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ii
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-.. 16-7-2011
-~ .-|--.
~.-.~.-.~-.| ~.-.~.-.~-.| ~.-.~.-.~-.| ~.-.~.-.~-.| ~.-.~.-.~-.|
~-.
1
Objectives K U A and S Total
Marks 30 40 30 100
Weightage to Objectives :
Weightage to Objectives Questions :
Objective Questions Questions Questions Questions Total
Questions of four of three of two of one Questions/
Marks Marks Marks Mark Marks
Number of
Questions 03 06 15 40 64
Total Marks 12 18 30 40 100
Weightage to Difficulty Level :
Easy 30%
Average 40%
Difficult 30%
Unit No. Unit/Sub Unit Marks
1. Mathematical Reasoning 05
2. Set Theory 10
3. Relations and Functions 08
4. Trigonometric Functions 15
5. Special values and graph of t-f 05
6. Straight lines 15
7. Permutations and Combinations 14
8. Linear Inequalities 06
9. Dispersion 12
10. Probability 10
Total 100
Weightage to Content :
Std. - 11
Semester - 1
Mathematics (050)
Scheme of question paper
Time : 2.00 Hrs. and 30 Minutes Total Marks : 100
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Std. : 11
Semester - 1
Mathematics (050)
Time : 2.00 Hrs. and 30 Minutes Sample Question Paper Total Marks : 100
(1) This question paper contains 64 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(2) Figure to the right indicates full marks of the respective question.
(3) Select proper option to make the statement correct.
(4) Read the questions carefully before you answer.
(1) p q is false, when, (01)
(A) p and q are true (B) p and q are false
(C) p is true and q is false (D) p is false and q is true
(2) The contrapositive of p q is ............. (01)
(A) q p (B) ~q ~p (C) p ~q (D) ~p q
(3) ~(P or q) is ............. (01)
(A) p and q (B) ~p and ~q (C) p or ~q (D) (~p) and (~q)
(4) Converse of If ab = 0 then (a = 0 or b = 0) is ............. (01)
(A) If ab = 0 then (a
=
0 and b
=
0) (B) If ab
=
0 then (a = 0 or b = 0)
(C) If (a = 0 or b = 0) then ab = 0 (D) If (a
=
0 and b
=
0) then ab = 0
(5) The negation of the statement : ueR, sin
2
u u + cos
2
= 1 is ............. (01)
(A) ueR, sin
2
u u + cos 1
2
= (B) ueR, sin
2
u u + cos 1
2
=
(C) - e u R, sin
2
u u + cos 1
2
= (D)
- e u R
, sin
2
u u + cos 1
2
=
(6) (AB) (AB) = ............. (where A
=
B) (01)
(A) A B (B) B A
(C) (A B) (B A) (D) AB
(7) n(A) + n(B) = ............. (where A, B are finite sets & AB
=
|) (01)
(A) n(AB) (B) n(AB)
(C) n(AB)n (AB) (D) n(AB) +n (AB)
(8) (AB) (AB) = ............. (01)
(A) A (B) B (C) | (D) U
4
(9) If n(A) = 3 then the number of proper subsets of set p(A) = ............. (01)
(A) 8 (B) 64 (C) 256 (D) 254
(10) If U = [1, 2] and A = {x / xeN, x
2
+ x 2 = 0} then A = ............. (01)
(A) (1, 2] (B) [1, 2) (C) {2, 1} (D) |
(11) For the function f : z z, f(x) = x 3, g : z z g(x) = x + 3 (01)
then fog : z z, (fog) (x) = ..................
(A) |x| (B) x (C) x
2
9 (D)
x + 3
x - 3
, x
=
3
(12) f(x) =
1
x
D
f
= [a, b], 0 < a < b then the range of f = ............. (01)
(A)
1
a
,
1
b
(B) [b, a] (C)
1
b
,
1
a
(D) [a, b]
(13) If for a relation S : A B, S = A x B, then S is ............. (01)
(A) empty relation (B) the universal relation
(C) non-empty and non universal relation (D) not defined
(14) If f(x) = x x
2
then f(a + 1) f (a 1) = ............. (where aeR) (01)
(A) 4 2a (B) 2a + 4 (C) 2a 4 (D) 2 4a
(15) tan
u
+ cot
u
= 2 tan
4
u + cot
4
u = ............. (01)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 16
(16) The value of sin
2
u
cos
2
u
(sec
2
u
+ cosec
2
u
) = ............. (01)
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 0
(17) The set of zeros of : |cos2x| 1 is = ............. (01)
(A) {kt/kez} (B)
k
2
t
/k z e
(C) {(2k+1)
t
2
/kez} (D) {(2k + 1)t/kez}
(18) The length of an arc of a circle of radius 28 cm that subtends an angle of measure
45
o
at the centre is ............. (01)
(A) 12 cm (B) 16 cm (C) 22 cm (D) 24 cm
(19) For u = 1150
o
, the number of complete rotations is ............. (01)
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 3 (D) 4
5
(20) tan
50
3
t
= ............. (01)
(A)
3
(B)
3
(C)
1
3
(D)
1
3
(21) 2cosec
2
t
4
+ 2sec
2
t
4
+ cos
2
t
3
+ 3cot
2
t
3
= ............. (01)
(A)
61
4
(B)
69
4
(C)
67
4
(D)
63
4
(22) If p(1, 0), Q(0, 0) and R(3, 3 3 ) then the equation of bisector of ZPQR is ............. (01)
(A) 3 x + 2y = 0 (B) x + 3 y = 0 (C) 3 x + y = 0 (D) 2x + 3 y = 0
(23) p o form of 3 x y + 4 = 0 is ............. (01)
(A) x cos
t
6
+ y sin
t
6
= 2 (B) x cos
5
6
t
+ y sin
5
6
t
= 2
(C) xcos
t
3
+ y sin
t
3
= 2 (D) xcos

5
6
t
+ y sin

5
6
t
= 2
(24) If the slope of the line
x
a
+
y
b
- 1 + k
x
b
+
y
a
- 1 = 0 is 1, then k = .............,
(where a
=
b) (01)
(A) -1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) 2
(25) If one vertex of an equilateral triangle is (0, 0) and the other vertex is on the line
x 3 y = 0, then it third vertex is ............. (where length of side is a) (01)
(A) (a, 0) (B) (a, 0) (C) (0, a) (D) (a, a)
(26)
n
P
r
= ............. , (0 < r < n , r, neN) (01)
(A) n(n 1) (n 2)

.............

(n r)
(B) n(n 1) (n 2) ............. 3 2 1
(C) n(n 1) (n 2) ............. (n r 1)
(D) n(n 1) (n 2) ............. (n r + 1)
(27) If = 11
3
2
3
n n
, then
2
n
= ............. . (01)
(A) 6 (B) 18 (C) 15 (D) 22
(28) If all the letters of the word AGAIN are permuted, what is the fiftieth word in
the dictionary order ? (01)
(A) NAAIG (B) NAAGI (C) NAGAI (D) NAIAG
6
(29) How many words can be formed by using all the letters of the word
EXAMINATION ? (01)
(A) 49,89,600 (B) 99,79,200 (C) 1,99,58,400 (D) 3,99,16,800
(30) If the number of diagonals of a convex polygon is 44, then find its number of sides. (01)
(A) 8 (B) 44 (C) 11 (D) 35
(31) The graph of the solution set of x y
>
0, is ............. (01)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(32) The graph of the solution set of
x
3
+ 5
>
x
2
+ 7 is ............. (xeR) (01)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
y
x
o
y
x

y
=
0
x
o
x

y
=
0
y
x
o
x

y
=
0
x

y
=
0
x
y
o
12
12
12
12
7
(33) The graph of solution set of 3x 1
>
5, x + 2
s
1, xeR is ......... (01)
(A) |
(B)
(C)
(D)
(34) The graph of solution set of y
>
0, y
s
4, x < 5 is ............. (01)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(35) If n = 10, then the formula for finding median of an ungrouped data is ............. (01)
(A) M = value of
n + 1
2
th observation
(B) M = value of
n
2
th observation
(C) M
th
=
value of
n
2
th observation +
n
2
+ 1 observation
2
(D) M = value of
n
2
+ 1
th observation
2
3
2
y
o
x
y=0
y=0
x
x=5
y
y=4
x
y=0
x=5
0
0
y=4
y=0
x
3
y
o
8
(36) Suppose a population A has 100 observations 101, 102, ...., 200 and another
population B has 100 observations 151, 152, ......, 250. If V
A
and V
B
represent the
variances of two population respectively, then
V
V
A
B
is ............. (01)
(A) 1 (B)
9
4
(C)
4
9
(D)
2
3
(37) If S.D. of a variate x is 4 and y =
3x + 7
4
, then S.D. of y is ............. (01)
(A) 4 (B) 3.5 (C) 3 (D) 2.5
(38) If A and B are mutually exclusive events, p(A) = 0.74, p(B) = 0.21 then
p(AB) = ............. (01)
(A)
1
20
(B)
53
100
(C)
19
20
(D)
1
5
(39) For events A, B e S; p(AB) = ............. (where p(A)
=
p(B)) (01)
(A) p(A) p(B) (B) p(B) p(AB) (C) p(B) p(A) (D) p(A) p(AB)
(40) 7 boys and 2 girls are to be seated in a row. The probability of an arrangement
in which two girls are adjacent to each other is ......... (01)
(A)
1
9
(B)
2
9
(C)
7
9
(D)
3
9
(41) In a students hostel accomodating 200 students, 50 like Idli and 75 like Upma
and 35 like both Idli and Upma. How many students like neither Idli nor Upma ? (02)
(A) 75 (B) 110 (C) 200 (D) 90
(42) If f : {(1, 1), (2, 3), (3, 5), (4, 7)}, f(x) = ax + b then the value of a and b are
respectively ............. (02)
(A) 2, 1 (B) 2, 1 (C) 2, 1 (D) 2, 1
(43) f : R R, f(x) = x
2
+ 2x + 3, Range of f is ............. (02)
(A) (2, ) (B) (, 2] (C) [2, ) (D) [3, )
(44) If coso + sino =
2
coso then coso sino = ............. (0 < o <
t
2
) (02)
(A) 2 2 coso (B) 2 2 sino (C)
2
sino (D) 2 seco
(45) If secA tanA =
a + 1
a - 1
, then cosA = ............. (a = 1) (02)
(A)
2
2
a
a - 1
(B)
2
2
a
a + 1
(C)
a
a
2
2
+ 1
- 1
(D)
a
a
2
2
- 1
+ 1
(46) cotu =
1
5
;
t
2
< u < t then sinu = ............. (02)
(A)
6
5
(B)
5
6
(C)
2
6
(D)
1
6
9
(47) If 3
a
2
+ a
= 9
a
2
+ a
, then a = .......... (where aeN - {1, 2}) (02)
(A) 3 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 6
(48) A number is formed by using 0, 1, 2, 3, 4. It is divisible by 20. The total number
of such number is ............. (02)
(A) 12 (B) 6 (C) 24 (D) 96
(49) Four points are on one-line. The other six points (not on that line) are in the plane
and of these points any three are not collinear, line joining any two points out
of this 6 points not passes through any of the given 4 collinear points then how
many total lines can be formed from such 10 points. (02)
(A) 40 (B) 116 (C) 44 (D) 640
(50) The line passing through (a cos
3
u
, a sin
3
u
) and perpendicular to xsec
u
+ ycosec
u
=
a is x cos
u
ysinu = k, then k = ............. (02)
(A) acos
3
u asin
3
u (B) acos
3
u + asin
3
u (C) acos
4
u + asin
4
u (D) acos
4
u asin
4
u
(51) A(2, 2), B (0, 4), C(3, 3); then the equation of bisector of ZA of
A
ABC is ............. (02)
(A) x 2 = 0 (B) y 4 = 0 (C) x + 3 = 0 (D) x + y = 2
(52)
|x - 2| - 2
|x - 1| - 1
s
0,
x R e
, then its solution set is ............. (02)
(A) [0, 4] (B) (2, 4] (C) R(0, 2) (D) [2, 4]
(53) The mean of 100 observations is 50 and their S.D. is 5. The sum of squares of
all the observations is ............. (02)
(A) 50,000 (B) 2,50,000 (C) 2,52,500 (D) 2,55,000
(54) A box contains 13 white, 12 blue and 5 black marbles. 4 marbles are randomly
selected from this box. Find the probability of the event that atleast one of the
selected marble is blue. (02)
(A)
1
27405
(B)
53130
27405
(C)
24345
27405
(D)
12650
27405
(55) If p(AB) =
3
4
and p(A) =
2
3
, then p(AB) = ............. (02)
(A)
1
12
(B)
3
7
(C)
5
12
(D)
7
12
10
(56) In column-A and column-B some sets are given, (03)
Column-A Column-B
(1) { } (a) {Sin90
o
, Sin120
o
, Sin135
o
, Sin150
o
Sin180
o
}
(2) {x
e
z/x
3
x = 0} (b) {xez / xeQ}
(3) {Cos0
o
, Cos30
o
, Cos45
o
, Cos60
o
, Cos90
o
} (c) {Seco, Sin
3
2
t
, tan
5
4
t
}
if sets in column A are matched with their corresponding equal sets in
column-B, then which of the following match is correct ?
(A) (1) (c), (2) (A), (3) (B) (B) (1) (A), (2) (C), (3) (B)
(C) (1) (B), (2) (C), (3) (A) (D) (1) (B), (2) (A), (3) (C)
(57) If
Sin x
3
=
Sin y
4
= 0. 20
,
t
2
< x <
t
,
t
2
< y < t, then 3Cos x 4Cos y = ............. (03)
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 2
(58) The line 3x + 8y + 13 = 0 and 5x + 3y + 4 = 0 contains two of the attitudes
of AABC. If the vertex C of AABC has co-ordinates (4, 5) then co-ordinates of
remaining vertices and area of AABC is : (03)
(A) (1, 3),

13
3
0
,
A
=
155
3
(B) (1, 3),

13
3
0
,
A
=
155
3
(C) (1, 3),

13
3
0
,
A
=
155
6
(D) (1, 3),

13
3
0
,
A
=
155
2
(59) If
r
n

1
1
= 36,
r - 1
n - 1
= 84,
r
n - 1
= 126 then from the following which are the
correct values of n and r ? (n > 1 to r > 1) (03)
(A) n = 4, r = 10 (B) n = 10, r = 5 (C) n = 10, r = 6 (D) n = 10, r = 4
(60) If the mean and the standard deviation of a
1
, a
2
, a
3
, ............. a
n
are a and S then
what would be the mean and standard deviation respectively of
ma
1
+ n, ma
2
+ n, ..... ma
3
+ n, ...... ma
n
+ n ? (where m
=
0, n
=
0) (03)
(A) na + m and |m|s (B) ma + n and |n|s
(C) ma + m + n and |m|s (D) ma + n and |m|s
(61) If p(B) =
3
4
, p(ABC) =
1
3
and p(ABC) =
1
3
then p(BC) is : (03)
(A)
1
12
(B)
1
6
(C)
1
15
(D)
1
9
11
(62) If tan
u
= 2 3 then value of cos
u
+ sin
u
is : (Where 0 <
u
<
t
2
) (04)
(A) 2 6 (B)
6
2
(C)
6
4
(D) 4 6
(63) A line passes through (4, 2) and the length of perpendicular segment from the
origin to this line has length 2 then which of the following is the equations of
this line ? (04)
(A) y = 2 and 0.4x + 0.3y + 1 = 0 (B) y 2 = 0 and 0.3x 0.4y 1 = 0
(C) y = 2 and 0.4x + 0.3 y + 1 = 0 (D) y = 2 and 0.4x + 0.3y 1 = 0
(64) The sum of values and sum of squares of values corresponding to height x
(in cm) and weight y (in gm) of 50 plants are given below : (04)
x
i
= 212, x
i
2

= 902.8, y
i
= 261, x
i
2

= 1457.6 which has more variation,

height or weight ?
(A) Variability of height is more then weight.
(B) Variability of weight is half of the height.
(C) Variability of weight is more then height.
(D) Variability of height is one third of weight.
12
Weightage to Objective Questions :
Weightage to Objectives :
Objective Question Question Question Question Total
Questions of four of three of two of one Questions/
Marks Marks Marks Mark Marks
Number of
Quesiton 03 06 15 40 64
Total Marks 12 18 30 40 100
Weightage to Difficulty Level :
Easy 30%
Average 40%
Difficult 30%
Unit Unit/Sub Unit Marks
No.
1. Basic concepts of Chemistry 14
2. Structive of Atom 14
3. Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 14
4. Redox Reaction 14
5. Hydrogen 12
6. The S-block elements (Alkali and Alkaline earth elements 14
7. Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry 18
Weightage to Content :
Objectives (K) (U) (A) (S) Total
Percentage of
Marks 30 40 20 10 100
Std. - 11
Semester - 1
Chemistry (052)
Scheme of question paper
Time : 2.00 Hrs. and 30 Minutes Total Marks : 100
13
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14
Instructions :
(1) This question paper contains 64 questions. All the questions are compulsory.
(2) Figure to the right indicate full marks.
(3) Select proper option to make the statement correct.
(4) Read the questions carefully before you answer.
(1) What will be value of 45
o
C in Fahrenheit Scale ? (01)
(A) 113
o
F (B) 183
o
F (C) 380
o
F (D) 318
o
F
(2) In which of the orbital, last electron entering in sulphur atom (z = 16) will make
the pair ? (01)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(3) In the compound formed by Silicon (z = 14) and Bromine (z = 35), the valency
of Si and Br respectively will be ___________. (01)
(A) 4, 7 (B) 6, 1 (C) 4, 1 (D) 4, 3
(4) Identify the element of grop-17, period-3. (01)
(A) Fluorine (B) Chlorine (C) Bromine (D) Iodine
(5) Which of the following compound contain nitrogen atom in its +3 oxidation state ? (01)
(A) NH
2
NH
2
(B) Ammonium Nitrite
(C) Ammonium Nitrate (D) NH
2
OH
(6) Which of the following products is available when ethyne react with hydrogen
in presence of raney nickel at 390 K ? (01)
(A) ethane (B) ethanal
(C) enthanol (D) ethane 1, 2-diol
(7) Select the product available by thermal decomposition of sodium nitrate. (01)
(A) N
2
(B) NO
2
(C) O
2
(D) Na
2
O
z
x
y
z
x
y
y
x
z
y
x
z
Std. : 11
Semester - 1
CHEMISTRY (052)
Time : 2.00 Hrs. and 30 Minutes Sample Question Paper Total Marks : 100
15
(8) State the product available on heterolytic fission. (01)
(A) Electrophile (B) Nucleophile (C) Only anion (D) A and B
(9) Matter can neither be created nor destroyed during chemical reaction, the
statement define which of the following laws ? (01)
(A) Atomic theory of Dalton (B) Law of Chemical combination
(C) Law of Conservation of mass (D) First Law of Thermodynamics
(10) Which of the following series is belong to infrared region of the spectrum ? (01)
(A) Paschen (B) Lyman (C) Balmer (D) X-rays
(11) Blue colour of aqueous solution of CuSO
4
lightens when Zn-rod is introduced to
it because ____________. (01)
(A) Cu
2+
ions of CuSO
4
gets precipitated.
(B) CuSO
4
gets converted to Cu(OH)
2
(C) Cu
2+
ions are reduced to Cu
1+
ions.
(D) A layer of copper metal is deposited on Zn-rod.
(12) Which cation exchange resin is used in order to remove Ca
2+
and Mg
2+
ions from
hard water. (01)
(A) Na
2
Al
2
Si
4
O
12
(B) RSO
3
Na (C) R NH
+
3
Cl

(D) all
(13) Name the product available on burning powdered berryllium in air. (01)
(A) Bessylium Peroxide (B) Berryllium Nitrate
(C) Berryllium Nitride (D) A and C both
(14) In which of the following molecules all the carbon atoms exhibit same type of
Hybridisation ? (01)
(A) Cyclobutane (B) n-butane (C) Isobutane (D) All
(15) Which of the following is the character of 1, 1, 1, 2 tetra fluoro-ethane ? (01)
(A) It is harmless pesticide.
(B) Molecule is know as HFC-134a is less harmful to ozone layer.
(C) It is used to prepare medicine for treatment of Cancer.
(D) It is used in preparing chemical fertilizer.
(16) Give mass of the fundamental particle discovered by Goldstein (01)
(A) 1.672

10
27
u (B) 1.00867 u
(C) 1.674

10
27
u (D) 1.00727 u
(17) Symbol of the orbit and type of orbitals present in n = 4, respectively are _______. (01)
(A) N, 16 (B) N, 9 (C) N, 18 (D) N, 4
(18) Identify the lanthenide series ............. (01)
(A) z = 90 to z = 103 (B) z = 58 to z = 71
(C) z = 72 to z = 80 (D) z = 40 to z = 48
16
(19) Distance between two chlorine atoms in Cl
2
molecule is 198 pm. What will be
the value of atomic radius of Chlorine Atom ? (01)
(A) 99 A
o
(B) 198 pm (C) 99 pm (D) 198 A
o
(20) Give reactivity correct order of N, O, F and Cl with reference to oxidising agent
character. (01)
(A) F > O > Cl > N (B) F > Cl > O > N
(C) Cl > F > O > N (D) O > F > N > Cl
(21) Which of the following redox reaction is of disproportionation type ? (01)
(A) P
4
+ H
2
O
2
H
3
PO
2
+ H
2
O (B) HNO
2
+ H
2
O
2
HNO
3
+ H
2
O
(C) P
4
+ OH

PH
3
+ H
2
PO
2

(D) Cu
2
S + O
2
Cu
2
O + SO
2
(22) State the oxidation number of sulphur atom in Ammonium perdisulphate viz
(NH
4
)
2
S
2
O
8
. (01)
(A) +4 (B) +6 (C) +7 (D) 0
(23) Which of the following elements doesnt give hydride ? (01)
(A) Te (B) Ti (C) Th (D) Tl
(24) Which of the following compounds is used to increase stability of Hydrogen
Peroxide ? (01)
(A) H
3
PO
4
(B) H
3
PO
3
(C) H
2
SO
4
(D) H
2
SO
3
(25) Which of the following compounds is present with 51% proportion in portland
cement ? (01)
(A) Dicalcium Silicate (B) Tricalcium Silicate
(C) Tricalcium Aluminate (D) Dicalcium Aluminate
(26) Which of the following can be used as fire extinguisher ? (01)
(A) Sodium Oxide (B) Sodium Carbonate
(C) Sodium Peroxide (D) Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate
(27) Which type of isomers are ethanal and vinylalohol ? (01)
(A) Position isomers (B) Metamers
(C) Tautomers (D) Functional group isomers
(28) How many o and t bonds are present in pent 2-ene-4 yne respectively ? (01)
(A) 10, 3 (B) 11, 2
(C) 10, 4 (D) 8, 3
(29) Identify free radical from the following. (01)
(A) H
2
(B) Cl (C) Cl (D) Cl
+
(30) Which of the following elements have maximum shielding effect ? (01)
(A) Group-13, Period-2 (B) Group-13, Period-3
(C) Group-13, Period-4 (D) Group-13, Period-5
17
(31) Which of the following ions has maximum ionic radius ? (01)
(A) Li
+
(B) O
2
(C) F
1
(D) Na
+
(32) Give number of protons, electrons and neutrons respectively in negative 2 charged
ion formed by
34
70
Se
. (01)
(A) 34, 36, 36 (B) 34, 36, 32 (C) 34, 32, 36 (D) 36, 34, 36
(33) Rutherfords atomic model is known as _________. (01)
(A) Model of Conductivity (B) Nuclear Model
(C) Photographic Plate (D)
o
-model
(34) Electron configuration of Molybdenum (z = 42) is _________. (01)
(A) [Kr] 4d
4
5S
2
(B) [Kr] 5S
2
5p
4
(C) [Kr] 4d
3
5S
2
5p
1
(D) [Kr] 4d
5
5S
1
(35) State the oxidation state of Nitrogen Atom in HCN and HCNO respectively ________. (01)
(A) +2, 3 (B) 3, 1 (C) 1, 3 (D) 3, 3
(36) State the total increase in the oxidation number of central atom of reducing agent
in following reaction. (01)
reaction N
2
H
4
+ Cu(OH)
2
N
2
+ Cu
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 0
(37) Which of the Hydride of Nitrogen has acidic character ? (01)
(A) N
2
H
4
(B) NH
3
(C) N
3
H (D) N
2
H
2
(38) Which of the following gases is available during hydrolysis of Be
2
C ? (01)
(A) Carbon Dioxide (B) Methane
(C) Carbon Monoxide (D) Hydrogen
(39) Which pump is important in human body for biochemical reactions ? (01)
(A) Na - K (B) Ca - Mg (C) Fe - Cu (D) Ca - Fe
(40) Which of the following salts give brick red flame ? (01)
(A) SrCl
2
(B) KCl (C) CaCl
2
(D) BaCl
2
(41) 100 ml 0.3N HNO
3
acid is mixed with 200ml 0.6N H
2
SO
4
. Calculate normality
of H
+
ion. (02)
(A) 0.1N (B) 0.5N (C) 0.2N (D) 0.3N
(42) 1,000 tonns of limestone is heated in open furnace how much pure lime is obtained ? (02)
(A) 56 tonns (B) 44 tonns (C) 560 tonns (D) 100 tonns
18
(43) Electron revolving in first orbit of hydrogen atom has 0.53 A
o
radius. Calculate
velocity of electron. (h = 6.626

10
27
ergs-sec m=9.109

10
28
g). (02)
(A) 2 10
10
cm.s
1
(B) 0.218 10
10
cm.s
1
(C) 2.5 10
10
cm.s
1
(D) 2.18 10
10
cm.s
1
(44) Give the general electron configuration of d-block and f-block elements respectively. (02)
(A) (n1)d
1to10
ns
2
and (n2)f
n
. (n1)d
1
.ns
2
(B) (n1)d
1to10
ns
1-2
and (n2)f
o
. (n1)d
1
.ns
2
(C) (n1)d
1to10
ns
1-2
and (n2)f
1-14
. (n1)d
0-1
.ns
2
(D) (n1)d
1to10
ns
1-2
and (n2)f
n+1
. ns
2
(45) Give symbol and atomic number respectively for the elements Unu and Uno. (02)
(A)
101
Md,
108
Hs (B)
101
Md,
110
Ds
(C)
103
Lr,
108
Hs (D)
104
Rf,
111
Rg
(46) Give the correct order of ionic radius of 3rd raw elements. (02)
(A) P
-3
> S
2
> Cl < Na
+1
< Mg
+2
< Al
+3
< Si
+4
(B) Na
+
> Mg
2+
> Al
3+
> Si
+4
< P
3-
< S
2-
< Cl
(C) Na
+
> Mg
2+
> Al
3+
> Si
4+
< P
3-
> S
2-
> Cl
(D) Na
+
< Mg
2+
< Al
3+
< Si
+4
< P
-3
< S
2-
< Cl
(47) Change in oxidation number of oxygen in H
2
O
2
when it reacts as oxidising and
reducing agent respectively are _________. (02)
(A) -2 to -1 and -1 to -2 (B) -1 to -2 and -1 to 0
(C) -1 to 0 and -1 to -2 (D) -1 to -2 and -2 to -1
(48) Which of the following is not the illustration of redox reaction. (02)
(A) 2KMnO
4
+ 10 FeSO
4
(NH
4
)
2
SO
4
+ 8H
2
SO
4

K
2
SO
4
+ 2MnSO
4
+ 5Fe
2
(SO
4
)
3
+ 10 (NH
4
)
2
SO
4
+ 8H
2
O
(B) 2KMnO
4
+ 5H
2
C
2
O
4
+ 3H
2
SO
4

K
2
SO
4
+ 2MnSO
4
+ 8H
2
O + 10CO
2
(C) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
+ 6FeSO
4
+ 7H
2
SO
4

K
2
SO
4
+ Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3
+ 3 Fe
2
(SO
4
)
3
+ 7H
2
O
(D) 2CCl
4
+ K
2
CrO
4
2Cl
2
CO +CrO
2
Cl
2
+ 2KCl
(49) With limited quantity of oxygen and with excess quantity of oxygen, oxides of
potassium respectively are ............ (02)
(A) K
2
O and K
2
O
2
(B) K
2
O
2
and KO
2
(C) K
2
O and KO
2
(D) KO
2
and K
2
O
(50) In order to get anhydrous aluminimum chloride, alumina (Al
2
O
3
) is heated with........... (02)
(A) Dry Cl
2
Gas (B) Hydrogen Chloride Gas
(C) Sodium Chloride (D) Carbon and Dry Chlorine Gas
19
(51) Products obtained by reaction between P
4
O
10
as well as Ca
3
N
2
with excess quantity
of water respectively are _________. (02)
(A) H
3
PO
4
and Ca(OH)
2
+ NH
3
(B) H
4
P
2
O
7
and Ca(OH)
2
+ NH
3
(C) HPO
3
and Ca(OH)
2
+ NH
3
(D) H
3
PO
3
and Ca(OH)
2
+ NH
3
(52) Oxidation number of Carbonyl Carbon in given functional group respectively are..... (02)
R-CHO, R-CO-R, R-COOH, R-COOR
(A) +1, +2, +3, +3 (B) 0, +1, +2, +3
(C) +1, +2, +2, +3 (D) +1, +2, +3, +4
(53) What will be value of molarity and strength %
W
/
V
respectively 30V H
2
O
2
solution ? (02)
(A) 2.678 M, 18.22% (B) 2.678 M, 9.11%
(C) 5.356 M, 18.22% (D) 5.356 M, 9.11%
(54) Reaction : CH
3
CHCH
3
x y. (02)
Cl
Identify x and y respectively.
(A) Propene and 2, 2-dichloropropane (B) Propyne and 1, 3 - dichloropropane
(C) Propane and 1, 2 - dichloropropane (D) Propene and 1, 2 - dicopchloropropane
(55) IUPAC name of the compounds (CHO)
2
O and (CH
3
CO)
2
O respectively are ............ (02)
(A) dimethyl ether, ethoxy ethane
(B) formic anhydride and enthanoic anhydride
(C) methanoic anhydride and acetic anhydride
(D) methanoic anhydride and ethanoic anhydride
(56) 5.85 g of NaCl is dissolved in pure water to prepare 1.0 litre solution Number
of ions in 1.0 ml of this solution is ________. (03)
(A) 6.02
10
20
(B) 1.2 10
20
(C) 1.2 10
22
(D) 6.02 10
19
(57) Identify the possible set of quantum numbers for a valance electron in ground
state atoms of phosphorous (z = 15). (03)
(A) n = 3, l = 0, m
l
= 0, ms = 0 (B) n = 2, l = 1, m
l
= 0, ms =
1
2
(C) n = 3, l = 2, m
l
= 0, ms = +
1
2
(D) n = 3, l = 1, m
l
= 1, ms = +
1
2
(58) In which of the following arrangements the order is not according to the property
indicated against it ? (03)
(A) Al
3+
< Mg
2+
< Na
+
< F Increasing ionic size.
(B) I < B
r
< Cl < F Increasing electron gain enthalpy.
(C) Al < Si < P < S Increasing first ionisation enthalpy.
(D) Li < Na < K < Rb Increasing metallic radius.
akohol
KOH
Cl
2
20
(59) Temporary hardness and permanent hardness of hard water can be removed
respectively by addition of ............ (03)
(A) CaO, NaHCO
3
(B) NaHCO
3
, CaCl
2
(C) Ca(OH)
2
, Na
2
CO
3
(D) Na
2
CO
3
, CaCl
2
(60) Choose the correct reactivity order from the following. (03)
(A) CONH
2
> COOR > NO
2
> x > - R
(B) CHO > CONH
2
> NH
2
> CO > - OH
(C) CN > COOH > NH
2
> COOR > - CONH
2
(D) COOR > CONH
2
> CHO > CN > - CO
(61) Flow sheet for a Solvay process is as follows. (03)
Answer the following :
(i) Filtrate A contains
(A) Na
2
CO
3
(B) NH
4
Cl (C) CaCO
3
(D) NaHCO
3
(ii) Compound B formed is ............
(A) NaHCO
3
(B) Na
2
CO
3
(C) NH
3
(D) CO
2
(iii) Select correct compound C
(A) (NH
4
)
2
CO
3
(B) NH
4
Cl (C) NH
4
HCO
3
(D) Na
2
CO
3
(62) Sulphur trioxide is prepared by following two reactions (04)
Reaction :
(i) S
6(s)
+ 60
2(g)
6SO
2(g)
(ii) 2SO
2(g)
+ O
2(g)
2SO
3(g)
How many grams of SO
3
are produced from 0.5 mole of S
6
? (Atomic mass S=32, 0=16)
(A) 480.0 (B) 960.0 (C) 240.0 (D) 120.0
NH
3
+ H
2
O + CO
2
NH
4
HCO
3
+NaCl
CaCO
3
CO
2
B A C
Ca(OH)
2
CaO
Filter
A
A
C
O
2
H
2
O
21
(63) Reaction of Br
2
with Na
2
CO
3
in aqueous solution gives sodium bromide and sodium
bromate (NaBrO
3
) with evolution of CO
2
gas. (04)
The number of Br
2
and sodium bromide molecule involved in the balanced
chemical equation respectively are...........
(A) 3, 5 (B) 5, 3 (C) 2, 4 (D) 4, 2
(64) Four organic compounds are given in column A select its IUPAC name from
column B. (04)
A B
CH
2
CH
3
(i) CH
3
CH
2
CHCH
2
CHCHCH
2
CH
2
CH
3
CH
3
CH
3
CCH
2
CH
3
CH
3
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(A) I c, II e, III g, IV a (B) I b, II e, III a, IV g
(C) 1 b, II d, III f, IV a (D) 1 c, II e, III g, IV a
OH
o
OH
Br
NH
2
o
(a) 2, 2, 4 - Trimethyl Pentane
(b) 5(1, 1 - dimethyl propyl)-6. ethyl-3
methyl nonane
(c) 5(1, 1 - dimethyl propyl)-4 ethyl-7
methyl nonane
(d) 2 - bromo-pentanamide
(e) 1, amino-3-bromo-hexane-2 one
(f) 2 - ol-pentanoic acid
(g) 1, 3 - dio-ol hexane-2-one
22
Objectives K U A and S Total
Marks 30 40 30 100
Weightage to Objectives Questions :
Weightage to Objectives :
Objective Questions Questions Questions Questions Total
Questions of four of three of two of one Questions/
Marks Marks Marks Mark Marks
Number of
Questions 03 06 15 40 64
Total Marks 12 18 30 40 100
Weightage to Difficulty Level :
Easy 30%
Average 40%
Difficult 30%
Unit No. Unit/Sub Unit Marks
1. Physical World 06
2. Measurement and System of Units 15
3. Motion in a Straight Line 15
4. Motion in a Plane 15
5. Laws of Motion 15
6. Work, Energy and Power 14
7. Heat Transfer 10
8. Kinetic Theory of Gases 10
Weightage to Content :
Std. - 11
Semester - 1
Physics (054)
Scheme of question paper
Time : 2.00 Hrs. and 30 Minutes Total Marks : 100
23
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24
Instructions :
(1) This answer paper contains 64 questions. All the questions are compulsory.
(2) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
(3) Select proper option to make the statement correct.
(4) Read the questions carefully before you answer.
(1) Space is Homogenous, which Law of Conservation is the result of this ? (01)
(A) Law of conservation of Angular Mometum
(B) Law of conservation of Linear Momentum
(C) Law of conservation of charge
(D) Law of Conservation of Energy
(2) What is full form of NMR ? (01)
(A) Nuclear Motion Resonance (B) Neutrino Magnetic Resonance
(C) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (D) Netutron Magnetic Resonance
(3) The __________ state of matter obtained at extreme high temperature opened
up a possibility as a future source of tremendous energy for use of mankind. (01)
(A) Solid (B) Gas (C) Liquid (D) Plasma
(4) The working of Opitcal Fibre, Telescope and Microscopes; colours exhibited
by thin films, rainbow, mirage, images formed by the mirrors and lenses etc.
are explained in __________. (01)
(A) Optics (B) Mechanics (C) Electricity (D) Electronics
(5) Physics developed techniques of achieving very low temperatures which results
in the development of new branch called __________. (01)
(A) Optics (B) Cryogenics
(C) Thermodynamics (D) Electro-dynamics
(6) The factor (ratio of length scales in physics) of length of galixies and radius
of nucleus is __________. (01)
(A) 10
10
(B) 10
50
(C) 10
40
(D) 10
40
(7) The measure of mass of a box by a balance of a shop-keeper is 2.3 kg. Two
gold pieces of masses 20.25 g and 20.17 g are added in the box. What is total
mass to correct significant figures ? (01)
(A) 2.34 kg (B) 2.3 kg
(C) 42.72 kg (D) 2.34042 kg
(8) When a current of (2.0 0.2) A flows through a wire, it develops a potential
difference of (10.0 1.0) V. The resistance of the wire is __________ O. (01)
(A) (5.0 0.5) (B) (5 1) (C) (5 2) (D) (5 5)
Std. : 11
Semester - 1
Physics (054)
Time : 2.00 Hrs. and 30 Minutes Sample Question Paper Total Marks : 100
25
(9) 1 rad = _________. (01)
(A) 60
o
20 30 (B) 100
o
30 10 (C) 57
o
19 30 (D) 37
o
20 20
(10) The x t graphs of a particle moving on a straight line are shown. Distance
x is in metre and t is time in second, which one of the graphs is not possible ? (01)
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)
(11) What is distance travelled by a small iron sphere which is freely falling from
a tower in first second ? Where g = 9.8 ms
2
. (01)
(A) 9.8m (B) 4.9m (C) 19.6m (D) 14.7m
(12) A particle moves with initial velocity 2ms
1
on a straight line path with
constant acceleration 4ms
2
. Find the distance travelled in 5th second. (01)
(A) 10m (B) 20m (C) 5m (D) 60m
(13) A displacement of a particle moving in one dimension under the action of
a constant force depends on time t according to t = x + 3, where x is
in metre and t is in second. Find the displacement of the particle when its
velocity is zero. (01)
(A) 0m (B) 6m (C) 3m (D) 4m
(14) In figure for a particle displacement x versus time t graph is shown. Here
x is in metre and t is in second. What is speed of the particle ? (01)
(A)
3
ms
1
(B)
2
,
ms
1
(C)
1
3
ms
1
(D) 3 ms
1
(15) A particle moves on a circle of radius R. In half of the periodic time of
revolution its displacement is ___________. (01)
(A) 2R (B) R (C) 3R (D) O
x(m)
x(m) x(m) x(m)
0
(i) t(s)
0 0 0
x
0
t
60
o
(ii) t(s) (iii) t(s) (iv) t(s)
26
(16) When the driver of a train, ruuning with velocity 10ms
1
sights a goodstrain
going ahead of him at distance 25 m in the same direction on the same track,
running with 5ms
1
, he applies brakes. In order to avoid an accident, what
should be the minimum magnitude of the decleration produced by the brakes ? (01)
(A) 1 ms
2
(B) 5 ms
2
(C) 3 ms
2
(D) 0.5 ms
2
(17) The ratio of speed and magnitude of velocity of an object over a finite interval
of time is always __________. (01)
(A) Zero (B) Greater than or equal to one
(C) Smaller than one (D) Negative
(18) What is SI unit of Unit Vector ? (01)
(A) No unit
(B) ms
1
(C) Unit of the vector of which it is unit vector.
(D) m
(19) Four vectors make a cyclic quadrilateral,what is magnitude of their resultant
vector ? (01)
(A) Equal to algebraic sum of their magnitudes.
(B) Always zero.
(C) Always non zero.
(D) Equal to five unit.
(20)
i
(
j
. .
k
) = _________. (01)
(A)
j
.
(B) k
.
(C) 1 (D)
i
(21) Which of the following is vector quantity ? (01)
(A) Speed (B) Temperature (C) Length (D) Force
(22) At which angle of projection a body should be projected so range in horizontal
direction becomes maximum ? (01)
(A) 60
o
(B) 30
o
(C) 45
o
(D) 90
o
(23) Which of the following is formula for flightime (t
F
) of a projectile ? (01)
(A)
t
g
F
=
2v sin
0 0
u
(B)
t
g
F
=
v sin
0 0
u
(C)
t
g
F
=
v sin
0
2 2
0
u
(D)
t
g
F
=
v sin2
0
2
0
u
(24) If angle between vectors A

and
B

is 0
o
, scalar product A

.
B

= __________
and

A B = __________. (01)
(A) 0, AB (B) AB, 0 (C) 0, 0 (D) AB, AB
(25) The angle between maximum static frictional force and normal force N is ________. (01)
(A) 0
o
(B) 180 (C) 90
o
(D) 45
o
27
(26) On which factors the maximum safe speed of a vehicle on a curved road does
not depend ? (01)
(A) Radius of Curved Road (B) Gravitational Accelration
(C) Co-efficient of Static Friction (D) Mass of the Body
(27) A force vector applied on a substance is given

F = (10

i + 6 j - 8k)N and it
accelerates at 1 ms
2
then what is the mass of the substance ? (01)
(A) 24 kg (B) 8 kg (C) 10 kg (D) 10 2 kg
(28) A body of mass m
1
= 4 kg is moving with 6ms
1
velocity and another body
of mass m
2
= 6kg is moving with 3 ms
1
velocity. It is difficult to stop which
one ? (01)
(A) A body of mass m
1
(B) A body of mass m
2
(C) It is equally difficult to stop both the bodies.
(D) They cannot be stopped.
(29) When force (1, 3, 2) N acts on a body, displacement of the body is in z-direction
equal to 9 m. work done on it is __________ J. (01)
(A) 9 (B) 27 (C) 18 (D) 9 14
(30) If an electric bulb of 100W is kept ON for 100 hours ________ unit of electrical
energy is consumed. (01)
(A) 1 (B) 10,000 (C) 10 (D) 100
(31) The linear momentum and K.E. of one body is P and E respectively. If linear
momentum is doubled then its K.E. is increased by __________. (01)
(A) 100% (B) 200% (C) 300% (D) 400%
(32) When the spring is stretched by 2.5 cm, its elastic potential energy is U, If
it is stretched by 10 cm then its elastic potential energy is __________. (01)
(A) 4U (B)
U
4
(C) 16U (D)
U
16
(33) In the case of conservative force, the negative gradient of potential energy gives
_________. (01)
(A) Work (B) Velocity (C) Acceleration (D) Force
(34) The area below the graph of force (F) displacement (d) gives _________. (01)
(A) Power (B) Work (C) Acceleration (D) Velocity
(35) The dimensional formula for thermal resistance is _________. (01)
A M
1
L
2
T
3
K
1
B M
1
L
2
T
3
K
1
C M
1
L
2
T
3
K
2
D M
1
L
2
T
3
K
1
(36) Thermal resistance of two metallic plates of same material and cross section
joined in paralled are 6 unit and 4 unit respectively. What is the thermal
resistance of the combination ? (01)
(A) 10 unit (B) 2 unit (C) 2.4 unit (D) 0.42 unit
28
(37) A black body at temperature TK radiates energy at the rate E Wm
2
. When
temperature falls to
T
2
K
the energy will be rediated at the rate of __________
Wm
2
. (01)
(A)
E
8
(B)
E
16
(C)
E
2
(D)
E
4
(38) The pressure of gas is changed at constant volume from 2000 Nm
2
to 3000 Nm
2
.
If the initial temperature was 77
o
C then change in temperature of the gas is _________. (01)
(A) 525k (B) 175k (C) 115.5k (D) 388.5k
(39) The internal energy of an ideal depends on __________. (01)
(A) Only on Pressure (B) Only on Volume
(C) Only on Temperature (D) Only on size of its molecule
(40) The temperature of a given gas of mass m is increased from 27
o
C to 327
o
C.
Its V
rms
will become __________ times. (01)
(A) 2 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 4
(41) Write the dimensions of a and b in relation P
at
=
x b
2 2

, where P is power,
x is the distance and t is the time. (02)
A M
1
L
0
T
2
yu M
0
L
1
T
0
B M
1
L
1
T
2
yu M
0
L
2
T
0
C M
1
L
0
T
2
yu M
1
L
2
T
0
D M
1
L
0
T
2
yu M
1
L
1
T
0
(42) Error in the measurement of radius of the sphere is 2%. Then the error in the
measurement of its volume is __________. (02)
(A) 6% (B) 5% (C) 3% (D) 1%
(43) The time dependance of a physical quantity P is given by
P
t
= Poe
-
2
o
2
. Where
o is a constat and t is the time. P is the pressure. The dimensional formula
of o is ________. (02)
A M
1
L
1
T
1
B M
0
L
0
T
0
C M
0
L
0
T
1
D M
0
L
0
T
1
(44) The following equations give the position x of a particle in four situations.
In each equation x is in metre and t is in second. (02)
(i) x = 3t2 (ii) x = 4t
2
2 (iii) x =
2
t
2
(iv) X = 2
In which situation it is slowing in motion ?
(A) In (i) (B) In (ii) (C) In (iii) (a) In (iv)
(45) A body travelling in one dimension with acceleration crosses two point A and
B with velocity 20ms
1
and 30ms
1
respectively. The speed of the body at the
mid point of A and B is (02)
(A) 24 ms
1
(B) 10 6 ms
1
(C) 25.5 ms
1
(D) 25ms
1
29
(46) The velocity of a boat in a river of width 2.0 km, is 10 kmh
1
. The boat crosses
the river in 15 minutes, moving over the shortest path. Hence, the velocity
of the flow of river is __________ kmh
1
. (02)
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 5
(47) For a projectile thrown into space with a speed v
o
, the horizontal range is
3
2

v
o
g
2
. The vertical range is
v
o
g
2
8
. The angle which the projectile makes with
the horizontal direction initially is _________. (02)
(A) 15
o
(B) 45
o
(C) 60
o
(D) 30
o
(48) A body rolling on ice with a velocity of 8ms
1
comes to rest after travelling
4m distance. Calculate the co-efficient of friction between the two surfaces.
(Take g = 9.8ms
2
) (02)
(A) 0.4082 (B) 0.8164
(C) 0.2041 (D) None of the given
(49) Three blocks of masses m
1
, m
2
and m
3
are connected by massless strings as
shown in the figure and placed on a frictionless table. They are pulled with
a force T
3
= 40N. If m
1
= 10kg and m
2
= 4kg the tension T
2
will be _________. (02)
(A) 20N (B) 10N (C) 32N (D) 40N
(50) A spherical ball of mass 40 kg is stationary at the top of a hill of height 120m.
It rolls down a smooth surface to ground then climb up another hill of height
60m and finally rolls down to a horizontal base at a height of 40m above
ground. The maximum velocity attained by the ball is ___________. (02)
(A) 20 ms
1
(B) 40 ms
1
(C) 10 ms
1
(D) 25 ms
1
(51) 10 litre of water per second is lifted from a well through 10m and delivered
with velocity of 10ms
1
. If g = 10ms
2
, then power of motor is __________.
Density of water is
10
3
3
kg
m
.
(02)
(A) 1 kW (B) 1.5 kW (C) 2 kW (D) 2.5 kW
(52) Three rodes made of the same material and having same cross section area
have been joined as shown in figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left
and right ends are kept at 0
o
C and 75
o
C respectively. The temperature of the
junction of the three rodes will be __________. (02)
(A) 45
o
C (B) 30
o
C (C) 50
o
C (D) 20
o
C
m
1
m
2
m
3
T
1
T
2
T
3
= 40N
O
0
C
75
o
C
75
o
C
30
(53) A cylinder of radius r made of material of thermal conductivity K
1
is
surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner radius r and outer radius is 2r made
of a material of thermal conductivity K
2
. The two ends of the combined system
are maintained at two different temperatures. There is no loss of heat across
the cylindrical surface and the system is in steady thermal state. The effective
thermal conductivity is __________. (02)
(A)
3
4
1 2
K K +
(B)
K K
K K
1 2
1 2
+
(C)
K K
1 2
3
4
+
(D) K
1
+ K
2
(54) Air is filled in an open vessel at 60
o
C on heating this vessel to temperature
T,
1
5
th of air comes out of the container then T = __________. (02)
(A) 80
o
C (B) 143
o
C (C) 333
o
C (D) 444
o
C
(55) At 300K tempeture, the r.m.s. speed of the molecules of a certain diatomic gas
is found to be 1920 ms
1
. The gas is ________. (Take R = 8.314 J/mol K.) (02)
(A) H
2
(B) O
2
(C) Cl
2
(D) N
2
(56) The length of an object depends on G
o
c
|
h

where G, c and h are the universal

gravitational constant, speed of light and Planks constant respectively,
then ........ (03)
(A)
o | =
3
2
, =
3
2
(B)
o =
1
2
, =
1
2
(C)
o | = 1 , = 1 , = 1
(D)
o | =
5
2
, = 1
(57) Pressure depends on distance as
p =
o
|
exp
-
z
k
o
u
, where o , | are constants,
z is distance, k is Boltzmanns constant and
u
is temperature. The dimensions
of | are ............. (03)
A M
0
L
2
T
o
B M
0
L
3
T
o
C M
0
L
2
T
o
D M
0
L
3
T
o
(58) A stone is allowed to fall freely from the top of the tower of height H at time
t = 0. A second stone is thrown downwards from same tower with a speed
v
o
at t = n second. If H = ________ the two stones will reach the bottom of
tower together. (03)
A
gn
2
8
2v - ng
v - ng
o
o
B
gn
v
o
2
8
2v g
o

C
gn
2
4
v g
2v ng
o
o

D
gn
2
2
v 2ng
v ng
o
o

31
(59) A machine gun fires 6 bullets per second with velocity 400ms
1
. The mass of
machine gun and bullets are 10 kg and 30g respectively. What force in newton
must be applied to the machine gun to keep it in the initial position ? (03)
(A) 72N (B) 12N (C) 2N (D) 7200N
(60) Due to fall in main voltage the temperature of the filament of a bulb falls
from 2500 K to 2000 K, what is the percentage fall in the power consumption ? (03)
(A) 30% (B) 25% (C) 75% (D) 48.8%
(61) A certain gas is taken to the five states represented by dots in the graph of
p V as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. The plotted lines are isotherms. Order of most
probable speed v of the molecule of these five states is ............... (03)
(A) v
3
> v
1
= v
2
> v
4
= v
5
(B) v
4
> v
1
= v
3
> v
5
= v
2
(C) v
3
= v
5
> v
1
= v
2
> v
4
(D) None of the above
(62) A particle moves in the x y plane under the enfluence of a force such that
its linear momentum is given by equation
p

(t) = A [cos(kt) sin(kt)

j ], where
A and k are constants. The angle between force and momentum is _______.
(t = time) (04)
(A) 45
o
(B) 90
o
(C) 30
o
(D) 0
o
(63) A bullet fired in to a fixed forget loses half of its velocity after penetrating
3 cm. How much further it will penetrate before coming to rest. Assuming
that it faces constant resistance to motion. (04)
(A) 1 cm (B) 2 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 4 cm
(64) A ball is projected at an angle 30
o
with horizontal from the top of the tower
of height 39.2 m, with velocity 19.6 ms
1
. The ratio of the time to reach point
in horizontal direction from top of the tower to total time taken to hit the
ground from when it is projected is ___________. (04)
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
_____________
1
3
2
4
5
P
V
32
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
Weightage to Objectives :
Unit Unit/Sub Unit Marks
No.
Unit-1 Living World and Classification 35
(1) Classification of Living Organisms
(2) Taxonomical Aids
(3) Classification of Plant Kingdom
(4) Classification of Animal Kingodm
Unit-2 Cytology 15
(5) Cell Structure
(8) Cell Cycle and Cell Divisions
Unit-3 Biomolecules 30
(6) Biomolecules - I
(7) Biomolecules - II
Unit-4 Human Health and Welfare 20
(9) Animal Husbandry and Plant Breeding
(10) Human Health and Diseases
(11) Microbes and Human Welfare
Weightage to Objective Questions :
Objective Question Question Question Question Total
Questions of four of three of two of one Questions/
Marks Marks Marks Mark Marks
Number of
Quesiton 100 100
Total Marks 100 100
Weightage to Difficulty Level :
Easy 30
Average 40
Difficult 30
Weightage to Content :
Objectives (K) (U) (A) (S) Total
Marks 30 40 20 10 100
Std. - 11
Semester - 1
Biology (056)
Scheme of question paper
Time : 2.00 Hrs. and 30 Minutes Total Marks : 100
33
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
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34
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
All questions are compulsory. Question paper contain 100 multiple choice questions.
With each question four alternative responses given.
Select the code (A/B/C/D) of the correct alternative response and encode it in OMR.
(1) Arrange following units in the ascending order of the similarities found in the organisms
belongs to them.
(i) Species (ii) Population
(iii) Biotic Community (iv) Ecosystem
Options :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (D) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(2) Study following pairs carefully and select the correct options for the pairs given below :
List of Pairs :
(i) Columbidae Family Genus of dove
(ii) Megascolecidae Orthoptera
(iii) Blattidae Oligochaeta
(iv) Poaceae Anura
Options :
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct and (iii) and (iv) are wrong
(B) (i) and (iii) are correct and (ii) and (iv) are wrong
(C) (ii) is correct and (i), (iii) and (iv) are wrong
(D) (i) is correct and (ii), (iii) and (iv) are wrong
(3) Which of the following option is correct for the pairs of Column I and Column II
Column I Column II
(i) Museum of Natural History (a) Dehradoon
(ii) Indian Botanical Garden (b) Darjeeling
(iii) Herbarium of Forest Research (c) Paris
Institute
(iv) Lyoid Botanical Garden (d) Shibpur
(A) (i c), (ii b), (iii a), (iv d) (B) (i b), (ii c), (iii d), (iv a)
(C) (i c), (ii d), (iii a), (iv b) (D) (i b), (ii d), (iii a), (iv c)
(4) Which method of taxonomy is not associated with other branches of science ?
(A) Cytotaxonomy (B) New Systematics
(C) Chemotaxonomy (D) Three Domain Classification
(5) Which of the following option is completely correct for nucleus, cell wall and the
nutrition method of anabaena respectively ?
(A) Well develop nucleus, Cellulose and Autotrophic
(B) Nucleoprotein, Cellulose, Heterotrophic
(C) Well develop nucleus, Peptidoglycan, Heterotrophic
(D) Nucleoprotein, Rigid, Autotrophic
Std. : 11
Semester - 1
Biology (056)
Time : 2.00 Hrs. and 30 Minutes Sample Question Paper Total Marks : 100
35
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(6) Which of the following is correct option for the matched pairs from Column I and
Column II :
Column I Column II
(Name of Scientist) (Their Contribution)
(i) Woese (a) Classification on the basis of Habitat
(ii) Diever (b) Phycobiont in lichen
(iii) Theophrastus (c) Absence of Capsid in viroid
(iv) Tulsane (d) Classification on the basis of evolutionary
aspects
(A) (i c), (ii d), (iii b), (iv a) (B) (i d), (ii b), (iii a), (iv c)
(C) (i d), (ii c), (iii a), (iv b) (D) (i a), (ii b), (iii d), (iv c)
(7) In the given chart of Diplontic Life Cycle, (i) Which type of cell division does a and
b represent ? and (ii) Which stage of the life does c and d represent ?
(A) (a) Mitosis, (b) Meiosis, (c) Sporophyte (d) Gametophyte
(B) (a) Meiosis, (b) Mitosis, (c) Sporophyte, (d) Gametophyte
(C) (a) Meiosis, (b) Meiosis, (c) Gametophyte, (d) Sporophyte
(D) (a) Mitosis, (b) Meiosis, (c) Gametophyte, (d) Sporophyte
(8) Which of the following indicates correctly matched groups for column I, II and III :
Column I Column II Column III
(i) Porifera, Asymmetry (a) Free swimming (P) Free swimming larva
Medusa
(ii) Annelida, Bilateral (b) Unisexual (Q) Planula Larva
Symmetry
(iii) Coelenterata and (c) Unisexual or Bisexual (R) Amphiblastula
Radial Symmetry
(iv) Echinodermata and (d) Bisexual (S) Parapodia
radial symmetry
(A) (i b Q), (ii a S), (iii c R), (iv d P)
(B) (i b S), (ii a Q), (iii c P), (iv d R)
(C) (i d S), (ii c Q), (iii a P), (iv b R)
(D) (i d R), (ii c S), (iii a Q), (iv b P)
x
Gamates
Zygote
b
d
a
c
2x
x
x
36
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(9) Which of the following option shows correct chronology of the following animals in
terms of their evolution.
(P) Dentalium (Q) Balanoglossus
(R) Wuchereia (S) Ascidia
Options :
(A) S Q P R (B) R P Q S
(C) P Q R S (D) S P R Q
(10) Which options is correct for the characteristics of Icththyophis given below :
Characteristics :
(X) Its heart is three chambered structure, with two auricles and one partially divided
ventricles.
(Y) It do not possesses appendages
(Z) It is Amphibian Animal
Options :
(A) X and Z are correct and Y is wrong.
(B) X and Y are correct and Z is wrong.
(C) Y and Z are correct and X is wrong.
(D) X, Y and Z are correct.
(11) Which of the following is included in conceptual study ?
(A) Cells (B) Population (C) Organism (D) Tissue
(12) What are Viroids ?
(A) Double helical RNA without capsid
(B) Double helical DNA with capsid
(C) Single stranded RNA without capsid
(D) Double helical DNA without capsid
(13) Which of the following option is correct for the region labelled as a in the given diagram
of germinal layers.
(A) The limiting lining of this structure consists of mesoderm.
(B) Scattered mesodermal pouches are present.
(C) It possesses unicellular mucosal layer.
(D) Endodermal cells are present in its structure.
a
37
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(14) Which of the option is correct for the given diagram showing type of the circulatory
system.
(A) Closed Circulatory System High and regular blood pressure
(B) Closed Circulatory System Low and regular blood pressure
(C) Closed Circulatory System High and irregular blood pressure
(D) Closed Circulatory System Low and irregular blood pressure
(15) What is the Location of feather like gills in octopus ?
(A) In between alimentary canal and body wall
(B) In between external shell and body wall
(C) In between mantle and shell
(D) In between body wall and mantle
(16) Which of the given option represent correct chronology of the given excretory organs
in the decreasing order of their evolution ?
List of Organs :
(a) Nephridia (b) Malpighian Tubules
(c) Flame Cells (d) Branched Excretory Duct
(A) b c a d (B) b a d c
(C) a c d b (D) d c a b
(17) It is correct for the balanoglossus :
(A) Unisexual, External Fertilization Torneria Larva
(B) Unisexual, Internal Fertilization and Torneria Larva
(C) Bisexual, External Fertilization Planula Larva
(D) Unisexual, Internal Fertilization and Planula Larva
(18) In reference with Duck bill platypus statement X, Y and Z are given below, which of
the following option shows correct statements for the Duck bill platypus ?
Statements :
X : Duck bill platypus is oviparous animal
Y : It has four chambered heart lateral aorta is bent to the right side.
Z : It is a mammal.
(A) X and Y are correct and Z is wrong (B) X and Z are correct and Y is wrong
(C) X, Y and Z are correct (D) X is correct and Y and Z are wrong
38
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(19) Which of the following characteristics are correct for the penguin.
Characteristics :
(P) Presence of Crop and Gizzard
(Q) Internal fertilization and viviparous
(R) Absence of teeth
(S) Presence of open circulatory system
(A) Q, R and S (B) P and Q (C) P and R (D) P, R and S
(20) Spot the odd one in reference with Coelom :
(A) Neries (B) Centipede
(C) Pila (D) Wucherieia
(21) Chart showing evolution of animal group Phylum is given in this question. The lines
joining them is numbered as i, ii, iii and iv to mark the type of body organization they
shows. Then which of the following option is correct in terms of i, ii, iii and iv.
Chart :
(A) (i) unicellular (ii) functionally multicellular
(iii) functionally unicellular (iv) Tissue level organization
(B) (i) Unicellular (ii) Multi Cellular
(iii) Tissue level Organization (iv) Organ level organization
(C) (i) Unicellular (ii) Cellular organization
(iii) Organ level organization (iv) System Level organization
(D) (i) Unicellular
(ii) multicellular
(iii) Cellular Organization with negligible division of labour
(iv) Tissue level organization
(22) What is scientific name of Earth Worm ?
(A) Pariplanata americana (B) Pheretima posthuma
(C) Pheretima americana (D) Rana tigrina
(23) What is Species ?
(A) Group of organism formed by closely related family.
(B) Organism with least similarities and cannot interbreed.
(C) It is highest rank of taxonomy.
(D) Group of organisms having similarity in maximum characters and are capable
of interbreeding.
Protozoa
Porifera
Coelenterate
Platyhel
minthes
(i)
(iii)
(ii)
(iv)
39
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(24) Which of the following is responsible for the properties of Tissue ?
(A) Cells present in it.
(B) Molecules present in it.
(C) Interaction of molecular components present in it.
(D) The interactions of cells present in it.
(25) It is heterosporous pteridophyte :
(A) Rhynia (B) Nephrolepis (C) Selaginella (D) Equisetum
(26) This characteristic is found in both pteridophyte and bryophyte.
(A) Gametophyte phase is dependent on sporophyte.
(B) Multicellular reproductive organs are covered by sterile cells from all the side.
(C) Sporophytic stage is principal stage.
(D) Gametophytic plant body is erect (Musci).
(27) Which of the following option is correct for the Column I and Column II ?
Column I Column II
(Group of Plant (Scientific name of Plants)
(i) Heteromerae (P) Carharanthus Roseus
(ii) Bicarpellatae (Q) Hibiscus rosa - sinensis
(iii) Disciflorae (R) Madhuca Indica
(iv) Thalamiflorae (S) Citrus Limon
(A) (i R), (ii P), (iii S), (iv Q) (B) (i P), (ii R), (iii Q), (iv S)
(C) (i Q), (ii R), (iii P), (iv S) (D) (i P), (ii S), (iii R), (iv Q)
(28) Which of the following option indicate correct place of the given plants according to
Eichlers pattern of classification.
Name of Plants
(a) Araucaria (b) Anthoceros (c) Alium Cepa (d) Helianthus
(A) (a) Gymnospem (b) Bryophyte (c) Monocotyledon (d) Dicotyledon
(B) (a) Bryophyte (b) Gymnosperm (c) Dicotyledon (d) Monocotyleelon
(C) (a) Bryophyte (b) Dicotyledon (c) Monocotyledon (d) Gymnosperm
(D) (a) Dicotyledon (b) Bryophyte (c) Monocotyledon (d) Gymnosperm
(29) What is Mycobiont ?
(A) Component of fungi in lichen (B) Component of Algae in lichen
(C) Type of fungi (D) None of the above
(30) For following statements which option in fully correct.
Statement X Rothmelar has divided the bryophytes into three classes.
Statement Y Iyengar is father of Indian Bryology.
Statement Z Shiv Ram Kashyap in considered father of Algology.
(A) Statement X false, and Y and Z true
(B) Statement Y true X and Z false
(C) Statement X true, Y and Z false
(D) Statement Z and X true and Y false
40
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(31) What is the other character for the group of animals having complete digestive system
for the first time ?
(A) Acoelomate and dorsoventrally flattened
(B) During alternation of generation produces, polyp in asexually reproductive stage
and medusa in sexually reproductive stage.
(C) Male is shorter than female
(D) Excretion through nephridia
(32) Which of the following is marine animal, but reproduces in fresh water ?
(A) Amphioxus (B) Hagfish (C) Ascidia (D) Labeo
(33) Which of the following is correct in context to the location and function of air bladder ?
(A) In tortoise - to swim, In pigeon for flight
(B) In salpa - for flight, In catla - to swim
(C) In catla - for flight, in salpa - to swim
(D) In catla - to swim, pigeon - for flight
(34) It is not found as exoskeleton in vertebrate animals ?
(A) Epidermal Scale (B) Cycloid Scale
(C) Ctenoid Scale (D) Chitinoid Scale
(35) Which of the following option shows correct order of the plant for large inflorescence
and large sized flower, smallest size of plant, Tallest angiosperm plant, respectively ?
(A) Agave, Rafflesia, Wolffia globosa, Eucalyptus
(B) Rafflesia, Agave, Wolffia globosa, Eucalyptus
(C) Agave, Rafflesia, Zamia pygmea, Eucalyptus
(D) Rafflesia, Agave, Zamia pygmea, Sequoia Sempervirens
(36) In the structure of which type of chromosome satellite is observed ?
(A) Telocentric (B) Metacentric (C) Submetacentric (D) Acrocentric
(37) Choose the correct option of the correctly matched pair from column I and Column II.
Column - I Column - II
(Structure of bacteria) (its character)
(i) Mesosome (p) Thick and tough outer layer of bacteria
(ii) Capsule (q) Fibre made up of flagellin protein
(iii) Cilia (r) Useful in Conjugation
(i) Pilli (s) Specialized structure differentiated from plasma member are
(A) i s, ii r, iii p, iv q (B) i p, ii s, iii r, iv q
(C) i s, ii p, iii q, iv r (D) i q, ii p, iii s, iv r
41
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(38) Constituents for which process is present in F
1
particles :
(A) Krebs Cylce (B) Oxidative Phosphorylation
(C) Glycolysis (D) Dark Reaction
(39) To the synthesis of which of the following nucleolus is associated :
(A) m-RNA (B) t-RNA (C) r-RNA (D) DNA
(40) Which of the option is correct match from Column I and Column II ?
Column I Column II
(i) Endo Plasmic Reticulum (1) Power house of cell
(ii) Free Ribosomes (2) Takes part in Osmoregulation and
excretion
(iii) Mitochondria (3) Synthesis of lipid
(iv) Contractile vacuole (4) Protein and lipid synthesis
(5) Protein synthesis
(A) i 5, ii 3, iii 2, iv 1 (b) i 4, ii 5, iii 1, iv 2
(c) i 2, ii 4, iii 5, iv 1 (d) i 3, ii 1, iii 2, iv 5
(41) In which stage of cell division, nuclear membrane and nucleolus is reformed ?
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Anaphase (D) Telophase
(42) Which of the following pair is mismatched ?
(A) G
1
stage - Synthesis of New DNA (B) Telophase - Chromatin is observed
(C) Prophase - Nucleolus disappears (D) Zygotene - Synapsis
(43) How many mitotic divisions are required to produce 128 cells through successive
divisions of single cell ?
(A) 7 (B) 14 (C) 28 (D) 64
(44) By how many cells through meiotic divisions 32 sperms are produced ?
(A) 4 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 32
(45) Choose the correct option form Column I and Column II.
Column I Column II
(i) Stage between two mitotic divisions (p) Kinetochores
(ii) Formation of Multinucleate stage (q) Crossing over
(iii) Disc shaped structures present on (r) Inter phase
the side of centromere
(iv) Exchange of genes on chromosome (s) Syncytium
(A) i p, ii r, iii s, iv q (B) i s, ii r, iii p, iv q
(C) i r, ii p, iii s, iv q (D) i r, ii s, iii p, iv q
(46) If you are given root apex of onion to count the number of chromosomes, which of
the following stage you will prefer :
(A) Telophase (B) Metaphase (C) Prophase (D) Anaphase
42
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(47) Following diagram is of which cell organelle and what does a indicate.
(A) Mitochondria, Thylakoid (B) Mitochondria, Cristae
(C) Chloroplast, Stroma (D) Chloroplast, Thylakoid
(48) Which one of the following option is correct for the fluid mosaic model of plasma
membrane ?
(A) It is semi-fluid in nature, as protein and lipid association is hydrophilic.
(B) It is semi-fluid nature. As protein and lipid union is hydrophobic.
(C) It is fluid in nature, as protein and lipid association is hydrophilic.
(D) It is fluid in nature, as protein and lipid association is hydrophobic.
(49) Which of the following option states completion of lateral union of homologous
chromosome during meiosis.
(A) Synapsis
(B) Syneptonemal Complex
(C) Chiasmata formation
(D) Movement of chromosome to the pole of nucleus
(50) Which one is the correct option for R in the given diagram of cell cycle ?
(A) In this stage cell will decide whether to continue cell division or not.
(B) DNA is synthesized in this stage.
(C) Centrioles will be doubled in this stage.
(D) Tubulin protein is synthesized in this stage.
G
2
R
a
43
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(51) Which animal the Gambusia is ?
(A) Fish (B) Bee (C) Insect (D) Round worm
(52) Which of the following is vector of dengue ?
(A) Plasmodium Falciparum (B) Anopheles Mosquito
(C) Aedes Mosquito (D) Culex Mosquito
(53) Which of the following option indicates absolutely correctly matched pairs given ?
(a) AIDS Virus - Retrovirus (b) Allergies - IgE
(c) Anopheles - Filaria (d) Lymphoid organ - Liver
(A) a and c (B) a and b (C) b and d (D) c and d
(54) What does a, b and c indicate in the figure of antibody >
(A) (a) Light Chain, (b) Variable region of Heavy chain, (c) Variable region of light chain
(B) (a) Antigen binding site, (b) Heavy constant region, (c) Variable region of heavy chain
(C) (a) Heavy constant region, (b) Variable region of Heavy chain, (c) Heavy chain
(D) (a) Antigen binding site, (b) S.S. bond in heavy chain (c) Heavy constant region
(55) From which plant Marizuana is obtained ?
(A) Cannabis sativa (B) Atropa beladona
(C) Datura cannabinoid (D) Opium Sp.
(56) It is used in making cough syrup :
(A) Morphine (B) Codeine (C) Heroin (D) Cocaine
(57) Which gases are produced during sewage treatment ?
(A) Methane, H
2
S, CO
2
(B) Methane, O
2
, N
2
(C) Ethane, CO
2
, O
2
(D) Ethane, H
2
S, CO
2
(58) It produces citric acid :
(A) Acetobactor aceti (B) Clostridium butyricum
(C) Lactobacillus (D) Aspergillus niger
a
c
b
44
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(59) Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases ?
(A) Malaria, AIDS (B) Common Cold, AID
(C) Typhoid, Pneumonia (D) Typhoid, Common Cold
(60) It is a common fresh water fish :
(A) Hilsa (B) Pomfrets (C) Sardines (D) Rohu
(61) Which of the following is caused due to Haemophilus Influenzae ?
(A) Typhoid (B) Pneumonia (C) Common Cold (D) Malaria
(62) It is scientific name of Coca Plant :
(A) Erythroxylum purpurea (B) Erythroxylum coca
(C) Erythroxylum sativa (D) Erythroxylum indica
(63) India is the native place, of which one of the following ?
(A) Apis indica (B) Silk moth
(C) Wild Jungle Fowl (D) Apis dorsata
(64) What is Apiary ?
(A) A place where only fertile female of honey bee is kept.
(B) A place where only sterile male bee is kept.
(C) A place where only fertile male bee is kept.
(D) A place where honey bee colony is kept.
(65) In this method of breeding two animals of different species are interbred.
(A) Inbreeding (B) Outbreeding
(C) Interspecific Hybridization (D) Intraspecific Hybridization
(66) What is full form of MALT ?
(A) Mucosal Associated Lymph Tissue
(B) Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue
(C) Mucosal Associated Lymphoid T-Cells
(D) Muscle Associated Lymphoid Tissue
(67) To control which of the following, Bionemeticides are used :
(A) Bacteria (B) Virus (C) Worms (D) Insects
45
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(68) Which of the following option is correct for the given statement, with reference to the
structure of lipid.
Statements :
(i) All lipids possesses saturated fatty acid.
(ii) All of them possesses three long chain fatty acid.
(iii) All of them are formed through hydrolysis between monohydroxy alcohol and short
chained fatty acid.
(iv) Wax is simple lipid with one molecule of long chain saturated fatty acid.
Options :
(A) (i), (iv), (iii) (B) (iv) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(69) What is the structure formed by the union of ribosomal RNA and protein called.
(A) Ribonucleic Acid (B) Ribosome (C) Rebotide (D) Reboside
(70) Few statements are given in context to t-RNA, which of the given option shows
completely correct statements for t-RNA.
Statements :
(i) tRNA carry codon to identify Amino acid
(ii) They possess anticodons
(iii) They are synthesised on the templet of DNA
(iv) Total 75 nucleotides are present in each tRNA
Options :
(A) (iii) and (iv) (B) (i) and (iv) (C) (iv) and (ii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(71) Which mineral ion is required for process of growth and reproduction in human ?
(A) Iron (B) Nitrogen (C) Zinc (D) Copper
(72) Which of the following option shows correctly match pairs for the following biomolecule ?
(i) DHAP - Pentose Sugar
(ii) Ribulose - Triose Sugar
(iii) Deoxy Ribose - Pentose Sugar
(iv) Glyceraldehyde - Triose Sugar
(v) Ribulose - Hexose Sugar
(A) (i), (ii), (iv) (B) (ii), (i), (v) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(73) Which mineral ion is necessary for the activity of Nitric Oxide Synthetase ?
(A) Zinc (B) Boron (C) Molybdenum (D) Calcium
46
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(74) Which type of Enzyme, the hexokinase is ?
(A) Oxido - reductase (B) Hydrolases
(C) Transferase (D) Lyases
(75) Which of the following is formed, when ribonucleoside get linked to phosphate molecule
at its fifth carbon ?
(A) Ribonucleotide (B) Deoxyribonucleoside
(C) Deoxyribonucleotide (D) Adenosine
(76) Which of the following option indicates correctly matched pairs for the Column I (Type
of fatty acid) and Column II (Example of fatty acid) ?
Column I Column II
(i) Short chained saturated fatty acid (a) Crotonic acid
(ii) Long chained saturated fatty acid (b) Butyric acid
(iii) Short chained unsaturated fatty acid (c) Palmitic acid
(iv) Long chained unsaturated fatty acid (d) Oleic acid
(A) (i b), (ii d), (iii c), (iv a) (B) (i b), (ii c), (iii a), (iv d)
(C) (i b), (ii a), (iii d), (iv c) (D) (i d), (ii b), (iii a), (iv c)
(77) Which lipid do not possesses fatty acid ?
(A) Cholesterol (B) Wax (C) Butter (D) Groundnut Oil
(78) It is the most abundant protein in animal :
(A) Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase oxygenase
(B) Haemoglobin
(C) Rhodopsin
(D) Collagen
(79) Spot the odd one in context with the polarity of amino acid.
(A) Aspergine (B) Aspartic Acid (C) Alanine (D) Arginine
(80) If the nitrogen base sequences on one strand of the DNA is ATGCTTCCG then what
will be the sequence of nitrogen base on its complementary strand ?
(A) TTGGTGCC (B) TACGAAGGC
(C) ATGCTTCCG (D) TACCAAGGC
(81) Which enzymes breaks complex molecules into the simpler molecules by adding water
to it ?
(A) Hydrolases (B) Lyases (C) Transferase (D) Oxidoreductase
(82) Which co-factor is necessary for the activity of carbonic anhydrase enzymes ?
(A) Fe
+2
(B) Cu
+2
(C) Zn
+2
(D) Na
+
(83) Which protein is formed by the union of various polypeptide chains ?
(A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D) Quarternary
47
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(84) What does a, b and c indicates in the given diagram of lactose formation.
(A) a - OH ; b - Hydrolysis, c = O
(B) a - H, b - Dehydration, c - H
(C) a - OH, b - Dehydration, c - H
(D) a - H, b - Oxidation, c - O
(85) Which glycosidic bond is present between two glucose molecules of amylopectin at
branching point ?
(A) 1 6 (B) 1 4 (C) 1 - 3 (D) 1 - 5
(86) It is the correct empirical formula for the polymer of hexose sugar ?
(A) (C
6
H
10
O
5
)
n1
(B) (C
3
H
11
O
5
)
n
(C) (C
6
H
10
O
5
)
n
(D) (C
6
H
12
O
6
)
n
(87) Which of the following vitamin deficiency can be observed if oil is completely omitted
from the diet ?
(A) A, C, E (B) A, D, E (C) A, D, B (D) A, D, B, C
(88) What does a and b indicate in the given diagram of guanine ?
Diagram :
(A) a = O ; b = H (B) a = O ; b = NH
2
(C) a = NH
2
; b O (D) a = O ; b = OH
a
b
b
c
a
H
OH
H
H
48
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(89) Which of the following is the correct structure of nucleotide of with Adenine ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
NH
49
Com-1:E\GSEB\2011\Semester [Std.11)\New-27-6-2011\Biology(G)
(90) Which mineral ion is structural component of Tyrosinase enzyme ?
(A) Mg
+2
(B) Cu
+2
(C) Mn
+2
(D) Ca
+2
In que no. 91 to 100 statement X and statement Y are given. Select correct answer for
the statements from the options given below.
(A) Statement X and Y both are correct and Y is the correct explanation for X.
(B) Statement X and statement Y both are correct. Y is not the correct explanation
for X
(C) X is correct and Y is wrong.
(D) X is wrong and Y is correct.
(91) Statement X : Cortisone is grouped as steron.
Statement Y : It has - CooH or > C = 0 group in its structure.
(92) Statement X : Haemoglobin is quarternary protein.
Statement Y : It has 3-D structure consist of 4-chains of polypeptides.
(93) Statement X : Hair is insoluble in any of the solvent.
Statement Y : Keratin is present in hair.
(94) Statement X : Enzyme loses its activity at very low temperature.
Statement Y : As they are destroyed at very low temperature.
(95) Statement X : Water molecules possesses very high specific heat and latent heat.
Statement Y : Cohesive force of water molecule is very less.
(96) Statement X : Planktonic organism can float and move freely on water surface.
Statement Y : Water has very high viscosity.
(97) Statement X : Rapid growth of orchid is obtained through embryo culture.
Statement Y : Seeds of orchid plant possess plenty of stored food.
(98) Statement X : Colostrum provides passive immunity to the infant.
Statement Y : Contains plenty of IgA antibody.
(99) Statement X : Skin melanoma is carcinoma.
Statement Y : Skin melanoma is an abnormal growth from mesoderm.
(100) Statement X : Cattle dung is used to produce bio-gas.
Statement Y : Methanogens bacteria are present in cattle dung.