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Question Booklet Sl. No.
LL.M. ADMISSION TEST – 2024

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Date of Exam : Center’s Name : ___________________________
Duration : 120 Minutes Roll No. : ___________________________
Max. Marks : 100 OMR Sheet No. : ___________________________
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INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the Question paper can be sought. Answer the questions
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2. There will be 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of one mark each to be
answered in the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 100. Answer ALL
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the Questions.
3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).
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For every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
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4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one

of the four responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN
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in the OMR Response Sheet.

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Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
a) Kolkata b) Agra c) Bhopal d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
——————— —————————————————————
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d

5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above
shall be considered wrong answer.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet other than
the details required and, in the spaces, provided for.
8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet
along with candidate’s copy of the OMR response sheet. Candidate will hand
over the original OMR response sheet to the invigilator.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation
of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification,
may have to face criminal prosecution.
11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and
calculators etc. are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
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1. The concept of parliamentary form of Government in the Constitution of India

is derived from the Constitution of which country?
a) United Kingdom b) France
c) Germany d) Canada

2. Match the following:

i. Copyright Act a. 10 years
ii. Patent Act b. Indefinite terms
iii. Trademark Act c. 20 years
iv. Geographical Indication Act d. Life of Author+60 years term
a) i-a,ii-b,iii-c,iv-d b) i-d,ii-c,iii-b,iv-a
c) i-d,ii-b,iii-c,iv-a d) i-d,ii-b,iii-a,iv-c

3. Laxmikant Pandey v. Union of India (AIR 1984 SC) lays down the rule
regarding:
a) Inter-country adoption b) Inter-religion adoption
c) Inter-caste marriage d) Right to maintenance

4. In case of suicide by a married woman, the court under section 113-A of the
Indian Evidence Act 1872, may presume that suicide had been abetted by her
husband, if
I. Suicide was committed by the wife within a period of seven years from the
date of her marriage.
II. The wife was subjected to cruelty.
III. The wife was illiterate and from a poor family.
IV. The wife was deserted by the husband.
Select the correct option:
a) I, II, III b) I, III, IV c) II, IV d) I, II

5. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with allocation of seats in

the Council of States?
a) First b) Second c) Third d) Fourth

6. A party cannot avail the benefit of Doctrine of Fairness to alter the terms of
contract because it is presumed that if a commercial contract is taking place
under a statute:
a) parties have an equal bargaining power
b) parties voluntarily agreed to the terms
c) parties take absolute liability to fulfil the contract
d) All of the above
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7. The creation of a Right by the Lapse of Time is _______ prescription.

a) Positive b) Neutral
c) Negative d) None of the above

8. How many amendments have been made in the Constitution of India till
date?
a) 105 b) 106 c) 107 d) 108

9. Which Part of the Constitution of India deals with Fundamental Rights?

a) Part II b) Part III c) Part IV d) Part V

10. The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 will be applicable
on which of the following:
Establishment X has 17 female employees since the last two years as contract
labours for making papers.
Establishment Y has 21 female employees since the last two years as contract
labours for making papers.
Establishment Z hires 21 female employees as contract labours for 59 days
in the preceding year for destroying papers after Exams in NLUs.
Contractor A hires 21 female employees as contract labours for a seasonal
work of preparing a sweet dish called Ghevar on occasion of Raksha Bandhan
in the month of August.
Select the correct option:
a) X, Y b) Only Y
c) X, Y, Z d) All of the above

11. A document containing a communication from a husband to his wife in the

hands of a third person is
a) Not admissible in evidence until consented to by the writer of the
communication
b) Admissible in evidence
c) Not admissible at all
d) None of the above

12. Which of the following is incorrect with regards to a Lok Adalat?

a) award by Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court
b) an appeal from the award of a Lok Adalat shall lie to the High Court
c) award by a Lok Adalat is final and binding on all the parties to the
dispute
d) it has the requisite powers to specify its own procedure for the determination
of any dispute coming before it
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13. Pick the correct statement:

a) The object of Law is the creation and protection of legal rights
b) Law is defined by Holland as the “capacity residing in one person, of
controlling with the assent and assistance of the State, the actions of
others”
c) Prof. Goodhart had observed that “the moral basis of contract is that the
promisor has by his promise created a reasonable expectation that it will
be kept”
d) All of the above are correct

14. “The statement in order to constitute a ‘confession’ under the Indian Evidence
Act 1872, must either admit in terms the offence or at any rate substantially
all the facts which constitute the offence.” The above view was expressed by
the Privy Council in which case?
a) Q.E. v. Abdullah
b) H.H.B. Gill v. King Emperor
c) Pakla Narayan Swamy v. Emperor
d) John Makin v. Attorney General

15. The Supreme Court of India in which case dealt with the validity of the entry tax?
a) M. C. Mehta v. Union of India AIR 1987 SC 1087
b) Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala (1973) 4 SCC 225
c) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997) 6 SCC 241
d) Jindal Stainless Ltd.& Anr v. State of Haryana & Ors. (2017) 12 SCC 1

16. Find the odd one out:

a) Fiction Theory b) Bracket Theory
c) Will Theory d) Concession Theory

17. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the validity of
pre-Constitution laws?
a) Article 2 b) Article 9
c) Article 11 d) Article 13

18.
Match List I with list II and select the correct option-
List I List II
a. Section 146 IPC 1. Fabricating False Evidence
b. Section 340 IPC 2. Extortion
c. Section 192 IPC 3. Rioting
d. Section 383 IPC 4. Wrongful conf inement
Select the correct option :
a) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2 b) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
c) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4 d) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1

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19. Whose permission is required for an Indian citizen to accept any title from any
foreign State?
a) This is barred under the Constitution of India
b) The Prime Minister of India
c) The President of India
d) No permission is required

20. Any person arrested and detained in custody has to be produced before the
nearest Magistrate within?
a) Twenty-four hours of such arrest excluding the time necessary for the
journey from the place of arrest to the court of the Magistrate.
b) Twenty-four hours of such arrest including the time necessary for the
journey from the place of arrest to the court of the Magistrate.
c) Twelve hours of such arrest excluding the time necessary for the journey
from the place of arrest to the court of the Magistrate.
d) Twelve hours of such arrest including the time necessary for the journey
from the place of arrest to the court of the Magistrate.

21. Match the following:

Type of IPR           Protects the intellectual property
i. Copyright Act a. Of a seller selling geographical
uniqueness of a product
ii. Patents Act b. Created by a business’ brand
identity in the marketplace
iii. Trademarks Act c. Created by inventors
iv. Geographical Indications Act d. Created by artists
a) i-a,ii-b,iii-c,iv-d b) i-d,ii-c,iii-b,iv-a
c) i-d,ii-b,iii-c,iv-a d) i-d,ii-b,iii-a,iv-c

22. Under the provision of Hindu Succession Act, 1956, any property inherited by
a female Hindu from her father or mother shall devolve, in absence of any son
or daughter of the deceased (including the children of any pre-deceased son
or daughter):
a) Upon the heirs referred to in Section 15(1) of the Act
b) Upon the heirs of deceased female’s father
c) Upon the heirs of deceased female’s husband
d) None of the above

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23. An arbitral award may not be set aside by the Court for being in conflict with
the public policy of India if:
a) the making of the award was induced or affected by fraud or corruption
b) the award is in contravention with the fundamental policy of Indian law
c) the award is in conflict with the most basic notions of morality and
justice
d) the award is found to be illegal on review on the merits of the dispute

24. If a witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in the open
court, evidence so given shall be deemed to be:
a) Documentary evidence b) Primary evidence
c) Oral evidence d) Secondary evidence

25. Following applies to voidable contracts:

a) Consensus and evidence of intention to contract are present and the consent
obtained is a real or genuine consent
b) Consensus and evidence of intention to contract are present but the consent
obtained is not a real or genuine consent
c) None of the parties to the contract can exercise his option to elect to be
bound by the contract or to disown or repudiate it
d) None of the above

26.
The most important feature of Kelsen’s pure theory is Grundnorm, which is
presumed to be valid and has to be followed. Which will be considered as the
Grundnorm from the following:
I. Constitution ought to be followed
II. Penal laws ought to be followed
III. Murder/thief ought to be punished
Select the correct option:
a) Statement I. b) Statement II.
c) Statement III. d) None of the above.

27. Which of the following is a Directive Principle under the Constitution of

India?
a) Protection of interests of minorities.
b) Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
c) Both a) and b).
d) None of the above.

28. What should be the composition of the Internal Committee as per POSH Act
2013?
a) 3 members including one chairperson, two members amongst employees
b) 3 members including one chairperson, one member amongst employees
and one external member
c) 4 members including one chairperson, two members amongst employees
and one external member
d) 5 members including one chairperson, two members amongst employees
and two external members

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29.
Consider the following statements about the President of India?
I. The President shall not hold any other office of profit.
II. Any citizen can be appointed as the President of India if he has completed
the age of thirty years.
III. In case of impeachment of the President of India on the ground of violation
of the Constitution of India, the charge shall be preferred by either House
of the Parliament.
Select the correct option:
a) all the above are correct. b) only I is correct.
c) I and II are correct. d) I and III are correct.

30. Who determines the salaries of Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council
of States?
a) The Parliament of India b) The President of India
c) The Prime Minister of India d) None of the above

31. Rule of fair trial to marriage is mentioned under:

a) Section 13(B) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
b) Section 13(1A) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
c) Section 14 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
d) Section 15 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

32. Which provision provides that “in determining whether a group of persons is
or is not a firm, or whether a person is or is not a partner in a firm, regard
shall be had to the real relation between the parties, as shown by all relevant
facts taken together”?
a) Section 6, The Partnership Act, 1932
b) Section 6, The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008
c) Section 2, The Partnership Act, 1932
d) Section 2, The Companies Act, 2013

33. The following individuals cannot be appointed as arbitrators unless the

parties, after a dispute has arisen between them, mutually agree by an express
agreement in writing to select them as arbitrators:
a) the proposed arbitrator holds a position in an arbitration institution with
appointing authority over the dispute
b) The nephew of the proposed arbitrator has a significant financial interest
in the outcome of the dispute
c) The proposed arbitrator is a lawyer in the same law firm which is representing
one of the parties
d) The proposed arbitrator and one of the counsels were classmates

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34. Dowry Prohibition law will be considered as law by:

I. Positive school of law as it is passed by the parliament of India.
II. Sociological school of law as it represents the social fact of dowry being
prohibited in India.
III. Historical school of law as it developed from the consciousness of law which
realised demanding dowry as wrong.
Select the correct option:
a) Only I b) Both I and II
c) All of the above d) None of the above

35. The Supreme Court of India enjoys original jurisdiction on which of the following
issues?
a) issues between the Government of India and one or more States.
b) The Supreme Court enjoys only appellate jurisdiction.
c) issues between two or more States.
d) Both a) and c).

36. In which case, it was held that ‘identification parades’ do not contravene
Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India, which requires that no accused
shall be compelled to be witness against himself?
a) Chandmal v. State of Rajasthan (1976)
b) Peare Lal v. The State (1961)
c) Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading (2002)
d) Ram Avtar v. State (Delhi Administration) (1985)

37. Part V of the Constitution of India also deals with which of the following ?
a) Appointment of District Judges.
b) Special provisions with respect to NCT of Delhi.
c) National Judicial Appointments Commission.
d) Separation of judiciary from executive.

38. Power to give a divorce can be delegated by a Muslim husband to:

a) wife
b) A third person
c) either the wife or a third person
d) Power to divorce cannot be delegated

39. Pardon may be tendered to an accomplice under Section 306 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure 1973 when:
a) he is not in a position to stand trial due to infirm health
b) when he is declared insolvent
c) he undertakes to make full and true disclosure of the facts relating to the
offence
d) None of the above

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40. Following is true about any hire-purchase agreement:

a) it is a bailment whereunder the bailee may buy the goods
b) it is open to the hirer to determine the agreement at any time
c) the hirer has the power to return the goods
d) all of the above

41. Who is competent under the Constitution of India to declare National

Emergency?
a) The Prime Minister in consultation with the Council of Ministers.
b) The Prime Minister.
c) The President of India.
d) The President of India in consultation with the Vice- President of India.

42. What do you understand by the term ‘Mini Constitution’?

a) Part III of the Constitution of India.
b) 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India.
c) The schedules of the Constitution of India are collectively so called.
d) The Preamble to the Constitution of India.

43. Olga Tellis & Ors. v. Bombay Municipal Corporation & Ors. (1985) 3 SCC 545
is a leading case on which issue?
a) rights of slum dwellers
b) rights of employees of a factory
c) rights of pregnant women at workplace
d) rights of residents of an urban city

44. Under Section 2(vii) of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act 1939, a Muslim
wife shall be entitled to obtain a decree for dissolution of her marriage :
a) When she has been given in marriage by her father or other guardian
before she attained the age of 15 years and repudiated the marriage before
attaining the age of 18 years, provided that the marriage has not been
consummated
b) When she has been given in marriage by her father or other guardian
after she attained the age of 15 years and repudiated the marriage before
attaining the age of 18 years
c) When she has been given in marriage by her father or other guardian before
she attained the age of 18 years and repudiated the marriage immediately
after attaining the age of 18 years
d) None of the above

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45. Consider the following principles:

Principle I : Copyright provides exclusive rights to the owner or creator of a
literary work.
Principle II : The copyright of a work created within the scope of employment
by an employee is given to the employer.
Principle III : The Copyright Act, 1957 states in its provisions that fair dealing
with a literary, dramatic, musical, or artistic work that is not a computer
programme is not an infringement of copyright.
Fact : P created a cartoon when she was hired by S for her magazine. X used
that cartoon without prior permission of S in her class slides to simplify a topic
in class. Decide.
Select the correct option:
a) S can claim compensation for the infringement of copyright.
b) S cannot claim any compensation because the usage of her work by X for
teaching amounts to fair dealing, and therefore, not an infringement of her
copyright.
c) P can claim the compensation because she was the creator of the work.
d) S was not the creator of work, therefore, there was no infringement.

46. The Constitution of India provides special provisions for which of the following
States?
a) Delhi, Punjab and Nagaland.
b) Delhi, Nagaland and Sikkim.
c) Madhya Pradesh, Nagaland and Sikkim.
d) Madhya Pradesh, Punjab and Assam.

47. Which of the following assertion is incorrect?

a) in fast-track arbitration under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
an oral hearing may be held only if all the parties make a request or if the
arbitral tribunal considers it necessary to have an oral hearing for clarifying
certain issues
b) an arbitral award shall be made in writing and shall be signed by members
of the arbitral tribunal
c) seat of arbitration and venue of the arbitration are one and the same
concept
d) a judicial authority shall not refer an action to arbitration if it finds that
prima facie no valid arbitration agreement exists
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48. A valid purpose of a Wakf is:

a) Religious or charitable
b) Payment of money to poor
c) Burning of lamps in a mosque
d) All of the above

49. Match List I with list II:

      List I List II
1. Examination of witness by police (i) Section 53A
2. Examination of person accused of rape
by medical practitioner (ii) Section 161
3. Medical examination of the victim of rape (iii) Section 200
4. Examination of complainant (iv) Section 164A
Select the correct option:
1 2 3 4
a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
c) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
d) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

50. The Supreme Court of India recently asked whether it should reconsider its
45 years landmark decision on the definition of ‘industry’ in which the triple
test was laid down. Which case is being referred here for reconsideration?
a) DN Banerjee v. PR Mukherjee.
b) The Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa and
Others.
c) University of Delhi v. Ramnath.
d) State of Bombay v. Hospital Mazdoor Sabha.

51. Compulsory education to all children of the age of six to eighteen years falls
under which category?
a) Fundamental Rights.
b) Directive Principles of State Policy.
c) It is not stipulated in the Constitution of India.
d) Customary rights.

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52. Following statements are correct about the Sale of Goods Act, 1930:
a) The Act refers to two types of contractual promises i.e, conditions and
warranties
b) The principle of caveat emptor applies
c) Property does not pass until seller does the thing which he was bound to
do and the buyer has its notice
d) All of the above are correct

53. Evolution and development of natural law theory may be studied under the
following heads:
a) Ancient Period, Medieval Period
b) Period of Renaissance, Modern Period
c) Under both a) and b)
d) None of the above

54. Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains special administration

and control provisions for Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes?
a) Third Schedule b) Eighth Schedule
c) Fifth Schedule d) Seventh Schedule

55. Write the correct sequence as enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution
of India.
a) Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity
b) Justice, Equality, Liberty, Fraternity
c) Justice, Fraternity, Liberty, Equality
d) Justice, Liberty, Fraternity, Equality

56. Which Schedule of the Constitution determines the disqualification of a person

from being a Member of either House of the Parliament of India?
a) 9th b) 10th c) 11th d) 12th

57. Which of the following are exceptions to the principles of natural justice?
a) statutory exclusion b) confidentiality
c) both a) and b) d) none of the above

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58. Under which sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 provision
regarding summary trial is given?
a) Sections 255-260 b) Sections 360-365
c) Sections 260-265 d) Sections 265-270

59. Which of the following is a method to control Delegated Legislation?

a) Executive Control
b) Judicial Control
c) Parliamentary Control
d) All of the above

60. Match the following jural correlatives:

1. Right i. No Right
2. Privilege ii. Duty
3. Power iii. Disability
4. Immunity iv. Liability
a) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv b) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
c) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv d) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv

61. Identify the correct pair(s).

I. I.C. GolakNath v. State of Punjab : Supervision of Tribunals
II. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India : Right to Information
III. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India : Post decisional hearing
IV. P. V. Narasimha Rao v. State : Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
a) Only I b) I and II
c) Only III d) I, III and IV

62. The term ‘Ombudsman’ originated in which country?

a) UK b) Sweden c) USA d) France

63. There is no jurisdiction to grant bail under Section 438 of Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 in:
a) the court of magistrate
b) the Court of Session
c) the High Court
d) both b) and c)

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64. Consider the following international instruments and arrange them in

chronological order:
I. Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees
II. ILO Convention No. 97 (Migration for Employment Convention (Revised))
III. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant
Workers and Members of Their Families
IV. Declaration on the Human Rights of Individuals who are not nationals of
the country in which they live
Select the correct option:
a) I, III, II, IV b) II, I, IV, III
c) I, IV, II, III d) II, IV, I, III

65. Which of the following is not applicable to a registered trade union?

I. The Societies Registration Act, 1860 (21 of 1860)
II. The Co-operative Societies Act, 1912 (2 of 1912)
III. The Companies Act, 1956
Select the correct option:
a) Only I is applicable
b) Only II is applicable
c) Only III is applicable
d) None of the legislations are applicable

66. The writ of Mandamus can be issued against which of the following?
a) Any Company which has a statutory or public duty to perform.
b) The President of India.
c) Legislature to enact a particular law.
d) Any private individual.

67. Pick the correct statement about oppression and mismanagement:

a) Individual interest may be sacrificed to the economic exigencies of the
enterprise and judgment of the directors must prevail.
b) No more damage should come to the minority shareholders or individual
shareholder than is absolutely necessary for protecting the benefit to the
company.
c) Sidebottom v. Kershaw, Lease & Co is the leading case on this issue.
d) All of above are correct.
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68. What is not an essential ingredient of ‘Gift’ as defined under the Transfer of
Property Act, 1882?
a) consideration
b) free will
c) acceptance by the donee
d) property should be in existence

69. What is the duration of a lease for an immovable property for agricultural
purpose in the absence of any contract or local law?
a) the lease shall be deemed to be a lease from year to year, terminable on
the part of the lessor by six months’ notice.
b) the lease shall be deemed to be a lease from year to year, terminable on
the part of the lessee by six months’ notice.
c) the lease shall be deemed to be a lease from year to year, terminable on
the part of either the lessor or the lessee by three months’ notice.
d) the lease shall be deemed to be a lease from year to year, terminable on
the part of either the lessor or the lessee by six months’ notice.

70.
Match the following:
A. Sexual intercourse by husband with I. State of Punjab v. Gurmit Singh
minor wife
B. In-camera trial of rape case II. Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
C. Sexual harassment of women III. Sakshi v. UOI
at workplace
D. In-camera trial of a case IV. Independent thought v. UOI
under sections 354 and 377, IPC

Select the correct option:

A B C D
a) I II III IV
b) II III IV I
c) III II I IV
d) IV I II III

71. Which of the following is true about passing off with respect to trademark?
I. The passing off is providing protection to registered goods and services.
II. The passing off is providing protection to unregistered goods and
services.
III. In passing off, it is not essential for the plaintiff to establish that the
disputed mark has a distinctive identity for the user of the plaintiff ’s goods
or services.
Select the correct option:
a) Only I b) Only II
c) Both I and III d) None of the above

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72. Consider the following Statements in relation to Principle 21 of the Stockholm

Declaration
Statement I: Principle 21 is reiterated in Principle 3 of the Rio Declaration
Statement II: Principle 21 is comprised of two elements
Statement III: Principle 21 reflects Customary International Law
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?
a) I b) II and III
c) I and III d) I and II

73. As per the new Industrial Relations Code 2020, gratuity will be given to fixed
term employees if they render service for a minimum of __ unlike the old law
which provided minimum criteria for claiming gratuity to be __?
a) 5 years, 1 year b) 1 year, 5 years
c) 1 year, 3 years d) 3 years, 5 years

74. When does a contingent interest become a vested interest under the provisions
of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
a) on the happening of the event
b) contingent interest never becomes a vested interest
c) as per the contract between by the parties
d) as per the local usage

75.
Which of the following statement(s) are correct in relation to Nationally
Determined Contributions (NDC) in the context of Article 4 of the 2015 Paris
Agreement?
I. State parties to the Paris Agreement are legally obligated to prepare,
communicate and maintain NDC and achieve their NDC.
II. State parties to the Paris Agreement are legally obligated to communicate
a NDC every 5 years.
III. Least Developing Nations are exempt from the mandate to prepare and
submit NDC.
Select the correct option:
a) I, II and III
b) Only II
c) I and II
d) None of the above statements are correct

76. Following is true about malicious prosecution:

a) Plaintiff has to prove that he was prosecuted by the defendant
b) The proceedings terminated in plaintiff’s favour
c) There was no reasonable or probable cause for the prosecution
d) All of the above
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77. ‘Attested’ as interpreted under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 implies:
a) attested by at least one witness
b) attested by at least two witnesses
c) attested by two or more witnesses
d) the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does not specify the number of
witnesses

78.General Practice which is a constituent element of Customary International

Law refers to:
I. Practice of States
II. Conduct of NGOs
III. Conduct of Private Individuals
IV. Practice of International Organisations
Select the correct option:
a) I, II and IV
b) Only I
c) I and IV
d) I, III and IV

79. Company N slightly altered an already existing medicine ‘M’ and wants to get
it patented. Decide:
a) The patent cannot be granted as slight alteration would not amount to
novelty.
b) T he patent can be granted as it includes novelty because of slight
alteration.
c) The patent cannot be granted as this will also amount to evergreening of
patents.
d) Both a) and c).

80. Pick the correct statement:

a) According to Dr. Allen, custom as a legal and social phenomenon grows up
partly by forces inherent in society, forces of purity of reason and necessity
and partly of suggestions and imitation.
b) Professor Holland says that custom is a generally observed course of
conduct.
c) Professor Keeton defines custom as those rules of human action, established
by usage and regarded as legally binding by those to whom the rules are
applicable.
d) All of the above are correct.

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81. Following is not correct about the Board of Directors:

a) Only individuals can be appointed as directors.
b) Requirement of one-woman director in listed cos & a director who has
stayed in India for not less than 182 days in the previous calendar year.
c) Public co- should have minimum 5 directors and Private co- should have
minimum 2 directors.
d) None of the above are correct.

82. The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 has
subsumed how many major labour laws into one Code?
a) 10 b) 11
c) 12 d) 13

83. According to the which theory, new states are established by the will and
consent of already existing states?
a) Declaratory b) Monist
c) Constitutive d) None of the above

84. A judgement:
a) should not contain the name of the victim in case of sexual offences
b) includes an order of discharge
c) must be written in the English language
d) in case of acquittal need not direct the accused to be set free

85. A prosecutes B for adultery with C, A’s wife. B denies that C is A’s wife, but
the Court convicts B for adultery. Afterwards, C is prosecuted for bigamy
in marrying B during A’s lifetime. C says that she never was A’s wife. The
judgement against B is
a) Relevant as against C
b) Irrelevant as against C
c) Relevant and admissible against C
d) None of the above

86. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the precautionary

principle in international environmental law?
a) When an activity, product or technology may cause harm to the environment
precautionary measures should be taken to prevent or mitigate potential
damage
b) Lack of scientific certainty is no reason to postpone action
c) Occurrence of serious and irreversible harm to the environment is a
mandatory condition for the operation of this principle
d) the principle is applied by States according to their capabilities

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87. Gaurav, an accused, wants to submit carbon copy of the suicide note as
secondary evidence. The original is with the opposite party and he has failed
to produce the same in the court. The suicide was not within the knowledge
of the accused prior to the receipt of the carbon copy. Which of the following
will hold true for the case?
a) The evidence can be admitted as it satisfies the requirements of both section
64 and 65 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
b) The evidence cannot be admitted due to applicability of Section 30 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
c) The evidence cannot be admitted as it fails to satisfy the requirement of
Section 64 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
d) The evidence cannot be admitted as it fails to satisfy the requirement of
Section 65 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

Assertion (A): Article 19 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (1969)
88.
provides that the States have the right to make reservation circumscribed by
three exceptions.
Reason (R): The making of reservations is incident upon the sovereignty and
equality of states.
Select the correct option:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true but (R) is false
d) (A) is false but (R) is true

89. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using code given below
the list:
List I List II
(i) Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra 1. General A.S. Vaidya Case
(ii) State of Tamil Nadu v. Nalini 2. Mathura Rape Case
(iii) Varendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor 3. Post-Master Murder Case
(iv) State of Maharashtra v. Sukh Deo Singh 4. Rajeev Gandhi Murder Case
Select the correct combination:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
a) 2 4 3 1
b) 1 2 3 4
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 3 1 2 4

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90. “In my respectful view, what appears to be missing in this analysis by the Court
is what specific obligations arise during stage two of this process. In attempt
to fill this lacuna, the present opinion will offer suggestions as to appropriate
minimum standards that should be fulfilled by any nation State conducting an
EIA. In this regard, the Convention on Environmental Impact Assessment in
a Transboundary Context (“Espoo Convention”) drafted by the United Nations
Economic Commission for Europe (“UNECE”) provides, in my view, an exemplary
standard for the process to be followed when conducting an EIA.” The above
statement highlighting the Espoo Convention as an “exemplary standard” for
conducting Environmental Impact Assessment was made in the:
a) Separate Opinion by Judge Donoghue in Certain Activities Carried Out by
Nicaragua in the Border Area (Costa Rica v. Nicaragua)
b) Separate opinion by Judge Cançado Trindade in Certain Activities Carried
Out by Nicaragua in the Border Area (Costa Rica v. Nicaragua)
c) Separate Opinion by Judge Bhandari in Certain Activities Carried Out by
Nicaragua in the Border Area (Costa Rica v. Nicaragua)
d) Separate Opinion by Judge Koroma in Gabčíkovo-Nagymaros Project
(Hungary v. Slovakia)

91. Following principles are considered as settled while interpreting taxation

statutes:
a) In interpreting a taxation statute, equitable considerations are entirely out
of place. Taxation statutes cannot be interpreted on any presumption or
assumption.
b) Before taxing any person, it must be shown that he falls within the ambit
of the charging section by clear words used in the section and the golden
rule of interpretation applies.
c) If the words are ambiguous and open to two interpretations, the benefit of
interpretation is to be given to the State.
d) both a) and b).

92. Following is not included within the ambit of ‘consumer rights’:

a) the right to be protected against the marketing of goods, products or services
which are hazardous to life and property
b) no right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard
and price of goods, products or services so as to protect the consumer
against unfair trade practices
c) the right to be assured, wherever possible, access to a variety of goods,
products or services at competitive prices
d) the right to consumer awareness

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Assertion (A): An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused

93.
person.
Reason (R): An accomplice is unworthy of credit, unless he is corroborated in
material particulars.
Select the correct option:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

94. Nemo judex in causa sua implies which of the following?

a) No one can be a judge in his own case.
b) The act of Court shall not prejudice anyone.
c) Burden of proof lies on the plaintiff.
d) A delegate cannot further delegate.

95. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India identify both
Precautionary and Polluter Pays principles as essential features of sustainable
development?
a) Indian Council for Enviro-legal Action & Ors. v. Union of India & Ors.
(1996)
b) Vellore Citizen’s Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996)
c) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath & Ors. (1997)
d) Narmada Bachao Andolan v. Union of India & Ors.(2000)

96. Consider the following principles:

Principle A: International humanitarian law aims to protect the civilian
population and civilian objects, and establishes the distinction between
combatants and non-combatants. States must never make civilians the object
of attack and must consequently never use weapons that are incapable of
distinguishing between civilian and military targets.
Principle B: International humanitarian law prohibits causing of unnecessary
suffering to combatants; it is accordingly prohibited to use weapons causing
them such harm or uselessly aggravating their suffering. Therefore, states do
not have unlimited freedom of choice of means in the weapons they use.
Select the correct option:
a) Both Principles A and B are correct
b) Only Principle A is correct
c) Only Principle B is correct
d) Both principle A and principle B are incorrect

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97. Following matters or disputes can be referred to mediation under the Mediation
Act 2023 :
a) Disputes relating to investment matters
b) Disputes relating to claims against minors
c) Subject matter over which the Tribunal constituted under the National
Green Tribunal Act, 2010 has jurisdiction
d) Suits for declaration having effect of right in rem

98. Following is not correct about the ‘same word same meaning’ rule:
a) When the Legislature uses the same word in different parts of the same
section or statute, there is a presumption that the word is used in the same
sense throughout.
b) The presumption noted in a) is a weak presumption and is readily displaced
by the context.
c) When the same word is used at different places in the same clause of the
same section, it bears the same meaning at each place having regard to
the context of its use.
d) None of the above.

99. “Article 36, paragraph 1 (b), of the Vienna Convention provides that if a
national of the sending State is arrested or detained, and “if he so requests”,
the competent authorities of the receiving State must, “without delay”, inform
the consular post of the sending State.” [Jadhav Case (India v. Pakistan)]. In
the context of this case, the International Court of Justice understood the
expression ‘without delay’ as:
a) Immediately upon arrest
b) To be determined on the basis of individual’s circumstances
c) Before interrogation
d) None of the above

100. Following is true about further issue of share capital:

a) Rights shares should be issued to existing equity shareholders of the
company, as nearly as circumstances admit, in proportion to the paid-up
share capital on those shares
b) Should be issued to employees under a scheme of employees’ stock option,
if the company passes ordinary resolution in this behalf
c) To no other person even if authorized by special resolution of the
company
d) All of the above

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