Đề số 01

ĐỀ SỐ 01
Mark to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
1. A. face B. place C. prepared D. days
2. A. motion B. question C. mention D. fiction
Mark to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the
following
3: A. achievement B. argument C. industrial D. involvement
4. A. extra B. over C. lecture D. suppose
Mark to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
5. If you think (A) carefully before (B) making your decision, you will avoid (C) to get into trouble (D)
later.
6. (A) In the end, she (B) quit the job (C) because it was (D) too bored.
7. (A) Have (B) you (C) finish the report (D) yet?
Mark to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
8. While my mother.................. a film on TV, my father was cooking dinner. It was March 8th yesterday.
A. watched B. was watching C. had watched D. was watched
9................... Christmas Eve, people often have parties late at midnight.
A. In B. On C. At D. From
10. People prefer watching films on TV these days _____ going to the cinema.
A. more than B. to C. rather than D. than
11. - Your house looks so new and strange, doesn’t it? - Well, ............................
A. it’s being painted B. it’s painted C. it’s just been painted D. it was painted recently
12. I couldn’t find John at the party last night. If I................ him, we’d have been happy.
A. meet B. met C. had met D. have met
13. Quite soon, the world is going to _________ energy resources.
A. get into B. run out of C. keep up with D. come up against
14. -................ does it take you to go to school?- about half an hour.
A. How many B. How far C. How much D. How long
15. They couldn’t help.................. when they heard the little boy singing a love song.
A. laughing B. to laugh C. laugh D. laughed
16. The next train.................. at 7 p. m. , so get ready now.
A. leaves B. is leaving C. will leave D. has left
17. My dog as well as my cats................ twice a day.
A. eat B. have eaten C. has eaten D. eats
18. If you can’t afford to buy books, then you can always borrow them from the................
A. book shop B. restaurant C. library D. cinema
19. Trang always got good................ in Maths.
A. points B. marks C. questions D. credits
Mark to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
20. Linda:”Excuse me! Where’s the nearest police station?” – Maria:”____________.”
A. It’s over there B. I’m afraid not C. Don’t worry D. Yes, I think so
21. Tom:”Congratulations!” – John:”______________.”
A. What a pity! B. Thank you C. I’m sorry D. You are welcome
Mark to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
22. Water energy is used to create electricity.
A. produce B. design C. operate D. heat
23. If you go to the post office, please post these letters.
A. fax B. sign C. send D. stamp
Mark to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
24.”I am so nervous", she said in a low voice.
A. shouted B. cheered C. whispered D. cried
25. She loves to play volleyball.
A. is keen on playing B. is fed up with playing
C. is afraid of playing D. is fond of playing
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Mark to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
26. She asked her nephew,”Can you guess what I bought for you?”
A. She asked her nephew to buy something for her.
B. She asked her nephew if he can guess what she had bought for him.
C. She asked her nephew if he could guess what he could buy.
D. She asked her nephew if he could guess what she had bought for him.
27. They arrived late, so they didn’t have gotten good seats.
A. The late arrivers still had good seats.
B. If they had arrived earlier, they might have gotten good seats.
C. However late they arrived, they had very good seats.
D. Unless they arrived early, they wouldn’t have good seats
28. The question is too important to forget.
A. We must ask the question. B. The question is not important.
C. We must try to forget the question. D. We must remember the question.
Mark to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
29. I must thank the man. I got the present from him.
A. I must thank the man from whom I got the present.
B. I must thank the man from which I got the present.
C. I must thank the man whom I got the present from him.
D. I must thank the man whom from I got the present.
30. Mary gets up early every morning. She wants to learn her lesson.
A. Mary gets up early every morning so to learn her lesson.
B. Mary gets up early every morning not to learn her lesson.
C. Mary gets up early every morning to learn her lesson.
D. Mary gets up early every morning so that learn her lesson.
Read the following passage and mark to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the
numbered
Society has changed in many ways (31)……the introduction of computers, and people’s lives at home
and at the office have been affected. Most people are working for fewer hours per week than they (32) … to,
and manufacturers and advertising agencies are becoming much more interested in how people spend this extra
leisure time. One recent report stated that, (33) … the number of hobbies had not increased, each hobby had
become more specialized.
A second finding is that nowadays, many managers would rather(34) … time with their families than stay
late in the office everyday. Home life is seen to be just as important as working. Some companies now (35) …
managers take their annual holidays even if they don’t want to, because this leads to such an improvement in
their performance if they have some rest.
31. A. since B. from C. for D. at
32. A. ought B. have C. want D. used
33. A. as B. because of C. although D. but
34. A. spent B. spend C. to spend D. spending
35. A. cause B. force C. make D. have
Read the following passage and mark to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Traveling is one of the most popular forms of recreation in the USA. Most American employees receive an
annual vacation with pay, and it is a good time off for traveling. Traveling within the country is popular
because foreign travel generally takes more time and money. However, Americans who wish to vacation
outside the USA are free to go almost anywhere. Obtaining a passport is a routine matter. Every year about 13
million Americans travel abroad. The most popular vacation periods are during the summer and during the two-
week school break on the Christmas and New Year’s holidays. These periods are also the most crowded and
generally the most expensive time to travel, so people who can adjust their schedules sometimes choose
vacation in the autumn. American vacationers often travel by car. Most families have a car, and those who do
not have a car can rent one. Cars are usually the economical way to travel, especially for the families. It is also
fairly fast and convenient. Excellent highways connect the major cities. They enable vacationers to travel at an
almost steady speed of 55 to 65 miles an hour. Tourists that want to travel faster often fly to their destination
and then rent a car to go around when they get there.
36. The reading text is about ………………..
A. Christmas and New Year B going abroad
C. traveling in USA D. renting a car for traveling
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37. Traveling in the ……………. is the least expensive.
A. autumn B. summer C. winter D. spring
38. Which sentence is NOT correct?
A. Most Americans like traveling.
B. Most American people travel abroad every year.
C. It is difficult to obtain a passport in the USA.
D. There is a two-week break on the Christmas and the New Year’s holidays.
39. The word one in the text refers to ……………….
A. a vacationer B. a family C. a car D. a holiday
40. Traveling by car is ……………..
A. cheap B. very expensive C. not appreciated D. not suitable for families
Read the following passage and mark to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
I like to be near water – sea, lake or river. That is probably because I was born in a village by the sea, and
I have lived most of my life close to water. When I am in some places which is far from lake, river and sea, I
am restless and I always feel that there is something missing, even though it is sometimes hard for me to decide
what it is.
Of course, the sports I like are the ones which need water – sailing, rowing and swimming. It is possible
to swim in small swimming pools, but rowing and sailing are impossible without a lot of water. Rowing is best
in a river and sailing on the sea or a big lake, but one can do some sailing on a river and one can certainly row
on a lake or the sea when the weather is good.
Of the three sports – swimming, rowing and sailing – I like rowing best because it is the easiest to
continue during the winter, when the water is too cold for comfortable swimming and the sea is often too rough
for sailing. Even on the coldest day one row, only ice on the water or thick fog can stop one. Sometimes it is so
cold when I go out rowing that drop of water freeze wherever they fall. In such weather, it is not very pleasant
to swim as one cannot stay in the water very long. However, when one is rowing, one gets warmer the longer
one goes on.
41. Where was the writer born?
A. In a village by the river B. In a village near a lake
C. In a village by the sea D. In a sea town
42. How does the writer feel when he is in some place which is not near the water?
A. Comfortable B. Convenient C. Losing something D. Missing something
43. What type of sport does he like?
A. Water sports B. Sports without water
C. Sports played only on the sea D. Sports played near lakes and river
44. Where can people row and sail?
A. In a swimming pool B. In the river C. On the sea D. Both B and C
45. Why does he like rowing best?
A. Because it makes him warmer B. Because he can sail it in cold days
C. Because it makes him stronger D. Because it is easier to play
46. Why are swimming and sailing not easy sports to continue in winter?
A. Because the sea is too rough B. Because the sea is too cold
C. Because the water is too cold D. Both A and C
47. What can stop people from rowing?
A. Ice on the water or thick fog B. Cold weather
C. Hot weather D. Cold water
48. What sometimes happens when he goes out rowing in very cold weather?
A. Water drops B. Water is too cold
C. Drops of water freeze in the places they fall D. Drops of water fall
49. Why is it unpleasant to swim in cold weather?
A. One can only stay in the water for a short time
B. The water becomes icy
C. One stays in the weather for a long time
D. The water gets warmer
50. What does the word”which” in paragraph 1 refer to?
A. Lake B. Some places C. Sea D. River
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ĐỀ SỐ 02
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. medals B. competitors C. defenders D. participants
2. A. match B. chair C. church D. character
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. goalie B. advanced C. above D. depend
4. A. understand B. industry C. invitation D. computation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
5. Chemical engineering is based (A) on the (B) principles of physics, (C) chemists, and (D) mathematics.
6. (A) A number of large insurance companies (B) has (C) their headquarters in the (D) capital city.
7. At the Olympic Games, the female winners receive honors (A) equal (B) with those (C) given to the men (D)
who win.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
8. ________ in UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites in 2003, Phong Nha Ke Bang is noted for its cave and grotto
systems.
A. Listing B. Having listed C. To have listed D. Having been listed
9. Many lists of”Wonders of the World” ___________ during the Middle Ages.
A. said to be existed B. are said to exist C. said to exist D. are said to have existed
10. The more you study during the semester, ______ the week before exams.
A. the less you have to study B. you have to study the less
C. the less have you to study D. the study less you have
11. Harry’s new jacket doesn’t seem to fit him very well. He _______ it on before he bought it.
A. must have tried B. should have tried C. needn’t have tried D. might have tried
12. Not until about a century after Julius Caesar landed in Britain _______ actually conquer the island.
A. the Romans did B. did the Romans C. the Roman D. Romans that
13. Martha Thomas was an American educator who stood for equal ______ rights for women.
A. educated B. educational C. educating D. educationally
14. More than a billion people all over the world are ________ threat of desert expansion.
A. in B. under C. on D. with
15. Drinking water ______ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the enamel
of teeth.
A. containing B. including C. made up of D. composed of
16. I would like to ________ touch with old friends but I have so little time.
A. get into B. be in C. lose D. keep in
17. The players were cheered by their______ as they came out of the pitch.
A. audience B. supporters C. viewers D. public
18. I can’t understand why you have to make such a _____ about something so unimportant.
A. mess B. stir C. fuss D. bother
19. I am not able to go anywhere this weekend because I am up to my __________ in work.
A. neck B. nose C. head D. eyes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following
exchanges.
20. Cathy had a great vacation. She went to the beach and had herself sun-tanned. Her friend, Leo wanted to
know how she felt.
- Leo:”How was your vacation, Cath?” - Mary:”______________! I had a great time on the beach!.”
A. Oh, it was awful B. Nothing special C. Oh, it was great D. Thank you, but it was boring
21. Cynthia wants to have a talk with Victor sometime today, but Victor is very busy. He has a very tight
schedule.
- Cynthia:”Hi, Victor, do you think it's possible for us to have a talk sometime today?”
- Victor:”________, but I've got a pretty tight schedule today.”
A. No, I don’t B. Certainly. Let’s see after break C. I'd love to D. Don’t worry
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
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22. But for Helen acting so wonderfully, the play would have been a flop.
A. Helen acted so wonderfully, but the play was a flop.
B. If it hadn’t been for Helen’s wonderful acting, the play would have been a flop.
C. The play was a flop although Helen acted so wonderfully.
D. The play was a flop although Helen was such a wonderful actor.
23. Although they are busy at work, they try to find time for their children.
A. Busy at work as they are, they try to find time for their children.
B. They are so busy at work that they cannot find time for their children.
C. Busy as they are at work, they try to find time for their children.
D. They rarely have time for their children because they are busy at work.
24.”I’m very pleased at how things have turned out”, she said to her employees.
A. She expressed her satisfaction with the way things had turned out.
B. She asked her employees how things had turned out and was pleased to know it.
C. She complimented her employees for making things turn out.
D. She wanted her employees to tell her how many things had turned out.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
25. He spent all his money. He even borrowed some from me.
A. As soon as he borrowed some money from me, he spent it all.
B. Hardly had he borrowed some money from me when he spent it all.
C. Not only did he spend all his money but also he borrowed some from me.
D. Not only did he spend all his money but he borrowed some from me as well.
26. The Moon doesn't have the atmosphere. The planet Mars doesn't either.
A. Neither the Moon or the planet Mars has the atmosphere.
B. Either the Moon or the planet Mars has the atmosphere.
C. Either the Moon nor the planet Mars has the atmosphere.
D. Neither the Moon nor the planet Mars has the atmosphere.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
27. The newlyweds agreed to be very frugal in their shopping because they wanted to save enough money to
buy a house.
A. economical B. wasteful C. interested D. inexpensive
28. The coach takes every opportunity to censure his players, yet he ignores every opportunity to praise them.
A. approve of B. criticize C. choose D. argue
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
29. Our baseball team's pitcher has a few eccentric habits, such as throwing exactly thirteen warm-up pitches
and never wearing socks.
A. normal B. strange C. messy D. surprising
30. The aging actor is fastidious about her appearance: her clothes are beautifully tailored, her hair and make-up
are flawless, and she is always perfectly groomed.
A. careless B. uncared C. caring D. careful
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
WHAT SHOULD I WEAR TO MY JOB INTERVIEW
Wearing the right thing to an interview is important in order to create the right impression. Think about
what you’re going to wear at least a week before your interview so (31) …………… you can relax. If you’re
going for a job interview, you can stand outside the office or shop to (32) …………. what the people who work
there are wearing. If you’re going for an interview at a college or a university, you can talk to your friends to
find out what they’re wearing to their interviews.
If you can’t afford something new, don’t worry. Wear what you have, or borrow something from a friend.
But make sure you (33)………….. it cleaned in time. It should be ready to in order not to cause problems on
the day. Generally, it’s best to wear smart, (34)……….. clothes for a job interview. However, it’s also
important to wear comfortable clothes so that you feel relaxed. If you’re going for a less formal job, or an exam
interview, it may be OK to wear jeans, (35)…………. make sure they’re smart in order not to seem too casual.
The day before your interview, go to the hairdresser’s and have your hair cut. Some people like to get their nails
done too. These little things make you look and feel better
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31. A. this B. these C. that D. those
32. A. see B. know C. hear D. think
33. A. make B. do C. have D. go
34. A. formal B. informal C. formally D. informally
35. A. so B. because C. although D. but
(Adapted from”PET Result,” by Jenny Quintana, Oxford University Press)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 36 to 42.
Floods are second only to fire as the most common of all natural disasters. They occur almost everywhere
in the world, resulting in widespread damage and even death. Consequently, scientists have long tried to perfect
their ability to predict floods. So far, the best that scientists can do is to recognize the potential for flooding in
certain conditions. There are a number of conditions, from deep snow on the ground to human error, that cause
flooding.
When deep snow melts it creates a large amount of water. Although deep snow alone rarely causes floods,
when it occurs together with heavy rain and sudden warmer weather it can lead to serious flooding. If there is a
fast snow melt on top of frozen or very wet ground, flooding is more likely to occur than when the ground is
not frozen. Frozen ground or ground that is very wet and already saturated with water cannot absorb the
additional water created by the melting snow. Melting snow also contributes to high water levels in rivers and
streams. Whenever rivers are already at their full capacity of water, heavy rains will result in the rivers
overflowing and flooding the surrounding land.
Rivers that are covered in ice can also lead to flooding. When ice begins to melt, the surface of the ice
cracks and breaks into large pieces. These pieces of ice move and float down the river. They can form a dam in
the river, causing the water behind the dam to rise and flood the land upstream. If the dam breaks suddenly,
then the large amount of water held behind the dam can flood the areas downstream too.
Broken ice dams are not the only dam problems that can cause flooding. When a large human-made dam
breaks or fails to hold the water collected behind it, the results can be devastating. Dams contain such huge
amounts of water behind them that when sudden breaks occur, the destructive force of the water is like a great
tidal wave. Unleashed dam waters can travel tens of kilometers, cover the ground in meters of mud and debris,
and drown and crush every thing and creature in their path.
Although scientists cannot always predict exactly when floods will occur, they do know a great deal about
when floods are likely, or probably, going to occur. Deep snow, ice-covered rivers, and weak dams are all
strong conditions for potential flooding. Hopefully, this knowledge of why floods happen can help us reduce
the damage they cause.
(Adapted from”http://web2. uvcs. uvic. ca/elc/StudyZone/490/reading/floods2-reading. htm”)
36. Whlch of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. Causes of floods B. Broken ice dams C. Deep snow melting D. Consequences of floods
37. Which of the following are included as causes for floods in the reading passage?
A. droughts B. large lakes C. poorly built roads D. melting snow
38. Which of the following best describes how a frozen river can cause a flood.
A. The ice in the river melts too quickly and causes a flood.
B. The ice in the river cracks causing the water to overflow.
C. The ice in the river cracks into pieces that eventually create a dam causing the water to overflow.
D. The water behind the ice dam collects and when the dam breaks, it causes flooding upstream.
39. The word”They” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. Rivers B. Pieces of ice C. Heavy rains D. Streams
40. What kinds of problems can floods cause?
A. death B. widespread damage
C. destruction of plants and animals D. downstream
41. The word”unleashed” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. quite strong B. almost flooded C. let free D. perfect
42. It can be inferred from the passage that knowledge of when floods exactly happen
A. can be easily seen by the scientists B. is likely to be predicted correctly
C. is still a question for scientists D. helps people improve conditions for potential flooding
HYDROGEN
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Hydrogen is the most common element in the universe and was perhaps the first to form. It is among the
ten most common elements on Earth as well and one of the most useful for industrial purposes. Under normal
conditions of temperature, hydrogen is a gas. Designated as H, hydrogen is the first element in the periodic
table because it contains only one proton. Hydrogen can combine with a large number of other elements,
forming more compounds than any of the others. Pure hydrogen seldom occurs naturally, but it exists in most
organic compounds, that is, compounds that contain carbon, which account for a very large number of
compounds. Moreover, hydrogen is found in inorganic compounds. For example, when hydrogen burns in the
presence of oxygen, it forms water.
The lightest and simplest of the elements, hydrogen has several properties that make it valuable for many
industries. It releases more heat per unit of weight than any other fuel. In rocket engines, tons of hydrogen and
oxygen are burned, and hydrogen is used with oxygen for welding torches that produce temperatures as high as
4, 000 degrees F and can be used in cutting steel. Fuel cells to generate electricity operate on hydrogen and
oxygen.
Hydrogen also serves to prevent metals from tarnishing during beat treatments by removing the oxygen
from them. Although it would be difficult to remove the oxygen by itself, hydrogen readily combines with
oxygen to form water, which can be heated to steam and easily removed. Furthermore, hydrogen is one of the
coolest refrigerants. It does not become a liquid until it reaches temperatures of 425 degrees F. Pure hydrogen
gas is used in large electric generators to cool the coils.
Future uses of hydrogen include fuel for cars, boats, planes, and other forms of transportation that
currently require petroleum products. These fuels would be lighter, a distinct advantage in the aerospace
industry, and they would also be cleaner, thereby reducing pollution in the atmosphere.
Hydrogen is also useful in the food industry for a process known as hydrogenation. Products such as
margarine and cooking oils are changed from liquids to semisolids by combining hydrogen with their
molecules. Soap manufacturers also use hydrogen for this purpose. In addition, in the chemical industry,
hydrogen is used to produce ammonia, gasoline, methyl alcohol, and many other important products.
(Adapted from”Barron’s Practice Exercises for the Toefl, 6th edition”
43. What is the author's main purpose in the passage?
A. To explain the industrial uses of hydrogen B. To describe the origin of hydrogen in the universe
C. To discuss the process of hydrogenation D. To give examples of how hydrogen and oxygen
combine
44. How can hydrogen be used to cut steel?
A. By cooling the steel to a very low temperature
B. By cooling the hydrogen with oxygen to a very low temperature
C. By heating the steel to a very high temperature
D. By heating the hydrogen with oxygen to a very high temperature
45. The word”readily" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
A. completely B. slowly C. usually D. easily
46. The word”combining" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. trying B. adding C. finding D. changing
47. The word”them" in line 21 refers to
A. fuel cells B. metals C. treatments D. products
48. How does hydrogen generally occur?
A. It is freely available in nature. B. It is contained in many compounds.
C. It is often found in pure form. D. It is released during hydrogenation.
49. The author mentions all of the following as uses for hydrogen EXCEPT
A. to remove tarnish from metals B. to produce fuels such as gasoline and methyl alcohol
C. to operate fuel cells that generate electricity D. to change solid foods to liquids
50. It can be inferred from the passage that hydrogen
A. is too dangerous to be used for industrial purposes
B. has many purposes in a variety of industries
C. has limited industrial uses because of its dangerous properties
D. is used in many industries for basically the same purpose
ĐỀ SỐ 03
1. A. designed B. released C. developed D. maintained
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2. A. women B. depression C. expected D. intellectual
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
3. A. opponent B. enthusiast C. tsunami D. advocate
4. A. knowledge B. victim C. appeal D. effort
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
5. The success (A) of a share holiday depends on (B) who (C) you share it (D) with.
6. At first (A) we found it difficult (B) to get used to drive (C) on the other side (D) of the road.
7. To (A) my opinion, love is supposed (B) to follow (C) marriage, not precede it (D)
8. The girl standing among many other students ______ a scholarship to Columbia University.
A. was rewarded B. were awarded C. were rewarded D. was awarded
9. When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty______ paintings were destroyed, including two by
Picasso.
A. worthless B. valueless C. priceless D. meaningless
10. So little ______about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me.
A. did I know B. I have known C. I knew D. do I know
11. Who was the last one ______the classroom yesterday?
A. to leave B. left C. leaving D. had left
12. Children _______at home alone because it’s dangerous for them.
A. must not leave B. must not be leaving C. must not be left D. must not have left
13.. If you hadn't stayed up so late last night, you ______ sleepy now.
A. wouldn't have felt B. wouldn't feel C. would feel D. would have felt
14. Although some societies are ________ undeveloped, their languages – from a linguist’s point of view – are
very complex.
A. technology B. technological C. technologically D. technologist
15. Deborah is going to take extra lessons to_____ what she missed while she was away.
A. catch up on B. cut down on C. take up with D. put up with
16. It is very difficult to _____the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign language.
A. transfer B. exchange C. convert D. convey
17. Would you mind ________ me a favour and posting this letter for me?
A. making B. doing C. getting D. giving
18. We should______ every chance we have to speak English.
A. turn to our advantage B. make use of
C. come into use D. open to abuse
19. The salary of a computer programmer is ________ a teacher.
A. as twice much as B. as much as twice of C. twice as higher as that D. twice as high as that of
exchanges.
20. Joe is going to move to a new apartment this weekend. Don offers to help him.
- Don:”Do you need help moving this weekend?” Steve:”______________! But thanks for offering.”
A. Thanks, I’ve already got four other guys B. Thanks. It’s kind of you
C. No need. How annoying you are D. Really. Come whenever you’re free
21. Peggy invites Molly to her lunch on Saturday.
- Peggy:”Can you come over for lunch on Saturday?” - Molly:”________, but I’ve got a dentist’s
appointment at 11:30. Thanks anyway for the invitation”
A. It sounds like fun. What time? B. Oh, I’d love to
C. Great. What shall I bring with me D. Sounds great. Can I bring my boyfriend with me?
questions.
22..”If you don't apologise immediately, I'm leaving,” she told him.
A. She told him not to apologise immediately.
B. She asked him to apologise immediately because she was leaving.
C. She threatened to leave unless he apologised immediately.
D. She told him she was leaving if he apologised immediately
23. The first national park in the world, Ye How Stone National Park, was established in 1872.
8
A. Ye How Stone National Park was established in the world’s national park in 1872.
B. The first national park in the world was established in the Ye How Stone National Park in 1872.
C. It was in 1872 that Ye How Stone National Park was established as the first national park in the world.
D. 1872 was the year when the first national park was established in Ye How Stone National Park.
24. Thanks to Jim, this company keeps order in its operations.
A. Were it not for Jim, this company would be in a mess.
B. This company has good workers, apart from Jim.
C. If Jim lost his job, he wouldn’t be able to keep orders for the company.
D. Jim is the only person to work well in the company.
25. He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
26. We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
27. S.Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr. Mayo’s outstanding humanitarianism.
A. exhaustive B. charitable C. remarkable D. widespread
28. Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars according to
brightness.
A. shine B. record C. categorize D. diversify
29. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. permanent B. guess C. complicated D. soak
30. My little daughter would spend an inordinate amount of time in the shop, deciding exactly which comics
she was going to buy.
A. excessive B. limited C. required D. abundant
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
How men first learnt to invent words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a (31)______.
All we really know is that men, unlike animals, somehow invented certain sounds to express thoughts and
feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each other; and that later they agreed upon
certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to represent those sounds, and which could be written
down. These sounds, (32)______ spoken or written in letters, are called words. Great writers are those who not
only have great thoughts but also express these thoughts in words that (33)______ powerfully to our minds and
emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what we call literary style. Above all, the real poet is a
master of words. He can (34)______ his meaning in words which sing like music, and which by their position
and association can (35)______ men to tears. We should, therefore, learn to choose our words carefully, or they
will make our speech silly and vulgar.
31. A. story B. secret C. mystery D. legend
32. A. if B. however C. whether D. though
33. A. interest B. appeal C. attract D. lure
34. A. carry B. convey C. transfer D. transmit
35. A. take B. send C. break D. move
In addition to providing energy, fats have other functions in the body. The fat-soluble vitamins, A, D, E,
and K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good source of these vitamins have high oil or fat content,
9
and the vitamins are stored in the body’s fatty tissues. In the diet, fats cause food to remain longer in the
stomach, thus increasing the feeling of fullness for some time after a meal is eaten.
Fats add variety, taste and texture to foods, which accounts for the popularity of fried foods. Fatty
deposits in body have an insulating and protective value. The curves of the human female body are due mostly
to strategically located fat deposits. Whether a certain amount of fat in the diet is essential to human health is
not definitely known. When rats are fed a fat-free diet, their growth eventually ceases, their skin becomes
inflamed and scaly and their reproductive systems are damaged. Two fatty acids, linoleic and arachidonic acids,
prevents these abnormalities and hence are called essential fatty acids. They also required by a number of other
animals, but their roles in human beings are debatable. Most nutritionists consider linoleic fatty acid an
essential nutrient for humans.
36. The passage probably appears in which of the following?
A. A diet book B. A book on basic nutrition
C. A cook book D. A popular women’s magazine
37. The word”functions” is closest in meaning to.
A. forms B. needs C. jobs D. sources
38. All of the following vitamins are stored in the body’s fatty tissues EXCEPT_____.
A. vitamin A B. vitamin D C. vitamin B D. vitamin E
39. Which of the following is true for rats when they are fed a fat-free diet?
A. They stop growing B. They have more babies
C. They lose body hair D. They require less care
40. Linoleic fatty acid is mentioned as.
A. an essential nutrient for humans B. more useful than arachidonic acid
C. prevent weight gain in rats D. a nutrient found in most foods
41. The phrases”abnormalities” refers to.
A. a condition caused by fried foods.
B. strategically located fat deposits
C. curves of the human female body
D. end of growth, bad skin, and damaged reproductive systems.
42. That humans should all have some fat in our diets is.
A. a commonly held view B. not yet a proven fact
C. only true for women D. proven to be true by experiments on rats
Water scarcity is fast becoming one of the major limiting factors in world crop production. In many areas,
poor agricultural practices have led to increasing desertification and the loss of formerly arable lands.
Consequently, those plant species that are well adapted to survival in dry climates are being looked at for an
answer in developing more efficient crops to grow on marginally arable lands.
Plants use several mechanisms to ensure their survival in desert environments. Some involve purely
mechanical and physical adaptations, such as the shape of the plant's surface, smaller leaf size, and extensive
root systems. Some of the adaptations are related to chemical mechanisms. Many plants, such as cacti, have
internal gums and mucilage which give them water-retaining properties. Another chemical mechanism is that of
the epicuticular wax layer. This wax layer acts as an impervious cover to protect the plant. It prevents excessive
loss of internal moisture. It also protects the plant from external aggression, which can come from inorganic
agents such as gases, or organic agents which include bacteria and plant pests.
Researchers have proposed that synthetic waxes with similar protective abilities could be prepared based
on knowledge of desert plants. If successfully developed, such a compound could be used to greatly increase a
plant's ability to maintain health in such adverse situations as inadequate water supply, limited fertilizer
availability, attack by pests, and poor storage after harvesting.
43. This passage deals mainly with ________
A. desertification B. decreasing water supply
C. factors limiting crop production D. developing efficient plants
44. The word”arable” in the 1st paragraph is closest in meaning to ________
A. fertile B. parched C. barren D. marsh
45. Which of the following is a mechanical or physical mechanism that desert plants use?
A. The plant’s shape B. The small root system
C. The vast leaf size D. The high water system
46. Which is one of the ways in which the epicuticular wax protects the plant?
10
A. It helps the plant to avoid excessive moisture intake
B. It helps the plant to attack aggressors.
C. It releases gases against plant pests.
D. It guards against bacteria.
47. The word”It” in the 2nd paragraph refers to________
A. another chemical mechanism B. the epicuticular wax layer
C. an impervious plant like cover D. the loss of internal moisture
48. What is an example of an inorganic agent that may attack plants?
A. Bacteria B. Insects C. Gas D. Pests
49. It can be inferred that synthetic stimulate waxes________
A. have not been developed yet B. have not succeeded
C. have been determined to be impervious to organic and inorganic agents
D. have the quality of causing bacteria
50. All of the following are examples of an adverse situation for crops EXCEPT________
A. inadequate water B. insufficient fertilize C. pest aggression D. proper storage
ĐỀ SỐ 04
1. A. endangered B. threatened C. recovered D. advanced
2. A. secure B. police C. council D. socialize
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary
stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. television B. information C. economic D. engineering
4. A. heritage B. artificial C. satellite D. ancient
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
5. Working (A) provide (B) people with (C) personal satisfaction as well (D) as money.
6. The singer about who (A) I told (B) you yesterday is coming (C) here tomorrow (D)
7. Psychologist Abraham Marlow argued that (A) human have unique desires (B) to discover and understand,
the giving of love to others (C), and to fulfill their inner potential (D)
8. Christopher Columbus _______ American more than 500 years ago.
A. discovered B. has discovered C. had discovered D. had been discovering
9. Did you read ………………… book I lent you …………… last week.
A. a / the B. the / the C. the / X D. X / X
10. My neighbor is driving me mad! It seems that.................. it is at night................ he plays his music!
A. the less/ the more loud B. the less/ less C. the more/ the more loudlier
D. the later/ the louder
11. She said she........................
A. was very tired last night B. was very tired the night before
C. had been very tired last night D. had been tired the night before
12. The preparation_______ by the time the guest_______.
A. had been finished- arrived B. have finished- arrived
C. had finished-were arriving D. have been finished- were arrived
13. The assignment must be submitted ______ the end ______ the week.
A. from / of B. at/ of C. from/ to D. in/ of
14. You are old enough to take _______ for what you have done.
A. responsible B. responsibility C. responsibly D. irresponsible
15. You should _______ more attention to what your teacher explains.
A. make B. get C. set D. pay
16. It was just a friendly get-together. Everyone was wearing ___ clothes. No one needed to be well-dressed.
A. formal B. casual C. unimportant D. unfriendly
17. People used to consider women to be better_________ for childbearing and homemaking.
A. regarded B. suited C. understood D. kept
18. UNESCO _____ United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
A. stands for B. brings about C. takes after D. gets across
11
19. The government hopes to _________ its plans for introducing cable TV.
A. turn out B. carry out C. carry on D. keep on
exchanges.
20. A: Congratulations! You did great. B:______________
A. It's nice of you to say so B. It's my pleasure.
C. You're welcome. D. That's okay.
21. A: Would you mind if I come late? B:______________
A. Yes, of course, B. No, of course not. C. All right, you can. D. No, I wouldn't mind.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
of the following questions.
22. It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger.
A. urgent B. unavoidable C. important D. necessary
23. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr. Mayo’s outstanding humanitarianism.
A. exhaustive B. charitable C. remarkable D. widespread
24. Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest.
A. hungry B. rich C. poor D. full
25. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. permanent B. guess C. complicated D. soak
questions.
26. It was a mistake of you to lose your passport.
A. You shouldn't have lost your passport. B. There must be a mistake in your passport.
C. You needn't have brought your passport. D. Your passport must be lost.
27. If only I had studied hard enough to pass the final exam.
A. I regret not studying hard enough to pass the exam.
B. I had studied hard enough and I passed the final exam.
C. I studied too hard to pass the final exam.
D. I studied hard otherwise I would fail the final exam.
28. One of the drivers who was brought by Steward came over to me.
A. One of the drivers that were brought by Steward came over to me.
B. One of the drivers was brought by Steward came over to me.
C. One of the drivers brought by Steward came over to me.
D. One of the drivers bring by Steward came over to me.
29. It was such a boring speech that we began to yawn.
A. The speech was very boring that we began to yawn.
B. It was so a boring speech that we began to yawn.
C. The speech was too boring that we began to yawn.
D. The speech was so boring that we began to yawn.
30. Without your help, I couldn’t overcome the problem.
A. If you don’t help me, I can’t overcome the problem.
B. If you didn’t help me, I couldn’t overcome the problem.
C. If you hadn’t helped me, I couldn’t overcome the problem.
D. If you hadn’t helped me, I couldn’t have overcome the problem.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Around the age of sixteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life.”Do I stay on at school
and hopefully go on to university (31)______? Do I leave and start work or begin a training course” The
decision is yours, but it may be (32)______ remembering two things: there is more unemployment among those
who haven’t been to university, and people who have the right (33)______ will have a big advantage in the
competition for jobs. If you decide to go straight into a job, there are many opportunities for training. Getting
qualifications will (34)______ you to get on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow you to
12
learn while you earn. Starting work and taking a break to study when you are older is another possibility. In this
way, you can save up money for your student days, as well as (35)______ practical work experience.
31. A. former B. past C. later D. after
32. A. necessary B. important C. worth D. useful
33. A. skills B. interests C. habits D. arts
34. A. help B. make C. give D. let
35. A. doing B. getting C. making D. taking
The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts: its bare mountains and
moorland, its lakes, rivers and woods, and its long, often wild coastline. Many of the most beautiful areas are
national parks and are protected from development. When British people think of the countryside they think of
farmland, as well as open spaces. They imagine cows or sheep in green fields enclosed by hedges or stone
walls, and fields of wheat and barley. Most farmland is privately owned but is crossed by a network of public
footpaths.
Many people associate the countryside with peace and relaxation. They spend their free time walking or
cycling there, or go to the country for a picnic or a pub lunch. In summer people go to fruit farms and pick
strawberries and other fruit. Only a few people who live in the country work on farms. Many commute to work
in towns. Many others dream of living in the country, where they believe they would have a better and healthier
lifestyle.
The countryside faces many threats. Some are associated with modern farming practices, and the use of
chemicals harmful to plants and wildlife. Land is also needed for new houses. The green belt, an area of land
around many cities, is under increasing pressure. Plans to build new roads are strongly opposed by
organizations trying to protect the countryside. Protesters set up camps to prevent, or at least delay, the building
work.
America has many areas of wild and beautiful scenery, and there are many areas, especially in the West in
states like Montana and Wyoming, where few people live. In the New England states, such as Vermont and
New Hampshire, it is common to see small farms surrounded by hills and green areas. In Ohio, Indiana, Illinois
and other Midwestern states, fields of corn or wheat reach to the horizon and there are many miles between
towns.
Only about 20% of Americans live outside cities and towns. Life may be difficult for people who live in
the country. Services like hospitals and schools may be further away and going shopping can mean driving long
distances. Some people even have to drive from their homes to the main road where their mail is left in a box.
In spite of the disadvantages, many people who live in the country say that they like the safe, clean, attractive
environment. But their children often move to a town or city as soon as they can. As in Britain, Americans like
to go out to the country at weekends. Some people go on camping or fishing trips, others go hiking in national
parks.
36. We can see from the passage that in the countryside of Britain ______.
A. none of the areas faces the sea B. only a few farms are publicly owned
C. most beautiful areas are not well preserved D. it is difficult to travel from one farm to another
37. The word”enclosed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. rotated B. embraced C. blocked D. surrounded
38. Which is NOT mentioned as an activity of relaxation in the countryside of Britain?
A. Going swimming B. Picking fruit C. Going for a walk D. Riding a bicycle
39. What does the word”they” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Those who dream of living in the country B. Those who go to fruit farms in summer
C. Those who go to the country for a picnic D. Those who commute to work in towns
40. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT ______.
A. the use of chemicals harms the environment of the countryside
B. camps are set up by protesters to stop the construction work
C. the green belt is under pressure because of the need for land
D. all organizations strongly oppose plans for road construction
41. The phrase”reach to the horizon” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. are limited B. are endless C. are horizontal D. are varied
42. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. The majority of American people live in cities and towns.
B. Many British people think of the country as a place of peace and relaxation.
13
C. Towns in some Midwestern states in the US are separated by long distances.
D. Both British and American people are thinking of moving to the countryside.
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster.
According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious
parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic
parental expectations can cause great damage to children.
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious in a
sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very supportive of their
child. Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to
concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a
week for violin lessons. Michael’s mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a
large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling. Winston Smith,
Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians, and they set too high a
standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they enter him for every piano
competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will
disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.
43. One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to ______.
A. push their child into trying too much B. help their child to become a genius
C. make their child become a musician D. neglect their child’s education
44. Parents’ ambition for their children is not wrong if they ______.
A. force their children into achieving success B. themselves have been very successful
C. understand and help their children sensibly D. arrange private lessons for their children
45. Michael Collins is fortunate in that ______.
A. his father is a musician B. his parents are quite rich
C. his mother knows little about music D. his parents help him in a sensible way
46. The phrase”crazy about" in the passage mostly means ______.
A. “surprised at" B. “extremely interested in"
C. “completely unaware of" D. “confused about"
47. Winston’s parents push their son so much and he ______.
A. has won a lot of piano competitions B. cannot learn much music from them
C. has become a good musician D. is afraid to disappoint them
48. The word”They" in the passage refers to ______.
A. concerts B. violin lessons C. parents in general D. Michael’s parents
49. The word”unwilling" in the passage mostly means ______.
A.”getting ready to do something" B.”eager to do something"
C.”not objecting to doing anything" D.”not wanting to do something"
50. The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that ______.
A. successful parents always have intelligent children
B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children
C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants
D. parents should spend more money on the child’s education
ĐỀ SỐ 05
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in the
following questions
1. We've run out of tea.
A. There's not much more tea left. B. We didn't have any tea.
C. There's no tea left. D. We have to run out to buy some tea.
2. My friend told me,”If I were you, I would not cut class so often."
A. My friend suggested not cutting class so often.
B. My friend warned me against cutting class so often.
C. My friend advised me not to cut class so often.
D. My friend prohibited me from cutting class so often.
3.”I will let you know the answer by the end of this week,” Tom said to Janet.
A. Tom promised to give Janet the answer by the end of the week.
14
B. Tom suggested giving Janet the answer by the end of the week.
C. Tom insisted on letting Janet know the answer by the end of the week.
D. Tom offered to give Janet the answer by the end of the week.
4.”Why don't we go out for dinner?" said Mary.
A. Mary demanded a dinner out. B. Mary requested a dinner out.
C. Mary suggested a dinner out. D. Mary ordered a dinner out.
5. The sooner we solve this problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
A. If we can solve this problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
B. It would be better for all concerned if we can solve this problem soon.
C. If we could solve this problem soon, it would be better for all concerned.
D. If all concerned are better, we can solve this problem soon.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer for each of the
blanks from 6 to 15
In addition to the challenge to be excellent, American schools have been facing novel problems. They
must ...(6)... with an influx of immigrant children, many of whom speak little or no English. They must respond
to demands ...(7)... the curriculum reflect the various cultures of all children. Schools must make sure that
students develop ...(8)... skills for the job market, and they must consider the needs of non-traditional students,
such as teenage mothers.
Schools are ...(9)... these problems in ways that reflect the diversity of the US educational system. They
are hiring or training large numbers of teachers of English ...(10)... a second language and, in some countries,
setting up bilingual schools. They are opening ...(11)... the traditional European-centered curriculum to embrace
material from American, Asian, and other cultures.
Schools are also teaching cognitive skills to the ...(12)... 40 percent of American students who do not go
on to higher education. In the ...(13)... of a recent report by the Commission on Achieving Necessary Skills,”A
strong back, the willingness to work, and a high school diploma were once all that was necessary to ...(14)... a
start in America. They are no longer. A well-developed mind, a continued willingness to learn and the ability to
put knowledge to work are the new keys ...(15)... the future of our young people, the success of our business,
and the economic well-being of the nation".
(Extracted from”Info USA", CD Version)
6. A. cope B. stay C. do D. fight
7. A. who B. whether C. what D. that
8. A. base B. basis C. basic D. basics
9. A. addressing B. discharging C. delivering D. distributing
10. A. like B. as C. with D. from
11 A. up B. into C. on D. for
12. A. nearly B. fairly C. slightly D. mostly
13 A. ways B. directions C. minds D. words
14 A. get B. make C. take D. bring
15 A. at B. to C. for D. in
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions
16. A lot of people stop smoking because they are afraid their heath will be affected and early death.
A. A lot of B. early death C. smoking D. are
17. A novel is a story long enough to fill a complete book, in that the characters and events are usually
imaginary.
A. are usually B. long enough C. complete D. that
18. The student must have her assessment form fill in by the examiner during the oral exam.
A. must have B. during C. fill in D. oral exam
19. Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas where many jobs
are found.
A. lack B. financial C. are found D. urban areas
20. It has been said that laser to be the most miraculous to cure patients.
A. that B. the most C. has been said D. to be
Marian Anderson's brilliant singing career began at age six when she sang spirituals at the Union Baptist
Church in her hometown of Philadelphia. She toured Europe in the 1920s, drawing vast acclaim. However,
15
when she returned to the United States she was still barred from performing on the American operatic stage.
After she was prevented from singing in Washington’s segregated Constitution Hall in 1939, Eleanor Roosevelt
intervened and arranged for Miss Anderson to perform at the Lincoln Memorial. A crowd of 75, 000 people
came to watch her sing before the Memorial. Marian Anderson's beautiful contralto voice broke down racial
barriers, showing white Americans that blacks had a profound contribution to make to America's cultural life.
Eventually, in 1955, she became the first African-American singer to perform at New York’s Metropolitan
Opera. In her many years of touring, she had to endure a racism that forced her to enter concert halls and hotels
through service entrances. Her grace under this stress showed a moral perseverance that paralleled that of the
famous Martin Luther King, Jr.
21. According to the passage, what did Marian Anderson have in common with Martin Luther King, Jr?
A. moral perseverance B. a clear strong voice
C. a performance at the Lincoln Memorial D. singing in church
22. What is NOT TRUE about Marian Anderson?
A. She was the first who performed at New York’s Metropolitan Opera in 1955.
B. She was a black singer.
C. Her singing career started after she was ten years old.
D. She had contralto voice.
23. The word”eventually" in the second paragraph could best be replaced by.......
A. at last B. in the long run C. recently D. sooner
24. We can conclude from the passage that Marian Anderson first toured Europe instead of the United States
because........
A. she was not allowed to perform in the United States
B. she was paid more in Europe
C. it was too expensive to tour in the United States
D. there were better operatic facilities in Europe
25. The word”barred" in line 3 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. overpowered B. purged C. released D. prohibited
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
26. Much progress on computers........since 1950.
A. has been made B. has done C. has been done D. has made
27. Core subjects in Vietnamese schools are......Maths, Literature and English.
A. made for B. made of C. made from D. made up of
28. If people drove more carefully, there.......so many accidents on the road.
A. aren’t B. would not be C. wouldn’t have been D. will not be
29. When he came to the counter to pay, he found that he had......cash......his credit card with him.
A. not - neither B. neither - nor C. both - and D. either - or
30. Scarcely had Jake.......the book report when Alan came in.
A. finish B. to finish C. finished D. finishing
31. Mexico City, .......has a population of over 10 million, is probably the fastest growing city in the world.
A. it B. there C. which D. B and C are correct
32. Not until I came home.....that I had lost everything.
A. I did realize B. I did realized C. I realized D. did I realize
33. Did he tell you.......?
A. where would be able to meet him B. we would be able to meet him where
C. where could we meet him D. where we would meet him
34. The picnic ________ because Peter has just had a traffic accident.
A. will cancel B. will be canceling C. will be cancelled D. will have cancelled
35. Education in Vietnam has improved since the government started a program of educational.......
A. resources B. reform C. system D. experience
36. Tom said that he.......his motorbike the day before.
A. had lost B. lost C. has lost D. lose
37. You should concentrate......what the interviewer is saying and make a real effort to answer all the questions.
A. in B. at C. to D. on
38. Lora:”Do you mind if I turn on the fan?" ~ Mary:”..........."
A. Not for me B. Never mind C. Not at all D. Not enough
39. ~ Jenny:”My first English test was not as good as I expected." ~ Thomas:”..........."
A. It’s OK, don’t worry! B. Good Heavens!
16
C. That’s brilliant enough. D. Never mind, better job next time.
40. I don't suppose you like pineapples, __?
A. do ! B. do you C. don't I D. don't you
41. -”Have you seen the place ................ the graduation ceremony will be held?"
-”Yes. It's big enough to hold 5, 000 people."
A. where B. in that C. is where that D. which
42. Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. essential B. informative C. delighted D. exciting
43. Human beings are constantly contaminating natural habitats of the wildlife.
A. protecting B. polluting C. destroying D. promoting
44. The City Of Hue is very famous for its Royal Tombs.
A. infamous B. popular C. little-known D. notorious
45. It was obvious to everyone that the child had been badly treated.
A. evident B. significant C. frank D. unclear
Mark the letter A , B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
46. A. carpet B. school C. contact D. facial
47. A. develops B. volumes C. laughs D. takes
48. A. visited B. decided C. handicapped D. wanted
49. A. definition B. humidity C. necessity D. incredible
50. A. disappear B. engineer C. education D. attachment
ĐỀ SỐ 06
1. A. marriage B. response C. maintain D. believe
2. A. obedient B. decision C. mischievous D. biologist
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
3. The marathon, first staged in 1896, ______ the legendary feat of a Greek soldier who carried news of victory
from the battle at Marathon to Athens.
A. commemorates B. commemorated C. was commemorated D. commemorating
4. Football is thought ___________ in the world.
A. to have played the most popular sport B. to be the most popular sport
C. to play the most popular sport D. to have been the most po pular sport
5. The number of unemployed people __________ recently.
A. is increasing B. has increased C. have increased D. increase
6. I believe that he was concerned __________ all those matters which his wife mentioned.
A. upon B. over C. above D. with
7. I ________ very well with my roommate now. We never have arguments.
A. carry on B. go on C. put on D. get on
8. Can you tell me who is responsible _____________ checking passports are?
A. to B. in C. for D. about
9. When my father was young, he ______ get up early to do the gardening.
A. used to B. was used to C. got used to D. use to
10. The preparation_________ by the time the guest_________
A. have finished- arrived B. had been finished- arrived
C. had finished-were arriving D. have been finished- were arrived
11. If she had known how awful this job was going to be, she __________ it.
A. wouldn't have accepted B. would have accepted
C. would accept D. wouldn't accept
12. Jack asked his sister ______.
17
A. where would she go the following day B. where you will go tomorrow
C. where you have gone tomorrow D. where she would go the following day
13. The mother told her son _______ so impolitely
A. didn't behave B. to behave C. not behave D. not to behave
14. Eugenie Clark has a wide __________ about cultures of many countries in the world
A. known B. knowing C. knowledge D. know
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in
the following questions
15. Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. arrive B. encounter C. happen D. clean
16. It was obvious to everyone that the child had been badly treated.
A. significant B. unclear C. evident D. frank
exchanges.
17. Anne:”Make yourself at home”. John:”_______”
A. That’s very kind of you. Thank you B. Thanks! The same to you!
C. Not at all. Don’t mention it D. Yes, can I help you?
18. Kate:”Thank you for the lovely present.” – Peter:”____________”
A. I’m pleased you like it B. Not at all C. Go ahead D. come on
19. A. carpet B. school C. facial D. contact
20. A. takes B. develops C. volumes D. laughs
questions.
21. The (A) basic elements of public-opinion research (B) are interviewers, questionnaires, (C) tabulating
equipment, (D) and to sample population.
22. She asked (A) why (B) did Mathew look (C) so embarrassed when he (D) saw Carole.
23. Higher education is very (A) importance to national (B) economies and it is also a source of trained and (C)
educated personnel for (D) the whole country
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Keeping your distance
Personal space is a term that refers (24) ………. the distance we like to keep between ourselves and other
people. When (25) …………. we do not know well gets too close we usually begin to feel uncomfortable. If a
business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most common response is to move (26) ………. Some
interesting (27) ……….. have been done in libraries. If strangers come too close, many people get up and leave
the building; others use different methods such as turning their back on the intruder. Living in cities has made
people develop new skills for dealing with situations where they are very close to strangers. Most people on
crowded trains try not to look at strangers; they avoid skin contact, and apologize if hands touch by mistake.
People use newspapers (28) …….. a barrier between themselves and other people, and if they do not have one,
they stare into the distance, making sure they are not looking into anyone’s eyes.
24. A. from B. about C. to D. for
25. A. people B. anyone C. someone D. nobody
26. A. up B. away C. on D. in
27. A. survey B. questionnaires C. research D. studies
28. A. like B. alike C. as D. such as
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the
following questions
29. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. divorced B. separated C. single D. married
30. In Western culture, it is polite to maintain eye contact during conversation.
A. irresponsible B. discourteous C. insecure D. informal
31. He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.
A. If only he had been able to finish his book.
18
B. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
C. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book.
32. The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
B. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
C. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
D. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
questions.
33. They believe a single gunman carried out the attack.
A. The attack’s is believed to have carried out a single gunman
B. A single gunman is believed to have carried out the attack
C. It is believed to be carried out the attack by a single gunman.
D. It is believed that the attack has been carried out by a single gunman.
34.”I'm sorry. I didn’t do the homework.” said the boy.
A. The boy admitted not doing the homework.
B. The boy said that he was sorry and he wouldn’t do the homework.
C. The boy denied not doing the homework.
D. The boy refused to do the homework.
35. You can stay in the flat for free as long as you pay the bills.
A. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free.
B. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat.
C. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it.
D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions below.
FAMILY LIFE IN THE UNITED STATES
Family life in the United States is changing. Fifty or sixty years ago, the wife was called a”housewife”.
She cleaned, cooked, and cared for the children. The husband earned the money for the family. He was usually
out working all day. He came home tired in the evening, so he did not do much housework. And he did not see
the children very much, except on weekends.
These days, however, more and more women work outside the home. They cannot stay with the children
all day. They, too, come home tired in the evening. They do not want to spend the evening cooking dinner and
cleaning up. They do not have time to clean the house and do the laundry. So who is going to do the
housework now? Who is going to take care of the children?
Many families solve the problem of housework by sharing it. In these families, the husband and wife
agree to do different jobs around the house, or they take turns doing each job. For example, the husband always
cooks dinner and the wife always does the laundry. Or the wife cooks dinner on some nights and the husband
cooks dinner on other nights.
Then there is the question of the children. In the past, many families got help with child care from
grandparents. Now families usually do not live near their relatives. The grandparents are often too far away to
help in a regular way. More often, parents have to pay for child care help. The help may be a babysitter or a
day-care center. The problem with t his kind of help is the high cost. It is possible only for couples with jobs
that pay well.
Parents may get another kind of help form the companies they work for. Many companies now let people
with children work part-time. That way, parents can spend mo re time with their children. Some husbands may
even stop working for a while to stay with the children. For these men there is a new word: they are
called”househusbands”. In the USA more and more men are becoming househusbands every year.
These changes in the home mean changes in the family. Fathers can learn to understand their children better,
and the children can get to know their fathers better. Husbands and wives may also find changes in their
marriage. They, too, may have a better understanding of each other.
36. Sixty years ago, most women ____________
A. went out to work B. had no children C. did not do much housework D. were housewives
37. Nowadays, there are __________.
A. more women going out to work than before B. more and more women staying with the children all day
C. more work outside the home than before D. more housewives than before
19
38. The word”laundry” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________
A. tidying up B. cooking and washing up
C. washing and ironing D. shopping
39. It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that__________.
A. couples with low-paid jobs can’t afford the cost of a babysitter or a day-care center
B. grandparents can help care the children in a regular way
C. all couples with jobs can pay for help from a babysitter or a day-care center
D. in the past, grandparents did not help the couples with child care
40. The word”they” in paragraph 5 refers to _______________
A. husbands who stop working to stay with the children
B. fathers who spend more time with their children
C. parents who work part-time
D. children who spend more time with fathers than mothers
41. The changes in the American home mentioned in this passage may ___________
A. help families B. not happen
C. cause problems for a marriage D. not change the children at all
42. This article is about ________
A. American men as househusbands B. housewives in America
C. how more American women are working D. how family life in America is changing
questions below.
Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than
speech. A little thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing secondary to language. Human
beings have been writing (as far as we can tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but they have
been talking for much longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings.
When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly. Even today
there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before we learn to
write; any human child who is not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to talk: a normal
human being cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to learn to write. In
the past many intelligent and useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and even today many who
speak languages with writing systems never learn to read or write, while some who learn the rudiments of those
skills do so only imperfectly.
To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter. One advantage
writing has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that any civilization must
have. Thus, if speaking makes us human, writing makes us civilized.
43. We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because ______.
A. writing is secondary to language
B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years
C. it has become very important in our culture
D. people have been writing since there have been human beings
44. The author of the passage argues that ______.
A. speech is more basic to language than writing
B. writing has become too important in today’s society
C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write
D. all languages should have a written form
45. According to the passage, writing ______.
A. is represented perfectly by speech B. represents speech, but not perfectly
C. developed from imperfect speech D. is imperfect, but less so than speech
46. Normal human beings ______.
A. learn to talk after learning to write B. learn t o write before learning to talk
C. learn to write and to talk at the same time D. learn to talk before learning to write
47. Learning to write is ______.
A. easy B. too difficult C. not easy D. very easy
48. In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of ______.
A. people who learn the rudiments of speech B. severely handicapped children
C. intelligent people who couldn’t write D. people who speak many languages
49. In the author’s judgment, ______.
20
A. writing has more advantages than speech
B. writing is more real than speech
C. speech is essential but writing has important benefits
D. speech conveys ideas less accurately than writing does
50. The word”advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means ______.
A.”rudiments” B.”skill” C.”domination” D.”benefit”
ĐỀ SỐ 07
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the words whose underlined parts differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions
1. A. tomorrow B. slowly C. below D. allow
2. A. roofs B. cloths C. books D. clothes
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the words having stress different from the other three in each of the
3. A. partnership B. romantic C. actually D. attitude
4. A. certain B. equal C. decide D. couple
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question
5. Where is Jimmy? - He is work. He is busy his monthly report.
A. in/ about B. to/ through C. at/with D. on/ for
6. Most children enjoy with their parents and siblings.
A. played B. play C. to play D. playing
7. It’s too late; you shouldn’t go. Don’t worry! We can for a night.
A. put you up B. put you through C. put you away D. put you aside
8. _______ nonverbal language is _______ important aspect of interpersonal communication.
A. - / am B. The / - C. A/ the D. The/ a
9. Tim asked Sarah English so far.
A. how long was she learning B. how long she has been learning
C. she had been learning how long D. how long she had been learning
10. John often says he boxing because it _______ a cruel sport.
A. had not liked/ was B. not liked/ had been C. does not like/ is D. did not like/ were
11. I do not think there is a real ________ between men and women at home as well as in our society.
A. attitude B. equality C. value D. measurement
12. Most of us would agree that physical ______ does not play a major part in how we react to the people we
meet.
A. attractiveness B. attract C. attractively D. attractive
13. You should ______ more attention to what your teacher explains.
A. make B. get C. set D. pay
14. I ________ there once a long time ago and back since.
A. have gone/ was B. went/ have not been C. go/ am not D. was going/ has not been
15. The more and positive you look, the better you will feel.
A. confident B. confide C. confident D. confidence
16. It’s hard work looking ________ three children all day.
A. after B. to C. up D. through
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
17. School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools.
A. depended B. paid C. required D. divided
18. Bill, come and give me a hand with cooking.
A. attempt B. prepare C. be busy D. help
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
19. We should keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being.
A. revealed B. frequented C. lively D. accessible
20. I didn’t think his comments were very appropriate at the time.
A. unsuitable B. right C. exact D. correct
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following
exchanges
21
21.”I like your coat, Helen.” -“ .”
A. Really, I’m not. B. Do you? C. I think so D. I’m sorry.
22.”What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” -“ “
A. You are telling a lie. B. I don’t like your saying
C. Thank you very much. I’m afraid D. Thank you for your compliment.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
23. Had the announcement been made earlier, more people would have attended the lecture.
A. The lecture was held so late that a few people attended it.
B. More people came late to the lecture because of the late announcement.
C. The late announcement helped make the lecture well- attended.
D. Few people came to the lecture because the announcement was not made earlier.
24. She raised her hand high so that she could attract the teacher’s attention.
A. Because her teacher attracted her, she raised her hand again.
B. Though she raised her hand high, she couldn’t attract her teacher’s attention.
C. To attract her teacher’s attention, she raised her hand high.
D. She had such a high raising of hand that she failed to attract her teacher’s attention.
25. Anyone who misses more than fifty percent of the classes deserves to fail.
A. Those who are absent more than half the time should fail.
B. Fifty percent of classes have failed the exams.
C. More than fifty percent is too much for one class.
D. People who fail must make up fifty percent of the class work.
Make the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentence in the
26. The old man is working in this factory. I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
A. The old man is working in this factory which I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
B. The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory.
C. The old man whose bicycle I borrowed yesterday is working in this factory.
D. The old man whom is working in this factory I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
27. Mary doesn’t like sports. Her brother doesn’t, either.
A. Neither Mary or her brother likes sports.
B. either Mary or her brother likes sports.
C. Neither Mary nor her brother likes sports.
D. both Mary and her brother like sports.
questions.
28. Body language is quiet and secret, but most powerful language of all.
A. Body language B. secret C. most D. of all
29. Stayed strong, family members have to be engaged in each other’s lives.
A. Stayed B. strong C. have D. be engaged
30. Once you can overcome your difficulty, the problem may well become a source of strengthen to your
marriage and your faith.
A. Once B. overcome C. may well become D. strengthen
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
In the western customs (31) _____ hands is the customary form of greeting, but in China a nod of the head or
(32) _____ bow is sufficient. Hugging and kissing when greeting are uncommon. Business cards are often (33)
_____ and yours should be printed in your own language and in Chinese. Also, it is more respectful to present
your card or a gift or -any other article using (34) _____ hands. The Chinese are (35) _____ applauders. You
may be greeted with group clapping, even by small children.
31. A. taking B. shaking C. grasping D. hugging
32. A. small B. bit C. slight D. heavy
33. A. exchanged B. changed C. transferred D. converted
34. A. pair B. couple C. double D. both
35. A. enthusiast B. enthusiastic C. enthusiasm D. enthusiastically
following question from 36 to 43.
22
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.
The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language,
communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through performance. A person
conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or
harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and
regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a
group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone
may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the participant’s tone
can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue,
anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are. usually discernible by the acute listener. Public
performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining
effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in
combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of
artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional
health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing,
or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that
person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener's
receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by
encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic
sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the
depressed.
36. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The function of the voice in performance
B. Communication styles
C. The connection between voice and personality
D. The production of speech
37. What does the author mean by staring that,”At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and feelings over
and above the words chosen"?
A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.
B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
38. The word”Here" in line 9 refers to……………
A. At interpersonal levels B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen
39. Why does the author mention”artistic, political, or pedagogic communication"?
A. As examples of public performance B. As examples of basic styles of communication
C. To contrast them to singing D. To introduce the idea of self-image
40. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's………
A. general physical health B. personality
C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality
41. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide…………
A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength
42. The word”drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to……………
A. frequently B. exactly C. severely D. easily
43. According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. Lethargy B. Depression C. Boredom D. Anger
following question from 44 to 50.
The rules of etiquette in American restaurants depend upon a number of factors the physical location of
the restaurant, e. g. , rural or urban; the type of restaurant, e.g., informal or formal; and certain standards that
are more universal. In other words, some standards 5 of etiquette vary significantly while other standards apply
almost anywhere. Learning the proper etiquette in a particular type of restaurant in a particular area may
sometimes require instruction, but more commonly it simply requires sensitivity and experience. For example,
while it is acceptable to read a magazine in a coffee shop, it is 10 inappropriate to do the same in a more
luxurious setting. And, if you are eating in a very rustic setting it may be fine to tuck your napkin into your
23
shirt, but if you are in a sophisticated urban restaurant this behavior would demonstrate a lack of manners. It is
safe to say, however, that in virtually every restaurant it is unacceptable 15 to indiscriminately throw your food
on the floor. The conclusion we can most likely draw from the above is that while the types and locations of
restaurants determine etiquette appropriate to them, some rules apply to all restaurants.
44. What topic is this passage primarily concerned?
A. instruction in proper etiquette B. rules of etiquette
C. variable and universal standards of etiquetteD. the importance of good manners
45. According to the passage, which of the following is a universal rule of etiquette?
A. reading a magazine at a coffee shop B. not throwing food on the floor
C. eating in rustic settings D. tucking a napkin in your shirt
46. According to the passage, requires sensitivity and experience?
A. learning the proper etiquette B. asking for instructions
C. knowing the type of restaurant D. knowing about an area
47. Which of the following words is most similar to the meaning of”rustic”?
A. urban B. unsophisticated C. agricultural D. ancient
48. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word”tuck” in line 11?
A. set B. put C. fold D. hold
49. The word”sophisticated” in line 12 could best be replaced by?
A. famous B. cultured C. expensive D. exclusive
50. What is the author’s main purpose in this passage?
A. to compare sophisticated and rustic restaurants
B. to assist people in learning sophisticated manners
C. to simplify rules of restaurant etiquette
D. to describe variations in restaurant manners
ĐỀ SỐ 08
questions
1. The soccer team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well
B. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
C. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match.
D. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
2. Lucy always reminds me of my youngest sister.
A. My youngest sister’s name is Lucy.
B. I always think of Lucy, my youngest sister.
C. Whenever I see Lucy, I think of my youngest sister.
D. It is Lucy who is my youngest sister.
3. They had such a fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
A. So fierce was their dog that nobody would visit them.
B. Their dog was fierce enough for anybody to visit them.
C. If their dog weren’t fierce, somebody would visit them.
D. So fierce a dog did they had that nobody would visit them.
4. They are my two sisters. They aren’t teachers like me.
A. They are my two sisters, that are teachers like me.
B. They are my two sisters, neither of whom are teachers like me.
C. They are my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me.
D. Unlike me, neither of my two sisters aren’t teachers.
5.”Why don’t you participate in the volunteer work in summer?" said Sophie.
A. Sophie suggested my participating in the volunteer work in summer.
B. Sophie made me participate in the volunteer work in summer.
C. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer.
D. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part
in each of the following questions
6. The students are advised to concentrate on their studying.
A. remember B. pay attention to C. be interested in D. resemble
24
7. In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.
A. mandatory B. superior C. beneficial D. constructive
8. Many people will be out of ________ if the factory is closed.
A. career B. job C. profession D. work
9. Neither Tom nor his brothers______ willing to help their mother with the housework.
A. is B. was C. are D. has been
10. Do you know the person _________ next to you in the evening class?
A. whose sitting B. whom sits C. sitting D. who sit
11. I can’t _________ of a word he is saying.
A. make sense B. grasp C. comprehend D. understand
12. Tony Blair is believed __________ for Liverpool last week.
A. having left B. to have left C. to leave D. leaving
13. _______ is increasing, which results from economic crisis.
A. Employment B. Unemployed C. Unemployment D. Employ
14. Tom:”_____” Mike:”I won’t say no!”
A. How are things with you, Mike? B. What about playing badminton this afternoon?
C. Mike, do you know where the scissors are? D. What’s your favorite, tea or coffee?
15. In the US the first stage of compulsory education _______ as elementary education.
A. to be generally known B. s generally known
C. generally known D. is generally knowing
16. It is vital to create a good impression ______ your interviewer.
A. on B. with C. at D. for
17. Geometry is the branch of mathematics _______ the properties of time, curves, shapes, and surfaces.
A. it is concerned with B. that concerned with C. concerned with D. its concerned are
18. We should make full use _____ the Internet as it is an endless source of information.
A. of B. in C. with D. from
19. Cindy:”Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary!" - Mary: -” ______________”
A. Never mention it. B. Thanks, Cindy. I had it done yesterday
C. Thanks, but I'm afraid. D. Yes, all right.
20. He didn’t know______ or stay until the end of the festival.
A. whether to go B. if that he should go C. to go D. if to go
21. If_____, the Xmas tree would look more impressive.
A. done carefully B. being done carefullyC. it were careful done D. it were to be carefully done
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
from 22 to 29.
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world's universities, came from
very inauspicious and humble beginning.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims landed at
Plymouth. Included in the Puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period were more than 100
graduates of England's prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these universities graduates in the
New Word were determined that their sons would have the same educational opportunities that they themselves
had had. Because of this support in the colony for an institution of higher learning, the General
Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds for a college in October of 1636 and early the following
year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this land was in an area called Newetowne, which was later
renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of the present-day university.
When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of Charlestowne,
died from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1, 700 pounds to the fledgling college. In spite of
the fact that only half of the bequest was actually paid, the General Court named the college after the minister
in appreciation for what he had done. The amount of the bequest may not have been large, particularly by
today's standard, but it was more than the General Court had found it necessary to appropriate in order to open
the college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that in
addition to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshmen class of four students.
Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire teaching staff consisted
of the president and three or four tutors.
22. The main idea of this passage is that ______________.
25
A. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts
B. What is today a great university started out small
C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university
D. Harvard is one of the world's most prestigious universities.
23. The passage indicates that Harvard is _______________
A. one of the oldest universities in the world B. the oldest university in the world
C. one of the oldest universities in America D. the oldest university in America
24. It can be inferred from the passage that the Puritans who traveled to the Massachusetts colony were ____
A. rather rich
B. Rather well educated
C. rather supportive of the English government
D. rather undemocratic
25. The pronoun”they" in the second paragraph refers to _______________
A. son B. university graduates
C. Oxford and Cambridge universities D. educational opportunities
26. The”pounds" in the second paragraph are probably ______________
A. units of money B. college students C. types of books D. school campuses
27. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A. What he died of B. Where he came from
C. Where he was buried D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard
28. The passage implies that __________________.
A. Someone else really served as president of Harvard before Henry Dunster
B. Henry Dunster was an ineffective president
C. Henry Dunster spent much of his time as president managing the Harvard faculty
D. The position of president of Harvard was not merely an administrative position in the early ears
29. The word”somewhat" in the last paragraph could best be replaced by _______
A. to and pro B. Back and forth C. side by side D. more or less
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress
in each of the following questions.
30. A. engineering B. economics C. recommend D. curriculum
31. A. economy B. certificate C. graduate D. semester
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
32. My mother (A) told me to (B) watch the milk and (C) don’t let it boil (D) over.
33. Fertilizer, (A) which is added to the soil to replace or (B) increase plant nutrients, (C) include animal and
green manure, fish and bone meal and (D) compost.
34. Foreign students who (A) are doing a decision (B) about which school (C) to attend may not know exactly
where (D) the choices are located.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
part in each of the following questions.
35. A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work
A. calm B. miserable C. responsive D. uncomfortable
36. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. Being courteous B. Being cheerful C. Being efficient D. Being late
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
from 37 to 43.
In early civilization, citizens were educated informally, usually within the family unit. Education meant
simply learning to live. As civilization became more complex, however, education became more formal,
structured, and comprehensive. Initial efforts of the ancient Chinese and Greek societies concentrated solely on
the education of males. The post-Babylonian Jews and Plato were exceptions to this pattern. Plato was
apparently the first significant advocate of the equality of the sexes. Women, in his ideal state, would have the
same rights and duties and the same educational opportunities as men. This aspect of Platonic philosophy,
however, had little or no effect on education for many centuries, and the concept of a liberal education for men
only, which had been espoused by Aristotle, prevailed.
In ancient Rome, the availability of an education was gradually extended to women, but they were taught
separately from men. The early Christians and medieval Europeans continued this trend, and single-sex schools
for the privileged through classes prevailed through the Reformation period. Gradually, however, education for
26
women, in a separate but equal basis to that provided for men, was becoming a clear responsibility of society.
Martin Luther appealed for civil support of schools for all children. Al the Council of Trent in the 16 th century,
the Roman Catholic Church encouraged the establishment of free primary schools for children of all classes.
The concept of universal primary education, regardless of sex, had been born, but it was still in the realm of the
single-sex school.
In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, co-education became a more widely applied principle of
educational philosophy. In Britain, Germany, and the Soviet Union the education of boys and girls in the same
classes became an accepted practice. Since World War II, Japan and the Scandinavian countries have also
adopted relatively universal co-educational systems. The greatest negative reaction to co-education has been
felt in the teaching systems of the Latin countries, where the sexes have usually been separated at both primary
and secondary levels, according to local conditions.
A number of studies have indicated that girls seem to perform better overall and in science in particular.
In single-sex classes, during the adolescent years, pressure to conform to stereotypical female gender roles may
disadvantage girls in traditionally male subjects, making them reluctant to volunteer for experimental work
while taking part in lessons. In Britain, academic league tables point to high standards achieved in girls’
schools. Some educationalists, therefore, suggest segregation of the sexes as a good thing, particularly in certain
areas, and a number of schools are experimenting with the idea.
37. Ancient education generally focused its efforts on __________.
A. young people only B. on male learners C. both sexes D. female learners
38. Education in early times was mostly aimed at __________.
A. teaching skills B. learning new lifestyles
C. learning to live D. imparting survival skills
39. The first to support the equality of the sexes was __________
A. the Chinese B. the Jews C. Plato D. the Greek
40. The word”informally” in this context mostly refers to an education occurring __________.
A. in a department B. in classrooms C. ability D. outside the school
41. When education first reached women, they were __________.
A. separated from men B. locked up in a place with men
C. deprived of opportunities D. isolated from a normal life
42. When the concept of universal primary education was introduced, education __________.
A. was intended for all the sexes B. was intended for all the sexes
C. was given free to all D. focused on imparting skills
43. Co-education was negatively responded to in __________.
A. conservative countries B. Japan
C. South American countries D. the Scandinavian countries
44. A. interview B. minute C. question D. suitable
45. A. expand B. vacancy C. applicant D. category
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word for each of the
blanks from 46 to 50.
Here are tips that help succeed in your job interview:
Always arrive early. If you do not know (46) _________ the organization is located, call for exact
directions (47) ____________ advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, parking, or unexpected events. If
you are running late, call right away and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5 - 10
minutes early. Give yourself the time to read your resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready
for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter with respect. Be (48) _________ to
everyone as soon as you walk in the door.
Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First (49) ____________ are
extremely important in the interview process. Women should (50)_________ wearing too much jewelry or
make up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. It is also important that you feel
comfortable. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think it is an
informal environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed if you are wearing a
tailored suit.
46. A. when B. why C. where D. that
47. A. with B. in C. on D. for
48. A. happy B. pleasant C. disappointed D. excited
27
49. A. attendances B. attentions C. impressions D. pressures
50. A. avoid B. suggest C. enjoy D. mind
ĐỀ SỐ 09
questions.
1. The (A) wooden fence (B) surrounded the factory is beginning (C) to fall down because of (D) the rain.
2. A turtle differs (A) from (B) other reptiles (C) in that its body is encased in a protective shell of (D) their
own.
3. (A) It is a good idea (B) to be careful in (C) buying or purchasing magazines from salespersons (D) who may
come to your door.
questions.
4. No one has seen Linda since the day of the party.
A. Linda has not been seen since the day of the party.
B. Linda is nowhere to be seen at the party.
C. The party is going on without Linda.
D. No one has seen Linda for ages.
5. He talked about nothing except the weather.
A. He talked about everything including weather.
B. His sole topic of conversation was the weather.
C. He had nothing to say about the weather.
D. He said he had no interest in the weather.
6. He doesn’t study hard, so he can fail the exam.
A. If he studies hard, he won’t fail the exam.
B. If he didn’t study hard, he wouldn’t fail the exam.
C. If he studied hard, he wouldn’t fail the exam.
D. If he hadn’t studied hard, he wouldn’t have failed the exam.
When you first apply for a job, you (7)…………. not succeed in getting it. It’s always a good (8)……………..
to ask them to explain to you what prevent you from beating the other candidates. Don’t complain about the
situation, but ask them to advise you (9)………………. what you can do better next time. Perhaps the
interviewer disapproved of or disagreed with something you said. Perhaps they just glanced at your application
and saw something that made it easy to choose between you and another candidate. Don’t regard it as a failure,
but recognize it as a chance to learn more. (10) ………………. you don’t worry too much about it and continue
to believe in yourself, you’ll eventually find the chance you’ve been waiting for. Then, your family and friends
will be able to (11)………….. you on your success.
7. A. might B. wouldn’t C. won’t D. must
8. A. means B. opinion C. idea D. method
9. A. about B. of C. over D. in
10. A. As far as B. By far C. So far D. As long as
11. A. encourage B. congratulate C. promote D. depend
12. Mrs. Mai:”……………………” -> Mr. Brown:”Thank you. We are proud of him.”
A. Your kid is naughty. B. Can we ask your child to take a photo?
C. Your child is just adorable. D. I can give your kid a lift to school.
13. Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center. And they are going to have
a date with each other later.
Laura:”Well, it’s getting late. May be we could get together sometime.” Ken:”………………………”
A. Nice to see back you. B. Take it easy.
C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call. D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning ti the underlined word(s) in each
off the following questions.
14. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. comparatively D. almost
15. From an airplane, the grasslands of the western prairie appear almost as uniform as a placid sea.
A. noisy B. calm C. seedy D. fake
28
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning ti the underlined word(s) in
each off the following questions.
16. The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.
A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed
17. In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.
A. Optional B. mandatory C. beneficial D. constructive
The three phases of human memory are the sensory memory, the short-term memory, and the long- term
memory. This devision of the memory into phases is based on the length of time of the memory.
Sensory memory is instantaneous memory. It is an image or memory that enters your mind only for a short
period of time; it comes and goes in under a second. The memory will not last longer than that unless the
information enters the short-term memory.
Information can be held in the short-term memory for about twenty seconds or as long as you are actively using
it. If you repeat a fact to yourself, that fact will stay in your short-term memory as long as you keeprepeating it.
Once you stop repeating it, either it is forgotten or it moves into long term memory.
Long-term memory is the huge memory tank that can hold ideas and images for years and years. Information
can be added to your long-term memory when you actively try to put it there through memorization or when an
idea or image enters your mind on its own.
18. The best title for this passage would be……………………
A. The difference between sensory and short-term memory.
B. How long it takes to memorize.
C. The stages of human memory.
D. Human phases.
19. The three phases of memory discussed in the 29assage are differentiated according to……………
A. The location in the brain
B. The period of time it takes to remember something
C. How the senses are involved in the memory.
D. How long the memory lasts.
20. The expression”is based on” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by…………….
A. Is on the top of B. is at the foot of C. depends on D. is below
21. According to the passage, which type of memory is the shortest?
A. Sensory memory B. Active memory C. Short-term memory D. Long-term memory
22. According to the passage, when will information stay in your short-term memory?
A. For as long as twenty minutes B. As long as it is being used.
C. After you have repeated it many times. D. When it has moved into long-term memory.
23. All of the following are TRUE about long – term memory EXCEPT that…………………
A. it has a very large capacity.
B. it can hold information.
C. it is posIible to put information into it through memorization.
D. memorization is the only way that information can get there.
24. He expression”on its own” in the last sentence can be best replaced by”……………………..”
A. by itself B. in it own time C. with its possessions D. in only one way
25. It can be inferred from the passage that if a person remembers a piece of information for two days, this is
probably………
A. three phases of memory B. the sensory memory
C. the short-term memory D. the long-term memory
Mark the letter A, B, C , or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
26. Not only………………. The exam but she also got a scholarship.
A. did she pass B. she passed C. she has passed D. has she passed
27. He was the first person……………. The room.
A. entering B. to enter C. to be enter D. having entered
28. Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep…with rapidly changing technology.
A. speed B. time C. fast D. pace
29. The climate of China is similar in many ways to…………………
A. that of the United States B. which of the United States
C. the United States D. this of the United States
29
30. Western women are more ……………… than Asian women.
A. depend B. independent C. independently D. dependence
31. The twins look so much alike that no one can……………them……………
A. take/ apart B. tell/ away C. tell/ apart D. take/ on
32. The teacher always…………. That the students make an outline before writing a complete essay.
A. reports B. recommends C. tells D. says
33. I have no patience with gossips. What I told Bill was a secret. He………………it to you.
A. mustn’t read B. shouldn’t have repeated
C. mustn’t have repeated D. shouldn’t read
34. ……………….. he was kidnapped by the Iraqi guerrillas yesterday has been confirmed.
A. That B. What C. If D. Unless
35. Air pollution poses a……………….. to both human health and our environment.
A. jeopardy B. difficulty C. problem D. threat
36. The people who……………the survey said that they had examined over 1, 000 accidents.
A. gave B. proceed C. set D. conducted
37. The teacher had some exercise……………. At home yesterday so that he can correct them today.
A. be done B. to be done C. being done D. done
questions
Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For
employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location
of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is
completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A recent
survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8, 7 million telecommuters. But although the
numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week
published”The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more
popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many
managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the
country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby
complicating the manager’s responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the
opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they
will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some
people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from
the office.
38. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. An overview of telecommuting. B. The failure of telecommuting.
C. The advantages of telecommuting. D. A definition of telecommuting.
39. How many Americans are involved in telecommuting?
A. More than predicted in Business Week. B. More than 8 million.
C. Fewer than last year. D. Fewer than estimated in USA Today.
40. The phrase”of no consequence” means…………………
A. of no use B. irrelevant C. of no good D. unimportant
41. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT……………
A. the opportunities for advancement. B. the different system of supervision.
C. the lack of interaction with a group. D. The work place is in the home.
42. The word”them” in the second paragraph refers to…………………..
A. telecommuters B. systems C. executives D. responsibilities
43. The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees
A. need regular interaction with their families.
B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
44. The word”reluctant” in the third paragraph can best be replaced by
A. opposite B. willing C. hesitant D. typical
30
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary
stress in each of the following questions
45. A. economics B. conquerable C. capability D. optimistic
46. A. enthusiastic B. durability C. civilization D. humanitarian
47. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window
A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air
48. The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice
B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice
D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.
49. A. thanked B. belonged C. cooked D. laughed
50. A. chemical B. approach C. achieve D. challenge
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1. A. subscribed B. launched C. inspired D. welcomed
2. A. sour B. hour C. pour D. flour
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
3. A. conserve B. achieve C. employ D. waver
4. A. perseverance B. application C. agriculture D. dedication
Mark the letter A, B C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
5. It is (A) recommended that (B) people (C) to take regular (D) exercise.
6. (A) More than ten students (B) have failed the exam, (C) that surprised (D) the class teacher.
7. The world is becoming more (A) industrialized and the number of animal (B) species that have become (C)
extinct (D) have increased.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
8. He is exhausted. He _______ around the whole afternoon trying to clean the house before the guests arrive.
A. has been running B. has run C. be running D. was running
9. Barack Obama was _______ President of _______ United States.
A. the/ the B. a/  C. the/  D. the/ an
10. John would like to specialize _______ computer science.
A. of B. to C. in D. at
11. _______ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. No longer has D. Not until had
12. Many young people in rural areas don’t want to spend their lives on the farm like their _______ parents. So
they leave their home villages to find well-paid jobs in the fast-growing industrial zones.
A. long-term B. up-to-date C. weather-beaten D. wide-ranging
13. If she had known how awful this job was going to be, she _______it.
A. would accept B. wouldn't accept C. wouldn't have accepted D. would have accepted
14. John asked me _______ that film the night before.
A. that I saw B. had I seen C. if I had seen D. if had I seen
15. Remember that things such as language, food and clothing are simply expressions of our cultural _____.
A. solidarity B. identity C. assimilation D. celebration
16. Waste paper can be used again after being _______.
A. produced B. recycled C. wasted D. preserved
17. -”Your parents must be proud of your results at school”. -”_______”
A. Sorry to hear that B. Thanks. It’s certainly encouraging
C. Of course D. I am glad you like it.
31
18. The government is aiming _______ 50 % reduction _______ unemployment.
A. to/in B. at/in C. at/of D. for/of
19. No one enjoys _______ in public.
A. being made fun of B. to be made fun of C. making fun of D. to make fun of
questions.
20. John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the way to the
post-office. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- John:”Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?” - Passer-by:”_______”
A. Not way, sorry. B. Just round the corner over there
C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here.
21. Lora has just bought a new skirt that she likes very much. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the
blank in the following exchange.
- Jane:”You look great in that red skirt, Lora!” - Lora:”_______”
A. No, I don't think so. B. Oh, you don't like it, do you?
C. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s. D. Thanks, my mum bought it.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
22. I’m becoming increasingly absent-minded. Last week, I locked myself out of my house twice.
A. being considerate of things B. remembering to do right things
C. forgetful of one’s past D. often forgetting things
23. Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. Informative B. delighted C. exciting D. essential
24. Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do.
A. interested B. dissatisfied C. excited D. shocked
25. I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
A. gently B. cleverly C. reasonably D. brutally
Mark the letter A, B C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
26. However old and worn his clothes were, they look clean and of good quality.
A. His clothes looked clean and of good quality but they were old and worn.
B. His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality.
C. He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good quality.
D. No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn.
27. In spite of his poverty, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause.
A. He could not devote his life to the revolutionary cause because of his poverty.
B. If he had not been so poor, he could have devoted his life to the revolutionary cause.
C. Poor as he was, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause.
D. He led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause, but he was so poor.
28. I thought I should not stay at home yesterday.
A. I regretted staying at home yesterday. B. I regretted for staying at home yesterday.
C. I regret for staying at home yesterday. D. I regret to stay at home yesterday.
Mark the letter A, B C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions
29. People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in the park.
A. People should either throw rubbish in the park or cut down the trees in the park.
B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
C. People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
D. People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park
30. Most of the classmates couldn't come. He invited them to the birthday party.
A. Most of the classmates he invited to the birthday party couldn't come.
B. Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn't come.
C. Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn't come.
D. Most of the classmates which he invited to the birthday party couldn't come.
32
fits each of the numbered blanks from 31to 35.
In Germany, it's important to be serious in a work situation. They don't mix work and play so you
shouldn't make jokes (31) _______ you do in the UK and USA when you first meet people. They work in a
very organized way and prefer to do one thing at a time. They don't like· interruptions or (32)_______ changes
of schedule. Punctuality is very important so you should arrive on time for appointments. At meeting, it's
important to follow the agenda and not interrupt (33) _______ speaker. If you give a presentation, you should
focus (34) _______ facts and technical information and the quality of your company's products. You should
also prepare well, as they may ask a lot of questions. Colleagues normally use the family names, and title - for
example 'Doctor' or 'Professor', so you shouldn't use first names (35) _______ a person asks you to.
31. A. while B. as if C. such as D. as
32. A. sudden B. suddenly C. abruptly D. promptly
33. A. other B. others C. another D. the other
34. A. on B. to C. at D. in
35. A. if only B. as C. unless D. since
questions.
For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for
people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people
often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits.
One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which
humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide
that a typical car emits in 11, 000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted
what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb
much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass.
Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than
surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for
buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit
from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space:
rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been
planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require
complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of
a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work.
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without
taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with
nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the
summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce
cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so
quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for
city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something
everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.
36. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following word
groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume
37. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that _______.
A. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
B. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
38. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between
parks and rooftop gardens?
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.
C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
33
39. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except _______.
A. increased space for private relaxation B. savings on heating and cooling costs
C. better food for city dwellers D. improved air quality
40. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they _______.
A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect
B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land
D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
41. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as _______
A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative
42. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that _______.
A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens
B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer
questions.
One of the most interesting authors of the twentieth century, J.R.R Tolkien, achieved fame through his
highly inventive trilogy, The Lord of the Rings. Born in 1892, Tolkien received his education from Oxford and
then served in World War I. After the war, he became a professor of Anglo -Saxon and English language and
literature at Oxford University.
Although published in 1965, the three books that comprise the Lord of the Rings were written in intervals
from 1936 to 1949. This was mainly due to Tolkien's responsibilities as a professor and the outbreak of World
War II. By the late 1960s, this fascinating trilogy had become a sociological phenomenon as young people
intently studied the mythology and legends created by Tolkien.
The trilogy is remarkable not only for its highly developed account of historical fiction but also its
success as a modern heroic epic. The main plot describes the struggle between good and evil kingdom as they
try to acquire a magic ring that has the power to rule the world. The novels, which are set in a time called
Middle Earth, describe a detailed fantasy world. Established before humans populated the Earth, Middle Earth
was inhabited by good and evil creatures such as hobbits, elves, monsters, wizards, and some humans. The
characters and the setting of Middle Earth were modeled after mythological stories from Greece and Northern
Europe.
Although readers have scrutinized the texts for inner meaning and have tried to connect the trilogy with
Tolkien's real life experiences in England during World War II, he denied the connection. He claims that the
story began in his years as an undergraduate student and grew out of his desire to create mythology and legends
about elves and their language. Tolkien was a masterful fantasy novelist who used his extensive knowledge of
folklore to create a body of work that is still read and enjoyed throughout the world today.
43. What can we assume is NOT true about Middle Earth?
A. Middle Earth was based on European folktales
B. Middle Earth was a fictional world
C. The good and evil kingdom fought for the power
D. People dominated Middle Earth
44. The word”scrutinized" in the fourth paragraph could be replaced by_______.
A. examined B. denied C. enjoyed D. criticized
45. What does this paragraph mainly discuss?
A. J.R.R Tolkien's work as a professor B. All of J.R.R Tolkien's fantasy books
C. J.R.R Tolkien and his trilogy D. The popularity of J.R R Tolkien
46. According to the passage, when did”the Lord of the Rings" trilogy become popular with young people?
A. In the late 1960s B. After World War II C. In 1892 D. Between 1936 and 1946
47. When did Tolkien begin to create this trilogy?
A. When he was a student B. During World War I
C. When he was a professor D. During World War II
48. What does the word”trilogy" in the first paragraph mean?
A. A specific type of fantasy novel B. A long novel
C. A group of three literary books D. An unrelated group of books
49. What is the setting of Tolkien's trilogy?
A. Modern - day Greece B. England in the 1800's
34
C. Oxford University D. Middle Earth
50. The word”fascinating" in the second paragraph could be replaced by _______.
A. thrilling B. extremely interesting
C. boring D. terrifying
ĐỀ SỐ 11
1. A. laughed B. sacrificed C. cooked D. explained
2. A. airports B. ways C. questions D. pictures
3. A. verbal B. signal C. common D. attract
4. A. historian B. certificate C. academic D. curriculum
questions.
5. Because (A) the highway system was built (B) 40 years ago , most of (C) the roads now need to repair (D)
6. Pointing in (A) someone is usually considered impolite (B) but it is acceptable when (C) a teacher wants to
get (D) someone’s attention in class.
7. If (A) a student takes a course (B) on Computer Science, it will take (C) him four years doing (D) the course.
8. Many applicants find a job interview__________if they are not well-prepared for it.
A. impressive B. stressful C. threatening D. time-consuming
9. He managed to win the race__________hurting his foot before the race.
A. in spite of B. despite of C. although D. because of
10. Hardly__________when the argument began.
A. when he arrived B. he had arrived C. than he arrived D. had he arrived
11. Housework is less tiring and boring thanks to the invention of__________devices.
A. environment-friendly B. time-consuming
C. labor-saving D. pollution-free
12. By the end of the 21st century, scientists__________a cure for the common cold.
A. will find B. will have found C. will be finding D. will have been finding
13. Last Sunday was __________that we took a drive in the country.
A. so beautiful day B. such a beautiful day C. so a beautiful day D. such beautiful day
14. Widespread forest destruction__________in this particular area.
A. must have seen B. ought to see C. could have seen D. can be seen
15. The greater the demand, __________the price.
A. the highest B. the high C. higher D. the higher
16. After twenty years collecting stamps, Mike__________interested in them.
A. is not longer B. no longer C. no longer is D. is no longer
17. He asked me __________.
A. since when I’m waiting B. how long I have been waiting
C. how long I had been waiting D. since when I waited
18. __________ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.
A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived
19. He still hasn’t really__________the death of his mother.
A. recovered B. got over C. cured D. treated
exchanges.
20. - Charles :”Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?” Lisa:”____________”
A. I’m sorry. I don’t know that. B. Not at all. Go ahead.
C. Not so bad. And you? D. That would be nice.
21. - John :”What kind of job would you like? - Tim :”__________”
A. All of them are B. I heard it was very good
C. Anything to do with computers D. Anytime after next week
35
22. He sounded panic-stricken on the phone.
A. terrified B. troubled C. happy D. disappointed
23. Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.
A. taking off B. setting up C. growing well D. closing down
questions.
26. It is possible that the fire in the ship was started by a bomb.
A. They say that a bomb started the fire in the ship.
B. The fire in the ship might have been started by a bomb.
C. It shall be said the fire in the ship had been started by a bomb.
D. The fire in the ship is known to have been started by a bomb.
27. Neil always forgets his wife’s birthday.
A. At no time Neil remembers his wife’s birthday.
B. Neil never remembers his wife’s birthday.
C. Neil sometimes remembers his wife’s birthday.
D. Neil remembers his wife’s birthday all the time.
28. If you practise harder you will have better results.
A. The harder you practise, the best results you will have.
B. The more hardly you practise, the better results you will have.
C. The hardest you practise, the most results you will have.
D. The harder you practise, the better results you will have.
29. A waitress served us. She was very impolite and impatient.
A. A waitress who served us , was very impolite and impatient.
B. A waitress which served us. , was very impolite and impatient.
C. A waitress who served us was very impolite and impatient.
D. A waitress whom served us , was very impolite and impatient.
30. She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.
A. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.
C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The (31)_________ class size is
twelve and the average is ten. We use modern methods (32)_________ teaching and learning, and the school
has a language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. You will only be successful in improving your
English; however, if you work hard and practise speaking English as much as you can. You will take a short
(33)_________ in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a (34)_________ at the most
suitable level.
The emphasis is on oral communication practice in a wide (35)_________ of situations at the advanced
knowledge. You will learn how to use language correctly and appropriately when you talk to native speakers. In
addition, you will develop such study skills as reading efficiently, writing articles and reports, and note-taking
from books and lectures.
31. A. maximum B. minimum C. small D. large
32. A. in B. of C. on D. for
33. A. test B. exam C. course D. lesson
34. A. form B. class C. grade D. course
35. A. variety B. amount C. number D. lot
36
Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D ti indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant
language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having
incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion off 1066. Until the
1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not expanded even as far as Wales,
Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two century, English began to spread around the
globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small
enclaves of English, speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities
proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two
thirds of the world's science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising,
media, international airport, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in
the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users
than any other language in the world.
36. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The number of non-native users of English.
B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an international language.
D. The use of English for science and technology.
37. In the first paragraph, the word”emerged" is closest in meaning to
A. appeared B. hailed C. frequented D. engaged
38. In the first paragraph, the word”elements" is closest in meaning to
A. declaration B. features C. curiosities D. customs
39. Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?____________.
A. In 1066 B. around 1350 C. before 1600 D. after 1600
40. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world except
____________.
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion
C. missionaries D. colonization
41. In the second paragraph, the word”stored" is closest in meaning to____________.
A. bought B. saved C. spent D. valued
42. According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English are there in the world
today? ___________.
A. a quarter million B. half a million C. 350 million D. 700 million
questions
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and
zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired
by the U. S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales
were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a
fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine
biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1, 000 printed sources.
She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always
realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how
much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food
supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical
industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings
were flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.
(Source: TOEFL Reading)
43. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work ______________.
A. as a researcher B. at college
C. at the U. S. Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer
44. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
A. oceanography B. zoology C. literature D. history
37
45. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of
A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45
46. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind ______________.
A. was outdated B. became more popular than her other books
C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies
47. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around
Us?
A. printed matter B. talks with experts C. a research expedition D. letters from scientists
48. The word”reckless” in line 11 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible
49. The word”flawed” in line 14 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive
50. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee
(lines 14-15)?
A. To provide an example of government propaganda.
B. To support Carson’s ideas.
C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment.
D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims.
ĐỀ SỐ 12
1: A. forged B. appalled C. composed D. noticed
2: A. resort B. aisle C. hesitate D. desert
3: A. struggle B. survive C. enlarge D.occur
4: A. conceal B. contain C. conserve D. conquer
5: Some major causes of ocean pollution include oil spills, toxic waste and hazardous materials _____ into the
ocean.
A. that dumped B. dumped C. which dump D. are dumped
6: All of us should be aware of that internet is very useful for us but it also has lots of disadvantages so while
______ the web be alert!
A. surfing B. surf C. surfed D. to surf
7: Eating organically grown food is a clear, intelligent, delicious choice. ______, finding and affording only
organic food is sometimes tough.
A. Although B. However C. So D. Regarding
8: Mr. Pike would scarcely keep track of his business by cell phone when he was in his one-month traveling,
____?
A. wouldn’t he B. didn’t he C. would he D. did he
9: But for the fact that I had owed him a favor, I _______ to help him.
A. would have agree B. wouldn’t have agreed
C. couldn’t agree D. would agree
10: People become contaminated ______ directly from household products _____ by eating contaminated
seafood and animal fats.
A. either … or B. neither … nor C. either … nor D. neither … or
11: Total weight of all the ants in the world is much greater than ______.
A. is of all human beings B. that of all human beings
C. to all human beings D. all human beings is that
12: Harry Potter books, which____by J. K. Rowling, are very popular with children around the world.
A. will write B. wrote C. were written D. will be written
13: Jack was wearing blue jeans and a torn T-shirt, while all other guests had on formal dinner wear. He really
_____.
A. stood out B. stayed out C. came out D. look out
14: A man chosen from the university was told to ______a copy and keep the original in the safe.
A. complicate B. sophisticate C. contemplate D. duplicate
38
15: Pokémon Go is ______ this season’s hit game. But we’re just over a month out, so it’s too soon to know
exactly how Pokémon Go is faring in the longer term.
A. unquestionable B. questionable C. unquestionably D. questionably
16: The sandwich was bought a week ago; I don’t think it is ______ now.
A. editable B. efficient C. edible D. effective
exchanges
17: Mike and Lane are university students. They are talking about Lane’s upcoming high-school reunion.
Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Mike:” So, you have your fifth high-school reunion coming up?” Lane:” ”
A. Oh, the school reunion was wonderful. B. The food at the reunion was excellent.
C. Yeah. I’m really looking forward to it. D. No. You’re in no mood for the event.
18: Ken and Tom are high-school students. They are discussing where their study group will meet. Select the
most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Ken:” Where is our study group going to meet next weekend?” Tom:”_ ”
A. We are too busy on weekdays. B. The library would be best.C. Why don’t you look at the
atlas?D. Studying in a group is great fun.
19: The team wasn’t playing well, so the coach took the bull by the horns and sacked several senior players.
A. made the right decision B. made the wrong decision
C. made a bold decision D. made a final decision
20: The girl’s distant and haughty behavior made people forget just how talented she was.
A. magnanimous B. genuine C. elegant D. arrogant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined
21: His extravagant ideas were never brought to fruition.
A. impressive B. exaggerated C. unacceptable D. practical
22: This shouldn’t be too taxing for you.
A. comfortable B. demanding C. easy D. relaxing
questions.
23: Your trip (A) to Dalat (B) sounds absolutely (C) fascinated. I’d love to go (D) there.
24: (A) Several people have (B) apparent tried to change the man’s (C) mind, but he refuses to (D) listen.
25: The number (A) of homeless people in Nepal (B) have increased sharply (C) due to the recent (D) severe
earthquake.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the followng
questions.
26: No one in our club can speak English as fluently as Mai.
A. Mai speaks English the most fluently in our club
B. Mai speaks English as fluently as other people in our club.
C. Mai is the worst English speaker in our club.
D.. Mai speaks English more fluently than no one in our club.
27:”John lelf here an hour ago,” said Jane.
A. Jane told me that John had lelf there an hour before.
B. Jane said John lelf here an hour before.
C. Jane told John to have lelf there an hour before.
D. Jane told me that John to leave there an hour before.
28: As television programmes become more popular, they seem to get worse.
A. The more popular be come television programmes, the worse they seem.
B. The popular television programmes, the worse they seem.
C. The more popular television programmes become, the worse they seem.
D. The most popular television programmes become, the worst they seem.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the folloing
questions.
29: We’d better leave them a note. It’s possible they will arrive later.
A.If they arrive late, we’d better leave them a note.
39
B.We’d better leave them a note as they possibly arrive later.
C.They will probly arrive later so that we’d better leave them a note.
D.We’d better leave them a note in case they arrive later.
30:Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the past.
A. In the past, women cover their heads but they do so today in some countries.
B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in th past.
C. Women still cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past.
D. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past.
The Sahara is a vast region that extends across parts of ten countries in Northern Africa .The mane Sahara
comes from the Arabic . . . . (31). . . . . for”desert”. It stretches the entire . . . . (32) . . of the continent , from the
Atlantic Ocean in the west to the Red Sea in the east .In fact , the Sahara is almost as large as the United
States .In this great desert , . . . . . (33) . . . . temperatures can be scorching . The highest . . . . (34). . . . .
temperature ever recorded in Sahara in 1922 was 136 Fahrenheit (58 Celsius) .In winter , it can get chilly . . .
(35). . . . at nighttime for water to freeze .
31: A. speech B. phrase C. expression D. word
32. A. width B. wide C. widely D. widen
33. A. sunshine B. sunlight C. daytime D. daylight
34. A out B. outdoor C. outdoors D. outer
35. A. rich B. enough C. sufficient D. abundant
New surveys suggest that the technological tools we use to make our lives easier are killing our leisure
time. We are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter vacations (and when we do go away, we take our
cell phones, PDAs, and laptops along). And, we are more stressed than ever as increased use of e-mail, voice
mail, cell phones, and the Internet is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure.
Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices would free them
from the burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow intellectually, creatively, and socially –
exploring the arts, keeping up with current events, spending more time with friends and family, and even just
‘goofing off’.
But here we are at the start of the 21 st century, enjoying one of the greatest technological boom times in
human history, and nothing could be further from the truth. The very tools that were supposed to liberate us
have bound us to our work and study in ways that were inconceivable just a few years ago. It would seem that
technology almost never does what we expect.
In ‘the old days’, the lines between work and leisure time were markedly clearer. People left their offices
at a predictable time, were often completely disconnected from and out of touch with their jobs as they traveled
to and from work, and were off-duty once they were home. That is no longer true. In today’s highly competitive
job market, employers demand increased productivity, expecting workers to put in longer hours and to keep in
touch almost constantly via fax, cell phones, e-mail, or other communications devices. As a result, employees
feel the need to check in on what is going on at the office, even on days off. They feel pressured to work after
hours just to catch up on everything they have to do. Workers work harder and longer, change their work tasks
more frequently, and have more and more reasons to worry about job security.
Bosses, colleagues, family members, lovers, and friends expect instant responses to voice mail and e-mail
messages. Even college students have become bound to their desks by an environment in which faculty, friends,
and other members of the college community increasingly do their work online. Studies of time spent on instant
messaging services would probably show staggering use.
This is not what technology was supposed to be doing for us. New technologies, from genetic research to
the Internet, offer all sorts of benefits and opportunities. But, when new tools make life more difficult and
stressful rather than easier and more meaningful – and we are, as a society, barely conscious of it – then
something has gone seriously awry, both with our expectations for technology and our understanding of how it
should benefit us.
From”Summit 1” by Joan Saslow & Allen Ascher
36: According to the first three paragraphs, technological tools that were designed to make our lives
easier______.
A. have brought us complete happiness B. have fully met our expectations
C. have not interfered with our privacy D. have turned out to do us more harm than good
40
37 Which of the following is NOT true about technological tools, according to new surveys?
A. They make our life more stressful. B. They bring more leisure to our life.
C. They are used even during vacations. D. They are being increasingly used.
38: The word”inconceivable” in the passage is closest in meaning to”______”.
A. unforgettable B. unimaginable C. predictable D. foreseeable
39: It can be inferred from the fourth paragraph that______.
A. it is compulsory that employees go to the office, even on days off
B. employees have more freedom to decide what time they start and finish work
C. employers are more demanding and have efficient means to monitor employees
D. life is more relaxing with cell phones and other technological devices
40: The word”They” in the fourth paragraph refers to______.
A. employers B. employees C. workers D. tasks
41: This passage has probably been taken from______.
A. a science review B. a political journal C. an advertisement D. a fashion magazine
42: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Expectations and Plain Reality B. Benefits of Technology
C. Research on the Roles of Computers D. Changes at the Workplace
Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of
globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over
globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages can grow
while its problems can be solved.
On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international trade and
investment, allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently and giving consumers greater freedom of choice.
With free-market globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from the rich countries to the
developing countries. Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because reduced taxes make goods
produced at low cost from faraway places cheaper to buy. Producers of goods gain by selling to a wider market.
More competition keeps sellers on their toes and allows ideas and new technology to spread and benefit others.
On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty,
inequality, social conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most developed
nations – the United States, Germany, and Japan – succeeded not because of free trade but because of
protectionism and subsidies. They argue that the more recently successful economies of South Korea, Taiwan,
and China all had strong state-led development strategies that did not follow neo-liberalism. These critics think
that government encouragement of”infant industries” – that is, industries that are just beginning to develop –
enables a country to become internationally competitive.
Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of
money from speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by the
rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the economy
cannot sustain such expectation, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out of the country.
Protests by what is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed against globalization itself
but rather against abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The question raised by
nongovernmental organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization will result
in a rise of living standards or a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living standards
and undermining environmental regulations.
One of the key problems of the 21 st century will be determining to what extent markets should be
regulated to promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on a global scale.
From”Globalization” by Tabb, William K., Microsoft ® Student 2009 [DVD]
43: It is stated in the passage that ______.
A. the protests of globalization are directed against globalization itself
B. the United States, Germany, and Japan succeeded in helping infant industries
C. suppoters of globalization stress the benefits of removing trade barriers
D. critics of globalization say that the successful economies are all in Asia
44: Supporters of free-market globalization point out that ______.
A. consumers can benefit from cheaper products
B.there will be less competition among producers
C. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased
41
D. investment will be allocated only to rich countries
45: The word”allocated” in the passage mostly means”_____”.
A. removed B. solved C. offered D. distributed
46: The phrase”keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means”_____”.
A. makes sellers responsive to any changes B. allows sellers to stand on their own feet
C. forces sellers to go bare-footed D. prevents sellers from selling
new products
47: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich because of ____.
A. their neo-liberal policies B. their help to developing countries
C. their prevention of bubbles D. their protectionism and subsidies
48: Infant industries mentioned in the passage are _____.
A. successful economies B. young companies
C. development strategies D. young industries
49: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed.
B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization.
C. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies.
D. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety.
50: The debate over globalization is about how_____.
A. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries
C. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization
B. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community
D. to terminate globalization in its entirely
ĐỀ SỐ 13
1. A. formed B. naked C. recorded D. trusted
2. A. busy B. answer C. person D. basic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose stress differs from the other three in pronunciation
3. A. generation B. situation C. education D. examination
4. A. approach B. leftovers C. supportive D. biologist
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.
5. The (A) shopkeeper warned the boys don't (B) learn their (C) bicycles against (D) his windows.
6. The (A) people who they (B) hadn't seen the weather forecast were (C) caught unaware (D) by the hurricane.
7. No longer satisfied (A) with the emphasis (B) of the Denishawn school, Martha has (C) moved to the staff of
(D) the Eastman school in 1925.
8. Ann's encouraging words gave me _________ to undertake the demanding task once again.
A. a point B. an incentive C. a resolution D. a target
9. I don’t suppose there is anyone there, _________?
A. do I B. isn't there C. is there D. don't I
10. He wanted to know whose car I had borrowed _________
A. the last evening B. last night C. yesterday evening D. the previous night
11. Are you taking_________ this semester?
A. house economics B. home economic C. house economic D. home economics
12. We should participate in the movements_________ the natural environment.
A. organizing to conserve B. organized to conserve
C. organized conserving D. which organize to conserve
13. He does not_________ his fellow-workers and there are often disagreements between them.
A. get on with B. put up with C. go on with D. take to
14. My mother _________ the responsibility for running the household.
A. bears B. runs C. holds D. takes
15. Sarah and I _________ reserved the rooms in the same hotel. She was really surprised to see me there.
A. intentionally B. practically C. coincidentally D. deliberately
16. Anna waved to us as a_________ that he saw us.
42
A. signal B. scene C. signature D. scenery
17. Not until Kentucky’s Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972_________
A. when was its full extent realized B. the realization of its full extent
C. was its full extent realized D. that its full extent was realized
18. Knocking on closed doors before entering can be a great way for children to practice _________ behaviors.
A. respecting B. respectful C. respected D. respective
19. My sister and her husband _________ over to my house for dinner tomorrow evening.
A. came B. come C. going to come D. are coming
exchanges.
20. John:” Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”
Laura:”________________.”
A. Of course not. You bet. B. There is no doubt about it.
C. Well, that’s very surprising D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea
21. Alice:”How about having a drive to the countryside this weekend?” Mary:”________________.”
A. That’s a good idea B. Not at all C. No, thanks D. Let’s go
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
22. The sales of drugs is controlled by law in most of countries
A. permitted B. restricted C. illegal D. binding
23. Gradually more children were sent to the class as their parents realized that the young teacher was trying
her best to help their poor kids.
A. Weakly B. Progressively C. Slowly D. Firstly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
A. reasonably B. gently C. brutally D. cleverly
25. About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but most, like the starfish and
crabs, live in the ocean.
A. with ribs B. without backbones C. without ribs D. with backbones
questions.
26. When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.
A. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
B. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.
C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
27.”It can't be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom.” said our manager.
A. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike.
B. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom.
C. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.
D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.
28. Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan. I spoke to him on the phone last night.
A. Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan to whom I spoke on the phone last night.
B. Mr. Smith, who is very interested in our plan, I spoke to on the phone last night.
C. Mr. Smith, who I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.
D. Mr. Smith, to whom I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines of each pair of sentences in the
29. You’d better take the keys. It’s possible I’ll come home late.
A. You’d better take the keys as I possibly come home late.
B. I’ll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys.
C. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys.
D. You’d better take the keys in case I come home late.
30. The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.
A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.
B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.
43
C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot.
D. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.
Read the passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.
In a small village in North Yorkshire, there is a big old farmhouse ______(31) three families live
together. Alice and George and their three children, Joe and Pam and their two children, and Sue and her baby
daughter. The adults divide up the work between them. George does the cooking, Joe and Sue do almost the
housework. Pam looks after the shopping and ______(32) the repairs, and Alice takes care of the garden.
Alice, George and Sue go out to work. Joe works at home ______(33) computer systems, and Pam, who is a
painter, looks after the baby during the day. Two of the children go to school in the village, but the three oldest
ones go by bus to the secondary school in the nearest town, ten miles away.
The three families get ______(34) well, and enjoy their way of life. There are a few difficulties, of course.
Their biggest worry at the moment is money- one of the cars needs replacing, and the roof needs some
expensive repairs. But this isn't too serious- the bank has agreed to a loan, which they expect to be able to pay
back in three years. And they all say they would much rather go on living in their old farmhouse ______(35)
move to a luxury flat in a big city.
31. A. that B. where C. in where D. which
32. A. does B. makes C. prepares D. fulfils
33. A. designs B. and design C. designing D. who designs
34. A. on B. off C. with D. in
35. A. then B. than C. to D. therefore
questions.
The Hindu cultural celebrates marriage as a pure and pristine rite enabling two individuals start their
journey of life together. It puts emphasis on the values of happiness, harmony and growth and could be traced
back from the Vedic times.
Months before the wedding ceremony, an engagement is held which is called”mangni". The couple is
blessed here with gifts, jewelry and clothes. Another important ritual is the”mehendi" which is a paste made
from the leaves of henna plant. It is the traditional art of adorning the hands and the feet of the bride with
mehendi and the name of the groom is also hidden in the design.
On the day of marriage, the couple exchanges garlands as a gesture of acceptance of one another and a
pledge to respect one another as partners which is known as”jaimala". This is followed by”kanyadaan", where
the father of the bride places her hand in the groom's hand requesting him to accept her as an equal partner.
Another ritual is the”havan" in which the couple invokes Agni, the god of Fire, to witness their
commitment to each other. Crushed sandalwood, herbs, sugar rice and oil are offered to the ceremonial fire.
The”gath bandhan" takes place where scarves of the bride and groom are tied together symbolizing their eternal
bonThis signifies their pledge before God to love each other and remain loyal. The couple then takes
four”mangal pheras" or walk around the ceremonial fire, representing four goals in life:”Dharma", religious and
moral duties;”Artha", prosperity;”Kama" earthly pleasures;”Moksha", spiritual salvation.
The couple also takes seven steps together to begin their journey, called the”saptapardi". Then the ritual
of”sindoor" takes place where the groom applies a small dot of vermilion, a red powder to the bride's forehead
and welcomes her as his partner for life. This signifies the completion of the marriage. The parents of the bride
and the groom then give their blessings,”ashirwad" to the newlywed couple as they touch the feet of their
parents.
36. What might be the most suitable title for this reading passage?
A. The Hindu culture B. The Hindu religion C. The Hindu wedding D. The Hindu tradition
37. What does the word magni stand for?
A. the wedding B. the paste made from the leave of one another
C. the engagement D. the gesture of acceptance of one another
38. What do the Hindu people think about marriage?
A. It is entirely a spiritual traditional ritual allowing two individuals to live together.
B. It is a belief in the growth of a family newly formed by two individuals.
C. It is a wish of happiness and harmony to come to two individuals.
D. It is just a living-together announcement of two individuals.
39. What can the word adorning be best replaced by?
A. decorating B. painting C. repairing D. dying
40. What can the word invokes be best replaced by?
A. tells B. says C. prays D. talks
44
41. Why does the couple exchange garlands?
A. to do a ritual
B. to show both their acceptance of and the swear to respect the partner.
C. to express their acceptance of one another and a wish of happiness.
D. to express their vow to respect each other for the whole life.
42. When is the wedding ceremony completed?
A. When the parents of the bride and the groom give their blessings to the couple.
B. When the couple touches their parents' feet.
C. When the couple makes seven steps together.
D. When the groom applies a small dot of vermillion of the bride's forehead.
questions.
A Japanese construction company plans to create a huge independent city-state, akin to the legendary
Atlantis, in the middle of the Pacific Ocean. The city, dubbed”Marinnation”, would have about one million
inhabitants, two airports, and possibly even a space port. Marinnation, if built, would be a separate country but
could serve as a home for international organisations such as the United Nations and the World Bank.
Aside from the many political and social problems that would have to be solved, the engineering task
envisaged is monumental. The initial stage requires the building of a circular dam eighteen miles in diameter
attached to the sea bed in a relatively shallow place in international waters. Then, several hundred powerful
pumps, operating for more than a year, would suck out the sea water from within the dam. When empty and
dry, the area would have a city constructed on it. The actual land would be about 300 feet below the sea level.
According to designers, the hardest task from an engineering point of view would be to ensure that the dam is
leak proof and earthquake proof.
If all goes well, it is hoped that Marinnation could be ready for habitation at the end of the second decade
of the twenty-first century. Whether anyone would want to live in such an isolated and artificial community,
however, will remain an open question until that time.
43. According to the text, Marrination, when built, will be a(an)__________ city.
A. underwater B. underground C. marine D. legendary
44. The word ‘akin’ in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by __________.
A. likely B. close C. next D. similar
45. Which of the following would NOT be a problem for the construction plan?
A. social B. political C. engineering D. financial
46. Which of the following is NOT true according to the text?
A. Marinnation would have about one million inhabitants.
B. Marinnation will be built in a deep place in the Pacific Ocean.
C. Marinnation will be located in the middle of the Pacific Ocean.
D. Marinnation could be served as home for international organisations.
47. The word ‘monumental’ in Paragraph 2 means __________.
A. important and difficult B. like a large monument
C. important and historic D. serving as a monument
48. The phrase ‘suck out’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. draw out B. dry up C. take out D. pull out
49. According to the text, people could come to live in the future city in the year __________.
A. 2002 B. 2012 C. 2010 D. 2020
50. What does the author imply in the last sentence of the passage?
A. People will ask an open question about living in Marinnation.
B. The construction of Marinnation could never be completed in time.
C. People might not want to live in an isolated and artificial community.
D. People will ask how they can live in such an isolated and artificial city.
ĐỀ SỐ 14
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the rest.
1. A. recite B. reconcile C. refund D. reproduce
2. A. pitch B. watch C. butcher D. architect
Mark the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
3. A. photography B. minority C. heroic D. amateur
4. A. power B. permission C. permanent D. carpe
45
5. A. comfortable B. uncontrollable C. politician D. practicalit
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences
6. They tell me about the film on TV last week.
A. when they watched B. which they watched it
C. which they watched D. whom they watched
7. It’s important to know about how developed countries have solved the urbanization problems an _______
some solutions to those in Viet Nam.
A. think B. advise C. expect D. propose
8. Each of the guests _________ a bunch of flowers.
A. are given B. is given C. were given D. give
9. Let’s go to the beach this weekend, _______?
A. do we B. shall we C. will we D. don’t we
10. John ___________ a book when I saw him.
A. is reading B. reading C. read D. was reading
11. It is recommended that he _______ this course
A. took B. takes C. take D. taking
12. John:”I didn’t pass my driving test.” - Anna:”_______!"
A. Better luck next time B. So poor
C. Congratulations D. That was nice of them
13. Japanese, Korean, Russian, Chinese, French and German will be taught at general schools in Hanoi and
HCM City before being _________ on a large scale throughout the country.
A. applied B. provided C. assessed D. investigated
14. Remember to take _______your shoes when you go into the temple.
A. up B. in C. with D. off
15. __________ you study harder, you won’t pass the examination.
A. Although B. Despite C. Unless D. If
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined words.
16. The conference is governed by its newly elected board.
A. watched B. chosen C. ruled D. advised
17. After a long lunch hour, business resumes as usual.
A. continues B. resurfaces C. delays D. responds
18. The people interviewed for the survey were randomly selected.
A. thoughtfully B. carefully C. indiscriminately D. carelessly
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
words.
19. It was necessary to divide the movie 'Roots' into five parts in order to show it on television.
A. adapt B. merge C. segment D. transact
20. With the final examinations coming very soon his anxiety was rising to almost unbearable limits.
A. joy B. confidence C. studying D. apprehension
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage:
LOOK ON THE BRIGHT SIDE
Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, some one who always (21)____ to be successful? Having
some one around who always fears the worst isn’t really a lot of (22)_____we all know someone who sees a
single cloud on a sunny day and says:”It looks like rain.” But if you catch yourself thinking such things, it’s
important to do something (23)_____ it. You can change your view of life, (24)_____ to psychologists, it only
takes a little effort, and you’ll find life more rewarding as a (25)______. Optimism, they say, is partly about
self-respect and confidence, but it’s also a more positive way of looking at life and all it has to offer . Optimists
are more (26)_______to start new projects and generally more prepared to take risks.
Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (27)_______ to the world. Some people are
brought up to (28)______too much on others and grow up forever blaming other people when anything goes
wrong. Most optimists, on the (29) _____hand, have been brought up not to regard failure as the end of the
world-they just (30)_____with their lives
21: A. waited B. counted C. expected D. felt
22: A. fun B. play C. enjoyment D. Amusement
23: A. about B. with C. over D. against
24: A. judging B. concerning C. according D. Following
25: A. product B. purpose C. reason D. result
46
26: A. possible B. hopeful C. likely D. Welcome
27: A. position B. opinion C. attitude D. view
28: A. depend B. believe C. trust D. hope
29: A. other B. far C. opposite D. next
30: A. get on B. get out C. get up D. get over
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences.
31. The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.
A. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.
B. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do.
C. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do.
D. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation.
32. It is expected that tax increases will be announced in tomorrow’s budget statement.
A. Tax increases are expected to be announced in tomorrow’s budget statement.
B. It is expected that people will announce in tomorrow budget tax increases.
C. In tomorrow’s budget statement tax increases are expected to announce.
D. Hope that they will announce tax increases in tomorrow’s budget statement.
33. Fiona has been typing the report for an hour.
A. It took Fiona an hour to type the report. B. It is an hour since Fiona started typing the report.
C. Fiona finished the report an hour ago. D. Fiona will finish typing the report in an hour.
34. I can’t do the test because it is too difficult.
A. If the test isn’t too difficult, I can do it. B. If the test weren’t too difficult, I could do it.
C. If the test weren’t too difficult, I can do it. D. If the test hadn’t been too difficult, I could do it.
35. The children couldn't go swimming because the sea was too rough.
A. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
B. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.
C. The sea was too rough to the children's swimming.
D. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.
Choose the option among A, B, C, D which needs correcting to make a complete sentence.
36. The exam to become (A) a lawyer is on (B) far the most (C) difficult he has (D) taken.
37. No one in our office wants (A) to drive to work because of (B) there are (C) always traffic jams at rush hour
(D).
38. Mrs. Stevens, along with (A) her cousins from (B) New Mexico, are (C) planning to attend (D) the
festivities.
39. The computer-based tests will test (A) your ability to understand spoken (B) English, to read nontechnical
language, and writing (C) correctly (D)
40. In 1960 (A) John F. Kennedy became (B) the youngest man ever (C) to elect (D) president of the US.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answers
It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In January
and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant hoot. The female is
larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to twenty-four inches, with a
wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He bobs. He bows. He
ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and makes flying
sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share the repast, after which she joins
the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of an inner drum. Owls are poor home
builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow.
These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes
owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow.
These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes
owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs.
Then she stoically settles herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious
charges from snow and cold. It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell.
As the young birds feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions.
They clamor for food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later
in the season baby crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey to the hungry
family. It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds
weary of family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own
41. What is the topic of this passage?
47
A. Mating rituals of great horned owls B. Raising a family of great horned owls
C. Habits of young great horned owls D. Nest building of great horned owls
42. The phrase”a resonant hoot" is closest in meaning to
A. a sound B. an offering of food C. an instrument D. a movement
43. It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls
A. happens in the fall B. takes place on the ground
C. involves the male alone D. is an active process
44. According to the passage, great horned owls
A. may inhabit a previously used nest B. are discriminate nest builders
C. need big nests for their numerous eggs D. build nests on tree limbs
45. According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl's job?
A. To build the nest B. To initiate the courtship ritual
C. To sit on the nest D. To feed the young
46. The phrase”precious charges" refers to
A. the hawks and crows B. other nesting owls C. the nest D. the eggs
47. According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT
A. insects B. other small birds C. small mammals D. nuts and seeds
48. The word”they" refers to
A. the adult birds B. the wise old men C. the prey D. the young birds
49. What can be inferred from the passage about the adult parents of the young great horned owls?
A. They are sorry to see their young leave home.
B. They probably don't see their young after November
C. They don't eat while they are feeding their young.
D. They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets.
50. The phrase”weary of" is closest in meaning to
A. become sad about B. support C. are attracted to D. tire of
ĐỀ SỐ 15
The warming of the Earth is caused by exhaust gas from automobile engines, fatories and power
(1)_________. Carbon dioxide goes up into the atmosphere, and it form a kind of screen that keeps or allows
the sunshine in but stop the Earth heart (2) _______ getting out. It works like a greenhouse, that’s why we call
(3) _________the Green House effect.
Because of this effect, the Earth is getting warmer all the time. This (4) _________in temperature will cause big
changes to the world’s climate. The sea level will increase as the ice (5) _________the poles will melt.
1: A. companies B. factories C. sites D. stations
2: A. from B. up C. against D. away
3. A. is B. be C. it D. them
4: A. raise B. rise C. drop D. fall
5: A. covering B. covers C. covered D. cover
of the following question.
6. It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player.
A. approximately B. comparatively C. nearly D. essentially
7. You have to be on your toes if you want to beat her.
A. pay all your attention to what you are doing B. upset her in what she is doing
C. get involved in what she is doing D. make her comply with your orders
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following question.
8: A. accurate B. account C. accept D. accuse
9: A. talks B. takes C. decides D. completes
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word having different stress from the others in each of the
10. A. rapidly B. comfortably C. fluently D. necessarily
11. A. politician B. genetics C. artificial D. controversial
48
questions
12. Foreign students who are (A) doing a decision (B) about which school (C) to attend may not know exactly
where (D) the choices are located.
13. (A) It is a good idea (B) to be careful in buying (C) or purchasing magazines (D) from salespersons who
may come to your door.
14. In (A) that age of computers, (B) it is difficult to imagine how tedious (C) work of accountants and clerks
must (D) have been in the past.
15. Since he failed his exam, he had to_________for it again.
A. pass B. make C. take D. sit
16. Is there_________at all I can help?
A. everything B. anything C. something D. one thing
17. Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as_________as possible.
A. economizing B. econimic C. economical D. economically
18. Only when you grow up, _________the truth.
A. you will know B. you know C. do you know D. will you know
19. My brother left his job last week because he did not have any_________to travel.
A. position B. chance C. ability D. location
20. John paid $2 for his meal, _________he had thought it would cost.
A. not as much B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as
21. It is very important for a film or a company to keep_________the changes in the market.
A. pace of B. track about C. touch with D. up with
22. I’m sure you’ll have no_________the exam.
A. difficulty passing B. difficulties to pass C. difficulty to pass D. difficulties of passing
23. I_________this letter around for days without looking at it.
A. carry B. must carry C. have been carrying D. am carrying
24. Vietnam’s rice export this year will decrease_________about 10%, compared with that of last year.
A. with B. at C. by D. on
25. I won’t change my mind_________what you say.
A. whether B. no matter C. because D. although
26. My car isn’t_________. It’s always letting me down.
A. believable B. reliable C. colorable D. conceivable
exchanges.
27. -”Has an annoucement been made about the eight o’clock flight to Paris?” “________”
A. Not yet B. Yes, it was C. I don’t think that D. Sorry, I don’t
28. -”I can speak English well enough to apply for that post.” “________”
A. Me neither B. Me too C. Me either D. Me also
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in the meaning to the underlined word(s) in
ecah of the following questions.
29. I’m sorry to say that it seems you’ve been shirking your responsibilities.
A. going along B. standing up to C. taking on D. refraining from
30. She gave an impeccable reading of the sonata and had the audience on their feet.
A. suspicious B. unqualified C. negative D. imperfect
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest inmeaning to each of the following
question.
31. I got the impression that the boys were not enjoying themselves.
A. The boys impressed me that they were not enjoying themselves.
B. The boys didn’t seem to be enjoying themselves.
C. The boys seemed not to enjoying themselves.
D. It seemed to me the boys were enjoying themselves.
32. The children ran to the field to see the dragon, but it was no longer there.
A. The dragon had gone by the time the children ran to the filed.
B. The dragon went by the time the children ran to the filed.
C. When the children ran to the filed, the dragon went.
D. The dragon had gone after the children ran to the filed.
49
33. The boy became so confused and worried that he left home.
A. The boy became too confused and worried to leave home.
B. So confued and worried that the boy left home.
C. So confused and worried, the boy left home.
D. The boy was not confused and worried enough to leave home.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
34. Sue lives in a house. The house is opposite my house.
A. Sue lives in a house where is opposite my house.
B. Sue lives in a house which is opposite my house.
C. Sue lives in a house who is opposite my house.
D. Sue lives in a house and which is opposite my house.
35. She turned the radio on at 7.30. She was still listening to it when her mother came home at 9.00.
A. She has been listening to the radio at 7.30.
B. She had been listening to the radio since 7.30.
C. She has been listening to the radio after 7.30.
D. She had been listening to the radio by 7.30.
Read the following passage and mark the letters A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a
substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank
among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer
greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a
varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has
begun to develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many
different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint
pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk,
eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if
these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also
tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium
glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red
wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods
(read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-
vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food
additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets.
36. The topic of this passage is______________.
A. reactions to foods B. food and nutrition C. infants and allergies D. a good diet
37. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to ______________.
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
D. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
38. The word”symptoms" is closest in meaning to______________.
A. indications B. diet C. diagnosis D. prescriptions
39. The phrase”set off" is closest in meaning to______________.
A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered
40. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
41. The word”hyperactive" is closest in meaning to______________.
A. overly active B. unusually low activity
C. excited D. inquisitive
42. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with
the infant's______________.
A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism
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C. underdeveloped intestinal tract D. inability to swallow solid foods
questions
The rapid transcontinentat settlement and these new urban industrial circumstances of the last half of the
19th century were accompanied by the development of national literature of great abundance and variety. New
themes, new forms, new subjects, new regions, new authors, new audiences all emerged in the literature of this
half century.
As a result, at the onset of World War I, the spirit and substance of American literature
had evolved remarkably, just as its center of production had shifted from Boston to New York in the late 1880s
and the sources of its energy to Chicago and the Midwest. No longer was it produced, at least in its popular
forms, in the main by solemn, typically moralistic men from New England and the Old South; no longer were
polite, well-dressed, grammatically correct, middle-class young people the only central characters in its
narratives; no longer were these narratives to be set in exotic places and remote times; no longer, indeed, were
fiction, poetry, drama, and formal history the chief acceptable forms of literary expression; no longer, finally,
was literature read primarily by young, middle class women.
In sum, American literature in these years fulfilled in considerable measure the condition Walt Whitman
called for in 1867 in describing Leaves of Grass: it treats, he said of his own major work, each state and region
as peers”and expands from them, and includes the world ... connecting an American citizen with the citizens of
all nations."
43. The main idea of this passage is________.
A. that the new American literature was less provincial than the old
B. that World War I caused a dramatic change in America
C. that centers of culture shifted from East to West
D. that most people were wary of the new literature
44. It can be inferred from the passage that the previous passage probably discussed________.
A. the importance of tradition to writers
B. new developments in industrialization and population shifts
C. the fashions and values of 19th century America
D. the limitations of American literature to this time
45. The word”evolved” in paragraph two is closest in meaning to________.
A. became famous B. turned back C. diminished D. changed
46. The word”it” in the second paragraph refers to________.
A. the population B. the energy C. American literature D. the manufacturing
47. The word”exotic" in paragraph two is closest in meaning to________.
A. urban B. unusual C. well-known D. old-fashioned
48. The author uses the word”indeed” in the second paragraph for what purpose?
A. To emphasize the contrast he is making. B. For variety in a lengthy paragraph.
C. To wind down his argument. D. To show a favorable attitude to these forms of
literature.
49. The phrase”these years” in the third paragraph refers to________.
A. 1850-1900 B. the 1900s C. the early 1800s D. the present
50. It can be inferred from the passage that Walt Whitman________.
A. disliked urban life B. was disapproving of the new literature
C. wrote Leaves of Grass D. was an international diplomat
ĐỀ SỐ 16
questions.
1. The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the rain.
A. is begining B. wooden C. surrounded D. because of
2. The amounts of oxygen and nitrogen in the air almost always remain stable, but the amount of water vapor
vary considerably.
A. vary B. almost always C. The amount of D. stable
3. Quinine, cinnnamon, and other useful substances are all derived of the bark of trees.
A. are B. bark of trees C. derived of D. other useful substances
51
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the contributions of
women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed United States. Lacking the right to
vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not considered an important force in history. Anne
Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the best
contemporary history of the American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing she
exercised great political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United States. But little
or no notice was taken of these contributions. During these centuries, women remained invisible in history
books.
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female authors
writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur historians. Their
writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection and use of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by keeping records of
activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local women's organizations compiled
accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper clippings, and souvenirs were saved and stored.
These sources from the core of the two greatest collections of women's history in the United States one at the
Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the Sophia Smith Collection at
Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable materials for later Generations of historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth Century, most of
the writing about women conformed to the”great women" theory of History, just as much of mainstream
American history concentrated on”great men." To demonstrate that women were making significant
contributions to American life, female authors singled out women leaders and wrote biographies, or else
important women produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life as
reformers, activists working for women's right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of the
great of ordinary woman. The lives of ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the American
histories being published.
4. In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of nineteenth - century”great
women" EXCEPT........
A. reformers B. politicians C. activists for women's rights D. authors
nd
5. The word”they" in the 2 paragraph refers to________
A. sources B. efforts C. authors D. counterparts
6. In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that ___
A. even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored
B. poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women
C. only three women were able to get their writing published
D. a woman's status was changed by marriage
7. The word”representative" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. satisfied B. typical C. distinctive D. supportive
nd
8. In the 2 paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point out
A. They were printed on poor-quality paper.
B. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.
C. They left out discussion of the influence of money on politics.
D. They put too much emphasis on daily activities.
9. What use was made of the nineteenth-century women's history materials in the Schlesinger Library and the
Sophia Smith Collection?
A. They provided valuable information for twentieth- century historical researchers.
B. They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth century.
C. They were shared among women's colleges throughout the United States.
D. They were combined and published in a multivolume encyclopedia.
A. The place of American women in written histories
B. The”great women" approach to history used by American historians
C. The keen sense of history shown by American women
D. The role of literature in early American histories
questions.
11. I would rather you wore something more formal to work.
A. I'd prefer you wearing something more formal to work.
52
B. I'd prefer you to wear something more formal to work.
C. I'd prefer you should wear something more formal to work.
D. I'd prefer you wear something more formal to work.
12. Had we left any later, we would have missed the train.
A. We didn't miss the train because it left late. B. We left too late to catch the train.
C. Because the train was late, we missed it. D. We almost missed the train.
13.”Why can't you do your work more carefully?" said Henry's boss.
A. Henry's boss asked him not to do his job with care.
B. Henry's boss criticized him for doing his job carelessly.
C. Henry's boss suggested doing the job more carefully.
D. Henry's boss warned him to to the job carefully.
pronunciation in each of the following questions
14. A. lives B. plays C. works D. buys
15. A. picked B. worked C. naked D. booked
16. He felt tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. He felt tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. As a result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
17. The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.
A. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday.
B. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday.
C. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months.
D. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.
18. A. cosmetics B. fertility C. experience D. economics
19. A. informality B. appropriate C. situation D. entertainment
questions from 20 to 27
It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an education.
Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The distinction
between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can
take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both
the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning. The agents of
education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio, from a child to a
distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises.
A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions.
People are engaged in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a
lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral part of
one's entire life.
Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from
one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take
assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of
reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government,
have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subject being taught. For example, high school students
know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities
or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the
formalized process of schooling.
20. In the passage, the expression”children interrupt their education to go to school" mostly implies that
A. schooling takes place everywhere B. schooling prevents people discovering things
C. all of life is an education D. education is totally ruined by schooling
21. What does the writer mean by saying”education quite often produces surprises"?
53
A. Educators often produce surprises. B. Informal learning often brings about unexpected result
C. Success of informal learning is predictable. D. It's surprising that we know little about other religions.
22. Which of the following would the writer support?
A. Without formal education, people won't be able to read and write.
B. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
C. Schooling is of no use because students do similar things every day
D. Our education system needs to be changed as soon as possible.
23. According to the passage, the doers of education are __________________
A. only respected grandparents B. mostly famous scientists
C. mainly politicians D. almost all people
24. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Education and schooling are quite different experience.
B. The more years students go to school, the better their education is.
C. The best schools teach a variety of subjects.
D. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.
25. The word”they" in the last paragraph refers to _________________________.
A. high school studentsB. newest filmmakers C. political problems D. workings of governments
26. The word”all-inclusive" in the passage mostly means ____________________
A. including everything or everyone B. going in many directions
C. involving many school subjects D. allowing no exceptions
27. This passage is mainly aimed at ________________________.
A. telling the difference between the meanings of two related words”schooling" and”education"
B. telling a story about excellent teachers
C. listing and discussing several educational problems
D. giving examples of different schools
28. When I mentioned the party, he was all ears.
A. using both ears B. partially deaf C. listening attentively D. listening neglectfully
29. John wants to buy a new car, so he starts setting aside a small part of his monthly earnings.
A. spending on B. putting out C. using up D. saving up
fits each of the numbered blanks from 30 to 34
HOW TO AVOID MISCOMMUNICATION IN THE WORKPLACE
As a small-business owner, you can avoid many problems simply by improving communication in your office.
By clarifying everyone's expectations and roles, you'll help to (30) ______greater trust and increased
productivity among employees. Here are a few tips for doing so.
Practice active listening. The art of active listening includes (31)______ close attention to what another person
is saying, then paraphrasing what you've heard and repeating it back. Concentrate (32)______ the conversation
at hand and avoid unwanted interruptions (cell phone calls, others walking into your office, etc.). Take note of
how your own experience and values may color your perception.
Pay attention to non-verbal cues. We don't communicate with words alone. Every conversation comes with a
host of non-verbal cues - facial expressions, body language, etc. - that may (33)_______ contradict what we're
saying. Before addressing a staff member or (34)_______ a project conference, think carefully about your tone
of voice, how you make eye contact, and what your body is”saying." Be consistent throughout.
Be clear and to the point. Don't cloud instructions or requests with irrelevant details, such as problems with past
projects or issues with long-departed personnel. State what you need and what you expect. Ask,”Does anyone
have any questions?" Demonstrate that you prefer questions up-front as opposed to misinterpretation later on.
30. A. set up B. establish C. create D. build
31. A. showing B. paying C. using D. spending
32. A. for B. to C. on D. in
33. A. intentional B. unintentional C. intentionally D. unintentionally
34. A. to lead B. being led C. leading D. lead
35. He was offered the job thanks to his ________performance during his job interview.
A. impressive B. impressively C. impression D. impress
36. Someone who is _______ is hopeful about the future or the success of something in particular.
54
A. pessimist B. optimistic C. optimist D. pessimistic
37. The preparations _______ by the time the guests ________.
A. have finished / arrived B. have been finished / arrived
C. had been finished / arrived D. had finished / arrived
38. As an _______, Mr. Pike is very worried about the increasing of teenager crimes.
A. educational B. education C. educator D. educate
39. ________turned out to be true.
A. Everything she had told us which B. Everything where she had told us
C. Everything she had told us D. That everything she told us
40. You'd better get someone__________your living room.
A. redecorated B. to redecorate C. redecorating. D. redecorate
41. Can you take _______ of the shop while Mr. Green is away?
A. operation B. charge C. management D. running
42. They held a party to congratulate their son _____ his success to become an engineer.
A. in B. on C. with D. for
43. They always kept on good __ with their next-door neighbors for the children's sake.
A. terms B. relations C. will D. relationship
44. They had invited over one hundred guests, ________.
A. not any of whom I knew B. I did not know any of whom
C. I knew none of who D. none of whom I knew
45. Please _________ and see us when you have time. You are always welcome.
A. come away B. come to C. come in D. come round
46. Not only _________ to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil.
A. seismology is used B. is seismology used C. using seismology D. to use seismology
exchanges.
47.”What a great hair cut, Lucy!" -” ______________"
A. It's my pleasure. B. Oh, yes. That's right.
C. Thanks. It's very kind of you to do this D. Thank you. That's a nice compliment.
48.”A motorbike knocked Ted down" -” ______________"
A. How terrific! B. Poor him! C. What is it now? D. What a motorbike!
49. A trial must be fair and impartial.
A. apprehensive B. hostile C. biased D. unprejudiced
50. After her husband's tragic accident, she took up his position at the university.
A. unprejudiced B. boring C. mysterious D. comic
ĐỀ SỐ 17
Choose the option which has the CLOSEST/ OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined.
1. Choose the option which has the CLOSEST meaning to the underlined.
My wife was so keen on the picture that she paid through her nose for it.
A. paid nothing B. turned a deaf ear C. was offered D. paid much more than usual
2. Choose the option which has the OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined.
People in Vietnam nod their head to show that they agree with something.
A. blink B. shake C. wave D. slump
3. Choose the option which has the CLOSEST meaning to the underlined.
My hard-working students expected a good fortune to come in addition to their intelligence.
A. thoughtful B. diligent C. courteous D. bright
4. Choose the option which has the OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined.
It‘s difficult to tell him to give in because he is so big-headed.
A. wise B. modest C. arrogant D. generous
Find the underlined words or phrases which is incorrect.
5. An increased number of city dwellers has made the obsolete infrastructure worse and required a lot of repairs
in these days.
A. obsolete infrastructure B. has made
C. required D. repairs
55
6. The elderly are concerning about the city‘s hygienic conditions, natural resource, and elite class.
A. natural resource B. about C. hygienic conditions D. elite
7. In conclusion, plenty of money should, to sum up, be invested to repair the kilometer-long tube in near
future.
A. plenty of B. near future C. kilometer-long D. to sum up
Rewriting the sentences in another way so that they have the same meaning as the given above.
8. It is not until the sun is shining brightly that the little girl woke up.
A. No sooner is the sun shining brightly than the little girl woke up. B. Not until the little girl woke up
is the sun shining brightly.
C. Not until the sun is shining brightly did the little girl wake up. D. As soon as the little girl woke
up, the sun hasn‘t shone brightly yet.
9.”What language do you find the most difficult to learn of all?" Nhung asked Ha.
A. Nhung asked Ha what language Ha found the most difficult to learn of all.
B. Nhung wanted to know what language they founded the most difficult to learn of all.
C. Nhung asked Ha what language did you find the most difficult to learn of all.
D. Nhung asked Ha what language you found the most difficult to learn of all.
10. They reported that the teachers expected more.
A. The teachers were reported to have been expected of more.
B. The teachers were expected more.
C. The teachers were reported to have expected more.
D. The teachers were reported to expect more.
Choose the words with the different pronunciation or stress
11. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
A. designed B. factor C. recent D. distant
12. Choose the word whose underlined letter(s) is/ are pronounced differently from the others.
A. performed B. impaired C. designed D. produced
13. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
A. injection B. diminish C. successful D. benefit
14. Choose the word whose underlined letter(s) is/ are pronounced differently from the others.
A. destroys B. cells C. affects D. stipends
Complete the sentences with the given options.
15. John proposed _______ Mary on a fine day at the crowded beach in their hometown.
A. that they married B. getting married C. to have married D. to marry
16. He said he hadn‘t finished his letter yet .
A. by now B. until then C. until now D. so far
17. The judge gave
A. him the special prize with good comments B. him to the special prize with good comments
C. the special prize with good comments him D. him for the special prize with good comments
18. Her mother‘s dream __________a family doctor will be fulfilled in six years.
A. by B. with C. of D. at
19. They__________their service up to now.
A. didn‘t do B. haven‘t done C. don‘t do D. aren‘t doing
20. Body language is a potent form of ________communication.
A. verbal B. oral C. non-verbal D. tongue
21: ____ eighty percent of the students in our school are eager to work with foreign teachers, aren‘t they?
A. Most B. Most of C. Almost D. Mostly
21: we work with her, we get confused because of her fast speaking pace.
A. So that B. Although C. Whenever D. Lest
23. The local people insisted that the road ___ 50 cm more so that, in case of flood, they still can travel on it.
A. should be raised B. should raise C. could be raised D. could rise
24. John asked me ______in English.
A. what that word means B. what did this word mean
C. what does this word mean D. what that word meant
25. According to Do Tan Long, an official of the Steering Center of Urban Flood Control Program in Ho Chi
Minh City, the rain could be”the most extreme downpour" since of the rainy season.
A. the B. an C. ø D. a
26. Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.
56
Hoa: ―Why aren't you taking part in our activities? ______" - Hai: ―Yes. I can. Certainly."
A. Could you please show me how to get to the nearest post office? B. Shall I take your hat off?
C. Can I help you? D. Can you help me with these decorations
27. Children who are isolated and lonely seem to have poor language and _____
A. communication B. communicate C. communicative D. communicator
28. ___________ the bad weather, their plan still go ahead.
A. In terms of B. Regarded as C. In spite of D. Because of
29. What do we call that _____ animal? - We call it an elephant.
A. long nose B. long-nosed C. nose long D. nose length
30. Long is looking at Linh‘s mark 10 in her paper and said to her.
Long:”_______" - Linh:”Thank you. That‘s a nice compliment."
A. What a mark 10! B. You are so skilful!
C. If only I had such a good mark D. No matter how good the mark is!
Read the following passage and choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Tyler Perry
Perry had a rough childhood. He was physically and sexually abused growing up, got kicked out of high
school, and tried to commit suicide ___(31)___—once as a preteen and again at 22. At 23 he move to Atlanta
and took ___(32)___ odd jobs as he started working on his stage career.
In 1992 he wrote, produced, and starred in his first theater ___(33)___, I Know I’ve Been Changed, somewhat
informed by his difficult upbringing. Perry put all his savings into the show and it failed miserably; the run
lasted just one weekend and only 30 people came to watch. He kept up with the production, working more odd
jobs and often slept in his car to get by. Six years later, Perry finally ___(34)___ through when, on its seventh
run, the show became a success. He‘s since gone on to have an extremely successful career ___(15)___ a
director, writer, and actor. In fact, Perry was named Forbes’ highest paid man in the field.
31. A. twice B. two C. second D. double
32. A. up B. off C. in D. to
33. A. producer B. productivity C. production D. productive
34. A. went B. broke C. got D. put
35. A. same B. as C. like D. as soon as
Read the text and answer the questions given by choosing one numbered options.
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.
The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language,
communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through performance. A person
conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or
harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and
regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a
group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone
may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may believe them. Here, the participant‘s
tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest,
fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually discernible by the acute listener. Public
performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining
effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in
combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of
artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional
health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing,
or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that
person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front.
How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can
drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is
evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry,
and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed.
36. The word”Here" in line 9 refers to ______
A. interpersonal interaction B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen
A. The production of speech. B. The function of the voice in performance.
57
C. Communication styles. D. The connection between voice and personality.
38. The word”evidenced" in line 22 is closest in meaning to ________
A. questioned B. repeated C. indicated D. exaggerated
39. Why does the author mention”artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" in line 14-15?
A. To introduce the idea of self-image
B. As examples of public performance
C. As examples of basic styles of communication
D. To contrast them to singing
40. The word”derived" in line 13 is closest in meaning to_____
A. prepared B. registered C. discussed D. obtained
41. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide ________
A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength
42. What does the author mean by staring that,”At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and feelings over
and above the words chosen" in lines 8- 9?
A. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
B. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are
C. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
43. According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. Lethargy B. Depression C. Boredom D. Anger
44. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's ______
A. general physical health B. personality
C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality
45. The word”drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. severely B. easily C. exactly D. frequently
Read the text and answer the questions given by choosing one numbered options.
If you want to give someone the nod in Bulgaria, you have to nod your head to say 'no' and shake it to
say”yes" – the exact opposite of what we do! In Belgium, pointing with your index finger or snapping your
fingers at someone is very rude.
In France, you shouldn‘t rest your feet on tables or chairs. Speaking to someone with your hands in your
pockets will only make matters worse. In the Middle East, you should never show the soles of your feet or
shoes to others as it will be seen as a grave insult. When eating, only use your right hand because they use their
left hands when going to the bathroom.
In Bangladesh, the 'thumbs-up' is a rude sign. In Myanmar, people greet each other by clapping, and in
India, whistling in public is considered rude.
In Japan, you should not blow your nose in public, but you can burp at the end of a meal to show that you
have enjoyed it. The 'OK' sign (thumb and index finger forming a circle) means”everything is good" in the
West, but in China it means nothing or zero. In Japan, it means money, and in the Middle East, it is a rude
gesture.
46. In the Middle East, people do not use their left hands for eating because they use their left hands ______.
A. to put in their pockets B. when going to the bathroom
C. when preparing the meal D. to clean their tables and chairs
47. It is mentioned in the passage that many gestures _______
A. are not used to communicate our feeling
B. can be used to greet each other in public
C. are used in greeting among men and women
D. may mean different things in different countries
48. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. In Belgium, snapping your fingers at someone is very rude.
B. In France, people shouldn‘t rest their feet on tables.
C. In Myanmar, people greet each other by clapping
D. In China, the 'OK' sign means money
49. The word”others" in paragraph 3 refers to _____________
A. other people B. other shoes C. other soles D. other feet
50. People nod their head to say no in ___________.
A. Belgium B. France C. Japan D. Bulgaria
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ĐỀ SỐ 18
One of the highest honors for formalists, writers, and musical composers is the Pulitzer Prize. First
awarded in 1927, the Pulitzer Prize has been won by Ernest Hemingway, Harper Lee, John F. Kennedy, and
Rodgers and Hammerstein, among others. As with many famous awards, this prize was named after its founder,
Joseph Pulitzer.
Joseph Pulitzer’s story, like that of many immigrants to the United States, is one of hardship, hard work
and triumph. Born in Hungary, Joseph Pulitzer moved to United States in 1864. He wanted to be a reporter, but
he started his American life by fighting in the American Civil War. After the war, Pulitzer worked for the
German - language newspaper, the Westliche Post. His skills as a reporter were wonderful, and he soon became
a partial owner of the paper.
In 1978, Pulitzer was able to start a newspaper of his own. Right from the first edition, the newspaper
took a controversial approach to new. Pulitzer wanted to appeal to the average reader, so he produced exciting
stories of scandal and intrigue. Such an approach is commonplace today, but in Pulitzer’s time it was new and
different. The approach led to the discovery of many instances of corruption by influential people. Pulitzer
‘paper became very famous and is still produced today.
The success of Joseph Pulitzer’s newspaper made him a very wealthy man, so he wanted to give
something back to his profession. Throughout his later years, he worked to establish university programs for the
teaching of journalism, and he funded numerous scholarships to assist journalism students. Finally, he wanted
to leave a legacy that would encourage writers to remember the importance of quality. On his death, he gave
two million dollars to Columbia University so they could award prizes to great writers.
The Pulitzer Prize recipients are a very select group. For most, winning a Pulitzer Prize is the highlight of their
career. If an author, journalist, or composer you know has won a Pulitzer Prize, you can be sure they are at the
top of their profession.
1. Why does the writer mention”John F. Kennedy" in line 3?
A. He was one of the inventors of the famous awards.
B. He was one of the winners of the Pulitzer Prize.
C. He was one of the people who selected the Pulitzer winners.
D. He was in one of the scandals reported on by Joseph Pulitzer.
2. According to the reading passage, why did Joseph Pulitzer invent the Pulitzer Prize?
A. to encourage people to remember his name and success
B. encourage writers to remember the importance of quality
C. to encourage journalism students to achieve their goals
D. to encourage work of the Pulitzer winners
3. The word”partial" in the passage is closest in meaning to……
A. in part only B. brand new C. one and only D. very important
4. According the passage, who receives the Pulitzer Prize?
A. Columbia University graduates B. journalism students
C. noted writers and composers D. most newspaper reporters
5. According to the reading passage, how did Joseph Pulitzer appeal to the average reader?
A. He wrote about famous writers of journalism and literature
B. He wrote stories about the war
C. He produced his own newspaper
D. He produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue
6. Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is true according to the reading passage?
A. He received a scholarship when he was a university student.
B. He was rich even when he was young
C. He was a reporter during the American Civil War
D. He immigrated to the United States from Hungary
7. Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is NOT true according to the reading passage?
A. Joseph Pulitzer was the first writer to the win the prize in 1917.
B. The prize is aimed at encouraging a writer’s career.
C. Joseph Pulitzer left money to award to the prizewinners.
D. Receiving the prize is one of the highest honors for writers.
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Mask the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction on each of the followwing
questions
8. United Nations iss aimed at (A) develop friendly relations among nations (B) based on respect for the (C)
principle of equal rights ans sefl-determination of (D) peoples
9. All members (A) shall give the United Nations (B) every assistance in any action (C) it does in accordance
with (D) the present Charter.
10. Cutural diversity is important because most (A) countries, workplaces, and schools (B) increasingly consist
of (C) various culture, racial and (D) ethnic group.
11: A. rhinoceros B. biologist C. reserve D. digest
12: A. form B. shortcoming C. chore D. sector
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
13. The atmosphere at the meeting was very___________ and everyone was on first name terms
A. formal B. informal C. formality D. informality
14. Mark enjoys having fun by causing trouble. He's very___________boy.
A. strong willed B. mischievous C. obedient D. well behaved
15. Many young people nowadays are prepared to_____ getting married to pursue their professional careers.
A. satisfy B. sacrifice C. prefer D. confide
16. My boss's plane___________at 10:15 tomorrow morning, but I cannot pick him up.
A. arrives B. is arriving C. will be arriving D. arrived
17. Jack asked Jil___________interested in any kinds of sports.
A. if she were B. if were she C. if was she D. if she was
18. Whenever problems___________we discuss frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. make up B. come up C. put up D. turn up
19. Children should be taught that they have to___________everything after they use it.
A. put away B. pick off C. collect up D. catch on
20. Vietnamese parents normally do not let their children make a decision________their own future career.
A. in B. of C. on D. for
21. The police have just round the man and his car____were swept away during the heavy storm last week.
A. that B. which C. whose D. when
22. ___________the more terrible the terrorism will become.
A. The more weapons are powerful B. The more powerful weapons are
C. The weapons more powerful D. Weapons are the more powerful
23. We are concerned with the problem of energy resources_______ we must also think of our environment.
A. despite B. though C. however D. but
24. When finding a new house, parents should___________all the conditions for their children’s education and
entertainment.
A. take into account B. make all the conditions
C. get a measure of D. put into effect
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of following exchanges.
25. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.
- Diana:” Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?” - Anne:” ___________”
A. I’m half ready. B. God save you. C. Thank you so much D. Don’t mention it!
26. Mary is talking to her professor in his office.
- Mary:” Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?” - Professor:” ___________”
A. I like it that you understand. B. Try your best, Mary.
C. You can borrow books from the library. D. You mean the podcasts from other students?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary
27: A. maximum B. vacancy C. terrorist D. investment
28: A. vertical B. contractual C. domestic D. outstanding
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in
29. Language teaching in the United State is base on the idea that the goal of language acquisition is
communicative complete.
A. not good at socializing. B. unable to understand
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C. excellent in orating in front of others D. incapable of working with words
30. This is new washing machine is not a patch on our old one. These clothes are still dirty.
A. to be expensive B. to be strange C. to be broken D. to be better
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in
each of the following questions
31. Today, American English is particularly influential, due to the USA’s dominance of cinema, television,
popular music, trade and technology (including the Internet)
A. complete mastery B. overwhelming superiority
C. complete control D. profound effect
32. Students ‘motivation' for learning a language increase when they see connection between what they do in
classroom and what they hope to do with the language in the future.
A. the reason for which someone does something
B. the action that someone takes to deal with something
C. the eagerness that someone has to do something
D. the excitement with which one is filled when doing something.
questions
33.”What are you going to do with such a long list of books, Dane?” asked Sarah
A. Sarah was curious why Dane had such a long list of books.
B. Sarah asked Dane what he was going to do with such a long list of books.
C. Sarah warned Dane not to borrow such a long list of books.
D. Sarah could not understand why Dane was borrowing such a long list of books.
34.”Are you going to the cinema with us tonight, Susan?” asks her friends.
A. Susan’s friend asked her whether she went to the cinema with them that night
B. Susan’s friend asked her if she was going to the cinema with them that night
C. Susan’s friend would like to invite her to go to the cinema with them that night
D. Susan’s friend would rather her went to the cinema with them that night.
35. The Internet has enabled most people to get contact in a matter of moment
A. Most of people have been able to get in contact by the Internet in a matter of moments.
B. Most of people have got in contact as enable in a matter of moments by the Internet
C. On the Internet, most of people are able to get in contact a matter of moments.
D. On the Internet, most of people can find their contact a matter of moments
fist each of the numbered blanks from 36 to 40
Tim Samaras is a storm chaser. His job is to find tornadoes and follow them. When he gets close to a tornado,
he puts a special tool (36) _______a turtle probe on the ground. This tool measures things like a twister’s
temperatune, humidity, and wind speed. With this information, Samaras can lean what causes tornadoes to
develop. If meteorologists understand this, they can warn people (37) _______ twisters sooner and save lives.
How does Samaras hunt tornadoes? It’s not easy. First, he has to find one. Tornadoes are too small to see using
weather satellites. So Samaras can’t rely on these tools to find a twister. (38) ____, he waits for tornadoes to
develop.
Once Samaras sees a tornado, the chase begins. But a tornado is hard to follow. Some tornadoes change (39)
_____ several time – for example, moving east and then west and then east again. When Samaras finally gets
near a tornado, het puts the turtle probe on the ground. Being this close to twister is (40) _______. He must get
away quickly.
36: A. called B. know C. made D. meant
37: A. with B. about C. at D. for
38: A. Rather B. Still C. Instead D. Yet
39: A. progression B. movement C. dimension D. direction
40: A. terrifly B. terrifying C. terrified D. terrifies
following question.
41. The teacher has done his best to help all students. However, none of them made any effort on their part
A. The teacher has done his best to help all student, then, none of them made any effort on their part
B. Although the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on their part
C. Because the teacher has done his best to help all students, , none of them made any effort on their part
D. If the teacher has done his best to help all students, , none of them made any effort on their part
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42.”Finish your work. And then you can go home”.
A.”You can’t go home until you finish your work”
B.”You finish your work to go home as early as you can”
C.”When you go home, finish your work then”
D.”Because you have finished your work, you can go home”.
questions from 43 to 50
Clara Barton became known as”The Angel of the Battlefield” during the American Civil War. Born in
Oxford, Massachusetts in 1821, Clara Barton’s interest in helping soldiers on the battlefield began when she
was told army stories from her father. Another event that influenced her decision to help soldiers was an
accident her brother had. His injuries were cared for by Barton for 2 year. At the time, she was only 11 years
old. Barton began teaching school at the age of 15. She taught for 18 years before she moved to Washington,
D.C in 1854.
The civil war broke out 6 years later. Immediately, Barton started war service by helping the soldiers
with their needs. At the battle of Bull run, Clara Barton received permission from the government to take care
of the sick and hurt. Barton did this with great empathy and kindness. She acknowledged each soldier as a
person . her endurance and courage on the battlefield were admired by many. When the war ended in 1865 , she
used 4 years of her life to assist the government in searching for soldiers who were missing during the war.
The search for missing soldiers and years of hard work made her feeble physically. In 1869, her doctors
recommended a trip to Europe for a rest. While she was on vacation , she became involved with the
International Red Cross, an organization set up by the Geneva Convention in 1864. Clara Barton realized that
the Red Cross would be a best help to the United States. After she returned to the United States, she worked
very hard to create an American Red Cross. She talked to government leaders and let American people know
about the Red Cross. In 1881, the National Society of the Red Cross was finally established with its
headquarters in Washington , D.C. Clara Barton managed its activities for 23 years.
Barton never let her age stop her from helping people. At the age of 79, she helped food victims in
Galveston, Texas. Barton finally resigned from the Red Cross in 1904. She was 92 years old and had truly
earned her title”The Angel of the Battle”.
43. According to the paragraph 1, which of the following is true of the young Barton Clara?
A. She helped her father when he was a soldier
B. She suffered from an accident when she was 11
C. She helped her brother who hurt in an accident
D. She made a decision to live with her brother for 2 years
44. The phrase broke out in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______
A. extended B. broken down C. closed D. began
45. The word this in paragraph 2 refers to
A. recognized each soldier as a person B. cooker for soldiers
C. took care of the sick and hurt D. received permission
46. The word acknowledged in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ______
A. nursed B. recognized C. pleaded D. believed
47. What can be inferred about the government?
A. It did not always agree with Clara barton
B. It did not have the money to help Clara Barton
C. It showed Clara Barton great empathy and kindness
D. It had respect for Clara Barton
48. What does the author mention about the American Red Cross?
A. It was disapproved again and again by the Geneva Convention
B. Barton tried to have it set up in America
C. The American people were not interested in the Red Cross
D. It was first established in the Unites States
49. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Clara Barton worked for disaster victims until she was old
B. Clara Barton was a kind and strong woman who helped people in need
C. Clara Barton becam a nurse during the American Civil War
D. Clara Barton helped wounded soldiers and she was the founder of the Red Cross
50. What can be the best title of the reading passage?
A. The angel of the Battlefield B. The American Red Cross
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C. The American Civil War D. The International Red Cross
ĐỀ SỐ 19
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1: A. meat B. breakfast C. heat D. beat
2: A. picture B. mature C. future D. adventure
Choose the word that has different stress pattern from that of the others.
3: A. improve B. farmer C. parents D. bumper
4: A. gymnastic B. adjective C. difference D. frequently
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of
5. He makes money by raising poultry and cattle.
A. spends B. produces C. earns D. creates
6. She was born and grown up in a picturesque fishing village in Ha Long Bay.
A. dangerous B. pretty C. wealthy D. poor
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined part in each of
7. A calculating machine can do calculations with lightning speed.
A. very quickly B. incorrectly C. perfectly D. very slowly
8. Many people oppose corporal punishment when educating young children though several of them are
naughty.
A. appreciate B. agree with C. are in favor of D. disapprove of
Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage from 9
to 13
Every child in Great Britain between the age of five and fifteen must (9) ____ school. There (10) _____
three main types of educational institutions: primary (elementary) schools, secondary schools and universities.
State schools are free, and attendance is compulsory. Morning school begins at nine o’clock and lasts until half
past four. School is open five days a week.
(11) _____ Saturdays and Sundays there are no lessons. There are holidays at Christmas, Easter and in
summer. In London as in all cities there are two grades of state schools for those (12) ______ will go to work at
fifteen: primary schools for boys and girls between the ages of five and eleven, and secondary schools for
children from eleven to fifteen years.
The lessons are reading, writing, the English language, English literature, English history, geography,
(13) ______, nature study, drawing, painting, singing, woodwork and drill.
9: A. attend B. come C. arrive D. go
10. A. have B. has C. are D. is
11. A. On B. At C. For D. In
12. A. when B. where C. which D. who
13. A. scientist B. scientifically C. science D. scientific
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
14. Helen Killer, (A) who was both (B) blind and (C) deafness, overcame her (D) inabilities with the help of
her teacher, Ann Sulivan
15. (A) Education, (B) whether it happens at school (C) or anywhere else, is (D) a important part in our life.
16. I (A) can’t go out tonight (B) because I have (C) too many work (D) to do.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct one to complete each of the following sentences
17. A personal communicator helps you to ______ with other computers and with people around the world.
A. demonstrate B. interact C. content D. transmit
18. Peter:”Ann is in hospital.” Mary:”Yes, I know. ______ her tommorrow.”
A. I visit B. I’ll visit C. I’m going to visit D. I am visiting
19. The children have every reason to be proud ______ their efforts.
A. at B. to C. in D. of
20. As a famous person ______ many children admire, it is important for her to act responsibly.
A. whose B. which C. when D. whom
21. A number of students ______ for a rise since last year
A. ask B. have asked C. has asked D. asked
22. Our flight was delayed, but we finally ______ shortly after midnight.
A. took on B. put off C. took up D. took off
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23. I remember ______ the letter a few days before going on holiday.
A. received B. to have received C. to receive D. receiving
24. Ba and his family had ______ to their home village.
A. a two-day trip B. a two-days trip C. a two-day trips D. two-day trips
25. The film ______ by the time we ______ to the cinema.
A. had already started/got B. already started/ had gotten
C. had already started/had gotten D. has already started/ got
26. The teacher ______ her to improve her drawing.
A. persisted B. insisted C. encouraged D. made
27. I have been fascinated by______ since I was at secondary school.
A. photographer B. photography C. photograph D. photographic
28. My parents ______ tommorrow to stay with me for a few days.
A. came B. have come C. come D. are coming
sentences
29. Jane finds it difficult to drive on the left.
A. Jane is used to drive on the left B. Jane is not used to drive on the left
C. Jane is not used to driving on the left D. It’s difficult for Jane to driving on the left
30. No one has told me about the change of plan.
A. I have not been told about the change of plan.
B. I have not told about the change of plan.
C. The change of plan has been told about
D. I have been told about the change of plan.
31. We last went to cinema two months ago.
A. We have been to the cinema for two months
B. We haven’t been to the cinema for two months
C. We didn’t want to go to the cinema anymore.
D. We didn’t go to the cinema for two months
following questions
32. Computer is a miraculous device. It is capable of doing almost anything you ask it to.
A. Computer can’t do anything you ask it to because it is a miraculous device.
B. Computer is unable to do almost anything you ask it to so it is a miraculous device.
C. Computer is a miraculous device since it is possible for doing anything you ask it to.
D. Computer is a miraculous device because it is impossible for doing almost anything you ask it to.
33. The house is very beautiful. Its gate was painted blue.
A. The house, which is very beautiful, was painted blue.
B. The house, the gate of whom was painted blue, is very beautiful.
C. The house, the gate of which was painted blue, is very beautiful.
D. The house, the gate of that was painted blue, is very beautiful.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response complete each of the following exchanges
34. Which expression is used to start a conversation?
A. Well, it’s been nice meeting you B. How’s everything at school?
C. Catch you later. D. Sorry, I’ve got to go. Talk to you later.
35. Hoa:”Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?” Mary:”___________”
A. Neither. I’m going to lease one. B. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one
C. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you. D. Yes, I am.
questions
Most Americans look forward to their vacation. Most American employees receive an annual vacation
with pay, and it is traditional to use this time off for travel.
Travelling within the United States is very popular because foreign travel generally takes more time and
money. Every year about thirteen million people travel abroad. The most popular periods are during the
summer and the two-week school break on Christmas and New Year holidays. These periods are also the most
crowded and the most expensive time to travel, so people who can adjust their schedules sometimes choose to
travel in the autumn.
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American tourists often travel by car. Most families own a car, and those who do not have a car can rent
one. Cars are usually the most economical way to travel, especially for families. It is also fairly fast and
convenient. Exellent highway with motels and restaurants nearby connect the nation’s major cities. They enable
tourists to travel at a speed of 55 to 66 miles an hour. Tourists that want to travel faster often fly to their
destination and then rent a car when they get there.
36. According to the writer ________.
A. Americans have no vacations
B. Americans do not like travel.
C. it is impossible to have a day-off in the USA.
D. most Americans are fond of travelling
37. How many people travel abroad every year?
A. 13 million people B. 66 million people C. 30 million people D. 55 million people
38. Which of the following is not mentioned in the text?
A. Travelling on Christmas and New Year holidays take much money.
B. Most American employees use their vacation to travel every year.
C. Most families use cars as an economical way to travel.
D. American people always choose to travel in autumn
39. There are many people travelling ______.
A. in the winter B. on Women’s Day
C. on Christmas and New Year D. on Thanksgiving
40. _______ are the most popular means of transport in the USA.
A. Buses B. Cars C. Ships D. Planes
41. The word”It” in line 8 refers to ______.
A. destination B. restaurant C. vacation D. car
42. In the USA, __________.
A. the high ways are not in good condition.
B. tourists cannot rent a car
C. there are not any highways.
D. along the highways there are motels and restaurants available for tourists.
questions
For the last few years, my children have been going to a summer camp in northern Greece called Skouras
Camp. They always seem to have a good time, so if you’ re wondering what to do with the kids for three weeks
this summer, you could do worse than send them to this beautiful camp on the shores of the Aegean Sea. If your
children, like mine, are keen on adventure, sports and good company, the Skouras Camp will keep them busy
all day doing the things they most enjoy. Skouras is an international camp with children from all over the
world. My children have made friends with children of their own age from Poland, China, Demark and the
United States. Naturally, they get lots of opportunities to practise their English as this is the only language
spoken. The camp is located in one of the most beautiful parts of Chalkidiki. It is huge (120.000 square meters)
and is just a stone’s throw away from clear, blue Aegean Sea. It takes the children just five minutes to walk to
the golden sandy beach on foot. The programme is packed with exciting activities such as horse riding and table
tennis. Other sports in clude baseball, volleyball and athletics. The Camp ends with a sports contest in the last
week which all parents are invited to attend.
43. All the children come to the Camp have to___________.
A. be only keen on adventure B. be at the same age.
C. speak English D. practise basketball.
44. How many kinds of sports can be played in the Camp?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
45. All the statements are true except___________.
A. The parents can attend their children’sports contest.
B. The children will be busy taking part in the Camp’s programmed activities.
C. The camp is quite far from the Aegean Sea.
D. The children will take more chances of English practise.
46. The tond of the passage could best be described as___________.
A. supportive B. negative C. disbelieving D. humorous.
47. What shoul be the best title for the passage?
A. Chalkidiki’s landscape – The Aegean Sea. B. An international summer camp.
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C. Children’s summer activities. D. Advice on children caring in summer.
48. How long does it take the children to walk to the golden sandy beach on foot?
A. 20 minutes B. an hour C. 5 minutes D. a day
49. Where is the camp located?
A. in Porland B. in Greece C. in the United States D. Denmark
50. The word contest in the last sentence could be replaced by___________.
A. competition B. runner C. competitor D. athlete
ĐỀ SỐ 20
1: A. confided B. touched C. rejected D. preceded
2: A. cooks B. loves C. joins D. spends
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
3: A. investigate B. determine C. convenient D. sacrifice
4: A. certificate B. diversity C. occupation D. miraculous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word/phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
part.
5. The weather is horrible at the moment, isn’t it? I hope it clears up later.
A. becomes brighter B. shines C. is not cloudy D. clean
6. There used to be a shop at the end of the street but it went out of business a year ago.
A. closed up B. closed C. closed down D. closed into
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.
9. Students advise (A) to read all the questions (B) carefully and find out (C) the answers to them (D).
10. My father used to give (A) me a good advice (B) whenever (C) I had a problem (D).
11. Not until (A) I was on my way (B) to the airport that I realized (C) I had left my passport at home (D).
12. Our (A) children allowed (B) to have two days (C) off at weekends (D)
13. Many applicants find a job interview__________ if they are not well-prepared for it.
A. impressive B. stressful C. threatening D. time-consuming
14. The manager__________ him for a minor mistake.
A. accused B. charged C. complained D. blamed
15. I __________ hurry. It’s nearly 8.00, and my first class starts at 8.15.
A. would prefer B. can’t help C. would rather D. had better
16. He managed to keep his job__________ the manager had threatened to sack him.
A. although B. despite C. unless D. therefore
17. Don’t touch that wire or you’ll get an electric__________.
A. shock B. fire C. charge D. current
18. The car had a(n) __________ tire, so we had to change the wheel.
A. bent B. flat C. cracked D. injured
19. Does television adequately reflect the ethnic and cultural__________ of the country.
A. costom B. diversity C. alternations D. article
20. You should make a(n) __________ to overcome this problem.
A. trial B. impression C. effort D. apology
21. –“You look beautiful with your new hairstyle!” –”____________”.
A. Not at all B. It’s kind of you to say so C. Very kind of your part D. Willingly
22. It was only__________ he told me his surname that I realized that we had been to the same school.
A. then B. until C. as soon as D. when
23. The girl __________ design had been chosen stepped to the platform to receive the award.
A. whose B. whom C. that D. which
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24. My responsibility is to wash dishes and__________ the garbage.
A. take care of B. take out C. take off D. take over
fits each of the numbered blanks.
The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is Internet, which has been (25)________ for broken
relationships, job losses, financial ruin and even one suicide. Psychologists now recognize Internet Addiction
Syndrome (IAS) as a new illness that could (26)________ serious problems and ruin many lives. Special help
groups have been set up to (27)________ sufferers help and support.
IAS is similar to (28)________ problems like gambling, smoking and drinking: addicts have dreams about
Internet; they need to use it first thing in the morning; they (29)________ to their partners about how much
time they spend online; they (30)_______ they could cut down, but are unable to do so. A recent study found
that many users spend up to 40 hours a week on the Internet; (31)______ they felt guilty, they became
depressed if they were (32)______ to stop using it.
Almost anyone can be at risk. Some of the addicts are teenagers who are already hooked on computer games
and who (33)_____ it very difficult to resist the games on the Internet. Surprisingly, however, psychologists
(34)____ that most victims are middle-aged housewives who have never used a computer before.
25. A. accused B. mistaken C. blamed D. faulted
26. A. take B. cause C. affect D. lead
27. A. recommend B. offer C. suggest D. advise
28. A. others B. another C. the other D. other
29. A. lie B. cheat C. deceive D. betray
30. A. rather B. want C. prefer D. wish
31. A. unless B. without C. although D. despite
32. A. made B. allowed C. let D. had
33. A. have B. find C. feel D. say
34. A. say B. tell C. object D. promise
Read the following passage adapted and choose the correct answer (corresponding to A, B, C, or D) to each
of the questions that follow.
It’s often said that we learn things at the wrong time. University students frequently do the minimum of
work because they’re crazy about a good social life instead. Children often scream before their piano practice
because it’s so boring. They have to be given gold stars and medals to be persuaded to swim, or have to be
bribed to take exams. But the story is different when you’re older.
Over the years, I’ve done my share of adult learning. At 30, I went to a college and did courses in History
and English. It was an amazing experience. For starters, I was paying, so there was no reason to be late – I was
the one frowning and drumming my fingers if the tutor was late, not the other way round. Indeed, if I could
persuade him to linger for an extra five minutes, it was a bonus, not a nuisance. I wasn’t frightened to ask
questions, and homework was a pleasure not a pain. When I passed an exam, I had passed it for me and me
alone, not for my parents or my teachers. The satisfaction I got was entirely personal.
Some people fear going back to school because they worry that their brains have got rusty. But the joy is
that, although some parts have rusted up, your brain has learnt all kinds of other things since you were young. It
has learnt to think independently and flexibly and is much better at relating one thing to another. What you lose
in the rust department, you gain in the maturity department.
In some ways, age is a positive plus. For instance, when you’re older, you get less frustrated. Experience
has told you that, if you’re calm and simply do something carefully again and again, eventually you’ll get the
hang of it. The confidence you have in other areas – from being able to drive a car, perhaps – means that if you
can’t, say, build a chair instantly, you don’t, like a child, want to destroy your first pathetic attempts. Maturity
tells you that you will, with application, eventually get there.
I hated piano lessons at school, but I was good at music. And coming back to it, with a teacher who could
explain why certain exercises were useful and with musical concepts that, at the age of ten, I could never grasp,
was magical. Initially, I did feel a bit strange, thumping out a piece that I’d played for my school exams, with
just as little comprehension of what the composer intended as I’d had all those years before. But soon, complex
emotions that I never knew poured out from my fingers, and suddenly I could understand why practice makes
perfect.
35. It is implied in paragraph 1 that ______.
A. young learners often lack a good motivation for learning
B. young learners are usually lazy in their class
C. teachers should give young learners less homework
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D. parents should encourage young learners to study more
36. The writer’s main point in paragraph 2 is to show that as people grow up, ______.
A. they tend to learn less as they are discouraged
B. they cannot learn as well as younger learners
C. they get more impatient with their teachers
D. they have a more positive attitude towards learning
37. The phrase”For starters” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by”______”.
A. For beginners B. At the starting point C. At the beginning D. First and foremost
38. While doing some adult learning courses at a college, the writer was surprised ______.
A. to have more time to learn B. to be able to learn more quickly
C. to feel learning more enjoyable D. to get on better with the tutor
39. In paragraph 3, the word”rusty” means ______.
A. not as good as it used to be through lack of practice
B. impatient because of having nothing to do
C. staying alive and becoming more active
D. covered with rust and not as good as it used to be
40. The phrase”get there” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to”______”.
A. receive a school or college degree B. arrive at an intended place with difficulty
C. have the things you have long desired D. achieve your aim with hard work
41. All of the following are true about adult learning EXCEPT ______.
A. young people usually feel less patient than adults
B. experience in doing other things can help one’s learning
C. adult learners have fewer advantages than young learners
D. adults think more independently and flexibly than young people
42. It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that maturity is a positive plus in the learning process because adult
learners ______.
A. pay more attention to detail than younger learners
B. are able to organize themselves better than younger learners
C. are less worried about learning than younger learners
D. have become more patient than younger learners
43. It is implied in the last paragraph that when you learn later in life, you ______.
A. are not able to concentrate as well as when you were younger
B. find that you can recall a lot of things you learnt when younger
C. should expect to take longer to learn than when you were younger
D. can sometimes understand more than when you were younger
44. What is the writer’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To encourage adult learning. B. To show how fast adult learning is.
C. To explain reasons for learning. D. To describe adult learning methods.
questions.
45. I have never tasted this kind of food before.
A. I have tasted this kind of food. B. I tasted this kind of food long time ago.
C. It is the first time I tasted this kind of food. D. It is the first time I have ever tasted this kind of food.
46. No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back.
A. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately.
B. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back.
D. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone.
D. Scarcely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines the pair of sentences given in each of
the following questions.
47. John is studying hard. He doesn't want to fail the next exam.
A. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam
B. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam
C. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam
D. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam
48. He was suspected of having stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.
A. Suspected of having stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days
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B. Suspecting of having stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days
C. He has been investigated for days, suspecting of having stolen credit cards
D. Having suspected of having stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days
49. I strongly disapproved of your behavior. However, I will help you this time.
A. Despite of my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
B. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
C. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time.
D. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time.
50. He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. He is so an intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time
B. He is so intelligent a boy that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. He is such intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
ĐỀ SỐ 21
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress
1: A. cultural B. priority C. advantage D. occurrence
2: A. diversity B. disastrous C. circulate D. alternative
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that has underlined part pronounced differently from the
rests.
3: A. likes B. tightens C. heaps D. fuss
4: A. demand B. deny C. deter D. debris
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
5. I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. reasonable B. acceptable C. pretty high D. wonderful
6. Ralph Nader was the most prominent leader of the U.S consumer protection movement.
A. casual B. significant C. promiscuous D. aggressive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
7. A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.
A. calm B. responsive C. uncomfortable D. miserable
8. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.
A. large quantity B. small quantity C. excess D. sufficiency
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word for each of the
blanks.
When you wave to a friend, you are using sign language. When you smile at someone, you mean to be (9)
______. When you put one finger in front of your (10) ______, you mean,”Be quiet." Yet, people in different
countries may use different sign languages. Once an Englishman was in Italy he could speak a little Italian. One
day while he was walking in the street, he felt (11) ______ and went into a restaurant. When the waiter came,
the Englishman opened his mouth, put his fingers into it and took them out again and moved his lips. In this
way, he meant to say,”Bring me something to eat." But the waiter brought him a lot of things to (12) ______:
first tea, then coffee, then milk, but no food. The Englishman was sorry that he was not able to tell the waiter he
was hungry. He was eardy to leave the restaurant. When another man came in and put his hands on his stomach.
And this sign was (13) ______ enough for the waiter. In a few minutes, the waiter brought him a large plate of
bread and meat. At last, the Englishman had his meal in the same way.
9: A. well B. friendly C. fine D. careful
10. A. eyes B. legs C. mouth D. head
11. A. hungry B. tired C. cold D. ill
12. A. eat B. watch C. drink D. read
13. A. quick B. big C. strong D. clear
Mark the letter A, B , C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to the following situations.
14. Ivan: I have stacks of homework to do. Kyle: _________________ !
A. Congratulations B. Poor you C. Cheers D. Oh bother
15. Tom: I'm going on holiday tomorrow. Jerry: _________ !
A. Congratulations B. Sorry to here that C. Have a nice time D. Watch out
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.
16. Both (A) bowling and ice-skating was introduced (B) by the Dutch who (C) colonized (D) the New World
in the 1600's.
17. There are (A) a large supply of pens (B) and notebooks in the storeroom (C) to the left of (D) the library
entrance.
18. There are (A) many ways to (B) preserve fruit (C), for example freezing, canning and to dry (D).
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the option that best makes the meaningful sentence.
19. person’s choice / occupations / probably / most important / have / made.
A. A person’s choice of occupation is probably the most important one that has to be made.
B. A person’s choice about occupation is probably most important one to have made.
C. A person’s choice from occupation is probably the most important one has to be made.
D. A person’s choice among occupation is probably most important having made.
20. my opinion / unfair / women / more duties / husbands.
A. According to my opinion it is unfair when women have more duties than their husbands.
B. My opinion is unfair for women to have more duties than their husbands.
C. In my opinion it is unfair that women have more duties than their husbands.
D. My opinion, which seems to be unfair, is that women should have more duties than their husbands.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to the following
questions.
Algae is a primitive form of life, a single-celled or simple multiple-celled organism that is able to conduct the
process of photosynthesis. It is generally found in water but can also be found elsewhere, growing on such
surfaces as rocks or trees. The various types of algae are classified according to pigment.
Blue-green algae, or Cyanophyta, can grow at very high temperatures and under high-intensity light. This type
of algae is the oldest form of life with photosynthetic capabilities. Fossilized remains of blue-green algae more
than 3.4 billion years old have been found in parts of Africa.
Green algae, or Chlorophyta, is generally found in fresh water. It reproduces on the surfaces of enclosed bodies
of water such as ponds or lakes and has the appearance of a fuzzy green coating on the surface of the water.
Brown algae, or Phaeophyta, grows in shallow, temperate water. This type of algae is the largest in size and is
most recognizable as a type of seaweed. Its long stalks can be enmeshed on the ocean floor, or it can float freely
on the ocean's surface.
Red algae, or Rhodophyta, is a small, delicate organism found in the deep waters of the subtropics. This type of
algae has an essential role in the formation of coral reefs: it secretes lime from the seawater to foster the
formation of limestone deposits.
21. What is the author's main purpose?
A. To show what color algae is B. To differentiate the various classifications of algae
C. To describe where algae is found D. To clarify the appearance of different types of algae
22. Which of the following is NOT true about algae?
A. All types have one cell only. B. It can be found out of water.
C. It can use photosynthesis. D. It is not a relatively new form of life.
23. The word”pigment" at the end of the first paragraph means________.
A. size B. shape C. composition D. color
24. Algae remnants found in Africa are________.
A. still flourishing B. photogenic C. extremely old D. red in color
25. Green algae is generally found________.
A. on the ocean floor B. on top of the water C. throughout ponds and lakes D. surrounding
enclosed bodies of water
26. Brown algae would most likely be found________.
A. on trees B. near green algae C. on rocks D. in the ocean
27. According to the passage, red algae is________.
A. sturdy B. huge C. fragile D. found in shallow water
28. It can be inferred from the passage that limestone deposits serve as the basis of________.
A. coral reefs B. red algae C. subtropical seawaterD. secret passages
sentences.
29. Their chances of success are small.
A. It’s very likely that they will succeed B. They will definitely be successful
C. It’s not very likely that they will succeed D. They won’t have any chances of being successful
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30.”Would you like something to drink?” he asked.
A. He asked me would like something to drink B. He wanted to invite me for something to drink.
C. He asked me if I wanted something to drink D. He offered me something to drink.
31. Public education is so good in European countries that there is almost no demand for private schools
A. Even the excellence of public education in Europe does not stop people from sending their children to
private schools.
B. Hardly anyone sends their children to private schools in Europe because state schools are excellent.
C. People still send their children to private schools in Europe although the public education system is
excellent.
D. In Europe, there is no reason for parents to send their children to private schools because state schools
are so good.
Mark the letter A, B , C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
32. The woman________ last week has been freed by the police.
A. arrested B. was arrested C. arresting D. who arrested.
33. Why don't you raise your hand to________ the teacher's attention in stead of shouting like this?
A. attract B. pull C. draw D. capture.
34. She has just enrolled on a ________ course in cooking because she is getting married next month.
A. speedy B. quick C. fast D. crash.
35. Many workers switch from the day________ to the night one with difficulties.
A. light B. shift C. hour D. period
36. The Internet enables users of computers to ________ information in a variety of forms.
A. share B. divide C. cut D. tell
37. Women in American have a lot of ________ freedom.
A. personal B. physical C. human D. technical
38. The survey was to find out the young people’s attitudes________ love and marriage.
A. towards B. above C. beneath D. with
39. John ________ the keys. I cannot see it anywhere.
A. should have taken B. could have taken C. must have taken D. needn't have taken.
40. I would really like to join you on a skiing trip but I can't do it until I________ my thesis.
A. will finish B. finished C. have finished D. will have finished.
41. ________ he studied hard, he didn't pass his final exams.
A. Although B. No matter C. Because D. However.
42. To be honest, Harry has________ than you have.
A. been more helpful considerably B. considerably been more helpful.
C. been considerably more helpful D. been more considerably helpful.
43. My new glasses cost me ________ the pair that I bought last month.
A. more than three times B. three times as much as
C. as much three times as D. more three times than
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to the following
questions.
Sound moves form its source to the ear by wavelike fluctuations in air pressure, something like the crests
and troughs of ocean waves. Once way to keep from hearing sound is to use ear plugs. Another way is to cancel
out the sound with anti-sound. Using a noisemarker controlled by a microprocessor, engineers have produced
sound waves that are half a wavelength out of phase with those of the noise to be quieted-each crest is matched
to a trough, and vice versa. Once the researchers have recorded the offending sound, a microprocessor
calculates the amplitude and wavelength of sound that will cancel out the crests and troughs of noise. It then
produces an electric current that is amplified and fed to a loudspeaker, which produces anti-sound and wipes
out the noise. If the anti-sound goes out of synchronization, a microphone picks up the leftover sound and sends
it back to the microprocessor, which changes the phase of the anti- sound just enough to cause complete silence.
The research team has concentrated on eliminating low-frequency noise from ship engines, which causes
fatigue that can impair the efficiency and alertness of the crew, and may mask the warning sounds of alarm and
fog signals.
44. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To discuss a physical handicap B. To warn about a growing danger
C. To describe the structure of the ear D. To report on a new invention
45. The passage compares sound to_________.
A. the rising and falling of water in the ocean B. the crests and valleys of mountain ranges
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C. a flag waving in the air D. a machine for gauging air pressure
46. The passage discusses a way to deal with an offensive noise by_________.
A. diverting people's attention from it B. masking it with a louder noise
C. canceling it out electronically D. removing its source
47. The microprocessor described in the passage will probably be used for_________.
A. composing music B. repairing alarm systems
C. eliminating engine noises D. intensifying for warning sounds
48. The researcher mentioned in the passage are concerned about unwanted noise because it can ______.
A. cause deafness B. create hazardous working conditions
C. influence ocean waves D. damage loudspeakers and sound equipment
49. According to the passage, what group of people will probably first from the use of the microprocessor?
A. Ship's crews B. Research engineers C. People with insomnia D. Engine repair teams
50. A paragraph following the passage would most probably discuss_________.
A. the nature of fog B. a way to improve alarm systems
C. other causes of fatigue D. other uses for the microprocessor
ĐỀ SỐ 22
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
1: A. compulsory B. certificate C. significant D. category
2: A. history B. confide C. result D. suggest
questions.
3.”Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady to the man.
A. The lady said she would call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
B. The lady told the man that she would call the police he didn’t leave her house.
C. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.
D. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
4. He last has his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He had tested his eyes ten months before.
B. He didn’t have any test on his eyes ten months before.
C. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
D. He hasn’t had his eyes tested for ten months.
5. He survived the operation thanks to the skillful surgeon.
A. He survived because he was a skillful surgeon.
B. He wouldn’t have survived the operation without the skillful surgeon.
C. There was no skillful surgeon, so he died.
D. Though the surgeon was skillful, he couldn’t survive the operation.
6. My younger brothers are obedient most of the time, but they are quite mischievous sometimes.
A. Naughty B. hard-working C. well-behaved D. disruptive
7. You should not wear casual clothes to the interview. The first impression is very important.
A. New B. informal C. neat D. formal
8. In daily communication, you should know how to interpret other people’s body language.
A. Understand B. answer C. respond D. notice
9. The purpose of this survey is to determine students’ attitudes toward love and marriage.
A. Find out B. develop C. concern D. build
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
Who talks more – men or women? Most people believe that women talk more. However, linguist
Deborah Tannen, who has the studied the communication style of men and women, says that this is a
stereotype. According to Tannen, women are more verbal – talk more – in private situations, where they use
conversation as the”glue” to hold relationship together. But, she says, men talk more in public situations, where
they use conversation to exchange information and gain status. Tannen points out that we can see these
72
difference even in children. Little girls often play with one ‘best friend’ and their play includes a lot of
conversation. Little boys often play games in groups, their play usually involves more doing than talking. In
school, girls are often better at verbal skills, while boys are often better at mathematics.
A recent study at Emory University helps to shed light on the roots of this difference. Researchers studied
conversation between children aged 3-6 and their parents. They found evidence that parents talk very
differently to their sons than they do to their daughters. The startling conclusion was that parents use more
language with their girls. Specifically, when parents talk with their daughters, they use more descriptive
language and more details. There is also far more talk about emotions, especially with daughters than with sons.
10. Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Women talk more than men on the whole
B. Women’s talking is a stereotype
C. Women talk more in private, and men talk more in public
D. Little boys and little girls have different ways of playing
11. Which word is similar in meaning to the word”glue”?
A. Games B. sticky substance C. rope D. means
12. Which of the following phrases best explains the meaning of the word”verbal”?
A. Deriving from verbs B. Connected with use of spoken language
C. Using very loud noise D. Being very talkative
13. The word”they” refers to ______.
A. Situations B. Men C. Men and women D. Women
14. Which of the following can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Men and women have different styles of talking, which may begin in childhood.
B. According to Deborah Tannen, the belief that women talk more is party right but most wrong.
C. Women talk more in some situations while men talk in others
D. Men are more sociable than women
15. Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the second paragraph?
A. Researchers have studied the conversations of children and their parents.
B. Parents do not much about sadness with their sons.
C. Study at Emory University can help to explain the differences between communication styles of boy
and girls.
D. An Emory University study found than parent talk more with their daughters than with their sons.
16. Which word can best replace the word”startling”?
A. Beginning B. annoying C. surprising D. interesting
17. Which of the following statement is TRUE about the passage?
A. Parents give more love to their daughters than to their sons
B. Boys don’t like to be with their parents as much as girls do
C. Parents use more language to talk with their daughters
D. Boys don’t like showing emotions
questions.
Face-to-face conversation is a two-way process: You speak to me, I reply to you and so on. Two-way
(18)_______ depends on having a coding system that is understood by both sender and (19)_______, and an
agreed convention about signaling the beginning and end of the message. In speech, the coding system is the
language like English or Spanish; the convention that one person speaks at a time may seem too obvious to
mention. In fact, the signals (20)_______ in conversation and meetings are often (21)_______. For example,
lowering the pitch of the voice may mean the end of a sentence, a sharp intake of breath may signal the desire
to interrupt, catching the chairman’s eye may indicate the desire to speak in a formal setting like a debate, a
clenched fist may indicate anger. When (22)_______ visual signals are not possible, more formal signals may
be needed.
18. A. exchange B. interchange C. communication D. correspondence
19. A. announcer B. receiver C. messenger D. transmitter
20. A. that people use B. are used C. using D. being used
21. A. Informal B. non-verbal C. verbal D. formal
22. A. their B. these C. this D. that
23. The state school system is free for all students and _______ by the government.
A. is paid for B. is paying for C. pays for D. is being pay for
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24. Jane got married_______ Peter two years ago, but now they have split
A. as B. with C. for D. to
25. The H5N1 infected patients have to _______ others to prevent the virus from spreading
A. take care of B. get away C. look after D. stay away from
26. Whenever I have problems, Jane is always very dependable. She never ______.
A. turns up B. let me down C. turns me off D. turns out
27. Students are expected to write their homework slowly and _______.
A. Careless B. carefully C. carelessly D. careful
28. During the interview, you should try to ____ a good impression on your interview.
A. Create B. have C. give D. try
29. An academic year in Vietnam is divided _____ two terms
A. In B. into C. within D. from
30. Global warming is obviously _______ a worrying influence on the climate worldwide
A. Having B. making C. giving D. taking
31. He wanted to know whose car I borrowed _____
A. Yesterday B. evening the last evening
C. last night D. the previous night
32. The man to _______ we have just talked is the Director General
A. Who B. that C. whom D. 0
33. Though built in 1946, computers were sold ______ for the first time in the 1950s
A. Commercial B. commercialise C. commercially D. commerce
34. ______hard, you will get good results in the coming examination.
A. Should you work B. unless you work C. if you will work D. if work
Stars have been significant features in the design of many United States coins and their number has
varied from one to forty-eight stars. Most of the coins issued from about 1799 to the early years of the twentieth
century bore thirteen stars representing the thirteen original colonies.
Curiously enough, the first American silver coins, issued in 1794, had fifteen stars because by that time
Vermont and Kentucky has joined the Union. At that time it was apparently the intention of mint officials to
add a star for each new state. Following the admission of Tennessee in 1796, for example, some varieties of
half dimes, dimes, and half-dollars were produced with sixteen starts.
As more states were admitted to the Union, however, it quickly became apparent that this scheme would
not prove practical and the coins from A798 on were issued with only thirteen stars-one for each of the original
colonies. Due to an error at the mint, one variety of the A828 half cent was issued with only twelve stars. There
is also a variety of the large cent with only A2 stars, but this is the result of a die break and is not a true error.
35. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Stars on American coins
B. The teaching of astronomy in state universities
C. The star as national symbol of the United States
D. Colonial stamps and coins
36. The word”their” in line 1 refers to _______
A. Coins B. features C. colonies D. stars
37. The word”bore” in line 3 is closest in meaning to ________
A. Carried B. drilled C. symbolized D. cost
38. The expression”Curiously enough” is used because the author finds it strange that _______
A. Silver coins with fifteen stars appeared before coins with thirteen
B. Vermont and Kentucky joined the Union in 1794
C. Tennessee was the first state to use half dimes
D. No silver coins were issued until 1794
39. Which of the following can be inferred about the order in which Kentucky, Tennessee, and Vermont joined
the Union?
A. Vermont joined after Tennessee and Kentucky.
B. Kentucky joined before Tennessee and Vermont.
C. Tennessee joined Vermont and Kentucky.
D. Vermont and Kentucky joined at the same time.
40. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the denomination of an American coin?
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A. Half cent B. Half-dollar C. Half dime D. Half nickel
41. Why was a coin produced in 1828 with only twelve stars?
A. There was a change in design policy. B. There were twelve states at the time.
C. The mint made a mistake. D. Tennessee had left the Union.
questions.
42. (A) If you take (B) the train, it (C) would be (D) much more convenient.
43. (A) Some of his favourite (B) subjects at school (C) are Maths, English and (D) Geographical.
44. (A) Could you tell (B) me (C) how can I get to (D) the city library, please?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pairs of sentences in the
45. They were rich; they didn’t have a happy family, though.
A. Although they were rich, but they didn’t have a happy family.
B. Rich though they were, they didn’t have a happy family.
C. They were rich although they didn’t have a happy family.
D. However they were rich, they didn’t have a happy family.
46. One student failed because he completely ignored the instruction on the paper. The instructions appeared on
the top of every page.
A. One student failed because he completely ignored the instructions appearing on the top of every page
on the paper.
B. Even though one student ignored the instructions printed on the top of every paper, he failed.
C. One student failed to ignore the instructions printed on the top of every page of paper.
D. No matter how completely one student ignored the instructions printed on the top of every page of the
paper, he failed.
exchanges.
47. Peter and Bob are talking about the plan for tonight.
Peter:”_________________.” Bob:”I’d love to. Thank you.”
A. Would you like to go to the new coffee shop with me?
B. What would you do if you can afford a new car?
C. Would you like a cake?
D. Why do you spend so much time playing games?
48. Two people are talking on the phone.
A:”Could I speak to Alex, please?” B:”___________________.”
A. Can I take the message? B. I’m sorry. Alex is not in.
C. Just a moment. I’m coming. D. This is Joe speaking.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
49: A. imports B. groups C. techniques D. computers
50: A. technology B. chores C. schooling D. chemistry
ĐỀ SỐ 23
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A trend that has emerged recently is the sharing of childcare (1) __________ between husband and wife.
Young couples will try to arrange their work schedules so that they work opposite hours or shifts in order that
one parent is always home with the children. Since childcare is expensive, this saves money for the young
couple trying to establish themselves and provide a secure environment for the family. Husband and wife may
also share household chores. Some fathers are just as capable as mothers at cooking dinner, changing and
bathing the baby, and doing the laundry.
In some cases, the woman’s salary is for family (2) __________ and the father becomes
the”househusband." These cases are still fairly rare. One positive trend, however, is that fathers seem to be
spending more time with their children. In a recent survey, 41% of the children sampled said they spend equal
time with their mothers and fathers.”This is one of our most significant cultural changes,” says Dr. Leon
Hoffman, who co-directs the Parent Child Center at the New York Psychoanalytic Society. In practice, for over
30 years, Hoffman has found”a very dramatic difference in the involvement of the father in everything from
care-taking to general decision (3) __________ around kids' lives.”
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Another factor has recently been added to the childcare formula. The number of people who work from
home nearly full-time rose 23% from the last decade. The (4) _________ of technology - computers, faxes,
teleconferencing - has made it easier for at-home workers to be constantly in touch. Will this new flexibility in
the workforce bring a positive change for the (5) __________ of children? Only time will tell.
1: A. abilities B. possibilities C. techniques D. responsibilities
2: A. payment B. expenses C. fares D. fees
3: A. making B. creating C. holding D. giving
4: A. accessible B. accessibly C. access D. accessibility
5: A. well-being B. security C. comfort D. interests
6: My first impression of her was her impassive face.
A. respectful B. emotional C. solid D. fractious
7: We left New York when I was six, so my recollections of it are rather faint.
A. clear B. unintelligible C. explicable D. ambiguous
questions.
8: Much to my astonishment, I found his lecture on wildlife conservation extremely interesting.
A. Contrary to my expectations, his lecture on wildlife conservation was the most fascinating of all.
B. I was fascinated by what he said in his lecture on wildlife conservation though I hadn’t expected to be.
C. I hadn’t expected him to lecture on wildlife conservation, but he spoke well.
D. It was at his lecture on wildlife conservation that I realized I needed to study it.
9: Although he was able to do the job, he wasn’t given the position.
A. The position wasn’t given to him in spite of his ability to do the job.
B. He was given neither the job nor the position.
C. Because he couldn’t do the job, he wasn’t given the position.
D. He got the position despite being unable to do the job.
10: It is certain that the new cuts will worry the staff.
A. The new cuts certainly worry the staff. B. The new cuts will be certainly worry the staff.
C. The new cuts are bound to worry the staff. D. The new cuts will be bound to worry the staff.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the preposition of
11: A. involve B. control C. tonight D. purpose
12: A. hurricane B. photograph C. recommend D. separate
questions.
13: Digital clocks, however precise, (A) they cannot be (B) perfectly accurate because (C) the earth’s rotation
changes (D) slightly over years.
14: (A) On the floor of the Pacific Ocean (B) is (C) hundreds of flat-topped mountains (D) more than a mile
beneath sea level.
15: (A) My sister told me that (B) she had met my teacher (C) at the supermarket (D) yesterday.
questions.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a
substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank
among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer
greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a
varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has
begun to develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many
different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint
pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk,
eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if
these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also
tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium
glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red
wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods
(read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-
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vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food
additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green
peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the
book”Why your Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet
is effective.
16: The topic of this passage is _____________.
A. infants and allergies B. food and nutrition
C. reactions to foods D. a good diet
17: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to ___________.
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
18: The word”symptoms" is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. prescriptions B. diet C. diagnosis D. indications
19: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
20: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with
the infant's _______.
A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism
C. inability to swallow solid foods D. underdeveloped intestinal tract
21: The word”these" refers to ___________.
A. food additives B. food colorings C. innutritious foods D. foods high in salicylates
22: Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate D. Eating more ripe bananas
23: According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT ___________.
A. available in book form
B. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
24: I knew he was only flattering me because he wanted to borrow some money.
A. teasing B. threatening C. praising D. elevating
25: The kidnapper gave himself up to the authorities.
A. confided himself B. surrendered C. accommodated himself D. went up
26: The demand was so great. They had to reprint the book immediately.
A. They demanded that the book be reprinted immediately.
B. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately.
C. The book would be reprinted immediately since the demand was great.
D. They demanded to reprint the book immediately.
27: He did not work hard. He failed the exam.
A. Even though he failed the exam, he didn’t work hard.
B. Unless he had worked hard, he would have failed the exam.
C. If he had worked hard, he would have passed the exam.
D. However hard he worked, he failed the exam.
questions
Smart cards and mobile phones are becoming an increasingly popular way to make all sorts of payments.
Even now, in Japan thousands of transactions, from paying rail tickets to picking up the groceries, take place
every day with customers passing their handsets across a small flat-screen device. And predictions in the
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world of finance reckon that payments using mobile phones will have risen to more than $50 billion in the very
near future.
What's the appeal of e-cash? Compared to cheques or credit cards, it offers the speed of cash, but more so.
It takes just one tenth of a second to complete most transactions and as no change is required, errors in counting
are eliminated. Fraud and theft are also reduced and for the retailer, it reduces the cost of handling money.
Sony's vision of having a chip embedded in computers. TVs and games consoles means that films, music and
games can be paid for easily and without having to input credit card details.
And what about the future of the banks? Within their grip on the market, banks and credit-card firms want
to be in a position to collect most of the fees from the users of mobile and contactless-payment systems. But the
new system could prove to be a “disruptive technology" as far as the banks are concerned. If payments for a
few coffees, a train ticket and a newspaper are made every day by a commuter with a mobile, this will not
appear on their monthly credit card statements but on their mobile phone statements. And having spent fortunes
on branding, credit-card companies and banks do not want to see other payment systems gaining popularity. It's
too early to say whether banks will miss out and if so, by how much. However, quite a few American bankers
are optimistic They feel there is reason to he suspicious of those who predict that high-street banks may be a
thing of the past. They point out that Internet banking did not result in the closure of their high-street branches
as was predicted. On the contrary, more Americans than ever are using local branches. So, whether we'll
become a totally cash-free society remains open to contention.
28: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. The absence of traditional payment methods
B. Predictions of future payment methods
C. Japan's advanced forms of payment
D. The increasing popularity of new payment methods
29: Why does the author mention”a small flat-screen device" in the first paragraph?
A. to exemplify the e-cash system B. to criticize the e-cash system
C. to praise the e-cash system D. to inform the e-cash system
30: Which of the following is NOT true about the strong point of e-cash?
A. faster speed B. no fraud C. fewer mistakes D. reduced cost
31: The word”embedded” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. manufactured B. isolated C. integrated D. generated
32: The author mentions the case of commuters in the third paragraph to illustrate ____________.
A. the modern technology of the e-cash system
B. a possible drawback of the system
C. the banks' cooperation with credit-card companies
D. the transferability of the system
33: What does the author think may happen in the future?
A. Daily expenses on drinks and tickets will appear on phone statements.
B. Banks will collect their fees through credit-card companies.
C. Americans will no longer go to their local bank branches.
D. Credit-card companies and banks will want to promote cash.
34: How does the writer seem to feel about the future of banks?
A. neutral B. uncertain C. optimistic D. pessimistic
exchanges.
35:”Can I use your computer?” –”_______.”
A. Well done. B. No, thanks. C. Of course D. Yes, I can
36:”I’m sorry I’m late.” –”________.”
A. Never mind. Go ahead B. No worries. Come in, please. C. Good to hear that.
D. Don’t say so again.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part different from the other three in
37: A. shrine B. potential C. sure D. question
38: A. compete B. intend C. medal D. defend
39: Bob has a bad lung cancer and his doctor advised him to ________ smoking.
A. turn up B. give up C. take up D. put up
40: They ________ have seen the play last night as they went to a football match instead.
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A. could B. must C. can’t D. might
41: We ________ for this opportunity for more than three years.
A. were waiting B. have been waiting C. waited D. are waiting
42: I’m sorry, but I’ve got ________ much work to do to come to the beach today.
A. too B. such C. enough D. so
43: During the week of the national tourism festival, we had visitors _______ from all over the country.
A. come B. came C. coming D. to have come
44: Going on this diet has really ________ me good. I’ve lost weight and I feel fantastic!
A. done B. taken C. made D. had
45: I have lived near the airport for so long now that I’ve grown ______ to the noise of the airplanes.
A. accustomed B. unconscious C. familiar D. aware
46:”Your kitchen is fantastic! Did you do it all by yourself?” –”No, I ______ by a professional.”
A. had it designed B. have it to be designed
C. had designed it D. designed it
47. I think there’s a picture of the hotel _______the first page.
A. in B. at C. on D. to
48. All applicants must ______ their university transcript and two reference letters to be considered for this job.
A. permit B. omit C. submit D. admit
49. We will leave for the airport ________ he is ready.
A. while B. during C. until D. as soon as
50. It is time every student ______ harder for the coming exam.
A. works B. should work C. work D. Worked
ĐỀ SỐ 24
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part needs correction in each of the following
questions.
1: Having (A) finished his tem paper (B) before the deadline, (C) it was delivered to professor (D) before the
class
2: I’m (A) very glad that you’ve (B) done (C) lots of (D) progress this semester.
3: You can (A) enjoy a sport (B) without joining (C) in a club or (D) belonging to a team.
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each the following exchanges.
4: John:”Do you fancy a drink?” Catherine:”______”
A. No, ever! B. I’m not sure I do. Thank all the same
C. I don’t want D. It is none of your business
5:”Excuse me, can you tell me where I can catch a bus to London, please?” -”______”
A. Sure, go ahead B. Sorry, I’m new here myself
C. OK. Here’s your ticket D. Yes, please
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from
the Japanese expression for”high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general public as
tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea
waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity. Tsunamis are caused when
the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano for example, and the water above
the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can
travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little
noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the
coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters. Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the
Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis
are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean
bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and can, therefore,
prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles
away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of
Hawaii generally have time for warning of their imminent arrival. Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan
and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the
Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area
around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the
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Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby
Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and was witnessed as far
away as the English Channel.
6: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _________ .
A. tides B. storm surges C. tidal waves D. underwater earthquakes
7: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that _____ .
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
C. they are the same as tsunamis
D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
8: The word”displaced” in line 6 is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. not pleased B. located C. moved D. filtered
9: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis ________ .
A. are often identified by ships on the ocean
B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
D. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean
10: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to __ .
A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska
C. arrive without warning D. be less of a problem
11: A”calamitous” tsunami, in line 17, is one that is _________ .
A. disastrous B. expected C. extremely calm D. at fault
12: From the expression”on record” in line 19, it can be inferred that the tsunami that accompanied the
Krakatoa volcano _____ .
A. was filmed as it was happening B. occurred before efficient records were kept
C. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon D. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
13: The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano
A. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands B. resulted in little damage
C. was far more destructive close to the source than far away D. caused volcanic explosions in
the English Channel
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
14: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problem we are facing.
A. wealthy B. kind C. broke D. poor
15: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.
A. buy new belt B. sell the belt C. squander D. economize
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
16: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. divorced B. married C. single D. separated
17: Education is desperately need in many countries with a high percentage of population being unable to read
and write.
A. literate B. latterly C. wordy D. learned
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the offer three in
18: A. address B. canal C. about D. cultural
19: A. create B. creature C. peak D. beach
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the offer three in the position of primary
20: A. zoology B. permanent C. movement D. government
21: A. reservation B. communicate C. dictation D. occasion
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
22: Ben would have studied medicine if he ___ to a medical school.
A. was admitted B. has been admitted C. had admitted D. would be able to enter
23: In 1973, when the tigers appeared to be facing ___ the World Wide Fund for ___ and the Indian
Government agreed to set up”Operation Tiger”.
A. extinct/ Nature B. extinction/ Nature C. extinction/ Natural D. extinct/ Naturalists
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24: There is ___ public concern in Shelton following the discovery on Tuesday evening of a metal container
filled with poisonous liquid.
A. consider B. consideration C. considerable D. considerably
25: This house is ___ the others we’ve seen.
A. father more expensive than B. far more expensive than
C. far most expensive D. further more expensive
26: The house owner __ _ coming near the dog as it could become very fierce unexpectedly.
A. warned me against B. advised me C. stopped me D. accused me of
27: I ___ Melisa at my yoga class tonight and will ask her about the plan for this weekend.
A. will be seeing B. will have seen C. will not see D. will have been seeing
28: Jack and Laure ___ married for 25 years by that time but they still decided to get divorced.
A. have been B. were C. will be D. had been
29: This orange juice ___ awful: I bet you ___ it,
A. is smelling/ like B. smelling/ will not like
C. smells/ will not like D. has smelled/ liked
30: The size and shape of a nail depends primarily on the function ___ intended.
A. which it is B. for which it is C. which it is for D. for which is
31: The ___ friendly products are designed not to harm the natural environment.
A. environment B. environmental C. environmentally D. environmentally
32: He asked me ___ Robert and I did not know ____.
A. that did I know/ who were Robert B. that I knew/ who Robert were
C. if I knew/ who Robert was D. whether I knew/ who was Robert
33: Her contract ___ in two months, so she’s looking for another job.
A. runs down B. runs out C. goes out D. goes away
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phases that best
People have always dreamt of living forever. Although we all know this will never happen, we will want
to live as long as possible.
__(34)__, there are advantages and disadvantages of a long life.In the first place, people who live longer
can spend more time with their family and friends. Secondly, __(35)__have busy working lives look forward to
a long, relaxing life, when they can do the things they‘ve never had time for.__(36)__, there are some serious
disadvantages. Firstly, many people become ill and consequently have to spend time in hospital or become
burden __(37)__ the children and friends. Many of them find this dependence annoying or embarrassing. In
addition to this, __(38)__ the fewer friends they seem to have because old friends die or become and it’s often
difficult to make new friends.
To sum up, living to a very old age is worthwhile for those who stay healthy enough to remain
independent and enjoy life.
34: A. Naturally B. Really C. Consequently D. Surprisingly
35: A. people who B. people C. people D. everyone who
36: A. In other words B. For example C. On the other hand D. Contrary to
37: A. of B. for C. to D. with
38: A. when people get older B. when the older people get
C. the old people get D. the older people get
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following
questions.
39: Life on earth will be destroyed if people keep cutting trees for their own benefits.
A. If we stop to cut the trees for our benefits, the life on earth will be better.
B. If we don’t continue to cut trees for our benefits, life on earth will be destroyed.
C. Life on earth will be destroyed unless people stop cutting trees for their own benefits.
D. The more trees we cut for our benefits, the worst the earth becomes.
40: WHO means World Health Organization.
A. WHO is on behalf of Health Organization.
B. WHO stand for Health Organization.
C. WHO is translated from Health Organization.
D. WHO is explained about Health Organization.
41: The hurricane destroyed hundreds of buildings in the city.
A. The hurricane resulted in destruction of hundreds of buildings in the city.
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B. The hurricane resulted from destruction of hundreds of buildings in the city.
C. Despite the appearance of the hurricane, hundreds of buildings in the city haven’t been in damager of
destruction.
D. The hurricane appeared, however, hundreds of buildings in the city have been destroyed.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each questions
from 42 to 48.
A lot of advice is available for college leavers heading for their first job. In this article we consider the
move to a second job. We are not concerned with those looking for a second temporary position while hunting
for a permanent job. Nor are we concerned with those leaving an unsatisfactory job within the first few weeks.
Instead, we will be dealing with those of you taking a real step on the career ladder, choosing a job to fit in with
your ambitions now that you have learnt your way around, acquired some skills and have some idea of where
you want to go. What sort of job should you look for? Much depends on your long-term aim. You need to ask
yourself whether you want to specialize in a particular field, work your way up to higher levels of responsibility
or out of your current employment into a broader field. Whatever you decide, you should choose your second
job very carefully. You should be aiming to stay in it for two or three years. This job will be studied very
carefully when you send your letter of application for your next job. It should show evidence of serious career
planning. Most important, it should extend you, develop you and give you increasing responsibility.
Incidentally, if you are interested in traveling, now is the time to pack up and go. You can do temporary work
for a while when you return, pick up where you left off and get the second job then. Future potential employers
will be relieved to see that you have got it out of your system, and are not likely to go off again. Juliette
Davidson spend her first year after leaving St. Aldate’s College working for three lawyers. It was the perfect
first job in that”OK ... they were very supportive people. I was gently introduced to the work, learnt my way
around an office and improve my word processing skills. However, there was no scope for advancement. One
day, I gave my notice, bought an air ticket and traveled for a year. Juliette now works as a Personal Assistant to
Brenda Cleverdon, the Chief Executive of business in the Community.”In two and a half years I have become
more able and my job has really grown,”she says.”Right from the beginning my boss was very keen to develop
me. My job title is the same as it was when I started but the duties have changed. From mainly typing and
telephone work, I have progressed to doing most of the correspondence and budgets. I also have to deal with a
variety of queries, coming from chairmen of large companies to people wanting to know how to start their own
business. Brenda involves me in all her work but also gives me specific projects to do and events to organize.”
42: Who is intended to benefit from the advice given in the article?
A. students who have just finished their studies
B. people who are unhappy with their current job
C. those who are interested in establishing a career
D. people who change jobs regularly
43: According to the writer, why is the choice of your second job important?
A. It will affect your future job prospects.
B. It will last longer than your first job.
C. It will be difficult to change if you don’t like it.
D. It should give you the opportunity to study.
44:”It” in the passage refers to_______.
A. first job B. second job C. application D. career
45: If you have a desire to travel, when does the writer suggest that you do it?
A. straight after you have left college B. when you are unable to find a permanent job
C. after you have done some temporary work D. between the first and second job
46: What does the phrase”you have got it out of your system” in passage mean?
A. You have planned your career sensibly. B. You are an experienced traveler.
C. You have satisfied your wish to travel. D. You have learned to look after yourself.
47. How did Juliette Davidson benefit from the experience of her first job?
A. She met a variety of interesting people. B. It was good introduction to working in an office.
C. She learnt how to use a word processor. D. It enabled her to earn enough money to travel.
48. In what way is Juliette’s current job better her first job?
A. She has a more impressive job title. B. She now know how to start her own business.
C. She has been able to extend her skills. D. She is more involve in the community.
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair sentences in the following
questions.
49. The student works part-time at a bid restaurant. He also paints pictures to earn for living.
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A. Apart from works part-time at a bid restaurant, the student also paints pictures to earn for living.
B. In addition working part-time at a big restaurant, the student also paints pictures to earn for living.
C. Besides working part-time at a big restaurant, the student also paints pictures to earn for living.
D. The student works part-time at a big restaurant as well as he paints pictures to earn for living.
50. The buses began to pull out. Most of them were full passengers.
A. The passengers, most of them were full of, began to pull out the buses.
B. The passengers, most of whom were full of the buses, began to pull out.
C. The buses, most of them were full of passengers, began to pull out.
D. The buses, most of which were full of passengers, began to pull out.
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