogD A frame shift mutation: a. Replaces one aminoacid b. Remove part of protein c. Introduce a section normally found d. Join two different proteins e. None of above . Denature DONA, Anneal timers, petended DNA y=! Primers, ©. Denature DNa, Extended DNA, Anneal Primers d. xtended DNA, Anneal primers Denature DNA Primers, @. None ofa... Denature DNa, \ lera, nesis of V.cholera, ae eee enzyme dinsalve the glycoprotein coating over int g Nis: a Elastase b. Catalase c. Mucinase T d. Lipase e. Oxidase Mowing are involved in 83. cvecioner ing a due to genes that regulate apoptosis, scent: a. Reduced levels of CDSG ¢. a b. Low levels of FLIP, = ©. Over-expression of BCL-2 d. Loss of P53 ©. Loss of APAF-1 34. Which is present in Neisseria Meningitidis but not in Nesseria a: a. Oxidase positive b. Lactose fermenters ©. Resistant to Penicillin 4. Polysaccharide Tesistant to Penicillin T & None 35, Gram Negative rods grow on chocolate agar require X) and NAD, 2 Heme(factor factor V) for rowth, Which of the following ing Cause of this con a. Pseudomon; Legioney i ©. Klebsiella nia 'aemophillus influenza T © Borde tella Pertussis‘WIth axillary lymph ne re it vuswer the fofowiny a mone metasta: sis. uct Cell Carcinoma a. Define metastasis. Briefly describe m les is Si : fe ty Fe. De Molecular basis of invasion and metastasis. c. Define paraneoplastic syndrome, . Tabulate differences between i it it hypersensitivity renetee soo" immunity and hypersensitivity. Name type-HI . Write short notes on any THREE : ie sere neta of the following: b. Galactosemia c. Characteristics of malignancy d. Autoimmunity SECTION-II . A10-years old girl has a rapidly spreading, painful erythematous rash on her leg. The rash is warm and tender, and her temperature is 38°C. Gram-positive cocci in chains were seen in an aspirate from the lesion. Culture of the aspirate on blood agar grew colonies surrounded by a clear(beta) hemolysis. Growth of the organism was inhibited by bacitracin. Auswer the following questions: ‘@. Which infectous organism is most likely to cause this condition? b. Discuss about inflammation-related enzymes, toxins and hemolysins of that organism. ¢. Describe briefly poststreptococcal (immune-mediated) diseases, . A10-years old male child was brought to the hospital emergency with fever, chills, malaise sore throat, dysphagia and dyspnea. On examination grayish white pseudo membrane in throat was noted. A gram stain of pharyngeal membrane shows numerous gram positive club shaped rods. Auswer the following questions: Which infectous organism is most likely to cause this condition? Which organism is responsible for this condition? Explain the pathogenesis of causative bacterial toxin. Define Schick's test. - Describe the clinical finding of infection caused by this organism. poocn | What are tumor viruses? Name DNA tumor viruses and differentiate between proto- oncogenes and tumor suppressor gene. .. Write short note on any THREE of the followin: Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome Laboratory diagnosis of Tetanus Differentiate between Salmonella and Shigella HIV virus aoom oOoDEPARTMENT OF PATHOLOG?. INDUS MEDICAL COLLEGE TMK 6™ SEMESTER, 3°° YEAR MBBS 187 INTERNAL EVALUATION TEST 2019 SUBJECT: GENERAL PATHOLOGY & GENERAL BACTE otal Marks: 100 Time Allowed: 01 Hour Dated: 11 8CQ 60 Short Essay 40 Marks Roll No: Name: - Failure to respond correct answer NB - Each stem has five options, Q.No. 1. Which of the following pair does not correctly match he tumor with it a) Anogenital Carcinoma - HPV (Type 16 & 18) b) Burkitt lymphoma - EBV(Epstein barr virus) ¢) Hepatocellular carcinoma — Hepatitis A Virus d) MALT Lymphoma - Helicobacter Pylori e) Squamous cell carcinoma of skin — Uttraviolets Rays Q.No. 2. Grading of tumor is based on which of the following statement: a) Size of primary tumor b) Spread of cancer cells to regional lymph nodes ¢) Presence of capsular invasion by tumor cells d) Degree of differentiation of tumor cells, anaplasia and no. of mitosis 7 ) Presence of blood borne metastasis Q. No. 3. A malignant epithelial cell neoplasm derived from more than one germ toas: a) Sarcoma b) Carcinoma ¢) Immature Teratoma T d) Mixed cell tumor e) Adenoma Q.No. 4. Which one of the following is not characteristic morphological features 0 a) Pleomorphism and hyperchromatism b) Increased mitosis and abnormal mitotic figures c) Nuclei that vary in shape and size d) Presence of undifferentiated cells €) Sheets of tumor cells grow in an organized fashion T @.No. 5. Which one of the following is most likely to induce on IgM antibody res the participation of helper T-Cells: a) Tetanus toxoid b) Toxic shock syndrome toxin ¢) Meningococcal capsular polysaccharide 77 @) Chronic enteric fever ) Pneumococcal polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria toxoid Q.No. 6. Which of the following is most likely accurate for Toll-like receptors: a) Toll-like receptor-4 prevent against the gram positive organism b) Toll-like receptor-2 gives protection against gram negative bacteria and yeasts ¢) Drugs that modify the action of tollike receptors become important in preventinc mediated shock d) Toltlike receptors are mainly the component of adaptive arm of immunity ) Toll-like receptor-4 inhibit the production of (TNF) tumor necrosis factor Q.No. 7. Which of the following is most likely accurate statement regarding helper T a) Th-1 cells does not activate cytotoxic T-cells b) Th-1 cells activate the macrophages via gamma interferon T° ¢) Th-2 cells stimulated by IL-12 d) Th-1 cells responsible Primarily for enhancement of antibody production e) Th-1 cells stimulated by IL-4Q.No. 8 Which of the following set of cells can present antigen to helper T-cells: a). Becells and cytotoxic T-cells b) Macrophages and mast calls c) Neutrophils and basophils a) Neutrophils and cytotoxic T-cells @) B-cells and dendritic cells” 3d that chronic, increased exposure to ionizing radiation Aa esr DNA As 2 a protein is which would arrest the cell in Q. No. 9. to cellular DNA. As a consequence, c tect ase ofthe cal cycle is absent .The absent protein is most likely the product of which of the following genes: a) RAS b) P53 ©) Myc d) ABL e) BCL2 Regarding IgG which of the following is the most accura! Q.No.9. a) Each molecule has (4) antigen binding site b) During the primary response, it is made in larger amounts than IgM = c) The ability of IgG to fix complement resides on the CH-2 domain of heavy chain 7 4d) Itis the most important antigen receptor on the surface of neutrophils e) It causes indirect opsonization jon to develop localized hypersensitivity reaction to variety of inhaled Q.No. 10. Predispo: antigen refers to: a) Energy b) Tolerance ©) Anaphylaxis d) Atopy e) Autoimmunity Q.No. 11. Which of the following disease, which one is most likely to be caused by a delayed hypersensitivity reaction: a) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia b) Hemolytic disease of the newborn ©) Serum sickness 4) Toxic epidermal necrolysis. 7” e) Farmer's ung @.No. 12. Which of the following is an example of Type-lI hypersensitivity reaction: ‘a) Atopic dermatitis b) Drug induced hemolytic anaemia T ©) Rheumatoid arthritis 4) Contact dermatitis e) Serum sickness Q.No. 13, Regarding the pathogenesis of autoimmune disease, most accurate: a) In good pasture’s syndrome, antibodies are formed against the synovial membrane of joints ) In autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the red cells are destroyed by TNF produced by activated macrophages ¢) In immune thrombocytopenic purpura antibody is formed against platelets glycoprotein T d) In Reiter's syndrome, neuropathy occur following respiratory tract infections which one of the following isQNo.19. a) c) q) e) QNo.20, a) b) ¢) qd) e) Q.No.22, a) b) c) d) e) eo = Of the following form of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be felon, Passive immunity = T Passive-active immunity Active immunity Cell mediated immunity Antibody and T-cell mediated . A patient with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamine. The symptoms are most likely to be caused by: Interleukin-2 Slow reacting substance AT Serotonine Bradykinin Steroids Which of the following microorganisms causes scarlet fever: Streptococcus pyogens = T Pseudomonas aeruginosa Staphylococcus aureus Peptostreptococci Streptococcus bovis, A 31-year-old female presents with a pyogenic infection along the suture following a cesarean section surgery. The primary causative agent is ident wound swab as beta-hemolytic, catalase-positive. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent of this patient's infection: Clostridium tetani Staphylococcus aureus 7 ‘Staphylococcus epidermidis Streptococcus agalactiae ‘Streptococcus bovis Each of the following statements about the classification of streptococci is correct except: Pneumococei (Streptococcus pneumoniae) are alpha-hemolytic and can be serotyped on the basis of their polysaccharide capsule Enterococci are group D streptococci and can be classified by their ability to grow 6.5% sodium chloride Viridans streptococci are identified by Lancefield grouping, which is baged on the C carbohydrate in the cell wall = J . Although pneumococci and the viridans streptococci are alpha-hemolytc, they can be differentiated by the bile solubility test and their susceptibility to optochin Non enterococci (eg. Streptococcus bovis inhibited by saline or 6.5% Nacl and killed by pencilin G. Which of the following is not an antimicrobial drug added in the Thayer Martin Media for the isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae: Penicillin 7 ‘Vancomycin Trimethoprin Nystatin Among the serogroups of Neisseria meningitidis given, which of these are the most important associated with meningococcal infection: B,C, Yandwi35 X,Y and W135 XY and W125 » Xand W135, c} ,C, ¢, C, Zand W135ene Nterotoxin tythrogenic toxin T Which hemolysis of stro, i ys Ptococcus is not inactivated by oxygen (oxygen stable). Not antigenic but is responsible for 6 hemolysis when colonies grow on surface on biood agar pla streptolysin ~ =rythrogenic toxin Streptolysin-S = T > yogenic exotoxin A =xotoxin Movements of listeria monocytogens inside the host cell is caused by: Pseudopodia formation Formation of pili Tumbling motility Inducing host cell actin polymerization (actin rockets) T Motion by listerial flagella A Pore forming toxin produced by staphyloccus aureus that especially damage white blood cells is known as: PV leukocidin Coagulase Exfoliation Enterotoxin Staphyloxanthin Which of the intracellular pathogen listed below has as Propensity to cause disease in Pregnant women due to their weakened cytotoxic T cell response, E. Coli (enterotoxigenic E. Coli) Salmonella Listeria monocytogenes 7 Shigella Bacillus Neisseria gonorrhae is differentiated from Neisseria meningitides by one of the following test: Glucose fermentation test Oxidase test Urease test Maltose fermentation test 7 Indole testY DEPARTMENT OF PATHOLOG' INDUS MEDICAL COLLEGE TMK 6™ SEMESTER, 3°° YEAR MBBS 28 INTERNAL EVALUATION TEST 2019 BIOLOGY SUBJECT: GENERAL PATHOLOY & MICRO! Dated: 07-10-2019 ital Marks: 100 Time Allowed: 01 Hour [Q70 ks aa Short Essay 30 Marks TT Rok No 3 - Each stem has five options - Tick one best answer - Failure to respond correct answer all get zero mark. No.1 Which of the following pair does not correctly match the tumor with its causative agent? a) Benign Squamous papilloma _- HPV (Type 1,2,4 & 7) ©) Burkittiymphoma ——- EBV(Epstein barr virus) ) MALT Lymphoma - Helicobacter Pylori é Adult T-cells leukemia /lymphoma — Hepatitis B Virus T €) Basal cell carcinoma of skin - Utraviolet Rays No.2 Grading of tumor is based on which of the following statement: a) Size of primary tumor 3 ‘Spread of cancer cells to regional iymph nodes Degree of differentiation of tumor cells, anaplasia and no. of mitosis T ©) Presence of capsular invasion by tumor cells, ©) Presence of blood borne metastasis ‘No.3 A malignant epithelial cell neoplasm derived from more than one germ layer is referred to a a) Sarcoma b) Carcinoma © Immature TeratomaT ) Mixed cell tumor ©) Adenoma No.4 A 44-year-old woman who has had multiple sexual partners for the past 30 years has an abnormal Pap smear with cytologic changes suggesting human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. Without treatment, she is most likely to develop which of the following lesions? g Squamous cell carcinoma T °) 9) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma Kaposi sarcoma ‘Adenocarcinoma e) Leiomyoma No.5 Cancer is often the result of activation of __ to ___and the inactivation of __ genes. 2) oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes, proto-oncogenes ® proto-oncogenes, oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes ©) oncogenes, proto-oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes 2) proto-suppressor genes, suppressors, oncogenes ©) tumor-suppressor genes, oncogenes, proto-ancogenes “Komitee Kew 232 No.6 ‘The Philadelphia chromosoma/is associated with which type of cancer? Q feutgirmprobiasicteskomia Test loca trot £(4:0) CML T ) Breast ©) Thyroid d) Brain e) Bone No.7 Regarding experiments demonstrations ike initiation & promotion phases of carcinogenesis in mice, which one model result tumor formation: a) Application of only initiator b) Application of initiator then promoter at a long time intervals ©) Application of promoters only @ Application of initiator then promoter at regular time interval. T &) Application of promoter at regular time interval then initiator.Nos Q.No.9 Q.No.10 Q.No.11 Q.No.12 Q.No.13, Q.No.14 Q.No.15. Q.No.16. Q.No.17 Q. No. 18 Which of the following benign tumor @) Hypersensitivity . b) Immature teratoma ©) Melanoma ¢) Lymphoma Pleom adenoma Gh are charoetoristc features of malignant tumors excopt a) Anaplaia b) Local invasion Definite capsul @) Distant metastasis fe). Necrosis Which tissue are most resistant to invasion by malignant cells a) Bone b) Tendon ©) Artery ) Smooth muscles Cartilage T Which of the following term refer o a malignant tumor of mesenchymal origin a) Carcinoma b) Hepatoma ) Squamous cell papilloma Sarcomay @) Teratoma , Which ofthe following is growth suppressor gene a b) HIST ) MYC © apct ) RAS Proteins of DNA Oncogenic virus bind most likely with. é Proto oncogenes Growth suppressor gene “T ©) DNA repair genes d) Pro apopotic gene @) Any of above groups of genes Which of the following is growth promoting gene a) TGF-8 receptor b) Tp53 ©) NFA APC. Ras T Which organisms are frequently culture on sabouraud’s agar Protozoa 8 a) @ Cestodes 6) ¢) e) Fungi “7 Virus Trematodes Most common manifestation of candida albicans is a) Hepatic abscess b) Paronychia c) Oesophagitis 6 Thrush T e) Vaginitis Arthospores are a) Single layered spore with thick wall Arised by fragmentation of the end of hyphae 1 ‘) Formed by budding process by which yeast reproduce asexually ) Sexual spores e) Formed within sac. ‘AIDs is diagnosed in patient through WBCs, when which cell count is decreasing. a) Neutrophils b) Basophis cD8 cells, 8 CD4 cells T e) B-cellNo.1 5 9 HIV belongs to which family of viruses a) Powviridae b) Herpesviridae 9) Togavirides. @ Retroviridae T ®) Rhabdoviridae Q.No.20, Retroviruses encode an enzyme reverse transcriptase. The function of reverse transcriptase enzyme Is a) Topoisomerase activity b) RNA dependant RNA polymerase activity <) DNAse activity RNa idopendontONA polymerase activty T ‘) DNA dependant RNA polymerase activity The key pathological feature of dengue hemorrhagic fever is Increased vascular permeability Decreased vascular permeability )_ Increased platelet count d) Decreased haematocrit 2) Leukocytosis tanaie Lice of the following factors, released by heating suspension of sheep erythrocytes, is required for the growth of Haemophilus influenzae in chocolate agar a) Coagulase @ nao 3) Hemolysins d) Protein A €) Haemoglobin In the pathogenesis of V. cholera, which bacterial enzyme dissolves the protective glycoprotein coating over the intestinal cells? a) Elastase @ Mucinase T ©) Catalase 9) Lipase e) Oxidase Tick is an Anthropod vector responsible for the transmission of which one of the following organisms? a) Rickettsiae prowazekii b) Rickettsiae typhi c) Rickettsiae tsutsugamushi G Fickettsae ikea ’e) Rickettsiae akari Q.No.25 Regarding campylobacter Q.No.26 Q.No.27 A 80-year-old diabetic man hi Bacteroides fragilis, and a gram 'a)_ Transmission is usually by insect bite b) Usually cause dysentery ©) Usually diagnosis in laboratory by serologically ‘Are microaerophilic S aeruginosa can be diagnosed from the pigment, known as Pyocyanin"T )_Xanthophyll ©) Chlorophyll d) Canthaxanthin e) Carotene 6 Are long straight gram positive rods 6) as a 4 cm nonhealing foot ulcer. Culture of the ulcer yields Staphylococcus aureus, negative bacillus that ‘swarms across the bloo face of the agar after incubation. The gram-negative a) Escherichia b) Enterobacter .d agar plate covering the entire sur ‘bacillus is a member of the genus ©) Serratia ) Salmonella © Proeus TThe identification salmonella and shigella in stool culture using Eosin Methylene Bla ~ Q.No.28 1 eae ia is dependant on which one of the following proper :) scaipuraiatend Shigella produce a red coloney in presence of Eosin. : Salmonella and Shigella produce a green coloney because they utilize the bile in the media ) Salmonella and Shigella produce a blue coloney in the presence of Methylene Blue. Salmonella and Shigella produce a colourless coloney because they do not ferment lactose “T 8 Salmonella and Shigella produce pink coloney because they ferment lactose. Syphilis is a complex systemic sexually transmitted infection, caused by a) Herpes simplex virus Treponema pallidum <) Borrelia d) Toxoplasma e) Rickettsiae Myobacterial cervical lymphadenitis that present as swollen non tender lymph nodes usually unilaterally is called Q Scrofula V Erythemia nod sum c) Malignant pustule d) Condylomate lata e) Chancre Q.31. The parents of a 17 year old boy with down syndrome seek counseling because they are concerned that their son may develop a life with his chromosomal abnormality. The physician should be prepared to discuss which of the following disorders in terms of its association with Down syndrome: a) Berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis b) Creutzeldt Jakob disease Lymphoblastic leukaemia J d) Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid €) Obsteosarcoma Q.32. A screening test for Phen skinned a) Cord blood is not a good source of fatal hiand67 SEMESTER, 3" YEAR MBBS 18T INTERNAL EVALUATION TEST 2018 SUBJECT: GENERAL PATHOLOY & MICROBIOLOGY Total Marks: 100 Time Allowed: 01 Hour Dated: 06-09-2018 No.1. Re Q. dos ot dee foliation encetascunen and cell mediated immunity, which a) Antibody mediated immunity primarily helps to prevent graft rejection ity b) Antibody mediated immunity is innate arm of immuni ¢) Antibody mediated protect against autoimmune disease ) Cell mediated immunity protects against tumor T @) Cell mediated immunity neutralizes extracellular viruses Q.No.2, Which one of the following exotoxins of Staphylococcus aureus kills WBCs by forming pores In thelr cell wall: a) Protein A b) Teichoic acid c) Catalase d) Toxic shock syndrome toxin e) P-V leukocidin T Q.No.3. Tetanus toxin (tetanospasmin) diffuses to terminals of inhibitory cells in the spinal cord and brain stem and blocks which of the following: a) Release of acetylcholine b) Cleavage of SNARE proteins ¢c) Release of inhibitory glycine T d) Release of protective antigen e) Activation of acetylcholine esterasess Which one of the following is most likely to Induce on IgM antibody Q.No.4, response without the participation of helper T-Cells: a) Tetanus toxoid b) Toxic shock syndrome toxin ¢) Meningococcal capsular polysaccharide T d) Chronic enteric fever ; ; | e) Pneumococcal polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria toxoid Q.No.5. Which one of the following is not an Important characteristic of either Neisseria gonorrhea or Nelsserla meningitidis: a) Polysacharide capsule b) Oxidase positive ¢) Pili d) IgA protease } ting of lipopolysaccharide T e) Endotoxin consist Which of the following is likely to be responsible for the hemolysis In Q.No.6, infections caused by Clostridium perfringens: a) Edema factor b) Tetanospasmin c) Lecithinase T d) Streptolysin O e) ToxinBQ.No.7. Which of the following is most likely accurate for Toll-like receptors: a) Tol-like receptor-4 prevent against the gram positive organism b) Tolblike receptor-2 gives protection against gram negative bacteria and yeasts ¢) Drugs that modify the action of toll-Ike receptors become important in preventing endotoxin mediated shock T d) TolFlike receptors are mainly the component of adaptive arm of immunity e) Tolklike receptor-4 Inhibit the production of (TNF) tumor necrosis factor Q.No.8. Your patient Is a 21 years old woman who suffers urinary tract Infection (UTI). If gram staining of urine reveals gram +ve cocci, which of the following sets of organisms can be most likely cause: a) Staphylococcus Saprophyticus & Enterococcus faecalis T 'b) Enterococcus faecalis & Streptococcus agalactiae ¢) Streptococcus agalactiae & Staphylococcus epidermidis d) Staphylococcus epidermidis & Staphylococcus Saprophyticus @) Streptococcus pyogenes & Streptococcus agalactiae QNo.9. Antimicrobial therapy can decrease the amount of susceptible bowel flora and allow proliferation of relatively resistant colonic bacteria. Which one of the following species can proliferate and produce a toxin that causes diarrhe: a) Enterococcus species b) Staphylococcus epidermidis c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Clostridium difficile T e) Bacteroides fragilis Q.No.10. Which of the following Is most likely accurate statement regarding helper T- cells: a) Th-1 cells does not activate cytotoxic T-cells b) Th-1 cells activate the macrophages via gamma interferon ¢) Th-2 cells stimulated by IL-12 @) Th-1 cells responsible primarily for enhancement of antibody production T e) Th-t cells stimulated by IL-4 Q.No. 44. The pathogenesis of which one of the following Streptococcal diseases does not involv exotoxin: a) Scarlet fever b) Toxic shock syndrome ¢) Impetigo T d) Scalded skin syndrome @) Food poisoning Q.No.12, A 40-year-old diabetic man has a 4 cm nonhealing foot ulcer. Culture of the tulcer yields Staphylococcus aureus, Bacteroides fragilis, and =, grat negative bacillus that swarms across the blood agar plate covering the negativ® face of the agar after Incubation. The gram-negative bacillus 's @ member of the genus: a) Escherichia b) Enterobacter c) Serratia d) Salmonella e) Proteus Tlis can present antigen to helper | -ce! arosy except one: th poor cellular immunity T nts with lepromatous leprosy than tuberculoid leprosy. rosy gar T lowing Is the most accurate: ite in larger amounts than IgM Jes on the CH-2 domain of heavy chain T on the surface of neutrophils ls most appropriate test that distinguishes Streptococcus agalactlaels: od, oxidase-positive, catalase-positive, motile le, and is a strong producer of urease is: sropriate for NK cells functions: ent on foreign antigen presentation by class-| or Il ccal toxic shock syndrome Is:Q.No.21. Movement of List teria ms a) Peowdopoda formation jonocytogenes Inside of host cells Is caused by: b) The motion of listeriae flagella 3 The formation of pili on the listeriae surface ) Inducing host cell actin polymerization (actin rockets) e) Tumbling motility a Q.No.22. Predisposition to develo} Prodieporticom retore to!” localized hypersensitivity reaction to varlety of a) Energy b) Tolerance c) Anaphylaxis d) Atopy T fe) Autoimmunity Q.No.23. Infections commonly caused clostridium following except: _ bid jum perfringens Include all of the a) Food poisoning b) Bacteremia c) Lumpy jaw T d) Gas gangrene e) Necrotizing fasciitis Q.No.24. Achild acquiring @ herpes virus Infection may develop a latent Infection due to lack of which of the following factors: a) Antigenic variation b) Virus localization to Craniospinal ganglia c) immunosuppressive therapy d) Infection of immune cells @) Activated T cells T following disease, which one Is most of the 9 hl Out delayed hypersensitivity rei a) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia b) Hemo! disease of the c) Serum sickness t a) Toxic epidermal necrolysis ikely to be caused by Q.No.25.Q.No.27. Which of the following is an example of Type-ll hypersensitivity reaction: a) Atopic dermatitis b) Good pasture’s syndrome T c) Rheumatoid arthritis d) Contact dermatitis e) Serum sickness Q.No.28. Regarding the pathogenesis of autoimmune disease, which one of the following Is most accurate: a) In good pasture’s syndrome, antibodies are formed against the synovial membrane of joints b) In autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the red cells are destroyed by TNF produced by activated macrophages c) In celiac disease antibody is formed against myelin protein d) In Reiter's syndrome, neuropathy occur following respiratory tract infections e) In Guillain Barre syndrome, acute paralysis occur following diarrhea caused by campylobacter jejuni T Q.No.29. Regarding X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia, which one of the following is most accurate: a) Normal production of IgA and IgM but reduced levels of IgG b) The of B-cells are normal, but cannot differentiate into plasma cells c) There is a mutation in the gene for tyrosine kinase T d) Fungal infections are more common than pyogenic bacterial infections e) Most commonly affect the female Q.No.30. Regarding the graft versus host reaction, which one of the following Is the most accurate: a) It occurs primarily when a kidney is transplanted b) Itis caused primarily by mature T-cells in the graft c) Itoccurs primarily when ABO groups are matched d) It occurs when the donor is immune compromised e) Itoccurs when the haplotype of the donor and recipient are matched TWRITE ANY FOUR SHORT NOTES. TWO FRO! E w IM EACH SECTION 1. A 25 years old lady presented with lain of ont pal se complain of butterfly rash on face, Joint pain and ulceration on finger tips. Urine analysis shows cca ate What is the most likely diagnosis and what is the type of hypersensitivity reaction is this case. Give the examples of Type-II hypersensitivity reaction. Briefly describe the delayed type of hypersensitivity with examples. 2. A 40 years old women presented with complain of severe pain in small joints of the hands and feet. On Investigation RA factor was positive in serum. What are the predisposing factors for autoimmune disease. Give the examples of organ specific autoimmune disease. ‘What is the tolerance and give their mechanism. 3. A 15 year old boy developed migratory polyarthritis with fever. On auscultation a loud heart murmur Is audible. On enquiry there Is history of sore throat about two months back. What is diagnosis and name causative organism. What are virulence factors of causative organism. Describe the lesions/diseases caused by this organism. Section-Il MARKS 20 i. i. ii. iii, 1. A 27 years old male came with history of epigastric pain. On endoscopy he is diagnosed as a case of peptic ulcer and grams staining of blopsy material shows Gram -ve curved rods. Name the most common gram-ve rod that can cause peptic ulceration. What are the morphological and biochemical characteristics of that organism. Describe the pathogenesis of that bacteria. 2. A patient has not maintained good dentition presents with induration and swelling of the mandibular area. Purulent material along with Sulphur granules are seen in the sinus tract formed within skin lesion. A Gram stain of pus reveals gram-positive filamentous rods. The rod did not appear red In the acid-fast stain. Name the causative organism. Write down the clinical findings of disease caused by this organism. What is drug of choice for treatment of infection caused by this organism. 3. A student Is brought to the emergency department complaining of double vision i ii. iii. and difficulty talking. Last night he ate canned green beans. On examination, there Is symmetrical descending paralysis (flaccid paralysis). Which organism is responsible for this condition. What foods are involved in the transmission of disease. What is botulism? NOTE: SHORT ESSAY COMPULSORY SHOULD BE WRITTEN.2"? INTERNAL EVALUATION TEST 2018 SUBJECT: GENERAL PATHOLOY & MICROBIOLOGY Q.No.1, A young man suffers major soft tissue injur ry and open fractures of his right leg after a motorcycle accident. On examination the leg is swollen Crepe SS en hen Serous fluid discharging from the wounds. 8 can in the leg. Which of the foll. the most likely cause of this infection: ae a) Clostridium tetani b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Escherichia coli d) Bacillus anthracis @) Clostridium perfringens T Q.No.2, Tetanus toxin (tetanospasmin) diffuses to terminals of inhibitory cells in the spinal cord and brain stem and blocks which of the following: a) Release of acetylcholine b) Cleavage of SNARE proteins ©) Release of inhibitory glycine T ) Release of protective antigen @) Activation of acetylcholine esterases Q.No.3. Spiral shaped gram-negative rod, oxidase-positive, catalase-positive, motile with multiple flagella at one pole, and is a strong producer of urease is: a) Helicobacter pylori T b) Campylobacter fetus ¢) Proteus mirabilis d) Salmonella @) Enterobacter Q.No.4. Movement of Listeria monocytogenes inside of host cells is caused by: a) Pseudopoda formation b) The motion of listeriae flagella _ c) The formation of pili on the listeriae | surface d) Inducing host cell actin polymerization (actin rockets) e) Tumbling motility Infections commonly caused by clostridium perfringens include all of the following except: a) Food poisoning b) Bacteremia c) Lumpyjaw T d) Gas gangrene _ e) Necrotizing fasciitis Q.No.6. Food items most frequently associated with infant botulism is: a) Liquid multivitamins b) Com flex c) Honey T d) Milk e) Porridge T Q.No.5.a) Alpha hemolysins b) Urease ©) K1 antigen d) Pili = T ) Exotoxin Q.No.8, Encl boa are long chain forming bacteria that resembles in structure a) Anglosperm b) Sporozoites c) Parasites d) Hyphae of fungi = T @) Merozoites Q.No.9. A 32 years female complained of itching rash on her abdomen. On examination red circular lesion with vesiculated border are seen suspecting tineacorporis. The most appropriate lal ; potawe Take dlaanoals ie: prep oe a jum hydroxide mount of skin scraping T b) Gelmsa’s stain for skin scraping ¢) Fluorescent antibody stain of vesicle fluid d) Risk in antibody titer against organism ©) Zieh Nelson staining of skin scarping Q.No.10. Coccidiodesimmitis can exists as molds in soll and spherule In tissues hence termed as: a) Diploid b) Diplococcus ¢) Dimorphic T d) Polymorphic @) Dematiceous Q.No. 14. Hemophilia is more common in male because: a) Recessive trait carried by Y chromosome b) Dominant trait carried by Y chromosome c) Recessive trait carried by X chromosome T d) Dominant trait carried by X chromosome @) Itis a inherited error of metabolism Q.No.12, Identify a mendalian disorder from the following: a) Down syndrome b) Kline filter syndrome ©) Tuners syndrome d) Phenylketonuria T ©) Patau's syndrome A point mutation that changes a codon specifying an aminoacid into a stop codon Is called: a) Missense mutation b) None sense mutation T ¢) Frame shift mutation d) Deletion e) Insertion Q. No. 13.urethritis: reaplasmaurealyticum jamydia trachomatis lamydiaPneumoniae T ycoplasma hominis ycoplasmagenitalium Salmonella is easily recognized in the laboratory for its ability to produce on TSI medium: dole ease xidase trate HS T Nonmotile, gram-negative rod, isolated from a patient's stool culture is responsible for diarrhea. The probable diagnosis Is: iphoid fever nolera aphylococcal food poisoning iigellosis T ampylobacter jejuniQ.No. d) e) Q. No. 20. An elderly alcoholic male develops Severs ee Peale ; reaie aren gram Lari rods “producing lactose maccot mucold. The most likely organism Is: nkey's agar that sre prominenty Klebsiellapneumoniae T Serratiamarcessence Yersinia pseudotuberculosis Pseudomonas aeruginosa Campylobacter fetus . 21. Which of the following term refer to a benign tu Mesothelioma Haemangioma Meningioma Benign fibrous tumor Lymphangioma mor of brain coverings: . 22. Grading of tumor Is based on which of the following statement: Size of primary tumor Spread of cancer cells to regional lymph nodes | Degree of differentiation of tumor cells, anaplasia and no. of mitosis: ular invasion by tumor cells Presence of blood borne metastasis . 23. A malignant epithelial cell neoplasm derived from more than one germ layer is referred to as: Sarcoma Carcinoma mature Mixed cell tumor Adenoma All of the following are the morphological romati a ism a and hyperchromaus ures T | features Of anaplasia except: . 24.Q.No. 26. Cancer Is often the result of activation of to oO of genet —— 4nd the inactivation a) Oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes, Proto-o1 b) Proto-oncogenes, oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes T ¢) Oncogenes, proto-oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes d) Proto-suppressor genes, suppressors, oncogenes: ) Tumor-suppressor genes, oncogenes, proto-oncogenes. Q.No. 27. Among the following chemical carcinogens, which one most likely causes hepatic anglosarcoma: a) Aniline dyes b) Vinyl chloride T c) Nirosamine d) Diethystillbestro! e) Cyclophosphamide Q.No. 28. Regarding experiments demonstrations like initiation & promotion phases of carcinogenesis in mice, which one model result tumor formation: a) Application of only initiator b) Application of initiator then promoter at a long time intervals c) Application of promoters only d) Application of initiator then promoter at regular time interval T @) Application of promoter at regular time interval then initiator Q.No. 29. RB gene is not mutated In which of the following tumor: a) Osteosarcoma b) Retinoblastoma ¢) Carcinoma of breast d) Renal cell carcinoma T e) Adenocarcinoma lung Q.No. 30. In paraneoplastic syndrome which one of the following is most common endocrinopathy: a) Hypoglycemia due to insulin like substance b) Polycythemia due to release of erythropoietin ¢) Cushing syndrome due to release ‘of ACTH like substances T d) Hypercalcemia due to release of (PTHRP, TGF a, TINF, IL-1) e) Syndrome of inappropriate ADHINDUS MEDICAL COLLEGE TMK 6™ SEMESTER, 3" YEAR MBBS 28? INTERNAL EVALUATION TEST 2018 SUBJECT: GENERAL PATHOLOGY & MICROBIOLOGY Total Marks: 100 Time Allowed: 1 Hours Dated: 17.10.2018 BCQ 50 Short Essay 100 Marks Name: Roll No: NB -Each stem has five options - Failure to respond correct answer shall get zero mark - Tick one best answer. Q.1. The Tzanck test, which aids in the diagnosis of Herpes simplex infection, Is search for: a) Antibody to herpes simplex 1 or 2. b) intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies. ©) Vius shedding from pustular lesions. d) Muttinucleate giant cells. T e) Detection of viral DNA. Q.2. How are Human papilloma virus type-4 warts spread? a) Animal bite. b) Fecal-oral. c) Fomite spread. T d) Respiratory droplet spread. e) Sexual contact. Q.3. What Is the most common lab testing method for diagnosing Infectious mononucleosis? a) A simple procedure is done to isolate Epstein barr virus (EBV) from saliva, blood or lymphoid tissue. 'b) The Monospot test to detect EBV-specific Antibody. c) An assay for Epstein barr—nuclear antigen. d) The presence of atypical lymphocytes in the blood establishes the etiology. e) A test for heterophile antibody, which cross reacts with antigens found on a variety of animal RBCs. T Q.4. Mode of transmission of Rotaviruses Is: a) Sexual. b) Blood. ©) Fecaloral. T d) Droplet nuclei. e) Trans-placental. AR A 2Rusere nit famale nrasantad with an uirarated carvical lesions On asking ehe cavea) Adenovirus. b) Epstein-Barr virus. ¢) Herpes simplex virus. d) Lentivirus. e) Rhinovirus. T Q.7. Mycobacterium leprae grows best at which temperature? 2) 28-30°C b) 30-32°C ©) 32346 T d) 34-36°C e) 37-38C Q.8. Which of the following Is a defective RNA virus? a) HIV b) Dane particle c) HAV ) Polio virus €) Delta virus T Q.9. Which of the following serological marker can be used to detect HI a) HBV antibody b) Viral RNA ©) HBV specific antigen 4d) HBV surface antigen T e) HBV e antigen Q.10, Enteric transmission is common to all except: a) Polio virus b) HBA virus c) EBC ¢) Rota virus e) Human T cell leukemia virus T Q.11. Which of the following most likely cause Burkitt Lymphoma? a) Polio virus b) HAV oc) EBV T d) Rota virus e) Human T cell leukemia virus Q.12. Which of the following is oncovirus? a) Polio virus b) HBA virus ©) HCV T d) Rota virus e) Influenza viruslaboratory features resembling haemorrmagic fever SUCH aS lOUKOCYLOSIS, atypical LY MpPHlowy ess thrombocytopenia, coagulopathy and decreased serum protein concentration. a) Hantavirus. T b) Ebola virus. c) Dengu fever virus. d) Yellow fever virus. e) Alphavirus. Q.15. Hepatitis A virus is most likely related genetically to which one of the following viruses? a) Influenza. b) Measles. c) Rubella virus. d) Hepatitis B. e) Poliovirus. T Q.16. TORCH group of organisms do not include a) Toxoplasma gondii b) Treponema pallidum T c) Rubella virus d) CMV e) Herpes virus 47 A KN veare ald waman hae a aradial aneat of haadacheae that have hacame eaveraQ.19. Which of the following Is the commonest clinical sequel in case of polio virus Infection: 0.20, Oncogenic virusee do not utilize one of the following mechanisms for malignant transfor mation: 8) Expression of oncogene b) Loss of p53 gene ¢) Reduced expression of proto-oncogene T ‘d) Mutation of proto-oncogene ‘e) Unrestrained cell divisions Q.21. Which one of the following Is an example of defective RNA virus: a) HIV b) Dane particle ) HAV d) Polio virus ©) Delta virus T Q.22, Multinucleated glant cell formation does not occur In: a) Cytomegalovirus b) Herpes-simplex virus 1 ¢) Epstein-barr virus T ) Herpes-simplex virus 2 ¢) Varicella-zoster virus Q.23. Which of the following pair does not correctly match he tumor with its causative agent: a) Anogenital Carcinoma - HPV (Type 16 & 18) b) Burkitt lymphoma - EBV(Epstein barr virus) c) Hepatocellular carcinoma — Hepatitis A Virus T d) MALT Lymphoma - Helicobacter Pylori e) Squamous cell carcinoma of skin — Ultraviolets Rays Q.24, Regarding X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia, which one of the following is most accurate: a) Normal production of IgA and IgM but reduced levels of IgG b) The of B-cells are normal, but cannot differentiate into plasma cells ¢) There is a mutation in the gene for tyrosine kinase T ) Fungal infections are more common than pyogenic bacterial infections @) Most commonly affect the female 2.25, Regarding the grat versus host reaction, which one of the following Is the most ul i ‘a) It occurs primarily when a kidney is transplanted b) tis caused primarily by mature T-cells in the graft ) It occurs primarily when ABO groups are matched d) It occurs when the donor is immune compromised @) It occurs when the haplotype of the donor and recipient are matched T/a.28. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding difference blw Meningococe! and Gonococcl: — 1a) Meningococc! are oxidase +ve while gonococc! are oxidase —ve ®) Meningococe have lipid A while gonococe! do net have ‘e) Meningococci synthesize IgA protease but gonococci do not d) Meningococe! possess thick polysaccharide capsule but gonococci have no polysaccharide capsule T «@) Meningococel grow best on chocolate agar but gonococc! do not grow on it Q.27. A husband and wife developed diarrhea and vomiting 5 hours after eating at a restaurant. Enquiry revealed that meal Included rice that was reheated. Which one of the following organisms Is most likely: 8) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli b) Clostridium perfringens ¢) Salmonella typhi d) Bacillus cereus T @) Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli Q.28. Which one of the following organisms that infects the GIT Is the most frequent cause of bacteremia: a) Salmonella typhi T b) Shigellaflexneri ‘¢) Vibrio cholera ) Campylobacter jejuni ) Helicobacter pylori Q.29. Which one of the following Is not an important characteristic of either Neisseria meningitidis or Nelsseria gonorrheae: a) Pil b) Oxidase positive ©) IgA protease d) Polysacharide capsule @) Mprotein T Q.30. Regarding Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), which one of the following ‘statements Is Inappropriate: @) Characterized by Anemia, thrombocytopenia & Renal failure b) Itis rarely associated with hemorrhagic colitis T ¢) HUS is more common in children especially when treated with antibiotic d) 0157 H7 Is responsible for HUS ©) Infection may be transmitted by food Q.31. Which one of the following does not occur In botulism: 8) Diplopia b) Dysphagia ¢) Descending paralysis d) Diarrhea T @) Dysarthria