Yct Neet Biology Vol-2

INDEX
BIOLOGY Volume-II
Unit-I : Human Physiology ♦ Central Neural System and its Function .............. 207
Breathing and Respiration ................................ 19-47 ♦ Reflex Action and Arc ......................................... 232
♦ Know About Respiration and its Organs................19 ♦ Sensory Reception and processing....................... 235
♦ Human Respiratory Structure .................................21 ♦ Eye and Ear .......................................................... 238
♦ Breathing Mechanism ............................................25 Chemical Coordination and Integration .......258-316
♦ Respiratory Volume and Capacities .......................30 ♦ Endocrine Gland and Hormones .......................... 258
♦ Respiratory Quotient ..............................................34 ♦ Hypothalamus ...................................................... 270
♦ Transport and Exchange of Gases ..........................37 ♦ Pituitary Gland ..................................................... 273
♦ Regulation of Respiration ......................................44
♦ Pineal Gland......................................................... 279
♦ Respiratory's Disorder ............................................46
♦ Thyroid Gland ...................................................... 280
Body fluids and circulation ............................. 48-104
♦ Parathyroid and Thymus ...................................... 285
♦ The Blood and its Composition..............................48
♦ Adrenal Gland and Pancreas ................................ 290
♦ Types of Blood Group............................................64
♦ RH-Grouping and Blood Coagulation....................69 ♦ Testes and Ovary ................................................. 303
♦ Tissue Fluid (Lymph).............................................73 ♦ Hormones of Heart, Kidney and Gastrointestinal
♦ Circulatory Pathway ...............................................75 Tract ..................................................................... 310
♦ Human Circulatory System ....................................79 ♦ Mechanism of Hormone Action........................... 315
♦ Cardic Cycle and ECG ...........................................89 Unit-II : Reproduction
♦ Double Circulation .................................................97
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants ...317-364
♦ Regulation of Cardiac Activity ............................100
♦ A flower-Fascinating Organ of Angiosperms ...... 317
♦ Disorders of Circulatory System ..........................101
Excretory Products and Their Elimination .... 105-134 ♦ Microsporangium and Pollen Grain ..................... 318
♦ Excretory Substance and Their Process ...............105 ♦ Megasporangium (ovule) and Embryo Sac .......... 326
♦ Human Excretory System and its Structure .........113 ♦ Pollination and its kinds ....................................... 338
♦ Formation of Urine and Function of Tubules .......119 ♦ Post-pollination : Structures and Events .............. 349
♦ Process of Concentration of Filtrate .....................125 ♦ Seed and Parthenocarpic Fruit ............................. 356
♦ Role of Kidney Function ......................................128 ♦ Polyembryony and Apomixis .............................. 360
♦ Role of other Organs in Excretion and Micturition ....131 Human Reproduction .....................................365-434
♦ Disorders of the Excretory System.......................133 ♦ The Male Reproductive System ........................... 365
Locomotion and Movement ........................... 135-178 ♦ The Female Reproductive System ....................... 378
♦ Types of Movement and Locomotion ..................135 ♦ Gametogenesis ..................................................... 391
♦ The Muscles and Types ........................................136 ♦ Menstrual Cycle ................................................... 409
♦ Structure of Muscle and its Protein ......................140 ♦ Fertilisation and Implantation .............................. 416
♦ Mechanism of Muscle Contraction ......................145
♦ Pregnancy and Embryonic Development ............. 421
♦ Skeletal System ....................................................150
♦ Parturition and Lactation Process ........................ 432
♦ Joints and its Types ..............................................166
Reproductive Health .......................................435-457
♦ Disorders of Muscular and Skeletal System.........172
♦ Reproductive Health-Difficulty and Strategies .... 435
Neural Control and Coordination ................ 179-257
♦ Neural System ......................................................179 ♦ Population Explosion ........................................... 436
♦ Neural System of Human .....................................181 ♦ Methods of Birth Control ..................................... 437
♦ Functional Unit of Neural System: Neuron ..........191 ♦ Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)................ 446
♦ Generation, Conduction and Transmission of ♦ Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP).......... 450
Impulse .................................................................195 ♦ Infertility and Test Tube Baby Programme ......... 453
2
UNIT-III : Genetics and Evolution Microbes in Human Welfare .........................724-747
Principle of Inheritance and Variation ................ 458-526 ♦ Microbes as in Household Products ..................... 724
♦ Laws of Inheritance by Mendel............................458 ♦ Microbes as in Industrial Products ....................... 725
♦ Inheritance of One Gene ......................................469 ♦ Microbes as Antibiotics ....................................... 729
1. Law of Dominance ...........................................475 ♦ Microbes as Chemicals, Enzymes and
other Bioactive Molecules ................................ 731
2. Law of Segregation...........................................477
♦ Microbes Play a Role in Sewage Treatment ........ 735
♦ Inheritance of Two Gene ......................................479
♦ Microbes in Production of Biogas ....................... 737
1. Law of Independent Assortment.......................483
♦ Microbes Work as Biocontrol Agents.................. 739
♦ Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance ...................484
♦ Microbes Work as a Biofertilizer ......................... 743
♦ Linkage and Recombination ................................487
♦ Sex Determination................................................493 Unit-V : Biotechnology
♦ Theory of Mutation ..............................................502 Biotechnology : Principles and Processes .....748-768
♦ Genetic Disorders.................................................507 ♦ What is Biotechnology......................................... 747
1. Chromosomal Disorders ...................................525 ♦ Principles of Biotechnology................................. 749
Molecular Basis of Inheritance and ♦ Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology ............ 753
Variation ......................................................... 527-604 ♦ Method of Recombinant DNA Technology ......... 762
♦ The DNA..............................................................527 Biotechnology and its Applications ...............769-788
♦ Searching of Genetic Material .............................545 ♦ Role of Biotechnological Application in
♦ Qualities and Function of Genetic Material (DNA)...550 Agriculture ........................................................... 769
♦ The RNA ..............................................................557 ♦ Role of Biotechnological Applications in
♦ Replication & Transcription .................................564 Medicines .............................................................. 777
♦ Gene Therapy and Molecular Diagnosis .............. 782
♦ Genetic Code and Translation ..............................584
♦ Transgenic Animals ............................................. 785
♦ DNA Fingerprinting and Human Genome Project ....593
♦ Biopiracy and Ethical Issues ................................ 787
♦ Regulation of Gene Expression ............................600
♦ The Lac Operon ...................................................602 Unit-VI : Ecology
Evolution......................................................... 605-667 Organisms and Populations ...........................789-819
♦ The Origin of Life ................................................605 ♦ Ecology ................................................................ 789
♦ Evidences for Evolution .......................................616 ♦ Organism and its Environment ............................ 794
♦ Adaptive Radiation ..............................................637 ♦ Factors of Environment ....................................... 798
♦ Hardy Winberg Principle .....................................643 ♦ Adaptations .......................................................... 800
♦ Brief Account of Evolution ..................................649 ♦ Populations and its Attributes .............................. 805
♦ Origin and Evolution of MAN .............................657 ♦ Population Interactions ........................................ 812
♦ Biological Evolution ............................................664 Ecosystem ........................................................820-849
♦ Ecosystem and its structure.................................. 820
Unit-IV : Biology in Human Welfare
♦ Productivity ......................................................... 825
Human Health and Disease ........................... 668-723 ♦ Decomposition and Flow of Energy .................... 827
♦ The Diseases ........................................................668 ♦ Pyramids of Ecology............................................ 835
♦ In Humans-Common Diseases .............................674 ♦ Ecological Succession.......................................... 840
♦ Immunity and its Types........................................694 ♦ Cycling of Nutrient in Ecosystem ........................ 844
♦ Vaccination and Immunisation ............................703 ♦ Services of Ecosystem ......................................... 849
♦ Immune System ...................................................705 Biodiversity and Conservation ......................850-864
♦ AIDS ....................................................................708 ♦ The Term Biodiversity ......................................... 850
♦ CANCER .............................................................710 ♦ Patterns of Biodiversity ....................................... 851
♦ Drugs and their Effect ..........................................715 ♦ Biodiversity Losses .............................................. 855
♦ Alcohol Abuse and its Effect ...............................722 ♦ Conservation of Biodiversity ............................... 857
♦ How to Prevent and Control .................................723 ♦ In Situ Conservation and Ex Situ Conservation ... 860
3
NEET Exam Pattern & Syllabus
As per the NEET exam pattern, the questions in the NEET Exam Sections and Total Marks
medical entrance examination will be divided into two Section-
Number of
sections: Section A and B. Section A will contain 35 Subjects Sections wise
Questions
Marks
questions while Section B will have 15 questions. Of
Section A 35 140
these 15 questions in Section B, candidates will have to Physics
answer 10 questions. Section B 15 40
NTA will conduct the NEET exam in pen and paper- Section A 35 140
Chemistry
based mode for a 3 hours 20 minutes duration, where Section B 15 40
candidates must answer Multiple Choice Questions Section A 35 140
(MCQs) from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology subjects Botany
Section B 15 40
as per the given NEET syllabus. Aspirants seeking more Section A 35 140
information regarding the NEET exam pattern can check Zoology
Section B 15 40
the article below to know the level of the exam, types,
Total Marks 720
and the number of questions, marking schemes, and all
other relevant information.
BIOLOGY
Factors in Exam Pattern Details
Diversity in Living World
Pen and Paper-based.
Candidates will be
• UNIT 1: Diversity in Living World
Mode of NEET Question given an OMR sheet to • What is living?; Biodiversity;
Need for
Paper mark the answers with classification; Taxonomy & Systematics :
a black or blue Concept of species and taxonomical hierarchy;
ballpoint pen Binomial nomenclature;
Duration of the NEET exam 3 hours and 20 minutes • Five kingdom classification; Salient features and
English, Hindi, classification of Monera; Protista and Fungi into
Assamese, Bengali, major groups; Lichens; Viruses and Viroids.
Gujarati, Marathi, • Salient features and classification of plants into major
Language/Medium
Tamil, Telugu, Oriya, groups-Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes,
Malayalam, Kannada, Gymnosperms (three to five salient and
Punjabi and Urdu distinguishing features and at least two examples of
Multiple Choice each category);
Question Type
Questions (MCQs) • Salient features and classification of animals-
A total of 200 nonchordate up to phyla level and chordate up to
questions will be asked classes level (three to five salient features and at least
Total Number of Questions out of which two examples).
candidates will have to UNIT 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and
answer 180 questions Plants
Total marks in NEET 720 Marks

• Morphology and modifications; Tissues; Anatomy
and functions of different parts of flowering plants:
4 marks will be
Root, stem, leaf, inflorescence-cymose and racemose,
awarded for each
NEET 2023 Marking Flower, fruit and seed (To be dealt along with the
correct answer & 1
Scheme relevant practical of the Practical Syllabus) Family
mark will be deducted
(malvaceae, Cruciferae, leguminoceae, compositae,
for each wrong attempt
graminae).
4
• Animal tissues; Morphology, Anatomy and functions UNIT 5: Human Physiology
of different systems (digestive, circulatory, • Breathing and Respiration: Respiratory organs in
respiratory, nervous and reproductive) of an insect animals (recall only); Respiratory system in humans;
(Frog). (Brief account only) Mechanism of breathing and its regulation in
UNIT 3: Cell Structure and Function humans-Exchange of gases, Transport of gases and
regulation of respiration Respiratory volumes;
• Cell theory and cell as the basic unit of life; Structure Disorders related to respiration-Asthma, Emphysema,
of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell; Plant cell and Occupational respiratory disorders.
animal cell; Cell envelope, Cell membrane, cell wall;
Cell organelles-structure and function; • Body fluids and circulation: Composition of blood,
Endomembrane system-endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi Blood groups, Coagulation of blood; Composition of
lymph and its function; Human circulatory system-
bodies, Lysosomes, Vacuoles; Mitochondria,
Structure of human heart and blood vessels; Cardiac
Ribosomes, Plastids, Micro Bodies; Cytoskeleton,
cycle, cardiac output, ECG, Double circulation;
Cilia, Flagella, Centrioles (ultra structure and Regulation of cardiac activity; Disorders of
function); Nucleus-nuclear membrane, Chromatin, circulatory system-Hypertension, Coronary artery
nucleolus. disease, Angina pectoris, Heart failure.
• Chemical constituents of living cells: Biomolecules- • Excretory products and their elimination: Modes of
structure and function of proteins, Carbohydrates, excretion- Ammonotelism, ureotelism, uricotelism;
lipids, Nucleic acids; Enzymes-types, Properties, Human excretory system-structure and fuction; Urine
Enzyme action, Classification and nomenclature of formation, Osmoregulation; Regulation of kidney
enzymes function-Renin-angiotensin, Atrial Natriuretic Factor,
ADH and Diabetes insipidus; Role of other organs in
• B Cell division: Cell cycle, mitosis, meiosis and their excretion; Disorders; Uraemia, Renal failure, Renal
significance. calculi, Nephritis; Dialysis and artificial kidney.
UNIT 4: Plant Physiology
• Locomotion and Movement: Types of movement-
• Photosynthesis: Photosynthesis as a means of ciliary, flagellar, Muscular; Skeletal muscle-
Autotrophic nutrition; Site of photosynthesis take contractile proteins and muscle contraction; Skeletal
place; pigments involved in Photosynthesis system and its functions (To be dealt with the
(Elementary idea); Photochemical and biosynthetic relevant practical of Practical syllabus); Joints;
phases of photosynthesis; Cyclic and non cyclic and Disorders of muscular and skeletal system-
photophosphorylation; Chemiosmotic hypothesis; Myasthenia gravis, Tetany, Muscular dystrophy,
Photorespiration C3 and C4 pathways; Factors Arthritis, Osteoporosis, Gout.
affecting photosynthesis. • Neural control and coordination: Neuron and nerves;
Nervous system in humans central nervous system,
• Respiration: Exchange gases; Celular respiration-
peripheral nervous system and visceral nervous
glycolysis, Fermentation (anaerobic), TCA cycle and
system; Generation and conduction of nerve impulse;
electron transport system (aerobic); Energy relations-
Number of ATP molecules generated; Amphibolic • Chemical coordination and regulation: Endocrine
pathways; Respiratory quotient. glands and hormones; Human endocrine system-
Hypothalamus, Pituitary, Pineal, Thyroid,
• Plant growth and development: Seed germination; Parathyroid, Adrenal, Pancreas, Gonads; Mechanism
Phases of Plant growth and plant growth rate; of hormone action (Elementary Idea); Role of
Conditions of growth; Differentiation, hormones as messengers and regulators, Hypo-and
Dedifferentiation and redifferentiation; Sequence of hyperactivity and related disorders (Common
developmental process in a plant cell; Growth disorders e.g. Dwarfism, Acromegaly, Cretinism,
regulators-auxin, Gibberellin, Cytokinin, Ethylene, goiter, exopthalmic goiter, diabetes, Addison's
ABA; disease).
5
UNIT 6: Reproduction • Evolution: Origin of life; Biological evolution and
• Sexual reproduction in flowering plants: Flower evidences for biological evolution from paleontology,
structure; Development of male and female Comparative anatomy, Embryology and molecular
gametophytes; Pollination-types, Agencies and evidence; Darwin's contribution, Modern Synthetic
examples; Outbreeding devices; Pollen-Pistil theory of Evolution; Mechanism of evolution-
interaction; Double fertilization; Post fertilization Variation (Mutation and Recombination) and Natural
events-Development of endosperm and embryo, Selection with examples, Types of natural selection;
Development of seed and formation of fruit; Special Gene flow and genetic drift; Hardy-Weinberg's
modes-apomixis, Parthenocarpy, Polyembryony; principle; Adaptive Radiation; Human evolution.
Significance of seed and fruit formation. UNIT 8: Biology and Human Welfare
• Human Reproduction: Male and female reproductive • Health and Disease; Pathogens; Parasites causing
systems; Microscopic anatomy of testis and ovary; human diseases (Malaria, Filariasis, Ascariasis.
Gametogenesis-spermatogenesis & oogenesis; typhoid, Pneumonia, common cold, amoebiasis, ring
Pregnancy and placenta formation (Elementary idea); worm, dengue, chikungunya); Basic concepts of
Parturition (Elementary idea); Lactation (Elementary immunology-vaccines; Cancer, HIV and AIDS;
idea). Adolescence, Drug and alcohol abuse. Tobacco abuse
• Reproductive health: Need for reproductive health • Microbes in human welfare: In household food
and prevention of sexually transmitted diseases processing, Industrial production, Sewage treatment,
(STD); Birth control-Need and Methods, Energy generation and as biocontral agents and
Contraception and Medical Termination of Pregnancy biofertilizers.
(MTP); Amniocentesis; Infertility and assisted UNIT 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
reproductive technologies–IVF, ZIFT, GIFT
• Principles and process of Biotechnology: Genetic
(Elementary idea for general awareness).
engineering (Recombinant DNA technaology).
UNIT 7: Genetics and Evolution
• Application of Biotechnology in health and
• Heredity ad variation: Mendelian Inheritance; agriculture: Human insulin and vaccine production,
Deviations from Mendelism-Incomplete dominance,
Gene therapy; Genetically modified organisms-Bt
Co-dominance, Multiple alleles and Inheritance of crops; Transgenic Animals; Biosafety issues-
blood groups, Pleiotropy; Elementary idea of Biopiracy and patents.
polygenic inheritance; Chromosome theory of
UNIT 10: Ecology and Environment
inheritance; Chromosomes and genes; Sex
determination-In humans, birds, honey bee; Linkage • Organisms and environment Population interactions-
and crossing over; Sex linked inheritance- mutualism, Competition, Predation, Parasitism;
Haemophilia, Colour blindness; Mendelian disorders Population attributes-growth, Birth rate and death
in humans-Thalassemia; Chromosomal disorders in rate, Age distribution.
humans; Down's syndrome, Turner's and Klinefelter's • Ecosystem: Patterns, Components; Productivity and
syndromes.
decomposition; Energy flow; Pyramids of number,
• Molecular basis of Inheritance: Search for genetic Biomass, Energy
material and DNA as genetic material; Structure of • Biodiversity and its conservation: Concept of
DNA and RNA; DNA packaging; DNA replication;
Biodiversity; Patterns of Biodiversity; Importance of
Central dogma; Transcription, Genetic code, Biodiversity; Loss of Biodiversity; Biodiversity
Translation; Gene expression and regulation-Lac conservation; Hotspots, Endangered organisms,
Operon; Genome and human genome project; DNA Extinction, Red Data Book, biosphere reserves,
finger printing, protein biosynthesis. National parks and sanctuaries, Sacred Groves.
6
All India Medical Entrance Exam, NEET & AIIMS Biology
Previous Years Exam Papers Analysis Chart
S. Exam Proposed Year Question Paper Total Question
No
All India Pre Medical Test/National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test (AIPMT/NEET)
1. NEET (Re-Exam) 06.06.2023 100
2. NEET 07.05.2023 100
3. NEET (Re-Exam) 04.09.2022 100
4. NEET 17.07.2022 100
5. NEET 2021 90
6. NEET 2020 Phase-I 90
7. NEET 2020 Phase-II 90
8. NEET 05.05.2019 90
9. NEET (Odisha) 20.05.2019 90
10. NEET 2018 90
11. NEET 2017 90
12. NEET 2016 Phase-I 90
13. NEET 2016 Phase-II 90
14. AIPMT (Re-Exam) 2015 90
15. AIPMT 2015 90
16. NEET 2014 90
17. NEET 2013 90
18. NEET (Karnataka) 2013 90
19. AIPMT (Mains) 2012 100
20. AIPMT (Screening) 2012 100
21. AIPMT (Mains) 2011 100
23. AIPMT (Mains) 2010 100
25. AIPMT 2009 100
26. AIPMT 2008 100
27. AIPMT 2007 100
28. AIPMT 2006 100
29. AIPMT 2005 100
30. AIPMT 2004 100
31. AIPMT 2003 100
32. AIPMT 2002 100
33. AIPMT 2001 100
34. AIPMT 2000 100
35. AIPMT 1999 100
36. AIPMT 1998 100
37. AIPMT 1997 100
38. AIPMT 1996 100
39. AIPMT 1995 100
40. AIPMT 1994 100
41. AIPMT 1993 100
42. AIPMT 1992 100
43. AIPMT 1991 100
44. AIPMT 1990 100
45. AIPMT 1989 100
46. AIPMT 1988 100
All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS)
47. AIIMS 26.05.2019 Shift-I 60
48. AIIMS 26.05.2019 Shift-II 60
49. AIIMS 25.05.2019 Shift-I 60
50. AIIMS 25.05.2019 Shift-II 60
51. AIIMS 26.05.2018 Shift-I 60
52. AIIMS 26.05.2018 Shift-II 60
53. AIIMS 27.05.2018 Shift-I 60
54. AIIMS 27.05.2018 Shift-II 60
7
55. AIIMS 2017 60
56. AIIMS 2016 60
57. AIIMS 2015 60
58. AIIMS 2014 60
59. AIIMS 2013 60
60. AIIMS 2012 60
61. AIIMS 2011 60
62. AIIMS 2010 60
63. AIIMS 2009 60
64. AIIMS 2008 60
65. AIIMS 2007 60
66. AIIMS 2006 60
67. AIIMS 2005 60
68. AIIMS 2004 60
69. AIIMS 2003 60
70. AIIMS 2002 60
71. AIIMS 2001 60
72. AIIMS 2000 60
73. AIIMS 1999 60
74. AIIMS 1998 60
75. AIIMS 1997 60
76. AIIMS 1996 60
77. AIIMS 1995 60
78. AIIMS 1994 60
Assam Combined Entrance Examination (CEE)
79. ASSAM-CEE 2014 40
Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Medical Common Entrance Test (AP EAMCET)
80. AP EAPCET Medical 22.05.2023 Shift-I 80
81. AP EAPCET Medical 22.05.2023 Shift-II 80
82. AP EAPCET Medical 23.05.2023 Shift-I 80
83. AP EAPCET Medical 23.05.2023 Shift-II 80
84. AP EAMCET Medical 11.07.2022 Shift-I 80
85. AP EAMCET Medical 11.07.2022 Shift-II 80
105. AP EAMCET Medical 2016 80
8
Aligarh Muslim University
125. AMU Medical 2015 100
Armed Forces Medical College
145. AFMC 2011 50
146. AFMC 2010 50
147. AFMC 2009 50
148. AFMC 2008 50
149. AFMC 2007 50
150. AFMC 2006 50
151. AFMC 2005 50
152. AFMC 2004 50
153. AFMC 2003 50
154. AFMC 2002 50
155. AFMC 2001 50
156. AFMC 2000 50
BCECE Medical
157. BCECE Medical 2016 50
Bharati Vidyapeeth Deemed University Medical College
173. BVP Medical 2015 100
9
Banaras Hindu University PMT
189. BHU PMT (Screening) 2011 50
190. BHU PMT (Mains) 2011 50
192. BHU PMT (Mains) 2010 50
194. BHU PMT (Mains) 2009 50
196. BHU PMT (Mains) 2008 50
198. BHU PMT (Mains) 2007 50
200. BHU PMT (Mains) 2006 50
202. BHU PMT (Mains) 2005 50
203. BHU PMT 2004 100
204. BHU PMT 2003 100
205. BHU PMT 2002 100
206. BHU PMT 2001 100
CMC-Medical Vellore/Ludhiana
207. CMC-Medical Vellore 2015 50
208. CMC-Medical Ludhiana 2015 50
Chhattisgarh PMT
225. CG PMT 2011 100
226. CG PMT 2010 100
227. CG PMT 2009 100
228. CG PMT 2008 100
229. CG PMT 2007 100
230. CG PMT 2006 100
231. CG PMT 2005 100
232. CG PMT 2004 100
Delhi University Medical-Dental Entrance Test
233. DUMET Medical 2011 100
10
Gujarat Common Entrance Test (GUJCET)
244. GUJCET 2023 40
245. GUJCET 2022 40
246. GUJCET 2021 40
247. GUJCET 2020 40
248. GUJCET 2019 40
249. GUJCET 2018 40
250. GUJCET 2017 40
251. GUJCET 2016 40
252. GUJCET 2015 40
253. GUJCET 2014 40
254. GUJCET 2011 40
255. GUJCET 2010 40
256. GUJCET 2009 40
257. GUJCET 2008 40
258. GUJCET 2007 40
Haryana PMT
259. Haryana PMT 2011 90
Himachal Pradesh CET Medical
272. HP CET 2018 75
273. HP CET 2013 75
274. HP CET 2012 100
275. HP CET 2011 100
Jharkhand-JCECE Medical
276. Jharkhand-JCECE 2018 50
Jammu & Kashmir CET Medical
292. J&K CET Medical 2015 60
11
Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research (JIPMER)
308. JIPMER 2019 60
309. JIPMER 2018 60
310. JIPMER 2017 60
311. JIPMER 2016 60
312. JIPMER 2015 60
313. JIPMER 2014 60
314. JIPMER 2013 60
315. JIPMER 2012 60
316. JIPMER 2011 60
317. JIPMER 2010 60
318. JIPMER 2009 60
319. JIPMER 2008 60
320. JIPMER 2007 60
321. JIPMER 2006 60
322. JIPMER 2005 60
323. JIPMER 2004 60
324. JIPMER 2003 60
325. JIPMER 2002 60
326. JIPMER 2001 60
327. JIPMER 2000 60
328. JIPMER 1999 60
329. JIPMER 1998 60
330. JIPMER 1997 60
331. JIPMER 1996 60
332. JIPMER 1995 60
Kerala PMT
333. Kerala PMT 2015 100
334. Kerala PMT 2014 100
335. Kerala PMT 2013 100
336. Kerala PMT 2012 100
337. Kerala PMT 2011 100
338. Kerala PMT 2010 100
339. Kerala PMT 2009 100
340. Kerala PMT 2008 100
Karnataka CET Medical
341. Karnataka CET 20.05.2023 60
342. Karnataka CET 16.06.2022 60
343. Karnataka CET 29.08.2021 60
344. Karnataka CET 2020 60
12
Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana (KVPY)
365. KVPY (SA) 2022 20
366. KVPY (SA) 2021 20
367. KVPY (SA) 2020 20
368. KVPY (SA) 2019 20
369. KVPY (SX & SB) 2019 20
370. KVPY (SA) 2018 20
371. KVPY (SA) 05.11.2017 20
372. KVPY (SX & SB) 2017 20
373. KVPY (SA) 2016 20
374. KVPY (SX & SB) 2016 20
375. KVPY (SA) 2015 20
376. KVPY (SA) 2014 20
377. KVPY (SX & SB) 2014 20
378. KVPY (SA) 2013 20
379. KVPY (SX & SB) 2013 20
380. KVPY (SA) 2012 20
381. KVPY (SX & SB) 2012 20
382. KVPY (SA) 2011 20
383. KVPY (SA) 2010 20
Manipal Medical
384. Manipal Medical 2015 80
MHT CET Biology
400. MHT CET Biology 01.10.2020 Shift-I 100
406. MHT CET Biology 12.05.2019 100
407. MHT CET Biology 10.05.2018 100
408. MHT CET Biology 2017 100
13
Mahatma Gandhi Institute of Medical Sciences
422. MGIMS Wardha 2015 60
Madhya Pradesh Pre Medical Test (MPPMT)
435. MPPMT 2013 50
Punjab MET
436. Punjab MET 2011 200
437. Punjab MET 2010 200
438. Punjab MET 2009 200
439. Punjab MET 2008 100
440. Punjab MET 2007 100
441. Punjab MET 2006 100
442. Punjab MET 2005 100
443. Punjab MET 2004 100
444. Punjab MET 2003 100
445. Punjab MET 2001 100
446. Punjab MET 1999 100
Rajasthan PMT
447. Rajasthan PMT 2011 100
SRMJEEE
464. SRMJEEE 2019 50
465. SRMJEEE 2018 50
466. SRMJEEE 2017 50
Telangana State Engineering, Agriculture & Medical Common Entrance Test (TS EAMCET)
467. TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I 80
468. TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-II 80
469. TS EAMCET 11.05.2023 Shift-I 80
471. TS EAMCET 30.07.2022 Shift-I 80
473. TS EAMCET 31.07.2022 Shift-I 80
475. TS EAMCET 10.08.2021 Shift-I 80
476. TS EAMCET 09.08.2021 Shift-I 80
478. TS EAMCET 29.09.2020 Shift-I 80
480. TS EAMCET 28.09.2020 Shift-I 80
482. TS EAMCET 09.05.2019 Shift-I 80
14
483. TS EAMCET 08.05.2019 Shift-I 80
485. TS EAMCET 02.05.2018 Shift-I 80
487. TS EAMCET 03.05.2018 Shift-I 80
488. TS EAMCET 12.05.2017 80
489. TS EAMCET 2016 80
490. TS EAMCET 2015 80
Tripura JEE
491. Tripura JEE 2022 50
Uttarakhand PMT
496. Uttarakhand PMT 2011 100
Uttar Pradesh Combined Pre Medical Test (UPCPMT)
504. UPCPMT 2014 100
505. UPCPMT 2013 100
506. UPCPMT 2012 100
507. UPCPMT 2011 100
508. UPCPMT 2010 100
509. UPCPMT 2009 100
510. UPCPMT 2008 100
511. UPCPMT 2007 100
512. UPCPMT 2006 100
513. UPCPMT 2005 100
514. UPCPMT 2004 100
515. UPCPMT 2003 100
516. UPCPMT 2002 100
517. UPCPMT 2001 100
Vardhman Mahavir Medical College
518. VMMC Medical 2015 100
West Bengal JEE Medical
532. WB JEE Medical 2015 80
Total 42115
15
Topic wise Trend Analysis of NEET/AIPMT
Previous Question Papers
BIOLOGY
NEET 2016 Phase- II
NEET 2020 Phase-II

NEET 2016 Phase- I
Re NEET Manipur
NEET 2019 Odisha
AIPMT 2015 (Re)
Re NEET 2022
AIPMT 2014
AIPMT 2015
NEET 2013
NEET 2017
NEET 2018
NEET 2019
NEET 2020
NEET 2021
NEET 2022
NEET 2023
Topic
Principle of 16 12 13 16 15 15 18 17 21 22 20 20 28 25 22 21 24
inheritance,
Biotechnology,
Molecular basis of
inheritance,
Biomolecules,
Mutation
Microbes
(Genetics)
Ecology, 11 10 12 11 12 11 7 11 8 8 8 10 9 12 12 11 12
Demography
Plant Physiology 8 6 7 6 6 9 10 7 8 10 9 9 8 13 14 8 13
Plant Diversity 5 16 6 7 7 7 0 8 6 6 4 5 6 5 5 7 3
Cell, Cell division 6 6 9 8 9 6 4 5 7 5 6 7 9 7 6 8 8
Animal 5 5 5 5 6 6 4 5 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
Embryology and
Reproductive
System
Life History of 7 4 5 7 4 5 7 5 4 3 3 3 4 4 5 5 2
Angiosperm
(Reproduction in
Plants)
Plant 2 5 4 4 7 4 4 2 1 3 3 3 2 3 3 4 4
Morphology,
Modification,
Families
16
Immunity, 2 3 4 3 3 2 3 3 5 3 3 2 4 2 3 3 3
Disease,
Biomedical
Technique, Drug
Addiction, Mental
Health
Animal Diversity 5 3 4 3 3 2 3 4 2 2 4 4 4 2 2 2 5
Origin & 5 2 2 2 3 4 2 3 4 3 4 4 2 2 2 2 1
Evolution
Plant Anatomy / 3 2 2 1 0 2 3 4 3 2 2 2 3 3 3 4 3
Tissues
Endocrine System 3 3 1 2 2 4 3 2 2 3 3 2 1 2 4 1 5
Strategies for 1 1 2 3 2 3 2 0 1 2 1 1 3 1 3 4 1
enhancement in
food production
(Plant breeding +
Animal breeding)
Digestive System, 1 2 2 2 2 1 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 2 1
Vitamins,
Nutritional
Imbalance
Skeletal System & 3 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 2 2 1 1 3 2 2 1 1
Muscles
Animal 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Respiratory
System
Animal Tissues 0 3 2 1 1 1 2 0 1 1 4 1 1 3 3 2 0
Circulatory 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 1 2
System
Excretory System 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 0 1 1 2 1
Earthworm and 1 0 0 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2
Cockroach\Frog
Nervous System 1 1 2 1 0 0 2 2 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1
Receptors (Eye, 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 2 1
Ear, Nose)
Total 90 90 90 90 90 90 90 90 90 90 90 90 100 100 100 100 100
17
Trend Analysis of NEET Biology Questions Through
Pie Chart and Bar Graph
Biotechnology and its Organisms and Ecosystem, 178 Biodiversity and Human
Applications, 131 Populations, 206 Conservation, 108 Physiology, Body fluids and
217 circulation, 409
Biotechnology :
Principles
and Excretory
Processes, Products and
129 Their
Elimination,
Microbes in 253
Human Locomotion
Welfare, and
208 Movement ,
355
Human
Health Neural
and Control
Disease, 481 and
Coordination,
614
Chemical
Evolution, Coordination and
486 Integration, 436
Principle of Sexual Reproduction
Molecular Basis of Inheritance and Reproductive Human in Flowering
Inheritance and Variation, 507 Health, 160 Reproduction, 452 Plants, 358
Variation, 548
614
548
507 486 481
436 452
409
355 358
253
217 208 206
160 178
129 131 108
18
Unit-I : Human Physiology
01. BREATHING AND EXCHANGE
OF GASES
A. Know about respiration and Ans. (b) : Birds possess non-elastic lungs with elastic
air sacs. They do no have alveoli. Birds have 2
its organs symmetrical lungs that are connected to a trachea. The
lungs of birds are undirectionally ventilated.
1. The volume of air remaining in the lungs even 4. If you exhale multiple times into a conical flask
after forcible expiration is
containing lime water through a single inlet
(a) Residual volume
fixed through a stop cork, lime water will
(b) Tidal volume
(c) Functional residual capacity (a) become cooler (b) turn milky
(d) Total lung capacity (c) remain unchanged (d) turn yellow
TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-II KVPY SB & SX-2016
Ans. (a) : The residual volume is the volume of air that Ans. (b) : The turning of lime water into milky is a
remains in the lungs offer a maximum forceful standard test of CO2. When CO2 is passed through lime
expiration, It is about 1/3 of the total lung capacity. It water, CaCO3 is formed and make lime water milky:-
helps to keep the alveoli (small air sacs in the lungs) CO 2 + Ca ( OH )2  → CaCO3 + H 2 O
open at all times. This is important because the alveoli
are where gas exchange takes place. It is important for
maintaining the structure and function of the respiratory
system and preventing lung collapse.
2. Match the following:
List-I List-I
A Pharynx I Prevents entry of food
B Larynx II Tube up to mid thoracic cavity
C Trachea III Help in sound production
D Epiglottis IV Common passage for food
5. What is another name for the wind pipe?
and air (a) Trachea (b) Larynx
V Tube into the alveoli (c) Oesophagus (d) Lungs
The correct match is: JIPMER-2013
A B C D Ans. (a) : The other name of wind pipe is trachea. It is a
(a) IV V I II key part of respiratory system. Trachea are fibro
(b) III IV I II cartilaginous, non-collapsible tube that creates the
(c) III II V I beginning of the lower respiratory tract. It connects
(d) IV III II I larynx (voice box) and pharynx to the lungs.
TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-II 6. Food and air pathway are divided at
Ans. (d) : The Pharynx carries food and air to the (a) Pharynx (b) Larynx
esophagus and larynx respectively. It is the common (c) Oesophagus (d) Glottis
passage for foods and air.
SRM JEEE-2018
• The larynx : is a cylindrical grouping of cartilage VMMC-2010
muscles and soft tissue that contains the vocal cords.
Larynx helps in sound production. Ans. (a) : As it carries both food and air, the pharynx
• The Trachea : commonly known as the wind pipe, is can be considered as a part of the digestive system as
a tube about 4 inches long that connects the larynx well as the respiratory system. This pathway divides
(voice box) to the bronchi (the air ways that lead to into two, one for food called the Oesophagus, which
the lungs) leads to the stomach and the other for air. A small flap
• Epiglottis : is flap of cartilage located in the throat of tissue called epiglottis covers the air, only passage
behind the tongue and in front of the larynx, which when we swallow keeping food and liquid from going
prevents food from entering the larynx. into the lungs.
3. Which of the following animals possess non-elastic 7. Stretch receptors of bronchi send information
lungs with elastic air sacs connected to them? to inspiratory centre through
(a) Reptiles (b) Birds (a) Vagus nerve (b) Glossopharyngeal
(c) Amphibians (d) Mammals (c) Sympathetic nerve (d) Parasympathetic nerve
JIPMER-2015 VMMC-2015
Breathing and Exchange of Gases 19 YCT
Ans. (a) : Stretch receptors of bronchi send information Ans. (c) : Book lungs are respiratory organ of
to inspiratory centre through vagus nerve. It is Arachnida. Arachnida belong to the phylum arthropods.
responsible for the regulation of internal organ Book lungs connected with the outside through
functions. The vagus nerve is a critical nerve for spiracles or stigmata eg, crabs, spiders, mites etc. Each
supplying parasympathetic information to the visceral book lungs consists of a series of thin plates that are
organ of the respiratory system. highly vascular and look like the pages of a book.
8. Common feature of human and insect tracheae 13. The process of exchange of O2 from the atmosphere
is with CO2 produced by the cells is called
(a) Non–collapsible wall (b) Supporting rings (a) biological respiration
(c) Ectodermal origin (d) Endodermal origin (b) photosynthesis
VMMC-2015 (c) biological assimilation
Ans. (a) : Common feature of human and insect (d) gaseous exchange
tracheae is non-collapsible wall. In human trachea is J&K CET-2014
covered by incomplete cartilaginous rings but in insect
Ans. (d) : The process of exchange of O2 from the
trachea is made up of cuticle and cover the trachea in a
atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells is called
spiral manner. The tracheal cartilage help in support of
the trachea while still allowing it to move and flex gaseous exchange.
during breathing. In this process, the inhaled oxygen moves from the
alveoli to the blood in the capillaries, and CO2 moves
9. In rabbit, the two fibro-elastic strands of the from the blood in the capillaries to the air in the alveoli.
larynx extend between the
(a) Thyroid and arytenoid cartilages 14. Skin is an accessory organ of respiration in
(b) Thyroid and cricoid cartilages (a) Human (b) Frog
(c) Santorini and thyroid cartilages (c) Rabbit (d) Lizard
(d) Cricoid and tracheal cartilaginous rings CG PMT-2007
AP EAMCET-2008 Ans. (b) : Cutaneous respiration in frogs and other
amphibians may be the primary respiratory mode during
Ans. (a) : Two fibro-elastic strands known as vocal
colder temperature.
cords are extend between thyroid and arytenoids
cartilages. In frogs, respiration occurs in three ways-
Arytenoid are a group of muscles in the larynx that (i) Cutaneous respiration (through skin)
help to control the position of the arytenoid cartilages. (ii) Buccopharyngeal respiration (through buccal cavity)
The arytenoids cartilage are two small, triangular (ii) Pulmonary respiration (through lungs).
cartilage that sit on top of the cricoids cartilage. They 15. In human beings, lungs are divided into
are attached to the vocal cords by the vocal ligaments. (a) 3 right and 2 left lobes
10. Step of respiration are controlled by (b) 2 right and 3 left lobes
(a) Substrates (b) Enzymes (c) 2 right and 2 left lobes
(c) Hormone (d) Bile juice (d) None of these
VMMC-2007 MHT CET-2019
Ans. (b) : The steps of respiration are controlled by Manipal-2013
enzymes. Enzymes are proteins that act as catalysts, Ans. (a) : Lungs are play a role in respiration. In human
speeding up chemical reaction. In respiration, enzymes beings lungs are divided into right and left lobe. The
catalyze the breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H2O, right lung consists of 3 lobes: The right upper lobe, the
releasing energy in the process. right middle lobe and the right lower lobe. It takes O2
11. Which structure of man is similar to spiracle of from the surrounding and transfers it to the blood
cockroach? stream. It also removes CO2 from the body.
(a) Nostril (b) Bronchiole The left lung consists of 2 lobes, the left upper lobe and
(c) Lungs (d) Alveoli the left lower lobe.
Manipal-2010 16. When O2 is inadequate during respiration. The
Ans. (a) : Nostril of man is similar to spiracle of condition is called :
cockroach. In cockroach 10 pairs of spiracles are (a) Anoxia (b) Pleurisy
present. A spiracle is a small opening in the exoskeleton (c) Asphyxia (d) Hypoxia
of insect, some spiders as in velvet worms that allow air BVP-2000
to enter the trachea. Spiracles are a important part of the
respiratory system of insects. Ans. (d) : When O2 is inadequate during respiration.
Nostril act as a passage to passes enter the inhaled air The condition is called hypoxia. They are classified
and remove the moisture. into 4 type –
12. Book lungs are respiratory organs of i - Hypoxic hypoxia – PO2 of the arterial blood is low
(a) Mollusca (b) Mammals ii - Anemic hypoxia – Amount of Hb to carry O2 is low
(c) Arachnida (d) Earthworm iii - Stagnant hypoxia – Blood flow to the tissue is low
Haryana PMT-2011 iv - Histotoxic hypoxia – Tissue can't utilize O2
17. Match the following columns and select the 20. One of the following is not a respiratory pigment
correct option (a) Anthocyanin (b) Haemoglobin
Column-I Column-II (c) Haemoerythrin (d) Haemocyanin
(A) Floating ribs (i) Located Rajasthan PMT-2001
between second Ans. (a) : Anthocyanins is not a respiratory pigment. It
and seventh ribs is water soluble pigments present in plants mostly in
(B) Acromion (ii) Head of the fruits and vegetables. Anthocyanin used as antibacterial,
humerus anti-diabetic substances.
(C) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
(D) Glenoid (iv) Do not connect
B. Human respiratory structure
cavity with the 21. Adam’s apple is the mid ventral prominence
sternum (a) Arytenoids cartilage
(A) (B) (C) (D) (b) Cricoid cartilage
(a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (c) Corniculate cartilage
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (d) Thyroid cartilage
(c) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
(d) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) Ans. (d) : The Adam's apple, also known as the
NEET-2020 Phase-I laryngeal prominence, is a visible and palpable bulge in
the human neck. It is more prominent in males and is
Ans. (c) :
caused by the enlargement of the thyroid cartilage,
Column –I Column-II specially the thyroid cartilage, anterior shield-like
A Floating ribs Do not connect with the projection. This cartilage help in producing sound and
sternum larger in adult males, that’s why the Adam's apple is
B Acromion Clavicle typically more pronounced in men than in women.
C Scapula Located between second 22. Respiratory bronchioles terminate into
and seventh ribs (a) Tertiary bronchi (b) Alveolar sacs
D Glenoid cavity Head of the humerus (c) Alveolar ducts (d) Primary bronchi
AP EAMCET-12.07.2022 Shift-II
18. Given below are four matchings of an animal
0and its kind of respiratory organ: Ans. (c) : The respiratory bronchioles terminate into
(A) Silver fish – trachea alveolar ducts, which lead into the alveolar sacs and
alveoli. Alveoli are small sac like structure which
(B) Scorpion – book lung allows gas exchange in lungs.
(C) Sea squirt – pharyngeal gills
23. Cavity lodging lungs is ______ .
(D) Dolphin – skin
(a) Stomata (b) Abdomen
The correct matchings are: -
(c) Thorax (d) Chest
(a) A and D (b) A, B and C
(c) B and D (d) C and D
AIPMT-2003 Ans. (c) : Cavity lodging lungs is thorax. In human
thorax occurs between neck and abdomen. Inside the
Rajasthan PMT-2007
thorax, a cavity is present called thoracic cavity or chest
Ans. (b) The respiratory organ of silverfish is trachea. cavity.
• Book lung is the respiratory organ of scorpion. Book 24. Alveoli are lined by-
lungs are connected with the outside through (a) Simple columnar epithelium
spiracles.
(b) Endothelium
• Pharyngeal gill slits are the respiratory organs of sea (c) Squamous epithelium
squirt.
(d) Transitional epithelium
• Dophins breathe air using lungs. TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-II
19. The percentage of carbon dioxide, oxygen and Ans. (c) : Alveoli are lined by a single layer of
nitrogen in exhaled air of man are about : squamous epithelium cells. It is composed of flat cell
(a) 0.04 – 16°79 (b) 0.4 – 20°70 squamous epithelium cells form a membrane that allows
(c) 4.0 – 20°79 (d) 4.0 – 16° 79 selective diffusion of materials to pass through.
JIPMER-2011 / J&K CET-2011 25. Match the following
Rajasthan PMT-2001 List - I List - II
Ans. (d) : While breathing, we inhale, the amount of air (A) Moist body wall (I) Insects
which contain 21% of O2 & 0.04% of CO2 while the air (B) Tracheal system (II) Amphibian
we breathe out contains 16.4% of O2 and 4.4% of CO2. larvae
Nitrogen percentage when inhale is 78% & when exhale (C) Book lungs (III) Earthworms
78%. The exhaled air contains all the CO2 that is a (D) Gills (IV) Aves
byproduct of the cellular metabolic process. (V) Spiders
The correct match is Ans. (a) : Pneumotaxic centre is present in the dorsal
A B C D part of the pons varolii of the brain. The function of the
(a) III I V IV pneumotaxic centre is primarily to limit inspiration
(b) III I V II which has a secondary effect of increasing the rate of
(c) II V I III breathing.
(d) IV II III I 30. The maximum number of oxygen molecules
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-II that can bind to one molecule of hemoglobin is
Ans. (b) : Tracheal system found in arthropoda (insect) (a) 8 (b) 6
• Book lungs is the respiratory organ is found in (c) 4 (d) 2
scorpion and spider. KVPY (SA)-05.11.2017 / AFMC-2010
• Earthworm's, moist body wall help in respiration MGIMS Wardha-2009 / VMMC-2007
In earthworm respiratory organs is absent. Rajasthan PMT-2005 / CG PMT-2009, 2004
J&K CET-2004 / UP CPMT-2002
• Amphibian larvae respire through gills.
Ans. (c) : The mammalian hemoglobin molecule can
26. Trachea is lined with incomplete rings of bind up to four oxygen molecules as it has four
________
subunits. Hemoglobin has oxygen binding capacity of
(a) Fibrous cartilage (b) Hyaline cartilage 1.34 ml O2.
(c) Calcified cartilage (d) Elastic cartilage
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-II 31. Right lung of rabbit is divided into
(a) Four lobes (b) Two lobes
Ans. (b) : Trachea is lined with incomplete ring of
hyaline cartilage. Hyaline cartilage provides structural (c) Six lobes (d) Eight lobes
support in the respiratory system. It is slippery which Rajasthan PMT-2009
helps move the bones smoothly. Ans. (a) : In rabbit, lungs having totally 6 lobes. The
27. Arytenoid cartilage is found in _______ left lungs is divided in two lobes–
(a) Nose (b) Larynx a. Left Anterior
(c) Sternum (d) Hyoid b. Left posterior
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-I These lobe are also known as caudal lobe.
Ans. (b) : The arytenoids cartilages are paired pyramid Whereas the right lungs divided into 4 lobes
shaped structure of cartilage found in larynx, which helps a. Anterior azygos
to move the vocal folds allowing tension, relaxation or b. Right anterior
approximation of these because the vocal folds, being c. Right posterior
attached to the arytenoids move along with them. d. Posterior azygos.
28. Study the following and choose parts related to 32. Vocal cords occurs in:
larynx (a) Pharynx (b) Larynx
(A) Rimaglottidis (c) Glottis (d) Bronchial
(B) Turbinals MHT CET-01.10.2020 Shift-I / CG PMT-2004, 2005
(C) Cartilages of Santorini Haryana PMT-2003 / AMU-2001
(D) Adam’s apple Ans. (b) : Larynx is commonly called the voice box. It
(E) Soft palate is used to transfer the air from pharynx above and below
Options: trachea. Larynx is divided into 3 section supraglottis,
(a) A, C, D (b) B, D, E glottis and infraglottis.
(c) A, C, E (d) A, B, D Larynx is hollow tube in the middle of the neck, just
AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II above the trachea (windpipe) and behind the esophagus.
Ans. (a) : The glottis is composed of the vocal cords 33. During inspiration, the diaphragm
and the opening between them called the rima glottidis. (a) Expands
It is located in the interior of the larynx between the (b) Shows no change
supraglottis and subglottis (c) Contracts and flattens
• The articulate cartilages (cartilages of Santorini) are (d) Relaxes to become dome-shaped
two small nodules consisting of elastic cartilage, which BVP-2007, 2012 / VMMC-2012 / JIPMER-2009
articulate with the summits of the arytenoids cartilages. Rajasthan PMT-2008 /CG PMT-2008 / Manipal-2008
• In both sexes, regardless of the angle the primary Uttarakhand PMT-2008 / MGIMS Wardha-2006
function of the Adam's apple is the same as that of the Karnataka CET-2003 / AIPMT-1994
thyroid cartilage which comprises to protect the vocal
cords immediately behind it. Ans. (c) : During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts
and flattens and the chest cavity enlarges, this
29. Pneumotaxic centre which can moderate the contraction creates a vaccum which pulls air in to lungs.
functions of the respiratory rhythm centre is During expiration, diaphragm relax and move upward
present at thoracic cavity decrease air, move higher pressure to
(a) pons region in brain lower pressure.
(b) thalamus
(c) spinal cord 34. Pulmonary vein carries
(d) right cerebral hemisphere (a) Deoxygenated blood
JIPMER-2014 (b) Oxygenated blood
(c) Mixed blood 38. Mammalian lungs contain a large number of
(d) None of the above minute alveoli (air sacs). This is to allow
AFMC-2010 (a) more space for increasing the total volume of
Ans. (b) : Pulmonary vein brings freshly oxygenated inspired air
blood from the lungs to left atrium, the blood travels to (b) more surface area for diffusion of gases
the left ventricle from where its ejected to supply (c) more spongy texture for keeping lungs in
oxygen and nutrients to all tissues of the body. proper shape
35. The covering of the lung is called (d) more nerve supply to keep the organs
working more efficiently
(a) Peritoneum (b) Perichondrium
CG PMT-2006
(c) Pericardium (d) Pleura
AP EAM CET-24.09.2020 Shift-II / WB JEE-2014
Ans. (b) : Mammalian lungs have an enormous number of
CMC Ludhiana-2010 / Punjab MET-2004
minute alveoli to allow for more surface area for the
Manipal-2000 / AIPMT-1996
diffusion of gases. The alveoli are the smallest functional
unit of the lungs, and they are where the exchange of gases
Ans. (d) : The lungs are covered by pleural membrane between the air and the blood takes place. The human
pleura lines on the lungs and inside of the chest cavity. lungs contain approx 300 million alveoli.
It is made up of two layers–the visceral pleura (which 39. The diagram represents the human larynx.
covers the lungs) and the parietal pleura(which lines the Choose the correct combination of labelling
chest wall). The space between two layers is called the from the options given
pleural space.
36. The number of floating ribs in the human body
is
(a) 6 pairs (b) 5 pairs
(c) 3 pairs (d) 2 pairs
AMU-2007
Ans. (d) : The human body has 12 pairs of ribs. These
ribs are divided into three categories – true ribs, false
ribs, floating ribs. The 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are
called floating ribs because these ribs do not attach to
the sternum. Floating ribs play a role in supporting the
abdominal organs and helping to expand the rib cage
during breathing.
(a) (A) –Larynx, (B) – Parathyroid, (C) –
37. Which of the following match is correct? Tracheal cartilage, (D) - Trachea
(a) Emphysema : reduction of surface area of (b) (A) – Naso larynx, (B) Thyroid, (C) –
alveoli and bronchi Tracheal cartilage, (D) - Trachea
(b) Pneumonia : occupational disease with asbestos (c) (A) Trachea, (B) Thyroid, (C) Bronchiole,
(c) Silicosis : inflammation of alveoli (D) Tracheal cartilage
(d) Asthma : excessive secretion of bronchial mucus (d) (A)–Epiglottis, (B) Thyroid, (C) – Tracheal
AIIMS-2007 cartilage, (D) Trachea
Ans. (a) : Emphysema is a chronic lung disease that (e) (A)–Epiglottis, (B) – Parathyroid, (C) –
damages the air sacs in your lungs (alveoli). In this case Trachea, (D) – Tracheal cartilage
the surface area of alveoli and bronchi are reduced that Kerala PMT-2008
makes it difficult to breath. Ans. (d) : Larynx is also known as voice box which is
passage for the air between the pharynx and trachea.
• The epiglottis is attached with hyoid bone by elastic
band.
• Thyroid gland is the biggest gland and is located in
the base of neck.
• The trachea is strong and flexible tissue.
• Trachea is also called as wind pipe. It is a
cartilaginous tube that connects the larynx to the
bronchi of the lung and allow passage of air and
present in lungs of all air breathing animals.
40. Which structure of the lungs is directly
involved in O2 / CO2 exchange between air and
blood capillary?
(a) Bronchi (b) Trachea
(c) Alveoli (d) Secondary bronchi
GUJCET-2011
Ans. (c) : Alveoli is tiny air sacs at the end of the 44. The function of surfactant is/are
bronchioles. The alveoli are where the lungs and the (a) facilitating lung expansion
blood exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide during the (b) maintaining the stable size of the alveoli
process of breathing in and breathing out.
(c) to reduce the surface tension on the alveoli
• There are 300-500 million alveoli in the adult lungs.
(d) all of the above
41. Select the correct option. J&K CET-2012
(a) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the
sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage. WB JEE-2007
(b) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are Ans. (d) : The main functions of surfactant are lowering
connected dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae surface tension on the alveoli and facilitating the lung
and ventrally to the sternum. expansion for the well breathing. Surfactant also helps
(c) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three to protect the lungs from infection and play role in lung
pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of development. It helps in maintaining the stable size of
vertebral ribs. the alveoli.
(d) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly 45. A muscular transverse partition in mammals
with the sternum.
that separates thorax from abdomen is called:
NEET-2019
(a) Diaphragm (b) Pharynx
Ans. (c) : In human being, 12 pairs of ribs are
connected to sternum directly or indirectly. (c) Stomach (d) Duodenum
• Each ribs is a thin flat bone connected dorsally to the J&K CET-2005
vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum. Ans. (a) : The diaphragm, located below the lungs, is
• First to seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs, the major muscle of respiration. The diaphragm is a
dorsally they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae dome-shaped muscles that separates the thoracic cavity
and ventrally connected to the sternum by the help of (chest) from the abdominal cavity.
hyaline cartilage. • When we inhale, the diaphragm contracts and flattens
• 8th , 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not directly connect and when we exhale the diaphragm relaxes and return to its
with sternum but join the seventh ribs with the help dome-shaped shape which pushes the air out of the lungs.
of hyaline cartilage these are called vertebro-
chondral (false) ribs. 46. Adam’s apple is a prominent protrusion of
• 11th and 12th ribs are called floating ribs because they (a) Cuneiform cartilage (b) Aretynoid cartilage
do not connect with sternum. (c) Thyroid cartilage (d) Cricoid cartilage
Ans. (c) : Adam’s apple is the colloquial term used to
describe the laryngeal prominence protrusion of thyroid
cartilage. It is made up of cartilage and it protects your
voice box.
47. Surfactant in alveoli is secreted by
(a) dust cells
(b) type I epithelial cells
42. Which of the following is an occupational (c) type II epithelial cells
respiratory disorder? (d) kupffer cells
(a) Anthracis (b) Silicosis Punjab MET-2011
(c) Emphysema (d) Botulism
MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I/ NEET-2018 Ans. (c) : Surfactant is produced exclusively by
alveolar type II epithelial cells and stored in specialized
Ans. (b) : Silicosis is a long-term lung disease caused
by inhale large amount of crystalline silica dust. Quartz organelles called lamellar bodies until it is secreted into
the most common form of crystalline silica is abundantly the lumen of alveolus.
present in granite, and sandstone or foreign particles. The • Surfactant found in the fluid lining the alveolar
workers which work in silica industry are very prone to surface of the lungs.
affected by silicosis. Long exposure can give rise to 48. In man during inspiration air passes through
inflammation in lung track, leading to lung damage.
(a) Nasal chamber - Larynx - Pharynx - Trachea -
43. Adam's apple is also called____
Bronchioles - Alveoli - Glottis
(a) Vestibule (b) Pharynx
(c) Osteon (d) Larynx (b) Nasal Chamber - Pharynx - Larynx - Trachea
MHT CET-2018 - Bronchioles - Bronchi - Alveoli
Ans. (d) : Adam's apple is also called larynx. Adam's (c) Nasal chamber - Larynx - Pharynx - Trachea -
apple is the colloquial term used to describe what is Alveoli - Bronchioles - Glottis
officially named the laryngeal prominence of the (d) Nasal chamber - Pharynx - Larynx - Trachea -
thyroid cartilage. Bronchi - Bronchioles - Alveoli
• When the larynx grows larger during puberty, it sticks AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-II
out at the front of throat. This is called an Adam's apple. AP EAMCET-2015 / Karnataka CET-2003
Ans. (d) : During respiration air passes through nasal 51. Select the sequence of steps in Respiration.
pore to nasopharynx through glottis into trachea then by (A) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across
trachea into the right and left bronchi. The bronchi alveolar membrane.
divided into branches and re-branches into bronchioles (B) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood
which terminates cluster of alveoli. and tissues.
Nasal chamber – Pharynx – Larynx – Trachea –
Bronchii – Bronchioles – Alveoli. (C) Transport of gases by the blood.
(D) Pulmonary ventilation by which
49. The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the lungs
takes place by - atmospheric air is drawn in the CO2 rich
(a) Osmosis (b) Simple diffusion alveolar air is released out.
(c) Passive transport (d) Active transport (E) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic
VMMC-2002, 2015/ AP EAMCET-2011 reactions and resultant release of CO2.
JIPMER-2011 / Punjab MET-2010 Choose the correct answer from the
JCECE-2006 / BCECE-2005 options given below :
Ans. (b) : The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the (a) (B), (C), (E), (D), (A)
lungs takes place by simple diffusion. It is the (b) (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)
movement at solutes (gas or ions) from an area of high (c) (D), (A) (C), (B), (E)
concentration to an area of low concentration. (d) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)
The partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air is about
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur)
104 mm Hg, whereas the partial pressure of the
oxygenated pulmonary venous blood is about 100 mm Ans. (c) : According to the respiration their following
Hg. When ventilation is sufficient, oxygen enters the stages are :-
alveoli at a high rate, and the partial pressure of oxygen ■ Breathing or pulmonary ventilation by which
in the alveoli remain high. In contrast, when ventilation atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air
is insufficient, the partial pressure of oxygen in the is released out.
alveoli drops. ■ Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar
membrane.
C. Breathing Mechanism ■ Transport of gases by blood.
50. Identify the correct sequence of the air passage ■ Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissue.
in man. ■ Utilization of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions
(a) External Nares → Nasal chamber → Trachea and resultant release of CO2.
→ pharynx → bronchi →bronchioles → ■ These steps of respiration is arranged in sequential
Alveoli manner.
(b) External Nares → Nasal chamber → pharynx 52. Vital capacity of lung is
→ larynx → bronchi → Trachea → (a) IRV + ERV + TV
bronchioles → Alveoli (b) IRV + ERV
(c) External Nares → Nasal chamber → pharynx (c) IRV + ERV + TV + RV
→ larynx → Trachea → bronchi → (d) IRV + ERV + TV - RV
bronchioles → Alveoli
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
(d) External Nares → Nasal chamber → pharynx
Ans. (a) : Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum amount
→ larynx → Trachea → bronchioles →
of air a person can expel from the lungs after a
bronchi → Alveoli
maximum inhalation.
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II
• It is equal to the sum of inspiratory reserve volume
Ans. (c) : The correct sequence of the air passage in (IRV), tidal volume (TV), and expiratory reserve
man is –:
volume (ERV).
• External nares → Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Largnx
• It is approximately equal to forced vital capacity.
→ Trachea → Bronchioles → Bronchi → Alveoli
• The air enters the body through the external nares 53. Assertion (A): Expiration is a passive process.
(Nostrils). It then passes through he nasal cavity, where Reason (R): In this process, muscles of
it is warmed, moistened and filtered. From the nasal diaphragm and external intercostals muscles
cavity the air travels to the pharynx which is common relax.
passage for air and food. The pharynx then leads to the The correct option among the following is
larynx, which is also known as sound box. (a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct
• The air then passes through the trachea, which is explanation for (A)
long, narrow tube that runs down the centre of the (b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the
chest. The trachea branches into two bronchi one for correct explanation for (A)
each lung. The bronchi then branch into smaller tubes (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
called bronchioles. The bronchioles lead to the (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
alveoli, which are small sacs helps in gas exchange. TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-I
Ans. (a) : Expiration is a passive process that happens 57. Which one of the following is a possibility for
from the relaxation of the diaphragm muscle. During most of us in regard to breathing by making a
expiration diaphragm muscles relax and return to its conscious effort
domelike shape without the use of energy intra- (a) The lungs can be made fully empty by
pulmonary pressure becomes higher than the forcefully breathings out all air from them
atmospheric pressure and air goes outside.
(b) One can breathe out air totally without
54. Assertion (A) : Inspiration is an active process. oxygen
Reason (R): It takes place by the contraction of (c) One can breathe out air through Eustachian
muscles of diaphragm and external inter costal tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth.
muscles.
(d) One can consciously breathe in and breathe
The correct option among the following is
out by moving the diaphragm alone, without
(a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct
explanation for (A) moving the ribs at all.
(b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the AIPMT (Mains)-2011
correct explanation for (A) Ans. (d) : Breathing is the process where nasal cavity
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false buccal cavity and trachea performed main role as a
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true pathway to exchanges CO2 or O2 by rhythmic
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II contraction and relaxation of lung cavity in rib cage
Ans. (a) : Inspiration is an active process. It takes place with functional activity of alveoli.
by the contraction of muscles of diaphragm and external 58. In lungs, air is separated from venous blood by
intercostals muscles. The external inter-costal muscles (a) squamous epithelium + tunica externa of
contract and the ribs move outward and upward to blood vessel
increase the volume of thoracic cavity. The diaphragm
muscles contract and the shape of diaphragm changes (b) squamous epithelium + endothelium of blood
from dome to flat. vessel
55. According to Boyle’s law the product of (c) transitional epithelium + tunica medica of
pressure and volume is a constant. Hence. blood vessel
(a) If volume of lungs is increased, the pressure (d) columnar epithelium + 3 layered wall of
increases proportionately. blood vessel
(b) If volume of lungs is increased, the pressure CMC Vellore-2007
decreases proportionately. Ans. (b) : In lungs air is separated from venous blood
(c) If volume of lungs is increased, the pressure by squamous epithelium and endothelium of blood
remains the same. vessels. Squamous epithelium is also called as
(d) If volume of lungs is increased, the pressure pavement epithelium and tessellated epithelium. It
decreases disproportionately. regulates the passage of substances into the underlying
MGIMS Wardha-2013 tissue. The endothelium constitutes the inner cellular
Karnataka CET-2010 lining of the blood vessels and the lymphatic system.
Ans. (b) : If volume of lung is increased the pressure
decreases proportionally. 59. During expiration diaphragm becomes
• Boyle's law states that the product of pressure and (a) Flattened (b) Dome shaped
volume of a gas is constant at a given temperature. (c) Oblique (d) Normal
(P1V1 = P2V2) VMMC-2008
• In case of the lungs, when we inhale the volume of AMU-2008
the lungs increases and the pressure of the air in Ans. (b) : During expiration diaphragm become dome-
lungs decreases. shaped. It shortens the thoracic cavity pushing upwards
• When we exhale, the volume of the lungs decreases the lower surface of lungs. During the inspiration, the
and the pressure of the air increases. diaphragm contract and flattened.
56. The inhibitory process of respiratory centre in 60. Apnea is
brain that regulates the extent of inspiration is (a) Absence of breathing
known as
(b) Decreased ventilation
(a) Pavlov reflex
(c) Increased ventilation
(b) Spinal reflex
(d) Labored breathing
(c) Neuro-endocrine reflex
(d) Hering-Breuer reflex CMC Vellore-2014
SRM JEEE-2018 Tripura JEE-2018
Ans. (d) : The inhibitory process of respiratory centre in Ans. (a) : Apnea has one or more signs like breathing
brain that regulates the extent of inspiration is known as for 20 second or longer. Breathing that stops for a short
Herring-Breuer reflex. It is a protective reflex as it time from any cause is called apnea. Slow breathing rate
prevents alveoli from bursting. It is initiated to prevent is called bradypnea, labored or difficult breathing is
the over-inflation of the lungs. known as dyspnea.
61. Given below are the few terms related to 64. During forced expiration, actively contracting
breathing in column I and column II. Match muscles include the
the action with its related terms. (a) Diaphragm (b) External intercostals
Column-I Column-II (c) Abdominal muscles (d) All of the above
A. Eupnea 1. Normal breathing BCECE-2011
B. Apnea 2. Difficult breathing Ans. (c) : In forced expiration internal intercostals
except in upright muscles and some abdominal muscles contract to
position reduce the volume of thorax. During ordinary breathing
C. Orthopnea 3. Painful breathing the stomach and outer intercostals muscles contract
D. Dyspnea 4. Rapid shallow during inspiration, causing the rib enclosure to extend
breathing and the lungs to load up with the air.
E. Tachypnea 5. No breathing 65. The muscles that contract during inspiration is
(a) A - 1 B - 2 C - 3 D - 4 E - 5 (a) Clarified muscle
(b) A - 1 B - 5 C - 2 D - 3 E - 4 (b) External inter-costal muscle
(c) A - 2 B - 3 C - 5 D - 4 E - 1 (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) A - 5 B - 4 C - 3 D - 2 E - 1 (d) Scalene muscle
CMC Ludhiana-2015 UP CPMT-2010
Ans. (b) : AIPMT-1995
Eupnea – normal breathing or proper breathing. Ans. (b) : The muscles that contracts during inspiration
Apnea – No breathing, apnea has one or more signs like in external inter-costal muscles. The external inter-
breathing for 20 second or longer. costal facilitate forced inspiration. It serves to elevate
Orthopnea – Difficult breathing except in upright the rib cage and assist the lungs in expanding to take in
position. It can occurs progressively overtime. air. Intercostals muscles are located between the ribs.
Dyspnea – Painful breathing example include - 66. In the process of respiration, the potential
exercise, tight clothing. energy stored in organic compounds is released
Tachypnea – Rapid shallow breathing. In adult in in the form of:
which breathing is more than 20 breaths per minutes. (a) Kinetic energy (b) Chemical energy
62. When CO2 concentration in blood increases, (c) Radiant energy (d) Light energy
breathing becomes BHU PMT-2001
(a) shallower and slow
Ans. (b) : In respiration the potential energy stored in
(b) there is no effect on breathing
organic compounds is released in the form of chemical
(c) slow and deep
energy. It stored energy in the bonds of chemical
(d) faster and deeper compounds. It is released in the chemical reaction and
AIPMT-2004 / Assam CEE-2014
mostly produces heat as by product, known as an
CMC Vellore-2012 /CMC Ludhiana-2009
exothermic reaction.
JCECE-2009 / AFMC-2008
Ans. (d) : When CO2 concentration in blood increases, 67. On high mountains, difficulty in breathing is
breathing becomes faster and dipper. due to :
According to Bohr's effect – (a) decrease in partial pressure of O2
(b) decrease in amount of O2
1
Oxygen Hb (affinity) ∝ (c) increase in CO2 conc.
concentration of CO 2 (d) all of the above
63. Which of the following is the most appropriate JIPMER-2006
in normal circumstances? MGIMS Wardha-2005
(a) During inspiration the intrapulmonary
Ans. (a) : On high mountains, difficulty in breathing is
pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure
due to decrease in partial pressure of O2 and this may
(b) During expiration, the intrapulmonary
cause of many height inconveniences.
pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure
(c) During inspiration, the intrapulmonary At higher altitudes, the air becomes thinner hence the
pressure is more than the atmospheric amount of oxygen is less.
pressure About 50% of the Aconcagua (Mountain in
(d) During expiration the intrapulmonary Argentina) climbers had suffered one or more AMS’s
pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure (Acute mountain sickness) symptoms.
AMU-2015 68. Between breaths, the intra pleural pressure is
Ans. (a) : During inspiration, the intrapulmonary approximately ……….. mm Hg less than
pressure i.e. pressure inside the lungs should be less atmospheric pressure
than atmospheric pressure, so that air from area of high (a) 1 (b) 4
pressure (atmosphere) shall flow to area of low pressure (c) 8 (d) 10
(inside lungs) leading to inspiration. AMU-2010
Ans. (b) : Between breaths, the intrapleural pressure is (d) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
approximately 4 mm Hg. tissues
The intrapleural pressure is slightly less than (e) Utilisation of CO2 by cells for catabolic
atmospheric pressure, which is known as negative reactions
pressure. This negative pressure helps to keep the lung Kerala PMT-2012
expanded. Ans. (e) : In human during respiration steps are–
69. The nerve related with diaphragm is • Pulmonary ventilation.
(a) Vagus (b) Phrenic • Alveolar diffusion of O2 and CO2.
(c) Trigeminal (d) Glossopharyngeal • Transport of gases by blood.
CG PMT-2006 • Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.
Ans. (b) : The phrenic nerves provide motor • But in catabolic reactions CO2 are not utilized.
innervations to the diaphragm which is the primary
Catabolic reaction involve a chemical reaction that
muscles of respiration.
breaks down larger molecules into smaller units. It is
The phrenic nerve rises from the C3, C4 and C5 spinal exergonic i.e. energy is released. eg :- glycolysis
nerves, the phrenic nerve also provides sensory
innervations to the diaphragm. 74. Select the correct events that occur during
inspiration.
70. Which of the following does not take place
during expiration? (A) Contraction of diaphragm
(a) Diaphragm becomes dome-shaped. (B) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(b) Lungs undergo compression to release the air (C) Pulmonary volume decreases
out. (D) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
(c) Volume of the thoracic cavity increases. (a) (C) and (D) (b) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) Ribs are pulled inwards. (c) Only (D) (d) (A) and (B)
MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I NEET-2020 Phase-I
Ans. (c) : During expiration or exhaling the diaphragm Ans. (d) : Breathing involves inspiration and expiration.
relaxes, returns to its dome shaped and the volume of Inspiration is a process in which the air is drawn into
the thoracic cavity decreases, while the pressure within lungs and during expiration, the air is released out.
it increases. As a result, the lungs contract and air is Events that occur during inspiration are:-
forced out.
(a) Contraction of diaphragm.
71. Rate of breathing is directly affected by
(b) Contraction of external intercostals muscles.
(a) Oxygen in trachea
(b) Concentration of O2 (c) Pulmonary volume increases.
(c) Concentration of CO2 (d) Intra pulmonary pressure decreases.
(d) Diaphragm expansion 75. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and
BVP-2011 some air always remains in the lungs which can
Uttarakhand PMT-2011 never be expelled because
Ans. (c) : Rate of breathing is directly affected by (a) there is a negative pressure in the lungs
concentration of CO2. Thus rate of respiration is (b) there is a negative intrapleural pressure
inversely proportional to the concentration of CO2. pulling at the lung walls
During the process at cellular respiration, CO2 is (c) there is a positive intrapleural pressure
released as a waste product.
This CO2 can be used by photosynthesizing cells to (d) pressure in the lungs in higher than the
form new carbohydrates. atmospheric pressure
72. How much amount of air can be inspired or NEET-2016 Phase-II
expired during normal breathing: Ans. (b) : The fact that some air constantly remains in
(a) 0.5 (b) 2.5 the lungs and cannot be released due to the negative
(c) 1.5 (d) 5.5 intrapleural pressure produced by two opposing elastic
BVP-2004 forces pulling in the intrapleural space prevents lung
Ans. (a) : The volume of air inspired or expired by a collapse between breaths. Transpulmonary pressure
healthy man during normal breathing is known as tidal prevents lungs from collapsing.
volume, which is 500 ml or 0.5L in male and • The negative intrapleural pressure is always present,
approximately 400 ml or 0.4L in a healthy female. The even between breaths. Some air always remains in the
breathing rate for a normal person is 12-15 breaths per lungs because it is not possible to completely empty the
minutes so in one minute 6000-8000 ml air inhale or lungs. This air helps to maintain the negative
exhale by a normal person.
intrapleural pressure.
73. In humans, which among these is not a step in
respiration? 76. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of
(a) Pulmonary ventilation the lungs is
(b) Alveolar diffusion of O2 and CO2 (a) equal to that in the blood
(c) Transport of gases by blood (b) more than that in the blood
(c) less than that in the blood 79. When 1500 mL air in the lungs, it is called
(d) less than that of carbon dioxide (a) Residual volume
NEET-2016 Phase-II (b) Inspiratory reserve volume
Ans. (b) : The partial pressure of O2 in the alveoli of the (c) Vital capacity
lungs is more than that in the blood. Where atmospheric (d) Tidal volume
pressure is 760 mm Hg. The partial pressure of Manipal-2001
Nitrogen – 593 mm Hg Haryana PMT-2000
O2 – 160 mm Hg AIPMT-1996
Argon – 7.6 mm Hg.
Ans. (a) : Residual Volume (RV)– When 1500 ml air in
77. Select the correct statement. the lungs, it is called residual volume. It is the volumes
(a) Expiration is initiated due to contraction of of air that remains in the lungs after maximum
diaphragm. expiration.
(b) Expiration occurs due to external intercostal In healthy lungs, the air that makes up the residual
muscles. volume is utilized for continual gas exchange between
(c) Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than the breaths. It is about 1100ml to 1200ml in a normal adult.
atmospheric pressure during inspiration.
Residual Volume (RV) = Total Lung capacity – Vital
(d) Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure
is less than intrapulmonary pressure. capacity
NEET (Odisha)-2019 80. Rate of breathing is controlled by
Ans. (c) : During inspiration, the volume of the thoracic (a) The amount of freely available oxygen
cavity increases, causing intrapulmonary pressure to fall (b) Carbon dioxide
below atmospheric pressure. (c) Muscular functions of the body
Because of the pressure gradient between the lungs and (d) Stress
the atmosphere, the air moves into and out of the lungs. (e) All of the above
Inspiration occurs if the pressure within the lungs CMC Vellore-2008
(intra pulmonary pressure) is less than the atmospheric
pressure i.e. there is a negative pressure in the lungs Ans. (b) : The rate of breathing is mainly controlled by
with respect to atmospheric pressure. the CO2 level in the blood.
78. Systemic heart refers to: - • The blood level of CO2 acts directly on the
(a) The heart that contracts under stimulation respiratory centers in the medulla. A rise in PCO2
from nervous system decreases the pH level of cerebrospinal fluid.
(b) Left auricle and left ventricle in higher 81. During inspiration :
vertebrates (a) the diaphragm gets raised and ribs get
(c) Entire heart in lower vertebrates lowered
(d) The two ventricles together in humans (b) both diaphragm and ribs raised
AIPMT-2003 (c) both diaphragm and ribs get lowered
Ans. (b): The systemic heart refers to the left auricle (d) the diaphragm get flattened and ribs get raised
and left ventricle, in higher vertebrates. The left auricle Rajasthan PMT-2001
and the left ventricle received the oxygenated blood
Ans. (d) : During inspiration the diaphragm get
through the lungs and pump out the oxygenated blood
to the entire systemic circulation in the body. flattened and ribs get raised. Diaphragm is a muscular
portion between thorax and abdomen of all mammals. It
• The entire heart in lower vertebrates is called the is responsible for 75% of breathing volume during quit
systemic heart, this is because lower vertebrates do not respiration.
have a pulmonary circulation.
82. To generate pressure gradients to facilitate
expiration and inspiration, the human body
uses the intercostal muscles and
(a) Alveolar sacs
(b) Bronchi
(c) Primary, secondary and tertiary bronchioles
(d) Diaphragm
(e) Windpipe
Kerala PMT-2014
Ans. (d) : To generate pressure gradients to facilitate
expiration and inspiration, the human body uses the
intercostals muscles and diaphragm. During inspiration,
inspiratiory muscles, namely diaphragm and intercostals
muscles contract. During expiration the diaphragm and
intercostals muscles relax.
D. Respiratory Volume and 86. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen
(O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the
Capacities site of diffusion) are:
83. Under normal physiological conditions in (a) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood (b) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
can deliver ________ ml of O2 in to the tissues. (c) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
(a) 10 ml (b) 2 ml (d) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
(c) 5 ml (d) 4 ml NEET-2021
NEET-2022
Ans. (b) : In the alveolar air, the partial pressure of
Ans. (c) : Under normal physiological conditions in
human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can oxygen (PO2) is 104 mm Hg and that of carbon dioxide
deliver 5 ml of O2 to the tissue. (PCO2) is 40 mm Hg.
• 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers 87. Which is the correct for VC?
approximately, 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli. (a) IC+ERV (b) TV+ERV
84. Which of the following statements are correct (c) RV+IRV+ERV (d) VC+RV+TV
with respect to vital capacity? GUJCET-2018
(A) It includes ERV, TV and IRV.
Ans. (a): Vital capacity–
(B) Total volume of air a person can inspire
after a normal expiration It is calculated by summing tidal volume, inspiratory
(C) The maximum volume of air a person can reserve volume, and expiratory reserve volume. [VC =
breathe in after forced expiration. TV + IRV + ERV] VC is the maximum volume
(D) It includes ERV, RV and IRV. expelled out after forced inspiration. Also
(E) The maximum volume of air a person can VC=IC+ERV
breathe out after a forced inspiration. VC=TLC−RV
Choose the most appropriate answer from Vital capacity is the total amount of air exhaled after
the options given below:
maximal inhalation. The volume of VC is 60 to 70
(a) (B), (D) and (E) (b) (A), (C) and (D)
ml/kg.
(c) (A), (C) and (E) (d) (A) and (E)
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 88. How much amount of volume of air is in lungs
Ans. (c) : The maximum amount of air which can be FRC?
breathed out through forceful expiration after a forceful (a) 2100 ml to 2500 ml (b) 1500 ml to 1600 ml
inspiration is equal to the sum of tidal volume (TV). (c) 2500 ml to 3000 ml (d) 1600 ml to 2100 ml
• Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), tidal volume (TV) GUJCET-2015
and expiratory Reserve volume (ERV) and is known as Ans. (a): Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) is the
the vital capacity (VC). This is the maximum capacity of
air a person can breath out after forced inspiration. volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal
exhalation. It is the sum of the expiratory reserve
85. Read the following statements volume (ERV) and residual volume (RV). The normal
(A) Adam's apple in man is formed by thyroid
volume of FRC in an adult is 2100 ml to 2500 ml.
cartilage
(B) The maximum volume of air a person can FRC also helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing
breath in after forced expiration is vital during exhalation.
capacity FRC = ERV + RV
(C) About 20-25 percentage of CO2 is 89. Match the items listed under Column-I with
transported as carbamino haemoglobin those given under Column-II; choose the
(D) Pneumotaxic centre lies in pons appropriate option from the given choices.
Identify the correct statements:
(a) A (b) A, B Column-I Column-II
(c) A, B, C (d) A, B, C, D A. Residual Volume P. 4000 ml-4600 ml
TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-II (RV)
AP EAMCET-2016 B. Inspiratory Q. 1100 ml-1200 ml
Ans. (d) : The Adam’s apple is more prominent in men Reserve Volume
than in women because of testosterone, a hormone (IRV)
produced in greater amounts by men, causes the thyroid
cartilage to grow larger. C. Vital Capacity R. 1000 ml-1100 ml
• Vital capacity is the maximum volume of a person (VC)
can inhale after a forced expiration. D. Expiratory S. 3000 ml-3500 ml
• About 20-25% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is transported Reserve Volume
in the blood as carbamino haemoglobin. (ERV)
• The pneumotaxic centre is a group of neurons located E. Inspiratory T. 2500 ml-3000 ml
in the pons varolii (the largest portion of brain stem)
of the brain. Capacity (IC)

A B C D E 92. The Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) will be
(a) Q R S T P (a) 1000 mL (b) 2000 mL
(b) R T P Q S (c) 4000 mL (d) 5000 mL
(c) T Q S R P MHT CET-2019 / UP CPMT-2013
UP CPMT-2011 / Punjab MET-2004
(d) Q T P R S
Manipal-2000
Karnataka CET-2014
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-I Ans. (a): Expiratory reserve volume is the extra amount
Karnataka CET-2006 / NEET-2018 of air that can expired by a forcible expiration. It is
AP EAMCET-06.09.2021 Shift-I about 1000-1500ml
UP CPMT-2013 Inspiratory reserve volume = 2500ml-3000ml
Ans. (d) : Vital capacity = 3600ml-4800ml
Column-I Column-II 93. Given that tidal volume is 600 ml, inspiratory
reserve volume is 2500 ml, and expiratory
A. Residual Volume (RV) 1100 ml-1200 ml reserve volume is 800 ml, what is the value of
B. Inspiratory 2500 ml-3000 ml vital capacity of lung?
Reserve Volume (IRV) (a) 3900 ml (b) 3300 ml
C. Vital Capacity (VC) 4000 ml-4600 ml (c) 3100 ml (d) 1400 ml
D. Expiratory 1000 ml-1100 ml KVPY (SA)-05.11.2017
Reserve Volume (ERV) Ans. (a) : Vital capacity is the total volume of air
inspired and expired to maximum level. It is equal to
E. Inspiratory Capacity (IC) 3000 ml-3500 ml the sum of inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), tidal
volume (TV) and expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
Hence, Vital Capacity = IRV + TV + ERV
2500 + 600 + 800 = 3900ml
94. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a-
d) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a
normal human adult:
Respiratory capacities Respiratory
volumes
(A) Residual volume 2500 mL.
90. Whether a child died after normal birth or (B) Vital capacity 3500 mL
died before birth can be confirmed measuring (C) Inspiratory reserve volume 1200 mL
(a) the weight of the child
(D) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL
(b) the dead space air
Which one of the following is the correct
(c) tidal volume of air matching of two capacities and volumes?
(d) residual volume of air (a) (B) 2500 mL, (C) 4500 mL
Karnataka CET-2008 (b) (C) 1200 ml, (D) 2500 mL
Ans. (d) : Whether a child died after normal birth or (c) (D) 2500 mL, (A) 1200 mL
died before birth can be confirmed measuring by (d) (A) 4500 mL, (B) 3500 mL
residual volume of air. The test uses the concept of AIPMT (Screening)-2010
residual volume because this is the volume of air that is
present in the lungs even after a full exhalation and it Ans. (c) : Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) -
causes the buoyancy of the lungs in water they have air Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a
filled in it. If the lungs sink in water due to lack of air, it forceful inspiration (2500 ml) of air.
indicates that the child died before birth. Residual volume (RV)-Volume of air remaining in the
lungs even after a forceful expiration (1200ml) of air.
91. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) can be calculated
by the following Vital capacity (VC) = 4500ml
(a) ERV + RV Inspiration capacity = 3500ml
(b) TV + IRV 95. Residual volume is
(c) ERV + IRV + TV + RV (a) Greater than vital capacity.
(d) TV + IRV + ERV (b) Greater than tidal volume.
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II (c) Lesser than tidal volume.
TS EAMCET-12.05.2017 (d) Greater than inspiratory volume.
Ans. (c) : The total lung capacity (TLC) is the volume Karnataka CET-2007
of air in the lung at the end of forced inspiration. Ans. (b) : Residual Volume is the amount of air that
TLC = RV + ERV + IRV + TV or the sum of vital remains in a person’s lung after forceful expiration.
capacity and residual volume; (1200 ml) of air.
TLC = VC + RV. Residual volume is greater than the tidal volume.
96. After a deep inspiration and maximum 100. Vital capacity of lungs is:
expiration, the capacity of lung is known as (a) IRV + ERV
(a) Vital capacity (b) Tidal volume (b) IRV + ERV + TV - RV
(c) IRV (d) ERV (c) inspiratory reserve volume (IRE) + expiratory
TS EAMCET-9.8.2021 Shift-I / NEET (Odisha)-2019 reserve volume (ERV) + tidal volume (TV) +
AP EAMCET-2011 / JIPMER-2008 residual volume (RV)
WB JEE-2006 / UP CPMT-2004 / Punjab MET-1999
(d) IRV + ERV + TV
Ans. (a): After a deep inspiration and maximum WB JEE-2012 / Punjab MET-2011
expiration, the capacity of lung is known as vital MGIMS Wardha-2008 / DUMET-2008
capacity. Vital capacity is the total volume of air
DUMET-2007 / CG PMT-2005
inspired and expired to maximum level.
Punjab MET-2003 / Karnataka CET-2002
VC = TV + IRV + ERV
BVP-2000
= 500 + 3000 + 1100 = 4600 ml
Ans. (d) : Vital capacity is the total volume of air
97. Disease aggravated by pollution is:
inspired and expired to maximum level. It is measured
(a) Haemophilia (b) Rheumatism by spirometer.
(c) Scurvy (d) Bronchitis
Vital capacity is largest possible expiration after
Haryana PMT-2003 largest possible respiration.
Ans. (d) : Bronchitis is caused by air pollution. Fever, = IRV + ERV + TV
fatigue, wheezing in people with asthma, etc are the
main symptoms of bronchitis. = 3000 + 1100 + 500
Treatment-used bronchodilators, anti-inflammatory = 4600 ml
drugs etc. 101. The volume of air that will remain in the lungs
98. The volume of air inspired or expired during after a normal expiration is called
normal respiration is called (a) Vital capacity
(a) Tidal volume (b) Functional residual capacity
(b) Inspiratory reserve volume (c) Residual volume
(c) Expiratory reserve volume (d) Total lung capacity
(d) Residual volume (e) Inspiratory capacity
GUJCET-2014 / KVPY (SA)-2011 Kerala PMT-2015
J&K CET-2003, 2010 / AFMC-2010 Ans. (b) : The volume of air that will remain in the
DUMET-2007 / WB JEE-2006
lungs after a normal expiration is called functional
Ans. (a) : Tidal volume is the volume of air normally residual capacity (FRC). Normal FRC in adults is 1.8 to
inspired or expired in one breath without any effort. It is 3.4 litre.
air that normally goes in and out of lungs during
breathing (500 ml). A healthy man inspires or expires FRC = RV + ERV
approximately 6000 to 8000 ml of air per minute. = 1200 + 1100
99. The volume of Anatomical Dead Space air is = 2300 ml
normally 102. What is vital capacity of our lungs?
(a) 230 mL (b) 210 mL (a) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
(c) 190 mL (d) 150 mL (b) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve
AIIMS-2016 / WB JEE-2012 volume
JIPMER-2011 / J&K CET-2011 (c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory
Ans. (d) : Anatomical dead space means the air fills the reserve volume
conducting zone. Near about 500ml air present. It is (d) Total lung capacity minus residual volume
remain 150ml removed forcefully. BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
e.g. Nose, trachea, and bronchi. AI PMT-2008
Anatomical dead space specifically refers to the Ans. (d) : Vital capacity (VC) - It is the highest
volume of air located in the respiratory tract segments amount of the air that can be exhaled from the lungs
that are responsible for conducting air to the alveoli and
respiratory bronchioles but do not take part in the after a maximum inhalation. It is equal to the sum of
process of gas exchange itself. inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume and expiratory
reserve volume.
VC = IRV + TV + ERV
= 3000 + 500 + 1100
= 4600 ml
It is approximately equal to the forced vital capacity
(FVC). The normal vital capacity for an adult is
between 3 to 5 litres.
The vital capacity in our lungs is equal to total lung
capacity - residual volume.
VC = TLC – RV
= 5800 – 1200 = 4600 ml
103. The volume of air which remains in the • The total lung capacity is maximum amount of air
conducting airways and is not available for gas that can fill the lung (TLC = TV+IRV+ERV+RV).
exchange is called • The vital capacity (VC) about is the total amount of
(a) vital capacity air that can be expired after fully inhale.
(b) functional residual capacity • The inspiratory capacity is maximum amount of air
(c) forced expiratory volume that can be inspired.
(d) anatomic dead space • The functional residual capacity is the amount of air
J&K CET-2012 remaining in the lung after a normal expiration.
Ans. (d) : Volume of air which remains in conducting 107. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs the alveoli.
airways and is not available after gas exchange is They do not collapse even after forceful
anatomic dead space. Anatomical dead space is that expiration, because of :
portion of the airways which conducts gas to the alveoli. (a) Residual Volume
Volume of the conducting respiratory passage (150 ml) (b) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
104. Amount of air remains after deep breathing is (c) Tidal Volume
called (d) Expiratory Reserve Volume
(a) Dead space (b) Residual volume NEET-2017
(c) Vital capacity (d) Ventilation rate Ans. (a) : Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs the alveoli
KVPY (SA)-2020 and they do not collapse even after forceful expiration,
J&K CET-2015 because of residual volume. It is the volume of air that
remains in the lungs after maximum forceful expiration.
Ans. (b) : The amount of air remains after deep The value of residual volume (RV) is 1200 ml.
breathing is called residual volume.
It is the volume of air that cannot be expelled from the
lungs, even with forceful exhalation.
The RV is calculated by subtracting the expiratory
reserve volume from the functional residual capacity.
RV = FRC – ERV
= 2300 – 1100
= 1200 ml
The normal RV for an adult is about 1200ml. 108. Arrange the following in order of increasing
volume
105. In the following functional human lung studies (A) Tidal volume (B) Residual volume
identify the total lung capacity
(C) Expiratory reserve volume (D)Vital capacity
(A) Inspiratory capacity (IC) Options :
(B) Functional residual capacity (FRC) (a) D, C, B, A (b) D, B, C, A
(C) Vital capacity (VC) (c) B, C, D, A (d) C, B, D, A
(D) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-I
(E) Residual volume (RV) Punjab MET-2007 / AIIMS-2007
(F) Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) Ans. (b) : Increasing volume in order of.
(G) Tidal volume (TV) Vital capacity > Residual volume > Expiratory reserve
(a) (C) + (E) (b) (D) + (F) volume > Tidal volume.
(c) (A) + (D) (d) (B) + (C) VC = 4800 ml
AP EAMCET-2014 RV = 1200 ml
Ans. (a) : The sum of vital capacity and the residual ERV = 1100 ml
volume is equal to the total lung capacity. Total lung TV = 500 ml
capacity is 5800 ml. 109. Study the following (consider maximum values)
TLC = VC + RV (A) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
= 4600+1200 (B) Tidal Volume (TV)
= 5800 ml (C) Vital capacity (VC)
106. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume (D) Total Lung Capacity (TLC)
of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL, (E) Residual Volume (RV)
respectively. What will be his expiratory Arrange the above volumes of air in
Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL? ascending order
(a) 1700 mL (b) 2200 mL Options:
(c) 2700 mL (d) 1500 mL (a) B → E → C → A → D
NEET-2019 (b) E → C → B → A → D
Ans. (d) : Tidal volume = 500 ml (c) B → E → A → C → D
Expiratory Reserve volume = 1000 ml (d) B → E → A → D → C
Expiratory capacity = TV + ERV AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-II
= 500 + 1000 = 1500 ml AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II
Ans. (c) : Maximum values of Vital capacity- Residual E. Respiratory Quotient
volume – Inspiratory Reserve Volume – Vital capacity
– Tidal volume. 115. When pulses, which are the rich sources of
TV – 500 ml proteins, are used as respiratory substrate than
RV – 1200 ml RQ obtained is _____.
IRV – 2500 – 3300 ml (a) infinity (b) more than one
VC – 4800 ml (c) one (d) less than one
TLC – 6000 ml MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I
110. The volume of air inspired or expired by a Ans. (d) : The value of RQ for oxidation of
healthy man per minute is: carbohydrate is 1 and less than one for oxidation of fats
(a) 1000 ml – 1100 ml (b) 2500 ml – 3000 ml and protein. Thus if pulses, which are the rich source of
(c) 6000 ml – 8000 ml (d) 400 ml – 500 ml proteins are used as respiratory substrate then RQ
Karnataka CET-2017 / DUMET-2003 obtained is less than one.
Rajasthan PMT-2001
116. The respiratory quotient of the reaction given
Ans. (c) : Tidal volume is the volume of air breathed in
and out during normal breathing or in each respiratory below is
cycle. TD = 500 ml. The breathing rate for a normal 2(C51H98O6)+ 145O2→102CO2+ 90H2O+energy
person in one minute is 12 - 15. So in one minute near (a) 0.703 (b) 0.725
about 6000 – 8000 ml. (c) 0.960 (d) 1.422
111. ERV + RV = ? for lungs: KVPY (SA)-05.11.2017
(a) FRC (b) VC NEET-2019
(c) IRV (d) TV Ans. (a) : The respiratory quotient is defined as the
BCECE-2015 ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed per unit time by
Ans. (a) : Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) is a an organisms. For Tripalmitin (C51 H98 06)–
measurement of the reservoir of air that keeps lungs
oxygenated after a normal exhalation. The normal R.Q. = Volume of CO2 evolved / volume of O2
value of FRC is 1800 – 2200 ml. consumed
Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) = Expiratory 102
Reserve Volume (ERV) + Residual Volume (RV) R.Q. = = 0.703
145
112. The largest quantity of air that can be expired 117. Respiration Quotient (R.Q.) is represented
after a maximum inspiratory effort is by……..
(a) Residual volume (b) Tidal volume
O2 C
(c) Vital capacity of lung (d) Lung volume (a) (b)
WB JEE-2007 CO 2 N
Ans. (c) : The largest quantity of air that can be expired N2 CO 2
after a maximum inspiratory effort is vital capacity of (c) (d)
O2 O2
lung. Vital capacity is measured by spirometer. The
value of VC = 3400 - 3800 ml Karnataka CET-2004
113. The volume of air that can be breathed in by BVP-2004
maximum forced inspiration over and above Ans. (d) : The actual ratio of the volume of CO2
the normal inspiration is called eliminated to the volume of O2 consumed during the act
(a) Expiratory reserved volume of cellular respiration is called the respiratory quotient.
(b) Inspiratory reserved volume It is denoted by R.Q.
(c) Vital capacity CO 2
(d) Inspiratory capacity RQ =
WB JEE-2014 O2
Ans. (b) : The volume of air that can be breathed in by 118. Chloride shift is essential for the transportation
maximum forced inspiration over and above the normal of
inspiration is called inspiratory reserved volume. (a) CO2 (b) O2
114. Spirometer is useful in (c) CO2and O2 (d) N2
(a) Clinical assessment of the pulmonary functions CG PMT-2010
(b) Clinical assessment of the heart function Ans. (a) : The exchange Cl– ions diffuse from plasma
(c) Clinical assessment of the liver function into the RBCs. This exchange of negative ions
(d) Clinical assessment of the brain function maintains the ionic balance between plasma and RBCs
AP EAPCET-12.07.2022 Shift-I and is known as the chloride shift. Chloride shift is
Ans. (a) : Spirometer is useful in clinical assessment of essential for the transportation of CO2.
the pulmonary function. Spirometer used to diagnose,
asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) 119. Unloading of oxygen from haemoglobin at the
and other conditions that affect breathing. site of diffusion is facilitated by
Clinical assessment of the heart function is (ECG) (a) higher pH of blood
electrocardiogram. (b) partial pressure of O2 and CO2
(c) low temperature in lungs and higher (c) volume of carbon dioxide evolved is more
temperature in diffusion than volume of oxygen consumed
(d) All of the above (d) volume of carbon dioxide evolved is equal ,
BVP-2013 to volume of oxygen consumed
J&K CET-2014
Ans. (d) : Increased peripheral tissue metabolism such
as reduced pH, increased CO2, increased temperature Ans. (b) : The respiratory quotient (RQ) is defined as
shift oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right, the ratio of carbon dioxide produced to oxygen
reducing hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen and thus consumed per unit time by an organism.
improving oxygen unloading. CO2 produced by the Respiratory quotient (RQ) =
tissue diffuse into the tissue capillaries and Vol.m / quantity of (CO 2 ) liberated
subsequently the erythrocytes, facilitating the release of RQ = per unit time.
Vol.m /quantity of O 2 used
oxygen molecules from hemoglobin to the tissue.
124. Respiratory quotient of glucose is
120. CO2 is transported in blood mostly by means of (a) 0.9 (b) 0
(a) Plasma (c) 1.0 (d) 0.7
(b) Bicarbonate ion Karnataka CET-2022 / JIPMER-2018
(c) Carbamino haemoglobin Manipal-2013 / BVP-2006
(d) None of the above Ans. (c) : Respiratory quotient (RQ) =
AFMC-2010 CO 2 Eliminated
Rajasthan PMT-1996 RQ =
O 2 Consumed
Ans. (b) : CO2 is transported in blood mostly by means C6 H12 O6 + 6O 2 → 6CO 2 + 6H 2 O
of bicarbonate ions. The percentage of CO2 transported
by RBCs is 20-25%. The binding of CO2 to Hb is RQ = 6CO2/6O2 = 1
related to the partial pressure of CO2. RQ for glucose or carbohydrate is 1.0 and for fat is 0.7
for protein, its 0.5 and for organic acids its more than 1.
121. RQ refers to the ratio of
125. If organic acids are used as substrate what will
(a) CO2 produced to substrate consumed be the value of R.Q ?
(b) CO2 produced to O2 consumed (a) 1 (b) > 1
(c) O2 consumed to CO2 released (c) <1 (d) 0
(d) O2 consumed to ATP produced Rajasthan PMT-1998
Tripura JEE-2018 Ans. (b) : For organic acids like oxalic acid, malic acid
AIIMS-2014 and succinic acid, RQ > 1.
Ans. (b) : The respiratory quotient (RQ) is defined as 126. Dissociation curve shifts to the right when
the ratio of carbon dioxide produced to oxygen (a) CO2 concentration decreases
consumed per unit time by an organism. (b) CO2 concentration increases
Respiratory quotient (RQ) = (c) O2 concentration decreases
(d) Cl– concentration increases
Vol.m of CO 2 produced CG PMT-2007
Per unit time
Vol.m O 2 consumed Ans. (b) : The dissociation curve shifts to the right
RQ (Carbohydrate) = 1 when there is an increase in the partial pressure of
carbon dioxide. This condition occur because
RQ (lipid and protein) < 1 hemoglobin less likely to bind to oxygen.
RQ (Anaerobic respiration) > 1 127. The percent concentration of carbondioxide in
So, respiratory quotient (RQ) is the ratio of CO2 the alveolar air is:
produced to O2 consumed. (a) 0.04 (b) 4.10
122. Haemoglobin is a (c) 5.5 (d) 0.055
(a) Protein (b) Fibrous protein AP EAMCET-2004
(c) Globular protein (d) Enzyme Ans. (c) : Alveolar air is tiny air sacs at the end of the
Manipal-2012 bronchioles. It is also called as air sac/air space.
Concentration of CO2 in the alveolar air is 5.5.
Ans. (c) : Haemoglobin is a globular protein. It is the
128. Compound double in water does not impede
red pigment inside the RBCs and its molecular weight is oxygen transporation is:
68000. It is a complex molecule made up of four protein (a) SO2 (b) SO3
chain, each of which contains a heme group. The heme (c) CO (d) NO
group contains iron atom which bind with oxygen. VMMC-2015 / Haryana PMT-2002
123. When Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is less than Ans. (a) : Since SO2 is soluble in water but insoluble in
0.1 in a respiratory metabolism, it means that blood, it does not interfere with oxygen transport. Both
(a) carbohydrates are used as respiratory CO and NO are comparable to oxygen for binding to
substrate haemoglobin, SO3 is insoluble.
(b) volume of carbon dioxide evolved is less than The compound which is soluble in water but does not
volume of oxygen consumed impede oxygen transportation is SO2.
129. Most of the carbon dioxide is transported in Ans. (d) : The respiratory quotient (RQ) is defined as
blood is the ratio of carbon dioxide produced to oxygen
(a) A gas consumed per unit time by an organism.
(b) Carbaminohaemoglobin The value of respiratory quotient depends on the type of
(c) Serum carbaminoproteins respiratory substrate.
(d) HCO3− It is always less than one for fats as fats consume
AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I / AIIMS-2013 more oxygen for respiration than carbohydrates.
UP CPMT-2012 / CG PMT-2009 The absorption of oxygen is more than the liberation
CG PMT-2008 / Rajasthan PMT-2008 at CO2 and thus RQ become less than unity.
WB JEE-2007 / JCECE-2007 133. If RQ is 0.6 in a respiratory metabolism. It
AFMC-2006 / Haryana PMT-2000 would mean that
Ans. (b) : Nearly (20-25%) of carbon dioxide is (a) Carbohydrates are used as respiratory, substrate
transported by RBCs (carbaminohemoglobin) whereas (b) Organic acids are used as respiratory substrate
70% of blood is carried as bicarbonate (formed by (c) The oxidation of the respiratory substrate
dissociation of carbonic acid). Blood is the medium of consumed more oxygen than the amount of
transport for oxygen and carbon dioxide about 97% of CO2 released
oxygen is transported by RBCs in the blood. (d) The reaction is anaerobic
The affinity of haemoglobin to bind with CO2 is more CMC Vellore-2008
than O2. Ans. (c) : If RQ is 0.6 in a respiratory metabolism, it
Haemoglobin + CO2 → carbamino-haemoglobin. means the oxidation of the respiratory substrate
130. Protein is used as respiratory substrate only consumed more oxygen than the amount of CO2 released.
when RQ can be measured by Ganong's respirometer.
(a) Carbohydrates are absent 134. Which is called Hamburger shift?
(b) Fats are absent (a) Hydrogen shift (b) Bicarbonate shift
(c) Both exhausted (c) Chloride shift (d) Sodium shift
(d) Fats and carbohydrates are abundant BVP-2009
Manipal-2013 Ans. (c) : The exchange of bicarbonate ions of RBCs
Ans. (c) : Protein is used as respiratory substrate only and chloride ions of plasma is called the Hamburger
when both carbohydrates and fats are exhausted. Both shift or chloride shift. It occurs in the cardio vascular
carbohydrate and fats are primary and secondary system. The carbon dioxide is taken up by the RBCs
respiratory substrate respectively. When protein is used and the carbonic anhydrases enzyme converts CO2 into
as respiratory substrate the respiration is called H2CO3.
protoplasmic respiration. Glucose is the most common 135. The oxygen toxicity is related with
respiratory substrate. (a) Blood poisoning
131. When CO3 concentration in blood increases, (b) Collapse of alveolar walls
breathing becomes (c) Failure of ventilation of lungs
(a) Shallower and slow (d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) There is no effect on breathing Manipal-2008
(c) Slow and deep Ans. (c) : O2 toxicity is a condition resulting from the
(d) Faster and deeper harmful effects of breathing molecular O2 at increased
Manipal-2007 / CG PMT-2006 partial pressure. It is related with failure of ventilation
Ans. (d) : When CO2 concentration in blood increases of lungs.
breathing becomes faster and deeper. 136. The respiratory quotient (RQ) of a germinating
According to Bohr's effect the CO2 released in respiring castor seed is
tissue accelerates the delivery of oxygen by faster & (a) equal to one (b) greater than one
deeper breathing. (c) less than one (d) equal to zero
132. Assertion (A): The RQ value of fats is less than BVP-2014 / MGIMS Wardha-2007, 2012
one. AMU-2007 / Rajasthan PMT-2003
Reason (R): The amount of CO2 released than Rajasthan PMT-1999
the O2 consumed when fats are used in Ans. (c) : The respiratory quotient (RQ) of a
respiration. germinating castor seed is less than one. This is because
The correct answer is: the main respiratory substrate in germinating castor is
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the fat and the RQ of fat always less than one.
correct explanation of (A) The RQ is calculated as the ratio of the volume of
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false CO2 produced to the volume of O2 consumed.
(c) (A) is false but (R) is true. v CO 2 102
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the RQ = = = 0.70
correct explanation of (A) v O2 145
AP EAMCET-2014 For the fat, the RQ is approximately 0.7.
137. When fats are respiratory substrate, the valueAns. (b) : High pO2, low pCO2 lesser H+ concentration
of R.Q. would be about and lower temperature are all favourable factors for the
(a) 0.7 (b) 1.0 formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the alveoli.
(c) More than 1.0 (d) None of these
141. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from
AMU-2012body tissues into the blood is present as
Ans. (a) : The respiratory quotient (RQ) is defined as (a) carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
the ratio of carbon dioxide produced to oxygen (b) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
consumed per unit time by an organism. (c) Free CO2 in blood plasma
When fats are the respiratory substrates, they are hydrolysed
(d) 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as
to glycerol and fatty acids during seed germination. bicarbonate
• RQ value for fats approximate 0.7 AIPMT (Mains)-2011
The RQ is used in calculations of basal metabolic rate
Ans. (b) : Bulk of carbon-dioxide (CO2) released from
(BMR).
body tissues into the blood is present as bicarbonate in
blood plasma and RBCs.
F. Transport and Exchange At the tissue site where partial pressure of CO2 is high
of Gases due to catabolism, CO2 diffuses into blood and forms
HCO2 and H+. At the alveolar site where pCO2 is low,
138. The factors favorable for increase of binding the reaction proceeds in the opposite direction leading
affinity of oxygen with haemoglobin to the formation of CO2 and H2O.
(a) high pO 2 ,low pCO 2 ,low pH 142. Respiratory centre in brain occurs in :
(b) low pO 2 ,high pCO 2 ,low pH (a) Medulla oblongata (b) Cerebellum
(c) Hypothalamus (d) Pericardium
(c) high pO 2 , high pCO 2 ,low pH AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-I / Punjab MET-2010
(d) low pO 2 ,low pCO 2 ,high pH AIIMS-2009 / Rajasthan MPT-2001, 2005, 2006
Karnataka CET-2005 / Haryana PMT-2003
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-I Manipal-2001
Ans. (a) : The binding affinity of oxygen with Ans. (a) : The respiration is controlled by the brain
haemoglobin is increased by high partial pressure of stem, primarily by the medulla oblongata, which
oxygen, low partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) innervates the muscles that manage respiration. It
and low pH. passes signals between spinal cord and the higher parts
• High partial pressure of oxygen (pO2)– This means of the brain and regulates different functions of the
autonomic system.
that there is a lot of oxygen available for binding the
haemoglobin.
• Low partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2)– This
means that there is a less carbon dioxide available to
compete with oxygen for binding sites on haemoglobin.
• Low pH– This makes the haemoglobin molecule more
basic, which favours the binding of oxygen.
143. Bicarbonates formed inside erythrocytes passes
139. Identify the correct group of statements out into plasma while chloride of plasma pass
(i) Oxygen is carried by hemoglobin into erythrocytes. The phenomenon is called
(ii) Oxygen is carried by carbonic anhydrase (a) Bicarbonate shift
(iii) Carbon dioxide is carried by hemoglobin (b) Hamburger phenomenon
(iv) Sulphur dioxide is carried by hemoglobin (c) Carbochlorosis
(a) (i) & (iii) only (b) (i) & (ii) only (d) None of the above
CMC Vellore-2014, 2007
(c) (i) & (iv) only (d) (ii) & (iii) only
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-II Ans. (b) : Chloride shifts are also referred to as the
Karnataka CET-2006 Hamburger phenomenon. Chloride shift occurs in the
circulatory system and is related to the transfer of blood
Ans. (a) : Hemoglobin carries O2 from lungs to other cell membrane. The chloride ion diffuses in to
body tissue and carries CO2 from body tissue to lungs.
erythrocytes to maintain ionic equilibrium is called
About 97% of O2 is transported by hemoglobin in the
blood and nearly 20-25% of CO2 is transported by chloride shift or Hamburger’s phenomenon.
hemoglobin whereas 70% of it is carried as bicarbonate. 144. Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates into oxygen and
140. Which of the following factors is favourable for deoxyhaemoglobin at
the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the alveoli (a) Low O2 pressure in tissue
of human lungs? (b) High O2 pressure in tissue
(a) High pCO2 (b) Lower temperature (c) Equal O2 pressure inside and outside tissue
+
(c) High H concentration (d) Low pO2 (d) All times irrespective of O2 pressure
Karnataka CET-2018 VMMC-2008
Ans. (a) : Oxyhaemoglobin is a complex of oxygen and Ans. (d) : Charcoal contains carbon, which on burning
haemoglobin. It is formed in the lungs, where the partial produces carbon monoxide (CO). CO has 200 times
pressure of oxygen (O2) is high. The oxyhaemoglobin more affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen. It combines
then travels to the tissues, where the partial pressure of with haemoglobin and produces a stable compound
oxygen is lower when the oxyhaemoglobin dissociates carboxyhaemoglobin because of this compound
in oxygen the condition occur i.e. low partial pressure haemoglobin becomes do not carry sufficient oxygen
of oxygen (PO2) in tissue, high partial pressure of CO2 from lungs to the brain and other body parts. Due to
in tissues, low pH in blood and high temperature. lack of oxygen, the person cannot breathe properly, it
causes suffocation. If CO is inhaled for a long time the
145. 100 mL of blood can carry CO2 equal to person becomes unconscious and can even die due to
(a) 20 mL (b) 0.3 mL oxygen starvation.
(c) 3.7 mL (d) 6.3 mL 149. What percentage of CO2 is transported by
VMMC-2015 / WB JEE-2012 RBCs?
Ans. (c) : Transport of CO2 is carried by Hb in the form (a) 70% (b) 20% - 25%
of carbaminohaemoglobin. Hb dissociates from CO2 (c) 97% (d) 7%
and binds with O2. VMMC-2011
Every 100 ml deoxygenated blood delivers Ans. (b) : 20-25% of carbon dioxide is transported in
approximately 4 ml of carbon dioxide gas, while every the form of carbaminohemoglobin by RBCs, 5-7% of
100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of CO2 is transported in the dissolved state and 70%
oxygen to the tissues. carbon dioxide is transported as bicarbonate in the
146. Partial pressure of oxygen in the inspired and plasma. The binding of CO2 to Hb is related to the
the expired air is respectively partial pressure of CO2.
(a) 158 and 116 mm Hg 150. Partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide
(b) 158 and 40 mm Hg in healthy human lung alveoli are respectively,
nearest to
(c) 100 and 95 mm Hg (a) 104 and 40 mm of Hg
(d) 40 and 95 mm Hg (b) 90 and 20 mm of Hg
VMMC-2015 (c) 40 and 46 mm of Hg
Ans. (a) : The partial pressure of oxygen in the inspired (d) 159 and 0.3 mm of Hg
air is about 158 mm Hg, while the partial pressure of TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-I / AMU-2015
oxygen in the expired air is about 116 mm Hg. The Ans. (a) : The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli
percentage of oxygen in the inspired air is about 21% of a healthy human is about 104 mm Hg, while partial
while the percentage of oxygen in the expired air is pressure of carbon dioxide is about 40 mm Hg.
about 16%. 151. Which of the following sets of conditions
147. Hemoglobin is having maximum affinity with promotes the dissociation of oxygen from
(a) CO2 (b) CO haemoglobin?
(c) O2 (d) NH3 (a) LowPO 2 , high PCO 2 , high H +
TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-II / JIPMER-2011
(b) high PO 2 , high PCO 2 , low H +
Rajasthan PMT-2009 / CMC Vellore-2009
Punjab MET-2009 / UP CPMT-2009 (c) High PC 2 , low PCO 2 , low H +
CG PMT-2004 / BCECE-2004
(d) Low PO 2 , low PCO 2 , low H +
AMU-2003, 2001
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II / NEET-2021
Ans. (b) : Hemoglobin is a globular protein. It binds AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-I
with competitive inhibitors such as carbon monoxide, AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-I
carbon dioxide and nitric oxide. Hemoglobin show AMU-2015 / AP EAMCET-2013
maximum affinity with carbon monoxide as compared Ans. (a) : In the tissue low PO2, high pCO2, H+
to carbon dioxide and oxygen. concentration and high temperature favourates
Hemoglobin present in blood transports oxygen from dissociation of oxygen from the oxy-hemoglobin
lungs to rest of the body. Its molecular weight is 64500 whereas high PO2, low CO2, low H+ concentration and
g/mole. low temperature are there factors favorites for the
148. During winter a person died during sleep, the formation of oxy-hemoglobin in the alveoli.
room was closed and a container with burnt
charcoal was found in the room. What may be
the possible reason of his death?
(a) Non-availability of oxygen
(b) Hb has more affinity to combine with carbon
monoxide
(c) Hb has more affinity to combine with
nitrogen
(d) Combined effect of (a) and (b).
AMU-1996
152. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase takes part in 157. Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates into oxygen and
CO2 transport is found in deoxyhaemoglobin at
(a) WBCs (b) Lymphocytes (a) Low O2 pressure in tissue
(c) RBCs (d) Monocytes (b) High O2 pressure in tissue
UP CPMT-2012 (c) Equal O2 pressure inside and outside tissue
Ans. (c) : The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is found in (d) All times irrespective of O2 pressure
RBCs. It helps in the transport of CO2 by catalyzing the AMU-2008
reaction of CO2 and water to form carbonic acid. The Ans. (a) : Blood temperature, pH of blood,
carbonic acid then dissociate into bicarbonate ions and concentration of O2 and concentration of CO2 are
hydrogen ions. The bicarbonate ions are transported to factors are dissociates oxyhaemoglobin into oxygen and
the lungs, where they are converted back into CO2 and
deoxyhaemoglobin at low O2 pressure in tissue.
exhaled.
At high O2 pressure in tissue, the oxyhaemoglobin
153. Relative Biological Effectiveness (RBE) usually will not dissociate into O2 and Hb not carry back CO2
refers to the damages caused by: into lungs.
(a) low temperature (b) high temperature
(c) radiation (d) pollution 158. CO2 is carried in blood as
AFMC-2007 (a) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans. (c) : The relative biological effectiveness (RBE) (b) Sodium carbonate
usually refers to the damages caused by ionizing radiation. (c) Potassium carbonate
Ionizing radiation causes cell death, mutations and cancer. (d) Magnesium carbonate
154. Why is CO poisonous for man? VMMC-2012 / UP CPMT-2012, 2008
(a) CO affects the nerves of the lungs VMMC-2008 / AMU-2008
MGIMS Wardha-2008 / BCECE-2005
(b) CO affects the diaphragm and intercostal
Rajasthan PMT-1998, 2003 / AIIMS-1998
muscles
(c) CO reacts with oxygen reducing percentage Ans. (a) : About 70% of CO2 is transported through
of O2 in air RBCs. Carbonic acid being unstable intermediate
(d) Hemoglobin combines with CO instead O2 molecule immediately dissociates into bicarbonate ions.
and the product cannot dissociate It combines with sodium ions in plasma and forms
HP CET-2011 / BCECE-2006 sodium bicarbonate.
VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004 / BVP-2003 159. O2 content in the air we expire is:
Ans. (d) : Carbon monoxide is highly poisonous (a) 4% (b) 20%
because of its ability to form a complex with (c) 16% (d) 25%
hemoglobin. The (CO – Hb) complex is more stable Haryana PMT-1999
than the (O2 – Hb) complex. They prevent (Hb) from Ans. (c) : Percentage of oxygen is inhaled air is 21%.
binding with oxygen. This, a person dies because of
Percentage of oxygen in exhaled air is 16.4% because
suffocation or not receiving oxygen. Its found that the
(CO – Hb) complex is about 200 times more stable of its high solubility.
th
than the (O2 – Hb) complex. 160. About 97% of O2 is transported by RBC. The
155. The change in the partial pressure of CO2 in remaining 3% is
blood is determined by (a) Dissolved in plasma and transported
(a) Carotid sinus (b) Carotid bodies (b) Remains in lungs
(c) Surface of lungs (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Attached to cell membranes
AMU -2000 (d) Inside the mitochondria
Ans. (b) : The change in the partial pressure of CO2 in (e) In peroxisomes
blood is determined by carotid bodies. Carotid bodies are Kerala PMT-2012 / Kerala PMT-2008
small sensory organ. It can detect changes in the quality in Ans. (a) : About 97% of O2 is transported by RBC. The
the composition of arterial blood flow, like - CO2. remaining 3% is dissolved in plasma and transported in
156. If levels of carboxy haemoglobin in blood reaches RBC hemoglobin is found that binds the oxygen and
up to ......... the functioning of central nervous form oxyhemoglobin.
system is severly affected which causes death? 161. Read the following statements and select the
(a) 1 to 2% (b) 0.20 to 0.30 % correct one
(c) 0.30 to 0.40 % (d) 0.1 to 5% (a) The H+ released from carbonic acid combines
Manipal-2015 with haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic
Ans. (d) : Carboxy haemoglobin is a compound formed acid
when carbon monoxide binds to the haemoglobin in the (b) Oxyhaemoglobin of erythrocytes is alkaline
blood. It is much more stable compound than oxygenated (c) More than 70% of carbon dioxide is
haemoglobin. The high level of carboxyhaemoglobin can transferred from tissues to the lungs in the
lead to hypoxia. If the level of carboxyhaemoglobin in blood form of carbamino compounds
reaches up to 0.1 to 5%, the functioning of central nervous (d) In a healthy person, the haemoglobin content
system is affected which causes death. is more than 25 gms per 100 ml
(e) In lungs, the oxygen from the alveolus (d) C–Alveoli thin walled vascular bag like
reaches the blood through active transport structures for exchange of gases
Kerala PMT-2009 NEET-2013
Ans. (a) : The H+ released from carbonic acid combines Ans. (d) : Alveoli is a thin walled vascular bag like
with haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid. structure for exchange of gases.
haemoglobinic acid, very weak acid formed inside red Alveoli are tiny air sacs present in the lungs which
blood cells when hydrogen ions combine with appears as a bunch of grapes. In the average adult lungs,
haemoglobin. Oxyhaemoglobin to dissociate into Hb there is an average of 480 million alveoli. They mainly
and O2. The O2 diffuses into the tissue cell and Hb acts promote the exchange of gases.
as a buffer for the excess hydrogen ions, which take up 165. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is
to form haemoglobinic acid. (a) Sigmoid (b) Hyperbolic
162. The enzyme essential for the transport of CO2 (c) Linear (d) Hypobolic
as bicarbonate in blood is TS EAMCET-28.09.2020 Shift-I / JIPMER-2017
(a) Carboxypeptidase Kerala PMT-2014 / UP CPMT-2009
(b) Succinic dehydrogenase Punjab MET-2009 / Rajasthan PMT-2009
(c) Carbonic anhydrase DUMET-2007 / BCECE-2007
(d) Thrombokinase Ans. (a) :
(e) Lactase
KVPY (SA)-2020
Kerala PMT-2012
Ans. (c) : The enzyme essential for the transport of CO2
as bicarbonate in blood is carbonic anhydrase. Carbonic
anhydrase in mostly active in RBC. When red blood
cells reach the lungs, the same enzyme helps to convert
the bicarbonate ions back to carbon dioxide.
163. Bohr effect is related with • The hemoglobin dissociation curve is also known as
(a) reduced carbon level in lymph the oxygen dissociation curve. The curve is obtained
(b) reduced oxygen level in haemoglobin by plotting the graph where the saturation of oxygen
in the vertical axis and oxygen affinity or partial
(c) oxidized phosphorus level in blood pressure in the horizontal axis.
(d) reduced carbon dioxide level in blood • The oxyhaemoglobin curve which obtains in usually
AIIMS-1995 a sigmoid in shape.
Ans. (b) : Bohr effect is the phenomenon where by 166. When temperature deceases oxy-Hb curve will
affinity at the respiratory pigment of the blood for become
oxygen is reduced and the level of carbon dioxide is (a) more steep (b) straight
increased. This lower affinity in turn, enhances the (c) parabola (d) All of these
unloading of O2 into tissue to meet the O2 demand of KVPY SB & SX-2016 / AIIMS-2010
the tissue. UP CPMT-2007
164. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of Ans. (a) : When temperature decreases oxy-Hb curve
human respiratory system with labels A, B, C will become more steeper. This is because the
and D. Select the option which gives correct haemoglobin molecules are less flexible at lower
identification and main function and/or temperature and they are therefore less likely to release
oxygen. This means that the blood will be able to carry
characteristic:- more oxygen to the tissues at lower temperature.
(a) D – Lower end of lungs – diaphragm pulls it

down during inspiration
(b) A – Trachea long tube supported by
complete cartilaginous rings for conducting 167. The majority of carbon dioxide produced by
inspired our body cells is transported to the lungs-
(c) B – Pleural membrane - surround ribs on both (a) Dissolved in the blood
sides to provide cushion against rubbing (b) As bicarbonates
(c) As carbonates Ans. (b) : With the increase in the level of CO2, the pH
(d) Attached to hemoglobin of blood become acidic and simultaneously
BCECE-2013 / AIPMT-2006 haemoglobin affinity for oxygen decreases. This means
Ans. (b) : The majority of carbon dioxide produced by that haemoglobin holds on to oxygen less tightly, thus
our body cells is transported to the lungs as releasing it more readily.
bicarbonates. Only about 20% of carbon dioxide is • CO2 binds to 4 time fastly to heamoglobin compare to
transported as dissolved gas in the blood and about 7% O2.
is transported attached to haemoglobin.
Carbon dioxide is transported in blood in three main
ways i.e. dissolved in the blood, as bicarbonate and
attached to haemoglobin.
168. When a man inhales air containing normal
concentration of O2 as well as CO he suffers
from suffocation because
(a) CO reacts will O2 as well as CO he suffers
from suffocation because
(b) haemoglobin combines with CO instead of O2
and forms carboxyhaemoglobin 171. Assertion : O2 easily diffuses from alveoli to
(c) CO affects diaphragm and intercostal muscles tissues and CO2 from tissue to alveoli.
(d) CO affects the nerves of the lungs. Reason : Alveoli is 2-celled thick and capillaries
MHT CET-2018 / BVP-2012 are thin walled.
AIIMS-2008 / Rajasthan PMT-1999 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Ans. (b) : Carbon monoxide (CO) has a much higher explanation of A
affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen. This mean that (b) Both A and R re true but and R is the not
when a person inhales air containing both CO and O2, correct explanation of A
the CO will bind to the haemoglobin in the red blood (c) A is true but R is false
cells (RBC) much more readily than the O2. The (d) A and R are false
binding of CO with haemoglobin form AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I
carboxyhaemoglobin which prevents the haemoglobin Ans. (c): All the factor in our body are favourable for
from carrying oxygen to the tissues, which can lead to diffusion of O2 from alveoli to tissues and CO2 from
suffocation and causes death. tissues to alveoli. Alveoli are one thick walled with
169. A person sitting at rest experiences a simple squamous epithelial cells containing
temporary cessation of breathing after forced extracellular matrix and capillaries found in lungs. This
deep breathing for a few minutes. This is due to single layer of squamous cell is ideal for the diffusion of
(a) Too much CO2 in the blood gases in the lungs.
(b) Too much O2 in the blood 172. CO2 combines with Hb to form:
(c) Very little CO2 in the blood (a) Carbaminohaemoglobin
(d) Both high O2 and very little CO2 in the blood (b) Carboxy haemoglobin
AIIMS-2014 (c) Oxyhaemoglobin
Ans. (d) : Deep breathing rises the O2 level of the (d) Methaemoglobin
blood. Acidity of blood increases due to excess AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-II
formation of oxyhaemoglobin. To maintain pH, more Ans. (a) : Carbon dioxide (CO2) combines with
free CO2 changes to bicarbonates and free CO2 level in haemoglobin to form Carbaminohaemoglobin.
blood decreases. The lack of stimulant for inspiratory This reaction does not involve the iron atom of
center, cessation of breathing occurs. After some time haemoglobin, which is responsible for binding oxygen
O2 is consumed by the tissues and rise in CO2 stimulates 20-25% of the total carbon dioxide transported in the
breathing again. blood as the form of carbaminohemoglobin. At high
170. Oxygen binding to haemoglobin in blood is PCO2 and low pH, carbon dioxide binds with Hb and
(a) directly proportional to the concentration of form carboxyhemoglobin.
CO2 in the medium 173. How the transport of O2 and CO2 by blood
(b) inversely proportional to the concentration of happens?
CO2 in the medium (a) With the help of WBCs and blood serum
(c) directly proportional to the concentration of (b) With the help of platelets and corpuscles
CO in the medium (c) With the help of RBCs and blood plasma
(d) independent of the concentration of CO in the (d) With the help of RBCs and WBCs
medium BCECE-2015 / Rajasthan PMT-2001
AIIMS-2012 AIPMT-1996 / AIPMT-1993
Ans. (c) : The transport of oxygen (O2) and carbon 177. Study the below diagram. In the diagram
dioxide (CO2) by blood happens with the help of RBCs N= Oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve
and blood plasma. The blood serves as a transport M = Left side shift of the curve
system for both carbon dioxide (CO2) and oxygen. 3% O = Right side shift of the curve
of oxygen is transported by plasma and 97% is carried Identify the factors p, q, r, s, t and u in the
by RBCs. Oxygen is carried to the cells whereas CO2 is graph.
carried away from the cells. 20-25% CO2 is transported
as carbaminohaemoglobin and 70% of it is
bicarbonates. About 7% of CO2 is transported in
plasma.
174. At high altitude, the RBCs in the human blood
will
(a) increase in number (b) decrease in number
(c) increase in size (d) decrease in size
AIPMT-1995
Ans. (a) : At high altitude, the RBCs in the human (a) p, s = CO2 ; q, t = Temperature ; r, u = pH
blood will increase in number. In high altitudes, the (b) p, s = CO2 ; q, t = pH ; r, u = Temperature
concentration of oxygen in the air is less. The RBC is (c) p, s = O2 ; q, t = Temperature ; r, u = pH
able to take up less oxygen only. Thus, the red blood (d) p, s = pH ; q, t = CO2 ; r, u = Temperature
cell (RBCs) count increase in people living in high AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-I
altitude. Erythropoietin, Stimulates RBCs production Ans. (d) : When the PCO2, H+ and temperature increase
from bone marrow in order to increase hemoglobin then oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve shift right
saturation and O2 delivery, hence the total number of but when decrease H+ and temperature then oxygen
RBCs increase. haemoglobin dissociation curve shift left.
175. Although much CO2 is carried in blood, yet So, p,s = pH, q t = CO2, r, u = temperature.
blood does not become acidic, because 178. CO2 carried from the tissue cells in the blood is
(a) CO2 is continuously diffused through the in the form of____
tissues and in not allowed to accumulate (a) Na2CO3 only (b) NaHCO3 and KHCO3
(b) In CO2 transport, blood buffers play an (c) NaHCO3 only (d) NaCO3 and NaOH
important role MHT CET-2019
(c) CO2 is absorbed by the leucocytes Ans. (b) : CO2 carried from the tissue cells in the blood
(d) CO2 combines with water to form H2CO3 is in the form of bicarbonate i.e. chiefly sodium
bicarbonate in the plasma and potassium bicarbonate in
which is neutralised by NaCO3. the corpuscles.
AIPMT-1995 • Nearly 70 of the total CO2 produce in the body is
Ans. (b) : Although much CO2 is carried in blood, yet carried as bicarbonate.
blood does not become acidic, because in CO2 transport, 179. Assertion (A): In the transport of carbon
blood buffers play an important role. CO2 plays various dioxide by blood, bicarbonates are formed in
roles in human body including regulation of blood pH, plasma and in red blood cells, but more rapidly
respiratory drive and affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. in RBC.
The main buffer present in the blood is bicarbonate Reason (R): RBC contains higher quantity of
(HCO3– ) . In erythrocytes which are also known as carbonic anhydrase than in plasma.
RBCs in the cell, where bicarbonate ion production take
(a) Both A and R are true. R is the correct
place. Bicarbonates is a substance called a base, which explanation of A.
the body needs to keep a normal acid base (pH) balance. (b) Both A and R are true. R is not correct
176. Which of the following curve shows, how explanation of A.
oxygen is loaded and unloaded due to partial (c) A is true but R is false
pressure? (d) A is false but R is true
(a) O2 curve (b) CO2 curve TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-II
(c) Bohrs curve (d) O2 dissociation curve CG PMT-2004
JCECE-2002 Ans. (a) : In the transport of CO2 by blood,
Ans. (d) : The O2 dissociation curve plots the bicarbonates are formed in plasma and in red blood
percentage saturation against the partial pressure of O2 cells, but more rapidly in RBC.
and its contribution to the total O2 content. Oxygen is CO 2 + H 2 O ↽
Carbonic
⇀ H 2 CO3 ↽ Carbonic ⇀ HCO3 + H +
transported with the assistance of red blood cells. The anhydrase anhydrase
red blood cells contain haemoglobin. Haemoglobin (carbonic

acid ) ( Bicarbonate
ion )
binds four molecules of O2 and form oxyhaemoglobin. This reaction also occurs in plasma, it is thousand times
The oxygen molecules are carried to individual cells in faster in erythrocytes because they contain carbonic
the body tissue where they are released. anhydrase enzyme.
180. Oxygen is transported by Ans. (b) :
(a) Blood plasma (b) Leucocytes A. Percent at CO2 as bicarbonate = 70%
(c) RBC (d) Thrombocytes B. O2 through plasma is = 3%
CG PMT-2005 C. CO2 as carbamino compounds = 20 – 25%
D. O2 through RBC = 97%
Ans. (c) : Oxygen is transported by RBC. They do so
E. CO2 in dissolved state = 7%
with the help of haemoglobin, a respiratory pigment.
So in ascending sequence is B < E < C < A < D
• Blood plasma contains protein and other constituents
184. Maximum amount of oxygen is exchanged from
of whole blood in suspension.
the blood in the …….
181. Left shift of oxyhaemoglobin curve is noticed (a) Arteries of the body
under (b) Capillaries surrounding tissue cells
(a) normal temperature and pH (c) Capillaries surrounding the alveoli
(b) low temperature and high pH (d) Left auricle of the heart
(c) low pH and high temperature BCECE-2012 / Karnataka CET-2005
(d) low pH and low temperature Ans. (c) : Maximum amount of oxygen is exchanged
TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-I from the blood in the capillaries surrounding the alveoli.
JCECE-2012 This is because the alveoli have more surface area for
gas exchange and the capillaries are very thin, which
Ans. (b) : Low temperature and high pH can shift the allows for more oxygen to diffuse into the blood
oxygen dissociation curve in the left side. The 185. Which is called Hamburger shift?
oxyhaemoglobin curve which obtains in usually a (a) Hydrogen shift (b) Bicarbonate shift
sigmoid in shape. (c) Chloride shift (d) Sodium shift
182. Read the following statements: Karnataka CET-2013 / VMMC-2009
(I) H+ ions released from H2CO3 combine with Ans. (c) : The exchange of bicarbonate ions of RBCs and
haemoglobin forming haemoglobin acid chloride ions of plasma is called the Hamburger shift or
(II) Right side shift of oxygen-haemoglobin chloride shift. This process occurs in a cardiovascular
curve is due to high pH and low system and refers to the exchange of bicarbonate and
temperature chloride ions across the membrane of RBCs.
• Within our tissues, the cells produce a bunch of CO2
(III) More than 70% of CO2 is transported as
molecules that are ultimately expelled by the cell and
carbamino compounds travel to blood plasma.
(IV) In lungs, oxygen reaches the blood by
186. In lungs, the air is separated from the venous
active transport blood through_______
Among the above the correct statements are: (a) Squamous epithelium+Tunica media of blood
Options: vessels
(a) I (b) I, II (b) Squamous epithelium+Transitional epithelium
(c) I, II, III (d) I, II, III, IV (c) Squamous epithelium + Endothelium of blood
AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-II vessels
Ans. (a) : Right side shift of oxygen haemoglobin curve (d) Transitional epithelium + Tunica externa of
blood vessels
is due to low pH and high temperature.
AP EAPCET-07.09.2021 Shift-I
• Approximately 70% of CO2 is transported in the
Ans. (c) : In lungs, the air is separated from the venous
blood as bicarbonate ion in the RBC. blood through squamous epithelium and endothelium of
• In lungs, oxygen reaches the blood by free diffusion blood vessels.
and by convection. It is a passive transport. The air in the alveoli of the lungs is separated from
183. Study the following forms of transport of the venous blood in the capillaries by a thin membrane
respiratory gases called the alveolar capillary membrane. This membrane
(A) CO2 as bicarbonates made up of two layers the squamous epithelium of the
(B) O2 through plasma alveoli and the endothelium of the capillaries.
(C) CO2 as carbamino compounds 187. Match the following
(D) O2 through RBC List-I List-II
(E) CO2 in dissolved state (A) pO2 of alveoli lungs (I) 40 mm Hg
Arrange the above in sequence in ascending (B) pO2 of (II) 95 mm Hg
order based on their percentages. atmospheric air
Options : (C) pO2 of deoxygenated (III) 104 mm Hg
(a) B - D - A - C - E (b) B - E - C - A - D blood
(c) A - D - E - C - B (d) A - E - C - B - D (D) pO2 of oxygenated (IV) 159 mm Hg
AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-I / Kerala PMT-2014 blood
(A) (B) (C) (D) Ans. (d) : People generally suffer nausea, fatigue, heart
(a) (II) (IV) (I) (III) palpitations, and other symptoms at high altitudes like
(b) (III) (IV) (I) (II) Rohtang pass due to the lack of oxygen. The air
(c) (III) (II) (I) (IV) pressure at high altitudes is lower than at sea level,
(d) (II) (IV) (III) (I) which means that there is less oxygen in the air. This
TS EAMCET-15.05.2016 can cause the body to work harder to breathe and can
lead symptoms of altitude sickness.
Ans. (b) :
• Temperature and light do not have a significant
pO2 of alveoli lung → 104 mm Hg impact on the symptoms of altitude sickness.
pO2 of atmospheric air → 159 mm Hg
191. Which of the following does NOT take place
pO2 of deoxygenated blood → 40 mm Hg during inspiration ?
pO2 of oxygenated blood → 95 mm Hg (a) Intercostal muscles contract
188. Statement I : The amount of CO2 that can (b) Muscles of diaphragm relax
diffuse through the membrane, per unit (c) Ribs are pulled outward
difference in the partial pressure, is much (d) Volume of thoracic cavity increases
higher than that of O2 MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
Statement II : The solubility of CO2 is 20 to 25 Ans. (b) : During inspiration the intercostal muscles of
times higher than that of O2 diaphragm contract and flattened and during expiration
The correct option among the following is muscles of diaphragm relax and dome-shaped structure.
(a) Both statements are correct The intercostal muscles helps to pull the ribs outwards
(b) Both statements are false and increase the volume of the thoracic cavity.
(c) Only statement I is correct 192. The pCO2 of alveolar blood is _______ mmHg.
(d) Only statement II is correct (a) 30 (b) 104
(c) 45 (d) 90
TS EAMCET-28.09.2020 Shift-II MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (a) : The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through Ans. (c) : The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2)
the membrane per unit difference in the partial pressure, is the measure of carbon dioxide within anterior or
is much higher than that of O2 because CO2 is more venous blood. The lungs generally under normal
soluble in water than O2. The solubility of CO2 is 20 to physiologic conditions the value of pCO2 range between
25 times higher than that of O2. 40 to 45 mm Hg. The solubility of CO2 is much greater
According to Henry’s law, a gas that will dissolve in a than that of O2.
liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas 193. Which option is completely correct for the
and its solubility. given statements:
189. Find the correctly matched pair Statement 1: The nerve impulse ordered by
(a) CO2 transported by RBCs – about 3% respiratory centre passes through nerve to the
(b) CO2 carried in a dissolved state through diaphragm and the intercostal muscles and
plasma – about 20-25% regulates respiration.
(c) O2 transported by RBC in the blood–about 97% Statement 2: Respiratory centres scatterly
(d) CO2 carried as bicarbonate – about 7% located in brain stem gives rhythmic stimuli to
(e) O2 carried in a dissolved state through plasma diaphragm and respiratory muscle and
– about 70% regulate respiration.
Kerala PMT-2013 (a) First statement is correct and second
statement is wrong
Ans. (c) : Haemoglobin is the primary carrier of oxygen (b) First statement is wrong and second statement
in humans. Oxygen is transported from lungs to the is correct
body cells in the form of oxyhemoglobin.
(c) Both of the statement are wrong
Approximately 97% of total oxygen transport in the
blood is bound to haemoglobin while 3% dissolved in (d) Both of the statement are correct
plasma and cells. GUJCET-2014
Ans. (d) : The respiratory rhythm centre is located in
G. Regulation of Respiration the medulla in the hindbrain. The nerve impulse ordered
by the respiratory center passes through nerves to the
190. People generally suffer nausca, fatigue, heart diaphragm and intercostals muscles because the nerve
palpitations etc. at high altitudes like Rohtang impulse from the respiratory center, travel through the
pass due to changes in phrenic nerves to the intercostal muscles.
(a) Temperature, Light • The respiratory centers are scatteredly located in the
(b) Light, Pressure brain stem and give up rhythmic stimuli to the diaphragm
(c) Oxygen, Carbondioxide and respiratory muscles because the respiratory center is
not a single structure, but rather a network of neurons that
(d) Pressure Oxygen are scattered throughout the medulla oblongata.
TS EAMCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II
194. The faster breathing in high fever is due to the: 199. The respiratory centre in the brain is
(a) additional requirement of O2 for the invader stimulated by :-
germs (a) CO2 concentration in venous blood
(b) high temperature of the body (b) O2 concentration is artery blood
(c) mental worry of a patient (c) CO2 concentration in artery blood
(d) loss of appetite (d) O2 concentration in venous blood.
JIPMER-2015 AIPMT-2015 / J&K CET-2013
AIIMS-2001 / Rajasthan PMT-2001
Ans. (b) : The higher body temperature increases the Ans. (c) : The respiratory centre in the brain is
metabolic rate due to the increases in the kinetic energy stimulated by CO2 concentration in artery blood.
of various molecules involved in the biochemical The respiratory centre of the brain is present in the
reactions of the body. Due to the increased metabolism, medulla oblongata and pons.
there is an increased demand for oxygen by the cells
which is met by repeated contractions of the heart and The respiratory centre is made up of three neurons in
hence breathing is also accelerated to increases the which two of them present in the medulla oblongata and
exchange rate of oxygen and carbon dioxide. one in the pons. Pneumotaxic centre is present in pons.
In healthy individuals, the respiratory centre in the
195. The oxygen toxicity is related with brain is stimulated by the presence of elevated carbon
(a) Blood poisoning dioxide levels in the arterial blood.
(b) Collapse of alveolar walls The respiratory centre responds in order to signal the
(c) Failure of ventilation of lungs respiratory muscle to breath.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
• Special chemical receptors present near the carotid
BVP-2012 / BVP-2007
MGIMS Wardha-2006 arteries and aortic arteries are responsible for detecting a
decrease in blood pH, increase in CO2 levels.
Ans. (c) : Oxygen toxicity is a condition that occurs When these carotid and aortic bodies detect low
when the body is exposed to too much oxygen . Oxygen oxygen levels, they stimulate the respiratory centre in
toxicity is mostly related to the failure of ventilation of the brain to increase the rate and depth of breathing.
lungs, this is because the lungs are not properly
ventilated the oxygen levels in the blood can rise to 200. The normal rate of respiration in man per
dangerous levels. minute is about :
196. Pneumotaxic center is present in (a) 10 to 15 times (b) 16 to 20 times
(a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) 19 to 21 times (d) 23 to 25 times
Rajasthan PMT-2001
(c) Medulla oblongata (d) Pons varolii
BCECE-2008 Ans. (a) : The respiratory rate or breathing rate, is the
Ans. (d) : The pneumotaxic center is present in pons number of breaths take per minute. A breath simply
varolii. It sends message to DRG neurons to stop means one inhalation and one exhalation. The normal
inspiration so that expiration can take place. respiratory rate in man is 12-18 breaths/minute. The
breathing rate may differ under different conditions.
197. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) :
(a) is caused by a variant of Pneumococcus 201. Assertion (A): Respiratory pathway is
pneumonia considered as an amphibolic pathway.
(b) is caused by a variant of the common cold Reason (R): Respiratory pathway is connected
virus (corona virus) with the breakdown and the synthesis of both
(c) is an acute form of asthma proteins and fatty acids.
(d) affects non-vegetarians much faster than the The correct option among the following is:
vegetarians (a) (A) is true. (R) is true and (R) is the correct
Haryana PMT-2004 explanation for (A)
Ans. (b) : Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a (b) (A) is true. (R) is true but (R) is not the
viral respiratory disease caused by a (SARS) – associated correct explanation for (A)
corona virus. It was first identified at the end of February (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
2003 during an outbreak that emerged in China and spread
to 4 other countries. Viral tests antigen test are used as (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
diagnostic tests to detect current infection. TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-II
SARS was caused by a corona virus, the same family Ans. (a) : Respiration involves catabolism because
of viruses that causes some common colds. during respiration, various substrates are broken down
for deriving energy. Carbohydrates breaks into glucose
198. Asthma is caused due to _______ & fats into fatty acid and glycerol. Before entering in
(a) Infection of streptococcus pneumonia respiration fatty acid converted into acetyl CoA. In a
(b) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles similar manner proteins are converted into amino acid
(c) Alveolar walls are damaged which enter respiration after deamination.
(d) None of these options are correct • The respiration pathway is called the amphibolic
WB JEE-2006 / AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-II pathway because it involves both catabolism and
NEET-2016 Phase-I anabolism. During synthesis of fatty acids, acetyl CoA. is
Ans. (b) : Difficulty in breathing and wheezing due to withdrawn from respiratory pathway & in the synthesis of
inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles are the proteins, respiratory substrate get withdrawn. Thus
symptoms of asthma.The main cause of asthma such as respiration is also involved in anabolism.
pollen, dust, smoke etc. Hence, the (a) option is a correct answer.
H. Respiratory's disorder Ans. (b) : Chronic obstructive lung disease (COLD) is a
condition due to chronic bronchitis and emphysema.
202. Given below are two statements: one is labelled Over time, COLD makes it harder to breathe. You can’t
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as reverse lung damage, but lifestyle changes and
Reason (R). medication changes can help you manage the
Assertion (A) : A person goes to high altitude symptoms.
and experiences “Altitude 206. Occupational lung diseases that occurs in
Sickness” with symptoms like humans, among those given below is:
breathing difficulty and heart (a) Dyspnea (b) Anthracosis
palpitations. (c) Atelectasis (d) Cyanosis
Reason (R) : Due to low atmospheric AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-II
JIPMER-2015 / VMMC-2013
pressure at high altitude, the
body does not get sufficient Ans. (b) : Anthracosis is an occupational hazard for
oxygen. workers. Anthracosis is a milder form of black lung disease.
• Dyspnea is difficult, painful breathing or shortness
In the light of the above statements, choose the of breath.
correct answer from the options given below : • Atelectasis is the inability of the lungs to expand at
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the breathing.
correct explanation of (A) • Cyanosis is a blue or purple colour of the skin, lips,
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the nails and mucous membranes due to low Hb.
correct explanation of (A) 207. Which one of the following is the correct
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false statement for respiration in humans?
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true (a) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis
Ans. (a) : Correct option is (a) because, altitude (b) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried
sickness is experienced at high altitude where body does by haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin
not get enough oxygen due to low atmospheric pressure (c) Cigarettee smoking may lead to inflammation
and cause nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations. of bronchi
203. Which respiratory disorder causes recurrent (d) Neural signal from pneumotaxic centre in
alveolar hemorrhage? pons region of brain can increase the duration
of inspiration
(a) Asbestosis (b) Silicosis
AIPMT (Screening)-2012
(c) Siderosis (d) Bronchitis
Ans. (a) : The worker in grinding and stone breaking
industries may suffer from lung fibrosis disease.
Ans. (c) : Siderosis causes recurrent alveolar • Lung fibrosis is an occupational respiratory disorder
hemorrhage. Siderosis is the deposition of excess iron where the dust produced is so high that the body's
or iron oxide in body tissue. Same time, lung may also defense mechanism is unable to cope.
be affected then it’s called pulmonary siderosis or • The prolonged exposure is the result of proliferation
Welder’s disease. of fibrous tissue in lung which causes serious damage.
Pulmonary siderosis is a rare occupational lung disease
208. Match the following
that occurs due to chronic inhalation of iron compounds.
Set-I Set-II
204. Which of the following is not a lung disorder ?
(a) Asthma (b) Bronchitis A Emphysema i Lung infection caused
by bacteria
(c) Tuberculosis (d) Typhoid
Tripura JEE-2022
B Asthma ii Damage to alveolar
walls by tobacco
Ans. (d) : Typhoid fever is a life threatening infection smoke
caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. It is usually
spread through contaminated food or water. C Siderosis iii Iron particle
deposition in lung
Many lungs disorder such as asthma infections, tissues
pneumonia, bronchitis, tuberculosis, lung cancer and
D Pneumonia iv Inflammation of
many other breathing problems are found. Some lung bronchi and
diseases can lead to respiratory failure. bronchioles
205. Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (COLD) is a The correct match is
condition due to (A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) Common viral infection (a) iv ii iii i
(b) Chronic Bronchitis and Emphysema (b) ii i iii iv
(c) Untreatable bacterial Infection (c) ii iv iii i
(d) Acute Bronchitis with inflammation (d) i ii iv iii
SRM JEEE-2019 / NEET-2018 TS EAMCET-09.05.2019 Shift-I
AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015 TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-I
Ans. (c) : (c) Emphysema (d) Eupnoea
Set-I Set-II Karnataka CET-2011
(A) Emphysema Damage to alveolar walls Ans. (b) : Asphyxia is the extreme condition caused by
by tobacco smoke. lack of oxygen and excess of carbon dioxide in the
(B) Asthma Inflammation of bronchi blood, produced by interference with respiration or
and bronchioles. insufficient oxygen in the air, suffocation. This
(C) Siderosis Iron particle deposition in condition largely results from lung disease,
lung tissues. hypoventilation, or environmental exposure.
(D) Pneumonia Lung infection caused by 214. Assertion : Dust particles when come in contact
bacteria. with respiratory tract lead to sneezing, running
nose, redness of eyes etc.
209. Respiratory disorders occur due to automobile
exhaust because of the release of Reason : Allergic disorders are caused due to
(a) CO (b) CH4 release of histamine.
(c) Cl (d) H2O (a) (A) is true. (R) is true and (R) is the correct
BHU PMT (Screening)-2011 explanation for (A)
Ans. (a) : Respiratory disorders occur due to (b) (A) is true. (R) is true but (R) is not the
automobile exhaust because of the release of CO. correct explanation for (A)
Automobile exhaust contains a high quantity of carbon (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
monoxide gas (CO). CO poisoning occurs when carbon (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
monoxide builds up in the blood. When too much CO is in AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I
the air, the body replaces the O2 in the RBCs with CO2. Ans. (a) : Dust particle may cause allergic reaction
CO may cause headache, chest pain (or angina), dizziness, leading to sneezing, redness of eyes and irritation. The
vomiting, muscle fatigue and confusion etc. mechanism involve immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies
210. Lung tuberculosis is caused by binding to an allergen and then to a receptor on mast
(a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa cells or basophils where it triggers the release of
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis inflammatory chemicals such as histamine.
(c) Streptococcus pneumoniae Hence, both A and R are true and R is the correct
(d) Escherichia coli explanation of A.
CMC Ludhiana-2015 / DUMET-2009 215. Congestion of the lungs is one of the main
Ans. (b) : Lung tuberculosis is caused by symptoms in :
‘Mycobacterium tuberculosis’. Tuberculosis (TB) is a (a) Hypotension (b) Coronary artery disease
communicable disease caused by the bacillus (c) Angina (d) Heart failure
Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Nowdays, TB (e) Atherosclerosis
(tuberculosis) is still one of the top ten causes of death Kerala PMT-2011
worldwide. About a quarter of one world’s population is Ans. (d) : Congestion of the lungs is one of the main
infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. symptoms in heart failure. Heart failure means the state
211. The state, during which the respiratory centre of heart, when it is not pumping blood effectively
is inhibited, is termed as enough to meet the need of the body. Sometimes it's
(a) Anoxia (b) Asphyxia called congestive heart failure because congestion of the
(c) Suffocation (d) Choking. lungs is one of the main symptoms of this disease. The
AIIMS-1994 / WB JEE-2011 most common cause of congestive heart failure is
Ans. (a) : Anoxia is a condition in which there is deficiency coronary artery disease.
in oxygen reaching the tissues that is severe enough to 216. Which one is an allergic disease?
damage the brain permanently. Respiratory centre controls (a) Bronchitis (b) Bronchial Asthama
the rate of respiration. It is located in medulla oblongata and (c) Emphysema (d) Pneumonia
pons. Anoxia is usually a result at hypoxia that means a part BCECE-2015
of body that does not have enough oxygen.
Ans. (b) : Bronchial asthma is allergic disease. It is a
212. Aspergillosis is a disease of: medical condition which causes the airway path of the
(a) Kidney (b) Heart lungs to swell and narrow. The disease is chronic and
(c) Lungs (d) Eyes interfere with daily working.
BVP-2001 / Manipal-2002
Ans. (c) : Aspergillosis is an infection caused by 217. Maximum amount of energy/ATP is liberated
Aspergillus (fungus) that lives indoors and outdoors. on oxidation of:
Aspergillus caused in an area of past lung disease or (a) Fats (b) Proteins
lung scarring such as tuberculosis or lung abscess. (c) Starch (d) Vitamins
Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis is a serious JCECE-2004
infection with pneumonia. It can spread to other Ans. (a) : Maximum amount of energy/ATP is liberated
parts of body. on oxidation of fats. Fats are complex molecules
213. When the blood contains a high percentage of composed of fatty acid and glycerol. Each gram of fat
CO2 and a very low percentage of O2, the supplies the body with about 9 calories of energy. The
breathing stops and the person becomes body needs fats for growth and energy. Complete
unconscious. This condition is known as ............. oxidation of one palmitate molecule (fatty acid
(a) Suffocation (b) Asphyxia containing 16 carbons) generates 129 ATP molecules.
02. BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION
Ans. (d) : A. White blood → (iii) Amoeboid
A. The blood and its Composition B. Mesophyll cells → (iv) Round and oval
1. Chyliferous duct empties the lymph into the C. Mesophyll cells → (ii) Round and biconcave
venous system at the junction of D. Trachied → Elongated.
(a) Right subclavian vein and internal jugular 4. Life span of blood platelets is
vein (a) 5 – 9 days (b) 1 – 2 days
(b) Left internal jugular vein and left subclavian
(c) 20 – 40 days (d) 35 – 50 days
vein
(c) Left subclavian vein and left precaval vein AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-I
(d) Right subclavian vein and right precaval vein Ans. (a) : Blood platelets, also known as thrombocytes
TS EAMCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II have a lifespan of approximately 5-9 days. These tiny
Ans. (b) : The chyliferous duct is a lymphatic duct that cells fragments play a important role in the clotting of
drains lymph from most of the body, including the blood to stop bleeding when we get injured. Platelets
abdomen, chest, and left arm. It empties into the venous are continuously replaced by the bone marrow to ensure
system at the junction of the left subclavian vein and the that there are enough of them in the blood stream to
left internal jugular vein. This is where the lymph from maintain a healthy blood clotting system.
the chyliferous duct mixes with the blood from the 5. Identify the correct option
subclavian vein and is returned to the heart. Statement – I(S-I) Haemoglobin binds with
2. Assertion (A) : CO2 that enters the RBC reacts oxygen in oxygen rich areas and leave CO2
with water of cytoplasm and forms carbonic Statement – II(S-I) Haemoglobin is an
acid amphoteric compound
Reason (R) : RBC contain a very concentration (a) S-I and S-II are incorrect
of carbonic anhydrase.
(b) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect.
(a) A and R are true, R is correct explanation for A
(b) A and R are true, but r is not correct (c) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct.
explanation for A (d) S-I and S-II are correct.
(c) A is true. But R is false AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II
(d) A is false. But R is true Ans. (d) : Both statement I and II are correct.
TS EAMCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II • Statement I is about the function of heamoglobin.
Ans. (a) : Assertion (A) is true. Carbon dioxide (CO2) Heamoglobin is a protein that is found in red blood
that enters the red blood cells (RBCs) reacts with water cells. It is responsible for transporting oxygen from
to form carbonic acid (H2CO3). This reaction is the lungs to the tissues, and carbon dioxide from the
catalyzed by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which is tissues to lungs. Heamoglobin binds with oxygen in
present in high concentrations in RBCs. the lungs because the oxygen molecules are attracted
• Reason (R) is also correct– RBCs contains a very high to the iron atoms in the haemoglobin molecule.
concentration of carbonic anhydrase. This enzyme helps • Statement II is about the chemical nature of
to speed up the reaction between CO2 and water, so that hemoglobin. Haemoglobin is an amphoteric
more CO2 can be transported from the tissues to the compound, which means that it can act as both an
lungs.
acid and base. This is due to presence of acidic
Therefore, both assertion and reason are true and reason functional group carboxylic acid and the basic
is the correct explanation for assertion. functional group are the amino groups.
6. The majority of the Rh antibodies produced by
Cell Name Shape the mother in Erythroblastosis foetalis are
A. White blood 1. Elongated (a) IgM (b) IgA
cells (c) IgE (d) IgG
B. Mesophyll cells 2. Round and AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I
biconcave
Ans. (d) : Erythroblastosis fetalis, also known as
C. Red blood cells 3. Amoeboid hemolytic disease of the newborn, it occurs when an
D. Tracheid 4. Round and oval Rh-negetive mother is exposed to Rh-positive fetal
(a) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – IV blood during pregnancy or childbirth, leading to the
(b) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – II mother is immune system producing IgG antibodies
(c) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II against the Rh antigen. These IgG antibodies can cross
(d) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I the placenta and attack the fetus red blood cells,
TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I potentially causing hemolytic anemia in the newborn.
Body Fluids and Circulation 48 YCT
7. Match List-I with List-II. 10. People living at sea level have around 5 million
List-I List-II RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood
(A) Eosinophils (i) 6-8% whereas those living at an altitude of 5400
metres have around 8 million. This is because
(B) Lymphocytes (ii) 2-3% at high altitude-
(C) Neutrophils (iii) 20-25% (a) People get pollution-free air to breathe and
(D) Monocytes (iv) 60-65% more oxygen is available.
Choose the correct answer from the options (b) Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more
given below : RBCs are needed to absorb the required
(a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) amount of O2 to survive.
(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv) (c) There is more UV radiation which enhances
(c) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) RBC production
(d) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii) (d) People eat more nutritive food, therefore
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) more RBCs are formed.
Ans. (a) : The eosinophils is a specialized cell generally AIPMT-2006 / BHU PMT-2010 / JCECE-2013
has a nucleus with two lobes. The lymphocytes can be Ans. (b) : Red blood cells (RBCs) are responsible for
indentified by their single large nucleus. Neutrophils are carrying oxygen from the lungs to the tissues of the
also called polymorphonuclear leucocytes as their body. The amount of oxygen that can be carried in the
nucleus is polymorphic. blood is directly proportional to the number of RBCs.
Eosinophil → 2-3% • At high altitudes, the atmospheric O2 level is less i.e.
Lymphocytes → 20-25% there is less oxygen in the air to breathe. In order to
Neutrophils → 60 - 65% survive, people at high altitudes need to produce more
Monocytes → 6-8% RBCs to absorb the required amount of O2.
11. Match the following columns and select the
correct option :
Column – I Column – II
A. Pneumotaxic i Alveoli
centre
B. O2 dissociation ii Pons region of
8. Which of the following statements are correct? curve brain
A. Basophils are most abundant cells of the C. Carbonic iii Haemoglobin
total WBCs anhydrase
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and D. Primary site of iv R.B.C.
heparin exchange of
C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory gases
response
D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus (a) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
E. Basophils are agranulocytes (b) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
Choose the correct answer from the options (c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
given below : (d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(a) A and B only (b) D and E only NEET-2020 Phase-II
(c) C and E only (d) B and C only Ans. (c) :
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023 (A) Pneumotaxic (ii) Pons region of
Ans. (d) : Basophils appears in more number during center brain
allergic reactions or inflammatory reaction. They (B) O2 dissociation (iii) Haemoglobin
produce heparin to prevent blood clotting and histamine curve
and serotonin to induce inflammation. (C) Carbonic (iv) R.B.C
• Basophils appear in many specific kind of anhydrase
inflammatory reactions. Particularly those that cause
allergic symptoms. Basophils contain anticoagulant (D) Primary site of (i) Alveoli
heparin which prevent blood clotting. exchange of
gases
• Histamine promotes flow of blood to tissue.
9. Colour of oxyhaemoglobin molecule is : 12. Match the following WBC listed with the shape
(a) Bright red (b) Bright blue of Nucleus and choose the correct option?
(c) Whitish blue (d) Orange white Types of WBC Shape of Nucleus
Haryana PMT-2001 i Monocytes A 2 lobes
Ans. (a) : Colour of oxyhaemoglobin molecule is ii Basophils B 3-5 lobes
bright red. Hemoglobin binds with the oxygen molecule iii Eosinophils C S-Shaped
formed oxyhaemoglobin. Colour of oxyhaemoglobin is
bright red colour because of the interaction between iv Neutrophils D Kidney shaped
iron and oxygen. E Disk shaped
(a) (i-D), (ii-C), (iii-A), (iv-B) 16. Match the animal listed in Column I with their
(b) (i-E), (ii-A), (iii-B), (iv-C) nature of blood listed in Column II Choose the
(c) (i-D), (ii-B), (iii-C), (iv-A) answer which gives the correct combination of
(d) (i-A), (ii-C), (iii-E), (iv-D) alphabets of the two columns.
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-II Column I Column II
Karnataka CET-2003
Ans. (a) : A. Man p. Plasma and cells
(i) Monocyte (D) Kidney shaped are colourless
(ii) Basophils (C) S-shaped B. Earthworm q. Plasma is
(iii) Eosinophils (A) 2 lobes colourless and
(iv) Neutrophils (B) 3-5 lobes nucleated RBC.
13. Under normal conditions the wall of RBC acts C. Cockroach r. Plasma is
as permeable membrane to which ions? colourless and
(a) Na + , K + (b) Na + , HCO − 3 enucleated RBC
D. Frog s. Plasma is red and
(c) Cl − HCO3− (d) K + , Cl − nucleated RBC
GUJCET-2018 t. Plasma and RBC
Ans. (c) : CO2 produced by cellular respiration it have hemoglobin.
diffuse into an RBC rapidly converted by carbonic
(1) A = s, B = t, C = r, D = q
anhydrase into bicarbonate ions. The carbonate ions in
turn leave the RBC in exchange for chloride ions, from (2) A = r, B = s, C = p, D = q
the plasma. (3) A = t, B = r, C = p, D = s
14. CO2, pH and O2 levels in the blood is detected (4) A = p, B = s, C = q, D = r
by which receptors? Karnataka CET-2010
(a) Baroreceptors Ans. (2) :
(b) Chemoreceptors Column I Column II
(c) Sensory receptors A. Man Plasma is colourless and
(d) Baroreceptors and chemoreceptors enucleated RBC
GUJCET-2017
B. Earthworm Plasma is red and nucleated
Ans. (b) : CO2, pH and O2 levels in the blood are RBC
detected by the central chemoreceptors present in
carotid bodies. The oxygen level is detected by the, C. Cockroach Plasma and cells are colourless
chemoreceptors present in aortic bodies and changes in D. Frog Plasma is colourless and
pH is detected by chemoreceptors present in the nucleated RBC.
venacava and also that of carotid bodies and aortic 17. The haemoglobin of a human foetus:
bodies. (a) has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4
15. Match the different type of Leucocytes (b) has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of
(Column-I) with their percentage of occurrence an adult
(Column-II) in a healthy adult human and (c) has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of an
choose the correct answer adult
Column-I Column-II (d) its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of
(1) Neutrophils (p) 6 - 8 % an adult
(2) Lymphocytes (q) 60 - 65 % AIPMT-2008
(3) Monocytes (r) 0.5 -1%
Ans. (b) : The haemoglobin of a human foetus has a
(4) Basophils (s) 2 - 3% higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult. This is
(5) Eosinophils (t) 20 - 25% because the foetus needs to obtain oxygen from the
Choose the correct option mother's blood, which has a lower oxygen content than
(a) (1) - (q), (2) - (r), (3) - (s), (4) - (t), (5) - (p) the air that adults breathe. This enables efficient oxygen
(b) (1) - (r), (2) - (s), (3) - (t), (4) - (q), (5) - (p) transfer to the developing foetus.
(c) (1) - (q), (2) - (t), (3) - (r), (4) - (s), (5) - (p)
(d) (1) - (q), (2) - (t), (3) - (p), (4) - (r), (5) - (s)
TSEAMCET-2022 (Shift-I)
Karnataka CET-2020
Ans. (d) :
Column-I Column-II
1. Neutrophils 60 - 65 %
2. Lymphocytes 20 - 25%
3. Monocytes 6-8%
4. Basophils 0.5 -1%
5. Eosinophils 2 - 3%
18. The most active phagocytic white blood cells Ans. (d) :
are: Neutrophils - 60-65%
(a) eosinophils and lymphocytes Lymphocytes - 20-25%
(b) neutrophils and monocytes Monocytes - 6-8%
(c) neutrophils and eosinophils Eosinophils - 2-3%
(d) lymphocytes and macrophages Basophils - 0.5-1%
JIPMER-2012 / GUCET-2011 / AIPMT-2008 Basophil→Eosinophils→
Ans. (b) : The most active phagocytic white blood cells Monocytes→Lymphocytes→Neutrophils
are neutrophils and monocytes. It able to destroy So the correct answer is A → C–E→B→d
infectious agents. Neutrophils also boost the response of
other immune cells. Monocytes cells are type of WBC’s 22. In a healthy adult man, the smallest type of
to help treat injury and prevent infection. leucocytes are –––––––––
(a) Lymphocytes (b) Monocytes
19. Which one of the following mammalian cells is (c) Basophils (d) Eosinophils
not capable of metabolizing glucose to
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-I
carbondioxide aerobically?
(a) Red blood cells Ans. (a) : Lymphocytes are the smallest type of
leucocytes in a healthy adult man. They have a
(b) White blood cells
diameter of 6-15 micrometers, while other types of
(c) Unstriated muscle cells leucocytes, such as monocytes, basophiles, and
(d) Liver cells eosinophils, have a diameter of 12-20 micrometers. It
AIPMT-2007 is a type of WBC which is part of immune system.
Ans. (a) : The aerobic respiration process in animal They are divided into b cells & T.cells.
cells is carried out in the mitochondria. At maturity, 23. CO2+H2O→H2CO3
mammalian red blood cells (RBC) lose all cell Number of H2CO3 molecules released in the
organelles and haemoglobin occupies the vaccum, so above reaction in the Absence and presence of
they also lack nuclei, mitochondria and all other major Carbonic anhydrase enzyme respectively
cell organelles. (a) 2000/hr and 6,00,000/hr
• They generate energy by fermentation through (b) 2000/hr and 60,000/hr
glucose glycolysis, followed by the production of (c) 200/s and 60, 000/s
lactic acid, in addition, red cells do not have an (d) 200/hr and 6,00,000/s
insulin receptor and thus, insulin does not control AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II
glucose uptake. As a result of the absence of nuclei
and organelles, new structural or repair proteins or Ans. (d) : 200/hr and 6,00,000/s
enzymes cannot be produced by cells and their In the absence of carbonic anhydrase, the reaction to
lifetime is reduced. form H2CO3 molecules is very slow, with only about
200 molecules formed in an hour. In the presence of
• RBCs are therefore unable to aerobically metabolize carbonic anhydrase, the reaction is catalyzed and speeds
glucose into carbondioxide and rely on anaerobic up dramatically, with about 600,000 molecules formed
respiration for their energy needs. every second. Carbonic anhydrase is the fastest
20. Haemoglobin is enzyme.
(a) an oxygen carrier in human blood 24. Assertion (A): Biconcave shape of mammalian
(b) a protein used as food supplement RBC facilitates gas exchange
(c) an oxygen scavenger in root nodules Reason (R) : Biconcave shape provides a high
(d) a plant protein with high lysine content surface to volume ratio
UPCPMT-2013 / JIPMER-2014 / DUMET-2011 (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
Ans. (a) : Haemoglobin (Hb) is a protein found in the explanation of A
red blood cell that carries oxygen in our body and gives (b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
blood its red colour. Haemoglobin levels vary from correct explanation of A
person to person. (c) A is correct but R is wrong
The normal haemoglobin level in healthy person is 12- (d) A is wrong but R is correct
16 gm/dl. When the Hb level is low patient has AP EAMCET-06.09.2021 Shift-I
anaemia. Ans. (a): Biconcave shape of mammalian RBC
21. Arrange the following in the ascending order of facilitates gas exchange. The biconcave shape allows
their number per cubic millimeter, present in RBCs to bend and flow smoothly through the body's
the blood. capillaries Biconcave shape provides a high surface
(A) Basophils (B) Lymphocytes volume ratio. The lack of nucleus in mammalian RBCs
(C) Eosinophils (D) Neutrophils increases the surface area for oxygen absorption.
(E) Monocytes 25. Pick up the mismatched pair
(a) A→C→B→D→E (b) C→A→D→E→B (a) Basophils – 6% (b) Eosinophils – 2.3%
(c) C→A→D→B→E (d) A→C→E→B→D (c) Neutrophils – 62% (d) Monocytes – 5.3%
AP EAMCET-2013 TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I
Ans. (a) : The percentage of basophils in the blood is 29. The haemoglobin content per 100 ml of blood
typically around 0.5% to 1%. of a normal healthy adult is
Types of WBCs Percentage (a) 12 - 16 g (b) 5 - 11 g
Neutrophils – 60% to 65% (c) 25 -30 g (d) 17 - 20 g
Lymphocytes – 20% to 25% AIPMT (Mains)-2010
Monocytes – 6% to 8% Ans. (a) : Haemoglobin is red coloured pigment
Eosinophils – 2% to 3% present in RBC of human. It transfers oxygen from
lungs to tissues and carries carbondioxide from cells
Basophils – 0.5% to 1% back to lungs so it can be expelled. The level of
26. Match the following : hemoglobin in normal adult human is 12 to 16 gm per
List-I List-II 100 ml of blood. Hemoglobin in a iron containing
(A) Kidney shaped nucleus (i) Eosinophil protein which are essential for transferring oxygen in
(B) Large spherical nucleus (ii) Monocytes your blood from the lungs to the tissue.
(C) Bilobed nucleus (iii) Neutrophil 30. There is no DNA in :
(D) Multilobed nucleus (iv) Platelets (a) Hair root
(v) Lymphocyte (b) An enucleated ovum
The correct answer is (c) Mature RBCs
A B C D (d) A mature spermatozoan
(a) (iii) (i) (v) (iv) AIPMT-2009
(b) (ii) (v) (i) (iii) Ans. (c) : Erythrocytes or red blood cell (RBCs) carry
(c) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) oxygen from the lungs to body tissue. They have a
biconcave shape that allows them to carry more oxygen
(d) (i) (v) (iii) (ii) than spherical cells. They also lack a nucleus and other
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II organelles, which allows them to have more space for
Ans (b): hemoglobin, the protein that binds oxygen.
List – I List - II 31. Choose the correct statement from the
a. Kidney shaped nucleus Monocytes following:
(a) Histamine, Serotonin and Heparin are
b. Large spherical nucleus Lymphocyte secreted by basophils
c. Bilobed nucleus Eosinophil (b) Person with blood group AB can donate
d. Multilobed nucleus Neutrophil blood to person with blood group A
27. Reduction in pH of blood will (c) Erythroblastosis foetalis may result when
(a) release bicarbonate ions by the liver, foetus is Rh –ve and mother is Rh +ve
(b) reduce the rate of heart beat (d) Atherosclerosis of often referred as
anginapectoris
(c) reduce the blood supply to the brain
Karnataka CET-2019
(d) decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with
oxygen Ans. (a) : Basophils are granular leucocytes. It secretes
histamine, serotonin and heparin and are involve in
NEET-2016 Phase-I inflammatory reaction.
Ans. (d) : A lower pH of blood increases carbon 32. Which one is correct?
dioxide concentration in blood. In this case carbon (a) Neuron = Cyton + Dendrite + Axon +
dioxide binds to haemoglobin and forms carbamino- Synapse
haemoglobin and decrease the affinity of haemoglobin (b) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC
with oxygen, this is called Bohr effect.
(c) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Blood
28. What is true about RBCs in Humans? platelets
(a) They carry about 20-25 percent of CO2 (d) Plasma = Blood + lymphocytes
(b) They transport 99.5 percent of O2 Karnataka CET-2007
(c) They transport about 80 percent oxygen only Ans. (c) : Blood is a special connective tissue consisting
and the rest 20 percent of its transported in of plasma, red blood cells, (RBCs), white blood cells
dissolved state in blood plasma (WBCs) and platelets. Plasma is a liquid portion of
(d) They do not carry CO2 at all blood with 55% of volume. RBCs are the most
AIPMT (Screening)-2010 abundant type of blood cell and they make up about
Ans. (a) : Blood is the medium of transport for O2 and 45% of blood volume. WBCs are preventing from
CO2, about 97 percent of O2 is transported by RBCs in infection and disease they make up about 1% of blood
the blood. The remaining 3 percent of O2 is carried in a volume. Platelets are responsible for blood clotting with
dissolved state through the plasma. 1% of total blood volume.
Nearly 20-25 percent of CO2 is transported by RBCs 33. At high altitude, RBC's of human blood will
whereas 70 percent of it is carried as bicarbonate. About (a) increase in number (b) decrease in number
7 percent of CO2 is carried in a dissolved state through (c) decrease in size (d) increase in size
plasma. JIPMER-2004
Ans. (a) : At high altitude the density of air gradually 37. A person with unknown blood group under
decreases, hence to carry more amount of oxygen to ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in
cell, more number of RBC is required. The symptoms an accident and needs immediate blood
appear within hours after arrival at high altitude and transfusion. His one friend who has a valid
include headache, nausea, fatigue and shortness of certificate of his own blood type, offers for
breath, etc. blood donation without delay. What would
34. Haldane effect refers to have been the type of blood group of the donor
(a) more acidity in the blood friend
(b) less acidity in the blood (a) Type A (b) Type B
(c) less basicity in the blood (c) Type AB (d) Type O
(d) more basicity in the blood AIPMT (Screening)-2011
JIPMER-2015 Ans. (d) Blood group O is the universal donor blood
Ans. (a) : The ions acts a strong acid in the form of oxy type, meaning that it can be safely transfused to people
hemoglobin. High acidity in the blood, since with any blood type. This is because blood group O
oxyhaemoglobin act as a strong acid it will increase the does not have any A or B antigens on the surface of the
acidity in the blood. A decrease in the pH of the blood, red blood cells, which are the molecules that the
due to an increase in the number of H+ ions, converts antibodies in the blood react to since the person's blood
HCO3 into H2O and CO2 in the presence of group is unknown, it is safest to give them blood from a
oxyhemoglobin, process called the Haldane effect. It is Type O donor.
due to the higher affinity of deoxygenated haemoglobin
for CO2 than oxyhaemoglobin. 38. Number of oxygen molecules bound in
saturated haemoglobin molecule.
(a) One (b) Two
List – I List - II
(c) Three (d) Four
A. Basophils 1. Phagocytosis
B. Neutrophils 2. Inflammation AP EAMCET-2010
C. Plasma cells 3. Blood clotting Ans. (d) : In a haemoglobin molecule there are four
D. Thrombocytes 4. Antibodies haem group per hemoglobin molecule that together bind
A B C D four oxygen molecule. It transfers oxygen from lungs to
(a) 2 1 4 3 tissues and carries carbondioxide back to lungs.
(b) 2 1 3 4 39. Antigen -Anti body complexes are removed by
(c) 1 2 4 3 (A) Platelets
(d) 4 1 2 3 (B) Eosinophils
Manipal- 2010 (C) Monocytes
AP EAMCET-2006 (D) RBC
Ans. (a) : Basophils - Inflammation (a) A and D (b) B and C
Neutrophils - Phagocytosis (c) A and C (d) B and D
Plasma cells - Antibodies AP EAMCET-12.07.2022 Shift-II
Thrombocytes - Blood clotting Ans. (b) : Eosinophil – It is a specialised cell of the
36. People who have migrated from the planes to immune system. This proinflammatory white blood cell
an area adjoining Rohtang pass about six generally has a nucleus with two lobes and cytoplasm.
months back: Monocytes – They are white blood cell that is obtain
(a) Suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms from the bone marrow. It takes part in the innate
like nausea, fatigue, etc immune response and functions.
(b) Have the usual RBC count but their 40. Assertion (A): Granulocytes are called
haemoglobin has very high binding affinity to polymorph - nuclear leucocytes
O2 Reason (R) : Nucleus of granulocytes is divided
(c) Have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has into many lobes and assumes
a lower binding affinity to O2 different shapes
(d) Are not physically fit to play games like (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
football explanation of A
BCECE-2015 (b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
AIPMT (Screening)-2012 correct explanation of A
Ans. (c) : People who have migrated from the planes to (c) A is correct but R is wrong
an area adjoining Rohtang pass about six months back (d) A is wrong but R is correct
have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has a lower
binding affinity to O2. The haemoglobin has a lower
binding affinity of O2 at higher altitude. So, there will Ans. (a) : Granulocytes are called polymorph - nuclear
be not enough oxygen to take inside the body, due to leucocytes. Nucleus of granulocytes is divided into
which faster breathing starts. The body will feel many lobes and assumes different shapes.
exhausted as more carbon dioxide is accumulated. Granulocytes are the most abundant of WBC.
41. Which of the following is NOT a nutrient in the Ans. (c) : Antiserum contains antibodies. Antibodies are
blood plasma? proteins that are produced by the body’s immune system in
(a) Glycine (b) Creatinine response to an antigen. They bind to the antigen and
(c) Fatty acid (d) Glucose neutralize it, preventing it from causing harm.
MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I 46. How much amount of oxygen is present in one
Ans. (b) : Blood plasma is a light straw–coloured liquid gram of haemoglobin?
component of blood in which blood cells are absent, but (a) 20 ml (b) 1.34 ml
which contains proteins and other constituents of whole (c) 40 ml (d) 13.4 ml
blood in suspension. It makes up about 55% of the AIIMS-1997
body's total blood volume. Ans. (b) : Haemoglobin is a protein found in red blood
The main role of plasma is to take nutrients, hormones cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the tissues.
and proteins to the parts of the body that need it. Each haemoglobin molecule can bind to four oxygen
Plasma also contains small amounts of minerals, molecules. So one gram of haemoglobin can carry 1.34
glucose, amino acids, lipids etc. They are always to 1.39 ml of oxygen.
transmit in body. 47. Serum is:
Creatinine is a waste product made by muscles as part (a) plasma
of regular, everyday acitvity.
(b) plasma minus fibrinogen
42. The corpuscles which form maximum number (c) plasma minus Ca+ ions
in normal total blood count are _____. (d) plasma minus gamma globulins
(a) erythrocytes (b) eosinophils
J&K CET-2002
(c) lymphocytes (d) thrombocytes
Ans. (b) : The serum is plasma without fibrinogen.
MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I
Serum is clear liquid part of the blood that remains after
Ans. (a) : Erythrocytes is a type of blood cell which is blood cells and clothing proteins have been removed.
found in the blood. Blood cells contain many types of
cells white blood cells (WBC) red blood cells (RBC) 48. If RBCs are placed in distilled water, they will
(erythrocytes) and platelets. (a) stick together (b) shrink
(c) burst (d) remain unchanged
43. The average life span of blood platelets is
_____days Assam CEE-2014
(a) 3-4 (b) 1-3 Ans. (c) : Distilled water is devoid of all solutes and it
(c) 11-15 (d) 5-10 is very hypotonic. Therefore, when red blood cells are
placed in a distilled water containing dish, the water
will move into the cells causing them to swell up and
Ans. (d) : Life-span of platelets is short which survive maybe even burst due to endomitosis.
only about ten days before they are removed from the
blood stream. 49. Which one of the following blood cells is
involved in antibody production?
Platelets are anuclear, granulated cells, 2 µm in (a) B-lymphocyte (b) T-lymphocyte
diameter derived from bone marrow megakaryocytes.
(c) RBC (d) Neutrophil
44. Given below are two statements : Assam CEE-2014
Statement I : The coagulum is formed of
network of threads called thrombins. Ans. (a) : Antibody are protein that are secreted by
some white blood cells. Antibodies attach to foreign
Statement II : Spleen is the graveyard of cells and mark them for destruction by the immune
erythrocytes. In the light of the above system.
statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below: Antibody released by B-cells are a type of lymphocytes
and hence are also referred to as B-lymphocytes.
(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct 50. Examination of blood of a person suspected of
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct having anaemia, shows large, immature,
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin.
incorrect Supplementing his diet with which of the
following, is likely to alleviate his symptoms?
(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(a) Thiamine
incorrect
(b) Folic acid and cobalamine
NEET-2022
(c) Riboflavin
Ans. (a) : Coagulum or clot is mainly forms a network (d) Iron compounds
of threads called fibrins. Hence, statement I is incorrect.
BHU PMT (Mains)-2010
RBCs are destroyed in the spleen so spleen is known as CMC Ludhiana-2009 / AFMC-2008
the graveyard of erythrocytes. So, statement II is
correct. Ans. (b) : A person suffer from anaemia shows large
immature nucleated erythrocyte without haemoglobin in
45. Antiserum contains this condition blood does not have enough healthy
(a) leucocytes (b) antigens RBCs, this leads to reduced oxygen flow to the body’s
(c) antibodies (d) all of these organs. Supplementing his diet with folic acid and
AIIMS-1997 cobalamin reduce these symptoms.
51. When a sea diver goes very deep he has to 56. Arrange the following formed elements in the
breathe on compressed air at high pressure. decreasing order of their abundance in blood in
After sometimes he loses his strength to work humans:
and feel drowsy. This is because of: (A) Platelets (B) Neutrophils
(a) compressed air (C) Erythrocytes (D) Eosinophils
(b) more CO2 diffusing into molecules (E) Monocytes
(c) more N2 diffusing in blood and body fats Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(d) nervous system does not work properly options given below:
BVP-2003 (a) (C), (A), (B), (E), (D)
Ans. (c) : When a sea diver goes very deep, he has to (b) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)
breathe on compressed air at high pressure This means (c) (D), (E), (B), (A), (C)
that the partial pressure of nitrogen in the air he breathes
is much higher than it is at the surface. As a result, more (d) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)
nitrogen dissolves in the diver’s blood and body tissues. NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
This is called nitrogen narcosis, or raptures of the Ans. (a) : Neutrophils (60%) :- Destroys invader cells,
deep. The drowsiness and loss of coordination are the like bacterial and viral, through a digestive process.
main reasons why a deep sea diver feels weak and can Lymphocytes (30%):- Protects the body and destroys
not work properly. invader cell using B-and T-cells.
52. Hematology is the study of: Monocytes (6%):- Help destroy invader cells through
(a) Bone (b) Blood the process of phagocytosis.
(c) Cartilage (d) Nerves Eosinophills (2-3%):- Plays an important role in
DUMET-2003 / BVP-2004 fighting parasitic infections allergic reactions.
Ans. (b) : Hematology is the study of blood and blood Basophils (0.6%):- Histamine based fighter cells also
disorders. Hematologists and hematopathologists are involved in allergy related ailments but according to
highly trained healthcare providers. They specialize in answer key option (a) is correct.
diseases of the blood and blood components. 57. Following are classified as plasma proteins
53. Which of the following is an anticoagulant and EXCEPT_______
checks blood coagulation in blood vessels ? (a) albumin (b) prothrombin
(a) Prothrombin (b) Globulin (c) thromboplastin (d) fibrinogen
(c) Thromboplastin (d) Heparin MHT CET-01.10.2020 Shift-I
Uttarakhand PMT-2006 Ans. (c) : Thromboplastin is an enzyme that is secreted
Ans. (d) : Heparin is a naturally occurring anticoagulant by blood platelets.
that is produced by the liver. It helps to prevent blood • Albumin is a protein made by the liver and it is a
clots from forming by binding to and inactivating carrier protein found in blood plasma.
proteins involved in the clotting process. • Thrombin is an enzyme that facilitates blood clotting by
54. In normal healthy female, the number of converting fibrinogen to fibrin while prothrombin is a
RBC/mm3 of blood is : glycoprotein that is converted into thrombin during
(a) 6.5-7.0 million (b) 5.5-6.0 million bleeding and subsequent clotting and other organs.
(c) 4.5-5.0 million (d) 3.5-4.0 million 58. Which ONE of the following human cells lacks
Uttarakhand PMT-2006 a nucleus?
Ans. (c) : In normal healthy female, the number of (a) Neutrophil (b) Neuron
RBC/mm3 of blood is 4.5 – 5.0 million RBCs contain (c) Mature erythrocyte (d) Keratinocyte
haemoglobin, which transport O2 to the tissues. In man KVPY (SA)-2018
about 5-6 million erythrocytes per mm3 of blood. Ans. (c) : Mature erythrocytes are the only human cells
55. Which type of WBCs are most abundant in that do not have a nucleus. This is because mature
blood of rabbit and other vertebrates ? erythrocytes are specialized to carry oxygen, and having
(a) Acidophils (b) Basophils a nucleus would take up space that could be used for
(c) Lymphocytes (d) Neutrophils hemoglobin.
Uttarakhand PMT-2006 • Neutrophils, neurons and keratinocytes all have nuclei.
Ans. (d) : Neutrophils are most abundant in the blood 59. Match the following columns and select the
of rabbit and other vertebrates. Neutrophil granulocytes correct option.
are the most abundant and form an essential part of the Column-I Column-II
innate immune system.
Acidophils is term used by histologists to describe a (A) Eosinophils (i) Immune response
particular staining pattern of cells and tissue when using (B) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
haematoxylin and eosin stains. (C) Neutrophils (iii) Release
Lymphocytes a type of immune cell that is made in the histaminase,
bone marrow and is found in the blood and in lymph destructive
tissue. The two main types of lymphocytes. enzymes
B–lymphocytes –make antibodies (D Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
T–lymphocytes–help kill tumor cells and help control containing
immune responses. histamine
(A) (B) (C) (D) Carbonic anhydrase is found in many tissues in the
(a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) body, including the red blood cells, gastric mucosa, and
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) renal tubules. In the red blood cells, carbonic anhydrase
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) helps to convert carbon dioxide into bicarbonate ions,
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) which are then transported to the lungs and exhaled.
NEET-2020 Phase-I Angiotensin and renin are hormones that are involved in
blood pressure regulation. Phosphorylase is an enzyme
Ans. (d) : that is involved in glycogen metabolism.
(A) Eosinophils (iii) Release histaminase,
destructive enzymes 63. Haemoglobin in man is made up of
(B) Basophils (iv) Release granules containing (a) 4 Polypeptide chains and 4 heme molecules
histamine. (b) 2 Polypeptide chains and 2 heme molecules
(C) Neutrophils (ii) Phagocytosis. (c) 4 Polypeptide chains and one heme molecules
(D) Lymphocytes (i) Immune response. (d) 2 Polypeptide chains and 1 heme molecule
60. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in AP EAPCET-11.07.2022 Shift-I
number can cause clotting disorder, leading to Ans. (a) : Haemoglobin in humans is made up of 4
excessive loss of blood from the body. polypeptide chains and 4 heme molecules.
(a) Erythrocytes (b) Leucocytes Haemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells. It is
(c) Neutrophils (d) Thrombocytes responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to
NEET-2016 Phase-II the tissues. Each polypeptide chain has a heme group
attached to it. The heme group is a non-protein part of
Ans. (d) : Platelets also known as thrombocytes. It the haemoglobin molecule that contain iron. The iron
plays a major role in blood clotting. A reduction in atom in the heme group is responsible for binding to the
number of thrombocyte can lead to clotting disorders haemoglobin molecule.
which will result in excessive loss of blood from body.
This very complex is formed by a series of linked 64. Rouleaux formation is related to which of the
enzymic reaction, this is called cascade process. cell/tissue?
(a) RBCs (b) WBCs
61. Erythropoiesis starts in:
(c) Platelets (d) Monocytes
(a) Liver (b) Spleen
JIPMER-2018
(c) Red bone marrow (d) Kidney
AIPMT-2015 Ans. (a) : Rouleaux formation is related to RBCs. It
refers to the stacking of 4 or more red blood cells. It is a
Ans. (c) : Erythropoiesis is the process of producing red
characteristic feature of RBCs. The presence of
blood cells (RBCs) It starts in the red bone center of rouleaux is a cause of disease because it will restrict the
some bones. The red bone marrow contains stem cells flow of blood throughout the body because capillaries
that can develops into RBCs. can only accept free flowing singular and independent
• The liver and spleen are also involved in red blood cells.
erythropoiesis, but they do not produce RBCs from
scratch. They recycle old RBCs and release the 65. Band 3 protein in RBC has the function of
hemoglobin from them into blood. The kidneys produce (a) it mediates the exchange of cellular HCO3−
a hormone called erythropoietin, which stimulates with Cl– in plasma
erythropoiesis in the red bone marrow. (b) it is a cytoplasmic protein
(c) it mediates the exchanger of cations between
cell and plasma
(d) Both (a) and (b)
JIPMER-2019
Ans. (a) : Band 3 protein in RBC mediates the
exchange of cellular HCO3– with Cl– in plasma, which
has been known as chloride shift.
Carbonic anhydrase, synergistic effects & land 3 protein
make red blood cells. which transport oxygen to tissues.
66. Select the option having all the correct
characteristics.
62. The enzyme present in RBC
(a) Angiotensin (b) Renin Structure Percentage Function
(c) Phosphorylase (d) Carbonic anhydrase (a) 0.3–0.5 Phagocytic
AP EAPCET-11.07.2022 Shift-I / AIPMT-1991
Ans. (d) : The enzyme present in RBCs is carbonic
anhydrase. Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that
catalyzes the reversible reaction of carbon dioxide and (b) 0.5–1.0 Secrete
water to form carbonic acid. This reaction is important histamine
for respiration, as it allows carbon dioxide to be and serotonin
transported from the tissues to the lungs.

(c) 30–40 Defence 70. Cells formed in bone marrow include
against (a) RBCs (b) RBCs and leucocytes
parasites (c) leucocytes (d) lymphocytes
AIPMT-1992
(d) 30–40 Allergic Ans. (b) : Red Bone marrow contains blood stem cells
reactions that can become red blood cells, white blood cells or
platelets. Yellow bone marrow is made mostly of fat
and contains stem cells that can become cartilage, fat or
AIIMS-2012, 2013 bone cells.
Ans. (b) : The structure in option (b) is a Basophils. 71. Component of blood responsible for producing
Basophils are types of WBC's produced by the body's antibodies is
immune system. Serotonin, heparin and histamine are (a) thrombocytes (b) monocytes
secreted by basophils, which have 2-3 lobed nucleus (c) erythrocytes (d) lymphocytes
and has granular cytoplasm. It ranges from 0.5-1.0 AIPMT-1992
percentage in blood. Ans. (d) Component of blood responsible for producing
• Structure in (a) is Neutrophil, which makes 60-70% antibodies is lymphocytes. Immune responses are
of total RBC's. It is an important part of immune carried out with the help of two special type of
system and help the body fight infection. lymphocyte, present in our blood i.e B lymphocyte and
• Structure in (c) is Eosinophil, which makes 2-3% T-lymphocyte. The B-lymphocytes produce antibodies
of total WBCs and participating in immediate allergic and T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but
reactions. help B-cells produce them.
• Structure in (d) is Lymphocyte, which are 72. Which of the following is agranulocyte?
responsible for immune response in the body. (a) Basophil (b) Neutrophil
67. Which of the following has highest pH? (c) Lymphocyte (d) Eosinophil
(a) Human saliva (b) Human blood AIPMT-1997
(c) Gastric juice (d) Urine Ans. (c) : Lymphocytes and monocytes are
AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I agranulocyte WBC. Lymphocytes have large single
nuclei that occupy most of the cells. They are an
Ans. (b) Blood is normally slightly basic, with a normal
important part of the body's immune system.
pH range about 7.35-7.45 usually the body maintains
the pH of blood close to 7.40. Human blood has highest Against foreign invaders such as infection and against
pH. cancerous cells. They also helps in removal of old &
dysfunctional cells from the body
• Human saliva has a normal pH range of 6.2 -7.6
with 6.7 being the average pH. 73. A: Composition of cell membrane of
Erythrocyte
• The normal volume of the stomach fluid is 20 to
100mL and the pH is acidic (1.5 to 3.5) B: No. of strands present in peripheral fibril of
centriole
• The normal value range of urine from 4.6 to 6.0.
C: No. of nucleotides in a typical nucleosome
68. Which one of the following is a matching pair (I) 60% protein, 40% Lipids
of a certain body feature and its value/count in (II) 52% protein, 40% Lipids
a normal human adult?
(III) Phosphoglycolipids
(a) Urea – 5-10 mg/100 ml of blood
(IV) 3
(b) Blood sugar (fasting) – 80-100 mg/100 ml
(V) 200
(c) Total blood volume – 3-4 litres
(VI) 145
(d) ESR in Wintrobe method – 9-15 mm in males
and 20-34 mm in females. (a) I, IV, V (b) III, IV, V
AIIMS-2003 (c) III, V, VI (d) II, IV, V
Ans. (b) : Blood glucose level in normal human adult
during fasting is 80-100 mg/100ml. Ans. (d) : The erythrocyte chemical composition is
approximately 40% lipids, 52% proteins, and 8%
Sugar level in blood is over come by insulin hormone,
carbohydrates.
secreted by pancreas.
Each centriole has a cartwheel organisation having a
69. Which one engulfs pathogens rapidly? whorl of nine pripheral fibrils of tubulin (9+0) tilted at
(a) Acidophils (b) Monocytes an angle 40. Each fibril is made up of three subfibres.
(c) Basophils (d) Neutrophils Therefore, it is called triplet fibril.
AIPMT-1989 On average, nucleosomes repeats at intervals of about
Ans. (d) : Neutrophils that can engulf large particles, 200 nucleotides or base pairs.
including bacteria or dead cells and destroy these 74. Decrease and increase in the number of RBCs
particles internally found in the blood stream. is respectively termed as
Neutrophils are one of the first responders of (a) Polycythemia and erythrocytopenia
inflammatory cells to migrate towards the site of (b) Erythrocytopenia and polycythemia
inflammation. (c) Erythrocytopenia and erythropoiesis
(d) Polycythemia and erythropoiesis Ans. (a)
MHT CET-2019 I II III
Ans. (b) : Increase in the number of RBC is called i. Monocyte D. Kidney shaped N. Phagocytic
polycythemia and an abnormal decrease is called nucleus
erythropenial. ii. Lymphocyte A. Large round O. Produce
• Polycythemia makes blood thicker than it should be, nucleus antibodies
and it could increase risk for blood clots. iii. Basophil B. Twisted M.Release
nucleus heparin
• Erythrocytopenia symptoms include bleeding into the
mucous membranes, gastrointestinal tract, and skin. iv. Eosinophil C. Bilobed L. Antihistamine
nucleus property
75. Which of the following are called scavengers? 78. Which one of the following cells is not a
(a) Macrophages (b) Lymphocytes phagocytic cell?
(c) Erythrocytes (d) Thrombocytes (a) Macrophage (b) Monocyte
MHT CET-2019 (c) Neutrophil (d) Basophil
Ans. (a) : A scavenger is an organism that mostly WB JEE-2011
consumes decaying biomass, such as meat or rotting Ans. (d) : Phagocytic cell that has the ability to ingest
plant material. and sometimes digest, foreign particles, such as
In human case scavenger is macrophages. It is a type of bacteria, carbon, dust.
white blood cell that surrounds and kills • Macrophage, Monocyte and Neutrophil are
microorganisms, removes dead cells, and stimulates the phagocytic cell but Basophil is a type of white blood
action of other immune system cells. cells they are responsible for inflamatory reaction.
76. Which are the phagocytic cells from given 79. Which organ is considered as Graveyard of
diagram? RBC where most of them are destroyed by
macrophages?
(a) Red bone marrow (b) spleen
(c) Kidney (d) Intestine
WB JEE-2007
Rajasthan PMT-2001
Ans. (b) : The spleen acts as a graveyard of RBCs. It
(a) I and V (b) I and III is the organ that involves in the recognition and removal
(c) I and IV (d) I and II of the old and dead red blood cells. The dead RBCs are
MHT CET-2015 broken down into small pieces in spleen.
• Red bone marrow contains blood stem cells that can
Ans. (a) : Phagocyte, type of cell that has the ability to become red blood cells, white blood cells, or
ingest and sometimes digest, foreign particles such as platelelts.
bacteria, carbon, dust or dye
• Kidneys remove waste and extra water from the
The given diagram shows different types of white blood blood as urine and help keep chemicals (such as
cells or leucocytes. sodium, potassium and calcium) balancing the body.
I represents Monocyte It is one pair of organs in the abdomen.
II represents Lymphocytes • Intestine is the part of alimentary canal. It is a
III represents Basophil winding muscular tube extending from the stomach
IV represents Eosinophil to the anus. Its main purpose is to digest food.
V represents Neutrophil 80. Leucocytes (WBCs) are considered as true cells
I&V monocytes are agranulocyte which are actively because
motile and phagocytic cells. (a) they possess nucleus
77. Select the correct match : (b) they do not contain haemoglobin
I II III (c) they show great power of movement
i. Monocyte A. Large round L. Antihistamine (d) they are responsible for phagocytic acitivty
nucleus property WB JEE-2007
ii. Lymphocyte B. Twisted nucleus M. Release heparin Ans. (a) : Leucocytes (WBCs) are considered as true
iii. Basophil C. Bilobed nucleus N. phagocytic cells because they possess nucleus.They are complete
cells that have a nucleus and other cellular organelles
iv. Eosinophil D. Kidney shaped O. produce
nucleus antibodies
like cytoplasm, mitochondria, golgi apparatus and
centrioles.
(a) i – D – N, ii – A – O, iii – B – M, iv – C – L
81. Which of the following is true for blood
(b) i – B – M, ii – A – L, iii – C – N, iv – D – O doping?
(c) i – C – N, ii – B – O, iii – D – M, iv – A – L (a) It is same as blood profiling
(d) i – A – O, ii – D – M, iii – C – L, iv – B – N (b) It is the transfer of blood from another person
MHT CET-2016 having same blood group
(c) It is transfer of ones own blood to increase the 86. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase takes part in
haemoglobin content to carry out more CO2 transport is found in
oxygen (a) WBCs (b) lymphocytes
(d) It is doping of blood with ions and chemicals (c) RBCs (d) monocytes
to purify it UP CPMT-2012
MGIMS Wardha-2015 Ans. (c) : Carbonic anhydrase (carbonate dehydratases)
Ans. (c) : Blood doping is the transfer of one’s own catalyse the interconversion between carbondioxide and
blood, which has been stored after being withdraw from water and the dissociated ions at carbonic acid. The
the body, back into the blood stream. enzyme maintains acid base balance and helps transport
Blood doping is the practice of increasing the number of carbon dioxide.
red blood cells in the blood in order to improve athletic 87. Blood is a kind of
performance. This can be done by transfusing blood (a) areolar tissue
from another person, injection synthetic erythropoietin (b) connective tissue
(EPO), or using other methods to increase red blood (c) fluid connective tissue
cells production.
(d) reticular connective tissue
82. Statements I: Buffer is a compound that VMMC-2009
destabilises the pH of solution by removing or
Ans. (c) : Blood is kind of fluid connective tissue made
releasing hydrogen ions.
up of liquids and solids. The liquid part, called plasma,
Statement II: Human blood has a buffer is made of water, salts , and protein. Over half of blood
solution. Its pH is maintained by is plasma. The solid part of blood contains RBCs,
− +
HCO3 ,H ions and CO2 concentration. Choose WBCs and platelets.
the correct option. 88. Average life span of an erythrocyte is:
(a) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect (a) 120 days (b) one year
(b) Statement II is correct but I is incorrect (c) 120 weeks (d) 6 months
(c) Both statement are correct AFMC-2005 / CGPMT-2005 / DUMET-2005
(d) Both statement are incorrect UPCPMT-2003 / J&K CET-2001
MGIMS Wardha-2015 Ans. (a) : Average life span of an erythrocyte (RBCs) is
Ans. (b) : Buffer is a solution that can resist pH below 7 120 days. Red blood cells are responsible for
and contain a weak acid and one of its salts. For transporting oxygen from lungs to different body part.
example, a mixture of acetic acid and sodium acetate 89. In sickle cell anaemia there is deformity of:
acts as a buffer solution with a pH of about 4.75. Its pH (a) WBCs (b) Platelets
change very little when a small amount of acid are base (c) RBCs (d) None of these
is added to it. Blood solution is also buffer solution. J&K CET-2001
83. Blood cells involved in inflammatory reactions Ans. (c) : Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder that
are affects the red blood cells. The red blood cells look like
(a) basophils (b) neutrophils sickles or crescent moons instead of the normal round
(c) eosinophils (d) monocytes shape. This deformity of the red blood cells makes them
DUMET-2011 sticky and rigid, and they can block blood vessels. This
Ans. (a) : Basophils are a white blood cell that works can lead to a variety of health problems, including pain,
closely with immune system. Blood contain 0.5-1% of organ damage, and stroke.
basophil and are involved in inflammatory reaction. 90. There will be 6,000 to 10,000 white blood cells
84. Which are not true cells in the blood? (WBC) per cubic millilitre of blood. A slight
(a) Platelets (b) Monocytes increase in WBC count is observed during
(c) Neutrophils (d) Basophil infection. This phenomenon is known as
AP EAMCET-1998 (a) Leukemia (b) Leucocytopenia
Ans. (a) : Platelets are not true cells, but are in fact (c) Leucocytosis (d) Leucopoiesis
cytoplasmic fragments from large cells found in the TS EAMCET-12.05.2017
bone marrow called megakaryocytes. Platelets are cell Ans. (c) : Normally, the total WBC count for an adult
which are responsible for blood clotting. There are ranges from 6000-8000/mn3. Leucocytosis (WBC >
approximately 1.5-3.5 lakh/mm3 platelets are present in 10,000/mm3) can indicate infection inflammation
blood. (possibly from allergies) tissue damage or burns.
85. Which of the following is not WBC? • Leukemia is cancer of the body's blood forming
(a) Thrombocyte (b) Lymphocytes tissues, including the bone marrow and the lymphatic
(c) Eosinophils (d) Basophils system.
UP CPMT-2012 • Leukocytopenia is a condition in which there is
Ans. (a) : Thrombocytes are not a part of WBC. Major lower- than normal number at of leucocytes (white
types of blood cells include erythrocytes, leucocytes, blood cells) in the blood.
and thrombocytes. Together these three kinds of blood • Leukopoesis is the process through which leucocytes
cells add up to a total 45% of blood tissue by volume are generated from haematopoietic stem cells in the
remaining 55% of volume composed of plasma. bone marrow.
91. Maximum quantity of iron present in: Ans. (d) : Bone marrow is soft, spongy, gelatinous
(a) Red blood cells (b) White blood cells tissue that has many blood vessel and found in center
(c) Bone cells (d) Muscle cells (medullary cavity) of the most bone. It is made up of
Rajasthan PMT-1995 fatty (adipose) tissue, areolar tissue and blood vessels.
Ans. (a) : Maximum quantity of iron present in Red 96. Which is the correct sequence of arrangement
blood cells. Almost 70% of body's iron is found in the of types of WBC in decreasing order in terms
red blood cells of blood called haemoglobin and in of number per mm3 of human blood?
muscle cells called myoglobin. (a) Eosinophils > Basophils > Neutrophils
92. All of the following statement are true in (b) asophils > Eosinophils > Neutrophils
respect of white blood corpuscles except : (c) Neutrophils > Eosinophils > Basophils
(a) they are formed in lymph glands (d) Eosinophils > Neutrophils > Basophils
(b) they eat bacteria and foreign bodies WB JEE-2009
(c) they move like Amoeba Ans. (c) : WBC are also known as Leucocytes as they
(d) they move like Paramecium are colourless due to the lack of haemoglobin.
Rajasthan PMT-2001 Lecocytes are generally short lived.
Ans. (d) : WBCs are irregular in shape, but have a WBC are two types
nucleus and an outer buffer coat. They are formed in (i) Granulocytes & (ii) Agranulocytes
lymph glands and are phagocytic in nature eat bacteria Neutrophils, eosinophills and basophils are different
and foreign bodies. types of granulocytes.
• WBCs can change their shape like Amoeba and thus 97. Which one of the following leucocytes
capable of amoeboid movement but they do not move transforms into macrophages?
like Paramecium. (a) Eosinophil (b) Basophil
93. Haematocrit value gives: (c) Monocyte (d) Lymphocyte
(a) amount of RBC in blood WB JEE-2009
(b) number of WBC in blood Ans. (c) : Monocytes is the agranulocytes WBCs. It is
(c) amount of plasma in blood phagocytic cell which destroy foreign organism entering
(d) haemoglobin concentration in blood the body.
BCECE-2001 Monocytes circulate in blood for about 24 - 36 hrs and
Ans. (a) : Hematocrit value given amount of RBC in then enters into tissues throughout the body where they
blood. Normal levels at hematocrit for men range from differentiate in macrophage and dendrites cell.
41% to 50% normal level for women is 36% to 48%. 98. The average diameter of red blood corpuscles
• Haematocrit and Haemoglobin are used to help of man is
diagnose nutritional deficiencies, acute illnesses, and (a) 7.2 µm (b) 8.1 µm
chronic medical conditions. (c) 9.2 µm (d) 10.3 µm
94. One of the following is incorrect regarding WB JEE-2009
WBC: Ans. (a) : The average diameter of red blood corpuscles
(a) Monocytes migrate from the bloodstream to of man is 7.2 µm. RBCs are shaped as biconcave disc.
other tissues and differentiate into tissue Size varies from 6 – 8 µm in diameter. RBCs do not
resident macrophages. Kupffer cells in the have a nucleus on maturity.
liver 99. Which of the following does not match ?
(b) Eosinophils modulate allergic inflammatory (a) Muscular movement - ATP
responses
(b) Heart - Pacemaker
(c) Basophils release histamine for inflammatory
(c) Monocyte - Haemoglobin
response
(d) Natural killer cells are type of phagocytic (d) Nerve impulse - Acetylcholine
erythrocytes UP CPMT-2004
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I Ans. (c) : Monocyte is a type of white blood cell.
Ans. (d) : A natural killer cell is a type of white blood Hemoglobin is a protein found in RBC that carry
cell, also called Natural Killer cell (NK) and NK- oxygen in body & gives blood it red colour.
LGL (Large granular Lymphocytes). • They are the largest type of leukocyte in blood. It is a
A blood stem cell goes through several steps to become critical component of the innate immune system.
a red blood cell, platelet, or white blood cells. It 100. Red cell count is carried out by
destroys infected and diseased cells like cancer cell. (a) haemocytometer (b) haemoglobinometer
95. Bone marrow is made up of (c) sphygmomanometer (d) electrocardigram
(a) muscular fibre and fatty tissue WB JEE-2010
(b) fatty tissue and areolar tissue Ans. (a) : Haemocytometer is a device used to count
(c) fatty tissue and cartilage red blood cells. It is a glass slide with a grid on it. A
(d) fatty tissue, areolar tissue and blood vessel small amount of blood is placed on the grid and then
Rajasthan PMT-2009 covered with a cover slip. The red blood cells are then
Punjab MET-2009 counted under a microscope.
101. The process of formation of blood corpuscles is Ans. (c) : Blood platelets are found only in the blood of
called: mammals. The platelets are formed in the red bone
(a) haemopoiesis (b) haemolysis marrow, their formation is know as thrombopoiesis.
(c) haemozoin (d) none of these Blood platelets are not found in birds, reptiles and
AFMC-2005, 2001 amphibians.
Ans. (a) : The process of formation of blood corpuscles 108. The haemoglobin of a human foetus
is called haemopoiesis. The site of haemopoiesis is the (a) has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of
bone marrow. the adult
102. Iron free compound of haemoglobin is (b) its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of
(a) globin (b) haematin an adult
(c) bilirubin (d) haemotoxin (c) has only two protein subunits instead of four
BVP-2010 (d) has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of
Ans. (a) : Hemoglobin is the main protein part found in an adult
the red blood cells, and it has two main components BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
heme and globin. Heme contains iron and is responsible Ans. (d) : Fetal haemoglobin differs most from adult
for carrying oxygen in the blood, while globin is the haemoglobin in that it is able to bind oxygen with
protein part of hemoglobin that protects the heme greater affinity than the adult form giving the
components. When the iron is extracted from heme., the developing foetus better occurs to oxygen from the
remaining part is globin, which is the iron free mother's blood stream.
component of hemoglobin. The transfer of oxygen is from the mother (less tightly
103. WBC accumulate at site of wound by : bond) to the body (more tightly bond).
(a) hypertension (b) arteriosclerosis 109. The life span of human WBC is approximately:
(c) haemopoiesis (d) diapedesis (a) less than 10 days
AMU-2011 / Punjab MET-2003 / AIIMS-1995 (b) between 20 to 30 days
Ans. (d) : WBC accumulate at site of wound by diapedesis. (c) between 2 to 3 months
It is the process in which WBCs come out of the blood (d) more than 4 months
vessels into the surrounding area in case of injuries. Haryana PMT - 2000 / VMMC-2002 / AIPMT-1997
104. Haemoglobin contains Ans. (a) : The life span of human WBC is
2+ 2+
(a) Fe (b) Mg approximately less than 10 days. WBCS are also known
(c) Na2+ (d) Ca2+ as leucocyte they irregular & colorless & protect the
UP CPMT-2003 / Rajasthan PMT-1998 body from infection and foreign particles.
BVP-2000 / AIIMS-2013 / DUMET-2005
110. A smear of blood from a healthy individual is
Ans. (a) : Haemoglobin contains Fe2+. It consists of stained with a nuclear stain called hematoxylin
heme and globin. Heme contains iron and and then observed under a light microscope.
protoporphyrin. Globin is the protein component. Which of the following cell type would be
105. The pH of blood is highest in number?
(a) between 7-8 (b) between 2-4 (a) neutrophils (b) eosinophils
(c) between 12-14 (d) between 2-5 (c) lymphocytes (d) monocytes
UP CPMT-2003 / TS EAMCET-03.05.2018 Shift-I KVPY SA-2012
CG PMT-2005 / DUMET-2005
Ans. (a) : Neutrophils are the most abundant type of
Ans. (a) :Blood has to maintain a very delicate pH white blood cell in a healthy individual, making up
value between 7–8. It is slightly alkaline or basic. pH is about 60-70% of all white blood cells. They defense
known as the power of Hydrogen, given the body against injection and their nuclei are stained blue
concentration of hydrogen ion in any substance a by hematoxylin.
compound have pH less than 7 is acidic, equal to 7
neutral and more than 7 is basic or alkaline. 111. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in
a person, to which of the following would you
106. Mature erythrocytes cannot utilize glucose look for confirmatory evidence?
because they lack
(a) Golgi complex (b) enzymes (a) Serum albumins
(c) mitochondria (d) nucleus (b) Serum globulins
DUMET-2010 (c) Fibrinogen in the plasma
Ans. (c) : Mature erythrocytes also known as red blood (d) Haemocytes
cells, lack mitochondria. Mitochondria are the cellular Rajasthan PMT-2010
organelles responsible for generating energy from Ans. (b) : The plasma contains a number of proteins:
glucose through a process called cellular respiration. serum albumen (Albumin), serum globulins,
So, mature erythrocytes do not have mitochondria, they prothrombin and fibrinogen. Our immune system creates
cannot use glucose for energy production. defensive proteins called antibodies they bind to foreign
107. Blood platelets are found only in the blood of: substances known as antigens. The serum globulin
(a) Birds (b) Reptiles electrophoresis test quantifies the concentrations of fluid–
(c) Mammals (d) Amphibians soluble proteins known as globulin is a blood sample. the
Uttarakhand PMT-2004 name of this liquid is serum.
112. Serum differs from plasma in having 116. In blood carboxyhaemoglobin is formed by
(a) Excess of fibrinogen (a) inhalation of CO (b) inhalation of CO2
(b) Absence of fibrinogen (c) inhalation of SO2 (d) inhalation of ozone
(c) Excess of haemocyanin Manipal-2013
(d) Absence of haemoglobin. Ans. (a) : In blood carboxyhaemoglobin is formed by
Rajasthan PMT-2001 inhalation of CO.
AMU-1998 When it is inhaled, CO binds to haemoglobin to form
Ans. (b) : Blood is made up of two thing cell and carboxyheamoglobin, which is about 300 times more
plasma. Plasma is the part of blood which contain the stable than the oxygen hemoglobin complex.
clotting factors fibrinogen but serum which does not 117. The difference between blood and lymph is :
containing clotting factor fibrinogen. No anticoagulants (a) blood has RBC and WBC while lymph has no
are required for the separation of serum from blood but cells
anticoagulants are required for the separation of plasma (b) blood has RBC and WBC while lymph only
from blood. WBC
113. A mature human erythrocyte has the typical (c) blood has WBC while lymph has RBC
characteristic of: (d) blood has dissolve salt while lymph has no cells
(a) a eukaryotic cell (b) a prokaryotic cell J&K CET-2006
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above Ans. (b) : Blood has RBCs and WBCs while lymph
VMMC-2006 only WBCs. Therefore, they are slightly yellowish in
Ans. (d) : Erythrocytes or red blood cells (RBC)are the colour and contains lymphocytes.
most abundant cells in blood. Initially, the RBCs have Blood Lymph
nucleus but loss it with maturation. Prokaryotes are It is a red colored fluid It is a colorless fluid.
exclusively unicellular with naked DNA while Flow of blood is bi-dire- It flows in one direction.
erythrocytes are the part of a multicellular organism. All ctional
eukaryotic cell has a nucleus but RBC does not. On the Hemoglobin is present in Hemoglobin is absent
basis of this, they have properties of neither prokaryotes RBC
nor eukaryotes. The number of erythrocytes is 5–5.5
million in normal human blood. Blood flow is fast Its flow is slow
114. Human blood maintains homeostasis in the Blood clots quickly due Lymph clots slowly due
to presence of more to the presence of less
internal environment of the body by:
fibrinogen fibrinogen.
(a) Replenishment of nutrients and oxygen and
elimination of metabolic wastes from the Blood is purified in Lymph is purified in
extracellular fluid kidney lymph node
(b) Replenishment of oxygen and elimination of Carries large amount of O2 Carries less amount of O2
Co2 It consists of RBCs, It consists of plasma,
(c) Maintenance of blood sugar level and WBCs, platelets and small amount of salts,
conversion of amino acids into urea and plasma proteins and WBC's
destruction of wornout RBCs- particular lymphocytes.
(d) Maintenance of ion concentration in the blood 118. In our body the renewal of all the blood cell
and body fluids by eliminating nitrogenous take place:
wastes (a) every year (b) every six months
Karnataka CET-2003 (c) every four months (d) every month
Ans. (a) : Homeostasis is defined as a dynamic state of Haryana PMT-1999
balance or equilibrium in the internal environment of Ans. (c) : In our body the renewal of all the blood cell
body. Blood helps in maintaining homeostasis by take place every four months.
stabilisting pH, temperature, osmotic pressure, and by In a healthy adult the transport of O2 and CO2 between
eliminating excess heat. lungs and tissues is performed by about 2 × 1013 RBC
Internal environment in the body is the extracellular of which around 1.7 × 1011 are renewed every day a turn
fluid in which cells live, which constantly move over resulting from an average circulatory lifespan of
throughout the body. Extracellular fluid includes blood about 120 days.
and interstitial fluid. 119. Which of the following is not primarily a
115. Which of the following carries gases as well as function of blood plasma?
unused products in the human body? (a) transport of O2
(a) Blood (b) Lymph (b) transport of hormones
(c) Blood and lymph (d) Haemocynin (c) transport of antibodies
Manipal-2013 (d) maintenance of RBC size.
Ans. (c) : The fluid present in lymphatic system is AMU-1997
called lymph. Blood and lymph both are connective Ans. (d) : Maintenance of RBC size is not primarily a
fluid tissue that carry CO2, hormones, nutrients and function of blood plasma. Blood plasma carries water, salts
waste product. Lymph contains specialized lymphocytes and enzymes. The main role of plasma is to take nutrients,
which are responsible for immune responses of body. hormones and proteins to the parts of the body that need it.
120. The largest corpuscles in mammalian blood are 125. Besides RBCs, blood plasma also carries
(a) basophils (b) erythrocytes oxygen in solution. The percentage is
(c) monocytes (d) lymphocytes (a) 2 to 3% (b) 97 %
VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004 (c) 80 % (d) 100 %
BVP-2003 / Manipal-2002 VMMC-2010
Ans. (c) : Monocytes is the largest corpuscles in Ans. (a) : Besides RBCs blood plasma also carries O2
mammalian blood. They play a major role in the in solution. The percentage is 2- 3%. Approximately
phagocytosis of foreign bodies. They are produced in 97% of total O2 transported in the blood is bounded to
the bone marrow. hemoglobin while only 3% is dissolved directly in
plasma.
121. These blood corpuscles are also called
polymorphs ______. 126. In the animal body blood bank is:
(a) Neutrophils (b) Monocytes (a) heart (b) spleen
(c) Basophils (d) Eosinophils (c) lungs (d) liver
MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I Haryana PMT-2003
Ans. (a) : Neutrophils are also called polymorphs. A Ans. (b) : In the animal body blood bank is the spleen. It
mature neutrophils exhibits a segmented nucleus with is the reservoir for storing RBC hence it is called a blood
bank of body it is found under the ribcage above the
three to five distinct lobes which are connected by thin
stomach and is the largest organ in the lymphatic system.
filaments. The multilobed nucleus of the neutrophil can
assume a variety of shapes 127. Abnormal rise in white blood cells is
Hence, considered polymorphic, which means many (a) leukaemia (b) polycythemia
shaped. (c) anaemia (d) pneumonia
CMC Vellore-2007
122. Which substance is in higher concentration in
blood than in glomerular filtrate? Ans. (a) : Abnormal rise in white blood cells is
(a) Water (b) Glucose Leukaemia. Leukaemia also called blood cancer.
Leuko cytosis, or high WBCs count can indicated a
(c) Urea (d) Plasma proteins
range of condition, including infections inflammation,
Manipal-2009
injury and immune system disorder.
Ans. (d) : Plasma protein is in higher concentration in 128. The ratio of RBCs to WBCs in human is
blood than in glomerular filtrate The first step in urine
(a) 6 : 1 (b) 60 : 1
formation is the filtration of blood, which is carried out
(c) 600 : 1 (d) 6000 : 1
by the glomerulus and is called glomerular filtration,
Blood is filtered so finely through these membranes, VMMC-2015
that almost all the constituents of the plasma except the Ans. (c) : The ratio of WBC to RBC in human blood is
protein pass into lumen of the Bowman's capsule, 1: 600 white blood cells are an integral part of the
therefore, it is considered as a process of ultrafiltration. human immune system which helps us to fight any
infection. RBCs are responsible for transport of
123. If one litre of water is introduced in human respiratory gases and WBCs provide defense
blood, then mechanisms for fighting foreign microorganism.
(a) BMR increases 129. Leukopenia is the condition in which
(b) RBC collapses and urine production increases (a) the total number of leucocytes decreases
(c) RBC collapses and urine production below 5000/cu mm
decreases (b) the total number of leucocytes increases
(d) BMR decreases above 6000/cu mm
DUMET-2009 (c) bone marrow is destroyed
Ans. (b) : If one litre of water is introduce in human (d) formation of leucocytes stops
blood, then RBC collapses and urine production VMMC-2015
increases when too much water is introduced into the Ans. (a) : Leukopenia is the condition in which there is
blood externally, it lyses the RBCs and triggers the a lower than normal number of leucocytes (WBCs) in
release of ANF which counters the action of ADH and the blood. i.e. below the 5000/cu mm.
creates more diluted urine. 130. In man erythrocytes are found in :
124. Concentration of constant glucose level in (a) 0.5 million per microliter
blood is (b) 8.0 million per microliter
(a) 10% (b) 1% (c) 5.0 million per microliter
(c) 0.1% (d) 0.001% (d) 10-0million per microliter
VMMC-2010 Rajasthan PMT-2000
Ans. (c) : Concentration of constant glucose level in Ans. (c) : Red blood cells are formed in red bone marrow.
blood is 0.1% but it may fluctuate in case of metabolic A healthy adult man has on an average, 5 millions to 5.5
disorder. Insulin and glucose help maintain blood sugar millions of RBCs mm–3 of blood. A healthy individual has
levels. The ideal blood sugar range is typically between 12 to 16 gm of haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood.
70 – 130 mg/dl. Blood sugar level over 250 mg/dl are RBCs have on average life span of 120 days, after which
hazardous. they are destroyed in the spleen.
131. Megakaryocytes give rise to 136. B-cells are stimulated to proliferate and
(a) erythrocytes (b) granulocytes differentiate in to memory cells by
(c) agranulocytes (d) thrombocytes (a) Complement proteins
AMU-1996 (b) Natural killer cells
Ans. (d) : Platelets also called thrombocytes are cell (c) Interleukins
fragments produced from megakaryotes. Megakaryotes (d) Interferons
is the special cells in the bone marrow.
132. Which of the following is not a function of Ans. (c) : B-cells are stimulated to proliferate and
erythrocyte? differentiate in to memory cell by interleukins.
(a) Oxygen transport (b) CO2 transport Interleukins are group of proteins that act as signaling
(c) Carriers of antigen (d) Phagocytosis molecules between cells of the immune system. They
VMMC-2003 are involved in a variety of immune functions, including
Ans. (d) : Phagocytosis is not a function of erythrocyte. the activation, proliferation and differentiation of B
A type of blood cell that is made in the bone marrow cells.
and found in the blood. Erythrocytes contain a protein 137. If the blood group of father is A (homozygous)
called haemoglobin. These molecules play a significant and that of mother is AB, these blood groups
role in transport of respiratory gases. are not expected in their children
133. What is the principle cation in human blood? (a) A, AB (b) B, AB
(a) Potassium (b) Sodium (c) O, AB (d) B, O
(c) Calcium (d) Maganese TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-II
CMC Ludhiana-2012
Ans. (d) : The blood group that are not expected in the
Ans. (b) : The principle cation in human blood is
children are B and O.
sodium (Na+) and chloride(Cl–) in main anion. Plasma
consist of 90% water , 1% inorganic salt, 8% protein The father has blood group A, which means he has the
and 1% other substanceces. genotype AA. The mother has blood group AB, which
134. The movement of neutrophils to site of means she has the genotype either AO or AB.
inflammation is due to • The possible genotype of the children are AA, AO and
(a) release of hormone (b) chemotaxis AB. The blood groups of the children are A, A and AB.
(c) activity of antigens (d) activation of antigens Therefore, the blood groups B and O are not expected in
Haryana PMT-2011 the children.
Ans. (b) : The movement of neutrophils to site of 138. When red blood corpuscles containing both A
inflammation is due to chemotaxis. Neutrophils have and B antigens are mixed with your blood
also been shown to leave inflamed or infected sites, serum, they agglutinate. Hence your blood
travel through the lymphatic's and re-localise to the group is ----------------type.
lymph nodes or bone marrow to affect host defense.
(a) O (b) AB
After leaving nearby blood vessels, these cells
recognize chemicals produced by bacteria in a cut or (c) B (d) A
scratch and migrate towords the area by the process of TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II
chemotaxis. Karnataka CET-2010
Ans. (a) When the blood with both A and B antigen are
B. Types of blood group mixed with the blood serum and its cause agglutination.
It is the O type blood as the O type has both antibodies
135. A man with blood group A marries a woman which will cause clumping with antigens A and B.
having blood group B. The maximum possible
blood groups among their progenies are 139. A certain road accident patient with unknown
(a) AB only (b) A,B, AB blood group needs immediate blood
(c) A,B (d) A, B, AB,O transfusion. His own doctor friend at once
Karnataka CET-2020 / AIIMS-2019 / BCECE-2008 offers his blood. What was the blood groups of
JIPMER-2006 / MGIMS Wardha-2005 the donor?
Ans. (d) : Blood group of man is ‘A’ (a) Blood group AB (b) Blood group B
Blood group of woman ‘B’ (c) Blood group O (d) Blood group A
So, maximum possible blood groups are = A, AB, B, O. AIPMT (Screening)-2012
the cross would be- AP EAMCET-06.09.2021 Shift-I
Ans. (c): The blood group of the donor was O. The
immediate transfusion of blood takes place because
blood group O is serving as universal donor. The
plasma contains both anti - A and anti B - antibodies but
Hence, IAIB = AB blood group the surface of the red blood cells does not contain any A
IBi = B blood group or B antigens. Since these antigens are not present, a
IAi = A blood group person with any ABO blood type can receive this type
ii= O blood group of blood.
140. Match the following : 144. A man of blood group 'A', marries a woman of
List-I List-II blood group 'B', both of them are heterozygous
Blood Group Clump formation with for blood group, chances of their first child
(A) A or AB (i) anti B serum having blood group AB will be
(B) B or AB (ii) anti A and anti B (a) 25% (b) 50%
serum (c) 75% (d) 100%
(C) AB (iii) no clump is produced JIPMER-2004
with either of the (A PUNJAB MET-2003
or B) antibodies
(D) O (iv) anti A serum Ans. (a) : A male blood group of A marries with a
The correct answer is female of blood group B. There is a 25% chance of the
A B C D first child having blood group AB.
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 145. In man, four phenotypes of blood groups are
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) due to the presence of antigen 'A' and antigen
(c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 'B' on the RBC. The chromosome that has the
(d) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) gene to control these antigens is
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II (a) X-chromosome (b) 21st chromosome
th
Ans (c): (c) 9 chromosome (d) 7th chromosome
List – I List - II AP EAMCET-2007
Blood Group Clump formation with Ans. (c) : In man, four phenotypes of blood groups are
a. A or AB anti A serum due to the presence of antigen 'A' and antigen 'B' on
b. B or AB anti B serum the RBC. The chromosome that has the gene to control
these antigens is 9th chromosome.
c. AB anti A and anti B
serum 146. If the blood group of a child is ‘A’ and that its
d. O no clump is produced mother’s is ‘B’ then the genotype of mother
with either of the and father may be :
(A or B) antibodies (a) BB × AA (b) AB × AB
141. The most popularly known blood grouping is (c) BO × OO (d) BO × AO
the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not AP EAMCET-2006
ABC, because "O" in it refers to having : Ans. (d) : Bernstein discovered that the ABO blood
(a) No antigens A and B on RBCs grouping is an inherited characteristic which involve
(b) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs multiple allelism. Three allelic genes IA, IB and I°
(c) Overdominance of this type on the genes for control the inheritance of blood groups in human.
A and B types Blood group A genotype is IAIA or IAI° , blood group
(d) One antibody only-either anti-A and anti-B B genotypes is IBIB or IBI° Blood group O genotype is
on the RBCs I°I°. The genotypes of mother and father may be BO
AIPMT-2009 and AO.
Ans. (a) : ABO grouping is based on the presence or 147. Which statement is true for WBC:
absence of two surface antigens on RBCs namely A and (a) Non nucleated
B. It is named ABO not ABC because “O” in it refers to (b) In deficiency cancer is caused
having no antigens A and B are present on RBCs.
(c) Manufactured in thymus
142. ABO blood group system was proposed by
(d) Can squeeze through blood capillaries
(a) Mendel (b) Morgan
(c) Bernstein (d) Karl Landsteiner AIPMT-2000
AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II Ans. (d) : The WBCs are produced in the bone marrow.
They are amoeboid in shape due to which they can
Ans. (d) : Karl Landsteiner has been credited for the
discovery of ABO blood group system. His extensive easily squeeze through the walls of the capillaries at the
research, based on serology has led to identification of site of injury by the process known as diapedesis and
major blood groups such as A, B, O and AB. Blood group engulf the damaged cells by phagocytosis. They are
O is universal donor while AB is universal acceptor. nucleated cells and excess of WBCs causes cancer
known as leukemia.
143. Which is the correct genotype of blood group A?
(a) IA IB (b) IO IO 148. The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify
B B it and give its characteristics.
(c) I I (d) IA IO
Ans. (d) : Genotype of blood group:-
(a) IA IB → AB
(b) IO IO → O
(c) IB IB → B
(d) IA IO → A
Blood Cell Characteristics Ans. (c) : Three allelic genes IA, IB, IO control the
(a) Monocyte Life span 3 days, produces inheritance of blood group in human. Blood group A
antibodies genotype is IA IA or IA IO.
(b) Basophil Secretes serotonin,
inflammatory response
(c) B-lymphocyte Form about 20% of blood
cells involved in immune
response
(d) Neutrophil Most abundant blood cell,
phagocytic
NEET (Karnataka)-2013 152. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
Ans. (b) : Basophils are granulocyte WBCs. They the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin. Serotonin (a) A person will have only two of the three alleles
gives inflammatory responses. Monocytes and (b) When IA and IB are present together, they
neutrophils are phagocytic in nature and destroy foreign express same type of sugar.
bodies entering in the body. Lymphocyte produces (c) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
immune responses of body. (d) The gene (I) has three alleles.
149. What is correct for Blood group 'O' : - NEET-2020 Phase-I
(a) No antigens but both a and b antibodies are Ans. (b) : The gene (I) has three alleles I, IA and IB .
present Only two of the three alleles produced sugar. Allele I
(b) A antigen and b antibody does not produce any sugar.
(c) Antigen and Antibody both absent 153. Person with blood group AB is considered as
(d) A and B antigens and a, b, antibodies universal recipient because he has.
CGPMT-2006 / JIPMER-2004 (a) both A and B antigens of RBC but no
Punjab MET-2004, 2003 / AIPMT-2001 / Manipal-2000 antibodies in the plasma
Ans. (a) : There are four main type of blood group. ‘A’, (b) both A and B antibodies in the plasma
‘B’, ‘AB’ and ‘O’ on the basis of antigen presence on (c) no antigen on RBC and no antibody in the
red blood surface. Persons of blood group O have no plasma
antigens but both a and b antibodies present in their (d) both A and B antigens in the plasma but no
plasma. Blood group O is called universal donor and antibodies
‘AB’ is universal recepient. NEET-2021 / AIPMT-2014, 1991
150. A mother with blood group B type has a child Rajasthan PMT-2001 / DUMET-2005
with blood group type O. What is the AMU-2006, 2001 / MGIMS Wardha-2003
possibility of the genotypes of that mother and UPCPMT-2003
father? Ans. (a) : Persons with 'AB' group have both A and B
(a) IAIA (father) and IBIO (mother) antigens and no antibody in their RBCs. Therefore, they
(b) IAIB (father) and IBIO (mother) can accept blood from persons with AB as well as the
(c) IAIO (father) and IBIO (mother) other groups of blood and are called as 'universal
(d) IBIO (father) and IAIO (mother) recipients' because individuals who have blood AB do
AP EAMCET-2010 not have the anti-A or anti-B antibodies and has both A
Ans. (c) : The mother with blood group IB IO and father and B antigen on the RBC.
with blood group IA IO has a child with blood group O. 154. A man of 'A' blood group marries a woman of
'AB' blood group. Which type of progeny
would indicate that man is heterozygous?
(a) O (b) B
(c) A (d) AB
JIPMER-2008
Ans. (b) : We can show 'A' blood group in 2 different
allelic form IAIA and IA I (heterozygous)
Cross between homozygous allelic form of 'A' blood
group with 'AB' blood group of woman;
151. A woman with blood group ‘O’ has a child with

blood group ‘O’. She claims that a man with
blood group ‘A’ as the father of her child.
What would be the genotype of the father, if
her claim is right?
(a) IOIO (b) IAIB
(c) IAIO (d) IBIO
AP EAMCET-2009
Cross between heterozygous allelic form of 'A' blood Ans. (c) :
group with 'AB' blood group of woman –
Thus, AB and O should be the blood group of parents

when children have A and B types of blood group.
159. A normal woman whose father was a colour
So, 'B' blood group of progeny would indicate that man blind person is married to a normal man. Her
is heterozygous.
sons would likely to be
155. A donor having blood group AB can safely (a) 75% colourblind (b) 50% colourblind
donate red blood cells to recipients having
(c) All normal (d) All colourblind
blood group type
(a) A and AB (b) B and AB DUMET-2008
(c) Only AB (d) Only O Ans. (b) : All daughter of a colourblind man will be
AMU-2015 carrier. Colour blindness is a X – linked recessive
Ans. (c) : A donor having AB blood group can donate disorder, if the father of a normal woman is colourblind
his blood to the person having AB blood only. Blood then she will be a carrier of the disease, since she will
group AB contains A and B antigens, which will receive one X-chromosome from both her parents and
trigger anti-A, anti B and anti-AB response in persons the X-chromosomes from the father will be diseased. If
having blood group B, A and O respectively. she now marries a normal man then there will be 50%
156. If a child is of O blood group and his father is chances of her sons, being colour blind.
of B blood group, the genotype of father is
o o A B
(a) I I (b) I I
o B o A
(c) I I (d) I I
UP CPMT-2010 / JIPMER - 2012 / JCECE-2015
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 / BVP-2009
Ans. (c) : The child has blood group ‘O’ and father has
blood group type ‘B’ shows that the child have
heterozygous parents.
The above mentioned clues indicates that his mother
had IOIA or IOIB and the father had IO IB.
160. First husband of Asha had ABO blood type A
and their child had type O. She remarried and
her second husband has ABO blood type B and
their child had type AB. What is the ABO
genotype of Asha and also name her blood
type?
Genotype- IAIB IAIo I BI o I oI o (a) II blood type O (b) IBIO, blood type B
Phenotype- group AB groupA group B group O A
(c) I i, blood type A (d) IBi, blood type A
157. Inheritance of ABO blood group illustrates J&K CET-2014
(a) polyploidy (b) multiple allelism
Ans. (c) :
(c) euploidy (d) dominance
First husband of Asha had blood group A. Then her
MGIMS Wardha-2007
husband's ABO genotype will be IAI0 and her child's
Ans. (b) : Inheritance of ABO blood groups is an ABO genotype will be I0I0. Second husband had blood
example of multiple allelism. Bernstein (1925) group B and their child blood group AB. Then the ABO
proposed that inheritance of ABO blood types of man is
genotype of her husband and child will be IBI0 and IAIB
determined by a series of three allelomorphic genes IAIB
and I0 respectively. Asha genotype and blood groups IAI0.
158. What should be the blood types of parents in
the children having only A and B types of
blood?
(a) A and O (b) AB and A
(c) AB and O (d) A and B
Karnataka CET-2002
161. Three alleles namely IA, IB and i control the (a) IA Io and IB Io (b) IA IB and i i
blood grouping in human beings. How many (c) IB IB and AA IA (d) IA IA and IB I
different genotypes are likely to be present in Karnataka CET-2003
the human population? Ans. (a) : Genotype of the parents will be IAIO and IBIO,
(a) 2 (b) 4 therefore, offsprings produced will have A,O, AB and B
(c) 5 (d) 6 Blood types. It is shown as follows- IAIo × IBIo
(e) 7
Kerala PMT-2015
Ans. (d) : The blood group of human beings are
controlled by different genes. The genotype of blood
group A can be expressed by two different types i.e IAIA
and IAI0, the genotype of blood group B can be
expresses by IBI0 and IBIB and the genotype of AB and Hence, blood group AB, B and O are present.
O can be express by IAIB and I0I0 respectively. 166. Blood group are named because of
Phenotype (Blood group) Genotype agglutinogens present in:
A IAIA or IAIo (a) WBC (b) plasma
B IBIo or IBIB (c) RBC (d) platelets
AB IAIB JIPMER-1995
O I oI o Ans. (c) : RBC system of blood group is based upon
162. Parents of blood group O will have offsprings antigens(agglutinogens) which are attached on plasma
of : membrane of RBC i.e. Donnan’s membrane. Blood
(a) O only (b) A and O group was discovered by Karl landsteiner.
(c) O and B (d) O and AB 167. The clumping of red cells because of wrong
VMMC-2002 transfusion be:
(a) agglutination (b) rouleaux formation
Ans. (a) : Parents of blood group O will have offspring
of only 'O' blood group because their parents will have (c) haemolysis (d) erythrocytosis
the same genotype i.e I0I0. Haryana PMT-1999
Ans. (a) : The clumping of red blood cells due to wrong
blood transfusion is called agglutination. It is also
known as autoaggulation. It occurs when the donor's
blood group is different from the recipient's, antibodies
present in the recipient's plasma cause the donor's red
blood cells undergo agglutination.
168. One of the following blood group person
cannot donate blood to others.
(a) AB blood group (b) O blood group
(c) A blood group (d) B blood group
163. A hormone molecule binds to a specific protein J&K CET-2007
on the plasma membrane inducing a signal.
The protein it binds to is called Ans. (a) : ‘AB’ blood group person can't donate blood
to others but can receive blood from all blood groups,
(a) ligand (b) receptor called universal recipient, whereas the person of blood
(c) antibody (d) histone group ‘O’ can donate for any recipient and is called
KVPY SB & SX-2012 universal donor.
Ans. (b) Hormones produce their effect on target tissues 169. The genotypic expression seen in a person of
by binding to specific proteins located in target tissues blood group AB is called
only is called hormone receptors. Binding of a (a) Dominant - recessive
hormone to its receptor leads to the formation of a (b) Co-dominance
hormone receptor complex. (c) Incomplete dominance
164. Universal donor is (d) Core cession
(a) O Rh+ (b) O Rh– CG PMT-2010 / KVPY SA-2019
+
(c) AB Rh (d) AB Rh– Ans. (b) : Co-dominance occurs when the contributions
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 / VMMC-2009 of both alleles are visible in the phenotype in the ABO,
BVP-2009 / AMU-2002 / Haryana PMT-1999 example, The IA and IB alleles are co-dominant in
Ans. (b) : Universal donor is ORh–. With regard to producing the AB blood group phenotype, in which
transfusion of whole blood or packed red blood cells both A and B type antigens are present.
individual with O Rh– blood groups are often called 170. A child with mother of A blood group and
universal donors and with blood groups AB Rh+ are father of AB blood group, will not have the
called universal recipients. following blood group :
165. Three children in a family have blood types O, (a) B (b) A
AB and B respectively. What are the genotypes (c) AB (d) O
of their parents? BCECE-2003
Ans. (d) : In human beings four type of blood group are 173. Statement-I : Warfarin is antagonistic to
present according to Landsteiner and de Castello. These vitamin K.
are blood group A, B, AB and O. Statement-II : Clotting of blood in blood banks
The blood group A has genotype IAIA or IAIO is prevented by the addition of sodium oxalate.
Blood group B has genotype IBIB or IBIO (a) Both statement I and statement II are correct
Blood group AB has genotype IAIB and (b) Both statement I and statement II is false
Blood group O has genotype IOIO (c) Statement I is correct. But statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false. But statement II is true.
Ans. (a) : Statement-I : Warfarin is an anticoagulant
that works by blocking the action of vitamin K. Vitamin
K is needed for the production of blood clotting factors,
so when warfarin blocks vitamin K, it decreases the
production of blood clotting factors. This leads to a
F1 generation phenotypic ratio = 2A group : 1AB group decreased ability of the blood clot.
: 1B group. Statement-II : Sodium oxalate is also an anticoagulant.
The child will not have ‘O’ Blood group. It works by binding to calcium ions, which are needed
171. In the ABO system of blood groups, if both for blood clotting. When sodium oxalate binds to
antigens are present but no antibody, the blood calcium ions, it prevents them to participating in a blood
group of the individual would be clotting this helps in decreased ability of the blood to
(a) B (b) O clot.
(c) AB (d) A So, both statement-I and II are correct.
AIPMT-2004 / Manipal-2007 / CG PMT-2006 174. Which option is correct for the formation of
Ans. (c) : Intrinsic factor – X activator complex for blood
Blood Antigen (s) Antibodies Genotype coagulation?
group present on the present in (s) (a) Inactivated Christmas factor + AHG +
red blood cells the serum phospholipid + Ca+2
A A antigen anti – B AA or (b) Activated Christmas factor + AHG +
AO phospholipid + Ca+2
B B antigen anti - A BB or (c) Converting + AHG + Ca+2 + FSF
BO (d) Phospholipid–protein complex + Proconvertin
AB A antigen and None AB GUJCET-2014
B antigen Ans. (b) : Factor X is a vitamin –K dependent serine,
O No anti - A and OO proteases, zymogen that is activated in the first common
anti – B step of the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood
Blood group AB has both A and B antigens but no coagulation. Activated Christmas factor combination
antibodies at all. with AHG, Phospholipid and calcium ion to form
The ABO blood types were discovered by Karl activator complex called intrinsic factor X.
Landsteiner in 1901. 175. What is intrinstic factor-X-activator complex?
(a) XII + FSF + Glycolipid + Ca2+
C. RH-Grouping and Blood (b) IX + AHF + Glycolipid + Ca2+
Coagulation (c) XII + FSF + Phospholipid + Ca2+
(d) IX + AHG + Phospholipid + Ca2+
172. If the blood group of parents are O and AB, GUJCET-2017
these blood groups are not expected in their Ans. (d) : The intrinstic factor-X-activator complex IX
children. + AHG + Phospholipid + Ca2+. The activated factor XI
(a) A, B (b) A, O act on Christmas factor IX to form activated IXa.
(c) O, AB (d) B, O Activated Christmas factor combination with AHG,
TS EAMCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II phospholipid and calcium ion to form a complex called
Ans. (c) : • ABO blood groping in human is controlled intrinsic factor activator complex. Christmas factor is
by I gene which has 3 Allels (IA IB and I) a single chain plasma glycoprotein that participates in
• each individual inherit 2 alleles from their parents IA the middle phase of intrinsic pathway.
and IB show codonincel over I. 176. With regard to the ABO blood typing system, if
• A person blood group is O if alleles I is express a man who has type B blood and a woman who
(Homozygous recessive condition) move over when IA has type O blood were to have children, what
and IB are present both allels are expressed and blood blood types could the children have ?
group is AB. (a) A or O (b) B or O
• If A child blood group is O Both of the parent should (c) AB or O (d) A, B, AB or O
have at least one I allels. Karnataka CET-2012
Ans. (b) : The man has type B blood and women has (c) Erythroblastosis foetalis
type O blood. So, the genotype of their blood group will (d) Sickle cell anaemia
be IB IB or IB IO and IO IO respectively. The blood type JIPMER-2014 / WBJEE - 2014
of child will be either IB IB or IoIo type means the Ans. (c) : Erythroblastosis is a hemolytic disease of new
children will have B or O type of blood group. borns. It occurs when father is Rh-positive and mother
is Rh-negetive.
181. Clotting of blood in blood banks is prevented
by adding
(a) Carbonates (b) Bicarbonates
(c) Oxalates (d) Phosphates
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II
Ans. (c) : The complete process of storing and
preserving blood requires measures such as storage in
proper bags, separation of different component of blood
Therefore, 50% will have B blood group and 50% will and use of proper anticoagulations. Acid citrate dextrose
have O blood group. and oxalates is the most commonly used anticoagulant
177. The condition of erythroblastosis foetalis to store blood in blood banks as it prevent coagulation
occurs only when by inhibiting the action of the calcium ions.
(a) the husband is Rh+ and wife is Rh– 182. Assertion (A): - Albumin regulates colloidal
(b) the husband is Rh– and wife is Rh+ osmotic pressure of blood
(c) the mother is Rh+ and the foetus is Rh– Reason (R): - Heparin is the blood clotting
(d) the mother is Rh– and the foetus is Rh+ protein
NEET -2020 / Karnataka CET- 2018, 2012, 2010 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
AIPMT -2000, 1998 / Rajasthan PMT-2005 explanation of A
Ans. (d) : Erythroblastosis foetalis is a condition where (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
mother is Rh– and child is Rh+. This could be fatal to the explanation of A
foetus or could cause severe anaemia and jaundice to (c) A is correct but R is wrong
the baby. (d) A is wrong but R is correct
178. A drop of each of the following, is placed AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II
separately on four slides. Which of them will Ans. (c) : Albumin is the most abundant circulating
not coagulate? protein found in plasma which is synthesized by
(a) Whole blood from pulmonary vein hepatocyte cells of liver.
(b) Blood plasma Heparin is an anticoagulant which used to decreases the
(c) Blood serum clotting ability of the blood and help prevent harmful
(d) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic clots in vessels.
system Albumin regulates colloidal osmotic pressure of blood.
AIPMT-2007 It is a globular proteins, and water-soluble.
Ans. (c) : Coagulation is the process by which the 183. Rh –ve person donated blood to Rh + ve
blood changes from a liquid to a gel like form. Blood person for the second time. Then,
plasma will coagulate, as, it has clotting factors in it and (a) Rh + ve blood starts reacting to Rh –ve blood.
fibrinogen protein. Serum will not coagulate, as, it do (b) Rh + ve person will die.
not have any clotting factors and fibrinogen. (c) Rh –ve person will die.
179. Rh factor is present in (d) Nothing happens to Rh +ve person.
(a) All vertebrates Karnataka CET-2007
(b) All mammals Ans. (d) : Rh –ve person donate blood to Rh +ve person
(c) All reptiles for second time then nothing happens to Rh +ve person
(d) Man and rhesus monkey only because Rh –ve person do not have antigen. A Rh +ve
JIPMER-2009 / VMMC-2006 / Haryana PMT-2002 person carries Rh antigen but no Rh antibodies and a
Ans. (d) : Rh factor was discovered by Karl Landsteiner blood transfusion from Rh –ve to Rh +ve person would
and Wiener (1940) from rabbits immunized with the not cause any immune reaction.
blood of rhesus monkey. 184. Which one of the following plasma proteins is
The Rh (rhesus) factor is an inherited protein that can be involved in the coagulation of blood ?
found on the surface of the red blood cell. If your blood (a) Fibrinogen (b) an albumin
type is positive, then your blood cells have the Rh (c) serum amylase (d) a globulin
protein. Rh group should also be matched before AIPMT (Screening)-2011
transfusion of blood. Ans. (a) : Fibrinogen plasma protein is involved in the
180. Rh-factor can produce disease coagulation of blood. During any tissue injury
(a) AIDS fibrinogen helps to convert thrombin into fibrin. Fibrin
(b) Turner's syndrome forms blood clots and helps to stop bleeding.
185. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually
high quantity of carboxy-haemoglobin content.
Which of the following conclusions is most
likely to be correct ? The patient has been
inhaling polluted air containing unusually high
content of -
(a) Chloroform (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide (d) carbon disulphide
AIPMT-2004
Ans. (c) : Blood analysis of a patient reveals a high
quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin. The patient has been
inhaling polluted air containing an unusually high
content of carbon monoxide. It is an extremely
poisonous gas since it blocks oxygen transport to
tissues. 189. Match the items given in Column I with those
Inhaling polluted air containing a high amount of CO in Column II and select the correct option
reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin, given below :
which results in breathlessness, headache, etc. Column I Column II
186. You are required to draw blood from a patient A. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of B. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
blood corpuscles and plasma. You are also C. Albumin (iii) Defense mechanism
provided with the following four types of test A B C
tubes. Which of them will you not use for the (a) (iii) (ii) (i)
purpose?
(b) (i) (ii) (iii)
(a) Chilled test tube
(c) (ii) (iii) (i)
(b) Test tube containing heparin
(d) (i) (iii) (ii)
(c) Test tube containing sodium oxalate
NEET-2018
(d) Test tube containing calcium bicarbonate
AIIMS - 2008 Ans. (c) :
AIPMT-2004 Fibrinogen – Blood clotting
Ans. (d) Heparin is natural anticoagulant agent. Test tube Globulin – Defense mechanism
containing sodium oxalate use analysis for blood Albumin – Osmotic balance
corpuscles and plasma. Sodium oxalate remove calcium 190. Heparin is secreted by
from blood preventing blood clotting. Hence, test tube (a) mast cell (b) alveolar cell
containing calcium bicarbonate can’t be used. (c) plasma cell (d) goblet cell
187. Serum differs from blood in MHT CET-01.10.2020 Shift-I
(a) lacking globulins JIPMER-2005
(b) lacking albumins Ans. (a) : Heparin is secreted by Basophils, which
(c) lacking clotting factors prevents blood clotting in tissue. It is a heterogeneous
(d) lacking antibodies group of straight chain, anionic muco-polysaccharides
NEET-2016 Phase-II called glycosaminoglycans.
Ans. (c) : Serum is the plasma without clotting factors 191. Which fat soluble vitamin helps in synthesis of
and cells. It is usually abundant in antibodies. prothrombin?
• A serum albumin test is a simple blood test that (a) Vit K (b) Vit A
measures the amount of albumin in the blood. (c) Vit B (d) Vit C
• The normal range is 3.4 to 5.4 g/dL (34 to 54 g/L). AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I / HPCET-2012
Higher levels of albumin indicate dehydration or VMMC-2004 / Haryana PMT-2003
severe diarrhoea. Certain drugs, including steroids, Punjab MET-2003 / AIPMT-1993
insulin, and hormones, can raise albumin levels. Ans. (a) : Vitamin K helps to regulate the process of
188. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion blood coagulation by assisting in the conversion of
of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins? certain coagulation factor.
(a) Thrombokinase (b) Thrombin It prevents excessive bleeding. It activates prothrombin
(c) Renin (d) Epinephrine to help in clotting.
NEET-2021 • Vitamin B and Vitamin C are both water-soluble.
AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I Vitamin A and Vitamin K are fat-soluble. Vitamin A
Ans. (b) : The enzyme thrombin converts inactive has no role, in the synthesis of prothrombin.
fibrinogens in the plasma into fibrins. 192. The blood does not clot inside the body because
Thrombokinase is an enzyme complex liberated from of
the damaged tissues and blood platelets it converts pro- (a) Oxygenation of blood
thrombin to thrombin. (b) Movement of blood
(c) Heparin in blood Ans. (a) : In the clotting mechanism pathway, thrombin
(d) Absence of fibrinogen in blood activates factors XI, VIII, V. It is the principal enzyme
Tripura JEE-2019, 2021 / TS EAMCET- 12.05.2017 of hemostasis, which catalyzes the conversion of
CMC Vellore-2014 / JCECE-2012 fibrinogen to fibrin and activates procoagulant factors
WB JEE-2010 / AIIMS-2007 V, VIII, XI and XIII.
BCECE-2004 / J&K CET-2004
196. A person may die after getting a bee sting in his
AFMC-2003 / Rajasthan PMT-2001, 2003
body due to
JIPMER-1998, 1995
(a) Toxicity
Ans. (c) : Heparin prevent blood coagulation in the
(b) Coagulation of blood
blood vessels it is secreted by mast cells. It is an
anticoagulant, blocking conversion of prothrombin to (c) Anaphylactic shock
thrombin. (d) Both (a) and (b)
Heparin is used to prevent or treat certain blood vessel, AMU -2000
heart, and lung diseases. Heparin is also used to prevent Ans. (c) : Anaphylactic shock is the most panic
blood clotting during open-heart surgery, bypass situation with bee stings. It is a severe allergic reaction
surgery, kidney dialysis, and blood transfusions. that can occur in individuals who are highly allergic to
bee venom. It can lead to symptoms like difficulty in
breathing, swelling of the throat, a drop in blood
pressure, and if not treated properly with epinephrine, it
can be fatal.
197. Protein C, which inactivates factor VIII and
thereby partly inhibits the clotting mechanism
is activated by
(a) Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
(b) Thrombin
(c) Antithrombin - III
(d) Heparin
AMU -2000
Ans. (b) : Protein C is activated by thrombin acts as a
natural anticoagulant by inactivating factor VIII and
193. Calcium level in the blood is controlled by the : factor V(a), thus helping to regulate and inhibit
(a) thyroxine (b) parathormone excessive blood clot formation in the body.
(c) insulin (d) glucagon
198. Which of the following class of
JIPMER-1999 immunoglobulins can trigger the complement
Ans. (b) : Parathormone is a hormone that is produced cascade?
by the parathyroid glands. It helps to regulate the (a) IgA (b) IgM
calcium level in the blood. When the calcium level in (c) IgD (d) IgE
the blood is low, the parathyroid glands release
parathormone. KVPY SB & SX-2012
It acts on the bones, kidneys and intestine to increase Ans. (b) : IgM (Immunoglobulin M) is a class of
the levels of calcium in the blood. Immunoglobulin that can trigger the complement
cascade. The complement cascade is a series of
194. The rejection of organ transplanting in humans
biochemical reaction that are part of the immune
is prevented by using
system’s defense mechanism against pathogens like
(a) asprin (b) cyclosporin
bacteria and viruses. When IgM antibodies bind to their
(c) calsitonin (d) thrombin
target antigens on the surface of these pathogens, they
AMU-2011 can activate the complement system.
Ans. (b) : Cyclosporine is used to prevent the rejection
199. An Rh– individual receives Rh+ blood. The
of organ transplants by suppressing the immune
recipient becomes:
system’s response to the transplanted organ reducing
the risk of rejection while increasing vulnerability to (a) sterile (b) dead
infection. (c) no reaction (d) iso - immunised
195. In the clotting mechanism pathway, thrombin VMMC-2006
activates factors Haryana PMT-2002
(a) XI, VIII, V (b) XI, IX, X Ans. (d) : Iso-immunisation is development of anti-Rh
(c) VIII, X, V (d) IX, VIII, X agglutinins in the blood of Rh– person who has been
AMU-2010 given an Rh+ transfusion or is carrying Rh+ fetus.
200. Which of the following are required for blood 204. Mark the pair of substances among the
clotting? following, which is essential for coagulation of
(a) K+ thromboplastin blood?
(b) Ca2+, thromboplastin (a) Heparin and calcium ions
(c) Na+, Ca2+ (b) Calcium ions and platelet factors
(d) K+ prothrombin (c) Oxilates and citrates
MHTCET-2020 / Manipal-2015 (d) Platelet factors and heparin
Assam CEE-2014 / BHU PMT (Screening)- 2011
JCECE-2015
DUMET-2005 /UP CPMT-2003
Rajasthan PMT-1995, 2003 / Haryana PMT-2000 Ans. (b) : Co-agulation or clotting of blood itself is a
Ans. (b) : Ca2+, thromboplastin are required for blood complex cascade of reaction involving calcium ions,
clotting. Thromboplastin is a plasma protein, which acts platelets, enzymes and structural protein. This cascade
as blood coagulation by catalyzing prothrombin begins from 30 seconds to several minutes after the
converted into thrombin. It consists of tissue factor, injury. Coagulation can begin with either of two
phospholipids Cacl2 to reintroduce Ca2+ to chelate pathways, called the extrinsic and intrinsic pathway,
sodium nitrate, which originally prevent coagulation both of which feed into a common pathway that
while transpiration. completes the process. The extrinsic pathway begins
201. Bacteria cannot survive in a highly salted with a substances called tissue factor (tissue
pickle because thromboplastin) released by damaged blood vessels and
(a) Salt inhibits reproduction of bacteria surrounding tissues. In the presence of other plasma
(b) Enough light is available for photosynthesis protein (clotting factors) and calcium ions, this leads to
(c) They become plasmolysed and death occurs the activation of a proteins called factor X.
(d) Nutrients in the pickle medium cannot The intrinsic pathway begins with a substance called
support life factor XII released by blood platelets. Through a series
J&K CET-2015 of additional clotting factors and again in presence of
Ans. (c) : Bacteria cannot survive in a highly salted calcium ions, this pathway also leads to the activation of
pickle because they become plasmolysed, and death factor X.
occurs. High salt concentrations in the pickle cause 205. The genotype of Rh+ person could be
water to move out of bacterial cells through osmosis, (a) rr (b) RR
leading to plasmolysis, which can be kills the bacteria (c) Rr (d) both (b) and (c)
by breaking their cell wall. AMU-1996
202. Formation of prothrombinase is initiated by Ans. (d) : Rh+ person are those which have Rh– antigen
______. in their blood Rh+ character is controlled by dominant
(a) prothrombin (b) thromboplastin gene (R) while Rh– person have recessive gene (r). Thus
(c) fibrinogen (d) heparin a Rh+ person can have the genotype RR (homozygous
MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I dominant) or Rr (heterozygous), rr genotype shows Rh–
Karnataka CET-2008 person.
JIPMER-2007
206. Blood clotting corpuscle is
Ans. (b) : Prothrombinase formation is initiated by (a) thrombocyte (b) monocyte
tissue factor “thromboplastin”, which is exposed
during tissue injury. This sets off a cascade of reaction (c) lymphocyte (d) erythrocyte
leading to the conversion of inactive prothrombin into AFMC-2010
active thrombin, an important stage in blood clotting Ans. (a) : Blood clotting corpuscle is thrombocyte.
203. A person meet with a severe road accident and They are also known as platelets, which are small pieces
immediately is in need of blood transfusion. of very large cells in the bone marrow called
But there is no time to analyses the blood group megakaryocytes and they are important for the blood
of victim which is the safe transfer blood of clotting process.
group?
(a) O,Rh– (b) O,Rh+ D. Tissue fluid (Lymph)
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) AB,Rh+
BVP-2013 207. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
the functions of lymphatic system
Ans. (a) : In an emergency situation when there is no
time to analyze a person’s blood group, it is generally (a) Transports digested fats to the blood vascular
considered safe to transfuse them with O-negative (O–, system
Rh–) blood. O– blood group is referred as the “universal (b) Lymph returns the absorbed nutrients to the
donor” blood type because it can be given to individuals blood
of any blood group type without causing immediate (c) It transports lymphocytes from lymph glands
adverse reactions. to the blood
(d) It has no role in destroying the invading 212. Lymph contains all of the following
microorganisms components EXCEPT _______.
TS EAMCET-2015 (a) platelets (b) lymphocytes
Ans. (d) : The lymphatic system is part of the immune (c) antibodies (d) CO2
system. It keeps body fluid levels in balance and MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
defends the body against infections.
It absorb and transports fatty acids and fats as cycle Ans. (a) : Lymph are fluid tissue that help in
from the digestive system. transportation and immunity respectively lymph contain
It transport white blood cells to and from the lymph salt, water fat and WBC except RBC Platelets and
nodes into the bones. plasma Proteins.
208. Identify the set of secondary lymphoid organs 213. The second pair of lymph hearts pump lymph
from the following into:
(a) Bone marrow and lymph nodes (a) femoral vein
(b) Spleen and bone marrow (b) sciatic vein
(c) Bone marrow and thymus gland (c) external jugular vein
(d) Spleen and lymph nodes (d) brachial vein
TS EAMCET-2015 JIPMER-1998
Ans. (d) : Lymphocytes are stored in secondary Ans. (a) : The second pair of lymph hearts pumps
lymphoid organs such as spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils,
lymph into femoral vein.
payers patches, appendix etc. These organs provide site
for the interaction of lymphocytes which antigens and The femoral vein is a large vessel located deep within
proliferation of lymphocyte into effectors cells. the thigh. It is sometimes referred to as the superficial
Primary lymphoid organs (thymus and bone marrow) femoral vein in order to distinguish it form the deep
provide micro-environment for the development and femoral vein.
maturation of lymphocytes. Femoral vein is a direction continuation of the popliteal
209. MALT constitutes about ________ percent of vein just proximal to the knee. Main function of the
the lymphoid tissue in human body. femoral vein is to drain the lower limb.
(a) 50% (b) 20% 214. The lymph serves to:
(c) 70% (d) 10% (a) transport CO2 to the lungs
NEET-2017 (b) transport O2 to the brain
Ans. (a) : The lymphoid tissue present in the lining of (c) return the interstitial fluid to the blood.
the respiratory, digestive and urogenital tracts is known
(d) return the WBCs and RBCs to- lymph nodes
as mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue or MALT. It
accounts for 50% of the lymphoid tissue present in the BVP-2012 / Uttarakhand PMT-2008
human body. Manipal-2008 / BVP-2007
MGIMS Wardha-2006 / VMMC-2002
210. Which is NOT the function of lymph?
Haryana PMT-2000 / AIPMT-1995
(a) Transport R.B.C.s
(b) Drain excess tissue fluid Ans. (c) : Lymph (also called tissue fluid in the
(c) Transport lymphocyte and antibodies intercellular spaces) is the colourless liquid found
(d) Transport absorbed fat within the lymphatic system. An important function of
MHT CET-2015 lymph is to return interstitial fluid back to the Blood.
Ans. (a) : Lymph, also called lymphatic fluid that The interstitial fluid is the filtered form of the blood
flows through the lymphatic system. It carries digested without the cellular component and plasma proteins. It
and absorbed fats from intestine. It drains excess tissue consists of water containing dissolved materials. It
fluid from intercellular spaces. receives CO2 nitrogenous waste product, hormones and
211. Peyers patches are : other synthetic substances from the tissue cells and
(a) group of lymph nodules enters the lymph capillaries to discharge them into
(b) group of arteries blood.
(c) group of ganglia 215. Lymph (nodes) glands form
(d) none of these (a) hormones (b) lymphs
Haryana PMT-2001 (c) antigen (d) antibodies
Ans. (a) : Peyers patches are a series of small lymphoid Manipal-2013 / CG PMT-2005
organs situated in the wall of the small intestine.They Ans. (d) : Lymph nodes form antibodies. The lymph
play an important role in immune surveillance of nodes monitor the lymph flowing into them and produce
materials within our digestive stystem. Peyer’s patches cells and antibodies which protect our body from
are also known as aggregated lymphoid nodules. infection and diseases.
(c) decrease in calcium content of arteries and
E. Circulatory Pathway cartilage
216. Identify the option showing the correct labeling (d) decrease in blood urea
for p, q, r and s with reference to the AP EAMCET-2011
conducting system of the human heart. Ans. (b): In ageing, there is increase in calcium content
of arteries and cartilage with increasing age. Ageing is a
natural process of getting old. The science that deals with
various aspects of ageing are called Gerontology. During
this process metabolism get slow down, and substance like
calcium are not properly absorbed by the body.
220. Assertion (A) : Pulmonary aorta in human
embryo communicates with
systemic aorta by a thin vessel
(a) p- Interventricular septum, q-A VN, r-Bundle called ductus arteriosus.
of His, s-SAN Reason (R) : In the heart of human embryo,
(b) p-SAN, q-AVN, r-Bundle of His, s- oxygenated and deoxygenated
Interventricular septum blood are completely separated.
(c) p-AVN, q-SAN, r-Interventricular septum, s-
Bundle of His (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
(d) p-Bundle of His, q-SA explanation of A.
N, r-Interventricular septum, s-AVN (b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 correct explanation of A.
Ans. (b) : p-SAN, q-AVN, r-Bundle of His, s- (c) A is correct but R is wrong.
Interventricular septum (d) A is wrong but R is correct.
217. The universal donor blood group is AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-II
(a) O+ (b) O– Ans. (c) : In fetal heart circulation is different from
(c) AB +
(d) AB– adult heart. Placenta provides O2 & nutrients to the
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II body as lungs are not functional. Here ductus arteriosus
connects the aorta with pulmonary artery. In embryo
Ans. (b) : The universal donor blood group is O oxygenated & deoxygenated blood are not completely
negative. This means that people with blood type O separated because RA & LA are connected by foramen
negative can donate blood to people with any blood oral.
type. People with blood type O negative lacks both A
and B antigens as well as the Rh factor. So, the O– 221. Which of the following sequences is truely a
blood is accepted by the immune system of people with systemic circulation pathway?
other blood types. (a) Left auricle → left ventricle → pulmonary
218. Sino–Atrial Node (SAN) is situated in aorta → tissues → right auric
(a) Upper right corner of the right atrium (b) Left auricle → left ventricle → aorta →
(b) Lower left corner of the right atrium arteries → tissues → veins → right atrium
(c) Upper left corner of the left atrium (c) Right ventricle → pulmonary aorta → tissues
(d) Lower right corner of the left atrium → pulmonary veins → left auricle
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II (d) Right auricle → left ventricle → aorta →
tissues → veins → right auricle
Ans. (a) : The Sino-Atrial Node (SAN) is the heart's
natural pacemaker. It is a patches of cells located in the Karnataka CET-2008
upper right atrium of the heart. These cells Ans. (b) : Sequences of a systemic circulation pathway-
spontaneously generate electrical impulse that cause the Left auricle → left ventricle → aorta → arteries →
heart to contract and pump blood. The SA node is tissues → veins → right atrium.
responsible for setting the heart rate, which is the 222. Closed type of circulatory system is found in
number of times the heart beats per minute. The normal the members of
resting heart rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 (a) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Echinodermata
beats per minute. (b) Urochordata and Annelida
219. In ageing, there is (c) Annelida, Cephalopoda, cephalochordata and
(a) decrease in cholesterol level Vertebrata
(b) increase in calcium content of arteries and (d) Urochordata and Cephalochordata
cartilage AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II
Ans. (c) : Closed type of circulatory system is found in Ans. (a) :
the members of Annelida, Cephalopoda, and Vertebrata.
• Arthropoda, mollusca and echinodermata are example
of open type blood circulation in which blood flow like
vein.
223. Figure shows blood circulation in humans with
labels A to D. Select the option which gives
correct identification of label and functions of
the part:
The SA (Sinoatrial) node generates an electrical signal

that causes the upper heart chamber (atria) to contract
the signal then passes through the AV node to the lower
heart chamber, causing them to contract or pump so
ventricular contraction in command of SA nodes.
• The role of purkinje fiber in human heart is purkinje
fibers play a major role in electrical conduction and
propagation of impulse to the ventricular muscle.
225.Arteries are best defined as the vessel which :
(a) carry blood from one visceral organ to
another visceral organ
(a) A – Artery - thick walled and blood flows (b) supply oxygenated blood to the different
evenly organs
(b) B – Capillary - thin without muscle layers and (c) carry blood away from the heart to different
wall two cell thick organs
(c) C - Vein - thin walled and blood flows in (d) break up into capillaries which reunite to
jerks/spurts form a vein
(d) D – Pulmonary vein - takes oxygenated blood AIPMT (Screening)-2011
to heart PO2 = 95 mmHg Ans. (c) : Veins carry blood toward the heart
NEET (Karnataka)-2013 deoxygenated blood to different body organs.
Ans. (d) : (a)– Artery-carry blood from heart to body • Arteries supply oxygenated blood away from the heart
parts. It is thick walled and elastic Under high blood to all body parts or organs.
pressure. Except – Pulmonary artery supply deoxygenated blood.
(b)– Capillary-thin walled, with only one layer,
facilitates the diffusion of nutrients gases etc. into
tissue.
(c)– Vein-thin walled, brings blood from body parts to
heart, act as low resistance conduct for blood flow.
(d)– Pulmonary vein-take oxygenated blood to heart
PO2 = 95 mm Hg–
226. Open circulatory system is present in

(I) arthropods (II) annelids
(III) chordates (IV) molluscs
224. Ventricular contraction in command of (a) III only (b) III and II
(a) S.A. Node (b) A.V. Node (c) I and II (d) IV only
(c) Purkinje fibers (d) Papillary muscles (e) I only
AIPMT-1999 Kerala PMT-2008
Ans. (e) : Open circulatory system is present in (II) Normal activities of the heart are
Arthropods. Open circulating systems work by pumping regulated, intrinsically by specialized
the blood into hemocoel. muscles.
227. Match the items given in Column I with those (III) Angina pectoris is a warning signal of
in Column II and select the correct option deprivation of blood supply to the heart
given below muscles
Column I Column II (IV) Systemic circulation is also lesser
A.Tricuspid valve i. Between left and circulation
left ventricle (a) I, IV only (b) I, II only
B. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right (c) II, III only (d) III, IV only
ventricle and TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-II
pulmonary Ans. (c) : Regulation of heart-
artery
Normal activities of heart are regulated intrinsically i.e.
C. Semilunar valve iii. Between right Auto regulated by nodal tissue. Cardiac centre is located
atrium and in medulla oblongata which can moderate the cardiac
right ventricle
activity. It work through sympathetic and
A B C parasympathetic nerves. hence heart beat is under ANS
(a) iii i ii control.
(b) i iii ii Angina pectoris :- It means acute chest pain caused due
(c) ii i iii to insufficient blood supply to heart muscle ( ischemia
(d) i ii iii of myocardium)
NEET-2018
230. Which one of the following is the terminal
Ans. (a) : Tricuspid valve → Between right atrium and electron acceptor?
right ventricle
(a) Molecular CO2 (b) Molecular O2
Bicuspid value → Between left atrium and left
(c) Molecular H2 (d) NADPH2
ventricle.
Punjab MET-2009
Semilunar valve → Between right atrium and right
ventricle. The right atrio-ventricular opening is guarded Ans. (b) : In electron transport chain, cytochrome a3 is
by tricuspid valves, while the left anti-ventricular an electron carrier which contains copper with Iron. It
opening is guarded by bicuspid valve (mitral valve) picks up electrons and through copper, it hands over the
Semi-lunar valve is present in the junction of right electrons to oxygen. therefore, molecular oxygen
ventricle and pulmonary artery. accepts the terminal electrons.
228. Preceeding reactions of oxidation I, II, III and 231. Which is correct for artery?
IV in Krebs cycle (a) Thick walled in which blood flow at high
(a) Decarboxylation, Hydration, Cleavage and pressure
Hydration (b) Thin walled blood flow with low pressure
(b) Hydration, Decarboxylation, Cleavage and (c) Thick walled and blood flow low pressure
Hydration (d) None of the above
(c) Cleavage, Hydration, Hydration and
JCECE-2008
Decarboxylation
(d) Hydration, Cleavage, Decarboxylation and Ans. (a) : Arteries convey the blood (oxygenated) away
Hydration from the heart in arteries blood flows at high pressure.
AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-I The wall of arteries is made up of 3 layers. The
innermost layer is endothelium that remain in direct
Ans. (b) : Kreb's cycle occurs in mitochondria, it is
contact of blood. It is elastic fibres and smooth muscles.
catalyzed by many enzymes. Its having at 4 steps in
The elastic tissue allows the aorta to expand and recoil
Kreb's cycle.
in response to the high pressure of blood. The elastic
• Hydration → Decarboxylation → Cleavage → layer is covered by an envelope of connective tissue.
Hydration.
232. Valves are present in :
• Most of the urea is produced in the liver. The liver
cells continuously release urea into the blood and (a) arteries (b) veins
kidneys withdraw it from the blood to excrete it in (c) capillaries (d) bile duct
urine. JIPMER-1999
229. Study the following and pick up the correct Ans. (b) : Valves are present in veins. These valves are
statements. present to prevent the backflow of blood, to their
(I) Hepatic portal vein carries blood from respective chambers. valve helps to ensure that the
liver to the heart. blood flow occurs in only one direction.
233. William Harvey explained many aspects of blood from the branches of the internal thoracic arteries
human physiology one of them was and from the superior phrenic arteries The inferior
(a) Digestive system phrenic arteries supply from below.
(b) Circulation of blood Renal artery – Arteries are blood vessels that carry
(c) Blood group blood away from the heart to the kidney, the renal artery
(d) None of the above transports oxygenated blood.
AMU -2000 Renal vein – Veins are the blood vessels that return
blood from the tissue back to the heart there are two
Ans. (b) : William Harvey (1570 – 1657) discovered
renal veins one for each kidney.
circulation of blood in animals in 1628. Harvey's
The renal vein carries deoxygenated blood from kidney
greatest achievement was to recognize that the blood
to the heart.
flows rapidly around the human body. He is known as
father of circulatory system. Blood group were 237. The pulmonary artery carries
discovered by Karl Landsteiner. (a) Deoxygenated blood to the lungs
234. Single circuit circulatory system is (b) Oxygenated blood to the brain
characteristic of (c) Oxygenated blood to the lungs
(a) fishes (b) amphibians (d) Deoxygenated blood to the kindey
(c) aves (d) mammals KVPY SA-2014
CG PMT-2007 Ans. (a) : Pulmonary artery is a special artery that
Ans. (a) : Single circuit circulatory system is transport deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to
characteristic of fishes. In single circuit circulatory the lungs, where it is oxygenated. The major pulmonary
system, heart always receives deoxygenate blood and arteries that form the capillaries surrounding pulmonary
this type of heart is called venous most. alveoli.
235. In the heart of rabbit, the mitral valve is 238. Select the INCORRECT statement.
attached to the papillary muscles by: (a) Capillary endothelium provides for exchange
(a) Chordae tendinae of substances in the tissues.
(b) Purkinje fibres (b) Capillaries originate from arterioles.
(c) Columnae carnease (c) Pulmonary artery contains oxygenated blood.
(d) Bundle of His (d) Vein provides minimum frictional resistance
AP EAMCET-2003 to the blood flow.
Ans. (a) : In the heart of rabbit the left auricle- MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I
ventricular valve consists of two flap and is formed as Ans. (c) : Pulmonary artery is a special artery that
bicuspid or mitral valve. It is attached to the papillary transport deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to
muscles chordate tendinae. the lungs, where it is oxygenated. The major pulmonary
Columnae carnease – Columnae carnease are the arteries that form the capillaries surrounding pulmonary
muscles ridges or projections on the wall of ventricles. alveoli.
These structures are connected to the papillary muscles. The pulmonory artery branches into the right and left
These muscles projection divide the ventricular cavity pulmonary arteries. These arteries transport blood high
into smaller spaces, called – Fissures. in carbon dioxide and low in oxygen to lungs.
Bundle of His – Bundle of His was discovered by 239. Which one of the following option is right?
Wilhelm and his Jr. (a) Left auricle, oxygenated blood, high pH
Bundle of His is an important part of the electrical (b) Left auricle, deoxygenated blood, low pH
conduct system of heart. (c) Right auricle, deoxygenated blood, low pH
Bundle of His conducts electrical impulses that regulate (d) Right auricle, oxygenated blood, high pH
the heart beat from the right atrium to the left ventricle
JCECE-2015
and the right ventricles.
Bundle of His assists in communicating a single rhythm Ans. (c) : Right auricle deoxygenated blood, low pH
of contraction to all sections of the heart. Deoxygenated blood (venous blood) travels from the
peripheral vessels, through the venous system into the
236. Artery supplying blood to diaphragm is: right atrium of the Heart. Venous blood is typically
(a) phrenic (b) renal cooler than arterial blood and has a lower oxygen
(c) pulmonary (d) mesenteric content and pH.
Haryana PMT-1999 240. The organ which gets only oxygenated blood is:
Ans. (a) : Phrenic - The diaphragm is basically (a) lungs (b) gills
innervated by the phrenic nerve, which is farmed from (c) spleen (d) liver
the cervical nerves. The diaphragm therefore, receives AFMC-2001
Ans. (c) : Spleen is the only organ among the D. M line is considered as functional unit of
mentioned which receive only oxygenated blood contraction called sarcomere.
through pulmonary artery, liver through hepatic portal Chooose the most appropriate answer from the
vein and will through the heart of a fish. options given below :
241. Purkinje fibres are present in (a) C and D only (b) A, B and C only
(a) Brain (b) Heart (c) B and C only (d) A, C and D only
(c) Blood (d) Lungs NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
BCECE-2007 Ans. (c) : The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a specialized
Rajasthan PMT-1998 form of the endoplasmic reticulum of muscle cells
dedicated to calcium ion (Ca2+) handling necessary for
Ans. (b) : Purkinje fibres arise from bundle of His and muscle contraction and relaxation.
innervate wall of ventricle. SA node (Pace maker) is
• Striated muscles are muscles in our bodies that have a
present is wall of right auricle. It initiates heart beat.
striped appearance. This striped appearance in due to
AV node present at atrioventricular septa. Bundle of
these muscles light and dark bands which appears in an
His arise from AV node and they divides to form right
alternate colour.
and left branch of bundle of His. They give rise to
Purkinje fibres. Blood is a connective tissue pumped • Actin is a family of globular multi functional proteins
by heart purkinje cell are present in brain. Lungs as that form microfilaments in the cytoskeleton.
respiratory organ of vertebrates. • Myosin filament is also called thick filaments.
245. Bundle of His is a network of: -
F. Human Circulatory System (a) Muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart
walls
242. The type of EEG waves recorded in persons
(b) Muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
who are mentally very active and tense are
(c) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
(a) Beta waves (b) Alfa waves
(d) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart
(c) Theta waves (d) Delta waves
AIPMT-2003
TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
AP EAMCET-2006
Ans. (a) : Beta waves are the fastest type of EEG
Ans. (b): Bundle of His is a network of muscle fibres
(Electroencephalogram) waves, with a frequency of 13 found only in the ventricle wall, they are originated
to 40 Hz. They are associated with mental activity and from AV Node which give rise to purkinje fibers.
alterness. When a person is mentally very active and
• The Bundle of His is a part of the electrical system of
tense, the beta waves will be more pronounced. This is
the heart. It is a collection of cells that carry electrical
because beta waves are generated by the brains frontal
signal from the AV Node to the bundle branches.
lobes, which are responsible for planning, decision-
making and problem-solving.
243. The small blood vessels present in the walls of
large blood vessels like aortic arches are called
(a) Coronary vessels (b) Vasa vasorum
(c) Chyliferous ducts (d) Lymph ducts
Ans. (b) : Vasa vasorum are small blood vessels that
supply blood to the walls of larger blood vessels. They 246. Match the following and choose the correct
are also called feeder vessels or "Vasa nutricia". The option.
term "Vasa vasorum" also known as "Vessels of
Column - I Column - II
vessels". The inner walls of arteries and veins are
supplied with nutrients and oxygen by the blood that p. SA node i. lower left corner
flows through them. of the right
atrium
244. Which of the following statements are correct
q. Purkinje fibers ii. from the AV
regarding skeletal muscle?
node, a tract of
A. Muscle bundles are held together by conducting fiber
collagenous connective tissue layer called
r. AB node iii. right upper
fascicle.
corner of the
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a
right atrium
store house of calcium ions.
s. Bundle of His iv. branches that
C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre
emerge from the
is due to distribution pattern of action
bundle of His
and myosin proteins.
(a) (p - iii) (q - i) (r - iv) (s - ii) 250. Match the following:
(b) (p - iii) (q - iv) (r - i) (s - ii) List-I List-II
(c) (p - iii) (q - iv) (r - ii) (s - i) (A) Atria (i) blood pumping chamber
(d) (p - iv) (q - ii) (r - iii) (s - i) (B) Myocardium (ii) blood receiving chamber
GUJCET-2018 (C) Coronary (iii) Heart wall
Ans. (b) sulcus
Column - I Column - II (D) Ventricle (iv) Atrio-ventricular
p. SA node iii. right upper groove
corner of the The correct answer is
right atrium A B C D
q. Purkinje fibers iv. branches that (a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
emerge from (b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
the bundle of (c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
His
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
r. AB node ii. lower left TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II
corner of the
right atrium Ans (a):
s. Bundle of His i. from the AV List – I List - II
node, a tract of a. Atria blood receiving chamber
conducting b. Myocardium Heart wall
fiber
c. Coronary sulcus Atrioventricular groove
247. What is the time for P wave in ECG?
(a) 0.10 sec (b) 0.40 sec d. Ventricle blood pumping chamber
(c) 0.30 sec (d) 0.80 sec 251. In myogenic heart, present in molluscus and
GUJCET-2018 vertebrates, action potential is generated from
Ans. (a) : The P wave represents the wave of (a) AV node
depolarization that spreads from the SA node (b) Mass of nerve cells
throughout the atria and is usually 0.08 to 0.10 second (c) A patch of modified heart muscle and SA
(80-100ms) in duration. node
248. Choose the right option showing the correct (d) SA node
reason, responsible for forming plaques at the UP CPMT-2014
injured regions of an artery. Ans. (c): In myogenic heart present in Molluscs and
(a) High blood pressure vertebrates action potential is generated by a patch of
(b) Smoking heart muscles and SA node.
(c) Consumption of high fat food In myogenic heart the specialised impulse conducting
(d) All of the given cells in heart form the nodule tissue which is located in
GUJCET-2019 SA node.
Ans. (d): Atherosclerosis, sometime called "hardening 252. Right auricle of the mammalian heart release
of the arteries" occurs when fat, cholesterol and blood through
calcium build up inside the lining of the artery wall,
(a) Tricuspid valve (b) Vena cava
forming a substance called plaque. Over time the fat
and calcium buildup, narrows the artery and blocks (c) Pulmonary valve (d) Mitral valve
blood flow through it. It is also causes high blood SRM JEEE-2019
pressure and smoking. Ans. (a) : Right auricle of the mammalian heart release
249. The frequency of heart beat in our body is blood through tricuspid value.
maintained by : Tricuspid value is a three-lipped value between right
(a) AV Node (b) SA Node atrium and right ventricle. It prevents the backflow of
(c) Node of Ranvier (d) Chordae tendinae blood.
Karnataka CET-2012 253. If due to some injury the chordae tendineae of
Ans. (b) : The frequency of heart beat in our body is the tricuspid value of the human heart is
maintained by SA Node. The SA (sinoatrial) node partially non-functional, what will be the
generates an electrical signals that causes the upper immediate effect –
heart chambers (atria) to contract. The SA node is
considered the pacemaker of the heart. SA node is a (a) The flow of blood into the aorta will be
banana - shaped structure, its function is to ensure a slowed down
heartbeat, located in the inner wall called myocardium (b) The pacemaker will stop working
of the right atrium of the heart. (c) The blood will tend to flow back into the left
(d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery 256. This statement is not related to the region
will be reduced labelled as "a" in the given diagram
JIPMER -2014
Ans. (d) : The thread like tendons of papillary muscles,
inserted upon the flaps of tricuspid and bicuspid valve
are called as chordae tendinae.
It prevents the valves of heart from movement by
holding the flaps tightly against the strong flow of
blood.
Tricuspid valve present in heart between the right
atrium and right ventricle. It consists of three cusps that (a) Through mitral valve it communicates with
change the flow of blood from the atrium to the left ventricle.
ventricle. (b) Through tricuspid valve it communicates with
When the right ventricle contracts forcing blood into the left ventricle.
pulmonary artery the tricuspid valve closes the aperture (c) Pulmonary vein brings blood to it.
to the atrium thereby preventing any backflow of blood. (d) It is separated from the other auricle through
The valve reopens to allow blood to flow from the interauricular septum.
atrium into the ventricle. GUJCET-2008
Thus, if tricuspid valve is partially non - functional the Ans. (b) : It is opening between the right atrium and
flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced. the right ventricle which is guarded by a valve formed
of three muscular flaps or crusps, the tricuspid value,
where as a bicuspid or mitral valve guards the opening
between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
257. Right atrium: coronary sinus :: left
atrium:_____.
(a) coronary artery (b) inferior venacava
(c) pulmonary artery (d) pulmonary vein
Ans. (d) : The right atrium is one of the four chambers
of the heart. It receives deoxygenated blood from the
254. Ventricles are related to superior and inferior vena cava where as the left atrium
(a) heart only (b) brain only receives oxygenated blood from the left and right
(c) both 'a' and 'b' (d) none of these pulmonary veins.
JIPMER-2004 258. The transverse groove that separates the atria
Ans. (c) : A ventricle is one of two large chambers and ventricles is
toward the bottom of the heart that collect and expel (a) Auricular appendix
blood towards the peripheral beds within the body and (b) Coronary Sulcus
lungs. The ventricles are related to both the heart and (c) Interauricular septum
the brain. Mammalian heart is four chambered. The (d) Interanricular septum
upper two chambers are known as the right and left AP EAPCET-11.07.2022 Shift-I
auricles and the lower ones are known as the right and
Ans. (b) : The coronary sulcus, also known as the
left ventricles.
atrioventricular groove, separates the atria and
255. Mitral valve is ventricles of the heart. It is a groove that encircles the
(a) Right Atrio - ventricular valve heart and marks the boundary between the upper
(b) Left Atrio - ventricular valve chambers (atria) and lower chambers (ventricles).
(c) Eustachian valve 259. Chordae tendinae are found in
(d) Spiral valve (a) ventricles of brain (b) joints of legs
AP EAMCET-2010 (c) ventricles of heart (d) atria of heart
Ans. (b) : The Mitral valve, also known as bicupsid MP PMT-2013
valve or left atrio ventricular valve it lies between the AIIMS-1996
left atrium and left ventricle of the heart. The mitral Ans. (c) : The chordae tendineae known as the
valve and the tricuspid valve are known collectively as heartstrings. Tricuspid and bicuspid valves are found
the atria ventricular valve because they lie between the attached with papillary muscles (columnal cornac)
atria and the ventricle of the heart and control the flow through chordae tendinae, these papillary muscles are
of blood. raised muscular columns from the wall of ventricles.
260. Which one is the reason for fast conduction of Ans. (c) : Continued consumption of diet rich in butter,
impulse in heart muscles? red meat and eggs for a long period may lead to
(a) Presence of intercalated discs hypercholesterolemia
(b) SA node Hypercholesterolemia is a medical condition
(c) AV node characterized by high levels of cholesterol in the blood.
(d) Purkinje fibers This condition is a significant risk factor for developing
AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I cardiovascular diseases, such as heart attacks and
Ans. (a) : Presence of intercalated discs helps in the strokes.
passing of impulses from cell to cell so the 263. Which of the following organ has papillary
depolarization wave moves faster in the cardiac muscle muscles?
cells. (a) Eyes (b) Brain
• Cardiac muscle is made up of a type of muscle cells (c) Heart (d) Mammary glands
called cardiomyocytes. These muscle cells are JCECE-2002
connected to each other by an intercalated disc that Ans. (c) : The heart is the organ that has papillary
helps them to act as a single functional organ to muscles. These muscles are located in the ventricles and
facilitate energy and calcium conductance in cardiac are responsible for anchoring the heart’s atrioventricular
muscle cells, unique junctions called intercalated discs valves (mitral and tricuspid valves) to prevent them
(gap junctions) link the cells together and define their from inverting during contraction.
borders. 264. Assertion (A) : Cardiac muscle is described as a
functional syncytium.
Reason (R) : The intercalated discs of heart
muscles contain tight junctions which are
responsible for rapid conduction of impulses.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation to (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
correct explanation to (A)
(c) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect
261. The heart sound 'dub' is produced when (d) (A) is wrong, (R) is correct
(a) mitral valve is closed AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-I
(b) semi-lunar valves at the base of aorta get
Ans. (c) : A functional syncytium refers to a network
closed
where the cell works together with adjacent cells to
(c) tricuspid valve is opened undergo excitation, the cells are connected electrically
(d) mitral valve is opened (cardiac cells) and mechanically working in
HP CET-2018 / AIPMT-1994 coordination. The syncytial network allows the cells to
Ans. (b) : work together as a unit.
Heart Sound Dub(Diastolic Presence of intercalated discs help in the passing of
Lub(Systolic Sound) Sound) impulses from cell to cell so the depolarization wave
1. It occurs due to 1. It occurs due to moves faster in the cardiac muscle cells because they
closure of auriculo closer of semilunar contain gap junctions provide ion channels for
ventricular valves (aortic and intercellular communication between cardiac cells.
valves(tricuspid) pulmonary) 265. Assertion (A): In human heart, deoxygenated
2. It is the first heart 2. It is second heart blood always flows from right ventricle into
sound of long sound of short pulmonary arch only.
duration. duration. Reason (R): Mitral valve present at the base of
3. It indicates the 3. It indicates the pulmonary arch prevents the reverse flow of
beginning of beginning of blood.
ventricular systole. ventricular diastole. Options:
262. Continued consumption of diet rich in butter, (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
red meat and eggs for a long period may lead to correct explanation of (A)
(a) vitamin-A toxicity (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(b) kidney stones correct explanation of (A)
(c) hypercholesterolemia (c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) urine laden with ketone bodies (d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Punjab MET-2006 AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-II
Ans. (c) : Deoxygenated blood is receive from the (C) The muscular pouch like projection from
systemic circulation into the right atrium it is pumped each atrium is called auricular appendix
into the right ventricle and then through the pulmonary (D) In embryonic stage, the interventricular
artery into the lungs. septum has fossa ovalis
Mitral valve present between left auricle and left Identify the correct statements
ventricle. It prevents the back flow of blood in the left Options:
chambers. It also separates left auricle and left ventricle (a) A, B (b) B, C,D
from each other. (c) C, D (d) A, D
266. Study the following table AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-II
Part of Location Function Ans. (b) : Atria and ventricles are externally separated
heart by coronary sulcus. It contains nutrient vessels of the
heart and deficient in front , where it is crossed by
(A) Fossa ovalis Interatrial Directs
pulmonary artery.
septum blood
from • Two ventricles are externally separated by oblique
inter ventricular groove.
right
• The muscular pouch like projection from each atrium
atrium to is called auriculor appendix.
left
• In embryonic stage the inter auricular septum has
atrium fossa ovalis.
(B) Sinoatrial Wall of Initiation 268. Match the following :
node right of systole
Set-I Set-II
atrium
A. Valve of I. Guards left
(C) Atrio- Interventric Acts as
Thebasian atrioventricular
ventricular ular pace aperture
node septum maker
B. Eustachian II. Guards the
(D) Bicuspid Left atrio- Directs valve opening of
valve ventricular blood to coronary sinus
aperture flow from into right atrium
left C. Tricuspid III. Non-functional in
atrium to valve adults
left
D. Bicuspid IV. Guards light
ventricle
valve atrioventricular
The correct combinations are aperture
Options: The correct match is
(a) B, C (b) A, B A B C D
(c) A, D (d) A, B, D (a) III II IV I
AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-II (b) II III IV I
Ans. (d) : (c) III II I IV
Part of heart Location Function (d) I III II IV
Fossa ovalis Interatrial Direct blood TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-I
septum from right Ans. (b) : In RA the postcaval opening is protected by the
atrium to left valve of Eustachian whereas in RA the opening of the
atrium. coronary sinus is protected by the valve of Thebesian.
SA node Upper part of It initiate heart Eustachian valve is non-functional in adults.
RA beat Tricuspid valve – Guards right atrioventricular aperture.
Bicuspid valve Left Direct blood Bicuspid valve – Guards left auriculo ventricular
atrioventricular to flow from aperture.
aperture left atrium to 269. Dilation of the blood vessels is caused by____
left ventricle. (a) Aldosterone (b) Adrenaline
267. Study the following statements (c) ANF (d) Thyroxine
(A) Atria and ventricles are externally MHT CET-2019
separated by atrio-ventricular septum Ans. (b) : Dilation of the blood vessels is caused by
(B) Two ventricles are externally separated by Adrenaline. The function of adrenaline is to increase
an oblique interventricular groove blood pressure, expanding the air passages of the lungs,
enlarging the pupil in the eye, redistributing blood to the (a) Systemic Aorta conducting oxygenated blood
muscles and altering the body’s metabolism, so as to away from the heart.
maximize blood glucose levels. (b) Pulmonary vein conducting oxygenated blood
270. The inner surface of the ventricle is thrown (c) Pulmonary artery conducting deoxygenated
into series of irregular muscular ridges blood away from the heart
called____ (d) pulmonary artery conducting oxygenated
blood away from the heart.
(a) Microvilli (b) Chordae tendinae
MHT CET-2019
(c) Trabeculae carneae (d) Papillary muscles
Ans. (c) : Pulmonary artery is the only artery that
MHT CET-2019,2016
carries deoxygenated blood (from heart to lungs).
Ans. (c) : The inner surface of the ventricle is thrown Pulmonary vein is the only vein that carries
into series of irregular muscular ridges called oxygenated blood (from lung to heart).
Trabeculae carneae. Trabeculae carneae are the Systemic heart refers to heart chambers with
muscular columnar structures present in both ventricles oxygenated blood. ie. LA and LV.
and are of irregular shape. Left ventricle has smooth and
273. In the following diagram of T.S. of Artery, the
finer trabeculae carneae as compared to that of right
region marked 'X' is ____
ventricle.
271. Observe the diagram, identify the parts
labelled as P, Q, R, S. Choose the correct
option for the conduction of cardiac impulse.
(a) Tunica media (b) Tunica externa

(c) Tunica interna (d) Tunica albuginea
MHT CET-2018
Ans. (c) : Blood vessels-
1. These are the tubes that conduct the blood.
2. Histologically, it is composed of –
Tunica interna (tunica intima) inner layer is provided
(a) P – AV node, Q – SA node, R Bundle of His, with yellow fibrous connective tissue and lined
S – Purkinje fibres internally by simple squamous epithelium
(endothelium).
(b) P – SA node, Q – AV node, R – Bundle of
Tunica media is middle layer with mainly smooth
His, S – Purkinje fibres
muscle fibres.
(c) P – Purkinje fibres, Q – Bundle of His, R – Tunica externa is outer layer made of collagen rich
AV node, S – SA node connecting tissue.
(d) P – Bundle of His, Q – Purkinje fibres, R –
274. Match the Column I and II and select the
SA node, S – AV node
appropriate option with the given code.
MHT CET-2019
Ans. (b) : Conducting system of myogenic heart is
composed of specialized cardiac muscle fibres called P. Coronary sinus i. Mitral valve
nodal tissue which includes, Q. Base of ii. Eustachian valve
SA node → AV node → Bundle of His systemic aorta
↓ R. Left iii. Semilunar valves
Purkinje fibres atrioventricular
valve
272. In the given diagram, 'X' indicates
S. opening of iv. Thebesian valve
inferior vena
cava
(a) P – iv, Q – iii, R – i, S – ii
(b) P – iii, Q – iv, R – ii, S – i
(c) P – ii, Q – i, R – iv, S – iii
(d) P – i, Q – ii, R – iii, S – iv
MHT CET-2018
Ans. (a) : (c) thick walled and blood flows under
Column-I Column-II diminished pressure
Coronary sinus Thebesian valve (d) thin walled and blood flows under diminished
pressure
Base of systemic aorta Semilunar valve
DUMET-2006
Left atrio ventricular Mitral valve
Ans. (b) :
valve
Opening of inferior vena Eustachian valve Arteries Veins
cava 1.They carry oxygenated 1.They carry
275. Mitral valve and tricuspid valve are attached blood from the heart to deoxygenated blood
all parts of the body. from the body to the
to the papillary muscles by____ .
heart.
(a) Corpus callosum (b) Columnae carnae
(c) Crura cerebri (d) Chordae tendineae 2.They have thick and 2.They have thin and
MHT CET-2017 elastic walls. nonelastic walls.
Ans. (d) : The mitral valve and tricuspid valve are 3.The absence of valves 3.Valves are present
attached to the papillary muscles by chordae tendineae. is observed.
These are strong, fibrous cords that connect the valves 4.Reddish in appearance 4.Bluish in appearance
to the papillary muscles in the heart helping to stabilize 5.Pulse is detectable 5.Pulse is not detectable.
the valves and prevent them from prolapsing during the
280. Foramen ovale
cardiac cycle.
(a) connects the two atria in the foetal heart.
276. The study of blood vessels is termed as____ (b) is a condition in which the heart valves do not
(a) Angiology (b) Cardiology completely close
(c) Haematology (d) Histology (c) is a shallow depression in the interventricular
MHT CET-2015 septum
Ans. (a) : The study of blood vessels is termed as (d) is a connection between the pulmonary trunk
angiology. and the aorta in the foetus
• The study of heart is termed as – Cardiology DUMET-2011
• The study of tissue is termed as – Histology Ans. (a) : The atria are comparatively thin walled and
• The study of blood is termed as – Haematology are separated from each other by the inter auricular
277. The nodal tissue located in the lower left septum. This septum has a closed pit called the fossa
corner of the right atrium is____ ovalis. It represents as remnant of a foramen called
(a) SA node (b) AV node foramen ovale that is present during the embryonic
(c) AV bundle (d) Purkinje fibres stage to connect the two atria.
MHT CET-2014 281. The instrument by which B.P. of man is
Ans. (b) : The nodal tissue located in the lower left determined:
corner of right atrium is AV node. The atrioventricular (a) Sphygmomanometer (b) B.P. meter
(AV) is a small structure in the heart, located in the (c) Ultrasound (d) Stethoscope
Koch triangle, near the coronary sinus on the interatrial DUMET-2003
septum. Ans. (a) : It is the pressure exerted by flow of blood on
278. Purkinje fibres are: arterial wall which is measured by an instrument called
(a) elastinfibres (b) collagen fibres sphygmomanometer.
(c) musclefibres (d) nerve fibres The first B.P. was measured by Stephen Hales (1733) in
JIPMER-1996 horse.
Ans. (d) : Purkinje fibres are nerve fibres. The purkinje The B.P. include systolic pressure (ventricular systole)
fibre are located in the inner ventricular wall of the of 120 mm Hg and diastolic pressure (ventricular
heart, just beneath the endocardium in a space called as diastole) of 80 mm Hg. It is therefore, 120/80 mmHg
the subendocardium. These fibres consists of measured in left brachial artery.
specialized cardiomyocytes that are able to conduct 282. The innervation of heart is primarily meant
cardiac action potential. for:
279. Arteries are: (a) initiation of heart beat
(a) thin walled and blood flows under high (b) regulation of heart beat
pressure (c) activation of pace maker
(b) thick walled and blood flows under high (d) release of acetylcholine
pressure MP PMT-2013
Ans. (b) : The innervations of the heart is primarily Ans. (c) :
meant for regulating its rhythm and rate of contraction, Character Arteries Veins
which is controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
Location Deep seated Superficial
The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the
autonomic nervous system play essential roles in Lumen Narrow Wide
modulating heat activity to maintain modulating heat Valves No valve Valve present
activity to maintain proper cardiac function. Tunica media Thicker Thinner
283. Internal structure of heart is shown in the Permeability Impermeable impermeable
figure with lables 1 to 6. Identify them Pressure of High Low
correctly? blood
Tunica externa Less developed More
developed
Nature of blood Oxygenated Deoxygenated
285. Assertion (A) : Wall of heart of man release
the atrial natriuretic factor.
Reason (R) : Increased flow of blood into the
atria.
(a) 1-Left Atrium, 2-Tricuspid Valve, 3- Left explanation for (A)
Ventricle, 4-right Atrium, 5-Bicuspid Valve, (b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the
6-Right Ventricle
correct explanation for (A)
(b) 1-Right Atrium, 2-Tricuspid Valve, 3-Right
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
Ventricle, 4-Left Atrium, 5-Bicuspid Valve,
6-Left Ventricle (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
(c) 1-Left Atrium, 2-Bicuspid Valve, 3- Right TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I
Ventricle, 4-Right Atrium, 5-Tricuspid Valve, Ans. (a) : ANF (Atrial natriuretic factor) is a protein
6-Left Ventricle hormone which is secreted by the atrial wall in response
(d) 1-Left Atrium, 2-Bicuspid Valve, 3-Left to the high blood pressure into the circulatory blood.
Ventricle, 4-Right Atrium, 5-Tricuspid Valve, ANF causes vasodilatation (dilation of blood vessels)
6-Right Ventricle and thereby decrease the pressure. ANF mechanism,
AP EAMCET-05.10.2021 Shift-I therefore, acts as a check on the rennin–angiotensin
Ans. (d) : The left atrium opens into the left ventricle mechanism.
through the left auriculo ventricular aperture guarded by 286. Arteries which carries blood to diaphragm:
bicuspid or mitral valve (having 2 flaps/cuspid). Right (a) Cardiac (b) Phrenic
Atrium open into right ventricle through right (c) Comary (d) Pulmonary
auriculoventricular aperture guarded by tricuspid valve. Rajasthan PMT-1995
1- Left Atrium, 2- Bicuspid valve, 3- Left ventricle, 4- Ans. (b) : Some important arteries are-
Right atrium, 5- Tricuspid valve, 6- Right ventricle. Coronary artery – to supply the wall of heart
284. Match the following related to blood vessels? Phrenic artery – to supply the diaphragm
Character Arteries Veins Carotid artery – to supply the head (brain)
i. Location a. Thickener p. Valvular Sciatica artery – to supply the back/buttock
ii. Lumen b. Non q. Thinner Subclavian artery – to supply the arms(forelimbs)
valvular Iliac artery – to supply the legs (hind limbs)
iii. Valves c. Deep r. Wide 287. Which valve is present at the opening of
seated coronary sinus?
iv. Tunica d. Narrow s. Superfic (a) Mitral valve (b) Eustachian valve
media ial (c) Thebesian valve (d) Tricaspid valve
Options: WB JEE-2014
(a) (i-c-s), (ii-d-r), (iii-a-q) , (iv-b-p)
Ans. (c) : The thebesian valve, is the valve of the
(b) (i-d-r), (ii-a-q), (iii-c-s) , (iv-b-p) coronary sinus, is a fold in the right atrium at the
(c) (i-c-s), (ii-d-r), (iii-b-p) , (iv-a-q) opening of the coronary sinus.
(d) (i-d-r), (ii-a-q), (iii-b-p) , (iv-c-s)
• Coronary sinus supply blood to the wall of heart.
288. Which of the following depresses the Ans. (b) : Pericardium is a double-layered membrane
heartbeat? that covers the heart. The outer layer is called as parietal
(a) Vagus (b) Pericardial pericardium. The inner layer is called visceral
(c) Trigeminal (d) Spinal accessory pericardium. The space between the two layer is filled
BVP-2011 with pericardium fluid which reduces the friction while
pumping of the heart.
Ans. (a) : Vagus nerve contains parasympathetic fibres
which secrete acetylcholine. 292. Which of the following layer of heart wall
consists of cardiac muscles?
Sympathetic nerves (accelerator) increase the heart
(a) Endocardium (b) Myocardium
beat rate while parasympathetic nerves originating from
vagus decrease the heart beat rate by secreting (c) Epicardium (d) All of these
acetylcholine. WB JEE-2006
Ans. (b) : The myocardium is thick middle layer and
289. Which of the following statements is correct
consists of cardiac muscles.The endocardium is a thin
regarding the principle of safe blood layer of endothelium that lines interior of the chambers
transfusion? of heart.
(a) The donor's red blood corpuscles should not The epicardium is a thin moist layer of epithelium and
contain antibodies against the recipient's connective tissue, which is formally attached to the
serum myocardium.
(b) The recipient's serum should not contain 293.The blood vessel which supply oxygenated
antigens against the donor's antibodies blood to cardiac tissue is
(c) The recipient's serum should not contain the (a) Coronary artery (b) Coronary vein
antibodies against the red blood corpuscles of (c) Coronary sinus (d) Pulmonary vein
the donor WB JEE-2012
(d) The recipients red blood corpuscles should
Ans. (a) : Coronary circulation is the circulation of
not contain antibodies against the donor's blood in the vessels of the heart muscles (myocardium).
antigen The vessels deliver oxygenated blood to the
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I myocardium are known as coronary arteries. The
Ans. (c) : Basic principles of blood transfusion must be vessels that remove the deoxygenated blood from the
based on the unique characteristics as well as the heart muscles are known as cardiac veins. These include
vascular structure of each blood group. Therefore, the great cardiac vein, the middle cardiac vein, the small
before performing a blood transfusion, the most basic cardiac vein, and the anterior cardiac vein.
thing you need to know is which blood type you are and Coronary vein are responsible for draining
what are the characteristics of that blood type. deoxygenated blood from the myocardium into the
Human blood consists of the following groups, each of cardiac chamber.
which will have its own characteristics as well, as there Coronary sinus is the major venous tributary of the
are antibodies that will fight against the other groups , greater cardiac venous system it is responsible for
so if a blood transfusion is given, the recipient’s draining most of the deoxygenated blood leaving the
antibodies can destroy the blood, causing many harmful myocardium.
effects to the body. 294. Which term does not apply to human heart?
290.The heart muscles are (a) Pace-maker (b) Mitral valve
(a) striated and involuntary (c) Neurogenic (d) Four-chambered
(b) striated and voluntary Manipal-2013
(c) smooth and involuntary BCECE-2011
(d) non-striated and involuntary Ans. (c) : Human heart is myogenic. Myogenic heart
has contraction initiated by a special node of modified
VMMC-2004
heart muscle called sino-atrial node. This is reason that
Ans. (a) : Cardiac muscle cells are located in the walls even if the nerve supply of the myogenic heart (present
of the heart, appear striped and are under involuntary in vertebral) is cut off or even removed from the body.
control. Smooth muscle fibers are located in walls of It continues to heart beat. In neurogenic heart,
hollow visceral organs except the heart appear spindle – contraction is initiated by nerve ganglion situated in the
shaped and are also under involuntary control. vicinity of heart, e.g. invertebrate like
291. The heart is covered by arthropods(cockroach).
(a) epicardium (b) pericardium 295. What is true about vein?
(c) supracardium (d) endocardium (a) All veins carry deoxygenated blood
WB JEE-2015 (b) All veins carry oxygenated blood
(c) They carry blood from organs towards heart Ans. (d) : Pulmonary veins are thick walled blood
(d) They carry blood from heart towards organs vessels.
MGIMS Wardha-2007 The pulmonary vein carries the oxygenated blood from
BVP-2012 the lungs back to the heart (left atrium).
Ans. (c) : The veins carry blood from organ towards 301. The blood pressure is high in:
heart. The veins are thin walled as compared to arteries. (a) arteries (b) veins
They carry blood from organs to heart, most of the vein (c) capillaries (d) veins of portal system
carry deoxygenated blood but pulmonary vein carry JIPMER-1997
oxygenated blood.
Ans. (a) : Arteries are the main blood vessels that carry
296. The 'pacemaker' of heart is a transport oxygenated blood from the heart to other
(a) SA node (b) AV node part of body. It consists of three distinct layers, which
(c) Bundle of His (d) left ventricle are rigid, thicker and highly muscular. The blood
Tripura JEE-2018/ WB JEE-2011/ AMU-2008 vessels are with high pressure and move in downward
VMMC-2008 / MGIMS Wardha-2008 direction from the heart to the body tissue.
Punjab MET - 2004 / Karnataka CET-2002
BVP-2004 2002, 2000 / Manipal-2000
302. Which of the following chamber of heart has
the thickest muscular wall?
Ans. (a) : SA node is natural pacemaker of heart. It is
(a) Left auricle (b) Left ventricle
present towards the anterior part of right auricle with
auricular wall. It has specilised cardia tissue having (c) Right ventricle (d) Right auricle
ability to originate, heartbeat automatically. Hence, it is BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
also known as pacemaker. Karnataka CET-2005
297. Eustachian valve guards the opening of AIIMS-1999
________. Ans. (b) : The human heart is situated in the thorax
(a) coronary sinus (b) coronary artery between the lungs with its apex resting on the
(c) inferior venacava (d) superior venacava diaphragm. It has four chambers consisting of two
MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I auricles and two ventricles. The wall of left ventricles is
much thicker and muscular than any other chamber
Ans. (c) : Eustachian valve guards the opening of
because left ventricle contracts much stronger than any
inferior venacava. The valve of the inferior vena cava is
other chamber, it pumps oxygenated blood to different
a venous valve that lies at the junction of the inferior
body parts.
vena cava and right atrium.
298.Endothelium of blood vessels is made up of 303. Which of the following is different from other
in absence of muscular coat ?
(a) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(a) Arterioles (b) Capillaries
(b) Simple squamous epithelium
(c) Arteries (d) Veins
(c) Simple columnar epithelium
(d) Simple non-ciliated columnar JIPMER-2001
J&K CET-2008 Ans. (b) : Blood capillaries which are site for gaseous
exchange through diffusion, does not have muscular
Ans. (b) : Endothelium of blood vessels is made up of
coating while veins, arteries and arterioles have.
simple squamous epithelium. It is a single thin layer of
flattened cells with irregular boundaries. They are any fine branching blood vessels that form a
network between the arterioles and venules.
299.The opening of auricles and ventricle on the
right side is guarded by 304. In higher vertebrates, SA nodes helps in
(a) tricuspid valve (b) bicuspid valve (a) Conduction of blood
(c) semilunar valve (d) Eustachian tube (b) Initiation of heart beat
DUMET-2008 (c) Opening of tricuspid valve
(d) Opening of bicuspid valve
Ans. (a) : The opening of auricles and ventricle on the
J&K CET-2001,2003, 2013 / JIPMER - 2011
right side is guarded by the tricuspid valve. The
JCECE-2010 / AMU-2009
tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and
Punjab MET -2008, 2010 / AIPMT-2002
the right ventricle of the heart. It has three cusps that
Rajasthan PMT -2001, 2007 / Haryana PMT – 2000
prevent the backflow of blood from the ventricle to the
atrium when the heart contracts. Ans. (b) : Sino atrial node (SA node) also known as the
300. Pulmonary vein has the characteristic that it pacemaker is found in right auricle of heart. This
carry blood from initiates heart beat.
(a) left atrium to lung (b) right atrium to lung The sino - atrial (SA-node) can generate the maximum
(c) lung to right atrium (d) lung to left atrium number of action- potentials i.e 70 to 75 per minute. It
UP CPMT-2012 is responsible for initiating and maintaining the

rhythmic contractile activity of the heart. Therefore, it is 308. Inner lining of blood vessels is formed by
called the natural cardiac pacemaker. (a) ciliated epithelium
(b) squamous epithelium
(c) cubical epithelium
(d) columnar epithelium
VMMC-2010
Ans. (b) : Innerlining of blood vessels is formed by
squamous epithelium. It consists of a layer of thin flat,
scale like cells with prominent nuclei. The cells have
irregular boundaries that fit closely into those of
neighboring cells.
Squamous epithelium is one cell-layer thick and thus
every cell of tissue comes in direct contact with the
305. “Lub” sound produced during heart beat is basement membrane.
caused by - 309. Bundle of His is a network of
(a) ventricular diastole (a) nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
(b) ventricular systole (b) nerve fibres found throughout the heart
(c) atrial diastole (c) muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart
(d) atrial systole walls
AMU-2012 (d) muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
Ans. (b) : The "Lub" sound produced during a heart BCECE-2015
beat is caused by the closing of the atrioventricular Manipal-2010
valves (mitral and tricuspid) in the heart. This sound MGIMS Wardha-2010
occurs during the systole phase of the cardiac cycle
JIPMER-2008
when the ventricles contract and blood is pumped out of
the heart. Ans. (d) : Bundle of His or A.V bundle was discovered
by Wilhelm His. It is in the form of strip which comes
306. The cardiac pace-maker in a patient fails to
out from AV node and branches in left and right part.
function normally. The doctors find that an
artificial pace-maker is to be grafted in him. It Each left and right strip runs to the ventricular valve and
is likely that it will be grafted at the site of gives out numerous thin fibres in ventricular wall
(a) atrioventricular bundle The myocardium of atria and ventricles are
(b) Purkinje system discontinuous and this bundle is the only muscular
(c) sinoatrial node contraction between the two. It is concerned with the
(d) atrioventricular node conduction of impulse from atria to the ventricle but can
Manipal-2015 / CMC Ludhiana-2009 also generate impulse at the rate of 35-40 per minute.
AFMC-2008 / JCECE-2009
CG PMT-2006 / AIPMT -2004 G. Cardic Cycle and ECG
Ans. (c) : The cardiac pacemaker in a patient will be 310. Which among the following statements is not
grafted at the site of the sinoatrial node by the doctors. correct about angina pectoris.
SA node is also called the pacemaker which is present (a) It is caused by narrowing of blood vessels
naturally in the heart. It is an advanced group of
(b) It is a warning signal of deprivation of blood
neurons present in the upper side of the atrium (right) in
to the heart muscles
the heart.
(c) Necrosis of cardiac tissue occurs locally
307. Pace-maker of the heart is situated
(d) It occurs in men and women at any age.
(a) in wall of right atrium
TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
(b) on the inter auricular septum
(c) on inter ventricular septum Ans. (c) : Angina pectoris typically does not involve the
(d) in wall of left atrium necrosis (death) of cardiac tissue. Angina pectoris is a
CG PMT-2006 / JCECE-2004 / Haryana PMT-2003 condition caused by narrowing of the coronary arteries,
which supply blood to the heart muscles. This
Ans. (a) : Pace-maker of the heart is situated in wall of
right atrium. It maintains and initiates the rhythmic narrowing can be caused by a buildup of plaque, a fatty
contraction of heart. It acts as stimulus for the next substance, on the walls of the arteries. When the heart
wave of excitation and thus, maintains the frequency of muscle does not get enough blood, it can cause chest
heartbeat. pain, shortness of breath, and other symptoms.

311. Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options
List-I List-II given below :
(ECG) (Electrical (a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
activity of heart) (b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(A) P-wave (i) Depolarisation of (c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
ventricles (d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(B) QRS (ii) End of systole NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
complex Ans. (b) : The P-wave represents the depolarisation of
(C) T wave (iii) Depolarisation of the atria, which leads to atrial contraction.
atria • Q wave on the electrocardiogram (ECG) is an initially
(D) End of T (iv) Repolarisation of negative deflection of the QRS complex.
wave ventricles
• The QRS complex represents the depolarisation of the
Choose the correct answer from the options ventricles, which initiates the ventricular contraction.
given below: The T-wave represents the return of the ventricles from
(a) (A) -(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii) excited to normal state (repolarisation).
(b) (A) -(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(c) (A) -(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
List I List II
(d) (A) -(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
(A) Sandwich ELISA 1. Three dimensional
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) image
Ans. (b) : The P-wave represents the electrical (B) QRS complex 2. Substrate linked
excitation (depolarization) of the atria which leads to antibody
the contraction of both the atria. (C) Allograft 3. Ventricular
■ The QRS complex represents the depolarization of the depolarization
ventricles. (D) CT Scan 4 Transplantation
■ The T-wave represents the return of the ventricles between genetically
from excited to normal state (Repolarisation). non-identical
■ The end of the T-wave marks the end of the systole. individuals
The correct match is
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 3 4 3 1
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 3 4 1
AP EAMCET-2009
Ans. (d)
List-I List-II (A) Sandwich ELISA 2. Substrate linked
antibody
(ECG)` (Electrical activity of heart)
(B) QRS complex 3. Ventricular
P-wave → Depolarization of atria
depolarization
QRS complex → Depolarization of ventricles
(C) Allograft 4. Transplantation
T wave → Repolarization of ventricles
between genetically
End of T wave → End of systole non-identical
312. Match List I with List II : individuals
List I List II (D) CT Scan 1. Three dimensional
A. P – wave I. Beginning of image
systole 314. Two of the body parts which do not appear in
B. Q – wave II. Repolarisation MRI may be :
of ventricles (a) molar teeth and eye lens
C. QRS complex III. Depolarisation (b) scapula and canines
of atria (c) ligaments and ribs
D. T – wave IV. Depolarisation (d) tendons and premolars.
of ventricles
AIIMS-2005
Ans. (b) : Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a (a) 1. PR Segment, 2. PR Interval, 3. QRS
diagnostic exam that uses a combination of a large Complex, 4. ST Segment, 5. QT Interval
magnet, radio frequencies and a computer to produce (b) 1. PR Interval, 2. PR Segment, 3. QRS
detailed images of organs and structures within the Complex, 4. QT Interval, 5. ST Segment
body.
(c) 1. PR Segment, 2. Pr Interval, 3. QRS
• These body parts include bones and teeth mainly.
Thus, based on the above information we can conclude Complex, 4. QT Interval, 5. ST Segment
that two of the body parts which do not appear in MRI (d) 1. PR Interval, 2. PR Segment, 3. QRS
are scapula and canines. An MRI scan can be used to Complex, 4. ST Segment, 5. QT Interval
examine almost any part of the body, including the: AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-I
brain and spinal cord.
Ans. (d) : In regular ECG, 1 PR represents interval, 2
315. If the systolic pressure is 120 mm Hg and
PR segment, 3-QRS complex, 4-ST segment and 5-QT
diastolic pressure is 80mm Hg, the pulse
pressure is. interval.
(a) 120 + 80 = 200mmHg
(b) 120×80 = 9600 mm Hg
120
(c) = 1.5 mm Hg
80
(d) 120-80 = 40 mm Hg
Karnataka CET-2010
Ans. (d) : The difference between the systolic and
diastolic pressure readings is known as the pulse
pressure. It is measured in millimeters of mercury
(mmHg). If the resting blood pressure is 120/80
millimeter of mercury (mm Hg) then the pulse pressure
is 120–80 = 40 mmHg, which is considered a healthy
pulse pressure. A pulse pressure greater than 40mm Hg 319. Study the following statement regarding
is unhealthy. circulation
316. In cardiac cycle maximum time is taken by: (A) Atherosclerosis is a congestive heart failure
(a) atria systole (b) atria diastole (B) The walls of lymph vessels contain smooth
(c) ventricle systole (d) ventricle diastole muscles
JIPMER-2016
(C) Ligamentum arteriosum connects systemic
Ans. (b): In cardiac cycle maximum time is taken by and carotid arches
atria diastole. It is a cycle of flow of blood. The stage is
split into three parts the auricular systole that takes 0.1 (D) Activation of proconvertin results in the
sec, the ventricular systole takes 0.03 sec. formation of prothrombin activator
317. X-rays are used in: Choose the correct statements from the
(a) ECG (b) EEG above:
(c) CT-scan (d) Endoscopy (a) B, C (b) A, D
AP EAMCET-2005 (c) A, C (d) B, D
Ans. (c): X-rays are used in CT scan (Computed AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II
Tomographic Scanning), it use X-Ray but employs a
computer for reconstructing the image instead of Ans. (d) : Lymph vessels are lined by endothelial cells
directly recording it on a photographic files. This and have a thin layer of smooth muscles and adventitia
technique is use in the diagnosis of disease of brain, that bind the lymph vessels to the surrounding tissue.
spinal cord, chest etc. It is also useful in detecting • Prothrombin activation can proceed through the
tumours. intermediates meizothrombin or prethrombin-2 to assess
318. Recognize the figure and find out the correct the contributions that these 2 intermediates make
matching? prothrombin activation in tissue
320. Match the following related to cardiac cycle?
List I List II
i) Cardia Cycle A) 0.2 Sec
ii) Atrial systole B) 0.4 Sec
iii) Ventricular Systole C) 0.1 Sec
iv) Cardiac Diastole D) 0.8 Sec
E) 0.3 Sec
(a) (i–D), (ii–C), (iii–B), (iv–E) excitation or depolarization of the atria. The QRS
(b) (i–D), (ii–C), (iii–E), (iv–B) complex represents the depolarization of the ventricles
(c) (i–B), (ii–C), (iii–E), (iv–D) which initiates the ventricular contraction. The
(d) (i–D), (ii–A), (iii–E),(iv–B) contraction start shortly after Q marks the beginning of
AP EAMCET-06.09.2021 Shift-I the systole. The T-wave represents the repolarisation of
Ans. (b) : ventricles. The end of the T-wave marks the end of
(i) Cardiac cycle - (d) 0.8 sec systole.
(ii) Atrial systole - (c) 0.1 sec 323. Given below is the ECG of a normal human.
(iii) Ventricular systole - (e) 0.3 sec Which one of its components is correctly
(iv) Cardiac diastole - (b) 0.4 sec interpreted below
321. With reference to ECG, Match the following:
Set-I Set-II
(A) Enlarged P wave (i) Hypercalcimia
(B) Prolonged Q-T interval (ii) Tachycardia
(C) Prolonged P-R interval (iii)Bradycardia
(D) Shortened P-R interval(iv) Myocardial
infraction (a) Peak P-Initiation of left atrial contraction
(v) Enlarged atria only/Peak
The correct answer is (b) Complex QRS-One complete pulse
A B C D complex
(a) (i) (ii) (v) (iv) (c) Peak T-Initiation of total cardiac contraction
(b) (v) (iv) (iii) (i) (d) Peak P and Peak R together-systolic and
(c) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) diastolic blood pressures
(d) (iii) (ii) (i) (v) AIPMT (Mains)-2011
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II Ans. (b) :
Ans (c):
a. Enlarged P wave Enlarged Atria
b. Prolonged Q-T interval Myocardial infraction
c. Prolanged P-R interval Bradycardia
d. Shortened P - R interval Tachycardia • P wave represent the depolarization (means atria
322. In a standard ECG which one of the following contract starts)
alphabets is the correct representation of the • QRS complex represent the depolarization (ventricle
respective activity of the human heart ? contraction)
(a) P-depolarisation of the atria Ventrical ∝ Pulse rate
(b) R-repolarisation of ventricles • T represent the ventricle re-polarized (normal state of
(c) S-start of systole ventricle).
(d) T-end of diastole • Normal adult human heart beat 72 per/min.
AIPMT-2009 324. Which of the following statements are correct?
A marathon runner is likely to show
Ans. (a) :
(1) reduced heart rate
(2) enlarged heart
(3) larger stroke volume
(4) decreased arterial blood pressure
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
Ans. (a) : Marathon runner have greater stamina and
their heartrate is slow with enlarged and stout heart
muscles.
Minute volume
Stroke volume =
ECG is a graphical representation of electrical activity Heart rate
across the heart.The P-wave represents the electrical Thus, greater the heart rate, smaller the stroke volume.
325. Electrocardiograph was developed by signifies the contraction of the heart’s main pumping
(a) Hans Berger chambers, preparing them for the ejection of blood.
(b) Willem Kolff
(c) Willen Einthoven
(d) Wilhelm Roentgen
AMU-2005 / BVP-2005
Haryana PMT-2004 / Manipal-2003
Ans. (c) : ECG is a graphical representation of the
electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle
with the help of an instrument called electrocardigraph.
Einthoven (Nobel prize 1924) is called the Father of
electrocardiography.
326. Which one of the following factors decreases
the heart rate and cardiac output?
329. Which of the following is associated with
(a) Signals from sympathetic nerves
decrease in cardiac output?
(b) Signals from parasympathetic nerves
(a) Adrenal medullary hormones
(c) Adrenal medullar hormones
(b) Sympathetic nerves
(d) Thyroxine
(c) Parasympathetic neural signals
(d) Pneumotaxic centre
Ans. (b) : Cardiac centre is located in medulla NEET-2020 Phase-II
oblongata which can moderate the cardiac activities. It
Ans. (c) : Parasympathetic neural signals decrease the
works through sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves,
rate of heart beat, speed of conduction of action
hence, heartbeat is under autonomic nervous system
potential, stroke volume and there by the cardiac output.
(ANS).
Adrenal medullary hormones increase cardiac output.
Sympathetic (accelerater) nerves increase the heart beat
Sympathetic neural signals increase the rate of heart
while parasympathetic nerves originating from vagus
beat, strength of ventricular contraction and there by the
decrease the heart beat rate by secreting acetylcholine.
cardiac output.
327. Calculate the cardiac output of an individual
330. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds
having 70 heart beats/min with a stroke volume
produced during each cardiac cycle. The
of 55 ml.
second sound is heard when
(a) 3750 ml (b) 125 ml
(a) AV node receives signal from SA node
(c) 3850 ml (d) None of the above
(b) AV valves open up
Karnataka CET-2021
(c) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of
Ans. (c) : Cardiac output is the amount of blood ejected blood from atria
from heart in the aorta per min, which is calculated as
(d) Semilunar valves close down after the blood
follows–
flows into vessels from ventricles
Cardiac output = Stroke Volume × Heart beat rate
AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
= 55 × 70
Ans. (d) : Doctor use stethoscope to hear the sounds
= 3850 ml. produced during each cardiac cycle. The sound is heard
328. The QRS complex in a standard ECG when semilunar valves close down after the blood flows
represents into vessels from ventricles.
(a) Depolarisation of auricles The second sound heard is DUB.
(b) Depolarisation of ventricles When the blood enters the blood vessels then the
(c) Repolarisation of ventricles ventricles relax and ventricular diastole takes place.
(d) Repolarisation of auricles
NEET-2020 Phase-I
Ans. (b) : The QRS complex in a standard ECG
represents ventricular depolarization, which is the
electrical activation of the ventricles in the heart. It

331. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of
a normal person. The P - wave represents the:
(a) End of systole

(b) Contraction of both the atria
(c) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
(d) beginning of the systole
NEET-2013 334. In which one of the following pairs, the two
items mean the same thing?
Ans. (b) : The standard ECG of a normal person, the P
(a) Haemophilia–Blood cancer
wave represents the contraction of both the atria or
(b) SA-node-Pacemaker
depolarization of atria.
(c) Malleus–Anvil
The QRS complex represents the depolarization of the (d) Leucocytes–Lymphocytes
ventricle, which initiates the ventricular contraction. T- AIIMS-2004, 2014
wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited
Ans. (b) Sinoatrial node (SA node) is known as a
to the normal state (repolarisation). The end of the T-
pacemaker of the heart. It helps in the generation and
wave marks the end of systole. conduction of heartbeat.
332. 75 to 90 m of mercury is an adult's normal • It is located in the walls of the right atria just below
(a) Systolic pressure the opening of superior vena cava. The sympathetic
(b) Diastolic pressure nerves release the neurotransmitters and activate the
(c) Peristaltic pressure (d) Water pressure SA node and generate electric impulse which is
conducted as heart beat throughout the heart.
SRM JEEE -2017
335. During ventricular systole in a mammalian
Ans. (b) : Normal blood pressure for most Adults is
heart the ______
defined as a systolic pressure of less than 120 and
(a) Ventricular volume increases
diastolic pressure of less than 80.
(b) Bicuspid valve opens
333. Which one of the following is a matching pair? (c) Ventricular pressure increases and becomes
(a) Lub-sharp closure of AV valves at the more than the atrial pressure
beginning of ventricular systole (d) Ventricular pressure increases and it becomes
(b) Dubb the sudden opening of semilunar valves equal to the atrial pressure
at the beginning of ventricular diastole. AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-I
(c) Pulsation of the radial artery-valves in the Ans. (c) : The pressure within the atria rises further,
blood vessels. pumping blood into the ventricles. Systole pressure of
(d) Initiation of the heart beat-Purkinje fibres. contraction of the ventricles of the heart that occurs
AIIMS-2008, 2003 between the first and second heart sound of the cardiac
cycle. Systole cause the ejection of blood into the aorta
Ans. (a) : The heartbeat sounds produced are due to the
and pulmonary trunk, ventricular pressure increases and
closure of the atrioventricular valves and the semilunar
becomes more than the atrial pressure.
valves.
336. Pulse can be detected on a superficial artery
• Lubb is the sound made by the heart which is when like that of
atrioventricular valves close and the ventricles (a) humors (b) diaphragm
contract. It occurs at the beginning of the ventricular (c) thigh (d) wrist
contraction of the ventricular systole. JIPMER-2002
• Dubb sound happens when the aortic and pulmonary Ans. (d) : Pulse is the arterial beat, which is same as the
valves close after the blood has been squeezed out of heart beat rate. It is determined in radial artery of wrist
the heart. This valve also known as semilunar valve. and temporal artery.

337. ECG is least effective in detecting 340. If heart beats 75 beats/min. then what is time
abnormalities in for cardiac cycle?
(a) cardiac rhythm (a) 0.5 sec (b) 0.8 sec
(b) coronary blood Row (c) 1 sec (d) 1.5 sec
(c) cardiac contractility WB JEE-2006
(d) atrioventricular conduction WB JEE-2010, 2009
BVP-2011 J&K CET-2008
Ans. (c) : ECG is least effective in detecting Ans. (b) : In human being the cardiac cycle takes about
abnormalities in cardiac contractility. It records the 0.8 second. The time of auricular systole is 0.1 second
conduction of the action potential through the heart. and that for auricular diastole is 0.7 second. Ventricular
systole which consists of the compression period
338. What is the stroke volume of an adult human
(0.1second) and the expression period (0.2 sec) takes
heart?
0.3 second and ventricular diastole takes 0.5 second.
(a) 50 mL (b) 70 mL
Hence, the total systole occupies 0.4 second and joint
(c) 90 mL (d) 100 mL
diastole 0.4 sec. So if heartbeat 75 beats/min, then the
WB JEE-2015, 2012
one complete cardiac cycle is 0.8 sec.
Ans. (b) : The stroke volume of an adult human heart is
341. Choose the correct statement.
70 mL. Stroke volume is the difference between end-
diastolic and end-systolic volumes; it is the volume (a) Stroke volume multiplied cardiac output gives
ejected with each heartbeat. the heart rate.
(b) Heart rate multiplied by cardiac output gives
339. Match Column I with Column II and choose
the correct option. the stroke volume.
(c) Cardiac output divided by heart rate gives the
stroke volume.
i. Stroke (a) 70-75 action
(d) Stroke volume divided by heart rate gives the
volume potentials per minute
cardiac output.
ii. Cardia (b) Ventricular
AMU-2015
c repolarisation
output Ans. (c) : Cardiac output is the volume of blood
pumped by the heart per minute. It is a function of heart
iii. SAN (c) 70 mL of blood per
rate (HR) and stroke volume (SV).
cardiac cycle
Cardiac output
vi. P wave (d) 5000 mL of blood ∴ Stroke volume =
(approximately) per Heart rate
cardiac cycle 342. The blood flow through human heart visualised
v. T wave (e) atrial depolarisation by
(a) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b,
v–e (a) magnetic resonance imaging
(b) i – a, ii – e, iii – c, iv – d,
v–b (b) DSA
(c) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – e,
v–b (c) sonography
(d) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – e,
v–b (d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – e,
v–c BVP-2010
Kerala PMT-2013 Ans. (d) : Heart is the primary organ of your
Ans. (c) : Stroke Volume → 70 ml of blood per cardiac circulatory system. Sonography work on the
cycle. phenomenon of Doppler effect.
Cardiac output → 5000 ml of blood (approximately) per • Digital subtraction angiography (DSA) work for
cardiac cycle. blood flow in vessels and heart while sonography
SAN → 70 – 75 action potential per minutes work for heart only.
P-Wave → Atrial depolarization • MRI used to investigate or diagnose conditions such
T-Wave → Ventricular repolarization as tumours or brain disorders.

343. What is the value of systolic and diastolic Ans. (b) : The vagus nerve secretes acetylcholine which
pressure in human ? is a neurotransmitter and slow down the heart beat.
(a) 150/180 (b) 120/80 Vagus is a 10th mixed nerve which regulate the internal
(c) 100/150 (d) 50/60 organ function such as, heart rate breathing digestion
UP CPMT-2012 etc.
Rajasthan PMT-2011 346. ECG is a measure of :
MHT CET – 2004,2007 (a) rate of heart beat
Haryana PMT-2003 (b) difference in electric potential
Karnataka CET - 2001 (c) volume of blood pumped
Ans. (b) : When the heart beat, it contracts and pushes (d) ventricular contraction
blood through the arteries to the rest of the body. This HP CET-2011 / BCECE-2006
force creates pressure on the arteries. This is called VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004/ BVP- 2003
systolic blood pressure. A normal systolic blood
Ans. (b) : ECG or EKG is a record of difference in
pressure is 120 mm hg. The diastolic blood pressure
electric potential during the working of heart. Hans
indicates the pressure in the arteries when the heart rest
between beats. A normal diastolic blood pressure Burger(1929) successfully recorded ECG of man.
number is 80 mm Hg. Electrocardiograph was first developed by Willem
Einthoven(1903) is considered as Father of the
344. Choose the correct statement among the
electrocardiography and he got Nobel prize in 1924.
following
(a) Atrio-ventricular node is the pacemaker that 347. In ECG, P-R interval corresponds to
generates action potential and initiates the (a) time delay in A – V node
atrial systole (b) S-A nodal conduction time
(b) During each cardiac cycle, the ‘lub’ sound is (c) increased ventricular contraction
due to the closure of semilunar valves (d) time interval between onset of ventricular
(c) Stroke volume in each cardiac cycle is contraction
approximately 170 ml of blood CMC Vellore-2014
(d) QRS complex in an ECG indicates AMU-1999
depolarization of ventricles Ans. (a) : The P–R interval is the time in second from
(e) The opening between right atrium and right the beginning of the P-wave to beginning of QRS
ventricle is guarded by bicuspid valve complex. It corresponds to the time lag from the onset
Kerala PMT-2015 of atrial depolarization to the onset of ventricular
Ans. (d) : QRS complex in an ECG represents depolarization . Prolonged P–R indicates first degree
deplorisation of ventricles which initiates contraction of heart block.
ventricles. SA node conduction time in patients with sinus node
(A) SA node is the pacemaker present in the right dysfunction. The normal SA-node conduction time is 45
atrium, which generates impulses and lead to ot 125 milliseconds
contraction of atria. 348. Which is called Hamburger shift?
(B) Lubb is produced due to closure of atrioventricular (a) Hydrogen shift
valves.
(b) Bicarbonate shift
(C) Stroke volume in each cardiac cycle is about 70
(c) Chloride shift
mL of blood.
(d) Sodium shift
(E) The opening between the right atrium and right
Uttarakhand PMT-2009
ventricles is guarded by tricuspid valve.
J & K CET-2007
345. Which chemical is released by vagus nerve to
Ans. (c) : Chloride shift is called Hamburger shift. It
slow down the heart beat?
(a) Adrenaline occurs in response to HCO3− to maintain electrostatic
(b) Acetylcholine neutrality of plasma, many chloride ions diffuse from
(c) Nor epinephrine plasma into RBCs and bicarbonate ions pass out. The
(d) Epinephrine chloride content of RBC increases when oxygenated
blood becomes deoxygenated.
Rajasthan PMT-1998
349. During ventricular systole: Ans. (a) : Arteries – distribute oxygenated blood in
(a) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the body pulmonary artery transport deoxygenated blood
pulmonary artery and deoxygenated blood is from right ventricle to the lungs. Pulse is usually taken
pumped into the artery as a radial artery in wrist.
(b) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta Pulse is rhythmic contraction and relaxation in the aorta
and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the and its main arteries. Thus pulse is a wave of increase
pulmonary vein which passes through arteries as the left ventricle pumps
(c) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the its blood into aorta. Pulse is a regular jerk of an artery.
pulmonary vein and deoxygenated blood is 353. A cardiac cycle includes
pumped into the pulmonary artery (a) auricular systole-ventricular diastole-joint
(d) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta diastole
and deoxygenated blood pumped into the (b) auricular systole-ventricular systole -
pulmonary artery complete cardiac diastole
Karnataka CET-2003 (c) ventricular diastole-auricular systole-
Ans. (d) : During ventricular systole oxygenated blood complete cardiac diastole
is pumped into the aorta and deoxygenated blood is (d) joint diastole-ventricular systole-complete
pumped into the pulmonary artery. The beginning of cardiac diastole
ventricular systole is stimulated by AV node and BVP-2015
pressure rises in the ventricles, when the ventricles Ans. (b) : Ventricular systole complete cardiac diastole
completes their contraction the blood flows into the during a heartbeat, contraction and relaxation of auricles
pulmonary trunk and aorta as the semi lunar value open. and ventricles occur in specific sequence forming a
350. First heart sound is: cardiac cycle. The correct sequence of events in a
cardiac cycle is auricular systole due to the increase
(a) dub sound at beginning of ventricular systole
pressure of blood in atria. Ventricular systole due to the
(b) lubb sound at beginning of ventricular systole
increased blood pressure in ventricle complete cardiac
(c) dub sound at the end of systole diastole.
(d) lubb sound at the end of systole
354. The term "Gristle" is also used for:
Haryana PMT-1999 (a) bone (b) blood
Ans. (b) : First heart sound is “lub”, which is heard (c) nerve (d) cartilage
during closure of atrioventricular valves simultaneously, AP EAMCET-2000
second heart sound is “dub” which is produced during
Ans. (d) : The term gristle or hyaline is also used for
closure of the semilunar valve. Generally heart make
cartilage.
two sounds lub and dub, the third and fourth sounds are
Cartilage is a soft bone. It is form from chondroblast
audible in individuals. S1 and S2 are high pitched S3 and
cells. It is made up of chondroitin sulphate which is
S4 are low pitched sounds.
capable of withstanding considerable pressure.
351. Tachycardia is 355. 72 beat per minute heart beat rate of man is
(a) fast heart rate controlled by:
(b) slow heart rate (a) SA-node (b) Ventricles
(c) stop heart rate (c) Purkinje fibres (d) AV-node
(d) normal heart rate BCECE-2004
AMU-2005 / Uttarakhand PMT-2004 Ans. (a) : SA node is present towards anterior part of
Manipal-2004 right auricle with auricular wall. It has specialized
Ans. (a) : Tachycardia is an increased heart rate any cardiac tissue having quality to originate heart beat
reason. It can be a usual rise in the heart rate caused by automatically. Hence, it is also known as pacemaker.
exercise or a stress response. It is also caused by an
irregular heart rhythm. H. Double Circulation
352. Pulse beat is measured from : 356. The volume of blood that enters into the aorta
(a) arteries (b) veins with each ventricular systole is called :
(c) capillaries (d) nerves (a) Cardiac cycle (b) Stroke volume
Haryana PMT-2004 (c) Cardiac output (d) Vital capacity
Manipal-2003 Karnataka CET-2012
Ans. (b) : The volume of blood that enters into the aorta Ans. (d) : Higher blood pressure in pulmonary artery
with each ventricular systole is called 'stroke volume'. It than pulmonary vein is an abnormal condition leading
is the volume of blood pumped out of the left ventricle to pulmonary hypertension and pulmonary edema.
of the heart during each systolic cardiac contraction. The pulmonary artery pumps blood from the heart to the
The contraction of ventricle is referred to as systole. lungs. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated
Stroke volume is the quantity of blood that the heart blood from the heart to the lungs. It is one of the only
pumps out of the left ventricle with each heart beat. arteries (other than the umbilical arteries in the foetus)
that carries deoxygenated blood.
357. The vein that does not directly open into the
heart is: So, blood pressure in pulmonary artery is more than that
in the pulmonary vein.
(a) Pre caval vein
(b) Post caval vein 361. Which of the following is rightly matched ?
(a) Pulmonary circulation – Greater circulation
(c) Pulmonary vein
(b) Systemic circulation – Oxygenated blood
(d) Posterior mesenteric vein
(c) Pulmonary circulation – Oxygenated blood
AP EAMCET-2005
(d) Systemic circulation – de oxygenated blood
Ans. (d) : Posterior mesenteric vein supplies blood to
large intestine.
Ans. (b) : Systemic circulation provides the functional
• The Pre caval vein receives blood from the head and blood supply to all body tissue. It carries oxygen and
forelimbs. nutrients to the cells and picks up carbondioxide and
• Post caval vein receives blood from lower limbs and waste products. It carries oxygenated blood from the
abdominal organs and empties into the posterior part of left ventricle, through the arteries, to the capillaries in
the right atrium of the heart. the tissues of the body.
358. In humans, blood passes from the post caval to 362. In which, blood circulation starts and ends in
the diastolic right atrium of heart due to: capillaries?
(a) stimulation of the sino auricular node (a) Portal system (b) Arterial system
(b) pressure difference between the post caval (c) Capillary system (d) Lymphatic system
and atrium and suction pull AP EAMCET-2011
(c) pushing open of the venous valves Ans. (a): Portal system is a part of venous circulation,
(d) suction pull only which is present between two groups of capillaries starts
AIPMT-2008 in capillaries and ends in capillaries. The vein, which
drains bloods into organs other than heart is called
Ans. (b) : In humans, blood passes from the postcaval
portal veins.
vein to the diastolic right atrium of the heart due to the
pressure difference between the veins and the atrium 363. Which of the following carries blood rich in
during the relaxation phase of the heart’s cardiac cycle. food materials, such as glucose and amino acid,
from intestine to liver ?
359. How many double circulations are normally
(a) renal portal vein
completed by the human heart, in one minute?
(b) dorsal aorta
(a) Eight (b) Sixteen
(c) hepatic portal vein
(c) Seventy two (d) Thirty six
(d) mesenteric artery.
Karnataka CET-2006
AIIMS-1994
Ans. (c) : Seventy two times heart beats in one minute.
Ans. (c) : Hepatic portal vein carries nutrients, glucose
The human circulatory system is a double circulatory
and oxygen from the digestive tract to the liver refulates
system. It has two separate circuits and blood passes
the blood glucose level before it is drained in all
through the heart twice. The pulmonary circuit is
systemic circulation. It occurs in all vertebrates and
between the heart and lungs while systemic circuit is
includes a hepatic portal vein. It collects the blood from
between the heart and the other organs. gastro-intestinal tract, pancreas and spleen and sends
360. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is that blood to liver.
(a) less than that in the vena - cava 364. Which one of the following animals has two
(b) same as that in the aorta separate circulatory pathways?
(c) more than that in the carotid (a) Shark (b) Frog
(d) more than that in the pulmonary vein (c) Lizard (d) Whale
NEET-2016 Phase-I AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
Ans. (d) : Whale has two separate circulatory pathways. 367. All veins carries deoxygenated blood except :-
The blood flows twice through the heart, in double (a) Pulmonary veins (b) Hepatic vein
circulation. It is found in mammals and birds. (c) Hepatic portal vein (d) Renal artery.
365. Blood leaving liver and going towards heart is BVP-2011 / AIIMS-2001
rich in: Rajasthan PMT-2001 / AIPMT-1989
(a) bile (b) urea Ans. (a) : Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from
(c) ammonia (d) oxygen the heart to the tissues, except for pulmonary arteries,
JIPMER-2006 which carry blood to the lungs for oxygenation.
Similarly, usually veins carry deoxygenated blood to the
Ans. (b) : Blood leaving liver and going towards heart
heart but the pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood.
would be rich in urea. This is because liver is the site of
the process of deamination i.e. removal of nitrogen from
the molecule to get a carbohydrate.
366. The given figure shows schematic plan of blood
circulation in humans with labels A to D.
Identify the labels along with their functions
and select the correct option.
368. Wall of blood capillary is formed of

(a) haemocytes (b) parietal cells
(c) endothelial cells (d) oxyntic cells
AIPMT-1991
Ans. (c) : The blood vessel wall consists of a single
layer of endothelial cells that provides an interface
(a) C – Vena Cava – takes blood from body parts between the blood and the smooth muscle forming the
to right atrium, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg middle layer.
(b) D – Dorsal aorta – takes blood from heart to 369. Blood capillaries are made up of
body parts, PO2 = 95 mm Hg (a) endothelium, connective tissue and muscle
(c) A–Pulmonary vein – takes impure blood from fibres
body parts to heart, PO2 = 600 mm Hg (b) endothelium and muscle fibres
(d) B – Pulmonary artery takes blood from heart (c) endothelium and connective tissue
to lungs, PO2 = 90 mm Hg. (d) endothelium only
AIIMS-2016 AIPMT-1993
NEET-2013 Ans. (d) : Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels in
Ans. (a) : vascular system. They control the flow of fluid,
nutrients and gases. Epithelial cells form a protective
layer around the endothelial cells.
370. Pulmonary vein has the characteristic that it
carry blood from
(a) left atrium to lung
(b) right atrium to lung
(c) lung to right atrium
(d) lung to left atrium
In the given figure: A is pulmonary vein which brings UP CPMT-2012
pure blood from lungs to left atrium, B is dorsal aorta Ans. (d) : The lungs veins sometimes referred to as the
which carries blood from heart to body parts. C is vena pulmonary veins are blood vessels that transfer freshly
cava which carries impure blood from body parts to oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atria of the
right atrium and D is pulmonary artery which takes heart.
impure blood from heart to lungs. 371. How many times a red blood corpuscle will
• The vena cava takes blood from body parts to right have to pass through the heart in its journey
atrium, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg. from hepatic artery to the aorta?
(a) Only once (b) Two times Ans. (a) : Pulmonary artery :- transport deoxygenated
(c) Four times (d) Several times blood from right side of heart to the lungs for
Karnataka CET-2005 oxygenation.
Ans. (b) : RBCs will have to pass Two times, through Carotid artery :- It is major blood vessels supplies
the heart in its journey from hepatic artery to the aorta. blood in brain.
Double circulation occurs in human heart. So, blood 376. Blood circulation in humans is:
present in hepatic artery get spread throughout the body (a) open (b) closed
and become deoxygenated. Then it will come to right (c) semi-closed (d) both (a) and (b)
atrium of the heart and sent towards lungs. After Haryana PMT-2002
becoming oxygenated, it will come to left atrium of the
Ans. (b) : Human have closed circulatory system. The
heart and reach to hepatic artery again. blood is enclosed in the vessels and the heart while
372. The system in which the veins begin as circulating. The blood transfer through arteries and
capillaries in one organ and breaks up into vein. This type of blood circulation found in Annelids
capillaries in different organ is called and Vertebrates, in open circulation blood is not
(a) portal system enclosed in the vessels and is pumped into a cavity of
(b) pulmonary circulation the body this type of blood circulation found in
(c) systemic circulation Arthropods and Molluscs.
(d) cardiac capillaries 377. Carotid artery supplies :
J&K CET-2010 (a) de-oxygenated blood to live
Ans. (a) : A vein which beings and ends in capillaries is (b) de-oxygenated blood to kidneys
called portal vein. A portal vein collects the blood from (c) oxygenated blood to brain
an organ through one set of capillaries and sends that (d) oxygenated blood to limbs
blood to second organ through another set of capillaries, Haryana PMT-2003
the portal vein together with the associated capillaries Ans. (c) : Carotid artery supplies oxygenated blood to
from the portal system. brain. The arteries supply oxygenated blood to the head
373. The first heart sound is produced when: and neck are called carotid arteries.
(a) diastole begins
(b) semilunar valve close quickly
I. Regulation of cardiac activity
(c) interventricular pressure decreases 378. Which of the following set of compounds
(d) bicuspid and tricuspid valve close quickly constitutes vasodilators?
WB JEE-2006 (a) Heparin and histamine
Ans. (d) : The first heart sound is produced when (b) Heparin and serotonin
bicuspid and tricuspid valve close quickly. (c) Serotonin and bradykinin
The first heart sound lubb is low pitched and of long (d) Histamine and bradykinin
duration, which is produced by tight closure of bicuspid AP EAMCET-12.07.2022 Shift-II
and tricuspid value at the start of ventricular Ans. (d) : Bradykinin produces erythema owing to a
contraction. direct effect on blood vessels and wealing. Dose
374. Second heart sound is response studies indicate that bradykinin is more potent
(a) Lub during closure of semilunar valves than serotonin or histamine in respect of wealing.
The response to serotonin differs qualitatively as well as
(b) Lub during closure of atrioventricular valves
quantitatively according to dose.
(c) Dub during closure of atrioventricular valves
379. Match the Column - I with Column - II
(d) Dub during closure of semilunar valves
VMMC-2011 / WB JEE-2012 Column - I Column – II
A. P - wave i Depolarisation of
Ans. (d) : There are four heart sound named S1, S2, S3,
and S4, the first sound is known as lub, which is created ventricles
by closure of atrioventricular valve ; second sound is B. QRS complex ii Repolarisation of
dub, which is created by closure of aortic and ventricles
pulmonary semilunar valves towards the end of C. T - wave iii Coronary ischemia
ventricular systole. D. Reduction in iv Depolarisation of
375. Arteries that carry deoxygenated blood are the size of T- atria
(a) pulmonary arteries (b) carotid arteries wave
(c) coronary arteries (d) phrenic arteries v Repolarisation of
UP CPMT-2010 atria

A B C D 383. The difference between systolic and diastolic
(a) (iv) (i) (ii) (v) pressure in human is
(b) (ii) (i) (v) (iii) (a) 120 mm Hg (b) 80 mm Hg
(c) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv) (c) 40 mm Hg (d) 200 mm Hg
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) WB JEE-2010
NEET-2019 MHT CET - 2006
Ans. (d) : P wave - Depolarisation of atria Haryana PMT-1999
QRS complex - Depolarisation of ventricles Ans. (c) : When the heart is relaxing before ejecting
T wave - Repolarisation of ventricle blood into the aorta from the left ventricle
Reduction in - Coronary ischemia (approximately 80 mm Hg ). Normal pulse pressure is
the size of therefore approximately 40 mm Hg.
T-wave 384. 'Muscle pump' is
380. A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the (a) beating of heart
lower corner of the right atrium, close to Atrio- (b) squeezing effect of muscles upon veins
ventricular septum, delays the spreading of running through them
impulses to heart apex for about 0.1 sec. This (c) peristaltic wave that travel along the
delay allows alimentary canal
(a) the atria to empty completely. (d) none of these
(b) blood to enter aorta. HP CET-2011
(c) the ventricles to empty completely.
Ans. (b) : Peristaltic is a series of wave like muscle
(d) blood to enter pulmonary arteries.
contraction that move food through the digestive tract.
NEET (Odisha)-2019
Muscle pump – A mechanism that returns venous
Ans. (a) : A specialized nodal tissue embedded in the blood towards the heart due to alternate contraction and
lower corners of the right atrium, close to relaxation of skeleton muscle is squeezed through the
atrioventricular septum, delays the spreading of vein towards the heart. Valves prevent back flow
impulses to heart apex for about 0.1 sec, because the
spreading of impulses through the AV node is delayed, J. Disorders of circulatory system
it takes about 0.1 seconds for the action potentials to
reach the ventricle from the atria. This allows the atria 385. Select the correct statements about sickle cell
to empty completely and the ventricles to contract only anaemia.
after the atrial systole is completed (and ventricles are (A) There is a change is gene for beta globin.
completely filled). (B) In the beta globin, there is valine in the
381. Which one of the following has been place of lysine.
commercialised as blood-cholesterol lowering (C) It is an example of point mutation.
agent? (D) In the normal gene U is replaced by A.
(a) Streptokinase (b) Cyclosporin-A Choose the correct answer from the
(c) Statins (d) α-Trypsin-A options given below:
Karnataka CET-2017 (a) (A), (B) and (D) only (b) (A) and (C) only
Ans. (c) : Statins is obtained from a yeast(fungi) called (c) (B), (C) and (D) only (d) (B) and (D) only
Monascus purpureus. RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur)
It acts by competitively inhibiting the enzyme Ans. (b) : Sickle cell anemia is caused by glutamic acid
responsible for synthesis of cholesterol. by valin at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of
382. Blood pressure increases and heart rate the haemoglobin molecule. It is an example of point
decreases in response to: mutation. The substitution of amino acid in the globin
(a) exercise protein result due to the single base substitution at the
(b) haemorrhage sixth codon of the beta globin gene from GAG to GUG.
(c) exposure to high altitude Hence, option (b) is correct answer.
(d) increased intracranial pressure 386. In which disorder change of single base pair in
WB JEE-2006 the gene for beta globin chain results in change
Ans. (d) : Increase intracranial pressure (ICP). It is a of glutamic acid to valine?
brain injury or another medical condition can cause (a) Haemophilia (b) Phenylketonuria
growing pressure inside skull. This dangerous condition (c) Thalassemia (d) Sickle cell anaemia
is called ICP and can lead to a headache. RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur)
Ans. (d) : Sickle cell disease is a group of disorders that 390. Which one of the following statement is correct
affects hemoglobin, the molecule in red blood cells that regarding blood pressure :
delivers oxygen to cells throughout the body. (a) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like
• It is caused by mutation of the gene controlling β- brain and kidney
chain of hemoglobin. Due to this mutation, glutamic (b) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and
acid present at 6th position of the β-chain is replaced requires treatment
by amino acid valine. (c) 100/55 mm Hg considered an ideal blood
pressure
• Haemophilia is a disorder in which blood does not
(d) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active
clot normally.
• Phenylketonuria is an inherited disorder that causes a
build-up of phenylalanine in the blood. This can Ans. (a) : High blood pressure also called Hypertension
cause mental retardation etc. is, blood pressure that is higher than the normal.
• They harm vital organ like brain, kidney etc.
• Thalassemia is an inherited passed from parents to
children. 391. Hypochromic microcytic anaemia and
leucopenia are caused by the deficiency of ------
• It is blood disorder in which body does not make
respectively.
enough of protein called hemoglobin.
(a) pyridoxine and riboflavin
387. A person admitted to hospital as he had (b) pyridoxine and folacin
myocardial infarction. A cardiologist injecting
(c) biotin and folacin
him 'streptokinase'. Why?
(d) biotin and cyanocobalamin
(a) It reduces hypertension.
AP EAMCET-2009
(b) It reduces the level of blood cholesterol.
Ans. (b) : Hypochromic microcytic anaemia (fewer
(c) It stimulates heart beat.
and smaller erythrocytes with reduce hemoglobin) and
(d) It acts as clot buster. leucopenia (low value of leucocytes in blood) are
Karnataka CET-2016 caused by the deficiency of pyridoxine and folacin
Ans. (d) : Patients who don’t get the hospital within 90 respetively.
minutes of stroke symptoms starting may not be eligible 392. Tachycardia means fast heart rate with beats
to receive an effective “clot-busting” drug called tPA. over ____ per minute.
tPA quickly dissolves the clots that cause many strokes. (a) 60 (b) 95
388. Coronary heart disease is due to (c) 100 (d) 75
(a) Weakening of the heart valves MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I
(b) Insufficient blood supply to the heart muscles. Ans. (c) : Tachycardia is the medical term for a heart
(c) Streptococci bacteria. rate over 100 beat per minute. Many types of irregular
(d) Inflammation of pericardium. heart rhythms (arrhythmias) can cause tachycardia.
Karnataka CET-2007 393. During fatigue :
Ans. (b): Coronary heart disease (CHD) is usually (a) blood circulation in muscles stop
caused by a build-up of fatty acid deposits (atheroma) (b) muscle fails to relax
on the wall of artery around the heart (coronary (c) muscles fails to be stimulated
arteries). The build-up of atheroma makes the arteries (d) motor nerve does not respond to muscles
narrower, restricting the flow of blood to the heart Uttarakhand PMT-2006
muscle. This process is called atherosclerosis Ans. (c) : During fatigue muscles fails to be stimulated.
389. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated Fatigue is the inability of a muscle to contract It is due
with haemolysis of to depletion of its chemicals and lactic acid
(a) lymphocytes (b) RBCs accumulation by repeated contraction.
(c) platelets (d) leucocytes 394. The deposition of lipids on the wall lining the
JIPMER-2007 lumen of large and medium sized arteries is
referred to as
Ans. (b) : G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is
(a) Deep vein thrombosis
associated with haemolysis of RBCs.
(b) Stokes - Adams Syndrome
It is when the body doesn't have enough of an enzyme
(c) Osteoporosis
called G6PD (glucose-6-) phosphate dehydrogenate.
(d) Osteoarthritis
Without enough G6PD to protect them, the red blood
(e) Atherosclerosis
cells break apart. This is called hemolytic anemia.
Kerala PMT-2009
Ans. (e) : Coronary Artery disease(CAD) - It affects the The correct answer is
vessels that supply blood to heart muscle. It includes options :
Atherosclerosis - narrowing of blood vessel due to fat A B C D
deposition mainly cholesterol in tunica interna and (a) IV I III II
smooth muscles. (b) IV I V III
395. An oval depression called fossa ovalis is seen on (c) IV I V II
(a) Inter atrial septum (d) IV III II V
(b) Inter ventricular septum AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-I
(c) Right auriculo-ventricular septum Ans. (c) :
(d) Left auriculo-ventricular septum Shortened Q-T internal Hypercalcemia
(e) Papillary muscles Inverted T-wave Hypokalemia
Kerala PMT-2009 Elevated S-T-Segment Myocardial infarction
Ans. (a) : The fossa ovalis is a depressed structure of Shortened P-R interval Tachycardia
varying shapes, located in the inferior aspect of the right
398. Heart attack is also called____
interatrial septum. A remnant of an interatrial opening,
(a) Arteriosclerosis
the foramen ovale, which has a significant role in fetal
circulation, the fossa ovalis form by the fusion of the (b) Angina pectoris
septum primum and septum secundum. (c) Bradycardia
(d) Myocardial infarction
396. Assertion (A) : Saline water is not given to
MHT CET-2018
patients of hypertension.
Reason (R) . Saline water can cause vomiting Ans. (d) : Heart attack is also called myocardial infraction.
It happens when the flow of blood that brings oxygen to a
and may drop blood pressure
part of your heart muscle suddenly becomes blocked. Your
suddenly causing cardiac arrest.
heart can’t get enough oxygen. If blood flow is not restored
(A) If both the (A) and the (R) are true and the quickly, the heart muscle will begin to die.
(R) is a correct explanation of the (A).
399. Hypertension is not caused by
(B) If both the (A) and the (R) are true but the
(a) Anaemia (b) Atherosclerosis
(R) is not a correct explanation of the (A). (c) Arteriosclerosis (d) Obesity
(C) If the (A) is true but (R) is false. MHT CET-2009
(D) If both the (A) and the (R) are false.
Ans. (a) : Anaemia result from a lack of red blood cells
(E) If (A) is false but (R) is true or dysfunction red blood cells in the body. This leads to
(a) A (b) B reduced oxygen flow to the body's organs.
(c) C (d) D
(e) E
List-I List-II
AIIMS-2000 (A) Angina pectoris (I) Insufficient
Ans. (c) : Assertion - Saline water is not given to pumping of blood
patients of hypertension as it can cause increase in (B) Heart Failure (II) Accumulation of
blood pressure. When salt is ingested, it gets dissolved calcium and
in the blood and dissociates into two ions. The water
cholesterol
potential in blood will decrease because of increased
(C) Heart attack (III) Chest pain
solute concentration, and blood osmotic pressure will
rise. The kidney excrete excess sodium and chloride in (D) CAD (IV) Localised death of
the body, water retention cause blood pressure to heart tissue
increase. (V) Elevated blood
pressure
List-I List-II
Options:
(A) Shortened Q-T interval (I) Hypokalemia
A B C D
(B) Inverted T wave (II)Tachycardia
(a) IV III I II
(C) Elevated S-T segment (III) Hyperkalemia
(b) III IV I II
(D) Shortened P-R interval (IV) Hypercalcemia
(c) III II I IV
(V) Mycardial
(d) III I IV II
infarction TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-I
Ans. (d) : 405. G6 – P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated
Angina pectoris – chest pain with haemolysis of
Heart attack – Localized death of heart tissue (a) lymphocytes (b) RBCs
CAD – Accumulation of calcium and (c) platelets (d) lucocytes
cholesterol Manipal-2015
Heart failure – Insufficient pumping of blood Ans. (b) : G6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is an
401. The disease that occurs when the hemoglobin inherited condition usually occurring in male it is more
content of the blood goes down is : common in those of African and Mediterranean descent.
(a) plurisy (b) emphysema 406. A patient brought to a hospital with
(c) anaemia (d) pneumonia myocardial infarction is normally immediately
Rajasthan PMT-2001 given
Ans. (c) : The disease that occurs when the hemoglobin (a) Cyclosporin A
content of the blood goes down is anaemia. A decrease (b) Streptokinase
level of Hb compared to normal is referred to as (c) Penicillin
Anemia. (d) Statins
402. The blood cancer is known as: JCECE-2018
(a) leukemia (b) thrombosis Ans. (b) : Heart attack also called myocardial infarction
(c) haemolysis (d) haemophilia it happens when one or more areas of the heart muscle
J&K CET-2010 don't get enough oxygen streptokinase dissolve blood
Haryana PMT-2000 clots in blood vessels.
Ans. (a) : Leukemia a type of blood cancer found in our 407. Vascular grafts are made up of
blood and bone marrow is caused by the rapid (a) Rubber tubes
production of abnormal white blood cells. (b) Dacron or Teflon
403. Which of the following is correctly matched? (c) Fibre glass
(a) Enlarged P-wave–Acute myocardial infarction (d) Plastic
(b) QRS wave flat– Atherosclerotic heart disease BHU PMT (Screening)-2011
(c) Enlarged Q and R-wave–Myocardial infarction Ans. (b) : Vascular graft (vascular bypass) is a surgical
(d) Elevated S-T – Enlargement of atria procedure that redirects blood flow from one area of the
MGIMS Wardha-2014 body to another by reconnecting the blood vessels. Most
Ans. (c) : A heart attack also called myocardial common graft material is made of Dacron or Teflon.
infarction, happens when a part of the heart muscle 408. Atherosclerosis is caused by the increase of ___
does not get enough blood, coronary artery disease in the blood.
(CAD) is the main cause of heart attack. (a) Protein (b) Glucose
404. Which one of the following conditions is NOT (c) Cholesterol (d) Alcohol
responsible for the presence of deoxygenated Tripura JEE-2019
blood in the arteries of a newborn? AIIMS -2007
(a) Pneumonia Ans. (c) : Atherosclerosis is caused by the increase of
(b) Atrial septal defect Cholesterol in the blood. If cholesterol is too much in
(c) Shunt between pulmonary artery and aorta the blood and other substances may be from deposits
(d) Phenylketonuria that collect on artery walls.
KVPY SB & SX-2019 Vitamin B complex and folic acids prevents from
Ans. (d) : Phenylketonuria is a birth defect that causes atherosclerosis.
an amino acid called phenylalanine to build up in the 409. The presence of RBCs in urine is known as
body. In PKD disorder enzyme phenylalanine hydroxyls (a) uraemia (b) haematuria
is not form by the mutation of gene therefore (c) alkaptonuria (d) polycythaemia
phenylalanine is not converted into the tyrosine. It CG PMT-2011
accumulate in the blood and tissue. Kidney can't absorb Ans. (b) : Haematuria is the presence of RBCs in the
phenylalanine properly therefore phenylalanine exerts urine, it may be idiopathic or benign or it can cause
out of the body through the urine. kidney stone.
03. EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND
THEIR ELIMINATION
4. Assertion (A) : The egestion of faeces to outside
A. Excretory Substance and through anus is a voluntary process.
Their Process Reason (R) : The undigested wastes in rectum
initiates neural reflex causing an urge for its
1. Function of contractile vacuole in Amoeba is removal.
(a) Digestion and excretion (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(b) Excretion and osmoregulation explanation of A
(c) Digestion and respiration (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(d) Osmoregulation and movements explanation of A
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 (c) A is true and R is false
Ans. (b) : The contractile vaccuole in Amoeba is (d) A is wrong and R is true
responsible for excretion and osmoregulation. It helps to AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I
remove the intracellular water balance from the cell by Ans. (a) : Assertion (A) is correct because the egestion
contracting and expelling it out of the cell. This helps to
of faeces through the anus is ended a voluntary process
maintain the osmotic balance of the cell. under normal circumstances.
2. The kinds of nephridia of earthworm that sent Reason (R) is also correct because the undigested
out the nitrogenous waste through anus are wastes in the rectum do initiate neural reflexes that
(a) Integumentary and septal nephridia results in the urge for faeces removal, which then leads
(b) Pharyngeal and integumentary nephridia to the voluntary act of defecation.
(c) pharyngeal and septal nephridia So, both A and R are true, and R provides a correct
explanation for A.
(d) Integumentary, pharyngeal and septal
nephridia 5. Which one is a component of ornithine cycle?
(a) Ornithine, citrulline and fumaric acid
(b) Ornithine, citrulline and arginine
Ans. (c) : Earthworms have two types of nephridia (c) Ornithine, citrulline and alanine
involved in excretion–Pharyngeal nephridia and septal (d) Amino acids are not used
nephridia. UP CPMT-2009, 2012/ HP CET-2012
• Pharyngeal Nephridia– These are located in the JIPMER-2010 / JIPMER-2009
anterior region, near the pharynx of the earthworm. Punjab MET-2009 / CG PMT-2008
Rajasthan PMT-2008 / JIPMER-2004
They primarily remove excess water and help in
osmoregulation. They also eliminate some metabolic Ans. (b) : Ornithine cycle also known as ‘Urea Cycle’
waste in the form of nitrogenous compound (e.g. is biochemical process of formation of urea from
ammonia. Its primary job is to convert excess ammonia
ammonia) into the digestive system.
into urea in the mitochondria of liver cells.
• Septal Nephridia– These nephridia are located in • Ornithine, citrulline and arginine enzymes are
multiple segments along the length of earthworms. component that used in urea cycle.
They play a important role in excreting nitrogenous
waste products, as well as maintaining the osmotic
balance.
3. The substances eliminated through sweat
(a) Sterols, Waxes
(b) Cholesterol, steroid hormones
(c) Hydrocarbons, drugs
(d) Small amount Urea, lactic acid
Ans. (d) : The substances eliminated through sweat
small amount urea, lactic acid, sweat glands are used to
regulate temperature and remove waste by secreting
water, sodium salts, and nitrogenous waste (such as
urea) onto the skin surface.
Excretory Products and their Elimination 105 YCT
6. The conversion of a protein waste, the (c) carbon dioxide and ammonia
ammonia into urea occurs in (d) ammonia and uric acid
(a) liver (b) kidney JIPMER-2017 / Uttarakhand PMT-2010
(c) gall bladder (d) intestine JIPMER-2007 / CG PMT-2006
CMC Ludhiana-2010 CG PMT-2006 / AIPMT-2005
Ans. (a) : The conversion of protein waste, the ammonia AP EAMCET-2005 / JIPMER-2003
into urea occurs in liver. Ammonia is toxic that changes AFMC-2000 / AIPMT-1997
into urea and eliminated via urine passages. Ans. (c) :The ornithine cycle removes CO2 and
7. Excretory product of spider is ammonia as a waste products from the blood in the
(a) uric acid (b) ammonia liver. It is a biochemical reaction, which involves
(c) guanine (d) None of the above production of urea from ammonia in the liver. It is also
Punjab MET-2009 known as urea cycle and Kreb's-Henseleit cycle.
Ans. (c) : Excretory product of spider is guanine. It is 13. Synthesis of urea in liver takes place by
formed of Nucleotide metabolism.Scorpions and spiders (a) Nitrogen cycle (b) Krebs cycle
excrete their waste product in the form of guanine. (c) Ornithine cycle (d) Glycolysis
Hence, they are said to be guanotelic. BCECE-2011
8. A man takes large amount of proteins. He is Ans. (c) : The synthesis of urea take place in the liver
likely to excrete a greater amount of by the process called ornithine cycle. This cycle was
(a) urea (b) uric acid given by Hans Krebs met Kurt Henseleit in 1932.
(c) sugar (d) None of these 14. Least toxic excretory material is
UP CPMT-2004 (a) ammonia (b) amino acids
Ans. (a) : A man takes large amount of proteins. He is (c) urea (d) uric acid
likely to excrete a greater amount of urea and uric acid. MGIMS Wardha-2012 / UP CPMT-2010
9. The main nitrogenous waste of Hydra is Rajasthan PMT-1999
(a) ammonia only (b) urea only Ans. (d) :Excretion is physiological process which
(c) uric acid only (d) Both (a) and (c) involves the elimination of waste products from the
UP CPMT-2004 body such as amino acids, urea, uric acid, CO2, water
Ans. (a) : The main nitrogenous waste product of hydra and ammonia. Generally birds excrete uric acid,
is ammonia. Hydra does not have organ of excretion. mammals excrete urea. Hence, least toxic excretory
• Excretion of waste nitrogenous matter takes place material is uric acid.
directly by diffusion through all membrane. 15. Which one is uricotelic?
10. The most abundant, harmful and universal (a) Frog and toads
waste product of metabolism is (b) Lizards and birds / cockroach
(a) CO2 (b) uric acid (c) Cattle, monkey and man
(c) H2O (d) None of these (d) Molluscs and teleost fishes
UP CPMT-2004 WBJEE-2015 / BVP-2012 / MGIMS Wardha-2007
Ans. (a) : The most abundant harmful and universal Ans. (b) : The process of excreting nitrogenous wastes
waste product of metabolism is CO2. CO2 is excretory in the form of uric acid is known as uricotelic.
product that travels through blood and is transferred to Examples of uricotelic.- reptiles, birds, snail, insect.
the lungs, where it is exhaled, it is the end products of • Examples of ammonotelic animals are frog, toads,
respiration. molluscs and teleost fishes, while cattle, monkey and
11. Two examples in which the nitrogenous wastes man are the examples of ureotelic.
are excreted from body in the form of uric acid 16. The reptiles and birds cannot afford to lose
are water and hence, they excrete
(a) birds and lizards (a) ammonia (b) urea
(b) mammals and mollusc (c) creatinine (d) uric acid
(c) insects and bony fishes JIPMER-1999
(d) frogs and cartilaginous fishes Ans. (d) : The reptiles and birds cannot afford to lose
Punjab MET-1999 / AIPMT-1994 water and hence, they excrete uric acid, so they are
Ans. (a) : Birds and lizards are uricotelic. Uricotelic known as uricotelic organism. Uric acid is the least
organisms are those that excrete nitrogenous waste in toxic and the least soluble in water.
the form of uric acid, for example- Reptile (lizard), bird, 17. The conversion of dangerous nitrogenous waste
and insect. into less toxic excretory matter is carried out in
12. Ornithine cycle removes two waste products man in the
from the blood in liver. These are : (a) blood (b) liver
(a) carbon dioxide and urea (c) kidney (d) skin
(b) ammonia and urea J & K CET-2009
Ans. (b) : The conversion of dangerous nitrogenous 23. Which one of the following likely to accumulate
waste into less toxic excretory matter is carried out in in a dangerous proportion in the blood of a
man in the liver. The urea cycle is primary mechanism person where kidney is not working properly ?
by which mammals convert ammonia into urea. (a) Lysine (b) Ammonia
• Kidney- Urine formation is carried out in three phases- (c) Sodium chloride (d) Urea
glomerulus filtration, reabsorption and secretion. VMMC-2006
• Skin is the largest organ of our body. Ans. (d) :Urea is likely to accumulate in a dangerous
18. The end product of ornithine cycle is proportion in the blood of a person, where kidney is not
(a) urea (b) uric acid working properly. It is the end product of the metabolic
(c) ammonia (d) carbon dioxide breakdown of proteins.
BHU PMT (Screening)-2010 24. Which one of the following is metabolic waste
AIIMS-1999 / HP CET-2018 of protein metabolism ?
Ans. (a) : The end product of ornithine cycle is urea. (a) Urea, ammonia and CO2
Most of the ammonium ion are formed by the (b) Urea, ammonia and creatinine
breakdown of amino acid in the liver that is changed (c) Urea, ammonia and alanine
into urea, and the urea is excreted in the urine. (d) Urea, nitrogen and O2
19. In living beings ammonia is converted into urea VMMC-2006
through : Haryana PMT-1999
(a) ornithine cycle (b) citrulline cycle
Ans. (b) : Urea, ammonia and creatinine are metabolic
(c) fumarine cycle (d) arginine cycle
waste product in protein metabolism. Urea is directly
JIPMER-2003
synthesized from CO2 and ammonia.
Ans. (a) : In living beings ammonia is converted into
urea, through ornithine cycle or urea cycle. The 25. Excretion of nitrogenous waste products in
conversion reactions of ammonia into urea are semisolid form occurs in
described by the urea cycle or ornithine cycle. The urea (a) ureotelic animals (b) ammonotelic animals
is transferred in to the kidneys, where it is excreted, (c) uricotelic animals (d) ammonites
these reactions occur in the liver. CG PMT-2007
20. Blood leaving liver and going towards heart is Ans. (c) : Excretion of nitrogenous waste product in
rich in : semisolid form occurs in uricotelic animals.
(a) bile (b) urea Examples of Uricotelic animals are - birds and reptiles.
(c) ammonia (d) oxygen They have uric acid as their nitrogenous waste.
MGIMS Wardha-2005 26. The phenomenon, which represents terrestrial
Ans. (b) : In liver, the end product of protein mode (dry habitat) of life, is
metabolism are converted in to the urea. Bile is (a) ammonotelism (b) ureotelism
physiological aqueous solution produced and secreted (c) uricotelism (d) All of these
by the liver. Ammonia is highly toxic for the living CG PMT-2007
system and converted into urea.
Ans. (c) : The phenomenon, which represents terrestrial
21. Some animals excrete uric acid in urine mode (dry habitat) of life, is uricotelism. It is the
(uricotelic) as it requires very little water. This process of elimination of wastes product from body in
is an adaptation to conserve water loss. Which the form of uric acid.
animals among the following are most likely to
be uricotelic? 27. Aquatic reptiles are
(a) fishes (b) birds (a) ammonotelic (b) ureotelic over land
(c) amphibians (d) mammals (c) ureotelic (d) ureotelic in water
KVPY SB & SX-2012 CG PMT-2007
Ans. (b) : The process of excreting nitrogenous wastes Ans. (c) : Aquatic reptiles are ureotelic. The ureotellic
in the form of uric acid is known as uricotelism. The animals are those animals that excrete urea. Ureotelic
organisms which excrete uric acid are called uricotelic. organisms include amphibians, mammals, aquatic or
• Reptiles, birds, snails, insects are examples for semi-aquatic reptiles for example turtles and alligators.
uricotelic animals. 28. Ammonia is the chief excretory substance in
22. In ureotelic animals urea is formed by: (a) camel and whale (b) cartilaginous fishes
(a) Ornithine cycle (b) Cons cycle (c) whale and tortoise (d) fresh water fishes
(c) Kreb's cycle (d) EMP pathway CG PMT-2007
HP CET-2013 / Rajasthan PMT-2004 Ans. (c) : The process of excreting ammonia is
Haryana PMT-2001 / AIPMT-1997 ammonotelism. Many freshwater fishes and tadpole is
JIPMER-1996 excretory substance of ammonia.
Ans. (a) : In ureotelic animals urea is formed by • Camels and whale are belongs to mammals group,
ornithine cycle. The ornithine cycle or urea cycle is a they are ureotelic and excrete nitrogenous wastes in
process in which ammonia is converted into urea. This the form of urea.
cycle occurs in liver. • Tortoise excrete most nitrogenous waste uric acid.
29. The chief nitrogenous waste in urine of rabbit 35. Ornithine cycle is related to
or terrestrial mammals is (a) respiration (b) excretion
(a) urea (b) uric acid (c) digestion (d) nutrition
(c) ammonia (d) None of these AMU-2008
CG PMT-2007 Ans. (b) : Ornithine cycle is related to excretion.
Ans. (a) : The chief nitrogenous waste in urine of rabbit Ornithine cycle takes place in liver which is associated
or terrestrial mammals is urea. Nitrogenous waste is with the formation of urea for excretion. It is a process
formed from the ammonia in liver of rabbit or that regulates osmotic pressure of fluid and electrolytic
terrestrials mammals. balance.
30. Which of the following are uricotelic animals ? 36. Regulation of water in body is called:
(a) Rohu and frog (a) homeostasis (b) excretion
(b) Lizard and crow (c) paedogenesis (d) osmoregulation
(c) Camel and frog Haryana PMT-1999
(d) Earthworm and eagle Ans. (d) : Regulation of water in body is called as
CG PMT-2007 osmoregulation. Homeostasis is crucial for the survival
Ans. (b) : Uricotelic organisms live in dry conditions of organism. It is resistant change in external
and they excrete uric acid as their waste product. environment. Peadogenesis occurs reproduction by
Examples of uricotelic organisms are lizard, crow etc. sexually mature larvae usually without fertilization.
31. The main excretory organ of prawn is: Excretion is the process by which organisms expels
metabolic waste products and other toxic substances
(a) green gland (b) flame cell
from their body.
(c) malpighian tubule (d) nephridia
Haryana PMT-2005 37. Excretory waste of birds and reptiles are:
(a) urea
Ans. (a) : Green gland is excretory organ of prawn. In
Prawn, excretion is carried out by green glands. They (b) urea and uric acid
have one pair of green glands. It filters the nitrogenous (c) uric acid
waste from the body. (d) ammonia and uric acid
32. Which one is not correct? AFMC-2004
(a) Humans - Ureotelic Ans. (c) : Excretory waste of birds and reptiles are uric
(b) Birds - Uricotelic acid. They are called uricotellic animals.
(c) Lizards - Uricotelic 38. Animal which excrete urea produced during
(d) Whale - Ammonotelic metabolism of amino acid is :
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 (a) ureotelism (b) uricotelism
Haryana PMT-2005 / JIPMER-2005 (c) ammonotelism (d) aminotelism
Ans. (d) : Whales comes under the mammalia class and AFMC-2004
belongs to ureotelic. Birds and Lizards is uricotelic. Ans. (a) : Animal which excrete urea produced during
33. Excretion means : metabolism of amino acid is ureotelism. It is a type of
(a) formation of those substances which have exerection. Urea is the main nitrogenous waste material
animal show ureotelism called ureotelic animals. It
some role in the body
includes many terrestrial animals, amphibians, marine
(b) removal of such substances which have never fishes, mammals, mollucs and echinoderms.
been part of the body
(c) removal of useless substances and substances 39. All of the following animals are uricotelic
present in excess EXCEPT _________.
(d) all of the above (a) crow (b) mosquito
AMU-2005 / Haryana PMT-2004 (c) scorpion (d) cobra
Manipal-2003 / BVP-2005 MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (c) : Removal of nitrogenous waste material from Ans. (c) : Uricotelic animals excretory product is uric
the body is called excretion. Urea, Ammonia, uric acid, acid. Crow, mosquito and cobra are urecotelic except
amino acid are nitrogenous waste product of the body. scorpion. Scorpions (arachinds) are a class of eight-
legged arthropods. Scorpions excrete their waste
34. Which of the following is the nitrogenous product in the form of guanine.
waste?
(a) Uric acid (b) Guanine 40. Which of the following is the most toxic
(c) Creatine (d) All of these excretory product ?
JIPMER-2001 (a) CO2 (b) Urea
(c) Ammonia (d) Amino acids
Ans. (d) : Uric acid, Guanine and Creatin are all the
nitrogenous waste. Guanine is the excretory product of DUMET-2001
spider. Uric acid is the excretory product of birds and Ans. (c) : Ammonia is primary excretory product
lizards. Creatinine is a non-protein nitrogenous derived from food containing protein. Ammonia is most
compound that is produced by the breakdown of toxic nitrogenous waste.
creatine in muscle. • Urea is less toxic nitrogenous waste
41. Which of the following is the least poisonous 47. Frog excretes__________ whereas tadpole
nitrogenous waste? excretes_______.
(a) Ammonia (b) Urea (a) Ammonia, Urea (b) Urea, Ammonia
(c) Uric acid (d) D-Ammonia and urea (c) Urea, Uric acid (d) Uric acid, Ammonia
CG PMT-2010 GUJCET-2017
Ans. (c) : Uric acid is the least poisonous nitrogenous Ans. (b) : Frog excretes urea whereas tadpole excretes
waste. It is a metabolism, which gets excreated by the ammonia because frog is ureotelic and tadpole is
urine. ammonotelic. Tadpole lives in water, that is why it
• Ammonia is most toxic substance. excretes ammonia.Ammonia is highly soluble in water.
In terrestrial animals like frog, it excretes urea.
• Urea is less toxic nitrogenous waste.
48. The characteristic that is shared by urea, uric
42. Products of adenine and guanine metabolism acid and ammonia is/are
are excreted by humans as
A. They are nitrogenous wastes
(a) ammonia (b) urea
B. They all need very large amount of water
(c) uric acid (d) allantoin for excretion
CG PMT-2010 C. They are all equally toxic
AIIMS-1997 D. They are produced in the kidneys
Ans. (c) : Products of adenine and guanine metabolism (a) A and D (b) A, C and D
are excreted by humans as uric acid. Purines (adenine (c) A only (d) A and C
and guanine) are found in some foods and drinks. Karnataka CET-2009
Products of purine metabolism excrete in urine.
Ans. (c) : Urea, uric acid and ammonia all are
43. The major nitrogenous waste of shark is nitrogenous wastes. Ammonia is more toxic than urea
(a) Urea (b) NH3 and uric acid. It gets converted into urea in the liver by
(c) Uric acid (d) Amino acid deamination. Different organism use different ways to
BCECE-2009 excrete. Ammonia is highly toxic, then comes urea and
Ans. (a) : Shark and mammals are ureotelic animals then uric acid.
that produces nitrogenous waste material called urea. 49. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is
44. Uric acid is the main excretory product in : surviving only on water, will have:-
(a) insects (b) earthworm (a) Less urea in his urine
(c) amphibians (d) mammals (b) More sodium in his urine
BCECE-2002 (c) Less amino acids in his urine
Ans. (a) : Uric acid is the main excretory product in (d) More glucose in his blood
insects. They excrete it with the help of excretory organ AIPMT-2007
called malpighian tubule. Urea is excretory product in Ans. (a) : When a person is on a long hunger strike and
mammals. Ammonia is excretory product in amphibia, is surviving only on water, then his protein intake will
fish and earthworm. become zero and his body will not form urea.
Therefore, he will have less urea in his urine.
45. How the urea enter in descending capillaries?
(a) Diffusion (b) Active transport 50. Major nitrogenous waste product in ureotelic
(c) Osmosis (d) Diffusion and Osmosis animals like rabbit and other mammals is
(a) uric acid (b) urea
GUJCET-2018
(c) ammonia (d) amino acids
Ans. (a) :Urea enter in descending capillaries through JIPMER-2006 / UP CPMT-2005
diffusion because the tubular handling of urea in certain
parts of the nephron plays a vital role in urinary Ans. (b): Major nitrogenous waste product in ureotelic
concentrating mechanism and the thin descending limb animals like rabbit and other mammals is urea.
has low permeability to ions and urea that becomes Ureotelic animals excrete out their nitrogenous waste in
highly permeable to water. the form of urea. Most terrestrial animals are ureotelic,
converting ammonium ions formed during the
46. Choose the right option showing correct matching: breakdown of amino acids into urea.
(a) Tadpole–ammonotelic, Mammals– Ureotelic, • Aquatic animal's → ammonia
Birds- Uricotelic
• Bird's →Uric acid
(b) Aquatic insect – ammonotelic, Mammal –
Uricotelic, Land snail – Uretelic • Rabbit → Urea
(c) Land snail–ammonotelic, Terrestrial 51. Assertion (A): Uric acid is produced in
Amphibians–Ureotelic, Mammal – Uricotelic mammals by purine metabolism
(d) Terrestiral Amphibian – Ammonotelic, Birds Reason (R): Uricase converts uric acid into
– Uricotelic, Mammal – Ureotelic allantoin in human beings
GUJCET-2019 Options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) correct and (R) is the
Ans. (a) : Tadpole→Ammonotelic
correct explanation of (A)
Mammal →Ureotelic (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Birds→Uricotelic correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 55. In mammals, which blood vessel would
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct normally carry largest amount of urea
AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II (a) Hepatic Portal Vein (b) Renal Vein
Ans. (c) : Uric acid is formed in mammals by purine (c) Dorsal Aorta (d) Hepatic Vein
metabolism.Uric acid is the end product of purine NEET-2016 Phase-I
metabolism. Purine nucleotides are synthesized in two Ans. (d) : Hepatic vein carries largest amount of urea.
different pathways. Urea is produced in liver from NH3. Hepatic vein
(i) Complementary salvage pathway transports deoxygenated blood from liver to heart for
(ii) De novo biosynthetic pathway oxygenation. Ornithine cycle is the biochemical aspects
Hence, Assertion (A) is correct. of excretion. It occurs in the liver and includes
Human beings cannot oxidize uric acid to more soluble formation of carbomoyl phosphate by the combination
compound allantoin due to the lack of uricase enzyme. of ammonia, CO and ATP. Hence, in mammals hepatic
Hence, Reason (R) is not correct. Therefore, option (c) vein carry the largest amount of urea.
is the right answer.
56. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound
52. Which of the following pathway converts in humans is synthesised –
ammonia into urea in ureotelic animals (a) in kidneys but eliminated mostly through
(a) Ornithine cycle (b) TCA cycle liver
(c) Cori cycle (d) Nitrogen cycle (b) in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidney
MHT CET-2019
(c) in liver and also eliminated by the same
DUMET-2007 / Rajasthan PMT-2003 through bile
Ans. (a) :Ornithine cycle pathway converts ammonia (d) in the liver, but eliminated mostly through
into urea in ureotelic animals. It helps in conversion of kidneys
excess of amino acids into urea in the liver. AIPMT (Screening)-2010
53. Physiologically urea is produced by the action Ans. (d) : The principal nitrogenous excretory
of an enzyme compound in humans is ammonia (NH3) which is
(a) uricase (b) urease converted into much less toxic urea (NH2CONH2) in the
(c) arginase (d) None of these liver and this urea is eliminated by the kidneys in the
UP CPMT-2011 / UP CPMT-2004 form of urine.
MGIMS Wardha-2004 57. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of
Ans. (c): A urea cycle occurs in liver cells with the the excretory products of -
hydrolytic enzyme arginase. (a) Frog (b) Man
• It splits arginine into urea and ornithine with the (c) Earthworm (d) Cockroach
elimination of a water molecule. AIPMT-2009
• The reaction catalyzed by this enzyme is- Ans. (d) : Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component
Arginine + H2O → Ornithine + Urea of the excretory products of cockroach.
(It is the final enzyme of the urea cycle). • Animals that excrete nitrogenous waste in form of
54. Almost all the aquatic animals excrete semi solid or solid uric acid are called uricotelic animals
ammonia as the nitrogenous waste product. for example terrestrial insects.
Which of the following statement is not in 58. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His
agreement with this situation? urine will be found to contain abnormal
(a) Ammonia is easily soluble in water quantities of
(b) Ammonia is released from the body in a (a) fats (b) ketones
gaseous state (c) amino acids (d) glucose
(c) Ammonia is highly toxic and needs to be
JIPMER-2007
eliminated as and when formed.
(d) Ammonia is converted into a less toxic form Ans. (b): A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His
called urea. urine will be found to contain abnormal quantities of
Karnataka CET-2006 Ketones. They are made in the liver from the
Ans. (b) : Almost all the aquatic animals excrete breakdown of fats and are formed when there is not
ammonia as the nitrogenous waste product. enough sugar or glucose to supply the body's fuel needs.
Following statements are in agreement with this 59. Urea synthesis occurs in
situation- (a) kidney (b) liver
(a) Ammonia is easily soluble in water. (c) brain (d) muscles
(c) Ammonia is highly toxic to internal organs of the AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-I
organism and needs to be eliminated as and when MHT CET-2017 / JIPMER-2012
formed. GUJCET-2011 / AMU-2009
(d) Ammonia gets converted into urea in aquatic Punjab MET-2008 / Punjab MET-2006
animals like sharks, sting rays etc. J&K CET-2004 / BVP-2002
Ans. (b) : Urea synthesis occurs in liver. The formation Ans. (a) : Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of
of urea from NH3 and CO2 occurs in liver through pellet or paste by Pavo. Pavo (peacock) is the name of
Ornithine cycle or Kerb's- Henseleit cycle. All the steps the bird that is uricotelic in nature. They require very
of this cycle are enzymatic and can be visualised as little water to release uric acid.
follows. • Ornithorhynchus anatinus (duck-billed platypus) is a
mammal mainly excrete urea and are called ureotelic
animals.
• Salamander (Mud puppy or water dog or spring
lizard) is an aquatic amphibians and is ammonotelic
in nature.
• Hippocampus (Seahorse)is a bony fishes and is
ammonotelic in nature.
63. Ornithine cycle takes place in:
(a) liver (b) heart
60. Select the option which shows correct matching (c) Kidney (d) muscles
of animal with excretory organs and excretory BVP-2001
product Ans. (a) : Ornithine cycle or urea cycle takes place in
Animal Excretory Excretory liver. It happen in liver with the help of mitochondrial
organs product and cytosolic enzymes.
(a) Housefly Renal tubules Uric acid • The Urea forms, then enters the blood stream, is filters
by the kidneys and is ultimately excreted in the urine.
(b) Labeo (Rohu) Nephridial Ammonia
64. Choose the wrong statement
tubes
(a) In ureotelic organisms, ammonia is not a
(c) Salamander Kidney Urea product of metabolism
(d) Peacock Kidney Urea (b) In mammals some amount of urea may be
NEET (Karnataka)-2013 retained in the kidney matrix of ureotelics to
Ans. (c) : In salamander, kidneys (Mesonepheric) are maintain osmolarity
the excretory organs and the excretory product is urea. (c) In fishes, kidneys do not play any significant
role in the removal of ammonium ions
• In Labeo, mesonephric kidney is the excretory organ
(d) Urea and uric acid are less toxic than
and excretory product is ammonia. ammonia
• Peacock has metanephric kidneys with excretory (e) Ammonia is readily soluble and can diffuse
product called uric acid. easily
• In housefly, excretion takes place by malpighian Kerala PMT-2012
tubules. Excretory waste is uric acid. Ans. (a) : Ureotelic organism:– Organisms that
61. Which one of the following statements is primarily excrete or remove urea are called ureotelic
correct with respect to salt water balance inside organism for example cartilaginous fishes, frogs
the body of living organisms ? mammals etc.
(a) when water is not available camels do not According to the question option (a) is a wrong
produce urine but store urea in tissues statement. In ureotelic organism, ammonia is produced
(b) Salmon fish excretes lot of stored salt through by metabolism which then gets converted into urea.
gill membrane when in fresh water. This urea is then excreted out by the kidneys.
(c) paramecium discharges concentrated salt 65. Uric acid is formed in human from:
solution by contractile vacuoles (a) purines (b) proteins
(d) The body fluids of fresh water animals are (c) glucose (d) pyrimidines
generally hypotonic to surrounding water. J&K CET-2002
AIIMS-2005 Ans. (a) : Uric acid is formed by the purine metabolism
Ans. (a) : When water is not available camels do not in human. It is less toxic nitrogenous waste and contains
produce urine but store urea in tissues is correct with four nitrogen base atoms. For its excretion, a minimal
respect to salt water balance inside the body of living amount of water is required.
organisms.Camel excretes a highly concentrated urine • Uric acid is a waste product that created when your
to conserve water and can also tolerate can also tolerate body chemical called purines nucleotides (Adenine and
desiccation up to 40% cellular content. That’s why guanine) in food and drinks.
camel called as “ship of Desert”. 66. In ureotelic animals, urea is produced through
62. Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of (a) Cori cycle
pellet or paste by: (b) Kreb's cycle
(a) Pavo (b) Ornithorhynchus (c) Ornithine cycle
(c) Salamandra (d) Hippocampus (d) Pentose phosphate pathway
NEET-2022 KVPY (SA)-2021
Ans. (c) : Urea is produced through the ornithine cycle
in ureotelic animals.
• In Kreb's cycle large quantities of ATP are formed
which provides energy by the use of O2
• Cori cycle is also known as lactic acid cycle, that
prevents lactic acid in muscles under anaerobic
conditions.
• Pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) is a metabolic
pathway parallel to glycolysis.
67. Animal requiring minimum amount of water to
produce urine are
(a) ureotelic (b) ammonotelic 72. Creatinine is formed by –
(c) uricotelic (d) chemotelic (a) Urea
AMU-1995 (b) Uric acid
Ans. (c) : Uricotelic animals require minimum amount (c) Breakdown of creatine phosphate in muscle
of water to produce urine, examples of uricotelic (d) Kidney
animals are- terristrial insects, land snails, reptiles and AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I
birds. Ans. (c) : Creatinine is formed by breakdown of
68. The organic molecule that protects body creatine phosphate in muscle. It is formed in the
proteins from the damaging effect of Urea is muscles from high energy compound creatine phosphate
(a) Trimethylamine oxide(b) Ammonia and excreted along with urine. Creatine is synthesized
(c) Uric acid (d) Ornithine in the liver, pancreas, and kidneys from the transpiration
of the amino acids Arginine, Glycine, and Methionine.
73. Which of the following group of animals is
Ans. (a) : The organic molecule that protects body guanotelic?
proteins from the damaging effect of urea is (a) Labeo, Turtle, Camel
trimethylamine oxide. Some animals convert highly (b) Lizard,Snake, Scorpion
toxic NH3 into least toxic trimethylamine oxide
(c) Penguin, Spider, Scorpion
(TMAO) and retain high concentration of TMAO and
(d) Spider, Scorpion, Snake
urea to minimize H2O loss.
MHT CE-T2018
69. Which of the following is uricotelic?
Ans. (c) : Spiders, scorpions and penguins excrete
(a) Insects (b) Birds guanine therefore, they are known as guanotelic.
(c) Lizards (d) All of these Note:- Organisms that discharge the nucleotide base
JIPMER-2019 guanine as excretory wastes are called guanotelic.
Ans. (d) : Uricotelic animals that excrete uric acid in 74. The guano deposits are obtained from the
the form of waste are called uricotelic organisms for excreta of____
example, reptiles, insects and birds. (a) Reptiles (b) human
70. Uric acid forms in body by: (c) Marine birds (d) Micro-organisms
(a) Phospholipid (b) Glucose MHT CET-2016
(c) DNA (d) RNA Ans. (c) : Guano deposits are produced from the excreta
AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-II of marine birds and egg shell. These are guanotelic
animals. It is found in hot and dry climatic regions
Ans. (c) : Uric acid is a waste product that created when
where rainfall is very less.
your body chemical called purines nucleotides (Adenine
and guanine) in food and drinks. 75. Select the group of animals adapted for
ammonotelism, guanotelism and ureotelism
• Uric acid forms in body by DNA. A high uric acid is respectively from the following
also known as hyperuricemia. (a) Tadpole larva of frog, spider, pigeon
71. What is true of urea biosynthesis? (b) Scorpion, turtle and labeo
(a) Uric acid is starting point (c) Catla, penguin and cat
(b) Urea is synthesized in lysosomes (d) Cobra, cockroach and Bombay duck
(c) Urea cycle enzymes are located inside MHT CET-2016
mitochondria Ans. (c) :
(d) Urea is synthesized in kidney Ammonia → Ammonotelic
AIIMS-2015 Uric acid → uricotelic
Ans. (c) : Urea cycle enzymes are located inside Urea → ureotelic
mitochondria. The urea cycle takes place in the liver Guanine → Guanotelic
and is synthesized from ammonia and carbon dioxide. Catla, penguine, cat are ammonotelic guanotelic and
It is five step cyclic processes. ureotelic respectively.
76. Ureotelic organisms: B. Human excretory system and
(a) do not have urease
(b) do not excrete urea its structure
(c) cannot form uric acid 82. The cardiac output is 5250 ml per minute, with
(d) live in water only 75 heart beats per minute in a person. The
DUMET-2002 stroke volume is
Ans. (a) : Ureotelic animals do not have urease enzyme (a) 70 ml (b) 75 ml
which breaks urea into ammonia and CO2. They (c) 80 ml (d) 85 ml
eliminate the nitrogenous waste in the form of urea. The TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
urease enzyme is present in bacteria, fungi and algae. Ans. (a) : Cardiac output is the volume of blood
77. Which of the following are not ureotelic? pumped by the heart per minute.
(a) Mammals To calculate stroke volume, we use formula of cardiac
(b) Terrestrial amphibians output.
(c) Aquatic insects Cardiac output = Heart Rate × Stroke volume
(d) Birds CardiacOutput
AMU-2014 Stroke volume =
Heart Rate
Ans. (d) : Mammals and terrestrial amphibians such as
Here is the given,
frogs are ureotelic in nature. Animals that come under
ureotelic organisms are amphibians, Mammals human etc. Cardiac output = 5250 ml/min
Heart rate = 75
• Aquatic Insects are mainly ammonotelic
• Birds/snakes are uricotelic 5250
Stroke volume = = 70 ml .
78. The nitrogenous excretory products are formed 75
from the catabolism of amino acids by 83. Identify the correct statement
(a) calvin cycle (b) nitrogen cycle (a) The ascending limb of Henle's loop is
(c) ornithine cycle (d) krebs cycle impermeable to water.
J&K CET-2010 (b) The ascending limb of Henle's loop is
permeable to water.
Ans. (c) : The nitrogenous excretory products are
formed from the catabolism of amino acids by the (c) The descending limb of Henle's loop is
biochemical process called ornithine cycle which takes permeable to electrolytes.
place in liver. In this process the amine group is (d) The descending limb of Henle's loop is
separated and incorporated into urea. impermeable to water.
79. The elimination of urea is termed as :
(a) ureotelism (b) ammonotelism Ans. (a) : The ascending limb of Henle's loop is a part
of the nephron, the functional unit of the kidney. It is
(c) urecotelism (d) none of the above
responsible for reabsorbing sodium and chloride ions
Rajasthan PMT-2001 from the urine, but does not reabsorb water. This is
Ans. (a) : Ureotelism : - The elimination of urea from because the cells of the ascending limb are impermeable
the body as excretory product is known as ureotelism to water.
for example- Cartilagenous fishes, frog, reptiles. • On the other hand, the descending limb of Henle's
80. Solenocytes are the main excretory structures loop is permeable to water. This allows water to move
in out of the wine and into the surrounding tissues. This
(a) annelids (b) molluscs helps to concentrate the urine.
(c) echinodermates (d) platyhelminthes 84. Match the following
JIPMER-2011 Column-I Column-II
Ans. (d) : Solenocytes(flame cell) are the main A Glomerulus i essential nutrients,
excretory structures in platyhelminthes. They are also 70-80% water and
known as flame cells and help in osmoregulation and electrolytes are
excretion. reabsorbed
The solenocytes carries a flagellum, which wafts B DCT ii Maintenance of
excretory products along the tubule. osmolarity
81. The excretory material of bony fish is
C PCT iii Filtration of blood
(a) urea (b) protein
(c) ammonia (d) amino acid D Henle’s loop iv Secretion of H+ and
K+ ions
Manipal-2008
Ans. (c) : The excretory product of bony fishes is (a) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv
ammonia because they are ammonotelic in nature. (b) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii
• Ammonia is excretory material because, it’s a very (c) A – iii, B – iv, C –i, D – ii
toxic substance to tissues but extremely soluble in (d) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i
water. AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I
Ans. (c) : (c) outer wall of Bowman's capsule
(d) wall of glomerular capillaries
Column-I Column-II
TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-I
A Glomerulus iii Filtration of blood Tripura JEE-2019 / KVPY SA-2016
B DCT iv Secretion of H+ and K+ ions BCECE-2010 / AMU-1999
C PCT i essential nutrients, 70-80% water Ans. (b) : Podocytes cells are present in the inner wall
and electrolytes are reabsorbed of Bowman's capsule. Podocytes play vital role in
regulation of glomerular filteration rate (GFR). These
D Henle’s loop ii Maintenance of osmolarity are found lining the Bowman’s capsules in the nephron
• Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries located in the of the kidney and smaller molecules such as water, salts
Bowman's capsule. About 20% of blood filtered by the and sugar are filtered and formation of urine takes
glomerulus is reabsorbed by the tubules. place.
• Proximal convoluted tubule is the first part of the 89. Renal corpuscles of human kidney divided into
nephron. It is responsible for the reabsorption of (a) PCT and loop of Henle
essential nutrients, 70-80% water and electrolytes. (b) Atria and ventricles
• Distal convoluted tubule is the second part of the (c) Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus
nephron. It is responsible for the secretion of H+ and K+ (d) All of the above
ions. VMMC-2011
• Henle's loop is a U-shaped structure that extends from Ans. (c) : The glomerulus along with the bowman’s
the DCT. It is responsible for the concentration of capsule is called the malpigian body or renal corpuscle.
urine. • The renal corpuscle is the blood filtering component
of the nephron of the kidney.
85. Filtration of blood during urine formation
takes place in • The Bowman’s capsule contains a bundle of blood
(a) Collecting duct (b) DCT capillaries which is called glomerulus.
(c) Glomerulus (d) PCT 90. Ducts of Bellini are present in:
Karnataka CET-2022 (a) liver (b) kidney
Ans. (c) : Filtration of blood during urine formation (c) intestine (d) medulla oblongata
takes place in glomerulus. The job of glomerulus is to WB JEE-2006 / DUMET-2002
filter blood. Ans. (b) : Ducts of Bellini are present in the medulla of
• Urine is formed in three steps→glomerulus filtration, the mammalian kidney. It is also called papillary duct.
reabsorption and secretion. A pair of mesodermal kidney is principal of urinary
86. Which one of the following pairs is correct? organ of man.
(a) Internal urethral sphincter – smooth muscles • Medulla oblongata help to control vital process like
(b) External urethral sphincter – smooth muscles heart beat, breathing and blood pressure.
(c) Internal urethral sphincter – striped muscles 91. Cell present in the inner lining of kidneys are:
(d) External urethral sphincter – unstriped (a) podocytes (b) choanocytes
muscles (c) pinocytes (d) nephrocytes
AP EAPCET-12.07.2022 Shift-I WB JEE-2006 / AMU-2005
Ans. (a) : Internal urethral sphincter is located at the Uttarakhand PMT-2004 / Manipal-2004
junction of urethra and the urinary bladder. It is made Ans. (a) : Cells present in the inner lining of kidney are
up of smooth muscle and helps in the regulation of podocytes. Podocytes also known as foot cells, are
involuntary control of urine flow from the bladder to the specialized cells with a unique shape that surrounds the
urethra. glomerulus in the epithelial visceral inner layer of
• External urethral sphincter is composed of skeletal Bowman’s capsule.
muscle and helps in providing voluntary control of urine 92. The cells of visceral layer of the Bowman's is
flow from the bladder to urethra.
known as
87. Which of the following are the modified smooth (a) pediceles (b) cubical cells
muscles of the afferent arteria?
(c) podocyte (d) macula densa
(a) Juxtaglomerular cells (b) Vasa recta
Tripura JEE-2018
(c) Glomerulus (d) Peritubular network
AP EAMCET-12.07.2022 Shift-II Ans. (c) : The cells of visceral layer of the Bowman's is
known as podocyte. It is foot- like structure called
Ans. (a) : Juxtaglomerular cells are modified smooth
pedicels. Podocytes play anactive role in preventing
muscles of the afferent arteria.
plasma proteins from entering the urinary ultrafiltrate.
Juxtaglomerular cells synthesize and secrete renin in
response to decreased arteriolar blood pressure and activate • Cubical cell are found in pancreas and salivary glands.
the renin-angiotensin system to regulate blood pressure. 93. The loop of Henle is the important part of
88. Podocytes are the cells, present in (a) Malpighian corpuscles (b) renal tubule
(a) cortex of nephron (c) glomerulus (d) thyroid
(b) inner wall of Bowman's capsule Tripura JEE-2018
Ans. (b) : The loop of Henle is the important part of 98. Bowman's capsules is found in :
renal tubule. It helps in the recovery of water and (a) glomerulus (b) uriniferous tubule
sodium chloride from urine. (c) nephron (d) malpighian capsule
• Thyroid is endocrine gland that produces thyroxine BCECE-2008 / MGIMS Wardha-2005
hormones (T4) and triidothyronine (T3). UP CMPT –2005, 2010 / JIPMER-2001, 2006
• Malpighian corpuscles are present in the cortex of Ans. (d) : Bowman's capsules is found in malpighian
kidney. capsule. It is a part of kidney and is double walled cup
like structure that is also known as malpighian body.
94. Brush border is a characteristic of
• Malpigian body comprises a cup shaped Bowman’s
(a) proximal convoluted tubule
capsule and a meshwork.
(b) neck of nephron Podocytes are also known as foot cells.
(c) collecting tube
99. Which of the following has least urea:
(d) All of the above
(a) Pulmonary vein (b) Hepatic vein
UP CPMT-2014 / Manipal-2011 / AIPMT-1990
(c) Hepatic portal vein (d) Renal vein
Ans. (a) : Brush border is a characteristic of proximal Haryana PMT-2002
convoluted tubule (PCT). It is a part of the renal tubule
Ans. (d): Renal vein carries blood away from the heart
which is responsible for the reabsorption and secretion
and therefore, it carries least amount of urea in the
of various solutes and water. blood.
95. Blood of which vessels in mammals carries • Pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from lung
least percentage of urea? to heart.
(a) Renal vein (b) Dorsal aorta • Hepatic vein return low oxygen blood from liver to
(c) Renal artery (d) Posterior vena cava heart.
Manipal-2011 / CG PMT 2011
100. The basic functional unit of human kidney is
Ans. (a) : Renal Vein of blood in mammals carries least (a) Henle's loop (b) Nephron
percentage of urea, because urea is excreted through the (c) Nephridia (d) Pyramid
kidneys, the main artery that drains the blood, the renal J&K CET-2015,2005 / VMMC-2007
vein, contains the lowest concentration of urea. Rajasthan PMT- 2005 / UPCPMT-2002
96. The number of nephrons in a kidney is equal to: AFMC-2001 / AIPMT-1997
(a) the number of Bowmans capsules Ans. (b) : Nephron is the basic functional unit of
(b) sum of Bowmans capsules and malpighian kidney. It helps in formation of urine. Its chief function
capsules is to regulate the concentration of H2O and soluble
(c) sum of Bowmans capsules and glomeruli substances like sodium salts by filtering the blood,
(d) double the number of Bowmans capsules reabsorbing the required substances and excreting the
Karnataka CET-2002 rest as urine.
Ans. (a) : Nephrons are differentiated in to two regions 101. Loop of Henle is associated with
- Renal corpuscle (a) Excretory system (b) Respiratory system
- Renal tubule (c) Reproductive system (d) Digestive system
AMU - 2012, 2009 / Punjab MET-2008
• The number of nephrons in kidney is equal to the
Uttarakhand PMT-2004 / UP CPMT-2001
number of Bowman's capsules. Each nephron has
bind cup shaped structure which is known as Ans. (a) : Loop of Henle is part of nephron of kidney
'
Bowman s capsule. and associated with excretory system. In human beings
the excretory organ is the kidney. Loop of Henle, long
• Malpigian body that is also termed as renal corpuscle U-shaped portion of the tubules that urine within each
used for Bowman's capsule and glomerulus. nephron of the kidney of reptiles, birds and mammals.
97. Vasa recta refers to • Respiratory system is related with respiration.
(a) rectum region of the insects 102. Duct of Bellini opens on
(b) blood capillaries in invertebrates (a) ureter (b) renal papilla
(c) a fine blood capillary network of afferent (c) duodenum (d) pelvis
arteriole HP CET-2011 / BCECE-2006
(d) a fine capillary which runs parallel to Henle’s VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004 / BVP-2003
loop Ans. (b) : Duct of Bellini open on renal papillae and it
(e) juxtaglomerular complex of nephrons is one of the main urinary duct of mammalian. It is also
Kerala PMT-2015 known as papillary ducts. The renal papilla is the last
Ans. (d) : Vasa recta refers to a fine capillary which segment of the kidney's collecting duct system. The
runs parallel to Henle’s loop. It is blood capillaries renal papilla contains multiple openings called the ducts
which is responsible for maintaining the urine of Bellini. These duct are small tubules known as carry
concentration. Blood capillaries are also responsible for urine from the collecting ducts to the renal pelvis.
transportation of O2, CO2 and food. 103. Select the INCORRECT match.
The slow blood flow of vasa recta is responsible for (a) Urinary bladder –– transitional epithelium
maintaining the hyperosmolarity of interstitium fluid. (b) Ureter –– detrusor muscle
(c) Column of bertini –– in renal medulla where as proximal tubule regulates salt, water, organic
(d) Kidneys –– retroperitoneal solutes, and potassium, urea, phosphate and citrate
MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I contents.
Ans. (b) : Ureter is mainly made up of smooth muscle
supported by connective tissue. It carries urine from
kidney to the urinary bladder. Ureter is made up of three
layer innermost mucosa, muscularis and outer
adventitia.
• Urinary bladder - Transitional epithelium
• Column of bertini- Renal medulla
• Kidney - Retroperitoneal
104. Duct of Bellini is formed by joining ______
collecting ducts.
(a) 4-5 (b) 7-8
(c) 12-14 (d) 9-11
Ans. (b) : Duct of Bellini is formed by joining 7-8
collecting ducts.
108. The type of epithelium found in the inner lining
105. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are of PCT is
parts of a (a) Squamous epithelium
(a) Nephron (b) Oviduct (b) Cuboidal epithelium
(c) Vas deferens (d) Caecum (c) Glandular epithelium
MGIMS Wardha-2009 / AIPMT-1990 (d) Ciliated epithelium
Ans. (a) : Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are Karnataka CET-2018
part of nephron. Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), Ans. (b) : The type of epithelium found in the inner
Loop of Henle and distal convoluted tubule (DCT), lining of PCT is cuboidal epithelium. They contain
along with loop of Henle and Bowman’s capsule mono layer of epithelium cells which look like square-
comprise the body of nephron. shaped in cross-section with large, round and centrally
• Nephron is the structural and functional unit of the located nuclei. These cells are mainly involved in
kidney. secretion and absorption.
106. Renal corpuscles can divided into 109. Curved portion of the Henle's loop of the
(a) PCT and loop of Henle Nephrone are lined by
(b) Atria and ventricles (a) Ciliated epithelium
(c) Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus (b) Cuboidal epithelium
(d) All of the above (c) Squamous epithelium
VMMC-2010
(d) Columnar epithelium
Karnataka CET-2008
Ans. (c) : The renal corpuscle is also known as
Ans. (c) : Curved portion of the Henle’s loop of the
malpighian body. It is part of nephron of the kidney Nephron are lined by squamous epithelium, which is
which filters blood. It can be divided into glomerulus single layer and impermeable to water. They are very
and Bowman's capsule. The renal corpuscle comprises thin and flat which form a delicate lining.
the glomerulus, tuft of blood capillaries supplied by an
afferent and an efferent, and the Bowman’s capsule, an 110. Identify the part of nephron that is
efferent arteriole that invaginates and invests itself of impermeable to water
the inner (Visceral) layer of Bowman’s capsule. (a) Proximal convoluted tubule
(b) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
107. The renal fluid isotonic to the cortical fluid and (c) Descending limb of loop of Henle
blood is found in (d) Distal convoluted tubule
(a) the collecting duct and ascending limb TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I
(b) the distal convoluted tubule and ascending Ans. (b) : Ascending limb of loop of Henle is
limb impermeable to water. Here Na+, K+, and Mg+2 and Cl–
(c) the proximal convoluted tubule and distal ion are reabsorbed and therefore, the filtrate becomes
convoluted tubule hypotonic to blood plasma.
(d) the ascending limb and descending limb Proximal Convoluted tubule- The convoluted portion
AP EAMCET-2008 of vertebrate's nephron that lies between Bowman's
Ans. (c) : The renal fluid isotonic to the cortical fluid capsule and the loop of Henle.
and blood is found in the proximal convoluted The descending limb of loop of Henle is a portion of
tubule(PCT) and distal convoluted tubule(DCT). the renal tubule that constitutes the first part of the loop
• Glomerular filtration is the process of pressure of Henle.
filtration through glomerular capillaries in Bowman's The distal convoluted tubule is a portion of kidney
capsule' the filtrate is known as renal fluid. Distal tubule nephron between the loop of Henle and the collecting
helps to regulate pH and ions content in the blood, tubule.
111. 'Column of Bertini’ in kidney of majority of the (c) formation of ammonia
mammals are formed as the extension of (d) formation of urea
(a) Cortex into medulla (b) Medulla into pelvis KVPY (SA)-2013
(c) Pelvis into ureter (d) Medulla into cortex Ans. (a) : The Bowman's capsule is a part of the kidney
UP CPMT-2014 is the site of filtration of blood constituents.
Ans. (a): Between the renal pyramids is a medullary • In mammalian kidney, the Bowman's capsule is cup-
extension of the renal cortex called Column of Bertini, shaped sack at the start of the tubular portion of a
also referred to as the renal column. nephron that carries out the initial step in the filtration
• 'Column of Bertini’ in kidney, majority of the mammals of blood to generate urine. The Bowman's capsule is
are formed as the extension of cortex into medulla that derived fluids from the glomeruli are collected before
makes it possible to better anchor the cortex. being further processed along the nephron to create
112. Facultative reabsorption of sodium ions and urine. The technique used here is called ultrafiltration.
water takes place in 115. Match the following parts of a nephron with
(a) Proximal convoluted tubule their function :
(b) Distal convoluted tubule (A) Descending limb (i) Reabsorption of
(c) Ascending limb of loop of Henle of Henle's loop salts only
(d) Descending limb of loop of Henle (B) Proximal (ii) Reabsorption of
TS EAMCET-09.05.2019 Shift-I convoluted tubule water only
Ans. (b) : Facultative reabsorption of sodium ions and (C) Ascending limb (iii) Conditional
water takes place in distal convoluted tubule (DCT). It of Henle's loop reabsorption of
is also capable of reabsorption of HCO3− and selective sodium ions and
water
secretion of hydrogen and potassium ions and NH3 to
maintain the pH and sodium-potassium balance in (D) Distal convoluted (iv) Reabsorption of
blood. tubule ions, water and
organic
113. Match the following nutrients
List-I List-II Select the correct option from the following
(Part of nephron) (Function) (a) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
A. Proximal 1. Impermeable to (b) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
convoluted tubule sodium ions (c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
B. Distal convoluted 2. Impermeable to (d) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
tubule water NEET (Odisha)-2019
C. Descending limb 3. Facultative Ans. (c)
of Henle's loop reabsorption of Descending limb of Reabsorption of water
water and Na+ Henle’s loop only
D. Ascending limb 4. Reabsorption of Proximal convoluted Reabsorption of ions,
of Henle's loop nutrients and Na+ tubule water and organic
The correct match is: nutrients
A B C D Ascending limb of Reabsorption of salts only
(a) (IV) (II) (I) (III) Henle’s loop
(b) (III) (IV) (II) (I) Distal convoluted tubule Conditional reabsorption
(c) (III) (IV) (I) (II) of sodium ions and water
(d) (IV) (III) (I) (II)
116. Match the items given in Column I with those
AP EAMCET-2014 in Column II and select the correct option
Ans. (d) : given below:
List–I List–II Column I Column II
(Part of nephron) (Function) (Function) (Part of Excretory
Proximal convoluted Reabsorption of nutrients system)
tubule and Na+ (A) Ultrafiltration (i) Henle's loop
Distal convoluted tubule Facultative reabsorption (B) Concentration (ii) Ureter of urine
of water and Na+ of urine
Descending limb of Impermeable to sodium (C) Transport of (iii) Urinary
Henle's loop ions urine bladder
Ascending limb of Impermeable to water
Henle's loop (D) Storage of (iv) Malpighian
114. The Bowman's capsule, a part of the kidney is urine corpuscle
the site of, v. Proximal
(a) filtration of blood constituents convoluted
(b) re-absorption of water and glucose tubule
A B C D Ans. (a) : The Juxtaglomerular apparatus cells of
(a) iv v ii iii kidney secrete renin to maintain blood pressure and
(b) iv i ii iii works as quality control mechanism to ensure
(c) v iv i iii glomerular flow and effecient Na+ reabsorption.
(d) v iv i ii 121. ____has maximum microvilli.
NEET-2018 (a) PCT (b) Henle's loop
Ans. (b) (c) DCT (d) Collecting tubules
Ultrafiltration – Malpighian corpuscle MHT CET-2009
Concentration of urine – Henle’s loop Ans. (a) : Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) has
Transport of urine – Ureter maximum microvilli. It is a part of the renal tubule
Storage of urine – Urinary bladder. which is responsible for the reabsorption and secretion
of numerous solutes and water.
117. Which of the following is true for excretion in Microvilli provides a maximum area for absorption of
humans? nutrients. 150 microvilli are found per square micron of
(a) Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in PCT.
PCT by simple diffusion.
122. The wall of urinary bladder in humans shows
(b) DCT is impermeable to water. thick layer of smooth muscle called
(c) On an average, 25-30 gm of urea is excreted (a) Dartos (b) Detrusor
out per day. (c) Deltoid (d) Depressor
(d) Maximum reabsorption occurs in the loop of MHT CET-2014
Henle
Ans. (b) : The wall of urinary bladder in humans shows
AIIMS-2013 thick layer of smooth muscle called detrusor. Detrusor muscle
Ans. (c) : In human excretion, on an average, 25-30 gm helps in contraction during urination to push the urine.
of urea is excreted out per day. Urea is the major 123. Following are the parts of nephron
excretory wastage of humans are considered as
(I) Proximal convoluted tubule
ureotelic.
(II) Collecting duct
118. Which one of the four parts mentioned below (III) Distal convoluted tubule
does not constitute a part of single uriniferous
(IV) Loop of Henle
tubule?
(V) Maplighian body
(a) Distal convoluted tubule
Arrange these parts in correct sequence.
(b) Collecting duct
(a) V, III, I, II, IV (b) V, I, IV, III, II
(c) Bowman’s capsule (c) V, I, IV, II, III (d) V, IV, III, II, I
(d) Loop of Henle TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-II
AIPMT-1994
Ans. (b) : Correct sequence of parts of nephrons is
Ans. (b) :Collecting duct does not constitute a part of Malpighian body → PCT → loop of Henle→ DCT→
single uriniferous tubule. Single uriniferous tubule collecting duct.
refers to kidney tubule or nephron. It is functional or
structural unit of kidney. 124. Bowman's capsule is part of
Where as collecting duct is present in the inner region (a) uriniferous tubule (b) renal artery
of the kidney the renal medulla. (c) renal portal vein (d) ureter
119. Trigone in excretory system is CG PMT-2005
(a) a urine filled cavity within the kidney Ans. (a) : Bowman's capsule is part of nephron or
(b) a muscular sphincter at the neck of the uriniferous tubule that forms a cup-like sack surrounding
urinary bladder the glomerulur. It filter blood to form urine initially.
(c) a smooth connective tissue region in the 125. Juxtaglomerular cells secrete when
urinary bladder
(d) a tunic of the ureter there is a fall in ion concentration.
BCECE-2015 Choose the correct pair labelled as A and B.
Ans. (c) : Trigone in excretory system is a smooth (a) A: Renin B: Chloride
connective tissue region in the urinary bladder formed (b) A: Carbonic unhydrase B: Sodium
by the two ureteric orfices and the internal urethral (c) A: ATPase B: Potassium
orfices, the interior of bladder. (d) A: Renin B: Sodium
120. A fall in the glomerular blood pressure Karnataka CET-2013
stimulates the cells of____to secrete renin. Ans. (d) : Juxtaglomerular cells secrete renin, when
(a) Juxta glomerular apparatus there is a fall in sodium ion concentration.
(b) Proximal convoluted tubule • The Juxtaglomerular apparatus cells of kidney secrete
(c) henle's loop renin to maintain blood pressure and works as quality
(d) Distal convoluted tubule control mechanism to ensure glomerular flow and
MHT CET-2019 effecient Na+ reabsorption.
126. Following are the blood vessels and capillaries
in kidney of man. Based on the blood C. Formation of urine and
circulation, arrange them in correct order. Function of Tubules
I. Renal vein
II. Renal artery 130. Match the following
III. Peritubular net A. Bowmans capsular I. 60 mmHg
IV. Afferent arteriole hydrostatic pressure
V. Efferent arteriole
B. Net filtration II. 18 mm Hg
(a) IV, II, III, I, V (b) II, V, IV, III, I
pressure
(c) II, III, I, IV, V (d) II, IV, V, III, I
TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-I C. Glomerular III. 32 mm Hg
Ans. (d) : In human, based on blood circulation the correct hydrostatic pressure
order of blood vessels and capillaries in kidney are - D. Glomerular colloidal IV. 2mmHg
Renal artery osmatic pressure
↓ V. 10 mm Hg
Afferent arterioles (a) A-II B-V C-III D-I
↓ (b) A-V B-II C-I D-III
Efferent Arterioles
(c) A-II B-V C-I D-III
↓
Peritubular net (d) A-II B-V C-I D-IV
↓ TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
Renal Vein Ans. (c) :
127. A nephron does not have loop of Henle in A. Bowmans capsular II. 18 mm Hg
(a) frog (b) dog hydrostatic pressure
(c) man (d) rabbit B. Net filtration pressure V. 10 mm Hg
BVP-2011
C. Glomerular hydrostatic I. 60 mmHg
Ans. (a) : A nephron does not have loop of Henle in pressure
frog because nephron is short in frog and lacks Henle’s
loop. And the conservation of water is also not D. Glomerular colloidal III. 32 mm Hg
important in amphibians. osmatic pressure
128. The neural mechanism involved in passing out 131. Identify the incorrect match
urine is (a) Bowman’s capsule-Glomerular filtration
(a) Relaxation of striated muscles of urinary (b) Distal Convoluted Tubule–Absorption of glucose
bladder.
(c) Henle’s loop – Concentratio of urine
(b) Contraction of urethral sphincter
(c) Micturition reflex (d) Proximal Convoluted Tubule – Absorption of
(d) Contraction of striated muscles urinary Na+ and K+ ions
bladder TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
AP EAPCET-12.07.2022 Shift-I Ans. (b) : The distal convoluted tubule (DCT) does not
Ans. (c) : The neural mechanism involved in passing absorb glucose. Glucose is absorbed in the proximal
out urine is micturition reflex. Bladder to bladder convoluted tubule (PCT).
contraction reflex is called micturition reflex. It is the 132. pH of urine
process of emptying urine from the storage organ
namely urinary bladder. (a) 6.0 (b) 8.0
129. Which is common to kidney and skeleton in (c) 2.0 (d) 4.0
mammals? AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-I
(a) Conex (b) Medulla Ans. (a) : The normal pH of urine is 6.0. The pH scale
(c) pelvis (d) Radius measures how acidic or alkaline a substance is. A pH of
Jipmer-2012 7 is neutral, while a pH below 7 is acidic and above 7 is
BVP-2009 alkaline. Urine is typically acidic but the pH can vary
Ans. (c) : Pelvis is common to kidney and skeleton in depending on a number of factors such as diet,
mammals. In relation to the kidney, it can be describe as medications and mental conditions.
chamber in the kidney into which the urine drains from 133. Given below are two statements : one is
renal tubules before passing to the ureter. labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
• Renal pelvis is the hollow funnel in the outlet of the labelled as Reason (R).
kidney, where urine is discharged before entering the Assertion (A) : Ascending limb of loop of Henle
water. is impermeable to water and
• Pelvic girdle is also known as hip girdle that have allows transport of electrolytes
two hip bones. actively or passively.
Reason (R) : Dilution of filtrate takes place 135. Average pH of human urine is:
due to efflux of electrolytes in (a) 6.0 (b) 9.0
the medullary fluid. (c) 3.0 (d) 7.0
In the light of the above WB JEE-2006
statements, choose the correct Ans. (a) : Average pH of human urine is 6. It is acidic
answer from the options given in nature and a light yellow color. Although the normal
below : range of pH of urine is considered as 4.5-8.2. the range
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the of pH depends upon the diet of the person, whether the
correct explanation of (A) diet is acidic or basic.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 136. Renal portal system is
correct explanation of (A) (a) present in all vertebrates
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false (b) present in all chordates
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true (c) absent in mammals
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) (d) present in all mammals
Ans. (b) : The ascending limb is impermeable to water JCECE-2008
but allows transport of electrolytes actively or passively. Ans. (c) : It transports blood from one organ to a
Dilution of filtrate takes place as a result of pas upward, different part of the same organ or a different organ.
it gets diluted due to the passage of electrolytes to the The renal portal system is found only in fishes,
medullary fluid. amphibians (frog), reptiles and birds,
■ However this region plays a significant role in the Mammals (rabbit, mouse and horse) have no renal
maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary interstitial portal system.
fluid. 137. Glucose is mainly absorbed in:
(a) PCT (b) DCT
(c) Henle's loop (d) Nephron
AFMC-2005
Ans. (a) : Glucose is mainly absorbed in the proximal
convoluted tubule (PCT) which is one of the tubules
present in nephron. Loop of Henle's is present between
PCT and DCT. It helps in the transportation of ion.
138. Compare the statements A and B.
Statement A: When the urine moves through
the descending limb, it becomes hypertonic and
as it passes through the ascending limb of
Henle's loop. It becomes hypotonic.
134. Which of the following statements are correct? Statement B: The descending limb is permeable
A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the to sodium ions, while the ascending limb is
body switches off osmoreceptors. impermeable to sodium ions.
B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to (a) Statement A is wrong and B is correct
prevent diuresis. (b) Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C. ANF causes vasodilation. (c) Both statements A and B are wrong
D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure. (d) Both statements A and B are correct
GUJCET-2014 / VMMC-2013
E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR. Karnataka CET-2010 / AIIMS-1997
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below : Ans. (b) : When the urine moves through the descending
limb, it becomes hypertonic and as it passes through the
(a) C, D and E only ascending limb of Henle's loop. It becomes hypotonic.
(b) A and B only • The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to
(c) B, C and D only water but is impermeable to electrolytes.
(d) A, B and E only
139. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023 surviving only on water, will have
Ans. (c) : ADH facilitates water reabsorption from (a) more sodium in his urine
latter parts of the tubule, thereby preventing diuresis. (b) less amino acids in his urine
• Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) is a peptide released (c) more glucose in his blood
by the atial in response to increased atrial pressure or (d) less urea in his urine
distension. ANF causes arterial vasodilation and BCECE-2012 / Rajasthan PMT-2010
natriuresis in man, and may contribute to the polyuria Ans. (d) : A person who is on a long hunger strike and
noted during tachycardia. is surviving only water will have less urea in his urine.
• Higher concentration of antidiuretic hormone cause As protein intake is zero in case of prolonged fasting
blood vessels to constrict (become narrower) and this and serving only on water, urea will not be produced in
increase blood pressure. the body.
140. Maintenance of body potassium levels is (d) isotonic to blood and hypertonic to medullary
primarily by tubular fluid
(a) absorption in PCT Manipal-2009 / AP EAMCET-2009
(b) secretion in DCT and cortical collecting duct Ans. (b) : The urine is hypertonic to blood and isotonic
(c) absorption in DCT to medullary fluid. Urine is a liquid west product and
(d) secretion in PCT excrete by kidney.
AMU-2010 146. The yellow colour of urine is due to the presence of
Ans. (b) : Maintenance of body potassium levels is (a) urea (b) uric acid
primarily done by secretion in DCT. Cortical collecting (c) urochrome (d) bilirubin
ducts participate in the regulation of water and Uttarakhand PMT-2008 / CMC Vellore-2011
electrolytes that contain sodium and chloride. Manipal-2008 / MGIMS Wardha-2006
BVP-2007 / BVP-2012 / DUMET-2008
141. Which of the following is finally reabsorbed in
distal convoluted tubule? Ans. (c) : The yellow colour of urine is due to the
(a) Calcium (b) Potassium presence of pigment called urochrome. It is formed by
bile pigment that is called as bilirubin.
(c) Bicarbonate (d) Water
VMMC-2006 • It is linear tetrapyrrole compound which is generated
from the degradation of heme.
Ans. (c) : Bicarbonate is finally reabsorbed in distal
convoluted tubule (DCT) . DCT is a short nephron 147. One of the following is not found in
segment that plays a key role in regulating extra cellular mammalian urine.
fluid volume and electrolyte homeostatis. (a) water (b) sucrose
About 85 to 90% of the filtered bicarbonate is (c) ammonium salt (d) sodium chloride
reabsorbed in the proximal tubules. CG PMT-2011
142. In presence of vasopressin, the greatest fraction Ans. (b) : Sucrose is not found in mammalian urine
of filtered water is absorbed in the Sucrose is present in sugarcane, sugar beets and honey.
(a) loop of Henie (b) proximal tubule Almost 60% water present in human body.
(c) distal tubule (d) collecting duct Sodium chloride regulates the amount of water in
AMU-1997
human body.
Ans. (d) : In the presence of vasopressin, which is also 148. Mark the wrong match
known antidiuretic hormone from the posterior pituitary (a) Bowmans capsule-Glomerular filteration
gland increases the permeability of the collecting duct. (b) DCT-Absorption of glucose
It participates in electrolyte and fluid balance with the (c) Loop of Henle-Concentration of urine
help of reabsorption and excretion. (d) PCT-Absorption of Na+ and K+ ions
143. Loop of Henle is meant for absorption of AP EAMCET-06.09.2021 Shift-I
CMC Vellore-2014 / DUMET-2003 / BVP-2004
(a) potassium (b) glucose
(c) water (d) CO2 Ans. (b) : Following is the correct match-
HP CET-2011 / BCECE-2007 Bowman's capsule– Glomerular filtration
VMMC-2005 / CG PMT-2005 DCT – absorption of sodium ion and water
AMU-2004 / BVP-2001, 2003 / Manipal- 2000 Loop of Henle – concentration of urine
Ans. (c) : Loop of Henle is meant for absorption of PCT – Absorption of Na+ and k+ ions
water. Its main function is to reabsorb water and sodium 149. Hyperosmotic urine secretion depends upon the
chloride from the filtrate. This conserves water for the (a) width of Bowmans capsule
organism producing highly concentrated urine. (b) length of loop of Henle
144. A medicine that promotes the secretion of (c) length of proximal convoluted tubules
excess urine from body is (d) length of distal convoluted tubule
(a) uretic (b) monouretic JCECE-2015
(c) diuretic (d) muretic Ans. (b) : Hyperosmotic urine secretion depends upon
BHU PMT (Screening)-2011 length of loop of Henle.
Ans. (c) : A medicine that promotes the secretion of • Hyperosmotic urine formation occurs when the body
excess urine form body is diuretic. Diuretics is any drug has deficiency of water and extra cellular fluid has
that increase the flow of urine. high osmolarity.
Diuretic- causes kidneys to excrete salt and water from • In brids loops of henle is longest as they excrete
the body. hypotonic or hypersomotic urine.
145. The urine is 150. Absorption of H2O in DCT is controlled by
(a) hypotonic to blood and isotonic in medullary (a) ADH (b) ACTH
fluid (c) LH (d) Oxytocin
(b) hypertonic to blood and isotonic to medullary DUMET-2008 / NMMC-2008
fluid AMU-2008 / VMMC-2007
(c) isotonic to blood and hypotonic to medullary Rajasthan PMT-2005 / JIPMER-2004
fluid Punjab MET-2003 / UP CPMT-2002
Ans. (a) : Absorption of water in DCT is controlled by cortex is also known as the kidney cortex, so the renal
ADH. ADH stands for antidiuretic hormone. It is also cortex is the outer layer of the kidney.
called as arginine vasopressin (AVP). It works to • Adrenal cortex is the outer part of adrenal gland and
control the amount of water absorbed by kidneys adrenal medulla is the inner part of adrenal gland.
because they filter out waste materials from blood. 156. In_______ the filtrate and plasma get isotonic.
151. Longest loop of Henle is found in (a) Distal convoluted tubule
(a) Kangaroo rat (b) Opposum (b) Descending limb of the loop of Henle
(c) Rhesus monkey (d) All of these (c) Proximal convoluted tubule
BCECE-2008 (d) Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
Ans. (a) : Longest loop of henle found in kangaroo Rat, GUJCET-2018
kangaroo rats are nocturnal rodents found in north and Ans. (c): In proximal convoluted tubule, the filtrate and
central America. plasma get isotonic. The proximal convoluted tubules
• Opossum are small marsupial found in Mexico. function of reabsorb of water and solutes like sodium,
• Rhesus monkeys are well known macaque it mainly and filtrate glucose in to the peritubular capillaries.
herbivorous. 157. Which of the following function is performed
152. Main function of glomerulus is : by collecting tubule of kidney?
(a) filtration of urine (a) In the maintenance of pH and ionic balance of
(b) reabsorption of H2O blood by the secretion of H+ and K+ ions
+
(c) reabsorption Na (b) Maintenance of pH of blood and removal of
(d) concentration of urine Na+ and K+ ions
BCECE-2004 (c) Absorption of glucose and ammonia from the
Ans. (a) : Glomerulus help in filtration of urine the blood
small particles like the water, glucose salt and urea are (d) None of above
remove from the blood. GUJCET-2015
• Bowman’s capsule which help in collection of filtrate Ans. (a) :Maintenance of pH and ionic balance of blood
and formation of urine. by the secretion of H+ and K+ ions is performed by
153. Human urine as compared to human blood is : collecting tubules of kidney. The tubules of kidney are
(a) hypotonic (b) hypertonic also known as Nephrons, and used in urine formation by
(c) isotonic (d) all of these secretion without affecting the electrolyte balanced.
BCECE-2004 / Haryana PMT-2001 • They also play important role in absorbing many ions
Ans. (b) : Human urine is hypertonic as compared to and reabsorbing water.
human blood, hypertonic solution having higher 158. Which one of the following statements regards to
concentration of solute in solution. the excretion by the human kidneys is correct–
• Hypotonic is the solution having lower concentration (a) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is
of solute in other solution. impermeable to water
• Isotonic solution has same concentration. (b) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable in
154. If Henles loop were absent from mammalian reabsorbing HCO3
nephron, which of the following is to be (c) nearly 99 percent of the glomerular filtrate is
expected? reabsorbed by the renal tube
(a) The urine will be more concentrated (d) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is
(b) The urine will be more dilute impermeable to electrolytes
(c) There will be no urine formation AIPMT (Screening)-2010
(d) There will be hardly any change in the quality Ans. (c) : Nearly 99 percent of the glomerular filtrate is
and quantity of urine formed reabsorbed by the renal tube is correct with regards to
Manipal-2015 / JCECE-2012 the excretion by the human kidneys.
AP EAMCET-2011 / CMC Ludhiana-2008 • Descending limb of Loop of Henle is permeable to
AMU - 2007 / AIPMT-2003 water.
Ans. (b) : If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian • Distal convuluted tubule is capable in reabsorbing
nephron then urine will be more dilute. HCO3, in few conditions.
• The main function of loop of henle is absorption of • Ascending limb of loop of henle is help to maintain
water. The region of absence of henle loop then water is electrolyte balance.
not absorbed and dilute urine is passed out. 159. The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid
155. Where are the proximal and distal convoluted to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is
tubules located within the human body? (a) 20 mm Hg (b) 75 mm Hg
(a) Adrenal cortex (b) Adrenal medulla (c) 30 mm Hg (d) 50 mm Hg
(c) Renal cortex (d) Renal medulla JIPMER-2007
KVPY SA-2019 Ans. (a) : The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid
Ans. (c) : Proximal and distal convoluted tubule are to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is 20 mm
located within renal cortex of human body. The renal Hg.
160. Concentration of urine depends upon which (b) Glucose to lactate in muscle and Lactate to
organ: glucose in Liver
(a) Bowman's capsule (c) Glucose to lactate in the stomach and lactate
(b) Length of Henle loop to glucose in the intestine
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule (d) Glycogen to glucose in the Liver and glucose
(d) Network of capillaries arising from to glycogen in the muscle
glomerulus TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II
AIPMT-2000 Ans. (b) : Cori cycle is also known as lactic acid cycle
Ans. (b) : Concentration of urine depends upon Length that prevents lactic acidosis in muscles under anaerobic
of Henle’s loop. The concentration gradient occurs in condition. In this cycle glucose converts in lactate in
the medulla of the kidney. It is long U-shaped part of muscle and lactate converts in glucose in liver as per the
the tubule that works for urine conduction within each requirement of body.
nephron of the kidney of birds, mammals and reptiles. • In the lactic acid cycle, pyruvate is converted to
161. The maximum amount of electrolytes and lactate, and NAD+ is regenerated from NADH. NAD+
water (70-80 percent) from the glomerular gets utilized in glycolysis.
filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the 165. Find the incorrect statement regarding
nephron? mechanisms of urine formation in man
(a) Proximal convoluted tubule (a) The glomerular filtration rate is about 125 ml
(b) Descending limb of loop of Henle’s per minute
(c) Ascending limb of loop of Henle’s (b) The ultrafiltration is opposed by the colloidal
(d) Distal convoluted tubule osmotic pressure of plasma
AIPMT (Screening)-2012 (c) Tubular secretion takes place in the PCT
Ans. (a) : In the proximal tubules, two thirds of the (d) Aldosterone induces greater reabsorption of
proximal tubule with electrolytes are reabsorbed. sodium
• The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70- (e) The counter current systems contribute in
80%) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in diluting the urine
proximal convoluted tubule part of the nephron. Kerala PMT-2009
162. Which one of the following is not a part of a Ans. (e) : Counter current mechanism is the process
renal pyramid ? that is used to concentrate urine in the kidneys by the
(a) Loops of Henle nephrons of the human excretory system.
(b) Peritubular capillaries Hence, the statement the counter current systems
(c) Convoluted tubules contribute in diluting the urine is incorrect statement
(d) Collecting ducts regarding mechanisms of urine formation in man.
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 166. Which one of the following is correct?
Ans. (c) : Renal pyramids are the conical areas of the In normal humans
medulla. Peritubular capillaries, collecting ducts and (a) pH of urine is around 8
loop of Henle are found in the renal pyramids, while (b) on an average, 25-30 mg of urea is excreted
convoluted tubules are found in the cortex of the via urine
kidney. (c) presence of ketone bodies in urine is an
163. Which one of the following correctly explains indicator of diabetes mellitus
the function of a specific part of a human (d) glycosuria can be treated with hemodialysis
nephron ? (e) relaxation of smooth muscles of bladder and
(a) Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away simultaneous contraction of urethral sphincter
from the glomerulus towards renal vein causes release of urine
(b) Podocytes :Create minute spaces (slit pores) Kerala PMT-2012
for the filtration of blood into the Bowman's Ans. (c) : The presence of ketone bodies in urine is an
capsule indicator of diabetes mellitus. It indicates much acidic
(c) Henle's loop : most reabsorption of the major and this condition is known as diabetic ketoacidosis
substances from the glomerular filtrate (DKA).
(d) Distal convoluted tubule : re-absorption of K+ • These are acidic and poisonous and get excreted out in
ions into the surrounding blood capillaries Urine.
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 167. When 2 to 3 drops of Benedicts reagent are
Ans. (b) : Podocytes explains the functions of a specific added to a urine sample and heated gently, it
part of human nephron. They are epithelial cells that turns yellow. This colour change indicates that
over the outside of the glomerular capillaries. They also ..............
create minute spaces for the filtration of blood into the (a) Urine contains 2% glucose
Bowman’s capsule. (b) Urine contains 0.5% glucose
164. Following statement holds true for “Cori cycle” (c) Urine contains 1.5% glucose
(a) Glucose to lactate in Liver and Lactate to (d) Urine contains 1% glucose
Glucose in muscle Karnataka CET-2011
Ans. (d) : When 2 to 3 drops of Benedicts reagent are Ans. (d) : Mostly of the reabsorbtion of solutes
added to a urine sample and heated gently, it turns necessary for normal body function such as amino
yellow. This colour change indicates that urine contains acids, glucose, and salts takes place in the proximal part
1% glucose. The color of mixture represents the amount of tubule.
of sugar in the urine. Benedict is reagent is a test which • Glucose is completely reabsorbed from PCT under
is also known as Benedict’s solution. It is the complex normal conditions. But in conditions like diabetes,
mixture of sodium citrate, sodium carbonate and glucose is not fully reabsorbed in the renal tubules,
pentahydrate of copper (II) sulfate. which is why it passes into the urine. The presence of
glucose in the urine is called as glucosuria.
168. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
activates 171. Read the following statements
(a) Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline (A) Counter current mechanism helps to
concentrate urine
(b) Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin
(B) Creatinine is an athreshold substance
(c) Juxta glomerular cells to release renin (C) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
(d) Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone permeable to Na+
Karnataka CET-2015 (D) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
AIPMT (Mains)-2012 permeable to water
Ans. (c) : A fall in the Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) Choose the correct statements
activates the juxta glomerular cells to release renin. Options :
• The glomerular filtration takes place due to the (a) A&B (b) B&C
presence gradient in the glomerulus. It is a test that (c) C&D (d) A&D
assesses, how much blood is flowing through the AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-I
glomeruli every minute. It is the best way to find out how Ans. (a) : The counter current systems contribute in
well the kidney functions and works. diluting the urine is correct statement regarding
mechanisms of urine formation in man. Substances such
as chlorides or glucose are high threshold substances.
• Since, loop of Henle’s maintains the concentration of
urine while descending loop of Henle’s is permeable
to water but it is impermeable to electrolytes.
• The ascending limb of loops of Henle’s is impermeable
to water but permeable to electrolytes and this leads to
dilution of filtration because it moves upward.
172. Which of the following features best suits to a
healthy/normal individuals urine :
(a) Dark yellow colour; pH : 6.0; 90% H2O, 10%
urea
(b) Pale yellow colour; pH : 7.0; 96% H2O, 2%
urea, 2% other substances
169. Which of the following process of urine (c) No colour; pH : 6.0; 98% H2O, 2% urea, 1%
formation takes place all along the renal tubule glucose
and collecting duct? (d) Pale yellow colour; pH : 6.0; 96% H2O, 2%
(a) Ultra filtration and tubular reabsorption urea, 2% other substances
(b) Ultrafiltration and tubular secretion TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-I
(c) Tubular reabsorption and secretion Ans. (d) : In a healthy individual urin colour is pale
(d) Anti-current mechanism and reasbsorption yellow in colour and pH is approx 6.0. 95-96% of H2O
AIIMS-2017 2% urea and other sustances is 2% . It is due to the
presence of urochrome. Its pH value is 6 and hypertonic
Ans. (c) : Tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion of to blood plasma. Its colour depends on the diet.
urine formation takes place all along the renal tubule
and collecting duct while ultra filtration takes place in 173. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the
renal corpuscle. Anti-current mechanism helps in (a) proximal tubule (b) distal tubule
concentration of urine. In the renal tubule and collecting (c) collecting duct (d) loop of Henie
duct, the nutrients and water get reabsorbed into the WB JEE-2011
capillaries. Almost 99% of the filtrate are produced by Ans. (a) : Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in
the kidney that is reabsorbed through tubules and this the proximal tubule. Function of reabsorption is done by
phenomenon is known as tubular reabsorption. PCT of nephrons.
170. Under normal conditions which one is • DCT is responsible for absorption of sodium ion and
completely reabsorbed in the renal tubule? water.
(a) Urea (b) Uric acid • Loop of henle is responsible for concentration of
(c) Salts (d) Glucose urine. The collecting duct collects urine and transport
to the pelvis.
Uttarakhand PMT-2011 / AIPMT-1991
174. In which of the following regions of a nephron 179. Identify the correct statement regarding urine
does maximum reabsorption of useful formation
substances, takes place? (a) Counter current mechanism works around the
(a) Glomerulus glomerulus and PCT
(b) Henle's loop (b) To prevent diuresis, ADH facilitates water
(c) Distal convoluted tubule reabsorption from the latter parts of the tubule
(d) Proximal convoluted tubule (c) Maximum absorption of electrolytes occurs in
VMMC-2011 / Karnataka CET-2005 the Henle’s loop
Ans. (d) : Maximum reabsorption of useful substances, (d) A decrease in blood pressure can increase the
take place in proximal convoluted tubule of a nephron. glomerular filtration rate
• The convoluted portion of the nephron that lies (e) The collecting duct is impermeable to water
between Bowman's capsule and the loop of Henle, and thus helps in diluting the urine
almost 70 – 80 percent of water and electrolytes are Kerala PMT-2014
reabsorbed. Ans. (b) : To prevent diuresis, ADH facilitates water
• DCT is responsible for absorption of sodium ion and reabsorption from the latter parts of the tubule is correct
water. statement regarding urine formation. Descending
• Loop of henle is responsible for concentration of portion of loop of Henle’s is extremely permeable to
Urine. water and least permeable to the ions. The loop of
• Glomerulus filters the blood. Henle’s contributes to the absorption of approx. 25% of
filtered sodium.
175. Which one of the following is not normally
excreted in urine? • The kidneys filter unwanted materials from the blood
and form urine to excrete them.
(a) Haemoglobin (b) Uric acid
Basically, there are three steps of urine formation-
(c) Ketone bodies (d) Hippuric acid
(i) glomerular filtration
(ii) reabsorption
Ans. (a) : Haemoglobin is not normally discharged in
urine. If hemoglobin gets excreted in Urine, this (iii) secretion
condition is known as haemoglobinuria. Waste
materials such as uric acid ketone bodies and Hippuric D. Process of Concentration of
acid excrete out from the body in the form of urine. Filtrate
176. Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron is
responsible for 180. The size of filtration slits of glomerulus
(a) Filtration of blood (a) 10 nm (b) 15 nm
(b) Maintenance of glomerular filtration rate (c) 20 nm (d) 25 nm
(c) Selective reabsorption of glucose, amino acid WB JEE-2009
NaCl and water Ans. (d) : The size of filtration slits glomerulus is about
(d) Reabsorption of salts only 25 cm.
WB JEE-2014 • The size of filtration slits restrict the passage of large
Ans. (c) : Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron molecule such as serum albumin, Red blood cells and
involves in selective reabsorption of water, Nacl, platelets. Blood is filtered through these slits.
glucose and amino acids. Bowman's capsule is 181. Glomerular filtrate is
responsible for filtration of blood. (a) blood minus blood corpuscles and plasma
177. What for the ascending limb of loop of Henle is protein
permeable? (b) blood minus corpuscles
(a) Glucose (b) NH3 (c) mixture of water, ammonia and corpuscles
(c) Na+ (d) Water (d) urine
CG PMT-2004 MGIMS Wardha-2004 / UP CPMT-2004
Ans. (c) : The ascending limb of loop of Henle is a part Ans. (a) : Glomerulus filtrate is blood minus blood
of the nephron in the kidney. It is divided into a thin and corpuscles and plasma protein.
thick ascending limb. The thin ascending limb is The glomerulus is a loop of capillaries twisted into a
impermeable to water and ions excluding Na+ and Cl–. ball shape, surrounded by the Bowman's capsule.
This takes place by counter current mechanism. This is where ultrafiltration of blood occurs, the first
178. Which one of the following pairs is correct? step in urine production, these process is called
(a) Internal urethral sphincter – smooth muscles glomerular filtration.
(b) External urethral sphincter – smooth muscles Through glomerular filtrate, blood cells and plasma
(c) Internal urethral sphincter – striped muscles proteins, which are available in blood can't pass
(d) External urethral sphincter – unstriped through as they are comparative bigger in size.
muscles 182. In which part of nephron, reabsorption is
AP EAPCET-12.07.2022 Shift-I minimum from filtrate?
Ans. (a) : Internal urethral sphincter make up of smooth (a) Henle’s loop
muscles. It regulates involuntary control of urine. (b) Proximal convoluted tubule
(c) Distal convoluted tubule 187. Out of the following which is reabsorbed in
(d) Collecting duct selective reabsorption?
J&K CET-2008 (a) Urea (b) Creatine
(c) Uric acid (d) Amino acid
Ans. (a) : The part of nephron in which the reabsorption GUJCET-2017
is minimum is Henle’s loop. Ans. (d) : The term selective reabsorption refers to the
PCT is maximum reabsorption. process by which certain molecules, after being filtered
The ascending limb of Henle’s is impermeable to water out of the capillaries along with nitrogenous base waste
but it is permeable to ions. products and water in the glomerulus, they are
reabsorbed from the filtrate as they pass through the
183. What does glomerular filtrate consist of: nephrons. During selective reabsorption, high threshold
(a) Water and plasma proteins substance like amino acid, glucose etc. are 100%
(b) Water and urea reabsorbed from PCT. Uric acid and creatine are toxic
(c) Water, urea, glucose and inorganic salts to body, so they are completely removed.
(d) Water, urea, glucose, inorganic salts and Urea is reabsorbed in little quantities to maintain
Lipids medullary osmolarity.
JIPMER-1997 188. A large quantity of fluid is filtered every day by
the nephrons in the kidneys. Only about 1% of
Ans. (c) : Glomerular filtration consist of water, urea it is excreted as urine. The remaining 99% of
glucose, salts and inorganic salts. Glomerular filtration the filtrate
rate shows the flow of plasma from the glomerulus into (a) is lost as sweat
Bowman’s space over a specific period. It also (b) is stored in the urinary bladder
determines how the kidney functions properly. (c) is reabsorbed into the blood
184. Which one of the following amino acids is not (d) gets collected in the renal pelvis
found in proteins? Karnataka CET-2009
(a) Arginine (b) Ornithine Ans. (c) : A large quantity of fluid is filtered every day
(c) Aspartic acid (d) Tyrosine by the nephrons in the kidneys. Only about 1% of it is
CG PMT-2009 excreted as urine. The remaining 99% of the filtrate is
reabsorbed into the blood.
Ans. (b) : Ornithine is not found in protein but is
189. Vassopressin released from the
fromed in liver during the formation of urea in ornithine neurohypophysis is mainly responsible for
cycle. (a) Facultative reabsorption of water through
Ornithine, citrulline, arginine are present in ornithine DCT
cycle. (b) Obligatory reabsorption of water through
Arginine, aspartic acid and tyrosine are found in PCT
protein. (c) Facultative reabsorption of water through
185. Capillaries of glomeruli are: Henle loop
(a) entirely venous (b) entirely arterial (d) Obligatory reabsorption of water through
Bowman's capsule
(c) venous and arterial (d) none of these Karnataka CET-2008
Haryana PMT-1999 Ans. (a) : Vassopressin released from the
Ans. (b) : Capillaries of glomeruli are entirely arterial. neurohypophysis is mainly responsible for facultative
Capillaries and glomerulus are thread like blood vessels reabsorption of water through DCT. A high ADH level
that connect the arterial to vein and they provide site for causes the body to produce less urine. A low level result
exchange of respiratory gases, nutrients, and waste in greater urine production.
materials. They are lined by endothelial cells. 190. Which of the following hormones regulate
Therefore, glomerulus helps infiltration of blood for solute reabsorption during urine formation in
urine formation. rabbit?
(a) Antidiuretic hormone and angiotensin I
186. The facultative absorption of water in the DCT (b) Angiotensin III and angiotensin I
and collecting duct takes place due to the (c) Nor-epinephrin and epinephrin
secretion of ______. (d) Angiotensin II and aldosterone
(a) TCT (b) ACTH AP EAMCET-2013
(c) PTH (d) ADH Ans. (d) : Angiotensin II and aldosterone hormones
MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I regulate solute reabsorption during urine formation in
Ans. (d) : The facultative absorption of water in the rabbit.
DCT and collecting duct takes place due to the secretion The inactive angiotensinogen is converted to
of antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin influence. The angiotensin I which is then converted to angiotensin II.
Job of ADH is to maintain the blood pressure, blood This along with andosterone helps maintaining the
volume and tissue water content by controlling the required amount of sodium and water along with re-
amount of water. absorption of salts.
A high ADH level causes the body to produce less This mechanism of regulation of kidney function is
urine. A low level result in greater urine production. known as renin- Angiotensin mechanism.
191. Which of the following would help in 195. Effective filtration pressure in glomerulus is
prevention of diuresis? caused due to .............
(a) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal (a) powerful pumping action of the heart
tubules due to aldosterone (b) secretion of adrenalin
(b) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction (c) afferent arteriole is slightly larger than
(c) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells efferent arteriole
(d) More water reabsorption due to undersecretion (d) vacuum develops in proximal convoluted
of ADH tubule and sucks the blood
NEET-2020 Phase-I Karnataka CET-2011
Ans. (a) : Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal Ans. (c) : Effective filtration pressure in glomerulus is
tubules due to aldosterone help in the prevention of caused due to afferent arteriole that is slightly larger
diuresis. It is production of large amount of dilute urine. than efferent arteriole. EFP in glomerulus, in human
Diuresis is prevented by decreasing the production of kidney is about 10 to 25 mm Hg.
urine. This can be achieved by increasing sodium 196. Which of the following are about 90%
reabsorption and thereby water reabsorption with the absorbed in the nephron?
help of aldosterone. Aldosterone is a steroid hormone. It (a) Glucose and amino acids – Active process
is secreted by the adrenal cortex and affects electrolyte (b) Glucose and amino acids – Passive process
absorption in the renal tubule.
(c) Cl–, NH3, K+ – Passive process
192. Select the correct statement : (d) Cl–, NH3, K+ – Active process
(a) Reduction in Glomerular Filtration Rate AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-II
activates JG cells to release renin.
(b) Atrial Natriuretic Factor increases the blood Ans. (a) : The nephron is the microscopic structural and
pressure. functional unit of the kidney. It is composed of a renal
corpuscle and a renal tubule. The renal tubule is divided
(c) Angiotensin II is a powerful vasodilator. into the following parts, the distal convoluted tubule
(d) Counter current pattern of blood flow is not (DCT) and collecting duct. 90% of glucose and amino
observed in vasa recta. acids are reabsorbed by the active process in the PCT
NEET-2020 Phase-II (Proximal convoluted tubule) part of the nephron.
Ans. (a) : Reduction in glomerular filtration rate
activates juxtaglomerular cells of produce renin. Renin
is an enzyme that is produced in the kidneys.
193. Which of the following factors is responsible
for the formation of concentrated urine?
(a) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner
medullary interstitium in the kidneys.
(b) Secretion of erythropoietin by
Juxtaglomerular complex
(c) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular
filtration
(d) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
NEET-2019
197. There is increase in blood urea when there is
Ans. (a) : Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner insufficient filtration in
medullary interstitium in the kidneys is responsible for (a) Loop of Henle (b) Distal tubule
the formation of concentrated urine. (c) Bowman's capsule (d) Collecting tubule
Loop of Henle and ADH are responsible for the AIIMS-2014
formation of concentrated urine.
Ans. (c) There is increase in blood urea when there is
194. Human urine is usually acidic becaus: insufficient filtration in Bowman’s capsule. It is a
(a) Hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the segment of the nephron that produces a cup-like sack
filtrate surrounding the glomerulus. It shows the beginning of
(b) The sodium transporter exchanges one the urinary space and is contiguous with PCT of the
hydrogen ion for each sodium ion, in kidneys.
peritubular capillaries.
(c) Excreted plasma proteins are acidic.
(d) Potassium and sodium exchange generates
acidity.
Ans. (a) : Human urine is usually acidic in nature
because hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the
filtrate. The average pH value of urine is 6 in humans
and the analysis of urine helps in clinical diagnosis of
many severe kidney disorders.
198. In man, in which part of the uriniferous tubule Ans. (a) : Glucose is taken back from glomerular
reabsorption of glucose occurs? filtrate through active transport. Materials such as
(a) Collecting tube glucose, amino acids and Na+ are reabsorbed by active
(b) Henle's loop transport while materials such as nitrogenous wastes
and water are reabsorbed passively. Reabsorption is
(c) Distal convoluted tubule
take place at PCT.
(d) Proximal convoluted tubule
202. What causes the liquid part of blood to filter
AIIMS-2017
out from glomerulus into the renal tubule?
Ans. (d) : The part of nephron that lies between the (a) Diapedesis (b) Pelvis
Bowman's capsule and loop of Henle is known as (c) Hydrostatic pressure (d) Dialysis
proximal convoluted tubule. It mainly functions in the JIPMER-1996
reabsorption of glucose, sodium, and chloride ions. Ans. (c) : Hydrostatic pressure causes the liquid part of
The cubical cells of proximal tubules have microvilli blood to filter out from glomerulus into the renal tubule.
and mitochondria to increase the surface area for 203. Filtration takes place in
absorption and active transport. It is the segment of the (a) Malpighian corpuscles
proximal tubule. (b) Bowman's capsule
(c) glomerulus
(d) collecting tubule
CG PMT-2005
Ans. (a) : Malpighian corpuscles consists of network of
blood capillaries called glomerulus and a double-walled
cup called Bowman's capsule. Malpighian body is also
called as renal corpuscle.
The process of filtration takes place in malpighian
corpuscles because the total pressure is very high in
glomerular capillaries.
Hence, filtration takes place in malpighian corpuscles.
199. If excess water passes out from the tissue

without being restored by the kidneys, the cells
would:
(a) burst open and die
(b) take water from the plasma
(c) not be affected at all
(d) shrivel and die
AIPMT-1994
Ans. (d) : If excess water passes out from the tissue 204. In 24 hours, total glomerular filtrate formed in
without being restored by the kidneys, the cells would human kidney is
shrivel and die due to loss of water and cells become (a) 1.7 litres (b) 7 litres
dehydrated. (c) 17 litres (d) 170 litres
200. Reabsorption of useful substances from WB JEE-2007, 2011 / MHT CET-2005
glomerular filtrate occurs in: Ans. (d) : A normal kidney approximately 170-180 liter
(a) collecting tube of total filtrate each day (in 24 hour) from the
glomerulus.
(b) Loop of Henle
(c) proximal convoluted tubule E. Role of Kidney Function
(d) distal convoluted tubule
AIPMT-1989 205. Study the following and the correct statement :
Ans. (c) : Reabsorption of useful substances from I. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
glomerular filtrate occurs in proximal convoluted impermeable to water.
tubule. II. The products that are not reabsorbed in
PCT is involved in reabsorbing ions, water and renal tubule of nephron are called low
nutrients from the glomerular filtrate. It is also help in threshold substances.
removing toxins and maintaing the ionic balance. III. Water reabsorption in DCT of nephron is
called obligatory reabsorption
201. Glucose is taken back from glomerular filtrate
IV. Juxta glomerular cells of - nephron secrete
through: renin
(a) active transport (b) passive transport (a) I, II (b) II, III
(c) osmosis (d) diffusion. (c) III, IV (d) I, IV
AIPMT-1993 TS EAMCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II
Ans. (d) : Statement-I is correct. The ascending limb of (c) Tubular secretion
the loop of Henle is impermeable to water. This means (d) Facultative reabsorption
that water can not move from the lumen of the tubule to TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
the surrounding intrestitial fluid. Ans. (c) : Tubular secretion is indeed the process by
Statement-IV is also correct. Juxta glomerular cells of which substances are actively secreted from the blood
the nephron secrete renin. Renin is a hormone that plays into the filtrate within the renal tubules. This process
a role in regulating blood pressure. involved in maintaining the acid and ionic balance in
the body by enabling the kidneys to eliminate excess
206. Identify the correct statement acids, hydrogen ions and various ions helping to
(a) Cortisol is a mineralo-corticoid regulate the pH of the blood and electrolyte.
(b) Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline are commonly 209. Kidney are located on either side of vertebral
called catecholamines column between the
(c) Zona reticularis of adrenal gland produces (a) Last lumbar and third sacral vertebrae
epinephrine (b) Last thoracic and third lumbar vertebrae
(d) Insulin is an enzyme that regulates mineral (c) Last thoracic and second lumbar vertebrae
metabolism (d) Last sacral and third caudal vertebrae
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
Ans. (b) : Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline are commonly Ans. (b) : The kidney are located on either side of the
called catecholamines. Adrenaline (also known as vertebral column between the last thoracic and third
epinephrin) and noradrenaline (also known as lumbar vertebrae. The kidneys are bean-shaped organs
norepinephrine) are two important hormones and that filter waste products from the blood and produce
neurotransmitters that belong to a class of compound urine. They are located in the retroperitoneum, which is
called catecholamines. They play an important role in the space behind the abdominal cavity.
the body's "fight or flight" response, helping to prepare 210. Assertion (A) : Kidneys of vertebrates are
the body for stressful situations. called retroperitoneal organs.
207. Assertion (A): The glomerular filtrate is Reason (R) : They are covered by paritetal
peritoneum only on their ventral side.
progressively diluted as it
(a) Both A and R correct explanation of A
moves up in the ascending
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct
limb of loop of Henle. explanation of A.
Reason (R): Ascending limb of loop Henle (c) A is correct but R is incorrect
is impermeable to water and (d) A is incorrect but R is correct.
permeable for the AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II
reabsorption of Na+ and Cl– . Ans. (a) : The kidneys of vertebrates are called
The correct option among the following is retroperitoneal organs because they are located behind
(a) A and R are true, R is correct explanation for the peritoneum. The peritoneum is a membrane that
A lines the abdominal cavity and covers most of the
(b) A and R are true, but R is not correct organs inside the cavity. The kidneys are not completely
explanation for A covered by the peritoneum, only on their ventral side.
So, both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
(c) A is true. But R is false.
correct explanation of A.
(d) A is false. But R is true.
211. Given below are statements one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
Ans. (a) : Assertion is correct– The ascending limb of R.
the loop of Henle is impermeable to water but Assertion A : Nephrons are of two types;
permeable to electrolytes. This means that water can not Cortical and Juxta medullary, based on their
move out of the ascending limb, but electrolytes can relative position in cortex and medulla.
move out. As a result, the filtrate becomes more dilute Reason R : Juxta medullary nephrons have
as it moves up the ascending limb. short loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons
Reason is also correct– The ascending limb of the loop have longer loop of Henle.
of Henle in the nephron of the kidney is impermeable to In the light of the above statement , choose the
water but permeable to the reabsorption of sodium ions correct answer from the options given below :
(Na+) and chloride ions (Cl–). (a) A is false but R is true.
So, the Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
208. In nephron the maintenance of acid and ionic
(c) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
balance is due to
(a) Ultrafiltration (d) A is true but R is false.
(b) Selective reabsorption NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
Ans. (d) : On the basis of location, the nephrons, are of 215. Which hormone helps in reabsorption of water
two types, in majority of nephrons, the loop of henle is from kidney ?
too short and extends only little into the medulla these (a) ADH (b) STH
nephrons are called cortical nephrons and form 85% of (c) ACTH (d) TTH
the loop of henle is very long and runs deep into the Uttarakhand PMT-2004
medulla. Punjab MET-1999
• These nephrons are called juxtamedullary nephrons
and form 15% of the total nephrons. Ans. (a) : ADH hormone helps in reabsorption of water
from kidney. It plays a key role in maintaining
212. Erythropoietin is produced by osmolarity. ADH is also called as arginine vasopressin.
(a) Liver (b) Pancreas It is a type of hormone that is made by hypothalamous
(c) Kidney (d) Spleen in the brain and stored in the posterior pituitary gland. It
AP EAPCET-11.07.2022 Shift-I regulates and balances the amount of water in blood.
KVPY (SA) - 2018 / MHT CET-2018
AP EAMCET - 2014 216. Which of the following blood vessels in
Ans. (c) : Erythropoietin Hormone secreted by adrenal mammals would normally carry the largest
cortex part of kidney, during deficiency of oxygen. It amount of urea?
stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs. (a) Hepatic vein (b) Renal vein
213. Volume of urine is regulated by (c) Hepatic portal vein (d) Dorsal aorta
(a) aldosterone Haryana PMT-1999
(b) aldosterone and testosterone Ans. (a) : In mammals, hepatic vein normally carry the
(c) ADH largest amount of urea cycle that is also known as
(d) aldosterone and ADH ornithine cycle. It takes place in liver.
WB JEE-2010 It carries blood from the liver to the vena cava which in
Ans. (d) : Volume of urine is regulated by aldosterone turn, takes it to the heart.
and ADH. In mammals and birds the amount of water 217. The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid
excretes in the urine. to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is
214. In the skeletal form of ornithine cycle given, (a) 20 mm Hg (b) 75 mm Hg
some intermediate products indicated by (c) 30 mm Hg (d) 50 mm Hg
albhabets. Choose the answer in which these CG PMT-2006
alphabets are properly matched with the names
of corresponding products: Ans. (a) : The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid
to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is 20 mm
Hg.
218. What for the ascending limb of loop of Henles
is permeable?
(a) Glucose (b) NH3
(c) Na+ (d) Water
CG PMT-2006
(a) A = arginine, B = succinic acid, C = fumaric Ans. (d) : Ascending limb of loop of Henle’s is
acid permeable to water but allows transport of electrolytes
(b) A = citrulline, B = arginine, C = succinic acid
actively or passively.
(c) A = citrulline, B = fumaric acid, C = arginine
(d) A = citrulline, B = arginine, C = fumaric acid219. The lining of intestine and kidneys in humans is
Karnataka CET-2002 (a) keratinized (b) brush bordered
Ans. (d) : A-Citrulline, B = Arginine, C = Fumaric (c) ciliated (d) None of these
acid. BVP-2012
Carbamoyl phosphate is synthesized in the first reaction Ans. (b) : The intestine and kidney in human beings are
from NH +4 , CO2 and 2 ATP. lined by brush bordered cells. It is microvilli-covered
surface of simple cuboidal epithelium and simple
Ornithine react with corbamoyl phosphate to form
citrulline. epithelium cells that are generally found in some
locations of body and this type of lining is seen in the
Citrulline combines with asparatate to form
argininosuccinate. Argininosuccinate is cleaved to form kidneys, small and large intestine tract.
arginine and fumarate. 220. Which one of the following body functions is
not performed by kidneys ?
(a) Excretion
(b) Osmoregulation
(c) Regulation of blood volume
(d) Destruction of dead blood corpuscles
CMC Ludhiana-2012
JCECE-2003
Ans. (d) : Destruction of dead blood corpuscles Ans. (d) : Kidneys lie outside the peritoneum, hence
functions of body is not performed by kidneys. Kidney they are called retroperitoneal. It is an anatomical space
is excretory organ of body that helps to remove waste which is located after the peritoneal cavity.
materials from body and maintain the salts and water The peritoneum is a continuous membrane which line
inside the body by the process called osmoregulation. the abdominal cavity and cover two abdominal organs
221. Renin is secreted by the cells of ______. (abdominal viscera). It act to support the viscera and
provides pathways for blood vessels and lymph to travel
(a) JG apparatus (b) collecting tubule
to and from the viscera.
(c) collecting duct (d) PCT
226. Following events are associated with blood
pressure regulation by kidney.
MHT CET -2019
Kerala PMT-2008
A) Formation of Angiotensin II
Punjab MET-2008 B) Secretion of Aldosterone
C) Fall in blood pressure
Ans. (a) : Renin is secreted by Juxtaglomerular
D) Reabsorption of Na+ from distal convoluted
apparatus that helps in controlling blood pressure and
tubule
maintains healthy level of Na+ and K+ in body.
E) Release of Renin
222. The adrenal cortex secretes all the following F) Restoration of normal blood pressure
hormones except G) Conversion of Angiotensinogen to
(a) tyrosine (b) cholesterol Angiotensin I
(c) glycoprotein (d) None of these H) Activation of Juxta Glomerular cells
Uttarakhand PMT-2011 The correct regulation sequence is
Ans. (b) : The adrenal cortex secretes hormones such as (a) D-H-C-A-B-E-F-G (b) C-H-G-A-E-B-D-F
tyrosine and glycoprotein but it does not secrete (c) C-H-E-G-A-B-D-F (d) H-E-G-A-C-B-F-D
cholesterol. TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-II
223. Heparin is synthesized in Ans. (c) : The renin-angiotensin aldosterone system
(a) liver (b) kidney (RAAS) is a series of reactions that provides help in the
(c) saliva (d) pancreas regulation of blood pressure by kidney.
JIPMER-2010 Hence, the correct regulation sequence is –
Ans. (a) : Heparin is synthesized in liver. It is an • Fall in blood pressure
anticoagulant that prevents the formation of blood clots. • Activation of JG cells
• Heparin is used to prevent or treat certain blood • Release of Renin from kidney
vessel, heart, and lung conditions. Heparin is also used • Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
to prevent blood clotting during open- heart surgery, • Formation of angiotensin II
bypass surgery, kidney dialysis, and blood transfusions. • Secretion of aldosterone
224. A pair of hormones produced by kidneys is • Reabsorption of Na+ from DCT
(a) Erythropoietin and relaxin • Restoration of normal blood pressure
(b) Erythropoietin and calcitriol
(c) Calcitonin and relaxin F. Role of other organs in
(d) Calcitonin and calcitriol Excretion and Micturition
MHT CET-2016
227. Sudoriferous glands occur in
Ans. (b) : Human kidney is two type hormone formed (a) lung (b) kidney
erythropoietin and calcitriol. (c) skin (d) alimentary canal
Calcitriol is produced in the proximal tubular cells in UP CPMT-2004
the kidney. Calcitriol is a medication that treats low
Ans. (c) : Sudoriferous gland occurs in skin. It is also
calcium levels caused by kidney disease. called as sweat gland. It helps in the regulation of body
It is very important hormone that helps the body temperature. Each Sweat gland is made up of two
respond during stress. Erythropoietin stimulates portions A secretary section and an excretory duct.
RBCs production in bone marrow and both hormones
228. In micturition
are formed by kidney.
(a) urethra relaxes (b) ureter contracts
225. Kidneys lie outside the peritoneum, hence they (c) ureter relaxes (d) urethra contracts
are called Punjab MET-1999 / DUMET-2004
(a) Orthoperitoneal Manipal-2001 / BVP- 2001 / DUMET-2001
(b) Infraperitoneal Ans. (a) : In micturition urethra relaxes. It helps to
(c) Supra peritoneal urine to flow out. It is prompted by the stimulation of
(d) Retroperitoneal stretch receptors that is found on the wall of bladder and
MHT CET-2009 urethra.
229. Mammary glands are modified: 233. Loss of water from body occurs by all of the
(a) Sweat glands (b) Sebaceous glands following except
(c) Lacrymal glands (d) Endocrine glands (a) muscles (b) lungs
Uttarakhand PMT-2004 (c) kidney (d) skin
Ans. (a) : Mammary glands are modified sweat glands. JIPMER-2018
They are developed in females that help in the Ans. (a) : Loss of water from body occurs by lungs,
formation of milk to feed infants. kidney, and skin except muscles. Muscles does not lose
230. Haemodialysis helps in patient having : water, skin loses water in the form of sweat gland.
(a) uremia (b) anaemia Kidney loses water in the form of urine and lungs loses
(c) diabetes (d) goiter some water during respiration.
Haryana PMT-2005
234. Tears contain which enzyme that act as
Ans. (a) : Haemodialysis helps in patient having antiseptic:
uremia. Haemodialysis is Common type dialysis, these
(a) muramidase (b) zymozyme
use are during kidney failure time. It is the process uses
an artificial kidney (hemodialysis) to filter wastes and (c) phagozyme (d) none of these
extra fluid from blood the filtered blood, is then JCECE-2002
returned to the body with help of a dialysis machine. It Ans. (a) : Lysozyme that is also called muramidase has
also helps to control blood pressure. an antibacterial action that acts as antiseptic. It works to
231. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva prevent invasion and infection by microbes.
and tears, destroys: 235. Study the following table
(a) Most virus – infected cells S. Part of Lined by Substances
(b) Certain fungi No. nephron reabsorbed
(c) Certain types of bacteria (I) Proximal Simple Glucose,
(d) All viruses convoluted squamous amino acids,
AIPMT-2007 tubule epithelium water
Ans. (c) : Lysozyme is an enzyme that is present in (II) Descending Squamous Water
perspiration saliva and tears, destroy the certain types of limb of loop epithelium
bacteria. of Henle (thin layer)
232. Match the following (III) Ascending Squamous Water.
limb of loop epithelium electrolytes
A. Lungs 1. Elimination of of Henle (Lower thin
sterols, waxes and and upper
hydrocarbons thick)
B. Liver 2. Elimination of CO2 (IV) Distal Cuboidal Water.
and significant convoluted epithelium HCO3−
amount of water tubule
C. Sweat 3. Removal of NaCl Among the above, wrong combination are
glands and lactic acid (a) I, II (b) II, III
D. Sebaceous 4. Changes the (c) I, III (d) I, IV
glands decomposed AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-I
Haemoglobin into Kerala PMT-2011
bile pigments
Ans. (c) : Proximal convoluted tubule is a part of the
(a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4 renal tubule that is responsible for the reabsorption and
(b) A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 1 secretion of glucose amino acid and water. It is lined by
(c) A – 3, B – 4, C – 2, D – 1 simple squamous epithelium.
(d) A – 4, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2 • Ascending loop of Henle is also known as the distal
straight tubule. It is responsible for the reabsorption and
Ans. (b) : secretion of water electrolytes and lined by squamous
A. Lungs - Elimination of CO2 and epithelium (lower thin and upper thick).
Significant amount of water
236. Assertion (A): In human beings kidneys are
B. Liver - Changes the decomposed
retroperitoneal organs
Hemoglobin into bile
Reason (R): They are protruded into the body
Pigments
cavity from inner surface of dorsal body wall
C. Sweat glands - Removal of NaCl and lactic and have mesodermal peritoneum on their
Acid ventral side only
D. Sebaceous glands - Elimination of sterols, waxes (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
and hydrocarbons correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the Ans. (d) : Reabsorption of water occurs passively in the
correct explanation of (A) initial segment of nephron is called PCT.
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct Excretory waste like ammonia, uric acid get absorbs
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct into the PCT by passive transport.
AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-I DCT reabsorbs H+, K+, NH3, HCO–3 and Na+ to
Ans. (a) : In human beings kidneys are retroperitoneal balance the pH.
organs because they are protruded into the body cavity 241. The hydrostatic pressure of the blood while
from inner surface of dorsal body wall and have flowing in the glomerulus of nephron is
mesodermal peritoneum on their ventral side only. (a) 32 mm Hg (b) 60 mm Hg
237. Haemoglobin is a: (c) 10 mm Hg (d) 18 mm Hg
(a) Protein (b) Fibrous protein TS EAMCET-15.05.2016
(c) Globular protein (d) Enzyme Ans. (b) : The hydrostatic pressure of the blood while
Manipal-2002 flowing in the glomerulus of nephron is 60 mm Hg.
Ans. (c) : Hemoglobin is a type of globular protein, it Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is the force applied
contains red blood cells that is responsible for delivery of mechanically to the plasma fluid that tends to drive the
oxygen to the tissues and it provides red colour to blood. plasma filtrate out of the glomerulus capillaries and into
238. The process of expulsion of urine from urinary the capsular space.
bladder is called 242. Function of lacrimal glands is
(a) De–micturition (b) Parturition (a) to secrete mucous (b) to secrete tears
(c) Micturition (d) Deamination (c) to secrete oil (d) to secrete fat
MHT CET-2006 CG PMT-2004
Ans. (c) : The process of expulsion of urine from Ans. (b) : Tears are formed in lacrimal glands in the
urinary bladder is called micturition. Deamination is a upper outside corners of eyes. Hence, function of
process which is removal of amine group from a lacrimal glands is to secrete tears which helps in
molecule in the liver cells. Parturition is the expelling of lubrication of eye. Tear prevent drying of eye and entry
the body from the mother's uterus after the gestation of germ inside the eye.
period.
243. Why do we pass more urine in wet and cold
239. Part of nephron impermeable to salt: season?
(a) distal convoluted tubules (a) Impairment of water absorption by nephrons
(b) descending limb of loop of Henle (b) Kidney becomes more active
(c) ascending limb of loop of Henle (c) Sweating is much reduced
(d) collecting duct (d) ADH secretion is increased
DUMET-2006 CG PMT-2004
Ans. (b) : Descending loop of Henle is part of nephron Ans. (c) : In cold weather sweating is much reduced,
impermeable to the ions and permeable for the water. there is no precipitation and kidney has to bear the
240. Which of the following statement is/are entire burden of excretion. Therefore, we pass more
correct? urine frequently.
(i) Re-absorption of water occurs passively in
the initial segment of nephron G. Disorders of the Excretory
(ii) Nitrogenous wastes are absorbed by passive
transport
System
+
(iii) Conditional re-absorption of Na and water 244. The condition in which Kidneys fail to conserve
takes place in DCT water leading to water loss and dehydration
(iv) DCT re-absorbs HCO3 due to impaired ADH synthesis or release
(v) DCT is capable of selective secretion of H+, is ––––––––
K+ and NH3 to maintain pH and Na+. K+ (a) Diabetes mellitus
balance in blood (b) Glycosuria
(vi) Substances like glucose, amino acids, Na+, (c) Ketonuria
etc, in the re-absorbed actively (d) Diabetes insipidus
(a) (i) and (ii) AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-I
(b) (ii) and (iii) Ans. (d) : Diabetes insipidus is a disorder in which
(c) (iv) and (v) kidneys fail to conserve water leading to water loss and
(d) All six statements are correct dehydration due to impaired ADH synthesis or release. It
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-II enables the kidneys to conserve water in the body.
245. Name the condition when the concentration of 249. Uricotelism is found in
ketone body increases in urine. (a) mammals and birds
(a) Acromegaly (b) fishes and fresh water protozoans
(b) Diabetes mellitus (c) birds, reptiles and insects
(c) Diabetes insipidus (d) frogs and toads
(d) Cushings disease CG PMT-2006
WB JEE-2010
Ans. (c) : Uricotelism is found in birds, reptiles and
Ans. (b) : Diabetes mellitus – when the concentration of insects. It is the process of releasing the nitrogenous
ketone body increase in urea. wastes from the body in the form of uric acid.
Ketonuria occurs when high levels of ketone bodies
250. A terrestrial animal must be able to
which occur, when cells are broken down for energy are
present in the urine. It is seen during starvation or more (a) excrete large amount of water in urine
commonly type I diabetes mellitus. (b) conserve water
246. Match the following columns. (c) actively pump salts out through the skin
(d) excrete large amount of salts in urine
Column I Column II
CG PMT-2006
A Polyuria 1 WBCs pus in urine
Ans. (b) : A terrestrial animal must be able to conserve
B Pyuria 2 High level of uric acid
water. Terrestrial animal such as insects, reptiles and
in blood
some land crustaceans need to conserve water for their
C Gout 3 Excess of urine output survival. They live predominantly on land for example
D Haematuria 4 Presence of blood cats, ants, and spiders.
(RBCs) in urine
251. Glycosuria is the condition, where a man
(a) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
(a) eats more sugar
(b) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4
(b) excretes sugar in urine
(c) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
(c) sugar is excreted in faeces
(d) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
(d) has low sugar level in blood
Manipal-2011
DUMET-2009
Ans. (a) :
Ans. (b) : Glycosuria is the condition of excretion of
(A)Polyuria - Excess of urine out put
more sugar in urine is defined as glycosuria in urine.
(B) Pyuria - WBCs pus in urine
This is the indication of diabetes mellitus.
(C) Gout - High level of uric acid in blood
(D) Haematuria - Presence of blood (RBCs) in urine. 252. Uraemia is an excretory disorder in which
(a) the tubule of kidney reabsorb urea in large
247. The accumulation of urea in the blood due to
malfunctioning of kidneys is referred as amount
(a) uremia (b) renal calculi (b) concentration of urea goes high in the blood
(c) edema (d) glomerulonephritis because the tubules are not able to remove it
from the blood
J&K CET-2014
(c) urea is produced in excess in the body
Ans. (a) : Uremia is a buildup to toxins in your blood. It
occurs when the kidneys stop filtering toxins out (d) none of the above
through your urine. CMC Ludhiana-2007
Uremia is often a sign of end-stage renal (kidney) Ans. (b) : Uremia is caused by extreme damage of
disease. kidneys. It is an excretory disorder in which
248. The hereditary disease in which the urine of a concentration of urea goes high in the blood because the
person turns black on exposure to air due to tubules are not able to remove it from the blood.
the presence of homogentisic acid is known as 253. Which of the following disease shows the
(a) ketonuria blockage of kidney tubules and causes severe
(b) phenylketonuria back pain?
(c) haematuria (a) Kidney failure (b) Renal calculi
(d) alkaptonuria (c) Uremia (d) Nephritis
AMU-1999 GUJCET-2015
Ans. (d) : Alkaptonuria, or black urine disease is a very Ans. (b) : Renal calculi are the formation of kidney
rare inherited disorders that prevent the body fully stones and blocks the passage of urine and causes pain
breaking down two protein building blocks (amino acid) at the time of passing urine. These stones are calcium
called tyrosine and phenylalanine. oxalate crystals.
04. LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT
(d) Actin by the mitotic spindle, similar so, what
A. Types of Movement and happens during mitosis and meiosis
Locomotion AMU-2015
Ans. (a) : The amoeboid movement results from
1. The long non motile cilia like processes present interactions among actin, myosin and ATP etc.
in the epididymis are • At present it is know that motive force in amoeba is
(a) Stereocilia (b) Microvilli generated by sliding interactions between acting and
(c) Brush border cilia (d) Villi myosin filament in a way comparable to that occurring
TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I in muscle cell. Actin and myosin filaments as a
Ans. (a) : Stereocillia are long, non-motile cilia-like foundation of contractile system are well established
projections that are found in the epididymis. They are from in amoeba.
made up of actin filaments and help to increase the 6. Identify the correctly matched pairs.
surface area of the cell, allowing for greater absorption List-I List-II
and secretion.
(Animal) (Organ of locomotion)
2. The function of parapodia is
(1) Pila (1) Flagellum
(a) Burrowing (b) Swimming
(c) Food collection (d) Visual sense (2) Asterias (2) Tube feet
TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-II (3) Euglena (3) Seta
Ans. (b) : Aquatic animals of phylum annelida, , like (4) Paramecium (4) Cilia
nereis possess parapodia. Parapodia refers to a lateral (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
outgrowth from the body. They are fundamentally (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
organs of locomotion which are used in swimming. BHU PMT (Mains)-2010
3. Acronematic flagella are seen in————— Ans. (c) : The organs that help an animal to move, are
(a) Euglene know as locomotory organs.
(b) Chlamydomonas • Locomotory organs in Asterias (star fish) is tube feet,
(c) Astasia which are found as part of water vascular system.
(d) None of these options are correct • Locomotory structure in paramecium is cilia. They
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I are characterized by the presence of thousands of
Ans. (b) : At the anterior end, arise two flagella, which cilia covering their body.
come out through the same or separate canals. The • Locomotory organ of euglena is flagella.
flagellum arises from a tiny basal granule the 7. Folding and unfolding of actin and myosin
blepharoplast. The flagella are acronematic (whiplash) leads to amoeboid movement. This is
and of equal length, connected together by transverse hypothesized by:
fiber called paradesmose, which is attached to intra (a) Allen (b) Goldacre and Lorsch
nuclear centrosome of the mucleus by rhizoplast. (c) Berthold (d) Jennings
4. Statement A: All the locomotions are AP EAMCET-2005
movements. Ans. (b) : The cytoplasmic contents convert from
Statement B: All the movements are not plasma sol to plasma gel at various portions within the
locomotions. cell causing movement.
(a) Statement A and B both are correct • The movement of amoeba is explained via the
(b) Statement A is true but B is false molecular folding and unfolding theory proposed by
(c) Statement A and B both are false Goldacre and Lorsch.
(d) Statement A is false but B is True 8. Which type of movement is present in Mimosa
GUJCET-2018 pudica?
Ans. (a) : Movement is one of the significant features of (a) Seismonastic (b) Nyctinastic
living beings. Some of the movements result in a change (c) Chemonastic (d) None of these
of place or location. Such voluntary movements are Rajasthan PMT-1996
called locomotion. All the locomations are movements
Ans. (a) : Seismonastic movement shows Mimosa
but all movements are not locomotion.
pudica. Seismonastic movement is a type of nastic
5. The amoeboid movement results from movement that is caused by touch or vibration. The
(a) Interactions among actin, myosin and ATP, etc common name of Mimosa pudica is “touch me not
(b) Coordinated beats of cilia plant”. The loves of Mimosa pudica fold up and droop
(c) Whip–like action of flagella when touched.
Locomotion and Movement 135 YCT
9. What is the function of hydrostatic skeleton? B. The Muscles and Types
(a) Locomotion (b) Climbing
(c) Looping (d) Somersalt 13. The largest muscle in the human is
Rajasthan PMT-1996 (a) biceps (b) gluteus maximus
(c) stapedius (d) masseter
Ans. (a) : The function of hydrostatic skeleton is
JIPMER-2016 / UP CPMT-2006 / BVP-2000
locomotion. The hydrostatic skeleton is made possible
by closed fluid-filled internal space of the body. The Ans. (b) : The largest muscle in the human body is the
gluteus maximus that is located at the back of the hip or
hydrostatic skeleton is a flexible skeleton supported by
the buttock muscles (there is one on each side) help
fluid pressure. It is mainly present in some invertebrates move the hips and thighs and keep the trunk of the body
like earthworms, jellyfish and squid. upright.
10. In rotation type of cyclosis, the cytoplasmic 14. The strongest muscle in the human is:
matrix flows in (a) biceps (b) gluteus maximus
(a) one direction (b) two opposite direction (c) stapedius (d) masseter
(c) different directions (d) side wise JIPMER-2015
CG PMT-2007 Ans. (d) : Human have the strongest muscle masseter. It
Ans. (a) : In rotation type of cyclosis, the cytoplasmic is a thick chewing muscle of the human jaw that mainly
matrix flow in only one direction because myosin serves to raise the lower jaw.
moves only in one direction along the actin filament. • The stapedius is the smallest skeletal muscle is the
11. A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the human body.
field. Which one of the following groups of • The gluteus maximus is the largest muscle in the
bones are directly contributing in this human body.
movement ? 15. The type of muscles present in our thigh
(a) Femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals (a) upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform
(b) Pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals in shape
(c) Sternum, femur, tibia, fibula (b) heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth
muscles
(d) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia
(c) intestine are striated and involuntary
AIIMS-2006
(d) are straited and voluntary
Ans. (d) : Tarsals, femur, metatarsal and tibia are AIPMT (Mains)-2011
directly contributing the movement, when a cricket
Ans. (d) : The type of muscles present in our thigh are
player is chasing a ball in the field. These are the bones straited and voluntary. The thigh muscle are skeletal
of lower limb responsible for walking or running. muscles. They are made of bundles of muscles fiber
• Tarsals is a set of seven irregularly shaped bone. They containing blood vessels and nerve fiber.
are situated proximally in the foot in the ankle area. • Heart are involuntary and striated
• Intestine are smooth and involuntary.
16. Which part not have only involuntary muscles
(a) Urethra (b) Irish
(c) Heart muscles (d) Blood vessels
AIPMT-1998
Ans. (a) : Urethra is a muscular tube that carries urine
from the bladder to the outside of the body. It is made
up of both smooth and striated muscles. The smooth
muscles are involuntary, while the striated muscles are
voluntary
12. One animal that does not perform locomotion

is
(a) Sycon (b) Nereis
(c) Sepia (d) Euglena
J&K CET-2011
Ans. (a) : The animal that does not perform locomotion
sycon.
• Sycon is a type of sponge that belongs to the phylum
porifera. Sponges are sessile organism which means
they are typically attached to a substrate and do not
perform active locomotion .
17. Which is the longest muscles which brings 22. ……acts as a shock absorber to cushion when
thigh near mid line? tibia and femur came together.
(a) Chorocobranchiasis (b) Biceps femories (a) Ligament (b) Cartilage
(c) Castronimus (d) Sartorius (c) Tendon (d) Disc
Rajasthan PMT-1996 CME Vellore-2010
Ans. (d) : The Sartorius muscles is the longest muscle AMU-2009
in Human body. It is located in the thigh and is Ans. (b) : Cartilage - Cartilage is a strong flexible
responsible for bringing the thigh towards the midline connective tissue that protect your joint and bones. It act
of the body. It also helps to flex the hip joint and rotateas a shock absorber.
the thigh outward.
Ligament - Ligament is a fibrous connective tissue that
• It is a long thin superficial muscles that runs down the attached bone to bone.
length of the thigh in the anterior compartment.
Tendon - Tendon is fibrous connective tissue that
18. Striped muscles are attached muscle to bone.
(a) syncytial (b) uninucleate
23. Slow muscle fibres are found in
(c) binucleate (d) anucleate
(a) eye (b) leg
Manipal-2012 / AFMC-2002 / CG PMT-2005
(c) stomach (d) heart
Ans. (a) : Striped muscles syncytial (one cell having HP CET-2011 / VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004
multiple nuclei). The cells are long and cylindrical in
shape and arranged in bundles. Striped muscles are Ans. (b) : Slow muscle fibers are found in lower legs
found between bones and tendons. and your back. It is mostly made up of slow switch
fibers. This is because they have to help you stand and
19. What will happen if ligaments are cut or
broken? hold your pasture for long period of time.
(a) Bones will move freely at joints 24. Red muscle cells are rich in
(b) NO movement at joint (a) Only myosin
(c) Bone will become unfixed (b) Haemoglobin and glucose
(d) Bone will become fixed (c) Lactic acid and acetic acid
AMU-2007 (d) Myoglobin and cytochrome
Ans. (c) : If ligaments are cut or broken then bone will MGIMS Wardha-2011
become unfixed because ligaments connect bone to Ans. (d) : Cytochrome and myoglobin are iron
bone. ligament support and strengthen joints. containing haemoproteins which help in respiration by
20. During an injury nasal septum gets damaged. binding oxygen.
For its recovery which cartilage is preferred? • Red muscle cells are rich in myoglobin and
(a) Elastic cartilage (b) Hyaline cartilage mitochondrion which gives it a characterized red
(c) Calcified cartilage (d) Fibrous cartilage appearance.
AMU-2007 25. In hurdle race, which of the following is
Ans. (b) : During an injury nasal septum gets damaged. accumulated in the leg muscle?
For its recovery hyline cartilage is preferred. Hyline (a) Performed ATP (b) Glycolysis
cartilage is the most widespread and it is present in the (c) Lactate (d) Oxidative metabolism
synovial joints and assist the motion of joints. It is DUMET-2009
composed of chandrocytes and extracellular matrix.
Ans. (c) : In hurdle race, lactate is accumulated in the leg
• Elastic cartilage is a type of dense connective tissue. muscles because, the muscles need to produce energy very
It is found mainly in the, external part of the ear quickly. The body cannot supply enough oxygen to the
(pinna).
muscles, As a result the muscles switch to anaerobic
• Calcified cartilage are formed due to the deposition respiration, which produces lactate as byproduct.
of calcium in the matrix of the cartilage. i.e.
epiphysis. 26. Organ of Golgi is the sensing structure formed
• Fibrous cartilage-It is the very strong cartilage. It is at the junction of
found predominantly in the intervetebral disks of the (a) Two nerves (b) Two bones
spin. (c) Nerve and muscles (d) Muscles and tendon
21. Ensheathing of muscles is called : VMMC-2008
(a) tendon (b) ligament Ans. (d) : Organ of Golgi is the sensing structure
(c) peritoneum (d) fascia formed at the junction of muscles and tendon. It is also
JIPMER-2001 known as the Golgi tendon organ. Golgi tendon organs
Ans. (d) : Ensheating of muscles is called as fascia. are encapsulated afferent nerve endings located at the
Fascia is a type of fibrous connective tissue. It junction of the muscles and tendon.
represents the connection of one muscle to the other 27. The red muscles are red in colour as they
muscles or more specifically an interconnection contain the pigment
between muscle fiber. (a) haemoglobin (b) immunoglobulin
• Tendons connect your muscles to your bone. (c) myoglobin (d) leghaemoglobin
• Ligaments attached bone to bone. Tripura JEE-2022
Ans. (c) : Myoglobin is a red colored oxygen storing Ans. (d) : Communication among the cells is
pigments found in muscles. performed by intercalated disc in cardiac muscle.
• Myoglobin is an oxygen binding protein present in all Intercalated discs are absent in smooth muscle.
muscle fiber. It is an iron-containing protein similar to • Smooth muscles communicate with each other
haemoglobin. through gap junctions, it also present in the wall of
28. Muscles which bend the joint blood vessels and reproductive tract.
(a) flexor (b) extensor 32. Skeletal muscles are controlled by -
(c) involution (d) twitch (a) Sympathetic nervous system
Manipal-2010 (b) Parasympathetic nervous system
AIPMT-1996 (c) Somatic nervous system
(d) Sympathetic and parasympathetic both
Ans. (a) : The muscles which bend the joint is flexor
AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-I
muscles. The flexor muscles initiate flexion which is the
phenomenon of decreasing angel between bones. Ans. (c) : Skeletal muscles are controlled by somatic
nervous system. Somatic nervous system is part of
29. Which one of the following is wrongly peripheral neural system. Somatic neural system relays
matched? impulses from CNS to skeletal system.
(a) Myosin – contractile protein • The sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic
(b) Tendon – Connective tissue nervous system are parts of the autonomic nervous
(c) Smooth muscle – Involuntary muscle system, which controls involuntary movement.
(d) Red muscle – Myoglobin Sympathetic nerves initiates "Fight-or- flight" response
(e) Troponin – Fibrous protein and parasympathetic nerves initiates "rest and digest"
Kerala PMT-2009 response.
Ans. (e) : Troponin is a regulatory protein that plays a 33. Intercalated discs are characteristic of muscles
crucial role in muscle contraction. Particularly in found in
skeletal and cardiac muscle fibers. It is not a fibrous (a) heart (b) thigh
protein but rather a complex of three subunits troponin (c) urinary bladder (d) stomach.
C troponin I and troponin. AIIMS-2013
• Myosin is a contractile protein found in muscle cells Ans. (a) : Intercalated discs are complex structures that
and is responsible for the interaction between action and connect adjacent cardiac muscle cell. It is major portal
myosin filaments, leading to muscle contraction. for cardiac cell to cell communication, which is
• Tendons are dense connective tissues that connect required for coordinated muscle contraction and
muscles to bones. maintenance of circulation.
• Smooth muscle is involuntary muscle. 34. In smooth and cardiac muscles, cell junctions
• Red muscles are characterized by a higher content of are represented by –
myoglobin a protein that binds and stores oxygen in (a) Gap junction (b) Desmosomes
muscle cells. (c) Tight junction (d) Zonula occuludens
30. The protoplasmic segment of a striated muscle AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I
fibre is termed as Ans. (a) : In smooth and cardiac muscles cell junction
(a) sacroplasm (b) metamere are represented by Gap junction. Gap junctions are
(c) sarcomere (d) neuromere specialized intercellular junctions that allow the direct
CG PMT-2010 passage of ions and small molecule between cells.
AIIMS-1995
Ans. (a) : The protoplasmic segment of a striated
muscle fibre is termed as sarcoplasm. Sarcoplasm is the
basic unit of contraction in striated muscle fibers, it is
made up of repeating units of actin and myosin
filament. It contains several nuclei (multinucleated) but
not contain myofibriles.
31. Which of the following statements wrongly
represents the nature of smooth muscle?
(a) These muscles are present in the wall of
blood vessels
(b) These muscle have no striations
(c) They are involuntary muscles 35. Quadriceps and gastrocnemius muscles lie in
(d) Communication among the cells is performed (a) hands (b) legs
by intercalated discs (c) shoulder (d) wrist
NEET-2021 CG PMT-2005
Ans. (b) : The quadriceps and gastrocnemius lie in legs. 40. Epimysium, perimysium and endomysium are
The quadriceps muscle also known as the quadriceps found in
femoris is a group of muscles located in the front of the (a) nerve (b) blood vessel
thigh. It consists of four muscles. (c) striated muscle (d) uterus
The gastrocnemius muscle is located in the posterior BVP-2009 / VMMC-2009
(back) part of the lower leg. It forms the bulk of the calf Ans. (c) : Epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium
muscle and is responsible for plantar flexion of the foot are found in striated muscle.
which involved pointing the downward. • Epimysium is the outermost layer of connective
36. The stored food material found in muscles is tissue that surrounds the entire muscle. It is a dense
(a) protein (b) glycogen fibrous sheath that provides protection and support to
(c) lipid (d) Phosphogen the entire muscles.
CG PMT-2005 • Perimysium is the connective tissue that surrounds
Ans. (b) : Glycogen is a form of glucose. It is a main bundles to muscle fibers called fascicles. It contains
source of energy that your body stores primarily in blood vessels nerves, and additional connective tissue.
muscles. The main function of glycogen is to maintain a • Endomysium is the deepest and smallest component
physiological blood glucose concentration. of muscle connective tissue.
37. Red Muscle has: 41. Muscles of the heart are _____
(a) More mitochondria (a) Straited and voluntary
(b) Less mitochondria (b) Striated, branched and involuntary
(c) More sarcoplasmic reticulum (c) Non-striated and voluntary
(d) Less blood capillaries (d) Striated, unbranched and involuntary
BCECE-2015 AP EAMCET-05.10.2021 Shift-I
Ans. (a) : Red muscle has more mitochondria. In red Ans. (b) : Muscles of the heart are striated, branched,
muscles the oxygen storing pigment myoglobin are and involuntary.
present for the coloration. • The muscles of the heart also known as cardiac
It is rich in mitochondria, which are responsible for muscles or myocardium. It have a striated appearance
generating ATP through aerobic respiration. The similar to skeletal muscles they contain organized
presence of a high number of mitochondria in red arrangements of contractile proteins actin, and
muscle fibers enabled them to efficiently produce ATP myosin, giving them a striped or striated appearance
and support sustained muscle activity. under a microscope.
38. The main difference between white and yellow • Cardiac muscle fibers have multiple branches that
Fibres is of interconnect with neighboring fibers allows for
(a) protein (b) color of fibres efficient electrical and mechanical coordination of
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above the Heart's contractions.
WB JEE-2007 • Unlike skeletal muscles which are under voluntary
Ans. (c) : The main difference white and yellow fibers control, cardiac muscles are involuntary. They are
is change in protein and colour of fiber. regulated by the autonomic nervous system and
White and yellow fibers are terms used to two different exhibit rhythmic contractions that are coordinated by
types of muscle fibers found in skeletal muscles the specialized conducting tissues within the heart.
distinction between these fibers is based on their color. 42. Sarcolemma is a membrane found over
In Muscles the yellow fiber is formed by elastic protein (a) heart (b) cardiac muscle
while the white fiber is formed by collagen protein. (c) muscle fibre (d) nerve fibre
39. Assertion (A): Skeletal muscle fibre is in Rajasthan PMT-2003
syncytial state Ans. (c) :Sarcolemma is a membrane found over the
Reason (R): It is formed by fusion of muscle fibre. It is surrounded by basement membrane
cells and endomysial connective tissue. The function of the
Options : sarcolemma is same as that of the plasma membrane of
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the eukaryotic cell.
correct explanation of (A) 43. The unstriped muscles are found in :
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (a) neck region (b) heart region
correct explanation of (A) (c) urinary bladder (d) thigh region
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct Rajasthan PMT-2001, 1995
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct Ans. (c) : The unstriped muscles, also known as smooth
AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-I muscles or non-striated muscles, are found in urinary
Ans. (a) : Skeletal muscle fibre is syncytial state. A bladder.
syncytial is a single cell that contains multiple nuclei. It • Smooth muscles are involuntary muscles that are not
is formed by fusion of cell. under conscious control, they are found in various
Muscle fibres show syncytial condition because the organs and structures throughout the body, including the
muscle cytoplasm, also known as sarcoplasm and urinary bladder. Smooth muscles cells do not have the
contains many nuclei. striped or striated appearance.
44. Which of the following is not a character of red C. Structure of Muscle and its
muscle?
(a) It contains more red colored oxygen storing Protein
pigment myoglobin 48. One of the following is not a part of light band
(b) Myoglobin retains more oxygen of myofibril
(c) Exhibit aerobic respiration (a) Actin (b) Myosin
(d) Contains less mitochondria but contains more (c) Troponin (d) Tropomyosin
sarcoplasmic reticulum AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I Ans. (b) : Myosin is a thick filament that is present in
Ans. (d) : Muscle contains a red coloured oxygen the dark band of the myofibril. The light band is
storing pigment called myoglobin. Myoglobin content is composed of thin filaments, which are made up of actin.
high in some of the muscles which gives a reddish Troponin and tropomyosin are regulatory proteins that
appearance. Such muscles are called the red fibres. bind to actin filaments and prevent them from binding
These muscle also contains more mitochondria. to myosin filaments in the resting state.
Hence, Red muscle contain less mitochondria but 49. Select the wrong statement :
contains more sarcoplasmic reticulum is not character (a) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and
of red muscle. Plantae
45. Gastrocnemius muscle is found attached in (b) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
(a) chest (b) thigh (c) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell
(c) shank (d) forearm in all kingdoms except Monera
(d) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
BVP-2011
structures in Sporozoans
Ans. (c) : The term ''shank'' typically refers to the part NEET-2018
of leg between the knee and the ankle , which is where
Ans. (d) : Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
the Gastrocnemius muscle is located.
structure in sporozoans this statement is wrong because
The Gastrocnemius muscle is a large muscle located in pseudopodia is found in amoeba. In amoeba
the posterior (back) part of the lower leg. pseudopodia helps to move and capture their prey.
46. Alary muscle is associated with: Amoeba belongs to class sarcodina.
(a) heart and circulation 50. Sarcomere is the functional unit of contraction
(b) malpighian tubules and excretion in a muscle fibre. Identify the portion of
(c) trachea and respiration myofibril that constitute a sarcomere.
(d) none of the above (a) The portion of myofibril between two
Rajasthan PMT-2005 successive 'Z' line.
(b) The portion of myofibril between two
Ans. (a) : The alary muscle is associated with the heart
successive 'I' band.
and circulation. The alary muscles are a pair of
triangular fans like muscles in the heart of the (c) The portion of myofibril between two
successive 'A' band.
cockroach. The contraction and relaxation of alary
muscle regulate the blood flow. This helps in the (d) The portion of myofibril between two
successive 'M' line.
circulation of the hemolymph in the body of cockroach.
Karnataka CET-2016
47. Largest smooth muscle is present in:
Ans. (a) :A Sarcomere is the functional unit of
(a) leg construction in a muscle fiber. It is the repeating unit of
(b) thigh the myofibril which is the contractile element of a
(c) uterus of pregnant woman muscle fiber. A portion of myofibril between two
(d) urethra successive “Z” line constitute a Sarcomere. Sarcomere
Rajasthan PMT-2005 consist of two types of band i.e. ‘I’ band which is
Ans. (c) : Largest smooth muscle is present in uterus of known as ‘light band are thin filament and called
pregnant women. ‘Actin’ while ‘A’ band which is known as ‘dark band’
The uterus is also known as the womb. It is an organ of are thick filament called myosin.
female reproductive system. During pregnancy the 51. Which one is the most abundant protein in the
uterus undergoes significant changes to accommodate animal world?
the growing fetus. The muscular wall of the uterus (a) Collagen (b) Insulin
composed of smooth muscle called myometrium. It (c) Trypsin (d) Haemoglobin
expands and contracts during childbirth. AIPMT (Screening)-2012
• The myometrium of the uterus is the largest smooth Ans. (a) : Collagen is the most abundant protein in the
muscle in the human body. It is responsible for the animal world. It is an essential component of connective
powerful contraction needed during labor to facilitate tissue and plays a crucial role in holding the body cell
childbirth. together.
52. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fiber Ans. (d) : Rigidity that develops in the muscles after
stores death is known as - Rigor Mortis. It occurs because the
(a) Sarcoplasm (b) Potassium ions oxygen concentration is decrease fastly and the ATP
(c) Calcium ions (d) Collagen level is less down in body. It is possibly one of the most
AP EAMCET-12.07.2022 Shift-II well known of the taphonomic changes and is the
Ans. (c) : Sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscles fiber process that causes the muscles in the body to stiffen
stored calcium ions because the sarcoplasmic reticulum is resulting in rigidity due to a range of chemical changes
a membrane bound structure found within muscles cell. in the muscle structure.
53. Colour blindness is due to defect in 57. Skeletal muscles show resemblance with
(a) cones (b) rods visceral muscles in one aspect. It is in:
(c) rods and cones (d) rhodopsin (a) shape of muscle fibres
WB JEE-2010
(b) number of nuclei muscle fibres
Ans. (a) : Colour blindness is due to defect in cone cell. (c) presence of actin and myosin filaments
They are found in the light sensitive layer of tissue at
the back of eye, called retina. (d) presence of light and dark band
Colour blindness occurs when tissue is problem with the JIPMER-1998
pigment in certain nerve cells of the eye that sense Ans. (c) : A characteristic feature of the muscle fiber is the
colour. Rod cell are the other type of photoreceptor presence of a large number of parallelly arranged filament
present in the retina. They are responsible for vision in called myofibrils. Myofibril has established that the
low light conditions. striated appearance is due to the distribution pattern of two
54. Troponin is a important proteins actin and myosin. While in visceral
(a) Muscle protein muscles actin and myosin filament is not present.
(b) Digestive enzyme 58. Which of the following forms thick filament of
(c) Water soluble vitamin muscles?
(d) High energy reservoir (a) Actin (b) Troponin
BCECE-2011 (c) Tropomyosin (d) Myosin
Ans. (a) : Troponin is a muscle protein that is involved UP CPMT-2012
in muscle contraction. Troponin is a complex of three
Ans. (d) : Thick filament of muscles is myosin each
proteins that are found in muscle cells.
myosin (thick) filament is also a polymerized protein.
• These protein are troponin C, troponin I, and troponin
T. Troponin C binds to calcium ion which are needed 59. In the resting muscle fibre, tropomyosin
for muscle contraction, Troponin I prevents muscle partially covers
contraction when there are no calcium ion present and (a) calcium binding sites on troponin
troponin T binds to tropomysin, which is a protein that (b) actin binding sites on myosin
covers the active sites of actin. (c) myosin binding sites on actin
55. Read the following statements regarding (d) calcium binding sites on actin
muscle proteins. AMU-2010
I. Action is a thin filament and is made Ans. (c) : In the resting muscle fiber, tropomyosin
up of two f-actins. partially cover myosin binding sites on actin.
II. The complex protein, tropomyopin is Tropomysin is a protein that is found in the actin
distributed at regular intervals on the filaments of muscles. It is a long, rod-shaped molecule,
troponin. that binds around the actin filament, partially covering
III. Myosin is a thick filament, which is the myosin molecules from the myosin-binding sites.
also a polymerised protein.
60. Binding of ATP to myosin required the
IV. The globular head of meromyosin cofactor
consists of Light Meromyosin (LMM). (a) Mg (b) Na
The above statements are correct. (c) K (d) Ca
(a) I, II and IV (b) I and III
AMU-1999
(c) I, II and III (d) II and IV
VMMC-2013 Ans. (d) : Binding of ATP to myosin required the
cofactor calcium.
Ans. (b) : Actin is a thin filament and is made up of two
F actins and myosin is a thick filament which is also • Calcium ions initiate attractive forces between the
called meromyosins. actin and myosin filaments, causing them to slide along
side each other which is the contractile process.
56. Rigidity that develops in the muscle after death
is known as 61. The horn of Rhinocerose are composed of :
(a) twitch (b) treppe (a) bone (b) cartilage
(c) tetanus (d) Rigor Mortis (c) chitin (d) keratin
Manipal-2011 Haryana PMT-1999
Ans. (d) : The horn of Rhinoceroses are composed of thick filaments during muscle contraction myosin
keratin. heads bind to actin filaments forming cross-bridges.
Keratin is fibrous structural protein found in animal ATP hydrolysis allows the myosin heads to undergo
cells and used to form specialized tissues. It commonly a series of conformational changes causing the actin
found in human hair and nails. filaments to slide post the myosin filaments this
sliding filament mechanism generated force and
62. The important muscle proteins that help in
shortens the muscle fiber resulting in muscle
movement are
contraction.
(a) actin and myosin (b) tropomyosin
(c) troponin (d) All of these 67. The ‘thick’ filament in muscles are
polymerized proteins of
AMU-2012
(a) meromyosins (b) actins
Ans. (d) : Actin and myosin, tropomyosin troponin all (c) troponins (d) tropomyosins
are important muscle protein that help in movement. In
movement of muscle troponin and tropomyosin are (e) keratin
associated with the thin actin filaments and specific Kerala PMT-2012
light chain is regulatory subunit of myosin itself. Ans. (a) : The 'thick' filament in muscles are
63. A rabbit runs very fast but after some time feel polymerized protein of meromyosins.
tired, because Meromyosins are a type of protein that makes up the
(a) formation of lactic acid in muscles thick filaments in muscle fibers. These filaments
(b) formation of succinic acid in muscles primarily consist of the protein myosin. Myosin
molecules are long, fibrous proteins that have globular
(c) loss of energy head region and a tail region. The heads of myosin
(d) None of the above interact with the thin filaments (composed of actin)
CG PMT-2010 during muscle contraction, forming cross-bridges and
Ans. (a) : A Rabbit runs very fast but after same time generating force. `
feel tired because formation of lactic acid in muscle. Tropomyosins and troponins are associated with the
• Lactic acid builds up in the muscles and causes them thin filaments and play regulatory roles in muscle
to become fatigue. In this cases demand of O2 increased contraction.
because the supply of oxygen in body is decreases. 68. Choose the correct statements:
64. Which of the following is iron storing protein? (A) Bones support and protect softer tissues
(a) Alpha globulin (b) Gamma globulin and organs
(c) Ferritin (d) Albumins (B) Weight bearing function is served by limb
CG PMT-2010 bones.
Ans. (c) : The human body stores iron in the form of (C) Ligament is the site of production of blood
ferritin. Ferritin is protein that store iron inside your cells.
cells. Low level of ferritin leads to iron-deficiency (D) Adipose tissue is specialised to store fats.
anemia. This means you have too few red blood cells. (E) Tendons attach one bone to another.
65. Actin is Choose the most appropriate answer from
(a) An enzyme (b) A contractile protein
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(c) A hormone (d) A vitamin
(b) (B), (C) and (E) only
BCECE-2009
(c) (A), (C) and (D) only
Ans. (b) : Actin is contractile protein. It is highly (d) (A), (B) and (E) only
abundant intracellular protein present in all eukaryotic
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
cells. Ferritin and has a pivotal role in muscle
contraction as well as in cell movement. Actin show “I” Ans. (a) : Bone have a hard and non-pliable ground
band or light band. substance rich in calcium salt and collagen fibres which
give bone its strength.
66. Actin and myosin proteins are related with:
(a) Na+ and K+ pump • It is main tissue that provides structural frame to the
(b) muscle contraction body.
(c) nervous system- • Limb bones, such as the long bone of the legs, serve
(d) excretion of water products weight-bearing functions.
BVP-2001 • Adipose tissue is a another type of loses connective
tissue located mainly beneath the skin. The cells of
Ans. (b) : Actin and myosin proteins are related to
this tissue are specialized to store fat.
muscle contraction.
• Actin and myosin are the primary proteins involved 69. Choose the correct statement about a muscular
in the mechanism of muscle contraction, they are tissue:
both found in muscle fibers and work together to (a) Skeletal muscle fibers are uninucleated and
generate force and produce movement. found in parallel bundles.
• Actin is a globular protein that forms thin filaments (b) Intercalated discs allow the cardiac muscle
in the muscle fiber. Myosin is a motor protein form cells to contract as a unit.
(c) The walls of blood vessels are made up of • ATP hydrolysis is used by the myosin. Heats to drive
columnar epithelium the movement of the actin filaments resulting in muscle
(d) Smooth muscles are multinucleated and contraction.
involuntary. 72. The globular head of myosin contains
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 (a) Calcium ions in large quantities
Ans. (b) : (b) Troponin
Communication Junction (intercalated disc) at some (c) ATPase enzyme
fusion points allows the cell to contract as a unit. i.e. (d) ATP
• When one cell relieves a signal to confront its JIPMER-2017
neighbour are also stimulated to contract.
Ans. (c) : The globular head of myosin contains
• In cardiac muscles of heart connections between
ATPase (adenosine triphosphatase) enzyme activity.
neighboring cell are formed by intercalated disc.
ATPase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of
70. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due ATP(adenosine triphosphate) into ADP (adenosine
to: diphosphate) and inorganic phosphate (Pi). This
(a) extension of myosin filaments in the central hydrolysis reaction released energy that is utilized by
portion of the A-band the myosin heads to generate force and movement
(b) The absence of myofibrils in the central during muscle contraction.
portion of A-band The ATPase activity of the myosin head is crucial or the
(c) The central gap between myosin filaments in cross-bridge cycle in muscle contraction ATP binding
the A-band to the myosin head triggers its detachment form.
(d) The central gap between actin filaments Followed by ATP hydrolysis which provides the energy
extending through myosin filaments in the A- for the myosin head to reattach to actin and generate
band force.
AIIMS-2016 / NEET-2013
73. Which of the following is true for the labelled
Ans. (d) : The A-band is the darkest band in the
sarcomere, and its made up of thick myosin filaments. parts in the figure below?
The I-band is the lightest band in the sarcomere, and it
is made up of thin actin filaments. The H- zone is the
central region of the A-band where the Actin filament
do not overlap. This is because the actin filaments are
only half as long as the myosin filaments.
(a) A - Z-line- located at centre of I-band

(b) B- Thin filament -occurs in A-band only
(c) C- Thick filament- confined to I-band
(d) D- H-zone-located at centre of M-line
AIIMS-2013
Ans. (a) : In the center of each ‘I’ band is an elastic
fibre called ‘Z’ line which bisects it. The thin filament
are firmly attach to ‘Z’ line. The portion of the
myofibril between two successive ‘Z’ line. It is a
71. Which of the following protein can convert
chemical energy in the ATP molecules into functional unit of contraction and is called a sarcomere.
mechanical energy? 74. Regulatory proteins in a myofibril are
(a) Actin (b) Myosin (a) Actin, Myosin
(c) Troponin (d) Tropo myosin (b) Actin, Troponin
AP EAPCET-11.07.2022 Shift-I (c) Myosin, Tropomyosin
Ans. (b) : The protein that can convert chemical energy (d) Troponin, Tropomyosin
in ATP molecules into mechanical energy is myosin. AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-I
Myosin is a motor protein that is involved in muscle Ans. (d) : Actin and myosin are the contractile proteins
contraction, It has a globular head region that binds to in a myofibril, responsible or the generation of force
actin and utilizes ATP hydrolysis to generate force and during muscle contraction.
movement. During muscle contraction, the myosin
heads attach to the actin filament and undergo a series • The myofibrils are made up of thick and thin
of conformational changes pulling the actin filaments. myofilaments, which give the muscles striped
The energy required for this movement comes from the appearance. The thick filaments are composed strands
hydrolysis of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) into ADP of the protein myosin and the thin filaments are strands
(Adenosine diphosphate) and inorganic Phosphate(Pi) of the protein actin, along with two other muscles
the energy released from. regulatory proteins tropomyosin and troponin.
75. Actin binding sites are located on : Options:
(a) Troponin (a) A, C, D, B (b) D, B, C, A
(b) Tropomyosin (c) B, D, C, A (d) A, C, B, D
(c) Meromyosin AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-I
(d) Both tropomyosin and meromyosin Ans. (b) : The correct sequence from edge to center in a
(e) Both troponin and tropomyosin sarcomere is
Kerala PMT-2011 I - band → Z-line → H-zone → M-line
Ans. (c) : Actin binding sites are located on meromyosin. 80. Label the correct parts of the Myosin monomer
Actin is a globular protein that forms the thin filaments
in muscle fibers. The binding of myosin to actin is
essential for muscle contraction. 'However the binding
sites on actin are regulated by meromyosin.
Meromyosin is a monomeric protein present in myosin
filament. The globular head of the meromyosin contains
the actin binding site. (a) A. Cross arm B. Actin binding site
76. Fibrous membrane that held the thick C. Head D. ATP binding site
filaments of A-band of a myofibril is (b) A. Head B. Cross arm
(a) Z – line (b) M – line C. Actin binding site
D. ATP binding sit
(c) H – disc (d) I – band (c) A. Actin binding site
B. Head
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-I C. ATP binding siteD. Cross arm
Ans. (b) : The fibrous membrane that holds the thick (d) A. ATP binding siteB. Actin binding site
filaments of the A - band of a myofibril is M - line. C. Head D. Cross arm
The M-line is a structure in the center of the A-band of Karnataka CET-2015
a sarcomere. It consists of proteins that connect and Ans. (b) : The correct labeling for the parts of the
stabilize the thick filaments (myosin filaments) in the myosin monomer is -
sarcomere. The M-line helps to maintain the (A) - Head
organization alignment of the thick filaments during (B) - Cross arm
muscle contraction. (C) - Actin binding site
77. The monomeric actin is called: (D) - ATP binding site
(a) F-actin (b) M-actin 81. Substance that accumulates in the fatigued
(c) G-actin (d) N-actin muscle is
BCECE-2015 (a) ADP (b) lactic acid
Ans. (c) : The monomeric actin is called G - actin. (c) pyruvic acid (d) carbon dioxide
G - actin (globular actin) refers to the individual BVP-2011 / HP CET-2018
subunits of actin protein that exist in a monomeric form. TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-II
G-actin is the building block for the formation of Ans. (b) : The substance that accumulates in the
filamentous actin (F- actin) which is the polymerized fatigues muscle is lactic acid. When the muscle is not
form of actin that makes up the microfilaments in cells. getting enough oxygen, it starts to break down glucose
When G-actin molecules polymerize, they from long, anaerobically, which produces lactic acid as a
helical chain, resulting in the formation of F-actin byproduct. The accumulation of lactic acid causes the
filaments these filaments play a critical role in various muscle to become acidic, which leads to fatigue.
cellular processes, including cell motility, contraction, 82. Creatinine is formed metabolically from
and cytoskeletal organization. (a) Arginine (b) Histidine
78. Name the following having oxygen storing (c) Tryptophan (d) Phenylalanine
capacity CMC Vellore-2011
(a) myoglobin (b) prophase-II Ans. (a) : Creatinine is formed metabolically form
(c) anaphase-I (d) metaphase-II Arginine. Creatine is a naturally occurring molecule
WB JEE-2011 derived from amino acids that is primarily stored in
Ans. (a) : Myoglobin is a protein found in muscle cell skeletal muscle. It is mainly synthesized in the liver.
that has the ability to bind and store oxygen. It is • The enzyme glycine transaminases transfers an
responsible for storing and releasing oxygen supply amidine group from arginine to glycine, to give
during muscle contraction. Myoglobin has a higher guanidinoacetic acid.
affinity to binding oxygen. 83. Which of the following is known is Dobie's
79. Arrange the following in a sequence from edge Line?
to centre in a sarcomere (a) M - Line (b) Z - Line
(A) M-line (B) Z-line (c) A - Line (d) H - Line
(C) H-zone (D) I-band AP EAPCET-12.07.2022 Shift-I
Ans. (b) : Z-line is known as Dobie’s line. It is a D. Mechanism of Muscle
transversely oriented “distinct dark line” in various
skeletal muscles that divided the light space between the Contraction
dark bonds of myofibril into two equal part. This line 87. Hensen's disc in a myofibril is less than the
became known as Dobie's line. edges of the A-band due to
84. Choose the wrongly matched pair (a) Presence of thick filaments only
(a) Portion of myofibril – Sarcomere (b) Presence of thin filaments only
between two ‘Z’ lines
(c) Presence of both thick and thin filaments
(b) Isotropic band – Actin
(d) Presence of Krause's membrane
(c) Anisotropic band – Myosin
(d) Central part of I-band – M-line TS EAMCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II
(e) Central part of A-band – H-zone Ans. (a) : Hensen's disc is the central region of the A-
Kerala PMT-2014 band in a myofibril. This region appears lighter because
Ans. (d) : Central part of I-band is M-line. It is wrong it contains thick filaments (myosin) but lacks
matched pair because the center of each, I-band is an overlapping thin filaments (actin). The presence of only
elastic fibre called Z-line, which bisects it. The thin thick filaments in the H-zone results in a less dense
filaments are firmly attached to the ‘Z’ line. appearance compared to the edges of the A-band, which
85. The striated appearance of a myofibril is due to contain both thick and thin filaments.
the distribution pattern of 88. Identify the correct option
(a) actin and myosin (b) fascicles Statement - I : The contraction of internal
(c) troponin (d) meromyosin intercostals muscles and lateral abdominal
(e) sarcoplasmic reticulum muscles help in forced expiration
Kerala PMT-2014 Statement - II : The contraction of phrenic
Ans. (a) : Actin and myosin are the two main types of muscles increases the volume of the thoracic
protein filaments present in the myofibrils of striated cavity in antero-posterior axis
muscles. Actin filaments are thin filaments while myosin (a) Statement I and II are correct
filaments are thick filaments. The arrangement and (b) Statement I is wrong and II is correct
overlapping of these actin and myosin filaments give rise
to the striated pattern observed in the myofibrils. (c) Statement I is correct and II is wrong
• The actin and myosin filaments are organized units of (d) Statement I and II wrong
skeletal and cardiac muscles. AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I
86. Read the statements regarding a myofibril and Ans. (a) : Statement-I is correct– The internal
choose the correct option. intercostal muscles and lateral abdominal muscles are
1. Each myofibril has alternate dark and involved in forced expiration. When these muscles
light bands. contract, they pull the ribs down and inwards, which
2. In the centre of each 'A' band is an elastic reduces the volume of the thoracic cavity.
fibre called 'Z' line. Statement-II is also correct– The phrenic muscles are
3. 'A' and 'I' bands are arranged the muscles that attach to the diaphragm. When these
alternatively throughout the length of the muscles contract, they pull the diaphragm downwards,
myofibril. which increase the volume of the thoracic cavity in the
4. Sarcomere is the functional unit of anteroposterior axis.
contraction. So, both statements are correct.
5. The central part of the thick filament, not
overlapped by a thin filament is the 'M' line. 89. Repeated activation of skeletal muscle leads to
(a) 1, 3 and 5 alone are correct (a) Accumulation of lactic acid
(b) 2 and 5 alone are correct (b) Release of calcium ions
(c) 2 and 3 alone are correct (c) Glucose synthesis
(d) 1, 3 and 4 alone are correct (d) Recovery from fatigue
(e) 1, 3 and 2 alone are correct AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II
Kerala PMT-2013 Ans. (a) : Repeated activation of skeletal muscle leads
Ans. (d) : to accumulation of lactic acid. Because lactic acid is
• Each myofibril has alternate dark and light bands . formed and accumulated in the muscle under conditions
• 'A' and 'I' bands are arranged alternatively throughout of high energy demand, rapid fluctuations of the energy
the length of the myofibril. requirement and insufficient supply of oxygen.
• Sarcomere is the functional unit of contraction. 90. Ions that must be present for binding the cross
• The central part of the thick filaments not overlapped bridges is
by a thin filament is called the H-zone, not M-line. (a) Na+ (b) Ca2+
In the center of each I-band not A-band, is an elastin (c) K +
(d) Mg+
fibre called ‘Z’ line not ‘A’ band. AMU-2009
Ans. (b) : Ions that must be present for binding the Ans. (a) : Ca2+ ions is important for muscle contraction
cross bridges is calcium ions. and nerve impulse transmission. The contraction of the
• Calcium ions bind the protein complex troponin, muscle fibers is initiated by the nerve signals that are
exposing the active binding sites on the actin. As soon sent from the CNS through a motor neuron.
as the actin binding sites are uncovered, the high-energy 95. The part of sarcomere that both thick and thin
myosin head bridges the gap forming a cross-bridge. filaments are present in _______
91. The functional unit of myofibril is made up of (a) 'A' band on either side of 'H' zone
(a) Complete A-band (b) 'I' band on either side of 'Z' line
(b) Complete I-band (c) Hensen's disc on either side or 'M' line
(c) Complete I-band and two half A-band (d) The isotropic band
(d) Complete A-band and two half I-band AP EAMCET-06.09.2021 Shift-I
GUJCET-2017 Ans. (a): The part of sarcomere that contains both thick
Ans. (d): The functional unit of myofibril is made up of and thin filaments is present in 'A' band on either side of
complete A-band and two half I-band. The functional the 'H' zone.
unit of myofibril is the sarcomere. A sarcomere is made
up of half of each adjacent I- band and A-band. The I-
band is the lighter band that contain only thin filaments.
The A-band is the darker band that contains both thick
and thin filaments.
92. State the condition of muscle contraction in
following diagram.
96. Which statement is correct for muscle

contraction?
(a) Length of H-zone is decreased
(b) Length of A-band remains constant
(a) Resting potential
(c) Length of I-band gets increased
(b) Contraction
(d) Length of two Z-line get increased
(c) Maximally contracted NEET (Karnataka)-2013 / CMC Vellore-2008
(d) None WB JEE-2007 / AP EAMCET-2006
GUJCET-2015 AIPMT-2001 / BVP-2014
Ans. (c) : In the given diagram, the condition of muscle Ans. (b) : During muscles contraction length of A-bond
contraction is show maximally contracted. This is occur remains constant.
when the muscle is exerting maximum force. Muscles contraction initiate when utilizing the energy
93. The lactic acid generated during muscles from ATP hydrolysis, the myosin head now binds to the
contraction is converted to glycogen in: exposed active sites on actin to form a cross-bridge.
(a) Muscle (b) Kidney This pulls the attached actin filaments towards the
(c) Pancreas (d) Liver center of ‘A’ band. The ‘Z’ line attached to these actin
are also pulled inward thereby causing a shortening of
AP EAMCET-2005 the sarcomere, i.e. contraction.
Ans. (d): Lactic acid generated during muscles • It is clear the above step, that during shortening of
contraction this happens because oxygen can't get to the muscles i.e. contraction. The ‘I’ band get reduced and A
muscles fast enough to keep up with the amount f band retain the length.
energy the muscle needs. When your muscles are
97. Unit of contraction
making anaerobically, lactic acid is created as a
(a) Sarcomere (b) Muscle fiber
byproduct.
(c) Actin (d) None
• The lactic acid is transported to the liver, when it is UP CPMT-2013 / UP CPMT-2010
converted back into glucose through a process called AIPMT-1998 / HPCET - 2018
gluconeogenesis. The glucose can be used for muscles JIPMER-2011 / Punjab MET - 2010
energy or stored as glycogen. J&K CET-2003, 2004
94. Which of the following is important for muscle Ans. (a): Sarcomere is the fundamental unit of contraction
contraction and nerve impulse transmission? and is defined as the region between two z-lines
(a) Ca2+ ions (b) Mg2+ ions • Each sarcomere consist of central A-band (thick
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Fe 2+ ions filaments) and two halves of the I-band (thin
JIPMER-2009 / VMMC-2012 filaments) the I-band from two adjacent sarcomere
UP CPMT-2012, 2008 / AMU-2006 meets at the Z-lines.
AP EAMCET - 2001 / JCECE-2010 • Light gray circles demark thick (myosin) filaments
UP CPMT - 2012 / Rajasthan PMT-2008 and black circles demark thin (active) filaments.
98. What is sarcomere : - Ans. (a) : Thin filaments are polymer of actin with
(a) Part between two H-line tightly bound regulatory proteins troponin and
(b) Part between two A-line tropomyosin when the cytoplasmic Ca2+s concentration
(c) Part between two I-band inhibit the actin- activated adenosine triphosphatase (ATP)
(d) Part between two Z-line of myosin. Tropomyosin and a gigantic filamentous
AIPMT-2001 protein, nebulin, stabilize thin filamentous laterally.
Ans. (d) : Sarcomere is the region between two Z-line. 102. ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction
is located in
It is the basic contractile unit of muscle fiber. Each
sarcomere is composed of two main protein filaments – (a) acrinin (b) troponin
actin and myosin. Which are the active structures (c) myosin (d) actin
responsible for muscular contraction. The most popular AIPMT-2004 / BHU PMT (Mains)-2010
model that describes muscular contraction is called the Manipal-2007 / CG PMT-2006
sliding filament theory. Ans. (c) : ATPase enzyme needed for muscle
It is basically the region between two Z- lines. contraction is located in myosin. Myosin is a
polymerized protein. Many monomeric protein called
meromyosins constitute one thick filament each
meromyosin has two important part, a globular head
with a short arm and tail. The globular head is an active
ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for ATP and
active site for actin.
103. In human, muscular coordination is controlled
by
(a) bone marrow (b) medula oblongata
(c) cerebellum (d) cerebrum
CG PMT-2006
Ans. (c) : In Human muscular coordination is controlled
99. The generation of excitation-contraction by cerebellum. Cerebellum controlled balance for
coupling involves all the following events except walking and standing and other complex function. It is
(a) generation of endplate potential the second largest part of Brain.
(b) release of calcium from troponin • The bone marrow is essential part of body where the
(c) formation of cross-linkages between actin and RBC formed.
myosin • Medulla oblongata is responsible for involuntary
(d) hydrolysis of ATP to ADP functions such as breathing and heart rate.
WB JEE-2009 • Cerebrum is the largest part of the brain.
Ans. (b) : Sarcoplasmic reticulum is a specialized form 104. A narrow dark line seen in Isotropic band of
of the endoplasmic reticulum which stores ca++ ions. myofibril of a striated muscle fibre is called
• Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic ______.
reticulum during contraction. These Ca+ ions bind with (a) M-line (b) H-Zone
the tropanin to initiate contraction. So Ca+ excitation - (c) Z-line (d) A-band
contraction coupling. MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
100. The sliding filament theory of muscle Ans. (c) : A narrow dark line seen in isotropic band of
contraction was proposed by myofibrils of a striated muscle fibers is called Z line.
(a) A. F. Huxley and A. P. Pullman The primary function of Z line is the transmission of
(b) A. F. Huxley and H.E. Huxley tension from one sarcomere to the next.
(c) B. Pullman and A. P. Huxley 105. Sarcomere is the distance between
(d) A. Pullman and E. Pullman (a) A and I-bands (b) two I-bands
BVP-2012 / MGIMS Wardha-2007
(c) two Z-lines (d) Z and A bands
Ans. (b) : The sliding filament theory of muscle CMC Ludhiana-2010
contraction was proposed by A.F Huxley and H.E
Huxley. It states that contraction of a muscle fibers Ans. (c) : Sarcomere is basic contractile unit of a
takes place by sliding of the thin filament (actin) over muscle fibers. It is present between two Z-lines.
the thick filament (myosin). The Z-lines defines the bounding of the sarcomere in
101. The thin filaments of a muscle fibre are made striated muscle and bisect the I-band of neighboring
up of : sarcomere.
(a) actin, troponin, tropomyosin 106. The region between two successive Z-lines in a
(b) actin, troponin myofibril is
(c) myosin, troponin (a) Sarcomere (b) Sarcosome
(d) actin, tropomyosin (c) Fascia (d) Anisotropic band
AP EAMCET - 2015 / Haryana PMT-2005 (e) Isotropic band
JIPMER-2005 Kerala PMT-2009
Ans. (a) : The region between two successive Z-lines in 110. What is/are is the function(s) of calcium?
a myofibril is called a sarcomere. Sarcomere is basic (a) Blood clotting
structural units of striated muscle fibers and responsible (b) Muscular contraction
for muscle contraction. They are composed of (c) Nerve conduction
overlapping actin and myosin filaments. Which give (d) All of these
rise to the alternating dark and light bands observed in JIPMER-2018
striated muscle. The Z-lines mark the boundaries of a
sarcomere and provide anchorage for the actin filaments Ans. (d) : Calcium play a very important role in body
during muscle contraction. function.
• Calcium plays a crucial role in the process of blood
107. Which one of the following proteins does not
clotting. Where it is involved in the activation of
play a role in skeletal muscle contraction ?
clotting factors
(a) Actin (b) Myosin
• Calcium ions are essential for muscle contraction.
(c) Troponin (d) Microtubule During muscle contraction, calcium binds to the
KVPY (SA)-2018 protein troponin, triggering a series of events that
Ans. (d) : Microtubules are not directly involved in allow actin and myosin filaments to the interact and
skeletal muscle contraction. They are a component of the generate force
cytoskeleton and have various functions in cell division, • Nerve conduction Calcium ions are involved in the
intracellular transport and maintaining cell shape. transmission of nerve impulse. They play a role in
108. During muscle contraction actin and myosin the release of neurotransmitters from nerve endings,
form which allows for the transmission of singles between
(a) actomyosin (b) actoplasm neurons.
(c) plastosine (d) myoplasm 111. Sliding filament theory can be best explained as
Manipal - 2001 / AIIMS-1995 (a) When myofilaments slide pass each other
Ans. (a) : During muscle contraction actin and myosin actin filaments shorten while myosin filament
form a complex known as actomyosin. Actomyosin is a donot shorten
protein complex composed of actin and myosin. It is (b) Actin myosin filaments shorten and slide pass
formed in muscles fibers where it plays a role in muscle each other
contraction. (c) actin and myosin filaments do not shorten,
109. During muscular contraction which of the but rather slide pass each other
following events occur ? (d) When myofilament slide pass each other
(A) 'H' zone disappears myosin filament shorten while actin filament
(B) 'A' band widens do not shorten
(C) 'I' band reduces in width JIPMER-2017
(D) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the Ans. (c) : The sliding filament theory is the most widely
ADP and Pi accepted explanation for muscle contraction. According
(E) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled to this theory, during muscle contraction, the actin and
inwards myosin filaments within the muscle fibers slide pass
Choose the correct answer from the options each other, resulting in the shortening of the sarcomeres
given below (the basic functional units of muscle fibers.)
(a) (B), (D), (E), (A) only In the sliding filaments theory, the actin and myosin
(b) (A), (C), (D), (E) only filaments themselves do not change in length, instead,
(c) (A), (B), (C), (D) only they interact and slide pass each other.
(d) (B), (C), (D), (E) only 112. Cross bridges between actin and myosin is
NEET-2021 / AIIMS-2012 broken up by –
Ans. (b) : During muscle contraction, the cross bridges (a) Hydrolysis of ATP
pull the thin filaments towards the centre of A band. (b) Binding of ATP of the myosin head
The Z-line attached to the actins are also pulled inwards (c) Binding of calcium to the subunit of troponin
thereby causing a shorting of the sarcomere. (d) Exposure of tropmyosin
• The I-bands get reduced, where as the ‘A’ bands AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-II
retain the length. Ans. (b) : Cross bridges between actin and myosin are
• Myosin hydrolyzes releasing the ADP and Pi. broken up by binding of ATP to the myosin head and
the myosin, releasing the ADP and Pi and muscle goes
back to its relaxed state.
113. Which of the following is correct about the
given figure?

(a) The length of the thick and thin myofilaments
has changed.
(b) Length of both anisotropic and isotropic band
has changed.
(c) The myosin cross-bridges move on the
surface of actin and the thin and thick
myofilaments slide pass each other.
(d) Length of the sarcomere remains same.
AIIMS-2010
Ans. (c) : The myosin cross-bridges move on the
surface of actin and the thin and thick myofilament slide
pass each other. Sliding filament theory explained the
sliding of actin past myosin generates muscles tension.
114. The contraction of the muscle continues in
sliding filament theory
(a) Till ATP binds to myosin head
(b) Till ADP binds to myosin head
(c) Till Ca2+ is present in sarcoplasm
(d) Till polymerization of myosin head is going on
AIIMS-2017
Ans. (c) : Sliding of actin and myosin filaments
continues till the Ca2+ ions are pumped back in the
Sarcoplasm, resulting in masking of actin filaments.
This causes the return of z-line back to their original 116. When there is no change in muscle length
position, i.e., relaxation. during contraction, it is called:
(a) isometric (b) isotonic
(c) isostasis (d) refractory period
JCECE-2002
Ans. (a) : Isometric contraction refers to a type of
muscle contraction where there is no change in muscle
length during contraction. In other words the muscle
contracts but it does not cause any movements or
changes in the length of the muscle.
• During an isometric contraction, the tension generated
by the muscle is equal to or greater than the opposing
force applied to the muscle resulting in muscle
stabilization rather that movement.
117. Identify the correct order of stages in muscle
contraction
115. Myosin head separates from actin when :: (a) Stimulus →Release of acetyle choline →
(a) ATP hydrolysis
Release of Ca2+ ions → Excitation of triad
(b) When ATP attached to myosin head
System →sliding of thin filaments → Z-
(c) When ATP releases from myosin head
membranes brought closer
(d) When ATP releases from Act in
(b) Stimulus →Release of acetylcholine →
Excitation of triad System → Release of Ca2+
Ans. (b) : The sliding filament theory explains the ions → formation of cross bridges→sliding of
mechanism of muscle contraction based on muscle
proteins that slide pass each other to generate thin filaments → Z-membranes brought
movement. The myosin (thick) filaments of muscle closer
fibres slide pass the actin (thin) filaments during muscle (c) Stimulus → Excitation of triad System →
contraction, while the two groups of filaments remain at Release of acetylcholine → Release of Ca2+
a relatively constant length. ions → sliding of thin filaments → formation of
• Myosin has another binding site for ATP at which cross bridges→Z-membranes brought closer
enzymatic activity hydrolyzes ATP to ADP, releasing (d) Stimulus → Exition of triad system →
an inorganic phosphate molecule and energy. Release of Ca2+ ions → Release of
• ATP binding causes myosin to release actin, allowing acetylcholine → formation of cross bridges
actin and myosin to de-attach from each other. → Z- membranes brought closer → sliding of
Hence, myosin head separates from actin when ATP thin filaments
attached to myosin head. AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-II
Ans. (b) : The correct order of stages in muscle Ans. (a) : In a striated myofibril, the F-actin of thin
contraction is – filament is formed by G-actin.
Stimulus → Release of acetylcholine → Excitation of Each ‘F’ actin is polymer of monomeric ‘G’ (Globular)
triad System → Release of Ca2+ ions → formation of actins. Two filaments of another protein, tropomyosin
cross bridges → sliding of thin filaments → Z- also run close to the ‘F’ actins through its length, A
membranes brought closer complex protein troponin is distributed at regular
118. A-band in skeletal muscle doesn't contain: intervals on the tropomyosin.
(a) M line (b) Thin filaments 122. Which of the following is not involved in
(c) Z line (d) Thick filaments muscular contraction?
TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-II (a) Calcium ion (b) Troponin
Ans. (c) : The A - band in skeletal muscle contains (c) Actin (d) Magnesium ion
thick filaments (myosin) and overlapping thin filaments WB JEE-2014
(actin) but it does not contain the Z-line. The Z-line
marks the boundary of the sarcomere and is found Ans. (d) : Magnesium ions are not directly involved in
within the I, band which is a region of the sarcomere muscular contraction. While magnesium ions play
that contains only thin filaments. important roles in various cellular processes and are
required for proper muscle function. They are not
directly involved in the process of muscular contraction.
123. Assertion: The portion of the myofibril
between two successive ‘Z’ lines is considered
as the functional unit of contraction called
sarcomere
Reason: During contraction, ‘I’ bands get
reduced whereas ‘A’ bands retain the length,
thereby causing shortening of the sarcomere
(a) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
correct explanation of assertion
(b) Assertion and reason are true but reason is not
correct explanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is true and reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
119. The immediate energy source of muscle AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I
contraction : Ans. (b) : Z-lines is considered as the functional unit of
(a) lactic add (b) glycogen contraction and is called a sarcomere. During
(c) ATP (d) Phosphor creatine contraction, the Z-line inward causes a shortening of the
Rajasthan PMT - 2003 sarcomere contraction.
JIPMER-2002 Hence, during shortening of the muscle contraction the
Haryana PMT - 2001 I-bands get reduced.
Ans. (c) : The immediate energy source for muscle
contraction is ATP ( adenosine triphosphate). ATP is a E. Skeletal System
high-energy molecule that provides the necessary
energy for the cross-bridge cycling between actin and 124. Cells involved in mineralization and
myosin, which generates the force for muscle
demineralization of the bone respectively are
contraction.
called
120. In muscular contraction (a) Osteoblasts and osteocytes
(a) ATP breaks (b) ATP is formed (b) Osteoclasts and osteoblasts
(c) GTP breaks (d) None of these (c) Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
CG PMT-2005
(d) Osteocytes and osteoblasts
Ans. (a) : In muscular contraction, ATP (adenosine TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
triphosphate) is broken down. ATP is hydrolyzed to
Ans. (c) : Osteoblasts are cells responsible for bone
release energy that powers the cross-bridge cycling
formation and mineralization, while osteoclasts are cells
between actin and myosin leading to muscle contraction
responsible for bone resorption and demineralization.
to occur. Together, these two cell types include in maintaining
121. In a striated myofibril, the F-actin of thin the balance of bone tissues in the body, ensuring that
filament is formed by bones stay healthy and functional. Osteocytes, on the
(a) G-actin (b) Meromyosin other hand, are mature bone cells that are involved in
(c) Troponin-C (d) Tn – I regulating bone metabolism but not directly in
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I mineralization or demineralization.
125. Functions not related to cytoskeleton • Areolar tissue present beneath the skin is a type of
I. Mechanical support loose connective tissue.
II. Cell motility • Intercalated disc are characteristic feature of cardiac
III. Cytokinesis muscles present in heart.
IV. Intracellular transport • Smooth muscles are present in the visceral organs.
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III 128. Match vertebral number and the corresponding
(c) III Only (d) III and IV region in rabbit.
TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I List I List II
Ans. (c) : The cytoskeleton is a network of protein (A) Cervical (i) 16
filaments that provides structural support to the cell, (B) Thoracic (ii) 7
helps with cell motility, and facilitates intracellular (C) Caudal (iii) 3 or 4
transport. Cytokinesis is the process of cell division, (D) Sacral (iv) 12 or 13
which is not directly facilitated by the cytoskeleton. The correct match is
However, the cytoskeleton does play a role in A B C D
organizing the cell's contents so that they are divided (a) 4 3 2 1
evenly between the two daughter cells.
(b) 2 4 1 3
126. Match the following (c) 1 2 3 4
List–I List–II (d) 3 1 4 2
A. Sphenoid bone. I. Strongest of all AP EAMCET-2010
the facial bones Ans. (b) :
B. Zygomatic II. Smallest bones (A) Cervical – 7
bones of the face (B) Thoracic – 12 or 13
C. Lacrimal bones III. Key stone bone (C) Caudal – 16
of the cranium (D) Sacral – 3 or 4
D. Mandibles. IV. Triangular 129. Which one of the following pairs of structure is
bone of the face correctly matched with their correct description
Structure Description
V. Cheek bones
(a) Premolars and - 20 in all and 3-rooted
(a) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D - V molars
(b) A – III, B – V, C – II, D - I (b) Tibia and fibula - Both form parts of knee
(c) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D - I joint
(d) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D - V (c) Cartilage and - No blood supply but do
TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I cornea require
Ans. (b) : oxygen for respiratory
A. Sphenoid bone. III. Key stone bone of the need
cranium (d) Shoulder joint - Ball and socket type of
B. Zygomatic bones V. Cheek bones and elbow joint joint
AIPMT (Mains)-2010
C. Lacrimal bones II. Smallest bones of the face
Ans. (c) : Cartilage– It is a type of connective tissue
D. Mandibles. I. Strongest of all the facial that is found through about the body. It is avascular,
bones means that it does not have a blood supply but it does
127. Which of the following is present between the require oxygen for respiratory need.
adjacent bones of the vertebral column?
(a) Smooth muscle (b) Intercalated discs
(c) Cartilage (d) Areolar tissue
NEET-2022
Ans. (c) : Cartilage forming the inter vertebral disc is
present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral
column and it is a type of cartilaginous joint.
• Cornea- It is the dome-shaped structure that covers the
front of eye. It is also avascular (No blood supply)

130. In rabbit, end of a long bone is connected in • EEG (Electro Encephalo Graph) is useful in brain
another by activity.
(a) Tendon (b) Ligaments • Endoscopy is useful for image capture inside the
(c) Muscle (d) Cartilage body.
JIPMER-2009 135. Elephant tusk shell is :
Ans. (b) : In rabbit, end of a long bone is connected in (a) Chitin (b) nautilus
another by ligaments. Ligaments are tough bands of (c) patella (d) dentalium
fibrous connective tissue that connect bones to other Rajasthan PMT-1999
bones. They provide stability and support to joints. Ans. (d) : Elephant tusk shell is dentalium. The name
• Tendon, are also fibrous connective tissue that dentalium is derived from the latin word dentis meaning
connects muscles to bones. tooth. Dentalium is a genus of phylum mollusca
131. In human body, which one of the following is commonly known as tusk shell.
anatomically correct? 136. The vertebral formula of human is
(a) Cranial nerve – 10 pairs (a) T12 , C7 , L5 , S8 (b) C7 , T12 , L5 , S5
(b) Floating ribs – 2 pairs
(c) C7 , L8 , T12 , S5 (d) C7 S5 , T22 , L5
(c) Collar bones – 3 pairs
(d) Salivary glands – 1 pair GUJCET-2018, 2019
AIPMT-2007 Ans. (b): As mentioned above, our vertebrae are
numbered and divided in to five regions:
Ans. (b) : Last 2 pair (11th and 12th) of ribs are not
C7, T12, L5, S5, C4
connected ventrally and are therefore called floating ribs.
Cervical-(7), thoracic (12), Lumbar (5), Sacrum (5),
• Cranial nerves – 12 pairs Coccyx (4).
• Salivary gland – 3 pairs
137. Which of the following options shows correctly
• Collar bone – 2 pairs matched pairs for the given Column-A and
132. Pelvic girdle of rabbit consists of Column-B?
(a) ilium, ischium and pubis Columns-A Column-B
(b) ilium, ischium and coracoid (p) Ethmoid (1) bone of pelvic
(c) coracoids, scapula and clavicle girdle
(d) ilium, coracoids and scapula (q) Lacrimal (2) bone of skull
UP CPMT-2002 / VMMC-2007
(r) Clavicle (3) bone of face
Ans. (a) : The pelvic girdle of a rabbit consists of the
Ilium, Ischium, and pubis. The Ilium is the largest bone (s) Ischium (4) collar bone
in the pelvic girdle. It forms upper part of the basin and (a) (p - 1) (q - 2) (r - 4) (s - 3)
articulates with the sacrum, which is a triangular bone (b) (p - 3) (q - 4) (r - 1) (s - 2)
that connects the spine to the pelvis. The ischium is the (c) (p - 2) (q - 3) (r - 4) (s - 1)
lower and back part of the pelvis. The pubis is the front (d) (p - 4) (q - 1) (r - 3) (s - 2)
part of the pelvis. GUJCET-2019
133. Which of the below given bones divide olfactory Ans. (c) :
capsules in rabbit into left and right halves Ethmoid – Bone of skull
(A) Nasals (B) Premaxillae Lacrimal – Bone of face
(C) Maxillae (D) Mesethmoid Clavicle – Collar bone
(a) A (b) D Ischium – Bone of pelvic girdle
(c) B (d) C 138. Which of the following paired bone is present
AP EAMCET-2009 in the skull?
Ans. (b) : The mesethmoid bone divides the olfactory (a) Frontal bones (b) Parietals bones
capsules in rabbit into left and right halves. The (c) Occipital bone (d) Sphenoid bone
mesethmoid bone is located in the anterior part of the GUJCET-2017
skull, between the nasal bone and the maxillae. The Ans. (b) : The parietal bone and temporal bones are
nasals, premaxillae and maxillae are all bones that are paired bones that present in the skull. There are total 29
involved in the formation of the nose and not involved bones are present in the Human head. In which 8 bones
the dividation of olfactory capsules. present in skull, 6 bones present in ears (both side 3-3),
134. X-rays are used in 14 bones present in face and 1 bone is present as hyoid.
(a) ECG (b) EEG • In skull the frontal bone (form forehead), occipital
(c) CT-scan (d) Endoscopy bone (form back skull), the sphenoid bone (form middle
JIPMER-2005 skull), and ethmoid are all single bone.
Ans. (c) : X-ray are a form of electromagnetic radiation. 139. Which one is not cranial bone?
It is used in CT-scan (computed tomographic scanning). (a) Zygometic (b) Frontal
• ECG (Electro Cardio Gram) is a test that measures (c) Temporal (d) Sphenoid
the electrical activity of the heart. GUJCET-2015 / AIIMS-2000 / WB JEE - 2007
Ans. (a) : Zygomatic is not cranial bone. It is the cheek Ans. (b): The main difference between bone and
bone which articulates with maxilla, temporal bone, cartilage is haversian canals. Bones are hard, inelastic
sphenoid bone and the formal bone. and tough organ that forms part of the vertebral
Cranial bones are – skeleton. Cartilage is a soft, elastic and flexible
connective tissue.
• Parietal (2)
Haversian canals is present only in the bone and it is
• Temporal (2) absent in cartilage.
• Frontal (1) Cartilage is composed of mucoprotein called chondrin.
• Occipital (1) Cartilage is a supportive connective tissue. Which is
• Ethmoid (1) semi rigid in nature?
• Sphenoid (1) 145. Which type of ossicles is not observed in the
140. Which one of the following items gives its middle ear of humans?
correct total number? (a) Malleus (b) Incus
(a) Types of diabetes - 3 (c) Cochlea (d) Stapes
(b) Cervical vertebrae in humans - 8 SRM JEEE-2018
(c) Floating ribs in humans - 4 Ans. (c) : Cochlea is not observed in the middle ear of
humans. It is a hollow spiral-shaped bone found in inner
(d) Amino acids found in proteins - 16 ear that plays a key role in the sense of hearing and
AIPMT-2008 participates in the process of auditory transduction.
• Malleus connects with the incus and is attached to the
BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
inner surface of the eardrum.
Ans. (c) : Number of floating ribs in human 2-pairs (4). • Incus transmits vibration from the malleus to the stapes.
In 12 pairs of ribs, last 2 pairs (11th and 12th) of ribs are
• Stapes bone is the smallest bone in our body. It is the
not connected ventrally and are therefore called floating innermost bone of our auditory ossicles in middle ear.
ribs.
146. Which of the following is not a facial bone?
141. Neural canal is present in (a) Parietal (b) Lachrymal
(a) humerus (b) tibia- fibula (c) Zygomatic (d) Vomer
(c) vertebral column (d) cranial bones SRM JEEE-2018
UP CPMT-2005
Ans. (a) : Parietal bone is not a facial bone it is cranial
Ans. (c): Neural canal is present in vertebral column. bone forming part of the side and top of the head.
The bony neural canal that surrounds the spinal cord • The lachrymal bones are small, flat craniofacial
serves to support and protect it in the same way that the bones located in the eye socket.
brain case supports and protects the brain. • The zygomatic bone is a paired facial bones. It is
142. Which of the following is incorrect called cheek bone. It is the widest part of the cheek.
combination? • Vomer is a small thin, plow shaped, midline bone
(a) Scapula-Triangular that occupies and divides the nasal cavity.
(b) Sphenoid bond–keystone bone 147. Which one of the following is the the correct
(c) Hyoid bone- ‘U’ shaped description of a certain part of a normal
(d) Sacrum–cup shaped bone human skeleton
AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II (a) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the
Ans. (d) : The sacrum is a wedge shaped bony structure thigh bone articulates
that is located at the base of lumber vertebral and (b) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the
connected to the pelvic. skull are joined by fibrous joint
Patella is a cup-shaped bone that covers the knee (c) First vertebra is axis which articulates with
ventrally. the occipital condyles
(d) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the
143. Which one represent a sesmoid bone? floating ribs
(a) Tarsal bone (b) Metatarsal bone AIPMT (Mains)-2010
(c) Patella (d) Fibula-shank bone Ans. (b) : Parietal bone and temporal bone of the skull
UP CPMT-2014 / MGIMS Wardha-2014 are joined by fibrous Joint (immovable joint). First
BVP-2013 / Haryana PMT-2009, 1999 cervical vertebra is atlas. The last two pairs (11th and
Ans. (c): The patella is a sesamoid bone located in the 12th) of ribs are called floating ribs. Glenoid cavity is a
major extensor tendon of the knee joint, in the hind limb depression to which humerus articulates.
of many tetrapods.
• It is embedded within the patellar tendon that attaches
the quadriceps to the tibia.
144. The main difference between bone and
cartilage is of
(a) mineral salts (b) haversian canals
(c) lymph vessels (d) blood vessels
UP CPMT-2011
148. Which one of the following is the correct • An angular joint allows movement in two direction-
matching of three items and their grouping side to side and back to forth, wrist and meta-
category? carpophalangeal joints are of this type.
Items Groups • Gliding joint present between the carpals.
(a) Cytosine, uracil Pyrimidines 152. Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal
thiamine parts are correctly matched with their respective
inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not
(b) Malleus, incus, Ear ossicles matched. Identify the non-matching pair
cochlea
Pairs of skeletal Category
(c) ilium, ischium, Coxal bones of parts
pubis pelvic girdle (a) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles
(d) Actin, myosin, Muscle proteins (b) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton
rodopsin (c) Clavicle and Glenoid Pelvic girdle
AIPMT-2009 cavity
Ans. (c) : Ilium, Ischium and pubis are coxal bones that (d) Humerus and ulna Appendicular
forms the pelvic girdle. They form a basin that support skeleton
the weight of the body and protect the internal organ. AIPMT (Mains)-2011
• Cytosine, Uracil are pyrimidines while thiamine is a Ans. (c) : A pectoral girdle or shoulder girdle attached
type of vitamin. to the bones of upper limb to the axial skeleton.
• Malleus, incus and stapes are three bones present in • Each half of pectoral girdle consist of scapula and clavicle.
middle ear. • Glenoid cavity is a shallow perform articular surface
• Actin and myosin are muscles protein while which is located on the lateral angle of the scapulae.
Rhodopsin is a photoreceptor protein present in retina • Each pectoral girdle is formed of two halves.
in the eye. • It articulates with the humerus to formed the shoulder
149. An acromion process is characteristically found joint.
in the Hence, clavicle and glenoid cavity present in pectoral
(a) pelvic girdle of mammals girdle.
(b) skull of frog
(c) pectoral girdle of mammals
(d) sperm of mammals
JIPMER-2007 / CG PMT-2006 / AIPMT-2005
Ans. (c) : The acromion process is a bony projection
that extends from the scapula, which is a bone in the
pectoral girdle of mammals.
• Pelvic girdle located at the lower side of back bones 153. Number of bones in hind limb of man :
also present at position of hip bones it connects the legs
(a) 14 (b) 24
to the trunk.
(c) 26 (d) 30
150. Bone related with skull is: AIPMT-1998
(a) Coracoid (b) Arytenoid Ans. (d) : In human beings the skeleton divides into
(c) Pterygoid (d) Atlas two parts that are-
AIPMT-2000 (1) Axial skeleton (2) Appendiculate skeleton
Ans. (c) : Pterygoid bone is a paired bone that forms • The Appendicular Skeleton consist of fore limb (30
part of the palate and the infra temporal fossa of the bones each side) and hind limb (30 bones each side)
skull. It is located behind the palatine bones and is • Hind limb consist of 1 femur (thigh bone), 1 patella
attached to the sphenoid bone and the maxilla. (knee cap), 1 tibia (shin bone), 1 fibula (small shin
• The coracoids bone is a bone in the shoulder girdle. bone), 7 tarsals (ankle bones), 5 metatarsals (instep
• The arytenoid bone is a bone in the larynx. bones) and 14 phalanges (toe bones). Hence there are
30 bones present in hind limb of man.
• The atlas is the first cervical vertebra.
151. What is name of joint between ribs and
sternum :
(a) Cartilaginous joint (b) Angular joint
(c) Gliding joint (d) Fibrous joints
AIPMT-2000
Ans. (a) : Cartilaginous joints allow more movement
between bones than a fibrous joint. Cartilaginous joint
is present between ribs and sternum. It allows only
limited movement.
154. Sigmoid notch is present in 160. The number of floating ribs, in the human
(a) Femur (b) Radius-ulna body, is
(c) Tibia - fibula (d) Humerus (a) 6 pairs (b) 5 pairs
UP CPMT-2006, 2005 (c) 3 pairs (d) 2 pairs
Ans. (b) : The sigmoid notch is a cup-like depression AFMC-2000 / AIPMT-1995
on the proximal end of the ulna that articulate with the Ans. (d) : The number of floating ribs in the human
distal end of the humerus to form the elbow joint. It is body is two pairs (11th and 12th). These ribs are not
commonly known as Radial notch. connect ventrally to the sternums or another ribs.
The femur is the thigh bone, the tibia is the shin bone Hence, it is called floating ribs.
and the fibula is the smaller bone that runs alongside the 161. Which of the following bones does not
tibia. articulate with any other bone?
155. Deltoid ridge is present in (a) Humerus (b) Malleus
(a) humerus (b) tibia-fibula (c) Phalanges (d) Hyoid
(c) radio-ulna (d) femur AMU-2015 / CMC Ludhiana-2014
UP CPMT-2002 MGIMS Wardha-2010
Ans. (a) : The deltoid ridge is a ridge on the humerus, a Ans. (d) : Hyoid bones does not articulate with any
bone in the upper arm. It is located on the lateral side of other bone. It is small U-shaped bone. It is situated in
the humerus, and it serve as an attachment point for the the mid line of the neck interiorly at the base of
deltoid muscles. The deltoid ridge extends from the mandible.
greater tubercle along the lateral edge of the bone. • The humerus is the bone in the upper arm that
156. Volkman’s cannals occur in…… reticulates with the scapula (shoulder blade) and the
(a) Cartilage (b) Bone radius and ulna (for earm bones).
(c) Internal ear (d) Liver • The malleus is one of the three bones in the middle
Karnataka CET-2004 ear that articulates with the incus. Stapes is the
Ans. (b) : Volkman's cannals occurs in bone. It is also smallest bone in middle ear.
known as perforating hole or channels. It transmit blood • The phalanges are the bone in the fingers and toes
vessels from the periosteum into the bone and that lie that articulate with each other.
perpendicular to and communicate with the Haversian canals. 162. Acetabulum is a concave surface of
157. In a vertebrate which germs layer forms the (a) pelvis (b) pectoral
skeleton muscles? (c) foramen magnum (d) foramen monro
(a) Ectoderm (b) Endoderm UP CPMT-2010
(c) Mesoderm (d) Both (a) and (c) Ans. (a) : Acetabulum is a concave surface of Pelvis. It
UP CPMT-2004 / MGMIS Wardha - 2004 is a large socket on the lateral face of the hip bone that
HP CET-2011 articulates with the head of femur to form the hip joint.
Ans. (c) : The mesoderm is a germ layer that arises 163. The number of occipital condyles in man is/are
during gastrulating and is present between ectoderm and (a) Two (b) One
endoderm which forms skeletal muscle. (c) Four (d) Three
158. Which ribs show bucket- handle type of VMMC-2013
movement? Ans. (a) : The number of occipital condyles in man is
(a) Rib no. 1-2 (b) Rib no. 3-5 two. It is destructive bony structure linking the skull and
(c) Rib no. 6-10 (d) Rib no. 11-12 the verterbral calumn.
WB JEE-2010
164. The scapula is a large triangular flat bone
Ans. (c) : Ribs no. 6-10 show bucket – handle type of situated in the dorsal part of the thorax
movement. This movement, which is a type of rib between.
movement occurs during inspiration. The ribs move
upwards and outwards, with the middle of the rib (a) Fifth and sixth rib
moving more than the ends. This results in an increase (b) Second and fifth rib
in the transverse diameter of the thorax, which allows (c) Third and fourth rib
for more air to center the lungs. (d) Second and seventh rib
159. Astragalus and calcanium are present in VMMC-2013
(a) fore limb (b) hind limb Ans. (d) : The scapula is a large triangular flat bone
(c) scapula (d) clavicle situated in the darsal part of the thorax between 2nd and
Punjab MET-1999 / Haryana PMT - 1999 7th rib.
Ans. (b) : Astragalus and calcaneum are present in the The fifth and sixth ribs are located in the middle of the
hind limb. Scapula is flat, triangular shaped bone it thorax. The third and fourth ribs are located in the lower
located in the upper thoracic region on dorsal surface of part of the thorax .
rib cage. 165. Which of the following is not a sesamoid bone?
• Clavicle is sigmoid shaped long bone. It serves (a) Radius (b) Patella
connection between the axial appendicular skeleton in (c) Incus (d) Pisiform
conjunction with scapula. Manipal-2011
Ans. (a) : Radius is not a sesamoid bone because the Ans. (d) : The lumber region of the vertebral column in
radius of the lower arm is known to be cartilaginous man is made up of 5 vertebrae.
bone. A sesamoid bone is a small bone which embedded • Lumbar spine 5 vertebrae
in muscles. Ex. Patella, Incus etc. • Sacrum (5 fused) vertebrae
166. Osteoblasts are found in : • Coccyx (4 fused) vertebrae
(a) blood (b) muscle 172. Total number of bones in the hind limb of a
(c) bone (d) cartilage man is :
AMU-2011 / AFMC -2011 (a) 21 (b) 23
Ans. (c) : Osteoblasts are found in bone. It is a hard and (c) 27 (d) 30
non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salt and JIPMER-2003, 2011 / Punjab MET - 2010
collagen fiber which give bone its strength the bone Ans. (d) : Total number of bones in the hind limb of a
cells (osteocytes) care present in the space called
man is 30.
lacunae.
Femur – 1
167. Haversian systems are found in the bones of: Tibia – 1
(a) Pigeon (b) Panther Fibula – 1
(c) Pipe fish (d) Python Patella – 1
Karnataka CET-2002 / JIPMER-1997
Tarsals – 7
VMMC-2008 / BCECE-2003
Metatarsals – 5
Ans. (b) : Haversian system are found in the bones of
Phalanges – 14
Human, Cow, Rabbit, Panther, mammals etc.
Total – 30
168. Disadvantage of MRI is its inability to image
173. A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the
(a) bone (b) parts of brain
field. Which one of the following groups of
(c) spinal cord (d) cancerous tissues bones are directly contributing in this
DUMET-2010 movements?
Ans. (a) : MRI (medical imaging technique) that uses a (a) Femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals
strong magnetic field and radio waves to create detail (b) Pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals
images of the body which show specially brain, spinal (c) Sternum, femur, tibia, fibula
cord and cancerous tissues image. MRI is not suitable
for bone imaging. The best way for the imaging of bone (d) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia
is X-Ray. Rajasthan PMT-2010
Ans. (d) : A cricket player is fast catching a ball in the
169. Sigmoid notch is formed by
field then tarsal's, femur metatarsals tibia contributing
(a) cavity formed by humerus in this movement. The femur is the thigh bone, the tibia
(b) cavity formed by radio-ulna is the shin bone present below the patella. The
(c) cavity formed by tibio-fibula metatarsals are the bone of the foot and the tarsal are the
(d) cavity formed by femur bones in the ankle. The bones are helpful for the
DUMET-2008 movement of leg, and also help in running and jumping.
MGIMS Wardha-2005 174. Bones of pelvic girdle forms a cavity in which
Ans. (b) : Sigmoid notch is formed by cavity of radius head of the femur is fitted are :
ulna. It is cup like depression. This notch is present on (a) ilium only
the head of the ulna forming the distal radioulnar joint. (b) ilium and ischium
170. The correct order of vertebrae is (c) ilium, ischium and pubis
(a) cervical, thoracic, lumber, sacral (d) ischium and pubis
(b) thoracic, lumber, cervical, sacral VMMC-2008 / AMU-2008 / Rajasthan PMT-1998
(c) sacral, cervical, lumber, thoracic Ans. (c) : Ilium, ischium and pubis bone of pelvic girdle
(d) lumber, thoracic, sacral, cervical form a cavity called acetabulum which head of the
UP CPMT-2012 femur is fitted. The acetabulum is formed by the fusion
Ans. (a) : The correct order of vertebrae is – of the ilium, ischium and pubis. The ilium is the largest
Cervieal → thoracic → Lumber → sacral → coccyx bone of the pelvic girdle. The ischium is the lower and
Cervical - 7 back part of the acetabulum. The pubis is the front and
Thoracic - 12 lower part of the acetabulum. The heat of femur is a
ball shaped structure that fits into the acetabulum.
Lumber - 5
Sacrum - 1 (5) fused in adult 175. Biceps are attached with :
Coccyx - 1 (4) fused in adult (a) radius (b) ulna
(c) femur (d) both a and b
171. The lumbar region of the vertebral column in Rajasthan PMT-1998
man in made up of Ans. (d) : Biceps are attached with radius and ulna
(a) 1 fused vertebra (b) 7 vertebrae bones in the for earm. Biceps is the most superficial
(c) 12 vertebrae (d) 5 vertebrae muscle in the anterior compartment of the arm. The
(e) 2 vertebrae biceps brachii has two heads i.e. the short head
Kerala PMT-2015 originated from the coracoids process of the scapula
while the long head originates from the supra glenoid Ans. (b) : Glenoid cavity is found in pectoral girdle,
tubercle of the scapula. Both heads of the biceps brachii which connects your upper limb to the bone along the
insert to the tuberosity of the radius. axis of your body. The pectoral girdle consists of the
176. Which is common to kidney and skeleton in two bones that make up your shoulder that is clavical
mammals? and the scapula.
(a) Cortex (b) Medulla 181. Part of body having a single pair of bones:
(c) Pelvis (d) Radius (a) vertebral column (b) pelvic girdle
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 (c) femur (d) pectoral girdle
Ans. (c) : Pelvis is common to kidney and skeletal in Haryana PMT-2002
mammals. In kidney pelvis act collecting the urine and Ans. (b) : Pelvic girdle is a part of body having a single
in skeleton pelvis is the lower part of the trunk between pair of bones also called bone of hip
the abdomen and the thighs together. The hip bone attached the lower limb to the axial
skeleton through its articulation with the sacrum.
177. Total number of bones found in human skull is:
(a) 22 (b) 29 182. Which of the following type of cartilage is
found intervertebral disc of mammal?
(c) 35 (d) 72
(a) Hyaline cartilage (b) Fibrous cartilage
VMMC-2006
(c) Calcified cartilage (d) Elastic cartilage
Ans. (b) : The total number of bones found in human CG PMT-2009 / AIIMS-1995
skull is 29 these are- Ans. (b) : Fibrous cartilage is found in intervertebral
• Cranial bone – 8 disc of mammal. intervertebral disc is a complex
• Facial bones – 14 multicomponent structural tissue consisting of an outer
• Hyoid bone – 1 fibrous ring, annulus fibrous and inner hydrated gel-like
• Auditory bone ( ear oscicles) – 6 substance, the nucleus pulposus.
178. A sesamoid bone is: 183. Acetabulum is the cavity of :
(a) palatine (b) pterygoid (a) pelvic girdle of frog
(b) sternum of frog
(c) patella (d) presphenoid
(c) pectoral girdle of frog
Manipal-2000, 2002 / AIIMS-2003
Punjab MET - 2004 / BVP - 2001
Haryana PMT-2004
Ans. (c) : Patella- It is largest sesamoid bone in the
human body and is located anterior to knee joint within Ans. (a) : Acetabulum is the cavity of pelvic girdle of
the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle providing frog the pelvic girdle features a depression known as the
acetabulum at the intersection of the ischium and pubis
an attachment point for both the quadriceps tendon and
bones.
patellar ligament.
184. Number of bones of face is
(a) 12 (b) 30
(c) 40 (d) 14
Manipal-2013
Ans. (d) : The number of bones of face is 14.
Facial bones:-
Nassals – 2
Maxillae – 2
Zygomatic – 2
Mandible – 1
Lacrimal – 2
179. Axis vertebra is identified by Palatines – 2
(a) olecranon process (b) odontoid process Inferior nasal – 2
(c) sigmoid notch (d) odontoblast Vomer – 1
CG PMT-2007 Total – 14
Ans. (b) : Axis vertebra is identified by odontoid 185. Number of vertebrae in human skeleton is
process. The odontoid process is superior projecting (a) 30 (b) 32
bony element from the second cervical vertebrae rotates (c) 33 (d) 35
around the odontoid process to provide the largest VMMC-2008 / AMU-2008
Ans. (c) : The number of vertebrae in human skeleton is
single component of lateral rotation of the cervical
spine. 33.
180. Glenoid cavity is found in Cervical vertebre – 7
(a) pelvic girdle (b) pectoral girdle Thoracic vertebre – 12
(c) skull (d) humerus Lumbar vertebre – 5
CG PMT-2007 / JIPMER-2000 Sacrum vertebre – 5
DUMET-2007 / MGIMS Wardha-2009 Coccygeal vertebre – 4
CG PMT-2009 / AIPMT-1994 / DUMET-2008 Total – 33
186. Total number of bones in child is: (c) Fibrous joint - Between phalanges
(a) 206 (b) 210 (d) Gliding joint - Between zygapophysis of
(c) 200 (d) 300 the successive vertebrae
Haryana PMT-1999 CG PMT-2006
Ans. (d) : The total number of bones in child (infants) is Ans. (d) : Gliding joint- is a type of joint where the
300. However, as the child grows some of these bones bones can slide against each other. The type of joint found
fuse together, so they have 206 bones. Which is formed between the zygapophysis of the successive vertebrae.
• Cartilaginous joint- found in the skull, between the
by cartilage. Cartilage is a soft, flexible tissue that helps
to protect the bones and allow them to move. As the vertebrae and between the ribs and sternum.
child grows, the cartilage is replaced by bone. • Hinge joint – This type of joint moves only one
187. The joint between atlas and odontoid process of direction found in the elbow and knee.
axis in rabbit is: • Fibrous joint – is a type of joint where the bones are
(a) pivot (b) ball and socket connected by fibrous tissues. This type of joint found
(c) hinge (d) arthroidal in the sutures of the skull.
AP EAMCET-2001 192. Acromion process is found in rabbit in
Ans. (a) : The joint between the atlas and odontoid (a) pectoral girdle (b) femur
process of the axis in the rabbit is a pivot joint. A pivot (c) vertebral column (d) pelvic girdle
joint is a type of synovial joint that allows for rotation CG PMT-2006
around a single axis the pivot joint between the atlas Ans. (a) : Acromion process is found in rabbit in
and axis is also known as the atlanto-axial joint. It is pectoral girdle. It consists of two separate halves placed
one of the most important joint in the rabbits body, as it dorsal to the anterior thoracic ribs in between the
allows for the essential movement of the head. forelimbs. It supports forelimbs and protects the soft
188. Total number of bones found in right upper part of the body from ventral side.
limb is: 193. Space in the jaw bone unoccupied by teeth is
(a) 25 (b) 26 called
(c) 30 (d) 60 (a) dentine (b) diastema
AFMC-2004 (c) enamel (d) crown
Ans. (c) : Total number of bones found in right upper JIPMER-2013
limb is 30. Ans. (b) : Space in the jaw bone unoccupied by teeth is
Humerus – 1 called diastema. It is found in rabbit.
Ulna – 1 • Dentine is the layer of tissue that lies below the
Radius – 1 enamel.
Carpals – 8 • Enamel is the outermost layer of tooth, it is the hardest
Metacarpals – 5 part of the body which provide stability to the tooth.
Phalanges – 14 • Crown is the visible part of the tooth the projects
Total – 30 above the gum line.
189. Nucleus pulposus is found in: 194. Yellow bone marrow is found specially in the
medullary cavity
(a) brain (b) nucleus
(a) long bones (b) spongy bones
(c) intervertebral disc (d) liver (c) short bones (d) All of the above
AFMC-2004
JIPMER-2013
Ans. (c) : Nucleus pulposus is found in intervertebral
Ans. (a) : Yellow bone marrow is specially found in the
disc. It is the soft, gelatinous central portion of the
cavity of long bones. It stores fat (adipocytes) and
intervertebral disc that moves within the disc with
contains mesenchymal stem cells.
changes in posture.
195. Caudal vertebrae of man are united to form a
190. One of the following salts predominates in bone single
matrix (a) Synsacrum (b) Pygostyle
(a) sodium chloride (c) Coccyx (d) None of these
(b) magnesium phosphate MGIMS Wardha-2011
(c) calcium phosphate
(d) sodium carbonate Ans. (c) : Caudal vertebrae of man are united to form a
AMU-2012 / AFMC-2001 single coccyx. In adult the five sacral vertebrae fuse to
form a single sacrum and four coccyx vertebrae fuse to
Ans. (c) : In bone matrix calcium is one of the ion that
forms a single coccyx.
form the bone matrix, and it exists mostly in the form of
calcium phosphates in bone tissue. These calcium ions 196. Number of cervical vertebra in cow is
cause bone formation and maturation through (a) 5 (b) 6
calcification. (c) 7 (d) 11
191. Which of the following pairs is correctly BHU PMT (Screening)-2011
matched? Ans. (c) : Number of cervical vertebra in cow is 7.
(a) Cartilaginous - Skull bones joint It is generally placed in the neck region of the
(b) Hinge joint - Between vertebrae backbone.
197. Spinal cord is protected by : 201. The bones of old person become brittle due to
(a) trachea (b) aorta accumulation of
(c) sternum (d) vertebral column (a) Sodium (b) Calcium
Haryana PMT-2003 (c) Phosphorus (d) Magnesium
CG PMT-2011
Ans. (d) : Spinal cord is protected by vertebral column.
The spinal cord passes through a hole in the centre of Ans. (b) : After a certain age, calcium deposition on the
each vertebra, between the vertebrae there are disc that bone. Due to the desorption of calcium from the bone, it
become brittle as well as fragile. Which increase the
act as cushion or shock absorbers for the spine risk of bone fracture
198. Consider the following statements and mark 202. Bone dissolving cells are
them as true or false. (a) osteoplasts (b) osteoclasts
I. Ligaments are connective tissues that (c) chondroclasts (d) chondroblasts
connect skeletal muscles to bones. CG PMT-2011
II. Bone marrow is composed of adipose Ans. (b) : Osteoclast cell degrade bone while osteoblast
tissue, areolar tissue and blood. cells form bone tissue. Bone dissolving cells are
III. Hyaline cartilage in the strongest cartilage osteoclasts. It is highly polarized cells. osteoclasts
in vertebrate body. reabsorb the bone.
IV. Mast cells are modified basophils which 203. The major constituent of vertebrate bone is
secrete vasoconstrictor, i.e. histamine. (a) calcium phosphate
True False (b) calcium carbonate
(a) II, III I, IV (c) sodium chloride
(b) II, IV I, III (d) potassium hydroxide
(c) I, IV II, III CG PMT-2010 / AIIMS-1996
(d) III, IV I, II Ans. (a) : The major constituent of vertebrate bone is
BVP-2015 calcium phosphate. Bone consists of 40% inorganic
Ans. (b) : component (hydroxyapatite) 25% water and 35%
organic component (proteins)
(i) Ligaments are connective tissue that False
204. Three bones scapula, clavicle and coracoid
connect skeletal muscles to bone.
enclose and meet at
(ii) Bone marrow is composed of adipose True (a) foramen of triosseum
tissue areolar tissue and blood. (b) foramen of rotunda
(iii) Hyaline cartilage is the strongest False (c) foramen of spinosum
cartilage in vertebrate body. (d) foramen obturator
(iv) Mast cells are modified basophiles True BVP-2013
which secrete vasoconstrictor, i.e. Ans. (a) : Scapula, clavicle and coracoids enclose and
Histamine. meet at Foramen of triosseum. Foramen triosseum is
199. The number of bones in each half of the lower present in birds at the function of the clavicle, scapula
jaw of a mammal is: and coracoids
(a) 6 (b) 5 205. Long neck of camel is because of
(c) 3 (d) 1 (a) muscle between two vertebrae
AP EAMCET-1997 (b) increase in length of cervical vertebrae
Ans. (d) : The number of bones in each half of the (c) bony plate between two vertebrae
lower jaw of a mammals is one. The lower jaw is made (d) All of the above
up of a single bone called mandible. The mandible is BVP-2013
the longest and strongest bone in the face. It forms the Ans. (c) : Like all other mammals, camel and giraffe also
lower jaw and holds the teeth in place. have 7 cervical vertebrae in their neck. The long neck is
• 6 bones, is the number of bones in the lower jaw of a due to bony plate between two successive vertebrae.
reptile. 206. A bone is distinguished from cartilage by the
• 5 bones, is the number of bones in lower jaw of a bird presence of
(a) blood vessels (b) lymph vessels
• 3 bones, is the number of bones in lower jaw of a fish.
(c) haversian canals (d) collagen proteins
200. In the body, the membrane surrounding the BVP-2013
bone is known as :
Ans. (c) : A bone is separated from the cartilage by the
(a) periosteum (b) endosteum presence of Haversian Canal. The intercellular matrix of
(c) perichondrium (d) chondrocytes bone contains more collagen than that found in cartilage
AFMC-2006 / JCECE-2007 and is newly unconcentrated with calcium salts.
Ans. (a) : The tough, thin membrane covering the bones 207. Foramen obturator is present between
is called the periosteum. (a) ileum and ischium (b) ischium and pubis
It is a membrane that covers the outer surface of all (c) ischium and sacrum (d) ileum and pubis
bones except at the joints of long bones. BVP-2013
Ans. (b) : Foramen obturator is present between 215. Which one of the following is a skull bone?
ischium and pubis bone of pelvis. (a) Coracoid (b) Arytaenoid
The foramen obturator is a large opening in the pelvic (c) Atlas (d) Pterygoid
or hip bone lies just below the acetabulum. CMC Ludhiana-2008
208. The number of occipital condyles in mammals AMU - 2007
is: Ans. (d) : Pterygoid bone found in skull. It is part of
(a) 3 (b) 5 facial skeleton. It is flat, thin lamina, united to medial
(c) 1 (d) 2 side of the Pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone and
AP EAMCET-2000 perpendicular lamina of palatine bone.
Ans. (d) : The number of occipital condyles in 216. Cranium is the protective covering of
mammals is 2. The occipital condyles is the distinctive (a) lungs (b) eye balls
bony structure linking the skull and vertebrae column. (c) brain (d) uterus
209. Deltoid ridge is present in AMU-2003
(a) humerus (b) tibia - fibula Ans. (c) : The cranium is the protective covering of
(c) radio - ulna (d) femur brain, which consist of the cerebrum, cerebellum and
VMMC-2007 brain stem. Cranium does not move or perform any
Ans. (a) : The deltoid ridge is present in humerus bone. other activity.
Deltoid ridges are important points of muscle 217. In man, coccygeal bone is formed by the fusion
attachment in humerus bone. of …………….. vertebrae.
210. The wish-bone or Merry though bone of birds is (a) 3 (b) 4
(a) sternum (b) scapula (c) 5 (d) 8
(c) coracoid (d) calvicle Uttarakhand PMT-2011
Manipal-2010 Ans. (b) : In human the coccygeal bone, also known as
Ans. (d) : The furcula also known as wishbone or merry the tail bone, is formed by the fusion of 4 vertebrae.
thought bone is a forked bone which is a V shaped The coccyx is composed of four small sedimentary
found in birds and some other animals and is formed by vertebrae, which are typically fused together to form, a
the fusion of the two clavicles and single interclavicles. triangular-shaped bone at the base of the vertebral
column,.
211. Tendons and ligaments are kind of
(a) muscular tissue (b) connective tissue 218. The smallest bone in human body is
(c) epidermal tissue (d) Nervous tissue (a) femur (b) stapes
(c) ulna (d) vertebra
AFMC-2010
Assam CEE-2014
Ans. (b): Tendon and ligament are kinds of connective
tissue. Tendons connect bone to muscle and ligament Ans. (b) : Stapes is the smallest bone in the human
connects bone to bone. body and connects with the oval window of the inner
ear and transmitting the vibrations to the fluid filled
212. Pectoral girdle constitute cochlea.
(a) scapula and clavicle
219. Haversian canal are found in:
(b) radius and ulna
(a) Internal ear of mammal
(c) ilium and ischium
(b) External ear of mammal
(d) maxilla and mandible
(c) Long bone of rabbit
AFMC-2010
(d) Spinal chord
Ans. (a): The pectoral girdle consist of the two bones BVP-2004
that makes up your shoulder clavicle or (collarbone)
DUMET - 2003
scapula or shoulder blade
Ans. (c) : Haversian canals are found in the long bones
213. Fabellae (bones) are associated with of rabbits. Haversian canals, also known as osteonic
(a) elbow joint (b) knee joint canals, they long axis of the bone and contain blood
(c) neck joint (d) angular joint vessels, nerves, and connective tissue. These canals play
CMC Ludhiana-2007 an important role in the transport of nutrients. Oxygen
Ans. (b) : The fabellae is sesamoid bone in the and waste products and from bone cells.
posterolateral capsule of the human knee joints. It is 220. Human ear ossicle are
located in the posterior aspect of the knee where lines of (a) incus and stapes
tensile stress intersect. (b) stapes
214. The bone of the knee cap is called (c) incus, malleus and stapes
(a) Patella (b) Femur (d) incus and malleus
(c) Tibia (d) Fibula HP CET-2018
BCECE-2009 Ans. (c) : The human ear ossicle are incus, malleus, and
Ans. (a) : The bone of the knee cap is called patella. It stapes
is flat triangular movable bone that forms the anterior The three small bones in the middle sound vibrations
point of the knee. from the eardrum to the inner ear.
The three ossicles are – Myosin is a superfamily of proteins that play an
• Malleus is attached to the eardrum and receives important role in binding actin, hydrolyzing ATP and
sound vibrations from it. transducing force.
• Incus connects the malleus to the stapes and 225. The shoulder blade is made of
transmits the vibrations. (a) clavicle (b) humerus
• Stapes is the smallest bone in the human body and (c) ilium (d) scapula
connects with the oval window of the inner ear and AIIMS-2007
transmitting the vibrations to the fluid filled cochlea.
Ans. (d) : The scapula, or shoulder blade, is a large
• Together these three ossicles amplify and transmit
sound wave enabling the auditory system to detect triangular-shaped bone that lies in the upper back. The
and perceive sound. bone is surrounded and supported by a complex system
of muscles that work together to help you move your
221. The longest bone of the human body is
(a) Humerus (b) Tibia arms.
(c) Vertebra (d) Femur The scapula is a thick, flat bone lying on the thoracic
(e) Incus wall that provides an attachment for three groups of
Kerala PMT-2009 muscles: intrinsic, extrinsic, and stabilizing and rotating
Ans. (d) : The longest bone in the human body is the muscles. The intrinsic muscles of the scapula include
femur. It is a long bone that is characterized by its the muscles of the rotator cuff—the subscapularis, teres
length, strength, and unique shape, as walking running, minor, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus.
and jumping. It is also known as the thigh bone.
222. Which of the following is not a function of the
skeletal system?
(a) Locomotion
(b) Production of erythrocytes
(c) Storage of minerals
(d) Production of body heat
Ans. (d) : Production body heat is not function of the
skeletal system. 226. Sigmoid notch is formed by:
It is the function of muscles, the contraction of muscles (a) cavity formed by humerus
produce heat which keeps the body warm. Mainly
(b) cavity formed by radius-ulna
adipose tissue involved in the production of body heat.
Locomotion, production of erythrocytes, storage of (c) cavity formed by tibia-fibula
minerals are the important function of skeleton system. (d) cavity formed by femur
• Erythropoiesis occurs in bone marrow. JIPMER-2006
• Bone is formed of various minerals like, calcium Ans. (b) : The sigmoid notch is formed by the cavity
phosphorous, sodium etc. between the radius and ulna bones in the forearm.
223. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle 227. Neural canal is present in :
contraction because it (a) humerus (b) tibia-fibula
(a) Binds to troponin to remove the masking of (c) vertebral column (d) cranial bones
active sites on actin for myosin.
JIPMER-2006
(b) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
(c) Prevents the formation of bonds between the Ans. (c) : The neural canal is present in the vertebral
myosin cross bridges and the actin filament. column which helps to pass spinal cord.
(d) Detaches the myosin head from the actin 228. From outer to insider the sequence of three
filament. bones present in the middle ear of mammals is
NEET-2018 (a) mallesu, stapes and incus
Ans. (a) : Calcium is important in skeletal muscle (b) stapes, malleus and incus
contraction because it binds to troponin to remove the (c) malleus, incus and stapes
masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
(d) incus, malleus and stapes
224. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle JIPMER-2008
involving ATPase activity is-
Ans. (c) : The middle ear contains three tiny bones;
(a) Tropomyosin (b) Myosin
malleus-attached to the eardrum, incus in the middle of
(c) α-Actin (d) Troponin
the chain of bones and stapes-attached to the
AIPMT-2006
membrane-covered opening that connects the middle
Ans. (b) : Myosin is found in all cells in the human
ear with the inner ear. These bones are also known as
body but they are particularly abundant in muscle cells,
where they are located in myofibrils, a major the hammer, anvil and the stirrup. The medical term for
component of the contractile unit of a muscles cell. all three bones together is the middle ear ossicles.
229. Atlas is Ans. (a) : The correct option for the labeling in the
(a) 1st cervical vertebrae given diagram.
(b) 2nd cervical vertebrae • A - Haversian canal
(c) 1st thoracic vertebrae • B - Lacuna
(d) 2nd lumbar vertebrae • C - Lamellae
JIPMER-2019 • D - Haversian system
Ans. (a) : Atlas is 1st cervical vertebrae of the spine. 232. The cervical vertebrae in human is:
Along with axis, it forms the joint connecting the skull (a) same as in whale
and spine. (b) more than that in rabbit
230. Given diagram shows bone of the left human (c) double than that of horse
hindlimb as seen from front. It has certain (d) less than that in giraffe
mistakes in labeling. Two of the wrongly AIPMT-1993
labelled bones are: Ans. (a) : The cervical vertebrae in humans is same as
in whale. The Cervical spine, comprised of seven
cervical vertebrae referred to as C1 to C7 is divided into
two major segments the craniocervical junction (CCJ)
and the subaxial spine.
233. Long bones function in:
(a) support
(b) support, erythrocyte and leucocyte synthesis
(c) support and erythrocyte synthesis
(d) erythrocyte formation
AIPMT-1993
Ans. (b) : Long bones function in support, erythrocyte
(a) tibia and tarsals (b) femur and fibula synthesis. Long bones provide movement and structure
(c) fibula and phalanges (d) tarsals and femur to the upper and lower extremities.
AIIMS-2005 234. Which among the following is a bone of skull?
Ans. (c) : Each leg contains 30 bones namely femur in (a) Pterygoid (b) Femur
the thigh, a patella in the knee, tibia and fibula in the (c) Atlas (d) Tibia
lower leg, 7 tarsals in the ankle, 5 metatarsals in the AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-I
sole, and 14 phalanges in the toes. Phalangeal Formula Ans. (a) : Among the options provided the bone of the
for the human foot is 2,3,3,3,3. So, Fibula and skull is ptergyoid. The pterygoid bone is a paired bone
phalanges are wrongly labelled. locates in the skull specifically in the sphenoid bone It
• The fibula is the bone located in the lower leg. The helps form part of the lateral walls and floor of the nasal
cavity. The femur atlas and the tibia are not bones of the
tibia is parallel to it. It doesn't help with weight-bearing, skull. The femur is the thigh, bone the atlas is the first
but it does with muscle attachment. cervical vertebra, and the tibia is the shin bone.
• Tarsals along with metatarsals and phalanges, are a 235. Identify the number of bones present in Axial
combination of seven bones found in the foot. skeleton, for each A, B, C, D listed below.
231. Choose the correct option for the labeling in Label Bones
the given diagram (A, B, C, D) A Skull
B Ribs
C Sternum
D Vertebral column
(a) A – 22, B – 24, C – 1, D – 26
(b) A – 26, B – 24, C – 1, D – 29
(c) A – 29, B – 26, C – 1, D – 24
(d) A – 39, B – 24, C – 1, D – 28
Ans. (a) : The correct answer is (a) A - 22, B - 24 C- 1,
(a) Haversian canal, lacuna, Lamellae, Haversian D - 26.
system The axial skeleton consists of the following bones.
(b) Haversian canal, Volkmann's canal, A- Skull- The human skull is composed of 22 bones,
Endosteum, Lamellae including cranial bones and facial bones.
(c) Volkmanns canal, Lamellae, Osteocytes, B- Ribs- There are 24 ribs in total with 12 pairs of ribs
Haversian canal C- Sternum- There is 1 Sternum , which is a flat bone
(d) Haversian canal, Osteocytes, Lamellae, located in the center of the chest region.
Endosteum D- Vertebral column- The vertebral column also known
AIIMS-26.05.2019 Shift-II as the spinal column is composed of 26 bones.
236. Study the following statement and identify the Ans. (a) : The correct match between list I and List II is
incorrect statements. List-I List-II
(a) Deeper region of dermis is made up of dense A. Pisiform bone ii. Wrist bone
irregular connective tissue B. Fibrous cartilage iii. Intervertebral disc
(b) Tendon is a dense regular connective tissue C Hyaline cartilage iv. Larynx
(c) Pisiform bone is visceral bone D. Os-cordis i. Ruminants
(d) Megakaryocytes produce blood platelets
239. A fractured coracoids process would involve
AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-II the
Ans. (c) : Deeper region of dermis is made up of dense (a) clavicle (b) scapula
irregular connective tissue, this is true the dermas is (c) ulna (d) radius
composed of two layers, the papillary layer, which is
more superficial and consists of loose connective tissue, BCECE-2015
and the reticular layer , which is deeper and made up of Ans. (b) : The coracoids process is a projection of the
dense irregular connective tissue. scapula bone located near the shoulder joint. If it is
• Tendon is a dense regular connective tissue this is fractured, it specifically refers to a fracture of the
true. Tendons are strong, fibrous connective tissues coracoids process of the scapula bone.
that connective tissues that connect muscles to bones. 240. The coxal of the pelvic girdle is formed by the
They are composed of parallel bundles of collagen fusion of
fibers arrange in a regular pattern which provides (a) ilium, ischium and pubis
strength and flexibility. (b) Scapula and clavicle
• Pisiform bone is sesamoid bone (c) ilium and scapula
• Megakaryocytes produce blood platelets this is true (d) ilium, scapula and ischium
megakaryocytes are large cells found in the bone (e) Clavicle and pubis
marrow that are responsible for producing platelets Kerala PMT-2011
also known as thrombocytes platelets play a crucial
Ans. (a) : The coxal bone, also known as the hip bone
role in blood clotting.
or pelvic bone, is formed by the fusion of three bones.
237. Identify the correct statement with reference to The ilium ischium, and pubis. These three bones
vomer bone : connect together to form a large, cup-shaped structure
(a) It forms the bridge of the nose known as the acetabulum, which the head of the femur
(b) It forms the upper jaw to form the hip joint.
(c) It is a triangular bone present on the floor of 241. Scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated
nasal cavity in the dorsal part of the thorax between :
(d) It forms the anterior part of the palate (a) The second and fifth ribs
TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-I (b) The second and seventh ribs
Ans. (c) : The correct statement with reference to the (c) The third and sixth ribs
vomer bone is (d) The third and eighth ribs
(c) It is a trangulax bone present on the floor of the (e) The fourth and seventh ribs
nasal cavity the vomer bone is a single bone locate in Kerala PMT-2011
the midline of the skull, forming part of the nasal
septum. It is shaped like a triangle and extends Ans. (b) : Scapula, also known as the shoulder blade, is
vertically form the nasal choanae (opening at the back a large triangular flat bone situated in the dorsal (back)
of the nasal cavity ) to the nasal crest of the maxillary part of the thorax. It lies between the second and
bone. Its position on the floor or the nasal cavity helps seventh ribs. The scapula is located on the posterior side
to separate the left and right sides of the nasal passages. of the thoracic cage and forms the posterior part of the
shoulder girdle
238. Identify the correct match between list I and
List-II 242. The hormones involved in maintaining calcium
balance in the human body are:
List-I List-II
(a) PTH and TCT (b) PTH and LTH
A. Pisiform bone i. Ruminents (c) TCT and FSH (d) MSH and ACTH
B. Fibrous cartilage ii. Wrist bone Karnataka CET-2017
C. Hyaline cartilage iii. Intervertebral Ans. (a) : PTH and TCT are antagonistic hormone
discs which means play a opposite role to each other TCT
D. OS-cordis iv. Larynx decrease the blood calcium levels, while PTH increase
the blood calcium level. These two hormones involved
v. Pinna in maintaining calcium balance in the human body.
The correct answer is– Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is produced by the
A B C D parathyroid glands and plays a crucial role in increasing
(a) ii iii iv i blood calcium levels.
(b) v ii i iv While all bones provide support and protection to
(c) iv iii ii i various body parts, the malleus stands out as it is
(d) v ii iii iv specifically involved in the function of hearing rather
AP EAMCET-2016 than solely providing support or protection.
243. Brain lies in : Ans. (a) : The clavicle articulates with the acromion
(a) cranium (b) vertebral column process of the scapula. The acromion is the outer edge
(c) tympanic bull (d) none of these of your shoulders blade (Scapula), it help to stabilize the
JIPMER-2002 shoulder joint.
Ans. (a) : The brain is located within the cranial cavity, 247. Haversian canals are present in:
which is formed by the bones of the cranium. The cranium (a) bone marrow (b) hyaline cartilage
is the protective bony structure that surrounds and encloses (c) bone matrix (d) calcified cartilage
the brain providing, it with support and protection from AP EAMCET-1998
external force. The brains is not located within the VMMC-2004
vertebral column (spinal column), tympanic bull, or any Ans. (c) : Haversian canals are seen in the bone matrix,
other anatomical structures listed in the option. specifically in the outermost region of bones called
244. Which of the following disorder is not correctly cortical bone. The bone matrix is that part of the bone
paired to the cause? tissue and forms most of the mass of the bone. It is
(1) Goiter-In dietary deficiency of Iodine to comprised of organic and inorganic substances. The
enlargements of thyroid gland organic component of the bone matrix includes the
(2) Cretinism-Hypothyroidism during collagen and ground substance where as the inorganic
pregnancy cause defective development component is the inorganic bone salts, mainly the
and maturation of the growing baby hydroxy apatite.
(3) Diabetes mellitus – Caused due to hyper 248. Match the following
secretion of Insulin List -I List-II
(4) Diabetes insipidus-Caused due to hypo
secretion of ADH A Os penis I Sesamoid bone
(a) 1 (b) 2 B Girdle II Visceral bone
(c) 3 (d) 4 C Patella III Cartilage bone
D Cranium IV Investing bone
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-II The correct match is:
Ans. (c) : Diabetes mellitus is not causes due to hyper A B C D
secretion of insulin, In fact cells, which leads to insulin (a) I II IV III
or infected use of insulin by the body The correct (b) IV II III I
causes of diabetes mellitus is the dysfunction of the (c) II I III IV
pancreatic beta cells, which leads to insulin secretion or (d) II III I IV
impaired insulin action. Insulin is responsible for
regulating glucose levels in the blood. TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-II
Therefore, the disorder not correctly paired with its Ans. (d) : The correct match of the following –
cause is. List-I List-II
245. Identify the incorrect statement regarding A - Os penis II - Visceral bone
skeletal system: B - Girdle III - Cartilage bone
(a) Vertebral column formula C7T12L5S1C1 C - Patella I - Sesamoid bone
(b) Each coxal bone is formed of fusion of three D - Cranium IV - Investing bone
bones – Ilium, Ischium and Pubis 249. Match the following
(c) Muscular dystrophy is progressive List-I List-II
degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to (A) Replacing bone (I) Os cordis
genetic disorder
(B) Dermal bones (II) Pisiform bone of
(d) Hinge joint found between carpals
the wrist
(C) Sesamoid bones (III) Girdle bones
Ans. (d) : Hinge Joints are found in the body, but they
are not typically found between the carpals. The carpals (D) Visceral bones (IV) Bones of cranium
are the small bones of the wrist, an they articulate with (A) (B) (C) (D)
each, other through gliding joints, allowing for (a) (II) (III) (I) (IV)
movements such as flexion, extension, abduction and (b) (III) (IV) (II) (I)
adduction. Hinge joints on the other hand, are found in (c) (I) (III) (II) (IV)
the elbow and knee joints. (d) (II) (I) (III) (IV)
Allowing for flexion and extension movements in one TS EAMCET-15.05.2016
plane. Ans. (b) : The correct match is following –
246. The clavicle articulates with _______ of List-I List-II
scapula.
A - Replacing bone - III. Girdle bones
(a) acromion process
B - Dermal bones IV. Bones of cranium
(b) glenoid cavity
(c) acetabulum cavity C - Sesamoid bones - II. Pisiform bone of
(d) ball and socket joint the wrist
DUMET-2011 D - Visceral bones I. Os cordis
250. Immature bone cells are called Ans. (d) : The cells responsible for eating up and
(a) Osteoclasts (b) Osteocytes remodeling bone tissue including making long bones
(c) Osteocells (d) Osteoblasts hollow are called osteoclasts.
TS EAMCET-12.05.2017 254. Axis vertebra is identified by
Ans. (d) : Immature bone cells are called as osteoblasts. (a) sigmoid notch (b) deltoid ridge
Osteoblasts cell are cell that forms bone cell. (c) odontoid process (d) centrum
251. Match the following BVP-2009
List-I List-II Ans. (c) : The axis vertebra is identified by the odontoid
process, it is also known as the dens. The odontoid
A. Dermal bones I. Girdles process is a prominent bony projection that extends
B. Replacing bones II. Pisiform bone superiorly form the body of the axis vertebra and acts as
C. Visceral bones III. Cranium a pivot for the rotation of the atlas (C1 vertebral) and
D. Sesamoid bones IV. Os corids the skull.
V Osteon 255. Animals of class-Mammalia have
(a) seven cervical vertebrae
(b) seven cranial nerve
Options :
(c) single ventricular chamber
A B C D
(d) fourteen cervical vertebrae
(a) II I III IV
JIPMER-2011
(b) III I IV II
Ans. (a) : The most mammals including animals,
(c) III I II IV
humans, have seven cervical vertebrae in their vertebral
(d) II IV I III column.
256. Label the parts marked in the human skull and
Ans. (b) : Dermal bones – cranium A dermal bone or select the correct option
investing bone or membrane bone is a bony structure
derived from intramembranous ossification forming
components of the vertebrate skeleton including much
of the skull, Jaws, gill, covers, shoulder girdle and fin
spines gays (lepidotrichia) and the shell (of tortoises and
turtles).
Replacing bones – Girdles A bone that develops in
cartilage environment after the latter is partially or
entirely destroyed by calcification and subsequent
desorption. s
Visceral bones – Os corids The bones of visceral (a) a-temporal bone; b-parietal bone; c-sphenoid
skeleton are formed in soft organs. They are not present bone; d-frontal bone; e-zygomatic bone; f-
in all species of animals. Examples of visceral skeleton occipital bone
bones include os-penis bone in the penis of dogs Os (b) a-frontal bone; b-zygomatic bone; c-occipital
cordis-bone in the heart of cattle. bone; d-sphenoid bone; e-parietal bone; f-
Sesamoid bone - Pisiform bone are common in temporal bone
humans, with some bones like the patella being present (c) a-sphenoid bone; b-occipital bone; c-
in everyone and vital to lower extremity function. zygomatic bone; d-parietal bone; e-frontal
252. Pick up the mismatched pair bone; f-temporal bone
(a) Replacing bones – Limb bones (d) a-sphenoid bone; b-zygomatic bone; c-
occipital bone; d-frontal bone; e-temporal
(b) Investing bones – Girdles bone; f-parietal bone
(c) Sesamoid bones – Patella (e) a-zygomatic bone; b-occipital bone; c-parietal
(d) Visceral bones – Os penis bone; d-frontal bone; e-sphenoid bone; f-
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I temporal bone
Ans. (b) : Replacing bones – Limb bones Kerala PMT-2014
Sesamoid bones – Patella Ans. (c) : a-sphenoid bone; b-occipital bone; c-
Visceral bones – Os penis zygomatic bone; d-parietal bone; e-frontal bone; f-
Investing bones – skull, jaws, gill, covers, it is a type of temporal bone
bone that ossifies directly from the membrane without a 257. Difference between bone and cartilage is:
cartilaginous predecessor.
(a) Haversian canal (b) blood vessel
253. The long bones which are solid may be eaten (c) lymph vessel (d) all of these
up by special cells and make them hollow.
These cells are: Rajasthan PMT-2005
(a) chondroblast (b) chondroclasts Ans. (d) : The difference between bone and cartilage is
(c) octeoblasts (d) osteoclasts not related to the presence of Haversion canals, blood
BVP-2006 vessels, lymph. Vessels.
The primary differences between bone and cartilage are Ans. (a) : Hyaline cartilage occurs in sternal part of the
as follows ribs, epiphyseal plant and endoskeleton of cyclostomes.
1. Composition : Bone is composed of cells osteocytes The sternal part of the ribs is made of hyline cartilage in
embedded in a hard matrix of calcium salts, collagen children. As the child grows the cartilage ossifies and
chondrocytes embedded in a flexible matrix of collagen becomes bones.
fibers and proteoglycans.
2. Strength and rigidity bone is harder and more than 261. The polysaccharide portion of a proteoglycan
cartilage due to its mineralized is softer and more present in the matrix of cartilage is known as
flexible, providing cushioning and support to various (a) ossein (b) cartilin
structures. (c) casein (d) chondroitin
3. Vascularization : Bone is highly vascularized , AMU-2007
manning, it has a rich blood supply through blood
vessels that, nourish the bone cells and aid in bone Ans. (d) : The polysaccharide portion of a proteoglycan
growth, repair and remodeling. Cartilage, in contrast, is present in the matrix of cartilage is known as
a vascular or poorly vascularized, depending on the chondroitin.
type. It relies on diffusion of nutrients from surrounding 262. Which of the following pairs, is correctly
tissues for nourishments. matched –
(a) Fibrous joint – between phalanges
F. Joints and its types (b) Cartilaginous joint – skull bones
258. Match the following (c) Gliding joint – between zygapophyses of the
Joint Example successive vertebrae
A. Ball and socket joint I. Inter carpal joint (d) Hinge joint – between vertebrae
B. Hinge join II. Between occipital AIPMT-2005
condyles and atlas Ans. (c) : Gliding joint in present between
C. Gilding joint III. Between femur zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae.
and pelvic girdle • The gliding joint is a synovial joint built between two
D. Condyloid joint IV. Knee bones that meet on flat articular surfaces allowing
V. Between carpals sliding or gliding motion. Example of a gliding joint
and metacarpls is the wrist joint. Other gliding joints are the joints
(a) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-V between two vertebras, ankle joints
(b) A-V, B-I, C-IV, D-III acromioclavicular joint etc.
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-V • The joints between the following structure are
(d) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV between phalanges- hinge joints.
• Between flat bones of skull - fibrous joint
Ans. (c) : correct match-I
• Between adjacent vertebrae: cartilaginous joint.
• Ball and socket joint → between femur and pelevic
girdle
• Hinge joint → knee
• Glinding joint → intercorpal joint
• Condyloid joint → between carpal and metacarpals.
259. Identify the non fibrous joints
(a) Sutures (b) Syndesmoses
(c) Synchondroses (d) Gomphoses
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I
Ans. (c) : These joints are characterized by the absence
of fibrous connective tissues and have different
structural characteristics and functions in the body.
Synchondroses is the non-fibrous joint.
260. Hyaline cartilage occurs in
A. Sternal part of the ribs
B. Pubic Symphysis
C. Epiphyseal plate
D. Vocal chords
E. Epiglottis
F. Endoskeleton of cyclostomes 263. Elbow joint is an example of :
(a) A, C, F (b) C, D, E (a) Ball and socket joint (b) Pivot joint
(c) B, D, F (d) A, C, D (c) Hinge joint (d) Gliding joint
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II AIPMT-2009
Ans. (c) : Elbow joint is an example of hinge joint. The (b) White Elastic tissue
elbow joint is a synovial hinge joint similar to the ankle (c) Collagen (white) fibres + Muscle fibres
and knee joints. Two or more bones form hinge joints (d) Only collagen fibres
that move along an axis, rather than rotate like the hip AIPMT-1999
joint. Ans. (d) :
muscle
tendon
bone
ligament
bone
A tendon is a tough, high-tensile-strength band of dense

264. Which of the following pairs is correctly fibrous connective tissue that connects muscle to bone.
matched? It is able to transmit the mechanical forces of muscle
(a) Cartilaginous joint - Skull bones contraction to the skeletal system.
(b) Hinge joint - Between vertebrae • Tendon connects muscle to bone while ligament
(c) Fibrous joint - Between phalanges connect one bone to another bone.
(d) Gliding joint - Between zygapophyses of the • Tendon mainly consists of collagen fibers.
successive vertebrae 268. Match the following:
JIPMER-2007
Set-I Set-II
Ans. (d) : Gliding joint: Intercarpal joint, intercarpal
joint sternoclavicular joint and joint between pre and A Condyloid i Between Atlas
post zygapophyses of adjacent vertebra. joint and axis
265. This joint allows restricted movement in B Pivot joint ii Between carpal
different planes and metacarpal of
(a) Arthrodia (b) Enarthroses thumb
(c) Ginglymi (d) Rotatoria C Saddle joint iii Between occipital
AP EAMCET-2007 and atlas
Ans. (a) : Arthrodia in glinding (actherodia), the D Gliding joint iv Between Inter-
articulating bones can slide upon one another at the carpals
joint, but movement is quite restricted. For example,
joints between zygapophyses of successive vertebrae
joints between radio-ulna and carpals. (A) (B) (C) (D)
Ginglymi :- a hinge-like joint such as the elbow or (a) i iii iv ii
knee, that allows movement in only on plane. (b) ii i iii iv
Enarthrosis:- A ball and socket joint. (c) iii i ii iv
Rotatoria:- The rotator cuff is group of muscles and (d) iii ii i iv
tendons that surround shoulder joint. Keeping the head TS EAMCET-09.05.2019 Shift-I
of your upper arm bone firmly with in the shallow Ans. (c) :
socket of the shoulder. Set -I Set-II
266. Proteoglycan in cartilages which is part of (A) Condyloid Between occipital and
polysaccharide: joint atlas
(a) Condroitin (b) Ossein
(B) Pivot joint Between atlas and axis
(c) Cassin (d) Cartilage
(C) Saddle joint Between carpal and
AIPMT-2000
metacarpal of thumb.
Ans. (a) : Chondroitin contains repeating unit of
(D) Gliding joint Between Inter - Carpals.
alternating sugars N-acetylgalactosamine and
glucuronic acid. It mostly attaches to proteins as part of 269. What type of joint is characterized by the
a proteoglycan. presence of a fluid filled cavity that plays a
• A chondroitin chain can have over 100 individual significant role in locomotion?
sugars each of which can be sulfated in variable (a) Fibrous joints (b) Cartilaginous joints
positions and quantities. (c) Synovial joints (d) All of the above
• Chondroitin sulfate is an important structural VMMC-2011
component of cartilage and provides much of its Ans. (c) : Synovial joint is the type of joint found
resistance to compression. between bones is move against each other, such as the
267. Tendon consist of joints of the limb (eg. shoulder, hip, elbow and knee)
(a) Non Elastic connective tissue characteristically it has a joint cavity filled with fluid.
270. Inter-phalangial joints are also called as Ans. (b) : 12 pairs of cranial nerves arising from the
(a) fixed joints (b) hinge joints brain of Human beings. These are following-
(c) movable joints (d) straight joints I. Olfactory - Sensory
BVP-2010 II. Optic - Sensory
Ans. (b) : Interphalangial joints are also called Hinge joint. III. Oculomotor - Motor
A hinge joint is a type of synovial joint that exists in the IV. Trochlear - Motor
body and serves to allow motion primarily in one plane. V. Trigeminal - Mixed
271. The joint of radio-ulna with the upper arm is : VI. Abducens - Motor
(a) hinge joint (b) pivot joint VII. Facial - Mixed
(c) socket joint (d) none of these VIII. Auditory - Sensory
HP CET-2012 / Rajasthan PMT-2011 IX. Glassopharyngeal - Mixed
Uttarakhand-2005 / Punjab MET-2003 X. Vagus - Mixed
Ans. (a) : The joint of radio ulna with the upper arm is XI. Spinal accessory - Motor
Hinge joint. This joint allow movement in one plane XII. Hypoglossal - Motor
only. eg. knee, elbow and ankle joint. 277. The gliding Joints are important for gliding
272. The example of pivot joint is movements. One example of such a joint is
(a) Ankle joints between the
(b) Hip joints (a) zygapophyses of adjacent vertebrae
(c) Radio-ulna joints (b) humerus and glenoid cavity
(d) Metatarsophalangeal joints (c) occipital condyle and odontoid process
VMMC-2013 / DUMET-2010 (d) femur and tibio fibula
Ans. (c) : The example of Pivot joint is Radio ulnar HP CET-2011 / VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004
joint also called rotator or trochoid joint a freely Ans. (a) : The gliding joints are important for gliding
moveable joint allow only rottery movement around a movement. It is present in zygophysis of adjacent
single axis. vertebrae, wrist, ankle, acromioclavicular joint etc.
273. Gliding joint is present between the 278. What will happen if ligaments are torn?
(a) Carpals (a) Bone will become unfixed
(b) Humerus and pectoral girdle (b) Bone will become fixed
(c) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb (c) Bone less movable at joint and pain
(d) Knee (d) Bone will move freely at joint and no pain
(e) Atlas and Axis JIPMER-2013
Kerala PMT-2015 Ans. (c) : If ligaments are turn boneless moveable at
Ans. (a) : Gliding joint is present between the carpals joint and plain. This results in the inability to Pivot turn
the gliding joint is a synovial joint built between two or twist the leg
bones that meet on flat articular surfaces allowing 279. How many saddle joints can be traced in
sliding or gliding motion. human body?
274. Elbow joint is (a) 2 (b) 4
(a) ball and socket (b) hinge joint (c) 8 (d) 10
(c) pivot joint (d) saddle joint AFMC-2011 / BHU PMT (Screening)-2011
CMC Ludhiana-2008 / AMU-2007 Ans. (a) : Saddle joint is a type of biaxial and movable
JIPMER-1995 joint that allow movement of two planes.
Ans. (b) : Elbow join is Hinge joint. Hinge joint is • Saddle joint formed between concave and convex
synovial joint. The movement in this joint is bone regions.
unidirectional. This joint also known as gingulum. Saddle joints are also known an sellar joints.
275. Humerus files into glenoid cavity is an example 280. Which type of synovial joint is absent in frog
of but is responsible for movement of thumb in
(a) ball and socket joint (b) pivot joint many direct in mammals?
(c) peg and socket joint (d) condyloid joint (a) Pivot joint (b) Saddle joint
Manipal-2015 (c) Ball and socket joint (d) Condyloid joint
Ans. (a): Head of numerous bones articulates with the BVP-2013
glenoid cavity of pectoral girdle. This articulation Ans. (b) : Saddle joint is absent in frog but responsible
results in the formation of ball and socket joints. eg. ball for movement of thumb in many direct in mammals.
and socket joint present in shoulder.. Saddle joint resembles ball and socket joint (shoulder
276. There are ……. pairs of cranial nerves arising and Hip joint) but neither the ball nor the socket is
from the brain of human beings cauplet in it. This joint not found in frog.
(a) 8 (b) 12 281. Ball and socket joint is found between:
(c) 18 (d) 25 (a) ribs and vertebral
J&K CET-2015 (b) femur and tibio-fibula
(c) humerus and olecranon fossa Ans. (a) : The most freely movable type of synovial
(d) humerus and pectoral girdle joint is the Ball and socket joint.
AFMC-2001 Ball and socket joints allow for the greatest range of
Ans. (d) : The ball and socket joint is found between motion among the different types of synovial joints. They
Humerus and pectoral girdle. It is a synovial joint. consist of a spherical head of one bone biting into a cup-
A ball and socket Joint is the most freely movable of all like socket of another bone. This structure allows for
joints. It is a multi axial joint. movements in multiple directions. Including extension,
abduction, adduction, rotation, and circumduction.
282. The type of joint between carpels and between
287. Match List-I with List-II
tarsals is
(a) gliding (b) saddle List-I List-II
(c) hinge (d) ellipsoid (A) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous
CMC Ludhiana-2015 joints
Ans. (a) : The type of joint between carpels and tarsals (B) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
is gliding joint. Gliding joints are the joints that occur (C) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joint
between the surfaces of two flat bones which re joined (D) Vertebral (iv) Triangular flat
together by ligaments. It is synovial joint. column bone
283. Choose the wrong match with reference to Choose the correct answer from the options
joints given below
(A) Gomphoses Intercarpal joint (A) (B) (C) (D)
(B) Syndesmoses Membrane between (a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Tibia and Fibula (b) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) Symphysis Joints between (c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
vertebrae of mammals (d) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
NEET-2021
(D) Synchondrosis Epiphyseal plate
Ans. (a) :
TS EAMCET-2015 (A) Scapula (iv) Triangular flat bone.
Ans. (a) : Gomphoses are specialized joints that anchor (B) Cranium (iii) Fibrous Joints
teeth to the bony sockets in the jaw. They are not
associate with intercarpal joints intercarpal joints are (C) Sternum (ii) Flat bone
example of synovial joints. (D) Vertebral (i) Cartilaginous joints
column
284. Volkmann's canal occurs in
(a) Bone (b) Cartilage 288. Glenoid cavity articulates:-
(c) Liver (d) Internal ears (a) Scapula with acromion
UP CPMT-2013 (b) Clavicle with scapula
(c) Humerus with scapula
Ans. (a) : Volkmann's canals, connected the haversian
(d) Clavicle with acromion
canals and help in the transportation of blood vessels
nerves and lymphatic vessels throughout the bone. AIPMT-2015
Volkmann's Canals (communicating canals) are the Ans. (c) : The Glenoid cavity is a bone part of the
horizontal channel of haversian canals. shoulder. The word glenoid is formed Greek glena
"Socket".
285. The joint of the hip and shoulders are called:
An irregular hallow cavity in the scapula called the
(a) hinge joint (b) ball and socket joint
glenoid cavity forms the socket for the head of the
(c) pivot joint (d) ellipsoid joint humerus to fit in. The two bones together form the
J&K CET-2002 glenohumeral joint, which is the main joint of the
Ans. (b) : The joints of the hip and shoulders are called shoulder, the scapula is a flat triangular shaped bone
ball and socket joints. that form the shoulder blade.
Ball and sockets joints are characterized by the rounded
head of one bone fitting into the concave socket of
another bone. These joints allow for a wide range of
motion in multiple directions including flexion,
extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation. The hip
joint and shoulder joint are examples of ball and socket
joints.
286. Which of the following types of synovial joints
is the most freely movable?
(a) Ball and Socket (b) Hinge
(c) Saddle (d) Glinding
HP CET-2018
289. Which of the following joints would allow no Ans. (b) : Gliding joint - Between the carpals
movement? • Gliding joints or the plane joint are present between
(a) Ball and Socket joint (b) Fibrous joint the carpal bones at the wrist and between the tarsal
(c) Cartilaginous joint (d) Synovial joint bones at the ankle
AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015 • Hinge joint - Between humerus and ulna
Ans. (b) : Fibrous joint are made up of collagen. These • Hinge joint is present between the humerus and ulna
type of joints are found in the bone of skull. They or the elbow joint and between the femur and tibia at
provide stability and strength to the delicate tissues of the knee joint
our body.
• Pivot joint- Between Atlas and axis
• Where as ball and socket joint, cartilaginous joint and
• Pivot joint is present between the atlas and axis of the
synovial joint are movable help in different movable
cervical vertebra.
activities.
• Saddle joint- Between carpal and metacarpal of
290. Select the correct matching of the type of the
thumb.
joint with the example in human skeletal
system 292. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type
of
Type of Joint Example
(a) Fibrous joint (b) Cartilaginous joint
(a) Cartilaginous between frontal
(c) Synovial joint (d) Saddle joint
joint and parietal
NEET-2017
(b) Pivot Joint between third and
Ans. (c) : The joint between atlas and axis is a type of
fourth cervical
synovial joint. A considerable movement is allowed at
vertebrae
all synovial joints. They surrounded by tubular articular
(c) Hinge joint between humerus capsule. The capsule consists of two layers, i.e., outer
and pectoral girdle fibrous capsule and inner synovial membrane,
(d) Gliding Joint between carpals nourishment to Particular cartilage.
AIPMT-2014 293. The type of joint between the human skull
bones is called:
Ans. (d) : In gliding joints, the articulating bones can
slide upon one another. For example, the joint between (a) cartilaginous joint (b) hinge joint
carpals bones of the wrist. (c) fibrous joint (d) synovial joint
AIPMT-1994 / AMU-2002
• Cartilaginous joints are slightly movable joints. For
example joints between pubic bones of pelvic girdles Ans. (c) : The bones of the human skull are joined
and the joints between the vertebrae. together by fibrous joints. These are fibrous connective
• Pivot joint is a rotatory joints. For example, a joints tissue that holds the skull bones tightly together theses
between the atlas and axis of mammals. joints are immovable or have very limited movement,
• Hinge joints a protuberance known as condyle at the providing stability and protection to the brain.
end of one bone fits into the corresponding • Cartilaginous joints are connected by cartilage and
depression of the other. so, the joints allow allow for limited movement such as in the
movement in one place only. For example, joints of intervertebral discs.
ankle, knee, elbow etc. • Hing joints allow moments in one plane like a hinge
291. Match the following joints with the bones on a door, and are found in joints such as the elbow
involved: and knee.
(A) Gliding joint (i) Between carpal • Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of a
and metacarpal synovial fluid filled cavity and allow for a wide range
of thumb of movements Examples of synovial joints include
(B) Hinge joint (ii) Between Atlas the shoulder joint and the hip joint.
and Axis 294. Synovial fluid is found in:
(C) Pivot joint (iii) Between the (a) cranial cavity (b) spinal cavity
Carpals (c) immovable joints (d) free movable joints
(D) Saddle joint (iv) Between J&K CET-2000
Humerus and Ans. (d) : Synovial fluid is a viscous fluid that is
Ulna present within the synovial cavity of synovial joints.
Select the correct option from the following: Synovial joints are the freely movable joints in the body
(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv) such as the shoulder joint and hip joint. the synovial
(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) fluid acts as lubricant reducing friction between the
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii) articulating surfaces of the joint during movement . It
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i) also provides nourishment to the joint cartilage and
NEET (Odisha)-2019 helps in shock absorption.
295. The structures which join two bones at joints Ans. (d) : The knee joint is a synovial joint. Synovial
are made up of– joints are characterized by the presence of a joint cavity
(a) elastic fibres (b) collagen fibres filled with synovial fluid, which lubricates the joint and
(c) fibrocytes (d) chondrocytes allows for smooth movement. The knee joint is the
largest and most complex joint in the human body. It is
formed by the articulation of the femur (thigh bone),
Ans. (a) : The structures that join two bones at joints tibia (shin bone), and patella (kneecap). The knee joint
are made up of collagen fibers. allows for flexion and extension of the leg, as well as
Collagen fibers are the main component of the limited rotation.
connective tissues that form the structures for joining 300. Choose correct statements with respect to
bones. Collagen is a strong and flexible protein that human joints
provides structural support and tensile strength to the (A) Synovial fluid contains hyaluronic acid
tissues. (B) Joint between carpel and metacarpel is
296. The joint between humerous and ulna is: pivot joint
(a) pivot (b) hinge (C) Gomphoses are amphiarphroses
(c) ball and socket (d) gliding (D) Diarthroses are freely movable joints
Rajasthan PMT - 2003 / JIPMER-1996 The correct answer is :
Options:
Ans. (b) : The joint between the humerous and ulna is a
(a) B, C (b) A, D
hinge joint.
(c) A, C (d) B, D
A hinge joint is a type of synovial joint that allows
movement in only one plane , similar to the action of a
hinge on a door. Ans. (c) : Synovial fluid, found in synovial joints,
contains Hyaluronic acid. Hyaluronic acid help in
• A pivot joint allows rotational movements around a lubricating the joint and reducing friction, during
central axis, such as the joint between the atlas (first movement
cervical vertebra) and axis (second cervical vertebra ) in • Gomphoses are fibrous joints that connect teeth to
the neck. their sockets in the maxilla (upper jaw) and mandible
297. How many types of synovial joints are there? (lower jaw). They are classified as synarthroses, which
(a) 4 (b) 3 are immovable joints.
(c) 2 (d) 5 • The joint between carpals (wrist bones ) and
BCECE-2015 metacarpals( hand bones) is not a pivot joint. It is
actually a gliding other.
Ans. (d) : There are 5 types of synovial joints-
• Diarthroses are actually another name for synovial
(1) Ball and socket joints joints, which are freely movable joints, so, statements D
(2) Pivot joints is redundant in this context.
(3) Hinge joints Therefore, the correct answer is (c) A, C.
(4) Gliding joint 301. Fiberous tissue which connect bone to bone is :
(5) Condyloid joints (a) ligaments (b) cartilage
The synovial joints are the most common type of joint (c) connective tissue (d) tendon
because this joint helps us to perform a wide range of Rajasthan PMT-1999
motion such as walking, running, typing and more. Ans. (a) : Ligaments are fibrous connective tissues that
Synovial joints are flexible, movable, can slide over one connect bone to bone. They provide stability and
another, rotatable and so on. strength to the joints by holding the bones together and
298. Ball and socket joints can be seen in limiting excessive movement. Ligaments are composed
(a) wrist (b) fingers mainly of collagen fibers and are important for
(c) neck (d) shoulders maintaining joint and preventing dislocations.
WB JEE-2007 302. The ankle, knee and elbow joints are
(a) synovial joints (b) hinge joints
Ans. (d) : Ball and socket joints are characterized by
(c) pivot joints (d) ellipsoid joints
rounded, ball - like end one bone fitting into a cup- like
socket of another bone. They allow for a wide range of J&K CET-2010
motion and multidirectional movement. The shoulder Ans. (b) : The ankle, knee, and elbow joints are
joint also known as the glenohumeral joint. examples of synovial joints are characterized by the
presence of a synovial cavity, which is filled with
Ex. The wrist, fingers and neck do not have ball and
synovial fluid. These joints allow for a wide range of
socket joints.
movement and are the most common type of joint in the
299. Knee joint is: body. The ankle joint is a hinge joint, the knee joint is a
(a) cartilageneous (b) fibrous hinge joint as well but also allows for some rotation,
(c) gliding joint (d) synovial and the elbow joint is also a hinge joint that allows for
DUMET-2006 flexion and extension movements.
303. Match the following Reason (R)– The major part of inorganic matter of bone
(Synovial joint ) (Bones involved) is collagen is the incorrect. The major part of inorganic
matter of bone is calcium phosphate. Collagen is a
A. Ball and socket I. Carpal and
protein that is found in the organic matter of bone.
metacarpal of
thumb 307. Which of the following is a correct match for
disease and its symptoms?
B. Hinge II. Altas and axis
(a) Muscular dystrophy – An auto immune
C. Pivot III. Frontal and parietal disorder causing progressive degeneration of
D. Saddle IV. Femur and tibia- skeletal muscle
fibula
(b) Arthritis – Inflammed joints
V. Humerus and
pectoral girdle (c) Tetany–High Ca2+ level causing rapid spasms.
(d) Myasthenia gravis–Genetic disorder resulting
The correct match is in weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle
A B C D NEET-2022
(a) V IV II I Ans. (b) : Arthritis is a inflammation of joints. It is a
(b) I III IV V inflammation of one or more joints. causing pain and
(c) V IV III I stiffness than can worsen with age.
(d) I II V IV • Muscular dystrophy is progressive degeneration of
TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-I muscle mostly due to genetic disorder
Ans. (a) : The correct match is • Tetany is rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in
(a) V IV II I body fluid.
304. The joint between atlas and axis is called • Myasthenia gravis is an immune disorder affecting
(a) pivot joint (b) hinge joint neuro-muscular junction leading to fatigue,
(c) saddle joint (d) angular joint weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles.
JIPMER-2011 / Punjab MET - 2010 308. Breakdown of muscle proteins, redistribution
Haryana PMT - 2000 / AFMC - 2003 of body fat, round face, buffalo hump on the
Ans. (a) : The joint between the atlas and axis is called back are the symptoms of
a pivot joint. The pivot joint is a kind of synovial joint. (a) Cushing’s disease (b) Addison’s disease
It is located between the atlas and a axis, which are the (c) Myxedema (d) Goiter
first and second vertebrae of the vertebral column, TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-I
respectively. It's also known as a rotary joint.
Ans. (a) : Breakdown of muscle proteins, redistribution
305. The joint of femur, with pelvic girdle, is of body fat, round face, buffalo hump on the back are
(a) hinge joint (b) pivot joint the symptoms of Cushing’s disease. Cushing's disease is
(c) non-movable joint (d) ball and socket joint a condition caused by the excessive production of
VMMC-2004 cortisol, a hormone involved in regulating metabolism
Ans. (d) : The joint of the femur with the pelvic girdle and stress response the excessive cortisol levels can lead
is a ball and socket joint. to various symptoms including breakdown of muscle
proteins.
G. Disorders of Muscular and 309. Women in their post menopause are likely to
Skeletal System suffer from –––––––
(a) Arthritis (b) Osteoporosis
306 Assertion (A) : The activated osteoblasts start (c) Gout (d) Myasthenia gravis
deposition of mineral material to join fractured
bone
Reason (R) : The major par of inorganic Ans. (b) : In post menopause level of estrogen
matter of bone is collagen decreases, which is the main cause of Osteoporosis.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct 310. Which of the following disorder is an outcome
explanation of A of irregularities in metabolism of the
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the nitrogenous waste?
correct explanation of A (a) Osteoporosis (b) Gouty arthritis
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect (c) Osteroarthritis (d) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) A is incorrect but R is correct JIPMER-2014
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-I Ans. (b) : Uric acid is a normal waste product of
Ans. (c) : Assertion (A)– The activated osteoblasts start nucleic acid metabolism, gets excreted normally
deposition of mineral material to join fractured bone. through urine. When there are high concentration of it
This true Osteoblasts are cells that are responsible for in blood, it gets deposited in the form of crystal in joint
forming bone. causing gouty arthritis.
311. To maintain a concentration gradient in the Angina pectoris - It is very bad pain in the chest
medullary interstitium, NaCl ––––––– caused by not enough blood going to the heart during
(a) Passes out of the descending limb of Henle's exercise.
loop and enter to blood of the descending Gout - A form of arthritis characterised by severe pain,
limb of vasa recta redness and tenderness in joints.
(b) Passes out of the descending limb of Henle's
315. An autoimmune disease is:
loop and enter the blood of the ascending
limb of vasa recta (a) AIDS (b) haemophilia
(c) Passes out of the ascending limb of Henle's (c) allergy (d) myasthenia gravis
loop and enter the blood of the ascending JIPMER-2015
limb of vasa recta NEET (Karnataka)-2013
(d) Passes out of the ascending limb of Henle's Ans. (d) : Myasthenia gravis is neuromuscular
loop and enter the blood of the descending autoimmune disorder. In this, there is weakness in the
limb of vasa recta muscles of our body. In myasthenia gravis, difficulty in
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-I talking, difficulty in lifting things, difficulty in climbing
Ans. (d) : NaCl passes out of the ascending limb of stairs, difficulty in chewing or swallowing and fatigue
Henle's loop and enter the blood of the descending symptoms are seen. It is caused an error to nerve signals
limb of vasa recta. are transmitted to muscles.
312. Chemical ions responsible for muscle 316. Symptoms of Lathyrism
contraction are (a) Bone deformation
(a) Ca2+ and K+ (b) Na+ and K+ (b) Muscular dystrophy and paralysis
+ 2+
(c) Na and Ca (d) Ca2+ and Mg2+ (c) Asphyxia
UP CPMT-2011 (d) Cardiac arrest
Ans. (d): When a nerve impulse reaches the AIPMT-1998
neuromuscular junction the calcium ion are released
from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Then the calcium ion Ans. (b) : Muscular dystrophy and paralysis are the
trigger muscle contraction cycle by binding to the symptoms of neurological disease Lathyrism which is
protein complex troponin, exposing the active-binding caused due the consumption of Lathyrus sativus.
site on the action and this enables then myosin molecule • Bone deformation is the symptoms of osteoarthritis.
had to grab and swivel their way along the thin • Asphyxia is a symptoms of asthma which brings
filaments. This is driving force of muscle contraction. shortness of breath or difficulty in breath.
Magnesium ion also plays a role in regulation muscle
• Cardiac arrest happens because of abnormal
contraction.
breathing of heart.
313. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli
in sustained muscle contraction is known as 317. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle,
(a) Tonus (b) Spasm mostly due to genetic disorder occurs in
(c) Fatigue (d) Tetanus (a) myasthenia gravis (b) muscular dystrophy
NEET-2016 Phase-I (c) tetany (d) osteoporosis
Ans. (d) : Lack of relaxation between successive AP EAMCET-2011
stimuli in sustained muscles contraction is known as Ans. (b) : Muscular dystrophy is group of muscle
tetanus. diseases marked by weakness and wasting of selected
• Tetanus- Sustained muscles contraction in response muscles in which there is a recognisable pattern of
to successive stimuli. inheritance. The affected muscle fibers degenerate and
• Tonus- Low level activity of muscles at rest to are replaced by fatty tissue. The muscular dystrophies
maintain posture. are classified according to the patient's at onset
• Spasm- Sudden involuntary muscle contraction. distribution of the weakness, the progression of the
• Fatigue- Decline in muscle activity. disease and the mode of inheritance. Isolated cases may
occur as a result of gene mutation.
314. Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of
(a) Tetany (b) Anaemia 318. Osteomalacia is a disease caused by the
deficiency of
(c) Angina pectoris (d) Gout
(a) calciferol (b) retinol
(c) tocopherol (d) phylloquinone
Ans. (a) : Tetany is usually caused by a reduction in the
WB JEE-2009
blood calcium level, which may be due to underactive
parathyroid glands, rickets, or alkalosis. Ans. (a) : Osteomalacia is a disease caused by the
Anaemia - Anaemia is a condition in which the blood deficiency of calciferol. In this disorder "bones
doesn't have enough healthy red blood cells. Iron play softening" in adult that is usually due to deficiency of
important role in R.B.C formation. vitamin D.
319. A disease associated with pain and swelling is 324. Gout is a disease that affects the joints and
(a) Arthritis (b) Pagets disease leads to arthritis. It is associated with
(c) Glaucoma (d) Homers syndrome abnormality of
BCECE-2011 (a) pyrimidine metabolism
(b) purine metabolism
Ans. (a) : Inflammation of one or more joints causing
pain and stiffness is called arthritis. (c) fat metabolism
(d) protein metabolism
320. Pannus formation occurs in
Manipal-2015
(a) gout (b) rheumatoid arthritis
Ans. (b) : Gaut is a disease that affects the joints and
(c) osteoporosis (d) osteoarthritis
leads to arthritis. It is associated with abnormality of
Tripura JEE-2018 purine metabolism.
Ans. (b) : Pannus formation occurs in rheumatoid 325. Deficiency of calciferol causes:
arthritis. Pannus is a type of extra growth in joints that (a) scurvy (b) malaria
can cause pain, swelling and damage bones. (c) leukemia (d) rickets
321. In myasthenia gravis, acetylcholine Haryana PMT-1999
(a) receptors on motor end plate are reduced Ans. (d) : Deficiency of calciferal causes rickets in
(b) secretion from nerve terminals is reduced children and osteomalacia in adults and possibly
(c) esterase activity is inhibited contributes to osteoparasis.
(d) secretion from nerve terminals is enhanced Scurvy- Deficiency of vitamin C
AMU-2010 Leukemia- is a cancer of blood forming tissues
Ans. (a) : In myasthenia gravis, acetylcholine receptors including bone marrow.
on motor end plate are reduced. Myasthenia gravis Malaria- A disease caused by a plasmodium parasite,
(MG) is a relatively rare acquired, autoimmune disorder transmitted by the bite of infected mosquitoes.
caused by an antibody-mediated blockade of 326. Both gout and kidney stone formation is caused
neuromuscular transmission resulting in skeletal muscle by
weakness and rapid muscle fatigue. The autoimmune (a) Calcium oxalate (b) Uric acid
attack occurs when autoantibodies form against the (c) Creatinine (d) Potassium chloride
nicotinic acetylcholine postsynaptic receptors at the KVPY SA-2014
neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles. Ans. (b) : Both Gout and kidney stone formation is
322. Duchenne muscular dystrophy, a sex-linked caused by uric acid. Gout develops when the body has
inheritance, is characterized by high levels of uric acid, a normal waste product this
(a) sex ratio disorder known as hyperuricemia.
(b) wasting away of muscles 327. Lathyrism due to the consumption of khesari
(c) inevitable death dal is characterised by
(d) all of the above (a) skeletal deformation and thinning of collagen
AMU-1999 fibers
(b) skeletal abnormalities, diabetes mellitus and
Ans. (d) : Duchenne muscular dystrophy, a sex linked
reproductive failure
inheritance is characterized by- sex ratio disorder,
washing away of muscles and inevitable death. Because (c) retarded growth, precious puberty and renal
gene that can carry a DMD causing mutation is an X dysfunction
chromosome. DMD is recessive. DMD is inherited as (d) cardiovascular abnormalities, mental
an X-linked disease. X-linked genetic disorders are retardation and delayed puberty
conditions caused by an abnormal gene on the X VMMC-2015
chromosome and manifest mostly in males. Females Ans. (a) : Lathyrism is a condition that is caused by
that have a defective gene present on one of their X eating Lathyrus sativus (also known as grass pea,
chromosomes are carriers for that disorder. chicking pea, khesari dal). It is characterized by skeletal
323. Osteomalacia occurs due to the deficiency of deformities and thinning of collagen fibers resulting in
damage to the bone and the other collagen fibers
(a) vitamin-A (b) vitamin-B
especially mesenchymal tissues.
(c) vitamin-C (d) vitamin-D
328. The bones of old people become hard land
UP CPMT-2001
brittle due to deposition of
Ans. (d) : Osteomalacia occurs due to the deficiency of
(a) calcium (b) potassium
vitamin D. It occurs due to the improper metabolism of
vitamin D and phosphates. The bone demineralization (c) sodium (d) carbon
in osteomalacia is due to the deficiency of vitamin D. Uttarakhand PMT-2011
Osteomalacia is a significant softening of your bones, Ans. (a) : The bones of old people become hard and
caused by severe vitamin D deficiency. brittle due to the deposition of calcium.
329. Match the following columns and select the (b) A low level of progesterone causes
correct option : osteoporosis in old people
Column–I Column–II (c) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints
A. Gout i Decreased levels of causes their inflammation
Estrogen (d) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic
B. Osteoporosis ii Low Ca++ ions in vertebrae
the blood NEET-2013
C. Tetany iii Accumulation of Ans. (c) : The correct statement with respect to
locomotion in humans is accumulation of uric acid
uric acid crystals crystals in joints causes their inflammation. Gout is a
D. Muscular iv Auto immune condition cuased by the accumulation of uric acid in the
Dystrophy disorder form of crystals at the site of joints, which causes
v Genetic disorder inflammation and joint pain.
(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) 333. Abnormal growth of the bones especially of the
(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) face bones leads to
(c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(v) (a) Acromegaly (b) Cushing's syndrome
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(v), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii) (c) Dwarfism (d) Goiter
NEET-2020 Phase-II AP EAPCET-12.07.2022 Shift-I
Ans. (c) Ans. (a) : Abnormal growth of the bones especially of
the face bones leads to acromegaly. Acromegaly is a
(A) Gout (iii) Accumulation of uric
hormonal disorder that develops when your pituitary
acid crystals gland produces too much growth hormone during
(B) osteoporosis (i) Decreased levels of adulthood. When you have too much growth hormone,
estrogen your bones increases in size.
(C) Tetany (ii) Low Ca++ ions in the 334. Select the correct combination of statements
blood regarding Myasthenia gravis
(D) muscular (v) Genetic disorder (I) It is an auto immune disorder.
dystrophy (II) It causes insufficient acetylcholine binding
330. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal that effects muscular contraction.
system, may occur due to (III) Antibodies are developed against
(a) Junction leading to fatigue acetylcholine.
(b) high concentration of ca++ and Na++ (IV) Antibodies are developed against
(c) decreased level of estrogen acetylcholine receptors.
(d) accumulation of uric acid leading to (V). It causes drooping of eyelids.
inflammation of joints (a) I, III, IV, V (b) I, III, V, II
NEET-2016 Phase-II (c) I, II, IV, V (d) II, III, IV, V
Ans. (c) : Osteoporosis, is an age related disorder of JIPMER-2017
skeletal system caused due to weakening of bone by Ans. (c) : It is an auto immune disorder. Antibodies are
decreased Ca++ and estrogen levels. developed against actylcholine receptors in Myasthenia
Estrogen helps to regulate bone cells called osteoclasts gravis. It causes insufficient acetylcholine binding that
which are responsible for building new bone. effects muscular contraction. It causes drooping of eyelids.
331. Which of the following muscular disorders is 335. Auto-immune disorder for cholinergic
inherited? receptors is
(a) Muscular dystrophy (b) Myasthenia gravis (a) Rheumatic Heart Disease
(c) Botulism (d) Tetany (b) Multiple Sclerosis
NEET-2019 (c) Rheumatoid Arthritis
Ans. (a) : Muscular dystrophies are inherited, (d) Myasthenia gravis
progressive muscle disorders resulting from defects in SRM JEEE -2017
one or more genes needed for normal muscle structure Ans. (d) : Auto-immune disorder for cholinergic
and function. receptors is Myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis (MG)
• Tetany is muscular strain due to low calcium in body is an autoimmune disease in which anti-acetylcholine
fluid. receptor antibodies (anti-AChR) cause loss of functional
• Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder leading endplate AChR by increasing AChR degradation, and
to paralysis of skeletal muscles. by complement mediated destruction.
• Botulism is rare and dangerous type of food 336. Knock knee disease is due to
poisoning caused by bacteria Clostridium Botulism. (a) deficiency in tyrosine amino acid
332. Select the correct statement with respect to (b) hormonal imbalance
locomotion in humans (c) excess fluoride concentration in water body
(a) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a (d) genetical abnormality in males
fibrous joint AIIMS-1996
Ans. (c) : Knock knee disease is due to excess fluoride Ans. (d) : CAT (computerized axial Tomography) scan,
concentration in water body. Knock knee is a condition also known as CT (computed Tomography) scan , is the
in which the knee bend towards the inside, whereas the biomedical technique used to anglyze skull fractures. It
ankles remain separated. It is also known as Genu utilizes x - rays and computer processing to generate
valgum. Fluoride poisoning or pollution of fluoride
means accumulation of fluoride inside the body, which detailed cross-sectional images of the skull and brain
can cause the deficiency of vitamin D and thus, it might CT scans are particularly useful in diagnosing fractures,
lead to knock knee syndrome. identifying the extent of infury, and determining the
337. Acidic pH muscles is due to - appropriated treatment approach . EEG
(a) Lactic acid (b) CO2 (Electroencephalogram) is a technique used to measure
(c) Arginine (d) Ketones electrical activity in the brain. MRI (Magnetic
AIIMS-26.05.2019 Shift-I Resonance Imaging ) scan and PET ( Positron Emission
Ans. (a) : Acidic pH muscles is due to lactic acid. The Tomography) scan are imaging techniques used for
pH of the normal muscles are alkaline. But if there is different purposes but are not specifically used to
any increase in the rate of lactate production, it will analyze skull fractures.
result in the acidosis of the muscle pH. The internal pH 341. Assertion (A): In old age. bones become more
of the muscles fibers are relatively alkaline in nature. brittle.
Acidic pH of muscle occur due to the accumulation of
lactic acid occurs under the condition of high energy Reason (R): During ageing, the quantity of
demand and insufficient supply of oxygen. organic matter increases in a bone.
• When muscles are making energy anaerobically lactic Options:
acid is created as a biproduct. (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
338. In old age, stiffness of joints is due to the: correct explanation of (A)
(a) Hardening of bones (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(b) Inefficiency of muscles correct explanation of (A)
(c) Decrease in synovial fluid (c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) Enlargement of bones (d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
AIIMS-2015 AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-II
Ans. (c) : In old age stiffness of joints is due to the
decrease in synovial fluid. This fluid is responsible for Ans. (c) : In old age , bones become more brittle, and
lubrication in joints. The principal role of synovial this is due to a decreases in the quantity of organic
fluid is to reduce friction between the articular cartilage matter in the bones, particularly collagen. The reason
of synovial joints during movement. (R) correctly explains the assertion (A) by stating that
Example- The joints between the bones of the fingers during aging the quantity of organic matter increases in
and that between the ulna and the humerus at the elbow a bone, leading to increased brittleness. The decreases
are classic examples. in collagen, which provides flexibility and strength to
the bones, results in the bones becoming more prone to
fractures and less resistant to impact. Therefore, (A) and
(R) are both correct, and (R) is the correct explanation
of (A) ,
342. The main cause of paralysis is
(a) some defect in muscles
(b) complete destruction of sensory nerves
(c) complete destruction of motor nerves
339. Haversian canals occur in (d) None of the above
(a) humerus (b) pubis
CG PMT-2005
(c) scapula (d) clavicle
AIPMT-1989 Ans. (c) : The main cause of paralysis is complete
Ans. (a) : Haversian canals are small tubules on the destruction of motor nerves. Paralysis refers to the loss
exterior of bones, also called cortical areas. This helps of muscle function and control in part or all of the body.
in communication between bone cells. The humerus is • It can be caused by various factors, but the main cause
the bone of the upper arm that connects the shoulder of paralysis is the complete destruction or damage to the
and elbow, and inside it contains the haversian canals, motor nerves that control muscle movement. Motor
which are characteristic of mammalian bones. nerves transmit signals from the brain and spinal cord
340. The biomedical technique used to analyse skull to the muscles , allowing them to contact and produce
fractures is movement. When these motor nerves damaged or
(a) EEG (b) MRI Scan destroyed, the affected muscles lose their ability to
(c) PET Scan (d) CAT Scan receive signals from the nervous system, resulting in
AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-I paralysis.
343. This is diagnosed by the presence of a type of (a) I and II (b) II and IV
IgM: (c) III and IV (d) I and III
(a) Osteoporesis (b) Gout (e) I and IV
(c) Osteoarthritis (d) Rheumatoid arthritis CMC Vellore-2015
BCECE-2015
Ans. (b) : It is an autoimmune disorder. It affecting the
Ans. (d) : Rheumatoid arthritis is diagnosed by the joints of the body mainly, the feet and hand. Body
presence of a type of IgM. Rheumatoid arthritis is an
autoimmune disorder characterized by inflammation of attacks their own cells, the ability to differentiate
the joints. The presence of a specific type of pathogens or foreign molecules from self-cells is lost
immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody called rheumatoid are the main reasons.
factor (RF) is a common diagnostic marker for rheumatoid 347. Match the following
arthritis. RF is an antibody that targets the body's own
tissues, specifically the antibodies against the Fc portion of List-I List-ii
immunoglobulin G (IgG). Its presence in the blood can (p) Uric acid (i) Arthritis
help confirm the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis
crystals in joints
although, it is not present in all cases.
344. Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of (q) Inflammation of (ii) Auto immune
(a) infants due to protein energy malnutrition joints disorder
(b) adults due to protein energy malnutrition (r) Myasthenia (iii) Tetany
(c) adults due to vitamin-D deficiency gravis
(d) infants due to vitamin-K deficiency
(s) Prolonged (iv) Osteoporosis
WB JEE-2011
contraction of
Ans. (c) : Osteomalacia is a bone disorder that primarily
affects adults and is caused by deficiency of vitamin D, muscle
plays a crucial role in calcium and phosphorus. (v) Gout
When there is a deficiency of vitamin D, the body The correct answer is
cannot effectively absorb these minerals, leading to
softening and weakening of the bones. (p) (q) (r) (s)
Infants are more prone to a different condition called (a) (iv) (ii) (i) (v)
rickets, which is also caused by vitamin D deficiency but (b) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
presents with different symptoms Rickets is characterized (c) (i) (iv) (v) (ii)
by impaired bone growth and deformities in children,
whereas osteomalacia refers to the softening. (d) (v) (iv) (iii) (i)
345. Metha Jahar which is useful in rheumatism is TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-I
obtained from Ans. (b) : Uric acid crystals in joints are associated with
(a) Aconitum napellus (b) Colchicum the condition of gout.
(c) Exogonium (d) Licorice Inflammation of joints is a characteristic feature of
WB JEE-2007
arthritis.
Ans. (a) : ''Metha jahar'' (Aconitum) is a traditional
Ayurvedic medicine used in the treatment of Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder
rheumatism and related joint disorders. It is derived characterized by muscle weakness.
from the plant Aconitum napellus, commonly known as Prolonged contraction of muscle is a symptom of
aconite. tetany.
Aconitum napellus is highly toxic and should only be Osteoporosis is characterized by bones.
used under the guidance of a qualified healthcare
professional. 348. Muscle fatigue is due to :
Colchicum, Exogonium and Licorice are not (a) lactic acid (b) citric acid
specifically associated with the traditional medicine (c) Na (d) K
''metha jahar'' or commonly used in the treatment of Manipal-2005
rheumatism.
Ans. (a) : Muscle fatigue occurs due to the
346. Which of the following are the reasons for
accumulation of lactic acid. When the supply of oxygen
rhematoid arthritis? Choose the correct option.
is less and the requirement of energy is high in the body
I. Lymphocytes become more active.
then a high amount of lactic acid is formed. The most
II. Body attack self-cells.
important cause of skeletal muscle fatigue is considered
III. More antibodies are produced in the
as lactic acid accumulation.
body
Muscle fatigue can also occur depending on various factors
IV. The ability to differentiate pathogens
or foreign molecules from self-cells is that include reduced blood flow or small energy reserves
lost. because of improper diet, or metabolic disorder.
349. Match the following with reference to disorders 352. Which one of the following hormones though
of the Muscular and Skeletal system synthesized elsewhere, is stored and released by
the master gland?
List-I List-II (a) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(A) Muscular (I) Inflammation (b) Antidiuretic hormone
dystrophy of joints due (c) Luteinizing hormone
to accumulation of (d) Prolactin
uric acid crystals AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
(B) Tetany (II) Progressive Ans. (b) : Two hormones oxytocin and antidiuretic
degeneration hormone (ADH) are synthesized in the hypothalamus
of skeletal but stored and released by the posterior lobe of pituitary
muscle due to gland.
certain genetic • The anterior lobe of pituitary receives hypothalamic
disorders releasing hormones from the hypothalamus that bind
(C) Myesthenia (III) An autoimmune with receptors on endocrine cells in the anterior
gravis disorder affecting pituitary.
the neuromuscular • The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland develops as
junctions an extension of the hypothalamus.
(D) Gout (IV) A state of 353. The leg of cockroach has the following parts:
prolonged 1. Coxa 2. Femur
contraction of 3. Tarsus 4. Tibia
muscles 5. Trochanter
Identify them form proximal to distal end:
(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) 1→2→5→4→3 (b) 1→5→2→4→3
(a) (II) (III) (IV)(I)
(c) 1→5→2→3→4 (d) 1→3→4→2→5
(b) (II) (IV) (III)(I)
AP EAMCET-2004
(c) (III) (II) (I)
(IV)
(d) (II) (III) (I)(IV) Ans. (b) : The leg of cockroach has following part.
(i) Coxa (ii) Trochanter
TS EAMCET-15.05.2016
(iii) Femur (iv) Tibia
Ans. (b) : The correct match is option (b) (v) Tarsus
(A) Muscular dystrophy - (II) Progressive degeneration
of skeletal muscle due to certain genetic disorders. 354. Which one of the following is categorized as a
(B) Tetany - (IV) A state of prolonged contraction of parasite in true sense ?
muscles. (a) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow's nest
(C) Myasthenia gravis -(III) An autoimmune disorder (b) The female anopheles bites and sucks blood
affecting the neuromuscular junctions. from humans
(D) Gout-(I) Inflammation of joints due to (c) Human foetus developing inside the uterus
accumulation of uric acid crystals. draws nourishment from the mother
(d) Head louse living on the human scalp as well
350. Loss of calcium due to lack of reabsorption as laying eggs on human hair
causes AIPMT (Screening)-2011
(a) Arthritis (b) Osteoporosis
Ans. (d) : Head louse living on the human scalp as well
(c) Myasthenia gravis (d) Muscular dystrophy
as laying eggs on human hair is example of true Parasite
TS EAMCET-12.05.2017 because head louse sucks blood from the scalp and is
Ans. (b) : Loss of calcium due to lack of reabsorption nourished by human blood. They obtain nutrition and
of calcium ion which decrease in bone density and reproduced on human scalp and hair.
weakening of the bones, which is characteristic of They lay eggs which remain attached to human hair
osteoporosis. which hatch and their life cycle continues.
351. The disease that occurs in mature adult human 355. Where did an epidemic bone softening disease
being due to deficiency of calciferol is Itai-ltai occurred first
(a) Keratomalacia (b) Osteomalacia (a) South Korea (b) Japan
(c) Glossitis (d) Pernicious anaemia (c) China (d) Burma
WB JEE-2014 HP CET-2011
Ans. (b) : Osteomalacia is a disease that occurs in BVP-2003
mature adult human beings due to deficiency of Ans. (b) : Itai-Itai disease is caused by cadmium
calciferol, which is another term for vitamin D. Vitamin exposure, produced as a result of human activity related
D is necessary for the absorption and utilization of to industrialization and this condition was first
calcium in the body. Inadequate levels of vitamin D can recognized in Japan in 1960. Itai-Itai disease was
lead to softening and weekend of the bones causing officially recognized in 1968 as the first disease induced
symptoms such as bone muscle weakness, and an by environmental pollution in Japan after legal
increased risk of fractures. proceedings.
05. NEURAL CONTROL AND
COORDINATION
5. Brainstem of human brain consists of:
A. Neural System (a) Thalamus, Hypothalamus and Corpora
quadrigemina
1. Choose the correct statement among the
(b) Amygdala, Hippocampus and Corpus Callosum
following
(c) Mid-brain, Pons and Medulla Oblongata
(a) A group of cell bodies in the central nervous
(d) Forebrain, Cerebellum and Pons
system is called nucleus
(b) A group of cell bodies in peripheral nervous
system is called nucleus Ans. (c) : Brainstem of human brain consist of three
sections in descending order: the mid-brain, pons, and
(c) A group of cell bodies in the central nervous medulla oblongata. The brainstem is the structure that
system is called ganglion connects the cerebellum of the brain to the spinal cord
(d) Group of axon in peripheral nervous system is and cerebellum. Amygdala and hippocampus form a
called tracts. complex structure called the limbic system. Hindbrain
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-I comprises pons, cerebellum and medulla.
Ans. (a) : A group of cell bodies in the central nervous 6. The Parts of human brain that helps in
system is called a nucleus. The cell bodies of neurons in regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of
the central nervous system are found in clusters called excitement, pleasure, rage, fear etc. are :
nuclei. These nuclei are responsible for specific (a) Corpus callosum and thalamus
function such as processing sensory information or (b) Limbic system and hypothalamus
controlling movement. (c) Corpora quadrigemina and hippocampus
2. If a person gets ataxia with an accident, the (d) Brian stem and epithalamus
damaged part of the brain is NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
(a) Pons Varolii (b) Cerebellum Ans. (b) : The inner part of the cerebral hemispheres
(c) Cerebrum (d) Medulla oblongata and group of associated deep structures like amygdala,
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II hippocampus etc. from a complex structure called the
limbic lobe or limbic system.
Ans. (b) : The damaged part of the brain in ataxia is the • Along with the hypothalamus, it is involved in the
cerebellum. The cerebellum is a small walnut-shaped regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of emotional
structure located at the back of the brain. It is reactions (excitement, pleasure, rage and fear) and
responsible for co-ordinating movement, balance and motivation.
posture. When the cerebellum is damaged, it can cause 7. Match List I with List II with respect to
problems with walking talking and controlling eye human eye.
movement.
List I List II
3. The enzyme present in sweat, saliva and tears A. Fovea I. Visible coloured
is portion of eye that
(a) Lysozyme (b) Granzyme regulates diameter of
(c) Trypsin (d) Integrase pupil
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II B. Iris II. External layer of eye
Ans. (a) : Lysozyme is an enzyme that breaks down formed of dense
peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls. Lysozymes connective tissue.
is found in tears, saliva, sweat and other body fluids. It C. Blind spot III. Point of greatest
helps to protect the body from infection by bacteria. visual acuity or
4. Which cells of nervous system are involved in resolution.
the formation of blood brain barrier? D. Selera IV. Point where optic
(a) Schwann cells (b) Astrocytes nerve leaves the
eyeball and
(c) Ependymal cells (d) Microglia photoreceptor cells
TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I are absent.
Ans. (b) : The blood brain barrier is a selective barrier that Choose the correct answer from the options
seperates the blood from the brain. It is formed by astrocyte. given below :
Astrocyte end-feet are projections of astrocytes that (a) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
ensheathe the endothelial cells. They help to maintain (b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
the tight junction between the endothelial cells and (c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
prevent the passage of harmful substances into the (d) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
brain. NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
Neural Control and Coordination 179 YCT
Ans. (b) : The fovea centralis is located in the centre of 11. Lipofuscin granules are found in:
the macula lutea, a small, flat spot located exactly in the (a) Nerve cell (b) Cardiac muscle
centre of the posterior portion of the retina (c) Red muscle (d) Cartilage
• As the fovea is responsible for high-acuity vision it is HP CET-2011 / VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004
densely saturated with cone photoreceptors. Ans. (a) : Lipofuscin granules are typically found in
• The iris is the coloured part of the eye that surrounds nerve cells and are commonly known as "age pigment'.
the pupil. It regulates the amount of light that enters They are considered as "wear and tear'' product as they
the eye. accumulate cellular waste or aging cells.
• The blind spot is a region at the back of the eye 12. Nissl's granules could be seen in
where the optic nerve exits the eye on its way to the (a) Bone cells (b) Gland cells
brain. At this spot no image is formed due to the (c) Myofibrils (d) Neurons
absence of photoreceptor cells, i.e. rods and cones. Haryana PMT-2011
• The Sclera is the external layer of the wall of the Ans. (d) : Nissl's granules are found in neurons. Nissl
eyeball. It is made up of dense connective tissue. It granules are also called as Nissl bodies or tigroid
differentiated into the cornea in the anterior part of the bodies. They are made up of rough endoplasmic
eye. It is mostly made up of collagen and elastic fibres. reticulum and ribosomes. They are found in the cell
8. Intercellular communication in multicellular body of neurons and are involved in protein synthesis.
organism occurs through 13. When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not
(a) Digestive system only conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane
(b) Respiratory system only is :
(c) Nervous system only (a) Comparatively more permeable of K+ ions
(d) Both nervous and endocrine system and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
UP CPMT-2004 (b) Comparatively more permeable of Na+ ions
Ans. (d) : Intercellular communication in multicellular and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
organism occurs through both the nervous and (c) Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
endocrine system. The nervous system uses electrical (d) Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
signals called nerve impulses to communicate between AIPMT (Screening)-2011
cells. The endocrine system uses hormones which are Ans. (a) : The axonal membrane is comparatively more
chemical messengers that are released into the blood permeable to potassium ions (K+) & and nearly
stream and travel to target cells. impermeable to sodium ions (Na+). This is because the
9. First genetically modified plant commercially concentration of potassium ions is higher inside the
released in India is neuron than outside, while the concentration of sodium
(a) Golden rice (b) Slow ripening tomato ions is higher outside of neuron than inside. The
(c) Bt brinjal (d) Bt cotton difference in concentration creates a potential difference
WB JEE-2010 across the membrane.
Ans. (d) : First genetically modified Indian plant is Bt 14. Cerebral hemispheres of rat are connected by
cotton. This has been developed by MAHYCO (a) Corpus luteum (b) Corpus callosum
(Maharashtra hybrid seeds company) in collaboration (c) Corpus albicans (d) Corpus spongiosum
with the American company, Monsanto biotech ltd. It AMU-2007
was released in 2002. Bt cotton is a type of cotton that Ans. (b) : Cerebral hemispheres of rat are connected by
has been genetically modified to produce a toxin that corpus callosum.
kills the bollworm, a major pest of cotton.
Corpus callosum – The corpus callosum is the
10. Which one of the following statements is primary commissural region of the brain consisting of
correct? white matter tracts that connect the left and right
(a) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not cerebral hemisphere.
vice versa Function – The two hemisphere in brain are connected
(b) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and by a thick bundle of nerve fibres called the corpus
nervous system regulates endocrine glands callosum that ensures both sides of the brain can
(c) Neither hormones control neural activity nor communicate and send signals to each other.
the neurons control endocrine activity Corpus Luteum – The corpus luteum is a vital yet
(d) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity but temporary organ that plays a crucial role in fertility
not vice versa during the luteal phase. It is an endocrine structure in
JCECE-2009 female existing within the ovary once the ovarian
Ans. (a) : The endocrine system secretes hormones into follicle has released a mature ovum during ovulation.
blood-stream. These hormones travel to target cells and 15. Study the following statements:
regulate metabolism, growth, and reproduction the Statement I: Bundle of muscle fibres is called a
nervous system transmit signals throughout the body. fascicle.
Neurons can indirectly regulate endocrine activity by Statement II: Ependymal cells of nervous tissue
releasing neurotransmitters that signal to endocrine develop from mesoderm.
glands. The correct option among the following is
(a) Both statements I and II are correct Ans. (a) : The axon of a neuron is covered by fatty
(b) Statement I is correct and statement II is wrong sheath called as the myelin sheath. Myelin sheath is
(c) Statement I is wrong and statement II is correct made up of Schwann cells which are present on the
(d) Both statements I and II are wrong axon of a neuron. They wrap around the axon and form
TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-II a myelin sheath, which helps to insulate the axon and
Ans. (b) : Statement I is correct and statement II is speed up the conduction of nerve impulses.
wrong. 20. Sympathetic nervous system induces
• Fascicles are the basic unit of organization of skeletal (a) Heart beat
muscle. These cells are responsible for producing and (b) Secretion of digestive juice
circulating cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). (c) Secretion of saliva
• Ependymal cells are a type of glial cell that lines the (d) All of the above
ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the Punjab MET-2010
spinal cord. They develop from the ectoderm, which
is the outermost layer of the embryo. Ans. (a) : The sympathetic nervous system induces
heart beat, secretion of saliva, and many other responses
16. You are watching a horror movie and you
that prepare the body for a fight-or-flight response.
notice your heart is beating fast and mouth is
dry. It is because of The parasympathetic nervous system, is responsible for
(a) fight and flight response calming the body down and promoting digestion. It
(b) autonomic nervous system does this by slowing down the heart rate, relaxing the
(c) sympathetic nervous system muscles and stimulating the secretion of digestive juice.
(d) para sympathetic nervous system
(e) Both (a) and (c) B. Neural system of Human
CMC Vellore-2008
21. The produce of cellular wear and tear that
Ans. (e) : Normal heart rate is usually stated as 60 to accumulate in the cyton of a neuron are termed
100 beats per minute slower than 60 is brady cardia (a) Nissl bodies
(slow heart), faster that 100 is tachycardia (fast heart).
(b) Lipofuscin grannules
• Heart rate (or pulse rate) is the frequency of the heart
beat measured by the number of contraction of the heart (c) Terminal boutons
per minute. (d) Neuro fibrils
Sympathetic Nervous System– Sympathetic nervous TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
system is a network of nervous that help body activate Ans. (b) : Lipofuscin grannules are the products of
it's fight or flight response. This system activity increase cellular wear and tear that accumulate in the cyton of
when you are stressed in danger or physically active. neuron. They are also known as age pigment or residual
17. Choose the wrong statement with reference to bodies. They are made up of lipid and protein deposits
smooth muscles that are not broken down by cell. The accumulation of
(a) Myofibrils show alternate dark and light lipofuscin grannules is a sign of aging and can lead to
bands impaired neuronal function.
(b) They are spindle shaped uninucleate cells 22. Assertion (A) : The alkaline cerebrospinal fluid
(c) Their contractions are under the control of is recycled four times per day.
autonomous nervous system Reason (R) : Recycling of cerebrospinal fluid
(d) They exhibit prolonged contractions facilitates the removal of
TS EAMCET-2015 metabolites and toxins from
Ans. (a) : Smooth muscle contains thick and thin brain.
filament that do not arrange into sarcomeres, resulting is (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
a non-striated pattern. On microscopic examination, it explanation of A.
appears homogenous. It contains actin & myosin which (b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
involved in muscle contraction. correct explanation of A
18. Vertebrate brain differentiates from (c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(a) Endoderm (b) Mesoderm (d) A is incorrect but R is correct
(c) Ectoderm (d) Blastoderm AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-I
J&K CET-2011 Ans. (a) : Cerebrospinal fluid is a clear, colorless fluid
Ans. (c) : Vertebrate brain differentiates from ectoderm. that surrounds and cushions the brain and spinal cord. It
Brain & spinal cord are formed from the neural tube is produced by the choroid plexus, which is a network
(nerve cord) which develops from the ectoderm after the of blood vessels located in the ventricles of the brain.
gastrula stage of embryo. CSF is constantly being produced and reabsorbed, and it
19. Which of the following part of a neuron is is recycled about four times per day.
covered by fatty sheath? The recycling of CSF is important for removing waste
(a) Axon (b) Cyton products from the brain CSF helps of flush out toxins
(c) Dendrite (d) Node of Ranvier and metabolites that can build up in the brain and cause
Manipal-2008 damage.
23. Terminal ends of post gangalionic fibres of (d) They arise from thoracolumbar region of
parasympathetic neural system ot effector spinal cord form ganglia very close to effector
organ produce organ
(a) Adrenalin (b) Epinephrine WB JEE-2012
(c) Sympathin (d) Acetyl choline Ans. (a) : The origin of sympathetic nerve fibers and
TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-II their ganglia arises from thoracolumber region of the
Ans. (d) : The terminal ends of post gangalionic fibers spinal cord and form ganglia just beside the vertebral
of the parasympathetic neural system releases column. The sympathetic nervous system is a part of the
acetylcholine. autonomic nervous system that is responsible for the
24. Arrange in sequence the following events body’s “fight or flight” response.
related to mechanism of hearing
28. The number of spinal nerves in human is
A. Hair cells bend and press against Tectorial
membrane. (a) 10 pairs (b) 12 pairs
B. The inductionof ripple in basilar membrane. (c) 43 pairs (d) 31 pairs
C. Eardrum vibrates in response to sound waves. WB JEE-2012
D. Impulses transmitted to brain. Ans. (d) : The number of spinal nerves in human is 31
E. Transmission of vibrations through ear pairs. There are 8 cervical spinal nerves, 12 thoracic
osscicles. spinal nerves, 5 lumbar spinal nerves, 5 sacral spinal
(a) C, E, B, A, D (b) B, A, D, E, C nerves, and 1 coccygeal spinal nerve. Each pair of
(c) D, C, B, E, A (d) C, B, E, D, A spinal nerves exists the spinal cord through the
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II intervertebral foramen between two adjacent vertebrae.
Ans. (a) : The sequence of events is– 29. Third and fourth ventricles of the brain are
1. Eardrum vibrates in response to sound waves. connected by
2. Transmission of vibrations through ear osscicles. (a) Aqueduct of Sylvious
3. The inductionof ripple in basilar membrane. (b) Foramen of Monro
4. Hair cells bend and press against Tectorial membrane. (c) Foramen of Magnum
5. Impulses transmitted to brain. (d) Corpus callosum
25. Facial nerve is WB JEE-2012
(a) Sensory (b) Motor Ans. (a) : The third and fourth ventricles of the brain
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these are connected by the aqueduct of sylvious. It is also
VMMC-2011 known as the cerebral aqueduct. This narrow canal runs
Ans. (c) : The facial nerve associated both motor and through the mid-brain and allow cerebrospinal fluid to
sensory fibers. Motor axon innervate the muscles of flow between the two ventricles.
facial expression and the stapedius muscle and the 30. Vagus nerve is a
sensory fibers that provide taste sensation from the (a) Mixed X cranial nerve
anterior two-thirds of the tongue and the skin of the
external ear canal. (b) Mixed XI cranial nerve
(c) Mixed X thoracic nerve
26. Which foramen is a paired in mammalian
brain? (d) Sensory X cranial nerve
(a) Foramen of Magendie WB JEE-2012
(b) Foramen of Luschka Ans. (a) : The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) is largest
(c) Foramen of Monro cranial nerve into the body, containing both motor and
(d) Interventricular foramen sensory functions in both the afferent and different
VMMC-2011 regards. The vagus nerve has its origin in the medulla
Ans. (b) :Foramen of Luschka is a paired in mammalian oblongata and exist the shall via the jugular foramen.
brain. They are located on the sides of the fourth There are two ganglia on the vagus nerve.
ventricle in the mammalian brain. These foramen allow 31. Comprehension of spoken and written words
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to flow from the ventricles take place in the region of
into the subarachnoid space. (a) Association area (b) Motor area
27. Identify the origin of sympathetic nerve fibres (c) Wernickes area (d) Brocas area
and the location of their ganglia. WB JEE-2010
(a) They arise from thoracolumbar region of
spinal cord and form ganglia just beside the Ans. (c) : Comprehension of spoken and written word
vertebral column take place in Wernicke's area. Wernicke's area is a
(b) They arise from thoracocervical region of region located in the temporal lobe on the left side of
spinal cord and form ganglia just beside the the brain and is responsible for the comprehension of
vertebral column speech Wernicke's area is also called Wernicke's
(c) They arise from cranio-sacral region of spinal Wernicke's speech, area is one of two parts of the
cord and form ganglia very close to effector cerebral core cortex linked to speech. It is involved in
organ the understanding of written and spoken language.
32. Which one of the following cranial nerves is 37. The two components of autonomous nervous
carrying the nerve fibres originating from the system have antagonistic actions. But in certain
Edinger- Westphal nucleus? cases their effects are mutually helpful. Which
(a) Oculomotor (b) Trochlear of the following statement is correct?
(c) Abducens (d) Vagus (a) At rest, the control of heart beat is not by the
WB JEE-2010 vagus nerve
Ans. (a) : The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is a (b) During exercise the sympathetic control
parasympathetic nucleus located in the mid-brain. It decreases
gives rise to the pre-ganglionic fibres that innervate the (c) During exercise the parasympathetic control
ciliary muscle and the constrictor pupillae muscle of the decreases
eye. The oculomotor nerve is the third cranial nerve and (d) Stimulation of sympathetic system results in
it carries these preganglionic fibers to the eye. constriction of the pupil
33. How many laminae are present in the grey KVPY SB & SX-2015
matter of spinal cord? Ans. (c) : During exercise, the parasympathetic control
(a) Four (b) Six decreases. During exercise, sympathetic control
(c) Eight (d) Ten increases to prepare the body for physical activity, and
WB JEE-2010 the parasympathetic control decreases. This allows for
Ans. (d) : There are ten laminae present in the gray the "fight - or -flight'' response, which leads to increased
matter of the spinal cord. They are indicated by roman heart rate, dilation of airways, and more blood flow to
numerals, from I to X. The laminae are arranged in a the muscles. The sympathetic nervous system
columnar fashion, with each lamina having a different dominates during exercise to meet the body's increased
function. demands.
Functions:– 38. Which are the longest cells in the body of man?
• Receiving sensory input from the body. (a) Muscle cells of legs (b) Bone cells
• Integrating sensory input from generating motor (c) Nerve cells (d) None of the above
output. MGIMS Wardha-2007
• Controlling reflexes. Ans. (c) : Nerve cells are the longest cells in the body
• Regulating autonomic functions. of a man. These neurons are up to 1-1.5 meter in length
34. Which of the following is not related to the and can extend from the spinal cord to the toes, making
autonomic nervous system? them some of the longest single cells.
(a) Peristalsis (b) Digestion 39. Spot out the parasympathetic effect:
(c) Excretion (d) Memory and learning (a) increasing blood pressure
WB JEE-2010 (b) dilating pupil
Ans. (d) : Memory and learning are functions of the (c) secretion of digestive juice
central nervous system (CNS), which includes the brain (d) increasing cardiac output
and spinal cord. JIPMER-1998
• Peristalsis, digestion and excretion all are functions Ans. (c) : The parasympathetic nervous system is
that are regulated by the autonomic nervous system. responsible for the ''rest and digest response'' which
35. Which is not a part of hindbrain? includes secretion of digestive juice.
(a) Thalamus (b) Cerebellum While sympathetic nervous system, which is
(c) Pons (d) Medulla responsible for ''fight or flight response'' sympathetic
Rajasthan PMT-2004 nervous system increases blood pressure, dilates the
pupil, and increases cardiac output.
Ans. (a) : The hind brain is composed of
• Cerebellum 40. The innermost meninges surrounding the
central nervous system in frog and man
• Medulla respectively are:
• Pons (a) Piamater and piamater
The thalamus is situated between the cerebral cortex and (b) Prachnoid and piamater
midbrain. Therefore it is not a part of the hind brain. (c) Piamater and duramater
36. Sympathetic nervous system is also known as (d) Arachnoid and duramater
(a) Cranial system JIPMER-1998
(b) Craniosacral system Ans. (a) : The innermost meninges surrounding the
(c) Thoracolumbar system central nervous system in frog and man are pia mater. It
(d) None of these is a delicated, vascular membrane that closely adheres
UP CPMT-2010 to the surface of the brain and spinal cord. It contains
Ans. (c) : Sympathetic nervous system is also known as blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the
thoracolumbar. Sympathetic (or thoracolumbar) brain and spinal cord.
subdivision associated with nervous located in the 41. Which of the following is a part of our brain?
spinal grey between the thoracic and the upper lumbar (a) Corpora allata
levels. (b) Corpora adiposa
(c) Corpora bigemina 46. The junction between the axon of one neuron
(d) Corpora quadrigemina and the dendrite of the next is called
Karnataka CET-2002 (a) a joint (b) a synapse
Ans. (d) : The corpora quadrigemina are four rounded (c) constant bridge (d) junction point
structures in the midbrain. They consists of the superior JIPMER-2011 / Punjab MET-2010 / BCECE-2004
colliculi, involved in visual functions and eye UP CPMT-2001 / JIPMER-1995
movements, and the inferior collicule, responsible for Ans. (b) : The junction between the axon of one neuron
auditory processing. These structures help process and the dendrite (or soma) of the next neuron is called
visual and auditory information and coordinate synapse. It is a specialized structure where the
appropriate responses. transmission of information occurs from one neuron to
42. The ventricles of the brain and the spinal canal another through the release and reception of chemical
of man contain a fluid termed the transmitters.
(a) Lymph 47. The 3rd, 6th and 11th cranial nerves are
(b) Pyrenoid (a) optic, facial and spinal nerves
(c) Volutin (b) oculomotor, trigeminal and spinal
(d) Cerebro-spinal fluid (c) trigeminal, abducens and vagus
JIPMER-1999 (d) oculomotor, abducens and spinal accessory
UP CPMT-2001
Ans. (d) : Cerebrospinal fluid is an ultra-filtrate of
plasma contained within the ventricles of the brain and Ans. (d) : The 3rd, 6th and 11th cranial nerves are
the subarachnoid spaces of the cranium and spine . It oculomotor, abducens and spinal accessory.
perform vital functions including providing • There are a total of 12 cranial nerves, each serving
nourishment, waste removal and protection to the brain. different functions in the head and neck region.
Adult CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) volume is estimated 48. The purely motor cranial nerve is:
150 ml. with a distribution of 125 ml, within the (a) Facial (b) Vagus
subarachnoid spaces and 25 ml within the ventricles. (c) Trigeminal (d) Spinal accessory
43. In the human brain, the corpora Manipal-2000
quadriogemina represents the: Ans. (d) : The purely motor cranial nerve, also known
(a) Fore brain (b) Mid brain as the 11th cranial nerve, is the spinal accessory nerve
(c) Hind brain (d) Spinal cord (cranial nerve XI). It is unique among the cranial nerves
JIPMER-1999 because it primarily functions as a motor nerve,
Ans. (b) : The quadrigeminal bodies, also known as the controlling specific muscles rather than carrying
quadrigeminal plate or corpora quadrigemina, are sensory information.
located in the mid-brain of the human brain. They are 49. The following cells cannot be grown under
responsible for relaying visuals and auditory tissue culture conditions
information to higher brain centers for processing. (a) HeLa cells (b) Leucocytes
44. Which of the following is not an effect of the (c) Kidney cells (d) Nerve cells
sympathetic nervous system? CG PMT-2007
(a) Dilation of pupil Ans. (d) : Tissue culture is a technique used in biology
(b) Inhibition of peristalsis to grow the cells in in-vitro condition (outside of the
(c) Elevation of blood pressure body) by preparing a suitable culture media. Neurons
(d) Stimulation for saliva secretion are post-mitotic cells which means they are matured and
do not further divide.
AMU-2010
HeLa name is taken from the patient Henrietta Lacks-
Ans. (d) : The sympathetic nervous system is HeLa cells are used to test whether a cell line in
responsible for the "fight or flight'' response, which cancerous or not.
prepares the body for stressful situations. It causes
50. Main function of cerebellum is:
various physiological changes such as dilating the
pupils, inhibiting peristalsis (digestive movement), and (a) Balancing (b) Sight
elevating blood pressure. However, it does not stimulate (c) Hearing (d) Memory
saliva secretion; that is controlled by the CG PMT-2006 / Uttarakhand-2005
parasympathetic nervous system. Ans. (a) : The main function of cerebellum is
balancing. The cerebellum is the part of brain located at
45. EEG is done to detect:
the back of the brain, below the cerebrum. It is
(a) Heat disorders (b) Brain disorders responsible for coordinating voluntary movements,
(c) Liver disorders (d) None of the above maintaining balance and posture.
HP CET-2013 Hearing, sighting and memory are all function of the
VMMC-2003 cerebrum, which is the largest part of the brain.
Ans. (b) : An EEG (electro encephalogram) is a 51. Schwann cell is found around :
procedure that detects abnormalities in our brain waves (a) Axon (b) Cyton
or in the electrical activity of your brain. The use of (c) Dendrite (d) Dendron
EEG is to detect and investigate epilepsy a condition BVP-2011 / CG PMT-2011
that causes repeated seizures. Haryana PMT-2005 / JIPMER-2005
Ans. (a) : Schwann cells are present on the axon of a Ans. (d) : During adolescence, the amygdala, which is
neuron. They wrap around the axon and form a myelin responsible for emotions and impulsivity, develops
sheath, which helps to insulate the axon and speed up quicker than other brain regions. This imbalance might
the conduction of nerve impulses. contribute to increased risk-taking behavior in
52. Nervous tissues are derived from __________ teenagers, since they may act on emotions without fully
(a) Mesoderm considering its consequences.
(b) Endoderm 56. Lateral ventricles of cerebral hemispheres
(c) Ectoderm communicate with third ventricle through
(d) None of these options are correct _____.
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-II (a) Foramen ovale (b) Foramen of Monro
(c) Foramen magnum (d) Hypophyseal fossa
Ans. (c) : Nervous tissues are derived from ectoderm.
Germ layers
Ans. (b) : The lateral ventricles of the cerebral
(i) Ectoderm Outermost layer, form during hemispheres communicate with the third ventricle through
embryonic development. It gives the foramen of Monro, which allows the flow of
rise to nervous system, the skin and cerebrospinal fluid between these ventricles in the brain.
the hair.
57. Which of the following group of cranial nerves
(ii) Mesoderm Middle layer, it gives rise to the control eye movements ?
bones, muscles and connective (a) IV, V and VII (b) V, VII and IX
tissues.
(c) I, II and III (d) III, IV and VI
(iii) The innermost layer, it gives rise to MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
Endoderm the lining of the digestive tract, the
respiratory tract, and the urinary Ans. (d) : The cranial nerves that control eye
tract. movements are III, IV and VI.
53. One of the examples of the action of the • The occulomotor nerve (III) controls four of the six
autonomous nervous system is muscles that enable eye movement.
(a) Knee-jerk response • The trochlear movement (IV) controls the superior
(b) Pupillary reflex oblique muscle, which allows eye to move down and out.
(c) Swallowing of food • The abducens nerve (VI) controls the lateral rectus
(d) Peristalsis of the intestine muscle, which allows the eye to move out.
JIPMER-2007 / CG PMT-2006 / AIPMT-2005 • The trigeminal nerve (V) is responsible for the
Ans. (d) : The autonomic nervous system regulates sensation of the face.
involuntary physiological processes including heart rate, • The facial nerve (VII) controls facial expressions.
blood pressure, respiration, digestion and sexual arousal. • The vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) controls hearing
• It contains three anatomically distinct division: and balance.
sympathetic, parasympathetic and enteric. 58. The bundle of nerve fibres is covered by ____
• A reflex action, also known as a reflex, is involuntary and several bundles are covered by _____.
and sustained movement, in response to stimulus. (a) A – endoneurium B – perineurium
• A reflex does not require any thought input. (b) A – perineurium, B – epineurium
• Peristalsis of intestine is related with autonomous (c) A – endoneurium, B – epineurium
nervous system whereas knee-jerk response, pupillary (d) A – epineurium, B – perineurium
reflex and swallowing of food are reflex action. MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
54. Spinal cord is a cylindrical tube with a narrow Ans. (b) : A-perineurium, B-epineurium.
cavity, lined by ependymal cells. This cavity is The individual nerve fibres, within a nerve bundle (nerve
called _______. fascicle) are covered by the perineurium, which is a
(a) Central canal (b) Neural canal protective connective tissue sheath. Several bundles of nerve
(c) Inguinal canal (d) Central sulcus fibers are then covered by the epineurium, a tough outer
MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I connective tissue layer that surrounds the entire nerve.
Ans. (a) : The central canal is a narrow cavity that runs 59. A person has lost his memory in an accident.
through the center of the spinal cord. It is filled with The part of brain most likely to be injured is
cerebrospinal fluid, which helps to protect the spinal ______.
cord from injury. The central canal is lined by (a) Rhombencephalon (b) Rhinencephalon
ependymal cells, which are a type of cells that produce (c) Telencephalon (d) Mesencephalon
and help to circulate cerebrospinal fluid. MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
55. Risk taking behavior in adolescents is thought to Ans. (c) : The telencephalon, which is the largest part of
be caused by _____ part of brain developing the brain, is responsible for various functions, including
faster than other parts during this growth period. memory. If a person loses their memory due to accident, it
(a) Frontal cortex (b) Medulla oblongata is most likely that the telencephalon, particularly areas
(c) Corpus callosum (d) Amygdala involved in memory processing like the hippocampus and
MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I amygdala, could be injured or affected.
60. Which of the following nervous system is called 65. Total number of pairs of cranial nerves in
cranial-sacral out flow? human is
(a) SNS and it is adrenergic (a) 12 (b) 10
(b) PSNS and it is adrenergic (c) 6 (d) 20
(c) SNS and it is cholinergic HP CET-2013 /BCECE-2009/VMMC-2003/BVP-2002
(d) PSNS and it is cholinergic Haryana PMT-2001 / Karnataka CET-2000
BVP-2015 Ans. (a) : The 12 pairs of nerves are-
Ans. (d) : The parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) is (I) Olfactory nerve (smell)
often referred to as the cranial - sacral outflow because its (II) Optic nerves (vision)
preganglionic neurons originate in the cranial and sacral (III) Oculomotor nerves (eye movement)
regions of the spinal cord. It is cholinergic because its
neurotransmitter is acetylcholine. (IV) Trochlear nerves (eye movement)
(V) Trigeminal nerves (sensation in the face and head,
61. Sympathetic nervous system induces: chewing),
(a) Heart beat
(VI) Abducens nerves (eye movement)
(b) Secretion of semen
(VII) Facial nerves (facial expressions, taste)
(c) Secretion of saliva
(VIII) Vestibulecochlear nerves (hearing, balance)
(d) Secretion of digestive juices
Rajasthan PMT-2006,2003 / JIPMER-2011
(IX) Glossopharyngeal nerves (taste, swallowing)
(X) Vagus nerves (innervations of many organs,
Ans. (a) : Sympathetic nervous system increases the
rate and force of heart beat, constricts most blood including the heart, lungs and digestive tract)
vessels, raises the arterial blood pressure dilates the (XI) Accessory nerves (movement of the neck and
pupil, shows down peristaltic movement and relaxes the shoulders
urinary bladder. Rest three functions which is given in (XII) Hypoglossal nerves (movement of the tongue).
options are induced by parasympathetic nerves system. 66. Brain depends on blood for the supply of :
62. Grey matter in central nervous system is (a) Oxygen and glucose
formed of (b) Oxygen and electrolytes
(a) Cell bodies of neuron (c) Oxygen and ATP
(b) Non-medullated nerve fibre (d) ATP and glucose
(c) Medullated nerve fibre BCECE-2003
(d) Both (a) and (b) Ans. (a) : The brain depends on blood for the supply of
CMC Ludhiana -2013 oxygen and glucose. Oxygen is essential for cellular
Ans. (d) : Grey matter in the central nervous system is respiration, and glucose is the primary source of energy
composed of cell bodies and non-myelinated nerve for brain cells.
fibers. Cell bodies are the nuclei of neurons, where
information is processed and sent out to other neuron. 67. Statement A: Due to sudden influx of a large
Non-medulated are not covered in myelin. Myelin is a amount of Na+ towards inside, the plasma
fatty substance that insulates nerve fibers and helps to membrane becomes positively charged on its
speed up the transmission of nerve signals. inner side
Statement R: It is said to be depolarized
63. Lateral funiculi possess ganglia
(a) Sensory (b) Motor (a) A and R both are true
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (b) A is true, R is false
CMC Ludhiana-2007 (c) A and R both are false
Ans. (d) : Lateral funiculi do not possess ganglia. They are (d) A is false, R is true
regions in the spinal cord that contain nerve tracts or bundles GUJCET-2018
of axons, which transmit sensory and motor information Ans. (a) : The sudden influx of a large amount sodium
between different parts of the body and the brain. ion of (Na+) towards inside of the plasma membrane
64. Activity of brain is recorded by : makes the inner side of the membrane positively
(a) ECG (b) EEG charged. This is because sodium ion (Na+) are
(c) MET (d) CT positively charged, and when they move into the cell,
BCECE-2004 they create a more positive charge on the inside of the
membrane. This process is called depolarization.
Ans. (b) : EEG (electroencephalogram) device is used
to measure the electrical activity of human brain. The Depolarization is a necessary step in the transmission of
brain cells communicate with each other through nerve signals. When a nerve cell is stimulated, it
electrical impulses, this process remain active over in depolarizes which causes an electrical signal to be sent
the sleep. The machine that records the patient cardiac down the axon of the cell.
activity is called electrocardiograph (ECG). 68. Read the statements.
MET (metabolic equivalent) is a measure of the energy (A) Preganglionic nerve fibres of III, VII, IX and
used by the body during physical activity. X cranial nerves form part of the
CT (computed Tomography) is medical imaging parasympathetic nervous system.
technique that uses X-rays to create detailed images of (B) V, VII, IX and X cranial nerves are mixed
the inside of the body. nerves.
(C) Trochlear nerves are the largest cranial 71. A sagittal section of human-brain is shown
nerves. here. Identify at least two labels from A-D.
(D) Abducens nerves are motor and originate
from the gasserian ganglia.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) A and D (b) A and B
(c) B and C (d) A and C
AP EAMCET-2008
Ans. (b) : (a) A – Cerebral hemispheres
• The cranial nerves (III , VII, IX and X) contain B – Cerebellum
preganglionic fibers that are involved in the (b) C – Mid brain
parasympathetic nervous system, which regulates rest D – Cerebellum
and digest activities. (c) A – Cerebrum
• The cranial nerves (V, VII, IX and X ) are considered C – Pons
mixed nerves because they contain both sensory and (d) B – Corpus callosum
motor fibers, responsible for carrying information to D – Medulla
and form various regions of the head and neck NEET (Karnataka)-2013
• Trochlear nerves (IV) smallest cranial nerve in terms Ans. (c) :
of the number of fibers it contains. A – Cerebrum.
• Abducens nerve (VI) is motor in function and it B – Thalamus
originates from the brainstem. C – Pons varolii
So, the correct statement are option (b) i.e., A and B. D – Medulla.
69. A person entering an empty room suddenly 72. Neuroglial cells associated with
finds a snake right in front on opening the (a) Heart (b) Kidney
door. Which one of the following is likely to (c) Brain (d) Eyes
happen in his neuro-hormonal control system? AIPMT-1999
(a) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic Ans. (c) : Neuroglial cells, also known as glial cells, are
division of brain a type of non– neuronal cells that provide support and
protection to neurons in the nervous system. They are
(b) Sympathetic nervous system is activated primarily found in the brain and spinal cord.
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine
from adrenal cortex 73. Autonomic nervous system affects
(a) Reflex actions (b) Sensory organs
(c) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
(c) Internal organs (d) None of these
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine
AP EAMCET-2011
from adrenal medulla
JIPMER-2008
(d) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the
Ans. (c): Autonomic nervous system controls and
cleft and transmit a nerve impulse
coordinates the involuntary activities of various internal
AIPMT (Screening)-2012 organs. It functions without conscious control and this
Ans. (c) : A person entering an empty room suddenly system is divisible into two parts.
finds a snake right in front on opening the door, (1) Sympathetic nervous system.
epinephrine and nor epinephrine will be secreted from (2) Para-sympathetic nervous system.
the adrenal medulla. In response to stress of any kind 74. Dilatation of pupil takes place by
and during emergency situations the sympathetic (a) Sympathetic nervous system
nervous system activates the release of epinephrine and (b) Parasympathetic nervous system
nor epinephrine from the medulla of the adrenal gland. (c) Central nervous system
These are called emergency hormones or hormones of (d) Both (a) and (b)
flight or fight. UP CPMT-2006
70. The human hindbrain comprises three parts, Ans. (a): Dilation of the pupil occurs when the smooth
one of which is: cell of the radial muscle controlled by the sympathetic
(a) Cerebellum (b) Hypothalamus nervous system (SNS) dilates.
(c) Spinal cord (d) Corpus callosum (b) Parasympathetic nervous system- It is also
AIPMT (Screening)-2012 referred as the 'rest and digest' system as it function to
conserves the body's natural activity, and relaxes the
Ans. (a) : Brain is the anterior most part of central individual once an emergency has passed.
nervous system. Human brain can be divided into three (c) Central nervous system- It is comprised of the
part- fore brain, midbrain and hindbrain. brain and spinal cord. The three broad functions of the
• Human hindbrain comprises Pons, cerebellum and C.N.S. are to take in sensory information, process
medulla (also called medulla oblongata). information, and send out motor signals.
75. Number of spinal nerves in rabbit is 80. Choose the functions of sympathetic nervous
(a) 27 pairs (b) 31 pairs system
(c) 37 pairs (d) 47 pairs (a) Dilates blood vessel stimulates salivary
UP CPMT-2011 / Rajasthan PMT-2000 secretions
Ans. (c): Number of spinal nerves in rabbit is 37 pairs (b) Constricts bronchi and pupil of eye
and these are divided into 5 groups based on the region (c) Increases heart rate, relaxes bronchi
of back-bone. (d) Decreases heart rate, increases peristalsis
Spinal nerve region Number of pairs AP EAMCET-2014
(i) Cervical 8 Ans. (c) : Sympathetic nervous system responding to
(ii) Thoracic 12 dangerous or stressful situations which increases the speed
of heart rate and relaxes bronchi. It delivers more blood to
(iii) Lumbar 7 areas of our body that help to get out of dangers.
(iv) Sacral 4 81. Sympathetic nerves in mammal arise from:
(v) Coccygeal 6 (a) 3rd, 7th, 9th, 11th cranial nerves
Total 37 pairs (b) Cervical region
76. Which of the following is the part of mid brain (c) Thoraco-lumber region
of rabbit? (d) Sacral region
(a) Diencephalon (b) Cerebrum BVP-2014, 2000
(c) Corpora quadrigemina (d) None of the above Ans.(c): Sympathetic nerves in mammals arise from the
HP CET-2012 / JIPMER-2004 thoraco-lumber region of the spinal cord and it is a
VMMC-2004 / Punjab MET-2003 corresponds to the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae.
Ans. (c) : Rabbit brain is mainly divided into three part. 82. Preganglionic sympathetic fibres are
These are fore brain, mid brain and hind brain. The (a) Synergic (b) Adrenergic
dorsal part of mid brain (mesencephalon) is in the form
of two pairs (four lobed) of spherical optic lobes known (c) Hypergonic (d) Cholinergic
as 'corpora quadrigemina' located behind the pineal AIIMS-1995
body. The two superior colliculi are involved in visual Ans. (d) : Preganglionic sympathetic fibres are
processing and control of eye movements, while the two cholinergic. Sympathetic cholinergic nerves controlled
inferior colliculi are involved in auditory processing. by hypothalamus (thermoregulatory centre) nuclei. It
77. The amount of CSF in the cranial cavity plays an important role in producing cutaneous active
(a) 500 ml (b) 140 ml vasodilation when skin and body core temperature
(c) 1 litre (d) 1.5 ml increase in warm environment.
WB JEE-2011 83. Nissl's bodies are mainly composed of
Ans. (b) : Anterior choroid plexus attached to (a) Proteins and lipids
epithalamus & posterior choroid plexus attached to (b) DNA and RNA
medulla oblongata, which secretes C.S.F (cerebrospinal (c) Free ribosome and RER
fluid). Amount of C.S.F in cranial cavity ≃ 140 ml. (d) Nucleic acids and SER
78. Human cranium has_____ bones. NEET-2018 / BVP-2014 / HP CET-2013
(a) 8 (b) 14 VMMC-2003 / Haryana PMT-2001
(c) 20 (d) None of these AIPMT-2003 / AIPMT-1997
J&K CET-2004 Ans. (c) : Nissl's granules found in the cell body of the
Ans. (a) : Cranial bones are 8 in number (frontal, nerve cell which are composed of rough endoplasmic
reticulum (RER) and free ribosome. It helps in protein
parietal, temporal, occipital, ethmoid & sphenoid). They
synthesis. It is present in cyton but absent in axon.
form the hard protective outer covering cranium for the Nissl's body and chromatin granules are basophilic and
brain. stained by crystal violet. They are more prominent in
79. The largest muscle in the human body is motor neuron than sensory neurons.
(a) Gluteus (b) Stapedius 84. Which of the following structures or regions
(c) Sartorius (d) Masseter is incorrectly paired with its functions?
(a) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
Ans. (a) : The largest muscle in the human body is and cardiovascular
gluteus. It is a large, triangular muscle that extends reflexes.
across the back of the pelvis and upper thigh. The (b) Limbic system : consists of fibre
gluteus maximus is responsible for extending the hip that interconnect
joint and rotating the thigh outward. to the different
• Stapedius: The smallest bone of human body, found in regions of brain
ear. controls movement.
• Sartorius: It is a long, thin muscle that runs down (c) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
the front of the thigh. connecting left and
• Masseter: It is a large muscle that forms the cheek, right cerebral
responsible for chewing. hemispheres.
(d) Hypothalamus : production of 87. Reflex action involves
releasing hormones (a) Spinal cord (b) Cerebellum
and regulation of (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Optic lobe
temperature, hunger JIPMER-2005
and thirst. Ans. (a) : : Reflex actions involve the spinal cord.
NEET-2018 These are automatic responses to stimuli that bypass the
Ans. (b) : The function described for the limbic system brain to ensure quick reactions. When a stimulus is
is incorrect. The limbic system is actually involved in detected by sensory neurons, the information is sent to
emotions, memory and certain motivational behaviors, the spinal cord, which processes the response and
rather than controlling movement. generates a motor output, causing muscles to react
85.Myelin sheath is produced by without requiring conscious thought or involvement of
(a) Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes higher brain centers.
(b) Astrocytes and Schwann Cells
(c) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
(d) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
NEET-2017
Ans. (a) : Myelin sheath is produced by
oligodendrocytes in CNS (Central Nervous System) and
Schwann cells in PNS (Peripheral Nervous System).
88.Given below is a table comparing the effects of

sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous
system for four feature (a-d). Which one
feature is correctly described ?
Feature Sympathetic Parasympathetic
nervous nervous system
86. Which of the following statement is correct for system
node of Ranvier of nerve?
(a) Neurilemma is discontinuous (a) Salivary glands Stimulates Inhibit secretion
secretion
(b) Myelin sheath is discontinuous
(c) Both neurilemma & myelin sheath are (b) Pupil of the eye Enlarge your Constricts
discontinuous pupils
(d) Covered by myelin sheath (c) Heart rate Decreases Increases strength
BVP-2015 heart rate and rate of heart
AIPMT-2002 beat.
Ans. (b) : The myelinated nerve fibers are enveloped (d) Intestinal Stimulates Inhibit
with Schwann cells which form a myelin sheath around peristalsis
the axon. The gaps between two adjacent myelin AIIMS-2006
sheaths are called nodes of Ranvier. This provides Ans. (b) The sympathetic nervous system dilates the
faster or continuous transmission of electrical impulses pupil of the eye, while the parasympathetic nervous
through axon. Thus, myelin sheath is discontinuous. system constrict it.
So, the correct feature is (b) pupil of the eye.
89. One function of parasympathetic nervous
system is
(a) Contraction of hair muscles
(b) Stimulation of sweat glands
(c) Acceleration of heart beat
(d) Constriction of pupil
AIPMT-1990
Ans. (d) : One function of parasympathetic nervous
system is constriction of pupil. Parasympathetic nervous
system involves in conservation of energy and brings
about relaxation, comfort, pleasure etc.
• Contraction of hair muscles – function of SNS.
• Stimulation of sweat glands – function of both
Gaps along the myelin sheath around the axon of PSNS and SNS.
neuron cells, called nodes of Ranvier. • Acceleration of heart beat – function of SNS.
90. Match the following : 93. Postganglionic nerve fibres of sympathetic
Set-I Set-II system are:
A. Astrocytes I. Movement of (a) Adrenergic (b) Cholinergic
cerebrospinal fluid (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
DUMET-2006
B. Ependymal II. Myelin sheath
cells around axons of Ans. (a) : Postganglionic nerve fibers of the
CNS sympathetic nervous system release neurotransmitters
that belong to the adrenergic category. These
C. Oligodendr III. Myelin sheath neurotransmitters are primarily norepinephrine. It
ocy-tes around axons of released, and bind with adrenergic receptors on target
PNS tissues, transmitting signals and influencing various
D. Schwann IV. Formation of physiological responses in the body.
cells blood-brain barrier 94.Identify the correct statement
The correct match is (a) Microglial cells mesodermal in origin
A B C D (b) Simple cuboidal epithelium is called
(a) IV II I III pavement epithelium
(b) II I III IV (c) Haversian canal is found in gristle
(c) IV I II III (d) Abnormal rise in WBC count is called
(d) IV III II I polycythemia
TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-I AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-II
Ans. (c) : The correct match is option (c). Ans. (a) : Microglial cells are mesodermal in origin also
Set-I Set-II known as scavenger cells of C.N.S (Central nervous
system) and phagocytic in nature.
(A) Astrocytes Formation of blood-brain
barrier. • Simple cuboidal epithelium is called columnar
epithelium.
(B) Ependymal cells Movement of cerebrospinal
• Haversian canal is not found in gristle. It is found in
fluid (CSF). compact bone.
(C) Oligodendrocytes Myelin sheath around axons • Abnormal rise in RBC count is called polycythemia
of (CNS) central nervous while abnormal rise in WBC count is called
system. leukocytosis.
(D) Schwann cells Myelin sheath around axons 95. Cranial nerve which is responsible for bringing
of PNS (Peripheral nervous information from internal ear is called:
system). (a) VIII (b) III
91. Parasympathetic ganglia are located____ (c) VI (d) VII
(a) In cortex of cerebrum MP PMT-2013
(b) In medulla of cerebellum Ans. (a) : 8th cranial nerve (vestibulocochlear nerve) are
(c) On the side of visceral organs called auditory cranial nerve which help in hearing &
(d) On either side of vertebral column equilibrium.
MHT CET-2018 Cranial nerve VI, also known as the abducens nerve, is
Ans. (c) : The parasympathetic ganglia lie within or responsible for moving the eye laterally.
close to the organ or on the side of visceral organs. Cranial nerve III, also known as the oculomotor nerve,
Parasympathetic is an anabolic system, that allow the is responsible for controlling most of the eye
body to feed and assimilate. movements.
92. How many pairs of sympathetic ganglia are Cranial nerve VII, also known as the facial nerve is
present in ANS? responsible for facial expressions, taste and salivation
(a) 10 (b) 12 96. The glial cells which help in providing blood-
(c) 22 (d) 31 brain barrier are
MHT CET-2015 (a) Astrocytes (b) Ependymal cells
Ans. (c): There are 22 pairs of sympathetic ganglia (c) Microglial cells (d) Oligodendrocytes
are present in ANS (Autonomous nervous system) and AP EAMCET-2015
a single unpaired ganglia in-front of the coccyx. Ans. (a) : Astrocytes are the most abundant glial cells
Region Number of ganglia in the brain. Astrocytes are ectodermal in origin. It form
Cervical 3 blood brain barrier. It is a supporting cell which form a
packing substance around the neurons. The blood brain
Thoracic 10-12 barrier (BBB) is a physical barrier that prevents harmful
Lumbar 4 substances from entering the brain.
Sacral 4-5 97. In our body, the largest number of neuron cells
The ganglia are arranged in two chains, one on either can be found in—————
side of the spinal cord. The chains extend from the (a) Eye (b) Tongue
base of the skull to the coccyx. The ganglia in each (c) Brain (d) Spinal cord
chain are connected to each other by nerve fibers. AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (c) : The brain has the largest number of neurons Ans. (d) :
cells in the body. There are about 86 billions of neurons • Tyrosine is not a neurotransmitter itself. It is an
in the human brain, which is about 10 times more than amino acid that acts as a precursor for the synthesis
the number of neurons in spinal cord. of neurotransmitters like dopamine, nor epinephrine
98. The function and unit of nervous system is : and epinephrine.
(a) Neuron (b) Axon • Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is involved in
(c) Dendrite (d) Cyton muscle contraction, memory and learning.
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-I • Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter that is
Punjab MET-2004 / CG PMT-2004 involved in learning and memory.
Ans. (a) : Neuron is the structural & functional unit of • Epinephrine is a stress hormone that is also
nervous system. Neuron is the microscopic structure neurotransmitter. It is involved in the fight-or-flight
related to sensitivity, conductivity and excitability. response.
99. By which nervous system and of what type the 103. Nissl's granules are absent in
blood is supplied into visceral organs? (a) Axon (b) Cyton
(a) Sympathetic nervous system, voluntary (c) Dendron (d) Schwann cells
(b) Sympathetic nervous system, involuntary UP CPMT-2001
(c) Parasympathetic nervous system involuntary Ans. (a) : Nissl’s granules are small, round, basophilic
(d) Both SNS and PNS involuntary bodies found in the cytoplasm of nerve cell body (called
Punjab MET-2005 / AIPMT-1996 the soma or cyton). They are composed of rough
endoplasmic reticulum (RER) and ribosomes and are
Ans. (d) : The blood is supplied into visceral organs by involved in protein synthesis. Nissl’s granules are
the autonomic nervous system (ANS). This is divided absent in axon. Axon is the long slender process that
into two branches– the sympathetic nervous system carries nerve impulses away from the cell body.
(SNS) and the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS).
The SNS is responsible for the fight-or flight response, 104. The potential, difference across the membrane
while the PNS is responsible for the rest and digest of nerve fiber when it does not show any
response. Both are involuntary nervous system. physiological activity is called resting potential.
It is about.
(a) – 60 mV (b) – 70 mV
C. Functional unit of Neural (c) + 60 mV (d) + 90 mV
Kerala PMT-2008
system AMU-2007
Haryana PMT-2002
100. Hair cells of organ of corti acts as
Ans. (b) : The potential difference across the membrane
(a) Photo receptors (b) Chemo receptors of nerve fibre when it does not show any physiological
(c) Thermo receptors (d) Auditory receptors activity is called resting potential. The resting potential
TS EAMCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II of a nerve cell, is approximately - 70 millivolts.
Ans. (d) : The organ of corti is a structure contains 105. Which of the following statement is true?
sensory hair cells when act as auditory receptors. (a) Saltatory conduction is seen in non-
• The organ of corti naned after Alfanso corti who first myelinated nerve fibres
described if. It is sensorinural organ of cochlia. It is (b) Nissl's granules are found in muscle fibres
composed of sensory cells called hair cells nerve (c) Non-myelinated nerve fibres do not possess
firbres ??? to term and suporting structure. nodes of Ranvier
• If convent or traduce mechanical stimulai evoke by (d) Non-myelinated nerve fibres are completely
sound and head movement into electrical signal enclosed by myelin sheath
which are transrit to brain. CG PMT-2009
101. Bipolar neurons occurs in Ans. (c) : Nodes of Ranvier are gaps in the myelin
(a) Vertebrate embryo sheath that occur in myelinated nerve fibers, allowing
for saltatory conduction. Non-myelinated nerve fibers
(b) Brain and spinal cord
lacks nodes of Ranvier and have a continuous
(c) Retina of eye unmyelinated sheath.
(d) Skeletal muscles
VMMC-2011, 2009 106.Neurons of people suffering from diabetes
Ans. (c) : Bipolar neurons are specialized nerve cells insipidus do not secrete
found in the retina of the eye. They have two distinct (a) Enzyme (b) Steroid
processes; first one is dendrite and another is axon, (c) Fatty acid (d) ADH
allowing them to transmit sensory information from the AMU-2009
eyes to the brain. Ans. (d) : Neurons of people suffering from diabetes
102. Which of the following does not act as a insipidus do not secrete antidiuretic hormone (ADH),
neurotransmitter? which play an important role in regulating water
(a) Acetylcholine (b) Glutamic add balance in the body by controlling the reabsorption of
(c) Epinephrine (d) Tyrosine water in the kidneys. This condition leads to excessive
WB JEE-2009 thirst and production of dilute urine.
107. During the conduction of nerve impulse, the 112. Myelin sheath is a layer covering
action potential is the result of movement of (a) Muscle fibre in a vertebrate
(a) Na+ from intracellular fluid to extracellular (b) Nerve fibre in a vertebrate
fluid (c) Nerve fiber in an insect
(b) Na+ from extracellular fluid to intracellular (d) Chick embryo
fluid
(c) Na+ towards both directions Uttarakhand PMT-2011
(d) None of the above Ans. (b) : The myelin sheath is a layer that cover nerve
BVP-2012 fibers in vertebrates, providing insulation and increasing
the speed of nerve signal transmission.
Ans. (b) : During the conduction of a nerve impulse,
there is a movement of sodium ions (Na+) from the 113. Which one is main fuel for brain?
extracellular fluid into the intracellular fluid, leading to (a) Glucose (b) Riboflavin
depolarization of the cell membrane. This (c) Ornithine (d) Glutamic acid
depolarization is a key step in the propagation of the Uttarakhand PMT-2011
nerve impulse.
Ans. (a) : Glucose is the essential metabolic fuel for the
108. Which cell cannot divide following birth in
brain. Acute & severe reduction of glucose in brain
humans?
leads to quickly impairment of cognitive & reflex
(a) Muscle cells (b) Erythroblasts
function. When the brain does not have enough glucose,
(c) Osteoblasts (d) Neuron
it can start to break down other nutrients for energy,
AMU-1996
such as protein.
Ans. (d) : Neurons generally lose their ability to divide
and undergo mitosis following birth in humans. Unlike 114. Axons serve to
some other cell types, neuron have limited regenerative (a) take away impulse from cytons
capabilities in the central nervous system and it also (b) bring impulse to cytons
lacks centrioles, which is important for mitosis. (c) bring blood to heart
109. Myelinated nerve fibres are white coloured (d) None of the above
because of Uttarakhand PMT-2011
(a) Chromidial substance (b) Neurolemma Ans. (a) : Axons take away impulse from cytons. Axon
(c) Myelin (d) None of the above transmits nerve impulses away from the cell body
CMC Ludhiana-2012 (cyton) of a neuron. They carry signals to other neurons,
Ans. (c): Myelinated nerve fibres appear white due to muscles, or glands.
presence of the myelin sheath, which is a fatty substance
115. Number of brain cells dead at the age of 70
that surrounds and insulates the nerve fibres and also,
increases the speed of nerve signal transmission. years constitutes
(a) 10% (b) 20%
110.Which part of the brain is responsible for the
(c) 30% (d) 55%
recall of memory?
(a) Hippocampus (b) Medulla oblongata UP CPMT-2013
(c) Cerebellum (d) Cerebrum Ans. (b) : As the age growing the brain cell begin to
AP EAMCET-12.07.2022 Shift-II degenerate due to decline in white matter. The myelin
Ans. (a) : The Hippocampus is a region in the brain is sheath started decline after the age of 40 which causes
primarily responsible for the formation and recall of of ageing. The late myelinting regions of the frontal
memories. The hippocampus is a small, seahorse- lobes are most affected by white matter. 20% brain cells
shaped structure located in the medial temporal lobe of dead at the age of 70 years naturally.
the brain. 116. In a myelinated neuron, two adjacent myelin
The medulla oblongata is responsible for a variety of sheaths are separated by gaps called
functions, including breathing, heart rate and blood (a) Nodes of Ranvier (b) Synaptic cleft
pressure. The cerebellum is responsible for coordination (c) Schwann cells (d) Synaptic knob
and balance. The cerebrum is the largest part of the (e) Neural plate
brain and responsible for mostly thinking, reasoning and
language. Kerala PMT-2008
111. When the balloon of nitro-aortic balloon Ans. (a) : The gaps between two Adjacent myelin
pump inflates more blood is carried to sheaths in a myelinated neuron are called nodes of
(a) Coronary artery (b) Pulmonary trunk Ranvier.
(c) Hepatic portal (d) Pulmonary arteries The synaptic cleft is the gap between the axon of one
AMU-2003 neuron and the dendrite of another neuron.
Schwann cells are the cells that form the myelin sheath.
Ans. (a) : The balloon of nitro-aortic balloon pump
inflates more blood is carried to coronary artery. The synaptic knobs is the end of the axon that forms
Coronary artery - The coronary arteries run along the the synapse.
coronary sulcus of the myocardium of the heart. Their The neural plate is a structure in the embryo that
main function is to supply blood to the heart. develops into the nervous system.
117. Match List - I with List - II:
List-I List-II
A. Multipolar i. Somatic neural
neuron system
B. Bipolar neuron ii. Cerebral cortex
C. Myelinated iii. Retina of Eye
nerve fibre
D. Unmyelinated iv. Spinal nerves
nerve fibre
given below:
(a) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)
(b) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii) 120. Which part of the brain is responsible for
thermoregulation.
(c) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)
(a) Hypothalamus (b) Corpus callosum
(d) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i) (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Cerebrum
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 NEET-2019 / CMC Vellore-2009
Ans. (d) : The correct match is option (d) UP PMT-2009 / RajasthanPMT-2009
List-I List-II Ans. (a) : Hypothalamus is responsible for
thermoregulation.
(A) Multipolar neuron Cerebral cortex. Hypothalamus is a structure deep in our brain, acts as
(B) Bipolar neuron Retina of eye. smart control coordinating system of our body.
(C) Myelinated nerve Spinal & cranial Its main function is to keep our body in a stable state
fibres nerves. called homeostasis.
It is also important for maintaining constant body temperature.
(D) Unmyelinated nerve Autonomous & the
• Corpus callosum is the thick band of nerve fibre that
fibres somatic neural system. divides the cerebrum into right and left hemisphere.
118. The cell that transfers information about pain • Medulla oblongata is a component of hind brain. It
to the brain is called a receives and integrates signals from spinal cord and
(a) Neuron (b) Blastocyst sends them to cerebellum.
(c) Histoblast (d) Haemocyte • Cerebrum is largest part of the brain and consists of
KVPY (SA)-2011 two hemispheres.
Ans. (a) : Neuron is microscopic structure related to
sensitivity, conductivity and excitability. So, the neuron
cell transfers information about pain to the brain.
119. The part of nephron involved in active
reabsorption of sodium is
(a) Distal convoluted tu bule
(b) Proximal convoluted tubule
(c) Bowman's capsule
(d) Descending loop of Henle's
NEET-2016 Phase-II
Ans. (b) : From the Bowman's capsule a glomerular
filtrate enters in the proximal convoluted tubule.
Absorption of selected materials from the filtrate into
the blood by the peritubular capillaries or vasa recta. It
is termed the tubular reabsorption.
• In reabsorption involves both passive and active
transport across the tubular epithelium. About 65 121. Which of the following regions of the brain is
incorrectly paired with its function ?
percent of the glomerular filtrate is normally
(a) Cerebellum- language comprehension
reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule before
(b) Corpus callosum - communication between
reaching the loop of Henle. Glucose, amino acid, the left and right cerebral cortices
vitamins, hormones, sodium, potassium, chlorides, (c) Cerebrum- calculation and contemplation
phosphates, bicorbonates, much of water and some (d) Medulla oblongata - homeostatic control
urea from the filtrate are absorbed. AIPMT-2015
Ans. (a) : Cerebellum– language comprehension. (a) 1.2 are correct but 3 and 4 are wrong
The cerebellum is responsible for coordination and (b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct but 4 is wrong
balance, not language comprehension. (c) 3 and 4 are correct but 1 and 2 are wrong
• Correct table is: (d) 1 and 4 are correct while 2 and 3 are wrong
Region of brain Function (e) 2 and 3 are correct while 1 and 4 are wrong
Kerala PMT-2011
(i) Cerebellum coordination and balance.
Ans. (e) :
(ii) Corpus callosum communication between
the left and right cerebral • Statement 1: Synaptic cleft of neurons do not secrete
cortices. adrenaline. Adrenaline is a hormone that is released by
adrenal glands.
(iii) Cerebrum calculation and • Statement 2: Myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped
contemplation, higher-order with Schwann cells which forms a myelin sheath around
functions such as thinking, the axon.
planning and language.
• Statement 3: Non-myelinated nerve fibre is enclosed
(iv) Medulla oblongata homeostatic control, such by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath.
as breathing, heart rate and • Statement 4: Spinal cord and cranial nerves are made
blood pressure. of myelinated nerve fibres.
122. Which one of the following statements is The correct answer is (e)
correct? Statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statements 1 and 4
(a) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not are wrong.
vice versa 125. Assertion (A): Neurons with soma in the
(b) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and dorsal root ganglion of spinal
nervous system regulates endocrine glands nerves are said to be
(c) Neither hormones control neural activity nor pseudounipolar.
the neurons control endocrine activity
Reason (R): They are sensory neurons having
(d) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity but
not vice versa a single process divided into two
BCECE-2013 / CMC Vellore-2012 / AFMC-2008 branches.
Options:
Ans. (a) : Neurons regulate endocrine activity but
endocrine cannot regulate nervous system. The (a) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is the correct
endocrine can regulate the body functions through the explanation to (A)
secretion of hormones via hypothalamus. Hypothalamus (b) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not correct
contains several groups of neurosecretory cells which explanation to (A)
secrete hormones, called hypothalamic hormones. (c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
123. Study the following and pick up the wrong one (d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(a) White matter of central nervous system AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-II
contains myelinated neurons Ans. (a) : Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is the correct
(b) The narrow gap between the terminal fibre of explanation to (A).
axon and dendrite of next neuron is called Neurons with soma in the dorsal root ganglion are
synopsis indeed pseudounipolar, which means they have a single
(c) Ependymal cells keep the cerebrospinal fluid process that splits into two branches-one that extends
in circulation towards the periphery (receiving sensory information)
(d) A group of nerve cell bodies in central and another that connects to the central nervous system.
nervous system is known as nucleus 126. Which of the following is secreted at the ends of
AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-I an axon?
Ans. (b) : The correct term for the narrow gap between (a) Ascorbic acid (b) Acetic acid
the terminal fiber (axon ) of the next neuron is '' (c) Acetylcholine (d) Acetyl CoA
Synapse'', not ''synopsis''. KVPY SB & SX-2014
124. Which one of the following statements is Ans. (c) : Acetylcholine is secreted at the ends of an
correct? axon. Acetylcholinesterase enzyme is found in the
1. Synaptic cleft of neurons secrete synapse. This enzyme decomposes the acetylcholine in
adrenaline to choline and acetic acid. Acetylcholine stimulates
2. Myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped with impulse at synapse.
Schwann cells, which form a myelin sheath 127. In sympathetic nerve terminals
around the axon neurotransmitters are:
3. Non-myelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by (a) Acetylcholine and cholinesterase
a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin (b) Cholinesterase and adrenalin
sheath (c) Adrenalin and non-adrenalin
4. Spinal cord and cranial nerves are made of (d) Non-adrenalin and acetylcholine
non-myelinated nerve fibres MP PMT-2013
Ans. (c) : The major neurotransmitters localized in D. Generation, Conduction and
sympathetic nerve terminal in lymphoid organs.
Adrenaline and non-adrenaline are neurotransmitters in Transmission of Impulse
sympathetic nerve terminals, where adrenaline affects
on heart while non-adrenaline affects on blood vessels. 130. Study the following and pick up the correct
Some neurotransmitters are epinephrine, neuropeptide, statements :
endorphin, leucine – enkephalin, methionine etc. I. Microglial cells develop from endoderm
128. Statement I: In electrical synapse, the pre and II. Oligodendrocytes form myelin sheath
post synaptic membranes have III. Astrocytes help in blood-brain barrier
conductive links called gap IV. Ependymal cells are phagocytic
junctions. (a) II, III (b) I, II
Statement II: In chemical synapses, the post (c) III, IV (d) I, III
synaptic membrane has ligand TS EAMCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II
gated channels. Ans. (a) : The mylin starch is greatly extend and
The correct option among the following is: modified plasma numbrane wraped around the nerve
(a) Statement I is true, but statement II is false axon in a spiral fashion. The mylin nembrane originate
(b) Statement II is true, but statement I is false from and are a part of the schwann cells in the
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true peripherol nervous system and the oligodendroglial
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false cells in central nervous system.
TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-II • Astrocyte and a star shaped glial all of the central
Ans. (c) : An electrical synapse is a gap junction nervous system.
between pre and post synaptic membrane. It provides a • Astrocyte help in blood brain bareer
blue print for the formation of neuronal networks. 131. During synaptic transmission of nerve impulse,
In chemical synapses, the post synaptic membrane has neurotransmitter (P) is released from synaptic
ligand gated channels. The formations of chemical vesicles by the action of ions (Q). Choose the
synapse trigger the elimination of coupling in most correct P and Q.
neuronal cell type. (a) P- Acetylcholine, Q = Ca2+
Chemical synapse is a synaptic cleft between pre and
(b) P- Acetylcholine Q = Na+
post synaptic membrane and impulse transmission
across an electrical synapse is always faster than that (c) P- GABA, Q = Na+
across a chemical synapse. (d) P- Cholinesterase, Q = Ca2+
WB JEE-2012
Ans. (a) : Acetylcholine is released from synaptie
vesicles by the action of calcium (Ca2+) during synaptic
transmission of a nerve impulse.
132. The primary neurotransmitter at the
neuromuscular junction is
(a) Dopamine (b) Adrenaline
(c) Acetylcholine (d) Acetaldehyde
AMU-2015 / J&K CET-2009 / AMU-1997
Ans. (c) : The primary neurotransmitter involved in
this process is acetylcholine (Ach).
The neuromuscular junction is the point where a motor
neuron connects with a muscle fibre. It's responsible for
transmitting signals from the nervous system to the
muscles, causing muscle contraction.
133. Acetylcholine is
129. Which products of cell wear and tear get (a) Neural messenger
accumulated in lysosomes with age in the cell
(b) Antistress hormone
body of neuron?
(a) Lipofuscin granules (b) Histamine (c) Chemical messenger
(c) Bradykinin (d) Hemozoin (d) Chemical transmitter
AP EAPCET-12.07.2022 Shift-I BCECE-2011 / Manipal-2011
Ans. (a) Lipofuscin is a yellow-brown pigment that Ans. (d) : Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter with a
accumulates within cell as a result of the digestion of primary function of mediating synaptic activity of the
damaged cellular components by lysosomes. It's often nervous system. Acetylcholine is a chemical that is
referred to as the "wear and tear" pigment because it released when an impulse reaches the terminal end of
accumulates over time as cells age and are exposed to the axon of a nerve cell, irrespective of the signal that
oxidative stress. stimulates the impulse.
134. Neurotransmitter, at a synapse, is stored 137. An investigator places an isolated neuron in a
temporarily in ________. calcium-free medium, gives the neuron a
(a) Synaptic vesicles. suprathreshold stimulus and then performs an
(b) Synaptic cleft assay to test whether neurotransmitter is
(c) Pre synaptic membrane released into the medium. Which of the
following outcomes would you predict?
(d) Post synaptic membrane
(a) No neurotransmitter is detected since influx
MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I of calcium into the synaptic knob is required
Ans. (a) : Neurotransmitter, at a synapse, is stored for neurotransmitter release
temporarily in synaptic vesicles. The synaptic vesicle is a (b) No neurotransmitter is detected since influx
small secretary vesicle that contains a neurotransmitter of calcium is required in order for the neuron
found inside an axon near the pre synaptic membrane and to conduct an action potential
releases its contents into the synapse. (c) Neurotransmitter is detected since calcium is
• Synaptic cleft – It is a small, fluid filled gap between not required for action potential conduction
two neurons at a synapse. It's the space where and the initial stimulus was suprathreshold
communication between neurons occurs. (d) We cannot predict the outcome without
• Pre synaptic membrane–It is the neuron's cell knowing whether the neuron was myelinated
membrane that releases neurotransmitters into the J&K CET-2012
synaptic cleft, initiating communication with the next Ans. (a) : In this given reason, no neurotransmitter is
neurons. detected since the influx of calcium in to the synaptic
• Post synaptic membrane – receives signals from the knob is required for neurotransmitter release.Ca2+
presynaptic neuron through neurotransmitters, triggers synaptic vesicle exocytosis, thereby releasing
allowing communication between neurons. the neurotransmitters contained in the vesicles and
initiating synaptic transmission.
135. Which of the following statements
characterizes the depolarization state of neuron 138. During the transmission of nerve impulse
? through a nerve fibre, the potential on the
(a) Na+ gets inside through ion channels inner side of the plasma membrane has which
type of electric charge?
(b) Na+ gets outside through channels
(a) First negative, then positive and again back to
(c) K+ channels remain open negative
(d) All of the above (b) First positive, then negative and continue to
UP CPMT-2012 be negative
Ans. (a) : During the depolarization of neuron, sodium (c) First negative, then positive and continue to
ion (Na+) gets inside through ion channels. be positive
In the resting state of a neuron, the inside of the cell is (d) First positive, then negative and again back to
negative relative to the outside. This is because there are positive
more negatively charged ions (such as chloride ions) AIPMT-2007 / JIPMER-2016 / Rajasthan PMT-2010
inside the cell than outside of the cell. When a neuron is Ans. (a) : Before the generation of an action potential,
depolarized, the inside of the cell becomes less negative the neuron is in resting state that is –70 mV, inside the
than outside. This because sodium ions (Na+) move into cell. During action potential as transmission of nerve
the cell through voltage- gated sodium channels. impulse the membrane potential inside the neuron rises
136. During the propagation of a nerve impute, the up to 30 mV. After the action potential has passed the
action potential results from the movement of neuron returns back to its resting state i.e at – 70 mV.
(a) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to
intracellular fluid
(b) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to
extracellular fluid
(c) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to
extracellular fluid
(d) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to
intracellular fluid
Ans. (d) : During the propagation of a nerve impulse,
the action potential results from the movement of
sodium ions (Na+) from the extracellular fluid to the
intracellular fluid. This influx of sodium ions causes the
membrane potential to depolarize, or become more
positive. Once the membrane potential reaches a 139. Nerve gas affect neuromuscular activity by
threshold-level, voltage-gated sodium channel open and (a) Blocking the acetylcholine receptor sites
allow even more sodium ions to enter the cell. This (b) Inhibiting the release of acetylcholine
rapid influx of sodium ions creates an action potential, (c) Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
which is a wave of depolarization that travels down the (d) Enhancing the release of acetylcholine.
axon of the neuron. AMU-1998
Ans. (c) : Nerve gases inhibit the enzyme 144. Release of a neurotransmitter at a synaptic
acetylcholinesterase, causing the accumulation of junction is brought about by
acetylcholine at nerve-muscle junctions. This leads to (a) Sodium (b) Potassium
uncontrolled muscle activity, twitching, convulsions, (c) Chloride (d) Calcium
and can result in paralysis and death. AMU-2001
140. Which one of the following does not act as a Ans. (d) : Synaptic transmission is initiated when an
neurotrasmitter action potential invades a nerve terminals opening Ca2+
(a) Acetylcholine (b) Epinephrine channels, which gate a highly localized transient
(c) Norepinephrine (d) Cortisone increase in intracellular Ca2+ at the active zone. Ca2+
JCECE-2014 / BCECE-2013 triggers synaptic vesicle exocytosis, there by releasing
BHU PMT (Mains)-2010 / AMU-2007 / AIPMT-2006 the neurotransmitters contained in the vesicles and
Ans. (d) : Neurotransmitter are chemical messenger that initiating synaptic transmission.
transmit signals across synapse between nerve cells and 145. Which option is correct for the correctly
other cell. These facilitate in communication within the matched groups for the Column I, Column II
nervous system. and Column III.
• Cortisone is a type of corticosteroid hormone Column-I Column-II Column-III
produced by the adrenal glands. It plays a role in
regulating various metabolic processes and the immune p. Resting i. Na+ channel e. Na+ and K+
response, but it is not involved in transmitting signals membrane get open pumps are
between neurons. potential responsible
for it
141. Na+, K+ pump is found in membranes of many
cells, like nerve cells. It work against q. Action ii. Na+ channel f. Last for very
electrochemical gradient and involve an potential is closed short time
integral protein ATP. For each molecule of r. Depolarization iii. Na+ ions are g. K+ ions move
ATP used more on on outerside
(a) 3 ions of Na+ pumped out and 2K+ are taken in outer side of
(b) 3 ions of Na+ are taken in and 2K+ are membrane
pumped out s. Repolarization iii. Na+ ions are h. Positive
(c) 2 ion of Na+ are thrown out and 3K+ are more on charge on
absorbed inner side of inner side of
(d) 3 ion of K+ are absorbed and 3Na+ are membrane membrane
pumped out (a) (p-ii-h) (q-i-g) (r-iii-e) (s-iv-f)
Manipal-2015,2011 / AFMC-2006 / AMU-1999 (b) (p-iii-e) (q-iv-f) (r-i-h) (s-ii-g)
Ans. (a) : The Na+/ K+ pump moves three sodium ions (c) (p-iv-f) (q-iii-e) (r-i-e) (s-i-h)
(3 Na+) out of the cell and bring two potassium ions (2 (d) (p-iv-e) (q-iii-f) (r-ii-g) (s-i-g)
K+) into the cell for each cycle. This helps maintain the
cell's electrical balance and it is powered by ATP. GUJCET-2014
142. Saltatory conduction occurs in Ans. (b) :
(a) Myelinated nerve fibres Column I Column II Column III
(b) Non-myelinated nerve fibres p) Resting Na+ ions are more Na+ and K+
(c) Liver cells membrane on outer side of pumps are
(d) All of the above potential membrane. responsible
AMU-2006 for it.
+
Ans. (a) : Saltatory conduction refers to the rapid q) Action Na ions are more Last for very
transmission of nerve impulses along myelinated nerve potential on inner side of short time.
fibres. In myelinated fibres, the myelin sheath insulates membrane.
and speeds up the conduction of the nerve impulse by r) Depolarization Na+ channel get Positive
allowing the signal to "jump" from one node of Ranvier open. charge on
to the next, rather than travelling along the entire length inner side of
of the axon. membrane.
143. The one way or unidirectional transmission of s) Repolarisation Na+ channel is K+ ions move
nerve impulse in nerve cells is due to the closed. on outerside.
presence of 146. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Synapses (b) Myelin sheath (a) Na+ ions help in the conduction of nerve
(c) Membrane polarity (d) Inter-neurons impulses
J&K CET-2007 (b) Na+ ions are important in transport of
Ans. (a) : The one-way or unidirectional transmission substances across membranes
of nerve impulses in nerve cells is primarily due to the (c) Na+ ions help to retain water in the body
presence of synapses, which are specialized junctions (d) Na+ ions are associated with all the above
between nerve cells where the transmission of signals functions
occurs in one direction. AMU-2001
Ans. (d) : Sodium ions (Na+) play a crucial role in 149. In the following diagram showing axon
various physiological processes, including aiding in the terminal and synapse A,B, C,D and E
conduction of nerve impulses, facilitating the transport respectively represents
of substance across cell membranes, and helping to
maintain proper fluid balance within the body.
147. Which of the following option is correct for the
statement ‘X’ and ‘Y’?
Statement ‘X’: Immediately after
repolarization, ionic imbalance is created on
both the sides of nerve fiber.
Statement ‘Y’: During repolarization K+ ion
channel open up and K+ ion moves on inner
side of plasma membrane. (a) A-Axon terminal, B-synaptic cleft, C-
Options: synaptic vesicles, D-neurotransmitters, E-
(a) Statements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct and ‘Y’ is receptors
correct for ‘X’. (b) A-axon terminal B-synaptic vesicles,
(b) Statements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct and ‘Y’ is C-synaptic cleft, D-receptors,
not correct for ‘X’. E-neurotransmitters
(c) Statement ‘X’ is correct and statement ‘Y’ is (c) A-synaptic cleft, B-synaptic vesicles, C-axon
wrong. terminal, D-neurotransmitters, E-receptors
(d) Statement ‘X’ is wrong and statement ‘Y’ is (d) A-synaptic cleft, B-axon terminal, C-synaptic
correct. vesicles, D-neurotransmitters, E-receptors
GUJCET-2014 (e) A-synaptic vesicles, B-axon terminal,
C-synaptic cleft, D-receptors,
Ans. (c) : Statement 'X' is correct because during the E-neurotransmitters
repolarization phase of the action potential, potassium JIPMER-2014
(K+) ions move out of the neuron, leading to an ionic
Ans. (b) : A- represent axon terminals are distal
imbalance with more positive changes outside the
termination of branches of an axon. The axon terminal
neuron and more negative changes inside.
and the synapse have various parts which are equally
Statement 'Y' is incorrect because during important for transmission of nerve impulse.
repolarisation, the K+ ion channel open up, allowing B- represent synaptic vesicles which are present in the
potassium ions to move out of the neuron, not to the cytoplasm of synaptic knob.
inner side of the plasma membrane. This movement of C- represent synaptic cleft which is a gap present in
potassium ions contributes to restoring the resting between pre and post synaptic membrane.
membrane potential by bringing the inside of the neuron D- represent receptor present in post synaptic
back to a negative charge. membrane.
148. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the E- represent neurotransmitters which are the chemical
action potential results from the movement of: substance present in synaptic vesicles.
(a) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to
extracellular fluid
(b) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to
intracellular fluid
(c) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to
intracellular fluid
(d) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to
extracellular fluid
AIPMT-2008
Ans. (b) : During the propagation of a nerve impulse,
the action potential results from the movement of 150. What is the resting membrane potential of
sodium ions (Na+) from the extracellular fluid to the nerve fiber?
intracellular fluid. This influx of sodium ions causes the (a) +75mV (b) +45mV
membrane potential to depolarize, or become more (c) – 70mV (d) – 45 mV
positive. Once the membrane potential reaches a AP EAMCET-2013
threshold-level, voltage-gated sodium channel open and Ans. (c) : In most neurons the resting potential has a
allow even more sodium ions to enter the cell. This value of approximately –70mV. The resting potential
rapid influx of sodium ions creates an action potential, is mostly determined by the concentrations of the ions
which is a wave of depolarization that travels down the in the fluids on both sides of the cell membrane and the
axon of the neuron. ion transport proteins that are in the cell membrane.
151. When 'A' stands for Axon. 'D' for Dendrites. Ans. (b) :
'S' for Synapse and 'CB' for Cell body, a • Assertion (A): is true. Impulse transmission across
typical sequence of structures between a electrical synapses is faster than that of chemical
receptor and an efferent is ––––––– synapses.
(a) D → A → S → CB → D → A → CB • Reason (R): is also true. Electrical synapses have
(b) D → CB → A → S → A → CB → D gap junctions that allow ions to flow directly from
(c) D → CB → A → S → D → CB → A one neuron to the other.
• The main reason is that electrical synapses are faster
(d) A → D → CB → S → A → D → CB
because they do not require the release of
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-I neurotransmitters.
Ans. (c) : Typical sequence of structures between a 154. During the conduction of nerve impulse, the
receptor and an efferent is Dendrites → cell body repolarization occurs with the
→ Axon → Synapse → Dendrite → Cell body → (a) influx of K+ ions (b) influx of Na+ ions
Axon. +
(c) efflux of K ions (d) efflux of Na+ ions
This means the signal travel from dendrite (D) to the UP CPMT-2011
cell body(CB), then down the axon (A), through a Ans. (c): During the repolarization phase of nerve
synapse (S), and repeats the process until it reaches the impulse conduction, there is an efflux (outward
efferent pathway. movement) of K+ ions from the cell, which helps to
152. Assertion (A) : In myelinated nerve fibers restore the resting membrane potential after the
action potentials are conducted at a faster rate depolarization phase.
Reason (R) : The myelin present between nodes 155. In the axon of motor nerve fiber, the nerve
of Ranvier has concentrated Na and K voltage impulse travels
gated channels NK+ (a) Towards cell body
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct (b) Away from cell body
explanation of A (c) Away from synapse
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the (d) In both directions
correct explanation of A UP CPMT-2011
(c) A is correct but R is wrong Ans. (b): In a motor nerve fiber, the direction of nerve
(d) A is wrong but R is correct impulse transmission is unidirectional. The nerve
AP EAMCET-06.09.2021 Shift-I impulse travel away from the cell body, toward the
Ans. (c) : The assertion is correct because myelinated muscle or target organ it innervates.
fibres have a faster conduction velocity than 156. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the
unmyelinated nerve fibers. The reason for this is action potential results from the movement of
because the myelin sheath insulates the axons, (a) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to
preventing ions from flowing freely across the intracellular fluid
membrane. This allows action potentials to travel more (b) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to
rapidly along the axons. extracellular fluid
The reason is incorrect because the myelin sheath is not (c) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to
present at the nodes of Ranvier. This means the action extracellular fluid
potential has to depolarize the entire axon at the nodes (d) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to
of the Ranvier. This is slower than the saltatory intracellular fluid
conduction that occurs along the myelinated regions of JIPMER-2012
the axons. Ans. (d) : During the propagation of nerve impulse
when a stimulus of adequate strength is applied to a
153. Assertion (A): Impulse transmission across
polarized membrane, the permeability of the membrane
electrical synapse is always faster than that of to Na+ is greatly increased at the point of stimulation.
chemical synapse. As a result, the sodium ion channels permit the influx of
Reason: (R): In electrical synapse, pre and Na+ by diffusion. Since, there are more Na+ ions
post synaptic membranes are in very close entering than leaving, the electrical potential of the
proximity and have links called gap functions. membrane change from -70 mV towards zero.
The correct option among the following is 157. Depolarization of axolemma during nerve
(a) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is the correct conduction takes place because of:
explanation for (A) (a) Equal amount of Na+ & K+ move out across
(b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the axolema
correct explanation for (A) (b) Na+ move inside and K+ move more out side
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false (c) More Na+ outside
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true (d) None
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-II AIPMT-2000
Ans. (b) : During nerve conduction, the depolarization 161. Statement (S) An action potential occurs in the
phase is primarily caused by the influx (move inside) of membrane of the axon of a neuron due to
sodium ions into the neuron, and the repolarization phase influx of Na+ ions.
is facilitated by the efflux (move outside) of potassium Reason (R): The action potential occurs when
ions. This movement of ions across the axolemma is the depolarization reaches a threshold potential
essential for transmitting nerve impulses along the neuron. of + 55 mV.
158. Effect of anaesthetics on body : The correct answer is
(a) Inhibits Na+–K+ pump (a) Both (S) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
correct explanation to (S)
(b) Kills nerves
(b) Both (S) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(c) Stops brain functions correct explanation to (S)
(d) Inactivates skin cells (c) (S) is correct but (R) is not correct
AIPMT-1998 (d) (S) is not correct but (R) is correct
Ans. (a) : Anaesthetics inhibit the sodium-potassium TS EAMCET-09.05.2019 Shift-I
pump, disrupting the normal flow of ions in neurons. Ans. (c) : This influx of sodium ions leads to
This reduces the ability of neuron to transmit signals, depolarization and the generation of an action potential.
leading to a loss of sensation or consciousness. While the action potential occurs when the depolarization
159. Which event of the ‘action potential’ is reaches a threshold potential typically around –55mV. This
indicated by the letter (A) in the diagram? threshold is necessary to trigger the opening of voltage –
gated sodium and initiate the action potential.
162. ANF carries out following functions except ___
(a) Vasodilation
(b) Inhibition of renin-angiotensin mechanism
(c) Vasoconstriction
(d) Promotes sodium excretion
(a) Influx of K+ (b) Efflux of Na+ MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I
(c) Influx of Na+ (d) Efflux of K+ Ans. (c) : ANF (atrial natriuretic factor) does not
AP EAMCET-2010 promote vasoconstriction. It primarily promotes
vasodilation, inhibits the rennin-angiotensin
Ans. (c) : The event of the 'action potential' is indicated mechanism, and promotes sodium excretion.
by the letter (A) is influx of Na+ or depolarization. It is
163. The contractile regulatory proteins that mask
caused by a sudden spike in membrane potential
and unmask active sites in the sarcomere are
opening of sodium channels in the cellular membrane,
which cause a large influx of sodium ions. (a) Troponin and Tropomyosin
(b) Troponin and Myosin
(c) Actin and Myosin
(d) Tropnin-I and Troponin-C
TS EAMCET-2015
Ans. (a) : Troponin is a muscle protein of heart found
in the blood which is attached with one of ends of the
tropomyosin molecules.
160. Troponin is made up of three subunits.
(a) Troponin-I, (b) Troponin-T, (c) Troponin-C.
• Tropomyosin is a contractile protein in the relaxed
state of the muscle situated in such a way, that the
active sites remain covered by the tropomysin and
attached at the terminal end of actin.
164. Statement (S) : In brain stem, the pons is called
as pneumotaxic centre with an ability to
moderate the functions of the "respiratory
Identify the region where all Na+ channels are
rhythm centre"
reactivated but closed and all K+ channels are
closed. Reason (R) : Neural signals from this centre
(a) D (b) C can reduce the duration of expiration, thereby
alter the respiratory rate.
(c) B (d) A
Correct answer is
Manipal-2009
(a) Both (S) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
AP EAMCET-2009
correct explanation to (S
Ans. (b) : The given figure shows the Na+– K+ pump (b) Both (S) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
activity. correct explanation to (S)
This point 'C' shows the repolarisation that is resting (c) (S) is wrong but (R) is correct
state where all channels of Na+ are reactivated but close (d) (S) is correct but (R) is wrong
and all K+ channels are closed. TS EAMCET-2015
Ans. (d) : The pneumotaxic center is located in the pons 167. Which of the following option shows correct
of the brainstem. It has the ability to moderate the order of some stages of muscle contraction
function of the respiratory rhythm center, which is from the beginning to the end of the process?
located in the medulla. The pneumotaxic center sends (a) Stimuli → Neurotransmitter secretion →
inhibitory signals to the inspiratory center, which helps Release of Ca++ → Cross bridges formation
to terminate inspiration and start expiration. This results → Excitation of T-system → sliding of actin
in a shorter duration of inspiration and a longer duration filaments.
of expiration. This alters the respiratory rate. (b) Stimuli → Neurotransmitter secretion →
However, the pneumotaxic center does not directly Excitation of T-system → Release of Ca++ →
reduce the duration of expiration. Instead, it terminate Cross bridges formation → sliding of actin
inspiration which indirectly leads to a longer duration of filaments → ‘H’ band diminishes.
expiration.
(c) Stimuli → Excitation of T-system →
165. Specialized cells that are sensitive to vibration, Neurotransmitter secretion → Cross bridges
pain and tension are called ______.
Formation → sliding of actin filaments →
(a) Proprioceptors
‘H’ band diminishes.
(b) Baroreceptors
(d) Stimuli → Neurotransmitter secretion →
(c) Statoacoustic receptors
Cross bridges formation → Excitation of
(d) Frigidoreceptors
T-system → sliding of actin filament
GUJCET-2011
Ans. (a) : Cells that are sensitive to vibration, pain and
Ans. (b) : Stimuli → Neurotransmitter secretion →
tension are called proprioceptors, these organs
Excitation of T-system → Release of Ca++ → Cross
embedded with muscles, tendons, ligaments and joints,
bridges formation → Sliding of Actin filaments → 'H'
are responsible for sending continuously information to
band diminishes.
the brain.
During muscle contraction the myosin heads come in
166. Select the incorrect statement regarding close contact with the thin filaments.
synapses: 168. Assertion: Transmission of nerve impulse
(a) Impulse transmission across a chemical across a synapse is accomplished by
synapse is always faster than that across an neurotransmitters.
electrical synapse. Reason: Transmission across a synapse usually
(b) The membranes of presynaptic and required neurotransmitter because there is a
postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in small space, i.e, synaptic cleft that separates
an electrical synapse. one neuron from another.
(c) Electrical current can flow directly from one (a) If both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is
neuron into the other across the electrical correct explanation of the (A).
synapse. (b) If both (A) and (R) are true but the (R) is
(d) Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters. not correct explanation of the (A).
NEET-2022 (c) If the (A) is true but the (R) is false.
(d) If both the (A) and (R) are false.
Ans. (a) : Impulse transmission across an chemical
(e) If (A) is false, but (R) is true.
synapse is always faster than that across a electrical
synapse. AIIMS-1999
• Chemical synapse use chemicals for transmission Ans. (a) : Neurotransmitters are chemicals that help
which are known as neurotransmitters. transmit nerve impulses across a small gap called the
synaptic cleft between neurons. This is necessary
• The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic because the gap is too small for electrical impulses to
neurons are in close proximity in an electrical cross directly. Neurotransmitters are released from one
synapse. neuron and bind to receptor on another neuron, allowing
• In an electrical synapse the transmission of the the impulse to continue its functions. This process
impulse occurs in the form of an electrical current ensures smooth communication between neurons.
from one neuron to the next neuron. 169. Resting membrane potential is maintained by
(a) Hormones
(b) Neurotransmitters
(c) Ion pumps
(d) None of the above
Assam CEE-2014
Ans. (c) : Sodium pump starts working to maintain the
normal resting membrane potential by expelling Na+
and in taking of K+. Thus, resting membrane potential is
maintained by ion pumps.
170. In the resting state of the neural membrane, 175. In parasympathetic nervous system, which of
diffusion due to concentration gradients, if the following is released ?
allowed, would drive :- (a) Epinephrine (b) Norepinephrine
(a) K+ and Na+ out of the cell (c) Serotonin (d) Acetylcholine
(b) Na+ into the cell JIPMER-2010
(c) Na+ out of the cell Ans. (d) : In parasympathetic nervous system, the
(d) K+ into the cell neurotransmitter released is acetylcholine. This
AIPMT-2004 neurotransmitter binds to specific receptors on target
Ans. (b) : In the resting state of the neural membrane, cells, which leads to shows effect such as slowing down
diffusion due to concentration gradients would drive K+ heart rate, increasing digestive activity and promoting
into the cell. The concentration of potassium ions is relaxation.
higher inside the cell compared to outside, so they tend 176. Which of the following is important for muscle
to move from areas of higher concentration to area of contraction and nerve impulse transmission ?
lower concentration. It maintain electric potential across (a) Ca2+ ions (b) Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions
the cell membrane. 2+
(c) Mg ions (d) Fe2+ ions
171. Control and co-ordination of head movements JIPMER-2010
in response to visual and auditory stimuli is CG PMT-2008
carried out by______.
Ans. (b) : Both calcium (Ca2+) and magnesium (Mg2+)
(a) Corpora striata ions are essential for muscle contraction and nerve
(b) Corpora cavernosa impulse transmission. Ca2+ initiates muscle contraction
(c) Crura cerebri and is involved in neurotransmitter release, while Mg2+
(d) Corpora quadrigemina promotes muscle relaxation and enzyme activation.
MHT CET-01.10.2020 Shift-I 177. Transmission of signals or impulse through a
Ans. (d) : The corpora quadrigemina are four rounded nerve is.
structures in the midbrain. They consists of the superior (a) Physical phenomenon
colliculi, involved in visual functions and eye (b) Chemical phenomenon
movements, and the inferior collicule, responsible for (c) Physic-chemical phenomenon
auditory processing. These structures help process
visual and auditory information and coordinate (d) Mechanical phenomenon
appropriate responses. AMU-1995
172. When stimulus is applied to a membrane of Ans. (b) : There are two types of synapse, namely
neuron, it causes rapid influx of? electrical synapse and chemical synapse. Electrical
(a) K+ (b) Ca++ synapse is faster than chemical synapse. Chemical
++ + synapse called neurotransmitters. It helps in the
(c) Mg (d) Na transmission of impulses at chemical synapses.
Hence, transmission of signals or impulse through a
KVPY (SA)-2018
nerve is known as chemical phenomenon.
SRM JEEE -2017
Ans. (d) : When a stimulus is applied to a neuron's 178. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of
membrane, it causes a rapid influx of Na+ ions. This active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity
influx of sodium ions leads to depolarization, which is during muscle contraction.
an essential step in generating an action potential and (a) Calcium (b) Magnesium
transmitting nerve impulses along the neuron. (c) Sodium (d) Potassium
173. Neurogenic heart receives stimulus for NEET-2016 Phase-II
contraction from _____ fibres. Ans. (a) : During muscle contraction neural signal
(a) Elastin (b) Collagen reaching neuromuscular junction release acetylcholine
(c) Nerve (d) Muscle (ach) which generate action potential in the sarcolemma
MHT CET-01.10.2020 Shift-I and cause the release of Ca+2 into sarcoplasm.
Ans. (c) : In the neurogenic heart, the nerve from the brain
initiates cardiac movement. Neurogenic heart is found in
lower invertebrates like annelids and arthropods that
receives stimulus for contraction from nerve fibres.
174. The velocity of conduction of nerve impulse in
frog is
(a) 300 m/s (b) same as of electricity
(c) faster than sound (d) 30 m/s
JIPMER-2010
Ans. (d) : The velocity of conduction of a nerve
impulse in a frog is 30 m/s. This relatively slow speed is
due to the fact that nerve impulses in frogs and many Calcium ion is responsible for unmasking of active site
other animals are conducted through unmyelinated for myosin and for cross bridge activity during muscle
nerve fibres. contraction.

179. Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the Ans. (b) :
spinal cord would result in loss of :
(a) Integrating impulses
(b) Sensory impulses
(c) Voluntary motor impulses
(d) Commissural impulses
Ans. (c) : Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the Diagram showing axon terminal and synapse. The part
spinal cord would result in loss of voluntary motor of a synapse is given below as per the diagram.
impulse. A. It represent to receptors, these are proteins to which
The anterior horn contains cell bodies of alpha motor neurotransmitter bind. They can open ion channels
neurons, which affects to skeletal muscle movement. and excite the postsynaptic neuron.
B. It represent to synaptic cleft which is a gap between
pre and post synaptic neuron.
C. It represents the synaptic vesicles inside the axon
terminals which contains the neurotransmitters.
They attached to the presynaptic membrane and
release the neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft.
• The anterior grey column (anterior column), an 182. Larger influx of sodium ions into the nerve cell
anterior horn of spinal cord, motor horn or ventral is called
horn is the front column of grey matter in the spinal
(a) Depolarization
cord. It is one of the three grey columns.
(b) Action potential
• Anterior grey column contain motor neurons which (c) Re polarization
affect skeletal muscles while posterior grey column
(d) Positive feedback regulation
receives information regarding touch and sensation.
180. How do parasympathetic neural signals
Ans. (a) : When there is a larger influx of sodium ions
affect the working of the heart? into a nerve cell, it leads to depolarization, which is a
(a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output change in the cell membrane potential. A positive
(b) Heart rate is increased without affecting the feedback cycle rapidly moves the membrane potential
cardiac output toward its peak value, which is close but not equal to
(c) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase the Na+ equilibrium potential.
(d) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output 183. Acetylcholinesterase help in breaking
increases (a) Synapse (b) Acetylcholine
AIPMT-2014 (c) Dendrites (d) Axon
Ans. (a) : Sympathetic and parasympathetic have UP CPMT-2007
opposite function to each other. Sympathetic nerves Ans. (b) : Acetylcholinesterase enzyme is found in the
increase both heart rate and cardiac output, and also synapse. This enzyme decomposes the acetylcholine in
strength of ventricular contraction. to choline and acetic acid. It breakdowns or hydrolyses
The sympathetic division blood pressure, and the acetylcholine and naturally occurring neurotransmitters
into acetic acid and choline.
parasympathetic division decreases it. While,
parasympathetic neural signals reduce the rate of heart 184. Assertion: Acetylcholine participates in the
nerve impulse transmission across a synapse.
beat. The speed of conduction of action potential and
Reason: Acetylcholine is secreted by adrenergic
there by the cardiac output. fibres.
181. A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
is given below. Indentify correctly at least two reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
of A-D. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
AIIMS-1996
Ans. (c) : Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is
released by neurons at synapse. It binds to receptors on
the postsynaptic neuron, which causes a change in the
electrical potential of the post synaptic neuron. This
(a) C-Neurotransmitter D-Ca++ change in electrical potential can either excite or inhibit
(b) A-Receptor C-Synaptic vesicles the postsynaptic neuron.
(c) B-Synaptic connection D-K+ • Adrenergic fibres secrete the neurotransmitter
(d) A-Neurotransmitter B-Synaptic cleft norepinephrine. Acetylcholine is secreted by
NEET-2013 cholinergic fibres.
185. Which of the following is not considered as a 189. Node of Ranvier occurs where:
secondary messenger? (a) Nerve is covered with myelin sheath
(a) Acetylcholine (b) cAMP (b) Neurilemma is discontinuous
(c) Ca2+ (d) Diacylglycerol (c) Neurilemma and myelin sheath are
JIPMER-2019 discontinuous
Ans. (a) : Secondary messengers are molecules that are (d) Myelin sheath is discontinuous
produced inside the cell in response to signal from AIIMS-2015
outside of the cell. They amplify the signal and relay it Ans. (d) : Node of Ranvier are found in myelinated
to other. Ca2+, diacylglycerol, cAMP are examples of nerve fibres. These are the gaps between two adjacent
secondary messenger. myelin sheaths. Node of Ranvier is a gap in the
Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter in the insulating myelin sheath that brings about rapid
parasympathetic nervous system (the part of the conduction of nerve impulses.
autonomic nervous system) that contracts smooth
muscles, dilates blood vessels, increases bodily
secretions, and decreases heart rate.
186. Action potential is generated by
(a) Na+ (b) K+
(c) Ca +
(d) Cl−
JIPMER-2008
Ans. (a) : An action potential is generated by the rapid
influx of Na+ ions followed by a slightly slower influx
of K+ ions. An action potential is generated in the body
of the neuron and propagated through its axon.
187. The release of chemical messenger from
synaptic vesicles is under the influence of these
ion (s).
(a) Cl– (b) Fe++ and S++
++
(c) Ca (d) Mg++ and Sr++
AIIMS-2012
190. Unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse
Ans. (c) : When an impulse reach at synaptic knob of through nerve fibre is due to the fact that
the axon, it depolarize the presynaptic membrane and
(a) Nerve fibre is insulated by a medullary sheath
increases its permeability to calcium ions (Ca2+). From
the synaptic cleft Ca2+ pass into the synaptic knob via (b) Sodium pump starts operating only at the
cyton and then continues into the nerve fibre
voltage gated channels. Sudden elevation in the
cytosolic concentration of Ca2+ causes the release of a (c) Neurotransmitters are released by dendrites
chemical called neurotransmitter. Synaptic vesicles and not by axon endings
present into the synaptic cleft by exocytosis through the (d) Neurotransmitters are released by the axon
presynaptic membrane. endings and not by dendrites.
AIIMS-2004
188. Neurotransmitter released by
(a) Axon terminal (b) Dendrite Ans. (d) :
(c) Cell body (d) Myelin sheath
AIIMS-26.05.2019 Shift-II
Ans. (a) : Neurotransmitters are released by the axon
terminal when their vesicles "fuse" with the membrane
of the axon terminal, spilling of the neurotransmitter
present into the synaptic cleft.
• Neurotransmitters are released from synaptic vesicles
in pre-synaptic neurons in response to neural activity,
diffuse across the synaptic cleft, and bind specific
receptors in order to bring about changes in
postsynaptic neurons.
The unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse
through a nerve fibre is due to the fact that
neurotransmitters are only released from the axon
ending of the presynaptic neuron.
The dendrites of the postsynaptic neuron do not have
the receptors that are needed to bind to
neurotransmitters. Therefore, the nerve impulse can
only travel in one direction, for the post synaptic
neuron.
191. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from to transmit signals and it is important for generating
(a) Effector organs to CNS action potential.
(b) Receptors to CNS There are generally more sodium particles outside the
(c) CNS to receptors neuron and more potassium particles inside that neuron.
(d) CNS to muscles 195. Identify A, B, C and D in the following graph
AIPMT-1992 regarding nerve impulse transmission,
Ans. (b) : Receptors are connected to the central
nervous system by the afferent nerve fibers.
Afferent nerve fibres are formed of only sensory nerve
fibres, conduct nerve fibres, and conduct nerve impulses
from sensory organs or receptors to central nervous
system for producing sensation.
192. Dopamine is a type of ______
(a) Pain killer
(b) Neurotransmitter
(c) Tranquilizer Options:
(d) None of these options are correct
A B C D
AMU-1995 a. Polarisation Stimulus Repolarisat-ionHyperpolar-
isation
Ans. (b) : Dopamine is a type of neurotransmitter, act
as a chemical messenger. Nervous system uses it to b. Hyperpolaris Polarisati- Hyperpolar- Stimulus
send messages between nerve cells. ation on isation
193. Study the following c. Threshold Depolarisa Repolarisat-ionHyperpolaris
(A) Action potential stimulus tion ation
(B) Threshold stimulus d. Depolarisat- Repolari- HyperpolarisatiPolarisation
(C) Under shoot/Hyperpolarisation ion sation on
(D) Influx of Na+ ions AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-I
(E) Efflux of K+ ions Ans. (c) :
Arrange the above in a correct sequence of
A. Threshold stimulus : Minimum stimulation
nerve impulse generation and conduction.
Options: required to trigger an action potential.
(a) B→ A → D → C → E B. Depolarization: Influx of Na+ ions sodium ions
(b) A → B → C → D → E rush in, causing depolarization.
(c) B → D →A → E → C C. Repolarisation : Efflux of K+ ions potassium
(d) B → D → E → A → D ions leave, repolarizing the membrane.
AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-II D. Hyperpolarisation: Short period of increased
Ans. (c) : Sequence of nerve impulse generation and negativity, making the neuron less responsive.
conduction B → D →A → E → C. 196. Node of Ranvier is found in:
(i) Threshold stimulus (B) : Minimum stimulation (a) Right auricle (b) Muscle bundles
required to trigger an action potential. (c) Dendrite (d) Axon
(ii) Influx of Na+ ions (D): Sodium ions rush in, causing DUMET-2003
depolarization. Ans. (d) : Nodes of Ranvier is found in myelinated
(iii) Action potential (A): Short electrical signal nerve fibres (axon). These are the gaps between two
traveling along the neuron. adjacent myelin sheaths.
(iv) Efflux of K+ ions (E): Potassium ions leave,
repolarizing the membrane.
(v) Under shoot/Hyperpolarisation (C): Short period of
increased negativity, making the neuron less responsive.
194. The electrical potential difference between
outside and inside of a nerve axon before
excitation is known as :
(a) Resting potential (b) Action potential
(c) Spike potential (d) Reaction potential 197. The path of passage of stimulus when you
(e) Activation potential accidentally touch a hotplate is
Kerala PMT-2011 (a) Receptor → brain → muscles
Ans. (a) : The electrical potential difference between (b) Muscles → spinal cord → receptor
outside and inside of a nerve cell before excitation, (c) Muscles → brain → receptor
known as ''resting potential''. This baseline voltage, (d) Receptor → spinal cord → muscles
typically around –70 mV, maintains the cell's readiness KVPY SB & SX-2016
Ans. (d) : The path of passage of stimulus when you 202. Direction for: In each of the following
accidentally touch a hotplate is - Receptor → spinal questions a statement of Assertion is given
cord → muscles. followed by a corresponding statement of
While touching the hot plate impulse is registered from Reason just below it. Of the statements mark as
sensory organs to sensory neurons. Here the impulse travels Assertion: The imbalance in concentration of
through the central nervous system (CNS), and take the sodium and potassium ions and proteins
appropriate actions. After that, the impulse is transferred generates the resting potential.
back to the muscles by using the motor neurons. Reason: To maintain unequal distribution of
198. Which one of the following ion pairs is involved sodium and potassium, neurons use electrical
in nerve impulses? energy.
(a) Na+,K+ (b) Na+,Cl– (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
+
(c) K ,Cl –
(d) K+,Ca2+ Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
KVPY SB & SX-2016
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Ans. (a) : A nerve impulse involved Na+ and K+ ions Reason is not the correct explanation of
where nerve cell (neurons) communicate with one Assertion.
another. Nerve impulses are generated by action
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
potential. Sodium plays a vital role in our bodies. In
partnership with another element, potassium, it acts like (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
a chemical battery that powers our nerve impulses and VMMC-2009
muscle contraction. The action potential is the result of Ans. (c) : The resting potential in neurons is indeed a
Na+ and K+ ions moving in and out of the cell. result of the unequal distribution of sodium and
199. In motor neuron the impulse following in potassium ions and the presence of proteins.
which direction? While, the reason is false, because neurons use active
(a) In two direction (b) In one direction transport mechanisms, not direct electrical energy.
(c) In all direction (d) None of these The active transport processes involve the use of ATP
MGIMS Wardha-2012 to pump ions against their concentration gradients,
Rajasthan PMT-1999 which helps to maintain the resting potential.
Ans. (b) : Motor neuron impulses typically follow a 203. Assertion (A) : The conduction of nerve
unidirectional path, from the central neurons system to impulse follows all or none principle
the muscles or glands they innervate. Synapses are Reason (R) : The action potential is formed to a
small gaps between neurons or between a neuron and a threshold stimuli but does not form a
muscle. They transmit information through chemical subthreshold stimuli
messengers called neurotransmitters. Though this is The correct option among the following is
slower than electrical transmission, synapses ensure that (a) Both A and R are true. R is correct
a nerve impulse only travels in one direction. explanation for A
200. Which of the following statements (b) Both A and R are true. R is not correct
characterizes the depolarization state of explanation for A
neuron? (c) A is true. But R is false
(a) Na+ gets inside through channels (d) A is false. But R is true
(b) Na+ gets outside through channels TS EAMCET-28.09.2020 Shift-II
(c) K+ channels remain open Ans. (a) : The all-or-none principle describes the
(d) All of the above neuron will either fire on action potential fully if the
MHT CET-2014 stimulus is strong enough to reach the threshold level,
UP CPMT-2012 or won't fire at all if the stimulus is weaker (sub-
Ans. (a) : Na+ gets inside through ion channels. During threshold). This principle is supported by the fact that
depolarization, voltage-gated sodium (Na+) channels action potentials only occur when the stimulus is strong
open, allowing Na+ ions to flow into the neuron, which enough to cross the threshold.
contributes to the depolarization of the membrane 204. Which of the following statement is wrong
potential. regarding conduction of nerve impulse?
201. Brain receives and sends signals in the form of: (a) In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is
(a) Electrical impulses more permeable to K+ ions and nearly
(b) Chemical impulses impermeable to Na+ ions
(c) Magnetic impulses (b) Fluid outside the axon has a high
concentration of Na+ and low concentration of
(d) Electromagnetic impulses
K+, in a resting neuron
Haryana PMT-2001
(c) Ionic gradients are maintained by Na-K
Ans. (a) : Brain receives and sends signals in the form pumps across the resting membrane, which
of electrical impulses along with nerve fibre, it consist transport 3 Na+ ions outwards for 2K+ ions
of a wave of electrical depolarization that caused the into the cell
resting potential difference across the nerve cell (d) Resting potential is the electrical potential
membranes. difference across the resting membrane
(e) A neuron is polarized only when the outer 208. Identify the mixed cranial nerves
surface of the axonal membrane possess a (a) V, VII, IX, X (b) I, II, VIII
negative charge and its inner surface is
positively charged (c) III, IV, XI, XII (d) I, II, III, IV
Kerala PMT-2014 TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
Ans. (e) : A neuron is polarized only when the outer Ans. (a) : The mixed cranial nerves are the trigeminal
surface of the axonal membrane possess a negative charge nerve (V), facial nerve (VII), glossopharyngeal nerve
and its inner surface is positively charged is wrong (IX) and vagus nerve (X). They contain both sensory
statement regarding conduction of nerve impulses. and motor fibers. The other cranial nerves are either
The correct explanation is that in a resting neuron, the purely sensory or motor.
axonal membrane is polarized with the inner surface
being negatively charged relative to the outer surface. 209. The pneumotaxic centre and rhythm centre are
This polarization results from the unequal distribution respectively present in
of ions across the membrane. (a) Pons and medulla oblongata
205. Which one of the following acts solely as an (b) Corpus callosum and pons
inhibitory neurotransmitter? (c) Medulla oblongata and hypothalamus
(a) Nor epinephrine (d) Diencephalon and pons
(b) Gamma (γ) amino butyric acid (GABA)
AMU-2015
(c) Acetylcholine
(d) Dopamine Ans. (a) : The pneumotaxic center is located in the
WB JEE-2015 pons of the brain stem. It has the ability to moderate the
Ans. (b) : Neurotransmitter acts only in two ways function of the respiratory rhythm center, which is
excitatory or inhibitory. Gamma (γ) amino butyric acid located in the medulla. The pneumotaxic center sends
is chief inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central inhibitory signals to the inspiratory center, which helps
nervous system. It is chemical messenger that is widely to terminate inspiration and start expiration. This results
distributed in the brain. GABA natural function is to in a shorter duration of inspiration and a longer duration
reduce the activity of the neurons to which it binds and of expiration. This alters the respiratory rate.
also helps to control the fear and anxiety experience
when neurons are overexcited. 210. Reason, will, memory, intelligence and
206. Choose the correct statement emotions are governed by
(a) Non myelinated nerve fibres are found in (a) Cerebellum (b) Mid brain
spinal and cranial nerves. (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Cerebral hemispheres
(b) Retina has multipolar neurons. BVP-2010
(c) Electrical synapses are commonly present in CMC Vellore-2012
humans.
(d) Impulse transmission across an electrical Ans. (d) : Cerebral hemisphere are the largest part of
synapse is faster than across a chemical the brain and are responsible for most of the brain's
synapse. function, including reason, will, memory, intelligence,
(e) In a resting neuron, the axoplasm inside the axon and emotions.
contains high concentration of sodium ions. The cerebral hemisphere is one half of the cerebrum, the
Kerala PMT-2013 part of brain that controls muscle functions and also
Ans. (d) : There are two types of synapses namely controls speech, thought, emotions, reading and
electrical synapses and chemical synapses. In electrical learning,
synapses, the synaptic cleft is only 2 nm and in chemical
Others part of functions
synapses the synaptic cleft is 10–20 nm wide. Hence
impulse transmission across an electrical synapses is the brain
always faster than that across a chemical synapse. Cerebellum Coordination, balance and motor
skills.
E. Central neural system and its Midbrain Vision, hearing and movement.
Function Medulla Involuntary functions such as
oblongata breathing, heart rate, and blood
207. Limbic system is involved in the regulation of pressure.
(a) Breathing movements (b) Sexual behaviour
(c) Involuntary activities (d) Auditory funcitons 211. The IV, V and IX cranial nerves are
TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-II (a) Olfactory, spinal accessory and vagus
Ans. (b) : The limbic system is a collection of brain (b) Trigeminal, vagus and glossopharyngeal
structures that are involved in emotions, behaviour, and (c) Oculomotor, trigeminal and hypoglossal
long-term memory. It is located near the centre of the (d) Pathetic (trochlear), trigeminal and
brain and includes the amygdala, hippocampus, glossopharyngeal
hypothalamus, and cingulate cortex. BVP-2010
Ans. (d) : The IV, V and IX cranial nerves are, 215. Match the parts of the human brain with their
trochlear (pathetic), trigeminal and glossopharyngeal. functions.
Cranial Name Location Type Function Column I Column II
-nerve A. Cerebrum 1. Controls the pituitary
IV Trochlear Midbrain Motor Eye
nerve movement. B. Cerebellum 2. Controls vision and
V Trigeminal Cranial Mixed Touch, hearing
nerve cavity taste, C. Hypothalamus 3. Controls the rate of
chewing.
heart beat
IX Glossophar Cranial mixed Taste,
D. Midbrain 4. Seats of intelligence
yngeal cavity swallowing,
nerve gag reflex. 5. Maintains body posture
212. Which of the following foramen is present in (a) A-5 B-4 C-2 D-1
brain? (b) A-4 B-5 C-2 D-1
(a) Foramen magnum (c) A-5 B-4 C-1 D-2
(b) Apical foramen (d) A-4 B-5 C-1 D-2
(c) Foramen ovale (heart) MGIMS Wardha-2014
(d) Foramen transversarium Karnataka CET-2005
UP CPMT-2010 Ans. (d):
Ans. (a) : Foramen magnum is a large opening located Parts of Human Brain Function
at the base of the skull, where the skull and the vertebral A. Cerebrum Seats of intelligence
column meet. It serves as the passage for the spinal
cord to exit the skull and connect with the rest of the B. Cerebellum Maintains body posture
nervous system. C. Hypothalamus Controls the pituitary
213. Which of the following is the smallest cranial D. Midbrain Controls vision and
nerve? hearing
(a) Abducent (b) Optic E. Medulla oblongata Controls the rate of
(c) Trochlear (d) Facial heartbeat
UP CPMT-2010 216. Which of the following structure is related with
Ans. (c) : The trochlear nerve is the smallest cranial vision in rabbits?
nerve. It originates from the floor of the midbrain. It is a (a) Hippocampus (b) Corpus albicans
motor nerve play a role in eye movement. (c) Corpus callosum (d) Corpora quadrigemina
Electrical signals are sent between your brain, face, Manipal-2012
neck and body by cranial nerves.
Ans. (d) : Rabbit brain is mainly divided into three part.
These are fore brain, mid brain and hind brain. The
dorsal part of mid brain (mesencephalon) is in the form
of two pairs (four lobed) of spherical optic lobes known
as 'corpora quadrigemina' located behind the pineal
body. The two superior colliculi are involved in visual
processing and control of eye movements, while the two
inferior colliculi are involved in auditory processing.
217. Hearing is controlled by
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Diencephalon
(c) Frontal lobe of cerebrum
(d) Temporal lobe of cerebrum
214. The third ventricle of the brain is situated in
the Manipal-2011
(a) Roof of metencephalon Ans. (d) : Hearing is primarily controlled by the
(b) Base of myelencephalon temporal lobe of the cerebrum. The auditory cortex
(c) Roof of diencephalon within the temporal lobe processes sound signal sent
(d) Base of telencephalon from the ear, allowing us to perceive and understand
VMMC-2013 auditory information.
Ans. (c) : The third ventricle is found in the roof of the 218. Which of the following is affected by injury to
diencephalon, a part of the brain that includes the Broca's area of cerebrum?
thalamus and hypothalamus. This fluid filled cavity play (a) Vision (b) Speech
a role in cerebrospinal fluid circulation and (c) Hearing (d) Smell
communication between different brain ventricles. MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (b) : As a result of a lesion in Broca's area there is 223. Which of the following is not a part of brain
a breakdown between one’s thoughts and one’s stem ?
language abilities. This area typically located in the left (a) Cerebrum
frontal lobe. Damage to Broca's area can result in a (b) Pons varolii
condition called Broca's aphasia. (c) Medulla oblongata
In this patients often feel that they know what they wish (d) Corpora quadrigemina
to say but are unable to produce the word. That is, they UP CPMT-2012
are unable to translate their mental images and Ans. (a) : The cerebrum is not a part of the brainstem.
representations to words. One the of the most important The cerebrum is the largest and most prominent part of
arteries supplying blood to the brain, can cause damage the brain, responsible for various higher cognitive
to Broca’s area and lead to Broca’s aphasia with function like thinking, memory, reasoning and
symptoms of non-fluent halting speech and difficulty voluntary muscle movements.
finding words.
• The brainstem includes the medulla oblongata, pons
219. If a person experiences difficulty in movements vorolii and mid brain, which are responsible for vital
of pharynx, neck and shoulders, _____ cranial function like breathing, heart rate and reflexes.
nerve may be injured.
(a) Abducens (b) Hypoglossal
(c) Spinal accessory (d) Vagus
MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (c) : If a person experiences difficulty in
movements of pharynx, neck and shoulders spinal
accessory nerve may be injured.
A patient with an injury to the spinal accessory nerve
(SAN) may present with neck pain, asymmetrical
shoulders, inability to shrug the shoulder, or weakness
in the neck area. The patients can also have
complications secondary to treatment. 224. Which one of the following is a skull bone?
220. The patient of this disease exhibit memory loss (a) Coracoid (b) Arytaenoid
(particularly for recent events), shortened (c) Atlas (d) Pterygoid
attention span, disorientation and eventual AFMC-2007
language loss. Ans. (d) : The pterygoid bone is a palate bone found in
(a) Cancer (b) AIDS many vertebrates. The medial pterygoid muscle, is a
(c) Alzheimer's disease (d) Cystic fibrosis square shaped masticatory muscle, located at lower jaw
AFMC -2009 bilaterally. The bone attached with chew muscles are
Ans. (c) : Alzheimer’s disease is brain disorder that called pterygoid bones. They form the front part of the
slowly destroys memory and thinking skills and skull. Pterygoid bone is a facial bone.
eventually the ability to carry out the simplest tasks loss 225. Corpus callosum connects the
of memory is among the first symptoms reported by (a) Cerebrum and cerebellum
patients suffering from Alzheimer’s disease (AD) and (b) Two lobes of cerebellum
by their caretakers. Alzheimer’s disease is the most (c) Spinal cord with the brain
common form in people over age 65. (d) Two cerebral hemispheres
221. Respiration is controlled by : Karnataka CET-2022 / MHT CET-2016
(a) Cerebellum (b) Medulla oblongata WB JEE-2008 / Manipal-2014, 2005
(c) Olfactory lobes (d) Hypothalamus Ans. (d) : : The corpus callosum connects the two
VMMC-2013 / AFMC -2011 cerebral hemispheres of the brain, enabling
AMU- 2010 / AMU -2000 communication and coordination between them for
Ans. (b) : Respiration is controlled by the medulla various cognitive functions. Corpus callosum also
oblongata, which is located in the brainstem. It houses callosal commissure, is wide, thick nerve tract
the respiratory center responsible for regulating consisting flat bundle of commissural fibres, beneath
breathing patterns and coordinating the muscles the cerebral cortex in the brain.
involved in inhalation and exhalation. 226. The body temperature regulatory centre in the
222. Salivation in man is under the control of brain is
(a) Medulla oblongata (b) Mesencephalon (a) Cerebellum (b) Corpus callosum
(c) Hypothalamus (d) Cerebellum (c) Hypothalamus (d) Hippocampus
UP CPMT-2012 / AMU-2004 (e) Amygdala
Kerala PMT-2015 / AIPMT (Screening)-2010
Ans. (a) : Salivation in man is under the control of
AIPMT-2009 / AFMC-2003
medulla oblongata. Medulla oblongata is located in the
hind brain. It controls involuntary activities such as Ans. (c) : In mammals, the hypothalamus maintains
salivation, peristalsis vomiting, breathing and heartbeat. homeostasis i.e., it regulates body temperature. The
The medulla oblongata lies just inside the skull and hypothalamus is a small region of the brain which is
above the spinal cord. located at the base of the brain, near the pituitary gland.
227. Excessive stimulation of vagus nerve in humans Ans. (c) : The axis is the second cervical vertebrae of
may lead to the spine. The unique characteristic of this bone is a
(a) Hoarse voice strong odonatoid process known as dens. It rises
(b) Peptic ulcers perpendicularly from the upper surface of the body.
(c) Efficient digestion of proteins Odontoid process lies anterior to the spinal cord and is
(d) Irregular contraction of diaphragm used as the pivot for the rotation of the head the two
Rajasthan PMT-2010 bones articulate by way of the dens, known
Ans. (b) : The core temperature of human is regulated anatomically as the odontoid process.
and stabilized primarily by the hypothalamus. 231. Papillary muscles are found in mammalian
Excessive stimulation of the vagus nerve, can lead to an (a) Auricles (b) Ventricles
increased secretion of gastric acid in the stomach. This (c) Pinna (d) Eyes
excess gastric acid can contribute the development of Uttarakhand PMT-2009
peptic ulcers.
Peptic ulcers are open sores that form on the inner Ans. (b) : Papillary muscles are attached to the walls of
lining of the stomach, the upper part of the small the ventricles and to the AV- valves forming bonds
intestine or the esophagus. They can cause pain, called chordae tendinae. It function to ensure proper
discomfort, and potentially more serious complications functioning of the heart valves the contraction of the
if left untreated. papillary muscles opens these valves, when the
228. Neural canal is present in : papillary muscles relax, the valves close. The papillary
(a) Humerus (b) Tibio-fibula muscles are the involuntary muscles which are present
(c) Vertebral column (d) Cranial bones in the ventricles of the mammalian heart. They support
the tricuspid valves and mitral valves.
MGIMS Wardha-2005
Ans. (c) : The canal within the neural tube the 232. Which foramen is paired in mammalian brain?
primordium of the control canal of vertebral. Neural (a) Foramen of Luschka
canal is a cavity or system of cortices in the vertebrae of (b) Foramen of Magendie
the embryo which forms the ventricles of the brain and (c) Foramen of Monro
central canal of the spinal cord as it’s the space in the (d) Inter-ventricular foramen
vertebral column formed from the vertebrae through Uttarakhand PMT-2009
which spinal cord passes. Ans. (a) : Foramen of Luschka is paired foramen in
229. The aqueduct of Sylvius connects mammalian brain. Foramen of Magendie and foramen
(a) 1st and 2nd ventricles of Luschka, three ‘holes’ permit cerebrospinal fluid to
(b) 2nd and 3rd ventricles flow out into the subarachnoid space from metacoel.
(c) 3rd and 4th ventricles The lateral aperture is a paired structure in mammals. In
(d) 4th ventricle and central canal mammalian brain, paired foramen of Luschka are
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-II present on the lateral wall of metacoel.
AMU -2000 233. The correct sequence of meanings from inner
Ans. (c) : Aqueduct of Sylvius connects the third and to outer side is:
fourth ventricle. It is also known as iter. The third (a) Duramater→arachnoid membrane→piamater
ventricle is located in the centre of the diencephalon and (b) Duramater→piamater→arachnoid membrane
the fourth ventricle is located in the centre of pons and (c) Piamater→arachnoid membrane→duramater
the cerebellum. Foramen of Monro connects the second
(d) Arachnoid membrane→duramater→piamater
ventricle and the third ventricle the cerebral aqueduct
(Sylvius) is narrow 15 mm conduit that allows for CG PMT-2007 / DUMET-2007
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to flow between the third Karnataka CET-2003
ventricle and the fourth ventricle. Ans. (c) : Piamater → arachnoid membrane →
duramater
Human brain is well protected by the skull. Inside the
skull, the brain is covered by meninges consisting of an
outer layer called durameter, very thin middle layer
called arachnoids matter and an inner layer (which is in
contact with the brain tissue) called piamatter. It
contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which acts as
cushion for the brain. Pia mater is present underneath
the sub-arachnoids space. It is adhere to the surface of
brain and spinal cord.
234. Which one of the following cells from the
230. Axis vertebra is identified by lining of brain ?
(a) Sigmoid notch (b) Deltoid ridge (a) Ependymal cells (b) Neurons
(c) Odontoid process (d) Centrum (c) Schwann cells (d) Neurilemma
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 CG PMT-2007
Ans. (a) : All the ventricles of the brain, central canal of refuses to undergo treatment such persons are
spinal cord are lined by a columnar ciliated epithelium, commonly called mad. Psychosis is the abnormal
is the ependymal cell. Ependymal cells are a type of condition of the mind describing as involving a loss of
glial cells that line the ventricles of the brain and the contact with reality.
central canal of the spinal cord. Nerve cells are the basic 239. The cavity in the region of diencephalon in the
unit of the nervous system. They play a crucial role in brain of rabbit is called
cerebrospinal fluid homeostasis, brain metabolism and (a) Lateral ventricle (b) Third ventricle
the clearance of waste from the brain.
(c) Foramen of Monro (d) Iter
235. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by
Haryana PMT-2004
(a) Ependymal cells (b) Choroid plexuses
Manipal-2003
(c) Neuroglial cells (d) Neurons
CG PMT-2007 Ans. (b) : The ventricular system is set of four inter
Ans. (b) : Abducens is the sixth number of motor connected cavities (ventricles) in the brain where the
cranial nerve which regulate the movements of the eye cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced.
ball. The choroid plexus is a complex network of The cavity in the regions of diencephalon in the brain of
capillaries lined by specialized cells and has various rabbit is called the third ventricle.
functions. One of the primary functions is to produce Diencephalon thalamencephalon is small and narrow.
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) via the ependymal cells that Its roof consists of anterior choroid plexus and floor
line the ventricles of the brain. consists of hypothalamus.
236. The ventricles of the brain are filled with 240. Outermost covering of brain is called as :
(a) Cerebrospinal fluid (b) Lymph (a) Grey mater (b) Pericardium
(c) Blood (d) Amniotic fluid (c) Pia mater (d) Dura mater
CG PMT-2007
J&K CET-2006
Ans. (a) : The ventricles of the brain are filled with JIPMER-2000
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The brain cavity is filled
slightly alkaline and lymph like serious fluid resembling Ans. (d) : The duramater is the most superior of the
per- lymphatic fluid of ears and called cerebrospinal meningeal layers. This tissue separates the cranial
fluid. The brain ventricular system is a series of cavity into compartments and protects the brain from
connected cavities, filled with cerebrospinal fluid displacement. The outer most layer laying below the
(CSF), that forms within the vertebrate control nervous skull and vertebral column is double thick. Durameter is
system (CNS). The cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by a strong thick outermost layer of the brain.
anterior choroid plexus and posterior choroid plexus
241. Brain depends on blood for the supply of :
and is found inside the ventricles of the brain and
central canal of the spinal cord. (a) ATP and glucose
237. Which one of the following cranial nerve is (b) Oxygen and glucose
carrying the nerve fibres originating from (c) Oxygen and electrolytes
Edinger-westphal nucleus? (d) Oxygen and ATP
(a) Oculomotor (b) Trochlear JIPMER-2001
(c) Abducens (d) Vagus Ans. (b) : The normal functions of the brain’s control
Manipal-2015 centres are dependent upon the adequate supply of
Ans.(a): Oculomotor is a motor cranial nerve that starts oxygen and glucose through a dense network of blood
from the floor of the mid brain in the Edinger-Westphal vessels which include the right and left common carotid
nucleus and distributes in the eye and the four muscles arteries and right and left common vertebral arteries.
of the eyeball. It controls the movement of eyeball, iris, Therefore brain depends on blood for the supply of
lens and eyelid. The oculomotor nerve (The third oxygen and glucose because it produces energy for the
cranial nerve CN-III) has three main motor function. physiological reactions of brain.
• Innervations to the pupil and lens (autonomic
parasympathetic) 242. Sella turcica is a
• Innervations to the upper eyelid (somatic) (a) Covering of kidney
• Innervations on one of the eye muscles that allow for (b) Covering of testis
visual tracking and gaze fixation (somatic) (c) Depression in brain
238. Which of the following disorders can be (d) Depression in skull which lodges the pituitary
regarded as madness? gland
(a) Psychosis (b) Epilepsy Manipal-2013
(c) Insomnia (d) Parkinsonism Ans. (d) : The sella turcica is a saddle shaped
Haryana PMT-2004 / BVP-2005 depression located in the bone at the base of skull
Ans. (a) : Psychosis is mental illness characterized by (sphenoid bone), in which resides the pituitary gland.
loss of perceptions about realities of life. It is caused by The sella turcica most inferior portion is known as the
brain disorders, TB, diabetes, hypertension etc. The hypophyseal fossa and contains the pituitary gland
psychic is generally not aware of his illness and even (hypothesis).
243. According to Wilhelm Stern IQ (Intelligence Ans. (d) : Medulla oblongata contains centre for the
Quotient) is : control of heart beat, respiration digestion, blood,
Mental age pressure, gut peristalsis, swallowing of food, secretions
(a) IQ = × 100 of glands, involuntary function (vomiting), coughing
Actual age
vasoconstrictor, vasodilator, sneezing and hiccuping etc.
Actual age The medulla oblongata is not centre for temperature
(b) IQ = × 100
Mental age regulation, it is controlled by the hypothalamus.
100 248. Power of regeneration is minimum in:
(c) IQ = (a) Brain cell (b) Liver cell
Actual age × Mental age
(c) Bone cell (d) Muscle cell
Actual age × Mental age Haryana PMT-1999
(d) IQ =
100 Ans. (a) : In brain cells the power of regeneration
Manipal-2013 capacity is minimum. Brain cell remain in the beginning
Mental age stage of the inter phase of cell division for their life and
Ans. (a) : IQ = × 100 never divide. Instead they develop by forming new
Actual age (chronologic alage )
synapses with other neurons. They lack cellular
IQ = Intelligence quotient a number used to express the machinery for cell division because there is no cell
relative intelligence of a person. division observed after maturity in nervous tissues.
244. Alzheimer's disease affects
249.Memory weakens if one of the following part is
(a) Child (b) Youth (adolescence)
injured:
(c) Adult (d) Old (elderly)
(a) Medulla (b) Cerebellum
Manipal-2013
(c) Cerebrum (d) Hypothalamus
Ans. (d) : Alzheimer’s disease is most common in
people over the age 65. Alzheimer disease (AD) is the Haryana PMT-1999
most common cause of a decline in cognitive ability. It Ans. (c) : If person has lost his memory in an accident
is a neurodegenerative disorder. The risk of Alzheimer’s that means the cerebrum has got injured. Cerebrum is
disease and other types of dementia increases with age, divided in four regions called lobes that control sense,
affecting on estimated 1 in 14 people over the age of 65 thoughts and movement. The four lobes are the occipital
and 1 in every 6 people over the age of 80. temporal, frontal and parietal lobes.
245. Cranial nerve showing maximum branching is Cerebrum or cortex is the largest part of the human
(a) Trigeminal (b) Vagus brain associated with the higher brain function such as
(c) Optic (d) Facial thought and action.
MGIMS Wardha-2009 / AMU-2008, 1998 250. Hypothalamus forms the floor and lower part
VMMC-2008 of:
Ans. (b) : Vagus nerve is a mixed nerve, It contains (a) 3rd ventricle (b) Optocoel
both afferent (sensory) and efferent (motor) fibers. It (c) Lateral ventricle (d) 4th ventricle
originates from the side of the medulla oblongata and
has 5 brunches known as superior laryngeal, recurrent Haryana PMT-1999
laryngeal, cardiac, pneumogastric, and depressor. It is Ans. (a) : Hypothalamus region of the brain laying
the tenth pair of cranial nerves supplying the heart, below the thalamus and making up the floor of the third
lungs, upper digestive tract, and other organs of the cerebral ventricle. Third ventricle is a narrow funnel
chest and abdomen. Vagus nerve has the highest shaped cavity of the brain. Its located in the midline
number of branches. comprising the central part of the ventricular system of
246. Which of the following is a bacterium involved the brain. Third ventricle directly communicated with
in denitrification? other ventricles.
(a) Azotobacter (b) Nitrosomonas 251. Main function of cerebellum is:
(c) Pseudomonas (d) Nitrobacter (a) Will power
J&K CET-2015 (b) Control of involuntary actions
Ans. (c) : Denitrification is an anaerobic process, that (c) Co-ordination of voluntary actions
converts nitrate to nitrogen gas thus eliminating (d) Memory
bioavailable nitrogen and returning it to the atmosphere.
Rajasthan PMT-2001
Pseudomonas is widely found in soil, fresh water
oceans and animals. It is an aerobic gram-negative Haryana PMT-1999
bacterium and a type of denitrifying bacterium. Ans. (c) : Cerebellum associates to coordinate the voluntary
247. Which of the following is not correctly matched? movement of muscle, body posture and balance. All the
(a) Rhinoncephalon - olfactory voluntary of our body are controlled by the cerebrum. The
(b) Hypothalamus - pituitary cerebrum is the largest and the most prominent part of the
(c) Cerebellum - balance brain. So, cerebrum controls all the voluntary movement.
(d) Medulla oblongata – temperature regulation Cerebrum is the most highly developed part of the human
J&K CET-2006 / JCECE-2003
brain and is responsible for changing, perceiving, producing
Rajasthan PMT-2002 and understanding language.
252. Parkinson′s disease (characterized by tremors Ans. (a) : Lateral ventricles are the two largest ventricle
and progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by of the brain. Each cerebral hemisphere contains a lateral
degeneration of brain neurons that are ventricles known as the left or right ventricles
involved in movement, control and make use of respectively that contain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) .
neurotransmitter 257. Name of nervous band connecting cerebral
(a) Acetylcholine (b) Nor-epinephrine hemispheres in rabbit is
(c) Dopamine (d) GABA (a) Corpus callosum (b) Corpus albicans
CG PMT - 2006 / JIPMER - 2007 (c) Corpus striatum (d) Corpus spongiosum
Ans. (c) : A layer of large pigmented nerve cells in the CG PMT-2006
midbrain called substantia nigra that are involved in
movement control and make use of neurotransmitter. It Ans. (a) : The brain is divided into the right and left
produces dopamine and when it damage is associated hemisphere and two halves which are connected by a
with Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's disease is caused tract to nerve fibers called the corpus callosum. Corpus
by degeneration of brain neurons, that we involved in callosum is a thick band of nerve connecting two
movement, control and make use of the cerebral hemispheres. It allows for communication
neurotransmitter dopamine. between both hemispheres. The corpus callosum
transfers motor, sensory and cognitive information
253. Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to between the brain hemispheres.
affect
(a) Tongue movements 258. Which is correct about human brain?
(b) Gastrointestinal movements (a) It is covered by two membranes
(c) Pancreatic secretion (b) There is no blood-brain barrier
(d) Cardiac movements (c) Largest number of cranial nerves originate
from cerebral hemisphere
CMC Ludhiana-2009 / Manipal-2007
CG PMT-2006 / AIIMS-2008 /BCEC-2012 (d) Cerebral cortex is highly developed
J & K CET-2000 /AFMC-2008 CG PMT-2006
JCECE-2009 / CMC Vellore-2012 Ans. (d) : Human brain is covered by three layers of
Ans. (a) : The vagus nerve is the longest cranial nerve membranes. The blood –brain barrier is present in all
in the body. regions of the brain except the circum-ventricular organ.
It not only regulates the gut but also affects the Cerebral cortex is highly developed in human brain.
cardiovascular, respiratory, immune and endocrine The outer portion of the brain is cerebral cortex that
system. Therefore, damage to vagus nerve does not makes up the grey matter of the cerebrum. The cerebral
affect the tongue movement. It provides a bidirectional cortex contains about 10 percent of the all neurons of
link between gut and brain and connects all major the brain. Most of the neural activities occur in it.
organs (excluding) the thyroid and adrenal glands. 259. Skeletal muscles are controlled by
254. In a man, abducens nerve is injured. Which (a) Sympathetic nerves
one of the following function will be affected? (b) Parasympathetic nerves
(a) Movement of the eye ball (c) Somatic nerves
(b) Swallowing (d) Autonomic nerves
(c) Movement of the tongue DUMET-2009
(d) Movement of the neck Ans. (c): Skeletal muscle tissue is closely attached to
JIPMER / CG PMT-2006 skeletal bones. It is striated (striped) skeletal muscle
Ans. (a) : The abducens nerve is the sixth paired fibres are bundled together in a parallel fashion. It is
cranial nerve in human that controls the movement of voluntary controlled by the somatic nerve, which is a
the eye. Therefore if the abducens nerve injured in a part of peripheral nervous system.
man, the movement of the eye ball is affected. 260. Vomiting centre is located in the
255. The centre for sense of smell in brain is (a) Stomach and sometimes in duodenum
(a) Cerebellum (b) Cerebrum (b) Gastro-intestinal tract
(c) Olfactory lobes (d) Midbrain (c) Hypothalamus
CG PMT-2006 / AFMC-2005 (d) Medulla oblongata
Ans. (c) : Olfactory system is the sensory system used for DUMET-2009, 2011
smelling also known as olfaction, . It is one of the special Ans. (d) : Vomiting is ejection of stomach contents
sense, that have directly associated specific organs. The through one mouth. This reflex action is controlled by
sense of olfaction are carried by the olfactary nerves to the the vomit centre in the medulla. The vomiting centre
olfactory lobe, a part of the cerebrum, located in the medulla oblongata that initiates and
The pariental lobe belongs to the cerebrum part of the controls the act of emesis, which involves a series of
human brain. The pariental lobe is responsible for contractions of the smooth muscles lining of the
controlling the sense of small touch as well as pain. digestive facts.
256. Lateral ventricles are found in 261. The function of vagus nerve innervating the
(a) Brain (b) Heart heart is to
(c) Thyroid (d) Both (a) and (b) (a) initiate the heart beat
CG PMT-2006, 2004 (b) reduce the heart beat
(c) accelerate the heart beat 266. Olfactory lobes of man are:
(d) maintain constant heart beat (a) Fused and hollow (b) Fused and solid
DUMET-2009 (c) Free and hollow (d) Solid
Ans. (b) : Vagus nerve is the 10th cranial nerves or Haryana PMT-2003
mixed nerve. It is only cranial nerve which extends Ans. (d) : The olfactory lobes are small-sized club-
beyond the head and neck to thorax and abdomen. It shaped solid structures found in the forebrain and their
innervates the pharynx, esophagus, larynx, lungs, main function is to control the sense of smell.
stomach and intestines. 267. Drinking of alcohol affects :
It innervates the sinoatrial node of heart. It reduces the (a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum
heartbeat and blood pressure. (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Diencephalon
262. Cranial nerves numbering IV, V, VI are : BCECE-2004 / Haryana PMT-2003
(a) Trochlear, trigeminal, abducens Ans. (b) : Alcohol consumption leads to the alternation
(b) Trochlear, trigeminal, facial of the structures of the brain. Cerebellum is involved in
(c) Auditory, facial trochlear the movements by influencing the upper motor neurons.
(d) Auditory, trochlear, facial Alcohol affects the cerebellum and consequently affects
DUMET-2001 bodily movements. There is a loss of coordinated
Ans. (a): movements and balance leading to ataxia. There are
memory loss and difficulty in speech and language.
Cranial Location type Function
nervous system 268. The thermoregulatory centre in the body is:
(a) Spinal cord (b) Hypothalamus
(IV) Trochlear Superior motor Eye
orbital fissure movement (c) Cerebellum (d) Pituitary
JCECE-2004 / Haryana PMT-2003, 2002
Trigeminal (V) Superior motor facial
orbital fissure sensation Ans. (b) : The thermoregulatory centre of the human
body is Hypothalamus. Hypothalamus is a part of the
Abducens (VI) Superior motor Eye forebrain and contains a thermoregulatory centre within
orbital fissure movement them it maintains the rise and fall of temperature of body
263. Facial nerve arises from medulla and is and also receives information from thermo receptors found
(a) Sensory (b) Motor on the skin. Thus, it considered as thermoregulatory centre.
(c) Sensory and motor (d) None of these Hypothalamus contains neurosecretory cells that secrete
VMMC-2010 hypothalamic hormones.
Ans. (c) : Facial nerve has very complex path. It 269. EEG is an idex of brain functioning and is most
originates in the pons area of your brainstem where it useful in the diagnosis of
has both a motor and sensory root. I. epilepsy.
Motor axons innervate the muscle of facial expression II. brain infections and drug effects on the
and the stapedius muscle. brain.
264. Taste area lies in the: III. sleep and it disorder.
(a) Frontal lobe (b) Occipital lobe IV. brain death.
(c) Parietal lobe (d) Temporal lobe (a) I and II (b) I and III
Haryana PMT-2003 (c) I, II and III (d) All of these
BVP-2015
Ans. (c) : The middle part of the brain it parietal lobe
help a person to identify objects and understand spatial Ans. (d) : EEG can find changes in brain activity that
relationships ( where one's body is compared to objects might be useful in diagnosing brain disorders, especially
around the person). The parietal lobe is also involved in epilepsy or another seizure disorder. An EEG might
pain and touch in the body. The parietal process also be helpful for diagnosing or treating, brain tumors,
information about temperature taste, touch and brain damages from head injury.
movement while the occipital lobe is primarily • Brain dysfunction that can a have variety of causes
responsible for vision. (encephalopathy)
265. Corpus luteum is a part of: • Sleep disorders
(a) Mammalian lung (b) Mammalian ovary • Inflammation of the brain
(c) Mid brain (d) Hind brain • Stroke
Haryana PMT-2003 • Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
Ans. (b) : In mammals, corpus luteum is a part of 270. Which one is the spinal nerve ?
ovary. It is involved in the production of hormones like (a) Trigeminal (b) Hypoglossal
progesterone and estrogen. It develops from an ovarian (c) Olfactory (d) None of these
follicle during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle or VMMC-2008 / AMU-2008
oestrous cycle and releases secondary oocyte from the
fully matured ovarian follicle during ovulation. Ans. (d) : There are 31 pair of spinal nerves, located at
the-
The corpus luteum remain in the ovary, where as
secondary oocyte goes to the uterus through the • Cervical (8 pairs)
fallopian tube. Hence, one corpus luteum is formed • Thoracic (12 pairs)
during each menstrual cycle. • Lumbar (5 pair)
• Sacral (5 pair) 275. Respiratory centre is present in
• Coccygeal (1 pair) (a) Cerebellum (b) Cerebrum
Each pair of spinal nerves connect the spinal cord with a (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Hypothalamus
specific region of the body. TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I / UP CPMT-2011
Trigininal, hypoglossal and olfactory all are the cranial VMMC-2007 /UP CPMT-2002 /
nerves. Rajasthan PMT-1999 / JCECE-2004
271. Foramen of Monro is an aperture between Ans. (c) : The hindbrain comprises pons, cerebellum
(a) Third and 4th ventricles and medulla oblongata. The medulla contains centers
(b) Rhinocoel and diacoel which control respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and
(c) Lateral and third ventricle gastric secretions. The respiratory centre is made up of
three major respiratory groups of neurons two in the
(d) Diacoel and metacoel
medulla and one in the pons. It is responsible for
VMMC-2008 generating and maintaing the rhythm of respiration. Hence,
Ans. (c) : Foramen of Monro is a common aperture by respiratory centre is present in medulla and pons.
which two ventricles open into three ventricle. Inside 276. Which of the following is purely motor cranial
diencephalon there is a narrow cavity called 3rd nerve?
ventricle of brain or diacoel which is connected
anteriorly with lateral ventricles. The paired foramen (a) Olfactory (b) Optic
allow for the flow of cerebrospinal fluid between inter (c) Abducens (d) Vagus
ventricles and third ventricles. HP CET-2012 / AP EAMCET-2011
Foramen of Monro is a short conduct between the Uttarakhand PMT-2008 / CMC Vellore-2008
paired lateral ventricles and third ventricle of the brain. VMMC-2007 / AMU-2006 / UP CPMT-2002
DUMET-2001 / UP CPMT-2001
272.Corpus striatum is found in
Ans. (c) : Abducens is a motor nerve which controls the
(a) Paracoel (b) Diocoel
movements of the eyeball. Vagus, facial and trigeminal
(c) Metacoel (d) Cerebral hemishere are mixed nerves. Abducens mainly motor nuclei laying
CG PMT-2010 under the floor of the fourth ventricle and pons. It is
Ans. (d) : Corpora striata is present in the ventrolateral located in the superior to orbitral fissure.
walls of the cerebral hemisphere. In corpus striatum, Purly motor cranial nerves are-
stripped grey matter and white matter consisting of the (III) oculomotor
neostriatum and paleostriatum (globus pallidus). It is (IV) Trochlear
located in front of and lateral to the thalamus in each
(VI) Abducent
cerebral hemisphere . It is an important nucleus present
in the forebrain. (XI) Accessory
This striatum released when dopamine neurons in the (XII) Hypoglossal
midbrain undergo burst firing Abducens is purely a motor nerve. It is also a smallest
cranial nerve.
273. In humans, which side of cerebral hemisphere
recognises the faces of friends and family 277. The vagus nerve is the cranial nerve
members? numbering:
(a) Left cerebral hemisphere (a) 10th (b) 9th
(b) Right cerebral hemisphere (c) 7th (d) 5th
(c) Both [a] and [b] HP CET-2013 / VMMC-2003
(d) None of the above Manipal-2001/ Haryana PMT-2001
BVP-2001 / AIPMT-1997 / AIPMT-1992
CG PMT-2010
Ans. (a) : Vagus nerve is a 10th cranial nerve based on
Ans. (b) : Function of right hemisphere are spatial abilities
the function and number. It consists of both afferent
face recognition, visual imagery, and music. Visual (sensory) and efferent (motor) nerves. It originates form
pattern, the shape of objects and their locations in space are the medulla of the brainstem, it extends down through
interpreted by right side of the brain with the right the face and thorax to the abdomen.
hemisphere humans appreciate the contex of an event and
recognize the faces of friends and family members. 278. The cranial nerve that goes to the external
rectus muscle is
274.The anterior choroid plexus forms the roof of:
(a) II (b) III
(a) Diocoel (b) 4th ventricle
(c) VII (d) VI
(c) Olfactory ventricle (d) Optocoel
Manipal-2010
AP EAMCET-2000 th
Ans. (d) : The abducens nerve ( 6 cranial nerve)
Ans. (a) : The cavity of diencephalon is called diocoel.
Anterior choroid plexus is the folding in the roof of controls Lateral rectus muscle which abducts the eye.
diocoel. It is highly vascularized and produce The lateral rectus is the only muscle supplied by cranial
cerebrospinal fluid. Anterior choroid plexus is present nerve (VI) the abducens nerve via the tecto-spinal track.
on roof of diencephalon while posterior choroid plexus 279. Venom of corbra attacks:
is present on roof of medulla oblongata. Both secrete (a) Digestive system (b) Respiratory system
CSF by the filtration of blood and also protects the brain (c) Nervous system (d) Circulatory system
from toxins. AFMC-2001
Ans. (c) : Venom of cobra releases a deadly neurotoxin 284. In which part of the human brain corpora
that attacks the nervous system of its prey. These toxins quadrigemina is located?
attack the nerves that are stimulated by acetylcholine. (a) Forebrain (b) Hindbrain
The toxin targets the acetylcholine receptors of the prey (c) Midbrain (d) Cerebral hemisphere
venoms which are typical of the elapidae snakes Karnataka CET-2020
(mambas, cobras and corals ) contain a number of Ans. (c) : Corpora quadrigemina is located in posterior
toxins that primarily affect the peripheral nervous surface of midbrain in human’s brain. It basically
system in particular the neuromuscular junction. connects the forebrain and hind brain. It controls the
280. Fifth cranial nerve of frog is reflex action of vision, auditory and somatic stimuli.
(a) Facial (b) Olfactory 285. A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering
(c) Trigeminal (d) Vagus from an abnormally low body temperature,
AFMC-2010 loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain
Ans. (c): The fifth cranial nerve of the frog is called the scan would probable show a tumor in
trigeminal nerve which arises from the lateral side to the (a) Pons (b) Cerebellum
medulla. The trigeminal nerve (V) is the largest cranial (c) Hypothalamus (d) Medulla Oblongata
nerve and it has both a sensory and a motor division. Karnataka CET-2009
The motor division of the trigeminal nerve which has its Ans. (c) : Hypothalamus lies at base of the thalamus.
own nucleus located in the pons innervates the "muscles The hypothalamus contains a number of centers which
of mastication, '' and also tensor muscle, of the control body temperature, urge for eating and drinking.
tympanic membrane of the ear. It also contains several group of neuro secretary cells
281. Which of the following is mismatched? which secrete hormones called hypothalamic hormones.
(a) Cerebrum - Memory 286. Hypothalamus of the brain is not involved in
(b) Cerebellum - Equilibrium of body this function :
(c) Olfactory lobes - Sense of smell (a) Sleep-wake cycle
(d) Medulla oblongata - Temperature regulation (b) Osmoregulation & thirst
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-II (c) Temperature control
Ans. (d) :Hypothalamus lies at the base of the thalamus. (d) Accuracy of muscular movement
The hypothalamus contains a number of centre which Karnataka CET-2012
control, body temperature, urge for eating & drinking.
Ans. (d) :Hypothalamus is a part of brain with number
Medulla oblongata is a centre for respiration and
of small nuclei and involved varity of functions such as
circulation.
sleep-wake cycle, osmoregulation and thirst and
282. The primary visual centre/cortex is located in temperature control. The hypothalamus of the brain is
_____ not involved in the coordination of muscular
(a) Parietal lobe (b) Frontal lobe movements. Muscular movements are controlled by the
(c) Temporal lobe (d) Occipital lobe cerebellum of the brain.
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-II 287. In the diagram of the lateral view of the human
Ans. (d) : Occipital lobe : Visual centre brain, parts are indicated by alphabets. Choose
Frontal lobe : Speech (Broca’s area) the answer in which these alphabets have been
Temporal lobe :Auditory & language, memory correctly matched with the parts which they
Parietal lobe : Touch, perception indicate.
283. The person is suffering from which disease
having the symptoms like aging and tremor?
(a) Sciatica (b) Diabetes
(c) Parkinson’s (d) Multiple sclerosis
GUJCET-2017
Ans. (c) : Parkinson's disease is caused by the
deficiency of dopamine. Symptoms include aging,
slow movement, rigidity and stiffness of muscles (a) A = Temporal lobe, B =Parietal lobe, C =
causing tremors or trembling which is involuntary Cerebrum, D = Medulla oblongata, E =
shaking movement of muscles. Frontal lobe
(a) Sciatica → occurs due to pressure on the sciatica (b) A = Frontal lobe, B = Temporal lobe, C =
nerve which is a spinal nerve. Pain radiates from Cerebellum, D = Medulla oblongata, E =
the sciatic nerve and runs down from the lower Parietal lobe
back to the legs and hips. (c) A = Temporal lobe, B = Parietal lobe, C =
(b) Diabetes → Diabetes occurs due to deficiency of Cerebellum, D = Medulla oblongata, E =
the hormone insulin in the body rise in blood Frontal lobe
sugar level. (d) A = Frontal lobe, B = Temporal lobe, C =
(c) Multiple Sclerosis → It is a disease associated Cerebrum, D = Medulla oblongata, E =
with the brain and spinal cord. The immune Occipetal lobe
system destroys the protective covering the nerves. Karnataka CET-2008
Ans. (b) : (d) Pneumogastric- The pneumogastric nerve; one of
the 10th pair of cranial nerves which are distributed to
the pharynx, oesophagus, larynx, lungs, heart,
stomach, liver and spleen and in fishes and many
amphibian, to the bronchial apparatus and also to the
sides of the body.
291. The desynchronized waves recorded EEG in
persons who are tense are
(a) Delta waves (b) Theta waves
(c) Alpha waves (d) Beta waves
A = Frontal lobe, B = Temporal lobe,
C = Cerebellum, D = Medulla oblongata, E = Parietal Ans. (d) : Beta waves are high - frequency low
amplitude brain waves that are commonly observed in
lobe.
an awaken state. They are involved in conscious
288. Anterior choroid plexus is present on the thought and logical thinking.
(a) Roof of diencephalon 292. Assertion (A) : Abducens nerv are motor
(b) Roof of medulla oblongata nerves
(c) Floor of diencephalon Reason (R) : They originate from the pons
(d) Cerebral hemispheres varolii and ends in the lateral rectus muscle of
Karnataka CET-2008 eye ball
Ans. (a) : Anterior choroid plexus is present on the roof The correct option among the following :
of the diencephalon. Choroid plexus is a made up of (a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct
network of capillaries and specialized ependymal cells explanation for (A)
which projects into four ventricles of brain. The choroid (b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the
plexus regulates the production and composition of correct explanation for (A)
cerebrospinal fluid, that provides the protective (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
buyoncy for the brain. (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
289. In the central nervous system, myelinated TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I
fibres form the ...... while the non-myelinated Ans. (a) : Abducens nerve is motor nerve. It has no
fibre cells form the ..... sensory function. The lateral rectus muscle arises from
(a) Grey matter, white matter the common tendious ring and runs anteriorly across the
(b) White matter, grey matter lateral parts of the orbit to insert at the lateral side of the
(c) Ependymal cells, neurosecretory cells eyeball.
(d) Neurosecretory cells, ependymal cells 293. The only cranial nerve that extends into the
JIPMER-2014 abdominal cavity is
(a) Trigeminal (b) Glossopharyngeal
Ans. (b) : In the central nervous system, myelinated
fibres form the white matter, while the non– myelinated (c) Hypoglossal (d) Vagus
fibres cells form the grey matter. These both are the parts TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II
of brain. Grey matter is the region where actual
‘processing’ is done whereas white matter provide the Ans. (d) : Vagus nerve is the longest cranial nerve. It
communication between grey matter and rest of the body. contains motor and sensory fibers and because it passes
through the neck and thorax to the abdomen. It has the
290. Which one of the branches of cranial nerves is widest distribution in the body.
not related to vagus?
The cranial nerves are a set of 12 paired nerves in the
(a) Chorda tympani (b) Cardiac depressor back of brain.
(c) Recurrent laryngeal (d) Pneumogastric
294. In a car accident, a person lost the speech and
AP EAMCET-2013 is unable to swallow the food. What could be
Ans. (a) : Chorda tympani - The Chorda tympani is the reason
nerve that arises from the mastoid segment of the (a) Abducens motor nerve was damaged
facial nerve, carrying different special sensation from (b) Vestibulo-cochlear nerves were damaged
the anterior two-thirds of the tongue via the lingual (c) Hypoglossal motor nerve was damaged
nerve. (d) Trochlear nerve was damaged
(b) Cardiac depressor- A fall in blood pressure due to TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II
peripheral vasodilation and cardiac inhibition by TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II
stimulation of termination of a cardiac depressor nerve Ans. (c) :The hypoglossal motor nerve helps to move
in the aortic arch and base of the heart. tongue. It enables to speak, swallow and push
(c) Recurrent laryngeal -The recurrent laryngeal nerve substances around in mouth. If motor nerve was
(RLN) is a branch of the vagus nerve that supplies all damaged it causes paralysis of the tongue. Usually one
the intrinsic muscles of larynx, with the exceptions of side of the tongue is affected and when the person sticks
the cricothyroid muscles. There are two recurrent out their tongue, it deviates or points toward the side
laryngeal nerves, right and left. that is damaged.
295. Column-I lists some disorders associated with Ans. (d) : The hypothalamus is a section of the brain
brain. Column-II lists the causes for these responsible for hormone produced by this area of the
disorders. Match the two columns and identify brain govern body temperature, thirst, hunger, sleep,
the correct option from those given circadian rhythm, moods, sex drive and the release of
Column-I Column-II other hormones in the body. The hypothalamus is
A. Epilepsy p. Degeneration of located below the thalamus just above the brainstem
neurons in the Structure Location Function
cerebral cortex. a. Blind spot Near the place Photoreceptor
B. Alzheimer's q. Irregular electrical where optic cells are not
disease discharge in the nerve present
neurons leaves the eye
C. Parkinson's r. Decreased b. Eustachian Part of middle Equalizes air
disease production of tube ear pressure
acetylcholine on either sides of
D. Huntington's s. Regeneration of tympanic
chorea dopamine membrane
releasing neurons c. Cerebellum Part of hind Maintaining
t. Formation of brain balance, posture
blood clots in the and tone of the
brain body.
(a) A = t, B = s, C = r, D = p 297. Alzheimer's disease in humans is associated
(b) A = q, B = r, C = p, D = s with the deficiency of :
(c) A = q, B = r, C = s, D = p (a) Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
(d) A = q, B = s, C = r, D = p (b) Dopamine
(c) Glutamic acid
Karnataka CET-2006
(d) Acetylcholine
Ans. (c) : AIPMT-2009
Column-I Column-II Ans. (d) : Acetylcholine (ACh), a neurotransmitter
A. Epilepsy Irregular electrical essential for processing memory and learning.
discharge in the neurons Alzheimer's disease is caused by reduced concentration
B. Alzheimer's Decreased production of and function of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
disease acetylcholine 298. Match the number of spinal nerves present in
C. Parkinson's Regeneration of dopamine the humans
disease releasing neurons Spinal nerves Number
D. Huntington's Degeneration of neurons in Cervical 12
chorea the cerebral cortex. Thoracic 5
296. Select the answer with correct matching of the Lumbar 5
structure, its location and function.
Sacral 8
Structure Location Function
(a) A – 5, B – 5, C – 12, D – 5
(a) Blind spot Near the place Rods and (b) A – 8, B – 12, C – 5, D – 5
Where optic cones are (c) A – 8, B – 5, C – 12, D – 5
nerve present but (d) A – 12, B – 5, C – 8, D – 5
leaves the eye inactive here AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II
(b) Eustachian Anterior Equalizes air Ans. (b) : There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves in human,
tube part of pressure arising from the spinal cord.
internal ear on either (A) Cervical - 8
sides of
(B) Thoracic- 12
tympanic
(C) Lumbar- 5
membrane
(D) Sacral - 5
(c) Cerebellum Mid brain Controls (E) Coccygeal - 1.
respiration
and gastric 299. Parkinsonism is related with
secretions (a) Brain (b) Spinal nerve
(d) Hypothalamus Fore brain Controls (c) Cranial nerves (d) All of these
Body JIPMER-2015
temperature, Ans. (a) : Parkinsonism is caused by the loss of dopamine
urge for neurons. Parkinsonism is refers to dysfunction and cell
eating and death of the portion of the brain that produces dopamine.
drinking Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that transmits signals
AIPMT (Mains)-2010 between brain and nerve cells.
300. The cranial nerve that goes to the external 306. Hypophyseal portal system is found in
rectus muscle is : (a) Kidney (b) Liver
(a) II (b) III (c) Brain (d) Heart
(c) VII (d) VI AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-I / AMU-1996
AP EAMCET-2006 Ans. (c) : Hypophyseal portal system– It is a system
Ans. (d) : The VI cranial nerve or Abducens nerve is a of blood vessels that connects hypothalamus to the
motor, proprioceptive nerve. It has two pathway from anterior pituitary. The portal system is made up of two
pons to lateral rectus and from eye muscles to pons. It capillary beds, one in the median prominence and the
functions for the movement of eye and muscle sense. other in the anterior pituitary. Its main function is to
• III-Cranial is an oculomtor nerve that enable eye quickly transport hormones between hypothalamus and
movement. anterior pituitary.
• VII- cranial nerve carries nerve fibres that control 307. Parkinsonism, which is characterized tremors
facial movement and expression. and progressive rigidity of limbs is caused by
degeneration of brain, neurons and neuro
301. Choroid plexus is a network of …….. transmitters called
(a) Nerves (b) Lymph vessles (a) Dopamine (b) Adrenaline
(c) Capillaries (d) Muscles fibres (c) Acetylcholine (d) Aspartic acid
Karnataka CET-2004 AMU-2003
Ans. (c) : Choroid plexus is a network of capillaries. It Ans. (a) : Parkinsonism, which is characterized tremors
is located within the ventricles of brain. It produces and progressive rigidity of limbs is caused by
cerebrospinal fluid. degeneration of brain, neurons and neuro-transmitters
302. The primary visual area is located in ………… called dopamine.
(a) Frontal lobe (b) Parietal lobe 308. The psychological disorder, which is
(c) Temporal lobe (d) Occipital lobe characterized by sadness, hopelessness, low
Karnataka CET-2004 self-esteem, decline in interest, energy,
Ans. (d) : Occipital lobe → Visual concentration and changes in sleep pattern and
appetite is called
Temperal lobe → Hearing (a) Mood disorder
Frontal lobe → Writing, fine (b) Anxiety disorder
moments speech. (c) Attention deficit disorder
Parietal lobe → Pain, pressure, (d) Obsessive-compulsive disroder
position in space CMC Ludhiana-2015
303. Dreaming occurs in Ans. (a) : The psychological disorder in a person is
(a) α-sleep (b) REM sleep characterized by sadness, hopelessness, low self-esteem,
(c) Deep sleep (d) Slow wave sleep decline in interest, concentration and change in sleep
Punjab MET-2008 / AMU-2009 pattern and appetite is called mood disorder. Mood
Ans. (b) : REM (rapid eye movement) sleep happens disorder are conditions in which general emotional state
about an hour and a half after falling a sleep. REM sleep distorted with your circumstances and interferes normal
is when you tend to have vivid dreams. functional ability.
304. Scientists pin pointed the location of colour 309. Which of the following is used in diagnosis of
processing centres in human visual cortex by Epilepsy?
mean of (a) X-ray radiography.
(a) PET scanning (b) DSA (Digital Subtraction Angiography).
(b) NMR scanning (c) Sonography.
(c) CT scanning (d) PET (Positron Emission Tomography).
GUJCET-2011
(d) Ultra sound imaging
AMU-2008 Ans. (d) : PET (Positron Emission Tomography) is
used in diagnosis of epilepsy and to detect cause of
Ans. (a) : PET scanning – A positron emission seizures the evaluation may include neurological exam,
tomography (PET) scan is a type of imaging test. It uses blood test, genetic testing, electrone cephalogram,
a radioactive substance called a tracer to look for computerized tomography (CT), magnetic resonance
disease in the body. A PET scan show how organ and imaging (MRI) and neuropsycholgical tests.
tissue are working. PET scan can detect the color
processing in visual cortex of humans. 310. Match the following and choose the correct
answer
305. The agents, which are known to cause CJD are
Column-I Column-II
(a) Protein particles (b) A class of bacteria
(c) A class of viruses (d) Fungi A. Phobia 1. Maladaptive
Manipal-2009
habit
Ans. (a) : Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease (CJD) is a fatal B. Neurosis 2. Undue concern
neurodegenerative disorder caused by protein particles about health
(prions). This disorder leads to dementia in humans. C. Hypochondria 3. Lack of sleep
Prions are the misfolded proteins that are infectious. D. Insomnia 4. Intense fear

(a) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4,
D-3 314. The medullary respiratory centre is directly
(b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3,
D-4 affected
(c) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3,
D-2 (a) Chemically (b) Physically
(c) Neuronally (d) None of these
(d) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2,
D-1
Manipal-2011
(e) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2,
D-3
Ans. (a) : Respiratory centre is present in the medulla
Kerala PMT-2009 of the brain which is mainly responsible for the
Ans. (e) : Phobia – Intense fear regulation of respiration.
Neurosis – Maladaptive habit Chemical regulation of breathing is part of the
Hypochondria – Undue concern about health involuntary control of breathing. This mechanism is part
Insomnia – Lack of sleep. of the bodies homeostasis to maintain an appropriate
–
311. Parkinson's disease (characterized by tremors balance and concentration of CO2, O2, HCO2 and PH.
and progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by There are two types of chemoreceptions that react
degeneration of brain neurons that are strongly to a change in the blood.
involved in movement control and make use of 315. Impairment of Glossopharyngeal nerve will
neurotransmitter – most probably NOT affect ____
(a) Norepinephrine (b) Acetylcholine (a) Rotation of eyeball (b) Swallowing
(c) GABA (d) Dopamine (c) Saliva secretion (d) Sense of taste
AIPMT-2005 MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (d) : Parkinson's disease (characterized by tremor Ans. (a) : Impairment of glossopharyngeal nerve will
and progressive rigidity of limbs, changes in speech most probably not affect rotation of eyeball.
and gait) is caused by degeneration of brain neuron that Glossopharyngeal is distributed in muscles and mucous
are involved in movement control and make use of membrane of pharynx and tongue and its function is
neurotransmitter dopamine. taste (posterior 1/3 part of tongue) and saliva secretion.
Dopamine is required by the striatum to controls muscle 316.
tones and coordinate its movement.
312. Match the following based on their function
A. Cerebellum 1. Centre for sensory &
motor signals
B. Superior 2. Vision
colliculi
C. Inferior 3. Gyroscope of the body
colliculi
In the above diagram, what do the P and Q
D. Thalamus 4. Auditory indicate?
Options: (a) P- Medulla; Q - Macrophage
(a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (b) P – Cytoplasm; Q - Fibroblast
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-1 (c) P – Matrix; Q – Mast cell
AP EAPCET-12.07.2022 Shift-I (d) P – Matrix; Q - Adipocyte
Ans. (a) : (A) Cerebellum – Gyroscope of the body MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I
(B) Superior colliculi – Vision Ans. (d) : In the above diagram P is matrix. It is an
(C) Inferior colliculi – Auditory insoluble, dynamic gel in the cytoplasm, believed to be
(D) Thalamus – Centre for sensory and involved in cell shape determination and locomotive
motor signals. mechanism, particularly across a solid substrate.
In the above diagram Q is adipocytes. It is the major
313. Name of nervous band connecting cerebral
energy storage sites in the body, and they also have
hemispheres in rabbit is critical endocrine functions therefore understanding the
(a) Corpus callosum development and function of adipocytes -particularly in
(b) Corpus albicans light of obesity pandemic is essential to understanding
(c) Corpus striatum metabolic homeostasis.
(d) Corpus spongiosum 317. Injury to medulla oblongata causes sudden
CG PMT-2004 death mainly as _____.
Ans. (a) : Corpus callosum –The corpus callosum is (a) reflex activities like swallowing vomiting etc.
the primary commissural region of the brain consisting stop.
of white matter tracts that connect the left and right (b) vital activities such as heart beat and
cerebral hemispheres. respiration stop.
Corpus albicans – The corpus albicans is a scar on the (c) secretion of cerebrospinal fluid completely
surface of the ovary that is a remnant of ovulation. stops.
Corpus spongiosum – The corpus spongiosum has (d) both anterior and posterior choroid plexuses
been called the corpus cavernosum urethrae. The corpus are damaged.
spongiosum surround the urethra. MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (b) : Medulla oblongata is the posterior part of Ans. (b) : Psychiatry is the branch of medicine focused
brain. It is tubular and cylindrical in shape. The on the diagnosis treatment and prevention of mental,
medulla of the brain is connected to the spinal cord. emotional and behavioral disorders.
• The medulla contains centers which control Neurology is the branch of medicine associated with the
respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric diagnosis and treatment of all category diseases.
secretions metabolism. So, injury to medulla oblongata
causes sudden death due to vital activities such as heart 322. It converts short time memory into long time
beat and respiration stops. remembrance …
318. Which statement is correct regarding spinal (a) Reticular system (b) Hippocampus
nerves in man? (c) Thalamus (d) Medulla oblongata
(a) They come out of vertebral column through GUJCET-2011
foramen magnum. Ans. (b) : Hippocampus is the inner part of cerebral
(b) Each spinal nerve is formed within neural hemispheres and a group of associated deep structures
canal of vertebral column. like amygdala, hippocampus etc, form a complex
(c) There are 21 pairs of spinal nerves. structure called the limbic lobe (or) limbic system.
(d) They are sensory, motor and mixed types. Hippocampus helps in learning and memory. Amygdala
MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I involved brain structure in emotional response and the
Ans. (b) : Spinal nerves → Nerves which arise from formation of emotional responses.
spinal cord are called as spinal nerves in human 31pairs 323. The delicious food generally makes mouth
of spinal nerves all spinal nerves are mixed type. watery. It is due to:
Types of spinal nerves Human (In pairs) (a) Hormonal response (b) Neural response
Cervical 8 (c) Olfactory response (d) Optic response
Thoracic 12 J&K CET-2002
Lumber 5 Ans. (b) : Watery mouth after seeing delicious food is
Sacral 5 related to brain (neural response). Stimulation of
parasympathetic system causes profuse secretion of
Coccygeal 1
watery saliva which is under control of two salivatory
319. Activities like running, talking and typing are nuclei present in medulla oblongata that directly excited
controlled by by taste and touch stimuli of tongue and in mouth the
(a) Cerebellum (b) Pons sense of smell and sight of food are governed by
(c) Medulla oblongata (d) Mid brain olfactory and optic responses both initiate the neural
GUJCET-2016 response during the cephalic phase of digestion. .
Ans. (a) : Cerebellum is a part of brain that received
impulses from the voluntary muscles and maintain the 324. The area in the brain which is associated with
equilibrium of the body. The activities involved in strong emotions is
cerebellum is to running, talking, typing, vision and (a) Cerebral cortex (b) Cerebellum
other mental functions. (c) Limbic system (d) Medulla
320. Neurasthenia refers to Assam CEE-2014
(a) undue concern about health Ans. (c) : The inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and a
(b) traumatic experience like rape group of associated deep structure like amygdala,
(c) disorder of sensory perception hippocampus etc. form a complex structure called
(d) mental inability to concentrate on or enjoy limbic lobe or limbic system. Along with the
things hypothalamus it is involved in the regulation of sexual
(e) a mood upswing behavior, expression of emotional reactions (ex-
Kerala PMT-2008 excitement, pleasure,) and motivation. It also concern
Ans. (d) : Neurasthenia –Refers to the mental inability with olfaction and autonomic response.
to concentrate or enjoy things. 325. Which of the following cranial nerve of man is
• It has symptoms including the sensation of pain or both sensory and motor?
numbness in various part of the body, chronic fatigue, (a) Olfactory (b) Optic
weakness, anxiety, and fainting. (c) Trigeminal (d) Vagus.
Phases of neurasthenia – AIIMS-1994
(1) The hypersthenic phase
(2) Irritable weakness phase Ans. (c) : Trigeminal nerve is the fifth cranial nerve and
(3) Hyposthenic phases the largest cranial nerves. Its primary function is to
provide sensory innervations to the face and is divided
321. The branch, which is associated with diagnosis, in to three main branches.
prevention and cure of mental disorders is
(i) Ophthalmic
called
(ii) Maxillary
(a) Neurology (b) Psychiatry
(c) Neuropsychiatry (d) Psychology (iii) Mandibular
AIIMS-1997 Trigeminal nerves are both sensory and motor.
326. Cranial meninges consists of (1) durmater (2) horn divide white matter in 4 regiments c/a fasciculus
arachnoid (3) piamater (4) corpus callosum (or) white column.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct Dorsal root → Pseudounipolar neurons are found, carry
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct sensory stimuli towards spinal cord. Its axon embedded
BHU PMT (Mains)-2010 in grey matter where as cyton collect outside the central
Ans. (a) : Brain is covered by three membranes of nervous system and form dorsal root ganglia.
connective tissue formed as meninges (or) menix. Ventral root → Multipolar neuron's are found which
(i) Duramater - This is the first and outermost carry motor impulse from spinal cord to organ.
membrane which is thick, very strong and Spinal nerves → Nerves which arise from spinal cord
nonelastic it is made up of collagen fibres. are called as spinal nerves. 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
(ii) Arachnoid - It is very thin middle layer and 329. Integration of the visual, tactile and auditory
delicate membrane. It is found only is mammals inputs occurs in the
(Mammalian character). (a) Peripheral nervous system
(iii) Piamater - Inner most thin and transparent (b) Corpus callosum
membrane. It is highly vascular. (c) Limbic system
327. Pons, cerebellum and medulla together (d) Medulla oblongata
consititue (e) Midbrain
(a) Hind brain (b) Mid brain Kerala PMT-2012
(c) Fore brain (d) Telencephalon Ans. (e) : The midbrain receives and integrates visual,
(e) Cerebral hemispheres tacticle and auditory inputs. The part of the brain that
Kerala PMT-2009 controls visual and auditory reflexes is the tectum. It is
Ans. (a) : Hind brain consist of a small structure in the midbrain found just above the
(i) Pons brain stem and the cerebellum. Behind the cerebral
(ii) Cerebellum adueduct
(iii) Medulla oblongata 330. In EEG the waves which are quite low in
Pons → Pons consists of fibre that inter connect frequency and having high amplitude are
different regions of the brain. (a) Alpha waves (b) Theta waves
Cerebellum → It is related with fine and skillful (c) Delta waves (d) Beta waves
voluntary movement. AP EAMCET-2014
Medulla oblongata → The medulla of the brain is Ans. (c) : Delta waves → Their frequency is quite low
connected to the spinal cord. (less than 3 cycles per sec). However they have high
• The medulla contains centres which control amplitude. They are common in early childhood in
respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric awaken condition. In adults they occur in deep sleep.
secretion metabolism. 331. Identify the region of human brain which has
328. In a cross section of the spinal cord a, b, c, d pneumotaxic centre that alters respiratory rate
and e represents by reducing the duration of inspiration.
(a) Medulla (b) Pons
(c) Thalamus (d) Cerebrum
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
Ans. (b) : The pneumotaxic centre, located in the pons
region of the brain, moderates the respiratory rhythm
centre, because the pneumotaxic centre limits
respiration. Pneumotaxic centre, located dorsally in the
nucleus parabran chialis of the upper pons, transmits
(a) a – white matter, b – grey matter, c – dorsal signals to the respiratory area
root, d – ventral root e – spinal nerve
(b) a – white matter, b – grey matter, c – ventral
root, d – dorsal root e – spinal nerve
(c) a – grey matter, b – white matter, c – ventral
root, d – dorsal root e – spinal nerve
(d) a – grey matter, b – white matter, c – dorsal
root, d – ventral root, d – ventral root
(e) a – white matter, b – grey matter, c – spinal
nerve, d – ventral root e – dorsal root
Kerala PMT-2009
Ans. (a) : In a transverse section of spinal cord grey
matter is found inside and white matter towards outer
side. Grey matter on each side (dorsal lateral and
ventro-lateral surface) of spinal cord is projected and
forms dorsal horn and ventral horn. Dorsal and ventral
332. Which of the following nerve of man is both Ans. (a) : Cerebellum function → It is related with
sensory and motor? skillful voluntary movement.
(a) Olfactory (b) Trigeminal Superior colliculi → Visual, auditory and
(c) Optic (d) Auditory somatosensory information integrated to initiate motor
CMC Vellore-2013 commands.
Ans. (b) : The trigeminal nerve is the fifth cranial nerve Inferior colliculi function – The inferior colliculi
and the largest of the cranial nerves. Its primary serves as a main auditory center for the body. It acts as
function is to provide sensory innervations to the face the channel for almost all auditory signals in the human
and is divided in to three main branches. body. Its primary roles are signal integration, frequency
(i) Opthalmic recognition and pitch discrimination.
(ii) Maxillary 337. Match the following columns.
(iii) Mandibular Column I Column II
333. In human brain the sensation of touch, pain A. Sacral nerves 1. 1Pair
and temperature is controlled by the B. Thoracic nerves 2. 8 Pairs
(a) Parietal lobe of cerebrum
C. Coccygeal nerves 3. 7 Pairs
(b) Limbic lobe of cerebrum
(c) Temporal lobe of cerebrum D. Cervical nerves 4. 12 Pairs
(d) Frontal lobe of cerebrum 5. 5Pairs
KVPY (SA)-2013 Codes
Ans. (a) : The parietal lobe is one of the four major lobes A B C D
of the cerebral cortex in humans. It sits near the upper back (a) 4 1 3 2
portion of the skull, close to the parietal bone. In the brain, (b) 5 3 1 2
the parietal lobe is located behind the frontal lobe. (c) 5 4 1 2
334. All sensory information be registred (d) 2 5 3 1
consciously by the forebrain must pass via the TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-II
(a) Thalamus (b) Reticular formation JIPMER-2017
(c) Cerebellum (d) Pons Ans. (c) : Sacral nerves → 5 pair
AMU-1995 Thoracic nerves → 12 pairs
Ans. (a) : Thalamus is a paired structure of the Coccygeal nerves → 1 pair
diecephalon located near the center of the brain. It
Cervical nerves → 8 pairs
enables nerve fibres connections in all directions to the
cerebral cortex. It is a co-coordinating center for 338. The brainstem is made up of ..............
sensory and motor signals. (a) Midbrain, pons, cerebellum
In human brain the sensation of touch, pain and (b) Midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
temperature is controlled by the parietal tube of cerebrum. (c) Diencephalon, medulla oblongata, cerebellum
335. The respiratory and cardiac centres are located (d) Cerebellum, cerebrum, medulla oblongata
in Karnataka CET-2011
(a) Cerebrum (b) Diencephalons Ans. (b) : Three major regions make up the brain stem;
(c) Crura cerebri (d) Medulla oblongata mid brain, pons and medulla oblongata. Brain stem
AMU-1995 forms the connections between the brain and spinal
cord.
Ans. (d) : The medulla contains centre which control The main function of brain stem is consciousness, heart
respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric rate, breathing, sleep and blood pressure.
secretions metabolism.
339. Pneumotaxic centre is present in
336. Match the following based on their function (a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum
A. Cerebellum 1. Centre for sensory & (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Pons varolii
motor signals UP CPMT-2007
B.. Superior colliculi 2. Vision
Ans. (d) : Pons varolii→ Pons consists of fibre tracts
C. Inferior colliculi 3. Gyroscope of the that interconnect different regions of the brain. It
body regulates the breathing reaction through pheumotaxic
D. Thalamus 4. Auditory center.
(a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 340. Hearing impairment affects which part of
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 brain?
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (a) Frontal lobe (b) Parietal lobe
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-1 (c) Temporal lobe (d) Cerebellum
AP EAPCET-12.07.2022 Shift-I AIIMS-2007
Ans. (c) : Temporal lobe play a vital role in processing 344. Which of the following part of human brain is
affects, emotions, language etc. also called emotional brain?
• Frontal lobe is responsible for voluntary movement, (a) Corpus callosum (b) Limbic system
expressive language, memory, emotions, social (c) Epithalamus (d) Broca's area
interaction, problem solving etc. AIIMS-2014
• Parietal lobe is vital for taste, touch, hearing, sight Ans. (b) : The limbic system present on inner border of
touch and smell. cerebrum and floor of diencephalon is also called
• Cerebellum is part of the brain that helps coordinate emotional brain or animal brain.
and regulate a wide range of functions and process The limbic system of the hypothalamus that connects it
in body and brain. It holds more than half of the with the cerebral cortex is the centre of emotions,
neurons in your whole body. drives, and instincts including appetite and satiate. It is
also called the emotional brain.
• Corpus callosum is a bridge of white matter that
connects two cerebral hemispheres.
• Epithalamus is the biological lock of the body.
• Broca's area is associated with the ability of an
individual to understand the written and spoken
words and to communicate with others.
341. If dorsal nerve of spinal cord is broken down 345. Third ventricle of brain is also known as
then its effect is:
(a) Metacoel (b) Rhinocoel
(a) no impulse is transmitted from receptor
(c) Paracoel (d) Diacoel
(b) impulse is transmitted but slowly
AIPMT-1990
(c) impulse is transmitted fast
(d) no effect on impulse Ans. (d) : The third ventricle of the brain is also known
as the diacoel. It is a narrow cavity that lies in the
JIPMER-2006
diencephalon, between the thalamus and hypothalmus
Ans. (a) : If the dorsal root is broken, then the transfer The diacoel is filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
of information will not be possible. A transverse section which helps to protect and cushion the brain.
of the adult spinal cord shows white matter in the
periphery, grey matter inside. 346. Which of the following cranial nerves can
regulate heart beat?
342. The cavity of diencephalon is known as (a) X (b) IX
(a) I ventricle (b) II ventricle (c) VIII (d) VII
(c) III ventricle (d) Iter
AIPMT-1989
JIPMER-2008
Ans. (a) : 10th Cranial nerve or the vagus nerve regulate
Ans. (c) : The diencephalon connects the midbrain to heart rate through its parasympathetic division. This
the forebrain. Its cavity is known as third ventricle or nerve helps lower heart rate by releasing acetylcholine,
diocoel. The diencephalon functions as a main running which slows down the electrical signals in the heart,
and functioning center for sensory information and leading to decrease in heart rate.
autonomic control.
347. The sympathetic nerves in mammals arise from
343. Which one of the following is a sesamoid bone? (a) Sacral nerves
(a) Pelvis (b) Patella (b) 3rd, 7th, 9th, and 10th cranial nerves
(c) Pterygoid (d) Pectoral girdle (c) Thoraco-lumbar nerves
AIIMS-2009 (d) Cervical nerves
Ans. (b) : The Patella, commonly known as the AIPMT-1995
kneecap is the largest sesamoid bone in the human
Ans. (c) :The thoracolumbar nerves refer to the spinal
body. The patella is a thick, circular or triangular bone
nerves that emerge from the thoracic and lumbar region
that is connected with the femur and makes a cover to
protect the anterior articular surface of the knee joint. of the spinal cord. These nerves transmits sensory and
motor signals between the spinal cord and various parts
• Sesamoid bones act like pulleys that provide a smooth of the body including the muscles and skin of the
surface to the tendons for sliding over to increase the abdomen, back and lower extremities
ability of the tendon that helps to transmit muscular
forces. 348. Hypoglossal nerve controls the movements of:
(a) Ear (b) Heart
(c) Tongue (d) Limbs
J&K CET-2000
Ans. (c) : The hypoglossal nerve is the 12th cranial
nerve. It is a motor nerve that controls the muscles of
the tongue. If originates from the medulla oblongata in
the brainstem and travels down the neck to the tongue.
The hypoglossal nerve is responsible for movements
such as swallowing, talking and chewing.
349. Which of the damaged cells can not be 353. Study the following statement and pick up the
repaired? incorrect one:
(a) Liver cells (b) Brain cells (a) Typical value of resting membrane potential
(c) Bone cells (d) Epidermal cells in - 70mV in a neuron
JCECE-2007 (b) During resting phases, the activation gates of
Ans. (b) Most cells in the body can be repaired or sodium channels are closed
replaced by cell division. However brain cells are (c) If the voltage falls below the -70mV level of
different. They are post – mitotic, which means they the resting state, it is called under shoot
have stopped dividing. This is because brain cells need (d) Speed of conduction of nerve impulse
to be highly specialized and stable in order to perform inversely proportional to the diameter of the
their functions. nerve fibre
350. Parkinson's disease is associated with: TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-I
(a) Midbrain (b) Thalamus Ans. (d) : The speed of nerves conduction does not
(c) Hypothalamus (d) Cerebrum depend on the diameter of axon only, rather it depends
JCECE-2002 on the diameter of the nerved fibre. The speed of nerves
Ans. (a) : Parkinson's disease is associated with the conduction depend upon axon size and degree of
midbrain specially the substantia nigra. The substantia myelination. Nerve conduction in myelinated axons is
nigra is a part of the basal ganglia, which is a group of referred to as saltatory conduction.
structures in the brain that control movement. In 354. A person met with an accident and was
parkinson’s disease there is a loss of dopamine– diagnosed with memory loss. Choose the
producing neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to correct option for the part of brain injured in
the symptoms of parkinson’s disease such as tremor, the accident
rigidity, and slowness of movement. (a) Hippocampus (b) Diencephalon
351. Observe the following diagram of brain of man (c) Cerebrum (d) Amygdala
and identify the parts lebeled as I and III BCECE-2015
Ans. (a) : The inner part of a group of associated deep
structures like amygdala, hippocampus etc.
Hippocampus has a major role in learning and memory.
It is a plastic and vulnerable structure during accident it
gets damaged by a variety of stimuli.
355. The cranial nerves which innervate eye muscles
are____
(a) Occulomotor, Trigeminal, Abducens
(b) Pathetic, Occulomotor, Trigeminal
I III (c) Pathetic, Facial, Abducens
(d) Occulomotor, Pathetic, Abducens
(a) Amygdala Corpus Callosum MHT CET-2019
(b) Corpus callosum Hypothalamus
Ans. (d) : Occulomotor, Pathetic and Abducens are the
(c) Corpus callosum Thalamus cranial nerve which innervate eye muscles.
(d) Hypothalamus Corpus Callosum • Occulomotor nerve provides motor function to
AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-I muscles around the eye.
Ans. (c) : Amygdala → It is an almond-shaped • Abducens nerve control the lateral rectus muscle that
structure that lies in the temporal lobes. The amygdala is associated with eye movement.
is diverse and complex in structure. • Pathetic nerve is responsible for inward, outward,
Corpus callosum – It is a thick whitish band of downward movement of the eyes.
semicircular nerve fibres, interconnecting two cerebral 356. Medulla oblongata controls involuntary vital
hemispheres. activity such as____
Hypothalamus → Hypothalamus integrates and (a) Vomiting (b) Yawning
controls the visceral activities. Hypothalamus keeps (c) Sneezing (d) Respiration
body temperature at roughly 37ºC. MHT CET-2019
352. The major regions that make up brain stem Ans. (d) : The medulla contains centers which control
include all the following, except respiration, cardio-vascular reflexes and gastric
(a) Pons (b) Medulla secretions metabolism.
(c) Midbrain (d) Cerebellum
357. Inferior colliculi of human brain respond to
TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-I the____stimuli.
Ans. (d) : Midbrain, pons, medulla are situated in one (a) Postural (b) Osmotic
axis that called as brain stem. Brain stem forms the (c) Visual (d) Auditory
connections between the brain and spinal cord. MHT CET-2019
Ans. (d) : Inferior colliculi function→ The inferior 363. Temporal lobe of cerebrum is concerned with
colliculi is a part of the midbrain that serves as a main the detection of following sensations EXCEPT
auditory center for the body. It’s primary roles are signal (a) Hearing (b) Pressure
integration, frequency, recognition, and pitch discrimination. (c) Smell (d) Taste
358. Vomiting is controlled by____ MHT CET-2016
(a) Hypothalamus (b) Cerebrum Ans. (b) : Each cerebral hemisphere is divided in to 4
(c) Medulla oblongata (d) Mid brain lobes.
MHT CET-2019 (i) Frontal
Ans. (c) : Vomiting is controlled by the medulla (ii) Parietal
oblongata The medulla of the brain is connected to (iii) Occipital
spinal cord. Vomiting centre initiates and controls the (iv) Temporal
act of emesis, which involves as series of contractions The temporal lobe of the cerebrum concerned with
of the smooth muscles lining the digestive tract. hearing, smell and taste excepts pressure.
359. Branching tree like processes of white matter 364. The parietal and temporal lobes are separated by
extending into grey cortex of cerebellum is (a) Central sulcus (b) Longitudinal fissure
called____. (c) Lateral sulcus (d) Parieto-occipital sulcus
(a) Arbor vitae (b) Gyri MHT CET-2016
(c) Crura cerebrii (d) Thalami Ans. (c) : Each cerebral hemisphere is divided in to 4
MHT CET-2018 / JIPMER-2010 lobes.
Ans. (a) : Outer part of cerebellum is made up of grey (i) Frontal
matter while inner part is of white matter. White matter (ii) Parietal
projects outside and forms a branched tree like structure (iii) Occipital
known as arbor vitae. (iv) Temporal
360. The functional area of human cerebrum The lateral sulcus is a deep fissure that separates the
marked by 'X' is____. parietal and temporal lobes.
365. The parotid salivary glands are innervated by
branches of____nerve.
X (a) Vagus (b) Spinal accessory
(c) Facial (d) Glossopharyngeal
MHT CET-2016
(a) Wernicke's area (b) Somato-sensory area Ans. (d) : The parotid salivary glands are innervated by
(c) Premotor area (d) Broca's area branches of Glossopharyngeal nerve.
MHT CET-2017 It is a mixed nerve that carries afferent (sensory) and
efferent (motor) information. It controls the secretion
Ans. (d) : Broca's area also called as convolution of broca, of saliva sense of taste and movement of the pharynx.
neurons involved in speech function. This area is located in
the frontal part of the left hemisphere of the brain. 366. Form the cranial nerves, find the odd man out.
(a) Optic (b) Olfactory
361. Organ of Corti is located on the____
(c) Oculomotor (d) Auditory
(a) Basilar membrane (b) Basement membrane MHT CET-2004
(c) Reissner membrane (d) Synovial membrane
MHT CET-2017
Ans. (c) : Optic, olfactory and auditory are sensory
cranial nerve but oculomotor is a motor cranial nerve.
Ans. (a) : The organ of Corti is a structure located on
the basilar membrane which contains hair cells that act 367. Mixed nerves are
as auditory receptors. (a) V, VII, IX, X (b) II, III, IV
• The hair cells are present in rows on the internal side (c) IX, X, XI, XII (d) I, II, VIII, IX
of the organ of Corti. MHT CET-2005
362. If cranial nerves : 12 pairs, then spinal nerves: Ans. (a) : Mixed nerves are – V, VII, IX, X
(a) 30 pairs (b) 31 pairs V – Trigeminal
(c) 32 pairs (d) 33 pairs VII – Facial
MHT CET-2017 IX– Glossopharyngeal
Ans. (b) : Nerves which arise from spinal cord are X – Vagus
called spinal nerves . 368. Which one of the following is a motor nerve?
• Spinal nerve – Spinal nerve are 31 pairs. They are- (a) Spinal accessory (b) Trigeminal
(c) Facial (d) Vagus
Spinal nerve Number
MHT CET-2005 / Manipal-2002
Cervical nerve 8pairs Ans. (a) : Motor nerves are – III, IV, VI, XI, XII
Thoracic 12 pairs III – Oculomotor
Lumbar 5 pairs IV – Trochlear
Sacral 5pairs VI – Abducens
XI – Accessory spinal
Coccygeal 1 pairs XII – Hypoglossal
369. Which part of the brain controls gait, posture, Ans. (c) : Olfactory lobes → The olfactory system is
balance and equilibrium? the sensory system used for smelling also known as
(a) Cerebrum (b) Mesencephalon olfaction. It is one of the special senses that have
(c) Cerebellum (d) Medulla oblongata directly associated specific organ.
CG PMT-2005 The sense of obligation is carried by the olfactory nerve e.g.
MHT CET-2006 cranial nerve. The olfactory lobe is a part of the cerebrum.
Ans. (c) : Cerebellum is a part of the hind brain. Its 374. Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by
function are control of balance, coordination and fine (a) Facial nerve (b) Trigeminal nerve
muscle control (Ex–walking) It also functions to (c) Hypoglossal nerve (d) Vagus nerve
maintain posture and equilibrium. WB JEE-2011
• It is involved in planning movements and motor Ans. (c) : Hypoglossal nerve →
learning it receives inputs from the cerebral cortex and The Hypoglossal nerve is the 12th cranial nerve that
sends output to the thalamus. control muscles of the tongue for speech, food
370. The tract of nerve fibres which connects the manipulation and swallowing.
cerebral hemispheres is : 375. Which function will be lost due to damage of
(a) Corpus luteum occipital lobe?
(b) Corpus callosum (a) Hearing (b) Speech
(c) Corpora quadrigeminia (c) Vision (d) Memory
(d) Cerebral aqueduct WB JEE-2011
(e) Foramen magnum
Ans. (c) : In the brain, occipital lobe is the visual
Karnataka CET-2001 processing area. If both sides of the occipital lobe are
Kerala PMT-2011 damaged the vision function will be lost in people
Ans. (b) : Both the cerebral hemispheres are partially which is called cortical blindness.
connected with each other by a curved thick band of 376. The part of the brain where the centre for
nerve fibres called corpus callosum, specific character hunger and thirst is located is
of mammalian brain it consist of white matter tracts. (a) Cerebrum (b) Hypothalamus
371. Pneumotaxic centre which can moderate the (c) Cerebellum (d) Medulla oblongata
functions of the respiratory rhythm centre is WB JEE-2011
present at :
Ans. (b) : Hypothalamus is a region of the brain located
(a) Pons region of brain
near the pituitary gland. It is a part of brain where the
(b) Thalamus centre for hunger and thirst is located.
(c) Spinal cord
377. Electric potential of the brain is recorded by
(d) Right cerebral hemisphere
(a) CT scan (b) Sphygmomanometer
(e) Left cerebral hemisphere
(c) ECG (d) EEG
Kerala PMT-2011
WB JEE-2011
Ans. (a) : Pons are small spherical projection which is
situated below the midbrain upper side of the medulla Ans. (d) : EEG (Electroencephalography) is a non-
oblongata. It consists of may transverse and longitudinal invasive method to record electrical activity over a
nerve fibres. Transverse nerve fibres connect with period of time, as recorded from multiple electrodes
cerebellum. Longitudinal fibres connect cerebrum to placed on the scalp.
medulla oblongata. EEG used to be a first-time method of diagnosis for
tumors, stroke and other focal brain disorder.
• Pons consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different
regions of the brain. 378. Foramen magnum is situated in
It regulates the breathing reaction through pneumatic (a) Buccal cavity (b) Base of skull
centre. (c) Left auricle (d) Vertebrae
372. Third ventricle is present in WB JEE-2007
(a) Heart (b) Brain Ans. (b) : Foramen magnum is situated on the posterior
(c) Kidney (d) Liver side of the skull. It is the large oval opening in the
CG PMT-2005 occipital skull bone that connects the spinal cord to the
brain.
Ans. (b) : The third ventricle is a narrow funnel shaped
structure in the centre of the brain which lies below the 379. The genu and splenium in brain are associated with
corpus callosum and body of the lateral ventricles. The (a) Cerebellum (b) Cerebrum
third ventricle of the brain is present in the (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Vermis
diencephalon of the forebrain region between the right WB JEE-2007
and left thalamus and thus it is also known as diocoel. Ans. (b) : Cerebrum is a 2/3 part of the human brain,
373. The centre for sense of smell in brain is called white matter.
(a) Cerebellum (b) Cerebrum Anterior part of corpus callosum is called genu while
(c) Olfactory lobes (d) Midbrain the posterior part is called selenium which is connected
CG PMT-2005 to another band. The genu and splenium in brain are
AFMC-2003 associated with cerebrum.
380. Cerebrospinal fluid is present Ans. (b) : Cerebrospinal fluid serves as shock absorbing
(a) Beneath the pia mater medium that cushing against the skull.
(b) Between piamater and arachnoid Cerebrospinal fluid is recycled 4 times per day in order
(c) Between arachnoid and duramater to clear out metabolites and toxins.
(d) Between duramater and cranium Both (S) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
WB JEE-2007 explanation of (S).
Ans. (b) : Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a liquid present 386. The cells which form blood brain barrier in the
in the brain between piamater and arachnoid mater. It central nervous system are
protects the brain and spinal cord and carries hormones (a) Oligo dendrocytes (b) Astrocytes
to the different site of brain. (c) Ependymal cells (d) Schwann cells
381. The supporting and nutritive cells found in the TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-I
brain are: Ans. (b) : Astrocytes –The blood brain barrier is
(a) Ependymal cells (b) Microglia formed by endothelial cells of the capillary wall, which
(c) Astrocytes (d) Oligodendrocytes are also called astrocytes.
DUMET-2006 387. Which cranial nerve controls the heart muscles?
Ans. (a) : Ependymal cells produce cerebrospinal fluid (a) Facial (b) Vagus
(CSF) that cushions the neurons. These cells support the (c) Auditory (d) Trochlear
central nervous system (CNS) and also nutritive in function. Punjab MET-2011
382. Mouth becomes watery when we look on the Ans. (b) : Vagus – The vagus nerve or pneumogastric
delicious food is due to : nerve is the 10th cranial nerve. It has parasympathetic
(a) Olfactory response (b) Hormonal response control of the heart-rate, digestive tract and immune system.
(c) Neural response (d) Optic response The vagus nerve is the longest cranial nerve and
J&K CET-2005 possesses both sensory and motor functions.
Ans. (c) : Due to the neural response mouth becomes 388. Which nerves arise from spinal cord are ?
watery when we look on the delicious food. (a) Mixed nerves (b) Motor
383. Which one of the following statement is correct (c) Sensory (d) None of these
regarding spinal cord? Rajasthan PMT-1999
(a) It is composed of outer grey matter and inner Ans. (a) : Spinal nerves are mixed in nature. It is
white matter. interact directly with the spinal cord to modulate motor
(b) It is composed of outer white matter and inner and sensory information from the body's periphery.
grey matter. The total 31 pairs of spinal nerve are –
(c) It is composed of outer grey matter and inner • Cervical nerves (C1 – C8) – these nerve innervate the
colourless matter. neck and upper limbs.
(d) It is composed of grey matter only. • Thoracic nerves (T1 – T12) – These nerves innervate
Karnataka CET-2013 the chest and abdomen.
Ans. (b) : The spinal cord is composed of grey and • Lumber nerves (L1 – L5) – these nerves innervate the
white matter. Grey matter functions to receive lower back and pelvis.
information and regulate outgoing information. White • Sacral nerves (S1 – S5) – These nerves innervate the
matter conducts, processes and sends nerve signal up lower limbs and perineum.
and down the spinal cord.
• Coccygeal nerve ( Co1 ) – This nerves innervate the
384. Where is the third ventricle of the brain located?
(a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum coccyx.
(c) Pons varolii (d) Diencephalon 389. Medulla - oblongata is controls of :
KVPY SB & SX-2014 (a) blood pressure (b) smell of odour
Ans. (d) : Diencephalon is the posterior subdivision of (c) high temperature (d) low temperature
the forebrain. It included thalamus and hypothalamus. Rajasthan PMT-1999
The third ventricle of the brain is located in the Ans. (a) : Medulla oblongata controls blood pressure. It
diencephalon. It is filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). is the part of the brain the brainstem that controls
385. Statement (S): Cerebrospinal fluid serves as involuntary functions such as heart rate, breathing,
shock absorbing medium blood pressure and digestive process. It also play a role
Reason (R) : Cerebrospinal fluid is recycled 4 in regulating consciousness and sleep.
times per day in order to clear out metabolites 390. Arbor vitae is a part of
and toxins (a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum
Which of the following is true? (c) Midbrain (d) Forebrain
(a) Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) is the Manipal-2014,2005
correct explanation of (S) Ans. (b) : Arbor vitae is a part of cerebellum. It is the
(b) Both (S) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the white matter of cerebellum. Grey and white provide the
correct explanation of (S) appearance of butterfly-like structure. This butterfly like
(c) (S) is true, but (R) is false structure is known as arbor vital that located at the
(d) (S) is false, but (R) is true centre of the cerebellum and provides sensory
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-I information to the brain.
391. Which has H-shaped grey matter? (b) 1-Posterior Median Sulcus, 2-Dorsal Horn, 3-
(a) Cerebrum (b) Medulla oblongata Central canal, 4-Ventral Horn, 5-Anterior
(c) Cerebellum (d) Spinal cord Median fissure
Manipal-2005 (c) 1-Dorsal Horn, 2-Anterior Median Sulcus, 3-
Ans. (d) : The spinal cord has an H –shaped grey Central Canal, 4-Ventral Horn, 5-Posterior
matter, which is also known as the grey column. It is Median fissure
located in the center of the spinal cord and is composed (d) 1-Ventral Horn, 2-Posterior Median Sulcus,
of cell bodies of neurons. White matter is presented 3-Central Canal, 4-Dorsal Horn, 5-Anterior
inside the periphery. It consists of myelinated axons and Median fissure
appears white due to high fat content in myelin. AP EAMCET-05.10.2021 Shift-I
Karnataka CET-2000
392. Cerebellum of brain is concerned with a :
(a) Contraction of voluntary muscles Ans. (a) :
(b) Coordinating and regulating tone • Dorsal Horn – It is the posterior region of the spinal
(c) Maintain posture, orientation and equilibrium cord that contains the cell bodies of sensory neurons.
of body • Posterior median sulcus – It is a deep groove that
(d) All the of above runs along the posterior midline of the spinal cord.
Manipal-2001 • Central canal – It is a small, fluid – filled canal that
Ans. (d) : Cerebellum is known as the little brain in runs through the center of the spinal cord.
human brain. Cerebellum of brain is concerned with a • Anterior median fissure – It is shallow groove that
contraction of voluntary muscles, coordinating and runs along the anterior midline of the spinal cord.
regulating tone. It also helps to maintain posture, • Ventral Horn – It is the anterior region of the spinal
orientation and equilibrium of body. cord that contains the cell bodies of motor neurons.
393. Intelligence, memory, will power, emotions and 396. Which wave patterns of
cause (reason) are governed/regulated by electroencephalography indicate the possibility
(a) Medulla oblongata of presence of brain tumors?
(b) Cerebral hemispheres (a) Theta waves (b) Beta waves
(c) Midbrain (c) Alpha waves (d) Delta waves
(d) Cerebellum TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-II
BVP-2014 Ans. (d) : Delta waves patterns of
Ans. (b) : Intelligence, memory, will power, emotions electroencephalography indicate the possibility of
and cause (reason) are governed/regulated by cerebral presence of brain tumors
hemispheres. It is also responsible for regulating 397. Statement (S) : Damage to cerebellum results
behaviors. This includes mediating conflicts thoughts, In uncoordinated voluntary
making choices between right and, wrong and muscle movements
predicting the probable outcomes of action or events. Reason (R) : Cerebellum is responsible for the
394. Learning is related to : control and coordination of
(a) Hypothalamus (b) Cerebellum locomotor movements.
(c) Cerebrum (d) Pineal body The correct answer is
Haryana PMT-2001 (a) Both (S) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
Ans. (c) : Learning in brain is refers to making and correct explanation to (S).
strengthening connections between brain cells which (b) Both (S) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
called neurons. The cerebrum is a part of brain, is correct explanation to (S).
related to cognitive function e.g. learning, memory, (c) (S) is correct but (R) is not correct.
language, perception and problem solving. (d) (S) is not correct but (R) is correct.
395. Transverse section of spinal cord is shown in TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-II
the figure with labels 1 to 5 Identify them Ans. (a) : Cerebellum is responsible for the control and
correctly? coordination of locomotor movements. If cerebellum is
damaged, it results in uncoordinated voluntary muscle
movements.
398. What is the space between arachnoid and pia
mater?
(a) Supra arachnoid space
(b) Sub arachnoid space
(c) Subdural space
(d) Meninges
J&K CET-2003
Ans. (b) : Subarachnoid space is the space between
(a) 1-Dorsal Horn, 2-Posterior Median Sulcus, 3- arachnoid and piamater where cerebrospinal fluid is
Central Canal, 4-Anterior Median fissure, 5- present. Piamater is the innermost membrane of the
Ventral Horn brain and arachnoids is the middle membrane.
399. Cerebellum portion of brain is: 403. Both cerebral hemisphere are joined by
(a) concerned with the maintenance of transverse septum which is made up of white
posture/equilibrium matter fibres are called:
(b) responsible for olfactory functions (a) Corpus callosum (b) Corpus albicans
(c) controls optic functions (c) Corpus spongiossum (d) Corpus stratum
(d) both (a) and (b) KVPY SA-2014 / Rajasthan PMT-1995
J&K CET-2003 / CMC Vellore-2012 Ans. (a) : Corpus callosum → Both the cerebral
hemisphere are partially connected with each other by a
Ans. (a) : Cerebellum portion of brain is concerned
curved thick band (tract) of nerve fibers, called corpus
with the maintenance of posture/equilibrium. It is the callosum. It is made up white matter fibers, which are
portion of the brain in the back of the head between the bundles of axons that transmit information between
cerebrum and the brain stem. The cerebellum controls different parts of the brain.
balance for walking, standing and other complex motor
functions. 404. How many lobes are present in each cerebral
hemisphere?
400. Hypothalamus does not control (a) Two (b) Four (c) Six (d) Eight
(a) Hunger and satiety Rajasthan PMT-1995
(b) Thermo regulation Ans. (b) : There are four lobes are present in each
(c) Libido cerebral hemisphere.
(d) Creative thinking and consciousness (i) Frontal lobe
(e) Osomo regulation (ii) Parietal lobe
CMC Vellore-2008 (iii) Temporal lobe
Ans. (d) : The hypothalamus is a section of the brain (iv) Occipital lobe
responsible for the production of many body's essential 405. Which part of brain control intellectual ability?
hormones. Hypothalamus contains higher nerve centre (a) Frontal lobe (b) Parietal lobe
for temperature regulation, hunger, thirst and (c) Temporal lobe (d) Occipetal lobe
osmoregulation but it does not control creative thinking DUMET-2007
and consciousness. Ans. (a) : The frontal lobes are important for voluntary
401. Study the following statements regarding movement, expressive language and for managing
human brain. higher level executive function. The frontal lobes are
(I) White matter of cerebellum is called arbor located directly behind the forehead, the frontal lobes
vitae are the largest lobes in the human brain.
(II) Cerebral hemispheres are centres for 406. Arbor vitae is composed of
memory and communications (a) Grey matter (b) White matter
(III) Pons contains the pneumotoxic centre (c) Neuroglial cells (d) All of these
(IV) Limbic system involved in expression of JCECE-2014
emotional reactions Ans. (b) : Outer part of cerebellum is made up of gray
Identify correct statements from the above. matter while inner part is of white matter. White matter
(a) I, II, only (b) I, II, III only projects outside and forms a branched tree like structure
(c) I, II, III, and IV (d) II, III, IV only known as arbor vitae.
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I 407. Identify the mismatched pair
Ans. (c) : (a) Olfactory nerves - Sensory nerves
(b) Trochlear nerves - Motor nerves
• White matter of cerebellum is called arbor vitae.
(c) Glossopharyngeal nerves - Sensory nerves
• Cerebral hemisphere are centers for memory and (d) Spinal nerves - Mixed nerves
communications. TS EAMCET-28.09.2020 Shift-I
• Pons contains the pneumotoxic centre. Ans. (c) : Glossopharyngeal – Distribution muscles
• Limbic system involved in expression of emotional and mucous membrane of pharynx and tongue. It is also
reactions. known as cranial nerve IX.
402. This part of brain is called gyroscope of the Function → Taste (past 1/3 part of tongue) and saliva
body secretion.
(a) Cerebral hemispheres (b)Diancephalon Glassopharyngeal nerve is the mixed nerve.
(c) Pons varolii (d) Cerebellum 408. Which of the following statements are true
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-I about Motor cortex?
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I I. It is located in the frontal lobe of
TS EAMCET-03.05.2018 Shift-I cerebral cortex.
Ans. (d) : The cerebellum is located at the back of the II. It contains pyramidal cells.
brain, underlying the occipital and temporal lobes of the III. It is responsible for all visual function.
cerebral cortex. It helps with the coordination and
IV. It is essential for our thought process.
movement related to motor skills, especially involving
the hands and feet. It also helps mountain posture, V. It stimulates wakefulness
balance, and equilibrium. VI. It regulates voluntary muscular movements.
(a) I, II, III and V (b) II, III, IV and V Ans. (a) : Foramen of Luschka are paired apertures
(c) II, IV, V and VI (d) I, II, IV, and VI located in the lateral recesses of the 4th ventricle, within
WB JEE-2014 the posterior cranial fossa. They allow cerebrospinal
Ans. (d) : The motor cortex: fluid (CSF) to flow from the fourth ventricle into the
• Located in the frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex, subarachnoid space surrounding the brain and spinal
specifically in the pre-central, gyrus. cord.
• It contains pyramidal cells, which are large neurons, 413. Vetebrate brain differentiates from
which controls voluntary muscle movement. (a) Endoderm (b) Mesoderm
• Whole brain is essential for thought process. (c) Ectoderm (d) Blastoderm
• The primary function of the motor cortex is to JIPMER-2011
regulate voluntary muscular movements. It’s CG PMT-2005
responsible for planning, executive and controlling Ans. (c) : The surface ectoderm develops in to
various parts of the body. epidermis, hairs nails etc. The neural tube of the
So, the correct option is (d) I, II, IV, and VI. ectoderm develops in to brain, spinal cord, motor
409. Which area of cerebral cortex is responsible for neurons etc. The neuroectoderm forms the nervous
the interpretation of speech? system of the embryo.
(a) Broca's area 414. Which cranial nerve has the highest number of
(b) Wernicke's area branches?
(c) Premoto area (a) Facial nerve (b) Trigeminal
(d) Association area of sensory cortex (c) Vagus nerve (d) None of these
WB JEE-2014 JIPMER-2011
Ans. (b) : Wernicke's area → Wernicke's area, region AFMC-2003
of the brain that contains motor neurons involved in the Ans. (c) : The vagus cranial nerve are 10th cranial
comprehension of speech. nerve. It is the highest number of branches. It is also the
This area was first described in 1847 by German longest cranial nerve, extending from the brainstem to
neurologist Carl Wernicke. The Wernicke area is situated the abdomen.
in Brodmann area 22, posterior third of the upper temporal
convolution of the left hemisphere of the brain. Function → Visceral sensation sand movements.
410. Which one is related to diencephalon ? 415. Which of the following is a motor nerve?
(a) Basal ganglia (b) Olfactory bulb (a) Auditory (b) Abducens
(c) Hypothalamus (d) Cerebral cortex (c) Optic nerve (d) Trigeminal nerve
BVP-2011 Manipal-2008
Ans. (c) : Diencephalon is a posterior part of fore brain. Rajasthan PMT-2005
It is covered by cerebrum. It consist of thalamus, VMMC-2004
hypothalamus, epithalamus. It acts as a link between the Ans. (b) : Motor nerve are responsible for all
nervous system and the endocrine system. voluntary, skeletal and somatic movement such as
411. Oligodendrocytes and astrocytes are neuroglial moving the leg or arm.
cells found in————— Motor nerves are –
(a) Peripheral nervous system involved in IIIrd → Oculomotor
formation of myelin sheath IVth → Trochlear
(b) Central nervous system in which VIth → Abducens
oligodendrocytes form myelin sheath and
astrocytes bind neurons with capillaries XIth → Accessory spinal
(c) Autonomic nervous system in which both XIIth → Hypoglossal
cells provide support 416. Broca's area of speech is present in
(d) Sympathetic nervous system in which the two (a) Frontal lobe
cells help in conduction (b) Parietal lobe and partially in temporal lobe
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I (c) Temporal lobe
Ans. (b) : Oligodendrocyte is a type of neuroglia found (d) Temporal and occipital lobe
in the central nervous system of invertebrates and WB JEE-2008
vertebrates that functions to produce myelin an Ans. (a) : Broca's area is a complex speech network,
insulating sheath on the axons of nerve fibres. interacting with the flow of sensory information from
Oligodendrocytes form myelin sheaths in the central the temporal cortex, devising a plan for speaking and
nervous system. One cell can wrap around as many as passing that plan along to the motor cortex, which
60 different axons. controls the movements of the mouth.
412. Which foramen is paired in mammalian brain? 417. Part of the brain concerned with the muscular
(a) Foramen of Luschka movement is
(b) Foramen of Magendie (a) Cerebellum (b) Thalamus
(c) Foramen of Monro (c) Hippocampus (d) Temporal lobe of cerebrum
(d) Inter-ventricular foramen CG PMT-2004
BVP-2009 WB JEE-2008
Ans. (a) : Cerebellum received impulses from F. Reflex Action and Arc
different voluntary muscles and joints. The main
function of this part of brain is to maintain the body
balance, equilibrium and posture. It concerned with the 421. Sensory receptor of warmth located principally
muscular movement, at the tip of fingers is known as:
It is related with fine and skillful voluntary movement. (a) Weber's organ
(b) Organ of Giraldes
418. Which of the following pairs of cranial nerves
is/are of mixed category? (c) Ruffini's corpuscles
(a) Glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal (d) Organ of Zuckerkandl
(b) Trigeminal and facial WB JEE-2006
(c) Glossopharyngeal and vagus Ans. (c) : Ruffini's corpuscles are slowly adapting low-
(d) Both B and C threshold mechanoreceptors that are found in the dermis
WB JEE-2015 of the skin. They are responsible for perception of
warmth and pressure. They are most abundant in the
Ans. (d) : Mixed cranial nerves. fingertips, palms, soles of the feet and lips.
Vth → Trigeminal
422. Which is not a reflex action ?
VII th → Facial (a) Salivation
IXth → Glossopharyngeal (b) Eye opening and closing
th
X → Vagus (c) Response to pinching pin in a frog leg
419. The bundle of axons in the central nervous (d) Sweating
system is known as JCECE-2008
(a) Nerve (b) Ganglion UP CPMT-2006
(c) Tract (d) Neuron Ans. (d) : Reflex action is an involuntary and
WB JEE-2015 spontaneous movement in response to a stimulus.
Ans. (c) :A tract is a bundle of axons in the central Salivation, eye opening and response to pinching pin in
nervous system. It is a group of nerve fibers that are a frog leg are all example of reflex action while
bundled together and have a common function. Tracts sweating is not a reflex action. It is associated with
can be either ascending or descending. Ascending tracts temperature regulation.
carry information from the spinal cord to the brain,
while descending tracts carry information from the 423. Which is the example of conditioned reflex?
brain to the spinal cord. (a) Eye closed when anything enter into it
(b) Hand took up when piercing with needle
420. Match the regions of the brain with their
function. (c) Your kneeing took up a stone then dog runs
away
Column - I Column - II (d) Digestion food goes forward in alimentary
i. Spinal cord (a) body canal
temperature BHU PMT (Screening)-2010 / CMC Vellore-2008
and urge for AMU-2006 / AIIMS-1999
eating Ans. (c) : The example of a conditioned reflex is knee
ii. Thalamus (b) cardiovascular jerking in response to taking up a stone is a learned or
reflexes conditioned reflex because it results from a specific
iii. Hypothalamus (c) reflex action association between your action (taking up the stone)
vi. Medulla (d) sensory and and the dog’s reaction (running away). This response is
motor not an automatic or unconditioned reflex but rather a
signaling learned behavior based on previous experience.
(a) i – b, ii – d, iii – c, iv – a 424. A reflex action is a quick involuntary response
(b) i – d, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c to stimulus. Which of the following is an
(c) i – c, ii – b, iii – d, iv – a example of BOTH, unconditioned and
conditioned reflex?
(d) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
(a) knee jerk reflex
(e) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
Kerala PMT-2013
(b) secretion of saliva in response to the aroma of
food
Ans. (e): (c) sneezing reflex
Region of the Function (d) contraction of the pupil in response to bright
Brain light
i Spinal cord Reflex action KVPY SB & SX-2012
ii Thalamus sensory and motor Ans. (b) : Secretion of saliva is an unconditioned reflex
signaling but it was seen in Pavlov's experiment that this reflex
iii Hypothalamus body temperature and urge can also be conditioned reflex. Knee-jerk is an
for eating unconditioned reflex action, while all other are
iv Medulla cardiovascular reflexes conditioned reflex actions.
425. Reflex action involves : 429. Among the following characteristics, indicate
(a) Spinal cord (b) Cerebellum the correct combination applicable to
conditional reflex.
(c) Medulla oblongata (d) Optic lobe
Haryana PMT-2005 I. Acquired by practice or learning
II. Non acquired by birth
Ans. (a) : Reflex action primarily involve the spinal
cord. The spinal cord is responsible for processing and III. Dose not abolish by lack of practice
coordinating many reflex responses without the need for IV. Participation of cerebral cortex
involvement from the brain. This allows for rapid and V. Originates spontaneously
automatic reactions to various stimuli, such as touching (a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV
a hot surface and quickly pulling your hand away. (c) I, and IV (d) II, III and V
426. Refractory period comes in between WB JEE-2012
(a) resting potential and depolarization Ans. (b) : These of correct combination applicable to
conditioned reflexes are–
(b) depolarization and repolarization (i) Acquired by practice or learning
(c) action potential and depolarization (ii) Non acquired by birth
(d) two cycles of impulse conduction (iv) Participation of cerebral cortex
AMU-1997 430. In somatic reflexes, the effectors are located in
Ans. (b) : Refractory period is a period of time during ____.
which a cell is incapable of repeating an action (a) Skin (b) Glands
potential. Refractory period comes in between (c) Smooth muscles (d) Skeletal muscles
depolarization and repolarization. MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I
There are two main types of refractory periods the Ans. (d) : In somatic reflexes, the effectors are located
absolute refractory period and the relative refractory in skeletal muscles.
period. These reflexes involve the activation of skeletal muscles
in response to stimulus to produce a rapid, involuntary
The absolute refractory period is the time during which
response.
a neuron cannot be stimulated to fire another action
potential regardless of the strength of the stimulus. 431. Identify 'X' and 'Y' in the given diagram
Y
The relative refractory period is during which a neuron
can be stimulated to fire another action potential but
only by a stronger than normal stimulus.
427. Ivan Pavlov performed experiments on
(a) Origin of life (b) Cardiac reflexes
X
(c) Simple reflexes (d) Conditioned reflexes (a) X-Inter neuron, Y-Cell body of motor neuron
AIPMT-1993 (b) X-Cell body of motor neuron, Y-Dorsal root
MGIMS Wardha-2013 ganglion
Ans. (d) : Ivan Pavlov’s work on conditioned reflexes (c) X-Inter neuron, Y-sensory neuron
endues the association of a neutral stimulus that work or (d) X-Inter neuron, Y-Dorsal root ganglion
show a specific response. GUJCET-2016
His experiments on dog, where he rang bell (neutral Ans. (b) : Motor neurons are nerve cell responsible for
transmitting signal from the central nervous system
stimulus) and give the food (meaningful stimulus). This
(brain and spinal cord) to the muscles and glands
phenomenon occur many day. enabling movement and physiological responses.
But the dog stated salivating (response) at sound of the The dorsal root ganglion is a cluster of sensory along
bell alone even when food was not given. nerve cell bodies located along the dorsal root of each
Thus this is show learned connection between stimuli spinal nerve. It contain cell bodies of sensory neurons
can lead to involuntary responses or conditioned that transmit signal from the body’s periphery (skin,
reflexes. muscles, organs) to the spinal cord and brain.
428. Simplest reflex action in human is 432. Which of the following is not involved in knee-
(a) Mono synaptic (b) Bi synaptic jerk reflex?
(c) Tri synaptic (d) Poly synaptic (a) Muscle spindle (b) Motor neuron
(c) Brain (d) Interneuron
AIPMT-1999
Assam CEE-2014 / KVPY SA-2014
Ans. (a) : Simplest reflex action in human is mono Ans. (c) : Kneejerk reflex also known as patellar reflex.
synaptic. This type of reflex involves only one synapse It is a simple somatic reflex that involves the contraction of
between sensory and motor neurons. the quadriceps muscle in response to a tap or strike to
• The stretch reflex occurs when muscle spindles or patellar tendon, located just below the kneecap.
afferent neurons along the length of skeletal muscles This reflex is important for maintaining posture and
are stretched causing muscle contraction. coordination.
433. One common example of simple reflex is (a) A = Sense organ; B = Sensory nerve; C =
(a) tying your shoe laces while talking to another Ventral horn; D = Interneuron; E = Dorsal
person and not looking at them horn; F = Motor nerve; G = Effector
(b) watering of mouth at the sight of a favourite
(b) A = Sense organ; B = Sensory nerve; C =
food
(c) climbing up a stairs in dark without Dorsal horn; D = Interneuron; E = Ventral
(d) closing of eyes when strong light is flashed horn; F = Motor nerve; G = Effector
across them. (c) A = Effector; B = Motor nerve; C = Ventral
AIIMS-2008 horn; D = Interneuron; E = Dorsal horn; F =
Ans. (d) : The closing of eyes when strong light is Sensory nerve; G = Sense organ
flashed over is example of simple reflex action. (d) A = Sense organ; B = Motor nerve; C =
This reflex known as the papillary light reflex. Involves Dorsal horn; D = Interneuron; E = Ventral
the contraction of the pupils (the black circular opening
horn; F = Sensory nerve; G = Effector
in the center of the iris) in response to a bright light.
The reflex is formed by spinal cord Karnataka CET-2010
435. The reflex are which is made up of one sensory Karnataka CET-2005
and one motor neuron is____ Ans. (b) :
(a) Polysynaptic (b) Monosynaptic
(c) Asynaptic (d) Bisynaptic
WB JEE-2011
MHT CET-2019
Ans. (b) : A monosynaptic reflex are is the simplest
type of reflex are involving only two neuron and a
motor neuron. In this type of reflex the sensory neuron
detects a stimulus and directly communicates with
motor neuron in the spinal cord, without involving inter
neurons.
436. Put the following parts of a reflex are in the A→Sense organ, B→Sensory nerve, C→Dorsal horn,
correct order beginning with the sensory
D→ Interneuron, E→ Ventral horn, F→Motor nerve, G
receptor:
(A) Motor neuron (B) Interneuron → Effector.
(C) Effector (D) Sensory neuron 438. The pathway of reflex arc as :
(E) Sensory receptor (a) sense organ, spinal cord, motor neuron,
(a) (E) (D) (B) (A) (C) sensory nerve, muscle
(b) (E) (D) (A) (B) (C)
(b) sense organ, sensory neuron, motor neuron,
(c) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
spinal cord, muscle
(d) (A) (E) (D) (B) (C)
Karnataka CET-2013 (c) sense organ, motor neuron, spinal cord,
Ans. (a) : In the correct order of beginning with the sensory neuron, muscles
sensory receptor is five main reflex are – (d) sense organ, motor neuron, spinal cord,
(i) Receptors sensory neuron, muscle
(ii) Sensory neurons KVPY (SA)-2010
(iii) Inter neurons Rajasthan PMT-2001
(iv) Motor neurons
Ans. (b) : When a sensory receptor is stimulated signals
(v) Muscles (Effectors )
pass from it through a sensory neuron to the spinal cord.
437. The following diagram indicates the reflex arc.
Identify the parts labelled as A,B,C,D,E,F and The message travels out of the spinal cord along a
G. Choose the correct option. motor neuron to the effectors organ (e.g. a muscle or a
gland) which acts accordingly. Such a pathway is called
a reflex arc.
Stimulus → Receptors → Sensory
↓
C. N. S
↓
Response ← Effectors ← Motor

G. Sensory Reception and Ans. (c) : The thousands of nerve endings in the skin
respond to four basic sensation pressure, hot, cold and
processing pain but only the sensation of pressure has its own
specialized receptors.
439. The end organs of Ruffini are receptors of : • An itch is a skin sensation. The other skin sensations
(a) Heat (b) Cold are touch, pain, heat and cold. An itch leads to a
(c) Pressure (d) Touch desire to scratch. Itching has many causes from
WB JEE-2006 simple dryness of the skin to serious systemic
Ans. (a) : The end organ of Ruffini are external diseases.
receptor of heat present in skin. The sensation of heat is • Sensation can be divided into four types: superficial
perceived by Ruffini is corpuscles located in deep layer deep, visceral and special. Superficial sensation is
of dermis. They are as thermoreceptors that are concerned with touch, pain, temperature and two -
sensitive to heat which respond for a long time. point discrimination.
440. Organ of Jacobson helps in 444. The auditory nerve gets its input from which of
(a) Touch (b) Vision the following?
(c) Smell (d) Hear (a) The sense cells of the cochlea
WB JEE-2010 (b) Vibration of the last ossicle
Ans. (c) : Jacobson's organ is an olfactory (c) Eustachian tube
chemoreceptor organ. It helps the animal to smell sex (d) Vibration of the tympanic membrane
pheromones or help to hunt its prey. Its present as a KVPY SA-2014
vestigial organ in human beings. Jacobson's organ is Ans. (a) : Cochlea is the main hearing organ. Its
also called as the vomeronasal organ. It is a patch of composed of sensory cells celled their cells, which
sensory cells within the main nasal chamber that detects convert vibrations into neural messagem, these
heavy moisture-borne odour particles. messages are then passed to the auditory nerve and
441. Which one of the following is correctly carried upto the brain. The sense cells of the cochlea.
matched pair of the given secretion and its Auditory cranial nerve has two branches
primary role in human physiology? (i) Vestibular nerve- for equilibrium
(a) Seburtise - Sexual attraction (ii) Cochlear nerve - for hearing
(b) Sweat - Thermoregulation
445. Nerve fibres transmit the nerve message by
(c) Saliva - Tasting food means of
(d) Tears - Excretion of salts (a) Chemical (b) Physical
AFMC-2007
(c) Electro-chemical (d) Electrical
Ans. (b) : Sweating occurs when the body temperature AMU-1996
increases. As sweat evaporates from the skin surface
energy is lost from the body as latent heat of Ans. (c) : Nerve fibres transmit the nerve message by
vaporization and in this away sweat reduces body electro-chemical. Nerve messages allow different part
temperature sweat glands are coiled tubular glands of the body to communicate with each other.
situated in the dermis and connected to a sweat duct There are various medicines that can help improve
which open as pore on the surface of the skin. nerve impulse disorders by reducing pain.
These secrete sweat 0.1 to 0.4% contains sodium There are different type of electrical type of stimulation
chloride, sodium acetate and urea. such as transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
442. Jacobson's organ is found in: (TEN), percutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
(a) Nose (b) Eye (PENS) ,and spinal cord stimulation (SCS).
(c) Kidney (d) Ear 446. The nerve transmitter, produced at the synapse
Haryana PMT-2002 and neuromuscular junction, is:
Ans. (a) : Jacobson's organ is found in nose (Nasal (a) GTP (b) ATP
cavity). (c) Acetylcholine (d) Phosphokinase
Jacobson’s organ also known as the vomeronasal organ AFMC-2001
(VNO) is a chemoreceptor organ found in many Ans. (c) : When synapse cleft have pre-synaptic and
animals, including reptiles, amphibians, and some post synaptic the pre-synaptic cleft have acetylcholine.
mammals. It is located in the nasal cavity and is Neuro transmitter signal but absence of Ca++ it not
responsible for detecting pheromones, chemical signals active as well as Ca++ ion come in pre-synaptic cleft the
that, convey information about an animal’s reproductive acetylcholine become active and release from pre
status, social hierarchy or other behaviors. synaptic and go on neuromuscular junction. And the
443. How many types of sensations can skin Na+ channel is open which present on pro-synaptic cleft.
perceive? Then Na+ channel open and nerve depolarization start
(a) Two (b) Five and nerve transmitted.
(c) Four (d) Six The transmission of nerve impulse through synapse
Haryana PMT-1999 requires a chemical neuro transmitter acetylcholine.
447. Which set is of purely motor nerve? Ans. (d) : Sweat glands are exocrine glands present in
(a) Oculomotor, trochlear, abducens the skin. The skin has a variety of exocrine glands,
(b) Optic, oculomotor, facial including the exocrine sweat gland and sebaceous
(c) Auditory, optic, trigeminal gland. Exocrine sweat glands are the most wide spread
(d) Facial, trigeminal glossopharyngeal sweat gland in the body and are present on nearly every
CMC Ludhiana-2007
external body surface. In the skin, sebaceous glands
secrete an oily or waxy matter called sebum.
Ans. (a) : Purely motor cranial nerves-
Oculomotar (III), Trochlear (IV), Abducens (VI),
Accessory (IX), Hypoglossal (XII).
448. Stimulation of a muscle fibre by a motor
neuron occurs at:
(a) the neuromuscular junction
(b) the transverse tubules
(c) the myofibril
(d) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
AIPMT-2014
Ans. (a) : The neuromuscular junction connects the 451. Identify the correct statement
nervous system to the muscular system via synapses (a) In amniotes last nerve is spinal accessory
between efferent nerve fibres and muscle fibers. So, the (b) In non-amniotes last nerve is vagus
stimulation of the muscle fiber, by a motor neuron (c) Optic is shortest nerve
occurs at the sarcolemma of the neuromuscular junction (d) Olfactory nerves has mixed fibres.
due to the release of a neurotransmitter (acetylcholine). AIIMS-2001
Ans. (b) : 10 pairs of cranial nerves are present in
anamniotes (fishes and amphibians) and 12 pairs occurs
in amniotes (Reptiles, birds and mammals).
• The nerve may be seriously injured if the patient
undergoes extensive tumor mass-removal surgery in
he neck area.
• In amniotes two more cranial nerves such as spinal
449. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are accessory and hypoglossal nerves.
present on • In anamniote the cranial nerves are olfactory, optic,
(a) Membranes of synaptic vesicles occulomotor, trchlear, trigeninal, abducen, facial,
(b) Pre-synaptic membrane auditory, glosso pharyngeal and vagus.
Thus in non- amniotes last nerve is vagus.
(c) Tips of axons
(d) Post-synaptic membrane 452. Excessive stimulation of vagus nerve in humans
may lead to:
NEET-2017
(a) Hoarse voice
Ans. (d) : The receptors sites for neurotransmitters are (b) Peptic ulcers
present on post-synaptic membrane.
(c) Efficient digestion of proteins
• Pre-synaptic membrane is involved in the release of (d) irregular contractions of diaphragm.
neurotransmitter in the chemical synapse. AIIMS-2003
Ans. (b) : Excessive stimulation of vagus nerve in
humans may lead to peptic ulcers. Excessive peptic acid
can lead to ulceration. It is the painful sore present in
wall of stomach and small intestine.
453. Find the correct match :
Column A Column B
(A). Tactile receptor i. Taste
(B). Frigido receptor ii. Touch
pressure
450. Which exocrine glands are present in skin? (C). Gustato receptor iii. Pressure
(a) Sweat, gland, endocrine (D). Tango receptor iv. Cold
(b) Sweat gland, merocrine v. Tension
(c) Sweat gland, apocrine (a) (A) – (iii) (b) (B) – (v)
(d) Sweat gland, sebaceous gland (c) (C) – (i) (d) (D) – (iv)
AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I MHT CET-2017
Ans. (c) : Receptors are those molecules which receives (c) Cardiac movements
chemical signals may be gas or protein molecule. (d) Pancreatic activities
Gustato receptors are present in the tongue and are Manipal-2014
sensitive to taste. Tango receptors are sensitive to touch Ans. (b) : Vagus – Distribution Function
and pressure. Tactile receptors are sensitive to gentle
touch and frigido receptors are sensitive to cold. ↓ ↓
454. Proprioceptors refers to the ailment of Larynx, Lungs, heart, Visceral sensation
(a) Chemicals Stomach, intestine and movements
(b) Temperature • Vagus nerve does not affect tongue movement. The
(c) Taste vagus nerve is responsible for the regulation of internal
(d) Change in the internal environment of the organ functions such as digestion, heart rate and
body respiratory rate as well as vasomotor activity.
CG PMT-2005 459. The number of cranial nerves in frog and man
Ans. (d) : Proprioceptors signals are transmitted to the is :
central nervous system, where they are integrated with (a) 10 and 12 (b) 12 and 10
information from other sensory system, such as the (c) 10 and 8 (d) 8 and 10
visual system and the vestibular system to create an Manipal-2005
overall representation of body position movement and Ans. (a) : In frog cranial nerve – X
acceleration. It is essential for stabilizing body posture In man cranial nerve – XII
and coordinating body movement. Cranial nerves 12 pairs in humans
455. The nerve related with diaphragm is (I) Olfactory
(a) Vagus (b) Phrenic (II) Optic
(c) Trigeminal (d) Glossopharyngeal (III) Oculomotor
CG PMT-2005 (IV) Trochlear
Ans. (b) : Phrenic nerve → The paired phrenic nerve (V) Trigeminal
controls movement and provides sensation in the (VI) Abducens
diaphragm an important respiratory muscles. It is a (VII) Facial
mixed nerve. (VIII) Auditory
456. Cutaneous glands are (IX) Glossopharyngeal
(a) Gastric glands (b) Sebaceous glands (X) Vagus
(c) Thyroid gland (d) Thymus gland (XI) Accessory spinal
CG PMT-2005 (XII) Hypoglossal
Ans. (b) : A sebaceous glands is a microscopic exocrine Spinal accessory and hypoglossal cranial nerves are
gland in the skin that opens into a hair follicle to secrete absent in frog.
an oily or waxy matter called sebum, which lubricates
460. Keratinisation of skin is prevented by
the hair and skin of mammals. It is a cutaneous gland.
(a) Retinol (b) Thiamine
457. Cranial nerves numbering IV, V and VI are (c) Ascorbic acid (d) Calciferol
respectively :
(a) Trochlear, trigeminal, abducens BVP-2014
(b) Trochlear, trigeminal, facial Ans. (a): Retinol is precursor of keratin the process of
(c) Auditory, facial, trochlear formation of dead keratin protein in the stratum
(d) Auditory, trochlear, facial corneum of the dermis is called keratinization. Its
derivatives are nails, hair etc.
DUMET-2002
461. Which of the following is free living aerobic
Ans. (a) : Cranial nerves 12 pairs in humans
non-photosynthetic nitrogen fixing bacterium ?
(1) Olfactory
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter
(2) Optic
(c) Nostoc (d) Azospirillium
(3) Oculomotor
Haryana PMT-2001
(4) Trochlear
(5) Trigemianal Ans. (b) : Azotobacter is a genus of free living, nitrogen
(6) Abducens fixing bacteria commonly found in soil. These convert
atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into ammonia (NH3), a form
(7) Facial
of nitrogen that plant can ready use for their growth
(8) Auditory because the atmospheric nitrogen is not available to
(9) Glossopharyngeal plant.
(10) Vagus Anabena is free living and symbiotic nitrogen fixing
(11) Accessory spinal bacteria.
(12) Hypoglossal Clostrodium is free living, anaerobic, nitrogen fixing
458. Which one remain unaffected, if vagus nerve is bacteria.
injured in human? 462. Meissner corpuscles are responsible for:
(a) Gastrointestinal movements (a) heat and present in skin
(b) Tongue movements (b) cold and present in skill
(c) pressure and present in skin middle layer, choroid contains many blood vessels and
(d) pain and present in skin looks bluish in color. The choroid layer is thin over the
Rajasthan PMT-2005 posterior 2/3 of the eye ball and becomes thick in the
Ans. (c) : Meissner’s corpuscles also known as tactile anterior part to form the cilliary body. The innermost
corpuscles are found in the upper dermis but they layer is the retina and it contains 3-layers of neural
project into the epidermis. They are found primarily in cells- from inside to outside- ganglion cells, bipolar
the glabrous skin on the fingertips and eyelids. They cells and photoreceptor cells.
respond to fine touch and pressure.
H. Eye and Ear

463. The vibration form the ear drum are
transmitted through ear ossicles to
(a) Auditory nerves
(b) Cochlea
(c) Oval window
(d) Tectorial membrane
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
Ans. (c) : The vibration from the eardrum are
transmitted through ear ossicles to the oval window. 466. In the myopia eye defect, the rays of light:
The ear drum is connected to the malleus, encus, and (a) do not enter the eye at all
stapes. The stapes is the smallest bone in the human (b) meet at a focus in front of the retina
body, and it is located at the oval window. When the ear (c) come to a focus at back of retina
drum vibrates, it causes the malleus, encus and stapes to (d) come to a focus in between retina and iris
vibrate as well. WB JEE-2006
The stapes then pushes against the oval window, which Ans. (b) : Myopia (Nearsightedness) is general vision
causes the fluid in the cochlea to vibrate. disorder in which you can see things close to you
464. The area of retina of human eye which contain distinctly but not those further away. It happens because
only cones is light rays do not focus before the retina. These results in
(a) Blind spot (b) Scala media images being blurry when perceived. Several factors
(c) Fovea centralis (d) Macula that cause myopia like
TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I Eye ball shape may be big.
It may be genetic component
Ans. (c) : The area of the retina in the human eye that
contains only cone cells is the fovea centralis. The fovea Environmental factor like reading, using electronic
centralis is a small, yellowish depression in the center of devices or doing extensive near work can increase the
the macula lutea. It is about 1.5 mm in a diameter and risk of myopia.
contains only cone cells. The fovea centralis is 467. The muscles surrounding the pupil of rabbit's
responsible for our sharpest vision and our ability to see eye are
fine details. (a) unstriated and involuntary
465. Given below are two statements: (b) striated and voluntary
Statement I : The nose contains mucus-coated (c) unstriated and voluntary
receptors which are specialised for receiving (d) striated and involuntary
the sense of smell and are called olfactory UP CPMT-2004
receptors. Ans. (a) : The pupil of rabbits eye is surrounded by iris
Statement II : Wall of the eye ball has three muscles. Iris muscles are smooth muscles that lack
layers. The external layer is called choroid striation and are involuntary in action. The iris works
(dense connective tissue), middle layer is sclera like a shutter of a camera.
(thin pigmented layer) and internal layer is 468. Yellow spot is found in:
retina (ganglion cells, bipolar cells and (a) Muscles (b) Nerves
photoreceptor cells). (c) Kidney (d) Eyes
In the light of the above statements, choose the Rajasthan PMT-2004
correct answer from the options given below: Ans. (d) : The yellow spot is found in eyes and
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true commonly called pinguecula.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false Pinguecula (singular) is condition by small, yellowish
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false or whitish raised bumps or spot on the conjunctiva
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true which is the clear thin membrane that covers the white
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) part of the eyes (sclera).
Ans. (c) : Statement-I is correct and statement-II is 469. Rods and cones of eyes are modified:
incorrect because the wall of the eye ball is composed (a) Multipolar neuron (b) Unipolar neuron
of three layers. The external layer is composed of the (c) Bipolar neuron (d) None of the above
dense connective tissue and is called the sclera. The AFMC-2005
Ans. (c) : Rods cell and cones cell are photoreceptor 474. Which substance is generally absent from
cells present in the eye. They contain photosensitive aquous humor?
pigments. Rod cells and cone cells are the photoreceptor (a) Ascorbic acid (b) Hyaluronic acid
neuroepithelial cells present in the retina of eye. Rod (c) Glucose (d) O2 and CO2
cells help in low light vision where as cone cells are Rajasthan PMT-1996
active at higher light and aid in colour vision.
Rod cell and cone cell in the retina do indeed modify Ans. (b) : Hyaluronic acid is absent in aqueous humor.
the activity of bipolar neuron. Aquous humor consist of sugar, vitamins, protein and
nutrients less than 1 % and about 99% H2O is present.
470. Internal ear is filled with: Hyaluronic acid found sperm, and help in penetrate, the
(a) Perilymph (b) Endolymph ovum.
(c) Lymph (d) Both a and b
AFMC-2005
475. Middle ear protects the internal ear from high
sound waves:
Ans. (d) : The vestibular and tympanic canals are filled (a) By the reflex action of tenser tympani and
with perilymph, while median canal is filled with
stapes muscle
endolymph. The part of the inner ear involved in
hearing is cochlea. The cochlea has three chambers as (b) By pulling inside malleus and tympanic
upper vestibular canal, a middle median canal and a membrane
lower tympanic canal. (c) By pulling outside the stapes and basal plates
471. Organ of Corti is found in : (d) All of the above
(a) Heart (b) Kidneys Rajasthan PMT-1996
(c) Inner ear (d) Nasal chamber Ans. (b) : The middle ear provides protection to the
VMMC-2014 / Rajasthan PMT-2006, 2003 inner ear form high intensity sound through a
Punjab MET-2003/ BVP-2001 mechanism called the acoustic reflex.
Ans. (c) : The organ of Corti is a structure found within When loud sound, the muscles in the middle ear
the cochlea, which is spiral- shaped, fluid-filled contract which reduces the transmission of sound
structure in the inner ear. vibration to the inner tensor tympani and stapedius
The cochlea is responsible for converting sound muscles, helps protect delicate inner ear structure like
vibration into electrical signals that can be interpreted the cochlea from potential damage, caused by
by the brain as nearing. excessively loud noises.
The organ of Corti is a critical component of cochlea in the 476. Pigment iodopsin is contained in
inner ear, where it houses sensory hair cell responsible for (a) Rod cells (b) Cone cells
the conversion of sound vibration into electrical signals (c) Amacrime cells (d) Horizontal cells
that are essential for the sense of hearing. Manipal-2012 / AFMC-2010
472. What does not happens when people listen to Ans. (b) : Cone cell contain a visual violet pigment
loud music? called iodopsin which is sensitive to bridge day light.
(a) Cochlear fluid oscillates at high degree Iodopsin pigments are found in one of the retina cells.
(b) Receptors of cochlear get degenerate Retinal cells are present in the eyes. These cells are
(c) Organ of corti react by the tympanic membrane responsible for light vision there are two types of photo
(d) Basal membrane vibrate to a large extent pigment cells, i.e. rods and cone cells. Rod cells are
Rajasthan PMT-1996 responsible for dark and dim light vision whereas con
Ans. (d) : Basilar membrane vibrate to large extent will cells are responsible for light vision or colour vision.
not happen during listen to loud music. A onetime 477. Branching tree like processes of white matter
exposure to extreme loud sound or listening to loud called A are located in B of CNS.
sound for a long time can cause hearing loss. Loud A B
noise can damage cells and membrane in the cochlea.
Listening to loud noise for long time can over work hair (a) Funiculi spinal cord
cell in the ear, which can cause these cells to die. (b) Folia medulla oblongata
473. Malleus, incus, stapes are modifications of (c) Corpora striata cerebrum
respectively: (d) Arbor vitae cerebellum
(a) Articular, quadrate and hyomandibular MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
(b) Quadrate, articular and hyomandibular Ans. (d) : The cerebellum is located at the back of hind
(c) Articular, hyomandibular and quadrate brain.
(d) Hyomandibular, quadrate and articular The cortex of cerebellum is consist of outer white
Rajasthan PMT-1996 matter and inner gray matter.
Ans. (a) : Malleus, incus, and stapes are ear ossicles The white matter project the outside and tree like
present in middle ear and are modifications of articular, branching.
hyomandibular and quadrate. Ear ossicles consist three Cerebellum role in coordinating and regulating
such as malleus, incus and stapes where malleus is voluntary muscle movements, balance, posture and
attached to the tympanic membrane and stapes is motor learning.
attached to the circumference of the fenestra vestibular It communicates with other brain region including the
and incus is present between malleus and stapes and the cerebral cortex and brainstem, to fine funs motor
structure called delicate articulate. functions and maintain overall motor precision.
478. In the following abnormalities of the eye, which (c) both rods and cones are involved
one is a serious condition that leads to (d) neither rods nor cones are involved
blindness? HP CET-2011 / VMMC-2005
(a) Presbyopia (b) Myopia AMU-2004 / BVP-2003
(c) Hypermetropia (d) Glaucoma Ans. (b) : In dark adaptation only rods cells are involved.
AIIMS-2007 / AFMC -2011 Rod cells are highly sensitive to light and can detect
Ans. (d) : Glaucoma is a group of colour (eye) even small amounts of light.
disorders resulting in optic nerve damage or loss to the Cone cells are responsible for colour perception they
field of vision caused by a pressure build up of the fluid contain different type of photo pigments that are
of the eye ball. sensitive to different part of visible light spectrum.
The increased pressure can damage the optic nerve 483. Part of ear where sound is transduced is :
which transmitted image to the brain. If damage to the (a) Tympanic membrane
optic nerve from high eye pressure continuous, (b) Malleus, incus and stapes
glaucoma will cause permanent loss of vision. (c) Semicircular canal
479. Colour perception in man is due to (d) Cochlea
(a) Rhodopsin pigment in rod cells HP CET-2011
(b) Iodopsin pigment in cone cells Ans. (d) : The cochlea represents the hearing part of the
(c) Iodopsin pigment in rod cells inner ear and is situated in the temporal bone.
(d) Rhodopsin pigment in cone cells The cochlea is a fluid-filled, spiral shaped cavity found in
DUMET-2010 the inner ear that plays a vital role in the sense of hearing
Ans. (b) : Colour perception in man is due to iodopsin and participates in the process of auditory transduction.
pigment in cone cells. In the retina there are specialized Sound waves are transducer into electrical impulses that
photoreceptor called cones. Three types of cones which the brain can interpret as individual sound frequencies.
respond to red (erythropsin) green (chloropsin) and blue 484. Vitreous humor is :
light (cyanopsin). Other colours are detected by (a) Colloid
simultaneous stimulation of more than one type of cone (b) Watery fluid
cell. Iodopsin is responsible for the voilet pigment of (c) Mucoid connective tissue
cone cell of the retina where as rhodopsin responsible (d) All of the above
for the visual purple pigment of rods cells. HP CET-2011 / BCECE-2006
480. Which of the following cells are associated with VMMC-2005 / AMU 2004 / BVP-2003
identification of colours in bright light Ans. (c) : The vitreous humor is a transparent colorless
(a) Rod cells (b) Cone cells gel-like substance located in the posterior chamber of
(c) Both [a] and [b] (d) None of these the eye. Most of this humor consists of water as well as
DUMET-2008 lower amount of collagen, salt and sugar. Mucoid
Ans. (b) : Rod cell and cone cells are the photo connective tissue is a type of connective tissue that is
receptors present in the human retina. Rod cells are composed of ground substance with few cells of fibres.
responsible for vision at low level of lights while cones Vitreous humor of the eyeball is similar tissue as that of
cell are responsible for vision at bright level of lights. mucoid connective tissue.
They respond differently various wavelengths of light 485. Cataract is caused by:
and works betters in bright. Cone cells are responsible (a) accumulation of the dust in the eye
for colour vision. (b) lens getting opaque
481. A person suffering from the deficiency of the (c) nerves supplying the eyes getting weak
visual pigment rhodopsin is advised to take (d) conjuctiva becoming thickened
more of JIPMER-1999
(a) Radish and potato Ans. (b) : : In cataract lenses becomes opaque and
(b) Apple and grapes normal vision is hammered blindness may be caused.
(c) Carrot and ripe papaya Most cataracts happen because of normal of changes in
(d) Guava and ripe banana year eyes as you get older. When you are young the lens
AFMC-2007 in your eye is clear. Around age 40, the proteins in the
lens of your age eye start to break down and clump
Ans. (c) : Carrot and ripe papaya contain carotene together. This clump makes a cloudy area on your lens-
which is form of vitamin 'A' is synthesized vitamin-A is known as a contract.
necessary for the formation of rhodopsin. The visual
pigment responsible for photo transduction know as
rhodopsin. Rhodopsin is found in the rod cell of the retina
which are specialized for low light or scotopic vision.
Rhodopsin consist of two components such as opsin
protein and retinal (a derivative of vitamin A).
Rhodopsin is sensitive to low light visual.
482. In dark adaptation :
(a) only cones are involved
(b) only rods are involved
486. During voyage, sea sickness is caused by the : 491. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never
(a) Lungs rejected. This is because
(b) Internal ears (semi-circular canal) (a) its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
(c) Upset of stomach (b) it has no blood supply
(d) Muscles (c) it is composed of enucleated cells
JIPMER-1999 (d) it is a non-living layer
Ans. (b) : Sea sickness, also known as motion sickness BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
is caused by a conflict between the sensory imputes on Ans. (b) : Cornea transplant in humans is almost never
body receives, body inner ear senses motion such as the rejected because it has no blood supply. Rejection of
rocking of a boat. It can lead to nausea, dizziness and transplanted organ is cussed by the immune system.
other symptoms. Sip water to stay hydrated since Cornea transplantation is more successful.
dehydration can be a cause of sea sickness. The transplantation of cornea which called keratoplasty
Antihistamines are the most frequently used and widely 492. Now-a-days cornea transplantation is very
available medications for motion sickness. popular. The reason is that it:
487. Glaucoma is an eye-disease arising from: (a) Cornea is easy to preserve
(a) increased pressure of fluid in eye-ball (b) transplanted very easily
(b) elongation of eye-ball (c) can be easily obtained
(c) shortening of eye-ball (d) Cornea does not link with blood supply and
(d) irregularity in the surface of cornea immune system
JIPMER-1997 AMU-2008 / JIPMER-2003
Ans. (a) : Glaucoma is an eye disease primarily Ans. (d) : Cornea is the only human part where there is no
characterized by increased pressure. This elevated blood supply cornea can absorb oxygen directly from the
pressure can damage the optic nerve which is air. So that cornea transplantation is more successful.
responsible for transmitting visual information from the The transplantation of cornea called keratoplasty.
eye to brain. Glaucoma is also called thief of sight. 493. A person is wearing spectacles with concave
488. Human eye lens is: lenses for correcting vision. While not using the
(a) spherical and can be moved forward glasses, the image of a distant object in his case
(b) biconvex and cannot be moved forward will be formed
(c) spherical and cannot be moved forward (a) on the blind spot (b) behind the retina
(d) biconvex and can be moved forward (c) in front of the retina (d) on the yellow spot
JIPMER-1997 Rajasthan PMT-2010 / AIIMS-2003
Ans. (b) : Human eye lens is the normal eye focuses Ans. (c) : The person wearing spectacles with concave
images of distant objects on the retina. It acts in much lenses for correcting vision suffers from myopia (near
the same way as a biconvex optical glass lens however sightedness). In this case the object image will focus
it cannot be moved forward. The lens protected by gel- before the retina. It is due to eye ball become large or
like substance called vitreous humor. When object at eye lens become thick when lens become thick focus
some close distance the lens become more thick and distances decreases.
object more distance lens become thin (flatter). A concave lens is also called a diverging or negative lens.
489. The anterior portion of the sclera is called 494. Which part of the human eye adjusts the focal
(a) Lens (b) Iris length of lens ?
(c) Pupil (d) Ciliary body (a) Cornea (b) Aquous humour
(e) Cornea (c) Conjunctiva (d) Ciliary body
Kerala PMT-2015 Rajasthan PMT-1998
Ans. (e) : The cornea is the transparent dome shaped front Ans. (d) : The ciliary body is a circular structure that is
surface of the eyes that convert the iris and pupil. It plays a an extension of the iris, the colored part of the eye.
crucial role in vision by refracting (bending) incoming • The relaxation or contraction of cilliary muscles
light and focusing it onto the retina and the back of the changes the curvature of the eye lens. The change in
eyes. Cornea is composed of collagen fibers and water. curvature of the eye lens change the focal length of the
490. The projecting ridge in ampulla of semi- eyes. Hence, change in focal length of an eye lens is
circular canals in ear is called caused by the action of cilliary muscles.
(a) Succus entericus (b) Maccula 495. Which of the following pair is monosaccharide?
(c) Otolith (d) Crista ampullaris (a) Glucose and sucrose (b) Ribose and maltose
(e) Cochlea (c) Fructose and glucose (d) Ribose and sucrose
Ans. (d) : Crista ampullaris is one projecting ridge of Ans. (c) : Monosaccharide’s are the simplest form of
ampulla of semi circular canals Generally, the crista carbohydrate. They consist of one sugar and are usually
ampullaris is sensory organ of rotation. Commonly they colorless, water soluble and no need digestion glucose,
are found in the ampullae of each of the semicircular galactose and fructose are monosaccharide and share
canals of the inner ear. Meaning that there are 3 pairs in the same molecular formula C6H12O6. However the
total the main functions is angular acceleration and arrangement atoms is different is each of these three
deceleration i.e. balancing. sugars.
496. Too short eye ball and too flat lens produce : Ans. (d) : The optic lobes in humans are represented by
(a) Near sightedness (b) Far sightedness the corpora quadrigemina. The corpora quadrigemina
(c) Astigmatism (d) Presbyopia are reflex centre’s involving vision and hearing. It
Rajasthan PMT-1998 basically connects the forebrain and the hind brain.
Ans. (b) : Farsightedness or Hypermetropia is caused They play important role in processing, particular in
when the eyeball of a person is too short or the lens of the visual and auditory functions.
eyes is too flat. In such cases the eyes are not able to focus The quadrigemina are consists of two part :-
the incoming light on the retina wall instead focus it behind (i) superior colliculi.
it due to insufficient accommodation by the lens. (ii) Inferior colliculi.
497. The sound reception can be interpreted by : Both contribute to the integration of sensory
(a) Olfactory lobe information, an important part of midbrain.
(b) Cerebral hemisphere 501. The vibrations of the tympanic membrane are
(c) Cerebellum amplified approximately …… times in the oval
(d) Medulla oblongata window.
Rajasthan PMT-1998 (a) 5 (b) 20
Ans. (b) : Sound reception, can be interpreted by the (c) 40 (d) 55
human auditory system, which includes the ears and AMU-2010
brain. When sound wave enter the ear rich eardrum, Ans. (b) : The tympanum, also known as the eardrum,
causing vibration. This vibrations are transmitted to tinyis thin, membrane like structure located in the middle
bone, and amplify the sound and send to the inner ear. ear of many vertebrates. The amplification of sound
In the inner ear hair cell convert the vibration into occur with the help of middle ear ossicles, the malleus,
electrical signals. The electrical signal transmitted to incus and stapes. The sound waves transmitted to
brain temporal lobes. ossicles by tympanum membrane.
498. Eustachian canal connects The oval window is smaller than the tympanic
(a) Middle ear with external ear membrane, hence the waves are amplified near about
15-20 times their original amount.
(b) Middle ear with internal ear
The vibrations of the tympanic membrane are amplified
(c) External ear with internal ear approximately 20 times in the oval window.
(d) Pharynx with middle ear
MGIMS Wardha-2008 / JIPMER-2010
502. Cornea is covered externally by a thin
transparent membrane, which is
Ans. (d) : The Eustachian canal also known as the (a) Sclerotic (b) Conjunctiva
Eustachian tube or auditory tube, connects the middle (c) Choroid (d) None of these
ear to the pharynx (the back of the throat). It help in
AMU -2000
equalizing air pressure on both side of the ear drum.
Ans. (b) : The conjunctiva have many function such as.
499. The direction of light striking the retina will be protection from foreign particles, dust and
(a) Photosensory cells →bipolar microorganisms. It produces mucus and tears that keep
neurons→ganglionic cells →sensory nerves the eye moist and provide a smooth surface for blinking
(b) Sensory nerves →bipolar neurons→ganglionic and eyes movement.
cells→photosensory cells It also maintenance of optical quality by celery front
(c) Sensory nerves → ganglionic cells → bipolar surface of the eyes.
neurons → photosensory cells
(d) Photosensory cells → ganglionic cells →
bipolar neurons →sensory nerve
AMU-2010
Ans. (c) : The direction of light striking the retina will
be firstly on the sensory nerves.Then the light striked
primarily on ganglionic cells which pass the impulse to
bipolor neurons through which it moves to 503. Fine blood capillaries seen on reddening of the
photosensory cells. eyes are spread over
Hence, the correct direction of light striking the retina is– (a) Pupil (b) Conjunctiva
(c) Eyelid lining (d) None of these
AMU -2000
Ans. (b) : Generally a subconjuctival haemorrhage
occurs spontaneously and will appear as if the blood is
trapped in and around the white of the eye. Often the
blood may start in a small area on the white of the eye.
It may spread and include the entire white of the eye.
500. The optic lobes in humans are represented by 504. Human eye is sensitive to wavelength in the
the corpora range of
(a) Bigemina (b) Arenacea (a) 300-390 nanometer (b) 380- 760 nanometer
(c) Striata (d) Quadrigemina (c) 790-800 nanometer (d) 300-360 nanometer
AMU-2010 AMU-1999
Ans. (b) : Human eye is sensitive to wavelength in the Ans. (d) : Corpora quadrigemina is directly related to
range of 380-760 nanometre. It is the wavelength range vision in rabbit. The midbrain contains the corpora
of the visible spectrum. quadrigemina. The corpora quadrigemina's four
505. Which is thickened to form organ of Corti? colliculi are involved in the processing of visual and
(a) Reissner's membrane (b) Basilar membrane auditory functions.
(c) Tectorial membrane (d) All of the above 510. Which part of retina consists of only cones?
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 (a) Fovea centralis (b) Optic nerve
Ans. (b) : 'Basilar membrane' is the thick and to form (c) Blind spot (d) Chiasmata
organ of Corti. The organ of Corti is made up of hair Haryana PMT-2005
cells and supporting cells that sit on a flexible basilar Ans. (a) Fovea centralis is a part of retina consists of
membrane which is anchored to the bony shelf on the only cones. This area of the eye is responsible for high
left and a ligament on the right. acuity vision due to the high density of cone cells,
The organ of Corti is a critical component of cochlea in which is useful in activities such as reading.
the inner ear, where it houses sensory hair cell 511. In human eyes, colour perception is done by
responsible for the conversion of sound vibration into (a) Rod cells only (b) Cone cells only
electrical signals that are essential for the sense of (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Choroid layer cells
hearing. CG PMT-2009
506. Bipolar neurons occur in MGIMS Wardha-2009
(a) Vertebrate embryos (b) Retina of eye Ans. (b) : Cone cells only is responsible for color
(c) Brain and spinal cord (d) Skeletal muscles perception in the human eye. Cones are sensitive to
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 bright light whereas rods are sensitive to dim light.
When light enter the eye and strikes these cone cells,
Ans. (b) : Bipolar neurons are given cells which have they respond by sending electrical signals to the brain.
bipolar endings. The cell body is present at the centre The brain processes the relative activating of these three
and with extensions on both sides of the cell, one at the type of cones to determine the colour of the light. For
axon and other at the dendrite. Bipolar neurons play a examples; if red and green cones are activated more
role in the sensory pathway and perception of sight. than blue cones the brain interprets the color as yellow.
Not only bipolar cells found in retina but also 512. In the ear of man, the perilymph passes from
photoreceptors, ganglion cells, horizontal cell, and middle to inner ear through :
amacrine cell also found.
(a) Tympanic membrane (b) Fenestra rotundus
507. When the intensity of light is low during night (c) Fenestra ovalis (d) Foramen ovale
the light is detected by JIPMER-2001
(a) Rods (b) Cones
Ans. (c) : The fenestra ovalis, also known as oval
(c) Lens (d) Both (a) and (b) window is a structure in the inner ear of humans and
CG PMT-2007 other mammals. It is located in the bony labyrinth of the
Ans. (a) : Rods are the light sensitive cells that lack temporal bone and is covered by a membrane. The main
colour discrimination but are repolarized by dim light function of fenestra ovalis in transmission of sound
and are responsible for night vision. Rods work at very vibration from the middle ear to the inner ear and
low levels of light because only a few bits of light can ultimately to brain for hearing.
activate a rod. 513. Which of the sensory organ is involved when
508. The cranial nerve in rabbit that is connected to you feel an earthquake?
the superior oblique muscle of the eye is: (a) Proprioreceptors (b) Ears
(a) II (b) IV (c) Skin of your soles (d) Eye
(c) V (d) VIII Haryana PMT-1999
AP EAMCET-2004 Ans. (b) :We feel an earthquake sensory organ is Ears
Ans. (b) : Rabbit is a mammal having 12 pairs of Earthquakes are caused by the movement of tectonic
cranial nerves. The trochlear nerve also knows as the plates beneath the earth’s surface, and they do not
fourth cranial nerve is one of the 12 cranial nerves that involve any specific sensory organs but partly as ear.
emerge directly from the brain. The earthquakes is measured by seismometers or
The trochlear nerve emerges from the dorsal aspect of seismographs.
the midbrain. The function control the superior oblique We can feel the ground shaking during earthquakes.
muscle (essential for the movement of eye). 514. From the carotenes, vitamin A is synthesis in:
The trochlear cranial nerve number is “IV” (a) Pancreas (b) Skin
It is the longest and thinnest muscle among the (c) Spleen (d) None of these
extraocular muscles. Haryana PMT-1999
509. Which brain structure in rabbit is directly Ans. (d) :Carotene is a precursor of vitamin A and in
related to vision? plant, synthesized through photosynthesis. But in
(a) Corpus albicans (b) Hippocampal lobe human bodies, it can convert them into active vitamin A
(c) Corpus callosum (d) Corpora quadrigemina this conversion occur in the intestine and liver, whole
Haryana PMT-2005 / AFMC-2002 enzymes convert carotenoids into retinol.
515. Anaemia is caused by deficiency of vitamin: • Malleus – It is the outermost bone and is largest of
(a) B-complex (b) D the three bones. It transmits the sound vibrations
(c) E (d) A received from the eardrum to stapes through incus.
Haryana PMT-1999 • Incus – It is the shape of 'anvil', hence it is also
called an anvil bone.
Ans. (a) : Anaemia is caused by deficiency of vitamin
B-complex. Anaemia can also caused deficiency by • Stapes–They help in the transmission of sound
vitamin B12 vitamin (Cyanocobalamin) and vitamin C vibrations to the inner ear from incus through the oval
window.
which role in red blood cell production. These types of
anaemia, the red blood cells don't develop normally. 519. Part of ear where sound is transduced, is
They are very large and they are like an oval shaped, (a) Tympanic membrane
not round like healthy red blood cells. (b) Malleus, incus and stapes
This is why the onset of anemia is often the result of a (c) Semicircular canal
B12 deficiency rather that an iron deficiency on its own. (d) Cochlea
VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004
516. The retina of nocturnal birds contain
Ans. (d) : Part of ear where sound is transduced is
(a) Cones only (b) Rods only cochlea. The cochlea is a spiral-shaped, fluid- filled
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Either (a) or (b) structure located in the inner ear, and it play an
AMU-2005 important role in hearing.
Ans. (b) : The retina of nocturnal birds, such as owls, The cochlea contains thousands of tiny hair cells that
contains only rods. That is why owls sleep during day are responsible for converting sound vibrations into
and hunts during night. The rods are longer, slender and electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain.
cylindrical while cones are shorter thicken and 520. The optic lobes in humans are represented by
somewhat cube shaped. If cones are related to day the corpora
vision and colour vision then rods are related with (a) Bigemina (b) Arenacea
vision in dim light. (c) Allata (d) Quadrigemina
517. The point in eye of mammals from which optic AMU-2012
nerves and blood vessels leaves the eye ball is: Ans. (d) : The optic lobes in humans are represented by
(a) Yellow spot (b) Blind spot the corpora quadrigemina. The corpora quadrigemina in
(c) Pars optic (d) None of these humans are four solid lobes on the dorsal side of the
cerebral cortex. The corpora quadrigemina are reflex
AFMC-2004 / AMU-2007 / CMC Ludhiana-2008
centers involving vision and hearing.
Ans. (b) : From the blind spot, optic nerves and blood 521. Dark adaptation in human eye involves
vessels leaves the eye ball in mammals. Blind spot lies (a) Conversion of II cis-retinene to trans-retinene
close to the yellow spot of the eye and absence of (b) Conversion of trans-retinene into II cis retinene
receptor cells (rod and cones). Blind spot is a small
(c) Decomposition of rhodopsin into retinene
portion of the visual field of the eye. It corresponds to
(d) Decomposition of rhodopsin to scotopsin
the position of the optic disk in the retina. It lacks
AMU-2012
photoreceptors. Hence no image is formed at this spot.
Ans. (b) : Dark adaptation in human eye involves a
conversion of trans-retinene into II cis-retinene The
process of dark adaptation involves phototransduction
taking place mainly between the photoreceptor outer
segments and the retina pigment epithelial layer.
522. Ear drum is known as
(a) Tympanic membrane (b) Tensor tympani
(c) Scala tympani (d) Scala vestibuli
CG PMT-2006
Ans. (a) : Ear drum is also known as tympanum or
tympanic membrane. External ear from the middle ear is
From this diagram, it is clearly visible that the blind separated by the ear drum. When sound waves reach the
spot is the point where blood vessels and the optic nerve tympanic membrane they cause it to vibrate. The
are leaving the eyeball. vibrations are then transferred to small bones in the middle
ear known as the ossicles (malleus, incus and stape) this
518. Correct order of ear ossicles in rabbit is: ossicles amplify the vibration and transmit them further
(a) Incus, stapes, malleus into the inner ear, specifically to the cochlea, where hair
(b) Malleus, incus, stapes cells convert the mechanical vibration into electrical
(c) Malleus, stapes, incus signals that are sent to the brain for interpretation.
(d) Incus, malleus, stapes
AFMC-2004 / AMU-2008 / VMMC-2008
Ans. (b) : The middle ear contains the three tiny
ossicles the malleus (hammer), Incus (anvil) and stapes
(stirrup). The ossicles are attached to one another
forming a chain.
523. Select the correct statement. Ans. (c) : A corneal nebula is a less severe condition
(a) Presence of non functional retinal cone cells compared to a corneal as a corneal leukoma. These term
lead to colour blindness. describe different levels of corneal transparency and can
(b) Y-linked inheritance is criss-cross in human have varying impacts on vision, with a nebula generally
beings. causing milder visual disturbances.
(c) X-linked disorders very frequently appear in 528. Eustachian tube is present between
human females. (a) Middle ear and pharynx
(d) In human being carrier females are colour blind. (b) Pharynx and oesophagus
MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I (c) Ear and eye
Ans. (a) : Colour blindness is also known as colour (d) None of the above
vision. Abnormalities in the cones. Colour blindness is VMMC-2010
typically a genetic condition and it’s more common in Ans. (a) : Eustachian tubes run from the middle ears to
men than women because X-chromosome linkage. the back of nose and throat. They are located on each side
There are different type of colour blindness such as of your face. The Eustachian tube (pharyngotympanic
Red-Green colour blindness, blue-yellow colour tube) connects the middle ear cavity with the nasopharynx.
blindness, total colour blindness (achromatopsid) . It quarter the middle ear system and clear mucus from the
Many deficiencies of colour vision are the result of middle ear into the nasopharynx.
genetic alterations in the red or green cone pigments
due to the crossing over of chromosomes during
meiosis.
524. The auricle (external ear) in man is made up of
______.
(a) Calcified cartilage (b) Elastic cartilage
(c) Hyaline cartilage (d) Brown adipose tissue
Ans. (b) : The auricle is considered mainly of auricular
cartilage, a type of elastic cartilage containing numbers
of elastic fibers. Elastic cartilage contains fiber
networks and collagen fibres. This type of cartilage is
present in the outer ear. The auricle is a funnel-shaped 529. In the blind spot where the optic nerves leaves
cartilaginous structure consists fo a single thin plate of the eyes :
elastic fibrocartilage covered by skin. (a) Rods and cones are absent
525. Malleus bone of ear is attached to _______. (b) Only cones are present
(a) Tympanic membrane (c) Only rods are present
(b) Membranous labyrinth (d) Special neurons are present
AFMC-2006
(c) Oval window of internal ear
(d) Eustachian tube Ans. (a) : Blind spot is a region where the optic nerves
rods and cones are absent. As result, when an image
falls on the blind spot in the retina that part of the image
Ans. (a) : The shape of malleus is like a hammer.The can not be perceived by the eye. However, we are
malleus connect to the tympanic membrane generally unaware of this blind spot because our brains
transforming auditory oscillations to the incus and then fill in the missing information from surrounding visual
stapes. The stapes connects to the oval window image. At this spot, no image is formed because
allowing for mechanical energy to be transferred to the absence of photoreceptor cells.
fluid-filled inner ear.
530. A serious eye defects which can lead to
It is attached to and partly embedded in the fibrous layer blindness is
of the inner surface of the tympanic membrane. (a) Myopia (b) Hypermetropia
526. Eyes of cats glitter at night due to presence of (c) Presbyopia (d) Glaucoma
(a) Luciferin (b) Tapetum cellulosum VMMC-2008 / AMU-2008
(c) Tapetum fibrosum (d) Porphyropsin Ans. (d) : Glaucoma is a disorder of eye in which the
BHU PMT (Screening)-2011 optic nerve which carry visual information to brain, is
Ans. (b) : Tapetum lucidum is found in the eyes of damaged and this leads to blindness because no visual
aquatic animals. Tapetum fibrosum is found in information will be carried to brain and hence, no image
herbivores and tapetum cellulosum found in carnivores. will be formed and perceived. It is a group of disease
The tapetum cellulosum is modified choroid and that damage the eye's optic nerve and can result in
consists of iridocytes. It serves to reflect blue, green and vision loss and even blindness. It is the second leading
yellow light from the fundus of the eye which in turn cause of blindness worldwide.
gives the glittery appearance to cat eye at night. 531. UV radiation from sun causes, which of the
527. A slight opacity of cornea is following disorder of eyes?
(a) Mastitis (b) Cataract (a) Cataract (b) Glaucoma
(c) Nebula (d) Catarrh (c) Dilation pupil (d) Some defect of retina
BHU PMT (Screening)-2011 Uttarakhand PMT-2008 / BVP-2007
Ans. (a) : A cataract is a clouding of the normally clear Ans. (d) : In mammals, the sound wave receptor is the
lens of the eye. For people who have cataracts seeing organ of Corti, which is present in the ears. The organ
through cloudy lenses is a bit like looking through a of Corti is located which the cochlea which is a coiled
frosty or forged up window. snail-shaped structure in the inner ear. It consists of
Cataracts are primarily caused by aging process but specialized sensory cell celled hair cell, supportive cell,
ultraviolet (UV) radiation, smoking diabetes, trauma and various structures that help amplify and transmit
also responsible for this. sound signals.
Prolonged exposure to UV ray from the sun can 537. Retina is most sensitive at
increase the risk of cataracts. (a) Optic disc (b) Periphery
532. The sensory neurons of a vertebrate retina are (c) Macula lutea (d) Fovea centralis
(a) Rods and cones (b) Ganglion cells JIPMER-2005 / CMC Ludhiana-2007 /AIPMT-1993
(c) Amacrine cells (d) Bipolar cells Ans. (d) : : Retina is most senstive at fovea centralis
CG PMT-2010 because vision that is essential for reading, driving, and
Ans. (a) : The sensory neurons of a vertebrate retina are any activity where visual detail is of primary
rods and cones. Rods and cones are sensory neurons of the importance. The fovea centralis is located in the center
eye as they transmit information of other cells. Rods are of the macula lutea, a small, flat spot, located exactly in
the photoreceptor cells that contain rhodopsin pigment. the center of the posterior portion of the retina. Cone
Rods contain rhodopsin pigment and are associated with cell concentrated in the central region of retina known
the scotopic vision of the eye i.e, vision under low light. as the fovea centralis.
Cones contain iodopsin and some other pigments too. 538. Suspensory ligaments are found in
These cells are associated with daylight vision and color (a) Brain (b) Eye
vision of the eyes. Rods and cones are located outside of (c) Ear (d) Kidney
the central part of retina. Haryana PMT-2011
533. Resolving power of light microscope is Ans. (b) : Suspenosry ligaments of the eye also known
(a) 0.2 micrometer (µm) as the suspensory ligament of lens or the zonular fibers is
(b) 0.4 micrometer (µm) a structure that hold the lens of the eye in place. It connects
(c) 1 angstrom (Å) the ciliary body to the lens and is crucial for the process of
(d) 10 angstrom (Å) accommodation allowing the lens to change its shape to
CMC Vellore-2014 focus on objects at different distance.
Ans. (a) : The greatest resolving power in optical 539. Corpora quadrigemina is related with
microscopy is realized with near-ultraviolet light, the (a) Vision (b) Smell
shortest effective imaging wavelength. (c) Taste (d) Touch
The resolving power of light microscope is 0.25 µm or AMU-2002
0.002 mm. Ans. (a) : The corpora quadrigemina, also called
534. The ossicular chain formed by three tiny bones quadrigeminal bodies. They are divided into two pairs
malleus, incus and stapes is found in the superior colliculi (upper pair) and the inferior
(a) Eye (b) Ear colliculi (lower pair).
(c) Nose (d) Throat The superior colliculi are involved in visual processing,
Tripura JEE-2022 eye movement and orientation of head and eyes in
response to visual stimuli.
Ans. (b) : The ossicular chain formed by three tiny bones
malleus, incus and stapes is found in ear. The middle ear The inferior colliculi are responsible for processing
consists of the tympanic membrane and the bony ossicles auditory information.
called the malleus, incus and stapes. These three ossicles 540. Eyes are ....... in origin:
connects the tympanic membrane to the inner ear allowing (a) Ectoderm (b) Endoderm
for the transmission of sound waves. (c) Mesoderm (d) Both (a) and (c)
535. Organ of Corti helps in Manipal-2006
(a) Maintaining equilibrium (b) Hearing Ans. (d) : Specifically, the eye is derived from the
(c) Formation of wax (d) All of the above neuroepithelium, surface ectoderm and the extracellular
AFMC-2010 mesenchyma, which consists of both the neural crest
Ans. (b) : The primary function of the organ of Corti is and mesoderm. Certain eye parts develop from
transduction of auditory signals. Sound waves enter the ectoderm are cornea, lens and retina while rest of the
ear via the auditory canal and cause vibrations of the eye is formed from mesoderm.
tympanic membrane. Organ of Corti is the sensory part 541. Which one of the following parts of the eye is
of the cochlea in the inner ear, which responds to sound. affected in cataract?
It is located in the cochlea of the inner ear. (a) Cornea (b) Conjunctiva
536. The perception of sound in a mammal (c) Retina (d) Lens
stimulation of mechanoreceptors located in KVPY SA-2019
(a) Reissners membrane (b) Sacculus Ans. (d) : If a person is suffering from a cataract their
(c) Semicircular canal (d) Organ of Corti eye lens will be cloudy. Cataract can be treated by
CMC Ludhiana-2007 replacing opaque lenses with artificial lens. Cataract
affect the lens in eye. It occurs due to the clouding of 546. Which one of the following is the correct
lens and prevent light and images from reaching to difference between Rod cells and Cone cells of
retina. Cataract makes a person vision blurry and lens our retina?
colourful. Rod cells Cone cells
It is an age -related disease which is characterized by (a) Overall Vision in Colour vision
the decrease of lens clarity caused by lens protein function poor light and detailed
degradation. vision in
542. Which part of the brain receives impulses from bright light
eyes and muscles of head? (b) Distribution More Evenly
(a) Superior colliculi (b) Inferior colliculi concent- distributed all
(c) Pineal Body (d) All of them rated in over retinea
GUJCET-2018 centre of
Ans. (a): Superior colliculi is the part of brain which retina
receives impulses from eyes and muscles of head. The (c) Visual acuity High Low
superior and inferior colliculi, located on the roof of the (d) Visual lodopsin Rhodopsin
midbrain, are grouped together as the 'corpora pigment
quadrigemina'. The superior colliculus is the visual contained
reflex centre that allows eye movement, gaze shift, and AIPMT-2008
reactive reflexes like turning the head. The superior Ans. (a)
colliculus receives input from the retina and the visual
cortex and participates in a variety of visual reflexes,
particularly the tracking of objects in the visual field.
543. Which part is not included in Cochlear duct?
(a) Macula of Utricle
(b) Reissner’s membrane
(c) Scala media
(d) Tectorial membrane
GUJCET-2015
Ans. (a) : The macula of the utricle is a specialized
sensory structure located within the inner ear. It is part Difference between Rod and Cone cells -
of the vestibular system, which is responsible for • The rods contains a photosenstive pigment called
detecting changes in head position and movement. The the rhodopsin (Visual purple). Rhodopsin is
macula of the utricle function is sensing longitudinal composed of opsin and retinal. The total number
acceleration and maintain balance and spatial of rod in the human retina has been estimated at 110
orientation. - 125 million
544. Schneiderian and tympanic membranes • The opsin is a protein and is called scotopsin in
respectively belongs to rhodopsin. The rods mainly enable the animal to see
(a) Ear and nose (b) Ear and eye in the darkness, therefore, rods are present in large
(c) Ear and ear (d) Nose and ear number in nocturnal animal. It have clear vision in
JIPMER-2016 poor light.
Ans. (d) : Schneiderian membrane/epithelium belongs • The protein in cone pigment is called Photopsin,
to nasal cavity (Nose) that cover the inner part of the photopsin is also known as iodopsis which is different
maxillary sinus cavity. Tympanic membrane receives from scotopsin of rhodopsin. The total number. of
sound waves from the outer air and converted them to cones in the human retina has been estimated at
the auditory impulse by middle ear. 6.3 - 6.8 million.
545. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never 547. Given below is a diagrammatic cross section of
rejected. This is because: a single loop of human cochlea:
(a) It is composed of enucleated cells
(b) It is a non-living layer
(c) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
(d) It has no blood supply
AIPMT-2008
Ans. (d) : Cornea transplant in humans is almost never Which one of the following options correctly
rejected because it has no blood supply. It is one of the represents the names of three different parts?
first organs to be successfully transplanted because it (a) D:Sensory hair cells, A:Endolymph,
lacks blood vessel. Cornea is a thin transparent outer B:Tectorial membrane
layer of the eye that lacks blood vessels but is rich in (b) A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane, C:
nerve endings. Endolymph
(c) B:Tectorial membrane, C:Perilymph, 551. If the threshold for hearing increasing 1000
D:Secretory cells times, the hearing loss is:
(d) C:Endolymph, D:Sensory hair cells, A:Serum (a) 40 decibels (b) 50 decibels
AIPMT-2008 (c) 60 decibels (d) None of these
Ans. (b) : A-perilymph B- Tectorial membrane, C- JIPMER-2015
Endolymph
Ans. (d) : Sound is a vibration that propagates as an
Cochlea is the main hearing organ, where sound waves
are transformed into electrical impulses which are sent acoustic waves, through a transmission medium such as
in to the brain. a gas, liquid or solid. A decibel is a measure of the ratio
It consists of their fluid –filled chambers or canals the between two sound stimuli. The decibel level of sound
upper scala vestibuli, lower scala tympani and middle that a normal human can hear is calculated by the
scala media. formula. Intensity (in decibels) = 10 × 10g
(sound/threshold). In the given condition, sound
intensity is 1000 times the threshold, then the ratio of
the intensity to the threshold density is 103.The power
of ten is 3. Hence, the intensity will be 30 decibles.
Therefore, the intensity of sound which is 1000 times
the threshold hold is 30 decibels.
552. Meniere's disease is associated with
(a) Ear (b) Eye
Perilymph is an extracellular fluid located within the
inner ear. It is found within the scala tympani and scala (c) Nose (d) Throat
vestibuli of the cochlea while scala media is filled with JIPMER-2015
endolymph. Tectorial membrane is present in the Ans. (a) : Meniere's disease is inner ear disorder
middle chamber of membranous labyrinth. characterized by tinnitus vertigo and hearing loss other
548. Photosensitive compound in human eye is name of menier's disease is idiopathic endolymphatic
made up of hydrops. Meniere's disease can occur at any age, but it
(a) Transducin and Retinene usually begins between young and middle aged to
(b) Guanosine and Retinol adulthood.
(c) Opsin and Retinal 553. Which food should be eaten in deficiency of
(d) Opsin and Retinol Rhodopsin in eyes:
NEET-2016 Phase-I (a) Carrot and ripe papaya
Ans. (c) : Photosensitivity in human eye is primarily a (b) Guava, banana
function of specialized cell called photoreceptor. These (c) Mango and Potato
photoreceptor are made up of retinal and opsin protein
and photopigments. Retinal is a molecule found within (d) None of these
photopigment. It changes its conformation when AIPMT-2000
exposed to light and generation of electrical signal in Ans. (a) During deficiency of rhodopsin in eyes carrot
photoreceptor cell. Opsin proteins are associated with and ripe papayas should be eaten. Deficiency of
cone allowing to perceive different colour of light (red, rhodopsin in eyes occurs due to the deficiency of
green, and blue). vitamin A. Carrot and ripe papayas are very rich sources
549. In blind spot of the human eye of vitamin A. Rhodopsin cannot be made inside the our
(a) Only cones are absent body. It must be found in food which contain the beta
(b) Only rods are absent carotene just like carrots, spinach, and papaya. These
(c) Both cones and rods are absent are the best sources of beta carotene.
(d) Both cones and rode are present 554. Which part of the human ear plays no role in
HP CET-2018 / Karnataka CET-2019 hearing as such but is otherwise very much
Ans. (c) : In the region where photoreceptors cell (rods required?
and cones) are not present it is called the blind spot. (a) Vestibular apparatus (b) Ear ossicles
Due to the lacks of photoreceptor cells (rods and cones) (c) Eustachian tube (d) Organ of corti
in the retina so that the light falling at this spot does not AIPMT (Screening)-2012
form any image.It is the point where the optic nerve and
the blood vessels leave the eyeball. Ans. (a) : Vestibular apparatus is a part of inner ear
which is located above the cochlea. It consists of three
550. Organ of Corti is found in semicircular canals, which detect movements of the
(a) Heart (b) Kidneys head and the utriculus and sacculus which detect the
(c) Inner ear (d) Nasal chamber position of head
JIPMER-2004
• It does not play any role in hearing but is responsible
Ans. (c) : The organ of Corti is an organ of the inner ear for maintaining the balance of the body and posture.
located within the cochlea that contributes to audition.
The organ of Corti includes three rows of outer hair 555. Suspensory ligaments are found in
cells and one row of inner hair cells. The vibrations (a) Brain (b) Eyes
caused by the sound waves bend the stereocilia on these (c) Liver (d) Pancreas
hair cells through an electromechanical force. AIPMT-1999
Ans. (b) Suspensory ligaments of the eye also known rotunda (Round window) is another membrane covered
as the suspensory ligament of lens or the zonular fibers opening in the middle ear, located just below the
is a structure that hold the lens of the eye in place. It Fensetra ovalis. It help in relief valve, allowing for the
connects the ciliary body to the lens and is crucial for displacement of fluid in the cochlea when sound
the process of accommodation allowing the lens to vibration are transmitted through the oval window.
change its shape to focus on objects at different 559. Which types of images are produced by X-
distance. rays?
(a) 3D image (b) 2D image
(c) 4D image (d) 5D image
Ans. (b) : X-ray produced 2-D images, X-rays are a
type of radiation called electromagnetic waves. X-ray
imaging creates pictures of the inside of our body. X -
ray images are in 2D, while CT scan images are 3D.
560. Scientists pin pointed the location of colour
processing centers in human visual cortex by
means of
556. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained (a) PET scanning (b) NMR scanning
in the rods type of photo receptor cells of the (c) CT scanning (d) Ultra sound imaging
human eye, is a derivative of : VMMC-2008
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B1
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D Ans. (a) : Scientists pin pointed the location of colour
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 processing centers human visual cortex by mean of PET
scanning. In PET (Positron emission tomography) scan,
Ans. (a) : The purplish red pigment rhodopsin
radioactive tracer is used which allows radiologist to see
contained in the rods type of photo receptor cells of the
human eye, is a derivative of Vitamin A because areas of brain clearly.
rhodopsin is light sensitive protein found in the retina of NMR (Nuclear magnetic resonance)Scanning – A
the eye. Particularly in rod cells the two main procedure that uses radio waves, a powerful magnet,
components of rhodopsin, opsin and retinal. and a computer to make a series of detailed pictures of
Retinal (II cis-retinal) is light sensitive molecule that is areas inside the body.
derived from vitamin A CT scanning – CT scans can be used to identity disease
557. Characteristics character of human cornea or injury within various region of the body. CT scans
(a) Secreted by conjuctiva and glandular uses X-rays to take image.
(b) It has lacrimal gland which secrete tears • Sonography, also known as utrasonography or
(c) Blood circulation is absent in cornea ultrasound imaging, is a medical imaging technique that
(d) In old age it become harden and white layer use high frequency sound waves create real time images
deposite on it which causes the cataract of the inside of the body.’ The principle of sonography
AIPMT-2001 is sound wave refraction. Which high frequency sound
Ans. (c) : The cornea is the transparent, dome shaped waves into the body, and make image of tissues or
front surface of the eye that cover the iris, pupil and structures in the body.
anterior chamber. 561. In which direction cristae of rabbit ear helps in
• The front of eye is transparent thus allows the light to maintaining balance?
enter the eye. This portion of the eye’s outer layer is (a) Circular position of longitudinal axis of
called cornea. It lacks of blood supply. It derive semicircular canals
nutrients by aqueous humor from cell body. (b) Transverse position of longitudinal axis of
• Transparency avascularity the presence of immature semicircular canals
resident immune cells and immunologic privilege (c) Parallel to longitudinal axis of semicircular
makes the cornea a very special tissue. canals
558. Identify the two small apertures present in the (d) All of the above
auditory capsule of rabbit Rajasthan PMT-2006
(a) foramen magnum and foramen ovate Ans. (b) : The cristae, specifically the cristae ampullaris
(b) foramen ovale and fossa ovalis are specialized structure located within the semicircular
(c) fenestra ovalis and obturator foramen canals of the inner ear in rabbits and other vertebrates. It
(d) fenestra ovalis and Fenestra rotunda help in movement and maintain balance. It’s information
AP EAMCET-2013 essential for motor control and the coordination of
Ans. (d) : Fenestra ovalis and fenestra rotunda are two movement, allowing the rabbit to navigation.
important anatomical structures within the rabbit ear, Semicircular canals– The semicircular canal or
specifically in the middle ear. semicircular ducts are three semicircular inter connected
Fenestra ovalis (oval window) is membrane covered tubes located in the innermost part of each ear, the inner
opening located in the lateral wall of the middle ear. It ear. The three canals are the horizontal, superior and
help in transmission of sound vibration. Fenestra posterior semicircular canals.
562. A micro–organism, when viewed under a 566. Cornea transplantation is done on large scale
compound microscope with an objective lens of now-a-days because:
40 X and an eye piece of 10 X magnification (a) it can be easily available
measured 4000 µm in length. The same micro- (b) it can be easily transplanted
organism when observed under a dissection (c) it does not link up with blood vessels
microscope with a lens of 10 X magnification, (d) none of the above
would measure……..
AFMC-2001
(a) 100 µ (b) 40 µ
(c) 400 µ (d) 10 µ Ans. (c) : Cornea transplantation is done on large scale
now-a-days because it does not link up with blood
Karnataka CET-2005
vessels. Corneal blindness is one of the major causes of
Ans. (a) : Given, reversible blindness, which can be managed with
The eye piece magnification is 10X and the objective transplantation of a healthy donor cornea. It is the most
magnification is 40X, total magnification will be 400X. successful organ transplantation in the human body as
sizeof image cornea is devoid of vasculature, minimizing the risk of
⇒ Magnification = graft rejection.
sizeof specimen
4000 µm 567. Which of the following is known as cochlear
⇒ 400 X = duct?
sizeof specimen (a) Scala media (b) Scala vestibuli
4000 µm (c) Scala tympani (d) None of these
⇒ size of specimen = = µm Uttarakhand PMT-2011
400 X
We have the size of the specimen that is 10 µm Ans. (a) : Scala media is a triangular cavity of cochlear
Here, 10X is the total magnification of the dissecting duct that is situated between scala vestibuli and scala
microscope. tympani. It is filled with endolymph (lower chamber).
The scala media contain the organ of Corti, a
sizeof image specialized structure that houses hair cells. Hair cells
⇒10X =
10 µm are essential for the transduction of sound vibration into
⇒ size of image = (10X) × (10 µm) electrical signals that the brain can interpret as sound.
⇒ size of image = 100 µm 568. Which one of the following is not present on
Hence, the size of the image in the dissection temporal lobe?
microscope is 100 µm (a) Auditory area (b) Olfactory area
563. The forward stereoscopic visual field will be (c) Broca's area (d) Wernike's area
the greatest in UP CPMT-2013
(a) Cat (b) Deer Ans. (c) : Broca's area is not present on temporal lobe.
(c) Rabbit (d) Horse Broca's area is a region in the frontal lobe of the left
AMU-2010 hemisphere in the cerebral cortex with functions linked
Ans. (a) : Cat have a greater stereoscopic visual field to speech production.
because their eyes are positioned on the front of their Broca’s areas is also called motor speech area. Each
head, providing a wide overlap allows them to perceive cerebral hemisphere is divided into lobes. The main
depth and distance more accurately, which is crucial for lobes are frontal, perietal, temporal, occipital and insula
hunting and stalking prey. Hence, the forward lobes. These lobes are separated from each other by
stereoscopic visual field will be the greatest in cats. deep fissures (sulci).
564. Decline in hearing power begins in man after Auditory, olfactory and Wernike's area is present on
(a) 2 years (b) 10 years temporal lobe of the brain.
(c) 60 years (d) 80 years 569. Fovea in the eye is a central pit in the yellowish
Uttarakhand PMT-2011 pigmented spot called
Ans. (c) : The age-related hearing loss is known as (a) Blind spot (b) Retina
presbycusis and typically start around the age of 60. (c) Cornea (d) Macula lutea
There are many factor involve in presbycusis such as (e) Choroid
changing in the inner ear’s structure and function,
exposure to loud noises over lifetime, health condition, Kerala PMT-2008
life style factor etc. Ans. (d) : Fovea in the eye is a central pit in the
565. Aqueous and vitreous humour are divided by yellowish pigmented spot called macula lutea.
(a) Lens (b) Iris The thin retina of the yellow dot is called the macula lutea.
(c) Retina (d) Optic nerve The yellow dot or yellow spot are present above the
JIPMER-2008 blind spot there is a special sensory spot on the axis of
Ans. (a) : Aqueous and vitreous humour are divided by the eye where the image of the object is must clearly
lens. The lens of the eye acts as a boundary between formed.
these two ocular fluids, with the aqueous humor in front 570. Ora serrata is
of it and the vitreous humor behind it. Together these (a) gland present in oral cavity of frog
fluids and structures play essential role in maintaining (b) a serrated junction between the retina and
the eyes structure and facilitating vision. ciliary body.
(c) present in utriculus of ear Rhizobium in their root nodules. Rhizobium helps in
(d) oral cavity of protochordates converting atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia that can
AIIMS-1997 be utilized by the pea plant for its nutrition.
Ans. (b) The junction between the retina and the ciliary Leguminous plants have a symbiotic relationship with
body in the human eye is known as the “ora serrata” it nitrogen-fixing bacteria, that fix atmospheric nitrogen
marks the boundary between the sensory retina which and convert into nitrates and nitrites.
contain the photoreceptor cell responsible for vision but 574. Which of the following is correct for lens
ciliary body which play a role in the production of focussing, while seeing distant object?
aqueous humor and the adjustment of the shape of the (a) Taut suspensory ligament and rounded lens.
lens to focus on objects. (b) Contracted ciliary muscles and rounded lens.
(c) Relaxed ciliary muscles and taut suspensory
ligament.
(d) Contracted ciliary muscles and relaxed
suspensory ligaments.
GUJCET-2008
Ans. (c): Relaxed ciliary muscles and taut suspensory
ligament are responsible for lens focussing.
Due to action of the muscles of ciliary body and
suspensory ligament the focal length of the lens can be
571. Otorinolaryngology is the study of : changed. Then the objects can be focused in different
(a) Brain cells (b) Bird anatomy intensity of light from varying distances. For
(c) Locomotary organs (d) ENT (Ear, nose and accommodation of distant objects, ciliary muscles
relaxed and suspensosry ligaments tighty stretched.
throat)
AIIMS-1999 575. Aqueous chamber (1) space between the lens
and the retina (2) space between cornea and the
Ans. (d) : Otorhinolaryngology, often abbreviated as lens (3) contains a thin watery fluid (4) contain
ENT (ear, nose, and throat) in medical practice, is a a transparent gel
branch of medicine that deals with the diagnosis and (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
treatment of the disorders related to the ear, nose, throat
at structures of the head and neck. (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
A doctor who studies or treats diseases of the ear, nose
and throat is called the otorhiolaryngologist. Ans. (c) : Aqueous chamber – (space between cornea
and lens).
572. The organ of Corti is a structure present in
• The part of eye ball which lies between cornea and
(a) External ear (b) Middle ear lens is filled with an alkaline liquid, it is called aqueous
(c) Nasal cavity (d) Cochlea humor, it is a type of transparent tissue fluid.
Assam CEE-2014 Aqueous humor is a fluid or transparent window that
Ans. (d) : The organ of Corti is present on the sensory keeps constant pressure within the eye and further
ridges of basilar membrane of cochlea. It bears the most nourishes the cornea and lens.
important canal called scala media, which has an upper 576. Salivation in man is under the control of:
membrane, the Reissner's membrane and a lower
(a) Medulla oblongata (b) Mesencephalon
membrane basilar membrane.
(c) Hypothalamus (d) Cerebellum
BVP-2003
Ans. (a) : The medulla oblongata is the lowermost part
of the brain. Lower end of medulla oblongata joins the
spinal cord. It controls involuntary activities such as
heartbeat, salivation, respiration, swallowing, coughing
sneezing, urinating, vomiting etc.
577. Part of ear where sound is transduced is:
(a) Typanic membrane
(b) Malleus, incus and stapes
(c) Semicircular canal
(d) Cochlea
Figure: - (Organ of Corti) BVP-2003
573. Nodules with nitrogen fixing bacteria are Ans. (d) : The cochlea is a hollow, spinal shaped bone
present in found in the inner ear that plays a key role in the sense
(a) Wheat (b) Cotton of hearing and participates in the process of auditory
(c) Mustard (d) Gram. transduction. Sound waves are transduced into the
AIIMS-1994 electrical impulses that the brain can interpret as
Ans. (d) : Nodules with nitrogen-fixing bacteria are individual frequencies of sound. Cochlea is a main
present in leguminous plants such as gram. Leguminous hearing organ . It is a region where transduction of
plants like pea have nitrogen fixing bacteria called- sound takes place.
578. If an organism has more rods it will: 582. Ishihara chart is used to detect
(a) active during day (a) Eye sight (b) Colour blindness
(b) possess colour vision (c) Diabetes (d) Tuberculosis
(c) active during night CMC Vellore-2013
(d) both a and c are possible Ans. (b) : Opthalmologists use Ishihara charts for
BVP-2004 detecting color blindness.
Ans. (c) : An animal with more rods will be active Dr. Shinobu Ishihara introduced in 1917 almost 100
during night but will not have proper color years ago the most well known colour blindness test.
discrimination. The rod contains a visual pigment It was named after its designer Shinobu Ishihara a
rhodopsin and are adapted for vision in dim light. professor at the university of Tokyo, who first published
579. Colour blindness results from : his tests in 1917.
(a) Absence of rods (b) Absence of cones 583. Scala tympani of membranous labyrinth ends
(c) Absence of eyelids (d) Inverted retina at a which opens into B. Identity A and B select
BVP-2002 correct option.
(a) A-oval window, B - pharynx
Ans. (b) : Color blindness is also known as color vision.
(b) A-round window, B - middle ear
Abnormalities in the cones. Color blindness is typically
a genetic condition and it’s more common in men than (c) A-round window, B - external auditory
women because X-chromosome linkage. There are meatus
different type of colour blindness such as Red-Green (d) A-oval window, B - middle ear
color blindness, blue-yellow color blindness, total color MHT CET-01.10.2020 Shift-I
blindness (achromatopsid). If you have colorblindness Ans. (b) : Internal ear is a complex structure made up of
some of your cones are missing or don’t work properly semi transparent membrane. It is called membranous
580. Match the following labyrinth.
i. Fovea A. Provides opening for entry Bony labyrinth and membranous labyrinth are
of light connected by a cavity called- perilymph cavity.
ii. Iris B. transduces RGB light Perilymph liquid is filled in it. Tympanic cavity is
connected by internal ear cavity by two appertures.
iii. Pupil C. Transmtis information to
(i) Oval apertures (fenestra ovalis)
CNS
(ii) Fenestra rotundus (round window)
iv. Lens D. controls amount of light
entering 584. Sea gulls excrete excess of NaCl from
v. Optic nerve E. Focuses light on the retina (a) Liver (b) Lungs
(a) i - B ii - A iii - E iv - B v - C (c) Nasal cavity (d) Kidney
JIPMER-2010
(b) i - E ii - A iii - D iv - C v - B
(c) i - C ii - A iii - D iv - E v - B Ans. (c) : Sea gulls also spelled as seagulls are type of
(d) i - A ii - B iii - C iv - D v - E marine birds belonging to the family-laridae. They drink
salt water as a result to maintain their osmotic balance.
(e) i - B ii - D iii - A iv - E v - C They excrete salts through nasal gland or salt gland
Kerala PMT-2009 present in the nostrils.
Ans. (e) : Fovea → Transduces RGB light Salt glands are found on the beak of marine birds and
Iris → Controls amount of light entering are responsible for removing the excess sodium
Pupil → Provides opening for entry of light chloride.
Lens → Focuses light on the retina 585. 'Adaptation' of eyes in dark is due to
Optic nerve → Transmits information to central (a) depletion of vision pigment in rods
nervous system (CNS) (b) depletion of vision pigment in cones
581. The muscles of human eye receive impulses by (c) repletion of vision pigment in rods
the innervations of these cranial nerves (d) repletion of vision pigment in cones
(a) IX, X, IV (b) VI, III, X JIPMER-2010
(c) III, IV, X (d) III, IV, VI Ans. (c) : Adaptation of eyes in dark is due to repletion
AP EAMCET-2014 of vision pigment in-rhodopsin at rods cells.
Ans. (d) : The muscles of human eye receive impulses Dark adaptation in human eye involves a conversion of
by the innervations of three cranial nerves. The three trans-retinene into II cis-retinene The process of dark
cranial nerves involved are– adaptation involves phototransduction taking place
mainly between the photoreceptor outer segments and
Distribution Function the retina pigment epithelial layer.
IIIrd – oculomotor → Muscles of Movement 586. Human ear ossicles are
eyes of eye ball
(a) Incus and stapes
IVth – Trochlear → Eye muscle Movement (b) Stapes
of eye ball
(c) Incus, malleus and stapes
VI – Abducens → Eye muscle Movement (d) Incus and malleus
of eyeball. JIPMER-2010
Ans. (c) : Ear Ossicles:– (C) Eustachian tube → connects middle ear and
These are responsible for transmitting sound waves pharynx
from the eardrum to the middle ear. There are three ear (D) Stapes → attached to the oval
ossicles in the human ear. window
Malleus – A hammer-shaped part that is attached to the
tympanic membrane throught the handle and incus
through the head. It is the largest ear ossicle.
Incus– An anvil-shaped ear ossicle connected with the
stapes.
Stapes– It is the smallest ossicle and also the smallest
bone in the human body.
589. Match thefollowing columns and select the

correct option :
Column – I Column – II
A. Rods and i Absence of
Cones photoreceptor cells
B. Blind Spot ii Cones are densely

Packed
587. Short sightedness in humans can be corrected C. Fovea iii Photoreceptor
by using Cells
(a) Concave lens (b) Convex lens D. Iris iv Visible coloured
(c) Cylindrical lens (d) Plain glass portion of the eye
KVPY (SA)-2013
Ans. (a) : Short-sightedness is commonly known as (a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
myopia. In myopia a person can seen near by objects (b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
clearly but has difficulty seeing distant objects clearly. (c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
It is typically occurs when the eye ball is too long or the (d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
corned is two curved, causing light of focus in front of NEET-2020 Phase-II
the retina and can be corrected by using concave lens.
Ans. (b) :
(A) Rods and Cones They are photoreceptor
correct option. cells
Column-I Column-II (B) Blind spot Absence of photoreceptor
(A) Organ of (i) Connects cells(No rods or cone
Corti middle ear cells).
and pharynx (C) Fovea Cones are densely packed
(B) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of (D) Iris It is visible coloured
labyrinth portion of the eye.
(C) Eustachian (iii) Attached to 590. Choose the correct statement
tube the oval
window (a) Nociceptors responds to changes in pressure
(b) Meissner's corpuscles are thermoreceptors
(D) Stapes (iv) Located on
(c) Photoreceptors in the human eye are
the basilar
depolarised during darkness and become
membrane hyperpolarised in response to the light
(A) (B) (C) (D) stimulus
(a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (d) Receptors do not produce graded potentials
(b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) NEET-2016 Phase-II
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) Ans. (c) : When the light hits either a rod cell or a cone
(d) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) cell, it leads to change in retinal conformation. This change
NEET-2020 Phase-I in structure receptor rodopsin 11- cis form change into all
Ans. (b) : transform, results in activation of cGMP phosphodiesterase,
(A) Organ of Corti → Located on the basilar closes the Na+ channel, preventing influx of positive ions;
membrane. thus leading to membrane hyperpolarization.
(B) Cochlea → coiled part of the In the dark, positive ions enter the photoreceptor and
labyrinth. depolarize it.
591. Which of the following statements is correct? Fovea is responsible for high activity vision. It is
(a) Cornea consists of dense connective tissue of densely saturated with cone photoreceptors.
elastin and can repair itself. To form high resolution images, the light must fall on
(b) Cornea is convex, transparent layer which is the fovea and that limits the acute vision angle to about
highly vascularised. 15 degree.
(c) Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen In low light, this fovea constitutes a second blind spot
and is the most sensitive portion of the eye. since it's cones do not function in low/dim light.
(d) Cornea is an external, transparent and protective
proteinacious covering of the eye-ball.
NEET-2019
Ans. (c) : Cornea is most sensitive portion of the eye
consist of dense matrix of collagen.
• It is convex, non-visual layer.
• It act as a protective covering of eye
• It can recover from minor injuries on its own
• Sclera the outer covering of eyeball consist of dense
594. Which of the following receptors are
connective tissue.
specifically responsible for maintenance of
• It contain some elastic and collagen as well. balance of body and posture?
(a) Crista ampullaris and macula
(b) Basilar membrane and otoliths
(c) Hair cells and organ of Corti
(d) Tectorial membrane and macula
NEET (Odisha)-2019
Ans. (a) : The crista ampullaris and macula both present
inner ear’s vestibular system that play distinct roles in
maintaining the body’s balance both allowing
individuals to perceive and adopt to various movements
592. A gymnast is able to balance his body upside and position, ultimately contributing to the sense of
down even in the total darkness because of:- balance and spatial orientation these are work concert
(a) Vestibular apparatus with other sensory inputs like vision and to help us
(b) Tectorial membrane navigate our environment safety.
(c) Organ of Corti • Crista is a projecting ridge of ampulla which is the
(d) Cochlea swollen base of bony canal in inner ear. Macula is a
AIPMT-2015 projecting ridge of saccule and utricle which are otolith
Ans. (a) : The vestibular apparatus helping gymnasts- organs in vestibular apparatus of inner ear. Crista and
maintain balance, especially when performing upside macula are specific receptors of vestibular apparatus
down or complex maneuvers. that are responsible for maintaining balance of body and
The vestibular apparatus present inner ear and consist of posture.
semicircular canals and otolith organs. 595. Which of the following statements is not
The semicircular canals are responsible for detecting correct ?
rotation all movement of the head. When a gymnast is (a) In the knee-jerk reflex, stimulus is the
upside down or performing spins and flips. These canal stretching of muscle and response is its
provide feedback of the brain about the head is contraction
orientation and speed of movements. (b) An action potential in an axon does not move
The vestibular aperture provides essential sensory backward because the segment behind is in a
information to the brain, helping gymnasts, maintain refractory phase
balance, control and spatial, awareness, even when (c) Depolarisation of hair cells of cochlea results
performing acrobatic feats in total darkness or in the opening of the mechanically gated
challenging position. potassium-ion channels
593. In mammalian eye, the 'fovea' is the center of (d) Rods are very sensitive and contribute to
the visual field, where daylight vision
(a) More rods than cones are found NEET (Odisha)-2019
(b) High density of cones occur, but has no rods
Ans. (d) : The retina contains two types of sensory
(c) The optic nerve leaves the eye cells: rods and cones. The rod cells are sensitive to low
(d) Only rods are present light but do not respond to colour. They contain the
AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015 pigment rhodopsin and are distributed throughout the
Ans. (b) : The fovea centralis is located in the center of retina.
the macula lutea, a small, that spot located exactly in the Rod cells are photoreceptor cell that are highly sensitive
center of posterior portion of the retina. to low levels of light, making them essential for night
Fovea has highest visual activity which has only cone vision. Rod cells contain a pigment called rhodopsin
cells and no rod cell. which is responsible for their sensitivity to dim light
and cone cell are photoreceptor cells that are (2) The photopigments are embedded in the
responsible for color vision and high visual acuity and membrane discs of the inner segment
have three type wavelength range for visible such as (3) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A
short wavelength cones (blue), medium wavelength (4) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the
cones (green) and long-wavelength cones (red) visual photopigments
596. The transparent lens in the human eye is held (a) (1) & (2) (b) (1), (3) & (4)
in its place by (c) (1) & (3) (d) (2), (3) & (d)
(a) Ligaments attached to the ciliary body NEET-2017
(b) Ligaments attached to the iris Ans. (b) : Vitamin-A is a group of unsaturated
(c) Smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body nutritional organic compounds that includes retinal,
(d) Smooth muscles attached to the iris retinoic acid. Vitamin- A needed by the retina of eye to
NEET-2018 form retinal, which further combines with the opsin
Ans. (a) : Lens in the human eye is held in its place by protein to form light absorbing molecule rhodopsin. The
ligaments attached to the ciliary body. The lens is photo pigments are embedded in discs of the cone or
located below the eye pupil. The lens is a transparent, rod consist of two called Opsin and a Chromophore
based on retinal.
biconvex structure located behind the iris (the colored
part of the eye) and the pupil the lens responsible for
focusing image of object on retina.
The lens is transparent, allowing light to pass-through it
without scattering. Lens have ability to change shape a
process called accommodation and composed of a
special type of protein called crystalline arranged in a
precise pattern that maintains its transparency and
shape.. 599. The auditory ossicle that is attached to the
597. Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are tympanic membrane of external ear is
shown in the diagram. Select the option which (a) Auditory meatus (b) Malleus
gives correct identification along with its (c) Incus (d) Stapes
functions/characteristics:- SRM JEEE -2017
Ans. (b) : The auditory ossicles that is attached to the
tympanic membrane of external ear is 'malleus'. The
malleus connects to the tympanic membrane
transferring auditory oscillation to the incus and then
the stapes.
600. The supportive skeletal structures in the
human external ears and in the nose tip are
examples of
(a) D- Choroid - its anterior part forms ciliary (a) Bone (b) Cartilage
body (c) Ligament (d) Areolar tissue
(b) A - Retina - contains photo receptors–rods AIPMT (Mains)-2012
and cones Ans. (b) : The supportive skeletal structures in the
(c) B - Blind spot - has only a few rods and cones human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of
(d) C - Aqueous chamber-reflects the light which cartilage.
does not pass through the lens Yellow elastic cartilage is found in external ear or
NEET-2013 pinna, external auditory canal, Eustachian tube, tip of
nose, epiglottis etc. It is a type of cartilage that
Ans. (b) : In the given diagram, A is retina. Retina is provides both strength and elasticity to certain part of
innermost layer of eye. It contain three layers of neural the body.
cell from inside to outside-ganglion cell, biopolar cell
and photoreceptor cell. There are two type of photo 601. The black pigment in the eye which reduces the
receptor cell, namely, rods and cones. These cells internal reflection is located in
contain the light sensitive proteins called photopigment. (a) Retina (b) Iris
The rods contain a purplish-red protein called the (c) Cornea (d) Sclerotic
rhodopsin, which contain a derivative of vitamin A. The AIIMS-2007
daylight (Photopic) vision and colour vision are Ans. (a) : The black pigment in eye which reduce the
function of cones. internal reflection is located in retina. The Retina
598. Good vision depends on adequate intake of contains millions of light sensitive cells (rods and
carotene rich food cones) and other nerve cells that receives and organised
Select the best option from the following as-
statements • Visual information
(1) Vitamin-A derivatives are formed from • Light sensitive
carotene • Nervous layer
The external coat of the eyeball is known as sclerotic Ans. (b) : The sensory hairs project from the outer ends
but in front the sclerotic, there is a transparent of the hair cells into the scala media while from the
connective tissue called cornea. Iris is the pigmented inner end of the cells nerve fibres arise, which unite to
part present in front of choroid. form the cochlear nerve.
602. Which part of retina consists of only cones? • Cochlear nerve is responsible for transmitting auditor
(a) Fovea centralis (b) Optic nerve signal to the Cochlear nuclei from inner ear within the
(c) Blind spot (d) Chiasmata brain stem.
JIPMER-2005 606. Which of the following is true for the function
Ans. (a) : The fovea centralis is a part of eye which of labelled parts in the diagram below?
consists of only cones. The retina is the innermost,
light-senstive layer of tissue of the eye of most
vertebrates and some molluscs. The primary light-
sensing cells in the retina are the photoreceptor cells,
which are two types, rods and cones. Neural signals
from rods and cones undergo processing by other
neurons.
603. Examine the diagram of the two cell types A
and B given below and select the correct option (a) A- Blind spot - Image is formed here
(b) B- Fovea - No visual activity is present
(c) C- Cornea - helps to hold lens in place
(d) D- Iris - Visible coloured portion of eye
AIIMS-2013
Ans. (d) : Only (d) one is a correct answer. In the given
diagram (d) is a correctly labeled function here.
The iris is the colored part of the eye that surrounds the
pupil. It is a thin, circular structure with a central
opening (the pupil) that can change size according the
light brightness.
The color of a person’s iris varies and is determined by
the amount and type of pigments such as brown, blue,
(a) Cell A is the rod cell found evenly all over greens, or hazel.
retina • Fovea centralis: It is responsible for sharp central
(b) Cell A is the cone cell more concentrated in vision (also called foveal vision), which is necessary in
the fovea centralis humans for reading, driving and any activity where
(c) Cell B is concerned with colour vision in visual details is primary importance. Sharpest vision
bright light occurs here.
(d) Cell A is sensitive to low light intensities • Blind spot: No image is formed here because both rod
AIIMS-2006 and cone light receptor absent.
Ans. (b) : The fovea centralis is the central region of • Ciliary body: It helps to hold the lens in position.
retina in the human eye that contains high concentration
of cone cells.
Cone cell are photoreceptor cell responsible for colour
vision. The concentration of cone is higher in center
region in compared to the peripheral region, which
allows for vision in the central field of view.
604. Which maintains static equilibrium -
(a) Cerebrum (b) Utricle and Saccule
(c) Cerebellum (d) Semicircular canal 607.
Ans. (b) : Static equilibrium is maintained by sacculus
and utriculus.
The position of the head which permits the central
nervous system to maintain stability and posture when
the body and head are not moving. It is detected by
mechanoreceptors which are present in the vestibule of
the inner ear. Which of the following is correctly labeled?
605. Which of the following nerves arises from (a) A : Reissner's membrane
organ of Corti? (b) B : Scala vestibuli
(a) Olfactory nerve (b) Cochlear nerve (c) C : Basilar membrane
(c) Abducens nerve (d) None of these (d) D : Tectorial membrane
AIIMS-2009 AIIMS-2012
Ans. (d) : Only (d) one is correctly labeled here – It contains a protein part copsin and a derivative of
(a) Basilar membrane vitamin A (Retinal). It is present in the rod
(b) Scala media photoreceptor cells, which are responsible for night
vision .
(c) Reissner's membrane
(d) Tectorial membrane 611. The Piezo-electric effect is used in
(a) NMR (b) PET
(c) Sonography (d) All of these
AMU-2011
Ans. (c) : Diagnostic ultrasound, also called sonography
or diagnostic medical sonography. Is an imaging
method that uses sound waves to produce images of
structure with in our body. piezo-electric effect is used
for this procedure in which the piezo-electric
transducers convert electrical pulses to mechanical
vibrations and the mechanical vibrations back into
electrical energy.
612. NMR imaging technique is based on the
gyromagnetic property of
(a) electron (b) proton
(c) positron (d) neutron
CMC Ludhiana-2007
608. Function of iris is to Ans. (b) : NMR imaging technique uses a property of
proton, a procedure that uses radio waves, a powerful
(a) Move lens forward and backward
magnet and a computer to make a series of detailed
(b) Refract light rays picture of inside the body.
(c) Bring about movements of eye lids
613. Which of these is based on magnetic resonance?
(d) Alter the size of pupil (a) EEG (b) CT scanning
AIPMT-1993
(c) NMR scanning (d) PRT scanning
Ans. (d) : The iris have several function such as control BVP-2003
of pupils size. The main function of iris is to control the Ans. (c) : NMR is known as nuclear magnetic
size of the pupil by response to change in light livel. In resonance scanning is based on magnetic resonance.
bright conditions, the iris constricts the pupil to reduce
614. Read the statements and choose the correct
the amount of light. In low light condition the iris
option.
relaxes allowing the pupil to dilate and let in more light
(1) Neuroglial cells protect and support the
to improve vision. Aesthetic and identification-It is a
neurons
colour pattern of iris are unique to each individual.
(2) Cartilage has a hard and non pliable
609. Sensitive pigmented layer of eye is matrix rich in magnesium salts
(a) Cornea (b) Retina (3) Smooth muscles are striated
(c) Sclerotic (d) Iris (4) Chondrocytes are bone forming cells
AIPMT-1989 (5) Biceps are parallely bundled
Ans. (b) : The Retina is the light sensitive tissue at the (a) 2 and 5 alone are wrong
back of the eye. The Retina converts light into electrical (b) 2, 3 and 4 alone is wrong
impulses that are sent to the brain through the optic (c) 1, 3 and 5 alone are wrong
nerve. (d) 1 and 5 alone are wrong
610. In the chemistry of vision in mammals, the (e) 1 and 2 alone are wrong
photosensitive substance is called Kerala PMT-2013
(a) Rhodopsin (b) Melanin Ans. (b) : Cartilage – The perichon-drium is a dense
(c) Sclerotin (d) Retinol layer of fibrous connective tissue that covers the surface
AIPMT-1997 of most of the cartilage in the body.
Ans. (a) : In the chemistry of vision in mammals, the Smooth muscle – Smooth muscle consist of thick and
photosensitive substance is called, Rhodopsin. thin filament that are not arranged into sarcomere giving
Rhodospin is also known as visual purple, it is a light it a non-striated pattern.
sensitive receptor protein involved in visual Chondrocutes – Chondrocutes maintain the extra
phototransduction. It is a pigment present in the rod of cellular matrix and produce the cartilage matrix.
the retina and its light sensitive protein belongs GPCR Surrounded by collagenous fibers, chondrocutes release
family protein. substance to make cartilage strong yet flexible.
06. CHEMICAL COORDINATION
AND INTEGRATION
4. Progestasert is
A. Endocrine gland and Hormones (a) Copper releasing intra uterine device
1. Study the following and pick up the correct (b) Hormone releasing intra uterine device
combinations (c) Oral contraceptive pill
Hormone Gland Effect of (d) Contraceptive injection
Hyper/ TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-II
Hyposecretion Ans. (b) : Progestasert is a hormone-releasing
I. Vasopressin Pituitary Diabetes intrauterine device (IUD). It is a small, T-shaped device
gland insipidus that is inserted into the uterus. The device releases the
II. Calcitonin Parathyroid Cretinsim hormone progesterone, which thickness the mucus in
gland the cervix, making it difficult for sperm entering in the
uterus. It also thins the lining of the uterus, making it
III. Cortisol Adrenal Addison's less likely for an egg to implant.
gland discase
5. Which of these hormone play a major role in
IV. Insulin Pancreas Diabetes regulating circadian rhythms
insipidus
(a) Growth hormone (b) Epinephrine
(a) I, II (b) III, IV (c) Melatonin (d) Thyroxine
(c) I, III (d) II, IV TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
Ans. (c) : Melatonin is a hormone produced by the
Ans. (c) : • Vasopressin is produced by the pituitary pineal gland in the brain. It is released in response to
gland and helps to regulate water balance in the body. darkness and helps to regulate the sleep-wake cycle.
Hypersecretion of vasopressin can lead to water Melatonin levels peak at height and decline during the day.
intoxication, while hyposecretion can lead to diabetes
insipidus. 6. One of the following is not a second messenger
in hormone action
• Cortisol is produced by the adrenal gland and helps to
regulate the body's response to stress. Hypersecretion of (a) CAMP (b) Calcium
cortisol can lead to Cushing's syndrome while (c) IP3 (d) Sodium
hyposecretion can lead to Addison's disease. AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II
So the correct combination are I and III. Ans. (d) : Sodium is not a second messenger in
I. Vasopression (Pituitary gland) – Diabetes insipidis. hormone action. It is an ion that present in the
III. Cortisol (Adrenal gland) – Addison's disease. extracellular fluid and the cytoplasm of cells. It is
2. Thyroxine is involved in many cellular functions, but is not involved
in the signal transduction pathway that is triggered by
(a) Amine hormone (b) Peptide hormone
hormones.
(c) Protein hormone (d) Steroid hormone
• Cyclic AMP (CAMP), calcium and IP3 are all second
TS EAMCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II messengers in hormones action.
Ans. (a) : Amino hormones are hormones are derived They are molecules that are produced inside the cell in
from amino acids. They are small molecule that can response to binding of a hormone to a receptor on the
easily travel through the blood stream. Thyroxine is an cell surface.
amino hormones because it is made up of the amino
acid tyrosine bound to iodine. 7. Identify the correct match of the gland with its
respective hormone and its function
3. The secretion of these glands washes out the
acidic urinary residues that remain in urethra (a) Carpus Iuteum–Estrogen –Support
pregnancy.
(a) Prostate gland (b) Cowper's glands
(c) Bartholin glands (d) Skene glands (b) Thyroid–Thyroxin – Regulates blood calcium
levels.
(c) Anterior pituitary – Oxytocin – Contraction
Ans. (b) : The glands that wash out acidic urinary of uterus muscles during child birth.
residues in the urethra are Cowper's glands. They are (d) Posterior pituitary – Vasopressin – Stimulates
also known as bulbourethral glands. They are pair of reabsorption of water from Distal Convoluted
pea-sized glands located below the prostate gland in Tubule.
males. They secrete a clear, alkaline fluid that helps to
neutralize the acidic environment of the urethra and AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II
protect sperm from damage. This fluid is secrete during Ans. (d) : The posterior pituitary is a small gland at the
sexual arousal and helps to lubricate the penis and base of the brain. It stores and releases two hormones-
facilitate penetration. vasopressin and oxytocin. Vasopressin also known as
Chemical Coordination and Integration 258 YCT
antidiretic hormones (ADH), helps to regulate water 12. Hormones chemically are:
balance in the body. It does this by stimulating the (a) Proteins (b) Carbohydrates
reabsorption of water in the kidneys. (c) Fats (d) All of these
8. Temporary endocrine gland in the human body is JIPMER-1998
(a) Carpus cardiaum (b) Carpus luteum Ans. (d) : A hormone is a diverse group of bio-
(c) Carpus allatum (d) Pineal gland molecules produced by endocrine glands and they have
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I various roles in the bio-logical system.
Ans. (b) : The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine Hormones can be of many types based on their
gland that forms in the ovary ovulation. chemical nature-Steroid hormones-Derivative of
• The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine gland in cholesterol.
the female body that is formed from the ruptured Ex. – androgens. Proteins and peptide hormones – long
Grafian follicle after ovulation. It produces the chains of amino acids.
hormones progesterone and estrogen, which are Ex. Insulin, growth hormone. Amine hormones –
necessary for the maintenance of pregnancy. The corpus smaller molecules derived from amino acid tyrosine,
luteum degenerates if pregency does not occure. Ex. Thyroxine.
9. Steroid hormones are similar in structure to 13. Which of the following is the largest gland in
(a) Tryosine (b) Cholesterol an adult man?
(c) Coenzyme-A (d) Glycerol (a) Thymus (b) Liver
APEAPCET - 12.7.2022 Shift - I (c) Thyroid (d) Pancreas
BVP-2010
Rajasthan PMT - 2008 / CGPMT - 2008
AIIMS - 1994
UP CPMT-2012, 2008 / J&K CET - 2003
Ans. (b) : Steroids are produced by the gonads and part Karnataka CET - 2000
of the adrenal gland, steroid hormone synthesized from
cholesterol. Ans. (b) : The largest gland in an adults human is liver.
Therefore, steroid hormones are very much similar in Liver plays on important role in maintaining blood
structure to cholesterol. glucose level. It also regulate circulating blood lipids by
amount of very low density lipoproteins it secrete.
10. Hormones differ from enzymes in that they are
It performs many important functions such as
(a) Found only in animals
production and secretion of bile juices for
(b) Found only in plants decomposition of lipids and absorption of vitamins,
(c) Not used up at all in metabolism preparation of proteins for blood plasma that enables
(d) Used up in metabolism blood clotting and also detoxification.
BVP-2010 The liver also serves as an excretory organ for bile
Ans. (d) : The main differences between enzymes and pigments, cholesterol, and drugs. Finally, it performs
hormones is that enzymes act as a catalyst for a important endocrine functions.
reaction, which speed up the biochemical reaction. But 14. The term hormone was given by:
hormones act as intercellular messengers that trigger
various functions in the body. Hormones are used up (a) Starling for insulin (b) Starling for secretin
completely in the metabolism. (c) Byliss for insulin (d) Byliss for secretin
Hence, hormones differ from enzymes in the respect HP CET-2011 / VMMC - 2005
that they are used up in metabolism. AMU - 2004 /BVP - 2003
11. Which one of the following hormone is a Ans. (b) : Ernest Henry Starling was a physiologist. He
modified amino acid ? isolated a substance called secretin, which was released
(a) Epinephrine (b) Progesterone by the duodenum into blood and stimulates the secretion
(c) Prostaglandin (d) Estrogen of pancreatic juices into the intestine.
JCECE-2009 • Ernest Henry Starling coined the term 'hormone' for
Ans. (a) : Modified amino acid are derived from a substances like secretin.
single amino acid. Epinephrine and norepinephsine are Hormones regulate process such as –
catecholamine's both are modified amino acids derived • The breakdown of chemical substances in
from tyrosine. metabolism order we eat and drink.
• Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is secreted • Fluid balance and urine production
from adrenal medulla. • Sexual reproduction.
• Ovary produces two groups of steroid hormones 15. Who is known as father of Endocrinology?
called estrogen and progesterone. (a) RH Whittaker (b) Pasteur
Progestron supports pregnancy and also act on the (c) Einthoven (d) Thomas Addison
mammary glands and stimulates the formation of
alveoli and milk secretion. VMMC-2012 / UP CPMT-2008
Estrogen produce wide ranging actions such as Rajasthan PMT-2008 / CG PMT-2007, 2008
stimulation of growth and activates of female secondary Ans. (d) : Endocrinology is the study of hormones and
sex organs, development of growing ovarian follicles, endocrine glands e.g. pancrease, pituitary gland.
and mammary gland development etc. Thyroid gland , adrenal gland , pineal gland, ovary etc.
• Thomas Addison is known as the father of • Exocrine glands-The secretions of these glands is
endocrinology he was the first person who carried by the ducts to a particular organ, e.g.
discovered "Addison's disease" which is an endocrine Salivary glands, liver etc.
disorder. • The spleen does not have any endocrine function, and
• R.H. Whittaker first proposed the five kingdom does not secrete any hormones.
taxonomic classification (animals, plantae, fungi, 20. Chemically hormones are
protista and monera).
(a) Biogenic amines only
• William Einthoven was the first to discover electro- (b) Proteins, steroids and biogenic amines
cardiogram.
(c) Proteins only
• Louis Pasteur is the father of bacteriology/
(d) Steroids only
microbiology.
CG PMT-2006
16. Endocrine glands produce or action of
endocrine gland is mediated through Ans. (b) : Chemically hormones are proteins, steroids
(a) Hormones (b) Enzymes and biogenic amines. Chemically, hormones may be
classified as Steroid hormone, protein & peptide
(c) Minerals (d) Vitamins hormones and amine hormone. All hormones are not
CG PMT-2007 protein hormones. Protein hormones are composed of
Ans. (a) : Hormones are produced by the endocrine protein molecules. Insulin, glucagon, and pituitary
glands and released into the bloodstream to be hormones are peptide hormones.
transported to target organ and tissues throughout the 21. Which of the following hormones does not
body. Endocrine gland lack ducts and hence called contain a polypeptide?
ductless glands.
(a) Prostaglandin (b) Oxytocin
• The scientific definition of hormones as follows – (c) Insulin (d) Antidiuretic hormone
Hormones are non nutrient chemicals which act as
intercellular messengers and are produced in trace Manipal-2009
amount. Ans. (a) : Prostaglandin hormones does not contain a
• Exocrine glands release enzymes to target organs by polypeptide. Prostaglandins are a group of lipids with
their ducts. hormone-like actions that your body makes primarily at
sites of tissue damage or infection.
17. In which of the following organisms hormones
are normally absent ? 22. Steroid hormones easily pass through the
(a) Monkey (b) Cat plasma membrane by simple diffusion because
(c) Cockroach (d) Bacteria they
CG PMT-2007 (a) are water soluble
(b) contain carbon and hydrogen
Ans. (d) : Hormones are generally absent in bacteria.
(c) enter through pores
18. All functions of the body are regulated and (d) are lipid soluble
integrated by
DUMET-2009
(a) Respiratory system
(b) Digestive system Ans. (d) : Steroid hormones easily pass through the
plasma membrane by simple diffusion because they are
(c) Neuroendocrine system lipid soluble. Lipid soluble hormones, including steroid
(d) Excretory system hormones and thyroid hormones, bind to receptors within
CG PMT-2007 target cells. These lipid-soluble hormones diffuse through
Ans. (c) :The neural system provides a point to point the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane into a cell.
rapid coordination among Organ. The neural 23. Hormone is:
coordination is fast but short lived. (a) enzyme (b) chemical messenger
• As the nerve fibres do not innervate all cells of the (c) excretory product (d) glandular secretion
body and the cellular functions need to be
Haryana PMT-2003
continuously regulated; a special kind of
coordination and integration has to be provided. Ans. (b) : Hormones are the body's chemical
• This function is carried out by hormones. The neural messengers. They carry information and instructions
system and the endocrine system jointly coordinate from one set of cells to another.
and regulate the physiological functions in the body. Excretory product:- Excretion is the physiological
process of elimination of metabolic waste from the
19. Which of the following does not secrete any body. The excretory products include amino acids, urea,
hormone ? uric acid, carbon dioxide, water, and ammonia.
(a) Ovary (b) Testis Glandular secretion:- The main function of glandular
(c) Spleen/liver (d) Pancreas epithelium is to produce and release different secretary
CG PMT-2007 products, such as sweat, saliva, breast milk, digestive
Ans. (c) : Endocrine glands lack ducts and are hence enzymes, and hormones, among other substances.
called ductless glands. Their secretions are called 24. Which of the following is not true for
hormones. These glands pour their secretion directly in hormones?
to blood e.g. Hypothalamus, Thyroid, testes, ovary, (a) They are not available again after the process
pancreas etc. is over
(b) Hormones are directly poured into blood 27. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(c) They induce or inhibit bio-chemical processes (a) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not
(d) Each and every hormone of human is always vice versa
chemically protein (b) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and
JCECE-2015 nervous system regulates endocrine glands
Ans. (d) : Hormone is a chemical substance produced (c) Neither hormones control neural activity nor
by endocrine glands and directly released into blood and do the neurons control endocrine activity
transported to a distantly located organ. They can (d) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity but
induce or inhibit biochemical process and are used up in not vice versa
biochemical reaction. Hormone can be classified as- CMC Ludhiana-2009
steroid hormones, protein hormones, peptide hormones Ans. (a) : Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not
and amine hormone. vice versa is correct statement. Neurons control the
• Each and every hormone of human is always production and secretion of hormone by endocrine
chemically protein is not true for hormones. glands via the autonomic nervous system. But endocrine
25. Pheromone is gland cannot regulate the nervous system.
(a) a product of endocrine gland • The neural system and the endocrine system jointly
(b) used for animal communication coordinate and regulate the physiological functions in
the body.
(c) messenger RNA
(d) always protein 28. Reabsorption of Na+ is controlled by which one
Punjab MET 2009 of the following hormones?
(a) Aldosterone (b) Oestrogen
CMC Vellore-2009
(c) Glucocorticoids (d) Testosterone
Ans. (b) : Pheromones are chemicals secreted into the
AMU-2001
external environment by an animal which elicit a
specific reaction in a receiving individual of the same Ans. (a) : Reabsorption of Na+ is controlled by
species. aldosterone. Aldosterone is the principal hormone that
stimulates Na+ reabsorption by distal segments of the
• Pheromones are volatile in nature and they aid in
renal tubule.
communication among insects. Pheromones are
exocrine in origin. • Oestrogen is one of the main female sex hormones. It is
needed for puberty, the menstrual cycle, pregnancy,
• Hence they were earlier called as ectohormones.
bone strength and other functions of the body.
26. Match the (endocrine glands) column I with • Glucocorticoids are powerful medicines that fight
their (corresponding hormones) column II inflammation and work with our immune system to
correctly. treat wide range of health problems.
Column-I Column-II • Testosterone is the primary male hormone
A. Pancreas 1. FSH and LH responsible for regulating sex differentiation,
B. Hypothalamus 2. Androgens producing male sex characteristics, spermatogenesis,
C. Anterior 3. Insulin and fertility.
pituitary 29. Which of the following steroid sex hormone
D. Testis 4. Gonadotropin influenced secondary sex organs ?
Releasing (a) Progesterone (b) Oestrogen
Hormone (GnRH) (c) LH (d) LTH
Codes MGIMS Wardha-2003
(a) A - 1 B - 2 C - 3 D - 4 Ans. (b) : Oestrogen is a steroid hormone which is
(b) A - 4 B - 3 C - 2 D - 1 synthesized and secreted by the growing ovarian
(c) A - 3 B - 4 C - 1 D - 2 follicles of ovary.
(d) A - 2 B - 1 C - 4 D - 3 • It is responsible for the development of secondary
CMC Ludhiana-2015 sexual characteristics in the female at puberty. It
causes the development of breasts, axial and pubic
Ans. (c) : hair and fat distribution. It is also responsible for the
maintenance and maturation of the sexual organs in
Column-I Column-II the human body.
• Progesterone is secreted by carpus luteum. It
A) Pancreas Insulin supports preganancy. Progesterone stimulates the
formation of alveoli and milk secretion.
B) Hypothalamus Gonadotropin releasing • LTH:-It is the luteotropic hormone or also called
hormone (GnRH) luteotropin. It is the peptide hormone which is responsible
for the secretion of milk in the mammary glands.
C) Anterior pituitary FSH and LH
• LH:- Luteinizing hormone is produced and secreted
by the anterior pituitary. It is crucial in regulating the
D) Testis Androgens
function of the testes in male and ovaries in female.

30 Matches a hormone with a disease resulting 34. Which hormone among these is not secreted by
from its deficiency ? an endocrine gland?
(a) Luteinizing hormone – Failure of ovulation (a) ADH (b) ANF
(b) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus (c) T4 (d) PTH
(c) Thyroxine – Tentany (e) MSH
(d) Parathyroid hormone – Diabetes mellitus Kerala PMT-2012
Manipal-2007 / AIPMT-2004 Ans. (b) : The atrial wall of human heart secretes a very
Ans. (a) : Luteinizing hormone is systhesized and secreted important peptide hormone called Atrial Natriuretic
by the anterior lobe of pituitary gland. It stimulates the Factor (ANF) which decrease blood pressure. When
ovulation and luteinization of ovarion follicles in female. blood pressure is increases ANF is secreted which cause
Its deficiency causes failure of ovulation. dilation of the blood vessel. This reduce blood pressure.
• Tetany – rapid spasms in muscles due to low Ca++ in 35. Match column I (hormone) with column II
body fluid. (endocrine gland) and column III (function).
Column I Column II Column III
• Diabetes mellitus- is caused by lack of insulin
secretion. 1. Melatonin A. Thyroid i. Acts on the
renal tubules
• Diabetes insipidus- is caused by hyposecretion of 2. MSH B. Adrenal ii. Regulates
antiodiuretic hormone (ADH). blood calcium
31. Which is the largest endocrine gland? levels
(a) Thyroid gland (b) Adrenal gland 3. Aldosterone C. Pituitary iii. Maintains
(c) Thymus (d) Pituitary gland diurenal rhythm
of our body
J&K CET-2004
4. TCT D. Pineal iv. Acts on the
Ans. (a) : Thyroid gland is the largest endocrine gland melanocytes
in the body. It is located on either side of the trachea. It (a) 4 - A - iv 3 - D - iii 1 - B - ii 2 -C - i
is composed of right and left lateral lobes, one on either (b) 1 - D - iii 2 - C - iv 3 - B - i 4 - A - ii
side of the trachea, that is connected by a fibrous (c) 1 - B - i 4 - A - iii 3 - C - ii 2 - D - iv
connective tissue isthmus. Thyroxin hormones secreted
(d) 2 - D - ii 1 - B - i 4 - C - iv 3 - C - iii
by thyroid gland.
(e) 2 - C - iv 3 - A - ii 1 - D - iii 4 - B - i
32. Endocrine glands: Kerala PMT-2012
(a) do not posses ducts
Ans. (b) :
(b) sometimes do not have ducts
(c) pour their secretion into blood through ducts
diurenal
(d) always have ducts Rhythm of
J&K CET-2002 Pituitary tes
Ans. (a) : Endocrine glands are ductluss glands i.e. do
not posses duct. They secrete hormones directly into the
bloodstream for distribution throughout the body.
Ex:- Pituitary gland, Thyroid gland etc. 36. Select the correct statement.
33. Match the hormone with its source of secretion (a) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
A. Somatostatin i. Pineal gland (b) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
B. Melatonin ii. Corpus luteum adipocytes.
C. Aldosterone iii. Placenta (c) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
D. Progesterone iv. Adrenal cortex (d) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
E. HCG v. Islet of Langerhans NEET-2020 Phase-I
vi. Adenohypophysis Ans. (d) : Glucocorticoids are steroid hormones that
(a) A - v B - i C - vi D - iii E - ii regulate glucose metabolism of glucose.
(b) A - i B - ii C - iv D - iii E - v • Glucocorticoids promote gluconeogenesis in liver
(c) A - ii B - vi C - iv D - v E - iii while in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue they
(d) A - v B - i C - iv D - ii E - iii decrease glucose uptake and utilization by antagonizing
(e) A - i B - iii C - iv D - ii E-v insulin response.
Kerala PMT-2009 37. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
Ans. (d) :
Column-I Column-II
(A) Pituitary (i) Grave’s disease
gland
g (B) Thyroid (ii) Diabetes mellitus
gland
(C) Adrenal (iii) Diabetes insipidus
gland
(D) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
(A) (B) (C) (D) 40. A chemical signal that has both endocrine and
(a) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) neural roles is ?
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (a) Calcitonin (b) Epinephrine
(c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (c) Cortisol (d) Melatonin
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) AIPMT-2015
NEET-2020 Phase-I Ans. (b) : The hormone which has both endocrine and
Ans. (b) : neural role is epinephrine. It is released by the adrenal
(A) Pituitary gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus medulla, as a hormone it increases metabolic rate and as
(B) Thyroid gland (i) Grave's disease a neurotransmitter it transmits impulses at the synaptic
(C) Adrenal gland (iv) Addison's disease cleft.
(D) Pancreas (ii) Diabetes mellitus Cortisol is a steroid hormone, in the glucocorticoid
38. Match the following columns and select the class of hormone, when used as a medication, it is
correct option : known as hydrocortisone.
Column – I Column–II Melatonin is a hormone that is released by the pineal
A. Pituitary i Steroid gland. Melatonin plays a very important role in the
hormone regulation of a 24 hour (diurenal) rhythm of our body.
B. Epinephrine ii Neuropeptides Calcitonin is a hormone that is secreted by the
parafollicular cell of the thyroid gland. It regulate the
C. Endorphins iii Peptides, proteins blood calcium level.
D. Cortisol iv Biogenic amines 41. Select the answer which correctly matches the
(a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii) endocrine gland with the hormone is secretes
(b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii) and its function/deficiency symptom :
(c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) Endocrine Hormone Function/defi
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii) gland ciency
NEET-2020 Phase-II symptoms
Ans. (c) a. Corpus Testosterone Stimulates
(A) Pituitary hormone (iii) Peptides proteins luteum spermatogene
(B) Epinephrine (iv) Biogenic amines sis
(C) Endorphins (ii) Neuropeptides b. Anterior Oxytocin Stimulates
(D) Cortisol (i) Steroid pituitary uterus
39. Match the following hormones with the contraction
respective disease during
(A) Insulin (i) Addison's disease child birth
(B) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus c. Posterior Growth Oversecretion
pituitary Hormone stimulates
(C) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly (GH)) abnormal
(D) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre growth
(v) Diabetes mellitus d. Thyroid Thyroxine Lack of iodine
Select the correct option. gland in diet results
A B C D in goitre
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) NEET-2013
(b) (v) (iv) (i) (iii) Ans. (d) : Thyroid gland is composed of two lobes
(c) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) which are located on either side of the trachea. The
(d) (v) (i) (ii) (iii) thyroid gland is composed of follicles and stromal
NEET-2019 tissues. Each thyroid follicles is composed of follicular
Ans. (b): cells, enclosing a cavity.
(a) Insulin – (v) Diabetes mellitus • These follicular cells synthesis two hormones,
(b) Thyroxin – (iv) Goitre tetraiodothyronine or thyroxine (T4) and
(c) Corticoids – (i) Addison's disease triiodothyronine (T3).
(d) Growth hormone – (iii) Acromegaly • Iodine is essential for the normal rate of hormone
• Diabetes mellitus is caused due to the deficiency of synthesis in the thyroid. Deficiency of iodine in our
insulin. diet results in hypothyroidism and enlargement of the
• Goiter is caused due to improper secretion of thyroxine. thyroid gland commonly called goitre.
Thyroxine hormone is secreted by thyroid gland. 42. A temporary endocrine gland in the human
• Addison’s disease is caused due to decreased body is
production of hormones (corticoid) from adrenal cortex. (a) Pineal gland (b) Corpus cardiacum
• Acromegaly is caused by the hypersecretion of (c) Corpus luteum (d) Corpus allatum
growth hormone in adulthood. NEET-2017
Ans. (c) : Corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine thereby reduce loss of water through urine. However, In
gland in the human body, because it develops after question given that ADH increase urine formation.
ovulation from the ruptured follicle. In the absence of • Hence, statement (A, B) are correct statement, (C) and
fertilization the corpus luteum degenerates. (D) are incorrect.
• It secretes small amount of estradiol and significant 46. Match the following:
amount of progesterone hormone.
List-I List-II
A Prolactin I Levels of Ca++ in
circulating fluids
B Oxytocin II Enlargement of
mammary glands
C Parathormone III Stimulation of
gluconeogenesis
D Thymosin IV Contraction of
smooth muscles
V Differentiation of
lymphocytes
43. Bradykinin is a
(a) antibody (b) hormone A B C D
(c) enzyme (d) receptor (a) V I IV II
JIPMER-2019 (b) II IV I V
Ans. (b) : Bradykinin is a peptide hormone. It acts as a (c) II IV III V
potent endothelium - dependent vasodilator and mild (d) III I II V
diuretic, which can lower blood pressure. It is also TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-I
cause contraction of non-vascular smooth muscle in the Ans. (b) :
bronchus and gut, increases vascular permeability. List-I List-II
A Prolactin II Enlargement of
44. Which of the following is not endocrine gland? mammary glands
(a) Thyroid (b) Adrenal
(c) Pituitary (d) Sebaceous B Oxytocin IV Contraction of smooth
muscles (during child
JCECE-2006
birth
AFMC-2003
Ans. (d) : Endocrine gland are ductless gland that C Parathormone I Levels of Ca++ in
secrete hormone into blood. Thyroid, Adrenal and circulating fluids(
pituitary gland are endocrine gland whereas sebaceous Parathyroid hormone is
gland is exocrine gland that contribute the vast majority called as hypercalcemic
of skin surface lipid which help to seal the moisture and hormone.It increase the
desiccation of the skin. blood Ca2+ levels).
45. Study the following statements D Thymosin V Differentiation of
(A) Calcitonin regulates the metabolism of lymphocytes
calcium 47. Match the following
(B) Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine List -I List-II
muscles
(C) Graves disease is due to malfunc (A) Harderian (i) Skin
tioning of adrenal gland gland
(D) ADH stimulates water secretion and (B) Sudoriferous (ii) at the base of
increases urine formation gland the tail
Identify the incorrect statements (C) Preen gland (iii) Ear
Options: (D) Ceruminous (iv) Eye
(a) A, B (b) C, D gland
(c) A, C (d) B, D (v) Brain
The correct answer is
Ans. (b) : Grave disease is common cause of
hyperthyroidism. This is autoimmune disease in which (A) (B) (C) (D)
the body enormously produce thyroid stimulating (a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
immunoglobulin (TSI), an antibody which target the (b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
TSH receptor on thyroid cell. (c) (v) (i) (ii) (iv)
• ADH increase the re-absorption of water by the distal (d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
convoluted tubule & collecting duct of the nephron & TS EAMCET-03.05.2018 Shift-I
Ans. (a) : (A) (B) (C) (D)
List–I List–II (a) (Q) (P) (T) (R)
A. Harderian gland → Eye (b) (Q) (P) (T) (S)
B. Sudoriferous gland → Skin (c) (P) (T) (R) (Q)
C. Preen gland → At the base of the tail (d) (Q) (T) (S) (R)
D. Ceruminous gland → Ear Karnataka CET-2013
Ans. (a) :
Colum –I Colum –II
Gland Hormone
A. FSH – Ovulation
(A) Thyroid gland (I) Prolactin
B. GH – Normal growth
(B) Hypothalamus (II) Melatonin
C. Prolactin – Milk secretion
(C) Pituitary gland (III) Calcitonin
D. Oxytocin – Parturition
(D) Epiphysis cerebri (IV) Thymosin
(V) Somatocrinin 51. Study the following statements about hormones
The correct match is (A) Thyroxine and cortisol stimulate
erythropoiesis
Options:
(B) Oxytocin and progesterone are identical in
A B C D function regarding maintenance of
(a) IV V I II pregnancy
(b) III V II I (C) Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide
(c) II I V IV are antagonistic regarding renal
(d) III V I II reabsorption of Na
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-I (D) Luteinizing hormone is a cholesterol
Ans. (d) : derivative
Gland Hormones From the above, identify the correct
A. Thyroid gland – Calcitonin statements
B. Hypothalamus – Somatocrinin Options:
C. Pituitary gland – Prolactin (a) B, D (b) A, C
D. Epiphysis cerebri – Melatonin (c) A, B (d) C, D
(pineal gland) AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-I
49. Match the following: Ans. (b) : Thyroxine and cortisol hormones stimulate
erythropoiesis
Gland Type
• Thyroxine is amine hormone secreted by the thyroid
(A) Pancreas (I) Holocrine gland
gland. It play an important role in regulation of the
(B) Mammary gland (II) Endocrine gland basal metabolic rate.
(C) Sebaceous gland (III) Merocrine gland • Cortisol secreted by the zona fasciculata layer of
(D) Thyroid gland (IV) Unicellular gland adrenal cortex.
(V) Apocrine gland • Cortisol involved in metabolism of carbohydrate
The correct match is • Aldosterone and atrial natriuritic peptide are
Options: antagonistic regarding renal reabsorption of Na.
A B C D • Aldosteson acts primarily on the kidney to promote
(a) III V IV II absorption of sodium and excretion of potassium.
(b) II I V III While atrial natriuretic peptide inhibit the
(c) III V I II reabosorption of sodium and water by the renal tubal,
(d) IV II III I specially in the collecting ducts.
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-I 52. In which of the following types of glands is the
Ans. (c) : secrection collected inside the cell and
Gland Type discharged by disintegration of entire gland?
A. Pancreas → Merocrine gland (a) Apocrine (b) Merocrine
B. Mammary → Apocrine gland (c) Holocrine (d) Epicrine
KVPY SB & SX-2014
C. Sebaceous gland → Holocrine gland
D. Thyroid gland → Endocrine gland Ans. (c) : In holocrine gland secretion collected inside
the cell and discharge by disintegration of entire gland.
50. Match the entries in Column I with those of i.e. by rupture of plasma membrane which destroy
Column II and choose the correct answer given itself. Holocrine gland is exocrine gland e.g. –
below : sebaceous gland.
Column – I Column – II 53. Direction: In the given questions a statement of
(A) FSH (P) Normal growth Assertion (A) is given and a corresponding
(B) GH (Q) Ovulation statement of Reason (R) is given just below it of
(C) Prolactin (R) Parturition the statement, mark the correct answer as;
(D) Oxytocin (S) Water diuresis Assertion: Liver is an endocrine gland.
(T) Milk secretion Reason: It secrets many enzymes in bile juice.
(a) If both (A) and (R) true and (R) is the correct 56. Study the following table and pick up the
explanation of (A) correct combinations.
(b) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not S. Hormone Chemical Function
correct explanation of (A) No nature
(c) If (A) is true but (R) is false I. Melatonin Amine Regulation
(d) If both (A) and (R) are false hormone of circadian
rhythms of
(e) If (A) is false but (R) is true the body
Haryana PMT-2001 II. Oxytocin Peptide Stimulate
Ans. (d) : Liver is exocrine gland it secrete bile into the hormone powerful
intestine. Bile juice does not contain any enzymes but it contraction
contains bile salts, which is responsible for digestion by of uterus
during
emulsification of gat. child birth
54. Identify the set of hormones that are not III. Insulin Proteinous Increases
antagonistic in function. hormone the uptake
(a) Melanocyte stimulating hormone - Melatonin and
(b) Calcitonin - Parathormone utilisation
of glucose
(c) Adrenaline - Noradrenaline
by body
(d) Insulin - Glucagon cells
AP EAMCET-2015 IV. Testosterone Steroid Developme
Ans. (c) : Adrenaline and noradrenaline (epinephrine hormone nt and
and norepinephrine) hormone are not antagonistic in maturation
function both epinephrine and non epinephrine are of male sex
organs
secreted from chromatin cells of adrenal medulla.
Options:
• Antagonistic hormones are a pair of hormones that (a) I only (b) I and II only
have opposite action on our body. For example : (c) I, II, and III only (d) I, II, III, and IV
Insulin and glucogon, calcitonin and parathoromone, TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I
melatonin and MSH are antagonistic hormone because Ans. (d) : Melatonin (Amine hormone) – Regulation
their effects are opposite. of circadian rhythms of the body.
• Insulin lower the blood sugar level while glucagon • Oxytocin (Peptide hormone) – Stimulate powerful
raises it. contractions of uterus during child birth
• Calcitonin and parathormone regulate blood Ca++ • Insulin (Proteinous hormone) – Increases the
level. Calcitonin lowers blood Ca++ level while uptake and utilization of glucose by body cells.
paratharmone raise blood Ca++ level. • Testosterone (Steroid hormone) – Development
and maturation of male sex organs
57. Hormones are distributed to the different body
Set - I Set – II parts by :
(Endocrine glands) (Hormones secreted) (a) ducts (b) blood
(A) Pituitory gland (I) Melatonin hormone (c) nerves (d) lymph
(B) Pineal gland (II) Thyroxine hormone Rajasthan PMT-2001
(C) Thyroid gland (III) Corticosteroid Ans. (b) : Hormones are distributed to the different
hormone parts of the body by blood because endocrine gland are
(D) Adrenal gland (IV)Growth hormone ductless. They secretes hormones directly into blood.
Identify the correct match. 58. RAAS secretes which of the following hormone?
(a) Mineralocorticoids (b) Gluco corticoids
A B C D
(c) Both [a] and [b] (d) None of the above
(a) II I IV III DUMET-2007
(b) I II III IV Ans. (a) : RAAS secretes mineralocorticoids which are
(c) IV I II III hormones produce by adrenal cortex. Aldosterone is the
(d) IV III II I major mineralocorticoid. It requires homeostasis of two
TS EAMCET-12.05.2017 mineral ions, namely sodium ions and potassium ions
Ans. (c) : and help in maintenance of electrolytes, blood fluid
volume, osmotic pressure and blood pressure.
Enocrine gland Hormones
59. A steroid hormone which regulates glucose
A. Pituitary gland – Growth hormone metabolism is
B. Pineal gland – Melatonin hormone (a) cortisol (b) corticosterone
C. Thyroid gland – Thyroxine hormone (c) 1-1-deoxycorticosterone (d) cortisone
D. Adrenal gland – Corticosteroid hormone BCECE-2013
Ans. (a) : Glucocorticoid hormones are secreted by the Ans. (c) :
adrenal cortex, which are involved in carbohydrate Hormone Function
metabolism. In our body, cortisol is the main A. Thyroxine – Metamorphosis of tadpole
glucocorticoid. It function to increase blood sugar larva
through gluconeogenesis to suppress the immune B. Calcitonin – Lowers calcium level in blood
response. Cortisol stimulates the RBC production. C. Insulin – Reduces glucose level in blood
60. Structure which has no role in endocrine D. Oxytocin – Contraction of uterine muscle
secretion is E. Vasopressin – Re-absorption of water in
Uterine nephrons
(a) testes (b) duodenum
(c) adrenal medulla (d) submaxillary gland 63. Match the following:
List-I List-II
BVP-2011
(A) ADH (I) Aldosterone
Ans. (d) : Submaxillary glands are major salivary (B) Renin (II) Vasodilator
gland. It secretes saliva to moisten the mouth. (C) ANP (III) Neurohypophysis
So, it is exocrine in nature. (D) Angiotensin-II (IV) JG cells
• Testes – secrete testosterone hormone The correct match is:
• Duodenum – Secretin hormone. A B C D
• Adrenal medulla – Epinephrine and norepinephrine (a) III IV I II
hormone. (b) IV III II I
(c) IV III I II
61. Select the odd one with reference to disorders
(d) III IV II I
caused due to hormone deficiency.
(a) Addison's disease (b) Cretinism
Ans. (d) :
(c) Gout disease (d) Diabetes insipidus
List-I List-II
TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-II A. ADH – Neurohypophysis
Ans. (c) : Among the given disease odd one is Gout B. Renin – JG cells (juxta glomerular cell)
disease. It is a common and complex form of arthritis C. ANP – Vasodilator
that can affect anyone. D. Angiotensin-II – Aldosterone
It occurs due to accumulation of uric acid crystals in 64. Which one is not a placental hormone?
joint. (a) HCG (b) HCS
However other disease given in question due to (c) Progesterone (d) Melatonin
hormone deficiency. J&K CET-2011
• Addison disease– Due to underproduction of adrenal Ans. (d) : Melatonin hormone is not a placental
cortex hormone usually due to autoimmune disorder. hormone. It is secreted by pineal gland. Melatonin
• Cretinism–Due to hyposecretion of thyroid hormone regulates the sleep –wake cycle and circadian rhythm.
during infants. 65. ADH deficiency shows the following condition
• Diabetes insipidus – Hyposecretion of ADH. (a) Polydipsia (b) Polyuria
62. Match the following: (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Glucosuria
List-I List-II J&K CET-2011
(A) Thyroxine (I) Reduces glucose level Ans. (c) : ADH deficiency show both the condition
polyuria (excessive urination) and polydipsia (excess
in blood thirst) because ADH increase the reabsorption of water
(B) Calcitonin (II) Re-absorption of by distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct of the
water in nephrons nephron and thereby reduce loss of water through urine
(C) Insulin (III) Lowers calcium level since, deficiency of ADH cause excessive urination
in blood (polyuria) and polydipsia.
(D) Oxytocin (IV) Metamorphosis of 66. Erythropoietin is secreted from
(a) Pituitary gland (b) Pancreas
tadpole larva
(c) Adrenal gland (d) Kidney
(E) Vasopressin (V) Contraction of
J&K CET-2011
uterine muscles
Ans. (d) : Erythropoietin is secreted from kidney. It
The correct match is:
stimulates the production of red blood cells in bone
A B C D E marrow (erythropoietin).
(a) IV III I II V
67. The endocrine gland responsible for immunity
(b) I II III IV V is––––––
(c) IV III I V II (a) Adrenal (b) Pineal
(d) V IV III I II (c) Thymus (d) Pituitary
TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-II AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (c) : The endocrine gland responsible for 71. Study the following table
immunity is thymus,because thymus secretes a hormone Endocrine gland Hormone Deficiency
named thymosin which stimulates the development of disorder
certain kinds of white blood cells involved in producing A. Neurohy- Vasopressin Diabetes
pophysis insipidus
immunity.
B. Adrenal Corticosteroids Addison's
68. Chemicals which are synthesised by one cortex disease
organism and affect the behavior of another C. Parathyroid Parathormone Myxoedema
member of the same species are called ? glands
(a) Enzymes (b) Hormones D. Thyroid Calcitonin Acromegaly
(c) Flavoids (d) Pheromones gland
Punjab MET-2005 The correct set is
Ans. (d) : Pheromones are chemicals which are (a) B and C (b) A and B
synthesized by one organism and affect the behavior of (c) C and D (d) A and D
another member of the same species. AP EAMCET-2008
• Pheromones trigger a social response in member of Ans. (b) : The posterior lobe of pituitary i.e.
neurohypophysis secretes vasopressin. Its deficiency
same species individuals to affect the behaviour of the
causes diabetes insipidus.
receiving individuals.
• Addison's disease occurs due to deficiency of
69. Match the hormones secreted by various corticoid hormone secreted from adrenal cortex.
endocrine structures and choose the correct • Hence, only A and B are correct match.
option.
72. Which of the following hormones does not
i. Hypothalamus (A) Melanocyte stimulating contain a polypeptide?
hormone (a) Oxytocin (b) Insulin
ii. Pars intermedia (B) Aldosterone (c) Antidiuretic hormone (d) Prostaglandin
iii. Pineal gland (C) Gonadotrophin Karnataka CET-2009
releasing hormone Ans. (d) : Prostaglandins are lipid Hormones derived
iv. Adrenal medulla (D) Melatonin from fatty acids. They have hormone like effects.
v. Adrenal cortex (E) Catecholamines • Oxytocin, ADH and Insulin are peptide hormones.
(a) i - E, ii - A, iii - D, iv - B, v-C 73. Choose the mismatched pair from the
(b) i - E, ii - D, iii - A, iv - B, v-C following:
(c) i - B, ii - D, iii - A, iv - C, v-E (a) Insulin - Gluconeogenesis
(d) i - C, ii - A, iii - D, iv - B, v-E (b) Glucagon - Glycogenolysis
(e) i - C, ii - A, iii - D, iv - E, v-B (c) Oxytocin - Contraction of uterine muscles
Kerala PMT-2014 (d) Prolactin - Milk production in mammary glands
Karnataka CET-2012
Ans. (e) :
1. Hypothalmus – Gonadotrophin releasing hormone Ans. (a) : Gluconeogenesis refers to formation of
carbohydrate from non-carbohydrate precursor. The
2. Pars intermedia – Melanocyte stimulating hormone
newly made glucose is released back into the blood
3. Pineal gland – Melatonin stream to raise blood glucose levels. Insulin helps in
4. Adrenal medulla – Catecholamines decreasing blood glucose level.
5. Adrenal cortex – Aldosterone 74. Study the following combinations and identify
70. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly the correct combinations:
matched? S.No. Disorder Hormone Secreting
(a) Insulin - Diabetes Mellitus (Disease) gland
(b) Corpus Luteum - Relaxin (Secretion) I Addison's Glucocorticoids Adrenal
(c) Glucagon - Beta Cells (Source) disease
(d) Somatostatin - Delta cells (Source) II Myxoedema Thyroxine Thyroid
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-II III Diabetes Insulin Pancreas
insipidus
Ans. (c) :
IV Tetany Calcitonin Parathyroid
Glucagon secreted from the α cells of the pancreas.
(a) I and II (b) II and III
• Insulin secreted from β cells of the pancreas (c) III and IV (d) I and IV
(Deficiency leads to diabetes mellitus) TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I
• Corpus luteum Secretes relaxin. Ans. (a) : Addission disease is caused by damage in
• Somatostatin produced by delta cells of the islets of adrenal gland due to not enough secretion of
langerhans in pancreas. glucocorticoids hormone.
• Myxoedema is a result of hypothyrodism (thyroxine) 77. Column I lists the endocrine structure and
secreted from thyroid gland. Column II lists the corresponding hormones.
• Diabetes insipidus is caused by ADH (antidiuretic Match the two columns. Identify the correct
hormone) produces from hypothalamus stored in option from those given
pituitary gland. Column -I Column -II
• Tetany caused by low calcium level and hypo-
parathyroidism. A. Hypothalamus p. Relaxin
75. Study the following table and pick up the B. Anterior Pituitary q. Estrogen
correct combinations : C. Testis r. FSH and LH
S.No. Endocrirne gland Hormone Deficiency D. Ovary s. Androgens
disease t Gonadotropin
I Hypothalamus Vasopressin Diabets releasing hormone
mellitus
(a) A = t, B = r, C = s, D = q
II Zona fasciculata Cortisol Addison's
of adrenal cortex diseases (b) A = t, B = r, C = q, D = s
III β-Cell of Islets of Glucagon Diabets (c) A = p, B = q, C = s, D = r
Longerhans of insipidus (d) A = t, B = t, C = s, D = q
Pancreas Karnataka CET-2006
IV Pituitary gland Somatotropin Dwarfism Ans. (a) :
(a) I, II (b) III, IV Column -I Column -II
(c) II, IV (d) III
A. Hypothalamus Gonadotropin
TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I releasing hormone
Ans. (c) : Addison's disease is caused by damage of
adrenal glands results in not enough of hormone B. Anterior Pituitary FSH and LH
corstisol. Cortisol is produced from zona fasciculata of C. Testis Androgens
adrenal cortex. D. Ovary Estrogen
• Somatotropin hormone is secreted by the anterior 78. Which one of the following pairs of hormones
lobe of the pituitary gland. Dwarfism is caused by
are the examples of those that can easily pass
deficiency of growth hormones (somatotropin
hormones). through the cell membrane of the target cell
and bind to a receptor inside it (mostly in the
76. Match the following : nucleus):
List-I List-II (a) Somatostatin, oxytocin
(A) Pituitary (i) Calcitonin (b) Cortisol, testosterone
(B) Thyroid (ii) Epinephrine
(c) Insulin, glucagon
(C) Pineal (iii) Vasopressin
(d) Thyroxin, Insulin
(D) Adrenal (iv) Melatonin
The correct answer is AIPMT (Screening)-2012
A B C D Ans. (b) : Steroid hormones such as cortisol, testosterone,
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) estradiol and progesterone, mostly regulate gene
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) expression or chromosome function by the interaction of
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) hormone- receptor complex with the genome.
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) So, these easily pass through the cell membrane of the
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II target cell and bind to a receptor inside it.
Ans (c): 79. Match the following
List – I List - II (A) Peptide hormones 1. TSH, ACTH
a. Pituitary Vasopressin (B) Protein hormones 2. ADH, Oxytosin
(C) Amine hormones 3. Estrogen,
b. Thyroid Calcitonin
Testosterone
c. Pineal Melatonin
(D) Steroid hormones 4. Melatonin, Thyroxin
d. Adrenal Epinephrine (a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
• Vasopressin is a hormone of posterior pituitary (b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
gland. It stimulates reabsorption of water and (c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
electrolytes by the distal convoluted tubules and (d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
thereby reduces loss of water via urine.
• Calcitonin is a hormone that thyroid gland makes
releases to help regulate calcium levels in blood Ans. (b) :
by decreasing it. A) Peptide hormones – ADH, Oxytosin
• Pineal gland releases a hormone melatonin. B) Protein hormones – TSH, ACTH
Melatonin regulates the sleep-wake cycle and C) Amine hormones – Melatonin, Thyroxin
circadian rhythm. D) Steroid hormones – Estrogen, Testosterone
80. Steroid hormones works as 83. Thermoregulatory centre of human body is
(a) They enter into target cells and bind with associated with
specific receptor and activates specific genes (a) cerebrum (b) cerebellum
to form protein (c) hypothalamus (d) medulla oblongata
(b) They binds to cell membrane
(c) They catalyse formation of C-AMP
(d) None of the above JIPMER-2019
UP CPMT-2006 Punjab MET-2009
Ans. (a) : Steroid hormones are lipid soluble Ans. (c) : Thermoregulatory centre of human body is
hormones. They can easily pass through the cell associated with hypothalamus.
membrane and interact with intracellular receptors
mostly regulate gene expression or chromosome
function by the interaction of hormone – receptor
complex with the genome.
81. Which one of the following pairs correctly
matches a hormone with a disease resulting
from its deficiency: -
(a) Relaxin – Gigantism
(b) Prolactin – Cretinsim
(c) Parathyroid hormone – Tetany
(d) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
AIPMT-2003 • Hypothalamus is a part of the forebrain and contains a
number of centre which control body temperature, urge
Ans. (c): parathyroid hormone is secreted by
parathyroid glands. Hyposecretion of this hormone of eating and drinking. It also contains several groups of
decreases calcium level in the blood and tissue due to neuroseretory cells, which secretes hormones called
excretion of calcium in urine. This increases the hypothalamic hormones
excitability of nerves and muscles causing cramps and • Cerebrum is the part of your brain that starts and
convulsions. Sustained contraction (Tetany) of muscle manages conscious thoughts.
of Larynx, face, heads and feet are produced. This It is the largest part of the brain, located superiorly and
disorder is known as parathyroid tetany. anteriorly in relation to the brainstem.
• Hyper secretion of parathyroid hormone produces • Cerebellum controls balance for walking and
more calcium in bone resulting the bone is very
softening. This condition is known as osteoporosis. standing, and other complex motor functions.
• The medulla oblongata is the connection between the
brainstem and the spinal cord. The medulla contains
B. Hypothalamus centre which control respiration, cardiovascular reflexes
82. Secretion is under control of neuro secretory and gastric secretions.
nerve axons in 84. The specific region of hypothalamus,
(a) pineal gland (b) adrenal cortex responsible for physiological sweat secretion, is
(c) anterior pituitary (d) posterior pituitary (a) para-ventricular nucleus
Punjab MET-2009 (b) supra-optic nucleus
Ans. (d) : Secretion is under control of neurosecretory (c) median eminence
nerve axons in posterior pituitary.
(d) pars distalis
Posterior pituitary is also known as neurohypophysis,
stores and releases two hormones called oxytocin and WB JEE-2009
vasopressin, which are actually synthesized by the Ans. (a) : The specific region of hypothalamus,
hypothalamus and are transported axonally to responsible for physiological sweat secretion, is para-
neurohypophysis. ventricular nucleus.
The paraventricular nucleus (PVN, PVA, or PVH) is a

nucleus in the hypothalamus.
85. In mammals, the hormones secreted by the 89. Which of the three following hormones is
pituitary, the master gland, is itself regulated by crucial for regulating the salt and water
(a) hypothalamus (b) pineal gland balance in the body?
(c) median cortex (d) cerebrum (a) vasopressin, angiontensin-II and aldosterone
KVPY SB & SX-2012 (b) cortisol aldosterone and renin
Ans. (a) : In mammals, the hormones secreted by the (c) anti- diurretic hormone prolactin and aldosterone
pituitary, the master gland, is itself regulated by hypothalamus. (d) angiotensin- II thyroxin and aldosterone
• Hypothalamus contains several groups of TS EAMCET-03.05.2018 Shift-I
neurosecretory cells called nuclei which produce Ans. (a) : Vasopressin – (ADH) increases the
hormones. These hormones regulate the synthesis and reabsorption of water by the distal convoluted tubules
secretion of pituitary hormone. and collecting duct of the nephron thereby reduces loss
86. Hormones of hypothalamus are called : of water through urine.
(a) angiotensis (b) trophic hormones • Angiontensin-II – angiontensin II raise blood process
(c) growth hormones (d) regulatory hormones in two ways – 1. It is potent vasoconstrictor.
JIPMER-2000 2. It stimulate secretion of aldosterone, which increases
Ans. (b) : Hormones of hypothalamus are called trophic reabsorption of sodium & water by the kidneys.
hormones. Trophic hormones are those hormones which • Aldosterone–Cortex region of adrenal gland produce
stimulate other endocrine glands to synthesize their hormones. Aldosterone that regulate the water and sodium balance
87. Identify the incorrectly matched hormone and in the body. It stimulate the reabsorption of water and
its functions : sodium ion from the renal tubules.
(A) Prolactin- Stimulates formation of milk in 90. Hormones stored and released from
the mammary gland neurohypophysis are
(B) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) – (a) Prolactin and Vasopressin
Stimulates the synthesis and secretion of (b) Thyroid stimulating hormone and Oxytocin
thyroid hormone from thyroid gland (c) Oxytocin and Vasopressin
(C) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) – (d) Follicle stimulating hormone and Leutinizing
Stimulates the synthesis and secretion of hormone
hormones from adrenal medulla NEET-2020 Phase-II / JCECE-2015
(D) Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) – J&K CET-2009 / WB JEE-2006
Acts on the melanocyte (melanin Rajasthan PMT-2000
containing cell) Regulates the pigmentation
of the skin Ans. (c) : Neurohypophysis is a posterior part of
(a) A (b) B pituitary gland. This gland store and releases two
hormone called oxytocin and vasopressin, which are
(c) C (d) D
actually synthesized by the hypothalamus and are
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-II transported axonally to neurohypophysis.
Ans. (c) : Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH):- It is a 91. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would
hormone made by the pituitary gland, a small gland at the most likely disrupt.
base of the brain. It controls the production of another
hormone called cortisol. Cortisol is made by the adrenal (a) short-term memory
glands, two small glands located above the kidneys. (b) co-ordination during locomotion
88. The hormone which helps in the reabsorption (c) executive functions, such as decision making.
of water in kidney tubules is (d) regulation of body temperature
(a) Cholecystokinin (b) Angiotensin AIPMT-2014
(c) Anti diuretic hormone (d) Pancreozymin Ans.(d):
J&K CET-2007
Ans. (c) : Anti-diuretic hormone(ADH) is also known
as vasopressin, released from posterior pituitary gland.
It stimulates the reabsorption of water and electrolytes
by distal convoluted tubule and thereby reduces loss of
water through urine.
Any localised injury to hypothalamus will disrupt

regulation of body temperature. Hypothalamus is
thermoregulatory centre. Hence, it is called 'thermostat' of
the body. It keeps body temperature at roughly 37°C by
means of a complex thermostat system. Hypothalamus
lies at the base of the thalamus. It provides anatomical
connection between the nervous and endocrine systems by
its relationship to the pituitary gland.
92. Which of the following statements is correct in
relation to the endocrine system?
(a) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are
produced by the pituitary gland
(b) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural
regulation of the hypothalamus
(c) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract,
heart, kidney and liver do not produce any
hormones
(d) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body
in trace amount that act as intercellular
messenger are known as hormones
NEET-2013
Ans. (d) : Hormone are non-nutrient chemicals
produced by the body in trace amount that act as
intercellular messenger.
Releasing hormone (Which stimulate secretion of
pituitary hormones) and inhibiting hormones (which
inhibit secretion of pituitary hormones) are produced by 95. Osmoreceptors are present in the
the hypothalamus. (a) hypothalamus (b) Hypophysis
• Neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary) is under direct (c) Epiphysis (d) Epithalamus
neural regulation of the hypothalamus. MHT CET-2016
• Organ in body like gastrointestine tract, heart, kidney, Ans. (a) : Osmoreceptors are present in hypothalamus.
liver also produce few hormones. They are capable of sensing the concentration of solutes
Ex- Gastrin, Secretin, Cholecystokinin (cck) hormones specifically sodium ion.
are produced by GI tract. Heart produces atrial • Osmorecepters in the body are activated by changes in
natriuretic factor (ANF), Kidney produces blood volume, body fluid volume and ionic
erythropoietin and the liver produces angiotensinogen. concentration.
93. What is the effect of GnRH produced by • An excessive loss of fluid from the body can activate
hypothalamus? these receptors which stimulates the hypothalamus to
(a) Stimulates the synthesis and secretion of release ADH from neurohypophysis.
androgens • ADH facilitates water reabsorption from distal
(b) Stimulates secretion of milk in mammary convoluted tubule, thereby preventing diuresis.
glands
96. Identify the hormones ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ that are
(c) Stimulates foetal ejection reflex labelled in the given flow chart:
(d) Stimulates synthesis of carbohydrates from
non-carbohydrates in liver.
AIIMS-2010
Ans. (a) : Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) is
produced by hypothalamus. GnRH stimulates the
pituitary synthesis and release of gonadotropins (LH
and FSH).
In male, LH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of
hormones called androgens from testis.
94. In the homeostatic control of blood sugar level,
which organs function as modulator and
effector respectively? (a) A – GnRH, B – ICSH, C – FSH
(a) Liver and islet of Langerhans
(b) A – GH, B – FSH, C – LH
(b) Hypothalamus and liver
(c) A – GnRH, B – PRL, C – ICSH
(c) Hypothalamus and islet of Langerhans
(d) A – GnRH, B – FSH, C – LH
(d) Islet of Langerhans and hypothalamus
Karnataka CET-2014
AIIMS-2015
Ans. (d): Hypothalamus is the basal part of
Ans. (c) : Hypothalamus and Islet of Langerhans plays
a very important role to maintain the homeostatic diencephalon hypothalamus secrete GnRH
control of blood sugar level. They plays a major role in Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone. It act on the anterior
regulation of blood glucose metabolism by modulating pituitary to stimulate the secretion of FSH and LH from
liver gluconeogenesis (Glucose Production) and the anterior pituitary. The pituitary releases FSH and
initiating cellular response through signaling pathways. LH. FSH stimulate growth and development of ovarian
Hypothalamus act as modulator and islet of langerhans follicles and secretion of estrogen hormone. LH
act as effector. stimulate the testes to synthesize and secrete androgen.
C. Pituitary Gland 100. The smallest endocrine gland is
(a) thyroid (b) parathyroid
97. Deficiency of ADH (Anti diuretic hormone) or (c) pituitary (d) adrenal
Vasopressin results in Rajasthan PMT-2009 / CMC Vellore-2009
(a) Diuresis Punjab MET-2009 /UPCPMT - 2009
(b) Decreased volume of urine Ans. (c) : The smallest endocrine gland is pituitary.
(c) Reabsorption of excess electrolytes
(d) Decreased blood calcium
Ans. (a) : ADH deficiency results in diuresis, which is
the production of large amount of dilute urine. This is
because ADH helps the kidneys retain water and when
there is a deficiency of ADH, the kidneys are unable to
do this.
98. Assertion (A) : Diabetes mellitus is
symptomized by excretion of glucose through
urine and formation of ketone bodies.
Reason (R) : Anti-diuretic hormone is secreted It is a small, pea-sized gland located at the base of brain
by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. below hypothalamus.
101. Hypersecretion of growth hormone in the
(a) A and R are true. R is the correct explanation period of growth lead to
of A
(a) acromegaly (b) cushing syndrome
(b) A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A (c) midgets (d) cretinism
(c) A is true but R is false MGIMS Wardha-2010, 2007 / UP CPMT-2004
(d) Both A and R are false MGIMS Wardha-2004 / Rajasthan PMT-2007
TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I AIPMT-2002 / MHT CET-2016
Ans. (b) : Assertion– Diabetes mellitus is a chronic Ans. (a) : Hypersecretion of growth hormone in the
health condition that affects how the body turns food period of growth lead to acromegaly.
into energy. Glucose is a type of sugar that the body • Cushing syndrome is caused by prolonged exposure
uses for energy. When the body does not produce to high circulating levels of cortisol.
enough insulin or does not use insulin effectively, • Cretinism is a condition of severely stunted physical
glucose builds up in the blood. This can lead to the and mental growth due to untreated congenital
excretion of glucose through urine and the formation of deficiency of thyroid hormones.
ketone bodies. • Midgets or Dwarfism is a disorder which are caused
Reason– ADH is hormone that helps to regulate the by low secretion of GH results in stunted growth
amount of water in the body. It does this by causing the resulting in pituitary dwarfism. It can be genetic.
kidneys to reabsorb more water. However, ADH does 102. Mammalian prolactin is secreated by
not play role in the excretion of glucose through urine. (a) adenohypophysis (b) neurohypophysis
The correct answer is (b) (A) and (R) are true, but R is (c) adrenal cortex (d) adrenal medulla
not the correct explanation of (A).
UP CPMT-2004
99. Pigmentation of skin is due to: MGIMS Wardha-2004
(a) leucocytes (b) monocytes
Ans. (a) : Mammalian prolactin is secreated by
(c) lymphocytes (d) melanocytes adenohypophysis. The adenohypophysis produces and
AFMC-2001 secretes a majority of the hormones of the pituitary gland.
Ans. (d) : Pigmentation of skin is due to melanocytes. • Prolactin is a polypeptide hormone that is responsible
Melanocytes are skin cells found in the epidermis that for lactation, breast development, and hundreds of other
produce the pigment, melanin. actions needed to maintain homeostasis. The chemical
• Melanocyte is a highly differentiated cell that structures prolactin is similar to the structure of growth
produces a pigment melanin inside melanosomes. hormone and placental lactogen hormone.
this cell is dark and dendritic in shape. Melanin 103. Hormone responsible for the secretion of milk
production is the basic function of melanocyte. after parturition is
• Leukocytes are part of the body's immune system. (a) ICSH (b) Prolactin
They help the body fight infection and other diseases. (c) ACTH (d) LH
Monocytes are white blood cells that derive from the JIPMER-2013 / WB JEE-2010
bone marrow. Ans. (b) : Hormone responsible for the secretion of
• Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell. They milk after parturition is prolactin. It is a pituitary-
help our body's immune system to fight cancer and derived hormone that plays a pivotal role in a variety of
foreign viruses and bacteria. reproductive functions. It is an essential factor for
• Hence, the (d) is right. normal production of breast milk following childbirth.
104. ACTH is secreted by Ans. (c) : Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH) is
(a) thyroid gland (b) thymus gland produced by pars intermedia of pituitary.
(c) pituitary gland (d) islets of Langerhans • Pars intermedia is the boundary between the anterior
WBJEE - 2011 / DUMET - 2005 / UP CPMT-2003 and posterior lobes of the pituitary.
Ans. (c) : Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is a • MSH acts on the melanocytes (melanin containing
tropic hormone produced by the anterior pituitary. cells) and regulates pigmentation of the skin.
ACTH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of steroid 108. The pars distalis region of pituitary does not
hormones called glucocorticoids from the adrenal produce these hormones
cortex.
(i) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(ii) Vasopressin
(iii) Prolactin
(iv) Growth hormone
(a) iii only (b) i and iv
(c) ii and iv (d) ii and iii
(e) i and ii
Kerala PMT-2015
Ans. (e) : The pars distalis region of pituitary,
commonly known as anterior pituitary, produces growth
hormone, prolactin, TSH, ACTH, luteinizing hormone
(LH) and FSH.
• Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) is secreted
ACTH regulates cortisol and androgen production. by pars intermedia region of pituitary.
Diseases associated with ACTH include Addison • The hormone vasopressin is secreted by posterior
disease, Cushing syndrome, and Cushing disease. pituitary (neurohypophysis).
105. Which of the following hormones is not a 109. A person passes much urine and drinks much
secretion product of human placenta? water but his blood glucose level is normal.
(a) Human choriohic gonadotropin This conditions may be the result of
(b) Prolactin (a) a reduction in insulin secretion from pancreas
(c) Oestrogen (b) a reduction in vasopressin secretion from
(d) Progesterone posterior pituitary
Manipal-2012 / JCECE-2009 (c) a fall in the glucose concentration in urine
Ans. (b) : Prolactin hormone is not a secretion product (d) an increase in secretion of glucagon
of human placenta. Rajasthan PMT-2010
Prolactin hormone – Prolactin is synthesized by Ans. (b) : A person passes much urine and drinks much
lactotrophs in the anterior pituitary gland. The number water but his blood glucose level is normal then it
of lactotrophs will increase during pregnancy in shows that there is low water reabsorption from
response to the physiological need to develop breast kidneys.
tissue and to prepare for milk production. • This conditions may be the result of a reduction in
106. Choose the correct statement about neuro- vasopressin secretion from posterior pituitary.
hypophysis. • Vasopressin acts mainly at the kidney and stimulates
(a) it stores the hormones produced by reabsorption of water and electrolytes and there by
adenohypophysis reduces loss of water through urine (diuresis). Hence,
(b) it is poorly developed and functionless in it is also called as anti-diuretic hormones (ADH).
humans
110. Blood pressure and activity of non-straited
(c) it stores and releases hormones secreted by muscles are dependent on the hormone
hypothalamus secretion of :
(d) it secretes its own hormones (a) anterior lobe of pituitary gland
Karnataka CET-2002
(b) middle lobe of pituitary gland
Ans. (c) : Neurohypophysis is the posterior lobe of the (c) posterior lobe of pituitary gland
pituitary gland. It stores and releases two hormones
called oxytocin and vasopressin, which are synthesized (d) adrenal cortex
by the hypothalamus and are transported axonally to Rajasthan PMT-1998
neurohypophysis. Ans. (c) : Blood pressure and activity of non-strited
107. Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH) is muscles are dependent on the hormone secretion of
produced by posterior lobe of pituitary gland and is controlled by
(a) anterior pituitary hypothalamus.
(b) posterior pituitary • The main role of posterior pituitary is to store and
(c) pars intermedia of pituitary releases two hormones :-
(d) parathyroid (i) Oxytocin
AFMC-2007 (ii) Vasopressin / Anti-diuretic hormones (ADH).
111. Diabetes insipidus occurs due to hyposecretion of 115. Gonadotrophins are secreted from
(a) oxytocin (b) vasopressin (a) Gonads (b) Anterior pituitary
(c) thymosine (d) insulin (c) Posterior pituitary (d) Thyroid
AMU-2011 / Karnataka CET-2002 Punjab MET - 2010 / MGIMS Wardha-2009
Rajasthan PMT-1998 DUMET-2001 / JIPMER - 1996
Ans. (b) : Diabetes insipidus occurs due to hyposecretion Ans. (b) : Gonadotrophins are secreted from anterior
of vasopressin or Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH). ADH pituitary.
enable the kidney to retain water in the body. • Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating
• This disorder is called diabetes insipidus which is hormone (FSH)are collectively called gonadotropins.
characterized by producing dilute urine several times a day. • The pars distalis region of pituitary commonly called
112. LH in human female is anterior pituitary, produces LH and FSH.
(a) facilitates luteinisation of granulosa cells of 116. Posterior pituitary gland
ovulated follicle (a) Produces and store hormones
(b) called ovulation hormone (b) Stores 6 tropic hormones
(c) helps in milk ejection (c) Stores and releases ADH and oxytocin
(d) activates leydig cell to secrete androgen (d) Release and store growth and thyroid
BCECE-2014 JIPMER-2016 / MGIMS Wardha-2009
Ans. (b) : LH in human female is called ovulation Karnataka CET-2006 / JIPMER-2002
hormone. Rajasthan PMT-1995
• Menstrual cycle is controlled by the Luteinizing Ans. (c) : Posterior pituitary gland stores and releases
Hormone (LH) in women. It is also known as ADH and oxytocin. It is produced in the neurosecretory
gonadotropic hormones, from ovary LH trigger the cells of the hypothalamus.
release of an egg and this process is known as This posterior pituitary is also responsible for storing
ovulation. these two hormones and releasing them into the blood
when required : -
113. Gigantism and acromegaly are due to (i) Oxytocin facilitates childbirth and lactation.
(a) hypothyroidism (b) hyperthyroidism (ii) ADH helps in the reabsorption of water in the
(c) hypopituitarism (d) hyperpituitarism kidneys.
Uttarakhand PMT-2009/VMMC-2009/BVP-2009
JIPMER - 2012 / KVPY SA-2012/ JIPMER-1996
117. If the pituitary gland of an adult rat is
surgically removed, which of the following
Ans. (d) : Gigantism and acromegaly are due to endocrine glands will be less affected?
hyperpituitarism. Hyperpituitarism is defined as an (a) Adrenal cortex (b) Adrenal medulla
excessive secretion or production of one or more of the (c) Thyroid (d) Gonads
hormones produced by the pituitary gland. DUMET-2009 /JCECE-2012
Gigantism – Due to over-secretion of GH stimulates Ans. (b) : Adrenal medulla glands will be less affected if
abnormal growth of the body leading to gigantism. the pituitary gland of an adult rat is surgically removed.
Acromegaly – Excess secretion of growth hormones in • The adrenal medulla secretes two hormones called
adults especially in middle age can be result in severe adrenaline and noradrenaline. Both these hormones are
disfigurement (especially of the face). rapidly secreted in response to stress of any kind and
114. The patient in the picture possibly depicts an during emergency situations and are called emergency
instance of: hormones or hormones of Fight or Flight.
So, adrenal medulla won’t get effected if pituitary gland
of adult rat is surgically removed.
118. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary
hormone known as
(a) FSH (b) GH
(c) Prolactin (d) LH
GUJCET-2016 / JCECE - 2013,2009
CMC Vellore - 2012 / Manipal -2012
BHU PMT(mains) - 2010 / CMC Ludhiana-2009
(a) Myxoedema (b) Acromegaly AFMC - 2008 / DUMET – 2007/ AIPMT-2006
(c) Cretinisms (d) Simple goiter Ans. (a) : Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary
Karnataka CET-2003 hormone known as Follicle Stimulating Hormones
Ans. (b) : The patient in the picture possibly depicts an (FSH). Sertoli cells are present in the seminiferous
instance of acromegaly. tubules of the male gonads.
The symtoms of Acromegaly : Headaches, gaps • FSH is an essential hormone, necessary for maturation
between teeth, enlarged jaw, soft tissue swelling throat, of sperms along with LH.
oily skin , thickening, decreased vision with large 119. Hormone prolactin is secreted by :
tumours and leaky valves, left ventricle thickening (a) posterior pituitary (b) thyroid
(decreased pumping), Rib changes inhibit deep (c) anterior pituitary (d) hypothalamus
breathing. BCECE-2004
Ans. (c) : Prolactin hormones is secreted by the pars Ans. (a) : Dwarfism is childhood, such as Frohlic and
distalis region of pituitary glands commonly called Lorain dwarfs humans, develop due to hyposecretion of
anterior pituitary. somatotropin or GH.
• Prolactin regulates the growth of the mammary glands • Lorain dwarfism occurs due to malfunctioning of
and formation of milk in them. pituitary gland. In this syndrome suffering person is
120. Sella turcica is found mentally and physically normal but have short stature
Lorain response to growth hormone.
(a) near pituitary (b) m bones
• Frohlic dwarfisms occur during Frohlic syndrome
(c) in joints (d) near thyroid
which is due to the close association between pituitary
MGIMS Wardha-2010 / AIIMS-2001
and the hypothalamus and reduce pituitary function.
Ans. (a) : Sella turcica is found near pituitary. 124. Match the following with reference to
The sella turcica is a saddle-shaped depression in the endocrine disorders
body of the sphenoid bone of the human skull.
List-I List-II
(A) Addison's (I) Hypothyroidism
disease in adult
(B) Cushing's (II) Hypersecretion
disease of somatotropin
in adult
(C) Cretinism (III) Hyposecretion
of
glucocorticoids
(D) Myxoedema (IV) Hypothyroidism
during
pregnancy
121. Chromophil cells are found in: (E) Acromegaly (V) Over
(a) anterior pituitary (b) adrenal cortex production of
(c) thymus (d) testes glucocorticoids
Manipal-2006 The correct match is
Ans. (a) : Chromophil cells are found in anterior (a) A-III, B-V, C-IV, D-I, E-II
pituitary. Chromophil cells are mostly hormone- (b) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I
producing cells containing chromaffin granules. The (c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I, E-V
anterior pituitary is the front lobe of pituitary gland, (d) A-III, B-IV, C-V, D-I, E-II
which is a small, pea-sized gland located at the base of TS EAMCET-2015
brain below hypothalamus. Ans. (a) :
122. ______ hormone acts on the sertoli cells and
stimulates secretion of some factors which help
in the process of spermiogenesis?
(a) TSH (b) FSH
(c) LH (d) PIF
GUJCET-2022 / WB JEE-2014
JIPMER-2012 / BVP-2009
VMMC-2009 / Punjab MET-2006
Ans. (b) : FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) acts on
the sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors
which help in the process of spermiogenesis.
• FSH secreted by anterior pituitary gland FSH target
seminiferous tubule in testis and stimulate sperm 125. It regulates cell division, protein synthesis and
production. growth of the bone…
• Spermiogenesis is the last stage of smermatogenesis (a) Prolactin
in which spermatid mature into spermatozoa sertoli (b) Somatotropic hormone
cell is nourishment cell which have receptor for FSH (c) TSH
hormones. (d) MSH
123. Dwarfism in childhood, such as Frohlic and GUJCET-2011
Lorain dwarfs in humans, develop due to ___. Ans. (b) : Somatotrophic or growth hormone regulate
(a) hyposecretion of somatotropin cell division, protein synthesis and growth of the bone.
(b) hyposecretion of thyrotropin It promote movement of amino acids and its
(c) hyposecretion of thymosin incorporation into proteins thus, promoting overall
(d) hypersecretion of secretin tissue and organ growth. It does not have a particular
MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I target organ.
126. Melanocyte stimulating hormone is secreted 130. Formation of corpus luteum is induced by
by: (a) LH (b) Oestrogen
(a) intermediate lobe of pituitary (c) FSH (d) Progesterone
(b) posterior lobe of pituitary JIPMER-2018
(c) anterior lobe of pituitary Ans. (a) : Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulate
(d) all the above formation of corpus luteum in ovary and also stimulates
BVP-2001 / AIPMT-2000 secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum.
Ans. (a) : MSH is secreted by intermediate lobe of • This hormones is responsible for the release of ovum
pituitary. in the ovaries by the rupture of Graafian follicles and
• Anterior pituitary consist of two portions, pars therefore the formation of corpus luteum.
distalis and pars intermediate, however in humans the 131. Secretion is under control of neurosecretory
pars intermediate is almost merged with pars distalis. nerve axons in
• Pars distalis secrete–GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH, LH, FSH. (a) pineal gland (b) adrenal cortex
• Pars intermediate secrete only one hormone called (c) anterior pituitary (d) posterior pituitary
Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH). UP CPMT-2009 / AIPMT-2006
• MSH acts on melanocytes and increases Ans. (d) : Posterior pituitary store and release hormones
pigmentation of the skin. (oxytocin and vasopressin) which are actually
127. Assertion (A): Deficiency of vasopressin causes synthesized by the hypothalamus and are transported
diabetes mellitus. axonally to neurohypophysis. Thus posterior pituitary
Reason (R): It facilitates the reabsorption of secretion is under control of neurosecretory nerve axon.
water from the glomerular 132. Growth hormone and thyroxin increase the
filtrate. length of -
The correct option among the following is (a) Bone (b) Muscle
(a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct (c) RBC (d) Nerve cell
explanation for (A) AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I
(b) (A)is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the correct Ans. (a) : Growth hormone and thyroxin increases the
explanation for (A) length of bone.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false • Growth hormone also known as somatotropin is a 191 –
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true amino acid, single- chain polypeptide produced naturally,
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II and thyroxine (secreted from thyroid gland) increases the
Ans. (d) : Deficiency of vasopressin causes diabetes metabolism rate which in turn promote the growth.
insipidus not the diabetes mellitus which occurs due to 133. A person passes much urine and drinks much
insufficient metabolism of glucose, so assertion is water but his blood glucose level is normal.
incorrect. This condition may be the drink much water
• Vasopressin facilitates the reabsorption of water from but his blood glucose level is normal. This
the glomerular filtrate is correct statement about condition may be the result of:
vasopressin so, (R) is true. (a) A reduction in insulin secretion from pancreas
128. An adenohypophysis hormone which is (b) A reduction in vasopressin secretion from
regulated by feedback mechanism is posterior pituitary
(a) Oxytocin (b) TSH (c) A fall in the glucose concentration in urine
(c) Vasopressin (d) Cortisone (d) An increase in secretion of glucagon.
(e) Calcitonin AIIMS-2003
Kerala PMT-2009 Ans. (b) : Vasopressin or ADH (Anti–Diuretic Hormone)
Ans. (b) : An adenohypohysis hormone which is regulates secreted from posterior pituitary stimulates reabsorption of
by feedback mechanism is TSH (Thyroid Stimulating water by the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting
Hormone). TSH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of renal tubules and thus regulates water volume.
thyroid hormones from the thyroid gland. • It has no such important effect on glucose metabolism.
129. Which of the following pituitary hormones • Therefore, a person whose blood glucose level is
works indirectly? normal, but passes much urine and drinks much
(a) MSH (b) TSH water has a reduction in vasopressin secretion which
(c) GH (d) Oxytocin ultimately leads to diabetes insipidus.
JIPMER-2018
Ans. (b) : TSH hormone of pituitary works indirectly.
A hormone that has an its primary function to regulate
hormone secretion by another endocrine gland is
classified functionally as tropic hormone.
• TSH a tropic hormone from the anterior pituitary,
stimulate thyroid hormone secretion by the thyroid
gland.
134. Which one of the following is not secreted by 138. Identify from the following, a hormone
adenohypophysis? produced by the pituitary gland in both males
(a) Oxytocin and females but functional only in females.
(b) Adreno Cortico Tropic Hormone (a) Relaxin (b) Vasopressin
(c) Growth hormone (c) Somatotropic hormone (d) Prolactin
(d) Follicle Stimulating Hormone Karnataka CET-2005
MHT CET-2019 Ans. (d) : Prolactin hormone is produced in both male
Ans. (a) : The pituitary gland consists of two major part and females but functional only in females. Prolactin
in human larger anterior pituitary and small posterior stimulates breast development and milk production in
pituitary. women after child birth. It is also called luteotropic
hormone (LTH) or luteotropin.
• Anterior pituitary hormone : Growth hormone,
prolactin, adenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), 139. Which of the following pituitary hormones is
thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), FSH, LH, MSH secreted without the involvement of a releasing
(secreted by par intermediary). hormone (RH)?
(a) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
• Posterior pituitary hormone : Oxytocine,
vasopressin since, oxytocine is secreted by (b) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
neurohypophysis not by adenohypophysis. (c) Oxytocin
(d) Prolactin
135. ADH carries out following functions EXCEPT
WB JEE-2014
(a) Increases blood pressure
(b) Increases glomerular filtrate rate Ans. (c) : Oxytocin hormone is secreted without the
involvement of a releasing hormone by neurohypophysis
(c) Increases permeability for water in DCT which are synthesized by the hypothalamus.
(d) Increases Na+ excretion • TSH, FSH and prolactin are secreted with the
MHT CET-2016 involvement of a releasing hormone by adenohypophysis.
Ans. (d) : ADH secreted from posterior pituitary gland. 140. Pituitary lies in the sella turcica of
It main function is to regulate the amount of water in (a) Nasal (b) Vomer
the blood. It controls blood presence by acting on (c) Ethmoid (d) Sphenoid
kidneys. It increases reabsorption of water from distal
convoluted tubules by increased permeability of water. CMC Vellore-2011
It also increase glomerular filtration rate by increasing Ans. (d) : The pituitary gland is located in the sella
blood pressure. Increase Na+ excretion is not associated turcica of sphenoid bone and is attached to the
with ADH functions. hypothalamus by infundibulum. The pituitary gland
consists of two major parts in human, large anterior
136. Gorilla like man with large heads and pituitary and small posterior pituitary.
protruding jaws, is produced due to
(a) over secretion of thyroxine 141. Which of the following statement is correct for
pituitary gland?
(b) over secretion growth hormone since maturity
(i) Melanocyte stimulating hormone secretes
(c) excess of vitamin-C in diet from intermediate lobe of pituitary gland
(d) excess secretion of TSH (ii) The pituitary gland is located below the
CG PMT-2005 hypothalamus
Ans. (b) : Growth hormone results in stunted growth (iii) Oxytocin produces from posterior lobe of
resulting in pituitary dwarfism. pituitary gland
Acromegaly patient has a gorilla-like appearance with (iv) Somatotropic hormone secretes from
huge hand and legs. intermediate lobe of pituitary gland.
• Oversecretion of thyroxin : Cause Graves disease (a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (i), (iv), (iii)
(formation of exopthalamic goiter). (c) (i), (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
• Excess secretion of TSH : Causes hyperthyroidism. GUJCET-2017
• Excess intake of vitamin C : Cause kidney stones. Ans. (a) : Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH) is
secreted from intermediate lobe of pituitary gland and
137. At cellular level, GH affects growth by maintain pigmentation in vertebrates.
controlling die production of
• The pituitary gland is a pea-size gland located just
(a) rRNA (b) t-RNA below the hypothalamus which is connected to the
(c) mRNA (d) None of these pituitary via a bundle of nerve fibres. It is known as
CG PMT-2005 the master gland of the endocrine system.
Ans. (c) : At cellular level, GH affects growth by • Oxytocin is produced in the hypothalamus and is
controlling die production of mRNA. High production secreted into the bloodstream by the posterior
of proteins required for different functions in cells are pituitary gland.
leaded by increased production of mRNA. 142. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females
• GH stimulates protein anabolism in many tissues is controlled by circulating levels of
which causes, increased protein synthesis and decrease (a) progesterone and inhibin
oxidation of protein. (b) estrogen and progesterone
(c) estrogen and inhibin Ans. (b) : An endocrine gland in human, which play a
(d) progesterone only important role in the regulation of rhythm of the body is
NEET-2016 Phase-I pineal gland. The pineal gland secretes a hormone
Ans. (b) : GnRH (Gonadotropin releasing hormone) called melatonin and plays a very important role in the
pulse frequency is controlled by estrogen and regulation of a 24 hour rhythms of the body.
progesterone both after puberty. Inhibin, hormone
secreted by the granulosa cells in the ovaries of women
that acts primarily to inhibit the secretion of follicle-
stimulating hormone by the anterior pituitary gland.
List–I List–II
(A) Ovaprim (I) Membrane proteins
(B) Omega-3-fatty acid (II) Proinsulin
(C) Cadherins (III) Reduce chloesterol
(D) C-Peptide (IV) Synthetic analogue
gonadotropin
146. The function of pineal body is to
releasing agent
(a) lighten the skin colours
(V) Exotoxin
(b) control sexual behaviour
Options:
(c) regulates the period of puberty
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) IV V I II
UP CPMT-2008 / VMMC-2012 / JIPMER-2009
(b) V III I II Uttarakhand PMT-2008 / Manipal-2008
(c) IV III I II CGPMT-2008 / Rajasthan PMT-2008
(d) II I III IV BVP-2012, 2007 / MGIMS Wardha-2006
AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II Ans. (d) : The pineal gland is a tiny endocrine gland. It
Ans. (c) : is present in the epithalamus, close to the core of the
List- I List-II brain. It is known to secrete one hormone melatonin.
Ovaprim Synthetic analogue • Melatonin lighten the colour of skin in some specific
gonadotropin, releasing agent animals and also regulates working of gonads like
Omega-3-fatty acid It reduce cholesterol testes and ovaries.
Cadherins Is a membrane proteins • It is also essential for reproduction and in the control
of sexual maturation.
C - peptide Is a proinsulin
• The pineal gland has been found to inhibit gonadotropin-
144.Match the following based on their function releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus,
A. LTH 1. Regulates spermatogenesis which ultimately regulates puberty onset, sexual
B. FSH 2. Elongation of Bones development, and ovulatory cycles in female.
C. IGFs 3. Helps to sustain pregnancy 147. Which of the following statements are true
D. MSH 4. Regulates pigmentation regarding thyroid
(a) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4 A. Hormone produced by thyroid is responsible
(b) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4 for regulation of basal metabolic rate
(c) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1 B. Hormones T3 & T4 have opposite effect.
(d) A – 1, B – 4, C – 2, D – 3 C. Thyroid is a bilobed gland present in neck.
AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II D. Thyroid is ‘W’ shaped gland.
Ans. (b) : (a) A & C (b) B & D
List-I List-II (c) A, B & D (d) A & B
A. LTH (iii)It helps to sustain pregnancy TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
B. FSH (i)It regulates spermatogenesis Ans. (a) : The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland
C. IGFs (ii) Elongation of bones located in the neck. It produces two hormones, T3 and
D. MSH (iv) It regulates pigmentation T4. Which are responsible for regulating the basal
metabolic rate (BMR). The BMR is the rate at which
D. Pineal Gland your body burns calories at rest. T3 and T4 work
together to increase the MBR, which helps you to stay
145. An endocrine gland in human, which play a worm and have enough energy.
important role in the regulation of rhythm of So the statement (A) and (C) both are true.
the body is 148. After 14 years of age among men, the gland
(a) adrenal gland (b) pineal gland that disappears is:
(c) thymus (d) thyroid gland (a) pineal (b) thyroid
AP EAMCET-06.09.2021 Shift-I / GUJCET-2018 (c) para thyroid (d) thymus
J&K CET-2014 / AIPMT-2014 Punjab MET-2004
UP CPMT-2011 / JIPMER-2001 Manipal-2000
Ans. (d) : Thymus gland disappears after 14 years of 152. Which of the following statements are correct
age among men .The thymus gland is a small organ that with respect to the hormone and its function?
lies in the upper chest under the breastbone. It makes (A) Thyrocalconin (TCT) regulates the blood
white blood cells, called lymphocytes, which protect the calcium level.
body against infections. (B) In males, FSH and androgens regulate
spermatogenesis.
(C) Hyperthyroidism can lead to goitre.
(D) Glucocorticoids are secreted in Adrenal
Medulla.
(E) Parathyroid hormone is regulated by
circulating levels of sodium ions.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
149. The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor (a) (B) and (C) only (b) (A) and (D) only
for the synthesis of (c) (C) and (E) only (d) (A) and (B) only
(a) Cortisol and Cortisone
(b) Melatonin and Serotonin
(c) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronin Ans. (d) : TCT (Thyrocalcitonin) regulates the blood
(d) Estrogen and Progesteron calcium level. The thyroid gland is made up of two
lobes, the right and the left tobes joined together by an
NEET-2016 Phase-I
intermediate structure, the isthmus. Thyrocalcitonin
Ans. (b) : Tryptophan is the precursor of synthesis of appears to refine the action of parathyroid hormone in
melatonin and serotonin, which is a hormone secreted terms of its effects on bone, the primary regulator of
by the pineal gland. It is an essential amino acid and blood calcium.
therefore can not be produced in the body. It has to be
supplemented in the diet. ■ The spermatogenesis in human males is regulated by
FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) and androgen.
• Tryptophan is one of the alpha-amino acids used as a FSH stimulates testicular growth and enhances the
precursor for the synthesis of hormones. Melatonin and
serotonin are the neurotransmitters that are synthesized sertoli cells.
from the amino acid is Tryptophan. 153. Which of the following are NOT under the
150. Pineal gland of human brain secretes control of thyroid hormone?
melatonin concerned with A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte
(a) Colouration of skin (b) Sleep balance.
(c) Anger (d) Body temperature B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate
Karnataka CET-2007 C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle
Ans. (b) : The pineal gland secretes melatonin which is D. Development of immune system.
a hormone that help regulate circadian rhythms. E. Support the process of RBCs formation.
Melatonin is produced according to the amount of light Choose the correct answer from the options
a person is exposed to. The pineal gland releases greater given below:
amount of melatonin when it is dark which point to (a) D and E only (b) A and D only
melatonin role in sleep. (c) B and C only (d) C and D only
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
E. Thyroid Gland Ans. (d) : The cells of the immune system originate in
the bone marrow, where many of them also mature.
151. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Parathyroid hormone acts on • The thyroid gland produces hormones that regulate
bones and stimulates the the body's metabolic rate, growth and development.
process of bone resorption. • It plays a role in controlling heart, muscle and digestive
StatementsII : Parathyroid hormone along function, brain development and bone maintenance.
with Thyrocalcitonin plays a 154. Goitre can occur as a consequence of all the
significant role in carbohydrate following except
metabolism. (a) iodine deficiency
In the light of the above statements, choose the (b) pituitary adenoma
correct answer from the options given below : (c) graves disease
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (d) excessive intake of exogenous thyroxine
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false WB JEE-2009
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true Ans. (d) : Goitre can occur as a consequence of all the
following except excessive intake of exogenous
thyroxine. It can’t cause the goiter.
Ans. (c) : Statement-I is correct but statement-II is false
because parathyroid hormone is a hypercalcemic 155. Tetraiodothyronine refers to
hormone, which acts on bone and stimulates the process (a) 13 (b) Thyroxine
of bone resorption. PTH along with TCT plays a (c) TSH (d) TRH
significant role in the calcium balance in the body. AMU-2015
Ans. (b) : Tetraiodothyronine refers to thyroxine, because Ans. (d) : Thyroxine is the main hormone secreted by
thyroxine or tetraiodothyronin (T4) is a hormone produced the thyroid gland. One mg of thyroxine increases the
by follicular cells of the thyroid gland. It is the active form metabolic rate to about 15%. Thyroxine increases
of the thyroid hormone, thyroxine. metabolic rate by increasing the rate of chemical reactions
156. Which endocrine gland called…., secretes in cells of the body and thus results in increase in
calcitonin hormone which regulates the Ca++ in metabolic rate. When no thyroid hormone is produced the
blood by basal metabolic rate falls almost one half normal.
(a) Thyroid- reduction in Ca++ concentration 161. Which of the following glands is associated
(b) Thyroid –increase in Ca++ concentration with the consumption of iodised salt?
(c) Parathyroid- increases in Ca++ concentration (a) Ovary (b) Pituitary
(d) Parathyroid – reduction in Ca++ concentration (c) Thymus (d) Thyroid
Rajasthan PMT-1996 JIPMER-2001
Ans. (a) : Thyroid releases calcitonin based on the level Ans. (d) : Thyroid gland is associated with the
of calcium in our blood. Calcitonin is a hormone that helps consumption of iodised salts. Iodine is essential for the
control the level of calcium (Ca++)in our blood. thyroid gland to produced thyroxin hormone.
157. Which hormone acts opposite to the • This hormone control the metabolism of carbohydrate,
parathormone? proteins and fats .
(a) Corticosteron (b) Thyrocalcitonin
(c) Thyroxine (d) Mineral ocorticoids
Rajasthan PMT-1996
Ans. (b) : Thyrocalcitonin hormone acts opposite to the
parathormone. It is commonly known as calcitonin, is a
polypeptide hormone released by the thyroid gland's
parafollicular or C cells.
158. Chronical disturbance in hormone secretion of
thyroid gland causes
(a) goitre (b) diabetes
(c) Addison's disease (d) colour blindness
CG PMT-2010 / DUMET-2005 / UP CPMT-2003
Ans. (a) : Chronical disturbance in hormone secretion
of thyroid gland causes goitore. A goitore is the 162. Which of the following is discovered by Kendall?
swelling observed at the neck or in the larynx region,
resulting from enlargement of the thyroid (a) FSH and LH (b) Corticotrophin
(thyromegaly), related to a thyroid that’s not (c) Thyroxine (d) Insulin
functioning properly. J&K CET-2006
• Diabetes is a disease that occurs when your blood Ans. (c) : Thyroxine was discovered by Kendall in
glucose, also called blood sugar, is too high. Glucose 1950.
is your body’s main source of energy. 163. Hypoparathyroidism leads to:
• Addison's disease is a chronic condition in which (a) myxoedema (b) tachycardia
adrenal glands don't produce enough amount of the (c) tetany (d) rheumatoid arthritis
hormones cortisol and aldosterone. AP EAMCET-2001
• Color vision deficiency (sometimes called color Ans. (c) : Hypoparathyroidism leads to tetany. In
blindness) represents a group of conditions that affect children it leads to poor growth, slow mental
the perception of color. development, and abnormal teeth.
159. Growth hormone activity is
(a) increased by thyroxine
(b) unaffected by thyroxine
(c) decreased by thyroxine
Manipal-2011
Ans. (a) : Growth hormone activity is increased by
thyroxine. Thyroxine is a hormone produced by thyroid
gland. Thyroid hormone is required for normal growth
hormone synthesis and secretion.
160. One mg of thyroxin increases the metabolic
rate to about
(a) 2.5% (b) 5% It occurs when the parathyroid glands do not produce
(c) 10% (d) 15% enough parathyroid hormone. There are four small
AMU -2000 parathyroid glands in the neck behind the thyroid gland.
164. Pot-belly and pigeon-chest with protruding Addison’s disease : Under production of hormone by
tongue are the symptoms of the adrenal cortex alters carbohydrate metabolism
(a) cretinism causing acute weakness and fatigue leading to a disease
(b) gave's disease called addison’s disease.
(c) cushing's syndrome Bleeder’s disease : Bleeder’s disease is also known as
(d) simmond's disease haemophilia. It is a sex linked disease transmitted by
VMMC-2015 mother to their son characterized by loss or impairment
Ans. (a) : Pot-belly and pigeon-chest with protruding of the normal clotting ability of blood so that a minor
tongue are the symptoms of cretinism. Cretinism is a wound may result in fatal bleeding.
medical condition present at birth marked by impaired Cushing’s disease : Hypersecretion of cortisol cause
physical and mental development, due to insufficient
Cushing’s disease (syndrome). The prominent
thyroid hormone (hypothyroidism).
characteristic of this syndrome are related to the
• Deficiency of thyroxine in children causes cretinism.
exaggerated effects of glucocorticoid with the main
Pot-sbelly, pigeon-chest in children with physical and
mental retardnes are other symptoms of this disorder. symptoms caused by excessive gluconeogenesis.
165. Function of thyroxine hormone is: 168. Which is a 32-amino acid water soluble peptide
(a) To grow hormone?
(b) To develop (a) Gastrin (b) Calcitonin
(c) Self immunization (c) Glucagon (d) Insulin
(d) To control metabolism AMU-2010
Rajasthan PMT-2006 Ans. (b) : Calcitonin is a 32-amino acid water soluble
Ans. (d) : Function of thyroxine hormone is to control peptide hormone. It is produced by the C-cells of thyroid
metabolism. It regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat gland. It helps in lowering the calcium level in blood and
metabolism in the body. maintain the re-absorption of calcium in bones.
166. Deficiency of thyroid hormone causes 169. Physiologically active thyroxine exists in which
(a) exophthalmic goitre of the following form ?
(b) acromegaly
(a) Unbound
(c) myxoedema
(b) Bound to albumin
(d) hyperglycemia
JCECE-2008 / UP CPMT-2006 / AMU-1996 (c) Bound to globulin
Ans. (c) : Deficiency of thyroid hormone causes (d) All of the above
myxoedema. It is a condition in which insufficiency of WB JEE-2006
thyroid hormone. It is medically referred to as severely Ans. (a) : Physiologically active thyroxine exists only
advanced hypothyroidism. in the unbound form. Circulating thyroixine can be
• Exophthalmic goitre, also known as Graves disease, bound to albumin, thyroxine- binding prealbumin
is an autoimmune disease. It is a disease related to (TBPA), or thyroxine –binding globulin (TBG).
the thyroid gland and it is caused due to
• Circulating thyroxine can be found to albumin. Only the
hyperthyroidism.
free unbound form of thyroxine is physiologically active.
• Hyperglycemia is a condition in which an excessive
amount of glucose circulates in the blood plasma. 170. Given below are two statements : one is
• Acromegaly is a hormonal disorder that develops labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
when pituitary gland produces too much growth labelled as Reason (R).
hormone during adulthood. Assertion (A) : During pregnancy the level of
167. Increased blood pressure and heart rate, thyroxine is increased in the maternal blood.
deposition of fats in eye sockets and weight loss Reason (R) : Pregnancy is characterised by
are found in _______. metabolic changes in the mother.
(a) Addison's disease In the light of the above statements, choose the
(b) Grave's disease most appropriate answer from the options
(c) Bleeder's disease given below:
(d) Cushing's disease (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I / MHT CET-2017 correct explanation of (A)
GUJCET-2011
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Ans. (b) : Exophthalmic goiter is a form of
hyperthyroidism, characterised by enlargement of the
thyroid gland, protrusion of the eyeballs, increased (c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
basal metabolic rate, and weight loss, also called (d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
grave’s disease. NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
Ans. (a) : Higher level of thyroxine hormone are (a) X–Leydig cells – y-thyroxine
needed during pregnancy. (b) X– islets of langerhans, Y-glucagon
• The maternal contribution of thyroxine is essential for (c) X–Interstitial cells, Y-endolymph
the embryo to develop normal neurologic function. (d) X-parafollicular cells, Y-colloid
Thyroid hormone are important in normal brain MHT CET-2019
development and growth of the fetus.
Ans. (d) : In the given diagram of thyroide gland here
• Thyroxine plays vital roles in digestion, hearts & muscles is-X-shows parafollicular cells of thyroid gland Y-
function, brain development & maintenance of bones. shows colloid.
171. Which hormone possesses anti-insulin effect?
174. The isthmus which connects right and left lobes
(a) Cortisol (b) Calcitonin
(c) Oxytocin (d) Aldosterone of thyroid gland is located from____tracheal
AIPMT-1988 cartilages.
Ans. (a) : Insulin decreases the level of glucose in the (a) 1st to 3rd (b) 2 nd to 4 th
th th
blood while cortisol increase blood glucose level by (c) 5 to 7 (d) 6th to 8th
converting proteins and fats into glucose. MHT CET-2016
• During stress condition the counter regulatory hormones Ans. (b) : The thyroid gland consist of right and left
apart from cortisol, glucagon, adrenaline and growth
lateral lobes, one on either side of trachea which are
hormone are released during hypoglycoemia.
connected by thin median via isthmus that attached
• These hormones have insulin-antagonistic effect both
in the liver and in the peripheral tissue. from 2nd to 4th trachea ring and forms a ‘U’ or ‘H’
shape.
Set-I Set-II
A. Hyperthyroidism i. Myxoedema
B. Hyposecretion of ii. Addison's disease
glucocorticoids
C. Hypothyroidism iii. Increased
metabolic rate
D. iv. Cushing's
Hyperparathyroidism syndrome 175. The largest endocrine gland in human body is
(a) Thyroid (b) Pituitary
v. Kidney stones
(c) Adrenal (d) Parathyroid
The correct answer is:
MHT CET-2014
A B C D
(a) iii ii i v Ans. (a) : The largest endocrine gland in the human
(b) iii iv i ii body is thyroid gland. It produces hormones like thyroid
(c) i iv iii ii hormones and calcitonin. Thyroid gland is located on
either side of trachea and tissue isthmus.
(d) i ii iii v
AP EAMCET-2016 • It is composed of left and right lateral lobe on either
side of trachea that is connected by fibrous connective
Ans. (a) :
tissue isthmus.
A. Hyper-thyroidism – Increased metabolic rate
B. Hyposecretion of – Addison’s disease
Glucocoticoids
C. Hypothyroidism – Myxoedema
D. Hyperparathyroidism – Kidney stones
173. Given diagram is of T. S. of Thyroid gland
identify labels 'X' and 'Y'
176. Statement I: Thyroxine regulates the basal

metabolic rate
Statement II: Thyrocalcitonin plays an
important role in maintaining the calcium and
phosphate levels in blood.
The correct option among the following is 179. The basal metabolism rate of the body is
(a) Statement I and statement II are correct regulated by :
(b) Statement I and statement II are false (a) parathyroid (b) thymus
(c) Statement I is true statement II is false (c) pituitary (d) thyroid
(d) Statement I is false statement II is true Rajasthan PMT-2001
TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-II Ans. (d) : Thyroid hormone play an important role in
Ans. (a) : Statement I and II both are true because the regulation of the basal metabolic rate.
thyroxine hormone produced by the thyroid gland. It • It increases the basal metabolic rate in most tissues
increases the basal metabolic rate in most tissues by (exception include, brain, spleen testis) by
stimulating the use of cellular oxygen. stimulating the use of cellular oxygen.
• Thyrocalcitonin hormone secreted by parafollicular • When the basal metabolic rate increases, cellular
cells of the thyroid gland in response to high calcium metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids and protein
level in blood. It decreases the plasma calcium
increases.
concentration by decreasing mobilization of calcium
from bones. 180. Osteoid refers to
(a) the smallest bone of the body
(b) young hyaline matrix of true bone in which
List -I List-II
calcium salts are deposited
A Cretinism I Adult (c) membranous ossification of cranium
hypothyroidism
(d) the largest bone of the body
B Simple goiter II Congenital
WB JEE-2015
hypothyroidism
Ans. (b) : Osteoid refers to non-mineralized organic
C Cushings III Iodine deficient
tissue that eventually undergoes calcification and is
syndrome diet induced
hypothyroidism deposited as lamellae or layer in the bone matrix. •
Osteoid is a soft material which consist of collagen, that
D Myxodema IV Hypersecretion of
secreted by osteo-blast.
glucocorticoides
181. The immediate precursor of thyroxine is
(a) Tyrosine
A B C D
(a) II III I IV (b) Tryptophan
(b) I II III IV (c) Pyridoxine
(c) I III II IV (d) Thymidine
(d) II III IV I KVPY (SA)-05.11.2017
TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-II Ans. (a) : The immediate precursor of thyroxine is
Ans. (d) : tyrosine. Thyroxine hormone produced by thyroid
A. Cretinism → Congenital hypothyroidism gland. Which made up of from iodine and tyrosine.
B. Simple goiter → Iodine deficient diet induced • Tyrosine is an amino acid that the body naturally
hypothyroidism. produces from another amino acid called
phenylalanine.
C. Cushing’s syndrome → Hypersecretion of
glucocorticoides • Tyrosine is an essential precursor to thyroid
hormones and adrenal hormones.
D. Myxodema → Adult hypothyroidism.
182. Which hormone produces calorigenic effect?
178. Which organ absorbs maximum quantity of
lodine? (a) Thyroxine
(a) Thyroid (b) Liver (b) FSH
(c) Stomach (d) Pancreas (c) Insulin
Rajasthan PMT-1995 (d) All of these
Ans. (c) : Stomach absorbs maximum quantity of JIPMER-2015
iodine. Ans. (a) : Thyroxine is the primary hormone secreted
• Iodine rarely occurs as the element but rather as a salt by the thyroid gland. The calorigenic effect of thyroid
for their reason, it is referred to as iodide and not hormone is created as a sign of elevated metabolic rate
iodine. and increases oxygen consumption through cells. The
• Iodide is quickly and almost completely absorbed in calorigenic-effect means heat generation. Heat
the stomach and duodenum. generation is due to the action of thyroid hormones.
Ans. (a) : The hormone that regulates the blood
F. Parathyroid and Thymus calcium level is parathormone.
Parathormone, also known as parathyroid hormone
183. The hormone that increase blood calcium levels (PTH), is produced by the parathyroid glands and plays
by promoting absorption of Ca2+ from gastro a crucial role in maintaining calcium homeostasis in the
intestinal tract. blood. It increases calcium levels in the blood by
(a) Thyroxin (b) Calcitonin promoting the release of calcium from bones, enhancing
(c) Calcitriol (d) Catecholamines calcium absorption in the intestines, and reducing
Ans. (c) : The hormone that increase blood calcium calcium loss in the kidneys.
levels by promoting absorption of Ca2+ from the gastro 188. Secretion of which of the following hormones is
intestinal tract is calcitriol. Calcitriol is the active form not pituitary dependant?
of vitamin D. It is produced in the kidneys and help to (a) Triiodothyronine (b) Testosterone
increase the absorption of calcium from the intestines. (c) Glucocorticoids (d) Parathyroid hormone
184. Identify of the incorrect statement among the AMU-2015
following Ans. (d) : Parathyroid hormone secretion is
(a) Sella turcica is a bony cavity in which independent of the pituitary and directly controlled by
pituitary gland is located the parathyroid. Rests of the glands are under the
(b) Parathyroid hormone decreases the Ca+2 regulation of pituitary.
levels in blood Testosterone is the male sex hormone which play
(c) Thymosin plays a major role in T-cell important role in forming the male reproductive part
differentiation such as testes.
(d) The middle zone of adrenal cortex is zona Triiodothyronine is one of the two main hormones that
fasiculata your thyroid gland releases into your blood stream.
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I Glucocorticoids ACTH stimulates the synthesis and
Ans. (b) : Parathyroid hormone increases the Ca2+ secretion of steroid hormones called glucocorticoids.
levels in blood. Ca2+ is the abbreviation for calcium ion which is secreted from the adrenal cortex.
concentration in blood. Parathroid hormone regulate the 189. If parathyroid gland degenerates which activity
calcium levels in the blood by stimulating the is disturbed?
breakdown of bone to release calcium into the blood. (a) Growth
185. The most accepted theory of ageing is: (b) Calcium concentration
(a) Less RBC in blood (c) Potassium concentration
(b) Thymus gland becomes non-functional (d) Sodium concentration
(c) Brain cells die with ageing BVP-2010
(d) All of above Ans. (b) : If the parathyroid gland degenerates the
WB JEE-2006 calcium concentration is disturbed. This can result in
Ans. (b) : The most accepted theory of ageing is lower calcium levels in the blood, potentially causing
thymus gland becomes non-functional. The immune muscle weakness, spasms, and other calcium-related
system is programmed to decline its functions over issues. This hormone regulates calcium and phosphate
time, and this fact is the main cause of aging. balance between blood and other tissue.
186. Gland responsible for calcium metabolism is 190. Hassall corpuscles are characteristic of :
(a) Thymus (b) Thyroid (a) Thymus (b) Adrenal
(c) Parathyroid (d) Adrenal (c) Pineal (d) Pancreas
UP CPMT-2011 / Rajasthan PMT-2009 AFMC -2011 / DUMET-2006
Punjab MET-2009 / UP CPMT-2009 Ans. (a) : Hassall corpuscles are characteristic of
CMC Vellore-2009 thymus. It is mainly present in medulla of thymus in
Ans. (c) : Parathyroid gland responsible for calcium human. Hassall corpuscles discovered by the ‘Arthur
metabolism. It plays an important role in the regulation Hill Hassall’ in 1846.
of the body's calcium balance. 191. The modern idea about ageing is that our body
Thymus gland- It is located in the chest behind the slowly loses the power of defence against the
breastbone. It consist of T-lymphocyte cell. invasion of germs and pathogens. This process
Adrenal gland- It is located on the top of kidney in both starts by the disappearance of which organ?
side (left and right) which is cap like structure secretes two (a) Spleen (b) Thymus gland
hormone i.e. Adrenaline and non adrenaline. (c) Pituitary gland (d) Parathyroid gland
Thyroid gland- The thyroid gland is a butterfly- shaped UP CPMT-2001
organ located in the base of your neck. Ans. (b) : The modern idea about ageing is that our
187. The hormone that regulates the calcium level of body slowly loses the power of defence against the
blood is invasion of germs and pathogens. This process starts by
(a) Parathormone (b) Thyroxine the disappearance of thymus gland. During the
(c) Insulin (d) Glucagon involution of the thymus, the cortex became thin.
DUMET-2009 / Punjab MET-2004, 2003 Lymphocytes disappear and are replaced by the fat
Manipal-2000 / Punjab MET-1999 tissue. This loss of lymphocytes will result in decreased
Rajasthan PMT-1995 / AP EAMCET-1998 immune power.
192. Growth in the first 10-13 years of age is Ans. (d) : Parathormone (PTH) increases blood Ca level
controlled by and decreases bone Ca level, which is secreted by
(a) Somatotropic hormone parathyroid gland. PTH plays a crucial role in regulating
(b) Thyroxine calcium and phosphate homeostasis in the body, ensuring
(c) Thymosin the blood calcium levels are maintained within a narrow
(d) Gonadotropic hormone range for proper physiological functions.
CG PMT-2007 198. Which of the following hormones is correctly
Ans. (c) : Growth in the first 10-13 years of age is matched with its deficiency disease?
controlled by thymosin. It stimulates the development (a) Relaxin - Cretinism
of T cells. This hormone is produced by the pituitary (b) Parathormone - Tetany
gland and plays a crucial role in stimulating the growth (c) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
of bones and tissues during childhood and adolescence. (d) Prolactin - Astigmatism
193. Parathormone induces: AFMC-2010 / Kerala PMT-2009
(a) Increase in blood sugar level CG PMT-2006, 2004
(b) Decrease in serum calcium level Ans. (b): Hormones that is correctly matched with its
(c) Increase in serum calcium level deficiency disease is - Parathormone – Tetany. Due to
(d) Decrease in blood sugar level hypo-secretion of parathyroid hormone tetany is occur.
Haryana PMT-1999 Cretinism – Neurological cretinism is now thought to
Ans. (c) : Parathormone is known as parathyrin. It be predominantly caused by maternal hypothyroidism
increase the calcium level in Serum. Parathormone due to iodine deficiency.
secreted by parathyroid gland. It is mainly responsible Astigmatism – Astigmatism happen when your cornea
for the maintenance of calcium and phosphorus. or lens has a different shape than normal.
194. Parathormone deficiency in man causes Diabetes insipidus- Diabetes insipidus is a rare
disorder that causes the body to make too much urine.
(a) Hypercalcemia (b) Hypocalcemia
(c) Goiter (d) All of these 199. Osteitis fibrosa cystica develops due to the
CG PMT-2006, 2005 (a) hyper parathyroidism
(b) hypothyroidism
Ans. (b) : Parathormone deficiency in man causes
hypocalcemia. It is a condition in which there are lower- (c) hyperthyroidism
than-average levels of calcium in the liquid part of the (d) hypoparathyroidism
blood, or the plasma. Hypercalcemia is a condition in CMC Ludhiana-2015
which the calcium level in your blood is above normal. Ans. (a) : Oteitis fibrosa cystica (OFC) is a skeletal
195. Parathyroid hormone is a : disorder caused by an over production of parathyroid
(a) Peptide (b) Carbohydrate hormone from the overactive parathyroid gland. It is
first described by ‘Recklinghausen’ in 1891. This type
(c) Lipid (d) Steroid of disease is caused by hyperparathyroidism in which
Haryana PMT-2003 condition parathyroid gland produced much PTH.
JCECE-2004
200. Which of the following are not the effects of
Ans. (a) : The parathyroid glands secrete a peptide Parathyroid hormone?
hormone (84-Amino acid) called parathyroid hormone (A) Stimulates the process of bone resorption
(PTH). parathyroid hormone regulates the serum (B) Decreases Ca2+ level in blood
calcium concentration through its effects on bone, (C) Reabsorption of Ca2+ by renal tubules
kidney and intestine.
(D) Decreases the absorption of Ca2+ from
196. Which of the following hormone is responsible digested food
for regulation of calcium levels in our blood? (E) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates
(a) ACTH (b) Oxytocin Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(c) MSH (d) Thyrocalcitonin options given below:
JCECE-2015 (a) (B) and (C) only
Ans. (d) : Thyrocalcitonin hormone is responsible for (b) (A) and (C) only
regulation of calcium levels in our blood. Which is (c) (B), (D) and (E) only
secreted by thyroid glands. (d) (A) and (E) only
It decreases calcium and phosphate levels in the blood NEET-2022
and stimulates bone growth. Ans. (c) : The parathyroid glands produces & secrete
197. Parathormone (PTH) PTH (Parathyroid hormone) a peptide hormone in
(a) Increases blood Ca level response to low blood Ca++ levels.
(b) Decreases bone Ca level PTH secretion causes the release of calcium from the
(c) Decreases blood Ca level bones by stimulating osteoclast which secrete calcium
(d) Increases blood Ca level and decreases bone from bone into intestinal fluid. It also increases the
Ca level reabsorption of calcium ions from renal tubule and
JIPMER-2004 digested food. PTH also decreases the metabolism of
AMU-1996 carbohydrates.
201. Given below are two statements: one is labelled humoral immunity. Thymus gland is associated with the
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as development of immune system.
Reason (R). So, the removal or absence of thymus in early life shall
Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterized by bring about lack of lymphocytes, antibodies and lymph
decreased bone mass and increased chance of nodes.
fracture. 204. Increase in bleeding time and delay in blood
Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is coagulation is due to the deficiency of which
increased levels of estrogen. hormone?
In the light of the above statements, choose the (a) Adrenaline (b) Noradrenaline
most appropriate answer from the options (c) Parathormone (d) thyroxine
given below. UP CPMT-2007
(a) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct Ans. (c) : Parathormone is a peptide hormone is
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the released by the parathyroid gland. In the blood Ca++
correct explanation of (A) level is increased by parathormone.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the The deficiency of parathormone is increased in bleeding
correct explanation of (A) time and delay the blood coagulation.
(d) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
205. A gland called 'Clock of ageing' that gradually
NEET-2022 reduces and degenerates in ageing is
Ans. (d) : Osteoporosis is due to decreased levels of (a) Thyroid (b) Thymus
estrogen. Calcium play an important role in (c) Parathyroid (d) Pituitary
osteoporosis.
AIIMS-2014
• Osteoporosis is an age related disorder characterized
by decreased bone mass. Hence, the chances of Ans. (b) : The Thymus gland also known as “clock of
fractures increase. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) ageing”. The Thymus gland help in the development of
plays an important role for in formation of bones. So, immune system.
assertion is correct but reason is not correct. Thymus gland secrete a peptide hormone called
thymosin. The main function of thymus to stimulate the
production of T-cell (T-lymphocytes)
Thymus gland starts to shrink after puberty.
202. Which of the following conditions will stimulate

parathyroid gland to release parathyroid
hormone ?
(a) Rise in blood Ca+2 levels
(b) Fall in active Vitamin D levels 206. Match the source gland with its respective
(c) Fall in blood Ca+2 levels hormone and function and select the correct
+2
(d) Fall in bone Ca levels option
NEET (Odisha)-2019 / WB JEE-2011 Source Hormone Function
VMMC-2007 / Rajasthan PMT-2005 gland
Ans. (c) : Parathyroid hormone is also known as (i) Anterior Oxytocin Contraction
parathormone or parathyrin. It is secreted by the pituitary of uterine
parathyroid glands. Its main function includes bone muscles
remodeling by releasing more PTH when the calcium in
our blood goes to low, which increases the blood (ii) Anterior Vasopressin Induces
calcium level that is released from bones. pituitary reabsorption
Parathyroid hormone also stimulation resorption of ca2+ of water in
2+
by the renal tubules and increases Ca absorption from nephron
digestion food. (iii) Thymus Thymosin Proliferation
203. Removal or absence of thymus in early life of T-
shall bring about lymphocytes
(a) lack of lymphocytes (b) lack of antibodies (iv) α-cells of Glucagon Uptake of
(c) lack of lymph nodes (d) All of the above islets of glucose into
UP CPMT-2009 / Rajasthan PMT-1998 Langerhans the cell.
Ans. (d) : Thymus gland secreted thymosin hormones it (a) (ii) (b) (iv)
helps in the differentiation of T-cell (lymphocytes) and (c) (iii) (d) (i)
promotes the production of antibodies that include AIIMS-2013
Ans. (c) : Thymus releases thymosin which aids in 209. Identify the hormones that regulate calcium
proliferation of T-lymphocytes. levels in the human body ?
The thymus produces progenitor cells, which mature A. Calcitonin
into T-cells (thymus-derived cells). B. Thyroxine
The body uses T-cells to destroy infected or cancerous C. Cortisol
cells. T-cells created by the thymus which help in D. Parathyroid hormone
growth of organs in the immune system. (a) A and B (b) A and D
• Glucagon stimulates liver to convert stored glycogen (c) B and C (d) C and D
into glucose which raises the blood sugar level TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-I
secreted by α-cells of pancreas. MP PMT-2013 / JIPMER-2011
• Oxytocin is released by posterior pituitary. Ans. (b) : Calcitonin and parathyroid both hormone
• Vasopressin increases the amount of urine by regulates the calcium levels in the human body.
decreasing re-absorption of water from DCT and • Calcitonin is peptide hormone secreted by parafollicular
collecting tubules. It stimulates the contraction of cells of thyroid gland. Thyroid cells produce calcitonin
walls of blood vessels released by posterior pituitary. in response to high calcium levels in the blood. It
207. Which of the following hormones coordinate decrease plasma calcium concentration by decreasing
with each other to maintain ideal blood Ca mobilization of calcium from bones.
level? • Parathyroid hormone secreted by parathyroid gland
(a) Thyrocalcitonin and glucagon which increases calcium levels in blood.
(b) Parathyroid hormone and cortisol • Parathyroid hormone stimulates the removal of
(c) Thyrocalcitonin and Thyroxine calcium from the bones to increase levels in blood.
(d) Thyrocalcitonin and Parathyroid hormone 210. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to–
AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-II / BCECE-2007 (a) a reduction in hemoglobin content of blood
Rajasthan PMT-2000 (b) a reduction in stem cell production
Ans. (d) : Both the hormones, thyrocalcitonin and (c) loss of antibody mediated immunity
parathyroid co-ordinate with each other to maintain (d) loss of cell mediated immunity
blood calcium level. Uttarakhand PMT-2010 / Manipal -2009
• High parathyroid hormone cause Osteoporosis. Karnataka CET-2009 / JIPMER-2007
• Low parathyroid hormone cause Tetany disease. Ans. (d) : Damage to thymus in a child may lead to loss
• Thyrocalcitonin hormone works in opposition of of cell mediated immunity because thymus produce
parathyroid hormone. This hormone decreases the hormones thymosin, thymic humoral factor, thymic factor
blood calcium level, while parathyroid hormone and thymopoietin that promote the maturation of T- cell.
increases the level of calcium in the body. • Thymus hormones called thymosin that stimulates the
development and differentiation of T-cells. In the
208. In which of the following the hormone is
absence of thymus, T- cell not develop and differentiate
incorrectly matched with its source and
thus, cell mediated immunity loss.
function?
Hormone Source Function 211. Hypercalcemic hormone is
(a) Aldosterone (b) Calcitriol
(i) Glucocorticoids Adrenal Produces anti-
Cortex inflammatory (c) PTH (d) TCT
reaction MHT CET-2016
(ii) Vasopressin Posterior Stimulates Ans. (c) :
pituitary reabsorption • Parathyroid hormone increases the blood calcium
of water and levels by stimulating removal of calcium from the bone.
electrolytes PTH has balanced between the blood and tissues. It
(iii) Parathyroid Thyroid Decreases the works on bones and mobilizes the Ca2+ from the bones
blood Ca2+ into the blood.
level
Thus, parathyroid hormone is called as hypercalcemic
(iv) Melatonin Pineal Maintains hormone.
gland sleep-wake 212. The hormone that stimulates the reabsorption
cycle of Ca++ ions in the uriniferous tubules is
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (a) Parathormone (b) Calcitonin
(c) (iii) (d) (iv) (c) Thyroxine (d) Vasopressin
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-I TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-II
Ans.(a): Parathyroid hormone increase the reabsorption
Ans. (c) : The parathyroid glands are small glands of calcium by the renal tubules of kidney so that less is
present on the back side of the thyroid gland. lost in urine. At the same time, it stimulate the loss of
• They secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH) which phosphate in the urine.
increases levels of calcium in the blood. • It also stimulates kidney to secrete calcitriol which in
Hence, parathyroid hormone is incorrect match with its turn increases calcium absorption from the digested
function. food in the gut.
213. Tetany is caused by 218. A gland which gradually atrophies at the age of
(a) Hyperparathyroidism 14-16 due to the activities of sex gland is
(b) Hypoparathyroidism (a) Thyroid (b) Parathyroid
(c) Hyperthyroidism (c) Pancreas (d) Pineal
(d) Hypothyroidism (e) Thymus
WB JEE-2011 CMC Vellore-2008
Ans. (b) : Ans. (e) : Thymus gland is prominent at birth which is a
• Hypoparathyroidism leads to low concentration of lymphoid organ of the immune system. It grows during
calcium in blood causing neurons and muscle fibers to childhood, but gradually decreases in size after puberty.
depolarize and produce action potentials spontaneously. 219. Which of the following statement is wrong?
This leads to twitches, spasms and tetany of skeletal (a) Sella turcica is a boney cavity where the
muscle. Since, tetany is caused by hypoparathyroidism. pituitary gland is located
214. Which gland atrophies in adult? (b) Parathyroid hormone decreases the Ca2+
(a) Pituitary (b) Thymus levels in blood
(c) Thyroid (d) Adrenal (c) Thymosins play a major role in T cell
DUMET-2006 differentiation
Ans. (b) : The primary function of thymus gland to (d) The middle layer of adrenal cortex is zona
form the T-lymphocyte cell which is a immune fasciculata
component. In adult the thymus gland is inactive. (e) Insulin stimulates glycogenesis
• Thymus gland is prominent gland at birth but Kerala PMT-2014
gradually atrophies in the adult. Ans. (b) : Parathyroid hormone not decreases the Ca2+
215. Thymosin hormone is secreted by levels in the blood, it increases levels of calcium in
(a) thyroid gland (b) parathyroid gland blood by stimulating removal of calcium from bones.
(c) thymus gland (d) hypothalamus • It is also known as hypercalcemic hormone.
DUMET-2011 220. Which hormone stimulates the development
Ans. (c) : Thymosin hormone is secreted by thymus and differentiation of T-lymphocytes
gland. (a) Paranthomone (b) Thyrocalcitonin
• Thymus hormones called thymosins (thymosin, (c) Thyroxine (d) Thymosin
thymic humoral factor, thymic factor and thymopoietin) GUJCET-2018
that promote maturation of T cells. They play a role in Ans. (d): Thymosin is secreted by thymus gland. It
regulating the immune system by stimulating other plays a major role in the differentiation of T-
kinds of immune cells as well. lymphocytes which provide cell mediated immunity.
216. Which of the following activities in disturbed, if Thymosin is a 5-Da polypeptide hormone secreted by
parathyroid gland degenerates? the thymus gland.
(a) Growth • Thyrocalcitonin is a hormone, also called calcitonin,
(b) Sodium concentration produced by the thyroid gland that lowers the levels
(c) Potassium concentration of calcium and phosphate in the blood and promotes
the formation of bone.
(d) Calcium concentration
J&K CET-2013 • Thyroxine is the main hormone secreted in to the
bloodstream by the thyroid gland. It is the inactive form
Ans. (d) : If the parathyroid gland degenerates calcium and most of it is converted to an active form called
concentration disturbed because parathyroid gland triidothyronine by organs such as the liver and kidney.
regulate calcium concentration in blood.
221. The blood calcium level is lowered by the
• It increases calcium concentrations in blood by
deficiency of:
stimulating removal of calcium from bones as well as it
(a) Both calcitonin and parathormone
increases the reabsorption of calcium from renal tubules
of the kidney. (b) Calcitonin
(c) Parathormone
217. Mammalian thymus is mainly concerned with
(d) Thyroxine
(a) Regulation of body temperature
AIPMT-2008 / AIPMT-1999
(b) Regulation of body growth
Ans. (c) : Parathormone is a peptide hormone secreted
(c) Immunological functions
by the parathyroid glands. It is a hypercalcemic
(d) Secretion of thyrotropin hormone. It increases the calcium level in blood by
Rajasthan PMT-2008 promoting demineralization of bones, reabsorption of
CG PMT-2008 calcium from the renal tubules and absorption in the
Ans. (c) : Mammalian thymus is mainly concerned with intestine. Thus, deficiency of parathormone (PTH) leads
immunological functions because thymus secrete to the lower blood calcium level.
thymosins hormone that stimulate the development and 222. A person is having problems with calcium and
differentiation of T-lymphocytes. They play a role in phosphorus metabolism in his body. Which one
regulating immune system by stimulating other kinds of of the following glands may not be functioning
immune cells. properly ?
(a) Thyroid (b) Parathyroid 225. Which gland decreases in size with increasing
(c) Parotid (d) Pancreas age
Rajasthan PMT-2010 / AIPMT-2007 (a) Thyroid (b) Adrenal
Ans. (b) : In humans, there are four parathyroid glands (c) Thymus (d) Pituitary
that are present on the backside of the thyroid gland. AP EAMCET-05.10.2021 Shift-I / WB JEE-2007
CG PMT-2004 / AIPMT-1999
• The parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone
(PTH). Ans. (c) : The thymus is formed from two lobes, each
consisting of a central medulla and an outer cortex,
• PTH regulates the metabolism of calcium and surrounded by a capsule.
phosphorus in the body.
• Macrophages found in the thymus are known as the
• PTH promotes calcium reabsorption and decrease "garbage trucks" of the immune system because they
phosphate reabsorption by kidney tubules. eat foreign matter.
• The thymus is extremely active from before birth
until puberty, but gland decrease in size with
increasing age and it functions as both a lymphatic
organ and an endocrine organ.
226. Which one of the following four glands is
correctly matched with the accompanying
description?
(a) Thyroid – Hyperactivity in young
children causes cretinism
223. Study the following statements (b) Thymus – Starts undergoing atrophy
(I) Somatotropin and somatostatin are released after puberty
from hypothalamus and are antagonistic to (c) Parathyroid – Secretes parathormone,
each other which promotes movement
of calcium ions from blood
(II) Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by into bones during
glucosuria and formation of ketone bodies calcification
(III) Parathyroid hormone is a protein (d) Pancreas – Delta cells of the islets of
(IV) Catecholamines and cortisol stimulate Langerhans secrete a
gluconeogenesis hormone, which stimulates
Correct statements are : glycolysis in liver
Options: AP EAMCET-2011
(a) I, III (b) II, IV Ans. (b) : Thymus starts undergoing Atrophy after
(c) I, II (d) III, IV puberty.
AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II • The thymus is extremely active from before birth
Ans. (d) : Parathyroid hormone is a peptide hormone. It until puberty, but gland decrease in size with
releases from parathyroid gland and regulate the blood increasing age and it functions as both a lymphatic
calcium level. Gluconeogenesis is stimulated by the organ and an endocrine organ.
glucagon, growth hormone, cortisol and epinephrine. • Thyroid- Hyperthyroidism can affect anyone at any
Somatotropin also known as human growth hormone. It age, though it tends to occur more frequently in women
is synthesis by the somatotropic cells of anterior in their 30s and 40s and in those who have a family
Pituitary. history of autoimmune disease. There are several causes
of hyperthyroidism, most commonly, grave's disease.
Cushing’s syndrome happen when the body has too
much of the hormone cortisol for a long time. • Parathyroid glands release parathormone (PTH)
which controls the calcium levels in the blood stream.
224. Hormone parathormone or parathyroid • Pancreas- α cells of the islets of Langerhans secrete
hormone, secreted by parathyroid gland, is a hormone, glucagon. Glucagon's role in the body is
responsible for prevent blood glucose levels from dropping too low.
(a) Regulate absorption and reabsorption of
calcium by intestine and in kidney
(b) Regulate quantity of calcium and phosphate G. Adrenal Gland and Pancreas
ion in blood 227. Identify the correct option
(c) regulate absorption (by intestine) reabsorption in Statement – I (SI) – Hypo secretion of Cortisol
kidney and quantity of Ca2+ in blood result s in low blood pressure
(d) All of the above statement are correct Statement – II (SII) – Elevated levels of
regarding parathormone
Cortisol leads to hyperglycemia
UP CPMT-2014 (a) Statement – I and Statement – II are correct.
Ans. (d): Parathormone or parathyroid hormone is a (b) Statement–I is wrong and Statement–II is
secretion of parathyroid gland. The secretion of this correct
gland regulate absorption and responsible of calcium (c) Statement–I is correct and Statement–II is
ion by intestine and in kidney quantity of phosphate and wrong
calcium in blood. (d) Statement – I and Statement – II are wrong.
Ans. (a) : Hyposecretion of cortisol can lead to 232. Assertion: Adrenal gland is also called as 4-S
Addison's disease, which is characterized by low blood gland.
pressure, weight loss, fatigue and darkening of the skin. Reason: Hormones of adrenal gland regulate
• Elevated levels of cortisol can lead to Cushin's salt retention, sugar metabolism, sex hormone
syndrome, which is characterized by high blood pressure, secretion and sources of energy for increased
weight gain, muscle weakness, and mood disorders. metabolism.
So, both statements are true. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
228. Function of aldosteron is Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(a) Secretion of water and NH3 into urine (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
(b) Secretion of H+ and K+ ions into urine Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion
(c) Stimulation of re absorption of HCO3− from
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
urine
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(d) Stimulation of re absorption of Na+ and water VMMC-2011
form renal tubules.
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-I Ans. (a) : Adrenal gland is also called as 4-S gland
Ans. (d) : The function of aldosterone is to increase the because hormones of adrenal gland regulate 'salt
reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys. This is retention, sugar metabolism, sex hormone secretion and
done by binding to mineralocorticoid receptors in the sources of energy for increased metabolism.
cells of the kidney tubules. When aldosterone binds to Hence, both assertion and reason are true and reason is
these receptors, it activates a series of proteins that the correct explanation of assertion.
transport sodium and water into the blood stream. 233. Production of glucose from amino acids, fatty
229. Fight or flight responses are due to acids and glycerol is called
(a) Release of adrenal medullary hormones and (a) Glycogenesis (b) Gluconeogenesis
low sympathetic tone (c) Glycogenolysis (d) Glycolysis
(b) Release of corticoids and low sympathetic VMMC-2011
tone Ans. (b) : Production of glucose from amino acids, fatty
(c) Release of adrenal medullary hormones and acids and glycerol is called gluconeogenesis.
high sympathetic tone Glycogenesis – The process of formation of Glycogen
(d) Release of adrenal medullary hormones and in which glucose molecule are added to chain of
high parasympathetic tone Glycogen for storage.
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I Glycogenolysis – In this process the glycogen converts
Ans. (c) : The fight or flight response is caused by the into Glucose.
release of adrenal medullary hormones, such as Glycolysis–In this process glucose converted in Pyruvate.
adrenaline and norepinephrine and high sympathetic
tone. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for 234. The chemical nature of hormones secreted by α
the fight or flight response. It is activated when the and β cells of pancreas is
body percieve a threat. (a) Glycolipid (b) Glycoprotein
230. Which of the hormones is a polypeptide (c) Steroid (d) Polypeptide
(a) LH (b) FSH WB JEE-2009
(c) insulin (d) thyroxine Ans. (d) : The chemical nature of hormones secreted by
AMU-1999 α and β cells of pancreas is polypeptide. A polypeptide
Ans. (c) : Insulin hormones is a polypeptide and it is is a string or linear chain of amino acids linked together.
produced by the pancreas which regulates blood sugar Amino acids are the basic building blocks of proteins.
levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells and Glycolipids are a type of complex lipids comprising
promoting its storage as glycogen. carbohydrates, fatty acids, sphingolipids or a glycerol
group. Glycoproteins are molecules that comprise
231. Hormones secreted by pancreas are:
protein and carbohydrate chains that are involved in
(a) ACTH (b) Oxytocin
many physiological functions including immunity.
(c) LH and FSH (d) insulin and glucagon
KVPY SA-2014 / WB JEE-2006 235. Islets of Langerhans are found as
J&K CET-2006 / DUMET-2005 (a) Anterior pituitary (b) Kidney cortex
UP CPMT-2003 / Rajasthan PMT-1995 (c) Spleen (d) Endocrine pancreas
Ans. (d) : Hormones secreted by pancreas are insulin VMMC-2012 / WB JEE-2010
and glucagon. CG PMT-2008 / Rajasthan PMT-2008
Glucagon is secreted by Alpha cells of the islets of UP CPMT-2008
Langerhans. Ans. (d) : Islets of Langerhans are found as endocrine
Insulin:- It maintains the levels of glucose in blood. pancreas. The renal cortex is also known as the kidney
ACTH – The anterior pituitary produces ACTH, it is cortex. The cortex surrounds the inside of the organ,
considered a tropic hormone. which is called the medulla, when adrenaline secreted, it
Oxytocin – Hypothalamus makes oxytocin but posterior increased the heart beat rate, blood pressure. It also
pituitary gland stores and releases it into blood stream. increase the breathing rate.
236. Which is the function of nor-epinephrine? Ans. (b) : Adrenal medulla is not produced from
(a) Increase blood pressure mesoderm. The adrenal medulla is derived from the
(b) Urine formation neural crest, which is of ectodermal origin. The adrenal
(c) Increase secretion of adrenaline medulla is located inside the adrenal cortex in the center
(d) None of the above of an adrenal gland. It produces “stress hormones,”
Rajasthan PMT-2006, 2004 including adrenaline.
Ans. (a) : Norepinephrine is used to increase and 242. Addisons disease results from
maintain blood pressure in limited, short-term serious (a) hypertrophy of gonad
health situations. It is the precursor of epinephrine that (b) hyposecretion of adrenal cortex
is secreted by the adrenal medulla and is a widespread (c) hyperactivity of leydig cells
central and autonomic neurotransmitter.
Hence, increase blood pressure is the function of non- (d) none of the above
epinephrine. BHU PMT (Screening)-2011 / BVP-2008
Uttarakhand PMT-2007 / JCECE-2004
237. Which of the following is both exocrine and Haryana PMT-2003
endocrine gland?
(a) Liver (b) Pancreas Ans. (b) : Addison's disease results from hyposecretion
(c) Thyroid (d) Adrenal of adrenal cortex. It is a chronic condition in which your
HP CET-2012 / VMMC-2004
adrenal glands do not produce enough of the hormones
JIPMER-2004 / Punjab MET-2003 cortisol and aldosterone.
AFMC-2000 / Manipal-2001 It is 3– characterized by excessive loss of Na+, Cl– and
Ans. (b) : Pancreas functions as both exocrine and HCO , Increased K+ level in blood, low Bp etc.
endocrine gland. Pancreas located in the Abdomen 243. .......accelerates heart beat due to stimulation of
behind the stomach. Pancreas also called as mixed adrenal, medulla by sympathetic nerves.
gland because it secretes their component by both (a) Collip's hormone (b) Vasopressin
Exocrine and Endocrine gland. (c) Adrenaline (d) Thyroxine
238. The following hormone is not a steroid VMMC-2013
(a) Testosterone Ans. (c) : Adrenaline accelerates heart beat due to
(b) Progesterone stimulation of adrenal, medulla by sympathetic nerves. It
(c) Corticosteroids increases heart rate and prepares the body for action by
(d) Adrenocorticotropic hormone enhancing oxygen supply and energy release, helping
AMU-2015 individuals respond to stressful situations effectively.
Ans. (d) : Adrenocorticotropic hormone is not a steroid. 244. When a person suffers from a marked fall in
It is a hormone produced in the anterior pituitary gland blood pressure, it is helpful to administer to
of the brain while testosterone, progesterone and him the following hormone
corticosteroids are steroids. (a) GH (b) Insulin
239. If ADH level of blood is less : (c) Thyroxine (d) Adrenaline
(a) volume of urine increases Manipal-2011
(b) volume of urine decreases Ans. (d) : When a person suffers from a marked fall in
(c) volume of urine is normal blood pressure, it is helpful to administer to him
(d) volume of urine is unaffected adrenaline hormone.
BCECE-2005 Growth hormone (GH) is secreted by the anterior
Ans. (a) : If ADH level of blood is less then volume of pituitary gland.
urine increases. Antidiuretic hormone is released by the Thyroxine is the main hormone secreted into the
posterior pituitary lobe when the blood has high osmolarity. bloodstream by the thyroid gland.
240. Which of the following hormones is a modified 245. The level of glucose in the blood is controlled
amino acid? by:
(a) MSH (b) Oestrogen (a) Liver (b) Ileum
(c) Epinephrine (d) Prostaglandin
(c) Gall bladder (d) Duodenum
JCECE-2014 / CMC Ludhiana-2009
Karnataka CET-2002
BCECE-2011 / Kerala PMT-2011
AFMC-2008 /Manipal-2007 Ans. (a) : The level of glucose in the blood is controlled
Ans. (c) : Epinephrine hormones is a modified amino by liver. Liver is a digestive organ that secretes bile
acid. The other name of Epinephrine hormone is juice. Ileum and Duodenum are a part of small intestine
Adrenaline which is secreted by Adrenal medulla that lies next to stomach. Gall bladder stores bile juice.
Prostaglandin:- It is a lipid compound. 246. Heart beat increases at the time of interview
Estrogen:- It is primary female sex hormone involved in because
development of female reproduction system. (a) Hypersecretion of renin
241. Which of the following is not produced from (b) Hyposecretion of renin
mesoderm? (c) Secretion of adrenaline
(a) Blood (b) Adrenal medulla (d) Direlic hormone
(c) Heart (d) Adrenal cortex AIIMS-1999 / BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
Rajasthan PMT-1996 WB JEE-2010
Ans. (c) : Heart beat increases at the time of interview In Diabetes insipidus condition, Kidneys are unable to
due to secretion of adrenaline. Adrenaline, also known prevent the excretion of water. Diabetes caused by lack
as epinephrine, is released in response to stress or of ADH (anti diuretic hormone) is called central
anxiety, which are common feeling during interviews. diabetes insipidus.
This increased heart rate helps supply more oxygen to 251 Diabetes insipidus is due to
muscles and the brain to deal with perceived threats. (a) hypersecretion of vasopressin
247. Cortisol is secreted by the adrenal cortex in (b) hyposecretion of insulin
response to stress. In addition to its function in (c) hypersecretion of insulin
a stress response, it functions in negative (d) hyposecretion of vasopressin
feedback by KVPY SB & SX-2012
(a) inhibiting the hypothalamus so that Ans. (d) : Diabetes insipidus is due to hyposecretion of
Corticotropin Releasing Hormone (CRH) vasopressin. Diabetes insipidus (DI) is an uncommon
secretion is reduced condition in which the kidneys are unable to prevent the
(b) inhibiting the anterior pituitars ability to excretion of water.
respond to CRH by reducing the pituitarys
sensitivity to CRH 252. The process of formation of glucose from non
(c) Both (a) and (b) carbohydrate sources is called:
(d) None of the above (a) Glycogenesis (b) Glycogenolysis
J&K CET-2012 (c) Gluconeogenesis (d) Glycolysis
HP CET-2013
Ans. (c) : Cortisol is secreted by the adrenal cortex in
response to stress. In addition to its function in a stress Ans. (c) : The process of formation of glucose from non
response, it functions in negative feedback by inhibiting carbohydrate sources is called glyconeogenesis.
the hypothalamus so that corticotropin releasing Ex. Amino acid, lactose and glycerol.
hormone secretion is reduced and inhibiting the anterior 253. The process of formation of glycogen from
pituitars ability to respond to CRH by reducing the glucose is called?
pituitarys sensitivity to CRH. (a) Glycogenesis (b) Lipogenesis
248. Glomerular area of adrenal cortex is (c) Gluconeogensis (d) Glycogenolysis
responsible for : Uttarakhand-2005
(a) Water and electrolyte balance Ans. (a) : The process of formation of glycogen from
(b) Carbohydrate metabolism glucose is called glycogenesis. Glycogenesis is the
(c) Steroid and hormone secretion process of glycogen synthesis in which glucose
(d) Blood pressure molecules are added to chain of glycogen for storage.
Rajasthan PMT-1998 254. Which hormone causes dilation of blood
Ans. (a) : Glomerular area of adrenal cortex is vessels, increased oxygen consumption and
responsible for water and electrolyte balance. It plays a glycogenolysis?
crucial role in regulating the body's sodium and (a) ACTH (b) Insulin
potassium levels through the secretion of aldosterone, a (c) Adrenaline (d) Glucagon
steroid hormone that acts on the kidneys to control these Manipal-2015/ JCECE=2013
electrolytes, which, in turn, influences fluid balance and Ans. (c) : Adrenaline hormone causes dilation of blood
blood pressure. vessels, increased oxygen consumption and
249. Adrenal medulla is derived from : glycogenolysis. ACTH is secreted by anterior pituitary.
(a) Ectoderm (b) Mesoderm It s regulates cortisol and androgen production.
(c) Endoderm (d) Both a and c Insulin is control blood sugar levels in our body.
Rajasthan PMT-1998 Glucagon work with liver to turn a type of stored sugar
Ans. (a) : Adrenal medulla is derived from ectoderm. called glycogen into glucose.
The ectoderm is a germ layer that forms during A statement of Assertion (A) is given followed
embryonic development. by a corresponding statement of Reason (R)
Endoderm:- It is inner most layer of germ cell. just below it. Of these statements, mark the
Mesoderm:- It is derived from Adrenal cortex. correct answer as:
255. Assertion : Diabetes in insipidus is marked by
250. The hyposecretion of which hormones leads to
excessive urination and too much thirst of water.
loss of sodium and water through urine, low
Reason : Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) is
blood pressure and hypotension?
secreted by the posterior lobe of pituitary gland.
(a) Thyro tropic hormones
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(b) Hormones of adrenal cortex Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(c) Hormones of adrenal medulla (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
(d) Luteotrophic hormones Reason is not the correct explanation of
BCECE-2010 Assertion
Ans. (b) : The hyposecretion of thyrotropic hormones (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
leads to loss of sodium and water through urine, low (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
blood pressure and hypotension. Haryana PMT-2004 / VMMC-2004
Ans. (b) : Diabetes insipidus is marked by excessive Ans. (d) : Triple ‘F’ or gland for flight, fight and
urination and too much thirst of water. fright/life saving/emergency gland is adrenal. Adrenal
Therefore, assertion is correct. gland situated at the top portion of kidney which look like
Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted by the the cap. It secreted 3F hormone i.e. Fight, flight and fear.
posterior lobe of pituitary gland. Reason is also correct. Glucocorticoids, Mineralocorticoids are secreted by
Hence, both assertion and reason are true but reason is adrenal cortex where as adrenal medulla secretes
not the correct explanation of assertion. adrenaline and non-adrenaline.
256. Increase of blood sugar level is known as : 261. Chymotrypsin is produced by
(a) Diabetes insipidus (b) Diabetes mellitus (a) liver (b) pancreas
(c) Hypoglycemia (d) Both a and b (c) stomach (d) duodenum
Haryana PMT-2004 / Manipal-2003 AMU-2005 / Uttarakhand PMT-2004
Ans. (b) : Increase of blood sugar level is known as Ans. (b) : Chymotrypsin is produced by pancreas. It is
diabetes mellitus. Diabetes mellitus is a metabolic an oral proteolytic enzyme. It provides better resolution
disease that causes high blood sugar. Whereas in case of of inflammatory symptoms and promotes speedier
diabetes insipidus kidney are unable to prevent the recovery of acute tissue injury than several of the other
excessive excretion of water. existing enzyme preparations.
257. Water reabsorption in kidney is controlled by 262. Cushing's syndrome and myxoedema are
(a) Aldosterone (b) GH associated with these glands respectively
(c) ADH (d) None of these (a) adrenal, thyroid (b) thyroid, adrenal
CMC Ludhiana-2008 / VMMC-2014 (c) adrenal, pituitary (d) parathyroid, thyroid
Ans. (c) : Water reabsorption in kidney is controlled by HP CET-2011/ VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004 /BVP-2003
ADH. ADH is also called arginine vasopressin. It's a Ans. (a) : Cushing's syndrome and myxoedema are
hormone made by the hypothalamus in the brain and associated with adrenal and thyroid glands respectively.
stored in the posterior pituitary gland. Cushing syndrome also known as hypercortisolism. It is
258. Deficiency of which of the following causes a type of disorder which is caused by the high level of
obesity, low plasma Na+, high K+ and increase hormone cortisol.
blood pressure? Myxoedema also known as hypothyroidism and also
(a) Thyroxine (b) Cortisol called ‘Grave’s disease’. Hypothyroidism condition is
(c) Adrenaline (d) Growth hormone found due to the low of thyroid hormone.
JIPMER-2001 263. The hormone used for suppressing allergies,
Ans. (b) : Deficiency of cortisol causes obesity, low rheumatoid arthritis and tissue inflammation is:
plasma Na+, high K+ and increase blood pressure . (a) Mineralo corticoid (b) Glucocorticoid
Cortisol play a role in controlling blood pressure and (c) Thyroxine (d) Adrenaline
circulation. It also helps to regulate blood sugar levels, AP EAMCET-2002
along with other hormones such as insulin. Ans. (b) : The hormone used for suppressing allergies,
259. Rise in heart beat, cardiac output, blood rheumatoid arthritis and tissue inflammation is
pressure and blood sugar occurs during glucocorticoid. Glucocorticoid drugs are man-made
emergency by hormone versions of glucocorticoids, steroids that occur naturally
(a) aldosterone (b) antidiuretic hormone in body. Mineralocorticoids are a class of steroid
(c) norepinephrine (d) oxytocin hormones that influence salt and water balance.
VMMC-2008 / AMU-2008 264. Blood pressure is controlled by :
Ans. (c) : Rise in heart beat, cardiac output, blood (a) Adrenal (b) Thyroid
pressure and blood sugar occurs during emergency by (c) Thymus (d) Corpus luteum
norepinephrine hormone, It also known as Haryana PMT-2003 / MGIMS Wardha-2012
noradrenaline. It is both a neurotransmitter and a
hormone. It plays an important role in your body's Ans. (a) : Blood pressure is controlled by adrenal gland.
“fight-or-flight” response. The adrenal gland is available on the upper side of
kidneys and has two sections, adrenal cortex which
260. Triple “F” or gland for flight, fight and discharge mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids and
fright/life saving/emergency gland is adrenal medulla which emit adrenaline and nor-
(a) Thyroid (b) Thymus adrenaline hormone.
(c) Pituitary (d) Adrenal During a case of emergency adrenaline, also known as
Karnataka CET-2018 / AIPMT-2014 / HP CET-2012 the fight or fight hormone.
UPCPMT-2012 / WB JEE-2010 / JIPMER-2009 265. Adrenal gland is associated with:
CMC Ludhiana-2008 / UP CPMT-2012, 2008 (a) Kidney (b) Pharynx
MGIMS Wardha-2008 / CG PMT-2008
(c) Brain (d) Pancreas
AMU-2008 / VMMC-2008,2004
Haryana PMT-2003 / AFMC-2003
Rajasthan PMT-2008, 2001 / JCECE-2008
UP CPMT-2007 / AMU-2006,2002 Ans. (a) : Adrenal gland is associated with kidney.
CG PMT-2005 / AFMC-2002 An adrenal gland is located on top of each kidney, Like
Rajasthan PMT-2001 / JIPMER-1996 many glands, the adrenal glands work hand-in hand
with the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. The adrenal (a) Fats are catabolised to form glucose
glands make and release corticosteroid hormones and (b) Amino acids are catabolised in liver
epinephrine that maintain blood pressure and regulate (c) Amino acids are discharged in blood stream
metabolism. from liver
266. A man suffering from diabetes mellitus drinks (d) Glycogen from muscles are released in the
water more frequently as he has to blood stream
(a) Eliminate extra salt from blood Manipal-2010 / AIIM -2008
(b) Eliminate extra glucose from blood Ans. (a) : A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes
(c) Eliminate extra insulin from blood glucose in urine even when he is kept in a carbohydrate
(d) Eliminate extra water from blood free diet. It is because fats are catabolised to form
CMC Ludhiana-2014 glucose. The body will convert glycogen and fatty
Ans. (b) : A man suffering from diabetes mellitus reserves into glucose, which is the energy molecule in
drinks water more frequently as he has to eliminate the body, which the cells can utilize.
extra glucose from blood. Catabolism of amino acids does not produce glucose.
In diabetes, the body has difficulty regulating blood 271. In case of blockage of functioning of islets of
sugar levels due to insufficient insulin or reduced Langerhans, which hormone will be in short
sensitivity to insulin. It is increased thirst, known as supply and what will be its effect?
polydipsia. (a) Thyroxine - Retardation of growth
267. Which is animated hormone ? (b) Cortisone - Tetany
(a) Progesterone (b) Epinephrine (c) Insulin - Blood glucose level rises
(c) Estrogen (d) Relaxin (d) Adrenalin - Heart beat increases
VMMC-2008 / AMU-2008 CMC Ludhiana-2010
Ans. (b) : Epinephrine is animated hormone. Ans. (c) : The Islets of Langerhans are responsible for
Epinephrine is synthesized in medulla of adrenal gland. regulating blood glucose by releasing insulin hormone.
It increased the cardiac output and to raised glucose If these cells stop functioning, then blood glucose will
levels in the blood. rise which will lead to diabetes.
268. Which one of the following is the hormone of 272. F-cells of islets of Langerhans secretes
adrenal medulla? Pancreatic Polypeptide (PP). It
(a) Prolactin (b) ACTH (a) accelerates the release of pancreatic
(c) Corticosterone (d) Epinephrine (b) inhibits the release of digestive secretion the
J&K CET-2007 pancreas
(c) accelerates the release of insulin
Ans. (d) : Epinephrine is the hormone of adrenal
medulla. It plays a key role in the body's flight or fight" (d) inhibits the release of glucagon
response to stress. This hormone helps mobilize CMC Ludhiana-2007
resources for a rapid and intense physical response to Ans. (b) : F-cells of islets of langerhans secrete
stressors. pancreatic polypeptide (PP). It inhibits the release of
269. Norepinephrine is secreted from : digestive secretion the pancreas. Pancreatic polypeptide
(a) Medulla of adrenal (b) Zona fasciculata (PP) is a polypeptide secreted by PP cells in the
endocrine pancreas. It regulates pancreatic secretion
(c) Zona reticularis (d) Zona glomerulosa activities, and also impacts liver glycogen storage and
Rajasthan PMT-2000 gastrointestinal secretion.
Ans. (a) : Norepinephrine is secreted from medulla of
adrenal. Medulla of adrenal is the inner part of the
adrenal gland (a small organ on top of each kidney).
The adrenal cortex makes up a large part of adrenal

gland. It consists of three layers: zona glomerulosa, 273. Over secretion of androgens from adrenal
zona fasciculata and zona reticularis. Each layer cortex in females is responsible for
produces different hormones that regulate vital organ (a) Addisons disease
functions and bodily processes. (b) Appearance of masculine characters
270. A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose (c) Parrys disease
in urine even when he is kept in a carbohydrate (d) Increase in their sexual desire
free diet. It is because CMC Ludhiana-2007
Ans. (b) : Over secretion of androgens from adrenal Ans. (d) : • The action of growth hormone releasing
cortex in females is responsible for appearance of hormone (GHRH) is opposed by another hypothalamic
masculine characters. Ovarian overproduction of hormone, somatostatin also known as growth hormone-
androgens is condition in which the ovaries make too inhibiting hormone (GHIH).
much testosterone. This leads to the development to • Somatostatin is a peptide hormone. It inhibits the
male characteristics in a women. release of growth hormone from the pituitary.
• Addison’s disease- It is a type of disorder caused by 278. Epinephrine hormone is secreted from with of
Insufficient secretion of adrenaline hormone which is the following endocrine gland
known as hypoadrenalism. (a) Parathyroid (b) Adrenal
• Parry’s disease- It is the skin disease. It also known (c) pituitary (d) Thyroid
Tripura JEE-2018 / Tripura JEE-2017
as Romberg’s disease.
Kerala PMT-2012 / Punjab MET-2011
It is rare progressive craniofacial disorder
Ans. (b) : • Epinephrine hormone are secreted by the
274. Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline are hormones chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla apart from
and acts as epinephrine, norephinephrine hormone is also secreted
(a) Energy producing agent by adrenal medulla.
(b) Food storage material Both hormones secreted during emergency or stress
(c) Neurotransmitter condition. During this condition these two hormones
(d) Energy storing substances greatly augment the fright, fight and flight response.
BCECE-2015 / JIPMER-2014 279. Which of the following is a heterocrine gland?
BCECE-2008 / UPCPMT-2006 (a) Adrenal (b) Pituitary
Ans. (c) : Adrenaline and noradrenaline are hormones (c) Pancreas (d) Pineal
JIPMER-2004
that act as neurotransmitters in our body. The adrenaline
and noradrenaline are hormones that are released by Ans. (c) : Pancreas is composite gland which acts as
sympathetic postganglionic neurons to transmit signals. both exocrine and endocrine gland thus, it is
heterocrine gland.
In addition, they are released when the body is under a
The exocrine cells of pancreas are among in clusters
stressed condition. called acini. The acini produce digestive enzyme, which
275. Increase glucose level in human is called : flow into the gastrointestinal track through the
(a) Hypoglycemia (b) Hyperglycemia pancreatic duct. Ex:- Sweat gland, mammary gland.
(c) Hyposuria (d) Hypersuria 280. Which of the following is a mineralocorticoid ?
BCECE-2004 (a) Testosterone (b) Progesterone
Ans. (b) : Increase glucose level in human is called (c) Adrenaline (d) Aldosterone
hyperglycemia. It refers to high levels of sugar, or WB JEE-2011
glucose, in the blood. It occurs when the body does not Ans. (d) : Aldosterone is the major mineralo corticoid
produce or use enough insulin. Hypoglycemia happens produce by adrenal cortex.
when your blood sugar drops below a healthy range. It regulates homeostasis of two minerals ions, namely
sodium and potassium ions, and helps in the
276. Insulin deficiency causes : maintenance of electrolytes, body fluid volume, osmotic
(a) Diabetes insipidus (b) Diabetes mellitus pressure and blood pressure.
(c) Goitre (d) All of the above 281. Adrenaline direct affect on
J&K CET-2007 / BCECE-2004 (a) S.A. Node
Ans. (b) : Insulin deficiency causes diabetes mellitus. (b)β-cells of Langerhans
Diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disease, involving (c) Dorsal root of spinal cord
inappropriately elevated blood glucose levels. Diabetes (d) Epithelial cells of stomach
insipidus is a rare disorder that causes the body to make AIPMT-2002
too much urine. Ans. (a) : The hormone adrenaline (epinephrine) is
Goitre- a goitre commonly develops as a result of secreted by the adrenal medulla and directly affects the
iodine deficiency or inflammation of the thyroid gland. S.A Node thereby increasing heart rate.
277. Function of the somatostatin is to S.A node (Sinoatrial node) also known as sinus node. It
(a) Stimulate pituitary synthesis and release is situated the right side of atrium of the human heart
gonadotropins which is made up of cells known as pacemaker cell.
S.A node produces electric impulse which set the
(b) Inhibit the release of gonadotropins from normal rhythm and rate in a healthy heart.
pituitary
282. A 22 year old girl is about to face interview.
(c) Stimulate pituitary and promotes the secretion She is restless, is sweating and her heart beats
of growth hormone have increased. These symptoms are due to
(d) Inhibit the release of growth hormone from increased secretion mainly of_____.
the pituitary (a) thymosins (b) catecholamines
(e) Stimulate the secretion of thyrotropin from (c) aldosterone (d) androgens
thyroid MHT CET-04.10.2020 Shift-I
DUMET-2011 / Kerala PMT-2015 / AIIMS-2003 TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-I / AMU-1996
Ans.(b) : A 22 year old girl is about to face interview, Ans. (c) : Glucagon is secreted by alpha cells of islets
she is restless, sweating and heart beats have increased. of langerhans in pancrease.
These symptoms are due increased secretion of • Glucagon is a linear polypeptide of 29 amino acid
catecholamines hormone i.e. Epinephrine and residues. It stimulates glucogenolysis and
norepinephrine hormone by adrenal medulla in response gluconeogenesis. Glucagon acts mainly on the liver
to stress of interview. cells and stimulates the breakdown of glycogen into
• By increasing heart rate and force of contraction glucose, resulting in an increased blood sugar.
epinephrine and norepinephrine increase the output 287. Insulin is secreted by:
of heart. (a) β cell of islets of Langerhans in pancreas
283. Conn’s disease is caused by the over secretion (b) spleen
of: (c) α cells of Langerhans of pancreas
(a) ADH (b) ACTH (d) mucosa of oesophagus
(c) Oxytocin (d) Aldosterone BVP-2001 / DUMET -2001
AIIMS-1999
Ans. (a) : Insulin is secreted by beta cell constitute
Ans. (d) : • Conn's syndrome occurs when the adrenal about 70% of pancreatic islet cell or islets of
gland make too much aldosterone. Langerhans. Insulin secretion is a integral component in
• Aldosterone is a hormone that controls salt and the control of blood sugar level
potassium levels in the blood.Conn’s syndrome, also • It stimulates glycogenesis.
known as primary aldosteronism, is a condition that
causes resistant high blood pressure. It is caused by 288. Which one of the following hormones is not
excess production of a hormone called aldosterone. involved in sugar metabolism?
Aldosterone is secreted by the adrenal glands to (a) Glucagon (b) Cortisone
stimulate excretion of potassium by the kidneys. (c) Aldosterone (d) Insulin
284. Heart beat increases at the time of interview
because: Ans. (c) : Mineral corticoid (Aldosterone) is a salt
(a) hypersecretion of rennin retaining hormone, and secreted by adrenal cortex.
(b) hyposecretion of rennin Its main function is to maintain sodium content of the
(c) secretion of adrenaline body.
(d) direlic hormone It has no role in sugar metabolism.
It play a central role in the homeostatic regulation of
Ans. (c) : • Heart beat increases at the time of interview blood pressure, plasma sodium and potassium levels.
because secretion of adrenaline (epinephrine)
289. Which of the following causes an increase in
• Adrenaline is a emergency hormone during stress or
sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted
emergency condition (like injury, pain, fear, accident)
tubule?
impulse from the hypothalamus stimulate sympathetic
preganglionic neurons, which in turn stimulate the (a) Increase in aldosterone levels
chromaffin cell to secrete adrenaline hormone that (b) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
greatly augment the fright, fight and flight response. (c) Decrease in aldosterone levels
• Heart beat increase by adrenaline to increase the (d) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels
output of heart. AIPMT-2014
285. A steroid hormone which regulates glucose Ans. (a) : Increased sodium reabsorption in the distal
metabolism is convoluted tubule is due to increasement of the level of
(a) cortisol (b) corticosterone aldosterone.
(c) 11-deoxycorticosterone (d) cortisone All the sodium ions in the filtrate are reabsorbed when
BHU PMT (Mains)-2010 both hormone i.e. Aldosterone and ADH present in
blood.
Ans. (a) : • Cortisol is a glycocorticoids produced by
zona fasciculata layer of adrenal cortex. 290. Which of the following statements regarding
It is responsible for generating energy also known as glucagon is false?
stress hormone because it helps the body respond to (a) It is secreted by α-cells of Langerhans
stress by elevating blood sugar levels, increasing heart (b) It acts antagonistically to insulin
rate etc. (c) It decreases blood sugar level
• Glucocorticoid secretion stimulated by ACTH from (d) The gland responsible for its secretion is
the anterior pituitary. heterocrine gland
• It induces gluconeogenes in liver. AIIMS-2007
286. Glucagon is secreted by: Ans. (c) : Glucagon hormone increase glucose level in
(a) adrenal medulla blood by stimulating the metabolic breakdown of
(b) P cells of islets of Langerhans glycogen. Insulin decrease the blood glucose level in
the blood.
(c) α cells of islet of Langerhans
(d) adrenal cortex • Glucagon is a hormone secreted by the α cells of the
BVP-2005 / Haryana PMT-2004 pancreas. It is an antagonist to insulin secreted by the β
Manipal -2003 cells of pancreas.
291. Deoxyribonuclease and ribonuclease are 295. Adrenocorticoids are released from-
secreted by (a) Adrenal cortex (b) Thyroid gland
(a) liver (b) stomach (c) Adrenal medulla (d) Gonads
(c) pancreas (d) kidney AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I
JIPMER-2005 Ans. (a) : Adrenocorticoids, also known as
Ans. (c) : Deoxyribonuclease and ribonuclease are corticosteroids are a group of hormones that are
nuclease enzyme which catalyzes the degradation of released from the adrenal cortex, which the external part
DNA and RNA. These are secreted by pancreas. It of the Adrenal gland.
catalyzes the cleavage of phosphodiester bond of DNA These hormones play essential role in various
and RNA respectively. physiological process such as metabolism, immune
292. Which one affects liver, muscle and adipose response, and the body’s response to stress.
tissue? 296. Hormone secreted by α-cells of Pancreas?
(a) Androgen (b) Insulin (a) Insulin (b) Glucagon
(c) Progesterone (d) Glucagon (c) Somatocrinin (d) Somatostatin
JIPMER-2005 AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-II / AIIMS-2017
Ans. (b) : Insulin affects liver, muscle and adipose tissue. Ans. (b) : The pancreatic islets of langerhans consist of
Insulin is a hormone secreted by pancreas (Specially β- several hormone-secreting cells i.e. β-cells secrete
cell of islets) that controls the amount of glucose in insulin and α-cells secrete glucagon and δ-cells secrete
bloodstream at any given moment. It also helps to store somatostatin.
glucose in liver, fat and muscles. Finally it regulates • Gluocagon is a hormone that is involved in
bodys metabolism of carbohydrates, fat and proteins. controlling blood sugar (glucose) levels. It is produced
293. Which of the following represents the action of by the alpha cells found in the islets of langerhans, in
insulin? pancreas. It is released into the blood stream.
(a) Increases blood glucose level by stimulating 297. Insulin is a
glucagon production. (a) vitamin (b) lipid
(b) Decreases blood glucose level by forming (c) hormone (d) enzyme.
glycogen. AIPMT-1990
(c) Increases blood glucose level promoting Ans. (c) : Insulin is a protein hormone secreted by the
cellular uptake of glucose. beta cells of islets of langrehans.
(d) Increases blood glucose level by hydrolysis of
• Insulin help to decrease blood glucose level when it is
glycogen.
too high.
AIIMS-2017, 2016 / NEET (Karnataka)-2013
298. In renal tubules aldosterone increases
Ans. (b) : The hormone insulin secreted by the β-cells
(a) Absorption of K+, H+ and elimination of Na+,
of the pancreatic islets of langerhans. They maintains
H 2O
normal blood glucose levels and preventing
hyperglycemia. It means decrease the glucose levels in (b) Absorption of Na+, H2O and elimination of
blood stream. K+, PO −−4
In liver, insulin activates glycogen synthesis, (c) Absorption of Na+, H2O, K+, PO −−
4
increases lipogenic gene expression and decreases
gluconeogenic gene expression. In white adipocyte (d) Elimination of Na+, H2O, K+, PO −−
4
tissue, insulin suppresses lipolysis and increases glucose AP EAMCET-2016

transport and lipogenesis. Ans. (b) : Aldosterone is a major mineralocorticoid, it
294. Catecholamine in a normal person induces regulate homeostasis of sodium and potassium ions.
(a) intense salivation • It acts primarily on the kidney to promote absorption
(b) alertness of sodium and excretion of potassium.
(c) decrease in heart beat • Increased sodium level contributes to the retention of
(d) excessive urination water and thus increased blood volume.
AIIMS-2012 299. The part labelled 'X' in given diagram of T.S.
Ans. (b) : The adrenal medulla secretes two hormones of adrenal gland secretes____
called adrenaline and noradrenaline. These are
commonly called as Catecholamine. These are rapidly
secreted in response to stress of any kind and during
emergency situation.
• These hormones increase alertness, pupillary dilation,
sweating etc.
• Catecholamine increases heart rate, blood pressure,
breathing rate, muscle strength and mental alertness.
• They are also reduce the amount of blood going to (a) Calcitonin (b) Catecholamines
the skin and increase blood flow to the major organs (c) Cortisol (d) Mineralocorticoids
such as the brain, heart and kidney. MHT CET-2018
Ans. (b) : In TS of adrenal gland labelled x part is Ans. (a) : Adrenaline hormone produced by adrenal
catecholamines that is adrenal medulla hormones medulla in response to emergency or stress condition.
adrenaline and nor adrenaline collectively known as • Adrenaline and noradrenaline are collectively known as
catecholamines. catecholamine. During emergency or stress condition it
• Cortisol is the main glucocorticoid secreted by the augment the fright, flight and fight response. It is also
adrenal cortex. called as ‘3F’ hormone or emergency hormone.
• It stimulats gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and • The adrenal cortex produce 3 kind of steroid hormone.
proteolysis as well as, it maintains cardiovascular and
renal functions. 1. Mineralocorticoids (from zona glomerulosa)
• Cortisol is also involved in antiinflammatory 2. Glucocorticoids (from zona fusciculata)
response and stimulates the RBC production. 3. Adrenal androgens (zona reticulates)
300. How many kinds of cells are found in islets 304. What would not take place if chromaffin cells
langerhans? of adrenal medulla undergoes oncogenesis ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) High blood sugar and glucosuria
(c) 3 (d) 4 (b) High BMP
CG PMT-2005, 2004 (c) Pheochromocytomas
Ans. (d) : Islets of langerhans is endocrine cells. (d) Low blood pressure
• Each pancreatic islet include four type of hormone MGIMS Wardha-2015
secreting cells. Ans. (d) : Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla are
Alpha cell – Secrete glucagon responsible for secreting epinephrine and
Beta cell – Secrete insulin norepinephrine. Their tumor will lead to hypersecretion
Delta cell – Secrete somatostatin of epinephrine causing high blood pressure, high blood
F-cell – Secrete pancreatic polypeptide sugar levels, glycosuria, high BMP(Basic metabolic
301. Adrenal gland is derived from panel), nervousness and sweating. In case of high BMP
(a) Ectoderm (b) Mesoderm lung problem, kidney and liver problem occur.
(c) Endoderm (d) Both (a) and (b) 305. Match the following List.
WB JEE-2007 List–I List–II
Ans. (d) : The adrenal glands develop from two A. Zona I. Glucocorticoides
different embryological tissue.
glomerulosa
The medulla is derived from neural crest cell (i.e.
ectoderm origin) and cortex develop from the B. Zona II. Catecholamines
intermediate mesoderm. fasciculata
302. Which is not a gonadal hormone? C. Zona III. Thymosin
(a) Progesterone (b) Testosrerone reticularis
(c) Adrenalin (d) Estrogen D. Adrenal IV. Mineralocorticoids
WB JEE-2007 medulla
Ans. (c) : Progesterone, testosterone and estrogen are V. Androgens
gonadal hormone. However adrenaline is non gonadal The correct answer is
hormone produced by adrenal medulla in response to Options:
stress or emergency conditions.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
303. Read the following statements and identify the (a) IV III I V
correct statements
(b) I IV II V
(1) Hormones of adrenal medulla are
commonly known as catecholamine (c) IV I V II
(2) Catecholamines are called emergency (d) V I IV II
hormones AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-II
(3) Catecholamine are also known as 3’F’ Ans. (c) : Adrenal medulla - catecholamines
hormone because they play a great role in Zona glomerulosa - Mineralocorticoides
manage stress full condition like Fight, Zona fasciculata - Glycocorticoides
Flight and Fright Zona reticulata - Androgens
(4) Glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids are
produced from Adrenal cortex 306. Diabetes mellitus takes place only when:
(a) All statements are correct (a) α-cells of pancreas are in excess
(b) Only 4 is correct (b) β-cells of pancreas are in excess
(c) Only 1 is correct (c) α-cells of pancreas are in hypo
(d) 2 and 3 are correct (d) β-cells of pancreas are in hypo
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-II DUMET-2004
Ans. (d) : Diabetes mellitus is disease in which glucose 311. Life saving hormone is secreted by which
is not sufficiently metabolized. This result in high gland?
glucose levels in blood and glucose in urine. (a) Adrenal gland (b) Hypothalamus
• It is due to either pancreas not producing enough (c) Pituitary gland (d) Thyroid gland
insulin or the cells of the body in not responding to CG PMT-2004
insulin produced. Ans. (a) : Life saving hormone is secreted by adrenal
• Diabetes mellitus is characterized by loss of insulin gland.
producing beta cells of the islet of langerhans in the Adrenal gland mainly divide into two parts.
pancreas leading to insulin deficiency. (1) Adrenal cortex-It is out part of the gland which
307. Which of the following endocrine organs is produced different hormones such as Glucocorticoids,
involved in fighting emergency situations by mineralocorticoids and Androgens.
their active secretion? (2) Adrenal medulla - It is inner part of the gland . It
(a) Thyroid (b) Pancreas produced two main hormone i.e. epinephrine and nor
(c) Adrenal cortex (d) Adrenal medulla epinephrine.
MP PMT-2013 312. Diabetes is due to
Ans. (d) : The two major hormones secreted and (a) Na+ deficiency (b) hormonal deficiency
synthesized by adrenal medulla are epinephrine and (c) enzyme deficiency (d) iodine deficiency
norepinephrine that are collectively known as Haryana PMT-2000
catecholamines. Ans. (b) : Diabetes is due to hormonal deficiency. It is
• In emergency or stress condition (like injury, pain, chronic disease that occurs either when the pancreas
fear) impulse from the hypothalamus stimulate does not produce enough insulin or when the body
preganglionic neurons, which in turn stimulate the cannot effectively use the insulin it produces.
chromaffin cells to secrete epinephrine and • Diabetes is a disease which glucose is not sufficiently
norepinephrine. These two hormones greatly augment metabolized this result in high glucose levels in
the fright, fight, flight response. Hence these are called blood and glucose in the urine.
emergency hormone.
• Insulin hormone regulates blood glucose.
308. Aldosterone is secreted by :
313. Choose the right option by matching columns I,
(a) zona glomerulosa (b) zona fasciculata II and III correctly:
(c) zona reticularis (d) zona pellucida
Column I Column II Column III
Manipal-2005 (Gland’s (Secretion) (Function)
Ans. (a) : Aldosterone is secreted by the zona name)
glomerulosa layer of adrenal cortex. (p) Delta (i) TCT (e) Activate the
• It acts primarily on the kidney to promote absorption cells of breakdown
of sodium and excretion of potassium. pancreas of glycogen
• In the absence of aldosterone, sodium is excreted & (q) Thyroid (ii) Relaxin (f) Inhibits GH
the lower sodium levels result in decreased blood
volume and lower blood pressure. (r) Ovary (iii) Epinephrine (g) Balances
the calcium
309. Hormone produced against allergic reaction is level in
______ blood
(a) Glucocorticoid (b) Mineralo corticoid
(s) Adrenal (iv) Somatostatin (h) Relax the
(c) Nor–epinephrine (d) Epinephrine Medulla cervix of
AP EAPCET-07.09.2021 Shift-I the uterus
Ans. (a) : Hormone produced against allergic reaction (a) (p-iv-g) (q-i-h) (r-ii-e) (s-iii-f)
is glucocorticoid. Glucocorticoids are secreted from (b) (p-iii-c) (q-iv-g) (r-i-f) (s-ii-h)
Zona fasciculata of adrenal cortex. It play a vital role in (c) (p-iv-f) (q-i-g) (r-ii-h) (s-iii-e)
regulating the immune system and suppressing (d) (p-ii-f) (q-iv-e) (r-iii-h) (s-i-g)
inflamation.
GUJCET-2019
It helps to manage allergic reactions prolonged or
excessive cortisol release due to chronic stress can have Ans. (c): Somatostatins– Somatostatins is a cyclic
negative effects on the immune system peptide well known for its strong regulatory effects
310. The hormone which suppresses the immune throughout the body. Also know by the name of
responses is : growth inhibiting hormone. It is produced by in
(a) Aldosterone (b) Cortisol many location which include the (GI) tract,
pancreas, Hypothalamus.
(c) Progesterone (d) Calcitonin
TS EAMCET-28.09.2020 Shift-II TCT(thyrocalcitionin)– is a 32 amino acid peptide
hormone, which play a important role for Balancing
Ans. (b) : The adrenal cortex produce cortisol which of calcium level in Blood.
suppresser the immune response. For this reason, Relaxin– Relaxin is a hormone produced by the
cortisol (glucocorticoids) are prescribed for organ overy, and placenta with important effects in the
transplant recipients to retand tissue rejection by the female reproductive system and during pregnancy. In
immune system. preparation of childbirth, it relaxes the ligaments in
• It involved in carbohydrate metabolism. the pelvis and soften and widen the cervix.
Epinephrine– Adrenal medulla release epinephrine (b) Increases the permeability of cell membrane
and nor epinephrine in to bloodstream. In liver to glucose.
epinephrine stimulates the breakdown of Glycogen to (c) Initiates the formation of hepatic glycogen
Glucose resulting in an increase in glucose levels in from excess of glucose.
the blood. (d) Initiates the conversion of glycogen to
314. Which is not the symptom of Cushing’s glucose.
syndrome, out of the following? Karnataka CET-2010
(a) Increased blood sugar level Ans. (d) : Insulin is a hormone produced by the
(b) Decrease in weight pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating blood
(c) Rise in blood pressure sugar levels in the body.
(d) Rise in blood volume It main function is to uptake glucose from blood where
GUJCET-2017 it is used for energy production and stored it as
Ans. (b) : Cushing’s syndrome is a medical disorder glycogen.
caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of the 320. Which one of the following pairs of organs
hormones cortisol in the body. includes only the endocrine glands?
The main symptoms of the syndrome is high weight (a) Thymus and testes
gain, thining of the skin, muscle weakness rising of (b) Adrenal and ovary
blood pressure, increased blood sugar level etc. (c) Parathyroid and adrenal
315. The macromineral essential for the formation (d) Pancreas and parathyroid
of insulin is AIPMT-2008
(a) magnesium (b) chlorine Ans. (c) :Endocrine gland are also known as duct less
(c) sulphur (d) iodine gland i.e. they secrete their material by the help of blood
AP EAMCET-2008 stream. Parathyroid, adrenal, pituitary, thyroid pineal
Ans. (c) : The macromineral essential for the formation gland etc are secreted by the endocrine gland.
of insulin is sulphur because insulin is a small protein 321. Which of the following pairs of hormones are
consisting of two amino acids chains linked by not antagonistic (having opposite effect) to each
disulphide (-S – S-) bonds. other?
316. Which is the inhibitory hormone of GH? (a) Relaxin Inhibin
(a) Parathormone (b) Insulin (b) Parathormone Calcitonin
(c) Somatostatin (d) Testosterone (c) Insulin Glucagon
GUJCET-2015 (d) Aldosterone Atrial Natriuretic
Ans. (c) : Somatostatin in a inhibitory hormone of GH Factor
(Growth hormone) which is secreted by the islets of NEET-2016 Phase-I
gamma cell of Langerhans. Ans. (a) : Relaxin hormones are not antagonistic
317. The hormones of "Fright, Fight and Flight" (having opposite effect) to each other. Relaxin is a
are polypeptide hormone produced in the human female by
the carpus luteum during pregnancy.
(a) Thyroxin and Oxytocin
(b) Thyroxin and Melatonin Inhibin - A (non Steroidal) Inhibitor of FSH (follicle
stimulating hormone).Secreted by ovary
(c) Adrenalin and Nor-adrenalin
Insulin- Produced by beta cell of the islets of
(d) Gastrin and Secretin Langerhans in the Pancreas.
Calcitonin- Calcitonin secreted by parafollicular cells
Ans. (c) : Hormone of Fright, Fight and the Flight is of the thyroid. It decrease calcium Level in blood.
called adrenaline or epinephrine. It is secreted by the Glucagon - produced by alpha cells of the pancreas. it
adrenal cortex. help the organism to offend defend or raises concentration of glucose.
run away from a threatening situation. Atrial natriuretic hormone - (ANH) is a cardiac
318. Which one of the following hormones also hormone its main function is to lower blood pressure &
produces anti-inflammatory reactions in man to control electrolyte homeostasis.
and suppresses the immune response in 322. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly
addition to its primary functions?
matched –
(a) Cortisol (b) Thymosin
(c) Thyrocalcitonin (d) Erythropoietin (a) Glucagon – Beta cells (source
Karnataka CET-2014 (b) Somatostatin – Delta cells (source)
Ans. (a) : Cortisol is a glucocorticoid hormone secreted (c) Corpus luteum – Relaxin (secretion)
by adrenal cortex. It steroid in nature. Apart from its (d) Insulin – Diabetes mellitus (disease)
primary infection (which are regulation of metabolism AIPMT (Screening)-2010
of carbohydrate, protein and fat), it also has anti Ans. (a) : Glucagon is a hormone, secreted by the alpha
inflamatory function. cell of pancreas that increases the concentration of
319. Which one of the following is not the function glucose in the blood by stimulating the metabolic break
of insulin ? down of glycogen. It thus antagonizes the effects of
(a) Increases the oxidation of glucose in the cells. insulin.
323. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect • Glucagon is secreted by α-cells of islets of
the secretion of which one of the following ? langerhans and raises the concetration of glucose and
(a) Aldosterone fatty acid in the blood stream.
(b) Both Androstenedione and • Prolactin is secreted by anterior pituitary and
Dehydroepiandrosterone stimulates milk production after child birth.
(c) Adrenaline 325. Norepinephrine :
(d) Cortisol (a) Is released by sympathetic fibres
AIPMT (Screening)-2010 (b) Is released by parasympathetic fibres
Ans. (c) : If the adrenal cortex is injured, it will not (c) Increases the heart rate
effect the secretion of adrenaline, because it is secreted (d) Decreases blood pressure
by adrenal medulla, Which of the above said statements are
The adrenal cortex secretes cortisol which is play role in correct?
controlling of blood pressure (a) (a) and (d) (b) (a) and (c)
(c) (b) and (c) (d) (b) and (d)
NEET (Karnataka)-2013
Ans. (b) : Nor-epinephrine is released by sympathetic
fibers. It is a neurotransmitter and hormone that play a
key role in the symphathetic nervous system, also
known an the “ fight or flight hormone.
In stress condition, the heart rate are also increased
during this hormone.
326. Insulin differs from Growth hormone in:
324. Select the correct matching of a hormone, its (a) Increases activity of m-RNA and Ribosom
source and function. (b) Increase the permeability of cell membrane
Hormone Source Function (c) Affects metabolism of fats by inducing
(a) Prolactin Posterior Regulates lipogenesis
pituitary growth of (d) Increasing protein synthesis
mammary AIPMT-1999
glands and Ans. (c) : Insulin differs form Growth hormone by the
milk affects metabolism of fats by including lipogenesis. Insulin
formation in regulates blood sugar levels while growth hormone
females promotes growth and development of the body.
(b) Vasopression Posterior 327. The inability to regulate the concentration of
pituitary sodium ions in the blood, could be due to the
(c) Norepinephrine Adrenal Increases improper functioning of one of the following.
medulla/ heart beat, (a) Adenohypophysis : It produces ACTH
rate of (b) Adrenal cortex : It produces aldosterone
respiration (c) Adrenal medulla : It produces epinephrine
and
(d) Pars nervosa : It produces ADH
alertness
AP EAMCET-2010
(d) Glucagon Beta-cells Stimulates
of lslets glycogenol Ans. (b) : Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the
of ysis adrenal gland. It controls excretion of Sodium by the
langerhans kidneys and they maintains the balance of salt and water
in body fluid.
AIPMT (Mains)-2010 Adenohypophysis– Anterior pituitary (Adenohypophysis)
Ans. (c) : Norepinephrine is secreted by adrenal is a lobe of the gland that regulates several physiological
medulla and it increases heart beat, rate of respiration processes. This hormones secretes other hormones.
and alertness. Adrenal medulla – The adrenal medulla make
chemical such as epinephrine (adrenaline) and nor
epinephrine which are involved in nerve signals.
Pars Nervosa – Pars Nervosa also called the neural
lobe or posterior lobe, this region constitutes the
majority of the posterior pituitary and is the storage site
of oxytocin and vasopressin.
328. Match the types of cells listed under column I
with the secretions givenunder column II.
• Vasopressin increases reabsorption of water from the Choose the answer which gives the correct
nephrons of the kidney, thereby, decrease loss of combination of the alphabets of the two
water through urine. columns.
Column-I Column-II 331. Secretion of androgens by testes is regulated
(Types of cells) (Secretions) by:
A Beta cells p Lysozyme (a) LTH (b) FSH
(c) ICSH (d) Oxytocin
B Mast cells q Mucus
WB JEE-2006
C Paneth cells r Histamine
Ans. (c) : Secretion of androgens by testes is regulated
D Acinar cells s Insulin ICSH. ICSH (Interstitial cell stimulating hormone) also
t Pancreatic known as LH (Luteinizing) hormone which is
enzymes stimulates the production of androgens by the process of
(a) A = s; B = r; C = p; D = t spermatogenesis.
(b) A = q; B = r; C = p; D = t 332. Presence of which of the following hormone in
(c) A = s; B = q; C = p; D = t the urine confirms pregnancy?
(d) A = t; B = q; C = r; D = s (a) Progesterone
Karnataka CET-2004 (b) Oestrogen
Ans. (a) :.Insulin is secreted by β cells. (c) Human chorionic gonadotropin
• Histamine is secreted by mast cells during an allergic (d) Prolactin
reaction. WB JEE-2012
• Pancreatic acinar cells secretes digestive enzyme. Ans. (c) : Presence of human chorionic gonadotropin
• Paneth cell secretes lysozymes. hormone in the urine confirms pregnancy. HCG is a
hormone produced during pregnancy. It appears in the
blood and urine of pregnant women as early as 10 days
H. Testes and Ovary after conception.
329. Assertion (A): In human beings testes lie in 333. The female hormone inhibin is secreted by:
scrotum. (a) zonapellucida (b) ovary
Reason (R): To maintain high temperature (c) corpusluteum (d) uterine epithelium
more than normal body AFMC -2011
temperature. AMU-2011
The correct option among the following is Ans. (c) : The female hormone inhibin is secreted by
(a) A and R are true, R is correct explanation for A corpus luteum. Inhibin hormone inhibits the synthesize
(b) A and R are true, but R is not correct and releasing of FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone) in
explanation for A the pituitary gland.
(c) A is true. But R is false. 334. Which of the following induces parturition?
(d) A is false. But R is true. (a) Vasopressin (b) Oxytocin
TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-II (c) GH (d) TSH
Ans. (c) : The Assertion (A) states that testes are DUMET-2010
located in the scrotum, which is correct. The Reason (R) UP CPMT-2001
provided is that this positioning is to maintain a high AMU-2007
temperature more than normal body temperature, which Ans. (b) : Oxytocin induces parturition. It is secreted by
is incorrect. the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. It increases the
• The reason for the testes being located in the scrotum contraction of the uterine muscles during parturition.
is to maintain temperature slightly lower than normal Vasopressin is secreted from posterior pituitary.
body temperature. This lower temperature is essential • Growth hormone and Thyroid-stimulating hormone is
for proper sperm development and function. secreted from anterior pituitary.
Spermatogenesis is a temperature sensitive process, and
the scrotum's location outside the body cavity helps 335. Androgens are secreted by :
keeps the testes cooler than the core body temperature, (a) testis (b) ovary
which is ideal for sperm production. (c) placenta (d) none of these
330. The condition of the testis not descending into JIPMER-1999
scrotum is called Ans. (a) : Androgens are secreted by testis.
(a) Cryptorchidism (b) Involution Testosterone is the major androgen in the body, and it
(c) Delamination (d) Capacitation aids in the development of secondary sexual
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I characteristics and organs, sperm generation, and body
tissue expansion.
Ans. (a) : Cryptorchidism is a medical condition in
which one or both testicles do not descend into the 336. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an
scrotum as they should during fetal development. endocrine gland after ovulation?
Normally, the testes form in the abdominal cavity and (a) Graafian follicle
gradually descend into the scrotum before birth or (b) Stroma
shortly after. However, in case of cryptorchidism, this (c) Germinal epithelium
descent does not occur properly and the testicles (d) Vitelline membrane
remains in the abdomen or along the path of descent. Rajasthan PMT-2010
Ans. (a) : Graafian follicle of ovary in mammals 341. Normal functioning of sex glands is regulated
functions as an endocrine gland after ovulation.The by
Graafian follicle is also known by the name of the (a) tocopherol (b) calciferol
ovarian follicle which is terned into a yellow-colored (c) phylloquinone (d) pyridoxine
structure called corpus luteum. It is responsible for the AMU-1997
maturation of the oocytes and the release of fertilizable Ans. (a) : Normal functioning of sex glands is regulated
oocytes. by tocopherol. It helps our nerves and muscles work
well and prevents blood clots and boosts our immune
system so that it can fight off infections from germs.
342. Cumulus proligerus cells are found around
(a) Oviducal funnel (b) Corpus albicans
(c) Ovum (d) Ovary
AMU-1997
Ans. (c) : Cumulus proligerus cells are found around
ovum. Oviduct funnel is used to transport the ovum
337. Estrogen is secreted by from the ovaries to the uterus. They are also used for
(a) Pituitary gland (b) Adrenal gland sperm fertilization of the ovum.
(c) Graafian follicle (d) Placenta
AMU -2000
Ans. (c) : Estrogen is the female reproductive hormone
secreted by the membranous granulosa of the Graafian
follicle. Estrogen is a steroid hormone associated with
the female reproductive organs and is responsible for
developing female sexual characteristics.
338. Progesterone is secreted by 343. The immediate cause of induction of ovulation
(a) corpus aorta (b) corpus albicans in female is the large plasma surge of
(c) corpus luteum (d) corpus callosum (a) Progesterone (b) Estradiol
UP CPMT-2001 / Haryana PMT-2003 (c) LH (d) FSH
JECECE-2004 AMU-2009
Ans. (c) : Progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum AIPMT-1994
in the ovary during the second half of the menstrual Ans. (c) : The immediate cause of induction of
cycle. ovulation in human females is the large plasma surge of
The corpus albicans is the regressed form of the corpus the luteinizing hormone (LH). Estradiol is a female sex
luteum. It is white colour fibrous connective tissue. This hormone produced by the ovaries, adrenal gland and
tissue does not produce any hormone. also produced by placenta during pregnancy.
The corpus callosum is the region of the brain 344. Deficiency of which of the following hormones
consisting of white matter tracts that connect the left leads to infertility in male and female human
and right cerebral hemispheres. beings ?
(a) LTH (b) FSH
339. Sertoli cells are involved in
(c) ACTH (d) TSH
(a) excretion (b) nutrition of sperms
(c) respiration (d) All of the above
AMU-2007 Ans. (b) : Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is a
hormone that plays a significant role in sexual
Ans. (b) : Sertoli cells are involved in nutrition of development and reproduction by affecting the function
sperms. Sertoli cells or nurse cells which are a part of of the ovaries and testes. It works alongwith luteinizing
seminiferous tubules helps in process of hormone (LH). It helps in controlling the menstrual
sparmatogenesis, and It is regulated by FSH. cycle and stimulates the growth of eggs in the ovaries
340. The Leydig cells found in the human body are while in men, it helps in controlling the production of
the secretory source of sperm.
(a) Glucagon (b) Androgens Hence, Deficiency of FSH hormones leads to infertility
(c) Progesterone (d) Intestinal mucus in male and female human beings.
JCECE-2018 345. Estrogen and testosterone are steroid
Ans. (b) : The Leydig cells found in the human body hormones, and are most likely bind to
are the secretory source of androgens. (a) membrane ions channels
• The pancreatic islets of Langerhan's alpha cells (b) enzyme-linked membrane receptors
secrete the peptide hormone known as glucagen. (c) G-protein linked membrane receptors
• Progesterone is mainly secreted by the corpus luteum (d) cytoplasmic receptors
in the ovary. DUMET-2009
Ans. (d) : Estrogen and testosterone are hormones, and 349. Secretion of estrogen is promoted by
are most likely bind to cytoplasmic receptors. (a) HCG (b) FSH
Cytoplasmic receptors are found in the cytoplasm of a (c) Progesterone (d) testosterone
cell and are often targeted by hydrophobic ligands that CMC Ludhiana-2015
can cross the lipid bilayer of the animal plasma cell Ans. (b) : Secretion of estrogen is promoted by FSH.
membrane. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is secreted from the
346. Prostate gland is a anterior part of pituitary gland. It stimulates the growth
(a) Digestive gland of ovarian follicles in females.
(b) Sperm producing gland 350. Which is gonadotropin hormone?
(c) Semen secreting accessory gland of male (a) GH (b) MSH
(d) Hormone producing gland of the ovary (c) ADH (d) FSH and LH
J&K CET-2007 BCECE-2008
Ans. (c) : Prostate gland is a semen secreting accessory Ans. (d) : FSH and LH both are gonadotropin hormone
gland of male. The prostate gland is located just below both are secreted by the pituitary gland and play
the bladder in men and surrounds the top portion of the essential role in the regulation of the reproduction
tube that drains urine from the bladder (urethra). system.
FSH Stimulates the growth and maturation of ovarian
follicles in females and spermatogenesis in males. LH
triggers ovulation in females and stimulates the
production of testosterone in males
351. Female hormone is :
(a) progesterone (b) estrogen
(c) estradiol (d) all of these
BCECE-2002
Ans. (d) : Estrogen is the hormone that regulates the
menstrual cycle while progesterone is the hormone that
supports pregnancy. Estradiol is a female sex hormone
produced by the ovaries, adrenal gland and also the
placenta during pregnancy. Progesterone is a hormone
that plays an important role in reproductive system.
Hence, all are female hormones.
347. Repair of endometrium is undertaken by
(a) LH (b) FSH 352. FSH is
(c) Estrogen (d) Prolactin (a) glycoprotein (b) catecholamine
AMU-1996 (c) polypeptide (d) steroid
Haryana PMT-2011
Ans. (c) : Repair of endometrium is undertaken by
estrogen. Estrogen plays a crucial role in the menstrual Ans. (a) : FSH is glycoprotein. FSH is a member of the
cycle, and after menstruation, if stimulates the growth glycoprotein hormone family, which also includes LH,
and repair of the endometrial lining in preparation for a chorionic gonadotropin (CG) and thyroid-stimulating
possible pregnancy It promotes the thickening and hormone (TSH). Catecholamines are important in stress
vascularization of the endometrium, creating a suitable responses. High levels cause high blood pressure which
environment for the implantation of fertilized egg. can lead to headaches, sweating, pounding of the heart,
pain in the chest, and anxiety.
348. In oocyte secondary maturation occurs in
(a) Ovary (b) Abdominal cavity 353. Eunuchoidism is due to the failure of
(c) Fallopian tube (d) Uterus production of
AMU-1996 (a) FSH (b) testosterone
(c) ICSH (d) estrogen
Ans. (c) : In oocyte secondary maturation occurs in
fallopian tube. AMU-2003
Ans. (b) : Eunuchoidism is due to the failure of
production of hormone testosterone.
• Eunuchoidism is a condition in which deficiency of
sexual development at puberty in males.
• Testosterone hormone is produced by testis under the
control of hypothalamus and pituitary.
354. Accessory sexual character in female is
Abdominal cavity is largest hollow space of the body. promoted by
Its upper boundary is the diaphragm, a sheet of muscle (a) androgen (b) progesterone
and connective tissue that separates it from the chest (c) estrogen (d) testosterone
cavity; its lower boundary is the upper plane of the VMMC-2014 / JIPMER-2008
pelvic cavity. CG PMT-2004
Ans. (c) : Estrogen is a steroid hormone that regulates Ans. (a) : Glans penis is formed by corpus spongiosum.
reproductive function and secondary sexual characters It is commonly referred to as the penis head. The corpus
in the female, including breast development. It also cavernosum is the erectile tissue of your penis, which
helps in growth of endometrium ovulation and calcium contain more blood in the penis during erection.
absorption. Estrogen is secreted by graafian follicles. 359. Which of the following hormone levels will
355. Due to deficiency of which hormone, bones cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the
become weak in female? graafian follicle?
(a) ACTH (b) TSH (a) High concentration of Progesterone
(b) Low concentration of LH
(c) Progesterone (d) Estrogen
(c) Low concentration of FSH
GUJCET-2011
(d) High concentration of Estrogen
Ans. (d) : Female bones weak due to the deficiency of NEET-2020 Phase-I
estrogen hormone.
Ans. (d) : Ovulation occurs when the level of hormones
• Estrogen hormone secretion promoted by the FSH. is as follows:
• Estrogen plays an important role in maintaining bone (1) High Concentration of estrogens
strength due to decrease estrogen level around the (2) Low Concentration of Progesterone.
time of menopause, resulting in increased bone loss. (3) High Concentration of LH
356. Which is the derivative of amino acid? (4) High Concentration of FSH
(a) Epinephrine (b) Estrogen 360. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive
(c) Progesterone (d) All of these and urinary system in the human male is.
AIIMS-1999 / CG PMT-2006 (a) Urethra (b) Ureter
Ans. (a) : Epinephrine is derivative of amino acid. It is (c) Vas deferens (d) Vasa efferentia
synthesized by the modification of amino acid tyrosine. AIPMT-2014
Estrogen and progesterone are derivatives of cholesterol. Ans. (a) :The urethra is the shared terminal duct of the
• Epinephrine is produced in the central nervous system reproductive and urinary system in the male. It serves as
and chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla. a passageway for both urine and semen, allowing them
357. Match the following columns and select the to exit the body through the penis.
correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Placenta (i) Androgens
(B) Zona pellucid (ii) Human
Chorionic
Gonadotropin
(HCG)
(C) Bulbourethral (iii) Layer of the
glands ovum
361. The main function of mammalian corpus
(D) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of luteum is to produce:
the Penis (a) estrogen only
(A) (B) (C) (D) (b) progesterone
(a) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (c) human chorionic gonadotropin
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (d) relaxin only
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) AIPMT-2014 / CMC Vellore-2010
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) Uttarakhand PMT-2009 / DUMET-2007
NEET-2020 Phase-I Rajasthan PMT-2006, 1999
Ans. (c) : Ans. (b) : The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine
structure in female mammals, that is involved in the
(A) Placenta -- Human chorionic production of relatively high levels of progesterone.
gonadotropin (HCG) is Progesterone is an endogenous steroid, involved in the
a hormone produced menstrual cycle, pregnancy, and embryogenesis of
primarily by humans and other species.
syncytiotrophoblastic
cells, of the placenta
during pregnacy.
(B) Zona pellucida - Layer of the ovum.
(C) Bulbo- urethral glands - Lubrication of the penis.
(D) Leydig cells - Androgens.
358. The glans penis is a derivative of_______
(a) corpus spongiosum (b) corpus callosum
(c) corpora cavernosa (d) corpus albicans
362. Which one of the following is not the function Ans. (d) : The formation of egg and sperm is affected
of placenta? It :- by FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone).
(a) secretes oxytocin during parturition FSH in female stimulates growth and development of
(b) facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to ovarian follicles, within which egg or ova develop.
embryo It also promotes secretion of the estrogen by the ovary.
(c) secretes estrogen In males, FSH targets seminiferous tubule in testis and
(d) facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and stimulates sperm production.
waste material from embryo 367. Secretion of progesterone by corpus luteum is
NEET-2013 initiated by
Ans. (a) : Placenta secretes lots of hormones to nourish (a) GH (b) LH
embryos but it does't secret oxytocin hormone which is (c) Thyroxine (d) Testosterone
used for delivery of babies. Hence this is not function of J&K CET-2013
placenta. Ans. (b) : Secretion of progesterone by corpus luteum is
The placenta act to provide oxygen and nutrients to the initiated by LH.
fetus, while it removing carbon dioxide and other waste • LH triggers ovulation from graafian follicles with the
products. It metabolises a number of substances and can release of a secondary oocyte by an ovary LH also
releases metabolic products in to maternal or fetal stimulates formation of the corpus Luteum in the ovary
circulations, placenta also secret estrogen. and secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum.
363. Occurrence of Leydig's cells and their secretion is 368. Which substance is secreted by corpus leuteum?
(a) ovary and estrogen (a) Hormone (b) Unzyme
(b) liver and cholesterol (c) Pheromone (d) Bile
Rajasthan PMT-1999
(c) pancreas and glucagon
(d) testis and testosterone. Ans. (a) : Progesterone hormone is secreted by the
corpus Luteum.
Tripura JEE-2019 / TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-I
KVPY SB & SX-2014 / DUMET-2007
LH triggers ovulation from graafian follicle with the
release of a secondary oocyte an ovary.
J&K CET-2007 /AIPMT-1993, 1991
DUMET-2008 / Uttrakhand PMT-2008 369. Relaxin hormone in mammals is secreted by:
Manipal-2008, 2002 / DUMET-2003 (a) Placenta (b) Follicle
BVP-2007, 2011, 2012 / MGIMS Wardha-2006 (c) Ovary (d) Testis
AP EMACET-1998 / JIPMER-1996 KVPY SA-2016 / Haryana PMT-2001
Ans. (a & c) : Relaxin hormone in mammals is
Ans. (d) : Occurrence of Leydig cell is testis and their
secretion are testosterone. secreted by placenta in ovary. It is also produced by the
corpus luteum in both pregnant and non pregnant
• Leydig cells also known as interstitial cells. Which
females. Relaxin also helpful during child birth it
produce male sex hormones androgen. It is located relaxes the ligaments in the pelvis and softens and
between the seminiferous tubules within a lobule. widens the cervix.
364. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of • In the female, relaxin is produced by the corpus luteum
milk from female? of the ovary, and during pregnancy, also by the placenta.
(a) Oxytocin (b) Progesterone 370. Sertoli cells are nourishing cells in the testis.
(c) LH (d) Prolactin They also secrete a hormone. Identify the same.
AIPMT-1996 / UP CPMT-2001 (a) Testosterone (b) Gonadotropin
Ans. (d) : Prolactin (PRL) is a peptide hormone which (c) Inhibin (d) Relaxin
stimulates the secretion of milk from female. Karnataka CET-2005
• Prolactin hormone synthesized and secreted by the Ans. (c) : Sertoli cells secrete Inhibin hormone. Sertoli
adenohypophysis. It stimulates the mammary gland to cells is also called nurse cells because it nourish the
produce milk. developing sperms. Inhibin hormone acts antagonistic
365. ____Is a precursor molecule of testosterone. to FSH.
(a) Cholesterol (b) Cholic acid 371. Diagrammatic sectional view of ovary is shown
(c) Bile salt (d) Hyaluronic acid in the figure with labels 1 to 5. Identify them
MHT CET-2019
correctly?
Ans. (a) : Testosterone is a precursor molecules of
cholesterol.
• It is produced by the leydig cell of testis .Testosterone
stimulates spermatogenesis and it is responsible for the
growth and development of male accessory sex organ.
366. The formation of egg and sperm is affected by:
(a) LH (b) MH
(c) TSH (d) FSH
DUMET-2005
(a) 1-Primary follicle, 2-Graafian follicle, 3- 375. In males, the essential hormone for secondary
Tertiary follicle, 4-Ovum, 5-Corpus luteum sexual characteristics is
(b) 1-Primary follicle, 2-Tertiary follicle, 3- (a) testosterone (b) progesterone
Graafian follicle, 4-Corpus luteum, 5-Ovum (c) estrogen (d) relaxin
(c) 1-Primary follicle, 2-Tertiary follicle, 3- CG PMT-2004
Graafian follicle, 4-Ovum, 5-Corpus luteum Ans. (a) : Testosterone hormone is the essential
(d) 1-Primary follicle, 2-Graafian follicle, 3- hormone for secondary sexual characteristics in male.
Tertiary follicle, 4-Corpus luteum, 5-Ovum
• Testosterone is secreted by the leydig cell of testis. It
AP EAMCET-05.10.2021 Shift-I stimulate spermatogenesis and is responsible for the
Ans. (c) : 1 - Primary follicle growth and development of male accessory organs.
2-Tertiary follicle 376. Corpus luteum is developed from
3-Graafian follicle, (a) Oocyte (b) Nephrostome
4-Ovum, (c) Graffian follicle (d) None of these
5-Corpus luteum. VMMC-2004
372. The following statements are true for Ans. (c) : Cropus lutuem is developed from the graafian
progesterone EXCEPT ONE follicle.
(a) It prepares the uterus for the implantation of LH stimulate formation of the corpus luteum (structure
blastocyst formed after ovulation) in the ovary and the secretion of
(b) It causes formation of alveoli in the breast progesterone by the corpus luteum.
and helps in secretion of milk
(c) Its withdrawal prolongs pregnancy 377. In most mammal, the testes are located in
scrotal sac for
(d) It inhibits contraction of the uterus
(a) Spermatogenesis
(b) Sex differentiation
Ans. (c) :Progesterone is a hormone primarily product (c) More space to visceral organs
by ovaries in female and the testes in males.
In female it play essential role in regulating the (d) Independent functioning of kidney
menstrual cycle, preparing the uterus for pregnancy and VMMC-2004
maintaining pregnancy. Ans. (a) : In most mammal, the testes are located in
It cause formation of alveoli in the breast and help in scrotal sac for spermatogenesis.
secretion of milk. • In scrotal or scrotum testes are situated outside the
It also inhibits constraction of uterus . abdominal cavity within a pouch.
Its withdrawal does not prolonged pregnancy • The scrotal sac helps in maintaining the low
373. Sex hormones can work without the help of temperature of the testes (2-2.5°C lower than the
(a) insulin (b) placenta normal internal body temperature) necessary for
(c) pituitary (d) gonadotropins spermatogenesis autogenesis.
Rajasthan PMT-2003 378. When both ovaries are removed from rat
Ans. (a) : Sex hormone can work without the help of which hormone is decreased in blood
insulin hormone. (a) Oxylocin (b) Prolactin
• Insulin is protein hormone helps lower blood glucose (c) Estrogen
level when it is too high. (d) Gonadotrophic releasing factor
• Pituitary produce FSH and LH hormones. Rajasthan PMT-2007 / AIPMT-2002
• Placenta produce peptide hormone relaxin which Ans. (c) : When both ovaries are removed from rat
increases the flexibility of the pubic symphysis estrogen hormone is decreased in blood because
during pregnancy. estrogen hormone is secreted by the ovaries. So, in the
• Gonadotropin is gonadotropin releasing hormone absence of ovaries estrogen level drop in blood.
responsible for release of FSH & LH from the • Oxytocin- produced by posterior pituitary
anterior pituitary. • Prolactin- produced by anterior pituitary
374. Which of the following hormones is a • Gonadotrophic releasing factor produced by
derivative of fatty acid? hypothalamus.
(a) Gastrin (b) Thyroxin 379. A girl after attaining sexual maturity shows
(c) Estrogen (d) Prostaglandins development of growing ovarian follicles,
WB JEE-2014 development of mammary glands and high
Ans. (d) : Prostaglandins hormone is a derivative of pitch of voice. These changes are attributed to--
fatty acid. -----------hormones.
• Prostaglandins are known to regulate the female (a) Melatonin (b) Estrogens
reproductive system, and are involved in the control of (c) Progesterone (d) Androgens
ovulation the menstrual cycle and the induction of labour. Karnataka CET-2020
Gastrin- It is derivatives of protein hormones. Ans. (b) : Estrogen and progesterone hormone secreted in
Estrogen- It is derivatives of steroid hormones. females only. Estrogen hormone influences growth of
Thyroxin/Thymosin- It is derivatives of peptide secondary character like development of mammary glands,
hormones. ovarian follicle and high pitch of voice in females.
380. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of:- (c) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and
(a) Lower levels of adrenalin/noradrenalin in its inhibits the secretion of FSH
blood (d) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and
(b) Higher levels of thyroxin inhibits the secretion of L.H
(c) Higher levels of cortisone NEET-2016 Phase-I
(d) Lower levels of blood testosterone Ans. (c) : The inhibin is produced by granulosa cells in
AIPMT-2007 ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH. The peptide
hormone inhibin is synthesized and secreted by
Ans. (d) : In Bullock low level of blood testosterone granulosa cells and specifically inhibits FSH synthesis
present as comparison to Bull. Because a bullock is a and secretion by the pituitary.
castrated animal. Castration (removal of testes) often
leads to reduction in aggressive behavior and make 384. A boy after attaining sexual maturity shows
them more suitable for work and handling. muscular growth, growth of facial and axillary
hair, aggressiveness and low pitch of voice.
381. Match the hormones listed under column I These changes are attributed to_________
with their functions listed under column II. hormone.
Choose the answer which gives the correct (a) Testosterone (b) Glucagon
combination of the alphabets of the columns. (c) Estrogen (d) Secretin
Column I Column II Karnataka CET-2019
A Oxytocin P Stimulates ovulation Ans. (a) : Testosterone is a male hormone, responsible for
B Prolactin q Implantation and so many changes seen in boys during puberty like low
maintenance of pitch of voice, increase in height, pubic hair growth etc.
pregnancy 385. Hormones have the following features :
C Luteinising r Lactation after child I. adenohypophysis produces gonadotropins
hormone birth II. besides sex cells, hormones are also
D Progesteron s Uterine contraction produced by testis and ovary
during labour III. testosterone is produced by leydig cells
IV. estrogen is produced by ovary
t Reabsorption of
water by Nephrons Which of the above factors influence secondary
sexual characters?
(a) A = s, B = r, C = p, D = q (a) III and IV (b) II, III and IV
(b) A = t, B = p, C = s, D = r (c) II and IV (d) All of these
(c) A = s, B = q, C = r, D = t AP EAMCET-2006
(d) A = t, B = r, C = p, D = s Ans. (d) : Adenohypophysis or the anterior pituitary
Karnataka CET-2008 produces gonadotropins like LH and FSH, which
Ans. (a) : triggers the gonads to produces the sex hormones
Column-I Column-I progesterone, estrogen and testosterone.
(A) Oxytocin - (s) uterine contraction during In females, progesterone, estrogen are responsible for
labour controlling the menstrual cycle and are also responsible
(B) Prolactin - (r) Lactation after child birth for the secondary sexual characters during puberty.
(C) Luteinizing - (p) Stimulates ovulation In males, the testosterone produced by leydig cells
influences the spermatogenesis and secondary sexual
hormone characters.
(D) Progesterone - (q) Implantation and
386. Which gland secretes odorous secretion in
maintenance of pregnancy. mammals:
382. Which one of the following hormone lack cellular (a) Bartholins (b) Prostate
(either intra or extra) bound receptors? (c) Anal gland (d) Liver-bile
(a) Insulin (b) FSH AIPMT-2000
(c) LH (d) Testosterone Ans. (c) :Anal gland secretes odorous secretion in
UP CPMT-2014 mammals. The anal gland are located near the anus and
Ans. (d): Testosterone– Steroid hormones like produce a strong smelling secretion Animals use this
testosterone being hydrophobic molecules, diffuse secretion for communication, marking territories and in
freely into all cell and act within the cell. They do not some cases, use as a defense mechanism.
need cell membrane bound receptors, instead they have 387. What is correct to say about the hormone
mobile receptor proteins in the cytoplasm. action in humans?
• Protein and peptide hormones such as (insulin, FSH, (a) In females, FSH first binds with specific
LH) find their receptors decorating the plasma receptors on ovarian cells membrane
membrane of target cells. (b) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and
383. Identify the correct statement on 'inhibin'- progesterone
(a) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and (c) Glucagon is secreted by β-cells of islets of
inhibits the secretion of L.H Langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis
(b) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and (d) Secretion of thymosins is stimulated with aging
Prolactin AIPMT (Screening)-2012
Ans. (a) : In females, FSH first binds with specific (d) The proenzymes pepsinogen and prorennin on
receptors on ovarian cell membranous. FSH (follicle- exposure to HCl are converted to active
stimulating Hormone) is a hormone secreted by the enzymes.
anterior pituitary gland. FSH is binds to specific TS EAMCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
receptors on the surface of ovarian cells, initiating a Ans. (b) : HCl is secreted by oxyntic cells, also known
signaling cascade that leads to the maturation of as parietal cells. Peptic cells are the cells that secrete
follicles and release of estrogen. pepsin, on enzyme that digests proteins.
388. Which substance can be used as male 393. Erythropoietin hormone is produced by
contraceptive in future (a) Heart (b) Kidney
(a) FSH (b) LH
(c) Gastro Intestinal Tract (d) Testes
(c) Testosterone (d) Progesterone AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I
AIPMT-1999
Ans. (b) : Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein hormone that
Ans. (c) : Testosterone can be used as male stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone
contraceptive in future. marrow. It is released in response to low oxygen levels
• Progesterone is also used as contraception it is used in the blood. The kidneys are the primary producer of
with estrogen in the birth control pills. It help to send erythropoietin. The hormone is produced by interstitial
negative feedback to the brain regarding the release fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with the
of the gonadotropin hormone. pertitubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubules.
389. Synthesis of testosterone by Leydig cells is 394. Name of the hormone that stimulates the
stimulated by………. secretion of gastric juice.
(a) FSH (b) ICSH
(a) Renin (b) Enterokinase
(c) LTH (d) TSH
(c) Enterogastrone (d) Gastrin
Karnataka CET-2004
WB JEE-2010
Ans. (b) : ICSH, (Interstitial cell stimulating hormone)
Ans. (d) : Gastrin is the hormone that stimulates the
LH in male is called ICSH, ICSH acts an leydig cells
and stimulate synthesis and secretion of testosterone. secretion of gastric juice secreted by mucosa of the
Testosterone, in turn stimulate spermatogenesis. stomach. Enterokinase is an enzyme in the intestinal
juice that converts inactive trypsinogen into active
390. In rabbit, head of epididymis present at the trypsin. It is produced by Brunner's gland in the
head of the testis is called membrane lining of the duodenum.
(a) Vas deferens (b) cauda epididymis Enterogastrone secreted by duodenal epithelium.
(c) gubernaculum (d) caput epididymis
VMMC-2012 / UP CPMT-2008 395. Crypts of Leiberkuhn are involved in
(a) secretion of succus entericus
Ans. (d) :Epididymis in rabbit divided into three
regions i.e. Caput (head) carpus (body) and (b) secretion of rennin
cauda(tail).Caput(head) are also connected with efferent (c) secretion of ptyalin
–duct of the testes. Caput epididymis is head of (d) digestion of food
epididymis present at the head of the testis in rabbit. Rajasthan PMT-2009
Ans. (a) : Crypts of Leiberkuhn are involved in
I. Hormones of heart, kidney and secretion of success entericus. These are pale/yellow
watery liquid which secreted by the gland lining the
gastrointestinal tract wall of small intestine.
391. Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) acts as a 396. Which of the following is a protein hormone?
(a) Hypertension inducer (a) Progesterone (b) Insulin
(b) Check on Renin-Angiotensin mechanism (c) Testosterone (d) Thyroxin
(c) Promoter on Renin-Angiotensin mechanism Tripura JEE-2018
(d) Vasoconstricter Ans. (b) : Insulin is the peptide hormone secreted by
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 the pancreas. It maintains the glucose level in the blood
Ans. (b) : Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF), also known and stores the glucose in the liver, fat, and muscles. As
as Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP), is a hormone it is a peptide hormone it contains protein molecules
produced by cells in the atria of the heart. Its primary and is also called protein hormones.
function to check on Renin-Angiotensin mechanism and 397. The endocrine nature of kidney is indicated by
regulate blood pressure and volume by influencing
secretion of _______.
various physiological processes in the body.
(a) calcitriol (b) aldosterone
392. Which of the following statements about HCl of
(c) glucagon (d) vasopressin
gastric juice is incorrect.
(a) HCl kills the microorganisms ingested along
with food. Ans. (a) : The endocrine nature of the kidney is
(b) HCl is secreted by peptic cells of gastric glands indicated by the secretion of Calcitriol.
(c) HCl provides the acidic pH which is optimum Calcitriol is a steroidal hormone synthesized by the cells
for the action of pepsin of the proximal tubules of the nephrons.
398. Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive 401. This gastrointestinal hormone stimulates
hormones. They are secreted in insulin secretion.
(a) oesophagus (b) ileum (a) Gastrin (b) CCK
(c) duodenum (d) pyloric (c) Secretin (d) GIP
AFMC -2009 AMU-2010
Ans. (c) : Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive Ans. (d) :GIP(Gastric inhibitory polypeptide) stimulates
hormones. They are secreted in duodenum. insulin secretion from the pancreas, which helps
• The esophagus is the tube that carries food from the regulate blood sugar level by promoting the uptake of
mouth to the stomach. glucose by cells.
• The ileum is the last part of the small intestine. GIP also play a role in inhibiting gastric acid secretion.
• Pyloric stenosis is a narrowing of the opening from 402. Angiotensin -II, a protein are synthesised by
the stomach into the small intestine. This is called the liver function as
pylorus. (a) Enzyme (b) Coenzyme
399. Atrial natriuretic hormone is produced by : (c) Antibody (d) Hormone
(a) Kidney (b) Heart VMMC-2014 / UPCPMT-2014
(c) Duodenum (d) Thyroid gland Ans. (d) : Angiotensin -II, a protein are synthesised by
AMU-2005 / Manipal-2004 / Uttarakhand PMT-2004 liver function as hormone. Angiotensin-converting
enzyme inhibitors, often shortened to ACE inhibitors,
Ans. (b) : Atrial natriuretic hormone is produced by
are a type of medications that lower our blood pressure.
heart.
403. The hormone secretin is produced by
(a) Pancreas and influence the conversion of
glycogen to glucose
(b) Adrenal gland and accelerate heart beat
(c) Testis and produces male secondary sex
character
(d) Small intestine and stimulate pancreas
AMU-2008 / VMMC-2008
Ans. (d) : The hormone secretin is produced by small
intestine and stimulates pancreas. Secretin stimulates
the pancreas to produce and release bicarbonate-rich
It is more specifically produced by the atria, the upper fluids, which helps neutralize the acidic chyme and
chambers of the heart. This hormone play crucial role in create a suitable environment for the enzyme in the
regulating blood pressure and fluid balance by small intestine for proper functioning.
promoting the excretion of sodium and water in the
kidneys, thereby reducing blood volume and pressure. 404. Secretin hormone is secreted from :
(a) stomach and stimulates gastric gland
400. The hormone which makes the gallbladder
(b) duodenum and stimulates liver
contract is:
(a) Secretin (b) Gastrin (c) thyroid and stimulates thyroid gland
(c) Cholecystokinin (d) Oxytocin (d) duodenum and stimulates pancreas
J&K CET-2006 / BVP-2012 / Haryana PMT-2003
MGIMS Wardha-2008 / Haryana PMT-2003
JIPMER-1998 Ans. (d) : Secretin hormone is secreted from duodenum
and stimulates pancreas. Secretin is a hormone that
Ans. (c) : Cholecystokinin stimulates the gallbladder to
modifies the environment of the duodenum by
contract and release stored bile into the intestine. controlling secretions in the stomach, pancreas, and
Cholecystokinin liver. It is a peptide hormone generated in the
duodenum's S cells, which are found in the intestinal
glands.
405. What is cholecystokinin?
(a) Enzyme
(b) Bile-pigment
(c) Gastro-intestinal hormone
(d) Lipid
J&K CET-2006
Ans. (c) : Cholecystokinin is gastro-intestinal hormone.
It is a hormone secreted by the mucosa of small
intestine. It causes the release of digestive enzymes and
bile from the pancreas and gallbladder, respectively.
Gastrointestinal hormone:- The enteroendocrine cells
Cholecystokinin is a peptide hormone of the secrete a set of hormones in the pancreas, stomach, and
gastrointestinal system responsible for stimulating the small intestine by controlling the digestive organs, these
digestion of fat and protein. are called gastrointestinal hormones.
406. Which of the following hormones cause (D) ADH causes vasodilation.
inhibition of gastric secretions and promotion (E) Vasopressin is released from
of pancreatic, bile secretions ? adenohypophysis.
(a) Gastrin, secretin, enterokinin and Choose the most appropriate answer from the
cholecystokinin options given below:
(b) Enterogastrone, pancreozymin and (a) (A), (B) and (E) only
cholecystokinin
(b) (C), (D) and (E) only
(c) Gastrin, enterogastrone, pancreozymin and
cholecystokinin (c) (B), (C) and (D) only
(d) Secretin, enterogastrone, gastrin and enterokinin (d) (A), (B) and (C) only
VMMC-2015 NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
Ans. (b) : Enterogastrone,pancreozymin, and Ans. (d) :
cholecystokinin hormones cause inhibition of gastric • Angiotensin-II (Ang-II):- It is the major regulator of
secretions and promotion of pancreatic, bile secretions. Aldosterone secretion. In the medulla it enhances
407. Which of the following hormones induce catecholamine release and it exerts trophics effects in
secretion of succus entericus? the adrenal and stimulates growth factor secretion.
(a) Insulin • Aldosterone also causes your kidneys to release
(b) Secretin and cholecystokinin (Excrete) potassium through your urine. The increase in
(c) Glucagon sodium in your bloodstream causes water retention.
(d) Secretin This increases blood volume and blood pressure.
Rajasthan PMT-2000 • ANF causes vasodilation (dilation of blood vessels)
Ans. (b) : Secretin and cholecystokinin hormones and there by decrease the blood Pressure. ANF
induce secretion of succus entericus. Succus entericus is mechanism, therefore, acts as a check on the renin
an acid secretion produced by glands in the duodenum angiotensin mechanism.
wall that consists of water, biological attributes, and So, the correct answer is option (d).
hydrogen carbonate ions. It protects the duodenum by 411. Succus entericus is referred to as:
offsetting the acidic environment and proteolytic mucus
that tries to enter the small intestine from the stomach. (a) Chyme (b) Pancreatic juice
(c) Intestinal juice (d) Gastric juice
408. Pancreas secretes pancreatic juice on
stimulation by NEET-2021
(a) Renin (b) Gastrin Ans. (c) : Succus entericus is also called intestinal juice,
(c) Secretin (d) DDK which is secreted by glands in the walls of the small
BCECE-2007 intestine to help in digestion and absorption of nutrients.
Ans. (c) : The pancreas secretes pancreatic juice in
response to stimulation by the hormone secretin. It is
released when acidic chyme enters the small intestine
and it signals the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich
pancreatic juice to neutralize the acidity of the chyme
for effective digestion to neutralize the acidity of the
chyme for effective digestion.
409. Which of the following options best represents
the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice?
(a) Amylase, Peptidase, Trypsinogen, Rennin
(b) Amylase, Pepsin, Trypsinogen, maltase
(c) Peptidase, Amylase, Pepsin, Rennin 412. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates
(d) Lipase, Amylase, Trypsinogen, Procarboxy R.B.C. formation is produced by:
peptidase (a) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
NEET-2017 (b) Alpha cells of pancreas
Ans. (d) : Pancreatic Juice contains trypsinogen, (c) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
chymotrypsinogen, lipase, amylase, nuclease, (d) The cells of bone marrow
procarboxy peptidase and elastase. NEET-2021
• Rennin and pepsin are gastric enzymes, while maltase Ans. (a) : Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney secrete
is present in intestinal Juice.
erythropoietin hormone which stimulates RBC
410. Select the correct statements. formation.
(A) Angiotensin II activates the cortex of • Alpha cells of pancreas produce hormone glucagon.
adrenal gland to release aldosterone.
(B) Aldosterone leads to increase in blood • Cells of rostral adenohypophysis. Synthesizes
pressure. hormones of anterior lobe of pituitary.
(C) ANF acts as a check on renin-angiotensin • The cells of bone marrow produce two types of cells
mechanism. which are myeloid and lymphoid lineages.
413. Figure shows human urinary system with • Thyroxin hormone secreted by thyroid gland. It
structures labelled A to D. Select option which also plays a role in digestion, control of muscles
correctly identifies them and gives their and bone health.
characteristics or functions • Adrenaline (Epinephrine) hormone secreted by
Adrenal gland also called flight or fight hormone
415. Which one of the following four secretions is
correctly matched with its source, target and
nature of action?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
Secretion Source Target Action
(a) Gastrin Stomach Oxyntic cells Production of
lining HCl
(a) D-Cortex - outer part of kidney and do not (b) Inhibin Sertoli cells Hypoth- Inhibition of
contain any part of nephrons alamus secre-tion of
(b) A-Adrenal gland located at the anterior part gonadotropin
releasing
of kidney. Secrete Catecholamines which hormone
stimulate glycogen breakdown
(c) Enterokinase Duodenum Gall bladder Release of bile
(c) B-Pelvis - broad funnel shaped space inner to juice
hilum directly connected to loops of Henle
(d) Atrial Sinu alrial Juxta- Inhibition of
(d) Complete nephrons Natriuretic node (SAN) glomerular release of renin
NEET-2013 Factor M-cells of apparatus
Ans. (b) : In this figure, (ANF) Atria (JGA)
A. Adrenal gland. It is located at the anterior part of Ans. (a) : Gastrin is a peptide hormone and the source
kidney, secrete catecholamines which helps regulate organ is stomach lining which is secreted by a target
metabolism and helps body to respond to stress. cell known as oxyntic cell. The main function of gastrin
Catecholamines also stimulate glycogen breakdown. hormone to the production of the HCl.
B. Renal pelvis, it collects urine from the calyces and • Inhibin is secreted by sertoli cell in response to FSH.
funnels it into the ureter. • Enterokinase secreted by duodenum which convert to
C. Medulla- It is the innermost part of the kidney. The trypsinogen into trypsin.
renal medulla is split up into a number of sections,
know as the renal pyramids. • Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) secreted by atrium of
D. Cortex- it is the outermost part of the kidney and heart.
contains the renal corpuscles and the renal tubules 416. Duodenum has characteristic Brunner's gland
except for parts of the loop of Henle which descend which secretes two hormones called?
into the renal medulla. (a) Prolactin, parathormone
(b) Secretin, cholecystokinin
(c) Enterocrinin, duocrinin
(d) Gastrin, euterogastrone
AIIMS-2009
Ans. (b) : Secretin and cholecystokinin are secreted by
Brunner’s gland of the duodenum.
Brunner’s gland found in the sub mucosa layer of the
duodenum which first part of small intestine. It secretes
414. Which of the following match is correct? mucus which helps protect the duodenal lining from the
Hormone Effect acidic chyme in the stomach.
(a) Oxytocin Milk ejection hormone
(b) Glucagon Decreases blood sugar
level
(c) Adrenaline Decreases heart rate
(d) Thyroxine Decreases BMR
AIIMS-2007
Ans. (a) : Oxytocin is female Hormone. Oxytocin is
secreted by posterior pituitary gland. It stimulates
uterine contractions in labor during childbirth and help
in milk ejection.
• Glucagon is a peptide hormone, produced by alpha 417. Which one affects liver, muscle and adipose
cells of the pancreas. It raise concentration of tissue?
glucose and fatty acids in the blood stream and is (a) Androgen (b) Insulin
considered to be the main catabolic hormone of the (c) Progesterone (d) Glucagon
body. AP EAMCET-2005
Ans. (b) : Insulin effects the liver, muscle, and adipose 421. Hormone glucagon, responsible for conversion
tissue. Insulin is hormone produced by the pancreas of glycogen into glucose is secreted by
which help in regulating blood sugar (glucose) levels in (a) Pancreas gland (islet of Langerhans)
body. It promotes the uptake of glucose by muscle and (b) β-cells of islets
adipose tissue for energy and storage, which inhibits the (c) Pancreatic polypeptide cells
production of glucose by the liver. (d) α-cells of islets of Langerhans
418. Which of the following hormone stimulates the WB JEE-2015 / UP CPMT-2014
gastric secretion? Ans. (d): Hormone glucagon is responsible for the
(a) Enterogastrone (b) Gastrin conversion of glycogen into glucose. This hormone is
(c) CCK-PZ (d) Villikinin secreted by α or a cell of islet of Langerhans which is
UP CPMT-2005 / JIPMER-2014 the endocrine parts of pancreas gland.
AMU-2006 / MGIMS Wardha-2005 • β⋅cell of islets of Langerhans secrete hormone insulin
Ans. (b) : Gastrin is a hormone produced by the which is responsible for lowering blood glucose level.
stomach, which stimulates the release of gastric acid. • PP cell or pancreatic peptide cells secretes pancreatic
• Enterogastrone hormone is responsible for inhibiting polypeptide. These cells are also known as f⋅cells.
the gastric secretion and mobility of the stomach. 422. Which is the correct statement regarding
• CCK–PZ or Cholecystokinin is secreted by the gastrointestinal hormone or local homone?
stimuli of the presence of partially digested fat in the (a) They are either amino acids or their derivatives.
duodenum of the small intestine. (b) Their secretion is released directly into blood
• Villikinin hormone postulated to exist in order to (c) They are peptide or polypeptide in nature and
explain the activity of intestinal extracts. stimulate gland to secrete digestive juice.
419. Study of the following Renin, Angiotensin (d) They are generally known as neurotransmitter
Aldosterone system and identify the correct UP CPMT-2014
options for X, Y and Z Ans. (c): All the gastrointestinal hormone or local hormone
are proteinaceocus in nature, i.e., peptide or polypeptide.
These hormone stimulate digestive gland like liver,
pancreas, brunner, etc, to secrete digestive juice/ enzyme.
Example–Secretion of cholecystokinin and enterogastrone,
etc.
423. The juice containing sodium glycocholate
released under the influence of :
(a) Secretin (b) Cholecystokinin
(c) Enterogastrone (d) Enterocrinin
X Y Z AP EAMCET-2006
(a) Liver Lungs Kidney Ans. (b) : The bile juice containing sodium glycolate
(b) Kidney Liver Lungs are released under the influence of cholecystokinin .
(c) Liver Kidney Lungs Bile juice are yellowish green (7.7 pH) fluid produced
(d) Lungs Liver Kidney by the liver and stored in the gallbladder.
TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I Cholecystokinin direct stimulates gallbladder and the
Ans. (c) : • X–Angiotensinogen is secreted by the bile flow will start.
hepatocytes cells of the liver cells. 424. A hormone secreted by the endocrinal cells of
• Y–Renin hormone is secreted by the juxtaglomerular duodenal mucosa which influences the release
cell of the kidney. of pancreatic juice is
• Z–AEC are related to surface of pulmonary (LUNG) (a) Relaxin (b) Cholecystokinin
and renal endothelium. (c) Secretin (d) Progesterone
Renin, Angiotensin and aldosteron is a hormone present AP EAMCET-2009
in human body which are essential for the regulation of Ans. (b) : Cholecystokinin pancreozymin (CCK-Pz) is
blood pressure and fluid balance. the hormone secreted from mucosa of small intestine. It
420. Deficiency of secretion from the β-cells of islets stimulates pancreas to release enzymatic (pancreatic)
of Langerhans result in Juice and gall bladder to eject bile.
(a) Hyperglycemia • Relaxin – Relaxin, is a hormone primarily known for
(b) Diuresis its role in pregnancy, where it helps relax uterine
muscles and the cervix to facilitate childbirth.
(c) Protein stored in tissue is decreased
(d) All of the above • Secretin – Secretin has 3 main functions; regulation
of gastric acid, regulation of pancreatic bicarbonate
UP CPMT-2014
and osmoregulation. The major physiological actions
Ans. (d): Deficiency of secretion from the β⋅cells of of secretin are stimulation of pancreatic fluid and
islet of Langerhans result in hyperglycemia (high blood bicarbonate secretion.
sugar level), diuresis (increase urination) and protein • Progesterone prepares the endometrium for the
stored in tissue is decreased. This is commonly seen in potential of pregnancy after ovulation. It triggers the
diabetes mellitus. lining to thicken to accept a fertilized egg.
J. Mechanism of hormone Action Ans. (c) : The feedback control mechanism is related to
hormonal secretion. The Hering–Breuer inflation
425. Select incorrect statement, regarding chemical reflex, named for Josef Breuer and Ewald Hering, is a
structure of insulin. reflex triggered to prevent the over-inflation of the lung.
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin 429. Which of the following is inhibitory
molecule. neurotransmitter?
(b) Polypeptide chains A and B are linked by (a) GABA (b) 5-hydroxy tryptophan
disulphide bridges. (c) Serotonin (d) Glutamine
(c) Mature insulin molecule consistes of three
JCECE-2015
polypeptide chains-A, B and C.
(d) Insulin is synthesized as prohormone which Ans. (a) : Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) acts as
contains extra stretch of C-peptide. the principal inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central
nervous system. GABA regulates brain activity to
prevent problems in the areas of anxiety, irritability,
Ans. (c) : Insulin has two polypeptide chains referred to
concentration, sleep, seizures and depression.
as A-chain and B-chain. Basically insulin is a hormone
that plays a central role in controlling blood sugar levels 430. Which one of the following does not act as a
in the body. So, mature insulin does not contain C- neurotransmitter?
peptide chain which is removed during maturation of (a) Acetylcholine (b) Epinephrine
pro-insulin into insulin. Hence, it contains only two (c) Norepinephrine (d) Cortisone
polypeptide chains. CMC Ludhiana-2008
■ C-peptide is absent in mature insulin molecule. Ans. (d) : Cartisone is a type of glucocorticoid hormone
■ Polypeptide chains A and B are linked disulphide that plays a role in regulating various metabolic and
bridges. immune functions in the body. It is produced by adrenal
■ Extra stretch is not present in mature insulin but gland and involved in process such as glucose metabolism,
present in pro-insulin. immune response and inflammation regulation.
426. The name second messenger is given to • Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that plays a role
(a) ATP (b) Cyclic-AMP in memory, learning, attention, arousal and
(c) GTP (d) Both (a) and (b) involuntary muscle movement.
CG PMT-2007 • Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is both a
Ans. (b) : Cyclic AMP was first discovered by Dr. Earl neurotransmitter and a hormone. It plays an important
W. Sutherland in 1958 for which he received a Nobel role in our body’s “fight-or-flight” response.
prize. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate is a second • Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers in the
messenger, or cellular signal occurring within cells, that body. Their job is to transmit signals from nerve cells
is important in many biological processes. to target cells.
431. How does steroid hormone influence the
cellular activities?
(a) Binding to DNA and forming a gene hormone
complex
(b) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell
membrane
(c) Using aquaporin channels as second
427. Steroid is a messenger
(a) Thyroid acid (d) Changing the permeability of the cell
membrane
(b) Vitamin - A
NEET-2019
(c) Cholesterol
(d) Easter and fatty acid Ans. (a) : Steroid hormones are able to bind to DNA
and form gene hormone complex.
CG PMT-2007 / BCECE-2004
These hormone can easily cross the lipid bilayer of cell
Ans. (c) : Steroid is a cholesterol. Cholesterol is a waxy, membrane and do not require for the secondary
fat-like substance that's found in all the cells in body which messenger for the same.
is not soluble in plasma or other body fluids. Steroid hormones are made up of lipid such as
428. The feedback control mechanism is related with phospholipid and cholestrol. They are fat soluble. So
(a) Bile secretion (b) HCl secretion they can diffuse across the plasma membrane of
(c) Hormonal secretion (d) Hering breuer reflex targeted cell and bind with receptor in the cytoplasm of
CG PMT-2007 the cell.
432. Which of the following glucose transporters is 434. Which one of the following is not a second
insulin-dependent? messenger in hormone action ?
(a) GLUT II (b) GLUT III (a) cGMP (b) Calcium
(c) GLUT IV (d) GLUT I (c) Sodium (d) cAMP
NEET-2019 AIPMT-2006
Ans. (c) : GLUT IV is mostly responsible for the Ans. (c) : Sodium is not a second messenger in
transport of glucose in striated muscles and adipose hormone action.
tissues. It is insulin - dependent, insulin stimulates the Secondary messenger hormone are a type of signaling
molecules that transmit messages within cells.
transport of glucose inside the cells.
They bind with receptors on the cell surface, which then
433. Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic trigger the production of secondary messenger inside
representation of the mechanism of hormone the cell.
action. • cGMP – It is known as cyclic guano sine
monophosphate. It involved in intracellular signaling
pathways. It play role in vasodilation,
neurotransmission, and vision.
Example – It relax smooth muscles in blood vessels.
• cAMP – It is known as cyclic adenosine
monophosphate. It is the second messenger which
involved in transmitting signals within cells. It can
activate the protein kinase for the regulation of gene
Select the correct option from the following : expression and cell growth.
++
(a) A = Protein Hormone; B = Cyclic AMP; C = • Ca also worked as second messenger in the cells.
Hormone-receptor Complex 435. Steroid hormones work as
(b) A = Steroid Hormone; B = Hormone-receptor (a) They enter into target cells and binds with
Complex; C = Protein specific receptor and activates specific genes
(c) A = Protein Hormone; B = Receptor C = to form protein
Cyclic AMP (b) They binds to cell membrane
(d) A = Steroid Hormone; B = Receptor; C = (c) They catalyse formation of cAMP
Second Messenger (d) None of the above
NEET (Odisha)-2019 JIPMER-2014
Ans. (c) : A, B and C is the diagrammatic Ans. (a) : Steroid hormones enter target cells, bind with
specific receptors, and activate specific genes to form
representation of the mechanism of hormone action.
proteins. This mechanism of action allows them to
• Protein hormones are chemical messengers that influence gene expression and have long-lasting effects
acts as communication between your cells, tissues on cellular function.
and organs. They are made and secreted by 436. Assertion (A):-Hormone and its receptor
endocrine tissues or glands. protein together form a hormone receptor
• Cyclic AMP involved in the regulation if glycogen, complex.
sugar and lipid metabolism. It may affect brain Reason (R):-Hormone receptor complex
function in many ways. It also represents the second generates biochemical changes in the target cells
messenger. (a) Both A & R are correct. R is correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A & R are correct. R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) Both A & R are incorrect
(d) A is correct but R is not correct
Ans. (a) : Hormone and its receptor protein together
• Receptors help in signal transduction. It is involved form a hormone receptor complex which generates
in immune responses and immunotherapy. Also it biochemical changes in the target cells. Hormones act
controls the membrane channels. as intercellular messenger and required trace in amount.
Unit-II : Reproduction
07. SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN
FLOWERING PLANTS
(B) Roots arise from radicle are called fibrous
A. A flower-Fascinating organ of roots
Angiosperms (C) The modified bract is called "Spathe"
1. Following has radially expanded cells with (D) In Apiaceae family, each flower is
fibrous thickenings surrounded by involucre of bracts
(a) Tapetum (b) Endothecium Options:
(c) Endothelium (d) Pericycle (a) A, B (b) A, C
AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I (c) B, C (d) B, D
Ans. (b) : Endothecium has radially expanded cell with TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I
fibrous thickenings. Endothecium perform the function of Ans. (b) : For classification of higher organisms we
protection and help in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen. need to known technical terms and variation of the
2. Assertion (A) : Herkogamy is common in parts, because there are different forms of organisms on
Datura plants. earth, from minute bacteria to large elephants, it was
Reason (R) : In Herkogamy, anther and stigma very difficult to study all the life forms.
are placed at different positions so that the The organisms are classification as follows–
pollen can't come into contact with the stigma (i) Kingdom
of the same flower. (ii) Phylum
Which of the following is true? (iii) Class
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) (iv) Order
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the (v) Family
correct explanation of (A) (vi) Genus
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false (vii) Species
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true The modifies bract is called ''spathe" it is boat shaped
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II and characteristic of spadix inflorescence.
Ans. (d) : Herkogamy is known as the process in which 5. Diadelphous stamens are found in
pollination of pollen with the stigma of the same flower (a) China rose and citrus (b) China rose
is prevented by the means of mechanical separation. (c) Citrus (d) Pea
This occurs in bisexual flowers. Herkogamy, the spatial NEET-2021
separation of anthers and stigmas within flowers, is a
key floral trait though to promote outcrossing or the Ans. (d) : Stamens are said to be diadelphous when
avoidance of interference between male and female these are united in two bundles like in Pea.
sexual functions (Wee and Lloyd 1986). • China rose has monoadelphous stamens.
3. In the homeostatic control of blood sugar level, • Citrus has polyadelphous stamens.
which organs function respectively as • Monoadelphous stames are grouped in single bundle.
modulator and effector ? • Polyadelphous stamens occur in more than two
(a) Liver and islets of Langerhans bundels.
(b) Hypothalamus and liver
(c) Hypothalamus and islets of Langerhans
(d) Islets of Langerhans and hypothalamus
AIIMS-2015 /Karnataka CET-2006
Ans. (c) : Hypothalamus and islets of Langerhans acts
as modulator and effectors in the homeostatic control of
blood sugar level. A modulator is an organ that
modulates the homeostasis and effectors is an organ that
brings it into effect. The homeostatic control of the
blood sugar level is done by glucagon and insulin.
4. Find the correct statements among the following. 6.Flowers are unisexual in :
(A) For classification of higher organisms we (a) Onion (b) Pea
need to know technical terms and variation (c) Cucumber (d) China rose
of the parts AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 317 YCT
Ans. (c) : In cucurbitaceae family (eg. cucumber, 10. Which of the following statements is not correct
pumpkin, gourd) have unisexual flowers. (a) Some reptiles have also been reported as
• They have either stamen or the pistil. pollinators in some plant species
• Yellow coloured petals along with stamen that (b) Pollen grains of many species can germinate
represent the male reproductive structure. on the stigma of a flower, but one pollen tube
• In dioecious plants, the male and female flower of the same species grows into the style
appear on seprate plants. (c) Insects that consume pollen or nectar without
• In monoecious plants, each plant has both male and bringing about pollination are called
female flower such plants may have either unisexual pollen/nectar robbers
or bisexual flowers. (d) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth
• Pea belongs to fabaceae family. are regulated by chemical components of
pollen interacting with those of the pistil
• China rose belongs to Malvaceae family.
NEET-2016 Phase-I
• Onion belongs to Liliaceae family and have bisexual
flowers. Ans. (b) : Pollen is essential for sexual reproduction of
angiosperms and plants that produce cones. Each pollen
7. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to grain contains male gametes necessary for fertilization.
(a) stigma receptivity The scientific study of living and fossilized pollen
(b) dehiscence of anthers grains is known as palynology.
(c) viability of pollen Many pollen tubes of same species can also grow into
(d) opening of flower bud the style. Pollen grains of other species are not
AMU-2015 / CMC Ludhiana-2009 compactable and do not germinate on the stigma of the
Haryana PMT-2002 flower of different species.
Ans. (d) : Anthesis is a phenomenon which refer to the So, the correct answer is pollen grains of many species
opening of flower bud. It includes the maturation of can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one
flower parts means elongation of style, maturation of pollen tube of the same species grows into the style.
stamen, formation of pollen and ovule, and also petal 11. Which one of the following statements is not
colours. After this flowers are ready for pollination and true
post pollination process. So, this is also called flowering (a) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in
period and it makes a flower functional. the crop breeding programmes
8. If a sporangium develops from a single cell, the (b) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
development of sporangium is known as (c) Exine of pollen grains is made up of
(a) heterosporangiate (b) homosporangiate sporopollenin
(c) eusporangiate (d) leptosporangiate (d) Pollen grains of many species causes severe
AMU-1996 allergies
Ans. (d) : Sporangium is a spore producing structure in NEET-2016 Phase-I
plants. When a sporangium develops from a single cell, Ans. (b) : Tapetum is the inner most layer of the anther
the development of sporangium is known as wall and completely surrounds the sporogenous tissue.
leptosprangiate. When the sporangium is developed It is usually single layered and has a several nutritive
from different epidermal cells instead of single and secretary functions related to pollen development,
epidermal cells, is known as eusporangiate. Homo pollination and pollen germination.
sporangiate is development of one kind of sporangium.
Heterosporangiate is the formation of different kind of
sporangium.
B. Microsporangium and pollen

Grain
9. What is the function of tassels in the corn cob? 12. An organic substance that can stand with
(a) To protect seeds environmental extremes and cannot be
(b) To attract insects degraded by any other enzyme is:
(c) To trap pollen grains (a) Lignin (b) Cellulose
(d) To disperse pollen grains (c) Cuticle (d) Sporopollenin
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023 AIPMT (Screening)-2012
Ans. (d) : The main function of tassels in corn cob is to Ans. (d) : Sporopollenin forms the outer covering of the
disperse pollen grains. Corn cob is a bisexual plant. The exine and it is the most resistant organic material on the
Corn cob has long tantacles. Which help the pollen earth ever known. Sporopollenin is one of the most
grains to spread through the flow of air. chemically inert biological polymers.
• The tassels are long as they are involved in the It protect the pollen grains form external factors such as
production of large number of pollen grains, These help temperature, acid alkali, enzyme etc.
to trap the pollen in the wind flow for a wider Sporopollenin is also found in the cell walls of several
dispersion and future progeny. taxa of green algae including phycobillins and chlorella.
13. Which of the following statements is correct? 17. Among the following statements related to
(a) Sporopollenin can withstand high pollens, choose the correct one.
temperatures but not strong acids Statement I: In 40% of angiosperms pollen
(b) Sporopollenin can be degraded by enzymes grains are shed at 3-celled stage.
(c) Sporopollenin is made up of inorganic materials Statement II: Intine is made of cellulose and
(d) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures pectin and it is discontinuous
as well as strong acids and alkalis with germ pores.
NEET (Karnataka)-2013 (a) Both I and II are correct
(b) Both I and II are incorrect
Ans. (d) : Sporopollenin is a ubiquitous and extremely
chemically inert biopolymer that constitutes the outer (c) I is correct and II is incorrect
wall of all land plant spores and pollen grains. (d) I is incorrect and II is correct
Sporopollenin protects the vulnerable plant gametes Karnataka CET-2018
against a wide range of environmental assaults. Ans. (c) : In over 40% of angiosperm, pollen grains are
• The exact composition of sporopollenin is not known shed during 3-celled stage. Pollen is essential for sexual
but analyses and studies have revealed that it is reproduction of angiosperms and plants that produce
composed of long chain fatty acids along with some cones. Each pollen grain contains male gametes
other biopolymers like phenolics and corotenoids. necessary for fertilization. The scientific study of living
and fossilized pollen grains is known as palynology.
14. There are 10 flowers in one individual plant of The pollen grains is protected by two layers the outer
Crotalaria. In each microsporangium of every exine and the inner intine. The exine is made of
stamen of all the flowers, there are 30 chemical substance sporopollenin, while the intine
microspore mother cells. How many pollen contains in parts cellulose and hemicelluloses. It is
gains are formed from that plant ? continuous with the germ pore, while exine is
(a) 4, 000 (b) 10,000 discontinuous with the germ pore.
(c) 24,000 (d) 48,000 18. Pollen grains of a plant whose 2n = 28 are
AP EAMCET-2009 cultured to get callus by tissue culture method.
Ans. (d) : Crotalaria is a member of Papilinaceae, in What would be the number of chromosomes in
which 10 stamens are present in flower. Each stamen the cells of the callus?
has 4 micro-sporangia, (i.e. 10×4=40) in which (a) 21 (b) 14
microspore mother cell are found. Each microspore (c) 56 (d) 28
mother cell gives rise to a pollen tetrad (i.e. 40×4 = Karnataka CET-2009
160), for 1 flower having 30 micro-sporangia it would Ans. (b) : Pollen grain are produced by meiosis pollen
be (160×30=4800) pollen grain. Thus' we have to of plant with 2n = 28
calculate for 10 flowers then it would be (4800×10 = n = 14 chromosomes.
48000) pollen grain.
In this family flower is bisexual, strongly zygomorphic, 19. Fibrous thickenings of hygroscopic nature are
perigynous, pentamerous, cyclic, bracteates, bracteolate found in this part of the anther wall:
with papilionaceous corolla. (a) Epidermis (b) Endothecium
(c) Middle layers (d) Tapetum
15. Large nucleus in a pollen grain is
AP EAMCET-2005
(a) tube nucleus (b) sperm nucleus
(c) generative nucleus (d) none of these Ans. (b) : Endothecium is an unilayer or radially
elongated cell occurs in between the epidermis and
UP CPMT-2006 middle layer of an angiospermic anther sac wall. Cell of
Ans. (a) : There are two nucleus in mature pollen grain endothecium cells possess a fibrous thickening in their
vegetative (the bigger one responsible for pollen grain cell wall that makes them hygroscopic, there by aiding
development) and generative (the Smaller one fused with in the dehydration of mature anther.
the egg). Pollen grain is the mother cell of male 20. Which one of the following is resistant to
gametophyte. enzyme action?
● The tube nucleus guides or controls the growth of pollen (a) Pollen exine (b) Leaf cuticle
tube and cells follow the path of the tube nucleus. Tube
(c) Cork (d) Wood fibre
nucleus control the direct growth of pollen tube.
AIPMT-2008
16. When pollen grain is shed at 3-celled stage,
name the cells is contains. Ans. (a) : Pollen has a outer hard layer called exine.
(a) 1 vegetative cell and 2 male gametes This exine is made up of sporopollenin protein which
is one of the most resistance organic material known.
(b) 2 vegetative cells and 1 male gamete
No enzyme so for known that can degrade exine. It is
(c) 2 generative cells and 1 male gamete also resistant to high temperatures. Leaf cuticle, cork,
(d) 2 male gametes and 1 generative cell wood fibre all are prone to enzyme action.
Karnataka CET-2018
Ans. (a) : A pollen grain with pollen tube carrying male
gametes represent mature male gametophyte.
Generative cell divides forming two male gametes and
hence at 3 celled stage the pollen grain contain two
male gametes and one negative cell.
21. Which one of the following is surrounded by a 24. Arrange the sequence of events in
callose wall ? microsporgenesis.
(a) Pollen grain (b) Microspore mother cell (A) Disassociation of microspore as pollen grains
(c) Male gamete (d) Egg (B) Anther maturation and dehydration
AIPMT-2007 (C) Pollen mother cell undergoes meiotic
Ans. (b) : Microspore mother cell is surrounded by division
callose wall. (D) Microspore tetrad
Primary sporogenous cells gives rise to microspore (a) A, B, D, C (b) B, C, D, A
mother cells. Each microspore mother cell on (c) C, D, B, A (d) A, B, C, D
reduction division gives rise to four microspores or TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-II
pollen and this formation of microspores or pollens is Ans. (c) : Microsporgenesis- when the anther
called microsporogenesis. develops, each cell of sporogenous tissue functions as
microspore another cell (MMC) or pollen mother cell
(PMC) and undergoes is meiotic divisions to form
microspore tetrads. The process of formation of
microspores from a pollen mother cell (PMC) through
meiosis is called microsporogenesis.
Sequence of events in microsporgenesis– Pollen mother
cell undergoes meiotic division → Microspore tetrad →
Anther maturation and dehydration → Disassociation of
microspore as pollen grains.
22. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by 25. Which of the following cells during
the division of: gametogenesis is normally diploid?
(a) Microspore mother cell (a) Spermatid (b) Spermatogonia
(b) Microspore (c) Secondary polar body (d) Primary polar body
AIPMT-2015
(c) Generative cell
(d) Vegetative cell Ans. (b) Spermatogonia are the diploid stem cells in
spermatogenesis (gametogenesis).
AIPMT-2007
Spermatognoia are undifferentiated immature germ
Ans. (c) : Pollen grains are produced within the anther cells that divide to produce primary spermatocyte.
of the flower. Pollen mother cell originate from the Spermatogensis is the process by which haploid
sporogenous tissue of the anther which later dived spermatozoa develops from germ cells in the
meiotically to from four pollen grains called tetrad. seminiferous tubules of the testis.
Each pollen grain contains vegetative (non- 26. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces
reproductive) cells and a generative cell (reproductive (a) Three sperms
cell). In flowering plants the vegetative cell produce the (b) Two sperms and a vegetative cell
pollen tube and the generative cell divides to form the
(c) Single sperm and a vegetative cell
two sperm cell or male gametes.
(d) Single sperm and two vegetative cells
Ans. (b) : Male gametophyte development of
angiosperms is a complex process that requires
coordinated of different cell type and tissue of both
gametophytic & sporophytic origin underlaid by
specific gene expression patterns.
Two sperms and a vegetative cell are produced by male
gametophyte in angiosperms.
27. Function of filiform apparatus is to:-
(a) Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma
(b) Stimulate division of generative cell
(c) Produce nectar
(d) Guide the entry of pollen tube
AIPMT-2014
Ans.(d): A filiform apparatus function is to guide the
pollen tube into the synergids. The filiform apparatus is
23. Rarely among angiosperms, the pollen grains a finger-like projection, a highly thickened structure
influenced the endosperm. This is called as formed from synergid cell at the micropylar end.
(a) meta xenia (b) nemec phenomenon
(c) xenia (d) mesogamy
JIPMER-2014
Ans. (c) : Xenia, term coined by Focke (1881). The
direct or indirect effect of forgen pollen grains on the
character of endosperm is called the xenia.
28. Which one the following statements is correct? (c) A-Pollen grains, B-Connective tissue, C-
(a) Tapetum nourishes the doveloping pollen Endothecium
(b) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine (d) A-Endothecium, B-Pollen grains, C-
(c) Sporogenous tissue is haploid Connective tissue
(d) Endothecium produces the micorspores AIIMS-2016
NEET-2013 Ans. (a) : According to diagram
Ans. (a) : Tapetum is important for the nutrition and
development of pollen grains, as well as a source of
precursors for the pollen coat. Tapetum reaches maturity at
the same time of pollen grain formation. The pollen grain
is surrounded by two layers as exine which forms the outer
layer and intine which forms the inner layer.
29. What is the function of germ pore

(a) Initiation of pollen tube A. Connective tissue
(b) Release of male gametes B. Pollen grains
(c) Emergence of radicle C. Endothecium
(d) Absorption of water for seed germination 32. If a stock has 2n = 48 and scion microspore
AIPMT (Mains)-2012
mother cell has 2n = 24, then root cell and the
Ans. (a) : The germ pore are appertures in the exine microspores will have chromosomes
layer of the pollen grain sporopollenin is absent. respectively.
• The germ pore help in the formation of the pollen (a) 12, 48 (b) 48, 12
tube and release of male gamete during fertilization.
(c) 24, 12 (d) 24, 96
• There are usually three germ pores in dicot AIIMS-2011
(tricoplate) and one in monocots (monocolpate).
Ans. (b) : In angiosperms the root cells divide by the
process of mitosis where as the microspore cells divide
by the process of meiosis. The number of chromosomes
in daughter cells produced after mitosis in root cells will
be same as the parent cell, whereas the number of
chromosomes in daughter cells produced after meiosis
in microspore mother cell (MMC) be one half. Then the
number of root chromosome will be 48 and 12
30. In an angiosperm, how many microspore respectively.
mother cells are required to produce 100 pollen
grains? 33. Even after killing the generative cell with a
laser beam, the pollen grain of a flowering
(a) 75 (b) 100
plant germinates and produces normal pollen
(c) 25 (d) 50 tube because
AIPMT-1995
(a) laser beam stimulates pollen germination and
Ans. (c) : Each microspore mother cells undergoes pollen tube growth
meiosis to produce four pollen grains. Thus 25 (b) the laser beam does not damage the region
microspore mother cells are required to produce 100 from which pollen tube emerges
pollen grains (c) the contents of killed generative cell permits
31. The following is the diagram of T.S. of anther. germination and pollen tube growth
Identify the parts labeled A, B and C. (d) The vegetative cell has not been damaged.
Manipal-2015 / AIIMS-2008 / JPMER-1998
Ans. (d) : Even after killing the generative cell with a
laser beam, the pollen grain of a flowering plant
germinates and produces normal pollen tube because-
The vegetative cell has not been damaged.
34. The pollen grains of rice and wheat lose their
(a) A-Connective tissue, B-Pollen grains, C- viability in ____minutes of their release.
Endothecium (a) 30 (b) 10
(b) A-Endothecium, B-Connective tissue, C- (c) 60 (d) 90
Pollen grains. AIIMS-2013
Ans. (a) : The pollen grain is the first cell generation of Ans. (a) : Ubisch bodies are present in the cells of
gametophyte, pollen grains are produced within the tapetum and help in the development of pollen grains.
anther of the flower, each pollen grain contains male The number of Pro-Ubisch bodies increases by meiosis
gametes necessary for fertilization. in pollen mother coated by sporo pollenin and are called
The pollen grains lose their viability within a period of ubisch bodies or orbicules. These are involved in the
time which varies from plant to plant. The viability of formation of exine of the pollen grains.
the pollen grains of rice and wheat is 30 minutes. It 39. Epipetalous and syngenesious stamen occurs
depends upon environmental conditions of temperature in———
and humidity. (a) Solanaceae (b) Brassicaceae
35. Xenia and metaxenia terms are related with (c) Fabaceae (d) Asteraceae
(a) Pollen culture
(b) Xylem and phloem Ans. (d) : In asteraceae family (Compositae family)
plants mostly herbs or shrubs or rarely trees. Leaves
(c) Only endosperm alternate rarely opposite, exstipulate, rarely stipulate,
(d) Pollen and endosperm. inflorescence capitulum or head surrounded by
AMU-2006 / AIIMS-2002 involucres of bracts, ray and disc florates
Ans. (d) : Term metaxenia was given by Swingle in Syngenesious condition is found in this family. It is the
date palm. The direct or indirect effect of forgen pollen condition when stamens are united by their anthers
grains on the character of endosperm is called the Xenia (filaments free). Epipetalous conditions is also fund in
and effect of forgen pollen grains of the characters of family asteraceae. If stamens arise from the petals, they
seed and fruits is called the metaxenia. are called epipetalous.
36. Assertion (A) :In some plants the generative 40. One of the most resistant known biological
cell divides and forms the two male gametes material is
during pollen tube growth in stigma. (a) lignin (b) hemicellulose
Reason (R) : In plants which shed pollen in (c) sporopollenin (d) ugnocellulose
three cell stage, the pollen tube will have two JIPMER-2019 / UP CPMT-2009,2012
male gametes from the beginning. VMMC-2012 / Karnataka CET-2010
The correct option among the following is CMC Vellore-2009 /Uttarakhand PMT-2007
JIPMER-2004 / Punjab MET-2009, 2003
Options: JIPMER-2003, 2001
Ans. (c) : One of the most resistant known biological
explanation for (A) material is sporopollenin. It is very stable and
(b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the chemically inert. It is present in exine of pollen grains.
correct explanation for (A) Pollen grains have two layer of outer wall, one is intine
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false and second is exine. It is resistant to enzymes and
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true strong chemicals and even does not decompose in soil
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I after hundred of years. Due to sporopollenin, pollen
Ans. (c) : (A) is true but (R) is false– grains are found in fossils of hundreds of years old.
The development of the male gametophyte in 41. If you want to develop hybrid seeds within a
angiosperms in called as micro gametogenesis. Pollen bisexual flower, the following part needs to be
grain is the first cell of a male gametophyte. This cell removed from the same flower
undergoes only two divisions, with the result of first (a) Stigma (b) Ovary
division two cells are formed a large vegetative cell and (c) Anther (d) Oviduct
a small generative cell. The second division is WB JEE-2012
concerned with generative cell only. This division may Ans. (c) : If I want to develop hybrid seeds within a
take place either in pollen grain or in the pollen tube bisexual flower. The anther needs to be removed from
and gives rise to two male gametes. the same flower because if anther is not removed then
37. If we explore anther wall from outside to inside the flower pollinate with anther of same flower and can
then which sequence will be correct not be pollinated with pollen of other flowers. It is
A-Endothelium B-Tapetum necessary to pollinate the flower with pollen of other
flowers for producing hybrid seeds.
C-Epidermis D-Middle Layer
(a) C – D – A – B (b) C – A – D – B 42. Exine of pollen grain is made up of
(c) B – D – A – C (d) C – D – B – A (a) Pectocellulose (b) lignocellulose
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I (c) sporopollenin (d) pollen kit
Haryana PMT-2011 / MHT CET-2018
Ans. (b) : Epidermis → Endothecium → Middle layer WB JEE-2010 / WBJEE-2008
→ Tapetum. Ans. (c) : Exine of pollen grains are made up of
38. Ubisch bodies are produced from——— sporopollenin. Spropollenin is the most resistant known
(a) Tapetum (b) Vascular bundles biological material, which is not degraded by any
(c) Endothecium (d) Sporogenous tissue enzyme. Pollen grains is male gamete with two layerd
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I cell wall. Outer covering is tough called exine and inner
covering is intine. Pectocellulose is formed by the Ans. (c) : At the time of shedding the number of nuclei
fusion of pectin and cellulose fibres. It is present in present in an angiosperms pollen grains is two or three.
intine. Pollen kit is the oily and sticky layer around theIn two celled stage, the pollen grains have vegetative
exine of pollen grains. and generative cells, but in 3- celled stage the
43. How many microsporangia are found in a generative cell undergoes mitosis and form two nuclei.
monothecous anther? Approximately 60% angiosperms shed their pollen at
(a) Only one (b) Two the 2- celled stage and 40% at 3- celled stage.
(c) Four (d) Many 48. Which of the following represents the male
Manipal-2011 gamete?
Ans. (b) : Stamen is male reproductive parts of flower (a) Endosperm (b) Synergids
which consist of anther and filament. Further anther is (c) Pollen grain (d) Antipodals
consist of two lobes and each lobes possesses two UP CPMT-2012
pollen sacs or microsporangia. While monothecous Ans. (c) : Pollen grains represent the male gamete.
anther is single lobe bearing anther. So, it possesses Stamen is the male reproductive part of flower which
only two microsporangia. It is also called bisporangiate. contains pollen grains. Synergid and antipodal cells are
44. In which of the following activities, ubisch the part of mega-sporangium i.e. ovule of angiosperms.
bodies are not involved ? In ovule synergid is present at micropylar end and
antipodal cells are present at chalazal end.
(1) Initiating meiosis in pollen mother cell
Endosperm is formed after the fertilization and it
(2) Providing nutrition to developing pollen provide nutrition to the seeds.
(3) Specific embryological functions
49. Fillform apparatus is found in:
(4) Designing the external thickening of pollen
(a) tapetum (b) synergids
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) anripodals (d) anther wall
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct AFMC-2002
Ans. (b) : Filliform apparatus is found in synergids. It is
Ans. (a) : Ubisch bodies are the small cellular structure a group of finger-like structures attached to the upper
of the sporopollenin. These ubisch are possessed by the wall of synergid. It guides the pollen tube. Synergids
tapetum cells. These bodies are involved in external are present at micropylar end of ovule. Antipodal cells
thickening of the outer layer of pollen grains i.e. these are present at chalazal end of ovule.
help in exine formation because of the presence of Anther is male reproductive part of flower. Tapetum is
sporopollenin. innermost layer of pollen sac which provide nutrition to
45. Haploid plants can be produced by: developing pollen grains.
(a) pollen culture (b) cotyledon culture 50. Germination of pollen grain on the stigma is:
(c) embryo culture (d) meristem culture (a) in situ germination (b) in vitro germination
VMMC-2014 / BVP-2002 / Karnataka CET-2002 (c) in vivo germination (d) autogamy
Ans. (a) : Haploid plants can be produced by pollen BVP-2003 / AMU-2004 / HP CET-2011
culture. Plant tissue culture is culturing of plant parts Ans. (c) : Germination of pollen grains on the stigma is
including, seeds, explants, tissues, cells or protoplast on in vivo germination. The process that occur inside the
a synthetic medium under controlled environment of body of living organisms are known as in-vivo. After
light, temperature and humidity. Cotyledon, embryo, germination of pollen grains, it forms pollen tube. The
and meristem are diploid in nature. So, these are not pollen tube passes through the style and reach ovary.
producing haploid plants. While pollen grains are male Then the generative cell forms two nuclei called male
gamete of plants and haploid in nature. gamete. These gametes fertilized with egg cells of
46. Which of the following wall layers of anther ovule.
plays a predominant role in its dehiscence? 51. In the anther wall :
(a) Epidermis (b) Endothecium (a) tapetum lies between endothecium and
(c) Middle layers (d) Tapetum middle layers
DUMET-2010 / MHT CET-2017 (b) tapetum lies just inner to endothecium
Ans. (b) : Stamen is male reproductive parts of flower. It (c) middle layer is the between endo thecium and
consist of anther and filaments. Anthers have four wall tapetum
layers i.e. epidermis, endothecium, middle layer and (d) endothecium lies to middle layer
tapetum. Epidermis is protective in nature. Endothecium HP CET-2011 / BCECE-2006
plays a predominant role in anther dehiscence. Tapetum is VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004 / BVP-2003
innermost layer of anther and it is nutritive in nature. It Ans. (c) : Anther wall include single layer of epidermis,
provide nutrition to developing pollen granis. a single layer of endothecium, one to three middle
47. At the time of shedding, the number of nuclei layers and a single layer of tapetum. Epidermis is
present in an angiosperm, pollen grain is outermost layer and it is protective in nature. Middle
(a) one (b) one or two layer is present between the endothecium and tapetum
(c) two or three (d) only two and it generally disintegrate when anther nature.
DUMET-2010 Tapetum is innermost layer and nutritive in nature.
52. Which part of the plant contains sporogenous pteridophytes male gametes are formed from androcyte
tissue? cells. In this process one male gamete is formed from
(a) Pollen (b) Microspores one androcyte. So, 32 gametes will be formed from 32
(c) Young anther (d) Stamen androcytes.
J&K CET-2014 57. A receme inflorescence of Tamarindus bears 15
Ans. (c) : Young anther of the plant contains flowers. Each fertile anther lobe of its flower
sporogenous tissue. These are located in the centres of contains 215 pollen grains. What would be the
each pollen sac of young anther. Pollen is a powdery total number of pollen grains produced by the
substance consisting of pollen grains. Microspores are inflorescence:
formed from microspore mother cells inside the anther. (a) 64500 (b) 32250
Stamen is the male reproductive part of a flower. It (c) 19350 (d) 16125
consist of anther and filament. AP EAMCET-2003
53. Developing pollen is nourished by Ans. (c) : Tamarindus belongs to the family
(a) tapetum (b) endothecium Caesalpiniaceae, in which each flower contain 3
(c) epidermis (d) middle layer stamens and each stamen contain 2 anther lobes. So,
J&K CET-2014 / J&K CET-2006 / JIPMER-1997 Total number of stamens = 15 ×3 = 45
Ans. (a) : Each pollen sac is consist of four layer of the Total number of anther lobe = 45 × 2 = 90
cells i.e., tapetum endothecium, middle layer and As it is given in question, that each lobe contain 215
epidermis. Epidermis is protective in function and it is pollen grains. So, total no. of pollen grains = 90 × 215 =
outermost covering. Tapetum is innermost layer of the 19350
pollen sac and it provide nutrition to the developing
pollen grains. It is also referred to as a source of 58. One of the following has been observed for the
precursors for the pollen grain coat. first time by Treub:
54. Outer wall of pollen grain is made up of (a) entry of the pollen tube into the ovule through
the micropyle in Ottetia
(a) Cellulose (b) Sporopollenin
(c) Peclocellulose (d) Lignin (b) entry of the pollen tube into the ovule through
BHU PMT (Screening)-2010, 2009
chalaza in Casuarina
BHU PMT (Screening)-2009 (c) entry of the pollen tube into the ovule through
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 / VMMC-2009 / BVP-2009 the integuments
Ans. (b) : Exine of pollen grains are made up of (d) formation of many pollen tubes from a single
sporopollenin. Spropollenin is the most resistant known pollen grain in Hibiscus
biological material. Pollen grains is male gamete with AP EAMCET-2003
two layered cell wall. Outer covering is tough called Ans. (b) : Treub was the first who observed the entry of
exine and inner covering is intine. pollen tube into the ovule through chalaza in casuarinas.
Pectocellulose is formed by the fusion of pectin and If the pollen enters through the micropyle, is called
cellulose fibres. It is present in intine. Pollen kit is the porogamy. When it enters through chalaza,is called
oily and sticky layer around the exine of pollen grains. chalazogamy. And when it enters through the
55. Generally archesporium in an ovule is integumentary layers, it is called as mesogamy.
(a) single celled and hypodermal in origin 59. The aleurone layer of rice grain is rich in:
(b) single celled and lies in the centre of the ovule (a) vitamin A (b) vitamin B
(c) single celled and terminal in origin (c) vitamin C (d) vitamin E
(d) many celled and lie in the centre AP EAMCET-2004
CG PMT-2007 / CPMT-1980 Ans. (b) : Aleurone layer is a layer of cells outside the
Ans. (a) : Generally archesporium in an ovule is single endosperm of cereal grains. It is rich in protein and
celled and hypodermal in origin. A group of cell from contain about 20% of the vitamin B1, 30% of the
which a spore mother cell developed is called vitamin B2.
archesporium. The archesporial cells functions directly 60. Pollen grain wings of pinus are out growths of:
as a megaspore mother cell in the tenuinucellate ovules (a) exine (b) intine
whereas it divides to form an outer parietal cell and
inner primary sporogenous cell in the crassinucellate (c) exo-intine (d) sporangial wall
ovule. Haryana PMT-2002
56. Number of androcytes required to form 32 Ans. (a) : Pollen grains wings of pinus are outgrowths
male gametes in the plant with dicyclic of exine. Exine is outermost layer of pollen grains. And
dictyostele belonging to Polypodiaceae is: pollen grains wings are characteristic feature of pinus.
(a) 4 (b) 8 These wings helps plants in the dispersal of the pollen.
(c) 10 (d) 32 These wings allow the pollen to travel further on the
AP EAMCET-2003 wind and reach new area and other plants.
Ans. (d) : Number of androcytes required to form 32 61. A microspore mother cell forms :
male gametes in the plant with dicyclic dictyostele (a) an ovule (b) pollen grains
belonging to polypodiaceae is 32. Because (c) embryosac (d) a pollen sac
polypodiaceae is a family of loss pteridophytes. In JIPMER-2000 / AMU-1997
Ans. (b) : A Microspore mother cells forms pollen 66. The growth of pollen tube towards embryo sac is
grains. The process of formation of microspore from a (a) Geotropism (b) Chemotaxis
microspore mother cell through a meiosis is called (c) Thigmotaxis (d) Phototaxis
microsporogenesis. An ovule is a small structure present MGIMS Wardha-2009
inside the ovary and contain embryo sac. Embryo sac is Ans. (b) : The growth of pollen tube towards embryo
female gometophyte of flowering plants. Pollen sacs are sac is chemotaxis. The movement of an organism in
present in anthers which produces pollen grains. response to chemical stimulation is called chemotaxis.
62. What is the function of germ pore? The movement of living things towards or away from a
(a) Initiation of pollen tube light source is known as phototaxis.
(b) Absorption of water for seed germination Chemotaxis is induced by a specific substance, the
(c) Emergence radical chemoattractant. This substance can be a chemokine, a
(d) Release of male gametes chemokine receptor, a growth factor or a growth factor
J&K CET-2015 receptor.
Ans. (a) : Germ pore is a tiny pore present on the outer 67. Pollen grains of a plant whose 2n = 28 are
layer (exine) of pollen grains where sporopollenin is cultured to get callus by tissue culture method.
What would be the number of chromosomes in
absent. The main function of germ pore is initiation of
the cells of the callus?
pollen tube. It also plays a part in the release of male
(a) 28 (b) 21
gametes. Absorption of water for seed germination
occurs through a small opening in seed called the (c) 14 (d) 56
micropyle by the process of imbibitions. Manipal-2009
63. In Clerodendron the self-pollination is Ans. (c) : Pollen grains of a plant whose 2n = 28 are
prevented by: cultured to get callus by tissue culture method. Plants
are diploid in nature but pollen grains (male gamete) are
(a) protogyny (b) protandry haploid in nature. So, the chromosome no. of pollen
(c) herkogamy (d) heterostyly grains is 14. Then the number of chromosomes in the
AP EAMCET-2001 cells of the callus is 14.
Ans. (b) : In Clerodendron, the self-pollination is 68. Fibrous thickenings of hygroscope nature are
prevented by protandry. In protandry, anthers mature found in this part of the another wall.
before pistil. (a) Epidermis (b) Endothecium
In protogyny, pistil matures before anther. (c) Middle layers (d) Tapetum
Ex.- pearl millet. VMMC-2010
In heterostyly, style and filaments of the anther are of Ans. (b) : Anther wall is consist of four layers epidermis,
different heights. Herkogany is the spatial separation of middle layer, endothecium and tapetun. Epidermis is
anthers & stigma within flowers. outermost covering and protective in nature. Middle layer
64. The highly resistant biological material of is one of three layers. Endothecium has fibrous thickening
which the exine of a pollen grain is made up is of hygroscopic nature in their cell wall and it helps in the
called dehiscence of the mature anther. Tapetun is innermost
(a) cutin (b) lignin layer and nutritive in nature.
(c) suberin (d) none of these 69. The number of pollen grains produced by head
AMU-1997 inflorescence of Asteraceae (Compositae)
Ans. (d) : Exine of pollen grains are made up of having 10 flowers. If each anther produces 20
sporopollenin. Spropollenin is the most resistant known pollen grains are
biological material. Pollen grains is male gamete with (a) 300 (b) 500
two layerd cell wall. Outer covering is tough called (c) 800 (d) 1,000
exine and inner covering is intine. CMC Vellore-2007
65. Characteristic three successive free nuclear Ans. (d) : In Asteraceae family plants are annual or
mitotic divisions are involved in the perennial herbs or small shrubs or small tree or climbers
development of _____in angiosperms. having head inflorescence, each flower has 5 anther.
(a) female gametophyte (b) embryo So, total no. of anther = 10 × 5 = 50 anthers. And each
(c) male gametophyte (d) endosperm anther produces 20 pollen grains, So, total no of pollen
MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I grains = 20 × 50 = 1000
Ans. (a) : Characteristic three successive free nuclear 70. The first sporophyte arising from pollen grain
mitotic divisions are involved in the development of was made by Guha and Maheshwari (1966) in
female gametophyte or embryo sac in angiosperms. It is (a) Hyacinthus (b) Datura
8 nucleate and 7 celled structure. The polar nuclei move (c) Drosera (d) Glycine max
to center to combine and generate a single diploid cell at CG PMT-2010 /Haryana PMT-1999
that location. This single diploid cell fuses with male Ans. (b) : Production of haploid plants from anther
gamete to form the triploid endosperm. The other three culture came from the work of Guha and Maheshwari.
nuclei grow into antipodal cells while two modify into In 1970, Guha and Maheshwari first recorded anther
synergid cells which degenerate gradually. culture in Datura innoxia by in vitro methods.
71. Diadelphous condition is found in 75.
Placentation in which ovules develop either on
(a) Rosaceae (b) Papilionaceae the inner wall of the ovary or attached on the
(c) Leguminosae (d) Cucurbitaceae peripheral part.
CMC Ludhiana-2012 (a) Axial (b) Basal
Ans. (b) : Diadelphous condition is found in family (c) Parietal (d) Central
papilionaceae (it is sub-family of leguminosae). In this AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I
condition filaments of the anthers in a flower are fusedAns. (c) : Ovules develop either on the inner wall of
into two groups (9 + 1). that ovary of attached on the peripheral part this type of
placentation is called parietal.
72. Pollen kit material is secreted by
(a) tapetum (b) endothecium 76. Which one of the following represents an
ovule, where the embryo sac becomes horse-
(c) epidermis (d) endodermis
shoe shaped and the funiculus and micropyle
AMU-2003 are close to each other?
Ans. (a) : Pollen kit material is screted by tapetum. It is (a) Circinotropous (b) Anatropous
adhesive-like material present around pollen grains as (c) Amphitropous (d) Atropous
yellow covering. It help in pollination. Tapetun is JIPMER-2007
innermost layer of anther wall and important for Ans. (c) : Amphitropous ovule is similar to hemitropous
nutrition of developing pollen grains. It is also a source
ovule but embryo sac and nucellus becomes "horse shoe
of pollen coat. Epidermis is protective in nature. shaped e.g.– Poppy, Lemna, Alisma etc.
Endothecium is helpful in anther wall dehiscence. 77. Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the
73. In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to pollen tube enter the embryo sac?
(a) Wall and tapetum (a) Egg cell (b) Central cell
(b) Only tapetum and sporogenous cells (c) Persistant synergid (d) Degenerated synergid
(c) Only wall of the sporangium JIPMER-2007
(d) Both wall and sporogenous cells Ans. (d) : Degenerated synergid is that synergid which
MGIMS Wardha-2010 starts degenerating at the time of pollination and its
Ans. (d) : In a flowering plant, archesporium gives risesecretions attract the pollen tube towards micropyle.
to both wall and sprogenous cells. Archesporial cells The egg cell lies between the synergid towards the
present in a sporophyte that gives rise to spores after micropyle side its wall is more thick than the synergids
division. The division in archesporium leads to the it passes micropylar vacuole and chalazal nucleus.
Plasmodesmata occurs between the egg and synergid.
formation of the anther wall and sporogenous cell. Then
sporogenous cell will form microspore mother cell Central cell lies in the center, largest cell formed by the
fusion of polar nuclei. Plasmodesmata occurs between
microspore mother cell after division give rise to
the central cell.
microspore or male gamete.
78. In which animal, dimorphic nucleus is found?
C. Megasporangium (ovule) and (a) Amoeba
(b) Trypanosoma gambiens
Embryo Sac (c) Plasmodium vivax
(d) Paramecium caudatum
AP EAMCET-2006
List I List II List III
A) Orthotropous I) Bean i) Straight to
Ans. (d) : Paramecium caudatum shows nuclear
funiculus dimorphism. There are two type of nuclei-a large bean
shaped polyploidy vegetative nucleus called
B) Compylotropous II) Sunflower ii) 180° to
funiculus
macronucleus and a small rounded diploid reproductive
nucleus known as micronucleus.
C) Anatropous III)Polygonum iii) 90° to
funiculus
Amoeba–discovered by Russel van Rosen hoff 1755,
found in fresh water, pond, lake and slow moving
(a) A II iii, B I ii, C III i rivers, holozoic nutrition and intracellular digestion
(b) A II ii, B I iii, C III i occurs in amoeba.
(c) A III i, B I iii, C II ii Trypanosoma gambiens– It is extracellular parasite in
(d) A I ii, B III i, C II iii blood (plasma) and CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid) of brain
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II in human.
Ans. (c) : Plasmodium vivax– It is parasite of RBC and hepatic
List I List II List III cell of human. It's infected stage which begins life cycle
plasmodium in human. It is modified for penetrating
Orthotropous Polygonum Straight to liver cells.
funiculus
79. Endosperm is formed during the double
Compylotropous Bean 90° to funiculus fertilization by:
Anatropous Sunflower 180° to (a) Two polar nuclei & one male gamete
funiculus (b) One polar nuclei & one male gamete
(c) Ovum and male gamete Ans. (a) : Megaspore is the first cell of female
(d) Two polar nuclei & two male gametes gametophyte haploid, unicellular, uninucleate retained
AIPMT-2000 within the nucellus of ovule. It is formed from
Ans. (a) : In angiosperm megagametophyte also called megaspore mother cell after meiotic division.
embryo sac. 82. Embryo of sunflower have :
Double fertilization is the simultaneous occurrence of (a) Two cotyledons (b) One cotyledons
syngamy and triple fusion. Syngamy involves fusion of (c) Eight cotyledons (d) Cotyledons absent
one male gamete with egg cell to form zygote. The AIPMT-1998
result of syngamy is zygote (2n) which ultimately Ans. (a) : Sun flower (Helianthus annus) belongs to
develops into embryo. The second male gamete fuses the family Asteraceae (compositae). It is dicot plant
with 2 polar nuclei or secondary nucleus to form i.e.– they have two cotyledons.
triploid primary endosperm nucleus (3n) ultimately
develops into a nutritive tissue for developing embryo 83. Assertion : In Fritillaria, the embryo sac is
called endosperm. described as tetrasporic type.
Reason in Fritillaria, four megaspore mother
cells are involved in the formation of an
embryo sac.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true
AP EAMCET-2010
Ans. (c) : Fritillaria type embryo sac first observed by
Bambaciani (1928) in Plant fritillaria. It is tetrasporic
80. Eight nucleated embryosac is a: type embryo sac four megaspore are form after meiosis
(a) Only monosporic (b) Only bisporic in MMC.
(c) Only tetra sporic (d) Any of the above At four nucleate stage three nuclei towards the chalazal
AIPMT-2000 side fused. It is biphasic, bipolar organized embryo sac
Ans. (d) : On the basis of number of megaspore nuclei 8 nucleate & 7 celled, comprises egg apparatus, one
taking part in development of female gametophyte or egg, 2-synergid, secondary nucleus tetraploid and three
embryo sac. There are 3 types of embryo sacs- antipodal, which are triploid. The fusion of three nuclei
is called bambaciani effect.
(i) Monosporic type: In this type, the single nucleus
of functional megaspore undergoes 3 mitotic 84. Match the following ovular structure with post
divisions to form 8 nuclei and 7 cells. fertilization structure and select the correct
alternative.
(ii) Bisporic– out of four nuclei, two nuclei taking part
Column I Column II
In the development of embryo sac.
(iii) Tetrasporic– All the four nuclei taking part in the A. Ovule 1. Endosperm
development of embryo sac. B. Funiculus 2. Aril
C. Nucellus 3. Seed
D. Polar nuclei 4. Perisperm
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 2 1 4
AP EAMCET-2011
Ans. (c) : Ovule – After fertilization, each ovule
develops in to seed. Each seed contains a tiny,
undeveloped plant called an embryo.
• Funiculus – An arillode or false aril is sometimes
distinguished, whereas an aril grow the attachment
81. Megaspores are produced from the megaspore point of the seed to the ovary (from the funiculus
mother cells after or hilum), an arillode forms from a different point
(a) Meiotic division on the seed coat.
(b) Mitotic division • Nucellus – Persistent nucellus in some seed is
(c) Formation of a thick wall called perisperm. Perisperm is a layer of nutritive
(d) Differentiation tissue in the seed of certain flowering plants. It
NEET (Karnataka)-2013 surrounds the embryo.
• Polar nuclei – The two central nuclei (polar 89. The diagram given by the side represents the
nuclei) that contribute to the endosperm, arise by sectional view of
mitosis from the same single meiotic production
that gave rise to the egg.
85. Identify the mismatch.
(a) Antipodals - Haploid
(b) Zygote - Diploid
(c) Synergids - Diploid
(d) Primary Endosperm - Triploid
Nucleus
Karnataka CET-2020 (a) Anatropous ovule
Ans. (c) : Synergids - Haploid (b) Orthotropous ovule
Antipodals - Haploid (c) Amphitropous ovule
Zygote - Diploid (d) Campylotropous ovule
Karnataka CET-2008 / Haryana PMT-2002
Primary Endosperm Nucleous - Triploid AIPMT-1992 / AP EAMCET-1998
86. In apple the chromosome number of gametes is Ans. (b) :
17. What is the chromosome number in its
Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN)?
(a) 34 (b) 68
(c) 17 (d) 51
Karnataka CET-2020
Ans. (d) : Apple is a angiospermic plant. The gametes
are haploid. Angiospermic plants are triploid,
chromosome number of gametes = 17. So the number of In orthotropus ovule micropyle, funicle, chalaza lies in
chromosomes in the primary endosperm nucleus is = 51. on vertical plane, micropyle towards the upper side. It is
87. What does the filiform apparatus do at the most primitive and simplest ovule, e.g. polygonum.
entrance into ovule? 90.
(a) It brings about opening of the pollen tube
(b) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg
(c) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a
synergid
(d) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube
into the embryo sac
BCECE-2012 / BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
AIPMT-2008 In the given diagram, parts labelled as A, B,C,
Ans. (c) : Towards the micropyle side each synergid has D, E and F are respectively indentified as
a hook like or finger like projections called the filiform (a) synergids, polar nuclei, central cell,
apparatus. They absorbed food from the nucellus and It antipodals, filiform apparatus and egg
helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid (b) polar nuclei, egg, antipodals, central cell,
filiform apparatus and synergids
(c) egg, synergids, central cell, filiform
apparatus, antipodals and polar nuclei
(d) central cell, polar nuclei filiform apparatus,
antipodals, synergids and egg
JIPMER-2014
Ans. (a) : Megaspore is the mother cell for the
development of female gametophyte. The given
diagram is a mature angiospermic embryo sac in which
(A) indicate synergies
88. If root of a flowering plant has 24
(B) indicate polar nuclei
chromosomes, then its gamete has how many
(C) indicate central cell
chromosomes?
(D) indicate antipodal
(a) 24 (b) 12 (E) indicate filiform apparatus
(c) 4 (d) 8 (F) indicate egg.
JIPMER-2009 91. Out of the seven names given below, find out
Ans. (b) : If root of a flowering plant has 24 haploid cells?
chromosomes, then its gamete has 12 chromosomes (i) Antipodal cell
because the root cell of flowering plant is diploid, (ii) Egg cell
(2n = 24) while gamete is haploid, (n = 12). (iii) Synergid cell
(iv) Polar nuclei Ans. (a) :
(v) Male gamete (A) In Loranthus, ovule is not covered by any
(vi) Nuclear cell integuments.
(vii) Chalazal cell (B) In sunflower, single ovule is seen in the ovary.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) & (v) only (C) Pollen banks store selected pollen at –196°C
(b) (ii), (iv), (vi) & (vii) only (D) In Hibicus anther is monothecous.
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) & (v) only (E) In rice pollen grains are viable for only 30 minutes.
(d) (ii), (iv), (iii) & (i) only 94. Commelina produces flowers which open and
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-I are similar to flowers of other species with
Rajasthan PMT-2010/ AMU-2010 exposed anthers and stigma are called........... A
AIIMS-2008 / AIPMT-2008 / AIPMT-1991 typical angiospermic embryo sac, at maturity
Ans. (c) : Haplaid cells contains only a single set of contains............... nuclei and ................ cells.
chromosomes while diploid cells have 2 set of (a) Chasmogamous, 7 and 8
chromosomes. (b) Xenogamy, 8 and 8
Antipodal cell, egg cell, synergid cell and male gametes (c) Cleistogamous, 7 and 8
are haploid. (d) Chasmogamous, 8 and 7
92. Identify the correct sequence of events that TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I
occur during development of Embryosac Ans. (d) : Commelina produces flowers which open and
(A) Reduction division (B) Embryosac are similar to flowers of other species with exposed
(C) Nucellus (D) Linear tetrad anthers and stigma are called chasmogamous. A typical
(E) Megaspore mother (F) Functional angiospermic embryo sac, at maturity contains 8 nuclei
cell Megaspore and 7 celled, comprises 3-antipodal cells, one central
(G) Mitotic divisions cell and 3-egg apparatus.
Options: Egg apparatus comprises one egg and 2-synergid.
(a) E, C, A, D, F, G, B 95. If the number of chromosomes in egg cell is 8,
(b) C, E, A, D, F, G, B then what is the number of chromosomes in
(c) C, E, G, D, F, A, D endosperm?
(d) C, E, A, F, G, D, B (a) 24 (b) 8
AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II (c) 16 (d) 12
Ans. (b): Nucellus – It is the mass of Parenchymatous UP CPMT-2011
tissue surrounded by integuments in an ovule. It enclose Ans. (a): The egg cell lies between the synergid towards
embryo Sac and provides nourishment to the developing the micropyle side. Its wall is more thick than the synergids,
embryo. it passes micropylar vacuole and chalazal nucleus.
Megaspores – The megasporangium contains Egg cell is haploid, whereas endosperm is triploid as it
megaspore mother cell, which divide by meiosis to is formed by fusion of one male gamete with two polar
produce haploid megaspores. nuclei. Therefore the number of chromosome in
Reduction division – The first cell division in meiosis endosperm will be 8 × 3 = 24.
the process by which germ cells are formed. 96. What is the direction of micropyle in
Linear tetrad – A group of four meiotic products anatropous ovule :-
aligned linearly in such a way that sister products (a) Upward (b) Downward
remain adjacent to one another. (c) Right (d) Left
Functional megaspore – Within the nucellus a cell AIPMT-2002
namely megaspore mother cell forms four haploid
megaspores via meiosis forming a linear tetrad. Ans. (b) : The anatropous ovule is inverted i.e. rotated
at 180º angle and micropyle towards below (down
Mitotic division – Mitosis is a process of nuclear parent word) and chalaza at upper side, micropyle close to
division in eukaryotic cells that occurs when a parent funicle. Funicle runs parallel to the body of ovule.
cell divides to produce two identical daughter cells. Anatropous ovule found in 82% families e.g.
Embryo sac–The embryo sac or female gametophyte is malavaceae, solanaceae, cucurbitaceae.
an oval structure present in the ovule of flowering plants.
93. Identify the correct statement from the following:
(A) In Loranthus, ovule is not covered by any
integuments.
(B) In Sunflower, single ovule is seen in the ovary.
(C) Pollen banks store selected pollen at - 196 oC.
(D) In Hibiscus anther is dithecous.
(E) In rice pollen grains are viable for months. 97. In general the egg apparatus of embryo sac in
angiosperm consists of:
The correct answer is : (a) One egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal
(a) A, B, C only (b) A, B, D only cells, two Polar nuclei
(c) B, D, E only (d) C, D, E only (b) One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II cells, three Polar nuclei
(c) One egg cell, three synergids, two antipodal Ans. (d) : The shield –shaped cotyledons of a
cells, two Polar nuclei monocotyledon (Such as a grass) is called scutellum.
(d) One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal In some grasses remains second cotyledons occurs
cells, two Polar nuclei called the epiblast, and covering of hypocotyle called
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 coleorrhiza and covering of epicotyle called coleoptile.
Ans. (a) :
• Antipodal cells are the three haploid cells in the
mature embryo sac of flowering plants that are
situated at the opposite end to the micropyle.
• Function of antipodal cell of embryo to provide
nutrition to the whole gametophyte.
• Two specialized cells that lie adjacent to the egg cell
of embryo sac called synergid. It play a essential role
in pollen tube guidance & function.
• A filiform apparatus is a group of finger-like
projections of synergid. 100. Male gametophyte with least number of cell is
• The structure of the mature embryo sac consists of 8 present in:
nucleated and 7 celled structures. Comprises One egg (a) Pteris (b) Funaria
cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells, two Polar (c) Lilium (d) Pinus
nuclei AIPMT-2014
Ans. (c) : Male gametophyte with least number of cell
is present in lilium. It is angiospermic plant in which
male gametophyte is 3 celled and highly reduced
gametophyte as compared to funaria (Bryophyte).
Fritillaria type endosperm first observed by Bambaciani
(1928) in fritillaria and lilium.
101. Bicarpellary ovary with obliquely placed
septum is seen in :
98. The body of the ovule is fused within the (a) Sesbania (b) Brassica
funicle at (c) Aloe (d) Solanum
(a) Micropyle (b) Nucellus NEET (Odisha)-2019
(c) Chalaza (d) Hilum Ans. (d) : One of the most important characteristic
NEET-2020 Phase-I features of the family Solanceae is Bicarpellary
Haryana PMT-2002 gynoecium with oblique. In this, the ovary is placed
Ans. (d) : The point of attachment of the funicle with obliquely in a diagonal plane, shows axile placentation,
main body of ovule is called helium. and superior ovary.
• The primary parietal cell divides periclinally and • In botany, Bicarpellary gynoecium (of an ovary)
anticlinally to form nucellus. i.e. nucellus well developed means having two carpels. Oblique ovary means the
and primary sporogenous cell behaves as MMC. ovary is placed obliquely in a diagonal plane.
• The integument completely surround the nucellus 102. Which is the most common type of embryo sac
except at the apex where an opening called micropyle in angiosperms?
usually formed from inner integuments but (a) Bisporic with two sequential mitotic divisions
sometimes form both integuments. (b) Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of
divisions
(c) Monosporic with three sequential mitotic
divisions
(d) Monosporic with two sequential mitotic
divisions
NEET (Odisha)-2019
Ans. (c) : The functional megaspore (haploid)
represents the first cell of the female gametophyte.In
monosporic embryo sac, the megaspore mother cell
divide miotically to form dyad than tetrad. Out of four
99. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large megaspore three megaspores towards the micropyle side
shield-shaped cotyledon known as: degenerate and chalazal megaspore becomes functional.
(a) Coleoptile (b) Epiblast The functional megaspore undergoes three sequential
(c) Coleorrhiza (d) Scutellum mitosis divisions and gives rise to the 8 nucleate and 7
AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015 celled mature embryo sac.
103. Megasporangium is equivalent to : 106. In Angiosperms pollen tube liberate their male
(a) Equal Ovule (b) Equal Embryo sac gametes into the :-
(c) Equal Fruit (d) Equal Nucellus (a) Central cell (b) Antipodal cells
NEET-2013 (c) Egg cell (d) Synergids
Ans. (a) : Megasporangium is equivalent to the ovule. AIPMT-2002
ovule is also called megasporangium and is protected by Ans. (d) : In Angiosperms pollen tube enter to the
one or two covering called integuments. A mature ovule synergids
consists of a stalk and a body. The stalk or the funiculus
(also called funicle) is present at the base and it attaches • The pollen tube discharged two male gametes.
the ovule to the placenta. • 1st fussed with egg cell and 2nd reached through up
The ovule is the structure that contains the female cytoplasmic current polar nuclei, they fussed
reproductive cells and also gives rise to female simultaneously both also called double fertilization.
reproductive cell. The ovary contains ovules and it
develops into seeds after fertilization. The ovary
contains an outer tough protective layer called
integument, nucellus and the female gametophyte.
104. Perisperm differs from endosperm in
(a) its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus
with several sperms
(b) being a haploid tissue
(c) having no reserve food
(d) being a diploid tissue
NEET-2013 107. Identify the characters with reference to the
Ans. (d) : Perisperm is the diploid storage tissue of fruit plant in which eight nucleated embryo sac was
is nothing but nucellus of ovule that transforms after first studied by Strasburger.
fertilization. It is located near embryo and can be i. Mycropyle, chalaza and funiculus are
divided into many layers in some seed and is single arranged in the same vertical line in the
layered as well, perisperm differs from endosperm, in ovule
perisperm develops from the nucellus of the seed and ii. Presence of both unisexual and bisexual
the endosperm. Endosperm is the end product of triple flowers in same plant
fusion in gymnosperm endosperm formed before the
fertilization and haploid but in angiosperm endosperm iii. Filiform apparatus helps in conduction of
formed after the fertilization and usually triploid. food materials from endosperm to egg
apparatus
iv. Long funiculus coils like a watch spring
around the ovule.
(a) i, iv (b) ii, iii
(c) i, ii (d) iii, iv
AP EAMCET-2008
Ans. (c) : Strasburger first time described polygonum
105. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm type of embryo sac in plant polygonum divaricatum.
develops into Orthotropous type ovule is found in polygonum.
(a) Ovule (b) Endosperm In this type of ovule micropyle, funicle, chalaza lies in
(c) Embryo sac (d) Embryo on vertical plane micropyle towards the upper side, it
AMU-1997 / NEET-2017 most primitive and simplest ovule.
Ans. (c) : The functional megaspore (haploid) 108. Point out the odd one.
represents the first cell of the female gametophyte.In (a) Nucellus (b) Embryo sac
monosporic embryo sac, the megaspore mother cell
(c) Micropyle (d) Pollen grain
divide miotically to form dyad than tetrad. Out of four
megaspore three megaspores towards the micropyle side AIPMT-1991
degenerate and chalazal megaspore becomes functional. Ans. (d) : They are all found in ovule (Nucellus, Emryo
The functional megaspore undergoes three sequential sac and micropyle) while pollen grain is male
mitosis divisions and gives rise to the 8 nucleate and 7 gametophyte. The scientific study of living and
celled mature embryo sac. fossilized pollen grains is known as polynology.
109. Embryo sac is (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) Megaspore (b) Micro gametophyte (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) Female gametophyte (d) Mega sporangium AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-I
AIIMS-2011 Ans. (a) : The nucleus of the functional megaspore
Ans. (c) : Embryo sac is the female gametophyte, as divides mitotically to form two nuclei which move to
it contains the female gamete or the egg along with the opposite poles, forming the 2-nucleate embryo sac.
other cells required for fertilization and nutrition of the Two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions result in
developing embryo. the formation of the 4-nucleate and later the 8-nucleate
Embryo sac is a 7-celled structure containing 2 polar states of the embryo sac. It is of interest to note that
nuclei in the centre, egg apparatus at the micropyler these mitotic divisions are strictly free nuclear, that is,
region containing 1 egg cell and 2 synergids and 3 nuclear divisions are not followed immediately by cell
antipodal cells at the chalazal end. wall formation. After the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are
110. The normal type of embryo sac is 8-nucleated and laid down leading to the organization of the typical
female gametophyte or embryo sac.
(a) 8-called (b) 7-celled
(c) 6-celled (d) 5-celled
Karnataka CET-2022
AIIMS-2011 / UP CPMT-2010 / Haryana PMT-2002
Ans. (b) : The normal type of embryo sac present in
angiosperms is 8- nucleated and 7 celled. Because there are
three nuclei at the base of chalazal end and three nucleic
micropylar end and two nuclei at the center of cell.
113. After double fertilization, a mature ovule has
(a) 1 diploid and I haploid cell
(b) 1 diploid and 1 triploid cell
(c) 2 haploid and 1 triploid cell
(d) 1 haploid and 1 triploid cell.
AIIMS-2013
Ans. (b) : Double fertilization found only in
111. Double fertilization involves angiosperms.
(a) fertilization of the egg by two male gametes •Each embryo sac receives two male gametes,one male
(b) fertilization of two eggs in the same embryo gamete fuses with egg cell to form zygote, this is called
sac by two sperms brought by one pollen tube syngamy or generative fertilization, second male
(c) fertilization of the egg and the central cell by gamete fuses with secondary nucleus (2n) to form
two sperms brought by different pollen tubes primary endosperm nucleus, this act of fertilization is
(d) fertilization of the egg and the central cell by called triple fusion or vegetative fertilization. Thus
two sperms brought by the same pollen tube. fertilization take place twice in the same embryo. This
AIIMS-2005 fusion of two male gamets to two different structure
(one is zygote and other is PEN) is called double
Ans. (d) : Double fertilization is the characteristic fertilization. It include syngamy as well as triple fusion.
feature of angiosperm. Here, one male nucleus fertilizes It was discovered by Nawaschin (1898) in fritillaria and
the egg nucleus and other male nucleus fertilizes the lilium.
central cell (Polar nuclei) first fertilization result in After double fertilization a mature ovule has one diploid
zygote where as second fertilization results in the
cell (zygote) and one triploid cell (PEN) .
formation of endosperm. It is seen in the angiosperm. It
involves fertilization of the egg and central cell by two 114. The sequence of development during the
sperm brought by the same pollen tube. formation of endosperm is
(a) Archesporium – > Megaspore mother cell--
Megaspore – Embryo sac
(b) Archesporium- Megaspore-Megaspore
mother cell- → Embryo sac
(c) Megaspore → Archesporium – Megaspore
Mother cell – Embryo sac
(d) Megaspore mother cell –→spore mother cell
112. Select the correct diagram Embryo spore mother cell Embryo sac
AIIMS-2017
Ans. (a) : The sequence of development during the
formation of endosperm is Archesporium →
Megaspore mother cell→ Megaspore → Embryo sac
115. Ploidy level of nucellus, endosperm, polar
nuclei, megaspore mother cell, female
gametophyte respectively is…
(a) 2n, 3n, n, 2n, n (b) 2n, 3n, 2n, n, n 119. Male gametophyte of angiosperms is reduced to
(c) n, 2n, n, 2n, n (d) 2n, 3n, 2n, 2n, n (a) one cell (b) two cells
AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I (c) three cells (d) four cells
Ans. (a) : The ploidy level of the plant is diploid . Punjab MET-2009 / Haryana PMT-2009
Hence, the ploidy level of nucleus is 2n . Polar nuclei is Ans. (c) : Male gametophyte of angiosperms is reduced
present in embryo and is haploid (n). Two polar nuclei to 3- cells. They consist of one vegetative cells and one
(n+n) and male gamete (n) fuse to form endosperm generative cell. This generative cells divides to form
which is triploid (3n). Megaspore mother cell is the one two mole gametes. So, angiospermic male gametophyte
which is going to form 4 haploid megaspores by is 3-celled. This vegetative cell give rise to tube nucleus
meiosis so again being a parent cell their ploidy is 2n. which forms pollen tube.
The female gametophyte is also haploid; therefore the 120. During the formation of embryo sac, the
ploidy is n. functional megaspore undergoes
(a) two mitotic divisions
(b) two meiotic divisions
(c) three meiotic divisions
(d) three mitotic divisions
Punjab MET-2009 / Rajasthan PMT-2009
UP CPMT-2009
Ans. (d) : During the formation of embryo sac, the
116. The plant part which consists of two functional megaspore undergoes three mitotic divisions
generations, one within the other, is: and form 8- nucleate and 7- celled structure. The
(a) Germinated pollen grain megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to give rise to
(b) Embryo 4 haploid cells. Three of them are degenerate and one
(c) Unfertilized ovule survive to form embryo sac. This haploid cell undergoes
(d) Seed mitosis to form 2 haploid nuclei. Two haploid nuclei
AIIMS-2003 further undergoes mitosis to form 4 haploid nuclei.
After that these nuclei further undergoes mitosis to form
Ans. (b) : Embryo sac inside the ovule and pollen 8 nucleate embryo sac.
grains inside the anther refers to the plant parts that
consist of two generations one within the other. The 121. Embryo sac is also known as
zygote develops into an embryo or new saprophyte. The (a) microsporangium (b) micro gametophyte
embryo (2n) is surrounded by female gametophyte (n), (c) megagametophyte (d) none of these
the latter by seed coat (2n). In this way seed contains Rajasthan PMT-2004 / Punjab MET-1999
three generations locked one within another of these AIPMT-1994
two generation occurs with in embryo. Ans. (c) : Embryo sac is also known as
117. In angiosperms, triple fusion results in the megagametophyte or female gametophyte. This is 8
formation of: nucleate 7 celled structure present inside the ovule of
(a) zygotic nucleus flowering plants. Microgametophyte is highly simplified
and called pollen sacs. Mecrosporangium is produces
(b) polar nucleus microspore mother cells, which further undergoes
(c) secondary nucleus divisions and produces microspores or pollen grains.
(d) primary endosperm nucleus
122. Which of the following is the result of double
WB JEE-2006 fertilization?
Ans. (d) : In angiosperms, triple fusion take place (a) Cotyledon (b) Nucellus
between two polar nuclei and one sperm nucleus, which (c) Endosperm (d) None of these
results in the formation of primary endosperm nucleus. Rajasthan PMT-2004
This primary endosperm nucleus later evolves into an
endosperm. It is used to provide nutrition to the Ans. (c) : In angiosperms, triple fusion take place
developing embryo. It is present inside the seed of most between two polar nuclei and one sperm nucleus, which
flowering plant. This triple fusion occurs due to double results in the formation of primary endosperm nucleus.
fertilization in angiosperms. This primary endosperm nucleus later evolves into an
endosperm. It is used to provide nutrition to the
118. Nucellar polyembryons occurs in developing embryo. It is present inside the seed of most
(a) Corchorus (b) Citrus flowering plant. This triple fusion occurs due to double
(c) Carthamus (d) Zea mays fertilization in angiosperms and discovered by
Punjab MET-2009 Nawaschin (1898).
RAJASTHAN PMT-2009 123. Which of the following is not true for double
Ans. (b) : Nucellar polyembryony occurs in citrus. It is fertilization?
a condition in which seed contains more than one (a) Discovered by Nawaschin
embryo. Nucellus is central part of ovule that encloses (b) Male gamete and secondary nucleus fused to
the female gametophyte. Sometimes these nucellar cells form endosperm nucleus
are begin to divide and extend into embryo sac, results
(c) Endosperm nucleus is diploid
in nucellar polyembryony.
(d) Endosperm provides nutrition to embryo
Polyembryony wa discovered by Leeuwenhoek (1719).
BCECE-2005
Ans. (c) : In angiosperms, triple fusion take place Ans. (d) : In a flowering plant, megaspore develops into
between two polar nuclei and one sperm nucleus, which an embryo sac. Which contain 7 cells and 8 nuclei. 3
results in the formation of primary endosperm nucleus. cells are form egg apparatus mid of which called egg
This primary endosperm nucleus later evolves into an cell and present at micropylar end. On cell present at
endosperm. It is used to provide nutrition to the middle of the embryo sac called secondary nuclei.
developing embryo. It is present inside the seed of most Which contain two nuclei. And rest 3 cells are form
flowering plant. This triple fusion occurs due to double antipodal cell and present at chalazal end.
fertilization in angiosperms. 129. In Polygonum type of embryo sac, the cells are
124. For the formation of tetrasporic embryosac, how : (1) haploid (2) diploid (3) triploid (4)
many megaspore mother cells are required? polyploidy
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
JIPMER-2005 / BHU PMT-2003 BHU PMT (Mains)-2005
Ans. (a) : For the formation of tetrasporic embryosac. 1 Ans. (b) : In polygonum type of embryo sac, the cells
megaspore mother cells is required. In tetrasporic are haploid and diploid both. It is the most common
condition, all the four megaspore nuclei takes part in the type of embryo sac found in plants. Megaspore mother
formation of embryo sac. In this type of embryo sac, cell undergoes meiotic divisions to form four haploid
meiosis is not accompanied by wall formation. Ex- megaspore. Out of these, three degenerate, only one
Peperomia. remain functional. This functional megaspore undergoes
125. Ovule is inverted with body fused to funicle, mitosis three times which results in 8 nuclei in the
micropyle lying close to hilum and facing the megaspore. A mature polygonum embryo sac contains;
placenta, it is • Egg apparatus with one egg and two synegids
(a) hemitropous (b) orthon-opous • Three antipodal cells
(c) anatropous (d) campylotropous •A central cell with polar nuclei.
BVP-2010 / JCECE-2005 / Manipal-2000
130. Which is correct statement ? (1) seed cannot be
Ans. (c) : Ovule is inverted with body fused to funicle formed after on fertilization (2) seed is formed
micropyle lying lose to hilum and facing the placenta, it after one fertilization (3) seed is formed before
is anatroprous ovule. double fertilization (4) fruit is produced after
In hemitropous ovule, micropyle and chalaza lie in a double fertilization
straight line but funiculus is at right angle with both (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
these two.
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
Orthotropous ovule is the simplest and primitive type,
in which micropyle, chalaza and funicules lie in one BHU PMT (Mains)-2005
vertical plane. Ans. (c) : The process of fertilization is unique in
In campylotropous ovule, Micropyle and funicle lie at angiosperm and it is called as double fertilisaiton.
the same pole near each other. Double fertilization involve 2 steps. First step is
126. What type of placentation is seen in sweet pea? syngamy between one egg cell and one male gamete
(a) Basal (b) Axile which results in seed formation. Second step is fusion
(c) Free central (d) Marginal between diploid secondary nucleus and one male gamete.
JCECE-2009 This step is called triple fusion and results in the formation
Ans. (d) : Marginal placentation is seen in sweet pea. In of endosperm. After this step fruit is fermed.
this placentation, a ridge is formed by the placenta 131. Select the correct match from the table.
along the central row of the ovary. The development of List I List II
ovule take place on the ridge. Placentation is the 1. Chalaza A. Basal part of ovule
arrangement of ovule inside the ovary.
2. Bitegmic ovules B. Have two integuments
127. Orthotropus ovule belongs to :
(a) Urtica (b) Polygonum 3. Pollen grain C. Has an outer exine and
(c) Peperomia (d) all of these an inner intine
AMU-2005 / Manipal-2004 4. Berry D. Ripened inflorescence
Ans. (d) : The ovule is said to be orthotropus or called sorosis.
straight when the funicle, chalaza and the micropyle (a) 1,2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
come to lie one vertical plane. This type of ovule is a (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
primitive feature in angiosperms. The common example BHU PMT (Mains)-2011
are- polygonum, Rumex, piper, peperomia, utrica etc. Ans. (a) :
128. In a flowering plant, megaspore develops into List I List II
an embryo sac, which contains :
1. Chalaza A. Basal part of ovule
(a) 4 cell, one of which is an egg
(b) 6 cell, one of which is an egg 2. Bitegmic ovules B. Have two integuments
(c) 8 cell, one of which is an egg 3. Pollen grain C. Has an outer exine and
(d) none of these an inner intine
AMU-2005 / Manipal-2004 / Uttarakhand PMT-2004 4. Berry D. Aggregate fruits.
132. Amphitropous (transversal) ovules are found in 137. The nucleus of megaspore divides mitotically to
(1) Lemna (2) poppy (3) Ranunculus form two nuclei which move to opposite poles,
(4) Opuntia and thus form an embryo sac which is
(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (a) 8 nucleate (b) 6 nucleate
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (c) 4 nucleate (d) 2 nucleate
BHU PMT (Mains)-2011 J&K CET-2014
Ans. (a) : Amphitropous [transversal] ovules get curved Ans. (a) : During the formation of embryo sac, the
with embryo sac in such a way that it becomes horse functional megaspore undergoes three mitotic divisions
shoe-shaped. Ex.- Lemma, Poppy, Ranunculus etc. and form 8- nucleate and 7- celled structure. The
In opuntia circinotropous ovule is found. In this type of megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to give rise to
ovule funiculus becomes long and covers the whole ovule. 4 haploid cells. Three of them are degenerate and one
133. If the chromosome number of leaf cell is 42 the functional to form embryo sac. This haploid cell
chromosome number of root cell, microspore undergoes mitosis to form 2 haploid nuclei. Two
mother cell and embryo respectively will be : haploid nuclei further undergoes mitosis to form 4
haploid nuclei. After that these nuclei further undergoes
(a) 42, 42, 42 (b) 42, 21, 21 mitosis to form 8 nucleate embryo sac.
(c) 21, 21, 21 (d) 21, 21, 42
138. The embryo sac of angiosperms contains
BHU PMT-2001
(a) 3 celled egg apparatus, 3 antipodal cell and 2
Ans. (a) : If the chromosome number of leaf cell is 42, polar nuclei
then the chromosome number of root cell, microspore (b) 2 celled egg apparatus, 3 antipodal cell and 2
mother cell and embryo respectively will be 42, 42 and polar nuclei
42 because these all are diploid in nature. Only the male
and female gametes are haploid and they contain half (c) 3 celled egg apparatus, 2 antipodal cell and 1
the chromosome number of a plant body. polar nuclei
(d) 3 celled egg apparatus, 1 antipodal cell and 2
134. The egg apparatus of angiosperm comprises polar nuclei
(a) an egg cell and two antipodals J&K CET-2014
(b) an egg cell and two synergids
Ans. (a) : In a flowering plant, megaspore develops into
(c) an egg cell and two polar nuclei an embryo sac. Which contain 7 cells and 8 nuclei. 3
(d) an egg cell and the central cell cells (2 synergid + 1 egg cell) are form egg apparatus
DUMET-2010 mid of which called egg cell and present at micropylar
AFMC-2001 end. On cell present at middle of the embryo sac called
Ans. (b) : In a flowering plant, megaspore develops into secondary nuclei. Which contain two nuclei. And rest 3
an embryo sac. Which contain 7 cells and 8 nuclei. 3 cells are form antipodal cell and present at chalazal end.
cells are form egg apparatus mid of which called egg 139. The ovule of angiosperm is technically known
cell and present at micropylar end. One cell present at as
middle of the embryo sac called secondary nuclei. (a) Megaspore mother cell
Which contain two nuclei and rest 3 cells are form (b) Megasporangium
antipodal cell and present at chalazal end. (c) Megaspore
135. Apogamy is : (d) Megasporophyll
(a) Reproduction of virus Karnataka CET-2022
(b) Failure of fusion of gametes Ans. (b) : The ovule of angiosperm is technically
(c) Development of bacteria known as megasporangium, Megasporangium is
(d) Loss of function of reproduction equivalent to the ovule. ovule is also called
Uttarakhand PMT-2004 megasporangium and is protected by one or two
Ans. (b) : Apogany is failure of fusion of gametes, covering called integuments. A mature ovule consists of
which results in the development of sporophyte directly a stalk and a body. The stalk or the funiculus (also
from the gametophyte. It was first reported by Farlow called funicle) is present at the base and it attaches the
(1878). It produces a diploid gametophyte. ovule to the placenta.
136. The fertilized secondary nucleus of the ovule, 140. Consider the following statements and choose
during double fertilization, establishes the the correct option
(a) seed coat (b) embryo plant (A) The ovule is attached to the placenta by
(c) endosperm (d) pericarp means of a stalk called filament
JIPMER-1999 (B) The ovule fuses with the stalk in the region
Ans. (c) : In angiosperms, triple fusion take place called hilum
between two polar nuclei and one sperm nucleus, which (C) The two protective envelopes of ovule are
results in the formation of primary endosperm nucleus. called integuments
This primary endosperm nucleus later evolved into an (D) The small opening in the tip of ovule is
endosperm. It is used to provide nutrition to the called germ pore
developing embryo. It is present inside the seed of most Of the above statements
flowering plant. This triple fusion occurs due to double (a) A and D are correct
fertilization in angiosperms. (b) A and C are correct
(c) B and D are correct • Oenothera type is monosporic 4-nucleated embryo
(d) B and C are correct sac and develops from the micropylar megaspore.
(e) C and D are correct • Adoxa type of embryo sac is tetrasporic embryo sac
Kerala PMT-2015 in which all four megaspore takes part in embryo sac
Ans. (d) : Ovule is also called megasporangium and is formation.
protected by one two covering called integuments. A mature • There is only one mitotic division of the four
ovule consists of a stalk and a body. The stalk or the megasopore nuclei to produce an eight-nucleate
funiculus (also called funicle) is present at the base and if embryo sac.
attaches the ovule of the placenta. The point of attachment of
funicle to the body the ovule is known as hilum. 144. The archesporium of ovule is:
The small opening is the tip of ovule is called (a) single celled lateral
micropyle. It allows pollen tube to enter. (b) single celled hypodermal
141. Which one of the following is the most common (c) single celled central
type of embryo sac ? (d) single celled terminal
(a) Allium type (b) Oenothera type BHU PMT(Mains)-2007
(c) Polygonum type (d) Adoxa type Haryana PMT-2002
AMU -2000 Ans. (b) : Generally archesporium in an ovule is single
Ans. (c) : Polygonum type embryo sac is the most celled and hypodermal in origin. A group of cell from
common type of embryo sac found in plant, which is 8 which a spore mother cell developed is called
nucleate, 7 celled (3-antipodal cells +2 synergids + 1 archesporium. The archesporial cells functions directly as a
egg cell + 1 central cell) It is monosporic embryo sac. megaspore mother cell in the tenuinucellate ovule whereas
This type of embryo sac develop from a single it divides to form on outer parietal cell and inner primary
megaspore. sporogenous cell in the crassinucellate ovule.
• In Allium type of embryo sac, two megaspore takes 145. The tissue which attaches the ovules inside the
part in embryo sac formation. So, it is called as ovary is:
bisporic embryo sac.
(a) placenta (b) chalaza
• Oenothera is monosporic- 4 nucleated embryo sac
and develops from the micropylar megaspore. Adoxa (c) funicle (d) hilum
type of embryo sac is tetra sporic embryo sac in Haryana PMT-2002
which all four megaspore takes part in embryo sac Ans. (a) : The tissue which attaches the ovules inside
formation. the ovary is called placenta. It is cushion or swollen
142. Oenothera type of female gametophyte is region in the ovary. Funicle is the stalk that attaches an
always ovule with that of placenta in the ovary of flowering
(a) 8 nucleate and 7 celled plants. Hilum is the region where the body of the ovule
(b) 16 nucleate and 13 celled fuses with funicle.
(c) 8 nucleate and 8 celled 146. The hilum and micropyle lie side by side very
(d) 4 nucleate and 4 celled close to each other in
AMU -2000 (a) Anatropous ovule
Ans. (d) : Oenothera type of female gametophyte or (b) Campylotropous ovule
embryo sac is always 4 nucleate and 4 celled. It is (c) Amphitropous ovule
monosporic and develops from the micropylar (d) Circinotropous ovule
megaspore. Out of four megaspore, instead of innermost Manipal-2015
megaspore, the micropylar megaspore remains
functional from which it develop. The functional Ans. (a) : The hilum and micropyle lie side by side very
megaspore undergoes two successive divisions along close to each other in anatropous ovule.
with it and forms 4 nuclei. Amphitropous ovule appears as a horseshoe shape. In
circinotropous ovule, the length of funiculus increases
143. During megasporogenesis after first phase of
to an extent that it covers the whole ovule.
meiosis the micropylar dyad cell degenerates
while the chalazal one undergoes 2nd phase or In campylotropous ovule is similar to hemitropous
meiosis producing 2 megaspores which take ovule but more or less funicle towards the micropylar
part in the development of female and micropyle bend downwards slightly. The body
gametophyte. This type of female gametophyte rotated at 360º angle and funicle completely surround
development is known as the body of the ovule.
(a) Adoxa type (b) Allium type Directions: In the following question more than one
(c) Endymion type (d) Oenothera type of the answers given may be correct. Select the
AMU-1998 correct answer and mark it according to the code:
147. Micropyle occurs in
Ans. (b) : During megasporogenesis after first phase of
meiosis the micropylar dyad cell degenerates while the (1) seeds (2) ovule
chalazal one undergoes 2nd phase of meiosis producing (3) ovary (4) stigma
2 megaspores which take part in the formation of (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct. (b) 1 and 2 are correct.
female gametophyte. This type of female gametophyte (c) 2 and 4 are correct. (d) 1 and 3 are correct.
development is known as Allium type. BHU PMT (Mains)-2008
Ans. (a) : Micropyle occurs in ovule which is a part of (c) always monosporic
ovary. After fertilization ovule is converted into seed and (d) sometimes monosporic, sometimes bisporic
ovary converted into the fruit. So, ultimately micropyle and sometime tetrasporic
becomes a part of seed. Stigma is a receptive portion of Haryana PMT-2010
female reproductive part (pistil) of the flower. Ans. (d) : Eight nucleate embryo sacs are sometimes
148. Parasexual hybridization means: monosporic, sometimes bisporic and sometime
(a) fusion of male gamete with female gamete tetrasporic. In monosporic embryo sac, out of four
(b) fusion of male gamete with synergid nucleus megaspores, three degenerate and only one remain
(c) fusion of somatic protoplasts functional. This functional megaspore develop into the
(d) fusion of male gamete with protoplast embryo sac. In bisporic embryo sac, two megaspores
Haryana PMT-1999
take part in the formation of embryo sac. They undergo
2 mitotic divisions. In tetrasporic embryo sac, all four
Ans. (c) : Parasexual hybridization means fusion of megaspores take part in the formation of embryo sac.
somatic protoplasts. It is also known as somatic Here meiotic divisons in the megaspore mother cell are
hybridization. It is the process of fusion of separated not followed by cell wall formation.
protoplasts from somatic cells and production of hybrid
plants from fused materials. It is a non-sexual process. 153. Micropyle helps in :
It is found in fungus. (a) germination of pollen grain
Fusion of male gamets with female gamete is known as (b) growth of pollen tube
sexual reproduction. (c) coming out of pollen tube from pollen grain
149. In flowering plants, a mature female (d) allowing entry of pollen tube
Gametophyte is derived from "Megaspore J&K CET-2009 / JCECE-2004
mother cell" by ___________ Haryana PMT-2003
(a) One meiotic division and three mitotic Ans. (d) : Micropyle helps in the entry of pollen tube. It
division is a small opening in ovule and retained in the seed after
(b) Three meiotic divisions fertilisation. In seeds it helps in the respiration and in
(c) One meiotic division and two mitotic divisionthe exchange of gases.
(d) One meiotic division and one mitotic division154. Polar nuclei are located in :
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-II (a) embryo sac (b) thalamus
Ans. (a) : In flowering plants, a mature female (c) pollen tube (d) ovule
gametophyte is derived from diploid megaspore mother Haryana PMT-2003
cell by one meiotic division and three mitotic division. Ans. (a) : Polar nuclei are located in the centre of
The meiotic division leads to the production of four embryo sac. Embryo sac is 7 celled- 8 nucleate structure
haploid megaspore. Three of them degenerate and only in which one egg cell and two synergid are present at
one remains functional. This functional megaspore micropylar end, three antipodal cells are present at
undergoes three successive meiotic division and produce chalazal end and two nucleus present at center called
eight nucleate cell which is called as embryo sac. polar nuclei. Thalamus is thickened structure present at
150. Mesogamy is the entry of pollen tube into the the base of flower and hold all the flower parts. It is also
ovule through known as receptacle.
(a) Nucellus (b) Integuments 155. The role of synergids is explained in:
(c) Micropyle (d) Chalaza (a) physiology (b) pteriodology
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-II (c) embryology (d) bryology
AP EAMCET-1997
Ans. (b) : Mesogamy is the entry of pollen tube into the
ovule through integuments. Porogamy is the entry of Ans. (c) : The role of synergids is explained in
pollen tube into the ovule through micropyle. embryology. Two synergids are present at micropylar
Chalazogamy is the entry of pollen tube into ovule end. Out of these two, one synergid cell degenerate and
through chalaza. provide a way for the entry of the pollen tube in the
embryo sac. They also act as a shock absorber at the
151. Stalk with which ovules remain attached to the time of entry of pollen tubes.
placenta is called
(a) Funicle (b) Raphe 156. Double fertilization is fusion of :
(a) two eggs
(c) Hilum (d) Chalaza
Manipal-2010 / AMU-2009 / Punjab MET-2008
(b) two eggs and polar nuclei
(c) ond male gamete with egg and other with
Ans. (a) : Stalk with which ovules remain attached to synergids
the placenta is called funicle. Funicle attached to the (d) one male gamete with egg and other with
ovule in the region is called hilum. So, hilum is secondary nucleus
functional between the ovule and funicle. AFMC-2006
Fusion between the funiculus and the body ovule results
Ans. (d) : Double fertilization is fusion of one male
in the formation of a ridge which is known as raphe. gamete with egg and other with secondary nucleus.
152. Eight nucleate embryo sacs are Double fertilization is consist of two steps. 1st step is
(a) always bisporic fusion of one male gamete and egg cell which results in
(b) always tetrasporic the formation of zygote and this process is called as
fertilization. 2nd step is the fusion of another male Ans. (b) : The ascending order of their number of
gamete with polar nuclei which results in the formation chromosomes in their respective endosperm is-
of endosperm and this step is known as triple fusion. Allium (2n = 16) then endosperm (3n = 24)
Endosperm provide nutrition to the developing embryo. Oryza (2n = 24) then endosperm (3n = 36)
157. When the body of the ovule, embryo sac and Nicotiana (2n = 48) then endosperm (3n = 72)
micropyle lie at right angles to the funicle, the Saccharum (2n = 80) then endosperm (3n = 120)
ovule will be identified as 162. In the fully organised Polygonum type of
(a) hemi anatropous (b) amphitropous embryo sac, what is the ratio of haploid, diploid
(c) campylotropous (d) anatropous and triploid nuclei?
VMMC-2015 / AMU-1996 (a) 3:1:3 (b) 6:0:1
Ans. (a) : When the body of the ovule, embryo sac and (c) 6:1:0 (d) 3:2:3
micropyle lie at right angles to the funicle the ovule is Manipal-2010
identified as hemianatropous. Ans. (c) : In the fully organized polygonum type of
Amphitropous ovules get curved with embryo sac in embryo sac, 6:1:0 is the ratio of haploid, diploid and
such a way that it becomes horse-shoe shaped. triploid nuclei. Polygonum type of embryo sac is 7-
In campylotropous ovule, micropyle and funicle lie at celled, 8 nucleate structure. There are 6 haploid nuclei,
the same pole near each other. When funicle, chalaza 2 synergids one egg cell and three antipodals and 1
and micropyle lie in one straight line or lie in same diploid nuclei which is called as polar nuclei.
longitudinal axis, the ovule is called anatropous. 163. What type of cell division takes place in the
158. The chief source of nutrition of embryo inside functional megaspore initially in angiosperms?
the ovule is (a) Homeotypic without cytokinesis
(a) Endosperm (b) Ovule tissue (b) Reductional without cytokinesis
(c) Embryo sac (d) Haustoria (c) Somatic followed by cytokinesis
CG PMT-2010 (d) Meiotic followed by cytokinesis
Manipal-2010
Ans. (a) : The chief source of nutrition of embryo
inside the ovule is endosperm. It is formed by the fusion Ans. (a) : In angiosperms, initially homeotypic mitotic
of one male gamete and polar nuclei of the embryo sac division without cytokinesis takes place in the
and this fusion is known as triple fusion which is a part functional megaspore. This division in functional
of double fertilisation. megaspore produces eight nuclei without cell wall
formation. After that these nuclei undergo cell wall
159. The haustorial behaviour where entire embryo formation and form 7-celled, 8-nucleate structure which
sac grows beyond the ovule tissue occur in is called as embryo sac.
(a) Santalum (b) Zea mays 164. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or
(c) Argemone (d) Datura maize is comparable to which part of the seed
CG PMT-2010 in other monocotyledons?
Ans. (a) : The haustorial behavior where entire embryo (a) Endosperm (b) Cotyledon
sac grow beyond the ovular tissue occur in Santalum. (c) Plumule (d) Aleurone layer
Haustoria is a outgrowth that can penetrate other tissues MGIMS Wardha-2013
to absorb nutrients. Both synergids and antipodal cells Ans. (b) : The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or
may develop haustoria in embryo sac. maize is comparable to cotyledon of the seeds in other
160. Development of embryo from nucellar cell is monocotyledons. Scutellum is single, large shield-shaped
common in many varieties of cotyledon present is same monocots. Plumule is young
(a) Citrus (b) Sunflower shoot. The outer covering of endosperm separates the
embryo by a proteinaceous layer called aleuron layer.
(c) Oat (d) Marigold
Rajasthan PMT-2011
Ans. (a) : Development of embryo from nucellar cell is
D. Pollination and its kinds
common in many varieties of citrus plants. It is called as 165. Match the following
Nucellar embryony and it is a type of apomixis. List-I List-II
161. The triploid number of chromosomes of the I) Aspergillus niger A) Detergent
first taxon is ten times more than the haploid formulation
number of chromosomes of the second taxon
while the diploid number of the third taxon is II) Clostridium B) Ethonol
butylicum
six time more than the haploid number of the
fourth taxon. Which one of the following shows III) Lipase C) Butyric acid
the ascending order of the number of IV) Saccharomyces D) Citric acid
chromosomes in their respective endosperm? A B C D
(a) Oryza-Allium-Saccharum - Nicotiana (a) I B II D III A IV C
(b) Allium – Oryza – Nicotmna - Saccharum (b) I D II C III A IV B
(c) Nicotiana – Saccharum – Oryza - Allium (c) I A II C III B IV D
(d) Saccharum – Oryza – Nicotiana - Allium (d) I D II A III C IV B
Manipal-2010 AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II
Ans. (b) : Ans. (b) : Colour less, odourless, nectarless, small
Aspergillus niger Citric acid producing large number of dry pollen flowers are
Clostridium butylicum Butyric acid anemophilous & nectorless are small pollens can be carried
easily even with slow wind. Large, brightly Coloured and
Lipase Detergent formulation nectar producing flowers are entomophilous.
Saccharomyces Ethonol
166. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma
of another flower of same plant is known as:
(a) Autogamy (b) Cleistogamy
(c) Geitonogamy (d) Xenogamy
Ans. (c) : Transfer of pollen grain from the anther to the
stigma of another flower of the same plant by pollinator 169. The following is not related to the events of
is called Geitonogamy. pollen pistil interaction
• In autogamy, plants are adopted to deposit pollen (a) Formation of pollen tube
grains of the anther on the stigma of the same (b) Germination of pollen grain on stigma
flowers. (c) Formation of zygote as a result of syngamy
• Xenogamy is the fertilization of a flower by the (d) Growth of pollen tube through style and
pollen of a flower from a genetically different plant. reaching the ovule
• Cleistogamy means the formation of flowers that do AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II
not open. Ans. (c) : Steps of pollen-pistil interaction :-
• Landing of true pollen on the compatible pistil.
• Germination of pollen and formation of pollen tubes.
• Pollen tube growth through style of the pistil towards
the ovary.
• Entry of male gametes into the ovule and then to
synergid.
170. In some plants, stigma and anther mature at
different times because
(a) it facilitates self pollination
(b) it facilitates cross pollination
(c) it attracts pollinators
(d) it prevents cross pollination
Karnataka CET-2019
Ans. (b) : In dichogamy, the anther and stigma mature
167. Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar at different times. This feature promote cross pollination
are seen in : and prevent self pollination.
(a) wind pollinated plants 171. The one advantage of cleistogamy is:
(b) insect pollinated plants (a) it leads to greater genetic diversity
(c) bird pollinated plants (b) seed dispersal is more efficient and wide
(d) bat pollinated plants spread
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023 (c) seed set is not dependent on pollinators
(d) each visit of a pollinator results in transfer of
Ans. (b) : Pollen from insect - pollinated flowers i.e.
hundreds of pollen grains
frequently sticky and heavy with a rough surface that
DUMET-200 /JIPMER-2015
makes it easy for them to attack to insects.
• Flowers also have pleasant nature that attracts insects Ans. (c) : Cleistogamous flowers are those that remain
closed and do not have open anthers and stigmas. Such
that pollinate the flowers by moving from flower to
flowers ensure self pollination and germination of
flower.
seeds, since the flowers are closed pollination is not
• Flowers are brightly colored scented and secrete dependent on any pollinator agents.
nector
172. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are
Ex. Rose, Papaya, Sun-flowers. prevented in:
168. Wind pollinated flowers are – (a) Castor (b) Maize
(a) small, brightly coloured, producing large (c) Papaya (d) Cucumber
number of pollen grains NEET (Odisha)-2019 / AIPMT (Screening)-2012
(b) small, producing large number of dry pollen Ans. (c) : Papaya is dioecious plant hence only prefer
grains xenogamy (pollination).
(c) large producing abundant nectar and pollen Autogamy and geitonogamy are the mode of self
(d) small, producing nectar and dry pollen pollination cucumber, maize and castor are monoecious
AIPMT (Screening)-2010 plants.
In Autogamy pollen falls on stigma of the same flower. 177. Match the following classes of fungi (Column-I)
While in geitonogamy pollens from a flower on the with the examples (Column-II)
same plants. Papaya is dioecious plants thus both (Column-I) (Column-II)
autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in it. (1) Phycomycetes (p) Penicillium
173. Which one of the following statements is (2) Ascomycetes (q) Alternaria
correct? (3) Basidiomycetes (r) Albugo
(a) Geitonogamy involves the pollen and stigma (4) Deuteromycetes (s) Puccinia
of flowers of different plants Choose the correct option :
(b) Cleistogamous flowers are always (a) (1) - (p), (2) - (s), (3) - (r), (4) - (q,)
autogamous (b) (1) - (q), (2) - (p), (3) - (s), (4) - (r,)
(c) Xenogamy occurs only by wind pollination (c) (1) - (r), (2) - (p), (3) - (q), (4) - (s,)
(d) Chasmogamous flowers do not open at all (d) (1) - (r), (2) - (p), (3) - (s), (4) - (q,)
NEET (Karnataka)-2013 Karnataka CET-2020
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 Ans (d) :
Ans. (b) : Cleistogamous flowers are the flowers which Column-I Column-II
are bisexual and never opens and always autogamous. (a) Phycomycetes Albugo (white rust)
• Xenogamy occurs by Hydrophily, Anemophily, (b) Ascomycetes Penicilium
Entomology and other pollinating agents. (Blue or green
• Chasmogamous flowers are open flowers which mould)
shows both self pollination and cross pollination. (c) Basidiomycetes Puccinia (rust fungi)
• Geitonogamy is type of self-pollination in which (d) Deuteromycetes Alternaria (Black spot)
pollen of flower get deposited on the stigma of other 178. Match the entries in Column I with those of
belonging to same plant. Column II and choose the correct answer :
174. Wind pollination is common in : Column I Column II
(a) Orchids (b) Legumes (Name of pollination) (Type of pollination)
(c) Lilies (d) Grasses (A) Cleistogamy (m) Insect pollination
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 (B) Geitonogamy (n) Bud pollination
Ans. (d) : The pollination of wind known as (C) Entomophily (o) Pollination
Anemophily. It is commonly seen among grasses or between flowers
monocots. in the same plant
• Plants produces large abundant pollen grain. (D) Xenogamy (p) Wind pollination
• Flower less coloured or white. (q) Cross pollination
(a) A-o; B-m; C-q; D-n (b) A-m; B-q; C-n; D-o
• They have small flower
(c) A-n; B-o; C-m; D-q (d) A-q; B-p; C-o;D-n
• Pollination in grasses occurs through the wind
Karnataka CET-2012
pollination.
Ans. (c) :
175. Anemophily type of pollination is found in
Column I Column II
(a) Salvia (b) Bottle brush
(Name of pollination) (Type of pollination)
(c) Vallisneria (d) Coconut
(A) Cleistogamy Bud pollination
AIPMT-2001
(B) Geitonogamy Pollination between
Ans. (d) : Wind pollination is also known as flowers in the same plant
anemophily. In this type of pollination, pollen grains are (C) Entomophily Insect pollination
dispersed by air or wind. It occurs in coconut plants.
(D) Xenogamy Cross pollination
E.g. Coconut, Pines, Spruce etc.
179. Match the following Columns.
176. Chiropterophily means ……….
Column-I Column-II
(a) Pollination by wind
(Pollination technique) (Pollinator)
(b) Pollination by insects
A. Chiropterophily 1. Ant
(c) Pollination by snails
B. Anemophily 2. Bat
(d) Pollination by bats
Karnataka CET-2004 C. Myrmecophily 3. Snail
D. Malacophily 4. Wind
Ans. (d) : Pollination is carried out by the help of
animals, birds, insects, water and wind. A B C D
Pollination carried out by bats is called chiropterophily. (a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
Pollination by wind is known as anemophilous.
(c) 4 3 2 1
Pollination by insects is known as entomophily.
(d) 1 3 2 4
Pollination by snails is known as malacophily. JIPMER-2016
Ans. (b): Based on pollinating agents, there are 183. Which type of association is found in between
different types of pollination. entomophilous flower and pollinating agent : -
Chiropterophily pollination occurs through bats in (a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism
flowers. (c) Co-operation (d) Co-evolution
Anemophily pollination occurs through wind whereby AIPMT-2002
pollen is transported by wind from one plant to another. Ans. (a) : Both show the mutualistic relationship. The
Myrmecophily pollination takes place with the help of plant uses its pollinator to ensure cross-pollination.
ants. While pollinator uses the plant as food.
Malacophily pollination of flowers occurs through Mutualism is defined as an interaction between
snails. individuals of different species that results in positive
(beneficial) effects on per capita reproduction and
180. Unisexuality of flowers prevents:
survival of the interacting population.
(a) geitonogamy, but not xenogamy
184. Given below are two statements :
(b) autogamy and geitonogamy
Statement I : Cleistogamous flowers are
(c) autogamy, but not geitonogamy invariably autogamous
(d) both geitonogamy and xenogamy Statement II : Cleistogamy is disadvantageous
JIPMER-2012 as there is no chance for cross pollination. In
AIPMT-2008 the light of the above statements, choose the
Ans. (c) : Unisexuality refers to the presence of separate correct answer from the options given below
male and female flowers. The plant can be monoecious (a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
e.g. Cucumber, Cucurbita. (having male and female correct
flowers on the same plant) or dioecious (having male (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
and female flowers on the different plant,). Autogamy is (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are
possible only in bisexual flowers wherein pollination incorrect
occurs within the same flower. (d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
181. Which one of the following is not a device to incorrect
promote cross-pollination? NEET-2022
(a) Herkogamy (b) Dichogamy Ans. (b) : Cleistogamous flowers are always
(c) Cleistogamy (d) Heterostyly autogamous which means they are self-pollinated. This
Karnataka CET-2008 is because cleistogamous flowers never open, so pollen
cannot be transferred by pollinators.
Ans. (c) : Cleistogamy is an example of self-pollination.
Cleistogamous flowers are closed and do not open. It is • Cleistogamy can be disadvantageous because it
a type of automatic self-pollination of certain plants that prevents cross-pollination.
can propagate by using non-opening. Cross pollination can lead to genetic diversity, which
can be beneficial for a population of plants. However
Ex. Oxalis, Viola, Commelina. cleistogamous flower do not have the opportunity to
While herkogamy, dichogamy and heterostyly are types cross pollinate. This means that the offspring of
of cross-pollination. cleistogamous flowers will be genetically identical to
182. Assertion (A) : Sometimes Fig fruits are seen the parent plant.
with eggs of the insects. This can be disadvantage if the environment changes in
Reason (R) : In Fig plants, pollination takes a way that is unfavorable to the parents plant.
place by Blastophaga. 185. Identify the incorrect statement related to
The correct option among the following is: Pollination-
(a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct (a) Moths and butterflies are the most dominant
explanation for (A) pollinating agents among insects
(b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the (b) Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering
correct explanation for (A) plants
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false (c) Pollination by wind is more common amongst
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true abiotic pollination
TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I (d) Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies
Ans. (a) : Blastophaga wasps lay their eggs in the and beetles to get pollinated
female flowers of fig trees when the eggs hatch the NEET-2022
wasp larvae fed on the ovaries of the flowers preventing Ans. (a) : The incorrect statement related to pollination
them from developing into seeds. However, the wasps is moths and butterflies are the most dominant
also pollinate the flowers in the process. pollinating agents among insects.
Reason is also true because Blastophaga wasps are the • Bees are the most dominating pollinating agents
only known pollinator of fig trees. The wasps have a among insects, followed by flies and beetles. Moth
symbiotic relationship with the fig trees, meaning that and butterflies are also important pollinators, but they
both species benefit from the relationship. The wasps are not as dominant as bees.
get a safe, place to lay their eggs and the fig trees get • Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants,
pollinated. occurring in only about 30% of genera.
186. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination 189. Which of the following are the important floral
takes place by : rewards to the animal pollinators ?
(a) Water currents only (b) Wind and water (a) Nectar and pollen grains
(c) Insects and water (d) Insects or wind (b) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals
NEET-2020 Phase-I (c) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates
Ans. (d) : Water hyacinth and water lily are both (d) Colour and large size flower
aquatic plants, but their pollination mechanisms are AIPMT-2015
different. Water hyacinth is pollinated by insects or Ans. (a) : Nectar is a sugar liquid that provides a source of
wind, while water lily is pollinated by insects only. energy for many pollinators, including bees, butterflies,
• Water hyacinth flowers are brightly coloured and have a and hummingbirds. Pollen grains contains essential
sweet fragrance to attract insects. The pollen grains are proteins, fast and other nutrients making them a valuable
light and dry, so they can be easily carried out by the wind. food source for containg pollinators like bees.
190. Which one of the following statements is not
true ?
(a) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe
allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people
(b) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats
secrete foul odour to attract them
(c) Honey is made by bees by digesting - pollen
collected from flowers
(d) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they
187. Which of the following is incorrect for wind are used in the form of tablets and syrups
pollinated plants?
AIPMT-2015
(a) Pollen grains are light and non-sticky
(b) Well exposed stamens and stigma Ans. (c) : Bees make honey by nectar and pollens. Bees
collect pollen and nectar in the spring when most flower
(c) Many ovules in each ovary and plants are in the bloom.
(d) Flowers are small and not brightly coloured Honey collected in form of nectar by storage of liquid
NEET-2020 Phase-II nutrient of plants, its chemical composition basically
Ans. (c) : Wind pollinated flowers one characterized by dextrose, sucrose, fructose, in nature of honey.
single ovule in each ovary, small and inconspicuous, 191. Which one of the following may require
colorless and nectar-less flowers, light and sticky pollen pollinators, but is genetically similar to
grains, well exposed stamens and sticky stigma. All autogamy ?
these factors contribute to the high probability of (a) Xenogamy (b) Apogamy
pollination and thus, fertilization of flowers.
(c) Cleistogamy (d) Geitonogamy
188. The term used for transfer of pollen grains AIPMT-2015
from anthers of one plant to stigma of a
different plant which, during pollination, Ans. (d) : Geitonogamy is a type of pollination in
brings genetically different types of pollen which pollen is transferred from the anther of one
grains to stigma, is : flower to the stigma of another flower on the same
(a) Cleistogamy (b) Xenogamy plant. It is functionally cross-pollination, meaning that it
requires a pollinator, such as bee or butterfly to transfer
(c) Geitonogamy (d) Chasmogamy the pollen. However genetically, geitonogamy is similar
NEET-2021 to autogamy, meaning that the pollen grains come from
Ans. (b) : (i) Xenogamy is the transfer to pollen grain the same plant.
from anther to stigma of a different plant. This is the Geitonogamy is a common type of pollination in many
cross pollination which during pollination, brings plants, including tomatoes, beans, and peas.
genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma.
(ii) Cleistogamy is a condition in which flower does
not open.
(iii) Geitonogamy refers to the transfer of pollen grain
from anther to stigma of another flower of the
same plant.
(iv) Chasmogamy is a condition in which flowers
remain open.
192. Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of:-

(a) Solid style (b) Dry stigma
(c) Wet stigma (d) Hollow style
AIPMT-2015
Ans. (a) : Transmission tissue is a characteristic feature Ans. (b) : Entomophily refers to pollination by insects.
of solid style. Solid style is a tissue responsible for Flower produce fragrance odour to attract insects and
transmission of pollen form stigma to ovary. It is made produce nectar as a reward to effective pollination.
up of thin walled cell. Example– Bees, butterfly, wasp, ants, moths.
The cell of this tube are connected with the help of • Anemophily is pollination by air currents or wind
Plasmodesmata which is present in both transverse and from one individual plant to another.
longitudinal wall of the pollen tube or style. e.g. Light and feathery pollen grains, seeds poales,
gymnosperm and grasses.
• Cleistogamy are pollination in Cleistogamous
(closed) flowers, that do not open at any stage.
e.g. self pollinated Viola, Peanut and Pansy.
• Hydrophily is a type of pollination in which pollen
is dispersed by the flow of water, especially in rivers
and streams.
e.g. Hydrilla, Zostera, Vallisneria.
196. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few
ovules, are generally pollinated by
(a) Birds (b) Wind
(c) Bees (d) Butterflies
193. What type of pollination takes place in NEET-2017
Vallisneria? AIPMT (Mains)-2012
(a) Male flowers are carried by water currents to Ans. (b) : Plants with ovaries having only one or a few
female flowers at surface of water. ovules are generally pollinated by wind. This is because
(b) Pollination occurs in submerged condition by wind pollination is a very inefficient process, and only a
water. small fraction of the pollen grains released by a plant
(c) Flowers emerge above surface of water and will actually reach another plant’s stigma. To
pollination occurs by insects. compensate for this wind-pollinated plant produce large
(d) Flowers emerge above water surface and quantities of pollen and have flowers that are adapted
pollen is carried by wind. for wind pollination, such as long, feathery stigmas that
NEET (Odisha)-2019 can trap pollen grains from airs
Ans. (a) : Pollination in Vallisneria is a type of
epihydrophily, which is pollinated by water. Vallisneria
is a dioecious plants, meaning that male and female
plants are separate. The male flowers are small and
detach from the plant when they mature. They then float
on the surface of water. The female flowers have long
stalks that allow them to reach the surface of water. The
pollen from the male flowers is carried by water
currents to the female flowers, where it pollinate them.
194. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:
(a) Autogamy and Xenogamy
(b) Autogamy and Geitonogamy
(c) Geitonogamy and Xenogamy
(d) Cleistogamy and Xenogamy
NEET-2017 197. Pollination occurs in
Ans. (b) : Dioecious flowering plant have male and (a) Bryophytes and angiosperms
female flowers on separate plants. This means that it is (b) Pteridophytes and angiosperms
impossible for pollen from a male flower on the same (c) Angiosperms and gymnosperms
plant to fertilize an ovule of a female flower on the (d) Angiosperms and fungi
same plant. Therefore, dioecious plants prevent both Ans. (c) : Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains
autogamy and geitonogamy. from the male part of a flower to the female part of a
• Autogamy is self-pollination, which occurs when flower. It is an essential step in the sexual reproduction
pollen from a flower fertilizes the ovule of the same of flowering plants (angiosperms) and seed-bearing
flower. plants (gymnosperms).
• Geitonogamy is pollination between flowers on the • Bryophytes and pteridophytes are non-seed– bearing
same plant but not the same flower. plants, and therefore do not undergo pollination.
195. Attractants and rewards are required for 198. Pollination in Rafflesia is occurred by:
(a) Anemophily (b) Entomophily (a) Carrion flies (b) Elephant
(c) Hydrophily (d) Cleistogamy (c) Bat (d) Crow
NEET-2017 AIIMS-2015
Ans. (a) : Rafflesia is a genus of parasitic flowering Ans. (c) :
plants native to southeast Asia. It produces the largest (a) Animals attracted to flowers by –– Colour
flowers in the world, which can be up to 1 meter in (b) Beetles flies are attracted by –– Foul odours
diameter and weigh up to 10 kilograms. (c) Pollination by squirrels –– Therophily
Rafflesia flowers are pollinated by carrion flies. The (d) Pollination by snakes –– Ophiophily
flowers attract the flies by their foul odor, which (iv) Amorphophallus – Safe space to lay eggs by insects
resembles rotting meat. The flies are drawn to the
flowers to lay their eggs and visit another flower they 201. Mesogamy is
transfer the pollen to the stigma of that flower. (a) fusion of male and female gametes
• Pollination by carrion flies is a specialized type of (b) fusion of physiologically similar and
pollination called sparomyophilly. morphologically different gametes
(c) entry of pollen tube through integuments
199. Match the following lists: (d) None of the above
List-I List-II JCECE-2008 / UP CPMT-2004
A. Epidermis I. Thin walled cells Ans. (c) : Mesogamy is a type of fertilization in which
B. Tapetum II. One cell thick the pollen tube enters the ovule through the
C. Endothecium III. Inner most layer integuments, which are the protective layers of the
D. Stomium IV. Fibrom ovule. It is found in all Cucurbit plants such as
thickenings pumpkins, Cucumbers and melons.
V. Meiosis 202. Xenogamy is essentially a type of
The correct match is (a) Cleistogamy (b) Allogamy
Options: (c) Autogamy (d) Homogamy
A B C D WB JEE-2012
(a) II III I IV Ans. (b) : Xenogamuy is a type of cross-pollination
(b) II III IV I which is a type of allogamy.
(c) II V IV III Xenogamy is more advantageous than autogamy because it
(d) IV I V II leads to greater genetic diversity from a different plant,
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I which has a different genetic makeup. This can help the
population to adapt to change in the environment.
Ans. (b) : Epidermis– The plant epidermis is a protective
tissue that covers the entire surface of the plant. 203. Ornithophily refers to the pollination by which
Tapetum – Tapetum is the innermost cell layer in the of the following
anther, which surrounds the developing pollen mother (a) insects (b) birds
cells (PMCs) and/or microspores supplying nutrition (c) snails (d) air
and enzymes required for microsporogenesis and pollen WB JEE-2009
maturation. Ans. (b) : Ornithophily refers to the pollination by
Endothecium – The outermost cell layer (Just inside birds. This helps to bring about fertilisation of the ovule
the epidermis) is termed the endothecium which in the flower. Pollination by insect is refered as
typically consists of enlarged cells with secondary wall entomophily, pollination by snail is referred as
thickening functioning in anther dehiscence. malacophily. Pollination by air is known as anemophily
Stomium – The stomium is a single layer of specialized 204. Cross pollination in crop is called as:
epidermal cells that joins adjacent anther walls and is (a) autogamy (b) cleistogamy
the final breakage site for anther dehiscence. (c) chasmogamy (d) allogamy
200. Match the following lists BHU PMT-2002
List-I List-II Ans. (d) : Cross pollination in crop is called as allogamy,
A. Animals attracted I. Ophiophily in which pollen grains are transferred from the anther of a
to flowers by flower to the stigma of a flower of different plant.
B. Beetles flies are II. Safe space to lay • Autogamy is a type of self-pollination.
attracted by eggs by insects • Cleistogamy is a self pollination process which
C. Pollination by III. Colour occurs in cleistoganous flower.
squirrels • In chasmogany, flowers are bisexual and they have
D. Pollination by IV. Foul odours exposed anthers and stigma so that both self
snakes pollination and cross pollination can occur.
E. Amorphophallus V. Therophily 205. Zoophily is the pollination by
The correct match is (a) invertebrates (b) vertebrates
Options: (c) wind (d) air
A B C D E UP CPMT-2010
(a) V II I III IV Ans. (b) : Zoophily is the pollination by vertebrates or
(b) V II III IV I animals. The coloured corolla of flower attract insects
(c) III IV V I II and it has sticky pollens which attach to the insect and
(d) III II I IV V transferred from the anther to stigma of the flower.
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I Pollination by wind is known as anemophily.
206. Pollination by insects is called 211. At the time of pollination, the pollen grain of
(a) zoophily (b) chiropterophily Pinus are
(c) anemophily (d) entomophily (a) one celled (b) two celled
BHU-PMT (Screening)-2008/Uttarakhand PMT-2007 (c) three celled (d) four celled
Ans. (d) : Pollination by insects is known as BHU PMT (Mains)-2009
entomophily. Zoophily is the pollination by vertebrates Ans. (d) : The pollen grains of Pinus at the time of
like birds, bats etc. Anemophily is the pollination by shedding have only two prothallial cells. At the time of
wind. Chiropterophily is the pollination by bats. pollination the pollen grains of pinus are four celled i.e.
207. Generative cell was destroyed by laser but a two prothalial cells a generative cell and a tube cell.
normal pollen tube was still formed because Prothalial cell start to disintegrate before the pollination
(a) Laser beam stimulates growth of pollen tube take place. Two non-motile male gamete developed
(b) The region of emergence of pollen tube is not from generative cells. The pollen grains in pinus are
harmed produced in a very large number and they are
(c) Vegetative cell is not damaged transported to a very long distance by air.
(d) Contents of killed generative cell stimulate pollen 212. Flower which is pollinated by wind is
VMMC-2013 characterized by
Ans. (c) : Generative cell was destroyed by laser but a (a) Small, non-scented, colourless flowers
normal pollen tube was still formed because vegetative cell (b) Big, scented, coloured flowers
is not damaged. Vegetative cell helps in pollen tube (c) Big, non-scented, coloured flowers
formation. Since, vegetative cell gives rise to pollen tube (d) Big, non-scented, colourless flowers
and generative cell divides to form two male gametes. BHU PMT (Mains)-2011
Destruction of the generative cell will ensure that no Ans. (a) : Flower which is pollinated by wind is
male gametes are formed. chracterised by small, non-scented and colourless
208. Xenogamy is flowers because no insects are required for pollination.
(a) Pollination between two different flowers of So, there is no need for the flowers to have such
same plant on same branch characters which might attract the insects. The wind-
(b) A mechanism of parthenocarpy pollinated flowers produce pollen in large number if
(c) Pollination between anthers and stigma of some pollen grains fail to reach their destination even
same flowers then there will be viable pollen grains left to pollinate
(d) Pollination between two flowers of two the flower. These pollen grains are light in weight, non-
different plant sticky and small, so that they can be easily carried away
VMMC-2013 / AMU-2012 by wind.
Ans. (d) : Xenogamy is pollination between two 213. Type of pollination of commelina is
flowers of two different plant. It is essentially a type of (a) Chasmogamy (b) Geitonogamy
allogamy. Pollination between anthers and stigma of (c) Xenogamy (d) Cleistogamy
same flowers is known as autogamy. Parthenocarpy is J&K CET-2008 / JIPMER-1999
the development of fruits without fertilisation.
Pollination between two different flowers of same plant Ans. (d) : Type of pollination of Commelina is
on same branch is known as geitonogamy cleistogamy. In cleistogamy pollination, flowers do not
open at all. In such flowers, the anther and stigma are
209. Corolla in passion flower helps the plant in very close to each other.
achieving ______ pollination.
(a) bat (b) bird • Cleistogamy is a type of self-pollination
(c) wind (d) insect • Chasmogamy pollination occurs in self-pollinating
MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I flowers. In such flowers, pollination occurs when the
flower is open with its anthers and stigma exposed.
Ans. (d) : Corolla in passion flower helps the plant in
achieving insect pollination. Passion flower produce • Xenogamy is a type of cross- pollination in which
regular and showy flowers with distinctive corona. pollen grains transfer from the anther of a flower to
These colourful corona attracts insects when an insects the stigma of a different plant.
visits a flower, it picks up pollen unintentionally on its • Geitonogamy is also a type of cross-pollination in
body. The next flower they visits is then exposed to this which pollen grains transfer from the anther to the
pollen and fertilization take place. stigma same plant.
210. Sage flower is pollinated by : 214. The type of pollination involving transfer of
(a) aphids (b) butterflies pollen grains from anther to the stigma of the
(c) bees (d) moths same flower is known as
AFMC -2011 (a) geitonogamy (b) xenogamy
Ans. (c) : Sage flower is pollinated by bees. It belongs (c) autogamy (d) apogamy
to the Lamiaceae family. The colour of flower is blue to DUMET-2010
purplish. They also have a grey leaf and a woody stem. Ans. (c) : Autogamy is a type of self-pollination which
Their leaves have a pungent odor. So, they don’t attract involves transfer of pollen grains from anther to the
animals. Their flowers have a great aroma which is stigma of the same flower. Geitonogamy is a type of
loved by bees. Moths pollinate tobacco, butterflies cross-pollination in which pollen grains transfer from
pollinate milkweed plants and aphids do not pollinate.
the anther to the stigma of same plant. Xenogamy is 219. Consider the following statements with respect
also a type of cross-pollination in which pollen grains to flowering plants and choose the correct
transfer from the anther of a flower to the stigma of a option.
different plant. Apogamy is a type of asexual (A) The pollen grains represent the male
reproduction in plants where gametophyte develops gametes
from the sporophyte. (B) The functional megaspore develops into the
215. Anemophilous type of pollination is found in embryo sac represent the female gamete
(a) Salvia (b) Bottle brush (C) Transfer of pollen grains from anther to
(c) Vallisneria (d) Coconut the stigma of different plant is known as
Haryana PMT-2007 / AFMC-2007 xenogamy
(D) Transfer of pollen grains from anther to
Ans. (d) : Anemophilous type of pollination is found in
the stigma of another flower of the same
coconut. Wind pollination is also known as
plant is known as geitonogamy
anemophilous pollination. In this type of pollination,
Of the above statements.
pollen grains are dispered by wind or air. Pollen grains
are generally produced in large numbers and they are (a) A and B alone are correct
light weighted. So that they can be carried by the wind (b) A and C alone are correct
or air to a very long distance. In Salvia, pollination (c) A and D alone are correct
takes place by the insects, whereas in vallisneria, it (d) B and C alone are correct
occurs with the help of water and in Bottle brush, it (e) C and D alone are correct
occurs with the help of birds. Kerala PMT-2015
216. The type of pollination found in Calotropis is : Ans. (e) : (a)- The pollen grains itself do not represent
(a) Dicliny (b) Herkogamy the male gamete. It contains two cells on vegetative cell
(c) Heterostyly (d) Dichogamy and one generative cell. After pollination vegetative cell
AMU-2005 / Uttarakhand PMT-2004 / Manipal-2004 produce tube nucleus and generative cell produce two
haploid male gamete.
Ans. (b) : The type of pollination found in calotropis is
(b)- The functional megaspore develops into the
herkogamy. Herkogamy is a type of cross-pollination in
embryo sac represent the female gametophyte, which
which pollen transfer from anther of a flower to the consist of 7-cells and 8 nucleus, 3 cells at micropylar
stigma of a different flower, with the help of pollinating end consist of 2 synergids and one egg cell. One polar
agent. Calotropis is an insect pollinating plant. nuclei or secondary nucleus at center of embryo sac.
217. Mark the correct sequence: There antipodal cells at chalaza end.
(a) Anthesis→Meiosis→Pollination → Syngamy 220. When the pollen grains are not transferred
(b) Pollination→Meiosis→Anthesis → Syngamy from anthers to the stigma in flower due to the
(c) Anthesis→Pollination→Meiosis → Syngamy barrier of fence, it is referred as or when some
(d) Anthesis→Meiosis→ Pollination→ Syngamy natural barriers, exist between androecium and
HP CET-2011 gynoecium to check self pollination, it is known
as
Ans. (a) : Anthesis is opening of flower which is (a) heterostyly (b) herkogamy
followed by meiosis during which both male and female (c) dichogamy (d) cleistogamy
gametes are formed. Then pollination takes place. It can
CG PMT-2007
be either self pollination or cross-pollination.
Pollination leads to the fusion of gametes called Ans. (b) : When the pollen grains are not transferred
syngamy and produce embryo. from the anthers to the stigma in flower due to barrier of
fence or when some natural barriers exist between
218. In nature, autogamy in plants is avoided since androecium and gynoecium to check self pollination, it
the seeds produced : is known as herkogamy. Some flowers have different
(a) are fewer in number lengths of stamens and styles to check the self-
(b) do not germinate successfully fertilisaiton is known as heterostyly. When anther and
(c) do not produce healthy plant stigma reach maturation at different times, this
(d) all of the above condition is known as dichogamy.
JIPMER-1999 221. Pollination by bats is called
Ans. (d) : Autogamy is a type of self-pollination which (a) anemophily (b) hydrophily
involves self-fertilisation. It involves fusion of gametes (c) ornithophily (d) None of these
that are coming from same flower. i.e. pollens from the AMU-2007, 1997
anther of a flower transferred to the stigma of the same J&K CET-2011
flower. However, in nature autogamy in plants is Ans. (d) : Pollination by bats is known as
avoided because the seeds produced are fewer in chiropterophily. Bat pollination is an essential process
number, do not germinate successfully and do not in tropical communities. Pollination by birds is known
produce healthy plant. Autogamy often results in as ornithophily. Pollination by wind is known as
inbreeding depression. It also decreases the disease anemophily and pollination by water is known as
resistant capability of a plant. hydrophily.
222. Gymnosperms have a mode of pollination (c) The pollen grains are transferred from one flower
celled: to another flower situated on the same plant.
(a) anemophily (b) zoophily (d) The pollen grains of one flower are
(c) entomophily (d) hydrophily transferred to the stigma of the same flower
Haryana PMT-2002 J&K CET-2015 / VMMC-2010
Ans. (a) : Gymnosperms have a made of pollination Ans. (c) : Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to
called anemophily. When pollination takes place with the stigma of the same flower is known as self-
the help of wind then it is anemophily. Gymnosperms pollination. Cross pollination is the transfer of pollen
are produce haploid microspores and megaspores. The grains from the anther to stigma of another flower.
male and female cones may be borne on same tree or on 227. What is the type of placentation do you find in
different trees. The male and female gamete remains Nymphaea?
within the sporangia. The pollen grain is released from (a) Parietal (b) Superficial
microsporangium and carried via wind and come in (c) Marginal (d) Basal
contact with the opening of the ovules borne on AP EAMCET-2001
megasporophylls. Ans. (b) : Superficial type of placentation is find in
223. Jaculators are present in Nymphaea. Placentation is the arrangement of the
(a) ruellia (b) eeballium ovules within the ovary.
(c) impatiens (d) none of these • In superficial placentation, ovules are borne on the
Haryana PMT-2007 entire inner wall of the ovary as well as septa of the
ovary.
Ans. (a) : Jaculators are present in Ruellia. It is a
mechanism of seed dispersal. In this mechanism, • In basal placentation, ovary is unilocular and single
ovule is born at the base of ovary.
capsules are produced by the pollinated flowers have
small hook-like outgrowth called retinaculum or • In marginal placentation, placenta forms a ridge that
Jaculators attached to the seeds. When the capsule dries, runs across the ovary ventral suture and ovules are
it breaks and the retinaculum throws the seeds away borne in rows on the ridge.
from the parent plant. The dispersal of seeds can be • In parietal placentation, the ovules are borne on the
done by different means. It can be biotic or abiotic inner peripheral wall.
vectors. 228. In nature, allogamy is met within
224. Which of the following flower shows the (a) unisexual flowers only
features of autogamy? (b) neuter flowers only
(a) Viola papillionacea (b) Cicer arietinum (c) underground flowers only
(c) Triticum aestivum (d) Ricinus communis (d) none of the above
Manipal-2015 AMU-1997
Ans. (a) : Viola papillionacea shows the feature of Ans. (a) : In nature, allogamy is met within unisexual
autogamy. A type of pollination in which pollen grains flowers only because in unisexual flowers, either male
are transferred from the anther to the stigma of the same or female reproductive organ is present but not both.
flower is known as autogamy. Viola papillionacea Allogamy is a type of pollination in which the pollen
grains transfer from the anther of flower to the stigma of
belongs to the family violaceae. Their flowers are
the flower of another plant Neuter flowers have
clestogamy flowers. This type of flowers do not open at
undeveloped or non-functional reproductive organs.
all and self fertilization takes place.
229. On reaching the ovary, if pollen tube enters the
225. Pollination by snail and slug is known as ovule then through integuments, then it is
(a) entomophily (b) ornithophily called
(c) anemophily (d) malacophily (a) chalazogamy (b) mesogamy
WBJEE-2015 / VMMC-2013
(c) porogamy (d) siphonogamy
CMC Vellore-2008 / AMU-2006
Ans. (d) : Pollination by snail and slug is known as
Ans. (b) : On reaching the ovary, if pollen tube enters
malacophily. Pollination is the process of pollen grains
the ovule then through integuments, then it is called
transferred from anther to the stigma of flower of the
misogamy. When the pollen tube enters the ovule
same plant or different plant. Pollination by insects is
through the micropyle end, is known as porogamy.
known as entomophily. Pollinaiton by birds is known as
When the pollen tube enters the ovule throught the
ornithophily, Pollination by wind is known as
chalaza end is known as chalazogamy. In siphonogamy,
anemophily. pollen tubes are formed for the transmission of male
226. Which one of the following is not a correct gametes to the eggs.
explanation of cross-pollination? 230. Plants bearing small, inconspicuous flowers
(a) The pollen grains of male flowers are lacking fragrance, nectar and producing large
transferred to the stigma of the female number of smooth walled pollen grains, is
flowers. characterstic of ______.
(b) The pollen grains are transferred from one (a) chiropterophily (b) entomophily
flower to another flower, of another plant of (c) anemophily (d) ornithophily
the same species. MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (c) : Plants bearing small, inconspicuous flowers 235. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to
lacking fragrance, nectar and producing large number of the stigma of another flower of the same plant
smooth walled pollen grains is characteristic of is called
anemophily. Anemophily is the pollination by wind. (a) Geitonogamy (b) Autogamy
Chiropterophily is the pollination by bats. Entemophily (c) Karyogamy (d) Xenogamy
is the pollination by insects. Ornithophily is the AIPMT-2014 / J&K CET-2012/Rajasthan PMT-2011
AMU-2010, 1997 / AIPMT (Screening)-2010
pollination by birds.
UP CPMT-2005 / AIPMT-1994
231. Gloriosa superb is a good example of one of the Ans. (a) : The transfer of pollen grains from the anther
following: to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is
(a) heterostyly (b) cleistogamy called geitonogamy. Autogamy is a type of self-
(c) self sterility (d) herkogamy pollination which occurs in the same flower of a plant.
AP EAMCET-2002 The type of pollination when different pollen grains are
Ans. (d) : Glorisa superb is a good example of brought to stigma is xenogamy.
Herkogamy. Herkogamy is a phenomenon of having 236. Assertion: Insects visit flower to gather honey.
anther and stigma are in different position in the same Reason: Attraction of flowers prevents the
plant. It is a mechanism to promote cross-pollination in insects from damaging other parts of the plant.
flower. In glorisa, flowers are bisexual but the pollen (a) If both assertion and reason are true and
grains are not able to reach the stigma. Heterstyly is a reason is the correct explanation of assertion
phenomenon of having different-heights of styles and (b) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
stamens. Cleistogamy is a type of self-pollination that
assertion
occurs within a closed flower. When a plant is unable to
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false
perform self-fertilisation it is called self-sterility. Ex-
(d) If both assertion and reason are false
Potato, Tobacco etc.
VMMC-2005
232. Plants of which one of the following groups of Ans. (d) : Insects visit flower to gather nectar not-honey
genera are pollinated by the same agency? and get a coating of pollen grains of the flower, which
(a) Triticum, mussanda, Zea mays are generally sticky. These pollen grains are dusted off
(b) Kadam Cannabis when they come in contact with a stigma. Attraction of
(c) Salvia, Calotropis, Rafflesia flowers cannot prevent the insects from damaging other
(d) Salvia, Pinus, Ophrys parts as only those insects are attracted to the flowers
Haryana PMT-2006 / AIIMS-2006 which help in pollination.
Ans. (c) : Salvia, Calotropis, Rafflesia all are pollinated 237. External water is not required for fertilization
of:
by the same agency. These three are insects pollinating
(a) bryophytes (b) pteridophytes
plants. Triticum, Zea mays, cannabis and Pinus are
(c) thallophytes (d) spermatophytes
wind pollinating plants while Mussanda is an insect
pollinating plants and Kodom is bat pollinating plants. BCECE-2003
Ophrys are bees pollinating plants. Ans. (d) : External water is not required for fertilization
of spermatophytes. Spermatophytes includes
233. Malacophily is observed in the species of one of gymnosperm and angiosperms. In these, male pollens
the following: reach the ovule with the help of various medium or
(a) Zostera (b) Lemna agent called pollinating agent. But thallophytes (algae),
(c) Ruppia (d) Bignonia Bryophytes and pteridophytes require water for
AP EAMCET-2000 fertilisation.
Ans. (b) : Malacophily is observed in the species of 238. The pollination is .............. in eel grass
lemna. It is the process of pollination in plants by snails. (a) hydrophilous (b) zoophilous
Lemna is a free-floating water plant. In zostera, Ruppia, (c) entomophilous (d) anemophilous
pollination occurs with the help of water. Haryana PMT-2011
234. All fig trees are pollinated by Ans. (a) : The pollination is hydrophilous in eel grass.
(a) air (b) bats Eel grass is Vallisneria. It grows under the water. It is
hydrophilous because the pollen is transferred from
(c) birds (d) wasps male to female flower with the help of water. Female
Tripura JEE-2022 flowers grow on the water surface on very long stalk.
Ans. (d) : All fig trees are pollinated by wasps. They Male flowers grow on short stalk become detached and
share a mutual relationship. They shows obligate float to the surface for pollination.
mutualism in which both species are interdependent 239. Match the following columns.
with one another in a way that one cannot survive Column I Column II
without the other. The wasps lays its eggs and also A. Zoophily 1. Pollination by birds
pollinates the fig’s flowers. The fig tree not only B. Ornithophily 2. Pollination by insects
provide shelter for oviposition to wasp but also allows C. Entomophily 3. Pollination by bats
its larva to feed on seeds. D. Chiropterophily 4. Pollination by animals
(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 243. In coconut, the liquid endosperm is formed
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 because:
(c) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (a) karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis
(d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 (b) karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis
MGIMS Wardha-2013 (c) formation of liquid endosperm is not
Ans. (a) : dependent upon karyokinesis and cytokinesis
Column-I Column-II (d) None of the above
A. Zoophily 4. Pollination by animals JIPMER-2015
B. Ornithophily 1. Pollination by birds Ans. (c) : Liquid endosperm formed as the coconut fruit
C. Entomophily 2. Pollination by insects matures Initially, it is a clear, slightly sweet liquid. This
D. Chiropterophily 3. Pollination by bats. liquid is primarily a mixtures of water, sugars, vitamins
and minerals. It eves as nourishment for the developing
coconut embryo (the seed) inside the coconut.
E. Post-pollination : Structures
244. The coconut water and the edible part of
and events coconut are equivalent to:
(a) Mesocarp (b) Embryo
240. The cocount water from tender coconut
(c) Endosperm (d) Endocarp
represents
(a) Free nuclear endosperm BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
(b) Endocarp Rajasthan PMT-2006 / VMMC-2002
(c) Fleshy mesocarp
Ans. (c) : The coconut water is the free nuclear
(d) Free nuclear proembryo endosperm while the surrounding white kernel is
NEET-2016 Phase-I cellular endosperm.
Ans. (a) : In tender coconut, edible part is liquid It has a membranous epicarp, fibrous mesocarp and
endosperm that represents free nuclear endosperm. stony endocarp. The endocarp encloses a single seed
During the development of nuclear type of endosperm, with brown testa that contain a small embryo and a
the primary endosperm mother cell divides by free white oily endosperm (edible part) with watery fluid
nuclear divisions, and these division are not followed by called coconut water.
cell wall formation. In Cocos nucifera (Coconut), the Endosperm formed due to triple fusion and is triploid in
water represents free-nuclear endosperm and the nature.
surrounding Kernel represents the cellular endosperm.
Its development starts shortly before the development of
241. Which of the following floral parts forms the embryo it is formed by three method nuclear type
pericarp after fertilization? cellular type and Helobial type.
(a) Nucellus (b) Outer integument
245. Identify the correct order of events in pollen-
(c) Ovary wall (d) Inner integument
pistil interaction from the options given below:
JIPMER-2012
I. Release of male gametes into the embryo sac.
Ans. (c) : After fertilization in flowering plants the II. Deposition of pollen grains on stigma.
pericarp, which is the outer layer of the fruit, undergoes
changes ovary wall. III. Entry of pollen tube into embryo sac.
But some fruits the pericarp may remain relatively IV. Development of pollen tube
unchanged. V. Entry of pollen tube into the Ovule.
Some fruits, the pericarp may be thicken and harden to (a) IV → III→II → I → V
protect the developing seed. (b) II → IV→ V → III → I
Some fruits the pericarp may fleshy and succulents to (c) II → IV → III → V → I
attract animals that help disperse the seeds like cherries (d) V → IV → III → II→ I
and tomato. Karnataka CET-2020
After fertilization, the ovary wall it often develops into
the fruit's outer layers, including the pericarp. Ans. (b) : Order of events in pollen-pistil interaction ⇒
Deposition of pollen grains on stigma → Development
242. When pollen tube enters through micropyle,
the process is called of pollen tube → Entry of pollen tube into the ovule
(a) porogamy (b) chalazogamy → Entry of pollen tube into embryo sac → Release of
(c) mesogamy (d) apogamy male gametes into the embryo sac.
JIPMER-2012 246. Nucellus forms which of the following part of
Ans. (a) : The pollen tube may enter the ovule by fruit?
following one of three routes given below : (a) Seed coat (b) Perisperm
Porogamy - Pollen tube enters the through microphyle, (c) Seed (d) Raphe
eg, most angiosperm. JIPMER-2009
Mesogamy - Pollen tube enters the ovule through Ans. (b) : The post fertilizations changes in the seeds
integuments or through functions. are as follows - Ovule change into seed, Ovary change
Chalazogamy-Pollen tube enters the ovule through chalazal into Fruit, Nucellus change into Perisperm (a nutritive
tissues, eg. Casuarina, Beta vulgairs, Juglens regia etc. tissue), Integument change into seed coat.
247. Identify the correct statements among the 249. When a diploid female plant is crossed with a
following. tetraploid male, the ploidy of endosperm cells
(A) Ability of pistil to recognize the pollen is in the resulting seed is :-
the result of a dialogue between pollen (a) Pentaploidy (b) Diploidy
grain and pistil (c) Triploidy (d) Tetraploidy
(B) Epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf AIPMT-2004
promordia enclosed in a hallow folial
Ans. (d) : Primary endosperm nucleus is formed by the
structure coleoptile
fusion of male gamete with the two polar nuclei. The
(C) Seed which germinate immediately after endosperm is generally triploid as the male gamete is
formation will be used as store food for
next season haploid. Here, the male gamete will be diploid becomes
the male plant is tetraploid and the two polar nuclei will
(D) In coconut, white kernel is cellular endosperm
be haploid because as female plant is diploid so the
and liquid is free nuclear endosperm
endosperm will be tetraploid.
(a) A, B, C (b) A, C, D
(c) B, C, D (d) A, B, D
Ans. (d) : The ability of the pistil to recognize pollen by
the surface protein on the pollen grain.
On landing of pollen on stigma of pistil. The pollen grain
protein are interact with stigma protein if protein are
compatible then pollen grain will be allowed to germinate,
if protein are not compatible the pollen grain rejected.
The endosperm filled with reserve food materials that
use for developing embryo.
The coconut water form by successive nuclear division 250. Which of the following has proved helpful in
of primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) and the preserving pollen as fossils?
surrounding white kernel is the cellular endosperm. (a) Pollenkitt (b) Cellulosic intine
In dicot embryo have an embryonal axis and two (c) Sporopollenin (d) Oil content
cotyledons the portion of embryonal axis above the Karnataka CET-2020 / NEET-2018 / VMMC-2011
level of cotyledon is the epicotyls, which terminates Ans. (c) : Sporopollenin forms the outer covering of
with the plumule or stem tip. the exine and the most resistant organic material on the
248. Entry of pollen tube into the ovule through earth.
chalaza was first discovered by Treub in a • Sporopollenin cannot degenerate or degraded by
xerophyte. This plant is associated with a pair enzyme, strong acid and alkali, therefore it is helpful
of character given below. in preserving of pollen grain as fossil.
(i) Unisexual flowers • Intine the inner part of covers the pollen grain act as
(ii) Sessile flowers reserve material for living cells.
(iii) Centripetal arrangement of flowers
(iv) Bisexual flowers
The correct pair is:
(a) ii, iii (b) iii, iv
(c) ii, iv (d) i, ii
AP EAMCET-2013
Ans. (d) : Unisexual flowers – A ‘‘unisexual’’ Flower
Pollen grain is male gametophyte which contain the
is one in which either the stamens or the carpels are male gametes. Grain has two part exine and intine.
missing, vestigial or otherwise non-functional. Each
flower is either ‘‘Staminate’’ (having only functional The generative cell divides to from a male gamete.
stamens and thus male) or Carpellate or ‘‘pistillate’’ 251. Double fertilization is
(having only functional carpels and thus female). (a) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube
(b) Sessile Flower – A flower which is borne directly with two different eggs
on the stem is called a sessile flower. It is devoid of a (b) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
pedicellate. Examples are sunflower, forests Sisyrinchium. nuclei
(c) Centripetal arrangement of flowers- The (c) Syngamy and triple fusion
arrangement of flowers in a group is centripetal. That (d) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
is, the younger flowers are towards the centre and the NEET-2018
older towards the outside.
(d) Bisexual flowers- A flower that contains both male Ans. (c) : Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of
and female reproductive organs is called a bisexual angiosperm. It includes both syngamy and triple fusion.
flower. The male reproductive organ is called the Syngamy : Fusion of male gamete with a female gamete
androecium and the female reproductive organ is called to form a zygote that in turn develops into an embryo.
the gynoecium. A bisexual flower consists of calyx, Triple fusion : Fusion of one male gamete with the
corolla, stamens, and carpel. diploid secondary nucleus (formed by fusion of two
haploid polar nuclei) result in the formation of triploid On looking inside embryo sac we found, three cell are
Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN). grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute
Pen divides and forms the triploid nutritive tissue, the egg apparatus. The egg apparatus is turn, consists of
endosperm. two synergids on one egg cell. The three cell are at the
Hence, five nuclei involved in double fertilization. chalazal end and central has two polar nuclei and the
embryosac is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.
255. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants

are generally located in –
252. Advantage of cleistogamy is :-
(a) Nuclear genome
(a) Vivipary
(b) Chloroplast genome
(b) Higher genetic variability
(c) Cytosol
(c) More vigorous offspring
(d) Mitochondrial genome
(d) No dependence on pollinators
AIPMT-2005
NEET-2013
DUMET-2009 Ans. (d) : Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants
are generally located in mitochondrial genome because
Ans. (d) : Cleistogamous flowers show autogamy as mitochondria are inherited exclusively from the
they do not open. Another is present close to the stigma maternal parent means that cytoplasmic stability is
and receive pollen grain as anthers dehisce. Due to maternally inherited trate.
autogamy cleistogamous flower do not open on
• CMS occur in plant due to specific nuclear and
pollinator and produce assured seed-set. Cleistogamous
mitochondrial interaction.
Flowers are the ones that do not open and show self
pollination. • Male sterility is the failure of plants to produce
eg.- In grass family such as peas, peanut and pansy functional anther, pollen or male gametes.
253. Double fertilization is exhibited by 256. Which one of the following statements is wrong
(a) Gymnosperms (b) Algae (a) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for
months
(c) Fungi (d) Angiosperms
(b) Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin
NEET-2017
(c) When pollen is shed at two-celled state,
Ans. (d) : The process of fusion of male gamete with double fertilization does not take place
the female to form the diploid zygote (2n) is known as (d) Vegetative cells is larger than generative cell
fertilization.
AIPMT (Mains)-2012
• The fusion of one male gamete with egg and that of
another male gamete with a secondary nucleus is Ans. (c) : In double fertilization, one of the two male
called double fertilization. gametes within the pollen tube fuses with the egg cell
of the ovule.
Double fertilization is a complex and efficient process
that found in angiosperm. • Before pollination the protoplast of pollen grain
In this process fusion of two male gametes with two divides into two unequal cells small generative cell
female gametes. First male gamete fuses with egg and large tube or vegetative cell.
cell and form a zygote and diploid embryo of the new • In some species the generative cell divides into two
plant. Second male gamete fuse with the two polar male gametes prior to dehiscence by pollen grain.
nuclei of the embryo sac to form the triploid Therefore at the time of pollination the pollen grain is
endosperm. The endosperm which is a nutrient rich either 2 celled or 3 celled.
and use to developing embryo.
254. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal
embryo sac in the dicot plants is-
(a) 2 + 4 + 2 (b) 3 + 2 + 3
(c) 2 + 3 + 3 (d) 3 + 3 + 2
AIPMT-2006
Ans. (b) : The megaspore have nucleus. The function
nucleus divided mitotically until the 8-nucleated stage
of the embryo sac, but they are free by cell wall. After
the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are formed and
organization of female gametophyte.
257. Growth of pollen tube towards embryo sac is Ans. (b) : If root of a flowering plant has 24
(a) geotropism (b) thigmotaxis chromosomes then gamete has 12 chromosomes
(c) chemotaxis (d) All of these because gametes are haploid in nature and flowering
JIPMER-2008 / AIIMS-2000 plant has diploid in nature. So, gametes become half of
Ans. (c) : Growth of pollen tube towards the embryo the total chromosome number.
sac is chemotaxis. It is defined as the growth or motion 263. Chalazogamy is shown by
of an organism or part in response to chemical stimuli. (a) Petunia (b) Cucurbita
The growth of the pollen tube towards the embryo sac is
(c) Pistacia (d) Casuarina
because of chemicals released by the ovule.
AMU-2015
258. Syngamy means
Ans. (d) : Chalazogany is shown by Casuariana. When
(a) Fusion of gametes
pollen tube grows into the embryo with the help of
(b) Fusion of cytoplasms
chalaza, it is known as chalazogamy. This process is
(c) Fusion of two similar spores discovered by Treub. and it is very rare. Chalaza helps
(d) Fusion of two dissimilar spores. in the transport of nutrients and water to the egg cell
AIPMT-1991 through nuclear.
Ans. (a) : Syngamy means fusion of gametes. Syngamy 264. If the pollen tube enters the ovule through
is the phenomenon in which male gamete fuses with the funiculus, the phenomenon is known as :
egg.
(a) porogamy (b) chalazogamy
259. Total number of meiotic divisions required for (c) mesogamy (d) heterogamy
forming 100 zygotes/100 grains of wheat is
Punjab MET-2003
(a) 100 (b) 75
(c) 125 (d) 50 Ans. (c) : If the pollen tube enters the ovule through
AIPMT-1988 funiculus, the phenomenon is known as misogamy. In
chalazogamy, pollen tube enters the ovule through
Ans. (c) : Microspore which develop into pollen grain chalaza. In porogamy, pollen tube enters the ovule
thus one cycle of meiosis produs four microspores then through micropyle end.
25 cycle of meiosis required for 100 microspore.
Megaspore develops in embryo sac one cycle of meiosis 265. The movement of pollen tube is called
produce one function megaspore all three are (a) chemotropism (b) thermotaxis
degenerated. Then total 100 cycle of meiosis is required (c) thermonastic (d) hydrotropism
for 100 function megaspores then for the formation of Manipal-2015 / UP CPMT-2003
100 zygotes the total number of meiotic division Ans. (a) : The movement of pollen tube is called as
required is 100+125=125. chemotropism. Chemotropism may be defined as the
260. The role of double fertilisation in angiosperms movement or the growth of the organism in response is
is to produce termed positive if the growth or movement is towards
(a) Cotyledons (b) Endocarp the stimulus and is termed negative if it is away from
(c) Endosperm (d) Integuments the stimulus.
AIPMT-1998, 1996 266. Cereals during germination derive their food
Ans. (c) : Double fertilisation produced one diploid cell from
and one triploid cell. The diploid zygote will divide and (a) Soil (b) Starch
grow to produce an embryo. The triploid cell grows into (c) Embryo (d) Aleurone grains
the endosperm and will nourish the developing embryo.
VMMC-2013
261. Upon fertilization, what structure develops
Ans. (d) : Cereals during germination derive their food
from carpel?
from aleurone grains. It is a layer of protein. This
(a) Testa (b) Tegmen
aleurone layer is located between the endosperm and the
(c) Pericarp (d) Perisperm
seed coat.
AIIMS-2009
Aleurlone grains are small, protein rich structures found
Ans. (c) : Upon fertilization, while ovule develops into in the outermost layer of cereal grains like wheat, barley
a seed. Pericarp develops from carpel. The pericarp is and oats. They are particularly abundant in wheat.
the outer layer of a fruit, and it develops from the ovary
wall of the flower after fertilization. Aleurone cells contain enzymes that play a crucial role
The pericarp is made up to three layer the exocarp in the germination of the grain, breaking down stored
(outer layer) the mesocarp (middle layer) and the nutrients into forms that can be used by developing
endocarp (inner layer). plant embryo.
In a citrus fruit, the epicarp and mesocarp make up the peel. 267. Perisperm is
262. If root of a flowering plant has 24 (a) Persistent nucellus
chromosomes, then its gamete has how many (b) Peripheral part of eedosperm
chromosomes ? (c) Remnant of endosperm
(a) 24 (b) 12 (d) Disintegrated secondary nucleus.
(c) 4 (d) 8 VMMC-2013 / AIPMT-1988,1989
JCECE-2008 AIIMS-1997 / CG PMT-2004
Ans. (a) : Perisperm is a persistent nucellus. It is also Ans. (b) :
called residual nucellus. Perisperm is surrounds and
nourishes the developing embryo within the seed, but
unlike the endosperm. Perisperm is typically diploid and
originates from the maternal tissue of the ovule. Seed
having perisperm are called perispermic seeds e.g.
mirabilis Jalapa (4'o clock plant), Nymphaea, zingiber, This is the figure of germinated pollen grains after
portulaca, canna, capparis etc. pollination. The mature pollen grain has two type of
cells- vegetative cell and generative cell. Vegetative cell
268. Select the correct order of endosperm types. is bigger and large nucleus which give rise to tube
nucleus and it helps in the pollen tube formation.
Generative cell is small with dense cytoplasm and a
nucleus which give rise to two male gamete.
270. In some organisms, karyokinesis is not followed
by cytokinesis as a result of which, multinucleate
(a) Free nuclear, cellular, helobial condition arises leading to the formation of
(b) Cellular, free nuclear, helobial syncytium. The perfect example for this is
(c) Cellular, helobial, free nuclear (a) appearance of a furrow in cell membrane
(d) Helobial, free nuclear, cellar (b) liquid endosperm in coconut
VMMC-2013 / Kerala PMT-2008 (c) sexual reproduction
Ans. (c) : Endosperm is characteristic storage tissue (d) fertilization
which supplies nutrition to the developing embryo. AFMC -2009
Development of endosperm is form primary endosperm Ans. (b) : In some organisms, karyokinesis is not
nucleus (result of triple fission). No Endosperm is followed by cytokinesis as a result of which,
formed in members of families orchidaceae, multinucleate condition arises leading to the formation
podostemaceae, and trapaceae. of syncytium. The perfect example for this is liquid
On the basis of mode of development there are three endosperm in coconut. The liquid endosperm in coconut
types of endosperm reported in angiosperm is an example of nuclear endosperm.
(i) Nuclear type 271. Cytokine (1) help in cell enlargement (2)
(ii) Cellular type counteract the influence of apical dominance
(iii) Helobial type over the lateral buds (3) help in germination of
In double fertilisation, one male gamete (n) fuses with cereal seeds (4) helps in initiation of flowering
secondary nucleus (2n) and produce primary endosperm (a) 1,2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(3n) nucleus. It gives nutrients to developing embryo. (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
Helobial endosperm is intermediate between cellular BHU PMT (Mains)-2011
and nuclear endosperm. The nucleus of the chalazal end Ans. (b) : Cytokine help in cell enlargement and
remains undivided whereas the nucleus of the counteract the influence of apical dominance are the
micropylar end divides by free nuclear divisions which lateral buds. It is growth promoting hormone and
are followed by centripetal cell membrane formation. In promotes the certical growth of plant. Gibberllin
nuclear endosperm, endosperm cells divides by free hormone help in germination of cereal seeds. Auxin
nuclear division and do not follow the cell wall hormone helps in initiation of flowering.
formation. The free nuclei remain within the cytoplasm 272. Nuclear type of endosperm is found in (1)
of the embryo sac.In cellular endosperm, endosperm Adoxa (2) Penman (3) Peperomia (4)
cells divide by mitotic division and every cell division Mangifera
is followed by cell membrane formation. The coconut (a) 1,2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
water present in coconut is most common example of (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
nuclear endosperm and the surrounding white kernel of BHU PMT (Mains)-2011
coconut is an example of cellular endosperm. Ans. (c) : Nuclear type of endosperm is found in
269. Choose the correct set of labellings in the given Penman and Mangifera. It is the most common typee of
diagram. endosperm formation. In this type of endosperm
endosperm cells divides by free nuclear division and do
not followed by the cell wall formation. Cellular type of
endosperm is found in Adoxa and Peperomia.
273. The ovary after fertilization is converted into
(a) Embryo (b) Endosperm
(c) Fruit (d) Seed
(a) x-generative cell, y-pollen tube, z-tube nucleus J&K CET-2008
(b) x-generative cell, y-tube nucleus, z-pollen tube Ans. (c) : The ovary after fertilization is converted into
(c) x-pollen tube, y-tube nucleus, z-generative cell fruits. During double fertilisaiton. One male gamete
(d) x-tube nucleus, y-generative cell, z-pollen tube fuses with egg cell and give rise to a diploid zygote
MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I which form embryo after several divisons. The second
male gamete fuses with secondary nucleus and form phenomenon is known as misogamy. In Chalazogamy,
endosperm which provide nutrition to the developing pollen tube enters the ovule through chalaza. Hilum is a
embryo. After fertilization ovules are converted into scar on mark of attachment with the seed stalk on the
seeds and fertilized ovary is called fruit. outer surface of seed.
274. In coffee seeds, perisperm is the source of 279. Aleuron layer is found in :
coffee. This perisperm is a persistent: (a) embryo (b) nuceltus
(a) funicle (b) raphae (c) endosperm (d) endodermis
(c) nucellus (d) chalaza MGIMS Wardha-2005
JIPMER-1997 Ans. (c) : Aleurone layer is found in endosperm. It is a
Ans. (c) : In coffee seeds, perisperm is the source of layer of protein. The aleurone layer is located just
coffee. This perisperm is persistent nucellus. It is also beneath the outermost layer, the bran, is primarily found
called residual nucelluls. It is a layer of nutritive tissue in the endosperm of the grain. The aleurone layer
which surrounds the embryo of seed. consists of cells that contain a rich supply of enzymes
275. Which of the following floras parts forms and proteins.
pericarp after fertilization? The cells of aleurone layer are responsible for the
(a) Nucellus (b) Outer integument synthesis and secretion of a range of hydrolytic
enzymes that break down endosperm compounds
(c) Ovary wall (d) Inner integument providing nutrients to the growing cereals embryo.
BCECE-2014 / BHU PMT (Screening)-2009
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 280. A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of
(a) redicle only (b) embryonal axis only
Ans. (c) : Ovary wall forms pericarp after fertilization.
After fertilization, ripened ovary form fruit and ovary (c) cotyledons only (d) All of the above
wall form fruit wall or pericarp. It is fleshy as in apples AMU-2010
or dry as found in corn. Ans. (d) : A typical dicotyledonus embryo consists of
276. When pollen tube enters through micropyle, the radical, embryonal axis and cotyledons. It contains
the process is called naturally two cotyledons attached to the embryonal axis.
The embryonal axis, also known as the hypocotyls, is
(a) Porogamy (b) Chalazogamy the central portion of the embryo located between the
(c) Mesogamy (d) Apogamy radical and the cotyledons, it contains the epicotyl
HP CET-2011 / BHU PMT (Screening)-2009 (which becomes the shoot or stem of the plant) and the
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 / J&K CET-2008 plumule (the embryonic shoot tip).
VMMC-2005 / Rajasthan PMT-2004 Cotyledons are the seed leaves of the embryo.
AMU-2004 / BCECE-2004 /JCECE-2004 Dicotyledonous plants have two cotyledons, which can
BVP-2003 / Haryana PMT-2003 / AIPMT-1990 vary in size and shape among different species.
Ans. (a) : When pollen tube enters through micropyle. Cotyledons play a crucial role in providing nutrients to
The process is called porogamy. When pollen tube the developing seeding until it can produce its own food
grows into the embryo sac with the help of chalaza. It is through photosynthesis.
known as chalazogamy. If the pollen tubes enters the 281. If Ca of 2-celled proembryo divides
ovule through funiculus, the process is called longitudinally and the Ca and Cb both
misogamy. contribute to the development of embryo, this
277. The residual persistent nucellus in the seed of type of embryogeny would be called as
black pepper and beet is called (a) Onagrad type (b) Asterad type
(a) Perisperm (b) Endosperm (c) Solanad type (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Pericarp (d) Scutellum AMU -2000
(e) Apomixis Ans. (b) : If Ca (apical cell) of 2-celled proembryo
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 divides longitudinally and the Ca (apical cell) and Cb
Kerala PMT-2015 / AMU-2010 (basal cell) both contribute to the development of
Ans. (a) : The residual persistent nucellus in the seed of embryo, this type of embryogeny is called as Asterad
black pepper and beet is called perisperm. It is a layer of type. Ex- Asteraceae, Violaceae. When basal cell (Cb))
nutritive tissue which surrounds the embryo of seeds. plays a minor role or none in the development of
After fertilization, ovary wall convert into fruit wall embryo, then this type of embryogeny is called ongrad
called pericarp. In double fertilization, one male gamete type, Ex- Brassicaeae etc. When the 2-celled proembryo
fuses to with secondary nucleus which form endosperm. divides transversely and the basal cell either plays a
Scutellum is the one large shielded cotybdon of a minor role or no role in its development, then this type
monocot seed. Apomixis is the process of formation of of embryogeny is called so land type. Ex- Linaceae,
plant from a seed without fertilization. Solanaceae etc.
278. In general, pollen tube enters the ovule through 282. If Ca of 2-celled proembryo divides
(a) micropyle (b) chalaza transversely the embryogeny would be
(c) hilum (d) funicle (a) Solanad and asterad type
J&K CET-2012 (b) Chenopodial and onagrad type
Ans. (a) : In general, pollen tube enters the ovule (c) Caryophyllad and onagrad type
through micropyle. This process is known as porogamy. (d) solanad and chenopoldial type
If the pollen tube enters the ovule through funiculus, the AMU -2000, 1995
Ans. (d) : If Ca (apical cell) of 2- celled proembryo divides Ans. (c) : The fertilization in which male gametes are
transversely the embryogeny would be the basal and apical carried through pollen tube is known as siphonogamy.
cell both contribute to the development of chenopodial type When pollen tube enters into ovule through micropyle
embryo. When basal cell does not go further division and the process is called progamy. When pollen tube enters
suspensor derived from apical cell then the embryogeny is into ovule through chalaza the process is called
caryophyllad type. Ex- Caryophyllaceae. When both apical chalazogamy. Synogamy is the fusion of gametes
and basal cell contribute to embryo development, then resulting in the formation of zygote.
embryogeny is asterad type. 288. What is the number of chromosomes in
Ex- Asteraceae, Balsaminaceae etc. aleurone layer if 10 number of chromosomes
283. What would be the chromosome number of are found in megaspore mother cell?
endosperm if it is developed from Oenothera (a) 5 (b) 10
type of embryo sac possessing chromosome (c) 20 (d) 15
number equal to 16 (haploid) ? VMMC-2010
(a) 32 (diploid) (b) 48 (triploid) Ans. (d) : The chromosome number of megaspore
(c) 16 (haploid) (d) None of these mother cell is 10. And we know that megaspore mother
AMU -2000 cell is diploid in nature. So, 2n = 10 and n = 5.
Ans. (a) : The chromosome number of endosperm is 32 Aleurone layer is triploid in nature so, the chromosome
(diploid) if it is developed from oenothera type of number of aleurone layer is 3n = 15
embryo sac possessing chromosome equal to 16
(haploid). In oenothera type of embryo sac, mature 289. Identify the incorrect statements regarding
embryo sac is organised in an egg apparatus with a post fertilisation development.
uninucleat central cell. The embryo sac is tetranucleat I. The ovary wall develops into pericarp.
lacking the antipodals and one of the polar nuclei. II. The outer integument of ovule develops
into tegmen.
284. By double fertilization, is formed
(a) endosperm (b) megaspore III. The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus)
develops into endosperm.
(c) seed (d) fruit
CG PMT-2007 / Rajasthan PMT-2006
IV. The ovule develops into fruits.
V. The ovary develops into seed.
Ans. (a) : In double fertilization, two steps are involved. In
(a) II, IV and V (b) I, III and IV
first step, one male gamete fuses with one egg cell and form
zygote, and in the second step, another male gamete fuses (c) I, II and V (d) I, II and III
with polar nuclei or secondary nucleus and form endosperm. VMMC-2015
The first step is known as fertilization and second step is Ans. (a) : Correct statements regarding post-fertilisation
known as triple fusion. and after fertilization, ovary convert development-
into fruit and ovule convert into seed. I- The ovary wall develops into fruit wall called
285. A hyaline bisexual and self-fertilized flower pericarp.
that does not open at all is II- The outer integument of ovule develops into testa
(a) chasmogamaus (b) apogamous and inner integument develops into tegmen.
(c) cleistogamous (d) polygamous III- The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus) develops into
Haryana PMT-2009 / CG PMT-2009 endosperm.
Ans. (c) : A hyaline bisexual and self-fertilized flower IV- The ovule develops into seeds.
that does not open at all is called cleistogamous. In such V- The ovary develops into fruit.
flowes, the anthers and stigma lie close to each other. 290. Endosperm is not completely consumed during
Ex- Arachis hypogaea. Chasmogamous flower expose embryo development in seeds of
their mature stigma and anthers to the pollinating (a) Gram (b) Pea
agents. (c) Bean (d) Castor
286. Germination of pollen grain on the stigma is Rajasthan PMT-2011
(a) in situ germination (b) in vitro germination Ans. (d) : Endosperm is not completely consumed
(c) in vivo germination (d) autogamy during embryo development in seeds of castor. When
VMMC-2015, 2005 / AMU-2004 / BVP-2003 endosperm is not completely consumed by developing
Ans. (c) : Germination of pollen grain on the stigma is embryo, then this type of seeds are known as
in-vivo germination because the processes that occur endospermous seeds or albuminous seeds. When
inside the body of a living organism are termed as ‘in endosperm is completely consumed by the developing
vivo’ i.e. in natural condition. The processes that occur embryo, then this type of seeds are known as non-
outside the body of a living organism are termed as ‘in endospermous or exalbuminous seeds.
vitro’ i.e. in artificial condition. Autogamy is a process Ex- gram, pea, bean etc.
of self-fertilization in plants. 291. The cell Ca of 2-celled proembryo divides
287. The fertilization in which male gametes are transversely, whereas the cell Cb does not
carried through pollen tube is known as: divide at all. Even if the suspensor is formed
(a) syngamy (b) porogamy that too develops from the cell Ca. The embryo
(c) siphonogamy (d) chalazogamy develops from the cell Ca or its derivative. The
Uttarakhand PMT-2008 / BHU PMT-2004 embryo development conforms to
(a) Onagrad type (b) Asterad type Ans. (d) : Development of an embryo without
(c) Caryophyllad type (d) Chenopodiad type fertilization is called as parthenogenesis.
AMU-1996 Apomixis is an asexual mode of seed formation that
Ans. (c) : If Ca (apical cell) of 2- celled proembryo produces clonal progeny with maternal genotype.
divides transversely the embryogeny would be soland Parthenocarpy is the natural or artificially induced
and chenopodial type. production of fruit formation without the fertilization of
When basal cell does not go further divison and ovules.
suspensor derived from apical cell then the embryogeny 296. Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo
is caryophyllad type. Ex- Caryophyllaceae. in the seed of:
When both apical and basal cell contribut to embryo (a) pea (b) maize
development, then embryogeny is asterad type. (c) coconut (d) castor
Ex- Asteraceae, Balsa minaceae etc. AIPMT-2008
Ans. (a) : In Pea and groundnut, endosperm is
F. Seed and Parthenocarpic fruit consumed by developing Embryo of the seed. The
endosperms is completely absorbed by the growing
292. Assertion (A) : Grasses have special mechanism embryo.
to produce seeds without fertilization
Reason (R) : Fruits can be produced without
fertilization of ovary
(a) (A) and (R) are true (R) is the correct
explanation for (A)
(b) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation for (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false Such seeds are called non-endospermic or
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true exalbuminous.
AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II 297. Mention the ploidy of parthenogenetic embryo,
Ans. (b) : Some of grass belonging to the Astraceae family parthenocarpic fruit and apomictic seeds in
and some grass species have evolved a special mechanism series
of seed formation without the fertilization of ovule by male (a) n 2n 2n (b) 2n n 2n
gamet. This type development is called aponixis. (c) n 2n n (d) 2n n n
• If an ovary develop into fruit without fertilization it is AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II
called partlino carpic fruit. Parthinocarpy is natural or Ans. (b) : The ploidy of parthenogenetic embryo,
artificial producing of fruit without fertilization of ovule. parthenocarpic fruit and apomictic seeds are 2n, n and
293. The plant seed with perisperm is 2n respectively.
(a) Beet (b) Bean 298. The plant parts which consist of two
(c) Castor (d) Wheat generations - one within the other
AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II (A) Pollen grains inside the anther
Ans. (a) : The nucellar tissue is either absorbed (B) Germinated pollen grain with two male
completely by developing embryo sac and embryo or gametes
small portion may remain as storage tissue. Perisperm is (C) Seed inside the fruit
distinct from endosperm, which is another nutritive (D) Embryo sac inside the ovule
tissues found in the seed of may angiosperm such as (a) (A), (B) and (C) (b) (C) and (D)
Black pepper, Beetroot and coffee etc. The seed have (c) (A) and (D) (d) (A) only
perisperm is called perispermic seed. NEET-2020 Phase-I
294. Testa and Tegmen of the seed coat represent Ans. (c) :
(a) Dried Sepals (b) Dried Petals • A seed is an ovule that has matured morphologically.
(c) Dried Integuments (d) Dried Tepals • Gymnosperms and angiosperm spermatophytes both
Karnataka CET-2019 exhibit seeds as a feature. But gymnosperms produce
Ans. (c) : The testa and tegmen are term used to naked seeds means seed is not enclosed within a fruit
describe different layers of the seed coat, which and angiosperm seed is enclosed within a fruit.
represents the dried integument of a seed. • The seed essentially contain an embryo or the little
The testa is the outer layer, while the tegmen is the future plant.
inner layer protect the seed and help in various • The anther contains pollen grain which help in
environmental condition. pollination. Pollination is the process by which
295. Development of an embryo without fertilization pollen from the male reproductive organs (Stamens)
is called as of flower is transferred to the female reproductive
(a) Apomixis (b) Polyembryony organs (pistils) of the same or species of flower and
(c) Parthenocarpy (d) Parthenogenesis the production of seed.
NEET-2019 / JIPMER-2019, 2012 • Pollen grains are haploid (n) and gametophytes,
BHU PMT (Screening)-2009 / Uttarakhan PMT-2009 which are present inside the anther, that is diploid
AIPMT-1989 and sporophyte (2n)
• The embryo sac is present in the ovule. sexually reproduce but might be able to propagate by
• The embryo sac is haploid (n) and gametophyte, apomixis or by vegetative means.
which is present inside the ovule, which is diploid Examples- this include many citrus variety that undergo
and sporophyte (2n). unicellular embryony.
299. Which one of the following statements 302. Coconut water from a tender coconut is :
regarding post-fertilization development in (a) Degenerated nucellus
flowering plants is incorrect? (b) Immature embryo
(a) Zygote develops into embryo (c) Free nuclear endosperm
(b) Central cell develops into endosperm (d) Innermost layers of the seed coat
(c) Ovules develop into embryo sac AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
(d) Ovary develops into fruit Ans. (c) : Coconut water is often referred to as "coconut
NEET-2019 liquid endosperm' the endosperm is a nutrient – rich
Ans. (c) : During post fertilization ovules develops into tissue inside the coconut seed, and in the case of the
seed. Embryosac is a multicellular structure developed coconut, it is largely liquid when the coconut is young.
from megaspore. Coconut seed matures the liquid endosperm gradually
After post fertilization the petals, stamen, style and solidified into white flesh or meat of the coconut. It
stigma degenerate. contains water, sugars, vitamins, minerals and
Following the post Fertilization changes. electrolytes, making it a popular natural drink in
(1) Ovule → seed tropical regions and a great source of hydration.
(2) Ovary → fruit 303. Winged pollen grains are present in
(a) Mustard (b) Cycas
(3) Zygote → Embryo
(c) Pinus (d) Mango
(4) Central cell → Endosperm.
NEET-2018
300. The hilum is a scar on the : Ans. (c) : Winged pollen grains are present in Pinus. It
(a) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to form the
(b) Fruit, where style was present wings of pollen. It is the characteristic feature, only in
(c) Seed, where micropyle was present Pinus.
(d) Seed, where funicle was attached • In Pinus, the pollination is anemophilus, the pollen
AIPMT-2015 grains suspend in the air for a long time due to wings.
Ans. (d) : The hilum is a scar on the seed, where the • Pollen grain appear as yellow dust and popularly
funicle was attached. In flowering plants, the ovule is known as sulphur shower.
found inside the portion of the flower called the • The pollen grain of mango are spheroidal.
gynoecium. The ovary of the Gynoecium produces one
or more ovules and eventually change into the fruit • In mustard they are prolate to subspheroidal
wall. Ovules are attached to the placenta through a stalk • In cycas pollen grains are top shaped.
called funicle. Ovule attaches to the funicle at the 304. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced
region called hilum. In the seed, hilum is present as a by-
scar and represents the point of attachment of the seed (a) Removing androecium of flowers before
to the fruit. pollen grains are released.
(b) Treating the plants with low concentrations of
gibberellic acid and auxins.
(c) Raising the plants from vernalized seeds.
(d) Treating the plants with phenylmercuric
acetate.
AIPMT-2006 /BCECE-2013
Ans. (b) : Development of fruits without fertilization is
called parthenocarpy and such fruits are called
parthenocarpic fruits.
• Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless.
301. Which one of the following fruits is • It can be artificially induced by the application of
parthenocarpic? plant hormones such as Auxin and Gibberellic Acid.
(a) Banana (b) Brinjal 305. Identify which of the following fruits are false
(c) Apple (d) Jackfruit fruit?
Ans. (a) : Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit therefore
seedless.
Formation of fruit without fertilization is called
parthenocarpy.
Parthenocarpy occasionally occurs as a mutation in
nature, it affects every flower, the plant can no longer
(a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 2,3,4 Mango, banana, tomato, etc. are the example of true
(c) 1,2,3 (d) 3,4 fruit.
Ans. (d) : False fruit is a fruit in which some of the
fleshy is not derived from the ovary, but from some
adjacent tissue exterior to the carpel, thalamus.
Examples – Apple, Pineapple, Strawberry, Pears.
• In an apple, the fleshy receptacle forms the main
edible part. Hence, it is a false fruit.
• In the strawberry, the flower has many separate
carpels embedded on the flower base or receptacle.
The fleshy part of the strawberry is solely made from 308. During which of the following formation free
receptacle tissue, so it is a false fruit. nuclear division occurs?
306. Which of the following is wrong about (a) Flower (b) Endosperm
labelling? (c) Gametes (d) Fruit.
AIIMS-2001
Ans. (b) : Free nuclear division specifically process
called mitotic division or nuclear division without
cytokinesis in angiosperms, free nuclear division occurs
during endosperm formation. It forms as result of fusion
of two polar nuclei in the embryo sac with one of the
sperm cell from a pollen grain this fusion from a triploid
(3n) nucleus.
(a) D – Inner integument • Hence, the endosperm is called as liquid endosperm as
(b) B – Embryo sac cell wall is not formed after mitotic division. It is seen is
(c) C – Outer integument coconut.
(d) A – Nucellus
Ans. (a) : Labelling A, B, C, D, diagram -
A ⇒ Inner integument
B ⇒ Embryo sac
C ⇒ Outer integument
D ⇒ Nucellus
Integument - It is a protective cell layer that cover the
ovule.
Gymnosperms have one integument known as
unitegmic while angiosperms known as bitegmic.
309. Micropyle of seed is involved in the passage of
Embryo sac - Embryo sac or female gametophyte is
oval structure present in the ovule of flowering plants. (a) Male gametophyte (b) Pollen tube
Nucellus- It acts as nutritive tissue for developing (c) Water (d) Gases
embryo. AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I
307. Which of the following is incorrect Ans. (c) : A micropyle is a small or narrow formed by
the bulge of the pores during which the pollen enters to
(a) Mango and coconut are drupe fruit the egg cell. In the seeds, there is a micropyle through
(b) According to Euro norm IV sulphur content which the water pierces the seeds in the germination.
for petrol is 50 ppm
310. 200 seeds are produced form how many fruits
(c) CO2 and other poisonous gases cause of maize?
pollution (a) 200 (b) 100
(d) Apple is a true fruit (c) 50 (d) 5
AIIMS-26.05.2019 Shift-II BCECE-2011
Ans. (d) : False fruits also known as pseudo fruits or Ans. (a) : 200 seeds are produced form 200 fruits of
accessory fruits are not derived from the ovary of a maize because in maize, fruit is single seeded
flower, instead, they developed from other part of the (caryopsis). So, the number of fruit is same as that of
flower e.g. thalamus in apple, peduncle in cashew-nut, seed.
fused perianth in mulberry and calyx in Dillenia. Jack 311. Seed which are able to withstand reduction in
fruit and pine apple are also false fruits as they develop moisture and temperature are called
from the entire inflorescence. False fruit are also called (a) Dormant seeds (b) Recalcitrant seeds
spurious or accessory fruits.
(c) Orthodox seeds (d) Non-viable seeds
• A true fruit develops from the ripened ovary BVP-2012
(fertilized ovary). It is also knows as an accessory fruit.
MGIMS Wardha-2007
Ans. (c) : Seeds which are able to withstand reduction Ans. (b) : When seed germinates, while the fruit is
in moisture and temperature are called orthodox seeds. attached to parent plant, it is called vivipary. This type
A dormant seed is unable to germinate in a specified of germination is seen is species of Rhizophora.
period of time under environmental factors that are Parthenocarpy is the formation of fruits without
normally suitable for germination. fertilization. Development of an embryo without
Recalcitrant seeds cannot stored in a conventional fertilization is called as parthenogenesis. Apomixis is an
freezer as they cannot survive after drying or freezing at asexual method of seed formation from ovule.
–20ºC. 317. Seed coat is derived from :
Non-viable seed fails to germinate under optimal (a) pericarp (b) epicarp
conditions. (c) integuments of ovule (d) nucellus
312. Parthenogenetic embryos in plants are those J&K CET-2006 / Rajasthan PMT-2002
which are formed by Ans. (c) : Ovule after fertilisation convert into seed and
(a) unfertilised eggs (b) fertilised eggs ovary convert into fruit. Seed coat is derived from
integument of ovule. The outer integument of ovule
(c) sporophytic cells (d) male gametophyte develops into testa, and inner integument develop into
MGIMS Wardha-2014 tegmen. Pericarp is wall of fruit and is made of outer
Ans. (a) : Parthenogenetic embryos in plants are those epicarp, middle mesocarp and inner endocarp. Nucellus
which are formed by unfertilized eggs. When a male is part of ovule that contain the embryo sac.
gamete fuses with one egg cell, it become fertilized egg 318. Parthenogenesis is a term of
and form zygote. In flowering plants, pollen grain is (a) budding (b) asexual reproduction
male gametophyte and the embryo sac is the female (c) sexual reproduction (d) regeneration
gametophyte. JIPMER-2013
313. Which of the PGR6 induces parthenocarpy in Ans. (b) : Development of an embryo directly from an
tomatoes? egg without fertilisation is known as parthenogenesis. It
(a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin is a term of asexual reproduction. Budding is a type of
(c) Cytokinin (d) Ethylene asexual reproduction, in which new organism develop
AFMC -2009 part of its parent’s body as a bud. Regeneration is
Ans. (a) : Auxin induces parthenocarpy in tomatos, process by which plants and some organisms restore
Auxin is a plant growth hormone or plant growth their lost body parts. Sexual reproduction is fusion of
regulator and it is mainly produced in the growing tips gametes from each parent.
of roots and shoots. Parthenocarpy is the formation of 319. When an ovary develops into a fruit without
fruit without fertilization. This method produces a fruit fertilization it is called
with no seeds. (a) Porogamy (b) Apospory
314. Aleurone grains are rich in : (c) Apogamy (d) Parthenocarpy
MGIMS Wardha-2011
(a) fat (b) protein
(c) carbohydrates (d) auxins Ans. (d) : When an ovary develops into a fruit without
fertilization, it is called parthenocarpy. This type of fruit
BCECE-2006 / VMMC-2005
is known as porogamy fruit. Apogamy is an asexual
AMU-2008, 2004 / AIPMT-2003 / BVP-2003
method of reproduction where the gametophyte
Ans. (b) : Aleurone layer helps in nutrition. The develops from the sporophyte. Apospory is an asexual
endosperm of monocotyledonous seed is surrounded by method of reproduction where the sporophyte develops
a special thick layer, called the aleurone layer. It is rich from the gametophyte.
in protein and formed by the outermost layer of 320. The diagram of the section of a maize grain is
endosperm. It secretes hydrolyses (amylases, proteases) given below. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C
by which the reserve food (starch and protein) is and D.
digested during seed germination.
315. In which of the following parthenocarpy makes
no sense:
(a) Banana (b) Orange
(c) Lemon (d) Pomegranate
Haryana PMT-2011 / JCECE-2005 /Manipal-2000 A B C D
Ans. (d) : In pomengranate, parthenocarpy makes no (a) Endosperm Coleoptile Scutellum Aleurone layer
sense. Parthenocarpy is the formation of fruits without
fertilization. This method produces seedless fruits.
Parthenocarpy is not beneficial in pomengranate (b) Cotyleon Coleoptile Scutellum Epithellium
because seeds are the edible parts in this fruit.
316. When seed germinates, while the fruit is (c) Endosperm Coleoptile Scutellum Epithellium
attached to parent plant, it is called:
(a) Apomixis (b) Vivipary
(c) Parthenocarpy (d) Parthenogenesis (d) Endosperm Coleorrhiza Scutellum Epithellium
Uttarakhand-2005 Manipal-2009
Ans. (a) : Ans. (b) : Zygomorphic flower is divide into 2 equal
parts by only one longitudinal plane passing through the
axis. Ex-Cassia.
• The floral parts arisen below the ovary called
hypogenous Ex- mustard.
• The floral part arisen same point of ovary called
Perigynous. Ex- plum.
Maize grain is monocotyledonous seed. It belongs to the
family poaceae. The upper big part is endosperm while • Epigynous, floral part arises above the ovary. Ex-
the lower small part is embryo. The endosperm is Cucumber.
covered by a protein layer called aleurone layer. The 325. Seed formation without fertilization in
lower small part contains a single shielded cotyledon flowering plants involves the process of
called scutellum. It differentiate into plumule and (a) Apomixis (b) Sporulation
radical. Plumule is shoot tip and covered by a protective (c) Budding (d) Somatic hybridization
sheath called coleoptiles. NEET-2016 Phase-I
321. Parachute mechanism of seed dispersal occurs Ans. (a) : Seed formation without fertilization in
in : flowering plant is termed as agamospermy which comes
(a) Cotton (b) Sunflower under apomixis. Although seeds in general are the
(c) Physalia (d) Calotropis products of fertilization, a few flowering plant such as
MHCET-2003 /DUMET-2001 Asteraceae and grasses, have evolved this special
mechanism. An apomixis is a form of asexual
Ans. (d) : Parachute mechanism of seed dispersal reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
occurs in Calotropis. Seed dispersal is transport of seed
away from the parent plant by different modes. There 326. Apomixis embryos in citrus arise from :
are five main modes of seed dispersal gravity, wind, (a) Synergids
ballistic, water and by animals. Seeds dispersed by wind (b) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
develop hairs, wings and papas for dispersal. Some (c) Antipodal cells
seeds have long, feathery tails which help them to fly, (d) Diploid egg
like the tail of a kite. Ex- Cotton & Calotropis. AIPMT (Screening)-2010
322. Edible part of paddy is Ans. (b) : Apomixis is found in citrus, in which there is
(a) Mesocarp (b) Hull the formation of extra embryos due to sporophytic
(c) Endosperm and embryo (d) Inflorescence budding.
VMMC-2010 One or more diploid sporophytic cells, either nucellus
or integuments undergo stages of embryogeny and
Ans. (c) : Edible part of paddy is endosperm and eventually develop into mature embryos.
embryo. Caryopsis is a type of fruit that is present in the
rice or paddy. Caryopsis obtained the cereals fruit from 327. Now-a-days agricultural practice is expensive
the plant. to the farmers as they need to purchase hybrid
seeds every year. Which of the following
323. Arrhenotoky is related to strategies can be employed to overcome this
(a) Parthenogenesis (b) Wax formation problem?
(c) Organogenesis (d) Both (a) and (b) (a) Production of Apomictic seeds
(e) None of the above (b) Parthenocarpy
CMC Vellore-2010 (c) Synthetic seeds
Ans. (a) :Arrhenotoky is a form of parthenogenesis in (d) Conventional plant breeding
which unfertilized eggs develop into male, while Karnataka CET-2019
fertilized eggs develop into females. This reproductive Ans. (d) : Conventional plant breeding is the
strategy is observed in some species of insects, such as development of cultivars using conservative tools for
ants and wasps. manipulating plant genome within the natural genetic
boundaries. Hence, used to overcome the problem of
G. Polyembryony and Apomixis hybrid seeds.
328. Nucellar polyembryony occurs in
324. Match the following : (a) Corchorus (b) Citrus
Type of flower Example (c) Carthamus (d) Zea mays
(A) Zygomorphic (i) Mustard AP EAMCET-2011
(B) Hypogynous (ii) Plum Ans. (b) : Nucellar polyembryony is a type of seed
(C) Perigynous (iii) Cassia formation in which nucellar cells form many more
embryos. Nucellus supply nutrition to the embryo.
(D) Epigynous (iv) Cucumber Nucellar polyembryony occurs in citrus family.
Select the correct option : 329. Amphimixis is
(a) (A)- (iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)- (ii) (a) Fusion of sperm with egg
(b) (A)- (iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)- (iv) (b) Fusion of pronucleus of sperm with of egg
(c) (A)- (i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)- (iii) (c) No fusion
(d) (A)- (i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)- (iv) (d) Fusion of diploid cells
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) UP CPMT-2006
Ans. (b) : Amphimixis is another term for sexual 333. Which of the following is NOT a type of
reproduction. Thus the fusion of pronuclei of sperm and endoscopy
ovum is known as amphimixis. (a) Colonoscopy (b) Laryngoscopy
330. Name the plant shows adventives embryonic (c) Cryoscopy (d) Bronchioscopy
cells. SRM JEEE-2018
(a) Citrus and Mango Ans. (c) : Cryoscopy is not a type of endoscopy. It is a
(b) Sunflower and Mango technique for determining the molecular weight of a
(c) Lemon and Maize substance by dissolving it and measuring the freezing
(d) Lemon and Palms point of solution.
GUJCET-2015 • Endoscopy is the insertion of a long, thin tube directly
Ans. (a): Adventives embryonic cells are specialized into the body to observes an internal organ detail.
cell found is some plant such as citrus and mango. It 334. Study the following list
have ability to form embryo and new plant individuals. List I List II
This allows the plant to reproduce asexually, producing (A) Coleorhizae 1. Development of
genetically identical offspring (clones) of the parent. sporophyte directly
Plant methods like grafting, budding or cutting can be from gametophyte
use to take advantage of these cell, the new plants without intervention of
inherit the exact genetic traits of the parent plant. These gametes
embryos do not involve meiosis and sexual fusion. (B) Apogamy 2. Development of
These embryos are also called as somatic embryos. gametophyte directly
Example– Includes citrus, mango, jamun, rose, apple. from sporophyte
Thus, the correct answer is option B. without the involvement
331. Assertion (A) : Apomictics do not show of reduction division
segregation of characters in their progeny and (C) Indusium 3. An unbranched
therefore have huge potential in hybrid seed columnar stem with a
industry. crown of leaves
Reason (R) : Apomictic seeds are produced (D) Caudex 4. Protective covering of
without fertilization. radicle
The correct option among the following is: 5. Protective structure of a
(a) (A) is true. (R) is true and (R) is the correct sorus
explanation of (A) The correct match is
(b) (A) is true. (R) is true and (R) is not the A B C D
correct explanation of (A) (a) 5 2 4 1
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false (b) 4 1 5 3
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true ( c) 3 5 2 4
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II (d) 2 3 1 5
Ans. (a) : Apomictics do not show segregation of AP EAMCET-2009
characters in their progeny and therefore have huge Ans. (b) :
potential in hybrid seed industry. These seeds are A. Coleorhiza – Protective covering of radicle
produced without fertilization and meiosis. B. Apogamy – Development of sporophyte
Apodictically produced offspring are genetically directly from gametophyte
identical to the parent plant. without intervention of gametes.
332. Assertion (A) : Polyembryony is observed in C. Indusium – Protective structure of a sorus
plants like Mango. D. Caudex – An unbranched columnar stem
Reason (R) : Nucellar cells develop into the with a crown of leaves.
embryos. 335. Lichen are well known combination of an alga
Which of the following is true? and a fungus where fungus has :-
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (a) An epiphytic relationship with the alga
correct explanation of (A) (b) A parasitic relationship with the alga
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the (c) A symbiotic relationship with the alga
correct explanation of (A) (d) A saprophytic relationship with the alga
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false AIPMT-2004, 1989
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true Ans. (c) : Lichens are the Symbiotic mutual relationship
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II that consist of two unrelated components, an algae and a
Ans. (a) : Mango cultivars manila and Alphonso show fungus.
polymbryony in more that 80% of their seeds, and the This is because both the organisms are benefited from
possibility of obtaining nucellar plants from them is the presence of each other. Algae is photosynthetic
high. organisms and fungus is saprophytic.
Seed weight with the endocarp is an indicator of the Algae, recessive partner is known as phycobiont and the
number of embryos per seed. fungus, dominant partner is known as the mycobiont.
The fungus depends on the algae for food in return they Ans. (b) : When a fern is developed from its
provide shelter to the algae. gametophytes without fertilization this phenomenon is
known as apogemy.
340. Match column I with column II and select the
correct option from the given codes.
Column I Column II.
A. Parthenocarpy (i) Seed formation without
fertilization
B. Polyembryony (ii) More than one embryo in
336. In a type of apomixis known as adventive same seed
embryony, embryos develop directly from the –
(a) Synergids or antipodals in an embryo sac C. Apomixis (iii) Seedless fruits without
fertilization
(b) Nucellus or integuments
(c) Zygote D.Somatic (iv) Embryo develops from a
embryogenesis somatic cells
(d) Accessory embryo sacs in the ovule
JIPMER-2007 /AIPMT-2005 (a) A–(iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i)
Ans. (b) : Adventive embryo is an asexual reproduction (b) A–(iii), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iv)
that forms seed without fertilization and produced a (c) A–(i), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (ii)
maternal clone in plants. The embryo does not develop (d) A–(ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (iv)
from the reproductive cells or the gametes. AIIMS-2016
• In Adventive embryo, the embryo is produced from Ans. (b) Parthenocarpy– Formation of fruit without
the diploid nucleus or integuments of the ovule. fertilization of ovule which makes seedless fruit.
• Nucleus divide and grows into the embryo sac to Example- Banana, Pineapple, Grapes
produce numerous diploid embryos. Polyembryony–Formation of more than one embryo
337. Viruses are no more "alive" than isolated from a single fertilization ovum or single seed.
chromosomes because: - Example- Opuntia
(a) They require both RNA and DNA Apomixis– Apomixis is asexual reproduction without
(b) They both need food molecules fetilization. It is not involved in meiosis.
(c) They both require oxygen for respiration Somatic Embryogenesis– It is a artificial process, in
this process collect the tissue from any part of plant, it
(d) Both require the environment of a cell to developed embryo, which is called somatic
replicate embryogenesis.
AIPMT-2003
341. Which of the following process is helpful in
Ans. (d): It is difficult, viruses as live or non-living hybrid seed production:
species. These viruses are inactive when outside host (a) Embryo rescue
cells, but are active in host cells. Virus can replicate (b) Apomixis
inside a host as in any other living organism. They do
not have cellular machinery to replicate, so they are (c) Polyembryony
catching a living cell. (d) Somatic hybridisation
338. Apomixis is BHU PMT (Mains)-2009
(a) Formation of seeds by fusion of gametes
Ans. (b) : Apomixis in flowering plant is defined as the
(b) Formation of seeds without syngamy and formation of a seed from the maternal tissue of the
meiosis ovule, avoiding the process of meiosis and fertilization,
(c) Formation of seeds with syngamy but no leading to embryo development.
meiosis • Apomixis prevents the loss of specific characters in
(d) None of the above the hybrid. Also, it is a cost effective method for
AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-II / AIIMS-2007 producing seeds.
Ans. (b) : Apomixis is kind of sexual reproduction in 342. Which one is true ?
which egg or other cells associated with egg (synergids, (a) Commensalism when none of the interacting
antipodals etc.) and develop into embryo without population affect each other.
fertilization or syngamy and meiosis. (b) symbiosis when the interaction is useful to
• Fragmentation is a vegetative means of reproduction both the populations.
in lower plants and type of asexual reproduction. (c) symbiosis when neither population affect
• Self-fertilization is the case in which fusion occurs each other.
between male and female gametes from same (d) Commensalism when the interaction is useful
individual. to both the populations
AIPMT-1991
339. Prothallus (gametophyte) gives rise to fern
plant (sporophyte) without fertilization. It is Ans. (b) : Symbiosis is mutually beneficial relationship
(a) Apospory (b) Apogamy between two different organisms that lives with a close
(c) Parthenocarpy (d) Parthenogenesis physical association. It advantages both the organism as
CG PMT-2007 / JIPMER-1998 / AIPMT-1988 a mutually beneficial
343. The formation of gametophyte, from and second polar body degenerate. The male and female
sporophyte, without spore formation or pronuclei move close to each other for fusion. The
without meiosis is known as: nuclear membrane of the pronuclei are broken down
(a) apospory (b) apogamy and their contents mix up into one mass. Fusion of
(c) parthenogenesis (d) none of these sperms with egg is known as fertilization which is a part
of sexual reproduction.
VMMC-2014 / WB JEE-2006 / AIPMT-1988
Ans. (a) : The formation of gametophyte, from 348. Absence of sexual union and failure of meiosis
sporophyte without spore formation or without meiosis is known as:
is known as apospory. Apogamy is the formation of (a) anisospory (b) apomixis
sporophyte from the gametophyte without the formation (c) amphimixis (d) anisogamety
of the gametes. Parthenogenesis is a process of VMMC-2006
formation of embryo from an unfertilized egg without Ans. (b) : Absence of sexual union and failure of
gamete formation. meiosis is known as apomixis. It is a type of asexual
344. Embryo development from nucellus and reproduction. In this method, fertilization of egg takes
place without fusion of gametes. Amphimixis is the
integument is known as
fusion of pronucleus of sperm and egg. It is a type of
(a) Apospory (b) Apogamy
sexual reproduction. Anisogamy is a type of sexual
(c) Apomixis (d) Adventive reproduction in which both male and female gametes
embryony are of different shape and sizes. Anisospory is
Manipal-2012 / Uttarakhand-2005 commonally seen in bryophytes.
Ans. (d) : Embryo development from nucellus and 349. Cleavage polyembryony occurs in
integument is known as adventives embryony. It is a (a) Pinus (b) Mini Cycas
type of apomixis. In this method nucellus divides and (c) Cycas (d) Ephedra
grows into the embryo sac to produce numerous diploid VMMC-2012 / BCECE-2010 / JIPMER-2009
embryos. Apospory is the formation of gametophyte UP CPMT-2008, 2001 / MGIMS Wardha-2008
from sporophyte without spore formation or without BHU PMT(Screening)-2006 / Rajasthan PMT-2008
meiosis. Apogamy is the formation of sporophyte from CG PMT-2008
gametophyte without gamete formation. Apogamy Ans. (a) : The process by which more than one embryo
results into the formation of seeds without fertilization. is developed from a single fertilized egg is called
345. Apogamy is : polyembryony. The cleavage polyembryony commonly
(a) reproduction of virus accurs in the gymnosperms.
(b) failure of fusion of gametes This is possible because more than one archegonia are
(c) development of bacteria fertilized and more than one zygotes are formed. In case of
(d) loss of function of reproduction the coniferous plants, all the four cells of the young embryo
AMU-2005 / Manipal-2004 develop into four embryos. The three wither off and the one
completely develops into a new plant. e.g- Pinus.
Ans. (b) : Apogamy is the formation of sporophyte
from gametophyte without gamete formation. 350. Study the following table:
Sporophyte usually have the same chromosome number List-I List – II
as the gametophyte i.e. haploid. It is common A. Development of 1. Embryo culture
phenomenon in ferns. Ex- Dryopteris, pteris etc. haploid plants
346. Parthenogamy represents the : B. Induction of 2. Anther culture
(a) union of two vegetative nuclei polyembryony
(b) union of two parent hyphae C. Production of 3. Ovary culture
(c) union of two gametes of one sex parthenocarpic
fruits
(d) union of three gametes
D. Method of 4. Ovule culture
breaking prolonged
Ans. (c) : Parthenogamy represents the union of two dormancy of seeds
gametes of one sex. 5. Endosperm
347. The fusion of male and female pronuclear of culture
the gametes is called The correct match is.
(a) Fertilization (b) Conjugation A B C D
(c) Amphimixis (d) Panmixis (a) 2 4 3 1
J&K CET-2009 (b) 2 3 4 1
Ans. (c) : Amphimixis is the fusion of pronuclei of (c) 4 1 3 2
sperm and ovum. It is also known as karyogamy. When (d) 1 4 3 2
mature ovum and sperm meet for fusion, then sperm tail AP EAMCET-2004
Ans. (a) : Ans. (a) : Polyploidy can be produced artificially by
List-I List – II colchicines. Polyploidy is a condition of possessing
more than two complete sets of chromosomes.
A. Development of haploid Anther culture
plants Colchicine presents the microtubule formation during
cell division. Thus the chromosome do not segregate
B. Induction of polyembryony Ovule culture during anaphase. As a result, it induces multiple sets of
C. Production of Ovary culture chromosome. It is an alkaloid obtained from,
parthenocarpic fruits Colchicum autumnale.
D. Method of breaking Embryo culture 355. The number of capsomeres in the Tobacco
prolonged dormancy of mosaic virus capsid is
seeds (a) 3210 (b) 1230
351. Population whose members reproduce sexually (c) 2130 (d) 2031
are termed as: Tripura JEE-2021
(a) panimictic (b) ecotype Ans. (c) : The number of capsomeres in the tobacco
(c) apomictic (d) amphimictic mosaic virus capsid is 2130. Capsid is virus protein coat
Haryana PMT-2002 which is made up of capsomeres subunits. Tobacco
Ans. (c) Population whose members reproduce sexually mosaic virus (TMV) is a type of single stranded RNA
are termed as apomictic. Apomictic means reproduction virus. It has an impact on a wide variety of plants.
in which plant can produce seeds without fertilization 356. Nucleic acid is absent in
resulting in offspring that are genetically indentical to (a) Virus (b) Viroid
the parent plant. (c) Prion (d) Mycoplasma
352. Assertion: In apomixis, plants of new genetic Rajasthan PMT-2011
material are produced. Ans. (c) : Nucleic acid is absent in prion. Prion is a
Reason: In apomixis, individual of the same obligate parasite and is made up of only protein. It
genetic constitution meet. causes disease like scrapie in sheep, mad cow disease
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct etc. Viroids were discovered by T.O. Diener in 1971 as
explanation of A. an infectious agent and is smaller than a virus. It cause
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the potato spindle tuber disease. It consist of nucleic acid
correct explanation of A. but devoid of protein coat. Virus contains DNA or RNA
(c) If A is true but R is false. as genetic material and a protein coat.
(d) If both A and R are false. 357. Apomixis is the production of a new plant
JCECE-2018 through
AIIMS-1997 (a) Vegetative propagation
Ans. (d) : The apomixis give rise to an embryo from (b) Apogamy
diploid cell of the ovule without fertilization. Apomixis (c) Diplospory
is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual (d) All of these
reproduction. In this method, embryo is produced AMU-1996
without fertilisaiton, and the offsprings produced are Ans. (d) : Apomixis is the production of new plant
identical to the parent plants. So, the assertion is through vegetative propagation, apogany and
incorrect. In apomixis, embryos are formed from the diplospory. It is a type of asexual reproduction that
gametophytic or sporophytic cells without syngamy. So, mimic sexual reproduction. In this method embryo is
the reason is also incorrect. produced without fertilization. Diplospory is formation
353. Nucellar polyembryony is seen in the species of of unreduced embryo sac directly from the megaspore
(a) Brassica (b) Citrus mother cell.
(c) Gossypium (d) Triticum 358. Formation of diploid embryosac from diploid
JCECE-2018 / Rajasthan PMT-2009/ UPCPMT-2009 vegetative structure, eg, nucellus or integument
Ans. (b) : Nucellar polyembryony is seen in the species etc., without meiosis is called
of citrus. Polyembryony is a process of formation of (a) Apospory
two or more embryo from a single fertilized egg. (b) Apomixis
Gossypiun is a genus of herbs or shrubs of family (c) Diplospory
malvaceae. Brassica is genus of plant family of (d) Adventive polyembryony
cruciferous vegetables. Triticum is a tetraploid species BCECE-2007
of wheat. Ans. (a) : When vegetative cells of sporophyte form an
354. Polyploidy can be produced artificially by embryo without fertilization, it is called apospore.
(a) colchicine (b) inbreeding Adventive polyembryony involve multiple embryos
(c) line breeding (d) self pollination forming from various part of fertilized ovule, such as
DUMET-2009 the nucellus or integument but the meiosis take place.
08. HUMAN REPRODUCTION
4. Find out the correct transportation of sperm
A. The Male Reproductive System cells in male reproductive system
(a) Seminiferous tubules – Rete testes - Vasa
1. The following are the components of male
efferentia - Epididymis - Vas deferens -
reproductive system of main in the order
Ejaculatroy duct - Urethra
I. Retetestis II. Ejaculatory duct
(b) Seminiferous tubules - Rete testes -
III. Vasa efferentia IV. Seminiferous Epididymis - Vas deferens - Urethra-
tubules Ejaculatory duct
V. Vas deferens IV. Urethra (c) Seminiferous tubules - Vas deferens - Rete
VII. Epididymis testes - Urethra - Ejaculatroy duct
(a) IV→ I→III→VII→V→II→VI (d) Testes - Seminiferous tubules - Ejaculatory
(b) I→IV→V→III→II→VI→VII duct - Rete testes - vas deferens - vasa
(c) VI→II→V→VII→III→I→IV efferentia - Urethra
(d) IV→I→V→VII→III→II→VI Ans. (a) : Seminiferous tubules – Rete testes - Vasa
TS EAMCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II efferentia - Epididymis - Vas deferens - Ejaculatroy
Ans. (a) : duct - Urethra.
• Seminniferuous 5. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from:
• Retetestis (a) Testicular lobules to rete testis
• Vasa efferentia (b) Rete testis to vas deferens
• Epididypis (c) Vas deferens to epididymis
(d) Epididymis to urethra
• Vas diferens
• Ejaculatory duct
• Urethra Ans. (b) : Sperms are produced in seminiferous tubules,
which are connected to rete testis then to vasa
It is male reproductive system of man in sequential
efferentia. They are stored temporarily for maturation
order.
and then transferred to vas deferens.
2. The male sex accessory ducts include,
6. Sertoli cells are found in :
(a) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and
(a) Ovaries and secrete progesterone
vas deferens
(b) Adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
(b) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and
seminal vesicle (c) Seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to
(c) Rete testis, urethra, epididymis and vas (d) Pancreas and secretes cholecytokinin
deferens AIPMT (Screening)-2010
(d) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, seminal vesicle Ans. (c) : The specialized sertoli cells are found in
and vas deferens between the germinal epithelium of seminiferous
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 tubules in male. These provide nutrition to the
Ans. (a) : Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and developing sperms.
vas deferens.
3. Which of the following depicts the correct
pathway of transport of sperms
(a) Rete testis – Vasa efferentia – Epididymis –
Vas deferens
(b) Rete testis – Epididymis – Vasa efferentia –
Vas deferens
(c) Vasa efferentia – Rete testis – Vas deferens-
Epididymis
(d) Epididymis – Vasa efferentia – Rete testis –
Vas deferens
Ans. (a) : Rete testis – Vasa efferentia – Epididymis –
Vas deferens.
Human Reproduction 365 YCT
7. Secretions from which one of the following are It produce a fluid rich in fructose, prostaglandins and
rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes other substances to nourish and activate sperm.
(a) Salivary glands The prostate gland is a walnut sized gland located just
(b) Male accessory glands below the bladder in males.
(c) Liver The bulbourethral glands are a pair of small pea sized
(d) Pancreas glands located below the prostate gland in male.
AIPMT (Mains)-2010
Ans. (b) : The male accessory glands include paired
seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired bulbourethral
glands.
• Secretions of these glands constitute the seminal
plasma which is rich in fructose, calcium and certain
enzymes. The secretions of bulbourethral glands also
helps in the lubrication of the penis.
9. Movement of sperm is done by:

(a) tail (b) head
Salivary glands make saliva, which aids in digestion,
keeps your mouth moist and supports healthy teeth. (c) acrosome (d) mitochondria
Salivary glands are three pairs – parotid glands, Sub– Haryana PMT-1999
lingual, sub–mandibular. Ans. (a) : The movement of sperm is done by its tail.
Liver :- Liver is the largest gland in the human body. The sperm tail is long whip-like structure that propels
(vertebrates) which play a vital role like synthesis of the sperm through the female reproductive tract towards
protein, detoxification, and production of bile etc. the egg. The tail contains mitochondria, which produce
Pancreas – Pancreas is an abdominal organ. The the energy needed for movement.
pancreas secretes digestive enzymes such as amylase,
proteases, lipase into the duodenum.
8. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch for a
portion of human male reproductive system.
Select the correct set of the names of the parts
labelled A, B, C, D.
10. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in :

A B C D (a) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor
(a) Ureter Seminal Prostate Bulboureth calcium
vesicle ral gland (b) Fructose and calcium but has no enzyme
(b) Ureter Prostate Seminal Bulboureth (c) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
vesicle ral gland (d) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no
(c) Vas Seminal Prostate Bulboureth calcium
deferens vesicle ral gland AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-I
AIPMT-2009
(d) Vas Seminal Bulbour Prostate
deferens vesicle ethral Ans. (c) : Seminal plasma is the fluid component of
semen, the fluid that carries sperm. It contains fructose,
AIPMT-2009 calcium, proteins and certain enzymes that provides
Ans. (c) : The vas deferens, also known as the ductus nourishment, protection and mobility to the sperm.
deferens is a muscular tube that carries sperm from the 11. The nourishing cells in the Seminiferous
epididymis to the ejaculatory duct. tubules are
The seminal vesicles are paired, glandular structures (a) Leydig cells (b) Spermatogonial cells
located near the base of the bladder in the male (c) Follicular cells (d) Sertoli cells
reproductive system. Karnataka CET-2019
Ans. (d) : Sertoli cells are specialized cells found in the Leydig cell- Leydig cell also know as interstitial cell
seminiferous tubules of the testes. They play a crucial of Leydig are found adjacent to the seminiferous
role in supporting and nourishing developing sperm tubules in the testicle. They produce testosterone in
cells during spermatogenesis. the presence of LH. It is also show secondary sexual
12. Which accessory genital gland occurs only in characters.
mammalian male? Prepuce- The skin on the head of penis is called the
(a) Cowper's gland (b) Bartholian gland foreskin. Another name of foreskin is Prepuce
(c) Prostate gland (d) Perineal gland Set-I Set-II
Karnataka CET-2007 (a) Inguinal canal 3. Far descending of testis
MHT CET-2004 (b) Rete testis 1. Network of seminiferous
Ans. (c) : Prostate gland is the accessory genital gland tubules
that occurs only in the male mammals, which surrounds (c) Leydig cells 2. Secondary sexual
the proximal portion of urethra. characters
Bartholian gland→ The bartholin’s gland are located (d) Prepuce 5. Terminal skin of Penis
on each side of the vaginal opening they secrete fluid (E) Corpora 4. Dorsal bundles of muscles
that help to lubricate the vagina. cavernosa
Cowper’s gland→These are pea size gland present
14. The Leydig cells as found in the human body
inferior to the prostate gland in the male reproductive
are the secretory source of:
system.
(a) Glucagon (b) Androgens
Perineal gland→ Perineal gland present a round anus
in male rabbit (non primate) & also around veginal tract (c) Progesterone (d) Intestinal mucus
of female rabbit. They produce specific smell. AIPMT (Screening)-2012
Ans. (b) :
'Accessory gland in male'

13. Match the following :
The cells of Leydig or interstitial cells are the cells
Set-I Set-II interspersed between the seminiferous tubules of the testis.
(A) Inguinal canal 1. Network of • They secrete androgens in response to stimulation by
seminiferous luteinizing hormone from the anterior pituitary gland.
tubules • Sertoli cells are the somatic cells in the testis that are
(B) Rete testis 2. Secondary essential for testis formation and spermatogenesis.
sexual • They facilitate the progress of germ cells to
characters spermatozoa direct contact and by controlling the
(C) Leydig cells 3. Far descending environment within the seminiferous tubules.
of testis
15. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the
(D) Prepuce 4. Dorsal bundles human reproductive system get blocked, the
of muscles gametes will not be transported from :
(E) Corpora 5. Terminal skin of (a) Vagina to uterus
cavernosa Penis (b) Testes to epididymis
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-5, E-4 (c) Epididymis to vas deferens
(b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2, E-5 (d) Ovary to uterus
(c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-5, E-4 AIPMT (Screening)-2011
(d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-5, E-1 Ans. (b) : Seminiferous tubules present in the testes, are
AP EAMCET-2007 connected to the epididymis through rete testis and
Ans. (c) Inguinal canal-The Inguinal canal is a passage vasa efferentia.
in the lower abdomen, located just above the inguinal • Therefore if vasa efferentia is blocked sperm can not
ligament. It function as a passageway for structures be transported from testes to epididymis.
between the intra-and extra abdominal structures, this 16. Which one forms axial filament of the human
canal found in descending part of testis. sperm?
Rete testis- Rete testis is network of delicate tubules (a) Mitochondria (b) Proximal centriole
located in the hilum of the testicle that carries sperm (c) Distal centriole (d) Golgi body
from the seminiferous tubules to the efferent duct.
GUJCET-2018
Ans. (c): The male gamete or sperm has 4 parts head, 19. In spermatogenesis, reduction division of
neck, body and tail. The head contains the nucleus and chromosome occurs during conversion of
acrosome. The neck contains centrioles i.e. distal (a) Spermatogonia to primary spermatocytes
centriole and proximal centriole. The function of the (b) Primary spermatocytes to secondary
distal centriole is to form the axial filament. The spermatocytes
centrioles help in cell division after fertilization. (c) Secondary spermatocytes to spermatids
Mitochondria provides energy for movement of the (d) Spermatids to sperms
sperm.
WB JEE-2012
(a) Mitochondria– Mitochondria are membrane, bound
cell organelles that generate most of the chemical Ans. (b) : In spermatogenesis, reduction division of
energy needed to power the cells biochemical reaction. chromosome occurs during conversion of primary
(b) Proximal Centriole– The proximal centriole serves spermatocytes to secondary spermatocytes. Spermatids
as microtubule organizing center (MTOC) after differentiate into sperm where only morphological
fertilization and will accumulate centrosomal changes take place and no cell division occurs during
components from the oocyte to form the sperm aster, differentiation of spermatids into sperms.
zygote aster and mitotic apparatus after fertilization.
(d) Golgi body– Golgi body is membrane bound
organelle. The main function of Golgi apparatus is to
carry out the processing of protein generated in
endoplasmic reticulum.
17. Study the following
(A) Testosterone influences the male secondary
sexual characters.
(B) Gestation period in rabbit is approximately
276 days.
(C) Bulbourethral glands secrete a vaginal
lubricant.
(D) Placenta secretes estrogen.
(a) A and D (b) B and D
(c) C and D (d) B and C 20. In man, the sperms are stored and nourished in
AP EAMCET-2008 (a) testes (b) vasa efferentia
Ans. (a) : Testosterone is a steroid hormone causes (c) epididymis (d) spermatic cord
development of secondary sexual characters in male. BVP-2010
Before ovulation estrogens are secreted from Graafian
Ans. (c) : In males, the sperms are stored and nourished
follicle. Placenta also secretes some amount of estrogen.
in epididymis.
18. Match the following and chose the correct
combination?
List I List II
i) Inguinal canal A) Terminal skin of
Penis
ii) Prepuce B) cells encircling
Oocyte
iii) Leydig cells C) Connect abdominal
cavity and cavity of
scrotal sac
iv) Discus D) Testosterone
proligerus production
E) Activating the sperms The epididymis is an essential component of the male
(a) (i–C), (ii–A), (iii–D), (iv–B) reproductive tract. It is a site of sperm storage and
(b) (i–A), (ii–C), (iii–B), (iv–D) maturation until the time of their discharge to the ductus
(c) (i–B), (ii–A), (iii–C), (iv–E) deferens (vas deferens).
(d) (i–C), (ii–E), (iii–D), (iv–B) 21. Few scientist state vas deferens as seminal
AP EAMCET-06.09.2021 Shift-I vesicle and seminal vesicle as vas deferens,
Ans. (a) : (i) Inguinal canal-c) Connect abdominal because;
cavity and cavity of scrotal sac. (a) Sperms are not stored in seminal vesicle
(ii) Prepuce - a) Terminal skin of penis (b) Their structure is similar
(c) Their function is same
(iii) Leydig cells - d) Testosterone production.
(d) Sperms mature in vas deferens
(iv) Discus proligerus - b) cells encircling oocyte.
Rajasthan PMT-1996
Ans. (d) : Few scientist state vas deferens as seminal Ans. (a) : Caput epididymis is a narrow tubule present
vesicle and seminal vesicle as vas deferens, because on the inner side of testis. It is present in between Vasa
sperms mature in vas deferens. efferentia and carpus epididymis.
The caput epididymis is connected to the corpus
epididymis, which is the middle part of the epididymis
where sperm begin to gain motility.
25. Antifertilizin is present on :
(a) Egg (b) Tail
(c) Ovum (d) Spermatozoa
AMU-2005 / Manipal-2004
Ans. (d) : Antifertilizin is present on spermatozoa.
It is an acidic protein secreted by the plasma membrane
of the sperm. It is an immunologically specific
The seminal vesicles are gland located near the male substance produced by animal sperm to implement
reproductive organs that produce seminal fluid, which is attraction by the egg before fertilization. Antifertilizin is
a component of semen. This fluid provides nourishment present on surface of spermatozoa.
and energy to sperm, aiding their movement and 26. The testis are situated outside the abdominal
viability. cavity in scortum as it helps to
22. Sertoli cells help in (a) Maintain the low temperature
(a) maturation of eggs (b) maturation of sperms (b) Store sperm
(c) enzyme production (d) ovulation (c) Regulates hormone secretion
DUMET-2005 / UP CPMT-2003 (d) Release sperm
Karnataka CET-2022
Ans. (b) : Sertoli cells help in maturation of sperms.
Sertoli cells facilitate the progression of germ cells to Ans. (a) : The testis is situated outside the abdominal
cavity in scrotum as it helps to maintain the low
spermatozoa via direct contact and by controlling the
temperature. This is because sperm development is
environment milieu within the seminiferous tubules. optimised at this lower scrotal temperature and affected
23. Match the following and select correct option negatively at normal body temperature.
Column I Column II
A Accessory duct 1 Seminal vesicles
Accessory 2 Vas deferens
B glands 3 Uterus
C Spermatids 4 23 Chromosomes
D Primary 5 46 Chromosomes
Spermatocytes
(a) A-4,3 B-5 C-2 D-1
(b) A-4,5 B-2 C-1 D-3
(c) A-2,1 B-3 C-5 D-4 27. Stereocilia occur in
(d) A-2,3 B-1 C-4 D-5 (a) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium of
VMMC-2013 / BVP-2015 trachea
(b) Columnar epithelium of stomach
Ans. (d) :
(c) Stratified columnar epithelium of pharynx
Column I Column II (d) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium of
epididymis
Accessory duct Vas deferens,Uterus AMU-2010
Ans. (d) : Stereocilia occur in pseudostratified
Accessory glands Seminal vesicles columnar epithelium of epididymis.
Stereocilia in the epididymis aid in the absorption of
Spermatids 23 Chromosomes excess fluid and nutrients, contributing to the
maturation and storage of sperm, they are not typically
Primary spermatocytes 46 Chromosomes present in the other mentioned epithelial tissues like the
trachea, stomach, or pharynx, which have different
24. Caput epididymis is a narrow tubule present functional roles an cellular structures.
on the inner side of testis. It is present in 28. Sertoli cells are found :
between (a) Between the seminiferous tubules
(a) Vasa efferentia and corpus epididymis (b) In the germinal epithelium of ovary
(b) Rete testis and vasa efferentia (c) In the upper part of the fallopian tube
(c) Vasa efferentia and rete testis (d) In the germinal epithelium of the
(d) Cauda epididymis and vas deferens seminiferous tubules
VMMC-2013 Rajasthan PMT-2011 / Karnataka CET-2003
Ans. (d) : Sertoli cells are present epithelium which is Ans. (b) : AI Donor method of assisted conception can
the wall of highly coiled seminiferous tubules along be suggested to couple If the male sterility is due to
with male germ cells of testes in male gonads. They azoospermia.
were first observed in 1865 by a young Italian physician Nowadays artificial insemination with homologous
Enrico Sertoli and named after him. semen is most commonly used for unexplained and mild
29. The correct sequence of male reproductive male factor subfertility. In the previous century donor
insemination was mainly used for male infertility due to
structures of rabbit through which sperms pass
azoospermia or very low sperm count and for inherited
out is: genetic diseases linked to the Y-chromosome.
1. Rete testes 2. Vasa efferentia
33. Which one of the following statements best
3. Epididymis 4. Vasa deferentia characterise the testis?
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1 (a) The seminiferous epithelium contains only
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 1, 3, 2, 4 proliferative cells
AP EAMCET-2004 (b) Functional compartmentalisation of the
Ans. (a) : The correct sequence of male reproductive seminiferous epithelium depends on tight
structures of rabbit through which sperms pass out is:- junctions
Rete testes, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vasa (c) The interstitial tissue contains few capillaries
deferentia. (d) The seminiferous epithelium contains
30. Which of the following is found inside graafian numerous capillaries
follicle? JIPMER-2013
(a) Cortex (b) Medulla Ans. (b) : The statement that best characterizes the
(c) Corpus luteum (d) Membrane follicle testis is "Functional compartmentalization of the
seminiferous epithelium depends on tight junctions".
Manipal-2011 Tight junctions between sertoli cells in the seminiferous
Ans. (d) : Membrane follicle is found inside Graafian epithelium create distinct compartments that are crucial
follicle. The tertiary follicle further changes in to for spermatogenesis, allowing different stages of sperm
mature follicle or Graafian follicle. development to occur in separate microenvironments.
Cerebral cortex, also called gray matter, is brain's 34. Orchidectomy is the removal of
outermost layer of nerve cell tissue. It has a wrinkled (a) Testes (b) Spleen
appearance from its many folds and grooves. (c) Ovaries (d) Liver
The medulla oblongata is the connection between the CG PMT-2011
brainstem and the spinal cord, carrying multiple Ans. (a) : Orchidectomy is the removal of testes.
important functional centers. It involves the surgical removal of the testes. It may be
The corpus luteum is a vital yet temporary organ that a radical or straight forward procedure. Simple
plays a crucial role in fertility during the luteal phase. orchidectomy is approached through the scrotum and
31. Which of the following is correct about historically has been a significant means of hormonal
mammalian testes? manipulation in the management of patients with locally
(a) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells advanced prostate cancer.
(b) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, seminiferous 35. Capacitation of sperm in mammals involves
tubules (a) Sperm size change
(c) Sertoli cells, seminiferous tubules, Leydig (b) Acrosome reaction
cells (c) Nuclear chromatin change
(d) Graafian follicle, Leydig cells, seminiferous (d) Mitochondrial alignment
tubules CG PMT-2010
J&K CET-2006 Ans. (b) : Capacitation of sperm in mammals involves
Ans. (c) : Sertoli cells, seminiferous tubules, Leydig acrosome reaction. The acrosome reaction that occurs after
cells is correct about mammalian testes. sperm capacitation, is an exocytotic event induced by a
Graafian follicle is found in the female reproductive Ca++ influx. It plays an essential role during fertilization,
by making spermatozoa able of penetrating the zona and
organ or ovary.
capable of fusing with the egg plasma membrane.
Sertoli cells are found in the male reproductive organ or
testis. It acts as a nurse cell. 36. The bulbourethral gland of the male
reproductive system is also called
Seminiferous tubules are found in the male reproductive (a) Lacrimal gland (b) Prostate gland
organ or testis. These are coiled tubes.
(c) Cowper's gland (d) Pineal gland
Leydig Cells are also found in testes. They are also
Tripura JEE-2022
called interstitial cells.
Ans. (c) : The cowper's gland, also known as the
32. If the male sterility is due to azoospermia bulbourethral gland, is a pair of small exocrine glands
which method of assisted conception can be found in the male reproductive system. These glands are
suggested to couple? located beneath the prostate gland and are responsible
(a) IVF & ET (b) AI Donor for producing a clear, alkaline fluid that helps to
(c) AI Homologous (d) GIFT lubricate and neutralize any acidic residue in the urethra
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-II before ejaculation.
37. Testes descend into scrotum in mammals for: Ans. (a) : Fructose is contributed to the semen by
(a) Development of visceral organs 'seminal vesicles'. Fructose is secreted from the seminal
(b) Spermatogenesis vesicles and the accessory sex glands. It is the major
(c) Development of sex organs carbohydrate source in seminal plasma and essential for
(d) Fertilization normal sperm motility. The fluid from the seminal
AFMC-2001 vesicles is viscous and contains fructose, which
Ans. (b) : Testes descend into scrotum in mammals for provides an energy source for the sperm. Fructose in
spermatogenesis. The lower temperature in the scrotum semen is the source of energy for all sperm activities.
compared to the abdominal cavity is essential for 41. Spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa
optimal cavity is essential for optimal sperm by
development. This migration ensures that sperm can be (a) Spermatogenesis (b) Spermiogenesis
produced and stored in a suitable environment, (c) Meiosis (d) Spermiation
promoting reproductive efficiency. It is not primarily UP CPMT-2013
for the development of visceral organs or sex organs.
Manipal-2004
38. Sertoli cells are involved in
Ans. (b) : Spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa
(a) Excretion (b) Nutrition of sperms by spermiogenesis', spermiogenesis or spermateliosis is
(c) Respiration (d) All of these the formation of spermatozoa from spermatids. It is the
CMC Ludhiana-2008 / JCECE-2004 process of the production of sperms from the immature
Haryana PMT-2003 germ cells in males. During spermatogenesis, a diploid
Ans. (b) : Sertoli cells are found within the spermatogonium (male germ cell) increases its size to
seminiferous tubules of the testes in males. They form a diploid primary spermatocyte. This process
provide structural support, nourishment and protection includes the formation of acrosome, condensation and
for the developing sperm cells. elongation of the nucleus, development of the flagellum
39. Mark the correct sequence of the layers of and the loss of redundant substances of the cytoplasm
testis from inner to outer side. and its organelles.
(a) Tunica vaginalis → Tunica albuginea → So, the correct answer is option (b).
Tunica vascularis
(b) Tunica vascularis → Tunica albuginea →
Tunica vaginalis
(c) Tunica vaginalis → Tunica vascularis →
Tunica albuginea
(d) Tunica albuginea → Tunica vascularis →
Tunica vaginalis
Ans. (b) : The correct sequence of the layers of testis
from inner to outer side is- Tunica vascularis → Tunica
albuginea → Tunica vaginalis
In the context of the testes, the tunica is a covering of
testes.
• Tunica vaginalis (outer covering), is a double layered
membrane that surrounds the testes within the 'Process of spermiogensis'
scrotum. 42. Androgen binding protein is produced from
• Tunica albuginea (middle) is a dense fibrous capsule (a) Leydig cell
that surround each testicle in the male reproductive (b) Sertoli cell
system.
(c) Graafian follicular cell
• Tunica vascularis is the innermost covering of testis.
(d) corpus luteum cell
Tripura JEE-2017
Ans. (b) : Androgen binding protein is produced from
'sertoli cell'. Androgen binding protein (ABP) is a
protein found in the testicular cytosol or secreted by
sertoli cell in the rete testis fluid, which concentrates
testosterone in seminiferous tubule.
The binding capacity of this is saturable sertoli cells
Testis from inner to outer produce and secrete the peptide hormone inhibin B into
40. Fructose is contributed to the semen by ______. the circulation as a response to FSH stimulation. ABP is
(a) seminal vesicles (b) testis also known as sex hormone binding globulin. It is a
(c) prostate gland (d) Cowper's gland glycoprotein that binds to androgen and estrogen.
MHT CET-04.10.2020 Shift-I Sertoli cells secrete a number of transport proteins,
MHT CET-2019 including transferrin, ceruloplasmin, and ABP.
43. Failure of descending of testis into scrotum is Ans. (a) : Sperms are transported out of testis from
known as following route Rete testis → Efferent ductules →
(a) Paedogenesis (b) Impotency Epididymis → vas deferens.
(c) Cryptorchidism (d) Castration
Assam CEE-2014
Ans. (c) : Failure of descending of testis into scrotum is
known as 'cryptorchidism'. Undescended testicles fail to
drop into the scrotum before birth or in the first few
months of life. This condition is called cryptorchidism.
If the testes do not descend into the scrotum, the sperms
produced would get killed by the high abdominal
temperature, causing sterility in the male.
In cryptorchidism, one or both the testes may fail to
descend in the scrotum.
47. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
44. Leydig cells are found in vasectomy?
(a) Heart lungs (b) Lungs (a) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
(c) Spleen (d) Testis (b) No sperm occurs in epididymis
BVP-2004 (c) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
JIPMER-2002 (d) Irreversible sterility
Ans. (d) : 'Leydig cells' are found in 'testis'. Leydig NEET-2016 Phase-II
cells are located adjacent to the seminiferous tubules in Ans. (b) : Sperm are developed in testis and passes to
the testis. Leydig cells also known as interstitial cells. vas deferens via epididymis. Epididymis is a highly
They produce testosterone in the presence of a convoluted duct behind the testis. Vasectomy is
luteinizing hormone (LH). irreversible, surgical method of contraception, in which
Leydig cells are the primary source of testosterone or a portion of vas deferens is cut and tied, blocking the
androgens in males. The best established function of sperm from entering seminal vesicle.
Leydig cells is to produce the androgen, testosterone, 48. Select the correct sequence for transport of
under the control of pituitary luteinizing hormone (LH). sperm cells in male reproductive system.
Hence, (d) option is a correct answer. (a) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
45. How many secondary spermatocytes are efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens →
required to form 400 million spermatozoa? Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus
(a) 50 million (b) 100 million (b) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia →
(c) 200 million (d) 400 million Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 (c) Testia → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia →
Vas deferens→ Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal
Ans. (c) : Spermatozoa:- Spermatozoa (sperm) are male canal → Urethra → Urethral meatus
sex cells that contain the genetic material of a man.
(d) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferebtua →
Secondary Spermatocytes:- Rete testis →Inguinal canal → Urethra
• Secondary spermatocytes are haploid (N) cells with GUJCET-2020 / NEET-2019
half the number of chromosomes as primary Ans. (a) : The correct sequence for transport of sperm
spermatocytes cells in male reproductive system is
• Each secondary spermatocyte produces two Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia
spermatids. → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct →
• As a result secondary spermatocytes divide into two Urethra → Urethral meatus
spermatids. Thus 100 primary spermocytes will The testis are where sperm are manufactured in the scrotum.
undergo meiosis-I to produce 200 secondary Epididymis is tortuously coiled structure topping the
spermatocytes will rise to 400 spermatids. testis, and it receive immature sperm from the testis and
46. Which of the following depicts the correct store it for several days.
pathway of transport of sperms? The fluid from the seminal vesicle viscous and contain
(a) Rete testis→Efferent ductules→ Epididymis fructose, which provides an energy source for the sperm.
→ Vas deferens
(b) Rete testis →Epididymis→Efferent ductules
→ Vas deferens
(c) Rete testis→Vas ductules→Efferent ductules
→ Epididymis
(d) Efferent ductules→Rete testis→Vas deferens
→ Epididymis
NEET-2016 Phase-II
49. The difference between spermiogenesis and Ans. (a) : The correct sequence of regions of
spermiation is epididymis is:- Caput epididymis → corpus epididymis
(a) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, → Cauda epididymis.
while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed. The epididymis are a pair of long tubular structures
(b) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, attached to the dorsal surface of the testis. One
while in spermiation spermatids are formed. epididymis per testis found. Each one is divided.
(c) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, 'Epididymis'
while in spermiation spermatozoa are released ↓
from sertoli cells into the cavity of Caput epididymis (head)
seminiferous tubules. ↓
(d) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli Corpus epididymis (body)
cells are released into the cavity of
↓
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
spermatozoa are formed. Cauda epididymis (tail)
NEET-2018
Ans. (c) : Spermiogenesis is the process of
transformation of spermatids (n) into spermatozoa.
• Spermiation involves the release of sperms from
seminiferous tubules through sertoli cells.
• In spermatogenesis secondary spermatocytes
undergo meiosis to form four haploid spermatid.
• These spermatids are non-motile and sent to sertoli 'Epididymis'
cells with the aid of peristaltic contraction where they 52. Starting from the maximum, arrange the
gain motility and become capable of fertilization and following male reproductive accessory organs
transform the spermatozoa. This process is known as in the correct order, based on the amount of
Spermiogenesis. secretion poured into urethra.
50. Select the correct route for the passage of (i) Prostrate gland
sperms in male frogs : (ii) seminal vesicle
(a) Testes → Bidder's of canal → Kidney→ (iii) Bulbourethral gland
Vasa efferentia→ Urinogenital duct → (a) (i) > (ii) > (iii) (b) (iii) > (ii) > (i)
Cloaca (c) (ii) > (iii) > (i) (d) (ii) > (i) > (iii)
(b) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → AIIMS-2013
Seminal Vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Ans. (d) : The seminal vesicles are glands located near
Cloaca the prostate gland in the male reproductive system.
(c) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's of canal They produce and store a significant portion of the fluid
→ Ureter → Cloaca that makes up semen, which is released during
ejaculation. This fluid contains various nutrients and
(d) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → substances that support the survival and movement of
Bidder's of canal→Urinogenital duct→Cloaca sperm.
NEET-2017 • The composition includes:-
Ans. (d) : In male frog germinal epithelium of Seminal vesicle - 1.5-2 ml (50-70%),
seminiferous tubules produce sperms which are Prostate : 0.6-0.9ml (15-25%),
transferred to kidney via vasa efferentia. Bulbourethral Glands : < 0.15 ml (< = 5%).
• Then they enter Bidder's of canal from where the
sperms are carried to the transverse collecting tubules.
longitudinal collecting tubule and then to urogenital
duct. The later carries the sperm to seminal vesicle
where they are stored temporarily. From here sperm are
carried to cloaca and then are shed into water.
51. Which of the following is a correct sequence of
regions of epididymis?
(a) Caput epididymis, Corpus epididymis, Cauda
epididymis
(b) Corpus epididymis, Caput epididymis, Cauda
epididymis
(c) Corpus epididymis, Cauda epididymis, Caput
epididymis 53. Spermatozoa receive nutrition from -
(d) Coputepididymis, Cauda epididymis, Corpus (a) Nurse glands (b) Interstitial cells
eopididymis (c) Epididymis (d) Germ cells
AP EAPCET-11.07.2022 Shift-I AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I
Ans. (c): Spermatozoa are the mature male reproductive 56. Each testis is connected to the wall of scrotum
cells that are produced in the testes. They receive by short, fibromuscular band called____
nutrition from the epididymis, which is a long, coiled (a) Tunica vascularis (b) Tunica vaginalls
tube that stores and transports sperm from the testes to (c) Gubernaculum (d) Tunica albuginea
the vas deferens. The epididymis secretes materials such MHT CET-2019
as fructose, glycoprotein that provide energy and
protection to the spermatozoa. Ans. (c) : Each testis is connected to the wall of
scrotum by short, fibromuscular band called
Sertoli cells, which are located in the seminiferous ‘Gubernaculum’. Testis are the male gonads situated in
tubules of the testes, also provide physical and
scrotum. The wall of scrotum is made up of smooth
nutritional support to developing spermatozoa.
muscles called dartos tunic muscles which helps in
54. Select the CORRECT sequence of organs in temperature regulation within the scrotal sac by
reproductive system of male human being. contracting and relaxing. Each testis is connected to the
(a) Vasa efferentia→vasa wall of scrotum by a short fibromuscular band called
deferentia→epididymis→seminiferous tubues gubernaculum. Testis is responsible for production and
(b) Seminiferous tubules→vasa storage of viable male gametes called sperm or
efferentia→epididymis→vasa deferentia spermatozoa.
(c) Epididymis→vasa efferentia→vasa
deferentia→seminiferous tubules
(d) Vasa efferentia→epididymis→vasa
deferentia→seminiferous tubules
MHT CET-2019
Ans. (b) : The correct sequence of organs in
reproductive system of male human being is -
seminiferous tubules → vasa efferentia → epididymis
→ vasa deferentia.
Hence, the correct option is (b) one
“Testis”
57. Each testicular lobule contains____convoluted
seminiferous tubules
(a) 1 to 4 (b) 5 to 7
(c) 8 to 10 (d) 11 to 14
'Male reproductive system' MHT CET-2018
55. Select the accessory sex gland NOT present in Ans. (a) : Each testicular lobule contains 1 to 4
human male? convoluted seminiferous tubules. In each testis, there
(a) Seminalvesicle (b) Cowper's gland are 200-300 lobules. In each lobules there are 1-4
(c) Prostate gland (d) Bartholin's gland convoluted loops called seminifereus tubules.
MHT CET-2019 / Tripura JEE-2019 Hence, the correct answer is option (a).
Karnataka CET-2016 / Haryana PMT-1999 58. Which constituent of seminal fluid help in
Ans. (d) : ‘Bartholin's gland’ is not present human coagulation of semen after ejaculation?
male. This gland is found in female. Bartholin glands (a) Fibrin (b) Fibrinogen
are two glands, lying in the posterior third of labia (c) Fructose (d) Prostaglandins
majora just inferior and lateral to bulbo cavernosus. MHT CET-2016
• During puberty, bartholin gland becomes functional Ans. (b) : Seminal fluid help in coagulation of semen
and provides moisture for the vestibule. after ejaculation is fibrinogen (a protein) clotting of
• Bartholin gland is a homologous of the bulbourethral semen helps to keep the ejaculated sperms in the female
gland or cowper's gland in the female reproductive tract.
• This gland secretes fluid that helps lubricate the vagina. Hence, The correct answer is option (b).
Hence, the correct answer is option (d) 59. Pick the ODD homologous pair out
(a) Bartholin's Gland - Cowper's Gland
(b) Clitoris - penis
(c) Mons pubis - Glans penis
(d) Labia majora - Scrotum
MHT CET-2015
Ans. (c) : Labia majora are the outermost folds of skin
and tissue surrounding the vaginal opening in females
'Bartholin's gland' and homologous to scrotum of males.
Clitoris is homologous to penis of male. It is a sensitive
and highly erogenous part of the female genitalia.
Bartholin gland in female is homologous to cowper's
glands in male.
Odd pairs are mons pubis and glans penis. Glans penis
is the sensitive rounded tip of the penis often covered by
the foreskin in males who haven't been circumcised.
Mons pubis is a rounded fatty area located above the
pubic bone, in the lower abdomen.
So, the correct answer is option (c).
60. One of the following cells secretes a hormone
(a) Cells of Leydig
(b) Cells of sertoli 'Testis Anatomy'
(c) Primary spermatocyte 63. Match the following column I with column II.
(d) Secondary spermatocyte Column-I Column-II
MHT CET-2015 A. Inguinal canal Network of
Ans. (a) : Leydig cells are found in the testicles and seminiferous
produce testosterone, a hormone essential for male tubules
reproductive development and function. Testosterone is
responsible for the development of male secondary B. Rete testis Secondary sexual
sexual characteristics, sperm, production and overall characters
male reproductive function. C. Leydig cells For descending of
61. Cauda epididymis leads to testis
(a) Vas efferens (b) Vas deferens D. Prepuce Dorsal bundles of
(c) Ejaculatory duct (d) Rete testis muscles
MHT CET-2004
E. Corpora Terminal skin of
Ans. (b) : The cauda epididymis leads to the vas
canernosa penis
deferens, which is a duct that carries sperm from the
epididymis to the ejaculatory duct. (a) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-5 E-4
The duct arising from cauda region of epididymis is (b) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-5 E-4
vas-deferens. (c) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-5 E-1
Pathway : - Seminiferous tubule (d) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4 E-5
↓ (e) A-4 B-1 C-3 D-5 E-2
Tubuli recti CMC Vellore-2015
↓
Ans. (a) : According to the table the best answer is
Rete testis
option (a). Here, Inguinal canal is for descending of
↓
testis. This usually happens in the eight month of
Vasa efferentia
pregnancy. The testis move down a tube called the
↓
inguinal canal.
Epididymis
↓ • Rete testis is a network of tubules in the mediastinum
Vas deferens testis that carry sperm from the seminiferous tubules to
Hence, the correct answer is option (b) the efferent ducts.
62. "Testis are extraabdominal in position'. Which • Leydig cells shows the secondary sexual characters.
of the following is most appropriate reason? • Prepuce is the foreskin, surrounding and protecting
(a) Narrow pelvis in male the head of the penis as well as clitoris.
(b) Special protection for testis • Corpora cavernosa is a dorsal bundles of muscles.
(c) Prostate gland and seminal vesicles occupy Hence, the option (a) is a appropriate answer.
maximum space
64. Human sperm was discovered by _______
(d) 2.0 – 2.5° C lower than the normal body
temperature (a) Pander (b) Graaf
MHT CET-2014 (c) Leeuwenhoek (d) Aristotle
Ans. (d) : ‘Testis are extra abdominal in position’. The AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-I
best correct option is (d) which says that testis are extra Ans. (c) : Human sperms was discovered by
abdominal in position at 2.0 - 2.5o C lower than the ‘Leeuwenhoek’. He is known as the father of
normal body temperature. Sperms develop the best microbiology’. He discovered it in 1677. He referred the
when the temperature of testis is about 2.0 - 2.5o C sperms or the spermatozoa as animalcules, which is
lower than the internal body, and this is the reason why
the testis are in the scrotal pouch outside the body. So, Latin for small animals. He believed that fully-formed
the correct answer is option (d). small humans were contained inside the sperms.
65. Study the following parts of the male • Epididymis is a narrow, tightly - coiled tube that is
reproductive system. attached to each of the testicles. Sperm cells move
(A) Retetestis from the tentacles in to the epididymis, where they
(B) Epididymis finish maturing and are stored.
(C) Urethra • Seminiferous tubules are the structural and functional
(D) Seminiferous tubules unit of testis.
(E) Vas deferens • Semen is a substance which containing sperm and
(F) Ejaculatory duct other secretions.
(G) Vasa efferentia Hence, option (c) is a best match.
The correct sequence of parts through which 67. Which of the following male accessory genital
sperms pass out is glands produce citric acid and prostaglandins?
Options: (a) Prostate gland (b) Bulbourethral glands
(a) A, B, C, D, E, F, G (c) Seminal vesicles (d) Cowper’s gland
(b) D, A, G, B, E, F, C TS EAMCET-15.05.2016
(c) D, A, G, E, B, F, C Ans. (c) : Seminal vesicles is a male accessory genital
(d) D, G, A, B, E, F, C glands which produce citric acid and prostaglandins.
AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-II The secretion of the seminal vesicles contains fructose,
prostaglandins, citrate, inositol, and clotting proteins. It
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II is thick protein. The secretion of seminal vesicles
TS EAMCET-2015 / AP EAMCET-2015 constitutes the bulk of the seminal fluid (semen) Hence,
Ans. (b) : The correct sequence of parts through in the correct answer is option (c).
which sperms pass out is ;-
option (b) → Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis →
vasa efferentia → epididymis → vas deferens →
ejaculatory duct → urethra.
“The seminal vesicles”

68. Excessive development of male mammary
glands is called
(a) Eunuchoidism
(b) Male hypogonadism
‘Correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in (c) Gynaecomastia
male’ (d) Female hypogonadism
66. Match the following? J&K CET-2010
Column-I Column-II Ans. (c) : Excessive development of male mammary
i. Male reproductive A. Semen glands is called, ‘gynaecomastia’. Gynaecomastia is
organ defined as a palpable enlargement of the male breast,
Site of sperm B. Seminiferous secondary to an increase in the glandular and stromal
ii. maturation and tubules breast tissue. It is an increase in the amount of breast
storage gland tissue in boys or men, caused by an imbalance of
iii. Unit of testis C. Testis the hormones estrogen and testosterone. It is a common
disorder that causes enlarged male breast tissue.
Substance
containing sperm
iv. and other D. Eqididymis
secretions
Options:
(a) ( 1 - C), (ii - A), (iii - B), (iv - D)
(b) (i - A), (ii - B), (iii - C), (iv - D)
(c) (I - C), (ii - D), (iii - B), (iv - A) 'Gynecomastia enlarged breasts in men'
(d) (I - D), (ii - C), (iii - A) , (iv - B)
69. In males testes are contained in the scrotal sacs
because
Ans. (c) : The best option is (c). It is a appropriate (a) Other organs do not make space for the testes
match of column I and column-II. in the abdominal cavity
• Testis is a male reproductive organ. They produce (b) Testes in the abdomen will hamper
sperm and testosterone which is the male sex hormone maturation of sperms
(c) It provides temperature that is slightly lower 73. Vas deferens starts from which part of
than body temperature required for formation epididymis?
of functional sperms (a) Cauda epididymis
(d) It facilitates ejaculation (b) Corpus epididymis
(e) Testes in the abdomen will accelerate (c) Caput epididymis
maturation of sperms (d) None of these options are correct
CMC Vellore-2008 AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (c) : In males testes are contained in the scrotal Ans. (a) : The cauda epididymis is the primary storage
sacs because it provides temperature that is slightly site for mature sperm and is continuous with a highly
lower than body temperature required for formation of muscular duct called the ductus deferens, also known as
functional sperms. Testis remain suspended in the sac the vas deferens. Cauda epididymis is the final part of
called scrotum. The body this helps in the formation of the epididymis where sperm are stored and matured
the sperms. Hence, the correct answer is option (c). before they are transported through the vas deferens
70. A chemical fertilizin is produced from during ejaculation to eventually reach the urethra.
(a) Polar bodies 74. Prostate gland secretion help in formation of:
(b) Middle piece of sperm (a) Larvae (b) Semen
(c) Acrosome (c) Cocoon (d) Cartilage
(d) Mature eggs BVP-2001
(e) Sertoli cells Ans. (b) : Prostate gland secretion, also known as
CMC Vellore-2008 prostatic fluid, play crucial role in the formation of
semen. Semen is the fluid, that is ejaculated during
Ans. (d) : A chemical fertilizin is produced from mature sexual intercourse and contain sperms, as well as
eggs. It is a chemical substance produced by female various secretions from the male reproductive system.
gametes. The fertilizin is secreted by the ovum upon its The prostatic fluid make up a significant protein of
surface for the process of fertilization, fusion of male semen, typically around 30% to 50%. It is milky white
and female gametes, the sperms swim and fertilize the fluid that contains various substance, inducing enzymes
ovum by the action of the fertilizin and antifertilizin citric acid, calcium and zinc.
complex.
75. The narrow passage, which connects the
This complex makes out the way for the sperm to reach abdominal cavity with the scrotal sacs, is _______.
the egg, penetrate and fertilize the egg forming the (a) Inguinal canal (b) Iter
zygote. Hence, the correct answer is option (d).
(c) Gubernaculum (d) Ejaculatory duct
71. From acrosome, which secretes MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
(a) Hyaluronic acid (b) Hyaluronidase Ans. (a): The narrow passage which connects the abdominal
(c) TSH (d) Fertilizing cavity with the scrotal sacs is called the inguinal canal.
MGIMS Wardha-2012 Inguinal canal: It is located in the lower part of the
Rajasthan PMT-2006, 1999 abdomen, just above the inguinal ligament, and extends
Ans. (b) : From acrosome, hyaluronidase secretes. The downwards and forwards into the scrotal sac.
acrosome is derived from the Golgi apparatus and 76. Match the following column I with column II.
contains digestive enzymes. Acrosome or head of the Column-I Column-II
sperm releases an enzyme called hyaluronidase which
facilitates the entry of the sperm into the egg. It digests A. Seminal 1. Neutralises urine
hyaluronic acid in the corona radiata of the ovum. vesicles present in urethra
B. Bartholins 2. Secretes a slightly
gland acidic pH fluid
C. Prostate gland 3. Aid in vestibular
lubrication
D. Bulbourethral 4. Secretes fluid of
gland pH 7.4
(a) A - 1 B - 2 C - 3 D - 4
(b) A - 2 B - 1 C - 4 D - 3
'Acrosome' (c) A - 4 B - 3 C - 2 D - 1
Hence, the correct answer is option (b) (d) A - 2 B - 3 C - 4 D - 1
72. Acrosome of sperm contains————— CMC Ludhiana-2015
(a) Mitochondria (b) DNA Ans. (c)
(c) Hydrolytic enzyme (d) Fructose A. Seminal vesicles 4. Secretes fluid of pH 7.4
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I B. Bartholins gland 3. Aid in vestibular
Ans. (c) : The acrosome is formed by the Golgi bodies. lubrication
It is present as a cap on the sperm head. The acrosome C. Prostate gland 2. Secretes a slightly
contains a vast array of acidic hydrolytic enzymes that acidic pH fluid
are essential for the acrosomal reaction to take place D. Bulbourethral 1. Neutralises urine
normally and help the sperm. gland present in urethra
B. The Female Reproductive System Ans. (d) : Statement-I is incorrect because, the primary
follicles get surrounded by more layers of granulosa
cells, a theca and shows fluid filled cavity antrum called
77. In the female reproductive system, a tiny finger tertiary follicle not secondary.
like structure which lies at the upper junction ■ Statement-II are correct because, during ovulation the
of the two labia minora above the urethral ovum gets released from the Graffian follicle and it gets
opening is called ruptured. After ovulation, the ruptured Griffian follicle
(a) Vagina (b) Hymen gets transformed into the corpus luteum.
(c) Mons pubis (d) Clitoris 81. Given below are two statements :
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 Statement I : Vas deferens receives a ductfrom
Ans. (d) : Clitoris is a tiny finger-like structure that lies seminalvesicle and opens into urethra as the
at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the ejaculatory duct.
urethral opening. It is the most sensitive part of the Statement II : The cavity of the cervix is
female body and is responsible for sexual pleasure. called cervical canal which along with vagina
Vagina is the opening through which menstrual blood forms birth canal.
and babies exit the body. Hymen is a thin membrane In the light of the above statements, choose the
that partially covers the opening of the vagina. Mons correct answer from the options given below :
pubis is the fleshy pad of tissue above the public bone. (a) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.
It is covered by pubic hair. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
78. With reference to human sperm, match the (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
List-I with List-II. (d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
List-I List-II NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
1. Head p. Filled with enzyme
Ans. (b) : It passes over the urinary bladder, curves
2. Acrosome q. Contains mitochondria around the ureter and joins a duct from seminal vesicle
3. Middle piece r. Sperm motility and opens into the urethra as the ejaculatory duct.
4. Tail s. Contains haploid nucleus • The uterus opens into the vagina through a narrow
(a) 1-r, 2-q, 3-s, 4-p (b) 1-s, 2-p, 3-q, 4-r cervix. The cavity of the cervix is called the cervical canal
(c) 1-s, 2-r, 3-p, 4-q (d) 1-q, 2-s, 3-r, 4-p which along with the vagina forms the birth canal.
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 Thereby, the birth canal is formed from cervix and vagina.
Ans. (b) : 82. Select the MISMATCHED pair.
1. Head s. Contains haploid nucleus (a) Corpus Luteum – progesterone
2. Acrosome p. Filled with enzyme (b) Cowper's gland – Prostaglandin
3. Middle piece q. Contains mitochondria (c) Acrosome – hyaluronidase
4. Tail r. Sperm motility (d) Placenta – Human Chronic gonadotropin
79. In humans the maternal blood comes into MHT CET-2019
direct contact with foetal chorion. So the Ans. (b) : The cowper's gland also known as the
placenta is described as bulbourethral gland is a pair of small exocrine gland
(a) Chorioallantoic (b) Haemochorial located at the base of the penis in male mammals. These
(c) Discoidal (d) Deciduate glands secretes a clear fluid that help to lubricate the
AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I urethra during sexual arousal. Prostaglandin are group
Ans. (b) : The human placenta is a hemochorial of lipid compounds that are involved in a wide range of
physiological process in the body including
placenta. Which means that maternal blood is in direct
inflammation, blood clotting.
contact with fetal trophoblast. This is the most invasive
type of placenta, and it allows for the efficient exchange 83. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is
of oxygen, nutrients and waste products between the (a) Isthmus (b) Infundibulum
mother and the fetus. (c) Cervix (d) Ampulla
80. Given below are two statements regarding AIPMT (Screening)-2010
oogenesis. Ans. (b) : Each fallopian tube is about 10 - 12 cm long
Statement I : The primary follicles get and extends from the periphery of each ovary to the
surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells, a uterus, the part closer to the ovary is the funnel shaped
theca and shows fluid filled cavity antrum. Now infundibulum possess finger like projections called
it is called secondary follicle. fimbriae, which help in collection of the ovum after
Statement II : Graafian follicle ruptures to ovulation. The infundibulum leads to a wider part of the
release the secondary oocyte from the ovary by oviduct called ampulla. The last part of the oviduct,
the process called ovulation. isthmus has a narrow lumen and it joins the uterus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
84. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is (a) Both A and R are correct and R is not correct
completed explanation for A.
(a) At the time of copulation (b) Both A and R are correct and R is correct
(b) After zygote formation explanation for A.
(c) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum (c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) Prior to ovulation (d) A is correct but R is wrong.
NEET-2020 Phase-I AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-II
Ans. (c) : • Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is Ans. (b) : Wall of uterus is made up of perimetrium
arrested at the metaphase IInd phase of meiosis IInd (outer), myometrium (middle) and endometrium (inner).
The myometrium is thickest layer of the uterus wall. It
• Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is
is responsible for strong uterine contraction during
completed at the time of fusion of a sperm with an
labour pain under the influence of oxytocin.
ovum.
• The division is completed after fertilization of the 88. When the fallopian tube is blocked at
ovum by the sperm. ampullary region, the ovum fails to move from.
(a) Isthmus to infundibululm
85. What would be the number of chromosomes of
(b) Ovary to ampulla
the aleurone cells of a plant with 42
chromosomes in its root tip cells ? (c) Isthmus to Uterus
(a) 21 (b) 42 (d) Infundibulum to Isthmus
(c) 63 (d) 84 Karnataka CET-2020
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 Ans. (d) : When the fallopian tube is blocked at
ampullary region, the ovum fails to move from
Ans. (c) : Aleurone layer is a single layer of cells that
infundibulum to isthmus. Fallopian tubes (oviducts) are
forms the outermost layer of the endosperm which is
paired in structure and function as ovum transport and
triploid and the cells on the root tip are diploid.
fertilization.
Root cells of tip ⇒ 2n = 42
89. Corpus luteum in mammals occurs in
n will be = 21
(a) Brain and connects two cerebral hemispheres
3n ⇒ 21 × 3
(b) Ovaries and produces progesterone
thus endosperm will be 3n = 63 chromosomes.
(c) Heart and initiate contraction
86. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic (d) Skin and acts as a pain receptor
sectional view of the female reproductive MGIMS Wardha-2014
system of humans. Which one set of three parts
out of I-VI have been correctly identified ? Ans. (b) : Corpus luteum in mammals occurs in ovaries
and produces progesterone. The corpus luteum is a vital
yet temporary organ that plays a crucial role in fertility
during the luteal phase. It is an endocrine structure in
females existing within the ovary once the ovarian
follicle has released a mature ovum during ovulation.
90. In human beings, which of the followings is
NOT the function of vagina?
(a) It acts as a passage for urine
(a) (I) perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III)
Fallopian tube (b) It receives penis during copulation
(b) (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) (c) It serves as the birth canal
Fimbriage (d) It allows passage of menstrual flow
(c) (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
(d) (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus (VI) Cervix Ans. (a) : Vagina doesn't function as a passage of urine.
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 Hence, option (a) is not the function of vagina.
Ans. (c) : The figure given below depicts a The vagina serves three purposes:-
diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive 1. It is where the penis is inserted during sexual
system of humans. intercourse.
The fallopian tube is about 10-20 cm long and extends 2. It is the pathway (the birth canal) through which a
from the periphery of each ovary to the uterus. The part baby leaves a woman's body during childbirth.
closer to the ovary is funnel shaped and is called 3. It is the route through which menstrual blood leaves
infundibulum. The edges of the infundibulum possess the body during periods.
finger like projections called fimbriae which help in
collection of the ovum after ovulation the uterus opens 91. Identify the odd one from the following
into vagina through a narrow cervix. (a) Infundibulum (b) Fimbriae
87. Assertion (A) : Myometrium is an important (c) Isthamus (d) Labia minora
component of Uterus. Karnataka CET-2022
Reason (R) : Myometrium produces strong Ans. (d) : Labia minora is odd one of the among the
contractions during parturition. above given other three options.
The labia minora are two small folds of skin, lacking Ans. (a) : In humans, the oocyte is maintained in a state
fatty tissue, that extend backward on each side of the of meiotic arrest by secretions of granulosa cells. They
opening into the vagina. are a type of cell in ovaries that produce hormones
Infundibulum:- The funnel-like portion of your including estrogen and progesterone.
fallopian tube that's closest to your ovaries. It includes
finger like structures called fimbriae that reach toward
the ovary.
Fimbriae:- Fimbriae are finger-like projections on the
ends of your fallopian tubes closest to your ovaries.
Isthamus:- It is a narrow part inside the body that
connects two larger structures.
92. Identify the wrongly labelled part
95. The structure, capable of stretching many

times of its size, is
(a) Lungs (b) Stomach
(c) Uterus (d) Pupil of the eye
AMU -2000
Ans. (c) : The structure, capable of stretching many
times of its size is uterus.
(a) Primary follicle (b) Ovum

(c) Graafian follicle (d) Corpus luteum
(e) Tertiary follicle
Kerala PMT-2015
Ans. (c) : Graafian follicle is the wrongly labelled part.
Primary Follicle:- it is defined by the presence of one
or more cuboidal granulosa cells that are arranged in a
single layer surrounding the oocyte.
Tertiary follicle:- The creation of an antrum, a fluid-
filled chamber, distinguishes the tertiary follicle.
Secondary follicles: The main follicle develops into a
secondary follicle as it is surrounded by multiple layers The uterus is a hollow muscular organ located in the
of granulosa cells and a theca layer develops outside the female pelvis between the bladder and rectum. The
basal lamina. ovaries produce the eggs that travel through the
fallopian tubes. Once the egg has left the ovary it can be
Ovum:- It is single cell released from either of the fertilized and implant itself in the lining of the uterus.
female reproductive organs, the ovaries, which is
capable of developing into a new organism when 96. Secondary sexual characters in females develop
fertilized (united) with a sperm cell. in response to hormone
(a) Relaxin (b) Progesterone
93. Corpus luteum is developed from
(c) Estrogen (d) Gonadotropin
(a) left over occyte
CG PMT-2007 / Haryana PMT-2003
(b) nephrostome
Ans. (c) : Secondary sexual characters in females
(c) left over Graafian follicle after release of
develop in response to hormone is estrogen, which is
ovum secreted by the cells of graafian follicles.
AMU-2011
Ans. (c) : Corpus luteum is developed from left over
Graafian follicle after release of ovum.
The corpus luteum is a vital yet temporary organ that
plays a crucial role in fertility during the luteal phase. It
is an endocrine structure in females existing within the
ovary once the ovarian follicle has released a mature Estrogen
ovum during ovulation. Progesterone is a hormone that plays an important role
94. In humans, the oocyte is maintained in a state in reproductive system. Hormones are chemical
of meiotic arrest by secretions of messengers that tell our body how to work. In women
(a) Granulosa cells (b) Zona pellucida or people assigned female at birth (AFAB),
(c) Cumulus oophorus (d) Theca progesterone supports menstruation and helps maintain
AMU-2010 the early stages of a pregnancy.
Relaxin is a hormone produced by the ovary and the 99. Which among the following is also a part
placenta with important effects in the female included in the group of external genitalia in
reproductive system and during pregnancy. human females apart from Labia majora and
Gonadotropins are glycoprotein hormones secreted by Labia minora?
gonadotropic cells of the anterior pituitary of (a) Clitoris (b) Vagina
vertebrates. (c) Oviduct (d) Cervix
97. Choose the correct combination of labelling the JCECE-2018
hormonal control of female reproductive Ans. (a) : The clitoris is located above the vaginal
system. opening and the most sensitive feel-good zone of the
body. The clitoris is part of the vulva, the name for the
external parts of female genitalia. The vagina is the tube
connecting the vulva and the cervix.
Hence, labia minora, labia majora and clitoris are the
group of external genitalia in women.
(a) A-GnRH, B-TSH, C-LTH, D-Uterus

(b) A-GnRH, B-LH/FSH, C-Oestrogen, D-Uterus
(c) A-GnRH, B-STH, C-LH, D-Uterus
(d) A-GnRH, B-ACTH, C-LH, D-Uterus
Manipal-2015
Ans. (b) : A-GnRH, B-LH/FSH, C-Oestrogen, D-
Uterus is the correct combination of labelling the Cervix is a muscular, tunnel-like organ. It is the lower
hormonal control of female reproductive system. part of uterus, and it connects uterus and vagina. It is
• GnRH (gonado tropin-releasing hormone) is produced also sometimes called as the “neck of the uterus”.
by the hypothalamus and stimulates the release of LH The oviduct is also known as the fallopian or uterine
and FSH from the anterior pituitary gland. tube. It is the passageway through which the ovum
• LH and FSH (Luteinising hormone and follicle passes from the ovary to the uterine cavity.
stimulating hormone) travel to the ovaries and 100. The mammalian follicle in ovary was first
stimulate the development of follicles and production described by :
of estrogen. (a) Fabricius (b) Robert Hooke
• Estrogen stimulates the growth of the endometrium ( (c) Von Baer (d) De Graaf
lining of the uterus) and prepare if for pregnancy. JIPMER-2000
• Uterus is a site of implantation and pregnancy. It is Ans. (d) : The mammalian follicle in ovary was first
also the site of menstruation. described by De Graaf.
98. The endometrium is the lining of • Von Baer is famous for the discovery of
(a) Bladder (b) Vagina embryological evolution.
(c) Uterus (d) Fallopian tube • Hieronymus fabricius also known as the father of
JCECE-2018 embryology.
Rajasthan PMT-2011 • Robert hook is also known as the father of cell
Ans. (c) : The endometrium is the lining of uterus. biology.
101. Graafian follicles possess
(a) Theca externa (b) Granulosa
(c) Theca interna (d) All of these
Manipal-2013
Ans. (d) : Graafian follicles possess theca externa,
granulosa and theca interna.
The physiological functions of the uterine endometrium

(uterine lining) are preparation for implantation,
maintenance of pregnancy if implantation takes place,
and menstruation in the absence of pregnancy. The
endometrium thus plays a pivotal role in reproduction
and continuation of our species.
The fallopian tubes are bilateral conduits between the
ovaries and the uterus in the female pelvis. They
function as channels for oocytes transport and
fertilization.
The theca externa is a connective tissue layer derived 105. Graafian follicle contains:
from fibroblast-like cells that produce extracellular (a) Oogonial cells
matrix factors, such as collagen. (b) Corpus luteum
The theca folliculi comprise a layer of the ovarian (c) Theca externa and theca interna
follicles. They appear as the follicles become secondary (d) Corpus albicans
follicles. It supplies androgens and communicates with VMMC-2014 / BCECE-2012 / AMU-2005
the granulosa cells and the oocyte by extracellular BVP-2005 / Haryana PMT-2004 /Manipal-2003
signaling.
Ans. (c) : Graafian follicle contains theca externa and
Granulosa cells are a type of cell in ovaries that produce theca interna. The Graafian follicle is a mature ovarian
hormones including estrogen and progesterone. follicle that contains a secondary oocyte. It is surrounded
102. What is the inner lining of the uterus called? by two layer of cells that is theca externa and theca interna.
(a) Cervix (b) Oviduct Theca externa is a layer of connective tissue that provides
(c) Endometrium (d) Fimbriae support and vascularization to the follicle. The theca
J&K CET-2015 interna is a layer of steroid-producing cells that secrete
Ans. (c) : The inner lining of the uterus is called as hormones such as androgens and estrogens.
endometrium. 106. Which gland in the male human being is
Fimbriae are finger-like projections on the ends of homologous to the vestibular gland in the
fallopian tubes closest to ovaries. human female ?
Each month, fimbriae catch the egg that one of ovaries (a) Bartholin's gland (b) Seminal vesicle
releases during ovulation and fimbriae then sweep the (c) Prostate gland (d) Cowper's gland
egg (ovum) into the fallopian tube where the egg can be MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I
fertilized. Oviduct is the tubes that carry eggs from the Ans. (d) : Cowper's gland also called bulbo-urethral
ovaries to the uterus. Cervix is the lower part of the gland in the male human being is homologous to the
uterus that connects to the vagina. vestibular gland also called Bartholin's gland in the
103. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary human female. Cowper's glands release a mucus-like
is fluid called pre-ejaculate when sexually aroused.
(a) Infundibulum (b) Isthmus
(c) Ampulla (d) Cervix
GUJCET-2020 / MHT CET-2019 / J&K CET-2015
Ans. (a) : The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary
is infundibulum. The infundibulum of the uterine tube is
the beginning of the uterine tube, just after the
abdominal ostium of uterine tube. The isthmus is a
small region that connects the ampulla and
infundibulum to the uterus. It is almost 2 cm in size and
forms a functional reservoir for sperm in the female
tract.
Location of Cowper's gland

107. In human beings, the oviduct is supported by a
double fold of peritoneum called __________.
(a) Mesovarium (b) Mesometrium
(c) Tunica vaginalis (d) Mesosalpinx
Ans. (d) : In human beings, the oviduct is supported by
“Part of the fallopian tube which is closer to the
a double fold of peritoneum called mesosalpinx. It is the
ovary”
fold of peritoneum draping over both uterine tubes, and
104. Clitoris in female mammals is: the mesovarium is the fold attaching the anterior portion
(a) Homologous to penis of male of each ovary to the posterior part of the broad
(b) Analogous to penis of male ligament.
(c) Vestigial structure The mesovarium does not cover the entire surface of each
(d) Overgrowth ovary but helps to keep its position within the pelvis.
Haryana PMT-1999 The mesometrium is the mesentery of the uterus. It
Ans. (a) : The clitoris in female mammals is constitutes the majority of the broad ligament of the
homologous to the penis in males. This means that both uterus, excluding only the portions adjacent to the
structures share a common evolutionary origin, derived uterine tube (the mesosalpinx) and ovary (the
from the same embryonic tissue. While they serve mesovarium).
different functions (clitoris for sexual pleasure, penis for The tunica vaginalis has smooth muscle cells that aim
reproduction) their similarity in structure reflects their spermatozoa movement toward the testes and
shared ancestry. epididymis.
108. Some important events in the human female Ans. (d) : Zona pellucida is first observed in ‘Graafian
reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange follicle’. It is formed by secondary oocyte. The
the events in a proper sequence. secondary oocyte forms a new membrane called as zona
(A) Secretion of FSH pellucida surrounding it. Zona pellucida is a
(B) Growth of corpus luteum glycoprotein layer around the secondary oocyte.
(C) Growth of the follicle and oogenesis Graafian follicle is also called ‘An antral follicle’. First,
(D) Ovulation the meiotic division leads to this follicular stage. Inside
(E) Sudden increase in the levels of LH this follicle, secondary oocytes and fluid. filled cavities
called antrum are present. The secondary oocytes is
(a) C→A→D→B→E (b) A→C→E→D→B
surrounded by layers, namely a cellular layer called
(c) A→D→C→E→B (d) B→A→C→D→E zona pellucida. After the release of secondary oocyte
Manipal-2009 Graafian follicles produce the corpus luteum. The zona
Ans. (b) : Option (b), A-C-E-D → B is the events in the pellucida is a translucent matrix of glycoproteins that
proper sequence in the human female reproductive surrounds the mammalian oocyte.
cycle. The sequence of events is also known as the
menstrual cycle. The menstrual cycle typically lasts 28
days, but can vary from woman to woman.
109. Atretic follicles are found in the
(a) liver (b) ovary
(c) testis (d) thymus
CG PMT-2011
Ans. (b) : Atretic follicles are found in the ovary.
It refers to the degeneration and resorption of several
follicles and their ovules (a form of apoptosis) prior to
the maturation and release of one ovule from a healthy
follicle.
110. Bartholin's glands are situated
(a) On either side of vagina in humans
‘zona pellucida’
(b) On either side of vas deferens in humans
(c) On the sides of the head of some amphibians 113. In human beings, the follicular cells of
Graafian follicle secrete_____
(d) At the reduced tail end of birds
(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin
JIPMER-2013
(b) Relaxin
MGIMS Wardha-2010
(c) Testosterone
AIPMT-2003
(d) Estrogen
Ans. (a) : Bartholin's glands are situated on either side MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I
of vagina in humans. They are pea-sized glands that
produce mucus to lubricate the vagina during sexual Ans. (d) : Graafian follicles secrete estrogen, which
intercourse. It is the analogous to the bulbourethral plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle
gland of male. and preparing the body for ovulation.
111. Which of the following hormones can play a • Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is a hormone
significant role in osteoporosis? produced by the placenta during pregnancy.
(a) Aldosterone and Prolactin • Relaxin is a hormone produced by the corpus luteum
(b) Progesterone and Aldosterone during pregnancy and childbirth.
(c) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin • Testosterone is a male sex hormone produced by the
(d) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone testes.
NEET-2018 114. Identify the correct labeling in the given
diagram.
Ans. (d) : Estrogen and parathyroid hormones promote
osteoblast and inhibit the disease like, osteocytes,
osteoporosis, low level of progesterone and aldosterone
and high level of prolactin causes osteoporosis.
• Parathormone promotes mobilization of calcium from
bone into blood. In osteoporosis loss of bone density
due to it a bone of aged people become weak and very
prone to injury. The patient should take calcium enrich
food item. The osteomalacia is also a kind of bone (a) A − Blood vessels, B − Primary follicle, C−
related diseases which occur in children. Tertiary follicle, D − Graafian follicle, E −
112. Zona pellucida is first observed in______. Ovum, F − Corpus luteum
(a) Tertiary follicle (b) Secondary follicle (b) A − Primary follicle, B − Blood vessels, C−
(c) Primary follicle (d) Graafian follicle Tertiary follicle, D − Graafian follicle,
GUJCET-2022 E−Ovum, F − Corpus luteum
(c) A − Blood vessels B − Primary follicle, C− 117. During embryonic development endoskeleton
Tertiary follicle, D − Ovum, E − Graafian and muscle develop from which germinal
follicle, F − Corpus luteum layer?
(d) A−Ovum, B−Graafian follicle, C− Corpus (a) Ectoderm (b) Endoderm
luteum, D−Blood vessels, E−Primary follicle. (c) Mesoderm (d) Blastopore
F−Tertiary BVP-2003
UP CPMT-2013 Ans. (c) : During embryonic development endoskeleton
Ans. (a) : After read the diagram - and muscle develop from the mesoderm germinal layer.
Here, A-shows → Blood vessels In animals, a germ layer is a primary cell layer that is
B-shows → primary follicle formed during embryogenesis. The mesoderm forms
C-shows → Tertiary follicle skeletal, muscle, bone connective tissue, the heart and
D-shows → Graafian follicle the urogenital system. It is the middle embryonic germ
E-show → Ovum layer which is lying between the ectoderm and the
endoderm from which the muscle, bone, and circulatory
F- Shows → corpus luteum
system develop. Hence, the option (c) is a correct
So, the correct answer is option (a)
answer.
115. Which the part of oviduct, joins the uterus?
(a) Fimbriae (b) Isthmus
(c) Ampulla (d) Infundibulum
GUJCET-2021
MHT CET-2019
Ans. (b) : ‘Isthmus’ is a part of oviduct, which join the
uterus. Isthmus is the narrowest part of the fallopian
tube which connects the fallopian tube to the uterus.
The isthmus is narrow portion connecting the ampulla
to the uterus and last part of oviduct. It is almost 2 cm in
size. It forms a functional reservoir for sperm in the
female tract.
'Embryogenesis-Three types of germinal layer'

118. Which gland in female is a counter part of
cowper gland in male?
'Isthmus' (a) Bartholin gland (b) Clitoris
(c) Perinea gland (d) None of these
116. Placenta present in mammals acts as an
endocrine tissue and produces BVP-2005 / Haryana PMT-2004
(1) Human chorionic gonadotropin Manipal-2003
(2) Oestrogen Ans. (a) : ‘Bartholin gland’ in female is a counter part
(3) Progesterone of cowper gland in male. The glands are located in the
(4) Testosterone vulvar vestibule, at either side of the external orifice of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct the vagina. They are homologous to the bulbourethral
(b) 1 and 2 are correct (cowper's) glands in males. The perineal gland is amall
(c) 2 and 4 are correct gland located between the anus and the scrotum in
(d) 1 and 3 are correct males.
BHU PMT (Mains)-2010 The clitoris is vestigial penis in female. It is sensitive
Ans. (a) : Placenta present in mammals acts as an part of female.
endocrine tissue and produces the human chorionic
gonadotropin, estrogen and progesterone. Hence, the
option (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
The placenta can be considered an immune and
endocrine organ. It produces several important hormone
during pregnancy. Once placenta begins making human
chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), it triggers the body to
create more estrogen and progesterone. Together with
HCG, these hormones help thickening of the uterine
lining and tell the body to stop menstruating. The proper
balance of these three hormones sustains and supports
the pregnancy. ‘Bartholin's gland of female’

119. Arrange the following parts of Graafian follicle • Prostaglandins are derived from many tissues
from outside to inside in a sequence including the prostate gland (or can be made
(A) Secondary oocyte synthetically) and have been used in the induction of
(B) Corona radiata labor pain and abortion.
(C) Zona pellucida 122. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen,
(D) Theca externa progesterone are produced by
(E) Membrana granulosa (a) Ovary (b) Placenta
(F) Theca interna (c) Fallopian tube (d) Pituitary
(G) Antrum NEET-2016 Phase-II
(a) D – F – E – G – B – C – A Ans. (b) : Several hormones like hCG (Human
(b) A – B – B – G – E – F – D chorionic gonadotropin), hPL(Human prolactin),
(c) B – C – A – D – F – E– G estrogen, progesterone are produced by placenta. It is a
(d) C – D – B – E – F – G – A structural and functional connectivity between the
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II developing embryo (foetus) and the maternal body. It is
connected to embryo through an umbilical cord which
Ans. (a) : Arrange the following parts of Graafian helps in transport of substances to and from the embryo.
follicle from outside to inside in a sequence is :- Theca
externa → Theca interna → Membrana granulosa → • Placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue by producing
the above mentioned hormones.
Antrum → corona radiata → Zona pellucida →
Secondary oocyte. That is a sequence according to the 123. Match List-I with List-II.
Graafian follicle from outside to inside. Hence, option List-I List-II
(a) is a correct answer. (A) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm
120. Arrange the components of mammary gland. through Cervix is
(from proximal to distal). blocked
(A) Mammary duct (B) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas
(B) Lactiferous duct deferens
(C) Alveoli (C) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of
(D) Mammary ampulla sperms within the
(E) Mammary tubules Uterus
Choose the most appropriate answer from (D) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of
the options given below: fallopian tube
(a) (C) → (A) → (D) → (E) → (B) Choose the correct answer from the option
(b) (B) → (C) → (E) → (D) → (A) given below
(c) (C) → (E) → (A) → (D) → (B) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(d) (E) → (C) → (D) → (B) → (A) (a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 (b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Ans. (c) : (c) Alveoli → (E) Mammary tubules → (A) (c) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Mammary ducts → (D) Mammary ampulla → (B) (d) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Lactiferous duct. NEET-2021
This is the arrangement of components or mammary Ans. (c) :
gland (from proximal to distal) List-I List-II
(A) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through
cervix is blocked
(B) IUDs (iii) Phagocytosis of
sperms within the uterus
(C) Vasectomy (ii) Removal of vas
deferens
(D) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube
124. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are
present on :
121. Which one of the following hormones is a
modified amino acid ? (a) Zona pellucida (b) Corona radiata
(a) Progesterone (b) Prostaglandin (c) Vitelline membrane (d) Perivitelline space
(c) Estrogen (d) Epinephrine NEET-2021
AIPMT-2004 Ans. (a) : Zona pellucida has receptors for sperm
Ans. (d) : Epinephrine is synthesized from amino acid binding (ZP3 receptors) in mammals. It is present
that is tyrosine while estrogen and progesterone are surrounds the mammalian egg.
modified steroids and prostaglandins are basically fat. • Corona radiata is a layer of radially arranged cells of
• Progesterone and estrogen are secreted from corpus membrane granulosa. The vitelline membrane is a thin,
luteum of ovary. inner layer that surrounds the egg cytoplasm.
• Perivitelline space is present in between vitelline The fimbriae of the uterine tube, also known as fimbriae
membrane and zona pellucida. tube. It is connected to the end of the fallopian tubes,
through which eggs move from the ovaries to the uterus.
125. Which of the following layers in an antral

follicle is acellular?
(a) Zona pellucida (b) Granulosa “Fimbriae”
(c) Theca interna (d) Stroma 128. Progesterone is secreted by
AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015 (a) Corpus luteum (b) Utreus
Ans. (a) :The acellular layer of an antral follicle is (c) Placenta (d) Grafian follicle
called the "zona pellucida". It is a glycoprotein-rich JIPMER-2005
layer that surrounds the oocyte within the follicle and Ans. (a) : Progesterone is secreted by the ovarian
plays crucial role in fertilization and early embryonic corpus luteum during the first ten weeks of pregnancy,
development. followed by the placenta in the later phase of
pregnancy. Progesterone is an endogenous steroid
hormone that is commonly produced by the adrenal
cortex as well as the gonads.
The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine gland that
forms in the ovary after ovulation and also secretes
progesterone.
129. Egg is liberated from ovary in
(a) Secondary oocyte stage
126. Match the items given in Column I with those (b) Primary oocyte stage
in Column II and select the correct option
(c) Oogonial stage
given below :
(d) Mature ovum stage
Column I Column II
AIPMT-1989
(A) Proliferative (i) Breakdown of
Ans. (a) : Egg is liberated from the ovary during
Phase endometrial
lining ovulation at secondary oocyte stage. Stages of
oogenesis –
(B) Secretory Phase (ii) Follicular Phase
• Oogonial stage - In this stages, the immature egg
(C) Menstruation (iii) Luteal Phase
cells called oogonia are produced.
(A) (B) (C)
• Primary oocyte stage - The oogonia grow and
(a) iii ii i develop into primary oocytes, which enter meiosis I.
(b) i iii ii
• Secondary oocyte stage - meiosis I is arrested at the
(c) iii i ii prophase I stage and the primary oocyte is released
(d) ii iii i from the ovary in this stage.
NEET-2018
• Mature ovum stage - Meiosis II resumes only if the
Ans. (d) : Proliferative phase → Follicular phase secondary oocyte is fertilized by a sperm cell.
Secretory phase → Luteal phase 130. Atretic follicles are found in the
Menstruation → breakdown of endometrial lining. (a) Fallopian tubes (b) Uterus
Luteal phase mainly controlled progesterone secreted by (c) Labia majora (d) Ovary
corpus luteum.
AIIMS-2014
Menstruation occur due to decline in progesterone
harmone. Ans. (d) : Atretic follicles are found in the ovaries.
These are follicles that do not develop fully and regress
127. Fimbriae are associated with which organ? instead of ovulating.
(a) Fallopian tube (b) Uterus
(c) Vagina (d) Ovary
JIPMER-2018
Ans. (a) : Fimbriae are associated with the fallopian
tube’. In the female reproductive system, fimbriae are
the projections at the ends of the fallopian tube that
reach out towards the ovaries an either side of the
uterus. Fimbriae are finger-like projections on the ends
of your fallopian tubes closest to ovaries.
131. Choose the correct: Ans. (a) : Estrogen is primarily secreted by the
follicular cells of ovarian follicles in the ovaries.
Ovarian follicles are small sacs that contain developing
eggs. As the follicles mature, they produce estrogen,
which is released into the bloodstream. Estrogen plays a
vital role in female reproductive health. It is responsible
for the development of secondary sexual characteristics,
such as breast and pubic hair. Estrogen also regulates
the menstrual cycle (MC) and helps to prepare the
(a) (A) Ampulla – Site of blastocyst implantation uterus for pregnancy.
(b) (B) Fimbriae – Collect ova 134. Which of the following process is initiated by
(c) (C) Myometrium – Shed during menstrual FSH?
bleeding (a) Degeneration of endometrium
(d) (D) Ovary – Secrete HCG (b) Growth of Graafian follicle
(c) maturation of spermatozoa
(d) Secretion progesterone
Ans. (b) : Fimbriae are finger- like projections found at MHT CET-2018
the end of the fallopian tubes in the female reproductive
Ans. (b) : FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone) initiate
system. These fimbriae help capture and guide eggs the process of growth of Graafian follicle, FSH
released from the ovaries into the fallopian tubes, where stimulates follicular growth and ovulation. It is an
fertilization can occur. (FSH) important hormone functioning in the
reproductive system of male and female.
It is produced by the anterior pituitary gland in the
brain. FSH control the menstrual cycle and the
production of eggs by the ovaries. The main function of
FSH is to stimulate the growth and development of the
ovarian follicles in females.
135. Select the correct match :
Column - A Column - B
a. Seminal fluid i. Corpus spongiosum
b. Prostate gland ii. Membranous
urethra
c. Ejaculatory iii. Clitoris
132. Vaginal bacteria which mainly maintain acidic duct
medium are____ d. Erectile tissues iv. Fructose
(a) Lactobacillus (b) Clostridium
v. prostaglandins
(c) Escherichia coli (d) Pseudomonas
(a) (a) – (iv) (b) (b) – (v)
MHT CET-2019
(c) (c) – (i) (d) (d) – (ii)
Ans. (a) : Vaginal bacteria is ‘lactobacillus’ which MHT CET-2017
mainly maintain acidic medium. Lactobacillus is the Ans. (a) : Fructose in seminal fluid is produced by the
most frequently isolated microorganism from the seminal vesicles and its role is to provide energy for
healthy human vagina. These vaginal lactobacillus have spermatozoa motility. Seminal fluid is a mixture of
been routed to prevent invasion of pathogens by sperm and fluids form the seminal vesicles.
keeping their population check. It is the dominant • The prostate gland produces a milk secretion that
bacterial genus in the vaginal tract. makes up about 20% of the seminal fluid.
• The ejaculatory duct is a tube that carries sperm from
the testes to the urethra.
• The erectile tissues are located in the penis.
136. The glycoprotein, fertilizin is secreted by
(a) Ovum (b) Ovary
(c) Sperm (d) Testis
MHT CET-2015
“Bacteria in the repreductive tract (vagina)” Ans. (a) : The glycoprotein, fertilizin is secreted by
‘ovum’. Fertilizin glycoprotein, also known as ZP3
133. In ovary estrogen is secreted by____ (zona pellucida 3), is a protein present in the zona
(a) Follicular cells pellucida, a protective layer surrounding the
(b) Corona radiata cells mammalian oocyte. It helps in the process of
(c) Sertoli cells fertilization by binding to sperm cells and initiating the
(d) Primary oocyte acrosome reaction.
MHT CET-2018 Hence, the correct answer is option (a)
137. Identify the correct match : Ans. (a) : Accessory ducts of reproductive system of
Accessory glands Functions human female include the [oviduct → uterus → vagina]
i. Seminal vesicles A. Lubricates vagina • The accessory duct is involved in the process of
ii. Prostate gland B. provide energy, reproduction. The female accessory glands include the
coagulation of Oviduct
sperm ↓
iii. Cowper's gland C. Neutralizes Uterus
acidity of vagina ↓
(a) (i) – (B),(ii) – (C),(iii) – (A) Vagina
(b) (i) – (C),(ii) – (B),(iii) – (A) Hence, the option (a) is a correct answer.
(c) (i) – (A),(ii) – (C),(iii) – (B)
(d) (i) – (C),(ii) – (A),(iii) – (B)
MHT CET-2014
Ans. (a) : After read the question the correct match of
accessory glands with its functions is option (a)
• Seminal vesicles- provide the energy, coagulation of
sperms.
• Prostate gland neutralizes the acidity of vagina.
Cowper's gland lubricate the vagina. It produces
mucous secretions to lubricate the vagina to facilitate
the sperm movement. 'Female reproductive system'
138. The main function of the fimbriae of the 140. In human females, the number of primary
fallopian tube in females is to : follicles left in each ovary at puberty is:
(a) Release the ovum from the Graafian follicle (a) 3000 - 30,000
(b) Make necessary changes in the endometrium (b) 30,000 - 60,000
for implantation (c) 60,000 - 80,000
(c) Help in the development of corpus luteum (d) 1,50,000 - 1,60,000
(d) Help in the collection of the ovum after Karnataka CET-2017
ovulation Ans. (c) : In human females, the number primary
(e) Help in the development of ovary follicles left in each ovary at puberty is 60,000-80,000.
Kerala PMT-2011 The number gradually decreases over a time, until a
women reaches menopause and her ovaries stop
Ans. (d) : The main function of the fimbriae of the releasing eggs altogether.
fallopian tube in females is to help in the collection of
the ovum after ovulation. Fimbriae are finger-like 141. Study the following table
projections on the ends of fallopian tube closet to the of Glands Location Function
ovaries. Fimbriae catches the egg that one of ovaries. A. Bartholin Sides of Lubricate
releases during ovulation. glands vaginal vaginal passage
opening
B. Skene's Beneath the Lubricate
glands urinary vaginal passage
bladder
C. Prostate Around Activate sperms
gland prostatic and provide
urethra nutrition for
them
D. Cowpers Above the Neutralises the
glands prostate urethra
gland
Among the above, identify incorrect
“This diagram is highlights the fimbrial of the combination.
fallopian tube and the different parts of the female Options:
reproductive system” (a) B, D (b) C, D
139. Accessory ducts of reproductive system of (c) A, D (d) A, C
human female include: AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-I
(a) Oviduct, uterus and vagina Ans. (a) : After read the table, here option (a) is a
(b) Oviduct, ovaries and ovarian ligaments incorrect combination among the following.
(c) Oviduct, ovaries and mammary glands • The skene's glands, are two glands located on either
(d) Ovaries, uterus and vagina side of the urethra. These glands are believed to secrete
Karnataka CET-2017 a substance to lubricate the urethra opening.
• Cowper's gland or bulbourethral gland is present 144. Statement– (S) : Stem cells are undifferentiated
beneath the prostate gland, on the internal tip of the cells found in multicellular organisms that have
penis, in male. Cowper's fluid that help to neutralize the ability to undergo numerous mitotic cycles.
acidic urine and lubrication the distal urethra. Reason (R) : Stem cells are self-renewal and do
142. Which of the following organs is devoid of not exhibit “cellular potency”.
glands ?
(a). Both (S) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(a) Uterus (b) Vagina
(c) Vulva (d) Oviduct correct explanation to (S)
DUMET-2011 (b). Both (S) and (R) are correct but (R) is
Ans. (b) : ‘Vagina’ is a organ which is devoid of not the correct explanation to (S)
glands. (c). (S) is correct but (R) is wrong
The vagina is a muscular tube that connects the external (d). (S) is wrong but (R) is correct
genitalia to the uterus in the female reproductive TS EAMCET-15.05.2016
system. It serves as a passage for menstrual flow to exit
the body and for childbirth. The uterus contains Ans. (b) : • Stem cells are undifferentiated cells found
endometrial glands, which produce the lining of the in multicellular organisms that have ability to undergo
uterus. The vulva contains bartholin's glands and numerous mitotic cycles. They retain the ability to
skene's glands, which produce lubricating fluid. The renew themselves through mitotic cell division.
oviduct or fallopian tube contains finger like projections • Stem cells are identified by their two properties self
called fimbriae, which help to catch the egg when it is renewal and potency. Self renewal is the ability to go
released from the ovary. through multiple cycles of cell division, potency is the
ability of a stem cell to differentiate into certain amount
of cell type.
Hence, both (S) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation to (S).
145. Skene's glands in females are homologous to
(a) Seminal vesicle (b) Prostate gland
(c) Cowper gland (d) Sebaceous glands
A TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I
ns. (b) : Paraurethral glands (skene glands) lie within
the wall of the distal female urethra and secrete mucus
'Vagina' during sexual activity. They are homologous to the male
143. In mammals corpus Iuteum is found in which prostate gland. They produce lubricating fluid that is
organ? released during sexual intercourse.
(a) Brain (b) Ovary
146. Statement I : Increased levels of glucose and
(c) Liver (d) Eyes
amino acids circulate in the blood of pregnant
Rajasthan PMT-2002
women
Ans. (b) : In mammals corpus luteum is found in ovary.
It is a temporary endocrine gland that forms on the Statement II : Somatomammotropin secreted
ovary from the granulosal and thecal cells that remain in by placenta is antagonistic to insulin
the postovulatory follicle. Corpus luteum is involved in The correct option among the following is
the production of hormones, such as progesterone and (a) Both statements are correct
estrogen. It is an endocrine structure in females existing
within the ovary once the ovarian follicle has released a (b) Both statements are false
mature ovum during ovulation. (c) Only statement I is correct
(d) Only statement II is correct
Ans. (a) : Here are two statements, increase levels of
glucose and amino acids circulate in the blood of
pregnant women. The level of glucose aims to maintain
a healthy balance between the mother and fetus while
ensuring proper fetal development. During pregnancy,
amino acids represent one of the major nutrients for
fetal life. They are important precursors for fetal
development and growth.
Somatomammotropin secreted by placenta is
antagonistic to insulin. Therefore both the statements
“Corpus Luteum” are correct.

147. Corpus luteum is formed in female reproductive system.
(a) Ovary (b) Testis Perimetrium → It is outermost layer of uterus.
(c) Mammary gland (d) Uterus Infundibulum → It is part of oviduct, which is the
CG PMT-2004 funnel shaped opening at the end of the fallopian tube.
Ans. (a) : ‘Corpus luteum’ is formed in ovary. The
corpus luteum is a organ that plays a crucial role in
infertility during the luteal phase. It is an endocrine
structure in female existing within the ovary once. The
ovarian follicle has released a mature ovum during
ovulation. It is formed in an ovary at the site of a
follicle of sac, that has matured and released its ovum in
the process known as ovulation.
‘Uterine anatomy’ Layers of uterus

150. The blood vessel and nerves enter the ovary
through
(a) Hilus
(b) Zona pellucida
(c) Antrum
(d) Graafian follicle
‘Corpus Luteum’ Uttarakhand PMT-2011
148. Which one in female is like prostate gland in Ans. (a) : The blood vessels and nerve that supply the
male ? blood to ovaries enter through the ovarian hilum. The
(a) Bartholins gland ovarian hilum is a small region on the medial surface of
(b) Clitoris the ovary where the ovarian artery, ovarian vein, and
(c) Bulbourethral gland ovary branch out into smaller vessels and nerve within
(d) None of these the ovarian tissue.
BVP-2011 151. Match column I with Column II and select the
Ans. (d) : The skene's gland in female is like to prostate correct option using the codes given below.
gland in male. Skene's glands are homologous with the Column I Column II
prostate gland in males. They produce the same A. Mons pubis 1. Embryo formation
hormones as the male prostate, and both are play a
B. Antrum 2. Sperm
significant role in our reproductive systems. The skene
C. Trophectoderm 3. Female external
gland (Paraurethral gland) in females which is located at
the lower end of urethra is considered homologous to genitalia
the prostate gland in males and is sometimes referred to D. Nebenkern 4. Graafian follicle
as the female prostate. (a) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
149. The inner glandular layer of the uterus is (b) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
(a) Endometrium (b) Myometrium (c) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
(c) Fallopian tubes (d) Perimetrium (d) A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2
(e) Infundibulum NEET-2016 Phase-II
Kerala PMT-2014 Ans. (b) : Column I Column II
Ans. (a) : the endometrium is the innermost lining of (A) Mons pubis – Female external
the uterus, playing a crucial role in menstrual cycle, genitalia
fertility and pregnancy. (B) Antrum – Graafian follicle
Myometrium → It is the middle layer of uterus. (C) Trophectoderm – Embryo formation
Fallopian Tube → It is the oviduct. It is a part of the (d) Nebenkern – Sperm.

155. The second maturation division of the
C. Gametogenesis mammalian ovum occurs –
(a) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum
152. Arrange the sequence of different hormones for makes entry into the Fallopian tube
their role during gametogenesis. (b) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a
(A) Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and sperm
secretion of Androgen (c) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with
(B) Gonadotropin releasing hormone from that of the ovum
hypothalamus (d) In the Graafian follicle following the first
(C) Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis maturation division
(D) Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of AIPMT (Screening)-2010
spermiogenesis
Ans. (b) : The second maturation division of the
(E) Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland
mammalian ovum occurs after the ovum has been
Choose the correct answer from the options penetrated by a sperm. The second maturation division
given below : is arrested at metaphase II until fertilization occurs.
(a) (B), (E), (A), (C), (D) When a sperm penetrates the ovum, it releases calcium
(b) (D), (B), (A), (C), (E) ions, which triggers the release of the egg from
(c) (E), (A), (D), (B), (C) metaphase II and allows the second maturation division
(d) (C), (A), (D), (E), (B) to complete. This result in the formation of a mature
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) ovum and a second polar body.
Ans. (a) : According to the correct sequence of different 156. A change in the amount of yolk and its
hormones for their role during gametogenesis is distribution in the egg will effect :
■ Gonadotropin is releasing hormone from hypothalamus. (a) Fertilization
■ Gonadotropin from anterior pituitory gland. (b) Formation of zygote
■ Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and secretion (c) Pattern of cleavage
of androgen. (d) Number of blastomeres produced
■ Androgen stimulates spermatogensis. AIPMT-2009
■ Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of Ans. (c) : The amount and distribution of yolk in an egg
spermiogenesis.
affects the pattern of cleavage because yolk inhibits cell
153. Select the incorrect statement division. Eggs with more yolk will have a meroblastic
(a) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the cleavage pattern, in which only a portion of the egg
Leydig cells divides, e.g. - bird eggs, fish eggs. Eggs with less yolk
(b) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in will have a holoblastic cleavage pattern, in which the
spermiogenesis entire egg divides, e.g. - mammal eggs, frog eggs.
(c) LH triggers ovulation in ovary 157. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages
(d) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the leading to the formation of sperms in a mature
follicular phase human testis is :
NEET-2016 Phase-I (a) Spermatogonia-spermatid-spermatocyte
Ans. (d) : LH and FSH actually increase gradually sperms
during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle. They (b) Spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatid
are responsible for stimulating the growth and sperms
development of follicles in the ovaries. The follicles (c) Spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatid
produce estrogen, which eventually triggers ovulation. sperms
After ovulation, LH levels peak and FSH levels drop. (d) Spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogonia
154. Which one of the following statements about sperms
human sperm is correct – AIPMT-2009
(a) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure Ans. (c) : Spermatogenesis is the process which take
used for piercing and penetrating the egg, place in the testes and involved in the production of the
resulting in fertilization sperms. The germ cells or spermatogonia divide
(b) The sperm lysine in the acrosome dissolve the mitotically to yield primary spermatocyte which divides
egg envelope facilitating fertilization meiotically into secondary spermatocytes. Each of the
(c) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure secondary spermatocytes divides into two spermatids by
leading the sperm towards the ovum meiosis II. These develop into mature sperm cells.
(d) Acrosome serves no particular function The process of spermatogenesis is completed into five
AIPMT (Screening)-2010 stages -
Ans. (b) : Sperm lysin in the acrosome dissolve the egg (i) Spermatogonia
envelope facilitating fertilization. The acrosome is the (ii) Primary spermatocytes
small pointed structure at the tip of the nucleus it break (iii) Secondary spermatocytes
down just before fertilization, releasing hydrolytic
enzymes that assist in the penetration of follicle cells (iv) Spermatid
that surrounds the ovum thus facilitating fertilization. (v) Spermatozoa
158. Identify the cells represents as P,Q,R and S in • Niacin (B3) is a vitamin that forms a part of
the given schematic representation of coenzymes (NAD, NADP).
spermatogenesis. • Vitamin B7 (Biotin) acts as coenzyme in fatty acid
synthesis and in change of pyruvate to oxaloacetate.
161. In the diagram of section of Graafian follicle,
different parts are indicated by alphabets;
choose the answer in which these alphabets
have been correctly matched with the parts
they indicate.
(a) P - Primary Spermatocyte

Q - Secondary Spermatocyte
R - Spermatids
S - Spermatozoa
(b) P - Secondary Spermatocyte
Q - Primary Spermatocyte (a) A = Membrana graulosa; B = Theca interna;
R - Spermatozoa C = Ovum; D = Cumulus oophorus; E =
S - Spermatids Antrum; F = Theca externa.
(c) P - Spermatozoa (b) A = Theca externa; B = Theca interna; C =
Q - Spermatids Ovum; D = Membrana graulosa; E = Antrum;
R - Secondary Spermatocyte F = Cumulus oophorus.
S - Primary Spermatocyte (c) A = Theca externa; B = Theca interna; C =
(d) P - Secondary Spermatocyte Ovum; D = Cumulus oophorus; E = Antrum;
Q - Spermatids F = Membrana graulosa.
R - Spermatozoa (d) A = Membrana graulosa; B = Theca externa;
S - Primary Spermatocyte C = Ovum; D = Cumulus oophorus; E =
Antrum; F = Theca interna.
Karnataka CET-2019
Karnataka CET-2004
Ans. (a) : Spermatogenesis is the process of the
production of sperms from the immature germ cells. Ans. (c) : A = Theca externa; B = Theca interna; C =
Ovum; D = Cumulus oophorus; E = Antrum; F =
P- Primary spermatocyte Membrana granulosa.
Q- Secondary spermatocyte 162. Which option is correct for the region labelled
R- Spermatid as “p” and “q” in the given diagram?
S- Spermatozoa.
159. The number of chromosomes in a primary
spermatocyte is:
(a) same as in spermatid
(b) same as in spermatogonium
(c) helf of that in spermatogonium
(d) same as in secondary spermatocyte
JIPMER-2015 (a) p = Mitosis
Ans. (b) : Both spermatogonium and primary q = Primary Spermatocyte
spermatocyte are diploid cells. Spermatogonium is male (b) p = Meiosis
germinal cells present in seminiferous tubules. Thus q = Secondary Spermatocyte
these cells have 46 chromosomes. (c) p = Mitosis
160. Which set is similar : - q = Secondary Spermatocyte
(a) Corpus luteum – graafian follicles (d) p = Meiosis
(b) Sebum-sweat q = Primary Spermatocyte
(c) Bundle of his – Pace maker GUJCET-2014
(d) Vita B7 – Niacin Ans. (c) : The given figure in the question showing
AIPMT-2001 spermatogenesis in males occurs in three phases, i.e.
Ans. (a) : After ovulation many of the follicular cells multiplication phase, growth phase, maturation phase.
remain in the collapsed Graafian follicle on the surface Part A Spermatogonia or sperm mother cells are
of the ovary. The antrum (Cavity) of the collapsed proliferating by mitotic division inside the testis to form
follicle fills with a partially clotted fluid. primary spermatocytes.
• The follicular cells enlarge and fill with a yellow Part B the maturation phase where primary spermatocytes,
pigment, lutein. Such a follicle is called a corpus undergofirst meiotic division and produce secondary
luteum literally, yellow body sebum is secreted by spermatocytes, which further undergo secondary meiotic
sebaceous glands. SA node is known as pacemaker. division and produce spermatids.
163. When spermatogonia accumulates large 167. Vitellogenesis occurs during the formation of
amount of nutrient and chromatin material (a) Oogonial cell in the Graafian follicle
and increase in size, now it is known as_______. (b) Ootid in the fallopian tube
(a) Spermatids (b) Spermatogonium (c) Secondary oocyte in the fallopian tube
(c) Sperm (d) Primary spermatocytes (d) Primary oocyte in the Graafian follicle
GUJCET-2017 Karnataka CET-2009
Ans. (d) : Primary spermatocytes are diploid cells that Manipal-2009
undergo meiosis to produce haploid spermatids. Ans. (d) : Vitellogenesis occurs when the oocyte
Spermatids then further mature into spermatozoa (sperm reaches the diplotene stage of meiotic prophase.
cells.) Vitellogenesis occurs during the formation of primary
When spermatogonia accumulates large amount of oocyte in the Graafian follicle.
nutrient and chromatin material and increase in size, it Vitellogenesis is the process of production and
is known as primary spermatocytes. It periodically accumulation of yolk in a developing oocyte.
undergo meiosis and other remains and spermatogonia
cells. 168. In the absence of acrosome, the sperm---------.
(a) Cannot get energy
164. The process of conversion of non-motile (b) Cannot penetrate the egg
spermatids into motile spermatozoa is called
(c) Cannot swim
(a) Spermiogenesis (b) Oogenesis
(d) Cannot get food
(c) Sporogenesis (d) Spermatogenesis
Karnataka CET-2010
Tripura JEE-2019
Karnataka CET-2018 Ans. (b) : The acrosome is a cap-like structure that
covers the anterior parts of the sperm head. It contains
Ans. (a) : The process of conversion of immature non enzymes that help the sperm penetrate the zona
motile spermatid into motile spermatozoa is called pellucida, a protective layer that surrounds the egg. In
spermiogenesis. the absence of the acrosome, the sperm will not be able
Oogenesis:- It is the process by which haploid ova to penetrate the egg and therefore will not be able to
develops from the ovarian follicle by rupturing ovarian fertilize it.
wall.
169. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
Sporogenesis: It is the production of spore. division, the male germ cells differentiate into
Spermatogenesis: It is the process by which haploid the:
spermatozoa develop from germ cell in the seminiferous (a) Spermatids
tubule of the testis
(b) Spermatogonia
165. In humans, what is the ratio of number of (c) Primary spermatocytes
gametes produced from one male primary sex (d) Secondary spermatocytes
cell to the number of gametes produced from
one female primary sex cell? TS EAMCET-12.05.2017
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 AIPMT-2008
Karnataka CET-2014 Ans. (d) : In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
division, the male germ cells differentiate into
Ans. (d) : The 4 male gametes sperms are produced
secondary spermatocytes.
from one male primary sex cell and only 1 female
gamete ova is produced in one female primary sex cell. Secondary spermatocytes are haploid cells that result
Thus the ratio is 4:1. from the first meiotic division in the process of
spermatogenesis.
166. 2n = 16 in a primary spermatocyte which is in
metaphase of first meiotic division. What shall
be the total number of chromatids in each of
the secondary spermatocyte?
(a) 8 (b) 16
(c) 24 (d) 32
Karnataka CET-2009
Manipal-2009
Ans. (b) : Each primary spermatocyte has 2n
chromosomes, which means that it has 2n chromatids.
In this case, the primary spermatocyte has 16
chromosomes, which means that it has 16 chromatids.
During the first meiotic division, the homologous
chromosomes separate and migrate to opposite poles of
the cell. This results in the formation of two secondary
spermatocytes, each with n chromosomes. So, if there
are 16 chromosomes in 1º spermatocyte, the 2º
spermatocyte will have half of its number i.e. 8.
chromosome in each chromatids will be 8 × 2 = 16. Spermatogenesis in human male

170. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an (c) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
endocrine gland after ovulation ? efferentia → Epididymis → Urethra →
(a) Vitelline membrane Vagina of female
(b) Graafian follicle (d) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
(c) Stroma efferentia→Ejaculatry duct→Vagina of female
(d) Germinal epithelium AP EAMCET-06.09.2021 Shift-I
AIPMT-2007 Ans. (b): The passage of spermatozoa starts from
Ans. (b) : After ovulation, the Graafian follicle seminiferous tubules (site of the sperm production) →
Rete testes (It is a network of tubules that collects sperm
transforms in to the corpus luteum, which is a
from the seminiferous tubules) → Vasa efferentia
temporary endocrine gland that produces progesterone
(carries sperm form the rete testes to the epididymis) →
and estrogen. These hormones play a vital role in Epididymis (it is site where sperm mature and become
maintaining the lining of the uterus and preparing it for motile) → Vas deferens ( transport the sperm from the
implantation of a fertilized egg. If pregnancy does not epididymis to the ejaculatory duct) → Ejaculatory duct
occur, the corpus luteum degenerates and progesterone (carries sperms from vas deferens and seminal vesicles
levels drop, which triggers menstruation. to the urethra) → Urethra ( carries urine from the
bladder to the outside of the body) → Vagina of female.
173. The absence of sperm in seminal fluid is called
(a) Oligospermia (b) Azoospermia
(c) Phimosis (d) Absolute impotence
UP CPMT-2014
Ans. (b): The absence of sperm in seminal fluid is
called azoospermia, while presence of less number of
sperm is termed as oligospermia. Absolute impotence is
inability for sexual contact. Phimosis is actually the
condition where the foreskin of the penis is too tight and
cannot be retracted over the head of the penis.
174. Which of the following represents a condition
where the motility of the sperms is highly
reduced?
171. Acrosome is formed by (a) Oligospermia (b) Asthenospermia
(a) Nucleus (b) Golgi apparatus (c) Azoospermia (d) Polyspermy
(c) Mitochondria (d) None of these Karnataka CET-2006
VMMC-2013 / UP CPMT-2005 AMU-2006
Rajasthan PMT-1995 / AIIMS-1999
Ans. (b) : Asthenospermia is a condition where the
Ans. (b) : The acrosome is a structure forms by the motility of the sperms is highly reduced. Asthenopormia
Golgi apparatus in sperm cells. It contains enzymes is a very serious issue related to male infertility and may
(like hyaluronidase and acrosin) that help the sperm be cured by assisted reproductive technology (ART).
penetrate the egg during fertilization. Polyspermy occurs when the acolyte is penetrated by
more than one sperm. Oligospermia is a condition of
low sperm count. Azoospermia is the complete absence
of sperm in the ejaculate.
175. During a womans life time, she produces about:
(a) 40-50 eggs (b) 300-350 eggs
(c) 400-500 eggs (d) 750-850 eggs
• Mitochondria generate most of the cells supply of WB JEE-2006
ATP used as a source of chemical energy. Ans. (c) : During a woman's life time, she produces
• The nucleus control and regulates the activities of cell about 400-500 eggs. A women is born with all of the
egg, growth and metabolism and carries the genes, eggs she will ever produce which is about 2 million.
structures that contain the hereditary information However, only about 400-500 of these eggs will mature
172. Identify the complete and correct sequence in and be released during her life time. The rest eggs die
off before puberty or during the menstrual cycle. The
the passage of spermatozoa ? number of eggs a women has remaining decreases with
(a) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa age, and by the time she reached menopause, she will
efferentia → Vas deferens → Epididymis → have no eggs left.
Ejaculatory duct → Urethra 176. Which of the following is not a case of
(b) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa epimorphosis?
efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens (a) Formation of sperms from small clumps of
Ejaculatry duct → Urethra → Vagina of cells
female (b) Regeneration of tail in a lizard
(c) Replacement of severed arm in starfish 181. In human beings, if the spermatozoa are not
(d) Replacement of limb in salamander ejaculated, then _______.
Punjab MET-2009 / UP CPMT-2004 (a) They are inactivated within the seminal vesicles
Ans. (a) : Formation of sperms from small clumps of (b) They are permanently stored in cauda epididymis
cells is not a case of epimorphosis. (c) They are permanently stored in caput
Epimorphosis- Epimorphosis is defined as the epididymis
regeneration of a specific part of an organism in a way (d) They are re-absorbed in the vas deferens.
that involves extensive cell proliferation of somatic MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
stem cells, dedifferentiation, and reformation, as well as Ans. (d) : In human beings, if the spermatozoa are not
blastema formation. ejaculated, then they are re-absorbed in the vas
177. In human zygote, the male sex is determined by deferens.
whether 182. During gametogenesis, unequal cytoplasmic
(a) Mother gets good nutrition divisions take place in _______.
(b) Father is stronger than mother (a) Multiplication phase of oogenesis,
(c) Strength of male chromosome (b) Maturation phase of spermatogenesis
(d) Required composition of chromosomes (c) Multiplication phase of spermatogenesis
Punjab MET-1999 (d) Maturation phase of oogenesis
Ans. (d) : In human zygote, the male sex is determined MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
by the chromosome composition of the sperm.
Ans. (d) : During gametogenesis ,unequal cytoplasmic
Zygote is a eukaryotic cell formed by a fertilization event divisions take place in maturation phase of oogenesis.
between two gametes. Then zygote genome is a
combination of the DNA in each gamete, and contains all The gamete formed by oogenesis contains all the
of the genetic information of a new individual organism. materials needed to initiate and maintain metabolism
and development while the gamete formed by
178. Enzyme present in sperm acrosome to dissolve spermatogenesis is essentially a motile nucleus.
egg membrane is :
(a) Sperm lysin (b) Ovolysin 183. Usually at which pH, the human sperms
become motile?
(c) Spermatogenolysin (d) Spermatocymin
(a) 4.5 to 5.0 (b) 6.0 to 6.5
BCECE-2005
(c) 7.5 to 8.5 (d) 4.0 to 4.5
Ans. (a) : Enzyme present in sperm acrosome to
dissolve egg membrane is sperm lysine. MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
The vitelline coat sperm lysin is generally a protease in Ans. (b) : Usually, the human sperms become motile
deuterostomes. add 6.0 to 6.5 pH. The sperm becomes mature and fully
Spermatogenesis is the production of sperm from the motile in cauda epididymis.
primordial germ cells. 184. Which portion of human sperm contain
Spermatocymin:- it is a cell giving rise to sperm, enzymes?
especially, a cell that is derived from a spermatogonium (a) Neck (b) Middle piece
and ultimately gives rise to four haploid spermatids. (c) Tail (d) Acrosome
179. Spermatids are formed after the second meiotic UP CPMT-2012
division from secondary spermatocytes. The Ans. (d) : Acrosome portion of human sperm contain
ploidy of the secondary spermatocytes is enzymes. It is a unique membranous organelle located
(a) n (b) 2n over the anterior part of the sperm nucleus that is highly
(c) 3n (d) 4n conserved throughout evolution. This acidic vacuole
KVPY SB & SX-2015 contains a number of hydrolytic enzymes (lysin) that,
Ans. (a) : Spermatids are formed after the second when secreted, help the sperm penetrate the egg's coats.
meiotic division from secondary spermatocytes. The
ploidy of the secondary spermatocytes is haploid (n).
They contain half the number of chromosomes as a
diploid cell. The second meiotic division of secondary
spermatocytes produces four haploid spermatids.
Primary spermatocyte is 2n while secondary
spermatocyte and spermatids are haploid.
The sperm mid-piece is the part of the sperm tail closest
180. The ovum of human female has autosomes
to the head where the mitochondria are located. The
(a) 22 (b) 22 pairs
mitochondria provide the sperm with energy as they
(c) 23 pairs (d) 44 pairs
travel through the female reproductive tract.
Manipal-2011
Ans. (a) : The ovum of human female has 22 185. Which of the following undergoes spermiogenesis?
autosomes. The chromosomes are divided into two (a) Spermatids
groups, which are autosomes and sex chromosomes. (b) Spermatogonia
Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, which makes a (c) Primary spermatocytes
total of 46 chromosomes, in which 22 pairs are (d) Secondary spermatocytes
autosomes and 2 are sex chromosomes. Uttarakhand PMT-2004 / AMU-2005
Ans. (a) : Spermatids undergoes spermiogenesis. 188. The nuclear structure observed by Henkings in
It is the haploid male gamete that results from division 50% of the insect sperm after spermatogenesis
of secondary spermatocytes. As a result of meiosis, each was
spermatid contains only half of the genetic material (a) X body (b) Autosome
present in the original primary spermatocyte. (c) Y chromosome (d) Nucleolus
(e) Polar body
Kerala PMT-2015
Ans. (a) : The nuclear structure observed by Henking in
50% of the insect sperm after spermatogenesis was X
body. Henking was studying spermatocyte divisions of
the firebug (Pyrrhocoris apterus) and observed that one
chromosome behaved differently than all of the rest of
thes chromosomes. Henking called this chromosome
'Element X'.
189. Which of the following has haploid
chromosome?
(a) Oogonia
186. The anterior portion of the sperm head which
is covered by a cap-like structure called (b) Primary oocyte
(a) Acrosome (b) Antrum (c) Secondary oocyte
(c) Sertoli cells (d) Enzymes (d) Primary spermatocyte
J&K CET-2014 Rajasthan PMT-1998
Ans. (a) : The anterior portion of the sperm head which Ans. (c) : Secondary oocytes has haploid
is covered by a cap-like structure called acrosome. chromosomes. Secondary oocytes are the immature
The acrosome contains enzymes that are essential for ovum shortly after ovulation, to fertilization, where it
fertilization. These enzymes help the sperm penetrate turns into an ootid. Thus, the time as a secondary oocyte
the protective layers of the egg during fertilization is measured in days. The secondary oocyte is the largest
facilitating the fusion of the sperm and egg nuclei. cell in the body, and in humans is just visible to the
naked eye.
The primary oocytes are produced during the embryonic
stage by oogenesis.
Oogonia are female gamete mother cells, which are
diploid cells.
190. Which activity occurs first during the
development of an egg ?
(a) Induction (b) Differential growth
(c) Polarity (d) Gastrulation
Rajasthan PMT-1998
Ans. (c) : Polarity takes place first during the
development of an egg.
Polarity establishes the initial orientation and axis of the
embryo, setting the stage for subsequent development
processes like induction, differential growth and
gastrulation.
Antrum is a general term for a cavity or chamber, which
may have specific meaning in reference to certain Polarity is crucial for proper embryonic development, as
organs or sites in the body. it determines where different structures will form and
helps guide the overall organization of the embryo.
187. Each secondary spermatocyte after second
meiotic division produces 191. How many sperms are formed by four primary
(a) Four haploid spermatids spermatocyte :
(b) Only one haploid spermatid (a) 1 (b) 4
(c) Two haploid spermatids (c) 16 (d) 32
(d) Two diploid spermatids JIPMER-2006
(e) Four diploid spermatids MGIMS Wardha-2005
Kerala PMT-2015 Ans. (c) : Primary sex organs - the testes in the males
Ans. (c) : Each secondary spermatocyte after second and ovaries in the females produce gametes i.e. sperm
meiotic division produces two haploid spermatids. and ovum, respectively by the process called
Spermatids undergo cell differentiation and produce gametogenesis. In testes the immature male germ cells
sperms. Spermatogenesis is the process of formation of (spermatogonia) produce 4 spermatozoa are produced
sperm from spermatogonia in the testes of males and from a primary spermatocyte therefore 16 spermatozoa
starts at puberty. will be formed from 4 primary spermatocyte.
192. Polar bodies are produced during the Ans. (a) : Fertilizin is a chemical substance, it is a
formation of glycoprotein produced by human eggs (oocytes) and
(a) sperm (b) oogonium plays a role in the process of fertilization. It is involved
(c) spermatocytes (d) secondary oocyte in sperm egg binding and fusion, facilitating the initial
CMC Vellore-2014 / UP CPMT-2001 stages of embryo development.
Punjab MET-1999 196. How many ova and sperms would be produced
Ans. (d) : Polar bodies are produced during the from 100 secondary oocytes and 100 secondary
formation of secondary oocyte. spermatocytes during gametogenesis in humans?
A polar body is a small haploid cell that simultaneously (a) 200 ova, 200 sperms
forms as an egg during oogenesis, but which usually (b) 50 ova, 100 sperms
does not have the ability to be fertilized. (c) 100 ova, 200 sperms
(d) 100 ova, 100 sperms
JIPMER-2001
Ans. (c) : 100 ova, 200 sperms would be produced from
100 secondary oocytes and 100 secondary
spermatocytes during gametogenesis in humans.
197. Enzyme hyaluronidase is synthesised in
(a) Tail of sperm
(b) Head of sperm
(c) Golgi body of acrosome
(d) Mitochondria of acrosome
Manipal-2013
Ans. (c) : Enzyme hyaluronidase is synthesized in golgi
body of acrosome. It breaks down a substance in the
body called hyaluronic acid.
193. In spermatogenesis the phase of maturation Hyaluronic acid is found throughout the body in
involves: connective tissue, skin, and fluids in the joints and
(a) The growth of spermatogonia into primary inside the eye. It causes fluids to have a jelly-like
spermatocyte thickness, which can help moisten and protect tissues
(b) The formation of spermatogonia from and joints.
gonocytes through mitosis 198. The Leydig cells found in the human body are
(c) The formation of spermatids from primary the secretary source of
spermatocytes through meiosis (a) Glucagon (b) Androgens
(d) The formation of oogonia from the (c) Progesterone (d) Intestinal mucus
spermatocytes through meiosis J&K CET-2015
Karnataka CET-2003 Ans. (b) : The Leydig cells found in the human body
Ans. (c) : In spermatogenesis the phase of maturation are the secretary source of androgens.
involves the formation of spermatids from primary Androgens are a group of sex hormones. They help start
spermatocytes through meiosis. puberty and play a role in reproductive health and body
194. Which of the following statements is wrong in development.
respect of viability of mammalian sperm? Glucagon is a peptide hormone and plays an important
(a) Sperm is viable only up to 24 h. role in maintaining the normal blood glucose levels.
(b) Survival of sperm depends on pH of medium. Ovary produces two groups of steroid hormones called
(c) Viability is determined by its motility. estrogen and progesterone.
(d) Sperm must be concentrated in a thick Progesterone supports pregnancy also acts on mammary
suspension. glands and stimulates the formation of alveoli and milk
Manipal-2015 / AIPMT (Screening)-2012 secretion.
Ans. (d) : the statement that sperm is viable only up to 199. Middle piece of sperm contains :
24 hours is incorrect. Mammalian sperm can several (a) Mitochondria, Golgi bodies, centriole
days, even up to 72 hours. in the female reproductive (b) Axial filament, centriole, Golgi bodies
tract. This is because the female reproductive tract (c) Mitochondria, centriole, axial filament
provides an ideal environment for sperm survival, with (d) Golgi bodies, axial filament, centriole
a warm temperature and a slightly alkaline pH. CMC Vellore-2010/ J&K CET-2006
195. Fertilizin is a chemical substance produced from Ans. (c) : Middle piece of sperm contains mitochondria,
(a) Mature eggs (ovum) centriole, axial filament.
(b) Acrosome
(c) Polar bodies
(d) Middle piece of sperm
Manipal-2015 / CMC Ludhiana-2008
AMU-2006 / AIPMT-1997, 1991
200. Polar bodies are formed during Ans. (c) : Cleavage is likely to be affected if the
(a) Oviposition (b) Oogenesis proximal centriole of the mature sperm is destroyed.
(c) Fertilization (d) Sperm to genesis Cleavage refers to the early cell divisions that occur as a
CG PMT-2006 fertilized egg begins to develop into an embryo.
Ans. (b) : Polar bodies are formed during oogenesis. Sperm motility is the ability of sperm to move or swim
Oviposition is the expulsion of the egg from the oviduct to efficiently through the female partner's reproductive
the external environment and is a common phenomenon in system in order to fertilize an egg.
vertebrates other than eutherian mammals. 205. The process of release of mature spermatids
201. How many chromosomes are usually found in from Sertoli cells into the seminiferous tubule
the human secondary oocyte ? lumen is called
(a) 22 (b) 44 (a) Spermatogenesis (b) Spermiogenesis
(c) 46 (d) 23 (c) Spermiation (d) Spermatogonium
MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I / JIPMER-2019 Tripura JEE-2022
VMMC-2002 / Rajasthan PMT-2001 Ans. (c) : The process of release of mature spermatids
Ans. (d) : 23 chromosomes are usually found in the from Sertoli cells into the seminiferous tubule lumen is
human secondary oocyte. Primary oocyte is a diploid called spermiation. It is considered as the process by
stage which undergoes meiosis to give rise to secondary which mature spermatids are released from Sertoli cells
oocyte and a polar body and this division leads to into the seminiferous tubules lumen prior to their
reduction in the number of chromosomes in the passage to the epididymis.
secondary oocyte. Spermiogenesis is a second phase of spermatogenesis
during which the spermatids produced at the end of first
phase are metamorphosed into sperm cells. The
spermatid is a typical cell containing a nucleus and
cytoplasmic organelles such as mitochondria golgi
bodies centriole etc but the nucleus only contain haploid
number of chromosomes.
206. What is present in the middle piece of sperm?
(a) Acrosome (b) Mitochondria
(c) Nucleus (d) Proximal centriole
AFMC-2010
202. In human beings, how much quantity of semen
is contributed by the prostate gland? Ans. (b) : Mitochondria is present in the middle piece
of sperm.
(a) 60% (b) 30%
(c) 80% (d) 10%
MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I / MHT-2017
Ans. (b) : 30% of semen is contributed by the prostate
gland. Two-thirds of the ejaculate volume is contributed
by the seminal vesicles, up to 10% is derived from the
testicle and epididymis, and a small component is
derived from the bulbo-urethral glands. 207. Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is
203. Which of the following is the actual genetic (a) Corona radiata, zona pellucida and vitelline
part of sperm? membrane
(a) Tail (b) Head (b) Zona pellucida, corona radiata and vitelline
(c) Whole of it (d) Middle piece membrane
VMMC-2010 (c) Vitelline membrane, zona pellucida and
Ans. (b) : Head is the actual genetic part of sperm. corona radiata
The head of the sperm contains the DNA, which when (d) Zona pellucida, vitelline membrane and
combined with the egg's DNA, will create a new corona radiata
individual. BCECE-2008 / UP CPMT-2007
The tip of the sperm head is the portion called the Ans. (a) : Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is
acrosome, which enables the sperm to penetrate the egg. Corona radiata, zona pellucida and vitelline membrane.
The mid piece contains the mitochondria which supplies 208. Cytoplasm surrounding mitochondria present
the energy the tail needs to move. in the middle piece of sperm is:
204. If the proximal centriole of the mature sperm is (a) Manchette (b) Centroplasm
destroyed, which of the following is likely to be (c) Microplasm (d) Acrosome
affected? Manipal-2006
(a) Motility (b) Fertilization Ans. (c) : Cytoplasm surrounding mitochondria present
(c) Cleavage (d) None of these in the middle piece of sperm is microplasm.
VMMC-2015 Centroplasm is cytoplasm that surrounds centrosome.
The acrosome is a unique membranous organelle
located over the anterior part of the sperm nucleus that
is highly conserved throughout evolution.
The manchette is a microtubular-based temporary
structure responsible in sperm cell elongation.
209. In human beings, the largest cell formed during
oogenesis is _____.
(a) Secondary oocyte (b) 1st polar body
(c) Primordial cell (d) Oogonium
Ans. (a) : In human beings, the largest cell formed “Route of sperm from the testis to the exterior”
during oogenesis is ‘secondary oocyte’. The smaller cell Hence, the correct option is (c).
is called the first polar body, and the largest cell is
referred to as the secondary oocyte. It is a functional 212. A gamete normally contains
egg- formed at end of meiosis. It is formed before (a) Many alleles of a gene
fertilization. The secondary oocyte divides further by (b) All alleles of a gene
meiosis to form an ovum and a second polar body. (c) Two alleles of a gene
(d) One allele of a gene
UP CPMT-2013
Ans. (d) : A gamete normally contains one allele of a
gene. Gametes, which are reproductive cells (sperm and
egg cells), typically contain only one allele of a gene,
This is due to the process of meiosis, where the
chromosomes are separated, ensuring genetic diversity
'Structure of Secondary Oocyte' in offspring.
210. The corona radiata present around the female Hence, option (d) is a correct answer.
gamete is made up of ______ 213. Given below are two statements:
(a) Granulosa cells Statement I : The release of sperms into the
(b) Cortical cells of ovary seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
(c) Cells of theca externa Statement II : Spermiogenesis is the process of
(d) Cells of theca interna formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I In the light of the above statements, choose the
Ans. (a) : The corona radiata present around the female most appropriate answer from the options
gamete is made up of granulosa cells. It consists of given below :
granulosa cells whose microvilli penetrate the zona pellucida (a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
and form gap functions with oocyte microvilli. These cells correct
help together by a matrix of hyaluronic acid. Hence, the (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
correct option is (a). The main function of granulosa cells (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are
include the production of steroids and LH receptors. incorrect
211. Choose the correct sequence of transport at (d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
sperms in human from somniferous tubules is : incorrect
(a) Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Epididymis NEET-2022
→ Vas deferens Ans. (d) : The transformation of spermatids into
(b) Rete testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia spermatozoa (sperms) are called spermiogenesis. After
→ Vas deferens this sperm head becomes embedded in the sertoli cells
(c) Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis and are finally released from the seminiferous tubules
by the process called spermiation. Hence, statement I is
→ Vas deferens
a correct statement. Spermatogenesis is the process of
(d) Vas deferens → Vasa efferentia → Epidiymis formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
→ Rete testis So, the statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
GUJCET-2023
214. Which of the following statements are true for
Ans. (c) : The correct sequence of transport of sperms spermatogenesis but do not hold true for
in human from seminiferous tubules is :-
Oogenesis?
seminiferous tubulis
(A) It results in the formation of haploid
↓ gametes
Rete testis
(B) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the
↓ completion of meiosis
Vasa efferentia (C) Meiosis occurs continuously in a
↓ mitotically dividing stem cell population
Epididymis (D) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone
↓ (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone
Vas deferens (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary
(E) It is initiated at puberty Ans. (d) : The role of sertoli cells in spermatogenesis is
Choose the most appropriate answer from the to provide nutrition to developing sperm, they direct
options given below: morphogenesis of sperm. Sertoli cells regulate
(a) (B), (C) and (E) only cholesterol metabolism at the time of spermatogenesis.
(b) (C) and (E) only They help in the movement of spermatozoa by secreting
(c) (B) and (C) only fluids.
(d) (B), (D) and (E) only 218. The chemical substance released by activated
NEET-2022 spermatozoa that acts on the ground
substances of the follicle cells is known as
Ans. (a) : In both spermatogenesis and Oogenesis
haploid gametes are formed so (a) is true for both. (a) Progesterone (b) Hyaluronidase
(c) Relaxin (d) Gonadotropin
• The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa
(sperm) by the process called spermiogenesis. Hence (e) Teratogen
(b) is true for spermatogenesis only. Kerala PMT-2009
• Spermatogenesis and Oogenesis both are controlled Ans. (b) : The chemical substances released by
by LH and FSH secreted by the anterior pituitary. activated spermatozoa that acts on the ground
Hence (d) is true for both. substances of the follicle cells is known as
• Spermatogenesis is a continuous process that begins ‘hyaluroenidase’. The acrosome of sperm contains large
at puberty. So (e) is true for spermatogenesis, quantities of proteolytic enzymes, particularly
Oogenesis on the other hard beings during hyaluronidase which digest the hyaluronic acid a
constituent of the extracellular matrix. Hyaluronidase
embryonic development of the female.
enzymes present on the surface of the sperm helps
Hence, option (b), (c) and (e) are true for sperm to enter into the ova through the layer of
spermatogenesis but do not hold true for oogenesis. granulosa cells.
215. The formation of egg and sperm is affected by 219. In the given diagram of human sperm, identify
(a) LH (b) MH the functions of the labelled parts. a,b and c.
(c) TSH (d) FSH
UP CPMT-2003
Ans. (d) : The formation of egg and sperm is affected
by FSH. In male the FSH is regulated by the levels of
testosterone when the level of testosterone rises, it is
sensed by the nerve cell in the hypothalamus so that
gonadotropin releasing hormone secretion and
consequently follicle stimulating hormone is reduced.
FSH is extremely essential to pubertal development and
the function of sex organ in both men and women.
216. The secondary spermatocytes of human are
(a) Haploid (b) Diploid (a) a → Helps in penetration of sperm into ovum
(c) Triploid (d) None of above b → Helps in movement of sperm
Tripura JEE-2017 c → Provides energy for the movement of
sperms into the female reproductive tract
Ans. (a) : The secondary spermatocytes of human are
haploid. Secondary spermatocytes are haploid (N) cells (b) a → Helps in penetration of sperm into ovum
that contain half the number of chromosomes. The b → Provides energy for the movement of
spermatocyte is of two types, the primary spermatocyte sperm
and the secondary spermatocyte. The primary c → Helps in movement of sperm
spermatocyte has a diploid set of chromosomes, then it (c) a → Helps in movement of sperm
undergoes the process of division through meiosis I and b → Helps in penetration of sperm into ovum
forms two secondary spermatocytes. These secondary c → Provides energy for the movement of
spermatocytes have a haploid set of chromosomes. The sperm
secondary spermatocytes are haploid in nature and (d) a → Provides energy for the movement of
contain half the number of chromosome present in the sperm
primary spermatocyte. Hence Option (a) is a correct
b → Helps in movement of sperm
answer.
c → Helps in penetration of sperm into ovum
217. Which of the following has a role of Sertoli cells Karnataka CET-2021
in Spermatogenesis?
(a) They provide nutrition to the developing Ans. (b) : In the given diagram of human sperms, the
sperms. function of the labelled parts of a is helps in penetration
(b) They stimulate germinal epithelium. of sperm into ovum, that is a ‘Acrosome’. b → provide
(c) They direct morphogenesis of sperm. energy for the movement of sperm. That is a ‘middle
piece’.
(d) They provide nutrition to developing sperm;
they direct morphogenesis of sperm. c→ Helps in movement of sperm. That is a ‘Tail’.
GUJCET-2008 (b) → regarding to its functions.
correct option :
Column - I Column – II
A. Ovary i. Human chorionic
Gonadotropin
B. Placenta ii. Estrogen &
Progesterone
C. Corpus luteum iii. Androgens
D. Leydig cells iv. Progesterone only
(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii) Once the sperm enter the ovum it allows the secondary
(b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) oocyte to meiotic split.
(c) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) The sperm entry causes a breakdown of the metaphase
promoting factor, and then the sperm enters
(d) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv) fertilization.
NEET-2020 Phase-II
• The purpose polar body formation is to conserve
Ans. (a) : (a) Ovary : (ii) Estrogen & progesterone cytoplasm for the oocyte.
(b) Placenta :- (i) Human chorionic Gonadotropin. 223. What is the correct sequence of sperm
(c) Corpus luteum :- (iv) progesterone only. formation?
(d) Leydig cell :- (iii) Androgens. (a) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid,
Glucagon is a peptide hormone and plays an important spermatozoa
role in maintaining the normal blood glucose levels. (b) Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia,
Ovary produces two groups of steroid hormones called spermatozoa
estrogen and progesterone. (c) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatozoa,
Progesterone supports pregnancy also acts on mammary spermatid
glands and stimulates the formation of alveoli and milk (d) Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocyte,
secretion. spermatid
Estrogen produced wide ranging actions such as NEET-2013
stimulation of growth and activates of female secondary Ans. (a) : The sequence of cell in spermatogenesis →
sex organs, development of growing ovarian follicle Primary Spermatocytes → Secondary Spermatocytes
mammary gland development. Estrogen also regulate → Spermatids → Sperm
female sexual behavior.
221. Select the correct option of haploid cells from
the following groups:
(a) Primary spermatocyle, Secondary
spermatocyte, Second polar body
(b) Primary oocyte, Secondary oocyte, Spermatid
(c) Secondary spermatocyte, First polar body, Spermatogenesis can be divided into 4 succesive stage-
Ovum Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid and
(d) Spermatogonia, Primary spermatocyte, spermatozoa.
Spermatid 224. Which of the following is true regarding sperm?
NEET-2020 Phase-II (a) Fertilizin : for penetrating egg membrane
Ans. (c) : Haploid cells have a single set of (b) Hyaluronidase : for penetrating egg membrane
chromosome where as diploid cells have two sets of (c) Acrosin : dissolves corona radiata
chromosome. (d) Capacitation : takes place in penis
Some of the spermatogonia called primary spermatocyte AIIMS-2007
periodically undergo meiosis. A primary spermatocyte Ans. (b) : The acrosomal enzyme, hyaluronidase, has
complete the first meiotic division leading to formation been thought to aid sperm in penetrating the cumulus
of equal haploid cells called secondary spermatocyte, layer and corona radiata. Several recent investigations,
which have only 23 chromosomes each. including one that shows that motile cells lacking
222. Extrusion of second polar body from egg hyaluronidase can penetrate to the zona surface, do not
nucleus occurs : support this idea.
(a) After fertilization
(b) Before entry of sperm into ovum
(c) Simultaneously with first cleavage
(d) After entry of sperm but before fertilization
NEET-2019
Ans. (d) : Extrusion of second polar body from egg
nucleus occur after entry of sperm but before Sperm cell penetrating secondary oocyte
fertilization. The acrosome reaction
• The acrosome 228. In human beings, the eggs are
vesicle fuses with (a) Mesolecithal (b) Alecithal
the sperm plasma (c) Microlecithal (d) Macrolecithal
membrane and AIPMT-1997
releases protease Ans. (b) : The human egg is alecithal means it is totally
enzyme the digest devoid of yolk hence, the human zygote gets implanted
a path through the in the uterus of female and the egg or zygote is not laid.
zona pellucida by Microlecithal egg - These are small sized egg
softening the containing less or negligible amount of yolk than the
layers of cells amount of cytoplasm e.g. eggs of hydra, sea urchin,
surrounding the Amphioxus, Tunicates.
oocyte.
Mesolecithal egg - If amount of yolk is moderate in
• A fine needle-like egg, these are named as mesolecithal eggs e.g. eggs of
filament develops amphibia, dipnoi and petromyzon.
at the tip of the sperm which pierces the softened Macrolecithal egg - This type of egg contain large
membrane of the ovum. amount of yolk several time greater than cytoplasm e.g.
225. Number of chromosomes present in reptiles, birds, prototheria.
spermatogonium is 229. A cross section at the midpoint of the middle
(a) 46 (b) 23 piece of a human sperm will show
(c) 48 (d) 43 (a) Centriole, mitochondria and 9 + 2
JIPMER-2019 arrangement of microtubules
Ans. (a) : Spermatogonia are diploid cells each with (b) Centriole and mitochondria
(46) chromosomes (23) pairs located around the (c) Mitochondria and 9 + 2 arrangement of
periphery of the seminiferous tubules. Spermatogonia microtubules
are a heterogeneous group of proliferative cells in the (d) 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules only.
testis that are the precursor cells for mature sperm. AIIMS-2005
Some of the spermatogonia called ‘primary
spermatocytes’ periodically undergo meiosis. Ans. (c) : Since sperm contain mitochondria in the body
Spermatogonia are diploid cells that have (46) region also. So, if cross section is being taken from the
chromosomes. There fore the spermatids will have (23) middle piece of the sperm of human then we will get
chromesomes. mitochondria and show 9 + 2 arrangement of
microtubules.
226. Which one of the labelled part utilises fructose
as a source of energy?
(a) Head (b) Tail

(c) Acrosome (d) Middle piece
JIPMER-2019 230. How many sperms are formed from a
Ans. (d) : • Middle piece of the labeled part utilises secondary spermatocyte?
fructose as a source of energy. (a) 4 (b) 8
• The sperm mid-piece is the part of the sperm where (c) 2 (d) 1
the mitochondria are located. They travel through the AIIMS-2008
female reproductive tract for which mitochondria AIPMT-1990
provide the sperm with energy.
Ans. (c) : Spermatogonia are diploid cells which mature
227. In telolecithal egg the yolk is found into primary spermatocytes (2n) by growth. They then
(a) All over the egg (b) On one side produce two haploid secondary spermatocytes by
(c) Both the sides (d) Centre meiosis I. Each secondary spermatocyte (n) completes
AIPMT-1993 the meiosis II and produces two spermatids (n). Each
Ans. (b) : The yolk is contained in the telolecithal egg spermatid (n) develops into a spermatozoan or sperm
on one pole of the egg i.e, on one side (Vegetal pole). (n).
The egg normally contains two opposite poles, one of But both secondary spermatocytes are now going
which is the animal pole and the other is the vegetal through a second maturation division, which is a normal
pole. mitotic division to produce four haploid spermatids.
233. An axial filament in the tail of sperm is
modified____.
(a) Distal centriole
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Golgi complex
(d) Proximal centriole
MHT CET-2017
Ans. (a) : An axial filament in the tail of sperm is
modified in distal centriole. The function of the distal
centriole is to form the axial filament. The centriole
help in cell division after fertilization. The axial
filament is prefer term for the tail, in which it helps the
231. On the fourteenth day of the menstrual cycle sperm to travel to the ovum.
the female gamete released is____
(a) Secondary oocyte (b) Primary oocyte
(c) Oogonuim (d) Mature ovum
MHT CET-2019
Ans. (a) : On the fourteenth day of the menstrual cycle
the female gamete released is ‘secondary oocyte’.
Around day (14) (in a 28-day cycle), hormones cause “Structure of Sperm”
the mature follicle to burst and release an egg from the 234. Statement I: During spermatogenesis, the
ovary, a process called ovulation. Ovulation is a phase sperm heads embedded in sertoli cells are
in the menstrual cycle when your ovary releases an egg finally released from the seminiferous tubules
(ovum). Once an egg leaves your ovary, it travels down by the process spermiogenesis.
your fallopian tube where it waits to be fertilized by
Statement II: The mature follicle called
sperm. At the time of fusion of sperm with the
Graafian follicle contains secondary oocyte.
secondary oocyte, the secondary oocyte completes
meiosis ii and gives an ovum and 2nd polar bodies. Thus The correct option among the following is
it is clear that at the time of ovulation, the secondary (a) Statement I and II are true
oocyte is released from the ovary. (b) Statement I and II are false
(c) Statement I is true. But II is false
(d) Statement I is false. But II is true.
Ans. (d) : This statement first is false because sperm are
also known as spermatozoa. After spermiogenesis, the
sperm heads become embedded in the sertoli cells, and
are finally released from the seminiferous tubules by the
process called spermiation not spermiogenesis.
Statement IInd:- The mature follicle called Graafian
follicle contains secondary oocyte. This statement is
true. The mature ovarian follicle is known as the
graafian follicle. It develops from a tertiary follicle. It
contains secondary oocytes arrested in metaphose 2nd
'How to Menstruation Cycle Work' Hence, the option (d) is a correct answer. Because the
232. The termination of process of oogenesis is statement I is false and II is true.
indicated by formation of____ 235. Which one of the following character favours
(a) Secondary oocyte (b) First polar body the process of normal spermatogenesis in
(c) Second polar body (d) Perivitelline space human male?
MHT CET-2018 (a) Descent of testes into scrotum
Ans. (c) : The termination of process of oogenesis is (b) Testes remain in the abdominal cavity
indicated by formation of ‘second polar body’. (c) Infection by mumps virus during childhood
(d) Increased scrotal temperature
Karnataka CET-2017
Ans. (a) : ‘Descent of testis into scrotum’ is favours the
process of normal spermatogenesis in human male.
236. Mitochondria in middle piece of sperm is
called:
Spermatogenesis is the process by which haploid (a) Ring centriole (b) Lipochondria
spermatozoa (sperm) develop from germ cells in the (c) chondriosome (d) Microbodies
seminiferous tubules of the testis. JIPMER-2002
Ans. (c) : Mitocondria in middle piece of sperm are (c) Secondary spermatocytes and spermatogonia
called chondriosomes because they are arranged in (d) Secondary spermatocytes and secondary
helical manner around the axoneme of flagellum. oocytes
Chondriosomes provides energy for sperm motility and AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-II
fertilization. Ans. (b) : During gametogenesis Meiosis I occur in
‘primary spermatocytes’ and primary oocytes’.
spermatogonium are diploid and contains (46)
chromosome some of the spermatogonia called ‘primary
spermotocytes’ periodically undergo meiosis. A primary
spermatocyte completes its first meiotic division and
then it forms two equal haploid cells called secondary
spermatocyte which has only (23) n chromosomes each.
240. Primary spermatocyte differs from
spermatogonium in
'Presence of Mitochondriya in Sperm' (a) number of chromosomes
237. Oogenesis is the process for the formation of (b) size and volume
(a) red blood cells (b) sperms (c) DNA content
(c) ova (d) sperms and ova (d) size of chromosomes
CG PMT-2005 DUMET-2011
Ans. (c) : Oogenesis is the process for the formation of Ans. (b) : Primary spermatocyte differs from
‘ova’. This process is known as oogenesis in which the spermatogonium in size and volume. The primary
female gamete is produced. spermatocytes accumulate a large amount of nutrients
and increases in size therefore, primary spermatocyte
differ from the spermatogonium in terms of size and
volume. Spermatogonium has the same number of
chromosome as that of the primary spermatocyte
because spermatogenium has undergone mitotic
division to from the primary spermatocyte. The DNA
content and the size of the chromosome will be the
same in both.
241. The number of autosomes in human primary
spermatocyte is
‘Oogenesis’ (a) 46 (b) 44
238. In a sperm, the mitochondria occur (c) 23 (d) 22
(a) in tail (b) in acrosome DUMET-2011
(c) in middle piece (d) in head Ans. (b) : The number of autosomes in human primary
CG PMT-2005 spermatocytes is (44). Primary spermatocytes are
Ans. (c) : In a sperm, the mitochondria are found ‘in diploid (2n) cells containing 46 chromosomes. Human
middle piece’. The middle piece containing have 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex
mitochondria is responsible for supplying energy for the chromosomes XX or XY. Primary spermatocytes are
movment of sperm. The middle piece usually takes
about 10% of the total length in the center of sperm. diploid whereas secondary are haploid (n).
242. Read the following and identify the mismatch
pair
(a) Capacitation - Changes in spermatozoa
(b) Compaction - Contraction of ova
(c) Menarche - The first menstruation
(d) Amphimixs - Fusion of gametic pro nuclei
Ans. (b) : After reading the following, (b) option is a
mismatch pair.
(1) Capacitation : - It refers to the biochemical and
physiological changes that occur in the spermatozoa.
“Mitochondria position in sperm” (2)-Compaction : - It is not a contraction of ova.
239. During gametogenesis Meiosis I occur in ———— (3)- Menarche : - It is a first menstrual period in a
(a) Secondary spermatocytes and primary female adolescent.
spermatocytes (4):- Amphimixs : - It is a fusion of pronuclei from male
(b) Primary spermatocytes and primary oocytes and female gametes.
243. Identify the correct sequence of passage of • Human spermatids are haploid after two rounds of
spermatozoa in males. meiotic division.
(i) Rete testis • Oogonia is a diploid cells, but its formed by mitosis
(ii) Epididymis not meiosis.
(iii) Urethra 245. Assertion (A) : Secondary spermatocytes are
(iv) Vas deferens haploid.
(v) Seminiferous tubules Reason (R) : They are formed from primary
(vi) Vas efferentia spermatocytes after meiosis I.
(vii) Ejaculatory duct The correct option among the following is
(viii) Urethral meatus (a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct
(a) i → ii → iv → v → iii → vi → vii → viii explanation for (A)
(b) v → i → vi → ii → iv → vii → iii → viii (b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the
(c) v → iii → i → iv → ii → vii → vi → viii
(d) iv → ii → i → iii → vi → v → vii → viii (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-I TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-I
Ans. (b) : Spermatogenesis is the process by which Ans. (a) : Here, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
haploid spermatozoa (sperm) develop from germ cells true, secondary spermatocytes are haploid (N) cells that
in the seminiferous tubules of the testis. contain half the number of chromosomes. The primary
The correct sequence of passage of spermatozoa in spermatocytes has a diploid set of chromosomes, then it
males is : - undergoes the process of division through meiosis I and
Seminiferous tubules forms two secondary spermatocytes. These secondary
↓ spermatocytes have a diploid set of chromosomes.
Rate testis Secondary spermatocytes are formed from primary
↓ spermatocytes after meiosis I. Hence, the option (a) is a
Vas efferentia correct answer.
↓ 246. Study the following with regard to
Epididymis spermatogenesis
↓ (A) Spermatogonia
Vas deferens (B) Secondary spermatocyte
↓ (C) Spermatogonial stem cells
Ejaculatory duct (D) Primary spermatocyte
↓ (E) Spermatid
urethra Arrange them in the correct sequence
(a) C-D-B-A-E (b) C-A-D-B-E
↓
(c) A-B-C-D-E (d) C-D-A-B-E
urethral meatus
AP EAMCET-2016
It is the correct pathway of spermatozoa in males.
Ans. (b) : After study the following points with regard
244. Study the following to spermatogenesis, the correct sequence of the
S. NO. Cell Formed State spermatogenesis is : -
by spermatogonial stem cells
I Spermatogoni Mitosis Diploid ↓
a spermatogenia
II Spermatid Meiosis I Haploid ↓
III Oogonia Meiosis Diploid primary oocyte (2n)
IV Secondary Meiosis I Haploid ↓
oocyte Secondary oocyte (n)
Among the above, correct combination are ↓
(a) I, II (b) II, III spermatid
(c) III, IV (d) I, IV
247. Which of the following is a diploid cell?
(a) spermatid
Ans. (d) : After read the table properly, among the
(b) secondary spermatocyte
following, option (d) is a appropriate combination.
According to the option (d) I, and IV point are a (c) spermatogonium
correctly pair to each other. (d) spermatozoa
• Spermatogonia are diploid cells, each with 46 BCECE-2015
chromosomes. It undergo the mitotic division to give Ans. (c) : ‘Spermatogonium’ is a diploid cell.
rise to primary spermatocytes. spermatogonia are a heterogeneous group of
• Secondary oocytes are product of meiosis I proliferative cells in the testis that are the precursor
secondary oocytes are haploids. cells for mature sperm. Spermatogonia are diploid cells,
each with 46 chromosomes (23) pairs located around Ans. (b) : Process of maturation and development of
the periphery of the seminiferous tubules. sperms is called ‘spermatogenesis’. It is the process by
which functional sperm cells are produced in the testis
spermatogenesis is the process in which spermatozoa
are produced from male primordial germs cells by way
of mitosis and meiosis. It consists of spermatogonia,
primary spermatocytes, secondary spermatocytes,
spermatids and spermatozoa.
'Spermatogenesis'
248. When released from ovary, human egg contain
(a) One Y chromosome
(b) Two X chromosome
(c) One X chromosome
(d) XY chromosome
JCECE-2007 / AMU-2001 /AIPMT-1991
Ans. (c) : When released from ovary, human egg
'Spermatogenesis'
contain ‘one X chromosome’, the egg is produced in the
ovaries by the process of oogenesis. It is a type of 251. Gametogenesis refers to the process of
gametogenesis. It is the process of divisions of diploid (a) fusion of two gametes
cell (2n) to produce new haploid cells (n). The human (b) fusion of two gametangia
egg contain 23 chromosomes. The X and Y (c) formation of two types of gametes
chromosomes are called the sex chromosomes. Females (d) formation of male gamete only
have two X chromosomes in a cell. Hence, egg released AMU-2014
from the ovary, the human egg on contain one X Ans. (c) : Gametogenesis refers to the process of
chromosome. formation of two types of gametes. It is the process of
249. During oogenis, the small structure separated division of diploid cells to produce new haploid cells. In
from egg is: humans, two different type of gametes are present male
(a) polar bodies (b) secondary endosperm gametes are called sperm and female gametes are called
(c) herring bodies (d) Hela cells the ovum. Formation of any type of gamete, whether
JCECE-2006 male or female is collectively known as gametogenesis.
Ans. (a) : During oogenesis, the small structure separated 252. Spermatogenesis changes
from egg is ‘polar bodies’. It is a small haploid cell with (a) spermatogonium to primary spermatocyte
small cytoplasm content is formed during oogenesis. (b) primary spermatocyte to secondary
During maturation phase, each primary oocyte undergoes spermatocyte
two maturation divisions. In the first meiotic division, the (c) secondary spermatocyte to spermatid
primary oocyte divides into a large secondary oocyte and (d) spermatid to spermatozoa
small first polar body. A polar body is the byproduct of an J&K CET-2013
oocyte meiotic division.
Ans. (d) : Spermatogenesis change spermatid to
spermatozoa. It is the process of formation of spermatid
(n) from spermatogonia (2n).
'Oogenesis'
250. Process of maturation and development of
sperms is called:
(a) oogenesis (b) spermatogenesis
(c) spermiogenesis (d) none of the above
AFMC-2003
253. The middle piece of the sperm contains 257. Which portion of human sperm contain
(a) centriole (b) nucleus enzymes?
(c) protein (d) mitochondria (a) Neck (b) Middle piece
J&K CET-2013, 2011 / Punjab MET-2011, 2010 (c) Tail (d) Acrosome
Ans. (d) : The middle piece of sperm contains UP CPMT-2012
numerous mitochondria. They provide energy for the Ans. (d) : Acrosome is a portion of human sperm which
movement to the sperm so, it is called as power house contain the enzymes. The acrosome is present at the
of sperm, it give the energy for the sperm to migrate to anterior end of the elongated nucleus in the sperm head as
the female reproductive tract.
the cap-like structure. It contains proteolytic enzymes such
as hydrolytic enzymes that help in fertilization of ovum.
Hence, the correct answer is option (d) acrosome.
‘sperm’
254. Human gametes differ from all other body cells
as they are
(a) motile (b) diploid
(c) haploid (d) without cell wall
“Sperm Cell” (Acrosome)
J&K CET-2013
Ans. (c) : Human gametes differ from all other body 258. What do you mean by the term spermateleosis?
cells as they are ‘haploid’. The body cells contain a (a) Conversion of spermatids to sperm
complete set of chromosomes and are diploid in nature. (b) Conversion of spermatogonium to spermatid
The gametes cells are haploid (n). They contain a single (c) Conversion of spermatid to spermatogonium
set of chromosomes or are haploid. They are formed as (d) Conversion of primary spermatocyte to
a result of meiotic or reduction division of the gamete secondary spermatocyte
mother cells present in the gonads. Manipal-2005
255. At which stage of spermatogenesis sperm acquire Ans. (a) : The term spermateleosis or spermiogenesis is
their whole structural maturity and they contain the formation of spermatozoa from spermatids. The
a haploid nucleus and other organs: process of conversion of spermatids to sperm is called
(a) spermiogenesis (b) growth phase as spermateleosis in this development spermatids
(c) multiplication phase (d) maturation phase undergo mitosis division to produce primary
Rajasthan PMT-2002 spermatocyte which is then followed by meiosis one
Ans. (a) : At the ‘spermiogenesis’ stage of and two divisions to give primary and secondary
spermatogenesis sperm acquire their whole structural spermatocytes which are haploid in condition where
maturity and they contain a haploid maturity and they they undergo further division to result in the formation
contain a haploid nucleus and other organs. In the final of haploid sperms. spermateliosis is considered as the
stage of spermatogenesis, defined as spermiogenesis, final stage of the process of spermatogenesis.
spermatids undergo cellular and nuclear reshaping,
organelle reorganization, and tail formation, which 259. Which of the following groups of cells in the
results in the development of mature spermatozoa. male gonad represent haploid cells?
(a) Germinal epithelial cells
256. The reduction division in chromosomes takes
(b) Spermatogonial cells
place in :
(a) pollen grains (b) tapetum (c) Primary spermatocytes
(c) megaspore cell (d) megaspore mother cell (d) Secondary spermatocytes
Rajasthan PMT-1999 Karnataka CET-2005
MGIMS WARDHA - 2012 Ans. (d): Secondary spermatocytes are haploid secondary
Ans. (d) : The reduction division in chromosomes takes spermatocyte is made up of due to meiosis in primary
place in ‘megaspore mother cell’. In meiosis, the spermatocyte which makes two haploid cells. Each
chromosomes number is reduced to half. Thus meiosis secondary spermatocyte contains 23 chromosomes.
is also known as reductional division. If the parent body 260. At what stage of life is oogenesis initiated in a
is diploid, in order to produce gametes, meiosis takes
human female?
place inside the reproductive organs. During the
formation of microspores chromosomes number in the (a) During menarche
microspore is reduced to half. Thus reductional division (b) During menopause
takes place in the microspore as it is a diploid cell. (c) During birth
Megaspore mother cells divide by meiosis to produce (d) During embryonic development
megaspores. AP EAPCET-07.09.2021 Shift-I
Ans. (d) : Oogenesis initiated in human female at hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH) on
during embryonic development. Oogenesis is the the gonads. FSH and androgen act to stimulate and
process of the formation of a mature ovum from the maintain spermatogenesis. FSH acts directly on the
oogonia in females. It take place in the ovaries. It is sertoli cells to stimulate germ cell number and acts
initiated during embryonic development stage when a indirectly to increase androgen production by Leydig
couple of million gamete mother cells (oogonia) are cells.
formed within each fetal ovary. Hence, the correct
answer is option (d) during embryonic development
263. Only one primary spermatocyte formed:

(a) One sperm (b) Two sperms
“Oogenesis” (c) Three sperms (d) Four sperms
261. Statement (S) : There is LH surge in Ovulatory Rajasthan PMT-1995
phase. Ans. (d) : Only one primary spermatocyte formed ‘two
Reason (R) : LH surge induces the growth and sperms’. After meiosis, a single main spermatocyte
maturation of follicles in the produces four (4) sperms. First meiotic division of the
Ovary. primary spermatocyte results in the production of two
The correct answer is: secondary spermatocytes (haploid) Hence, 4 sperm are
(a) Bothe (S) and (R) are correct and (R) is the produced from one primary spermatocyte.
(b) Both (S) and (R) are correct but (R) in not the
(c) (S) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(d) (S) is correct but (R) is not correct.
Ans. (d) : According to the statement (S) and Reason
(R), the (d) option is a correct answer.
Ovulation is spontaneously triggered about 36-40 hours
after blood levels of a hormone called luteinizing
hormone (LH) rise. This is called the LH surge once it
released from the ovary, the egg is picked up by and
travels down the fallopian tube where it can meet sperm 'Four Sperms Produced from a Single
to become fertilized. Hence, the statement (S) is correct. Spermatogonium'
LH surge induces the growth and maturation of follicles
in the ovary. This Reason (R) is not correct. LH 264. Oogenesis comprises
hormone plays a key role in gonadal function. Follicle (a) multiplication phase
stimulating hormone (FSH) is produced by the pituitary (b) growth phase
gland in the brain. FSH hormone stimulates growth and (c) maturation phase
the maturation of follicles. It is an important hormone (d) All of the above
for normal functioning of the reproductive system in CG PMT-2004
men and women.
Ans. (d) : Oogenesis comprises the three periods as
262. Spermatogenesis is induced by
growth phase, maturation phase and multiplication
(a) FSH (b) ACTH phase. The process of female gamete production is
(c) ICSH (d) ATH known as oogenesis. It occurs before birth inside the
BUP-2014 fetus. In multiplication, the oogonia multiply by a series
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 of mitosis. After mitosis oogonia enter into a growth
BCECE-2003 phase. Next phase is maturation which involves meiosis
Rajasthan PMT-2003 division and produces secondary oocyte and the first
Ans. (a) : Spermatogenesis is induced by FSH. The polar body. The second division give rise to the second
pituitary gland regulates human reproduction though the polar body and the mature ovum is found which is
refined, combined action of the follicle stimulating haploid. Thus, the correct answer is option (d) all the
above.
'Spermiogenesis'
'Oogenesis' D. Menstrual Cycle
265. Cumulus covers
(a) Ovum (b) Ovary 268. Which of the following statements are correct
(c) Embryo (d) All of these regarding female reproductive cycle?
BVP-2011 A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes
AMU-1999 during reproduction are called oestrus
Ans. (a) : Cumulus covers the ovum. It is a mass of cycle.
follicular cells surrounding the ovum in the vesicular B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and
ovarian follicle and after ovulation. The innermost layer is called menopause.
of these cells is called corona radiata. The function of C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of
cumulus layer of cells as coordination of follicular Pregnancy.
development and oocyte formation. Hence, the correct D. Cyclic menstruation extends between
answer is option (a) ‘Ovum’. menarche and menopause.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(a) A, C and D only (b) A and D only
(c) A and B only (d) A, B and C only
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
Ans. (a) : In non primates, these cyclic changes in the
ovaries and accessory ducts its called the oestrus cycle
'Position of Cumulus Cell in Graffian Follicle' and in primates, it is called menstrual cycle.
266. Gametes formation in animals is found in • It is not uncommon for women to miss a period,
however, it does not necessarily mean woman is
(a) ovaries (b) gonads
pregnant.
(c) gall bladder (d) testes
• It can be due to a large number of other factors such
MGIMS Wardha-2012
as hormonal imbalances, stress, diet, age and
Ans. (b) : Gametes formation in animals is found contraception.
‘gonads’. Gametes are formed through meiosis
• The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called
(reduction division), in which a germ cell undergoes
two fissions, resulting in the production of four menarche. In human beings, menstrual cycle ceases
gametes. During fertilization, male and female gametes around 50 years of age, this is termed as menopause,
just, producing a diploid zygote. Hence, the correct cyclic menstruction is a an indicator of normal
option is (b). reproductive phase and extends between menarche
and menopause.
267. The release of sperms from the seminiferous
tubules is called 269. Which one of the following is the most likely
(a) Spermiogenesis (b) Spermiation root cause why menstruation is not taking
(c) Spermatogenesis (d) Fertilisation place in regularly cycling human female ?
(e) Gametogenesis (a) Retention of well-developed corpus luteum
MHT CET-2019 (b) Fertilization of the ovum
Kerala PMT-2014 (c) Maintenance of the hypertrophical
Kerala PMT-2008 endometrial lining
Ans. (b) : The release of sperms from the seminiferous (d) Maintenance of high concentration of
tubule is called ‘spermiation’. It is the process by which sexhormones in the blood stream
mature spermatids are released from the seminiferous AIPMT-2009
tubule. After spermatogenesis, sperm heads become Ans. (b) : Fertilization of ovum is most likely root
embedded in the sertoli cells to obtain nourishment cause why menstruation is not taking place in regularly
from them and finally they are released from the sartoli cycling human female. In order for fertilization to
cells into the seminiferous tubules. This method is occur, one of these sperms must attach itself to the
called spermiation. ovum and penetrate its outer surface.
272. If in a normal Menstruating woman, menses
occur on 5th April, what will be the expected
date of Ovulation?
(a) 18th April (b) 14th April
th
(c) 10 April (d) 29th April
Karnataka CET-2019
Ans. (a) : Usually, ovulation occurs in 14 days of
menses. If the menses occurs in 5th April. The expected
date of ovulation is 18th April.
273. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized,
which one of the following is unlikely?
(a) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
(b) Estrogen secretion further decreases
(c) Primary follicle starts developing
(d) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
270. Which of the following is the correct matching JIPMER-2007
of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
Ans. (b) : If a mammalian ovum (egg) fails to get
(a) Menstruation Breakdown of fertilized, the corpus luteum will disintegrate,
myometrium and ovum progesterone secretion will rapidly decline, and a
not fertilized primary follicle will start developing, estrogen secretion
(b) Ovulation LH and FSH attain peak on the other hand will continue to increases until the
level and sharp fall in the endometrium (lining of the uterus) is thick enough to be
secretion of progesterone shed during menstruation. Therefore, the only unlikely
event in the list is estrogen secretion further decreases.
(c) Proliferative Rapid regeneration of
phase myometrium and 274. Menstruation is due to sudden
maturation of Graafian (a) reduction of FSH
follicle (b) increase of LH
(d) Development Secretory phase and (c) reduction in estrogen and progesterone
of corpus increased secretion of (d) None of the above
progesterone. BCECE-2014 / JIPMER-2012
luteum
VMMC-2011 / Uttarakhand PMT-2009
AIPMT-2009
Ans. (c) : The corpus luteum plays an important role in
Ans. (d) : The menstrual cycle consists of four phases. the preparation of endometrium for the implantation of
menstrual phase, proliferative phase, ovulatory phase fertilized egg by secreting estrogen and progesterone
and secretary phase of ovulation is followed by the hormones. But if the egg is not fertilized then the corpus
lacteal phase in ovary, wherein LH stimulates the luteum begins to degenerate and it stops the production
formation of corpus lutium from ovulate graafian of progesterone and estrogen hormones, which causes
follicle which in term secretes estrogens and shedding of the endometrium lining with menstrual
progesterone. As the same time secretary phase in the bleeding.
uterus (day 15 - 28) is marked by uterine endometrial 275. About which day in a normal human menstrual
thickening, under the influence of progesterone as cycle does rapid secretion of LH (popularly
secreted by corpus lutium, to prepare it for implantation. called LH-surge) normally occurs
271. Find out the incorrect match (a) 11th day (b) 14th day
th
(a) Menstrual phase – Lasts for 3-5 days (c) 20 day (d) 5th day
(b) Follicular phase – LH and FSH secretion AIPMT (Mains)-2011
Gradually decrease Ans. (b) : The reproductive cycle in the female primates
(c) Ovulatory phase – LH surge is known as the menstrual cycle, which is repeated at an
(d) Luteal phase – Graafian follicles transform average interval of 28 or 29 days.
As the corpus luteum • LH (Luteinizing hormone) is a hormone produce by
the anterior pituitary gland.
• LH surge means a sudden release of LH; it usually
Ans. (b) : occurs on the 14th day of the cycle when estrogen is
(i) Menstrual phase – lasts for 3-4 days sufficiently high.
(ii) Ovulatory phase – LH surge • LH and FSH attain a peak level in the middle of cycle
(iii) Luteal phase – Graafian follicles transform as the (about 14th days). Rapid secretion of LH leading to
Corpus luteum its maximum level during the mid-cycle called LH
(iv) Follicular phase – LH and FSH secretion gradually surge induces rupture of Graafian follicle and thereby
Increases the release of ovum.
During the follicular phase, your ovaries house a • This surge leads to a set of event in the graafian
developing egg they will later release during ovulation. follicle of ova resulting in rupture of the graafian
follicle and there by the release of an ovum 278. Which hormones is not associated with
(ovulation). menstrual cycle?
(a) Melatonin (b) Progesterone
(c) Estrogen (d) Relaxin
GUJCET-2019
Ans. (d): Melatonin – is a hormone that is primarily
produced by the pineal gland in the brain. It plays a role
in regulating sleep - wake cycle, circadian rhythms, and
other bodily function melatonin levels are highest at
night and lowest during the day.
(b) Progesterone – Pregnancy helps to regulate your
cycle. But its main job is to get your uterus ready for
pregnancy. After you ovulate each month, Progesterone
helps thicken the living of the uterus to prepare for a
fertilized egg.
276. The figure shows a section of human ovary. (c) Estrogen – is a kind of hormone that has an
Select the option which gives the correct important role in the health of women. There are 3 types
identification of A and B with function/ of estrogen: estrone, estradiol and estriol. They affect
characteristic the sexual and reproductive development in girls and
women.
(d) Relaxin – is a hormone produced by the every and
the placenta with important effects in the female
reproductive system and during pregnancy. In
preparation for childbirth, it relaxes the ligaments in the
pelvis and softens and widens the cervix.
279. Some important events in the human female
reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange
the events in a proper sequence.
(a) A – Primary oocyte – it is the prophase – I of A – Secretion of FSH, B – Growth of corpus
luteum, C – Growth of the follicle and
the meiotic division oogenesis, D – Ovulation, E – Sudden increase
(b) B – Corpus luteum – secretes progesterone in the levels of LH.
(c) A – Tertiary follicle – forms Graafian follicle (a) A → C → E → D → B
(d) B – Corpus luteum – secretes estrogen (b) A → D → C → E → B
NEET (Karnataka)-2013 (c) B → A → C → D → E
Ans. (b) : • The corpus luteum produces progesterone (d) C → A → D → B → E
and, in the event of fertilization, provides the required Karnataka CET-2009
progesterone and, in the event of fertilization provides Ans. (a) : Important events in the human female
the required progesterone until the placenta is formed. reproductive cycle -
In the absence of fertilization the life span of the corpus Secretion of FSH
luteum is 14 days.
• It then degenerates into a corpus albicans which is ↓
mainly a scar tissue. Stimulates follicles and oogenesis
• The zona granulosa and theca cell of Graafian follicle
↓
remaining in the ovary after ovulation and some
surrounding capillaries and connective tissue evolve Sudden ↑ increasein levelof LH
into the corpus luteum (a temporary endocrine gland). ↓
277. Which induces the development of Corpus
Luteum? ovulation
(a) LH (b) Estrogen ↓
(c) FSH (d) LTH Growth of corpus luteum
AIPMT-1999
280. The time for optimum chances of conception in
Ans. (a) : During the menstrual cycle, ovulation is a woman is ______ starting from the day of
induced by hormone LH (Luteinising hormone) this menstruation.
hormone is responsible for the release of ovum in the (a) 1st day (b) 4th day
ovaries by the rupture of Graafian follicles and therefore th
(c) 14 day (d) 26th day
formation of corpus luteum. Karnataka CET-2012
• LH is produced by the Anterior Pituitary gland to LH Ans. (c) : Menstrual cycle is approximately a 28-day
surge. Also the hormone is responsible for the cycle. A secondary oocyte is prepared by oogenesis and
maturation of corpus. the graafian follicle starts growing larger by the action
of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). On day 14 or 15, hormones, ovarian follicles mature and estrogen
ovulation occurs, luteinizing hormone level reaches its secretions exert their biggest influence.
peak, causing ovulation. • Menstrual phase, follicular phase and luteal phase are
Oocyte along with some cells gets released from the associated with menstrual cycle of primates mammal.
ovary and reaches a fallopian tube where fertilization Estrus cycle occur in other then primates.
could occur. This time is optimum for conception. 284. Which statement about oocytes is true?
Hence, the correct answer is (c)-14th day (a) At the onset of menopause, the woman stops
281. Which one of the following statements is producing them
incorrect about menstruation? (b) They are produced by the human female
(a) At menopause in the female, there is throughout adolescence
especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic (c) Those produced by the females are stored in
hormones the seminiferous tubules
(b) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation is (d) At birth, the human female has produced all
called menarche the oocytes she will ever produce
(c) During normal menstruation about 40 ml BCECE-2011
blood is lost Ans. (d) : At birth, the human female has produced all
(d) The menstrual fluid can easily clot the oocytes she will ever produce ,is correct statement
AIPMT-2008 about oocytes.
Ans. (d) : The incorrect statement is the menstrual fluid An oocyte is a female germ cell involved in
can easily clot. Menstrual fluid contains anticoagulants, reproduction. In other words, it is an immature ovum, or
which are substances that prevent blood from clotting. egg cell.
These anticoagulants are produced by the endometrium the 285. The immediate cause of induction of ovulation
living of the uterus. The anticoagulants prevent menstrual in female is the large plasma surge of
blood from clotting in the uterus and vagina which makes (a) progesterone (b) estriadiol
it easier for the blood to flow out of the body.
(c) LH (d) FSH
Blood clot is harmful in may ways - CMC Vellore-2010 / JIPMER-2004
• If menstrual blood clotted in the uterus, it could lead Punjab MET-2003 / DUMET-2001
to menstrual cramps and other painful symptoms. Ans. (c) : The immediate cause of induction of
• Clots in the vagina lead in infection. ovulation in human females is the large plasma surge of
• Clots could also travel to the lungs and cause a the luteinizing hormone LH. LH targets the ovary.
pulmonary embolism which is a serious medical Ovulation occurs during the Luteal phase of the ovarian
condition. cycle, which is brought on by an increase in LH. The
282. In the human female, menstruation can be pituitary gland, which is located beneath the brain,
deferred by the administration of:- produces LH hormone.
(a) FSH only 286. Which hormone level reaches peak during
(b) LH only luteal phase of menstrual cycle?
(c) Combination of FSH and LH (a) Luteinizing hormone
(d) Combination of estrogen and progesterone (b) Progesterone
AIPMT-2007 (c) Follicle stimulating hormone
Ans. (d) : When the production of progesterone and (d) Estrogen
estrogen hormone stops in blood this leads to shed off J&K CET-2008
the lying of uterine endometrium. Ans. (b) : Progesterone hormone level reaches peak
⇒ Progesterone and estradiol continue the hypertrophy during luteal phase of menstrual cycle.
of endometrial lining in the uterus and fallopian tubes The progesterone helps in the maintenance of the uterus
and maintain it throughout pregnancy. lining in case of pregnancy, for proper implantation of
⇒ Progesterone is also necessary for the proper the fertilized ovum.
implantation of the foetus in the uterine wall. It FSH is made by your pituitary gland, a small gland
stimulates type endometrial glands to secrete a nutrient located underneath the brain. FSH plays an important
fluid for the foetus, hence the term secretary phase. role in sexual development and functioning. In women,
therefore, by supply of estrogen and progesterone the FSH helps control the menstrual cycle and stimulates
menstruation can be deferred. the growth of eggs in the ovaries.
283. Which one of the following is not associated 287. Menstrual cycle is exhibited by
with menstruation in primates? (a) Apes (b) Cow
(a) Menstrual phase (b) Estrus phase (c) Tiger (d) Rat
(c) Follicular phase (d) Luteal phase Karnataka CET-2022
UP CPMT-2014 Ans. (a) : Apes, along with humans, are the only
Ans. (b): Estrus phase is not associated with primates that exhibit a menstrual cycle. Cows, tigers,
menstruation in primates. and rates do not have a menstrual cycle.
Estrus or oestrus reapers to the phase when the female is The menstrual cycle is a series of hormonal changes
sexually receptive. Under regulation by gonadotropic that occur in the female reproductive system in the
female reproductive system on a monthly basis. It is (d) Ovulation → Luteal phase → Follicular phase
responsible for the preparation of the uterus for → Menstrual phase
pregnancy and the shedding of the endometrial lining if MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
pregnancy does not occur. Ans. (b) : The correct sequence of phase in menstrual
288. In human females, the ovarian cycle begins cycle is - Menstrual phase → Proliferative phase →
when the Ovulatory phase → Luteal phase
(a) levels of oestrogen reach their maximum 293. Painful menstruation is known as
(b) hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary (a) Oligomenorrhea (b) Menorrhagia
to increases its output of FSH and LH (c) Amenorrhea (d) Dysmenorrhea
(c) level of progesterone drops precipitously Tripura JEE-2019
(d) hypothalamus increases its release-of FSH Ans. (d) : Painful menstruation is known as
and LH dysmenorrhea.
J&K CET-2012 Menorrhagia is the medical term for menstrual periods
Ans. (c) : In human females, the ovarian cycle begins with abnormally heavy or prolonged bleeding.
when the level of progesterone drops precipitously. The Oligomenorrhea is defined as irregular and inconsistent
ovarian cycle refers to the series of changes in the ovary menstrual blood flow in a woman.
during which the follicle matures, the ovum is shed, and Amenorrhea is the absence of a menstrual period.
the corpus luteum develops. 294. Progesterone level falls during
289. Ovulation takes place in a month between (a) Gestation (b) Menopause
(a) 11-14 day (b) 14 - 16 day (c) Lactation (d) Menstruation
(c) 15 - 28 day (d) 21 - 26 day AMU-2008 / VMMC-2008
MGIMS Wardha-2008 / JIPMER-2008 BCECE-2007 Ans. (b) : Progesterone level falls during menopause.
Punjab MET-2004 / DUMET-2001
Lactation is the process of making human milk. Human
Manipal-2000 / AIPMT-1994, 1997
milk is secreted through mammary glands, which are
Ans. (b) : Ovulation is the process by which a mature located in breasts.
egg is released from an ovary. It typically occurs around Gestation, in mammals, the time between conception
14 days before the start of your next menstrual period, and birth, during which the embryo or fetus is
regardless of the length of your cycle. However, of the developing in the uterus.
timing can vary from month to month, and from person
to person. 295. Uterine endometrium, epithelial glands and
connective tissue are broken in menstrual
290. Correct sequence of hormone secretion from phase. That is due to
beginning of menstruation is: (a) Over secretion of FSH
(a) FSH, progesterone, estrogen (b) Lack of estrogen
(b) estrogen, FSH, progesterone (c) Lack of progesterone
(c) FSH, estrogen, progesterone (d) Over production of progesterone
(d) estrogen, progesterone, FSH CMC Ludhiana-2008
Haryana PMT-2002 Ans. (c) : Uterine endometrium, epithelial glands and
Ans. (c) : Correct sequence of hormone secretion from connective tissue are broken in menstrual phase. That is
beginning of menstruation is FSH, estrogen, due to Lack of progesterone.
progesterone.
296. Cessation of menstrual cycle in women is called
291. The first menstruation begins at puberty and is (a) menopause (b) lactation
known as (c) ovulation (d) parturition
(a) Menarche (b) Menopause MGIMS Wardha-2010
(c) Ovulation (d) Oogenesis Ans. (a) : Cessation of menstrual cycle in women is
JCECE-2018 called menopause. It is the stoppage of menstrual cycle
Ans. (a) : The first menstruation begins at puberty and in human females. It happens around the age of 45-50.
is known as menarche. Menarche is defined as the first 297. Ovulation in the human female normally takes
menstrual period in a female adolescent. Menarche place during the menstrual cycle -
typically occurs between the ages of 10 and 16, with the (a) Just before the end of the secretory cycle
average age of onset being 12.4 years.
(b) At the beginning of the proliferative phase
Menopause is the time that marks the end of menstrual
cycles. (c) At the end of the proliferative phase
(d) At the mid secretory phase
292. Mark the CORRECT sequence of phase in MGIMS Wardha-2009 / AIPMT-2004
menstrual cycle.
(a) Menstrual phase → Proliferative phase → Ans. (c) : Proliferative phase also known as follicular
Luteal phase → Ovulatory phase phase so at the end of the proliferative phase.
(b) Menstrual phase → Proliferative phase → • Proliferative phase follows the menstruation phase
Ovulatory phase → Luteal phase and lasts for about 10–12 days of menstrual cycle.
(c) Luteal phase → Ovulatory phase → • Ovulatory phase involves the ovulation from the
Menstrual phase → Follicular phase graafian follicle of ovary.
• It occurs midway between two menstruation cycles 301. The secretory phase in the human menstrual
(on 15th day of onset of menstruation). cycle is also called
• Luteal/secretary/post adulatory phase lasts for about (a) Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
12-14 days (from 16th-28th days of menstruation (b) Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days
cycle). (c) Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
• Corpus luteum is formed from empty Graafin follicle
(d) Follicular phase and lasting for about 6 days
which increased in size.
AIPMT (Mains)-2012
Ans. (a) : The Menstrual cycle of Human is generally
divided into 3 phase namely proliferative (Follicular)
ovulatory and secretary phase of Luteal.
• The secretary phase occurs between ovulation and
onset of menstrual. The last phase of 14 days is
called leutilizing phased which is helped by
hormones secreted from anterior lobe of pituitary
causes ovulation.
302. Level of LH is maximum
(a) just before ovulation
298. No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of (b) just after ovulation
the menstrual cycle because: (c) at the time of ovulation
(a) Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal (d) during menstrual bleeding phase
phase.
JIPMER-2019
(b) Follicles do not remain in the ovary after
ovulation. Ans. (c) : The level of LH is maximum at the time of
(c) FSH levels are high in the luteal phase. ovulation in the menstrual cycle. It is called as LH
(d) LH levels are high in the luteal phase. surge. It induces rupture of Gratian follicles and thereby
NEET (Odisha)-2019 the release of ovum, ie ovulation.
Ans. (a) : FSH and LH are hormones that play a role in 303. Which of the following statements is correct
regulating the menstrual cycle. FSH stimulates the regarding menstrual cycle?
development of follicles in the ovary, and LH triggers (a) LH induces rupturing of Graafian follicle.
ovulation. In the luteal phase, the levels of FSH and LH (b) Proliferative phase is characterized by the
decrease, which prevents new follicles from developing. increased production of progesterone.
299. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of : (c) Corpus luteum secretes large amount of
(a) Vasopressin (b) Progesteron estrogen.
(c) FSH (d) Oxytocin (d) Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in
CMC Villore- 2014 secretary phase.
NEET-2013 AIIMS-2016
DUMET-2002, 2001 Ans. (a) : The menstrual cycle is regulated by LH
Ans. (b) : Progesterone is a hormone that stimulates and (luteinizing hormone) and FSH (follicle-stimulating
regulates important functions, playing a role in hormone). Which are produced by pituitary gland. It
maintaining pregnancy, preparing the body for promote ovulation and stimulate the ovaries to produce
conception and regulating the monthly menstrual cycle. estrogen and progesterone. It is stimulate the uterus and
Oxytocin secreted from the hypophysis. It is involved in breasts to prepare for possible fertilization.
causing intense contractions of the uterus during
childbirth and the secretion of milk from the mammary 304. Most important hormone in post ovulatory
glands. phase:
300. Withdrawal of which of the following (a) Progesterone (b) estrogen
hormones is the immediate cause of (c) HCG (d) FSH
menstruation ? AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-II
(a) Estrogen (b) FSH Ans. (a) : Progesterone prepares the endometrium for
(c) FSH-RH (d) Progesterone pregnancy by stimulating proliferation in response to
AIPMT-2006 human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) produce by the
Ans. (d) : Menstruation is caused by the reduction of corpus luteum in the luteal phase of the menstrual
oestrogen and progesterone, especially progesterone, at cycle.
the end of the monthly ovarian cycle. • In assisted reproduction techniques (ART),
• Progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum. progesterone and HCG level are low, So the luteal
• It prevents ovulation and hence supports pregnancy. phase is supported with progesterone, HCG or
Thus, its withdrawal will be the immediate cause of gonadotropin- releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists to
menstruation. improve implantation and pregnancy rates.
Ans. (a) : The luteal phase begins right after ovulation.
During the first part of this phase, estrogen levels
briefly dip and then rise again and remain high, while
progesterone kicks in, reaching its zenith. If you don't
get pregnant and implantation of the fertilized egg does
not happen, both hormones fall during this phase.
• After ovulation, the egg is picked up by the fallopian
tube and then moves down the fallopian tube on the way
to the uterus. It is inside the fallopian tube, within 12–
24 hours after ovulation, that fertilization happen and
when the joining of the sperm and the egg occur.
305. An oocyte is released from the ovary under the 308. The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that
influence of LH last for 7-8 days, is:
(a) After completing meiosis and before polar (a) Follicular phase (b) Ovulatory phase
bodies are released (c) Luteal phase (d) Menstruation.
(b) After completion meiosis I and before release Rajasthan PMT-2010 / WB JEE-2006
of polar bodies Punjab MET-2006 / AIIMS-2003
(c) After completing meiosis Ans. (a) : The follicular phase is the first part of the
(d) After completing meiosis I and after release ovarian cycle. During this phase, the ovarian follicles
of polar bodies mature and get ready to release an egg. It usually last
AIIMS-2001 for 7-8 days.
Ans. (b) : Oocytes are released from the ovary during • The pituitary gland in the brain releases a hormone to
ovulation, which is triggered by a surge in luteinizing stimulate the production of follicles on the surface of an ovary.
hormone (LH). At this time, the oocyte has completed
meiosis but not meiosis II. Meiosis II is only completed
after the oocyte is fertilization by a sperm.
306. Correct hormonal sequence in the case of
menstruation as:
(a) Oestrogen, FSH, progesterone
(b) Oestrogen, progesterone, FSH
(c) FSH, progesterone, oestrogen 309. Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are:
(d) FSH, oestrogen, progesterone (a) Found in human ovaries
AIIMS-2015 / CG PMT-2007 / AIPMT-2002 (b) A source of hormones
Ans. (d) : When the menstrual cycle starts FSH is (c) Characterized by a yellow colour
secreted from anterior pituitary which stimulates the (d) Contributory in maintaining pregnancy.
development of ovarian follicles upto ovulation on the AIIMS-2003
14th day of cycle there is surge in LH levels and this Ans. (c) : Both Corpus luteum and Macula lutea are
triggers ovulation i.e. release of ovum from the follicle. characterized by yellow colour.
• Ovarian follicles secrete estrogen hormone which • Corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that
stimulates development of secondary sex organs and develops in the ovary after ovulation. It produces
sexual characters. The ruptured follicle develops into progesterone, which is essential for maintaining pregnancy.
corpus luteum a yellow body that secretes progesterone • Macula lutea is a small, yellowish area in the center
hormone required for maintenance of inner lining of of the retina that is responsible for central vision.
uterus. 310. At menopause, here is rise in urinary excretion of
307. Which of the following condition is true at the (a) FSH (b) STH (c) LH (d) MSH
time just after ovulation? AMU-2009
(a) High estrogen, low progesterone Ans. (a) : At menopause, there is a rise in urinary
(b) Low estrogen, low progesterone excretion of a hormone called follicle stimulating hormone
(c) High estrogen, high progesterone (F.S.H). This is because at menopause, the ovaries stop
(d) Low estrogen, high progesterone producing estrogen and progesterone, which are the
AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I hormones that regulate the menstrual cycle.
E. Fertilisation and Implantation Ans. (b) : The process of fusion of a sperm with an
ovum is called fertilization. During fertilization, A
311. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible sperm comes in contact with the zona pellucida layer of
only if the ovum, and induces changes in the membrane that
(a) the sperms are transported into cervix within block the entry of additional sperms .
48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus 315. After ovulation follicles converted into
(b) the sperms are transported into vagina just (a) Corpus luteum (b) Corpus albicans
after the release of ovum in fallopian tube (c) Corpus cavernosa (d) Corpus calosum
(c) the ovum and sperms are transported AIPMT-1999
simultaneously to ampullary- isthmic junction
of the fallopian Ans. (a) : The ovulation (ovulatory phase) is followed
(d) the ovum and sperms are transported by the luteal phase during which the remaining part of
simultaneously to ampullary- isthmic junction the Graafian follicle transform as the corpus luteum .
of the cervix The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of
NEET-2016 Phase-I progesterone which is essential for maintenance of the
Ans. (c) : Ovum and sperms are transported endometrium.
simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic Junction of the 316. Amount of cellular DNA increases during
fallopian tube because average Ampulla 5-8 cm in (a) Cytokinesis (b) Fertilisation
length. It is within this highly ciliated portion of the (c) Mutation (d) Respiration
oviduct that fertilization and early development occur.
AIPMT-1999
The often also site for ectopic implantation (ectopic
pregnancy) The next region, approximately 2-3 cm. in Ans. (b) :
length, is the isthmus is thought to regulate sperm and
embryo transport.
312. Grey crescent is the area
(a) at the point of entry of sperm into ovum
(b) just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into
ovum
(c) at the animal poles
(d) at the vegetal pole
JIPMER-2007
Ans. (b) : Grey crescent is an area opposite site of entry
of sperm. It contains growth factor for differentiation of
body. The grey crescent tends to form on the side In a gamete (i.e sperm or egg), the amount of DNA is
opposite to sperm and marks the dorsal side of the 1C, and the number of chromosomes number is one in
embryo. The grey crescent represents a zone where the fertilization both DNA content and the number of
unpigmented vegetal cortex overlies the pigmented chromosomes doubles to 2C and 2n, respectively. So
animal cytoplasm amount of DNA increases during fertilization process.
313. The portion of the endometrium that covers the 317. In human during fertilisation a sperm firstly
embryo and is located between the embryo and comes in contact with which layer of ovum
the uterine cavity is the (a) zona pellucida (b) vitelline membrane
(a) decidua basalis
(c) jelly coat (d) corona radiata
(b) decidua umbilicus
(c) decidua capsularis JIPMER-2014
(d) decidua functionalis Ans. (d) : For the process of fertilization sperm first
JIPMER-2015 come in contact with the corona pellucida layer of the
Ans. (c) : The Decidua capsularis is the part of the ovum. Ovum has three layers namely corona radiata,
endometrium that lies between the maternal zona pellucida, and vitelline membrane.
endometrium and the embryo. It covers the embryo. 318. Assertion (A): During the formation of
• Decidua basalis -part of the endometrium between the placenta some layers of uterus are eroded and
chorion of the uterus and the stratum basalis during parturition extensive hemorrhage
314. What happens during fertilisation in humans occurs
after many sperms reach close to the ovum Reason (R): Placenta of man is described as
(a) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate haemo endothelial placenta
zona pellucida (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
(b) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter explanation of A
cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
(c) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum
lose their tails correct explanation of A
(d) Cells of corona radiate trap all the sperms (c) A is correct but R is wrong
except one. (d) A is wrong but R is correct
AIPMT (Mains)-2011 AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-I
Ans. (c) : Assertion (A): During the formation of the (c) Gametogenesis → insemination →
placenta, some layers of the uterus are eroded, and fertilization → implantation → gestation →
during parturition, extensive hemorrhage occurs. This parturition
statement is correct. The placenta attaches to the (d) Gestation → gametogenesis → insemination
uterine wall, and during childbirth (parturition), the → implantation → fertilization → parturition
placenta detaches from the uterine wall, leading to AP EAMCET-12.07.2022 Shift-II
bleeding. Karnataka CET-2016
Reason(R): Placenta of man is described as haemo Ans. (c) : Gametogenesis- in embryology the process
endothelial placenta. This statement is incorrect. The by which or germ cells are produced in an organism.
placenta in humans is not typically described as a Insemination- Insemination is the process of introducing
commonly referred to as hemochorial placenta. or depositing sperm into the female reproductive tract.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct choice as it Fertilization- is a complex multi step process that is
accurately represents the correctness of the assertion. complete in 24 hours.
Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect.
Implantation- the blastocyst then burrows into the
319. During Fertilization, zona pellucida of ovum is uterine lining- a process called implantation.
dissolved by this enzyme released by the sperm Gestation- is the period of time between conception and
(a) Hyaluronidase birth.
(b) Acrosin Parturition- Child birth the process of delivering the
(c) Progesterone baby and placenta from the uterus to the vagina to the
(d) Testosterone outside world also called labor and delivery
TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I 323. Fertilization of ovum takes place in rabbit, man
Ans. (b) : Acrosin function - During fertilization, zona and other placental mammals in
pellucida of ovum is dissolved by acrosin which is (a) ovary (b) Fallopian tube
released by sperm. If activate acrosome. (c) cervix (d) uterus
Hyaluronidase - It increase the absorption of drugs in J&K CET-2012 / CMC Vellore-2009
to tissue. UP CPMT-2009 / Punjab MET-2009
Progesterone - It regulate menstruation and support Uttarakhand PMT-2007
pregnancy in female. Ans. (b) : Fertilization of ovum takes place in rabbit,
Testosteron - It regulate fertility. man and other placental mammals in fallopian tube.
320. Ovum receives the sperm in the region of The cervix is the lower end of the womb (uterus).
(a) animal pole (b) vegetal pole
(c) equator (d) pigmented area
UP CPMT-2011
J & K CET-2006
Ans. (a): The ovum receives the sperm in the region of
the animal pole. The animal pole is the region of
nucleus is located. It is also the region where the ovum's
nucleus to form a zygote.
• The vegetal pole is the opposite pole of the ovum and
it contains more yolk. The equator is the region between
the animal and vegetal poles.
321. Which of the following are secretions produced
by the spermatozoa at the time of fertilization? 324. Sprems of an animal species A cannot normally
(a) Fertilizin and antifertilizin fertilize the ovum of another species B because:
(b) Antifertilizin and spermlysin (a) fertilizin of A and B are not compatible
(c) Fertilizin and spermlysin (b) antifertilizin of A and fertilizin of B are not
(d) Only spermlysin compatible
Karnataka CET-2006 (c) fertilizin of A and antifertilizin of B are not
compatible
Ans. (b) : Antifertilizin and spermlysin produced by the
spermatozoa at the time of fertilization. An antifertilizin (d) antifertilizin of A and B are not compatible
is a protein present in sperms which makes the sperm Karnataka CET-2002 / J&K CET-2012
more capable of fertilizing the egg. Ans. (d) : Sperms of an animal species A cannot
While spermlysin releases a lytic agent to digest the normally fertilize the ovum of another species B
vitelline coat for the sperm penetration. because antifertilizin of A an B are not compatible.
322. Choose the correct sequence of events occur in 325. The function of copper T is to prevent
human reproduction. (a) fertilization
(a) Gametogenesis → gestation → insemination (b) egg maturation
→ fertilization → implantation → parturition (c) ovulation
(b) Gametogenesis → insemination → gestation (d) implantation of blastocyst
→ implantation → fertilization → parturition AFMC-2007
Ans. (d) : Copper T is an intrauterine device (IUD) that Ans. (c) : Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter
is inserted into the uterus to prevent pregnancy. It works cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida.
by releasing copper ions, which created an
inflammatory reaction in the uterus and fallopian tubes.
This inflammation makes it difficult for sperm to mover
and fertilize an egg.
326. Sperm penetration bring changes in ova, is :
(a) formation of first polar body
(b) l-meiosis
(c) ll-meiosis
(d) formation of pronuclei
Rajasthan PMT-1998
Ans. (c) : Sperm penetration bring changes in ova, is Il-
meiosis. Meiosis II is the second meiotic division, and During the process of fertilization, when sperm comes
usually involves equational segregation, or separation of into contact with the zona pellucida layer of the ovum a
sister chromatids. cortical reaction occurs that causes a modification of the
zona pellucida thereby preventing polyspermy.
327. The semen fluid consists of sperm cells and
secretion from : 330. The placenta of human beings belong to the
category
(a) seminal vesicle, prostate gland, Cowpers gland
(a) epitheliochorial (b) syndesmochorial
(b) seminal vesicle, testis, uterus
(c) endotheliochorial (d) haemochorial
(c) seminal vesicle, prostate gland, testis
CG PMT-2006
(d) seminal vesicle, Cowpers gland and testis
HP CET-2011 / BCECE-2006 Ans. (d) : The placenta of human beings belong to the
category of haemochorial. The haemochorial placenta is
VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004 / BVP-2003
the type of placenta in which maternal blood is in direct
Ans. (a) : The semen fluid consists of sperm cells and contact with the chorionic villi which are covered by
secretion from seminal vesicle, prostate gland, Cowper's maternal blood and exchange of gases and nutrients from
gland. mother's blood and foetus takes place as observed in
328. Fixing up of the blastocyst in the wall of the humans.
uterus is known as: 331. During implantation, the cells of _____secrete
(a) Placentation (b) fertilization lytic enzymes and destroy endometrial cells.
(c) implantation (d) impregnation (a) syncytiotrophoblast (b) corona radiata
VMMC-2006 (c) embryonic disc (d) cytotrophoblast
Ans. (c) : Fixing up of the blastocyst in the wall of the MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I
uterus is known as implantation. Implantation, also Ans. (a) : During implantation, the cells of
known as denudation is the stage in the embryonic syncytiotrophoblast secrete lytic enzymes and destroy
development of mammals in which the blastocyst endometrial cells.
hatches, attaches, adheres, and invades into the wall of Syncytiotrophoblast lines the intervillous space of the
the female's uterus. placenta and plays important roles in fetus growth
throughout gestation.
Cytotrophoblast" is the name given to both the inner
layer of the trophoblast (also called layer of Langhans)
or the cells that live there.
Embryonic disc lies between amnion and yolk sac.
The corona radiata is the innermost layer of the cells of
the cumulus oophorus and is directly adjacent to the
zona pellucida.
332. In the following diagram, what is A and its
function ?
329. What happens during fertilisation in humans

after many sperms reach close to ovum?
(a) Cells of corona radiata trap all sperms except
one
(b) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate
zona pellucida
(c) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter (a) Sertoli cell; secretion of Testosterone.
cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida (b) Sertoli cell, nutrition of maturing sperms.
(d) All sperms except the one nearest to ovum (c) Follicular cell; secretion of Thyroxine
loose their tails (d) Leydig cell; secretion of Testosterone.
Manipal-2015 MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (b) : Sertoli cells are one of the most important cells 336. During oogenesis in mammals, the second
necessary for sperm production in males. Sertoli cells meiotic division occurs
facilitate the progression of germ cells to spermatozoa via (a) before fertilisation
direct contact and by controlling the environment milieu (b) after implantation
within the seminiferous tubules. The regulation of (c) before ovulation
spermatogenesis by FSH and testosterone occurs by the (d) after fertilisation
action of these hormones on the sertoli cells.
KVPY SA-2019
In the given diagram A is sertoli cell and its function is
to provide nutrition of maturing sperms.
Ans. (d) : During oogenesis in mammals, the second
333. What is correct about test-tube baby ?
meiotic division occurs after fertilisation.
(a) fertilisation inside female genital tract and
Meiosis II is the second meiotic division, and usually
growth in test-tube
involves equational segregation, or separation of sister
(b) fertilisation outside and gestation inside
chromatids.
womb of mother
(c) premature born baby reared in incubator 337. At which stage of life the oogenesis process is
(d) both fertilisation and development outside the initiated?
female genital tract (a) Adult
CMC Ludhiana-2014 (b) Puberty
Ans. (b) : Fertilization outside and gestation inside womb (c) Embryonic development stage
of mother is correct about test tube baby. A test-tube baby (d) Birth
is a child who is conceived outside the female body. NEET-2022
334. Choose the correct statements. Ans. (c) : Oogenesis is Initiated during the embryonic
(I) Ova collected from a female donor are development stage when a couple of million gamete
transferred to the Fallopian tube to mother cells (oogonia) are formed within each foetal
facilitate zygote formation in artificial ovary.
insemination. • No more oogonia are formed and added after birth in
(II) Zygote is collected from a female donor a human female. At puberty only 60, 000 to 80,000
and transferred to the Fallopian tube in primary follicles are left in each ovary, rest
IVF. degenerated during the phase from birth to puberty.
(III) Transfer of an ovum collected from a
donor into the Fallopian tube of another
female who cannot produce an ovum is
called as GIFT.
(IV) Transfer of early embryos with up to 8-
blastomeres into the Fallopian tube of the
female is called ZIFT.
(a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV
(c) only II (d) III and IV
BVP-2015
Ans. (b) : Zygote is collected from a female donor and
transferred to the Fallopian tube in IVF. Transfer of an
ovum collected from a donor into the Fallopian tube of Embryo Development
another female who cannot produce an ovum is called 338. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed
or GIFT. due to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into--
Transfer of early embryos with up to 8- blastomeres (a) uterus (b) Fallopian tube
into the Fallopian tube of the female is called ZIFT. (c) fimbriae (d) cervix
Hence, (b) is the correct answer. NEET-2016 Phase-II
335. At what stage in test tube babies, the zygote is Ans. (a) : Embry with more than 16 blastomeres formed
implanted in human female? due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into uterus for
(a) 32-celled stage (b) 64-celled stage implantation.
(c) 100-celled stage (d) 164-celled stage 339. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
CMC Vellore-2009 reproduction, acts on
Ans. (a) : The zygote in test tube body procedure is typically (a) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
implanted in the human female at the 32-celled stage. secretion of LH and oxytocin
(b) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates 343. What do A, B, C and D represent?
secretion of LH and FSH
(c) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretion of oxytocin and FSH
(d) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretion of LH and relaxin
NEET-2017
A B C D
Ans. (b) : GnRH is a gonadotropin - releasing hormone.
(a) Infundibulum Fertilization Myometrium Morula
GnRH acts on the anterior pituitary and stimulates the
(b) Infundibulum Fertilization Endometrium Blastocyst
release of gonadotropins, viz., LH (luteinizing
(c) Isthmus Fertilization Myometrium Blastocyst
hormone) and FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone).
(d) Isthmus Fertilizatrion Endometrium Morula
• LH and FSH act on male and female gonads and are
AIIMS-2010
involved in the regulation of reproductive activities.
Ans. (b) :
340. Sperm and egg nuclei fuse due to
(a) base pairing of their DNA and RNA
(b) formation of hydrogen bonds
(c) mutual attraction due to differences in
electrical charges
(d) attraction of their protoplasts
AIPMT-1990
Ans. (d) : The process of fusion of a sperm with an Infundibulum → Fertilization → Endometrium →
ovum is called fertilization. Blastocyst.
The fusion of a haploid sperm nucleus with the nucleus The infundibulum is the wide distal portion of each
of the haploid egg is known as syngamy. It happens due fallopian tube. They contract close to the Ovary's
to the attraction between the protoplasts of sperms and surface during ovulation in order to guide the free egg.
egg cells. Fertilization - Union of a sperm nucleus, of paternal
origin, with an egg nucleus, of maternal origin, to
341. What is true about cleavage in the fertilised egg
form the primary nucleus of an embryo.
in humans?
The physiological functions of the uterine endometrium
(a) It starts when the egg is in fallopian tube (uterine lining) are preparation for implantation,
(b) It starts when the egg reaches uterus maintenance of pregnancy if implantation occurs, and
(c) It is meroblastic menstruation in the absence of pregnancy.
(d) It is identical to the normal mitosis Blastocyst - 3 days after fertilization, a normally
AIPMT-1994 developing embryo will contain about 6-10 cells. by
the 5th or 6th day, the fertilized egg is known as a
Ans. (a) : Fertilization usually takes place in a fallopian blastocyst - a rapidly dividing ball of cells.
tube that link an ovary to the uterus. Mitotic division starts
344. Mark the mismatch pair.
as the zygote on fertilized egg moves through the isthmus
(a) Mixing of chromosomes of male and female
of the oviduct called cleavage towards the uterus. pronuclei - karyogamy
342. Termination of gastrulation is indicated by (b) Morphogenetic movements so as to form
(a) obliteration of blastocoel germinal layers - Gastrulation
(b) obliteration of archenteron (c) Discharge of semen in vagina during
(c) closure of blastopore copulation - Fertilization
(d) closure of neural tube (d) A series of rapid mitotic divisions in zygote -
Cleavage
AIPMT-1993
Ans. (a) : Obliteration of blastocoels is the process of
Ans. (c) : The discharge of semen in the vagina during
elimination of the blastocoel cavity during embryo
sexual inter course, is called ejaculation, Not
development. fertilization.
During gastrulation, blastula becomes a three layered Fertilizatin:- Fertilization is the process by which a
embryo called gastrula and the blastocoel is replaced by sperm cell and egg cell (or ovum) combine to form a
the archenteron. Thus, termination of gastrulation is single cell called zygote. Fertilization occurs in
indicated by the obliteration of blastocoel. Fallopian tube.
(a) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv
F. Pregnancy and Embryonic (b) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
Development (c) A – iii, B – ii , C – iv , D – i
(d) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – i
345. Assertion (A) : In human beings, placenta is Ans. (b) :
haemochroial type.
A End of 4weeks iii Formation of heart
Reason (R) : Maternal blood comes into direct
contact with the chorion B End of 8 weeks i developments of limbs
& limb digits
(a) A and R are true, R is correct explanation for A
(b) A and R are true, but R is not explanation for A C End of 12 weeks iv Formation of external
genital organs
(c) A is true, But R is false
(d) A is false But R is true D End of 24 weeks ii Hair on body &
separation of eyelids
349. Arrange the following events in the order of
Ans. (a) : Human placenta is a haemochroial type their occurrence in an angiospermic flower
which means that maternal blood is in direct contact
A. Megasporogenesis
with fetal trophoblast it is mostly circular in shape and
is therefore said to be discoidol. B. Syngamy
C. Embryosac development
• Human placenta develops from the trophectoderm
D. Pollen pistil interaction
the outer layer of the pre implantation embryo.
(a) BDCA (b) ACBD
• The maternal blood cones into direct contact with
(c) ACDB (d) DACB
chorion.
346. This hormone is not secreted by human placenta
Ans. (c) : The correct order–
(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin
• Megasporogenesis (a megaspore mother cell
(b) Prolactin undergoes meiosis to produce four megaspore).
(c) Estrogen
• Embryosac development (one of the megaspores
(d) Progesterone develops into an embryo sac, which is the female
TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I gametophyte of angiosperm).
Ans. (b) : Human chorionic gonadotropin, Estrogen, • Pollen pistil interaction (a pollen grains land on the
Progesterone all are secreted by human placenta. stigma, they germinate and produce pollen tubes. The
Prolactin is a hormone secreted by the pituitary gland. pollen tubes grow down the style of the pistil and
The main function of prolactin hormone to form the enter the ovary).
milk during the labor pain in woman. • Syngamy (one of the sperm cells from the pollen tube
347. In surrogacy the part provided by the woman fuses with the egg cell in the embryo sac to form a
for the development of some other person's zygote).
embryo until full development is 350. ZIFT is
(a) Uterus (b) Fallopian tube (a) Embryo transfer or intrauterine transfer
(c) Ovary (d) Oviduct (b) The ovum is extracted and fertilized outside
Ans. (a) : The uterus is the only part of a woman's body and zygote is transferred into the fallopian
that is necessary for the development of an embryo until tube.
full development. In surrogacy, the surrogate woman (c) Transfer of ovum into the fallopian tube
provides her uterus for the development of the intended (d) Ovum collected from a donor is transferred to
parents embryo. the fallopian tube of recipient woman
The embryo is created through in vitro fertilization AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
(IVF) and then transferred to the surrogate's uterus. Ans. (b) : ZIFT stands for zygote intra fallopian
348. Match the following event during pregnancy transfer. It is a type of Assisted Reproductive
with time Technology (ART) in which a fertilized egg (zygote) is
transferred into a woman's fallopian tube. This allows
List - I List - II
the zygote to implant in the uterus and develop into a
A End of 4weeks i developments pregnancy.
of limbs & limb
351. Given below are two statements : one is
digits
labelled as Assertion A and the other other is
B End of 8 weeks ii Hair on body labelled as Reason R.
& separation of
Assertion A : Endometrium is necessary for
eyelids
implantation of blastocyst.
C End of 12 weeks iii Formation of Reason R : In the absence of fertilization, the
heart corpus luteum degenerates that causes
D End of 24 weeks iv Formation of disintegration of endometrium.
external genital In the light of the above statements, choose the
organs correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A is false but R is true. Ans. (b) : In human beings, the foetal placenta is
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct derived from chorion. Chorion is also called Serosa, in
explanation of A. reptiles, birds, and mammals, the outermost membrane
(c) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the around the embryo.
(d) A is true but R is false.
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
Ans. (c) : Implantation consists of three stages:-
(a) The blastocyst contacts the implantation site of the
endometrium (apposition).
(b) Trophoblast cells of the blastocyst attach to the
receptive endometrial epithelium (adhesion).
(c) Invasive trophoblast cells cross the endometrial
epithelial basement membrane and invade.
• During pregnancy all events of the menstrual cycle Allantois, an extra-embryonic membrane of reptiles,
stop and there is no menstruation. In the absence of birds, and mammals arising as a pouch, or sac, from the
fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates this cause hindgut.
disintegration of the endometrium leading to Amnion, in reptiles, birds, and mammals, is a
menstruation, making a new cycle. membrane forming a fluid-filled cavity that encloses
352. Which one of the following statements about the embryo.
morula in humans is correct – 354. If cells destined to form endoderm in a gastrula
(a) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as are removed, the new individual will be devoid
an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA of
(b) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA (a) heart (b) brain
than in an uncleaved zygote (c) kidney (d) visceral organs
(c) It has more or less equal quantity of CG PMT-2011
cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote Ans. (d) : If cells destined to form endoderm in a
(d) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an gastrula are removed, the new individual will be devoid
uncleaved zygote of visceral organs. The soft interior organs of the body,
AIPMT (Screening)-2010 such as the heart and lungs, and those in the abdomen,
Ans. (a) : A morula is an early stage of embryonic such as the liver, pancreas, and intestines, are known as
development, consisting of cells (called blastomeres) in visceral organs.
a solid ball. 355. The extra embryonic membranes of
• The morula is a result of embryonic cleavage, the mammalian embryo are derived from
rapid division of the zygote. The increase in number (a) inner cell mass (b) trophoblast
of cells doesn't change the size of the original mass. (c) formative cells (d) follicle cells
• The cell divisions are rapid because there is no net CG PMT-2010
growth of the embryo. Ans. (b) : The extra embryonic membranes of
• In the absence of growth, the number of cells in the mammalian embryo are derived from trophoblast. They
embryo increases while size of cell decreases. Thus it are cells forming the outer layer of a blastocyst, which
has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as a nucleated provides nutrients to the embryo, and develops into a
zygote but much more DNA. large part of the placenta and formed during the first
stage of pregnancy and are the first cells to differentiate
from the fertilized egg.
353. In human beings, the foetal placenta is derived

from_______. 356. At the time of implantation, the human embryo
(a) allantois (b) chorion is called
(c) primary yolk sac (d) amnion (a) Embryo (b) Blastocyst
MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I (c) Zygote (d) Foetus
Manipal-2006 / AFMC-2002 Rajasthan PMT-2011
Ans. (b) : At the time of implantation, the human Ans. (b) : The gonads develop from the mesoderm. In
embryo is called blastocyst. A blastocyst is a cluster of addition to the gonads, the mesoderm also forms
dividing cells made by a fertilized egg. It is the early muscles, connective tissue, the dermis of the skin, bones
stage of an embryo. A blastocyst is one step among and cartilage (heart, blood vessels, lymphatic system)
many that lead to a pregnancy. kidneys, ureters and adrenal cortex.
A blastocyst forms about five to six days after a sperm
fertilizes an egg. 360. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of
total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The
result expected was:
(a) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to
stimulate endometrial thickening
(b) High levels of circulating HCG to stimulate
estrogen and progesterone synthesis
(c) High level of circulating FSH and LH in the
uterus to stimulate implantation of the embryo
(d) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate
endometrial thickening
357. The first movements of the foetus and AIPMT (Screening)-2012
appearance of hair on its head are usually Ans. (b) : Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a
observed during which month of pregnancy?
hormone produced by placenta after implantation.
(a) Fourth month (b) Fifth month Pregnancy test is confirmed by the presence of hCG in
(c) Sixth month (d) Third month urine hCG maintains the corpus luteum for continued
Karnataka CET-2022 / AIPMT (Screening)-2010
secretion of progesterone and estrogens so as to
Ans. (b) : The first movement of the foetus and maintain the pregnancy.
appearance of hair are observed during fifth month of
pregnancy. 361. Oxytocin mainly helps in
Month after Embryonic development (a) Milk production (b) Child birth
Fertilization (c) Diuresis (d) Gametogenesis
st
1 Month Gastrulating and formation of three AIPMT-1999
germinal layers Neurulation follows Ans. (b) : Oxytocin stimulates uterine contraction
gastrulation notochord is formed. The during labour that are needed to move the child out
heart is the first organ to start through the birth canal. It also stimulates the release of
functioning. milk from the mammary glands by causing surrounding
2nd Month Limbs and digits develop starts cells to contract.
becoming C – shape, with formation 362. How many foetal membranes are formed
of most of the internal organs such during the development of human embryo?
as inner ear, liver, pancreas, spleen
(a) 3 (b) 4
and gall bladder.
rd (c) 2 (d) 1
3 Month All the major organ systems develop.
Genital organs are visible, AP EAMCET-12.07.2022 Shift-II
Digitization begins. Ans. (b) : The fetal membranes are the four extra
th
6 Month Eyelashers are formed, eyelids embryonic membranes. They are located outside of the body
separate body get covered with fine of the embryo. For this reason, they are known as extra
hair. embryonic membranes. The extra embryonic membrane
includes, the amnion, chorion, yolk sac, and allantois.
9th month The foetus fully developed and is
ready for birth. The fetal membrane surrounds the fetus during
pregnancy and is a thin tissue composed of two layers
358. Which is regarded as urinary bladder of embryo?
the chorion and the amnion. While rupture of this
(a) Amnion (b) Allantois membrane normally occurs at term, preterm rupture can
(c) Chorion (d) Yolk sac result in increased risk of fetal mortality and morbidity
JIPMER-2012 / Uttarakhand PMT-2009 as well as danger of infection in the mother.
Ans. (b) : Allantois is an extra embryonic membrane 363. What is the height and weight of twelve weeks
developed as an outgrowth from hindgut. In the eggs of old human embryo?
reptiles and birds, it functions as a urinary bladder and
stores the waste excretory products. It also provides (a) 7.5 cm, 14 gram (b) 7.5 cm, 650 gram
oxygen (in reptiles, birds and mammals) and food (in (c) 42 cm, 1800 gram (d) 32 cm, 650 gram
mammals) to the embryo. GUJCET-2015
359. Gonads are derived from: Ans. (a): The average height and weight of a healthy
(a) ectoderm (b) mesoderm human embryo at 12 weeks of age are around 7.5 cm
(c) endoderm (d) None of the above and 14 gm. The foetus is fully formed with all the
JIPMER-2015 organs, muscles, limbs and bones in place.
364. Match the months listed in Column-I with the 368. In case of pregnancy the heartbeat of embryo
organogenesis of foetus in Column-II. starts at:
Column-I Column-II (a) 4th week (b) 7th week
(i) First month (A) Separation of (c) 6th week (d) 5th week
eye lids JIPMER-2016
(ii) Second month (B) Hairs on head Ans. (d): At the end of 4th week of gestation, the
(iii) Fifth month (C) Heart heartbeats of the embryo begin.
(iv) Six month (D) Limbs & digits At this period, the developing circulatory system allows
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) maternal embryonic nutritive and gaseous changes at
(a) (C) (D) (A) (B) the chorionic villi.
(b) (B) (C) (D) (A) 369. Lens of eyes is derived from
(c) (D) (B) (C) (A) (a) ectoderm (b) mesoderm
(d) (C) (D) (B) (A) (c) endoderm (d) Both (b) and (c)
Karnataka CET-2020 JIPMER-2016
Ans (d) : Ans. (a) : During the process of gastrulating the zygote
Column-I Column-II divided into three layers ectoderm, endoderm and
First month Heart mesoderm which give rise to all the organs in the body.
Second month Limbs and digits Thus, lens of eyes derived from ectoderm layer.
Fifth month Hairs on head 370. The hormone that prepares and maintains the
uterus during pregnancy is secreted by:
Six month Separation of eye lids.
(a) Corpora cardiaca (b) Corpus luteum
365. Which of the following hormones are secreted in (c) Corpora albicans (d) Graafian follicle
large quantities during pregnancy in women?
AP EAMCET-2005 / NEET-2001
(a) hCG, progesterone, estradiol and FSH
(b) hCG, hPL, progesterone, estrogen and LH Ans. (b) : During Ovulation, the follicle breaks open
and collapses under the continuous influence of a
(c) LH, estrogen and estradiol luteinizing hormone (LH) It begins to enlarge and forms
(d) hCG and hPL a yellowish.
Karnataka CET-2014 Structure called corpus luteum or yellow body. the
AIPMT-2014 corpus luteum play an important role in the preparation
Ans. (d) : hCG and hPL is secrete in large quantities of the endometrium for the implantation for fertilized
during pregnancy in women. egg by secreting estrogen and progesterone hormone.
• hCG is a hormone produced by the placenta after The progesterone speedup the thickening of the lining
implantation. hCG maintain the corpus luteum for of the uterus and thus increase its blood supply.
continued secretion of progesterone so as to maintain Corpora cardiaca- Corpora cardiaca are endocrine gland
the pregnancy. which produce one of the most important hormone for
Human placental lactogen(hPL) hormone is released by insect development, the Juvenile hormone (JH).
the placenta when a person is pregnant. It causes Carpora albicans- The carpus albicans is the regressed
stimulation of milk glands. form of the corpus luteum, as the corpus luteum is being
366. Which of the following parts of the vertebrate broken down by macrophage, fibroblasts lay down type
body arises from the mesoderm ? I collagen, forming the corpus albicans.
(a) Spinal cord (b) Bony skeleton Graafian follicle- It provides for the maturation and
(c) Epidermis (d) Lens of the eye release of a fertilizable oocyte. It also forms the corpus
Karnataka CET-2012 luteum, which promotes and maintains implantation of
Ans. (b) : Vertebrates have triploblastic organization the embryo.
consists of three germ layer namely ectoderm, 371. Which extraembryonic membrane in humans
endoderm and mesoderm. The mesoderm is a germ prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the
layer that arises during gastrulation, and is present uterus?
between the ectoderm' and endoderm. The bony (a) Yolk sac (b) Amnion
skeletons are connective tissues which arise from (c) Chorion (d) Allantois
mesodermal layer. So, the correct answer is (b). JIPMER-2012 / BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
367. Gastrula has a pore which is known as ---------- AIPMT-2008
(a) Gonophore (b) Blastopore Ans. (b) : The amnion contains a thin , transparent
(c) Oospore (d) Zoospore fluid in which the embryo is suspended, thus
Karnataka CET-2010 providing , a cushion against mechanical Injury. The
Ans. (b) : Gastrula is an embryonic stage in animal amnion is a bilayered membranous sac which surrounds
development. Blastopore is an opening by which the and prevents desiccation of embryo inside the uterus,
cavity of the gastrula communicates with exterior. enclosing the amniotic cavity (amnion).
In the protostome the blastopore develops into the Yolk sac:- a structure that develops inside your uterus
animal mouth and in the deutrostome the blastopore during early pregnancy. It provides nourishment to
develops into the animal anus. developing embryo.
The amnion acts to protect the developing embryo iv) Discoidal placenta ––– primates, rodents
against mechanical shock. and rabbits
Allantois are involved in gas exchange of O2 and CO2 v) Hemochorial ––– Human, rat
placenta
vi) Indeciduate ––– Pig, cattle, horse.
placenta
vii) Deciduate ––– Mammal.
placenta
375. The best definition of the process of
gastrulation is that it is a process where the
(a) single layered blastula becomes two layered
(b) archenteron is formed
(c) zygote gets converted into larva
372. Notochord, skeletal system and dermis of the (d) cells move to occupy their definite position
skin are the derivatives of UP CPMT-2011
(a) Ectoderm (b) Endoderm Ans. (d): During embryonic development, the blastomeres
(c) Mesoderm (d) All the three layers undergo dramatic movements where in they change their
Karnataka CET-2008 positions relative to one another. This series of extensive
Ans. (c) : During gastrulation, 3 embryonic germ layer cell rearrangements is called gastrulation.
the ectoderm, the endoderm and the mesoderm are 376. Medulla oblongata is originated from
formed. (a) ectoderm (b) mesoderm
• The outer layer is known as the ectoderm and later (c) endoderm (d) ectomesoderm
forms the skin and nervous system. UP CPMT-2011
• The middle layer is mesoderm and later forms the
muscles, connective tissue, excretory organs and Ans. (a): Medulla oblongata is originated from the
gonads. ectoderm of the embryo. It is located at the base of brain. It
controls the respiration, cardiovascular reflexes.
• The inner layer is the endoderm, layer forming the
epithelial tissue of the gut. 377. Which ONE of the following statements is
So, notochord, skeletal system and dermis of the skin CORRECT about placenta?
are the derivatives of mesoderm. (a) Placenta is permeable to all bacteria
373. The events observed by the end of second (b) Oxygen and carbon dioxide cannot diffuse
month of pregnancy are through the placenta
(a) Separation of eye lids (c) Waste products diffuse out of placenta into
maternal blood
(b) Appearance of hair on head
(c) Development of limbs and digits (d) Placenta does not secrete chorionic
gonadotropins
(d) Formation of eye lashes
AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II KVPY (SA)-05.11.2017
Ans. (c) : Fetus will go through many changes during Ans. (c) : The placenta may be a large organ that
second trimester of pregnancy. During this trimester develops during pregnancy . It is attached to the wall of
your fetus will start to look more like a child - with their the uterus. The placenta facilitates the supply of oxygen
facial features aligning and their fingers and toes and nutrients to the embryo and also removal of CO2
and excretory/ waste materials produced by embryo.
becoming well defined. The placenta connected to the embryo through an
374. Placenta of human being is umbilical cord which helps in the transport of
(I) Yolk sac placenta substances to and from the embryo.
(II) Chorioallantoic placenta 378. Which one of the following statement with
(III) Zonary Chorioallantoic placenta regard to the embryonic development in
(IV) Discoidal placenta humans is correct
(V) Haemochorial placenta (a) cleavage results in a hollow balls of cells
(VI) Indeciduate placenta called morula
(VIII) Deciduate placenta (b) Cleavage in mammalian ova is unequal
(a) II, IV, V, VII (b) I, III, IV, VII holoblastic and horizontal
(c) II, III, IV, VI (d) I, II, III, IV (c) Rearrangement of blastomeres, a central
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-II cavity is formed inside the morula
Ans.(a): (d) Cleavage bring about considerable increase in
i) Yolk sac placenta ––– Lutherans the mass of protoplasm
ii) Chorioallantoic ––– Mammal WB JEE-2006
placenta Ans. (c) : The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called
iii) Zonary placenta ––– carnivores like morula. Morula continues to divide and transforms into
dogs, cats, blastula. Blastula is formed by the dynamic
omnivores bear rearrangement of blastomeres. This rearrangement of
and herbivores blastomeres gives rise to the formation of a central
like elephants cavity called the blastocoel.
379. Which is formed in gastrulation? 383. Identify the human development stage shown
(a) Archenteron (b) Heart below as well as the related right place of its
(c) Brain (d) None of these occurrence in a normal pregnant woman, and
Rajasthan PMT-2004 select the right option for the two, together.
Ans. (a) : Archenteron is formed during gastrulation.
Archenteron refers to the digestive cavity during the
early stages of human development. It communicates
with exterior through the blastopore. Blastopore
developing into either the mouth or the anus.
(a) Late morula - middle part of fallopian tube
(b) Blastula - End part of fallopian tube
(c) Blastocyst - Uterine wall
(d) 8-celled morula - Starting point of Fallopian tube
MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I / AIPMT (Mains)-2012
VMMC-2013
Ans. (c) : An embryo with about 64 cells cavity called
blastocoel is known as blastocyst.
380. The hormones that are produced in women • It is composed of an outer envelope of cells the
only during pregnancy trophoblast.
(a) Oestrogens, human chorionic gonadotropin, • After fertilization zygote undergoes rapid mitotic
human placental lactogen division called cleavage core, which is characterised
(b) Oestrogen, progesterone, oxytocin by absence of growth of daughter cells.
(c) Human placental lactogen, human chorionic • This leads to the conversion of single celled zygote
gonadotropin, relaxin into muticellular structure called blastocyst or
(d) Human placental lactogen, human chorionic blastula.
gonadotropin, thyroxine • Blostocyst comes in contact with the endometrium in
MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I / BVP-2015 the region of embryonal knob or embryonic disc.
JIPMER-2012 / Uttarakhand PMT-2009 • Tropoblast cells that help in nourishment of embryo
JIPMER-2008 / AMU -2000, 2001 / AMU-2015 due to development of placenta.
Ans. (c) : Human placental lactogen, human chorionic
gonadotropin and relaxin are the hormones that are
produced during pregnancy.
• Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), human
placental lactogen (hPL) are produced by placenta and
relaxin hormone is secreted by the ovary during
pregnancy.
381. Correct sequence in embryonic development of 384. Extrusion of second polar body from egg
frog is : occurs
(a) Zygote → Cleavage → Blastula → Gastrula (a) simultaneously with first cleavage
(b) Zygote → Cleavage → Gastrula → Blastula (b) after entry of sperm but before fertilisation
(c) Cleavage → Zygotes →Blastula → Gastrula (c) after fertilisation
(d) Zygote → Blastula → Cleavage → Gastrula (d) before entry of sperm into ovum.
BCECE-2005 (NEET 2019, 1993
Ans. (a) : Zygote → Cleavage → Blastula → Gastrula is Ans. (b) : After ovulation, the secondary oocyte
the correct sequence in embryonic development of frog. remains arrested at metaphase II. During fertilization,
382. What occurs in gastrulation? the entry of sperm triggers oocyte to complete meiosis
(a) Division of zygote II. The large secondary oocyte divides asymmetrically
(b) Formation of blastocoel to produce the mature egg and a second small polar
body. So, Extrusion of second polar body from eggs
(c) Epiboly and emboly taken place
occurs after entry of sperm but before fertilization.
(d) Disappearance of archenteron
Rajasthan PMT-1996 385. The basic principles of embryonic development
were first given by
Ans. (c) : Epiboly and emboly take place in gastrulation.
Epiboly is the movement and spreading out of the cells (a) Weismann (b) Haeckel
into sheets of tissue that surround other groups of cells, (c) Von Baer (d) Malthus
especially as in the formation of certain grastrula. MGIMS Wardha-2014
• Emboly is formation of gastrula from blastula by Ans. (c) : The basic principles of embryonic
invagination of germ layers and during emboli there is development were first given by Von Baer.
migration of three germ layers which occurs in He proposed recapitulation theory which was revised
blastocoel. and renamed by Haeckel's biogenetic law.
386. Blastopore is 391. The internal cavity commonly formed by cell
(a) opening of neural tube division prior to gastrulation is the
(b) opening of gastrocoel (a) enteron (b) blastopore
(c) future anterior end of embryo (c) blastocoel (d) coelom
(d) found in blastula DUMET-2010
AIPMT-1992 Ans. (c) : The internal cavity commonly formed by cell
Ans. (b) : The blastopore is the opening of the division prior to gastrulation is the blastocoel. Blastocoel is
archenteron/gastrocoel on the surface of the embryo. It the fluid-filled central cavity of blastula. It is formed
is the point of invagination during gastrulation. In during embryogenesis, when the fertilized egg or zygote
deuterostomes, the blastopore develops into the anus divides via mitosis into many cells. The process of
while in protostomes, it develops into the mouth. formation of blastocoel is known as cavitation.
387. During cleavage, what is true about cells? 392. Blastopore is the opening to the exterior of
(a) Nucleocytoplasmic ratio remains unchanged (a) coelom (b) coelenteron
(b) Size does not increase (c) archenteron (d) blastocoel
(c) There is less consumption of oxygen AFMC-2007
(d) The division is like meiosis Ans. (c) : Blastopore is the opening to the exterior of
AIPMT-1991 archenteron during the embryonic stages of an organism.
Ans. (b) : Cleavage is division of cells without any Coelenteron is the gastrovascular cavity present in the
increase in mass. The size of cells decreases and the cnidarians having a single opening called the mouth.
number of cells increases. 393. Which of the foetal membrane is directly
388. Human embryo will be called as a foetus after connected with blood ?
(a) two months (b) six months (a) Allantoic (b) Amnion
(c) four months (d) seven months (c) Chorion (d) Yolk sac
Manipal-2011 Rajasthan PMT-1998
Ans. (a) : Human embryo will be called as a foetus after Ans. (c) : Chorion , the foetal membrane is directly
two months. It is the developing organism from the end connected with blood. It is outermost fold of
of the eight weeks until birth (nine months).The fetus somatopleur and surrounds the embryo.
develops distinct facial features, limbs organs, bones
and muscles. 394. Placenta present in mammals acts as an
endocrine tissue and produces
389. A single layer of cells that composes
(a) human chorionic gonadotropin
epicardium is called ________.
(a) endothelium (b) mesothelium (b) oestrogen
(c) ependyma (d) epidermis (c) progesterone
MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I (d) testosterone
BCECE-2014 / UP CPMT-2012
Ans. (b) : A single layer of cells that composes
epicardium is called mesothelium. Ans. (a) : Placenta present in mammals acts as an
endocrine tissue and produces human chorionic
gonadotropin.
395. In the case of humans, the placenta comprises
which of the following?
(a) Endothelium of maternal blood capillaries
(b) Endothelium of foetal blood capillaries
(c) Foetal epithelium
(d) Connective tissue surrounding foetal blood
capillaries
BCECE-2014
The mesothelium is an epithelium derived from the Ans. (d) : In the case of humans, the placenta comprises
mesoderm and plays a crucial role in the development connective tissue surrounding foetal blood capillaries.
of organs that develop in the embryonic coelom, • The placenta contains mostly blood vessels contained
including the heart, lungs, and the intestines. within structures called "villi".
390. The membranous areas between the cranial 396. The recapitulation theory or biogenetic law was
bones of the fetal skull are called proposed by
(a) areolas (b) foramina (a) Ernst Haeckel (b) Von Baer
(c) sutures (d) fontanelle (c) Weismann (d) Mendel
DUMET-2010 AMU -2000
Ans. (d) : The membranous areas between the cranial Ans. (a) : The theory of recapitulation or the biogenetic
bones of the fetal skull are called fontanelle. Fontanelles theory is a theory of evolution and development of an
comprise any of the soft membranous gaps between the animal and was given by a German scientist Ernst
incompletely formed cranial bones of a foetus or an infant. Haeckel in the 1860s. Recapitulating means to
summarize or conclude something. It is one of a few 403. Cleavage is a unique form of mitotic cell
summarization speculations, which set that the phases division in that :
of advancement for a creature foetus are equivalent to (a) the plasma membranes of daughter cells do
other creatures' grown-up stages. not separate
397. The embryonic skeleton is formed by (b) no spindle develops to guide the cells
(c) there is no growth of cells
(a) white fibrous cartilage (b) elastic cartilage (d) the nucleus does not participate
(c) hyaline cartilage (d) none of the above JIPMER-2001
AMU-1999 Ans. (c) : Cleavage is a unique form of mitotic cell
Ans. (c) : The embryonic skeleton is formed by hyaline division in that there is no growth of cells.
cartilage. It provides mechanical support for the respiratory It is a series of rapid mitotic divisions of the zygote
tree, nose, articular surfaces, and developing bones. which convert the single celled zygote into multicellular
398. The embryo at 16 celled stage is known as structure where no growth takes place in cells.
(a) morula (b) gastrula 404. Select the correct statement :
(c) blastula (d) blastomere (a) cleavage follows gastrulation
VMMC-2012 / BCECE-2010 / JIPMER-2009 (b) yolk content in egg has no role in cleavage
UP CPMT-2008 /MGIMS Wardha-2008 (c) cleavage is repeated mitotic division of zygote
Ans. (a) : The embryo at 16 celled stage is known as (d) gastrulation and blastulation are followed by
each other
morula. It is a solid mass of blastomeres resulting from
J&K CET-2006
a number of cleavages of a zygote, or fertilized egg.
Ans. (c) : Cleavage is repeated mitotic division of
399. The formation of erythrocytes in foetus takes zygote is the correct statement. The development of
place in: multi-cellular organisms starts from a single cell i.e.,
(a) Liver and spleen (b) Red bone marrow zygote, which undergoes mitosis to form the blastula.
(c) Blood plasma (d) Sarcoplasm 405. During embryonic development endoskeleton and
Karnataka CET-2003 muscles develop form which germinal layer?
Ans. (a) : The formation of erythrocytes in foetus takes (a) Ectoderm (b) Endoderm
place in Liver and spleen. (c) Mesoderm (d) Yolk plug
400. The term blastocyst is applied to the blastula of BCECE-2006 / VMMC-2005
AMU-2004 / Haryana PMT-1999
which one of the following ?
(a) Kangaroo (b) Platypus Ans. (c) : During embryonic development endoskeleton
and muscles develop from germinal layer is mesoderm.
(c) Monkey (d) Both (a) and (b) Mesoderm is the middle embryonic germ layer which
CG PMT-2007 lies between the ectoderm and the endoderm, from
Ans. (c) : The term blastocyst is applied to the blastula which connective tissue, muscle, bone, and the
of monkey. Blastocyst is a stage of the embryo formed urogenital and circulatory systems develop.
in the early development of mammals. In the rest of the 406. In a pregnant woman, ______is the major source
animals, it is known as a blastula. It is a group of cells of progesterone during the first trimester.
formed from morula. The Platypus is an egg-laying (a) corpus callosum (b) corpus albicans
mammal and the kangaroo is a marsupial, hence they do (c) placenta (d) corpus luteum
not have a blastocyst. The Monkey is a mammal. MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I
Hence, a blastocyst is present in monkeys. Ans. (d) : In pregnant women corpus luteum is the
401. Women who consumed the drug thalidomide major source of progesterone during the first trimester.
for relief from vomiting during early months of Corpus albicans is a scar on the surface of the ovary that
pregnancy gave birth to children with : is a remnant of ovulation.
(a) no spleen The corpus callosum is the primary commissural region
(b) hare-lip of the brain consisting of white matter tracts that
connect the left and right cerebral hemispheres.
(c) extra fingers and toes
407. Which of the following embryonic membranes
(d) under developed limbs structure is excretory in function?
Haryana PMT-2004 (a) Amnion (b) Allantois
Ans. (d) : Women who consumed the drug thalidomide (c) Yolk sac (d) Vitelline chorion
for relief from vomiting during early months of CG PMT-2009 / MGIMS Wardha-2009
pregnancy gave birth to children with underdeveloped Ans. (b) : The allantois is a hollow sac-like structure
limbs. that is filled with transparent fluid, which is part of the
402. Gestation period of mouse is concept of developing an amniotic membrane. It is an
(a) 30 - 36 days (b) 19 -20 days extra-embryonic membrane of reptiles, birds, and
(c) 35 - 40 days (d) 40 - 46 days mammals arising as a pouch, or sac, from the hindgut.
VMMC-2014 408. Identify the correctly matched pair/pairs of the
germ layers and their derivatives.
Ans. (b) : Gestation period of mouse is 19-20 days. (A) Ectoderm - Epidermis
Gestation is the period of development during the (B) Endoderm - Dermis
carrying of an embryo, and later foetus, inside (C) Mesoderm - Muscles
viviparous animals. It is typical for mammals, but also (D) Mesoderm - Notochord
occurs for some non-mammals. (E) Endoderm – Enamel of teeth
(a) A, C and D only (b) A, B, C and E only 413. Which layer develops first during embryonic
(c) A and D only (d) A and B only development?
Karnataka CET-2009 / Manipal-2009 (a) Ectoderm (b) Mesoderm
Ans. (a) : The correctly matched pairs of the germ (c) Endoderm (d) Both [b] and [c]
layers and their derivatives are-
BCECE-2008 / UP CPMT-2007
Germ layer Derivatives
Ans. (c) : The endoderm is one of the germ layers
Ectoderm epidermis, pituitary gland ,
cornea ,enamel of teeth formed during animal embryogenesis. It constructs the
digestive tube and the respiratory tube. The thyroid also
Mesoderm Dermis,muscles,
forms in this region of endoderm.
kidney, notochord
Endoderm Epithelium of mouth, gall 414. The gestation period of elephant is about:
bladder, liver (a) 11 months (b) 15 months
409. Trophoblast of the blastocyst gets (c) 22 months (d) 32 months
differentiated into BCECE-2003
(a) allantois (b) chorion Ans. (c) : The gestation period of elephant is about 22
(c) amnion (d) embryo months. Gestation period is the period of the
BVP-2015 development of an embryo while carrying inside the
Ans. (b) : Trophoblast of the blastocyst gets differentiated viviparous animals.
into chorion. Trophoblasts are cells forming the outer layer
of a blastocyst, which provides nutrients to the embryo, 415. What is true for cleavage : -
and develops into a large part of the placenta. They are (a) Size of embryo increase
formed during the first stage of pregnancy and are the first (b) Size of cells decrease
cells to differentiate from the fertilized egg. (c) Size of cells increase
410. Corpus luteum remains active during early (d) Size of embryo decrease
pregnancy producing progesterone because of AIPMT-2002
human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG). But in Ans. (b) : During the cleavage, the zygote repeatedly to
the later stages the production of progesterone
is taken over by convert the large cytoplasmic mass into a large number
(a) placenta (b) allantois of blastomeres. In this stage cells number are increased
(c) chorion (d) amnion and embryo size same like - 2 → 4 → 8 → 16 → 32
BVP-2015 →64
Ans. (a) : Corpus luteum remains active during early
pregnancy producing progesterone because of human
Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG). But in the later stages the
production of progesterone is taken over by placenta.
411. Chromosomal imbalance is most frequent
during which of the following stages of human
development?
(a) Foetal (b) Embryonic
(c) Adult (d) Childhood
CG PMT-2011 416. Gastrulation means
Ans. (b) : Chromosomal imbalance is most frequent (a) conversion of blastula into morula
during embryonic stages of human development. (b) formation of 3 germ layers
Human embryonic development is the development and (c) a phase in which organogenesis takes places
formation of the human embryo.
(d) a phase characterised by inner cell mass
412. Nervous system develops from :
(a) ectoderm (b) endomesoderm JIPMER-2019
(c) mesoderm (d) ectomesoderm Ans. (b) : • Gastrulation means formation of 3 germinal
Rajasthan PMT-2000 layers.
Ans. (a) : Nervous system develops from ectoderm. • These three layers (germ layers) are inner endoderm,
The nervous system is the major controlling, regulatory, middle mesoderm and outermost ectoderm.
and communicating system in the body. 417. Which of the following hormones is not a
secretion product of human placenta -
(a) Prolactin
(b) Estrogen
(c) Progesterone
(d) Human chorionic gonadotropin
Karnataka CET-2016 / BCECE-2012
CMC Vellore-2012 / CMC Ludhiana-2009
Manipal-2007 / CG PMT-2006 / AIPMT-2004
Ans. (a) : Prolactin is secreted by anterior pituitary
gland and cause production of milk in mammary glands.
• Placenta produce estrogen, progesterone, relaxins 422. Cells become variable in morphology and
human chorionic gonadotropin hormone (HCG) and function in different regions of the embryo. The
human placental lactogen (HPL). process is
• Progesterone acts to maintain pregnancy by (a) differentiation (b) metamorphosis
supporting the lining of the uterus (womb), which (c) organisation (d) rearrangement
provides place of connection for the fetus and the AIPMT-1989
placenta to grow.
Ans. (a) : Cells becomes variable in morphology and
• Estrogen is also produced by the placenta during function in different regions of the embryo. The process
pregnancy to help maintain a healthy pregnancy. is called differentiation.
418. In Human beings, at the end of 12 weeks(first Differentiation are the changes from simple to more
trimester) of pregnancy, the following is observed: complexes forms undergone by developing tissues and
(a) Movement of the foetus organs so that they become specialized for particular
(b) Eyelids and eyelashes are formed functions.
(c) Most of the major organ systems are formed Differentiation occurs during embryonic development
(d) The head is covered with fine hair and regeneration.
NEET-2020 Phase-II
423. Which hormone helps in detection of
Ans. (c) : Most of the major organ systems are formed
by the end of the 12 weeks (first trimester) of pregnancy?
pregnancy. All the organs muscles, limbs and bones are (a) hCG (b) hPL
in place and the sex organs developed. From now on the (c) Prolactin (d) Progesterone
body has to grow and mature. Its too for you to be able AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-II
to feel the babies movement yet. Ans. (a) : Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a
419. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as hormone produced primarily by syncytiotrophoblastic
(a) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal cells of the placenta during pregnancy. The hormone
imbalance stimulates the corpus luteum to produce progesterone to
(b) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality maintain the pregnancy.
(c) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus • A human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) urine test is
(d) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus a pregnancy test.
AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015 • A pregnant woman's placenta produces hCG, also
Ans. (c) : The condition in which the fertilized egg called the pregnancy hormone. hCG hormone is
attaches itself in a location outside the uterus is known as produced only during pregnancy.
ectopic pregnancy. Generally the fertilized egg attached
itself in fallopian tube is known as ectopic pregnancy. 424. Choose the correct one
420. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain
pregnancy are
(a) hCG, hPL, progesterones, prolactin
(b) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(c) hCG, progesterones, estrogens, glucocorticoids
(d) hCG, hPL, progesterones, estrogens
NEET-2018
Ans. (d) : hCG, hPL, progesterones, estrogen are all
secreted by placenta as a targeted cell to maintain the
pregnancy. Placenta play important role to nourish the (a) A – Chorionic villi → forms placenta
embryo at foetal condition. (b) B – Yolk sac → Prevents desiccation
of embryo
(c) C – umbilical cord → Haemopoiesis
(d) D – Blastocyst → Forms the embryo
Ans. (a) : The chorion is formed by mesoderm tissue
from the mother and trophoblast cells derived from the
forming foetus. The chorionic villi emerge from this
chorion and enter the endometrium. Chorionic villi are
microscopic, finger–like projections that contain
421. The extra embryonic membranes of the capillaries for blood to flow through. Chorionic villi
mammalian embryo are derived from form the placenta.
(a) trophoblast (b) inner cell mass • In mammals (except marsupials), the chorion
(c) formative cells (d) follicle cells develops a rich supply of blood vessels and forms an
AIPMT-1994 intimate association with the endometrium (living) of
Ans. (a) : The extraembnyonic membranes of the the female's uterus. Chorion and endometrium together
mammalian embryo are derived from trophoblast, after form the placenta, which is the embryos principal organ
the cleavage of the zygote, the blastocyst is formed. of respiration, nutrition, and excretion.
425. Which one of the following statements with regard 428. Adult stem cells mostly belong to the following
to embryonic development in humans is correct? type
(a) Cleavage divisions bring about considerable (a) Toti potent (b) Pluri potent
increase in the mass of protoplasm (c) Multi potent (d) Uni potent
(b) In the second cleavage division, one of the AP EAMCET-12.07.2022 Shift-II
two blastomeres usually divides a little sooner Ans. (c) : Adult stem cells are generally multipotent,
than the second meaning they can differentiate into a limited range of
(c) With more cleavage divisions, the resultant cell types within a specific tissue or organ. This
blastomeres become larger and larger differentiation ability is more restricted than pluripotent
stem cells and broader than unipotent stem cells (which
(d) Cleavage division results in a hollow ball of can only become one cell type)
cells called morula.
429. Which of the following is NOT an ectodermal
AIIMS-2003 derivative ?
Ans. (b) :Regarding embryonic development (in (a) Stomodaeum (b) Adrenal cortex
humans) is correct answer, in the second cleavage (c) Retina (d) Enamel of teeth
division, one of the two blastomeres usually divides a MHT CET-01.10.2020 Shift-I
little sooner than the second.
Ans. (b) : The adrenal cortex is not an ectodermal
• Cleavage is a type of cell division where the cell does derivatives. The adrenal cortex is derived from the
not increase in mass but divides to form multiple mesoderm. Which is one of the three primary germinal
smaller cells within one large single cell. For cleavage layers that gives rise to all the tissue and organ of the
in zygote leads to the formation of early embryos. body during embryonic development.
• Morula- The said mass of cells that is formed by the
430. Zonary placenta is found in:
cleavage of the zygote is called a morula. It has 8-16
cells of blastomere. (a) Artiodactyla (b) Cetacea
(c) Rodentia (d) Carnivora
MP PMT-2013
Ans. (d) : Zonary placenta forms as a band surrounding
the developing fetus. This type of placenta is found in
carnivores like dogs, cats, seals, omnivores like bears
and herbivores like elephants.
431. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The spermatids differentiate into structurally
complex spermatozoa by the process of
spermiogenesis
(b) Fertilization is a physico-chemical event
426. The early stage human embryo distinctly possesses: (c) Cleavage transforms the fertilized ovum into
a sphere of aggregated blastomeres
(a) Gills (b) Gill slits (d) Cleavage divisions bring appreciable increase
(c) External car (pinna) (d) Eye brows. in the mass of protoplasm in the developing
AIIMS-2003 embryo
Ans. (b) : An embryo is an early stage of development AMU-2001
of a multicellular organisms. Early human embryo Ans. (d) : Cleavage division does not bring appreciable
possesses a dorsal hollow nerve cord, a well developed increase in the mass of protoplasm in the developing
notochord and a series of gill slits, which represents the embryo.
fundamental chordate characters. Cleavage is a series of rapid cell division that occurs in
the zygote following fertilization resulting in the
427. Which of the following structures are formation of a multicellular embryo. During cleavage
derivatives of the endoderm? into smaller cells each containing a smaller amount of
(a) Muscles and blood cytoplasm than the original zygote.
(b) Alimentary canal and respiratory structures 432. Embryologist can draw the fate maps of future
(c) Skin and nerve cord organs of embryo in
(d) Excretory and reproductive structures (a) blastula (b) morula
Karnataka CET-2005 (c) early gastrula (d) late gastrula
Ans. (b) : Alimentary canal and respiratory structures AMU-2003
are derivatives of the endoderm. Blood and muscles are Ans. (a) : Embryologist can create fate maps organ of
formed by mesoderm while skin and nerve cord are an embryo. Cell differentiation is initiated in the
derivatives of ectoderm. The innermost layer of the blastula stage and therefore fate mapping is prepared by
three primary germ layers of an embryo that is the observing the embryo from the blastula stage.
source of the epithelium of digestive tract and lower 433. Study the following statements and pick up the
respiratory tract, called endoderm. incorrect one.
Several internal organs and inner epithelial lining of most (a) Interstitial cells of testis secrete androgens
of the gastrointestinal tract is derived from endoderm. (b) Cortex of ovary contains ovarian follicles
(c) In human beings placenta is haemoendothelial Ans. (d) : Fetal ejection reflex in human females is
type induced by the fully developed fetus and placenta. It is
(d) The cell mass that enclose the ovum mother the major cue which moves the baby from the uterus
cell is known as cumulus oophorus and into the birth canal initially.
TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-I Parturition is an induced complex neuroendocrine
Ans. (c) : The term “Haemoendothelial” type of mechanism. In this signals are originated from a fully
placenta. The term ‘Haemoendthelial’ is typically used developed foetus and placenta. This lead to mild uterine
to describe a type of placenta found in some animals, contractions and hence fetal ejection reflex. Then
such as rodents, where the fetal chorionic villi are
surround by a layer of maternal endothelial cells. oxytocin acts on uterine muscles leading to strong
In Human the placenta is haemochorial, which means uterine contraction. This further continues to stronger &
the charionic villi are in direct contact with the maternal stronger contractions. As a result, the baby is expelled
blood in the intervillous space. out of the uterus with placenta through the birth canal.
434. In the development of the human body, the 437. When the MTP act came into force in India?
ectoderm is responsible for the formation of (a) 1973 (b) 1972
(a) sweat glands (b) nervous system (c) 1971 (d) 1970
(c) lens of the eye (d) all of these GUJCET-2018
Punjab MET-1999 Ans. (b): Abortion in India has been legal under various
Ans. (d) : The ectoderm is responsible for the formation circumstances. Medical termination bill was introduced
of several structure and tissue of human body. in the Loksabha and Rajyasabha and pass by the
• The central nervous system, neural tube, which parliament in August 1971. The medical termination of
develops Brain and spinal cord. pregnancy (MTP) Act came into force on April 1, 1972
• The peripheral nervous system epidermis, The outer and was enforce through out India.
most layer of skin The Act was amended in 2003 in enable women's
accessibility to safe the legal abortion services.
• Hair, Nails and glands
• Sensory organs lens of eye etc. 438. Several mammary ducts join to form a wider
structure called
G. Parturition and Lactation (a) Lactiferous duct
(b) Mammary lobe
Process (c) Mammary ampulla
435. Signals from fully developed foetus and (d) Mammary tubules
placenta ultimately lead to parturition which Karnataka CET-2018
requires the release of Ans. (c) : A functional mammary gland is characteristic
(a) Ralaxin from placenta of all female mammals. The mammary gland are paired
(b) Estrogen from placenta structure (breasts) that contain glandular tissue and the
(c) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary variable amount of fat. The glandular tissue of each
(d) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary breast is divided into 15-20 mammary lobe containing a
NEET (Karnataka)-2013 / AIPMT (Mains)-2010 cluster of cells called alveoli. The cell of alveoli open
into mammary tubule. The tubules of each lobe join to
Ans. (c) : Parturition is induced by a complex neuro
form a mammary duct which join to form a wider
endocrine mechanism. The signals for parturition
mammary ampulla. The mammary ampulla is connected
originate from the fully developed foetus and the
to the lactiferous duct through which milk is sucked out.
placenta which induce mild uterine Contractions called
foetal ejection reflex. 439. Antibodies found in colostrums are mainly of
• This triggers release of oxytocin from the maternal this type
pituitary (a) Ig G (b) Ig E
• Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscles and causes (c) Ig A (d) Ig D
stronger Uterine contractions, which in turn TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II
stimulates further secretion of oxytocin. TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I
• The stimulatory reflex between the uterine Ans. (c) : Immunoglobin A (IgA) is the main
contraction and oxytocin secretion continues immunoglobin in human colostrums and milk.
resulting in stronger and stronger contractions. This ● Ig E- It is produced by plasma cells and located in
leads to expulsion of the baby out of the uterus lymph node
through the birth canal i.e., Parturition. ● Ig G - It is found in all body fluid and protect from
436. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is bacteria and virus infection.
induced by ● Ig D- found on the surface of B lymphocytes.
(a) Differentiation of mammary glands 440. The expulsion of completely developed foetus
(b) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid from the uterus is known as
(c) Release of oxytocin from pituitary (a) ovulation (b) oviposition
(d) Fully developed foetus and placenta (c) gestation (d) parturition
AIPMT (Screening)-2012 / AIPMT-2009 BVP-2010
Ans. (d) : The expulsion of completely developed (c) Synthesis of prostaglandins
foetus from the uterus is known as parturition. (d) Release of Oxytocin
Oviposition is the term used to describe laying of eggs. NEET-2021 / AIPMT-2015
Ovulation is a phase of the female menstrual cycle that Ans. (a) : Release of prolactin is not an important
involves the release of an egg (ovum) from one of the component of the initiation of parturition (childbirth).
ovaries. It generally occurs about two weeks before the Prolactin is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland, and
start of the menstrual period. its primary function is related to lactation, which is the
441. The protein content is maximum in production of milk in the mammary glands after childbirth.
(a) human's milk (b) buffalo's milk 446. Which of the following contraceptive methods
(c) colosturm (d) cow's milk do involve a role of hormone?
VMMC-2015 (a) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills.
Ans. (c) : Colostrum is the first milk produced by (b) Cupper-T, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
mammals after giving birth. It is a thick yellow liquid CuT,
that is rich in protein, fat and vitamins. Colostrum is (c) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods.
especially important for newborns, as it helps them to (d) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills Emergency
develop a strong immune system and protect them from contraceptives.
infection. NEET-2019
442. First milk produced after child birth is called Ans. (d) : In lactational amenorrhea, high prolactin
(a) sebum (b) cerumen level during active , Lactational period decreases the
(c) ture milk (d) colostrums gonadotropin level in the blood.
AMU-2003 Pills usually contain progesterone - oestrogen
Ans. (d) : The first milk produced after childbirth is combination which prevent ovulation.
known as colostrums. Colostrum is a special type of Emergency contraceptives also contain progesterone
milk that is rich in nutrients and antibodies, making it and estradiol preparation
highly beneficial for a new burn’s health. It is usually Barrier method represent physical method of
produced in the first few days after giving birth. contraception.
443. Name the hormone which stimulates growth Cupper–T acts by as barrier releasing of the sperm in
and development of breast in preparation for vaginal tract.
lactation? 447. Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted by
(a) Oestrogen mother during the initial days of lactation is
(b) Human placental lactogen very essential to impart immunity to the new
(c) Progesterone born infants because it contains
(d) Chorionic gonadotrophin (a) Monocytes (b) Macrophages
Manipal-2006 (c) Immunoglobulin A (d) Natural killer cells
Ans. (b) : Human placental lactogen is a hormone NEET-2019
released by the placenta during pregnancy. It helps Ans. (c) : During pregnancy, mammary glands of the
prepare your body for breastfeeding. It also regulates female undergo differentiation and at the end of
metabolism and insulin sensitivity to make sure the pregnancy, milk secretion start from them, this process
fetus gets enough nutrients. is called lactation.
444. The yellowish fluid "colostrums" secreted by • The yellowish milk produced during the initial days of
mammary glands of mother during the initial lactation is called colostrums.
days of lactation has abundant antibodies (lgA) Colostrums is rich in carbohydrates, proteins and
to protect the infant. This type of immunity is antibodies and has very fat.
called as : Breast feeding is very important for an instant because
(a) Autoimmunity it provides them with nutrition and immunity.
(b) Passive immunity There are many types of antibodies produced in our
body some of them are IgM, IgA, IgE, IgG. Normally
(c) Active immunity these antibodies are found in the blood and hence, show
(d) Acquired immunity humeral immune response.
NEET-2020 Phase-II
Ans. (b) : The yellowish fluid "colostrums" secreted by
mammary glands of the mother during the initial days
of lactation has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the
infant. This type of immunity is called as: passive
immunity.
445. Which of these is not an important component
of initiation of parturition in humans?
(a) Release of Prolactin
(b) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
Colostrum contain a large amount of Ig antibody, which (b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct
provide immunity to the child and hence protects the explanation of A
child from many infections. (c) A is true but R is false
Additional Information– Antibodies are protein
(d) A and R are R false
produced by B-lymphocytes. They play an important
role in humoral response of the body. AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I
448. Which of the following hormones is responsible Ans. (a) : The myometrium is the middle layer of the
uterine wall, and it is composed of smooth muscle. This
for both the milk ejection reflex and the foetal
ejection reflex? muscle tissue is responsible for the contractions of the
(a) Relaxin (b) Estrogen uterus, which are essential for menstruation, childbirth,
(c) Prolactin (d) Oxytocin and the postpartum period.
The reason that the myometrium is important for
NEET (Odisha)-2019
Ans. (d) : The hormone responsible for both the milkchildbirth is because it is responsible for the
contractions that push the body out of the uterus. These
ejection reflex and the foetal ejection reflex is oxytocin.
Oxytocin is a hormone that is produced by the contractions become stronger and more frequent as
hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary labor progresses, and they eventually culminate in the
gland. It is released into the blood stream in response to
birth of the baby.
a variety of stimuli Therefore both the assertion and the reason are true and
• Sucking at the breast the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
• Stretching of the cervix during labor. 451. Match List I with List II and choose the correct
• Orgasm. answer
• Touching, smelling or seeing a loved one. List-I List-II
449. Choose the correct statement: A. Hypothalamus 1. Sperm lysins
(a) hPL plays a major role in parturition
B. Acrosome 2. Estrogen
(b) Foetus shows movements first time in the 7th
months of pregnancy C. Graafian follicle 3. Relaxin
(c) Signal for parturition comes from fully D. Leyding cells 4. GnRH
developed foetus and placenta. E. Parturition 5. Testosterone
(d) Embryo's heart is formed by the 2nd month of
(a) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3, E - 5
pregnancy
(b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3, E - 5
AIIMS-2012
(c) A - 2, B - 1, C - 5, D - 4, E - 3
Ans. (c) : The process of delivery of the foetus is called
parturition. (d) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 5, E - 3
• Parturition is induced from the fully developed foetus (e) A - 5, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2, E - 4
and placenta. Kerala PMT-2009
Ans. (d) :
• Oxytocin and relaxin play major role in parturition.
Foetus show movements first time during fifth month
(A) Hypothalamus - GnRH
of pregnancy. Embryo's heart is formed after the first
(B) Acrosome - sperm lysin
month of pregnancy. (C) Graafian follicle - Estrogen
(D) Leyding cells - Testosterone
(E) Parturition - Relaxin
452. Mammary glands are modified
(a) Sweat gland
(b) Sebaceous gland
(c) Lacrimal gland
(d) Endocrine gland
AMU-2009
450. Assertion : Myometrium is important Ans. (a) : Mammary gland are modified sweat gland.
component of uterus. They are present in both males and females, but are
Reason : Myometrium produces strong much more developed in females. In males, they are
contractions during parturition. present in a rudimentary state. The function of
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct mammary glands is to secrete milk, which is used to
explanation of A feed young ones.
09. REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
Ans. (a) : According to the World Health Organization
A. Reproductive Health-Difficulty (WHO) reproductive health implies that people are able
and strategies to have a satisfying and safe sex life. It is physically and
functionally well-developed reproductive organs.
1. Match the following ■ There is a statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex
List-I List-II determination to legally check increasing female
A Family planning i 1970 foeticides.
programme ■ Amniocentsis is a test you may be offered during
pregnancy to your body has a genetic condition.
B Pre-natal Diagnostic ii 1971 Aminocentesis is used to determine genetic disorders
Techniques act and survivability.
C Legalisation of iii 1951 ■ Saheli is a new oral contraceptive for females,
medical Termination developed by the scientists at central drug research
of pregnancy institute (CPRI) Lucknow, India.
D Advant of iv 1994
3. Match List I with List II :
amniocentesis
List I List II
(a) A. iv B. iii C. i D. ii
(b) A. ii B. iv C. iii D. i A. Vasectomy I. Oral method
(c) A. ii B. i C. iv D. iii B. Coitus II. Barrier method
(d) A. iii B. iv C. ii D. i interruptus
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I C. Cervical caps III. Surgical
Ans. (d) : Family planning programme : – method
India was launched a national programme for family D. Saheli IV. Natural
planning in 1952 was introduced by Shri Nyapathy method
madhave Rao. Choose the correct answer from the options
Pre - natal diagnostic techniques act : given below :
The pre-conception and pre-natal diagnostic techiques (a) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Act was enacted no 20 September 1994 with the intent t (b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
prohibit prenatal diagnostic techniques for (c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
determination of the sex of the fetus leading to female (d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
feticide. NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
Legalization of Medical termination f pregnancy :– Ans. (c) : Vasectomy is a minor surgery performed in
Government of India legalized MTP in 1971 with some males in which a small incision is made on the scrotum
strict conditions to avoid its misuse. This bill was and the vas deferens is tied and cut.
passed in August 1971, which was authored by Sripati • Due to this the sperms are prevented from reaching
Chandrasekhar the female reproductive tract during coitus.
Advant of amniocentesis : – 1970 • Coitus is a word for sex, specifically vaginal sex that
Amniocentesis and CVS were introduced in India in the includes penetration and ejaculation.
late 1970 and were originally developed mainly to • The cervical cap is a form barrier contraception. It
defect certain genetic conditions or disorders. prevent the pregnancy. It is made of silicone.
2. Which of the following statements are correct? • A cap is called a barrier method because it keeps the
(A) Reproductive health refers to total well- sperm and egg apart.
being in all aspects of reproduction • Saheli is world's first and only oral non steroidal
(B) Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex contraceptive pill.
determination in India. 4. Given below are two statements : one is
(C) "Saheli" -a new oral contraceptive for labelled as Assertion A and the otheris labelled
females was developed in collaboration as Reason R.
with ICMR (New Delhi) Assertion A : Amniocentesis for sex
(D) Amniocentesis is used to determine genetic determination is one of the strategies of
disorders and survivability of foetus. Reproductive and Child Health Care
Choose the most appropriate answer from the Programme.
options given below: Reason R : Ban on amniocentesis checks
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only (b) (A) and (C) only increasing menace of female foeticide.
(c) (B) and (C) only (d) (D) and (C) only In the light of the above statements, choose the
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) correct answer from the options given below :
Reproductive Health 435 YCT
(a) A is false but R is true. Ans. (d) : Auxetic growth occurs as a result of increase
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct in the size of their cells. The number of cells remains
explanation of A. same, the body grows in size because of the
(c) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the enlargement of its cells.
correct explanation of A. ex :– Auxetic growth is found in nematodes, rotifers
(d) A is true but R is false. and tunicates.
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
Ans. (a) : Amncentesis is a prenatal diagnostic B. Population Explosion
technique used to detect the sex of the developing 8. Multiload 375 is
foetus, genetically controlled congential disease and
(a) A barrier
metabolic disorders in the foetus.
(b) An oral contraceptive pill
In India, these is statuary ban on aminocentesis for sex
(c) An intra uterine device
determination to legally check.
(d) A contraceptive injection
5. Hysterectomy is surgical removal of: AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II
(a) Prostate gland (b) Vas-deference Ans. (c) : Multiload 375 is a type of intra uterin divices.
(c) Mammary glands (d) Uterus If consist of a small plastic rod bound with copperbire
AIPMT-2015 in is provided with two flexible plastic arms. It release
Ans. (d) : A hysterectomy is a surgery to remove a copper ion and prevent conaption.
woman’s uterus (also known as womb). The uterus is • The duration of multiload 375 aproved for the years
where a baby grows when a woman is pregnant. During and 5 years are respectiviley.
the surgery the whole uterus is usually removed. After 9. Phenonmenal and rapid increase of population
hysterectomy, a women no longer have menstrual in a short period is called
periods and cannot become pregnant. (a) natural increase (b) population growth
• Vasectomy is the surgical method of male sterilization. (c) population explosion (d) None of the above
During the procedure, the vas deferens are severed and J&K CET-2009
then tied to prevent sperm from entering into the Ans. (c) : Abnormal and rapid growth of population in a
ejaculate and thereby prevent fertilization. short period of time is called population explosion.
• Mastectomy is the surgical removal of the mammary Population explosion is the sudden growth of the
gland. population over a short span of time. It is one of major
• Prostatectomy is the removal of the part of the problems due to which the earth is losing its balance, it
complete prostate gland. is increasing at an alarming rate in the country India is
the second country.
6. The following factors indicate improved
reproductive health of the society. Choose the 10. Reproductive isolation mechanism prevent
interbreeding of naturally sympatric
correct option. population. Given below are categories of
(1) Better detection and cure of disease isolating mechanisms. Choose the correct name
(2) Better post-natal care for isolation when potential mates occupy
(3) Medically assisted deliveries overlapping ranges but reproduce at different
(4) Increased MMR times of the year.
Select the code for correct answer from the (a) Ecological isolation
option given below. (b) Behavioural isolation
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Temporal isolation
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) Mechanical isolation
Karnataka CET-2018 MGIMS Wardha-2015
Ans. (c) : Temporal isolation occurs when two
Ans. (b) : Reproductive health refers to a healthy
population differ in their period of activity or
reproductive life with healthy reproductive organs, their reproductive cycles. Example leopard, frogs and wood
normal functioning and ensuring emotional social and frogs reach sexual maturity at different times in the
physical well-being. spring and hence cannot interbreed.
Reproductive health in society can be improved by better 11. When members of a population attain sexual
awareness about sex-related matter, increased number of maturity at different times preventing inter-
medically assisted deliveries and better post natal care breeding, it is termed as____isolation.
leading to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates, (a) Seasonal (b) Mechanical
increased number couple with small families better (c) Habitat (d) Ethological
detection and cure of STDs and over all increased medical MHT CET-2017
facilities for all sex related problem etc. All factors indicate Ans. (a) : When Members of a population attain sexual
improved reproductive health of the society. maturity at different times to avoid interbreeding . It is
7. Auxetic growth is seen in called as seasonal isolation.
(a) rotifers (b) nematodes • Isolation is a mechanism to avoid inter species crosses
(c) tunicates (d) All of these includes seasonal isolation, mechanical isolation,
CMC Vellore-2013 ecological isolation etc.
12. One of the following causes population explosion: Ans. (a) : Oral contraceptive pill is composed of
(a) Decrease in death rate, maternal mortality rateestrogen and progesterone combination. Oral
and infant mortality rate contraceptives (birth control pills) are hormone-
(b) Decrease in death rate and increase in containing medications that are taken by mouth to
maternal mortality rate prevent pregnancy. The pills contains hormones that
(c) Decrease in infant mortality rate and increase regulate menstruation decrease pms symptom.
in death rate 17. Oral contraceptive pills help in birth control by
(d) Decrease in infant mortality rate and decrease (a) killing sperms
in the number of people in reproductive age (b) killing ova
Karnataka CET-2014
(c) preventing ovulation
Ans. (a) : The causes of population explosion are as (d) forming barrier between sperms and ova
follows. Tripura JEE-2021, 2017
• Increase in the natality rate DUMET-2010, 2008
• A rapid decline in death rates like MMR (Maternal Ans. (c) : Oral contraceptive pills help in birth control
mortality rate) and IMR (Infant mortality rate). This by preventing ovulation and implantation as well as
is due to advancement of medicines and regular alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retarted
health checkups. entry of sperms.
• Low level of education Medicines taken daily that prevent ovulation by
• Cultural factors controlling pituitary hormone secretion. Usually oral
• Rise in food production. contraceptives contain the hormones estrogen and
13. The sex ratio in India in 2000 stands progestrogens.
(a) 1000 males per 1200 females 18. Permanent contraception in human male is
(b) 1000 males per 965 females called
(c) 1000 males per 1071 females (a) tubectomy (b) disphragen
(d) 1000 males per 960 females (c) vasectomy (d) None of these
Rajasthan PMT-2001 UP CPMT-2012
Ans. (d) : According to the census of 2001 there were Ans. (c) : Permanent contraception in human male is
933 females per 1000 males in the population. Since the called Vasectomy. It involves cutting and sealing the
vas deferentia (the tube that carry sperm from the
last two of the decades there has been in slight increase
in the sex ratio. testes).
Tubectomy is a major surgical procedure in which
C. Methods of Birth Control the fallopian tubes are cut open and clipped or tied
off to block the passage of the egg into the uterus.
14. An example for hormone releasing IUD is 19. One of the side-effect of the use of anabolic
(a) Implant (b) LNG - 20 steroids in females
(c) Multiload 375 (d) Lippes loop (a) Cirrhosis of liver (b) Loss of memory
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 (c) Masculinisation (d) Hallucination
Ans. (b) : An example for hormone releasing IUD in Karnataka CET-2022
LNG - 20. It is a hormone releasing intra uterine Ans. (c) : One of the side-effect of the use of anabolic
devices that makes the cervix hostile to the sperm and
steroids in females is masculinisation. It is the
also makes the uterus unsuitable fro implantation.
biological development of adult male characteristics in
IUD's are the most widely used and ideal contraceptives young males or females.
for women.
• Cirrhosis is a type of liver damage where healthy
15. The new oral contraceptive named Saheli for cells are replaced by scar tissue.
female was developed by the scientists of
• Hallucination is a false perception of objects or
(a) CDRI, Lucknow (b) IISC Bengaluru
events involving senses like sight, sound, smell,
(c) CSIR, New Delhi (d) ICMR, New Delhi touch and taste.
VMMC-2011
20. The hormone releasing IUD is
Ans. (a) : The new oral contraceptive named Saheli for
female was developed by the scientists of CDRI (a) LNG 20 (b) Lippes loop
(Central Drug Research Institute) Lucknow. (c) CuT (d) Multiload 375
Contraceptive pills are taken to prevent pregnancy. (e) Cu7
Saheli is one such pill. It is a non-steroidal pill which GUJCET-2022 / NEET-2021
contain progesterone. Kerala PMT-2015 / AIPMT-2014
16. Oral contraceptive pill is composed of J&K CET-2013
(a) estrogen and progesterone Ans. (a) : The hormone releasing IUD is LNG 20.
(b) estrogen and testosterone Multiload 375 and Cu7, CuT are copper-releasing
(c) progesterone and testosterone IUDs.
(d) estrogen and growth hormone • Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD, it increases
WB JEE-2012 phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus.
21. Assertion : Use of condom is a safeguard 25. Most important component of oral
against AIDS and sexual diseases besides contraceptive is:
checking pregnancy. (a) LH (b) GH
Reason: Certain contraceptives are planted (c) Thyroxine (d) Progesterone
under the skin of the upper arm to prevent JIPMER-2011 / Punjab MET-2010 / BCECE-2003
pregnancy. Ans. (d) : Most important component of oral
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct contraceptive is progesterone.
explanation of A. The most commonly prescribed pill in the combined
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the hormonal pill with estrogen and progesterone.
correct explanation of A. Progesterone is the hormone that prevents pregnancy
(c) If A is true but R is false. and the estrogen component controls menstrual
(d) If both A and R are false. bleeding.
JCECE-2018 26. Given below are four methods (A to D) and
Ans. (b) : Use of condom is a safe guard against AIDS their modes of action (1 to 4) in achieving
and sexual diseases besides checking pregnancy. contraception. Select their correct matching
Therefore, assertion is correct. from the four options that follow.
• Certain contraceptives are planted under the skin Column I Column II
upper arm which slowly releasing a form of the A. The Pill 1. Prevents sperms
hormone progesterone. This hormone stops the ovary reaching cervix
releasing egg. In this method a small flexible rod which B. Condom 2. Prevents
needs to be replaced every three years. So, reason is implantation
also correct. C. Vasectomy 3. Prevents ovulation
Hence, both Assertion and Reason are true, but R is not D. Copper - T 4. Semen contains no
the correct explanation of A. sperms
22. Family planning program was launched in (a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(a) 1920 (b) 1930 (b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(c) 1950 (d) 1951 (c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
JCECE-2018 / Karnataka CET-2017 (d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Ans. (d) : Family planning program was launched in MGIMS Wardha-2013 / VMMC-2012
1951 with the objective of lower fertility rates and slow BHU PMT (Screening)-2010 / AIPMT-2008
population growth as a means to push economic growth. Ans. (c) : Following is the correct matching:-
As per National Health Mission (NHM) -India was the
first country in the world to have launched a National Column I Column II
Programmer for Family Planning in 1951. A. The pill Prevents
23. Cu-T prevents pregnancy by preventing ovulation
(a) fertilization B. Condom Prevents sperms
(b) ovulation reaching cervix
(c) implantation of fertilized egg
(d) None of the above C. Vasectomy Semen contains no
AFMC-2010 sperms
Ans. (a) : Cu-T prevents pregnancy by preventing D. Copper-T Prevents implantation
fertilization. Copper-T is inserted into the uterine cavity 27. Match List-I with List-II with respect to
by a doctor or nurse and left there for a certain period methods of Contraception and their respective
for the contraception purpose. actions.
The Cu-T is birth control device (IUD). It is T-shaped List-I List-II
and have spermicidal effect. It releases copper ions that (A) Diaphragms (i) Inhibit ovulation
prevent pregnancy by inhibiting the movement of and Implantation
sperm.
(B) Contraceptive (ii) Increase
24. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent: Pills phagocytosis of
(a) fertilization (b) coitus sperm within
(c) egg formation (d) embryonic development Uterus
BCECE-2003 (C) Intra Uterine (iii) Absence of
Ans. (a) : Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent Devices Menstrual cycle
fertilization. It is a surgical procedure for sterilization and ovulation
woman's fallopian tubes are blocked or sealed, either of following
which prevents an egg from being fertilized or reaching parturition
the uterus for implantation. (D) Lactational (iv) They cover the
It is one of the permanent contraception method for Amenorrhea cervix blocking
female. It is a highly effective way to prevent the entry of
pregnancy. sperms
Choose the correct answer from the options • IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperm within the
given below : uterus.
(a) (A) - (iii), (B) - (ii), (C) - (i), (D) - (iv) Hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable
(b) (A) - (iv), (B) - (i), (C) - (iii), (D) - (ii) for implantation and cervix hostile to the sperms e.g.
(c) (A) - (iv), (B) - (i), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iii) LNG-20, progestasert.
(d) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (iii) • The IUDs does not require surgical intervention for
NEET-2022 their insertion in the uterine cavity.
Ans. (c) : Diaphragms are barrier methods of 30. Which of the following is not an Intrauterine
contraception, they cover the cervix and block the entry Device?
of sperms. (a) Progestogens (b) Multiload 375
• Contraceptive pills are preparations containing (c) Lippes loop (d) Progestasert
either progestogens alone or combination of NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
progestogens and estrogen. They inhibit ovulation Ans. (a) : Progestasert, Multiload 375 and lippes loop
and implantation as well as after the quality of are intrauterine devices while the IUD with progestogen
cervical mucus to prevent entry of sperms. is a type of long-acting reversible birth control. It works
• Intra uterine devices increases the phagocytosis of by thickening the mucus at the opening of the cervix,
sperms within the uterus. stopping the buildup of the uterus, and occasionally
• Lactational amenorrhea is a natural method of preventing ovulation.
contraception in which menstruation cycle is absent 31. Which of the following is a correct statement?
in lactating mother, it is a period of temporary (a) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
infertility. (b) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
28. Lippe loop is a type of contraceptive used as: (c) IUDs are generally inserted by the user
(a) Copper releasing IUD herself
(b) Cervical barrier (d) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the
uterus
(c) Vault barrier
(d) Non-Medicated IUD NEET (Odisha)-2019
NEET-2022 Ans. (d) : Intra Uterine Device (IUD) is plastic or metal
objects which are inserted in the uterus through the vagina.
Ans. (d) : The intrauterine device (IUD) presently It increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
available as the non mediated IUDs, is Lippe’s loop.
• Copper ions released suppress sperm motility and
Non- medicated IUDs increase the phagocytosis of fertilizing capacity of sperms.
sperms inside the uterus.
• They have no effect on gametogenesis because
• Copper releasing IUDs are CuT, Cu7 and multi load ovulation takes place in the ovary while they are
375. placed at the junction of fallopian tubes and uterus.
• Cervical caps and vaults are included in barrier They can easily taken out.
method of contraception. 32. Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by?
29. IUDs are small objects made up of plastic or (a) Killing the sperms in uterus
copper that is inserted in the uterine cavity. (b) Peventing implanation
Which of the following statements are correct
about IUDs? (c) Preventing ovulation
(A) IUDs decrease phagocytosis of sperm (d) Both (b) and (c)
within the uterus. AIIMS-2009
(B) The released copper ions suppress the Ans. (d) : Oral administration of small doses of either
sperm motility. progestogens or progesterone-estrogen combinations is
(C) IUDs do not make the cervix hostile to the a contraceptive method used by the females. They are
sperm. used in the form of tablets.
(D) IUDs suppress the fertilization capacity of • They inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as
sperm. alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard
(E) The IUDs require surgical intervention for entry of sperms. Pills are very effective with lesser
their insertion in the uterine cavity. side effects and are well accepted by the females.
Choose the most appropriate answer from Saheli was founded at the Central Drug Research
the options given below: Institute in Lucknow.
(a) (A), (D) and (E) only (b) (B) and (C) only • It's a novel oral contraceptive tablet for women.
(c) (B) and (D) only (d) (D) only 33. Saheli, is an oral contraceptive pill that has
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 very high contraceptive value with little side
Ans. (c) : Intrauterine devices (IUDs) are small effects. It is because
contraceptive device that are inserted into the uterus (a) It is taken once in a week
(womb) to prevent pregnancy. (b) It contains synthetic progesterone
• The copper ions releases within the female (c) It contains centchroman
reproductive tract, which suppress the sperm motility (d) It decreases risk of cancer
and the fertilizing capacity of the sperm. AIIMS-2014
Ans. (c) : Saheli was founded at the Central Drug Vasectomy is a sterilization method in male in which
Research Institute in Lucknow. they are capable of ejaculation, but only consists of
• It's a novel oral contraceptive tablet for women. secretion of various gland and has no sperms.
Sahali is a non- steroidal contraceptive which is sterilization by preventing transfer of sperms into
taken orally. semen.
• Contraceptive method helps to control/ prevent 38. Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra
unwanted pregnancies and to maintain population Uterine Devices (IUDs) –
stabilization oral contraceptives are preparations (a) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
containing either progestin alone or a combination of (b) increase phagocytosis of sperms
progestogen and estrogen. (c) suppress sperm motility
34. Which of the following contraceptive devices (d) prevent ovulation
make uterus unsuitable for implantation? AIPMT (Screening)-2010
(a) Progestasert (b) Cu-T Ans. (c) : The copper ions released from copper
(c) Lippe's loop (d) Multiload releasing IUDs. It suppress sperms motility and the
AIIMS-2013 fertilizing capacity of the sperms.
Ans. (a) : Birth control includes various methods that 39. Which of these is used to control human
are used to prevent the fusion of gametes and the population?
production of a zygote. These methods are also called (a) Estrogen + Progesterone
contraceptive methods. (b) IUCD and MTP
Some of the temporary contraceptives such as the (c) Tubectomy and vasectomy
intrauterine devices release certain hormones that makes (d) All of the above
the uterus unsuitable for the fertilization process to take JIPMER-2012
place. Progestasert is an IUD which releases certain
Ans. (d) : To control the human population many birth
Hormones that makes the uterus hostile against
control methods can be used, such as
spermatozoa. This makes the uterus unsuitable for any
kind of implantation to take place. hormonal method, i.e. use of contraceptive pills
(estrogen and progesterone are main constituents),
35. Identify one of the physical barrier in females. Mechanical prevention method, i.e. use of IUCD
(a) Vaults (b) Saheli (Intrauterine Contraceptive Device), Surgical
(c) Implants (d) Skin patches sterilization methods, like tubectomy
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I (surgical removal of fallopian tubules) or Vasectomy
Ans. (a) : Vault caps are the type of contraceptive caps (Surgical removal of vase deferens).
for women that fit over the cervix and prevent the 40. Depo-provera refers to:
sperms to enter inside. (a) injectable contraceptive
36. Which of the following is a mechanical barrier (b) intra uterine device
used in birth control? (c) implant
(a) Copper T (b) Diaphragm (d) oral contraceptive
(c) Loop (d) Dalcon shield JIPMER-2015
Karnataka CET-2004 Ans. (a) : Depoprovera injection contains the active
Ans. (b) : Mechanical barriers are those method of ingredient, which is a synthetic form
contraception which prevent meeting of sperm and ova (Medroxyprogesterone acetate) of the naturally
these male and female condoms, diaphragm and occurring female sex hormone, progesterone.
cervical caps. It suppresses ovulation and also thickens cervical
37. Which of the following approaches does not mucus to keep sperm from reaching the egg.
give the defined action of contraceptive 41. What is the figure given below showing in
(a) Vasectomy prevents spermato particular?
genesis
(b) Barrier methods prevent fertilization
(c) Intra uterine increase phagocytosis
devices of sperms, suppress
sperm motility and (a) Tubectomy (b) Vasectomy
fertilizing capacity (c) Ovarian cancer (d) Uterine cancer
of sperms
Ans. (a) : Tubectomy involves blocking of the fallopian
(d) Hormonal Prevent/retard entry tubes. The fallopian tube are tied twice and cut between
Contraceptives of sperms, prevent
the knot.
ovulation
• Tubectomy, also known as tubal sterilization, is a
NEET-2016 Phase-I permanent method of contraception of woman.
Ans. (a) : Vasectomy prevents sperms from reaching • It is a surgical process that blocks the fallopian tubes
the seminal secretion but it has no direct effect on thereby preventing the egg released by the ovary
stopping spermatogenesis. from reaching the uterus.
42. One of the following is not a method of (c) Relaxin - Oxytocin combination
contraception – which one? (d) Progestogen - Estrogen combination
(a) Tubectomy Karnataka CET-2020
(b) Condoms Ans. (d) : Progesterone estrogen combination of
(c) Pills of a combination of oxytocin and contraceptive within 72-hours of coitus have been found
vasopressin to be very effective to avoid possible pregnancy due to
(d) Lippes loop rape or casual unprotected intercourse.
NEET (Karnataka)-2013 This combination prevents ovulation, changes the
Ans. (c) : Oxytocin is a birth hormone and vasopressin lining at uterus and prevents implantation.
(anti-diuretic hormone) reabsorbs water from the renal Progesterone is the hormone that prevents pregnancy
tubules to conserve water in the body. They have no and estrogen component controls menstrual bleeding.
role in contraception. 45. Match the following Column I with Column II :
• Tubectomy:- It is a surgical process that blocks the Column I Column II
fallopian tubes, thereby preventing egg to reach in ovary.
1. Surgical methods I. Condom
• Lippes loop:- It is a type of intrauterine contraceptive
2. Barrier methods II. Pills
device made of inert plastic in a double S-shape.
Which can be inserted for long periods. 3. Natural methods III. Tubectomy
43. Select the right option by matching Column I 4. Chemical IV. Lactational
and Column II correctly. methods amenorrhea
Column I Column II Select the code for the correct answer from the
options given below :
(i) Hormonal pills (p) fusion of 1 2 3 4
gametes is
prevented (a) III I IV II
(b) III IV I II
(ii) Spermicides (q) vasectomy (c) IV III II I
(iii) Condoms (r) natural method (d) II I III IV
and almost nil Karnataka CET-2018
side effects
Ans. (a)
(iv) Sterilization (s) inhibit O2
uptake and kill S.N. Column-I Column-II
sperms 1 Surgical method Tubectomy
(v) Interruption – (t) prevents the 2 Barrier method Condom
coitus release of ovum 3 Natural method Lactational amenorrhea
interrupts from the ovary 4 Chemical pills
(a) (i – s) (ii – t) (iii – r) (iv – q) (v – p) method
(b) (i – r) (ii – q) (iii – p) (iv – s) (v – t) Tubectomy: It is a major surgical procedure in which
(c) (i – t) (ii – s) (iii – p) (iv – q) (v – r) the fallopian tube are cut open and clipped or tied off.
(d) (i – p) (ii – s) (iii – q) (iv – r) (v – t) Barrier method: This method are used only when you
GUJCET-2019 have sexual intercourse, diaphragm and cervical cap.
Ans. (c) : Lactational amenorrhea: This is natural method of
a) Hormonal pills– Oral contraceptive pills (birth- family planning for women who breastfeed their
control pills) are used to prevent pregnancy. Estrogen infants.
and progestin are two female sex hormones. Pills: Pills are same as taking other tablets. It is the
Combination of estrogen and progestin work by chemical method.
preventing ovulation (the release off from the ovaries) 46. IUDs which are used by female ________.
(b) Spermicides – A chemical substance that kill sperm (a) act as spermicidal jellies
and is used as a type of birth control. It is available over (b) block the entry of sperms into vagina
the counter (without a doctor's order) and comes in
(c) are implanted under the skin and they release
many different form such as cream, gel foam.
progestogen and estrogen
(c) Condoms:– Condoms work by keeping semen (the
fluid that contains sperm) from entering the vagina. (d) release copper ions in the uterus that increase
phagocytosis of sperms
(e) Interruption coitus interrupts – Coitus interrupts,
also known as withdrawal, is a traditional family Karnataka CET-2014
planning method in which the man completely removes Ans. (d) : An intrauterine device (IUD) is a small
his penis from the vagina, and away from the external contraceptive device. Which IUDs suppress sperm motility
genitalia of the female partner before the ejaculates. and fertilizing ability of sperm by releasing copper ions.
44. Which of the following contraceptives could be Copper acts as a spermicidal within the uterus.
effective in avoiding pregnancy if used within The types of IUD available and the names they go by,
72 hours after casual unprotected intercourse ? differ by location, there are two types available –
(a) Androgen - FSH combination 1. Non hormonal - copper containing IUD.
(b) Testosterone - Relaxin combination 2. Hormonal - progesterone releasing IUD.
47. Match the contraceptive methods given under 49. Assertion (A) : One of the natural methods of
Column-I with their examples given under contraception is lactational amenorrhoea
Column-II. Select the correct choice from those Reason (R) : Ovulation generally does not
given below : occur during active lactation.
Column-I Column-II The correct option among the following is
(Contraceptive (Examples) (a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct
Method) explanation for (A)
A Chemical p Tubectomy and (b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the
Vasectomy correct explanation for (A)
B IUDs q Copper T and Loop
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
C Barriers r Condom and TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II
Cervical cap
Ans. (a) : Lactational amenorrhea means absence of
D Sterilization s Spermicidal Jelly menstruation resulting from breast feeding.
and foam During lactation, prolactin is secreted from anterior
t Coitus interruptus pituitary, which in turn decreases the secretion of
and calendar gonadotropins (FSH and LH). As there is no FSH so
method there will be no follicular development without LH,
(a) A = s, B = q, C = r, D = p there will be no ovulation. So, it is one at the natural
(b) A = s, B = t, C = q, D = r methods for birth control.
(c) A = p, B = r, C = q, D = t Contraception are of two types : natural methods and
(d) A = s, B = q, C = t, D = p artificial method.
Karnataka CET-2012 Natural method –
Ans. (a) : Chemical :- Spermicidal jelly and foam is • Periodic abstinence
chemical form. • Lactotional amnorrhea
IUDs :- It is a intrauterine device. Copper T and loop is • Coitus interrupts
a type of device. Artificial method
Barriers :- Condom and cervical cap work as barriers
for stop (unwanted) pregnancy. • Condoms
Sterilization :- Tubectomy and vasectomy is a type of • IUD's (intrauterine device)
sterilization. Vasectomy is a surgical operation 50. Which of the following is best measure/method
conducted on males while tubectomy is a permanent for funiting the fertility and growing
sterilization process conducted on women's. population?
48. Consider the statements given below regarding (a) Permanent methods (b) Chemical methods
contraception and answer as directed (c) Mechanical method (d) Abstinence
thereafter: UP CPMT-2014
(i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Ans. (a): Permanent birth control method involve
during first trimester is generally safe prevention/inhibition of sperm or ova by surgical
(ii) Generally chances of conception are nil until method in male and female.
mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years In male vas deferens are cut and tied, it is called
(iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are vasectomy while in female fallopian tube are cut and
effective contraceptives tied, this is termed as tubectomy or tubal ligation.
(iv) Contraception pills may be taken upto one 51. Which of the following birth control measure
week after coitus to prevent conception can be considered as the safest?
Which two of the above statement are (a) The rhythm method
correct? (b) The use of physical barriers
(a) (i), (iii) (b) (i), (ii) (c) Termination of unwanted pregnancy
(c) (ii), (iii) (d) (iii), (iv) (d) Sterilization techniques
AIPMT-2008 Karnataka CET-2006
Ans. (a) : Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) or Ans. (d) : Sterilization techniques are the safest method
abortion is a type of non-surgical abortion in which of birth control. Sterilization can be performed in both
pharmaceutical drugs are used to induce abortion. An male and female. In male, vasectomy occurs in which
oral preparation for medical abortion is commonly vas deferens cut and tied in male. While in females,
referred to as an abortion pill. tubectomy performed by doctors in which fallopian tube
• Cu-T are effective contraceptives and can last up to 12 cut and tube cut and tide. It is nearly permanent method
years. of birth control.
Generally, chances of conception are nil until mother 52. Choose the correct option which can be used by
breast-feeds up to 6 months after parturition. the females as injections or implants under the
Contraception pills must be started one week prior to skin for emergency contraceptive from the
coitus to prevent conception. following :
(i) progestogens Ans. (b) :
(ii) progestogen + estrogen combinations Column-I Column-II
(iii) estrogen Oral contraceptive – inhibit secretion of
(iv) progestasert LH and FSH
(a) (i) & (ii) (b) (ii) & (iii) IUDs – Prevent fertilization and
(c) (i) & (iv) (d) (i) & (iii) implantation of embryo
GUJCET-2023 Implants/Norplant – Released hormone to
block ovulation
Ans. (a) : Female may inject or implant progesterone Vasectomy – Passage of sperm is blocked
only or a progesterone and estrogen combination under
56. Progesterone pill helps in preventing
the skin. Progesterone will be released from these pregnancy by not allowing
implants which will help to postpone ovulation or avoid (a) ova formation (b) fertilization
fertilization. They last longer than oral Contraceptive (c) implantation (d) none of these
tablets in terms of effectiveness. BVP-2004
Estrogen are a group of hormones that play an important Ans. (a) : Progesterone pill helps in preventing
role in the sexual and reproductive development in women. pregnancy by inhibiting follicular development and
and it is control the menstrual cycle. preventing ovulation.
53. ______ is natural category of contraceptive 57. Select the incorrect statement about
method : contraceptives.
(a) Sterilization (b) Consuming pills (a) They are regular requirements for the
(c) Coitus interrupts (d) Using condoms maintenance of reproductive health
GUJCET-2020 (b) They have a significant role in checking
Ans. (c) : Coitus interrupts also known as withdrawal (c) They are practiced against a natural
reproductive events like conception or
is a traditional family planning method in which the pregnancy
man completely removes his penis from the vagina (d) The possible ill-effects like nausea, abdominal
before ejaculation. pain, irregular menstrual bleeding or even breast
Female sterilization is one of the most popular and cancer should not be totally ignored
effective method of contraception. In India female Karnataka CET-2021
sterilization by tubectomy or tubal occlusion is the Ans. (a) : Contraceptive are not regular requirement for
most commonly accepted methods among eligible reproductive health. It is use to avoid pregnancy or to
couples. delay or space pregnancy.
54. Multiload 375 is _______ type of IUDs. 58. Which is not correct about untreated STDs in
(a) Non-medicated (b) Cu releasing women?
(c) Hormone releasing (d) Mg releasing (a) Untreated STDs cause pelvic inflammation
GUJCET-2020 (b) Untreated STDs cause abortion
Ans. (b) : Multiload 375 is an example of a copper IUD (c) Untreated STDs cause still births and
which release small amount of copper inside the uterine infertility
that prevents the sperm from reaching the ovary. (d) Untreated STDs do not cause ectopic
pregnancy
55. Match the following columns.
Column-I Column-II Ans. (d) : Untreated STDs causes women’s may
A. Oral 1. Passage of sperm problem like neurological and cardiovascular disease,
contraceptives is blocked infertility ectopic pregnancy, still births and increase
B. IUDs 2 Released hormone risk of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
to block ovulation 59. The birth control pill contains____
C. Implants/ 3. inhibit secretion (a) Progesterone and estrogen
Norplant of LH and FSH (b) LH and estrogen
D. Vasectomy 4. Prevent (c) FSH and LH
fertilization and (d) FSH and estrogen
implantation of MHT CET-2017
embryo Ans. (a) : Birth control pills (BCPs) contain man made
forms of 2 hormone called estrogen and progestogen.
A B C D
These hormones are made naturally in a woman's
(a) 4 3 1 2 ovaries.
(b) 3 4 2 1 Estrogen are a group of hormones that play an
(c) 3 4 1 2 important role in the sexual and reproductive
(d) 4 2 3 2 development in women and it is control the
CMC Vellore-2013 menstrual cycle.
60. The sterilization procedure in human female is 64. Study the following about contraception
(a) Coitus interruptus (b) Rhythm method List-I List-II List-III
(c) Tubectomy (d) Vasectomy A IUDs Lippes Medicated
MHT CET-2016 loop
Ans. (c) : Tubectomy is a permanent method of B OCPs Saheli Non steroid
contraception in human female. It is a surgical process C Contracep- DMPA Prevents
that blocks fallopian tubes. tive pregnancy
61. The technique used to block the passage of injections for 3 months
sperm in male____ D Barrier Vaginal Release of
(a) Tubectomy (b) Vasectomy method ring progesteron
(c) Coitus interruptus (d) Rhythm method E Surgical Vasectomy Removal of
MHT CET-2014 method fallopian tube
Ans. (b) :Vasectomy is a permanent contraception for From the above, identify the incorrect
men. Where a small part of the vas deferens is removed combinations
or tied up through a small incision on the scrotum. It Options:
prevents the entry of sperm into semen. (a) A, D & E (b) A, C & D
62. Study of following statements. (c) C, D & E (d) B, D &E
(I) Barrier’s contraceptives like condoms AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-II
prevents STDs. Ans. (a) : Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUDs that
(II) The ideal contraceptives for spacing the increases the phagocytosis of the sperm within the
children are IUDs in India. uterus.
(III) Depotmedroxy progesterone acetate • A vaginal ring works by stopping year ovaries from
injection provides contraception for three releasing an egg each month. It also thickens the
years. fluid around the cervix. This helps to prevent the
sperm from entering.
(IV) Oral contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation as
well as implantation and alter cervical • Vasectomy is surgical procedure for male
mucus retarding sperm entry. sterilization or permanent contraception. In the
vasectomy male vasa deferentia are cut and tied to
Find out the correct from the above prevent sperm from entering into the urethra and
statements. thereby prevent fertilization of a female through
(a) Only I and II are correct sexual intercourse.
(b) Only III and IV are correct 65. Oral contraceptive pills contain
(c) Only I, II and IV are correct (a) Estrogen, Testosterone
(d) I, II, III and IV are correct (b) Eestrogen, Relaxin
TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-II (c) Testosterone, Aldosterone
MHT CET-2016 (d) Estrogen, Progesterone
Kerala PMT-2011 AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-I / BVP-2002
Ans. (c) : Depot medroxy progesterone acetate (DMPA) Ans. (d) : Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) consist of the
also known as depo-provera is an injectable progestin hormone Progesterone and estrogen or only
only contraceptive that provides highly effective, progesterone.
private three month long reversible contraception. It is most important to prevent pregnancy. Oral
63. Read the statements (A) and (B) and identify contraceptive pills is the combined hormonal pill with
the correct choice from those given: estrogen and progesterone.
Statement (A) : Women are at the peak of 66. Match the following:
conception on the 14th day of ovulation. List-I List-II
Statement (B) : Vasectomy is the method A Multiload 375 I Oral contraceptive pill
normally employed to avoid conception in B Saheli II Estrogen
females. C Vault III Surgical method
(a) Statement (A) is wrong, (B) is right. D Skin patches IV Barrier
(b) Statement (A) is right, (B) is wrong. v Intra Uterine device
(c) Both the statements are right. The correct match is
(d) Both the statements are wrong. A B C D
Karnataka CET-2013 (a) V III IV II
Ans. (b) : The woman are fertile at the peak of (b) V I IV II
conception on 14th day of ovulation. Ovulation occur on (c) II IV I V
14th day so females receptive during that period. (d) III V II IV
Vasectomy is the surgical method that is used for TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-I
permanent sterilization in males for contraception. TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-I
Ans. (b) : 70. Match the following
List-I List-II List -I List-II
Multiload 375 – Intra Uterine device A Natural method I Cervical cap.
Saheli – Oral contraceptive pill B Intra uterine II Depot Medroxy
Vault – Barrier device Progesterone
Skin patches – Estrogen Acetate (DMPA)
67. Match the following C Injection III Lactational
List-I List-II amenorrhea
(p) LNG – 20 (i) Oral contraceptive D Barrier IVLippes loop
(q) Saheli (ii) Useful to detect The correct match is
genetic defects A B C D
(r) Amniocentesis (iii) Intra uterine (a) III IV I II
device (b) IV III II I
(s) Vaginal Ring (iv) Prevention of (c) IV III I II
conception (d) III IV II I
The correct answer is TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-II
(p) (q) (r) (s) Ans. (d) :
(a) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) List-I List-II
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Natural method – Lactational amenorrhea
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) Intra uterine device – Lippes loop
(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) Injection – Depot medroxy progesterone
TS EAMCET-28.09.2020 Shift-I acetate (DMPA)
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-I Barrier – Cervical cap
TS EAMCET-12.05.2017 71. With regard to Birth control methods in
Ans. (c) : j humans DMPA stands for
List-I List-II (a) Contraceptive injection
(b) Surgical procedure
LNG – 20 – Intra uterine device
(c) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
Saheli – Oral contraceptive
(d) Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)
Amniocentesis – Useful to detect
genetic defects
Ans. (a) : The injection is commonly known by its
Vaginal Ring – Prevention of brand-name depo-provera (depot-medroxy progesterone
conception acetate or DMPA). Injection contain progesterone in
68. Which is the hormonal method of birth combination with estrogen under the skin of the upper
control? arm. They prevent pregnancy for 3 to 4 years.
(a) Pill (b) IUD 72. Progestasert is an IUD which makes the uterus
(c) Vasectomy (d) Femidom unsuitable and cervix hostile to the sperms as
AMU-2014 they are
Ans. (a) : Oral contraceptive commonly known as birth (a) Copper releasing IUDs
control pills or just “The pill” contain hormones either a (b) Non-medicated IUDs
combination of estrogen and a progestin or a progestin (c) Hormone releasing IUDs
alone. The hormones in the pill safely stop ovulation. (d) Ideal contraceptive
No ovulation means there's no egg for sperm to fertilize Karnataka CET-2015
so pregnancy can't happen. Ans. (c) : The hormone releasing IUDs progesterone
69. Identity the incorrect statement pertaining to and LNG-20 make the uterus unsuitable for
contraceptives from the following. implantation and the cervix hostile to sperm.
(a) Most widely accepted methods of Progesterone is the most important natural steroid
contraception in India is Intra uterine devices. hormone responsible for maintenance of pregnancy
(b) Surgical intervention blocks gamete transport 73. Surgical removal of testes is termed as :
and thereby prevent conception (a) castration (b) IUD
(c) Pills inhibit ovulation and implantation as (c) vasectomy (d) gastrula
well as alter the quality of cervical mucus and Rajasthan PMT-2001
retard the entry of sperms Ans. (a) : Castration is a process in which the testes of
(d) IUDs are useful only before the coitus males are removed surgically. In this process both or
JCECE-2017 one of the testes are removed. The removal of gonads or
Ans. (d) : An IUD work as soon as its put in and lasts their destruction by radiation or parasite.
for 5 to 10 years depending on the type. If can be put it The major medical use of chemical castration is in the
at any time during your menstrual cycle as long as you treatments of hormonal dependent cancers, such as
are not pregnant. prostrate cancer.
74. Which of the following is not a barrier? 78. Which of the following sexually transmitted
(a) Vaginal ring (b) Cervical cap infections are completely curable?
(c) Diaphragm (d) Vaults (a) Hepatitis-B and Genital herpes
TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-II (b) Genital herpes and Genital warts
Ans. (a) : A vaginal ring is a type of hormonal (c) HIV infection and Trichomoniasis
contraception that works in a similar way to the (d) Syphilis and Trichomoniasis
combined oral contraceptive pill to prevent pregnancy. RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur)
If can be a good option for those who find it hard Ans. (d) : Syphilis is sexually transmitted infections are
remembering to take a pill everyday or who are not completely curable with the right antibiotics from your
comfortable using contraceptive implants or intrauterine healthcare provider.
devices. Trichomoniasis is the most common of the curable
STIs. The organism (Trichomoniasis) Trichomonas
75. CuT, LNG-20 and Cu7 are examples for vaginalis is generally transmitted through sexual
(a) Contraceptive pills intercourse.
(b) Surgical methods of sterilization ■ Syphilis and Trichomoniasis both are completely
(c) Assisted reproductive technology curable if detected early and treated properly.
(d) Intra-uterine device 79. In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes
(e) Monoclonal antibodies replication and produces progeny viruses?
Kerala PMT-2013 (a) Eosinophils (b) TH cells
Ans. (d) : CuT, Cu-7 or multiload 375 is a copper (c) B-lymphocytes (d) Basophils
releasing IUD containing copper ions, whereas LNG-20 NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
or progestasert are hormone releasing IUDs. Ans. (b) : Helper T-cells are a type of immune cell.
When they sense an infection, they activate other
D. Sexually Transmitted Diseases immune cells to fight it they may activate cytotoxic T-
(STDs) cells or they may activate B-cells, which produce
antibodies.
76. In HIV infection, number of these cells 80. Which one of the following common sexually
progressively decrease in human beings transmitted diseases is completely curable
(a) Tc-cells (b) NK-cells when detected early and treated properly?
(c) TH-cells (d) B-cells (a) HIV Infection (b) Genital Herpes
AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II (c) Gonorrhoea (d) Hepatitis-B
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
Ans. (c) : HIV binds to the CD4 molecule on the surface
Ans. (c) : Gonorrhea- A sexually transmitted bacterial
of helper T cells and replication with in them this result infection that, if untreated, may cause infertility.
in destruction of CD4 + T cells and lead to study decline
Example-Syphilis.
in this population of T cells.
• Any sexually active person can be infected with
• HIV infect WBC of our immune system called CD4 gonorrhea. Anyone with genital symptoms such as
cells or helper T cells. It destroyed CD4 cells choosing discharge, burning, during urination, unusual sores or
our WBC count to drop. rash. Should stop having sex and see a health care
77. Given below is list of few sexually transmitted provider immediately.
infections. Identify the diseases caused by 81. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted
bacteria among these. bacterial disease?
i. Gonorrhoea (a) Syphilis (b) Herpes
ii. Giardiasis (c) Cholera (d) Tetanus
iii. Trichomoniasis Tripura JEE-2018 / CG PMT-2005 / BVP-2002
iv. Chlamydiasis Ans. (a) : Syphilis is a bacterial infection usually spread
v. Syphilis by sexual contact.
(a) i & ii (b) i, iv & v The herpes simplex virus, also known as HIV, is a
(c) iii & v (d) ii, iii & iv viral infection that causes genital and oral herpes.
TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I Cholera is an extremely virulent disease that can
cause severe acute watery diarrhoea.
Ans. (b) : Gonorrhea : – It is caused by a bacteria Tetanus (lockjaw) is an infection caused by bacteria
called Neisseria gonorrhoeae which is transmitted called Clostridium tetani. When these bacteria enter
through sexual contact. the body, they produce a toxin that causes painful
Chlamydiasis : – It is caused by a bacterial pathogen. muscle contractions. It often causes a person’s neck
Chlamydia tranchomatis which is transmitted through and jaw muscles to lock, making it hard to open the
sexual contact. mouth or swallow.
Syphilis – It is also a bacterial cause the bacteria which 82. Which of the following organisms causes the
is responsible for syphilis is Treponema pallidum and sexual disease syphilis?
transmitted through sexual contact and also through (a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
mother to babies. (b) Treponema pallidum
(c) Pasteurella pestis Ans. (b) :
(d) Clostrldium botulinum. Column I Column II
KVPY SA-2016 / Haryana PMT-1999 / AMU-1999 A) Treponema pallidum Syphillis
Ans. (b) : Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease B) HSV type-I Genital warts
(STD) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.
C) Trichomonas vaginalis Trichomoniasis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis Chlamydia
86. Direct contact, i.e. person to person direct or
intimate contact is necessary for which of the
following diseases?
(a) diphtheria (b) amoebiasis
(c) Malaria (d) syphilis
CMC Ludhiana-2015
83. One of the group include all sexually Ans. (d) : Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection
transmitted diseases (STI) that is treatable with medication. Without
(a) AIDS, syphilis, cholera treatment, syphilis causes serious health problems. It
(b) HIV Malaria, trichomoniasis can permanently damage our heart, brain, muscles,
(c) Gonorrhoea, hepatitis-B, Chlamydiasis bones and eyes. To reduce risk of infection, always use
(d) Hepatitis-B, Haemophilia, AIDS a condom during sex.
Amebiasis or amoebic dysentery is a common
NEET-2020 Phase-I parasitic enteral infection.
NEET-2020 Phase-II Diphtheria is a highly contagious, infectious disease
AMU-2012 caused by a bacterium called Corynebacterium
Ans. (c) : Gonorrhoea is bacterial transmitted infection diphtheriae.
in which burning during unusual sores or rash. Malaria is a disease caused by a parasite. The
Hepatitis B is a liver infection which is spread by parasite is spread to humans through the bites of
semen, blood and other body fluid. it is a viral infection. infected mosquitoes.
Gonorrhoea, hepatitis-B and Chlamydiasis include all 87. Hepatitis-B is also called:
sexually transmitted diseases. (a) epidemic jaundice (b) serum jaundice
84. It is a disease which mainly affects mucous (c) catarrhal jaundice (d) none of the above
membrane of urinogenital tract. In males, BCECE-2003
burning feeling on passing urine, after a yellow Ans. (b) : Hepatitis-B is also called serum hepatitis.
discharge occurs, that is accompanied by fever, It is a viral infection that causes liver inflammation and
headache and feeling of illness damage. The signs and symptoms of hepatitis B are:
(a) syphilis (b) gonorrhea feeling really tired, pain in belly, losing appetite, nausea
(c) AIDS (d) None of these and vomiting, pain in joints and headache.
AMU-2012 88. Venereal diseases can spread through :
Ans. (b) : Gonorrhea a disease which mainly affects (A) Using sterile needles
mucous membrane of urinogenital tract. In males, (B) Transfusion of blood from infected person
burning feeling on passing urine, after a yellow (C) Infected mother to foetus
discharge occurs, that is accompanied by fever, (D) Kissing
headache and feeling of illness. (E) Inheritance
85. During the study of sexually transmitted Choose the correct answer from the option
disease, a student learns about there mode of given below
transmission among individuals, their casuative (a) (A) and (C) only (b) (A), (B) and (C) only
agents, etc. Correctly match the agents and the (c) (B), (C) and (D) only (d) (B) and (C) only
STDs they cause given in column I and II. NEET-2021
Column-I Column-II Ans. (d) : Venereal diseases are transmitted through
A. Treponema 1. Chlamydia sexual contact. They can be caused by bacteria,
pallidum parasites or viruses.
B. HSV type-I 2. Sypyhillis Venereal diseases or sexually transmitted diseases or
infections are transmitted by sharing of infected needles,
C. Trichomonas 3. Genital warts surgical instruments with infected person, transfusion of
vaginalis blood or from an infected mother to foetus.
D. Chlamydia 4. Trichomoniasis • Venereal diseases are not transmitted through kissing
trachomatis or inheritance between each other.
(a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 89. Which of the following sexually transmitted
(b) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 diseases is not completely curable?
(c) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 (a) Genital track (b) Genital herpes
(d) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 (c) Chlamydiasis (d) Gonorrhoea
BVP-2015 NEET-2019
Ans. (b) : Genital herpes is sexually transmitted infection (c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis
marked by genital pain and sores. Symptoms spreads by (d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis
sexual contact treatment can't be cured can last for year. AIPMT-1994 / AIPMT-2000
Lab test imaging often required. Except for hepatitis–B, Ans. (a) : Syphillis is a sexually transmitted infection
genital herpes and HIV infections, all STDs are completely caused by the spirochaete bacterium Treponema
curable it detected early and treated properly. pallidum.
90. Which of the following sexually transmitted • Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused
diseases do not specifically affect reproductive by the bacteria, Nesseria gonorrhoeae.
organs? • Softsore is a sexually transmitted disease caused by
(a) Chlamydiasis and AIDS the bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi.
(b) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B It is transmitted through sexual contact and from
(c) Syphilis and Genital herpes mother to foetus during pregnancy.
(d) AIDS and Hepatitis B Urethritis refers to inflammation of urethra, which
NEET (Odisha)-2019 can be caused by various factors, including sexually
transmitted infections. Common pathogens
Ans. (d) : Hepatitis B and AIDS both are virus disease
associated with urethritis include Neisseria
transmitted through blood and body fluids especially
gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis and
through Sex. Mycoplasma genitatlium.
• Other ways are by sharing personal items
(toothbrushes, razors, etc), and sharing needles or 94. Which of the following STD is completely not
equipment for injection drug use or unprotected curable ?
vaginal or anal sex but do not specifically affect (a) Hepatitis – B (b) Gonorrhea
reproductive organ. (c) Syphilis (d) Trichomoniasis
91. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants
are generally located in: - Ans. (a) : Hepatitis–B is not completely curable. It is
(a) Chloroplast genome serious liver infection caused by the hepatitis–B virus
that’s easily preventable by a vaccine. This disease is most
(b) Mitochondrial genome
commonly spread by exposure to infected bodily fluids.
(c) Nuclear-genome
(d) Cytosol 95. Match the column I, II and III
AIPMT-2003 Column I Column II Column III
Ans. (b): cytoplasmic male sterility can be defined as total p. Trichomoniasis i. Herpes x. Plain in
Simplex lower
or partial male sterility in plants due to specific nuclear and abdomen
mitochondrial interaction. It is condition under which a
q. Syphilis ii. Neisseria y.Inflammation
plant is unable to produce functional pollen or male gonorrhoeae and itching in
gametes. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are and around
generally located in mitochondrial genome. vagina
92. Which of the following is correct regarding r. Gonorrhoea iii. Treponema z. Patchy hair
HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis? Pallidium loss
(a) Trichomoniasis is a STDs whereas other are not s. Genital herpes iv. Trichomonas w. Feeling of
(b) Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others Vaginalis Uneasiness
are bacterial (a) (p-iv-y) (q-i-z) (r-ii-x) (s-iii-w)
(c) HIV is pathogen whereas others are diseases (b) (p-iv-y) (q-iii-z) (r-ii-x) (s-i-w)
(d) Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas (c) (p-iv-x) (q-i-w) (r-ii-y) (s-iii-z)
others are not. (d) (p-i-z) (q-ii-y) (r-iv-w) (s-iii-x)
AIIMS-2010 GUJCET-2015 / GUJCET-2016
Ans. (c) : HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus) is the Ans. (b):
name of the pathogen causing the disease AIDS, while P. Trichomon- Trichomonas Inflammation and
hepatitis B, gonorrhoea and trichomoniasis the name of iasis Vaginalis itching in and around
the diseases caused by their respective pathogens. vagina
Hepatitis B is a viral disease caused by the Hepatitis q. Syphilis Treponema patchy hair loss
B virus that has not been eradicated. Pallidum
Gonorrhoea is a bacterial disease caused by r. Gonorrhoea Niesseria pain in lower
Nesseria gonorrhoeae. gonorrhoeae abdomen
Trichomoniasis is a common and curable sexually s. Genital herpes herpes simplex Feeling of uneasiness
transmitted infection caused by a parasite. It is caused
96. The sexually transmitted disease, that can
by Trichomonas vaginalis.
affect both the male and the female genitals
93. Which one of the following does correctly and may damage the eyes of babies born of
match a sexually transmitted disease with its infected mothers is
pathogen ? (a) AIDS (b) Syphilis
(a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum (c) Gonorrhoea (d) Hepatitis
(b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica Karnataka CET-2012
Ans. (c) : Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted disease 102. Which of the following is STD?
that can infect both male and female. It is caused by the (a) Cancer (b) Malaria
Neisseria gonorrhoea bacterium, can cause infection in (c) Pneumonia (d) Trichomoniasis
the genitals, rectum and throat. GUJCET-2011
97. Which one of the following options is not a Ans. (d) : Trichomoniasis is caused by a parasite called
sexually transmitted disease? Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas is a monogenetic
(a) AIDS (b) Hepatitis-B parasite belongs to phylum protozoa. In Women, this
parasite mainly infects the vagina and urethra.
(c) Pertussis (d) Syphilis Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted disease (STDs)
JIPMER-2016 It spreads by unsafe sex or having multiple sexual
Ans. (c) : Pertussis is mainly caused by ‘Bordetella partner and not using condoms during sex.
Pertussis’. It is a contagious respiratory disease. 103. The appearance of chancre, rashes all over the
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by body are the symptoms of
the bacterium ‘Treponema Pallidium’. (a) Gonorrhoea (b) Aids
• AIDS is caused by ‘HIV’ virus that affects the body’s (c) Syphilis (d) Fever
immune system. Karnataka CET-2013
• Hepatitis-B is a liver infection and most commonly Ans. (c) : Syphilis spreads from person to person by
spread by exposure to infected bodly fluids. direct contact it can occur in on or around the penis,
98. A sexually transmitted disease symptomised by vagina, anus, rectum and lips or mouth. syphilis can
the development of chancre on genitals is spread during vaginal anal or oral sex.
caused by the infection of 104. Human papilloma virus causes
(a) Human immunodeficiency virus (a) Genital herpes (b) Hepatitis-B
(b) Hepatitis B virus (c) Syphilis (d) Cervical cancer
(c) Treponema pallidium
Ans. (d) : Human papilloma virus (HPV) is spread
(d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae through intimate skin to skin contact. You can get HPV
Karnataka CET-2008 by having vaginal, anal or oral sex with someone who
Ans. (c) : A sexually transmitted disease symptomised has the virus. HPV cause cervical, vaginal. Vulvar and
by the development of chancre on genitals is caused by anal precancer and cancers.
the infection of ‘Treponema pallidum’. In the first stage 105. Gonorrhoea is caused by :
of syphilis, painless ulcer or chancre appears on the (a) Treponema pallidum
genitals and swelling of lymph nodes occurs. (b) Entamoeba gingivalis
99. Which of the following T-cells are destroyed by (c) Mycobaciemim leprae
HIV? (d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(a) Cytotoxic T-cells (b) Killer T-cells Manipal-2005
(c) Suppressor T-cells (d) Helper T-cells Ans. (d) : Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted diseases
Uttarakhand PMT-2011 (STD) caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacteria. It
infects mucous membrane of the reproductive tract
Ans. (d) : HIV destroys helper T-cells, or CD4 T including fallopian tube, cervix, uterus in women and
lymphocytes. If CD4 levels are low this may indicate the urethra in women and men.
that HIV has progressed into AIDS. Helper T-cells are It is untreated may cause infertility, a green or yellow
crucial for immune system function and activate after discharge from vagina or penis.
encountering antigens from disease causing
microorganisms. 106. Which of the following is not a sexually
transmitted disease?
100. Treponema pallidum is responsible for (a) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome
(a) gonorrhoea (b) syphilis (b) Trichomoniasis
(c) AIDS (d) Cholera (c) Syphilis
Tripura JEE-2017 (d) Tetanus
Ans. (b) : Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease JCECE-2017
(STDs) caused by the bacterium Treponema Pallidum. Ans. (d) : Tetanus is a rapid spasm or wild contraction
First sign of syphilis is a small sore called a chancre the in the muscle tissue caused due to low calcium ions in
sore appears at spot where bacteria entered your body. the body fluid while AIDS, Trichmoniasis and syphilis
is sexually transmitted disease(STDs).
101. Choose the correct option for full form of PID.
(a) Pregnancy Inflammatory Disease 107. Which of the following is not a sexually
transmitted disease ?
(b) Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
(a) Genital warts (b) Trichomoniasis
(c) Pregnancy Infection Disease
(c) Chlamydiasis (d) Syphilis
(d) Pelvic Infection Disease (e) Myasthenia gravis
GUJCET-2021 Kerala PMT-2013
Ans. (b) : PID stands for pelvic inflammatory disease. Ans. (e) : Myasthania gravis is a condition caused by a
PID is an infection that involves the upper part of the breakdown in communication between nerves and
female reproductive organs that are the uterus. ovaries, muscles. It occurs when communication between the nerve
pelvis, fallopian tubes etc. and muscle is interrupted at the neuromuscular junction.
E. Medical Termination of (c) Determine the sex of the foetus
(d) Know about the disease of brain
Pregnancy (MTP) Karnataka CET-2022 /
108. MTPs are considered relatively safe during TS EAMCET-28.09.2020 Shift-II
(a) First trimester TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-I
(b) Second trimester TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II
(c) 24 weeks of pregnancy Karnataka CET-2016 / VMMC-2014
(d) 180 days of pregnancy AMU-2003 / JIPMER-2002
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 Ans. (c) : Amniocentesis is process to determine the sex
Ans. (a) : MTPs are considered relatively safe during of the foetus.
first trimester (upto 12 week of pregnancy) after that
MTPs) are riskier.
109. Select the incorrect statement with respect to
Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer (MOET)
Technology.
(a) Cow is administered with hormones to induce
super- ovulation.
(b) Super-ovulating cow is either mated with elite
bull or is artificially inseminated.
(c) Fertilised eggs at 4 to 6 cells-stages are
recovered non-surgically from super-
ovulating cow and transferred to surrogate
mother.
(d) It is used to increase herd size in a short time. It is a technique to find out the disorders and sex of the
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) foetus based on the chromosomal pattern of the foetal
cells present in the amniotic fluid surrounding the
Ans. (c) : Statements given in options (a), (b) and (d) developing embryo.
are correct statement regarding MOET. But option (c) is
incorrect because, In MOET, the fertilized eggs at 8-32 112. Technique to know the sex congenital diseases
cells stages recovered non-surgically from super- and metabolic disorders is known as
ovulating cow and transferred to surrogate mothers. (a) Amniocentesis (b) Castration
110. Match List - I with List - II. (c) Ovariectomy (d) None of these.
List-I List-II AMU-1998
(A) Non-medicated (i) Multiload 375 Ans. (a) : Technique to know the sex congenital
IUDs diseases and metabolic disorders is known as
(B) Copper (ii) Rubber barrier amniocentesis. Amiocentesis is a medical treatment
releasing IUDs used to diagnose chromosomal abnormalities, fetal
infections, and determines sex during pregnancy. In this
(C) Hormone (iii) Lippes loop procedure, a little amount of amniotic fluid containing
releasing IUDs foetal tissues is extracted from the amniotic sac
(D) Vaults (iv) LNG-20 surrounding a developing foetus.
Choose the correct answer from the options Ovariectomy is the procedure wherein either one or
given below: both the ovaries are removed from the reproductive
(a) (A)- (iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii) system of a woman.
(b) (A)- (iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) Castration: It is a removal or destruction of the
(c) (A)- (iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii) testicles or ovaries using radiation, surgery, or drugs.
(d) (A)- (ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i) 113. The test which is misused for identification of
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) an unborn baby is
Ans. (a) : The IUDs presently available as the non- (a) Clotting test (b) Amniocentesis
medicated IUDs ex-Lippes loops. Copper releasing (c) Erythroblastosis (d) Angiogram
IUDs ex – Cu I, Cu7, multiload 375. Hormone releasing J&K CET-2007
IUDs ex- LNG-20, progestasert. Vaults are barrier made
of rubbers. Ans. (b) : The test which is misused for identification
of an unborn baby is amniocentesis.
Non-medicated IUDs → Lippes loop
Erythroblastosis fetalis results from Rh
Copper releasing IUDs → Multi load 375 incompatibility, which may develop if a woman with
Hormone releasing IUDs → LNG-20 Rh –ve blood conceives a fetus with Rh +ve blood.
Vaults → Rubber barrier Clotting test: An abnormal result on a blood test that
111. Amniocentesis is process to checks how long it takes our blood to clot.
(a) To grow cell on culture medium Angiogram: It is a type of X-ray that provides
(b) Determine any disease of heart images of blood vessels in different organs.
114. Capacitation refers to changes in the :- Ans. (d) : Amniocentesis is a procedure in which
(a) Ovum before fertilization amniotic fluid is removed from the uterus for testing or
(b) Ovum after fertilization treatment.
(c) Sperm after fertilization Amniotic fluid is the fluid that surround are protects a
(d) Sperm before fertilization baby during pregnancy. This fluid contains foetal cells
and various proteins. It is done to find genetic
AIPMT-2015 abnormalities in the foetus, pre-natal diagnosis of
Ans. (d) : The phenomenon of sperm activation for genetic defects and sex of the foetus.
fertilization in mammals is known as capacitation. 117. Medical Termination of pregnancy (MTP) is
Capacitation refers to change in the sperm before considered safe up to how many weeks of
fertilization. pregnancy ?
Capacitation is a biochemical process that occurs in (a) Six weeks (b) Eight weeks
the female reproductive tract. The capacitation process (c) Twelve weeks (d) Eighteen weeks
take 5to 6 hours to complete. AIPMT (Screening)-2011
Before fertilization, some secretion of the female Ans. (c) : A medical abortion is an abortion that is
reproductive tract removes the coating substances on completed using a combination of medicines either
the surface of sperms that are in the acrosome, after taken orally or through the vagina.
removal, the acrosomal site is active and sperm
• MTP is the most widely used methods of birth
becomes active to penetrate the egg and the fertilization control. Which is safe during first trimester of
occurs. pregnancy upto 12 weeks of pregnancy and it is at
more risk in the 2nd trimester of pregnancy.
• MTPs are essential in certain cause where
continuation of the pregnancy could be harmful or
even fatal either to the mother or to the foetus or
both.
118. Assertion (A) : Amniocentesis is used to detect
the chromosomal defects if any, in the
developing foetus.
Reason (R) : Amniocentesis is a cytological
study of the foetal cells for abnormal
chromosomes.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
correct explanation of A
115. In context of Amniocentesis, which of the (c) A is correct but R is wrong
following statement is incorrect (d) A is wrong but R is correct
(a) It can be used for detection of Cleft Palate AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-I
(b) It is usually done when a woman is between Ans. (a) : Amniocentesis is used to analyse
14-16 weeks pregnant chromosomal defects by cytological study of the foetal
(c) It is used for prenatal sex determination cells for abnormal chromosomes. Hence, (a) is correct
(d) It can be used for detection of Down answer.
syndrome 119. In amniocentesis technique, which is used for
NEET-2016 Phase-I biochemical assay to examine fluid
Ans. (a) : Amniocentesis is a medical procedure karyotypically and to detect hereditary and
performed on a women when she is 14-16 weeks chromosomal disorders in growing foetus by
pregnant. It is used primarily in parental diagnosis of pathologist?
chromosomal abnormilitis like down’s syndrome and (a) Amniotic fluid (b) Chorionic fluid
fetal infections, as well as for sex determination. Cleft (c) Exfoliated foetal cells (d) Both (a) and (c)
palate is caused by both genetic and environmental UP CPMT-2014
factors and cannot always be detected using Ans. (d): In technique of amniocentesis surrounding
amniocentesis. fluid of fetus amniotic fluid is taken for biochemical
116. The permissible use of the technique assay to examine hereditary and chromosomal disorder
amniocentesis is for – in growing fetus by pathologist. The amniotic fluid
(a) detecting sex of the unborn foetus contain exfoliated foetal cell also protect the growing
(b) artificial insemination fetus from shock, during emergency.
(c) transfer of embryo into the uterus of a 120. Oral contraceptives are prescribed in females
surrogate mother to check
(d) Detecting any genetic abnormality (a) entry of sperms in vagina
AIPMT (Screening)-2010 (b) implantation
(c) ovulation (c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) fertilization (d) A is wrong but R is correct
J&K CET-2004 AP EAPCET-11.07.2022 Shift-I
Ans. (c) : Oral contraceptives (birth control pill) are Ans. (b) : Amniocentesis is a test during pregnancy to
hormone containing pill. They prevent pregnancy by check or detect chromosomal abnormality and genetic
inhibiting ovulation and also by preventing sperm from disorder. Government banned used of the amniocentesis
penetrating through the cervix. to legally prevent female foeticide and arrest the
121. In MOET (Multiple Ovulation and Embryo declining sex ratio in India.
Transfer) at what cell stage embryos are 125. In ultrasonography
recovered non-surgically and transferred to
(a) antigen-antibody interactions occur
surrogate mother
(b) high frequency sound waves are used
(a) 6 - 8 (b) 8 - 16
(c) Zygote (d) 8 - 32 (c) magnetic waves are used
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II (d) None of the above
JCECE-2014, 2012
Ans. (d) : Multiple ovulation and embryo transfer
(MOET) can be defined as process or steps in removing Ans. (b) : Ultrasound is a non-invasive imaging test that
the fertilized eggs from a female donor and putting shows structures inside your body using high intensity
them in multiple surrogate recipients who are not sound waves. Healthcare providers use ultrasound
related genetically. exams for several purposes including during pregnancy
The animal is mated and the fertilized egg transferred at for diagnosing conditions and for image guidance
8 – 32 cell stage to surrogate mothers. during certain procedures.
122. In birth control methods, which one of the 126. Given below are few comments regarding
following is an Uterine Device ? Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
(a) LNG-20 (b) Saheli Identify the true statement.
(c) Vaginal ring (d) DMPA (a) Government of India legalised MTP in 1970
TS EAMCET-2015 (b) MTPs, are considered relatively safe up to 12
Ans. (a) : LNG - 20( Levonogestrel intrauterine system) weeks of pregnancy
is a hormone releasing IUD. It makes the uterus (c) Majority of MTPs are legally performed by
unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the qualified doctors to an abort healthy child
sperms. (d) Amniocentesis demotivates people to carry on
123. Foetal sex can be determined by examining MTP
cells from the amniotic fluid by looking for BCECE-2015
(a) chiasmata (b) Barr bodies Ans. (b) : MTP is the termination of pregnancy before
(c) autosomes (d) kinetochore the foetus becomes viable. So MTP is comparatively
Assam CEE-2014 safe upto 12 weeks of pregnancy.
Ans. (b) : The fetal cells obtained through The medical termination of pregnancy become legal in
amniocentesis are scanned for the presence of Barr 1971.
bodies. If barr bodies are present the fetus will develop Amniocentesis is a technique of studying genetic
into a female and if bar bodies are absent, the fetus is disorder of foetus by taking out amniotic fluid. But
male one. amniocentesis and MTP has been misused for
Human chromosome - 46 ( 44A + xx and 44 A + knowing the sex of foetus and destroying the same if
XY the fetus is females.
) 23 pairs of chromosomes present , 22 pairs are
exactly same in both males and females, these are the 127. Which is non-invasive technique of genetic
autosomes . A pair of X chromosomes are present in the counselling?
female, where as the presence of an X and Y (a) Amniocentesis
chromosome are determinant of the male characteristic. (b) Chorionic biopsy
124. Assertion (A): Amniocentesis is used to detect (c) Foetal blood sampling
abnormalities in foetus (d) Ultrasonography
Reason (R): Government banned used of the J&K CET-2001 / AMU 1996
amniocentesis for the purpose of sex Ans. (d) : Ultrasonography scan is used to examine
determination of foetus internal body structures. Ultrasound imaging sends out
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct (emits) high frequency sound waves directed at the
explanation of A tissue being examined and recording reflected sound or
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the echoes to create and image. An ultrasound scan is
correct explanation of A generally non-invasive technique of genetic counseling.
F. Infertility and Test Tube Baby Ans. (b) : Test tube baby is referred to as in vitro
fertilization which means fertilization outside the body
Programme or uterus of female and then transferred in the fallopian
128. Identify the correct option tube or implanted in uterus for growth and development
Statement – I (S-I) : Test tube baby undergoes of the zygote.
development within the test tube. 131. At which cell stage a blastula can be implanted
Statement – II (S - II) : In IVF-ET method in uterus in test tube baby development?
fertilization occurs inside the body. (a) 16 cell (b) 64 cell
(a) S-I and S-II are correct (c) 128 cell (d) 32 cell
(b) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect. Rajasthan PMT-1996 / VMMC-2014
(c) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct. Rajasthan PMT-2009 / UP CPMT-2009
(d) S-I and S-II are incorrect. Ans. (d) : The fertilized egg (zygote) is cultured in a
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II growth medium until it reaches 32 cell stage and is then
Ans. (d) : The process of in vitro-fertilization is used in implanted in the woman's uterus.
labarataries to create test tube babies. Fertilization of At the 32 cell stage, a fluid-filled cavity begins to form
the egg is completed outside the body, the fertilized egg
is then placed in the womb of the mother where the inside the embryo. This cavity continues to grow as the
gestation is completed. embryo matures into a blastocyst.
Thus, test tube baby undergoes development within the Hence, at 32 cell stage a blastula can be implanted in
test tube. This statement is wrong. uterus in test tube baby development.
• During in vitro fertilization mature eggs are collected 132. In the production of test tube babies:
from ovaries and fertilized by sperm in a laboratory. It (a) fertilization and foetus formation is external
is also called test tube conception. (b) fertilization and foetus formation is internal
Thus, In IVF - ET method fertilization occurs inside the (c) fertilization is internal and foetus formation is
body. This statement is also wrong. external
129. Given below are two statements : (d) fertilization is external and foetus formation
Statement I : Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm is internal
Injection (ICSI) is another specialised
procedure of in-vivo fertilisation. Karnataka CET-2002
Statement II : Ans. (d) : In the production of test tube babies
Infertility cases due to inability of the male fertilization is external and foetus formation is internal.
partner to inseminate female can be corrected In vitro fertilization (IVF) is the most common and
by artificial insemination (AI). most effective type of assisted reproductive technology
In the light of the above statements, choose the to help women become pregnant. The IVF procedure
correct answer from the options given below : involves fertilizing an egg outside the body, in a
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true laboratory dish, and then implanting it in a woman’s
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false uterus.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false 133. The technique advised by a doctor to overcome
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is the problem of infertility
true (a) RCH (b) MTP
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) (c) RTI (d) ART
Ans. (d) : Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is an Karnataka CET-2022
infertility treatment. It involves injecting the live sperm
into a person's eggs in a laboratory. It have specialized Ans. (d) : The technique advised by a doctor to
features or procedure of in-vitro fertilization to correct overcome the problem of infertility is ART (Assisted
the infertility cases either due to inability of the male Reproductive Technology).
partner inseminate the female or due to very low sperm It is a collection of medical manipulation methods to
counts in the ejaculates could be corrected by artificial circumvent infertility. It involves the collection of
insemination. oocytes from the ovary, followed by fertilization in
130. Test tube baby implies vitro and is completed with transferring the resulting
(a) fertilisation and development of ovum in test embryo into a uterus.
tube RCH- Reproductive Child Health Care
(b) fertilisation in test tube and development in MTP- Medical Termination of Pregnancy
uterus
(c) fertilisation in uterus and development in test RTI- Reproductive Tract Infection.
tube 134. One of these is not concerned with wild-life
(d) fertilisation and development in uterus conservation
BVP-2010 (a) IVF (b) IUCN
JIPMER-1999 (c) WWF (d) IBWL
AIPMT-1996 Uttarakhand PMT-2009
Ans. (a) : IVF is not concerned with wild-life Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred
conservation. into the uterus and not into the fallopian tube.
In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) is a complex series of Hence, option (d) is wrong statement regarding ZIFT.
procedures used to help with fertility or prevent genetic 138. In which of the following techniques, the
problems and assist with the conception of a child. embryos are transferred to assist those females
IUCN is the global authority on the status of the natural who cannot conceive?
world and the measures needed to safeguard it. Its full (a) GIFT and ZIFT (b) ICSI and ZIFT
form is ‘The International Union for Conservation of
(c) GIFT and ICSI (d) ZIFT and IUT
Nature’.
IBWL:- 'Indian Board of Wild Life', was established in NEET-2020 Phase-I
1952. It is the highest body for wildlife and habitat Ans. (d)
conservation, and its function is important in ensuring • ZIFT stands for ‘Zygote Intra-Fallopian Transfer’.
the long-term protection of India's biodiversity. • In ZIFT zygote or embryo is transferred to the 8-
The ‘World Wide Fund’ for Nature is a Swiss-based blastomere stage in the fallopian tube.
international non-governmental organization founded in
• In ZIFT, the sperm and egg are first combined in a
1961 that works in the field of wilderness preservation
and the reduction of human impact on the environment. lab. Then a fertilized egg is put into the fallopian
tube.
135. The first case of IVF-ET technique success, was
reported by: • IUT stands for ‘Intrauterine Transfer’.
(a) Louis Joy Brown and Banting Best • In IUT embryo is transferred to the uterus in the 32
(b) Patrick Steptoe and Robert Edward blastomere stage.
(c) Robert Steptoe and Gilbert Brown • In IUT, an embryo developed in test tube by inducing
(d) Baylis and Starling Taylor fertilization.
Karnataka CET-2003 139. A childless couple can be assisted to have a
Ans. (b) : The first case of IVF-ET technique success, child through a technique called GIFT. The full
was reported by ‘Patrick Steptoe’ and ‘Robert Edward’ form of this technique is:
in 1978. (a) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
136. Intra Ovarian Fertilisation (IOF) means (b) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
fertilisation (c) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(a) outside ovule (d) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer
(b) outside embryo sac AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
(c) by putting pollens directly into ovary-wall
(d) between male gemete and synergids Ans. (c) : A childless couple can be assisted to have a
child through a technique called ‘Gamete Intra
Manipal-2013
Fallopian Transfer’ (GIFT).
Ans. (c) : Intra Ovarian Fertilization (IOF) means
In GIFT, sperm and eggs are placed in a fallopian
fertilisation by putting pollens directly into ovary-wall.
tube to allow fertilization in the natural site,
It is used when the stigma create barrier for
germination of pollens of other species. This process is fertilization occurs in the woman's body.
used in rapid growth of embryo and production of new The women’s is given follicle stimulating drugs to
hybrid plants. increase her chances of producing multiple eggs.
137. Which of the following statements is/are wrong 140. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves
regarding ZIFT? transfer of.
I. It stands for Zygote Intra Fallopian (a) Ovum into the fallopian tube
Transfer. (b) Zygote into the fallopian tube
II. Zygote is transferred into the Fallopian (c) Zygote into the uterus
tube after IVF. (d) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the
III. Early embryos up to 8-blastomeres can fallopian tube
also be transferred into the Fallopian
tubes. AIPMT-2014
IV. Embryos with more than 8-blastomeres are Ans. (b) : Assisted reproductive technology (ART) is
also transferred into the Fallopian tubes. used to treat infertility. It includes fertility treatments
(a) I, II and III (b) Only I that handle both eggs and sperms.
(c) II and IV (d) Only IV In vitro fertilization is a method in which fertilization of
BVP-2015 male gamete (spermatozoon) and female gamete (ovum)
Ans. (d) : ZIFT:- (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) is outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in
transferred into the fallopian tube after IVF. Early the body followed by zygote or embryo transfer (ET).
embryos up to 8-blastomeres can also be transferred The zygote or early embryo (upto 8 blastomeres stage)
into the fallopian tubes. then transferred to uterus called zygote.
Uterine contractions give the signals to the maternal
pituitary gland to release the oxytocin hormone.
Oxytocin is a birth hormone. It stimulates strong uterine
contractions that leads to expulsion of the baby from the
uterus. Parturition is induced by a complex neuro-
endocrine mechanism.
143. The technique called gamete intrafallopian
transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those
females
(a) who cannot provide suitable environment for
fertilization
(b) who cannot produce an ovum
(c) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
(d) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow
passage for the sperms
AIPMT (Mains)-2011
141. Artificial insemination means : Ans. (b) : GIFT- (Gamete Intra fallopian Transfer)
(a) introduction of sperms of a healthy donor method is used for infertile women are ovulating but
directly into the ovary have blocked oviducts (fallopian tubes), who cannot
(b) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test produce an ovum, who cannot retain the foetus inside
tube containing ova the uterus.
(c) transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube
• In such cases, ovum from the donor female is
containing ova
surgically removed and is then introduced into the
(d) artificial introduction of sperms of healthy
fallopian tube of such females.
donor into the vagina
NEET-2013
Ans. (d) : Artificial insemination refers to the artificial
insertion of sperm of a healthy donor into the vagina.
The main purpose of artificial insemination is to achieve
fertilization and pregnancy.
Intra-uterine insemination is the other name of
artificial insemination, is the sperm sample is deposited
directly into the uterus by injecting a tube through the
cervix is the process of artificial insemination.
144. The stage transferred into the uterus after

induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory is
(a) Zygote
(b) Embryo at 4 blastomere stage
(c) Embryo at 2 blastomere stage
(d) Morula
Ans. (d) : The stage transferred into the uterus after
induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory is morula .
Cleavage divisions produce a solid ball of cells called
morula.
142. The signals for parturition originate from – • It has 8-16 cells, occasionally 32 cells. It is transferred
(a) placenta only into uterus (IUT – Intra – Uterine Transfer) for
(b) placenta as well as fully developed foetus further development.
(c) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary 145. Choose the correct statement regarding the
(d) fully developed foetus only GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Tube Transfer)
AIPMT (Screening)-2010 procedure.
Ans. (b) : Child birth is the process that called (a) Ova collected from a female donor are
parturition. transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate
When foetus become fully developed then the signals Zygote formation in the recipient.
originate from placenta and foetus which induce the (b) Zygote is collected from female donor and
uterine wall contraction. transferred to the tube of recipient.
(c) Zygote is collected from a female donor and • M.S Swaminathan is a known as father of green
transferred to the uterus of recipient. revolution (in India), his work in field of green
(d) Ova are collected from a female donor and revolution is enormous.
are transferred to the uterus of recipient. 149. In which ART method more than 8
Karnataka CET-2020 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus to
JIPMER-2016 complete its further development?
Ans. (a) : Ova collected from a female donor are (a) IUI (b) IUT
transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote (c) GIFT (d) ZIFT
formation in the recipient, it is procedure of GIFT. GUJCET-2022
It is boon for those female, who cannot produce ovum, Ans. (b) : IUT( Intra uterine transfer) is transfer of
but can provides suitable environment for fertilization embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the fallopian
and pregnancy. tube.
146. In coelomates the problem of diffusion of food GIFT - Gamete intra-fallopian transfer
from gut to tissues is solved by ZIFT - Zygote intra-fallopian transfer
(a) the presence of coelomic fluid IUI – Intra-uterine inseminaton.
(b) churning the food within the body cavity 150. The most infertility problems are generally due
(c) developing a circulatory system to
(d) developing gut associated glands (a) inadequate sperm production
Manipal-2009 (b) failure of ovulation
Ans. (c) : In coelomates the problem of diffusion of (c) Both (a) and (b)
food from gut to tissues is solved by developing a (d) None of the above
circulatory system. Coelomates are organisms with a
Tripura JEE-2017
fluid-filled cavity between the gut wall and the outer
body wall. Ans. (c) : Most of infertility problems are generally due
to inadequate sperm production or poor quality of
sperm, lack of regular ovulation is main cause of
infertility.
151. Select the incorrect option for ART.
(a) IUT – the embryos up to 8 blastomeres could
be transferred into the fallopian tube.
(b) ICSI – A sperm is directly injected into the
ovum.
(c) GIFT – Transfer of an ovum collected from a
An acoelomate is an organism that does not contain a donor into the fallopian tube of another
fluid-filled cavity in their bodies. female.
(d) ZIFT – The early embryo could be transferred
147. Intermediate community between pioneer and
into the fallopian tube.
climax communities is called
(a) Seral community GUJCET-2021
(b) Biotic community Ans. (a) : In intrauterine transfer contains more than 8
(c) Temporary community blastomeres and it is transferred into uterus is called
intrauterine transfer (IUT).
(d) Ecosere
Rajasthan PMT-2011 152. In male, for normal fertility, X sperms must
have normal shape and size and Y sperms must
Ans. (a) : Intermediate community between pioneer and
show vigorous motility
climax communities is called the seral community. It is
an intermediate stage in ecological succession which X Y
proceeds towards the climax community. (a) at least 60% , at least 40%
(b) maximum 60% , minimum 40%
148. The name of Norman Borlaug is associated
with- (c) at least 40% , at least 60%
(a) Green Revolution (b) White Revolution (d) minimum 60% , maximum 40%
(c) Yellow Revolution (d) Blue Revolution GUJCET-2021
AIPMT-2005 Ans. (a) : Human chromosome -46 ( 44A + xx
and
Ans. (a) : The name of Norman Borlaug is associated 44 A + XY ) 23 pairs of chromosomes present , 22
with green revolation. He is called as father of green pairs are exactly same in both males and females, these
revolution (in world). are the autosomes . A pair of X chromosomes are
• The world green revolution means increase in the present in the female, where as the presence of an X and
production of crops particularly cereal crops, such as Y chromosome are determinant of the male
wheat, rice and maize. characteristic.
Human males ejaculates about 200 to 300 million 157. Arrange the steps followed in the GIFT in the
sperms during a coitus of which for normal fertility correct order
atleast 60% X sperms must have normal shape and size (A) Transfer of ovum of fallopian tube
and atleast 40 percent Y sperms of them must show (B) Cleavage of zygote
vigorous motility. (C) Collection of donor’s ovum
153. The method of directly injecting a sperm into (D) In–vivo fertilization
ovum is called The correct answer is :
(a) GIFT (b) ZIFT Options:
(c) ICSI (d) IVF-ET (a) C–A–D–B (b) C–D–A–B
Karnataka CET-2021 (c) D–C–B–A (d) C–A–B–D
JIPMER-2017 AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-II
Ans. (c) : ICSI is intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection. It Ans. (a) : The correct sequence in GIFT are collection
is one of the techniques of assisted reproductive of donors ovum then transfer of ovum in fallopian tube,
technology (ART) that help couples to overcome them after transferring ovum in vivo fertilization occur then
infertility. In ICSI sperm is directly injected into an cleavage of zygote is start.
ovum in vitro to form a zygote. 158. Study the following special techniques
GIFT - Gamete intra-fallopian transfer (A) Artificial insemination
ZIFT - Zygote intra-fallopian transfer (B) Lactational amenorrhea
IVF-ET – In vitro-fertilization and embryo transfer. (C) Zygote intrafallopian transfer
154. Surrogate mother is used for : (D) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
(a) induction of lactation (E) Vaginal ring
(b) artificially inseminated female From the above, choose which could assist
(c) future mother with transplanted embryo the couple to have children
(d) artificial in semination Options:
BVP-2000 (a) A, C, D (b) A, B, C
Ans. (c) : Surrogate mother hood, practice in which a (c) A, B, E (d) A, C, E
woman (surrogate mother) bears a child for a couple AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-I
unable to produce children. Ans. (a) : Artificial insemination zygote intra fallopian
A surrogate pregnancy is achieved through a process transfer and Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection are
known in vitro fertilization or IVF. assisted reproductive technique (ART) which help the
In this process, doctors create an embryo by fertilizing couple to have children.
eggs from the intended mother and father and implanted 159. Surrogate mother is
it future mother’s womb. (a) The female that develops the offspring of
155. GIFT stands for another one in its womb.
(a) Gametogenesis in fallopian tube (b) The male that donates the sperm to fertilize
(b) Gene in fallopian tube an egg.
(c) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (c) The female that donates the egg for
(d) Gamete intra follicular transfer fertilization.
AP EAPCET-12.07.2022 Shift-I (d) Introduction of in vitro fertilized ovum into
Ans. (c) : Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT) is an the same female.
assisted reproductive technology against infertility. TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-I
Eggs are removed from a woman's ovaries and placed Ans. (a) : Surrogate mother is a women who bears a
in one of the fallopian tube along with the man's sperm. child for a couple unable to produce children in the
The first example of GIFT involved primates during usual way usually because the wife infertile are
the 1970s .The technique was first attempted by Steptoe otherwise unable to undergo pregnancy.
and Edward. 160. Assisted Reproductive Technology does not
156. Testicular Sperm Aspiration (TESA) technique include
involves (a) In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
(a) collection of eggs (b) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(b) insemination of donated sperm into womans (c) Zygote extra fallopian transfer
uterus (d) Artificial insemination
(c) collection of sperms from the testis surgically Karnataka CET-2015
(d) collection of sperms from efferent ducts Ans. (c) : In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer,
MGIMS Wardha-2015 gamete intra fallopian transfer and artificial
Ans. (c) : TESA is a procedure performed for men who insemination are assisted reproductive technique (ART)
are having sperm retrieved for IVF/ ICSI. A needle is gut zygote extra fallopian transfer is not an assisted
inserted in the testicles and tissue/sperm are aspirated. reproductive technique.
UNIT-III : Genetics and Evolution
10. PRINCIPLE OF INHERITANCE

AND VARIATION
4. Choose the correct statement
A. Laws of Inheritance by Mendel I. Alleles are unable to blend with other
II. Alleles are units of inheritance and slightly
1. When a tall pea plant crossed with dwarf pea differ from the same genes
plant the F2 generation produced 390 tall and
130 dwarf plants, then how many plants will III. Mendel laws did not provide any proof for
show Heterozygous condition. the existence of genes
(a) 130 (b) 260 IV. Genes are independent pairs segregate
(c) 390 (d) 520 independent of each other.
AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II (a) I, II, IV (b) I, II, III
(c) I, III, IV (d) II, III, IV
Ans. (b) :
Puretall Pure dwarf
TT tt Ans. (a) : Alleles are unable to blend with athers
because it shows low to segregation rule which states
↓ ↓ that alleles do not show any blending and both parental
T t characters are recovered in the F2 generation.
• Alleles are the units of inheritance and slightly deffer
genes with small deference in their sequence of
TT ⇒ Puretall ratio ⇒ 1 : 2 : 1 DNA bases.
Tt ⇒ Heterozygous F2 generation • Genes are independent pairs segregates. Independent
tt ⇒ Purl dwarf of each other. during the formation of gametes, the
According to question = pure fall ⇒ 390 alleles of one gene segregate independently of the
pure dwarf ⇒ 160 alleles of another gen during the formation of
Heterozygous ⇒ 390 – 130 ⇒ 260 gametes.
2. Name the mendel's factors and pair of 5. F1 generation resembles both the parents in
contrasting traits this phenomenon
(a) Alleles and Genes (a) Incomplete dominance
(b) Genes and Alleles (b) Co-dominance
(c) Genotype and Phenotype (c) Pleotrophy
(d) Genes and Genotype (d) Complete dominance
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
Ans. (b) : The mendel's factors and pair of contrasting Ans. (b) : F1 generation resemboles both the parents in
trait's are genes and alleles. Co- dominance phenomenon. In these cross where
Mendel postulated that genes (Characteristics ) are both the parents are unable to express themselves in the
inherited as pairs of alleles (traits ) that behave in a Heterozygous conditions.
dominant and recessive pattern.
6. The ratio of homozygous tall and dwarf plant
3. Heterozygous tall plants were crossed with in F2 generation in monohybrid cross is
dwarf plants, then the percentage of dwarf
plants produced in the next progeny (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1
(a) 25 (b) 75 (c) 50 (d) 65 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 1
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II
Ans. (c) : Heterozygous tall plants were crossed with Ans. (d) : The ratio of homozygous tall and dwraf plant
Homozygous dwarf plants, then 50% of dwarf plant and in F2 generation in monophbrid cross is 1 : 1
50% of tall plant produced in the next progeny.
Tall (Tt) - 50% dominant Tall (Tt) - 50% dominant

Dwraf (tt) - 50% recessive. Dwraf (tt) - 50% recessive.
Principle of Inheritance and Variation 458 YCT
7. The experimental material in Mendels 12. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is
experiment was (a) crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent
(a) Pisum sativum (b) Oryza sativa (b) crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
(c) Mirabilis jalapa (d) None of these (c) studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies
AMU-2015 / J&K CET-2007 (d) crossing of one F1 progeny with recessive
Ans. (a): The experimental material in Mendel's parent
experiment was Pisum sativum because: Manipal-2012
• Easy to cultivate and had a relatively short life cycle Ans. (d) : Crossing of one F1 progeny with recessive
i.e. 3 months and a single plant produces numerous parent is used to find the genotype of the progeny. This
seeds. cross is called as Test Cross.
• Pea flowers are bisexual. The structure and flower 13. A gamete normally contains:
was suitable for cross pollination. (a) many alleles of a gene
• Pea flowers are undergo self pollination as such the (b) all alleles of a gene
possibility of external genetically influences was (c) two alleles of a gene
eliminated. (d) one allele of a gene
• Presence of more no. of contrasting characters. Karnataka CET-2002
8. During the experiments, Mendel called genes Ans. (d) : A gamete normally contains one alleles of a
by the term gene. During gamete formation, the alleles for each
(a) Traits (b) Characters gene segregate from each other so that each gamete
(c) Factors (d) Qualities carries only one allele for each gene. This is known as
AMU-2015 law of segregation (monohybrid cross).
Ans. (c) : During the experiment Mendel called genes So, the correct option is D.
by the term factors. His concept of factor was, it is 14. Which one of the following does not cause
stable and discrete unit that controlled the expression of variation?
traits. (a) Meiosis (b) Cloning
9. Who rediscovered the Mendels principles? (c) Recombination (d) Mutation
(a) Huxley (b) Aristotle UP CPMT-2012
(c) Correns (d) Elder Ans. (b) : Among the following options cloning does
UP CPMT-2010 not cause variation. Cloning is the process of formation
Ans. (c) : After 6 years of death of Mendel, these of genetically identical copy of a cell or an organism. It
eminent biologists, Karl Correns (Germany), Hugo de is not associated with the variation.
veries (Netherland) and Erich Von Tschermak (Austria) 15. In a population NAA and Naa are the numbers of
independently rediscovered Mendelian laws. homozygous individuals of allele ‘A’ and ‘a’
10. First geneticist, father of genetics was respectively, and NAa is the number of
heterozygous individuals. Which one of the
(a) de Vries (b) Mendel following options is the allele frequency of ‘A’
(c) Darwin (d) Morgan and ‘a’ in population with NAA=90, NAa=40 and
MGIMS Wardha-2007 Naa=70?
AIPMT-1991 (a) A = 0.55 and a = 0.45
Ans. (b) : An Austrian monk, Gregor Mendel (b) A = 0.40 and a = 0.60
developed his theory of inheritance, therefore he is (c) A = 0.35 and a = 0.65
called the ‘Father of genetics. Gregor Mendel (d) A = 0.25 and a = 0.75
discovered the basic principles of heredity and laid the KVPY SB & SX-2019
mathematical foundation of the science of genetics. Ans. (a) : Allele a frequency =
11. The gene controlling seven traits in pea studied (2 × numbers of AA homozygote) + (Number of Aa heterozyote)
by Mendel were later found to be located on
(2 × total number of individual)
the following number of chromosomes
(a) seven (b) four 2 NAA + Aa
Then, F(A) =
(c) five (d) six 2N
MGIMS Wardha-2014 Total number of individuals in population = N
AIPMT-2003 N = 90 + 40 + 70 = 200
Ans. (b): The genes controlling the seven pea 2 × 90 + 40
characters studied by Mendel are now known to be A=
2 × 200
located on 4 different chromosomes (1, 4, 5 ,7) and not
7 chromosomes. 180 + 40 220
A= = = 0.55
Genes for seed colour and flower colour are located on 400 400
chromosomes 1. Genes for height inflorescence and pod Since allelic frequency of 'A' = 0.55.
shape are located on chromosomes 4. Gene for pod
color are located on chromosome 5. Gene for seed 2Naa + Aa
Frequency of allele 'a' =
shape is located on chromosome number 7. 2N
2 × 70 + 40 20. 1 : 2 : 1 phenotypic and genotypic ratio is found in
a= (a) complementary genes
2 × 200
(b) blending inheritance
140 + 40 180 (c) multiple alleles
a= = = 0.45
400 400 (d) pseudoalleles
So, 'a' = 0.45 AMU-2011
Therefore A = 0.55 and a = 0.45 is the correct answer. Ans. (b) : In the blending or intermediate inheritance
16. In a given plant, red colour (R) of fruits is 1:2:1 phenotypic and genotypic ratios occurs. Prior to
dominant over white fruit (r); and tallness (T) the discovery of genetics in the 19th century, the
is dominant over dwarfness (t). If a plant with concept of "blending inheritance" was a prevalent
genotype RRTt, is crossed with a plant of hypothetical model, instead of a formalized scientific
genotype rrtt what will be the percentage of tall theory, according to which inherited traits were thought
plants with red fruits in the next generation? to be determined at random from a range constrained by
(a) 100% (b) 25% the parent's homologous traits.
(c) 50% (d) 75% 21. Genes exhibiting multiple effects are known as
AFMC-2007 (a) complementary genes (b) pleiotropic genes
Ans. (c) : Tallness (T) is dominant over dwarfism (t) (c) cistrons (d) pseudogenes
Red colour (R) is dominant over white (r) fruit colour. BCECE-2014
So, in parent generation RRTt phenotype is a red tall Ans. (b) : Pleiotropy is the term used to describe a gene
and rrtt phenotype is white dwarf. which exhibit more than one phenotypic effects such as
RRTt × rrtt the gene for sickle cell anemia.
F1 generation Complementary genes: A complementary gene is one
of two or more genes that, when present together, cause
RRTt × rrtt effects that are qualitatively different from each gene's
individual effect.
Cistrons: Cistrons is a section of a DNA or RNA
molecules that codes for a specific polypeptide in
protein synthesis.
Pseudo genes: A section of DNA known as pseudogene
Phenotype- Tall with red fruit Dwarf with red fruit is one that structurally mimics a gene but cannot
actually code for a protein.
Total no. of tall plant with red fruit 1 22. The phenotypic variation is restricted to
Percentage = = = certain clear cut characteristics. This variation
Total no. of progeny 2 is commonly known as
0.5 (a) Qualitative inheritance
So, 50% tall plant with red fruit will be produced in (b) Quantitative inheritance
next generation. (c) Polygenic inheritance
17. Which of the following is considered as a (d) Complex inheritance.
recessive character of Mendel? AMU-1998
(a) Round seed (b) Wrinkled seed Ans. (a) : The phenotypic variation is restricted to
(c) Axial flower (d) Green pod certain clear cut characteristics. This variation is
JCECE-2005 / Punjab MET-2004 / Manipal-2000 commonly known as qualitative inheritance.
Ans. (b) : Mendel studied a number of recessive traits, Quantitative inheritance: The term "quantitative
including wrinkled seed coats, green seed colour, white inheritance" (also known as polygenic inheritance)
flower colour, constricted pod shape, yellow pod colour refers to inheritance that is regulated by one or more
dwarf stem height and terminal flower position. genes and in which each dominant allele expresses a
18. Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments portion or unit of the fruit, fruit trait only manifesting
on garden peas for when all the dominant alleles are present.
(a) 7 years (b) 6 years Complex inheritance : Complex interaction is the term
used to describe inherited feature that have a genetic
(c) 5 years (d) 4 years component but do not strictly follow Mendelian
J&K CET-2014 inheritance. It may entail two or more gene interactions
Ans. (a) : Mendel carried out his experiments on the or gene-environment interactions.
garden pea for seven years (1856-1863), in his 23. Genes are made up of
Monastery garden. (a) histones (b) hydrocarbons
19. Who coined the term ‘gene?? (c) polynucleotides (d) lipoproteins
(a) Johansen (b) Watson Uttarakhand PMT-2009
(c) Morgan (d) Williamson BHU PMT-2002
VMMC-2013 / BHU PMT (Screening)-2009 Ans. (c) : Genes are made up of polynucleotides. A
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 number of nucleotide monomer units may give rise to a
Ans. (a) : The term gene was coined by W. Johansen in polynucleotide chain through the formation of
1909. phosphodiester bonds.
24. The term "allelomorphic" implies: 28. Genetics deals with:
(a) any two characters (a) heredity (b) mutations
(b) a pair of contrasting character (c) variation (d) both (a) and (c)
(c) sex - linked characters Haryana PMT-2002
(d) a pair of non - contrasting character Ans. (d) : 'Genetics' is the branch of biology that deals
VMMC-2006 / CG PMT-2004 with the study of heredity and variation. The term
Ans. (b) : The pair of contrasting character is called 'genetics' was given by William Bateson in 1906.
allelomorphic pair or allelic pair. The allelomorphic 29. In Pisum sativum there are 14 chromosomes.
term was coined by Baleson in 1906. How many pairs with different chromosomal
25. Match the items given in Column-I with those composition can be prepared?
listed in Column- II. Choose the answer with (a) 14 (b) 214
correct combination of alphabets of the two (c) 7 (d) 27
columns. Manipal-2015
Column-I(Characters) Column- II(Genotypes) Ans. (d) : An organism can make 2n different
A Monohybrid cross p. T and t combination of chromosomal compositions where n =
number of homologous pair, chromosome are present in
B Test cross q. TT pairs and a diploid organism carries two complete sets
C Alleles r. Tt × Tt of homologous chromosomes.
D Homozygous tall s. tt Since, 2n = 14 makes total 7 pair of homologous
t. Tt × tt chromosome which can form 27 different combinations.
30. Select the statement which is not correct :
(a) A = r, B = t, C = s, D = c (a) Polygenic character is controlled by multiple
(b) A = t, B = r, C = q, D = s alleles
(c) A = r, B = t, C = p, D = q (b) In case of polygenic inheritance thousands of
(d) A = r, B = p, C = t, D = q intermediate phenotypes are found between 2
Karnataka CET-2003 extreme ones
Ans. (c) : Character Genotypes (c) Height, weight, skin colour are polygenic
A Monohybrid Tt × Tt (d) Polygenic character is controlled by multiple
B Test Cross Tt × tt genes
C Alleles T and t J&K CET-2006
D Homozygoous tall TT Ans. (a) : A polygenic character is influenced by two or
Test cross: Test cross is defined as a cross between more genes not influenced by multiple alleles.
heterozygous F1 and double recessive homozygous used 31. The modified 15 : 1 phenotype ratio indicate:
to determine whether the individuals exhibiting (a) supplementary genes
dominant character are homozygous or heterozygous. (b) complimentary genes
Monohydrid cross: When two plants are crossed which (c) lethal genes
differ constantly in one character such cross is known as (d) duplicate genes
Monohybrid cross. JIPMER-1995
26. Which of the following trait of garden pea Ans. (d) : The modified 15 : 1phenotype ratio indicates
studied by Mendel was recessive feature ? duplicable gene.
(a) Round seed shape – If the alleles of both gene loci produce the same
(b) Axial flower position phenotype without cumulative effect, the 9 : 3 : 3 :
(c) Green seed colour 1 ratio is modified into 15 : 4 ratio.
(d) Green pod colour – Duplicate gene interactions allow dominant allels
CG PMT-2007 / Rajasthan PMT-2007 of either duplicate gene to produce the wild type
Uttarakhand PMT-2006 / AIPMT-2003 phenotype.
Ans. (c) : The trait of garden pea studied by Mendel 32. Who introduced the term ‘Heterosis’?
was recessive feature green seed colour. Apart from (a) Koelreuter (b) Shull
this, wrinkled seed coats, white flower colour, (c) Johannsen (d) Borlaug
constricted pod shape, yellow pod colour, terminal AP EAMCET-2001
flower position and dwarf stem height are recessive
character studied by Mendel. Ans. (b) : Heterosis term was coined by Shull in plant
breeding. Heterosis is described as the superiority of an
27. Which of the following scientist rediscovered F1 hybrid over both parents in terms of yield or other
Mendel's theory ? characteristic.
(a) T H Morgan (b) W Bateson 33. The colour based contrasting traits in seven
(c) E Strasburger (d) E Von Tschermak contrasting pairs studied by Mendel in pea
CG PMT-2007 were
Ans. (d) : In addition to E Von Tschermak, Karl (a) 1 (b) 2
Correns and Hugo de Veries independently (c) 3 (d) 4
rediscovered Mendel's theory. AMU-2012
Ans. (c) : The colour based contrasting trails in seven 38. Pure line breed refers to
contrasting pair studied by Mendel in pea were three (a) Homozygosity
including colour of seed (yellow & green), colour of (b) Heterozygosity
pod (green & yellow) and colour of flower (red/violet (c) Homozygosity with only dominant genes
and white). (d) Heterozygosity and linkage
34. Some of the dominant traits studied by Mendel Tripura JEE-2017 / MGIMS Wardha-2011
were Punjab MET-2011 / AIIMS-2007
(a) round seed shape, constricted pod shape and Ans. (a) : Pure line breed refers to Homozygosity.
axial flower position When both member of an allelic pair in plant are alike,
(b) green pod colour, inflated pod shape and axial the individual is called homozygous. So when a group
flower position of identical individuals are intercrossed they always
(c) yellow seed colour-violet flower colour and produce offspring of the same phenotype.
yellow pod colour 39. Genes are responsible for the growth and
(d) axial flower position, green pod colour and differentiation in an organism through
green seed colour regulation of :
AMU-2012 (a) Translocation
(b) Transformation
Ans. (b) : Dominant traits studied by Mendel were Tall
(c) Transduction and translation
stem height violet flower colour, Axial flower position,
inflabed pod shape, green pod colour, round seed shape (d) Translation and transcription
DUMET-2001
yellow seed colour.
Ans. (d) : Genes are responsible for the growth and
35. Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in differentiation in an organism through regulation of
pea plant, studied by Mendel, the number of translation and transcription.
traits related to flower, pod and seed Translation: The process in which genetic information
respectively was in mRNA directs the order of assembly of the specific
(a) 2, 2, 2 (b) 2, 2, 1 amino acids during protein synthesis.
(c) 1, 2, 2 (d) 1, 1 2 Transcription: The process in which a complementary
AMU-2012 single stranded mRNA is synthesized from one of the
Ans. (a) : Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in DNA strands.
pea plant, studied by Mendel, the number of traits 40. Externally observable characters of an
related to flower, pod and seed respectively was 2, 2, 2 individual are called :
(a) phenotype (b) genotype
(c) homozygous (d) heterozygous
36. Mendel observed that certain characters did DUMET-2001
assort independently. Later researchers found Ans. (a) : The observable characters of an organism is
it to be due to called phenotype.
(a) amitosis Genotype: The genetic constitution of an organism.
(b) linkage of characters 41. A cell is heterozygous at three gene loci. How
(c) dominance of one trait over the other many different type of gamete can it form?
(d) crossing-over (a) 2 (b) 3
CG PMT-2006 (c) 6 (d) 8
Ans. (b) : Mendel observed that certain characters did DUMET-2001
not assort independently later, researchers found it to be Ans. (d) : Type of gametes = 2n
due to linkage of character. n = number of heterozygous loci
The term linkage defined as the tendency of two or Therefore, gametes produced by a diploid organism
more genes of the same chromosome to remain together with three heterozygous loci could be 23 = 8.
during the process of inheritance. So, 'd' option is correct.
37. Mendel collected 1064 seeds from a cross 42. Assertion: Daphnia populations in a water
between tall and dwarf garden pea plants. body, at different seasons of an year showed
From this 787 grew tall and 277 grew dwarf. market variations in their body morphology.
This represents _______ cross. Reason: Cyclomorphosis in some planktonic
(a) dihybrid (b) trihybrid organisms is influenced by the variations in
(c) test (d) monohybrid temperatures prevailing in their water bodies
at different seasons.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Ans. (d) : Mendel collected 1064 seeds from a cross Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
between tall and dwarf garden pea plants. From this 787 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
grew tall and 277 grew dwarf. This represents is not the correct explanation of Assertion
monohybrid cross. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
Monohybrid cross defined as a cross between two plants (d) Assertion is false but Reason is true
which differ constantly in one character. VMMC-2010
Ans. (a) : Both assertion and reason are true and reason is Ans. (d) : Mendel enunciated three principles of
the correct explanation of assertion because Daphnia, a gene inheritance namely -
of small planktonic crustaceans. Cyclomorphosis is the 1. Law of dominance
accurance of seasonal changes in the phenotype of 2. Law of segregation
organisms through successive generations. In Daphnia 3. Law of independent assortment.
cyclomorphosis is stimulated by the variation in temperature 49. In Mendelian monohybrid cross, phenotypic
prevailing in the water bodies at different seasons. ratio in F2 is 3 : 1. How many types of gametes
43. An organism with two different alleles is are formed in F1 - generation?
(a) Homozygous for that trait (a) Two types (b) Four types
(b) Homologous for the allele (c) Eight types (d) Only one types
(c) Heterozygous for that trait MGIMS Wardha-2013
(d) Heterologous for the alleles Ans. (a) : In Mendelian monohybrid cross phenotypic
CG PMT-2010 ratio in F2 is 3:1 then two types of gametes are formed
Ans. (c) : An organism with two different allele is in F1 generation. When homozygous dominant and
heterozygous for that trait. In heterozygous condition an homozygous recessive alleles are crossed, it gives F2
individual in which two members of a pairs of genes are generation.
different. TT × tt → Tt
The gamete produced by Tt is T and t.
44. Natural selection acts on an organism’s
(a) dominant alleles (b) recessive alleles Thus, two type of gametes are formed in F2 generation.
(c) phenotype (d) genotype 50. The offsprings obtained by mating two pure
strains having constrasting characters are
CG PMT-2010 called as
Ans. (c) : Natural selection acts on organisms (a) mutants (b) hybrids
phenotype or observable features. (c) F2 - generation (d) P- generation
45. Alleles are MGIMS Wardha-2013
(a) alternate forms of a gene Ans. (b) : The offspring produced by mating two pure
(b) homologous chromosome breeding strains having contrasting characters are called
(c) pair of sex chromosome as hybrids.
(d) none of the above 51. The crossing of a homozygous tall pea plant
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-II and homozygous dwarf pea plant would yield
VMMC-2007 / Rajasthan PMT-2005 plants in the ratio of
Ans. (a) : Alleles are one pair of genes, or of multiple (a) 2 tall: 2 dwarf
form of a gene (alternate forms of a gene) located at the (b) all heterozygous tall
same position of homologous chromosomes. (c) all homozygous dwarf
46. Law of segregation of gametes was proposed by (d) one homozygous tall; one homozygous dwarf;
two heterozygous tall
(a) Mendel (b) de Vries
MGIMS Wardha-2013
(c) Robert Hook (d) Huxley
HP CET-2012 Ans. (b) : The crossing of homozygous tall pea plant
and homozygous dwarf pea plant would yield plant in
Ans. (a) : Law of segregation of gametes was proposed the ratio -all heterozygous tall' plant.
by Mendel.
Law of segregation states that when a pair of
allelomorphs are brought together in the F1 (hybrids
they remain together in the F2 hybrid without blending
but separate complete and pure during gamete
formation.
47. The branch of science related with
Heterozygous 'Tt' - for tall phenotype.
improvement of mankind by genetics is :
(a) human genetics (b) common genetics 52. Polyploidy leads to rapid formation of new
(c) eugenics (d) heredity species because of:
(a) isolation
BCECE-2002
(b) development of multiple sets of chromosomes
Ans. (c) : The term eugenics was coined by Francis (c) mutation
Galton. It is study of improvement of human race by (d) genetic recombination
controlled selective breeding between individual of Manipal-2006
desirable traits.
Ans. (b) : Polyploidy leads to rapid formation of new
48. Mendel enunciated species because of polyploidy is a condition having
(a) two principles of inheritance multiple sets of chromosome rather than normal haploid
(b) four principles of inheritance or diploid number.
(c) five principles of inheritance Polyploidy is the phenomenon which leads to increases
(d) three principles of inheritance in the number of chromosomes thus increasing the
MGIMS Wardha-2013 number of genes.
53. Which of the following cross will produce a) Homozygous– Homozygous describes the genetic
terminal flower in graden pea? genes.
(a) AA × Aa (b) AA × aa Condition– The genetic state where individuals has
(c) Aa × Aa (d) Aa × AA inherited the some DNA sequence for a particular
JIPMER-2013 gene from both their biological mother and their
biological father. It is often used in the context of
Ans. (c) : Terminal flower will produce in garden pea disease.
when crossed 'Aa × Aa'. b) Heterozygous gene– The presence of two different
• Axillary position is dominant to terminal position alleles at a particular gene locus. A heterozygous
(a), therefore, to produce terminal flower, the genotype may include one normal allele and one
individual should have atleast one recessive allele. mutated allele or two different mutated alleles
• When Aa × Aa is crossed. 3:1 ratio of axiallry and (compound heterozygote).
terminal flower formed. d) Multiple gene – Polygenes - A polygene is a
54. The differences between parents and offspring, member of a group of non-epistatic genes that interact
among offsprings of the same parents and additively to influence a phenotypic trait, thus
individuals of the same species are called computing to multiple gene inheritance, a type of non-
_______. mendelian inheritance, as opposed to single gene
(a) heredity (b) allelism inheritance, which is the core nation of Mendelian
inheritance.
(c) variations (d) homology
MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I 58. A condition where a certain gene is present in
only a single copy in a diploid cell is called
Ans. (c) : The differences between parents and (a) Homozygous (b) Hemizygous
offspring. Among offsprings of the same parents and (c) Heterozygous (d) Monogamous
individuals of the same species are called variations.
There variations are mainly caused due to crossing over Karnataka CET-2008
of meiosis which brings shuffling of genetic material. Ans. (b) : In a hemizygous condition, where a certain
gene is present in only a single copy in a diploid cell.
55. Which of the following charterers was not Hemizygosity is often used to describe X-linked genes
chosen by Mendel? in males who have only X-chromosomes. Female does
(a) Position of Pod (b) Pod colour not show hemizygous condition.
(c) Position of Flower (d) Pod shape 59. The visual display of chromosomes arranged
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-II by size, shape and banding pattern is called as
Ans. (a) : Characters chosen by Mendel are (a) Syndrome (b) Karyotype
(i) Stem height Tall Dwarf (c) Metaphase spread (d) Ploidy
(ii) Flower colour Violet White SRM JEEE-2019
(iii) Flower position Axial Terminal Ans. (b) : The visual display of chromosomes arranged
by size, shape and banding pattern is called an
(iv) Pod shape Inflated Constricted
karyotype.
(v) Pod colour green yellow A karyotype is the general appearance of the complete
(vi) Seed shape Round Wrinkled set of chromosomes in the cells of a speices or an
(vii) Seed colour Yellow green individual organism.
Position of pod was not chosen. 60. According to mendelism which character is
showing dominance:
56. What is the ratio for test cross in dihybrid
experiment of Mendel? (a) Terminal position of flower
(a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (b) Green colour in seed coat
(c) Wrinkled seed
(c) 7: 1 : 1 : 7 (d) 11 : 1 : 1 : 3
(d) Green pod colour
GUJCET-2018
AIPMT-2000
Ans. (b) : The crossing of dihybrid F1 individual with
a homozygous recessive parent is called dihybrid test Ans. (d) : According to Mendelism green pod colour
cross. character is showing dominance. Through the selective
cross breeding of common pea plants (Pisum sativum)
Its phenotypic and genotypic ratio is 1 : 1 : 1 : 1. over many generations, Mendel discovered that certain
57. Which type of gene regulate sex-determination traits show up in offspring without any blending of
in spinach plant? parent characteristics. Mendel observed seven traits that
(a) Heterozygous genes (b) Homozygous genes are easily recognized seven traits and apparently only
(c) Single gene (d) Multiple genes occur in one of two forms. They are:
GUJCET-2015 (1) Flower colour - Purple and White
Ans. (c) : Single gene– Single gene disorders caused (2) Flower position - Axile and Terminal
by DNA changes in one particular gene, and often (3) Stem length - Long and Short
have medic table inheritance patterns. Over 10,000 (4) Seed shape - Round and Wrinkled
human disorders are caused by a change, known as a (5) Seed colour - Yellow and Green
mutation in a single gene. These are known as single (6) Pod shape - Inflated and Constricted
gene disorders. (7) Pod colour - Yellow and Green

61. AA Bb Cc genotypes form how many types of The correct match is :
gametes A B C D
(a) 4 (b) 8 (a) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 (d) 6 (b) 2 4 1 3
AIPMT-1998 (c) 1 2 5 4
Ans. (a) : In AA Bb Cc genotype 4 type of gametes are (d) 4 3 2 1
formed.
AP EAMCET-2010
• Number of gametes in a genotype can be obtained by
formula (2n). Ans. (b) : T.H. Morgan- He showed that genes are
Here n = number of heterozygous pair in a genotype. linked in a series on chromosome and are responsible
• In a genotype AA Bb Cc, number of gamete will be. for identifiable hereditary traits.
= 2n G.J. Mendel – Gregor Johan Mendel’s work in pea lead
n = 2 i.e (Bb and Cc) to our understanding of the foundational principle of
22 = 4 inheritance. He is called as father of genetics.
The four gametes obtained will be ABC, ABc, AbC, Bateson - William Bateson was an English biologist
Abc. who was the first person to use the term genetics to
Hence 4 types of gametes are formed from the genotype describe the study of heredity.
AABbCc. Reginald C Punnett- Using poultry and sweet pea,
62. If Mendel might have studied 7 pairs of Punnett and Bateson discovered some of the
characters in a plant with 12 chromosomes fundamental process of mendelian genetic including
instead of 14 then linkage sex determination sex linkage and the first
(a) He could not have discovered independent example autosolved.
assortment Match-
(b) He might have discovered linkage (A) T.H. Morgan Linkage
(c) He might have discovered crossing over (B) G.J. Mendal Law of heredity
(d) He might have not observed dominance
AIPMT-1998 (C) Bateson Coined the term genetics
Ans. (a) : Mendel studied seven traits in different pea (D) Reginald C Punnett Checker board
plants. Pea plants have 14 chromosomes that is 7 65. A child has single kidney since birth. This
chromosomes in haploid condition. variation is;
Hence he studied and observed one trait or gene on one (a) hybridization (b) negative meristic
chromosome. If pea plants would have 12 chromosomes (c) blastogenic (d) substantive
instead of 14, he would not have discovered the law of
independent assortment. VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004 / BVP-2003
63. Mendel obtained wrinkled seeds in pea due to Ans. (b) : Meristic variation is a type of variation
deposition of sugars instead of starch. It was involving the number of arrangement of parts of an
due to which enzyme : - organism. In meristic trait, the phenotype (set of
(a) Amylase observable characteristics of an individual) is
(b) Invertase determined by counting.
(c) Diastase 66. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a
(d) Absence of starch branching enzyme developing organism, is associated with
AIPMT-2001 (a) Development mutations
Ans. (d) : Mendel obtained wrinkled seeds in pea due to (b) Differential expression of genes
deposition of sugars instead of starch because the (c) Lethal mutations
absence of starch branching enzyme In round seeds (d) Deletion of genes
(RR/Rr) Starch branching enzyme -1 (SBE -1) is found Rajasthan PMT-2010
but is absent from wrinkled seeds.
• In rr seeds, a small DNA segment interferes with Ans. (b) : Differential expression of different genes at
SBE-1 activity so that starch is not formed and free different stages of development leads to organs and
sugar gets accumulated. tissues differentiation.
• As a result high osmotic pressure in rr seeds leads to For example: Size and pattern of puffs etc. which are
shrinkage and wrinking. site of transcription, indicating differentiate gene
64. Study the following lists. activity.
List I List II 67. Biometric genetics deals with
(A) T.H. Morgan 1. Coined the term (a) die biochemical explanations of various
‘Genetics’ genetical phenomena
(B) G.J. Mendel 2. Linkage (b) the effect of environment on genetic makeup
(C) Bateson 3. Checker board of organisms
(D) Reginald C (c) the genetical radiations on the living organisms
Punnett 4. Laws of heredity (d) the inheritance of quantitative traits
5. Mutations AMU-2002
Ans. (d) : Biometric genetics deals with the science Ans. (c) : Mendel made a cross between pea plant with
concerned with the inheritance of quantitative traits is yellow and round seed and one with green and wrinkled
called biometric genetics. It involves the statistical seeds. Such a cross involving two different characters
analysis of the inheritance of different phenotypes of i.e cotyledon-colour (yellow & green) and seed shape
physical characteristics, as relates to the plant or animal (round & wrinkled), separable in inheritance is called a
breeding. dihybrid cross. In this cross one parent has a
68. The theory of random genetic drift was homozygous dominant allele, where as the other has a
proposed by homozygous recessive allele. The no. of genotypes and
phenotypes are 9 and 4 and the ratio of genotypes and
(a) Sewall wright (b) Hardy-Weinberg phenotypes are 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1: 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 i.e (9), and 9 :
(c) RA Fisher (d) Mayer 3 : 3 : 1 i.e (4).
J&K CET-2011 72. In his seminal work on genetics, Gregor
Ans. (a) : Genetic drift was proposed by Sewall Wright. Mendel described the physical traits in the pea
It is also known as allelic drift on the Wright effect. plant as being controlled by two factors’ What
Genetic drift is the change in frequency of an existing term is used to define these factors today?
gene variant (allele) in the population due to random (a) Chromosomes (b) Alleles
chance. (c) Genes (d) Hybrids
69. Assertion: The genetic complement of an KVPY (SA)-2010
organism is called genotype. Ans. (c) : According to Mendel, two factors are needed
Reason: Genotype has type of hereditary for a trait, but for sexual reproduction by which organism
properties of an organism. forming gametes there is a single factor for all traits.
(A) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is Mendelian factors are simple genes which is responsible
correct explanation of (A). for inheritance of traits.
(B) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not 73. In his classic experiments on pea plants,
correct explanation of (A). Mendel did not use :
(C) If the (A) is true but the (R) is false. (a) Flower position (b) Seed colour
(D) If both the (A) and (R) are false. (c) Pod length (d) Seed shape
(E) If (A) is false, but (R) is true. AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
(a) A (b) B Ans. (c) : Mendel did not use pod length in his
(c) C (d) D experiments. Characters of garden pea plant selected by
(e) E Johann Mendel were plant height (tall/dwarf), flower
AIIMS-1999 position; (axial/terminal), pod colour (green/yellow),
Ans. (a) : Genotype → "The genotype of an organism is pod shape (inflated /constricted), flower colour (violet /
its complete set of genetic material" or the genetic white), seed shape (smooth wrinkled) and seed colour
makeup of an organism which determines or contributes (yellow/green).
to its phenotype. This is all the information that is found Position Axial (A) – terminal (a).
inside the individual cells. 74. The production of gametes by the parents, the
It can be determined by observing DNA by genotyping formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can
method. be understood using
(a) Venn diagram (b) Pie diagram
70. Light coloured peppered moth/Biston betularia
gets changed to its darker carbonaria variety (c) A pyramid diagram (d) Punnet square
due to : NEET (Odisha)-2019
(a) translocation of block of genes in response to Ans. (d) : Punnet square is a graphical representation to
heavy carbons calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of
(b) deletion of gene segment due to industrial offspring in a genetic cross.
pollution It was developed by a British geneticist, Reginald C.
(c) mutation of single Mendelian gene for Punnet.
survival in smoke laden industrial • The possible gametes are usually written on the top
environment row and left columns.
(d) industrial carbon deposited on wings • The production of gametes by the parents, the
formation of the zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants can be
understood from a punnet square.
Ans. (c) : Light coloured peppered moth Biston
75. Which one from those given below is the period
betularia due to the mutation of single Mendelian gene for Mendel's hybridization experiments?
for the survival in the smoke, laden industrial (a) 1856 - 1863 (b) 1840 - 1850
environment. It is called industrial melanism.
(c) 1857 - 1869 (d) 1870 - 1877
71. In the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross of NEET-2017
homozygous parents, the number of genotypes Ans. (a) : Mendel is known as father of genetics. He
and phenotypes will be respectively ______ hybridized the contrasting character of pea plant (Pisum
(a) 16 and 9 (b) 4 and 9 sativum) and conducted his experiments for around 10
(c) 9 and 4 (d) 9 and 16 years. between 1856-1863. His work was published in
MHT CET-01.10.2020 Shift-I 1865.
76. In a diploid organism, how many genotypes are 80. How many different types of gametes will be
possible if a gene has two alleles? formed by a pea plant with genotype TtYy?
(a) 3 (b) 5 (a) 16 (b) 08
(c) 6 (d) 8 (c) 06 (d) 04
AP EAPCET-11.07.2022 Shift-I MHT CET-2017
Ans. (a) : The number of genotypes can be found by the Ans. (d) : The given genotype Tt Yy is heterozygous for
n ( n +1) two genes, thus total possible gametes by it = 2n = 22 = 4.
formula where, n is the number of alleles. Where n = No of heterozygous genes
2
Here, n = 2 , so that 4different type of gametes are formed.
2 ( 2 +1) 2 × 3 6 e.g – Tt Yy
= = =3
2 2 2
77. Test cross involves-
(a) Crossing between two genotypes with
recessive trait.
(b) Crossing between two F1 hybrids.
(c) Crossing the F1 hybrid with a double 4 different type of gametes are formed.
recessive genotype
81. During hybridization offsprings with hybrid
(d) Crossing between two genotypes with
dominant trait. vigour superior to both parents are self-
pollinated for few successive generations
AIPMT-2006
to____
Ans. (c) : In test cross F1 individual showing a dominant (a) Retain their parental characters
phenotype is crossed with homozygous recessive parent.
(b) Remove their parental characters
The progenies of such a cross can easily be analysed to
predict the genotype of the test cross organism. (c) Get homozygosity
(d) Segregate characters
MHT CET-2016
Ans. (c) : A homozygous plant maintains a high degree
of consistency for particular characters determined by
the gene throughout the subsequent generations. When
both parents are getting self pollinated for few
successive generations, the pure characters are started to
be conserved.
82. The total number of types of gametes produced
in a cross between a negro and albino parent is
(a) 64 (b) 16
(c) 08 (d) 04
MHT CET-2014
78. Phenotype of an organism is the result of- Ans. (c) : The F1 generation has mullatoes with 8 types
(a) Mutations and linkages of gametes. The genetic combination is AaBbCc. As
there are three pairs of heterozygous alleles, it will form
(b) Cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
8 types of gametes.
(c) Environmental changes and sexual dimorphism
The F1-generation is heterozygous for 3 genes & will
(d) Genotype and environment interactions produce total 23 = 8 types of gametes.
AIPMT-2006
Ans. (d) : Phenotype is the observable characteristic or
the total appearance of an organism. It is determined by
its gene, the relationship between the alleles and by the
interaction during development between its genetic
constitution (genotype) and the environment.
79. Genetic variation cannot be effectively brought
about by
(a) transduction (b) mutation
(c) transformation (d) amplification
JIPMER-2019
Ans. (d) : Genetic variation cannot be effectively
brought about by amplification. 83. During meiosis, the alleles of the parental pair
• Amplification is a process by which a nucleic acid separate or segregate from each other. How
molecule is enzymatically copied to generate a progeny many allele (s) are then transmitted to a
population with same sequence as the parental one. gamete?
(a) Four (b) Two (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Six (d) One (d) none of the above
(e) Eight Rajasthan PMT-1997
Kerala PMT-2011 Ans. (a) : Hugo de Vries, Carl Correns and Tschermak
nd
Ans. (d) : According to the 2 law of heredity (law of independently rediscovered Mendel's work in the same
segregation) the pair of alleles separates from each other year 1900.
during the cell division of meiosis (formation of 89. An example of sex-influenced inheritance is–
gametes), so there is only one allele in each gamete. (a) haemophilia (b) colour blindness
84. Allelic sequence variations where more than (c) baldness (d) Downs syndrome
one variant (allele) at a locus in human Uttarakhand PMT-2010
population with a frequency greater than 0.01 Ans. (c) : Sex-influenced traits are autosomal traits that
is referred to as : are influenced by sex. If a male has one recessive allele,
(a) Incomplete dominance he will show that trait, while female has two recessive
(b) Multiple allelism allele to show that same trait. An example of sex
influenced trait is the baldness pattern. The presence of
(c) SNP testosterone levels influenced the expression of the
(d) EST baldness allele. Males with higher testosterone levels
(e) DNA polymorphism have a dominant baldness gene, whereas female with
Kerala PMT-2011 lower testosterone levels have a recessive baldness
Ans. (e) : Allelic sequence variation has traditionally gene.
been described as a DNA polymorphism. It is related to 90. Identify the correct statements regarding
genomics, refers to the presence of 2 or more variant Mendelian genetic from the following.
forms of a specific DNA sequence that can occur (a) F1 always resembled either of the parents.
among different individuals or population or if an (b) Recessive character is expressed in
inheritable mutation is observed in a population at high heterozygous state.
frequency, it is referred to as DNA polymorphism. (c) Genes coding for a pair of contrasting
characters are called alleles.
85. The loss of a chromosomal segment is due to :
(d) The alleles of the parental pair freely
(a) Polyploidy (b) Deletions separate from each other during
(c) Duplications (d) Inversions gametogenesis.
(e) Transversion Options:
Kerala PMT-2011 (a) A, B, C only (b) B, C, D only
Ans. (b) : When a part of a chromosome is missing or (c) A, B, D only (d) A, C, D only
deleted it is called as deletion. A very small piece of a TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-I
chromosome can contain many different genes. When Ans. (d) : Mendelian genetic is a set of theories that
genes are missing, there may be errors in the development attempts to explain inheritance and biological diversity.
of a baby since some of the instructions are missing. By experimenting with pea plant breeding, Mendel
86. Who coined the term allele? developed three principles of inheritance that described
(a) Mendel (b) Johannsen the transmission of genetic traits, before anyone knew
gene existed.
(c) Bateson (d) Saunders
According to Mendelian genetics following statements
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-II are correct.
Ans. (c) : William Bateson and Edith Rebecca Saunders • F1 always resembled either of the parents
coined the term allele. The word allele is a short form of • Genes coding for a pair of contracting characters are
allelomorph, which describe the alternative form or called alleles.
versions of a gene.
• The alleles of the parental pair freely separate from
87. Genes were first artificially synthesized by : each other during gametogenesis.
(a) Khorana (b) Watson 91. Meiosis in AaBb will produce gametes:
(c) Galton (d) Mendel (a) AB, aB, Ab, ab (b) AB, ab
J&K CET-2005 (c) Aa, bb (d) Aa, Bb
Ans. (a) : Gene were first artificially synthesized by Har JCECE-2004
Gobind Khorana in yeast which coded for the enzyme Ans. (a) : Meiosis in AaBb will produce following
involved in the transfer RNA or tRNA synthesis. The first types of gametes –
complete product was yeast tRNA. The tyrosine tRNA For - AaBb
precursor was of amino acid tyrosine.
88. The three scientists who rediscovered the
Mendels law were?
(a) Hugo de Vries, Carl Correns and Tschermak
(b) de Vries, Correns, T. H. Morgan The gametes are - AB, Ab, aB & ab.
92. Match the following lists 95. In human being brown eye (B) is dominant
List-I List-II over blue eye (b). A brown-eyed couple has a
A. Phenotype I. Position of a gene on the blue-eyed child. What are the possible
chromosome genotypes of the couple?
(a) Bb × bb (b) Bb × Bb
B. Genotype II. Genetic composition of
an organism (c) BB × bb (d) BB × bB
C. Allele III. Alternate form of the
same gene Ans. (b) : For two Parents with brown eyes to have a
blue-eyed child both parents must genetically be Bb×Bb
D. Locus IV. Distance between two genotype.
genes on the
chromosomes 96. When an F1 individuals is crossed with its
either of the two parent. Then it is known as :
V. External appearance of
organism (a) test cross (b) back cross
(c) reciprocal cross (d) monohybrid cross
A B C D
Ans. (b) : When an F1 individuals is crossed with its
(a) V II III I either of the 2 parent. Then it is known as back cross.
(b) V III II I Example :- When we cross a pea plant consisting green
(c) IV III I II colour pod YY with a pea plant consisting yellow
(d) V IV II III coloured pod yy.
Ans. (a) :
Phenotype - External or physical appearance of
organism.
Genotype - Genetic makeup/genetic composition of an
organism.
Allele - Alternate form of the same gene.
Locus - Position of a gene on the chromosome.
93. Why pea plants were more suitable than dogs
for Mendels experiment?
(a) Dogs have many genetic traits B. Inheritance of one Gene.
(b) Pea plants can be self fertilized
(c) No pedigree records of dogs 97. In one of the hybridization experiments, a
(d) Pea plants favour cross fertilization homozygous dominant parent and a
CMC Vellore-2011 homozygous recessive parent are crossed for a
Ans. (b) : Pea plant more suitable than dogs for trait. (Plant shows Mendelian inheritance
pattern)
Mendel's experiment because it has following
characteristics. (a) Dominant parent trait appears in F2
generation and recessive parent trait appears
I - They are self pollinating and thus self pollination & only in F1 generation.
cross pollination can easily be achieved.
(b) Dominant parent trait appears in F1
II - They have a shorter life span & are easier to generation and recessive parent trait appears
maintain. in F2 generation.
III - Their different physical characteristics were easy (c) dominant parent trait appears in both F1 & F2
to recognize & study. generations, recessive parent trait appears in
IV - Their flowers are bisexual. only F2 generation.
94. Mendel was successful in discovering the (d) dominant parent trait appears in F1 generation
principles of inheritance as and recessive parent trait appears in F2
(a) He took pea plants for his experiments generations.
(b) He did not encounter linkage between the Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
genes for the characters he considered Ans. (c) : A homozygous dominant parent and a
(c) He had an in -depth knowledge on homozygous recessive parent are crossed for a trait then
hybridization dominant parent trait appears in both F1 and F2 generations,
(d) He was a famous mathematician recessive parent trait appears in only F2 generation.
J&K CET-2011 98. Assertion (A) : Seggregation of traits is
Ans. (b) : Mendel was successful in discovering the independent of one another
principles of inheritance because he took one character Reason (R) : Dominant character appears only
at one time in his experiments of hybridization. He did in heterozygous state
not encounter linkage between the genes for the (a) (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct
characters he considered. explanation for (A)
(b) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
Ans. (d) : Complementary gene are two or more
explanation for (A) dominant gene which occur in different loci on the same
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false or different chromosomes interact with each other to
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false produce a character but neither of them produce that
character in the absence of other. Since, when two
mutations are located in the same functional unit or
Ans. (c) : Independent assortment principles describe
different functional units. It is confirmed by
that during the development of gamete Allel pair are
complementation test.
segregate, which means that the traits are passed to the
off spring independently of one another. 102. Which of the following is dominant character
⇒ Dominant character appears in Homozygous and according to Mendel?
heterozygous condition but recessive character appear (a) Dwarf plant any yellow fruit
in only homozygous condition. (b) Terminal fruit and wrinkled seed
99. Genotype of dominant trait of plant can be (c) White testa and yellow pericarp
determined by crossing F1 hybrid with the (d) Green coloured fruit and rounded seed
parent and the genotypic ratio is
(a) Homozygous dominant trait 2 : 1 WB JEE-2006
(b) Homozygous dominant trait 1 : 1 Ans. (d) : Green colour fruit and rounded seed is
(c) Homozygous recessive trait 1 : 1 dominant character.
103. If a child is of blood group -O and his father is
(d) Homozygous recessive trait all are same
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-I of blood group -B, the genotype of father will
Ans. (c) : Genotype of dominant trait of plant can be be
determined by crossing F1 hybrid with the parent and (a) I° I° (b) IAIB
B
the genotypic ratio is 1 : 1 (c) I°I (d) I°IA
VMMC-2011
Ans. (c) : The father with B group can have genotype,
I°IB or IBIB
The child with B group will have genotype,
II, one from each parent.
Thus, the father genotype will be I°IB.
104. If a cross is made between AA and aa, the
nature of F1 progeny will be
(a) genotypically AA, phenotypically a
(b) genotypically Aa, phenotypically a
F2 generation , TT , Tt, Tt, tt (c) genotypically Aa, phenotypically A
Ratio between homozygous dominant and homozygous (d) genotypically aa, phenotypically A
recessive 1 : 1 UP CPMT-2004
100. Match the genes of Lac operon with their Ans. (c) : When cross between AA and aa. The F1
respective products progency phenotypically A, and genotypically 'Aa'.
List – I List – II
A. i gene I. β-galactosidase
B. z gene II. Permease
C. a gene III. Repressor
D. y gene IV. Transacetylase
(a) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D - I • Genotype - Aa, • Phenotype - A
(b) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D - III 105. A woman with Straight hair marries a man
(c) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D - II with curly hair who is known to be
(d) A – II, B – III, C – I, D - IV heterozygous of the trait. What is the chance
AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I that their first child will have curly hair?
Ans. (c) : A – III, B – I, C – IV, D - II (a) No chance (b) One in two
(c) It is certain (d) One in four
101. When two mutations are located in the same
CMC Vellore-2013
functional unit or different functional units
then it is confirmed by : BCECE-2011
(a) test cross Ans. (b) : A man with heterozygous curly hair is
(b) back cross married to woman with straight hair given in question.
(c) reciprocal cross • The probability of curly hair for the first child is
(d) complementation test 50%, since the straight hair gene is dominant and
WB JEE-2006 located on X chromosomes.
106. The percentage of heterozygous individuals Ans. (c) : In pig white coat (W) is dominant over black
obtained form selfing Rr individual, is (w). Two white pigs are breed to produce nine white
(a) 25 (b) 75 and two black pigs.
(c) 50 (d) 100 The genotype parent's in such case is Ww × Ww.
BCECE-2011 Since, correct option is (c).
Ans. (c) : The percentage of heterozygous individuals 110. In Mirabilis jalapa when two pink flowered
obtained from selfing Rr individual is 50%. plants were crossed with each other, the F2
generation produced 40 red, 80 pink and 40
white flowering plants. This is a case of:
(a) incomplete dominance
(b) duplicate genes
(c) epistasis
(d) lethal genes
JIPMER-1995
Ans. (a) : In Mirabilis Jalapa when two pink flowered
Plants were crossed with each other, the F2 generation
107. When a negro marries white, how many produced 40 red, 80 pink and 40 white flowering plants.
phenotypes are obtained? This is case of incomplete dominance. In such cases,
(a) 7 (b) 8 hybrid individuals are more or ions intermediate
(c) 10 (d) 16 between the two parents and ratio is 1:2:1.
VMMC-2013 111. Extra nuclear inheritance is a consequence of
Ans. (a) : When a negro maries while, 7 phenotypes are presence of genes in
obtained. (a) mitochondria and chloroplasts
AaBbCc aabbcc (b) endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
Mulatto Albino (c) ribosomes and chloroplast
23 = 8 gametes = 1 gamete (d) lysosomes and ribosomes
1 mulatto, 3 fair, 3 light, 1 Albino. CG PMT-2006
The phenotypes are pure black negro, Black less dark Ans. (a) : Some characters are governed by non nuclear
than negro parent, lesser black or brown, mulatto genes present in mitochondria, chloroplasts or
intermediate, Sanwla, Fair, Very fair, pure white albino. endosymbionts. This phenomenon is called as extra
nuclear or cytoplasmic inheritance.
108. If a homozygous red flowered plant is crossed
with a homozygous white flowered plant, the • DNA and RNA is the genetic material that carries
offsprings will be: information from one generation to another. Apart
(a) all red flowered (b) all white flowered from this genetic material in the nucleus, The
cytoplasm also contributes to the inheritance of some
(c) half red flowered (d) half white flowered
characters. Such characters are cytoplasmic inherited
VMMC-2006 / CPMT-2004 / AIIMS-2002 characters and this phenomenon is called as
Ans. (a) : The crossing over of homozygous red cytoplasmic inheritance. It is also called extra nuclear
flowered plant (RR) with a homozygous white flowered inheritance, because in this type of inheritance
plant (rr) will result in the production of flowers factors lie outside the nucleus of the cell.
containing the genotype of the offspring Rr. The allele
• The cytoplasm contains various cell organelles
R is the dominant allele where as r is the recessive allele
including mitochondria, chloroplasts are regarded as
for the color of the flower. Therefore the offspring
containing the genotype (Rr) will be red in color. semi-autonomous as they contain their own genetic
material- DNA. Hence cytoplasmic inheritance
involves inheritance of mitochondrial DNA and/or
chloroplast DNA.
112. Which one of the following is dominant among
the wing sizes in Drosophila ?
(a) Normal wings (b) Vestigeal wings
(c) Notched wings (d) Nicked wings
RW = Red flower. Ans. (a) : In Drosophila, normal wing (t) are dominant
So, correct option is (a) all red flower. over vestigial wings (vg) and the presence of eyes (t) is
109. In pigs, white coat (W) is dominant to black dominant to being eye less (ey).
(w). Two white pigs are breed to procedure 9 113. A true breeding plant producing red flowers is
white and 2 black pigs. What are the genotype crossed with a pure plant producing white
of the parents? flowers. Allele for red colour of flower is
(a) WW × WW (b) WW × Ww dominant. After selfing the plants of first filial
(c) Ww × Ww (d) ww × ww generation, the proportion of plants producing
AMU-2008 white flowers in the progeny would be
3 1 Ans. (b) : When the expression of both dominant and
(a) (b) recessive alleles is masked by a dominant allele from
4 4
1 1 another locus, it is called as dominant epistasis. Its ratio
(c) (d) is 12:3:1.
3 2
Manipal-2009 117. In a population of 1000 individuals 28% are
homozygous dominant, 48% are heterozygous
Ans. (b) : RR - Red flower
dominant and remaining are recessive. Find
rr - white flower out the dominant allelic frequency
(a) 0.76 (b) 0.52
(c) 0.24 (d) 0.48
Rr × Rr → Selfing F1 generation offspring. Ans. (a) : In a population of 1000 individuals, 28% i.e.
280 are homozygous dominant, 48% i.e. 480 are
heterozygous dominant and remaining 240 are
recessive. Then the dominant allelic frequency is
760
= 0.76 .
• Total progeny = 4 1000
• Red flower = 3 118. In man, the blue eye colour is recessive to the
• White flower = 1 brown eye colour. If the boy has brown eye and
1 his mother is blue eyed, what would be the
Thus, white flower progeny is produced. phenotype of his father?
4
(a) Green eye (b) Blue eye
114. A pure tall pea plant was reared in soil poor in
nutrition and reached the size of pure dwarf pea (c) Black eye (d) Brown eye
plant, if this plant is selfed, then the genotype in Karnataka CET-2007
the F1- generation is most likely to be Ans. (d) : As per the given condition the brown eye
(a) all tall colour is dominant over the blue eye colour. The
(b) 50% tall: 50% dwarf mother’s genotype must be bb as she is recessive for
(c) all dwarf blue coloured eye. The man is brown eye (dominant).
(d) Not possible: to predict Its possible genotype must be Bb as he is procuring one
CMC Vellore-2014 of the recessive gene for his mother.
Ans. (a) : Pure tall (self crossed) 119. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that
TT × TT both genotypic and phenotypic ratio are same
↓ as 1 : 2 : 1. It represents a case of:
F1 → TT → Tall (a) Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
Since, correct option is A i.e. genotype of F1 progeny is (b) Monohybrid cross with incomplete
tall when self crossed. dominance
115. Select the incorrect statement? (c) Co-dominance
(a) Male fruit fly is heterogametic (d) Dihybrid cross
(b) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny AIPMT (Screening)-2012
depends on the type of sperm rather than egg Ans. (b) : Monohybrid cross with incomplete
(c) Human males have one of their sex- dominance shows both genotypic and phenotypic ratio
chromosome much shorter than other as 1 : 2 : 1.
(d) In male grasshoppers, 50% of sperms have no
sex chromosome
Ans. (b) : In case of Domesticated fowls, males are
homogametic (zz), are heterogametic (zw) thus it is
the ovum which determines the sex of progeny.
zw
z w
zz z zz zw
z zz zw The inheritance of flower colour in the dog flower
(snapdragon) is a good example which shows
116. The dominant epistasis ratio is incomplete dominance.
(a) 9:3: 3:1 (b) 12:3:1 • Here genotype ratio were 1 : 2 : 1 as in any Mendelian
(c) 9:3:4 (d) 9:6:1 monohybrid cross, but the phenotype ratio had changed
JIPMER-2014 from 3 : 1 dominant recessive ratio to 1 : 2 : 1.
120. A plant which lives on rocks under water with (a) dominance of one allele on another allele of
photosynthetic roots is: both loci
(a) Tinospora (b) Podostemom (b) interaction between two alleles of different
(c) Taeniophyllum (d) Yunda loci
AP EAMCET-2004 (c) dominance of one allele on another allele of
same loci
Ans. (b) : Tinospora and trapa because these roots are (d) interaction between two alleles of same loci.
aerial and green containing chlorophyll, so they absorb AIIMS-1994
sunlight and photosynthesize. So, option (a) is correct.
Ans. (a) : Epistasis occurs when the phenotypes of one
121. A plant of F1-generation has genotype locus masks, or prevents the phenotype of another
"AABbCC". On selfing of this plant what is the locus. The gene is called epistatic gene & the gene
phenotypic ratio in F2-generation : - whose effect is masked is termed as hypostatic gene.
(a) 3 : 1 So, in epistasis effect 2 genus are tnt in different loci
(b) 1 : 1 and one gene is epistasis to another gene. The type of
(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 dominant epistasis which is modified the classical ratio
(d) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1 of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 into 12 : 3 : 1.
AIPMT-2002 124. A cross between two tall garden pea plants
produced all tall plants. The possible genotypes
Ans. (a) : Selfing is the process of fertilization with of the parents are
male gametes of the same individual. AABbCC will (I) TT, TT (II) TT, Tt
produce two type of gametes ABC and AbC as per the (III) Tt, tt (IV) Tt, Tt
formula 2n where n denotes number of heterozygotes.
(a) (II), (III) (b) (III), (IV)
• Thus in F2 generation three genotypes will be (c) (I), (IV) (d) (I) , (II)
obtained. These are AABBCC, AABbCC and AAbbCC AP EAMCET-2014
in the ratio of F2 1:2:1, phenotypically AABBC and
AABbCC are Same. So the phenotypic ratio in F2 Ans. (d) : When a cross between 2 tall garden pea
generation will be 3:1 as shown in the Punnet square plants produced all tall plants. The possible genotypes
of the parents are TT, TT & TT Tt.
Example - 1
Example - 2
122. In sweet peas, genes C and P are necessary for

colour in flowers. The flowers are white in the
absence of either or both the genes. What will 125. The genotype of a husband and wife are AB &
be the percentage of coloured flowers in the AO. Among the blood of their children, how
offspring of the cross Ccpp × ccPp ? many different genotypes & phenotypes are
possible?
(a) 75% (b) 25%
(a) 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
(c) 100% (d) 50% (b) 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
AIIMS-1997 (c) 4 phenotypes; 3 genotypes
Ans. (b) : When Ccpp × ccPp is crossed together, the (d) 4 phenotypes; 4 genotypes
percentage of coloured flowers in the offspring is 25%. Karnataka CET-2021
Ans. (b) : The genotype of a husband and wife are IA IB
& IA I. Four different possible genotypes of their
children are -
IA IB, IA I, IA IA, IB I
The phenotypic ratio is = 3 : 1 is 75% white flower &

25% coloured flowers are formed. The possible no. of phenotypes of their children are -
123. The epistatic effect, in which the dihybrid cross Blood group A (IA IA, IA I)
ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 between Aa Bb’and Aa bb is Blood group B (IB I)
modified as Blood group AB (IA IB)
126. A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms :- (D) Homozygote (IV) If the F1
(a) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes progeny are
(b) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes mated back to
(c) 8 different gametes and 32 different zygotes one of their
(d) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes parents.
AIPMT-2004 (V) The cross
Ans. (d) : The Genotype of trihybrid would be between F1
AaBbCc. Number of gametes = (no. of genes studied)n, progeny (or
where n = number of heterozygous alleles thus number heterozygotes)
of gametes = (2)3 = 8 and their
No. of zygotes = (2)2n = (2)2×3 = (2)6 = 64 recessive
homozygous
127. A gene is said to be dominant if : - parent.
(a) It is express it's effect only in homozygous The correct match is:
stage
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(b) It is expressed only in heterozygous condition (a) IV V I II
(c) It is expressed both in homozygous and (b) V III I II
heterozygous condition
(c) V IV II I
(d) It is never expressed in any condition
(d) IV V II III
AIPMT-2002
Ans. (c) A gene is said to be dominant if ,It is expressed
both in homozygous and heterozygous condition. Ans. (d) : Back cross – If the F1 progeny ae mated
back to one of their parents.
For example- TT (Tall) (Homozygous) and Tt (tall)
(Heterozygous) In both condition, tall plant express Test cross – The cross between F1 progeny ( or
because 'T' is dominant heterozygotes) and their recessive homozygous parent.
Note - Phenotypically both plant are tall but Heterozygote – An individual is having 2 different
allele for a single character consequently it will produce
genotypically differ to each other 2 different types of gametes with reference to a gene.
128. Cross between AaBB and aaBB will form Homozygote – An individual is having 2 similar allele
(a) 1AaBB : 1aaBB (b) all AaBB for a single character. Hence it will be produce only one
(c) 3AaBB : 1aaBB (d) 1AaBB : 3aaBB kind of gametes with reference to a gene.
AIPMT-1990 130. Ratio of long winged and vestigial winged
Ans. (a) : Cross between Aa BB and aaBB will form – Drosophila are formed when a pure long
1AaBB : 1aaBB winged (dominant) and a pure vestigial winged
129. Match the following lists: (recessive) Drosophila are crossed
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1
List- I List-II
(c) 3 : 1, 1 : 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 0
(A) Back cross (I) It is the genetic TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I
make up of an
individual. Ans. (d) : Ratio of long winged and vestigial winged
Drosophila are formed when a pure long winged
(B) Test cross (II) An individual is (dominant) and a pure vestigial winged (recessive)
having two Drosophila are crossed.
different alleles
Hence, the ratio 1:0
for a single
character. 131. If a gene has four alleles, number of expected
Consequently it genotypes is
will produce (a) 6 (b) 10
two different (c) 12 (d) 20
types of gametes TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-I
with reference Ans. (b) : If a gene has four alleles, no. of expected
to a gene. genotype is –
(C) Heterozygote (III) An individual is
having two {n(n + 1)}
similar or 2
identical alleles Where, n = The no. of alleles at a given locus. Here,
for a single n=4
character.
Hence, it will {4(4 + 1)}
The no. of genotypes is =
produce only 2
one kind of
20
gametes with =
reference to a 2
gene. = 10
B-1. Law of Dominance 136. Match the terms in Column I with their
description in Column II and choose the
132. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an example of correct option
(a) X-linked dominant inheritance Column I Column II
(b) X-linked recessive inheritance (A) Dominance (i) Many genes
(c) Autosomal recessive inheritance govern a single
(d) Y-linked dominant inheritance character
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II (B) Codominance (ii) In a heterozygous
Ans. (b) : Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is on organism only one
example of x-linkage recessive inheritance. allele expresses
It is a genetic disorder caused by mutation in the DMD itself
gene which is located on the X-chromosome; it follows (C) Pleiotropy (iii)
In a heterozygous
an x-linked recessive inheritance. organism both
In X-linked recessive inheritance- alleles express
• Males have one X-chromosome and one themselves fully
Y-chromosome. (D) Polygenic (iv) A single gene
• Female have two X-chromosomes inheritance influences many
133. When a cross is made between pure red and characters
pure white flowers of pea plant, then 120 plants (A) (B) (C) (D)
are obtained. The ratio of them is : (a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(a) 30 red : 90 white (b) 90 red : 30 white (b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(c) 60 red : 60 white (d) All red (c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Rajasthan PMT-1996 (d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans. (d) : When a cross is made between pure red and NEET-2016 Phase-I
pure white flowers of pea plant, then 120 plants are Ans. (c) : Dominance- In a heterozyous organism only
obtained ratio of them is all red because- one allele expresses itself.
RR × rr Codominance- In a heterozygous organism both alleles
(Pure red) ↓ (Pure white) express themselves fully.
Rr F1 progeny Pleiotropy- A single gene influences many characters.
(Red phenotype) Polygenic Inheritance- Many genes govern a single
Since, correct option is d all F1 progeny are red. characters.
134. The law of dominance is not universally 137. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to
applicable because in some organisms few green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is
characters are __________. crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of
(a) completely dominant yellow and green seeded plants would you
expect in F1 generation ?
(b) both, dominant and recessive
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 50 : 50
(c) completely recessive
(c) 9 : 1 (d) 1 : 3
(d) incompletely dominant
AIPMT-2007
Ans. (b) : The yellow seeds are dominant to green, the
Ans. (d) : The law of dominance is not universally
allele for yellow seeds should be represented with upper
applicable because some characters are exceptions to
case letter while the one for green seeds should be
Mendel's law of dominance and show incomplete
written in lower case letter. Let's suppose that the allele
dominance. In such case hybrid individuals are more or
for yellow seed is Y and that for green seed is y.
less intermediate between the two parents.
• Hence the genotype of the heterozygous yellow
135. Which one of the following characters studied seeded plant will be "Yy" and that for green seeded
by Mendel in garden pea was found to be
plant will be "yy" (as the recessive allele is
dominant?
expressed only in homozygous conditions.)
(a) Green seed colour
(b) Terminal flower position • The cross between heterozygous yellow seeded
plant and green seeded plant will produce 50%
(c) Green pod colour
yellow seeded plants and 50% green seeded plants.
(d) Wrinkled seed
So the correct answer is 'b'.
Haryana PMT-2010
AFMC-2007
Ans. (c) : Green pod colour round seed shape, inflated
pod shape yellow seed colour. Axial flower position violet
flower colour tall and stem height are dominant character
which was found in Mendel’s study on garden pea.
138. Two pea plants were subjected cross (a) 4 (b) 3
pollination of the 183 plants produced in the (c) 9 (d) 1
next generation, 94 plants were found to be GUJCET-2023
dwarf. The genotypes of the two parental Ans. (a) :
plants are likely to be
(a) TT and tt (b) Tt and Tt
(c) Tt and tt (d) TT and TT
Karnataka CET-2006
Ans. (c) : Two types of progenies are produced.
• One tall and second dwarf
The ratio of white flowers (vv) in F2 generation – 4

139. A tall plant was grown in nutrient deficient soil 142. A homozygous red flower is crossed with
and remained dwarf, when it is crossed with recessive white. Red is dominant over white.
dwarf plant, then The progeny in the F1 generation will be:
(a) all hybrid plants are dwarf (a) all red
(b) all hybrid plants are tall (b) all white
(c) 50% tall and 50% dwarf (c) 50% red and 50% white
(d) 75% tall and 25% dwarf (d) 75% red 50% white
AP EAMCET-2011 BVP-2004
Ans. (b) : A tall plant was grown in nutrient deficient Ans. (a) :
soil and remained dwarf, when it is crossed with dwarf
plant, then all hybrid plants are tall.
A tall plant was grown in nutrient deficient soil and
remained genetically dwarf but this plant has a genetic
constitution of tall plant. So the cross between such
plant and a dwarf plant will result into all hybrid tall
plants.
140. A gene said to be dominant if : -
(a) It express it's effect only in homozygous stage
(b) It expresses only in heterozygous condition The red colour of flower dominates upon white colour
of flower. In the present varieties both parents are of
(c) It expresses both in homozygous and pare variety therefore, the offspring will be all red
heterozygous condition
flowered.
(d) It never expressed in any condition
AIPMT-2002 143. Which of the following cross will give recessive
progeny in F1 generation?
Ans. (c) : A dominant gene is a gene which can express (a) TT × tt (b) Tt × TT
in both condition (Homozygous and Heterozygous) (c) tt × tt (d) TT × TT
For example- TT (Tall) (Homozygous) and Tt (tall) MHT CET-2014
(Heterozygous) In both condition, tall plant express
Ans. (c) : tt × tt cross will give recessive progeny in F1
because 'T' is dominant
generation.
Note - Phenotypically both plant are tall but
genotypically differ to each other
141. A cross was made by Mendel with pea plant
between violet flower (VV) in axial position
(AA) and white flower (vv) in terminal position
(aa). What ratio of white flowers (vv)
phenotypically he had received in F2
generation? All are recessive progeny.

144. Incomplete dominance is found in B-2. Law of Segregation
(a) Pisum sativum (b) Antirrhinum majus
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above 148. A pea with white flower was crossed with another
CG PMT-2005 pea with white flower. When they selfed the F2 -
Ans. (b) : Incomplete dominance is a condition in generation produced purple and white in the
ratio of 9:7. The reason for the result is that
which a dominant allele does not completely mask the
(a) It is typical monohybrid Mendelian ratio
effects of a recessive allele.
(b) purple flower colour is dominant over white
Ex – in Snapdragon i.e Antirrhinum majus, the flower (c) it is a complementary factor
colour is controlled by incomplete dominance. The (d) None of the above
Antirrhinum flower has 2 flower colours, Red (RR) and MGIMS Wardha-2014
white (rr). When cross pollination occurs between red and
Ans. (c) : When two gene present on different loci,
white flowers, a pink, antirrhinum flower (Rr) is produced.
interact together and produce new phenotype, when
145. If a cross between two individuals produces they present alone, they produce their own phenotype,
offsprings with 50% dominant character and this type of gene is called complementary genes.
50% recessive character the genotype of A pea plant with white flowers was crossed with
parents are another pea plant is also white flowered. The F1 plant is
(a) Aa × Aa (b) Aa × aa selfed in F2 generation 9 plant with purple flower and 7
(c) AA × aa (d) AA × Aa plants with white flowers are produced. The reason in
the plant with purple flowers, both the gene are
WB JEE-2011 complementary with one another, so purple flower are
Ans. (b) : If a cross between 2 individuals produces formed. It is a complimentary factor
offspring with 50% dominant character and 50% recessive 149. Mendel's principle of segregation means that
character the genotype of parents are - Aa × aa the germ cells always receive
(a) one pair of alleles
(b) one quarter of the genes
(c) one of the paired alleles
(d) any pairs of alleles
DUMET-2011,2010
Ans. (c) : Mendel's principle of segregation means that
The phenotypic ratio is 2 : 2 i.e 1 : 1 the germ cells always receive one of the paired alleles.
146. The presence of recessive part in a large Law of segregation states that- “when a pair of alleles
population is found to be 16%. The frequency are brought together in the hybrid (F1), the remain
of dominant allele in that population is : together in the hybrid without blending but separate
(a) 0.60 (b) 0.32 complete and pure during gamete formation”.
(c) 0.56 (d) 0.92 150. Which of the following is best suited for co
dominance?
DUMET-2002
(a) Both are recessive (b) Both are dominance
Ans. (a) : Genotype frequency of recessive population (c) One is recessive (d) One is dominance
is (q2) = 16% or 0.16. DUMET-2008
Hence, frequency of recessive allele = q = ( 0.16 ) = 0.4. Ans. (b) : In co-dominance, both allelic genes of a
genetic trait are equally expressive, i.e. the dominant
Since, p + q = 1; thus the frequency of dominant allele = character is not able to suppress, even in completely, the
p = 1 – q = 1 – 0.4 = 0.60. recessive characters and thus both the characters appear
147. Rr rr progeny: Red (dominant) flowered side by side in F1 hybrids.
heterozygous crossed with white flower Since, option b is correct i.e. best suited for co-
dominance is both are dominance.
(a) 350 → red : 350 →white
151. What would be the colour of flowers in F1
(b) 450 → red : 250 white progeny as a result of cross between homozygous
(c) 380 → red : 320 white red and homozygous white flower snapdragon?
(d) None of the above (a) Red (b) White
DUMET-2007 (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) pink
Ans. (a) : When red (dominant) flowered heterozygous VMMC-2006 / CG PMT-2004
crossed with white flower the progeny ratio are 2 : 2 or Ans. (d) : A cross between red flowered plant (RR) and
1 : 1 is obtained. white flowered(rr) gives all plants with pink colored
flowers (Rr)
The progeny ratio are 2 : 2 / 1 : 1 i.e. 350→ red : 350 →

White flower are produced in offsprings. Colour of progeny in F1 is pink i.e. 'Rr'.
152. One of the parents of a cross has mutation in its 155. In order to find out the different types of
mitochondria. In that cross, that parent is gametes produced by a pea plant having the
taken as a male. During segregation of F2 genotype AaBb, is should be crossed to a plant
progenies that mutation is found in with the genotype
(a) one third of the progenies (a) aaBB (b) AaBb
(b) none of the progenies (c) AABB (d) aabb
(c) all of the progenies JIPMER-2007
(d) fifty percent of the progenies
Ans. (d) : Scientists perform test cross to find out the
Manipal-2007
different types of gametes or the genotypes of an
Ans. (b) : Mitochondial genes show maternal unknown individual. Test cross is performed always
inheritance. It means progenies get all the mitochondrial between the F1 heterozygous plants and pure recessive
gene from the cytoplasm of the mother. Hence, if there (homozygous) parent plant.
is any mutation in the mitochondrial of male, it will not
be found in any progenies of F2 generation. 156. When a cross is conducted between black
153. In guinea pigs black short hair (BBSS) is feathered hen and a white feathered cock, blue
dominant over white long hair (bbss). During a feathered fowls are formed. When these fowls
dihybrid cross, the F2 generation individuals are allowed for interbreeding, in F2 generation
with genotypes, BBSS, BbSS, BBSs and BbSs there are 20 blue fowls. What would be the
are in the ratio of number of black and white fowls?
(a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (b) 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 (a) Black 20, white 10 (b) Black 20, white 20
(c) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 (c) Black 10, white 10 (d) Black 10, white 20
AP EAMCET-2008 AP EAMCET-2007
Ans. (d) : Guinea pig is a rodent that belong to the Ans. (c) :
family Caviidae and unlike their name are not native to
guinea. It not only serve as an important food source but
also plays an important role serving as model organism
in biological experiment.
(BBSS) (bbss)
Black short White long
Interbreeding of blue fowls–
Phenotype ––– 1:2:1

Genotype ––– 1:2:1
154. A true breeding plant producing red flowers is
crossed with a pure plant producing white Black feathered ; Bluefeathered : White feathered
flowers. Allele for red colour of flower is hen hen hen
dominant. After selfing the plants of first filial
generation, the proportion of plants producing 1 : 2 : 1
white flowers in the progeny would be
10 : 20 ; 10
1 1
(a) (b) Black feathered hen = 10
4 3
White feathered hen = 10
1 3
(c) (d) Blue feathered hen = 20
2 4 157. Which characteristic feature of Dog flower
Karnataka CET-2009
plant shows incomplete dominance?
Ans. (a) : Genotype of true breeding plant producing (a) Colour of the flower
red flowers RR.
(b) Seed colour
Genotype of pure plant producing white flowers = rr
(c) Height of the plant
P generation.
(d) Seed shape
GUJCET-2021
Ans. (a) : Dog flower or Antirrhinum majus flower
shows incomplete dominance in flower colour. In which
a red colour allele is incompletely dominant over white
colour allele. It is a good example of incomplete
dominance.
158. Test cross is the cross between phenotypically 162. Leaf colour in Mirabilis jalapa is an example
dominant F1 hybrid with of:
(a) recessive parent (a) non-Mendelian inheritance
(b) dominant parent (b) Mendelian inheritance
(c) homozygous parent (c) chemical inheritance
(d) heterozygous parent (d) both (b) and (c)
Assam CEE-2014 DUMET-2006
Ans. (a) : Test cross is the cross between Ans. (a) : Leaf colour in Mirabilis jalapa is an example
phenotypically dominant F1 - hybrid with recessive of Non-Mendelian inheritance. Leaf colour in Mirabilis
parent. jalapa shows incomplete dominance. A red coloured
Example : - Parent : TT x tt leaf of Mirabilis Jalapa (RR) is crossed with white
coloured leaf of Mirabilis jalapa (rr). The F1 individuals
are pink coloured leaf. (Rr) when F1 individuals are self
crossed in the F2-generation. 1 plant with red coloured
leaf (RR), 2 plants are with pink coloured leaf (Rr), 1
F2→ Tt × tt plant is with white colour leaf (rr) are formed.
The cross between hybrid tall with homozygous
recessive dwarf is called test cross. C. Inheritance of Two Gene.
159. AB blood group shows 163. Mutation is more common when it is present in
(a) codominance (a) recessive condition
(b) incomplete dominance (b) dominant condition
(c) polygenic inheritance (c) constant in population
(d) pleiotropy (d) None of the above
JIPMER-2018 Punjab MET-2009
Ans. (a) : Person having genotype IA IB would show the Ans. (b) : Mutation is more common when it is present
blood group as AB, this is because of Co-dominance. in the dominant condition, because dominant mutant
Co-dominance is the phenomenon where 2 alleles gene can express in both homozygous and heterozygous
express themselves independently when present conditions.
together. Due to this offspring resembles both parents. 164. A man with blood group B marries a women
Usually, this is observed in the ABO blood group. with blood group A and their first child is
160. One of the reasons why law of segregation of having blood group B. What is the genotype of
gametes is universally applicable, is child ?
(a) Gametes are haploid in higher organisms. (a) Ia Ib (b) Ia Io
(b) Gametes receive both the factors controlling a (c) Ib Io (d) Ib Ib
particular trait.' UP CPMT-2004
(c) Gametes are always hybrids Ans. (c) : Human blood group inheritance is the
(d) Gametes are diploid in higher organisms. example of co-dominance and multiple alleles. It is
MHT CET-2019 governed by three alleles namely IA, IB, and IO. IA and IB
show codominance while allele IO is recessive to both IA
Ans. (a) : Mendel’s law of segregation is universally and IB.
accepted because it has not a single exception . Law of This gives total six genotypes:
segregation states that during the development of
gametes, two alleles for every single trait separate and • For A blood group (IA IA and IAIO)
combine with other alleles during fertilization. • For B blood group (IB IB and IBIO)
161. In order to know the genotype of a dominant • For AB blood group (IA IB)
phenotype. It is crossed with a recessive parent. • For O blood group (IO IO)
The cross resulted in 50% of recessive Since, the mother has A blood group, the child cannot
phenotypes. The genotype of the dominant be homozygous for B blood group. The reason is that he
phenotype used in the test cross is will receive one IB allele from father with B blood
(a) Ww group but mother with A blood group can transmit only
IO allele for the child to have B blood group.
(b) WW
Since, the genotype of child will be 'IBIO'.
(c) ww
(d) incomplete dominant genotype 165. A dwarf pea plant in which bolting has
occurred is crossed with a tall pure pea plant.
TS EAMCET-03.05.2018 Shift-I What will be the phenotypic ratio in F1
Ans. (a) : When an organism shows dominant generation ?
character, it could be homozygous or heterozygous for (a) 100% tall plants
that trait when a dominant phenotype crossed with (b) 100% dwarf plants
recessive parent the cross resulted is 50% of recessive (c) 50% tall and 50% dwarf plants
phenotypes. The used dominant phenotype in the test (d) 75% tall and 25% dwarf plants
cross is Ww i.e heterozygous dominant. BHU PMT (Mains)-2009
Ans. (a) : Bolting is a process of treating genetically 168. A plant heterozygous for height and flower
dwarf plant with gibberellins to convert them into plants colour (TtRr) are selfed and 1600 of the
of normal height without changing its genotype. resulting seeds are planted. If the distance
Due to bolting the dwarf plants get converted to normal between the loci controlling height and flower
height. So it gets converted to tall plant. colour is I centimorgan, then how many
offspring are expected to be short with white
flower (ttrr)?
(a) 1 (b) 10
(c) 100 (d) 400
KVPY SB & SX-2019
Ans. (a) : Since the distance between two genes is 1
cM, the two genes are linked with each other, hence
there will be no independent assortment.
Relationship of such genes will be as follows:
166. When a tall and red flowered individual is Distance between gene = percentage of recombination
crossed with a dwarf and white flowered Since, the distance between T and R or t and r is 1 cm,
individual, phenotype of the progeny will be the percentage of recombination will be 1%. Thus, the
(a) homozygous tall and red recombination frequency of ttrr will be 1.
(b) heterozygous tall and red
169. Out of a population of 800 individuals in F2
(c) homozygous tall and white generation of cross between yellow round and
(d) homozygous dwarf and white green wrinkled pea plants, what would be
BHU PMT-2001 number of yellow and wrinkled seed?
Ans. (b) : When a tall and red flowered individuals is (a) 400 (b) 800
crossed with dwarf and white flowered individuals (c) 200 (d) 150
phenotype of the progeny will be hetrozygous tall and red. AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-II
Parents Ans. (d) :
TtRr × ttrr (Dwarf and white flower) Homozygous
(Tall red flowers) Homozygous yellow × Green Wrinkle
↓ round seed (YYRR) ↓ Seeds (yyrr)
gamete TtRr and tr F2 (Yy Rr)
↓ (Heterozygous Yellow Round)
F2 generation→ TtRr (Tall and Red progeny) When this plant is subjected to self pollination in the F2
So, progeny will be heterozygous tall and red because generation.
recessive phenotype appears only when both of its • 9 Plant are yellow round
parents having this allele.
• 3 Plant are yellow wrinkled
167. In a dihybrid cross between RRYY and rryy- • 3 Plant are green round
parents, the number of RrYy genotypes in F2
generation will be • 1 Plant is green wrinkled
(a) 4 (b) 3 Phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1.
(c) 2 (d) 1 So, in the dihybrid cross, 800 individuals are formed in
this 450 are yellow round, 150 are yellow wrinkled, 150
J&K CET-2008
are green round, 50 are green wrinkled.
Ans. (a) : According to question, the cross made
between RRYY and rryy 170. Which one of the following genotype will show
darkest kernel in wheat ?
×
(a) AAbb (b) AABb
↓ (c) AABB (d) AaBb
Gametes MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
↓ Ans. (c) : The kernel colour in wheat is determined by
F1 generation- RrYy two pair of genes 'Aa' and 'Bb'. Gene A and B are
F2 generation- self cross is done between RrYy. The dominance gene which determine the red colour
gametes formed are RY, Ry, rY, ry. whereas, 'a' and 'b' are recessive alleles determine white
colour.
Thus, dominant AABB genotype show darkest kernel in
wheat because recessive white colour suppress by red
colour and kernel show darkest.
171. A cross between pure tall pea plant with green
pods and dwarf pea with yellow pods will
produce tall F2 plants, out of 16
(a) 15 (b) 13
(c) 12 (d) 7
The number of RrYy heterozygous hybrid obtained are 4. Rajasthan PMT-2011
Ans. (c) : According to question, Ans. (d) : Linkage is the phenomenon of certain gene
• A cross between pure tall pea plant with green pods staying together during inheritance through generation
and dwarf pea plant with yellow pods will produce tall without any change or separation due to their being
F2 plant out of 16. present on the same chromosome. Linked gene occurs
in the same chromosome. Strength of linkage between
TT yy tt yy two gene is inversely proportional to the distance
(Tall plant with green pod) × (dwarf yellow pod) between two genes.
↓ 175. The total number of progeny obtained from a
Tt Yy dihybrid cross is 1280 in F2 generation. How
Gametes: Ty Ty tY ty ↓ Selfing many of them are recombinant type?
(a) 240 (b) 360
TY Ty tY ty (c) 480 (d) 720
TY TTYY TTYy TtYY TtYy AP EAMCET-2006
Ty TTYy TTyy TtYy Ttyy Ans. (c) : Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid cross = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
tY TtYY TtYy ttYY ttYy 6
= × 1280 = 480
ty TtyY Ttyy ttyY ttyy 16
Out of 16, 12 plants will be tall. 176. Match the genetic phenomena with their
respective ratios.
172. A pure breeding pea plant with round yellow Column I Column II
seeds was crossed with pea plant having
wrinkled green seeds. On selfing of F1 hybrid of A. Inhibitory gene ratio 1. 9:3:4
his cross, 64 progenies were obtained in F2 B. Complementary gene 2. 1:1:1:1
generation. Find out the number of F2 ratio
progenies showing non-parental characters. C. Recessive epistasis ratio 3. 12:3:1
(a) 36 (b) 4 D. Dihybrid test cross ratio 4. 13:3
(c) 12 (d) 24 E. Dominant epistasis ratio 5. 9:7
Karnataka CET-2020 A B C D E
Ans. (d) : The F2 phenotopic ratio in a dihybrid cross is (a) 5 4 3 2 1
9:3:3:1. Second and third term i.e. 3 and 3 represent (b) 4 5 1 2 3
recombinant genotype. So, 24 of F2 progenies out of 64 (c) 1 2 4 3 5
progenies showing non-parental character. (d) 2 1 4 5 3
6 AP EAMCET-2011
= × 64 Ans. (b):
16
Column I Column II
= 24.
173. The total number of progeny obtained through A. Inhibitory gene ratio 4. 13:3
dihybrid cross of Mendel is 1280 in F2 B. Complementary 5. 9:7
generation. How many are recombinants? C. Recessive epistasis ratio 1. 9:3:4
(a) 240 (b) 360 D. Dihybrid test cross ratio 2. 1:1:1:1
(c) 480 (d) 720 E. Dominant epistasis ratio 3. 12:3:1
AP EAMCET-2005 177. Polygenic concept of inheritance was first
Ans. (c): Phenotypic ratio of mendel's dihybrid cross is experimentally show by
9 : 3: 3 : 1. (a) Malthus (1828) (b) Gabon (1883)
In Mendel's dihybrid cross out of 16 progenies 6 are (c) Nilsson Ehle (d) None of the above
recombinant are out of 16 progenies = 6 are AMU-2003
recombinant. out of 1280 progenies. Ans. (c) : Inheritance is controlled by two or more genes
1280 × 6 in which the dominant alleles have cumulative effect, with
= = 480 Progenies each dominant allele expressing a part of functional
16 polypeptide and full trait is shown when all the dominant
174. Select the correct statement from the one's alleles are present, and are known as polygenic gene.
given below with respect to dihybrid cross. 178. Walter Sutton is famous for his contribution to
(a) tightly linked gene on the same chromosome (a) Genetic engineering
show higher recombinations (b) Totipotency
(b) genes for apart on same chromosomes show (c) Quantitative genetics
very few recombination (d) Chromosomal theory of inheritance
(c) genes loosely linked on the same UP CPMT-2013
chromosomes show similar recombination as Ans. (d) : Walter Sutton provided the first conclusive
lightly linked ones evidence that chromosomes carry the units of
(d) tightly linked genes on the same inheritance and occur in distinct pairs Walter Sutton is
chromosomes show very few recombination famous for his contribution to the chromosomal theory
JIPMER-2014 of inheritance.
179. In which one of the following, complementary 181. How many different kinds of gametes will be
gene interaction ratio of 9 : 7 is observed? produced by a plant having the genotype
(a) Fruit shape in Shepherd's purse AABbCC ?
(b) Coat colour in mouse (a) Three (b) Four
(c) Feather colour in fowl (c) Nine (d) Two
(d) Flower colour in pea AIPMT-2006
(e) Four 'O' clock plant Ans. (d) : The plant having genotype AABbCC is
Kerala PMT-2009 heterozygous for only one character Bb.
• The 2n formula is used to determine the phenotype
Ans. (d) : In the case of a complementary gene when
present in the cross where as the 3n formula is used
two dominant genes come together to interact then
to calculate the genotypes present in the cross.
Mendelian ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 is changed to 9 : 7 due to
• Where 'n' is the heterozygosity present in the
the complementation of both genes. The complimentary
genotype.
gene interaction can be found in flower colour in sweat
Since, n = 1
pea with the ratio of 9 : 7.
n = 21
180. What is the expected percentage of F2 progeny
with yellow and inflated pod in dihybrid cross n=2
experiment involving pea plants with green ∴ So 2 gametes will be formed.
coloured, inflated pod and yellow coloured • Those are ABC and AbC.
constricted pod? So the two types of gametes will be ABC and AbC.
(a) 100% (b) 56.25% 182. If a plant having yellow or round seeds was
(c) 18.75% (d) 9% crossed with another plant having green and
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 wrinkled seeds then F1 progeny are in the ratio.
Ans. (c) : (a) 15 : 1
(b) 1 : 15
(c) 1 : 13
(d) all yellow and round seeds
JIPMER-2005
Ans. (d) :
Here, F1 progeny are all yellow and round seeds.

183. Given below is a pedigree chart of a family
with five children. It shows the inheritance of
attached ear-lobes as opposed to the free ones.
Hence, the phenotypic ratio of F2 generation will be : The squares represent the male individuals and
• Green, Inflated = 9 circles the female individuals.
Which one of the following conclusions drawn
100
× 9 = 56.25 is correct?
16 (a) The parents are homozygous recessive
• Green, Constricted = 3 (b) The trait is Y-linked
100 (c) The parents are homozygous dominant
× 3 = 18.75 (d) The parents are heterozygous
16
• Yellow, Inflated = 3
100
× 3 = 18.75
16
• Yellow, Constricted = 1
100
×1 = 6.25
16 AIIMS-2004
Ans. (d) : Heterozygous means that a person has two gamete receives for one gene does not influence the
different versions of the gene, the parents are allele received for another gene.
heterozygous Mendel law of independent assortment can be proved
by dihybrid cross. When a cross involves two pairs of
contrasting characters (such as height of the plant and
colour of the flowers) simultaneously is called dihybrid
cross.
187. A dihybrid ratio of 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1 is obtained
instead of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. This is an example of:
(a) supplementary genes
(b) complementary genes
C1. Law of Independent Assortment (c) polygenic inheritance
(d) pleiotropic genes
184. Some individuals with blood group A may
Haryana PMT-2002
inherit the genes for blond hair, while other
individuals with blood group A may inherit the Ans. (c) : A dihybrid ratio of 1:4:6:4:1 is obtained
gene for brown hair. This can be best explained instead of 9:3:3:1, this is an example of polygenic
by the principle of inheritance. The effect adds up with increase in the
(a) dominance number of genes and thus it is said to be cumulative
(b) multiple alleles such gene are described as multiple factors and the traits
(c) indepemdent assortment influenced by them as polygenic.
(d) incomplete dominance 188. How many different types of gametes can be
AFMC -2009 formed by F1 progeny resulting from the
Ans. (c) : Individual with blood group A may inherit following cross ? AABBCC×aa bb cc?
the gene for blond hair, while other individuals with (a) 3 (b) 8
blood group A may inherit the gene for brown hair. This (c) 27 (d) 64
can be best explained by the principle of independent Haryana PMT-2004
assortment. According to Mendel's law of independent Ans. (b) : The F1 progeny formed by the cross between
assortment, when two pairs of independent alleles are
AA BB CC × aa bb cc
brought together in the hybrid F1, they show
independent dominant effects. In the formation of ↓
gametes, the law of segregation operates, but the factors Aa Bb Cc
assort themselves independently at random and freely. AaBbCc gametes:
185. Change in the number of body parts is called
(a) continuous variation
(b) discontinuous variation
(c) meristic variation
(d) substantive variation
Ans. (c) : Change in the number of body part is called
meristic variation. Meristic variation refers to variation
in the number of discrete, countable, and distinct part or
features in a organisms body. These parts can be things
like the number of vertebrae in a snake, the number
∵ F1 progeny of the cross is Aa Bb Cc
petals in a flower or the number of segments in insects.
These variations are typically discrete and can be ∴ n=3
counted as whole numbers. And the number of different types of gametes
186. Mendels law of independent assortment can be formed in an individual = 2n
proved by : Where n→ denotes number of heterozygous gene pair
(a) back cross (b) test cross ∴ 2n = 23 = 8.
(c) monohybrid cross (d) dihybrid cross 189. Mendel studies inheritance of seven pairs of
CMC Vellore-2014 traits in pea which can have 21 possible
Rajasthan PMT-1998 combinations. If you are told that in one of
Ans. (d) : Mendel’s law of independent assortment these combinations, independent assortment is
states that the alleles of different genes are inherited not observed in later studies, your reaction will
independently of each other. This means, the allele a be
(a) independent assortment principle may be Ans. (a) : A mule is a hybrid between a female horse
wrong (2n = 66) and a male donkey (jackass, 2n = 66). Since
(b) Mendel might not have studied all the the horse has 66 chromosomes and the jackass has 66
combinations chromosomes, the mule would inherit a total of 66
(c) it is impossible chromosomes (diploid number) in its body cells,
(d) later studies may be wrong resulting from the combination of both parents'
AIPMT-1993 chromosomes.
Ans. (b): Mendel might not have studied all the 194. The chromosome theory of heredity was
combinations.The principle of independent assortment proposed by
describes how different genes independently separate (a) Hardy and Weinberg
from one another when reproductive cells develop. (b) Sutton and Boveri
(c) Morgan and Muller
D. Chromosomal Theory of
(d) Watson and Crick
Inheritance Rajasthan PMT-1995
190. Experimental verification of chromosomal NEET Re Exam-04.09.2022
theory of inheritance was done by Tripura JEE-2019
(a) Sutton – Boveri Ans. (b) : The chromosome theory of heredity,
(b) Gregor Mendel proposed by Sutton and Bovery, states that genes are
(c) Thomas Hunt Morgan located on chromosomes and are passed from parents to
(d) Correns offspring through the transmission of these
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I chromosomes during reproduction. This theory helped
establish the connection between Mendelian genetics
Ans. (c) : Experimental verification of chromosomal
and the behavior of chromosomes, providing a
theory of inheritance was done by Thomas Hunt
foundation for our understanding of inheritance
Morgan who studied on fruit flies (Drosophila
melanogaster). 195. X-chromosomes of female in a sex- linked
191. This is the cross between F1 generation and inheritance case can be passed on to
either of their parents (a) Only female progeny
(a) Dihybrid cross (b) Test cross (b) Only male progeny
(c) Back cross (d) Monohybrid cross (c) Only in grand daughter
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I (d) Male and female progeny
Ans. (c) : Back cross is a cross between the F1 CMC Ludhiana-2008
generation heterozygous hybrid to one of the parents . Ans. (d) : The X-chromosome of a female in a sex-
It is done in order to get offspring which are genetically linked inheritance case can be passed on to both male
identical or closer to the parent. and female progeny. This is because females have two
192. Which one of the following animals possesses X-chromosomes (XX), and they can pass on either of
giant chromosome? their X-chromosomes to their offspring, regardless of
(a) Drosophila (b) Mouse whether they are male or female.
(c) Pigeon (d) Elephant 196. Match the following :
WB JEE-2012 List-I List-II
Ans. (a) : Giant chromosome or polytene chromosome (A) Hyperkeratosis (i) Sex-influenced
found in Drosophila in which the DNA in drosophila inheritance
chromosome has been replicated through 10 cycle (B) Hypertrichosis (ii) Sex-limited
without separation of daughter chromosomes. Polytene inheritance
chromosome were discovered by Balbiani in 1881 in (C) Beard in man (iii) Y-linked
larval salivary glands of Chironomus. inheritance
193. A female horse (2n = 66) can be crossed with a (D) Baldness in humans (iv) X-linked dominant
jackass (2n = 66), resulting in tire birth of a inheritance
hybrid known as a mule, usually sterile because The correct answer is
of chromosomal incompatibility. How many A B C D
chromosomes would one expect to find in the (a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
body cells of a mule? (b) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(a) 66 (b) 33 (c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(c) 132 (d) a variable number (d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
JIPMER-1998 TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II
Ans (d) : The correct match is: 199. Balbiani rings are the structural features of
List-I List-II (a) allosomes
a. Hyperkeratosis iv X-linked dominant (b) polyetene chromosomes
inheritance (c) autosomes
b. Hypertrichosis iii Y-linked (d) lampbrush chromosomes
inheritance JIPMER-2010
c. Beard in man ii Sex limited Ans. (b) : Balbiani rings are structural features found in
inheritance polytene chromosomes. They are dense regions of
active gene transcription, visible as dark bands under a
d. Baldness in humans i Sex influenced microscope, and play a role in producing large
inheritance quantities of specific proteins in certain tissues of an
197. The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was organism.
found to be very suitable for experimental
verification of chromosomal theory of
inheritance by Morgan and his colleagues
because
(a) It completes life cycle in about two weeks
(b) It reproduces parthenogenetically
(c) A single mating produces two young flies
200. Taylor conducted the experiments to prove
(d) Smaller female is easily recognisable from
semi conservative mode of chromosome
larger male replication on
AIPMT (Mains)-2010 (a) Vinca rosea
Ans. (a) : The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was (b) Vicia faba
found to be very suitable for experimental verification (c) Drosophila melanogaster
of the chromosomal theory of inheritance by Morgan (d) E. Coli
and his colleagues because it completes their life cycle
NEET-2016 Phase-II
in about two weeks. The short generation time of
Drosophila, with a rapid life cycle of about two weeks Ans. (b) :In 1958 J. H. Taylor used radioactive thymine
allows for the quick observation of multiple generations to detect semi-conservative mode of replication in DNA
and the study of inheritance. and chromosomes in Vicia faba.
The root tips were grown in the normal medium. In the
198. Match the following column I with column II. first generation, both chromatids were labeled. In the
Column I Column II second generation of cell division, one chromatid of
A. Linkage group 1. Total number of each chromosome was labeled and one was normal.
chromosome This demonstrated semi-conservative mode of
B. Coupling and 2. Morgan chromosome replication.
repulsion 201. Which of the following does NOT agree with
C. Chromosomal 3. Bateson and Punett chromosomal theory of inheritance ?
theory of (a) During gamete formation, homologous
inheritance chromosomes remain together.
(b) Nucleus contains are diploid
D. Gene map 4. Walter Sutton
(c) Somatic cells are diploid
(a) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
(d) Gametes carry hereditary characters
(b) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
MHT CET-2019
(c) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
Ans. (a) : The statement "During gamete formation,
(d) A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2 homologous chromosomes remain together" does not
VMMC-2015 agree with the chromosomal theory of inheritance
Ans. (d) : because, during meiosis (the process of gamete
A. Linkage group 1. Total number of formation), homologous chromosomes actually separate
chromosome or segregate from each other. This separation is a key
aspect of the theory, allowing for genetic diversity in
B. Coupling and 3. Bateson and offspring.
repulsion Punnet
202. What will be the gametic chromosome number
C. Chromosomal 4. Walter Sutton of a cell, if somatic cell have 40 chromosomes ?
theory of (a) 10 (b) 20
inheritance (c) 30 (d) 40
D. Gene map 2. Morgan DUMET-2005
Ans. (b) : The gametic chromosome number is 207. The chromosome number of the potato gametes
typically half of the somatic chromosome number. So, if is equal to double the number of the meiocytes
a somatic cell has 40 chromosomes, the gametic of housefly and thrice the number of meiocytes
chromosome number would be 20. of fruit fly.
203. Which of the following statement is incorrect What is the haploid ratio of chromosome
regarding the band region of polytene number of fruit fly, house fly and potato?
chromosome? (a) 24 : 4 : 6 (b) 6 : 4 : 24
(a) Feulgen negative area (c) 4 : 6 : 24 (d) 1 : 2 : 3
(b) Absorb ultraviolet light at 2600 Å TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-I
(c) Chromonemata is tightly packed Ans. (c) : Haploid ratio of chromosome number is:
(d) Stain intensity with basic stain Fruit fly - 4
AIIMS-2015 House fly - 6
Ans. (a) : Feulgen negative area means that a particular Potato - 24
region on the polytene chromosome does not stain with
208. Lampbrush chromosomes are present in
the Feulgen stain, which is used to detect DNA. This
(a) Drosophilla (b) Ascaris
staining pattern can provide information about the
presence or absence of DNA or variations in DNA (c) Hydra (d) None of these
content within the chromosome. MGIMS Wardha-2012
204. Which of the following is correct pair: Ans. (d) : Lampbrush chromosomes are not present in
Organism Number of any of the options provided (Drosophila, Ascaris or
chromosome Hydra). They are typically found in amphibian and
(a) Human – 2n = 42 avian oocytes.
(b) Fruit fly – 2n = 10
(c) Onion – 2n = 28
(d) House fly – 2n = 12
Ans (d) : The numbers of of chromosomes in an
organism is known as its karyotype. The karyotype of
a species is constant, but it can vary between species.
The correct pair of 2n (number of chromosomes) are:
Organism 2n
(no. of chromosomes)
Human 46
Fruit fly 8
Onion 16
Housefly 12 209. Genotypic and phenotypic ratio in monohybrid
205. The chromosome number in meiocyte is 34. cross remains same in case of
The organism could be (a) Sex linked genes
(a) Dog (b) Apple (b) Pseudoallelic genes
(c) Ophioglossum (d) Onion (c) Intermediate inheritance
Karnataka CET-2015 (d) Dominant and recessive genes
Ans. (b) : The organism with a chromosome number of J&K CET-2011
34 in its meiocytes is an apple. This number represents Ans. (c) : Genotypic and phenotypic ratio of mono
the typical chromosome count in apple cells. hybrid cross remains same in case of intermediate
206. Chromosome consists of : inheritance.
(a) DNA and ATP (b) DNA and histone The genotypic and phenotypic ratios are different from
(c) RNA and histone (d) DNA and RNA typical Mendelian genetics. Instead of the usual 1:2:1
Rajasthan PMT-2001 genotypic and 3:1 phenotypic ratios, you get a 1:2:1
Ans. (b) : Chromosomes consist of DNA and histone phenotypic ratio. This means that heterozygous
proteins. The DNA contains genetic information, while individuals display an intermediate or blended
histones help package and organize the DNA into a phenotype, which is different from the complete
compact and functional structure within the cell. dominance seen in dominant and recessive gene pairs.

215. Percentage of recombination between A and B
E. Linkage and Recombination is 9%, A and C is 17%, B and C is 26%, then
the arrangement of genes is
210. ‘Gene-mapping’ technology was developed by (a) ACB (b) BAC
(a) Mendel (b) Tschermak (c) BCA (d) ABC
(c) Correns (d) Sturtvent VMMC-2013 / AIIMS-2009
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 Ans. (b) : One map unit or centimorgan (cM) is a unit
Ans. (d) : Gene mapping technology was developed by to measure the distance between genes on the
Alfred sturtevant. He works on genetic mapping, chromosomes. It is denoted by map unit. The
particularly in Drosophila (Fruit flies). recombination frequency between three genes are:
A – B = 9%
He created the first genetic map (linkage map) which
showed the relative positions of genes on a chromosome A – C = 17% and B – C = 26%
By manipulating, the three possibilities of their
211. Term linkage was coined by arrangements A-B-C, A-C-B and B-A-C, it was found
(a) Mendel (b) Sutton that the three genes must be arranged in order B-A-C
(c) Morgan (d) Boveri with the distance between B-A being 9cM and A-C
TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I being 17cM and the distance between B-C being 26cM.
Ans. (c) : Term linkage was coined by thomas Hunt 216. Crossing over in diploid organisms is
morgan (1911) He proposed the 'Chromosome' responsible for
experiment in Drosophila. (a) dominance of genes
212. The genotype that causes fair skin complexion (b) linkage between genes
in human is (c) recombination of linked genes
(a) AABBCC (b) AaBbCc (d) segregation of alleles
BVP-2012 / MGIMS Wardha-2007
(c) aabbcc (d) aaBBcc
Ans. (c) : Crossing over in diploid organism is
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II responsible for recombination of linked genes. Crossing
Ans. (c) : The genotype that causes fair skin over is a process of exchange of genetic material
complexion in human is aabbcc In human being , between non sister chromatids of two homologous
where genotype AABBCC represents dark skin colour chromosomes and leads to recombination of genes.
aabbcc represent light skin colour. 217. Who formulated the chromosomal theory of
213. The unit of recombination is: linkage
(a) Muton (b) Recon (a) T H Morgan and W Castle
(c) Cistron (d) None of these (b) Stern and Hotta
Rajasthan PMT-1996 (c) Pontecarvo
(d) Bridges and Burns
Ans. (b) : The unit of recombination is recon. It is
MGIMS Wardha-2014
elementary unit. It is the distance between two points on
a chromosome. Ans. (a) : T.H. Morgan and W. Castle formulated the
chromosomal theory of linkage. According to T.H.
• Muton: The smallest unit of genetic material that can Morgan, the degree of intensity with which two genes
mutate. are linked together is known as linkage value.
• Cistron: A unit of genetic material that codes for a 218. The exception of Mendel's law of segregation is:
single polypeptide. (a) linkage (b) dominance
214. When a cluster of genes show linkage behavior (c) allele (d) homozygous
they JIPMER-1998 / J&K CET-2006
(a) do not show a chromosome map Punjab MET-2006 / JCECE-2003
(b) show recombination during meiosis Rajasthan PMT-2002
(c) do not show independent assortment Ans. (a) : Mendel's law of segregation states that alleles
(d) induce cell division for a trait separate during gamete formation. The
BVP-2008 / Rajasthan PMT-2007 exception, linkage, occurs when two genes are located
Uttarakhand PMT-2007 / AIPMT-2003 close together on the same chromosome and tend to be
inherited together, violating the independent assortment
Ans. (c) : When a cluster of genes show linkage of alleles expected by Mendel's law.
behavior, they do not show independent assortments.
Linkage may be defined as the tendency of two or more 219. Genes when close together on a chromosomes
are known as
genes of the same chromosome to remain together
(a) linkage (b) mutation
during the process of inheritance.
(c) translation (d) transcription
In linkage, during meiosis, chromosomes move as a unit Kerala PMT -2015 / DUMET-2008
and all the genes of a chromosome go together and do Ans. (a) : Genes when close together on a
not assort independently as expected according to chromosomes are known as linkage. The phenomenon
Mendel law of independent assortment, only the genes of linkage has great significance as it reduce the
situated on different chromosomes pair assort possibility of variability in gametes unless crossing over
independently. separate the linked genes.
220. When a tall plant with rounded seeds (TTRR) 224. One of the following is an example of complete
is crossed with a dwarf plant with wrinkled sex linkage .
seeds (ttrr), the F1 generation consists of tall (a) Total colour blindness
plants with rounded seeds. How many types of (b) Retinitis pigmentosa
gametes an F1 plant would produce? (c) Myopia
(a) One (b) Three (d) Nephritis
(c) Four (d) Eight MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
MGIMS Wardha-2004 Ans. (c) : Myopia is an example of complete sex
Ans. (c) : linkage. Complete linkage is exhibited when the genes
for a particular character are present very close to one
another. It is due to non-break in gene recombination
situated on a chromosome.
225. Recombination is involved in the process of
(a) cytokinesis
(b) spindle formation
(c) crossing over
(d) chromosome duplication
DUMET-2009
Ans. (c) : Recombination is involved in the process of
Since 4 types of gametes on F1 plant would produce. crossing over. Crossing over is a process of mutual
221. Who is considered as father of experimental exchange of blocks of homologous genes between a pair
genetics? of homologous chromosomes.
(a) T.H. Morgan (b) Strassburger 226. In sex-linkage the specialty is:
(c) Mullar (d) CB Bridge (a) atavism (b) reversion
VMMC-2014 (c) gene flow (d) criss cross inheritance
Ans. (a) : T.H. Morgan is considered the "Father of Haryana PMT-2003
experimental genetics" because of his groundbreaking Ans. (d) : Criss-cross inheritance is a pattern of
work with fruit flies, where he provided strong evidence inheritance where traits controlled by genes located on
for the chromosome theory of inheritance. His research the sex chromosomes (X and Y) are passed from one
demonstrated that genes are located on chromosomes generation to the next in a unique way. Specifically, in
and are responsible for inherited traits criss-cross inheritance, traits carried on the X
chromosome are passed from a mother to all her sons, and
222. Depending upon the distance between any two from a father to all his daughters. This pattern occurs
genes which is inversely proportional to the because sons inherit their X chromosome from their
strength of linkage, cross overs will vary from mother and their Y chromosome from their father, while
(a) 50 - 100 % (b) 0 - 50 % daughters inherit an X chromosome from each parent.
(c) 75 - 100 % (d) 100 - 150 % 227. In male human, how many linkage groups
AMU-2012 occur in their chromosome?
Ans. (b) : Crossover is a process that occurs during (a) 22 (b) 24
meiosis, when homologous chromosomes exchange (c) 23 (d) 46
genetic material. The frequency of crossover between CG PMT-2010
two genes is inversely proportional to the distance Ans. (b) : In human male, 24 linkage groups occur in
between them. It means when two genes are close their chromosome. All the genes present on a particular
together then the chance of recombination is very less. chromosome form a linkage group.
The percentage of crossover between two genes can In human, male = 22 pair autosome + 1 X chromosome
vary from 0% to 50%. It two genes are located on the + 1 Y-chromosome = 24 linkage group.
same chromosome, but they are far apart, then the The number of linkage group of a species correspond to
crossover frequency between them will be close to 50%. the total number of different chromosomes of that species.
This is because there is a lot of space between the
genes, so it is more likely that a crossover will occur 228. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A
between them. and B in fruitfly Drosophila is due to
(a) repulsion (b) recombination
223. Mutation is _________.
(c) linkage (d) crossing over
(a) irreversible, gradual change in pre-existing form CMC Ludhiana-2009 / AFMC-2008
(b) sudden change in genetic material JCECE-2009,2014 / AMU-2007 / CG PMT-2006
(c) non-inheritable gradual change Manipal-2007,2013,2014 / WB JEE-2006
(d) small and continuous variations Ans. (c) : Lack of independent assortment of two genes
MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I A and B in fruitfly Drosophila is due to linkage,
Ans. (b) : Mutation is a sudden change in genetic because only the gene located on different chromosome
material. It can introduce new traits or characteristics in pair assort independently however, in case of linkage,
an organism's DNA, potentially leading to evolutionary during meiosis chromosomes move as a unit and all the
changes. Mutations can be caused by various factors genes of a chromosome go together and do not assort
and are the source of genetic diversity in populations. independently.
229. Mendel observed that certain character did not 232. In Morgan's experiment with Drosophila, when
assort independently Later, scientist found that yellow bodied white eyed female was crossed
this is due to: with brown bodied red eyed male and their F1
(a) linkage in traits progeny were intercrossed. What was the
(b) crossing over percentage of recombinants in F2 generation?
(c) both (a) and (b) (a) 98.7% (b) 37.2%
(d) dominance of one trait over the other (c) 62.8% (d) 1.3%
Manipal-2006 Karnataka CET-2019
Ans. (a) : Mendel observed that certain character did Ans. (b) : The percentage of recombination in F2
not assort independently. Later, scientist found that this generation is 37.2%. In this experiment Morgan crossed
is due to linkage, because two or more genes of the a yellow bodied white eyed female (yw) with a brown
same chromosome remain together during the process bodied red eyed male (BR). The progeny were all
of inheritance. brown bodied red eyed (BR), since the alleles for brown
230. Two genes R and Y are located very close on body and red eyes are dominant over the alleles for
the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. yellow body and white eyes.
When RRYY and rryy genotypes are When the F1 progeny were intercrossed, the following
hybridized, the F2 segregation will show:- results were obtained:
(a) Higher number of the parental types Phenotype Genotype Number Percentage
(b) Higher number of the recombinant types Brown body, BR 96 37.2%
(c) Segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio red eyes
(d) Segregation in 3 : 1 ratio Yellow body, yw 96 37.2%
AIPMT-2007 white eyes
Ans. (a) : If the genes R and Y are located very close on Brown body, Bw 48 18.6%
the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant and the white eyes
chances of linkage will increase. Yellow body, yR 48 18.6%
• Linkage is the phenomenon in which genes are red eyes
situated on the same chromosome (linked genes) and The recombinants are the brown bodied white eyed and
have the tendency to inherit together during meiosis yellow bodied red eyed flies. These flies are the result
and hence they show parental combinations. crossing over between the B and R genes, which are
• Hence, when the distance between two genes located on the same chromosome.
decreases chances of linkage gets increased and when The percentage of recombinants is calculate as
the RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized then, F2 follows:
segregation will show high number of parental types. Number of recombinants 48 + 48
× 100% = × 100
231. Assertion (A) : The proportion of parental gene Total number of flies 96 + 96 + 48 + 48
combinations was much lighter than non-
96
parental type = × 100 = 37.2%
Reason (R) : Gene combination is due to 288
linkage of the two genes Therefore the percentage of recombinants in the F2
(a) A is correct but R is wrong generation is 37.2%
(b) A is wrong but R is correct 233. Irregularity is found in Drosophila, during the
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is not correct organ differentiation for example, in place of
explanation for A wing, long legs are formed. Which gene is
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct responsible for:
explanation for A (a) Double dominant gene
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-I (b) Homeotic gene
Ans. (d) : Both A and R are correct and R is the correct (c) Complimentary gene
explanation for A. (d) Plastid
In this case, Assertion (A) is correct because it states AIPMT-2000
that the proportion of parental gene combinations was Ans. (b) : Homeotic genes, also known as Hox genes,
much lighter than non-parental types, which is true in are responsible for regulating the development and
the context of gene linkage. Reason (R) is also correct differentiation of body segments and structures in
because gene combinations are indeed influenced by the organisms like Drosophila (fruit flies). These genes
linkage of two genes. In other words, genes that are ensure that specific body parts form in the correct
closely linked on the same chromosome are more likely locations during development. When there are
to be inherited together, leading to a higher proportion mutations or irregularities in these genes, it can lead to
of parental gene combinations. So, Reason (R) provides the formation of abnormal structures, such as long legs
a correct explanation for Assertion (A). instead of wings in Drosophila.
234. A and B genes are linked. What shall be (1) Start with the lowest recombination frequency,
genotype of progeny in a cross between AB/ab which is between a and c (5%). So, a and c close
and ab/ab : - together.
(a) AAbb and aabb (b) AaBb and aabb (2) Next, consider the pair with the next lowest
(c) AABB and aabb (d) None recombination frequency, which is b and d (9%).
AIPMT-2001 So, b and d are close together.
Ans. (b) : The tendency of parental combinations to (3) Now, compare the remaining pairs:
remain together, which is expressed in terms of low • a & b = 20%
frequency of recombination (new combinations) is • c & d = 24%
called linkage. Genes present on same chromosomes Since a & b have a higher recombination frequency then
show linkage. c and d, b should be closer to d than to c.
• These genes are called linked, they will be passed on Putting it all together, the gene sequence on the linear
together in the progeny, gametes. chromosome is : a, c, b, d.
Aa Bb and aa bb genotype is seen. 238. Linkage is contradictory to the Mendel's law of
(a) independent assortment
(b) segregation
(c) dominance
Tripura JEE-2017
Ans. (a) : Linkage is contradictory to the Mendel's law
of independent assortment.
235. Ratio of complementry genes is : -
(a) 9 : 3 : 4 (b) 12 : 3 : 1 239. Linked genes HBA1 and HBA2 are located on
which pair of chromosomes?
(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 4 (d) 9 : 7
(a) 11 (b) 14
AIPMT-2001 (c) 22 (d) 16
Ans. (d) : The ratio of complementary genes, often seen GUJCET-2021
in Mendelian genetics, is represented as 9:7. This ratio
Ans. (d) : Linked genes HBA1 and HBA2 are located on
indicates the expected phenotypic outcomes when two
16 pair of chromosome. These genes code for the alpha
genes interact, with 9 individuals showing one trait, and globin chains of hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood
7 individuals showing another trait. cells that is essential for oxygen transport in the body.
236. Genetic recombination is due to: 240. Maize has ten pairs of chromosomes. How
(a) Fertilization and meiosis many linkage groups will be present, if all the
(b) Mitosis and meiosis genes are mapped?
(c) Fertilization and mitosis (a) 20 (b) 5
(d) None of the above (c) 40 (d) 10
Rajasthan PMT-2005, 2006 AIIMS-1994
Ans. (a) : Fertilization and meiosis is due to genetic Ans. (d) : The number of linkage groups in an organism
recombination. Fertilization combines genetic material is typically equal to the number of chromosomes. In this
from two different individuals, and meiosis is the case, maize has ten pairs of chromosomes, which means
process that specifically generates genetic diversity by it has a total of 10 chromosomes. Therefore, 10 linkage
recombining chromosomes. groups will be present, if all the genes are mapped.
237. The recombination frequency between the 241. Crossing over that results in genetic recombination
genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a in higher organisms occurs between :-
& b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. (a) Non-sister chromatids of a bivalent
What will be the sequence of these genes on a (b) Two daughter nuclei
linear chromosome? (c) Two different bivalents
(a) a, c, b, d (b) a, d, b, c (d) Sister chromatids of a bivalents
(c) d, b, a, c (d) a, b, c, d AIPMT-2004
NEET-2022 Ans. (a) : Crossing over is the exchange of
Ans. (a) : The recombination frequencies provides as chromosomal segments between non-sister chromatids
follows: of homologous chromosomes during the production of
• a & c = 5% gametes.
• b & c = 15% • It occur during pachytene stage of prophase-I of
• b & d = 9% meiosis-I.
• a & b = 20% • In this process, some genes of two non-sister
chromatids of a bivalent are exchanged.
• c & d = 24%
• a & d = 29%
To determine the gene order on a linear chromosome,
we use these recombination frequencies to create a
genetic map:
242. The recessive genes located on X-chromosomes Duplication is also the rearrangement of gene on the
in humans are always- same chromosome.
(a) Sub-lethal (b) Expressed in males
(c) Expressed in females (d) Lethal
AIPMT-2004
Manipal -2007
Ans. (b) : Recessive genes located on X-chromosomes
in humans are always expressed in males because males
have only one X-chromosome, and there is no
corresponding second X-chromosome to mask the
expression of the recessive gene, as is the case in
females who have two X-chromosomes.
243. The frequency of recombination between gene
pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of
the distance between genes was explained by :
(a) Gregor J. Mendel (b) Alfred Sturtevant
(c) Sutton Boveri (d) T.H. Morgan
NEET-2019 246. A gene showing codominance has ;
Ans. (b) : Alfred Sturtevant used the recombination (a) Both alleles independently expressed in the
frequency between gene pairs as a measure of physical heterozygote.
distance between genes and mapped their position on (b) One allele dominant on the other
the chromosome. (c) Alleles tightly linked on the same
This process of mapping the gene position was termed chromosome
as gene mapping. It can be used to determine the exact (d) Alleles that are recessive to each other
location of a gene on the chromosome. AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
244. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in Ans. (a) : The phenomenon of expression of both the
the construction of genetic maps? alleles in a heterozygote is called co-dominance.
(a) A unit of distance between two expressed The alleles which do not show dominance –recessive
genes representing 100% cross over./100% relationship and are able to express themselves
(b) A unit of distance between genes on independently when present together are called co-
chromosomes, representing 1% cross over. dominance alleles.
(c) A unit of distance between genes on
chromosomes, representing 50% cross over.
(d) A unit of distance between two expressed
genes representing 10% cross over.
NEET-2019
Ans. (b) : In genetics, a centimorgan (abbreviated cM)
or map unit (m.u.) is a unit for measuring genetic
linkage.
1
∝
Linkage
distance between genes
• Map unit or centimorgan is the unit of distance
between genes on chromosome.
For example, 1 map unit = 1% cross over
Hence, the genetic distance between genes is based on 247. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
average of cross over frequency between them. matched?
245. The movement of a gene from one linkage (a) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
group to another is called: (b) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(a) Duplication (b) Translocation (c) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
(c) Crossing over (d) Inversion (d) XO type sex : Grasshopper
AIPMT-2015 determination
NEET-2018
Ans. (b) : The movement of a gene from one linkage
group to another is called translocation. Ans. (a) : Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
pleiotropic gene.
It is the separation of a chromosome segment and its
A pleiotropic gene is a single gene which produce
union to a non-homologous chromosome. multiple unrelated phenotypes. Starch synthesis in pea
Crossing over is the process that results in the exchange seed is controlled by one gene. In BB (dominant
of gene between two homologous chromosomes. homozygote's) large starch grains are produced while
Inversion is the process of rearrangement of gene on bb homozygote's have lesser efficiency in starch
the same chromosomes. synthesis and produced smaller starch grain.
248. Bateson used the terms coupling and repulsion 251. Genes on same chromosome can be
for linkage and crossing over. Name the correct (a) Linked (b) Homologous
parental of coupling type alongwith its cross (c) Autosomes (d) Identical alleles
over or repulsion AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-I
(a) Coupling AABB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, aabb Ans. (a) : Genes on the same chromosome can be
(b) Coupling AAbb, aaBB; Repulsion AaBb, aabb linked. Linked genes are located on the same
(c) Coupling aaBB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, aabb chromosome tend to be inherited together, violating the
(d) Coupling AABB, aabb; Repulsion AAbb, aaBB principle of Independent Assortment proposed by
AIPMT-1990 Gregor Mendel.
Ans. (d): In genetics, coupling means that two different
traits are on the same chromosome, and they are
inherited together. Repulsion means that these traits are
on different chromosomes and are inherited
independently.
The correct parental arrangement for coupling is AABB
on one chromosome and aabb on the other
chromosome. For repulsion, it's AAbb on one 252. The distance between two genes in a
chromosome and aaBB on the other chromosome. chromosome is measured in cross-over units
which represent
249. Primary source of allelic variation is (a) ratio of crossing over between them
(a) independent assortment (b) percentage of crossing over between them
(b) recombination (c) number of crossing over between them
(c) mutation (d) none of these
(d) polyploidy AIIMS-2008
AIIMS-2005
Ans. (b) : The frequency of crossing over increases
Ans. (b) : The primary source of allelic variation is with the increase in the physical distance between the
recombination. Recombination during meiosis leads to two genes. Recombination can takes place between any
the shuffling and exchange of genetic material between two genes on a chromosome. The amount of crossing
homologous chromosomes, creating new combinations over is a function of how close the genes are to each
of alleles in offspring. other on the chromosome. If two genes are far apart, for
250. Given below is a pedigree chart showing the example at opposite ends of the chromosome, crossover
inheritance of a certain sex-linked trait in and non-crossover events will occurs in equal
humans. frequency. Genes that are closer together undergo fewer
crossing over events.
253. Which of the following is suitable for

experiment on linkage?
(a) aaBB×aaBB (b) AABB×aabb
(c) AaBb×AaBb (d) AAbb×AaBb
AIPMT-1993
The trait traced in the above pedigree chart is Ans. (b): Linkage can be shown by a cross between
(a) dominant X- linked (b) recessive X- linked homozygous dominant AABB and homozygous
(c) dominant Y- linked (d) recessive Y- linked recessive aabb (AABB × aabb).
AIIMS-2005 254. Crossing over is the exchange of genetic
Ans. (a) : A dominant X-linked trait is a genetic trait or material between
disorder caused by a dominant gene located on the X (a) Non-sister chromatids of the homologous
chromosome. This means that if a person inherits one chromosomes
copy of the dominant allele for the trait, they will (b) Sister chromatids of the homologous
express the trait or disorder, regardless of their other X chromosome
chromosome. In males (who have one X and one Y (c) Chromatids of non-homologous chromosome
chromosome), a single will result in the trait since they (d) The genes those are completely linked
only have one X chromosome. In females (who have J&K CET-2011
two X chromosomes), they need to inherit two copies of Ans. (a) : Crossing over is the exchange of genetic
the dominant allele to express the trait because they material between non-sister chromatids of homologous
have two X chromosomes. chromosomes during meiosis. This genetic
Examples of dominant X-linked traits include recombination results in offspring with unique
hemophilia and some forms of color blindness. combinations of traits.
255. When two genetic loci produce identical F. Sex Determination
phenotypes in cis and trans position they are
considered to be : 258. Consider the following statements with
(a) pseudoalleles reference to female reproduction system:
(b) multiple alleles Statement 1. The presence of absence of hymen
(c) the part of same gene is not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual
(d) different genes experience.
Punjab MET-2005 Statement 2. The sex of the foetus is
Ans. (a) : When two genetic loci produce identical determined by the father and not by the
phenotypes in both cis and trans positions, they are mother.
considered pseudoalleles. This means that even though (a) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
they are separate genetic loci, they function as if they wrong.
were alleles of the same gene because they produce the (b) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is wrong.
same observable traits. (c) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
correct.
256. Which one of the following information is
(d) Statement 1 is wrong and Statement 2 is correct.
essential to determine the genetic map distance
between two genes located on the same Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
chromosome? Ans. (c) : Hymen is the membranes that covered the
(a) Length of the particular chromosome opening of the vagina. The hymen persists even after
(b) Number of genes present in the particular coitus. the presence of indicator or virginity or sexual
chromosome experience. thus, statement 1 reference to female
reproductive system.
(c) Number of nucleotides in the particular
chromosome 259. Study the following and pick up the incorrect
(d) Percentage of crossing over or recombinant statements
frequency between the two genes I. Y-chromosome of drosophyila lack and pick
determining male factor
WB JEE-2015
II. Inactivation of one of the two X-
Ans. (d) : Percentage of crossing over or recombinant chromosome in females is known as lynisation
frequency between the two genes is essential to III. Haemophila-B is an autosomal genetic
determine the genetic map distance between two genes disorder
located on the same chromosome. This information IV. Turner's syndrome is an example for
helps estimate the relative distance between the genes trisomy
based on the frequency of genetic recombination events
(a) I, II (b) III, IV
during meiosis.
(c) I, III (d) II, IV
257. Match Column I with Column II and choose AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II
the correct answer.
Ans. (b) : Haemophila is genetic disorder caused by A
Column-I Column -II mufalion change in on of the gene that provide
i. T.H.Morgan (a) Mapped position instruction for making the clotting factor proteins need
of genes to form a blood clot.
ii. Alfred (b) X-body • Turner syndromes is trisomic is result on of the x
Sturtevant chromosome is missing discovered by turner. Short
iii. Henking (c) Nuclein hight failures of ovary.
vi. Meischer (d) Genetic code 260. In humans , sex is determined at the time of
(a) Gametogenesis
v. George Gamow (e) Linkage
(b) Fertilization
(a) i – b, ii – a, iii – c, iv – d, v – e (c) Cleavage
(b) i – e, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c, v – d (d) Implantation of embryo
(c) i – d, ii – e, iii – a, iv – b, v – c
Ans. (b) : Human sex is determined at the time of
(d) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – e, v – a
fertilization based on the combination of sex
(e) i – c, ii – d, iii – e, iv – a, v – b
chromosomes from the parents.
Kerala PMT-2013
Males have one X and one Y-chromosome (XY) while
Ans. (b) : female has two X chromosome (XX). The sex of the off
List - I List - II spring is determined by weather the sperm carrying an
i. T.H.Morgan e. Linkage X or a Y chromosome fertilizes the egg
ii. Alfred Sturtevant a. Mapped position of genes 261. The Drosophila with the karyotype AAA+XX is
iii. Henking b. X-body (a) Intersex (b) Female
iv. Meischer c. Nuclein (c) Metafemale (d) Metamale
v. George Gamow d. Genetic code AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-II
Ans. (a) : In Drosophilia, the karyotype AAA+XX Ans. (a) : The Y-chromosome is present in males. It
would result in an intersex individual. Drosophila determines the male sex and carries genes responsible
known as fruit flies, have a determination system based for male-specific traits and characteristics.
on the ratio of X-Chromosomes to autosome. 266. Which type of sex determination is found in
In this case, the presence of three X chromosomes grasshopper?
(XXX) and no Y chromosomes leads to intersex (a) XY type (b) WZ type
characteristic (c) XO type (d) All of these
262. Select the correct statement/s with respect to UP CPMT-2010
mechanism of sex determination in Ans. (c) : 'XX-XO' type sex determination is found in
Grasshopper. grasshopper in which the male have only one X-chromosome
(A) It is an example of female heterogamety. i.e. XO, while female has two X-chromosomes.
(B) Male produces two different types of 267. Autosomes in humans are
gametes either with or without X (a) 11 pairs (b) 22 pairs
chromosome. (c) 23 pairs (d) 43 pairs
(C) Total number of chromosomes (autosomes BVP-2012 / MGIMS Wardha-2007
and sex chromosomes) is same in both CG PMT-2007 / Manipal-2001
males and females. Ans. (b) : Autosomes in humans are the non-sex
(D) All eggs bear an additional X chromosome chromosomes, and there are 22 pairs of autosomes, for
besides the autosomes. a total of 44 autosomes in a human cell. This makes up
Choose the correct answer from the options the majority of our chromosomes, with the remaining
given below : pair being the sex chromosomes (X and Y in males, XX
(a) (A) only in females).
(b) (A) and (C) only 268. Sex chromosomes are also known as:
(c) (B) and (D) only (a) automomes (b) allosomes
(d) (A), (C) and (D) only (c) genome (d) karyotype
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) AMU-2005 / Manipal-2004
Ans. (c) : Grasshoper shows male heterogamety and Ans. (b) : Sex chromosomes are also known as
chromosomal constituent of male is AA + XO and allosomes. Unlike autosomes, which determine most of
female is AA + XX. an individual's traits, allosomes determine an
■ Males have lesser number of sex chromosomes as individual's sex. In humans, males typically have one X
compared to females. and one Y chromosome (XY), while females have two
X chromosomes (XX). These chromosomes play a
■ Male produces two types of gametes (A+X) and (A+O). crucial role in determining an individual's biological sex
263. Which of the following symbols are used for and the inheritance of sex-linked traits.
representing chromosome of birds? 269. Drosophila flies with XXY genotype are
(a) ZZ-ZW (b) XX-XY females, but human beings with such genotype
(c) XO-XX (d) ZZ-WW are abnormal males. It shows that
JCECE-2008 (a) Y-chromosome is essential for sex
Ans. (a) : Birds typically have a sex determination determination in Drosophila
system represented by ZZ-ZW, where males have two Z (b) Y-chromosome is female determination in
chromosomes (ZZ), and females have one Z and one W Drosophila
chromosome (ZW). This is different from mammals, (c) Y-chromosome is male determining in human
where the system is usually XX-XY, with males having beings
one X and one Y chromosome (XY), and females (d) Y-chromosome has no roleinsex determination
having two X chromosomes (XX). So, ZZ-ZW either in Drosophila or in human beings
represents the chromosome system in birds. AFMC-2007
264. A couple has 6 children, 5 are girls and 1 is Ans. (c) : In Drosophila, XXY represents a female but
boy. The percentage of having a girl on next in human it is an abnormal male. It shows that Y-
time is : chrosomome is crucial for male sex in human.
(a) 10% (b) 20% However, Y-chromosome is essential for female sex
determination in Drosophila.
(c) 50% (d) 100%
AFMC-2000 270. Number of Barr- bodies in XXXX female
(a) one (b) two
Ans. (c) : The probability of having a girl on the next
(c) three (d) four
time is 50%.
The sex of each child is an independent event, meaning
that the sex of one child does not affect the sex of the Ans. (c) : In a female with a XXXX chromosome
configuration, there are typically three Barr bodies. Barr
next child. bodies are inactivated X chromosomes. In females, one
265. Y- chromosome present in: of the X chromosomes in each cell is randomly
(a) Male (b) Female inactivated, forming a Barr body. Since there are four X
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above chromosomes in XXXX females, three of them will be
Rajasthan PMT-1996 inactivated, resulting in three Barr bodies.
271. Gene TDF occurs in 276. Hypertrichosis is an example of this inheritance:
(a) Y-chromosome (a) holandric (b) incomplete sex linked
(b) X-chromosome (c) sex influenced (d) sex limited
(c) Both X and Y-chromosomes AP EAMCET-2004
(d) autosomes Ans. (a) : Holandric inheritance is a type of inheritance
AMU-2011 where a trait or gene is located on the Y chromosome and
Ans. (a) : The gene TDF (Testis-Determining Factor) is typically passed from fathers to their sons.
occurs on the Y-chromosome in humans. It is Hypertrichosis, characterized by excessive hair growth, is
responsible for initiating the development of male one example of a trait that follows holandric inheritance.
characteristics in individuals who inherit it, typically 277. Male sex is determined in human zygote by:
leading to the development of testis and the male (a) nutrition of mother
reproductive system. (b) strength of father
272. Drosophila melanogaster has : (c) chromosome composition of egg
(a) 2 pair of autosomes and one pair of sex (d) chromosome composition of sperm
chromosomes Haryana PMT-2002
(b) 3 pair of autosomes and one pair of sex Ans. (d) : Male sex is determined in human zygotes by
chromosomes the chromosome composition of the sperm. Sperm can
(c) 1 pair of autosomes and 3 pair of sex carry either an X or a Y chromosome, and when a
chromosomes sperm with a Y chromosome fertilizes the egg, the
(d) 2 pair of autosomes and 2 pair of sex resulting zygote develops into a male, while an X-
chromosomes chromosome carrying sperm results in a female. This
CG PMT-2007 / VMMC-2006 determines the genetic sex of the offspring.
Ans. (b) : Drosophila melanogaster has 3 pairs of 278. Ishihara chart is used to detect :
autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes. This means (a) T.B. (b) eye sight
it has 6 autosomes in total (3 pairs) and 2 sex (c) colour blindness (d) diabetes
chromosomes (1 pair, X and Y), making it a total of 8 Haryana PMT-2005
chromosomes in its diploid cell. This genetic arrangement Ans. (c) : Ishihara test is colour vision test for detection
determines the traits and sex of the fruit fly. of red-green colour deficiencies.
273. According to genic balance theory of Bridges 279. Upon amniocentesis of a pregnant woman, it is
X/A = 1.5 will make the individual: found that the embryo contains both, Barr
(a) male (b) female body and F-body. The syndrome likely to be
(c) intersex (d) super female associated with the embryo is :
VMMC-2006 / BCECE-2001 (a) Edwards syndrome (b) Downs syndrome
Ans. (d) : According to the genic balance theory (c) Klinefelters syndrome (d) Pataus syndrome
proposed by Calvin Bridges, when the ratio of X Haryana PMT-2004
chromosomes to autosomal sets (X/A) is equal to 1.5 or Ans. (c) : Upon aminocentesis of a pregnant woman, it
more, it results in the individual being, super female. is found that the embryo contains both, Barr body and
274. In man, the normal number of chromosomes F-body. The syndrome likely to be associated with the
are embryo is Klinefelters syndrome. The male with
Klinefeters syndrome have one extra copy of the X-
(a) 42 (b) 44 chromosomes in the cell for a total of two chromosome
(c) 46 (d) 48 and one Y-chromosome (47, XXY) presence of Barr
CG PMT-2007 body indicate it is Klinefelters syndrome.
Ans. (c) : The normal number of chromosomes in 280. When an animal has both the characters of
humans is 46. This includes 22 pairs of autosomes and male and female, it is called
one pair of sex chromosomes (XX in females and XY in (a) intersex (b) super female
males). These chromosomes carry the genetic (c) super male (d) gynandromorphy
information that determines an individual's traits and AMU-2006
characteristics.
Ans. (d) : When an animal has both male and female
275. The twenty third pair of chromosomes in man characteristics, it is called gynandromorphy. This
is known as condition can result from genetic or developmental
(a) chromatid (b) heterosome abnormalities, leading to the presence of both male and
(c) autosome (d) gene female tissues or traits in the same individual.
CG PMT-2007 281. Which of the following is not a correct match ?
Ans. (b) : The twenty-third pair of chromosomes in (a) Sex determination–a chromosomal phenomenon
humans is known as heterosomes or sex (b) Y chromosome - autosomal
chromosomes. They determine an individual's (c) Red green colour blindness in human – a sex
biological sex, with males having one X and one Y linked character
chromosome (XY) and females having two X (d) An abnormal chromosome number in each
chromosomes (XX). These chromosomes carry genes cell – a case of polyploidy
related to sex determination and development. J&K CET-2006
Ans. (b) : The Y chromosome is not an autosomal 286. If a haemophilic man marries a normal lady,
chromosome. It is a sex chromosome and plays a crucial the offsprings will be
role in determining male characteristics. Autosomal (a) all haemophilic (b) all normal
chromosomes are non-sex chromosomes, while the Y (c) haemophilic daughters (d) haemophilic sons
chromosome is specifically involved in sex determination. CG PMT-2006
282. Result of reciprocal crosses are different in: Ans. (b) :
(a) monohybrid cross
(b) cytoplasmic inheritance
(c) nuclear inheritance
(d) dihybrid cross
JIPMER-1995
Ans. (b) : Result of reciprocal cross are different in
cytoplasmic inheritance. Character which are either
governed by non nuclear genes present in mitochondria,
chloroplast or endosymbionts. This phenomenon is All offspring will be normal.
called as cytoplasmic inheritance.
287. Chromosomal mechanism of sex determination
283. Based on the experiments conducted by in human beings is called _______.
Bridges on Drosophila, the female sex of the (a) heterogamesis (b) haemopoiesis
Drosophila is determined by the genes located
(c) transgenesis (d) parthenogenesis
on which chromosome?
(a) Autosomes (b) X and Y MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
(c) Y (d) X Ans. (a) : Chromosomal mechanism of sex
AP EAMCET-2001 determination in human being is called heterogamesis.
It is XY system, the females are homogametic with a
Ans. (d) : In Drosophila, the sex of an individual is pair of X chromosome (XX) and males are
determined by the number of X, chromosomes. Females heterogametic with one X and Y-chromosomes (XY).
have two X, chromosomes (XX), while males have one
X and one Y chromosome (XY). 288. Diploid cells have
(a) two chromosomes
284. A man and a woman, who do not show any
(b) one set of chromosomes
apparent signs of a certain inherited disease
have seven children (2 daughters and 5 sons). (c) two pairs of homologous chromosomes
Three of the sons suffer from the given disease (d) two sets of chromosomes
but none of the daughters are affected. Which DUMET-2009
of the following mode of inheritance do you Ans. (d) : Diploid cells have two sets of chromosomes,
suggest for this disease? with one set inherited from each parent. This is in
(a) Autosomal dominant contrast to haploid cells, which have only one set of
(b) Sex-linked dominant chromosomes.
(c) Sex-limited recessive 289. In human sex determination the key factor is
(d) Sex-linked recessive (a) X - chromosome (b) autosome
CG PMT-2006 (c) sex chromosome (d) Y-chromosome
Ans. (d) : The given scenario suggests that the inherited VMMC-2010
disease is likely following a "sex-linked recessive" mode Ans. (d) : In human sex determination, the key factor is
of inheritance because it affects more males than females, Y-chromosome. The presence or absence of the Y-
and daughters can carry the disease gene without showing chromosome determines whether an individual develops
symptoms due to their two X chromosomes, which can as male (Y-chromosome present) or female (Y-
mask the effect of the disease allele. chromosome absent).
285. A normal woman, whose father was 290. An example for sex influenced inheritance:
colourblind is married to a normal man. The (a) Haemophilia (b) Colourblindness
sons would be (c) Baldness (d) Down’s syndrome
(a) 75% colourblind (b) 50% colourblind AP EAMCET-2002
(c) all normal (d) All colourblind
Ans. (c) : A example of sex influenced inheritance is
CG PMT-2006 baldness. Sex influenced traits are controlled by genes
Ans. (b) : A normal woman, whose father was colour present on autosomes. It has different intensity of
blind is married to a normal man, the son would be 50% expression in two sexes.
colourblind. The genotype of normal man = XY. 291. In Drosophila the XXY condition leads to
femaleness where as in human beings the same
condition leads to Klinefelters’s syndrome in
male. It proves
(a) in human beings Y-chromosome is active in
sex determination
(b) Y-chromosome is active in sex determination
in both human beings and Drosophila
(c) in Drosophila Y-chromosome decides femaleness Ans. (d) : In humans, the inheritance of sex linkage
(d) Y-chromosome of man have genes for involves both the Y-chromosome which determines
syndrome male sex and the X-chromosome which can determine
BVP-2015 either male or female sex, depending on the
Ans. (a) : In Drosophila, the XXY condition leads to combination of sex chromosomes.
femaleness where as in human beings the same 297. Sex determination in humans takes place by :
condition leads to Klinefelters syndrome in male. It (a) sex chromosomes of father
proves that in human being Y-chromosome is active in (b) measurement of sperm
sex determination.
(c) measurement of ovum
292. When released from ovary, human egg contain: (d) sex chromosomes of mother
(a) one Y chromosome (b) two X chromosome MGIMS Wardha-2003
(c) one X chromosome (d) XY chromosome
Ans. (a) : Sex determination human take place by sex
AFMC-2006
chromosome (XY) of father.
Ans. (c) : A human egg, when released from the ovary,
• If father X-chromosome fused with mother ovum X-
contains one X chromosome. The determination of the
offspring's sex depends on the chromosome carried by chromosome → female child born.
the sperm during fertilization (either X for female or Y • If father Y-chromosome fused with mother ovum X-
for male). chromosome → male child born.
293. The chromosomal basis of sex determination 298. Human female possess 44 + XX chromosomes.
was discovered in the plant The secondary oocyte shall have.
(a) Rumex (b) Coccinia (a) 44 + XX (b) 22 + X
(c) Melandrium (d) Sphaerocarpus (c) 22 (d) 44
VMMC-2015 Manipal-2006
Ans. (c) : The chromosomal basis of sex determination Ans. (b) : Human female possess 44 + XX
was discovered in the plant Melandrium (now known as chromosomes. The secondary oocyte shall have 22 + X
Silene). chromosome. As this secondary oocyte is formed as a
294. A colourblind mother and normal father would result of meiosis, it is haploid and hence contains half
have the number of parent chromosomes.
(a) colour blind sons and normal/carrier daughters 299. Excessive growth of hair on the pinna is a
(b) colour blind sons and daughters feature found only in males because
(c) all colour blind (a) The gene responsible for the character is
(d) all normal recessive in females and dominant only in
BVP-2012 males
Ans. (a) : A colourblind mother and normal father (b) The character is induced in males as males
would have colourblind sons and normal / carrier produce testosterone
daughter. (c) The female sex hormone estrogen suppresses
the character in females
(d) The gene responsible for the character is
present on the Y chromosome only
Karnataka CET-2008
Ans. (d) : Excessive growth of hair on the pinna is a
feature found only in males because the gene
295. Barr body is associated with responsible for the character is present on the Y-
(a) sex chromosome of female chromosome only. This character is seen due to male
produces a sex hormone ‘testosterone’. It is responsible
(b) sex chromosome of male
for the development of secondary sexual characteristics
(c) autosome of female in males, including the growth of facial and body hair.
(d) autosome of male
300. Which one of the following conditions of the
VMMC-2007
zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal
Rajasthan PMT-2007 human female child
Ans. (a) : Barr body is associated with the sex (a) one X and one Y chromosome
chromosome of female. A Barr body is inactive X-
(b) two X chromosomes
chromosome species in which XY sex determination
occurs. In such case, female with 2X chromosome in (c) only one Y chromosome
which one X-chromosome is inactive. (d) only one X chromosome
296. In human the inheritance of sex linkage takes AIPMT (Mains)-2011
place through : Ans. (b) : A normal human female has two X
(a) autosomes (b) Y - chromosome chromosomes (XX), while males have one X and one Y
(c) X - chromosome (d) both 'b' and 'c' chromosome (XY). So, two X chromosomes would lead
MGIMS Wardha-2003 to the birth of a normal female child.
304. Pattern baldness moustaches and beard in
human males are examples of
(a) sex differentiating traits
(b) sex determining traits
(c) sex linked traits
(d) sex limited traits
AMU-2007
Ans. (d) : Pattern baldness of the scalp, moustaches,
301. Match the following in Drosophila with and beard growth in human males are examples of sex-
reference to sex determination. limited traits. These traits are expressed differently in
males and females but are not linked to the sex
List I List II
chromosomes (sex-linked traits). They are influenced
(Ratio of X (Sex) by sex hormones and are limited to specific sexes.
Chromosomes to
305. X-chromosomes of female in a sex-linked
Autosomes) X/A inheritance case can be passed on to
(A) 0.5 (i) Metafemale (a) only female progeny
(B) 1.0 (ii) Metamale (b) only male progeny
(C) 1.5 (iii) Male (c) only in grand daughter
(D) 0.33 (iv) Intersex (d) male and female progeny
(E) 0.67 (v) Female AMU-2007
The correct match is :
Ans. (d) : In a sex-linked inheritance case, X-
A B C D E chromosomes of a female can be passed on to both male
(a) 3 1 2 4 5 and female progeny. Male offspring will inherit the X
(b) 3 5 1 2 4 chromosome from their mother, while female offspring
(c) 1 4 2 5 3 will inherit an X chromosome from both parents (one
(d) 2 3 1 4 5 from the mother and one from the father).
AP EAMCET-2010 306. In humans dosage compensation
Ans. (b) : (a) Brings about equality in X–coded gene product
List I List II (b) Brings about equality in Y-coded gene products
Ratio of X-Chromosome (c) Brings about determination of sex
Autosome) X/A (d) Is not involved in any of above
A. 0.5 3. Male AMU-2015
B. 1.0 5. Female Ans. (a) : Dosage compensation in humans ensures that
there is an equal level of gene expression from the X
C. 1.5 1. Meta Female chromosomes in males (who have one X chromosome)
D. 0.33 2. Meta Male and females (who have two X chromosomes). This
E. 0.67 4. Intersex process balances the gene products encoded by X-
302. Drumstick Barr bodies are found in linked genes between the sexes.
(a) All RBCs of females 307. Mental retardation in man associated with sex
(b) All RBCs of males chromosomal abnormality is usually due to
(c) Some neutrophils of females (a) reduction in X complement
(d) Some neutrophils of males (b) increase in X complement
AP EAMCET-2010 (c) moderate increase in Y complement
(d) large increase in X complement
Ans. (c) : Drumstick Barr bodies are small nuclear
AMU-2002
projections found in some neutrophils (a type of white
blood cell) in females. They are not present in red blood Ans. (b) : Mental retardation in a man is associated
cells or all neutrophils, and their presence or absence with X-linked recessive inheritance. In the case of X-
linked disorders, males are most heavily affected
can be used in certain laboratory tests to determine the
compared to females. Females with one affected X-
sex of an individual. chromosome and one normal X-chromosome tend to
303. Human chromosome number was determined have milder symptoms.
correctly by 308. Sex chromosomes of male bird are ____.
(a) Landsteiner (b) Moorehead (a) XY (b) ZW
(c) Tjio and Levan (d) J.L. Hamerton (c) XX (d) ZZ
AMU-1997 MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (c) : The correct determination of the human Ans. (d) : In birds, the sex chromosomes of a male are
chromosome number, which is 46, was made by Tjio denoted as ZZ, and for females, it's ZW. This is the
and Levan in 1955. This number represents the typical opposite of the sex chromosome system found in
count of chromosomes in most human cells. mammals like humans.
309. ‘Sex-determination’, in humans is identified by Ans. (d) : Genes that are located on the Y chromosome
(a) Somatic cell → autosomes and are typically passed from fathers to sons are
(b) Germ cell → sex chromosomes referred to as holandric genes. These genes play a role
(c) Germ cell → autosomes in determining male-specific traits and characteristics.
(d) Somatic cell → sex chromosomes 314. Which of the following should be avoided in
GUJCET-2023 biological marriages ?
Ans. (b) : Sex determination in humans is determined (a) A+ boy and A+ girl (b) A+ boy and A– girl
by the sex chromosomes in germ cells. Males have a (c) O–boy and O+ girl (d) O– boy and O+ girl
one X and one Y chromosomes (XY), while female Uttarakhand PMT-2006
have two X- chromosomes (XX). The combination of
these chromosomes at fertilization determines the sex of Ans. (b) : A+ boy and A– girl should be avoided in
the offspring. biological marriages. This is because there is a risk of
310. A boy receives his X-chromosome from Rh incompatibility, which can lead to a condition called
(a) his mother only erythroblastosis fetalis (also known as hemolytic
(b) his father only disease of the newborn). This condition can cause
(c) Both father and mother severe anemia and jaundice in the baby, and can even
(d) Either mother or father be fatal.
Uttarakhand PMT-2011 315. Select the incorrect statement.
Ans. (a) : Sex determination in humans is primarily (a) In male grasshoppers 50% of sperms have no
determined by the combination of sex chromosomes sex-chromosome
found in the germ cells (sperm and egg). In a (b) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny
fertilization event, the combination of an X or Y depends on the type of sperm rather than egg
chromosome from the sperm (contributed by the male) (c) Human males have one of their
and an X chromosome from the egg (contributed by the sexchromosome much shorter than the other
female) determines the sex of the offspring. (d) Male fruit fly is heterogametic
311. XO type of sex determination can be found in: NEET-2019
(a) Monkeys (b) Drosophila
(c) Birds (d) Grasshoppers Ans. (b) In domesticated fowls (chickens), the sex of
the progeny is determined by the type of egg, not the
NEET-2022 / Kerala PMT-2011
sperm. This means that certain eggs carry the genetic
Ans. (d) : Grasshopper is an example of XO type of sex information for male chicks (ZZ) and others for female
determination.
chicks (ZW), making the egg's genetic contribution
XX × XO critical in determining the sex of the offspring.
↓ ↓
316. Which is correct about heterogametic sex
gamete XX XO
determination?
(a) Males produce dissimilar gametes in male
heterogamety
(b) Females produce dissimilar gametes in male
Male has one chromosomes while, Female has two heterogamety
chromosomes (c) Males produce dissimilar gametes in female
312. A man can inherit his X chromosome from heterogamety
(a) his maternal grandmother or maternal grand (d) Females produce similar gametes in female
father heterogamety
(b) his father AP EAPCET-11.07.2022 Shift-I
(c) his maternal grandfather only Ans. (a) : In species with male heterogamety like
(d) his paternal grand father humans (XY), males produce two different types of
(e) his paternal grand mother gametes, one carrying an X chromosome and the other
Kerala PMT-2008 carrying a Y chromosome. This determines the sex of
Ans. (a) : A man can inherit his X chromosome from the offspring, as females always contribute an X
either his maternal grandmother (via his mother) or his chromosome. In contrast, in female heterogamety (ZW),
maternal grandfather (via his mother's X chromosome). females produce two different types of gametes, while
This is because men receive one X chromosome from males produce similar gametes.
their mother and one Y chromosome from their father, 317. Sex is determined in human beings
determining their sex. (a) by ovum
313. Genes present on Y-chromosome are called (b) at time of fertilisation
(a) polygenic gene (b) basic gene (c) 40 days after fertilisation
(c) pleiotropic gene (d) holandric gene (d) seventh to eight week when genitals
AIIMS-1997 / Assam CEE-2014 differentiate in fetus
BVP-2001 AIPMT-1993
Ans. (b) : Sex is determined in human beings at the 323. Match the following
time of fertilization. The combination of sex List -I List-II
chromosomes from the sperm (X or Y) and the egg (A) XX-XO (i) Drosophila
(always X) determines whether the resulting zygote will Type
develop into a male (XY) or a female (XX). This (B) XX-XY (ii) Grasshopper
determination occur immediately when the sperm Type
fertilizes the egg.
(C) ZO-ZZ (iii) Birds
318. A family of five daughter only is expecting sixth Type
issue. The chance of its being a son is
(D) ZW- ZZ (iv) Fumea
(a) zero (b) 25% Type
(c) 50% (d) 100%
AIPMT-1988
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Ans. (c): Each child's gender is determined by a 50-50 (a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
chance because a child can be either a son or a daughter.
The gender of the previous five children does not affect (b) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
the gender of the sixth child, so it remains a 50% chance
for the sixth child to be a son.
(c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
319. Genetic identity of a human male is determined
by (d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(a) sex-chromosome (b) cell organelles TS EAMCET-03.05.2018 Shift-I
(c) autosome (d) nuclendus
Ans. (c) : The correct match is :
AIPMT-1997
List-I List-II
Ans. (a): The genetic identity of a human male is
primarily determined by sex-chromosomes. (A) XY-XO type (ii) Grasshopper
In humans, males typically have XY sex chromosomes, (B) XX-XY type (i) Drosophila
which determine their male genetic identity, whereas (C) ZO-ZZ type (iv) Fumea
females have XX sex chromosomes (D) ZW-ZZ type (ii) Birds
320. A fruit fly is heterozygous for sex linked genes, 324. The type of sex determination in honey bee is:
when mated with normal female fruit fly, the (a) Haplo-diploidy (b) Haploidy
males specific chromosome will enter egg cell in (c) Diploidy (d) ZZ-ZW
the proportion Karnataka CET-2017
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 7 : 1 Ans. (a) : Honey bees have haplo-diploid sex
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 determination. This means that fertilized eggs (diploid)
AIPMT-1997 develop into females, while unfertilized eggs (haploid)
Ans. (c) : When a heterozygous male fruit fly for sex- develop into males. It's a unique system where males
linked genes mates with a normal female fruit fly, the have half the number of chromosomes as females,
proportion of male-specific chromosomes (X or Y) that contributing to their distinct roles in the hive.
will enter the egg cells is 1:1. In this case, half of the
offspring's egg cells will receive an X chromosome, and
the other half will receive a Y chromosome, resulting in
an equal ratio of male and female offspring.
321. Chromosomal constitution of normal human
female can be written as
(a) 44 + XXY (b) 44 + XX
(c) 44 + XY (d) 44 + XO
MHT CET-2019
Ans. (b) : Chromosomal constitution of normal human
female can be written as 44 + XX, where 44 is
autosome and XX determines the female sex
chromosome
322. Peacock shows following genotype. 325. Karyotype of a Drosophila is AAA+XX, it is
(a) XX (b) XY (a) Female (b) Male
(c) ZZ (d) ZW (c) Intersex (d) Metafemale
MHT CET-2016 AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-I
AP EAPCET-07.09.2021 Shift-I Ans. (c) : A karyotype of AAA+XX in Drosophila
Ans. (c) : Peacocks have a ZZ chromosome system, signifies an intersex individual. This means that the
where males have two Z chromosomes (ZZ), while individual has characteristics of both male and female
females have a ZW chromosome system. sexes, rather than being strictly male or female.
326. Find out the mismatched pair. Ans. (b) : In pedigree analysis, double lines typically
(a) Lyonization - Liane Russell represent consanguineous marriages or unions between
and Mary Lyon close relatives, such as cousins or siblings. These
(b) Y - Chromosome - Stevens and Wilson relationships can lead to a higher likelihood of inherited
(c) X - body - Henking genetic disorders because they increase the chances of
(d) Shot gun sequencing - Jeffreys carrying the same recessive alleles. It doesn't indicate
AP EAMCET-2015 that the sex is unspecified rather, it signifies a specific
Ans. (d) : Shot gun sequencing is discovered by Rodger type of familial relationship in the pedigree chart.
Staden in 1977. Shotgun sequencing involves breaking
of DNA into its random fragment, sequencing the
fragments, and then assembling the fragment back into
the original DNA sequence.
327. Which one of the following statements is wrong 331. Chromosome other than sex chromosome is
with reference to Barr Bodies? known as
(a) The heterochromatinised X-chromosome is
called Barr Body (a) sex chromosome (b) autosome
(b) The inactivation of X-chromosome is called (c) autophage (d) chromomere
Lyonisation Rajasthan PMT-2001
(c) The extra X-chromosome undergoes Ans. (b) : A chromosome other than a sex chromosome
heterochromatinisation and becomes active is known as an autosome. Autosomes carry the
during early embryonic development majority of an organism's genetic information and are
(d) the heterochromatinized X-chromosome responsible for determining most of an individual's
remains attached to the nuclear membrane
traits and characteristics, excluding those related to sex
determination.
Ans. (c) : Barr Bodies are actually heterochromatinized
X-chromosomes that are inactivated and remain 332. Super male and super female type
condensed throughout the life of the individual. They do determination of sex in Drosophila is based on
not become active during early embryonic development. (a) genic balance (b) oxygen balance
328. Which of the following have heterogametic (c) biodiversity (d) uniformity
females? CG PMT-2004
(A) Grasshopper
Ans. (a) : Super male and super female type
(B) Bird
determination of sex in Drosophila is based on genic
(C) Drosophila
balance theory.
(D) Moth
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (B) and (D) 333. A hereditary disease which is never passed on
(c) (D) and (C) (d) (A) and (B) from father to son is
TS EAMCET-15.05.2016 (a) X-chromosomal linked disease
Ans. (b) : Heterogamete females refer to organisms (b) Autosomal linked disease
where females have different sex chromosomes. Hence, (c) Y-chromosomal linked disease
bird and moth have such a characteristic. (d) None of the above
329. Which of the following conditions correctly JIPMER-2011
describes the manner of determining the sex in
the given example? Ans. (a) : X-chromosomal linked diseases are not
(a) XO type of sex determines male sex in passed from father to son because sons inherit their Y
Grasshopper. chromosome from their fathers, while daughters inherit
(b) XO condition in humans as found in one X chromosome from each parent. In contrast,
Klinefelter's syndrome determines female sex. autosomal linked diseases can be passed from both
(c) Homozygous sex chromosome XX produce parents to their offspring, regardless of gender.
male in Drosophila.
334. A woman with two genes (one on each X-
(d) Homozygous sex chromosome ZZ determine
female sex in birds. chromosome) for haemophilia and one gene for
Karnataka CET-2015 colour blindness on the X-chromosome marries
Ans. (a) : In Grasshoppers, the presence of only one X a normal man. How will the progeny be?
chromosome (XO) typically results in a male individual, (a) All sons and daughters are haemophilic and
while females have a pair of X chromosomes (XX). colourblind
330. Double lines in pedigree analysis show (b) Haemophilic and colourblind daughters
(a) Sex unspecified (c) 50% haemophilic colourblind sons and 50%
(b) Consanguineous marriage haemophilic sons
(c) Unaffected offspring (d) 50% haemophilic daughters and 50%
(d) Normal mating colourblind daughters
Karnataka CET-2015 JIPMER-2011
Ans. (c) : 50 % colorblind sons and 50% hemophilic Ans. (d) :
sons. A Mating
B Consonguineous
mating
C Sex unspecified
D Parents with male child

affected with disease
E Affected female
In the above pedigree analysis the 50% daughter are
carrier for hemophilia and colorblindness while other
50% sons are colorblind and hemophilic. G. Theory of Mutation
335. Choose the wrong statement 337. Mutations in Oenothera lamarckiana plants
(a) In Grasshoppers, besides autosomes males was first identified by
have only one X-chromosome, whereas (a) Hugo de Vries (b) Morgan
females have a pair of X-chromosomes (c) Sutton (d) Boveri
(b) In XY type of sex determination, both males AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
and females have same number of Ans. (a) : The concept of mutation was given by Hugo
chromosomes de Vries who identified first mutations in Oenothera
(c) In Drosophila, males have one X and one Y lamarckiana plants
chromosome, whereas females have a pair of 338. From the following choose the correct
X-chromosome besides autosomes statement related to mutations
(d) In birds, females have one Z and one W (a) Changes in phenotype of organisms only
chromosomes, whereas males have a pair of Z (b) Changes in genotype of organisms only
chromosome besides autosomes (c) Changes in phenotype and genotype of organisms
(e) In insects with XO type of sex determination, (d) No change in chromosome number
all sperms bear X-chromosome besides AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I
autosomes Ans. (c) : Mutation refers to changes in the DNA
Kerala PMT-2014 sequence of an organism. This change can affect both
Ans. (e) : In insects with XO type of sex determination, the genotype (the genetic makeup) and the phenotype
(the observable traits or characteristic).
all sperms bear X-chromosomes besides autosomes. In
Mutation can be caused by such as environmental
XO sex determination, males have only one X factors like radiation or chemicals or they can occur
chromosome (XO), not two X-chromosomes, and their spontaneously during DNA replication
sperm typically carry either an X chromosome or no sex
chromosome (O). 339. Change in one base in mRNA leading to
termination of polypeptide is known as which
336. Match column I with column II and choose the type of mutations?
corrct option. (a) Sense (b) Non-sense
Column - I Column - II (c) Gibberish (d) Framshift
i. a. Consanguineous Uttarakhand PMT-2007
mating Ans. (b) : Change in one base in mRNA leading to
ii. b. Normal female termination of polypeptide is known as nonsense
mutation. It is a frame shift mutation. In mutation 3,
iii. c. Mating codon UAC is changed into termination codon UAA
which stops polypeptide synthesis, therefore, such type
iv. d. Affected female of mutation is called nonsense mutation.
340. What do you mean to the mutation in which
replacement of a nucleotide occur by another
v. e. Parents with male similar type?
child affected with (a) Inversion
disease (b) Transition substitution
f. Sex unspecified (c) Transversion substitution
(d) Insertion frame-shift
(a) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-e, v-d.
MGIMS Wardha-2014
(b) i-b, ii-a, iii-f, iv-c, v-d.
Ans. (b) : Transition substitution refers to a mutation
(c) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-e, v-b. where a nucleotide is replaced by another nucleotide of
(d) i-c, ii-a, iii-f, iv-e, v-d. the same category (either purine or pyrimidine). This
(e) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-f, v-a. means it involves a change from one similar type of
Kerala PMT-2013 base to another within DNA.
341. The major cause of evolution of genes and Ans. (d) : Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies
protein is than the diploids. This is because all mutations, whether
(a) point mutation dominant or recessive are expressed in haploids.
(b) chromosomal aberration Haploid, represent individuals with half the somatic
(c) sexual reproduction chromosome number found in normal individual.
(d) gene duplication and divergence 346. Mutation is more common when it is present
DUMET-2010 in:
Ans. (a) : Point mutations involve small changes in the (a) dominant condition
DNA sequence, such as the substitution of one base pair (b) recessive condition
for another. These mutations can lead to variations in
(c) constant in population
genes and proteins, contributing significantly to the
process of evolution by introducing new traits and (d) none of the above
diversity into populations over time. Rajasthan PMT-2009
342. The point mutations A to G, C to T, C to G and MGIMS Wardha-2005
T to A in DNA are: Ans. (a) : Mutation is more common when it is present
(a) transition, transition, transversion and in dominant condition because in this condition the gene
transversion respectively express itself and suppress the expression of another
(b) transition, transversion, transition and allelic gene.
transversion respectively 347. When purine substituted by pyrimidine, the
(c) transversion, transversion, transition and resulting mutation is
transversion respectively (a) Transition mutation
(d) all four are transition (b) Transversion mutation
JIPMER-1997 (c) Point mutation
Ans. (a) : A to G and T to A mutations are transitions (d) Suppressive mutation
because they involve changes within the same category of AMU-1998
nucleotides (purines). C to T and C to G mutations are
transversions because they involve changes between Ans. (b) : When purine substituted by pyrimidine the
different categories of nucleotides (pyrimidines to purines). resulting mutation is transversion mutation.
343. XO type of sex determination and XY type of A + G = Purine
sex determination are the examples of C + T = Pyrimidine
(a) Male Homogamety
(b) Male Heterogamety
(c) Female Homogamety
(d) Female Heterogamety
Karnataka CET-2022 348. Mutation theory to explain mechanism of
Ans. (b) : XO and XY sex determination systems are evolution was given by Hugo de Vries and he
examples of male heterogamety. In male heterogamety, experimented on:
males have two different sex chromosomes (XY), while (a) garden pea (b) fruit fly
females have a pair of identical sex chromosomes. (c) china rose (d) evening primrose
344. Forthcoming generations are less adapting VMMC-2006
than their parental generation due to Ans. (d) : Mutation theory to explain mechanism of
(a) natural selection (b) mutation evolution were given by Hugo de Vries and he
(c) genetic drift (d) adaptation experimented on evening primrose (Oenothera
BHU PMT (Screening)-2010 lamarckiana).
UP CPMT-2009 Hugo de Vries (1901, 1903) used the term mutation to
Ans. (b) : Mutations introduce genetic changes, which describe phenotypic changes which were heritable. In
can result in variations in the offspring, potentially addition to recombination mutation is another
making them less adapted or more adapted to their phenomenon that leads to variation in DNA.
environment compared to their parental generation. 349. When the discovery is made by accident and
345. Haploids are more suitable for mutation unexpectedly the phenomenon is called:
studies than the diploids. This is because (a) mutation (b) serendipity
(a) haploids are reproductively more stable than (c) recombination (d) linkage
diploids Haryana PMT-2002
(b) mutagenes penetrate in haploids more Ans. (b) : When the discovery is made by accident and
effectively than in diploids unexpectedly the phenomenon is called serendipity. It
(c) haploids are more abundant in nature than is an unplanned fortunate discovery. A few examples of
diploids serendipity discovery are the discovery of penicillin,
(d) all mutations, whether dominant or recessive heparin, dramamine, X-rays, the gram staining
are expressed in haploids technique, the pancreas role in diabetes and the
BHU PMT (Screening)-2010 anesthetic effects of ether and nitrous oxide.
350. The mutagenic agent among following is (d) Two in chromosome number 1, Three in
(a) ethyl methane (b) ethylene chromosome number 4, one in chromosome
(c) 2, 4-D (d) IAA number 5 and one in chromosome number 7
Haryana PMT-2009 BVP-2015
MGIMS Wardha-2009 Ans. (d) : The character chosen by Mendel were seed
Ans. (c) : 2, 4-D is a mutagenic agent. It showed colour, seed shape, stem height, flower colour, flower
mutagenic and cytotoxic effects on V79 cells in culture in position, pod colour and pod shape.
concentrations higher than 10 micrograms/ml. In shallot • All the gene controlling these seven pea characters are
root tips 2, 4-D causes changes in mitotic activity, as well located on four different chromosomes (2, 4, 5, 7).
as changes in chromosome and chromation structure and
also changes during the cell cycle. • The gene for seed colour and flower colour are
located on chromosome (2 in chromosome 1).
351. de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic
evolution, while working on • Genes for stem height, flower position and pod shape
(a) Althea rosea are located on chromosome 4 (3 in chromosome 4).
(b) Drosophila melanogaster • Genes for pod colour are situated on chromosome 5
(c) Oenothera lamarckiana (2 in chromosome 5).
(d) Pisum sativum • Genes for seed shape is located on chromosome 7 (1
JIPMER-2007 in chromosome 7).
CG PMT-2006 355. Allelic sequence variation where more than one
Ans. (c) : Hugo de Vries gave his mutation theory on variant allele at a locus in a human population
organic evolution while working on Oenothera with a frequency greater than 0.01 is referred
lamarckiana (evening primrose). to as
Hugo de Vries used the term mutation to describe (a) DNA polymorphism (b) multiple allelism
phenotypic changes which were heritable. In addition to (c) SNP (d) EST
recombination mutation is another phenomenon that JIPMER-2014
leads to variation in DNA.
Ans. (a) : Allelic sequence variation where more than
352. Normally DNA molecule has A-T, G-C pairing. one variant allele at a locus in a human population with
However, these bases can exist in alternative a frequency greater than 0.01 is referred to as DNA
valency status, owing to rearrangement called ? polymorphism.
(a) Point mutation
DNA polymorphism is the presence of two or more
(b) Analog substitution different alleles for a particular gene in a population.
(c) Frame shift mutation Alleles are different forms of the same gene DNA
(d) Tautomerisational mutation polymorphisms can be caused by mutations, which are
DUMET-2001 changes in the DNA sequence.
Ans. (d) : Normally DNA molecule has A-T, G-C 356. Which of the following is generally used for
pairing. However these base can exist in alternative
induced mutagenesis in crop plants?
valency status, owing to rearrangement is called
Tautomerisational mutation. (a) X-rays
• A tautomeric shift in one strand has produced a (b) UV (260 nm)
transition mutation in the complementary strand. (c) gamma rays (from cobalt 60)
• A tautomeric shift is not itself a mutation but transient (d) alpha particles
change to an alternative form of the molecule. SRM JEEE-2018 / JIPMER-2007
353. Mutation generally produces Ans. (c) : Gamma rays (from cobalt 60) is generally
(a) recessive genes (b) lethal genes used for induced mutagenesis in crop plants. Induced
(c) polygenes (d) dominant genes mutagenesis is one of the most efficient tools used for
Haryana PMT-2010 the identification of key regulatory genes and molecular
Ans. (a) : Mutations generally produce recessive genes. mechanisms.
This is due to recessive genes are those, which are only • X-rays, β-rays and γ-rays are used as mutagens in
expressed when both alleles of the gene are mutated. such materials where nuclear is deep seated i.e. – Seed,
354. How is the arrangement of Mendels selected Stem cutting.
seven characters on four chromosomes? 357. What base is responsible for hot spots for
(a) One is chromosome number 1, four in spontaneous point mutations?
chromosome number 4, one in chromosome (a) Adenine (b) Guanine
number 5 and one in chromosome number 7 (c) 5-bromouracil (d) 5-methyl cytosine
(b) Two in chromosome number 1, Three in JIPMER-2015
chromosome number 4, one in chromosome
number 5 and one in chromosome number 6 Ans. (c) : 5-Bromouracil is the brominated form of
(c) Three in chromosome number 1, one in uracil that replace thymine in DNA. Adenine can pair
chromosome number 4, two in chromosome with 5-bromouracil instead of thymine and this can
number 5 and one in chromosome number 7 induce point mutations.
358. What change occurs by changing one base in 363. “Genes in the somatic cells of the body undergo
DNA mutation with the passage of time. Such
(a) Always a change of one amino acid in protein mutations cause senescence”.
(b) Change in complex sequence of amino acid This theory belongs to which type of theories
(c) Always a change in property of protein for ageing?
(a) Hormonal theory.
(d) Does not necessarily change the phenotype
(b) Programmed senescence theory.
AIPMT-1999
(c) Error and damage theories.
Ans. (d) : With base substitution mutations, only a (d) Immunological theories.
single nucleotide within a gene sequence is change, so
only one codon is affected, only a single codon in the GUJCET-2008
gene sequence is changed in base substitution but do not Ans. (c) : Genes in the somatic cell of the body undergo
necessarily change the phenotype. mutation with passage of time. Such mutations cause
senescence belongs to error and damage theory.
359. If a diploid cell is treated with colchicines then
it becomes : - Error and damage theories, emphasize environmental
(a) Triploid (b) Tetraploid assaults to living organism that induce cumulative
damage at various lived as the cause of aging.
(c) Diploid (d) Monoploid
AIPMT-2002 364. The formation of multivalent at meiosis in
dipioid organism is due to
Ans. (b) : If a diploid cell is treated with colchicines (a) monosomy (b) deletion
then it becomes tetraploid. It is an alkaloid from seeds
(c) inversion (d) reciprocal translocation
of Colchicum autumnal. It has the unique property of
arresting the spindle formed in the cell division process. BHU PMT (Mains)-2006, 2010
360. Euploidy is best explained by Ans. (d) : The formation of multivalent during meiosis
(a) Exact multiple of a haploid set of in diploid organisms can occur due to reciprocal
chromosomes translocations.
(b) One chromosome less than the haploid set of Reciprocal translocations involve the exchange of genetic
chromosomes material between non-homologous chromosomes, leading
to the presence of multivalent during meiosis, which can
(c) One chromosome more than the haploid set of disrupt normal chromosome segregation.
chromosome
(d) One chromosome more than the diploid set of 365. If mutation changes codon in such a way that
chromosomes there is no effect on functioning and overall
structure of protein. This type of mutation is
AMU-2009 termed as
Ans. (a) : Euploidy is best explained by exact multiple (a) Silent (b) Mis sense
of a haploid set of chromosomes. Euploidy is presence (c) Transition (d) Frame shift
of complete haploid sets of chromosome in multiples.
SRM JEEE -2017
361. Selection will not eliminate lethal recessive gene
Ans. (a) : Silent mutation is any gene mutation which
from a large population because
does not result in phenotypic expression. As more than
(a) there are always some heterozygotes carriers one codon specify same amino acid (due to degeneracy
of the alleles of code). The change in codon may not result into
(b) gene fixation occurs in populations alteration in amino acid.
(c) heterozygotes are at a selective advantage
366. Theory of 'saltations' was given by?
(d) rate of mutation to the lethal allele is high (a) G Mendel (b) Hugo de Vries
BVP-2010 (c) JBS Haldane (d) H J Miller
Ans. (a) : Selection will not eliminate lethal recessive AIIMS-2011
gene from a large population because there are always
some heterozygote carriers of the alleles. A lethal Ans. (b) : The saltation theory was given by Hugo de
recessive gene is a gene that causes death if an Vries.
individual has two copies of the gene. If an individual Saltation is a type of sudden change/large-scale
has only one copy of the gene, they will be a carrier of mutational changes from one generation to the next
the gene but will not be affected by it. generation and his potential of causing single-step
362. Rarely observed phenotype in population is speciation.
called According to Hugo de Vries, species are not formed by
(a) Wild type (b) Mutant type continuous variation but by a sudden appearance of
(c) Variant type (d) All of these variations, which was termed as mutation. This was
MGIMS Wardha-2011 known as the theory of saltations or mutation theory.
Ans. (b) : A mutant is an organism or a new genetic 367. Which of the following pairs of chromosomal
character arising or resulting from an instance of mutation are most likely to occur when
mutation, which is a base pair sequence change within homologous chromosomes are undergoing
the DNA of a gene on chromosome of an organism. The synapsis ?
natural occurrence of genetic mutations in integral to (a) Deletion and inversion
the process of evolution. (b) Duplication and translocation
(c) Deletion and duplication (D) The frequency of IV. Frame-shift
(d) Inversion and translocation recombination mutations
Punjab MET-2007 between gene pairs
Ans. (c) : The pairing of homologous chromosomes is on same chromosome
also called as synapsis. The synapsis result in exchange The correct match is
of segments between non sister chromtids of a Options:
homologous chromosomes separate, the chromosome A B C D
number is reduced to one half during meiosis. (a) III I II IV
• In deletion, a part of a chromosome is lost thus (b) I III IV II
decreasing the chromosal length. (c) III IV I II
• In duplication, a segment is copied and reattached (d) II III IV I
thus increasing chromosomal length. TS EAMCET-28.09.2020 Shift-I
368. One of the parents of a cross has mutation in its Ans. (c) :
mitochandria. In that cross, the parent is taken
as male. During segregation of F2 progenies List-I List- II
that mutation is found in A. Change in single base Point mutations
(a) one third of progenies pair of DNA
(b) None of the progenies B. Deletions of base Frame-shift
(c) All of the progenies pairs of DNA mutations
(d) half of the progenies C. Generation of non-parental Recombination
Manipal-2014 gene combination
Ans. (b) :Mitochondria of sperms are left behind during D. The frequency of Genetic map
fertilization and hence the mitochondria of the progeny recombination between
is completely of maternal origin. So, none of the gene pairs on same
progenies will be affected by the mutation.
chromosomes
Mitochondrial genes show maternal inheritance. It
means progenies get all the mitochondrial genes from 371. Identify the mutation and the amino acid
the cytoplasm of the ovum or mother if there is any involved in causing sickle cell anaemia disease.
mutation in the mitochondria of male, it will not be (a) Point mutation, Valine
found in any progenies of F2 generation. (b) Point mutation, Lysine
369. Direction: In the given questions a statement of (c) Frame shift mutation, Glutamate
Assertion (A) is given and a corresponding (d) Frame shift mutation, Valine
statement of Reason (R) is given just below it of TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-II
the statement, mark the correct answer as: Ans. (a) : Sickle cell anaemia is the result of a change
Assertion: The gene may undergo a sudden in a single nucleotide, and it represents just one class of
change in expression due to change in mutations called point mutations. Sickle-cell anemia
composition called mutation. Reason: Some occurs due to the single amino acid substitution of
genes mutate more than once and have more valine for glutamic acid in the beta chain to a nucleotide
than two alleles. defect that causes the production of abnormal beta-
(a) If both (A) and (R) true and (R) is the correct chains in haemoglobin-S.
explanation of (A) 372. Assertion (A): Traditional breeding leads to
(b) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not multiplication of undersirable genes along with
correct explanation of (A) desirable genes.
(c) If (A) is true but (R) is false Reason (R): Sexual reproduction permits
(d) If both (A) and (R) are false variation.
(e) If (A) is false but (R) is true The correct option among the following is
Haryana PMT-2001 (a) (A) is true. (R) is true and (R) is the correct
Ans. (a) : Mutation is a heritable change in the nucleotide explanation for (A)
sequence of a chromosome. A gene has two alternative (b) (A) is true. (R) is true but (R) is not the
forms. i.e alleles one being dominant and the other correct explanation for (A)
recessive, one being wild and other mutant. The mutant (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
form is developed from wild form due to mutation. (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
370. Match the following lists: TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-II
List-I List-II Ans. (a) : A sexual reproduction preserves the genetic
(A) Change in single I. Recombination information while sexual reproduction permits
base pair of DNA variation. Traditional hybridization procedures used in
(B) Deletions of II. Genetic map plant and animal breeding, very often lead to inclusion
base pairs of DNA and multiplication of undesirable genes along with
(C) Generation of non- III. Point desired genes.
parental gene mutations Sexual reproduction results in genetic variation or
combination genetic differences, between parents and offspring.
373. H.J. Muller had received Nobel prize for : I. Genetic Disorders
(a) discovering the linkage of genes
(b) discovering the induced mutations by X-rays 377. Down’s syndrome is due to
(c) his studies on Drosophila for genetic study (a) Trisomy of 21st chromosome
(d) proving that the DNA is a genetic material (b) Tetrasomy of 22nd chromosome
Haryana PMT-2000 (c) Polysomy of 9th chromosome
Ans. (b) : H.J. Muller (Hermann Joseph Muller) got (d) Monosomy of 21st chromosome
Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1946 for the Ans. (a) : Down syndrome, also known as trisomy 21. it
discovery of the production of mutations of means of X- is a genetic condition that is primarily due to an extra
ray radiations. Radiation that can produce mutation is copy of chromosome 21.
known as effective radiation. It can occur due to errors during the formation of
374. The effect of to days radioactive fallout will reproductive cells (egg or sperm) or during early fetal
probably be more harmful to children of future development.
generation than to children now living because: 378. Sickle cell anemia is an example of
(a) infants are more susceptible to radiations (a) Chromosome mutation
(b) susceptibility to radiation increase with age (b) Point mutation
(c) mutated genes are frequently recessive (c) Genetic recombinations
(d) contamination at milk supply is not (d) Environmental effect
cumulative TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
Punjab MET-2005 Ans. (b) : Sickle cell anemia is an example of a point
Ans. (c) : Mutated genes are frequently recessive mutation. It is caused by a specific mutation in the beta-
globin gene, which encodes a part of hemoglobin, the
because both alleles of a gene have to be mutated or
protein responsible for carrying oxygen in Red blood
entirely lost. This may come about if both healthy
cells.
parents transmit a mutated allele or a loss, or if one
This mutation results, in the substitution of one
transmitted, mutated allele is combined with a second
nucleotide (adenine, A) for another (thymine, T).
allele that has undergone a de Novo mutation or loss.
Mutated genes are probably recessive and carried in a 379. Trisomy of 18thchromosome causes
heterozygous state and hence, cannot detected by (a) Turner's syndrome
selection. A recessive allele does not produce a trait at (b) Down syndrome
all when only one copy is present. (c) Klinefelter's syndrome
375. Haploid (n) plants are preferred over diploid (d) Edwards syndrome
plants for the study of mutation because : AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II
(a) in haploids culturing is easy Ans. (d) : Edwards syndrome also known as Trisomy
(b) in haploids only dominant mutation expresses 18.
(c) in haploid only recessive mutation expresses It is a genetic disorder that results from the presence of
an extra copy of chromosomes 18 in an individuals
(d) all the mutations express cells.
Punjab MET-2005
380. Which one of the following symbols represents
Ans. (d) : Haploid plants are preferred over diploids for mating between relatives in human pedigree
mutation study because of the expression of all the analysis?
mutations. In nature mutations are generally recessive.
(a) (b)
In case of a diploid it is difficult to trance out the
recessive mutation as its dominant gene is present on
other chromosome. (c) (d)
Haploid plants are useful in mutation studies because a
recessive mutation will be observed immediately in a
haploid plants as the genotype can be identified from
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
the phenotype.
Ans. (c) : Consanguineous marriage is matrimony
376. A mutagen pollutant is : between individuals who are closely related. In a
(a) organophosphates clinical sense, marriage between two family members
(b) resins who are second cousins or closer qualify as having a
(c) chlorinated hydrocarbons consanguineous marriage.
(d) nitrogen oxides 381. Which of the following statements are correct
Punjab MET-2005 about Klinefelter's Syndrome?
Ans. (c) : A mutagen pollutant is a physical or chemical A. This disorder was first described by
agent that permanently changes genetic material , Langdon Down (1866).
usually in DNA. Metabolites of Polyacrylic Aromatic B. Such an individual has overall masculine
Hydrocarbons (PAHS) are mutagenic as they act as development. However, the feminine
carcinogenic. Eg. acenaphthylene. development is also expressed.
C. The affected individual is short statured. Ans. (d) : Defect in amino acid metabolism may result
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental in phenylketonuria. It is an inborn error of metabolism,
development is retarded. inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. The affected
E. Such individuals are sterile. individual lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid
Choose the correct answer from the options phenylalanine into tyrosine. As a result, the
given below : phenylalanine is accumulated and converted into phenyl
(a) A and E only (b) A and B only pyruvic acid, causing mental retardation.
(c) C and D only (d) B and E only 386. In man, which of the following genotypes and
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023 phenotypes may be the correct result of
Ans. (d) : Klinefelter syndrome is one of the genetic aneuploidy in sex chromosomes?
disorders in males. It occurs when a male baby is born (a) 22 pairs + XXY males
with more than required or extra x- chromosomes. (b) 22 pairs + XX females
• The affected person of klinefelter's syndrome is (c) 22 pairs + XXXY females
genotypically and phenotypically male but bears (d) 22 pairs + X females
many female characteristics. SRM JEE-2017 / UP CPMT-2004
• Henry klinefelter who identified the condition in the Ans. (a) : In man, 22 pairs + XXY males genotypes and
1940 usually every cell in a male's body except phenotypes may be correct result of aneuploidy in sex
sperm and RBC contain 46 chromosome. chromosomes.
• Adults with klinefelter syndrome are usually taller Aneuploidy-It is the presence of a chromosome number
than non - affected adult male, and sterile. which is different than the multiple of basic
382. Which of the following represents Klinefelters chromosome number, this type of variation involve are
syndrome? or two chromosomes but not the entire set.
(a) XX (b) XO • 22 pairs + XXY is hyperploidy (types of aneuploidy)
(c) XY (d) XXY in which one or more chromosomes (individually)
Manipal-2012 / WB JEE-2006 one added to the diploid set of chromosome.
BCECE-2002 / AFMC-2002 • In XXY-47 chromosome instead of 46, it is example
Ans. (d) : XXY genotype represent Klinefelters of trisomy (2n + 1).
syndrome. It is characterized by trisomy (XXY). There 387. Which of the following condition is called
are 47(44 + XXY) chromosomes instead of 46 (44 + monosomic?
XY). Such individual has overall masculine (a) 2n + 1 (b) 2n + 2
development. Their genitalia are under developed such (c) n + 1 (d) 2n – 1
individuals are often mentally defective and sterile male.
WB JEE-2010
383. XOchromosomal abnormality in humans Ans. (d) : 2n–1 condition is called monosomic.
causes
Monosomics represent the loss of a single chromosome
(a) Turners syndrome from the diploid set and they have chromosome
(b) Downs syndrome complement 2n–1 such aberration create major
(c) Darwins syndrome imbalance and cannot be tolerated in diploids.
(d) Klinefelters syndrome 388. A man known to be victim of haemophilia
Rajasthan PMT-2009 / Punjab MET-2009 marries a normal women whose father was
CMC Vellore-2009 / UP CPMT-2009 known to be a bleeder. Then it is expected that
AIIMS-2007, 1999 / MGIMS Wardha-2003
(a) all their children will be bleeders
Ans. (a) : XO chromosomal abnormality in humans (b) one-fourth of their children will be bleeders
causes Turners syndrome. It is characterized by
(c) half of their children will be bleeders
monosomy of XO type. The individuals posses 45
chromosomes instead of normal 46 (44 + xo) and are (d) one-tenth of their children will be bleeders
immature sterile females. Punjab MET-1999
384. The most common type of haemophilia results Ans. (c) : A man known to be victim of haemophilia
from the congenital absence of marries a woman whose father was known to be a bleeder.
(a) factor-II (b) factor-V Man Woman
(c) factor-VIII (d) factor-XI X HY X HX
UP CPMT-2004 (Haemophic) (Carrier)
Ans. (c) : The most common type of haemophilia ↓ ↓
results from the congenital absence of factor VIII. X HY X HX
Haemophila is a sex-linked recessive disease which
shows its transmission from unaffected carrier female to XH X
some of the male progeny. In this disease, a protein H H H
XH X X X X
involved in the clotting of blood is affected. Bleeder Carrier
H
385. Defect in amino acid metabolism may results in Y X Y XY
Bleeder Normal
(a) albinism (b) porphyria
(c) Wilson's disease (d) phenylketonuria Hence, out of their 4 children, 2 children are bleeder i.e.
UP CPMT-2004 haemophilic.
389. If a boys father has haemophilia and his 393. Which one is a sex linked disease ?
mother has one gene for haemophilia, what is (a) Colour blindness (b) Haemophilia
the chance that the boy will inherit the disease? (c) Syphilis (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) 100% (b) 75% BCECE-2008
(c) 50% (d) 0% UP CPMT-2003
Punjab MET-1999 Ans. (d) : Colour blindness and haemophilia are sex
Ans. (c) : If a boy father has haemophilia and his linked disease.
mother has one gene for haemophila, there is 50% Haemophilia is a sex linked recessive disease which
chance that the boy will inherit disease. shows its transmission from unaffect carrier female to
Father Mother some of the male progeny. In this disease a protein
X HY X HX involved in the clotting of blood is affected due to this,
(Haemophilic) (Carrier) in an affected individual simple cut will result in non-
stop bleeding.
Colour blindness- A particular trait in human beings
enables them to differentiate between red and green
colours. The gene for this red-green colour blindness is
located on X-chromosome. It is recessive to normal
vision.
394. The loss of one single chromosome cretes a
⇒ 50% chance of haemophilic son. condition called
390. Genes for haemophilia disease is located on: (a) Haploid (b) Nullisomy
(a) autosomes (b) mitochondria (c) Monosomy (d) Trisomy
(c) chloroplasts (d) sex chromosomes VMMC-2013
Rajasthan PMT-2004 Ans. (c) : The loss of one single chromosome creates a
Ans. (d) : Genes for hemophilia is located on sex condition called monosomy. They have the
chromosomes. It is sex linked recessive disease which chromosome complement 2n−1, since, monosomics
shows its transmission from unaffected carrier female to lack one complete chromosome, such aberrations create
some of the male progeny. In this disease, a protein major imbalance and cannot be tolerated in diploids.
involved in the clotting of blood is affected as a result 395. Which of the following is not a hereditary
bleeding does not stop even in a simple cut in an disease?
affected individual. (a) Cretinism (b) Cystic fibrosis
391. Number of chromosomes in Down syndrome is: (c) Haemophilia (d) Thalassemia
(a) 46 (b) 47 VMMC-2013
(c) 48 (d) 49 Ans. (a) : Cretinism is not a hereditary disease. It is
AFMC-2005 occurs due to hypothyroidism since birth.
Ans. (b) : Number of chromosomes in down syndrome • Thalassaemia → Autosomal recessive disease.
is 47. It is autosomal abnormalities. This condition is • Cystis fibrosis→ Autosomal recessive disease.
caused by an abnormality in a baby's chromosomes. • Haemophilia→ Sex-linked recessive disease.
Such babies are trisomic for chromosome 21. Thus, 396. If a haemophilic carrier female marries a
there are 47 chromosomes instead of normal 46. Such normal man, the chances are that
disease occurs due to non disjunction of autosomes
during gamete formation. It characterized by mental (a) all the daughters will have haemophilia
retardation and heart defects. (b) 50% of the daughters will have haemophilia
(c) 50% of the sons will have haemophilia
392. In the given pedigree, the shaded individuals
are homozygous recessive for colour blindness. (d) all the sons will have haemophilia
What is the genotype of individual B? MGIMS Wardha-2014
Ans. (c) : If a haemophilic carrier female marries a
normal man, the chances one that 50% of the sons will
have haemophilia.
(a) Heterozygous
(b) Homozygous recessive
(c) Homozygous dominant
UP CPMT-2010
Ans. (b) : In the given pedigree, the shaded individuals
are homozygous recessive for colour blindness,
individual B genotype is homozygous recessive. Colour
blindness is recessive to normal vision and is found
often in man.
397. Balbiani rings are the structural features of: 400. A haemophilic man marries a normal
(a) allosomes homozygous woman what is the probability
(b) autosomes that their son will be haemophilic?
(c) lampbrush chromosomes (a) 100% (b) 75%
(d) polytene chromosomes (c) 50% (d) 0%
AMU-2011
Karnataka CET-2002
Ans. (d) : The daughter born to haemophilic father and
Ans. (d) : Balbiani rings are the structural feature of normal mother could be carrier.
polytene chromosomes.
• Polytene chromosomes were discovered by Balbiani
in 1882 in larval salivary of Chironimus.
• It is specialized interphase chromosomes present in
certain insect cells.
• Cells with polytene chromosomes undergo repeated
rounds of DNA replication without cell division.
• Polytene chromosomes have alternating dark bands
and light interbands. bands that are sites of gene 401. Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntingtons
expression expand to give chromosome paff chorea are
(Balbiani rings). (a) bacteria related diseases
398. The gene for haemophilia is known to be (b) congenital disorders
located on: (c) pollutant induced disorders
(d) virus related diseases
(a) Y chromosome (b) X chromosome
BCECE-2014,2013 / BHU PMT(Mains)-2010
(c) autosome no 21 (d) autosome no 18 AFMC-2008
JIPMER-1997 Ans. (b) : Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington's
Ans. (b) : The gene for haemophilia is known to be chorea are congenital disorder.
located on X-chromosome. It is sex-linked recessive Congenital disorders can defined as structural or
trait. This disease is associated with the defects in blood functional abnormalities that occur during intrauterine
clotting protein. The heterozygous female for life. It is also called birth defects.
haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons. Sickle cell anaemia is autosome linked reccesive trait
398. Gynecomastia is a symptom of that can be transmitted from parents to offspring when
(a) Turner's syndrome both the parents are carrier for the gene.
(b) Down's syndrome Huntington's chored an inherited condition in which
(c) Cri-du-chat syndrome nerve cells in the brain break down overtime.
(d) Klinefelter's syndrome 402. Absorption of toxic amounts of iron due to a
Karnataka CET-2022,2013 genetically defective control mechanisms is
JIPMER-2019 known as
Kerala PMT-2008 (a) Haematochromatosis (b) Haemosiderosis
Ans. (d) : Gynecomastia is a symptom of Klinefelters (c) Haemoptysis (d) Haematoma.
AMU-1998
syndrome. The presence of 2 X chromosomes causes
appearance of femine characters in male. Ans. (a) : Absorption of toxic amount of iron due to a
It is triggered by a decreases in the amount of the genetically defective control mechanism is known as
hormone testosterone compared with estrogen. haematochromatosis. It is most common autosomal
recessive genetic disorder and the most common cause
• Gynecomastia is a condition where there will be an of severe iron overload.
enlargement of the male breast. Hereditary, Haematochromatosis is a disorder that
• Klinefelter's syndrome is characterized by trisomy causes the body to absorb too much iron from the diet.
(XXY). There are 47 chromosomes instead of normal 46. The excess iron accumulate in and eventually damages
399. The affected male in the pedigree chart is the body tissue and organs.
symbolized by 403. X-chromosomes of female in a sex-linked
inheritance case can be passed on to
(a) (b)
(a) Only female progeny
(b) Only male progeny
(c) (d) (c) Only in grand daughter
(d) Male and female progeny
Karnataka CET-2022 AMU-1998
Ans. (a) : Shaded square represent the affected male in Ans. (d) : X-Chromosomes of female in a sex-linked
the pedigree chart. inheritance case can be passed on to both male progeny
• A pedigree is a family tree or chart made of symbols and female progeny. Males are more affected by sex-
and lines that represent a person's genetic family history. linked traits in comparison to female because they are
heterozygous. The female passes the X-linked
• In pedigree, symbol represent people and line inheritance to both son and daughter, as they are
represent genetic relationships. homozygous to the X-chromosome to both offspring.
404. Haemophilic man marries a carrier woman. (c) There is currently no effective treatment of
Percentage of daughter becoming haemophilic Huntingtons disease
shall be: (d) Huntingtons disease is caused by the
(a) 25% (b) 50% expression of a recessive allele
(c) 75% (d) 100% VMMC-2012 / CG PMT-2008 / UP CPMT-2008
VMMC-2006 / Haryana PMT-2002 Ans. (c) : Huntington's chorea is a congenital disease of
Ans. (b) : Haemophilic man marries a carrier woman. man. It is characterized by uncontrolled jerking of body
Percentage of daughter becoming haemophic hall be 50%. and progressive degeneration of central nervous system.
This disease is caused by an autosomal dominant gene.
There is currently no effective treatment of huntington's
disease but there are treatment available to reduce the
severity of symptoms.
408. Queen Victoria of England was:
(a) Haemophilic carrier (b) Colour blind
(c) AIDS patient (d) Deaf
Haryana PMT-2002 / Karnataka CET-2000
Ans. (a) : Queen Victoria of England was haemophilic
carrier. The family pedigree of Queen Victoria shows a
405. A marriage between normal visioned man and number of haemophilic descendents as she was a carrier
colourblind woman will produce which of the of the disease. Haemophilia is sex linked recessive
following types of offspring? disease in which a single protein involved in clotting of
(a) Normal sons and carrier daughters blood is affected.
(b) Colourblind sons and carrier daughters
409. Which genotype will indicate colour blindness
(c) Colourblind sons and 50% carrier daughters in male?
(d) 50% colourblind sons and 50% carrier (a) Xc Y (b) Xc
daughters c c
(c) X Y (d) X YC
VMMC-2012 / Uttarakhand PMT-2008
Haryana PMT-2002
UP CPMT-2008 C
Ans. (b) : A marriage between normal visioned man Ans. (a) : X Y genotype will indicate colourblindness
and colourblind woman will produce colourblind sons in males. The gene for red-green colourblindnes is
and carrier daughter. located on X chromosome. Colourblindness is recessive
to normal vision and is found more after in man.
• XCXC - indicate colourblind female.
• XXC - indicate carrier female.
410. Albinism is caused by deficiency of :
(a) amylase (b) tyrosinase
(c) phenyl alanine (d) xanthene oxidase
Haryana PMT-2005
Ans. (b) : Albinism is caused by deficiency of
tyrosinase. In albinism disorder body makes little or
none of a substance called melanin. Melanin determines
406. The Christmas disease patient lacks the colour of skin hair and eye.
antihaemophilic : 411. A woman has haemophilic son and three
(a) Homogentisic acid oxidase normal children. Her genotype and that of her
(b) Factor VIII husband with respect to this gene would be
(c) Factor XI (a) XX and Xh Y (b) Xhxh and Xh Y
h h
(d) Factor IX (c) X X and XY (d) XhX and XY
Karnataka CET-2003 MGIMS Wardha-2009 / CG PMT-2009
Ans. (d) : The Christmas disease patient lacks Ans. (d) : A woman has haemophilic son and three
antihaemophilic factor IX. It occurs mainly due to the normal children. Her genotype and h
her husband with
absence of antihaemophilic globulin VIII (hemophilia-A) respect to this gene would be X X and XY because,
and plasma thromboplastin factor IX. It is called the there are three normal children, so it is clear that the
Christmas disease as it named after the first patient Stephen husband is not haemophilic (XY). Haemophilic son
Christmas, who was diagnosed with the disease in 1952. indicates that mother is a carrier for the gene (XhX).
407. Which of these statements about Huntington's 412. A normal woman is married with a man having
disease is true? hypertrichosis condition. They got one
(a) Genetic tests to detect the presence of the daughter and one son. What is the possibility of
allele responsible for Huntingtons disease do this daughter to have hypertrichosis condition?
not exist at this time (a) 0 % (b) 25%
(b) The onset of Huntingtons disearse is typically (c) 50 % (d) 100 %
between birth and three year of age CG PMT-2009 / MGIMS Wardha-2009
Ans. (a) : A normal woman is married with a man 416. Genetic counsellors can identify heterozygous
having hypertrichosis condition. The possibility of their individuals by:
daughter to have hypertrichosis condition is 0%. (a) height of individuals
Because hypertrichosis is Y-linked disease, only males (b) colour of individuals
normally have a Y-chromosome, Y-linked genes can (c) screening procedures
only be transmitted from father to son. (d) all of the above
413. A haemophilic man marries a carrier woman, BVP-2007
their daughter progenies are BHU PMT-2004
(a) all haemophilic
Ans. (c) : Genetic counsellors can identify heterozygous
(b) half haemophilic individuals by screening procedures. Genetic screening
(c) half haemophilic and half carrier is a part of genetic counseling which includes parental
(d) all normal diagnosis, carrier diagnosis and predictive diagnosis.
AMU-2006 Genetic counsellors use screening procedure. Genetic
Ans. (c) : The haemophilia is an X linked recessive counseling is giving of information and advice about the
gene. It is of two types haemophilia A which occurs due risk of genetic disease.
to low amount of clotting factor VIII, haemophilia B 417. A male child colourblind and his blood group is
which occurs due to low level of clotting factor IX. A “AB”. Identify the parents from the
haemophilic man marries a carrier woman, their
following pairs:
daughter progenies are half haemophilic and half
carrier. (a) Father-normal vision, blood group ’A’
mother-colourblind, blood group ’O’
(b) Father-colourblind, blood group ‘O’ mother-
colourblind, blood group ‘AB’
(c) Father-normal vision, blood group ’A’
mother-colourblind, blood group ‘B’
(d) Father-colourblind, blood group ‘O’ mother-
normal vision vision, blood group ‘B’
AP EAMCET-2002
Ans. (c) : A male child colourblind and his blood group
is AB then child father normal vision blood group 'A'
mother colourblind, blood group B.
414. If haemoglobin (Hb) of a normal individual Cross for colourblindness:
and a sickle-cell patient are run in
electrophoretic field, they will show
(a) same mobilities
(b) different mobilities
(c) Hb of patient will not move at all
(d) Hbs are immobile
AMU-2012
Ans. (b) : In normal haemoglobin electrophoresis red
cell lysates are subjected to electric fields under alkaline
gel and acid gel pH. A change in the amino acid Cross for blood group:
composition of the globin chains results in alteration of
the charge of the haemoglobin molecule, resulting in a Allele I A i
change of the speed of migration, but in the I B
I I I Bi
A B
haemoglobin of sickle cell patient does not show this

type of electrophoresis. Thus, on gel electrophoresis, the i IAi ii
haemoglobin molecules of persons with sickle cell 418. Dominant lethal gene is one which :
anaemia migrated at a different rate and thus, ended up
(a) allows the organism to survive but not
at a different place on the gel, from the haemoglobin of
reproduce
normal persons.
(b) determines sex of off springs
415. Occurrence of an extra chromosome in a (c) allows the organism to survive and reproduce
diploid set of chromosome is called ______.
(d) kills the organism
(a) monosomy (b) polysome
Haryana PMT-2003
(c) trisomy (d) polyploidy
MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I Ans. (d) : Dominant lethal gene is one which kills the
organism. Certain genes are absolutely essential for
Ans. (c) : Occurrence of an extra chromosome in a survival. The alleles created by mutations in these genes
diploid set of chromosome is called trisomy (2n) they are called lethal alleles. The phenotypic manifestation
are specifically useful in locating genes on specific of these alleles is the death of the organism. Dominant
chromosomes. Klinefelters syndrome and down lethal alleles show lethal effects even in heterozygous
syndrome are disorders occurs due to trisomy. condition.
419. Carrier organisms refers to an individual 423. An example for holandric inheritance is:
which carries a: (a) epidermolysis (b) Turner’s syndrome
(a) dominant gene that is not expressed (c) haemophilia (d) webbed toes
(b) recessive gene that is not expressed AP EAMCET-2002 / JCECE-2002
(c) recessive gene that is expressed Ans. (d) : Holandric inheritance is the inheritance of
(d) dominant gene that is expressed genes present on the Y-chromosome. Hypertrichasis of
Haryana PMT-2003 the ears, webbed toes and porcupine man are examples
Ans. (b) : Carrier organism refers to an individual of Y-linked inheritance. Y-linked inheritance or
which carries a recessive gene that is not expressed. A holandric inheritance is due to the inheritance of genes
carrier is an individual who carries disease or character present on the Y-genes. The Y-chromosomes in human
and pass on to its offspring without suffering from any is related to the male sex and in the inheritance pattern
disease from it. of the genes, the son receives the gene from father.
420. The genetic basis of haemophilia was revealed 424. A normal son of Haemophilic father marries a
by studies of daughter of haemophilic father. State the
(a) DNA sequences possibility of first born daughter child.
(b) Chromosome in gametes (a) 100% (b) 25%
(c) Family pedigree (c) 0% (d) 50%
GUJCET-2019
(d) Prenatal gene products
CG PMT-2010 Ans. (c) : Due to recessive gene present on X-
chromosome. First daughter will be carrier or normal
Ans. (c) : The genetic basis of haemophilia was but not haemophilic. A women will be haemophilic
revealed by studies of family pedigree. Haemophilia is a only when both mother and father are haemophilic.
sex linked recessive disease which shows its
transmission from unaffected carrier female to some of 425. Blood stained clothing of Abraham Lincoln has
the male progeny. In this disease, a protein involved in been analysed for evidence of which genetic
blood clotting is affected. A pedigree is a family tree or disorder?
chart made of symbols and lines that represent a (a) Marfan’s syndrome
person's genetic family history. (b) Diabetes
421. If a man who is colour blind marries a woman (c) Alzeimer’s disease
who is pure normal for colour vision, the chances (d) Cardiovascular disease
of their sons having colour blindness is: GUJCET-2017
(a) 100% (b) 50:50 Ans. (a) : Marfan's syndrome – Marfan syndrome is an
(c) 0% (zero) (d) 75: 25 inherited disorder that affects connective tissue, the fibers
Rajasthan PMT-2006 that support and anchor organs and other structures in
Ans. (c) : If a man who is colourblind marries a woman body. Marfan syndrome most commonly affects the heart,
eyes, blood vessels and skeleton. Marfan's Syndrome are
who is pure normal for colour vision, the chances of
tall and thin with long legs and arms. Abraham Lincoln
their sons having colour blindness is zero percent.
was very tall and hold lumps on his lips. Moreover, he had
gastrointestine problems scientist are trying to figure out if
Abraham Lincoln had Marfan's Syndrome with the help of
DNA finger printing technique and Forthis, they have
taken the blood sample from the blood stained clothing of
Abraham Lincoln.
426. Alkaptonuria (aa) is which type of error?
(a) Lethal mutation
(b) Metabolism error
Since, 0% son will be colourblind. (c) Error in number of chromosome
(d) Induced error
422. The main cause of Edward syndrome Patau GUJCET-2017
syndrome and Down syndrome is :
(a) mutation of gene Ans. (b) : Alkaptonuria is an autosomal recessive
genetic disorder in which the body cannot metabolise
(b) change in both autosomes and heterosomes
the amino acids phenylalanine and tyrosine. Affected
(c) change in autosomes
individuals may have dark urine or urine that turns
(d) change in heterosomes black when exposed to air.
Manipal -2010 / MGIMS Wardha-2003
427. If father shows normal genotype and mother
Ans. (c) : The main cause of Edward syndrome, Patau
shows a carrier trait for haemophilia.
syndrome and Down syndrome is change in autosomes.
(a) All the female offspring will be normal
• Edward syndrome 47(45 + XY/XX). It is trisomy of
(b) All the female offspring will be carriers
chromosome 18.
(c) A male offspring has 50% chances of active
• Patau syndrome 47(45 + XY/XX): trisomy of disease.
chromosome 13.
(d) Female offspring has probability of 50% to
• Down syndrome 47(45 + XY/XX) trisomy of have active disease
chromosome-21. Karnataka CET-2012
Ans. (c) : Ans. (a) : Pedigree analysis help to work out the
possible genotypes from the knowledge of the
respective phenotypes because pedigree is a chart
showing record of inheritance of certain traits over two
or more ancestral generation.
431. Male children born to a colour blind mother
and a normal father is
(a) 100% Normal only
(b) 100% Colour blind only
428. Number of Barr body which will found in case (c) 100% Carrier only
of Turner's syndrome will be: (d) 50% normal or 50% colour blind
(a) 1 TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II
(b) 2 Ans. (b) :
(c) 0
(d) Can't be determine by given data
JIPMER-2016
Ans. (c) : A Barr body is an inactive X- chromosome in
a cell with more than one X- chromosome. It can be
seen in the interphase nucleus. In the case of Turner's
syndrome 45 (44 + X), chromosomes are found. So the
number of bodies will be zero.
Barr body = n – 1, So, 100% colourblind male children born.
n = No of X-chromosomes 432. Match the following :
429. What is the phenotype of the offsprings born to List-I List-II
a woman with normal vision (homozygous) and (A) Downsyndrome (i) Trisomy of 13th
a colourblind man? chromosome
(a) All the sons are with normal vision and the (B) Edwards (ii) Partial delection of
daughters are colorblind syndrome short arm of
(b) All the sons and daughters are with normal chromosome 5
vision (C) Patau syndrome (iii) Trisomy of
(c) All the sons and daughters are colorblind chromosome 21
(d) All the sons are colorblind and the daughters (D) Cri-du-chat (iv) Trisomy of 18th
are with normal vision Syndrosome chromosome
AP EAMCET-2013 The correct answer is
Ans. (b) : The normal mother (XX) would transmit the A B C D
normal X chromosomes to all of her daughters and son: (a) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
hence all sons and daughters will be normal but (b) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
daughter would then serve as carrier. (c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans (c):
a. Down syndrome Trisomy of
hromosomes 21
b. Edwards syndrome Trisomy of 18th
chromosome
430. Assertion (A) : Pedigree analysis helps to work
out the possible genotypes from the knowledge c. Patau syndrome Trisomy of 13th
of the respective phenotypes. chromosome
Reason (R) : Pedigree is a chart showing d. Cri-du-chat syndrome Partial delection of
record of inheritance of certain traits over two short arm of
or more ancestral generations of a person. chromosome 5
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct 433. Inheritance of skin colour in human is an
explanation of A example of
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the (a) chromosomal aberration
correct explanation of A (b) co-dominance
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (c) point mutation
(d) A is wrong but R is correct (d) polygenic inheritance
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-I UP CPMT-2011
Ans. (d): Inheritance of skin colour in human is an (a) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease
example of polygenic inheritance. It is also known as like haemophilia
quantitative inheritance or multiple factor inheritance is (b) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of
the one in which one character is controlled by more metabolism like phenylketonuria
than one pair of non-allelic genes. (c) Inheritance of a condition like pheny-
434. Why are genetic disorders such as haemophilia lketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
and Duchenne muscular dystrophy more (d) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not
prevalent in males than females? possible
(a) Because they can only be passed on from AIPMT-2009
father to son Ans. (c) : Pedigree analysis was developed to
(b) Because they are dominant genetic disorders understand the inheritance of genes from parents to
(c) Because they occur due to spontaneous in the offspring. It was developed as a chart that can represent
Y-chromosome a family tree along with the family members and their
(d) Because they are X-linked recessive disorders genetic traits, respectively.
SRM JEEE-2018 The X-chromosome will contain the alleles for the trait
Ans. (d) : Genetic disorders such as haemophilia and and the Y-chromosome will have no alleles for the trait.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy more prevalent in males than The X – linked trait is expressed in male progeny while
females because they are X-linked recessive disorders. the female progeny serves as a carrier and the Y –
linked trait is expressed in offspring only. Presence of
435. The gene for haemophilia is located on 'X' trait in both son and daughter in F1 generation confirms
chromosome. Hence it is normally impossible for a that it is an autosomal trait. The second parent
(a) haemophilic father to pass the gene to his generation must have a carries parent and a recessive
daughter. homozygous parent to pass it to 1/3rd of progeny.
(b) carrier mother to pass the gene to her daughter. Therefore the above pedigree charts shows the
(c) carrier mother to pass the gene to her son. inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an
(d) haemophilic father to pass the gene to his son. autosomal recessive traits.
Karnataka CET-2016 438. In the following symbols, used in human
Ans. (d) : A father who has hemophilia passes his only X pedigree Analysis, identify the symbol that
chromosome down to all of his daughters. So they will denotes consanguineous mating.
always get his hemophilia allele and be heterozygous. A
father passes down his Y chromosome to his sons thus he (a) (b)
cannot pass down a hemophilia allele to them. The
daughter will not have haemophilia since the normal blood (c) (d)
clotting gene from her mother is dominant. The daughter is Karnataka CET-2019
called a carrier for haemophilia.
Ans. (a) :
436. From the following pedigree chart of a family,
one can make an analysis that,
439. A woman with normal vision, but whose father

was colourblind, marries a colourblind man.
Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was
a boy. This boy
(a) must have normal colour vision
(b) will be partially colourblind since he is
heterozygous for the colourblind mutant allele
(a) It is an autosomal dominant trait.
(c) must be colourblind
(b) It is an autosomal recessive trait.
(d) may be colourblind or may be of normal
(c) It is an allosomal dominant trait. vision
(d) It is an allosomal recessive trait. JIPMER-2007
Karnataka CET-2016
Ans. (d) : A woman whose father was colour blind will
Ans. (b) : Autosomal recessive inheritance is away a be a carrier of the disease. Sons get their X chromosome
genetic trait or condition can be passed down from from their mother. So there are 50% chances of son
parent to child. A genetic condition can occur when the being colour blind if the mother is a carrier.
child inherits one copy of a muted gene from each
parent. The parents of a child with an autosomal
recessive condition usually do not have the condition.
437. Study the pedigree chart as given below :-

440. A bald headed (Bb) man marries a non-bald Ans. (c) : Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod proposed
woman (Bb), their progeny if all are females, model of gene regulation i.e. called lac operon.
the probable bald to non-bald ratio in their • In 1961, he discovered lac operon in E.coli that the
progency would be : control of enzyme expression levels in cells is a result
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 of regulation of transcription of DNA sequence.
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 2 : 1 443. Which of the following is not an autosomal
AP EAMCET-2006 recessive trait?
(a) Phenylketonuria (b) Cystic fibrosis
Ans. (c) : Baldness may occur due to radiation effects,
(c) Albinism (d) Polydactyly
thyroid irregularities and other reasons, but a particular
type pattern baldness is hereditary. Hereditary baldness AMU-2001
is carried by a dominant autosomal gene, say B. All Ans. (d) : Polydactyly is a condition in which a baby is
homozygous BB are bald whether these are men or born with one or more extra fingers. Cystic fibrosis,
women. Similarly, homozygous (bb) men and women phenylketonuria, sickle-cell anaemia, alkaptonuria,
albinism etc are the examples of autosomal recessive
are always non-bald. In case of heterozygous baldness disorders.
develops only in men and never in women, because the
single dominant gene B expresses itself only when push 444. Which of the following disease occurs only in
males?
of male hormones is available.
(a) Fabrys disease (b) Gauchers disease
Pattern Baldness is example of sex influence trait (c) Lesch-Nyhan disease (d) Hunters disease
disorder
AMU-2002
Ans. (c) : Lesch-Nyhan disease (LNS) is a rare,
inherited disorder caused by a deficiency of the enzyme
hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase
(HPRT). LNS is an X-linked recessive disease carried
by the female parent and passed on to a male child.
445. A woman with albinic father marries an albinic
man. The proportion of her progeny is
(a) 2 normal: 1 albinic (b) All normal
(c) All albinic (d) 1 normal : 1 albinic
Rajasthan PMT-2011
441. What ratio is expected in offsprings if father is Ans. (d) : The women is heterozygous as albinic
colour blind and Mother-Father was colour conditions is recessive hence when she marries an
blind albinic man, the offspring are 50% normal and 50%
albinic. The women is a carrier as it is a heterozygous
(a) 50% daughter – colour blind condition.
(b) All the sons are colour blind Father is albinic (xy) so woman is heterozygous (Xx).
(c) All the daughters colour blind
(d) All the sons are normal
AIPMT-1999
Ans. (a) : If father is colour blind and mother's father
was colour blind then 50% daughter is colour blind.
Xc X
c c
XX Xc X
Xc
colour blind girl carrier 446. Absence of teeth, bifid tongue and mental
c retardness are observed in_____.
X Y boy XY
Y (a) Down’s syndrome
colour blind normal (b) Albinism
442. Select the correct match (c) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(a) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus (d) Oral-facial-digital syndrome
pneumoniae GUJCET-2022
(b) Alfred Hershey and - TMV Ans. (d) : Oral-facial-digital syndrome is a genetic
disorder that primarily affects the development of the
Martha Chase mouth, face fingers and toes.
(c) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon This disease is present at birth and symptoms can perist
Jacques Monod and worsen as a person ages. There are atleast 13
(d) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum different types X- chromosome, which is one of the sex
and F. Stahl chromosomes and seems to only affect boys or only
NEET-2018 affect girls.
447. Which of the following occurs due to the 450. Assertion: A father may be a haemophilic only
presence of autosome linked dominant trait ? if his mother is carrier.
(a) Thalessemia (b) Sickle cell anaemia Reason: The father cannot pass on a sex-linked
(c) Myotonic dystrophy (d) Haemophilia gene to his son.
NEET-2022 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Ans. (c) : Myotonic dystrophy type 1 (DM1) is a Reason is a correct explanation of the
multisystem disorder that affects skeletal and smooth Assertion.
muscle as well as the eye, heart, endocrine system and (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
central nervous system. The clinical findings which Reason is not a correct explanation of the
span a continuum from mild to severe have been Assertion.
categorized into three somewhat overlapping (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
phenotypes mild, classic and congenital. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
448. Match the human genetic disorder with the AIIMS-1994
causative abnormal chromosome Ans. (a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
A. Sickle cell anaemia 1. Sex linked (X The defective genes present on the X chromosome only
chromosome) and not on the Y chromosome. As the father always
B. Colour blindness 2. Autosomal contributes a Y chromosome and never passes on X
chromosome 7 chromosome to his son, the gene for haemophilia can
never be passed from a father to his son.
C. Phenylketonuria 3. Autosomal
chromosome 11 451. Philadelphia chromosome is found in the
patient suffering from
D. Cystic fibrosis 4. Autosomal (a) albinism
chromosome 4
(b) insomia
E. Huntington’s 5. Autosomal (c) myelocytic leukaemia
disease chromosome 12 (d) hepatitis.
(a) A - 3, B – 5, C – 1, D – 2, E - 4 AIIMS-1994
(b) A – 5 B – 1, C – 2, D – 3, E - 4 Ans. (c) : Chronic Myelogenous Leukaemia (CML) is
(c) A – 4, B – 1, C – 5, D – 2, E - 3 caused due to an obnormal chromosome Philadelphia
(d) A – 3, B – 1, C – 5, D – 2, E - 4 chromosome. Philadelphia chromosome is actually the
(e) A – 2, B – 1, C – 5, D – 3, E - 4 result of a reciprocal translocation between
Kerala PMT-2008 chromosome 9 and 22. In the Philadelphia translocation
Ans. (d) : the tip of the long arm of chromosome 9 has been
(A) Sickle cell anaemia–Autosomal chromosome 11 joined to the body of chromosome 22 and the distal
(B) Colour blindness –Sex linked (X chromosome) portion of the long arm of chromosome 22 has been
(C) Phenyl ketonuria –Autosomal chromosome 12 joined to the body of chromosome 9. CML is
characterized by an excess of granular leucocytes in the
(D) Cystic fibrosis –Autosomal chromosome 7 blood.
(E) Huntington's disease– Autosomal chromosome 4
452. Match Column I with Column II and find the
449. Choose the correct option for the pedigree correct answer
analysis given below:
A. Monoploidy i. 2n – 1
B. Monosomy ii. 2n + 1
C. Nullisomy iii. 2n + 2
D. Trisomy iv. 2n – 2
E. Tetrasomy v. n
vi. 3n
(a) A - v, B - i, C - iv, D - ii, E - iii
(b) A - v, B - ii, C - iv, D - i, E - iii
(c) A - vi, B - v, C - iii, D - iv, E - ii
(a) Autosomal dominant pedigree (d) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - vi, E - v
(b) ‘X’-linked dominant pedigree (e) A - i, B - v, C - iii, D - ii, E - iv
(c) Autosomal recessive pedigree Kerala PMT-2009
(d) ‘X’- linked recessive pedigree Ans. (a) :
GUJCET-2020 Column-I Column-II
Ans. (a) : The pedigree analysis given is autosomal (A) Monoploidy – n
dominant pedigree which is represented for (B) Monosomy – 2n–1
neurofibromatiosis autosomal trait which is also called (C) Nullisomy – 2n–2
"von Reckling hausen disease" caused by a dominant (D) Trisomy – 2n+1
gene on chromosome 17. (E) Tetrasomy – 2n+2
453. Match the following Ans. (c) :
List-I List-II (1) Aneuploidy – Loss of gain of chromosome
(A) Down syndrome (I)45, X (2) Monoploidy – A single set of chromosome
(B) Edward (II)
47, XX, +13 (3) Polyploidy– Increase in whole set of chromosomes
syndrome (4) Diploidy – Two sets of chromosomes.
(C) Klinefelter's (III) 47, XX, +18 456. A normal girl, whose mother is haemophilic
syndrome marries a male with no ancestral history of
haemophilia. What will be the possible
(D) Patau syndrome (IV) 47, XX, +21 phenotypes of the offsprings?
(E) Turner's (V) 47, XXY (A) Haemophilic son and haemophilic daughter.
syndrome (B) Haemophilic son and carrier daughter.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (C) Normal daughter and normal son.
(a) (IV) (II) (V) (III) (I) (D) Normal son and haemophilic daughter.
(b) (III) (IV) (II) (I) (V) Choose the most appropriate answer from
(c) (II) (III) (IV) (V) (I) (a) (A) and (B) only (b) (B) and (C) only
(d) (IV) (III) (V) (II) (I) (c) (A) and (D) only (d) (B) and (D) only
AP EAMCET-2014 NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
Ans. (d) : Ans. (b) : Haemophilia is a genetic disorder. It is an X-
(A) Down's Syndrome - 47, XX, +21 linked chromosomes disease in which X-carrier a non-
(B) Edward Syndrome - 47, XX, +18 functional gene.
(C) Klinefelter's Syndrome - 47, XX, Y Mother is hemophilic = XHXH
(D) Patau Syndrome - 47, XX, +13 Girl may be carrier = XHX
(E) Turner's Syndrome - 45, X Male normal = XY
454. Match the column I with Column II:
Column I Column II
i. Autosomal p. Turner's Syndrome
trisomy
ii. Allosomal q. Mendelien disorder
trisomy
iii. Allosomal r. Klinefelter's Syndrome
Monosomy
iv. Cystic fibrosis s. Down's Syndrome The offspring produced are 50% females in which out
i ii iii iv of 2 one daughter is the carrier and one is normal and in
(a) p q r s case of sons one is normal and other is diseased.
(b) p q s r 457. Given below are two statements:
(c) s r q p Statement I: Sickle cell anaemia and
Haemophilia are autosomal dominant traits.
(d) s r p q
Statement II: Sickle cell anaemia and
Karnataka CET-2021 Haemophilia are disorders of the blood.
Ans. (d) : In the light of the above statements, choose the
(i) Autosomal trisomy – Down's Syndrome correct answer from the options given below:
(ii) allosomal trisomy – Klinefelter's Syndrome (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(iii) Allosomal Monosomy – Turner's Syndrome (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(iv) Cystic fibrosis – Mendelian disorder (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
455. Match Column I with Column II and find the (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
correct answer: NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
Column I Column II Ans. (d) : A single base change in the DNA Sequence
Specifying an alternation of one amino-acid at a specific
1. Aneuploidy p. Increase in whole set of point, in a particular protein molecule could account for
chromosomes the disease sickle cell anaemia.
2. Monoploidy q. Loss of gain of a • In 6 position of β-chain glutamic acid replaced by
chromosome valine acid.
3. Polyploidy r. Two sets of chromosomes • Sickle cell anaemia is a autosomal recessive disorder in
4. Diploidy s. A single set of which RBC contorts into a sickle shape. Cell die early.
chromosomes • Haemophilia is a genetic disorder in which blood
(a) 1 -p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-s does not clot normally.
(b) 1-r, 2-p, 3-q, 4-s • Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder.
(c) 1-q, 2-s, 3-p, 4-r • Haemophilia happens when people don't have the
(d) 1-s, 2-r, 3-p, 4-q normal amount of clotting factors. It is caused by the
Karnataka CET-2021 lack of clotting factor VIII or IX in the blood.
458. A man of blood group-A marries a woman of 462. A colour blind man marries a woman with
blood group-AB, which type of progeny would normal sight who has no history of colour
indicate that man is heterozygous ? blindness in her family. What is the probability
(a) O (b) B (c) A (d) AB of their grandson being colour blind?
JIPMER-2010 (a) 0.25 (b) 0.5
Ans. (b) : If the father's blood type is heterozygous A (c) 1 (d) Nil
(IAi) and mother's blood group is AB (IAIB), the blood AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
types of the children will be Ans. (b) : Colour blindness is X- linked recessive
disorder. a man requires only one copy of defective
gene to be colorblind. Whereas a woman requires two
copies of defective genes to be colorblind.
A color blind man marries a women with normal sight
who has no history of colour blindness in her family.
The probability of their grandson being color blind is
0.25.
459. In man, four phenotypes of blood groups are

due to the presence of antigen-A and antigen-B
on the RBC. The chromosome that has the gene
to control these antigens is
(a) X-chromosome (b) 21st chromosome
(c) 9th chromosome (d) 7th chromosome
JCECE-2010
Ans. (c) : A set of three multiple alleles on the
chromosome 9 is responsible for the four blood types.
The gene controlling blood types has been labelled as I
(Stands to Isohaemagg lutinin) or L (after Landsteiner).
460. Select the correct match
(a) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal
dominant trait
(b) Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal
recessive trait,
chromosome-11
(c) Thalassemia – X linked
(d) Haemophilia – Y linked
NEET-2020 Phase-I
Ans. (b) :
(a) Phenylketonuria Autosomal recessive trait
(b) Sickle cell anaemia Autosomal recessive trait
chromosome 11 463. In a marriage between male with blood group
A and female with blood group B, the progeny
(c) Thalassemia Autosomal recessive
disease chromosome 11 had either blood group AB or B. What could be
the possible genotype of parents?
(d) Haemophilia X linked recessive disease (a) IA i (Male) ; IB i (Female)
461. In a cross between a male and female, both (b) IA i (Male) ; IB IB (Female)
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what (c) IA IA (Male) ; IB IB (Female)
percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
(a) 100% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 25% (d) IA IA (Male) ; IB i (Female)
NEET-2021 NEET (Odisha)-2019
Ans. (d) : Ans. (b) : Male with blood group A can have genotype
IAi or IA IA.
• Female with blood group B can have genotype IB IB
or IBi
Total number of affected progenies = 1

Percentage of diseased/affected progenies =
1
× 100 = 25%
4
464. If both parents are carries for thalessemia,
which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what
are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an
affected child?
(a) 100% (b) No chance
(c) 50% (d) 25%
NEET-2013
Ans. (d) : Thalessemia is an autosomal recessive
disease, the carrier of the disease is heterozygous for the
defective gene. If the genotype TT is normal. It is Daughters– 50% Carrier and 50% Normal
carrier and it is Thalassemia them both the parents are Sons – 50% Haemophilic and 50% Normal
carriers, they will have genotype it. 468. A colour blind mother and normal father
would have
(a) colour blind sons and normal/carrier daughters
(b) colour blind sons and daughters
(c) all colour blind
(d) all normal
AIPMT-1992
Ans. (a): A colourblind mother and normal father will
have colour blind sons and normal/carrier daughters.
465. If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine then it

becomes : -
(a) Triploid (b) Tetraploid
(c) Diploid (d) Monoploid 469. Kartarsingh has hypertrichosis. What are the
AIPMT-2002 chances (%) that daughter inherits the trait
Ans. (b) : Colchicine commonly used to develop (a) 75 (b) 100
polyploid plants and functions as a mitotic poison by (c) 0 (d) 50
producing many mutagenic effects on plants. Mainly MHT CET-2019
used to develope polyploidy of plant cells. Ans. (c) : Hypertrichosis occurs due to holoandric
466. A normal man and a normal woman both genes. Holoandric genes are those that occur on the
having one of their parent albino, if get Ychromosome only, they are not expressed in females.
married then what is the probability of their Hairy ears is hypertrichosis which occurs only in man
child of being albino? and is inherited through genes on Y-chromosome. Y-
(a) 20% (b) 25% linked genes are transmitted directly from father to son.
(c) 75% (d) 80% 470. Select the CORRECT statement.
JIPMER-2019 (a) Sex-linked traits appear more frequently in
Ans. (b) : A normal man and a normal women both females
having one of their parent albino, if get married then (b) Colour blindness is caused due to proper
25% is the probability of their child of being albino. formation of colour sensitive cells
• The term albinism refers to oculocutaneous albinism-a (c) Human females have double dose of X
group of inherited disorder where there is little or no chromosome
production of the pigment melanin. (d) Drone bees produce sperms by meiosis
467. Of a normal couple, half the sons are MHT CET-2018
haemophiliac while half the daughters are Ans. (c) XX chromosomes represents human females
carriers. the gene is located on and hence they show double does of X chromosome.
(a) X-chromosome of father • Sex linked traits appear more frequently in males and
(b) Y-chromosome of father females are carriers.
(c) one X-chromosome of mother • Colour blindness is due to improper formation of
(d) both the X-chromosomes of mother cones (colour sensitive cells).
AIPMT-1993
• Drone bees are infertile males.
Ans. (c): The gene of haemophilia is located on X-
chromosome. In this case where half the sons are 471. In a person suffering from sickle cell anaemia,
haemophilic and half the daughters are carriers, it is the____becomes half moon shaped.
possible only when the gene responsible for (a) RBC (b) Thrombocyte
haemophilia is located on one X-chromosome of (c) Monocyte (d) Lymphocyte
mother. MHT CET-2018
Ans. (a) : People who have sickle cell anaemia inherit two • In turner’s syndrome, the chromosome number is
genes, one from each parent, that code for hemoglobin "S". 2n = 45, the chromosomal formula is 44A + XO. The
Haemoglobin S is an abnormal form of haemoglobin that important characteristics are short stature, webbing of
causes the red cells to become rigid and sickle shaped. This skin in neck region, cardiovascular abnormalities and
is commonly called sickle cell anaemia and is usually the hearing deficiencies,
most severe form of the disease. 475. A couple, both carriers for the gene sickle cell
472. One of the following is NOT an example of anaemia planning to get married, want to know
incomplete sex-linkage. the chances of having anaemic progeny?
(a) Total colour-blindness (a) 100% (b) 75%
(b) Retinitis pigmentosa (c) 50% (d) 25%
(c) Nephritis MHT CET-2014
(d) Myopia Ans. (d) : Sickle-cell anaemia is a autosomal linked
MHT CET-2017 recessive trait which gets transmitted from parents to
Ans. (d) It is also known as night blindness. This offspring’s when both the partners are the carrier for the
disease is inherited in an X-Linked recessive pattern. gene.
Hence one copy of an affected gene on the X
chromosome in males is sufficient to result in myopia,
whereas females with both affected genes have the
disease. In complete linkage produces new combinations
of the genes in the progeny due to the formation of
chiasma and the occurrence of crossing over in between
the linked genes are present on homologous chromosomes.
The incomplete linkage is seen in the genes that are present
on the homologous part of sex chromosomes, and it is also
seen in pea plants.
473. Feminised males have____chromosomes.
(a) 44 (b) 45
(c) 46 (d) 47
MHT CET-2017 476. How many Barr bodies are present in the cells
of Klinfelter Male (KM), Normal Male (M) and
Ans. (d) : In Klinefelter's syndrome, the chromosome Normal Female (F) in humans
number is 47, phenotypically these individuals are
males, but they may show some female secondary (a) 2(KM),1(M), 2(F)
sexual characteristics and are usually sterile. (b) 1(KM), 0(M), 1(F)
(c) 0(KM), 0 (M), 1(F)
474. Which of the following is correct match?
(d) 3(KM), 1(M), 2(F)
I II III
(A) Thalassemia (a) XO (i) Flat nose,
simian crease Ans. (b) : Sex chromatin is named as Barr body. Barr
(B) Down's (b) 42 AA (ii) Webbing of body can easily be demonstrated in the cell of buccal
epithelium and hair roots. Barr body is a highly
syndrome + XY neck condensed structure lies against the nuclear membrane
(C) Turner's (c) 44 AA (iii) Anaemia, of inter-phase cells of females. Human female is sex
syndrome +XXX jaundice chromatin positive and male is sex chromatin negative,
(D) Klinefelter's (d) 44 AA (iv) Tall thin the number of Barr bodies is one less than the number
syndrome +XXY eunuchoid of X-chromosome. Therefore, 1 barr body is present in
MHT CET-2014 Klinefelter male (KM), there is no barr body in normal
Ans.(d) : male (M), one barr body is present in normal female (F)
in humans.
I II III
477. Replacement of which one of the following
(D) 44AA + xxy Tall thin nucleotides in the HbA gene causes sickle cell
Klinefelter’s Eunuchoid anaemia?
• Thalassemia is a human anaemia due to an (a) A to T (b) T to A
autosomal mutant gene and when this gene is present (c) U to A (d) C to G
in double dose, the disease is severe thalassemia Karnataka CET-2017
major with death occurring in childhood. Ans. (b) : Point mutation in the beta globin gene
• Down’s syndrome is chromosome abnormality in produces haemoglobin’s which makes the erythrocytes
humans. bend or sickle. This is due to a point mutation which is
A condition associated with an extra chromosome 21. a substitution of a single Adenine (A) nucleotide for a
People with down syndrome are typically short in thymine nucleotide converting a codon for glutamic
stature and loose-jointed, particularly in the ankles, acid- GAG-to one for valine- GTG. This is a switch of a
they have broad skulls, wide nostrils, large tongues purine for a pyrimidin base and is therefore a
with distinctive furrowing. transversion mutation.
478. Which of the following is a correct match? 482. The colour blind daughter is born in case of a
(a) Downs syndrome - 21st chromosome (a) colour blind mother and normal father
(b) Sickel cell anaemia - X - chromosome (b) carrier mother and colour blind father
(c) Haemophilia - Y - chromosome (c) normal mother and colour blind father
(d) Parkinson disease - X and Y chromosome (d) carrier mother and normal father
Parkinson disease -X and Y - chromosome (e) None of the above
JIPMER-2002 CMC Vellore-2015
Ans.(a) : Ans. (b) : The colour blind daughter is born in case of a
Sickle cell anaemia Chromosome 11 carrier mother and colour blind father.
Haemophilia X-Chromosome
Parkinson disease Y chromosome
Down’s Syndrome 21st chromosome
479. The gene of sickle cell anaemia is inherited by
(a) blood cells (b) bone cells
(c) sex chromosomes (d) autosomes
WB JEE-2011
Ans. (d) :Sickle-cell anaemia is a hereditary disorder of 483. Read the following statements and choose
autosomal nature which is caused by mutation of the correct option.
gene controlling β-chain of haemoglobin.
I. Colour blindness is autosomal recessive
480. 2n - 2 is known as: disorder
(a) monosomic (b) trisomic II. Gynaecomastia is enlargement of breasts
(c) nullisomy (d) polyploidy in females.
DUMET-2006
III. Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal
Ans. (c) : An organism that has lost a chromosome pair hereditary disorder.
is called nullisomic. The result is usually lethal to
diploids (2n - 2). IV. Haemophilic is sex linked disease.
481. Which of the given statement(s) is/are (a) I, II are correct, III, IV are incorrect
incorrect? (b) III, IV correct, but I, II are incorrect
(c) III, V correct, but II, IV are incorrect
I. Downs syndrome is a genetic disorder
resulting from bisomy of chromosome 21. (d) All are incorrect
(e) All are correct
II. Klinefelters syndrome is an abnormality
CMC Vellore-2015
in man who are always sterile because of
an extra X-chromosome. Ans. (b) : Incorrect statement (I):- Cololur blindness
is an autosomal recessive.
III. Huntingtons disease is a sex-linked
disorder more common in man because Correct Statement:- Colour binderies is X-linked
they have a single X-chromosome on recessive inheritance.
which the gives is born. Incorrect statement (II):- Gynaecomastia is
enlargement of breasts in females.
IV. Women generally do not suffer from Correct statement:- Gynaecomastia is enlargement of
haemophilia because its gene is borne on breasts in males.
Y-choromosome.
484. A colourblind man marries the daughter of
(a) Only I (b) II and IV another colourblind man whose wife had a
(c) II and III (d) Only IV normal genotype for colour vision. In their
(e) Only II progeny
CMC Vellore-2015 (a) All the children would colourblind.
Ans. (b) : Incorrect statement:- (II) Klinefelters (b) All their sons are colourblind.
syndrome is an abnormality in man who are always (c) None of the daughters would be colourblind.
sterile because of an extra X-chromosome. (d) Half of their sons and half of their daughter
Correct statement:- Klinefelter’s syndrome is an would be colourblind.
abnormality phenotypically in males, but they may Karnataka CET-2013
show some female secondary sexual characteristics and Ans. (d) : Half of their sons and half of their daughter
are usually sterile. would be colorblind.
Incorrect Statement:- (IV) Women generally do not
suffer from haemophilia because its gene is borne on Y-
chromosome.
Correct statement:- As haemophilia is a an X-linked
disease. Women generally do not suffer from
haemophilia because it is more common male as they
have only one X chromosome and a defect in one copy
of the gene is sufficient to cause the disease.
Colourblind is a recessive sex-linked trait. Father 487. Which one of the following can help in the
transmits its X-chromosome to the daughters. The diagnosis of genetical disorder?
colour blind father will transfer its carrier X- (a) ELISA (b) ABO blood group
chromosome to the daughter. The women will be a (c) PCR (d) NMR
carrier for colour blindness XXC, The colourblind man CMC Vellore-2012
will be XCY. The carrier female and colourblind man
will inherit the disease to 50% sons and 50% daughters. Ans. (c) : PCR (Polymerase chain reaction) is a
technique used to amplify a single copy or few copies of
485. Study the following statements about genetic a piece of DNA to produce multiple copies of the same
disorders sequence PCR can be used as a diagnostic tool, where a
(A) Phenylketonuria is caused by a mutation in sample of DNA is analyzed for the presence of genetic
the gene located on chromosome 12 disease due to mutations.
(B) In Cooley's Anaemia the beta chain binds
to RBC and damage them 488. Choose the correct statements regarding
(C) Cystic fibrosis causes increased resorption genetic disorders
of Na and H2O from respiratory (I) Turner's female is a result of aneuploidy
epithelium (II) Tritanopia is a sex linked recessive
(D) Individuals heterozygous to sickle cell trait disorder
always lead healthy life (III) Haemophilia C follows criss cross pattern
From the above identify the correct statements of inheritance
Options : (IV) Sickle cell anaemia is due to mutation of
(a) A, D (b) B, C alleles in chromosome 11
(c) A, C (d) B, D (a) I, IV (b) II, III
AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-I (c) I, III (d) II, III
Ans. (c) : Incorrect statements:- (B) In Cooley’s AP EAMCET-2016
anaemia the beta chain binds to RBC and damage in them. Ans. (c) :Incorrect statement (II) :- Tritanopia is a sex
(D) Individuals heterozygous to sickle trait always lead linked recessive disorder.
healthy life. Correct statement:- Tritanopia is an autosomal
Correct Statements:- (B) In Cooley’s anaemia there is dominant disorder.
a complete lack of beta protein in the haemoglobin Incorrect statement (IV):- Sickle cell anaemia is due
causes a life threatening anaemia that require regular to mutation of alleles in chromosome 11.
blood trans fusions extensive ongoing medical care. Correct statement:- Sickle cell anaemia is due to
Correct statement :- (D) Individuals heterozygous to mutation in the haemoglobin-Beta gene ground on
sickle cell trait are immune to malaria. chromosome 11.
486. A couple whose sons are colour blind with AB 489. If a colour blind man marries a woman who is
blood group, identify the parent from the normal but carries this trait, the progeny will
following. be:
(a) Mother colourblind with blood group-A and (a) all normal females but carrier of the trait
father normal with blood group-B (b) all males and 50% females colour blind
(b) Mother normal with blood group-A and father (c) all females and 50% males colour blind
colourblind with blood group-B (d) 50% males and 50% females colour blind
(c) Mother colourblind with blood group-B and MP PMT-2013
father normal with blood group-B
(d) Mother normal with blood group-A and father Ans. (d) :
colourblind with blood group-B
Ans. (b) : Colour blindness is caused by recessive sex-
linked gene carried by X-chromosome, So, in male one
recessive gene is sufficient for its expression i.e. XCY but
female needs two recessive gens XCXC the expression of
colour blindness. Mother will colourblind with A blood
group and father normal with blood group B.
Therefore, males and 50% females colour blind.

490. Gauchers disease is genetic disorder, which is
associated with the abnormal metabolism of
(a) glucose (b) fat
(c) protein (d) All of the above
So, all the son will be colourblind with AB blood group. BVP-2014
Ans. (b) : Gaucher’s disease is named after the French
doctor Philippe Gaucher (1854 - 1918) who originally
described it in 1882. Gaucher’s disease is a genetic
disease associated with abnormal fat metabolism,
caused by the absence of the enzyme
glucocerebrosidase required for proper processing of
lipids. Non-processing of lipid results in accumulation
of fatty material in spleen liver, bone marrow and brain.
The swelling of these organs occurs and patients usually
die by the age of 15 years.
491. Hurlers disease is caused by
(a) presence of amino acid tyrosine
(b) presence of lysosomes The gene a and b could be of
(c) absence of lysosomes (a) Colour blindness and body height
(d) absence of amino acid tyrosine (b) Attached ear lobe and Rhesus blood group
BVP-2014 (c) Haemophilia and red-green colour blindness
Ans. (c) : Hurler’s disease is named after a German (d) Phenylketonuria and haemophilia
pediatrician Gerturd Hurler. It is caused by the AIIMS-2006
deficiency of lysosomes which aids in the breakdown of Ans. (c) : The figure shows human sex chromosomes
dermatan sulfate and heparin sulfate (GAG). This with genes ‘a’ and ‘b’. So, ‘a’ and ‘b’ is sex-linked
finally results in the accumulation of large amount of genes, that are inherited through sex chromosomes. The
GAG in the body, eventually causing the cells to most important character of sex-linked inheritance is
become severely dysfunctional leading to death. colorblindness. Both the disorders are due to recessive
sex-linked genes.
492. Statement (S) : The heterozygous individuals
• The gene for red green color blindness is located on
for sickle- cell anemia (HbA HbS)
X-chromosomes. The person suffering from this disease
express disease phenotype and is unable to distinguish red and green color.
also carriers of the disease. Haemophillia also called bleeder’s disease is due to
Reason (R) : HbA HbS genotype individuals are the presence of a recessive gene on x-chromosome.
resistant to severe effects of 495. Which of the following is true for a recessive
malaria. disease in family A and B?
The correct match is:
(a) Both (S) and (R) are incorrect.
(b) Both (S) and (R) are correct.
(c) Both (S) and (R) are correct and (R) is
suitable explanation to (S).
(d) (S) is incorrect but (R) is correct. (a) In family A, both the parents are homozygous
TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-II recessive.
Ans. (d) : Individuals with the HbA HbA genotype are (b) In family B, both the parents are homozygous
normal, those with the HbS HbS genotype have sickle- dominant.
cell decease, and those with the HbA HbS genotypes (c) In family B, both the parent are heterozygous
have the sickle-cell trait. recessive.
493. Which one of the following is an autosomal (d) In family A, both the parents are
recessive genetic disorder? heterozygous recessive.
(a) Incontinentia pigmenti AIIMS-2013
(b) Hypertrichosis Ans. (d) : The parents of family A are not affected by
(c) Hoemophilia the disease, but a few of their offsprings are, they must
be heterozygous recessive for the disease.
(d) Cystic fibrosis
Both parents along with their offsprings are affected by
TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-I the disease in family B, which clearly indicates they are
Ans. (d) : It is the most common lethal genetic disorder homozygous recessive.
due to a recessive mutation on the chromosome 7. The 496. A man whose father was colourblind marries a
body produces abnormal glycoprotein which interferes woman, Who had a colourblind mother and
with salt metabolism. normal father. What percentage of male
The mucus secreted by body becomes abnormally children of this couple will be colourblind?
viscid and blocks passages in the lungs, liver and (a) 25% (b) 0%
pancreas. (c) 50% (d) 75%
494. Given below is a highly simplified AIIMS-2017
representation of the human sex chromosomes Ans. (c) : The gene of colour blindness is recessive X-
form a karyotype. linked trait (represented as Xc) and shows crisscross
inheritance since, the man has colour blind father and Ans. (b) : Number of barr bodies in XXXX female
mother, the genotype of the man is XY. Again, the would be 3 because Barr body is calculated by N-1
woman has colour blind mother and normal father and formula in which N = no. of X chromosome.
so the genotype is XcX. So in case of XXXX, N–1
The cross between the couple is given below: =4–1
= 3 bar body.
500. Mental retardation is not related with
(a) trisomy 21
(b) phenylalanine hydroxylase
(c) myelinization of neuron
(d) Y chromosome
Out of two male children, one is colour blind. AMU-1996
Hence, 50% male children will be colour blind. Ans. (d) : Mental retardation is not related with Y-
497. Genetic disorder hemophilia is characterized chromosome. Gene present on Y- chromosome is
by excessive loss of blood. Which of the known as holandric. Y-chromosome associated disease
following statements is not true in relation to not causes mental retardation.
this disease? 501. Male XX and female XY sometime occur due to
(a) It is an autosomal disease (a) Deletion
(b) It is a X-linked disease (b) Transfer of segments in X and Y
(c) Any of the factor VIII of IX may be absent chromosomes
(d) It is a lethal disease (c) Aneuploidy
AMU-2014 (d) Hormonal imbalance
Ans. (a) : Haemophilia is X-linked recessive disease. It AIPMT-2001
is caused due to the lack of factor VIII Ans. (b) : Male XX and female XY sometimes occur
(antihaemophillic globulin) and factor IX (Plasma due to transfer of segments in X and Y chromosomes,
Thromboplastic Component or PTC). It is characterized Deletion is the loss of an intercalary segment of a
by free bleeding from even slight wound because of the chromosome which is produced by a double break in
lack of formation of clotting factors therefore it is called the chromosomes followed by the union of remaining
as lethal disease as it may cause death if the bleeding parts.
cannot be stopped or if it occurs in a vital organ such as 502. If a germ cell in a female gonad and a germ cell
the brain. in a male gonad begin undergoing meiosis
498. A man, whose father is colourblind, marries a simultaneously what will be the ratio of over
lady who is daughter of a colour blindman. and sperms produced
Their off springs will be (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1
(a) all normal (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
(b) all colourblind Karnataka CET-2005
(c) all sons colourblind Ans. (d) : Ratio of ova and sperm production will be
(d) some sons colourblind and some normal 1:4, when a germ cell of a female gonad and male
J&K CET-2013 gonad undergo meiosis simultaneously. After meiosis
four ova and four sperms occurs, in which three ova out
Ans. (c) : of four becomes degenerate but sperms remain same.
503. Webbed neck, low set ears and broad chest are
the symptoms associated with :
(a) females having XXX chromosomes
(b) females having XO chromosomes
(c) females having XX chromosomes
(d) none of the above
Rajasthan PMT-2001
Ans. (b) : In Turner's syndrome, females are having
XO- chromosomes. The important characteristics are
short stature, webbing of skin in neck region,
cardiovascular abnormalities and hearing deficiencies.
504. Abnormal sterile male, with underdeveloped
I-1 Chromosomal Disorders genetilia, feeble breasts and sponsely hairy
body are symptoms associates with :
499. Number of barr bodies in XXXX female would (a) males having XXY chromosomes
be: (b) males having XY chromosomes
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) males having XYY chromosomes
(c) 2 (d) 1 (d) none of the above
Haryana PMT-2002 Rajasthan PMT-2001
Ans. (a) : In Klinefelter's syndrome males are having Incorrect Statement (III) Sickle cell anemia is
XXY chromosomes. In this syndrome, testes are caused by the substitution
underdeveloped, enlarged breasts (gynaecomastia). of glutamic acid by valine
Mentally defective and abnormally tall. Mental at the fifth position of beta
retardation increases with X complement. chain of haemoglobin
505. Match the items in column I with those in molecule.
column II and choose the correct answer. Correct explanation – Sickle cell anaemia is
Column I Column II caused by the substitution
A. Klinefelter 1. Mutation in of glutamic acid by valine
syndrome autosomal gene at the fifth position of beta
chain of haemoglobin
B. Thalassaemia 2. Mutation in sex
chromosome-linked molecule.
gene The sixth position of beta chain of haemoglobin
molecule.
C. Down 3. Trisomy of
507. Read the following statements and choose the
syndrome autosome
correct option.
D. Colour 4. Trisomy of sex I. Failure of segregation of chromatids
blindness chromosome during cell division results in aneuploidy.
(a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 (b) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 II. Chromosomal disorders are mainly
(c) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 (d) A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2 determined by alteration or mutation in a
WB JEE-2015 single gene.
Ans. (d) : III. Thalasemia and cystic fibrosis are
Mendelian disorders.
(A) Klinefelter syndrome (4) Trisomy of sex
IV. Sickle cell anemia is an X-linked trait.
chromosome
V. Haemophilia is an autosome linked
(B) Thalassaemia (1) Mutation in autosomal recessive disease.
gene (a) I and III alone are correct
(C) Down syndrome (3) Trisomy of autosome (b) I, III and IV alone are correct
(D) Colour blindness (2) Mutation in sex (c) III and IV alone are correct
chromosome-linked gene (d) II and III alone are correct
506. Read the following statements and choose the (e) I, III, and V alone are correct
correct option. Kerala PMT-2013
I. In phenylketonuria the affected person does Ans. (a) :
not secrete the enzyme to convert Incorrect Statement (II) Chromosomal disorders
phenylalanine to tyrosine. are mainly determined by
II. The possibility of a male becoming alteration or mutation in a
haemophilic is extremely rare. single gene.
III. Sickle cell anemia is caused by the Correct explaination – Chromosomal disorders
substitution of glutamic acid by valine at the are determined by
fifth position of beta chain of haemoglobin alteration or mutations in
molecule. multiple gnenes.
IV. Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal Incorrect Statement (IV) Sickle cell anemia is an X-
dominant trait. linked trait.
(a) I and II alone are wrong Correct explaination – Sickle-cell anaemia is
(b) II and III alone are wrong inherited as an autosomal
(c) II alone is wrong recessive condition i.e. the
(d) III alone is wrong gene is not linked to a sex
(e) II and IV alone are wrong chromosome.
Kerala PMT-2013 Incorrect Statement (V) Haemophilia is an
Ans. (b) : autosome linked recessive
Incorrect Statement (II) The possibility of a male disease.
becoming haemophilic is Correct explaination – Haemophilia is sex linked
extremely rare. recessive disease. The
Correct explanation – Haemophilia is an X- recessive X-Linked gene
linked disease. It is more for haemophilia shown
common in males and rare characteristic criss-cross
in females inheritance.
11. MOLECULAR BASIS OF
INHERITANCE AND VARIATION
4. The correct combinations among the following
A. The DNA Scientist Event
I Miescher -- Named nuclein
1. Histone proteins are positively charged because
II Fisher -- Isolated nucleic acids
they are rich in basic amino acid residues
III Altman -- Discovered purines
(a) Arginine and Proline
IV Franklin -- DNA X-ray diffraction
(b) Arginine and Alanine
(a) I & II (b) II & IV
(c) Arginine and Lysine
(c) III & IV (d) I & IV
(d) Arginine and Phenylalanine
Ans. (d) : DNA as an acidic substance present in
Ans. (c) : Histone is positively charged, basic protein.
Histon protein acquires charge depending upon the nucleus was first identified by Friedrich meischer in
abundance of amino acids residue with charged side 1869. He named it as 'Nuclein'. Howeve, due to
chain. technical limitation in isolating such a long polymer
intact. The elucidation of structure of DNA remained
Histone are rich in the basic amino acid residues lysines
elusive for a very long period of time. It was only in
and arginies. Both the amino acid residues carry
1953 that James Watson and Francis crick, based on the
positive charge in their side chain histon are organised
X-ray diffraction data produced by Maurice wilkins and
to form a unit of eight molecules called as histone
Rosalind Franklin, proposed a very simple but famous
octamer.
Double Helix modle for the structure of DNA.
2. Chromosomal DNA with 40% Adenine and
60% Guanine replicated during S phase of 5. Introduction of Genetically modified DNA into
interphase. Then ratio of Thymine and eukaryotic cell is called
Cytosine in that in that DNA after replication (a) Transduction (b) Electroporation
respectively. (c) Polyplexes (d) Transfection
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 3 : 2 AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 2 : 4 Ans. (d) : Introduction of Genetically modified DNA
AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II into eukaryotic cell is called transfection. It is the
Ans. (c) : Chargoff rule = A = T process which artificially introducing nucleic acids in to
cell.
G≡C
Adenine = 40% 6. Scientist associated with DNA sequencing is
Guanine = 60% (a) T.H. Morgan (b) Karl Landsteiner
(Adenine) A = T = 40 + 40 ⇒ 80 (c) Mary Lyon (d) Frederick Sanger
(Thymin) AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II
Guanine (G) = C = 60 + 60 ⇒ 120 Ans. (d) : The Fragments were sequenced using
2:3 automated DNA sequences that worked on the principle
of a method developed by Frederick Sanger.
3. Arrange the three steps of PCR each cycle in (Remember, Sanger is also credited for developing
sequence method for determination of amino acid sequences in
I. Denaturation proteins).
II. Extension of primers These sequences were then arranged based on some
III. Primer annealing overlapping regions present in them. This required
IV. DNA Ligation generation of overlapping Fragments for sequencing.
(a) I, III and II (b) II, III and IV 7. Number of base pairs in full turn of the helical
(c) I, II and III (d) IV, III and I stand and the distance between base pairs in B-
TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I DNA
Ans. (a) : PCR stands for polymerase chain Reaction. (a) 11, 20Ǻ (b) 10, 3.4 Ǻ
In this reaction, multiple copies of the gene of interest is (c) 10, 34 Ǻ (d) 11, 34 Ǻ
synthesised in uitro using two sets of primers and the AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II
enzyme DNA polymerase. In polymerase chain reaction Ans. (b) : The two chain are coiled in a right handed
each cycle has three steps- fashion. The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm (34Ao) and
I. Denaturation there are roughly 10 bp in each turn. consequently, the
II. Extension of primers distance between a bp in a helix is approximately equal
III. Primer annealing to 3.4 Ao.
Molecular Basis of Inheritance and Variation 527 YCT
8. The diameter of DNA molecule is
(a) 15 Å (b) 20 Å
(c) 25 Å (d) 34 Å
VMMC-2011
Ans. (b) : DNA is made of two helical polynucleotide
chains or strands are spirally coiled clockwise around a
common central axis, forming a right handed double
helix of 2nm (20Å) thickness. The two stands are anti
parallel.
12. Melting of DNA at an elevated temperature

(70 0C) is primarily due to the breakdown of
(a) Phosphodiester bonds (b) Glycosidic bonds
(c) Disulphide bonds (d) Hydrogen bonds
WB JEE-2012
Ans. (d) : A hydrogen bond is a kind of bonding that is
present between an atoms of hydrogen and a pair of
other atoms having a high electronegativity.
13. The length of DNA having 23 base pair is
(a) 78 Å (b) 78.4 Å
(c) 74.8 Å (d) 78.2 Å
9. Which of the following is stained by using WB JEE-2009
carmine? Ans. (d) : The lenght of DNA having 23 base pair is
(a) Chromosomes (b) Bacteria 78.2 Å. The distance between first and second base pair
(c) Viruses (d) Diatoms will be 3.4 Å similarly, The distance between 23 base
VMMC-2011 pairs will be 3.4×23=78.2 Å.
Ans. (a) : Carmine has been used in biological staining. • DNA is the genetic material. The nucleotides are the
It is used in history to stain glycogen, major structural unit of the DNA.
mucopolysaccharides, cell organelles like cell nuclei,
chromosome.
● Bacteria are stained by gram staining.
● Virus are stained by acaridine orange stain
● Diatoms are stained by sol of methyl blue.
10. The total hereditary material outside the
chromosome is called as
(a) Plasmogene (b) Plasmon
(c) Muton (d) Recon
VMMC-2011
Ans. (b) : The total hereditary material outside the 14. The double helix model of Watson and Crick is
chromosome is called as Plasmon. The total hereditary known as
material present in a cell is divided into genome and (a) C-DNA (b) B-DNA
plasmon. Plasmon represents the outside of the nucleus. (c) Z-DNA (d) D-DNA
• Muton : - Muton is a mutational unit. UP CPMT-2004
• Recon : - Recon is a recombinational unit. Ans. (b) : There are several other conformation like Z-
11. If and isolated strain of DNA is kept at 82-90oC DNA and A-DNA.
then 15. Which of the following is structural subunit of
(a) it changes into RNA DNA?
(b) it breaks into two fragments (a) Protein (b) Carbohydrate
(c) it breaks into many fragments (c) RNA (d) Nucleotide
(d) it uncoils and the two strands separate WB JEE-2010
Punjab MET-2009 Ans. (d) : A nucleotide is the basic building block of
Ans. (d) : When DNA is heated to a temperature range nucleic acid (DNA & RNA). Nucleotide has 3 smallest
of 82 – 90°C, it undergoes a process called molecules.
denaturation. During denaturation, the hydrogen bonds (i) Nitrogenous bases
between the complementary base pairs in the double – (ii) A molecule of a pentose sugar
stranded DNA molecule break, causing the two strands (iii) A phosphate group
to separate or “uncoil”. All linked by dehydration condensation.
16. Chromosome is made up of 20. The banding pattern of chromosome three and
(a) DNA and pectin (b) RNA and DNA six of human beings and chimpanzee show that
(c) DNA and histone (d) only histone they had
WB JEE-2010 (a) different origin
Ans. (c) : Chromosome is made up of DNA and (b) common origin
histone. The combination of DNA and proteins is called (c) same number of chromosomes
chromosome. The protein in the chromosome is called (d) similar blood groups
histone, which is packed in a linear fashion. BVP-2010
Ans. (b) : The banding pattern of chromosome three
and six of human beings and chimpanzee show that they
had common origin. A comparative study of the banded
chromosomes shows that the total amount of DNA in
human diploid cells and that of the apes is more or less
similarity
17. Har Govind Khorana was awarded the Nobel

Prize for
(a) gene synthesis
(b) discovery of bacteria
(c) genetic code
(d) protein synthesis
Punjab MET-1999 21. A genome contains:
(a) Haploid chromosomal set
Ans. (a) : Har Govind Khorana was awarded the Nobel
Prize for gene synthesis. Har Govind Khorana (b) Diplold chromosomal set
developed a chemical method that was used in (c) Tetraploid chromosomal set
synthesizing RNA molecules with defined combinations (d) All of the above
of bases. Rajasthan PMT-1996
• Genetic code :- The genetic code is universal. The Ans. (a) : A genome contains haploid chromosomal set.
genetic code is the set of biochemical rule governing Haploid refers to half set of paired chromosome. In the
how genetic information encoded in nucleic acid is human genome, the 3 billion letters or base pairs of
converted into polypeptides (proteins). DNA forms the haploid set of 23 chromosome pairs in
18. Unit of nucleic acid is : the human cells.
(a) nucleotide (b) nucleoside • Tetraploidy :- Tetraploidy (4 set of chromosome, 2n
(c) nucleic acid (d) all of the these = 4X) is common in many plant species, and also occurs
BCECE-2005 in amphibians, reptiles and insects.
Ans. (a) : Unit of nucleic acid is nucleotide. 22. Which of the following enzyme is used in DNA
Nucleotides consists of a sugar group, a phosphate multiplication?
group and a nitrogen base. (a) RNA polymerase (b) DNA endonuclease
• Nucleic acid :- Nucleic acids are key molecules that (c) Exonuclease (d) DNA polymerase
contain genetic information and participating in protein UP CPMT-2003
synthesis. Ans. (d) : DNA polymerase enzyme is used in DNA
19. Nucleosome gives beaded appearance to multiplication. DNA polymerases are enzymes that
chromosomes. They help in packing of DNA in create DNA molecules by assembling nucleotide, the
the chromosomes. A nucleosome has building block of DNA.
(a) about two turns of DNA • RNA polymerase :- RNA polymerase is an enzyme
(b) 8 histone molecules (2 molecules each of that is responsible for copying a DNA sequence into an
H2A, H2B, H3 and H4) RNA sequence, during the process of transcription.
(c) 166 nitrogen base pairs 23. Which of the following progresses leads to
(d) All of the above DNA ladder formation?
BVP-2010 (a) Necrosis (b) Plasmolysis
(c) Apoptosis (d) Mitosis
Ans. (d) :
KVPY SB & SX-2015
• About two turns of DNA
Ans. (c) : DNA Ladder formation takes place during the
• 8 histone molecules (2 molecules each of H2A, H2B, process of apoptosis. Apoptosis is a form of
H3 and H4) programmed cell death that occurs in multicellular
• 166 nitrogen base pairs organisms.
• Necrosis :- Necrosis is the death of body tissue. It Ans. (a) : The central dogma is not applicable in the
occurs when too little flows to the tissue. case of retroviruses.
• Plasmolysis :- Plasmolysis is the process in which
cells lose water in a hypertonic solution.
24. Melting temperature for double stranded DNA
is the temperature at which 50% of the double
stranded molecules are converted into single
stranded molecules. Which one of the 29. How many of the nitrogen containing bases are
following DNA will have the highest melting common among both DNA and RNA?
temperature?
(a) Four (b) Two
(a) DNA with 15% guanine
(c) Three (d) One
(b) DNA with 30% cytosine
(c) DNA with 40% thymine
(d) DNA with 50% adenine Ans. (c) : The nitrogen containing bases are common
KVPY SB & SX-2015 among the both DNA and RNA is ‘three’, adenine,
guanine and cytosine.
Ans. (b) : The temperature at which one-half of a
double-stranded DNA molecule has been denaturated is 30. Total number of complete spirals occurring in
called the melting temperature. a segment of DNA having 100 nucleotides will
be ________.
• Highest melting temperature DNA with 30% cytosine. (a) 5 (b) 6
25. Given the fact that histone binds DNA, it (c) 3 (d) 4
should be rich in MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
(a) arginine, lysine Ans. (a) : Number of nucleotide bases of a spiral of ds-
(b) cysteine, methionine DNA molecule is twenty (10 base pairs)
(c) glutamate, aspartate So, 1 spiral = 20 nucleotide
(d) isoleucine, leucine 5 spiral = 20 × 5
KVPY SB & SX-2015 5 Spiral = 100 nucleotide
Ans. (a) : The histone binds DNA, it should be rich in 31. cDNA library is mostly constructed for
arginine and lysine. The positive charge of histone organisms like _________.
proteins help in the coiling of negatively charged DNA
around them. (a) yeast (b) cyanobacteria
(c) virus (d) bacteria
26. In which of the following, determination of
order of bases in a DNA molecule takes place MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
(a) Gene probing (b) Gene splicing Ans. (a) : cDNA library is mostly constructed for
(c) Gene mapping (d) Gene sequencing organisms like yeast. cDNA is also known as the
MGIMS Wardha-2014 complementary DNA, produced after the reverse
transcription of RNA by the enzyme reverse
Ans. (d) : Determining of the order of nucleotides transcriptase.
within a gene is known as DNA sequencing.
32. Which one of the following is NOT needed to
• Gene sequencing:-Gene sequencing includes any
construct solenoid fibre?
method or technology that is used to determine the order
of the four bases (adenine, guanine, cytosine and (a) Nucleosome
thymine). (b) DNA molecule
• Gene mapping :- Any of a number of method used (c) RNA molecule
to construct a model of the linear sequence of gene of (d) Basic proteins histones
particular chromosome. MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
27. Which of the following statements regarding a Ans. (c) : The solenoid model represents the
double helical molecule of DNA is true? organization of the nucleosome with the 30 nm wide
(a) Each strand is identical chromatin fibre. The term solenoid itself defines the
(b) Each strand replicates itself winding of the DNA helix. In eukaryotes, the DNA is
(c) Bases are perpendicular to the axis compressed into chromatin fibre after the association of
(d) All hydroxyl groups of pentose are involved; DNA-linking histone proteins.
in linkage
Manipal-2011
Ans. (c) : The double helical molecule of DNA bases
are perpendicular to the axis. The double helical model
of DNA proposed by Watson and Crick
28. The central dogma is not applicable in the case
of
(a) retroviruses (b) all prokaryotes
(c) all animal viruses (d) all plant viruses
Manipal-2011
33. Coliphage φ × 174 contains : A = 15%
(a) ssRNA (b) dsRNA T, which pairs with A, would also be 15%
(c) ssDNA (d) dsDNA Since guanine (G) pairs with cytosine (C), the
BHU PMT (Mains)-2005 remaining 70% of the DNA bases would be made up of
Ans. (c) : The coliphage φ × 174 contains ssDNA. It has guanine (G) and cytosine (C) in equal proportions:
a molecular weight of 1.70 × 106 Daltons and is 5386 G = 70% /2 = 35%
bases in length, greater than 85% of the molecules are C = 70% / 2 = 35%
circular. 38. Genes are made up of
34. If the total amount of adenine and thymine in a (a) Histones (b) Hydrocarbons
double-stranded DNA is 45%, the amount of (c) Polynucleotides (d) Lipoproteins
guanine in this DNA will be BHU PMT (Screening)-2009
(a) 22.5% (b) 27.5% Ans. (c) : Genes are made up of polynucleotides. Gene
(c) 45% (d) 55% was first introduced by Wilhelm Johannson in 1909.
DUMET-2010 A gene is the fundamental, physical and functional unit
Ans. (b) : The total amount of T and A = 45% then, of heredity.
total amount of G and C will be equal to 100% – 45% = • Histones :- Histones are the essential part of nuclear
55% matter and act as a control switch for DNA
Also, % G = %C, Therefore %G = %C transcription.
55% 39. Nucleotides are formed by
= = 27.5% so, the percentage of guanine in DNA
2 (a) Purine, sugar and phosphate
will be equal to 27.5%. (b) Purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
35. DNA can be formed by (c) Purine, pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
(a) transaminase (d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
(b) lyases Uttarakhand PMT-2009
(c) RNA dependent DNA polymerase BHU PMT (Screening)-2009
(d) All of the above Ans. (c) : Nucleotides are formed by purine,
DUMET-2008 pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate.
Ans. (c) : DNA can be formed by RNA dependent 40. The given diagram represents :
DNA polymerase. Reverse transcriptase also known as
RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, is a DNA
polymerase enzyme that transcribes single-stranded
RNA into DNA.
• Transaminase :- Transaminase are liver enzyme that
control process that filter toxins from the body.
36. Which is not correct according to Chargaff’s
rule?
(a) A + T = C + G (b) A + G = C + T (a) Nucleosome (b) Chromosome
(c) Mesosome (d) Ribosome
A+ G
(c) =1 (d) None of these Karnataka CET-2022
C+ T Ans. (a) : Nucleosome are the basic packing unit of
DUMET-2008 genomic DNA built from histone proteins around which
Ans. (a) : Chargaff’s rule :- Chargaff’s first rule, often DNA is coiled.
referred to as base pairing, states that in a double- • Chromosome :- A chromosome is a long DNA
stranded DNA molecule, the amount of A + T = C + G. molecule with part or all of the genetic material of an
37. In a DNA molecule, the adenine is 15% what organisms.
will be the percentage of guanine in this DNA? 41. The moiety present at the 5'end of ribose sugar
(a) 15% (b) 35% in a polynucleotide is
(c) 70% (d) 30% (a) OH (b) CH2
DUMET-2008 (c) Phosphate (d) Adenine
Ans. (b) : If adenine (A) is present in a DNA molecule (e) 5' methyluracil
at 15%, it means that thymine (T), which pairs with Kerala PMT-2015
adenine, would also be present at 15% because they Ans. (c) : The moiety present at the 5'end of ribose
always occur in equal proportions due to this pairing sugar in a polynucleotide is phosphate.
rule. • Adenine :- Adenine is one of the nitrogenous bases
So, in this DNA molecule; used in the nucleic acid synthesis process.
42. What is a nucleosome? Ans. (c) : The length of human DNA containing 6.6 ×
(a) A vesicle containing positively charged 109 base pair can be calculated as follows:
histones within nucleolus 1 bp = 0.34 nanometers.
(b) They are similar to endosomes So, the length would be 6.6 × 109 bp × 0.34 nm/bp
(c) A structure formed by wrapping of negatively = 2.244 × 109 nm
charged DNA around positively charged To convert nm to meters:
histone octamer 2.244 ×109 nm ×1n
(d) They are the transforming principles 2.244 × 109 nm =
discovered by Griffith 1, 000, 000, 000nm
(e) Negatively charged histone octamers = 2.244 meter.
Kerala PMT-2015 = 2.2 m.
Ans. (c) :.A structure formed by wrapping of negatively 47. In DNA molecule
charged DNA around positively charged histone (a) the total amount of purine nucleotides and
octamer. pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
(b) there are two strands, which run parallel in
the 5→3 direction
(c) the proportion of adenine in relation to
thymine varies with the organism
(d) there are two strands, which run antiparallel
one in 5→3 direction and other in 3→5
Rajasthan PMT-2010
Ans. (d) :In DNA molecule there are two strands,
which run antiparallel one in 5'→3' direction and other
in 3'→5'.
43. In the double-helical structure of DNA, the
pitch of the helix is 48. c-DNA is formed from m-RNA by which
(a) 3.4 nm (b) 0.34 nm enzyme:
(c) 6.6 nm (d) 34 nm (a) restriction endonuclease
(e) 6.6 × 10–9 m (b) reverse transcriptase
Kerala PMT-2015 (c) DNA polymerase
(d) RNA polymerase
Ans. (a) : In the double-helical structure of DNA, the
MGIMS Wardha-2005
pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm.
Ans. (b) : c-DNA is formed from m-RNA by enzyme:
44. Which of the following is used to select genes of reverse transcriptase
interest from a genomic library?
(a) Restriction enzymes (b) Cloning vectors • Restriction endonuclease – Restriction endonuclease
enzyme recognize short, specific sequence within DNA,
(c) Gene targets (d) DNA probes cut the DNA. These enzyme are vital in the process of
J&K CET-2012 protein synthesis.
Ans. (d) : DNA probes are short, single- stranded 49. A typical nucleosome contains
pieces of DNA that are used to detect the presence of (a) 100 bp of DNA helix
specific sequences of DNA or RNA in a sample. They (b) 200 bp of DNA helix
are typically labeled with a fluorescent or radioactive
marker, making it possible to visualize and identify the (c) 300 bp of DNA helix
target DNA or RNA. (d)400 bp of DNA helix
•Cloning vectors- Cloning vector is a small DNA AMU-2010
molecule capable of self replication inside the host cell. Ans. (b) : A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of
45. If a dsDNA has 20% adenine, what would be its DNA helix.
cytosine content? 50. The small segment of DNA which helps to
(a) 20% (b) 30% detect the presence of a gene or a long DNA
(c) 40% (d) 80% sequence in biological system is termed as
KVPY SA-2016 (a) DNA walker (b) cDNA
Ans. (b) : According to Chargaff’s rule, A + T = G + C (c) DNA clone (d) DNA probe
If a ds DNA has adenine 20% then thymine is 20% as AMU-1998
well as the total of both is 40% from 100 remains 60% Ans. (d) : The small segment of DNA which helps to
which is divided equally between guanine, cytosine so detect the presence of a gene or a long DNA sequence
each is 30%. in biological system is termed as DNA probe.
46. What is the length of human DNA containing 51. In DNA when AGCT occurs, their association
6.6×109 bp? is as per which of the following pair?
(a) 22 nm (b) 0.22 mm (a) AC - GT (b) AG - CT
(c) 2.2 m (d) 22 m (c) AT -GC (d) All of these
KVPY SA-2016 VMMC-2006 / JIPMER-2013
Ans. (c) : Adenine always pairs with thymine and 55. Direction: each of the question below consists
guanine pairs with cytosine their association is A-T and of two statements an Assertion (A) and a
G-C. Reason (R) mark the appropriate response as
52. What is nucleosome ? under:
(a) DNA wrapped around histone protein A: In a DNA molecule, the total quantity of
(b) RNA wrapped around histone protein purines equal to the total quantity of
(c) Polymer pyrimidines.
(d) None of the above R: Adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine
HP CET-2012 pairs with guanine.
Rajasthan PMT-1998 (a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
Ans. (a) : A nuclesome is the fundamental unit of (b) If both A and R are true but R is not the
chromatin .DNA wrapped around histone protein. correct explanation of A
• Polymer- A polymer is a large molecule or a (c) A is true but R is false
macromolecule, which essentially is a combination of
many subunits. (d) Both A and R are false
Haryana PMT-2002
Ans. (a) : Both assertion and reason are true. In a DNA
molecule the total quantity of purines equal to the total
quantity of pyrimidines. Adenine, the nitrogenous base
paired with thymine and cytosine paired with guanine.
56. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by
(a) X-ray crystallography
(b) electron microscope
(c) ultracentrifuge
(d) light microscope
53. The number of hydrogen bonds between Manipal-2015
adenine and thymine in a DNA molecule is AIPMT-1993
(a) two (b) three Ans. (a) : Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen
(c) four (d) eight by X-ray crystallography. It is widely used in
VMMC-2012 / DUMET-2009 biochemistry to examine the molecular structure of
BHU PMT (Screening)-2008 molecules such as protein and DNA.
UP CPMT-2008 / CG PMT-2008 • Electron microscope- An electron microscope is a
BVP-2007 / MGIMS Wardha-2006 microscope that uses a beam of electrons as a source of
Ans. (a) : The number of hydrogen bonds between illumination.
adenine and thymine in a DNA molecule is two. 57. An anlysis of a DNA (double stranded) sample
yielded 18% cytosine. What would be the
percentage of other bases in this sample?
(a) T–32 (b) G–32
(c) T–18 (d) A–18
CG PMT-2009
Ans. (a) : The proportion of G and C = 36% (18% of G
& 18% of C), which we can then reduce form 100%,
leaving us 64%. Since, A and T are complementary
base pairs, we now have a 32% of T in this DNA
sequence.
54. DNA element with ability to change position is T = 32%
called 58. The modern concept of gene is :
(a) cistron (b) transposon (a) a segment of DNA, capable of crossing over
(c) intron (d) recon (b) functional unit of DNA
VMMC-2012 / UP CPMT-2008 (c) a segment of RNA
BCECE-2006 (d) a segment of chromosome
Ans. (b) : A transposon, also known as a “jumping Haryana PMT-2004
gene” or a “mobile genetic element,” is a DNA Manipal-2003
sequence within an organism’s genome that has the Ans. (b) : The modern concept of gene is functional
ability to move or ‘transpose’ itself to different unit of DNA. Genes are passed from parents to
locations within the genome. These elements can offspring and contain the information needed to specify
change their position within the DNA molecule, which physical and biological trait. Most genes code for
can have various effects on an organism’s genetic specific proteins, or segments of proteins, which have
makeup. differing functions within the body.
59. Locations on sites in the human DNA where Directions: In the following question more than one
single base DNA differences occur are called of the answers given may be correct. Select the
(a) Repetitive DNA correct answer and mark it according to the code:
(b) VNTR 63. McClintock is related to
(c) SNP (a) plasmids (b) retroposons
(d) Expressed sequence tags (c) transposons (d) none of these
JCECE-2018 BCECE-2006 / VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004
Ans. (c) : SNP stands for ‘Single Nucleotide Ans. (c) : McClintock is related to transposons.
Polymorphism’. It refers to locations or points in the Transopons were first discovered in corn (maize) during
human DNA where a single base differs among the 1940s and ‘50’s by American scientist Barbara
individuals. These differences represents variations in the McClintock, whose work won her the Nobel prize for
genetic code and can occur throughout the human genome. physiology or medicine in 1983.
60. The bonds that hold the two complementary
64. Crick, one the discoverer of DNA double
strands of DNA together are
helical structure, was the man of
(a) Ionic bonds
(b) Peptide bonds (a) Physics (b) Chemistry
(c) Phosphodiester bonds (c) Zoology (d) Botany
(d) Hydrogen bonds AMU-2012
JCECE-2018 / Rajasthan PMT-2011 Ans. (a) : Francis Crick, one of the discoverer of DNA
Ans. (d) : The bonds that hold the two complementary double helical structure was the man of physics and a
strands of DNA together are hydrogen bonds. molecular biologist.
Phosphodiester bond- Phosphodiester bond formation
occurs between 2 hydroxyls (OH) group present in 2
different sugar molecules and a phosphate group.
61. The complementary synthetic and random
DNA are used as
(a) transposons (b) passenger DNA
(c) cloning vectors (d) recombinant DNA
Manipal-2013
Ans. (b) : The complementary synthetic and random
DNA are used as passenger DNA. Passenger DNA also
known as foreign DNA, is a piece of DNA that is
isolated from desired organism and inserted into vector
for cloning.
Cloning vector – Cloning vector is used as a vehicle 65. Nitrogen base + Pentose sugar + Phosphate
to artificially carry foreign genetic material into another group is
cell, where it can be replicated and expressed. (a) nucleoside (b) nucleotide
62. DNA can be (c) nucleic acid (d) pyrimidine base
(1) A-DNA (2) B-DNA AMU-2012
(3) Z-DNA (4) Y-DNA Ans. (b) : Nitrogen base + Pentose sugar + Phosphate
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct. group is nucleotide. A nucleotide consists of a sugar
(b) 1 and 2 are correct. molecule, a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group.
(c) 2 and 4 are correct. Nucleotide is structural and functional unit of nucleic
(d) 1 and 3 are correct. acids.
BHU PMT (Mains)-2008, 2005 Nucleic acid – Nucleic acid are biopolymers,
Ans. (a) : There are 3 different DNA type macromolecules, essential to all known forms of life.
● A-DNA:- It is right handed double helix similar to 66. DNA is present in
the B-DNA. (a) nucleus only (b) mitochondrion only
● B-DNA:- This is the most common DNA (c) chloroplast only (d) All of these
conformation and is a right handed helix. CG PMT-2006 / BVP-2002 / Haryana PMT-1999
● Z-DNA:- Z-DNA is a left handed DNA where the Ans. (d) : Mitochondria and chloroplast have their own
double helix wride to the left in a zig-zag pattern. DNA apart from the nucleus, which help them to
synthesize certain enzyme for the cell development and
their division.
67. In DNA molecule at the 5' end there is a free
_____.
(a) oxygen (b) nitrogen
(c) phosphate (d) hydroxyl
Ans. (c) : DNA and RNA are composed of nucleotides 72. DNA is acidic due to
that are linked to one another in a chain by chemical (a) sugar (b) phosphoric acid
bond, called ester bond, between the sugar base of one (c) purine (d) pyrimidine
nucleotide and the phosphate group of the adjacent Haryana PMT-2008
nucleotide. The sugar is the 3' end and the phosphate is Ans. (b) : DNA is acidic due to phosphoric acid. The
the 5' end of each nucleotide. phosphate group has hydrogen which exits by leaving
behind a negative charge on it when needed it exhibits
traits of being acidic.
73. Stain used by Feulgen to stain DNA is
(a) janus green (b) basic fuschin
(c) crystal violet (d) methylene blue
Haryana PMT-2008
Ans. (b) : Basic fuschin is used by Feulgen to stain DNA.
• Methylene blue – methylene blue is a medication
used in the management and treatment of
68. When DNA is formed from RNA, it is called methemoglobinemia, a condition in which haemoglobin
(a) D-DNA (b) Z-DNA decreases its ability to carry oxygen.
(c) C-DNA (d) A-DNA 74. A, B, and C are the three forms of DNA, in
BHU PMT (Screening)-2011 which
Ans. (c) : When DNA is formed from RNA, it is called (a) A and B are right-handed and C is left-handed
c- DNA. (b) A is right-handed and B and C are left-handed
(c) All three are right-handed, but the number of
69. The anti-parallel nature of DNA refers to
bases per turn in the three are different
(a) its charged phosphate groups
(d) All three are left-handed, but the number of
(b) the formation of hydrogen bonds between base pairs per turn in the three are different
bases from opposite strands VMMC-2015
(c) the opposite direction of the two strands
Ans. (c) : A, B, and C are the three forms of DNA, in
(d) the pairing of bases on one strand with bases which, all three are right-handed, but the number of
on the other strand bases per turn in the three are different.
DUMET-2009
75. Which is the unit of DNA?
Ans. (c) : The anti-parallel nature of DNA refers to the (a) Chromatin (b) Euchromatin
opposite direction of the two strands. (c) Chromosomes (d) Chromatids
70. Beadle and Tatum showed that each kind of CG PMT-2010
mutant bread mould they studied lacked a Ans. (a) : The unit of DNA is chromatin. Chromatin is
specific enzyme. Their experiments complex of DNA and protein found in eukaryotic cells.
demonstrated that Chromosomes – Chromosomes are thread like structure
(a) cells needs specific enzymes in order to made of protein and a single molecule of DNA that
function serve to carry the genomic information from cell to cell.
(b) genes are made of DNA 76. How many nucleosomes are found in helical
(c) enzymes are required to repair damage coil of 30 nm chromatin fibre ?
(d) genes carry information for making proteins (a) 6 (b) 10
DUMET-2009 (c) 12 (d) 9
Ans. (d) : Beadle and Tatum showed that each kind of Rajasthan PMT-2000
mutant bread mould they studied lacked a specific Ans. (a) : There are about 6 nucleosomes in this 30nm
enzyme. Their experiments demonstrated that genes chromatin fiber. Each nucleosome consists of DNA
carry information for making proteins. “One gene, one coiled around a core of histone proteins. The histone
enzyme” hypothesis, which later evolved into the “ one proteins play a role in packaging and condensing the
gene, one polypeptide” hypothesis. Essentially, they DNA while also regulating access to the genetic
showed that genes carry the information necessary for information within the DNA.
producing specific proteins and each gene is responsible
for coding a particular protein.
71. In DNA helix cytosine paired with guanine by :
(a) covalent bond (b) phosphate bond
(c) two H2 bonds (d) three H2 bonds
DUMET-2001 / HP CET-2012 / Manipal-2010
Ans. (d) : In DNA helix cytosine paired with guanine
by three H2 bonds.
Covalent bond – A covalent bond is a chemical bond in
which pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms.
77. The barr body is observed in (c) endosymbiont representing Gram negative
(a) 3% male basophils bacterial species
(b) 3% female basophils (d) submicroscopic granules formed by the
(c) 3% male neutrophils folding of naked DNA
(d) 3% female neutrophils AMU-2003 , 2007
AMU-1996 Ans. (d) : Kappa particles are indeed submicroscopic
Ans. (d) : The barr body is observed in 3% female granules formed by the folding of naked DNA. These
neutrophils. particles are commonly found in the Paramecium.
78. Model of DNA structure was proposed by: Kappa particles are a specific biological structure
involving DNA folding.
(a) Beadle and Tatum (b) M.C. Chung
(c) Purkinje (d) Watson and Crick 83. Plasmids are the molecules of
VMMC-2003 / J&K CET-2002 (a) DNA (b) RNA
Ans. (d) : Model of DNA structure was proposed by (c) Protein (d) DNA bound by histones
Watson and Crick. AMU-2001
Ans. (a) : A plasmid is a small circular DNA molecule
found in bacteria and some other microscopic
organisms. Plasmids are physically separate from
chromosomal DNA and replicate independently
84. The following ratio is generally constant for a
given species
(a) A + G / C + T (b) T + C / G +A
(c) G + C / A + T (d) A + C / T + G
AIPMT-2014 / Manipal-2007
79. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means
that Ans. (c) : The ratio is generally constant for a given
(a) one strand turns anti-clockwise species G + C / A + T = 1. According to Chargaff’s
rule, G + C / A + T ratio varies with the species but is
(b) the phosphate groups of two DNA stranifa at constant for a species.
their ends, share the same position
85. Which of the following commonly known as
(c) the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA
Jumping genes?
strands are in opposite position (pole)
(a) Transgenic genes (b) Recon
(d) one strand turns clockwise (c) Plasmid (d) Transposon
BCECE-2013 / CMC Ludhiana-2009
Manipal-2006
AIPMT-2006
Ans. (d) : Transposon is commonly known as jumping
Ans. (c) : Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule genes. Barbara McClintock discovered jumping gene in
means that the phosphate groups at the start of two Zea mays.
DNA strands are in opposite position (pole).
86. Which of the following processes/technique was
80. A nucleoside is used by Watson and Crick for giving double
(a) Purine/ pyramidine + phosphate helical DNA model?
(b) Purine/ pyramidine + sugar (a) Differential staining (b) X-ray diffraction
(c) Pyramidine + purine + phosphate (c) Auto radiography (d) All of the above
(d) Purine + sugar + phosphate Manipal-2006
BCECE-2007 Ans. (b) : X-ray diffraction was used by Watson and
Ans. (b) : Nucleoside are made of a nitrogenous base, Crick for giving double helical DNA model.
usually either a purine or pyrimidine, and a 5- carbon 87. Which is related to feminism?
carbohydrate ribose. Nucleotides are nucleosides (a) DNA → RNA → Protein
covalently linked to one or more phosphate groups. (b) RNA → DNA → RNA → Protein
81. Unwinding of DNA is done by (c) DNA → RNA → Protein → DNA
(a) topoisomerase (b) exonuclease (d) None of above
(c) helicase (d) ligase Manipal-2006
Haryana PMT-2011 Ans. (b) : The feminism is related to
Ans. (c) : Unwinding of DNA is done by helicase. RNA →DNA→RNA→protein
DNA helicase are essential during DNA replication 88. Who was awarded Nobel Prize in 1959 for in
because they separate double-stranded DNA into single vitro synthesis of polyribonucleotide?
strands allowing each strand to be copied. (a) Tatum (b) Darwin
82. Kappa particles are (c) Kornberg (d) Khurana
(a) protozoan parasites whose multiplication is UP CPMT-2011
controlled by host metabolites Ans. (c): Ochoa and Kornberg awarded Nobel prize of
(b) viral particles capable of self perpetuation in physiology and medicine for in vitro synthesis of
host cytoplasm polyribonucleotide (1959).
89. Match the following lists: Ans. (b) : Beadle and Tatum conducted groundbreaking
List-I List-II List-III research in the 1940s that involved using X-rays to
A) Circular i) Sprouting I) Attach the induce mutations in the pink mould, Neurospora crassa.
DNA out of cell bacteria to Their work aimed to understand the relationship
the host between genes and enzymes.
tissue
B) Fimbriae ii) Outermost II) Solanaceae 92. Which is the wrong combination ?
layer of the (a) Landsteiner - Blood group
cell wall (b) Chargaff and Davidson - A = T, C = G
C) Middle iii) Makoi III) Plasmid (c) Watson and Crick - DNA structure
lamella DNA
D) Mesocarp & iv) No nuclear IV) Develops
endocarp membrane from the AMU -2000
fused cell plate Ans. (d) : Blood groups systems were discovered by
The correct match is: Carl Landsteiner.
A B C D Chargaff and Davidson discovered that A = T, C = G
(a) I, IV iii, I iv, III ii, II Watson and Crick discovered DNA structure.
(b) iv, III i, I ii, IV iii, II 93. Select the correct match
(c) iii, I ii, IV iv, II I, III (a) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(d) iv, III i, I iii, II ii, III (b) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I (c) G. Mendel - Transformation
Ans. (b) : (d) T.H. Morgan- Transduction
List - I List - II List - III NEET-2018
No nuclear Ans. (a) : A ribozyme is a type of RNA (ribonucleic
(A) Circular DNA Plasmid DNA
membrane acid) molecule that possesses enzymatic activity, which
Sprouting Attach the bacteria are typically proteins. Ribozymes are made up of RNA.
(B) Fimbriae They can catalyze chemical reactions, such as the
out of cell to the host tissue
cleavage or joining of nucleic acid strands.
Outermost layer Develops from
(C) Middle lamella 94. Which of the following enzymes are used to
of the cell wall the cell plate join bits of DNA : -
(D) Mesocarp and (a) Ligase
Makoi Solanceae
endocarp fused (b) Primase
90. Match the column- I with column-II and select (c) DNA polymerase
the correct option (d) Endonuclease
Column-I Column-II AIPMT-2002
(A) Female banded Krait (i) Humulin Ans. (a) : Ligases are used to join bits of DNA.
(B) Pancreas from dog (ii) DNA sample • Primase:- Primase is the enzymes that synthesizes
(C) Hair root of human (iii) Insulin RNA primers, oligonucleotides that are
extracted and complementarily bound to a nucleic acid polymer.
purified • DNA polymerase:- DNA polymerase III
(D) E. coli (iv) DNA probe holoenzymes is the primary enzymes involved in
(a) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii DNA replication in E. coli and belong to family C
(b) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv polymerases.
(c) A-iii, B-iv C-ii, D-i 95. If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres,
(d) A-iv, B-iii C-ii, D-i what will be the approximate number of base
MHT CET-04.10.2020 Shift-I pairs?
Ans. (d) : (1) 6.6 × 106 bp (b) 3.3 × 109 bp
9
Column-I Column-II (c) 6.6 × 10 bp (d) 3.3 × 106 bp
(A) Female banded Krait (iv) DNA Probe NEET-2022
(B) Pancreas from dog (iii) Insulin extracted Ans. (b) : Length between the two base pairs
and purified = 0.34 nm
(C) Hair root of human (ii) DNA sample Total length of the double helix of DNA = Total
(D) E. coli (i) Humulin number of base pairs X distance between the two base
91. Mutant strains of pink mould better known a pairs.
Drosophila of plant kingdom was produced by Let us consider the total number of base pairs as x.
Beadle and Tatum with the help of 1.1 m = x × 304 × 10–10 m
(a) gamma radiations (b) X - rays x = 3.3 × 109 bp
(c) P - rays (d) UV-rays So, in a 1.1 m length of DNA, there unit be about 3.3 ×
VMMC-2014 109 bp.
96. If A and C make 30% and 20% of DNA, (c) Shows high degree of polymorphism in
respectively, what will be the percentage population and also the same degree of
composition of T and G? polymorphism in an individual, which is
(a) T : 20%, G : 30% (b) T : 30%, G : 20% heritable from parents to children
(c) T : 30%, G : 30% (d) T : 20%, G : 20% (d) Does not code for proteins and is same in all
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 members of the population
Ans. (b) : Chargaff's nitrogen base pairing rule states
that amount of adenine is equal to thymine and guanine Ans. (c) : Satellite DNA is important because it shows
is equal to cytosine. high degree of polymorphism in population and also the
same degree of polymorphism in an individual, which is
Thymine-30%, Guanine-20% and cytosine also-20%.
heritable from parents to children.
97. In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a The name satellite DNA refers to the phenomenon that
nitrogenous base is linked to the –OH of repetitions of a short DNA sequence tend to produce a
(a) 1′ C pentose sugar different frequency of the bases adenine, cytosine
(b) 2′ C pentose sugar guanine and thymine.
(c) 3′ C pentose sugar
(d) 5′ C pentose sugar
NEET-2020 Phase-II
Ans. (a) : In the polynucleotide chain of DNA,
nitrogenous base is attached to the 1' carbon atom of
pentose sugar while, phosphate group is attached to the
5' carbon of the sugar and hydroxyl group is attached to
the 3' carbon of the sugar.
98. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule,
what will be the percentage of Thymine,
Guanine and Cytosine in it ?
(a) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
(b) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
(c) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
(d) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
101. The diagram shows an important concept in
NEET-2021 the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the
Ans. (d) : Here[A] = 30%, Therefore % of [T] is also blanks A to C:
30%.
Thus [G]+[C] = 100–60 = 40%,
[G] = 20% and [C]=20%
99. When the centromere is situated in the middle (a) A–translation B–extension C–Roslalind
of two equal arms of chromosomes, the Franklin
chromosome is referred as : (b) A–Transcription B–replication C–James
(a) Acrocentric (b) Metacentric Watson
(c) Telocentric (d) Sub-metacentric (c) A–translation B–transcription C–Erevin
NEET-2021 Chargaff
Ans. (b) : When the centromere is situated in the (d) A–transcription B–translation C–Francis
middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the NEET-2013
chromosomes is called metacentric. Ans. (d) : Cell carry out many vital function. The DNA
• When the centromere is present slightly away from codes for the production of messenger RNA (mRNA).
the middle, it is called sub-metacentric During transcription messenger RNA carries coded
chromosome. information to ribosome read this information and use it
Transcription Translation
• When the centromere is present very close to one end DNA  → mRNA  → Protein
of the chromosome, it is known acrocentric (Francis Crick.)
chromosome. 102. DNA fragments are
• When the centromere is present at terminal position, (a) Positively charged
chromosome is refers as telocentric. (b) Negatively charged
100. Satellite DNA is important because it (c) Neutral
(a) Code for enzymes needed for DNA (d) Either positively or negatively charged
replication depending on their size
(b) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle NEET-2017
Ans. (b) : DNA fragments are negatively charged hydrogen bonds. Thus, the total number of C and G
molecules. The reason why DNA is negative charged is base pairs is 60 – 22 = 38.
the phosphate ( PO 24− ) group that constitutes every As the number of C bases is equal to the number of G
bases, both equal to 38 bases.
nucleotides. DNA is the hereditary material in human
106. X-rays are used in
and almost all other organisms.
(a) ECG (b) EEG
103. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is (c) CT-scan (d) Endoscopy
approximately- JIPMER-2005
(a) 20 nm (b) 0.34 nm
Ans. (c) : X-rays are used in CT-scan (computed
(c) 3.4 nm (d) 2 nm tomographic scanning).
AIPMT-2006 X-ray use invisible electromagnetic energy beams to
Ans. (c) : B-form of DNA shows right handed coiling produce image of internal tissues, bones and organs on
which contains 10 base pairs in each turn. One complete film or digital media. Standard X-ray performed for
turn of DNA occupies 34 Å distance. So, in nm it will many reasons, including diagnosing tumors or bone
3.4 nm because injuries. X-ray used in CT-scan and fluoroscopy.
1 nm = 10–9 m 107. A genophore is made up of
1 Å = 10–10 m (a) a single double stranded DNA
34 Å = 34 × 10–10 m (b) a single stranded DNA
or = 3.4 × 10–9 m (c) RNA and histones
so = 3.4 nm (d) histones and non- histones
104. Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic JIPMER-2008
acids. Each nucleotide is a composite molecule Ans. (a) : A genophore is made up of a single double
formed by – stranded DNA. Bacteria being prokaryotes, lack
(a) Base-sugar-OH organized nucleus.
(b) Base-sugar-phosphate 108. In DNA 20% bases are adenine. What
(c) Sugar-phosphate percentage of bases are pyrimidines?
(d) (Base-sugar-phosphate) (a) 30% (b) 60%
AIPMT-2005 (c) 50% (d) 20%
Ans. (b) : Each nucleotide consist of : JIPMER-2019
(i) a nitrogenous heterocyclic base which may be Ans. (c) : According to Chargaff's rule
purine or pyrimidine. A + G = C + T = 50%
(ii) Sugar (deoxyribose in DNA, ribose in RNA) ∴ If A = 20% then T = 20%
(iii) Phosphate group. C + T = 50%
Nucleotides are organic molecules that serve as the C = 50% – 20% = 30%
monomers or subunits of nucleic acids like DNA and Total percentage of pyrimidine bases
RNA. (T + C) are 20+30 = 50%
• Nucleoside = Sugar + base (via glycosidic bond)
• Nucleotide = Nucleoside + Phosphate (via phospho 109. Nucleosome core is made of
diester bond) (a) Ho,H2 A, H2 B and H3
(b) H1, H2 A, H2 B, H4
(c) H1, H3A, H2B, H3 and H4
(d) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
AIPMT-1993
Ans. (d) : Nucleosome core is made of H2A, H2B, H3
and H4.
105. In a DNA segment having six coils, there are 110. A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases would
22 nitrogen base pairs linked by two hydrogen most probably be
bonds. How many cytosine bases are found in (a) Single stranded (b) Double stranded
that segment (c) Triple stranded (d) Four stranded
(a) 22 (b) 38 AIPMT-1993
(c) 44 (d) 76 Ans. (a) : A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases would
AP EAMCET-2008 most probably be single stranded.
Ans. (b) : DNA has 4 bases, 2 purines and 2 111. An octamer of 4 histones complexed with DNA
pyrimidines. Purines are namely A and G and the forms
pyrimidines are C and T. One complete turn of the (a) Endosome (b) Nucleosome
double helix has 10 base pairs. Therefore, 6 coils of (c) Mesosome (d) Centromere
DNA will have 10 × 6 = 60bp. A and T bases form 2 AMU-2002 / AIPMT-1990
Ans. (b) : An octamer of 4 histones complexed with Ans. (b) : In cells, DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) is the
DNA forms nucleosome. nucleic acid that functions as the original blueprint for
112. Match the following columns the synthesis of proteins. DNA is a double–stranded
molecule that has a long chain of nucleotides.
Column I Column II
DNA replicates on its own. It is self–replicating.
I. Multigenes (i) transposons
RNA (Ribonucleic acid) is a single stranded molecule
II. Inducible genes (ii) insulin which has a shorter chain of nucleotides. RNA does not
III. Overlapping (iii) B, E, and K in replicate on its own. It is synthesized from DNA when
genes φ×174 required.
IV. Structural genes (iv) snRNA • DNA and RNA both can function as genetic material.
(v) globin gene • DNA is storage of genetic material and RNA transfers
(vi) nitrate genetic information.
reductase 115. The human genome contains ___ A ___ billion
(a) I-(i), II-(iii), III-(v), IV-(ii) nucleotide bases. The average gene consists of
___ B ___ bases. Which option is correct for A
(b) I-(v), II-(vi), III- (iii), IV-(ii)
& B?
(c) I-(iv), II-(v), III-(vi), IV-(i)
(a) A = 3, B = 3000 (b) A = 5, B = 3000
(d) I-(i), II-(ii), III-(v), IV-(vi)
(c) A = 3, B = 2000 (d) A = 4, B = 3000
AIIMS-2017
GUJCET-2017
Ans. (b) : This is because of globin genes are multi
Ans. (a) : The human genome contains approximately 3
gene, the nitrate reductase is a type of inducible genes,
billion nucleotide bases.
B, E, and K in φ×174 are related to the overlapping
So, A = 3 is correct
genes, and insulin is a type of structural gene.
The average gene consist of around 3,000 bases.
(i) Multi genes – Globin gene
So, B = 3000 is correct.
(ii) Inducible genes – Nitrate reductase
(iii) Overlapping genes – B, E and K in φ×174 116. The length of DNA helix in a typical
nucleosome is
(iv) Structural genes – Insulin
(a) 200 bp (b) 1000 bp
113. Chromatin is constituted by (c) 3.2 ×106 bp (d) 6.6 ×109 bp
(I) Non Histone chromosomal proteins
Karnataka CET-2020
(II) Densely packed DNA with dark stain
Ans. (a) : The length of DNA helix in a typical
(III) Repeated units of DNA with 200bp length
nucleosome is 200 bp approximately. The negatively
(IV) Repeated units of negatively charged DNA charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged
wrapped by positively charged histone histone octamer to form nucleosome.
protein
Options:
(a) I, II (b) III, IV
(c) I, III (d) II, IV
Ans. (b) : Chromatin refers to a mixture of DNA and
proteins that form the chromosomes found in the cells
of humans and other higher organisms. Many of the
proteins–namely, histones–package the massive amount
of DNA in a genome into a highly compact form that
can fit in the cell’s nucleus.
114. Choose the correct statements.
(A) DNA directly codes for the synthesis of
proteins
(B) DNA and RNA both can function as 117. DNA, present in the nucleus, was named as
genetic material 'Nuclein' by
(C) DNA is storage of genetic material and (a) James Watson and Crick
RNA transfers genetic information (b) Friedrich Miescher
(D) RNA is indirectly codes for the synthesis of (c) Maurice Wilkins
protein (d) Rosalind Franklin
Options: Karnataka CET-2018
(a) A, B (b) B, C Ans. (b) : In 1869, Friedrich Miescher isolated, nuclein,
(c) A, D (d) B, D DNA with associated protein from cell nuclei. He was
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I the first to identify DNA as a distinct molecule.
118. Identify the palindromic sequence in the Choose the correct statements from given
following base sequences : options.
5' − C G A T A − 3' (a) I and III (b) I, II and III
(a) | | | | | (c) II, III and IV (d) I, III and IV
3' − G C T A T − 5' JIPMER-2016
Ans. (d) : Biologists accepted DNA as the genetic
5' − G G A T C C − 3' material. It has two pyrimidine bases which contain
single ring structure. In each DNA, each base pair is
(b) | | | | | | 0
3' − C C T A G G − 5' 3.4 A apart from others base pair. It encodes
information through the sequence of the nucleotides
along each strand. Each base–A, C, T or G contains
5' − C C T G C − 3'
biological messages in the chemical structure of DNA,
(c) | | | | | where (A and G) are purine bases composed of two ring
3' − G G A C G − 5' structure whereas pyrimidines (T and C) are composed
of one ring structure.
5' − G A A T T G − 3' It follows that an equal proportion of purines and
(d) | | | | | | pyrimidines is always seen in double stranded DNA,
i.e.,
3' − C T T A A C − 5'
A+G
Karnataka CET-2018 A + G = T + C or =1
T+C
Ans. (b) : For a nucleotide sequence to be considered as
a palindrome, its complementary strand must read the 121. In the DNA molecule:
same in the opposite direction. (a) the proportion of adenine in relation to
thymine varies with the organism
(b) there are two strands which run antiparallel
The palindrome in DNA is a sequence of base pair that one in 5'→3' direction and other in 3'→5'
reads the same on the two strand when orientation of (c) the total amount of purine nucleotides and
reading are kept the same pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
119. Identify the DNA segment which is not a (d) there are two strands which run parallel in the
palindromic sequence: 5'→3' direction
(a) 5' - GAATTC - 3' AIPMT-2008
3' - CTTAAG - 5' Ans. (b) In the DNA molecule there are two strands
(b) 5' - CCCGGG - 3' which run antiparallel one in 5'→3' direction and other
3' - GGGCCC - 5' in 3'→5'.
(c) 5' - GGATCC - 3' These two strands are complementary, meaning that the
3' - GGTACC - 5' sequence of nitrogenous bases on one strand pairs
(d) 5' - GCGGCCGC - 3' specifically with the sequence on the other strand.
3' - CGCCGGCG - 5' Adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with
Karnataka CET-2014 cytosine. The antiparallel arrangement of the two
Ans. (c) : Palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA strands allows this base pairing to occurs in a way that
molecule is the sequence of base pair that reads same maintains the overall structure of the DNA molecule.
when orientation of reading is same i.e., 5' to 3' on both
strands. There are 4 nucleotides in DNA (I) Adenine (II)
Cytosine (III) Guanine (IV) Thymine.
120. Consider these sentences regarding to the
structure and nature of DNA. 122. The two polynucleotide chain in DNA are:-
I. DNA has two pyrimidine bases which (a) Semiconservative (b) Parallel
contain single ring structure. (c) Discontinuous (d) Antiparallel
II. In DNA, composition of bases should be AIPMT-2007
A+T Ans. (d) : The two polynucleotide chain in DNA are
= 1.
G +C antiparallel.
o
The term antiparallel refers to the orientation of the two

A
III. Each base pair of DNA is 3.4 apart

from others base pair. polynucleotide chains in a DNA molecule. The
IV. The nucleosome model DNA packaging antiparallel arrangement means that the two
was proposed by Kornberg and Thomas. polynucleotides chains run in opposite directions along
the length of DNA molecules. (c) A = Replication, B = Transformation, C =
Transcription, D = Translation
(d) A = Reverse transcription, B = Replication, C
= Transcription, D = Translation
Karnataka CET-2008
Ans. (d) :
Reverse Replication Transcription Translation
RNA 
Transcription
→ DNA  → DNA  → mRNA  →
Polypeptide
125. A distinct mechanism that usually involves a

short segment of DNA with remarkable
capacity to move from one location in a
chromosome to another is called
(a) DNA replication
(b) DNA hybridizaion
(c) DNA recombination
(d) DNA transposition
123. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds UP CPMT-2005
the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic Ans. (d): DNA transposition refers to a distinct genetic
cells. How is this DNA accommodated ? mechanism where a short segment of DNA known as a
(a) Through elimination of repetitive DNA transposon or a “ jumping gene”, has the remarkable
(b) Deletion of non-essential genes ability to move form one location in a chromosome to
(c) Super-coiling in nucleosomes another.
(d) DNase digestion 126. In DNA, which is absent?
AIPMT-2007 (a) Adenine (b) Thymine
Ans. (c) : The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds (c) Guanine (d) Uracil
the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. This UP CPMT-2005
DNA accommodated super-coiling in nucleosomes. Ans. (d): Uracil is absent in DNA. In DNA, thymine is
present in place of uracil and as the name says
deoxyribo, an OH group is absent in the 2nd position of
ribose sugar.
DNA→ Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine.
RNA → Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil.
127. Satellite DNA is useful tool in
(a) organ transplantation
(b) sex determination
(c) forensic science
(d) genetic engineering
JIPMER-2014
Ans. (c) : Satellite DNA is useful tool in forensic
science. The field of forensic science is highly depend
on the DNA fingerprinting technique that make use of
satellite DNA to identify the criminal during a crime
investigation and also to settle parental disputes.
128. DNA is .......... charged and is usually held with
some proteins which are ......... charged in a
region termed as ........ .
124. The sequence of events mentioned below are
(A) Positively (B) Negatively
symbolised by alphabets. Choose the correct
(C) Loops (D) Genophore
answer where the alphabets are matched with
(E) Nucleoid
the processes.
(a) B, C, D (b) C, A, E
(c) D, E, B (d) B, A, E
(a) A = Replication, B = Transcription, C = TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-II
Translation, D = Transduction Ans. (d) : DNA (being negatively charged) is held with
(b) A = Reverse transcription, B = Translation, C some proteins (that have positive charged) in a region
= Transcription, D = Replication termed as ‘Nucleoid’.
129. Assertion (A): Histones are positively charged Ans. (c): Two molecule of DNA are side ways linked
basic proteins with DNA. by purine- pyrimidine hydrogen bond. The two
Reason (R) : Histones are rich in basic amino polynucleotide helical chain of DNA molecule remain
acid residues lysine and arginine. held together by hydrogen bond.
The correct option among the following is: Those bond are in such a manner that adenine bond with
(a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct thymine (A = T) and guanine bond with cytosine by
explanation for (A) three hydrogen bond (G ≡ C).
(b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the
a) Glycosidic bond– glycosidic linkages are commonly
found in carbohydrates, such as sugar and starches.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true b) Ester bond- An ester bond is formed between the
sugar base of one nucleotide and the phosphate group
of another nucleotide.
Ans. (a) : Histones are highly basic proteins abundant
in lysine and arginine residues that are found in 133. Which of the following structures are present
eukaryotic cell nuclei. They act as spools around which in core particle of nucleosome?
DNA winds to create structural units called (a) Octamer of histone proteins
nucleosomes. There are four types of histones, named (b) 200 bp of DNA
H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 (c) Non-histone proteins
130. Assume that a DNA molecule is having three (d) Linker DNA
full helical turns and each turn with three SRM JEEE-2018
guanines. How many double bonds are possible
between purines and pyrimidines in the above Ans. (a) : Octamer of histone proteins structure are
mentioned DNA molecule ? present in core particle of nucleosome. It represent the
(a) 9 (b) 18 first level of chromatin organization and is composed of
(c) 21 (d) 30 two copies of each histone.
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II • Non histone proteins are the remains in chromatin,
Ans. (c) : 21 double bonds are possible between purines after all the histone proteins have been removed.
and pyrimidines in the above mentioned DNA • Linker DNA describes the non-nucleosomal DNA
molecules. connecting two or more nucleosomes in an array.
131. Choose the correct statements among the 134. Which One of the following statements is
following INCORRECT about nucleosomes?
(A) H1 Histone molecule lies outside (a) They contain DNA
nucleosome and seals (b) They contain histones
(B) Negatively charged DNA and positively (c) They are membrane-bound organelle
charged histones allows packaging of DNA (d) They are a part of chromosomes
(C) Each nucleosome has 6 histone molecular KVPY (SA)-05.11.2017
and 145 nucleotides pairs of DNA
(D) The DNA between two successive Ans. (c) : Nucleosomes are structural units of DNA
nucleosomes is called linker DNA found within the cell nucleus, and they play a crucial
(a) A, B, C (b) B, C, D role in packaging and organizing DNA. Nucleosomes
(c) A, C, D (d) A, B, D consist of DNA wrapped around a core of histone
proteins. Nucleosomes are not membrane-bound
organelles. They are located within the nucleus of a cell
Ans. (d) : H1 binds to the entry or exit site of DNA on but are not enclosed by a membrane.
the surface of nucleosomal core particle and completes
the nucleosome. 135. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a
● DNA having negatively charged while histones are radioactive molecular is called –
basic proteins, and their positive charges allow them (a) Vector (b) Probe
to associate with DNA. (c) Clone (d) Plasmid
● Charged DNA form complexes called nucleosomes. AIPMT (Screening)-2010
● Linker DNA describes the nucleosomal DNA Ans. (b) : Probes are single stranded, radiolabel led
connecting two or more nucleosomes in an array. molecules of nucleic acids with known sequence.
132. Two molecule of DNA are sideways linked by The probes having sequence complementary to the gene
(a) Glycosidic bond identified and supplied. They bind with the particular
(b) Ester bond gene segment.
(c) Purine-pyrimidine hydrogen bond Radiation imaging identifies the location of that
(d) Both (a) and (b) particular segment which binds with probe. Probes are
UP CPMT-2014 used as identification tool.
136. Which one of the following palindromic base Ans. (a) : Viable material of endangered species can be
sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the preserved by gene bank. Gene bank is an institute that
middle by some particular restriction enzyme? maintains stock of viable seeds (seed banks), live
(a) 5' _____ CG TTCG ______ 3' growing plants (Orchids), tissue culture and frozen
3' ______ATGGTA ______5' germplasm with the whole range of genetic variability.
(b) 5'______GATATG ______3' This idea was initiated by N.I. Vavilov, who set up a
3'______CTACTA ______5' large gene bank in Leningrad. By 1980s there were
dozens of gene bank in seventy countries around the
(c) 5'______GAATTC ______3' world.
3'______CTTAAG______5'
140. Length of one loop of B- DNA:
(d) 5'______CACGTA______3'
(a) 3.4 nm (b) 0.34 nm
3'______CTCAGT______5'
(c) 20 nm. (d) 10 nm
AIPMT-2000
Ans. (c) : The palindromic base sequence in DNA that Ans. (a) : B-DNA is one of the most common structural
can be easily cut at about the middle by a particular forms of DNA. It is characterized by its right handed
restriction enzyme is typically one that reads the same double helix structure, where two strands of DNA wind
forward and backward. around each other. In this structures, one full turn of the
5'______GAATTC ______3' DNA helix spans a distance of approximately 3.4
3'______CTTAAG______5' nanometers.
137. Which of the following Nitrogen bases is found
only in DNA?
(a) Adenine (b) Guanine
(c) Cytosine (d) Thymine
Karnataka CET-2019
Ans. (d) : Thymine is specially found in DNA. Uracil is
found in RNA and gaunine and cytosine are found in
DNA as well as in RNA.
A. Chargaff 1. Wilkin and
Franklin 141. Similarity in DNA and RNA:
B. Replicon 2. Uptake of (a) Both are polymer of nucleotides
lactose (b) Both have similar pyrimidine
C. Permease 3. hn RNA (c) Both have similar sugar
D. Split gene 4. Length of (d) Both are genetic material
DNA AIPMT-2000
E. X-ray diffraction 5. (A + G) = (C + T) Ans. (a) : Deoxyribonucleic acid and ribonucleic acid
studies as the name suggests are made up of several nucleotide
A B C D E monomers. Each nucleotide consists of pentose sugar,
(a) 5 4 2 3 1 phosphate group and nitrogenous bases. DNA has
deoxyribose sugar whereas RNA has ribose sugar. The
(b) 5 4 1 3 2
bases in DNA molecule are A, T, G and C whereas in
(c) 5 4 2 1 3 RNA, thymine is absent and uracil is found in place of
(d) 5 1 2 3 4 thymine. Both the molecules of DNA and RNA exhibit
AP EAMCET-2006 a phosphate backbone to which attachment of bases
Ans. (a) : Chargaff - (A + G) = (G + T) takes place.
Replicon - Length of DNA 142. Variations in proteins are due to :
Permease - Uptake of lactose (a) Sequence of amino acids
Split gene - hn RNA (b) Number of amino acids
X-ray diffraction - Wilkin and Franklin (c) R–group
studies (d) None
139. Viable material of endangered species can be AIPMT-1998
preserved by: Ans. (a) : The sequence of amino acids is decided by
(a) Gene bank (b) Gene library the sequence of nucleotide in DNA.
(c) Herbarium (d) Gene pool • The sequence of nucleotide in DNA, determine the
AIPMT-2000 sequence of nucleotide in mRNA.
• Proteins are polymers of amino acid, a number of B. Searching of Genetic Material
amino acid are joined together by peptide bond to
form proteins so variation in proteins due to sequence 147. Separated bands of DNA are cut out from the
of amino acids. agrose gel and extracted from gel piece. This is
143. Molecular weight of DNA in yeast is known as
(a) 2.56 × 109 (b) 0.5 × 109 (a) Elution (b) Spooling
7
(c) 7 × 10 (d) 6 × 106 (c) Centrifugation (d) Detergent lysis
AIPMT-1999 TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
Ans. (a) : Molecular weight of DNA in yeast is 2.56 × Ans. (a) : The separated DNA Fragments can be
109. visulaised only after staining the DNA with a compound
• (Molecular weight)yeast = No. of base pair × Average known as ethidium bromide, followed by exposure to
molecular mass of one base pair. uv radiation. The separated bands of DNA are cut out
= 2 × 109 daltons/ g/mol. from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece.
(∴ The average molecular mass of This step is known as elution.
one base pair is 650 g/mol.) 148. Study the following list
144. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used List – I List – II
synonymously because : - A. Exon I. Fragment of DNA
(a) One cistron contains many genes coding for polypeptide
(b) One gene contains many cistrons B. Intron II. Non-coding sequence
(c) One gene contains one cistron of DNA
(d) One gene contains no cistron C. Cistron III. Coding sequence of
AIPMT-2001 DNA
Ans. (c) : Gene and cistron words are sometimes used D. Sigma IV. Initiator of
synonymously because one gene contains one cistron. A factor transcription in
cistron is a term that was historically used to describe a prokaryotes
segment of DNA that codes for a specific polypeptide V. Termination of
or protein. transcription
145. What are those structures that appear as Correct match is
'beads- on-string' in the chromosomes when (a) A – III, B – II, C – I, D - IV
viewed under electron microscope ? (b) A – III, B – II, C – V, D - IV
(a) Base pairs (b) Genes (c) A – III, B – I, C – II, D - IV
(c) Nucleotides (d) Nucleosomes (d) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D - I
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
Ans. (d) : The DNA molecule wraped around to the Ans. (a) :
histone core to form nucleosomes. Observed the under
electron microscope look like "beads on string" Exon Coding sequence of DNA
Intron Non-coding sequence of DNA
Cistron Fragment of DNA coding for
polypeptide
Sigma factor Initiator of transcription in
prokaryotes.
149. Which one of the following was rediscoverer of
Mendel’s work:
(a) Muller (b) Morgan
(c) Correns (d) Bridge
Rajasthan PMT-2004
146. Who was awarded Nobel Prize in 1959 for in Ans. (c) : Mendel’s work was rediscovered by Carl
vitro synthesis of polyribonucleotide? Correns, Hugo deVries and Tschermak.
(a) Tatum (b) Darwin 150. A mutant strain of T4-bacteriophage R-II, fails
(c) Kornberg (d) Khurana to lyse the E. coli but when two stains R-IIx and
UP CPMT-2011 R-IIy are mixed then they lyse the E. coli. What
Ans. (c): Arthur Kornberg and Ochoa both are awarded may be the possible reason?
the Nobel prize in Physiology or medicine in 1959 for (a) Bacteriophage transforms in wild
his ground breaking work in the field of molecular (b) It is not mutated
biology. He was recognized for his contributions to the (c) Both strains have similar cistrons
in vitro synthesis of polyribonudeotide, which is a key (d) Both strains have different cistrons
component of RNA. BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
Ans. (d) : The inability of the mutant strain of T4- (c) McClintock
bacteriophage R-II to lyse E. coli suggests that there is a (d) Feulgen and Rossenbeck
defect in one or more genes required for the lysis JIPMER-2000
process. When two different strains, R-IIx and R-IIy are Ans. (d) : Feulgen and Rossenbeck developed
mixed and they are able to lyse E. coli, it indicates that cytochemical technique for the presence of DNA.
they complement each other in some way, likely
156. Griffith in his experiment with Diplococcus
because they carry mutation in different cistrons.
pneumoniae discovered ________.
151. Taylor (1958) studied chromosome replication (a) r-DNA
by using radioactive (b) transformation
(a) uridine (b) thymidine
(c) gene expression
(c) histones (d) phosphate
(d) reverse transcription
CG PMT-2007 MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (b) : In 1958, J.H Taylor who performed several
Ans. (b) : The most important finding of Griffith’s
experiments on root tip cells of Vicia faba. In the experiments with Pneumonia in rats was the finding that
experiment, he used radioactive 3H thymidine. bacteria are capable of transferring genetic information
152. Wilkins X-ray diffraction showed the diameter through transformation.
of the DNA helix as 157. In vitro synthesis of RNA and DNA was carried
(a) 10 Å (b) 20 Å out first by :
(c) 30 Å (d) 40 Å (a) Ochoa and Nirenherg
CG PMT-2007 (b) Ochoa and Kornberg
Ans. (b) : Wilkins' X-ray diffraction experiments were (c) Nirenberg and Khorana
crucial in providing insights into the structure of DNA. (d) Kornberg and Nirenberg
In these experiments, X-ray were directed at DNA Haryana PMT-2003
molecules, and the resulting diffraction patterns were
analyzed to determine the dimensions of the DNA helix. Ans. (b) : During a research carried the span of more
The measurement of the diameter of the DNA helix than sixty years. Ochoa and Kornberg made many
came out to be approximately 20 Å. outstanding contributions to molecular biology. He was
the first to isolate DNA polymerase, the enzyme that
153. The unequivocal proof of DNA as genetic assembles DNA from its components, and the first to
material come from studies on a synthesize DNA in a test tube, which earned him a
(a) viroid (b) bacterial virus Nobel Prize in 1959.
(c) bacterium (d) fungus
158. In polytene chromosomes dark bands are
Manipal-2015 visible. These bands are formed by the
Ans. (b) : The unequivocal proof of DNA as genetic apposition of :
material came from studies on a bacteriophages (Virus (a) protein particles
that infects bacteria). The experiments performed by (b) chromomeres on chromonemata
Alfred Hershey and Martha chase. (c) nucleosomes
• Bacteriophages , also known as phages are viruses (d) none
that infect and replicate only in bacterial cell.
AFMC-2006
154. What was the key finding from Griffith's Ans. (b) : Polytene chromosomes consist of two regions
experiments using live and heat killed (a) dark band (b) light band, dark band are densly
pathogenic bacteria? packed region where the genes are superimposely
(a) Bacteria with a smooth coat could kill mice coiled, called chromomeres, on the long filament along
(b) Bacteria with a rough coat are not lethal which gene lie, called chromonemata, this dark band
(c) DNA is the genetic material also called heterochromatin which is trancriptionally
(d) Genetic material can be transferred from dead inert and light band are loosely packed segment of
to live bacteria chromosome which expresses during transcription,
JCECE-2018 called chromosome on chromonemata.
Ans. (d) : Griffith concluded that the R-strain bacteria 159. For the successful graft the adhesion between
must have taken up what he called a “transforming the Scion and Stock in essential. In your view,
principle” from the heat killed S bacteria, which which of the following is the earliest event
allowed them to “transform” in to smooth –coated towards good graft ?
bacteria and become virulent. I. Production of plasmodermata in the cell at
155. Who among the following scientists developed the interface of Scion and Stock.
cytochemical technique for the presence of II. Coordinated differentiation of vascular
DNA tissue between the Stock and Scion.
(a) Johannsen III. Regeneration of cortex and epidermis over
(b) Hammerling the union of Stock and Scion.

IV. Production of callus tissue between the cells Ans. (c) : List - I List - I I
of Scion and Stock. (a) Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus Parasites
(a) I and II (b) II and III
on bacteria
(c) II and IV (d) Only IV
VMMC-2015 (b) Discovery of DNA as genetic Griffith experiment
Ans. (d) : The callus tissue forms the initial bridge material
between the scion and stock, providing the basis for the (c) Salmonella typhimurium Transfer of genetic
graft to develop successfully.
material through
Callus tissue is an undifferentiated mass of plant cell
that forms at the graft interface. Callus tissue eventually phage
differentiates into various specialized tissues like (d) Pleomorphic bacteria Changes shape
varcular tissue, cortex and epidermis which are essential depending on nutrients.
for the long – term success of the graft.
163. Identify incorrect statement given below
160. Genes not located within the nucleus are almost (A) A replica of genophore is donated to
always found in recipient by donor during Bacterial
(a) cytosol (b) ribosome conjugation.
(c) cytoskeleton (d) cell membrane (B) Time taken for transfer of donar DNA to
CG PMT-2011 recipient bacterium is called generation
time
Ans. (a) : Genes not located within the nucleus are
(C) True sexual reproduction is absent in
almost always found in cytosol. Genes are contained in bacteria
chromosomes, which are in the cell medium. A (D) DNA components of bacteria can detect
chromosome contains hundreds to thousands of genes. biologically active toxic pollutants
Every normal human cell contains 23 pairs of Options:
chromosomes, for a total of 46 chromosomes. (a) A, B (b) A, B, C
161. Jumping genes in maize were discovered by (c) A, B, C, D (d) A, B, D
(a) Hugo de Vries (b) T.H. Morgan AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-I
(c) Barbara McClintock (d) Mendel Ans. (a) : Bacterial conjugation also referred to as
VMMC-2012 / MGIMS Wardha-2008, 2005 bacterial sex, is a major horizontal gene transfer
UP CPMT-2008 / Uttarakhand PMT-2007 mechanism through which DNA is transferred from a
UP CPMT-2003 donor to a recipient bacterium by direct contact.
Ans. (c) : Jumping genes in maize were discovered by 164. Identify the correctly matched statement pairs
Barbara McClintock. These ‘controlling elements’ from the following:
could move from one location to another on the (A) F. Griffith – Transformation in the
chromosome. bacteria
(B) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty – DNA
162. Match the following lists: passed from virus to bacteria
List I List II (C) Hershey and Chase – DNA is the genetic
(A) Bdellovibrio (I)Griffith material
bacteriovorus experiment (D) Wilkins and Franklin – RNA is a genetic
material in viruses
(B) Discovery of DNA (II) Changes shape (a) A, B (b) A, C
(c) B, C (d) B, D
as genetic material depending on
nutrients
Ans. (b) : In 1928, Frederick Griffith became the first to
(C) Salmonella (III) Parasite on
identify bacterial transformation, in which the form and
typhimurium bacteria function of a bacterium changes.
(D) Pleomorphic bacteria (IV) Transfer of In1952, alfred Hershey and Martha Chase took an effort
genetic material to find the genetic material in organisms. Their
through phage experiments led to an unequivocal proof to DNA as
The correct match is genetic material.
A B C D 165. Heavier and lighter isotopic from of an element
can be separated by the technique of
(a) I III IV II
(a) buoyant density centrifugation
(b) II IV I III (b) density gradient centrifugation
(c) III I IV II (c) chromatography
(d) II III I IV (d) electrophoresis
TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-II DUMET-2008
Ans. (a) : Heavier and lighter isotopic from of an 170. The experimental proof for semiconservative
element can be separated by the technique of buoyant replication of DNA was first shown in a
density centrifugation. (a) Fungus (b) Bacterium
166. Phosphorus -32 emits (c) Virus (d) Plant
(a) α-particles (b) β-particles NEET-2018
(c) γ-particles (d) X-rays Ans. (b) : The experimental proof for semiconservative
DUMET-2010 replication of DNA was first shown in a bacterium.
Ans. (b) : Phosphorus – 32 is a commonly used
radionuclide with a half-life of 14.3 days, emitting beta
particles with a maximum energy of 1.71 MeV (Million
Electron Volts). The beta particle is a high energy and
high speed electron that is emitted from the radioactive
element.
167. Transformation experiment was first
performed on which bacteria : -
(a) E. coli
(b) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(c) Salmonella
(d) Pasteurella pestis
AIPMT-2002
Ans. (b) : Transformation experiment was first
performed by Frederick Griffith in (1928)
Streptococcus pneumoniae, hence it is known as
Griffith effect.
It was one of the first experiments that explain that
through the process of transformation bacteria can get
DNA.
168. The term 'Nuclein' for the genetic material was
used by
(a) Mendel (b) Franklin
(c) Meischer (d) Chargaff • They grow Escherichia coli in a medium having
NEET-2020 Phase-II heavy 14N.
Ans. (c) : 1869 was a landmark year in genetic research, • They found that DNA of the first generation was
because it was the year in which Swiss physiological hybrid or Intermediate between 14N and 15N.
chemist Friedrich Meischer, first identified what he • The second generation of bacteria contained two
called “ Nuclein” inside the nuclei of human white type of DNA, 50% light and 50% intermediate.
blood cells. • This observation shows that the two stands of DNA
169. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same duplex separate and act as a template for the
restriction endonuclease can be joined to form synthesis of new complimentary stands of DNA.
a recombinant plasmid using 171. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide
(a) Eco RI sequence) of mt-DNA and Y chromosomes
(b) taq polymerase were considered for the study of human
evolution, because: -
(c) polymerase III
(a) They are small, and therefore, easy to study
(d) ligase
(b) They are uniparental in origin and do not take
NEET-2016 Phase-II part in recombination
Ans. (d) : A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same (c) Their structure is known in greater detail
restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a (d) They can be studied from the samples of
recombinant plasmid using ligase. DNA ligases aids in fossil remains
the joining of two DNA fragment (or DNA and AIPMT-2003
plasmid), by forming phosphodiester bonds.
Ans. (b): Wilson and Sarich choose mitochondrial
• Eco RI is a restiction enzyme. DNA (mt-DNA) for the study of maternal line
• DNA polymerase III is involved in duplication of the inheritance, while Y-Chromosome were considered for
chromosomal DNA in prokaryotic DNA replication. the study of human evolution particularly male domain.
• Taq polymerase are heat stable polymerase used in It is possible because they are uniparental in origin and
PCR. do not take part in recombination.
172. Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering 175. Which of the following is the first step for
became possible due to the discovery of : - genetically modifying an organism?
(a) Restriction endonuclease (a) Amplification of the desired gene
(b) DNA ligase (b) Identification of DNA with desirable gene
(c) Transcriptase (c) Introduction of the DNA into the host
(d) Primase (d) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host
AIPMT-2002 AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (a) : Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering Ans. (b) : The first step for genetically modifying an
become possible because of the discovery of organism is identification of DNA with desirable gene.
Restriction endonuclease. Herbert Boyer and Stanley Cohen made the first
Restriction end nucleases, also known as restriction genetically modified organism in 1973. They took a
enzymes that can recognize specific sequences of DNA gene from a bacterium that provided resistance to the
and cut the DNA at those specific sites. These enzymes antibiotic kanamycin.
were first discovered in bacteria as a defense 176. Match the following
mechanism against invading viruses. Features Action Function
A. Ori i. Kanamycin P. Copy the
• number of
linked DNA
B. Selectable ii. Transfer Q. Link Alien
marker genes DNA
C. Cloning iii. Replication R. Eliminate non
Sites transformants
Palandromic D. Cloning iv. Recognition S. Plants and
sequence Vectors site Animals
Options:
(a) (A-i-S), (B-ii-R), (C-iii-Q), (D-iv-P)
(b) (A-iii-P), (B-i-R), (C-iv-Q), (D-ii-S)
• Produce palindromic end. Example - (c) (A-ii-R), (B-iii-P), (C-i-S), (D-iv-Q)
(d) (A-iv-Q), (B-ii-S), (C-iii-P), (D-i-Q)
173. Which statement is correct for bacterial
transduction: -
(a) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to Ans. (b) :
another bacteria through virus • The sequence that controls the number of copy of the
(b) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to linked DNA in the vector is called Ori (origin of
another bacteria by conjugation replication).
(c) Bacteria obtained its DNA directly • Selectable marker, Kanamycin helps in eliminating
the non-transformants.
(d) Bacteria obtained DNA from other external
source • Cloning sites are the recognition site, which link
AIPMT-2002 alien DNA.
Ans. (a) : In transduction, transfer of genetic material • Cloning vectors transfer genes in plants and animals.
from one bacteria to another by virus (bacteriophage). 177. The result of the following reaction/experiment
It was discovered by Joshua Lederberg and Norton carried out by Avery et. al. on Streptococcus
Zinder while working on the recombination of genes in pneumoniae has proved conclusively that DNA
bacteria and this technique of transfer viral DNA and is genetic material;
applied to the bacterium Salmonella typhimurium. (a) Live ‘R’ strain + DNA from ‘S’ strain +
• Transduction is used for gene mapping & analysis in DNAase
bacteria and also for strain construction. (b) Heat killed ‘R’ strain + DNA from ‘S’ strain
174. The transforming principle of Pneumococcus + DNAase
as found out by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty (c) Live ‘R’ strain + DNA form ‘S’ strain +
was RNAase
(a) mRNA (b) DNA (d) Live ‘R’ strain + Denatured DNA form ‘S’
(c) protein (d) Polysaccharide strain + protease
AIPMT-1993 Karnataka CET-2014
Ans. (b) : Avary, MacLeod and McCarty demonstrate Ans. (a) : Griffith and Avary studied bacteria and mice.
that DNA is responsible for bacterial transformation. Their S and R experiment revealed that DNA stores and
could transform from one strain in to a different strain. transmits genetic information from one generation of
This phenomenon he attributed to an unidentified bacteria to another. Chromosome consist of protein and
transforming principle or transforming factor. DNA, but mainly DNA.
178. One gene-one enzyme relationship was cell it infects. This integration step makes retroviruses
established for the first time in: unique among viruses. Retroviruses have a reverse
(a) Diplococus pneumoniae transcriptase enzyme that allows them to convert this
(b) Neurospora crassa RNA genome into DNA, which is then integrated into
(c) Salmonella typhimurium the host cell’s DNA.
(d) Escherichia Coli 182. In 1944, Avary, McCarty and MacLeod
AIPMT-2007 isolated a substance from heat killed virulent
Ans. (b) : One gene one enzyme hypothesis given by form of bacteria and added to non-virulent to
Beadle and Tatum in 1941 and for this discovery they virulent from this substance can be distroyed
got Nobel Prize in 1958. by:
(a) DNAase (b) protease
• Function of a one gene is direct the formation of one
enzyme. (c) lipase (d) amylase
JIPMER-2015
• This experiment used in Red bread mold Neurospora
crassa. Ans. (a) : Avary, McCarty, and MacLeod are the
researchers who conducted experiments that
179. Most accepted and undisputed proof that DNA
demonstrate that the mutation principle is DNA when it
is genetic material not protein, comes from the
was widely accepted that it was a protein with the
experiment of
ability to provide genetic information. They declared
(a) F Griffith that DNA is a substance that results in the
(b) Harshey and Chase transformations of a bacteria from a non-virulent form
(c) Oswald Avery to a virulent one.
(d) Colin Macleod and Maclyn MC Carty
UP CPMT-2014 C. Qualities and Function of
Ans. (b): Most accepted and unequivocal proof that Genetic Material (DNA)
DNA is genetic material, not protein comes from the
experiment of Harshey and Chase. However F.Griffith 183. Eukaryotic genes are monocistronic but they
also proved DNA as a genetic material by the process of are split genes because
transformation. (a) Introns are interrupted with Mutons.
180. Work of Beadle and Tatum on Neuropora (b) they contain Exons only.
crassa proved that (c) they contain Introns only
(a) replication of DNA is semi-conservative (d) Exons are interrupted by Introns.
(b) viruses have genetic material Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
(c) every gene is responsible for specific enzymes
Ans. (d) : In eukariyotes, the monocistronic structural
(d) plant cells are totipotent genes have interrupted coding sequences- The gene in
UP CPMT-2011 eukaryotes are split. The coding sequences or expressed
Ans. (c): Work of Beadle and Tatum on Neuropora sequences are defined as exons. Exons are said to be
crassa proved that every gene is responsible for specific
those sequence that appear in mature or processed
enzymes. One-gene one enzyme hypothesis was put RNA. The exone are interruptedby introns or
forward by Beadle and Tatum (1948) which states that a intervening sequences do not appear in mature or
gene controls a structural or functional trait through processed RNA.
controlling the synthesis of a specific protein on enzyme
184. In a rDNA cloning experiment, which of the
formed by later.
following helps to identify and eliminate non-
181. Identify the enzyme that catalyses the step trnsformant normal Escherichia coli cells
labelled as 'M' in the given Schematic (a) Origin of Replication (Ori)
representation of Replication of retrovirus.
(b) Selectable marker
(c) Cloning site
(d) Competent host
Ans. (b) : In addition ot ori, the vector requires a
selectable marker, which helps in identifying and
eliminating non-transformants and selectively
permitting growth of the transformants.
(a) RNA polymerase (b) DNA ligase 185. The number of nitrogen base pairs in haploid
(c) Reverse transcriptase (d) Recombinase human DNA and Escherichia coli DNA
Karnataka CET-2019 respectively are
Ans. (c) : A retrovirus is a type of RNA virus that can (a) 4.6 × 106 bp and 3.3 × 109 bp
integrate its genetic material into the DNA of the host (b) 4.6 × 109 bp and 3.3 × 106 bp
(c) 3.3 × 109 bp and 4.6 × 106 bp (a) 10 (b) 20
(d) 3.3 × 106 bp and 4.6 × 109 bp (c) 30 (d) 40
AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-II Uttarakhand PMT-2007
Ans. (c) : The length of DNA is usually defined as Ans. (b) : The gametic chromosome number is
number of nucleotide present in it. typically half of the somatic chromosome number. So, if
Escherichia coli has 4.6 × 106 bp and haploid content of somatic cells have 40 chromosomes, the gametic
human DNA is 3.3 × 109 bp. chromosomes, the gametic chromosome number would
be 20.
186. The first artificial rDNA was constructed by
using a native plasmid of which of the following 191. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means
organisms? that
(a) Salmonella typhimurium (a) one strand turns anti-clockwise
(b) Escherichia coli (b) the phosphate groups of two DNA strands at
their ends, share the same position
(c) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(c) the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA
(d) Propionibacterium sharmani strands are in opposite position (pole)
AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-II (d) one strand turns clockwise
Ans. (a) : The construction of the first recombinant JCECE-2009
DNA emerged from the possibility of linking a gene Ans. (c) : Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule
encoding antibiotic resistance with a native plasmid means that the phosphate groups at the start of two
(autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA strands are in opposite position (pole).
DNA) of salmonella typhimurium.
187. The chemical nature of chromatin is as follows
(a) nucleic acids
(b) nucleic acid and histone proteins
(c) nucleic acids, histone and non- histone
proteins
(d) nucleic acids and non- histone proteins
WB JEE-2009
Ans. (c) : Chromatin material is made up of nucleic
acids like DNA and proteins, and chromatin does not
have a specific chemical formula for itself, as it is made
up of other big molecules. So called macromolecules,
such as DNA, proteins and RNA. 192. Plasmid is
188. Out of A-T, G-C pairing, bases of DNA may (a) small extrachromosomal circular self
exist in alternate valency state owing to replicating DNA that can carry genes into
arrangement called host organism
(a) tautomerisational mutation (b) bacteriophage
(b) analogue substitution (c) DNA found in mitochondria
(c) point mutation (d) DNA incorporated in bacterial chromosome
(d) frameshift mutation MGIMS Wardha-2007
WB JEE-2009 Ans. (a) : Plasmid is small extra-chromosomal circular
Ans. (a) : Tautomeric shift in one strand has produced a self replicating DNA that can carry genes into host
transition mutation in the complementary strand. If the organism. Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA,
mutation occurs in the germline, it will be transmitted to mostly present in bacteria. They replicate
future generations. Tautomeric shift is not itself a autonomously. The size varies from a few base pairs to
mutation, but a transient change to an alternative form thousands bp.
of the molecule. 193. Indirect transfer of genetic material from one
189. Genetic information is carried by long chain bacterium to another through a bacteriophage
macromolecules made up of is called
(a) amino acids (b) nucleotides (a) transformation (b) conjugation
(c) chromosomes (d) enzymes (c) translation (d) transduction
Uttarakhand PMT-2007 BHU PMT-2001
Ans. (b) : The genetic information is carried by long- Ans. (d) : The process of transfer of genetic material
chain molecules of nucleic acid (DNA), which is made from one bacterium to another through a bacteriophage
up of nucleotides. is transduction.
190. What will be the gametic chromosome number 194. Geneticist plots the relative locations of genes
in a cell, if somatic cells have 40 chromosomes ? on chromosomes by which of these methods
(a) using powerful microscopes KVPY SA-2015
(b) Calculating the number of genes Ans. (c) : The average molecular mass of a bases is
(c) Determine the frequency of crossing over 500Da.
(d) Exposing animal to radiations 1 Base = 500 Da, ds DNA having 10 Bp or 20 bases,
JIPMER-1998 thus molecular mass of ds DNA = 20 × 500 = 10kDa.
Ans. (c) : Geneticist plots the relative locations of 200. What is not true about alleles?
genes on chromosomes by which of these methods is (a) Round and wrinkled form of genes are alleles
determine the frequency of crossing over. of each other
195. A series of experiments were conducted by (b) Only recessive alleles expresses in hybrid
Frederick Griffin in 1928, on transforming (c) Alleles occupy same loci on homologous
principle with: chromosomes
(a) Salmonella typhimurium (d) Two or more alternative forms of gene are
(b) Escherichia coli called alleles are allelomorphs
(c) Streptococcus pneumoniae MGIMS Wardha-2013
(d) Bacillus thuringiensis Ans. (c) : Alleles occupy same loci on homologous
Karnataka CET-2022 chromosomes.
Ans. (c) : Frederick Griffith bacterial transformation. In 201. Recognition sequence in Eco RI is
1928, British bacteriologist Frederick Griffith (a) GGCC (b) GAATTC
conducted a series of experiments using Streptococcus (c) AAGCTT (d) CTGCAG
pneumoneae bacteria and mice. MGIMS Wardha-2013
196. The autosomes are : Ans. (b) : Eco RI recognizes the sequence GAATTC,
(a) somatic chromosomes and cuts both DNA strands between the G and the A
(b) sexual chromosomes nucleotides. Protruding from the cut ends aril be single-
(c) asexual chromosomes stranded DNA “tails” having the sequences AATT.
(d) both (a) and (b)
Rajasthan PMT-1998
Ans. (a) : All chromosomes except the sex
chromosomes are referred to as autosomes. They exist
in pairs in the somatic cells whereas single in the
gametic cells.
197. DNA is a better genetic material than RNA
because of ________
(a) Presence of Thymine
(b) DNA mutates faster 202. Flavr savr variety of tomato is a
(c) DNA is more catalytic (a) mutated form (b) somaclonal variety
(d) DNA is labile (c) transgenic crop (d) high yielding variety
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-II MGIMS Wardha-2013
Ans. (a) : DNA is a better genetic material than RNA Ans. (c) : Flavr savr variety of tomato is a transgenic
because of presence of thymine. crop. In flavr savr variety of tomato, expression of gene
198. Prokaryotic genetic system has for production of polygalacturonase was blocked.
(a) DNA and histone Enzyme polygalacturonase degrades pectin.
(b) DNA and no histone 203. In genetic engineering, which of the following
(c) no DNA and histone used?
(d) no DNA and no histone (a) Plasmid (b) Ptasrid
VMMC-2007 (c) Mitochondria (d) ER
Ans. (b) : Recall that, prokaryotes are unicellular MGIMS Wardha-2010
organisms that lack organelles or other internal Ans. (a) : Plasmid-It is a double stranded DNA
membrane-bound structure. Therefore, they do not have molecule which is generally small and circular in shape.
a nucleus but instead generally have a single It is different from a cell’s chromosomal DNA.
chromosome a piece of circular, double-stranded DNA Plasmids are the ones that are used in genetic
located in an area of the cell called the nucleoid. engineering application.
199. Considering the average molecular of a base to 204. The term genetic engineering is used for :
be 500 Da, what is the molecular mass of a
(a) blotting technique
double stranded DNA of 10 base pairs?
(b) RNA reaction technique
(a) 500 Da (b) 5 kDa
(c) protein synthesis technique
(c) 10 kDa (d) 1 kDa

(d) recombinant DNA technique (c) (A), (B) and (D) only
MGIMS Wardha-2003 (d) (B), (C) and (D) only
Ans. (d) : Genetic engineering (also called genetic NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
modification) is a process that uses laboratory based Ans. (b) :Agrose is natural polymer obtained from sea
technologies to alter the DNA makeup of an organism. weed and commonly used to make the gel matrix for
This may involve changing a single base pair (A-T or agarose gel electrophoresis. In agarose gel
C-G), deleting a region of DNA or adding a new electrophoresis, DNA molecule are separated based on
segment of DNA. their size. Smaller DNA fragments can move more
205. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium easily through the gel matrix, while larger fragments are
bromide when viewed under UV radiation, hindered and migrate more slowly.
appear as. The DNA molecules, which are negatively charged due
(a) Bright blue bands (b) Yellow bands to their phosphate grownups, move from the negative
(c) Bright orange bands (d) Dark red bands electrode toward the positive electrode when an electric
NEET-2021 current is applied.
Ans. (c) : DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium 208. Read the following statements and choose the
bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as set of correct statements :
bright orange bands. (A) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
206. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA (B) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active
fragments can be visualized with the help of (C) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively
(a) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation charged DNA in nucleosome
(b) Acetocarmine in UV radiation (D) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine
(c) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation (E) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of
(d) Acetocarmine in bright blue light DNA helix
NEET-2020 Phase-I Choose the correct answer from the options
Ans. (a) : In agarose gel electrophoresis, separated given below:
DNA fragments can be visualized with help of ethidium (a) (A), (C), (E) Only (b) (B), (D), (E) Only
bromide in UV radiation. (c) (A), (C), (D) Only (d) (B), (E) Only
• Ethidium bromide, when exposed to UV light, NEET-2022
produces a fluorescent effect. Hence, the DNA Ans. (c) : Heterochromatin is transcriptionally inactive,
tagged by it can be traced quickly on the transparent A typical nucleosome contains 200bp of DNA helix.
gel. Euchromatin is the loosely packed chromatin region.
• The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the
positively charged histone octamer to form a
structure called nucleosome, histones are rich in
basic amino acid residues lysine and arginine.
207. Refer to the following statements for agarose-

gel electrophoresis:
(A) Agarose is a natural polymer obtained
from sea-weed.
(B) The separation of DNA molecules in
agarose-gel electrophoresis depends on the
size of DNA.
(C) The DNA migrates from negatively-
charged electrode to the positively-charged 209. If DNA contained sulfur instead of phosphorus
electrode and proteins contained phosphorus instead of
(D) The DNA migrates from positively-charged sulfur, what would have been the outcome of
Choose the most appropriate answer from the Hershey and Chase experiment?
options given below: (a) No radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
(a) (A) and (B) only (b) Both radioactive sulfur and phosphorus in
(b) (A), (B) and (C) only bacterial cells
(c) Radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells (b) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;
(d) Radioactive phosphorus in bacterial cells (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 (c) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication;
Ans. (c) : They used radioactive sulfur in bacterial cell (c)-Transcription;(d)-Transduction
to label and, so, distinguish viral proteins from viral (d) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;
DNA. After allowing labeled viruses to infect bacteria, (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein
they observed that the radioactive phosphorus enters the NEET-2021
bacteria while the radioactive sulfur always remains Ans. (d) : Formation of DNA from DNA is called
outside. replication.
• Protein contains sulfur but no phosphorus. By • Formation of mRNA from DNA is called
growing viruses in separate cultures, they ensured transcription.
that one sample has only radioactive DNA while the • Formation of protein from mRNA is called
other had radioactive protein. This would allow them translation.
to conclude which material was injected by the virus • Transduction is transfer of genetic material from one
into the bacterium. bacterium to another with the help of virus or a
210. Which of the following statements is correct? bacteriophage.
(a) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-
bond
(b) Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-
bonds
(c) Adenine does not pair with thymine
(d) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-
bonds
NEET-2020 Phase-I 213. Which scientist experimentally proved that
Ans. (d) : Adenine (A) pair with thymine (T) through DNA is the sole genetic material in
two H-bonds. bacteriophage?
• cytosine (C) and guanine (G) pairs together by three (a) Jacob and Monod
H-bonds. (b) Beadle and Tautum
(c) Messelson and Stahl
(d) Hershey and Chase
NEET (Odisha)-2019
Ans. (d) : Hershey and Chase conducted a famous
experiment in 1952 that provide experimental evidence
supporting the idea that DNA is the sole genetic
material in bacteriophages, which are viruses that infect
bacteria.
214. The association of histone H1 with a
nucleosome indicates:
211. If the distance between two consecutive base (a) Transcription is occurring
pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base (b) DNA replication is occurring
pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical
(c) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin
mammalian cell is 6.6 × 109 bp, then the length
of the DNA is approximately (d) The DNA double helix is exposed
(a) 2.5 meters (b) 2.2 meters NEET-2017
(c) 2.7 meters (d) 2.0 meters Ans. (c) : The association of histone H1 with a
NEET-2020 Phase-I nucleosome indicates the DNA is condensed into a
Chromatin. Histone proteins are a group of proteins
Ans. (b) : found in the cell’s nucleus that play a crucial role in
Length of DNA = Number of base pairs ×0.34nm DNA packaging and have regulation. They help to
= 6.6×109 ×0.34 nm condense long strands of DNA into a compact structure
= 6.6×109 ×0.34×10-9 m = 2.2 m called chromatin.
212. Complete the flow chart on central dogma. 215. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1–3 in
number and: -
(a) (a) Are always circular
(a) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (b) Are always linear
(c)-Replication; (d)-Protein

(c) Can be either circular or linear, but never both
within the same cell
(d) Can be circular as well as linear within the
same cell
AIPMT-2003
Ans. (a): Nuclear material of bacteria lies free in the
cell in the form of an irregular, thin, fibrillar and
circular single molecule of DNA, called nucleoid or
chromatin body.
In addition to circular DNA, a small amount of
subsidiary extra chromosomal DNA is also present as
plasmids or episomes.
216. In a 3.2 kbp long pieces of DNA, 820 adenine

bases were found. What would be the number
of cytosine bases?
(a) 780 (b) 1560
(c) 740 (d) 1480
AIIMS-2016
Ans. (a) : According to Chargaff rule -
A=T , G=C
Adenine = 820 Euchromatin Heterochromatin
Thymine = 820 • Appear as a loose packed • Appear as tight
(A + T) = 1640 form of DNA packed form of
3.2 kbp means 3200 bp DNA
A + T + G + C = 3200 • DNA density is low • DNA density is high
820 + 820 + G + C = 3200
G + C = 3200 – 1640 • Early replicates • Late replicates
G + C = 1560 • Present Eukaryotic and • Only present in
∴ G=C Prokaryotic cell. Eukaryotic cell.
G + C = 1560 218. Which of the following is incorrect?
2C = 1560 (a) Fructose is reducing sugar
C = 780 (b) Cellulose has b-D Glucose units
217. Satellite of chromosome is (c) DNA has D-ribose
(a) Rich in RNA and deficient in DNA (d) Amylopectin insoluble in water
(b) Rich in DNA and deficient in RNA AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I
(c) Rich in protein Ans. (c) : DNA has D-ribose is incorrect statement.
(d) Lacks DNA DNA contain deoxyribose sugar, it is also know as
AIIMS-2011 pentose sugar. (here D is denoted for D-ribose sugar not
Ans. (a) : Satellite DNA is a type of non-coding DNA for deoxyribose nucleic acid ). D-ribose is the molecule
that is characterized by repeating sequences of DNA appearing in RNA.
that do not code for proteins. • All monosaccharides (glucose, fructose, galactose)
Satellite DNA is indeed known to contain regions rich are reducing sugars because they either have an
in RNA sequences and many have limited amounts of aldehyde group or can tautomerise in solution to
DNA. form an aldehyde group.
• Cellulose is a polysaccharide composed of a large
number of β -D-Glucose units. In cellulose β -D-
glucose units are joined by β -1,4-glycosidic
linkage.
• Amylopectin is even less soluble due to the Ans. (a) : DNA probes having radioactive isotopes help
additional 1,6-glycoside bonds on the branch to detect DNA by autoradiography.
chains, further reducing its H bonding potential and Deoxyribonucleic acid more commonly known as
therefore reducing solubility in water. DNA, is a complex molecule that contains all of the
219. Which statement is wrong about satellite? information necessary to build and maintain an
(a) They show high degree of polymorphism organism. All living things have DNA within their cells
(b) They do not take part in protein synthesis 222. Match the following :
(c) They do not inherit from parents to offspring a. Pitch of Helix i. 10 bp
(d) None b. Number of bp ii. 3.5 nm
AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I per each turn
Ans. (c) : Satellite DNA, also known as satellite c. Distance iii. 0.34nm
sequences, refers to a type of repetitive DNA found in between 2
the genomes of many organisms, including humans. It is successive bp
characterized by short, highly repetitive sequences of d. Nature of the iv. Right-handed
nucleotides that are repeated in tandem. Helix
Satellite DNA is typically found in non-coding
(a) (a – i), (b – ii), (c –iii), (d – iv)
regions of the genome, meaning these sequences do not
code for proteins. They inherit from parent to offspring. (b) (a – ii), (b – i), (c –iii), (d – iv)
(c) (a – i), (b – ii), (c –iv), (d – iii)
(d) (a – ii), (b – i), (c –iv), (d – iii)
Ans. (b) :
(a) Pitch of Helix – 3.5 nm
(b) Number of bond bp per each turn– 10bp
(c) Distance between 2 successive bp – 0.34nm
(d) Nature of the Helix – Right – handed
223. Match Column I with Column II and choose
the correct option.
Column I Column II
220. A nucleosome is a portion of the chromonema (Scientist) (Concept)
containing ……
(1) Taylor & (A) Lac operon
(a) Both DNA and histones
colleagues
(b) Only histones
(2) Hershey & (B) DNA replicates
(c) Both DNA and RNA
Chase semi-
(d) Only DNA conservatively
Karnataka CET-2005
(3) Griffith (C) Transforming
Ans. (a) : A nucleosome contains both DNA and principle
histones. The negatively charged DNA is wrapped (4) Jacob & Monod (D) DNA is the
around the positively charged histone octamer to form a genetic
structure called nucleosome. A typical nucleosome material
contains 200 bp DNA helix.
(E) Transcription
221. Statement 1 : Complementary pairing between
(a) 1 - B, 2 - E, 3 - A, 4 - C
nucleotides is exploited to diagnose presence of
(b) 1 - C, 2 - D, 3 - B, 4 - A
a specific DNA segment in a mixture
(c) 1 - B, 2 - D, 3 - C, 4 - A
Statement 2 : DNA probes having radioactive
(d) 1 - A, 2 - E, 3 - D, 4 - B
isotopes help to detect DNA by
autoradiography (e) 1 - C, 2 - E, 3 - B, 4 - A
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and Kerala PMT-2014
statement 2 is the correct explanation of Ans. (c) :
statement 1 Column-I Column-II
(b) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct but (1) Taylor and colleagues DNA replicates
statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Semi-conservative.
statement 1 (2) Harshey and Chase DNA is the genetic
(c) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is material
incorrect (3) Griffith Transforming
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect principle
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I (4) Jacob and Monod Lac operon

224. DNA is mainly found in (a) AACTG (b) ATCGU
(a) nucleus only (c) TTAGU (d) UAGAC
(b) cytoplasm only AIPMT (Screening)-2012
(c) nucleus and cytoplasm Ans. (d) : In RNA thymine base is replaced by Uracil.
(d) nucleolus Hence,
Punjab MET-2010 ATCTG (Templete DNA)
Ans. (a) : DNA is the hereditary material found within TAGAC (Coding DNA strand)
the cell. It refers to the cell inheritance segment. UAGAC (Complementary RNA)
DNA is available in the cell expert organelles. Thus, the RNA strand complementary to DNA strand
DNA is present in the Nucleus. ATCTG will be UAGAC.
Small amount of DNA can also found in mitochondria. 228. Segments of DNA which can move in genome
In eukaryotic cell some of the cell organelles like (a) Transposons (b) Introns
plastid and mitochondria are partially autonomous.
(c) Exons (d) Cistrons
The DNA molecule resembles prokaryotic bacterial
AIPMT-1998
chromosome.
DNA of chromatin material is organized into Ans. (a) : The segment of DNA, which can move in a
chromosome during cell division. genome is a transposons.
• It is a segment of DNA that is capable of moving into
a new position within the same or another
chromosome, called jumping gene.
225. Which one of the following statements is

incorrect about the properties of DNA?
(a) DNA is denatured when heated up to 700C D. The RNA
(b) DNA shows high absorption of UV radiation
at 260 mµ 229. The introduction of nematode specific genes
(c) DNA directly participates in protein synthesis into host using agrobacterium vectors causes
(d) Pyrimidines of DNA are cytosine and the following action.
thymine I. Formation of ds RNA
AP EAMCET-2007 II. Production of sense and antisense RNAs in
Ans. (c) : DNA does not move to the site of protein the host cells.
synthesis to directly guide the process, instead it III. RNA intermediate not formed
transfers its information to mRNA molecules which IV. Silencing of specific mRNA of the
move to the ribosome to direct protein synthesis. nematode.
226. Most of the mutations are: (a) II, III, IV (b) I, II, III
(a) Harmful (b) Harmful and recessive (c) I, II, IV (d) I, III, IV
(c) Beneficial (d) Dominant AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-I
AIPMT-2000 Ans. (c) : The nematode specific genes were introduced
Ans. (b) : Mutations can result from errors in DNA into host plant (tobacco). This was done by using agro
replication during cell division, exposure of mutagen or bacterium as vectors introduction of DNA.
viral infection. Mutations are normally deleterious and DNA was made to produce both sense and sense RNA
recessive and therefore majority of them are of no in the (dsRNA) double stranded RNA.
practical value. A Gustafson estimated that less than This dsRNA is complementary to each other so they
one in 1000 mutants produced may be useful in plant formed a double stranded RNA. This dsRNA initiated
breeding. rNA interference and finally silenced the specific
227. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base mRNA.
sequence as ATCTG, what would be the Specific genes in nematodes can vary widely between
complementary RNA strand sequence? species and their functions can be quite different.
230. Identify the incorrect combination 233. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of
(a) RNA polymerase I - rRNA (a) Plants (b) Fungi
(b) RNA polymerase II – hnRNA (c) Animals (d) Bacteria
(c) RNA polymerase III - mRNA NEET-2017
(d) DNA polymerase - DNA Ans. (d) : The spliceosome is a large RNA- protein
AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I complex that catalyses the removal of introns from
Ans. (c) : RNA polymerase III is an enzyme in the cell nuclear pre-mRNA.
that primarily transcribes genes to produce small RNA Hence spliceosomes are not found in bacterial cells.
molecules. RNA polymerase III – tRNA transcribes • A wide range of biochemical and genetical studies
genes that encode tRNA molecules. tRNA are involve shows that the spliceosome comprises three major
in protein synthesis and carry amino acids to ribosome RNA protein subunits. the U1, U2 and U4 / U6
for the translation of mRNA into proteins. • Spliceosome are used in removal of introns during
231. Match the following lists: post - transcriptional processing of hn RNA in
List-I List-II List-III eukaryote only, as split genes are absent in
A) HIV i) Shelter I) Auxospores prokaryotes.
B) Mycobiont ii) TMV II) RNA 234. RNA is not found in
C) Deuteromycetes iii) Pennales III) Trichoderma (a) Chromosome (b) plasmalemma
D) Cell wall with iv) Conidia IV) Mineral (c) nucleolus (d) ribosome
silica absorption JIPMER-2008
The correct match is: Ans. (b) : Plasmalemma is a less common term for the
A B C D cell membrane. It also provides a fixed environment
(a) ii II i IV iv III iii I inside the cell, and that membrane has several different
(b) ii III i IV iii II iv I functions. One is to transport nutrients into the cell and
(c) ii II iv III i IV iii I also to transport toxic substances out of the cell. It is a
semipermeable membrane that encloses the cell’s
(d) ii I iii II iv III i IV cytoplasm and nucleoplasm and separates the cell from
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II the extracellular fluid.
Ans. (a) : 235. Purines in RNA are:
List-I List-II List-III (a) adenine and guanine
(A) HIV (ii) TMV (II) RNA (b) thiamine and cytosine
(B) Mycobiont (i) Shelter (IV) Mineral (c) thymine and uracil
absorption (d) uracil and cytosine
(C) Deuteromycetes (iv) Conidia (III) Trichoderma J&K CET-2002
(D) Cell wall with (iii) Pennales (I) Auxospore Ans. (a) : RNA is a polymer of ribonucleotides. Both
silica DNA and RNA is made up of nucleotides consisting of
232. Match the Biological molecules listed under. a 5 carbon sugar ribose, a phosphate group and a
Column I; with their Biological functions given nitrogenous base. The nitrogenous base found in RNA
under. are adenine, uracil, cytosine, guanine.
Column II; choose the answer which gives correct Adenine and guanine are the purine bases and the uracil
combination of alphabets of the two columns. and cytosine are the pyrimidine bases in the RNA.
Column-I Column-II 236. Against the codon 5' UAC 3', what would be
(Biological (Functions) the sequence of anticodon on tRNA?
molecules) (a) 5' - AUG - 3' (b) 5' - ATG - 3'
A Strach p Protein synthesis (c) 5' - GTA - 3' (d) 5'- GUA -3'
B Haemoglobin q Sex hormone NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
Ans. (d) : The anticodon on t-RNA is complementary
C RNA r Storage product
to codon. The codon is a sequence of three bases on
D Steroid s Transport of mRNA.
gases If the mRNA codon is 5'- UAC-3' then tRNA anticodon
(a) A = r; B = p; C = s; D = q will be 3'- AUG -5'.
(b) A = r; B = s; C = p; D = q The base sequences are usually read in the 5'→3'
(c) A = s; B = r; C = p; D = q direction . Therefore the codon of t- RNA anticodon in
(d) A = r; B = s; C = q; D = p the 5'→3' direction is 5'- GUA - 3'.
Ans. (b) : Starch :- Storage product. 237. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling
clover leaf ?
Hemoglobin: Transport of gases
(a) hn-RNA (b) m-RNA
RNA : Protein Synthesis
(c) t-RNA (d) r-RNA
Steroid : Sex hormone Manipal-2007 / AIPMT-2004
Ans. (c) :Clover leaf model of t-RNA was proposed by 242. Balbiani rings are sites of
R.W. Holley. (a) RNA and protein synthesis
tRNA molecule consists of 70-80 nucleotides that fold (b) Lipid synthesis
like a clover leaf. tRNA has three characteristics loops – (c) Nucleotide synthesis
T ψ C loop, anticodon loop and DHU loop. It also has (d) Polysaccharide synthesis
stem like amino acid acceptor arm. The clover leaf
structure is actually a two dimentional structure.
WB JEE-2009
238. The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA occurs in:
(a) Nucleolus (b) Ribosomes Ans. (a) : Balbiani rings are site of RNA and protein
synthesis.
(c) Ribosomes (d) Microbodies
NEET-2020 Phase-II Balbiani rings are exceptionally large puffs on the
polytene chromosomes in the dipteran chironomus
Ans. (a) : The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA occurs in
larvae.
nucleolus. The nucleolus is a specialized sub compartment
within the nucleus of a eukaryotic ell, responsible for the These puffs are particularly well suited for studies of
production and assembly of ribosome’s. Ribosomes are the active genes and the synthesis and transport of
composed of rRNA and proteins. specific RNA- protein (RNP) particles
239. Which of the following RNAs is not required
for the synthesis of protein?
(a) siRNA (b) mRNA
(c) tRNA (d) rRNA
NEET-2021
Ans. (a) : siRNA (small interfering RNA) also known They provide a function in certain tissues such as the
as silencing RNA. It is double stranded RNA moleculessalivary glands of insects.
that inhibit the translation of specific mRNA. It is Polytene a chromosome contain certain thousand of
associated with pest resistance in plants by RNA DNA strands.
interference. 243. Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in
240. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the nucleus are the site for active synthesis of
process of transcription in eukaryotes? (a) tRNA (b) protein synthesis
(a) Transcribes only snRNAs (c) mRNA (d) rRNA
(b) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S) NEET (Odisha)-2019
(c) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
Ans. (d) : The nucleolus is not a membrane bound
(d) Transcribes precursor of mRNA structure. It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
NEET-2021
synthesis.
Ans. (c) : RNA polymerase III transcribes the genes for
• Ribosomes are naked particles not bounded by
tRNAs and for the smallest species of ribosomal RNA membrane. They are required for protein synthesis.
(5S rRNA) RNA polymerase III is involved in
transcribing tRNA, 5s rRNA and SnRNA. • Nucleolus are also naked structures present within
the nucleus. They are the sites of ribosome synthesis.
241. Under which of the following conditions will
there be no change in the reading frame of • The organelles that are non-membranous include
following mRNA? ribosomes, cytoskeleton, and the centrioles.
5′AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3′ 244. Match the following RNA polymerases with
(a) Deletion of G from 5th position their transcribed products :
(b) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions (A) RNA polymerase I (i) tRNA
respectively (B) RNA polymerase II (ii) rRNA
(c) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th (C) RNA polymerase III (iii) hnRNA
positions Select the correct option from the following :
(d) Insertion of G at 5th position (a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i)
NEET-2019 (b) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii)
Ans. (c) : (c) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii)
(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i)
NEET (Odisha)-2019
Ans. (d) : RNA polymerase I – rRNA,
RNA polymerase II – hnRNA,
RNA polymerase III – tRNA
According to process of deletion of 5 → 3 direction • Transcription is the first step in decoding a cell's
there is no changes shown in reading frame of m-RNA. genetic information and begins with the binding of the
RNA polymerase complex to a special DNA sequence 248. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a –
at the beginning of the gene known as the promoter. In (a) RNA/RNA (b) Ribonucleoprotein
eukaryotes, transcription is achieved by three different (c) Repetitive DNA (d) Simple protein
types of RNA polymerase (RNA pol. I, II, III). AIPMT-2005
245. Many ribosomes may associate with a single Ans. (b) : Telomerase is an ribonucleoprotein enzyme.
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide It is also known as terminal transferase.
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
termed as • It is responsible for maintenance of the length of
(a) Polysome (b) Polyhedral bodies telomeres by addition of guanine-rich repetitive
(c) Nucleosome (d) Plastidome sequences.
NEET-2018 • It involves the protection of chromosome ending
from getting shorter during replication of DNA to
Ans. (a) : Polyribosome (or polysome or ergosome) is a
group of ribosome bound to an mRNA molecule like avoid to loss of catastrophic DNA.
beads on a thread. Polyribosome which in group 249. Which is called soluble RNA?
translating an mRNA sequence simultaneously. In (a) r - RNA (b) t - RNA
prokaryotes, the polysomes may form while the mRNA (c) m - RNA (d) hn - RNA
is still being transcribe from the DNA template. JIPMER-2006
Plastidome is the united form of plastid present in a
Eukaryotic cell. Nucleosome is the basic structural unit Ans. (b) : t-RNA reads the genetic code on one hand
of DNA packaging in Eukaryote. Polyhedral body are and transfers amino acids on other hand, so it is called
bacterial micro-compartments that contain enzymes adapter molecule. It is also known as soluble RNA
involved in carbon fixation. because it is soluble in 1M NaCl.
246. Which of the following RNAs should be most
abundant found in animal cell?
(a) r-RNA (b) t-RNA
(c) m-RNA (d) mi-RNA
NEET-2017
Ans. (a) : r-RNA are the most abundant form of RNA
in animal cells. rRNA – is a non coding RNA. Which is
the primary component of ribosomes. rRNA is a
ribozyme which carries out protein synthesis in
ribosomes.
• m-RNA provides the template for translation and t-
RNA brings amino acids and read genetic code. A
micro RNA is a small single stranded non-coding
RNA molecule found in plants, animals and some
viruses that functions in RNA silencing and post - 250. The back bone of RNA consists of which of the
transcriptional regulation of gene expression. following sugar?
247. What is ribotide? (a) Deoxyribose (b) Ribose
(a) Ribose + Uracil + Phosphate (c) Sucrose (d) Maltose
(b) Deoxyribose + Uracil + Phosphate JIPMER-2008 / DUMET-2005
(c) Deoxyribose + Thymine + Phosphate UPCPMT-2003
(d) Ribose + Thymine + Phosphate BHU PMT (Screening)-2003
JIPMER-2018 Ans. (b) : The back bone of RNA is the ribose sugar in
Ans. (a) : Ribotide is Ribose + Uracil + Phosphate its structure. RNA consists of a ribose sugar, which is a
Ribotide is a nucleotide that has a pentose sugar – monosaccharide and is a carbon sugar, where as DNA
ribose as its component. As for the nitrogenous base consists of deoxyribose sugar which, via a glycosidic
component, the common bases are adenine (A), guanine bond, is connected to a nitrogenous base at the first
(G), cytosine (C) , and Uracil (U). carbon.
251. There are special proteins that help to open up
DNA double helix in front of the replication
fork. These proteins are
(a) DNA ligase
(b) DNA topoisomerase I
(c) DNA gyrase
(d) DNA polymerase I
AIPMT-1994
Ans. (c) : DNA gyrase is an essential bacterial enzyme (c) It has a codon at one end which recognizes
that catalyzes the ATP-dependent negative super- the anticodon on messenger RNA.
coiling of double-stranded closed-circular DNA. The (d) It looks like clover leaf in the three
gyrase makes either single or double stranded cuts’ and dimensional structure.
also catalyzes localized movement that have the effect AIIMS-2003
of ‘undoing’ the twist & knots created during Ans. (a) : RNA is a high molecular weight complex
supercoiling. compound that work in synthesis of cell protein and
252. RNA is found in : replaces DNA as a genetic code carrier for certain
(a) Chloroplast, mitochondria viruses.
(b) Golgibody, Chloroplast • All tRNAs has a distinctive folded structure with four
(c) Lysosome, Mitochondria base-paired stems and three loops, a structure which
(d) Centrioles, Mitochondria looks like a clover leaf in two dimensions and it is "L"
AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-II shaped in three-dimensional structure. The 3'end has
CCA sequence. Attachment of an amino acid to the 3
Ans. (a) : There are different types of RNA that are
adenosine yields an aminoacyl-tRNA.
found in a eukaryotic cell. In the nucleus, mRNA
formed by transcription, which is getting ready to be 255. RNA does not possess
transported into the cytoplasm. In the cytoplasm, rRNA (a) uracil (b) thymine
and tRNA are present that play their roles in the (c) adenine (d) cytosine.
translation process. AIPMT-1988
Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a linear molecule composed Ans. (b) : RNA does not possess of thymine.
of four types of smaller molecules called 256. In RNA, thymine is replaced by
ribonucleotide bases : adenine (A), cytosine (C),
(a) adenine (b) guanine
guanine (G), and uracil (U). RNA is found in
choloroplast and mitochondria. (c) cytosine (d) uracil.
AIPMT-1992
253. Which among the following is true for protein
synthesis in bacteria? Ans. (d) : In RNA thymine is replaced of uracil.
(a) It involves all the three types of RNAs (m- Uracil and thymine is same of the production and uracil
RNA, t-RNA and r-RNA) is energetically more feasible.
(b) It involves 3 types of RNA polymerases The additional methyl group acid in to convert to the
(c) It involves single type of RNA polymerase thymine to uracil.
(d) It involves RNA processing 257. Non-genetic RNA is of :
AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I (a) two types (b) three types
Ans. (c) : Transcription is the synthesis of RNA using (c) only one type (d) none of these
DNA as a template. The process is carried out by the JIPMER-2006
enzyme RNA polymerase. The same enzyme is Haryana PMT-2002
responsible for the transcription of all of the genes in a Ans. (b) : Non-genetic RNA is of three type-
bacterial cell, including mRNA, rRNA & tRNA. RNA m-RNA, t-RNA, and r-RNA.
polymerase initiates and terminates transcription at ● m-RNA is also known as messenger RNA it is simple
specific points in the DNA. and straight without any fold.
• The synthesis of protein in bacteria is essentially a ● r-RNA is a single stranded structure it is folded
two-stage process involving transcription and variously itself.
translation. ● t-RNA is 76-90 nucleotides long folded structure.
● Non-genetic RNA is play important role in protein
synthesis in the both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.
258. There are special proteins that help to open up
DNA double helix in front of the replication
fork. These proteins are
(a) DNA ligase
(b) DNA topoisomerase I
(c) DNA gyrase
(d) DNA polymerase I
AIPMT-1994
Ans. (c) : DNA gyrase is an essential bacterial enzyme
that catalyzes the ATP-dependent negative super-
254. What is true about tRNA? coiling of double-stranded closed-circular DNA
(a) It binds with an amino acid at it 3' end proteins are required for DNA replication at a
(b) It has five double stranded regions replication fork.
259. Two of the following statements are correctly 262. Activation of an amino acid during protein
defined. Identify the correct combination synthesis requires a participation of specific
(i) Conversion of hnRNA to mRNA- molecule of :
processing (a) m-RNA (b) t-RNA
(ii) Removal of introns and joining of exons- (c) r-RNA (d) None of these
splicing J&K CET-2003
(iii) Addition of adenylate residues to 3′-end in Ans. (b) : Activation of an amino acid during protein
a template dependent manner-Tailing synthesis requires a participation of specific molecule of
(iv) Methyl adenosine triphosphate is added to t-RNA.
5′-end of hnRNA-capping 263. Which of the following transfer continuously
(a) ii & iii (b) i & ii from nucleus to cytoplasm ?
(c) i & iv (d) iii & iv (a) Cellulose (b) Glucose
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-I (c) RNA (d) DNA
Ans. (b) : Conversion of hnRNA to mRNA-is processing. Rajasthan PMT-2001
● Removal of introns and joining of exon splicing.
Ans. (c) : RNA is transfer continuously from nucleus to
260. Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) is the cytoplasm.
converted to mRNA by
264. Synthesis of mRNA and tRNA occurs in
(a) Splicing (b) Capping
(a) G1 – phase (b) G2 – phase
(c) Tailing (d) All of the above
(c) S –phase (d) All of these
AMU-2014
JCECE-2014
Ans. (d) : Heterogenous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) is
converted in to mRNA by splicing capping and tailing. Ans. (a) : Synthesis of m-RNA and t-RNA occurs in the
G1- Phase
● In eukaryotes the primary RNA transcripts is known
as heterogeneous RNA or hnRNA. ● The process of synthesizing protein from m-RNA is
Splicing:- Removal of introns and joning of the exon of knows as translation and take place in the ribosome.
RNA. 265. Which RNA picks up specific amino acid from
Capping:- Addition of methyl guanosine triphosphate the amino acid pool in the cytoplasm to the
to 5'end of the hnRNA is known as capping ribosome during protein synthesis?
Tailing:- Tailing is the addition of 200-300 adenylate (a) t-RNA (b) m-RNA
residuces to 3' end of hn RNA. (c) r-RNA (d) Sn-RNA
261. Study the following lists (e) hn-RNA
List-I List-II Kerala PMT-2013
(A) RNA (I) tRNA, 5 srRNA, Ans. (a) : t-RNA carries amino acid in the amino acid
Polymerase –I snRNA acceptor arm and read codon of mRNA by the
(B) RNA (II) Transcribes all anticodon arm.
Polymerase –II type of RNAs ● It brings specific amino acid and add them to the
(C) RNA (III) 28S, 18S and 5.8S polypeptide chain.
Polymerase – III RNAs ● The t-RNA picks up specific amino acid from the
(D) Bacterial (IV) Precursor of cytoplasm to ribosome during protein synthesis.
RNA mRNA ● m-RNA is formed by the process of transcription
polymerase using DNA as the template.
(V) Synthesis of DNA ● r-RNA is the structural component of ribosome and
The correct match is catalytic in function. Help in translation.
(A) (B) (C) (D) • hn RNA is present in nucleus, which has larger
(a) (III) (I) (V) (IV) molecules and act as precursor of m- RNA.
(b) (II) (V) (III) (I) 266. Identify the wrong statement about RNA
(c) (III) (IV) (I) (II) (a) RNA was the first genetic material to evolve
(d) (I) (III) (V) (II) in the living systems.
TS EAMCET-15.05.2016 (b) Apart from being a genetic material, it is also
Ans. (c) : a catalyst.
List-I List-II (c) DNA evolved from RNA with chemical
modifications.
(a) RNA polymerase-I 285,185and s-85 RNAS
(d) RNA being a catalyst is non-reactive and
(b) RNA polymerase-II Precursor to mRNA
stable.
(c) RNA polymerase-III t-RNA/5sr RNA Sn-RNA (e) Essential life processes like metabolism,
(d) Bacterial RNA Transcribes all type of translation, splicing involves RNA.
Polymerase RNAS. Kerala PMT-2013
Ans. (d) : RNA was the first genetic material to evolve Ans. (a) : T4 RNA ligase 1 catalyzes the ligation of a 5'
in the living system. phosphoryl- terminated nucleic acid donor to a 3'
● A part from being a genetic material it is also a hydroxyl- terminated nucleic acid acceptor through the
catalyst. formation of a 3'→5' phosphodiester bond with
● DNA evolved from RNA with chemical hydrolysis of ATP to AMP and PPi. Substrates include
modification. single- stranded RNA and DNA as well as dinucleoside
● RNA being a catalyst is reactive and hence it is pyrophosphates.
unstable. 271. What is the common point of similarity
• They are essential life processes like metabolism, between DNA and RNA?
translation, splicing involves RNA. (a) Both are double stranded
267. Identify the wrong statement (b) Both have identical sugar molecules
(a) In prokaryotes, the structural gene is (c) Both have identical pyrimidine bases
polycistronic. (d) Both are polymers of nucleotides
(b) In eukaryotes, structural genes have Karnataka CET-2006
interrupted coding sequences.
Ans. (d) : DNA and RNA both are polymers of
(c) Eukaryotes have split gene arrangement.
nucleotides. DNA is act as a hereditary material which
(d) Regulatory sequences do not code for any
helps in transfer of character from one generation to
protein.
another while RNA helps in synthesis of protein an act
(e) Intervening sequences appear in mature RNA. as catalyst.
Kerala PMT-2013 transcription transcription
DNA   → RNA   → Protein
Ans. (e) : In prokaryotes the structural gene is
polycistronic. 272. Specific radioactive identification of ribosomal
● In eukaryotes structural gene have interrupted coding RNA can be achieved by using C14 labelled
sequence. (a) guanine (b) uracil
● Eukaryotes have split gene arrangement. Split gene = (c) thymine (d) cytocine
Exons + introns. JIPMER-2015
• Mature RNA is spliced and processed RNA and is Ans. (b) : Adenine, cytosine and guanine are involved
involved in protein synthesis. Mature m-RNA in both RNA and DNA. Base thymine and the sugar
contains only exons. deoxyribose occur in DNA and the ribose sugar and
● Intervening sequence do not code for any protein. base uracil are specific to all forms of RNA.
268. Which of the following constitute about 10- 273. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in:
20% of total cellular RNA? (a) Nucleoplasm (b) Ribosomes
(a) m- RNA (b) r- RNA (c) Lysosomes (d) Nucleolus
(c) t- RNA (d) hn- RNA AIPMT (Screening)-2012
UP CPMT-2005 Ans. (d) : Nucleolus is the centre for synthesis of
Ans. (c): Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is the most highly ribosomal RNA (rRNA) that form ribosomal subunit.
abundant component of total RNA isolated from animal Ribosomal proteins migrate to the nucleolus from their
or human cell. assembly sites in the cytoplasm and surrounded by
Transfer RNA (t- RNA) constitute about 10-20% of ribonucleoproteins.
total cellular RNA. Since t- RNA are difficult to be
separated by ultra- centrifugation, they are also called as • These returns to the cytoplasm where they become
soluble RNA (s-RNA) mature ribosome particles.
269. Ribozymes are 274. Types of RNA polymerase required in nucleus
for RNA synthesis : -
(A) Catalytic RNA
(a) 1 (b) 2
(B) Non-Protein enzymes
(c) 3 (d) 4
(C) Nuclic acids
AIPMT-2001
(D) Group of ribosomes
(a) A, B (b) B, C Ans. (c) : Enzyme involved in transcription is RNA
(c) A, C (d) B, D polymerase . It is single in prokaryotes. There are three
TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I types of RNA polymerases in eukaryotes- polymerase I
for 28s, 18s and 5.8s RNA, polymerase II for m.RNA
Ans. (a) : Ribozyme are catalytic active RNA Molecule. and sn RNA and polymerase III for t RNA, 5sRNA and
● Ribozyme is the only non-protein enzyme other small RNAs.
270. A nicked RNA molecule can be ligated by 275. Which one of the following also acts as a
(a) T4 RNA ligase catalyst in a bacterial cell ?
(b) DNA polymerase III (a) 23 S RNA (b) 5 S RNA
(c) T4 DNA ligase (c) Sn RNA (d) hn RNA
(d) DNA polymerase I AIPMT (Screening)-2011
SRM JEEE-2018
Ans. (a) : 23S RNA → It is a part of larger subunit at E. Replication & Transcription
the ribosome in bacteria and act like as an enzyme
known as ribozyme. It helps in peptide bond formation 278. During transcription the DNA strand with 3'
and also act as a catalyst in bacterial cell. → 5' polarity of the structural gene always acts
• Sn RNA → Sn RNA don't play any role as a as a template because
catalyst. (a) Nucleotides of DNA strand with 5'→3' are
• hn RNA → hn RNA is heterogenous nuclear RNA transferred to mRNA.
which is formed before formation of mRNA. (b) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase
276. Match the Biological molecules listed under always catalyse the polymerization in 5' →3'
column I with their Biological functions given direction.
under column II; choose the answer which (c) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase
gives correct combination of alphabets of the always catalyse the polymerisaiton in 3' → 5'
two columns. direction.
Column-I Column-II (d) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(Biological (Functions) always catalyse polymerization in both the
molecules) directions.
A Strach p Protein synthsis Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
B Haemoglobin q Sex hormone Ans. (b) : During transcription the DNA strand with 3'
C RNA r Storage product → 5' polarity of the structural gene always acts as a
D Steroid s Transport of 'template' or 'antisense' strands because Enzyme DNA
gases dependent RNA polymerase always catalyze the
(a) A = r; B = p; C = s; D = q polymerization in 5' → 3' direction.
(b) A = r; B = s; C = p; D = q The other DNA strand, with 5' → 3' polarity is known
(c) A = s; B = r; C = p; D = q as the "sense" or "coding" strands. It has the same
sequences as the resulting RNA molecules except for
(d) A = r; B = s; C = q; D = p
thymine (T) being replaced by uracil (U) in the RNA.
Ans. (b) : Starch :- Storage product.
279. Select the correct statements from the following
Hemoglobin: Transport of gases
(I) RNA also functions as adapter molecule
RNA : Protein Synthesis
(II) Base pairing confers unique property to the
Steroid : Sex hormone
polynucleotide chains
277. Match the following columns. (III) DNA replication occurs after
Column I Column II chromosomal division
A. tRNA 1. Linking of amino (IV) DNA replication occurs frequently in a cell
acids (a) II & IV (b) I & II
B. mRNA 2. Transfer of genetic (c) II & III (d) I & III
information AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II
C. rRNA 3. Nucleolar organizing Ans. (b) : RNA molecules are specifically tRNA
region function as adapter molecules in protein synthesis tRNA
D. Peptidyl 4. Transfer of amino acid carrying the appropriate amino acids, 'adapts' to the
transferase form cytoplasm to mRNA codon by base – pairing through its anticodon.
ribosome. This brings the amino acid into position at the ribosome
A B C D where it is added to the growing polypeptide chain.
(a) 4 2 3 1 280. Below Diagram shows important concept of
(b) 1 4 3 2 genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks
(c) 1 2 3 4 A, B, C
(d) 1 3 2 4
AP EAMCET-2011
Ans. (a) :
Column I Column II
A. tRNA 4. Transfer of amino (a) A) Transcription → B) translation → C) Crick
acid form cytoplasm (b) A) Translation → B) Extension → C) Franklin
to ribosome. (c) A) Transcription→B) Replication→C) Watson
B. mRNA 2. Transfer of genetic (d) A) Translation→B) Transcription→C) Chargaff
information TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
C. rRNA 3. Nucleolar organizing Ans. (a) : The genetic implications of DNA are
D. Peptidyl 1. Linking of amino profound and central to our understanding of
transferase acids inheritance, evolution, and molecular Biology
(A) Transcription-Here RNA molecules is 284. Which of the following DNA polymerase of
synthesized from a DNA template. prokaryotes have both 3-5 and 5-3 exonuclease
(B) Translation- Begins with the binding of the activity?
small ribosomal subunit to the mRNA molecules. (a) DNA polymerase -II
(C) Crick -Who proposed the double helical structure (b) DNA polymerase - I
for DNA (c) DNA polymerase -IV
281. There are having the ability to replicate within (d) DNA polymerase - III
the bacterial cell, independent of control of AMU-2015
chromosomal DNA Ans. (b) : DNA polymerase I processes RNA primers
(a) Plasmids and virus during lagging strand synthesis and fills small gaps
(b) Plasmids and bacteria during DNA repair reactions.
(c) Plasmids and bacteriophage 285. Certain RNA viruses carry a gene for an
(d) nucleus and plasmids enzyme that uses viral RNA as a template in
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-I the synthesis of DNA. This enzyme is
(a) viral nuclease
Ans. (c) : plasmids can replicate independently within
(b) RNA replicase
the host cell and con be transferred between bacterial
(c) RNA polymerase
cells via horizontal gene transfer mechanisms like
(d) reverse transcriptase
conjugation, transformation and transduction.
AMU-2002
Bacteriophages have been explored for their potential as
alternatives to antibiotic for controlling bacterial Ans. (d) : A reverse trancriptase is an enzyme used to
formation of ds DNA from an RNA template.
infections in human and animals.
• Reverse transcriptase enzymes can be found in
282. In a transcription unit the coding strand is viruses, which use reverse transcriptase to make more
A. Found in DNA viruses.
B. Found in RNA 286. Read the following four statements (A-D)
C. Codes for hnRNA (A) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil.
D. Does not code for anything (B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is
Which of the above statements are true referred to as positive regulation.
(a) AC (b) AB (C) The human genome has approximately
(c) AD (d) BD 50,000 genes.
AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-II (D) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
How many of the above statements are right
Ans. (c) : In a transcription unit the coding strand refers
(a) Four (b) One
to the DNA strand that has the same sequence as the
(c) Two (d) Three
resulting RNA molecules, except that thymine (T) is
AIPMT (Mains)-2012
replaced with uracil (U) in the DNA.
Ans. (c) : During transcription, the process by which a
It also known as the sense strand.
cell makes an RNA copy from a piece of DNA. This
while the coding strand itself does not "code" for the RNA copy is called messenger RNA (mRNA).
RNA directly. • In DNA, adenine pairs with thymine but in RNA, the
283. Which one of the following makes use of RNA thymine is replaced by uracil. Thus, in transcription
as a template to synthesize DNA – adenine pairs with uracil.
(a) DNA dependant RNA polymerase • Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as
(b) DNA polymerase negative regulation because repressor protein blocks
the transcription of structural genes.
(c) Reverse transcriptase
• The human genome has approximately 20,000 –
(d) RNA polymerase 25000 genes.
AIPMT-2005 • Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder. The
Ans. (c) : The enzyme which synthesis DNA using an abnormal gene responsible for haemophilia is carried
RNA template is called reverse transcriptase. Reverse on the X chromosome.
transcriptase is carried out by RNA virus. 287. Match the entries in Column I with those of
• DNA polymerase carrier process of copying parental Column II and choose the correct answer.
DNA to form daughter. DNA molecule with identical Column – I Column – II
nucleotide sequence called replication. (A) Restriction (P) Kohler an
• The RNA polymerase that synthesis RNA using endonucleases Milstein
DNA strands as the template is called DNA- (B) Polymerase (Q) Alec Jeffreys
dependent RNA polymerase, it is the enzyme that chain
catalyzes the transcription process. reaction
(C) DNA (R) Arber (b) Only z gene will get transcribed
fingerprinting (c) z, y, a genes will be transcribed
(D) Monoclonal (S) Karry Mullis (d) z, y, a genes will not be translated
antibodies NEET-2022
(A) (B) (C) (D) Ans. (d) : As the product of (i) gene binds with the
(a) (R) (S) (Q) (P) operator region and blocks the transcription and
(b) (R) (Q) (S) (P) translation of z, y and a genes. It’s product is
(c) (Q) (R) (S) (P) prevented from binding to the operator by attaching it
(d) (Q) (S) (R) (Q) with the inducer, as the inducer can now no more
Karnataka CET-2013 capable of binding with the repressor. This in all cases,
Ans. (a) : operator always gets attached with the repressor there
Column-I Coloumn-II by preventing the transcription and transmission of z,
(a) Restriction endonucleases – Arber y and a.
(b) Polymerase chain reaction – Karry Mullis Even in the presence of lactose, transcription and
(c) DNA fingerprinting – Alec Jeffreys translation of Z, y and a would not occur.
(d) Monoclonal Antibodies – Kohler Milstein 291. Assertion : DNA code is copied in the synthesis
288. Select the correct statement of mRNA.
(a) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’ Reason : tRNA moves out of nucleus and after
(b) Punnett square was developed by a British attaching on ribosomes form the template.
scientist (a) If both assertion and reason are true and
(c) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(d) Spliceosomes take part in translation (b) If both assertion and reason are true but
NEET-2018 reason is not the correct explanation of
Ans. (b) : Punnet square was developed by British assertion.
geneticist, Regnalds punnet (1927). (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
• Punnet diagram is a tool used to figure out the (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
possible allele combination of a genetic cross. VMMC-2008
• It is a chart that allow to easily determine the Ans. (c) : DNA that code for specific gene is copied in
expected percentage of different genotypes in the to mRNA in the nucleus of the cell. The mRNA then
offspring of two parents. carries the genetic information from the DNA to
• Punnet square aids in the study of possible cytoplasm for translation.
formation of gametes and zygotes. ● t-RNA moves out of nucleus and after attaching on
• Meselson and Franklin Stahl demonstrated the semi ribosomes form the template.
conservative replication of DNA.
292. DNA replication is
• T.H. Morgan coined the term linkage by performing
(a) semiconservative (b) conservative
dihybridization cross experiments on the fruit fly.
(c) dispersive (d) None of the above
• Transduction discovered by Leaderberg.
Tripura JEE-2017
• Altman discovered the catalytic property of RNA.
VMMC-2006
289. Exon part of m-RNAs have code for : -
(a) Protein Ans. (a) : • DNA replication is semi-conservative i.e., a
(b) Lipid type of replication in which one strand of the daughter
duplex is derived from the parent while the other strand
(c) Carbohydrate
is formed a new.
(d) Phospholipid
● DNA replication occurs in all living organism and
AIPMT-2002
most essential part of biological inheritance.
Ans. (a) : DNA transcribes to from pre RNA. The pre
RNA consists of a coding region called exon and non
coding region called intron. Introns are removed by a
procees called splicing that form mature mRNA. Mature
mRNA consists of exons. The exon are the functional
part that have code for proteins.
290. In an E. Coli strain i gene gets mutated and its
product can not bind the inducer molecule. If
growth medium is provided with lactose, what
will be the outcome? Conservative:- It produce one new DNA and one old
(a) RNA polymerase will bind the promoter DNA.
region ● It is not biologically significant.
292. From a DNA template with the sequence Ans. (c) : DNA ligase enzyme used to the join the DNA
CTGATAGC, the mRNA sequence formed fragment.
would be Topoisomerase:- Topisomerase enzyme maintain the
(a) GAUTATUG (b) UACTATCU overall topology of DNA. strands The enzyme work by
(c) GACUAUCG (d) GUCTUTCG binding to the DNA strand and breaking the phosphate
Assam CEE-2014 bond of either one or both strands.
Ans. (c) : In DNA, adenine pairs with thymine but in Reverse transcriptase:- Also known as RNA
RNA, the thymine is replaced by uracil. Thus, the dependent DNA polymerase is an enzyme that
mRNA sequence formed from DNA template with the transcribes single stranded RNA in to DNA.
sequence CTGATAGC will be GACUAUCG. 297. What would be the correct base sequence in
293. With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes, mRNA for the given DNA strand?
which one of the following statement is correct? 5'-AATGCCTTAAGC–3'
(a) Exons and introns do not appear in the mature (a) 5'–GCUUAAGGCAUU–3'
mRNA
(b) 5'–UUACGGAATTCG–3'
(b) Exons appear but introns do not appear in the
mature mRNA (c) 3'–UUACGGAAUUCG–5'
(c) Introns appear but exons do not appear in the (d) 3'–AAUGCCUUAUCG–5'
mature mRNA (e) 5'–UUACCGAUUUCG–3'
(d) Both exons and introns appear in the mature Kerala PMT-2009
mRNA Ans. (c) : 5'- AATGCCTTAA GC-3'
Assam CEE-2014 The correct base sequence in mRNA for given DNA
Ans. (b) : Exons appear but introns do not appear in the strand. is (3'- UUACGGAAUUCG-5').
mature mRNA. 298. The presence and position of which one of the
294. Sigma factor is related to: following defines the template and coding
(a) RNA polymerase (b) DNA polymerase strands in a transcription unit?
(c) both a and b (d) none of these (a) Repressor (b) Operator
BVP-2005 (c) Structural gene (d) Promotor
Haryana PMT-2004 (e) Inducer
Ans. (a) : Sigma factor related to RNA polymerase. Kerala PMT-2012
• RNA polymerase is a group of enzymes which Ans. (d) : The presence and position of promoter
catalyses the synthesis of RNA using the template defines the template and coding strands in a
DNA. transcription unit.
• RNA polymerase is a holoenzyme that is represented ● Repressor that block the transcription of the operon in
as (α2ββ’ω)σ. the presences of lactose.
● DNA polymerase is the enzyme that catalyses the
299.
synthesis of DNA molecules from nucleoside
triphosphate the molecule precursor of DNA. List –I List–II
295. DNA multiplication is called: (A) Exon (I) Site for binding of
(a) translation (b) transduction RNA polymerase
(c) transcription (d) replication (B) Capping (II) Coding sequence
BVP-2001 (C) Tailing (III) Lagging strand
Ans. (d) : DNA replication is the process of formation (D) Promoter (IV) Methyl guanosine
of copies of own type DNA molecules. Hence DNA triphosphate
multiplication is also known as DNA replication. (V) Adenylate residues
● Transduction is the transfer of the genetic material (A) (B) (C) (D)
from one bacterium to another with the help of a (a) (IV) (II) (III) (I)
virus.
(b) (II) (IV) (V) (I)
● Translation is process in which of the converting
(c) (II) (IV) (I) (V)
nucleic acid information in to amino acid.
(d) (III) (I) (II) (IV)
296. The enzyme used to join the DNA fragments is AP EAMCET-2014
(a) Topoisomerase
Ans. (b) :
(b) Adenosine deaminase
(a) Exon ÷ Coding sequence
(c) DNA ligase
(b) capping ÷ Methyl guanosine triphosphate
(d) DNA polymerase
(e) Reverse transcriptase (c) Tailing ÷ Adenylate residuces
Kerala PMT-2009 (d) promoter ÷ site for binding of RNA polymerase
300. Given below are two statements: 303. Math list-I and list-II and select the correct
Statement I : DNA polymerases catalyse answer using the code
polymerisation only in one direction, that is S. List - I List-II
5' → 3' No. (Enzyme) (Enzyme function)
Statement II: During replication of DNA, on 1. Ligase Joins short
one strand the replication is continuous while segment of DNA
on other strand it is discontinuous. together
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: 2. DNA Polymerase Cuts DNA at
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct specific DNA
sequence
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect 3 Helicase Breaks the
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is hydrogen bonds
incorrect between
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is complementary
correct pairs during DNA
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 replication
Ans. (a) : DNA replication is semiconservative. Each (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
strand in the double helix acts as a template for (b) 1 and 2 are correct
synthesis of a new complementary strand. (c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
• New DNA is made by enzymes called DNA (d) 1 and 3 are correct
polymerases, which require a template and a primer BHU PMT (Mains)-2006
(Starter) and synthesize DNA is the 5' to 3' direction. Ans. (d) :
• During DNA replication, one new strand (the leading (1) Ligase Join short segment of DNA together
strand) is made as a continuous piece. The other (the (2) DNA DNA polymerase is to synthesize
lagging strand) is made in small pieces. polymerase DNA by the process of replication.
• DNA replication requires other enzymes in addition (3) Helicase Break the hydrogen bonds between of
to DNA polymerase, including DNA primase, DNA Complementary pair during DNA
helicase, DNA ligase and topoisomerase. replication.
301. During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence 304. Restriction enzymes recognize and cleave/cut at
of the DNA strand that is being coded is specific site of the molecule of
ATACG, then the nucleotide sequence in the
(a) DNA (b) carbohydrates
mRNA would be -
(a) TCTGG (b) UAUGC (c) fats (d) vitamis.
(c) UATGC (d) TATGC AMU-1995
AIPMT-2004 Ans. (a) : Restriction enzyme are use and restriction
endonuclease enzyme that cleave or cut specific site of
Ans. (b) : During the transcription, the base sequence
the DNA molecule.
(nucleotide sequence) of mRNA will be decided with
base sequence in DNA. 305. Teminism is same as
• The complementary base pairing of mRNA during (a) transcription (b) translation
process of transcription will be as follows. (c) reverse transcription (d) DNA synthesis
Given nucleotide of DNA strand. AIIMS-1995
Ans. (c) : Teminism is same as reverse transcription
teminism theory was given by temin and Baltimore in
1978 Reverse transcription is the group of enzymes
The nucleotide sequence of mRNA would be UAUGC. associate with teminism. This theory explains that RNA
302. Split genes are made up of exons and introns. can act as a template for DNA formation.
The coding sequences are called as : ● Reverse transcription is process by using RNA
(a) exons (b) introns template to synthesized complementary DNA.
(c) cistrons (d) mutans 306. Okazaki fragments form:
BVP-2000 (a) leading strand (b) lagging strand
Ans. (a) : The coding sequence found in the split gene (c) non sense strand (d) senseful strand
are called exons. AIIMS-2000
● Split gene are made up of exon and intron. Ans. (b) : Okazaki fragment are newly synthesized
• Exons are coding sequence codes for protein by short sequence of DNA which are synthesized
translation. discontinuously and later joined together by the enzyme
• Introns are intervening sequences. It does not code DNA ligase to create the lagging strand during DNA
for any protein. replication.
307. The sequence that controls the copy number of Ans. (c) : DNA dependent RNA polymerase of
the linked DNA in the vector, is termed prokaryotes has the ability to initiate elongate and
(a) Ori site terminate the process of transcription.
(b) Palindromic sequence 311. Identify the correct statement.
(c) Recognition site (a) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of
(d) Selectable marker prokaryotes
NEET-2020 Phase-I (b) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is
Ans. (a) The sequence that controls the copy number of added to the 3' end of hnRNA
linked DNA in the vector is the ori site. (c) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to\
terminate the process of transcription in
• Ori site or “origin of replication” is a sequence
bacteria
from which replication starts. (d) The coding strand in a transcription unit is
• So, it controls how many times gene of interest will be copied to an mRNA
produced in the host cell. NEET-2021
308. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of Ans. (c) : RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to
DNA helix during transcription. terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.
(a) DNA helicase • Split gene arrangement is characteristic of
(b) DNA polymerase eukaryotes.
(c) RNA polymerase • In capping 7-methyl guanosine triphosphate is added
(d) DNA ligase at 5′end of hn RNA.
NEET-2020 Phase-I • At 3′ end poly-A tail is added.
Ans. (c) : RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to the • The primary transcript (hnRNA) is made of two
promoter, unwinds DNA (open complex) and form types of sequences-introns and exons. The introns are
phosphodiester links between the initiating nucleotides. removed by a process called RNA splicing and the
• DNA polymerase , DNA ligase and DNA helicase exons are joined to form mRNA.
are involved in the process of replication and not • RNA polymerase associate with factor (Rho factor).
transcription. It alters the specificity of the RNA polymerase to
• RNA polymerase facilities opening of DNA helix terminate the processes.
during transcription. 312. Which is the most common mechanism of
genetic variation in the population of sexually
reproducing organism ?
(a) Chromosomal aberrations
(b) Genetic drift
(c) Recombination
(d) Transduction
AIPMT-2015
Ans. (c) : Recombination is the most common
mechanism of genetic variation in the population of
309. E. Coli has only 4.6 × 106 base pairs and sexually reproducing organism.
completes the process of replication within 18 Recombination is a significant source of variability.
minutes; then the average rate of During meiosis in sexually reproducing organisms, two
polymerisation is approximately homologous chromosome of the male and the other
(a) 1000 base pairs (b) 2000 base pairs from female parents crossover one another and
exchange their genetic material. The chromosome then
(c) 3000 base pairs (d) 4000 base pairs
split and form an offspring. It can be selected to
NEET-2020 Phase-II increase fitness by nature because the more
Ans. (b) :E. coli takes about 18 minutes to duplicate its recombination the more variability and the more
genome of 4.6 × 106 base pairs that means the average variability the easier it is for the population to handle
rate of polymerization has to be approximately 2000 the changes therefore the most common cause of
base pair per second. variation is recombination in the organism.
310. Which is the "Only enzyme" that has
"Capability" to catalyse Initiation, Elongation
and Termination in the process of transcription
in prokaryotes?
(a) DNase
(b) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(c) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(d) DNA Ligase
NEET-2021
313. Which one of the following is wrongly
matched?
(a) Transcription-Writing information from DNA
to t-RNA
(b) Translation-Using information in m-RNA to
make protein
(c) Repressor protein-Binds to operator to stop
enzyme synthesis
(d) Operon- Structural genes, operator and
promoter.
AIPMT-2014 316. Which of the following mRNA can be
Ans. (a) : Transcription is the process by which transcripted as
complementary RNA strand is synthesised from a (a) AUG.UGA.UUU
specific region of DNA. The enzyme involved in the (b) UAA.UAG.UGA
process of transcription is DNA dependent RNA (c) UAG.UGA.UUU
polymerase. (d) UGA.UUU.UAG
Transcription is writing information from DNA to m JIPMER-2018
RNA and not DNA to tRNA. Ans. (a) : mRNA can be transcripted as AUG, UGA,
UUU. Because AUG, UGA, UUU is only the sequence
which have initiation codon AUG. Rest of the
sequences start with the stop codon that is UAA, UAG,
and UGA therefore, these sequences can not be
transcribed.
317. During transcription, the DNA site at which
RNA polymerase binds is called: -
(a) Promoter (b) Regulator
(c) Receptor (d) Enhancer
J&K CET-2014
314. What initiation and termination factors are AIPMT-2003
involved in transcription in Eukaryotes? Ans. (a): Transcription is the process of copying a
(a) α and σ, respectively segment of DNA into RNA during the transcription
(b) σ and ρ, respectively RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region.
(c) α and β, respectively The promoter site is located at the 5' end of the coding/
non-template strand, upstream of The initiation codon
(d) β and γ, respectively
of the structural gene of the transcription unit.
NEET (Odisha)-2019 The promoter contains a sequence of nitrogenous bases
Ans. (b) : Sigma(σ)factor is responsible for initiation of that provide a site for the RNA polymerase to bind and
transcription. intiate the process of transcription.
• Rho (ρ) factor is responsible for termination of
transcription.
• Eukaryotes require transcription factors to first bind
to the promoter region and then help recruit the
appropriate polymerase.
315. DNA replication in bacteria occurs
(a) During S-phase
(b) Within nucleolus
(c) Prior to fission
(d) Just before transcription
NEET-2017 318. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a
Ans. (c) : Replication is the process by which DNA GTP molecule is needed in: -
makes a copy of itself. (a) Formation of formyl-met-tRNA
• In bacteria, DNA replication occurs prior to fission. (b) Binding of 30S subunit of ribosome with
mRNA
• In eukaryotes, DNA replication occurs during (c) Association of 30 S-mRNA with formyl met-
S-phase of cell cycle. tRNA
(d) Association of 50 S subunit of ribosome with 323. In a eukaryotic transcription and translation
initiation complex take place____
AIPMT-2003 (a) Only in cytoplasm
Ans. (c): During translation intiation in prokaryotes, a (b) In nucleus and cytoplasm
GTP molecule is required along with 30 S ribosome, m (c) In cytoplasm and ribosomes
RNA with formyl met-t-RNA GTP provides energy and (d) Only in nucleus
ribosome provide site for translation. MHT CET-2019
319. Which of the following reunites the exon Ans. (b) : In eukaryotic transcription occurs in the
segments after RNA splicing : - nucleus and translation occurs in the cytoplasm of cell..
(a) RNA polymerase (b) RNA primase 324. Which one of the following is NOT a structural
(c) RNA ligase (d) RNA proteases part of a transcription unit in DNA?
AIPMT-2002 (a) Promoter (b) Structural gene
Ans. (c) : DNA ligase is capable of catalyzing the (c) Terminator (d) Inducer
formation of the phosphodiester bond that seals the nick MHT CET-2019
of two DNA fragments. Ans. (d) : Inducer is not a structural part of
Primase is an RNA polymerase that is used to initiate transcription unit in DNA but regulate its expression.
DNA Synthesis. RNA ligase reunites the exon segment ● Promoter and structural gene and terminator is
after RNA splicing. structural part of transcription unit in DNA.
320. Who discovered the restriction enzyme ? 325. During replication of DNA, the two strands of
(a) Nathan, Arber and Smith the double helix are seprated from each other
(b) Watson, Crick and Wilkins under the influence of enzyme____
(c) Boyer and Cohen (a) Rep-protein (b) SSBP
(d) Paul Berg (c) Initiator protein (d) DNA polymerase
Tripura JEE-2017 MHT CET-2016
Ans. (a) : Restriction enzyme was discovered by Ans. (a) : Rep-protein is the influence enzyme during
Nathan, Arber and Smith. replication of DNA. The two strand the double helix are
● Restriction enzyme or restriction endo nuclease is an separately from each other influence of enzyme.
enzyme that cuts of DNA molecules. ● Initiator protein are specific DNA sequence within the
● Watson and Crick discovered the double helical origin of replication.
model of DNA in 1953. 326. During DNA replication, the addition of
● Boyer and cohen created experiment of genetic nucleotides on the lagging strand occurs
engineering in 1973.
(a) Towards the replicating fork
321. During DNA replication, supercoilling is (b) At a faster rate than leading strand
relaxed by (c) Continuosly
(a) primase
(d) Discontinuously
(b) polymerase
MHT CET-2015
(c) DNA topoisomerase
Ans. (d) : During replication both leading and lagging
(d) SSBPs
strands are synthesized in 5’ →3’ direction. Leading
JIPMER-2019 strand is synthesized continuously whereas lagging
Ans. (c) : • During DNA replication, supercoilling is strand synthesized in small pieces on DNA template.
relaxed by DNA topoisomerase. So, the addition of nucleotides on the lagging strand
• DNA topoisomerase solve the topological problems occurs in discontinuously during DNA replication.
associated with DNA replication, transcription, 327. Semiconservative method is associated with
remolding by introducing temporary single or double- (a) DNA replication
strand breaks in the DNA. (b) Transcription
322. During DNA replication, the strands separate (c) Translation
by (d) Protein synthesis
(a) DNA polymerase (b) Topoisomerase MHT CET-2009
(c) unwindase/helicase (d) Gyrase
Ans. (a) : Semiconservative method is associated with
VMMC-2006 the DNA replication.
AIPMT-1993 ● DNA replication is the process of dividing a double
Ans. (c) : The initiation of DNA replication occurs in stranded DNA molecule in two identical molecule.
two steps. First, a so-called initiator protein unwinds a
short stretch of the DNA double helix. Then, a protein 328. Which of the following is the first step in DNA
known as helicase attaches to and breaks apart the replication?
hydrogen bonds between the bases on the DNA strands (a) Formation of template strand
thereby pulling apart the two strands. (b) Formation of leading strand
(c) Formation of lagging strand 332. Identify the reaction site of the Hind II enzyme,
(d) Attraction of nucleotides DNA ligase and ribonuclease respectively.
MHT CET-2009 (A) RNA
Ans. (a) : First step in DNA replication is formation of (B) DNA-sugar-phosphate back bone
template strand. (C) Joining sticky ends of DNA
● DNA replication is also called DNA amplificaiotn
this is the first process in the central dogma (a) A, B, C (b) C, B, A
molecular biology.
(c) B, A, C (d) B, C, A
● After replication among two DNA strand one will be
newly synthesis strand and one will be old strand. TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-II
329. m–RNA synthesis is known as Ans. (d) : Hind II enzyme reaction site of DNA ligase
(a) Translation (b) Transcription and ribonuelease is DNA sugar phosphate back bone of
Joining sticky end of DNA and RNA.
(c) Replication (d) Duplication
MHT CET-2004 333. Polymerisation of DNA nucleotides during the
Ans. (b) : mRNA synthesis is known as a transcription. synthesis of lagging strand occurs in:
● Translation is process in which cell protein using the (a) 3'→5' direction
genetic information carried in mRNA. (b) 5' → 3' direction
● The mRNA is made by copying DNA. (c) Any direction
● Replication occurs in all living organism acting the (d) promotor to terminator direction
most essential part biological inheritance. Karnataka CET-2017
330. Consider the following statements : Ans. (b) : Polymerization of DNA nucleotides during
In eukaryotes the synthesis of lagging strand occurs in 5' – 3'
(i). RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs direction.
(ii). RNA polymerase II transcribes snRNAs 334. The enzyme responsible for transcription is
(iii). RNA polymerases III transcribes hnRNA (a) DNA polymerase - 1
(iv). RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA
(b) RNA polymerase
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) Reverse transcriptase
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) DNA polymerase - III
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct CG PMT-2005
(e) (i) and (iv) are correct Ans. (b) : RNA polymerase enzyme is responsible for
Kerala PMT-2011 transcription and copying a DNA sequence to RNA
Ans. (e) : In eukaryotes RNA polymerase I is sequence during the process of transcription.
transcribes rRNAS. and RNA polymerase II transcribes 335. The transcription unit is:
the hn RNA. (a) TATA box to start point
331. Choose the correct statements. (b) TATA box to stop codon
(A) tRNA looks an inverted 'L'. (c) Start point to stop codon
(B) Single DNA dependent RNA polymerase (d) 35 sequence to start point
catalyses transcription of types of RNA in DUMET-2006
eukaryotes.
Ans. (b) : The transcription unit is a TATA box to the
(C) The structural gene in a transcription unit
stop codon.
is polycistronic in prokaryotes.
(D) Transcriptase catalyses the polymerization 336. The portion of an eukaryotic gene which is
of DNA in 5'→3' direction where 3'→5' transcribed but not translated is
strand acts as template. (a) Exon (b) Intron
(a) A, B, C only (b) B, C, D only (c) Cistron (d) Codon
(c) A, B, D only (d) A, C, D only Karnataka CET-2013
TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-II Ans. (b) : Intron is the portion of an eukaryotic gene
Ans. (d) : tRNA looks an inverted L shaped and which is transcribed but not translated.
synthesis of protein. ● Cistron A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide
● The structural gene in a transcription unit is the structural gene is transcription unit is called cistron.
polycistronic in prokaryotes. 337. Formation of RNA from DNA is known as :
● Transcriptase catalyses the polymerization of DNA (a) transcription (b) translation
in 5' → 3' direction where 3' → 5' strand act as (c) replication (d) recombination
template. DUMET-2002
Ans. (a) : Formation of RNA from DNA is known as 340. Select the wrong pair:
transcription. (a) RNA polymerase I - Sn RNA 5S rRNA, r-
● Replication is process of producing two identical RNA
replicas of DNA from one original DNA molecule. (b) RNA polymerase I - r-RNA
● Translation is the process in which protein using (c) RNA polymerase II - hnRNA
genetic information carried in mRNA. (d) RNA polymerase III - tRNA
338. cDNA probes are copied from the messenger AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I
RNA molecules with the help of Ans.(a): RNA polymerase I transcribe rRNAs
(a) restriction enzymes (28S,18S,5.8S),
RNA polymerase II transcribe the precursor of mRNA,
(b) reverse transcriptase
the heterogeneous RNA (hnRNA).
(c) DNA polymerase
RNA Polymerase III transcribes tRNA, 5S rRNA,
(d) adenosine deaminase snRNA.
AIIMS-2005 341. Which of the following statement is wrong
Ans. (b) : Complementary DNA (cDNA) is DNA about transcription in bacteria?
synthesized from a single-stranded RNA (e.g., (a) Splicing is not required
messenger RNA (mRNA)) template in a reaction (b) Single RNA polymerase controls all DNA
catalyzed by the enzyme reverse transcriptase also polymerases
known as RNA-dependent DNA polymerase. This (c) This process required more/less energy
enzyme is mostly seen in viruses such as retroviruses. (d) None
Ans. (b) : Single RNA polymerase controls all DNA
polymerases is wrong about transcription in bacteria.
• RNA polymerase (RNAP) is the essential enzyme
responsible for transcribing the genetic information
stored in DNA to RNA.
• Bacterial transcription is the process in which a
segment of bacterial DNA is copied into a nearly
339. m-RNA is formed by? synthesized strand of messenger RNA polymerases.
(a) Translation (b) Transcription Transcription and translation also takes place in the
(c) Duplication (d) capping same compartment and they happen together in
AIIMS-26.05.2019 Shift-I prokaryotes. Therefore splicing is not required.
Ans. (b) : Messenger RNA is formed in the nucleus. 342. Which one of the following correctly represents
The process by which mRNA is formed from the DNA the manner of replication of DNA?
present in the nucleus is called transcription.
• The mRNA formed within the nucleus is transported
out of the nucleus and into the cytoplasm of the cell and
gets attached to the ribosomes. It then synthesized
proteins in the cytoplasm which is required by the cell
for various cellular activities.
AIIMS-2003
Ans. (d) : DNA replication takes place in the 5' to 3'
direction because DNA polymerase acts on the 3'–OH
of the existing strand for adding free nucleotides.

• Genetic material is always nucleic acid and always The correct match is :
DNA except some viruses A B C D
• DNA is the storehouse of genetic information (a) III I IV II
• Replication- Replication is also called as semi- (b) III IV II I
conservative replication, in which dividing a double (c) II III IV I
stranded DNA molecule into two identical DNA (d) I III II IV
molecule TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-I
• Transcription- In this process DNA is copied to Ans. (a) :
RNA. List-I List-II
• Translation- RNA is used to produce proteins. (A) E-coli has 4.6 × 106 bp
343. With respect to DNA synthesis, identify the (B) Diploid human cell has 6–6 × 109 bp
correct combination of statements. (C) DNA dependent 5'– 3' direction
I. Always the direction of DNA RNA polymerase
polymerization is 5' → 3' when referring to Catalyze is
the polarity of strand being synthesized. (D) The continuous 3'– 5' polarity
II. DNA ligase forms hydrogen bonds between Replication is with
two newly synthesized DNA strands. 346. The transcription unit is represented by the
III. DNA polymerases on their own cannot following diagram. Select the correct answer
initiate the process of replication. based on this.
IV. DNA polymerase can catalyse
polymerization in both 5' → 3' and 3' → 5'
direction.
(a) II, III and IV (b) I and II A B C D
(a) Promoter Terminator Coding strand Structural gene
(c) I and III (d) III and IV (b) Promoter Coding strand Terminator Structural gene
TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-I (c) Terminator Coding strand Structural gene Promoter
(d) Promoter Structural gene Coding strand Terminator
Ans. (c) : In the context of DNA synthesis, the AP EAMCET-2016
direction of DNA polymerization is 5'––3' when Ans. (b) : The transcription unit is represented by the
referring to the polarity of strand being synthesized. (A) promoter (B) Structural gene (C) coding strand (D)
● DNA polymerase on their own cannot initiate the Terminator .
process of replication. 347. Restriction enzymes :
344. Which enzyme joins DNA fragments ? (a) are endonucleases which cleave DNA at
(a) DNA ligase (b) DNA polymerase specific sites
(c) DNA gyrase (d) Topoisomerase (b) make DNA complementary to an existing
AMU-2009 DNA or RNA
Punjab MET-2008 (c) cut or join DNA fragments
(d) are required in vectorless direct gene transfer
Ans. (a) : DNA ligase is the enzyme responsible for
joining or sealing breaks in the sugar-phosphate Punjab MET-2006
backbone of DNA strands. It plays a crucial role in Ans. (a) : Restriction enzymes are endonucleases that
DNA replication, repair, and recombination by connecting cut DNA at specific recognition sites, which are
the individual DNA fragments, such as Okazaki fragments typically palindromic sequences. They do not make
on the lagging strand during replication, into a continuous, DNA complementary to existing DNA or RNA (as in
functional DNA molecule. transcription or reverse transcription), and they are not
involved in direct gene transfer without vectors. Instead,
345. Match the following lists: their main function is to cut DNA at precise locations,
List - I List - II which is crucial in molecular biology techniques like
A) E. coli has I) 6.6 × 109 bp DNA cloning and genetic engineering.
B) Diploid II) 3'- 5' polarity 348. Formation of m-RNA on a DNA template, is
human cell called:
has (a) transcription (b) translation
C) DNA III) 4.6 × 106 bp (c) transduction (d) none of these
dependent J&K CET-2000
RNA Ans. (a) : Formation of m-RNA on a DNA template is
polymerase called transcription.
catalyse in ● Translation is the synthesis of polypeptide protein by
D) The IV) 5' - 3' - direction polymerization of amino acid using mRNA sequent
continuous as template.
replication is ● transduction is transfer of genetic material from one
with strain to other viral particle.
349. The enzyme, which helps to cut one strand of 354. Identify the correct pair of combinations
DNA duplex to release tension of coiling of two (I) Schwann  Omnis cellula-e-cellula
strands is (II) Ochoa  Polynucleotide phosphorylase
(a) DNA ligase (III) Taylor  Semi conservative replication of
(b) DNA pblymerase DNA
(c) topo-isomerase (IV) Flemming Ribosomes
(d) swielases (helicase of unwindases) (a) (II), (III) (b) (III), (IV)
JCECE-2007 (c) (II), (IV) (d) (I), (III)
Ans. (c) : topo-isomerase enzyme which help to cut one TS EAMCET-15.05.2016
strand of DNA duplex to release tension of coiling of Ans. (a) :
two strand. ● Virchow - Omnis cellula-e Cellula
350. If the sequence of bases in DNA is ● Ochoa- Polynucleotide phosphorylase
ATTCGATG, then the sequence of bases in its ● Taylor- Semiconservative replication of DNA
transcript will be ● Flemming- Penicillin
(a) GUAGCUUA (b) AUUCGAUG 355. RNA polymerase-I transcribes eukaryotic
(c) CAUCGAAU (d) UAAGCUAC ribosome which does not consist of
AIPMT-1995 (a) 28 SrRNA (b) 5 SrRNA
Ans. (d) : Transcription is the process of synthesis of (c) 5.8 SrRNA (d) 18 SrRNA
mRNA on DNA template by the complementary bases. Karnataka CET-2015
The correct sequence of bases in its transcript will be Ans. (b) : 28S rRNA: This is a large ribosomal RNA
UAAGCUAC. molecule found in eukaryotic ribosomes. It plays a
crucial role in the structural and functional integrity of
351. In split genes, the coding sequences are called the ribosome during protein synthesis.
(a) Exons (b) Cistrons 5S rRNA: This ribosomal RNA molecule is also found
(c) Introns (d) Operons in eukaryotic ribosomes. It contributes to the structure
AIPMT-1995 and function of the ribosome, but it is distinct from the
Ans. (a) : The coding sequences are called exons. The 28S rRNA.
coding regions containing actual information of the 5.8S rRNA: Another component of eukaryotic
genes (exons) of most eukoryotic genes are interrupted ribosomes, the 5.8S rRNA, is involved in the ribosome's
by few to several non-coding sequences called intorons structural stability and its role in protein synthesis.
which are spliced out after transcription such genes are 18S rRNA: This is a ribosomal RNA molecule that
called split genes. forms a part of the small subunit of eukaryotic
ribosomes. It is essential for the ribosome's function in
352. The process of transfer of genetic information decoding messenger RNA and facilitating protein
from DNA to RNA/formation of RNA from synthesis.
DNA is
• So, the correct answer is that eukaryotic ribosomes do
(a) Transversion (b) Transcription not consist of 5 SrRNA.
(c) Translation (d) Translocation
356. Choose the wrong statements
AIPMT-1991 (A) Expressed sequences of eukaryotic genes
Ans. (b) : Transcription is the process by which DNA is are exons.
copied to mRNA, which carries the information needed (B) Intervening gene sequences of eukaryotes
for protein synthesis. Transcription takes place in two that do not appear in processed RNA are
broad steps. Frist, pre-messenger RNA is formed, with cistrons.
the involvement of RNA-polymerase enzymes. (C) Process of removal of introns and joining
353. The process by which language of DNA is of exons in defined order is splicing.
converted into language of m-RNA is called : (D) Monocistronic transcriptional unit has
(a) transformation (b) transcription only exons.
(c) translation (d) transduction Options:
J&K CET-2001 (a) A, B (b) B, C
(c) A, D (d) B, D
Ans. (b) : Transcription is the process by which
language of DNA is converted in to language of mRNA.
Ans. (d) : Eukaryotic mRNA are monocistronic which
● Translation is synthesis of polypeptide protein by are transcribed from a single gene and thus carry single
polymerization of amino acid using mRNA sequence initiation and termination codons there by coding for a
as template. single polypeptide.
● Translation is transfer of genetic martial from one A eukaryotic cell has a nucleus, surrounded by the
strain to other. nuclear membrane. There are other membrane systems
in their cells, such as endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi Ans. (b) :
apparatus, and vacuole. List - I List - II List - III
• Expressed sequences of eukaryotic genes are exons. Templatestrand Transcriptase DNA with 3'– 5' Polarity.
• Process of removal of introns and joining of exons in Befor structural
Locationof promotor 5'end of coding s tan d
defined order is splicing. Gene
Two different modes of splicing have been defined, that Okazaki fragment 5'– 3'polarity DNAligase
is, constitutive splicing and alternative splicing. DNA replication
Constitutive splicing is the process of removing introns Taylor exp eriment Faba beans semiconservation
from the pre–mRNA, and Joining the exons together to mod e.
form a mature mRNA. 360. The place where RNA polymerase attaches
357. DNA chromosome replication takes place with the DNA is called:
during: (a) promoter site (b) operator site
(a) G1- phase (b) G2- phase (c) activator site (d) repressor site
(c) S-phase (d) Prophase BVP-2006
MGIMS Wardha-2006 Ans. (a) : The place where RNA polymerase attaches to
DNA is called the "promoter site." It's a specific DNA
Ans. (c) : DNA chromosome replication takes place sequence where transcription begins, allowing RNA
during the S-phase of the cell cycle. This is when the polymerase to initiate the synthesis of RNA from the
DNA in the cell's chromosomes is duplicated, ensuring DNA template.
that each daughter cell receives a complete set of 361. Transcription of DNA is aided by
genetic information during cell division. (a) exonuclease (b) recombinase
358. Which of the following first suggest the (c) DNA polymerase (d) RNA polymerase
conservative model of DNA replication? BVP-2011
(a) Cairns Ans. (d) : Transcription of DNA aided by RNA
(b) Meselson and Stahl polymerase.
(c) Watson and Crick ● RNA polymerase enzyme is responsible for transcription
and copying DNA sequence to RNA sequence.
(d) Taylor
362. Read the following statements and choose the
DUMET-2007
correct option.
Ans. (b) : Conservative model of DNA replication was 1. RNA polymerase associates transiently
given by Meselson and Stahl. with ‘Rho’ factor to initiate teanscription
● Semiconservative replication of DNA was given by 2. In bacteria, transcription and translation
Taylor. takes place in the same compartment
● Double helix DNA model was given by Watson and 3. RNA polymerase I is responsible for
crick. transcription of tRNA
4. When hnRNA undergoes capping process,
359. Match the following lists:
adenylate residues are added at 3′end in a
List-I List-II List-III template independent manner
(A) Template (i) Before (I) DNA 5. hnRNA is the precursor of mRNA
strand structural gene replication (a) 2 only is correct
semi (b) 2, 3 and 5 only are correct
conservative (c) 3 and 4 only are correct
mode (d) 1 and 4 only are correct
(B) Location (ii) Faba beans (II) DNA with (e) 2 and 5 only are correct
of promotor 3'-5' polarity Kerala PMT-2014
Ans. (e) : In bacteria transcription and translation take
(C) Okazaki (iii)Transcriptase (III) 5' end of place in the same compartment.
fragments coding strand
● hn RNA is the precursor of m RNA.
(D) Taylor (iv) 5'-3' polarity (IV) DNA ligase
363. The heavy isotope used for proving semi-
experiments conservative replication of DNA by Meselson
The correct match is and Stahl was
A B C D (a) 15N (b) 14N
14
ii, II i, III iii, IV iv, I (c) C (d) 31N
(a) 31
(e) P
(b) iii, II i, III iv, IV ii, I Kerala PMT-2013
(c) iii, III ii, IV i, I iv, II 15
Ans. (a) : N is the heavy isotopes used for providing
(d) iv, II ii, IV i, III iii, I semi conservative replication of DNA by Meselson and
TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-I Stahl.
364. Arrange the following events of the replication 367. During replication of retrovirus
of DNA. Choose the correct alternative? (a) Viral protein is introduced in the host cell.
(i) Bonds between complementary bases (b) Viral RNA is introduced into the host cell
breaks (c) Viral DNA is introduced into the host cell.
(ii) Bonds between complementary bases (d) Transcriptase enzyme is introduced into the
forms host cell.
(iii) DNA molecules uncoil Karnataka CET-2018
(iv) Opposite strands separate Ans. (b) : During replication of retrovirus viral RNA is
(v) Sugar phosphate bonds forms introduced into the host cell. After a retrovirus enter a
(vi) Free nucleotides align with the host cell reverse transcriptase convert the retroviral
complementary nucleotides on each strand RNA genome into double stranded DNA. The viral
DNA then migrate to the nucleus and becomes
(a) (vi), (i), (iii), (iv), (v), (ii) integrated into host genome.
(b) (iii), (vi), (i), (iv), (v), (ii)
368. In the given transcription unit, identify the
(c) (i), (iii), (vi), (iv), (ii), (v) regions I and II respectively.
(d) (iii), (i), (iv), (vi), (ii), (v)
Ans. (d) : During the replication of DNA firstly DNA
molecules uncoil then bonds between complementary
(a) Promoter and Terminator
bases breaks, opposite strands separate, free nucleotides
(b) Rho factor and Sigma factor
align with the complementary nucleotides on each
(c) Terminator and Promoter
strand, then Bonds between complementary bases forms
(d) Operator and Inhibitor
again and last sugar phosphate bonds forms.
Karnataka CET-2018
365. Which option shows correctly labelled region in Ans. (c) : There is the promoter region which is the start
the given diagram of DNA replication? site of transcription there is a structural gene. there are
two strands. The 5'-3' is the coding strands and the 3'-5'
is the template strand. The transcripction unit has a
promoter on the 5' end (up steam) of the coding strand
and terminator on the 3' end.
369. Match the animals of Column I with the
Column II and select the correct options among
the following:
Column I Column II
1. DNA replication I. RNA
(a) Only r (b) p, r polymerase
(c) p, q (d) q, r 2. Translation II. DNA
polymerase
GUJCET-2014
3. Transcription III. Reverse
Ans. (a) : DNA replication is the process by which a transcriptase
double stranded DNA molecule is copied one Synthesis 4. Reverse IV. Aminoacyl
is complete the RNA primer are replaced with DNA and transcription synthetase
any gaps between newly synthesized DNA segments are Select the code for the correct answer from the
sealed together with enzyme. options given below :
366. For the given sequence of DNA, identify the 1 2 3 4
complementary sequence of bases on its mRNA (a) II IV III I
from the options given below : (b) II IV I III
DNA 3′ - ATGCATGCATGC - 5′ (c) II III IV I
(a) 5′ - UACGUACGUACG - 3′ (d) II I IV III
(b) 5′ - TACGTACGTACG -3′ Karnataka CET-2018
(c) 3′ - UACGUACGUACG -5′ Ans. (b)
(d) 5′ – GCATGCATGCAT -3′ S.N. Column Column-II
Karnataka CET-2020 1 DNA replication DNA polymerase
Ans. (a) : DNA 3’ – A T G C A T G C A T G C –5’ 2 Translation Aminoacyl synthetase
mRNA 5’ – U A C G U A C G U A C G – 3’ 3 Transcription RNA polymerase
During transcription DNA change into mRNA. Adenine 4 Reverse Reverse transcriptase
convert in uracil not thymine. Transcription

370. When DNA replication starts 373. DNA gyrase, the enzyme that participates in
(a) The hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides the process of DNA replication is a type of
of two strands break. (a) Reverse Transcriptase
(b) The phosphodiester bonds between the (b) DNA Topoisomerase
adjacent nucleotides break. (c) DNA Polymerase
(c) The bonds between the nitrogen base and (d) DNA Ligase
deoxyribose sugar break. Karnataka CET-2010
(d) The leading strand produces okazaki
Ans. (b) : DNA gyrase, the enzyme that participates in
fragments.
the process of DNA replication is a type of DNA
Karnataka CET-2009 topoisomerase.
Ans. (a) : DNA replication starts with unwinding of
374. Consider these following sentences and choose
DNA duplexes which are held together by hydrogen
the correct ones.
bond.
I. Each gene contains a specific promoter
• Helicases move along the double stranded DNA and
region and a leader sequence for guiding
separate the strands by breaking hydrogen bonds
the beginning of transcription.
between base pairs.
II. Only one strand of DNA, called template
371. 3'AAA TGC GCG ATA 5' is the sequence of strand is copied by RNA polymerase this
nucleotides on a gene; after transcription the
strand runs in 3' → 5' direction.
mRNA formed against it and the sequence of
bases in the corresponding binding anticodon III. RNA polymerase adds complementary
will be : nucleotides forming single strand mRNA in
(a) 5' UUU ACG CGC UAU 3' and 3' AAA- 3' → 5' direction.
UGC-GCG-AUA5' IV. Section of DNA that has been transcribed
(b) 5'UAU CGC GCA UUU 3' and 3' AUA- is rewound into its original configuration.
GCG-CGU-AAA5' (a) II, III and IV (b) II and IV
(c) 5'UUU ACC TUG UAU 3' and 3' AAA- (c) I, II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
UGG-UAC-AUA5' JIPMER-2016
(d) 5'UAU GUT CCA UUU 3' and 3' AUA- Ans. (d) : A promoter is region of DNA which initiate
CAU-GGU-AAA5' transcription of a single RNA. Only one strand of DNA
Karnataka CET-2012 is copied by RNA polymerase that run in the 3'→5'
Ans. (a) : The correct answer is 5' UUU ACG CGC direction that adds complementary nucleotides forming
UAU 3' and 3' AAA UGC GCG AUA5'. single strand mRNA in the 3'→5' direction.
Codons and anticodons are complementary in Section of DNA transcribed its original configuration.
nature, Adenine base pairs with uracil in RNA and 375. During transcription, RNA polymerase
thymine in DNA. Guanine and cytosine pair with each holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and
other. These are complementary base pairs. Out of these assumes a saddle-like structure. What is it's
Adenine and guanine are purines and Thymine and DNA-binding sequence ?
cytosine are pyrimidinesn. (a) TATA (b) TTAA
372. Compare the statements A and B (c) AATT (d) CACC
Statement A : RNA produced during AIPMT-2007
transcription in eukaryotic cells cannot be straight
away used in photosynthesis. Ans. (a) : TATA box is a DNA sequence that is present
in the promoter region of the DNA of eukaryotes and
Statement B : RNA splicing phenomena helps in
some archaea.
the removal of exons.
• The TATA box usually contains the sequence TATA
Choose the correct description.
and followed by a variable sequence.
(a) Both the statements A and B are crorrect
(b) Both the statements A and B are wrong • During transcription, the RNA polymerase
holoenzyme recognize the TATA sequence in the
(c) Statement A is wrong and B is correct
promoter, binds to it and initiates transcription.
(d) Statement A is correct and B is wrong
Karnataka CET-2010 376. Molecular basis of organ differentiation
depends on the modulation in transcription by-
Ans. (b) : Heterogenous nuclear RNA is the original
(a) Anticodon (b) RNA polymerase
product of transcription of eukaryotic genes which is
much larger than the mature mRNA due to the presence (c) Ribosome (d) Transcription factor
of noncoding regions which are then removed during AIPMT-2007
post-transcriptional modification. The protein coding Ans. (d) : Molecular basis of organ differentiation
part of the gene is exon while the gene sequences that depends on the modulation in transcription by
are present between exons and do not code for any transcription factor.
protein product are called introns. Hence RNA splicing • A transcription factors is a protein that binds to
removes introns. The reason is incorrect. specific DNA sequences, thereby controlling the rate
of transcription of genetic information from DNA to 378. A eukaryotic gene contains two kinds of base
messenger RNA i.e. mRNA. sequences. Which of these plays an important
• Transcription factors bind to either enhancer or role in protein synthesis?
promoter regions of DNA adjacent to the genes that (a) Introns (b) Exons
they regulate. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
• Anticodon:- An anticodon is a trinucleotide JIPMER-2009
sequence located at one end of a transfer RNA Ans. (b) : A eukaryotic gene contains two kinds of base
(tRNA) molecule, which is complementary to a sequences known as interns and exons. Eukaryotes
corresponding codon in a messenger RNA (mRNA) possess split genes, where the coding bases are not
sequence. continuous but are interrupted by non-coding
• RNA polemerase :- RNA polymerases is an enzyme sequences.
that is responsible for copying a DNA sequence into 379. c-DNA is formed from m- RNA by which
an RNA sequence, during the process of enzyme?
transcription.
(a) Restriction endonuclease
377. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth:- (b) Reverse transcriptase
(a) Polymerize in the 5'-to-3' direction and (c) DNA polymerase
explain 3'- to 5' DNA replication (d) RNA Polymerase
(b) Result in transcription UP CPMT-2005
(c) Polymerize in the 3'-to-5' direction and forms Ans. (b) : Complementary DNA (C-DNA) is a DNA
replication fork copy of a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule produced
(d) Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA by revese transcriptase, a DNA polymerase that can
replication use either DNA or RNA as a template.
AIPMT-2007 • A restriction enzyme is an enzyme isolated from
Ans. (a) : Okazaki fragments are shorts, newly bacteria that cuts DNA molecules of specific
synthesized DNA fragments that are formed on the sequences.
lagging template strand during DNA replication. These • DNA polymerase → DNA replication
fragments polymerize in the 5'-to-3' direction and • RNA polymerase → Transcription
explain 3'-to5' DNA replication. 380. Sequence of DNA (non-coding) is known as
DNA is synthesized from 5' to 3', thus when copying the (a) exon (b) intron
3'to5' strand, replication is continuous. Phosphodiester (c) cistron (d) none of these
links form between the 3' to 5' and nucleotides can be UP CPMT-2005
added with the aid of the enzyme DNA polymerase for
Ans. (b) : The gene encoding for mRNA has two type
the continuous leading strand. of sequences called the introns and the exons. The
introns are the intervening sequences and they do not
code for a functional polypeptide. The exons are
functional sequences because they contain sequences
that are translated into the final protein.
Cistron- Cistron is the DNA segments that codes for a
specific polypeptide in protein synthesis.
381. RNA polymerase III transcribes 3 of the
following except –––––––
(a) t RNA (b) 5sr RNA
(c) hn RNA (d) Sn RNA
Ans. (c) : There are 3 types of RNA polymerase which
are essential for the initiation of transcription.
RNA polymerase I → r-RNA
RNA polymerase II → hn-RNA
RNA polymerase III → t-RNA, 5s - RNA & Sn-RNA
382. Choose the correct statements from the
following .
(A) Coding strand in DNA will be coding the
m-RNA.
(B) If two RNA molecules are produced
simultaneously, they will form a double
stranded RNA.
(C) In prokaryotes, the structural gene is Transcribed rRNA is bound to ribosomal proteins to
polycistronic. form the subunits of ribosome and acts as the
(D) The expressed gene sequences are defined physical structure that pushes mRNA and tRNA
as exons. through the ribosome to process and translate them.
(a) A, B only (b) A, C only 385. When a radioactive DNA of bacterium E.coli
(c) C, D only (d) B, C only (incorporated with N15 isotope) was placed in
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II medium containing N14 isotope for three
Ans. (c) : generation the percentage of radioactive strand is
(A) DNA is a double - stranded, but only one strand (a) 25% (b) 100%
serves as a template for transcription at given time. (c) 75% (d) 37.5%
This template strand is called the non-coding strand. UP CPMT-2014
This strand will be coding the m-RNA. Ans. (a): Messelsan and Stahl experimentally proved
(B) The production of dsRNA in eukaryotic cells, that DNA replication is semi conservative the culture.
generally as the result of viral replication or the E-coli in N15 isotope medium. After the replication of
transcription of transposable elements and repetitive bacterium DNA in medium. It was found that strand
DNA sequences is known to elicit two types of DNA contained N15 as a constituent of nitrogenous base
cellular defense responses. (pyramiding and purins). This heavy DNA molecule is
383. What is the corresponding sequence of mRNA distinguished from normal DNA by contrifugation in
when a polynucleotide template DNA strand is coesium chloride density gradient. N15 is separated from
3' – TAC GGT AAG CGG ATC – 5'? N14 it is found that newly formed DNA contained one
(a) 5'-AUG CCA UUC GCC UAG-3' strand heavier than other, i.e., nearly formed DNA one
(b) 3'-AUG CCA UUE GCC UAG-5' strand was made up of N15 and another strand contain
(c) 5'-UAC GGU AAG CGG AUC-3' N16, i.e. after three generation percentage of radioactive
(d) 3'-UAC GGU AAG CGG AUC-5' DNA is 25%.
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II 386. Synthesis of mRNA, undertaken by polymerase
Ans. (a) : When a polynucleotide template DNA strand enzyme, which move to ribosome to direct
then sequence of mRNA is 5-AUG CCA UUC GCC synthesis of protein is done by the process
UAG-3. (a) Translation
384. Rho factor is associated with (b) Mechanism of protein synthesis
(a) RNA polymerase (c) Transcription
(b) Catalysis process of elongation (d) Replication
(c) Initiates the transcription UP CPMT-2014
(d) Transcription of r-RNA Ans. (c): Synthesis of mRNA undertaken by
TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I polymerase enzyme, which move to ribosome to direct
Ans. (a): Rho factor involved in the termination of protein synthesis is done by the process of central
transcription dogma of molecular theory. The transcription.
Translation synthesis protein.
Rho function as an axcillary factor for RNA polymerase
(a) RNA Polymerase- RNA polymerase (green) 387. The sequence of nitrogen bases in a particular
synthesizes RNA by following a strand of DNA. region of the non-coding strand of a DNA
RNA polymerase is an enzyme that is responsible molecule was found to be CAT GTT TAT
for copying a DNA sequence into an RNA CGC. What would be the sequence of nitrogen
sequence, during the process of transcription. bases in the mRNA that is synthesized by the
(b) Catalysis Process of elongation- Basically, corresponding region of the non-coding strand
elongation is the stages when the RNA strand get in that DNA?
longer, the addition of new nucleotides. During (a) GUA CAA AUA GCC
elongation, RNA polymerase "walks" along one strand (b) GTA CAA ATA GCC
of DNA, known as template strand, in the 3' to 5' (c) CAU GUU UAU CGG
direction. (d) CAA GAA TAU GCC
(c) Initiates the transcription- Initiation is the beginning Notes: • G Indicates one grace mark awarded
of transcription. It occurs when the enzyme RNA for the question number.
polymerase binds to a region of a gene called the • Value greater than four indicates multiple
Promoter. This signals the DNA to unwind so the correct answers.
enzyme can "read" the bases in one of DNA strands. Karnataka CET-2006
The enzyme is now ready to make a strand of mRNA
Ans. (G) :
with complementary sequence of bases.
DNA CAT GTT TAT CGC
(b) Transcription of r-RNA- The genes for 5S rRNA
are located inside the nucleolus and are transcribed mRNA GUA CAA AUA GCG
into pre 5S rRNA by RNA polymerase III. In transcription, adenine will convert into unacil.

388. E. coli bacteria grew in 15NH4Cl medium for Ans. (b) : Removal of introns and joining the exon in a
several generations are allowed to grow in defined order in a transcription unit is called as splicing.
14
NH4Cl medium. After 2 generations, the Splicing is a modification of the nascent pre-messenger
bacteria are isolated from the medium and RNA transcript in which introns are removed and exon
DNA of bacteria centrifuged in CsCl. The are joined. For nuclear encoded genes, splicing takes
result of the density gradient of DNA is– place within the nucleus after or concurrently with
(a) only hybrid DNA transcription.
(b) both hybrid and heavy DNA
(c) both heavy and light DNA
(d) both hybrid and light DNA
Karnataka CET-2016
Ans. (d) : Hybridization as related to genomics, is the
process in which two complementary single stranded
DNA and RNA molecules bond together to a double-
stranded molecule. the bonding is dependent on the
appropriate base pairing across the two single stranded
molecules.
392. In Prokaryotes, the transcription of DNA is
389. In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing
initiated with the help of
and RNA capping take place inside the
(a) ER (b) Ribosomes (a) Elongation factor (b) Termination factor
(c) Nucleus (d) Dictyosomes (c) Rho factor (d) Sigma factor
AIPMT (Mains)-2010 Karnataka CET-2019
Ans. (c) : In eukaryotic cells, the process of splicing Ans. (d) :In initiation step RNA polymerase enzyme
and capping take place in the nucleus. along with initiation factor also called as sigma factor
binds with DNA sequence at promoter and starts
• The mRNA formed is then transported to the transcription.
cytoplasm where it is translated by ribosome.
393. DNA polymerase enzyme is required for
synthesis of :
(a) DNA from RNA (b) RNA from DNA
(c) DNA from DNA (d) RNA from RNA
JIPMER-2004
Ans. (c) : The enzyme required for the replication fo DNA
example the manufacture of DNA form DNA is DNA
polymerase III. DNA replication is initiated by RNA
primer which is then removed by DNA polymerase.
394. During transcription holoenzyme RNA
polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the
390. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first DNA assumes a saddle like structure at the
demonstrated in : point. What is that sequence called?
(a) Salmonella typhimurium (a) CAAT box (b) GGTT box
(b) Drosophila melanogaster (c) AAAT box (d) TATA box
(c) Escherichia coli JIPMER-2007
(d) Streptococcus pnuemonia Ans. (d) : TATA box is present in eukaryotic promoter
AIPMT-2009 region. It has a resemblance with rainbow box of
Ans. (c) : Semiconservative replication of DNA was prokaryotes.
1st demonstrated by Matthew Meselson & Franklin TATA box was identified by Dr. Hogness and so it is
W. Stahl in 1958 in E.coli. The DNA formed after also called as Hogness box.
replication will have one old and one new strand. DNA During the process of transcription the RNA
is made up of two strands and each strand of the polymerase binds to TATA box due which DNA
original DNA molecules serves as a template for the assumes a saddle like structure at this place.
production of the complementary strand, a process 395. Which one of the following makes use of RNA
referred to as semi-conservative replication. as a template to synthesize DNA?
391. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a (a) Reverse transcriptase
defined order in a transcription unit is called (b) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
(a) Capping (b) Splicing (c) DNA polymerase
(c) Tailing (d) Transformation (d) RNA polymerase
AIPMT-2009 JIPMER-2007
Ans. (a) : Reverse transcriptase (RT), also known as Ans. (c) : AUG is the initiation codon. Translation
RNA- dependent DNA polymerase, is a DNA starts with a chain initiation codon or start codon and
polymerase enzyme that transcribes single- stranded terminates with a stop codon. The start codon is the first
RNA to DNA, This enzyme is able to synthesize a codon of a messenger RNA (mRNA) transcript
double helix DNA once the RNA has been reverse translated by a ribosome. The start codon always codes
transcribed in a first step into a single-strand DNA. for methionine in eukaryotes and a modified Met
396. Intron transcripts in heterogenous nuclear (fMet) in prokaryotes. The most common start codon is
RNA (in RNA) are removed and exon AUG.
transcripts are joined together under the 399. Which of the following ribosomes are engaged
direction of protein complexes. These in protein synthesis in animal cell:
complexes are (a) Ribosomes which occur on nuclear membrane
(a) Polysomes (b) Cdk complex and E.R.
(c) Spliceosomes (d) Endopeptidases (b) Ribosomes of only cytosol
AP EAMCET-2007 (c) Ribosomes of only nucleolus and cytosol
Ans. (c) Removal of introns and joining the exons in a (d) Ribosomes of only mitochondria and cytosol
defined order in a transcription unit is called as AIPMT-2000
spilicing is a modification of the nascent pre- Ans. (a) : Ribosomes present in nuclear membrane and
messenger RNA Transcript in which introns are endoplasmic reticulum (ER) take part in protein
removed and exons are joined. For nuclear encoded synthesis. Two or more ribosomes simultaneously
genes, splicing takes place with in the nucleus after or engaged in protein synthesis on the same RNA strand
concurrently with transcription. forming polyribosomes. The ribosome functions as a
• Splicing is needed for the typical eukaryotic template, bringing together different components
messenger RNA before it can be used to produce a required for protein synthesis.
correct protein through translation. For many
eukaryotic introns, splicing is done in a series of
reactions which are catalyzed by the spliceosome a
complex of small nuclear Ribonucleoprotein, but
there are also self splicing introns.
397. Method of DNA replication in which two
strands of DNA separates and synthesize new
strands:
(a) Dispersive (b) Conservative
(c) Semiconservative (d) Non conservative
AIPMT-2000
Ans. (c) : The method of DNA replication is 400. Which one of the following is not a part of a
semiconservative. According to semi-conservative model, transcription unit in DNA?
proposed by Watson and Crick, each strand of two double (a) A promoter (b) The structural gene
helices formed would have one old and one new strand. So (c) The inducer (d) A terminator
the parental identity is conserved upto half extent and AIPMT (Screening)-2012
hence DNA replication is semiconservative.
Ans. (c) : The segment of DNA that takes part in
transcription is known as the transcription unit. Which
include a promoter, the structural gene and a terminator.
Promoter used to promote the transcription in DNA.

Structural genes are typically viewed as those
398. Which of the following is initiation codon: containing sequence of DNA corresponding to the
(a) UAG (b) AUC amino acid of protein that will be produced, as long as
(c) AUG (d) CCU said protein does not function to regulate gene
AIPMT-2000 expression.
401. Removal of RNA polymerase III from 403. Which of the following exercise a control over
nucleoplasm will effect the synthesis of: transcription
(a) m-RNA (b) r-RNA (a) Operator (b) Regulator
(c) t-RNA (d) hn-RNA (c) Promoter (d) Recon
AIPMT (Screening)-2012 AIPMT-1998
Ans. (c) : RNA polymerase-III transcribe tRNA, RNA Ans. (b) : Formation of RNA from DNA is called
polymerase-II transcribe hnRNA. Which modified to transcription in it regulator exercise a control over
transcription.
form mRNA and RNA polymerase-I form rRNA.
• Operator is segment of DNA to which a protein
Eukaryotes have three RNA polymerase. RNA
called repressor is binds presents process of
polymerase-I is located in the nucleolus.
transcription. Regulator is a gene which control
RNA-II is localized in nucleoplasm. activity of operator.
RNA polymerase-III is localized to the nucleus. • Promoter is initial point, it is site of attachment of
• Possibly the nucleolar-nucleoplasma interface and RNA polymerase where the process of transcription
transcriber for tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNas. So starts.
removal of RNA polymerase-III will affect the • Recon - smallest unit of recombination it present
synthesis of tRNA. with in the cistron.
C B Proposed by 404. Due to discovery of which of the following in
402.  → mRNA  → protein  A
→
1980, the evolution was termed as RNA world :
The figure gives an important concept in the (a) m-RNA, t-RNA- r-RNA synthesise proteins
genetic implication of DNA. Fill the blanks A, B (b) In some virus RNA is genetic material
and C. (c) RNA have enzymatic property
(a) A – Francis Crick (d) RNA is not found in all cells
B – translation AIPMT-2001
C – transcription Ans. (c) : The RNA world hypothesis in a concept put
(b) A – Maurice Wilkins forth in 1960s by Carl Woese, francis crick and Leslie
Orgd. Ribozymes, catalytically active RNA molecule
B – transcription
discovered in 1980’s, are self splicing introns indicating
C – translation their possible role as intermediates in the evolution of
(c) A – James Watson biological systems from abiotic substances.
B – replication This lead to the evolution of the RNA world hypothesis.
C – extension 405. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA
(d) A – Erwin Chargaff strand giving the base sequence on the opposite
B – translation strands. What is so special shown in it ?
C – replication 5' ……….. GAATTC ……….. 3'
NEET (Karnataka)-2013 3' ……….. CTTAAG …............ 5'
Ans. (a) : The expression of the genetic material occur (a) palindromic sequence of base pairs
normally through the production of proteins. This (b) Replication completed
involves two consecutive steps. These are transcription (c) Deletion mutation
and translation. (d) Start codon at the 5' end
• The DNA codes for the production of messenger
Ans. (a) :
RNA (m RNA) during transcription. Messenger RNA
carries coded information to ribosomes. The
ribosome's read this information and use it for protein
synthesis. This process is called translation. They give rise palindromic secquence of compementary
• F.H.C. crick described this undirectional flow of base pairs.
information in 1958 as the, central dogma of Palindromic sequence means Example.
molecular biology.
Central dogma :-
Transcription Translation means if a nucleic acid secquence (DNA or RNA) is
DNA  → mRNA  → Pr otein.
A B read same form 5' to 3' one strand and 3' to 5'.

Ans. (a) : The 'UAA' codon is the stop codons
F. Genetic Code and Translation (termination or end codon) they do not code for any
406. Assertion (A) : All the codons of genetic code amino acid.
identify more than one type of amino acid They signal the termination of protein synthesis
Reason (R) : In Eukaryotes transcription unit (translation) during protein synthesis.
is monocistronic which is synthesized from At the end of translation the release factor binds to this
DNA codon to complete polypeptide from the ribosome.
The correct option among the following : 410. Give the nucleotide sequence in the mRNA for
(a) (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct this sequence of amino acids given below
explanation for (A)
Met – Phe – Arg – Gly – Phe
(b) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
(a) AUG – UUU – CGC –GGC – UUC
explanation for (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false (b) AUG – UUC – CUU – GGC – UUC
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true (c) AUG – UUU – CUA – CCA – UUA
AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II (d) AUG – UUA – CUA – CCG – UUG
Ans. (d) : Each code use the four nocliofide bases of AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-I
DNA adenine, cytocin, guanine and thypin in various Ans. (a) : The nucleotide sequence in mRNA is,
way to spell out three litter "codons" that specify which encodes the information that determines the sequence of
amino acid is needed at each position within a protein. amino acids in a protein.
A segment of DNA coding for polyperide is called Ex. Met-phe-Arg-Gly-phe
cistron. A cistron is basicoly A gene. If a strech of AUG-UU-CGC- GGC-UUC
replicating DNA contain A single cistron it is called
mono cistronic ex:- Eukaryotes 411. Choose the correct statements.
• Poly cistrozic in bacteria and prokaryotes. A. Asexual reproduction preserves genetic
information.
407. Genetic codon AUG is
B. Hybridization lead to multiply desirable
I. Initiator codon
II. Codon for Methionine genes.
III. Stop codon C. Restriction enzyme adds methyl group to
IV. Sigma factor DNA.
Correct answer is D. Genetic engineering changes the phenotype
(a) I and II (b) I and III of the organism.
(c) II and III (d) III and IV (a) A and D (b) B and C
TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I (c) C and D (d) A and C
Ans. (a) : Genetic codon AUG is an initiator codon AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II
because it marks the beginning of protein synthesis and Ans. (a) : In asexual reproduction offspring are
codes for the amino acid methionine produced by a single parents without the involvement of
408. Polymerization of amino acids to form gametes (sperm and egg cells) and without genetic
polypeptide is called as recombination.
(a) Transcription offspring is typically identical or very similar to that of
(b) Translation the parents.
(c) Translocation In genetic engineering changes the phenotype of the
(d) Keto acylation organism. It include creation of recombinant DNA.
412. This statement is incorrect related to genetic
Ans. (b) : Translation is the process in which the code.
information carried by the mRNA is used to synthesize
(a) The codon is triplet.
a protein.
(b) Some amino acids are coded by more than
During translation the mRNA sequence is read by
one codon.
ribosomes and amino acids are added to a growing
polypeptide chain, farming a protein. (c) One codon codes one amino acid.
409. At the end of translation the release factor (d) The code is nearly universal.
binds to this codon to complete polypeptide AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II
from the ribosome Ans. (b) : The genetic code is a set of rules or
(a) U A A (b) U U A instructions that specifies how the information in DNA
(c) U A C (d) U C A and RNA is translated into the sequence of amino acids
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-I in a protein.
It defines the correspondence between a sequence of Ans. (a) : Some amino acids are coded by more than
three-nucleotide codons (Triplets). The genetic code is one codon, known as degeneracy of the genetic code.
nearly universal. Most codon codes for the same amino The codon is a triplet, 61 codon code for amino acid,
acids. while 3 codons act as stop codons. The codon is read in
413. A codon is made up of mRNA in a contiguous fashion.
(a) single nucleotide (b) two nucleotides 418. The process of translation of mRNA to proteins
(c) three nucleotides (d) four nucleotides begins as soon as :
(a) The tRNA is activated and the larger subunit
DUMET-2005 of ribosome encounters mRNA
UP CPMT-2003 (b) The small subunit of ribosome encounters
Ans. (c) : A codon is a three DNA or RNA sequence of mRNA
nucleotide (a trinucleotide) that forms a unit of genomic (c) The larger subunit of ribosome encounters
information encoding a particular amino acid or mRNA
signaling the termination of protein synthesis. (d) Both the subunits join together to bind with
414. A eukaryotic gene contains two kinds of base mRNA
sequences. Which of these plays an important NEET-2022
role in protein synthesis? Ans. (b) : The process of translation of mRNA to
(a) Introns (b) Exons proteins begins as soon as the small subunit of ribosome
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these encounters mRNA. The protein synthesis occurs in two
VMMC-2012 steps, namely transcription and translation. During
UP CPMT-2008 transcription the information from DNA is encoded into
Uttarakhand PMT-2008 mRNA. During translation the mRNA works with a
Ans. (b) : Introns are intrupted between exons which ribosomes and tRNA to synthesize proteins.
do, not code any protein product. Introns are removed 419. After a mutation at a genetic locus, the
by a process called splicing. character of an organism changes due to the
So, in gene sequences only exons code protein part. change in
415. The scientist who was awarded Nobel prize in (a) DNA replication
1959 for in vitro synthesis of polyribonucleotide (b) Protein synthesis pattern
(a) Kornberg (b) Calvin (c) RNA transcription pattern
(c) Khorana (d) Ochoa (d) Protein structure
J&K CET-2006 AIPMT-2004
Ans. (d) : The scientist who was awarded Nobel prize Ans. (d) : After a mutation at a genetic locus the
in 1959 for in vitro synthesis of polyribonucleotide is character of an organism changes due to the change in
Arthur Kornberg and Ochoa both are awarded Noble protein structure. Mutation are kind of changes in the
prize together for in vitro synthesis of DNA and RNA, DNA sequences which may result due to mistake
in vitro synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides by Kornberg deletion, faulty replication, or exposure to harmful
the and polyribonocleotid by Ochoa. chemicals or radiation. Normally, the flow of genetic
416. One gene-one enzyme relationship was information is DNA makes and RNA makes protein.
established for the first time in Hence, any change in nucleotide due to mutation would
(a) Neurospora crassa result in change in structure of protein/enzyme which in
(b) Salmonella typhimurium turn might result some change in the organism.
(c) Escherichia coil 420. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced
(d) Diplococcus pneumonia by guanine, it is a case of -
Rajasthan PMT-2010 (a) Transcription
Ans. (a) : One gene-one enzyme relationship was (b) Transition
established for the first time in Neurospora crassa. (c) Transversion mutation
417. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types (d) Frameshift
of amino acid it is called : - AIPMT-2004
(a) Degeneracy of genetic code Ans. (b) : Point mutation are those mutations that
(b) Overlapping of gene affects a single base pair. The most common nucleotide
(c) Wobbling of codon mutations are substitutions, in which one base is
(d) Universility of codons replaced by another. These can be of two types, either
AIPMT-2002 transitions or transversion.
• In case of transition, Purine is replaced by another 424. From the following, identify the correct
Purine (eg AG) and Pyramidine is replaced by combination of salient features of Genetic
another Pyramidine (eg CT) and vice-versa Code-
eg - Purine such as adenine may be replaced by purine (a) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non
and guanine. ambiguous
• Transversion substitution refers to a Purine or (b) Universal, Non-ambiguous, Overlapping
pyramidine or vice versa, for eg, a pyramidine is (c) Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless
replaced by adenine, a purine.
(d) Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate
NEET (Odisha)-2019
Ans. (a) : The salient feature of genetic code are as
follows-
• The codon is triplet. 61 codons code for 20 amino
acids and 3 codons do not code for any amino acids,
hence, they function as stop codons.
421. The first phase of translation is • One codon codes for only one amino acids, hence, it
(a) Recognition of DNA molecule is unambiguous and specific.
(b) Aminoacylation of tRNA • The code is degenerated because some amino acids
(c) Recognition of an anti-codon are coded by more than one codon.
(d) Binding of mRNA to ribosome • The codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous fashion.
NEET-2020 Phase-I There are no punctuations.
Ans. (b) : The first phase of translation is • The code is nearly universal.
aminoacylation of tRNA. It is the attachment of an • AUG codes for methionine (met) and it also act as
amino acid to a tRNA is a two - step process. initiator codon.
The first step, termed 'activation' is the formation of an
425. Protein with 333 amino acids and the base at
aminoacyl- AMP (aminoacyl-adenylate) on the enzyme
position 901 is deleted such that the length of
through the hydrolysis of ATP. Then the transfer of the
the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons
activated amino acid residue from the adenylate to a t
will be altered?
RNA in a reaction referred to as 'charging' take place.
(a) 1 (b) 11
422. The equivalent of a structural gene is
(c) 33 (d) 333
(a) muton (b) cistron
NEET-2017
(c) operon (d) recon
NEET-2016 Phase-II Ans. (c) :999 bases in RNA codes for a protein with
333 amino acids
Ans. (b) : Cistron is equivalent to structural gene.
Cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide. • If base at 901 position is deleted then first 900 bases
• Muton is a small segment of DNA in which mutation will be normal while bases after 901th base will be
occurs. altered that is 99 bases will be altered.
• Operon is the functional unit of a DNA having • 3 bases stand for 1 codon So, 99 bases = 33 codons
number of genes. will be altered due to deletion of one base at 901
• Recon is the unit of DNA for recombination. position.
423. Which of the following features of genetic code 426. Which one of the following triplet codes, is
does allow bacteria to produce human insulin correctly matched with its specificity for an
by recombinant DNA technology? amino acid in protein synthesis or as 'start' or
(a) Genetic code is redundant 'stop' codon: -
(b) Genetic code is nearly universal (a) UCG – Start
(c) Genetic code is specific (b) UUU – Stop
(d) Genetic code is not ambiguous (c) UGU – Leucine
NEET-2019 (d) UAC – Tyrosine
Ans. (b) : The genetic code is a set of three-letter AIPMT-2003
combination of nucleotide called codons, and each of Ans. (d) : Codon UAC codes for amino acid tyrosine,
which corresponds to a specific amino acid, so this UCG codes for serine, UUU codes for phenylalanin and
allows a bacteria to produce insulin, is similar to that of UGC codes for cysteine. Start codon is AUG and stop
human. codon UAA, UAG and UGA.
430. Which of the following is not a stop condon?
(a) UAA (b) UAC
(c) UAG (d) UGA
JIPMER-2019
Ans. (b) : UAC is not a stop codon.
• Stop codon is known as the termination codon. There
are three types UAA, UAG and UGA.
431. The RNA that pick up specific amino acid from
amino acid pool in the cytoplasm to ribosome
during protein synthesis is called
427. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to (a) rRNA (b) RNA
the: - (c) mRNA (d) tRNA
(a) First member of a codon AIPMT-1997
(b) Second member of a codon
Ans. (d) : RNA that pick up specific amino acid from
(c) Entire codon amino acid pool in the cytoplasm to carry it to ribosome
(d) Third member of a codon during protein synthesis is called tRNA, is a small RNA
AMU-2007 / AIPMT-2003
molecule that plays a key role in protein synthesis.
Ans. (d): Degeneration of genetic code is attributed to
432. The codons causing chain termination are
the third member of the codon.
(a) AGT, TAG, UGA (b) UAG, UGA, UAA
A degenerated code would be one where, there is one
to one relation between amino acids and the codes that (c) TAG, TAA, TGA (d) GAT, AAT, AGT
44 codons out of 64 will be nonsense codons. RNA can AIPMT-1997
recognize more than one codons differing only at the Ans. (b) : The chain termination codons are UAG,
3rd position. For ex -GCU, GCG and GCA all code for UGA and UAA. They are also called termination
alanine amino acids. codons, stop codons or nonsense codons.
428. In the genetic code dictionary, how many 433. Which of the following serves as a terminal
codons are used to code for all the 20 essential codon?
amino acids: - (a) UAG (b) AGA
(a) 20 (b) 64
(c) AUG (d) GCG
(c) 61 (d) 60
AIPMT-1996
AIPMT-2003
Ans. (a) : The UAG chain-termination codon. A set of
Ans. (c): Total Numbers of codon = 64
three adjacent bases in the DNA or their complementary
three stop codon = 64 – 3
bases in messenger RNA that specifies the end of a
= 61
polypeptide chain.
All the 20 essential amino acid coded by 61 codon,
recognized by RNA molecules called tRNA, that act as 434. If the DNA codons are ATGATGATG and a
molecular translators between the nucleic acid and cytosine base is inserted at the beginning, then
protein languages. which of the following will result?
There are three stop codon. They are UAA, UGA and (a) CAT, GAT, GAT, G
UAG, they stop translation. (b) A non sense mutation
429. Stop codons are (c) C, ATG, ATG, ATG
(a) AUG, GUG (d) CA, TGA, TGA, TG
(b) UAA, UGA, UAG Punjab MET-2005
(c) UAC, UGG Ans. (a) : Cytosine base inserted in the beginning of
(d) AGU, AGA, UAC DNA codons ATGATGATG will produce CAT,GAT,
JIPMER-2008 GAT,G as genetic code reads in a contiguous manner.
BHU PMT (Screening)-2007 435. Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in an
MGIMS Wardha-2005 exposed position of
Ans. (b) : A stop codon is a sequence of three (a) tRNA (b) mRNA
nucleatudes (a trinucleotide) in DNA or messenger (c) rRNA (d) both (b) and (c)
RNA (mRNA) that signals a halt to protein synthesis in
AIPMT-1995
the cell. There are 64 different trinucleotide codons: 61
specify amino acids and 3 are stop codons (i.e., UAA, Ans. (a) : Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in an
UGA and UAG). exposed position of tRNA.
436. Initiation codon for protein synthesis (in Ans. (c) : During transcription, one of the two DNA
eukaryotes) is strands functions as template strand and the other
(a) GUA (b) GCA functions as coding strand. Template strand serves as
(c) CCA (d) AUG template for transcription where as coding strand does
AIPMT-1993 not take part in transcription.
Ans. (d) : Initiation codon for protein synthesis (in Hence, the mRNA produced has base sequence
eukaryotes) is AUG AUG is called as initiating or complementary to template strand while similar to
starting codon or start signal. AUG is the rational design coding strand except that thymine (T) is replaced by
of theoretical minimal RNA rings predetermines as the uracil (U).
universal start codon. Here,
437. In the genetic dictionary, there are 64 codons Coding strand → 5' - GTTCGAGTC -3'
as Template strand → 3' - CAAGCTCAG -5'
(a) 64 amino acids are to be coded Transcript → 5' - GUUCGAGUC -3'
(b) 64 types of tRNAs are present 441. During protein synthesis in an organism at one
(c) There are 44 nonsense condons and 20 sense point the process comes to a halt. Select the
condons group of the three codons from the following,
(d) Genetic code is triplet from which any one of the three could bring
AIPMT-1990 about this halt.
Ans. (d) : The genetic code is a triplet, 64 codons are (a) UUU, UCC, UAU (b) UUC, UUA, UAC
formed for coding 20 amino acids. (c) UAG, UGA, UAA (d) UUG, UCA, UCG
438. Genetic code consists of AIIMS-2006
(a) Adenine and guanine Ans. (c) : During chain termination, some codons
(b) Cytosine and uracil function as non-sense codons or terminators which
(c) Cylosine and guanine provide stop signals for the end of m-RNA chain
(d) All of these synthesis.
AIPMT-1988 • UAG(Amber), UGA (Opal) and UAA (Ochre) are
Ans. (d) : The genetic code consists of the sequence of termination codons. If these codons are present in
nitrogen bases in a polynucleotide chain of DNA or m-RNA, the protein synthesis stops abruptly where
RNA. The bases are adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine the protein synthesis is complex or not.
(G) and thymine (T) (or uracil U, in RNA). The four 442. Which of the following is correct regarding
bases make up the “letters” of the genetic code. genetic code?
439. Codons of alanine: (a) UUU is the initiation codon which also codes
(a) CUC, CUA, CUG for phenylalanine.
(b) GGG, GGU, GGA (b) There are 64 triplet codons and only 20 amino
(c) GUG, GUC, GUA acids.
(d) GCU, GCC, GCG (c) Three random nitrogen bases specify the
AIIMS-27.05.2019 Shift-II placement of one amino acid.
AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-II (d) UAA is the nonsense codon which also codes
Ans. (d) : Codons, which code for amino acid alanine for methionine.
are GCU, GCC, GCG. Alanine is classified as a non- AIIMS-2010
polar amino acid. Ans. (b) : The nucleotide triplet that encodes an amino
Alanine is a nonessential amino acid and does not need acid is called a codon.
to be directly obtained from the diet. • Each group of three nucleotides encodes one amino
440. If the sequence of bases in the coding strand of acid. Since there are 64 combinations of 4
a double stranded DNA is 5' GTTCGAGTC -3' nucleotides taken three at a time and only 20 amino
the sequence of bases in its transcript will be acids the code is degenerate.
(a) 5'-GACUCGAAC-3' • The adaptor molecule for translation is tRNA.
(b) 5'-CAAGCUCAG-3' • A charged tRNA has an amino acid at one end and at
(c) 5'-GUUCGAGUC-3' other end it has on anticodon for matching a codon in
(d) 5'-CUGAGCUUG-3' the mRNA. So there are 64 triplet codons and only
AIIMS-2016 20 amino acids.
443. Choose the correct statement. Ans. (c) : 5' - GAATTC - 3' 3' - CTTAAG -5' is known
as recognition sequences that are present in a double
(a) Transcription and translation occur in same
compartment for prokaryotes stranded DNA, which read the same when read from
left to right in one strand and right to left in the other.
(b) Monocistonic RNA-more than one structural
genes under single promoter The direction of the read will be 5' to 3' in both the
strands. Example :
(c) Introns and exons both code for protein synthesis
5' - GAATTC - 3'
(d) In prokaryotes, splicing and tailing occurs
before translation. 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
446. Select the correct option regarding genetic code
of Glycine:
Ans. (a) : In prokaryotes, the transcription and
(a) GUU, GUC, GUA (b) GAU, GAC, GAA
translation occur in same compartment.
(c) GGU, GGA, GGC (d) GGU, GGA, GCU
• There is no separation between cytoplasm and
nucleus. In prokaryotes, transcription and translation
Ans. (c) : Glycine is an amino acid, a building block for
take place in the same compartment. Also translation
protein.
can begin much before the mRNA is fully transcribed.
The genetic code of glycine is GGU, GGA, GGC.
Therefore, transcription and translation are combined
447. What would happen, if in a gene encoding a
and prokaryotes do not need to undergo splicing,
capping and tailing. polypeptide of 50 amino acids. 25th codon
(UAU) is mutated to UAA?
444. The binding site of tRNA with mRNA and
(a) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be
amino acids respectively are- formed
(a) mRNA with DHU loop and amino acid with (b) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be
CCA end formed
(b) mRNA with CCA end and amino acid with (c) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be
anticodon loop formed
(c) mRNA with anticodon loop and amino acid (d) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids
with DHU loop will be formed
(d) mRNA with anticodon loop and amino acid AIIMS-2015
with CCA end Ans. (c) : If in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50
amino acids, 25th (UAC) is mutated to UAA, a
AIIMS-2009
polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed because
Ans. (d) : mRNA with anticodon loop and amino acid
UAA is a stop codon. Thus the resultant polypeptide
with CCA end. Anticodon loop is the binding site for
will have 24 amino acids.
mRNA and CCA end or acceptor stem is the binding
site for an amino acid. 448. Which one of the following codons codes for the
same information as UGC?
(a) UGU (b) UGA
(c) UAG (d) UGG
AIIMS-2003
Ans. (a) : UGU codes for the same information as
UGC. The genetic code is the set of rules by which
information encoded within genetic material (DNA or
mRNA sequences) is translated into proteins by living
cells. UGC and UGU codes for cystine amino acids.
445. Which of the following is a palindromic 449. Which one of the following pairs is correctly
sequence? matched with regard to the codon and the
(a) 5' - CGTATG -3' amino acid coded by it?
3' - GCATAC -5' (a) UUA - valine
(b) 5' - CGAATG -3' (b) AAA - lysine
3' - CGAATG -5' (c) AUG - cysteine
(c) 5' - GAATTC - 3' (d) CCC - alanine.
3' - CTTAAG -5' AIIMS-2004
(d) 5' - TACGAC -3' Ans. (b) : The triplet 'AAA' codes for lysine
3' - TACGAC -5' • UUA triplet codes for Leucine.
AIIMS-2013 • GUA, GUG, GUC, GUU triplet codes for valine.
• AUG triplet codes for methionine. Ans. (b) : tRNA is a type of RNA molecule that helps
• UGU and UGC triplet codes for cysteine. decode a messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence into a
• 'CCC' triplet codes for proline. protein. tRNAs functions at specific sites in the
ribosome during translation, which is a process that
• GCA, GCC, GCG, GCU triplet codes for alanine.
synthesizes a protein, from an mRNA molecule
A U G
↓ ↓ ↓
U A C
a. AUG i. Phenyl alanine
b. UAA ii. Tryptophan
c. UUU iii. Initiation codon
d. UGG iv. Stop codon
(a) (a – iii), (b – iv), (c –i), (d – ii)
(b) (a – iii), (b – iv), (c –ii), (d – i)
(c) (a – iv), (b – iii), (c –i), (d – ii)
(d) (a – i), (b – ii), (c –iii), (d – iv)
Ans. (b) :
(a) AUG – Initiation codon
450. Initiation codon in eukaryotes is
(b) UAA – Stop codon
(a) GAU (b) AGU
(c) UUU – Tryptophan
(c) AUG (d) UAG
(d) UGG – Phenylalanine
AIPMT-1999, 1994
454. Which option is correct for the amino acid and
Ans. (c) : Initiation codon in eukaryotes is AUG. The the total number of their genetic code?
codon AUG is the most common start codon and it (a) Arg = 6, His = 6
codes for the amino acid methionine in eukaryotes and (b) Val = 6, Pro = 6
for formyl methionine in prokaryotes. (c) Pro = 4, Thr = 4
451. The sequence of nitrogen bases in a portion of a (d) Thr = 4, Arg = 4
coding segment of DNA was AAT GCT TAG GUJCET-2014
GCA. What will be the sequence of nitrogen Ans. (c) : Which option is correct for the amino acid
bases in the corresponding region of the and the total number of their genetic code Pro = 4, Thr
transcripted mRNA? = 4. Pro (Proline) has 4 codons CCA, CCG, CCC and
(a) AAT GCT TAG GCA CCU.
(b) UUT CGT TUC CGU Thr (Threonine) also has 4 codons ACA, ACU, ACG,
(c) TTA CGA ATC CGT ACC.
(d) UUA CGA AUC CGU 455. Identify P and Q in the following figure?
Karnataka CET-2005
Ans. (d) :
DNA AAA GCT AAA AAA
↓↓↓ ↓↓↓ ↓↓↓ ↓↓↓
mRNA U U A CGA AUC CGU
In transcription of nitrogenous bases adenine will
convert in uracil rather than thymine.
452. During protein synthesis AUG functions as the
initiator codon in mRNA. What should be the
anticodon on the tRNA molecule that picks up (a) P – Anticodon; Q – D – Loop
and brings the amino acid specified by this (b) P – D – Loop; Q – T Ψ C Loop
codon ? (c) P – Anticodon Loop; Q – D – Loop
(a) TAC (b) UAC (d) P – Site of amino acid attachment;
(c) GUA (d) CAU Q – T Ψ C Loop
Karnataka CET-2005 GUJCET-2018
Ans. (c) : An anticodon is a trinucleotide sequence Ans. (a) : The correct sequence of amino acid is CAU
complementary to that of a corresponding codon in a Histidine, CCU- Proline AAA- Lysine and CUG
messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence. An anticodon is Leucine.
found at one end of a transfer RNA (tRNA) molecule. 460. Which one of the following statement is NOT
456. Which of the following types of RNA carries correct during protein synthesis …..
amino acids towards ribosome during (a) Tyrosine is coded by UAU and UAC codons.
translation (b) Cystine is coded by UGU and UGC codons.
(a) rRNA (b) dsRNA (c) UGG codon codes for Tryptophan.
(d) UAA codon codes for Lysine.
(c) tRNA (d) mRNA
Karnataka CET-2010
Karnataka CET-2020
Ans. (d) : UAA is a stop codon it does not specify any
Ans. (c) : t- RNA (transfer or soluble RNA) carries amino acid and is also called as nonsense codon.
amino acids toward ribosome during translation. In
461. Which one of the following pairs of codons is
translation, mRNA produces a specific amino acid chain
correctly matched with their function or the
or polypeptide (protein). signal for the particular amino acid?
457. Find the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA (a) AUG, ACG — Start/Methionine
which codes for the sequence of amino acids– (b) UUA, UCA — Leucine
'Met – Leu – Val – Arg – Ala' and choose the (c) GUU, GCU — Alanine
correct option from below : (d) UAG, UGA — Stop
(a) AUG–GAU–GAA–UAU–UGU AIPMT-2008
(b) AUG–GAU–GAA–CGU–GCC Ans. (d) : In the genetic code, a stop codon is a
(c) AUG–CUA–GUG–UAU–UGU sequence of 3 nulceotides in DNA or mRNA that
(d) AUG–CUA–GUG–CGU–GCC signals a half to protein synthesis in the cell. Stop
codons signal the termination of this process by binding
Karnataka CET-2018
release factors , which causes the ribosomal units to
Ans. (d) : The correct sequence of amino acid is disassociate, releasing the amino acid chain. Examples
AUG-methionine, CUA-Leucine, GUG-valine CGU are UAA, UGA and UAG.
Arginine and GCC-Alanine
458. Which of the following sequences of mRNA are
required for translation process but are not
translated?
(a) Stop codons (b) Anticodons
(c) Sense codons (d) UTR
Karnataka CET-2018
Ans. (d) : UTR's are untranslated region present before
the start codon and after stop codon on mRNA
Stop codons: there are 3 stop codon in the genetic
462. What is the amino acid sequence in the
code-UAG,UAA, and UGA. These codon signal the end polypeptide segment translated from the
of the polypeptide chain during translation. mRNA base sequence of
Anticodons- An anticodon is the three base sequence AGU-UUU-UCC-GGG-UCG ?
paired with specific amino acid that a tRNA molecule
(a) Serine-Glycine-Serine-Phenyl alanin-Serine
bring to the corresponding codon of mRNA.
(b) Serine-Phenyl alanine-Serine-Glycine-Serine
Sense codon: The Universal genetic code comprise of a (c) Serine-Serine-Phenyl alanine-Glycine-Serine
degenerate set of 61 sense codon that can be translated (d) Phenyl ananin Serine-Serin- Glycine-Serine
into polypeptide containing the natural 20 amino acid. AP EAMCET-2013
459. The codon on mRNA are Ans. (b) : The mRNA base sequence AGU – UUU –
CAU – CCU – AAA – CUG. UCC – GGG-UCG encodes the following amino acid
Identify the correct sequence of amino acids. sequence –
(a) His – Pro – Lys – Leu • AGU encodes serin (Ser)
(b) Pro – His – Lys – Leu • UUU encodes phenylalanine (Phe)
(c) His – Pro – Leu – Lys • UCC encodes serine (Ser)
(d) Pro – Leu – Lys – His • GGG encodes Glycine (Gly)
Karnataka CET-2018 • UCG encodes serine (Ser)
463. Match the following 466. All the terminator codons begin with the
Column - I Column - II nucleotide of
(a) George Gamow (i) Synthesis of RNA (a) Adenine (b) Uracil
(c) Guanine (d) Cytosine
(b) Har Gobind (ii) Polynucleotide
Khorana phosphorylase Karnataka CET-2006
(c) Marshall (iii) Code is made up Ans. (b) : All the terminator codons, UAA, UAG and
Nirenberg of 3 nucleotides UGA, begin with the nucleotide uracil. Terminator
codons are codons that signal the end of translation, and
(d) Severo Ochoa (iv) Cell free system
they are not translated into amino acids.
for protein
synthesis 467. The 3'-5' phosphodiester linkages inside a
polynucleotide chain serve to join
(a) (a – i), (b – iii), (c – ii), (d – iv)
(a) One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
(b) (a – ii), (b – iv), (c – iii), (d – i)
(b) One DNA strand with the other DNA strand
(c) (a – iii), (b – i), (c – iv), (d – ii)
(c) One nucleoside with another nucleoside
(d) (a – iv), (b – ii), (c – i), (d – iii)
(d) One nucleotide with another nucleotide
AIPMT (Mains)-2010
Ans. (c) :
Ans. (d) : A phosphodiester bond is formed between the
(a) George Ganow for coding of amino acids, code
phosphate group, which is connected to carbon 5' of the
should be made up to 3 nucleotides.
sugar residue of one nucleotide, and the hydroxyl group
(b) Har Gobind Khurana developed the chemical
attached to carbon 3' of the sugar residue of the next
method which was instrumental in synthesizing
nucleotide.
RNA
(c) Marshall Nirenberg developed cell-free system 468. A mature mRNA consists of 900 bases without
for protein synthesis. any stop codon in between. Calculate the
number of amino acids coded by this mRNA
(d) Severe Ochoa enzymes was helpful in
during translation.
polymerizing RNA.
(a) 299 (b) 450
464. Which is not the characteristic of a codon?
(c) 900 (d) 300
(a) Degeneracy
Karnataka CET-2019
(b) Universal
(c) Ambiguous and overlapping Ans. (a) : A mature mRNA consists of 900 bases
without any stop codon in between. Calculate the
(d) Continuous, commaless
number of amino acids coded by this mRNA during
UP CPMT-2014
translation will be 300.
Ans. (c): Overlapping and ambiguous are not the
469. Which of the following amino acids is coded by
characteristic of a codon while universality. degeneracy,
single codon?
commaless, and continuity are characteristic of a codon.
(a) Phenylalanine (b) Tryptophan
465. Codon degeneracy means that
(c) Valine (d) Tyrosine
(a) Several of the amino acids are coded by more
Karnataka CET-2019
than one codon
Ans. (b) : Tryptophan is an amino acid needed for
(b) One codon can code for many amino acids
normal growth in infants and for the production and
(c) One amino acid can be coded by only one
maintenance of the body. It is an essential amino acid
codon
coded by single codon.
(d) The codons are triplet nucleotide sequences
470. m-RNA is synthesised on DNA template in
KVPY (SA)-05.11.2017
which direction : -
Ans. (a) : Codon degeneracy means that several of the (a) 5' → 3' (b) 3' → 5'
amino acids are coded by more than one codon. This is
(c) Both (d) Any
because the genetic code is a triplet code, means that
AIPMT-2001
each codon is made up of three nucleotides. There are
64 possible codon, but only 20 amino acids. As a result, Ans. (a) : 5' → 3' is the direction of synthesis of mRNA
some amino acids are coded by multiple codons. For on DNA template.
example, the amino acid Leucine is coded by six mRNA is synthesized on DNA template in 5' → 3'
different codons – UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA and direction. Synthesis of mRNA exhibits several features
CUG. that are synonymous with DNA replication. RNA
synthesis requires accurate and efficient initiation, 473. Choose the wrong statement in the process of
elongation proceeds in the 5' → 3' direction and RNA protein synthesis.
synthesis requires distinct and accurate termination. (a) after uncoiling of DNA molecule, one strand
Transcription exhibits several features that are distinct acts as a template for the formation of mRNA
from replication. (b) in the presence of DNA polymerase enzyme,
the mRNA is formed based on the triplet
471. Which of the following cut the DNA from
codes.
specific places : -
(c) the mRNA that leaves nucleus reaches
(a) Restriction endonuclease (E-Co-RI) cytoplasm and gets attached with 30S
(b) Ligase ribosomal subunit.
(c) Exonuclease (d) the amino acids are transferred from the
(d) Alkaline phosphate intracellular amino acid pool to the active
AIPMT-2001 ribosomes by the tRNA.
Ans. (a) : Restriction endonucleases recognize the AP EAMCET-2011
specific sequences and cut the DNA at specific places. Ans. (b) : mRNA is produced by DNA with a process
They are known as molecular scissors and are used in called transcription by RNA polymerase-II. mRNA
recombinant DNA technology. encodes the amino acid sequence of a protein and a
triplet of nitrogenous bases specifying an amino acid is
• Ligase enzymes are used to join the two molecule by called codon.
bond formation such as DNA ligase.
474. Match the names of triplet codons listed under
• Exonculease removes nucleotides from the end of column I with the amino acids given under
the polynucleotide chain, where as alkaline column II. Choose the answer, which gives the
phosphataes removes a phosphate group from a correct combination of the alphabets of the two
molecule by hydrolysis. columns.
Column I Column II
(Triplet codons) (Amino acids)
A. UUU 1. Alanine
B. CCC 2. Glycine
C. AAA 3. Lysine
D. GGG 4. Proline
5. Phenylalanine
A B C D
(a) 4 5 2 3
472. Which of the following statement related to (b) 5 4 3 2
protein synthesis are true? (c) 1 3 4 5
I. Transcribed hn RNA and mRNA of gene are (d) 2 3 4 5
similar in size. AP EAMCET-2011
II. The 3’ CCA end of tRNA acts as amino acid Ans. (b) :
binding site. UUU –– Codes for phenylalanine
III. f-met-t RNA binds on to the ‘P’ site in CCC –– Codes for proline
ribosome. AAA –– Codes for lysine
IV. The protein factor called RF3 helps in GGG –– Codes for glycine
recognising the termination codon.
(a) I, III (b) II, III G. DNA Fingerprinting and
(c) II, IV (d) I, IV Human Genome Project
AP EAMCET-2010 475. Name and arrange the following in the order of
Ans. (b) : The ribosome has three sites : the A Site, the technique and steps for separation and
P Site and the E Site. The A Site is the point of entry isolation of DNA fragments
for the aminoacyl tRNA. The first aminoacyl tRNA (F- I. DNA fragments moved towards anode
met (RNA) enters. At the P Site here peptidyl RNA is under electric field.
formed on the ribosome. E Site is the exit site of the II. Exposure to UV radiation.
now uncharged tRNA after it give its amino acid to the III. DNA fragments stained with EBr.
growing peptide chain. IV. Gel electrophoresis.
V. Elution. 480. The applications of DNA finger printing
(a) V II III I IV technique are following EXCEPT ________.
(b) IV V I III II (a) to establish parentage in disputed cases.
(c) III II I V IV (b) to study chromosomal types.
(d) IV I III II V (c) to settle insurance claims.
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II (d) to study phylogeny of organisms.
Ans. (d) : Name and arrange the following in the order
of technique and steps for separation and isolation of Ans. (b) : The applications of DNA finger printing
technique are following except to study chromosomal
DNA fragment is–
types. DNA fingerprinting is a technique for identifying
(i) Gel electrophoresis and analyzing differences in DNA between individuals.
(ii) DNA fragments moved towards anode under
481. DNA sequencing can be achieved by which of
electric field the following method?
(iii) DNA fragments stained with EBr (a) Dideoxynucleotide chain termination method
(iv) Exposure to UV radiation of Sanger
(v) Elution (b) Chemical degradation method of Maxum and
476. Labelled probes are used in DNA Gilbert
fingerprinting for (c) Western blotting method
(a) Isolation (b) Blotting (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Fragmentation (d) Hybridisation Haryana PMT-2002
AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I Ans. (d) : DNA sequencing can be achieved by
Ans. (d) : Labelled probes are used in DNA dideoxynucleotide chain termination method of Sanger,
Maxam- Gilbert technique depends on the relative
fingerprinting for hybridisation.
chemical liability of different nucleotide bonds whereas
477. The function of polymerase chain reaction DNA sequence by incorporating dideoxynucleotides
(PCR) is into the sequence.
(a) transalation (b) transduction 482. On the basis of Human Genome Project report;
(c) DNA amplification (d) None of the above human genome contains:
UP CPMT-2003 (a) 30,000 genes (b) 1, 00, 000 genes
Ans. (c) : The function of polymerase chain reaction is (c) 60, 000 genes (d) 5, 000 genes
a DNA amplification. PCR is a technique used to make Haryana PMT-2002
multiple copies of a specific gene or segment of DNA Ans. (a) : On the basis of human genome project report,
sample, the process involves temperature dependent human genome contains 30000 genes, much lower than
reaction, translation is the process of formation of preview estimates of 80,000 to 1,40,000 genes. Almost
protein from RNA. all (99.9%) nucleotide bases are exactly the same in the
478. A sequential expression of set of human gene all people.
occurs when steroid molecule binds to the 483. The total number of nitrogenous bases in
(a) transfer RNA (b) Messenger RNA human genome is estimated to be about :
(c) DNA sequence (d) ribosome (a) 3.5 million (b) 35 thousand
Manipal-2012 (c) 35 million (d) 3.1 billion
Ans. (c) : The steroid hormone receptor protein Haryana PMT-2004
complex activates sequential expression of set of Ans. (d) : The total number of nitrogenous base in
hormone gene by binding to specific DNA sequence. human genome is estimated to be about 3.1 billion.
479. The step following during DNA profiling in 484. Match List I with List II.
which DNA sample is subjected to restriction List - I List -II
endonuclease is _________. (Discoveries) (Scientist)
(a) Hybridization A. PCR technologies 1. G Kohler and
(b) DNA isolation C Milstein
(c) DNA amplification B. DNA 2. Mc Clintock
(d) DNA fragmentation fingerprinting
C. Hybridoma 3. K Mullis
Ans. (d) : DNA profiling in which DNA sample is technology
subjected to restriction endonuclease is DNA
fragmentation. D. Jumping genes 4. Allec Jeffreys

Which one of the following is correctly 488. Ten E.coli cells with 15N - dsDNA are incubated
matched? in medium containing 14N nucleotide. After 60
(a) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA
(b) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3 totally free from 15N?
(c) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2 (a) 80 cells (b) 20 cells
(d) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 (c) 40 cells (d) 60 cells
CMC Vellore-2014 NEET-2022
Ans. (d) : Ans. (d) : Form 10 parent E.coli cells.
PCR technologies – K Mullis 1st generation
DNA fingerprinting – Allec jeffrey
Hybridomatechnology – G Kohler and C Milstein
Jumping genes – MC Clintock 2nd generation
485. VNTRs is used in
(a) regulation of plant growth hormones
(b) increasing the rate of photosynthesis in plant
of desert zones
(c) DNA fingerprinting 3rd generation
(d) protoplasmic culture
AMU-2002
Therefore, after 60 minutes, 60 E.coli cells will have
Ans. (c) : VNTRs is used in DNA fingerprinting. It is a DNA totally free form 15N.
technique used especially for identification by
So the correct answer is (d).
extracting and identifying the base-pair pattern in an
individual's DNA. 489. DNA polymorphism forms the basis of -
(a) Translation
486. Which one of the following statement is not
true regarding gel electrophoresis technique? (b) Genetic mapping
(a) Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be (c) DNA finger printing
observed in the gel when exposed to UV light (d) Both genetic mapping and DNA finger
(b) The process of extraction of separated DNA printing
strands from gel is called elution NEET-2022
(c) The separated DNA fragments are stained by Ans. (d) : The methodologist of human genome project
using ethidium bromide it focused on two main lines i.e. expressed sequence
(d) The presence of chromogenic substrate gives tags and sequence annotation. The genetic and physical
blue coloured DNA bands on the gel maps of the genome were constructed by collecting
NEET-2022 information about certain repetitive DNA sequences and
DNA polymorphism.
Ans. (d) : The presence of chromogenic substrate gives
blue coloured DNA bands on gel is incorrect because as VNTR or variable number of tandem repeat belongs to
orange bright colored bands of DNA can be observed a class of satellite DNA called minisatellite. They are
in the gel when EtBr (Ethidium bromide) treated DNA used as probes in DNA finger printing.
is exposed to UV light. 490. What is the criterion for DNA fragments
487. The device which can remove particulate movement on agarose gel during gel
matter present in the exhaust from a thermal electrophoresis?
power plant is : (a) The larger the fragment size, the farther it
(a) Catalytic Convertor moves
(b) STP (b) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it
(c) Incinerator moves
(d) Electrostatic Precipitator (c) Positively charged fragments move to farther
end
NEET-2022
(d) Negatively charged fragments do not move
Ans. (d) : The device which can remove particulate
NEET-2017
matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power
plant is electrostatic precipitator. The electrostatic Ans. (b) : Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to
precipitator removes over 99% of particulate matter separate DNA fragments according to their size.
present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant. It has • DNA samples are loaded into wells (indentations) at
electrode wire that are maintained at several thousand one end of a gel, and electric current is applied to pull
volts, which produce a corona of electrons. them through the gel.

• DNA fragments are negatively charged, so they move 494. Some of the steps of DNA fingerprinting are
towards the positive electrode. Because all DNA given below. Identify their correct sequence
fragments have the same amount of charge per mass, from the options given.
small fragment move through the gel faster than large A. Electrophoresis of DNA fragments
ones. B. Hybridization with DNA probe
• When a gel is stained with a DNA binding dye, the C. Digestion of DNA by restriction
DNA fragments can be seen as bands, each endonucleases
representing a group of same sized DNA fragments. D. Autoradiography
491. Which of the following enzymes cut the DNA E. Blotting of DNA fragments nitrocellulose
molecule at specific nucleotide sequence membrane
(a) Restriction endonuclease (a) C–A–B–E–D
(b) DNA ligase (b) C–A–E–B–D
(c) RNA polymerase (c) A–E–C–B–D
(d) Exonuclease (d) A–C–E–D–B
SRM JEEE -2017 AIIMS-2016
Ans. (a) : Restriction enzymes found naturally in Ans. (b) DNA fingerprinting is a technique involved in
bacteria can be used to cut DNA fragments at specific the identification of differences in repetitive DNA. It is
sequences, while another enzyme, DNA Ligase, can used as a tool in the forensic investigation for solving
attach or rejoin DNA fragments with complimentary paternity disputes, etc.
ends. • Correct steps or sequence of DNA fingerprinting are :-
492. What is it that forms the basis of DNA Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclesase →
fingerprinting? Separation or electrophoresis of DNA fragments →
(a) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and Blotting of DNA fragments to nitrocellulose membrane
grooves of the fingerprints → Hybridization with DNA probes → Detection of
(b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated hybridized DNA fragments by autoradiography.
short DNA segments
(c) The relative proportions of purines and
pyrimidines in DNA
(d) The relative difference in the DNA
occurrence in blood, skin and saliva
AIPMT (Mains)-2012
Ans. (b) : DNA that contain number of repetitive short
DNA sequences is known as satellite DNA or tandemly
repeated DNA.
• DNA fingerprinting is a technique that is used to
identify the nucleotide sequence in the specific
region of sample DNA.
• Fingerprinting identification is the analysis of
physical prints of finger on surface; it does not
include DNA study.
495. Which one of the following pairs of
• Alec Jeffrey developed this technique in which he terms/names mean one and the same thing?
used satellite DNAs also called VNTRs (Variable (a) Gene pool - genome
Number of Tandem Repeat). (b) Codon - gene
493. Which is also called molecular glue (c) Cistron - triplet
(a) DNA gyrase (d) DNA fingerprinting – DNA profiling.
(b) DNA helicase AIIMS-2003
(c) DNA ligase
Ans. (d) : DNA fingerprinting is technically called
(d) DNA polymerase DNA profiling or DNA typing.
JIPMER-2019 • DNA fingerprinting identifies and evaluates the
Ans. (c) : DNA ligase is a specific type of enzyme, that genetic information of an individual's based on the fact
facilitates the joining of DNA strands together by that no two person carry same nucleotide sequence of
catalyzing the formation of a phosphodiester bond. DNA. DNA profiling also refers to decipher the persons
• DNA ligase is commonly known as molecular glue. characteristic based on its genetic material.
496. What is the first step in the Southern Blot In PCR there are two DNA primers that are
technique? complementary to the 3' (three prime) ends of each of
(a) Denaturation of DNA on the gel for the sense and antisense strands of the DNA target.
hybridization with specific probe Both the primers are placed only at the two 3’ ends and
(b) Production of a group of genetically not at the 5’ ends.
indentical cells 498. PCR is associated with
(c) Digestion of DNA by restriction enzyme (a) DNA cloning
(d) Isolation of DNA from a nucleated cell such (b) Amplification of DNA
as the one from the scene of crime. (c) DNA selective replicaiton
AIIMS-2004 (d) All of the above
Ans. (d) : Southern blotting could be used to locate a JCECE-2014
particular gene within an entire genome. The amount of Ans. (d) : PCR stands for polymerase chain reaction. It
DNA needed for this technique is dependent on the size is a technique to make multiple copies of the gene (or
and specific activity of the probe before starting the DNA) of interest in vitro by using two sets of primers
procedure the desired DNA should be isolated from a and the enzyme DNA polymerase. In this process
specific nucleated cell. Southern blotting was named
replication of DNA is repeated many times, the segment
after Edwin. Southern who developed this procedure in
of DNA can be amplified. Such repeated amplification
Edinburgh University in 1970's.
is achieved by the use of a thermostable DNA
polymerase (isolated from a bacterium, Thermus
aquaticus). PCR is related with amplification, DNA
cloning and selective replication of DNA molecules.
499. Identify the chief enzyme that is involved in
PCR technique.
(a) Restriction enzyme
(b) DNA ligase
(c) Hydrolases
(d) Taq polymerase
497. Find out the right combination of primers in a
PCR to amplify the DNA product Ans. (d) : The enzyme typically used in PCR technique
is called Taq polymerase. It is a heat-stable DNA
polymerase (isolated from a bacterium Thermus
(a) aquaticus), which remain active during the high
temperature induced denaturation of double stranded
DNA.
500. Thermal cycler is used in this reaction
(a) radioactivity
(b)
(b) enzyme catalysed
(c) chemical reactions
(d) PCR
BVP-2008
(c) Uttrakhand PMT-2007
Ans. (d) : The thermal cycler or thermocycler is an
instrument that amplify segments of DNA via the
polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
501. Choose the wrong statement regarding the
(d) observations drawn from the Human Genome
Project
TS EAMCET-12.05.2017 (a) Repetitive sequences are stretches of RNA.
Ans. (b) : A technique used in molecular biology to (b) Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for
amplify a single copy or a few copies of a segment of protein.
DNA, generating thousands to millions of copies is (c) Chromosome 'Y' has the fewest number of
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR). genes.
(d) SNPs help in tracing human history. (c) M- Largest DNA bands
(e) Repetitive sequences make up a very large N- Smallest DNA bands
portion of the human genome. (d) M-smallest DNA bands
Kerala PMT-2013 N-Largest DNA bands
Ans. (a) : Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA Karnataka CET-2020
with repeated bases many times in a genome. These Ans. (c) : In above diagram ‘M’ represents largest DNA
sequences are non-coding by nature. Repetitive bands while ‘N’ denotes smallest DNA bands.
sequences are not found in RNA.
504. Suppose DNA samples collected for DNA finger
502. Select the correct sequence of steps in DNA printing analysis are less than the required
fingerprinting involving Southern blot quantity. Which of the following techniques is
hybridization using radiolabelled VNTR as a helpful to make the samples sufficient for
probe. above analysis?
(I) Hybridization using labelled VNTR probe. (a) Electrophoresis
(II) Isolation of DNA. (b) Chromatography
(III) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA (c) PCR
fragments to synthetic membranes, such as (d) DNA probing
nitrocellulose or nylon.
Karnataka CET-2020
(IV) Detection of hybridized DNA fragments by
autoradiography. Ans. (c) : PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction), is a
technique which is used to make multiple copies of a
(V) Separation of DNA fragments by
segment of DNA. PCR is very much helpful to detect
electrophoresis.
any disease in early stages like cancer and AIDS.
(VI) Digestion of DNA by restriction
endonucleases. 505. In which of the following steps in DNA
(a) I,V, VI, II, III, and IV fingerprinting technique are labelled VNTR
(b) II, VI, V, III, I and IV probes used?
(c) V, I, VI, III, IV and II (a) During isolation of DNA
(d) II, I, V, VI, IV and III (b) During digestion of DNA by REN
(e) II, V, VI, I, III and IV (c) During electrophoresis
Kerala PMT-2013 (d) During hybridization
Karnataka CET-2018
Ans. (b) : DNA fingerprinting involves the following
steps: Ans. (d) : The technique of DNA fingerprinting was
(1) Isolation of DNA. initially developed by Alec Jeffrey. It include:
(2) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases. • Hybridization using labeled VNTR probe
(3) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis. • Separation of DNA fragment by electrophoresis.
(4) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments 506. In genetic fingerprinting the ‘probe’ refers to---
to synthetic membranes, such as nitrocellulose or nylon. (a) A radioactively labelled single stranded RNA
(5) Hybridization using labelled VNTR probe. molecule
(6) Detection of hybridized DNA fragments by (b) A radioactively labelled single stranded DNA
autoradiography. molecule
503. Identify the labels M and N in the following (c) A radioactively labelled double stranded
Agarose get electrophoresis representation. DNA molecule
(d) A radioactively labelled double stranded
RNA molecule.
Karnataka CET-2010
Ans. (b) : Probe are small nucleotide sequences use to
detect the presence of complementary sequence in
nucleic acid sample. Both DNA and RNA are used as
probes. Single–stranded DNA probe are more
(a) M- Digested DNA bands conveniently and preferable but denaturated double
N- Undigested DNA bands stranded DNA molecule can also be used. The probe
(b) M- Hybridised DNA bands can either be labelled with radioactive P32, S35 or non–
N- Hybridised DNA bands radioactive (e.g. biotin).
507. The main aim of the human genome project is--
-------------
(a) To identify and sequence all the genes present
in human DNA.
(b) To introduce new genes into humans.
(c) To remove disease causing genes from human
DNA
(d) To develop better techniques for comparing
510. Probes, used in DNA fingerprinting, are
two different human DNA sample
initially
Karnataka CET-2010
(a) single stranded RNA
Ans. (a) : The human genome project (HGP) was an (b) mini-satellite
international scientific research project with the goal of
(c) 19 base long oligonucleotide
determining the base pairs that make up human DNA. It
started in 1990 and was completed in 2003. The main
JIPMER-2014
aim of the human genome project is to identify and
sequence all the genes present in human DNA. Ans. (b) : The probe used in DNA fingerprinting are
usually prepared from mini-satellite or microsatellite
508. The fragments of DNA formed after treatment
DNA.
with endonucleases are separated by this
technique: 511. Key tools r–DNA technology are
(a) Polymerase chain reaction I. Molecular scissors II. PBR 322
(b) Southern blotting III. Gene gun IV. Bioreactor
(c) Electrophoresis Options:
(d) Colony hybridization (a) I, III (b) I, IV
(c) I, II (d) II, III
AP EAMCET-2005
Ans. (c) : Gel electrophoresis uses a positively charged
grid to attract the negatively charged DNA fragments, Ans. (c) : Restriction endonucleases are called
thereby separating them by size, because the smaller molecular scissors as they cut the DNA segments at
particular locations. This part of the vector name stands
ones will migrate the most. Radioactive or fluorescent
for Bailar and Rodriguez.
probes are added, which attract and bind with the
desired DNA to produce visible bands. • Two of the scientists who constructed the pBR322
Endonucleases break down DNA from internal sites. cloning vector in 1977. They create named the plasmid
with the number "322" to distinguish this vector from
These DNA fragment can be separated by the method of
other vectors they developed in their laboratory.
electrophoresis in which charge molecule are separated
in a Buffer solution. 512. Which of the following is not required for any
of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting
509. Gel electrophoresis is used for:
available at presents
(a) construction of recombinant DNA by joining
(a) DNA- DNA hybridization
with cloning vectors
(b) Polymerase chain reaction
(b) isolation of DNA molecule
(c) Zinc finger analysis
(c) cutting of DNA into fragments
(d) Restriction enzymes
(d) separation of DNA fragments according to
NEET-2016 Phase-I
their size
Ans. (c) : Zinc-finger analysis is for protein analysis.
AIPMT-2008
Zinc finger is a kind of structural motif that is
Ans. (d) : Gel electrophoresis is the technique involving characterized by co-ordination between zinc ions to
the separation of molecules based on their size and stabilize the tertiary structure of proteins. In crime
charge like DNA, RNA and proteins. DNA fragments investigations, the fingerprint of DNA is a forensic tool
are separated according to their size. Proteins can be that compares the samples of criminal suspects to the
separated according to their size and their charge Gel details of DNA to measure the risk of involvement in
electrophoresis is used for a range of purposes, like to criminal investigations. It is also used for parenthood
get a DNA fingerprint for forensic science, for paternity testing to a certain eligibility for migration and for
testing, to check a PCR Reaction. genealogical and medical analysis.

513. According to Human Genome Project (HGP), (d) 2 pairs of genes with an intragene
the total number of genes in human genome is JIPMER-2013
estimated at 30,000, the number of genes Ans. (b) : Human skin odour is a polygenic trait
present on Y-chromosome are governed by three pairs of genes. (Aa, Bb and Cc)
(a) 242 genes (b) 2898 genes where dominated allele of each gene express only a part
(c) 2968 genes (d) 231 genes of trait and the full traits is expressed.
Karnataka CET-2019 518. The largest gene in man is
Ans. (d) : According to HGP, total number of genes in (a) insulin gene
human genome is estimated at 30,000, the number of (b) tumour suppressor gene
genes present on y-chromosome are 231 genes. (c) beta globin gene of haemoglobin
(d) dystrophin
H. Regulation of Gene Expression JIPMER-2013
514. Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning Ans. (d) : The largest gene in man is dystrophin gene
because present on the ‘X’ chromosome. Dystrophin is the
(a) these are small circular DNA molecules largest protein coding gene in humans that measure
which can integrate with host chromosomal about 2.4 mbp. The human dystrophin gene requires 16
DNA hours to be transcribed.
(b) these are small circular DNA molecules with 519. The terminator gene technology causes
their own replication origin site (a) failure of seed setting after one generation
(c) these can shuttle between prokaryotic and (b) breakage of seed dormancy
eukaryotic cells (c) early flowering in plants
(d) these often carry antibiotic resistance genes (d) None of the above
AFMC-2007 Rajasthan PMT-2009
Ans. (b) : Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning Ans. (a) : In terminator gene technology, the plants are
because these are small circular DNA molecules with introduced a gene, called terminator gene, which causes
their own replication origin site. Plasmids are failure of seed setting after one generation.
extranuclear. Circular double stranded DNA that can 520. Study the following lists
self replicate. As a result they ae used as vectors to
carry the desired gene into the host cell.
List-I List-II
515. Sigma factor is related to :
(A) Operon (I) Binding of
(a) RNA polymerase (b) DNA polymerase
repressor proteins
(c) both a and b (d) none of these
(B) Operator (II) Binding of RNA
Manipal-2003
polymerase
Ans. (a) : Sigma factor is related to RNA polymerase.
(C) Promoter (III) Inactivated by
As the regular of a single sigma factor can be
inducer
comprised of hundreds of genes sigma factor provide
effective mechanisms for simultaneously regulating (D) Repressor (IV) Binding to
large number of prokaryotic genes sigma subunit of polynucleotide
RNAP determines the specificity of promoter phosphorylase
utilization. Control how efficiently RNA synthesis is (V) Polycistronic
initiated. structural gene
516. Which enzyme is used to remove the introns? regulation
(a) Ligase (b) Ribozyme The correct match is
(c) RNA protease (d) Carbinozyme (A) (B) (C) (D)
CMC Vellore-2014 (a) (IV) (III) (I) (II)
Ans. (b) : Ribozyme enzyme is used to remove the (b) (III) (V) (IV) (I)
introns. A ribozyme is an RNA molecule with a well (c) (II) (IV) (III) (V)
defined tertiary structure that enables to act like a (d) (V) (I) (II) (III)
protein enzyme in catalyzing biochemical and metabolic TS EAMCET-2015
reaction within a cell. Ans. (d) :
517. Skin colour is controlled by Operon- Polycistronic structural gene regulation.
(a) single gene Operator gene- Binding of repressor protein
(b) 3 pairs of gene Promotor gene- Binding of RNA polymerase
(c) 2 pairs of gene Repressor- Inactivated by inducer.
521. Match the correct phenotype and genotype of 524. The function of restriction enzyme is :
Drosophila for their wing sizes. (a) cleavages of protein (b) cleavages of DNA
Phenotype Genotype (c) cleavages of fat (d) cleavages of starch
(i) Normal wings (A) vgno Rajasthan PMT-2001
(ii) Nicked wings (B) vg Ans. (b) : (1) Restriction endonuclease is also named
(iii) Notched wings (C) vg+ restriction enzyme.
(iv) Strap wings (D) vgst (2) It is a protein produced by bacteria.
(v) Vestigeal wing (E) vgni (3) It function is to cleave the foreign DNA and protect
(a) (i)-E, (ii)-D, (iii)-C, (iv)-B, (v)-A it from infection.
(b) (i)-A, (ii)-B, (iii)-C, (iv)-D, (v)-E (4) It cuts the DNA into specific sequences and is
(c) (i)-D, (ii)-A, (iii)-B, (iv)-E, (v)-C widely used in genetic engineering.
(d) (i)-C, (ii)-E, (iii)-A, (iv)-D, (v)-B 525. Central dogma in molecular biology is
MHT CET-04.10.2020 Shift-I (a) RNA→ DNA→ Protein
Ans. (d) : (b) DNA→ RNA→ Protein
Phenotype Genotype (c) RNA→ Protein→ DNA
Normal wings Vg+ (d) DNA→ Protein → RNA
Nicked wings Vgni WB JEE-2015
Notehed wings Vgno Ans. (b) : The central dogma of molecular biology is a
Strap wings Vgst theory stating that genetic information flows, only in
Vestigeal wings Vg one direction from DNA to RNA to protein or RNA
522. A functional complex comprising a cluster of directly to protein.
genes including structural gene, a promoter DNA → RNA  translation
→ Protein.
gene, an operator region and a regulatory gene
526. Restriction endonuclease – Hind II always cuts
was discovered by
DNA molecules at a particular point by
(a) Beadle and Tatum (1958) recognizing a specific sequence of
(b) Watson and Crick (1953) (a) Six base pairs (b) Five base pairs
(c) Jacob and Monad (1961) (c) Four base pairs (d) Seven base pairs
(d) Britten and Davidson (1969) (e) Three base pairs
Uttarakhand PMT-2006 Kerala PMT-2013
Ans. (c) : Jacob and Monad gave Famous Operon Ans. (a) : Hind-II was the first discovered restriction
model. endonuclease enzyme. It has isolated from Heamophilus
James Watson and Francis Crick proposed double influenza. It cuts DNA molecules at a particular point
helical model of DNA in 1953. by recognizing a specific sequence of six base pairs this
Beadle and Tatum-one gene-one enzyme hypothesis. specific sequence of six base pairs. This specific
523. During polynucleotide synthesis by the sequence is known as the recognition sequence for
following enzymes, in which case elongation Hind-II.
occurs in 5 → 3 direction? 527. Genes that are involved in turning on or off the
(a) DNA polymerase transcription of a set structural genes are
(b) RNA polymerase called
(c) Reverse transcriptase (a) polymorphic genes
(d) All of the above (b) operator genes
AMU-2014 (c) redundant genes
Ans. (d) : DNA polymerase uses a DNA template to (d) regulatory genes
catalyses the polymerization of large number of Punjab MET-2010
nucleotides. Ans. (d) : Lac operon is made up of regulator operator
DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase and reverse and structural gene. The regulator gene produce m-RNA
transcriptase are used during polynucleotide synthesis in which translates into the repressor. The repressor
case where elongation occurs in 5'-3' direction. It is attaches to the structural gene in absence of inducer. In
because that all of them add nucleotides in 5'-3' presence of inducer, the repressor attaches to the
direction. inducer and operator is not blocked so it allows the
DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the expression of the structural gene.
polymerization of RNA in only one direction (5'-3') Operator genes are a region of DNA sequence which
Reverse transcriptase helps in reverse transcription attaches to repressor molecule and stop the expression
(conversion of RNA to DNA). of the structural gene.
528. RNA interference which is employed in making Ans. (c) : The elucidation of the Lac-Operon was also a
tobacco plant resistant to Meloidegyne result of a close association between a geneticist,
incognita is essentially involved in _______. Francois Jacob and a biochemist, Jacque Monad.
(a) preventing the process of translation of They were the first to elucidate a transcriptionally
mRNA regulated system.
(b) preventing the process of transcription
532. Lac Operon concept is introduced by these bio
(c) preventing the process of replication of D
chemist and geneticist
(d) preventing the process of splicing of hnRNA
(a) Mendel & Butler
Karnataka CET-2014
(b) Monad & Jacob
Ans. (a) Several nematodes infect a wide variety of
(c) Jacob & Monad
plant and animals including human beings. A nematode
known as Meloidegyne incognita infects the roots of (d) Jacob & Sutton
tobacco plant and reduces the production of tobacco. AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II
Thus, to prevent this infection a strategy is adopted Ans. (b) : The lac operon concept was introduced by
known as RNA interface (RNAi) which takes place in the French biologist Jacob and Monod.
all eukaryotic organisms as a method involves silencing They conducted groundbreaking research on the lac
of mRNA due to complementary ds RNA molecule that operon in the bacterium Escherichia coli(E.coli). They
binds to it and prevents the process of translation of were awarded the Nobel prize in medicine.
mRNA.
533. In operon concept, regulator gene functions as:
529. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a
(a) repressor (b) regulator
developing organism, is associated with-
(c) inhibitor (d) initiator
(a) Deletion of genes
WB JEE-2006
(b) Developmental mutations
(c) Differential expression of genes Ans. (a) : In operon concept produces a repressor
(d) Lethal mutations protein that binds to the operator and thus inhibits the
AIPMT-2007 transcription of structural genes the regulator gene acts
as a repressor.
Ans. (c) : Differential expression of gene explanation
differentiation of organ and tissue in a developing 534. Operon unit consists of
organism is associated with differential expression of (a) regulator, operator and repressive gene
gene in regulation of gene expression the chromosomal (b) regulator, structural and operator gene
proteins are of two types histones and non-histones the (c) regulator, structural, operator and promoter
regulation of gene expression involves an interaction gene
between histones and non-histones. (d) regulator, structural and promoter gene
530. A sequential expression of a set of human genes Manipal-2013
occurs when a steroid molecule binds to the:- BVP-2010
(a) Ribosome
Ans. (c) : Operon unit consists of three adjacent.
(b) Transfer RNA
(i) Regulator
(c) Messenger RNA
(ii) structural operator
(d) DNA sequence
(iii) promoter gene.
AIPMT-2007
535. Assume a spherical mammalian cell has a
Ans. (d) : When a steroid molecule binds to a specific
diameter of 27 microns. If a polypeptide chain
set of DNA sequence, the receptor protein at the steroid
with alpha helical conformation has to stretch
hormone complex activates a sequential expression of
across the cell, how many amino acids should it
genes. The steroid molecules acts and an inducer.
be comprised of?
I. The Lac Operon (a) 18000 (b) 1800
(c) 27000 (d) 12000
531. The Lac-Operon model was elucidated by KVPY SB & SX-2015
(a) Jacob and Crick Ans. (a) : No. of amino acid in one term in α - helix =
(b) Watson and Crick 3.6
(c) Francois Jacob and Jaques Monad
Pitch length for α-helix = 5.4 Å
(d) Hershey and Chase
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 The number of Amino acid in polypeptide
3.6
= 27 × 10–6 ×
5.4 ×10 –10
= 1.8 × 104
Amino acid number = 18000
536. Which one of the these substances will repress
the lac operon?
(a) Arabinose (b) Glucose
(c) Lactose (d) Tryptophan 541. Select the correct statement about operon.
KVPY SB & SX-2015 (1) Glucose or galactose may bind with the
Ans. (b) : Glucose is one of the substance that will repressor and inactivate it
repress the lac operon. (2) In the absence of lactose, the repressor
537. In negative operon binds with the operator region
(a) co-repressor binds with repressor (3) The Z-gene codes for permease
(b) co-repressor does not bind with repressor (4) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and
(c) co-repressor binds with inducer Jacques Monod
(d) c-AMP has negative effect on lac operon (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
BHU PMT (Screening)-2010 (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
Ans. (a) : The lac operon is a negatively controlled
indelible in lactose. Negative operon is co-repressor (d) 1 and 3 are correct
binds with repressor. BHU PMT (Mains)-2010
538. Number of structural genes in lac operon is Ans. (c) : In the absence of lactose the repressor binds
_________ with the operator region.
(a) 1 (b) 2 This clan elucidated by François Jacob and Monod.
(c) 3 (d) 4 Z-genes coder for β -galactosidase .
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-II 542. Match the following genes of the Lac operon
Ans. (c) : Number of structural genes in lac operon is with their respective products :
three. (A) I-gene (i) β-galactosidase
539. Jacob and Monad studied lactose metabolism (B) Z-gene (ii) Permease
in E.Coli and proposed operon concept. (C) A-gene (iii) Repressor
Operon concept applicable for : - (D) Y-gene (iv) Transacetylase
(b) All prokaryotes and some eukaryotes Select the correct option.
(c) All prokaryotes and all eukaryotes A B C D
(d) All prokaryotes and some protozoanes (a) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
AIPMT-2002 (b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Ans. (a) : Operon concept proposed by Jacob Monad. (c) (iv) (iv) (i) (ii)
This concept only applicable in the all prokaryotes. In (d) (i) (iii) (iii) (iv)
genetics, an operon is a functioning unit of DNA NEET-2019
containing a cluster of genes under the control of single
Ans. (b) : I-gene – Repressor
promoter.
Z-gene – β-galactosidase
540. In E. Coli, during lactose metabolism repressor
Y-gene – Permease
binds to : -
A-gene – Transacetylase
(a) Regulator gene (b) Operator gene
(c) Structural gene (d) Promoter gene 543. What does "lac" refer to in what we call the lac
AIPMT-2002 operon: -
(a) Lactose
Ans. (b) : In the lac operon of E. coli due to the activity
of regulator gene synthesis of repressor molecules (b) Lactase
occurs. These repressor molecules get attached to the (c) Lac insect
operator gene and prevents RNA polymerase from (d) The number 1,00,000
transcribing the operon. AIPMT-2003
Ans. (a): Lac operon model responsible for transport Ans. (b) : (A) A sigma factor is a protein needed for
and metabolism of lactose in E-coli or other bacteria. initiation of transcription in bacteria. It is a bacterial
Lactose act as a inducer the presence of lactose transcription initiation factor that enables specific
basically operon remain open. binding of RNA polymerase (RNA Pol.) to gene
promoters.
(B) Rho-factor is a prokaryotic protein involved in the
termination of transcription.
(C) Translation elongation is simply the ribosome
travelling down the message, reading codons and
bringing in the proper aminoacyl tRNA's to translate the
message out to protein.
546. Identify the correct statement.
(a) Capping of hn RNA means the addition of
adenylate residues at 5' end hn RNA
(b) y gene of lac operon encodes transacetylase
• If repressor bind to operator region (O), the result enzyme.
transcription stop. No gene expression. (c) In Eukaryotes structural genes are interrupted
• If repressor binds to the inducer then transcription by coding sequences.
start gene express. (d) The lac operon has two regulatory genes and
544. An environmental agent, which triggers three structural genes.
transcription from as operon, is a AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-II
(a) Depressor (b) Controlling element Ans. (c) : The structure of eukaryotic genes most
(c) Regulator (d) Inducer. eukaryotic genes conations segments of coding
VMMC-2013 sequences (exons).
AIPMT-1995 Y-genes lac operon encodes lac permease enzymes.
Ans. (d) : An environmental agent, which triggers 547. When Escherichia coli cells are cultured in a
transcription from an operon, is a inducer. The inducer medium where Lactose is absent, the ‘i’ gene
in the lac operon is allolactose. If lactose is present in of Lac Operon continues to produce repressor
the medium, then a small amount of it will be converted mRNA, because it is .
to allolactose by a few molecules of β-galactosidase that (a) a non-coding gene,
are present in the cell. (b) an operator gene,
(c) a constitutive gene.
545. (d) a structural gene.
(A)
Karnataka CET-2020
Ans. (c) : When Escherichia coli cells are cultured in a
medium where Lactose is absent, the ‘i’ gene of Lac
(B) operon it is a continues to produce repressor mRNA,
because it is a constitutive gene.
Lac operon was proposed by Jacob and Monod in E.
coli.
(C) 548. The Lac Operon is turned on when allolactose
molecules bind to :
(a) Promoter site (b) Operator site
Identify A, B and C (c) mRNA (d) Repressor protein
(a) (A) Elongation, (B) Termination, Karnataka CET-2012
(C) Initiation Ans. (d) : The Lac operon is turned on when the
(b) (A) Initiation, (B) Termination, allolactose molecules bind to repressor protein. The Lac
(C) Elongation repressor acts as a lactose sensor. It normally happen
when the lactose molecules are converted to allolactose
(c) (A) Initiation, (B) Elongation,
which binds to the repressor molecule. It the inducer
(C) Termination such as lactose or allolactose is present, the repressor is
(d) (A) Termination, (B) Elongation, inactivated by interaction with the inducer. It allows
(C) Initiation RNA polymerase access to the promoter and thus
AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-I transcription proceeds.
12. EVOLUTION
A. The Origin of Life Ans. (c) : Francesco Redi (1668) proved experimentally
that living organisms doesn’t originate from non-living
1. Among the following the incorrect pair is matter and refused the theory of abiogenesis or
(a) Theory of catasttrophism – George Cuvier spontaneous generation. Redi showed that maggots
(b) Theory of Biogenesis – Louis Pasteur could not be created from meat, actually the smell of
(c) Cosmozoic Theory – Aristotle meat attracts flies which lay eggs on the flesh. These
(d) Theory of origin of life – A.I. Oparion eggs hatched into flies.
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II 6. Life originated in
Ans. (c) : (a) Air (b) Water
Cosmozoic theory – Richter (1865) (c) Land (d) All of these
Theory of catasttrophism – George cuvier BCECE-2011 / VMMC-2002
Theory of Biogenesis – Louis pasteur Ans. (b) : Life is thought to have originated in water
Theory of life origin – A.I oparion. primarily because water provides a stable and suitable
2. The ratio of methane, ammonia and hydrogen environment for the complex chemical reactions
in Stanley Millers experiment was necessary for life to begin.
(a) 3 : 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 : 2 7. It is not possible to create life because
(c) 1 : 2 : 1 (d) 5 : 4 : 1 (a) we cannot match creativity and intelligence of
MHT CET-6.10.2020-Shift-I / APEAMCET-2011 God
UP CPMT-2009 / Punjab MET-2009 / DUMET-2008 (b) nature of molecular organisation is complex
Ans. (b) : Miller circulated four gasses i.e. methane, and not fully known
ammonia, hydrogen (in the ratio of 2:1:2) and water (c) all mode of life are not fully known
vapour in air tight apparatus and passed electrical (d) most of modes are known except a few
discharges from electrodes at 800ºC and after one week BVP-2010
he found large number of simple organic compounds
like alanine, glycine and aspartic acid and proved that Ans. (b) :It is not possible to create life because nature
organic compounds were basis of life. of molecular organization is complex and not fully
3. The important gas which was absent during the known. Life is indeed based on complex molecular
formation of Earth is structures and processes and our understanding of these
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen processes is still incomplete.
(c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon dioxide 8. The famous book "Origin of Species" was
WB JEE-2012 / CMC Vellore-2012 written by Charles Darwin in
CMC Ludhiana-2009 / JCECE-2009 (a) 1809 (b) 1859
Manipal -2007 / UPCPMT -2006 (c) 1885 (d) 1871
Karnataka CET-2006 / BVP-2004 WB JEE -2011 / BVP-2010
DUMET-2003 / AIPMT-1991 Rajasthan PMT -2005 / AIPMT-1989
Ans. (a) : The primitive atmosphere of Earth at that time Ans. (b) : Darwin published his observation and
was reducing, not oxidizing (as it is today). The primitive conclusion in the form of a book "Origin of species" in
atmosphere of Earth had hydrogen (H2), nitrogen (N), November 1859. The full title of his book was “On the
water vapours, carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4) and
ammonia (NH3) abundance. Oxygen (O2) was not origin of species by means of natural selection: The
available in free state in sufficient quantities. preservation of races in the struggle for life.”
Darwin gave brief description of ''Origin of Species",
4. The abiogenesis occured about how many
however he described in detail how populations become
billion years ago ?
well adapted to their environment through natural
(a) 1.2 billion (b) 1.5 billion selection.
(c) 2.5 billion (d) 3.5 billion
Punjab MET-1999 9. Formation of similar structure in embryo
represents
Ans. (d) : Abiogenesis means origin of life from non-
living matter. Abiogenesis occurred about 3.5 billion (a) biogenetic law (b) adaptive radiation
year's ago. A hypothesis related with abiogenesis also (c) mutation (d) natural selection
proposed in 1668 as theory of spontaneous generation UP CPMT-2010 / J&K CET 2005 / AIIMS -1998
but at that time, theory was discarded experimentally byAns. (a) : The biogenetic law, proposed by Ernst
Francesco Redi. Haeckel is 19th century, suggests that during their
5. Theory of spontaneous generation was first embryonic development, organisms go through stages
refuted experimentally : that resemble the evolutionary history of their species.
(a) Spallanzani (b) Von Helmont This means that the development of an individual
(c) Redi (d) Pasteur organism's embryo reflects the evolutionary changes
AFMC-2000 that its species has undergone over time.
Evolution 605 YCT
10. Who first conducted experiments on evolution Ans. (c) : In Miller-Urey experiment a large number of
to prove biochemical origin of life? simple organic compounds including some amino acids
(a) Miller and Urey (b) Darwin (like-alanine, glycine and aspartic acid), Urea, hydrogen
(c) Lamarck (d) Weismann cyanide, lactic acid and acetic acid were found but no
DUMET-2008,05 / UP CPMT-2003 nucleic acids were found in their experiment.
However, nucleic acids are essential molecules for
Ans. (a) : Stanley Miller and Harold Urey in 1953 first storing and transmitting genetic information, were not
conducted experiment on evolution to prove found in the original Urey Miller experiment.
biochemical origin of life based on hypothesis proposed
15. The category of molecules produced by the
by Oparin and Haldane. The experiment established that Miller-Urey experiment was
the early earth atmosphere as they pictured it was (a) organic polymers (b) inorganic polymers
capable of producing amino acids (such as alanine, (c) organic monomers (d) inorganic monomers
glycine, aspartic acid etc.), the building block of life JCECE-2018 / Manipal-2011
from inorganic substances. CMC VELLORE-2011
11. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny is a part of Ans. (c) : In Miller-Urey experiment a large number of
(a) Recapitulation theory simple organic monomer’s including some amino acids
(b) Darwin's evolution theory (as alanine, glycine, aspartic acid etc.), urea, hydrogen
(c) Lamarck's evolution theory cyanide, lactic acids, acetic acids were produced.
(d) Weismann's theory 16. The results of Miller's experiments were
Punjab MET-2009 / J&K CET-2009, 2008 discussed in the book ''The Planets'' written by
UP CPMT-2003, 2009 / DUMET-2005, 2002, 2001 (a) Sayere (b) Harold Urey
(c) Huxley (d) Stanley
Ans. (a) : Ontogeny repeats phylogeny is a part of AFMC -2009
recapitulation theory. Ontogeny is the life history of an Ans. (b) : Harold Urey was an American physical
organism while phylogeny is the evolutionary history of chemist, whose pioneering work on isotopes earned him
the race of that organism. In other words, an organism the Noble Prize in Chemistry in 1934.
repeats its ancestral history during its development. This • The results of Miller’s experiments were discussed in the
theory is also called biogenetic law. book, "The planet" which was written by Harold Urey.
Ex. Tadpole larva (fish like tailed larva) of frog 17. The theory of pangenesis was rejected due to
indicates that frog evolved from fish like ancestor. the acceptance of
12 Who gave theory about embryo evolution ? (a) Spallanzani theory of biogenesis
(a) Darwin (b) Lamarck (b) Richter theory of cosmozoic
(c) Haeckel (d) Dobzhansky (c) Cuvier theory of catastropism
UP CPMT-2003 (d) Weismann theory of germplasm
Ans. (c) : Haeckel proposed a theory of embryo DUMET-2008
evolution or biogenetic law. The biogenetic law, Ans. (d) : Darwin's theory of inheritance was referred
proposed by Ernst Haeckel in 19th century, suggests to as pangenesis theory. The theory of pangenesis was
that during their embryonic development, organisms go rejected due to the acceptance of Weismann theory of
through stages that resemble the evolutionary history of germplasm. Weismann in 1900 suggested that
their species. This means that the development of an reproductive cells have the germplasm and they pass
individual organism's embryo reflects the evolutionary traits to the next generation. As the traits of
changes that its species has undergone over time. somatoplasm do not transmit to next generation, they
are not found in the offsprings. This is the basis of
13. Believers in spontaneous generation theory present day chromosomal theory of inheritance.
assumed that
18. In the origin of life, microspheres are most
(a) organisms arose only from other similar primitive protobiont, which have a membrane of
organisms
(a) lipid and proteins (b) lipid
(b) organisms could arise only from air (c) carbohydrates (d) fats
(c) organisms arise-from non-living material DUMET-2008
(d) organisms always arise from air Ans. (a) : S.F. Fox when mixes artificially produced
Uttarakhand PMT-2007 / BVP-2014, 2008 organic compounds with cool water, microspheres are
Ans. (c) : The theory of spontaneous generation was a formed. If the mixture contains lipids, the surface of
scientific belief that existed for centuries before it was microspheres consists of lipid bilayer reminiscent
disproven. It proved that living organisms could arise (remembering things of past) to the lipid bilayer of cell
from non - living material, such as decaying matter of membranes. Fox heated a mixture of 18 amino acids to
even dirt. This theory suggested that life could temperature 130-180ºC. He obtained stable protein like
spontaneously emerge from inanimate substances macromolecules which he named protenoids. When
without the need for pre existing living organisms. protenoid material was cooled and examined under
microscope. Fox observed small spherical cell like units
14. Which of the following compounds was not that had arisen from aggregations of protenoid. These
found in Miller - Urey experiment ? molecular aggregates were called protenoid
(a) Amino acids (b) Urea microspheres. These microspheres were surrounded by
(c) Nucleic acid (d) Lactic acid membrane of lipid and proteins. The microspheres are
Tripura JEE-2018 infact, similar structures or protobionts or eobionts.
Evolution 606 YCT
19. The term hot dilute soup was used by Ans. (c) : During 1980’s enzymatic activities of RNA
(a) Haldane (b) von Helmont molecules are constantly being discovered, but no
(c) Redi (d) Louis Pasteur enzymatic activity has ever been attributed to DNA.
DUMET-2008 Further ribose is much more readily synthesized than
deoxyribose under stimulated prebiotic conditions. A
Ans. (a) : The ancient oceanic water contained large selective advantageous RNA molecule would be one
amounts of dissolved NH3, CH4, HCN, nitrides, that directs the synthesis of protein that accelerates the
carbides, various gases and elements. The early replication of particular RNA (i.e. RNA polymerase).
compounds interacted and produced simple organic RNA could have catalysed the formation of lipid like
compounds such as simple sugar’s (ribose, deoxy- molecules that could have, in turn, formed plasma
ribose, glucose etc.) acids, glycerol, fatty acids etc. membrane and proteins. The proteins might have taken
Some external sources must have been acting on the over most enzymatic functions because they are better
mixture for reactions. It may be (i) solar radiation such catalyst than RNAs. If the first cells used RNA as their
as UV light rays, X-rays etc. (ii) Energy from electrical hereditary molecule than DNA evolved from RNA
discharges like lightning (iii) High energy radiations template. Once cells evolved DNA probably replaced
etc. There was no ozone layer in the atmosphere. Thus, RNA in most organisms. Due to their discovery
oceanic water rich in mixture of organic compounds and evolution was termed as RNA world.
have high temperature. This organic compound riched 23. Similarities in organisms with different
oceanic water was termed by J.B.S. Haldane (1920) as- genotypes indicates
‘Hot dilute soup’ of organic substances. The hot dilute (a) microevolution
soup is also called- Prebiotic soup. (b) macroevolution
20. Biological concept of species is mainly based on (c) convergent evolution
(a) reproductive isolation (d) divergent evolution
(b) morphological features only BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
(c) methods of reproduction only Ans. (c) : Convergent evolution refers to the evolution
(d) morphology and methods of reproduction in different lineage of structures that are similar or
UP CPMT-2012 analogous but that cannot be attributed to the existence
of common ancestor. In other words the fact that the
Ans. (a) : Reproductive isolation is the prevention of structures are analogous does not reflect homology. A
interbreeding between the populations of two different similarity may reside at the phenotypic level, in which
species. According to Mayr reproductive isolating case the lineage share the over trait, but the underlying
mechanism is the biological concept of species or DNA sequences are different.
biological properties of individual which prevent the 24. The unit of evolution is now known to be the
interbreeding of naturally sympatric population (groups
(a) individual (b) family
from the same ancestral population evolve into separate
species without any geographical separation). (c) population (d) species
J&K CET-2012
It maintains the characters of species but can lead to the
origin of new species. Ans. (c) : The unit of evolution is now known to be the
population. Evolution is defined as the changes
21. Urey-Millers experiment mixture had the acquiring in the inherited traits of the population from
following except one generation to another. While population is the
(a) methane (b) CO2 group of individuals who are of the same species living
(c) hydrogen (d) water vapour in the same geographical area and also interbreed with
J&K CET-2009 each other. The smallest and fundamental unit of
Ans. (b) : Urey-Millers experiment mixture had the evolution is the population that undergoes any type of
following except CO2. evolutionary change.
Stanley Miller in 1953, who was then a graduate student 25. The concept of chemical evolution is based on
at the University of Chicago, approched Harold Urey (a) crystallization of chemicals
demonstrated it clearly that ultra-violet radiations or (b) interaction of water, air and clay under
electrical discharges or heat or a combination of these intense heat
can produce complex organic compounds from a (c) effect of solar radiation on chemicals
mixture of methane (CH4), ammonia (NH3), water (d) possible origin of life by combination of
vapour and hydrogen (H2). His experiment proved that chemicals under suitable environmental
organic compounds were basis of life. conditions
22. Due to discovery of which of the following is Rajasthan PMT-2010 / AIIMS-2010
1980s, the evolution was termed as RNA Ans. (d) : The theory of chemical evolution was
world? proposed by Oparin and Haldane in 1992. Chemical
(a) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA, synthesise protein evolution suggests that under the right conditions on
(b) In some viruses, RNA is genetic material early Earth, various organic molecules and compounds
(c) Some RNAs have enzymatic property could have formed through a series of chemical
(d) RNA is not found in all cells reactions. These are organic molecules, such as amino
BHU PMT (Screening)-2010 acids and nucleotides.
Evolution 607 YCT
26. Which compound has very important role in Ans. (a) : Origin of life occurred Precambrian.
prebiotic evolution? Precambrian is the earliest part of Earth's history, set
(a) SO2 (b) NO before the current phanerozoic. The Precambrian is so
(c) CH4 (d) SO3 named because it preceeded the Cambrian the first
MGIMS Wardha-2008 / Rajasthan PMT -2005 period of the phanerozoic Eon. It was the '' Age of early
UPCPMT-2002 / AIIMS-1997 life''. During the pre Cambrian, continents formed and
our modern atmosphere developed, which early life
Ans. (c) : CH4 (Methane) has very important role in evolved and flourished. Soft bodied creatures like
prebiotic evolution. Miller showed the presence of four worms and jelly -fish lived in the world's oceans but the
gases in his experiment. One of them is methane that is land remained barren.
CH4. This gas results in the formation of amino acids
such as alanine, glycine that show evolution. From a 31. Miller and Urey performed an experiment to
mixture of methane, hydrogen, ammonia and water prove the origin of life. They took gases NH3,
vapour. As in primitive atmosphere hydrogen served as and H2 alongwith
a reducing agent while methane provided hydrocarbon (a) N2 and H2O (b) H2O and CH4
skeleton for synthesis of organic compounds. The (c) CH 4 and N 2 (d) CO2 and NH3
absence of methane prevented synthesis of these AMU-2012 / JIPMER-2008
monomer’s in a glass chamber. Water served as a Rajasthan PMT-2006, 2003
medium for chemical synthesis of organic compounds Punjab MET-2006, 2003 /MGIMS Wardha -2003
in the glass chamber. Oxygen and therefore oxides Manipal -2001 / UP CPMT-2001 /Haryana PMT- 2000
(SO2, NO, SO3, etc.) were absent in primitive Ans. (b) : Stanley Miller (in 1953) who was then a
atmosphere. graduate student of Harold Urey at the university of
Chicago, demonstrated it clearly that ultra-violet
27. Theory of pangenesis was given by radiation or electrical discharges or heat or a combination
(a) Darwin (b) Lamarck of these produce complex organic compounds from a
(c) Hugo de Vries (d) Oparin mixture of methane (CH4), ammonia (NH3), water (H2O)
BHU PMT (Mains)-2010 / BCECE-2014 i.e. steam of water and hydrogen. Miller circulated four
DUMET-2006 / BVP-2004,2001 / DUMET-2003 gases, methane (CH4), ammonia (NH3), hydrogen (H2),
Ans. (a) : In 1868, theory of pangenesis was proposed and water vapour in an air tight apparatus and passed
by Charles Darwin which is a developmental theory of electrical discharges from electrodes at 800ºC. He passed
heredity. the mixture through a condenser. He circulated the gases
continuously in this way for one week and then analysed
28. Basic elements of life are the chemical composition of the liquid inside the
(a) C, H, O, N (b) C, P, H, S apparatus. He found a large number of simple organic
(c) H, O, N, S (d) P, C, O, N compounds including some amino acids such as alanine,
AMU-1998 glycine, and aspartic acid. Miller proved that organic
Ans. (a) : The chemical elements most prominent in compounds were basis of life.
building the structure of the molecules of life are carbon 32. First organisms to evolve on the earth were
(C) Hydrogen (H), oxygen (O), Nitrogen (N) and also (a) saprotrophs (b) photoautotrophs
sulphur (S) and phosphorus (P) too. The elements combine (c) chemoautotrophs (d) chemoheterotrophs
in a vast number of molecules involved in life processes. CMC Vellore-2014 / BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
The elements makeup the bulk of living organism. In UP CPMT-2001 / AIPMT-2001, 1992
addition to these elements a number of metal atoms play Ans. (d) : First organisms to evolve on the earth were
essential supporting roles in producing enzymes, chemoheterotrophs. Chemoheterotrophs are microbes
contributing to communication pathway and enabling that use organic chemical substances as sources of
specific processes in the body. So, these elements (C, H, O, energy and organic compounds as the main source of
N and S, P) are called elements of life. carbon. Most animals and fungi are example of
29. Discovery of fossils of cyanobacteria indicates chemoheterotrophs, as are halophiles.
that life originated sometime 33. Which of the following was formed in
(a) Prior to 4600 million years ago S. Millers experiment?
(b) Between 4600 and 3600 million years ago (a) Amino acids (b) Nucleic acids
(c) More than 3600 million years ago (c) UV radiations (d) Microspheres
(d) During some other period. MHT CET -2016 / VMMC-2012
AMU-1998 Uttarakhand PMT-2008 / CG PMT-2008
Rajasthan PMT-2008 / UP CPMT-2008
Ans. (c) : Discovery of fossils of cyanobacteria BVP-2007 / AIPMT-1999 / Rajasthan PMT-1999
indicates that life originated sometime more than 3600
million years ago. The Cyanobacteria have an extensive Ans. (a) : Amino acid was formed in S.L millers
experiment. Miller synthesized organic compounds
fossils, in fact, are Cyanobacteria from Archaean rocks under conditions resembling the primitive atmosphere
of Western Australia, dated 3.5 billion years old. of the earth, a mixture of water vapour, methane,
30. Origin of life occurred in hydrogen and ammonia was circulated through a closed
(a) Precambrian (b) Coenozoic apparatus by steam from boiling water and subjected to
(c) Palaeozoic (d) Mesozoic an electric spark discharge between tungsten electrodes.
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 This apparatus was permitted to run for a weak. The
BVP-2009 result was several amino acid.
Evolution 608 YCT
34. Origin of first mammals occurred: 38. Whereas the earth is believed to be 4,500
(a) 500 million years million years old, life on this planet is estimated
(b) 220 million years to have originated not earlier than
(c) 1600 million years (a) 4,200 million years ago
(d) over 1600 million years ago (b) 3,500 million years ago
Haryana PMT-2002 (c) 1,600 million years ago
Ans. (b) : Origin of first mammals occurred 220 (d) 459 million years ago
million years. Mammals were derived in the Triassic NEET -2020 Phase II / AMU-1997
period from members of the reptilian order Therapsida. Ans. (b) : Whereas the earth is believed to be 4,500
The therapsids, members of the subclass synapsida (some million years old, life on this planet is estimated to have
times called mammal like reptiles) generally were originated not earlier than 3,500 million years ago The
unimpressive in relation to other reptiles of their time. estimated origin of life on Earth is based on scientific
35. Chemical theory of origin was given by : evidence and research. Some evidences are –
(a) Spallanzani (b) Louis Pasteur (i) Fossil record : The oldest known fossil of simple,
(c) Oparin and Haldane (d) Stanley Miller single – celled organisms, such as stromatolites, date
JCECE-2018 / Kerala PMT-2012 back to around 3.5 billion years ago.
JIPMER-2001 / CG-PMT-2006 (ii) Geochemical analysis: Geochemical studies of
Ans. (c) : Oparin and Haldane theory is also called ancient rocks and minerals suggest the presence of
chemical theory or naturalistic theory. conditions suitable for life around this time. These rocks
According to this theory, life originated upon our earth contain isotopic signatures that indicate the presence of
spontaneously from non-living matter. First inorganic biological processes.
compounds and then organic compounds were formed 39. Which of the following is a mismatch?
in accordance with over changing environmental (a) Giraffe-Lamarck
conditions. This is called chemical evolution which (b) Drosophila-Morgan
cannot occur under present environmental conditions (c) Galapagos island - Darwin's finches
upon earth. Conditions suitable for origin of life existed (d) Origin of species-Mendel
only upon primitive earth. MGIMS Wardha-2009
36. Swan necked flask experiment proved Ans. (d) : The genesis of Charles Darwin's book on the
(a) biogenesis (b) abiogenesis ''Origin of species'' by Means of Natural Selection, or
(c) gene therapy (d) Both (a) and (b) the Preservation of Favoured Races in the Struggle for
TS EAMCET-2018 / AMU-2005 Life (1859) is well known. Mendel worked on the
Karnataka CET -2001 inheritance of traits in pea plant.
Ans. (a) : Louis Pasteur, a French Scientist took in a 40. According to abiogenesis life originate from
long necked flask and then he bent the neck of the flask. (a) non-living matter (b) pre-existing life
He boiled the broths in the flask. The curved neck acted
as a filter. If the flask with 'swan neck' (curved neck) is (c) chemicals (d) extra-terrestrial
kept for months together, no life appeared, as the germ J & K CET -2011 / DUMET-2009
laden dust particles in the air were trapped by the Ans. (a) : Abiogenesis means origin of life from non-
curved neck which serves as filter. If the swan neck was living matter. Abiogenesis occurred about 3.5 billion
broken, the broths developed colonies of moulds and years ago. A hypothesis related with abiogenesis also
bacteria. Thus, he showed that the source putrefaction proposed in seventh century as theory of spontaneous
such as for milk, sugar, wine etc. was the air and generation but at that time, theory was discarded
organism did not arise from the nutrient media. experimentally by Francesco Redi.
Louis Pasteur, (famous for Germ Theory of Disease and 41. The most primitive cell like chemical
Immunology) finally disapproved a biogenesis and aggregates capable of growth and division were
proved biogenesis. (a) chemoautotrophs (b) eobionts
But, according to biogenesis-life originated from pre- (c) prokaryotes (d) microspheres
existing life which does not explain the origin of life. BVP-2012
So, biogenesis is also disapproved. Ans. (d) : Microspheres are considered as one of the
37. The long gap of 300 million years between the primitive cell-like structure capable of growth and
origin of earth and of life on it was due to lack of division. Microspheres are synthetic microscopic
(a) oxygen (b) water spherical particle that can exhibit some properties of
(c) DNA (d) suitable temperature living cells.
AMU-1997 42. Which one of the following amino acid was not
Ans. (d) : The long gap of 300 million years between found to be synthesized in Millers experiment?
the origin of earth and of life on it was due to lack of (a) Glycine (b) Aspartic acid
suitable temperature. Initially the temperature of earth (c) Glutamic acid (d) Alanine
was too high. Different scientists have different views BCECE-2013 / JCECE-2009 / CMC Ludhiana-2009
some says- it was 5000 - 6000°C and some says it was
upto 9000°C. But in recent researches it was conducted Ans. (c) : Glutamic acid was not found to be
that, at this high temperature elements cannot survive. synthesized in Millers experiment. Alanine, glycine
Hence, it was upto 900–1000°C, temperature decreases and aspartic acid are the amino acids that were found to
gradually time to time. be synthesized in Miller's experiment.
Evolution 609 YCT
43. There is no life on moon due to the absence of 47. "Continuity of germplasm" theory was given
(a) O2 (b) Water by
(c) Light (d) Temperature (a) Hugo de Vries (b) Weismann
AIPMT-2002 (c) Darwin (d) Lamarck
Ans. (b) :The absence of water is a significant factor in Manipal -2014 / JIPMER -2012 /VMMC-2009
the lack of life on the Moon. Water is a fundamental AMU-2007 / Haryana PMT -2003
requirement for life as we know it, and the Moon's APEAMCET -1998 / AIPMT -1989
harsh environment, including extreme temperature and Ans. (b) : The continuity of germplasm theory was
vacuum, makes it hospitable for life as we find on earth. given by German scientist August Weismann. It
44. Earth originated approximately: expresses that heritable data or the characters are sent to
(a) 4,500 million years ago the next generation with the help of germ cells that are
(b) 3,600 million years ago present in the ovaries and testicles.
(c) between 1,600-2,600 million years ago 48. The origin of species from pre-existing species
(d) 2.5 million years ago is:
JIPMER -2015 / J&K CET-2004 (a) isolation (b) speciation
Ans. (a) : Earth formed around 4,500 million years ago, (c) polyploidy (d) mutation
approximately one-third the age of the universe. It is J&K CET-2002
believed to have been born 4-5 billion years ago as a Ans. (b) : The origin of species from pre-existing
solidified cloud of dust and gases left over from the species is speciation. Speciation is the process by which
creation of the sun. one or more new species evolve from a single ancestral
45. Experimental verification of chemical origin of species.
life was successfully proved by 49. Fossil evidences of evolution are called:
(a) Louis pasteur (b) Charles Darvin (a) embryology (b) anatomy
(c) J.B.S Haldane (d) Urey and Miller (c) palaeontology (d) biogeography
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II J&K CET-2002
JIPMER-1996 Ans. (c) : Fossil evidences of evolution are called
Ans. (d) : Experimental verification of chemical origin Palaeontology. Palaeontology is the study of pre-
of life was successfully proved by Urey and Miller. historic species, mostly ones that are extinct. Fossils are
Urey and Miller experimentally proved that the origin the remains of plants, animals, fungi, bacteria and
of life was from inorganic substances. In their single-celled living things.
experiment, they created laboratory conditions similar 50. The modern synthetic theory of evolution
to what would have been on the earth at the time of
assumes a positive role of which of the
origin of life.
following in evolution? (1) Natural selection (2)
46. Match the scientists and their contributions in Acquired characters (3) Mutations (4)
the field of evolution Artificial selection
i) Charles Darwin A) Mutation theory (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
ii) Lamarck B) Germ plasm (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
theory BHU PMT (Mains)-2010
iii) Hugo De Vries C) Philosophie Ans. (b) : The modern synthetic theory of evolution
Zoologique describes the evolution in terms of genetic variation in a
iv) Ernst Haeckel D) The Origin of population that leads to the formation of a new species.
Species It explains the contribution of factors such as genetic
variation and natural selection.
v) August Weismann E) Biogenetic law
51. Spontaneous generation theory was given by
F) Essay on (a) F. Reddi (b) L.S planznii
population (c) Louis Pasteur (d) Aristotle
(a) i - D, ii - C, iii - A, iv - E, v - B BVP-2005
(b) i - D, ii - C, iii - E, iv - A, v - F Ans. (d) : Aristotle is credited with proposing the
(c) i - F, ii - D, iii - E, iv - C, v - A theory of spontaneous generation, also known as
(d) i - B, ii - C, iii - A, iv - E, v - B abiogenesis. The idea that living organisms could arise
(e) i - C, ii - D, iii - A, iv - E, v - B from non-living matter under certain condition.
Kerala PMT-2008 52. Big bang theory was proposed by:
Ans. (a) : (a) Kant (b) Lemaitre
Scientist - Contribution (c) K.Bahadur (d) Weismann
(i) Charles Darwin - The Origin of Species BVP-2001
(ii) Lamarck - Philosophic Zoologique Ans. (b) : Big bang theory was proposed by Georges
(iii) Hugo de Vries - Mutation theory Lemaitre in 1931. According to this theory, the
(iv) Ernst Haeckel - Biogenetic law expansion of the observable universe began with the
(v) August Weisman - Germplasm theory explosion of a single particle at a definite point in time.
Evolution 610 YCT
53. Panspermia, an idea that is still a favourite for 58. In Urey and Miller's experiment, the ratio of
some astronomers, means: ammonia : hydrogen : methane was___
(a) Creation of life from dead and decaying (a) 1 : 2 : 2 (b) 2 : 2 : 1
(b) Creation of life from chemicals (c) 1 : 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 1
(c) Origin of sperm in human testes MHT CET-2019
(d) Transfer of spores as unit of life from other Ans. (a) : In Urey and Miller's experiment the ratio of
planets to Earth ammonia, hydrogen and methane was 1 : 2 : 2.
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 59. Francisco Redi and Spallanzani disproved the
Ans. (d) : The panspermia theory argues that life is theory of by their classical
originated in space, in spatial ices, and continuously (a) Abiogenesis (b) Biogenesis
distributed to the planets by comets and meteorites. (c) Cosmozoic (d) Special creation
"Panspermia" is still a favourite idea for some MHT CET-2017
astronomers. For a long time it was also believed that
life came out of decaying and rotting matter like straw, Ans. (a) : Francisco Redi and Spallanzani disapproved
draw mud etc. This was the spontaneous generation. the theory of abiogenesis He disapproved the theory that
maggot could spontaneously generate from meat.
54. The protein first hypothesis (in origin of life) is
given by 60. Origin of life took place in/on
(a) Sidney Fox (b) Thomas Cech (a) water (b) air
(c) Cairns Smith (d) Sidney Altman (c) mountains (d) land
CMC Vellore-2013 CG PMT-2005
Ans. (a) : The protein first hypothesis is given by Ans. (a) : The origin of life is widely believed to have
Sidney Fox. He showed that splashing amino acids taken place in near water. This theory is known as the
under hot, dry conditions caused them to instability "primordial soup" hypothesis.
polymerize into proteins. 61. In Miller's experiment, the following was not
55. Following are the two statements regarding the the part of starting chemicals:
origin of life. (a) H2S (b) H2
I. The earliest organisms that appeared on (c) NH3 (d) CH4
the earth were non-green and presumably BCECE-2015 / CMC Ludhiana-2015
an aerobes. Ans. (a) : In Miller's experiment H2S was not the part
II. The first autotrophic organisms were the of starting chemicals. The gases used in the Miller-
chemoautotrophs that never released Urey experiment were H2O, CH4, NH3 and H2. These
oxygen of the above statements which on of gases were chosen because they were believed to be
the following options is correct? present in the early atmosphere of the Earth.
(a) II is correct, but I is false 62. Theory of catastropism was supported by:
(b) Both I and II are correct (a) Louis Pasteur (b) A. I. Oparin
(c) Both I and II are false (c) Cuvier (d) Haldane
(d) I is correct, but II is false DUMET-2006
JIPMER-2017 Ans. (c) : Catastrophism was a theory developed by
Ans. (b) : Both the statement are true. The earliest Georges Cuvier, based on palaeontological evidence in
organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green. Paris Basin. It explains large geological and biological
The first autotrophic organism were the chemo- changes in the Earth's history.
autotrophs that never released oxygen.
63. In the development history of mammalian
56. Which one of the following theories on the heart, it is observed that it passes through a
origin of life is mostly accepted? two chambered fish-like heart, three
(a) Special creation (b) steady state chambered frog-like heart and finally four-
(c) Panspermia (d) Chemical origin chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this
Karnataka CET-2011 above cited statement be approximated?
Ans. (d) : Chemical evolution refers to the process by (a) Lamarck’s principle
which simple chemical compounds and elements (b) Mendelian principles
combined and transformed into more complex molecules , (c) Biogenetic law
eventually leading to the emergence of life on Earth. (d) Hardy-Weinberg law
57. Coacervates were discovered by AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-II / AIPMT -1998
(a) Huxley (b) Fox Ans. (c) : Biogenetic law or embryological parallelism also
(c) Oparin (d) Miller called Recapitulation theory postulated, by Ernst Haeckel
JIPMER-2019 / APEAMCET -2011 in 1866, states that "Ontogeny recapitulates Phylogeny", i.e.
Punjab MET -2005 / Karnataka CET -2004 the development of the animal embryo and young, traces the
Ans. (c) : Coacervates were discovered by Alexander evolutionary development of the species.
Oparin. Coacervates are small, spherical structures that 64. In Miller's experiment, he used a mixture of
can form spontaneously in aqueous solutions, They CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapour in a closed
consist of organic molecules, such as proteins or flask to mimic early earth conditions. What
polymers and are surrounded by a semi - permeable was the temperature at which this flask was
membrane like boundary. kept?
Evolution 611 YCT
(a) 800ºC (b) 1200ºC 68. Primitive earth had
(c) 200ºC (d) 400ºC (a) Reducing atmosphere (without free oxygen)
AIIMS-2013 (b) Oxidizing atmosphere (free oxygen)
Ans. (a) : Miller sealed a mixture of water (H2O), (c) Both (a) and (b)
methane (CH4), ammonia (NH3) and hydrogen gas (H2) (d) None of the above
in a spark chamber. He made arrangement for insertion CMC Vellore-2012
of two electrodes to provide electrical energy Ans. (a) : Primitive Earth had a reducing atmosphere,
(stimulation of lightning) to the spark chamber CH4, primarily composed of gases like methane, ammonia, water
NH3, H2 were in 2:1:2 ratio. vapour and CO2. This atmosphere lacked free oxygen.
• The spark chamber was connected to another flask 69. The term protobiogenesis used for theory of:
with arrangement for boiling water at 800ºC (a) Panspermia
(provision for evaporation). Electric sparks of 75,000 (b) Special creation
volts were provided to the mixture. (c) Biochemical origin of life
• The other end of the spark chamber was connected to (d) Spontaneous generation
a trap by a tube that passed through a condenser. Manipal-2002
• The trap, in turn, was connected with the flask for Ans. (c) : The term protobiogenesis used for theory of
boiling water (arrangement for circulation). biochemical origin of life or Oparin Haldane theory of
protobiogenesis. Protobiogenesis refers to origin of first
life form from non-living chemical assemblages.
70. Pasteurs experiment to refute the theory of
spontaneous generation was successful
spontaneous generation did not occur in his set
up because
(a) he did not boil the flask for long
(b) the S-shaped flask used by Pasteur prevented
the contamination of broth by air
(c) extreme precautions were used by him to kept
65. Which of these are considered most essential in his flask covered
the origin of life? (d) he used muslin cloths to cover his
(a) Enzymes (b) Nucleic acids experimental set up.
(c) Carbohydrates (d) Proteins. BCECE-2015
AIIMS-2001
Ans. (b) : Pasteurs experiment to refute the theory of
Ans. (b) : Nucleic acid are the main information spontaneous generation was successful spontaneous
carrying molecules of the cell, and by directing the generation did not occur in his set up because extreme
process of protein synthesis, they determine the precautions were used by him to kept his flask covered.
inherited characteristics of every living thing. He succeeded in disaproving the spontaneous
66. Theory of abiogenesis was conclusively generation theory because the swan neck of the flask
disproved by ______ allowed only air, and not the microbes.
(a) Conducting swan neck experiment by Richter 71. Evolution is:
(b) Conducting broth experiment by Spallanzani (a) Progressive development of a race
(c) Conducting swan neck experiment by Pasteur (b) History and development of race along with
(d) conducting maggot experiment by Redi variations
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-I (c) history of race
Ans. (c) : Louis pasteur is credited with conclusively (d) development of race
disproving the theory of spontaneous generation with AIPMT-1989
his famous swan-neck flask experiment. He Ans. (b) : Evolution is the change in the characteristics
subsequently proposed that " life only comes from life" of a species over several generation and relies on the
67. Which one of the following experiments suggest process of natural selection. It is the biological change
that simplest living organisms could not have of a species over a span a time for example: bluemoon
originated spontaneously from non- living matter? butterfly, Dormouse and Mexican cavefish etc.
(a) Microbes did not appear in stored meat 72. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all
(b) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter vertebrates, supports the theory of:
(c) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic (a) metamorphosis (b) biogenesis
matter (c) organic evolution (d) recapitulation
(d) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept AIPMT-1995
sealed in a vessel Ans. (d) : The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of
Uttarakhand PMT-2010 / JIPMER-2007 all vertebrates, supports the theory of recapitulation.
Ans. (d) : Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept Recapitulation theory, stated as the biogenetic law by
sealed in vessel this experiment suggest that simplest E.H. Haeckel, that the embryological development of
living organisms could not have originated the individual repeats the stages in the evolutionary
spontaneously from non-living matter. development of the species.
Evolution 612 YCT
73. According to the Neo-Darwinian theory which Ans. (c) : According to the chemical abiogenic origin of
of the following is responsible for the origin of life on earth or chemogeny is the process by which
new species? complex organic molecules are formed from simpler
(a) Mutations inorganic molecules through chemical reactions.
(b) Useful variations Thus, primitive proto-cells formed were all
(c) Mutations together with natural selection heterotrophs, surviving in the chemical rich ocean
(d) Hybridization water, similar to modern days chemoheterotrophs.
JCECE-2007 Gradually, when the amount of food resources declined
Ans. (c) : According to the theory of Neo-Darwinism, over the period of time, some cells evolved to capture
mutation together with natural selection, are responsible light as their source of energy.
for the origin of new species. 78. Study the following and pick up the correct
74. Evolutionary history of an organism is known combinations :
as S List-1 List-2 List-3
(a) phylogeny (b) ancestry No.
(c) paleontology (d) ontogeny
JCECE-2009 / AFMC-2008 I. Anagenesis Divergent One species
AIPMT-2006 / CGPMT-2004 evolution diverges into
two or more
Ans. (a) : Phylogeny is the study of the evolutionary
species
history of an organism. It helps to map the evolutionary
history of an organism. II. Cladogenesis Phyletic Evolution of a
75. Stanley Miller proposed origin of life by : evolution new species in
(a) chemical synthesis (b) abiogenesis single lineage
(c) biogenesis (d) none of these III. Gradualism Charles Lyell Earth has
Manipal-2005 changed
Ans. (a) : Stanley Miller proposed the origin life by slowly
chemical synthesis. Miller and Urey conducted an through ages
experiment in 1953 aimed to demonstrate the possibility IV. Biogenesis Louis Pasteur Living
of the chemical synthesis of organic compounds from organisms
inorganic precursors. originate
76. Which one of the following factors is not from
included in the 'Modern Synthetic theory' of preexisting
evolution? forms
(a) Mutations and Genetic recombination Options:
(b) Inheritance of acquired characters (a) I, II (b) II, III
(c) Natural selection (c) III, IV (d) I, IV
(d) Reproductive isolation TS EAMCET-28.09.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (c) : Charles Lyell formulated the philosophy of
Ans. (b) : Inheritance of acquired characters is not gradualism, which claimed that smooth gradualism
included in the modern synthetic theory of evolution. process were at work in natural system.
Modern synthetic theory include mutation and genetic
recombination, natural selection and reproductive • Louis Pasteur experimentally provided that biogenesis
isolation. is based on the theory that life can only come from life
and it refers to any process by which a life form can
77. Assertion (A) :There is a sufficient reason
give rise to other life forms.
to believe that first cells on the
planet lived in an atmosphere 79. Match the following
lacking oxygen. Theory of Evolution Proposed by
Reason (R) : Thus even all living A. Theory of I. August Weisman
organisms retain the enzymatic Catastrophism
mechanism to completely oxidize B. Coacervate theory II. George Cuvier
glucose without the help of C. Germplasm theory III. Lamarck
oxygen. D. Mutation theory IV. A.I. Oparin
The correct option among the following is V. Hugo de Vries
Options: The correct match is
explanation for (A) A B C D
(b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the (a) II IV I III
correct explanation for (A) (b) V IV I II
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false (c) III I IV V
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true (d) II IV I V
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-I
Evolution 613 YCT
Ans. (d) : 86. To Cuvier, the differences in fossils from
Theory of Evolution - Proposed by different strata were evidences for :
(A) Theory of Catastrophism - George Cuvier (a) divine creation
(B) Coacervate theory - A.I. Oparin (b) evolution by natural selection
(C) Germplasm theory - August Weisman (c) continental drift
(D) Mutation theory - Hugo de Vries (d) local catastrophic events such as droughts or
80. The material for organic evolution is floods
(a) effect of hormones Punjab MET-2005
(b) nutritive value Ans. (d) : Georges Cuvier, a pioneering figure in the
(c) mutation field of palenteology, proposed the Concept of
(d) asexual reproduction Catastrophism. According to his idea, the differences in
CG PMT-2004 fossils found in different layers or strata of the Earth's
Ans. (c) : The material for organic evolution is crust were evidence for local catastrophic events, such
mutation. Mutation are random changes in an as droughts or floods that cause the extinction of certain
organism's DNA or genetic material. These changes can species.
lead to variations in an organism's traits. 87. The oldest fossil record from India is of a blue-
81. Which one of the following scientists is not green alga which is 2.9 billion years old. It is :
related with organic evolution? (a) Archaeo Spheroides (b) Archaeopteryx
(a) Erasmus Darwin (b) Charles Darwin (c) Chlamydomonas (d) Stromatolites
(c) Darlington (d) TR Malthus Punjab MET-2005
CG PMT-2004 Ans. (a) : The oldest fossil record of blue-green alga
Ans. (c) : Darlington has no contribution in the field of which is 2.9 billion years old is Archaeo Spheroides.
organic evolution. He discovered the mechanism of 88. Which of these gases was/were in prebiotic
chromosomal crossover and its role in inheritance. atmosphere?
82. Modern theory of organic evolution is based on (a) Ammonia (b) Methane
(a) population (b) mutation (c) Oxygen (d) both a and b
(c) isolation (d) All of these WB JEE-2015
CG PMT-2004
Ans. (d) : According to 'Oparin' and 'Haldane',
Ans. (d) : The modern theory on organic evolution is a ammonia and methane were the gases present in
combination of ideas taken from the theory of natural
prebiotic atmosphere. The idea of the prebiotic Earth as
selection, the mutation theory, genetic recombination,
reproductive isolation and chromosomal aberration. a roiling organic ''soup'' with a highly reduced
atmosphere of H2, H2O, methane (CH4) and ammonia
83. Origin of life was due to (NH3) was first presented by Oparin. Oxygen gas was
(a) Will of God not present in the early Earth atmosphere.
(b) Spontaneous generation 89. Following are the two statements regarding the
(c) Effect of Sun rays on mud origin of life
(d) None of the above (A) The earliest organisms that appeared on the
BVP-2011
earth were non-green and presumably
Ans. (d) : The origin of life on Earth is the result of the anaerobes
chemical evolution of the universe. Chemical evolution
(B) The first autotrophic organisms were the
describes chemical changes on the primitive Earth that
chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
gave rise to the first forms of life.
The above statements which one of the
84. For natural selection, the important factor is following options is correct
(a) disuse (b) variation (a) Both (A) and (B) are false
(c) catastrophie (d) special creation (b) (A) is correct but (B) is false
BVP-2011
(c) (B) is correct but (A) is false
Ans. (b) : Variation is an important factor for natural
(d) Both (A) and (B) are correct
selection. Variation is an adaptation that occurs in
NEET-2016 Phase-I
small-scale individuals due to change and is expressed
due to the environment. Ans. (d) : Both statements are correct because primitive
atmosphere was reducing and chlorophyll appeared later
85. Which is most recent in human evolutions ? on. According to the origin of life the first originated
(a) Neolithic (b) Mesolithic organism on earth were the prokaryotic heterotrophs.
(c) Upper palaeolithic (d) Middle palaeolithic which were non-green and they were anaerobes as
BVP-2011 oxygen was not available on earth at that time. So, the
Ans. (a) : The most recent period in human evolution is first autotrophic organisms were dependent on
Neolithic. The Neolithic period followed the Paleolithic chemicals and were known as chemoautotrophs.
and the Mesolithic period and is characterized by the The first autotrophic organism were the
development of agriculture and the transition from a chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
nomadic hunter-gatherer lifestyle to settled farming Chemoautrophs are organisms that obtained energy by
communities. the oxidation of electron donors in their environments.
Evolution 614 YCT
90. Given below are four statements (A-D) each 93. Modern synthetic theory of evolution is not
with one or two blanks. Select the option which involved in
correctly fills up the blanks in two statements: (a) gene mutation (b) gene recombination
(A) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and (c) natural selection (d) increase in size
are the results of ..... (i)....., evolution AP EAMCET-2011
(B) Miller showed that CH4, H2, NH3 and .... (i) Ans. (d) The modern synthetic theory of evolution (also
..., when exposed to electric discharge in a called modern synthesis) merges the concept of
flask resulted in formation of ...... (ii)..... Darwinian evolution with Mendelian genetics resulting
(C) Vermiform appendix is a ...... (i)..... organ in a unified theory of evolution. It is also known as the
and an ...... (ii).... evidence of evolution Neo-Darwinian theory and was introduced by a number
(D) According to Darwin evolution took place of evolutionary biologists.
due to ...... (i).... and .......(ii)..... of the fittest. This theory of evolution includes the reproductive,
geographical isolation, genetic variations, gene
Options : mutation, recombination and the natural selection,
(a) (C)–(i) vestigial, (ii) anatomical, Increase in size was given by the use and disuse of
(D) (i) mutations (ii) multiplication organs' theory under ' Lamarckism.
(b) (D)–(i) small variation, (ii) survival, 94. Match the following
(A) – (i) convergent Set-I Set-II
(c) (A)–(i) convergent,
A Coacervate theory i George Cuvier
(B) – (i) oxygen, (ii) nucleosides
(d) (B)– (i) water vapour, (ii) amino acids, B Theory of Catastrophism ii Louis Pasteur
(C) – (i) rudimentary (ii) anatomical C Theory of Biogenesis iii Plato
AIPMT (Mains)-2010 D Theory of Abiogenesis iv Lamarck
Ans. (b) : Darwin gave the theory of natural selection, v A.L. Oparin
which states that evolutionary change comes through
the production of variation in each generation. Wing of The correct match is
butterfly and birds look a like and are the results of (A) (B) (C) (D)
convergent evolution. According to Darwin evolution (a) v i ii iii
took place due to small variations and Survival of the (b) i iv iii v
fittest. (c) iv i iii ii
91. In present times the origin of life is not possible (d) ii iv iii i
from inorganic compounds due to : TS EAMCET-09.05.2019 Shift-I
(a) Raw material not available Ans. (a) :
(b) High conc. of O2 in atmosphere Set -I Set-II
(c) Decrease in temperature (A) Coacervate theory A.I. Oparin
(d) Excess of pollution (B) Theory of Catastrophism George Cuvier
AIPMT-1998 (C) Theory of Biogenesis Louis Pasteur
Ans. (b) : In present times the origin of life is not (D) Theory of Abiogenesis Plato
possible from inorganic compounds due to high conc. of 95. How many years are considered in one minute
O2 in atmosphere. in Geological clock?
• The earth is highly rich in oxygen today which does (a) 1,87,500,000 years (b) 52,000 years
not provide the suitable environment for evolution. (c) 3,125,000 years (d) 1,90,000 years
The conditions of present environment is not GUJCET-2015
conductive for the synthesis of complex molecules Ans. (c): In the Geological clock, one minute is roughly
because oxygen attacks the chemical bonds and equivalent to 3,125,000 years.
extracts electrons.
96. The prebiotic atmosphere of the earth was of a
92. Which one of the following scientist's name is reducing nature. It was transformed into an
correctly matched with the theory put forth by him? oxidizing atmosphere of present day due to the
(a) Weismann–Theory of Continuity of Germplasm emergence of :
(b) Pasteur – Inheritance of Acquired Characters (a) Cyanobacteria
(c) de Vries – Natural Selection (b) Angiosperms
(d) Mendel – Theory of Pangenesis (c) Photosynthetic bacteria
AP EAMCET-2011 (d) Eukaryotic algae
Ans. (a) : The theory of the continuity of the Karnataka CET-2012
germplasm was published by August Weismann (1834- Ans. (a) : Cyanobacteria played an important role in the
1914) in 1886. It proposes that the contents of the evolution of early Earth and the biosphere. They are
reproductive cells (sperms and ova) are passed on responsible for the oxygenation of the atmosphere. They
unchanged from one generation to the next unaffected used water to get hydrogen and release oxygen into the
by any changes undergone by the rest of the body. Thus, atmosphere. Hence, the prebiotic atmosphere of the
it rules out any possibility of the inheritance of acquired earth was of a reducing nature. It was transformed into
characteristics, and become integral to Neo-Darwinian an oxidizing atmosphere of present day due to the
theory. emergence of Cyanobacteria.
Evolution 615 YCT
97. Which one of the following is incorrect about 101. The branch of botany which helps in
the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates understanding the course of evolution in plants is
and microspheres) as envisaged in the (a) Palynology (b) Physiology
abiogenic origin of life? (c) Phytogeography (d) Paleobotany
(a) They were partially isolated from the surruounding AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II
(b) They could maintain an internal environment Karnataka CET -2013 / AFMC -2004
(c) They were able to reproduce Ans. (d) : The branch of botany which helps in
(d) They could separate combinations of understanding the course of evolution in plants is called
molecules from the surroundings paleobotany. Paleobotanical information is used to
AIPMT-2008 unravel the evolutionary history of plant taxa, in both
Ans. (d) : Protobionts are an aggregation of organic time and space. Adolphe Brongniart is known as
molecules, surrounded by a membrane, that abiotically father of paleobotany.
grow up into resemblances of living matter; thought to 102. Match the following lists.
be the precursors of prokaryotic cells. List I List II
Coacervates are a self-organized spherical lipid collection (A) Georges Cuvier (I) Homeostasis
that is considered to be a step towards the origin of life.
(B) Claude Bernard (II) Homology
98. Transformation of the early reducing
atmosphere of the earth into an oxidizing (C) Louis de Buffon (III) Comparative anatomy
atmosphere was mainly due to the activities of (D) Richard Owen (IV) System of
(a) Aerobic photosynthesizers nomenclature
(b) Anaerobic heterotrophs (V) Natural history
(c) Anaerobic photosynthesizers The correct match is
(d) Annerobic chemoheterotrops (A) (B) (C) (D)
Karnataka CET-2008 (a) (I) (III) (II) (V)
Ans. (a) : Transformation of the early reducing (b) (III) (I) (V) (II)
atmosphere of the earth into an oxidizing atmosphere was (c) (II) (I) (III) (V)
mainly due to the activities of aerobic photosynthesizers. (d) (III) (II) (I) (IV)
99. Which is not proved by naturalistic or AP EAMCET-2013
chemosynthetic theory of origin of life? Ans. (b) :
(a) Formation of coacervates, composed of colloidal
(a) Georges Cuvier → Comparative anatomy
(b) Formation of true living cell
(c) Formation of macromolecule (b) Claude Bernard → Homeostatis
(d) Formation of macromolecule (c) Louis de Buffon → Natural history
UP CPMT-2014 (d) Richard Owen → Homology
Ans. (b): Naturalistic or chemosynthetic theory or 103. Which of the following is not vestigial in man?
origin of life was proposed by A.I. Oparin. They also (a) Tail vertebrae
proposed materialistic theory to understand this (b) Nails
biochemical evolution. Concept of this theory can be (c) Nictitating membrane
studied in the following sequence, atomic stage, (d) Vermiform appendix
molecular stage, formation of organic compound and UP CPMT-2008, 2012 / VMMC-2012
complex organic compound, i.e., formation of micro, JIPMER -2009 / Rajasthan PMT -2008
and macro molecule and coacervates, component of Uttarakhand PMT-2008 / MGIMS Wardha-2006
colloidal nucleoprotein but formation of living cell is Ans. (b) : Vestigial organs are non-functional organs
not proved by this theory. that are present as a remnant of the past organs. Nails is
not vestigial organs in man.
B. Evidences for Evolution 104. Which of the following is the relatively most
100. Who experimentally proved that “inheritance accurate method for dating of fossils –
of acquired characters” suggested by Lamarck (a) Electron-spin resonance method
to be false (b) Uranium-lead method
(a) Darwin (b) August Weismann (c) Potassium–argon method
(c) De vries (d) Haeckel (d) Radio-carbon method
TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I Uttarakhand PMT -2010 / AIPMT-2005
Ans. (b) : August Weeismann experimentally proved Ans. (a) : Electron spin resonance method is the
that "inheritance of acquired characters" suggested by relatively most accurate for dating of fossils.
Lamarck to be false. ESR is based on the principle that background radiation
Branching descent and natural selection are the two key can cause electrons to become trapped in the crystalline
concept of Darwinian theory of Evolution. Even before lattice of a material. ESR measures the number of charges
Darwin, a French naturalist Lamarck had said that occupying deep traps in crystal bandgap. It does this by
evolution of life form had occurred but driven by use detecting the number of "unpaired spins" of electrons
and disuse of organs. trapped at various defects in the mineral lattice.
Evolution 616 YCT
105. Prototherians are the connecting links Ans. (c) : Living fossils means organisms with ancestral
between: characters and time has not changed them.
(a) amphibians and aves • Living fossils are species discovered first as a fossil
(b) reptiles and mammals and believed to extinct, but which is later found living.
(c) fishes and amphibians Any living species which closely resembles fossil
(d) reptiles and amphibinas relatives, that has remained essentially unchanged from
WB JEE-2006 earlier geologic times and whose close relative are
usually extinct.
Ans. (b) : Prototherians are the connecting links
As – horseshoe crabs (family limielidae), Sphenodon
between reptiles and mammals Laying eggs is a Ginkgo biloba etc.
reptilian character while feeding the young ones with
mammary glands is a mammalian character. 110. Which one of the following is vestigial organ of
human ?
106. The pioneers in the field of organic evolution (a) Hair (b) Intestine
are:
(c) Wisdom teeth (d) Muscle of glottis
(a) Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries, Malthus DUMET-2006 / BVP -2005 / Haryana PMT -2004 /
(b) Darwin, Hugo de Vries, Lamarck, Huxley Punjab MET-2003 / Manipal -2003
(c) Lamarck, Karl landsteiner, Malthus, Hugo de Ans. (c) : Vestigial organs are believed to be remnants
Vries of organs which were complete and functional in their
(d) Darwin, Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de ancestors.
Vries The organs which are present in reduced form and do
WB JEE-2006 not perform any function in the body but correspond to
Ans. (b) : Organic evolution is a process of cumulative the fully developed functional organs of related animals
change of living populations and in the descendant are called vestigial organs.
populations of organisms. In other words it is 'descent Some vestigial organs in Human body :-
with modification'. Third molars (wisdom teeth), Nictitating membrane
The pioneer's in the field of organic evolution are (Plica semilunaris), auricular muscles (ear pinna
Darwin, Hugo de Vries Lamarck and Huxley. muscles), vermiform appendix, Nipples in male etc.
107. Foot prints, trails, tracks and tunnels of 111. Organs not similar in structure and origin but
various organization made in mud are rapidly perform the same function
filled in with sand and covered by sediments. (a) homologous structures
This is an example of which of the following (b) analogous structures
type of fossil? (c) adaptive structures
(a) Pertified fossil (b) Impressions (d) variable structures
(c) Imprints (d) Coprolites BVP-2014 / Uttarakhand PMT-2007 / AMU-2006
AMU-2015 UPCMPT-2005 / DUMET -2004
Ans. (b) : The organs which have similar functions but
Ans. (b) : Impression fossils are a type of trace fossils.
It is formed when a leaf, shell, skin or foot, leaves an are different in their structure details and origin are
imprint in soft earth. When the imprint hardens, it formscalled analogous organs. The analogous structures are
a fossil in the shape of the original object. the result of convergent evolution.
Example – The wings of an insect are analogous to
108. Which set includes all homologous organs? wings of a bird. It is due to the fact that the basic
(a) Hind legs of dogs, duck and kangaroo structure of the wings of insects is different from the
(b) Wings of bat, butterflies and birds wings of birds. However their function is similar,
(c) String of honey bee, scorpion and mosquito similarly, fins of fishes and flippers of whale, sting of
(d) Tail of rat, peacock and earthworm honey-bee and scorpion etc.
BVP-2010 112. The earliest fossil form in phylogeny of horse is
Ans. (a) : The organs which have the same fundamental (a) Merychippus (b) Mesohtppus
structure but are different in functions are called (c) Eohippus (d) Equus
homologous organs. But in the adult condition these MGIMS Wardha-2007
organs are modified to perform different functions as an Ans. (c) : The earliest fossil form in phylogeny of horse
adaptation to different environments. The homologous is Eohippus. Evolution of horse was described by
structures are a result of divergent evolution. Hind leg Othniel C. Marsh in 1879. Origin of horse took place
of dogs, duck and kangaroo are examples of Eocene period. The first fossil of the horse was found in
homologous organs as they have same internal bone North America. It was named Eohippus but later
structures but their function differs. renamed Hyracotherium.
109. Living fossils means 113. Which one of the given statement is not true for
(a) primitive organized organisms Archaeopteryx?
(b) extinct organisms (a) Each wing had three clawed digit
(c) organisms with ancestral characters and time (b) Hind feet with five digits
has not changed them (c) Long jointed lizard like tail
(d) connecting link between two groups (d) Thecodont teeth on both jaws
BVP-2010 MGIMS Wardha-2014
Evolution 617 YCT
Ans. (b) : Ans. (b) : The organs which are present in reduced
• Archaeopteryx was found in the rocks of the Jurassic from and do not perform any function in the body but
period. Archaeopteryx lithographica was discovered in correspond to the fully developed functional organs of
1861 by Andres Wagner from the lithographic quarry at related animals are called vestigial organs.
Solenhofen, Bavaria, in Germany. It plays the They are believed to be remnants of organs which were
characters of both the reptiles and birds. complete and functional in their ancestors.
Reptilian characters of Archaepteryx Human body possess about 90 vestigial organs. Some of
(i) The body axis is more or less lizard like these are nictitating membrane (Plica semilunaris),
(ii) Long jointed lizard like tail. auricular muscles (muscles of Pinna), segmental
(iii) Bones are not pneumatic. muscles of abdomen, ponniculus carnosis (subcutaneors
(iv) The jaws are provided with similar teeth. muscles), vermiform appendix, caudal vertebrae (also
(v) The hand bears a typical reptilian plan and each called coccyx or tail bone), third molar (wisdom teeth)
finger terminator in a claw. hair on body, and Nipples in male.
(vi) Presence of a weak sternum 117. Match Column – I with Column – II and select
(vii) Presence of free caudal vertebrae as found in the correct option
lizards. Column – I Column - II
Avian characters of Archaepteryx (A) Seymouria (i) fish and amphibian
(i) Presence of feathers on the body. (B) Ichthyostegia (ii) reptiles and birds
(ii) The two jaws are modified into a beak (C) Archaeopteryx (iii) ape and man
(iii) Each wing had three clawed digits (D) Australopithecus (iv) amphibians and
(iv) The forelimbs are modified into wings. reptiles
(v) The hind limbs are built on the typical ovian plan. (a) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(vi) An intimate fusion on the skull bones are seen in (b) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
the birds. (c) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
Hence, hind feet with five digits is not true for
(d) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
Archaepteryx.
114. The wings of bat, locust and pigeon are the
examples of Ans. (a)
(a) vestigial organs A. Seymouria (iv) amphibians and reptiles
(b) analogous organs B. Ichthyostegia (i) fish and amphibian
(c) homologous organs C. Archaeopteryx (ii) reptiles and birds
(d) exoskeletal structure D. Australopithecus (iii) ape and man
Manipal-2012 / AFMC -2002
118. Cosmozoic theory was proposed by :
Ans. (b) : The wings of bat, locust and pigeon are the (a) Helmholtz (b) Richter
examples of analogous organs.
(c) Pasteur (d) Arrhenius
The organs which have similar functions but are
Manipal-2004
different in their structural details and origin are called
analogous organs. The analogous structures are the Ans. (b) : The theory was proposed by Richter (1865).
result of convergent evolution. According to this theory, protoplasm reached the earth
in the form of spores or germs or other simple particles
115. Birbal Sahni worked on
from some unknown part of the universe with the
(a) alage (b) bryophytes
cosmic dust, and subsequently evolved into various
(c) fossil plants (d) angiosperms forms of life.
Manipal-2011
Arrhenius (1908, Nobel prize winner of 1903 in
Ans. (c) : chemistry) postulated the Panspermia theory and stated
Birbal sahni was an Indian paleobotanist, worked on that organisms existed throughout the universe and their
fossil plants of Indian sub-continent. spores etc could freely travel through space from one
He also took an interest in geology and archaeology. He star to the others. In fact, panspermia theory is the
is known as 'Father of Indian paleontology'. He studied alternative name of cosmozoic theory.
anatomy and morphology of Paleozoic ferns and also
worked on fossil plants of Indian Gymnosperms, the 119. The theory of use and disuse of organ was
Pentoxylales. proposed by
116. Select vestigial organs from the following. (a) Darwin (b) Lamarck
(a) Vermiform appendix, wings of bat and (c) de Vries (d) Hooker
coccyx of man. J&K CET-2008
(b) Vermiform appendix, nictitating membrane Ans. (b) : The theory of use and disuse of organ was
and coccyx of man. proposed by Lamarck. Lamarck proposed that if an
(c) Forelimbs of whale, lizard and bat. organism use a particular organ or body part frequently,
(d) Wings of bat, nictitating membrane and wings it would become more developed and stronger over
of insects. time. Conversely, if an organ was not used, it would
MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I weaken and eventually become vestigial or disappears.
Evolution 618 YCT
120. S L Millers closed flask contained sample has an estimated age of 3.2 billion years. This
(a) CH4 would be the estimated age of the earliest life or
(b) H2 formation of fossils. Uranium 238 is only found in
(c) NH3 and water vapour igneous or volcanic rocks. So, no fossil can be dated
(d) All of the above directly using U238.
J&K CET-2008 124. Sweet potato and potato are examples of
Ans. (d) : Stanley Miller circulated four gasses – (a) homologous structure
Methane (CH4), ammonia (NH3), hydrogen (H2) and (b) analogous structure
water vapour. In air tight apparatus and passed electrical (c) Both [a] and [b]
discharges from electrodes at 800°C. (d) None of the above
By using these four gasses (i.e. CH4, NH3 H2 and water DUMET-2008
vapour )Miller found large number of simple organic Ans. (b) : Sweet potato and potato are examples of
compounds including some amino acids such as – analogous structures because they have similar
alanine, glycine, and aspartic acid. Miller proved that functions (storing energy as tubers) but different
organic compounds were basis of life. evolutionary origins. Structures with similar anatomy,
121. The first fossil evidence of life dates from about morphology, embryology and genetics but dis-similar
structures that are superficially similar but anatomically
(a) 4.0 billion years ago
dissimilar doing the same function are known as
(b) 3.6 billion years ago analogous structures.
(c) 4.5 billion years ago
125. Which one of the following characters provides
(d) 2.5 billion years ago a strong evidence in support of organic
DUMET-2010 ovulation?
Ans. (b) :The evidence for fossil life forms is 3.6 billion (a) Gill clefts in vertebrate embryo
years ago. These fossils belong to Cyanobacteria – one (b) Wings in insects, birds and bats
of the earliest life forms on the planet. (c) Jointed legs in arthropods and mammals
122. An important evidence in favour of organic (d) Excretory organ of earthworm and frog
evolution is the occurrence of UP CPMT-2012
(a) homologous and vestigial organs Ans. (a) : The Characteristic that provides the strongest
(b) analogous and vestigial organs evidence of evolution in animals, particularly among
(c) homologous organs only those species most closely related in descent from some
(d) Homologous and analogous organs common ancestor is gill clefts present in all vertebrate
DUMET-2008 embryo. These gill clefts are also known as pharyngeal
Ans. (a) : An important evidence in favour of organic arches or bronchial arches. These are known to be
evolution is the occurrence of homologous and vestigial vestigial remnants of the gill slit and arches in fish like
organs. ancestors from which all vertebrate animals likely
The organs which have the same fundamental structure descended, the fish, reptilian, mammalian, avian or any
but are different in functions are called homologous other type of vertebrates.
organs. 126. The bill sizes in a bird species of seedcrackers
Example–The forelimb of whale, cheetah, man and bat from West Africa shows a bimodal
Vestigial organ – The organs which are present in distribution. Their most abundant food sources
reduced form and do not perform any function in the are two types of marsh plants that produce
hard and soft seeds, consumed preferentially
body but correspond to the fully developed functional
by the large and small billed birds respectively.
organs of related animals are called vestigial organs.
This bimodal distribution of bill sizes is likely
They are believed to be remnants of organs which were consequence of
complete and functional in their ancestors.
(a) Directional selection (b) Stabilising selection
Example – Nictitating membrane (plica semilunaris) in
(c) Disruptive selection (d) Sexual selection
human eye, caudal vertebrae, vermiform appendix,
KVPY SB & SX-2019
wisdom teeth etc.
Ans. (c) : Disruptive selection is a type of selection
123. Which of the following isotopes is used for favours both small sized and large sized individuals.
finding the fossil having age more than 4500 The bill size in a bird species of seed crackers from
year? West Africa shows a bimodal distribution. The most
(a) U238 (b) U235 abundant food sources are two types of marsh plants
(c) PO235 (d) 12C that produce hard and soft seeds consumed
DUMET-2008 preferentially by the large and small billed birds
Ans. (a) : Uranium 238 has a half life of 4.5 billion respectively. This bimodal distribution of bill sizes is
years. Uranium can be used to date the age of earth. If likely consequence of disruptive selection.
50% of pure uranium is left in a sample, the sample is Smaller billed birds feed more efficiently on soft seeds
assumed to be 4.5 billion years old. This is assuming where as large billed birds feed on hard seeds. Birds
that the original sample was 100% uranium and no having intermediate bill size cannot feed the hard and
Uranium 238 has been eroded or lost in 4.5 billion years soft seeds efficiently. Bimodal distribution of bill sizes
old. If a fossil has only 25% of uranium 238 and the is a result of disruptive selection which favours larger
Evolution 619 YCT
and smaller bill size individuals over intermediate sized Ans. (d) : The organs which have the same fundamental
bills. structures but are different in functions are called
homologous organs. These organs follow the same
basic plan of organization, during their development but
in adult condition, these organs are modified to perform
different functions as an adaptation to different
environments. These homologous structures are a result
of divergent evolution. In plants the homologous organs
are thorn of Bougainvillea or a tendril of this also
represent divergent evolution.
127. As per geological time scale, hominids evolved
during While analogous organs have similar functions but are
different in their structural details and origin. These
(a) Miocene (b) Pliocene
structures are result of convergent evolution as –
(c) Pleistocene (d) Oligocene
Flippers of penguins and Dolphins.
AFMC-2007
Ans. (b) : As per geological time scale, hominids 130. Half life period of C14 is
evolved during Pliocene. The family 'Hominids (a) 500 years (b) 5,000 years
includes' humans of today. These are the most (c) 50 years (d) 5 × 1014 years
intelligent of the hominids. They are distinguished from BHU PMT (Screening)-2010 / BVP-2008
the other families of hominoids in that they are bipedal Ans. (b) : Carbon - 14 (C14) has a half life period of
i.e, they walk upright on two legs. Hominids appeared 5730 ± 40 years i.e. half the amount of the radioisotope
during Pliocene but modern human (Homo sapiens) are present at any given time will undergo spontaneous
believed to have arisen about 150.000 years back during disintegration during succeeding 5730 years. Because
Pleistocene. carbon 14 decays at this constant rate, an estimate of the
128. Darwins finches provide excellent evidence in date at which an organism died can be made by
favour of organic evolution. These are related measuring the amount of its residual radiocarbon.
to which of the following evidences? Carbon-14 dating also called radiocarbon dating,
(a) Embryology method of age determination that depends upon the
(b) Palaeontology (or fossils) decay to nitrogen of radiocarbon (C – 14). This method
(c) Anatomy of C – 14 dating was developed by the American
(d) Biogeography (or geographic distribution) physicist Willard F. Libby. It has proved to be versatile
Haryana PMT-2010 / AFMC-2007 technique of dating fossils and archaeological
Ans. (d) : The branch of geography which deals with specimens from 500 – 50000 years old.
the study of distribution of plants and animals is called 131. Prehistoric forms of life are found in fossils.
Biogeography. The probability of finding fossils of more
Charles Darwin during his voyage in Galapagos islands, complex organisms
found that animals of these islands resemble those of (a) increases from lower to upper strata
South American islands. The birds of Galapagos Island (b) decreases from lower to upper strata
(also known as Darwin's finches) do not resemble birds
(c) remains constant in each stratum
of South America (same species). Therefore, he stated
that finches were derived from ancestral stock that had (d) uncertain
emigrated from the mainland to the island and KVPY SA-2012
underwent profound changes under different Ans. (a) : Prehistoric forms of life are found in fossils.
environmental conditions. Darwin's finches living on The probability of finding fossils of more complex
Galapagos island differ not only among themselves but organisms increases from lower to upper strata. During
also from mainland finches in size, colour, beak, and the course of evolution simple organisms evolved first
food habit while complex organisms evolved later. Fossilization of
129. Choose the wrong pair complex organisms took later in upper strata of earth
(a) Divergent - Forelimbs of whales, crust.
evolution bats, cheetah and 132. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered
human moth proves that
(b) Convergent - Flippers of penguins (a) The true black melanic form arise by a
evolution and dolphins recurring random mutation
(c) Homologous - Vertebrate hearts (b) The melanic form of the moth has no
structures selective advantage over lighter form in
(d) Analogous - Tendrils of industrial area
structures Bougainvillea and (c) The lighter-form moth has no selective
Cucurbita advantage either in polluted industrial area or
(E) Adaptive - Darwin’s finches non-polluted area
radiation (d) melanism is a pollution-generated feature
Evolution 620 YCT
Ans. (a) : Industrial melanism is an adaptation where 136. An evolutionary pattern characterized by a
the moths living in the areas developed melanin rapid increase in the number and kinds of
pigments to match their body to the tree trunks. The closely related species is called
occurrence of industrial melanism in moths has been (a) convergent evolution
originally studied by R.A. Fischer and E.B. Ford. (b) divergent evolution
The true black melanic forms of peppered moth are by a (c) adaptive radiation
recurring random mutation due to industrial melanism. (d) Both (b) and (c)
The phenomenon has been documented in numerous AMU-2010, 2012
species (most common and intensely studied = pepperd Ans. (c) : An evolutionary pattern characterized by a
moth Biston bitularia) that hide from predators by rapid increase in the number and kinds of closely
blending in with their backgrounds. Therefore, moth related species is called adaptive radiation.
that were hidden in background survived. Industrial Adaptive radiation is a specific type of divergent
melanism supports evolution by natural selection. evolution. It occurs when a single ancestral species give
133. Example of Analogous organs is : rise to multiple diverse species, often in a relatively
(a) wings of bird and insect short period and these new species adapt to different
(b) forelimbs of horse and man ecological niches or environments.
(c) teeth of elephant and man 137. Most fossils have been found in
(d) none of the above (a) black soil (b) lava flows
JIPMER-2006 / MGIMS Wardha-2005 (c) granite (d) sedimentary rocks
Ans. (a) : The organs which have similar functions but AMU-1999
are different in their structure details and origin are Ans. (d) : Most of the fossils have been found in
called analogous organs. The analogous structures are sedimentary rocks. Organisms that line in
the result of convergent evolution. topographically low places (such as lakes or ocean)
Example – The wings of an insect are analogous to have the best chance of being preserved. This is because
wings of a bird. It is due to the fact that the basic they are already in locations where sediment is likely to
structure of the wings of insects is different from the bury and shelter them from scavengers and decay
wings of birds. However, their function is similar. mudstone, shell, and limestones are examples of
Similarly, fins of fishes and flippers of whale, sting of sedimentary rock likely to contain fossils. As the layer
of sediment build up on the top of one another they
Honeybee and scorpion etc.
create a physical timeline. The oldest layer along with
134. Set which includes only analogous organs is : organisms that were fossilized as they formed, are
(a) wings of butterfly, housefly and bat deepest. The youngest layers are found at the top.
(b) hindlegs of horse, grasshopper and bat 138. Which is not a fossil?
(c) wings of butterfly and Wingspread of bat and (a) Brachiopod (b) Coprolite
birds. (c) Etirepterids (d) Balanoglossus.
(d) mandibles of cockroach, mosquito and honey AMU-1998
bee. Ans. (d) : Balanoglossus is not a fossil. Balanoglossus
UP CPMT - 2005 / JIPMER-2006 is a living tuberculos (burrowing) and exclusively
MGIMS Wardha-2005 marine animal. It is found is shallow water between tide
Ans. (c) : The organs which have similar functions but marks and coast of warm and temperate oceans. It is a
are different in their structural details and origin are genus of ocean dwelling acoren worms (Enteropneusta).
called analogous organs. The analogous structures are It has zoological importance because being
the result of convergent evolution. hemichordate, they are an evolutionary link between
Ex. The wings of locusts (insects), wings of bats and invertebrate and vertebrate. It is a deuterostome with
wings of pigeon are analogous to each other. It is due to gill slits and has a notochord in upper part of body and
the fact that the basic structure of the wings of insects has no nerve chord.
(locust), wings of bat and wings of birds (pigeon) are 139. Some of the important evidences of organic
different. However, their function is similar. evolution are:
135. Myrmecobius and Myrmecophaga are closely (a) occurrence of homologous and vestigial organs
related and have similar adaptations for the (b) occurrence of analogous and vestigial organs
same habitat. This phenomenon is (c) occurrence of homologous and analogous
(a) divergent evolution (b) homoplasv organs
(c) convergent evolution (d) parallel evolution (d) occurrence of analogous organs only
BCECE-2010 VMMC-2006
Ans. (d) : Parallel evolution occurs when independent Ans. (a) : Important evidences of organic evolution are
species acquire similar characteristics while evolving occurrence of homologous and vestigial organs.
together and the same time in the same ecospace. An The organs which have the same fundamental structure
example of parallel evolution is extinct browsing - but are different in functions are called homologous
horses and paleotheres. organs. The homologous structures are a result of
• Parallel evolution is one where two different organism divergent evolution. It indicates common ancestory.
evolve together having similar traits in similar habitat. Ex. - The limbs of humans , cats whales, and bats.
Evolution 621 YCT
Vestigial organs are rudimentary anatomical structures (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
that are retained in a species despite having lost their Haryana PMT-2004
primary ancestral function. Ans. (b) : Animals adopt different strategies to survive
Example – Nictitating membrane (plica semilunaris) in in hostile environment. As some animals blend with the
human eyes, caudal vertebrae, vermiform appendix, surroundings or background to remain unnoticed for
wisdom teeth etc. protection and aggression which is known as
140. Which of the following provides most evident camouflage. Camels survive in deserts because of
proof of evolution? adipose tissues in their humps. Animals can survive in
(a) Fossils (b) Morphology colder conditions by reducing the percentage of body
(c) Embryo (d) Vestigial organs heat that is lost to the environment etc.
JIPMER - 2009 / UP CPMT-2012, 2008 Reason is also correct as, but it is not proper
VMMC-2012 / DUMET -2004 explanation of assertion. Praying mantis is green in
Ans. (a) : Fossils are the preserved remains or traces of colour which merges with plant foliage.
organisms from the past. Fossils provide direct physical 144. Which of the following is a pair of analogous
evidence of organisms that lived in the past and can organs ?
show how species have changed over time. It could be (a) Contractile vacuole in Amoeba and
bone, skeleton etc. Ex. :- The fossils that are studied at uriniferous tubules in frog
present in the form of shells, exoskeletons, hair, remains (b) Paddle of whale and front legs of horse
of DNA, imprints and objects preserved in amber etc. (c) Mouth parts in insects
141. Which of the following is the oldest living (d) Forelimbs in lizard and wings in birds
fossil? BVP -2005 / Haryana PMT-2004 / Manipal-2003
(a) Architeuthis (b) Neopilina Ans. (a) : Analogous organs have similar functions but
(c) Nautilus (d) Limulus are different in their origin and structural details. The
AFMC-2010 / CG PMT-2007 contractile vacuole helps in maintaining the osmotic
Ans. (b) : Neopilina shows a close relationship with concentration of the cell by controlling the amount of
fossils that existed about 400 to 500 million year ago. water in the cell. The uriniferous tubules of kidney also
• Neopilina is the oldest living fossil. It is a connecting play a similar role in osmoregulation. Hence, we say
link between Annelida and Mollusca. It resembles that contractile vacuole is analogous to the uriniferous
Mollusca as it possesses a shell, a mantle and a large tubule in frog.
muscular foot. Its Annelid characters are presence of 145. A living fossil is
segmentally arranged gills, nephridia and muscles and a (a) Coelacanth (b) limulus
trochophore larva like stage. (c) Sphenodon (d) All of these
142. Homologous organs are: AMU-2008V / MMC-2008
(a) wings of butterfly, flying fish and bird Ans. (d) : A living fossil is an extant taxon that
(b) paddle of Whale, front legs of horse and arms cosmetically resembles related species known only from
of humans the fossil record.
(c) legs of Duck, hind limbs of Pig, hind limbs of Coelacanths : - The oldest known Coelacanth fossils
kangaroo are over 410 million years old. Coelacanths were
(d) tails of bird, monkey and scorpion thought to have become extinct in the Late Cretaceous,
Haryana PMT-2002 / JIPMER 1996 / AIPMT-1999 around 66 million year ago but were discovered living
Ans. (b) : Richard owen (1804 - 1892) introduced the off the coast of South Africa in 1938.
term homologous. The organs which have the same Limulus :- Also known as the king crab or horseshoe
fundamental structure but are different in functions are crab, has been on earth for millions of years (450
called homologous organs. million years ago), they are marine arthropods that
Ex.– (1) Paddle of whale, front legs of horse and arms belong to the family Limulidae, mostly found in soft
of humans (2) Legs of duck, hind limb of pig and hind sandy or muddy bottoms around the shallow ocean
limb of kangaroo are homologous structures. water.
A statement of Assertion (A) is given followed Sphenodon :- Also called Tuatara is an endangered
by a corresponding statement of Reason (R) reptiles endemic to New Zealand. The only surviving
just below it. Of these statements, mark the species of Tuatara, Sphenodon punctata is the of order
correct answer as: Rhynchocephalia which is originated in the Triassic
143. Assertion : Animals adopt different strategies to period around 250 million years ago.
survive in hostile environment. 146. Which one of the following phenomena
Reason : Praying Mantis is green in colour which supports Darwin′s concept of natural selection
merges with plant foliage in organic evolution?
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (a) Development of transgenic animals
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion (b) Production of Dolly the sheep by cloning
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but (c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
Reason is not the correct explanation of (d) Development of organs from stem cells for
Assertion organ transplantation
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false CG PMT-2006
Evolution 622 YCT
Ans. (c) : Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects 151. Vestigial organs present in an adult individual
supports Darwin's concept of natural selection in are examples of basis of evidences of evolution
organic evolution. The DDT was an effective (a) Morphological (b) Paleontological
insecticide against mosquito in the year 1945. It was (c) Embryological (d) Anatomical
very efficient that it would kill nearly all the J&K CET-2007
mosquitoes, but after 2-4 years the mosquitoes Ans. (d) : Vestigial organs in adult individuals are
developed resistance against DDT and they could examples of anatomical evidence for evolution. These
survive even in the presence of DDT. are the structure in the body that have lost their original
147. Lamarck was : function through the course of evolution. Examples of
(a) French botanist who late become zoologist vestigial organs in humans include the appendix, which
(b) English naturalist (gave theory of evolution) is thought to have a digestive function in our distant
(c) French scientist (inheritance of acquired ancestors, but now considered non-functional.
characters) 152. Peripatus is a connecting link of
(d) French scientist (law of inheritance) (a) Reptiles and Mammals
DUMET-2002,2001 (b) Flat worms and Annelida
Ans. (c) : Lamarck proposed the first theory of (c) Mollusca and Arthropoda
evolution called 'Lamarckism'. Lamarck (1744 – (d) Annelida and Arthropoda
1829), a French biologist, proposed the theory of CG PMT-2010
individual acquired characters to explain the process of Ans. (d) : Peripatus is an arthropod, is a connecting link
natural selection. between annelida and arthropoda. Its arthropoda characters
148. Which cannot explain Lamarckism? include haemocoel, trachea, respiratory organs and tubular
(a) Claws of carnivorous mammals heart with ostia. The annelid characters exhibited are the
(b) Dull progeny of Nobel Laureate worm like body, structure of the eyes, unjointed legs,
(c) Flightless birds presence of segmental nephridia, soft cuticle and
(d) Snakes legs continuous muscle layers in the body wall.
VMMC-2010 153. Lungs of rabbit and gills of rohu are example of
Ans. (b) : Lamarckism cannot be explained by Weak (a) analogous organ (b) homologous organ
(Dull) progeny of Nobel laureate. The formation of (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
weak/dull progeny is not associated with any physical BVP-2013
and mental changes that happened in the lifespan of the Ans. (b) The organs which have similar origin and same
Nobel laureate. It is cause of weakness can be a certain fundamental structure but are different in functions are
type of deficiency in the progeny. While Lamarckism called homologous organs.
explains about retractile claws of carnivorous mammals, Lungs of rabbit and gills of Rohu differ in morphology and
flightless birds and disappearance of limbs (legs) in functions. Gills in majority of the aquatic animals are
snakes. adapted for respiration and lungs are adapted for aerial
149. Phrase Survival of the Fittest was used by: respiration. But both organs are similar in their origin as
(a) Hugo de Vries arising from embryonic endoderm layer and archenteron.
(b) Charles Darwin 154. Which one is/are a living fossils as well as a
(c) Herbert Spencer connecting link between pisces and
(d) Jean Baptiste Lamarck amphibians?
APEAMCET -2018 / Haryana PMT-2003 (a) Tuatara (b) Lung fish
Ans. (c) : Phrase Survival of the Fittest was used by (c) Latimeria (d) Both (a) and (b)
'Herbert Spencer'. The organisms which are provided with BVP-2013
favourable variations would survive, because they are the Ans. (d) : Protopterus (Lung fish) and Tuatara
fittest to their surroundings, while the unfit are destroyed. (Sphenodon) both are living fossils and are connecting
Originally, it was an idea of Herbert Spencer (1820 – link between fishes (pieces) and amphibians. They have
1903) who used the phrase "The survival of the fittest" first all the character of typical fishes but they are capable of
time. While Darwin named it as 'Natural selection'. respiring through lungs and possess three-chambered
150. Given that I = natural selection; II = variation heart as amphibians.
and their inheritance; III = survival of the 155. Beak is toothed in
fittest; IV = struggle for existence. According to (a) pelican (b) kiwi
Darwinism, which of the following represents (c) ostrich (d) Archaeopteryx
the correct sequence of events in the origin of BVP-2012
new species? Ans. (d) : Beak is toothed in Archaeopteryx.
(a) III, IV, I and II (b) II, III, I and IV The connecting link between reptiles and birds is
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) IV, II, III and I Archaeopteryx and the common feature of this animal is
BVP-2015 that they possess teeth. It has blend of features of aves
Ans. (d) : The correct sequence for evolution is and reptiles. The most common features of these birds is
overproduction, limited food and space, struggle for they are having jaws and sharp teeth solid bones and
existence, variations and their inheritance, survival of beak with teeth like reptiles but modern birds don't have
fittest, natural selection and formation of new species. teeth and have hollow bones.
Evolution 623 YCT
156. Homologous organs indicate the 160. Hand of man, wing of bat and flipper of seal
(a) Convergent evolution represent ?
(b) Parallel evolution (a) Vestigeal organs (b) Analogous organs
(c) Common descendants (c) Evolutionary organs (d) Homologous organs
(d) natural selection HP CET-2012
Rajasthan PMT-2011 Ans. (d) : Homologous organs are structures in
Ans. (c) : Homologous organs indicate the common different species that share a common evolutionary
descendants. origin, even if they may serve different functions in
The organs which have the same fundamental structure those species. The hand of a human, the wing of a bat,
but are different in functions are called Homologous and the flippers of a seal are all examples of
organs. The homologous structures are a result of homologous organs because they all have a similar
divergent evolution. Homology indicates common under laying skeletal structure.
ancestry. 161. Which one of the following describes correctly
Ex. – (1) Paddle of whale, front legs of horse and arms the homologous structures?
of humans (2) Legs of duck, hind limb of pig and hind (a) Organs with anatomical similarities, but
limb of Kangaroo are homologous structures. performing different functions
157. Eusthenopteron connects: (b) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but
(a) fishes and amphibians performing same function
(b) amphibians and reptiles (c) Organs that have no function now, but had
(c) reptiles and birds important function in ancestors
(d) birds and mammals (d) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage
AP EAMCET-1999 and disappearing later in the adult
Ans. (a) : Eusthenopteron is an ancient, extinct fish-like AFMC-2010
creature that lived during the late Devonian period. Ans. (a) : Homologous structure are organs or body
Eusthenopteron connects fishes and amphibians because parts in different species that have similar anatomical
it exhibits both fish-like and amphibian-like structures but may perform different functions. This
characteristics. similarity is often due to common ancestry and
158. Match the following columns. evolutionary relationships.
Column-I Column-II The organs which have similar functions but are
(A) Darwin (1) Evening primrose different in their structural details and origin are called
(B) Alfred Wallace (2) HMS Beagle analogous organs. The analogous structures are the
(C) Hugo de Vries (3)Long necked result of convergent evolution.
(D) Lamarck giraffe 162. Regeneration of a limb is the example of
(4) Archepelago (a) restoration (b) morphallaxis
(a) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3 (c) epimorphosis (d) Both (a) and (c)
(b) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3 CMC Ludhiana -2013
(c) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 Ans. (c) : Epimorphosis is defined as the regeneration
(d) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4 of a specific part of an organism in a way that involves
JCECE-2015 extensive cells proliferation of somatic stem cells.
Ans. (a) : The first mechanism involves the dedifferentiation of
adult structures to form an undifferentiated mass of cells
(A) Darwin (2) HMS Beagle that then becomes respected. This type of regeneration
(B) Alfred Wallace (4) Archepelago is called epimorphosis and is characteristic of
(C) Hugo de Vries (1) Evening primrose regeneration of limbs.
(D) Lamarck (3) Long necked giraffe
163. The banding pattern of chromosomes 3 and 6
159. The type of fossil where hard parts like bone or of human beings and chimpanzee shows that
trunks of trees are preserved are known as they had :
(a) petrifiction (b) moulds (a) Common origin
(c) compression (d) pseudofossil (b) Different origin
AMU-1996 (c) Same number of chromosomes
Ans. (a) : The process by which biological material (d) Similar blood groups
transforms into a fossil by replacing the original BCECE-2003
material and filling the original pore spaces with
minerals is known as Pertification. Ans. (a) : The banding pattern of chromosomes 3 and 6
After a shell, bone or tooth or tree trunks buried in of human beings and chimpanzee shows that they had
sediment, it may be exposed to mineral rich fluids common origin. The banding pattern of chromosomes
moving through the porous rock material and becomes refers to the distinct pattern of light and dark bands that
filled with preserving minerals such as calcium can be observed when chromosomes are stained and
carbonate or silica. viewed under a microscope.
Evolution 624 YCT
164. Which one of the following is categorised under Ans. (d) : The Galapagos islands are located in the
living fossils? Eastern Pacific Ocean, relatively close to continent of
(a) Selaginella (b) Metasequoia South America. Due to their geographic proximity, the
(c) Pinus (d) Cycas flora and fauna of the Galapagos Island have strong
MGIMS Wardha-2010 / AIIMS-2004 affinities with South America.
Ans. (d) : Cycas is ancient group of cone producing 169. According to fossils which discovered up to
tropical plants, are sometimes called as Living fossils present time, origin and evolution of man was
because, they have existed for more than 200 million started from which country
years since before the time of the Dinosaurs. Yet despite (a) France (b) Java
serving mass extinctions, continental drift, ice ages and (c) Africa (d) China
other challenges, Cycas are trouble today. AIPMT-2002
165. Which of the following is a living fossil? Ans. (c) : The origin and evolution of humans, are
(a) Latimeria (b) Amia traced back to Africa primarily based on extensive fossil
(c) Hippocampus (d) Exocoetus and archeological evidence. Many important hominid
MGIMS Wardha-2003 fossils such as Australopithecus and Ardipithecus have
Ans. (a) : Latimeria (Coelacanth) is a living fossil been found in Africa.
which was taken off from the Eastern coast of S. 170. Which of the following are homologous organs
Africa. in 1938 by some fisherman. Its discovery is of (a) Wings of birds & Locust
special interest because it is believed that (b) Wings of birds (Sparrow) & Pectoral fins of
Crossopterygii (fleshy finned fish) were the ancestors fish
of the first amphibians. Latimeria is believed to be the (c) Wings of bat & Butterfly
oldest amongst living fishes. It is a connecting link (d) Legs of frog & Cockroach
between fishes and amphibians (first tetrapods). There HP CET-2013 / CMC VELLORE-2011
are no specimens of Coelacanth left with us. These Punjab MET-2010 / AMU-1996
animals evolved into first amphibians that lived on both BVP-2002 / AIPMT-2002
land and water.
Thus, they were ancestors of modern day frogs and Ans. (b) : Homologous organ are those which have
salamanders. the same origin and similar basic structure but may
differ in external appearance and function.
166. Resemblance between widely different groups E.g.- Wing of birds & pectoral fin of fish.
due to a common adaptation is known as:
Analogous organs are anatomically different but
(a) retrogressive evolution functionally same. e.g.
(b) parallel evolution (a) Wings of birds and locusts.
(c) convergent evolution (b) Wings of bat and butterfly.
(d) divergent evolution (c) Pectoral fin of shark and flipper of dolphins.
Manipal-2006
171. Age of fossils in the past was generally
Ans. (c) : Resemblance between widely different determined by radio-carbon method and other
groups due to a common adaptation is known as methods involving radioactive elements found
Convergent evolution, it is the process whereby in the rocks. More precise methods, which were
organisms not closely related, independently evolve used recently and led to the revision of the
similar traits as a result of having to adapt to similar evolutionary periods for different groups of
environments or ecological niches. organisms includes -
167. Sudden appearance of an ancestral character is (a) Study of the conditions of fossilization
known as: (b) Electron spin resonance (ESR) & fossil DNA
(a) mutation (b) heredity (c) Study of carbohydrates/proteins in rocks
(c) atavism (d) none of these (d) Study of carbohydrates/proteins in fossils
JCECE -2014 / Manipal-2006 CMC Vellore -2015 / AIPMT-2004
Ans. (c) : Sudden appearance of an ancestral character Ans. (b) : ESR of fossil DNA is an advanced technique
is known as atavism. that is used to determine the age of fossils. Electron spin
• It is the reappearance of certain ancestral characters resonance (ESR) measures number of charges
which had either disappeared or were reduced during occupying deep traps in crystal band gap. It is also
evolution. called as electron paramagnetic resonance (EPR).
For example, ability to move pinna, third molars gill • The basic principle of ESR is same as those for
slits and additional pairs of nipples in new born, limb luminescence i.e. Fluron become trapped and stored
appearance in snake etc. as a result as ionising radiations eg–dating of tooth
168. Plants of the Galapagos Islands resembles most enamel.
closely to the plants of: 172. Select the correct statement.
(a) Asia (b) Australia (a) Fossils of primitive forms of organisms
(c) North America (d) South America occupy upper layers of the earth during
Manipal-2006,2014 fossilization.
Evolution 625 YCT
(b) Fossils help in understanding the habit of 178. Which of the following statements are correct?
extinct animals. (1) Wings of insects and bats are analogous
(c) Actual remains of fossils are generally organs
formed on land. (2) Wings of insects and birds are analogous
(d) Moulds are the most common type of fossils. organs
MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I (3) Wings of birds and bats are homologous
Ans. (b) : Fossils help in understanding the habit of organs
extinct animals, because it provide valuable information (4) Wings of insects and birds are homologous
about the behavior, habitat and lifestyles of extinct
organs
organisms.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
173. Cretaceous, Jurassic and Triassic periods are (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
included in the_______ era.
(a) Palaeozoic (b) Mesozoic
(c) Proterozoic (d) Cenozoic Ans. (a) : Analogous structure are anatomically
different structures through they perform similar
functions. The wings of birds, bats and insects are
Ans. (b) : Cretaceous, Jurassic and Triassic periods are analogous structure they have the same function of
included in the Mesozoic era. Mesozoic Era is the flight but their structure and origin are different from
second to last era of Earth's geological history. each other.
174. Industrial melanism was highlighted by 179. Homologous organs are
(a) Mimosa pudica (b) Triticum aestivum (a) similar in structure and function
(c) Biston betularia (d) Rock python
(b) similar in origin and different in functions
(e) Polar bear
(c) Dissimilar in origin and similar in functions
Kerala PMT-2008
(d) dissimilar in origin and functions
Ans. (c) : Industrial melanism was first noticed in 1900 HP CET-2018
by geneticist William Bateson, he observed that the
colour morphs were inherited but did not suggest an Ans. (b) : Homologous organ are organs that have the
explanation for the polymorphism. same structural organization but different functional
properties. For Example - the forelimbs of frog, lizard,
175. Which was having lowest brain capacity during
pigeon and whale have the same basic structural plan.
human evolution?
(a) Neanderthal man (b) Homo habillis 180. Match the evolution concepts and their
(c) Homo sapiens (d) Homo erectus proposers and select the right option
GUJCET-2020 I. Saltation A. Darwin
Ans. (b) : Homo habilis is believed to have the lowest II. Formation of life B. Louis Pasteur
brain capacity. The average brain size of Homo habilis was preceded by
is estimated to be about 500 to 700 cc, which is smaller chemical evolution
then the brain of Homo erectus, Homo sapiens and III. Reproductive C. de Vries
Neanderthal man. fitness
176. Wings of pigeon, mosquito and bat shows; IV. Life comes from D. Oparin and
(a) atavism pre-existing life Haldane
(b) mutation (a) I - C II - D III - A IV - B
(c) divergent evolution (b) I - A II - B III - C IV - D
(d) convergent evolution (c) I - D II - C III - A IV - B
AIIMS-1999 (d) I - C II - D III - B IV - A
Ans. (d) : Wings of pigeon, mosquito and bat shows (e) I - C II - A III - D IV - B
convergent evolution. This evolution produces Kerala PMT-2012
analogous structures having similar function or forms.
Ans. (a) :
177. Which of the following terms represents a pair
Evolution concepts Proposed By
of contrasting character?
(I) Saltation - de Vries
(a) homozygous (b) allele
(c) heterozygous (d) phenotype. (II) Formation of life was - Oparin and Haldane
AIIMS-1994 preceded by chemical -
evolution
Ans. (b) : Alleles are a pair of contrasting traits of a
character that are coded by a gene in classical (III) Reproductive fitness - Darwin
Mendelian genetic each character is governed by a pair (IV) Life comes from - Louis Pasteur
of character called as allele. pre-existing life
Evolution 626 YCT
181. Choose the correct statements with reference to 185. Which of the following is the correct sequence
organic evolution of events in the origin of life?
(A) Flippers of whale and wing of bat exhibit I. Formation of protobionts
analogy II. Synthesis of Organic monomers
(B) Wing of butterfly and wing of bird exhibit III. Synthesis of Organic polymers
homology
(C) Organs with dissimilar structure are called IV. Formation of DNA- based genetic systems.
analogous organs (a) I, II, III, IV (b) I, III, II, IV
(D) Organs with similar structure and origin (c) II, III, I, IV (d) II, III, IV, I
are called homologous organs NEET-2016 Phase-II
(a) (C) and (D) (b) (A) and (C) Ans. (c) : The sequential manner of events of origin of
(c) (B) and (D) (d) (A) and (B) life is:
AP EAMCET-2014 Synthesis of organic monomers.
Ans. (a) : Analogous organs are the organs of different ↓
animals having different anatomy but perform similar
function. Synthesis of organic polymers.
• Homologous organs are the organs that are ↓
structurally similar to each other but perform Formation of protobionts.
different functions. ↓
182. Select the correct statement regarding Formation of DNA-based genetic systems.
mutation theory of evolution. 186. By the statement survival of the fittest, Darwin
(a) This theory was proposed by Alfred. Wallace meant that .............
(b) Variations are small directional changes (a) The strongest of all species survives
(c) Single step large mutation is a cause of (b) The most intelligent of the species survives
speciation
(c) The cleverest of the species survives
(d) Large differences due to mutations arise
gradually in a population (d) The most adaptable of the species to change
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 survives
Ans. (c) : The mutation theory of evolution was Karnataka CET-2011
proposed by the French scientist Jean Baptiste Lamarck. Ans. (d) : Charles Darwin which suggested that
According to Darwin, evolution is gradual, while Hugo organisms best adjusted to their environment are the
de-Vries believed that sudden heritable variation called most successful in surviving and reproducing.
mutation cause speciation. These mutations could also 187. What is meant by the term fitness according to
be large, in the sense that it possible for single large Darwinism?
mutation to result in speciation. Such a single large (a) Ability to survive and reproduce
mutation is called saltation.
(b) Healthy appearance
183. Human ancestors who left cave paintings were
(c) Physical strength
(a) Neanderthal man (b) Cro-magnon man
(d) Aggressiveness
(c) Java ape man (d) Peking man
JIPMER-2010 SRM JEE -2017
Ans. (b) : Cro-magnon man, also known as Homo Ans. (a) : According to Darwinism, "fitness" means an
sapiens sapiens, were Early Modern humans who lived organism's have ability to survive in its environment
in Europe between approximately 40,000 and 10,000 and successfully reproduce, contributing to the passing
years ago during the upper Paleolithic period. They on of advantageous traits to the next generation, which
were known for their remarkable cave paintings, some is a fundamental concept in the theory of natural
of which are found in famous location like Lascaux and selection and evolution.
Altamira. 188. Phenetic classification is based on: -
184. Embryological support for evolution was (a) The ancestral lineage of existing organisms
disapproved by (b) Observable characteristics of existing
(a) Alfred Wallace (b) Charles Darwin organisms
(c) Oparin (d) Karl Ernst von Baer (c) Dendrograms based on DNA characteristics
NEET-2020 Phase-I / AIPMT -1990
(d) Sexual characteristics
Ans. (d) : Karl Ernst von Baer was a German biologist
AIPMT-2003
who is considered the Father of modern embryology.
He disapproved of the embryological support for Ans. (b) : Phenetic classification is based on observable
evolution because he believed that embryos of different characteristics of an existing organism i.e., morphology
species did not go through the same stages of or evolutionary relation, behavior, physiology and
development. He also believed that embryos were not sometimes genetic data and measure their overall
recapitulation of the evolutionary history of their similarity, aiming to group similar organisms together
species. in hierarchical system.
Evolution 627 YCT
189. Which one of the following sequences was Ans. (b) : A genus of generalized Miocene and Pliocene
proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic
old world apes sometimes regarded as common
evolution: - ancestral forms of the anthropoid apes and man. A
Dryopithecus is not a connecting link.
(a) Overproduction, variations, constancy of
population size, natural selection • Archeopteryx is connecting link between birds and
reptils.
(b) Variations, constancy of population size,
overproduction, natural selection • Ichthyostega is connecting link between fish and
amphibian.
(c) Overproduction, constancy of population size,
variations, natural selection • Seymouria is connecting link between Amphibians
and Reptiles.
(d) Variations, natural selection, overproduction,
constancy of population size 193. Seymouria is a connecting link between____.
AIPMT-2003 (a) Aves and mammals
Ans. (c): The sequence proposed by Charles Darwin (b) Amphibians and Reptiles
and Alfred Wallace for organic evolution is (c) Pisces and Amphibians
overproduction constancy of population size, variations,(d) Reptiles and Aves
natural selection. MHT CET-2017
Organisms tend to increase the number of offspring in
Ans. (b) : Seymouria is a connecting link between
the individual for survival. They are start to competition
amphibians and reptiles. The organism lived in semi-
for existence. arid regions for away from water and had the ability to
conserve water. It belongs to extinct genus of tetrapod
190. In turnip, 2/3 part of swollen area is derived
from: that lived during the Carboniferous and Permian
(a) hypophysis (b) hypocotylperiods. It has a number of features that are
characteristic of both amphibians and reptiles, for
(c) epicotyl (d) radicle example, Seymouria had a bony skeleton and a
JIPMER-2006
waterproof skin, which are the feature of reptiles.
Ans. (b) : In a turnip, the swollen part, which is edible
However, it also had a moist skin and needed water to
lay its egg, which are the prominent features of an
root is derived from hypocotyls. The hypocotyl is the
amphibian.
part of the embryonic plant stem located between the
cotyledons (seed leaves) and the radicle (embryonic
194. Select the CORRECT pair
root). It swells and store nutrients in some plants. (a) Adaptive Radiation – Darwin's Finches
191. Select the CORRECT set of homologous (b) Connecting Link – Sewall Wright effect
organs. (c) Genetic drift – Peppered moth
(a) Forelimbs of frog, lizard, bird and bat (d) Industrial melanism – Archaeopteryx
(b) Wings of insect, bird and bat MHT CET-2015
(c) Caecum, Wings of insect, forelimbs of bird
Ans. (a) : The correct match is:
(d) Vemiform appendix, caecum, coccyx • Adaptive Radiation - Darwin's finches
• Connecting Link
MHT CET-2019 - Archaeopteryx
• Genetic drift
Ans. (a) : The correct set of homologous organs are - Sewall Wright effect
• Industrial melanism - Peppered Moth.
forelimbs of frog, lizard, bird and bat. These organ have
the same structural organization but different functional
195. Which one among the following is an example
properties. for homology ?
(a) Eye of octopus and mammals
(b) Tuber of sweet potato and potato
(c) Wings of butterfly and birds
(d) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
(e) Thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and
cucurbita
Kerala PMT-2011
Ans. (e) : Thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and
Cucurbita is an example of homology because they are
anatomically similar but their functions are distinct. The
thorn of Bougainvillea serves as defense against grazing
animals, while the tendrils of Cucurbita serve to provide
192. Which of the following is NOT a connecting support during climbing.
link ? 196. Which is not a connecting link in evolution?
(a) Archeopteryx (b) Dryopithecus (a) Pheretima (b) Ecdina
(c) Ichthyostegia (d) Seymouria (c) Sphenodon (d) Peripatus
MHT CET-2018 JIPMER-1996
Evolution 628 YCT
Ans. (a) : Pheretima is not a connecting link in Ans. (a) : Coverstone of theory of Darwin was natural
evolution. It is a genus of earthworms. selection. Natural selection causes populations to
• Ecdina is connecting link between mammals and become adapted to their environment over time.
reptile According to him nature selects only those who can fit
• Sphenodon is connecting link between reptile and in the natural environment other will extinct.
amphibian 201. Balancing selection promotes
• Peripatus is connecting link between Arthropoda and (a) homozygotes (b) heterozygotes
Annelida. (c) polyploids (d) recessive traits
197. Vestigial organs are those organs which are DUMET-2011
(a) characteristic of birds Ans. (a) : Balancing selection provides equal
(b) not of much use today opportunity to both the type of individuals i.e. dominant
(c) helpful in locomotion and recessive it promote homozygote. It occurs when
(d) common multiple allele are maintained in a popularity which can
CG PMT-2005 result in their perseveration over long evolutionary time
Ans. (b) : Vestigial organs are the organs that have no periods.
apparent function and are considered to be residual parts Heterozygotes are at the selected locus and in the very
from the past ancestors. closely linked regions.
Example are human appendix, pelvic bone of snake etc. 202. Tendrils in plants are an example of
198. Philosophic zoologique written by: (a) convergent evolution
(a) Darwin (b) Linnaeus (b) radiation
(c) Lamarck (d) Theophrastus (c) divergent evolution
DUMET-2006 (d) co-evolution
Ans. (c) : Lamarck's book'' Philosophic zoologique"" DUMET-2011
was published in 1809 and outlined his theory of
evolution, it is currently known as Lamarckism. Ans. (c) : Tendrils in plants are an example of divergent
Lamarck believed that evolution was driven by the evolution.
inheritance of acquired characteristics, which is the idea Divergent evolution results in the formation of different
that changes that occurs during an organism's lifetime functional structure as an adaptation to the environment
can be passed on its offspring. in species having common ancestors.
199. Study the following statements with reference 203. Darwins judged the fitness of an individual by
to evidences of evolution and choose the correct (a) ability to defend itself
ones (b) strategy to obtain food
(A) Seymouria is connecting link between (c) number of offsprings
fishes and amphibians (d) dominance over other individuals
(B) From evolutionary stand point gastrula DUMET-2011
represents the cnidarian stage
(C) Wings of butter fly and bird indicate Ans. (c) : Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by
convergent evolution the number of offspring it produced. This is because the
(D) Auricular muscles of pinna are atavistic more offspring an individual produces the more likely
organs its genes are to be passed on to future generations.
The correct answer is 204. The animal group which does not exist in
Options: Galapagos island is?
(a) A, B (b) B, C (a) Insects (b) Protozoa
(c) C, D (d) A, D (c) Crustacea (d) Amphibia
AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-II AIIMS-2011
Ans. (b) : The correct answer is : Ans. (d) : Amphibians are absent from the Galapagos
• Among the basally branching metazoans, cnidarians Islands. This is primarily due to the geographical
display well-defined gastrulation process leading to a isolation of the islands, as amphibians have a limited
diploblastic body plan, consisting of an endodermal ability to disperse across broad area of ocean.
and an ectodermal cell layer. Also due to their intolerance of salt water, amphibians
• Wing of a butterfly and wings of birds are analogous have generally been absent from the Galapagos island
organs because they use their wing for flight but the for the past several million years. Historically only fish,
origin of wings is not same. reptiles, birds and mammals have been present there.
200. Coverstone of theory of Darwin was : 205. Which one of the following groups of
(a) natural selection structures/organs gave similar function?
(b) inheritance of acquired characters (a) Typhlosole in earthworm, intestinal villi in rat
(c) omnis cellula e cellula and contractile vacuole in Amoeba
(d) higher productivity (b) Nephridia in earthworm, Malpighian tubules
DUMET-2005 in cockroach and urinary tubules in rat
Evolution 629 YCT
(c) Antennae of cockroach, tympanum of frog • Lamarck's theory- Lamarck is best known for his
and clitellum of earthworm theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics,
(d) Incisors of rat, gizzard (proventriculus) of first presented in 1801. If an organism changes
cockroach and tube feet of starfish during life in order to adapt to its environment, those
AIIMS-2005 changes are passed on to its offspring.
Ans. (b) : The group of structures that have similar • Hugo de Vries– He put forward a theory of
function is nephridia in earthworm, malpighian tubules evolution, called mutation theory. The theory states
in cockroach, and urinary tubules is rat. These that evolution is a jerky process where new varieties
structures are all involved in excretion and waste and species are formed by mutations that function as
elimination in their respective organisms and
raw material of evolution.
responsible for removing metabolic wastes and excess
fluids from the body. 209. Which one is not vestigial organ of man?
206. Which of the following postulates is related (a) Nictitating membrane
with Neo-Darwinism? (b) Epiglottis or ileum
(a) Mutations are believed to help form new (c) Vermiform appendix
species (d) Muscles or ear pinnae
(b) It incorporates isolation as an essential CMC Vellore-2012
component of evolution
Ans. (b) : The epiglottis is fully functional structure and
(c) It can explain the occurrence of unchanged
functions to stop the entry of food into out of windpipe
forms over millions of years
when we swallow our food so, it is not a vestigial organ.
AIIMS-2009 210. Descent with modification is the main theme of
Ans. (d) : Neo - Darwinism incorporates these (a) genetics and interpretation
postulates into its framework of evolution. It (b) biogenesis
emphasizes the role of mutations in providing genetic (c) recapitulaiton
variation, includes the concept of isolation as a (d) evolution
mechanism for speciation and accounts for the Punjab MET-2007
occurrence of relatively unchanged forms (like living
fossils) over long period of time in specific ecological Ans. (d) : '' Descent with modification '' is a central
niche. concept in the theory of evolution, which states that
species share common ancestors and change over time
207. Genetic drift operates only in :-
through process like natural selection.
(a) Island population
(b) Smaller population 211. Evolutionary change does not comes about at
(c) Larger population the level of individual but at the level of
(d) Mendelian population. (a) two persons (b) 10 persons
AIIMS-2001 (c) population (d) small group
Ans. (b) : Genetic drift is a random process that leads to Punjab MET-2007
changes in the genetic makeup of a population over Ans. (c) : Biological evolution refers to the cumulative
time, especially in smaller population. changes that occur in a population over times.
The evolution caused due to the random change in the
212. Choose the correct combination among the
allele frequencies of a population over generations. It is
mainly caused in small isolated population due to following
change rather than natural selection. It may cause the No. Column-I Column-II Column-III
change in the gene pool by random sampling of a I. Thomas Principles of Phenomenon
particular allele which may occur in deleting a Malthus populations of
particular gene. gradualism
208. Which of the following explained evolution in II. Paul Proteus Inheritance
most acceptable form? Kammerer anguinus of somatic
(a) Lamarck, Darwin, Hugo de Vries character
(b) Anaximander, Darwin, Malthus
III. Hugo de Oenothera Synthetic
(c) F. Redi, Richter, Cuvier
Vries lamarckiana theory of
(d) Lamarck, Hardy Weinberg, Darwin
evolution
IV. Bernard Biston Industrial
Ans. (a) : • Darwin's theory- It was proposed by Kettlewell betularia melanism
Charles Darwin and is also called as a theory of
natural selection. The important aspects of the theory (a) I, IV (b) II, IV
state that every life on this planet is connected to each (c) I, III (d) II, III
other, from where diversification of life happen. AP EAMCET-2016
Evolution 630 YCT
Ans. (a) : the correct combination is : 217. Evolutionary convergence is characterised by:
No. Column-I Column-II Column-III (a) development of dissimilar characteristics in
I Thomas Principles of Phenomenon of closely related groups
Malthus populations gradualism (b) development of a common set of
characteristics in groups of different ancestry
II Paul Proteus Pattern of
Kammarer anguinus inhetiance (c) development of characteristics by random
mating
III Hugo de Oenothera Idea of (d) replacement of common characteristics in
Vries lamarckiana mutations different groups
IV Bernard Biston Industrial WB JEE-2006
Kettlewell betularia melanism
AIPMT-1997
213. Which of the following is a pair of homologous Ans. (b) : Evolutionary convergence is a phenomenon
organs?
in different groups of animals come to resemble each
(a) Pectoral fin of rohu and forelimb of horse other through similarity of habit or environment. It is
(b) Wings of grasshopper and wings of crow the development of common set of characteristics in
(c) Lungs of rabbit and gills of rohu groups of different ancestry.
(d) Wings of bat and wings of butterfly
218. Forelimbs of whales, bats, humans and cheetah
AIPMT-1994
are examples of which of the following
Ans. (a) : Homologous structures are structures having processes?
a similar origin, similar development, similar internal (a) Divergent evolution
structure and basic but showing different external form
and function. For example: pectoral fin of rohu and (b) Convergent evolution
forelimb of horse. (c) Adaptation
(d) Saltation
214. Parallelism is:
(a) adaptive divergence KVPY SB & SX-2014
(b) adaptive divergence of widely separated species Ans. (a) : The forelimb of whale, bat, human and
(c) adaptive convergence of widely different cheetah are homologous. Divergent evolution is the
species evolution of organisms from a common ancestor. All
(d) adaptive convergence of closely related groups. theses animal have similar structure of forelimb but
AIPMT-1990 their function is different.
Ans. (d) : Parallelism is adaptive convergence of 219. Match the following
closely related groups. Parallelism, also known as List-I List-II
parallel structure. (p) Charles (i) Systema
• Adaptive convergent evolution, which refers to the Darwin Naturae
same or similar phenotypes produces by species from (q) John Ray (ii) Natural History
independent lineages under similar selective pressures,
has been widely examined for a long time. (r) Buffon (iii) Historia
Generalis
215. Which of the following isotopes is most Plantarum
dangerous to Homo sapiens?
(a) Phosphorus-32 (b) Strontium-90 (s) Linnaeus (iv) The Origin of
(c) Caesium-137 (d) Iodine-131 Species
AIPMT-1996 The correct answer is
Ans. (b) : Strontium – 90 is referred to as a ''bone (p) (q) (r) (s)
seeker'', and exposure will increase the risk for several (a) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
diseases including bone cancer, cancer of the soft tissue (b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
near the bone and leukemia because it is easily (c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
deposited in the bones. (d) (iv) (ii) (i) (ii)
216. The change of the lighter-coloured variety of TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-I
peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its darker Ans. (b) : The correct match is :
variety (Biston carbonaria) is due to:
List-I List-II
(a) mutation (b) regeneration
(c) genetic isolation (d) temporal isolation (p) Charles Darwin (iv) The Origin of Species
AIPMT-1996 (q) John Ray (iii) Historia Generalis
Ans. (a) : The change of the lighter-coloured variety of Plantarum
peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its darker variety (r) Buffon (ii) Natural History
(Biston carbonaria) is due to mutation. A random (s) Linnaeus (i) Systema Naturae.
genetic mutation caused some moths to have darker
wing colors. The darker moths had a survival advantage 220. The mammals (animals) from colder climate
in polluted environments during the industrial generally have shorter hair and not fully
revolution, leading to their increased prevalence developed ear, eyes and other phenotypic
through natural selection. characters. This known as
Evolution 631 YCT
(a) Dalla's law (b) Allens rule 224. Match the following
(c) Copes law (d) Bergmanns law List -I List-II
J&K CET-2013 A Cyanognathus I Reptiles &
Ans. (b) : Allen's' law is a biological rule that states that birds
warm-blooded animals in colder climates have shorter B Archaeopteryx II Amphibians &
extremities than those in warmer climates . This is reptiles
because shorter extremities have a smaller surface area C Seymouria III Reptiles &
to volume ratio, which reduce heat loss and conserve Mammals
body heat. For example, the Arctic fox has shorten ears D Eusthenopteron IV Protochordates
and legs than the red fox, which live in warmer & fishes
climates.
V) Fishes &
221. Which of the following show paleontological amphibians
evidence for evolution ? The correct match is
(a) Darwin finches A B C D
(b) Duck-billed platypus (a) IV I II V
(c) Archaeopteryx (b) III II I V
(d) Biston betularia (c) V II I IV
Punjab MET-2011 (d) III I II V
Ans. (c) :Archaeopteryx is a fossil bird that lived about TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-II
150 million years ago . It has a many features that are Ans. (d) : The correct match is :
intermediate between birds and dinosaurs such as
List-I List-II
feathers, a toothed beak and a long tail, Archaeopteryx
is considered to be transitional fossil, which provide A- Cyanognathus III- Reptiles & Mammals
evidence that birds evolved from dinosaurs. B- Archaeopteryx I- Reptiles & birds
222. Read the statements and identify the right C- Seymouria II- Amphibians & reptile
option: D- Eusthenopteron V- Fishes & amphibians
Statement I: Due to continental drift pouched 225. Neoteny refers to
mammals of Australia survived. (a) development of gonads
Statement II: South America joined North (b) pre-adult animal
America due to continental drift. (c) metamorphosis
(a) Statement I and II are correct (d) retention of larval or embryonic trait in the
(b) Statement I and II are incorrect adult body
(c) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect (e) precocious development
(d) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct WBJEE-2015
JCECE-2017 CMC Vellore-2008
Ans. (c) : Statement I is correct because the isolation of Ans. (d) : Neoteny is the phenomenon of retention of
Australia due to its continental drift, allowed for the juvenile traits in the adult body. In neoteny, certain trait
evolution and survival of unique marsupial mammals, or characteristics that are typically seen in the larval or
including pouched mammals like Kangaroos and juvenile stage of an organism are retained into adult
Koalas. hood rather than undergoing full metamorphosis or
mutation.
Statement II is incorrect because South America and
North America did not join due to continental drift, they 226. The animal used to explain industrial melanism
are still separate continents connected by a narrow land is :
bridge. (a) lizard (b) frog
(c) monkey (d) peppered moth
223. Change in the number of body parts is called
Karnataka CET-2000
(a) continuous variation
(b) discontinuous variation Ans. (d) : The animal that explains industrial melanism
is peppered moth. The peppered moth is a light- colored
(c) meristic variation species which turn into black peppered moth due to
(d) substantive variation industrial revolution in England. The black color
VMMC-2009 patches help them alive in the harsh environment.
Ans. (c) : Meristic variation refers to variation in the 227. Statement I : Homologous organs exhibit
number of discrete, countable, and distinct parts or convergent evolution
features in a organisms body. These parts can be things Statement II : Analogous organs exhibit
like the number of vertebrae in a snake, the number divergent evolution
petals in a flower or the number of segments in insects. The correct option among the following is
These variations are typically discrete and can be (a) Both statements I and II are correct
counted as whole numbers. (b) Statement I is correct and statement II is false
Evolution 632 YCT
(c) Statement I is false and statement II is correct The correct option among the following is
(d) Both statements I and II are false (a) Both A and R are true, R is correct
TS EAMCET-28.09.2020 Shift-II explanation for A
Ans. (d) : Both statement are false. Homologous organ (b) Both A and R are true, R is not correct
are created in divergent evolution. Homologous organ explanation for A
refer to the organs with similar structure but having (c) A is true, But R is false
different function while, analogous structure are a result (d) A is false, But R is true
of convergent evolution. Convergent evolution is a type TS EAMCET-29.09.2020 Shift-I
of independent evolution of similar feature among the Ans. (c) : Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between
species. reptiles and birds. It has wings, a beak the particular
228. An important evidence in favour of organic structure of legs just like birds and on the other hand, it
evolution is the occurrence of has reptile like teeth and a tail.
(a) homologous and vestigial organs 232. Fossilized faecal material of animals are known
(b) analogous and vestigial organs as
(c) homologous organs only (a) Coprolites (b) Compressions
(d) homologous and analogous organs (c) Moulds (d) Casts
JCECE-2013 J&K CET-2011
Ans. (a) : An important evidence in favor of organic Ans. (a) : Coprolites are the fossilised feces of animals
that lived millions of years age. They are trace fossils
evolution is the occurrence of homologous and vestigial
meaning not of animal's actual body.
organs. Homologous organs which share a common
evolutionary origin and vestigial organs, which are 233. Match Column I with Column II and choose
remnants of structures that had a function in ancestral the right option.
species, provide significant evidence for the theory of Column I Column II
evolution. (1) Thomas (A) Branching
229. Which one of the following is not a living fossil? Malthus descent
(a) King crab (b) Sphenodon (2) Hugo de Vries (B) Studies on
(c) Archaeopteryx (d) Peripatus populations
JCECE-2013 (3) Charles (C) Use and disuse
Ans. (c) : Archaeopteryx is not a living fossil. It is Darwin theory
referred to as a transitional fossil between dinosaurs and (4) Lamarck (D) Saltation
birds since it displayed a number of features that were (a) 1 - D, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - B
common to both birds and dinosaurs. (b) 1 - B, 2 - D, 3 - A, 4 - C
While King Crab, Sphenodon and Peripatus are the (c) 1 - B, 2 - D, 3 - C, 4 - A
living fossils. (d) 1 - C, 2 - B, 3 - A, 4 - D
230. Statement I : Organs which have similar (e) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
structure and origin but perform Kerala PMT-2014
different functions are called Ans. (b) :
analogous organs. Column - I Column-II
Statement II : The sudden appearance of some (1) Thomas Malthus - Studies on population
vestigial organs in a better (2) Hugo de Vries - Saltation
developed condition is called (3) Charles Darwin - Branching descent
atavism. (4) Lamarck - Use and disuse theory.
The correct option among the following is 234. Choose the wrong statement
(a) Statement I and statement II are correct (a) Louis Pasteur demonstrated that life comes
(b) Statement I and statement II are false only from pre-existing life
(c) Statement I is correct. Statement II is false (b) S.L. Miller observed that electric discharge in
(d) Statement I is false. Statement II is correct. a flask containing CH4, H2, NH3 and water
TS EAMCET-28.09.2020 Shift-I vapour at 800 °C formed amino acids
Ans. (d) : Analogous organs are those organs of (c) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are
different animals having different anatomy but doing examples for homology
similar function. (d) Homology indicates common ancestry
• The sudden appearance of some vestigial organs in a (e) Analogous structures are the result of
better developed condition is called atavism. convergent evolution
231. Assertion (A) : Archaeopteryx lithographica is Kerala PMT-2014
a connecting link . Ans. (c) : Flippers of penguin and dolphin have a
Reason (R) : It possesses reptilian and similar function but different origin so they are called
mammalian characters. analogous organs.
Evolution 633 YCT
235. The original features of Darwin's finches in 239. Analogous structures are a result of
Galapagos islands were adapted for (a) Stabilizing selection
(a) Flesh eating (b) Insect eating (b) Divergent evolution
(c) Fish eating (d) Honey collecting (c) Convergent evolution
(e) Seed eating (d) Shared ancestry
Kerala PMT-2013 NEET-2016 Phase-I
Ans. (e) : The original features of Darwin's finches in Ans. (c) : Development of similar adaptive functional
Galapagos islands were adapted for seed eating. During structure in organs of different origin is due to
his journey Darwin went to Galapagos Islands. He convergent evolution. Convergent evolution describes
observed an amazing diversity of creatures of particular the independent evolution of similar features in species
interest, small black birds later called Darwin's finches of different lineage. eg- Dolphin, shark
amazed him. He realized that there were many varieties 240. In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia)
of finches in the same island. All the varieties, he the black-coloured from became dominant over
conjectured, evolved on the island itself. the light-coloured form in England during
236. Darwin in his Natural Selection Theory, did not industrial revolution. This is an example of -
believe in any role of which one of the following (a) Inheritance of darker colour character
in organic evolution? acquired due to the darker environment
(a) Struggle for existence (b) Natural selection whereby the darker forms
(b) Discontinuous variation were selected.
(c) Parasites and predators as natural enemies (c) Appearance of the darker coloured
(d) Survival of the fittest individuals due to very poor sunlight
Rajasthan PMT-2007 (d) Protective mimicry
Ans. (b) : Darwin in his Natural Selection Theory, did not AIPMT-2009
believe in any role of discontinuous variation. Discontinuous Ans. (b) : In the case of peppered moth (Biston
variation are caused by sudden unpredictable changes in the betularia) the black-coloured from became dominant
chromosome or gene mutation. over the light-coloured form in England during
237. Convergent evolution is illustrated by industrial revolution. This is an example of natural
(a) starfish and cuttle fish selection whereby the darker forms were selected
(b) dogfish and whale because during post industrialization period, the tree
(c) rat and dog become dark due to industrial smoke and soots. Under
(d) bacterium and protozoan this condition the light coloured moth did not survive
Rajasthan PMT-2007 / AIPMT -2003 due to predators.
VMMC -2002 241. In Bougainvillea and Cucurbita, the axillary
Ans. (b) : Dogfish and whale are an example of bud is modified into thorn and tendril
convergent evolution as they have similar character. respectively. This is an example of
Convergent evolution create analogous structure that (a) Divergent Evolution
have similar form or function, but that were not present (b) Convergent Evolution
in the last common ancestor of those groups. (c) Co-evolution
238. The diversity in the type of beaks of finches (d) Micro Evolution
adapted to different feeding habits on the Karnataka CET-2019
Galapagos islands, as observed by Darwin, Ans. (a) : Divergent evolution is the process whereby
provides evidence for groups from the same common ancestor evolve and
(a) origin of species by natural selection accumulate differences, for example thorn of
(b) intraspecific variations Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita.
(c) intraspecific competition 242. Which evidence of evolution related to
(d) interspecific competition Darwin's finches:
Punjab MET-2010 (a) Evidences from biogeographical distribution
Ans. (a) : Darwin during his famous voyage, observed (b) Evidences from comparative anatomy
that finches from various Islands of Galapagos had (c) Evidences from embryology
beaks of different sizes and shapes. He observed that (d) Evidences from palaeontological
this was due to adaptation to different available food AIPMT-2000
type this provides evidences for origin of species by Ans. (a) : Biogeographical evidence of evolution is
natural selection. related to Darwin's finches. Darwins finches are
Nature selects those set of characters that are best categorized as an example of biogeography because of
adapted to the environment. This has resulted in the their adaptive radiation nature, and they have distinct
great diversity seen in the population of Finches. beak shapes and sizes that evolve over a short period.
Evolution 634 YCT
243. Which one of the following options gives one 247. The theory that environment can bring about
correct example each of convergent evolution changes in individuals was proposed by
and divergent evolution? (a) Mendel (b) Darwin
Convergent evolution Divergent evolution (c) Lamarck (d) Lyell
(a) Bones of forelimbs Wings of butterfly AP EAMCET-2011
of Vertebrates and birds Ans. (c): The first modern theory of evolution the
(b) Thorns of Eyes of Octopus inheritance of acquired structures that transmits to the
Bougainvillea and and Mammals offspring was put forward by Jean Baptist de Lamarck.
tendrils of Cucurbita It has been recognized that the inheritance of acquired
characters is not transmitted to the offspring. Hence
(c) Eyes of Octopus Bones of forelimbs Lamarck's theory can hardly be accepted in the present
and mammals of Vertebrates century. Darwin directly accepted the Lamarck's theory
(d) Thorns of Wings of in the origin of species under the heading 'The effect of
Bougainvillea and butterflies and use and disuse'. He also uses Lamarck's theory in 'The
tendrils of Cucurbita birds descent of man in relation to sex' (Sexual selection
AIPMT (Screening)-2012 theory).
Ans. (c) : Development of similar adaptive functional 248. Which is not true of Archaeopteryx?
structures in unrelated group of organisms is called (a) Jaws are modified into beak
convergent evolution. It show analogy. (b) Tail is bony and long
e.g. Eye of octopus and mammals, (c) Forelimbs are modified into wings
Flippers of penguins and dolphins. (d) Connecting link between birds and mammals
Wing of butterfly and bird. AP EAMCET-2011
• On other hand, divergent evolution involves the Ans. (d) : Archaeopteryx is known as the earliest and
modification of organs according to perform different most primitive bird. It has seen in the late Jurassic
environments. period i.e around 150 – 148 million year ago. It is a
e.g. Bone of forelimbs of vertebrate (whales, bat connecting link between reptiles and birds.
cheetah, human) 249. Development of Pentadactylous nature in
Though these perform different functions they have vertebrates is example of
similar anatomical structure.
(a) adaptation
244. Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of the (b) convergent
following geological era? (c) convergent and adaptative radiation
(a) Devonion (b) Cenozoic
(d) divergent and adaptative radiation
(c) Jurassic (d) Mesozoic
UP CPMT-2006
Ans. (d) : Pentadactylous nature is the characteristic of
Ans. (d) : Dinosaurs dominated in Jurassic period of
tetrapod. Vertebrates such as amphibian's reptile, bird
Mesozoic era. and were extinct by cretaceous period.
and mammals. This nature is evolved from the paired
Devonion:- Age of fishes. fins of primitive fish as an adaptation to locomotion on
Coenozoic:- Age of mammal and modern flora. land.
245. Which of the following is closest relative of 250. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
man: - Cucurbita are example for-
(a) Chimpanzee (b) Gorilla (a) Convergent evolution
(c) Orangutan (d) Gibbon (b) Divergent evolution
AIPMT-2001 (c) Adaptive radiation
Ans. (a) : Chimpanzee is closest relative of man (d) Co-evolution
because. Chimpanzees share about 98.6% of our DNA.
246. Similarities in organism with different AIPMT - 2008
genotype indicates : - Karnataka CET-2014
(a) Microevolution
Ans. (b) :Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
(b) Macroevolution
Cucurbita are example for divergent evolution. They
(c) Convergent evolution
have modified branches and are axillary in position. It
(d) Divergent evolution means axillary branches in Bougainvillea are modified
AIPMT-2001 into thorns for protection from burrowing animals and
Ans. (c) : Similarities in organism with different in Cucurbita into tendrils for climbing. These are called
genotype indicates convergent evolution. In convergent homologous organs and they are result of divergent
evolution different structures evolving for the same evolution. i.e. have common ancestry but different
function. functions.
Evolution 635 YCT
251. Match the following Columns. 253. Among the human ancestors the brain size was
Column-I Column-II more than 1000 CC in:-
(a) Homo habilis
(Organism) (Connecting link)
(b) Homo neanderthalensis
A. Echidna 1. between Annelida (c) Homo erectus
and Mollusca (d) Ramapithecus
B. Peripatus 2. between Reptiles AIPMT-2007
and Mammals Ans. (b) : Among the human ancestors the brain size
C. Neopilina 3. between Annelida was more than 1000 CC in Homo neanderthalensis. It
had cranial capacity of 1300-1600 cubic centimeters
and Arthropoda about the same as that of the Modern man which is
D. Protopterus 4. between Pisces and more as compared to habilis (650-800 cubic
Amphibian centimeters), Homo erectus (800 cubic centimeters).
A B C D The cranial capacity of Ramapithecus was about 500 -
600cc. the average brain size or cranial capacity of
(a) 4 3 2 1 Neanderthal man was larger than the modern human
(b) 2 3 1 4 being.
(c) 3 1 2 4 254. What is common to whale, seal and shark ?
(d) 4 2 1 3 (a) Homoeothermic
JIPMER-2016 (b) Seasonal migration
Ans. (b): (c) Thick subcutaneous fat
(d) Convergent evolution
Column-I Column-II AIPMT-2007
(Organism) (Connecting link) Ans. (d) : The bodies of whales, seals and sharks are
A. Echidna 2. between Reptiles and streamlined and smooth. Whales, seals and sharks have
Mammals a single tail fin which is used for propulsion. These
similar methods in whales, seals and sharks for
B. Peripatus 3. between Annelida and
locomotion are example of convergent evolution.
Arthropoda The appearance of apparently similar structures in
C. Neopilina 1. between Annelida and organism of different lines of descent, is called
Mollusca convergent evolution.
D. Protopterus 4. between Pisces and 255. According to de Vries theory, evolution is
Amphibian (a) Discontinuous
(b) Jerky
252. Select the correct statement from the following:
(c) continuous and smooth
(a) Mutations are random and directional (d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Darwinian variations are small and UP CPMT-2011
directionless Ans. (d): Hugo de vires pioneered the theory of
(c) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt mutation to explain the mechanism of evolution
and gets selected by nature according to him evolution is discontinuous and jerky
(d) All mammals except whales and camels have process frequency of a mutated gene is a population
seven cervical vertebrae expected to increase if that gene is selected by nature.
AIPMT-2007 256. Lamarckism cannot explain
(a) webbed toes in aquatic birds
Ans. (c) : Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt
(b) weak muscles in the son of a wrestler
and gets selected by nature Survival of the fittest refers
(c) long narrow and limbless body of snakes
to the natural process resulting in the evolution of
(d) heterophylly
organism that make them acquire a better design that is
UP CPMT-2011
fit to environment.
Ans. (b): The Lamarckian theory is also known as the
Darwinism is the theory of evolution given by Charles
theory of inheritance of acquired characters or
Darwin which states that a species or organism evolve theory of use and disuse of organ. This theory cannot
due to natural selection which increases their ability to explain the reason of weak muscle in the son of a
adapt, reproduce and compete i.e. it increases the wrestler.
chances of survival and reproduction based on the The inheritance of acquired characteristics is a
fitness of organisms, which were most suitably adapted hypothesis that physiological changes acquired over the
to the environment and get selected by Nature. life of an organism may be transmitted to offspring.
Evolution 636 YCT
261. Select the correct group/set of Australian
C. Adaptive Radiation Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.
(a) Lemur, Anteater, Wolf
257. Which of these in NOT an example for (b) Tasmanian wolf, Bobear, Marsupial mole
Adaptive radiation? (c) Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger
(a) Long-necked Giraffe (b) Darwin's finches (d) Mole, Flying suirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat
(c) Australian marsupials (d) Placental mammals NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 Ans. (c) : Marsupials exhibit adaptive radiation into
Ans. (a) : Darwin's Finches, Australian marsupials, varieties of animals.
placental mammals are example of adaptive radiation. • Each of which appears to be similar to the
Long-necked Giraffe are not example of adaptive radiation. corresponding placental mammal this is called
258. Which of the following are homologous organs "convergent evolution".
(a) Wings of birds & Locust • It happens when the two unrelated species develop the
(b) Wings of birds (Sparrow) & Pectoral fins of fish same features because they live in similar habitats.
(c) Wings of bat & Butterfly 262. Analogous organs have
(d) Legs of frog & Cockroach (a) Different origin but similar functions
AIPMT-2002 (b) Common origin and similar functions
Ans. (b) : Homologous organ - which have the same (c) Different origin and different functions
origin and similar basic structure but may differ in (d) Common origin but different functions
external appearance and function. CMC Vellore-2014 / VMMC-2011
E.g.- Wing of birds and pectoral fins of fish. Ans. (a) : Analogous organs/structures – The organs
Analogous organ-Anatomically different but which have similar functions but are different in their
functionally same. e.g: structure details and origin are called analogous organs. The
(a) Wings of birds and locusts analogous structures are the result of convergent evolution.
Example – Analogous organs are wings of birds and
(b) Wings of bat and butterfly. butterflies, flippers of penguins and dolphins, eyes of
(c) Pectoral fin of shark and flipper of dolphins. the octopus and of mammals , sweet potato and potato.
259. Which of the following statements is not true? 263. Darwin's finches refers to
(a) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair (a) Fossils of birds collected by Darwin at
of homologous organs Galapagos islands
(b) Analogous structures are a result of (b) A type of birds present of Galapagos islands
convergent evolution (c) Migratory birds collected by Darwin at
(c) Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy Galapagos islands
(d) Homology indicates common ancestry (d) Fossils of reptiles collected by Darwin at
NEET-2022 Galapagos islands
Ans. (a) : Flippers of penguins and dolphins are analogous Punjab MET-2009 / Rajasthan PMT-2009
organs as they help in swimming but do not have the same Ans. (b) : Darwin's finches refers to the small birds
structure. These result in the convergent evolution. present on Galapagos Islands. Starting from a single
• Homologous organs have the same structure but have species from mainland in South America, 14 species On
different functions, according to the needs of the finches divergent due to adaptive radiation.
organisms. Hence homology indicates common ancestry. Ex:- Darwin observed that the finches are evolved due
• Analogous organs have developed for the same to the difference in their habitat.
function but do not show a similarly in structure. 264. The classical example of adaptive radiation in
Hence they are a result of convergent evolution. development of new species is
• Ex- Wings of birds and insects that perform the same (a) Darwin finches (b) Marsupials of Australia
process that is flying. insects wings are the outgrowths (c) Giant turtle (d) All of the above
of the insects exoskeleton that enable insects to fly. Bird UP CPMT-2004
wings are a paired forelimb in birds. Ans. (d) : The classical example of adaptive radiation
260. Convergent evolution is illustrated by————— during formation of new species is marsupials of
Australia, Darwin's finches and giant Tortoise.
(a) Dog fish and whale
Adoptive radiation is the rapid diversification of a
(b) Rat and Dog single species into a variety of new species that occupy
(c) Star fish and cuttlefish different ecology niches. Darwin finches are a group of
(d) Bacterium and Protozoan 18 species of finches that are found on Galapagos
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I Islands in Antarctica region. The finches have evolved
Ans. (a) : Convergent evolution is when different different beak shapes and sizes.
organisms independently evolve similar traits. Dog fish 265. Which of the following is the burrowing
and whale are an example of convergent evolution as marsupial?
they have similar characteristics. (a) Thylacinus (b) Notoryctus
In parallel evolution two species evolve independently (c) Myrmecobius (d) Phascolarctos
of each other and maintain the same level of similarity. Punjab MET-1999 / AP EAMCET-1997
Evolution 637 YCT
Ans. (b) : Notoryctus also known as the marsupial 270. Darwin′s theory of natural selection fails to
mole, is the only burrowing marsupial. It is a small, explain?
blind marsupial that lives in the deserts of Australia. It (a) Role of variations
is well - adapted to its borrowing lifestyle, with strong (b) Survival of the fittest
claws, a pointed snout and thick fur that protects if from (c) Arrival of the fittest
the sand and heat. (d) Struggle for the existence
266. The adaptive similarities in different animals, AP EAMCET-2001
found in the same habitat, is called Ans. (c) : Darwin's theory of natural selection explains the
(a) Adaptive radiation survival of the fittest, role of variations, struggle for
(b) Convergent evolution existence but is unable to explain the arrival of the fittest.
(c) Parallel evolution Natural selection is the process by which individuals
(d) Retrogressive evolution with traits that are better suited to their environment are
Punjab MET-1999 more likely to survive and reproduce.
Ans. (b) : Convergent evolution – Convergent 271. Finches of Galapagos islands differ from main
evolution refers to the evolution in different lineages of land finches in size, colour and food habits. It is
structures that are similar or 'analogous' but that cannot due to ________.
be attributed to the existence of a common ancestor, in (a) Geographical isolation
other words, the fact that the structures are analogous (b) Reproductive isolation
does not reflect homology. (c) Ethological isolation
267. An evolutionary process, giving rise to new (d) Seasonal isolation
species adapting to new habitats and ways of MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I
life is called Ans. (a) : Geographical isolation - Geographical
(a) adaptive radiation (b) adaptation isolation is the separation of related organisms by
(c) convergent evolution (d) microevolution geographical barriers such as mountains, valleys,
DUMET-2008 deserts, water bodies, glaciers, forests etc. sea water
Ans. (a) : Adaptive radiation – Adaptive radiation (= isolator the islands from mainland land separate aquatic
Divergent evolution). Development of different fauna and flora of lakes and ponds. High mountains
functional structures from a common ancestral form for isolate adjacent lands while mountains are separated
adapting to new habitats and ways of life is called from one are another by valleys. Geographical isolation
adaptive radiation. The concept of adaptive radiation in is a very important factor in production of new species
evolution was developed by H.F. Osborn in 1898. so, Darwin's finches living on Galapagos islands differ
Example: Darwin’s finches of the Galapagos islands not only among themselves but also from mainland
had common ancestors but how have different types of finches in size, colour, beak and food habits due to
modified beaks according to their food types of environmental conditions and Geographical barriers or
modified beaks according to their food habits. isolation.
268. Darwin's finches provide an excellent evidence 272. Parallelism is
in favor of organic evolution. These are related (a) Adaptive convergence
to which of the following evidences? (b) Adaptive divergence
(a) Embryology (c) Adaptive convergence of for off species
(b) Paleontology (or fossils) (d) Adaptive convergence of closely related
(c) Anatomy species
(d) Biogeography (or geographic distribution) CMC Vellore-2014
Manipal-2012, 2000 / AMU-2007 / WB JEE-2006 Ans. (d) : It is a adaptive convergence of closely related
Ans. (d) : Biogeography is the study of the geographic species in evolution . The species show morphological
distribution of plants and animals . The biogeography resemblance in parallel evolution. It occurs mainly
evidence for organic evolution is based on the when two species evolve independently and maintain
observation that different species of plants and animals the same level of similarity.
are found in different parts of the world. 273. Which of the following set contains only
269. Adaptive radiation is an example for: homologous organs?
(a) Whales flipper, horses forelimb, human hand
(a) Directional selection
(b) Wings of butterfly, crow and insect
(b) Diversifying selection
(c) Horses forelimb, insect wing, human hand
(c) Stabilizing selection
(d) Vermiform appendix, body hair, and patella
(d) Sympatric speciation
Uttarakhand PMT-2010 / AP EAMCET-2003
BCECE-2008
Ans. (b) : Adaptive radiation is an evolutionary process Ans. (a) : Homologous organs are morphologically
that produces new species from a single, rapidly, same and have similar internal structure and perform
diversifying lineage. This process occurs due to natural different function.
selection. An example of adaptive radiation is Darwin's For example : The flapper of a whale, the forelimb of a
finches, found in Galapagos Islands. A large variety of horse and the hand of a human are all homologous
finches is present in Galapagos Islands. organs.
Evolution 638 YCT
274. The mode of speciation mediated by Choose the correct answer from the options
geographical isolation is referred to as given below.
(a) Adaptive radiation (A) (B) (C) (D)
(b) Allopatric speciation (a) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(c) Parapatric speciation (b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) Sympatric speciation (c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
KVPY SA-2019 (d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Ans. (b) : Allopatric speciation occurs when population NEET-2021
of a species become geographically isolated from each Ans. (b) :
other, leading to reproductive isolation and ultimately (A) Adaptive (iv) Darwin finches.
the formation of distinct species. Then term '' allopatric radiation
'' means '' different homeland''.
(B) Convergent (iii) Wings of Butterfly and
• Allopatric speciation occur by many type evolution bird.
geographical isolation, genetic divergence ,
reproductive isolation, speciation, this process helps (C) Divergent (ii) Bone of forelimbs in
explain the incredible diversity of life on earth, as evolution man and whale.
isolated populations adapt to their unique environment (D) Evolution by (i) Selection of resistant
and gradually evolve into distinct specie. anthropogenic varieties due to
275. Natural selection where more individuals action excessive use of
acquire specific character value other than the herbicides and
mean character value, leads to pesticides resistant
(a) Random change varieties.
(b) Stabilising change 278. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect
(c) Directional change are :
(d) Disruptive change (a) Homologous structures and represent
convergent evolution
NEET-2022
(b) Homologous structures and represent
Ans. (c) : In directional natural selection more divergent evolution
individuals acquire value other than the mean character (c) Analogous structures and represent
value. convergent evolution
• No random change in natural selection. (d) Phylogenetic structures and represent
• Nature selection leads to stabilization when more divergent evolution
individual acquire mean character value. AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
• In disruptive change more individuals acquire Ans. (c) : The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect
peripheral character value at both ends of the shows analogous structures and represent convergent
distribution curve. evolution.
276. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are • Analogous structures also called homoplasies, are
examples of traits of different species that have similar function.
(a) Convergent evolution These similarities are result of convergent evolution,
(b) Industrial melanism where different species independently adapt to
(c) Natural selection similar environmental, ecological niches leading to
(d) Adaptive radiation the development of similar traits. Such as wing in
NEET-2020 Phase-I birds and bat both have wing that enable them to fly ,
Ans. (a): Convergent evolution is defined as the process but the evolve independent . Birds have feathered
in which organism evolve similar body forms , wing while bats have membranous (patagium) wings.
coloration and adaptation. Flipper of penguins and • Convergent evolution is a kind of evolution where in
dolphins have different ancestor but have similar traits. organisms evolve structures that have similar
277. Match List - I with List - II (analogous) structures or functions in spite of their
List - I List - II evolutionary ancestors being very dissimilar or
unrelated.
(A) Adaptive (i) Selection of
radiation resistant varieties
due to excessive
use of herbicides
and pesticides
(B) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs
evolution in man and Whale
(C) Divergent (iii) Wings of Butterfly
evolution and Bird
(D) Evolution by (iv) Darwin Finches
anthropogenic
action
Evolution 639 YCT

279. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking ; 283. The similarity of bone structure in the
forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of. (a) Homology (b) Analogy
(a) Analogous organs (c) Adaptive radiation (d) Convergent evolution
(b) Adaptive radiation NEET-2018
(c) Homologous organs Ans. (a) : The similarity of bone structure in the
(d) Convergent evolution forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
AIPMT-2014 homology. Homology is the shared similarity of
Ans. (c) : Homologous organs are morphological same structures due to common ancestry. The forelimbs of
and have similar internal structure and perform different vertebrates such as bats, whales, humans, and lizards,
function. Forelimbs of a cat, lizard used in walking, have the same basic bone structure, despite their
forelimbs of a whale used in swimming and forelimbs functions. This suggests that all of these vertebrates
of bats used in flying. share a common ancestor that had the same basic
280. Which one of the following are analogous forelimb structure.
structures 284. Among the following sets of examples for
(a) Wings of bat and wings of pigeon divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:
(b) Gills of prawn and lungs of man. (a) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(c) Thorns of bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita (b) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(d) Flippers of dolphin and legs of horse (c) Eye of octopus, bat and man
AIPMT-2014 (d) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
Ans. (b) : Analogous structure are biological structure NEET-2018
having similar or corresponding function but not from Ans. (c) : Divergent evolution result in the homologous
the same evolutionary origin. Lungs of man and gills of structures i.e. having same structure but are different in
prawn demonstrate a similar structure. Hence, they are function like-forelimbs, heart-brain of vertebrate which
analogous structures. have developed along different directions due to
281. In Australia, marsupials and placental adaptation to different need where as eye of octopus, bat
mammals have evolved to share many similar and man is an example of analogous structure showing
characteristics. This type of evolution may be convergent evolution.
referred to as i. Homologous organs : Have a similar origin but
(a) Convergent Evolution (b) Adaptive Radiation perform different functions.
(c) Divergent Evolution (d) Cyclical Evolution Ex- Forelimb of man and front leg of bull.
NEET (Odisha)-2019 ii. Analogous organ : Analogous organ are different
Ans. (a) : Convergent evolution is the process by which in basic structure but perform same function.
organisms that are not closely related independently Ex- Wing of insect, tailfins of lobster (Fish).
evolve similar traits as a result of having to adapt to
285. The process by which organisms with different
similar environments or ecological niches .
evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic
• In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have adaptation in response to a common
evolved to share many similar characteristics, such as environmental challenge, is called :
carnivorous teeth, long legs for running, and pouches
(a) Adaptive radiation
for carrying young. This is because they have adapted to
similar ecological niches such as hunting insect and (b) Natural selection
small animals in open grasslands. (c) Convergent evolution
282. A population of a species invades a new area. (d) Non-random evolution
Which of the following condition will lead to NEET-2013
Adaptive Radiation? Ans. (c) : Convergent evolution is defined as the
(a) Area with many habitats occupied by a large process whereby distantly related organism
number of species. independently evolve similar trait to adapt to similar
(b) Area with large number of habitats having ecological niches.
very low food supply. • Distantly related organisms can resemble one another
(c) Area with a single type of vacant habitat for a different reason. Convergent evolution, the
(d) Area with many types of vacant habitats. independent evolution of similar features in different
NEET (Odisha)-2019 lineages.
Ans. (d) : Adaptive radiation is the process by which a • Convergent evolution occurs in unrelated group of
population of organisms rapidly diversifies into a organism. It is the development of similar functional
variety of new forms , adapted to different ecological structures but in unrelated groups.
niches. This can happen when a population invades a • The process of evolution of different species in a
new environment with many vacant habitats as there given geographical area starting from a point and
will be less competition for resources and more literally radiating to other areas of geography is
opportunities for natural selection to favor different called adaptive radiation,
adaptations. • Natural selection is the basis of evolution.
Evolution 640 YCT
286. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show 289. Which one of the following pairs in
different patterns of structure, yet they mismatched-
perform similar function. This is an example (a) Savanna - acacia trees
of: (b) Coniferous forest - evergreen trees
(a) Analogous organs that have evolved due to (c) Tundra – permafrost
divergent evolution (d) Prairie – epiphytes
(b) Homologous organs that have evolved due to AIPMT-2005
convergent evolution
Ans. (d) : The mismatched pair is Prairie- epiphytes .
(c) Homologous organs that have evolved due to
divergent evolution • Epiphytes are plants that grow on other plants, but
(d) Analogous organs that have evolved due to not parasitic on them. They are found in moist
convergent evolution tropical areas, such as rainforests. Prairies are
grasslands, which are typically dry and have few
NEET-2013
trees. Therefore, epiphytes are not found in prairies.
Ans. (d) :When two or more organ have similar • Savannas covers almost half the surface of Africa,
function but their origin is different, then they are called
and large area of Australia, South America and India.
analogous organ.
• Tundra is found in the regions just below the ice caps
• The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different
of the Arctic, extending across North America to
pattern of structure, yet perform similar function, this
Europe and Siberia in Asia.
is an example of analogous organ that have evolved
due to convergent evolution. • Coniferous forest, vegetation composed primarily of
e.g.: Fin of Whale, Wings of birds, Ostrich. Both are cone-bearing needle -leaved or scale-leaved
analogous in nature. Octopus, squid, cattle fish, evergreen trees, found in areas that have long winters
nautilus all have differently shaped pupils an octopus and moderate to high annual precipitation.
has rectangular pupils. (w - shaped pupils.) Ex- Fir, pine, spruce and larch.
• Homologous character shares many biological 290. More than 70% of world's fresh water is
properties in the different organism in which it occurs. contained in –
e.g.: The arm of a human the wing of a birds or bat, (a) Antarctica (b) Polar ice
the leg of dog and flipper of dolphin or whale are (c) Glaciers and Mountains (d) Greenland
Homologous in structure. AIPMT-2005
287. Which one of the following does not have Ans. (b) : More than 70% of the world's fresh water is
annual migration contained in polar ice, which is the ice that covers the
(a) Arctic tern (b) Siberian crane Arctic and Antarctic regions. This ice is formed from
(c) Salamander (d) Salmon snow that has accumulated over thousands of years and
AIPMT-2006 has been compressed into solid ice. Polar ice is an
important source of fresh water for many parts of the
Ans. (c) : Annual migration is the seasonal movement world, and it also plays a vital role in regulating the
of animals from one habitat to another in search of food, earth's climate.
betters conditions, or reproductive needs. Some animals
migrate on a yearly cycle, while others migrate only 291. Darwin in his 'Natural Selection Theory' did
once in their life time. not believe in any role of which one of the
following in organic evolution: -
• Salamanders do not have annual migration but they (a) Parasites and predators as natural enemies
may move locally within their habitats depending on the
weather and food availability. The other as like Arctic (b) Survival of the fittest
tern, Siberian cranes, and Salmons, all have annual (c) Struggle for existence
migration patterns that span thousands of miles. (d) Discontinuous variations
288. Praying mantis is a good example of- AIPMT-2003
(a) Mullerian mimicry Ans. (d): According to Darwin in his “Natural selection
(b) Warning colouration theory” did not believe any role of discontinuous
variation in organic evolution. Variation according to
(c) Social insects Darwin happend in continuous manner hence
(d) Camouflage discontinuous variation according to Darwin didn't have
AIPMT-2006 any role in organic evolution as he considered it to be
Ans. (d) : Praying mantis is a good example of an innate property of living organism.
camouflage. 292. Significance of mimicry is
• Camouflage is an adaptation that allows organism to (a) Attack (offence) (b) Protection (defense)
blend in with their surroundings, making them less (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Isolation
visible to predators. Praying mantises have a variety of AIPMT-2002
camouflage adaptations such as their green or brown Ans. (c) : Mimicry occurs when a given species,
coloration, which helps them to blend in with leaves and resembles another for its own benefit. It may help a
branches. They also have triangular bodies that predator in capturing food (offense) or it can help a prey
resemble leaves, and they can often be found sitting in avoiding capturing.
perfectly still, making them even more difficult to see. So option A and B are correct.
Evolution 641 YCT
293. As an example of adaptive radiation, Darwin Ans. (a) : Convergent evolution is responsible for the
observed a variety of Finches in___ resemblance between widely different groups with
(a) South Africa (b) Madagascar similar adaptability.
(c) Galapagos Islands (d) East Indies For example-Flight has evolved in both bat and insect,
MHT CET-2018 and they have wings, which are adaptations to flight.
Ans. (c) : Adaptive radiation, Darwin observed a 298. Darwin's finches are a good example of –
variety of finches in Galapagos Islands. The Galapagos (a) Industrial melanism
finches are a classic example of adaptive radiation. (b) Connecting link
Their common ancestor arrived on the islands a few (c) Adaptive radiation
million years ago since then, a single species has (d) Convergent evolution
evolved into different species that are adopted to fill JIPMER-2012 / AIPMT (Screening)-2010
different life styles. AIPMT-2008
294. Which one of the following animals shows Ans. (c) : Different species of finches had evolved on
discontinuous distribution different islands, their distinctive beaks being an
(a) Green muscles (b) Bats adaptation to distinct natural habitat or environmental
(c) Lung fishes (d) Pacific salmons niches. Darwin's finches are a good example of adaptive
DUMET-2011 radiation. It is an evolutionary process starting from a
point in a geographical are giving rise to new species
Ans. (c) : A distribution of a species is broken by depending upon habitat.
uninhabited areas which are sometimes very large stretches
of oceans, it is called discontinuous distribution. Lung 299. Evolution of different species in a given area
fishes show discontinuous distribution. starting from a point and spreading to other
geographical areas is known as:
295. Reproductive isolation in sympatric speciation (a) Migration (b) Divergent evolution
develops without a (c) Adaptive radiation (d) Natural selection
(a) Geographic barrier NEET-2020 Phase-II / AIPMT (Screening)-2012
(b) Barrier to gene flow Ans. (c) : Evolution of different species in a given area
(c) Change in chromosome number starting from a point and Spreading to other
(d) Barrier to mating geographical area is known as adaptive radiation.
AIIMS-2017 Adaptive radiation was first observed by Darwin in
Ans. (a) : In sympatric speciation, groups from the same Galapagos Island. He observed the variation in the beak
ancestral population evolve into separate species without types of the finches. All the finches developed beaks
any geographical separation. Sympatric speciation according to the kind of food available to them and
occurs when there are no physical barriers preventing any thus, evolved form the conventional seed-eating finches
members of a species from mating with another and all to vegetarian and Insectivorous finches.
members are in close proximity to one another. 300. The finch species of Galapagos Islands are
296. Assertion (A) : Oversized antlers in the Irish grouped according to their food sources. Which
deer lead to its extinction of the following is not a finch food?
Reason (R) : Darwinism explains the origin of (a) Seeds (b) Carrion
new species is due to the accumulation of (c) Insects (d) Tree buds
adaptive variations. NEET (Karnataka)-2013
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct Ans. (b) : Darwin finches show adaptive radiation.
explanation to (A) This radiation occurred in response to various food
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not a correct resources available. These finches feed on insects. Tree
buds, seeds, cactus etc. Carrion are dead bodies and no
explanation to (A)
finches feed on them.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true 301. The peculiar primitive animals found in
Madagascar but absent in Africa are
AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-I (a) Elephants (b) Penguins
Ans. (b) : Oversized antlers in the Irish deer lead to its (c) Lemurs (d) Echidnas
extinction. It is a giant extinct deer. The largest deer AP EAMCET-2008
species ever that stood up to seven feet at the shoulder, Ans. (c) : Madagascar is the only place in the world
Darwinism explains the origin of new species is due to where lemurs are found in wild island. Peculiar
the accumulation of adaptive variation. Both Assertion primitive animals found in Madagascar but absent in
& reason are true but Reason is not a correct Africa are lemurs. Madagascar is home to some of the
explanation to Assertion. world's most unique flora and fauna.
297. Resemblance between widely different groups 302. One of the important consequences of
due to a common adaptation is known as geographical isolation is:-
(a) Adaptive convergence (a) Random creation of new species
(b) Adaptive divergence (b) No change in the isolated fauna
(c) Progressive evolution (c) Preventing Speciation
(d) Retrogressive evolution (d) Speciation through reproductive isolation
Manipal-2014 AIPMT-2007
Evolution 642 YCT
Ans. (d) : Speciation through reproductive isolation is one 305. In a population, Hardy Weinberg equilibrium
of the important consequences of geographical isolation. is disturbed by following factors EXCEPT___
• Geographical isolation happens when a group of (a) Genetic drift (b) Gene flow
plants, animals or others living individuals are (c) Mutations (d) Non-random mating
separated from mixing genes within the individuals MHT CET-2019
in the same species. Ans. (b) : The Hardy - Weinberg equilibrium is a
• Geographical isolation may ultimately lead to the mathematical model that describes the frequencies of
populations becoming separate species by adaptive alleles and genotypes in a population. It assumes that
radiation. the population is large, that mating is random, and that
there is no gene flow. If these assumptions are met, the
303. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an allele and genotype frequencies will remain constant
evidence in favor of- from generation to generation.
(a) Biogeographical Evolution • Gene flow can introduce new alleles into a
(b) Special Creation population, but it does not, by itself, disrupt the
(c) Evolution due to Mutation Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. This is because gene
(d) Retrogressive Evolution flow is a two-way street. Individuals can also
AIPMT-2007 migrate out of the population, taking their alleles
Ans. (a) : The finches of Galapagos islands Provide an with them. This means that the overall frequency of
evidence in favor of biogeographical evolution. alleles in the population may change, but the Hardy-
Biogeographical evolution is a process in which gene Weinberg equilibrium will still be maintained.
pool of a population gradually changes in response to 306. Match the phenomenon listed under column I
environment pressure, natural selection and genetic with those listed under column II. Select the
mutations. correct answer from the options given.
• Retrogressive Evolution- The phenomenon of Column I Column II
retrogressive evolution means the formation of simple A Warburg effect p Change in gene
organs from complex. Ex. Flightless birds have evolved frequency by chance
from flying birds as they lost the ability to fly.
B Pasteur effect q Postponing severance in
• The theory of special creation stated that life was the leaves by applying
gifted by supernatural power that is invisible but is cytokinin
responsible for the creation of life. It was proposed
by father Suarez as he was strong believer in C Emerson effect r Decline in the consumption
supernatural power and believed in this theory. of respiratory substrate
• Mutation is the engine of evolution in that it due to a change from
generates the genetic variation of which the anaerobic to aerobic
evolutionary process depends. respiration
D Wright effect s Inhibitory effect of O2 on
D. Hardy Weinberg Principle photosynthesis
t Enhancement of
304. In a population of 800 rabbits showing Hardy- photosynthesis by
Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of subjecting chlorophyll to
recessive individuals was 0.16. What is the the effect of two different
frequency of heterozygous individuals? wavelengths of light
(a) 0.36 (b) 0.4
(c) 0.48 (d) 0.84 (a) A=t, B = s, C = p, D = q
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 (b) A = s, B = r, C = t, D = p
(c) A = s, B = t, C = q, D = r
Ans. (c) : According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, (d) A = t, B = r, C = p, D = s
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 Karnataka CET-2008
Where p and q represent the individual allele Ans. (b) :
frequencies. Column-I Column-II
p2=frequency of homozygous condition represented p. A. Warburg effect (s) Inhibitory effect of O2 on
q2=frequency of homozygous condition represented q. photosynthesis.
2pq = frequency of hetrozygous condition. B. Pasteur effect (r) Decline in the consumption
Given, of respiratory substrate
p2 = 0.16 due to a change from
Hence, p = 0.4 anaerobic to aerobic
Using respiration.
p+q=1 C. Emerson effect (t) Enhancement of
0.4 + q = 1 photosynthesis by
subjecting chlorophyll to
q = 1– 0.4 the effect of two different
q = 0.6 wavelength of light.
So, allelic frequency of hetrozygous individual is- D. Wright effect (p) Change in gene frequency
2pq = 2×0.4×0.6 = 0.48 by chance.
Evolution 643 YCT
307. In which of the following population, genetic 311. Change of frequency of alleles in a population
drift operates? results in evolution is proposed in
(a) Island (b) Smaller (a) Darwins theory
(c) Larger (d) Continental (b) Lamarcks theory
WB JEE-2006 (c) Hardy-Weinberg principle
Ans. (b) : Smaller :- Genetic drift is also known as (d) de Vries theory
'Sewall Wright effect. Named after its discoverer. It is J&K CET-2008
random fluctuations in the numbers of gene variants in a
populations. It occurs only by chance. It is non- Ans. (c) : In Hardy - Weinberg law, allele frequencies
directional. Genetic drift can cause elimination of in a population are stable and are constant from
certain alleles or fixation of the other alleles in the generation to generation that cause change in allele
population. Genetic drift refers to a change in the population resulting in evolution.
population of alleles in gene pool. 312. Which of the following defines Hardy
Genetic drift occurs in all populations of non-infinite Weinberg's law?
size, but its effects are strongest in small populations. (a) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 (b) p2 + 3pq + q2 = 1
Generally, it occurred in small populations. 2 2
(c) P + 2pq + q = 0 (d) q2 + p2 + 2pq = 0
308. The chance of elimination of genes from a small
population is an example of DUMET-2008
(a) selection pressure (b) speciation Ans. (a) : p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
(c) adaptation (d) genetic drift According to Hardy Weinberg's law, It is possible to
UP CPMT-2004 calculate all alleles and genotype frequencies using the
Ans. (d) : Genetic Drift - Genetic drift is the change in expressions allele frequency p + q = 1
frequency of an existing gene variant in the population due and genotype frequency p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1.
to random chance. Genetic drift may cause gene variants to Where, p2 = Frequency of homozygous dominant
disappear completely and thereby reduce genetic variation. genotype (AA).
Sometimes the genetic drift so prominent in the new pq = Frequency of heterozygous genotype (Aa)
sample of the population that newly formed population q2 = Frequency of homozygous recessive genotype (aa)
may become a different species. In this case the original
drifted population is termed as founder's and the effect 313. A change in the relative abundance of an allele
is called the founder effect. (the allelic frequency) within a population, over
a succession of generations is called:
309. Genetic drift is the elimination of
(a) individuals (a) micro evolution
(b) chromosomes (b) macro evolution
(c) species (c) co-evolution
(d) gene of some original characteristic of a (d) phylogenetic evolution
species due to epidemics HP CET-2011
BVP-2010 Ans. (a) : Micro evolution :- Micro evolution is the
Ans. (d) : Gene of some original characteristic of a change in genome, or gene pool, for a given species in a
species due to epidemics :- relatively short period of geological time by the
• The genetic drift is the elimination of the genes of alterations of successfully reproducing individuals
certain traits from a small population when a section of within a population.
the species population dies of natural calamity or • Macro evolution is evolution on a scale of separated
migrates to another region is called genetic drift. It gene pools. Macro evolutionary studies focus on
alters the gene frequency of remaining population. change that occurs at or above the level of species, in
Genetic drift is caused by drastic changes in the contrast with micro-evolution, which refers to
frequencies of particular genes by chance alone. smaller evolutionary changes within a species or
310. Which of the following assumption is not population.
belonging to Hardy-Weinberg principle? • In biology, co-evolution is the change of a biological
(a) The population size is very large object triggered by the change of a related object.
(b) Random mating is occurring
• Phylogenetic evolution is not the change in the
(c) Natural selection takes place
relative abundance of an allele with in a population
(d) No mutation occurs over a succession of generation.
MGIMS Wardha-2014
314. Which mechanism of evolution affects the
Ans. (c) : Natural selection takes place : In Hardy- genetic makeup in a population?
Weinberg principle, the natural selection is not
occurring as they explained the natural selection is the (a) Natural selection (b) Adaptation
cause of failure of equilibrium of alleles. (c) Genetic drift (d) Gene mutation
Hardy Weinberg principle states that allele frequencies J&K CET-2014
in a population are stable and is constant from Ans. (c) : Genetic drift :- Genetic drift is the change in
generation to generation. The gene pool (total genes and frequency of an existing gene variant in a population
their alleles in population) remains constant. This is due to random chance. Genetic drift affects the genetic
called genetic equilibrium. makeup of the population.
Evolution 644 YCT
315. Frequency of an autosomal lethal gene is 0.4. Hardy - Weinberg equation for a gene with two alleles
The frequency of carrier in a population or 200 is p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
individual is: Where p is the frequency of the dominant allele A, q is
(a) 72 (b) 96 the frequency of the recessive allele a, according to
(c) 104 (d) 36 formula
VMMC-2006 p+q=1
Ans. (b) : 96 :- The frequency of the recessive allele is = 0.7 + q = 1
q = 0.4 (given) q = 1– 0.7
hence, p = 1–0.4 = 0.6 (as P = 1– q) = 0.3
According to Hardy Weinberg principle 2pq, is the frequency of the heterozygous genotypes
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 So, according to formula. 2pq = 2× 0.7× 0.3
p2 + (0.6)2 = 0.36 2pq = 0.42
q2 = (0.4)2 = 0.16 319. Darwinian fitness is lowered from minimum to
2pq = 0.36 + 0.16 = 0.48 zero, to check the undue accumulation of
deleterious mutations by:
Since, 2pq is the frequency of heterozygous carrier
(a) directional selection
= 0.48 × 200
(b) normalizing selection
= 96 individuals. (c) cladogenesis
316. Group of genes present in an ecosystem is (d) phyletic change
called as : AP EAMCET-2002
(a) genome (b) gene pool Ans. (b) : Normalizing selection :- The removal of
(c) genotype (d) phenotype those alleles that produce deviations from the average
Rajasthan PMT-1998 population phenotype by selection against all deviant
Ans. (b) : Gene pool :- A gene pool refers to the individuals. Such selection will reduce the variance in
combination of all the genes (including allele) present in subsequent generations, also called stabilizing selection.
a reproducing population or species. The genome refers 320. For a gene with two alleles, if the gene
to the complete set of an organism's genetic material, frequency of recessive gene is 0.2. What is the
including all its genes and non-coding sequences. It genotypic frequency of homozygous dominant?
contain the entire hereditary, information. (a) 0.064 (b) 0.8
• Phenotype is the set of observable characteristics or (c) 0.64 (d) 0.32
traits of an organism. AP EAMCET-2002
• Genotype is the genetic makeup of an individual call or Ans. (c) : The Hardy - Weinberg equation is a
organism that determines or contributes to its mathematical equation that describes the expected
phenotype. genotype frequencies in a population under some
317. The concept of genetic drift was introduced by: condition like no mutation, no migration, Large
(a) Sewall Wright (b) Hardy Weinberg population size and no natural selection is essential. the
(c) Julian Huxley (d) G.G. Simpson Hardy - Weinberg equation for a gene with two alleles
Punjab MET-2011 is p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
Karnataka CET-2003 Where p is the frequency of the dominant allele A, q is
the frequency of the recessive allele a, according to
Ans. (a) : The concept of genetic drift was introduced formula
by Sewall Wright. Genetic drift is the change in the q = 0.2
gene frequency in a population by a chance event. The Then,
effects of genetic drift are more profound in a smaller
p+q=1
population. A smaller population already has reduced
gene pool. Loss of alleles from a smaller population will p+ 0.2 = 1
more profoundly be noticeable within a less time p = 1 – 0.2
duration. This leads to change in the allele frequencies = 0.8
randomly. p2 = frequency of Homozygous dominant
318. A population is in Hardy-Weinberg q2 = frequency of Homozygous recessive
equilibrium for a gene with only two alleles. If Hence, p2 = (0.8)2 = 0.64
the gene frequency of an allele ‘A’ is 0.7, 321. For natural selection, the important factor is
genotype frequency of ‘Aa’ is: (a) disuse (b) variation
(a) 0.21 (b) 0.42 (c) catastrophic (d) special creation
(c) 0.36 (d) 0.7 CG PMT-2011
AP EAMCET-2003 Ans. (b) : Variation :- For natural selection, important
Ans. (b) : The Hardy - Weinberg equation is a factor is variation. Variation means that some
mathematical equation that describes the expected individuals have traits better suited to the environment
genotype frequencies in a population under some than other.
condition like no mutation, no migration, large This process can cause population to change over time,
population size and no natural selection is essential. The leading to the evolution of new species.
Evolution 645 YCT
322. At a particular locus the frequency of A allele 325. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of
is 0.6 and that of a is 0.4. What would be the heterozygous individual is represented by
frequency of heterozygotes in random mating (a) P2 (b) 2pq
population at equilibrium ? (c) pq (d) q2
(a) 0.36 (b) 0.16 NEET-2016 Phase-II
(c) 0.24 (d) 0.48 Ans. (b) : The frequency of heterozygous individual in
Karnataka CET-2018 / AIIMS-2014 the Hardy-Weinberg equation is represented by 2pq.
CMC Vellore -2014 The Hardy-Weinberg equation is a mathematical
Ans. (d) : The Hardy-Weinberg equation is given as – equation that describes the expected frequencies of
P2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 genotypes in a population under ideal conditions. The
Where, p = frequency of 'A' allele equation is, p2 + 2pq + q2.
p = frequency of Homozygous dominant genotype i.e. Where p2, represents the frequency of homozygous
2
AA. dominant individuals (AA), q2 represents the frequency

q = frequency of 'a' allele. (recessive) of homozygous recessive individual (aa), while 2pq is
q2 = frequency of Homozygous recessive genotype i.e. the frequency of heterozygous (Aa) individuals.
aa. 326. A population will not exist in Hardy -
2pq = frequency of Heterozygous genotype i.e. 'Aa' Weinberg equilibrium if :
According to question, (a) There are no mutations
Frequency of A = 0.6 (b) There is no migration
Frequency of – a = 0.4 (c) The population is large
So, (d) Individuals mate selectively
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 AIPMT-2015
(0.6)2 + 2pq + (0.4)2 = 1 Ans. (d) : A population will not exist in Hardy-
0.36 + 2pq + 0.16 = 1 Weinberg equilibrium if individuals mate selectively.
2pq = 1 – 0.52 Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium assumes random mating,
= 0.48 meaning individuals mate without preference for
So, the frequency of Heterozygous (Aa) in a random specific traits. This ensures that allele frequencies
mating population equilibrium is 0.48. remain constant over generations. If selecting mating
323. Random genetic drift in a population leads to occurs, it can lead to changes in allele frequencies
(a) highly genetically variable individuals violating the equilibrium assumption.
(b) increased inbreeding within a population 327. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding
(c) constant low mutation rate higher milk output represents
(d) large population size (a) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this
JCECE-2015 / AIPMT-2003 character in the population
Ans. (b) : Increased inbreeding within a population - (b) Directional as it pushes the mean of the
Random genetic drift is the change in the allele character in one direction
frequencies of a population due to chance. It can lead to (c) Disruptive as it splits the population into two
the loss of genetic variation in a population, as well as one yielding higher output and the other
the fixation of certain alleles Random genetic drift is lower output
not influenced by any selective forces, It can lead to the (d) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it
loss of genetic variation as certain alleles may lost from stabilizes the population to produce higher
the population by chance. yielding cows
324. Which of the following theories was not given NEET-2017
by Darwin? Ans. (b) : The directional stabilization occurs when one
(a) Struggle for existence genotype with desired characters of an individual is
(b) Natural selection favored in a population. In case of artificial selection,
(c) Survival of the fittest high yielding milking cow are preferred. When middle
(d) Genetic drift trait is selected, i.e. cow with intermediate yielding
AFMC-2001 capacity then the selection is termed as stabilizing.
Ans. (d) : Genetic drift :- Genetic drift is a mechanism When the two extreme traits are selected, i.e. cow with
of evolution in which allele frequencies of a population high and low yields respectively then the selection is
change over generations due to chance. Genetic drift is termed as disruptive.
non-directional and non-adaptive. i.e. the genes of a 328. Which of the following is not true for a species
small population changes irrespective of selective (a) Members of a species can interbreed
advantages or disadvantages. (b) Variations occur among members of a species
When migration of section of a population to another place (c) Gene flow does not occur between the
and population occurs, new genes are added to new populations of a species
population causing genetic drift genetic equilibrium. (d) Each species is reproductively isolated from
Genetic drift is at the core of the shifting balance theory every other species.
of evolution coined by Sewall Wright. AIPMT-2005
Evolution 646 YCT
Ans. (c) : Gene flow does not occur between the 332. The natural selection that acts against change
population of a species is incorrect because gene flow in the form and keeps the population constant
occurs between the populations of a species. Gene flow is through the time is :
the movement of genes from one population to another. It (a) Directional (b) Disruptive
can occur through a variety of mechanisms, such as (c) Not acting (d) Stabilizing
migration, dispersal of seeds or pollen and hybridization. Manipal-2010 / AP EAMCET-2006
• Members of a species can interbreed and produce Ans. (d) : The natural selection that acts against change
fertile offspring. in the form and keeps the population constant through
• Variations occur among members of a species due to the time is stabilizing. Stabilizing natural selection is an
genetic recombination and mutation. important force in maintaining the diversity of life on
• Each species is reproductively isolated from every other earth.
species, means that members of different species cannot • Directional natural selection favors individuals at one
interbreed and produce fertile offspring. extremes of a trait distribution leading to a change in
the population mean over time.
329. Which one of the following is a wrong
statement regarding mutations • Disruptive selection favors individuals at both
extremes of a trait distribution, leading to the
(a) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens formation of two or more distinct populations.
(b) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not
cause mutation 333. Match the following:
(c) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause Set-I Set-II
frame-shift mutations A Disruptive selection i Lucky survivors
(d) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal after the
aberrations calamities who
AIPMT (Mains)-2012 are genetically
Ans. (b) : Change in a single base pair of DNA cause different from
mutation which are called point mutation. Point their original
mutation is a change in a single nitrogenous base. An population.
example of point mutation is sickle cell anemia. It B Directional selection ii Weight of the new
involves mutation in a single base pair in the beta- born babies in
globin chain of hemoglobin pigment of the blood. England
330. In which condition, the gene ratio remains C Stabilizing selection iii DDT resistance in
constant for any species mosquitoes
(a) Sexual selection (b) Random mating D Bottleneck effect iv Darwin’s finches
(c) Mutation (d) Gene flow with different
AIPMT-2002 shapes of beaks
Ans. (b) : According to Hardy-Weinberg law, ''In a The correct match is
large random - mating population that is not affected by (A) (B) (C) (D)
the evolutionary processes of mutation, migration or (a) ii iii iv i
selection, both the allele frequencies and the genotype (b) iii iv ii i
frequencies are constant from generation to generation.
(c) iv iii ii i
331. Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is affected by- (d) i ii iii iv
(a) Natural selection (b) New mutation TS EAMCET-09.05.2019 Shift-I
(c) Genetic drift (d) All of the above Ans. (c) :
Set –I Set-II
Ans. (d) : These are some major types of factors affects
the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. These factors are – (A)Disruptive Darwin's finches with
selection different shapes of
• Natural selection – It favors certain alleles over beaks.
others, which can lead to changes in allele
frequencies over time. (B) Directional selection DDT resistance in
mosquitoes
• New mutation – Mutations introduce new alleles
into a population which can also disrupt Hardy- (C) Stabilizing selection Weight of the new born
Weinberg equilibrium. babies in England
• Genetic drift – It is the random change in allele (D) Bottleneck effect Lucky survivors after
frequencies over time. This can occur more easily in the calamities who are
small population. genetically different
from their original
• Gene flow – It is the movement of alleles between population.
populations.
334. One of the following is also called Sewall
• The Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium is a principle Wright Effect ……….
starting that the genetic variation in a population will (a) Gene Pool (b) Gene flow
remain constant from one generation to the next in (c) Genetic Drift (d) Isolation
the absence of disturbing factors. Karnataka CET-2004
Evolution 647 YCT
Ans. (c) : Genetic Drift is also called Sewall Wright Ans. (a) : In evolutionary biology, convergent evolution
Effect. Genetic drift is change in the frequency of an is a process by which unrelated or distantly related
existing within a population over chance. The phenomena organisms evolve similar body forms, coloration, organs
of genetic drift was explained by Sewall Wright. and adaptations . This happens when species occupy
335. "A brief reduction in size of a population due similar ecological niches and adopt in similar ways in
to natural calamities usually leads to random response to similar selective pressure. Some examples
genetic drift." For this statement, identify the which is related to convergent evolution are shark and
correct example from the following dolphins , Bats and birds and cacti and euphorbia's both
(a) human population of Pitcaim Island evolved spines.
(b) polydactylic dwarfs in Amish population
(c) long necked giraffe
(d) industrial melanism
AP EAMCET-2008
Ans. (b) : The variation that occurs by change in a
small population are collectively called random genetic
drift. It is of two type i.e. Founder effect and bottle neck
effect. Bottle neck effects are natural calamities like
earthquakes, floods, tsunamis etc. Ex. poly dactylic
dwarf individuals are more in old order Amish
population of Lancaster in USA.
336. In a population of plants, some were extremely
tall and the remaining were extremely dwarf. 339. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is known to be
No plants of the population showed affected by gene flow, genetic drift, mutation,
intermediate height. genetic recombinations and
The type of operation of natural selection in the (a) evolution (b) limiting factors
above case is (c) saltation (d) Natural selection
(a) Balancing (b) Directional JIPMER-2014
(c) Stabilizing (d) Disruptive Ans. (d) : Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium - "Genotype
Karnataka CET-2020 frequencies in a population remain constant between
Ans. (d) : In a population of plants, some were generations in the absence of disturbance by outside
extremely tall and the remaining were extremely dwarf. factor".
No plants of the population showed intermediate height. The main factor which affects the Hardy-Weinberg
The type of natural selection is Disruptive. equilibrium are gene flow, genetic drift , mutation,
‘Theory of natural selection’ was given by Darwin. genetic recombination's and Natural selection.
337. The Hardy-Weinberg principle cannot operate 340. Match the following:
if List-I List-II
(a) the population is very large Graph Type of phenotypic
(b) frequent mutations occur in the population distribution
(c) the population has no chance of interaction
with other populations (i) Directional selection
(d) free interbreeding occurs among all members
of the population (A)
Karnataka CET-2012
Ans. (b) : The Hardy- Weinberg principle can't operate
if frequent mutations occurs in population. The Hardy-
(ii) Stabilizing selection
Weinberg principle states that allele frequencies in a
population will remain constant over time in the (B)
absence of evolutionary forces. Theses evolutionary
forces include mutation, migration, natural selection and
generic drift. Mutation is the only factor listed that can
change allele frequencies in a population without the (iii) Disruptive selection
influence of other evolutionary forces.
(C)
338. When two species of different genealogy come
to resemble each other as a result of
adaptation, the phenomenon is termed:-
(a) Convergent evolution (iv) Newly evolved
(b) Divergent evolution (D) population
(c) Microevolution
(d) Co-evolution
AIPMT-2007
Evolution 648 YCT
The correct answer is 343. Darwin proposed the theory of
A B C D (a) inheritance of acquired characters
(a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (b) natural selection
(b) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (c) recapitulation
(c) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (d) continuity of germplasm
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) BCECE-2005 / Rajasthan PMT-2009
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II Punjab MET-2009
Ans. (a) : Ans. (b) : Natural selection :- Charles Darwin
List-I List-II proposed the theory of Natural selection in 1858, as a
way to explain adaptation and speciation.
Graph Type of phenotypic
Natural selection is differential success in reproduction
and its product is adaptation of organisms to their
Newly evolved population environment. Thus, natural selection occurs through an
(A)
interaction between the environment and the variability
inherent in the population.
344. Which of the following is not Drawins
(B) Disruptive selection
conclusion ?
(a) Survival of the fittest
(b) Struggle for existence
Directional selection (c) Inheritance of acquired characters
(C) (d) Origin of species by natural selection
Rajasthan PMT-2009 / Punjab MET-2009
Manipal-2004
Stabilizing selection Ans. (c) : Inheritance of acquired characters :-
(D) Theory of inheritance of acquired character's was
proposed by Jean Baptiste de Lamarck (1744-1829), a
French biologist.
341. Transfer of genetic material between The theory states that – Whatever on individual acquires
populations is best defined as (to possess) characters in its life time due to internal
vital force, effect of environment. New needs and use
(a) Gene flow (b) Genetic drift
and distance of organs, they are inherited (transmitted)
(c) genetic shift (d) speciation to the next generations. The process continues. After
KVPY (SA)-05.11.2017 several generation, the variations are accumulated upto
Ans. (a) : Gene flow is the transfer of genetic material such extent that they give rise to new species.
form one population to another. This can happen As evolution of Giraffe from small neck and forelimbs
through migration, hybridization, or other factors. Gene to long neck and long forelimb. While Darwin's idea is
flow can help to maintain genetic diversity within related with natural selection which concluded the
populations and can also lead to the spread of new theory of origin of species through natural selection.
alleles traits. Struggle for existence and survival of the fittest.
• Genetic drift is the random change in allele 345. Struggle for existence and survival of the fittest
frequencies in a population over time. theories were given by
• Speciation is the process by which two populations (a) Wallace (b) Darwin
of the same species becomes so different that they (c) Lamarck (d) None of these
can and longer interbreed. JCECE-2008
• Genetic shift is a type of rapid evolution that can Ans. (b) : Struggle for existence and survival of the
occur when a population is exposed to a new fittest theories were given by Darwin. Survival of the
environmental changes. fittest; only those organism which have favorable
variations, are at a specific advantage over other, such
E. Brief Account of Evolution individuals survive the struggle for existence while
those, which are less adapted or not adapted, get
342. If speciation takes place due to geographical eliminated. This idea came to be known as "survival of
isolation, it is called the fittest''.
(a) Anagenesis (b) Directional evolution 346. First mammal occur in which era-period?
(c) Phyletic evolution (d) Allopatric speciation (a) Permian-Palaeozoic (b) Triassic-Mesozoic
AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II (c) Tertiary-Coenozoic (d) None of the above
Ans. (d) : Allopatric speciation occurs when a species JCECE-2008
separales into two sepran group which are isolatid from Ans. (b) : Triassic-Mesozoic :- First mammal occur in
one another a physical barries such as A mountain range late Triassic period of Mesozoic era about 200 million
or A water way makes it imposible for them to breed year ago.
with on another. Example of Anopatric specialion charls Origin of mammals takes place in Triassic period. It
darwin galapagos. means Dinosaurs and mammals originated in the same
Evolution 649 YCT
period. Long before the arrival of true mammals, one 351. Dinosaurs become extinct in :
group of extinct reptiles, the synapsids acquired several (a) Permian age (b) Triassic period
mammalian characteristics. They lived through out the (c) Jurassic period (d) Cretaceous period
Permian and Triassic periods. The more mammal like Punjab MET-2003
synapsids belong to the order Therapsida. Ans. (d) : Cretaceous period :- Dinosaurs came into
347. Mammals have originated from which of the existence during Triassic period (i.e. 225 million years
following ago) and dominated during Jurassic period (i.e. 145
(a) Pisces (b) Amphibia million years ago) of Mesozoic era.
(c) Reptilia (d) Aves However, in cretaceous period (i.e. 135 million years
WB JEE-2012 ago) the dinosaurs primitive toothed birds get extinct
Ans. (c) : Reptilia :- Mammals were derived in the Triassic and the modern birds, fishes rise.
period (Mesozoic era) in about 252 million to 201 million 352. Dominant era of amphibians is
years ago from members of the reptilian order Therapsida. (a) precambrian (b) cambrian
The Therapsids members of the sub-class Synapsida (extent (c) permian (d) carboniferous
reptilian group) acquired several mammalian characters, UP CPMT-2010
sometime called as mammal like reptiles.
Ans. (d) : Carboniferous :- Amphibians come into
Such as Cynognathus (dog Jaw) was an carnivorous, wolf existence originate during Devonian period (i.e. 400
sized mammal (called mammal like reptile). It was one of million years ago) and dominated during carboniferous
the ancient reptilian ones furs of mammals who had period (i.e. 350 million years ago) of paleozoic era. The
characters of both reptiles and mammals. Lycachops was Carboniferous period in also called the age of
also a mammal between reptiles and mammals. amphibians.
348. Which is not applicable to the biological species
353. Triassic and Jurassic Periods belong to which
concept?
Era ?
(a) Hybridization
(a) Cenozoic (b) Palaeozoic
(b) Natural population
(c) Mesozoic (d) Proterozoic
(c) Reproductive isolation Tripura JEE-2018
(d) Gene pool
Ans. (c) : Mesozoic :- The Triassic (225 million years
WB JEE-2009 ago) and Jurassic (145 million years ago) periods
Ans. (a) : The biological species concept defines a belongs to Mesozoic era. The Mesozoic era is called as
species as a group of organisms that can interbreed and era of medieval life and age of reptiles and
produce fertile offspring. This concept does not Gymnosperms.
applicable for hybridization, which is the interbreeding Dinosaurs and mammals originated during Triassic
of two different species. period while the Jurassic period is known for origin of
349. Phenomenon of industrial melanism toothed birds and Dinosaurs dominancy.
demonstrates: 354. The golden age of reptiles is
(a) reproductive isolation (a) Coenozoic era (b) Palaeozoic era
(b) genetic isolation (c) Mesozoic era (d) Silurian period
(c) natural selection CMC Ludhiana-2015 / J&K CET-2008
(d) geographical isolation AIIMS-1994 / BVP-2002 / UP CPMT-2003
Rajasthan PMT-2004 Ans. (c) : Mesozoic era :- The Mesozoic era (about 66
Ans. (c) : Industrial melanism is the darkening of the million years ago) is known for golden age of reptiles and
color of animals due to pollution. It is a classical gymnosperms. This era is also called as Age of medieval
example of ''Natural selection'' . In the case of industrial life. Specially in Jurassic period Dinosaurs are dominant,
melanism , the white moths were better camouflage of therefore this period is called as the age of reptiles which
on the light - colored trees in the pre- industrial existed about 145 million year ago in Mesozoic era.
environment while , when the trees became dark with 355. According to Lamarckism, long necked
soot from pollution , the black moths become better
Giraffes evolved because:
camouflaged. As a result, the black moths were more
likely to survive and reproduce and the population of (a) Humans preferred only long necked ones
black moths increased. (b) Of stretching of necks over many generations
by short necked ones
350. Modern synthetic theory of evolution not
(c) Nature selected only long necked ones
involved :
(d) Short necks suddenly changed into long necks
(a) gene mutation (b) gene recombination
Karnataka CET-2002
(c) natural selection (d) increase in size
BCECE-2005 Ans. (b) : According to Lamarckism , long necked
Giraffes evolved because of stretching of necks over
Ans. (d) : The modern synthetic theory of evolution is a many generation by short necked ones. Lamarck argued
comprehensive theory that explains, how evolution that giraffes evolved long because Their ancestors
occurs. It is based on the following factors such as stretched their necks to reach leaves high in trees
Genetic variation (caused by mutation), Natural because the ground vegetation is less developed . This
selection, Isolation etc. The increase in size is not a key stretching caused physical changes in the necks, which
concept of the modern synthetic theory of evolution. were then passed on the next generation.
Evolution 650 YCT
356. The method of classification, called cladistics, is Ans. (a) : Origin of mammals took place in Triassic
based on : period. It means dinosaurs and mammals originated in
(a) Natural system (b) Mutation theory the same period. Long before the arrival of true
(c) Artificial system (d) Evolutionary history mammals, one group of extinct reptiles, the Synapsida
Uttarakhand PMT-2004 acquired several mammalian characteristics. They lived
Ans. (d) : Evolutionary history :- throughout the Permian and Triassic periods. The more
Cladistics is a system of taxonomy in which the mammals like Synapsids belonged to the order
organisms are classified into clades (groups) based on Therapsida.
collective characteristics and having common ancestry. 361. Which one of the following periods is largely
Cladistics is used for classifying organisms and associated with extinction of dinosaurs and
establishing evolutionary relationships between them. increase in the flowering plants and reptiles?
The methodology used in cladistics data is used to (a) Jurassic (b) Triassic
create cladogram that contains diagrams proposing (c) Cretaceous (d) Permian
hypothesis of phylogenetic relationship. JCECE-2018 / DUMET-2009
357. The gymnosperms formed the dominant Ans. (c) : Cretaceous period (135 million years ago) of
vegetation on the earth during the geological Mesozoic era is associated with extinction of dinosaurs
period called and toothed birds rise of modern fishes and birds and of
(a) Carboniferous (b) Permian placental mammals. This period has also dominance of
(c) Triassic (d) Jurassic flowering plants.
AMU-1999 362. Which of the following is not a correct pair?
Ans. (c) : Triassic :- The Triassic period about 225 (a) Mesozoic era – age of mammals
million year's ago belongs to Mesozoic era. The (b) Origin of species – Charles Darwin
Mesozoic era is called as the era of medieval life and (c) Study of fossil-Palaeontology
age of reptiles and gymnosperms. (d) Mutation theory-Hugo de Vries
The Triassic period have abundance of cycads and J&K CET-2006
conifers. During this period the gymnosperms formed
the dominant vegetation on earth. Ans. (a) : Mesozoic era consists of three periods i.e.
Triassic (225 million years ago, Jurassic 145-million
358. Abiogenetic theory of origin states: years ago i.e. Age of reptiles) and cretaceous (135
(a) spontaneous generation million years ago).
(b) organic evolution due to chemical reaction Mesozoic era (252 – 66 million years ago) was the era
(c) origin of life due to pre-existing organisms of medieval life and age of reptiles and gymnosperms.
(d) origin of life from blue green algae While the Cenozoic era known as the age of mammals.
Manipal-2000 363. Dinosaurs were most abundant in:
Ans. (a) : Theory of spontaneous generation or abiogensis (a) Devonian (b) Jurassic
theory was proposed by Thomas Henry Huxley. The (c) Permian (d) Pleistocene
theory of abiogensis states that the evolution of living from SRM JEEE-2019 / J&K CET-2004
non-living matter in spontaneous Haryana PMT-2003
Ex. Meat left open generate flies and maggots . Ans. (b) : The Mesozoic era is broadly classified into
359. The phenomenon ontogeny repeats phylogeny three periods – including Triassic period 225 million
is explained by: year ago, Jurassic period 145 million years ago and
(a) Natural selection (b) Inheritance theory cretaceous period 135 million years ago. The
(c) Mutation theory (d) Recapitulation theory occurrence of the first dinosaurs and mammals was
Manipal-2000 noticed in the Triassic period.
Ans. (d) : Von Baer's law was modified as the Diversification and dominancy of dinosaurs was mostly
Biogenetic law or recapitulation theory by Ernst noticed in the Jurassic period. In Jurassic period both
Haeckel in 1866. Haeckel' biogenetic law states that. carnivores and herbivores were natured vastly. In
'Ontogeny repeats phylogeny'. Ontogeny is the life cretaceous period toothed birds and giant reptiles
history of an organism while phylogeny is the (dinosaurs) got extinct.
evolutionary history of the race of that organism. In 364. The dominant animal during Mesozoic era is:
other words an organism repeats its ancestral history (a) Latimeria (b) Ceratodus
during its development. (c) Plesiosaurus (d) Climatius
For example :- In the development of the frog a fish AP EAMCET-1997 / Manipal-2002
like tailed larva (tadpole) is formed. Which swims with
Ans. (c) : Plesiosaurus were mesozoic reptiles that live
the tail and respires by the gills. This indicates that the
dominantly at the same time as dinosaurs. They were
frog has been evolved from a fish like ancestor. carnivours, aquatic (marine) reptiles that lived from the
360. Mammals are believed to have evolved from Triassic (225 million years ago) to cretaceous (135
reptiles in: million years ago) periods.
(a) Triassic (b) Jurassic They were the largest aquatic animals of that time.
(c) Permian (d) Cretaceous Plesiosaurs that belongs to the suborder pliosauroidea
CG PMT-2011 / Haryana PMT-2002 / AMU-1997 are more properly called pliosaurs.
Evolution 651 YCT
365. According to the Neo-Darwinian theory which 368. The earliest fossil form in phylogeny of horse is
of the following is responsible for the origin of (a) Merychippus (b) Mesohippus
new species? (c) Eohippus (d) Equus
(a) Mutations BVP-2012
(b) Useful variations Ans. (c) : The earliest fossil form in phylogeny of
(c) Mutations together with natural selection horse is Eohippus. The evolution of modern horse
(d) Hybridization began about 60 million years ago in Eocene epoch. As
AFMC-2006 stated earlier first fossil named Eohippus, dawn horse
Ans. (c) : The present concept of evolution is a was found in North America. Eohippus, also known as
modified form of the Darwin's theory of natural Hyracotherium, was small four toed horse that lived
selection, and after called Neo-Darwinism. According about 55 million years ago. It was the size of a fox and
to it only genetic variations (mutations) are inherited had a short neck and tail.
and not all variations as held by Darwin. Thus modern 369. Two or more species occupying same or over
concept of evolution is synthesis of Darwin and Hug de lapping areas are
varies theory. This is also called synthetic theory of
(a) Sympatric (b) Sibling
evolution. So, According to Neo-Darwinism evolution
occurs by Natural selection of genetically modified (c) Sub-species (d) Allopatric
characters or genotypes. Neo Darwinism is a BVP-2012
modification of the original theory considers that the Ans. (a) : When two or more species exist in the same
change in environment produces modification directly geographical area or overlapping regions, they are
due to its effect on germ cells or rarely indirectly considered sympatric. This coexistence can lead to
through somatic cells. competition, ecological interactions, and adaptations to
This mutation together with Natural selection is share the same habitat. Sub-species refers to variations
responsible for the origin of new species. within a single species, and siblings are individuals from
366. Survival of the fittest is the basic principle of a the same parents. Allopatric species are geographically
competition. Its importance in organic separated and do not occupy the same area.
evolution was explained by 370. The fossil record of placoderms is found in this
(a) Lamarck (b) De Vries era:
(c) Darwin (d) Mendel (a) Palaeozoic (b) Mesozoic
J&K CET-2007 (c) Coenozoic (d) Archaeozoic
Ans. (c) : Darwin :- Struggle for existence and survival AP EAMCET-2000
of the fittest is the law of evolution, proposed and Ans. (a) : A class of armoured fishes having scales and
mentioned in Darwin's book. "Origin of species". The plates on body belong to placoderms. Placoderms are
struggle for existence concept concern the competition know from fossils. Which lived from the Silurian (440
for resources needed to live. million years ago) to the end of Devonian period (400
The concept of survival of the fittest states that only million years ago). The Devonian period occurred from
those organisms, which have favorable variations are at 400 million to 350 million years ago. It was the fourth
a specific advantage over others or the organisms
period of the palaeozoic era.
successful in serving and reproducing. Such individuals
survive the struggle for existence while those which are • According to theories, these fishes becomes extinct in
less adapted, get eliminated. the carboniferous period due to competition from the
367. Darwin theory of Natural selection was based first bony fish and early sharks, given a combination of
upon the supposed inherent superiority of bony fish and the
(a) Malthus idea of population preasumed sluggishness of placoderms. Hence, The
(b) Mutations fossil record of placoderms is found in 'Palaeozoic'.
(c) Struggle for existence 371. The presence of gill slits in the embryos of all
(d) Inheritance of acquired characters vertebrates supports the theory of
BVP-2013 (a) Metamorphosis (b) Biogenesis
Ans. (a) : Darwin noticed the conflict between (c) Organic evolution (d) Recapitulation
resources of population and its continued reproductive CMC Vellore-2014
pressure. Darwin considered that like in humans, Ans. (d) : The presence of gill slits in the embryos of
completion exists among all living things. Thus Darwin all vertebrates in a theory of development and evolution
was much influenced by Malthus theory of human proposed by 'Ernst Hackle' in Germany in the 1866.
population growth or Malthus idea of population. Thomas Ernst Haeckel proposed recapitulation theory .
Robert Malthus written a book. An Essay on the principles According to this theory embryo of an animal will go
of population. He was a British economist, put forward a
theory of human population growth through stages resembling their ancestors. Vertebrates
like reptiles and mammals are evolved from fishes and
(1) He stated that population grows geometrically
amphibians over time.
(2) When the imbalance reaches a certain value, some
factors like hunger, epidemics, foods, earthquakes, 372. The first organisms appears on earth were
was etc will bring the population to a desired level. (a) Photoautotrophs (b) Chemoautotrophs
Such a population, these factors were called (c) Chemoheterotrophs (d) Coacervates
positive checks' by Malthus. CMC Vellore-2014
Evolution 652 YCT
Ans. (c) : Chemoheterotrophs are the organisms that 376. Identify the correct chronological sequence
obtain energy by chemosynthesis rather than by periods of Mesozoic era.
photosynthesis. Microorganisms use organic chemical (a) Carboniferous → Permian → Triassic →
substances as the source of energy. Chemoheterotrophs Jurassic → Cretaceous
were the earliest or first organisms that appeared on (b) Cretaceous → Permian → Jurassic →
earth, which were preassembly anaerobes. Early Carboniferous → Triassic
chemoheterotrophs did not have the capability of using (c) Cretaceous → Carboniferous → Permian →
CO2 from their surroundings to make their own organic Triassic → Jurassic
compounds. They directly consume organic molecules (d) Carboniferous → Jurassic → Permian →
for both a carbon as well as energy. Because in Triassic → Cretaceous
primitive atmosphere of early earth there was no free Manipal-2010 / AP EAMCET-2006
oxygen. Ans. (a) : The correct chronological sequence periods
373. Cenozoic era refers to the age of: of Mesozoic era – (according to question and options)
(a) Fishes and reptiles
(b) Amphibians and reptiles
(c) Birds and mammals
(d) Amphibians and fishes
AP EAMCET-1999
Ans. (c) : Cenozoic era (from 65 million years ago to
present) is the era of modern life which is called the age
of birds and mammals (specially) and angiosperms.
This era consists of two periods i.e Tertiary period from
65 million years ago to 2 million years ago and
quaternary period from 2 million years ago to present.
374. In which era life was absent?
(a) Archeozoic (b) Paleozoic
Hence, option (a) Carboniferous → Permian →
(c) Proterozoic (d) Azoic
Triassic → Jurassic → Cretaceous - , sequence periods
UP CPMT-2002 of Mesozoic era is correct.
VMMC-2007
377. For evolution most important requirement is
Ans. (d) : Azoic era (about 4600 million years ago) is (a) Continuity of germplasm
the era of no life. In time scale of earth it is placed at
(b) Variation
below last in table. The Archeozoic era life was present
in the form of simple prokaryotic cells, such as a (c) Adaptation of acquired traits
bacteria and archaea. Age of Archeozoic era is 4.0 ton (d) Natural selection
2.5 BYA. AMU-2003
• Poleozoic era life was abundant and diverse with the Ans. (b) : Evolution is the process by which population
emergence of multicellular organisms. of organisms change over generations. Genetic variation
• The Proterozoic withnessed the rise of oxygen in the underline these changes. Genetic variations that alter
atmosphere, the formation of continents, and the gene activity or protein function can introduce different
appearance of the first animals. traits in organism. If a trait is advantageous and helps
the individual survive and reproduce, the variation is
375. The devonian period is considered to be as
most likely to be passed to next generation. These traits
(a) age of fishes (b) age of amphibians or characters becomes common in all population with
(c) age of reptiles (d) age of mammals time. The population than becomes different that it is
AMU-1996 considered a new species.
Ans. (a) : Age of fishes is marked as Devonian period Hence, for evolution the most important requirement is
which has occurred about four hundred million years variation.
ago This period was considered as the abundance of 378. First seed plant appeared during which you
fishes and hence it was called the age of fishes. (a) Silurian (b) Devonian
• The Carboniferous period was characterized by the (c) Carboniferous (d) Cretaceous
diversification of amphibians and the emergence of AMU-2003
the first reptiles. Ans. (b) : The first seed plant appeared during
• The Age of mammals is a term used for the Cenozoic Devonian period (400 million years ago) of palaeozoic
era, which began about 66 million years ago and era. The fossil plant Elkinsia polymorpha, a seed plant
continues to the present. from a Devonian time period around 400 million years
• The Mesozoic era was dominated by the various back is viewed as the most punctual seed plant is known
groups of reptiles, such as dinosaurs, pterosaurs, and to date. Seed plants delivered their seeds along their
early birds. branches without particular structures.
Evolution 653 YCT
379. In which era reptiles were dominated: - changes in gene frequencies due to change in large
(a) Coenozoic era (b) Mesozoic era population is called genetic drift.
(c) Paleozoic era (d) Archaeozoic era Genetic drift is an important mechanism in evolutionary
AIPMT-2002 change in small population. It is also a mechanism of
Ans. (b) : The Mesozoic era (about 252-66 mya) when evolution in which allele frequencies of a population
reptiles, especially dinosaurs, ruled the world. Mesozoic change over generations due to chance.
era is also called' the golden age of reptiles'. 384. According to Darwin, the organic evolution is
This era divided into three period. due to :
Triassic, Jurassic and cretaceous. (a) Reduced feeding efficiency is one species due
380. Diversification in plant life appeared :- to the presence of interfering species
(a) Due to abrupt mutations (b) Intraspecific competition
(b) Suddenly on earth (c) Interspecific competition
(c) By seed dispersal (d) Competition within closely related species
(d) Due to long periods of evolutionary changes NEET-2013
AIPMT-2004 Ans. (c) : The term organic evolution was proposed by
Ans. (d) : Diversification in plant life primarily 'Charles Darwin'.
occurred due to long periods of evolutionary changes. According to Darwin, organic evolution is due to
This process involved gradual adaptations and interspecific competition.
speciation events over millions of years, leading to the Interspecific competition is a type of competition in
wide variety of plant species. It was not sudden or which the individual of two different species compete
primarily driven by abrupt mutations or seed dispersal, for the same resources such as food, water, habitat, etc.
rather, it resulted from the cumulative effects of genetic Therefore, it has been clear from the above discussion
variation and natural selection over time. that according to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to
381. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a interspecific competition.
population is : 385. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era
(a) Genetic drift (b) Natural selection characterized by-
(c) Genetic recombination (d) Mutation (a) Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first
NEET-2021 birds appear.
Ans. (a) : In a small isolated population change in gene (b) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal
frequency occurs by chance, it is called genetic drift. like reptiles
Sometimes the change in allele frequency is so different (c) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms
in the new sample of population that they become a appear.
different species. The original drifted population becomes (d) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear.
founders and the effect is called founder effect. AIPMT-2006
382. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges Ans. (a) : The Jurassic period was characterized by the
from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an origin of the first birds and gymnosperms were the
average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive dominant plants at the time. Mesozoic era is golden
whereas 99% of the infants born with weights period of reptiles.
from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type
of selection process is taking place? • Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like
(a) Stabilizing Selection reptiles occurred in the Permian period of the
Carboniferous era. Dinosaurs went extinct about 65
(b) Disruptive Selection
million years ago at the end of the cretaceous
(c) Cyclical Selection Period.
(d) Directional Selection
• First dinosaur and flowering plants/angiosperms
NEET-2019 appeared in the Triassic period of the Mesozoic era.
Ans. (a) : According to the given data, 3 to 3.5 kg of
infants survive and rest die. It has already attained stable
state at this value rate. It is an example of stabilizing
selection, Stabilizing selection is a type natural selection in
which there is a decrease in genetic diversity as the
population attains a stable state on a particular trait value.
383. Variation in gene frequencies within
population can occur by chance rather than by
natural selection. This is referred to as:
(a) Genetic load (b) Genetic flow 386. Correct order is:
(c) Genetic drift (d) Random mating (a) Palaeozoic → Archaeozoic → Coenozoic
NEET-2013 (b) Archaeozoic → Palaeozoic → Proterozoic
Ans. (c) : Variation in gene frequencies within (c) Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Coenozoic
population can occur by chance rather than by natural (d) Mesozoic → Archaeozoic → Proterozoic
selection. This is referred to as genetic drift. Random AIPMT-1991
Evolution 654 YCT
Ans. (c) : The correct sequence is: Ans. (c) : Mammals evolved from Therapsids reptiles
Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Cenozoic in Triassic period. The type of skull in these reptiles is
• These represent distinct periods in Earth's history, synapsid skull. The skull of mammals represents a
with the Paleozoic era characterized by the emergence highly modified synapsid pattern. In synapsids, the
of complex life forms, followed by the Mesozoic era temporal region of skull develops a single opening
known for the age of dinosaurs, and Finally, the bound horizontal along its lower border by a bony
Cenozoic era marked by the rise of mammals and the connection between jugal and squamosal bones.
development of modern ecosystems.
Parapsid skull– This type of skull evolved in
387. Study the following and pick up the correct ichthyosaurus which included dolphin– like aquatic
combinations.
reptiles that preyed upon fishes or other aquatic animals.
Class Unique Flurished in
character Anapsid skull– An anapsid is an amniote whose skull
lacks one or more skull openings near the temples.
I Amphibia Buccopharyngeal Carboniferous
respiration period Diapsid skull– Diapsids are a group of amniote
II Reptilia Jacobson organs Mesozoic era tetrapods that developed two holes in each side of their
skulls about 300 million year ago during the late
III Mammalia Pinna Cenozoic era
carboniferous period.
IV Pisces Meninx primitiva Cretaceous 391. Genetic drift in mendelian population takes
period place in
Options: (a) Small population
(a) I, II, IV (b) II, III, IV (b) Large population
(c) I, II, III (d) I, III, IV (c) Oceanic population
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I (d) Never occurs
Ans. (c) : Amphibia – Buccopharyngeal respiration – AIPMT-1998
Carboniferous period
Reptilia – Jacobson organs – Mesozoic era Ans. (a) : Genetic drift in Mendelian population takes
Mammalia – Pinna – Cenozoic era place in small population.
388. Which of the following animals developed the • Genetic drift may cause gene variants to disappear
ability of using ribs and intercostals muscle in completely and thereby reduce genetic variation.
ventilation for the first time in vertebrate • Although genetic drift happens in population of all
evolution? sizes, its effects tend to be stronger in small
(a) Mammals (b) Aves populations.
(c) Reptiles (d) Fishes • Genetic drift is change due to "sampling error"
AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II selecting the alleles for the next generation from the
Ans. (c) : Reptiles developed the ability of using ribs gene pool of the current generation.
and intercostal muscles in ventilation for the first time
in vertebrate evolution. 392. Which among the following was the biggest
Unlike fishes and amphibians, which use gills or skin land dinosaur?
for gas exchange, reptiles have lungs that require a more (a) Stegosaurus ?
efficient mechanism of breathing. Birds and mammals (b) Tyrannosaurus rex
inherited this ability from their reptilian ancestors. (c) Brachiosaurus
389. During which geological period of evolution did (d) Triceratops
the greatest diversification of life occurred on
Karnataka CET-2020
the earth?
(a) Permian (b) Jurassic Ans. (b) : Tyrannosaurus rex was the biggest land
(c) Cambrian (d) Ordovician dinosaur on earth. Mesozoic era is called ‘Age of
JIPMER-2015 Dinosaurs’. Tyrannosaurus was about 20 feet in height
Ans. (c) : During Cambrian geological period of and had huge fearsome like teeth. They belongs to
evolution did the greatest diversification of life occurred reptiles.
on the earth. The Cambrian period occurred about 542- 393. Arrange the periods of Palaeozoic era in
488 million years ago, marks the development of new ascending order in a geological time scale:
animal diversity in Earth's history. It is believed that (a) Cambrian→ Ordovician→Silurian →
most animals in existence today originated during this Devonian → Carboniferous → Permian
time, often referred to as the Cambrian Explosion.
(b) Cambrian→ Devonian → Ordovician→
390. Mammals evolved from Therapsids reptiles in
Triassic period. The type of skull in these Siluran → Carboniferous → Permian
reptiles is (c) Cambrian → Ordovician→ Permian
(a) Anapsid skull (b) Parapsid skull (d) Silurian → Devonian→ Permian→
(c) Synapsid skull (d) Diapsid skull Carboniferous
AP EAMCET-2007 AP EAMCET-2005
Evolution 655 YCT
Ans. (a): A systematic arrangement of Palaeozoic era (c) Generating environmental awareness
in ascending order in a geological time scale is- (d) Preventing soil erosion
Cambrian→ Ordovician→Silurian → Devonian → AIPMT (Mains)-2012
Carboniferous → Permian. Ans. (b) : Sacred groves are specially useful in
The geological time scale is a system of chronological conserving rare and threatened species of Biodiversity.
dating that classifies geological strata in time. Palaeozic • Sacred woods are groves of trees and have special
era is also called as "era of ancient life". Cambrian religious importance within a particular culture.
period is marked by establishment of invertebrate • Sacred groves feature in various cultures throughout
Ordovician period, by appearance of 1stvertebrates and the world.
fungi and extinction of marine species. Silurian period, • They were important feature of the mythological land
by origin of jawed fishes, terrestrial vascular plants. scope and culture practices.
Devonian period, by origin of amphibians. • Rural community secured it as abodes of deities
Carboniferous period, by origin of first reptiles and 23 - Miscellaneous
arthropods. Permian period by abundance of primitive 397. Cuscuta is an example of
reptiles & appearance of conifers. (a) Predation (b) Endoparasitism
394. Match the following (c) Ectoparasitism (d) Brood parasitism
AIPMT (Mains)-2012
List-I List-II
Ans. (c) : Cuscuta is a total stem parasite which is a
(A) Golden age of (I) Carboniferous good example of ectoparasitism.
reptiles period • It is commonly found growing on hedge plants.
(B) Age of amphibians (II) Cenozoic era • Cuscuta reflexa is a parasitic perennial herb that
(C) Golden age of (III) Mesozoic era belong to family convolvulaceae and is present
fishes around the globe particularly in South Asian country
like Pakistan, Nepal, India and Bangladesh.
(D) Age of mammals (IV) Devonian
• It attaches and wraps itself around the stem of host
period
plant and produces haustoria that gets inserted into
(V) Silurian period the vascular system of host.
The correct match is: • Cuscuta is known to receive even the flower inducing
A B C D hormone or florigen from the host.
(a) III I V II 398. Collagen is : -
(b) III I IV II (a) Fibrous protein (b) Globular protein
(c) II IV I III (c) Lipid (d) Carbohydrate
(d) V II III IV AIPMT-2002
TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I Ans. (a) : Collagen is a fibrous protein, which means
that it is made up of long, threadlike polypeptide chains
Ans. (b) • Mesozoic era is known as golden age of that are arranged in a ropelike structure. Fibrous protein
reptiles because in this era reptiles became dominant on are strong and insoluble in water, making them ideal for
earth. structural roles in the body. Collagen is the most
abundant protein in the human body, and it is found in
• Carboniferous period is called the age of amphibians.
all connective tissues, including skin, bones, tendons
• Devonian period is the golden age of fish. Fish ligaments and cartilage.
reached substantial diversity during this period.
• Cenozoic era is called age of mammals.
395. _____is a group of plants representing one or
more ecospecies of common evolutionary
origin.
(a) Ecospecies (b) Ecotype
(c) Comparium (d) Cenospecies
SRM JEEE-2018
Ans. (d) : Cenospecies is a group of plants representing
one or more ecospecies of common evolutionary origin.
• An ecotype is a population that is adapted to local
environmental condition.
15(e) - In situ conservation and Ex situ conservation
396. Sacred groves are specially useful in
(a) Year round flow of water in rivers
(b) Conserving rare and threatened species
Evolution 656 YCT
403. Modern man is evolved :
F. Origin and Evolution of MAN (a) 10000 year ago (b) 25000 year ago
(c) 5000 years ago (d) 50000 years ago
399. The organs which have dissimilar structure Uttarakhand PMT-2004
and origin but perform the same function are
called Ans. (a) : 10000 year ago :- The Cro-Magnon man was
the direct ancestor of the living modern man. Further
(a) Homologous organs (b) Analogous organs evolution of man after Cro-Magnon involves the
(c) Vestigial organs (d) Atavistic organs evolution of culture rather than that of anatomy. Homo
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I sapiens appeared about 25000 years ago in Holocene
Ans. (b) : Analogous organs also known as homoplastic epoch and started spreading all over the world about
structures, are structures in different species that have10,000 years ago.
similar functions but have evolved independently. 404. The early man whose skeleton is almost
Analogous organs do not share a common origin or indistinguishable from that of of modern man
structure but perform comporble functions due to is:
convergent evolution.
(a) Neanderthal man (b) Peking man
400. According to fossils which discovered up to (c) Homo erectus (d) Cro-magnon man
present time, origin and evolution of man was HP CET-2011
started from which country
(a) France (b) Java Ans. (d) : Cro-magnon man :- Cro-Magnon man (Homo
sapiens fossils) has been known as Cro-Magnon man
(c) Africa (d) China
AIPMT-2002
because its fossils were first discovered in 1868 from
Cro-Magnon rocks of France by Mac Gregory. Cro-
Ans. (c) : According to fossils discovered up to present Magnon man emerged about 34000 years ago in
time, the origin and evolution of man start from Africa. Holocene epoch. Thus, it is regarded as most recent
The Omokibish first skeleton from Ethiopia is dated to ancestor of today's man.
around 233,000 years ago, and the Jebel Irhoud fossils
from morocco are dated to around 315,000 years ago. 405. Homo erectus evolved during
These fossils show that modern humans had already (a) Oligocene (b) Pliocene
evolved in Africa by at least 233,000 years ago. (c) Pleistocene (d) Miocene
401. Identify the fossil of man who showed the WB JEE-2012 / AIIMS-2009
following characteristics. Ans. (c) : Homo erectus (Erect man) appeared about 1.7
(A) Brain capacity of 1400 cc million years ago in middle Pleistocene.
(B) Used hides to protect their body Homo erectus evolved from Homo habilis. (Able or
(C) Buried their dead bodies skillful man, the tool maker, or Handy man).
In the light of above statements, choose the Homo erectus includes three fossils- java ape man,
correct answer from the options given below: peeking man and Heidelberg man.
(a) Homo habilis (b) Australopithecus 406. Which one of the following ancestors of man
(c) Homo erectus (d) Neanderthal man first time showed bipedal movement?
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) (a) Australopithecus (b) Cro- magnon
Ans. (d) : Neanderthal man is the correct answer (c) Java ape man (d) Peking man
because the Neanderthal man had brain capacity of WB JEE-2009
1400 cc. They used hides to protect their body and Ans. (a) : Australopithecus ancestors of man first time
buried their dead bodies. The brain capacity of Homo showed bipedal movement. It provide the first fossil
habilis were between 650-800 cc and that of homo evidence as the first and earliest biped. Bipedal
erectus was around 900 cc. specializations are found in Australopithecus fossils
402. The most recent and direct prehistoric ancestor form 4.2 to 3.9 million years ago.
of present man is 407. Correct sequence of stages in the evolution of
(a) Cro-magnon (b) Pre-Neanderthal the modern man, (Homo sapiens), is :
(c) Neanderthal (d) None of these (a) Neanderthal man, Australopithecus, Cro-
Punjab MET-2009 / Rajasthan PMT-2009 magnon man, Homo erectus, Modern man
UP CPMT-2009 (b) Australopithecus, Homo erectus, Neanderthal
Ans. (a) : The Cro-magnon man (Homo sapiens fossils) man, Cro-magnon man, Modern man
was the direct ancestor of the living modern man. (c) Homo erectus, Australopithecus, Neanderthal
It has been known as Cro-magnon because its fossils man, Cro-magnon man, Modern man
were first discovered in 1868 from Cro-magnon rocks (d) Australopithecus, Neanderthal man, Cro-
of France by Mac Gregor. Cro-magnon man emerged magnon man, Homo erectus, Modern man
about 34000 years ago in Holocene epoch. Thus, it is AIIMS-2016 / MGIMS Wardha-2014
regarded as most recent ancestor of todays man. The UP CPMT-2010 / VMMC-2008
Cro-magnon man had, like us 1.8 meters tall, well built AMU-2008 / Punjab MET-2003
body. It is believed that Cro-magnon man was Ans. (b) : The correct sequence of stages in the
somewhat more intelligent and cultured than the man of evolution of modern man (homo sapiens) is
today. A number of cave paintings done by Cro-magnon Australopithecus, homo erectus, Neanderthal man,
man have 10000 – 11000 years ago. Cro-magnon, modern man. Australopithecus was the
Evolution 657 YCT
earliest known genus of hominids, and Homo erectus lifestyle based on agriculture. The earliest evidence of
was the first hominids to walk upright outside of Africa. agriculture comes from the middle east, where people
Neanderthal man was a subspecies of Homo sapiens that began to cultivate wild wheat and barley about 10, 000
lived in Europe and Asia, and Cro- magnon man was a years ago.
group of early modern humans that lived in Europe and 412. The brain capacity of Homo erectus is
Asia. Modern man is the current species of human. (a) 800 cc (b) 900 cc
408. Haeckel's biogenetic law or recapitulation (c) 1200 cc (d) 1400 cc
theory states that Kerala CPMT-2011 / J&K CET-2008 / BVP-2002
(a) Life history of an animal reflects evolutionary Ans. (b) : Homo erectus (Erect man) appeared about
history of the same 1.7 million years ago in middle Pleistocene. Homo
(b) Progeny resembles parents erectus evolved from Homo habilis. He was about 1.5 –
(c) Mutations are acquired characters 1.8 metres tall. He had erect posture. His skull was
(d) All organisms begin their life from zygote flatter than that of modern man. He had protruding
BVP-2012 / MGIMS Wardha-2007 jaws. Projecting brow ridges, small canines and large
Ans. (a) : • Haeckel's Biogenetic law or recapitulation molar teeth. The cranial capacity was 800 – 1300 cc
theory states that ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny. (Java man 800 – 1000 cc, Peking man 850 – 1100 cc,
Ontogeny is the life history of an organism while Heidelberg man about 1300 cc) i.e. average 900 – 1000
phylogeny is the evolutionary history of the race of that cc. Cranium was domed to accommodate the large
organism. In other words an organism repeats its brain. He was omnivorous.
ancestral history during its development. 413. Name given to foossil hominid of Shivalik hills
For example – In the development of frog a fish like in India is :
tailed larva (tadpole) is formed, which swims with the (a) Ramapithecus (b) Australopithecus
tail and respires by the gills. This indicates that the frog (c) Pithecanthropus (d) Neanderthalensis
has been evolved from a fish like ancestor. HP CET-2011 / Manipal-2010
409. Modern man differs from apes in AMU-2009, 2004 / VMMC-2005
(a) Protruding eyes Uttarakhand PMT-2004
(b) Thick body hairs Ans. (a) : Ramapithecus is a fossil hominid was
(c) Wearing of clothes discovered by Edward Lewis in the Shivalik hills of
(d) Arms shorter than legs India in 1932. It is believed to have lived between 14
and 10 MYA. Ramapithecus was more ape-like them
Manipal-2011
human like but it had some important human
Ans. (d) : Apes had the equal size of arm with that of characteristic such as a smaller face and larger brain
legs but modern man is having arms shorter than legs. than apes.
Which are different from apes. 414. The chronological order of human evolution
During the evolution of man, he started wearing cloths from early to the recent is
when his body hair started reducing. (a) Ramapithecus-Australopithecus-Homo habilis
410. Cranial capacity of Java man is _______. -Homo erectus
(a) 1600 c.c. (b) 1450 c.c. (b) Australopithecus-Ramapithecus-Homo
(c) 1200 c.c. (d) 940 c.c. habilis- Homo erectus
MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I (c) Pithecanthropus pekinensis-Homo habilis-
Ans. (d) : Java ape man – In 1891, Eugene Dubois Homo erectus
discovered a fossil from Pleistocene rocks in central (d) Australopithecus-Ramapithecus-
java (Island of Indonesia). Eugene Dubois named it as Pithecanthropus pekinensis- Homo erectus
Pithecanthropus erectus. Pithecanthropus means 'ape J&K CET-2009
man. Mayer in 1950 assigned it as Homo erectus.
Ans. (a) :
Java ape mans have body 1.65 to 1.75 meters tall, and
weight about 70 kg. Legs long and erect. Skull cap thick • The chronological order of Human evolution →
and Levy, flattened in front. Cranial capacity 800 –
1000 cc (average 940 – 950 cc). He was carnivorous
and cannibal perhaps. He was the first prehistoric man
to make use of fire for hunting, defence and cooking.
411. Agriculture was originated in Mesolithic age about
(a) 1000-5000 years ago
(b) 5000-10000 years ago
(c) 7000-15000 years ago
(d) 15000-20000 years ago
BHU PMT-2001
Ans. (c) : Agriculture was originated in the Mesolithic
age about 7000- 15000 years ago.
The Mesolithic age was a transitional period between
the Paleolithic (old stone age) and the Neolithic (New
stone age) During this time, humans began to transition
from a hunter- gatherer lifestyle to a more sedentary
Evolution 658 YCT
415. The first human like being is forehead, a keel along the top of the head for attachment of
(a) Homo sapiens (b) Homo erectus powerful jaw muscles, very thick skull bones, heavy brow
(c) Homo menthus (d) Homo habilis ridges, an occipital torus, a large palate and a large chinless
Karnataka CET-2022 / Kerala PMT-2015 jaw. The Pleistocene rocks from which fossils of peking
AP EAMCET-2015 man were excavated are about 6 lakh years old.
Ans. (d) : Homo habilis was the first human like being. 419. Highest cranial capacity is present in
He is also called able or skillful man, the 'tool maker' or (a) Homo sapiens sapiens (modem man)
'Handy man'. Fossils of Homo habilis was discovered (b) Cro - magnon man
from Pleistocene rocks of Olduvai Gorge in East Africa. (c) Peking man
The Homo habilis is a proposed archaic species of (d) Neanderthal man
Homo. AMU-2011, 2005, 2004 / UP CPMT-2006
As, bipedal locomotion, care of young ones, capable of VMMC-2005 / Haryana PMT-2004
making tools, teeth as like modern man, increased Ans. (b) : Homo sapiens fossilis has been known as
cranial capacity (700 cc), moved erect etc. Cro-Magnon man, because its fossils were first
416. Which of the following is correct order of the discovered in 1868 from Cro-magnon rocks of France
evolutionary history of man? by Mac Gregor. Cro-magnon man emerged about 3400
(a) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal years ago in Holocene epoch. Thus, regarded as most
man, Cro-Magnon man recent ancestor of today's man. Its cranial capacity was,
(b) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo however, somewhat more than ours, being about 1650
sapiens, Cro-Magnon man cc. It is the highest cranial capacity. Therefore believed
(c) Peking man, Heidelberg man, Neanderthal that Cro-magnon man was somewhat more intelligent
man, Cro-Magnon man and cultured man than the man of today. The Cro-
(d) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo Magnon man was the direct ancestor of the living
sapiens, Heidelberg man modern man.
BHU PMT (Screening)-2010 420. The highest cranial capacity is/was present in
Ans. (c) : Peking man, Heidelberg man, Neanderthal (a) Java man (b) Peking man
man, Cro-Magnon man :- (c) Handy man (d) Modern man
• Order of Evolutionary History of man – VMMC-2012 / Uttarakhand PMT-2008
(i) Chimpanzee and Gorilla UP CPMT-2008 / Rajasthan PMT-2008 / BVP-2007
(ii) Australopithecus Ans. (d) : Cranial capacity
(iii) Homo habilis Java man - 900 cc
(iv) Java ape man Peking man – 1075 cc
(v) Peking man Handy man – 600-800 cc
(vi) Heidelberg man Modern man – 1400 – 1450 cc
(vii) Neanderthal man So Modern man has highest cranial capacity.
(viii) Cro-magnon 421. The biological name of the Java man is
(ix) Living modern man (a) Homo erectus (b) Homo sapiens
417. Among the human ancestors, the brain size was (c) Homo habilis (d) Pithecanthropus erectus
more than 1000 cc in CG PMT-2007 / Haryana PMT-2002
(a) Homo neanderthalensis Ans. (a & d) :The biological name of the Java man is
(b) Homo erectus both Homo erectus and Pithecanthropus erectus.
(c) Ramapithecus Java man is an early human fossil discovered in 1891 on
(d) Homo habilis the island of Java, Indonesia. It was originally given the
Rajasthan PMT-2010
scientific name Pithecanthropus erectus by its
discoverer Eugene Dubois. Later, Java, man was
Ans. (a) : Homo sapiens neanderthalensis had cranial redesignated as Homo erectus, a species of the genus
capacity of 1300 - 1600 cc. Fossils of Neanderthal man Homo. Both names are still used to refer to the same
were first obtained from Neander valley in Germany fossil.
from the late Pleistocene epoch. • Homo erectus name of Java man given by Mayer.
• Homo erectus (Erect man) has cranial capacity of
422. In human evolution, which is most recent?
800–1300 cc (average 900 cc). Cranium was domed.
(a) Middle Paleolithic (b) Upper Paleolithic
• Ramapithecus had cranial capacity of about 500 cc and
(c) Neolithic (d) Mesolithic
• Homo habilis had about 700 cc cranial capacity. VMMC-2008 / AMU-2008 / CG PMT-2007
418. The cranial capacity of Peking man was about Ans. (c) : Neolithic age, is also called new stone age. It
(a) 900 cc (b) 1660 cc is the recent or final stage of cultural evolution of man
(c) 1075 cc (d) 1450 cc or technological development among prehistoric
MGIMS Wardha-2008 humans. It is the age of agriculture, Knowledge and use
Ans. (c) : Peking man is characterized by a cranial of clothes and utensils. The Neolithic followed the
capacity averaging about 1075 cubic centimeter. Peking Paleolithic period or age of chipped stone tools and
man had a skull that was flat in profile, with a small preceded the Bronze age, or early period of metal tools.
Evolution 659 YCT
423. Bipedal locomotion is advantageous because It. Ans. (c) : In 1981, Donald Johanson, found a 3.2
(a) Reduces body weight million years old skeleton of a female human ancestor
(b) Increases weight Lucky. It is the fossil of Australopithecus and Luckys
(c) Releases forlimbs for other purposes scientific name is Australopithecus afarensis. In
(d) Increases speed Ethiopia, it is also known as 'Dinknesh' which means
Haryana PMT-2002 'you are marvelous'. In palacoanthropology, usually
Ans. (c) : Bipedalism raises the head, this allows a only fossil fragments are found and only rarely are skull
greater field of vision with improved direction of distant or ribs uncovered intact. Thus, this discovery was
dangers of resources, access to deeper water for extraordinary and provided an enormous amount of
wadding animals and allows the animal to reach higher scientific evidence.
food sources with their month. 428. What kind of evidence suggested that man is
424. Prehistoric man was: more closely related with chimpanzee than with
(a) Food producer (b) Food gatherer other hominid apes ?
(c) Food exporter (d) Food importer (a) Comparison of chromosomes morphology only
Haryana PMT-2002 (b) Evidence from fossil remains and the fossil
Ans. (b) : The prehistoric man (during Paleolithic age) mitochondrial DNA alone
was a food gatherer. He wandered from place to place (c) Evidence from DNA extracted from sex
in search of food. He hunted wild animals for their chromosomes, autosomes & mitochondria
food(meet) which they eat raw. With the discovery of (d) Evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes
fire he learnt to roast meat. only
During the Neolithic age early man began to grow food AIPMT-2004
crops. The first cereals to be grown were wheat and
Barley. He became a food produce. Hence, he settled at Ans. (c) : Evidences from DNA extracted from sex
one place began domestication of useful animals and chromosome, autosomes and mitochondria suggest that
stored grains for future use in pots. man in more closely related to the chimpanzee that with
425. The fossils of this man provide first evidence other hominid apes. There is little difference in banding
for the burial of their dead. pattern in chromosome 3 and 6 in human and chimpanzee.
(a) Peking man (b) Java man 429. A Hominid fossil discovered in Java in 1891,
(c) Cro-magnon man (d) Neanderthal man now extinct, having cranial capacity of about
JCECE-2018 900 cc was
UP CPMT-2002 (a) Australopithecus (b) Homo erectus
Ans. (d) : Fossils of Neanderthal man (Homo sapiens (c) Neanderthal man (d) Homo sapiens
neanderthalensis) were first obtained from Neander NEET-2020 Phase-II
valley in Germany from the late Pleistocene epoch by Ans. (b) : Given below are the ancestors of humans:
C. Fuhrott.
Neanderthal were the legendary cave dwellers.
They were adapted to a cold environment. They were
cannibals. They fashioned the skin into clothing to
protect themselves against the harsh climate.
Natural caves became campsites that were illuminated
and heated by fire. It is believed that he buried his dad
with flowers and tools. He had a many religion.
426. Dubois in 1891 found the fossil of Java ape
man. It is
(a) Homo sapiens
(b) Homo rhodesiensis
(c) Pithecanthropus erectus • Australopithecus had characteristic of both man and
(d) Sinanthropuspe kinensis ape and hence is also known as ape-man. They lived
JIPMER-2000 about 2 million years ago and had a brain capacity of
MHT CET-2017 about 400 cc.
Ans. (c) : In 1891, Eugene Dubois, discovered a fossil • The fossils of Homo erectus were discovered from
from Pleistocene rocks in central java (Island of Java (Indonesia) in 1891. They existed about 1.5
Indonesia). Eugene Dubois named it as Pithecanthropus million years ago Homo erectus had a brain capacity
erectus. Pithecanthropus means 'ape man'. Java ape of around 900 cc.
man was first prehistoric man to make use of fire for • Neanderthal man (Homo sapiens neanderthalensis)
hunting, defence 1000 cc (average 950 cc). lived between 1,00,000 – 40, 000 years ago. They had
427. "Lucy" is the fossil of __________ a cranial capacity of 1400 cc.
(a) Homo erectus (b) Homosapiens • Homo sapiens arose between 75,000–10,000 years
(c) Australopithecus (d) Cro-magnon man ago. Their average cranial capacity is about 1300 cc
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-II to 1400 cc.
Evolution 660 YCT
430. Match the hominids with their correct brain 433. The extinct human ancestor, who eat only
size: fruits and hunted with stone weapons was
(A) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc (a) Ramapithecus (b) Australopithecus
(c) Dryopithecus (d) Homo erectus
(B) Homo (ii) 1350 cc AIIMS-2012
neanderthalensis
Ans. (b) Two million years ago, Australopithecus
(C) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc probably lived in east African Grassland evidence
(D) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc shows they hunted with stone weapons but mostly eat
fruits. They walked erect and had teeth resembling
Select the correct option. those of modern humans but the brain capacity was less
A B C D than one third that of a modern human.
(a) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 434. The cranial capacity was largest among the
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (a) Peking man (b) Java ape man
(c) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (c) African man (d) Neanderthal man.
(d) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) AIIMS-2002
NEET-2019 Ans. (d) : The Neanderthal man with a brain size of
Ans. (b) : Homo habilis – 650-800 cc 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between
Homo neanderthalensis – 1400 cc 1,00000 - 40, 000 years back. They used hides to
Homo erectus – 900 cc protect themself and buried their dead. They were
closely related to modern humans having DNA over
Homo sapiens – 1350 cc 99.5% the same.
• Homo habilis was the first human like hominid with 435. Which of the following changes for man in the
a brain capacity between 650-800 cc. course of evolution is probably useless?
• Homo erectus existed about 1.5 million years ago and (a) Development of being erect
had a brain capacity between 900 cc. (b) Development of cranial capacity
Homo neanderthalensis existed 1-0.4 million years (c) Loss of tail
ago and had a brain capacity of 1400 cc they buried (d) Development of opposable thumb
their dead and used animal skin to cover their bodies. AIPMT-1996
• Homo sapiens have existed since 0.75-0.1 million Ans. (c) : Loss of tail is perhaps a relatively useless change
years ago they have a brain capacity of 1350 cc. for man in the course of evolution. It is based on the process
431. Which of the following statements is correct of natural selection. The absence of tail is a characteristic
about the origin and evolution of man? that distinguishes humans from other species. The volume of
(a) Neanderthal men lived in Asia between cranial cavity and size of the skull increases in order to
1,00,000 and 40,000 years back. accommodate the large and complex brain.
(b) Agriculture came around 50,000 years back. 436. Which of the following is the direct ancestor of
Homo sapiens?
(c) The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus primates
(a) Australopithecus
existing 15 million years ago, walked like man.
(b) H. sapiens neanderthals
(d) Homo habilis probably ate meat.
(c) Homo erectus
NEET (Odisha)-2019 (d) Homo sapiens fossilis
Ans. (a) : Neanderthal man lived in Asia between AIPMT-1996
1,00,000 and 40,000 years back. Ans. (c) : Homo erectus was the direct ancestor of later
Their cranial capacity was 1300 to 1600 cc. They used species including Homo sapiens. Louis leakey argued
hides to protect their body and buried their dead. energetically that Homo erectus populations particularly
432. "Homo sapiens" implies in Africa.
(a) Human race (b) Human beings Homo erectus is the oldest known species to have a
(c) Modern man (d) None of these human like body, it had an upright posture, a large brain
AIIMS-2007 around 900 cc and probably eat meat.
Ans. (c) : "Homo sapiens sapiens" is the scientific name 437. The brain capacity of Homo habilis
for modern humans the only extant species of the genus, (a) between 650 cc–800 cc (b) 1400 cc
"Homo". Modern humans have a cranial capacity of (c) 1800 cc (d) 900 cc
1450-1600 cm3. It has been evolved in the world 25000- Karnataka CET-2019
10000 years ago, It is further divided into Negroid, Ans. (a) : Homo habilis were first human like being
Caucasian, Eastern and Mongoloid. with 650-800 cc (cranial capacity) and had the smallest
brain capacity. Homo habilis also called the 'tool maker'
or 'Handy man'.
438. There are two opposing views about origin of
modern man. According to one view Homo
erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern
man. A study of variations of DNA however
suggested African origin of modern man. What
kind of observation of DNA variation could
suggest this?
Evolution 661 YCT
(a) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia Ans. (a) : The most significant trend in the evolution of
(b) Variation only in Asia and no variation in Africa modern man (Homo sapiens) from the ancestors is
(c) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa increasing brain capacity (cranial capacity).
(d) Similar variation in Africa and Asia The cranial capacity is the volume of the interior of the
JIPMER-2007 cranium of vertebrates who possess a skull and a
Ans. (c) : Scientists studying mitochondrial DNA from brain. It is used to approximate the size of the brain,
living human all over the world have argued that their which is also suggestive of the intelligence of the
research shows that all human races originated from one organism.
Homo sapiens ancestor in Africa. The divergence of 443. The Mediterranean type of popular fowls are
mitochondrial DNA of Africans from common source called:
begun just some years back which was late for Homo (a) White leghorn (b) New hampshire
erectus to split in Asia. (c) Plymouth rock (d) Rhode island red
Thus, there are greater variation in Asia than in Africa. AP EAMCET-2003
439. Who is directly related to man: Ans. (a) : white leghorn :- The Mediterranean type of
(a) Gorilla (b) Rhesus popular fowls are called white leghorn. The leghorn is a
(c) Gibbon (d) Orangutan breed of chicken originating in Tuscany. They have
AIPMT-2000 / BHU PMT (Screening)-2010 been used to create highly productive egg - laying
Ans. (a) : Gorillas share 98.3% of their genetic code hybrids for commercial agriculture. Leghorn do and lay
with humans , making them our closest cousins after one large white egg almost every day.
chimpanzees and bonobos. The largest of the great apes, 444. A baby has been born with a small tail. It is the
gorillas are stocky animals with broad chests and case exhibiting :
shoulders, large, human- like hands, and small eyes set (a) retrogressive evolution
into hairless faces. (b) mutation
Gorillas are social animals and live in family groups (c) atavism
called troops. (d) metamorphosis
440. Homo sapiens have evolved in: Haryana PMT-2004
(a) Paleocene (b) Pleistocene Ans. (c) : Atavism :- Atavism is the reappearance of
(c) Oligocene (d) Myocene certain ancestral character's which had either
AIPMT-2000 disappeared or were reduced. A baby born with a small
Ans. (b) : Homo sapiens had already evolved and tail, is also a example of atavism. The tail is non-
spread throughout the globe by the end of the functional. In modern human body it given us a clue
Pleistocene, but it is the Holocene that has witnessed all that human ancestors might have evolved from
of humanity recorded history. During ice age between primates.
75,000 - 10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. 445. Cladogram represents
They Co-existed for a long time in Europe and the (a) Feature and shared characters depicting
middle east with the Neanderthals and possibly with evolution in the form of a diagram
Homo erectus in Asia. (b) Population
441. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 (c) Physiological relationship of organisms
years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, (d) None of the above
with short stature, heavy eye brows, retreating BHU PMT (Screening)-2011
foreheads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky Ans. (a) : A Cladogram is an evolutionary tree that
bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture diagrams ancestral relationships among organisms. In
was: the past, Cladograms were drawn based on similarities
(a) Cro-magnon humans (b) Ramapithecus in phenotypes or physical traits among organisms.
(c) Homo habilis (d) Neanderthal human Today, similarities in DNA sequences among organisms
AIPMT (Screening)-2012 can also be used to draw Cladograms.
Ans. (d) : They are hominids in the genus homo. They
are regarded as the subspecies of Homo sapiens. They
are extinct humans who lived 1,00000 to 40,000 year
ago in Europe, Asia and part of Africa.
Neanderthal human has a brain size of 1400 cc.
Neanderthals were a cold adapted people. As with their
facial feature, Neanderthal's body proportions were variable.
442. What was the most significant trend in the
evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from
his ancestors?
(a) Increasing cranial capacity
(b) Upright posture
(c) Shortening of jaws
(d) Binocular vision Fig :- Cladogram/phylogenetic tree showing evolution
AIPMT (Screening)-2012 of major groups of class mammals.
Evolution 662 YCT
446. Mass extinction at the end of Mesozoic era was Ans. (a) : The most significant trend in the evolution of
probably due to modern man (Homo sapiens) increase the brain
(a) Continental drift capacity. The Human species developed a much larger
(b) The collision of earth with large meteorites brain than other primates.
(c) Massive glaciations • In the living modern man, the cranial capacity is
(d) Change in earths orbit about 1450cc compared to the 500cc in
DUMET-2009 Australopithecus. Increase cranial capacity
accommodates larger brain and forms the basis of the
Ans. (b) : An extinction event is a widespread and rapid
social cultural and education evolution of man.
decrease in the biodiversity on earth . Mesozoic era
ended with the collisions of earth with large meteorite 451. Common link between apes and man was
that caused a mass extinction wiping out the dinosaurs (a) Ramapithecus
and up to 80% life on earth. Estimates of the number of (b) Dryopithecus
major mass extinctions in the last 540 million years (c) Homo erectus
range from as few as five to more than twenty. (d) Homo neanderthalensis
447. Which period is dubbed as the age of AP EAMCET-2011
prokaryotic microbes? Ans. (b) : The common link between apes and modern
(a) Precambrian (b) Phanerozoic humans is believed to be Dryopithecus. Dryopithecus is
(c) Archean (d) Proterozoic considered an ancient ancestor that shared common
AIPMT-1995 evolutionary traits with both apes and early hominids,
Ans. (d) : The proterozoic is known as the age of making it a potential transitional species in human
prokaryotic microbes. Microbes were not dominance during evolution. While Ramapithecus was once considered a
the Archaeozoic, Precambrian and phanerozoic eras. candidate, it is now considered less likely. Homo
Bacteria are among the best know prokaryotic organisms. erectus and Homo neanderthalensis are more recent
hominid species and not direct common links with apes.
448. Origin of life occurred in
452. The fossils of java man was obtained from
(a) Precambrian (b) Coenozoic
(a) Java (b) Shivalik hills
(c) Palaeozoic (d) Mesozoic
(c) Peking (d) Germany
JIPMER-2012
AP EAMCET-2011
Ans. (a) : The first living form is named as protocell or
Ans. (a) : Java man is the name give to fossils
eobionts or protobionts, which evolved into prokaryotic
discovered in 1891 on the banks of the Solo river in
cell. These were originated about 3900-3500 million East Java in Indonesia, one of the First known
years ago, during precambrian era. For a long time it specimens of Homo erectus. Its discoverer gave it the
was also believed that life came out of decaying and scientific name Pithecanthroupus erectus, a name
rotting matter like straw, mud etc, but Pasteur derived from Greek and Latin roots meaning upright
demonstrated that life comes only from pre existing life. age man.
449. Which is the correct sequence of ancestors in 453. Which one of the following human ancestors is
the path of primates evolution? known as tool maker?
(a) Crossopterygian → Cotylosaur → Therapsid (a) Homo erectus (b) Java man
→ Labyrinthodont →Insectivores → Primates (c) Homo habilis (d) Heidelberg man
(b) Labyrinthodont → Cotylosaur → Therapsid → JIPMER-2016
Crossopterygian → Insectivores → Primates Ans. (c) : Homo habilis is known as the "tool maker"
(c) Crossopterygian→Labyrinthodont→Cotylosaur among the listed human ancestors. Homo habilis lived
→ Therapsid → Insectivores → Primates approximately 2.4 to 1.4 million years ago and is
(d) Crossopterygian →Therapsid → Colylosaur→ credited with making and using stone tools, which was a
Labyrinthodont → Insectivores → Primates significant advancement in early human evolution. This
GUJCET-2017 innovation marked the transition towards more complex
Ans. (c) : The evolutionary history of the primates can tool-making abilities and was crucial step in the
be traced back 57-90 million years. The first mammals development of our ancestors.
were like shrew. Their fossils are small sized. The 454. The most recent and direct pre-historic
correct sequence of ancestors in the path of primates ancestor is
evolution is – Crossopterygian → Labyrinthodont → (a) Cro-magnon (b) Neanderthal
Cotylosaur →Therapsid → Insectivores → Primates (c) Pre-neaderthal (d) None of these
450. What was the most significant trend in the JIPMER-2014
evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from Ans. (a) : The most recent and direct pre-historic
his ancestors ? ancestor is Cro-Magnon. It come about 3,40,000 year
(a) Increasing brain capacity ago. The Cro-Magnon man appeared during the
(b) Upright posture Holocene period, with the largest cranial cavity,
(c) Shortening of jaws reduced jaws and omnivorous. These were the first
(d) Binocular vision early modern humans of the European, so they are
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 considered as the direct ancestor of modern man.
Evolution 663 YCT
455. Identify the sequence of evolution of Homo (D) Directional (IV) Polydactylic dwarf
sapiens selection individuals
(i) Ramapithecus (V) Sunflower population in
(ii) Homo habilis California
(iii) Homo erectus The correct match is
(iv) Australopithecus (A) (B) (C) (D)
(v) Homo neanderthalensis (a) (IV) (II) (V) (III)
(vi) Homo sapiens (b) (II) (I) (III) (IV)
(a) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv) → (v) → (vi) (c) (V) (IV) (II) (III)
(b) (i) → (iv) → (ii) → (iii) → (v) → (vi) (d) (III) (IV) (II) (I)
(c) (iv) → (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (v) → (vi) AP EAMCET-2013
(d) (iv) → (i) → (v) → (ii) → (iii) → (vi) Ans. (d) : Founder effect- When a new species evolves
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II by a small number of individuals from a larger
Ans. (b) : Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo population, the loss of genetic variation in the new
habilis → Homo erectus → Homo neanderthalensis → species is called the founder effect (Example-Pitcairn
Homo sapiens. Island human population).
456. Which one true man of major hominid stock • Bottle neck effect- The bottleneck effect is an example
of genetic drift that happens when the size of a
had known drawing and painting?
population is severely reduced. Events like natural
(a) Neanderthal man (b) Heidelberg man disaster (earthquakes, floods, fires) can decimate a
(c) Cro-magnon man (d) Both (a) and (b) population, killing most individuals and leaving behind
UP CPMT-2014 a-small, random assortment of survivors. (Example-
Ans. (c): Cro-Magnon Man (Homo. sapiens fossils) Polydactylic dwarf individuals).
considered the most recent ancestor of Homo sapiens. • Genetic load-Genetic load is the difference between
These true man of hominid stock had known drawing the fitness of an average genotype in a population
and painting and was a good artist. and the fitness of some reference genotype, which
457. The cranial capacity of modern man is may be either present in a population, or may be the
(a) 430-650 cc3 (b) 600-1000 cc3 theoretically optimal genotype. High genetic load
(c) 900-1100 cc 3
(d) 1200-1600 cc3 may put a population in danger of extinction.
UP CPMT-2011 (Example for sickle-cell anemia).
Ans. (d): Cranial capacity is the volume of the brain or • Directional selection- Directional selection occurs
the skull that encloses the brain. It is often used as a when individuals with traits on one side of the mean
proxy for brain size and intelligence. in their population survive better or reproduce more
than those on the other. Directional selection does the
• The average cranial capacity of modern humans is "heavy lifting" of evolution by tending to move the trait
about 1400 cc3 although there is considerable mean towards the optimum for the environment.
variation among individuals and populations. (Example-Long necked Giraffes).
• The cranial capacity of modern humans has increased 460. Coverstone of theory of Darwin was
over evolutionary time, from about 600 cc3 in Homo (a) Natural selection
habilis to about 1680 cc3 in Homo neanderthalensis.
(b) Inheritance of acquired characters
(c) Omnis cellulae-e-cellula
G. Biological Evolution (d) Higher productivity
458. The method of representing phylogeny by UP CPMT-2003,2009 / J&K CET-2006
branching diagram was introduced by Ans. (a) : The coverstone of theory of Darwin was
(a) Lamarck (b) Darwin natural selection. This Theory was put forward by
(c) Ernst Haeckel (d) Mendel Charles Darwin (1859) in his book origin of species.
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I The theory of natural selection is an important theory for
Ans. (c) : The method of representing phylogeny by explaining the process of organic evolution and also
explained origin of species through hybridization process.
branching diagram was introduced by Ernst Hoeckel.
His specific diagrams and ideas have evolved and been 461. Some bacteria able to grow in streptomycin
refined over time. This method illustrate the containing medium due to
evolutionary relationships and common ancestry among (a) Natural selection (b) Induced mutation
different species or groups of organisms. (c) Reproductive isolation (d) Genetic drift
459. Match the following AIPMT-2002
List I List II Ans. (a) : Normally bacteria can not survive in
antibiotic containing medium but if it does so it must
(A) Founder effect (I) Long necked giraffes
have acquired resistance against that antibiotic. These
(B) Bottle neck effect (II) Heterozygous for are well adopted to grow in streptomycin, containing
sickle-cell anemia medium and thus are more evolved. So due to natural
(C) Genetic load (III) Pitcairn Island human selection only the more evolved and better adapted
population species is able to survive.
Evolution 664 YCT
462. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced (a) Tail is an essential organ
amino acids by mixing the following in a closed (b) Darwinism was wrong
flask (c) Lamarckism was wrong
(a) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C (d) Mutation theory was wrong
(b) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C SRM JEEE -2017 / AIPMT-1993
(c) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C Ans. (c) : 'Inheritance of acquired Characters in
(d) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C organism' given by Lamarck in 1809 and this theory is
NEET-2020 Phase-I known as Lamarckism theory. It states that 'changes in
Ans. (d) : S.L. Miller, an American scientist provided an structure or function of organ acquired during an
experimental evidence for chemical evolution in 1953. individual' lifetime in response to changes in the
environment are inherited by its offspring.
He created an electric charge in a closed flask
containing methane (CH4), Hydrogen(H2), Ammonia But this theory was rejected by August Weismann (1892).
(NH3) and water vapour at 800°C. 466. Which one of the following is not a living fossil-
463. The chronological order of human evolution (a) King crab (b) Sphenodon
from early to the recent is (c) Archaeopteryx (d) Peripatus
AIPMT-2006
(a) Australopithecus→ Ramapithecus→ Homo
habilis→Homo erectus Ans. (c) : A living fossil is an organism which has
remained unchanged in structure and function over a
(b) Ramapithecus→Australopithecus→Homo long period of time. These organisms provide valuable
habilis→Homo erectus insights into the past and can help scientists understand
(c) Ramapithecus→Homo the history of life on earth.
habilis→Australopithecus→Homo erectus • Archaeopteryx is an extinct ancient or lizard bird
(d) Australopithecus→Homo which shows evolutionary connections between
habilis→Ramapithecus→Homo erectus reptiles and birds.
NEET-2016 Phase-II • King Crab (Arthropoda), sphenodon (Reptilia) and
Ans. (b) : The fossils of Ramapithecus was discovered Peripatus (an invertebrate) are examples of living fossils.
from Pliocene rocks in shivalik hill in India. 467. De Vries gave his mutation theory on organic
• They are present nearly 14-15 million year ago. evolution while working on –
• Australopithecus was the first ape man found in (a) Oenothera lamarckiana
African Pliocene rocks, present nearly 5 million year (b) Drosophila melanogaster
ago. (c) Pisum sativum
• Homo habilis is now extinct, but he inhabited parts of (d) Althea rosea
sub-Saharan Africa about 2 million to 1.5 million AIPMT-2005
years ago. Ans. (a) : De Vries gave his mutation theory on organic
• Homo erectus appeared nearly 1.5 million year ago. evolution while working on Oenothera lamarckiana
Thus, the chronological order of human evolution from (evening primrose).
early to the recent is- According to De Vries, new species are not formed by
Ramapithecus→Australopithecus→Homo continues variation but by sudden appearance of
habilis→Homo erectus variation which he named as mutations.
• Hugo de Vries started that mutations are heritable
464. Alexander Von Humboldt described for the
and persist in successive generation.
first time
(a) Ecological Biodiversity 468. Which one of the following phenomena
(b) Laws of limiting factor supports Darwin's concept of natural selection
in organic evolution
(c) Species area relationships (a) production of 'Dolly', the sheep by cloning
(d) Population Growth equation (b) Development of organs from 'stem' cells for
NEET-2017 organ transplantation
Ans. (c) : Alexander Von Humboldt a German (c) Development of transgenic animals
Naturalist, first described species area relationships (d) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
• It states that the species richness within a region increases AIPMT-2005
with increasing explored area but only up to a limit. Ans. (d) : According to Darwin's theory of natural
The richness can be explained by this logarithmic selection, the individual possessing useful variations
mathematical equation:- survive where as the other are eliminated.
Log S = Log C + Z log A . • Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects supports
were, S = Species richness natural selection theory e.g. DDT was thought to be
A = Area explored an effective insecticide against household pest (like
C = Y – intercept mosquitoes, housefly, body lice) in 1945.
Z = Slope of line i.e., Regression coefficient. • Pesticide resistant insects are selected over pesticide
465. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after sensitive insects by nature and are thus survive
generation but tails neither disappeared nor through the course of evolution, until more suited
shortened showing that (fittest) individual is selected, eliminated the former.
Evolution 665 YCT
469. Radioactive C-dating and living fossils are used for- 474. The idea of Natural selection as the fundamental
(a) Biological age process of evolutionary changes was reached
(b) Geological age (a) Independently by Charles Darwin and Alfred
(c) Age of rock Russel Wallace in 1900
(d) Geographical distribution (b) By Charles Darwin in 1866.
AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I (c) By Alfred Russel Wallace in 1901
Ans. (a): Radioactive C-dating is used for biological (d) Independently by Charles Darwin and Alfred
age, geological age of rocks. But together with living Russel Wallace in 1859.
fossils it is only used for biological age. Radio carbon Karnataka CET-2007
dating, or carbon-14 dating, is a scientific method that Ans. (d) : Charles Darwin and Alfred Russell Wallace
can accurately determine the age of organic material. are known For independently Conceiving the idea of
470. Which of the following is the relatively most evolution through natural selection in 1859. The
accurate method for dating fossils? thinking of both Darwin and Wallace in respect of
(a) Potassium-argon method organic evolution was similar.
(b) Uranium-lead method 475. Which one of the following phenomena
(c) Electron spin resonance method supports Darwin's concept of natural selection
(d) Radio carbon method in organic evolution?
(a) Development of transgenic animals
AIIMS-2015
(b) Production of 'Dolly' the sheep by cloning
Ans. (c) : Electron spin resonance dating is being (c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
utilized in fields like radiation science, natural
(d) Development of organs from 'stem cells' for
chemistry and also topography prehistoric studies and
human sciences. ESR dating is utilized rather than organ transplantation
JIPMER-2007
radiocarbon dating since ESR dating can date recently
framed materials. It measures the number of unpaired Ans. (c) : Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
electrons in crystalline structures that were exposed to supports natural selection theory e.g. DDT was thought
natural radiation previously. to be an effective insecticide against household pests
(like mosquitoes, house files body lice etc.) in 1945 But,
471. Select the option having correct sequence of within two to three years of its introduction new DDT
geological periods –
resistant mosquitoes appeared in the population. This
Permian, Triassic, Jurassic happened because new strains of mosquitoes appeared
(a) 1→ 2 → 3 (b) 3→ 2 → 1 which were DDT resistant. As these could survive even
(c) 2→ 3 → 1 (d) 3→ 1 → 2 in the presence of DDT, they soon replaced the DDT
AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I sensitive mosquitoes.
Ans. (a) : The geological time scale is the 'calendar' for 476. Statement :The concept of survival of the fittest
events in earth's history. It subdivides all time into is central to natural selection.
named units of abstract time called in descending order Reason: Individuals, who possess advantageous
of duration - Eons, Eras, Periods, Epochs, and Ages. characters to adapt to the environment have
• The correct chronological sequence of periods of better potential for survival.
Mesozoic era is (a) Only Statement is true but not Reason
Carboniferous→Permian→Triassic→Jurassic Cretaceous. (b) Both Statement and Reason are true but Reason
472. Which of the following evidences does not is not the correct explanation to statement
favour the Lamarckian concept of inheritance (c) Both Statement and Reason are true and
of acquired characters? Reason is the correct explanation to statement
(a) Lack of pigment in cave-dwelling animals (d) Both Statement and Reason are not true
(b) Melanisation in peppered moth AP EAMCET-2010
(c) Absence of limbs in snakes Ans. (c) : According to Darwin, Natural selection is a
(d) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds process that bring about the evolution of new species of
AIPMT-1994 animal and plant he noted that variation existed between
Ans. (b) : Lamarck is best known for his theory of individual of the population and concluded that disease
competition and other forces acting on the population
Inheritance of acquired characteristics, first presented in
eliminated those individual less well adapted to their
1801. An organism experiencing such a modification environment.
can transmit such a character to its offspring.
477. Lederberg's replica experiment explains.
473. Descent of man and selection in relation to sex
(a) Lamarck's theory (b) Mutation theory
was written by—————
(c) Darwin's theory (d) None of these
(a) Linnaeus (b) Copernicus AP EAMCET-2011
(c) Darwin (d) Mendel Ans. (c) : Lederberg's replica experiment explains
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection. The
Ans. (c) : In the Descent of man, and selection in experiment showed that some bacteria had mutations
relation to sex, Darwin argued forcefully that all for antibiotic resistance before being exposed to the
creatures were subject to the same natural laws, and that antibiotic, not as a result of it. This means that the
humans had evolved over countless eons, just as other mutations were random and not directed by the
animals had. environment. The resistant bacteria had a survival
Evolution 666 YCT
advantage and were secreted by antibiotic. This is Ans. (c) : Higher frequency of melanic British moths
consistent with Darwin's idea that inherited variations and DDT resistance in mosquitoes are cited for natural
that increases fitness. selection. Natural selection is the process in nature by
478. Assertion (A) The theory of survival of the which organisms better adapted to their environment
fittest is widely misunderstood. tend to survive and reproduce more than those less
Reason (R) Evolution does not always increase adopted to their environment.
the chances of a species survival and species do 483. Darwinism explains all the following except
not survive when such chances happen rapidly. (a) Within each species, there are variations
(a) Both (A) and (R) are not true but (R) does not (b) Organisms tend to produce more number of
explain (A) offspring that can survive
(b) Only (A) is true But (R) cannot explain (A) (c) Offspring with better traits that overcome
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is a correct competition are best suited for the
explanation of (A) environment
(d) Both (A) and (R) are not true (d) Variations are inherited from parents to
AP EAMCET-2009 offspring through genes
Ans. (c) : A species composed of only a few organism JIPMER-2014 / Karnataka CET-2009
has limited genetic variation and mating possibilities Ans. (d) : The Darwinism is lack of knowledge of
condition for survival changes and some of these heredity. Darwin’s theory could not explain in the
organisms die due to their lack of characteristics that inheritance of variation from parent to off spring.
could accommodate that change, the species would
become smaller over time and could eventually die out. The concept of genes and their inheritance was
developed later by scientists such as a Gregor Mendal.
479. Darwin's book "Origin of New Species by So that, Darwin's does not directly address the
Natural Selection" was published in mechanism of inheritance through genes.
(a) 1809 (b) 1859
(c) 1857 (d) 1869 484. Darwins finches represent
UP CPMT-2002 (a) Morphological variations
(b) Geographical isolations
Ans. (b) : Darwin's book "Origin of New Species by
Natural Selection" was published in 1859. According to (c) Climate variations
Darwin's theory of evolution branching descent and (d) Reproductive isolation
natural selection are the two factors for evolution. This JIPMER-2014
theory gave the ideas of Natural Selection as the Ans. (b) : There are thirteen type of finches described
fundamental process of evolutionary changes. by Darwin. They are geographically isolated and found
480. According to Darwin, evolution is ------- in Galapagos island of south pacific. Finch's beaks got
(a) A slow, gradual and continuous process. modified according to their feed habit which shows bio
(b) A sudden but discontinuous process. geographical evolution suggesting that species restricted
(c) A slow and discontinuous process. to a region develop unique features.
(d) A slow, sudden and discontinuous process 485. McDougall experiment with rats supported
Karnataka CET-2010 (a) Neo-Darwinism
Ans. (a) : According to Darwin studies natural selection (b) Neo-Lamarckism
only work by taking advantage of minor successive (c) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
variation. It can never take a major and fast leap, but in (d) Founders effect
gradual steps, it must continue rapidly and surely. So, SRM JEEE-2018
according to Darwin evolution is a slow, gradual and Ans. (b) : An American psychologist Mc Dougall
continuous process. experiment with rats (1927-1930) supported neo-
481. The best description of natural selection is Lamarckism.
(a) The reproductive success of the members of a Neo-Lamarckism proposed that environment influences
population best adapted to environment an organism directly or indirectly and changes its
(b) It acts when the resources are unlimited heredity, only those variations are passed on to next
(c) A change in the proportion of variations generation which effects germ cells.
within a population 486. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck explained evolution
(d) It follows Hardy-Weinberg principle based on
JIPMER-2016
(a) Natural selection
Ans. (a) : In the process of natural selection and change.
Individuals in a population are naturally variable, meaning (b) Survival of the fittest
that they are all different in some ways. (c) Mutations
• Natural selection is the reproductive success of the (d) Inheritance of acquired characteristics
members of a population best adopted to the KVPY (SA)-05.11.2017
environment. Natural selection can lead to speciation. Ans. (d) : Jean Baptiste Lamarck (1747–1829) is one of
482. Higher frequency of melanic British moths and the best-known early evolutions unlike Darwin,
DDT resistance in mosquitoes are cited as Lamarck believed that living things evolved in a
examples for continuously upward direction, from deal matter,
(a) Arrival of the fittest (b) Genetic drift through simple to more complex forms, toward human
(c) Natural selection (d) Point mutation ‘Perfection’ species didn’t die out in estimations, he
Karnataka CET-2008 claimed.
Evolution 667 YCT
Unit-IV : Biology in Human Welfare
13. HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE

1. Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in Ans. (b) : Hyperreactive malarial disease is associated
a person suffering from- with malaria. It is a condition where the spleen becomes
(a) Thalassemia enlarged due to a chronic and exaggerated immune
(b) Down's syndrome response to repeated malarial infections.
(c) Turner's syndrome 5. Among the following mention disease that have
(d) Klinefelter's syndrome existed in the past but now showing incidence
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023 and in new geographical areas:
Ans. (b) : The extra chromosome 21 leads to the (a) Re - emerging diseases : Tuberculosis
physical features and developmental challenges that can (b) Emerging diseases : Cholera
occur among people with down syndrome. (c) Super emerging Diseases : SARS
• Researchers know that Down syndrome is caused by an (d) Emerging diseases : Dengue fever
extra chromosome, but no one knows for sure why down AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-I
syndrome occurs or how many different factors play a role.
Ans. (a) : Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection
caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis, while TB has
A. The Diseases never disappeared completely. it has described as a
2. The disease caused due to deposition of iron 'reemerging' disease in the sense that it remains a
particles in tissues is significant global health concern.
(a) Silicosis (b) Asbestosis 6. Phenylketonuria, sickle cell anemia and cystic
(c) Emphysema (d) Siderosis fibrosis are caused respectively due to
AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II (a) Chromosome 7, Chromosome 11, Chromosome 12
Ans. (d) : The term siderosis was first applied by (b) Chromosome 12, Chromosome 11, Chromosome 7
zenker in loss for description for pathcogical condition (c) Chromosome 11, Chromosome 18, Chromosome 9
of lung caused by long inhalation of the dust of iron or (d) Chromosome 18, Chromosome 11, Chromosome 9
iron oxide. AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
• Selicosis is A long term lungs disease caused by Ans. (b) : phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive
inhaling large amounts of crysteline selica dust. genetic disorder caused by mutation in the PAH gene,
• Asbestosis in long disease caused by asbestos. which is located on chromosome 12. This gene provides
• Emphysema is chrolic lung discus due to shortness of instruction for making an enzyme called phenylalanine
breath and alveoli are damaged. hydroxylase.
3. Statement I : Dormant stages of plasmodium in • Sickle cell anemia is caused by a mutation in the
the liver cells of man are called hypnozoites. HBB gene, which is located on chromosome 11, this
Statement II : Larva of Wuchereria bancrofti gene making a protein called hemoglobin.
performs extra intestinal migration in man. • Cystic fibrosis disorder is caused by mutation in the
(a) Statement I and statement II are correct CFTR gene which is located on chromosome 7. It
(b) Statement I and statement II are false affects the lung and digestive system.
(c) Statement I is correct. But statement II is false 7. Kwashiorkor and beri-beri are:
(d) Statement Is false But statement II is correct (a) communicable diseases
(b) infectious diseases
Ans. (c) : Vevax is the oblegatory liver stage in the (c) deficiency diseases
plasmodium life cycle which range between 6-8 days
and is characterized followers that distriguest vevax (d) none of the above
from falaperum infection. AFMC-2005
• Plasmodium infeolid anopheles mosquito bites a Ans. (c) : Kwashiorkor and Beri-Beri both are
human and transmit sporozoit into blood stream. deficiency disease which occur generally in children.
• Sporozoit migrate through the blood to liver where Kwashiorkar occurs due to deficiency of protein and
they invade hepatocytes and divided to form Beri-Beri due to deficiency of vitamin B1 (Thiamin).
multinucliqid sclizints. 8. Tay Sach's disease is due to
4. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome is a symptom (a) sex linked recessive gene
of this disease (b) sex linked dominant gene
(a) Filaria (b) Malaria (c) autosomal dominant gene
(c) Typhoid (d) Pneumonia (d) autosomal recessive gene
AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II MGIMS Wardha-2007
Human Health and Disease 668 YCT
Ans. (d) : Tay sach's disease is inherited as an 14. What is the scientific name of pinworm of man?
autosomal recessive disease. It is caused by genetic (a) Trichinella spiralis
mutation in the HEXA gene on chromosome 15 which (b) Dracunculus medinensis
codes for hexosaminidase (an enzyme which serves in (c) Trichiura irichuria
lipid metabolism.) (d) Enterobius vermicularis
9. Leprosy is also called as Manipal-2000
(a) Hansen's disease (b) sarcoma Ans. (d) : Pinworm infection is caused by a small thin
(c) slim disease (d) leukemia about one half inch long white roundworm (nematode)
BVP-2012 / BHU PMT - 2011 called Enterobius vermicularis.
MGIMS Wardha-2007 / Haryana PMT-2002
15. DPT vaccines is given for:
Ans. (a) : Hanseniasis or HD, Hansen's disease is also (a) tetanus, polio, plague
known as leprosy, it is an infection caused by slow-
growing bacteria called Mycobacterium leprae. This (b) diphtheria, whooping cough and leprosy
disease affects the skin, peripheral nerves, mucosal (c) diptheria, pneumonia, tetanus
surface of respiratory tract. (d) diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus
Rifampicin, the most important anti-leprosy medicine. Manipal-2000
10. Which of the following is not correctly Ans. (d) : DPT vaccines is given for diphtheria,
matched? whooping cough, tetanus. Diphtheria pertussis
(a) Glossina palpalis - Sleeping sickness (whooping cough) and tetanus. The vaccine components
(a) Culex - Filariasis include diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and either killed
(a) Aedes aegypti - Yellow fever whole cells of the bacterium that causes pertussis or
pertussis antigen.
(a) Anopheles culicifacies - Leishmaniasis
Manipal-2012, 2007 / AFMC - 2008 16. Achondroplasia is a disease related with the
Ans. (d) : Anopheles culicifacies is vector of malaria defect in the formation of
and Leishmania donovani cause black fever or kala azar (a) membrane (b) mucosa
or dum-dum fiver that is spread by sand fly. (c) bone (d) cartilage
JIPMER-2013
11. Which one of the following correctly matches a
Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) with its Ans. (d) : Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that
pathogen? causes dwarfism characterized by abnormal bone
(a) AIDS - Bacillus anthracis growth leading to short stature.
(b) Syphilis - Treponema pallidum A gene plays a role in regulating bone growth by controlling
(c) Urethritis - Entamoeba gingivalis the conversion of cartilage to bone during developments.
(d) Gonorrhoea - Leishmania donovani 17. Which of the following cause disease in human
AFMC-2007 beings?
Ans. (b) : The correctly matched pair is Syphilis, (a) Rhizopus (b) Puccinia
Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is caused by the bacterial (c) Aspergillus (d) Cystopus
pathogen Treponema pallidum. Some of the symptoms Manipal-2003
of Syphilis are lesions in mouth, genital areas, anus etc. Ans. (c) : Aspergillus is a genus of hundred of moulds
AIDS is caused by human immunodeficiency virus species commonly found in environment.
(HIV). Aspergillus can cause respiratory allergies in human
Urethritis is bacterial or viral infection. called aspergillosis. The types of health problems
Gonorrhoea is caused by bacteria called Neisseria caused by Aspergillus include allergic reactions, lung
gonorrhaeae. infections and infections in other organs.
12. Critical state of disease is called • Allergic broncho-pulmonary aspergillosis has been
(a) Acme (b) Acromion estimated to affect about 1- 4 million people worldwide.
(c) Acholin (d) None of these 18. Find the incorrect match of the disease and
AMU -2000 their causative agent.
Ans. (a) : Critical state of disease is called acme. Acme (a) Typhoid – Salmonella typhi
occurs when the pores of our skin become blocked with (b) Pneumonia – Streptococcus pneumoniae
oil dead skin or bacteria. Each pore of our skin opens to
a follicle. (c) Syphilis – Bordetella pertussis
(d) Gonorrhea – Neisseria gonorrhoeae
13. Cholera, leprosy and diphtheria are:
Tripura JEE-2019
(a) bacterial diseases (b) viral diseases
(c) fungal diseases (d) functional diseases Ans. (c) : Syphilis is caused by the bacterial pathogen
Manipal-2000 Treponema pallidum whereas Bordetella pertussis
causes whooping cough.
Ans. (a) : Cholera, leprosy and diphtheria are bacterial
disease. Cholera is an infection of the intestine caused 19. Congenital diseases are :
by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. Leprosy or Hansen’s (a) deficiency diseases
disease is a chronic infectious disease caused by (b) diseases present at birth
Mycobacterium leprae. Diphtheria is a serious infection (c) spread from one individual to another
caused by strains of bacteria called Corynebacterium (d) occur during life
diphtheriae. Haryana PMT-2003
Ans. (b) : A condition existing at birth and often before parasite. It is caused by a parasite known as Entamoeba
birth or that develops during the first month of life in histolytica that infects the bowel. Hence, amoebiasis in
known as congenital disease. The disease related to the human is acquired through contamination of food with
structure of heart can be considered as an example of cysts.
congenital disease. 26. Marasmus in children is caused by deficiency
20. The bacterium Bdellovibrio bacterio virus is: of
(a) autotroph (b) parasite (a) protein (b) fats
(c) saprophyte (d) symbiont (c) vitamins (d) carbohydrates
AP EAMCET-1999 MGIMS Wardha-2013
Ans. (b) : The bacterium Bdellovibrio bacterio virus is Ans. (a) : Marasmus in children is caused by deficiency
parasite. It is gram-negative predatory bacteria. It was of protein. This is usually due to poverty and scarcity of
disco vered by Stolp and Petzold in 1962. food. Marasmus causes visible wasting of fat and
21. The organism which carries a disease from one muscle under the skin, giving bodies a emaciated
organism to another is called? appearance.
(a) Parasite (b) Host 27. Christmas disease is another name for
(c) Vector (d) None of these (a) Down's syndrome (b) Sleeping sickness
HP CET-2012 (c) Haemophilia -B (d) Hepatitis -B
Ans. (c) : The organism which carries a disease from MGIMS Wardha-2010
one organism to another is called vector. Ans. (c) : Christmas disease in another name for
• Parasites is an organism which lives in or on other Haemophilia B. It is a hereditary bleeding disorder
organism to obtain nutrients from it. caused by a lack of blood clotting factor IX. Without
• Host–an animal of plant on or in which a parasite enough factor IX the blood cannot clot properly to
lives. control bleeding.
This alternate name for haemophilia B came about
22. Is a person shows production of interferons in because of the first patient described with this disease
his body the chance are that he has got an i.e. Stephen Christmas.
infection of:
(a) typhoid (b) measles 28. Pullorum disease of poultry is caused by
(a) Mycobacterium (b) Salmonella
(c) tetanus (d) malaria
VMMC-2013, 2003 (c) Clostridium (d) Haemophilus
MGIMS Wardha-2010
Ans. (b) : Measles is caused by virus and in this case
person shows production of interferon in his body. Ans. (b) : Pullorum disease of poultry is caused by
Measles is one of the most prevalent and serious disease bacterium Salmonella and is characterized by very high
of children. It caused by a virus named Rubeola virus. mortality in young chickens and turkeys. It is usually
transmitted by infected hens through their eggs.
23. Which of the following is communicable
disease? 29. The chief advantage of encystment of an
(a) Influenza (b) Diabetes Amoeba is
(c) Hypertension (d) Kwashiorkor (a) Protection form parasites and predators
AMU-2002 (b) The chance to get rid of accumulated waste
products
Ans. (a) : Influenza commonly known as “the flu” is an (c) The ability to survive during adverse physical
infectious communicable disease caused by influenza conditions
viruses. Symptoms range from mild to severe and often
(d) The ability to live for sometime without
include fever runny nose, sore throat, muscle pain ingesting food
headache coughing and fatigue.
MGIMS Wardha-2010
24. The interval between infection and appearance
Ans. (c) : The chief advantage of encystment of an
of disease is known as
amoeba is the ability to survive during adverse physical
(a) incubation period (b) inoculation conditions. The amoeba become circular, loses most of
(c) penetration (d) infection period its water and secretes a cyst membrane that serve as a
AMU-2002 protective covering.
Ans. (a) : The interval between infection and 30. Kala - azar disease is transmitted by :
appearance of disease is known as incubation period. (a) Tabinus (b) Solomax
25. Amoebiasis in human is acquired through (c) Glossina (d) Phlebotomus
(a) viral infection MGIMS Wardha-2003
(b) contamination of food with cysts Ans. (d) : Kala-azar is also known as Leishmaniasis. It
(c) accidental consumption of amoebic trophozoites is caused by a protozoan parasite. Leishmania donovani
(d) None of the above which is spread by the bite of infected Phlebtomine
J & K CET - 2003 / AMU-2001 sandfly. It is a chronic and potentially fatal parasitic
Ans. (b) : A person gets amoebiasis by putting anything disease. Symptoms include recurrent fever intermittent
in their mouth that has touched infected feces or by with the often double rise of temperature, loss of
eating or drinking food or water contaminated with the appetite, weakness.
31. Which of the following is correct pair of disease 36. A microbial disease that spreads over a very
and its causing agent? large geographic area is called:
(a) Soft - sore - Bacillus brevis (a) A pandemic (b) An outbreak
(b) Gonorrhoea - Entamoeba (c) An epidemic (d) A chronic disease
(c) Syphilis - Treponema pallidum SRM JEEE -2017
(d) Urethritis - Bacillus anthracis Ans. (a) : A disease that spreads over a whole country
MGIMS Wardha-2003 of the whole world is called pandemic, like Covid-19
Ans. (c) : Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease was a pandemic which originated in China spread very
caused by the bacterium Treponema palladium. early to the whole world’s lakhs of people died by.
• Soft sore is a sexually transmitted disease that is 37. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by
caused by the bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi. the-
• Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted bacterial infection (a) Fertilization of an XX egg by a normal
if untreated may cause infertility. Y-bearing sperm.
• Urethritis is a bacterial or viral infection that causes (b) Loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5.
swelling and irritation of the urethra. (c) Loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5.
32. Pebrine is a disease of (d) Trisomy of 21st chromosome.
(a) fish (b) honey bee AIPMT-2006
(c) silk worm (d) lac insect Ans. (b) : Cri du chat syndrome, is caused by a deletion of
JIPMER-2013 the end of the short (p) arm of chromosome number 5.
Ans. (c) : Pebrine disease is th most important and • The name of this syndrome is French for 'Cry of the
dangerous disease of silkworm caused by Nosema bombycis cat' referring to the distinctive cry of children with
as an obligate intracellular parasitic fungus. Silk worm this disorder.
larvae infected by pebrine disease are usually covered in • The cry is caused by abnormal larynx development
brown dots and are unable to spin silk worm thread. which becomes normal with a few weeks of birth.
33. Diabetes mellitus is due to lack of: Infants with cri du chat have low birth weight and may
(a) starch in blood have respiratory problems. Some people with this have a
(b) trypsin in pancreatic juice shortened lifespan, but most have a normal life expectancy.
(c) ADH reaching in kidneys 38. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated
(d) insulin in blood with haemolysis of –
BVP - 2002 (a) Leucocytes (b) Lymphocytes
(c) Platelets (d) RBCs
Ans. (d) : Diabetes is a chronic disease that occurs AIPMT-2005
either when the pancreas does not produce enough
insulin or when the body cannot effectively use the Ans. (d) : Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
insulin it produces. Insulin is a hormone that regulates causes hemolytic anemia which occur when red blood
blood glucose level. cells are destroyed faster than the body can replace them.
34. Black water fever is caused by 39. Match the common of disease listed under column
I unit their medical terms listed under column II;
(a) Plasmodium malariae (b) P. ovale choose the answer which gives the correct
(c) P. falciparum (d) p. vivax combination of the alphabets of the two columns:
UP CPMT-2013 Column–I Column–II
Ans. (c) : Black water fever also called malarial (Common names) (Medical terms)
hemoglobinuria rare, yet dangerous complication of
A. Blood clotting in p. Rhinitis
malaria. It occurs almost exclusively with infection small capillaries
from the parasite Plasmodium falciparum. It is a acute
intravascular hemolysis classically occurring after the B. Value defects q. Stenosis
re-introduction of quinine in long term residents in C. Hay fever r. Parkinsons disease
Plasmodium falciparum endemic areas. D. Paralysis s. Coronany
35. Disorders like alkaptonuria and thrombosis.
phenylketonuria are referred to as (a) A = s, B = q, C = p, D = r
(a) acquired disease (b) A = r, B = s, C = q, D = p
(b) communicable disease (c) A = q, B = s, C = r, D = p
(c) congenital disease (d) A = s, B = p, C = r, D = q
(d) non-communicable disease Karnataka CET-2001
Assam CEE-2014 Ans. (a) :
Ans. (c) : Disorders like alkaptonuria and A. Blood clotting in s. Coronany thrombosis.
phenylketonuria are referred to as congenital disease. small capillaries
Since these are the inborn errors in metabolism, which
B. Value defects q. Stenosis
means that the individual is born with these defects.
They are not acquired after birth, hence they are not C. Hay fever p. Rhinitis
acquired disorders. D. Paralysis r. Parkinsons disease
40. Anthrax is caused by: they use the host's system and resources. Therefore it is
(a) virus (b) bacteria difficult to attack them with drugs. Viruses cause a
(c) fungus (d) chemical compounds number of infectious human diseases like Common
BCECE-2015 Cold, Yellow Fever, Rabies, AIDS etc.
Ans. (b) : Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused 45. Which one of the following is correctly
by gram positive, rod – shaped bacteria known as matched regarding an Institute and its
Bacillus anthracis. Anthrax occurs naturally around the location?
world in wild and domestic hoofed animals, especially (a) National Institute of Virology - Pune
cattle, sheeps, goats, camels and antelopes. (b) National Institute of Communicable Diseases
41. An autoimmune disease is - Lucknow
(a) B-lymphocytes induced (c) Central Drug Research Institute - Kasauli
(b) Haemophillia (d) National Institute of Nutrition - Mumbai.
(c) Myasthenia gravis AIIMS-2004
(d) None of the above Ans. (a) : NIV (National Institute of Virology, Pune)
AIIMS-2011 is one of the major Institutes of Indian Council of
Ans. (c) : An autoimmune disease is myasthenia gravis. It Medical Research (ICMR). In 1995 it has been re-
is an antibody mediated autoimmune disease when designated as the WHO Collaborating Centre for
pathogenic antibodies to a – 3 ganglionic acetylcholine Arbovirus and Haemorrhagic fever, reference and
receptor subunits cause autonomic dysfunction. research and rapid diagnosis of viral disease NIV is also
the National Centre for Hepatitis and Influenza. The
42. Which one is matched correctly? research areas of NIV include electron microscopy,
(a) Arsenic–Black foot disease rickettsia, hepatitis, influenza etc.
(b) Flouride–Itai-itai • National Institute of Communicable Disease (NICD)
(c) Mercury–Skeletal fluorosis is situated in New Delhi.
(d) Cadmium–Minamata disease • Central Drug Research Institute is situated in
AIIMS-2014 Lucknow.
Ans. (a) A vascular disease which is caused due to the • National Institute of Nutrition is situated in
excess amount of exposure to arsenic is known as black Hyderabad.
foot disease. It is an endemic peripheral vascular
disease found among the inhabitants of a limited area on 46. Which of the following is a non-communicable
the South West Coast of Taiwan. disease?
• Arsenic is circulated in the region through drinking (a) Tuberculosis (b) Arthritis
water. This damages the vascular system of the human (c) Rabies (d) Diphtheria
body affecting its lower limbs and severely damaging it. J&K CET-2000
43. Which of the following is non-pathogenic Ans. (b) : Arthritis is not a contagious disease. The
bacteria of colon? most common type of arthritis are osteoarthritis or
(a) Escherichia coli (b) Balantidium coli Rheumatoid arthritis. They are not known to be caused
(c) Entamoeba coli (d) Enterobius vermicularis. by a bacteria, fungus or virus. Their patterns of
AIIMS-2001 occurrence don’t match diseases that are contagious.
Ans. (a) : E-coli is the non pathogenic bacteria of colon. 47. The infectious and contagious bacterial disease
One of the characteristics of E-coli is the production of that affects cattle, buffaloes, horses, sheeps and
bacteriocins, a specific type of metabolite which is not goats, is
only lethal to the organism of the same species but also (a) anthrax (b) rinderpest
to related organisms. (c) tick fever (d) necrosis
• Balantidium coli results in inflammation of J&K CET-2010
alimentary tract. Ans. (a) : The infectious and contagious bacterial
• Entamoeba coli causes amoebic dysentery. disease that affects cattle, buffaloes, horses, sheep's and
• Enterobius vermicularis infection is known as goat is anthrax. It is caused by a spore forming
oxyriasis or enterobiasis. bacterium. Bacillus anthracis is an entity that is widely
44. Viral diseases have no cure because distributed across the globe.
(a) Viruses have no cell wall 48. Pellagra is caused due to deficiency of
(b) Viruses can multiply repeatedly within the (a) Niacin (b) Pantothenic acid
host cell (c) Tocopherol (d) Cyanocobalamine
(c) Presence of capsid J&K CET-2011 / VMMC - 2011 / Manipal-2001
(d) Virus possesses no cytoplasm. Ans. (a) : Pellagra : It is caused by deficiency of
AIIMS-2001 Niacin (vitamin B3). It includes the triad of dermatitis,
Ans. (b) : Viral diseases have no cure because viruses dementia, and diarrhea and can result in death.
can multiply repeatedly within the host cell. Viruses do • It is a nutritional disorder caused by niacin deficiency
not exhibit any of the vital life processes like which leads to systemic disease with clinical
respiration, excretion etc. and do not have the necessary manifestations from the skin, gastrointestinal tract and
cellular machinery for any of them. For reproduction the nervous system.
49. Black foot disease occurs due to Ans. (d) : At third stage of HIV infection usually show
(a) Cadmium (b) Mercury symptoms of AIDS. This is usually when your CD4 T-
(c) Arsenic (d) Copper cell number drops below 200 and your immune system
J&K CET-2011 is badly damaged. Helper – T lymphocyte is a type of
Ans. (c) : Black foot disease is a characteristic vascular white blood cell that helps initial the immune response
disease associated with long-term exposure to inorganic in the body stimulating killer T-cells.
arsenic. It occurred in areas of Taiwan with elevated • In HIV infection the virus selectively destroys the
arsenic in drinking water. The patients suffer severe helper T-lymphocytes in the body and thereby
systemic arteriosclerosis with black mummified dry paralyzing the immune system. Common symptoms,
foot-gangrene in severe cases. seen including like – night sweat, fever, weight loss,
50. Who discovered oocysts in the stomach of damaged immune system etc.
female Anopheles?
54. The infectious diseases which are emerging
(a) Ronald Ross (b) Charles Laveran
include
(c) Golgi (d) Lamble
(i) Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
BVP-2009
(ii) Dengue Fever
Ans. (a) : Oocysts stage of malaria parasite developing
in the wall of a mosquito midgut (stomach). The midgut (iii) Mad Cow Disease
is in the lower half of the image and the oocysts appear (iv) Tuberculosis
as multiple spheres embedded in the midgut’s wall. The correct combination is:
Such oocysts were seen for the first time by Sir Ronald (a) I, IV (b) I, III
Ross on 20 August 1897. (c) II, IV (d) III, II
51. Toxin produced by tetanus affects TS EAMCET-09.05.2019 Shift-I
(a) jaw bones (b) voluntary muscles Ans. (b) : (I) Severe acute respiratory syndrome is a
(c) involuntary muscles (d) Both (a) and (b) viral respiratory disease caused by a SARS - associated
BVP-2011 coronavirus. It was first identified at the end of
Ans. (b) : Tetanus affects voluntary muscles as they February 2003 during an outbreak that emerged in
produce toxins that causes muscle spasm by interfering China and spread.
with normal muscle contraction. Tetanus often begins (III) Mad cow disease is a fatal disease that slowly
with mild spasms in the jaw muscles (lockjaw). The destroys the brain and spinal cord (central nervous
spasms also affect your chest, neck, back and abdominal system) in cattle. It also is known as Bovine
muscles. Spongiform Encephalopathy or BSE.
52. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering
from Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. 55. Match the following :
Which diagnostic technique will you List-I List-II
recommend for its detection ? (A) Nocturanal (i) Entamoeba histolytica
(a) WIDAL (b) ELISA periodicity
(c) MRI (d) Ultra Sound (B) Extraintestinal (ii) Plasmodium vivax
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 migration
BVP - 2004 (C) Schuffner's (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti
Ans. (b) : ELISA (Enzyme– linked immunosorbent dots
assay) is a plate – based technique (D) Tetranucleate (iv) Ascaris lumbricoides
• It was the first screening test commonly employed for cyst
HIV. (v) Taenia solium
• It has high sensitivity . The correct answer is
• The common principal of ELISA is the use of enzyme A B C D
conjugates that bind to specific HIV antibody and (a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
substrates / Chromogens, that produces colour in a (b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
reaction catalyzed by the bound enzyme - conjugate. (c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
53. At which stage of HIV infection does one (d) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)
usually show symptoms of AIDS ?
(a) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an
infected person Ans (c):
(b) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells List – I List - II
(c) When viral DNA is produced by reverse a. Nocturanal periodicity Wuchereria bancrofti
transcriptase b. Extraintestinal migration Ascaris lumbricoides
(d) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-
lymphocytes and damages larger number of c. Schuffners dots Plasmodium vivax
these d. Tetranucleate cyst Entamoeba
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 histolytica
B. In Humans-Common Diseases Ans. (d) : The widel test is an advance way to check for
antibodys that your body makes against the salmonella
56. Which of the following statement is correct? bacteria that cause typhoid fever.
(a) Female carrier for haemophilia may transmit • It looks for o and H Antibodies in A patients sample
the disease to sons. blood.
(b) Thalasemia is a qualitative problem. • This test help for defect life threading illness like
(c) Change in whole set of chromosomes is typhoid fever.
called aneuploidy. 61. World Malaria day celebrated on
(d) Sickle cell anaemia is quantitative problem. (a) 25th March (b) 25th April
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 (c) 20th August (d) 20th September
Ans. (a) : Females who are carries for hemophilia, TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
means they have one x-chromosome with a mutated
hemophilia gen and one normal x-chromosome, can Ans. (b) : World malaria day is celebrated on 25th April
indeed transmit the disease to their sons. each year.
This global event is dedicated to raising awareness
57. Find out correct match. about malaria, its prevention and control.
Disease Pathogene Main organ 62. Inhalation of iron particles causes
affected
(a) Pneumoconiosis (b) Pneumonia
A Dysentery Protozoa Liver (c) Emphysema (d) Black lung disease
B Ringworm Fungus Skin AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
C Typhoid Bacteria Lungs Ans. (a) : Inhalation of iron particles lead to a specific
D Filariasis Common Small type of pneumoconiosis known as "siderosis" or
round worm intestine "welder's lung". Siderosis is a lung condition caused by
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 the inhalation of iron dust or fumes.
Ans. (b) : The main pathogens responsible for 63. Assertion (A) : Dengue fever is caused due to
ringworm are trichophyton, microsporum and failure of clot reaction
Epidermophyton species. Reason (R) : The patient of dengue may
These fungi can infect the skin, hair and nails. require transfusion of blood platelets
But the main organ that is affected by ringworm is the (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
skin. explanation of A
58. The toxic substance 'haemozoin' responsible (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
for high fever and chill, is released in which of explanation of A
the following diseases? (c) A is true and R is false
(a) Typhoid (b) Dengue (d) A is wrong and R is true
(c) Pneumonia (d) Malaria AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I
Ans. (b) : Dengue is not caused by the failure of the
Ans. (d) : An malaria disease the toxic substance clotting reaction. It is caused by the dengue virus, which is
'haemozoin' is released which is responsible for high transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Aedes
fever and chill. mosquitoes, particularly the Aedes aegypti mosquito.
When the malaria parasite infects red blood cells, it The patient of dengue, symptoms are related to a
consumes hemoglobin as a source of nutrients.
decrease in platelet count and the virus's impact on
during this process, haemozoin crystals are formed as blood vessels. So, he may require transfusion of blood
waste product.
platelets for recovering the disease.
59. Identify the symptoms of pneumonia.
64. Identity the fungal disease among the following
(a) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of
appetite (a) Common cold (b) Pneumonia
(b) Difficulty in breathing, fever, chills cough, (c) Ring worm (d) Typhoid
headache AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I
(c) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore Ans. (c) : Ringworm is a fungal infection that can affect
throat, headache he skin, hair or nails. It is contagious and can spread
(d) Constipation, Abdominal pain, cramps, blood through direct contact with an infected person or their
clots belongings.
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 65. Among the following nocturnal periodicity is
Ans. (b) : Pneumonia is an inflammatory lung condition exhibited by
that can have a range of symptoms such as- (a) Sausage shaped larva (b) Microfilaria
cough, fever, shortness of breath, chest pain, fatigue, (c) Ookanite (d) Rhabditiform larva
Rapid breathing, headache etc. AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II
60. Widal test is the confirmatory test for Ans. (b) : Periodicity is a term used to describe the
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia behavior of microfilariae. It is a larval stage. of certain
(c) Cholera (d) Typhoid parasitic worms, which responsible for lymphatic
AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II filariasis and some other filarial diseases.
66. Match List-I with List-II. can be spread through contact with contaminated feces,
List-I List-II water or feed. It can also be spread through the air by
(A) Typhoid (i) Protozoan coughing or sneezing.
(B) Elephantiasis (ii) Salmonella 69. Which of the following is not immunized by
'triple antigen' ?
(C) Ringworm (iii) Aschelminthes
(a) Typhoid (b) Tetanus
(D) Malaria (iv) Microsporum
(c) Diptheria (d) Whooping cough
Choose the correct answer from the options WB JEE-2006
given below:
(a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) Ans. (a) : Triple antigen is a combined vaccine against
diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis (whooping cough) in
(b) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
which pertussis component is a cellular. This is in
(c) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii) contrast to whole cell inactivated DTP. DTP or DPT is
(d) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii) not used for typhoid.
70. Sensation of stomach pain is due to
Ans. (a) : Typhoid fever is an infection that causes (a) interoceptors (b) exteroceptors
diarrhea and rash. It is caused by pathogenic bacteria (c) proprioceptors (d) teloceptors
Salmonella typhi. Elephantiasis or filariasis is caused by
an Aschelminth, named as Wuchereria baucrofti. Many Punjab MET-2009
fungi belonging to the genera Microsporum, Ans. (a) : The sensation of stomach pain is due to
Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible for interoceptors. Interoceptors are sensory nerve ending
ringworm. Plasmodium a tiny protozoan is responsible that are located in the internal organs of the body,
for malaria. including the stomach. They are responsible for sending
Typhoid → Salmonella signals to the brain about the state of the internal
Elephantiasis → Aschelmenthes organs, such as pain, temperature and pressure.
Ringworm → Microsporum 71. Which is a correct pair of a pathogen and its
vector?
Malaria → Protozoan
(a) Plasmodium and Anopheles
67. Match List I with List II : (b) Plasmodium and Culex
List-I List-II (c) Virus and Anopheles
A. Ringworm I. Haemopbhilus (d) Protozoan and Aedes
influenzae JCECE-2008
B. Filariasis II. Trichophyton Ans. (a) : Malaria is a vector borne disease and it is
C. Malaria III. Wuchereria caused by the Plasmodium parasite. Malaria's vector is
bancrofti the Anopheles mosquito. The malaria parasite develops
D. Pneumonia IV. Plasmodium vivax both in human and in the female anopheles mosquitoes,
Choose the correct answer from the options Therefore, correct pair of a pathogen and vector is
given below : Plasmodium and Anopheles.
(a) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 72. Which one of the following genus of insects
(b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I prefer to breed in clean water and their larvae
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV lie parallel to the surface of water?
(d) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (a) Anopheles (b) Culex
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023 (c) Aedes (d) Phlebotomus
Ans. (b) : Trichophyton species is an opportunistic WB JEE-2012
fungal disease of mammals. "Ring worm" has been Ans. (a) :The Anopheles mosquito prefers breeding in
isolated from rodents, lagomorphs ferrets hedgehogs clean, unpolluted water. Its larva floats horizontally
and marsupials. parallel to the water surface. This is because the larvae
• Bancroftian filariasis is a mosquito borne disease breathe in air through tubes on their abdomens, so they
caused by the nematode wuchereria bancrofti. need to be able to reach the surface of the water to
• Plasmodian vivax is a protozoal parasite and a breathe.
human pathogen. This parasite is the most frequent 73. Which one of the following life cycle stages of
and widely distributed cause of recurring malaria. Wuchereria bancrofti is infective to man?
• Pneumonia is a bacterial disease caused by (a) Microfilaria (b) 1st stage larva
nd
streptococcus pneumoniae or Haemophilus influenzae. (c) 2 stage larva (d) 3rd stage larva
68. The bacterial disease which is found in WB JEE-2012
chickens, is: Ans. (d) : The life cycle of Wuchereria bancrofti starts
(a) Rickets (b) Ranikhets when a male and female mate inside the lymphatic
(c) Fowl fox (d) Fowl cholera vessels of an infected human. Bancrofti develop into
WB JEE-2006 first stage- larvae and then into third stage infective
Ans. (d) : Fowl cholera is a bacterial disease that can larvae in the human body. The third stage infective
affect chickens, turkeys and other poultry. It is caused larvae can infect another human when the mosquito
by the bacterium Pasteurella multocida. The bacteria takes a blood meal.
74. Which one of the following life cycle stages of Ans. (b) : Filariasis is a parasitic disease caused by an
malarial parasite is responsible for relapse of infection with round worms of the Filarioidea type.
malarial symptoms? Microfilaria are found in the peripheral blood
(a) Merozoite (b) Sporozoite circulation during night time.
(c) Hypnozoite (d) Gametocyte 80. The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is
WB JEE-2012
(a) cyst (b) egg
Ans. (c) : Hypnozoites causing relapses may be
reactivated in as short as two weeks or as long as 10 (c) spore (d) trophozoite
months after initial infection. Hypnozoite is responsible Punjab MET-1999
for relapse of malarial symptoms. Primaquine is the Ans. (a) : The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica
only treatment available to prevent the relapse of is cyst. Infection with Entamoeba histolytica is
Plasmodium vivax malaria. acquired by indirect fecal oral route or by sexual
75. Mention the Incubation Period of Plasmodium intercourse. The water or food which is contaminated
vivax with feces is responsible for the entry of the cyst in
(a) 10-14 days (b) 20-25 days healthy individual.
(c) 30 days (d) 45 days 81. Which of the following is a communicable
WB JEE-2009 / BCECE-2007 disease ?
Ans. (a) : The incubation period of Plasmodium vivax is (a) Diabetes (b) Hypertension
10– 14 days. This means that it can take 10 to 14 days (c) Kwasiorkor (d) Diphtheria
for symptoms of malaria to appear after being bitten by Uttarakhand-2005 / Punjab MET-1999
an infected mosquito. However, in some cases, the Ans. (d) : Diptheria is a communicable disease that can
incubation period can be longer, lasting upto 8 to 10 be spread from one person to another. They are caused
months or even longer. by infectious agents such as bacteria, viruses, fungi and
76. Tetanus disease is caused by parasites. Communicable disease can spread through
(a) virus (b) bacteria contact with body fluids, such as blood, saliva and
(c) fungi (d) mycoplasma mucus or through the air.
AFMC - 2005 / UP CPMT-2004
82. A disease caused by one of the smallest viruses is
Ans. (b) : Tetanus is an infection characterized by (a) Trachoma (b) Poliomyelitis
muscle spasms in the most common type the spasms
(c) Mumps (d) Measles
begin in the jaw and then progress to the rest of the
body and are called lock jaw at is caused by an BCECE-2011
infection with the bacterium Clostridium tetani. Ans. (b) : A Poliomyelitis often known as polio or
Spores of tetanus bacteria are everywhere in the infantile paralysis is an infectious disease caused by the
environment including soil, dust and manure. The poliovirus. The polio virus is the smallest known virus.
spores develop into bacteria when they enter the body. It contains RNA in the spherical capsid. Polio virus
77. Which of the following pair is characterised by attacks the nervous system. In about 0.5% of cases there
swollen lips, thick pigmented skin of hands and is muscle weakness resulting in an inability to move.
legs and irritability? 83. Disease caused by fungus is:
(a) Iodine - Goitre (a) Bronchitis (b) Ringworm
(b) Protein - Kwashiorkor (c) Small pox (d) Tuberculosis
(c) Thiamine - Beri-beri Rajasthan PMT-1996
(d) Nicotinamide - Pellagra Ans. (b) : Ringworm is the fungal infection of the skin.
UP CPMT-2004 / MGIMS Wardha-2004 Approximately 40 different species of fungi can cause
Ans. (d) : Pellargra is a disease caused by the ringworm. The names of fungi that cause ringworm are
deficiency of nicotinamide or nicotinic acid or niacin or Trichophyton, Microsporum and Epidermophyton.
vitamin–B3. It is frequent among people eating food 84. In saliva of mosquito following is present
with low tryptophan content. The symptoms of pellagra
are dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia. during its bite:
(a) Xyote (b) Gametocyte
78. Infection of Enterobius is caused to man is by
(c) Ookinite (d) Anticoagulant
(a) inoculation (b) contamination
Rajasthan PMT-1996
(c) piercing (d) flying
Punjab MET-1999 Ans. (d) : Mosquito saliva is known to have anticoagulant,
Ans. (b) : Enterobium is caused to man by vasodilatory and immunomodulatory activities and is
contaminated egg surface with pinworm. It is detectable in the skin for upto 18 hours after the bite.
commonly known as Pinworm because their 85. Which of the following is a viral disease?
characteristics tapering shape and pointed tails. It infects (a) Typhoid (b) Polio
the human and is transmitted by the direct contact with the (c) TB (d) Leprocy
contaminated surface with pinworm eggs. UP CPMT-2003
79. Microfilaria is found in the peripheral blood of Ans. (b) : Polio is a serious and life threating virus
man during disease. It affect the nervous system and cause muscle
(a) day time (b) night time weakness, some polio cases can result in paralysis or
(c) morning (d) evening death. There is no cure for polio, but it is a preventable
Punjab MET-1999 through safe and effective vaccination.
86. Infection by which bacterium is responsible for (b) zinc, iron and magnesium
peptic ulcer in human being ? (c) magnesium, iron, zinc, light and certain genes
(a) Staphylococcus aureus (d) magnesium, zinc and light
(b) Bacillus cereus JIPMER-1997
(c) Xanthomonas citri Ans. (c) : Chlorosis, etiolation and albinism are caused
(d) Helicobacter pylori by deficiency of magnesium, iron, zinc, light and
Tripura JEE-2018 certain genes.
Ans. (d) : Peptic ulcers is caused by the bacterium 93. Which of the following is not a viral disease?
Helicobacter pylori. They are usually either due to (a) Rabies (b) Chicken-pox
inflammation caused by the bacteria H. pylori or from (c) Leprosy (d) Polio
erosion from stomach acids.
VMMC-2002
87. Fear of dirt, desease and contaminants is. Ans. (c) : Rabies, chicken-pox and polio these are the
(a) pathophobia (b) mysophobia viral diseases but leprosy is not a viral diseases, it is
(c) algophobia (d) None of these caused by bacteria Mycobacterium leprae.
AFMC -2011
94. Genus Aedes of mosquito is a vector of:
Ans. (b) : Mysophobia is a fear of dirt, disease and
(a) filaria (b) plague
contaminants. Pathophobia is a fear of disease and
algophobia is fear of pain. (c) dengue fever (d) elephantiasis
Rajasthan PMT-1998
88. Which one of the following pairs of diseases is
viral as well as transmitted by mosquitoes? Ans. (c) : Dengue fever also known as breakdown
(a) Elephantiasis and dengue fever, is an infectious tropical disease caused by the
Aedes mosquito. The most common symptoms are
(b) Yellow fever and sleeping sickness
fever, headache, muscle and joint pains and a
(c) Encephalitis and sleeping sickness characteristic skin rash.
(d) Yellow fever and dengue
Dengue viruses are spread to people through the bite of
DUMET-2010
an infected Aedes mosquitoes species.
Ans. (d) : Yellow fever and dengue both are the pair of
disease is viral as well as transmitted by mosquito. 95. Hepatitis B is transmitted through
Elephantiasis is a parasitic disease caused by filarial (a) blood transfusion
worms, which transmitted by Culex mosquitoes. (b) intimate physical contact
Sleeping sickness is parasitic disease caused by (c) sexually
trypanosomes, which are transmitted by Tse-Tse flies. (d) all of the above
89. Typhoid fever is caused by a species of AMU-1999
(a) Streptococcus (b) Staphylococcus Ans. (d) : Hepatitis-B virus primarily interferes with the
(c) Salmonella (d) Mycobacterium function of the liver by replicating in hepatocytes.
UP CPMT-2010 / DUMET-2010 Symptoms are variable and include yellowing of the
Ans. (c) : Salmonella typhi is a causal bacteria of eye, fever, vomiting, abdominal pain, dark urine or
typhoid disease. It is a gram – negative bacteria other body fluids during sex with an infected partner,
responsible for typhoid fever. Pierre Louis was the first unsafe injection or exposures to sharp instrument.
scientist who coin the term “typhoid fever”. 96. Fever in malaria is due to:
90. Tuberculosis is caused by (a) entry of sporozoites into blood capillaries
(a) Vibrio cholerae (b) Mycobacterium (b) entry of merozoites into liver cells
(c) Salmonella typhi (d) None of these (c) release of merozoites from red blood cells
DUMET-2008 (d) entry of cryptomerozoites into red blood cells
Ans. (b) : Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by bacteria, AMU-2006 / MGIMS Wardha-2004
Mycobacterium tuberculosis. TB usually affects the Ans. (c) : Fever in Malaria is due to merozoites which
lungs but it can also affect other parts of the body such are released from erythrocytes. Plasmodium is the
as the brain, kidney or the spine. reason for causing malaria. If is transmitted by infected
91. The malnutrition disease in man is mosquitoes biting.
(a) Cri du chat syndrome 97. Match the disease in Column I with the
(b) Klinefelter syndrome appropriate items (pathogen / prevention /
(c) Potbelly syndrome treatment) in Column II
(d) Edward syndrome Column I Column II
J&K CET-2009
A. Amoebiasis 1. Treponema pallidum
Ans. (c) : The malnutrition disease in man is potbelly
syndrome, while Cri-du chat syndrome, Klinefelter's B. Diphtheria 2. Use only sterilized
syndrome and Edward syndrome are genetic disorder. food and water
92. Chlorosis, etiolation and albinism are caused C. Cholera 3. DPT Vaccine
by deficiency of: D. Syphilis 4. Use oral rehydration
(a) iron, light and certain genes therapy
(a) A -1 B - 2 C - 3 D - 4 • Malaria is a protozoal disease caused by infection
(b) A-2B-4C-1D-3 with parasites of plasmodium and transmitted to man
(c) A-2B-1C-3D-4 by certain species of infected female Anopheles
(d) A-2B-3C-4D-1 mosquito.
VMMC-2012 / AIPMT - 2008 • Plague is a disease that affects humans and other
Ans. (d) : mammals.
Column-I Column-II 102. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated
Amoebiasis → Use only sterilized food and from the African population because
water (a) it is controlled by recessive genes
Diphtheria → DPT vaccine (b) it is not a fatal disease
Cholera → Use oral rehydration therapy (c) it provides immunity against malaria
Syphilis → Treponema pallidum (d) it is controlled by dominant genes
98. Identify wrongly matched pair, AMU-2006
(a) Typhoid-widal test Ans. (c) : Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated
(b) Plague-Viral disease the African population because it provides immunity
(c) Malignant malaria-Plasmodium falciparum against malaria. It is a autosomal disorder link to the
(d) Common cold-Rhinovirus recessive alleles.
JCECE-2015 / Manipal-2015 103. The only mammal, other than man which
Ans. (b) : Plague or bubonic plague which is also suffer from leprosy
known as black death, it is a bacterial infection that is (a) Dasypus (b) Desmodus
transmitted by fleas by bacteria Yersinia pestis. It is not (c) Rhinolophus (d) Mus
a viral disease. Manipal-2013
99. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), a Ans. (a) : The only mammal other than man which can
fatal disease is caused by suffer from leprosy is Dasypus. Dasypus novemcinectus
(a) Paramyxovirus primitive mammal can also be infected with
(b) A variant of common cold virus (corona) and (a) Mycobacterium leprae the bacterium mainly infects on
(c) A variant of Pneumococcal pneumonia the cooler tissues the foot pads.
(d) A variant of diplococcus pneumonia
104. Widal Test is a confirmation test for _______
VMMC-2014
(a) Pneumonia (b) Typhoid
Ans. (b) : Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) a
fatal disease is caused by a variant of common cold (c) Jaundice (d) Epilepsy
virus (corona) and paramyxovirus. SARS was caused by AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-II / JCECE-2018
a corona virus, the same family of viruses that causes KVPY SA-2015 / J&K CET-2014, 2012
some common colds. Like most respiratory viruses, Ans. (b) : Widal test is a serological test that is done for
SARS appeared to spread from person to person the diagnosis of typhoid fever. This test detects the ‘O'
through coughing, sneezing and close contact. and 'H' antigens of Salmonella typhi.
100. The pair of disease caused by virus is 105. Where did an epidemic bone softening disease
(a) typhoid, tetanus (b) rabies, mumps Itai-Itali occurred first?
(c) cholera, tuberculosis (d) AIDS, syphilis (a) South Korea (b) Japan
AMU-2006 (c) China (d) Burma
Ans. (b) : Rabies (hydrophobia) is caused by a virus VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004
named as rabies virus. Ans. (b) : A slow epidemic of a combination of
Mumps is a viral illness caused by a paramyxovirus, a osteomalacia and kidney damage (itai - itai disease) was
member of the Rubella virus family. These viruses are a first noted in "Japan'' in the late 1940s.
common source of infection, particularly in children.
106. Athletes foot is caused by
101. Which one of the following is correctly
(a) Tinea pedis (b) Tinea capitis
matched?
(a) Body louse - Typhoid (c) Candida albicans (d) Rickettsia
(b) House fly - Yellow fever AMU-2012
(c) Anopheles - Malaria Ans. (a) : Athletes foot is caused by a fungi known as
(d) Aedes - Plague Tinea pedis. The fungus can be caught by contact with
VMMC-2007 / AMU-2006 an infected person or by contact with contaminated
Ans. (c) : Typhoid fever is a severe multi systematic surface. Although, Tinea pedis can affect any portion of
illness characterized by the classic prolonged fever, the foot, the infection most often affects between gaps
sustained bacterium. Typhoid fever is an infection that of toes.
spreads through contaminated food and water. 107. Hepatitis-B virus is a
• A viral infection spread by a particular species of (a) hepadnavirus (b) variolavirus
mosquito. The "yellow" in the name refers to the (c) retrovirus (d) picomavirus
jaundice. AMU-2012
Ans. (a) : Hepatitis B virus, a member of the 113. Match the following columns.
hepadnavirus group double-stranded DNA viruses Column-I Column-I
which replicate, unusually, by reverse transcription. (Disease) (Vector)
Hepatitis B is serious liver infection caused by the A. Yellow fever 1. Tse-tse fly
hepatitis B virus that is easily preventable by a vaccine. B. Sleeping sickness 2. Sandfly
108. Diphtheria is caused by C. Filariasis 3. Aedes
(a) viruses (b) eukaryotes D. Kala-azar 4. Culex
(c) mycoplasma (d) bacteria Codes:
CG PMT-2006 (a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
Ans. (d) : Diphtheria is a serious bacterial infection (b) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
usually affecting the mucous membranes of nose and (c) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
throat. It is caused by the bacteria Corynebacterium (d) A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1
diphtheria. DPT vaccine prevent diptheria. The CMC Ludhiana-2014
symptoms of diphtheria are a thick, gray membrane Ans. (b) : Colum-I Colum-II
covering the throat and tonsils, a sore throat and Yellow fever → Aedes
hoarseness, swollen glands in neck, difficultly breathing Sleeping sickness → Tse-tse fly
or rapid breathing. Filariasis → Culex
109. The effect of cigarette smoking and radon in Kala-azar → Sandfly
combination on lungs is 114. One of the protozoan disease is
(a) fatal (b) synergistic (a) Polio (b) AIDS
(c) mutualistic (d) antagonistic (c) Taeniasis (d) Malaria
JIPMER-2013 J&K CET-2007
Ans. (b) : The effect of cigarette smoking and radon in Ans. (d) : Malaria is the most significant of the
combination on lungs is synergistic. Smoking can cause protozoan parasites that infects man, found in tropical
lungs disease by damaging airways and the small air and Subtropical regions of the world. Malaria parasites
threaten the lives of 3.3 billion people and cause
sacs (alveoli) found in lungs.
approximately 0.6 – 1.1 million deaths annually.
110. Tissue injury causing redness, swelling pain 115. Which one is not transmitted by houseflies?
and production of heat and fever are localized (a) Cholera (b) Typhoid
manifestations of _______ response. (c) Dysentery (d) Yellow fever
(a) physiological (b) anatomical CG PMT-2011
(c) inflammatory (d) cellular Ans. (d) : Yellow fever is not transmitted by houseflies
MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I Houseflies are the carrier of diseases such as cholera,
Ans. (c) : Tissue injury causing redness, swelling pain typhoid and dysentry, whereas yellow fever is caused
and production of heat and fever are localized by a flavivirus and transmitted by the bite of Aedes
manifestations of inflammatory cell response to agypti mosquito.
infection or injury. 116. Which one of the following is a pandemic
disease?
111. Which one of the following is used for external
(a) Amoebic dysentery (b) Hepatitis
application in the cure of leprosy?
(c) Filariasis (d) Influenza
(a) Rice bran oil (b) Neem seed oil
CG PMT-2010
(c) Cotton seed oil (d) Groundnut seed oil
Ans. (d) : A Pandemic is bigger than an epidemic and
VMMC-2010
includes spread over several countries or continents.
Ans. (b) : Neem seed oil are used for external The disease is spread easily from person to person. Here
application in the cure of leprosy. Leprosy is caused influenza is a pandemic disease. An influenza
due to the infection of Mycobacterium leprae. pandemic is a global epidemic caused by a new
112. Quinine used for treatment of malarial fever influenza virus to which there is little or no pre -
extracted from existing immunity in human population. The most
recent pandemic occurred in 2009 and was caused by an
(a) Atropa belladona influenza A (H1N1) virus.
(b) Cinchona officinalis
117. Find the out odd one
(c) Aconitum napellus (a) Guinea worm (b) Hookworm
(d) Rauwolffia serpentine (c) Ringworm (d) Tapeworm
BCECE-2008 / Haryana PMT-2006 CG PMT-2010
Ans. (b) : Quinine used for treatment of malaria fever Ans. (c) : Ringworm is skin infection caused by fungus
extracted from Cinchona officinalis. Medicine quinine Trichophyton and Microsporum while guinea worm,
which is used for the cure of malaria is obtained from hookworm and tapeworm all are intestinal parasitic
the bark of cinchona. worms.
118. Choose the correct statements from the Ans. (c) : E. coli are bacteria found in the intestines of
followings humans, animals and in the environment. They can also
(a) Tsar or Tussar silk is obtained by Bombyx mori be found in food and untreated water.
(b) Wuchereria bancrofti is digenetic nematodes 124. Signet ring stage of Plasmodium is found in
viviparous (a) RBC of man (b) RBC of Anopheles
(c) Leishmania a protozoan causes African (c) liver of man (d) salivary gland
sleeping sickness CMC Ludhiana-2011
(d) World heart day is celebrated on last Sunday
of October Ans. (a) : The signet ring stage of Plasmodium is found
BVP-2013 in the red blood cells (RBCs) of humans. This stage is
associated with the asexual replication of the parasite
Ans. (b) : Wuchereria bancrofti is digenetic nematodes within the RBCs and it is a part of malaria life cycle in
viviparous. Wuchereria bancrofti is a filarial nematode humans.
(roundworm) that is the major causative agent of
lymphatic filariasis or elephantiasis. 125. A man shows outbursts of emotions,
quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with
119. The insect which spreads the yellow fever is: others is suffering from
(a) Aedes (b) Psorophora (a) schizophrenia
(c) Glossina (d) Phlebotomus (b) borderline personality disorder
AP EAMCET-2000
(c) addictive disorder
Ans. (a) : Yellow fever is a mosquitoes borne viral (d) mood disorders
disease. Its transmission is primarily via Aedes and CMC Ludhiana-2010
Haemagogus mosquitoes. The ''yellow'' in the name
refers to the jaundice that affects some patients. Ans. (b) : A man shows outbursts of emotions
quarrelsome behavior and conflicts with other is
120. Malignant malaria is caused by: suffering from borderline personality disorder. This
(a) Plasmadium falciparum condition is characterized by unstable and intense
(b) Plasmodium ovale interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, mood swings
(c) Plasmodium vivax and a fear of abandonment.
(d) Plasmodium malaria 126. Which one of the following conditions though
Rajasthan PMT-2006 harmful in itself, is also a potential savior from
Ans. (a) : Malignant malaria is a severe form of malaria a mosquito borne infectious disease?
disease in human. It is caused by one of the species of (a) Pernicious anaemia (b) Leukaemia
Plasmodium called Plasmodium falciparum. (c) Thalassaemia (d) Sickle cell anaemia
121. The disease caused by a helminth parasite of MGIMS Wardha-2010
man that has a gastropoda member as an Ans. (d) : Sickle cell anaemia, infectious disease
intermediate host: condition though harmful in itself, is also a potential
(a) Ascariasis (b) Bilharziasis savior from a mosquito borne infectious disease.
(c) Taeniasis (d) Enterobiasis 127. From which of the following plant is a
AP EAMCET-1999 medicine for respiratory disorders obtained ?
Ans. (b) : The disease caused by a helminth parasite of (a) Ephedra (b) Eucalyptus
man that has a gastropoda member as an intermediate (c) Cannabis (d) Saacharum
host is Bilharziasis. Several species of gastropoda like JIPMER-2010
Bulinus and Physopsis serve as an intermediate host in
the life cycle of Schistomoma haematobium. Ans. (a) : Ephedra, also called ma huang is used
primarily to treat asthma, bronchitis and hay fever.
122. Sprinkling of oil on stagnant water helps in the Ephedra is also prescribed for symptoms of cold and
control of malaria because: flu, including nasal congestion, cough, fever and chills.
(a) mosquito larvae get asphyxiated (cannot It is obtained from plants of the genus Ephedra,
breath)
particularly the Chinese species E. sinica.
(b) water becomes impure for mosquito
(c) specific gravity of water increases 128. Which of the following is a waterborne
disease?
(d) oils kills malarial parasite in mosquitoes
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Chickenpox
AFMC-2001
(c) Malaria (d) Cholera
Ans. (a) : Sprinkling oil on stagnant water forms a thin KVPY (SA)-2010
film on the water’s surface. This film prevents mosquito
larvae, which are aquatic and need to come to the Ans. (d) : A person can get cholera by drinking water or
surface to breathe, from accessing the air. As a result, eating food contaminated with cholera bacterium. It is a
the larvae get asphyxiated and cannot survive, which water borne disease in an epidemic, the source of the
help in controlling the mosquito population. contamination is usually the feces of an infected person
123. In which of the following will you look for E. that contaminates water or food.
coli? 129. Assertion:– A cholera patient is given glucose,
(a) Milk (b) Water electrolytes and water
(c) Human intestine (d) Soil Reason:– These plasmolyse the disease causing
AFMC-2001 germs
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Ans. (a) : Benign prostatic flyperplasia also called BPH
explanation of A is a condition in men, in which the prostate gland is
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not a enlarged and non – cancerous it is also called as
correct explanation of A prostatic obstruct. The prostate goes through two main
(3) A is true but R is false growth period as a man ages.
(4) A is false but R is true 135. In recent years which disease of digestive
(a) 1 (b) 2 system in India has received great attention
(c) 3 (d) 4 and against that active vaccination is being
AIIMS-1998 done even in schools?
Ans. (c) : Cholera can cause dehydration which can be (a) Polimyelitis (b) Hepatitis
deadly if not properly treated. With timely rehydration (c) Jaundice (d) Enterocolitis
therapy, more that 99% of cholera patients will survive. BVP-2004
Thats why, rehydration is the most important treatment Ans. (b) : In recent years which disease of digestive
for cholera. system in India has received great attention and against
130. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a that active vaccination is being done even in schools
four-year-old girl with Adenosine Deaminase Hepatitis. It is caused by Hepatitis-B virus. It is
(ADA) deficiency? generally transmitted from mother to baby and also
(a) Gene therapy (b) Chemotherapy through contaminated needles, syringes, ear and nose
(c) Immunotherapy (d) Radiation therapy piercing instruments etc.
NEET-2016 Phase-II 136. Match the following:
Ans. (a) : Gene therapy is an experimental technique in List–I List–II
which genes are introduced into individual cells or
tissues, to cure some hereditary diseases in which a (A) Typhoid (I) Rhinovirus
defective alleles of a gene is replaced with normal one. (B) Pneumonia (II) Salmonella
The first approved gene therapy was given on 14 (C) Common cold (III) Papilloma
September 1990 by Dr. William French Anderson. The virus
patient was a four-year-old girl Ashanti De Silva who
had genetic defect leading to ADA- SCID, a severe (D) Ringworm (IV) Haemophilus
immune system deficiency. (V) Microsporum
131. Which one of the following caused the oriental The correct match is:
sore? A B C D
(a) Trypanosoma gambiense (a) II IV III I
(b) Leishmania brasiliensis (b) II IV I V
(c) Leishmania cruzi (c) V I IV II
(d) Leishmania tropica
(d) III IV I V
VMMC-2011 / BVP-2005 / CG PMT-2005
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022, 2017 Shift-II
Ans. (d) : The term “oriental sore” is associated with
Leishmania tropica, which causes Cutaneous leishmaniasis Ans. (b) : (1) Typhoid – Salmonella typhi
in certain regions. The naming can be regional, and (2) Pneumonia – Haemophillus
Leishmania tropica is known to cause this condition, (3) Common cold – Rhinovirus
particularly in parts of Asia and the Middle East. (4) Ring worm - Microsporum
132. Malaria is a common disease caused by: 137. Which of the following techniques serve the
(a) bacterium (b) virion purpose of early diagnosis?
(c) sporozoan (d) helminth (A) PCR (B) ELISA
J&K CET-2004 (C) Analysis of urine (D) Serum analysis
Ans. (c) : Malaria is common disease caused by a single Options:
called parasite known as sporozoan. (a) A, C (b) A, D
This sporozoan belongs to the genus Plasmodium and (c) A, B (d) B, C
the four species that threaten humans are P falciparum, TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II
P. malariae, P. vivax P. ovale. Ans. (c) : Polymerase chain reaction enzyme linked
133. Major cause of anaemia is deficiency of immunosorbent assay (PCR – ELISA) is an
(a) Ca2+ (b) Fe2+ immunodetection method that can quantity PCR product
(c) Na+ (d) Mg2+ directly after immobilization of biotinylated DNA on a
Uttarakhand PMT-2011 microplate. This method which detect the nucleic acid
Ans. (b) : Major cause of anaemia deficiency is because instead of protein, is a much more sensitive method
of Fe although deficiencies in folate vitamin B12 and A compared to conventional PCR method, with shorter
are also important causes. analytical time and lower detection limit its high
134. Which of the following disease is non-cancerous? specificity and sensitivity together with its
(a) BPH (b) Hepatitis-B virus semiquantitative ability, give it a huge potential serve as
(c) Carcinoma of testis (d) Melanoma a powerful detection tool in various industries such as
CMC Vellore-2013 veterinary, and agricultural industrial.
138. Match the following 143. Match each disease with its correct type of
List -I List - II vaccine:
(A) African sleeping (I) Sacculina (A) Tuberculosis (i) Harmless virus
sickness (B) Whooping (ii) Inactivated
(B) Dumdum fever (II) Haemophilus cough toxin
influenzae (C) Diphtheria (iii) Killed bacteria
(C) Pneumonia (III) Leishmania (D) Polio (iv) Harmless
donovani bacteria
(D) Parasitic (IV) Trypanosoma A B C D
castration gambiense (a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(V) Leishmania (b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
tropica (c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
The correct answer is (d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(A) (B) (C) (D) AIPMT-2015
(a) (IV) (III) (I) (V) Ans. (b) :
(b) (IV) (III) (II) (I) (A) Tuberculosis (iv) Harmless
(c) (III) (IV) (II) (I) bacteria
(d) (III) (I) (II) (IV) (B) Whooping (iii) Killed bacteria
AP EAMCET-2014 cough
Ans. (b) : African sleeping sickness – T. Gambiense
(C) Diphtheria (ii)
Inactivated
(B) Dumdum fever – Leishmania domovani toxin
(C) Pneumonia – Haemophillus influenza
(D) Polio (i) Harmless virus
(D) Parasitic castration - Sacculina
144. Which of the following viruses is not
139. Pneumonia is caused by transferred through semen of an infected male?
(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae (a) Human immunodeficiency virus
(b) Haemophilus influenzae (b) Chikungunya virus
(c) Both (a) & (b) (c) Ebola virus
(d) None (d) Hepatitis B virus
Karnataka CET-2021 AIPMT-2015
Ans. (c) : Pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus Ans. (b) : Chikungunya is a viral disease transmitted to
pneumoniae and also by haemophilus influenzae human by infected mosquitoes. Chikungunya virus is
Both (a) & (b) are correct not transferred through semen of infected male.
140. Which of the following is not water borne Viruses can also live in human semen and can be
disease? transferred to the bloodstream. Those include the
(a) Asthma (b) Cholera viruses that cause Ebola, HIV, hepatitis B and herpes.
(c) Amoebiasis (d) All of these 145. Which of the following is not a sexually
Haryana PMT-2011 transmitted disease?
Ans. (a) : Asthma is not water borne disease. (a) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
(AIDS)
141. Human protein α -1- antitrypsin is used to
(b) Trichomoniasis
treat which disease?
(c) Encephalitis
(a) lukemia (b) emphysema
(d) Syphilis
(c) cancer (d) AIDS
AIPMT-2015
GUJCET-2021
Ans. (c) : Encephalitis is not a sexually transmitted
Ans. (b) : α -1- antitrypsin is used in treatment of disease. Encephalitis is an acute inflammation of the
emphysema. It is protein produced in the liver that protects brain. The most common causes of acute viral
the body’s tissues from being damaged by infection encephalitis are rabies virus, herpes simplex, polio
fighting agents released by its immune system deficiency virus, measles virus, Varicella zoster virus. It can be
of this protein destruction of sensitive lung tissue. caused by a bacterial infection, such as bacterial
142. Polio causes: meningitis, spreading directly to the brain (primary
(a) measles (b) paralysis encephalitis). Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
(c) mumps (d) malaria (AIDS), Trichomoniasis, Syphilis all are sexually
J&K CET-2002 transmitted disease.
146. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
Ans. (b) : Polio causes paralysis, it is a disabling and
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
life threatening disease which spreads from person to lymphatic vessels?
person and can infect a person’s spinal cord, causing (a) Elephantiasis (b) Ascariasis
paralysis it is prevented by vaccine OPV (oral polio (c) Amoebiasi (d) Ringworm disease
vaccine). NEET-2018
Ans. (a) : Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, Ans. (a) : Gonorrhea is caused by a genus of bacteria
Wuchereria brancrofti and it is transmitted by culex called Neisseria.
mosquito. • Syphilis is caused by a spiral shaped bacteria known
Lymphatic filariasis, commonly known as as Treponema.
elephantiasis, is a painful and profoundly disfiguring • Genital warts is a viral infection caused by the
disease. It is caused by infection with parasites Human papilloma virus (HPV).
classified as nematodes (roundworms) of the family • AIDS is caused by the Human immunodeficiency
Filariodidea that are transmitted through the bites of virus
infected mosquitoes.
150. Which of the following is not correct in relation
147. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused to the history of Malaria?
due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. (a) Malaria means bad air
Select the correct statement.
(b) Sir Ronald Ross identified the oocytes of
(a) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin
plasmodium in the stomach wall of female
chain synthesis
Anopheles mosquito
(b) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin
(c) G.B. Grassi described the lifestyle of
chain synthesis
plasmodium in the female Anopheles mosquito
(c) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin (d) Sir Patrick Manson discovered plasmodium in
molecules
the blood of Malaria patient
(d) Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative AP EAPCET-12.07.2022 Shift-I
problem of globin molecules
NEET-2017 Ans. (a) : Option (a) is not correct to the history of
malaria.
Ans. (c) : Thalassemia differs from sickle - cell anemia
Dr. Alphonse Laveran discovered the malaria parasite in
in that the former is a quantitative problem of
1880. While Patrick Manson discovered filariasis in
synthesizing to few globin molecules while the latter is
humans is transmitted by mosquitoes.
a qualitative problem of synthesizing and is correctly
functioning globin. 151. Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington's
chorea are-
148. Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults
does not cause further increase in height, (a) Bacteria-related diseases
because (b) Congenital disorders
(a) Growth hormone becomes inactive in adults (c) Pollutant-induced disorders
(b) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence (d) Virus-related diseases
(c) Bones lose their sensitivity to Growth AIPMT-2006
Hormone in adults Ans. (b) : A congenital disorder is a medical condition
(d) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth that is present at birth. Congenital the intra uterine
NEET-2017 environment or unknown factors.
Ans. (b) : Epiphyseal plates are present at the end of long • Sickle cell disease is a group of genetic disorders
bones. It is a hyaline cartilage plate, where new bone caused by sickle hemoglobin (Hbs). Hbs molecules
growth takes place. It is also known as a growth plate. tend to clump together, making red blood cells.
• It is present in children and adolescents and gets Sticky, stiff and more fragile and causing them to
form into a curved sickle shape. Huntington's chorea
replaced by the epiphyseal line in adults.
an inherited disorder characterized by degenerative
• This transformation is termed epiphyseal closure or changes in the basal ganglia structures, which
growth plate fusion. In adults, hypersecretion of GH ultimately result in a severely shrunken brain and
causes acromegaly, which is characterised by severe enlarge ventricles, abnormal body movement called
disfigurement. chorea and loss of memory are congential disorders.
149. Match the following sexually transmitted 152. Pathogenicity of Salmonella typhi is due to____
diseases (Column-I) with their causative agent present in its outer membrane.
(Column-II) and select the correct option. (a) Glycoproteins (b) Lipopolysaccharides
Column-I Column-II (c) Nucleic acids (d) Carbohydrates
(A) Gonorrhea i HIV MHT CET-2019
(B) Syphills ii Neisseria Ans. (b) : Pathogenicity of Salmonella typhi is due to
(C) Genital Warts iii Treponema lipopolysaccharide present in its outer membrane.
(D) AIDS iv Human 153. Match the pairs of diseases and pathogens :
Papilloma virus I II
Options: 1. Malaria A. Wuchereria bancrofti
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2. Filariasis B. Helminth
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 3. Typhoid C. Plasmodium
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) falciparum
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 4. Schistosomiasis D. Salmonella typhi
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (a) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – D
NEET-2017 / APEAMCET - 2015 (b) 2 – D, 2 – B, 3 – B, 4 – C
(c) 3 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D Ans. (c) : Common cold is caused by the Rhinovirus
(d) 4 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B that can spread from person to person through the air
MHT CET-2015 and close personal contact.
Ans. (d) : Malaria - Plasmodium falciparum 159. In man, Epidermophyton causes
Filariasis – Wuchereria bancrofti (a) Typhoid (b) Cholera
Typhoid – Salmonella tyhphi (c) Ring worm (d) Common cold
Schistosomiasis – Helminth TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-I
154. A change in a wart or mole on the skin is Ans. (c) : Epidermophyton causes Tinea corporis ring
observed in worm), Tinea cruris (jock itch), Tinea pedis (athelete’s
(a) Adenoma (b) Carcinoma foot) and Tinea unguium (fungal infection of the nail
(c) Lymphoma (d) Melanoma bed).
MHT CET-2016
Ans. (d) : A change in a wart or mole on the skin is
observed in melanoma. Melanoma, the most serious
type of skin, cancer develops in the (Melanocytes). That
produce melanin, the pigment that gives our skin its
colour.
155. Which one of the following is NOT the
symptom of malaria?
(a) Arthralgia (b) Fever
(c) Dysentery (d) Shivering
MHT CET-2016
Ans. (c) : Symptoms of malaria chills, fever and
sweating, usually occurring a few weeks after being
bitten but dysentery is not the symptom of Malaria. 160. Read the following statements and find out
correct statements.
156. The only drug effective in the treatment of
filariasis, hetrazon was discovered by (I) Elephantiasis is transmitted by female
Anopheles.
(a) Alfred Sherwood Romer
(b) Yellapragada Subba Rao (II) Malaria is transmitted by female Culex.
(c) M.S. Swaminathan (III) Oriental sore is caused by Leishmania
tropica.
(d) William Kirby
TS EAMCET-03.05.2018, 2017 Shift-I (IV) African sleeping sickness is caused by
Trypanosoma gambiense.
Ans. (b) : : Yellapragada Subba Rao discovered the
Options:
basis for the anthelimintic diethyl carbamazine
(Hetrazan) which was used by (WHO) against filariasis. (a) I, II, III, IV (b) I, II, IV only
(c) I, II, III only (d) III, IV only
157. Match the causative organisms with their
diseases: TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-I
(i) Haemophilus influenza (A) Malignant Ans. (d) :
malaria • Elephantiasis is transmitted by female Culex
(ii) Entamoeba histolytica (B) Elephantiasis mosquito.
(iii) Plasmodium (C) Pneumonia • Malaria is transmitted by female Anopheles.
falciparum • Oriental sore is caused by Leishmania tropica.
(iv) Wuchereia bancrofti (D) Typhoid • African sleeping sickness is caused by Trypanosoma
(v) Salmonella typhi (E) Amoebiasis gambiense.
(a) i – A ii – E iii – C iv – B v – D 161. Kochs postulates are not applicable to
(b) i – C ii – E iii – A iv – B v – D (a) TB (b) leprosy
(c) i – E ii – A iii – C iv – D v – B (c) cholera (d) diptheria
(d) i – A ii – C iii – B iv – E v – D WB JEE-2007
(e) i – A ii – C iii – E iv – B v – D Ans. (b) : Kochs postulates are not applicable to leprosy.
Kerala PMT-2011
As originally stated, the criteria are -
Ans. (b) : Haemophilus influenza – Pneumonia (1) The microorganism must be found in disease but
Entamoeba histolytica – Amoebiasis not healthy individuals
Plasmodium falciparum – Malignant malaria (2) The microorganism must be cultured from the
Wuchereria bancrofti – Elephantiasis diseased individual.
Salmonella typhi - Typhoid (3) In oculation of a healthy individual with the cultured
158. In humans, common cold is caused by: micro organism must recapitulated the disease
(a) Retrovirus (b) Bacculovirus (4) And finally the organism should be reisolated from
(c) Rhinovirus (d) Rhabdovirus the experimentally infected subject (this postulate
Karnataka CET-2017 was added after Loeffier).
162. Which one of the following diseases cannot be Ans (a) :Deficiency disease
cured by talking antibiotics? B1 (Thiamin) – Beri-Beri
(a) Plague and Tuberculosis D (Calciferol) – Bone deformity
(b) Filariasis and Amoebiasis E (Tocopherol) – Infertility
(c) Leprosy and Diphtheria C (Ascorbic acid) – Scurvy
(d) Whooping cough and Pneumonia 166. Formation of non - functional methaemoglobin
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-II causes blue- baby syndrome. This is due to
Ans. (b) : Antibiotics are effective against bacterial (a) excess of arsenic concentration in drinking water
disease but Filariasis and Amoebiasis is a protozoan (b) excess of nitrates in drinking water
disease. (c) deficiency of iron is food
163. Which of the following pairs is not correctly (d) increased methane content in the atmosphere.
matched ? AIIMS-2005
(a) Cholera - Vibrio cholerae Ans. (b) :The most common cause of blue baby
(b) German measles - Rubella virus syndrome is water contaminated with nitrates. After a
(c) Whooping cough - Bordetella pertussis baby drinks formula made with nitrate-rich water, the
(d) Jaundice - Pasteurelia pestis body converts the nitrates into nitrites. These nitrites
MGIMS Wardha-2015 bind to the hemoglobin in the body, forming
Ans. (d) : methaemoglobin, which is unable to carry oxygen.
(a) Cholera - Vibrio cholerae • Methaemoglobinemia is also called “blue baby
(b) German measles - Rubella virus syndrome.” It is a condition where a baby's skin turns
(c) Whooping cough - Bordetella pertussis blue. This happens when there is not enough oxygen in
the blood. Methaemoglobinemia is a condition that
(d) Jaundice – Contaminated water.
some babies are born with (congenital) or some develop
164. When children play bare footed in pools of early in life (acquired).
dirty water and flood water, they may suffer
167. Which of the following sets includes the
from disease like bacterial disease?
(a) Leptospirosis and bilharzia
(a) cholera, typhoid, mumps
(b) Malaria, amoebic dysentery and leptospirosis (b) tetanus, tuberculosis, measles
(c) Bilharzia, infective hepatitis and diarrhoea (c) malaria, mumps, poliomyelitis
(d) Guinea worm infection, elephantiasis and (d) diphtheria, leprosy, plague.
amoebic dysentery AIIMS-2008
AIIMS-2006
Ans. (d) : Diphtheria is an infection caused by the
Ans. (a) : The children play bare footed in pools of Conynebacterium diphtheriae bacterium.
dirty water and flood water, they may suffer from
disease like Leptospirosis and bilharzias. Leptospirosis • Leprosy is caused by bacteria Mycobacterium leprae.
is a disease that is caused by the spirochaetes. It is • Plague is bacterial infection caused by bacterial strain
found in the renal secretions of rodents, if the flood Yersinia pestis.
water is contaminated with the urine of rodents and • Cholera is a bacterial infection caused by eating food
other animals then it might cause infection in people if or drinking water contaminated with Vibrio cholerae.
the skin is coming in contact with it. • Tetanus is a bacterial infection caused by Clostridium
• Bilharzia is also known as schistosomiasis because it tetani.
is caused by the schistosome. It spreads through the • Tuberculosis is caused by bacterium Mycobacterium
skin when swimming in water having the cercaria tuberculosis.
larvae. • Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhi bacteria.
165. Match the columns. • Mumps is a viral disease caused by the Paramyxovirus.
• Measles is caused by virus Paramyxovirus.
Column I Column II • Malaria is a disease caused by Plasmodium parasite.
(Vitamins) (Deficiency disease) 168. The brain disease caused due to accumulation
A. B1 1. Infertility of amyloid β-peptide is
B. D 2. Scurvy (a) Addison's disease
C. E 3. Beri-Beri (b) Huntington's disease
D. C 4. Bone deformity (c) Parkinson's disease
Codes (d) Alzheimer's disease
A B C D AIIMS-2014
(a) 3 4 1 2 Ans. (d) : Alzheimer's disease that causes severe
(b) 1 2 3 4 memory loss and other intellectual abilities.
(c) 4 3 1 2 • It is caused by protein misfolding and resulting
(d) 2 4 1 3 accumulation of abnormally folded amyloid β–
AIIMS-2011 protein in the brains.
169. Which one of the following pairs is not 173. The disease occurs due to deposition of iron
correctly matched? particles in tissues is
(a) Vitamin – B12 – Pernicious anaemia (a) Silicosis (b) Siderosis
(b) Vitamin – B6 – Loss of appetite (c) Emphysema (d) Pneumonia
(c) Vitamin – B1 – Beri – beri AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-II
(d) Vitamin – B2 – Pellagra Ans. (b) : Siderosis is the deposition of excess iron in
AIIMS-2015 / CMC Vellore-2012 body tissue. When used without qualification, it usually
Ans. (d) : Option (d) is not correctly matched because refers to an environmental disease of the lung, also
deficiency of vitamin B2 causes fatigue, slowed growth. known more specifically as pulmonary siderosis or
Welder’s disease, which is a form of Pneumoconiosis.
Pellagra is a disease caused by low levels of Niacin,
also known as Vitamin B-3. 174. Haemophilus influenzae causes this disease in
Pellagra occurs when our body can't absorb Niacin. human beings
Alcoholism, immunosuppressive drugs, cirrhosis of the (a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold
liver etc. can prevent your body from absorbing niacin. (c) Ring worm (d) Typhoid
TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-I / AMU-2014
170. Type-1 diabetes is –
(a) Insulin independent Ans. (a) : Haemophillus influenze causes the
pneumonia in human being .
(b) Insulin dependent
Some of these illnesses, like ear, injections are milk
(c) Caused by UV-radiation
while others, like blood stream infection are very
(d) Infectious serious.
Ans. (b) : Type-1 diabetes, once known as juvenile
diabetes or insulin - dependent diabetes, is a chronic
condition. In this condition, the pancreas makes little or
no insulin.
• Insulin is a hormone the body uses to allow sugar
(glucose) to enter cells to produce energy. Different
factors, such as genetics and some viruses, may cause
type 1 diabetes.
• Although type 1 diabetes usually appears during
childhood or adolescence, it can develop in adults.
171. Just as Xenopsylla is a vector to Yersenia
pestis, so is:
(a) Glossina palpalis to Wuchereria bancrofti 175. Assertion (A): Monkey acts as a reservoir host
(b) Culex to Plasmodium falciparum for the parasite that causes
(c) Homo sapiens to Taenia solium African sleeping sickness
(d) Phlebotomus to Leishmania donovani. Reason (R): Reservoir host lodges the infective
AIIMS-2003 stages of the parasite, when the
Ans. (d) : Humans usually get plague after being bitten primary host is not available
by a rodent flea that is carrying the plague bacterium or (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
by handling an animal infected with plague. correct explanation for (A)
• Plague is a disease that affects humans and other (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
mammals. It is caused by the bacterium, Yersinia correct explanation to (A)
pestis, which is transmitted by Xenopsylla. (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
• Phlebotomus (Sandfly) transmits Leishmania (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
donovani, which causes dum dum fiver/Kala azar. AP EAMCET-2016
172. Continued consumption of a diet rich in butter, Ans. (d) : African Trypanosomiasis (also known as
red meat and eggs for a long period may lead sleeping sickness). is caused by microscopic parasite of
to: the species Trypanosoma brucei. It is transmitted by the
(a) Vitamin A toxicity Tse-Tse fly (Glossina species) which is found only in
(b) Kidney stones sub Saharan Africa.
(c) Hypercholesterolemia 176. Who discovered Plasmodium in RBC of human
(d) Urine laden with ketone bodies. beings?
AIIMS-2003 (a) Ronald Ross (b) Mendel
Ans. (c) : Continued consumption of a diet rich in (c) Laveran (d) Stephens
butter, red meat and eggs for a long period may lead to AIPMT-1991
hypercholesterolemia. Cholestrol is a soft waxy Ans. (c) : Charles Louis Alphonse Laveran discovered
substance that is a natural component of the fats in the Plasmodium the causative agent of malaria, in human
blood-stream and in all the cells of the body. In our RBCS in 1880
body 8% to 10% of the saturated fatty acids are coming In 1897, Ronald Ross discovered Plasmodium oocytes
from animal product. in the stomach of a mosquito
177. Which of the following symptoms indicate red 183. Which one of the following is not correctly
sickness? matched?
(a) nausea and loss of hair (a) Dengue Aedes mosquito
(b) Ulcerated skin, nausea and loss of hair (b) Malaria Female Anopheles
(c) Red and ulcerated skin (c) Amoebiasis Houseflies
(d) Nausea and anaemia (d) Ringworm Droplets
JCECE-2017
AIPMT-1997
Ans. (d) : Ringworm is caused by a fungal disease
Ans. (b) : Symptoms of scarlet disease are ulcerated which is a common infection of the skin and nail. It can
skin, nausea and hair loss. Even low doses of radiation cause an itchy red, circular, rash. Ringworm is also
can cause skin irritation, nausea, loss of hair and nails, called Tinea or Dermatophyte.
changes in the number of blood cells tumors and cancer.
184. Which of the following disease is the result of
178. Which of the following diseases is now thiamine deficiency ?
considered completely eradicated from India? (a) Marasmus (b) Beri-beri
(a) Small pox (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Rickets (d) Kwashiorkor
(c) Plague (d) Kala-azar Haryana PMT-2001
AIPMT-1997 Ans. (b) : A diet consisting mainly of white flour,
Ans. (a) : Smallpox is an acute communicable viral white sugar, and other highly processed carbohydrates
disease. It is caused by a virus called variola virus.Now can cause thiamine deficiency symptoms which are
it has been eradicated from the world including India irritability, but severe deficiency (Beri-beri) can affect
with the mass polio vaccination campaign run by the the nerves, muscles, heart and brain.
Government of India. 185. Deficiency of vitamin B2 causes
179. Ringworm, a common infectious disease in man (a) cheilosis (b) thalassemia
causing dry scaly lesions on the skin and scalp, (c) beri - beri (d) pernicious anaemia
VMMC-2009
is caused by
(a) bacteria (b) roundworms Ans. (a) : Vitamin B 2 deficiency causes cheilosis.
Vitamin B2 which is popularly known as Riboflavin.
(c) filarial worms (d) fungi Cheilosis is chapping and fissuring of the lips.
AMU-2014
Ans. (d) : Ringworm, a common infectious disease in
List-I List-II
man causing dry scaly lesions on the skin and scalp, is
(Drugs) (Disease)
caused by fungi.
180. Which of the following is an auto-immune (A) Methotraxate (I) Filariasis
disease? (B) Diethyl (II) Tuberculosis
(a) AIDS (b) Haemophilia carbamazine
(c) Allergy (d) Rheumatoid arthritis (C) Aureomycin (III) Cancer
J&K CET-2013 (D) Isonicotinic (IV) Cholera
Ans. (d) : Rheumatoid arthiritis or RA, is an acid hydrazide
autoimmune and inflammatory disease which means (V) Malaria
that your immune system attack healthy cells in your (A) (B) (C) (D)
body by mistake, causing inflammation (painful (a) (II) (IV) (I) (III)
swelling in the affected parts of the body. (b) (III) (V) (II) (I)
181. Dum-dum fever is caused by (c) (I) (II) (III) (V)
(a) Leishmania tropica (d) (III) (I) (IV) (II)
(b) Leishmania donovani TS EAMCET-15.05.2016
(c) Trypanosoma evansi Ans. (d) : Methotraxate is one of the major
(d) None of the above chemotherapeutic choice for cancers.
Punjab MET-2011 (B) Diethyl carbamazine : is used in the treatment of
Ans. (b) : Kala Azar or Black fever is a disease caused filariasis.
by infection with Leishmania parasites. It is transmitted (c) Aureomycin : is used in treatment of cholera
by female sandfly Phleobotomus argentipes it is also caused by Vibrio cholerae.
known as Visceral leismaniasis. (d) Isonicotinic acid : is an antibiotic used hydrazide
182. Which organ is enlarged in malarial patient ? for the treatment of tuberculosis.
(a) Spleen (b) Kidney 187. Which one of the following is not an
(c) Gall bladder (d) Liver autoimmune disease ?
Rajasthan PMT-1999 (a) Graves disease
Ans. (a) : The spleen, which often become enlarged in (b) Pernicious anaemia
Malaria, the main organ that generate the immune (c) Rheumatoid arthritis
response to the Malarial parasite and controls the (d) Insomnia
removal of red blood cells that have been infected. J&K CET-2010
Ans. (d) : The inflammation itself as well as the typhi bacteria, the bacteria moves down into the
targeted tissue’s response to the inflammation is painful. digestive system, where they will quickly multiply and
It is a sleep disorder in which a person has trouble causing typhoid fever.
falling or staying asleep. People suffering from chronic 191. Study the following table and pick up the
pain experience severe disruption to their leap, correct combination.
including developing insomnia. Insomnia is relation to Type of Lives in ____ host Example
poor sleeping habbits, depression, anxiety, lack of Parasite
exercise, chronic illness or certain medication. I. Cytozoic Live among cells of Plasmodium
188. Identify the organisms that cause ringworm parasites tissues of host
(i) Microsporum II. Histozoic Live within the Wuchereria
(ii) Haemophillus parasites host's cells
(iii) Streptococcus III Coelozoic Live in cavities of Ascaris
(iv) Trychophyton . parasites host
(v) Ascaris IV Hyperpar- Lives in the body Nosema
The correct combination is: asites of another parasite
(a) ii, iii (b) ii, v Options:
(c) iii, v (d) i, iv (a) I, II (b) II, III
TS EAMCET-12.05.2017 (c) III, IV (d) II, IV
Ans. (d) : Ringworm is caused by group of fungi TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I
(dermatophytes) the fungi can infect the skin, hair, or Ans. (c) : (i) Coelozoic parasites – Live in cavities of
nails of humans animals, causing a skin condition know host.
as ringworm due to the circular or ring shaped rash . It Example Ascaris
often produces such as Trichophyton, microsporum and (ii) Hyperparasites – Lives in the body of another
Epidermophyton. Parasites.
189. Match the following : Example- Bdellovibrio
Set - I Set - II (iii) Cytozoic parasites – live within the cells of the
(A) African sleeping (I) Plasmodium host.
sickness vivax Example – Plasmodium
(B) Oriental sores (II) Leishmania (iv) Histozoic parasites – Live between the cells in the
tropica tissues of the host
(C) Elephantiasis (III)Trypanosoma Example – Wuchereria bancrofti lives in the lymph
gambience vessels and lymph glands of man are histozoic parasites.
(D) Malaria (IV) Wuchereria 192. Dysentery disease spread by:
bancrofti (a) Amoeba
Identify the correct match between Set I (b) Entamoeba histolytica
and Set II (c) Plasmodium
A B C D (d) Entamoeba coli
(a) III II IV I Rajasthan PMT-1995
(b) I III II IV Ans. (b) : Amoebiasis or dysentery caused by
(c) II IV III I Antamoeba histolytica infection occurs when a person
(d) III I II IV eat the contaminated food are water that cause
TS EAMCET-12.05.2017 dysentery disease.
Ans. (a) : 193. Cerebral malaria is spread by following:
African sleeping Sickness – Trypanosoma gambiense (a) Plasmodium vivax
Oriental sores – Leishmania tropica (b) Plasmodium ovale
Elephantiasis – Wuchereria bancrofti (c) Plasmodium falciparum
Malaria – Plasmodium vivax (d) Plasmodium malariae
190. Statement I : Haemophilus influenzae causes Rajasthan PMT-1995
the typhoid. Ans. (c) : Cerebral malaria is the most severe disease
Statement II : Typhoid can be confirmed by caused by the malaria parasite Plasmodium falciparum.
widal test. 194. The chemical used in National Malaria
Options: Eradication Programme is :
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true (a) 2, 4-D (b) BHC
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false (c) DDT (d) Pyrethroid
(c) Statement I is true. But statement II is false BVP-2007 / MGIMS Wardha-2006
(d) Statement I is false. But statement II is true Ans. (c) : DDT (Dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane) has
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I been used to control malaria transmission by
Ans. (d) :Typhoid can be confirmed by Widal test Anopheles mosquitoes that carry the malaria parasites
caused by bacteria Salmonella typhi. After eating food However, the use of DDT for malaria control has been
or drinking water contaminated with the Salmonella controversial due to environment and health.
195. Match the list -I with disease causing taxa in 199. Which of the following human parasites
list-II: require mosquito to complete their life – cycle?
List-I List-II (a) Ascaris lumbricoides and Wuchereria bancrofti
A) Typhoid I) Treponema (b) Leishmania donovani and Plasmodium ovale
B) Syphilis II) Clostridium (c) Ascaris lumbricoides and Leishmania donovani
C) Botulism III) Salmonella (d) Wuchereria bancrofti and Plasmodium ovale
D) Tuberculosis IV) Mycobacterium WB JEE-2014
V) Neisseria Ans. (d) : Plasmodium ovale and Wuchereria bancrofti
The correct match is: both required mosquito to complete their life cycle.
A B C D Plasmodium requires two host (Human and Anopheles
(a) III V IV II mosquitoes) to complete its life cycle.
(b) III I II IV • The pathogens are transmitted to a healthy person
(c) III IV II V throught the bite by the infected female mosquito
(d) III II I IV vectors.
TS EAMCET-28.09.2020 Shift-II • Wuchereria bancrofti, the filarial worms that cause
Ans. (b) : Typhoid caused by bacterium Salmonella chronic inflammation of the organs like the
lymphatic vessel to the lower limbs disease is called
Syphilis caused by bacterium Treponema pallidum.
elephantiasis.
Botulism caused by bacterium Clostridium
Wuchereria require two host (Human and Aedes
Tuberculosis caused by bacterium Mycobacterium. mosquitoes) to complete its life cycle.
196. Yellow colour of eyes and skin in jaundice The pathogens are transmitted to a healthy person
caused by through bite by infected female mosquito vectors.
(a) bilirubin (b) biliverdin 200. A person suffering from a disease caused by
(c) yellow pigment (d) cholesterol Plasmodium, experiences recurring chill and
JCECE-2014 fever at the time when
Ans. (a) : Yellow colour of eyes and skin in jaundice (a) The microgametocytes and megagametocytes
caused by bilirubin. are being destoryed by the WBCs.
Jaundice is a yellow color of the skin, mucus (b) The sporozoites released from RBCs are
membranes, or eyes. The yellow coloring comes from being rapidly killed and broken down inside
bilirubin, a byproduct of old red blood cells. spleen
197. Identify the re-emerging infectious disease (c) The trophyzoitges reach maximum growth
among the following: and give out certain toxins
(A) AIDS (B) Mad cow disease (d) The parasite after its rapid multiplicaiton
(C) Cholera (D) SARS inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the
(E) Dengue (F) TB stage to enter fresh RBCs
Options: AIPMT (Mains)-2010
(a) A, B, F (b) B, C, D Ans. (d) : Plasmodium is a parasitic protozoan that
(c) D, E, F (d) C, E, F causes malaria in humans.
TS EAMCET-28.09.2020 Shift-I • Plasmodium enters our body in the form of
Ans. (d) : Re-emerging disease reappear after they sporozoites by infected Anopheles mosquito.
have been on a significant decline. Sporozoites are the infective stage of Plasmodium
Ex. Influenza, Multidrug Resistance tuberculosis (MD R- parasite that is transmitted to human through bite of an
TB) malaria, cholera, pertusis. They can also happen when infected female anopheles mosquito.
new strains known disease causing organism appear. Sporozoites go into liver and multiply and become
merozoites. Merozoites are stage of the Plasmodium
198. The time interval of appearance of fever in the
parasite responsible for causing symptoms of malaria.
malarial patients depends on the types of Merozoites invade red blood cell and symptom of
malaria. The research evidences suggest that malaria like fever, chills, anemia and other.
such time intervals are- (1) 36 – 48 hours, (2) 48
hours and (3) 72 hours. If any such patient
experiences fever at an interval of 48 hours,
then said patient suffers from
(a) Only benign tertian malaria
(b) Quartan malaria or mild tertian malaria
(c) Malignant tertian malaria or benign tertian malaria
(d) Mild tertian malaria or benign tertian malaria
WB JEE-2014
Ans. (d) : Mid Tertian malaria or being tertian
malaria : Plasmodium vivax usually causes an acute 201. Which of following is a pair of viral diseases ?
self – limiting febrile illness with fever spike on every (a) Typhoid, Tuberculosis
third day and no complication or death. (b) Ringworm, AIDS
(c) Common Cold, AIDS 205. Which disease of man is similar with cattle's,
(d) Dysentery, Common Cold bovine spongrform encephalopathy:
AIPMT-2009 (a) Encephalitis
Ans. (c) : Common cold is a viral disease. It is caused (b) Jakob-creutzfeldt disease
by Rhino viruses. It causes fever and pain all over the (c) Spongiocitis of cerebrum
body and affects the nose, throat and air passages. AIDS (d) Spondylitis
is a disorder of cell mediated immune system of the AIPMT-2000
body. It is caused by HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Ans. (b) : The common term for Bovine spongiform
Virus). HIV is retrovirus that attacks helper T-cells. encephalopathy is mad cow disease, which is a
202. Match the following : progressive neurological disorder of cattle. In humans it
A. Leishmania Donovani p. Malaria is called Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. It is caused by
B. Wuchereria Bancrofti q. Amoebiosis prions (proteinaceous infectious particles). It is
C. Trypanosoma gambiense r. Kala azar characterized by rapidly progressive dementia
D. Entamoeba histolytica s. Sleeping associated with myoclonic jerks. The brains of affected
sickness individuals show a characteristic cystic degenerations.
t. Filariasis 206. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic
(a) A – r B – t C – s D – q intake of:
(b) A – r B – t C – q D – p (a) Tobacco (Chewing) (b) Cocaine
(c) A – s B – r C – q D – p (c) Opium (d) Alcohol
(d) A – r B – s C – q D – t
Karnataka CET-2007 Ans. (d) : Cirrhosis is a condition in which the liver
responds to injury or death of some of its cells. It is
Ans. (a) : result from various liver disease and condition , such as
A. Leishmania Donovani r. Kala azar hepatitis and chronic alcoholism.
B. Wuchereria Bancrofti t. Filariasis
207. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that:
C. Trypanosoma gambiense s. Sleeping sickness (a) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the
D. Entamoeba histolytica q. Amoebiosis common cold is caused by the bacterium
203. Identify the hepatitis virus, which cannot Haemophilus influenzae
survive independently and it requires another (b) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas
hepatitis virus for its multiplication the common cold affects nose and respiratory
(a) Hepatitis-A virus (b) Hepatitis-B virus passage but not the lungs.
(c) Hepatitis-C virus (d) Hepatitis-D virus (c) Pneumonia is a communicable disease
AP EAMCET-2007 whereas the common cold is nutritional
Ans. (d) : deficiency disease.
• Hepatitis D is an inflammation of the liver caused by (d) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live
the hepatitis D virus (HDV), which requires HBV for attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the
its replication. Hepatitis D infection cannot occur in common cold has no effective vaccine.
the absence of hepatitis B virus. AIPMT (Screening)-2012
• A highly contagious liver infection caused by the Ans. (b) : Common cold or rhinitis is one of the most
hepatitis A virus. infectious disease caused by rhino viruses.
204. Saline solution is given to patients of Cholera • It infects nose and respiratory passage but not lungs. It
because: spreads by droplet infection or contaminated objects.
(a) Na+ prevents water loss from body • Pneumonia, caused by bacteria Streptococcus
(b) NaCl function as regulatory material pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenza is a serious
(c) NaCl produces energy disease of lungs, in which fluid collects in the alveoli
and bronchioles.
(d) NaCl is antibacterial
AIPMT-2000 208. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial
infraction is normally immediately given:
Ans. (a) : Cholera is an acute infection of the small
(a) Cyclosporin-A (b) Statins
intestine by the bacterium Vibrio Cholerae, which
causes severe vomiting and diarrhoea (known as (c) Penicillin (d) Streptokinase
ricewater stools) leading to dehydration. The disease is AIPMT (Screening)-2012
contracted from food or drinking water contaminated by Ans. (d) : Streptokinase (Tissue plasminogen activator
faeces from a patient. The resulting dehydration and the or TPA) is a thrombolytic medication and enzyme. It is
imbalance in the concentration of body fluids can cause used to break down clots in some cases of myocardial
death within 24 hours. Since, a large quantity of fluid infraction (heart attack) pulmonary embolism and
and salts are rapidly lost through stools and vomit. arterial thromboembolism therefore it helps in clearing
Therefore, the most important treatment is to replace the blood clots inside the blood vessels through dissolution
lost fluid and salts equally rapidly. Rapid replacement of intravascular fibrin during myocardial infection.
of fluid and electrolytes is needed by oral rehydration 209. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for
therapy. The electrolytes consists of Na+ ions that ringworm disease in humans belongs to the
prevents water loss from the body. same Kingdom of organisms at that of
(a) Ascaris, a round worm 212. Which one of the following is not a parasitic
(b) Taenia, a tapeworm adaptation?
(c) Wuchereria, a filarial worm (a) Loss of unnecessary sense organs
(d) Rhizopus, a mould (b) Development of adhesive organs
AIPMT (Mains)-2011 (c) Loss of digestive organs
Ans. (d) : The pathogen Microsporum responsible for (d) Loss of reproductive capacity
ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same NEET (Karnataka)-2013
kingdom of organisms at that of Rhizopus, a mould. Ans. (d) : In accordance with their life style parasites
• Rhizopus is the genus of common saprophytic fungi evolve special adaptations such as:
on plants and specialized parasites on animals. They (a) Loss of unnecessary sense organs.
are found on a wide variety or organic substrates,
(b) Loss of digestive system.
including "Mature fruits and vegetables" Jellies,
Syrups, leather, bread, peanuts and tobacco. (c) High reproductive capacity.
(d) Presence of adhesive organs or suckers to cling on to
210. Which one of the following options gives the
correct matching of a disease with its causative the host.
organism and mode of infection 213. Interferons are synthesized in response to
Disease Causative Mode of (a) Mycoplasma (b) Bacteria
Organisms Infection (c) Viruses (d) Fungi
AIPMT-2001
(a) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male
vivax Anopheles Ans. (c) : Interferon are proteins that increase the
mosquito resistances of cell to attack by viruses and synthesized
by organism in response to viruses. They can present
(b) Typhoid Salmonella With inspired viruses from entering neighboring cell and help the
typhi air immune system identify and destroy infected cells.
(c) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet
pneumoniae infection
Parasite Infective Stage Disease
(d) Elephantiasis Wuchereria With infected Caused
bancrofti water and food (A) Plasmodium I. 3rd stage 1. Filariasis
APEAMCET 06.09.2021, shift-I /AIPMT (Mains)-2011 Vivax larva
Ans. (c) : Pneumonia is an inflammatory condition of the (B) Taenia II. Cystic stage 2. Benign
lungs caused by bacteria Streptococcus pneumonia. It is solium tertian
transmitted through the droplets from sneeze and cough. malaria
• Elephantiasis or filariasis is a tropical parasitic disease (C) Entamoeba III. Sporozoite 3. Amoebic
caused by the filarial worm Wuchereria bancrofti and histolytica dysentery
transmitted through the infacted female mosquitoes. (D) Wuchereria IV.Cystricercus 4.Taeniasis
• Malaria is a disease caused by a Plasmodium bancrofti
parasite and transmitted by the bite of infected The correct match is
female Anopheles mosquitoes. (a) A III, 2, B IV 4, C II 3, D I l
• Typhoid is bacterial infection caused by the bacteria (b) A III, 2, B IV 4, C I 3, D II l
Salmonella typhi. Only human beings get infected
(c) A IV 1, B II 4, C I 2, D III 3
and the mode of infection is due to poor sanitation
and unhygienic environment. It is spread through the (d) A III, 2, B IV 4, C I1 3, D IV 3
eating or drinking contaminated food and water. AP EAMCET-2010
211. Read the following statement having two Ans. (a) :
blanks (A and B) Parasite Infective Diseases cause
''A drug used for patients is stage
obtained from a species of the organism A. Plasmodium III Sporozoite 2.Benign tertian
''. vivax malaria
The one correct option for the two blanks is : B. Taenia IV Cysticercus 4. Taeniasis
Blank-A Blank-B solium
(a) AIDS Pseudomonas C. Entamoeba II Cystic Stage 3. Amoebic
(b) Heart Penicillium
histolytica dysentery
(c) Organ-transplant Trichoderma
(d) Swine flu Monascus D. Wuchereria 3rd stage larva 1. Filariasis
AIPMT (Mains)-2011 bancrofti
Ans. (c) : Cyclosporin-A used as an immuno 215. The process by which a new structure is
suppressive agent in organ transplant patients, is formed in the tissue of the host during parasitic
produced by the fungus Trichoderma polysporium infection.
which acts as immunosuppressive agent during organ (a) Hyperplasia (b) Neoplasia
transplant. They suppress the immune system of the (c) Hypertrophy (d) Gigantism
patient so that it does not act against organ transplanted. AP EAMCET-2010
Ans. (b) : Neoplasia is the abnormal proliferation of Ans. (a) : Culex mosquito is responsible for carrying a
cell. The growth of the cell exceeds and is pathogen of filariasis as a vector.
uncoordinated with that of the normal tissue around it. Filaria caused by a protozoan parasite amoeba. It
The growth persists in the same excessive manner even transmit pathogens that causes typhoid, cholera etc.
after cessation of the stimuli. It is usually causes a lump
Aedes aegypti is a vector that transmit dengue,
or tumor.
chikungunya and zika virus into living organism.
216. Match the name of diseases listed under Sandfly is a vector for kala-azar.
column I with the meanings given under
column II; choose the answer which gives the 219. Which one of the following is not correctly
correct combination of the alphabets of the two matched?
columns. (a) Diphtheria – Corynebacterium
Column-I Column-II (b) Elephantiasis – Wuchereria
(Names of Diseases) (Meanings) (c) Plague – Paramyxo
A Jaundice p allergic (d) Lockjaw – Clostridium
inflammation JIPMER-2016
of nose Ans. (c) : Plague (black death) is caused by bacteria
B Stenosis q loss of motor Yersinia pestis
functions Diptheria is caused by bacterium Corynebacterium
C Rhinitis r heart valve diptheriae.
defect tetanus (lockjaw) is caused by Clostridium tetani
D Paralysis s increase in bile bacteria, while filariasis (elephantiasis) is caused by
pigments in the Wuchereria bancrofti.
blood
220. Pulse – Polio programme is organized in our
t Septal defect of country to –––––––
heart
(a) Spread polio (b) Cure polio
(a) A = s; B = r; C = p; D = q (c) Eradicate polio (d) Reduce polio
(b) A = s; B = t; C = p; D = q
(c) A = q; B = t; C = r; D = p
(d) A = s; B = p; C = q; D = r Ans. (c) : Pulse polio programme was launched in
Karnataka CET-2004 India in 1995 to eradicate polio.
The Pulse Polio Immunization aims at covering every
Ans. (a) :
individual in India. India rolled out the Pulse Polio
Jaundice Increase in bile pigments Immunization Programme on October 2, 1995. Within
in the blood two decades India received “Polio free certification”
Stenosis Heart valve defect from WHO on March 27, 2014.
Rhinitis Allergic inflammation of 221. Match the following :
nose Disease Reason/
Paralysis Loss of motor functions Symptom
217. Which one of the following abnormalities in the (A) Siderosis (I) Collapse of
host is associated to Wuchereria, Plasmodium alveoli
and Fasciola respectively ?
(B) Pneumonia (II) People working
(A) Parasitic castration (B) Hyperplasia
in mining
(C) Febrile paroxysm (D) Peritonitis
industries
(E) Lymphangitis
The correct match is (C) Emphysema (III) Deposition of
(a) E, C and B (b) E, C and A iron particles
(c) B, D and E (d) C, D and B in tissues
AP EAMCET-2008 (D) Silicosis (IV) Accumulation
of mucus in
Ans. (a) : Wuchereria – Lymphangitis
alveoli
Plasmodium – Febrile paroxysm
(V) Coal mines
Fasciola – Hyperplasia
218. Which one of the following is a matching pair
of vector and the disease? A B C D
(a) Culex – Filariasis (a) III V II I
(b) Housefly – Leprosy (b) V IV I III
(c) Aedes aegypti – Chickenpox (c) III IV I II
(d) Sandfly – Cholera (d) IV III II I
JIPMER-2016 TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I
Ans. (c) : Ans. (b) :
Siderosis - It is caused by repeated inhalation of fire List -I List - II
iron or rust dust. Monkey Reservoir host for
Pneumonia - In pneumonia the air sac filled with fluid Plasmodium
or pus. Female Culex Secondary host of
Emphysema - In emphysema, inner walls of lung mosquito Wuchereria
alveoli are damaged Man Secondary host of
Silicosis - It is a long term lung disease caused by Plasmodium
inhaling large amount of crystalline silica dust, who African antelope Reservoir host for
works in mining industries. Trypanosoma
222. Match the following: Female Anopheles Primary host for
mosquito Plasmodium
Set-I Set-II
224. Match List-I with List-II
A Hologamy i Paramecium
List-I List-II
B Multiple fission ii Euglena
(A) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus
C Homothetogenic iii Trichonympha influenzae
fission
(B) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton
D Symmetrogenic iv Plasmodium (C) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria
fission bancrofti
The correct match is (D) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba
(A) (B) (C) (D) histolytica
(a) iii i ii iv Choose the correct answer from the options
(b) i ii iii iv given below:
(c) iv ii i iii (A) (B) (C) (D)
(d) iii iv i ii (a) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
TS EAMCET-09.05.2019 Shift-I (b) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Ans.(d):
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
List - I List-II NEET-2021
(A) Hologamy Trichonympha Ans. (c) :
(B) Multiple fission Plasmodium (A) Filariasis (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti
(C) Homothetogenic fission Paramaecium (B) Amoebiasis (iv) Entamoeba histolytica
(D) Symmetrogenic fission Euglena (C) Pneumonia (i) Haemophilus
223. Match the following influenzae
List -I List - II (D) Ringworm (ii) Trichophyton
(i) Monkey (a) Reservoir host for 225. Identify the correct pair representing the
causative agent of typhoid fever and the
Trypanosoma
confirmatory test for typhoid.
(ii) Female Culex (b) Secondary host of (a) Streptococcus pneumoniae/Widal test
mosquito Plasmodium (b) Salmonella typhi/Anthrone test
(iii) Man (c) Secondary host of (c) Salmonella typhi/Widal test
Wuchereria (d) Plasmodium vivax/UTI test
(iv) African antelope (d) Reservoir host for NEET-2019
Plasmodium Ans. (c) : Typhoid is an infection caused by the
(v) Female Anopheles (e) Primary host for bacterium Salmonella typhi. The confirmatory test for
the disease is widal test, which is based on antigen-
mosquito Plasmodium
antibody reaction. The Salmonella bacterium lives in
(a) (i – c), (ii – d), (iii – e), (iv – b), (v – a) the intestines and blood streams of human. It is a life
(b) (i – d), (ii – c), (iii – b), (iv – a), (v – e) threatening infection caused by the bacterium. It is
(c) (i – b), (ii – a), (iii – c), (iv – d), (v – e) usually spread through contaminated water or food.
(d) (i – a), (ii – e), (iii – c), (iv – b), (v – d) Once Salmonella typhi bacteria are ingested, they
AP EAMCET-12.07.2022 Shift-II multiply and spread into bloodstream.
Ans. (a) : IgD is present on the activated B- cells after
C. Immunity and its Types antigenic recognition and stimulations. The IgD is
generally co-expressed on the B-cells with the IgM. IgD
226. Choose among the following that are cellular
barriers of immunity not a viral pathogen.
a) Saliva 231. Which of the following is NOT a unique feature
b) Neutrophils of acquired immunity?
c) Cytokines (a) Discrimination between self and non-self
d) Macrophages (b) Non- specificity
e) Lysozyme (c) Memory
f) Monocytes (d) Diversity
(a) a, b, c (b) b, d, f MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
(c) a, d, e (d) b, c, f Ans. (b) : Non-specificity is not a unique feature of
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II acquired immunity because it play a vital role of a
acquired feature and acquired means it is specific.
Ans. (b) : Cellular barriers are certain types of
Specificity is the ability to recognize vast variety of
leukocytes (W.B.C) of our body like polymorpho-
nuclear leukocytes (PMNL- neutrophils ) and foreign molecules.
monocytes and natural killer (type of Lymphocytes) in 232. In the cell mediated immuno response, T-
the blood as well as macrophages in tissues can lymphocytes divide and secrete
phagocytes and destroy microb (a) antigens (b) plasmogens
227. Which of the following antibody is pentamer? (c) collagens (d) cytokines
(a) IgA (b) IgD AFMC -2009
(c) IgE (d) IgM Ans. (d) : Cytokines are small protein secreted by T
AMU-2015,1999 cells and provide cell mediated immune response.
Ans. (d) : IgM antibody form a pentamer. They are These are often secreted by immune cell that have
usually found in lymph and blood, and have to bind encountered a pathogen.
sites. IgM is the first antibody to respond during a 233. The predominant antibody in saliva is
pathogenic attack. (a) IgG (b) IgA
228. Histamine is secreted by (c) IgM (d) IgD
(a) Goblet cell (b) Nerve cell DUMET-2010
(c) Kupffer cell (d) Mast cell Ans. (b) : IgA or immunoglobulin A is an antibody that
UP CPMT-2003 / AFMC-2002 play a crucial role in the immune function of mucous
Ans. (d) : Histamine is secreted by mast cell. Mast cell membranes. IgA presents approximately 5-15% of the
are multifunctional bone marrow-derived tissue- antibody pool and either exist as monomer or a dimer.
dwelling cell that are the major producer of histamine in The predominant antibody in saliva is IgA.
the body. 234. Which one of the following immune processes
• Goblet cell is to synthesize and secrete mucus. is most effectively controlled by anti-
• Nerve cell is the basic unit of communication in the histamines?
nerves system. (a) Cell-mediated autoimmunity
• Kupffer cells is a phagocytic cell. Kupffer cell are (b) IgE-mediated exaggerated immune response
resident liver macrophage and play a critical role in (c) IgG-mediated humoral immune response
maintaining liver function. (d) IgM-mediated humoral immune response
229. The technique of production of monoclonal KVPY SB & SX-2019
antibodies was developed by Ans. (b) : IgE-mediated exaggerated immune response
(a) Milstein and kohler is most effectively controlled by anti-histamines. IgE
(b) Watson and Crick play a critical role in the allergic inflammatory process
(c) Fredrick and Miescher in diseases.
(d) Bentham and Hooker This results in most cell degranulation and release of
VMMC-2013 histamine and other inflammatory mediators.
Ans. (a) : The technique of production of monoclonal 235. An antibody is a :
antibodies was developed by Milstein and Kohler, in 1975. (a) white corpuscle which attack invading
Monoclonal antibodies are proteins made in a bacteria
laboratory meant to stimulate your immune system. (b) molecule that specifically inactivates an
230. Following are the types of immunoglobulin and antigen
their functions. Which one of the following is (c) component of the blood
INCORRECTLY paired? (d) secretion of mammalian erythrocyte
(a) IgD: viral pathogen HP CET-2011 / BCECE-2006 / VMMC-2005
(b) IgG: phagocytosis AMU-2004 / Haryana PMT-1999
(c) IgE: allergic reaction Ans. (b) : An antibody is a molecule that specifically
(d) IgM: complement fixation inactivate an antigen. Antibodies are proteins that
KVPY SB & SX-2015 protect us when an unwanted substance enters our body.
236. An anti-viral substance, known to prevent the Ans. (e) : IgE antibodies are produced in a allergic
synthesis of new virus in the cell, is known as reaction. If you have an allergy, your immune system
(a) transferon (b) anti-body overreacts to an allergen by producing antibodies i.e IgE.
(c) interferon (d) inferons • Spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ. These organs
Haryana PMT 2002 / AFMC - 2001 / JIPMER-1999 includes the lymph nodes, the spleen, the tonsils and
Ans. (c) : An anti-viral substance, known to prevent the certain tissue in various mucous membrane layers in the
synthesis of new virus in the cell, is known as body.
interferons. They are a class of proteins released from 241. To which type of barriers under innate
virus infected cells, which acts on the neighbouring immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the
cells and protects them by preventing the invasion of tears from the eyes, belong?
these cells by viruses. (a) Cytokine barriers
237. Magic bullets are the (b) Cellular barriers
(a) recombinant vaccines (c) Physiological barriers
(b) monoclonal antibodies (d) Physical barriers
(c) chemotherapy drugs for cancer BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
(d) anabolic steroids Ans. (c) : The type of barriers under innate immunity
VMMC - 2015 / J&K CET-2009 do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes,
Ans. (b) : Magic bullets are the monoclonal antibodies. belongs to physiological barriers. Physiological barrier
Monoclonal antibodies are synthesized by the fusion of are communication related with the limitations of the
the B – cell with the myeloma cell. Magic bullet term human body and the human mind. Such as pH of
was used for the antibodies that can cure disease stomach, bile juice, saliva and tears.
without any side effect. 242. Antibodies resemble which of the following
238. Passive immunity is shape?
(a) inherited from parents (a) X (b) Y
(b) acquired through first exposure to the disease (c) Z (d) O
(c) achieved directly through ready-made J&K CET-2012
antibodies Ans. (b) : An antibody also known as an immuno-
(d) achieved through vaccination globulin, is a large Y-shaped protein produced mainly by
J&K CET-2014 plasma cells. They are used by the immune system to
neutralize pathogens such as pathogenic bacteria and virus.
Ans. (a) : Passive immunity is provided when a person
is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing 243. What product of the immune system attaches
them through his or her own immune system. A new to bacteria, making them easier to be eaten by
born body acquire passive immunity from its mother white blood cells?
through the placenta. Hence, it is clear that passive (a) Antigen (b) Haemoglobin
immunity is inherited from parents. (c) Antibody (d) MHC I molecule
239. The type of antibodies produced during the J&K CET-2012
allergic reaction Ans. (c) : An antibody is product of immune system
(a) Ig G (b) Ig A attaches to bacteria, making them easier to be eaten by
(c) Ig M (d) Ig E white blood cells. It is also known as an
Karnataka CET-2022 / AMU-2012 immunoglobulin which is a large Y-shape protein
CG PMT-2010 / BCECE-2005 produced in B-cell.
Ans. (d) : The type of antibodies produced during 244. B-lymphocytes are
allergic reaction are IgE. IgE mediates the immediate (a) formed in bone marrow
hypersensitivity reactions and also act as a mediator in (b) pre-processed in bone marrow
allergy response. (c) pre-processed in liver
240. Read the statements (d) formed in thymus
(i) IgE antibodies are produced in an allergic BCECE-2014
reaction Ans. (a) : B-lymphocytes are formed in bone marrow
(ii) B-lymphocytes mediate cell mediated because it is a type of white blood cell and help in the
immunity humoral immunity of the person which is the component
(iii) The yellowish fluid colostrum has of adaptive immunity by secreting antibodies.
abundant IgE antibodies 245. Immediate hypersensitivity which result in the
(iv) Spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ release of histamine and other inflammatory
Of the above statements substances is mediated by
(a) i only is correct (a) IgA (b) IgD
(b) i and ii are correct (c) IgE (d) IgG
(c) ii and iii are correct AMU-2010
(d) iii and iv are correct Ans. (c) : Immediate hypersensitivity which result in
(e) i and iv are correct the release of histamine and other inflammatory
Kerala PMT-2015 substances is mediated by IgE.
246. Immunoglobulins are proteins that show …. 252. Stimulating hormone inflammation response in
Structure. allergy is caused by release of one of the
(a) primary (b) secondary following by mast cells
(c) tertiary (d) quaternary (a) Antigens (b) Histamine
AMU-2010 (c) Immunogens (d) Immunoglobulin
Ans. (d) : Immungobulin are proteins, has large MGIMS Wardha-2009
molecules made up of four peptide chains. It contains Ans. (b) : The inflammatory response in allergies occur
two identical heavy chain thus forming a tetrameric when the tissues are injured by bacteria, trauma, toxins
quaternary structure. or by any other causes, the damaged cells release
247. An antigen in the white blood corpuscles of chemical including histamine.
man is known as 253. How antigen is bound to antibody?
(a) HIV (b) HLA (a) By electrostatic interaction
(c) AHL (d) LAH (b) By covalent bonds
AMU -2000 (c) By disulphide bridge
Ans. (b) : An antigen in the white blood corpuscles of (d) By amide formation
man is known as HLA (Human Leukocyte antigens). HLA BVP-2013
is a major histocompatibility complexes that help code for Ans. (a) : Antibodies bind antigens through weak
protein that differentiate between self and non-self. chemical interactions and bonding is essentially non
248. The antibody dependent cytotoxicity is seen in covalent. Electrostatics interaction, hydrogen bond all
(a) generalized anaphylaxis are known to be involved depending on interaction.
(b) local anaphyaxis 254. Which one of the following antibody classes
(c) non-compatible blood transfusion provides some degree of immune protection to
(d) immune complex reaction fetus ?
AP EAMCET-2003 (a) IgM (b) IgE
Ans. (c) : The antibody dependent cytotoxicity is seen (c) IgD (d) IgG
in non-compatible blood transfusion. Antibody can Tripura JEE-2022
cooperate with the cellular branch of the immune Ans. (d) : The IgG is the main antibody in blood and it
system by binding and recruiting the activity of has a powerful ability to bind to bacteria and toxins
cytotoxic cells most often natural killer. This is called .Thus it takes on an important role in the biological
antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity. defense system. IgG antibody classes provides some
249. Antibody is produced by : degree of immune protection to foetus.
(a) B - Lymphocyte (b) Heparin 255. The number of immunoglobulin classes found
(c) T-Lymphocyte (d) both (a) and (b) in human being is
Haryana PMT-2005 / APEAMCET - 2001 (a) 10 (b) 5
Ans. (a) : B -Lymphocytes also called as B-cells are a (c) 12 (d) 6
type of lymphocytes which form a part of humoral Tripura JEE-2021
immunity of the adaptive immune system. The principle
Ans. (b) : The number of immunoglobulin classes
function of B-cells is making antibody against antigen.
found in human being is 5. In placental mammal, there
250. Immunoglobulins are made up of : five antibodies classes known as IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG and
(a) two polypeptide chains IgM.
(b) four polypeptide chains 256. What is the molecular weight of lgG antibody?
(c) three amino acids only (a) 146, 000 (b) 160, 000
(d) five nucleotides (c) 190, 000 (d) 200, 000
BVP - 2005 / Haryana PMT-2004 / Manipal-2003 Rajasthan PMT-2000
Ans. (b) : The immunoglobulin consists of four, Ans. (a) : Immunoglobulin (IgG) is a type of antibody
polypeptide chains having two identical heavy chains representing approximately 75% of serum antibodies in
and two identical light chain connected by disulfide human. IgG antibody is large, molecular weight
bonds. Thus, immunoglobulin are made up of four approximately 1,46,000 daltons composed of two
polypeptide cells. different types of polypeptide chain.
251. Which of the following are most abundant type
257. Thymosin stimulates :
of antibodies ?
(a) IgM (b) IgG (a) milk secretion (b) erythrocytes
(c) IgE (d) IgA (c) T-lymphocytes (d) melanocytes
MGIMS Wardha-2007 / JIPMER-2001 Rajasthan PMT-2000
Ans. (b) : IgG is the most abundant type of antibodies Ans. (c) : Thymosin stimulates secretion of luteinizing
in blood and other body fluids and protects against hormone releasing factor.
bacterial and viral infections. Thymosin is the hormone of the thymus and it
IgG is most abundant antibodies which makes the 75% stimulates the development of diseases fighting T-
of the serum antibodies in humans. lymphocytes cells.
258. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals? (d) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
(a) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It
debris is called Active immunity
(b) There are produced in thyroid NEET-2020 Phase-I
(c) There are three main types-cytotoxic T-cells, Ans. (b) : An organism when exposed to a specific
helps T- cells and suppressor T- cells antigen, that is, the organism produces antibodies in
(d) These originate in lymphoid tissues response to a foreign antigen develops active immunity.
VMMC-2007 • So, the antibody production may not be quick but is
Ans. (c) : T-lymphocytes provides immunity. They are long lasting.
produced in bone marrow and get matured in thymus 264. ______quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy
gland. There are the three types of T-cells-cytotoxic T- (a) Serotonin (b) Heparin
cell, helps T-cells and suppressed T-cells. (c) Adrenaline (d) Histamine
259. Which one of the following cell types is a part GUJCET-2022
of innate immunity? Ans. (c) : Adrenaline is a natural hormone released in
(a) Skin epithelial cells (b) B cells response to stress. When injected, adrenaline rapidly
(c) T lymphocytes (d) Liver cells reverses the effects of anaphylaxis by reducing throat
KVPY SA-2015 swelling opening the airways, and maintaining heart
Ans. (a) : Skin is a physical barrier, mucous membranes function and blood pressure.
are the defense mechanism and phagocytes are the cells 265. Select the correct match.
which are part of innate immunity. Thus skin epithelial Lymphocyte : antibodies ∷ Basophil : _____.
cells types is a part of innate immunity. (a) heparin (b) fibrin
260. Antibodies are (c) globulin (d) anti-histamine
(a) Lipids (b) Carbohydrates MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I
(c) Immunoglobulins (d) Antiviral particles Ans. (a) : Basophils releases an enzyme called heparin
BCECE-2007 that prevents blood from clotting too quickly. The
Ans. (c) : Antibody are immunoglobulins or gamma granules of basophiles hold both histamine and heparin.
globulins that are large y-shaped protein produced by 266. This is the correct statement for IgE.
plasma cells that are used by immune system to identify (a) Inhibits the secretion of histamine and
and neutralize pathogens, like bacteria and virus. serotonin from mast cells
261. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to (b) Does not stimulate B cells
foetus across placenta or through mother's (c) Giving immune response to allergens
milk to the infant is categorized as (d) This antibody is received from the mother to
(a) Cellular immunity the foetus through placenta during pregnancy
(b) Innate non-specific immunity GUJCET-2023
(c) Active immunity Ans. (c) : Immnuoglobin E (IgE) are antibodies
(d) Passive immunity produced by the immune system. If you have an allergy,
MGIMS Wardha-2010 your immune system over reacts to an allergens by
Ans. (d) : Short -lived immunity acquired from mother producing antibodies called Immunoglobin.
to fetus across placenta or through mother's milk to the 267. Which of the following disease is caused by
infant is categorized as passive immunity. In passive allergic reactions?
immunity there is transfer of preformed antibodies in (a) Leprosy (b) Typhoid
host to a recipient. (c) Asthma (d) Tetanus
262. The reaction between antibodies an soluble UP CPMT-2013
antigens is Ans. (c) : Allergy is a condition in which the immune
(a) agglutination (b) neutralization system reacts abnormally to a foreign substance.
(c) precipitation (d) lysis. Asthma, Hay fever and food allergy are some types of
AMU-1995 allergic diseases. Allergy symptoms can range from
Ans. (a) : The reaction between antibodies on soluble mild to serious, life-threatening allergic reaction.
antigens is agglutination. Agglutination is the process of 268. Select the incorrect statement with respect to
clumping of particles together. If an antigen is mixed acquired immunity.
with its corresponding antibody called agglutinin. This (a) Acquired immunity is non-specific type of
term is commonly used in blood grouping. defense present at the time of birth.
263. Identify the wrong statement with reference to (b) Primary response is produced when our body
immunity. encounters a pathogen for the first time.
(a) When ready-made antibodies are directly (c) Anamnestic response is elicited on
given, it is called Passive immunity. subsequent encounters with the same
(b) Active immunity is quick and gives full pathogen.
response. (d) Anamnestic response is due to memory of
(c) Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, first encounter.
it is an example for passive immunity. NEET-2022
Ans. (a) : Acquired immunity is a specific type of 272. Match the following
defense which is not present at the time of birth. Set -I Set - II
• Anamnestic response or secondary immune response (A) Natural (I) Develops due
is a highly intensified response due to memory of active to vaccination
first encounter. immunity
• When our body encounters a pathogen for the first (B) Natural (II) Anti-rabies
time then the body elicits the primary immune passive serum
response. immunity
• When there is a subsequent encounter with the same (C) Artificial (III) acquired after
pathogen secondary or anamnestic immune response active smallpox
is elicited. immunity infection
Innate immunity is the first response of the body’s
(D) Artificial (IV) Transferred
immune system to a harmful foreign substance like
passive from mother to
bacteria, viruses. immunity child
269. Given below are two statements: The correct answer is
Statement I : Autoimmune disorder is a (A) (B) (C) (D)
condition where body defense mechanism
(a) (III) (IV) (II) (II)
recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.
(b) (IV) (III) (I) (I)
Statement II : Rheumatoid arthritis is a
condition where body does not attack self cells. (c) (III) (I) (IV) (II)
In the light of the above statements, choose the (d) (III) (IV) (I) (II)
most appropriate answer from the options AP EAMCET-2014
given below: Ans. (d) :
(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (A) Natural active (iii) Acquired after smallpox
correct immunity infection
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (B) Natural passive (iv) Transferred from
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect immunity mother to child
(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (C) Artificial active (i) Develops due to
incorrect immunity vaccination
NEET-2022
(D) Artificial passive (ii) Anti-rabies serum.
Ans. (d) : Auto-immune disorder is a condition where immunity
body defense mechanism recognize own cells as foreign
bodies. Sometimes due to genetic and other unknown 273. Match List - I with List - II:
reasons the body attacks self-cells. List-I List-II
Rheumatoid arthritis is an example where body attacks A. Cellular barrier i. Interferons
self cells (synovial membrane). B. Cytokine barrier ii. Mucus
270. A person is injected with globulin against C. Physical barrier iii. Neutrophils
hepatitis. This is: D. Physiological iv. HCl in gastric
(a) artificially acquired passive immunity barrier juice
(b) artificially acquired active immunity Choose the correct answer from the options
(c) naturally acquired active immunity given below:
(d) naturally acquired passive immunity (a) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i)
BVP-2004 / DUMET-2003 (b) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (i), (D) - (iv)
Ans. (a) : A person is injected with globulin against (c) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i)
hepatitis. This is artificially acquired passive immunity. (d) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iv)
It is a short term immunization by the injection of NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
antibodies such as gamma globulin, that is not reduced Ans. (d) :
by the recipient's cells.
List-I List-II
271. Which of the following cells are related with
inflammatory reactions and immediate Cellular barrier Neutrophils.
hypersensitivity? Cytokine barrier Interferons.
(a) Mast cells (b) Plasma cells Physical barrier Mucus.
(c) Tebroblast cells (d) All of these Physiological barrier HCl in gastric juice.
BVP-2005 274. In the following schematic diagram explains
Ans. (a) : Mast cells are involved in inflammatory the mechanism of cell mediated immunity
reactions and immediate sensitivity allergic reactions. where an Antigen Presenting Cell (APC) is
Mast cells are found in loose connective tissue interacting with a T-helper cell (TH). Identify
throughout the body, in every organ. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in this diagram
278. What is true about T-lymphocytes in
mammals: -
(a) There are three main types-cytotoxic
T-cells, helper
T-cells and suppressor
T-cells
(b) These originate in lymphoid tissues
(a) X-MHC-I; Y-CD4 (b) X-MHC-II; Y-CD4 (c) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular
debris
(c) X-MHC-II – Y-CD8 (d) X-MHC-I – Y-CD8
(d) These are produced in thyroid
AIPMT-2003
Ans. (b) : Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is Ans. (a): T-lymphocytes produced in bone marrow and
group of genes that code for protein found on the mature in thymus.
surface of cells that help the immune system recognize • T lymphocyte are involved in cell mediated immunity.
foreign substances. While CD4 T cells are lymphocytes Hence, T cells recognize and kill infected cell directly.
they help fight against infection by triggering your • There are three types of T-cells–cytotoxic, helper and
immune system to destroy viruses specially fight suppressor.
against HIV.
279. The treatment of snake-bite by antivenom is an
275. Which of the following element is important to example of
maintain structure of immunoglobulin? (a) Artificially acquired active immunity
(a) P (b) Fe (b) Artificially acquired passive immunity
(c) S (d) Ca (c) Naturally acquired passive immunity
GUJCET-2008 (d) Specific natural immunity.
Ans. (c) : All immunoglobulin have four-chain KVPY SA-2014 / Haryana PMT-2004 / AIIMS-2004
structure as their basic unit. They are composed of two Ans. (b) : The treatment of snake-bite by antivenom is an
identical light chains and two identical heavy chains. A example of artificially acquired passive immunity. It is a
disulphide bond joins a light chain with a heavy chain. short term immunization achieved the transfer of
Two disulphide bonds link the two heavy chain. Hence antibodies, which can be administered in several forms.
the element required to maintain the structure of The antivenom is transferred to the person with snake bite
immunoglobulin is Sulphur (S). and it provides immediate immunity in case of emergency.
276. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient 280. Which one of the following diseases is due to an
allergic reaction?
due to
(a) Enteric fever (b) Skin cancer
(a) Innate immune response (c) Goitre (d) Hay fever
(b) Humoral immune response AIPMT-1995
(c) Cell-mediated immune response Ans. (d) : Hay fever or allergic rhinitis is the allergic
(d) Passive immune response response caused by the hypersensitivity of dust, pollen
AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015 grains, SPM in polluted air. Allergic response causing
Ans. (c) : The grafted kidney (organ transplant) may be itchy, watery eyes, sneezing and other symptoms.
rejected by patient body due to the cell mediated • Skin cancer is caused by harmful UV rays.
immune response mediated by T-lymphocyte. Cell • Goiter is the metabolic disorder.
mediated response does not involve the antibodies. It • Enteric fever is a typhoid fever.
initiate the activation of phagocytes and T-lymphocytes 281. Antigens are present
via which cytokine are released. They act against the (a) Inside the cytoplasm
antigen they encounter during graft. (b) On nuclear membrane
277. The affinity of an antibody can be determined (c) Inside the nucleus
by measuring (d) On cell surface
(a) Its concentration AIPMT-1995
(b) The valency of antigen binding Ans. (d) : Antigens are present on the cell surface and
(c) The amount of antibody bound at various specifically react with them to cause the formation of
antigen concentrations antibodies. The cell provide the best source of immunizing
(d) Its ability to neutralize bacterial toxins antigens. Antigens are the substance that helps our immune
system to produce antibodies against it.
SRM JEEE -2017
282. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can
Ans. (c) : The affinity constant is calculated utilizing
distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this
only the concentrations of bound and free antibody so property is lost due to genetic abnormality and
that the actual antigen concentrations (or number of it attacks self- cells, then it leads to
antigenic sites per cell) need not be known however the (a) Active immunity (b) Allergic response
number of antibody molecules found per cell can be (c) Graft rejection (d) Auto-immune disease
estimated from the results. NEET-2016 Phase-I
Ans. (d) : If self and non-self reorganization power is Ans. (a) : IgE antibody produced by the immune
lost then immune cells can attack our own body cells system. If you have an allergy, your immune system
and causes autoimmune disease. Autoimmunity may be response overly to an allergen. This cause wheezing,
caused due to genetic or environmental factors. In itching, running nose and other symptoms. If you have
autoimmune disease, the immune system fails to an allergy, the immune system over reacts to an allergen
recognize self-cells. Common symptoms include low by producing antibodies called immunoglobulin E.
grade fever and feeling tired. 287. Which of the following act as an antigen, but do
283. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to : not induce antibody production?
(a) Thymus (b) Thyroid (a) Haustra (b) Histones
(c) Thalamus (d) Tonsil (c) Haptens (d) None of these
AIPMT-2009 JIPMER-2015
Ans. (a) : The letter T in T-lymphocytes refers to Ans. (c) : Haptens are small molecules that react with a
Thymus. T cells are born from hematopoietic stem cells specific antibody but cannot induce antibody production
found in the bone marrow and it develops or mature in unless bound to a carrier protein or other large antigenic
the thymus. T cells derive their name from the thymus. molecule. They are incomplete or partial antigens.
284. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick 288. In which one of the following options the two
relief from - examples are correctly matched with their
(a) Headache (b) Allergy particular type of immunity?
(c) Nausea (d) Cough
Examples Type of immunity
AIPMT-2009
(a) Saliva in mouth Physical barriers
Ans. (b) : Use of antihistamines and steroids give a and tears in eyes
relief from allergies. People suffering from allergies
demonstrate an exaggerated immune response. Immune (b) Mucus coating of Physiological barriers
system cells known as "mast cell" release a substance epithelium lining
called histamine. The antihistamines are widely used to the urinogenital
treat symptoms of allergic conditions including itching, tract and the HCI
nasal, stuffiness etc. in stomach
285. Globulins contained in human blood plasma (c) Polymorpho- Cellular barriers
are primarily involved in - nuclear
(a) Clotting of blood leukocytes and
(b) Defense mechanisms of body monocytes
(c) Osmotic balance of body fluids (d) Anti-tetanus and Active immunity
(d) Oxygen transport in the blood anti-snake bite
AIPMT-2009 injections
Ans. (b) : Globulins is human blood plasma play a key AIPMT (Screening)-2012
role in the body's defense process. When an antigen Ans. (c) : Phagocytosis is an important feature of
enters the body an antibody is produced by the cellular innate immunity, performed by cell called
immunoglobulins. These antibodies fight against the phagocytes that engulf or eat pathogens or foreign
antigen. These are Y – shaped in structure and particles.
constitute two heavy chains which are large and two • Common example of these phagocytes are
small light chains. Gamma Globulins act as the monocytes, macrophages, neutrophil granulocytes,
antibody defense against antigen invasion. tissue dendritic cell, mast cells etc.
Immunoglobulins operate as antibodies, destroying • Antitetanus and anti snake bite injections are example
bacteria, viruses and hazardous chemicals. of passive immunity.
289. Agglutination occurs in blood present in a test
tube. This indicate
(a) Antibodies are present in plasma
(b) Antigens are present on R.B.C.
(c) Antigens are present in plasma
(d) Antibodies are present on R.B.C.
286. A person shows symptoms like sneezing, AIPMT-1999
watery eyes, running nose and difficulty in
breathing, on exposure to certain substances in Ans. (b) : Agglutination is a process in which free
air. Which type of antibody is produced during RBC's are bound together by an antibody and reduced to
such condition? a visible pellet when centrifuged.
(a) IgE (b) IgA Agglutination, which refers to the clumping of RBC is
(c) IgG (d) IgM an antigen-antibody reaction that occurs when an
Karnataka CET-2019 antigen is mixed with its corresponding antibody.
290. Note the following (1) A = t, B = s, C = r, D = P
(A) skin (2) A = s, B = t, C = q, D = r
(B) phagocytes (3) A = s, B = r, C = t, D = q
(C) B-cells (4) A = p, B = q, C = r, D = t
(D) inflammation Karnataka CET-2010
(E) antibodies Ans. (c) :
(F) T-cells Column–I Column–II
(G) fever
Type of immunity Example
(H) antimicrobial proteins
(I) NK-cells A. Natural active Fighting infection
naturally
(J) secretions
Identify the factors involved in 2nd line of B. Artificial passive Injection of antiserum
defence. to travellers
(a) B, D, G and I (b) B, C, E and I C. Artificial active Induced by vaccination
(c) D, F, H and I (d) C, E, G and H D. Natural passive From mother to foetus
AP EAMCET-2009 through placenta
Ans. (a) : The second line of defense is the non-specific 293. The progenitors that are formed in bone
responses. They are generalized responses to pathogen marrow and differentiated elsewhere are:
infection, they do not target a specific cell type. The (a) Pre-NK cell (b) Pre-erythorblast
non-specific response consists of some WBCs and (c) Pre-T Cell (d) Myeloblast
plasma proteins and following factors: AP EAMCET-2005
Phagocytes are cell that eat foreign material to destroy Ans. (c) : Pre T cell are progenitors of T-lymphocytes
them and it includes neutrophils, eosinophils and which are produced from the bone marrow. During the
dendritic cells.
development of T cells line in the organs of the central
Macrophages are non-phagocytic leucocytes, like immune system (thymus and bone marrow) they being
basophils and mast cells. Macrophages play an to express various cell surface markers.
important role in eliminating diseased and damaged
cells through their programmed cell death. 294. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons
Inflammation is the immune response shown during an are related to:
infection. It is generally shown by WBC. (a) Low temperature
Fever is an immune response that includes that increase (b) Hot and humid environment
in the temperature of the body to kill pyrogens. (c) Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
291. Identify the monomer forms of the antibodies (d) Inhalation of seasonal pollen
among the following groups AIPMT-2007
(a) IgA, IgD, IgE (b) IgG, IgA, IgM Ans. (d) : Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons
(c) IgG, IgA, IgE (d) IgD, IgE, IgG are related to inhalation of seasonal pollen. Pollen is one
AP EAMCET-12.07.2022 Shift-II of the most common causative agents of allergies,
Ans. (d) : There are five types of heavy chain constant plants release pollen each spring and during early fall.
regions in antibodies. There are classified into IgG, IgA, Every spring there is a huge increase in the amount of
IgM, IgD, and IgE. There distribution and functions are pollen in the air, which increase asthmatic attacks in
different in the body. individuals allergic to pollen.
292. Match the types of immunity listed in Column-
I with the examples listed in Column II. Choose
the answer that gives the correct combination
of alphabets of the two columns.
Column I Column II
Types of Immunity Example
A. Natural active p. Immunity
development by
heredity
B. Artificial q. From mother to
passive foetus through
placenta 295. If you suspect deficiency of antibodies in a
C. Artificial r. Injection of person, to which of the following would you
active antiserum to look for confirmatory evidence ?
travellers (a) Haemocytes
D. Natural s. Fighting infection (b) Serum albumins
passive naturally (c) Serum globulins
t. Induced by (d) Fibrinogen in the plasma
vaccination AIPMT-2007
Ans. (c) : Antibodies are a group of globular protein 298. Match the following
consisting of serum or plasma. Thus, they are also List–I List–II
known as immunoglobulin. It inactivates the antigen. (A) Anti-Tetanus serum (I) Artificial active
• Serum does not have WBC (leukocytes), RBC immunity
(erythrocytes), platelets and other clotting factors. (B) Cytokines (II) Natural passive
• 17-20% of the total protein is being formed by immunity
antibodies in the blood serum. (C) Colostrum (III) Artificial passive
immunity
(D) Tetanus toxoid (IV) Natural active
immunity
(V) Innate immunity
The Correct answer is :
Options:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) III IV V II
(b) III II IV I
(c) I IV II III
(d) III V II I
296. Who among the following is recognised as the Ans. (d) :
father of Immunology? List - 1 List-II
(a) Edward Jenner (b) Louis Pasteur
Anti-tetanus serum Artificial passive immunity
(c) Robert Koch (d) Ferdinand Kohn
Karnataka CET-2008 Cytokines Innate immunity
Ans. (a) : Edward Jenner is recognized as the Father of Colostrum Natural passive immunity
Immunology. Tetanus toxoid Artificial active immunity
• Louis Pasteur is regarded as Father of Bacteriology 299. Column I lists the components of body defense
and Modern Microbiology. and column II lists the corresponding
• Robert Koch is known as Father of Modern descriptions. Match the two columns. Choose
Bacteriology. the correct option from those given.
• Ferdinand Kohn is known as Father of Medical Column -I Column -II
Microbiology. A. Active natural p. Injection of gamma
297. Of the following statements about antibodies immunity globulins
and antigens. Choose the correct set B. First line of q. Complement
(I) An antibody consists of four identical light defense proteins and
(L) chains, and two identical heavy (H) interferons
chains. C. Passive natural r. Direct contact with
(II) The stem 'Y' of antibody is called Fab immunity the pathogens that
fragment. have entered inside
(III) The stem of antibody and lower parts of its D. Second line of s. Surface barriers
arms constitute the constant (C) region. defense
(IV) The portion of the antigen to which an t. Antibodies
antibody binds is called epitope. transferred through
The correct match is the placenta
(a) (II) and (IV) (b) (I) and (III) (a) A = s, B = r, C = t, D = q
(c) (III) and (IV) (d) (I) and (II) (b) A = r, B = s, C = q, D = t
AP EAMCET-2013 (c) A = r, B = s, C = t, D = q
Ans. (c) : An antibody is also known as an (d) A = t, B = r, C = q, D = p
immunoglobulin (Ig), is a large, Y-Shaped protein Karnataka CET-2006
produced mainly by plasma cells that are used by the
immune system to neutralize pathogens such as Ans. (c) :
pathogenic bacteria and viruses. The fragment Column -I Column -II
crystallizing region or constant region (Fc region) is A. Active natural r. Direct contact with the
the tail region of an antibody that interacts with cell immunity pathogens that have
surface receptors called Fc receptors and some proteins entered inside
of the complement system. B. First line of defense s. Surface barriers
An epitope, also known as the antigenic determinant,
is the part of an antigen that is recognized by the C. Passive natural t. Antibodies transferred
immune system, specifically by antibodies, B-cells, or T immunity through the placenta
cells. For example, the epitope is the specific piece of D. Second line of q. Complement proteins
the antigen to which an antibody binds. defense and interferon's
300. Which of the following does not protect body Ans. (b) : The diptheria, pertussis (whooping cough),
surfaces: tetanus (DPT) vaccine consists of toxoid of diptheria,
(a) Skin (b) Mucus tetanus and heat killed whole cells of pertussis.
(c) Gut microflora (d) Salivary amylase 305. Allergic reaction can be controlled by
SRM JEEE -2017 (a) antibiotics (b) histamines
Ans. (d) : Salivary amylase does not act as a protective (c) antihistamines (d) none of the above
barrier for the surface of the body. It is an enzymes AMU-1999
assist in digestion only.
Ans. (c) : Antihistamines are medicines that act by
blocking the body’s response to histamine in different
D. Vaccination and Immunisation parts of body. Examples- Oral antihistamines include
301. Vaccine for influenza is cetirizine (Zyrtec allergy) fexofenadine (Allegra
(a) Inacti vated whole agent vaccine allergy) corticosteroid nasal sprays. Seasonal allergy
(b) Attenuated whole agent vaccine can be treated with antihistamines and decongestants to
(c) Toxoid reduce symptoms food allergy symptoms such as hives
(d) Recombinant vector vaccines or itching can be control with over the counter drugs.
AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-II 306. Assertion: Mast cells in the human body
Ans. (a) : Vaccine for influenza is inactivated whole release excessive amount of inflammatory
agent vaccine. Most of the currently licensed influenza chemicals, which cause allergic reactions.
vaccines are in the form of inactivated antigen Reason: Allergens in the environment on
preparations. Inactivated vaccines use the killed version reacting human body stimulate mast cells in
of the germ. certain individuals.
302. BCG vaccine is used against: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(a) TB (b) leprosy Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) food poisoning (d) none of these
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
JIPMER-2000
Reason is not the correct explanation of
AFMC-2005, 2009 Assertion.
Ans. (a) : The Bacille Calmette-Guerin(BCG) is a (c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
vaccine used to prevent tuberculosis and other (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
mycobacterial infections. This vaccine was developed
by Calmette and Guerin and was first administered to VMMC-2012
human beings in 1921. The BCG vaccine prevents the Ans. (a) : Mast cells release a large amount of
development of TB. TB is a serious infection that histamine into the bloodstream and it also act as
affects the lungs and other parts of body such as brain initiator of the inflammatory response. Histamine
(meningitis), bones, joints and kidneys. stimulates capillary dilation increased capillary
303. How does vaccination work? permeability, mucus secretion, pain and swelling.
(a) The immune system produces antibodies, 307. Antibody that is capable of crossing the
which stay in the blood placenta is
(b) Memory lymphocytes are produced. They (a) IgM (b) IgG
remain in the body to fight off any future (c) IgE (d) IgA
infection with the live pathogen Tripura JEE-2019
(c) The dead pathogen stays in the body and Ans. (b) : Antibody that is capable of crossing the
constantly stimulates the immune system placenta is IgG.
(d) All of the above IgG is the only antibody class that significantly crosses
J&K CET-2012 the human placenta. This crossing mediated by FcRn
Ans. (d) : Vaccines sparks your immune response expressed on syncytiotrophoblast cells.
helping your body fight off and remember the germ so it 308. All antibodies are commonly known as
can attack it if the germ ever invades again in future.
(a) albumin (b) α-globulin
Vaccines are made of very small amounts of weak or
dead germs. (c) β-globulin (d) immunoglobulin
304. The Diptheria, Pertussis, Tetanus (DPT) Tripura JEE-2019
vaccine consists of Ans. (d) : Antibodies are proteins that your immune
(a) live attenuated strains of Diptheria, system makes to fight germs, such as viruses and
Pertussis,Tetanus bacteria. An antibody is an immunoglobulin is a large
(b) toxoid of Diptheria, Tetanus and heat killed Y- shape protein produced by plasma cells that is used
whole cells of Pertussis by the immune system to identify and neutralize foreign
(c) whole cell lysate of Diptheria, Pertussis, objects such as bacteria , viruses and pathogens.
Tetanus 309. The term vaccine was introduced by
(d) heat killed strains of Diptheria, Pertussis, (a) Jenner (b) Koch
Tetanus (c) Pasteur (d) Jointly by Koch and Pasteur
KVPY SA-2016 Rajasthan PMT-2011
Ans. (a) : The term vaccine and vaccination are derived 315. A person likely to develop tetanus is
from smallpox of a cow, were introduced by Edward immunized by administering :
Jenner. A vaccine is a biological preparation that provides (a) Weakened germs
active required immunity to a particular disease. Edward (b) Dead germs
Jenner is known as Father of Immunology. (c) Preformed antibodies
310. Synthetic vaccines are called: (d) Wide spectrum antibiotics
(a) first generation (b) second generation AIPMT-2009
(c) third generation (d) none of theses Ans. (a) : A person who is likely to develop tetanus can
CG PMT-2011 / VMMC-2003 be immunized by administering a vaccine (Tetanus
Ans. (c) : Synthetic vaccine are called third generation toxoid) containing weakened germs. The bacteria
vaccine. Third generation vaccine are those in which present in the vaccine are weakened by using
recombination techniques are used for the production of formaldehyde. It consists of growth product of
vaccines. Example of synthetic vaccine EpiVac corona. Clostridium tetani. Tetanus is characterized as a
311. VCRC stand for : bacterial infection of high intensity. In this way the
(a) Vaccine Creation Research Centre bacteria become inactive but not dead.
(b) Vector Control Research Centre 316. Who received Nobel Prize in 1951 for the
(c) Venum Control Research Centre development of vaccine for yellow fever?
(d) Vital Chemical Release Centre (a) Max Theiler (b) Ronald Ross
BCECE-2003 (c) Max Delbruck (d) Francis Payton Rous
Ans. (b) : VCRC stands for Vector Control Research JIPMER-2015
Centre. VCRC established at Pondicherry in July 1975 Ans. (a) : Max Theiler was a South African-American
is one of the permanent institutes of the Indian Council virologist and doctor. He was awarded the Nobel Prize
of Medical Research (ICMR) Department of Health in Physiology or Medicine in 1951 for developing a
Research, Government of India. vaccine against yellow fever.
312. The vaccine of Hepatitis - B is a : His main contribution was his demonstrations that the
(a) first generation vaccine yellow fever virus could be easily transmitted by mice.
(b) interferon 317. Select the correct statement with respect to
(c) second generation vaccine disease and immunisation
(d) third generation vaccine (a) Injection of snake antivenom against snake
MGIMS Wardha-2003 bite is an example of active immunisation
Ans. (c) : Second generation vaccine were developed to (b) If due to some reason B and T-lymphocytes
reduce risk from live vaccines. These are subunit are damaged, the body will not produce
vaccines consisting of defined protein antigen like antibodies against a pathogen
tetanus or diphtheria toxoid or recombinant protein (c) Injection of dead/inactivated pathogens
component like hepatitis B surface antigen. causes passive immunity
313. Who among the following established the (d) Certain protozoans have been used to mass
scientific basis of vaccination? produces hepatitis B vaccine
(a) Edward Jenner (b) George Kohler AIPMT (Mains)-2011
(c) Louis Pasteur (d) Von Behring Ans. (b) : The primary and secondary immune
Manipal-2006 responses are carried out the with the help of two
special types of lymphocytes present in our body i.e.
Ans. (c) : Louis Pasteur demonstrated that
microorganism cause disease and weakened or • B-lymphocytes
attenuated microbes are used to make vaccines. Pasteur • T-lymphocytes.
was the first to recognise pathogenicity variability. He The B-lymphocytes produce an array (a range) of
developed the earliest vaccines against anthrax. proteins in response to pathogens into our blood to bind
314. Fastest distribution of some injectible material with them. These proteins are called antibodies. The T-
/ medicine and with no risk of any kind can be cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help B-
achieved by injecting it into the cells to produce them.
(a) Lymph vessels (b) Muscles 318. Polio vaccine is also called
(c) Arteries (d) Veins (a) BCG (b) DPT
AIPMT (Mains)-2010 (c) Salk’s vaccine (d) HPP
Ans. (d) : Intravenous injection is given for rapid AP EAMCET-12.07.2022 Shift-II
distribution of drugs substance. The advantages of Ans. (c) : There are two vaccines used to protect against
intravenous injection are that the response is very rapid, polio disease, oral polio vaccine (OPV) and inactivated
the dosage of the drug can be easily controlled and poliovirus vaccine (IPV). IPV or Salk vaccine was
veins are insensitive to irritation by irritant drugs at developed in the early 1950 by American physician
higher concentration. Intramuscular injection is given Jonas Salk. This vaccine contain killed virus and is
for producing local effect. given by injection .
319. Match the items of Column I with those of The correct option among the following is
Column II and choose the correct answer. (a) A & R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
Column-I Column-II (b) A & R are true, but R is not the correct
1. Hepatitis I. IgA explanation of A
B vaccine (c) A is true but R is false
2. Preformed II. Against snake (d) A is false but R is true
antibodies venom TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
3. Colostrum III. Neutrophils Ans. (d) : Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called
interferons which protect non-infected cell from further
4. PMNL IV. Yeast viral infection. Hence, interferons are the types of
V. Basophils proteins produced by the body cell infected by virus not
Select the code for the correct answer from the
bacteria.
options given below: 322. Find out the primary lymphoid organ from the
1 2 3 4 following
(a) IV II I III (a) Spleen (b) Lymph nodes
(b) I II IV III (c) Thymus gland (d) Tonsils
(c) IV II I V AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-II
(d) V II IV I Ans. (c) : Human immune system consists of Lymphoid
Karnataka CET-2018
organs, tissues, cells and soluble molecules like
Ans. (a) : antibodies. The primary lymphoid organs are bone
Hepatitis B vaccine Yeast marrow and thymus. The thymus is a lobed organ
Performed antibiodies Against snake venom located near the heart and beneath the breastbone. The
thymus is quite large at the time of birth but keeps
Colostrum IgA reducing is size with age and by the time puberty is
PMNL Neutrophils attained it reduces to a very small size. Both bone
320. Match the following lists. marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the
List I List IIdevelopment and maturation of T- Lymphocytes
(A) Conjugate vaccine 323. Match List-I with List-II.
(I) Human papilloma
virus List-I List-II
(B) Toxoid vaccine (II) Haemophilus (A) Cytokine barriers (i) Mucus
influenza coating of
respiratory
(C) Attenuated whole (III) Bubonic plague tract
agent vaccine
(B) Cellular barriers (ii) Interferons
(D) Inactivated whole (IV) Yellow fever
agent vaccine (C) Physiological (iii) Neutrophils
barriers and
(V) Diphtheria Macrophag
The correct match is es
(A) (B) (C) (D) (D) Physical barriers (iv) Tears and
(a) (I) (V) (IV) (III) Saliva
(b) (II) (V) (IV) (III) Choose the correct answer from the options
(c) (I) (II) (III) (V) given below:
(d) (II) (III) (I) (IV) (a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
AP EAMCET-2013 (b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
Ans. (b) : (c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
List I List II (d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(A) Conjugate vaccine Haemophilus influenza RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur)
(B) Toxoid vaccine Diphtheria Ans. (c) : Cytokine barriers includes interferons which
are proteins secreted by virus infected cells to protect
(C) Attenuated whole agent Yellow fever non-infected cells from further viral infections.
vaccine
■ Cellular barriers include certain types of WBCs of our
(D) Inactivated whole agent Bubonic plague body like neutrophils and monocytes and natural killer
vaccine cells in the blood as well as macrophages in tissue.
■ Physiological barriers include acid in the stomach,
E. Immune System tears from eyes and saliva in mouth all prevent
321. Assertion (A) : Interferons are the type of microbial growth.
proteins produced by body cells infected by 324. Removal or absence of thymus in early life
bacteria shall bring about
Reason (R) : Interferons protect neighbouring (a) Lack of lymphocytes
cells from infectrions (b) Lack of antibodies
(c) Lack of lymph nodes Ans. (b) : An epitope is also called antigenic
(d) All of the above determinants are regions of proteins that can trigger a
Punjab MET-2009 cellular immune response mediated by T or B cells.
Ans. (d) : The removal or absence of thymus in early Epitopes are the actual portion of fragments of an
life shall bring about lack of lymphocytes. antigen that reacts with the receptor on the B-
Lymphopenia is having a lower than normal level of lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes as well as the free
lymphocytes. Lymphocytes are WBC's that protect you antibody molecules.
from infection.
329. An example of innate immunity is
325. Which lg is produced in primary immune
response? (a) PMNL-neutrophils (b) T-lymphocytes
(a) IgA (b) IgE (c) B-Iymphocytes (d) TH cells
(c) IgG (d) IgM J&K CET-2008
WB JEE-2009 Ans. (a) : An example of innate immunity is PMNL
Ans. (d) : IgM is the largest immunoglobulin. IgM is neutrophils. Neutrophils are polymorphonuclear and
the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to granular leukocyte that function as an essential part of
an antigen. It is temporary and disappears within days the innate immune system. It constitue the first line of
or weeks. defence in the protection of the host from invading
It not only serves as the first line of host defense against microorganisms. It also contributes to the removal by
infection but also plays an important role in immune cellular debris from the necrotic tissues.
regulation and immunological tolerance.
330. Broad spectrum antibiotic :
326. Which of the following organs is not involved in
the elicitation of immune response ? (a) acts on all bacteria and virus
(a) Brain (b) Lymph nodes (b) is effective in very small amount
(c) Spleen (d) Thymus (c) acts on both pathogen and host
UP CPMT-2004 (d) acts on a variety of pathogenic micro
Ans. (a) : The brain consist of the central organ of the organisms
human nervous system. HP CET-2011
The brain is not involved in elicitation of immune Ans. (d) : Broad spectrum antibiotic act on a variety of
response but regulates the function of whole body. The pathogenic micro organism, an antibiotic that is
main component of the immune system are thymus, effective against a wide range of infectious micro
spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow and white blood cells. organism which includes both gram positive and gram
327. How many variable segments are present in the negative bacteria is called a broad spectrum
basic structure of antibody molecule? antibiotic.
(a) One (b) Two
Broad spectrum antibiotics target many types of
(c) Three (d) Four bacteria. It works well to treat infection.
WB JEE-2010
331. Which of following organ can be called a sort
Ans. (d) : Four variable segments are present in the
basic structure of antibody molecule. Each antibody of “blood bank”?
molecule has four peptide chains, two small called light (a) Heart (b) Spleen
chains and two longer called heavy chains. (c) Liver (d) Lungs
MGIMS Wardha-2008
Ans. (b) : Spleen is the largest component of the
lymphatic system and serves various function. One of
its main faction is that it acts as a reservoir of red
corpuscles due to this spleen is called blood bank of our
body.
332. Reticular tissue forms the supporting frame
work of
(a) Bone marrow (b) Lymph gland
328. Which of the following best explains the (c) Spleen (d) All of these
difference between an Epitope and an antigen? AMU-1999
(a) An Epitope is any foreign substance an Ans. (d) : Reticular tissue a form of loose connective
antigen is a foreign protein tissue where in reticular fibres are the most predominant
(b) An Epitope is the part of an antigen where an fibrous constituent, serves as the supporting structure of
antibody or lymphocyte receptor binds
the bone marrow spleen lymph gland and liver.
(c) An antigen is the part of an Epitope where an
antibody or lymphocyte receptor binds 333. Column-I lists the components of the body
(d) Antigens are recognized by B–cells and defense and column-II lists the corresponding
antibodies, Epitopes are recognized by T-cells descriptions. Match the two columns. Choose
AMU-2015 the correct option from those given
Column -I Column –II Ans. (b) : One of the inflammatory reaction induced by
A. Active natural 1. Injection of gamma histamine is vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels.
immunity globulins Histamine causes vasodilation of arteries in the
B. First line of 2. Complement peripheral regions of body such as hands, legs, feet etc
defense proteins and to increase blood flow to the area of invasion.
interferons 337. Antiserum is a serum containing
C. Passive natural 3. Direct contact with (a) Antigens (b) Leucocytes
immunity the pathogens that (c) Antibodies (d) None of these
have entered inside CG PMT-2011
D. Second line of 4. Surface barriers Ans. (c) : Antiserum is the blood serum that contains
defense specific antibodies against an infective organism or
5. Antibodies poisonous substance.
transferred through
the placenta 338. The immune system is made of
(a) Humoral system
A B C D
(b) Humoral and cell mediated systems
(a) 4 3 5 2
(b) 3 4 2 5 (c) Humoral and fibrous systems
(c) 3 4 5 2 (d) Antigen induced antibodies
(d) 5 3 2 1 Rajasthan PMT-2011
AMU-2006 Ans. (b) : Humoral immunity and cell–mediated
Ans. (c) : immunity are two types of an adaptive immune
response that enable the human body to defend itself in
Column-I Column- II
a targeted way against harmful agents such as bacteria
(A) Active natural 3 Direct contact with viruses and toxins.
immunity the pathogen that have
entered inside 339. Which cell of immune system cause pore
formation at the surface of the plasma membrane?
(B) First line of 4 Surface barriers
defense (a) Helper T-cell (b) Killer T-cell
(C) Passive natural 5 Antibodies transferred (c) Suppressor T-cell (d) B-cell
immunity through the placenta (e) Both (b) and (c)
(D) Second line of 2 Complement proteins CMC Vellore-2010
defense and interferons. Ans. (b) : Perforin is a glycoprotein responsible for
334. Iron is stored in bone marrow as pore formation in cell membranes of target cells It is
(a) Haemosedrin (b) Ferritin released by the granules of Cytotoxic T- lymphocyte
(c) Haematin (d) None of these and natural killer cells (NK-cell). Perforin is able to
MGIMS Wardha-2011 polymerize and form a channel in target cell membrane.
Ans. (b) : Iron is stored in bone marrow as ferritin. 340. Matching of the following is necessary for
About one third of iron is stored in as ferritin in the successful organ transplant
bone marrow. Ferritin is a universal intracellular protein (a) Rh factor (b) ABO blood group
that stores iron and releases it in a controlled fashion. (c) MHC antigens (d) Hypersensitivity
About 2 gm of iron in the adult female and upto 6 gm BCECE-2009
iron in the adult male. Ans. (c) : These passenger leukocytes are dendritic,
335. Immunodeficiency makes a person highly which express high levels of Class II MHC molecules
susceptible to infection. It is caused by: (together with normal levels of Class I MHC molecules)
(a) lack of B cells and are widespread in mammalian tissues, with the
(b) lack of T cells chief exception of the brain.
(c) lack of both B and T cells 341. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results
(d) none of the above into
AFMC-2006 (a) Addison's disease
Ans. (c) : Immunodeficiency makes a person highly (b) Dysfunction of Immune system
susceptible to infection. It is caused by B-cell and T-cells one (c) Parkinson's disease
of the most common signs of primary immunodeficiency is an
increased susceptibility to infections. (d) Digestive disorder
NEET-2021
336. One of the inflammatory reactions induced by
histamine is Ans. (b) : The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results
(a) Vasoconstriction of blood vessels into dysfunction of the immune system. It is caused by
(b) Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme deficiency. It
(c) Increased vascular permeability causes a disease known as severe combined
(d) Accelerated blood clotting immunodeficiency (SCID). An individual loses its
J&K CET-2007 immunity against all bacteria, viruses and fungi.
342. Which of the following immunoglobulins does 346. Immunity tolerance developed by
constitute the largest percentage in human milk? (a) Interaction with the antigen
(a) lgG (b) lgD (b) By giving antibodies
(c) lgM (d) lgA (c) Present by birth
AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015 (d) By giving antibiotics
Ans. (d) : IgA is present in external body secretion AIIMS-26.05.2019 Shift-II
including colostrums and milk which represent 90% of Ans. (a) : Immunological tolerance is a state of immune
milk antibodies. unresponsiveness specific to a particular antigen or set
343. An insect bite may result in inflammation of of antigens induced by previous exposure to that antigen
that spot. This is triggered by the alarm or set. Tolerance is generally accepted to be an active
chemicals such as: process and in essence, a learning experience for T
(a) histamine and dopamine cells.
(b) histamine and kinins 347. Minute quantity of hormones and steroid are
(c) interferons and opsonin detected by
(d) interferons and histones (a) Electrophoresis
AIIMS-2005 (b) Radioimmunoassay
Ans. (b) : An insect bite may result in inflammation of (c) Electro encephalogram
that spot. This is triggered by the alarm chemicals such (d) Fractional analysis
as histamine and kinins. Histamine is a chemical AIPMT-1999
messenger that mediates several cellular responses. Ans. (b) : A radioimmunoassay is an immunoassay that
Kinins are produced and secreted by the liver cells. The uses radiolabelled molecules in a stepwise formation of
other inflammatory mediators are tryptase, cytokines, immune complexes.
interleukins, etc. A RIA is a very sensitive in vitro assay technique used
344. Lysis of foreign cell is mediated through to measure concentration of substances, usually
(a) IgM only (b) IgM and IgG measuring antigen concentration
(c) IgA only (d) IgD and IgE. e.g- Hormone level in blood by use of antibodies.
AIIMS-2002 348. Which enzymes are released from the cytotoxic
Ans. (b) : Lysis of foreign cell is mediated through IgM T-lymphocytes that help in the Apoptosis ?
and IgG. (a) Lysosome (b) Granzymes
IgG and IgM both are involved in lysis of foreign cell (c) Nuclease (d) Perforins
through mediator. Actually both these antibodies occur AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II
in the blood. If antigens (Foreign cells), somehow enter Ans. (b) : Granzymes are released from the cytotoxic
into the blood then (IgG and Ig M) bind to these T–lymphocytes that help in the apoptosis. Granzyme A
antigens and thus, enhance the effectiveness of phagocytic activates a caspase-independent death that is
cells. These phagocytic cells through the process of morphologically identical to apoptosis, whereas
endocytosis engulf the foreign cells. Immunoglobulin G granzyme-B activates apoptosis by cleaving caspases.
accounts for 80% of all antibodies in serum while Caspases is a unique family of cystein proteases execute
immunoglobulin M is largest antibody accounts for 5% to programmed cell death (apoptosis)
10% for all the antibodies in the serum.
345. Which of the following displays immune F. AIDS
tolerance?
(a) B-cells (b) α-cells 349. Among the following which one have high risk
(c) T-cells (d) Both (a) and (c). of getting HIV infection?
AIIMS-2002 (a) Individuals, who have multiple sexual partners
(b) Drug addicts, who take drugs intravenously
Ans. (d) : Immune tolerance is state of
unresponsiveness of the immune system and contrasts (c) Individuals, who require repeated blood
with conventional immune-mediated elimination of transfusions
foreign antigens (see immune response). (d) All of the above
In immunology, central tolerance is the process of VMMC-2011
eliminating any developing T or B lymphocytes that are Ans. (d) : HIV-infection generally occurs by sexual
auto reactive. i.e. reactive to the body itself. contact with infected person and transfusion of
contaminated blood and blood products like sharing
infected needles as in the case of intravenous drug
abusers and infected mother to her child through
placenta.
350. In AIDS, HIV Kills
(a) Antibody molecule (b) T- helper cell
(c) Bone- marrow (d) T- cytotoxic cell
WB JEE-2009
MGIMS Wardha-2007
Ans. (b) : In AIDS, HIV kills the helper T-cells since Ans. (c) : AIDS was first reported in 1981 and in the
the virus make our body weak and unable to fight off last 25 years or so, it has spread all over the world
infections. It does this by attacking our body's immune killing more than 25 million persons. The spread of
system killing CD4 cells (also known as T-cells). HIV HIV in the United States started in New York as early
kills these cells that our body can no longer fight against as 1970, and there was no “Patient Zero”
infection. 356. AIDS is caused by a
351. ELISA test is used for detection of (a) retrovirus (b) DNA virus
(a) antibodies (b) viral disease (c) viroid (d) protein
(c) AIDS (d) all of these J&K CET-2012
UP CPMT-2003 Ans. (a) : HIV is a retrovirus which is responsible for
Ans. (d) : The enzyme linked immunosorbent assay AIDS. Retrovirus is a single stranded positive sense
(ELISA) is a technique used to detect antibody or RNA virus with a DNA intermediate. HIV is a
infectious agents in a sample. retrovirus because its genetic information is carried in
The principal of ELISA is similar to radioimmunoassay RNA and not DNA.
(RIA) but depends on an enzyme rather than a 357. Which of the following is not related to
radioactive label. ELISA test is used for detection of chromosomal aberration?
different type of disease it is based on antigen- (a) Euploidy (b) AIDS
antibodies interaction. This test is also used in viral (c) Aneuploidy (d) Klinefelter's syndrome
disease such as AIDS etc. Haryana PMT-1999
352. The tests that are used in the diagnosis of AIDS Ans. (b) : AIDS is a viral disease. AIDS is caused by
are infection of HIV virus. HIV stands for Human
(a) ELISA and immunoblot Immunodeficiency virus. It is not an inherited disorder
(b) Northern blot and ELISA or chromosomal disorder.
(c) ELISA and southern blot 358. Which of the following is a viral STD disease?
(d) Western blot and ELISA (a) AIDS (b) Cholera
AMU - 1998 (c) Syphilis (d) Gonnrrhoea
J&K CET-2009 CG PMT-2006
Ans. (d) : The western blot is an analytical technique Ans. (a) : A viral sexually transmitted disease (STD) is
used to detect specific proteins in a given sample of AIDS stands for Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
tissue homogenate or extract. The tests that are used in caused by Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
the diagnosis of AIDS is western blot and ELISA, AIDS is a potentially life threatening condition caused
ELISA stand for the Enzyme-linked immunosorbent by the Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
assay (ELISA) is an assay technique designed for 359. AIDS related complex (ARC) is a disease,
detecting and quantifying peptides, proteins, antibodies which leads to fever, swollen lymph nodes,
and hormones. night sweats, loss in weight etc represent
353. What is the full form of AIDS? (a) sever form of AIDS
(a) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (b) initial form of AIDS
(b) Acquired Immunitydeficiency Syndrome (c) single stranded DNA
(c) Acquired Immuno Deficient Syndrome (d) double stranded DNA
(d) Acquired Immunity Deficient Syndrome CG PMT-2006
J&K CET-2014 Ans. (b) : AIDS related complex (ARC) was
Ans. (a) : AIDS stands for acquired immunodeficiency introduced after discovery of the HIV (Human
syndrome. AIDS is caused by HIV virus. AIDS is immunodeficiency virus) and it includes symptoms such
spread through infection of HIV in T-lymphocytes as low-grade fever, weight loss, Diarrhea,
helper in our body. bacterial/fungal infections etc, whereas AIDS or
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome is the advanced
354. AIDS virus contains form of HIV infection.
(a) RNA with protein 360. Which of the following statements is wrong for
(b) DNA with protein AIDS?
(c) DNA without protein (a) It is a blood-borne disease
(d) DNA only (b) It is transmitted chiefly by sexual contact
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 (c) It is caused by HIV
BHU PMT (Screening)-2009 (d) Its causal agent belongs to retrovirus group
Ans. (a) : AIDS virus HIV is a retrovirus and its Tripura JEE-2019
genome is RNA. HIV has reverse transcriptase enzyme Ans. (a) : HIV is transmitted primarily due to unsafe
which help then in reverse transcription. sexual relationship, contaminated blood transfusion
355. AIDS disease was first reported in: hypodermic needles and from mother to child during
(a) Russia (b) Germany pregnancy breast feeding. AIDS is caused by HIV
(c) USA (d) France (Human immunodeficiency Virus). HIV is a type of
VMMC-2002 retrovirus and its genome is RNA.
361. ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key 365. Which of the following statements is not true
reagent is for retroviruses :-
(a) DNA probe (b) RNAse (a) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA-dependent
(c) alkaline phosphatese (d) catalase DNA polymerase
CMC Ludhiana-2008 / VMMC-2007 (b) The genetic material in mature retroviruses is
Ans. (c) : Alkaline phosphates is found in the RNA
periplasmic space of E. coli bacteria. This enzyme is (c) Retroviruses are causative agents for certain
heat stable and has its maximum activity at high pH. kinds of cancer in man
ELISA are Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is a (d) DNA is not present at any stage in the life
plate based assay technique designed for detecting and cycle of retroviruses.
quantifying substances such as peptides, proteins, AIPMT-2004
antibodies, antigens, and hormones.
Ans. (d) : Retrovirus once it has infected a cell, it
The commonly used enzymes in this technique are
converts its RNA into viral DNA by reverse
alkaline phosphates and peroxidase.
transcription. Retrovirus have RNA as a genetic
362. In India AIDS was reported in : material and hence they exhibit reverse transcription
(a) 1932 (b) 1986 where by DNA is synthesized on RNA template.
(c) 1990 (d) 1992 • They have reverse transcriptase as the enzyme.
BCECE-2003
• This viral DNA is inserted into the DNA of the host
Ans. (b) : HIV infection in India was first detected by cell where it starts replicating.
Dr. Suniti Soloman in 1986 among female sex workers
in Chennai. Today, with an estimated 5.314 million 366. Identify the incorrect statement.
infections, India is home to the second largest (a) Pneumonia is a bacterial disease
population of people living with HIV and AIDS. (b) Ringworm is a fungal disease
363. The spread of AIDS is promoted by (c) HIV is transmitted by mosquito bite
(a) Homosexuality (d) Cancer is a non-infectious disease
(b) Immoral way of life Karnataka CET-2019
(c) Use of infected needles in blood transfusion Ans. (c) : HIV can't be transmitted through saliva, so it
(d) All of the above can't be transmitted through a mosquito's bite.
AMU-2002 367. Who received Nobel Prize in 2008 for the
Ans. (d) : HIV is spread from the body fluids of an discovery of HIV?
infected person, including blood, breast milk, semen (a) Harald Zur Hausen (b) Luc Montagnier
and vaginal fluids. It is not spread by kisses, hugs or (c) Jack Szostak (d) Carol Greider
sharing food. It also spread from a mother to her baby. JIPMER-2016
Use of infected needle in blood transfusion is self
explanatory other than that immoral way of life refers to Ans. (b) : Francoise Barre-Sinoussi and Luc
multiple, sexual partners homosexuals are at a greater Montagnier discovered Human immunodeficiency virus
risk of AIDS spread. (HIV) and received Nobel Prize in 2008.
364. Which of the following is correct Regarding
AIDS causative agent HIV?
G. CANCER
(a) HIV is enveloped virus containing one 368. Metastasis is
molecule of single- stranded RNA and one (a) Rapid division in cancer cells
molecule of reverse transcriptase (b) Spread of cancer cells to new sites
(b) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two (c) Regeneration of cancer cells
identical molecules of single stranded RNA (d) None of the above
and two molecules of reverse transcriptase
VMMC-2011
(c) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus
(d) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired Ans. (b) : Metastasis is spread of cancer cells to new
immune response. sites. When a few cancer cells separated from original
AIPMT-1994 / NEET-2016 Phase-II tumour enter into blood vessels and lymph vessels and
travel to other parts of body. They may proliferate and
Ans. (b) : HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus) is a form a new tumour at that sites, this spread of cancer cells
retrovirus composed of two single-stranded RNA, 15 types to locations distant from their original site is metastasis.
of viral proteins, and along with two molecules of reverse
transcriptase, all surrounded by a protein coat. HIV escapes 369. The expanded name of MRI is
immune system of the host by attacking helper T cells. (a) Medical Research Instrument
(b) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
(c) Magnetic Research Institute
(d) Medical Resonance Imaging
WB JEE-2012
Ans. (b) : Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is a
medical imaging technique that uses a magnetic field
and computer-generated radio waves to create detailed
images of the organs and tissue in our body most MRI
machines are large, tube – shaped magnets.
370. The carcinoma, a type of cancer, originates from Ans. (c) : Antibodies, interferons are useful in treatment
(a) Blood (b) Connective tissue of cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are used for treatment
(c) Epithelial tissue (d) Lymph gland of cancer.
WB JEE-2012 375. Cancer causing genes (oncogenes) were
Ans. (c) : The carcinoma, a type of cancer, originates discovered by
from epithelial tissue. These tissues cover the outside of (a) Watson and Crick
the body such as the skin cover and line all the organs (b) Beadle and Tatum
inside the body such as the organs of the digestive system. (c) Bishop and Varamus
371. Match column I with column II and choose the (d) Temin and Baltimore
correct answer. BVP-2012 / MGIMS Wardha-2007
Column -I Column - II Ans. (c) : Oncogenes are cancer causing genes, these
A. Neoplasm 1. Hematopoietic cell were discovered by Bishop and Varamus.
tumours Varamus and Bishop further hypothesized that all cancers,
B. Benign 2. Bone cartilage tissue including those not caused by oncogenic viruses are the
tumour cancer result of damage to cellular proto-oncogenes.
C. Carcinomas 3. Malignant tumour 376. This tumour normally confined to their
D. Sarcomas 4. Cancer of epithelial original location and do not spread to other
tissue parts of the body.
(a) Malignant tumour (b) Metastasis
E. 5. Non-cancerous
(c) Benign tumour (d) Cancer
Lymphomas tumour
AFMC -2009
6. Initiation of new
Ans. (c) : A Benign tumour, such as a common skin
tumours
wart, remains confined to its original location. These
(a) A-6 B-4 C-3 D-2 E-1 tumours are localized at a particular location in the body
(b) A-6 B-3 C-4 D-2 E-1 and do not spread to the other part of body. Benign
(c) A-3 B-5 C-4 D-2 E-1 tumor is not malignant.
(d) A-3 B-5 C-4 D-2 E-3 377. Which of these is based on magnetic
VMMC-2013 resonance?
Ans. (c) : Neoplasm – Malignant tumour (a) EEG (b) CT scanning
Benign tumour – Non - cancerous tumour (c) NMR scanning (d) PET scanning
Carcinomas – Cancer of epithelial tissues HP CET-2011
Sarcoma – Bone cartilage tissue cancer Ans. (c) : A CT scan known as computed tomography
Lymphomas – Hematopoietic cell tumour uses computer processed combinations.
372. The treatment of cancer with X- rays or • NMR is termed as nuclear magnetic resonance
gamma rays is called imaging. MRI is based on nuclear magnetic
(a) Surgery (b) Chemotherapy resonance (NMR), the presence of an extenal
(c) Hormone therapy (d) Radiation therapy magnetic filed when exposed to radiofrequency (Rf).
VMMC-2013 / Haryana PMT-2002 • Electromagnetic waves of a specific resonance frequency.
Ans. (d) : Radiation therapy is a cancer treatment that 378. Which of the following causes prostate cancer?
uses high doses of radiation to kill cancer cells and (a) Chromium (b) Cadmium oxide
shrink tumor. At low doses, radiation is used in X-rays (c) Vinyl chloride (d) Aflatoxins
to see inside our body as with X-rays of our teeth or J&K CET-2009 / DUMET-2001
broken bones. Ans. (b) : Any agent or factor that induce cancer is
373. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by called carcinogen or carcinogenic factor, e.g. cadmium
radiation than normal cells because they are oxide, which induces prostate cancer. Exposure to
(a) starved of mutation cadmium oxide over a long period of time is linked to
(b) undergoing rapid division lung and prostate cancer.
(c) different in structure Chromium and Nickel compounds include lung cancer,
(d) non-dividing while vinyl chloride and aflatoxins induce liver cancer.
Manipal-2012, 2007 / CMC Ludhiana-2009 379. The blood cancer is known as:
JCECE-2009 / CG PMT-2006 / Haryana PMT-2003 (a) leukemia (b) thrombosis
Ans. (b) : Cancer cells are more easily damaged by (c) haemolysis (d) haemophilia
radiation than normal cells because they are undergoing VMMC-2002
rapid division. Radiation kills the cancer cells by Ans. (a) : Leukemia is a type of blood cancer
preventing them from proliferating and multiplying. characterized by an abnormal increase in white blood
374. Which one of the following is used to treat cells (leucocytes) because of their increased formation
cancers? in the bone marrow and lymphatic tissues.
(a) Albumin (b) Cyclosporin A Excess production of such white blood cells affects the
(c) Antibodies (d) Growth hormone production of normal blood cells, which are essential to
KVPY SB & SX-2015 fight infection carry oxygen and help clot blood.
380. Cervical cancer can be caused by 385. The most commonly used marker enzyme in
(a) Chlamydia sp. clinical diagnosis of prostate cancer is
(b) Human papilloma virus (a) amylase (b) alkaline phosphatase
(c) Herpes simplex virus (c) Y-GTPase (d) Acid phosphatase
(d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae Manipal-2015
J&K CET-2012 Ans. (d) : Prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP) is a non-
Ans. (b) : Long-lasting infection with certain types of specific phosphomonoesterase synthesized in prostate
Human papilloma virus (HPV) is the main cause of epithelial cells and its level prostate epithelial cells and its
cervical cancer. HPV is a common virus that is passed level proportionally increases with prostate cancer
from one person to another during sex. At least half of progression.
sexually active people will have HPV at some point in The most commonly used marker enzyme in clinical of
their lives, but few women will get cervical cancer. prostate cancer is acid phosphatase. Acid phosphatase
formed by prostate is prostatic specific acid phosphatase
381. Aromatic amines used in the manufacture of (P SAP).
synthetic dyes cause cancer of the
386. In humans retrovirus is considered as a cause
(a) skin (b) lung
of cancer because
(c) liver (d) urinary bladder (a) in their genome oncogene is present
AMU-1999
(b) their hereditary material made up of single
Ans. (d) : Long term cancer risk from ingested aromatic stranded RNA
amines has been linked to increased risk for various (c) they have a gene for reverse transcriptase
genitourinary cancers such as bladder cancer as well as (d) in their genome there may be cellular proto
lung cancer due to heavy carcinogenic exposure amongst oncogene
other organ systems affected by high concentrations over Manipal-2015
extended periods. Aromatic amines (also known as
arylamines) from a very important class of xenobiotics. Ans. (d) : A retrovirus is a type of virus that inserts a
DNA copy of its RNA genome into the DNA of a host
382. Interferon suppresses the pathogenic activity of: cell that it invades, thus charging the genome of that
(a) viruses (b) bacteria cell. Retrovirus are implicated as a cause of cancer in
(c) protozoa (d) all of these humans because they may carry cellular proto-
AMU-2011 / VMMC-2006 oncogenes in their genomes.
Ans. (a) : In 1957, Isaacs and Lindenmann called 387. Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation
interferons that protein, which is synthesized in human therapy to treat :
cells during viral infections. Interferon (IFNs) also (a) enlarged prostate gland
called the body’s first line of antiviral defence. (b) gall bladder stones by breaking them
Interferons are a group of signaling protein made and (c) certain types of cancer
released by host cells in response to the presence of (d) kidney stones
several viruses. Haryana PMT-2004
383. Hodgkins disease is Ans. (c) : Electron beam radio therapy is treatment
(a) Cancer of the lymphoid tissue using a radiation beam of particles called electrons. This
(b) Cancer of the mammary gland radiation is strong enough to kill cancer cells but does
(c) Cancer of the WBC not penetrate more than a few centimetere beyond the
(d) Cancer of the liver surface of the skin.
Karnataka CET-2003 388. Which of the following are symptoms of
Ans. (a) : Hodgkin's lymphoma is a type of cancer that radiation disease?
affects the lymphatic system, which is part of the body's (a) Red and ulcerated skin
germ-fighting immune system. In Hodgkin's lymphoma, (b) Nausea and loss of hair
white blood cells called lymphocytes grow out of (c) Nausea and anaemia
control causing swollen lymph nodes and growths (d) Ulcerated skin, anaemia, nausea and loss of hair.
throughout the body. Haryana PMT-2004
Hodgkin lymphoma usually starts in B lymphocytes. Ans. (d) : These symptoms can happen immediately or
384. Recently discovered anti-cancer drug is months or years after exposure to radiation. Radiation
obtained from syndrome includes fatigue, weight loss, nausea,
(a) Taxus (b) Tagetes vomiting, diarrhea, sweating, fever, headache with
bleeding and complications affecting the digestive
(c) Tamarix (d) Thea system nervous system, heart and lungs.
BVP-2013 / Haryana PMT-2009 / CG PMT-2009
389. Which one of the following is not a
Ans. (a) : A recently discovered anti-cancer drug is characteristic of cancerous cell whereas the
obtained from Taxus. The era of cancer chemotherapy remaining three are?
began in the 1940, with the first use of nitrogen (a) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
mustards and folic acid antagonist drugs. (b) They show contact inhibition
Taxol which is obtained from Taxus, used in breast (c) They compete with normal cells for vital
cancer treatment. nutrients
(d) They do not remain confined in the area of (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
formation (d) Assertion is false but Reason is true
JCECE-2018 VMMC-2010 / AP EAMCET-2007
Ans. (b) : Normal cell have the property of contact Ans. (a) : Cancer that spread from where it started to a
inhibition due to this property when they come in
contact with another cell. Their growth is inhibited. distant part of the body is called metastatic cancer.
Contact inhibition is absent in cancer cells so, they grow Abnormal antigens on the surface of the cell and usual
uncontrollably. number of chromosomes causes metastasis.
390. Genes involved in cancer are 395. Hela cells used in cell biology are
(a) cancer gene (b) oncogenes (a) cancerous cells grown in cancer research
(c) tumour genes (d) regulator genes laboratory
VMMC-2008 / AMU-2008 (b) cervical cancer cell derivatives
Ans. (b) : Cancer is a genetic diseases, tumor cells (c) Both (a) and (b)
differ from their normal progenitors by genetic (d) None of the above
alteration that effect growth regulatory genes. Haryana PMT-2008
These exists two classes of such cancer genes, the
oncogenes, which function as positive growth Ans. (c) : Hela cell are the cancer cells taken from
regulators, and the tumor suppressor genes, which Miss. Henrietta Lacks suffering from cervix cancer.
function as negative growth regulators. These are aneuploids and maintained tissue culture
391. Cancer is related to: since 1953. The cells are used widely in research. The
(a) uncontrolled growth of tissues cells divide and double their number in every 24 hours.
(b) old age 396. Cancerous cells spread through :
(c) controlled division of tissues (a) lymph
(d) none of these (b) blood
Haryana PMT-1999 (c) secondary growth of malignant tumour
Ans. (a) : Cancer is a disease caused by uncontrolled (d) all of the above
growth and division of defective cells. Cancer is caused Haryana PMT-2003
by changes in DNA. Most cancer causing DNA changes
occurs in sections of DNA called genes. Ans. (d) : In metastasis cancer cells break away from
where they first formed, travel through the blood or lymph
392. It is normally a rare cancer but became a system, and form new tumors in other parts of the body.
marker for AIDS/HIV patients
Cancer can spread to almost anywhere in the body, but it
(a) squamous cell carcinoma
commonly moves into your bones, liver and lungs.
(b) retinoblastoma
(c) kaposi’s sarcoma 397. Which is not cancer?
(d) Leukaemia (a) Leukemia (b) Trachoma
AMU-2012 (c) Carcinoma (d) Sarcoma
Ans. (c) : Kaposi's sarcoma is a disease in which carrier Haryana PMT-2003
that can form masses in the skin, in lymph nodes, in the Ans. (b) : Trachoma is caused by the bacterium
mouth, etc. Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by infection with Chlamydia trachomatis, is a disease of the eye. It causes
Human Herpes virus - 8 (HHV-8). It often occurs in people a roughening of the inner surface of the eyelids.
with immune deficiencies, such as HIV or AIDS.
398. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by
393. Cancer characterized by a change in wart or
radiations due to :-
mole on the skin is called _____.
(a) Carcinoma (b) Sarcoma (a) Rapid cell division (b) Lack of nutrition
(c) Melanoma (d) Adenoma (c) Fast mutation (d) Lack of oxygen
MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I Rajasthan PMT-2007 / AIPMT-2002
Ans. (c) : Skin cancer that forms in melanocytes (skin Ans. (a) : Cancerous cells are the cells that undergoes
cell that make pigment) is called melanoma. Skin rapid cell division. These are destroyed by X-ray
cancer that forms in the lower part of the epidermis (the radiation during the cell division. During cell division,
outer layer of the skin) is called based cell carcinoma. the DNA double helix open up and undergo various
394. Assertion: The phenomenon where tumour other processes. Such processes are disrupted when
cells detach and migrate to other parts of the exposed to radiation and the cancerous cells die
body where they give rise to secondary selectively when radiated.
tumours is called metastasis.
399. Carcinoma refers to: -
Reason: Abnormal antigens on the surface of
cell and unusual member of chromosomes (a) Malignant tumours of the connective tissue
cause metastasis. (b) Malignant tumours of the skin or mucous
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and membrane
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion (c) Malignant tumours of the colon
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason (d) Benign tumours of the connective tissue
is not the correct explanation of Assertion AIPMT-2003
Ans. (b): Carcinoma is tumors that arise from 404. Fibroid (leiomyoma) uterus is a-
endodermal or ectodermal tissues. Specifically, if is (a) Benign tumor of uterus
begins in the epithelial tissue of the skin on the tissue (b) Cancer of hypothalamus
that lines internal organs. (c) Tumor of cervix epithelium
Carcinoma derived from epithelial cells whose genome (d) Cancer of vaginal epithelium
has become altered or damaged, causing the cells to AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I
transform and show abnormal malignant properties. Ans. (a) : Uterine fibroids, also known as uterine
400. Which of the following is used in the treatment leiomyomas or fibroids, are benign smooth muscle
of Thyroid cancer tumors of the uterus. Uterine fibroids are noncancerous
(a) I131 (b) U238 growths of the uterus that often appear during child
(c) Ra224 (d) C14 bearing year, also called leiomyomas or myomas.
AIPMT-2002 Uterine fibroids aren't associated with an increased risk
Ans. (a) : The thyroid absorbs almost all iodine that of uterine cancer and almost never develop into cancer.
enters a body. Therefore, a type of radiation therapy
called Radioactive iodine (also known as I131) can find
and destroy cancer cells. Thyroid cells not removed by
surgery and those that have spread beyond the thyroid.
401. Leukaemia is caused by
(a) Ca 40 (b) Sr 90
(c) Caesium (d) Iodine
AIIMS-2011
Ans. (b) : Strontium – 90 is closely related to calcium
405. Characteristics of cancer is
in body and tends to deposit in bone and blood forming
tissue (bone marrow). Thus, Strontium – 90 is referred (a) All tumors are cancers
to as a “bone seeker”. Exposure to Strontium-90 will (b) Cancers show metastasis
increase risk of bone cancer, cancer of the soft tissue (c) Cancerous cells show property of contact
near the bone and leukemia. inhibition
(d) All viruses are oncogenic
402. Smoking addiction is harmful because it
produces polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-II
which cause Ans. (b) : In metastasis, cancer cells break away from
(a) reduction in oxygen transport where they first formed (primary cancer) travel through
(b) increase in blood pressure the blood or lymph system and formed new tumors in
the other parts of the body.
(c) cancer
• Cancer cells grow and divide at an abnormally rapid
(d) retardation of growth of foetus rate and are poorly differentiated and have abnormal
AIIMS-2008 membranes, cytoskeletal proteins and morphology.
Ans. (c) : Smoking is known to be risk factor for lung 406. A metastatic cancerous tumor is termed
cancer, other chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 'sarcoma' if the disorder is in
(COPD) which includes emphysema and chronic (a) fibroblasts (b) circulatory system
bronchitis. (c) immune system (d) epithelial cells
Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) are a group AIPMT-1994
of powerful cancer-causing chemicals, result from
incomplete combustion of tobacco products. It can Ans. (a) : Fibroblasts are cells present in connective
damage DNA and set cells down the road to becoming tissue that act as precursors to collagen, elastic and
tumours. reticular fibers. Sarcoma is a cancer of connective
tissues and muscle tissue.
403. Assertion (A) : α - interferon are used in
407. Which of the following statements in not true
treatment of cancer. for cancer cells in relation to mutations
Reason (R) : α - interferon provokes immune (a) Mutations inhibit production of telomeres.
system to identify tumor cells. (b) Mutations in proto- oncogenes acceleration
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) the cell cycle
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) cannot (c) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.
explain (A) (d) Mutations inactivate the cell control.
(c) Only (A) is correct but not (R) NEET-2016 Phase-I
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong Ans. (a) : Mutations in proto-oncogene are the gene that
AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I cause loss of control over cell cycle and uncontrolled
Ans. (a) : α - interferon (IFN α) are pleiotropic and repetitive entry of cell in cell cycle there by forming
cytokines belonging to type I IFNs, extensively used in tumors.
treatment of patients with some types of cancer and • Cancer will be caused by increased telomerase
viral disease. Interferon - α stimulates T- cells and other activity making the cancerous cells immortal and not by
immune system cell to attack the cancer. inhibition of telomerase production.
408. Which one of the following statement is correct? Ans. (b) : There are two types of tumor, one is benign
(a) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis and another malignant. Benign tumor is confined to
(b) Patients who have undergone surgery are specific locations but malignant tumor invades and
given cannabinoids used to relieve pain. damage surrounding tissues. Malignant tumors are
(c) Patients who have undergone surgery are responsible for metastasis.
given cannabinoids to relieve pain. 414. Which one of the following is not correct pair
(d) Heroin accelerates body functions. of type of cancer and origin place?
AIPMT-2009 (a) Benign tumour – Non-cancerous tumour
Ans. (a) : Malignant tumors are cancerous tumours that (b) Carcinomas – Cancer of epithelial
spread to distant sites through body fluids to develop tissue
secondary tumours by a phenomenon called metastasis. (c) Lymphomas – Hematopoietic cells
Usually, cancer cells metastasize when they get into the tumour
bloodstream or the lymph nodes and form secondary (d) Sarcomas – Cancer of glands
tumors across various sites in the body. (secretory tissues)
JIPMER-2016
409. What is the name of epithelial cancer ?
(a) Sarcoma (b) Carcinoma Ans. (d) : Sarcoma is a malignant tumor, a type of cancer.
It begins in the bones and in the soft connective tissue.
(c) Leukemia (d) Lymphoma
AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II 415. Assertion (A) : Chemotherapy and immuno
therapy are used to destroy cancer cells that
Ans. (b) : Epithelial cancer is known as carcinoma. might have moved to parts of body
Carcinoma is a type of cancer that starts in cells that Reason (R) : Chemotherapy has side effects
make up the skin or the tissue lining organs, such as such as loss of hair due to destruction of 'hair
liver or kidney. follicle cells'
410. Continuous exposer to vinyl chloride may cause (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
cancer of the explanation of A
(a) liver (b) spleen (b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
(c) vagina (d) prostate gland correct explanation of A
JIPMER-2015 (c) A is correct but R is wrong
Ans. (a) : Vinyl chloride is an important industrial (d) A is wrong but R is correct
chemical. It is widely used to make polyvinyl chloride AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-I
(PVC) pipes, wire coatings, vehicle. It is a carcinogen to Ans. (b) : Chemotherapy and immunotherapy are used
humans as it causes cancer of the liver. to destroy cancer cells that might have moved to part of
411. Reason of lung cancer : - body. Chemotherapy has side effect such as hair loss.
(a) Coal mining (b) Calcium fluoride That’s because chemo targets rapidly growing cells,
which damages hair follicles and makes the hair fall out.
(c) Cement factory (d) Bauxite mining
AIPMT-2001 416. Cancer cells do not exhibit one of the following
features
Ans. (c) : Exposure to cement dust has been implicated (a) They are not joined by cadherins
as the major cause of lung cancer. Individual involved (b) They do not exhibit contact inhibition
either directly or indirectly in such as breaking or (c) They exhibit metastasis
drilling of silica based materials and construction
workers exposed to cement dust would exhibit (d) They undergo programmed cell death
increased risk of lung cancer. TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II
412. Which of the following is one of the direct Ans. (d) : Cancer cells are –
causes of cancer? • Self-sufficient in growth signals.
(a) Obesity (b) Inadequate O2 supply • Insensitivity to anti-growth signals.
(c) Atherosclerosis (d) Hypertension - • Tissue invasion and metastasis.
GUJCET-2014 • Limitless replicative potential.
Ans. (a): Obesity is the direct cause of cancer. International • Sustained angiogenesis
Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) has identified 13
cancer associated with overweight and obesity. H. Drugs and their effect
Breast cancer after menopause is the most common 417. Marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja are
obesity-associated cancer among women. Colorectal (a) Opioids (b) Cannabinoids
cancer is the most common men more than 90% of new
obesity-related cancers occur in men and women who (c) Amphitamines (d) Barbiturates
are 50 years old or older. TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
413. Certain tumours are called malignant, because Ans. (b) : Cannabinoids are group of chemicals, which
interact with cannabinoid receptors present principally
(a) They are confined to specific locations. in the brain. Natural cannabinoids are obtain from the
(b) They invade and damage surrounding tissues. inflorescences of the plant cannabis sativa. The flower
(c) They show contact inhibition Tops, leaves and the resin of cannabis plant are used in
(d) They are not neoplastic. various combinations to produce marijuana, hashish,
Karnataka CET-2020 charas and ganja.
418. Euphoria and increased energy are due to 423. Reserpine is obtained from :
(a) Cocaine (b) Heroin (a) Rauwolfia serpentina (b) coffee plant
(c) Morphine (d) Smack (c) tea plant (d) pea plant
AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-II BCECE-2005 / Rajasthan PMT-1996
Ans. (a) : Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from Ans. (a) : Reserpine – It is an indole alkaloid obtained
coca plant Erythroxylum coca, native to south America. from dried roots of Rauwolfia serpentina. It's used as
It interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter antipsychotic and antihypertensive agent for the control
dopamine, cocaine, commonly called co ke or smake is of high blood pressure and for the relief of psychotic
usually snorted. It has a potent stimulating action on
symptoms respectively.
central nervous system, producing a sense of euphoria
and increased energy 424. The drugs which do not develop physiological
419. Diacetyl morphine is also called as: dependence are
(a) Crack (b) Smack (a) opiates (b) sedatives
(c) Amphetamine (d) Barbiturate (c) stimulants (d) hallucinogens
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) BVP-2010
Ans. (b) : Diacetyl morphine is also called as smack. Ans. (c) : Stimulants are sympathomimetic, that is they
Smack is also called Heroin. Morphine is used as stimulate the sympathetic branch of the autonomic
sedatives. This is obtained by acetylation of morphine. nervous system. These drugs include natural stimulants
It is extracted from the latex of poppy plant Papaver such as caffeine, cocaine and synthetic stimulants such
somniferum. as amphetamines.
■ Cocaine is obtained from coca plant and commonly 425. The drug belladonna is obtained from
called coke or crack. (a) Atropa (b) Opium
■ Amphetamine is a stimulant. (c) Rauwolfia (d) Solanum
■ Barbiturates belongs to the categories of sedatives. CG PMT-2011 / BVP-2010
420. Morphine is extracted from Ans. (a) : Belladonna, (Atropa belladonna) also called
(a) Cinchona officinalis deadly night shade, tall bushy herb of night shade
(b) Papaver somniferum family Solanaceae, the source of the crude drug of the
(c) Rauwolfia serpentine same name. The highly poisonous plant is a native of
(d) Magnifera indica wooded are waste areas in central and southern Eurasia.
VMMC-2011 / Haryana PMT-2003 / JIPMER-2013
426. Quinine is obtained from
Ans. (b) : Morphine is extracted from seed pods of (a) bark of Cinchona (b) root of Cinchona
poppy plant (Papaver somniferum). Papaver
somniferum is an herbaceous plant which is harvested (c) wood of cinchona (d) leaves of Cinchona
for its latex 5-10 days after the flowering petals fall UP CPMT-2003
from the plant. The dried latex product is called opium Ans. (a) : Quinine is obtained from bark of Cinchona.
from which morphine and other alkaloid compound can It is a quinoline alkaloid of Cinchona bark. Quinine is
be extracted. used to treat malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum,
421. Heroin is: is a parasite that gets into the red blood cells in the body
(a) diacetylmorphine and causes malaria.
(b) triacetylmorphine 427. Mescaline an alkaloid is found in :
(c) tetraacetylmorphine (a) Lophophora williamsii
(d) monoacetylmorphine (b) Claviceps purpurea
Rajasthan PMT-2006, 2004 (c) Psilocybin Mexicana
Karnataka CET-2014
(d) Piptadenia peregrina
Ans. (a) : Heroin (Diamorphine or Diacetylmorphine) is BHU PMT (Mains)-2005
a semi synthetic opiate narcotic which is three times
more potent than morphine. Heroin is a white, bitter, Ans. (a) : Mescaline is a water soluble white powdery
odourless and crystalline compound obtained by the alkaloid (C11 H 17 NO 3 ) which is obtained from the
acetylation of morphine. crowns of cactus (Lophophora williamsii) as peyote.
422. Liver cirrhosis is caused by : The dried crown or mesal buttons have been chewed for
(a) excess alcoholism centuries by the locals during religious ceremonies in
(b) no alcohol Mexican and southern Texas. The alkaloid is similar
(c) due to bacterial infection LSD and is highly hallucinogenic.
(d) due to viral infection 428. Cyclosporine and endospores are the drugs
BCECE-2005 that are used as
Ans. (a) : Liver Cirrhosis is usually a result of liver (a) anti retro viral drugs
damage from conditions such as hepatitis B or C (b) immunosuppressants
Alcoholic hepatitis is inflammation of the liver caused (c) immuno-modulators
by drinking alcohol. Cirrhosis is most likely to occur in (d) immuno-vaccines
people who drink heavily over many years. VMMC-2014 / J&K CET-2009 / AIIMS-2002
Ans. (b) : Cyclosporine and endospores are the drugs Ans. (d) : The opium alkaloids (morphine, codeine,
that are used as immunosuppressants. noscapine, and papaverine) have been detected on
Immuno-suppressants are the drugs capable of poppy seeds. They are widely used by the food industry
inhibiting the bodys immune system. One of the for decoration and flavor but can introduce opium
primary uses of immunosuppressant drugs is to lower alkaloids in to the food chain.
the body’s ability, to reject a transplanted organ, such as 434. The correct representation of the alkaloids
a liver, heart or kidney. obtained from opium is
429. Which one of the following is the correct (a) Morphine > Codeine > Pethidine
statement regarding the particular (b) Morphine < Codeine < Pethidine
psychotropic drug specified? (c) Morphine > Codeine > Pethidine
(a) Hashish causes alter thought perceptions and (d) Morphine < Codeine < Nicotine
hallucinations CG PMT-2007
(b) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes Ans. (a) : The correct representation of the alkaloids
hallucinations from opium is Morphine > Codeine > pethidine.
(c) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed Morphine is an opioid medicine prescribed for severe
emotions pain when other pain-relief medicines are not effective
(d) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary or cannot be used.
euphoria Codeine is an opiate and prodrug of morphine mainly
VMMC-2012 / BHU PMT (Screening)-2010 used to treat pain, coughing and diarrhea.
Ans. (a) : Charas is the dried resinous extract from the Pethidine is an opioid pain relief medicine with
flowering tops and leaves of Cannabis sativa. In some aqueous solution of 5% w/v pethidine hydrochloride.
countries, it is called hashish. Its an hallucinogen, 435. Select the psychedelic drug:
which alter a person's thought, feeling and perception.
Psychotropic drugs act on the brain and alter the (a) LSD (b) marijuana
behavior, consciousness and power of perception, (c) bhang (d) all of these
barbiturates (derivative of barbituric acid) are general Haryana PMT-2002
depressants for all excitable cells but the CNS is mostAns. (d) : Hallucinogens include LSD (lysergic acid
sensitive to these drugs. Opium is obtained from unripediethylamide), mescaline, psilocybin, PCP, cannabis,
seed pods of poppy (Papaver somniferum). ecstasy, ketamine, salvia and others. The term
430. Medicine for curing respiratory problems is hallucinogen refers to many different drugs, which are
obtained from often called psychedelic drugs.
(a) Ephedra (b) Calotropis 436. Which of the following mismatch?
(c) Eucalyptus (d) Cannabis (a) Amphetamine – a stimulant
BCECE-2010 / MGIMS Wardha-2008 (b) Morphine – an opiate narcotic
Ans. (a) : Medicine for curing respiratory problems is (c) LSD – a hallucinogen
obtained from Ephedra. Ephedrine is obtained from the (d) Cocaine – a sedative / tranquillizer
green stems of Ephedra sinica and Ephedra equisetum, MGIMS Wardha-2009 / CG PMT-2009
which is used for treating cold and asthma. Ans. (d) :Coca alkaloid or Cocaine is obtained from
431. Most commonly used analgesic during self coca plant Erythroylum coca, native to south America
medication by persons is Cocaine white crystalline alkaloid that is obtained from
(a) aspirin (b) ibuprofen the leaves of the coca plant (Erythroxylum coca).
(c) acetaminophen (d) all of these
AMU-2011
Ans. (d) : Paracetamol (acetaminophen, 73 %) is the
most commonly used analgesic, followed by ibuprofen
(16.5%). The most common and reliable sources of drug
information were pharmacists (51.5%).
432. Commercial opium is obtained from :
(a) mature leaves (b) mature seeds 437. Which one of the following is a matching pair of
(c) unripened capsule (d) germinated plants a drug and its category ?
Rajasthan PMT-1998 (a) Amphetamines - stimulant
Ans. (c) : Opium poppy was obtained from Papaver (b) Lysergic acid - narcotic dimethyl amide
somniferum (plant) in form of dried latex. The latex of (c) Heroin - psychotropic
poppy capsule is of great medicinal value used for (d) Benzodiazepam - pain killer
commercial. An opium ‘’ high’’ is very similar to a heroin Haryana PMT-2004
‘’high’’ users experience a euphoric rush, followed by Ans. (a) :Amphetamine was discovered in 1887 and
relaxation and the relief of physical pain. Opium inhibits exists as two enantiomers, levoamphetamine and
muscle movement in the bowels leading to constipation. dextroamphetamine.
433. Which alkaloids are present in opium ? Amphetamines stimulant are drugs that increase the
(a) Codeine (b) Morphine activity of central nervous system. They make person
(c) Pethidine (d) All of these more alert, and active. They are commonly known as
CG PMT-2007 pep pills or anti sleep pills etc.
438. Which of the following is correct for LSD Ans. (b) : Fatty liver disease is a build-up of fats in the
morphine and charas respectively? liver that can damage organ and leads to serious
(a) Claviceps, Papaver, somniferum, Cannabis complications. Risk factors include obesity, a high fat
(b) Claviceps, Cannabis, Papaver somniferum diet, high alcohol intake and diabetes mellitus.
(c) Claviceps, Cannabis, Rauwolffia 444. Streptomycin was isolated first time by :
(d) Claviceps, Fusarium, Cannabis (a) Hemming (b) Robert Koch
AMU-2008 / VMMC-2008 (c) N. Borlaug (d) S. Waksman
Ans. (a) : Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) is most MGIMS Wardha-2003
potent hallucinogen. It obtained from ergot fungus, Ans. (d) : Streptomycin was one of the first
Claviceps purpea (Ascomycetes). aminoglycoside drugs to be discovered, in 1943.
Morphine is derivatives of opium which is obtained • A.I. Schatz and S.A Waksman, isolated it from the
from the unripe capsule of Papaver sominiferum. soil actinobacteria Streptomyces griseus. Its main claim
Charas is hallucinogen obtained from leaves and to fame are its ability to control tuberculosis and plague.
flowering parts of Cannabis sp. • It is on the list of World Health Organizations
439. Addiction of LSD will eventually lead to: essential medicines.
(a) hallucination 445. Identify the incorrect pair
(b) damage to lungs (a) Drugs – Ricin
(c) mental and emotional disturbances (b) Alkaloids – Codeine
(d) damage to kidneys (c) Toxin – Abrin
Haryana PMT-1999 (d) Lectins – Concanavalin A
Ans. (a) : Addiction of LSD leads to alters thoughts, NEET-2021
feelings, perceptions cause illusions. LSD is lysergic Ans. (a) : Ricin is very toxic it works by getting inside
acid diethylamide. It is one of most potent, mood- the cells of a person's body and preventing the cells
charging chemicals. from making the proteins, they need without the protein
440. Most of the plant products used for drugs are cell die. Eventually this harmful to the whole body and
(a) alkaloids (b) fibers may cause death.
(c) resin (d) oil No antidote exists for ricin.
VMMC-2010 446. Which is the particular type of drug that is
Ans. (a) : The products of medicines plants contain obtained from the plant whose one flowering
many alkaloids. These alkaloids are used for the branch is shown below:-
synthesis of drugs. The medicinal value of drugs is due
to the presence of certain substances such as alkaloids
glycosides, resin, volatile oil gums, etc. The alkaloids
are most actins among these.
441. Tobacco smoke contains
(a) CO2 hydrocarbons and tar
(b) CO2 and tar
(c) CO polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons and tar (a) Hallucinogen (b) Depressant
(d) CO2, CO and tar (c) Stimulant (d) Pain-killer
CG PMT-2010 AIPMT-2014
Ans. (c) : The major components of the tobacco smoke Ans. (a) : The given figure is the flowering branch of
which is most likely to cause disease is nicotine tar Datura stramonium. Hallucinogens are chemical
carbon monoxides, polycyclic aromatic compounds. substances that causes psychological effects.
Datura is a genus of poisonous vespertine flowering
442. An alkaloid, which arrest cell division is plants belonging to the family Solanaceae. All Datura
obtained from plants contain tropane alkaloids such as scopolamine,
(a) Chrysanthemum (b) Colchicum hyoscyamine, and atropine, primarily in their seeds and
(c) Dalbergia (d) Crocus flowers. Because of the presence of these substances,
CMC Vellore-2014 Datura has been used as a poison or hallucinogen.
Ans. (b) : The alkaloid drug, colchicines, extracted 447. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the
from the corms of the autumn crocus (Colchicum drug “Smack”?
autumnale), arrests mitosis in metaphase by interfering (a) Flowers (b) Latex
with the formation of spindle fibrils, thereby retarding (c) Leaves (d) Roots
the division of the centromeres and preventing division NEET-2018
of the centrioles. Ans. (b) : The latex of poppy plant Papaver
443. Fatty liver syndrome is due to excessive intake somniferum is used to obtain smack. It is white
of : crystalline odourless bitter in taste. Smack also called as
(a) morphine (b) alcohol brown sugar/heroin is extracted from acetylation of
(c) tobacco (d) both [b] and [c] morphine. It is obtained from the latex of unripe capsule
BCECE-2003 of poppy plant.
448. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below Ans. (b) : Dihydro-ergotamine belong to the group of
and select the right option giving their source medicines known as ergot alkaloids. They are used to
and use treat severe throbbing headaches such as migraine and
cluster headaches.
451. A young drug addict used to show symptoms of
depressed brain activity, feeling of calmness,
relaxation and drowsiness, Possibly he was
taking
(a) amphetamine (b) marijuana
(c) pethidine (d) valium.
AIIMS-2005 / JIPMER-2007
Ans. (d) : Valium or (diazepam) is a benzodiazepine
drug prescribed for the treatment of anxiety, seizures,
Molecule Source Use muscle spasms, and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal.
(a) (2) Cannabinoid Atropa Produces Valium is available as a generic drug. Common side
belladonna hallucinations effects of Valium include: drowsiness, tired feeling,
(b) (1) Morphine Papaver Sedative and dizziness, spinning sensation, fatigue, constipation,
somniferum pain killer ataxia (loss of balance), memory problems, restlessness,
(c) (1) Cocaine Erythroxylum Accelerates irritability, muscle weakness, nausea, drooling, dry
coca the transport mouth, slurred speech, blurred or double vision, skin
of dopamine rash, itching, or loss of interest in sex.
(d) (2) Heroin Cannabis Depressant 452. Which one of the following pairs is not
sativa and slows correctly matched?
down body (a) Streptomyces – Antibiotic
functions
(b) Serratia – Drug addiction
AIPMT (Mains)-2012 (c) Spirulina – Single cell protein
Ans. (b) : The given chemical structures (A) and (B) (d) Rhizobium – Biofertilizer
are of morphine and cannabinoid respectively. AIIMS-2008
• Morphine is the principal opium alkaloid. Ans. (b) : Serratia is a human S. marcescens is mostly
• Morphine depresses respiratory center it contributes associated with nosocomial, or infection but can also
to the fall in blood pressure. cause urinary tract infections, Pneumonia and
• It is strong analgesic and also has sedative and Endocarditis.
calming effect. • Drug addiction the class of substance-related
• It is very helpful for the patients who have undergone disorders is a person’s brain and behavior and leads
surgery. to an inability to control the use of a legal or illegal
• Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the drug or medicine. Overconsumption of drugs such as
inflorescence of hemp plants Cannabis sativa, family weeds, heroin, marijuana, etc.
Cannabaceae cultivated for its bast fibers or its edible • It greatly affects our nervous system and makes us
seeds. dull.
• They effect the cardiovascular system of the body. 453. A drug addict showed symptoms such as
449. Carcinogen present in cigarette smoke is increased appetite, chest pain, redness of eyes,
(a) benzopyrene (b) nicotine increased urination. He was possibly taking
(c) carbon monoxide (d) All of these (a) Cannabis compounds
JIPMER-2019 (b) LSD
Ans. (a) : Carcinogen present in cigarette smoke is (c) Cocaine
benzopyrene. Carcinogen are substances that may (d) Amphetamines
increase your risk of cancer. They may be physical, AIIMS-2014
such as UV rays from sun. There are three types of
carcinogen:- Ans. (a) :Cannabis contains a large number of different
cannabinoid chemicals. The main Psychoactive
• Chemical carcinogen (including biological sources)
compound in cannabis that produce the euphoric “high”
• Physical carcinogen sensation.
• Oncogenic carcinogen (Cancer causing viruses) • Leaves, flowers tops and resins of the cannabis plant
• Benzopyrene, a chemical that comes from certain is used to produces hashish, charas, marijuana and
substances when they are not burned completely. ganja.
450. Ergotamine tartrate extracted from Claviceps, • This drug affects the cardiovascular system. It is a
is used for cure of strong stimulant, when taken in high doses cause
(a) bodyache (b) headache headache, convulsions, hallucination, irritation and
(c) fever (d) severe stomach pain redness in eyes, increased appetite, increased
AIIMS-2011 urination etc.
454. Microtubule depolymerizing drug such as Ans. (b) :Cocaine is powerfully addictive stimulant
colchicine is expected to drug which is cultivated at high altitudes in South
(a) inhibit spindle formation during mitosis America. Cocaine is a ingested Coca leaves
(b) inhibit cytokinesis (Erythroxylon Coca), the Source of Cocaine, for their
(c) allow mitosis beyond metaphase stimulant effects.
(d) induce formation of multiple contractile rings It is widely recognized for its action in enhancing
AIIMS-2012 work capacity, including the reduction of fatigue and
Ans. (a) : Colchicine is a medication used to treat gout the mitigation of thirst and hunger.
and Behcet's disease. 458. Vinblastine is obtained from –
Colchicine is an alkaloid derived from the Autumn (a) Catharanthus roseus (b) Curcuma amada
crocus, Colchicum autumnale. It inhibits spindle (c) Atropa belladona (d) Syzygium cumini
formation in cell during mitosis. So that chromosomes AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I
cannot separate during anaphase. Ans. (a) : Vincristine and vinblastine are the type of
• They are called mitotic poison, it does not inhibit drug known as alkaloids, which are isolated from the
chromosome replication and slow doubling. leaves of a particular plant called Madagascar
• Thus inducing multiple set of chromosomes. It does periwinkle plant.
not affect cytokinesis. • Whose scientific name is Catharanthus roseus. These
455. Assertion : Papaver somniferum is cultivated to drugs are life saving drugs as they are used for the
obtain drugs. treatment of several type of cancers.
Reason : Morphine is obtained from its latex. • Vinblastine is used in combination with other drugs
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct to carry out chemotherapy and also to treat
explanation of A Hodgkin's lymphoma.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the 459. Women who consumed the drug thalidomide
correct explanation of A for relief from vomiting during early months of
(c) A is correct but R is wrong pregnancy gave birth to children with
(d) A is wrong but R is correct (a) No spleen
AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I (b) Hare-lip
Ans. (a) : Papaver somniferum (known as opium (c) Extra fingers and toes
poppy) is flowering plants of the family Papaveraceae. (d) Under developed limbs.
Opium, morphine, codeine and heroin are all derived AIIMS-2004
from the milky latex found in its unripe seed capsule. Ans. (d) :Thalidomide is a drug used to treat morning
456. Identify the given diagram and its effect? Sickness during pregnancy, but it was shortly found to
cause severe birth defects in newborns. The infants are
born with phocomelia or malformation of the limbs.
(a) Cannabinoid–Effects cardiovascular function

(b) Morphine – CNS depressant
(c) Cocaine - Euphoria
(d) Smack – Psychedelic effect
Ans. (a) : Cannabinoid is a drug. It's extract from the
inflorescence of Cannabis sativa plant.
• It is orally ingestion.
• Effect on cardiovascular system.
• Cannabinoids or the active compounds of cannabis, 460. Nicotine acts as a stimulant, because it mimic
have been shown to have heterogeneous effect on the effect of
central and peripheral circulation. (a) testosterone (b) dopamine
• Example- Acute cannabis consumption has been (c) thyroxine (d) acetylcholine
shown to cause an increase in blood pressure, AIPMT-1995
specifically systolic blood and orthostatic hypotension.
Ans. (d) : Acetylcholine is a fast acting small size
457. Cocaine is a stimulant, which may cause neurotransmitter. The receptors of both nicotine and
addiction. It is an alkaloid obtained from :- acetylcholine are similar and hence the effect of both is
(a) Eucalyptus (b) Erythroxylon similar.
(c) Rauwolfia (d) Papaver Acetylcholine intervenes in numerous physiological
AIIMS-2001 / Haryana PMT-2003 functions, such as regulating cardiac contraction and
Manipal-2006 blood pressure.
461. Select the correct statement from the ones Ans. (a) : A mild form of a disease that is put (injected)
given below : into as person or an animal's blood using a needle in
(a) Barbiturates when given to criminals make order to protect the body against that disease.
them tell the truth • Vaccine may be viral, viral vector, subunit or nucleic
(b) Morphine is often given to persons who acid combination vaccines may include inactivated,
have undergone surgery as a pain killer protein-based and /or protein-conjugated
(c) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and polysaccharide vaccine component. Hence, vaccines
heart rate
are the treatment of bacteria, virus and protein.
(d) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it
stimulates recovery 465. Which one of the following is correct match
AIPMT (Screening)-2010 (a) Reserpine – Tranquilizer
Ans. (b) : Morphine is a narcotic drug. It is a good (b) Cocaine – opiatic narcotic
sedative as well as a pain killer, given to patients after (c) Morphine – Hallucinogenic
surgery. (d) Bhang – Analgesic
• Barbiturates are sedative hypnotics (CNS depressant) AIPMT-2001
and are used to treat insomnia, seizures and BHU PMT (Screening) -2010
headaches. They are also used as anesthetics. Ans. (a) : Tranquilizers are drugs that have good effect
• Smoking cigarettes and chewing tobacco cause an in all types of psychosis, especially in schizophrenia. In
immediate and temporary rise in blood pressure and heart a psychotic patient, these drugs reduce aggressiveness,
rate. It can damage the lining of artery walls causing thoughts and behaviour are gradually normalized and
arteries to narrow and increasing blood pressure.
anxiety is relieved, e.g reserpine which is an alkaloid
• Cocaine was earlier used as local anesthetics. extracted from the roots of Rauwolfia serpentina.
It is a highly addictive drug that ups the levels of Higher doses of it can cause sedation and mental
alertness, attention and energy. depression.
462. Which of the following is not the mode of • Cocaine is a stimulant.
Tobacco abuse ?
• Morphine is an opiate narcotic.
(a) It is smoked
(b) Chewed as Gutkha • Bhang is a hallucinogenic.
(c) Used in the form of snuff 466. The transport of which neurotransmitter is
(d) It is taken by injection interfered by cocaine?
AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II (a) Acetylcholine (b) Serotonin
Ans. (d): Tobacco can’t be abused by injection. It only (c) GABA (d) Dopamine
can take through smoke, chewed as gutkha or used in Karnataka CET-2020
form of snuff. Tabacco abusing may cause mouth Ans. (d) : Cocaine interfered in transport of dopamine
cancer, lung Cancer, intestinal problem etc. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter, made in brain and act
463. The use of prohibited drugs by athletes with as chemical messenger.
the intension of improving athletic While Cocaine obtained from Coca plant Erythroxylum
performance is called _____ Coca.
(a) Doping
467. Everytime, when the dosage of a drug has to be
(b) Addiction
increased to achieve the same ‘kick’ that
(c) Drug dependence
initially occurred in response to a smaller dose,
(d) Dipsomania
this condition is known as …………
(a) Tolerance
Ans. (a) : The use of prohibited drugs by athletes with
(b) Rebound effect
the intensions of improving athletic performance is
called doping. There are many side-effects of doping (c) Addiction
like severe acne liver abnormalities, high blood pressure (d) Withdrawal symptoms
etc. Karnataka CET-2010
464. What is vaccine Ans. (a) : Drug tolerance may develop after taking a
(a) Treated bacteria, virus & protein particular drug over a long period of time. In such cases
(b) Treated algae increased doses are necessary to produce the desire
(c) Treated fungi effect. Tolerance is the condition in which the body gets
(d) Treated plasmodium used to drug due to drug addiction and person reaction
AIPMT-1999 to drug get reduced.
468. Match the following: Ans. (b) : Addiction can lead to damage to brain (like
Column – I Column – II the mood-change), heart (strokes and high blood
pressure), liver (steotosis means excessive deposition of
1. Alkaloids i. Vinblastine
fat in the liver) and causes fatty liver and also causes
2. Toxins ii. Morphine cancer like throat, mouth and liver.
3. Drugs iii. Ricin 472. A statement of Assertion (A) is given followed
4. Polymeric iv. Rubber by a corresponding statement of Reason (R)
substances just below it. Of these statements, mark the
correct answer as:
v. Concanavalin
Assertion : Dope test is used to estimate the level
(a) ( 1 – ii), ( 2 – iii), (3 – i), ( 4 – iv) of blood alcohol by analyzing the breath of
(b) ( 1 – iii), ( 2 – iv), (3 – ii), ( 4 – i) persons drinking alcohol.
(c) ( 1 – i), ( 2 – iii), (3 – v), ( 4 – iv) Reason : A drunken person usually feels tense
(d) ( 1 – iv), ( 2 – i), (3 – iii), ( 4 – v) and less talkative.
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
Ans. (a) : Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
Column – I Column – II (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Alkaloids Morphine Assertion
Toxins Ricin (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
Drugs Vinblastine (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
Polymeric substances Rubber Haryana PMT-2004
Ans. (d) : Dope test is a blood test to know whether a
I. Alcohol abuse and its effect person taking part in competition had used any drug
469. "AA" stands for : (like anabolic steroids) to make their performance
better. Dope test is not related with alcohol. A drunken
(a) abnormal Action person usually feels not tense and more talkative.
(b) Anomalous Behaviour
473. Assertion : Fatty liver syndrome occurs by
(c) Alcoholics Anonymous alcoholism.
(d) Alcoholics Action Reason : Alcoholics have a rate of carcinoma
BHU PMT (Mains)-2005 10 times higher than that expected in the
Ans. (c) : AA stands for Alcoholics Anonymous. It’s a general population.
voluntary organization for helping Alcoholics to (a) If both assertion and reason are true and
undergo de-addiction. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is a reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
global peer-led mutual aid fellowship dedicated to (b) If both assertion and reason are true but
abstinence-based recovery from alcoholism through reason is not the correct explanation of
their spiritually inclined twelve step program. assertion.
470. Ethanol is used to treat methanol toxicity (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
because ethanol (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(a) Is a competitive inhibitor of alcohol VMMC-2008
dehydrogenase Ans. (b) : Fatty liver syndrome is a condition of
(b) Is a non-competitive inhibitor of alcohol permanent damage to the structure and functioning of
dehydrogenase liver cells. Fatty liver disease is common condition
(c) Activates enzymes involved in methanol caused by having too much fat build up in your liver.
metabolism It’s the result of alcoholism. Alcoholic have a rate of
(d) Inhibits methanol uptake by cells carcinoma ten time higher than expected in the general
KVPY SB & SX-2019 population.
Ans. (a) : Fomepizole or ethanol serves as alcohol 474. Alcohol depresses nervous system and acts as
dehydrogenase inhibitors to stop the conversion of (a) Sedative agents
methanol to its toxic metabolite, format. When alcohol (b) Analgesic agent
dehydrogenese is inhibited, clearance of methanol is (c) Anesthetic agents
prolonged. (d) All of these
471. Alcohol addiction is harmful because it causes CG PMT-2010
(a) protein depositions in liver Ans. (d) : Alcohol depresses nervous system and acts as
(b) deposition of extra fat in liver sedative agents, analgesic agent, anesthetic agents.
(c) rise in blood sugar level Sedative is a drug that produces calming or quietening
(d) cancer effect and reduces excitement, it may induce
CG PMT-2007 drowsiness.
Analgesic agent- A drug that selectively relieves pain 478. Alcohol is the most socially accepted narcotic
by acting in CNS or on peripheral pain mechanism, drug. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to
without significantly altering consciousness. ………
Anesthetic agent- Anesthesia means (loss of (a) Loss of Memory
sensation). Which are medicines given to relieve pain (b) State of hallucination
and sensation during surgery. (c) Cirrhosis of liver
475. Which of the following disorder is associate (d) Suppression of brain functions.
with chronic alcoholism and malnutrition? Karnataka CET-2005
(a) Hobnail liver (b) Amyloid liver Ans. (c) : Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to
(c) Laennecs cirrhosis (d) All of the above loss of memory, state of hallucination, cirrhosis of liver
AMU-2002 and suppression of brain functions occurs. It also affect
Ans. (c) : The main cause of laennecs cirrhosis is immune system, increasing the chances of getting sick,
alcohol. When alcohol is drunk in excess then it depression and anxiety also.
damages your liver. In long lasting alcoholism, one or 479. A temporary feeling of an exaggerated joy, well
more of the chronic nutritional deficiency diseases may being, pride and optimism associated with
develop. drugs and alcohol is known as –––––––
476. In alcohol fermentation: - (a) Hallucination
(a) Triose phosphate is the electron donor while (b) Giddiness
acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor (c) Euphoria
(b) Triose phosphate is the electron donor while (d) Addiction
pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor AP EAMCET-12.07.2022 Shift-II
(c) There is no electron donor Ans. (c) : A temporary feeling of an exaggerated joy ,
(d) Oxygen is the electron acceptor well be, pride, and optimism associated with drugs and
AIPMT-2003 alcohol is known as Euphoria. Euphoria is a mental and
Ans. (a) : Alcohol fermentation also referred to as emotional state. Euphoria is the experience of pleasure
ethanol fermentation is a biochemical process in which or excitement and intense feelings of well-being and
sugars such as glucose, fructose and sucrose, are happiness.
converted into cellular energy and producing ethanol 480. Due to alcohol abuse brain related diseases
and carbon-dioxide as a metabolic waste product. Korsakoff's syndrome occurs. Which nutrient
is responsible for this syndrome?
(a) Vitamin-B12 (b) Fat
(c) Protein (d) Vitamin-B1
JIPMER-2016
Ans. (d) :
Korsakoff's syndrome is a chronic neuropsychiatric
syndrome that is caused by the deficiency of thiamine
which is also known as vitamin B1.
J. How to Prevent and Control

481. Mechanical support, enzyme circulation,
477. Which among the following alcoholic beverage protein synthesis and detoxification of durgs
will be formed by distillation? are function of :
(a) Brandy (b) Wine (a) ER
(c) Beer (d) All (b) ribosomes
AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-II (c) dictyosome
Ans. (a) : Distillation is the process by which water is (d) chloroplast
removed from a mixture of ethanol and water. During AFMC-2006
distillation, alcohol and water are separated from each Ans. (a) : Mechanical support, and enzyme circulation
other using the difference in their boiling points. are functions of both RER and SER while the protein is
• Wine and Beer are produced without distillation, synthesized by RER and detoxification of drugs by
whereas whisky, brandy and rum are produced by SER. Endoplasmic reticulum are site of protein
distillation of the fermented broth. synthesis. The main function of chloroplast is
All of these beverages are produced through alcohol photosynthesis. This process takes place during day
fermentation using brewer's yeast commonly. (light reaction) and night (dark reaction).
14. MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
5. A microbial mutant requiring growth factor in
A. Microbes as in Household addition to minimal medium is :
Products (a) Auxotroph (b) Heterotrophy
(c) Autotroph (d) Syntroph
1. Which one of the following not used in HP CET-2011
production of yogurt?
Ans. (a) : Auxotrophic mutants cannot grow in minimal
(a) Streptococcus lactis medium if the additional nutrients are not supplied,
(b) Streptococcus thermorphilus because it lacks a certain growth substances (amino acid
(c) Lactobacillus bulgaricus or vitamin).
(d) Acetobacter aceti 6. Milk is changed into curd by:
BVP-2010 (a) Lactobacillus
Ans. (d) : Acetobacter aceti is used in the production of (b) Acetobacter aceti
vinegar by converting the ethanol in wine into acetic acid. (c) Bacillus megaterium
• Yogurt is made when warmed milk is combined with (d) None of these
bacteria. Example- Lactobacillus bulgaricus, Haryana PMT-2002
Streptococcus thermorphilus and Streptococcus lactis,
Ans. (a) : Production of curd from milk is done by a
and left to sit for several hours at a temperature of
micro-organisms such as Lactobacillus and others
110°F-115°F. commonly called lactic acid bacteria grow in milk and
2. Streptococcus is responsible for: convert it into curd. These bacteria convert lactose
(a) Conversion of alcohol from molasses sugar of milk into lactic acid that coagulates the milk
(b) Processing of leather protein casein.
(c) Conversion of milk into curd 7. Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) grow in milk and
(d) None of these convert it to curd and improve its nutritional
Rajasthan PMT-1996 quality by increasing
Ans. (c) : Streptococcus converts milk into curd by the (a) Vitamin – A (b) Vitamin – B12
process of fermentation. Streptococcus lactic is an (c) Vitamin – B1 (d) Vitamin – C
important bacterium responsible for manufacturing of JCECE-2018
dairy product curd. This fermentation process gives AMU-2012
yoghurt its characteristic taste and texture. Ans. (b) : Lactic acid bacteria grow in milk and convert
3. Probiotics are it into curd increasing its nutritional value by increasing
(a) cancer inducing microbes vitamin B12.
(b) safe antibiotics 8. The fermented food of Mucor is
(c) food allergens (a) Tempe kedel (b) Tofu
(d) live microbial food supplements (c) Tempe kedel (d) Sufu
DUMET-2010 / AIPMT-2007 CG PMT-2010
Ans. (d) : Probiotics are food supplements that contain Ans. (d) : Sufu is a Chinese soybean cheese made by
live microorganisms intended to maintain or improve fungal solid state fermentation of tofu (soybean curd).
the good bacteria (normal micro flora) in the body. Tofu is fermented with a strain of certain fungi such as
They are beneficial for human health. Mucor hiemalis.
4. Lactobacillus mediated conversion of milk to 9. Cheese and yogurt are the products of :
curd results because of (a) Dehydration (b) Fermentation
(a) coagulation and partial digestion of milk fats (c) Pasteurization (d) Distillation
(b) coagulation and partial digestion of milk MGIMS Wardha-2003
proteins Ans. (b) : Fermentation is the process in which a
(c) coagulation of milk protein and complete substance breaks down into a simpler substance.
digestion of milk fats Microorganism like yeast and bacteria play a role in the
(d) coagulation of milk fats and complete fermentation process producing beer, wine, bread,
digestion of milk protein cheese yogurt and other food.
DUMET-2010 10. Which one of the following combination of
Ans. (b) : Lactobacillus is a genus of gram-positive microbes is responsible for the formation and
facultative anaerobic bacteria. Lactic acid bacteria grow flavour of yogurt?
in milk and convert it to curd. During growth lactic (a) Lactobacillus casei and Streptococcus
acid bacteria produce lactic acids that coagulate and thermophilus
partially digest the milk proteins. (b) Rhizobium meliloti and Azotobacter species
Microbes in Human Welfare 724 YCT
(c) Rhodospirillul rubum and Salmonella typhosa (c) Yeast – Ethanol
(d) Bacillus subtilis and Escherichia coli (d) Streptomycetes – Antibiotic
Manipal-2006 AIPMT-2007
Ans. (a) : Yogurt is fermented dairy product produced Ans. (a) : Coliforms bacteria are defined as rod- shaped
by lactic acid bacteria e.g. Streptococcus thermophilus Gram-negative, non spore forming and motile or non-
and Lactobacillus casei. motile bacteria which are present in the environment
Fermentation of sugar present in milk by these bacteria and in the feces of human and other vertebrates the
produces lactic acid that coagulates milk and gives presence of coliform bacteria in water is an indication
characteristic flavor to yogurt. of fecal contamination.
11. Lactic acid formation is a two step anaerobic 14. Microbes not used in house hold products
process. Both steps are carried at one stage by: (I) Trichoderma polysporum
(a) Streptococcus (b) Rhizopus (II) Rhizobium
(c) Lactobacillus (d) Aspergillus (III) Clostridium botulinum
Manipal-2006 (IV) Propionibacterium shermanii
Ans. (c) : Lactic acid formation is a two step anaerobic Options:
process that is carried out by Lactobacillus bacteria. The (a) I, IV (b) I, II, III
first step is glycolysis, which produces two pyruvate (c) II, IV (d) I, IV
molecules, two ATP molecules, and two NADH AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II
molecules. The second step is the conversion of
pyruvate to lactic acid, which regenerates NAD+. Ans. (b) : Propionibacterium shermanii is a bacteria
used in the ripening of swiss cheese and the production
12. Match the following organisms with the of its characteristic taste.
products they produce
• Trichoderma polysporum is a fungus which produces
A. Lactobacillus i Cheese cyclosporin A. Cyclosporin A is used as an
B. Saccharomyces ii Curd immunosuppressive agent in organ transplantation.
cerevisiae • Rhizobium is a non-spore farming rod-shaped, motile
C. Aspergillus iii Citric Acid aerobic, gram-negative soil bacterium able to
niger colonize in the rhizosporic region of leguminous
D. Acetobactor iv Bread plants.
aceti • Clostridium botulilum is an organism historically
v Acetic Acid used for industrial scale production of the organic
Select the correct option. solvents acetone n-butanol, and ethanol through a
process known as ABE fermentation.
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v) 15. The bacteria that converts milk to curd
(b) (iii) (iv) (v) (i) (a) Propionibacterium shermanii
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (v) (b) Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB)
(d) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii) (c) Pseudomonas
NEET-2019 (d) Xanthomonas
Ans. (a) : The correct match is– AP EAMCET-12.07.2022 Shift-II
Lactobacillus –– Production of curd Ans. (b) : Lactic acid bacteria (e.g. Lactobacillus) grow
Saccharomyces cerevisiae –– Bread making in milk and convert it into curd. These bacteria ferment
Aspergillus niger –– Citric acid formation the milk sugar lactose to lactic acid which sours milk
Acetobactor aceti –– Acetic acid and coagulates milk proteins.
• Lactobacillus commonly called lactic acid bacteria
grows in milk and convert it into curd. B. Microbes as in Industrial
During growth the lactic acid bacteria produce acids Products
that coagulate the milk protein.
• Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used for the making of 16. Roquefort cheese is ripened by
bread. It produces more yeast cells by using the (a) Yeast (b) Bacterium
sugars and oxygen in the dough and makes the dough (c) Fungi (d) Virus
soft and fluffy. Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
• Aspergillus niger is a fungal microbe. It is used in the Ans. (c) : Roquefort cheese is a type of blue cheese
production of citric acid. made from sheep's milk. It is ripened by the mold fungi
• Acetobacter aceti is Gram – negative bacteria used in penicillium Roquefort which gives it a flavour. It is
production of vinegar by ethanol in wine into acetic originated in the South France, specially in the caves of
acid. Roquefort sur - soulzon in the Aveyron region.
13. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly 17. Commercial broiler strains used in India are
matched ? (a) Hyline (b) BV - 300
(a) Coliforms – Vinegar (c) Poona pearls (d) Hubbard
(b) Methanogens – Gobar gas AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
Ans. (d) : Hubbard is a well known broiler strain used Ans. (c) : The source of intoxicating beverage called
in poultry farming for meat production. Hubbard sake is Oryza sativa. Sake is a traditional Japanese
genetics is a prominent company that specializes in alcoholic beverage made from fermented rice.
breeding and supplying broiler chickens and other 23. Brewer's yeast lack which of these?
poultry species. (a) Diastase and amylase (b) Amylase only
18. Beer has an alcoholic content of (c) Diastase only (d) Maltose
(a) 3-6% (b) 9-12% AMU-2011
(c) 40% (d) 60% Ans. (a) : The Yeasts (Saccharomyces cerevisiae)
AMU-2015 which are used in the brewing industry for the
Ans. (a) : Saccharomyces cerevisae is used for the preparation of alcoholic drinks are collectively called
production of beverages like wine, beer, whisky, brandy brewer's yeast. Saccharomyces cerevisiae contains
by fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices, to many nutrients; but when it comes to the enzyme
produce ethanol. Production of different types of present in brewer's yeast, it lacks diastase and amylase.
alcoholic drinks depends on type of raw material for 24. The enzyme used in the beverage industry to
fermentation and type of processing. The strength of flavour soft drinks and in the baking industry
modern beer has usually around 3% to 8% alcohol. to sweeten the biscuits and cakes
19. The principle agent of alcoholic fermentation (a) Glycoamylase (b) Amylase
and bread making is (c) Proteases (d) Glucoamylase
(a) Schizosaccharomyces octosporus AMU -2000
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Ans. (d) : The enzyme used in the beverage industry to
(c) Saccharomyces ellipsoideus flavor soft drinks and in the baking industry to sweeten
(d) None of the above the biscuits and cakes is glucoamylase. Glucoamylase is
an enzyme that breaks down starch into glucose. It is
BVP-2010 used in the beverage industry to produce high-fructose
Ans. (b) : The principle agent of alcoholic fermentation corn syrup, which is sweetner used in many soft drinks.
and bread making is Saccharomyces cerevisiae. It is a 25. Activity of one of the following bacteria is very
type of yeast that is used in a variety of food and helpful in the preparation and flavouring of tea
beverage production processes, including brewing beer, leaves
wine and cider as well as baking bread. It is also used in (a) Bacillus subtilis
the production of biofuels and other industrial products.
(b) Bacillus megaterium
20. Which of the following microbes is used for (c) Bacillus aceti
commercial production of ethanol? (d) Bacillus radicicola
(a) Clostridium botulinum CG PMT-2007
(b) Steptococcus
Ans. (b) : The bacteria that is helpful in the preparation
(c) Trichoderma polysporum and flavoring of tea leaves is known as Bacillus
(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae megaterium.
DUMET-2010 26. Why surgical instruments are boiled in water
Ans. (d) : The microbe commonly used for the before use?
commercial production of ethanol is Saccharomyces (a) For killing the pathogens present on them
cerevisiae. It is a type of yeast that can ferment a variety (b) So that doctors can use them easily
of sugars, including glucose, fructose and sucrose, to (c) Provides pleasure to the patient
produce ethanol and carbon dioxide. (d) All the saprophytes die on the operative surface
21. The large hole in 'Swiss - Cheese' are made by CG PMT-2007
a
Ans. (a) : Surgical instruments are boiled in water
(a) Bacterium producing a large amount of CO2 before use to sterilize them, effectively killing any
(b) Machine micro organisms and pathogens present on the surface.
(c) Fungus that releases a lot of gases during This helps prevent infections and ensures a safe surgical
metabolic activities environment for both patients and medical stuff.
(d) Bacterium that produces methane gas 27. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is
Karnataka CET-2022 (a) Helicobastor pylori
Ans. (a) : The large hole in 'Swiss - Cheese' are made (b) Mesophilic bacteria
by carbon dioxide gas produced by bacteria during the (c) Streptococcus lactin
cheese-making process. These bacteria consume the (d) Butyric acid bacteria
lactic acid in the cheese, releasing carbon dioxide as a AMU-2007
byproduct as the cheese matures and ferments, the gas
Ans. (d) : The fermenting microorganism used for the
forms bubbles that create the characteristic holes. retting of jute are butyric acid bacteria. Retting is the
22. The source of intoxicating beverage called sake is process of microbial rotting or decomposition of the
(a) Sorghum vulgare (b) Arachis hypogea pectinacious material in the jute plant stems, which
(c) Oryza sativa (d) Mangifera indica allows the separation of the fibers for use in various
BCECE-2010 products. Butyric acid bacteria are involved in this
AP EAMCET-2007 natural fermentation process.
28. Petroleum can be replaced by: 33. Which one of the following is used in the
(a) Propanol (b) Ethanol production of alcohol?
(c) Lactic acid (d) Acetic acid (a) Leuconostoc citrovorum
Haryana PMT-2002 (b) Sacchromyces cerevisiae
Ans. (b) : Petroleum can be replaced by ethanol. (c) Torulopsis utilis
• Ethanol: Ethanol is a widely used renewable fuel (d) Clostridium botulinum
made from corn and other plant materials. It is blended DUMET-2001 / Haryana PMT-1999
with gasoline for use in vehicles. Ans. (b) : Saccharomyces cerevisae is a species of yeast
29. Fermentation of sugar to yield alcohol is commonly used in the beverage industries for the
carried out by: production of alcohol . It produces CO2 gas and ethyl
alcohol, which are used in making beer, wine, brandy etc.
(a) Zymase
(b) Micro-organisms 34. To speed up the making process in brewing
(c) Decomposition of sugar industry, the growth hormone used is
(a) Auxin (b) Gibberellic acid
(d) Raised temperature
(c) Kinetin (d) Ethylene
CMC Ludhiana-2010
AMU-2012
Haryana PMT-2002
Ans. (b) : Gibberellic acid is a plant growth hormone ,
Ans. (a) : Fermentation of sugar to yield alcohol is which is used to speed up the malting or the seed
carried out by zymase. germination process in brewing industry. They increase
Yeast produces three enzymes ; amylase ( causes the yield of malt from barley grains.
breakdown of starch into maltose sugar), maltase
(converts maltose into glucose) and zymase (for 35. Ethyl alcohol is commercially manufactured
fermentation of glucose). from:
(a) Bajra (b) Grapes
30. Vinegar is prepared from alcohol with the help
(c) Maize (d) Sugarcane
of:
BHU PMT(Screening)-2008 / Manipal-2008
(a) Azotobacter (b) Lactobacillus BVP-2007 / BHU PMT-2004
(c) Rhizobium (d) Acetobacter
Ans. (d) : Ethyl alcohol is also known as ethanol is
Haryana PMT-2002 commercially manufactured primarily through the
Ans. (d) : Vinegar is prepared from alcohol with the fermentation of sugarcane. It can also be produced
help of acetic acid bacteria, which convert the alcohol through various chemical processes, such as hydration
into acetic acid through fermentation. The major of ethylene or fermentation of cellulose materials.
bacteria helping is Acetobacter. 36. Industrial production of ethanol from starch is
31. Beer and butter milk are products of brought about by a certain species of
fermentation by (a) Azotobacter (b) Lactobacillus
(a) Rhizopus stolonifer (c) Saccharomyces (d) Penicillium
(b) Caedobacter taeniospiralls Assam CEE-2014 / Haryana PMT-2010
(c) Bacillus subtilis AMU-2008 / VMMC-2008 / BVP-2006
(d) Saccharomyces cerevisae Ans. (c) : Industrial production of ethanol from starch
VMMC-2010/CMC Ludhiana-2010/AMU-2006,1995 is brought about by a certain species of Saccharomyces.
Ans. (d) : Beer and butter milk are products of Saccharomyces cerevisiae is commonly used in the
fermentation by yeast and lactic acid by bacteria beverage industries for the production of alcohol. It
respectively. converts sugar into CO2 and ethanol which are used in
• Louis Pasteur is a scientists who showed that making beer, wine etc.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae causes fermentation 37. Malolactic fermentation during wine
forming product such as beer and butter milk. production is performed by
• Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) converts glucose (a) Lactobacillus (b) Leuconostoc
into ethyl alcohol and CO2 gas to give beer by the (c) Saccharomyces (d) Aspergillus
process of fermentation. CG PMT-2010
32. Pasteurization is a process means heating of Ans. (a) : Malolactic fermentation during wine
drinks at production is performed by lactic acid bacteria,
(a) 120°C for 60 minutes specifically genus Oenococcus and Lactobacillus. This
(b) 80°C for 30 minutes fermentation helps reduce the acidity and imparts
certain flavor characteristics to the wine.
(c) 60°-70°C for 30 minutes
(d) 70°C for 60 minutes 38. For the commercial and industrial production of
citric acid, which of the following microbes is
AMU-2006 / Rajasthan PMT-2009
used?
Ans. (c) : Pasteurization is the process of heating (a) Clostridium butylicum
liquids for the purpose of destroying pathogens and (b) Aspergillus niger
extend shelf -life. (c) Lactobacillus sp
• Pasteurization is a process means heating of drinks at (d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
60º - 70ºC for 30 minutes. NEET-2020 Phase-II
Ans. (b) : Aspergillus niger (a fungus) is used in Trichoderma – Production by
commercial and industrial production of citric acid. polysporum Immunosuppressive
• Lactobacillus (bacterium) is used in the production of agents.
lactic acid. Propionibacterium shermanii– Ripening of Swiss -
• Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast) is used in the chees.
commercial production of ethanol. • Saccharomyces cerevisiae ferment sugar into carbon
dioxide and alcohol (ethanol) and is commonly used
• Clostridium butylicum (bacterium) is used in the in the baking and brewing industries.
production of butyric acid.
• Monascus purpureus used in the production of
39. During the formation of bread it becomes blood cholesterol-lowering statins which act by
porous due to release of CO2 by the action of : - competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for
(a) Yeast (b) Bacteria synthesis of cholesterol.
(c) Virus (d) Protozoans • Cyclosporine A – used as an immunosuppressive
AIPMT-2002 agent in organ transplant patients, is produced by the
Ans. (a) : Dough used for making bread is fermented by fungus Trichoderma polysporum.
using Saccharomyces cerevisiae (Baker's yeast). The 42. A good producer of citric acid is :
sugar present in dough is rapidly fermented by the (a) Saccharomyces (b) Aspergillus
yeast. It produces CO2 and alcohol, makes bread porous (c) Pseudomonas (d) Clostridium
and soft. NEET-2013 / DUMET-2006 / Haryana PMT-2003
40. Dough kept overnight in warm weather BVP-2001 / AIPMET-1995
becomes soft and spongy because of :- Ans. (b) : A good producer of citric acid is Aspergillus
(a) Fermentation niger (a fungus). Citric acid has high economic potential
(b) Cohesion to its numerous applications. It is mostly produced by
microbial fermentations using Aspergillus niger.
(c) Osmosis
• Clostridium butylicum produces butyric acid,
(d) Absorption of carbon dioxide from atmosphere
• Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used for bread baking
AIPMT-2004 fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices to
Ans. (a) : During the fermentation the process where produce ethanol.
yeast converts sugar to carbon dioxide and alcohol in • Pseudomonas (a bacterium) is used in vitamin B12
the absence of oxygen causing dough to rise. production.
• Leavening agents make bread and other baked good 43. The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to
rise by causing a foaming actions that traps air fermentation by bacteria. Identify the gas
bubbles in the food as it cooks. The trapped air gives liberated during the process.
the final product a light and fluffy texture. (a) Methane (b) Carbon dioxide
41. Match the following list of microbes and their (c) Hydrogen sulphide (d) Ammonia
importance : Karnataka CET-2016
(A) Saccharomyces (i) Production of Ans. (b) : The puffed-up appearance of dough during
cerevisiae immunosuppressive fermentation is due to the liberation of carbon dioxide
agents gas. Yeast and certain bacteria in dough produce carbon
(B) Monascus (ii) Ripening of Swiss dioxide as a byproduct of fermentation. This gas gets
purpureus cheese trapped in the dough, causing it to rise and create a
(C) Trichoderma (iii) Commercial light, airy texture in baked goods like bread.
polysporum production of 44. Idlies become puffy because____
ethanol (a) Bubbles of CO2 trapped in glutein
(D) Propionibacteriu (iv) Production of blood- (b) Bubbles of O2 trapped in glutein
m shermanii cholesterol lowering (c) Bubbles of H2 trapped in glutein
agents (d) Bubbles of NO2 trapped in glutein
(A) (B) (C) (D) MHT CET-2019
(a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Ans. (a) : Idlies become puffy because, while preparing
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) of idli batter, it is fermented using bacteria or yeast
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) which released bubbles of carbondioxide (CO2) trapped
(d) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) in glutein. It makes the idlies puffy and spongy.
AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015 45. The process of making the milk bacterialess is
Ans. (b) : The correct match is: called:
(a) Immunization (b) Pasteurization
Saccharomyces – Commercial
(c) Vernalization (d) Purification
cerevisiae production of Rajasthan PMT-1996
ethanol
Ans. (b) : The process of making the milk bacteria less
Monascus purpureus – Production by by heating at high temperature around 65°C for 15 to 30
blood cholesterol second and sudden chilled at 5°C for storage, called
lowering agent. pasteurization.
46. Pasteurization is: Ans. (c) : Antibiotic are the substances that destroy or
(a) Heating of liquid at 65ºC prohibit the growth of microorganisms particularly
(b) Heating of liquid between 65ºC to 80ºC disease producing bacteria and fungi. They are obtained
followed by rapid cooling from microorganisms. Streptomyces is the largest
(c) Heating of solid at 65ºC genus of actinobacteria. Streptomyces known as a
(d) None of the above largest manufacturer of antibiotics.
AFMC-2005 52. A chemical substance produced by a
microorganism for inhibiting the growth of
Ans. (b) : Pasteurization is a the process of heating another is
liquid (milk) at 65°C temperature to 80ºC followed by
rapid cooling to make it safe for consumption and (a) Antibody (b) Antibiotic
improving its keeping quality. (c) Aflatoxin (d) Antiallergic
BCECE-2014
47. Heating milk at 65°C followed by sudden
cooling is known as Ans. (b) : A chemical substance produced by one
microorganism to inhibiting the growth of another
(a) Sterilization (b) Preservation microorganism is called an antibiotic.
(c) Pasteurization (d) Fermentation Antibiotics are obtanined from lichens, eubacteria, fungi
DUMET-2009 and actinomycetes. Antibiotic are used to treat a variety
Ans. (c) : Heating milk at 65°C followed by sudden of infections, including bacterial infections, fungal
cooling is known as pasteurization. When milk is heated at infections and parasite infections.
65°C for 15–30 minutes then suddenly cooled at 5ºC to 53. An antibiotic not produced by one of the
10°C before storage. Sudden cooling kills the microbes monera (Streptomyces) is
present in milk, it helps to preserve milk for a longer time. (a) Erythromycin (b) Penicillin
48. Pasteurization temperature is (c) Streptomycin (d) Tetracycline
(a) 720C for 20 minutes (b) 630C for 15 seconds AMU-1999
(c) 700C for 15 seconds (d) 650C for 30 minutes Ans. (b) : Penicillin is not produced by Streptomyces.
UP CPMT-2009 Penicillin (the first antibiotic) is obtained from the mold
Ans. (d) : Pasteurization is a process of heating liquid Penicillium notatum.
(such as milk) at temperature 65°C for 30 minutes that 54. Direction: Each of the question below consists
kills the microbes present in milk and it preserve milk of two statements an Assertion (A) and a
for a longer time. Reason (R) mark the appropriate response as
under:
C. Microbes as Antibiotics A: Penicillin was discovered by Sir Alexander
Fleming.
49. Most of the broad spectrum antibiotics have R: Discovery of penicillin in an example of
been obtained from serendipity.
(a) Actinomycetes (b) Bacilli (a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) Spirochaetes (d) Archaebacteria explanation of A
Manipal-2011 (b) If both A and R are true but R is not the
Ans. (a) : Most of the broad spectrum antibiotics have correct explanation of A
been obtained from actinomycetes. (c) A is true but R is false
Actinomycetes are known as an inexhaustible source for (d) Both A and R are false
antibiotics. Haryana PMT-2002
• Antibiotic is an organic compound produced by Ans. (b) : Alexander Fleming discovered first antibiotic
microorganisms that is in low concentration inhibits the penicillin from Penicillium notatum in 1928.
growth or kills the pathogen organism without harming • Discovery of penicillin is well known serendipitous
the host. discovery in science, launching the beginning of the
50. Alexander Fleming in 1928 discovered: antibiotic era.
(a) Penicillin (b) Streptomycin 55. Which antibiotic act on the cell wall of bacteria?
(c) Tetracyclin (d) Chloromycin (a) β-lactum group (b) Tetracycline
JCECE-2005 / Manipal-2000 (c) Neomycin (d) Streptomycin
Punjab MET-2004 / AIIMS-2000
Manipal-2013
Ans. (a) : Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in
1928. It is the first antibiotic to be discovered and has Ans. (a) : β–Lactum antibiotics are distinguished by a
saved millions of lives. Penicillin is a broad-spectrum lactum ring in their molecular structure. This ring
antibiotic that is effective against a wide range of inhibits the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of
bacteria. It is used to treat variety of infection, including bacterial cell wall.
pneumonia, meningitis and strep throat. 56. The antibiotic terramycin is obtained from:
51. Highest number of antibiotics are produced by (a) Streptomyces griseus
(a) Bacillus (b) Penicillium (b) Streptomyces rimosus
(c) Streptomyces (d) Cephalosporium (c) Clostridium botulinum
CMC VELLORE-2013 / BHU PMT (Screening)-2009 (d) Streptomyces veneznelne
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 / VMMC-2009 / BVP-2009 Haryana PMT-1999
Ans. (b) : The antibiotic terramycin is obtained from (c) the development of mutant strains resistant to
Gram negative bacterium Streptomyces rimosus. antibiotics
57. Broad spectrum antibiotic (d) insensitivity of the individual following long
exposure to antibiotics
(a) acts on all bacteria and virus
Manipal-2006 / AIPMET-1994
(b) is effective in very small amount
Ans. (c) : Bacteria reproduce fast and hence acquire
(c) acts on both pathogen and host mutations at a faster rate than higher organism. The
(d) acts on a variety of pathogenic micro organisms mutation in bacterial population can provide resistance
VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004 / BVP-2003 to antibiotics.
Ans. (d) : Broad spectrum antibiotics are those 62. Which one of the following population
antibiotics that effective against both gram-positive and interactions is widely used in medical science
Gram – negative bacteria. for the production of antibiotics?
58. The antibiotic penicillin has inhibitory effect (a) Commensalism (b) Mutualism
through (c) Amensalism (d) Parasitism
(a) dissolution of cell wall synthesis NEET-2018
(b) inhibition of protein synthesis Ans. (c) : Amensalism is the type of interaction in
(c) inhibition of DNA replication which one species harmed by another species may be
(d) injury to plasma membrane for its own benefit. This type of interaction involves the
VMMC-2010 production of antibiotics from a species which will
inhibit or kill the pathogen (other species) in the
Ans. (a) : The antibiotic penicillin exerts its inhibitory association.
effect by interfering with the synthesis of bacterial cell These types of interactions are widely used in medical
walls, weakening their structural integrity and science for the production of antibiotics.
eventually leading to bacterial cell death. This
mechanism primarily affects bacteria that are actively 63. The term "antibiotic" was coined by: -
dividing and growing. (a) Edward Jenner (b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Selman Waksman (d) Alexander Fleming
59. Match the microorganisms in column I with
AIPMT-2003 / BVP-2007
the antibiotics they produce in column II.
Ans. (c): The term "antibiotic" was coined by Selman
Column-I Column-II
Abraham Waksman, an American microbiologist in
A Penicillium 1. Gentamycin 1942. Selman Waksman is also credited with the
notatum discovery of Streptomycin.
B S. aureofaciens 2. Streptomycin • Louis Pasteur, microbiologist, who discovered the
C Micromonospora 3. Chlorotetracycline process of pasteurization.
D S. griseus 4. Penicillin • Alexander Fleming discovered first antibiotic
(a) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 penicillin from Penicillium notatum.
(b) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2 • Edward Jenner is well known for his innovative
(c) A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3 contribution to immunization and eradication of
(d) A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2 small pox.
VMMC-2015 64. By all of the following ways bacteria become
Ans. (b) : The correct match is: resistant to antibiotic except:
Column-I Column-II (a) Making enzymes that inactive the drug
A. Penicillium notatum Penicillin (b) Becoming impermeable to the drug
(c) Modifying the target of the drug
B. S. aureofaciens Chlorotetracycline
(d) Moving away from the drug
C. Micromonospora Gentamycin AIIMS-2009
D. S. griseus Streptomycin Ans. (d) : The fundamental mechanism of antibacterial
60. Broad spectrum antibiotics are one which resistance are –
attack: (i) Enzymatic degradation of drug.
(a) pathogens as well as host (ii) Changes in membrane permeability to antibiotics.
(b) a wide range of pathogens (iii) Modifying the target of the drug.
(c) only pathogens 65. Chloromycetin is obtained from
(d) only host (a) Streptomyces venezualae
AFMC-2001 (b) Streptomyces remosus
Ans. (b) : Broad spectrum antibiotics are medication (c) Bacillus subtilis
that target a wide range of bacteria, both Gram-positive (d) Clostridium botulinum.
and Gram-negative. AIIMS-2001
61. The main reason, why antibiotics could not Ans. (a) : Chloromycetin or is obtained from the soil
solve all the problem of bacterial disease, is: bacterium Streptomyces venezuelae.
(a) inactivation of antibiotics of bacterial enzyme • It is an antibiotic useful for the treatment of a number
(b) decreased deficiency of the immune system of bacterial infections like meningitis, plague, etc.
66. Match column-I with column-II and select the 69. Match the following columns.
option having correct matching – Column I Column II
Column-I Column-II (A) Neomycin 1. Streptomyces
A. Streptokinase i. Penicillium fradiae
notatum
(B) Terramycin 2. Penicillium
B. Statins ii. Monascus notatum
purpureus
C. Cyclosporine-A iii. Streptococcus (C) Viridin 3. Streptomyces
rimosus
D. Penicillin iv. Trichoderma
(a) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv (D) Penicillin 4. Gliocladium
virens
(b) A – iii, B – ii, C – i, D – iv
(c) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i A B C D
(d) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – i (a) 3 1 4 2
AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I (b) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (c) : The correct matches are - (c) 3 4 1 2
A. Streptokinase (iii) Streptococcus (d) 4 1 2 3
B. Statins (ii) Monascus purpureus AP EAMCET-2011
C. Cyclosporine-A (iv) Trichoderma Ans. (b):
D. Penicillin (i) Penicillium notatum Column I Column II
• Streptokinase is an extracellular protein secreted by A. Neomycin Streptomyces fradiae
various strains of streptococci and is used as an
intravenous thrombolytic agent for the treatment of B. Terramycin Streptomyces rimous
acute myocardial infection. C. Viridin Gliocladium virens
• Monascus purpureus is commercially used for the D. Penicillin Penicillium notatum
preparation of blood cholesterol lowering agent. It is
a red yeast. It produces Statins. D. Microbes as Chemicals, Enzymes
• Cyclosporine A is widely produced by submerged
fermentation of aerobic fungi identified as and other Bioactive Molecules
Trichoderma polysporum but currently identified as 70. Aspergillus niger produces
Tolipocladium inflatum.
(a) Fumaric acid
• Penicillin produced by the green mould Penicillium
notatum. (b) Acetic acid
(c) Lactic acid
67. The microbe which is opted for narrow
(d) Citric acid and gluconic acid
spectrum insecticide is ———
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis VMMC-2013
(b) Nucleo polyhedro virus Ans. (d) : Aspergillus niger is a type of fungus that is
(c) Meloidogyne known for producing various enzymes, organic acids
(d) Saccharomyces and other metabolites. It's commonly used in industrial
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I processes for the for the production of citric acid, which
has application in food and beverage, pharmaceuticals,
Ans. (b) : Nucleopolyhedrovirus is an important and other industries.
entomopathogenic virus belonging to the family
baculoviruses. It is used for species-specific, narrow Acetic acid - Acetobacter aceti
spectrum insecticidal applications, they have been Lactic acid - Lactobacillus helveticus
shown to have no negative effects on plants, mammals, 71. Lemon is sour due to the presence of
birds, fish or even on non target insect. (a) Acetic acid (b) Carbonic acid
A narrow spectrum antibiotic is an antibiotic that is only (c) Citric acid (d) Sulphuric acid
able to kill or inhibit limited species of bacteria. Manipal-2012
68. Which one of the following drugs is not Ans. (c) : Lemon is sour due to the presence of citric
obtained from fungal or plant sources? acid. Carbonic acid used in making of soft drinks like
(a) Penicillin (b) Reserpine cold drink, soda water etc.
(c) Acetaminophen (d) Quinine
Acetic acid is present in vinegar.
KVPY (SA)-05.11.2017
Ans. (c) : Acetaminophen also known as paracetamol is 72. Vitamin-C was first vitamin to be produced by
used as analgesic and antipyretic agents. It is not fementation process using
extracted from plant or fungi. It is artificially formed. (a) Penicillium (b) E.coli
• Penicillin is an antibiotic obtained from fungi Penicillium (c) Yersenia pestis (d) Acetobactor
notatum by Alexander Fleming (1928). Manipal-2012
• Reserpine is an alkaloid extracted from the roots of Ans. (d) : Vitamin-C was first vitamin to be produced
Rauwolfia serpentina plant. by fermentation process using Acetobactor.
• Quinine obtained from the bark of the Cinchona tree. Vitamin B2, B12 are also produced by microbial
It is used in the treatment of malaria. fermentation.
73. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is Ans. (a) : Streptomycin is an antibiotic, which is used
(a) Methophillic bacteria in the treatment of tuberculosis. It is isolated from the
(b) Butyric acid bacteria bacteria Streptomyces griseus.
(c) Helicobacter pylori Streptomycin ramosus is Gram negative bacteria which
(d) Streptococcus lactis produced terramycin antibiotic which inhibit the growth
Manipal-2012 of bacteria.
Ans. (b) : The fermenting microbe typically used for 79. An immunosuppressive agent produced by a
the retting of jute is a group of bacteria called butyric microbe
acid bacteria e.g. Clostridium butyricum. These bacteria (a) Cyclosporin A (b) Streptokinase
help break down the pectin and lignin in the jute fibers, (c) Penicillin (d) Statins
making them easier to separate and process for various JCECE-2018
applications. Ans. (a) : An example of an immunosuppressive agent
74. Which one of the following microbial product produced by a microbe is "cyclosporin A". It is derived
is called ‘’clot buster’’? from the fungus Trichoderma polysporum and is used to
(a) Cyclosporin A (b) Paracetamol suppress the immune system in organ transplantation
(c) Statins (d) Streptokinase and autoimmune diseases.
KVPY SB & SX-2019 80. Cyclosporine is used as
Ans. (d) : The microbial product that is often referred to (a) Allergic
as a "clot buster" is Streptokinase. It's an enzyme (b) Immuno suppressant
produced by Streptococcus bacteria and is used as a (c) Prophylactic for viruses
thrombolytic agent to break down blood clots. (d) Prophylactic for marasmus
Cyclosporine A is widely produced by submerged CMC Vellore-2014
fermentation of aerobic fungi identified as Trichoderma Ans. (b) : Cyclosporine is commonly used as an
polysporum but currently identified as Tolypodadium immuno suppressive medication, produces by the
inflatum. fungus Trichoderma polysporum. It is often prescribed
75. The end products of fermentation are: to prevent the body's immune system from rejecting
(a) Methanol and CO2 transplanted organs, such as kidneys, hearts or livers.
(b) Acetic acid and SO2 81. Match the following columns and select the
(c) Ethyl alcohol and CO2 correct option.
(d) Formaldehyde and O2 Column-I Column-II
AFMC-2002 (A) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A
Ans. (c) : The end products of fermentation can vary butylicum
depending on the type of fermentation and the specific
microorganisms involved. However, common end (B) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
products include ethanol (alcohol), carbon dioxide, polysporum
lactic acid and various organic acids. (C) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
76. The chemical produced by the host plant to purpureus
protect themselves against fungal infection is: (D) Aspergillus- (iv) Blood cholesterol
(a) Toxin (b) Phytoalexin niger lowering agent
(c) Phytotoxin (d) Hormone (A) (B) (C) (D)
JCECE-2005 (a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Ans. (b) : Phytopalexins are antimicrobial compounds (b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
that are produced by plants in response to fungal (c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
infection and are toxic to fungi. (d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
77. Citric acid is produced by fermentation of cane NEET-2020 Phase-I
molasses (sucrose) by
Ans. (a) : Correctly matched-
(a) Penicillium notatum (b) Rhizopus spp
(c) Aspergillus niger (d) Mucor spp. (A) Clostridium butylicum Butyric acid
Punjab MET-2010 / AMU-1998 (B) Trichoderma polysporum Cyclosporin -A
Ans. (c) : Citric acid is typically produced through a (C) Monascus purpureus Blood cholesterol
process involving the fermentation of sugar like cane lowering agent
molasses by certain strain of mold such as Aspergillus (D) Aspergillus niger Citric acid
niger. Citric acid is the most important organic acid Cyclosporin- A is commonly used as a immuno
used extensively in food and pharmaceutical industries. suppressive medication, produces by the fungus
78. Streptomycin is obtained from Trichoderma polysporum. It is often prescribed to
(a) Streptomyces griseus (b) S. aureofaciens prevent the body's immune system from rejecting
(c) S. venezuelae (d) S. ramosus transplanted organs, such as kidneys, hearts or livers.
VMMC-2012 / BCECE-2010 It's commonly used in industrial processes for the
Rajasthan PMT-2008 / CG PMT-2008 production of citric acid, which has application in
BHU PMT(Screening)-2006 / UP CPMT-2008, 2004 food and beverage, pharmaceuticals, and other
AIIMS-1998 industries.
82. Match List-I with List-II (c) Nuclear Polyhydrosis Virus (NPV)
List-I List-II (d) Trichoderma harzianum
(A) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic Acid AIIMS-2017
(B) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid Ans. (b) : Xanthomonas compestris can cause plant
(C) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric Acid diseases such as black rot of cabbage. Thus, this
(D) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid bacterium is not utilized as a biopesticide.
Choose the correct answer from the options • Bacillus thuringiensis is a soil bacteria used to
given below control certain insect pests. These bacteria make
(A) (B) (C) (D) unique protein that is toxic against some insects.
(a) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) • Trichoderma harzianum is a fungus used to treat
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) plant diseases. These are free-living fungi that are
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (ii) very common in root ecosystem. These fungi are
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) effective biocontrol agents of several plant pathogen.
NEET-2021 • Nuclear Polyhydrosis Virus (NPV) belongs to the
Ans. (b) : Correctly Matched– sub-group baculoviruses are pathogens attack insect
List-I List-II (moths and butterflies) and other arthropods.
(A) Aspergillus niger Citric Acid 86. The preparation and flavoring of leaves of tea
and tobacco is due to the activities of
(B) Acetobacter aceti Acetic Acid
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(C) Clostridium Butyric Acid
(b) Bacillus megatherium
butylicum
(c) Streptococcus lactis
(D) Lactobacillus Lactic Acid
(d) Acetobacteraceti
83. What triggers activation of protoxin to active AIIMS-2017
Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll worm?
(a) Moist surface of midgut Ans. (b) : The activities of Bacillus megatherium are
(b) Alkaline pH of gut mainly responsible for the preparation as well as the
(c) Acidic pH of stomach flavoring of tobacco and tea leaves.
(d) Body temperature 87. The bacteria Pseudomonas is useful because of
NEET-2019 its ability to
Ans. (b) : Bacterium B. thuringiensis forms some (a) Transfer genes from one plant to another
protein crystals. These crystals contain a toxic (b) Decompose a variety of organic compounds
insecticidal protein. (c) Fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil
This toxin does not kill the bacterium because it exists (d) Produce a wide variety of antibiotics.
as inactive protoxins in them. But, once an insect AIIMS-2004
ingests, it is converted into an active form of toxin due Ans. (b) : Pseudomonas is a gram-negative rod-shaped
to alkaline PH of the alimentary canal. bacteria. It is useful because of its ability to decompose
The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut a variety of organic compounds.
epithelial cells and creates pores which causes cell swelling
and lyses and finally cause the death of the insect. • Bacteria play an important role in decomposition of
organic materials, especially in the early stages of
84. Select the incorrect match.
decomposition.
(a) Citric acid – Aspergillus niger
e.g. Bacillus subtilis, Pseudomonas fluorescens.
(b) Streptokinase – Streptococcus
(c) Butyric acid – Clostridium acetobutylicum 88. Match the following bacteria of List I with
(d) Cyclosporin-A–Monascus purpureus their commercial products of List II:
AIIMS-2016 List I List II
Ans. (d) : Cyclosporin-A is a bioactive chemical which is 1. Lactobacillus I. Butyric acid
used as immunosuppressive agent in organ transplantation. 2. Aspergillus niger II. Acetic acid
It is obtained from fungus Trichoderma polysporum. 3. Acetobacteraceae III. Lactic acid
• Aspergillus niger is the most commonly used microbe 4. Clostridium IV. Citric acid
for the commercial production of citric acid. butyricum
• Clostridium acetobutylicum produces acetone and
Select the code for the correct answer from the
butyl alcohol from saccharide substrates.
options given below:
• Cyclosporin A is used as an immunosuppressive
agent in organ transplantation. It is produced by the 1 2 3 4
fungus Trichoderma polysporum. (a) III II IV I
85. Which of the following is not used as a (b) I IV III II
biopesticide? (c) III IV II I
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis (d) III IV I II
(b) Xanthomonas compestris Karnataka CET-2018
Ans. (c) : Correctly matched– Ans. (b) : Correctly matched–
List-I List-II Bacterias Product.
Lactobacillus –– Lactic acid Aspergillus niger –– Citric acid
Aspergillus niger –– Citric acid Acetobacter –– Acetic acid
Acetobacteraceae –– Acetic acid Saccharomyces –– Ethanol
Clostridium butyricum –– Butyric acid Lactobacillus –– Lactic acid
• Aspergillus niger is a fungus producing citric acid. 92. Choose the incorrect statements from the
• Clostridium botulinum are gram-positive bacteria that following:
produce butyric acid (A) Aspergillus produces acetic acid.
• Acetobacter aceti is used for the mass production of (B) Lactobacillus produces lactic acid.
acetic acid, the main component in vinegar. (C) Lipases are used in Laundry.
• Lactobacillus is a genus of gram positive, anaerobic (D) "Cyclosporin A" is used as blood
rod shaped non spore forming bacteria they convert cholesterol lowering agent.
sugar to lactic acid. (a) A, B only (b) A, D only
(c) B, C only (d) A, C only
89. Match the microbial products listed under
Column-I with the related microbes given
under Column-II; choose the appropriate Ans. (b) : These are incorrect option.
option from the given choices. (A) Aspergillus niger produces citric acid while
Acetobacter aceti produces acetic acid.
Column-I Column-II
(B) "Cylosporine- A" is an immunosuppressant drug widely
A. Citric acid p. Methanobacterium used in organ transplantation to prevent rejection.
B. Cyclosporin-A q. Monascus purpureus 93. Statins produced by this Yeast have been
C. Statin r. Aspergillus niger commercialized as Blood-Cholesterol lowering
D. Gobar gas s. Trichoderma agents
polysporum (a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(b) Monascus purpureus
t. Clostridium butylicum
(c) Candida utilis
(a) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p (b) A-t, B-q, C-s, D-r (d) Trichoderma
(c) A-q, B-s, C-t, D-r (d) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-t AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II
Karnataka CET-2014
Ans. (b) : Statins produced by the yeast monascus
Ans. (a) : Correctly matched– purpureus have been commercialised as blood-
Column-I Column-II cholesterol lowering agents. It acts by competitively
A. Citric acid Aspergillus niger inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of
cholesterol. Monascus purpureus is a filamentous
B. Cyclosporine - A Trichoderma polysporum fungus known for its fermentation of red yeast rice,
C. Statin Monascus purpureus produces the metabolite monacolin k used in statin
D. Gobar gas Methano bacterium drugs to inhibit cholesterol biosynthesis.
90. Which one of the following microbes is the 94. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
source for vitamin-C? matched ?
(a) Pseudomonas sp. (b) Acetobacter sp. (a) Textile – amylase
(c) Aspergillus sp. (d) Chlorella (b) Detergents – lipase
JIPMER-2016 (c) Alcohol – nitrogenase
Ans. (b) : Acetobacter is a gram negative bacteria. It is (d) Fruit juice – pectinase
a source of vitamin-C. It also helps in production of AIPMT-2009
vinegar so it is known as vinegar bacteria. Ans. (c) : Alcohol is not produced by the use of
nitrogenase. Nitrogenase is an enzyme required for
91. Match the following?
biological nitrogen fixation. Nitrogenase converts
Organism Product atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia.
(a) Aspergillus (i) Ethanol • Alcohol is produced by fermentation of sugars with
niger the help of yeast.
zymase
(b) Acetobacter (ii) Butyric acid C6H12O6 (aq)  yeast
→ 2C2H5OH(aq) + 2CO2(aq)
(c) Saccharomyces (iii) Acetic acid
95. Which of the following is a commercial blood
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Citric acid cholesterol lowering agent?
(v) Lactic acid (a) Statin (b) Streptokinase
(a) (a – ii), (b – iii), (c – v), (d – iv) (c) Lipases (d) Cyclosporin A
(b) (a – iv), (b – iii), (c – i), (d – v) NEET-2019
(c) (a – i), (b – ii), (c – iv), (d – iii) Ans. (a) : Statins produced by the yeast Monascus
(d) (a – iii), (b – v), (c – ii), (d – i) purpureus have been commercialized as blood-
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-I cholesterol lowering agents.
96. Match column I with column II and choose 100. Foul smell in the water bodies of tanks, ponds
correct option. etc. is due to :
Column I Column II (a) Aerobiosis (b) Anaerobiosis
(A) Aspergillus niger (1) Ethanol (c) Psammophytes (d) Biological magnification
(B) Clostridium (2) Statins Manipal-2004
butylicum Ans. (b) : Eutrophication is a natural state in many
(C) Saccharomyces (3) Butyric acid lakes and ponds which have a rich supply of nutrients,
cerevisiae this leads to decomposition of nutrients through bacteria
and other decomposers by the process of anaerobic
(D) Trichoderma (4) Citric acid respiration. This causes foul smell.
cerevisiae Anaerobiosis produces pollutants like methane,
(E) Monascus (5) Cyclosporin-A hydrogren sulphide and ammonia. They kill aquatic
purpureus plants and animals. The water body comes to have foul
(a) A-3 B-5 C-2 D-1 E-3 smell, brown coloration, bad taste and oil.
(b) A-5 B-4 C-1 D-2 E-3 101. Which of the following is biodegradable
(c) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-5 E-2 pollutant?
(d) A-3 B-4 C-5 D-1 E-2 (a) Sewage (b) Plastic
Manipal-2015 (c) Polythene (d) DDT
Ans. (c) : Correctly matched JCECE-2005
Column I Column II Ans. (a) : Sewage or waste water contains human
(a) Aspergillus niger Citric acid excreta and other organic waste. It is a biodegradable
pollutant.
(b) Clostridium butylicum Butyric acid
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Ethanol 102. In domestic sewage impurities in the form of
suspended solid, colloidal material and
(d) Trichoderma cerevisiae Cyclospoirin - A dissolved materials, are about
(e) Monascus purpureus Statins (a) 0.1 % (b) 2.1 %
(c) 5.0 % (d) 10.0 %
E. Microbes play a role in AMU-2012
Sewage Treatment Ans. (a) : About 0.1% of impurities are present in the
form of suspended solids, colloids, and dissolved
97. Sewage water turns black due to action of material in domestic sewage.
(a) H2S (b) NH3 Composition of waste water-
(c) CH4 (d) CO2 Water = 99.9%
BCECE-2011 Impurities = 0.1% ⇒ Suspended solids eg. sand, silt and
Ans. (a) : Sewage water turns black due to the presence clay. Colloidal material e.g – faecal matter, bacteria,
of various organic and inorganic compounds including cloth and paper fibres.
hydrogen sulphide while taste and odor in water are due Dissolved materials e.g. nutrients (nitrate, ammonia,
to the presence of dead microorganisms, dissolved gases phosphate, sodium, calcium).
and iron compounds. 103. A sewage treatment process in which a part of
98. The high amount of E. coli in water is an decomposer bacteria present in the waste is
indicator of recycled into the starting of the process is
(a) hardness of water called
(b) industrial pollution (a) cyclic treatment
(c) sewage pollution (b) activated sludge treatment
(d) presence of chlorine in water (c) primary treatment
Uttarakhand PMT-2007 (d) tertiary treatment
Ans. (c) : The high amount of E. coli in water is an DUMET-2009
indicator of fecal contamination which can lose a risk to Ans. (b) : A sewage treatment process in which a part
human health due to potential waterborne diseases. of decomposer bacteria present in the waste is recycled
99. What are the sediments in the settling tanks of into the starting of the process is called activated sludge
tertiary treatment in STP called? treatment.
(a) Activated sludge (b) Contaminants There are three stages of sewage treatment –
(c) Effluents (d) Sewage • Primary treatment removes floating and suspended
MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I solids from sewage through filtration and
Ans. (a) : In the sewage treatment, when Biochemical sedimentation.
Oxygen Demand (BOD) of sewage has reduced the • Secondary treatment is purely a biological treatment
effluent is passed into setting tank. Here, the bacterial involving microbial activity.
flocks settle and the sediment thus formed is called • Tertiary treatment is important for the removal of
activated sludge. nitrogen and phosphorus compounds from water.
104. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge Ans. (b) : • Secondary sewage treatment is purely a
digesters. biological treatment involving microbial activity.
(a) Methane and CO2 only • Biogas is mixture of methane, CO2, trace of nitrogen,
(b) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2 hydrogen sulphide and hydrogen gases. Methane is the
(c) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and O2 major component of biogas.
(d) Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2 Components in biogas is as follows
AIPMT-2014 Methane - 50-75%
Ans. (b) : In anaerobic sludge digester, aerobic CO2 - 25-50%
microbes get killed. Anaerobic microbes digest the Nitrogen - 0-10%
organic matter as well as aerobic microbes into soluble Hydrogen - 0-1%
and gaseous products (CH4, CO2, H2S etc)
108. The below diagram represents a typical biogas
105. During sewage treatment, biogases are plant. Select the correct option for A, B and C
produced which include: respectively?
(a) hydrogensulphide, nitrogen, methane
(b) methane, hydrogensulphide, carobon dioxide
(c) methane, oxygen, hydrogensulphide
(d) hydrogensulphide, methane, sulphur dioxide
NEET-2013
Ans. (b) : Biogas is produced when bacteria digest
organic matter (biomass) in the absence of oxygen.
Biogas is a mixture of gases, primarily consisting of
methane, carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulphide, produced
from raw materials such as agricultural waste, manure,
municipal waste, plant material, sewage, green waste and
food waste. Biogas is a renewable energy source.
106. The domestic sewage in large cities:
(a) Has high BOD as it contains both aerobic and Options:
anaerobic bacteria (a) A → Sludge, B → Dung + water, C →
(b) Is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic CH 4 + CO 2
bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage (b) A → Dung + water, B → Sludge, C →
Treatment Plants (STPs) CH 4 + CO 2
(c) When treated in STPs does not really require
the aeration step as the sewage contains (c) A → Sludge, B → CH 4 + CO 2 , C → Dung +
adequate oxygen water
(d) Has very high amounts of suspended solids (d) A → CH 4 + CO 2 , B → Dung + water, C →
and dissolved salts Sludge
AIIMS-2015
Ans. (b) : Activated sludge is a suspended-growth
aerobic bacteria which remove the pollutants from Ans. (c) : 'A' represents the sewage sludge contains
wastewater in an aerobic environment during the mainly, proteins, sugars, detergents, phenols and lipids.
secondary treatment, the aerobic stage is followed by 'B' represents Digester in which CH4+CO2 is presents.
the anaerobic stage in which anaerobic bacteria are used 'C' represents dung and water.
in secondary treatment in sewage treatment plants 109. In sewage treatment, secondary treatment is
(STPs). Hence the domestic sewage in large cities is considered highly significant. because
processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the (a) It helps to remove debris from the sewage.
secondary treatment in sewage treatment plants (STPs). (b) It reduces the BOD level of sewage.
107. Study the following statements and select the (c) It helps in production of biogas.
incorrect ones? (d) It increases the organic content of sewage.
(i) Physical removal of large and small Karnataka CET-2020
particles through filtration and Ans. (b) : In sewage treatment, secondary treatment
sedimentation is called primary sewage considered highly significant, because it reduces the
treatment Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) level of sewage.
(ii) Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a • BOD is measurement of impurity in water.
mechanical process • High BOD shows more pollution in water.
(iii) Activated sludge sediment in sewage
treatment plant is a rich source of aerobic 110. Sewage water can be purified by _____
bacteria (a) Penicillin (b) Fishes
(iv) Biogas, commonly called as gobar gas, is (c) Aquatic plants (d) Microorganisms
pure methane AP EAMCET-06.09.2021 Shift-I
(a) (i) & (ii) only (b) (ii) & (iv) only Ans. (d): Sewage water can be purified by
(c) (ii) & (iii) only (d) (iii) & (iv) only heterotrophic microbes (microorganism) present in the
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-II sewage this treatment is carried out by two stages.
i) Primary treatment Ans. (d) : The activated sludge process is an aerobic
ii) Secondary treatment suspended growth treatment system in which
Many industrial and municipal wastewater treatment microorganism use the organic content of wastewater as
plants use bacteria and other microorganisms to help an energy source and for survival and replication.
with the process of cleaning sewage. • Biogas is produced by the activity of anaerobic
111. The bacterium that is commonly found in the bacteria on animal waste. Biogas commonly called
anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment is gobar gas is a mixture of 50 – 70 percent methane &
called. 30 – 40 percent carbon dioxide and trace amounts of
(a) Methanobacterium other gases.
(b) Staphylococcus • Methanobacterium is an anaerobic bacterium found
in rumen of cattle.
(c) Acetobacter aceti
(d) Clostridium butylicum
F. Microbes in Production of Biogas
Ans. (a) : Methanogens are responsible for the methane 115. Biogas produced by fermentation of manure,
in the belches of ruminants and in the flatulence in sewage, cattle dung, etc predominantly
humans. Methanogens play a vital ecological role in comprises
anaerobic environments by removing excess hydrogen (a) Methane, nitrogen and hydrogen
and fermentation products produced by other forms of (b) Methane and carbon dioxide
anaerobic respiration. (c) Methane and carbon monoxide
(d) Methane and nitric oxide
112. The primary treatment of sewage water
DUMET-2010 / BVP-2004
involves
(a) Sludge digestion Ans. (b) : Biogas is a mixture of gases. Biogas is
composed of methane- 50-70%, CO2 30-40%, traces of
(b) Aerobic bacterial activity nitrogen, hydrogen sulphide and hydrogen. Methane
(c) Anaerobic bacterial activity and CO2 are major component of biogas.
(d) Filtration and sedimentation 116. By anaerobic process, the cow dung is used to
Karnataka CET-2016 produce :
Ans. (d) : Primary treatment of sewage water involves (a) Methane (b) Butane
the physical removal of large and small particles from (c) Ethane (d) Propane
the sewage through filtration and sedimentation. The MGIMS Wardha-2005
sedimented particles are called primary sludge and the Ans. (a) : Biogas is a mixture of gases [containing
supernatant is called effluent. predominantly methane (CH4)] produced by anaerobic
113. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed bacteria through fermentation of animal dung (or biomass).
for – 117. Which bacteria are utilized in gobar gas plant?
(a) Addition of preservatives to the product (a) Methanogenes
(b) Purification of the product (b) Nitrifying bacteria
(c) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture (c) Ammonifying bacteria
(d) Availability of oxygen throughout the process (d) Denitrifying bacteria
AMU-2007 / CMC Ludhiana-2008 / AIPMT-2002
Ans. (a) : Biogas or gobar gas is a mixture of methane,
Ans. (d) : In the sparged stirred-tank bioreactor, the CO2 and other trace gases. It is produced when
sparge (a porous ring made of metal or glass) facilitates methanogens (bacteria) anaerobically digest the
the mixing and oxygen availability throughout the cellulosic material.
bioreactor. • One common methanogenic bacteria is
Stirred tank bioreactor is usually cylindrical or with a Methanobacterium. Methanogens are also present in the
curved base to facilitate the mixing of the reaction rumen of cattle hence dung can also be used for
content. The stirred facilitates even mixing and oxygen gobargas production.
availability throughout the bioreactor. Alternatively, air 118. Bio-gas contains:
can be bubbled through the reactor. (a) CH4, SO2, H2 (b) CO2, C2H5OH, H2
114. Select the correct statement from the following: (c) CH4, CO2, H2 (d) C2H6 CO, H2
(a) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic Haryana PMT-2002
bacteria on animal waste Ans. (c) : Biogas or gobar gas is a methane rich fuel gas
(b) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium produced by anaerobic break down or digestion of
found in rumen of cattle biomass with the help of methanogenic bacteria.
(c) Biogas commonly called gobar gas is pure Biogas or gobar gas consists of 50-70% methane, 30-
methane 40% CO2, 1-5% H2, traces of N2 and H2S gases.
(d) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks 119. Gobar gas contains mainly
of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of (a) CH4 + CO2 (b) CH4 + O3
aerobic bacteria (c) CO2 + H2 (d) CO2 + SO2
AIPMT (Screening)-2010 AMU-2006
Ans. (a) : Biogas is a renewable energy source These bacteria are present in the rumen (a part of the
produced by the breakdown of organic matter by stomach) of cattle. A lot of cellulosic material present in
bacteria under anaerobic condition. It is a methane rich the food of cattle, and also present in the rumen. In the
gas fuel. rumen, the bacteria help in the breakdown of cellulose
Biogas or gobar gas consists of 50-70% methane, 30- and play an important role in the nutrition of cattle.
40% CO2, 1-5%, H2, traces of N2 and H2S gases. 124. Pollution from animal excreta and organic
120. The gas present in maximum proportion in waste from kitchen can be most profitably
gobar gas is minimized by
(a) Butane (b) Methane (a) Storing them in underground storage tanks
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Propane (b) Using them for producing biogas
JCECE-2018 / Manipal-2007 / AIPMT-2004 (c) Vermiculture
Ans. (b) : Biogas is a mixture of gases which can be (d) Using them directly as biofertilizers
used as fuel. AIIMS-2006
• Biogas consist of methane 50-70%, CO2 30-40%, Ans. (b) : Pollution from animal excreta and organic
traces of nitrogen and hydrogen gases. Methane is the waste from kitchen can be most profitably minimized
major component of biogas. by using them for producing biogas. Biodegradable
121. Bio gas production from waste bio mass with wastes like animal excreta and organic waste from the
the help of methanogenic bacteria is : kitchen can be used in biogas plants to generate biogas
(a) multi step process (b) one step process and manure. These wastes release methane and other
(c) two step process (d) three step process gases as a result of anaerobic microorganisms. Biogas
Haryana PMT-2003 contains methane in bulk and other gases like CO2, H2,
Ans. (d) : Biogas is produced by anaerobic bacteria N2 and O2. Biogas is a cheap source of fuel and the
that degrade organic matter in 3 stages – solubulization, manure can be used as a cheap fertilizer.
acidogenesis, methanogenesis. 125. Which of the following is correct about biogas –
122. Which one of the following equipments is (a) Methane gas is produced along with ethyl
essentially required for growing microbes on a alcohol by methanogen
large scale, for industrial production of (b) Methanogens acts on cellulose and release
enzymes? biogas
(a) Sludge digester (b) Industrial oven (c) Biogas is produced by thunder and lightening
(c) Bioreactor (d) BOD incubator (d) Maximum gas found in biogas is CO2
NEET-2019 AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-I
Ans. (c) : Bioreactor is an apparatus for growing organism Ans. (b) : Methanogens act on cellulose and release
(yeast, bacteria or animal cells) on a large scale. biogas. Methanogens are anaerobic bacteria that grow
It is also used in industrial processes to produce anaerobically on cellulosic material and produce large
pharmaceuticals, vaccines, or antibodies and to convert amounts of methane along with CO2 and hydrogen.
raw materials, into useful bio product. • One common methanogenic bacteria is
Sludge digester – Used to decompose organic waste. Methanobacterium. Methanogens are also present in the
Industrial oven – Are heated chamber used for a rumen of cattle hence, the excreta (dung) can also used
variety of industrial application. for biogas production.
BOD incubator – It is used to maintain the 126. Which of the following microbes is correctly
temperature of tissue culture. paired with its function?
123. Which of the following is correct? (a) Aspergillus niger- - Production of lactic
(a) Cyanobacteria makes mycorrhiza which acid
absorbs phosphate form soil (b) Trichoderma - Lowers blood
(b) Azotobacter is symbiotic nitrogen fixing polysporum cholesterol
bacteria
(c) Saccharomyces - Production of citric
(c) In paddy field, cyanobacteria is used to acid
decrease soil microbes cerevisiae
(d) Methanobacterium feed cellulose in anaerobic (d) Methanogenic Gobar gas formation
condition bacteria
AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-II AIIMS-2013
Ans. (d) : Methanobacterium are strictly anaerobic Ans. (d) : Biogas (gobar gas) is a mixture of gases
bacteria. In terms of nutrition, it is an “autotrophic which can be used as fuel. Methane is the major
organism” that receives energy and carbon from component of biogas. It is produced when methanogens
decompositions products. (bacteria) anaerobically digest the cellulosic material.
Certain bacteria, which grow anaerobically on cellulosic methanogens are also present in the rumen of cattle
material, produce a large amount of methane along with hence, the dung can also be used for biogas (gobar gas)
CO2 and H2. These bacteria are collectively called production.
methanogens, and one such common bacterium is •Aspergillus niger carries out fermentation to from
Methanobacterium. citric acid.
• Fungus Trichoderma polysporum produces (d) predator develops a preference to other diets
cyclosporin through fermentative activity. and may itself become a pest
Cyclosporin-A used as an immunosuppressive agent AIIMS-2008 / WB JEE-2006
in organ transplantation. Ans. (d) : The natural method of pest and pathogen
• Saccharomyces cerevisiae (baker's yeast/brewer's control involving use of viruses, bacteria and other
yeast) is used in production of bread/alcohol. insects (which are their natural predators and pests) is
127. By anaerobic process, the cow dung is used to called biocontrol. This method is safer and cheaper way
produce to control the pest.
(a) Methane (b) Butane For example lady bird beetle which feeds on aphids is
used in agriculture for aphid control. But over the time
(c) Ethane (d) Propane period, these predators develop a preference to other
UP CPMT-2005 diets and itself become a pest.
Ans. (a): Cow dung demonstrated a potential for 131. Which of the following is a fungicide?
biogas generation. Biogas is a mixture of colorless, (a) DDT (b) Bordeaux mixture
flammable gases obtained by the anaerobic digestion of (c) 2, 4-D (d) DCMU
plant based organic waste material of biogas. It is
VMMC-2011
typically made up of methane (50-70%), carbon
dioxide (30-40%) and other trace gases. Ans. (b) : Bordeaux mixture (also called Bordo mix) is
a combination of copper sulphate (CuSO4), lime and
128. Besides dung, the weed that can be used in water. It is an effective fungicide used to control
biogas production is diseases of fruit and nut trees, ornamental plants.
(a) Hydrilla
132. Scirpophaga incertulus is an example of
(b) Solanum nigrum
(a) Monophagus pest (b) Diphagus pest
(c) Eichhornia crassipes
(c) Oligophagous pest (d) Polyphagus pest
(d) Parthenium hysterophorus
WB JEE-2009
JIPMER-2014
Ans. (a) : A monophagus insect is restricted to a single
Ans. (c) : Besides dung, the weed that can be used in food source. For example, Scirpophaga incertulas are
biogas production is water hyacinth (Eichhornia yellow stem borer or rice yellow stem borer species of
crassipes). It is an aquatic weed used as a source of moth family that feeds on a single plant.
biogas through harvesting, chopping and crushing.
133. Which one of the following is used as biological
129. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the insecticide?
production of biogas from the dung of (a) Tiger beetle (b) Caterpillar
ruminant animals, include the (c) Silkmoth (d) Mazra poka
(a) Eubacteria (b) Halophiles WB JEE-2010
(c) Thermoacidophiles (d) Methanogens Ans. (a) : Biological insecticides are those biological
NEET-2016 Phase-I agents that are used to control harmful insects. They
Ans. (d) : Methanogens are primitive bacteria which are include predators, parasite, pathogens and natural
commonly found in rumen of cattle for helping in insecticides.
digestion of cellulose. These methanogens are • Tiger beetle is used as biological insecticide because of
anaerobically digesting cellulosic material and releases their ability to eat caterpillar, wireworm, aphids, ant etc.
biogas. 134. In plant disease control, the latest trend is
• Eubacteria - Prokaryotic microorganisms consist of (a) Chemical control (b) Mechanical control
a single cell, lacking a nucleus & containing DNA is (c) Biological control (d) None of these
a single circular chromosome.
Punjab MET-1999
• Halophiles - Halophiles bacteria is commonly reside
Ans. (c) : Biological control is biological method of
in hypersaline environment.
controlling plants diseases and pests.
• Thermoacidophiles - Thermoacidophiles are those Using of biocontrol agents is the latest trend because:-
microorganisms. which are grow in hot & acidic • They do not eradicate pests and pathogens, but keep
environment (PH ≤ 4, ≥ 55º C ). their levels manageable.
• They are non toxic and non-biocidal.
G. Microbes Work as Biocontrol • They do not kill useful organism and do not pollute
Agents soil, fruits and vegetable.
135. Bacillus thuringiensis is used to control
130. One of the major difficulties in the biological
control of insect pests is the: (a) Bacterial pathogens (b) Fungal pathogens
(a) practical difficulty of introducing the predator (c) Nematodes (d) Insect pests
to specific areas DUMET-2010
(b) method is less effective as compared with the Ans. (d) : Bacillus thuringiensis is used to control
use of insecticides insect pests. Spores of this bacterium possess the
(c) predator does not always survive when insecticidal cry protein. Therefore, spores of this
transferred to a new environment bacterium kill larvae of contain insects.
136. Dragonflies play an important role because Ans. (d) : Free living fungus Trichoderma found in
they: root ecosystem, exerts biocontrol over several plant
(a) are pollinating agent pathogens.
(b) feed entirely on mosquito adults and • It acts as biocontrol agent.
mosquito larva 141. Which among the following microbes are
(c) add to silvan beauty commonly employed in dairy industry ?
(d) are vectors for disease carrying germs (a) Lactobacillus, Streptomyces, Penicillium
JIPMER-1999 (b) Saccharomyces, Streptomyces, Aspergillus
Ans. (b) : Dragonflies play an important role because (c) Eremothecium, Rhizopus, Acetobacter
they feed entirely on mosquito adults and mosquito (d) Pseudomonas, Penicillium, Saccharomyces
larva, which helps to control mosquito population.
Dragonflies are used as biological agent as they prey MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I
upon mosquitoes. Dragon flies are used as biological Ans. (a) : Lactobacillus, Streptomyces and Penicillium
agent as they prey upon mosquitoes. Biocontrol is the are all microbes that are commonly employed in the
natural method of pest and pathogen control using dairy industry. Lactobacillus is used to make fermented
biological agents i.e. Microbes and insects. dairy products such as yogurt and cheese. Streptomyces
137. The microbial biocontrol agent for butterfly is used to produce antibiotics, which can be used to treat
caterpillar is mastitis in cows. Penicillium is used to produce blue
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis (b) Saccharomyces cheese.
(c) Lactobacillus (d) Cyanobacteria 142. A common biocontrol agent for the control of
(e) Staphylococcus plant diseases
Kerala PMT-2015 (a) Agrobacterium (b) Glomus
Ans. (a) : The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis has family (c) Trichoderma (d) Baculovirus
of different proteins which naturally produce chemicals Rajasthan PMT-2011
harmful to selective insects, most notably the larvae of Ans. (c) : A biocontrol agent for the control of plant
moths and butterflies, beetles, cotton bollworms. diseases in Trichoderma. It is a fungi found in soil and
138. When a natural predator (living being) is root ecosystem. They are effective biocontrol agents of
applied on the other pathogen organism to several plant pathogens.
control them, this process is called : 143. Match the following columns and select the
(a) biological control correct option :
(b) genetic engineering Column – I Column – II
(c) artificial control A. Dragonflies i. Biocontrol agents of
(d) confusion technique several plant
JIPMER-2003 pathogens
Ans. (a) : The natural method of pest and pathogen B. Bacillus ii. Get rid of Aphids
control involving use of microbes and insects (Which thuringiensis and mosquitoes
are natural predators and pests) is called biocontrol or
biological control. C. Glomus iii. Narrow spectrum
For example- Lady bird beetle which feeds on aphids is insecticidal
used in agriculture for aphid control. applications
139. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful D. Baculoviruses iv. Biocontrol agents of
microorganism for lepidopteran
(a) Bioremediation of contaminated soils plant pests
(b) reclamation of wastelands v. Absorb phosphorus
(c) gene transfer in higher plants from soil
(d) biological control of soil-borne plant (a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(v), (D)-(iii)
pathogens (b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(v), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
Rajasthan PMT-2010 (c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
AIPMT-2008 (d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(v)
Ans. (d) : Trichoderma harzianum is a fungus that is NEET-2020 Phase-II
used as a biocontrol agent against a variety of soil- Ans. (a):
borne plant pathogens. It works by competing with the
pathogens for nutrients and space, and by producing (A) Dragonflies Get rid of aphids and
enzymes that can break down the pathogens cell walls. mosquitoes
140. Trichoderma fungus acts as ___________ (B) Bacillus Biocontrol agents of
thuringiensis lepidopteran plant pests
(a) Biofertilizer
(b) Bioremediation agent (C) Glomus Absorb phosphorus from
(c) Biopesticide soil
(d) Biocontrol agent (D) Baculoviruses Narrow spectrum
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-II insecticidal applications

144. Select the correct group of biocontrol agents. (c) Penicillium notatum restrict the growth of
(a) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus Staphylococci
thuringiensis (d) Methanogens are found in aerobic conditions
(b) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma AIIMS-2010
(c) Nostoc, Azospirillum, Nucleopolyhedrovirus Ans. (c) : Penicillium notatum is known for producing
(d) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic virus, penicillin, which is an antibiotic that can inhibit the growth
Aphids of bacteria like Staphylococci. This property of penicillin
NEET-2019 has been used in medicine to treat bacterial infections.
Ans. (a) : Fungus Trichoderma, Baculoviruses (NPV), • Acetobacter aceti is used for the production of acetic
acid, the main component in vinegar.
and Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) are used as biocontrol
agents and as a tool to produced recombinant proteins. • Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used for industrial
production of ethanol.
Trichoderma is a fungus and biofungicide, it is used for
seed and soil treatment. • Methanogens are commonly found in anaerobic
conditions.
Bacillus thuringiensis is used in agriculture for the
control of insect pest. 148. The first bioherbicide developed in 1981 was
Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack insects and based on:
other arthropods. (a) Phytophthora palmivora
(b) Phytophthora infestans
• Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Nostoc and Azospirillum
(c) Bacillus thuringiensis
are used as biofertilizer.
(d) Azadirachta indica
• Tobacco mosaic virus and Aphid are used as AIIMS-2009
agricultural pests.
Ans. (a) : Phytophthora palmivora was the first bio
145. Which of the following can be used as a herbicide developed in 1981, used to control Morrenia
biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant odorant (milkweed) in citrus orchards. it was fungus
disease? based mycoherbicide.
(a) Chlorella (b) Anabaena • Myco- herbicides are one of the classes of bio
(c) Lactobacillus (d) Trichoderma herbicides. This uses fungus which is parasitic to plants.
NEET-2019 This herbicide is reliable, easy to apply, easy to stores,
Ans. (d) : Biocontrol agents includes microbes and and safe for the farmers and the crops too.
insects that control the plant diseases and pests. Mycoherbicides are cost effective to, as they produce a
They control harmful pests such as weeds, parasitic huge number of spores once applied, there is no need to
apply them after every crop cycle.
nematodes and other pests.
• Trichoderma species belongs to the fungal class 149. Which one of the following proved effective for
biological control of nematodal disease in
Ascomycetes, they are found abundantly in soil. plants?
It is used as biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant (a) Gliocladium virens
diseases. (b) Paecilomyces lilacinus
It is commonly used against infection – causing (c) Pisolithus tinctorius
parasites in pulses, cotton and onion. (d) Pseudomonas cepacia
They protect the roots of the plants from pathogenic AIPMT-2008
infections.
Ans. (b) : Paecilomyces lilacinus is a fungus that is
146. A biocontrol agent to be a part of an integrated naturally found in soil and is used as a biocontrol agent
pest management should be against nematodes. It is effective against a wide range
(a) Species-specific and inactive on non-target of nematodes, including root-knot nematodes, cyst
organisms nematodes and foliar nematodes. Paecilomyces lilacinus
(b) Species-specific and symbiotic work by parasitizing the nematodes, either by killing
(c) Free living and broad spectrum them directly or by preventing them from reproducing.
(d) Narrow spectrum and symbiotic It is also a producer of antifungal compounds, which
can help to protect plants from other diseases.
NEET (Odisha)-2019
150. A genetically engineered micro-organism used
Ans. (a) : A biocontrol agent to be a part of an successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a
integrated pest management should be species – species of:-
specific, free living, narrow spectrum and inactive on (a) Bacillus (b) Pseudomonas
non target organisms. (c) Trichoderma (d) Xanthomonas
Example – Trichoderma is a fungus. It is used as a SRM JEEE-2019 / AIPMT-2007
biocontrol agent against plant pathogens. It is a free
Ans. (b) : The genetically engineered microorganism
living fungus and is commonly found on the root
used successefully in bioremediation of oil spills is a
surface. species of Pseudomonas putida. Pseudomonas putida is
147. Select the correct statement. a gram negative, rod shaped bacterium that is naturally
(a) Acetobacter aceti produces citric acid found in soil and water. It is a versatile organism that
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used as clot can degrade a variety of organic compounds, including
buster hydrocarbons, pesticides and other pollutants.
151. Excellent biocontrol agents to treat ecologically Bacillus thuringiensis is a soil bacterium which is used
sensitive areas as bioinsecticide. .
(a) Nucleopolyhedrovirus Glomus is a fungus that forms a symbiotic relationship
(b) Trichoderma with plant roots and helps them to take up nutrients
(c) Bacillus thuringiensis from the soil.
(d) Azospirillum 155. Which of the following is not used as a
AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II biopesticide ?
Ans. (a) : The genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus provides (a) Xanthomonas campestris
viruses that are being used for species-specific narrow (b) Bacillus thringiensis
spectrum insecticidal application they have been shown (c) Trichoderma harzianum
to have no negative impact on plants, birds, animals, (d) Nuclear Polyhedral Virus (NPV)
fish and even non-target insects. AIPMT-2009
152. One of the major difficulties in the biological Ans. (a) : Xanthomonas campestris is a Gram –
control of insect pest is that negative bacterium that causes black rot of crucifer by
(a) The method is less effective as compared with darkening the vascular tissue. It is not used as a
the use of insecticides biopesticide. Biopesticides are certain types of
(b) The practical difficulty of introducing the pesticides made up of living microorganisms. A
predator to specific areas biopesticide is a biological susbtance or organism that
(c) The predator develops a preference to other damage, kills or repels organism seems as pests.
diets and may itself become a pest 156. Identify the incorrect statement with reference
(d) The predator does not always survive when of Biocontrol agents:
transferred to a new environment (a) They help to increase the use of synthetic
SRM JEEE-2019 pesticides
Ans. (d) : One of the major difficulties in the biological (b) They do not affect non-target pests
control of insect pest is that the predator does not (c) They do not show any negative impact on
always survive when transferred to a new environment. crop plants
153. Which of the following is wrongly matched in (d) They are significant in treating ecologically
the given table sensitive area
Microbe Product Application Karnataka CET-2019
(a) Clostridium Lipase removal of oil stain Ans. (a) : Biocontrol agents do not help to increase the
butylicum use of synthetic pesticides. In fact, they are often used
(b) Trichoderma Cyclosporin A immunosuppre-ssive as an alternative to synthetic pesticides because they are
polysporum drug more environment friendly.
(c) Monascus Statins lowering of blood
purpureus cholesterol 157. Which of the following bio-engineered bacteria
(d) Streptococc-us Streptokinase removal of clot from
is utilized for cleaning of marine oil slicks?
blood vessel (a) Escherichia coli (b) Pseudomonas syringae
NEET-2016 Phase-I (c) Pseudomonas putida (d) Rhizoctonia solani
Ans. (a) : Clostridium butylicum is used for butyric JIPMER-2012 / AP EAMCET-2011
acid production. Ans. (c) : Pseudomonas putida is a genetically
• Lipases are lipid dissolving enzymes that are engineered bacterium used to degrade aromatic
obtained from Candida lipolytica. compound. Pseudomonas putida is a Gram-negative
• Cyclosporin A are immnuno suppressive drugs which bacterium that is found in soil, water and plants. It also
are obtained from Trichoderma polysporum. used to degrade a wide range of organic pollutant, such
as hydro carbons found in crude oil. It is widely used in
• Statins are produced by yeast Monascus purpureus. It number of field trials to clean up oil spills. For
is used as the blood-cholesterol lowering agent.
example- it is being used to clean up the deepwater
• Streptokinase is an enzyme obtained from the Horizon oil spill in the gulf of Mexico.
cultures of some haemolytic Streptococci that can
bind and activate human plasminogen which help in 158. Which of the following can be controlled by
removal of clot from blood vessels. using biopesticides?
(a) Insects (b) Diseases
154. A common biocontrol agent for the control of
plant diseases is – (c) Weeds (d) All of these
(a) Baculovirus (b) Bacillus thuringiensis JIPMER-2012
(c) Glomus (d) Trichoderma Ans. (d) : Biopesticides can be used to control insects,
AIPMT (Screening)-2010 diseases and weeds. They are derived from natural
Ans. (d) : Trichoderma is a genus of imperfect fungi materials, such as plants, bacteria and fungi and are
that produces toxins which inhibit the growth of other generally less harmful to the environment and human
fungi and thus protects the plant from fungal disease. health then conventional pesticide.
Baculovirus (Nucleopolyhedrovirus) are also used as • Insects- Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt), Neem oil, ladybugs.
biocontrol agents but they are used for the control of • Diseases-Trichoderma, copper sulphate and sulfur.
insects pests. • Weeds – Herbicidal soaps, corn gluten meal.
159. To control the stored grain pests the better and H. Microbes work as a Biofertilizer
safe method is
(a) The use of chemical pesticides in small 162. Match the items in Column I with those in
amounts Column II and choose the answer.
(b) The use of less toxic pesticides Column - I Column - II
(c) The biological control of pests A. Blue - green algae as 1. Ectomycorrhiza
(d) Fumigation biofertilizer
AMU-1998 B. Fungi as biofertilizer 2. Thiobacillus sp.
Ans. (c) : To control the stored grain pests the better C. Free living nitrogen 3. Anabaena sp.
and safe method is "The biological control of pests". fixing bacteria
The ultimate goal of biological control is to suppress D. Phosphate solubilizing 4. Clostridium sp.
pest population and damage without pesticide or with bacteria
reduced pesticide. 5. Azospirillum sp.
160. Match the column and choose the correct (a) A-3 B-1 C-5 D-2
option. (b) A-5 B-1 C-2 D-4
Column – I Column - II (c) A-5 B-4 C-1 D-2
A. Escherichia coli 1. Nif gene (d) A-4 B-3 C-4 D-2
WB JEE-2012
B. Rhizobium 2. Digest
meliloti hydrocarbons of Ans. (a) :
crude oil Column - I Column - II
C. Bacillus 3. Human insulin A. Blue-green algae as Anabaena sp.
biofertilizer
thuringiensis production
B. Fungi as biofertilizer Ecotomycorrhiza
D. Pseudomonas 4. Bio control of
putida fungal disease C. Free living nitrogen Azospirillum sp.
fixing bacteria
5. Bio and
D. Phosphate solubilizing Thiobacillus sp.
degradable bacteria
insecticide
163. A gas produced by paddy fields and connected
(a) A-3 B-1 C-5 D-2 with global warming is
(b) A-1 B-5 C-2 D-4 (a) CO2 (b) Chlorine
(c) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 (c) H2S (d) Methane
(d) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 J&K CET-2008
VMMC-2015 Ans. (d) : Methane is the second most important green
Ans. (a) : Correctly matched house gas after CO2, is emitted from flooded paddy
fields as methanogens in the flooded soil produce it in
Column-I Column-II
large quantities.
(A) Esherichia coli Human insulin production 164. Some blue-green algae can be used as
(B) Rhizobium melilote Nif gene biofertilizer because:
(C) Bacillus thuringiensis Bio and degradable (a) they are photosynthetic
insection (b) they have mucilage
(D) Pseudomonas putida Digest hydrocarbons of (c) they grow everywhere
crude oil. (d) they can fix nitrogen
Karnataka CET-2002
161. Biopesticides do not control
Ans. (d) : Some blue-green algae such as Anabaena,
(a) Viruses (b) Nematodes
Nostoc, Oscillatoria are used as bi biofertilizer because
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Fungi and bacteria they can fix nitrogen. Nitrogen is an essential nutrient of
VMMC-2008 plant growth, the blue green algae, convert the atmospheric
Ans. (b) : Biopesticides are pesticides derived from nitrogen into a form that can be used by plant. This is done
natural sources, such as plants, animal and by specialized cells called heterocyst's. .
microorganisms. They are used to control pests and 165. Which one of the following is not a
diseases in agriculture, forestry and other industries. biofertilizer?
Biopesticides can be effective against a variety of pests, (a) Bacillus thuringiensis (b) Azotobacter
including insects, fungi and bacteria. However, they are (c) Azolla (d) Clostridium
not effective against or nematodes. DUMET-2008
Ans. (a) : Bacillus thuringiensis is a soil bacterium (c) Cyanobacteria, bacteria and mycorrhizal
which is used as bioinsecticide. fungi
• Azotobacter, Clostridium and Azolla are used as (d) All of these
biofertilizer. Haryana PMT-2002 / J&K CET-2002
• Azotobacter, Clostridium are free living nitrogen Ans. (d) : Bio-fertilizers are organisms that enrich the
fixing bacteria live freely in the soil and free form nutrient quality of the soil. They bring about nutrient
nitrogen fixation. enrichment by enhancing the availability of nutrients
• Azolla is fresh water fern Azolla-Anabaena like nitrogen and phosphorous to the crops.
symbiotic association is the main biofertilizer which • Biofertilizers are mostly including different types of
is inoculated in rice fields. microorganism such as nitrogen fixing bacteria,
166. Which one is incorrect statement? nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria and mycorrhiza.
(a) Green manures are added to the soil 172. VAM is:
(b) Fertilizers cause soil and water pollution (a) Ecto-mycorrhiza (b) Endo-mycorrhiza
(c) Biofertilizers improve soil fertility (c) Bio-herbicide (d) Bio-insecticide
(d) Berseem is an ideal biofertilizer Haryana PMT-2002
AMU-2011 Ans. (b) : Vesicular-arbuscular mycorrhiza (VAM) is a
Ans. (d) : Berseem, a leguminous fodder crop, is used symbiotic association between certain fungi and
as green manure in irrigated areas as it improve the angiosperm roots. In many grasses and some other
fertility of soil. crops, the fungal hyphae penetrate to the cortical cells,
which swell to form vesicles on arbuscules called
167. The mains sources of biofertilizers are VAM. It has important role in phosphate nutrition of
(a) Bacteria (b) Cyanobacteria plants. VAM is a type of endo-mycorrhiza.
(c) Fungi (d) All of these 173. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between:
AMU-2010
(a) Fungi and roots of higher plants
Ans. (d) : The organisms like bacteria, blue green algae (b) Algae and fungi
(cyanobacteria) or fungi, which enrich the soil in
nutrients are called biofertilizers. They can used to (c) Fungi and bacteria
supplement or replace chemical fertilizers. Bio (d) Blue-green algae and roots of higher plants
fertilizers are a sustainable and environmentally friendly Haryana PMT-2007 / Haryana PMT-2002
way to improve soil health and crop yields. Ans. (a) : Symbiotic association between roots of
168. Biofertilizers are: higher plants and fungal hyphae, is called mycorrhizal
(a) cow dung manure and farmyard waste association on mycorrhiza.
(b) quick growing crop ploughed under soil 174. Which one is present in the roots of legumes?
(c) Anabaena and Azolla (a) Rhizobium (b) Nostoc
(d) none of these (c) Anabaena (d) Azospirillum
HP CET-2013 / VMMC-2003 / AIPMT-1997 Haryana PMT-2002
Ans. (c) : Biofertilizers are organisms that enrich the Ans. (a) : Rhizobium bacteria live symbiotically in root
nutrient quality of the soil. The main sources of nodules of legumes, which fix atmospheric N2 increase
biofertilizers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria. the fertility of soil.
• In paddy fields, Anabaena- Azolla symbiotic 175. A green manure is:
association is the main biofertilizer, which is found to (a) Sesbania (b) Wheat
increase field up to 50%. (c) Maize (d) Rice
169. Which of the following is symbiotic bacteria? Haryana PMT-2002
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter Ans. (a) : Green manures are fast growing herbaceous
(c) Clostridium (d) Streptomyces crops which are ploughed down and mixed with the soil
Manipal-2000 while still green for enrichment of soil. For example-
Ans. (a) : Rhizobium bacteria live symbiotically in root Sesbania sesban (Dhaincha), Crotalaria juncea
nodules of legumes, which fix atmospheric N2 increase (Sunnhemp), Barseem etc. are belongs to the family
the fertility of soil. leguminosae.
170. Root nodules for nitrogen fixation in non 176. Which of the following is used as green manure?
leguminous trees are produced by species of the (a) Azolla (b) Azadirachta indica
genus (c) Crotalaria juncea (d) Hevea brassiliansis
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter Haryana PMT-2005
(c) Frankia (d) Thiobacillus Ans. (c) : Crotalaria juncea, also known a sunnhump, is
CG PMT-2007 a leguminous crop that is commonly used as green
Ans. (c) : Frankia is a microbe that produces nitrogen manure. It is also a good source of nitrogen, which is
fixing nodules on the roots of non leguminous plants essential for plant growth.
(e.g. Alnus sp.). Frankia is free-living in the soil, but as
symbionts it can fix atmospheric nitrogen. • Azolla is used as a livestock feed and fertilizer.
• Azadirachta indica, also known as neem, used for its
171. Bio-fertilizers include:
medicinal and insecticidal properties.
(a) Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria
(b) Nitrogen fixing bacteria • Hevea brasiliensis (rubber tree) is useful for its latex.
177. The yielding of rice is increased by 183. Bacillus thuringiensis is a soil bacterium that
(a) Azolla (b) Nostoc produces a _____ with insecticidal properties.
(c) Anabaena (d) Clostridium (a) Polysaccharide (b) Hormone
BHU PMT (Mains)-2008 (c) Protein (d) Lipid
Ans. (a) : Azolla is an aquatic fern, coexist with rice MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I
plants. It forms symbiotic association with nitrogen Ans. (c) : Soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis
fixing bacteria known as Anabaena. This association is produces proteins that kill certain insects like
used as a biofertilizer to enhance rice yield. lepidopterans, coleopterans and dipterans (flies,
178. BGA (blue-green algae) is chiefly used as mosquitoes).
biofertilizer in the crop of: • Bacteria produce protein crystals containing inactive
(a) Wheat (b) Gram toxin. Hence these toxins do not harm the bacteria, but
(c) Paddy (d) Mustard kill insects when they ingest plant parts expressing
them. Alkaline pH of alimentary canal of insect
Haryana PMT-1999 solubilize the crystal and converts inactive protoxins
Ans. (c) : Blue-green algae (BGA) is chiefly used as into active toxins.
biofertilizer in paddy fields. 184. Azolla is used as bio-fertilizer as it has:
• Blue-green algae are autotrophic microbes widely (a) Mycorrhiza (b) Cyanobacteria
distributed in aquatic and terrestrial environments many (c) Rhizobium (d) Large quantity of humus
of which can fix atmospheric nitrogen, e.g. Anabaena,
Haryana PMT-2003
Nostoc etc.
Ans. (b) : Biofertilizers are the organisms that enrich the
179. Which of the following is a biofertilizer? soil and increase the availability of nutrients to plants.
(a) Funaria (b) Fern
• Azolla is an aquatic fern, used as biofertilizer as it has
(c) Anabaena (d) Fungus a symbiotic association with nitrogen fixing
CG PMT-2006 / JIPMER-2006 cyanobacteria (e.g. Anabaena).
Ans. (c) : Biofertilizers are organisms that enrich the 185. VAM is useful for:
nutrient quality of the soil. The main sources of (a) phosphate nutrition (b) breaking of dormancy
biofertilizers are bacteria, cyanobacteria and fungi.
(c) decrease in diseases (d) retarding flowering
• Cyanobacteria e.g. Anabaena, Nostoc fix atmospheric Haryana PMT-2003
nitrogen thus enriching the soil fertility. Hence, these
organisms are used as biofertilizers. Ans. (a) : Vesicular- arbuscular mycorrhiza (VAM) is
a symbiotic association between certain fungi and
180. Nostoc is known to perform angiosperm roots.
(a) only photosynthesis • VAM is endomicorrhizal association, lives in cortex
(b) photosynthesis and nitrogen fixation of root, mostly in intercellular spaces with some hyphal
simultaneously tips passing inside cortical cells. It has significant role
(c) only nitrogen fixation in phosphate nutrition of plants.
(d) either photosynthesis or nitrogen fixatior a 186. Best biofertilizer for paddy fields is
time (a) Rhizobium (b) Azolla
CG PMT-2006 (c) Anthoceros (d) Bacillus polymyxa
Ans. (b) : Nostoc is photosynthetic blue green algae. It CG PMT-2011
contains chlorophyll pigment and performs
Ans. (b) : Azolla is a fresh water fern, coexist with rice
photosynthesis. It also has ability to fix atmospheric
plants. Leaves of Azolla contain cyanobacteria
nitrogen, make it available to plants in a form they can use. Anabaena which fixes atmospheric nitrogen. Azolla –
181. Micorrhiza is a Anabaena symbiotic association is main biofertilizer for
(a) parasitic relation between fungus and algae paddy fields. It can increase rice production up to 50%.
(b) symbiotic relation between fungus and algae 187 Mycorrhizal association of which plant enables
(c) symbiotic relation between fungus and roots it to utilize amino acid as N – source?
(d) parasitic relation between fungus and roots (a) Strawberry (b) Cranberry
CG PMT-2006 (c) Orchids (d) Pinus
Ans. (c) : Micorrhiza is the symbiotic relationship CG PMT-2010
between fungus and roots of higher plants. It is Ans. (d) : Orchids are a type of plant that has a
mutualistic relationship because both organisms are symbiotic relationship with mycorrhizal fungi. These
benefited to each other. fungi help the orchid to absorb nutrients from the soil,
182. Which one of the following organism used as a including nitrogen from amino acids. Orchids are
biofertilizer is free living and never shows unable to absorb nitrogen directly from the soil, so they
symbiosis ? rely on their mycorrhizal partners to help them get this
(a) Mycorrhiza (b) Azotobacter essential nutrient.
(c) Anabaena (d) Rhizobium 188. Rhizobia form nodule in Glycine max
MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I (Soybean) is
Ans. (b) : Azotobacter is non symbiotic, free living (a) Azorhizobium (b) Bradyrhizobium
nitrogen fixing bacteria of soil, which increase fertility (c) Sinorhizobium (d) Mesorhizobium
of soil and hence yield of crop plants. CG PMT-2010
Ans. (b) : Soybean (Glycine max) is one of the 194. Among the following pairs of microbes, which
important legume crops. It forms symbiotic association pair has both the microbes that can be used as
with nitrogen fixing rhizobia. In this association biofertilizers?
soybean can be nodulated by rhizobial genera (a) Aspergillus and Cyanobacteria
Bradyrhizobium. (b) Aspergillus and Rhizopus
189. Nostoc does not form symbiotic association (c) Rhizobium and Rhizopus
with (d) Cyanobacteria and Rhizobium
(a) Cycas (b) Anthoceros NEET (Odisha)-2019
(c) Pinus (d) Gunnera Ans. (d) : Biofertilizers are the suspension of
CG PMT-2010 microorganism which mainly increases the growth of
the plants. These secrete the growth promoting
Ans. (c) : Nostoc species form symbiotic associations substances.
with bryophytes (Anthoceros), the pteridophyte fern
Both cyanobacteria and Rhizobium are used as bio
Azolla, gymnosperm cycads and the angiosperm genus fertilizers. Cyanobacteria (BGA) are able to fix
Gunnera. It does not form symbiotic association with atmospheric nitrogen. They can convert nitrogen from
Pinus. the air into a form that plant can use. Rhizobium is able
• Pinus forms symbiotic association with fungal hyphae to fix nitrogen fixation and the symbiotic relationship
is called mycorrhiza. In this association both the with leguminous plants.
organisms get mutually benefitted. 195. Azolla is used as a biofertilizer because it:
190. Which is the most efficient free nitrogen fixer (a) Multiplies very fast to produce massive
cyanobacterium in field of rice? biomass
(a) Nostoc (b) Tolypothrix (b) Has association of nitrogen-fixing Rhizobium
(c) Aulosira (d) Anabaena (c) Has association of nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria
BVP-2013 (d) Has association of mycorrhiza.
Ans. (c) : Cyanobacteria like Nostoc, Anabaena, AIIMS-2003 / DUMET-2002
Aulosira are the most common nitrogen fixing Ans. (c) : Azolla is water fern which is also used as a
organisms, probably with the help of heterocysts. In the biofertilizer because it forms a symbiotic association
rice fields, Aulosira is most efficient nitrogen fixing with nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria. Azolla pinnata a
cyanobacteria. pteridophyte, is used as an excellent fertilizer in rice
191. A free living nitrogen fixing blue-green algae field. Biofertilizers are eco-friendly and cost effective.
which also form a symbiotic association with a 196. Consider the following statements (A-D) about
pteridophyte organic farming
(a) Anabaena (b) Chlorella (A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt
(c) Nostoc (d) Tolypothrix cotton
BVP-2013 (B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like
compost
Ans. (a) : The free-living nitrogen fixing blue green (C) Does not use pesticides and urea
algae that also forms a symbiotic association with a
(D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and
pteridophyte is Anabaena. Anabaena is known for its minerals
ability to fix nitrogen under a wide range of conditions.
Which of the above statements are correct
It is a valuable bio-fertilizer for crops such as rice.
Anabaena forms symbiotic association with the water (a) (A) and (B) only (b) (B), (C) and (D
fern Azolla (a pteridophytes) (c) (C) and (D) only (d) (B) and (C) only
AIPMT (Mains)-2011
192. Gas being produced by paddy fields and
involved in global warming is Ans. (d) : Organic forming means not use any types of
(a) CO2 (b) Chlorine inorganic fertilizer, pesticides, insecticides.
(c) Methane (d) H2S • Pure used organic wasted like as cow dunk, bacteria,
algae & fungi etc.
CMC Ludhiana-2010
• Organic farming used to increase agriculture
Ans. (c) : Methane is the one of the green house gases productivity and maintain sustainable soil
responsible for global warming, emitted from flooded productivity, but not to produce particularly,
rice fields as bacteria in the waterlogged soil produce it vegetable rich in vitamins and minerals.
in large quantities.
197. Which of the following is true pair of
193. Nodules with nitrogen -fixing bacteria are biofertilizers : -
found in (a) Azolla and BGA
(a) Cotton (b) Gram (b) Nostoc and legume
(c) Mustard (d) Wheat (c) Rhizobium and grasses
MGIMS Wardha-2010 (d) Salmonella & E. Coli
Ans. (b) : Nodules on the roots of leguminous plants AIPMT-2001
like gram formed by the symbiotic association of Ans. (a) : The term biofertilizers refer to the substance
Rhizobium. These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen containing microorganism, it may be used to include all
into organic forms, which is used by the plants as organic resources (manure) for plant growth through
nutrient. which are rendered in an available from for plant
absorption microorganism or plant associations or Ans. (a) : Lowest number of chromosomes are found in
interactions so in given pair Azolla and BGA is to pair Haplopappus. It has diploid chromosome number of 2n
of biofertilizer. = 4.
• Biofertilizers are three types, nitrogen fixing becteria Haplopappus gracilis is flowering plant genus and
nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria and mycorrhiza. belong to family Asteraceae. Cyprus has a diploid
198. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer? chromosome number of 2n=20 and Salix has a diploid
(a) Mycorrhiza (b) Agrobacterium chromosome number of 2n = 76.
(c) Rhizobium (d) Nostoc 204. Fuel wood required per person per day is:
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 (a) 30 kg (b) 3 kg
Ans. (b) : Agrobacterium is a genus of bacteria that can (c) 4 kg (d) 5 kg
cause crown gall disease in plants. It is not a Haryana PMT-2002
biofertilizer because it does not provide any nutrients to Ans. (b) : The amount of fuel wood required per person
plants or help them to grow. The mycorrhiza is a per day is around 3kg. This can vary widely depending
symbiotic association between a fungus and a plant, on factors like cooking method, climate and efficiency
Rhizobium bacteria are helpful in the nitrogen fixation of stores.
and the nostoc which is a blue green algae also fix the
nitrogen in the soil. 205. Gasohol contains:
(a) 10 – 15% alcohol (b) 20 – 25% alcohol
199. The biofertilizers are
(c) 30 – 35% alcohol (d) 70 – 80% alcohol
(a) Cowdung, manure (b) Anabaena and Azolla
Haryana PMT-2002
(c) Chemical manure (d) All of the above
AMU-2002 Ans. (a) : Gasohol is a mixture of 10% ethanol (grain
alcohol or beverage alcohol) and 90% petrol. It is used
Ans. (b) : Biofertilizers are the organisms that enrich as fuel in engines. The advantage of using gasohol is
the soil and increase the availability of nutrients to that there is less emission of pollutants because gasohol
plants, increase plant yield, improve soil texture. burns slowly and completely.
• Nitrogen fixing bacteria and cyanobacteria and
mycorrhizal fungi are example of biofertilizers. 206. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical
industrial plant removes:-
• Anabaena is free living nitrogen fixing bacteria and it
also forms symbiotic association with water fern, (a) Gases like sulphur dioxide
Azolla. Azolla-Anabaena association is of great (b) Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or
importance to agriculture. above
(c) Gases like ozone and methane
200. Bordeaux mixture is used as a:
(a) Fertilizer (b) Fungicide (d) Particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer
or less
(c) Rodenticide (d) Soil testing chemical
AIPMT-2014
BVP-2002
Ans. (a) : Gases like sulphur dioxide which is a major
Ans. (b) : The combination of coppersulfate, lime and pollutant of chemical industrial plant is removed by an
water, called Bordeaux mixture. This mixture is used as absorbent in the scrubber.
fungicide in farms and fruit garden which prevents them
from mildew and fungi or fungal diseases. • Dry scrubbing method is mainly used for acidic gases
like sulphur dioxide (SO2). Scrubbers are the pollution
201. Natural silk contains control device which mainly helps to remove some
(a) Nitrogen (b) Potassium particulates and gases from industrial exhaust streams.
(c) Magnesium (d) Phosphorus
207. During Lactic acid fermentation,-----------------
CG PMT-2011
(a) neither O2 is used, nor CO2 is liberated.
Ans. (a) : Natural silk contains two proteins sericin and (b) O2 is not used , CO2 is liberated
fibroin. Both of these proteins contain nitrogen. It is so
important for the growth and development of plants and (c) O2 is used, CO2 is liberated
animals. (d) O2 is used, CO2 is not liberated
202. Cells in the quiescent stage (G0) Karnataka CET-2010
(a) Show indefinite proliferation Ans. (a) : During lactic acid fermentation, neither O2 is
(b) Remain metabolically active used, nor CO2 is liberated. During lactic acid
(c) Always become cancerous fermentation in cell the pyruvate produced during
(d) Remain metabolically inactive glycolysis is converted to lactic acid by oxidizing an
Karnataka CET-2019 electron carrier.
Ans. (b) : Cells in the quiescent stage (G0) are not 208. The principle upon which a lactometer works is
actively dividing, but they are still metabolically active. (a) Viscoity (b) Density
They can perform all of the normal cellular functions (c) Surface tension (d) Presence of protein
that are necessary to maintain themselves, such as KVPY (SA)-2011
respiration, protein synthesis and waste removal. Ans. (b) : Lactometer is a small size device of glass that
203. Lowest number of chromosomes are found in: is used to measure the cleanliness or quality of milk.
(a) Haplopappus (b) Cyprus The principle of lactometer works upon density,
(c) Salix (d) None of these because it determines the density of milk in relation to
Rajasthan PMT-2004 water.
Unit-V : Biotechnology
15. BIOTECHNOLOGY : PRINCIPLES
AND PROCESSES
(c) Aspergillus
A. What is Biotechnology ? (d) Penicillium
AIPMT-1998
1. With reference to Biotechnology and its Ans. (a) : Which of the following most used in genetic
application; choose the incorrect statement engineering E. coil and Agrobacterium.
from the options : Genetic engineering is a branch of science that uses
(a) Genetically modified plants can produce toxic various biotechnological technique to manipulate an
allergic metabolities organisms genome to create species with desired traits.
(b) Change in genetic constitution under natural
• E.coli has the ability to transfer DNA literally to one
environmental pressure
from other species while agro bacterium can transfer
(c) To stop the exploitation and to recompensate genes to plants and fungi by causing crown gall disease
the damages, it is necessary to form strict
rules to curb biopiracy • Experimentally have shown that certain Bacteria has
(d) Biotechnology may pose unforeseen risks to the ability to naturally take in and express foreign
the environment, including risk to DNA.
biodiversity. 5. Genetic engineering involves :
GUJCET-2019 (a) Use of restriction endonuclease on bacterial
Ans. (b) : In Biotechnology genetic constitution does not DNA and formation of new traits
go for natural selection or traditional breeding method. (b) Use of Ligase for cutting DNA
• Biotechnology means artificially altering DNA in the (c) Developing instruments
genetic material of an organism or artificially merging (d) Use of statistic in genetics
DNA from different species which could not reproduce AIPMT-1998
on their own. Ans. (a) : (i) DNA cleavage - Restriction endonuclease
2. Bioinformatics is an interdisciplinary branch cleaves DNA in to fragments.
which is concerned with the application of (ii) Recombinant DNA production - DNA Fragments
(a) Engineering techniques in biological studies inserted into vectors.
(b) Chemistry in understanding the biological (iii) Cloning - More recombinant DNA Copy.
phenomenon (iv) Screening- Most Challenging part of any genetic
(c) Physics in understanding various life processes experiment.
(d) Information science in analysing the Those are the major phases involves in genetic
biological data engineering.
Karnataka CET-2006 6. In India, the organization responsible for
Ans. (d) : Bioinformatics is a branch which is concerned assessing the safety of introducing genetically
with the application of information science in analysing the modified organisms for public use is
biological data. Bioinformatics includes biological studies (a) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
that use computer programming as part of their (b) Council for Scientific and Industrial Research
methodology, as well as specific analysis 'pipelines' that (CSIR)
are multiple used, particularly in the field of genomics. (c) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
3. Product of biotechnology is (GEAC)
(a) transgenic crops (GM crops) (b) humulin (d) Research Committee on Genetic
(c) biofertilizer (d) All of the above Manipulation (RCGM)
JIPMER-2012 NEET-2018
Ans. (d) : Biotechnology may be, simply defined as the Ans. (c) : The Genetic Engineering Appraisal
use of microorganism, animals or plant's cells, thin Committee (GEAC) functions in the Ministry of
components to generate products useful to human beings. Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
The product of biotechnology are- • GEAC is responsible for introducing genetically
• GM (Genetically modified) Crops, Transgenic modified organism for public use.
animals, Biofertilizer, Antibodies, hormone like • The committee is also responsible for appraisal of
humulin (genetically engineered human insulin) etc. proposal relating to release of genetically engineered
4. Which of the following most used in genetic organism and products into the environment
engineering including experimental field trials.
(a) E. coil and Agrobacterium • GFAC work under Environment (protection) act
(b) Mycobacteria and Salmonella 1986.
Biotechnology : Principles and Processes 748 YCT
B. Principles of Biotechnology 10. Extra nuclear genes occur in
(a) plastids and inherited
7. List-I List-II (b) plasmid and not inherited
(A) Recognition (I) Different locations (c) mitochondria and inherited by male
sequence (d) mitochondria and inherited by female
CG PMT-2007
(B) Staggered cut (II) Joining of
Ans. (d) : Extra nuclear genes occur in mitochondria
fragments
and inherited by female. The extra nuclear genes or
(C) Cohesive ends (III) Hind II cytoplasm inheritance is different from normal nuclear
(D) Ligase (IV) Overlapping inheritance. Very basic of this difference is the unequal
stretches contribution made by father and mother as zygote
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II receives most of it cytoplasm from the egg and very
little or no cytoplasm from the sperm. Thus, it has two
(b) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
distinct features
(c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (i) It is more or less material inheritance, i.e., here only
(d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV the female parent contribution towards inheritance
AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II because during fertilization the mitochondria in sperm
Ans. (c) : are usually discarded and the offspring inherit their
mitochondria exclusively from the mother's egg. This is
Recognition sequence Hind II why mitochondrial DNA (mt DNA) is often used in
Staggerd cut Different location genetic studies to trace maternal ancestry.
Cohesive ends overlaping stretches (ii) Due to the participation of female, only the result of
reciprocal crosses.
Ligase joining of fragenents
11. Which one of the following is useful in
8. Cloning is meant for identifying the different strains of a causal
(a) production of HaH gene is E coli microbe of an infectious disease?
(b) to preserve the genotype of organism (a) Colchicine
(c) to replace the original gene (b) Agrobacterium
(d) all of the above (c) Complementary DNA
AMU-2011 (d) Crystal violet
AP EAMCET-2003
Ans. (b) : Cloning is meant for to preserve the genotype
Ans. (c) : Complementary DNA is useful in identifying
of organism. Cloning involves multiplication of the the different strains of a causal microbe of an infectious
same genome and thus variations are limited. Clone is a disease.
population of cell or individuals which are genetically • Temin and Baltimore (1970) independently
identical with the death of an organism, a particular discovered enzyme reverse transcriptase in retroviruses
genotype is lost. (RNA contain viruses) this enzyme can be used to
• Cloning is the production of an organism with exactly construct a DNA copy called complementary DNA
similar genetic makeup as in the mother individual. The (cDNA), of any RNA.
cloning is of two types namely i.e.- gene cloning at • Colchicine- Colchicine is a alkaloid drug isolated
molecular level and cloning of organism. from the corm of the autumn crocus (Colchicum
autamale). It prevents mitosis in the metaphase by
9. Plasmids are ideal vectors for gene cloning as inhibiting the development of spindle fibrils, showing
they the division of the centeromeres and preventing the
(a) can be multiplied in a laboratory using division of the centrioles
enzymes 12. Study the following table:
(b) can be multiplied by culturing Component character used in
(c) are self-replicating 1. Plasmid – Small circular DNA – Gene
(d) replicate freely outside the bacterial cells cloning
CG PMT-2007 2. Cosmid – Restriction enzyme – Identification
Ans. (c) : Plasmids are ideal vectors for gene cloning as of genes
they are self replicating. 3. Vector –Restriction enzyme – Isolation of
genes
Plasmid are ideal cloning vectors in gene cloning
4. Gene transfer – Vector – Gene carrier
because they can multiply themselves in a bacterial cell
Two components in above table show correct
irrespective of Replication of genome DNA.
combination of their character and use.
• Term plasmid used by Lederberg (1952) it is Identify the correct pair.
extrasomal DNA. (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
• Plasmid are of three types. F-factor or fertility factor, (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
R-factor, Col-factor. AP EAMCET-2004
Ans. (a) : Plasmid are small circular DNA other than • Replication
bacterial chromosome. These are used in gene cloning. • Maturation
Vectors are the carrier molecules which can transfer • Release
genes and are widely used in genetic engineering
• Reinfection
programs.
So, PCR is not used in lytic cycle, while PCR used in
Plasmid like pBR322 is commonly used plasmid in
DNA finger printing, DNA cloning and gene
genetic engineering.
amplification.
13. Circular double helical DNA molecule is a:
(a) virus (b) protozoan 16. Genetic recombination by transduction in
bacteria was discovered first in this:
(c) plasmid (d) phasmid
(a) Salmonella typhimurium
AP EAMCET-2001
(b) Escherichia coli
Ans. (c) : Plasmid- Plasmid is a small, circular double
stranded DNA molecule distinct from a cell's (c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
chromosomal DNA. (d) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
• Virus- Derived from Latin word which means poison AP EAMCET-2002
or toxins. Study of virus called virology. Ans. (a) : Transduction is a mode genetic transfer from
• Protozoan- Name Protozoa is given by Gold Fass, bacteria to another through a virus. There is no direct
free-living, aquatic, unicellular body, naked, contact between the bacterial cell. The other ways of
protoplasmic level of body organization, holozoic genetic recombination in bacteria include
nutrition and intracellular digestion. transformation and conjugation.
14. Production of a human protein in bacteria by • In this process, bacteriophages, which infect bacteria,
genetic engineering is possible because use host cell to multiplicate and while, when these
(a) bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing viruses infect new bacterial cells, the bacterial genome
reactions that they carry may get inserted into the host genome
(b) the human chromosome can replicate in transduction commonly used in genetic engineering for
bacterial cell inserting foreign DNA into the host cell. Transduction
(c) the mechanism of gene regulation is identical was discovered by Zinder and Lederberg in salmonella
in humans and bacteria typhimurium in 1951.
(d) the genetic code is universal • Conjugation was discover Lederberg and Tatum in
CG PMT-2006 1946 in Escherichia coll.
Ans. (d) : Production of a human protein in bacteria by • Transformation was discovered by Frederic Griffith in
genetic engineering is possible because the genetic code 1928 in streptococcus pneumonia in 1928.
is universal. Genetic code (Triplet) discovered by -
• Agrobacterium tumefaciens use to transfer DNA to
George Gamow
plant cell purposes of plant genetic engineering in 20th
43 = 4 × 4 × 4 = 64 codons
century.
Initiation codon → AUG
17. Identify the vector suitable to clone long
61 codons code the different Amino acid
fragments of DNA:
3 codons are stopcodons/Non sense codon
(a) phage vectors
UAA - Ocher
(b) bacterial plasmids
UAG - Amber
(c) yeast plasmids
UGA - Opel
(d) cosmids
15. PCR is NOT used in ______.
AP EAMCET-2002
(a) lytic cycle
(b) DNA finger printing Ans. (d) : Cosmid vector are designed to clone large
(c) DNA cloning fragment of DNA and grow their DNA as a virus or as a
(d) gene amplification plasmid, cosmid vector are used in homologous
recombination between two different plasmid in the
same cell and grow in both bacteria and animal cells.
Ans. (a) : Lytic cycle, which is commonly referred to as
the reproductive cycle of the bacteriophase. It is six 18. The first live healthy cloned mammal of the
stage cycle. world was
The stages are as follows:- (a) Molly sheep (b) Dolly sheep
• Adsorption (c) Polly sheep (d) A monkey
• Penetration CMC Vellore-2007
Ans. (b) : Dolly sheep was fused mammal to be cloned. 21. The two microbes found to be very useful in
It was cloned of sheep produced by Ian Wilmut and genetic engineering are
Keith Campbell in 1977, from fully differentiated about (a) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
mammary cells of 6years old sheep. She was a female (b) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium
Finn Dorset sheep and the first mammal that was cloned tumefaciens
from an adult somatic cell. (c) Caenorhabditis elegance and crown gall
• The successful cloning of Dolly led to wide spread, bacterium
including the discovery of induced pluripotent stem (d) Trichoderma sp. and Aspergillus sp.
cells. CMC Ludhiana-2015 / JCECE-2013
19. A technique which involves deliberate AIPMT-2006 / VMMC-2002
manipulation of genes within or between Ans. (b) : All bacteria have plasmids. These are
species extranuclear DNA found in them. The Agrobacterium
(a) Gene therapy tumefacience and E.coli are most widely used bacterial
(b) Hybridoma technology organism, whose plasmids are used as vectors in
(c) Tissue culture genetic engineering techniques.
(d) Genetic engineering 22. Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering
J&K CET-2007 become easy due to the invention of:
Ans. (d) : Genetic engineering is a scientific technique (a) polymerase chain reaction
that involves manipulation and organism's DNA to alter (b) Dot blot
its characteristics traits or genetic makeup. This can be (c) enzyme linked immuno sorbant assay
done by various applications, including in agricultures
(d) eastern blotting
(creating genetically modified crops), medicine
(developing gene therapy) and biotechnology. Manipal-2006
• Hybridoma technology - Hybridoma technology is a Ans. (a) : Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) use in
well established method to produce monoclonal genetic engineering by enabling the amplification of
antibodies (mAbs) specific to antigen's of interest. specific DNA sequence. PCR is use to create multiple
Hybridoma technology was discovered in 1975 by two or DNA fragment which can than inserted into a vector
scientists, Georges Kohler and Cesar Milstein. They (plasmid) to produce recombinant DNA and the
wanted to create immortal Hybrid cells by fusing B- recombinant DNA is fundamental for genetic
cells from immunized mice with their myeloma cells. engineering application.
• Genetherapy:- Gene therapy is a technique that • PCR also helps in libraries of DNA fragments, which
modifies a person's genes to treat or cure disease gene can be used for various genetic studies, including
therapies can work by several mechanism. identify gene and isolating specific genes.
Introducing a new or modified gene into the body to • PCR techniques like real time PCR are used for
help treat a disease. detecting genetic mutations and diagnosing genetic
• Tissue culture is technique in which cell or tissues disorders.
from an organism are grown and maintained in 23. Genetic Map is one that: -
laboratory condition. Tissue culture is widely used in (a) Establishes sites of the genes on a
various field of sciences and research, including chromosome
biology, medium etc. (b) Establishes the various stages in gene
20. Which of the following is produced by evolution
genetically engineered bacteria? (c) Shows the stages during the cell division
(a) Thyroxine (b) Insulin (d) Shows the distribution of various species in a
(c) Glucagon (d) ADH region
AFMC-2010 AIPMT-2003
Ans. (b): Insulin is produced by genetically engineered Ans. (a) : Gene mapping is a method used for
bacteria E.coli in 1983. Eli Lilly, an American company determining the location of relative distance between
prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B genes on a chromosome.
chains of Humans insulin and introduced them in
• It is using recombination frequency based on Morgan
plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains. Before
Hypothesis (1911) that frequency of crossing over
1980, the insulin was primarily extracted from the
pancreases of pig and cows, which could lead to between two linked genes is directly proportional to
shortages and allergic reaction in some patients. the physical distance between two genes.

24. Eugenics is the branch concerned with? genome by the process known as transformation. It is a
(a) Improving the quality of human race by plant pathogen with the capacity to deliver a segment of
symptomatic treatment of genetic diseases oncogenic DNA carried on a large plasmid called the
(b) Improving the quality of human populations tumor-inducing (Ti) to susceptible plant cells.
by the application of genetic principles 28. A technique to alter the chemistry of the
(c) Improving the quality of human race by genetic material DNA and RNA is
providing best suitable environment (a) Biochemistry (b) Genetic engineering
(d) None of the above (c) Bio science (d) Microbiology
AIIMS-2009 AP EAMCET 11.07.2022 Shift-II
Ans. (b) : Eugenics is the branch that concerned with Ans. (b) : A technique to alter the chemistry of the genetic
the improving quality of human populations by the material is called genetic engineering. Genetic engineering
application of genetic principles. Eugenics is the is a process that uses laboratory- based technologies to
scientifically erroneous and immoral theory of "racial change the DNA mechanism of an organism.
improvement" and "planned breeding", which gained 29. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in :
popularity during the early 20th century. (a) Gel electrophoresis (b) Spectrophotometry
• Positive eugenics would seek to do this by selective (c) Tissue Culture (d) PCR/ PCR
breeding programmes.
• Negative eugenics aims to eliminate harmful genes (e.g.
Ans. (a) : Agarose is heteropolysaccharide, generally
those causing hemophilia and color blindness) by counselling
extracted from certain red sea weeds. It is frequently
any prospective parents who are likely to be carried.
used in molecular biology for the separation of large
25. When scientists make an animal superior by molecules, especially DNA, by electrophoresis. It is a
view of genotype, introducing some foreign common lab technique.
genes in its called • Samples are loaded into well of an Agarose gel
(a) immunization (b) genetic engineering subjected to an electric field. The negative charge
(c) tissue culture (d) biotechnology move towards, positive electrode
AIPMT-1996 • Negative charge move toward positive charge.
Ans. (b) : Genetic engineering is a field of • Shorter fragment settle down and larger size
biotechnology that involves the deliberate manipulation fragment floated upper side. Result Separation based
of an organism's genetic material typically its DNA, to on the size of fragment and charge.
achieve specific desired traits or outcomes. The use of 30. In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out
restriction enzymes is critical to certain laboratory of the mother's womb and:-
methods, including recombinant DNA technology and
(a) From this upto eight identical twins can be
produced
26. Which of the following organelles is related (b) The egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which
with genetic engineering? are implanted into the womb of other cows
(a) Mitochondria (b) Plasmids (c) In the eight cell stage, cells are separated and
(c) Golgi bodies (d) Lysosomes cultured until small embryos are formed
AIPMT-1994 which are implanted into the womb of other
Ans. (b) : Plasmids are extra chromosomal covalently cows.
closed circular doubles standard molecules of DNA (d) In the eight cell stage the individual cells are
present in most prokaryotes. Therefore they are used as separated under electrical field for further
a vectors in genetic engineering. Artificial plasmid are development in culture media
widely used as vectors in molecular cloning, serving to AIPMT-2007
drive the replication of recombinant DNA sequences Ans. (c) : Cloning is the process of generating a
within the host organisms. genetically identical copy of a cell or an organism.
27. Ti plasmid is obtained from——— There are three types of cloning:-
(a) Agrobacterium (b) Azetobacter • Gene cloning
(c) Clostridium (d) E.coli • Therapeutic cloning
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I • Reproductive cloning
Ans. (a) : Ti Plasmid used in genetic engineering of Cloning is performed in the cattle. The fertilized egg is
plants is obtained from the bacterium Agrobacterium removed from the mother's womb and then cultured in
tumefaciens that causes crown gall disease in plants. the artificial medium. The egg is allowed to grow till
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a soil bacterium, which is the eight-celled stage and then the individual cells are
used to transfer a small segment of DNA into the plant separated.
C. Tools of Recombinant DNA 34. Restriction endonucleases are
(a) Used for in vitro DNA synthesis
Technology (b) Synthesized by bacteria as part of their
31. Choose the incorrect statements from the defense mechanism
following (c) Present in mammalian cells for degradation of
(I) Selectable marker eliminate non- DNA when the cells dies
transformants (d) Used in genetic engineering for ligating two
(II) Cloning vector should have low DNA molecules
molecular weight AMU-2015 / AIPMT-2004
(III) Retrovirus cannot be used to deliver Ans. (b) : Restriction endonuclease are synthesized by
genes into animal cells bacteria as part of their defense mechanism. Restriction
(IV) Agarose gel separates DNA fragments at endonuclease is an enzyme that cut at near specific
random recognition nucleotide sequences known as restriction
(a) I & II (b) III & IV sites. There enzyme are found in bacteria and provide a
defense mechanism against. Viruses by cleaning the
(c) I & III (d) II & IV
toxic viral DNA.
• Restriction endonuclease are five types based on their
Ans. (b) : Retroviruses in animal have the ability to composition and cofactor requirements.
transform normal cells into cancerous cells thus they are
35. Which of the following pairs is correctly
disarmed before using to deliver desirable genes into
matched ?
animal cell.
(a) Central dogma – Codon
• Agarose gel electrophorasis is the most effective way (b) Okazaki fragments – Splicing
of seperating DNA fragment of varying sizes ranging
(c) RNA polymerase – RNA primer
from 100 to 25 kb.
(d) Restriction enzymes – Genetic engineering
32. In EcoRI. R and I denote Punjab MET-2003
(a) Remove nucleotides and cut with in DNA.
Ans. (d) : Restriction enzyme :- It is a protein
(b) Name of strain and order of enzyme isolated (nuclease) that recognize a specific, short nucleotide
from the strain of bacteria. sequence of DNA. (Known as-restriction site or target
(c) Restriction endonuclease and number of strain. sequence or recognition sequence) and then cuts the
(d) Name of the scientist and number of bacteria. DNA at that specific site.
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II Restriction enzyme are found in bacteria (and other
Ans. (b) : The convention for naming these enzymes is prokaryotes). Each restriction enzyme, recognizes just
the first letter of the name come from the genus and the one or few restriction site. More than 400 restriction
second two latters come from the species of the enzymes have been isolated from the bacteria that
prokaryotic cell from which they were isolated, e.g, manufacture them.
EcoRI comes from Escherichia coli RY. In EcoRI, the Central dogma is a theory that show genetic
letter 'R' is derived from the name of strain. Roman information one direction, from DNA, to RNA, RNA
numbers following the names indicate the order in directly to protein .
which the enzymes were isolated from that strain of Okazaki fragments is found in DNA replication.
bacteria. RNA polymers- synthesize RNA molecular from a
template of DNA through a process called transcription.
33. The technique used to detect the antibodies
synthesized by host against the pathogen 36. Which of the following animal is mostly used in
(a) Polymerase Chain Reaction genetics experiments ?
(a) Butterfly (b) Fruitfly
(b) ELISA
(c) Housefly (d) Dragonfly
(c) DNA finger printing
UP CPMT-2003
(d) RNA interference
Ans. (b) : Fruitfly (Drosophila Melanogaster) is the
mostly used in genetic experiment. Fruitfly typically
Ans. (b) : ELISA is based on the principle of antigen, used in genetic engineering because it is an animal
antibody interaction infection by pathogen can be species that is easy to care for. It has four pairs of
detected by the presence of antigens (proteins, chromosomes, it breeds quickly and lays many eggs.
glycoproteins) or by detecting the antibodies As polytene chromosomes, sex determination and sex
synthesized against the pathogen. linked inheritances have been studied in fruitfly.
37. GAATTC is the recognition site for which of • DNA ligase is used to seal the nicks that remains in
the following restriction endonuclease? recombinant DNA molecule. Intact DNA ligase join
(a) Bam I (b) Hal III together the neighboring nucleotide flanking a
(c) Eco RI (d) Hind III discontinuity in a DNA strand by forming a
VMMC-2013 phosphodiester bond. A recombinant DNA molecule is
a vector, which is desired DNA fragments has been
Ans. (c) : Restriction endonuclease EcoRI found in the colon
inserted to enable its cloning in an appropriate host.
bacteria Ecoli, recognizes the base sequences GAATTC in
DNA duplex and cuts it strands between G and A. 41. Separation of proteins on the basis of their
It cuts the DNA double helix at a specific site. being polyelectrolytes can be brought about by
• EcoRI was discovered in Herbert Boyer's lab. It is a (a) Centrifugation (b) Electrophoresis
type II restriction enzyme which cut specially at the (c) Chromatography (d) Crystallography
restriction site having 5' GAATTC-3' sequence and CG PMT-2007
produce sticky end. Ans. (b) : Electrophoresis is a technique for separating
38. Construction of a recombinant DNA involves: molecules of a mixture under the influence of an applied
electric field. Dissolved molecule is an electric field more
(a) cleaving and rejoining DNA segments with
or migrate at a speed determined by charge/mass ratio.
endonuclease alone
Proteins usually passes a net positive or negative charge
(b) cleaving DNA segments with endonuclease
due to charged amino acids present in them.
and rejoining them with ligase
Centrifugation:- Centrifugation is the most popular
(c) cleaving DNA segments with ligase and
technique used in biological sciences for separation of
rejoining them with endonuclease
particles/microorganisms by centrifuge A centrifuge is a
(d) cleaving and rejoining DNA segments with device for separation of microorganism from the
ligase alone suspended fluid using centrifugal force (9-force).
Karnataka CET-2002 Chromatography:- A physical method of separation in
Ans. (b) : The contraction of recombinant DNA which the components to be separated are, distributed
involves cleaving DNA segments with endonuclease between two phases, one of them is stationary phase while
and rejoining them with ligase. Recombinant DNA the other is mobile phase, moves in a definite direction.
technology involves using enzymes and various 42. Restriction enzyme was discovered by:
laboratory techniques to manipulate and isolate DNA (a) Waksman (b) Flemming
fragments of interest.
(c) Berger (d) Smith and Nathans
39. Which one is used in the production of insulin Haryana PMT-2002
by genetic engineering? Ans. (d) : Restriction enzyme (Restriction
(a) Eschereria coli (b) Mycobacterium endonuclease) is an enzyme that cuts DNA of or near
(c) Both [a] and [b] (d) None of these specific palindrome recognition nucleotide sequences
UP CPMT-2012 / DUMET-2008 known as restriction sites. Werner Arber, Hamilton
Ans. (a) : E.coli is used in the production of insulin by Smith, and Daniel Nathans awarded Nobel Prize (1978).
genetic engineering. Insulin is a small protein produced In physiology and medicine for developing the smaller
by the pancreas in vertebrates and controls the body names for the restriction enzymes. They performed
uptake of glucose from the blood. Obtaining this insulin experiments proving that there are certain enzymes
is an expensive procedure and obviously insulin from produced by the bacteria which help in the cleavage of
other animals is not as effective as the human insulin the genomes of the pathogens.
may be because of the small size and its value, the 43. Which of the following is not a restriction
production of Human insulin by recombinant DNA endonuclease?
technology was early goal of pharmaceutical industry. (a) EcoRI (b) Hind-III
40. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with (c) Pst-I (d) DNAse-I
the plasmid vector became possible with CG PMT-2009
(a) DNA ligase (b) endonucleases Ans. (d) : Restriction endonucleases are the enzyme
(c) DNA polymerase (d) exonucleases which cut a DNA molecule within certain specific site
JCECE-2018 / BHU PMT (Screening)-2010 that have specific base sequence. Ex- Eco-RI, Bam II,
Ans. (a) : Ligase is an enzyme that catalyses the bond Hind-III, Pst-I etc. DNAse-I is not a restriction
formation between the fragments of DNA. This endonuclease enzyme.
catalytic reaction will only take place at the expense of • DNAse-I is a specific endonuclease facilitating
the breakdown of ATP or other nucleotide phosphate. chromatin breakdown during apoptosis. DNAse-I

activity is important to prevent immune stimulation and 47. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for
reduced activity may result in an increased risk for (a) DNA finger printing
production of anti-nucleosome antibodies, a hall mark (b) Disarming pathogen vectors
of SLE (systemic lypus erythematosus) (c) Constructing recombinant DNA molecules
44. Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the (d) Transformation of plant cells
news. The prefix Bt means : JCECE-2018
(a) Barium-treated cotton seeds Ans. (d) : A Biolistics (gene-gun) is a device used to
(b) Bigger thread variety of cotton with better deliver exogenous DNA, RNA, or protein to cells. In
tensile strength this process, particles of heavy metals are coated with a
(c) produced by biotechnology using restriction gene of interest then these microprojectiles are fired into
enzymes and ligases cell using mechanical force for integration of desired
(d) carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus genetic information into host cells. This technique is
thuringiensis used to transform almost all type of cells (Plant cell,
Haryana PMT-2004 Human cell etc).
Ans. (d) : Bt cotton, Bt-tobacco, Bt-tomato etc are 48. The plasmid PBR 322 used in biotechnology is:
transgenic plants having Bt-2 gene encoding Bt-toxin (a) yeast (b) M32 Phage
(Ex- thurioside). (c) parasite (d) cloning vehicle
• Bt toxin gene has been isolated from a bacteria Uttarakhand PMT-2010
Bacillus thuringiensis. AP EAMCET-2002
• The plants are resistant for more than 140 species of Ans. (d) : The plasmid PBR 322 used in biotechnology
insects including common cabbage worm, tent caterpillars, is cloning vehicle. A cloning vehicles (vector) is a small
Bag worms, canker worms, gypsy worm etc. piece of DNA that can be stably maintained in an
45. What is the first step in the Southern blot organism, and into which a foreign DNA fragment can
technique ? be inserted for cloning purposes. The cloning vector
(a) Denaturation of DNA on the gel for may be DNA taken from a virus, the cell of higher
hybridization with specific probe. organism, or it may be the plasmid of a bacterium.
(b) Production of a group of genetically identical 49. Which of the following tools of recombinant
cells DNA technology is wrongly paired with its use?
(c) Digestion of DNA by restriction enzyme (a) Restriction endonuclease production of DNA
(d) Denaturation of DNA from a nucleated cell fragments from gene cloning
such as the one from the scene of crime (b) DNA ligase Enzyme that cuts DNA
producing sticky ends
Haryana PMT-2004
(c) DNA polymerase Copies DNA sequences in
Ans. (c) : First step in southern blot technique is the
the PCR
digestion of DNA by restriction enzymes. Restriction
(d) Reverse transcriptase Production of cDNA
fragment preparation, separation by electrophoresis,
from mRNA
Denaturation of DNA by chemical treatment, single
standard DNA are transferred on to special paper or VMMC-2015
nylon use of radioactive probe, which is called Ans. (b) : DNA ligase is the molecular glue in
Autoradiography. Recombinant DNA Technology (RDT) it joins the
fragment together by addition of required nucleotide
46. Various enzymes and hormones can be
like A,T,G and C.
produced on large scale by employing the
recombinant : 50. One of the key fa
(a) DNA technique (b) RNA technique 51. Penicillin is produced commercially from
(c) viral technique (d) bacterial technique (a) Penicillium notatum (b) P. chrysogenum
Haryana PMT-2004 (c) P. citrinum (d) P. rubrum
Manipal-2003 CG PMT-2010
Ans. (a) : The first step in development of recombinant Ans. (b) : Penicillium chrysogenum has been used
DNA technology was the characterization of restriction industrially to produced penicillium.
endonucleases. The process involves combining the • Penicillium chrysogenum is a mold that is widely
DNA of different organism. The process depends on the distributed in nature and is often found living on foods
ability to cut and re-join DNA molecules at points and in indoor environment. It has rarely been reported
which are identified by specific sequence of nucleotide as cause of Human disease. It has the source of several
bases called restriction sites. β-lactam antibiotics, most significantly penicillin.
52. Antibiotic which inhibits cell wall synthesis in (c) The polymerase enzyme joins the gene of
bacteria interest and the vector DNA
(a) Chloramphenicol (b) Erythromycin (d) Restriction enzyme digestions are performed by
(c) Penicillin (d) Tetracycline incubating purified DNA molecules with the
CG PMT-2010 restriction enzymes of optimum conditions
Ans. (c) : Penicillin have been shown to inhibit bacteria NEET-2020 Phase-II
cell wall synthesis, and interact with penicillin binding Ans. (d) : Restriction enzyme digestions are performed by
protein's leading to bacterial lysis. Penicillin first incubating purified DNA molecule with the restriction
discovered by Dr. Alexander Fleming. Penicillin were
enzyme of optimum conditions is the correct answer.
the first antibiotics discovered as natural products from
the mould pencillium. • Gel electrophoresis is used for the isolation and
• All pencillin derivatives produce their bactericidal separation of DNA fragments.
effects by inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis. • The polymerase enzymes use DNA templates to
Specifically, the cross linking of peptide on the muco catalyse polymerization of deoxynucleotides.
saccharide, chain's is prevented. If cell walls allow • Polymerase chain reaction is used for the
water to flow into the cell causing it to burst. amplification of DNA segment.
53. The enzyme employed for amplification of 56. First discovered restriction endonuclease that
DNA during PCR is commercially obtained always cuts DNA molecule at a particular point
from by recognising a specific sequence of six base
(a) Streptococcus pyrogenes pairs is
(b) Bacillus Licheniformis
(a) Hind II
(c) Trichoderma reesi
(b) EcoR I
(d) Thermus aquaticus
(c) Adenosine deaminase
Manipal-2010
(d) Thermostable DNA polymerase
Ans. (d) : Heat stable DNA polymerase, i.e. Taq
polymerase (Isolated from Thermus acquaticus) are NEET-2020 Phase-II
commonly used in polymerization of nucleotides during Ans. (a) : Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that
polymerase chain reaction. cleave the phophodiester bond present between
• In case of Taq polymerase, the optimum temperature consecutive nucleotides near to specific DNA sequences
for polymerization is 70-75oC because the base pairing that they identify.
between the primase and template DNA is much more • The first restriction endonuclease characterized was
specific at this temperature than that of 37oC (optimum hind II. It was isolated from the bacterium,
temperature for E. coli DNA polymerase). Haemophilus influenza.
54. The specific palindromic sequence which is • It recognizes a specific sequence of six base pairs.
recognized by EcoRl is Eco RI is also REN and is isolated from the
(a) 5' - GGAACC - 3' bacterium Escherichia coli.
3' - CCTTGG - 5'
57. Which of the following restriction enzymes
(b) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
produces blunt ends?
3' - GAATTC - 5'
(a) Sall (b) Eco RV
(c) 5' - GGATCC - 3'
3' - CCTAGG - 5' (c) Xho (d) Hind III
NEET-2016 Phase-II
(d) 5' - GAATTC - 3'
3' - CTTAAG - 5' Ans. (b) : Eco RV is a type II restriction endonuclease
NEET-2020 Phase-I isolated from E. coli it recognize palindromic sequence
Ans. (d) : The specific palindromic sequence which is and produce blunt ends.
recognized by EcoRI is. 5' G – A – T – A – T – C 3'
5' - GAATTC - 3' 3' C – T – A – T – A – G 5'
↓Eco RV
3' - CTTAAG - 5'
55. Select the correct statement from the following
(a) PCR is used for isolation and separation of 5' G − A − T   A − T − C 3'
3'C − T − A  T − A − G 5'
gene of interest
(b) Gel electrophoresis is used for amplification 
of a DNA segment Blunt ends
58. The most throughly studied of the known Ans. (c) : Plasmids can clone only a small fragment of
bacteria-plant interactions is the :- DNA. Plasmids are extra chromosomal, autonomously
(a) Gall formation on certain Angiosperms by replicating circular, double-stranded DNA molecules.
Agrobacterium They are small, circular, extra-chromosomal DNA
(b) Nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen which is present in bacteria and can replicate
fixing bacteria autonomously. They naturally occur in some yeasts and
(c) Plant growth stimulation by phosphate– several bacteria. Plasmids provide bacteria with genetic
solubilising bacteria advantages, such as antibiotic resistance.
These plasmids are altered to be used as vectors as they
(d) Cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic ferns
AIPMT-2004 can clone DNA fragments close to size 10kbp. Plasmid
pBR322 is one of the earliest and most common cloning
Ans. (a) : Agrobacterium tumefaciens is Rod Shaped,
vectors.
gram negative soil bacterium.
• The Agrobacterium Crown Gall phenomenon is
extensively used as natural genetic engineer in plant
• It also an example of plant microbe interaction
competition commensalism, mutualism and 61. The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector
parasitism relationship given by (Campbell 1995). pBR322 are for
• Agrobacterium has been extensively studied both as a (a) Tetracycline and Kanamycin
pathogen and an important biotechnological tool. (b) Ampicillin and Tetracycline
• The infection process involves the transfer of t-DNA (c) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
and virulence protein into the plant cell. (d) Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline
59. Commonly used vectors for human genome NEET (Odisha)-2019
sequencing are:- Ans. (b) : pBR322 was one of the first widely used
(a) T- DNA E.coli cloning vectors in which 'p' stands for plasmid
(b) BAC and YAC and BR stands for Bolivar and Rodriguez, the scientists
(c) Expression vectors who constructed it. The plasmid pBR322 vector carries
(d) T/A cloning vectors the genes for tetracycline (tetR) and ampicillin (ampR)
AIPMT-2014 resistance. There genes are useful to identify and select
Ans. (b) : Bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC) the transformants and non – transformants.
vectors are based on natural, extra-chromosomal
plasmid of E. coli. BAC vector contains genes for
replication and maintenance of the F-factor, a selectable
marker and cloning site. These vectors can H1
accommodate upto 300-350 kb of foreign DNA and are
also being used in genome sequencing project.
• Yeast Artificial Chromosome (YAC) vectors are 62. Match the following enzymes with their
used to clone DNA fragments of more than 1Mb in functions:
size. (A) Restriction (i) Joins the DNA
• Therefore, they have been exploited extensively in endonuclease fragments
mapping the large genomes, e.g., in the Human (B) Restriction (ii) Extends
Genome Project. These vectors contain the exonuclease primers on
telomeric sequence, the centromere and the genomic DNA
autonomously replicating sequence from yeast template
chromosomes. environment
60. Which vector can clone only a small fragment (C) DNA ligase (iii) Cuts DNA at
of DNA? specific
(a) Bacterial artificial chromosome position
(b) Yeast artificial chromosome (D) Taq polymerase (iv) Removes
(c) Plasmid nucleotides
(d) Cosmid from the ends
AIPMT-2014 of DNA
Select the correct option from the following: DNA fragment in human lymphocyte and replace the
(a) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) functioning of a defected gene.
(b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii) • Ti plasmid–In Agrobacterium tumefaciens Ti plasmid
(c) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) is found which means tumour – inducing plasmid.
(d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii) • pBR322- It is a plasmid and was one of the first
NEET (Odisha)-2019 widely used E.coli cloning vector.
Ans. (c) : Restriction endonuclease – Cuts DNA at • λ - phage – It is a temperate bacteriophage that
specific position. infects E.coli. It is a virus particle consisting of a
head, containing 48514 base-pair of double- stranded
• Restriction endonucleases recognize a specific
linear DNA as its genetic material, and a tail that can
sequence of nucleotides in double stranded DNA
have tail fibers.
and cut the DNA at a specific location.
65. DNA fragments generated by the restriction
• Restriction exonuclease –Removes nucleotides
endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be
From the ends of DNA. Restriction exonucleases
separated by:
remove nucleotides from the terminal ends (either 5'
(a) Restriction mapping
or 3') of DNA of one strand of duplex.
(b) Centrifugation
• DNA ligase – Join the DNA fragments. The DNA
(c) Polymerase chain reaction
ligase is functional in joining the Okazaki fragments
that take shape on the lagging strand while the DNA (d) Electrophoresis
replicates. It is able to join the two DNA fragments NEET-2013
as a result of the formation of a phosphodiester bond Ans. (d) : Electrophoresis is a technique use to separate
between them with the help of a molecule of energy. DNA fragments according to their size. DNA sample
• Taq polymerase – Extends primers on genomic are located into wells (indentation) at one end of the gel
DNA template and the electric current is applied to poll them through
the gel. DNA fragments are negatively charge, so they
Thermus aquaticus (Taqs) polymerase, exhibits
move towards the positive electrode.
transcriptase activity when a DNA oligomer is used as a
template and that genetic information of oligomer can 66. A gene whose expression helps to identify
be amplified by PCR using DNA primers. transformed cell is known as
(a) Selective marker (b) Vector
63. An enzyme catalysing the removal of
nucleotides from ends of DNA is : (c) Plasmid (d) Structural gene
(a) Protease (b) DNA ligase NEET-2017
(c) Endonuclease (d) Exonuclease Ans. (a) : Selective markers help to identify the
NEET (Odisha)-2019 modified genes/cells in the culture. They are often
antibiotic resistance genes which help in artificial
Ans. (d) : An enzyme catalyzing the removal of selection. They help in identifying transformants and
nucleotides from ends of DNA is exonuclease. selectively allowing their growth where as eliminating
Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of non-transformants.
the DNA. • Plasmid is a small, circular DNA molecule found in
Endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within bacteria.
the DNA. • Vector containing foreign DNA is termed
• DNA ligase is sealing enzyme (also called as genetic recombinant DNA.
gum), which is responsible for joining of two • A structural gene codes for any RNA or protein
individual fragments of DNA. product other than a regulator factor.
• Protease (Proteolytic enzymes) are enzymes that break 67. In gene cloning which of the following are used
down protein. as vehicles for carrying foreign DNA fragment:
64. Which of the following is commonly used as a (a) Host cell (b) Restriction enzymes
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in (c) Adaptor (d) Vector
human lymphocytes? SRM JEEE -2017
(a) Retrovirus (b) Ti plasmid
Ans. (d) : In molecular cloning, a vector is any particle
(c) pBR 322 (d) λ phage (Ex- Plasmids, Cosmids, Lambda phages) used as a
NEET-2018 vehicle to artificially carry a foreign nucleic sequence,
Ans. (a) : Retrovirus is a virus that uses RNA as its usually DNA into another cell where it can be replicated
genetic material. and or expressed a vector containing foreign DNA is
Retrovirus commonly used as vector for introducing a termed recombinant DNA.
68. In E. Coli, during lactose metabolism repressor 71. Chimeric DNA is
binds to : - (a) Gene clone (b) Recombinant-DNA
(a) Regulator gene (b) Operator gene (c) Transposon (d) Vector shuttle
(c) Structural gene (d) Promoter gene AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-II
AIPMT-2002 Ans. (b) : Recombinant DNA molecules are sometimes
Ans. (b) : In the lac operon of E. coli due to the activity called chimeric DNA, because they can be made of
of regulator gene synthesis of repressor molecules material from two different species, like the mythical
occurs. These repressor molecules get attached to the chimera.
operator gene and prevents RNA polymerase from
transcribing the operon. • A chimera is essentially a single organism that is
made up of cells from two or more individuals i.e., it
contains two set of DNA, with the code to make two
separate organisms.
• R-DNA technology uses palindromic sequences and
leads to the production of sticky and blunt ends.
72. What does ‘R’ indicate in EcoRI?
(a) Enzyme isolated from species of bacteria
69. A tumor inducing plasmid widely used in the (b) Genus of bacteria
production of transgenic plants is that of (c) Sequence of enzyme
(a) Escherichia coli (d) Species of bacteria
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis GUJCET-2017
(c) Staphylococcus aureus
Ans. (a) : EcoRI is isolated from the bacterium
(d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Escherichia Coli (E.Coli).
AIIMS-2005
• Eco represents the species of bacteria.
Ans. (d) : Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a plant
• R represents the strain of the bacteria which is RY-13
pathogen with the capacity to deliver a segment of
in this case.
oncogenic DNA carried on a large plasmid called the
tumor-inducing or Ti plasmid to susceptible plant • EcoRI is pronounced as Eco-R-one which is a
cells. restriction endonuclease enzyme.
• The transferred T-DNA is then integrated into the host 73. EcoRI is ___.
genome and transcribed with it. This ability of (a) a restriction enzyme
Agrobacterium tumefaciens to transfer the T-DNA in (b) a plasmid
host genome is explored in genetic engineering to (c) used to join two DNA fragments
transfer the desired DNA segment, carrying the gene of
(d) the abbreviation for bacterium Escherichia coli
the interest, into genome of selected organisms.
Karnataka CET-2014
Ans. (a) : EcoRI was discovered in Herbert Boyer's lab
and is a restriction endonuclease or restriction enzyme
was first isolated from E.coli bacteria. It is bind to
double stranded DNA and cleaves it at particular base
pairs. EcoRI, is a restriction enzyme isolated from the
strain E.coli RY 13.
74. Identify the desirable characteristics for a
70. In ti-plasmid, which of the following is
removed: plasmid used in rDNA technology from the
(a) Auxin gene following:
(b) Virulent gene A. Ability to multiply and express outside the
(c) Cytokinin gene host in a bioreactor
(d) Auxin & cytokinin gene B. A highly active promoter
AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-II C. A site at which replication can be initiated
Ans. (b) : Virulent gene is removed to get modified strain D. One or more identifiable marker genes
of Agrobacterium in Ti-plasmid. Thus tumour forming E. One or more unique restriction sites
virulent genes are replaced with desired genes and this way (a) A, C and E only (b) B, C and E only
it acts as a vector to carry desired gene to a new organism (c) A, C, D, and E only (d) B, C, D, and E only
when it get expressed to produce the product. Karnataka CET-2014
Ans. (d) : The desirable characteristics for a plasmid but do not cleave DNA at specific sequences. These
used in rDNA technology there should be an active enzymes allow the cloning and purification of defined
promoter site and the origin of replication site as ori DNA fragments.
site. These regions will allow the plasmid to replicate in • DNA ligase - DNA ligase is a specific type of
the host. There should be marker gene which can be use enzyme, a ligase that facilitates the joining of DNA
to identity the recombinant. In order to insert the desire strands together by catalyzing the formation of a
gene there should be presence of restriction site. phasphodiester bond. It plays a role in repairing
75. The enzymes which are absolutely necessary single stranded breaks in duplex DNA in living
for recombinant DNA technology are : organisms but some forms may specifically repair
(a) Restriction endonucleases and topoisomerases double-strand breaks.
(b) Endonucleases and polymerases • Calcium chloride- Calcium chloride is an inorganic
(c) Restriction endonucleases and Ligases compound, a salt with the chemical formula CaCl2.
(d) Peptidases and Ligases It is a white colored crystalline solid at room
Karnataka CET-2012 temperature, and it is highly soluble in water. It can
Ans. (c) : Recombinant DNA is the method of joining be created by neutralizing hydrochloric and with
two or more DNA molecules to generate a hybrid. This calcium hydroxide. It is used for R-DNA into host
technology is made possible by two types of enzymes, cell.
restriction endonucleases and ligases. The restriction 78. Assertion (A) : EcoRI makes staggered cut to
endonucleases enzymes help in the production of produce sticky ends in a DNA double helix.
fragments and desired genes. The enzyme ligases are Reason (R) : EcoRI cuts the DNA in between G
used to join or ligate the fragments. These are the two and A at the palindromic sequence 5'
important enzymes with respect to rDNA technology. GAATTC 3'.
76. The vector for T–DNA is The correct option among the following is:
(a) Themus aquaticus (a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct
(b) Salmonella typhimurium explanation for (A)
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the
(d) Escherichia coli correct explanation for (A)
JIPMER-2014 (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
Ans. (c) : T-DNA is the tumor inducing plasmid of the (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
bacteria Agrobacterium tumefaciens. TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II
77. Arrange the following in sequential order of Ans. (a) : EcoRI is a restriction endonuclease enzyme
their usage in recombinant DNA technology. isolated from species E.coli. It is a restriction enzyme
(i) Calcium chloride that cleaves DNA double helices into fragments at
specific sites.
(ii) DNA ligase
(iii) Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid • EcoRI cuts the DNA in between G and A at the
palindromic sequence 5'GAATTC 3'.
(iv) Restriction endonuclease
The correct match is • Thus, Assertion (A) is true, Reason (R) true and (R) is
(a) (i), (iv), (iii) and (ii) the correct explanation for (A).
(b) (iv), (i), (ii) and (iii) 79. Restriction endonucleases are most widely used
(c) (i), (iv), (ii) and (iii) in recombinant DNA technology. They are
obtained from
(d) (iii), (iv), (ii) and (i)
(a) Bacteriophages (b) Bacterial cells
AP EAMCET-2013
(c) Plasmids (d) All prokaryotic cells
Ans. (d) : Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid
Karnataka CET-2006
(EDTA)- A chemical that binds certain metal ion such
as Calcium, Magnesium, Lead and Iron. It is used in Ans. (b) : Restriction endonuclease are most widely
medicine to prevent blood samples from clotting and to used in recombinant DNA technology. They are
remove calcium and lead from the body. It is also used obtained from bacterial cells. Restriction endonucleases
to keep bacteria forming a boifilm (thin layer stuck to a is act as molecular scissor in biotechnology.
surface). It is type of cheating agent. Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer first produced a
• Restriction endonuclease -Restriction endonucleases recombinant DNA in 1972 by combining an antibiotic
(REs) are bacterial enzymes that cleave double-stranded resistant gene with the native plasmid of bacterium
DNA. Type I REs are important in bacterial function Salmonella typhimurium .

• Hind III, EcoRI- recognition sites of restriction
endonuclease.
• EcoRI is a restriction endonuclease enzyme isolated
from species E. coli. It is a restriction enzyme that
cleaves DNA double helices into fragment at
specific sites and also a part of the restriction
modification system.
83. For transformation, micro-particles coated
80. In cloning vectors, antibiotic resistant genes are with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are
helpful for made up of:
(a) Selection of recombinants (a) Silicon or Platinum (b) Gold or Tungsten
(b) Cleaving of vector by REN (c) Silver or platinum (d) Platinum or zinc
(c) Transfer of foreign gene to the host AIPMT (Screening)-2012
(d) Making the host cells competent Ans. (b) : For transformation, micro-particles coated
Karnataka CET-2019 with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up
Ans. (a) : Antibiotic resistant gene present in the vector of gold and tungsten.
is mainly used for the selection of transformed bacterial • The gene gun used to bombard the plant cell wall with
cell. The transformed bacterial cells contains many DNA coated metal particles by using compressed
recombinant vector. helium as the propellant.
81. A giant rat is formed in the laboratory, what is • Gene gun or biolistic particle delivery system is a
the reason: device used to deliver exogenous DNA, RNA or protein
(a) Gene mutation (b) Gene synthesis to cell.
(c) Gene manipulation (d) Gene replication • Micro carrier particle (gold & tungsten) used in high
AIPMT-2000 velocity micro projectile streams that delivers the
Ans. (c) : By gene manipulation, a giant rat is formed in coated gene of interest into target gene.
the laboratory. A giant rat is also known as transgenic rat. 84. Which one of the following techniques made it
• Gene manipulation is the process of altering the possible to genetically engineer living organisms
genetic makeup of organisms artificially. It is done by (a) Hybridization
inserting, deleting or rearranging genes. (b) Recombinant DNA techniques
82. The figure below is the diagrammatic (c) X-ray diffraction
representation of the E. Coli vector pBR 322. (d) Heavier isotope labeling
Which one of the given options correctly AIPMT (Mains)-2011
identifies its certain component(s)? Ans. (b) : The technique that made it possible to
E.coli genetically engineer living organisms is recombinant
DNA techniques.
Recombinant DNA techniques allow scientists to
isolate, manipulate and combine DNA from different
organisms. This allows them to create new organisms
with desired traits or to change the traits of existing
organisms.
(a) Hindi III, EcoRI-selectable markers 85. During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled
(b) ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes ethanol is added to
(c) ori-original restriction enzyme (a) Remove proteins such as histones
(d) rop-reduced osmotic pressure (b) Precipitate DNA
AIPMT (Screening)-2012 (c) Break open the cell to release DNA
Ans. (b) : In pBR 322, ori-represents site or origin of (d) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes
replication rop site code for proteins that take part in the NEET (Karnataka)-2013
replication of plasmid. Ans. (b) : Ethanol precipitation is a widely used
• ampR and tetR are antibiotic resistance genes. technique to purify or concentrate nucleic acid.
• Cold ethanol is used to isolate DNA, so that DNA
clumps and forms a visible white precipitate. It is
important to use chilled alcohol because it allows a
larger amount of DNA to be extracted.
• If alcohol is warm, it may cause the DNA to denature.
86. Genes of interest can be selected from a D. Method of Recombinant DNA
genomic library by using
(a) Restriction enzymes (b) Cloning vectors Technology
(c) DNA probes (d) Gene targets 89. From the following tools/techniques of genetic
NEET (Karnataka)-2013 engineering, identify those which are required
Ans. (c) : Genes of interest can be selected from a for cloning a bacterial gene in animal cells and
genetic library by using DNA probes. DNA probes are choose the correct option :
short, single-stranded sequence of DNA that are I. Endonuclease
complementary to the specific sequence of interest. II. Ligase
When these probes are applied to the genomic library, III. A. tumefaciens
they bind to the complementary DNA sequences.
IV. Microinjeciton
87. There is a restriction endonuclease called V. Gene gun
EcoRl. What does "co" part in it stand for ?
VI. Lysozyme
(a) coli (b) colon
VII. Cellulase
(c) coelom (d) coenzyme
VIII. Electrophoresis
(a) II, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII
Ans. (a) :
(b) II, III, V, VII, VIII
(c) I, II, IV, VI, VIII
(d) I, III, IV, V, VII
EcoRI is a restriction endonuclease enzyme isolated Ans. (c) : Endonucleases: Such as restriction enzymes,
from species Escherichia coli. The Eco part of the are used to cut the DNA at specific recognition sites.
enzyme's name originates from the species from which Ligase : It is responsible for joining or sealing breaks
it was isolated, "E" denotes generic name & "CO" in the phosphodiester backbone of DNA strands.
denotes species name, "Coli" which is Escherichia coli, Micro injection: used to introduced specific materials
while the R represents the particular strain in this case such as DNA, RNA, proteins or other substances.
RY13, and the I denotes that it was the first enzyme Lysozyme: Acts by breaking down the cell wall of
isolated from this strain. bacteria.
88. Assertion (A) : Molecular farming is large Electrophoresis: used to separate molecules such as
scale production of DNA, RNA and proteins based on their size and charge.
biochemical's from plants 90. PCR is used for
Reason (R) : Transgenic plants are (a) DNA amplification (b) DNA isolation
bioreactors (c) DNA ligation (d) DNA digestion
for commercial production of Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
antibodies.
Ans. (a) : PCR (polymerase chain reaction) allows to
create millions of copies of a specific DNA segment.
Options:
It is widely used molecular biology technique for DNA
amplification.
explanation for (A)
(b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the 91. Which of these is NOT a method to make host
correct explanation for (A) cells 'competent' to take up DNA?
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false (a) Use of disarmed pathogen vectors
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true (b) Micro-injection
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I (c) Elution
Ans. (a) : Molecular farming is a biotechnological (d) Biolistics
program that includes the genetic modification of Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
agriculture products to produce proteins and chemicals Ans. (c) : Elution is not a method to make a host cells
for commercial and pharmaceuticals purpose. Molecular 'competent' to take up DNA. The term 'Elution' refers to
farming is large scale production of biochemical from the process of extracting or removing a substance such
plants because transgenic plants are bioreactors for as molecules ions or compounds from a solid matrix
commercial production of antibodies. using a suitable eluent.
92. Select the correct statement from the following: 96. McClintock is related to:
(a) DNA from one organism will not band to (a) plasmids (b) retroposons
DNA from other organism. (c) transposons (d) none of the above
(b) Genetic engineering works only on animals HP CET-2011
and not yet successfully used on plants. Ans. (c) : Transposons are DNA segments found in the
(c) There are no risk factors associated with r- genomes of living organism. Transposons are capable of
DNA technology. moving from place to another place within a genome. It
(d) The first step in PCR is heating which is used does not utilize and independent form of element like
to separate both the strands of gene of phage or plasmid but directly jump from one site to
interest. another. They carry genes such as resistance to
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 antibacterial virulence and symbiotic factors and
Ans. (d) : The first step in PCR is the denaturation catabolism of xenobiotics. They are found to encode a
step. It is a critical part of the PCR cycle that occurs at a special protein named transposase which catalyses the
process of transposition.
high temperature (94oC - 98oC). This step serve to
separate the two strands of the DNA molecules which 97. An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually
are held together by hydrogen bonds between the helps in the selection of
complementary base pairs (Adenine with thymine and (a) Non-recombinant cells
cytosine with guanine). (b) Competent cells
93. The main function of polymerase chain (c) Non-competent cells
reaction is (d) Transformed cells
(a) Transduction (b) DNA amplification Karnataka CET-2022
(c) Translation (d) DNA digestion Ans. (d) : An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector is to
TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I select transformed cells. When a vector containing an
antibiotic resistance gene is introduced into cells, only
Ans. (b) : The main function of PCR (Polymerase chain
the cells that have successfully taken up and replicated
Reaction) is the DNA amplification. It amplify a
the vector (i.e. , transformed cells) will survive in the
specific DNA segment for making numerous copies of
presence of the antibiotics.
it.
98. Which of the following term is not concerned
94. Choose the wrong pair corresponding to
with generic recombination in bacteria?
selection of transformed cells
(a) Transformation (b) Transduction
(a) Bam H I site - tetracycline resistance
(c) Translation (d) Conjugation
(b) β galactosidase - inactivation of the enzyme
(c) Ampicillin resistance - selectable marker
Ans. (c) : Generally three methods of genetic
(d) Insertional inactivation - Development of blue recombination, transduction, transformation and
color conjugation. These strategies used by bacteria to expand
AP EAPCET-22.05.2023, Shift-I their genetic variety.
Ans. (d) : Insertional inactivation is a technique used in 99. Annealing’ is a phenomenon related to
molecular biology to disrupt or inactivate a specific (a) Denaturation of DNA
gene or sequence within a cell DNA. (b) Renaturation of DNA
To select transformed cells , a piece of DNA containing (c) Melting point of DNA (Tm)
a selectable marker (e.g. antibiotic resistance gene) is
(d) Separation of G from C
inserted into the DNA of target cell or organisms.
CG PMT-2010
95. It is not involved in recombinant DNA
Ans. (b) : DNA annealing is the renaturation of DNA or
production.
reformating of double stranded DNA from thermally
(a) Restriction endonuclease (b) DNA ligase denatured DNA.
(c) DNA fragments (d) E. coli • Annealing is the process of joining of single stranded
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II DNA or RNA by hydrogen bonds to form a double
Ans. (d) : E.coli is a valuable tool in the field of stranded polynucleotide. It occurs between
recombinant DNA technology and is frequently complementary sequences only.
employed in the production of recombinant DNA and 100. The function of polymerase chain reaction is
recombinant proteins. E.coli has a rapid growth rate, (a) transduction (b) DNA amplification
allowing for the quick production of large quantities of (c) translation (d) None of these
recombinant DNA
Rajasthan PMT-2009
Ans. (b) : PCR was discovered by Carry Mullis, in Ans. (a) : Spooling is the process of collection of isolated
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) a segment of DNA is DNA strands after the extraction process. The technique
amplified. Tag DNA polymerase enzyme is use in PCR. of amplification of DNA is called polymerase chain
This enzyme is temperature resistant. reaction.
101. In biotechnology now-a-day a much use 104. DNA- dependent RNA polymerase catalyses
technology in biolistic. Identify the method transcription on one strand of the DNA which
where this technique is used during genetic is called the
engineering experiments. (a) template strand (b) coding strand
(a) tissue culture process (c) alpha strand (d) anti strand
(b) gene transfer process NEET-2016 Phase-II
(c) hybridisation process Ans. (a) : DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses
(d) germplasm conservation process transcription on template strand of DNA.
CMC Ludhiana-2015 • It decodes the information directly through RNA
Ans. (b) : In biotechnology now a days a nuclear used polymerase.
technology is biolistic technique gene transfer process 105. Which of the following is not a component of
method. Where this technique is used during genetic downstream processing?
engineering experiments. It is suitable for plants, cells (a) Separation (b) Purification
are bombared with high velocity micro-particles of gold (c) Preservation (d) Expression
or tungsten coated with DNA. NEET-2016 Phase-II
102. Match the organism with its use in Ans. (d) : Expression is not a component of
biotechnology downstream processing. Downstream processing
(A) Bacillus (i) Cloning involves the separation and purification of products
thuringiensis vector synthesized in bioreactors. After completion of the
(B) Thermus aquaticus (ii) Construction process, the products formed are preserved for future
of first rDNA use.
molecule
(C) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA
tumefaciens polymerase
(D) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
typhimurium
Select the correct option from the following:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(d) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) 106. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed
NEET-2020 Phase-I for
Ans. (a) : (a) purification of product
Bacillus thuringiensis Cry proteins (b) addition of preservatives to the product
Thermus aquaticus DNA polymerase (c) availability of oxygen throughout the process
(d) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture
Agrobacterium Cloning Vector
vessel
tumefaciens
NEET-2016 Phase-II
Salmonella typhimurium Construction of first
Ans. (c) : In the stirred - tank bioreactor, the stirrer
rDNA molecule facilitates even mixing and oxygen availability
103. Spooling is throughout the bioreactor.
(a) Collection of isolated DNA • Stirred tank bioreactors have several advantages over
(b) Amplification of DNA shake flasks -
(c) Cutting of separated DNA bands from the (i) Small volumes of culture can be taken out from the
agarose gel rector for sampling or testing.
(d) Transfer of separated DNA fragments to (ii) It has a foam breaker for regulating the foam.
synthetic membranes (iii) It has a control system that regulates the
NEET-2020 Phase-II temperature and PH.
107. For effective treatment of the disease, early Ans. (a) : In transduction, genetic material from one
diagnosis and understanding its bacteria to another by virus (bacteriophage). It was
pathophysiology is very important. Which of discovered by Joshua Lederberg and Norton Zinder
the following molecular diagnostic techniques while working on the recombination of genes in bacteria
is very useful for early detection? and this technique of transfer virul DNA and applied to
(a) Hybridization Technique the bacterium Salmonella typhimurium.
(b) Western Blotting Technique • Transduction is used for gene mapping & analysis in
(c) Southern Blotting Technique bacteria and also for strain construction.
(d) ELISA Technique 111. Which of the following is not a desirable
NEET-2021 feature of a cloning vector?
(a) Presence of two or more recognition site
Ans. (d) : Recombinant DNA technology and Enzyme
(b) Presence of origin of replication
Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) are some of the
(c) Presence of a marker gene
techniques that serve the purpose of early diagnosis.
(d) Presence of single restriction enzyme site
108. During the process of gene amplification using
NEET-2022
PCR, if very high temperature is not
Ans. (a) : Cloning vectors are the carriers of the desired
maintained in the beginning, then which of the
gene in the host cell the features desirable in a cloning
following steps of PCR will be affected first?
vector are-
(a) Ligation (b) Annealin
• Presence of origin of replication
(c) Extension (d) Denaturation
• Presence of marker genes.
NEET-2021
• Presence of very few, preferable single recognition
Ans. (d) : High temperature about 94ºC is required for site for the commonly used restriction enzymes.
the process of denaturation which is the first step of
112. Match List - I with List - II:
PCR.
List-II List-II
• Ligation of DNA fragments is performed with the
A. Gene gun i. Replacement of a
help of an enzyme called DNA ligase.
faulty gene by a
• Annealing is performed at 50º–60ºC which is the normal healthy gene
second step that can get affected.
B. Gene therapy ii. Used for transfer of
109. During the purification process for gene
recombinant DNA technology, addition of
C. Gene cloning iii. Total DNA in the
chilled ethanol precipitates out :
cells of an organism
(a) Polysaccharides (b) RNA
D. Genome iv. To obtain indentical
(c) DNA (d) Histones
copies of a particular
NEET-2021 DNA molecule
Ans. (c) Various enzymes like protease RNAse, etc are Choose the correct answer from the options
added to breakdown substances like proteins, RNA, etc. given below:
• All these substances are broken down, DNA is left (a) (A) - (ii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (iii)
which is precipitated out by adding chilled ethanol. (b) (A) - (i), (B) - (iii), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iv)
• Histones are special proteins that help condense DNA (c) (A) - (iv), (B) - (i), (C) - (iii), (D) - (ii)
in a cell. (d) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i)
110. Which statement is correct for bacterial NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
transduction : - Ans. (a) :
(a) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to (A) Gene gun (ii) Used for transfer of gene
another bacteria through virus (B) Gene therapy (i) Replacement of a faulty
(b) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to gene by a normal healthy
another bacteria by conjugation gene.
(c) Bacteria obtained its DNA directly (C) Gene cloning (iv) To obtain identical
(d) Bacteria obtained DNA from other external copies of a particular
source DNA molecule.
JIPMER-2014 (D) Genome (iii) Total DNA in the cells of
AIPMT-2002 an organism.
113. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain caring the amino-acid to the m-RNA ribosome complex
Reaction (PCR) is preventing translation by inhibiting the addition of amino
(a) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing acids to the growing polypeptide chain.
(b) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation • Streptomycin, on the other hand, interferes with the
(c) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension initial steps of protein synthesis by changing the shape
(d) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing of the 30S portion of the 70S prokaryotic ribosomes.
NEET-2018/ AIPMT (Mains)-2012 116. Recombinant DNA technology involves several
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-1 steps in which initial step is of isolation of the
Ans. (c) : Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) involves DNA. Which enzymes are used in the process
three basic steps- for the breakdown of fungal cell, plant cell and
Denaturation→ Annealing → Extension. bacterial cell respectively?
(a) Lysozyme, lipases, trypsin
• Denaturation is the process of modifying the
(b) Chitinase, cellulase, lysozyme
molecular structure of protein.
(c) Chitinase, cellulase, trypsin
• Annealing is the process of heating and cooling to
(d) Trypsin, lipases, cellulase
single-stranded oligonucleotides with complementary
sequence. AIIMS-2010
• Extension in which DNA polymerase extend one end Ans. (b) : The process of recombinant DNA technology
of each other. involves isolation of DNA of desired DNA fragment.
Recombinant DNA technology involves several
steps in which initial step is of isolation of the
DNA. Chitinase, cellulase, lysozyme enzymes are
used in the process for the breakdown of fungal cell,
de
plant cell and bacterial cell respectively.
117. Electroporation procedure involves :
(a) fast passage of food through sieve pores in
phloem elements with the help of electric
stimulation
(b) opening of stomatal pores during night by
114. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose artificial light
gel can be visualised after staining with (c) making transient pores in the cell membrane
(a) Bromophenol blue (b) Acetocarmine to introduce gene constructs
(c) Aniline blue (d) Ethidium bromide (d) purification of saline water with the help of a
NEET-2017 membrane system.
Ans. (d) : Agarose gel electrophoresis is used to segregate AIIMS-2005
DNA fragments according to the mass and size. Ans. (c) : Electroporation is a technique in which
• Ethidium bromide is the fluorescent stain used in this electric field is applied to cell membrane for the
technique. Ethidium bromide, when exposed to introduction of chemicals, drugs or DNA by increasing
ultraviolet light produces a fluorescent effect. the cell permeability. It results in formation of transient
• Hence the DNA tagged by it can be traced quickly on pores in plasma membrane.
the transparent gel. In molecular biology, the process of electroporation is
• The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the often use to transform bacteria, yeast, or plant
agarose gel and extracted from the piece. This step is protoplasts by introducing new coding DNA.
known as elution. Electroporation is also highly efficient for the
115. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between introduction of foreign gene into tissue culture cells.
tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein 118. Following are the steps, followed in
synthesis ? Recombinant DNA Technology:
(a) Erythromycin (b) Neomycin (i) Amplification
(c) Streptomycin (d) Tetracycline (ii) Downstream processing
AIPMT-2006 (iii) Isolation
Ans. (b) : Neomycin inhibits interaction between t- (iv) Obtaining the foreign gene product
RNA and m-RNA during bacterial protein synthesis. (v) Cutting
• Tetracycline interferes with the attachment of t-RNA (vi) Insertion
Choose the correct option showing the correct 122. dsRNA is used to develop pest resistant tobacco
sequence of steps involved in Recombinant plant by a technique called
DNA Technology (a) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
(a) (ii) → (iv) → (vi) → (i) → (v) → (iii) (b) RNA interference (RNAi)
(b) (iii) → (v) → (i) → (ii) → (iv) → (vi) (c) Electrophoresis
(c) (iv) → (ii) → (i) → (vi) → (iii) → (v) (d) Insertional Activation
(d) (iii) → (v) → (i) → (vi) → (iv) → (ii) Karnataka CET-2018
GUJCET-2019 Ans. (b) : dsRNA is use to develop pest resistant
Ans. (d) : Steps of R-DNA technology- tobacco plant by a technique is called RNA interference
1. Isolation of genes to be cloned. (RNAi).
2. Cutting (Restriction Enzyme digestion). 123. Palaeontologists unearthed a human skull
3. Amplification of the gene. during excavation. A small fragment of the
4. Insertion of gene in plasmid vector. scalp tissue was still attached to it. Only little
DNA could be extracted from it. If the genes of
5. Obtaining foreign gene product.
the ancient man need to be analysed, the best
6. Extraction of desired product (Downstream way of getting sufficient amount of DNA from
processing). this extract is
Thus, the correct option is (d). (a) Subjecting the DNA to polymerase chain
119. Now-a-days, the early diagnosis of bacterial or reaction
viral infection in humans is possible using? (b) Subjecting the DNA to gel electrophoresis
(a) Serum analyzer (b) DNA sequencer (c) Treating the DNA with restriction
(c) PCR (d) CT Scan endonucleases
Karnataka CET-2020 (d) Hybridising the DNA with a DNA probe
Ans. (c) : PCR stands for Polymerase Chain Reaction. Karnataka CET-2009
In this reaction, multiple copies of DNA is synthesized Ans. (a) : Polymerase chain reaction (P.C.R.) is the best
in-vitro using two set of primers and the enzyme DNA method to amplify the desired DNA. P.C.R. produces a
polymerase PCR helps in detection of diseases in early large amount for analysis starting from a very small
stage by amplifying the DNA. PCR have three steps amount. Only a small amount of DNA evidence is
denaturation, annealing and extension. typically found in this case. So P.C.R. is useful because
120. Biolistics method is suitable for gene transfer the small amount of DNA can be amplified to a quantity
into -------------. that can be worked with.
(a) Viruses (b) Animal cells 124. Genetically transformed host cells can be
(c) Bacteria (d) Plants cells selected by
Karnataka CET-2020 (i) Antibiotic resistant genes
Ans. (d) : Biolistic method is suitable for gene transfer (ii) Radioactive ds DNA having complementarity
into plant cells. Biolistic method or gene gun is a to the whole length of desired DNA
technique in which bombarding of DNA with high (iii) Coding sequence of β-galactosidase
velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten takes place. (iv) Radioactive ss DNA having complementarity
121. From the given combinations of steps in PCR, to atleast one part of desired DNA
identify the enzyme dependent step/s. (v) Radioactive ds RNA having complementarity
(a) Annealing and extension to the whole length of desire DNA
(b) Annealing and denaturation Options:
(c) Denaturation and extension (a) i, ii, v (b) ii, iii, v
(d) Extension only. (c) i, ii, iii, v (d) i, iii, iv
Karnataka CET-2020 AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II
Ans. (d) : PCR have three steps i.e. denaturation, Ans. (d) : These characteristics are required for
anneling and extension or elongation. selecting genetically transformed host cell-
• Extension or elongation step is enzyme dependent • Antibiotic resistant genes.
step. • Coding sequence of β – galactosidase.
• Taq polymerase enzyme used in PCR technique • Radioactive ss DNA having complementarity to at
which is thermos table in nature. least one part of desired DNA.
125. The equipment which introduces DNA into (b) It remains active at high temperature
cells is (c) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in
(a) Laser (b) DNA probe recipient cells
(c) Gene gun (d) Needle (d) It serves as a selectable marker
SRM JEEE-2019 AIPMT (Screening)-2012
Ans. (c) : The equipment which introduces DNA into Ans. (b) : DNA Polymerase is heat stable enzyme used
cell is gene gun. The gene gun method is a method used for polymerisation or amplification.
for genetically modifying plants. The gene gun method In PCR, Taq polymerase is used which is obtained form
delivers extra DNA directly into a plant’s nucleus. The thermo aquatic bacteria is a thermostable DNA
method is also commonly called particle acceleration or polymerase. It remains active at high temperature.
microprojectile bombardment.
126. Polyethylene glycol method is used for :
(a) Energy production from sewage
(b) Gene transfer without a vector
(c) Biodiesel production
(d) Seedless fruit production
AIPMT-2009
Ans. (b) : Direct gene transfer is the transfer of naked
DNA into plant cells, but the presence of rigid plant cell
wall acts as a barrier to intake.
• Therefore protoplasts are the recommend target for
direct gene transfer. Polyethylene glycol mediated DNA
uptake is a direct gene transfer method that utilizes the
interaction between PEG, naked DNA, salts and the
protoplast membrane to effect transport of the DNA into
the cytoplasm of the plant cell. 129. Identify the correct combination of the
127. Which one of the following is a case of wrong following related to recombinant DNA
matching? technology.
(a) Micropropagation-Invitro production of
(a)Ti plasmid - Artificially
plants in large numbers synthesized plasmid
(b) Callus-Unorganised mass of cells produced in
(b) DNA probe - Radioactively
tissue culture
labelled double
(c) Somatic hybridization-Fusion of two diverse
cells stranded DNA
(d) Vector DNA-Site for t-RNA synthesis (c) Sticky ends of DNA - Facilitate the action
AIPMT (Screening)-2012 of DNA Ligase
(d) Colony hybridization - Identification of
Ans. (d) : Vectors are DNA molecules that can carry a
antibiotic resistant
foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the host cell.
gene
They are used in recombinant DNA technology. Hence,
vector DNA site for t-RNA synthesis is wrong AP EAMCET-2010
matching. Ans. (c) : The Sticky ends of DNA facilitate the action
of DNA ligase.
• Ti plasmid – Ti plasmid is a natural plasmid. Tumor
inducing plasmid, is found in a pathogenic species of
agrobacterium.
• DNA probe – A probe is a single-stranded sequence
of DNA or RNA used to search for it complementary
sequence in a sample genome.
• Colony hybridization – Colony hybridization is a
128. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA method of selecting bacterial colonies with desired
polymerase used in PCR? genes. It is no use for identification of antibiotic
(a) It is isolated from a virus resistance gene.

16. BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS
APPLICATIONS
• Bacillus thuringiensis. These genes encode for the
A. Role of Biotechnological production of insecticidal proteins, thus transformed
Application in Agriculture plants produce one or more toxins as they grow. The
genes that have been inserted into cotton produce
1. Pusa komal for bacteria blight and pusa toxins that one limited in activity almost exclusively
swarnim for white rust are processed in these to caterpillar pests (Lepidoptera).
crops respectively these crops respectively 4. The Triticale is an intergeneric hybrid
(a) Wheat and Brassica between:
(b) Cauliflower and chilli (a) wheat and maize (b) maize and rye
(c) Brassica and chilli (c) wheat and rye (d) bajra and wheat
(d) Cow pea and Brassica BHU PMT-2003
AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II Ans. (c) :Triticale is a hybrid or intergeneric cross that
Ans. (d) : Pusa komal is a variety of cow pea. This is made by the crossing of wheat (Triticum) and rye
variety is resisting to bacterial blight. (secale).
• Pusa swarim is a variety of brassica it is resistent to write • Triticale is of two type (Triticum) wheat as mother
???? rust cause the oomycets (Albugo-condida) symptons plant and (secale cereale) rye as the pollen donor.
it is chlorosis on leaf surfice. Swiling of roots. • Intergeneric hybrid is an intervarietal hybridization
process in which crossing between parents of
2.
different genus of the same family.
List-I List-II List-III
5. Genetically modified Bt brinjal in India has
(A) SCP I) β Carotene i) High protein been developed as
(B) Atlas 66 II) Vitamin C ii) Algae (a) drought resistant
(C) IARI III) Spirulina iii) Rice (b) insect resistant
(D) Golden rice (IV) Wheat iv) Bitter gourd (c) long shelf life
(a) A-II-i, B-IV-ii, C-III-iv, D-I-iii (d) enhanced mineral content
(b) A-III-ii, B-IV-i, C-II-iv, D-I-iii Tripura JEE-2018
(c) A-IV-i, B-III-ii, C-I-iv, D-II-iii Ans. (b) : Bt brinjal, also known as Genetically
(d) A-I-iv, B-III-ii, C-IV-iii, D-II-i Modified (GM) brinjal or eggplant, has been developed
AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II to be insect resistant. The “Bt” in Bt brinjal stands for
Bacillus thuringiensis, a bacterium that produces a
Ans. (b) :
protein toxin to certain insect pests.
SCP - Spirulina - Algai
6. The toxic substances released from Bacillus
Atlas 66 - wheat - High protein
thuringiensis affects _____ of insect larva.
IARI - Vit-C amin - Bitter gourd (a) brain (b) gut
Golden rice - Bcarotile - Rice (c) malpighian tubules (d) trachea
3. Insect resistance transgenic cotton has been MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
produced by inserting a piece of DNA from Ans. (b) : Bacillus thuringiensis is a group of strains or
(a) an insect isolates of naturally occurring soil bacteria which
(b) a bacterium mainly extracted toxicity through the production of
(c) a wild relative of cotton crystal (Cry) toxins.
(d) a virus • The Bt toxin protein exists as an inactive toxin
UP CPMT-2004 protoxin is converted into an active form due to the
Ans. (b) : Insect resistance transgenic cotton has been alkaline pH of the alimentary canal that solubilizes in
produced by inserting a piece of DNA from a bacterium the crystals.
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt). • The activated toxin binds to the surface of mid gut
• Bt cotton has been genetically modified by the epithelial cells and created pores which cause cell
insertion of one or more genes from a common soil swelling and lysis and finally causes the death of the
bacterium, insects.
Biotechnology and its Applications 769 YCT
7. Rotenone is a is present in the form of inactive protoxin which on
(a) bioherbicide injestion by insects converts into active toxic form and
(b) commonly used biofertilizer bind to the surface of midgy epithelial cells of insect
(c) bioinsecticide and by cell swelling and lysis finally kill the insects.
(d) juvenile hormone • Biofertilizer are substances that contain micro
DUMET-2010 organism, that has been added to the soil increase it
Ans. (c) : Rotenone is a naturally occuring compound fertility and promotes plant growth by increasing the
derived from the roots of certain plants, such as Jicama supply of essential nutrients to the plants. It
and various members of the bean family . It is comprises living organism which include
commonly used as a bioinsecticide in agriculture and mycorrhizal fungi, blue green algae and bacteria.
pest control. • Biomineralization is process by which living
8. Which of the following is obtained from genetic organism produce minerals often to harden or stiffen
engineering? existing tissues such tissue is called mineralized
(a) Haemoglobin (b) Glucose tissues. It is an extremely widespread phenomenon,
(c) Golden rice (d) None of these all six taxonomic kingdom contain members that are
DUMET-2008 able to form minerals and over 60 different minerals
Ans. (c) : Golden rice is a rice variety produced by have been identified in organism.
genetic engineering in which beta-carotene, the Ex-Silicates in algae, Diatoms, Carbonates in
precursor molecule of vitamin A is synthesized. invertebrates and Calcium phosphate.
9. Which one of the following pesticides is banned 12. Cry-IAC effectively controls,
now-a-days?
(a) Root nematode (b) Cotton bollworms
(a) DDT (b) Eldrin
(c) Ring worm (d) Corn borer
(c) Aldrin (d) Toxaphene
Karnataka CET-2022
HP CET-2011
Ans. (a) : DDT (Dichloro Diphenyl Trichloroethane) a Ans. (b) : Bt toxin is encoded by a class of gene called
chemical pesticide did not decompose radially and the Cry genes. A variety of Cry genes is present and
persisted in the environment. Since, it was soluble in fat they act against different organism. For example cry 1
rather than water. It biomagnified up the food chain and AC and Cry II Ab genes act against cotton bollworms.
disrupted calcium metabolism in birds, causing egg shells • Corn borer (Ostrinia nubilalis)– European Corn borer,
to be thin and fragile. So, DDT is banned now-a-days. also known as the European corn worm or European
10. The strategy used to prevent the nematode high-flyer, is a moth of the family Crambidae which
infection in the roots of tobacco plant is called includes other grass moths. It is a pest of grain,
(a) use of agro chemicals particularly maize.
(b) bt toxin gene 13. Select the wrong statement
(c) gene mutation (a) Human insulin is being commercially
(d) RNA interference produced from a transgenic species of
J&K CET-2014
Escherichia coli
Ans. (d) : RNA interference (RNAi) is a biological
(b) The genetically modified bacillus
process that can be used to prevent nematode infection
thuringiensis is used as biopesticide the
in the roots of tobacco plants and other crops. It
commercial scale
involves the regulation of gene expression by inhibiting
the translation of specific genes into proteins. (c) Human protein, alpha-1-antitrypsin is used to
treat emphysema
11. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been
(d) The first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced
used for designing novel
alpha lactalbumin, enriched milk
(a) Biofertilisers
(e) Bt toxin genes Cry 1 AC control the corn borer
(b) Bioinsecticidal plants
Kerala PMT-2015
(c) Biomineralisation process
Ans. (e) : Bt toxin genes are indeed used in genetically
(d) Biometallurgical techniques
modified crops to make them resistant to certain pests
J&K CET-2014 / AIPMT-2005 / SRM JEE-2017
like the Corn borer. However, the specific gene
Ans. (b) : Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) stain have been
mentioned here, Cry 1AC, is more commonly
used for rising insects resistant plant. Most strains are
toxic to Lepidopteron larvae and toxicity is due to toxin associated with cotton crops. Cotton plants are
gene named as bt-2. This bacterium is being used since genetically modified to produce Cry 1AC, which is
world war-1 to check the attack of some pest. Bt toxin toxic to cotton bollworm but not the Corn borer.

14. Main objective of production/use of herbicide (d) produce a wide variety of antibiotics
resistant GM crops is to Haryana PMT-2004
(a) eliminate weeds from the field without the Ans. (b) :The bacteria Pseudomonas is useful primarily
use of manual labour because of its ability to decompose a variety of organic
(b) eliminate weeds from the field without the compounds. Pseudomonas species are known for their
use of herbicides versatile metabolism and the ability to break down
(c) encourage eco-friendly herbicides various organic materials including hydrocarbons,
(d) reduce herbicide accumulation in food aromatic compounds and other complex organic
particles for health safety substances. Prof.Anand Mohan Chakravarty (An Indian
BHU PMT (Screening)-2010 molecular biologist) developed a super train of
Ans. (d) : Chemical substances which are used to kill Pseudomonas which can degrade oil. It is known as
or repel pest are called pesticide. The pesticides which Chakravartys superbug.
are used to destroy weeds are called herbicides. 18. Biopesticides do not control
Herbicides are used in agriculture to control the weeds. (a) viruses (b) nematodes
They inhibit plant growth by blocking the biosynthesis (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) fungi and bacteria
of amino acids or photosynthetic activities of plants. AMU-2008
• Thus, GM crops is used to reduce herbicide Ans. (c) : Biopesticides are not controlling both virus
accumulation in food particles for health safety. and nematodes. Biopesticides are those biological agent
15. Which of the following can be controlled by that are used to control weeds insects and pathogens.
using biopesticides? 19. Transgenic crops are modified through genetic
(a) Insects (b) Diseases engineering to develop natural resistance to
(c) Weeds (d) All of these insect pests. Which one is a transgenic plant?
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 (a) Tobacco and cotton
Ans. (d) : Biopesticides are derived from natural (b) Tomato and rice
materials and are used to manage various pests, (c) Maize and sugarcane
including insects, diseases and weeds in agriculture and (d) Tomato and wheat
pest control. Biopesticides are a category of pest control Haryana PMT-2003
agents that are derived from natural sources, such as
Ans. (a) : Transgenic crops are those that have their
plants, microorganisms and other organic materials.
genetic makeup modified through genetic engineering
16. The DNA of Ti-plasmid which is obtained from to incorporate genes from other organisms. In this case,
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used in genetic the goal is to develop natural resistance to insect pests.
engineering this DNA is also called: They have been genetically modified to contain genes
(a) A-DNA (b) B-DNA that confer resistance to certain insect pests and making
(c) Z-DNA (d) T-DNA them transgenic plants.
Haryana PMT-2002 20. What name has been assigned to the genus
Ans. (d) : t-DNA:- The t-DNA is the transferred DNA produced by a cross between cabbage and
of the tumor-inducing (Ti) plasmid of same species of radish?
bacteria such as Agrobacterium tumefaciens. This (a) Secale (b) Bursapastoris
plasmid is widely used in the creation of transgenic (c) Lysogenicophyll (d) Raphanobrassica
plants by delivering the necessary DNA payload. Uttarakhand PMT-2008
B-DNA :- B-DNA is the most metabolically stable
Ans. (d) : Raphanobrassica and Triticale are intergenic
DNA. It exist at high relative humidity i.e. more than
hydrids. Raphanobrassica is the result of cross between
90% and high salt concentration. When relative
humidity decrease the B-DNA changes gradually into Raphanus (Radish) and Brassica (cabbage). Triticale is
A-DNA, C-DNA, and D-DNA. It is right handed i.e. first man made cereal and the result of cross between
clockwise and number of base pair is 10. Tritium and Secale.
Z-DNA:- Discovered by rich sugar phosphate backbone 21. GM brinjal in India has been developed for
zig zag number of base pair is 12. resistance against
A-DNA:- It is a right handed double helix similar to the (a) Virus (b) Bacteria
B-DNA form. (c) Fungi (d) Insects
17. The bacteria Pseudomonas is useful because of Rajasthan PMT-2011
its ability to Ans. (d) : GM brinjal has been developed specifically
(a) transfer genes from one plant to another to resist insect pests. This genetically modified variety
(b) decompose a variety of organic compounds of brinjal also known as Bt brinjal, contains a gene
(c) fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.
22. Flooding of the field is an effective control (d) There is danger of coming viruses, allergens
measure for this type of pathogen and toxins with introduced crop
(a) Fungi (b) Bacteria AIPMT-2002
(c) Nematode (d) Viruses Ans. (d) : Introduction of food plants developed by
BCECE-2009 genetic engineering is not desirable because there is
Ans. (c) : Flooding the field may well become an danger of coming viruses, allergens and toxins with
alternative method for the elimination of nematodes. introduced crop. This is a concern that has been raised
23. Pesticides include : in relation to genetic engineering. There is a need for
(a) Insecticide only rigorous safety assessments to prevent unintended
(b) fungicides, herbicides, insecticides consequences.
nematicides and rodenticides 27. Tobacco plants resistant to Meloidegyne
(c) insecticides, nematicides and rodenticide incognitia were developed using a method of
(d) herbicides insecticides and nematicides cellular defence which relates to
BCECE-2002 (a) Silencing the translation of specific mRNA
Ans. (b) : Pesticides are substances used to kill or repel (b) Silencing the transcription of specific mRNA
pests. The pesticides are of the following types- (c) Activation of specific tRNA
Fungicides - that kill the fungi pathogen (d) Activation of specific mRNA
Algicides – that kill algae TS EAMCET-2015
Herbicides or weedicides – that kill herb or weed Ans. (a) : Meloidegyne incognitia is a nematode that
Insecticides – that kill insects infects the root of tobacco plants and causes reduction
Nematicides – that kill Nematodes in yield. In all eukaryotic organisms RNA interference
Rodenticides – that kill Rodents (rats and mice) is method of cellular defense. Plants infected by M.
24. The part of cotton producing pure cellulose is incognitia show stunted growth, yellowing, marginal
(a) Root hair (b) Leaf hair and tip drying of leaves resulting reduced tillering
(c) Seed hair (d) Stem hair coupled with calling and rotting of roots. So, RNAi
BCECE-2007 involves silencing of specific mRNA due to
Ans. (c) : Cotton fibres, which consist of pure cellulose, complementary
are indeed produced in the seed hairs of cotton plant. dsRNA molecule that binds and prevent mRNA
These fibres are commonly known as cotton lint or translation (silencing).
cotton fibres and are harvested for various uses, such as 28. Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins
textile production. and minerals or higher proteins and healthier
25. The pesticide used as preventive measure in fats is called :
buildings is : (a) Bio-accumulation (b) Bio-magnification
(a) aldrin (b) dieldrin (c) Bio-remediation (d) Bio-fortification
(c) endrin (d) DDT NEET-2022
MGIMS Wardha-2003 Ans. (d) : Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins
Ans. (a) : Aldrin is a synthetic organochlorine and minerals or higher protein and healthler fats is
pesticide, and used as a broad-spectrum soil insecticide known as biofortification
for protection of food crops and as seed dressing for the • Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration
control of pests such as ants and termites. of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.
• Aldrin was used in buildings to protect against • Bioremediation is the phenomenon of using
insects, such as termites.
biological organism to handle pollution.
• Organochlorines and chlorinated hydrocarbon are an
• The word bioaccumulation is used to described the
important class of pesticides. The important ones are
buildup of chemicals in fish. Through the food chain,
DDT, BHC, aldrin, dieldrin and endrin. They are
chemicals like PCBs, DDT dioxins and mercury
persistent, fat soluble and show biomagnifications
and hence, are harmful to higher tropic level of build up in the bodies of the fish.
organism. 29. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a
26. Introduction of food plants developed by foreign company, though such varieties have
genetic engineering is not desirable because – been present in India for a long time. This is
(a) Economy of developing countries may suffer related to
(b) These products are less tasty as compared to (a) Co-677 (b) Sharbati Sonora
the already existing products (c) Basmati (d) Lerma Rojo
(c) This method is costly NEET-2018
Ans. (c) : Basmati is a variety of long, slender rice which • Antisense RNA can be produced by inverting a DNA
has an aroma. They are native to the Indian subcontinent copy of m-RNA with respect to the promoter as an
and have a delicious taste and distinct flavour. expression vector. Transcription from both strands of
• In 1997, an American company got patent rice on Basmati DNA creates two different RNA molecules on the
rice through the US patent and trade mark office. left, the m-RNA and on the right antisense RNA.
• This new variety of Basmati had actually been • This yields a full length complimentary copy of the
derived from Indian farmer’s varieties. mRNA sequence.
• This new variety was produced by Indian Basmati 33. Study following table
with semi dwarf varieties. A. RNA Prokaryotes Cellular
30. Which vaccine is produced by using genetically interference defense
modified yeast? B. Genes Cry1 Ab Controls
(a) Polio (b) BCG corn borer
(c) Hepatitis-B (d) Covaxin C. Insect Bt toxin Active form
AP EAPCET-11.07.2022 Shift-I D. Superweeds Gene Resistance to
Ans. (c) : Hepatitis-B is mainly produced by the Yeast pollution weedicides
to form a recombinant DNA. HB antigen producing The correct combination are
gene is ligated to the plasmid. Then it is inserted to the (a) A, C, D (b) B, C, D
Yeast cell. In the fermentation tank recombinant (c) A, B, D (d) A, B, C
molecule multiplies to produces HB antigen. After that AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-II
antigens are purified and used as hepatitis-B vaccine.
Ans. (b) : Bt toxin or endotoxin are encoded by Cry
31. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones can be gene and protein encoded by Cry IAb gene control
classified into a single category of biological cornborer
chemicals, because all of these – • Bt toxin is inactive in nature called pro-toxin
(a) Are exclusively synthesized in the body of a converted into active form in gut of insects due to
living organism as at present high alkaline condition.
(b) enhance oxidative metabolism • Superweeds are produced by accidently crossing of
(c) Are conjugated proteins wild plants with genetically engineered plants. It
(d) Help in regulating metabolism contains gene for herbicide resistance and such
AIPMT-2005 condition is called gene pollution.
Ans. (d) : Enzyme, vitamins and hormones are all 34. Assertion (A): Cry is insect group specific
important for cellular metabolism. All these categories gene of cotton
of biological chemical help in regulation of metabolism. Reason (R): Cry IAc and cry IIAb control
• Enzyme is able to produce protein based catalyst the cotton boll worms
produced by a cell and responsible for the high rate Options :
and specificity of one or more intercellular or (a) (A) is correct (R) is correct (R) is correct
intracellular biochemical reaction. Vitamins cannot explanation to (A)
be synthesized in human body and must be procured (b) (A) is correct (R) is correct, (R) is not correct
for diet. explanation to (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
• Many vitamins act as coenzymes and are directly
(d) (A) is false (R) is correct
required for cellular metabolism because it is fat
soluble or activated in exposure of sunlight. AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-I
Ans. (a) : Bt toxin or endotoxins are encoded by Cry
32. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have
gene. Cry gene act against different organisms &
been developed by the introduction of DNA
insects.
that is produced in the host cells as
• Cry I Ac & Cry-II Ab genes act against the cotton
(a) An antifeedant
Boll worms.
(b) A toxic protein
• Thus option (a) is correct.
(c) Both sense and anti-sense RNA
35. Which of the following is used as
(d) A particular hormone bioinsecticide?
AIPMT (Mains)-2012 (a) Bacillus polymyxa
Ans. (c) : Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode (b) Cylindrospermum licheniforme
specific genes are introduced into host plants. (c) Phytophthora palmivora
• The introduction of DNA produces both sense and (d) Chrysanthemum cinerarifolium
antisense RNA in host cells. AIIMS-2016
Ans. (d) : Pyrethrum is used as an insecticide which is Ans. (b) Gene manipulation benefits in plant : -
obtained from the inflorescence of Chrysanthemum • It reduces reliance on chemical pesticides or
cinerarifolium. It is a member of the daisy family, agrochemicals.
Asteraceae. • Helps to reduce post- harvest losses and is beneficial
Bacillus polymyxa and Cylindrospermum for industries.
licheniforme are free living nitrogen fixing bacteria • Increase the efficiency of mineral usage by
and cyanobacteria respectively. enhancing the nutritional value in food.
Phytophthora palmivora is an oomycete, a type of
fungus –like organism. It as a plant pathogen that
cause a variety of diseases including black pod rot of List List II
cocoa, papaya root rot and bud rot of palm. A Taipei I Bruise resistant
36. Biolistic (gene gun) is suitable for: B Roundup ready II Cotton boll worms
(a) Disarming pathogen vectors C Flavr Savr III Rich in vitamin-A
(b) Transformation of plant cell D Bt-Cotton IV Herbicide
(c) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining tolerant
with vectors The correct match is :
(d) DNA fingerprinting A B C D
AIIMS-2015 (a) III IV I II
Ans. (b) : The gene gun is utilized to bombard the plant (b) III I IV II
cell wall with many DNA coated metal particles by (c) III II I IV
using compressed helium as the propellant. (d) II I III IV
• The biolistic method is a transformation method used TS EAMCET-31.07.2022 Shift-I
in plants.
Ans. (a) : Transgenic rice Taipei-309 (Golden rice)
Mainly metal particles are used-gold, tungsten, carries three genes known as Psy (phytoene synthase),
platinum, iridium, rhodium etc. Crt-1(Phytoene desatunase) and Lcy (Lycopene
37. Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the cyclase), all these three genes of function co-
news. The prefix Bt means coordinately to produce β-carotene. It is also rich in vit-
(a) "Barium-treated" cotton seeds A
(b) "Bigger thread" variety of cotton with better • Round -up ready soyabean is genetically modified
tensile strength soyabean that is resistant to herbicide glyphosate.
(c) Produced by "biotechnology" using • Bt cotton is genetically modified that is resistant to
restriction enzymes and ligases cotton ball worm.
(d) Carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus • Flavr savr is transgenic tomato are bruise resistant.
thuringienesis Hence, it is suitable for storage and have longer shelf
AIIMS-2004 life.
Ans. (d) : In Bt carrying an endotoxin gene from 40. The antisense construct of ACC synthase gene
Bacillus thuringiensis. Bt is a toxic gene obtain from a (RNA) was used in production of
bacterial species. (a) Bt maize
• Bacillus thuringiensis have a special cry gene and the (b) Bt cotton
in Cry gene form cry protein, the Cry protein exist (c) Golden rice
crystal solid form. When they come in contact to insect
(d) Flavr savr (tomato)
alimentary canal they are converted into the liquid form
and create large size pores in insect alimentary canal BCECE-2015
which leads to the death of insects. Ans. (d) : The antisense construct of ACC synthase
gene (RNA) was used in production of Flavr savr
38. Plants genes have been altered by
manipulation for these uses (tomato).
(I) Increased efficiency of mineral usage • ACC synthase is an enzyme involved in the
(II) Alternative resources to industries biosynthesis of ethylene, a plant hormone that regulates
(III) Enhanced nutritional value of food various physiological processes. It delays fruit ripening
(IV) Better management practices and uses of or increasing plant tolerance to stress conditions. Flavr
agrochemicals savr tomato was one of the earliest examples of
(a) II, III, IV (b) I, II, III genetically modified food with potential benefits such
(c) I, III, IV (d) II, III, IV as reducing food waste by extending the self life of
tomato.
41. DEVINER and COLLEGO are two trade B) The proteins encoded by the genes Cry I
names in agriculture. They are used as: Ac, and Cry II Ab control cotton
(a) bioinsecticides (b) natural insecticides bollworm, while Cry I Ab control corn
(c) biofungicides (d) bioherbicides stem borer.
J&K CET-2001 C) RNA I takes place in all organisms as a
Ans. (d) : Deviner is the bioherbicide used for method of cellular defence.
controlling milk weed vine. Product made up of liquid D) Hereditary diseases can be treated through
concentrate of Phytopthora palmivora chlamydospores. gene therapy.
Deviner was first bioherbicide registered in United (a) A,C only (b) A,B only
States. (c) B,D only (d) C,D only
• Collego is also bioherbicide made from the TS EAMCET-28.09.2020 Shift-II
anthracnose causing fungal pathogen Coleotricum Ans. (a) : Genetically modified crops have more
gleosporiodes used to control Aeschynomene tolerance to abiotic stress like heat, drought, salinity
verginica in rice and soyabean crops. etc.
42. Identify the correct sequence of steps in RNA • RNA interference method takes place in all eukaryotic
interference (RNAi) process to develop organisms as a cellular defense.
nematode resistant plants 45. Insect pest resistant Bt cotton plant was
(I) Silencing of specific mRNA of the developed using
nematode (a) Somaclonal variation
(II) Formation of sense and antisense RNA (b) Micropropagation
(III) ds RNA formation (c) Somatic hybridisation
(IV) Introducing nematode specific genes into (d) Transgenic technology
the plant WB JEE-2014
(a) (IV) (II) (III) (I) Ans. (d) : Bt cotton contains endotoxin protein from
(b) (IV) (I) (II) (III) coding of Cry gene of soil bacteria. Bt cotton refers to
(c) (I) (II) (IV) (III) transgenic cotton which is developed using transgenic
(d) (III) (II) (I) (IV) technology.
TS EAMCET-15.05.2016 • Somaclonal variation are seen in plants that have
Ans. (a) : In the process of RNAi, expression of gene is been induced by plant tissue culture process. It is a
inhibited by the RNA molecule that interfere with the type of genetic variation.
targeted RNA molecule which is done by • Micropropagation is widely used in commercial
complementary ds RNA molecule that binds & prevents horticulture. This method plants are produced by in
mRNA translation (silencing). So sequence for RNAi vitro culture of small piece of plant tissue in a sterile
are as follows :- medium which develops into new plantlets.
1. Introducing Nematode specific genes into the plant. 46. Out of the following which is not concerned
2. Formation of sense and anti sense RNA. with biotechnology ?
3. Complementary ds RNA formation. (a) Biogas production (b) Sewage treatment
4. Silencing of specific mRNA of the nematode. (c) Bio fertilizers (d) Wood seasoning
43. Production of superior F1 hybrids is called BVP-2006
(a) inbreeding (b) domestication Ans. (d) : Wood seasoning is not concerned with the
(c) emasculation (d) heterosis biotechnology. It is the process of reducing the
J&K CET-2010 moisture content of the wood to the level where it can
Ans. (d) : Phenotypic superiority of the hybrid over its be used without fear of distortion or cracking. It is
parents in one or more traits is defined as Heterosis for basically air drying process of timber.
example :- Mule is both hardier and sturdier than of its. • Biogas is produced by the decomposition of organic
parents. matter by the bacteria in anaerobic condition and it is
• The process of removing anthers from bisexual flower part of biotechnology.
without affecting female reproductive part is termed as • Biotechnology is also very helpful for production of
emasculation. biofertilizers. Biofertilizers enhance soil productivity
44. Choose the incorrect statements among the by fixing atmospheric nitrogen and promote plant
following growth.
A) Genetically modified crops have less 47. Hydroponics is the method of
tolerance to abiotic stress like heat and (a) Water conservation
drought. (b) Plant development in water without soil
(c) Plant development without soil Ans. (d): Biotechnology is a interdisciplinary field that
(d) Plant development in saline soil involves the integration of natural sciences and
J&K CET-2011 engineering sciences in order to achieve the application
Ans. (b) : In hydroponics method plants developed in of organisms, cell parts and molecules analogues for
water without soil, using a nutrient – rich water products and services. Biotechnology had a significant
solution. impact on many areas of society from medicine to
• The advantages of hydroponics method to faster agriculture to environmental science. The applications
growth rates of crops, less susceptible to pests and of biotechnology are diverse and have led to the
diseases than soil based system etc. development of essential products like life-saving
drugs, biofuels, genetically modified crops and
48. Which of the following is not a benefit of innovative materials. It is also being used to address
organic farming? environmental challenges such as developing
(a) Complete eradication of pests biodegradable plastics and using microorganisms to
(b) Reduced use of toxic chemicals clean up contaminated sites.
(c) Maintaining an eco-system in field 52. With advancements in genetics, molecular
(d) Preservation of beneficial inseccts biology and tissue culture the plant breeders
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I are trying to incorporate the attributes into
Ans. (a) : Organic forming does not use synthetic crop plants.
pesticides, but instead relies on natural methods of pest Indicate the correct attributes from the
control, such as crop rotation, companion planting and following.
biological controls. It is the practice of farming or (i) increased tolerance to environmental
raising of crops and other livestock without using any stresses
inorganic chemical fertilizers, pesticides or any other (ii) resistance to edaphic factors
genetically modified organism. (iii) resistance to pathogens
49. Which of the following bio-engineered bacteria (iv) increased tolerance to insect pests
is utilized for cleaning of marine oil slicks? (a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(a) Escherichia coli (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) Pseudomonas syringae (c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) pseudomonas putida (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) Rhizoctonia solani TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II
BVP-2009 Ans. (a) : (i) Environmental stress refers to a negative
Ans. (c) : Pseudomonas putida is gram negative aerobic subjective psychological response to an environmental
bacteria. It is utilized for cleaning of marine oil slicks. It is stimulus.
a naturally occurring bacterium that has been modified to (iii) Their are two ways that bacterial cells can acquire
be more efficient at breaking down hydrocarbons. antibiotic resistance-one is through mutations that occur
Pseudomonas putida is able to degrade a wide range at in the DNA of the cell during replication.
hydrocarbons, including those found in crude oil. (iv) Tolerance is a type of resistance that causes the
50. Which of the following insecticide is obtained plant to compensate for pest injury to a degree
from the roots of Den-is elleptica? exceeding non-tolerant plants.
(a) Cinerin (b) Nicotine 53. In addition to the production of high yielding
(c) Rotenone (d) Pyrethrum and disease resistant varieties, genetic
Manipal-2008 modification has :
Ans. (c) : A chemical compound known as Retenoids (i) helped to reduce post harvest losses
are found in several plants such as Elleptica, Jicama (ii) decreased the nutritional value of good
vine plant and in the roots of several fabaceae family (iii) reduced reliance on chemical pesticides
members. Rotenone compound used as broad spectrum (iv) decreased the efficiency of mineral usage
insecticide and pesticide. It is colourless, odourless, by plants
crystalline ketonic chemical compound. (v) produced crops that are resilient to
• Cinerin also contain insecticidal properties but it is environmental stresses
obtained from Pyrethrum flower. The correct combination is
51. In which field application of biotechnology (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
occurs? (b) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(a) Bio-medicine (b) Agriculture (c) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) Environmental field (d) All of the above (d) (i), (iii) and (v)
GUJCET-2015 TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II
Ans. (d) : (i) The post harvest chain involves a series of B. Role of Biotechnological
operations starting immediately after taking a product
from the field to its consumption. Post harvest
Applications in Medicines
operations include cleaning/washing, cooling storage, 56. The molecular structure of insulin was first
grading, packaging transportation processing and described by:
marketing. (a) Korenberg (b) Swaminathan
(iii) Pesticides can cause short-term adverse health (c) Richardson (d) Sanger
effects, called acute effects, as well as chronic adverse MGIMS Wardha-2004 / UP CPMT-2004
effects that can occur months or years after exposure. Ans. (d) : F. Sanger was the first person who worked
(v) Stress in plants refers to external conditions that out the complete amino acid sequences of insulin and
adversely affect growth development or productivity of got nobel prize in 1958. Insulin is a protein of 51 amino
plants. acids. It is made up of two polypeptide chains held
So, option (d) is correct. together by disulphide bridges.
54. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals 57. First hormone produced artificially by
which contain insecticidal protein culturing bacteria is
(a) does not kill the carrier bacterium which is (a) insulin (b) thyroxine
itself resistant to this toxin (c) testosterone (d) adrenaline
(b) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the Haryana PMT-2007
insect pest ultimately killing it Ans. (a) : Insulin is first product made by genetically
(c) is coded by several genes including the gene engineered bacteria to be approved for use in Britain
CRY and the USA (1982). Human insulin is also produced
(d) is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the from a transgenic E. coli strain that contains and
insect pest expresses the insulin gene.
AIPMT (Mains)-2011 58. Some of the common steps involved in the
Ans. (b) : Bacillus thuringiensis binds with epithelial production of humulin are given below. Choose
cells of the midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it the correct sequence.
and forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal (I) Synthesis of gene (DNA) for human
protein. insulin artificially.
(II) Culturing of recombinant E. coli in
bacteria.
(III) Purification of humulin.
(IV) Insertion of human insulin gene in
plasmid DNA.
(V) Introduction of recombinant plasmid into
E. coli.
(VI) Extraction of recombinant gene product
from E. coli.
(a) II, I, IV, III, V, VI (b) I, III, V, VI, II, IV
55. "Jaya" and "Ratna" developed for green (c) I, IV, V, II, VI, III (d) III, V, II, I, VI, IV
revolution in India are the varieties of : Manipal-2015
(a) Bajra (b) Maize Ans. (c) : Humulin is type of insulin, a hormone
(c) Rice (d) Wheat produced by the pancreas, that plays a role in regulating
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 blood sugar.
Ans. (c) : Jaya & Ratna are high yielding varieties of The steps involved in the production of humulin are as
rice developed at the time of green revolution. They follow-
were released in 1966 and 1968, respectively and they (1) Synthesis of gene (DNA) from human insulin
helped to increase rice production in India. artificially.
• The Green Revolution was a period of rapid (2) Insertion of human insulin gene in plasmid DNA.
agricultural modernization that occurred in India during (3) Introduction of recombinant plasmid into E. coli.
the 1960 and 1970. Jaya and Ratna were developed by a (4) Culturing recombinant E. coli in bioreactors.
team of scientists at the Indian Agricultural Research (5) Extraction of a recombinant gene product from E. coli.
Institute (IARI) led by Dr. M.S. Swaminathan. (6) Purification of humulin.
59. Genetically engineered human insulin humulin 62. Hybridoma technology is used to :
was launched by American drug company on (a) kill the cancer cells
(a) 5th July 1998 (b) 5th July 1993 (b) formation of monoclonal antibodies
(c) 5th July 1973 (d) 5th July 1983 (c) formation of somatic hybrids
AMU-2006 (d) formation of antibiotics
VMMC-2006 MGIMS Wardha-2003
Ans. (d) : The first genetically engineered human Ans. (b) : Hybridoma technology is used for the
insulin called humulin was first launched by an production of monoclonal antibodies (mAbs). The
th
American company Eli Lilly in 5 July 1983. monoclonal antibodies produced by the cloned
hybridomus. These monoclonal antibodies are highly
60. Match the items in column I with those of specific, they recognize and bind to a single epitope on
column II. the target antigen.
Column-I Column-II 63. Match the following techniques or instruments
A. Polymerase chain 1. Banting and Best with their usage:
reaction A. Bioreactor i Separation of DNA
B. Insulin 2. Chemical scalpel Fragments
C. Eli Lilly 3. Humulin B. Electrophores ii Production of large
is quantities of
D. Restriction 4. Kornberg
enzymes product
5. Kary Mullis C. PCR iii Detection of
pathogen, based on
(a) A-4 B-5 C-3 D-2
antigen-antibody
(b) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
reaction
(c) A-5 B-1 C-3 D-2
D. ELISA iv Amplification of
(d) A-1 B-4 C-3 D-5
nucleic acids
CMC Ludhiana-2014
Select the correct option from following :
Ans. (c) : Polymerase chain reaction was invented by
(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
Kary Mullis to quickly amplify any piece of DNA.
(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
• Banting and Best succeeded in preparing a pure
(c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
insulin was discovered by extract from pancreatic
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
islets of a dog.
NEET-2020 Phase-II
• Eli Lilly produced – Humulin first genetically
Ans. (c) : Bioreactors are used for industrial scale
engineered made product in 1983.
production of products Bioreactor is an apparatus for
• Restriction enzymes are known as chemical scapel growing organism (Yeast, bacteria, or animal cells)
used to break DNA molecules. Kornberg DNA under controlled conditions, used in industrial processes
isolated polymerase used for producing copies of to produce pharmaceuticals, vaccines or antibodies.
DNA through PCR. • Electrophoresis helps in the separation of DNA
61. Kohler and Milstein developed biotechnology fragments based on their size. Electrophoresis is a
for: laboratory technique used to separate DNA, RNA, or
(a) monoclonal antibodies protein molecule based on their size and electrical
(b) steroid synthesis charge applied. Electrophoresis cannot be used in
(c) immobilization of enzymes separation of lipids.
(d) myeloma • PCR relies on a thermostable DNA polymerase,
Taq- Polymerase, and requires DNA primers
MGIMS Wardha-2003
designed specifically for the DNA region of interest.
Ans. (a) : Monoclonal antibodies are pure, high affinity It is the most commonly used polymerase which is
antibodies specific for an antigen which are obtained obtained from Thermus aquaticus bacteria whose
outside the body from clonal cultures of hybridoma natural habitat is hot springs.
cells. Monoclonal antibodies were first obtained by • ELISA helps in the detection of pathogens based on
George Kohler and Cesar Milstein in 1974. the principle of antigen antibody interaction. ELISA
• In 1975, Georges Kohler and Cesar Milstein (enzyme-linked immuno sorbent assay) is a plate
succeeded in making fusions of myeloma cell lines based assay technique designed for detecting and
with B cells to produce hybridoma that made quantifying soluble substances such as peptides
antibodies to known antigen. proteins antibodies and hormones.
64. With regard to insulin choose correct options. (b) It will not be able to confer ampicillin
(A) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. resistance to the host cell
(B) The insulin produced by rDNA technology (c) The transformed cells will have the ability to
has C-peptide. resist ampicillin as well as produce β-
(C) The pro-insulin has C-peptide galactoside
(D) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are (d) It will lead to lysis of host cell
interconnected by disulphide bridges. NEET-2021
Choose the correct answer from the option Ans. (b) : Since the gene is inserted at pst I of ampR
given below region of pBR 322, the ampR gene is inactivated which
(a) (A) and (D) only (b) (B) and (D) only is called as insertional inactivation. Hence the
(c) (B) and (C) only (d) (A), (C) and (D) only genetically modified E. coli strain will not be able to
NEET-2021 confer amplicillin resistance.
Ans. (d) : Insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone
which contains A-chain, B-chain and an extra stretch
called the C-peptide.
• C-peptide is not present in mature insulin called
humulin.
• Chain A and B are inter connected disulphide
bridges.
65. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated
gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive
probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a 67. Production of a human protein in bacteria by
clone of cells, followed by its detection using genetic engineering is possible because
autoradiography because : (a) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing
(a) mutated gene does not appear on reactions
photographic film as the probe has (b) The mechanism of gene regulation is
complementarity with it identical in humans and bacteria
(b) mutated gene partially appears on a (c) The human chromosome can replicate in
photographic film bacterial cell
(c) mutated gene completely and clearly appears (d) The genetic code is universal
on a photographic film AIPMT-2005
(d) mutated gene does not appear on a Ans. (d) : Production of human protein in bacteria by
photographic film as the probe has no genetic engineering is possible because the genetic
complementarity with it code is universal.
NEET-2021 • This means that the same genetic code is used by all
Ans. (d) : Autoradiography allows the living organisms, including bacteria and humans, to
detection/localization of radioactive isotope within a translate DNA sequence into proteins.
biological sample. 68. Vaccines prepared through recombinant DNA
• Probe is a radiolabelled ss DNA or ss RNA technology are called
depending on the technique. (a) First generation vaccines
• To identify the mutated gene probe is allowed to (b) 2nd generation vaccine
hybridize to its complementary DNA in a clone of (c) 3rd generation vaccine
cells followed by detection using autoradiography. (d) None of above
• Mutated gene will not appear on the photographic CMC Vellore-2013
film because the probe does not complementarily Ans. (c) : Vaccines prepared through recombinant
with the mutated gene. DNA technology are called 3rd generation vaccine. It is
66. Plasmid pBR322 has Pst-l restriction enzyme also known as DNA vaccines. It is made up of circular
site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin piece of DNA (bacterium) via genetic engineering,
resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a these express one or more proteins of pathogen to
gene for β-galactoside production and the induce immunity.
recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli 69. Which of the following are generated from
strain genetically engineered microbes? (1) Insulin (2)
(a) It will be able to produce a novel protein with Human growth hormone (3) Interferon’s (4)
dual ability HIV surface antigens
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Ans. (c) : β-galactosidase gene regulates gene
(b) 1 and 2 are correct expression. These gene express itself into a host DNA
(c) 2 and 4 are correct after transformation and leads to production of
(d) 1 and 3 are correct recombinant Insulin. Thus, recombinant insulin
BHU PMT (Mains)-2010 produced by the gene of α & β polypeptides into
Ans. (a) : With the help of recombinant DNA plasmid by side of β-galactosidase gene.
technology, insulin, human growth hormone, and 74. Hirudin is
interferon's have been produced from genetically (a) A protein produced by Hordeum vulgare,
engineered microbes like E. coli, Yeast etc. which is rich in lysine
70. The ‘clot buster' produced by streptococcus (b) A toxic molecule is isolated from Gossypium
and modified by genetic engineering is hirsutum which reduces human fertility
(a) Streptokinase (b) Penicillin (c) An anticoagulant protein produced from
(c) Strepsils (d) Cyclosporin A transgenic Brassica napus, which prevents
(e) Statins blood clotting
Kerala PMT-2012 (d) An antibiotic produced by a genetically
engineered bacterium, Escherichia coli
Ans. (a) : Streptokinase enzyme is also known as TPA
(Tissue plasminogen activator). It is obtained from AIIMS-2006
haemolytic bacteria Streptococcus. It has fibrinolytic Ans. (c) : Hirudin is a protein that stops blood clotting.
effect after genetically modified, it is used as clot • The gene encoding hirudin was chemically
buster. synthesized.
71. Which of the following cannot be detected in a • This gene was then transferred into Brassica napus,
developing foetus by amniocentesis? where hirudin accumulates in seeds due to
(a) Jaundice translation of gene.
(b) Klinefelter syndrome • The hirudin is extracted, purified and used as
(c) Sex determination the foetus medicine.
(d) Down syndrome 75. Bacterial DNA are used as biosensors in which
NEET-2013 of the following?
Ans. (a) : Amniocentesis can detect conditions like (a) Food & Fermentation
Down syndrome and Klinefilter syndrome but it cannot (b) Biomining
detect jaundice. (c) Medical diagnostics
Jaundice is a symptom of liver or blood related issues (d) Detect toxic pollutants
and typically manifests after birth, whereas AP EAMCET-25.09.2020 Shift-I
amniocentesis is performed during pregnancy to Ans. (b) : Bacterial DNA used as biosensors in biomining
analyze the genetic makeup of the developing fetus. because bacteria can mine for metals, clean oil spills,
72. The first clinical gene therapy was given for purify gold, use radioactive element for energy.
treatment 76. The number of amino acids in B chain of
(a) Rheumatoid arthritis insulin
(b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (a) 21 (b) 30
(c) Diabetes mellitus (c) 51 (d) 15
(d) Chicken pox AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-I
AIPMT (Mains)-2012 Ans. (b) : Insulin consist of two polypeptide chains, the
Ans. (b) : The first gene therapy was given for A chain and the B chain, linked together by disulfide
treatment of Adenosine deaminase deficiency. bonds. The B chain of insulin is made up of 30 amino
Gene therapy is the introduction of genes into existing acids. These amino acids are arranged in a specific
cell to prevent or cure a wide range of disease to restore sequence to form the B chain. The A chain contains 21
normal cellular functions. amino acids. Together, these two chains make up the
73. In one of the techniques of recombinant insulin structure of insulin.
production the genes for α and β polypeptides 77. A drug obtained through genetic engineering
were inserted into the plasmid by the side of and useful for treating infertility is
(a) Antibiotic resistance gene (a) calcitonin
(b) Lac z promoter gene (b) chorionic gonadotropin
(c) β galactosidase gene (c) interleukin
(d) Ori (d) tissue plasminogen activator
Karnataka CET-2013 Punjab MET-2007
Ans. (b) : HCG (Human chorionic gonadotropin) is a Ans. (a) : Red squill is a type of powdered drug
hormone naturally produced by the placenta which obtained from a subtropical plant Urginea martima
stimulates the production of progesterone hormone to largely used as rodenticide (Rat-poison).
maintain the pregnancy but in case of infertility it is obtained 81. Insulin receptors are
through genetic engineering technology for treatment. (a) extrinsic protein (b) intrinsic protein
78. Consider the following statements about (c) G-protein (d) trimeric protein
therapeutic drugs. Which of the statements DUMET-2007
given below are correct? Ans. (a) : Insulin receptors are extrinsic protein. Insulin
(i) The recombinant DNA technology is used is a polypeptide hormone binds to the extracellular face
for production of therapeutic drugs which of the alpha subunits.
are safe and effective 82. Some of the steps involved in the production of
(ii) It avoids unwanted immunological Humulin are given below. Choose the correct
responses, commonly observed with similar sequence.
products isolated from non–human sources (i) Synthesis of gene (DNA) for human insulin
(iii) About thirty recombinant therapeutics artificially
have been approved for human use in the (ii) Culturing recombinant E.coli in
world including India bioreactors
Options: (iii) Purification of humulin
(a) (i) & (ii) only (b) (i) & (iii) only (iv) Insertion of human insulin gene into
(c) (ii) & (iii) only (d) (i), (ii) & (iii) only plasmid
(v) Introduction of recombinant plasmid into
E. coli
Ans. (d) : The therapeutic drug produced by (vi) Extraction of recombinant gene product
recombinant DNA technology, do not induce unwanted from E. coli.
immunological responses, commonly observed with (a) i, iii , v, vi, ii, iv (b) ii, i , iv, iii, v, vi
similar product isolated from non-human resources. For (c) iii , v, ii, i, vi, iv (d) i, iv , v, ii, vi, iii
instance;- Insulin isolated from animal resources has a Karnataka CET-2010
chance of elicity immune response, while insulin
Ans. (d) : The step involved in the production of
prepared by recombinant DNA technology is highly
humulin are–
safe and effective.
• Synthesis of gene (DNA) for human insulin artificially.
About 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved
world wide. In India, 12 of these are being marketed. • Insertion of human insulin gene into plasmid.
• Introduction of recombinant plasmid into E. coli
79. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
• Culturing recombinant E. coli in bioreactors
the structure of human insulin
(a) Human insulin is made up of 51 amino acids • Extraction of recombinant gene product from E. coli.
arranged in two poly peptide chains • Purification of humulin.
(b) In these chain A is made up of 30 amino acids 83. Consider the following statements about
and chain B is made up of 21 amino acids biomedical technologies,
(c) Insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone which (i) During open heart surgery blood is
contains an extra stretch called c peptide circulated in the heart-lung machine
(d) A and B chains are combined by disulfide (ii) Blockage in coronary arteries is removed
by angiography
bonds to form ‘humulin’
(iii) Computerised Axial Tomography (CAT)
shows detailed internal structure as seen in
Ans. (b) : Insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone a section of body.
which contains an extra stretch called c peptide Human (iv) X-ray provides clear and detailed images
insulin is made up of 51 amino acids arranged in two of organs like prostate glands and lungs
poly peptide chains In these chain A is made up of 21 Which two of the above statements are
amino acids and chain B is made up of 30 amino acids correct?
A and B chains are combined by disulfide bonds to (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
form ‘humulin’. (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
80. Rat poison is obtained from AIPMT-2008
(a) Urginea (b) Lilium Ans. (a) : During open heart surgery, blood is
(c) Asparagus (d) Aloevera circulated in the heart-lung machine. In open heart
J&K CET-2010 surgery, the patient’s heart is temporarily stopped and a
heart-lung machine takes over the function of pumping 87. What is the function of Protein GLUT-4?
oxygenated blood to the body. (a) Enables glucose transport into cells
CAT or CT scans use X-rays and computer technology (b) Functions as intercellular ground substance
to create detailed cross-sectional image of the body, (c) Acts as an enzyme
allowing for the visualization of internal structures with (d) Fights infectious agents
high detail. Karnataka CET-2019
84. The two polypeptides of human insulin are Ans. (a) : GLUT-4 is an insulin responsive glucose
linked together by transporter that is found in the adipose tissue and brain,
(a) Disulphide bridges (b) Hydrogen bonds helps in glucose transportation into cells. In the absence
(c) Phosphodiester bond (d) Covalent bond of insulin GLUT-4 is mainly found in intracellular
NEET-2016 Phase-I vesicles referred to as GLUT-4 storage vesicles.
Ans. (a) : The two polypeptides of human insulin are 88. C peptide is mainly present in
linked together by disulfide bridges, which are covalent (a) Proinsulin (b) Insulin
bonds formed between sulfur atoms in the amino acid
(c) Chain A of insulin (d) Chain B of insulin
cysteine. These bonds are formed when the sulfur
atoms in the cysteine residues of the A and B chains TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II
come into close proximity and create a covalent Ans. (a) : C-peptide is a peptide composed of 31 amino
linkage, which helps stabilize the 3-D structure of the acids. It is released from the pancreatic beta cells during
insulin molecule. cleavage of insulin from proinsulin. It is mainly
85. Genetic engineering has been successfully used excreted by the kidney, and its half-life is 3-4 times
for producing – longer than that of insulin.
(a) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio 89. Which of the following statements is not correct?
vaccine before use in humans (a) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-
(b) transgenic models for studying new peptide.
treatments for certain cardiac disease (b) The functional insulin has A and B chains
(c) transgenic Cow-Rosie which produces high linked together by hydrogen bonds.
fat milk for making ghee
(c) Genetically engineered insulin is produced in
(d) Animals like bulls for farm work as they have
E.Coli.
super power
(d) In man insulin is synthesized as a proinsulin
NEET-2020 Phase-I
Ans. (a) : Transgenic animals are modified genome
animals. Ans. (b) : Functional insulin molecule has two chains,
chain A and chain B.
• A foreign gene is inserted into genome of the animal
to alter its DNA. • Both are linked together by disulphide bonds and not
hydrogen bonds.
• The addition of foreign DNA in the form of
recombinant DNA vectors generated by molecular
cloning is the most common method of genetic
C. Gene Therapy and Molecular
engineering. The organism that receives the Diagnosis
recombinant DNA is called a genetically modified
organism. 90. Match List -I with List-II
This method is done to improve the genetic traits of the List-I List-II
targeted animals. (A) Gene therapy (i) Separation
Transgenic animals are being produced as they can act of DNA
as models for chemical safety testing and vaccine safety fragments
testing. (B) RNA (ii) Diagnostic
86. Which one of the following is now being interference test for AIDS
commercially produced by biotechnological (C) ELISA (iii) Cellular
procedures defence
(a) Insulin (b) Nicotine (D) Gel (iv) Allows
(c) Morphine (d) Quinine electrophoresis correction of
AIPMT (Mains)-2010 a gene defect
Ans. (a) : Insulin is now being commercially produced Choose the correct answer from the options
by genetic engineering. given below:
• Insulin, in mammal is synthesized as a prohormone (a) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
which contains an extra stretch called the C- Peptide. (b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
During maturation this C-Peptide is removed. (c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i) Ans. (b) : Permanent uses of SCID (Severe Combined
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) Immune Deficiency) caused by ADA (Adenosine
Ans. (a) : Gene therapy allows correction of a gene deaminase) enzyme is either by introducing functional
deflect. ADA into cells at early embryonic stages by inserting
■ RNA interference takes place in all eukaryotes as a gene into genome of the cells using retro virus.
method of cellular defence. 94. The name of first cloned sheep is:
■ ELISA is used as a diagnostic test for AIDS. (a) Dolly (b) Polly
■ Cell electrophoresis is used in separation of DNA (c) Molley (d) Holly
fragments. BVP-2005
Gene therapy → Allows the correction of gene Ans. (a) : The name of first cloned sheep is Dolly.
defect. Dolly a female domestic sheep was first cloned sheep at
RNA Interference → Cellular defence Roslin institute, Scotland.
ELISA → Diagnostic test for AIDS She was first mammal produced by cloning from an
Cell Electrophoresis → Separation of DNA fragments adult somatic cell by the process of nuclear transfer.
91. Gene therapy is a treatment that can be done 95. The transgenic animals are those which have
with (a) foreign DNA in some of their cells
(a) adults only (b) foreign DNA in all of their cells
(b) child or embryo only (c) foreign RNA in some of their cells
(c) pregnant mother only (d) Both (A) and (C)
(d) persons of any age and any condition HP CET-2018
J&K CET-2014 Ans. (b) : Foreign gene is inserted into the genome to
Ans. (d) : Gene therapy is a treatment that can be done make recombinant DNA then it is transferred into
with persons of any age and any condition. Gene embryos prior to birth. Transferred gene is assimilated
therapy is a treatment to replace a faulty gene with by genetic material of the embryo and expressed in all
normal healthy functional gene In this application, the cells and tissues of resulting animal. This is the process
normal healthy genes are inserted into embryo which of recombinant DNA technology to prepare a transgenic
take over the function and compensate for faulty non- animal.
functional gene. Genetic disease like sickle cell anemia 96. Which of the following reasons is mainly
and SCID can cure gene therapy. responsible for graft rejection in
92. How many recombinant therapeutics have transplantation of organs?
been used for human diseases throughout the (a) Inability of recipient to differentiate between
world? 'self' and 'non-self' tissues/cells
(a) 12 (b) 24 (b) Humoral immune response only
(c) 30 (d) 56 (c) Auto-immune response
J&K CET-2014 (d) Cell-mediated response
Ans. (c) : About 30 recombinant therapeutics (genetically NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
engineered) have been approved for human disease Ans. (d) : The main reason mainly responsible for graft
throughout the world. Out of them 12 is being marketed in rejection in transplantation of organs is cell mediated
India. Some example of recombinant therapeutics like response, when a patient receives an organ transplant.
humulin, hirudin, bovine, somatotrophin and many more • The immune system often identifies the donor organ
are used for curing human disease. as "Foreign" and targets it with T-cells and antibodies
93. SCID or Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency damage the organ and may cause reduced organ
Syndrome can be cured permanently by function or organ failure. This is known as organ
I. Enzyme replacement therapy. rejection.
II. By SIRNA approach.
III. Introducing bone marrow cells producing
ADA into cells at early embryonic stages.
(IV) By inserting the functional gene using
retroviruses.
(V) Periodic infusion of genetically engineered
lymphocytes having functional ADA,
cDNA.
(a) II, III and IV (b) III and IV
(c) III and V (d) All of these
BVP-2015
97. Pathogenic bacteria gain resistance to 100. The first clinical gene therapy was
antibiotics due to changes in their: administered to cure the deficiency of
(a) Cosmids (b) Plasmids (a) Sickle cell anaemia
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Nucleus (d) Nucleoid (c) Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 (d) Diabetes insipidus
Ans. (b) : Plasmids can be transferred through direct TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-I
physical contact between different bacteria by a process Ans. (c) : The first clinical gene therapy was perform to
called as conjugation. This means that a bacterium can cure an autosomal recessive disorder called Severe
become resistant to multiple antibiotics at once by Combined Immuno Deficiency to treat Adenosine
deaminase deficiency.
picking up a single plasmid.
101. Vital stains are employed to study
(a) living cells (b) frozen tissues
(c) fresh tissues (d) preserved tissues
DUMET-2011
Ans. (a) : Vital staining is the living cells staining
technique either in vivo or in vitro. Three mostly used
stains are-
• Janus green B
• Neutral Red
• Methylene blue
102. RNA interference is essential for the:
98. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear (a) cell proliferation (b) cell defence
white in contrast to blue colonies of non- (c) cell differentiation (d) micropropagation
recombinant bacteria because of : AIIMS-2012
(a) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in Ans. (b) : RNA interference is a biological process that
recombinant bacteria plays a crucial role in cell-defense. It is a mechanism by
which cell can regulate and protect themselves from the
(b) Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta- harmful effects of foreign genetic material, such as viral
galactosidase RNA or transposons.
(c) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase • RNAi is a precise and efficient tool for knock out of
in non-recombinant bacteria specific genes when studying gene function in
(d) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase experimental organisms. It also has potential for new
forms of targeted gene therapy.
in recombinant bacteria.
NEET-2013
Ans. (d) : In the blue white screening technique used in
molecular biology, recombinant bacteria are identified
by their white color because the insertion of foreign
DNA disrupts the alpha-galactosidase gene, preventing
the breakdown of X-gal into a blue product. Non-
recombinant bacteria with a intact alpha-galactosidase
gene can hydrolyze X-gal, resulting in blue colonies.
99. Mule is an example of____
(a) Cross - breeding
103. Gene library or DNA library has collection of
(b) Interspecific Hybridization
(a) DNA and RNA
(c) Out - breeding (b) Any one type of gene of Organism
(d) Out - crossing (c) c DNA only
MHT CET-2017 (d) All possible genes of all organisms
Ans. (b) : Crossing between two animals of different AIIMS-26.05.2019 Shift-II
species to produce a new variety called hybrid and Ans. (c) : A gene library, also known as a DNA library,
process is known as hybridization. Horse and donkey typically contains copies of complementary DNA (c
DNA) molecules. Complementary DNA is synthesized
are different species but belongs to the same genus.
from messenger RNA using the enzyme reverse
Equus and a mule is obtained by cross between female transcriptase. It represents the expressed genes of an
horse and male donkey. It is the example of organism, which are the genes that are actively
interspecific cross breeding. transcribed into mRNA and protein.
104. Study the following statements Ans. (c) : First clinical gene therapy used to treat
(A) In germ line gene therapy functional genes deficiency of adenosine deaminase.
are introduced into somatic cells • Introduction of genetically modified DNA into
(B) Synthetic oligo deoxynucleosides are used eukaryotic cells is known as transfection.
for silencing the disease causing genes • Synthetic oligo deoxynucleosides are involved in
(C) The transgenic animal product α- gene silencing.
lactalbumin is used to treat emphasema • PCR technique is mainly used in DNA amplification
(D) Viral vectors are used to send genetically of a specific DNA segment PCR makes billions of
modified DNA by a process called copies of a specific DNA fragment or gene which
transfection allows detection and identification of gene sequences
From the above, identify the correct statements using visual techniques based on size and charge.
Options: 107. Identify the correct sequence of steps that are
(a) A, C (b) B, C followed in gene therapy.
(c) B, D (d) A, D A) Altered virus is mixed with cells from
AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-II patient
Ans. (c) : Germ line gene therapy is used to correct the B) Therapeutic human gene is inserted into
genetic variants by introducing functional genes into the virus (vector)
reproductive cells/germ cell of an individual. C. Cells are collected from the patients
• Synthetic oligo deoxynucleosides are used as primers D. Cells from the patient become genetically
for PCR and silencing the disease causing genes. altered
• Alpha- 1- Antitrypsin is protein obtained from E. Reintroduction of genetically altered cells
transgenic animal widely used to treat emphysema. into patient
• A modern method used to insert foreign nucleic acid F. Suitable virus (vector) is selected and
into eukaryotic cells is called transfection. altered
105. Identify the vector suitable to clone long G. The genetically altered cells produce the
fragments of DNA. desired proteins or hormones
(a) Phage vectors (b) Bacterial plasmids (a) C-B-A-F-D-G-E (b) C-F-B-A-D-E-G
(c) Yeast plasmids (d) Cosmids (c) C-E-F-A-B-D-G (d) C-A-D-E-B-F-G
Uttarakhand PMT-2010 TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-II
Ans. (d) : The vector suitable to clone long fragments Ans. (b) : In gene therapy the correct sequence are-
of DNA is called cosmids. They are often used as • Cells are collected from the patient to identify non-
cloning vector and used to build genomic libraries. functional gene.
They are normally used to produce large DNA • Suitable viral vector, generally retroviral vector is
fragments between 28 and 45 kb. selected and used in therapy.
106. Match the following • Therapeutic human gene is inserted into the vector.
List-I List II Altered viral vector is mixed with the patient's cell
(p) First clinical (i) DNA • Cells from patient become transgenic (genetically
gene therapy amplification altered)
(q) Transfection (ii) Introduction of • Transgenic cells are injected into patient's body.
genetically • Altered cells produce desired protein or hormone in
modified DNA patient body.
into a
eukaryotic cell D. Transgenic Animals
(r) Synthetic (iii) Adenosine
oligode deaminase 108. The first transgenic crop was:
oxynucleosides (a) pea (b) flax
(s) PCR (iv) Silencing genes (c) tobacco (d) cotton
The correct answer is WB JEE-2006
(p) (q) (r) (s) Ans. (c) : Tobacco was the first transgenic plant which
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) is herbicide resistant. In transgenic plants, specific
(b) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) genes or traits are obtained through genetic engineering
(c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) or recombinant DNA technology.
(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 109. The transgenic animals are those which have
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-I (a) foreign RNA in all its cells
(b) foreign DNA in all its cells Ans. (b) : Holstein-Friesian, Brown-Swiss and Jersey
(c) foreign DNA in some of its cells are all well known exotic breeds of cows. These breeds
(d) both (a) and (c) are recognized for their distinctive characteristics and
Punjab MET-1999 are commonly raised for dairy production.
Ans. (b) : Transgenic organism is an organism that has 113. One method of biotechnology for Animal
foreign DNA in all its cells. Its genetic makeup altered by Breeding Programmes to improve yield of
transferring into a gene from another species. As a result it milk/meat/wool in cattles, goat, sheep, is to
manufactures a protein that would not normally produce. incorporate new/foreign genes into the genome
of their fertilized egg to produce
110. In which method of animal breeding two (a) hybrids
different species of male and female animals
(b) F1 generation
are mated?
(c) transgenic individuals
(a) Cross-breeding
(d) F2 generation
(b) Interspecific hybridization
AMU-1995
(c) Out breeding
Ans. (c) : Recombinant DNA technology is used for
(d) Out crossing
Animal Breeding Programs to incorporate new/foreign
J&K CET-2014 gene into the genome of fertilized egg, to improve yield
Ans. (b) : Mating between males and females of of milk, meat, wool in cattle’s, sheep, goat etc. and
different breeds is called inter-specific hybridization. In these animals are known as transgenic animals or
this method, male and female animals of two different individuals. These genetically modified animals are
related species are mated. used for a variety of purpose including producing
111. Match the breeds of cattle given under drugs, increase resistance to disease etc.
Column-I with the place of their origin listed 114. Select the INCORRECT statement.
under Column-II. Choose the answer which (a) DNase gene is employed to treat emphysema.
gives the correct combination of alphabets of (b) Transgenic animals are used for the
the two columns. production of pharmacological compounds to
Column - I(Cattle breeds) Column- II(Place of origin) treat PKU.
A Amrithmahal p. Hassan and Tumkur (c) The investigation of new treatment of rheumatoid
districts arthritis by transgenic animal is done.
B Ongole q. Coimbatore (d) A vaccine is an antigenic preparation to
district induce immunity.
C Khillari r. Nellore and Guntur MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I
districts Ans. (a) : α-1 antitryspin, a human protein which is
D Hallikar s. Chikmangalore and obtained from milk of transgenic sheep is used to treat
Chitradurga districts emphysema.
t. Satara and Sholapur 115. Choose the correct option from the statements
districts given below which do not support the reasons
(a) A = s, B = r, C = t, D = p for production of transgenic animals:
(b) A = q, B = s, C = t, D = p (a) to test the safety of the polio vaccine
(c) A = s, B = t, C = q, D = r (b) for production of α - 1 antitrypsin used to
(d) A = q, B = s, C = p, D = t treat emphysema
Karnataka CET-2003 (c) for diagnosing genetic disorder
(d) to test the toxicity of drugs
Ans. (a) :
GUJCET-2023
Amrithmahal Chikmangalore and Chitradurga
Ans. (c) : Transgenic mice used to test the safety of the
district of Karnataka
polio vaccine.
Ongole Nellore and Guntur district of A.P • Transgenic sheep is used for production of α-1
Khillari Satara and Sholapur district of Antitrypsin protein to treat emphysema
Maharashtra • Transgenic animals are used to test toxicity of drugs but
Hallikar Hassan and Tumkur district of A.P they one not used for diagnosing genetic disorder.
112. Holstein–Friesian, Brown–Swiss and Jersey are 116. Desired genes have been introduced into
all well known transgenic animals to obtain large scale
(a) Animal husbandry scientists production of useful biological products
(b) Exotic breeds of cow encoded by these genes. This approach is
(c) Exotic breeds of poultry generally referred to
(d) Exotic breeds of goat (a) hybridoma technology
JCECE-2018 (b) molecular farming
(c) gene therapy 120. The human protein α-1 antitrypsin is obtained
(d) down stream processing from :
Karnataka CET-2016 (a) transformed bacteria
(b) transgenic animal
Ans. (b) : Molecular farming is the production of
(c) transgenic plant
pharmaceutically important and commercially valuable
(d) a plant from Western Ghats
proteins in plants. Its purpose is to provide a safe and
Karnataka CET-2017
inexpensive means for the mass production of
recombinant pharmaceutical proteins. Ans. (b) : The human protein α-1 antitrypsin is
obtained from transgenic animal sheep, it is used to
117. Maximum number of existing transgenic treat emphysema.
animals is of : 121. A transgenic rice (golden rice) has been
(a) Pig (b) Fish developed for increased content of
(c) Mice (d) Cow (a) vitamin - A (b) vitamin - B
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 (c) vitamin - C (d) vitamin - D
Ans. (c) : In the world, the maximum number of DUMET-2011
existing transgenic animal is mice representing 91.4%. Ans. (a) : Golden Rice is an example of
biofortification. This is a transgenic rice, in which β-
E. Biopiracy and Ethical Issues carotene synthesizing gene occurs and Beta carotene is
the Precursor of vit -A
118. The laws and rules to prevent unauthorized 122. A regulatory body working under MoEF for
exploitation of bio-resources are termed as – the release of transgenic crops is
(a) Biopiracy (a) NBPGR (b) GEAC
(b) Biopatenting (c) NSC (d) NIPGR
(c) Bioethics DUMET-2011
(d) Bioengineering Ans. (b) : The Genetic Engineering Appraisal
NEET-2020 Phase-II Committee is a regulatory body in India that operates
under the Ministry of Environment and Forests
Ans. (b) : Biopatenting is the patent granted on
(MoEF). Its primary responsibility is to evaluate and
biological product or bioresources. regulate activities related to the release and
• Bioethics are the sets of rules and laws to prevent commercialization of genetically engineered organisms,
unauthorized exploitation of bioresources. including transgenic crops.
• Biopiracy is the use of bioresources by multinational 123. Which one of the following is a correct
companies and other organizations without proper statement?
authorization from the countries and people (a) "Bt" in "Bt-cotton" indicates that it is a
concerned without compensation. genetically modified organism produced
through biotechnology.
• Bioengineering is the application of life science,
(b) Somatic hybridization involves fusion of two
physical sciences, mathematics and engineering
complete plant cells carrying desired genes.
principles to define and solve problems in biology
(c) The anticoagulant hirudin is being produced
medicine health care and other fields. from transgenic Brassica napus seeds.
119. If a geneticist uses the blind approach for (d) "Flavr Savr" variety of tomato has enhanced the
sequencing the whole genome of an organism, production of ethylene which improves its taste.
followed by assignment of function to different AIIMS-2005
segments, the methodology adopted by him is Ans. (c) : The anticoagulant hirudin is being
called as : produced from transgenic Brassica napus seeds.
(a) Bioinformatics Transgenic Brassica napus seeds are being used to
(b) Sequence annotation produce the anticoagulant hirudin.
(c) Gene mapping • Bt in 'Bt cotton' doesn't indicate that is a genetically
modified crop produced through biotechnology. Bt in
(d) Expressed sequence tags Bt cotton stands for Bacillus thuringiensis.
NEET-2022
124. In transgenics, expression of transgene in
Ans. (b) : Sequence annotation - The blind approach target tissue is determined by
of simply sequencing the whole set of genome that (a) enhancer (b) transgene
contained all the coding and non coding sequence and (c) promoter (d) reporter
later assigning different regions in the sequence with AIIMS-2008 / CMC Vellore-2012
functions is referred to as sequence annotation. Manipal -2014 / AFMC-2008
Ans. (d) : A reporter gene is a gene that is used in 128. Hinny is an interspecific hybrid of
molecular biology and genetics to study the expression (a) Male horse and female donkey
of other genes. It is typically a gene whose product is (b) Male donkey and female horse
easy to detect or measure, such as fluorescent protein or (c) Jack and Jennet
an enzyme. Reporter genes are often fused to the gene (d) Mare and Stallion
of interest and their expression can serve as a marker
for the activity of target gene.
Ans. (a) : Hinny is an inter-specific hybrid of male
125. 'Hisardale' is a new breed of sheep developed
horse and female donkey. A Hinny is a domestic equine
in Punjab by using the following breeding
technique : hybrid, the offspring of a male horse (a stallion) and a
female donkey. It is the reciprocal cross to the more
(a) Interspecific hybridisation
common mule, which is the product of a male donkey
(b) Cross-breeding
and a female horse.
(c) Out breeding
(d) Multiple Ovulation and Embryo Transfer 129. Find out the wrong statement
(MOET) (a) Human protein used to treat emphysema is α-
TS EAMCET-08.05.2019 Shift-I 1 antitrypsin.
Ans. (b) : The Hisardale sheep is a breed developed (b) Human insulin is being commercially
through a breeding technique called cross-breeding. The produced from a transgenic species of
goal of cross-breading is to produce off spring with Agrobacterium tumifaciens.
better qualities, such as better quality of wood, higher (c) Rosie, the first transgenic cow, produced
meat production etc. human protein enriched milk.
126. Assertion (A): The milk of transgenic cow, (d) Cryl Ab endotoxins obtained from Bacillus
Rosie, was nutritionally more balanced than thuringiensis is effective against corn borers.
normal cow milk (e) Genetically modified bacterium used as bio-
Reason (R): α-1 antitrypsin is a biological pesticide is Bacillus thuringiensis.
product produced by transgenic animals Kerala PMT-2013
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is the correct Ans. (b) : Human insulin is being commercially
explanation for (A) produced from a genetically engineered bacterium E.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is not the coli by using recombinant DNA technology.
130. Exploitation of bioresources of a nation by
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
multinational companies without authorization
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
from the concerned country is referred to as
AP EAMCET-2016
(a) Biowar (b) Bioweapon
Ans. (a) : Rosie, a transgenic cow was developed in 1997
to produced milk enriched with alpha lactalbumin making (c) Biopiracy (d) Bioethics
it more nutritionally balanced than normal cow's milk. NEET (Odisha)-2019
• α-1 Antitrypsin is a protein commercially produced by Ans. (c) : Biopiracy refers to the unauthorized and
the transgenic sheep ‘Tracy’. This protein used for the unethical exploitation of a nation’s biological resources,
treatment of respiratory infection called emphysema. such as plants, animals or traditional knowledge related
127. Following are the steps included in genetically to these resources, by multinational companies or
modifies organism except–– individuals without proper permission or compensation
(a) Identification of DNA with desirable genes from the country or community that is the rightful
(b) Non transfer of the DNA into its progeny owner or custodian of those resources.
(c) Introduction of identified DNA into host 131. Biopatent is granted for biological entities
(d) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host by____authority of a country.
AP EAMCET-05.10.2021 Shift-I (a) Government
Ans. (b) : The correct sequence in genetically modified (b) Educational institute
organisms is :- (c) Scientist
• Identification of DNA with desirable genes (d) Business
↓ MHT CET-2018
• Introduction of the indentified DNA into the host. Ans. (a) : Patent is granted for biological entities,
↓ products and processes by government authority of the
• Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and country by which owner gain exclusive rights to use the
transfer of the DNA to its progeny. resources or market the product to earn profits.
Unit-VI : Ecology
17. ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS
4. Air spaces are present in:
A. Ecology (a) Hydrophytes (b) Xerophyies
1. The study of organisms with their environment (c) Mesophytes (d) All of these
is called: BHU PMT (Mains)-2006
(a) Ecology (b) Cytology Ans. (a) : Hydrophytes – These are the plants growing
(c) Gene ecology (d) None of these in extremely wet or watery condition. Hydrophytes are
Rajasthan PMT-1996 / AIPMT-1993 further sub divided into five main type.
Ans. (a) : Ecology is the branch of biology that deals (i) Free Floating hydrophytes.
with the interrelationships amongst organisms and (ii) Rooted hydrophytes with floating leves.
interaction between organisms and their environment. (iii) Rooted submerged hydrophytes.
• Ecology is the study of living organisms and how they iv) Submerged floating hydrophytes.
interact with the environment around them. An (v) Rooted emergent hydrophytes or amphibious plant
ecologist studies the relationship between living things Anatomical adaptation
and their habit. (i) Single layered thin walled epidermis is present
2. What is a keystone species? (ii) Cuticle is absents
(a) A species which adds upto only a small (iii) Aerencyhyma (Parenchymatous or thin-walled cells
proportion of the total biomass of a with air cavities) is well developed which help in
community, yet has a huge impact on the buoyancy or floating.
communitys organization and survival 5. The relation between species richness and area
(b) A common species that has plenty of is described on a logarithmic scale by the
biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on the equation (where S = species richness, A = area,
communitys organization Z = slope of the line (regression co efficient), C
(c) A rare species that has minimal impact oc the = y-intercept)
biomass and on other species in the (a) log S = log C – Z log A
community (b) log S = Z logA
(d) A dominant species that constitutes a large (c) log S = log C + Z log A
proportion of the biomass and which affects (d) log S = log C
many other species (e) log C = log S + Z log A
DUMET-2008 / WB JEE-2006 Kerala PMT-2012
BCECE-2012 / AIPMT-2004
Ans. (c) : On a logarithmic scale the species area
Ans. (a) : A Keystone Species is the one which makes relationship is a straight line described by the equation
upto only a small proportion of the total biomass of logs = log c + Z log A.
community, however, exerts a great deal of influence
on community organization and survival. Solution for the relation between species richness and
area is described on a logarithmic scale by the equation
• Keystone species play a critical role in maintaining the I where S = Species richhess, A = area Z = slope of the
structure of an ecological community, affecting many line C regression coefficient , c= y – intercept]
outer organisms in an ecosystem and helping to
determine the types and number of various other species. 6. Ecotypes are
• It control the functioning of Ecosystem by keeping (a) only morphologically different
population in check or by creating multiple niches for (b) only genetically different
other organisms through its activities. (c) Both [a] and [b]
• without keystone species an ecosystem destabilizes (d) both morphologically and genetically similar
and will collapse. Uttarakhand PMT-2011
3. The soil which is transported by wind is known as Ans. (c) : Although the external ecology of the species
(a) colluvial (b) aeolian differs morphologically or genetically. Yet because of their
(c) alluvial (d) glacial soil inter-fertility. They are placed in a taxonomic species.
Manipal-2015 / VMMC-2012, 2007 7. The cultivation of plants without the use of soil
UP CPMT-2012, 2008 / Rajasthan PMT-2008 is called
BCECE-2001 /CG PMT-2008 (a) aquaculture (b) urban farming
Ans. (b) : Aeolian soil also know as “wind blown soil” (c) sericulture (d) hydroponics
is a type of soil that has been deposited or modified by Tripura JEE-2022
the action of wind these soils often contain fine particles Ans. (d) : A soilless cultivation technique that allows
such as sand, silt and clay which have transported and plants to growing nutrient rich water solution, typically
deposited by wind our time. without use of soil call hydroponic. In Hydroponic,
Organisms and Populations 789 YCT
plant are give mixture of essential nutrients dissolved in 12. Match the following :
H2O such as nitrogen, Phosphorus, potassium, calcium, List-I List-II
magnesium and various micronutrients and PH is (A) Eurythermal (I) Tolerate wide
maintenance. range of salinity
• Sericulture is an industry that is Characterized by a (B) Euryhaline (II) Tolerate narrow
two - step process. The Cultivation of mulberry tree range of salinity
and the rearing of silkworms on mulberry leaves to (C) Stenothermal (III) Corals
product cocoons. (D) Stenohaline (IV) Homeotherms
• Hydroponics was started by Julius van such it is also To correct match is
called soilless cultivation. Options:
8. In stratosphere, which of the following A B C D
elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of (a) III I IV II
ozone and release of molecular oxygen? (b) III II IV I
(a) Carbon (b) Cl (c) I IV III II
(c) Oxygen (d) Fe (d) IV I III II
NEET-2018
Ans. (b) : In stratosphere, chlorine (Cl) acts as a
Ans. (d) :
catalyst in the degradation of ozone and release
molecular oxygen, by the action of UV rays. (A) Eurythermal - (IV) Homeotherms
(B) Euryhaline- (I) Tolerate wide range of
• On CFC. Iron (fe), Carbon (c) and Oxygen (O) are not
ozone depleting substance. Salinity
(C) Stenothermal- (III) Corals
ClF2C – Cl → ClF2C + Cl
(D) Stenohaline- (II)Tolerate narrow range of
Cl + O3 → ClO + O2
salinity
ClO + O3 → Cl + 2O2 Eurythermal organism eg- Cow, human , monkey,
9. 'Synecology' refere to _______ sheep, goat, etc.
(a) Ecological study of individual species Stenothermal organism eg- seals, salmons reptiles.
(b) Study of ecological communities Eury – Prefix is use to ‘wide’ or ‘broad’ e.g euythermal
(c) Plant ecology means having a wide tolerance for temperature
(d) Physiological ecology variations.
AP EAPCET-12.07.2022 Shift-I Steno-prefix is use to “narrow” or “restricted” e.g
Ans. (b) : Synecology is the ecological study of stenothermal means species that can only tolerate a
interaction between species in Communities. The plant narrow range of temperatures
and animals contribute to the biotic elements of the 13. In ecotone some species become abundant:
ecology so synecology is ecological study of biotic (a) sibling species (b) endemic species
Community in relation to environment of the place. (c) rare species (d) edge species
10. Plants growing in acidic soil are termed as : DUMET-2006
(a) halophytes (b) oxalopytes Ans. (d) : The species which are found primarily or
(c) acidophytes (d) hydrophytes most abundantly or spend most of their time in ecotone
JIPMER-2002 / Rajasthan PMT-1997 are know as edge species. Are those that live in a
Ans. (b) : The plants growing in acidic soil are referred limited area, such as a mountain range lake or island
to as oxylophytes or oxyphytes. among others.
Hydrophytes are those plants which live in water and • A rare species is such species that is very uncommon
objects with their surroundings. scarce in number and frequently encountered.
Holophytes are plants which naturally survive in salt - 14. The basic unit of study in Ecology is
contaminated environments and can tolerate salinity. (a) population (b) organism
Concentration as high as salt. (c) community (d) species
11. Which of the following is important for DUMET-2011
speciation? Ans. (b) : The basic unit of study in ecology is the
(a) Seasonal isolation organism.
(b) Reproductive isolation • Ecology is the study of the interaction amnog living
(c) Behavioral isolation organism and their environment.
(d) Temporal isolation
15. Different species residing in different
JIPMER-2002
geographical areas are :
Ans. (b) : Reproductive isolative is the prevention of (a) allopatric (b) parapatric
interbreeding between a species of two populations of a
(c) sympatric (d) none of these
species present in the different environments . It maintains
DUMET-2006 / DUMET-2004
the characters of the species but also leads to origin of new
species. A type of ecological reproductive isolation in Ans. (a) : Allopartric species- The species which are
which different species become reproductively active at present in different gaeographical region, separated by
different times temporal isolation. spatial barriers are called allopatric species.
Sympatric species- The species which are present in 19. In which zone of the biosphere, no human
same region but not necessary to have ecological niche activity is permitted?
are called sympatric species. (a) Buffer zone (b) Core zone
• Parapateric species is spread out over a large geographic (c) Manipulation zone (d) All of these
area sympatric is the evolution of a new species. BCECE-2015
16. What is the Greek word for ecology? Ans. (b) : The core zone of a biospheres reserve in the
(a) Ethology (b) Oekologie central and most strictly protected area within the
(c) Synecology (d) Hexicology reserve. It made for conservation of natural biodiversity
AIIMS-2010 and ecosystem in their pristine or natural biodiversity
Ans. (b) : Ecology (oikologie, made of two Greek and ecosystem in their pristine or natural state because
words i.e oikos- house or dwelling + Logos – study or Human activities that could harm the natural
discourse). Thus literary meaning of ecology is study of environment such as logging, mining, and agricultures
organism at their home. are either strictly regulated or prohibited.
The term ecology was first coined by E. Haeckl 1868, Buffer zone areas that covered the core zone and act as
Although first use in literature by H. Reiter. a transition are a between core zone and areas where
17. Two species occupying same or overlapping human activity like agriculture foresty and tourismetc.
area are called as 20. The ‘niche’ of a species is meant for
(a) sympatric (b) allopatric (a) habitat and specific functions of a species
(c) parapatric (d) ring species (b) specific place where an organism lives
Punjab MET-2008 / MGIMS Wardha-2006 (c) specific species function and its competitive
Ans. (a) : Sympatric species- The species which are power
present in same region but not necessary to have (d) none of these
ecological niche are called sympatric species. AIPMT-1996
Allopartric species- The species which are present in Ans. (a): A ‘ niche “ is encompasses all the interaction
different gaeographical region, separated by spatial and relationship a species has with its interactions and
barriers are called allopatric species. relationships has with its environment, including its
• Parapateric species is spread out over a large interaction with other species.
geographic area. • The ecological niche describes how an organism or
18. Identify wrong statements regarding population responds to the distribution of resources
hydrophytes and xerophytes and competitors ( for example:- By growing when
Hydrophytes Xerophytes resources are abundant, and when predators.
parasites and pathogens are scarcer).
(A) Root caps Present Well
developed • Niche (How species live):- All the parameter needed
by an organism to live and successfully reproduce in
(B) Epidermis Thin and do Thick and a healthy way is called niche. It is the functional area
not contain have or organism or species.
chloroplasts chloroplasts
silica crystals 21. Benthic animals are those, which
(C) Leaves Well developed Single layed (a) are submerged in area
xylem epidermis (b) float on the sea surface
(D) Stomata Upper surface Lower (c) are deep dweller in sea
surface (d) are floating (free) organisms
Options : AIPMT-1996
(a) A, C (b) B, C Ans. (c): Benthic animals are those that live one or near
(c) A, B (d) C, D the bottom of aquatic environments such as oceans
AP EAMCET-28.04.2017 Shift-I lakes rivers and even some pounds, they are adapted to
life in these sediment rich habitats and can include a
Ans. (a) : Hydrophytes the water is available in a high
amount the roots are reduced and xerophytes root are wide variety of organism from tiny microorganism like
very long and reach deep in the soil. bacteria and protozoa to larger creatures like clams,
crabs, and sea cucumber etc.
• These plants do not possess root caps . They possess
root packets xerophytes plants are well adapted to 22. The abundance of a species population, within
live in dry habitats and they possess root cap. its habitat, is called
• Hydrophytes epidermis is not protective but absorbs (a) relative density (b) regional density
gases and nutrients directly from water thin cuticle (c) absolute density (d) niche density.
and thin cellulose walls. AIPMT-1995
• Xerophytes plants epidermal layer secretes a thicker Ans. (d) : Niche density :- “Niche density” refers to the
and waxy layer called the cuticle. number of organism or species population occupying a
• Hydrophytes xylem is poorly developed. Xerophytes specific ecological niche within an ecosystem if high
single layer of epidermal cell but cerium. Multiple niche density indicates competition for resources within
epidermises. a particular ecological role.
23. Which of the following statements are true Sericulture is an industry that is Characterized by a two
related to ecology? The correct statements - step process. The Cultivation of mulberry tree and the
(i) Ecologically, habitat is the place in which rearing of silkworms on mulberry leaves to product
an organism lives cocoons.
(ii) Niche is the functional role of an organism Hydroponics was started by Julius van such it is also
in an ecosystem called soilless cultivation.
(iii) Population is a group of organisms of the 26. The part of earth and atmosphere supporting
different species in a specific area at a life is
specific time (a) biota (b) biome
(iv) An ecosystem is a functional unit of the (c) ecetone (d) biosphere
biosphere
BVP-2008
(v) Ecological organization consists of nine
integrative levels, ranging from cell to Ans. (d) : The biosphere is called, the population of the
ecosphere earth’s surface and atmosphere that is inhabited by
Options: living organism the biosphere include lithosphere (the
(a) All are correct solid Earth) hydrosphere (all water on Earth) and
atmosphere (the layer of a gases around the plant)
(b) Except (iii) all are correct
(c) Except (v) all are correct 27. Earth has maximum amount of oxygen in
(d) Except (iii) and (v) all are correct (a) atmosphere (b) hydrosphere
AP EAPCET-07.09.2021 Shift-I (c) lithosphere (d) biosphere
Ans. (d) : The specific environments or places where BVP-2011
particular organisms or species live, grow, and find the Ans. (c) : Earth has maximum amount of oxygen in
necessary resource to survive is called Habitats. lithosphere is primarily blind within mineral and rock,
Habitats may be forests, grass lands desert, wetlands, such as silicates and oxides rare in free.
oceans, river and more, the habitats have abiotic (non- The free oxygen highest in atmosphere 20.95%,
living) and biotic (living) factors. followed by the hydrosphere and smaller amount in
All living organism make up the earths biosphere. Nine lithosphere.
integrative levels, organelle, cell tissues, organs, organ • The oxygen cycle is the biogeochemical transitions of
systems organism populations, communities ecosystem oxygen atoms between different oxidation states in ions,
and biosphere. oxides and molecules through redox reaction within and
forms oceans mountains etc. between the spheres reservoirs of the planet earth.
24. Niche overlap indicates 28. The term Ecology was coined by ——————
(a) active co-operation between two species (a) Lamarck (b) Bateson
(b) two different parasites on the same host (c) Haeckel (d) Spencer
(c) sharing of one or more resources between the AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I
two species Ans. (c) : Ecology (oikologie, made of two Greek
(d) mutualism between two species words i.e oikos- house or dwelling + Logos – study or
JCECE-2013 discourse). Thus literary meaning of ecology is study of
Ans. (c) : Niche overlap means that two or more spices organism at their home. Ernst Haeckel, A zoologist
sharing the resources present in a practical niche. coined ecology in 1866. While the field is arguably
Sharing of one or more resources between the two older Haeckel used the term to describe the relationship
spices. Niche indicates the habit of a particular species between organisms.
and the interaction of that species with the resources 29. Study of environment and animal relation is:
present in the habitat. (a) ecosystem (b) phytosociology
An organisms fundamental nice is the full range a (c) biotic community (d) ecology
species can occupy without interference from other
species. Rajasthan PMT-2005
However, inter specific competition often forces species Ans. (d) : Ecology is the study of the interactions of
to occupy very harsh niche to which they are mostly organisms in an area with the surrounding environment.
highly adopted. Ecology is the branch of biology that deals with the
25. Hydroponics is a interrelationships between organisms . An ecosystem is
a community of living organisms living in particular
(a) airless culture (b) waterless culture
area. Biotic community a group of interdependent
(c) soilless culture (d) None of these organisms inhabiting the same region and interacting
BVP-2008 with each other.
Ans. (c) : A soilless cultivation technique that allows 30. Biological concept of species is mainly based on
plants to growing nutrient rich water solution, typically
without use of soil call hydroponic. In Hydroponic, (a) Reproductive isolation
plant are give mixture of essential nutrients dissolved in (b) Morphological features only
H2O such as nitrogen, Phosphorus, potassium calcium, (c) Methods of reproduction only
magnesium and various micronutrients and ph is (d) Morphology and methods of reproduction
maintenance. JIPMER-2009
Ans. (a) : Biological concept of species is mainly based 35. The term Niche was first used by
on Reproductive isolation because reproductive (a) Clements (b) Grinnel
isolation means different species cannot mating together (c) Warming (d) Odum
or not produced babies. UP CPMT-2011
If they mating, their babies can’t grow up or have Ans. (b): The word 'niche' was coined first by Grinnel
babies like own (1917). Grinnel for the role of species/population plays
31. The presence of diversity at the junction of in its ecosystem. Ecological niche means the total
territories of two different habitats is known as interaction of species which environment.
(a) Bottle neck effect (b) Edge effect 36. Plants growing in dry and saline soil are called
(c) Junction effect (d) Pasteur effect (a) Xerophyte (b) Hydrophyte
JIPMER-2009 (c) Halophyte (d) Heliophyte
Ans. (b) : The presence of diversity at the junction of UPCPMT-2002
areas of two different is known as the edge effect. Ans. (c): Plants growing in saline soils (high
Ecotone is the transition zone between two concentration of salts) are halophytes.
communities, for example habitat, forest and grassland.
• Xerophytes are those plants which grow in deserts or
32. Autoecology refers to ––––––– in very dry places.
(a) Ecological study of individual species
• Hydrophytes are those plants that grow in water or in
(b) Animal ecology very wet places.
(c) Plant ecology
• Heliophytes are adapted to live under plenty of
(d) Population study
sunlight.
37. Which one of the following is one of the
Ans. (a) : The ecological study of a particular characteristics of a biological community?
individual species is called autoecology.
(a) Stratification (b) Natality
• The approach originally focused on the adativeness (c) Mortality (d) Sex-ratio
of an organism's physiology to the environment but has
since been expanded to included the study of the AIPMT (Screening)-2010
distribution and dynamics of populations. Ans. (a) :
33. Identify the characters related to xerophytes Stratification- Stratification in ecology refers to the
from the following : vertical layering of habitat and arrangement of
(A) Stunted stems vegetation in layers.
(B) Reduced leaves Natality- It is the number of births per individual per
unit of time in their normal ecological habitat.
(C) Single layered epidermis
Mortality- The number of deaths in one period of time
(D) Well developed vascular bundles
or in one place.
(E) More air cavities
Sex-ratio- The number of females per 1000 males in a
(a) A, B, E only (b) A, B, D only
given area′s population.
(c) B, C, E only (d) A, C, E only
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II 38. The species of plants that play a vital role in
controlling the relative abundance of other
Ans. (b) : Xerophyte, a plant adopted to life in a dry or species in a community are called
physiologically dry habitat by means of mechanism to (a) edge species (b) keystone species
prevent water loss or to store available water, stunted
stems, reduced leaves and well developed vascular are (c) pioneer species (d) seral species
characters of xerophytes. AP EAMCET-2011
34. Organisms living in constant environmental Ans. (b) : Species with disproportionally large effect on
conditions get its environment relative to its abundance.
(a) Species extinction • A keystone species is a plant and animals that plays a
(b) Niche specialisation unique and crucial role in the way an ecosystem
(c) Organisational protection functions. Without keystone species, the ecosystem
(d) Ex-situ conservation would be dramatically different or cease to exist
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-II altogether.
• This is one of the most fundamental and bidirectional
Ans. (b) : Niche specializations – A species become
better adapted by natural selection to the specific patterns in ecology and displays a consistent general
characteristics of a particular habitat. form with many rare species and few abundant
species occurring within a community.
(a) Species Extinction– occurs when a particular
species no longer exist on Earth. Extinction is natural 39. Recapitulation theory was proposed by
part of Earth is history. (a) E. Haeckel (b) Mendel
(c) Organizational protection-An organizational security (c) Hugo de Vries (d) Von Baer
policy is a set of rules or procedures imposed by an UP CPMT-2002
organization on its operations to protect its sensitive data. Ans. (a) : The recapitulation theory also known as
(d) Ex-Situ conservation– Protecting on endangered biogenetic law or “ ontogeny recapitutlates phylogeny “
species outside their or its natural habitual. was proposed by Ernst Haeckel.
Ernst Haeckel suggested that during the development of Ans. (b) : A keystone species are important providers of
an individual organism (ontogeny), the stages of shelter and habitats for other species.
development recapitulate or mirror the evolutionary • Keystone species are those which have an extremely
history of that species (phylogeny). high impact on a particular ecosystem relative to its
This theory proposed a connection between embryonic population.
development and evolutionary history
• Exotic species are organisms that have been
40. A system of rotating crops with legume or grass introduce into an area outside their normal
pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is distribution.
called • An alien species is an animal or plant that is
(a) Shifting agriculture (b) Ley farming introduced by humans, either accidentally or
(c) Contour farming (d) Strip farming intentionally into places outside its natural range.
NEET-2016 Phase-I • Endemic species are those that live in a limited area.
Ans. (b) : Rotating crops with legume or grass pasture 44. Among 'The Evil Quartet', which one is
to improve soil fertility is called as lay farming. Ley considered the most important cause driving
farming, the growing of grass or legumes in rotating extinction of species?
alternating cultivation of grasses or legumes with
(a) Co-extinctions
cereals or tillage, crops as a soil conservation measure
(b) Habitat loss and fragmentation
B. Organism and its Environment (c) Over exploitation for economic gain
(d) Alien species invasions
41. Identify the interspecies relationship in which NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
one organism is harmed while other remains Ans. (b) : The Evil quartet of biodiversity loss is a
unaffected concept that describes the reason that causes extinction
(a) Commensalism (b) Parasitism of species loss of habitat. Extinction of species
(c) Predation (d) Amensalism continuously and introduction of exotic species is the
TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I main reason of biodiversity loss.
Ans. (d) : Amensalism is a negative interaction in • Loss of habitat - when a natural habitat is not capable
which one species is unaffected and other is harmed. of supporting species that are native to it is called
loss of habitat.
• Commensalism is a type of interaction among two
organisms where one organism is benefited whereas 45. In our biosphere, the most important and vast
other remains unaffected (neither harmed nor area is covered by hydrosphere. Hydrosphere
benefited). has
• In parasitism and predation one species is benefited (a) 1.4 billion cubic km of water
other is harmed. (b) 1.4 million cubic km of water
42. Nitrates and phosphates flowing from (c) 2.5 billion cubic km of water
agricultural farms into water bodies are a (d) 1.5 billion cubic km of water
significant cause of : AMU-1995
(a) Mineralisation (b) Stratification Ans. (a) : Water is the most abundant substance at the
(c) Eutrophication (d) Humification surface of earth. About 1.4 billion cubic km.
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) • It has been estimated that 1,386 million cubic
Ans. (c) : Eutrophication is the mechanism in which the kilometers or 333,000,000 cubic miles of water are
lakes obtain nutrients (Nitrates and phosphate) present on the earth. This water is in liquid and frozen
increasing the amount of plant and algae growth to forms present in ground water, oceans, lakes and
estuaries and coastal water. streams. Salt water accounts for 97.5% where as fresh
• Mineralization is the process by which chemicals water accounts for only 2.5%.
present in organic matter are decomposed or oxidized 46. In which region maximum and minimum,
into easily available forms to plants. mean annual precipitation is observed
• The organisms are organized in a recognizable respectively?
structure called stratification. (a) Grossland, Desert
• Formation of humans is called humification, which is (b) Tropical forest, temperate forest
black amorphous substances produced by the (c) Tropical forest, Desert
decomposition of dead and decaying organic matter (d) Coniferous forest, temperate forest
by microorganisms. GUJCET-2022
43. The species of plants that plays a vital role in Ans. (c) : Minimum mean annual precipitation on
controlling the relative abundance of other observed is deserts. Maximum mean annual
species in a community is called____ precipitation is observed in tropical forests.
(a) Exotic species (b) Keystone ospecies Tropical forest are forested land scapes in tropical
(c) Alien species (d) Endemic species regions i.e land areas approximately boundary by the
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) tropic of Cancer and capricorn .
47. A few organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide 51. What is true for individuals of same species
range at temperatures. They are known as: (a) Live in same niche
(a) Eurythermal (b) Stenohaline (b) Live in same habitat
(c) Stenothermal (d) Euryhaline (c) Interbreeding
GUJCET-2023 (d) Live in different habitat
Ans. (a) : Some organism can tolerate a wide range of AIPMT-2002
temperatures and thrive, they are known as eurythermal Ans. (c) : Species may be defined as the uniform
such as most birds and mammals and Artemisia. interbreeding population of individuals which freely
• Stenohaline spices are those organisms that can interbreed among themselves.
survive within a narrow of salinity the organism Niche- Defined as the functional or maximum activity
which can only tolerate narrow range of temperature performed of any organism or individual.
are called stenothermal . Habitat- It is defined as an area of specific organism or
• Euryhaline organisms are able adapt to a wide range type of a location of organism.
of salinities. 52. Ozone in stratosphere extends
48. At what height in Himalaya region of our (a) 10-20 km (b) 20-25 km
country are taiga forest located? (c) 15-30 km (d) 25-40 km
(a) At the height of 1000 to 1500 meters. AIIMS-2007
(b) At the height of 2000 to 3000 meter. Ans. (b) : Stratosphere zone of earth's atmosphere
(c) At the height of 500 to 1000 meters. contains a layer of ozone (O3) which prevents the earth
(d) At the height of 1000 meters to 1200 meters. surface from about 99% of incoming solar UV radiations.
GUJCET-2011 Ozone layer is present in the stratosphere which is also
Ans. (a) : The tiaga also known as the boreal forest, is a called ozonosphere. It lies at an altitude of 23-25 km over
biome characterized by cold temperate. The dominant equator and its concentration is 300 dobsons.
there are spruce Pine, and fire. If spread through North
America, Europe, and Asia and it is largest terrestrial
biome on Earth.
The taiga is mainly distinguished by a small number of
species of . These trees reach the highest latitudes on
earth of any trees. Taiga plants and animals are adapted
to long days of short growth season, which range from
cold to worm.
49. Which of the following is correct range of
latitudes for Temperate region?
(a) 40o – 60o (b) 0o – 20o
o o
(c) 20 – 40 (d) 60o – 80o 53. Musk deer is an example of
GUJCET-2011 (a) Rare species
Ans. (a) : The temperate zone of Earth typically spans (b) Vulnerable species
between approximately 23.5 degrees and 66.5 degree of (c) Endangered species
latitude in both the northern and southern Hemispheres. (d) Indeterminate species
It is characterized by moderate temperatures and MHT CET-2019
distinct seasons including spring, summer autumn and Ans. (b) : Musk deer is several small hornless clears
winter. that live in the high regions of central . Asia with the
• Temperate forest vegetation type with a more or less moles producing musk.
continuous canopy of broad leaved trees. Such Musk deer in an Example of vulnerable species. Giant
forests occur between approximately 250 and 500 squirrel is indeterminate species. A rare species is such
latitude in both hemishpheres. species that is very uncommon scarce in number and
50. Which of the following forests is known as the frequently encountered. Eg. Kakapo giant panda.
‘lungs of the planet earth? 54. During summer the density of the surface of
(a) Evergreen forests the water decreases due to increase in its
(b) Tundra forest temperature. The upper most warm layer of a
(c) Amazon rain forest lake is called
(d) Rain forests of North-East India (a) Thermocline (b) Metalimnion
Assam CEE-2014 (c) Hypolimnion (d) Epilimnion
Ans. (c) : Amazon, is the largest tropical rain forest in the TS EAMCET-03.05.2018 Shift-I
world and located in south American, spanning across nine Ans. (d) : During the summer, worm water, which is
countries: Brazil, Peru, Colombia, Venezuela, Ecuador, less dense will sit on top of cooler, denser, deeper water
Bolivia, Guyana, Surinam and French Guiana. with a thermocline separating them. The worm layer is
Amazon have 10% of planet of the Earth and it also called the epilimnion. And the cold layer is called the
referred to as the Lungs of the Earth “because it hypolimnion. The middle layer in a thermally stratified
produces approximately 20% the world’s oxygen. lake or reservoir.
55. The sphere of living matter together with water, (c) Temperature tall grass lands of northern
air and soil on the surface of earth is called hemisphere
(a) Atmosphere (b) Hydrosphere (d) Temperate coniferous forest of northern
(c) Lithosphere (d) Biosphere. hemisphere
AIIMS-2001, 1997 MP PMT-2013
Ans. (d) : The biosphere is include zone of life “because it Ans. (d) : The taiga forest, also known as the boreal
include all living organisms, such as plants, animals, fungi, forest, is a biome characterized by its cold climate and
bacteria and more along with their habitats. dominate by coniferous tress such as spruce, pine, and
The biosphere is fundamental to the study of ecology fir. They vegetate needle-shaped evergreen trees.
and understanding the interaction between living Taiga refers to temperate coniferous forest of Northern
organism and their environments. Hemisphere.
• The sphere of living matter together with water, air 60. Select the correct sequence regarding the levels
and soil on the surface of earth is called biosphere. of ecological organization?
• Atmosphere is the gaseous envelope surrounding a a. Community b. Organism
planet. c. Tissue d. Ecosystem
• Hydrosphere is the part of the earth composed of water. e. Organ f. Landscape
• Lithosphere is the crust and mantle (solid portion) of g. Cell h. Population
the Earth. i. Biosphere j. Organ-System
56. Assertion (A): Circannular rhythms are k. Biome
controlled by biological clocks. (a) g→ c→e→ j→ b→ a→ h→ f→ d→ k→ i
Reason(R): Temperature has a role in setting (b) g→ c→e→ j→ b→ h→ a→ f→ d→ k→ i
the biological clocks. (c) g→ c→e→ j→ b→ h→ a→ d→ f→ k→ i
Options: (d) g→ c→b→ j→ e→ h→ a→ f→ d→ k→ i
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the AP EAMCET-05.10.2021 Shift-I
(b) Both (A) and (R) correct but (R) is not the Ans. (c) : Cell → Tissue → Organ→ Organ-system→
correct explanation of (A) Organism → Population → Community→Ecosystem→
Landscape → Biome → Biosphere
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
The correct sequence of arrangement of the levels of
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct ecological organization from least to most inclusive is
AP EAMCET-24.04.2019 Shift-II organism, population community.
Ans. (c) : The circadian rhythm also known as 61. Bioenergy is always
biological clock is and system that regulates various (a) Ecofriendly (b) Cheap
physiological and behavioral processes in living (c) Non-polluting (d) Both (a) and (b)
organisms over 24-hour cycle. CMC Vellore-2011
The rhythm change may be affect by external factor like
again, medical conditions, shift work, social Jetlag, Ans. (d) : Bioenergy can be considered eco-friendly
travel etc. compared to fossil fuels because it is derived from
renewals organic materials like plant and agriculture
57. The boundry/transition between two or more west. It can contribute to reducing green house gas
communites sharply defined is called emission and dependence of fossil fuels and minimize
(a) Epilimnion (b) Biome environmental impacts and carefully consider land use
(c) Anticline (d) Ecotone and resource bioenergy remains eco-friendly.
CMC Vellore-2012 62. The element whose percentage weight is highest
Ans. (d) : An ecotone is a transition area between two in both earth’s crust and human body is
biological communities, where two communities meet (a) Hydrogen (b) Carbon
and integrate. It may be narrow or wide, and it may be (c) Oxygen (d) Calcium
local (the zone between a field and forest) or regional Karnataka CET-2020
(the transition between forest and grassland Ans. (c) : Oxygen element is highest in both earth’s
ecosystems). crust and human body in respect of percentage weight.
58. The thylakoid in chloroplast are arranged as Percentage weight of oxygen in earth crust is 46.6
(a) interconnected disc (b) interconnected sacs percent while in human body is 65 percent.
(c) stacked discs (d) None of the above 63. Choose the wrong pair
JIPMER-2005 (a) Cenchrus-Savanna
Ans. (c) : The thylakoids in chloroplast are arranged as (b) Abies-Coniferous forest
stacked discs, known as grana. These are located in (c) Quercus-Broad leaf forest
stroma (matrix) of the chloroplast. (d) Tectona-Temperate forest
59. Taiga refers to: JIPMER-2014
(a) Temperature deciduous forest of northern Ans. (d) : Tectona is commonly known as teaks. It is a
hemisphere hardwood tree found is deciduous forest (tropical moist
(b) Temperature semi-deciduous forest of deciduous) not in temperate forest. So, option (d) is the
northern hemisphere wrong pair.
64. Which of the following biome is richest source of Ans. (b) : Savanna – Acacia trees
biodiversity including both plant and animals? Prairie – Enormous stretches of flat grassland with
(a) Tropical evergreen forest moderate temperatures, moderate rainfall and few trees.
(b) Tropical savannah forest Tundra – Permafrost
(c) Northem coniferous forest Coniferous forest – Evergreen trees
(d) Temperate deciduous forest 68. The logistic population growth is expressed by
UP CPMT-2014 the equation
Ans. (a): Tropical evergreen forest receive an average N−K
rain fall 200cm–450cm annually and the average (a) dN / dt = rN  
temperature of that biomes are 30-35 oC. The climatic  N 
condition favor the developing of flora and fauna. K−N
Around 50% of total flora and fluna of the world are (b) dt / dN = Nr  
found in tropical rain forests.  K 
K−N
65. In summer, in lakes upper more warm water is (c) dN / dt = rN  
separated from bottom cool water by mid  K 
water is called ––––––– (d) dN/dt = rN
(a) Thermocline (b) Thermodynamics AIPMT (Mains)-2011
(c) Thermal stratification (d) Epilimnion Ans. (c) :
Ans. (c) : Thermal stratification is a phenomenon that
occurs in various natural water bodies such as takes,
reservoir and oceans, where distinct layers of water
from the different temperature or two type of stream
come into contacts.
Their temperature difference causes the colder and heavier
water to settle at the bottom of the pipe while allowing the
warmer and lighter to float over the colder water. • In exponetial growth • In logistic growth
66. 5th June is celebrated as curve give rise J- curve give rise S-
(a) World forest day Shaped Shaped curve
(b) World environment day • This type of growth • Exist in real life curve.
(c) World red cross day cannot exist in real • Reproduction Rate (↓)
(d) World food day life.
Manipal-2002 • It's grow fastally • Limited source of
reproduction rate (↑) food.
UPCPMT-2002
Ans. (b) : World Environment Day – World Where- k = Carrying
• Large amount of food capacity.
Environment Day is celebrated on 5 June every year
source.
World environment day was launched by United
Nations general assembly in 1972 which was the first dN
Where- = Growth
day of the Stockholm conference on the human dt
environment. rate of Population
• Theme of World environment day 2021 is Ecosystem T = Time
Restoration. N = Population size
Forest Day – The international day of forest was r = Population grow per
established on the 21st day of march by resolution of the individual (Per capita
United Nations general assembly on november. rate of increase
Red Cross Day – World Red Cross day is observed 69. What type of human population is represented
every year on 8 May. The occasion is marked to by the following age pyramid ?
celebrate the principle, history values and impact to the
international Red Crescent movement.
Post-reproductive
World Food Day – World Food day is an international
day celebrated every year worldwide on 16 October to
commemorate the date of the founding of United Nation Reproductive
food and agriculture organization in 1945.
67. Which one of the following pairs is
Pre-reproductive
mismatched?
(a) Savanna- Acacia trees (a) Expanding population
(b) Prairie - Epiphytes (b) Vanishing population
(c) Tundra- Permafrost (c) Stable population
(d) Coniferous forest- Evergreen trees (d) Declining population
JIPMER-2007 AIPMT (Screening)-2011
Ans. (d) : The given age pyramid represents the declining 72. In which of the following pairs is the specific
population. A population can shrink due to declining birth characteristic of a soil not correctly matched
rate. Declining age pyramids depict populations where (a) Terra rossa – Most suitable for roses
there is a lower percentage of younger people. The (b) Chernozems – Richest soil in the world
declining population is the reduction of the population over (c) Black soil – Rich in calcium carbonate
time in a particular region. It can be caused by infertility (d) Laterite – Contains aluminium compound
heavy emigration disease and war. AIPMT-2004
70. The figure given below is a diagrammatic Ans. (a) : Terra rossa (red soil) is a well drained,
representation of response of organism to reddish, clayey to slity clayey soil with neutral pH
abiotic factors. What do A, B and C represent conditions and is typical of the Mediterranean region.
respectively? The reddish color of terra Rossa is the result of the
preferential formation of hematite over goethite.
• Black soil is rich in calcium carbonate (CaCO3) and
iron. This soil also contain line potash (K),
Aluminium (Al) etc.
• Chernozems is the black colored soil which is rich in
humus. This is the richest soil in the world and used
for the cultivation of the cereals.
A B C • Laterite soil contains the bauxite which is the ore of
(a) Conformer Regulator Partial the Al (aluminium)
regulator 73. Biotic factors are :
(b) Regulator Partial Conformer (a) chemical factors of soil which effect life
Regulator (b) physical factors of soil which affect life
(c) Partial Regulator Conformer (c) all living organisms which influence other
Regulator organisms
(d) Regulator Conformer Partial (d) factors of atmosphere which affect life
JIPMER-2006
Regulator
AP EAMCET-2011 Ans. (c) : Living organisms have effect on other living
AIPMT (Screening)-2010 organisms and these constitute biotic factors or living
factors.
Ans. (d) : Some organisms are able to maintain
A biotic factor is a living organism that shapes its
homeostasis by physiological means which ensures
constant body temperature, constant osmotic environment in a freshwater ecosystem. Examples might
concentration etc. They are known as regulators. include aquatic plants. Fish amphibians and algae.
A majority of animals and plants cannot maintain a 74. Soil carried by gravity is
constant internal environment, the body temperature. (a) alluvial (b) eolian
Thus animals and plants are simply conformers. (c) colluvial (d) glacial
Some species have evolved the ability to regulate but WB JEE-2007
only over a limited range of environment conditions Ans. (c) : The loose and unconsolidated sediments
beyond which they simply conform. They are known as which get deposited by the rain wash, sheet erosion and
partial regulators. water erosion is defined as the colluvial soil. Under the
gravitational force, the parent material moves down the
C. Factors of Environment slope. Colluvium consists of very sharp, angular rock
fragments accumulated at the base of steep slopes.
71. Humus is present in The deposited water by the surface water is known as
(a) horizon-A (b) horizon-O alluvial soils.
(c) horizon-B (d) horizon-C The type of soil which flows from one place to another
Rajasthan PMT-2009 / Punjab MET-2009 Glaciation is the formation and the moment of the glaciers
CMC Vellore-2009 / UP CPMT-2009, 2003 that resulted in formation of large continental ice sheets.
DUMET-2005 75. Littoral zone is located along the
Ans. (a) : Humus is present in horizon A. Horizon A or (a) high mountains (b) sea
topsoil is know as a humus layer and it is mainly rich in (c) rivers (d) desert
organic materials. DUMET-2011
Moreover, the topsoil is soft and porous to hold enough Ans. (b) : Three main types of environmental zones are
water and air. recognized in the ocean basin
• Horizon B is the present just below the topsoil and (i) Littoral zone sea floor in the region of continental
above the bedrock. It contains less humus Corazon is shelf. This is the area close to the shore and
made up of broken bedrock. extending out to edge of the continental shelf.
• Horizon O is organic layer. It is loose and made up of The intertidal zone of beach and estuaries are also
partly decayed organic matter. part of littoral zone.
• Horizon C is unconsolidated parent material (ii) Benthonic zone sea floor along continental slope,
(regolith) beyond the reach of plant roots and most aphetic and abyssal zones
forming process except weathering. It is lacking in (iii) Pelagic zone water of the ocean. It is nutrient
organic matter. poor zone.
76. Soil particles determine its (b) With the decrease of every 10oC temperature
(a) texture (b) field capacity the rate of metabolic activities doubles
(c) water holding capacity (d) soil flora (c) With the increase of every 10oC temperature
AIPMT-1992 the rate of metabolic activities doubles
Ans. (a) : Soil texture (such as loam, sandy loam or (d) With the increase or decrease of temperature
clay) refer to the proportion of sand, silt and clay sized there is no change in metabolic activities
particles that make up the mineral soil particles enclose TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-II
living spaces in between them called pore space. There Ans. (c) : Van't Hoff's rule states that with the increase
are 12 major soil texture classified and defined by the of every 10°C temperature the rate of metabolic
USDA. activities doubles or the reaction rate is halved with the
77. Soil is a mixture of : decrease of 10°C.
(a) sand and humus (b) sand and clay 82. Which one soil type and its composition is
(c) sand, clay and humus (d) clay and humus considered best for growth and development of
Manipal-2001 common vegetation?
Ans. (c) : Soil is the uppermost humus containing part (a) Loamy and clay soil
of the Eath's surface, which can sustain terrestrial plant (b) Loamy soil (25-36% field capacity) a mixture
life. Soil is composed of inorganic mineral particles of clay and sand
(45%) water (25%), air(25%) and humus (5%) Humus (c) Black and clay soil
is composed up of dead and decaying organic material. (d) Both loamy soil and sandy soil
78. Nature and properties of soil depends upon UP CPMT-2014
_____ Ans. (b): Loamy soil is a mixture of clay (30%) and
(a) Weathering and climate sand (70%) and contain 25-35 field capacity, i.e. water
(b) Soil erosion never depends retaing capacity.
(c) Never effected by climate This type of soil is considered best for crops and common
(d) Never affected by weathering vegetation. Water infiltration, and adequate aeration
AP EAMCET-05.10.2021 Shift-I facilitate good penetration of root in loamy soil.
Ans. (a) : The nature and properties of soil in different 83. The soil with poorest water holding capacity is
places vary , it is dependent on the climate, the (a) clay (b) loam
weathering process, whether soil is transported or (c) sandy (d) None of these
sedimentary and how soil development occurred. UP CPMT-2011
79. The soil which is transported by wind is known as Ans. (c): Water holding capacity is the extent to which
(a) Colluvial (b) Eolian the soil can hold capillary water against gravity. It is
(c) Aluvial (d) Glacial soil defined as the amount of water retained by unit weight
JIPMER-2009 of dry soil, when immersed in water under standardized
condition sandy soil has poorest water holding capacity.
Ans. (b) : The soil transported by wind is known as Clay soil- Clay-rich soil has the largest pore space,
eolian soil. hence the greatest total water holding capacity.
• Eolian – Trasnported by wind Loam- Loam soil should consist of equal part of all
• Colluvial - Transported by gravity three soil type. This combination of soil type creates the
• Alluvial - Transported by running water perfect soil texture for plant growth.
• Glacial soil - Transported by glaciers 84. Doubling of metabolic activity with every
80. If b = 65 and d = 45; N = 100 increase in temperature by 10° C is called
dN (a) Van't Hoff's a rule (b) Allen's rule
Find out in a population. (c) Bergman's rule (d) Jordan’s rule
dt
(a) 200 (b) 2000 TSEAMCET-09.05.2019 Shift-I
(c) 100 (d) 1000 Ans. (a) : A statement in physical chemistry' the effect
TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II of a changed in temperature on a system in equilibrium
is to shift the equilibrium in the direction that acts to
Ans. (b) : nullify the temperature change according to Van't Hoff's
dN = (b − d)N law an increase in temperature will cause an increase in
dt the rate of an endothermic reaction.
∴ b(birth rate) = 65
85. Which of the following soil is transported by
d (death rate) = 45 air?
N (Population size) = 100 (a) Alluvial (b) Aerial
dN (c) Eolian (d) Glacial
∵ = (65 − 45) × 100
dt UPCPMT-2002
= 20 × 100 = 2000 Ans. (c): Eolian – Transported soils are brought from
81. Van't Hoff's rule states that other places under the influence of gravity (colluvial),
(a) With the increase of every 10oC temperature running water (Alluvial), wind (Eolian) and glaciers
the rate of metabolic activities become half (Glacial soil).
Alluvial – The alluvial soil is the most widely spread 90. Match the following
soil in India. It is mainly found in the Northern Indian A. Diapause I. Changing body shape
plains. It is formed due to the erosion, transportation
and depositional activities of the Himalayan River. The according to seasons
entire Northern India plains are made up of alluvial soil. B. Conformers II. Organisms are able to
Aerial Soil – They are found in diverse plant species maintain homeostasis
including epiphytes such as orchids, tropical coastal C. Regulators III. Animals cannot
swamp trees such as mangroves, banyan. maintain a constant
Glacial soil – Soil composed of boulder, clays, and internal environment
moraines etc, which were formed by the action of ice
during the Pleistocene age. D. Cyclomorphosis IV. State of inactiveness to
86. Edaphology is avoid unfavourable
(a) Study of Snakes (b) Study of Amphibians environmental
(c) Study of Elephants (d) None of these conditions
Karnataka CET-2007 (a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Ans. (d) : Edaphology is the science or study of soil (b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
especially with respect to plant growth. (c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
It is also applied for the study of the influences of soil (d) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
on organism, especially plants. It includes agrology. TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I
87. More than 70% of world's freshwater is
contained in Ans. (b) :
(a) Antarctica (b) Glaciers and Mountains A. Diapause IV. State of inactiveness to avoid
(c) Greenland (d) Polar ice unfavourable environmental
JIPMER-2007 conditions
Ans. (d) : Nearly about 97% of the water is saline in the B. Conformers III. Animals cannot maintain a
ocean and seas, 3% of the earth water is locked up on constant internal
the polar ice caps, 85% of the frozen freshwater is in the environment
Antarctic is ice cap.
More than 70% of the freshwater on earth is hold along C. Regulators II. Organisms are able to
the polar ice caps. maintain homeostasis
About 2.1% of all of earth’s water is frozen in glaciers. D. Cyclomorphosis I. Changing body shape
the green land ice sheet also contains large volume of according to seasons
fresh water. 91. Animals having a built in thermostat to
maintain constant body temperature are
D. Adaptations known as
88. Choose the incorrect statement with reference (a) biothermic (b) poikilothermic
to Kangaroo rat. (c) oligothermic (d) homoeothermic
(a) eliminates dilute urine. UP CPMT-2012 ,2003 / DUMET-2005
(b) found in North American desert. JIPMER-2009 / Rajasthan PMT-2008
(c) meets its water requirements through internal CG PMT-2008
fat oxidation. Ans. (d) : To maintain constant body temperature is
(d) uses minimal water to remove excretory products. called homoeothermic. Homoeothermic organism are
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 those who can maintain their internal body temperature
Ans. (a) : Kangaroo rats are well adapted to desert life. at a relatively constant value by using metabolic
They do not sweat, they are not required to drink water. processes to counteract fluctuation in the temperature of
Kangaroo rats are capable of meeting their water the environment Ex-Brides and mammals.
requirements by metabolic oxidation of seeds curd
producing very concentrated urine to conserve water 92. Homeostasis is used to describe
because they do not use water to regulate body (a) tendency of the biological system to change
temperature as they live in burrows all over the night. with the slightest change in the environment
89. Generally, bears avoid winter by undergoing (b) disturbance of the self-regulatory system
(a) Migration (b) Diapause (c) tendency of the biological – system to resist
(c) Hibernation (d) Aestivation change
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 (d) None of the above
Ans. (c) : Hibernation is a deep sleep that helps the VMMC-2015 / CMC Vellore-2014 / AIPMT-1991
bears save energy and survive the winter without eating Ans. (c) : Homeostasis is used to describe the tendency
much. During hibernation the animals body temperature
of biological system to resist changes so as remain in a
drops and its heartbeat and its breathing slows down so
that it does not use much energy. Bear dig cozy caves state of equilibrium. The word homeostasis was coined
with their long claws and hibernate in there for most of by the Harvard physiologist, walter, Brad ford cannon
the winter. in 1926.
93. Match List-I with List - II • Amensalism is an interaction between different
List-I List-II species in which one species is harmed and other is
(A) Allen's Rule (i) Kangaroo rat neither benefitted nor harmed e.g. Penicillin killing
bacteria.
(B) Physiological (ii) Desert lizard • Antibiosis it is an antagonistic association between
adaptation two or more organism, in which one is adversely
(C) Behavioural (iii) Marine fish at affected e.g. antibiosis includes the relationship
adaptation depth between antibiotic and bacteria.
(D) Biochemical (iv) Polar seal • Fungistasis inhibits the growth of fungi.
adaptation 97. Which one of the following is a matching pair
Choose the correct answer from the options of an animal and a certain phenomenon it
given below. exhibits:
(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) Pheretima – Sexual dimorphism
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (b) Musca – Complete metamorphosis
(b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (c) Chameleon – Mimicry
(c) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (d) Taenia – Polymorphism/
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) AIPMT-2003
NEET-2021 Ans. (b): In musca, development is indirect with
complete metamorphosis (Homometabolous) including
Ans. (d) : four stages as follows - egg, larva, pupa and adult.
(A) Allen’s Rule (iv) Polar seal Pheretima is hermaphrodite. Obelia exhibits
(B) Physiological (i) Kangaroo rat polymorphism. Round worm (Ascaris) exhibits sexual
adaptation dimorphism. Chameleon shows camouflage.
(C) Behavioural (ii) Desert lizard 98. A lizard-like member of reptilia is sitting on a
adaptation tree with its tail coiled around a twig. This
animal could be
(D) Biochemical (iii) Marine fish at depth
(a) Hemidactylus showing sexual dimorphism
adaptation
(b) Varanus showing mimicry
94. Significance of mimicry is (c) Garden lizard (Calotes) showing camoulflage
(a) Attack (Offance) (b) Protection (Defence) (d) Chameleon showing protective coloration
(c) Both (1) & (2) (d) Isolation AIIMS-2006
AIPMT-2002 / JIPMER-2002 Ans. (d) : Chameleon (or girgit) showing protective
Ans. (c) : Mimicry occurs when a given species, coloration
resembles another for its own benefit. It may help a • Chameleons can change their skin color to mix with
predator in capturing food (offense) or it can help a prey their surrounding.
in avoiding capturing. Ex- known as twing.
So option A&B are correct. • Chameleons- This term is used for family
95. Presence of plants arranged into well defined Chamaeleonidae are a distinctive and highly
vertical layers depending on their height can be specialized clade of old world lizards with 202
seen best in : species described.
(a) Tropical Savannah (b) Tropical Rain Forest • Color modification in chameleons has functions in
(c) Grassland (d) Temperate Forest camouflage, but most generally in a social signaling
NEET-2017 as well as in outcomes to temperature and other
Ans. (b) : Tropical rain forest shows stratification. The circumstances.
plants are grouped into two or more well defined layers 99. The animals of cold countries have relatively
depending on their height. These layers are called shorter and poorly developed ears, eyes, hairs
strata, which comprise of very tall emergent trees, tall and other phenotypic characters. This known
trees, small trees, shrub layer, and a ground layer of by which law?
fern, mosses and herbs. (a) Cope’s Law (b) Dollo’s Law
(c) Allen’s Law (d) Bergmann’s Law
96. Mycorrhizae are the example of
AIPMT-1996
(a) Fungistasis (b) Amensalism
Ans. (c) : Allen's Law states that in a warm-blooded
(c) Antibiosis (d) Mutualism
animals species having distinct geographic populations,
NEET-2017 the limbs, ears, and other appendages of the animals
Ans. (d) : Mutualism is an association of two species living in cold climates tend to be shorter than in animals
in which both species are benefitted. of the same species living in warm climates.
• Mycorrhiza is a mutualistic relationship between Cope's law states that there in a tendency for animals to
fungal hyphae and roots of higher plants. increase in size during the long course of evolution
• The fungus helps in mineral nutrition absorption from Dollo's law states that evolution is irreversible
the plants which they are associated and obtained in Bergmann's law states that warm blooded animals become
turn nutrients from plants. larger in the northern and colder parts of their range.

100. During adverse season, the therophytes survive by Options:
(a) rhizomes (b) seeds (a) (A-iv-P), (B-iii-T), (C-v-R), (D-ii-Q), (E-i-S)
(c) bulbs (d) corms (b) (A-i-Q), (B-iii-S), (C-v-R), (D-ii-T), (E-iv-P)
AIPMT-1997 (c) (A-ii-S), (B-iv-P), (C-v-R), (D-ii-T), (E-i-Q)
Ans. (b) : Seeds are small embryonic plants enclosed in (d) (A-iii-P), (B-iv-S), (C-v-R), (D-ii-T), (E-i-Q)
a covering called the seed coat, usually with some AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-II
stored food. The therophytes are the plants that can Ans. (d) :
survive unfavorable condition as seeds and germinate (a) Fig tree and wasp : mutual relationship, fig flower
when condition are favorable. is pollinated by wasp and wasp laying eggs in it.
The therophytes are those plants that survive (b) Ophrys employs sexual deceit to get pollination
unfavorable condition as seeds and germinate when done by species of bee. The male bee is attracted to
condition are favorable. what it perceive as a female.
The therophytes are those plants that survive the winter (c) See anemone that has stinging tentacles and the
as a seed and complete their life cycle between the clown fish that lives among them. Commensalism.
spring and autumn. (d) Camouflage: Colour changes exhibit by insects &
101. Match the following. The correct combinations frog.
are (e) Monarch butterfly- has highly distasteful special
List I List II List III chemical.
A Diapause i Temperature P Temperature 103. Match the following?
variations with lake
seasonal List I List II
changes i. Calotropis A. Predator of
B Cyclomo ii Light produced Q Insects Americana Pacific
rphosis by living ii. Cactus B. Insects and frogs
organisms cryptically colored
C Thermal iii Inactiveness R Pyrosoma
stratific
iii. Pisaster C. Distasteful
ation glycosides
D Biolumi iv Seasonal S Daphnia iv. Monarch D. Cardiac glycosides
nescence morphological Butterfly
variations v. Camouflage E. Predator is moth
Options: Options:
(a) (A-iii-R), (B-iv-Q), (C-i-P), (D-ii-S) (a) (i-C), (ii-E), (iii-A), (iv-D) & (v-B)
(b) (A-iii-Q), (B-iv-S), (C-i-P), (D-ii-R) (b) (i-D), (ii-E), (iii-A), (iv-C) & (v-B)
(c) (A-i-Q), (B-iv-R), (C-iii-P), (D-ii-Q) (c) (i-A), (ii-D), (iii-E), (iv-C) & (v-B)
(d) (A-iii-S), (B-iv-Q), (C-i-P), (D-ii-R) (d) (i-E), (ii-D), (iii-C), (iv-A) & (v-B)
AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-II AP EAMCET-03.09.2021 Shift-II
Ans. (b) : Ans. (b) : Predation is a type of population interaction
(a) Diapause is reduction of metabolic activity. It is in which one organism called the predator eats another
typical of many insects. organism called the prey.
(b) Cyclomorphosis- Seasonal changes in the Ex. cactus eating moth. Pisaster is predator of
Americana pacific.
phenotype of small aquatic invertebrate organisms,
ex Daphnia. • Calotropis produce highly poisons cardiac glycoside.
(c) Thermal stratification- Temperature variations with • In camouflage the internal appearance of the animal
seasonal changes. merge with the background so it is not recognizable
(d) Bioluminescence- is light produced by living • The monarch butterfly is highly distasteful glycosides to
organisms, exhibit by Pyrosoma. predator stores a poison called cardenolides or cardiac
glycosides that it get from the plant it eats.
102. Match the following. The correct combinations are
104. Which of the following features of plants is not
List I List II List III
helpful in adapting to desert life?
A Fig tree i Highly P petals of its (a) Presence of thick cuticle on the leaf surface
distasteful flower
(b) Leaves modified into spines
B Ophrys ii Cryptically Q special (c) Presence of sunken stomata
colored chemical
present (d) Absence of trichomes on leaf surface
C Sea iii Wasp R clown fish
Karnataka CET-2020
anemone Ans. (d) : There are some feature are very helpful in
D Camouflage iv Sexual deceit S developing adapting to desert life for any plants.
seeds (i) Presence of thick cuticle on the leaf surface.
E Monarch v Stinging cells T Insects & (ii) Leaves modified into spines
butterfly frogs (iii) Presence of sunken stomata.
(iv) Presence of trichomes on leaf surface (epidermis). Ans. (a) : Amoeba has contractile vacuole which help
Function of these structures include defense against in osmo-regulation. It helps in expelling excess water in
insects, protection from excessive transpiration and high the unicellular organism.
heat. • In fresh water fishes the glomerular kidney function
105. The organisms which generate heat energy is water excretory function. Renal glomerulus
within body and also retain it are known as: concentrated filtered ions and excretes dilute urine.
(a) Endothermic (b) Exothermic • Gemmule are internal buds found in sponge and are
(c) Photothermic (d) Geothermic involved in asexual reproduction.
AP EAMCET-2005 109. Maintenance of relatively constant internal
Ans. (a): Endothermic– The organisms which are able conditions (steady state) different from the
to generate heat energy within the body and also able to surrounding environment is called
retain it are called endothermic animal and this (a) Haemostasis (b) Osmoregulation
phenomenon is known as endothermy. (c) Homeostasis (d) Biogenesis
b) Exothermic– Ectotherm, any so-called cold-blooded TS EAMCET-30.07.2022 Shift-II
animal- that is, any animal whose regulation of body
temperature depends on external sources, such as Ans. (c) : Homeostasis is any self regulating process by
sunlight or heated rock surface. The ectotherms include which an organism tends to maintain stability while
the fishes, amphibians, reptiles, and invested rates. adjusting to condition that are best for its survival.
c) Photothermic– Movement of an organism toward or While homeostasis is the reaction to stop bleeding and
away from a source of light. allows body to start repairs on the injury. Homeostasis
d) Geothermic relating to the heat in the interior of the has 3 main components – Receptor, Control center and
earth. Effecter.
A homeostasis example is internal body temperature.
106. Ear lobes of arctic fox are smaller than that of
tropical fox. This is: 110. It is much easier for a small animal to run
(a) Jordon's rule (b) Bergman's rule uphill than for a large animal, because
(c) Gloger's rule (d) Allen's rule (a) The efficiency of muscles in large animals is
AP EAMCET-2005 / UPCPMT-2002 less than in the small animals
Ans. (d): Allen's rule– State that, body forms such as (b) it is easier to carry a small body weight
the limbs, ears and other appendages of the animals (c) Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate
living in cold climates tend to be shorter than in animals (d) Small animals have a lower O2 requirement
of the same species living in warm climates. NEET-2016 Phase-I
(a) Jordon's rule– The most commonly observed Ans. (c) : Small animals have high metabolic rate so
relationship is that fin ray. Vertebrate, or scale numbers they can easily run uphill than for a large animal,
increase with decreasing temperature. metabolism results in release of energy. Hence, smaller
b) Bergmann's rule– State that, species of larger size animals have more energy and that makes it more easier
are found in colder environments, and species of for them to run uphill than a large animal. Metabolic
smaller size are found in warmer regions. rate is directly proportional to the size of animal. Hind-
c) Gloger's rule– That darker birds are found more II is the first discovered restriction enzyme by Werner
often in humid environment that in arid ones, especially Arber.
in the tropics. Smaller animals have higher BMR (Basal metabolic
107. Animals undergoes inactive stage during rate) related with sustained energy production and
winter, is known as delayed muscles fatigue.
(a) Aestivation (b) Hibernation 111. Which two of the following changes (a – d)
(c) Adaptation (d) Acclimatization usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when
VMMC-2012 / UP CPMT-2008 / JIPMER-2009 they move to high altitudes (3,500 m or more) ?
Ans. (b) : Hibernation is the inactive stage during (A) Increase in red blood cell size
winter or the dormancy during winter. It is known as (B) Increase in red blood cell production
winter sleep. Hibernation is a state of minimal activity (C) Increased breathing rate
and metabolic depression undergone by some animal (D) Increase in thrombocyte count
species. Changes occurring are –
108. Study the following statements regarding (a) (B) and (C) (b) (C) and (D)
adaptations in fresh water habitat (c) (A) and (D) (d) (A) and (B)
I. Amoeba has contractile vacuole AIPMT (Screening)-2010
II. Glomerular kidneys in fresh water fishes Ans. (a) : The body undergoes numerous changes at
III. Sponges form gemmules higher elevation in order to increase oxygen delivery to
IV. Neoceratodus forms gelatinous cocoon cells and improve efficiency of oxygen use. The early
Among the above, the correct statements are changes includes increased breathing rate, increased
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III, IV heart rate and fluid shifts. The later changes includes
(c) I, II, IV (d) I, III, IV increased red blood cell production. increased 2, 3 DPG
TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I production and increased number of capillaries.
The number of red blood cells increases when there is 115. Match the following concepts :
little oxygen because the body is trying to compensate Set-I Set-II
for the lack of oxygen. (A) Allen's rule 1. Fishes of cooler
At high altitude, the lack of oxygen is sensed by carotid waters have more
bodies, which causes an increases in the breathing depth vertebrae than
and rate Then there is an increases in breathing and those found in hot
heart rate to as much as double, even while resting. waters
112. Assertion (A) : The Monarch butterfly feeds on (B) Bergmann's rule 2. Temperature
poisonous weeds during its Caterpillars stage. influences
Reason (R) : It helps butterfly to become pigmentation in
distasteful to its predator. animals
(a) (A) is true and (R) is its correct explanation (C) Jordan's rule 3. Temperature
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the affects various
correct explanation of (A) organs of animals
(c) (A) is true, (R) is false (D) Gloger's rule 4. Body size of
homeotherms in
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false cold region is
Karnataka CET-2019 large whereas
Ans. (a) : The Monarch butterfly feeds on poisonous those living in hot
weeds during its caterpillars stage because it helps them regions are small
to become distasteful to its predators. The correct match is
113. In Amphibians and reptiles, the body (a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (b) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
temperature changes corresponding to external (c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
temperature. The organisms which show this AP EAMCET-2007
kind of response is termed as - Ans. (c) :
(a) Regulators (b) Conformers Set - I Set - I
(c) Partial Regulators (d) Thermophiles (A) Allen's rule 3. Temperature affects
Karnataka CET-2019 various organs of animals
Ans. (b) : Conformers is the property shown by reptiles (B) Bergmann's rule 4. Body size of
and amphibians, to change their body temperature homeotherms in cold
corresponding to external environment. region is large whereas
114. Match the following: those living in hot
regions are small
List - I List - II
A. Van Hoffs rule 1. Body size (C) Jordan's rule 1. Fishes of cooler waters
have more vertebrae than
B. Bergman’s rule 2. Metabolic rate those found in hot waters
C. Allen’s rule 3. Development (D) Gloger's rule 2. Temperature influences
D. Jordan’s rule 4. organ size pigmentation in animals
A B C D 116. Two opposite forces operate in the growth and
(a) 1 2 4 3 development of every population. One of them
(b) 3 4 2 1 related to the ability to reproduce at a given
(c) 2 1 3 4 rate. The force opposite to it is called :
(d) 2 1 4 3 (a) Fecundity (b) Environmental resistance
AP EAMCET-2006 (c) Biotic control (d) Mortality
Ans. (d) Van Hoffs rule state that with the increase of AIPMT-1998 / AIIMS-2008
every 10°C the rate of metabolic activity is doubled or Ans. (b) : Two opposite forces operate in the growth
halved with the decrease of 10°C. and development of every population. One of them
related to the ability to reproduce at a given rate, the
• Allens rule says that the tail, ears and legs of
force opposite to it is called environmental resistances.
mammals are relatively shorter in colder areas than in
• Environmental resistances is factor that can limit the
warmer areas.
increase in a population common factors include
• Temperature also affects the morphology of some predators disease, competitors and lack of food,
fishes and found to have some relationships with the water and suitable habitat, contributed by
number of vertebrae (i.e. development) is known as environmental resistance, as a result overall
Jordan’s rule. population of the species does not grow
• According to Bergman’s rule temperature affect the uncontrollably.
absolute size of an animal and the relative 117. What will be happen if the number of organism
proportions of various body parts. like birds and increased at a place
mammals attain large body size. in cold region than (a) Inter species competition
in warm regions. (b) Intra species competition
(c) Both Ans. (c) : Genetic drift involves the loss of alleles from
(d) None a population by chance. Random fluctuations in allele
AIPMT-1999 frequencies in small populations reduce genetic
Ans. (c) : The number of organism increased at a place variation leading to increased homozygosity and loss of
of inter species competition and intra species evolutionary adaptability to change.
competition. This is generally for food, water, shelter
121. Choose the correct statements
and specifically perfect mate.
Intra species competition occurs between members of I. Population is a group of organisms
the same species. belonging to a species living in a particular
Organisms from different species compete for resources area.
called interspecies competition. II. Population of different species in a given
118. Consider the following four conditions (a – d) habitat, interacting with one another
and select the correct pair of them as constitute a community.
adaptation to environment in desert lizards. III. Population is a group of organisms
The conditions : belonging to different species.
(A) burrowing in soil to escape high temperature
(a) I & III only (b) I & II only
(B) losing heat rapidly from the body during high
temperature (c) II & III only (d) I, II & III
(C) bask in sun when temperature is low AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II
(D) insulating body due to thick fatty dermis Ans. (b) : Populations and communities are groups of
Options : organisms. A population is a group of the same species
(a) (A), (D) (b) (C), (D) living in the same area. A community is a group of
(c) (A), (C) (d) (B), (D) different species living in the same area.
AIPMT (Screening)-2011 122. If there are 250 snails in a pond, and within a
Ans. (c) : Deserts are tough to live in due to high year their number increases to 2500 by
temperatures, dry weather, and sand. reproduction. What should be their birth rate
Lizard is belong to reptilian and almost all reptilians per snail per year?
including lizards are cold blooded animals that means (a) 25 (b) 15
they are able to keep their body temperature constant. (c) 10 (d) 9
They depends on the environment around then to
control their body temperature. RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur)
Desert lizards are often referred to as "Horny toads," ∆N
Ans. (d) : Birth rate =
although they are not toads, but lizards. They live in N ∆t
burrow in soil to escapes from high temperature and
Here, N = 250
constructed by other animals. They bask in sun when
temperature is low, weather is cold. ∆t = 1 year
∆N = 2500 – 250 = 2250
E. Populations and its attributes 2250
Birth rate = =9
119. Observe the following illustration of a pyramid. 250 × 1
It represents 123. Match List I with List II :
List I List II
A. Logistic I. Unlimited resource
growth availability
(a) Growing population (b) Stable Population condition
(c) Declining population (d) Population density
B. Exponential II. Limited resource
growth availability
Ans. (a) : A population pyramid is a graphical condition
representation of the distribution of people by sex and
age group. In given illustration of pyramid represents C. Expanding III. The percent
growing population. Expansive population pyramids are age individuals of pre-
used to describe population that are young and growing. pyramid reproductive age is
They are often characterized by their typical 'pyramid' largest followed by
shape. Which has a broad base and narrow top. reproductive and
120. The evolutionary force that reduces the genetic post reproductive
variation by removing low frequency allels age groups
(a) Adaptive radiation D. Stable age IV. The percent
(b) Gene flow pyramid individuals of pre-
(c) Genetic Drift reproductives and
(d) Reproductive isolation reproductive age
AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-II group are same
Choose the correct answer from the options Ans. (c) : Alexander von Humboldt observed that with
given below : a region species richness increased with increasing
(a) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I explored area, but only up to a limit.
(b) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV The relationship is a straight line described by the
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV equation –
(d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III log S = log C + Z log A
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023 Where,
Ans. (b) : In logistic growth, population expansion S = species richness
decreases as resources become scarce, leveling off when A = Area
the coring capacity of the environment is reached, Z = slope of the line
resulting is an S-shaped curve. C = Y- intercept
• Populations with unlimited natural resources grow 128. The impact of immigration on population
very rapidly, after which population growth density is
decreases as resources become depleted. (a) Positive
• People aged 30-44 (upper reproductive years) make (b) Negative
up 19% of the population; people aged 15-19 (lower (c) Both positive and negative
reproductive years) make up 15% of the population; (d) Neutralized by natality
and people aged 0-14 (pre-reproductive years) make NEET-2020 Phase-II
up just 13% of the population. Ans. (a) : The impact of immigration on population
• Stable age pyramids are those that show a somewhat density is positive. The population density is affected by
equal proportion of the population in each age group. four basic processes. Natality, immigration, mortality
and emigration.
124. Study of Ecology of population is called
Immigration is the movement of individuals of the same
(a) Autecology (b) Synecology species into a given habitat from elsewhere so it will
(c) Ecotype (d) Demecology increase the population density of the species in that
Haryana PMT-2008 / JIPMER-2008 area. So, it has positive impact.
Ans. (d) : Demecology is that branch of biology which 129. In the exponential growth equation Nt = Noert, e
deals with the ecology of populations. Demecology (a) The base of geometric logarithms
includes the study of populations of different species (b) The base of number logarithms
with concern to birth rate, death rate, different factors (c) The base of exponential logarithms
affecting number, growth and size. (d) The base of natural logarithms
125. Abundance of a species in a population, within NEET-2021
habitat is called Ans. (d) In the exponential growth equation Nt = No ert.
(a) Niche density (b) Absolute density • e = represent the base of natural logarithms.
(c) Relative density (d) Geographic density • N = population density after time t.
t
MGIMS Wardha-2010 / AIIMS-2002 • N = Population density at time zero.
o
AIPMT-1995
• r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase called biotic
Ans. (a) : The abundance of a species in a populations, potential.
within habitat is called niche density. Niche is the
130. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is
functional role played by the organism where it lived.
obtained when
126. Which of the following is not an attribute of a (a) The value of 'r' approaches zero
population? (b) K = N
(a) Natality (b) Mortality (c) K > N
(c) Species interaction (d) Sex ratio (d) K < N
NEET-2020 Phase-I NEET-2017
Ans. (c) : Species interaction is not an attribute of a Ans. (b) : Population growth curve is logistic when
population. response are limiting the growth, here K is carrying
capacity for logistic growth.
Birth rate, death rate and sex ratio are attributes of the
population. These attributes (features) are not exhibited dN K−N
by the individual organism. = rN  
dt  K 
127. According to Alexander von Homboldt
(a) Species richness goes on increasing with then if, K = N,
increasing area of exploration K−N
=0
(b) Species richness decreases with increasing K
area of exploration dN
(c) Species richness increases with increasing ∴ The =0
area, but only up to limit dt
(d) There is no relationship between species ∴ The population reaches asymptote.
richness and area explored. If K < N the rate of change of population density is
NEET-2020 Phase-II negative, i.e. decreasing.
If K > N, the rate of change of population density is 135. Natality refers to
positive, i.e. increasing. (a) Death rate
r is intrinsic rate of increase (per capita rate of increase (b) Birth rate
and equals birth rate minus death rate) When, r = 0, (c) Number of individuals entering a habitat
population reached equilibrium. (d) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
131. In a population, unrestricted reproductive NEET-2018
capacity is called as Ans. (b) : The term Natality refers to birth rate.
(a) Biotic potential (b) Fertility • Natality is the average number of new individual
(c) Carrying capacity (d) Birth rate born by a population in a unit of time (per year).
AIPMT-2002 It can be expressed as the number of birth per.
Ans. (a) : Unrestricted reproductive capacity is called • Mortality refers to death rate
biotic potential. • Number of individual entering a habitat is immigration.
132. If ‘8’ Drosophila in a laboratory population of • Number of individual leaving the habitat emigration.
‘80’ died during a week, the death rate in the
population is______individuals per Drosophila 136. Niche is
per week. (a) all the biological factors in the organism's
(a) 0 (b) 0.1 environment
(c) 10 (d) 1.0 (b) the physical space where an organism lives
NEET-2022 (c) the functional role played by the organism
where it lives
No of individuals death (d) the range of temperature that the organism
Ans. (b) : Death rate =
Total no. of Individuals needs to live
8 NEET-2018
Death rate = = 0.1 Ans. (c) : Niche is an ecological component of habitat
80
Death rate = 0.1 indivial/week. which is delimited by the functioning of an organism.
133. The following graph depicts changes in two • The term niche was describe by J. Grinnell it refers
populations (A and B) of herbivores in a grassy functional role played by the organism where it lives.
field A possible reason for these changes is • A species may live in more than one niche in
that: different stage of life cycle.
• Without the ecological niches, there would be less
biodiversity and ecosystem would be in balance.
137. A biologist studied the population of rats in a
bam. He found that the average natality was
250 average mortality 240, immigration 20 and
(a) Population B competed more successfully for
food than population A emigration 30. The net increase in population is
(b) Population A produced more offspring than (a) Zero (b) 10
population B (c) 15 (d) 05
(c) Population A consumed the members of NEET-2013
population B Ans. (a) : In community the net increases in population-
(d) Both plant populations in this habitat decreased N = (Birth Rate+Immigration)–(Death Rate+Emigration)
AIPMT-2015 In this question-
Ans. (a) : The individuals of population B have Natality or birth rate = 250
increased because they adapted better to their Mortality or death rate = 240
environment than population A. Immigration = 20
Population B had proved to be superiority adopted for Emigration = 30
survival and attainment of resources like food, water, Net Increase in population (N) = (B + I) – (D + E)
shelter, etc leading to an increases in their number by N = (250 + 20) – (240 + 30)
outgrowing the offspring's, as compared to those of N=0
population A.
There for no change in population.
134. The species confined to a particular region and
not found elsewhere is termed as : 138. The formula for exponential population growth
is-
(a) Rare (b) Keystone
(a) dt/dN = rN (b) dN/rN = dt
(c) Alien (d) Endemic
AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015 (c) rN/dN = dt (d) dN/dt = rN
AIPMT-2006 / TS EAMCET-02.05.2018 Shift-I
Ans. (d) : Endemic species are those that are restricted BCECE-2013 / SRM JEEE-2018
to a geographical area and do not occur naturally in any
other part of the world. Ans. (d) : J-Shaped form of population growth is
mathematically described by an equation of exponential
• A keystone species is an organism that helps defines
an entire ecosystem. or geometric increase, which is as follows :
• Alian species are species that occur outside their dN
= rN
natural range and dispersal potential. dt
(a) cholesterol is an essential dietary requirement
Where, d = Rate of change
of khapra beetle
t = time (b) growth of khapra beetle is directly
N = Population size proportional to cholesterol concentration
(c) cholesterol concentration of 2 µg/g diet is the
r = Biotic potential of each individual optimum level
(d) growth of khapra beetle is inhibited when
cholesterol concentration exceeds 5µg/g diet.
AIIMS-2005
Ans. (a) : Cholesterol is an essential dietary
requirement of kapra beetle. Here, the graph shown is
the sigmoidal curve. This means that the growth curve
is in a normal pattern. It consist of three phases- (i) Lag
139. Choose the correct sequence of stages of phase (ii) Log phase (3) Stationary phase. Initially, there
growth curve for Bacteria was the lag phase, where it adjusted to the environment
(a) Lag, Log, stationary, Decline phase of cholesterol and then it entered log phase where
(b) Lag, Log, Stationary phase Khapra beetlegrew rapidly followed by the stationary
(c) Stationary, Lag, Log, Decline phase phase. Thus, it means that cholesterol essential dietary
requirement for Khapra beetle.
(d) Decline, Lag, Log phase
AIPMT-2002 142. The growth curve of bacterial population in lab
is plotted against time. What will be the shape
Ans. (a) : When microbes are grown in a closed system of graph?
or batch culture, the resulting growth curve has usually (a) Sigmoid
four phase-
(b) Hyperbolic
1. Lag phase 2. Log phase
(c) Ascending straight line
3. Stationary phase 4. Decline phase
(d) Descending straight line
Time-dependent size of a growing bacterial cell
population is commonly represented in log-scale against AIIMS-2008
time, in which case, the lag and the exponential phase Ans. (b) : Under continuous supply of food and space
form a J-shaped curve. in the laboratory conditions the bacterial population
grows exponentially and shows a J-shaped curve, thus
the curve would be hyperbolic.
• Exponential growth such populations ultimately crash
when the population size grows beyond carrying capacity.
140. An interaction in which one organism is

benefitted and other is unaffected 143. In an area, a population with large size
(a) predation (b) commensalism individuals having long life span, more parental
(c) mutualism (d) parasitism care and slow development was present. The type
JIPMER-2019 of population growth curve will be
(a) S-shaped (b) J-shaped
Ans. (b) : A relation between two kind of organisms in
which one obtains food or other benefits from the other (c) Z-shaped (d) All of these
without damaging or benefiting it is known as AIIMS-2014
commensalism. Ans. (a) : The population growth curve will be S-
141. In an experiment freshly hatched larvae of an shaped or sigmoid or logistic. The growth curve has five
insect (Khapra beetle) were reared on a basal phases: Lag phase, Positive acceleration phase,
diet (complete diet without cholesterol) with Exponential phase, Negative acceleration phase and
increasing amounts of cholesterol. Results Stationary phase. Most of the organisms including
obtained are shown in the graph given in the human population shows S-shaped curve.
table : The graph indicates that

144. Ans. (b) : Logistic growth - In nature habitat has
enough resources to support a maximum possible
number beyond which no further growth is possible.
This limit is known as carrying capacity.
Select the correct option w.r.t. Age pyramids.
K−N
(a) A – Expanding, B – stable, C – Declining dN / dt = rN   K = carrying capacity
(b) A – stable, B – Expanding, C – Declining  K 
(c) A – stable, B – Declining, C – Expanding • Exponential growth :
(d) A – Declining, B – stable, C – Expanding dN/dt = (b – d) × N
AIIMS-26.05.2019 Shift-II / AIIMS-26.05.2019 Shift-I lets (b – d) = r
Ans. (a) : Expanding age pyramid- These types of dN/dt = rN
pyramids have a much larger population of pre- r is known as intrinsic rate of natural selection.
reproductive and reproductive age groups and a • Age pyramid- age pyramid is of 3 types
population of post reproductive age groups is very less (i) expanding (ii) stable (iii) declining
compared to pre-reproductive and reproductive age • Pacific salmon fish- breed only once in lifetime
groups.
147. At a given time in a forest 900 deers are found,
• Stable age pyramids - Stable age pyramids are those 100 more deers can be accommodated, then
that show a some what equal proportion of the 1000 is….
population in each age group. The population is stable. (a) Population carrying capacity of or deer.
• Declining age pyramid – A pyramid with a narrow (b) Mortality of deer
base is also known as the declining age pyramid. It (c) Maximum natality
represents low fertility, low death rate, high life
expectancy and increased ageing the population. (d) Realised natality
GUJCET-2014
Ans. (a): At a given time in a forest 900 deers are
found, 100 more deers accommodated, then 1000 is
population carrying capacity of or deer.
145. July 11 is observed as: 148. “India is a country of youngsters” on this basis,
(a) World population day if age pyramid is made. What type of pyramid
(b) Tobacco day it will be?
(c) World environment day (a) Triangular shape (b) Bell shape
(d) World health day. (c) Urn shape (d) Spindle shape
AIIMS-2003 / BVP-2002 GUJCET-2018
Rajasthan PMT-1997 / Punjab MET-2006 Ans. (a): When any population has high proportion of
Ans. (a) : World population day 11th July. It was prereproductive Individuals, moderate number of
established by the Governing Council of the United reproductive Individuals and fewer post- reproductive
Nations Development Program in 1989. Individuals. It represents young or rapidly growing
population.
• Tobacco Day is observed on 31st May.
• World Environment Day is observed on 5th June.
• World Health day is observed on 7th April.
146. Match the following? • Bell Shaped– In bell shaped age pyramid, the number
List I List II of pre-reproductive and reproductive individuals is
i. Logistic A. Intrinsic rate of almost equal post reproductive individual are
growth natural increase comparatively fewer. It represents stable or stationary
population, neither growing nor diminishing.
ii. Exponential B. Produce a large
growth number of small
sized offspring
iii. Age Pyramid C. Breed only once in
their life time
iv. Pacific D. Carrying capacity
Salmon fish (C) Urn-Shaped– In urn shaped age pyramid, the
E. Declining number of reproductive individuals is higher than no of
population pre reproductive Individuals. It represents declining or
Options: diminishing population with negative growth.
(a) (i-E), (ii-A), (iii-D) & (iv-B)
(b) (i-D), (ii-A), (iii-E) & (iv-C)
(c) (i-D), (ii-C), (iii-E) & (iv-B)
(d) (i-E), (ii-A), (iii-D) & (iv-C)
149 In the following equation of Verhulst- Pearl • A sigmoid growth curve is an S- shaped curve, that can
logistic growth, the letter ‘r’ denotes------. be used to model functions that increases gradually at
first, more rapidly in middle and slow at end.
dN K−N 
= rN   • Sigmoid growth curve is seen in stable populations
dt  K  sharing a defined geographical space.
(a) Extrinsic rate of natural increase 152. Geometric representation of age structure is a
(b) Intrinsic rate of natural increase characteristic of :-
(c) Carrying capacity (a) Ecosystem (b) Biotic community
(d) Population density (c) Population (d) Landscape
Karnataka CET-2020 / Karnataka CET-2018 AIPMT-2007
Ans. (b) : Verhulst – Pearl logistic growth equation – Ans. (c) : Geometric representation of age structure is a
characteristic of population.
dN K−N
= rN   • In most populations, individuals are of different ages.
dt  K  The proportion of individual in each age group is called
Here, as the age structure of that population.
r = The intrinsic rate of growth. Ecosystem- A geographical area where plants. animals
N = The number of organisms in a population. and weather work together to form a bubble of life.
K = The carrying capacity Biotic community - That places where group of
150. The type of population where pre-reproductive organisms live together and interact with each other.
animals occur in large numbers: 153. Biotic potential or potential natality means
(a) Declining (b) Fluctuating (a) Natural increase of population under
(c) Stable (d) Growing ideal/optimum conditions
AP EAMCET-2005 (b) potential of organism in a biome
Ans. (d): In a growing population, where number of (c) number of organisms in a biome
reproductive individuals indicates large number (d) species of maximum number in a population
increase in population. JIPMER-2014
• Declining population– A population decline Ans. (a) : Biotic potential is defined as the maximum
(sometimes under population or depopulation or number of individuals a species can produce. As with
population collapse) in humans is a reduction in a other organism, this always has been a survival strategy
human population size. against food deprivation, predation and parasitism.
• Fluctuating–population fluctuation, populations 154. Zero growth means
rarely grow smoothing up to the carrying capacity (a) Natality balance mortality
and then remain this. Instead, fluctuations in (b) Natality is more than mortality
population number, abundance, or density from one (c) Natality is less than mortality
time step to the next are the norm. (d) natality is zero
• Stable population– The term stable population JIPMER-2014
refers to a population with an unchanging (but Ans. (a) : Zero population growth refer to a population
possibly non zero) rate of growth and an unchanging that is unchanging. It is neither growing, nor declining
age composition. the growth rate is zero. This demographic balance could
occurs when the birth rate and death rate are equal.
151. The population of an insect species shows an
explosive increase in numbers during rainy 155. The growth of a population without limit at its
season followed by its disappearance at the end maximal rate and also that, rates of
of the season. What does this show ? immigration and emigration are equal, then it
is called
(a) The population of its predators increases
enormously (a) carrying capacity (b) biotic potential
(b) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect (c) positive growth (d) negative growth
AP EAMCET-2009
(c) The food plants mature and die at the end of
the rainy season Ans. (b) : Biotic potential is the inherent capacity of on
(d) Its population growth curve is of J-type organism to increase in numbers under ideal condition
AIPMT-2007 i.e. maximum reproductive capacity when environment
resources are non-limiting, conditions favor minimum
Ans. (d) : Its population growth curve is j-shaped in mortality (absence of competition, predation, parasitism
which the density increases rapidly in an exponential etc) and rates of immigration and emigration are equal.
fashion and then stops abruptly as environmental
resistance or another limiting factor becomes effective Carrying capacity – Carrying capacity is the largest
more or less suddenly. population size that an ecosystem can sustainably
support without degrading the ecosystem.
Positive growth – When the birth rate is more than the
death rate between two points of time or when people
from other countries migrate permanently to a region.
Negative growth- When the birth rate less then death
rate or people migrates to other countries.
156. Community is (b) "A" is more recent shows slight reduction in
(a) A group of independent and interacting the growth rate
population of different species (c) "B" is earlier pyramid and shows stabilized
(b) A group of independent and interacting growth rate
population of same species (d) "B" is more recent showing that population is
(c) A group of independent and interacting very young
population of same species in a specific area AIPMT-2009
(d) A group of independent and interacting Ans. (b) : A" is more recent shows slight reduction in
population of different species in a specific
the growth rate.
area 159. Number of new individuals produced in a unit
UPCPMT-2002 time, per unit population is called__________
Ans. (d) : Community is a group of independent and (a) Immigration (b) Natality
interacting population of different species in a specific (c) Emigration (d) Mortality
area. AP EAMCET-11.07.2022 Shift-II
157. When does the growth rate of population Ans. (b) : Number of new individuals produced in a
following the logistic model equal zero? The unit time, per unit population is called natality
logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN (1- N/K)
160. Identify the correct statements related to
(a) when death rate is greater than birth rate
logistic growth of population ?
(b) When N/K is exactly one
(i) Logistic growth of population show initially
(c) when N nears the carrying capacity of the a lag phase, followed by phases of acceleration
habitat and deceleration.
(d) when N/K equals zero (ii) Finally it shown an asymptote/stability.
NEET-2016 Phase-I (iii) Logistic growth in population occurs when
Ans. (b) : The logistic model assumes that the early resources are unlimited.
growth of a population (or other variable) N(t) (iv) A plot of N in relation to time (t) results in
increasesl exponentially with a growth rate constant a. sigmoid curve.
As the population N(t) approaches a limit k, the growth (a) Except (iv) all are correct
rate [dN(t)]/dt slows, producing the characteristic S- (b) Except (ii) all are correct
shaped curve.
(c) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
dN/dt = rN(1–N/K)
(d) Except (iii) all are correct
dN/dt = rN(1–1)
dN/dt = rN(0)
dN/dt = 0(0) Ans. (d): (i) Logistic growth of population shows
initially a lag phase, followed by phase of acceleration
So since the value of N/K is equal to zero, the and deceleration.
population growth rate would be equal to zero.
(ii) Finally it shows asymptote/stability.
158. A country with a high rate of population (iii) Logistic growth in population occurs when
growth took measures to reduce it. The figure resources are limited.
below shows age-sex pyramids of populations A
(iv) A plot of N in relation of time (t) result in sigmoid
and B twenty years apart. Select the correct
curve.
interpretation about them : –
dN  K − N 
(v) = rN 
dt  k 
161. Population density of terrestrial organisms is
measured in terms of individual per
(a) Meter (b) Meter2
3
(c) Meter (d) Meter4
Karnataka CET-2007
Ans. (b) : To calculate density, you divide the number
of object by the measurement of the area. The
population density of the country is the number of
people in that country divide by the area in square
kilometers or milk the country of Singapore is one of
the most densely populated countries in the word.
162. In a population of 278, if observed number of
‘MM’, ‘MN’ and ‘NN’ blood groups is 78, 138
and 62 respectively, what would be the
frequency of ‘M’?
(a) 0.532 (b) 0.499
(a) "A" is the earlier pyramid and no change has (c) 0.468 (d) 0.283
occurred in the growth rate AP EAMCET-2006
Ans. (a) : Proportion of MM blood group in the • Predation is a biological interaction where one
78 organisms, the predator, kills and eats another
population = = 0.280 organism its prey.
278
• Competition is a population interaction between two
• Proportion of MN blood group in the population closely related species that are fighting for the same
138 resources like, territory, goods, mates etc.
= = 0.496
278 165. Plants offer rewards to animals in the form of
• Proportion of NN blood group in the population pollen and nectar and the animals facilitate the
62 pollination process. This is an example of:
= = 0.223 (a) Commensalism (b) Mutualism
278 (c) Amensalism (d) Competition
2 × 0.280 + 0.496 RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur)
• Frequency of M = = 0.53
2 Ans. (b) : Mutualism is a type of symbiotic relationship
163. Match the following : where all species involved benefit from their
Set-I Set-II interactions.
(A) T.R. Malthus 1. On the tendency • In dispersive mutualism one partner receives food in
of varieties to return for he helping flower in transferring their
depart from pollen. Ex. Honeybees and the plants
original types • Honey bees travel from one flower to another in
(B) Sir Charles 2. Philosophic search of nectar from the flower which is required to
Lyell Zoologique prepare honey in return plants are benefited by the
(C) Weismann 3. On the pollination as the honey bee spread the pollen from
principles of one plant to another.
populations 166. Match List I with List II :
(D) Lamarck 4. Principles of List I List II
Geology (Interacting species) (Name of Interaction)
(E) Alfred Russel 5. Germinal A. A Leopard and I. Competition
Wallace selection a Lion in a
The correct match is forest/grassland
(a) A-3, B-2, C-5, D-4, E-1
B. A Cuckoo II. Brood
(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-5, E-1 laying egg in a parasitism
(c) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-2, E-1 Crow's nest
(d) A-3, B-5, C-4, D-1, E-2
C. Fungi and root III. Mutualism
AP EAMCET-2007 of a higher plant
Ans. (c) : in Mycorrtizae
Set - I Set - I D. A cattle egret IV. Commensalis
(A) T.R. Malthus 3. On the principles of and a Cattle in a m
populations field
(B) Sir Charles Lyell 4. Principles of Geology Choose the correct answer from the options
(C) Weismann 5. Germinal selection given below :
(D) Lamarck 2.Philosophic (a) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Zoologique (b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
F. Population Interactions (d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
164. In this type of interactions the organisms are
involved in co-evolution Ans. (b) : Carnivorous animals like Lions, Leopards
(a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism occupy the same niche but lions predate mostly larger
animals and leopards take smaller ones.
(c) Predation (d) competition
AP EAPCET-10.05.2023, Shift-II • The cuckoo bird is known to lay its eggs in the nest
of other birds, usually crows because the cuckoo bird
Ans. (a) : Mutualism is a type of interaction between does not make its own nest.
two living organism in which both are equally benefited
and no one is harmed for exp. lichen is a mutalistic • Mycorrihiza is the symbiosis association between
relationship between the fungus and algae. Algae roots of higher plants and fungi. In this association
provide the food to fungus obtain from photo synthesis. fungal hyphae are found in the roots of higher plants.
Both members are benefitted from this association,
• Commensalism is a type of interaction among two
that's why it is called symbiosis or mutualism.
organisms where one organism is benefitted whereas
others remain unaffected (neither harmed nor • The cattle egret and grazing cattle in close
benefited). association is a classic example of commensalism.

167. Match List I with List II : Ans. (b) : Mutualism is a type of association where
List-I List-II both the partners are benefitted. This is permanent and
(Inseraction) (Species A and B) obligatory association involving a physiological inter-
A. Mutualism I. +(A), O(B) dependence. eg. lichens.
B. Commensalism II. -(A), O(B) 171. Match the items in Column I with those in
Column II :
C. Amensalism III. +(A), -(B)
Column – I Column–II
D. Parasitism IV. +(A), +(B)
A. Herbivores- i Commensalism
Choose the Correct answer from the options Plants
given below :
(a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II B. Mycorrhiza- ii Mutualism
Plants
(b) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(c) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III C. Sheep-Cattle iii Predation
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II D. Orchid-Tree iv Competition
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023 Select the correct option from following :
Ans. (c) : The relationship between one species and (a) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
another within a community has evolved through their (b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
interactions, based on the requirement and the made of (c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
nutrition and shelter and also on the habits of species. (d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(i) Mutualism - (+,+)- when two species live together NEET-2020 Phase-II
in a close association that is helpful to both species the Ans. (c) :
relationship is known as symbiosis.
Herbivores-Plants Predation
Ex - lichen mycorrhiza.
Mycorrhiza-Plants Mutualism
(ii) Commensalism (+,0)- Some species live together
Sheep-Cattle Competition
so that one organism benefits by the relationship while
the other organism is neither benefitted nor harmed nor Orchid-Tree Commensalism
harmed. 172. The principle of competitive exclusion was
Ex - Some epiphytes, orchids, mosses, fern , stated by
(iii) Amensalism. (-,0)- It is an ecological interaction (a) C. Darwin (b) GF Gause
between two species. one is destroyed or inhibited and (c) Mac Arthur (d) Verhulst and Pearl
the other remains unaffected. NEET-2016 Phase-II
Ex. Penicillin Killing bacteria. Ans. (b) : Two or more species with closely similar
(iv) Parasitism (+,-)- Relationship between two species niche requirements can't exist indefinitely in the same
in which one organism is benefitted at the expense of area as soon or later they come into competition for
the other. The organism that is benefitted is called the possession of it. This is called as Gause competitive
parasite while the one that is harmed is called the host. exclusion principle, which states that an ecological
168. The interaction where one species is benefitted niche can't be simultaneously and completely occupied
and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed by established populations of more than one species.
is called as Two species can live in same habitat but not in the same
(a) amensalism (b) commensalism niche. More similar the two niches are severe the
(c) mutualism (d) predation competition is.
J&K CET-2012 / JIPMER-2019 173. Which of the following is correct for r-selected
Ans. (b) : The interaction where one species is species?
benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed (a) Large number of progeny with small size
is called as commensalism. (b) Large number of progeny with large size
169. Small fish get stuck near the bottom of a shark (c) Small number of progeny with small size
and derives its nutrition from it. This kind of (d) Small number of progeny with large size
association is called as NEET-2016 Phase-II
(a) antibiosis (b) commensalism Ans. (a) : According to modern theories of life history,
(c) Predation (d) Parasitism life and survival ship factors along with ecological
UP CPMT-2012, 2008 / VMMC-2012 concepts are associated with r-and k-selection of
Rajasthan PMT-2008 / CG PMT-2008 species.
Ans. (b) : Small fish get stuck near the bottom of a • K- selection species are those which are present in
sharks and derives it nutrition from it. This kind of stable and predictable environments with fewer
association is called as commensalism. offspring.
170. Association of animals belonging to different • r - selected species are defined as those present in
species, where both partners are benefitted, is fluctuating environments that have large number of
called small offspring.
(a) commensalism (b) mutualism • r - selection :–
(c) colony (d) sympathy → Present in unstable environments, where resources
Manipal-2006 / AIPMT-1993 are used for reproduction.
→ Large number of offspring products, with little (c) Competitive release
parental care and have a high rate of mortality. (d) Mutualism
→ The body size of offspring is typically small and NEET-2021
they have short developmental span. Ans. (b) : Inspite of interspecific competition the
→ Population size is variable and constitute pioneer competing species may co-exist by doing resources
species. partitioning.
• K Selection :– • In mutualism two organism are equally benefitted
→ Predominates is stable and predictable environments each other.
where resources are used for long-term survival. • In predation one organism (predator) eats the
→ Few offspring produced, with more parental and another one (prey).
have low mortality rate. • In competition release there occurs dramatically
→ The body size of offspring is typically larger and increase in population of a less distributed species
have long developmental span. when its superior competitor is removed.
→ Population size is stable (reaches carrying capacity) 177. While explaining interspecific interaction of
and constitute climax species. population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial
interaction, (–) sign is assigned for detrimental
interaction and (0) for neutral interaction.
Which of the following interactions can be
assigned (+) for one specifies and (–) for
another specifies involved in the interaction ?
(a) Competition (b) Predation
(c) Amensalim (d) Commensalism
NEET-2022
Ans. (b) : Predation:- Predation is the interaction
174. If '+' sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, between prey and a predators where the energy flows
'-' sign to detrimental and 'O' sign to neutral from one organism to the other organisms called prey
interaction, then the population interaction predator are denoted by (+, –)
represented by '+' '-' refers to Competition:- Competition occurs when closely related
(a) mutualism (b) amensalism species complete for the same resources that are
(c) commensalism (d) parasitism limiting. It show usually (–, –)
NEET-2016 Phase-II Amensalim:- The relationship between organism from
Ans. (d) : Parasitism is the relationship between two which one organism is negatively affected and the other
organisms in which one is benefitted, while the host is organism is unaffected is termed as Amensalism. It’s
harmed (+, –). denoted by (–, 0)
Commensalism:- This is the interaction in which one
• In mutualism, both organism are in benefitted from species benefits and the other is neither harmed non
each other (+, +). benefited.
• In amensalism, one organism is harmed while other in It is denoted as (+, 0).
neutral (–, 0).
178. Which one of the following statements cannot
• in commensalism, one organism is benefitted while be connected to Predation?
other in neutral (+, 0). (a) It is necessitated by nature to maintain the
175. Amensalism can be represented as: ecological balance
(a) Species A (+); Species B (0) (b) It helps in maintaining species diversity in a
(b) Species A (–); Species B (0) community
(c) Species A (+); Species B (+) (c) It might lead to extinction of a species
(d) Species A (–); Species B (–) (d) Both the interacting species are negatively
NEET-2021 impacted
Ans. (b) : Amensalism is an interaction between two NEET-2022
organism of different species. Ans. (d) : The meaning of predation is the killing by
• In which one species certain inhibits the growth of one living organism of another for food.
other species of secreting certain chemicals. • Predation maintain ecological balance.
• The first species is neither get benefited nor harmed. • It also helps in maintaining species diversity and
• (+) : (0) interactin is observed in commensalism. community
• (+) : (+) interactin is observed in mutualism. • Extinction of a species.
• (–) : (–) interactin is observed in competition. 179. Western Ghats have a large number of plants
and animal species that are not found
176. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, anywhere else. Which of the following term is
which mechanism the competing species might used to notify such species?
have evolved for their survival? (a) Threatened species (b) Keystone species
(a) Predation (c) Endemic species (d) Vulnerable species
(b) Resource partitioning NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
Ans. (c) : Western Ghats have a large number of plants limited resources in an ecosystem. It is an evolutionary
and animal species that are not found anywhere else. adaptation that helps various species coexist in an
The term is used to notify such species endemic species. ecological community.
The total area of the western ghats is 140000 square It helps in determining the effect of the addition or
Km. it is a part of the state of Karnataka Tamil nadu, removal of a species in a particular habitat and the
Kerala, Gujarat. The largest number of endemic plant functioning of an ecosystem.
species are found here. According to scientists this area 183. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the
is one of the biodiversity hotspots of the country. shell lining of hermit crab. The association is :
180. Two butterfly species are competing for the (a) Amensalism (b) Ectoparasitism
same nectar of a flower in a garden. To survive (c) Symboisis (d) Commensalism
and coexist together, they may avoid NEET-2013
competition in the same garden by: J&K CET-2013
(a) feeding at the same time Ans. (d) : A type of biological interaction is penicillium
(b) choosing different foraging patterns killing bacteria association of sea anemone and hermit
(c) increasing time spent on attacking each other crab is an example of commensalism. (Commensalism
(d) predating on each other is the symbiotic relationship between two organism in
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 which one benefited and another one neither benefited
Ans. (b) : If two specifies compete for the same nor harmed). The sea anemone give the shelter or
resource, they could avoid competition by choosing protection to the hermit crab and in return the hermit
defend foraging pattern. Mac Arthur showed that five crab provides the food to the sea anemone.
closely related species of warblers living on the same Ectoparasitism including lice, ticks, mites, flies are
tree were able to avoid competition and co-exist due to organism that inhabit the skin or skin surface of another
behavioral differences in their foraging activities. organism host for several days.
181. In which of the following interactions both 184. In a random mating population in equilibrium,
partners are adversely affected? which of the following brings about a change in
(a) Mutualism (b) Competition gene frequency in a non-directional manner: -
(c) Predation (d) Parasitism (a) Mutations (b) Random drift
AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015 (c) Selection (d) Migration
Ans. (b) : Competition is an interaction between AIPMT-2003
organisms or species in which both require a resource Ans. (b): In a random mating population in equilibrium
that is in limited supply. random drift brings about a change in gene frequency in
• During competition both partners are adversely a non-directional manner. Random genetic drifts refers
affected. to the chance fluctuations in gene frequency. Random
• Competition is a kind of negative interaction. genetic drifts occurs in finite populations, even with
completely random mating, and leads to changes in both
• The way organisms compete with each other
genotype and allele frequencies.
determines species distributions, population dynamics,
community structure, food web and social dominance 185. Match column I with column II and select the
hierarchies. correct option from the codes given below :
• Competitive interaction over time manifest Column I
themselves in physical and behavioral adaptation that A. Commensalism B. Parasitism
shape the evolution of species. C. Mutualism D. Amensalism
• Human activity, invasive species, climate change and Column II
environmental pressure are constant stressors on (i) One inhibited, other unaffected
ecosystem, making resources less available and less (ii) One benefitted, other unaffected
quality. (iii) Both are benefitted
182. Carnivorous animals - lions and leopards, (iv) One benefitted, other harmed
occupy the same niche but lions predate mostly (a) A– (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D– (i)
larger animals and leopards take smaller ones. (b) A– (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D– (i)
This mechanism of competition is referred to (c) A– (ii), B – (iv), C – (iii), D– (i)
as- (d) A– (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D– (iii)
(a) Competitive exclusion AIIMS-2016
(b) Character displacement Ans. (c)
(c) Altruism
Commensalism– where one species benefits while
(d) Resource partitioning other is unaffected ( +, 0).
NEET (Odisha)-2019
Example- A bird making a nest in a tree.
Ans. (d) : Carnivorous animals - lions and leopards, Parasitism – One species benefits while one is harmed
occupy the same niche but lions predate mostly larger (+, –).
animals and leopards take smaller ones. This
mechanism of competition is referred to as resource Example- Lice
partitioning. Resource Partitioning refers to the division Mutualism– Both species benefit ( +, +) Ex. Lichen.
of resources to avoid interspecific competition for Amensalism– One species harm other unaffected (–, 0).
Example- When a cattle temple on grass the grass is For example - Predatory birds sit on cattle as this bird
crushed. eats ectoparasites like leaches etc.
Competition– (–, –) Competition is an interaction Amensalism- Amensalism is an ecological interaction
between organisms for resource (Food, Water, where one species causes harm to another organism
Territory), in competition both the organism without any benefits to itself. In this interaction, one
(competitor) are harmed. species is harmed while the other is unaffected.
Predation– One species benefits while one species die • Mutualism or symbiosis is the mutually beneficial
(+, –). interaction between organisms of two different
Neutralism– Both species unaffected (0, 0). species, with non of the two capable of living
186. Match the column I and II separately.
Column-I Column-II • In commensalism, one species is benefitted without
(A) Parasitism (i) ++ the other being harmed.
(B) Commensalis (ii) + – 188. Which of the following is not an invasive
(C) Amensalism (iii) 0 + species?
(D) Mutualism (iv) 0 – (a) Parthenium hysterophorus
(a) (A) - iii, (B)- ii, (C) - iv, (D) - i (b) Neumbo (lotus)
(b) (A) - i, (B) - ii, (C) - iii, (D) - iv (c) Lantana camara
(c) (A) - ii, (B) - iii, (C) - i, (D) - iv (d) Eichhornia crassipes
(d) (A) - ii, (B) - iii, (C) - iv, (D) - i AIIMS-2013
AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I / AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-I
Ans. (b) : Invasive species are non-native organisms
Ans. (d) : Parasitism (+ –):- The interaction in which that may get incorporated into a foreign ecosystem and
only one species benefits and the interaction is harmful compete for habitat, food, etc with the native species,
to the other species is called parasitism. many a times threatening the existence of the native
• E.g., Sheep (host) and liver fluke (parasite) in fluke species.
disease in cattle. Lantana is native to tropical regions of America and
Commensalism (0,+):- The interaction where one Africa.
species is benefited and the other is unaffected is Parthenium was introduced in India as a contaminant
called commensalism. with wheat.
• E.g., barnacles growing on the back of a whale. Eichhornia was introduced for its beautiful leaves and
• They don't harm the whales or feed on the whales, flowers from South America, which has now become a
like true parasites do. weed covering the entire surface of the water body and
Amensalism (0,–):- The interaction where one species preventing the growth and development of organisms
is harmed while the other is unaffected is called below.
amensalism. Nelumbo (lotus) is not an invasive species.
• E.g., penicillium secretes penicillin which kills 189. Match the correct column
bacteria but it has no effect on penicillium itself.
Mutualism (+ +):- The interaction in which both the (I) (II) (III)
species are benefited is called mutualism. (P) Parasitism (i) –, 0 (A) Both get
• E.g., interaction between algae and fungi in lichen benefitted
and interaction between fungi and roots of the higher (Q) (ii) –, – (B) One get harmed
plant in mycorrhiza. Amensalism other has no effect
187. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (R) (iii) +, – (C) Both get harmed
(a) lichen, an association of fungus and algae is Competition
an example of mutualism (S) Mutualism (iv) +, + (D) One is harmed
(b) those epiphytes which use other plants for and second is
support only and not for water or food supply benefited
and are examples of commensalism (a) P - iii – D, Q - i – B, R - ii – C, S - iv - A
(c) sea-anemone on hermit-crab is an example of
protocooperation (b) P - ii – C, Q - i – B, R - iii – D, S - iv - A
(d) mutualism, protocooperation, commensalism (c) P - iii – D, Q - i – A, R - ii – C, S - iv – B
cannot be included under symbiosis (d) P - iii – A, Q - i – B, R - ii – D, S - iv - A
AIIMS-2008 AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-II
Ans. (d) : All three commensalism, protocooperation, Ans. (a) : Parasitism (+, –) is a relationship between
mutualism are types of symbiosis. species, where one organism (The parasite) lives on or
Mutualism - Mutualism is an association of two in another organism (the host) causing it some harm.
different species in which they both are mutually Hence, in parasitism, one is harmed and second is
benefiting each other and no one is harmed. It is a benefited.
common type of ecological interaction. • Amensalism (–, 0) is a type of biological interaction.
Proto cooperation - Proto cooperation is where two It is an association between two organisms of different
species interact with each other beneficially but a species. Where one is adversely affected and the other
relationship is not necessary. Cooperating species do stays unaffected. Hence, in amensalism, one gets
not depend upon each other for survival. harmed and other has no effect.
• Competition (–, –) is an interaction between Commensalism (+, 0 )→ The interaction, where one
organism or species in which both the organisms or species is benefited and other is unaffected is called
species are harmed. commensalism. It is represented as "+, 0".
• Mutualism (+, +) describes the ecological 192. Which one of the following is a matching pair
interaction between two or more species where each of certain organism(s) and the kind of
species benefits. association?
190. Select the correct match (a) Shark and sucker fish - commensalism
(b) Algae and fungi in lichens - mutualism
(I) (II) (III)
(c) Orchids growing on trees - parasitism
(A) + (i) – (P) Amensalism (d) Cuscuta (dodder) growing in other flowering
(B) – (ii) – (Q) Commensalism plants – epiphytism.
(C) – (iii) 0 (R) Predation AIIMS-2003
(D) + (iv) 0 (S) Competition Ans. (b) : Lichen is a symbiotic association of an algae
(a) A – iv – Q, B - iii – P, C – ii – S, D- i – R and fungi, in which algal partner provide food to the
fungal partner by photosynthesis and fungal partner
(b) A – i – Q, B - ii – P, C – iii – S, D - iv – R helps in the absorption of water and minerals. Hence
(c) A – i – Q, B - iii – P, C – ii – S, D- iv – R • Mutualism (+, +) is a type of symbiotic association
(d) A – iv – Q, B - ii – P, C – iii – S, D - i – R between two organisms in which both are benefited.
AIIMS-26.05.2019 Shift-II • Commensalism (+,0):- It is a type of symbiotic
Ans. (a) : relationship, where one organism benefits and the
(A) + (iv) 0 (Q) Commensalism other organism isn't benefited or harmed either way
(B) – (iii) 0 (P) Amensalism ex- Orchids growing on branches.
• Parasitism (+, – ):- Parasitism is a relationship
(C) – (ii) – (S) Competition between the two living species in which one
(D) + (i) – (R) Predation organism is benefitted at the expense of the other ex-
• Commensalism is a long term biological interaction Cuscuta growing on other flowering plant.
in which members of one species gain benefits while • Epiphytism:- A form of mutualism in which one
those of the other species neither benefit nor are plant lives on the surface of another , as mosses on a
harmed. It is denoted by +, 0. tree.
• Amensalism is a type of biological interaction. It is 193. A mutually beneficial association necessary for
an association between two organisms of different survival of both partners is
species where one is adversely affected and the other (a) mutualism/smbiosis
stays unaffected. Hence it is denoted by –, 0. (b) commensalism
• Competition is an interaction between organisms or (c) amensalism
species in which both the organisms or species are (d) both (a) and (b)
harmed. It is represented by –,–. AIPMT-1988
• Predation is biological interaction where one Ans. (a) : A mutually beneficial association necessary
organism, the predator, kills and eats another for survival both partners is mutualism/ symbiosis
organism, its prey. It is denoted by +, –. mutualism is defined as a interaction between
191. Match the column: individuals of different species that results in positive
A B C (beneficial) effects on peer capita reproduction and / or
(i) + + (1) commensalism survival of interaction population
(ii) + – (2) Competition 194. Competition for light, nutrients and space is
(iii) – – (3) Parasitism most severe between
(iv) + 0 (4) Mutualism (a) closely related organism growing in different
(a) (i) 1, (ii) 2, (iii) 3, (iv) 4 niches
(b) (i) 2, (ii) 3, (iii) 1, (iv) 4 (b) closely related organism growing in the same
area/niche
(c) (i) 4, (ii) 3, (iii) 2, (iv) 1
(c) distantly related organisms growing in the
(d) (i) 3, (ii) 2, (iii) 1, (iv) 4 same habitat
AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I (d) distantly related organism growing in
Ans.(c): Mutualism (+,+)→ The interaction, in which different niches
both the species are benefitted is called mutualism. It is AIPMT-1988
represented as ""+,+"". Ans. (b) : Competition for light, nutrients and space is
Parasitism (+, -)→ The interaction, in which only one most severe between closely related organism growing
species benefits and harmful to the other species is in the same area/niche. It is because the closely related
called parasitism. it is represented as" +,-". species required the same resources which are limited
Competition (-, -)→ In this, organisms of two species and they will fight each other for the same resources.
use the same limited resource and have a negative Simply it just happens only the overproduction of
impact on each other.it is represented as "-, - ". population in the same area.
195. Which one of the following pairs is correctly Ans. (c) : The interaction between cuckoo and crow is
matched ? an example of Brood parasitism. Brood parasitism in
(a) Parasitism - intraspecific relationship birds is a fascinating example of parasitism in which the
(b) Uricotelism-aquatic habitat parasitic bird lay its egg in nest of its host and lets the
(c) Excessive perspiration-xeric adptation host incubate them.
(d) Streamlined body-aquatic adaptation • The relation between the two species can be mutulistic
AIPMT-1995 beneficial to both.
Ans. (d) : Streamlined body of aquatic animal helps in 199. A high density of elephant population in an
their movement within the water body as it reduce water area can result in :-
resistance when they swim it is a type of structural (a) Predation on one another
adaptation. Streamline is defined as a shape that is (b) Mutualism
wider at the centre and narrow down towards periphery. (c) Intra specific competition
196. Study the following table and pick up the (d) Inter specific competition
correct combinations. AIPMT-2007
Interaction Species Species Ans. (c) : Intra specific competition is an interaction in
A B population where by members of the same species
I. Mutualism + + compete for limited resources. A high density of elephant
II. Competition – + population in an area can result in intra specific
competition. The high density of elephants in an area will
III. Predation + – immediately put a stress on the available food. Male
IV. Parasitism – – elephants in particular would be marking out territories and
V. Commensalism 0 + pushing other males out in a fight for food and mates. It is
VI. Amensalism – 0 the result of intra specific competition. This leads to a
reduction in fitness for both individuals.
Options:
(a) II, IV, III, V (b) I, II, III, V 200. Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became
(c) II, III, IV, VI (d) I, III, V, VI extinct within a decade after goats were
TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I introduced. It is an example of
(a) Competition among unrelated species
Ans. (d) :
(b) Competitive exclusion
Interaction Species A Species B
(c) Competitive release
1. Mutualism + +
(d) Coexistence better than exclusion
2. Predation + –
3. Commensalism 0 + Ans. (b) : Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands
4. Amensalism – 0 became extinct within a decade after goats were
5. Competition – – introduced on the island, apparently due to the greater
6. Parasitism + – browsing efficiency of the goats. The competitive
exclusion principle says that two species can't coexist if
197. Bacteria and fungi developing on dead
they occupy exactly the same niche (competing for
decaying organisms are——————
identical resources) two species whose niches overlap
(a) Symbionts
may evolve by natural selection to have more distinct
(b) Saprophytes niches, resulting in resource partitioning.
(c) Parasites
201. A mutual beneficial close physical relationship
(d) Commensals
is shown by
(a) Utricularia, Dionaea
Ans. (b) : The fungi and the bacteria feed on the dead (b) Cladonia, Mycorrhiza
and decaying matter and are known as saprophytes they
(c) Rafflesia and fig
are also known as decomposers.
Saprophytes are fungi and several types of bacteria. An (d) Akash bel and Zizyphus
autotrophy is an organism that uses light water carbon UP CPMT-2014
dioxide or other substances to create its own food. Ans.(b): Clasdonia is lichen which is a natural
198. The interaction between "Cuckoo and Crow" relationship between a phycobiont and mutualism (algae
is an example for part and fungal part).
(a) Competition (b) Predation Mycorrhiza is also a example of mutualism between
(c) Brood parasitism (d) Mutualism fungal hyphae and root of higher plants (pinas) a
Karnataka CET-2018 gymnosperm.
202. An interaction favourable to both population, B Commensalism ii Both the species
but obligatory to either, is are benefitted
(a) proto-cooperation
C Parasitism iii One species is
(b) mutualism benefitted and
(c) commensalism the other species
(d) parasite is neither
UP CPMT-2011 benefitted nor
Ans. (a): Proto-cooperation is the relationship harmed
between two species which is beneficial and favourable D Amensalism iv One species is
to both but not obligatory to both. benefitted and
Mutualism- It is the relationship between two or more the other species
individuals in which all are benefitted by each other. is harmed
Parasite- The association between two organisms in
which one organism benefitted and another organism is The correct match is
harmed. (A) (B) (C) (D)
203. All the following interactions are mutualism, (a) iii iv i ii
except (b) ii i iv iii
(a) association of algae and fungi in lichens (c) i ii iii iv
(b) association of fungi and roots of higher plants (d) iv iii ii i
in mycorrhiza TS EAMCET-09.05.2019 Shift-I
(c) plant and animal relation for pollination Ans. (b) :
(d) association of cattle egret and grazing cattle
Set –I Set - II
Karnataka CET-2016
(A) Mutualism ii. Both the species are
Ans. (d) : Lichen, mycorrhizae and plant-animal
benefitted
relationship are example of mutualism. Cattle egrets
follow grazing cows and eat the flies and bugs that tend (B) Commensalism i. One species is benefitted
to bother the cattle. The movement of foraging livestock and the other species is
also dislodges various insects from the field witch cattle neither benefitted nor
egrets feed on. harmed.
204. Connel's field experiment on the rocky sea (C) Parasitism iv. One species is benefitted
coast of Scotland, where larger Barnacle and the other species is
balanus dominates the intertidal area and harmed.
removes the smaller Barnacle chathamalus.
(D) Amensalism iii. One species is harmed
This happened due to
and the other species is
(a) Predation
unaffected.
(b) Competition
(c) Parasitism 206. From the given options, identify the correct
(d) Mutualism combination of population interactions that
Karnataka CET-2016 correspond to the symbols given here
++ –– +O
Ans. (b) : Connel's field experiment on the rocky sea
coast of Scotland, where larger Barnacle balanus (a) Predation Competition Commensalism
dominates the intertidal area and removes the smaller (b) Mutualism Parasitism Amensalism
Barnacle chathamalus. This happened due to (c) Parasitism Competition Mutualism
competition. In general, herbivores and plants appear to (d) Mutualism Competition Commensalism
be more adversely affected by competition than Karnataka CET-2019
carnivores.
Ans. (d) : In mutualism, both the host and the predator
will get benefitted. Competition is not a relationship but
Set-I Set-II fights for something therefore competition is best
A Mutualism i One species is defined as a process in which fitness of one species is
harmed and the significantly lower in the presence of another species. In
"other species is commensalism the one get benefitted by other but do
unaffected not harm the other.
18. ECOSYSTEM
A. Ecosystem and its structure List – I List – II
A. Mutualism I. Both the species
1. Statement-I: Habitat is a place in which
lose
organism lives.
B. Commensalism II. One species is
Statement-II: The functional role of an harmed, the other
organism in an ecosystem is called niche. is unaffected
The correct option among the following is C. Amensalism III. One species is
(a) Both statements I & II are true benefitted the
(b) Both statements I & II are false other is neither
benefited nor
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false harmed
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true. D. Competition IV. Both species are
TS EAMCET 10.05.2023 Shift-I benefitted
Ans. (a) : A habitat is specific environment or place V. One is benefitted
where organisms or a community of organisms and the other is
naturally lives and thrives. harmed
The functional role of an organism in an ecosystem is (a) A – IV, B – V, C – II, D - I
called niche. Niche encompasses its interactions with (b) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D - I
other species, its habitat and its specific role in the (c) A – III, B – IV, C – V, D - II
ecosystem. (d) A – I, B – II, C – III, D - IV
2. The temperature of water in epilimnion of a AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
thermally stratified lake in summer in Ans. (b) : (A) Mutualism is an ecological interaction
temperate regions is between two different species is which both species
(a) 21ºC - 25ºC (b) 4ºC - 5 ºC benefit from their association.
(c) 4ºC - 21ºC (d) 35ºC - 45ºC (B) Commensalism is a type of ecological relationship
between two species in which one benefits while the
other is neither benefited nor harmed.
Ans. (a) : The temperature of water in the epilimnion, (C) In the case of amensalism, one organism is
which is the upper layer of a stratified lake or reservoir negatively affected which the other is unaffected.
can vary depending on factors such as the time of year, (D) Competition refers to interaction between two or
local climate and the specific body of water. more organisms or species in which one is benefitted
During the summer the epilimnion tends to be the and the other is harmed.
warmest layer of the lake and temperature can range 6. Unit of land containing different ecosystems
from 21º –25ºC. surrounded by natural boundaries is called
3. In a lake ecosystem, Dytiscus comes under (a) Biome (b) Landscape
(a) Nekton (b) Neuston (c) Ecosphere (d) Ecosystem
(c) Periphyton (d) Plankton AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-I
AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-II Ans. (b) : A landscape refers to an area of land that
Ans. (a) : Dytiscus belongs to the nekton category in a encompasses a heterogeneous mix of different
lake ecosystem. Dytiscus actively swim through the ecosystems land forms and habitats.
water in search of prey and can move against the flow. A landscape surrounded by natural boundaries like rivers,
They are carnivores and often feed on other aquatic mountains, forests or other distinct physical features.
organisms. 7. Choose the correct choices that have a
compound impact on ecosystem goods and
4. Limiting nutrient for both natural and
services.
agricultural ecosystems is
A. Participation in developing community
(a) Nitrogen (b) Carbon garden
(c) Phosphorus (d) Oxygen B. Use of artificial fertilizers
AP EAPCET-11.05.2023, Shift-II C. Natural pest control
Ans. (a) : Nitrogen is an essential nutrient for both D. Increase in consumption
natural and agricultural ecosystems. (a) B, D (b) A, C
In agriculture, farmers often apply nitrogen-containing (c) A, D (d) B, C
fertilizers to increase crop yields. AP EAPCET-23.05.2023, Shift-I
Ecosystem 820 YCT
Ans. (b) : Participation in developing community (a) Stratification (b) Zonation
garden and use of artificial fertilizers have a compound (c) Pyramid (d) Divergence
impact on ecosystem goods and services. AIPMT-2015
The compound impact can result from various stressors Ans. (a) : Vertical distribution of different species
such as pollution, habitat destruction, climate change occupying different levels in a biotic community is
which can interact in ways that affect the overall health known as stratification. For example trees occupy top
and functioning of ecosystem. vertical strata or layer of a forest, shrubs the second and
8. In 'rivet popper hypothesis', Paul Ehrlich herbs and grasses occupy the bottom layers.
compared the rivets in an airplane to 12. Number of wild life is continuously decreasing.
(a) Ecosystem What is the main reason of this : -
(b) General within a family (a) Predation
(c) Species within a genus (b) Cutting down of forest
(d) Genetic diversity (c) Destruction of habitat
RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023 (Manipur) (d) Hunting
AIPMT-2002
Ans. (c) : The rivet popper hypothesis proposed by Paul
Ehrlich compares an ecosystem to an aeroplane, the Ans. (c) : The most important among them is
species to the rivets and the keystone species to the wing deforestation destruction of their natural habitat because
rivets and he proposed that if the rivets are taken out it well effect the species (Flora & Fauna) of the
gradually then ultimately the plane would also crash too. complete area and not a few organisms. The natural
habitat destroyed by men for his settlement, grazing
9. Given below are two statements : ground, agriculture, industries dam, building etc.
Statement I: Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion
Principle' states that two closely related species
• The wildlife mainly exist in forest.
competing for the same resources cannot co 13. Eutrophication is caused due to
exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one (a) accumulation of minerals
will be eliminated eventually. (b) effect of UV-C
Statement II: In general, carnivores are more (c) accumulation of metals only
adversely affected by competition than (d) accumulation of zooplankton
herbivores. JIPMER-2019
In the light of the above statements, choose the Ans. (a) : Eutrophication is caused due to accumulation
correct answer from the options given below : of minerals.
(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Eutrophication is the process by which an entire body of
true. water or parts of it, becomes progressively enriched
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. with minerals and nutrients particularly nitrogen and
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. phosphorus. It has also been defined as nutrient increase
(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false. in phytoplankton productivity.
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023 14. What is a keystone species?
(a) a species which makes up only a small
Ans. (d) : The principal of competitive exclusion was
proportional of the total biomass of a
proposed by G.F gause which states that two species community, yet has a huge impact on the
competing for the same resources cannot co-exist this community's organization and survival
law known as Gausses' Law.
(b) a common species that has plenty of biomass,
Herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely yet has a fairly low impact on the
affected by competition than carnivores because community's organization
herbivores do not have alternative resources on which (c) a rare species that has minimal impact on the
they can survive but carnivores can survive on other biomass and on other species in the community
alternate resources. (d) a dominant species that constitutes a large
10. The purpose of crop rotation is proportional of the biomass and which affects
(a) To increase the fertility of soil many other species.
(b) To decrease the fertility of soil AIIMS-2008
(c) To prevent soil erosion Ans. (a) : A keystone species is an organism that helps
(d) To prevent water erosion define an entire ecosystem.
Uttarakhand PMT-2008 / BHU PMT-2004 • Keystone species is a species, which has a significant and
UP CPMT-2003 disproportionately large influence on the community
Ans. (a) : The purpose of crop rotation is to increases structure and characteristics. It has often considerably low
the fertility of soil. A Growing of different type crop in abundance and biomass as compared to dominant species.
Removal or decrease in number of keystone species causes
same area in during different seasons. Than it helps in serious disruption in structure and function of community.
reducing soil erosion and increases soil fertility and In intertidal regions starfish leads to dominance of mussel
crop yield. population that excludes algae in tropical rain forests figs
11. Vertical distribution of different species function as keystone species as they provide fruit to a
occupying different levels in a biotic number of animals like birds, monkeys, bats etc. during
community is known as: this periods of food scarcity.
Ecosystem 821 YCT
15. The Great Barrier Reef along the east coast of 18. Which among the following is not a functional
Australia can be categorised as unit of the ecosystem?
(a) Population (b) Community (a) Decomposition (b) Nutrient cycling
(c) Ecosystem (d) Biome. (c) Energy flow (d) Pollution
AIIMS-2004 Karnataka CET-2018
Ans. (c) : The great Barrier reef (GBR) is a diverse Ans. (d) : Pollution is not a Functional unit of the
ecosystem extending from more than 2300 km along ecosystem. The ecosystem is the Functional unit of the
Australia's north-east coast. An ecosystem is a whole environment system i.e. ecology. The abiotic
biotic group in a given area plus its abiotic environment. components provide the matrix for the synthesis of
The great barrier reef is the world's largest coral reef organic components.
system composed of over 2,900 individual reefs and 19. The species, though insignificant in number,
900 islands stretching for over 2,300 kilometres over an determine the existence of many other species
area of approximately 3,44,400 square kilometres. in a given ecosystem. Such species is known as .
(a) Sacred species (b) Endemic species
(c) Keystone species (d) Extinct species
Karnataka CET-2010
Ans. (c) : Keystone species hold together the complex
web of relationship in an ecosystem. They can be
animals, plants or microorganisms. Example of
keystone species includes starfish, Sea otters, wolves
elephants, tiger, lion etc.
20. Benthic organisms are found in
(a) surface of marine water
(b) middle of water in sea
(c) bottom of sea
(d) on ground
JIPMER-2014
Ans. (c) : Benthos or benthic organisms live on the
ocean floor, either on the substrate (epifauna and
epiflora) or inside it buried or burrowing in the
sediment (infauna). Benthic organisms may be sessile,
attached to a firm surface such as rocks and manmade
structures or mobile moving freely on or in the bottom
sediment.
16. Amazon Rain Forest is known as——————

(a) Lungs of Forest (b) Lungs of our Planet
(c) Lungs of Plants (d) Lungs of Mars
Ans. (b) : Amazon rain forest is known as the lungs of
the planet earth because they are responsible for the
production of about 20% of the earth's oxygen. They
remove a large amount of carbon dioxide from the air
and give out oxygen by process of photosynthesis.
The Amazon rainforests is a forest in tropical region.
The tropical Amazonian rainforest in south America 21. Overlapping region between two ecosystems is
has a greatest biodiversity on earth. called
(a) biome (b) ecotone
17. Who proposed that ecosystem is the symbol of (c) niche (d) photic zone
structure and function of nature?
JIPMER-2014
(a) Tansley (b) Odum
Rajasthan PMT-2009
(c) Reiter (d) Gardner
AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-I Ans. (b) : The overlapping zone or transition zone between
two or different ecosystem is called ecotone. Ecotone is a
UPCPMT-2002
zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystem
Ans. (a) : British botanist A.G. Tansley first coined the e.g. The mangrove forest they represent an ecotone between
term ecosystem in 1935. The functional unit of the marine and terrestrial ecosystem.
biosphere is known as the ecosystem.
An ecosystem is a structural and functional unit of
ecology where the living organisms interact with each
other.
Ecosystem 822 YCT
22. Which of the following supports a dense Ans. (b) : The organisms that belong to the benthos of
population of plankton and littoral vegetation? lake ecosystem is chironomid larvae and red annelids.
(a) Oligotrophic (b) Eutrophic The lake ecosystem is made up of biotic and abiotic
(c) Lithotrophic (d) Agroecotrophic interactions. While the biotic system includes plants,
animals and microorganisms the abiotic system includes
JIPMER-2014 the non-living factors. Further, the lake ecosystem has
Ans. (b) : Eutrophication means nutrient enrichment. the three prominent zones the pelagic or open water
The main factor that cause eutrophication is the release zone, the benthic zone made up of bottom and shore
of large amount of phosphate and nitrate into water regions and the profundal the deep bottom regions not
body. The enrichment of minerals allow large number exposed to light.
of algae, cyanobacteria & aerobic bacteria to grow.
23. Stability of ecosystem depends upon
(a) primary productivity
(b) interchange between producers and
consumers
(c) number of producers
(d) number of consumers
JIPMER-2014
Ans. (b) : The stability of ecosystem depends upon
interchange between producers and consumers.
26. In a comparative analogy between the

aeroplane and ecosystem the Rivet Popper
hypothesis used by Stanford ecologist Paul
Ehrlich's identify the correct matching?
Column I Column II
i) Rivet A) Ecosystem
ii) Aeroplane B) Species
24. Assertion (A) : Landscape is the unit of land
containing different ecosystems surrounded by iii) Popping of a rivet C) Key species
natural boundaries iv) Rivets on the D) Proper functioning
Reason (R) : Landscape is the level of wings of eco system
organization which is higher than ecosystem v) Flight safety E) A species to
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct become extinct
explanation of A (a) (i – B), (ii–A),(iii–E),(iv–C),(v–D)
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the (b) (i–B), (ii–A), (iii–C) , (iv–E) (v–D)
correct explanation of A (c) (i–B), (ii–E),(iii–E) ,(iv–C), (v–A)
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) (i–B), (ii–D),(iii–C), (iv–E), (v–A)
(d) A is wrong but R is correct AP EAMCET-06.09.2021 Shift-I
AP EAMCET-06.09.2021 Shift-I Ans. (a): Rivet popper hypothesis was proposed by
Ans. (a): Landscape is the unit of land containing Paul Ehrlich. The hypothesis suggests the importance of
different ecosystem surrounded by natural boundaries species richness in the maintenance of the ecosystem.
Landscape is the level of organization which is higher The rivets of an aeroplane were compared with species
in an ecosystem. According to this hypothesis in an
than ecosystem.
airplane parts are joined together using thousands of
25. Identify the organisms that belong to the rivets similarly in the ecosystem all are joined together
benthos of lake ecosystem. by thousands of species.
(a) Gerris and beetles i) Rivets – species
(b) Chironomid larvae and red annelids ii) Aeroplane – Ecosystem
(c) Daphnia and notonecta iii) Popping of a rivet – A species to become extinct
(d) Ranatra and copepods iv) Rivets on the wings – Key species
AP EAMCET-2013 v) Flight safety – proper functioning of ecosystem.
Ecosystem 823 YCT
27. Statement I : Amazon rain forest is called the 30. Which is the reason for highest biomass in
lungs of our planet aquatic ecosystem?
Statement II : The number of species per unit (a) Nano plankton, blue green algae, green algae
area is called species richness (b) Sea grass and slime molds
(a) Both statements I and statement II are true (c) Benthic and brown algae
(b) Both statements I and statement II are false (d) Diatoms
(c) Statement I is true, but statement II is false AIPMT-2000
(d) Statement I is false. But statement II is true Ans. (c) : The reason for highest biomass in aquatic
TS EAMCET-10.08.2021 Shift-I ecosystem is benthic and brown algae. The benthic zone
Ans. (a): Amazon rain forest cover 2.1 million square consists of substrates below water, where many
miles, It is called as "lungs of planet earth" because invertebrates live. Classes of organisms found in marine
forest produce 20% oxygen for our earth or planet ecosystems include brown algae, dinoflagellates, corals,
during photosynthesis. cephalopods, echinoderms and sharks. Fishes caught in
marine ecosystems are the biggest source of commercial
Species richness is the count of species in an area. Both foods obtained from wild populations.
statements I and statement II are true
31. Identify the possible link "A" in the following
food chain:
Plant → Insect → Frog → "A" → Eagle
(a) Cobra (b) Parrot
(c) Rabbit (d) Wolf
Ans. (a) : The given sequence from
Plant → Insect → frog → "Cobra" → Eagle
28. Terracing is done in
So before eagle there is cobra which is like a top
(a) Desert areas (b) Hilly areas consumer.
(c) Dry areas (d) Plain areas
UPCPMT-2002
Ans. (b) : Terrace farming is basically done in hilly or
mountain areas because hilly areas are move liable to
soil erosion and overflow of water. It has been made on
steep slopes so that plane surfaces are used to grow
crops. It is mostly practiced in hilly regions, such as
Himachal Pradesh, Utterakhand and Northeastern states.
29. Aquatic photodiffraction is

(a) Euphotic, disphotic and aphotic
32. Which one of the following animals may
(b) Aphotic, euphotic and disphotic occupy more than one trophic levels in the
(c) Euphotic, aphotic and disphotic same ecosystem at the same time
(d) None of the above (a) Frog (b) Sparrow
UPCPMT-2002 (c) Lion (d) Goat
Ans. (a): The aquatic photodiffraction is Euphotic, AIPMT (Mains)-2011
disphotic and aphotic zone. The euphotic and disphotic Ans. (b) : Sparrow is animal occupy more than one
zones together make up the photic zone. Most of the trophic level. Sparrow being omnivorous can be a
ocean's biomass lives in the photic zone. However most primary consumer if it feeds on seeds, fruits and peas or
of the ocean's water lies beneath the photic zone-in the secondary consumer if it feeds on insects and worms.
region called the aphotic zone. The aphotic zone begins
where less than one percent of sunlight reaches. 33. Which one of the following is a primary
consumer in maize field ecosystem?
(a) Lion (b) Grasshopper
(c) Wolf (d) Phytoplankton
Ans. (b) : In food Chain on land grasshopper is a
herbivore (primary-consumer) while wolf and lion are
carnivores.
• Primary consumers are herbivorous organisms that
feed on producers. Carnivores are termed secondary.
tertiary etc. Consumers depending upon their position
in food Chain.
• Phytoplankton are producers in aquatic food chains.
Ecosystem 824 YCT
34. Biotic and abiotic components form 37. Choose the correct statements.
(a) Community (b) Society (A) The total annual account of wet organic
(c) Population (d) Species matter of the forest can be estimated with
AIPMT-1999 the annual net productivity amount of
standing forest.
Ans. (a) : The two main factors that forms the
(B) Ecosystems also exert direct physical
environments are biotic and abiotic component. influence that help to moderate regional
• All living beings in an ecosystem are biotic factors and local weather.
and the abiotic beings factors are non living (C) Decline in pollinator activity could mean
elements, such as temperature, salinity, sunlight, pH, rising cost of pollination dependent fruits
humidity, etc. or the chemical agents, which are and vegetables.
present in the air, water and soil (different mineral (D) Constanza and his colleagues have tried to
nutrients and gases). put price tag on nature's life support services.
35. World Summit on Sustainable Development Options:
(2002) was held in: (a) A, B, C (b) B, C, D
(a) Argentina (b) South Africa (c) A, C, D (d) A, B, D
(c) Brazil (d) Sweden TS EAMCET-09.08.2021 Shift-I
AIPMT-2008 Ans. (b) : Ecosystems also exert direct physical influence
Ans. (b) : The world summit on sustainable that help to moderate regional and local weather.
development (WSSD) was held in Johannesburg, • Decline in pollinator activity could mean rising cost
South Africa, from 26 August to 4 September 2002. of pollination dependent fruits and vegetables.
• Robert Constanza and his colleagues have tried to put
price tag on nature’s life support services.
All the above statements are true while the total annual
account of wet organic matter of the forest can be
estimated with the annual net productivity amount of
standing forest. Statement (A) is wrong.
B. Productivity
38. In a population, when the growth rate reached
to its maximum it is called
(a) carrying capacity (b) biotic potential
36. Match the following and select the correct
(c) positive interactions (d) negative growth
option-
JCECE-2015 / AIPMT-2002
(A) Earthworm (i) Pioneer Ans. (b) : In a population, when the growth rate reached
species to its maximum it is called biotic potential. The biotic
(B) Succession (ii) Detritivore potential is determined by the quantity of offspring
(C) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality produced and the frequency with which they reproduce.
(D) Population (iv) Pollination 39. Which of the following is expected to have the
growth highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a ecosystem?
(a) Secondary Production (SP)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(b) Tertiary Production (TP)
(a) (i) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) Gross Production (GP)
(b) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (d) Net Production (NP)
(c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) CMC Ludhiana-2009 / AFMC-2008 / AIPMT-2004
(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) Ans. (c) : Gross primary productivity is the amount
AIPMT-2014 carbon fixed during photosynthesis by all producer in
Ans. (d) : Earthworm is a detrivore Detrivores are the ecosystem.
heterotrophs that obtain nutrients by consuming detritus • Gross primary productivity will have highest value in
or decomposing plant and animal parts as well as a grassland ecosystem as the producers i.e. grass will be
faeces. in abundance and very little expenditure is there in
• In succession, pioneer species like lichen, algae and terms of respiration and other metabolic requirements.
fungi, as well as other abiotic factors like wind and 40. The amount of biomass or organic matter
water start to 'normalize' the habitat. produced per unit area over a time period by
plants during photosynthesis is called:
• Pollination is a type of ecosystem service which (a) Secondary production
enhances the service provided by insects/birds (b) Primary production
through behavioral interaction. (c) Gross primary production
• Natality is the crude birth rate or specific birth rate (d) Net primary production
and is the greatest influence on a population's NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 /
increase. TS EAMCET-09.05.2019 Shift-I
Ecosystem 825 YCT
Ans. (b) : The amount of biomass or organic matter Ans. (c) : Each tropic level has a certain mass of living
produced per unit area over a time period by plants material at a particular time called as the standing crop, the
during photosynthesis is called Primary Production. standing crop is measured as the mass of living organism
Biomass is renewable organic material that comes from (biomass) or the number in a unit area, the biomass of a
plants and animals. Biomass is also called biogas or species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight.
biofuel. Net Primary Productivity is, gross primary
41. Match List - I with List - II: productivity minus the rate of energy loss during the
metabolism and maintenance.
List-I List-II
Gross Primary Productivity is the rate at which solar
A. Carbon dissolved i. 55 billion tons energy is captured in sugar molecules during
in oceans photosynthesis.
B. Annual fixation of ii. 71%/71% Standing state is the total quantity of inorganic nutrients
carbon through in an ecosystem is represented as standing state.
photosynthesis 44. In a growing population of a country
C. PAR captured by iii. 4 × 103 kg (a) pre-reproductive individuals are more than
plants the reproductive individuals.
D. Productivity of iv. 2 to 10% (b) reproductive individuals are less than the
oceans post-reproductive individuals.
Choose the correct answer from the options (c) pre-reproductive individuals are less than the
given below: reproductive individuals.
A. B. C. D. (d) reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) are equal in number.
(b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) NEET-2018
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Ans. (a) : When ever the pre-reproductive individuals
(d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) or the younger populattion size is larger than the
NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 reproductive group, the population will be an increasing
population.
Ans. (c) : List-I List-II
A. Carbon dissolved in oceans - 71%/71%
B. Annual fixation of carbon through photosynthesis -
4 × 103 kg
C. PAR captured by plants - 2 to 10%
D. Productivity of oceans - 55 billion tons
42. In an ecosystem the rate of production of
organic matter during photosynthesis is termed
as:
Declining
(a) Gross primary productivity
(b) Secondary productivity 45. Secondary productivity is Rate of formation of
(c) Net productivity new organic matter by:
(d) Net primary productivity (a) Decomposer (b) Producer
(c) Parasite (d) Consumer
NEET-2020 Phase-I
AIPMT-2015
NEET-2013
Ans. (a) : Gross primary productivity or GPP is rate at
which solar energy is captured in sugar molecules Ans. (d) : Secondary productivity is defined as the rate
of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
during photosynthesis (energy captured per unit area per
Secondary productivity is the rate at which the
unit time) produces such as plants use some of this
consumers convert the chemical energy of their food
energy for metabolism/cellular respiration and some for into their biomass.
growth (building tissue).
It is the heterotrophic equivalent of net primary
• The rate at which food energy is assimilated at the production by autotrophs.
trophic level of consumers is called secondary
productivity.
• Net Primary Productivity to define the organic
matter that is consumed by primary consumers.
43. The mass of living material at a trophic level at
a particular time is called :
(a) Standing state
(b) Net primary productivity
(c) Standing crop
(d) Gross primary productivity
AIPMT-2015
Ecosystem 826 YCT
46. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass NPP = GPP – R
(a) Forest ecosystem (b) Grassland ecosystem The biomass available for consumption by the
(c) Pond ecosystem (d) Lake ecosystem herbivores and the decomposers is called Net primary
NEET-2017 productivity.
Ans. (a) : The ecosystem has the maximum biomass is Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of
forest ecosystem. The forest ecosystem has the largest organic matter by the consumers.
total biomass, which represents about 70% of whole Standing crop represents the mass of living material
terrestrial ecosystem. (biomass) at a particular time.
47. The rate of formation of new organic matter by Gross productivity is the rate of production of biomass
rabbit in a grassland, is called by green plants per unit time per unit area. It is the total
(a) Net primary productivity amount of productivity.
(b) Gross primary productivity 50. Which one of the following ecosystem has the
(c) Net productivity highest annual net primary productivity?
(d) Secondary productivity (a) Tropical deciduous forest
AIPMT (Mains)-2012 (b) Temperature evergreen forest
Ans. (d) : Productivity is the rate at which energy is (c) Desert
added to the bodies of organism in the form of biomass. (d) Tropical rain forest
• Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of Karnataka CET-2019
formation of new organic matter by consumers. Since Ans. (d) : The productivity is found high in the tropical
rabbit is a consumer the rate of formation of new rain-forest's in those areas where favorable conditions
organic matter by rabbit is secondary productivity. like optimum light intensity, rainfall etc are present. It is
48. The energy which is present in the biomass of productive throughout the year and has an annual net
plant is known as_______. primary productivity of 9000 kcal per square meter per
(a) Gross primary productivity year.
(b) Net productivity 51. Which one of the following is not a functional
(c) Secondary productivity unit of an ecosystem:
(d) Net primary productivity (a) Productivity (b) Stratification
GUJCET-2017 (c) Energy flow (d) Decomposition
Ans. (d) : Net primary productivity is the rate of storage AIPMT (Screening)-2012
of organic matter in plant tissues in excess of Ans. (b): Stratification is formation of different layers
respiratory utilization by plants. NPP is equal to the rate of strata. It is a functional unit of forests. It is in
of organic matter produced photosynthesis minus the different communities and is different for different
rate of respiration losses. types of habitat. Four important functional unit aspects
Hence, the energy present in the biomass of the plants is of the ecosystem:-
known as net primary productivity. (i) Productivity (ii) Decomposition
NPP = GPP – Respiratory loss (iii) Energy flow (iv) Nutrient cycling
So, the correct answer is (d).
• Gross Primary Productivity → (GPP) is the total rate C. Decomposition and Flow of
of photosynthesis including the organic matter used up Energy
in respiration.
52. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the
• Net Productivity → (NP) is the rate of storage of flow of energy between various components of
organic matter used up in respiration. the food chain.
• Secondary Productivity → (SP) Secondary (a) Each trophic level loses some energy as heat
to the environment.
productivity is the rate of energy storage at consumer's
(b) The amount of energy available at each
level.
trophic level is 10% of previous trophic level.
49. The biomass available for consumption by the (c) Energy flow is unidirectional.
herbivores and the decomposers is called –
(d) Green plants capture about 10% of the solar
(a) Net primary productivity energy that falls on leaves.
(b) Secondary productivity
(c) Standing crop
(d) Gross primary productivity Ans. (d) : The flow of energy in a food chain is
unidirectional, green plants capture about 100% of the
AIPMT (Screening)-2010, 2007
solar energy that falls on leaves.
Ans. (a) : Net primary productivity is the difference Each trophic level losses some energy as heat to the
between the gross primary productivity and the loss due environment.
to respiration. It represents stored biomass which is
transferred from one trophic level to another trophic The amount of energy available at each trophic level is
level or 10% of previous trpohic level.
Ecosystem 827 YCT
53. Match Column-I with Column-II. Select the 55. In the equation GPP − R = NPP
option with correct combination.
GPP is Gross Primary Productivity
Column-I Column-II NPP is Net Primary Productivity
R here is ________.
(a) Reproductive allocation
1. Standing state p. Mass of living (b) Photosynthetically active radiation
material at a given
(c) Respiratory quotient
time.
(d) Respiratory loss
2. Pioneer q. Amount of nutrients NEET (UG) 07.05.2023 / NEET-2021
species in the soil at a given
Ans. (d) : In the ecosystem the energy of sun helps the
time. plants to produces their own food through the process of
3. Detritivores r. Species that invade photosynthesis. During this process, the plants inorganic
a bare area. material to organic compound.
4. Standing crops s. Breakdown detritus The total energy produce by plant is called (GPP) -
into smaller Gross primary productivity.
particles. The remaining energy after use of energy as respiration
(a) 1-p, 2-s, 3-r, 4-q (b) 1-q, 2-r, 3-p, 4-s energy is known as net primary productivity (NPP).
(c) 1-p, 2-r, 3-s, 4-q (d) 1-q, 2-r, 3-s, 4-p • The amount of energy and biomass in the producers of
Karnataka CET-20.05.2023 food chain is 100% at each successive levels.
The organisms at each level use energy for respiration
Ans. (d) : this is called respiration loss.
1. Standing state–
Amount of nutrients in the soil at a given time. NPP = GPP − R
2. Pioneer species- 56. Increase in toxic concentration from one
They are species that invade bare area. They improve trophic level to another trophic level is called:
soil conditions and create habitats for other species. (a) ecological succession (b) biomagnification
3. Dentritivores- (c) bio indicator (d) cytological effect
These organisms feed on dead plant and animals. They Haryana PMT-2005 / JIPMER-2005
break down detritus into smaller particles and recycling BHU PMT-2003
nutrients back into the environment. Ans. (b) : Increase in toxic concentration from the one
4. Standing crops- trophic level to another trophic level is called
These crops refer to the total biomass of living biomagnifications. It is also known as bio-amplification.
organisms in a particular ecosystem or area at a specific This occur when a certain chemical or toxins enter into
point in time. the food chain through the environment. After that this
54. Identify the correct statements: toxin substances goes from one trophic level to another
and increases in concentration. At the end it results in
A. Detrivores perform fragmentation. severe heath problem.
B. The humus is further degraded by some
microbes during mineralization. 57. Fungi in a forest ecosystem is
(a) producer (b) decomposer
C. Water soluble inorganic nutruients go
down into the soil and get precipitated by a (c) top consumer (d) autotroph
DUMET-2005 / UP CPMT-2003
process called leaching.
D. The detritus food chain begins with living Ans. (b) : Fungi in a forest ecosystem are decomposers.
organisms. They feed on decaying organic matter and return
nutrients to the soil for plants to use. Fungi are the only
E. Earthworms break down detritus into decomposers that can break down wood and the
smaller particles by a process called cellulose in plant cell walls, so they are the primary
catabolism. decomposers in forests.
58. Energy enters in a food chain through
given below : (a) producers
(a) D, E, A only (b) A, B, C only (b) primary consumers
(c) B, C, D only (d) C, D, E only (c) secondary consumers
NEET (UG) 07.05.2023 (d) tertiary consumers
Ans. (b) : The process of decomposition is the AP EAMCET-24.09.2020 Shift-II / Punjab MET-2009
breakdown of complex organic materials present in CMC Vellore-2009 / Rajasthan PMT-2009
dead remains of plants and animals into simple UP CPMT-2003, 2001 / DUMET-2005,2001
inorganic compounds. It is a major function of every Ans. (a) : Energy enters in a food chain through
ecosystem. producers. Producers are the photosynthetic organisms
• The humus is further degraded by some microbes and which harnesses energy from sun and atmosphere to
release of inorganic nutrients occur by the process convert it into organic energy which is then consumed
known as mineralization. by the primary, secondary and tertiary organism.
Ecosystem 828 YCT
59. A lake with nutrients is called Ans. (b) : If decomposers are removed, then the mineral
(a) Trophic (b) Euphoric cycle is stopped in the ecosystem. Decomposes are
(c) Oligotrophic (d) Eutrophic degrade the organic remains and converted it into
JIPMER-2008 / BHU PMT (Screening)-2007 minerals. In the absence of decomposes, organic
remains will not be converted to minerals. Hence, it
Ans. (d) : The process of nutrient accumulation and affected the mineral cycle.
enrichment of lakes is called eutrophication. A
eutrophic lake is typically shallow with a soft and 63. The rate of decomposition is faster in the
ecosystem due to following factors EXCEPT :
mucky bottom. Rooted plant growth is abundant along
(a) Detritus richer in lignin and chitin
the shore and out into the lake, and algal bloom are not
unusual. water clarity is not good and the water often (b) Detritus rich in sugars
has a tea color. If deep enough to thermally stratify, the (c) Warm and moist environment
bottom waters are devoid of oxygen. (d) Presence of aerobic soil microbes
NEET-2020 Phase-II
60. Energy transferred from one trophic level to NEET-2022
another is
Ans. (a) : The rate of decomposition is faster in the
(a) 5% (b) 10%
ecosystem if detritus is which in nitrogen and water
(c) 15% (d) 20% soluble substances like sugars. The rate of
VMMC-2012 / UP CPMT-2012, 2008 decomposition is slow if it contains lignin, chitin, tannin
Manipal-2010,2001 / CG PMT-2008 and cellulose.
Rajasthan PMT-2008 / BHU PMT (Main)-2007 64. The primary producers of the deep-sea
Ans. (b) : In ecosystem energy transferred from one hydrothermal vent ecosystem are
trophic level to another trophic level is 10% energy is (a) Green algae
move According to 10% of law given by Lindeman’s, (b) Chemosynthetic bacteria
only 10% energy of each trophic levels is transferred to (c) Blue-green algae
next higher trophic levels by lower trophic levels. (d) Coral reefs
NEET-2016 Phase-II
Ans. (b) : Archaebacteria are found in extreme
conditions like deep sea hydrothermal vent. Such
bacteria are chemosynthetic bacteria which used
hydrogen sulphide from the vents to produce organic
material through the process of chemosynthesis, other
organisms and eubacteria cannot withstand such
conditions.
65. Bamboo plant is growing in a far forest then
what will be the trophic level of it : -
(a) First trophic level (T1)
(b) Second trophic level (T2)
(c) Third trophic level (T3)
(d) Fourth trophic level (T4)
61. Decomposers are AIPMT-2002
(a) autotrophs (b) autoheterotrophs Ans. (a) : Trophic structure of an ecosystem is a type of
(c) organotrophs (d) heterotrophs producer-consumer arrangement in which each food
VMMC-2012 / BHU PMT (Mains)-2008 level is called trophic level.
UP CPMT-2008 / JCECE-2005 We know that all green plants are producers and
BHU PMT-2001 / Manipal-2000 represent the first trophic level (T1).
Ans. (d) : Decomposers are heterotrophs that feed on
the dead and rotting matter.
Decomposers mostly includes bacteria, fungi, some
meets and snails.
• Autotrophs :- Autotrophs are organisms that produce
their own food by the process of photosynthesis e.g.
allplants.
62. If decomposers are removed what will happen
to the ecosystem?
(a) Energy cycle is stopped 66. Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller
(b) Mineral cycle is stopped particles. This process is called:
(c) Consumers cannot absorb solar energy (a) Decomposition (b) Catabolism
(d) Rate of decompostion of mineral increases (c) Fragmentation (d) Humification
Haryana PMT-2005 / JIPMER-2005 NEET-2022
Ecosystem 829 YCT
Ans. (c) :Fragmentation- It is the process of breaking 68. Which one of the following processes during
of detritus into small pieces by detrivores such as decomposition is correctly described?
earthworm. (a) Leaching – Water soluble inorganic nutnents
• Decomposition is the process by which bacteria and rise of the top layers of soil
fungi break dead organisms into their simple (b) Fragmentation – Carried out by organisms
compounds. such as earthworm
• Catabolism is the part of the metabolism responsible (c) Humification – Leads to the accumulation of
for breaking complex molecules down into smaller dark coloured substance humus which
molecules. undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate
• Humification is the process by which dead and (d) Catabolism – Last step in the decomposition
decaying organic matters are converted to humus by under fully anaerobic condition
decomposing bacteria, fungi and others. NEET-2013
Ans. (b) : Fragmentation is one of the step during
decomposition in which detritus is converted into small
Fragments. Fragmentation is carried out by organism
such as earthworm.
Humification leads to dark coloured amorphous
substance called humus that is highly resistant to
microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an
extremely slow rate.
• Catabolism is the set of metabolic pathway that breaks
down molecules into smaller unit to release energy.
• Leaching refers to the loss of water soluble plant
nutrients from the soil due to the rain and irrigation.
69. Most animals that live in deep oceanic water
67. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, are
then how much energy will be available to (a) tertiary consumers (b) detritivores
peacock as food in the following chain? (c) primary consumers (d) secondary consumers
Plant→mice→snake→peacock AIIMS-2016
(a) 0.02 J (b) 0.002 J Ans. (b) : Most animals that live in deep oceanic water
(c) 0.2 J (d) 0.0002 J are detritivores. They are also called as scavengers.
AIPMT-2014 Most of them living in deep ocean include crustaceans
Ans. (a) : According to the ten percent (10%) law, and polychaetes.
during one transfer of energy from organic food from Primary consumer- Primary consumers make up the
one trophic level to the next, only about ten percent of second trophic level. They are also called herbivores,
the energy form the organic matter is stored as flesh. they eat primary producers like plants or algae for
The remaining is lost during transfer, broken down in example- Grasshopper, Rabbit etc.
respiration or lost to incomplete digestion by higher Secondary consumer- Secondary consumers are
trophic levels. largely carnivores that feed on the primary consumers
• In this food chain, the plant absorbs 10% of solar or herbivores. They are heterotrophs. Ex- Dogs, Cats.
energy and is mentioned here, that absorbs 20J of Tertiary consumers- Tertiary consumers are those that
energy. Only 10% from this 20J is available for the eats the secondary consumers/large predator. Exp.-
next level, so, the mice will have (10% of 20j) 2J of peacock that eat snakes.
energy available.
• Now from 10% from this 2J will be available to the
next trophic level (0.2J) and finally, the peacock will
get 10% of this 0.2J of energy which is 0.02J.
Plant mice snake peacock
20J 2J 0.2J 0.02J
70. The bacteria which attack dead animals are

(a) first link of the food chain and are known as
primary producers
(b) second link of the food chain and are
herbivorous
Ecosystem 830 YCT
(c) third link of the food chain and are tertiary (c) Exploring at molecular, Genetic and species
consumers level diversity for the products of economic
(d) the end of food chain and are decomposers. importance
AIIMS-2008 (d) Decomposition of organic waste in water by
Ans. (d) : The bacteria which attack dead animals are the action of microbes
the end of food chain and are decomposers. AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I
• Which contain nitrogen, an important element needed Ans. (b) : Bio-magnification refers to the increase in the
by plants. Without saprophytes, the soil would quickly concentration the toxicant at successive trophic levels of
run out of nutrients and the plants would have no food. non-degradable pollutants substances at successive
They are the end of food chain and are also known as trophic level in a food chain. This happens when a toxic
decomposers. substance consumed by the organisms of a trophic level
cannot be metabolized.
71. Full form of GFC is :
(a) Grazing food chain
(b) Grazing fish chain
(c) Gross food chain
(d) Green forest conservation
Ans. (a) : GFC means "grazing food chain". A grazing
food chain is a food chain in which the energy in the
lowest trophic level is derived from photosynthesis.
Grazing food chains are the main source of energy flow
in the terrestrial ecosystem.
74. Which of the following is called as a detritivore?

(a) An animal feeding on a plant
(b) An animal feeding on decaying organic matter
(c) An animal feeding on another animal
(d) A plant feeding on an animal
72. In which stage in the process of decomposition Karnataka CET-2005
Bacteria and Fungi become active? Ans. (b) : An animal feeding on decaying organic matter
(a) Fragmentation (b) Accumulation detrivore. Earthworm and insects are chief detrivores on
(c) Leaching (d) Catabolism earth. Detrivores helps to breakdown dead plant or animal
GUJCET-2018 matter and returns essential nutrients to the ecosystem.
Ans. (d) : Decomposition of bacteria and fungi Detrivoses are an essential part of food chain.
becomes active in catabolism. Five general stage are
use to describe the process of decomposition.
(i) Fresh (ii) Bloat (iii) Active decay (iv) Advanced
are post decay (v) Dry remains.
The general stage of decomposition are coupled with
two stage of chemical decomposition autolysis and
putrefaction these two stage contribute to the chemical
process of decomposition which break down the main 75. The average trophic efficiency of transfer of
components of the body with death the microbiome of energy from one trophic level to the higher
the living organism collapses and is followed by the trophic level is called
nacrobiome that under goes predictable charge over (a) assimilation efficiency
time. (b) exploitation efficiency
73. Biomagnifications refers to : (c) Lindeman's trophic efficiency rule
(a) Breeding of crops that are rich in minerals (d) gross primary production
and vitamins, good proteins and healthier fats AP EAMCET-2008
for human health Ans. (c) : The average trophic efficiency of transfer of
(b) Increase in concentration of the toxicant at energy from one trophic level to the higher trophic level
successive trophic levels is called Lindeman's trophic efficiency rule.
Ecosystem 831 YCT
76. Match the column I and II select the correct 78. Identify the possible link ‘M’ in the following
option. food chain :
Column I Column II Plant → Insect → M → Snake → Eagle
(concentration of DDT
in ppm) (a) Rabbit (b) Wolf
A. Zoo plankton P. 0.003 ppb (c) Frog (d) Ichthyophis
B. Small fishes Q. 2 ppm Karnataka CET-2020
C. Water R. 25 ppm Ans. (c) : plant → insect → Frog → snake → Eagle
The flow of nutrients and energy from one organism to
D. Fish eating S. 0.04 ppm
birds another at different trophic levels forms a food chain.
E. Big fishes T. 0.5 ppm
A B C D E
(a) S T P Q R
(b) S T P R Q
(c) S T R Q P 79. Which one of the following species of earthworm
(d) Q P S T R is Not recommended for vermicomposting ?
GUJCET-2015 (a) Eisenia fetidae (b) Eudrilus eugeniae
Ans. (b): In aquatic food chain zooplankton → Small (c) Pheretema posthuma (d) Perionyx excavatus
fish → large or Big fish → fish eating birds. It has been Karnataka CET-2010
observed that the concentration of the DDT
progressively increases along the food chain from Ans. (c) : Pheretima posthuma is not recommended for
zooplankton to fish-eating birds through bio- vermicomposting. All earthworms are not used for
magnification. vermicompost. Earthworm are classified farmers friend.
Column I Column II 80. Consider the following statements concerning
a. Zoo plankton 0.04 ppm food chains:
(i) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted
b. Small fishes 0.05 ppm
in greatly increased growth of vegetation
c. Water 0.003 ppb (ii) Removal of most of the carnivores resulted in
d. Fish eating birds 25 ppm an increased population of deers
e. Big fishes 2 ppm (iii) The length of food chains is generally limited
77. During the process of decomposition in which to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy loss
stage complex organic matter convert into (iv) The length of food chains may vary from 2 to
inorganic ions and salts by fungi? 8 trophic levels
(a) Mineralization (b) Catabolism (a) (i), (iv) (b) (i), (ii)
(c) Fragmentation (d) All of the above (c) (ii), (iii) (d) (iii), (iv)
GUJCET-2015 AIPMT-2008
Ans. (a): Ans. (c) : Tigers are carnivores. So removing 80% of
a) Mineralization– Mineralization is the decomposition tigers will results in an increases of herbivores which
(i.e. oxidation) of the chemical compounds in organic can result in greatly decreased the growth of vegetation.
matter by which the nutrients in those compounds are Food chains generally consist of only maximum of three
released in soluble inorganic forms. It is done by the
action of microorganism specially saprophytic fungi. or four trophic level. The loss of energy at each is so
great that very little trophic level usable energy remains
b) Catabolism– The breakdown of complex molecules
in living organisms to form simpler ones, together with after three or four tropic levels to be transferred or
the release of energy: destructive metabolism. consumed.
c) Fragmentation– Fragmentation is a method of 81. 'Sun basket' is
Asexual Reproduction, where the body of the organism (a) the device to utilise sun rays directly to meet
breaks into smaller pieces, caused fragments and each the requirement of heat energy
segment grows into an adult individual. (b) the sufficient amount of sunlight stored in a
Examples. Hydra, spirogyra etc. cell
(c) a device of taking sunbath
JIPMER-2014
Ans. (b) : 'Sun basket' is the sufficient amount of
sunlight stored in a cell.
82. A detrivorous animal of economic importance
is
(a) Caterpillar Larva (b) Leech
(c) Earthworm (d) Giriraja fowl
Karnataka CET-2008
Ecosystem 832 YCT
Ans. (c) : Earthworm is a detrivorous animal. It is used 86. Increase in the concentration of a pollutant at
in the preparation of vermicompost. A detrivore is an successive trophic levels in an aquatic food
organism that eats dead or decaying plants or animals as chain is called
food. (a) Biodegradation (b) Eutrophication
(c) Bio-remediation (d) Bio-magnification
Ans. (d) : Increase in the concentration of a pollutant at
successive trophic levels in an aquatic food chain is
called Bio-magnification.
Biomagnification is the accumulation of a chemical by
an organism from water and food exposure that results
in a concentration that is greater than would have
resulted from water exposure only and thus greater than
expected from equilibrium.
87. Assertion (A) : Soil is a major factor for
establishment of a biotic community with
diverse organisms and it takes several hundred
to thousand years to produce fertile soil on
bare rock.
Reason (R) : Lichens secrete acids to dissolve
rock for soil formation.
The correct answer is :
83. Which one of them are considered as primary (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct
producers? explanation of (A).
(a) Flora found on land and water ecosystem (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
(b) Flora found on land only (c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) Amphibious and terrestrial plant only (d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(d) Planktons only TS EAMCET-09.05.2019 Shift-I
UP CPMT-2014 Ans. (a) : This partnership allows lichens to colonize
Ans.(a): Flora found an the land and water harsh environments such as the alpine areas of grand
phytoplankton, algae, etc, are the primary producer in teton national park. Acids secreted by lichens dissolve
ecosystem. They trap the solar energy and converts it the surface of the substrate they grow on.
into chemical energy which is transferred to the Since lichens are among the first plants to grow on bare
organisms of next trophic level. rock. they play a role in soil formation by slowly
etching the rock surface.
84. Most diverse organisms of an ecosystem are
88. Trophic level of food chain having greatest
(a) producers (b) consumers amount of energy
(c) carnivores (d) decomposers (a) carnivores (b) herbivores
AP EAMCET-25.04.2018 Shift-II / UP CPMT-2011, 2006 (c) autotrophs (d) omnivores
Ans. (d): Decomposers include the most diverse group of UP CPMT-2006
organisms including bacteria fungi and other living Ans. (c) : Trophic level of food chain having greatest
organisms that breakdown the organic matter accumulated amount of energy autotrophs. Primary autotrophs are
in the bodies of consumers into inorganic material. the plant which prepare their food by photosynthesis.
Producers- Producer are organisms the make their own They are the primary producer and primary source of
food Exp.-green plant, small shrub. food energy. The flow of energy is unidirectional from
Consumers- Any organism that can't make its own producer to consumer level The energy decreases at
food. Consumers have to feed on producer. each tropic level of the food chain as part of the energy
is lost as heat and major part of energy is liberated
Carnivores- carnivores are animal that eat other animal. during respiration for use in various activity only 10%
85. The highly degraded organic matter rich in of the energy of previous tropic level is received by next
nitrogen and potassium in particular, resulting tropic level as proposed by 10 percentage low of
from the activity of earthworms, is called Lindeman. The autotrophs (green plants) form the base
(a) Worm castings (b) Vermicompost of the food chain therefore they have the highest
(c) Compost bedding (d) Humus amount of energy.
Karnataka CET-2006 89. Peacock eats a snake and snake eats frog and
frog eats insect while insect eats green plant,
Ans. (b) : The highly degraded organic matter rich in then position of peacock is
nitrogen and potassium in particular, resulting from the (a) Primary producer
activity of earthworms, is called vermicompost. (b) Secondary producer
Vermicomposts are rich in nutrition and thus, they are (c) Decomposer
widely used as biofertilizers in organic farming and (d) Top at the apex of food pyramid
sewage treatment plants. UPCPMT-2002
Ecosystem 833 YCT
Ans. (d): Top at the apex of food pyramid 92. Study the four statements (a–d) given below
and select the two correct ones out of them –
(A) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on
grain are ecologically similar in being
consumers
(B) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in maintaining
species diversity of some invertebrates
(C) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of
prey species
(D) Production of chemicals such as nicotine,
strychnine by the plants are metabolic
Green Plant–Insect (Grasshopper)→frog→snake peacock. disorders The two correct statement are
• In the food chain the green plant is the primary (a) A and D (b) A and B
producer by trapping energy from sunlight. The (c) B and C (d) C and D
insect (Grasshopper) is the primary consumers, AIPMT (Screening)-2010
because they directly consume the green plant. Ans. (b) : Carnivores (lion) and herbivores (deer) both
• Frog is the secondary consumer, because it eats the are consumers, occupying different trophic levels in a
grasshopper. food chain.
• The snake, a secondary carnivore eats the frog. • Predation is a relationship in which member of one
• The peacock is the tertiary carnivore because it eats species consume members of another species (the prey).
the secondary carnivore, the snake. • A predator prey relationship keeps the populations of
Primary producer – Primary producer in a terrestrial both species in balance.
ecosystem live in the organic matter. Since they are not Predators (e.g. pisaster) control prey population and
mobile, they live and grow where there nutrient to reduces competition among prey species.
sustain them. • Nicotine and strychnine are secondary metabolites
Secondary producer – A secondary producer is a that usually are photochemicals which act as
herbivore. An animal that eats plant matter and in turn antimicrobial attractants or repellents or as deterrents
is food for a predator. against herbivores but does not cause any arm to their
Decomposer – Decomposers are organisms that break metabolism.
down dead or decaying organisms. They carry out 93. Which one of the following is most
decomposition a process possible by only certain appropriately defined
kingdom such as fungi. (a) Parasite is an organism which always lives
90. These belong to the category of primary inside the body of other organism and may
consumers ………… kill it.
(a) Eagle and snakes (b) Insects and cattle (b) Host is an organism which provides food to
(c) Snakes and Frogs (d) Water insects another organism
Karnataka CET-2004 (c) Amensalism is a relationship in which one
Ans. (b) : The consumers in an ecosystem are species is benefited where as the other is
heterotrophs mostly that depend for food on other unaffected.
organisms. The consumers are known to be herbivores. (d) Predator is an organism that catches and kills
Insects and cattle is belong to the primary consumer other organism for food
because feed on plant, plant is producer. AIPMT (Mains)-2010
91. Which one of the following is a characteristic Ans. (d) : Predation is an interaction between members
features of cropland ecosystem of two species in which members of one species
capture, kill and eat up members of other species 'Host'
(a) Ecological succession
is a term which is specifically related to parasitism.
(b) Absence of soil organisms
• Amensalism is an interspecies interaction in which one
(c) Least genetic diversity
species is harmed where as the other one is unaffected.
(d) Absence of weeds
• Parasitic organism can live both over the surface of
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INDEX

Total marks in NEET 720 Marks

NEET 2016 Phase- II

NEET 2020 Phase-II

Cell, Cell division 6 6 9 8 9 6 4 5 7 5 6 7 9 7 6 8 8

Skeletal System & 3 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 2 2 1 1 3 2 2 1 1

Total 90 90 90 90 90 90 90 90 90 90 90 90 100 100 100 100 100

Breathing and Exchange of Gases 30 YCT

(a) D – Lower end of lungs – diaphragm pulls it

red blood cells contain haemoglobin. Haemoglobin (carbonic

Body Fluids and Circulation 56 YCT

151. A woman with blood group ‘O’ has a child with

Thus, AB and O should be the blood group of parents

The SA (Sinoatrial) node generates an electrical signal

226. Open circulatory system is present in

(a) Tunica media (b) Tunica externa

Body Fluids and Circulation 88 YCT

Body Fluids and Circulation 89 YCT

Body Fluids and Circulation 93 YCT

(a) End of systole

Body Fluids and Circulation 94 YCT

Body Fluids and Circulation 95 YCT

368. Wall of blood capillary is formed of

Body Fluids and Circulation 100 YCT

199. If excess water passes out from the tissue

12. One animal that does not perform locomotion

(a) A - Z-line- located at centre of I-band

96. Which statement is correct for muscle

Locomotion and Movement 148 YCT

Locomotion and Movement 151 YCT

A tendon is a tough, high-tensile-strength band of dense

88.Given below is a table comparing the effects of

Neural Control and Coordination 202 YCT

Neural Control and Coordination 219 YCT

Neural Control and Coordination 234 YCT

H. Eye and Ear

589. Match thefollowing columns and select the

B. Blind Spot ii Cones are densely

Chemical Coordination and Integration 261 YCT

The paraventricular nucleus (PVN, PVA, or PVH) is a

Any localised injury to hypothalamus will disrupt

176. Statement I: Thyroxine regulates the basal

202. Which of the following conditions will stimulate

The adrenal cortex makes up a large part of adrenal

tissue, insulin suppresses lipolysis and increases glucose AP EAMCET-2016

B. Microsporangium and pollen

29. What is the function of germ pore

192. Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of:-

255. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants

9. Movement of sperm is done by:

10. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in :

'Accessory gland in male'

“The seminal vesicles”

95. The structure, capable of stretching many

(a) Primary follicle (b) Ovum

(a) A-GnRH, B-TSH, C-LTH, D-Uterus

The physiological functions of the uterine endometrium

Location of Cowper's gland

'Embryogenesis-Three types of germinal layer'

Human Reproduction 384 YCT

125. Which of the following layers in an antral

Human Reproduction 389 YCT

‘Uterine anatomy’ Layers of uterus

Human Reproduction 390 YCT