Recruitment for Various Post 27th March 2022

Participant ID

Test Center Name iON Digital Zone

Test Date 27/03/2022
Test Time 2:00 PM - 6:15 PM
Subject Junior Administrative Assistant English Typing
Marks Obtained 114

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table and are facing the
center of the table. C is sitting at the third place to the left of F and at the third place to the
right of D. E is sitting neither with F nor with C. A and G are sitting next to each other. Where
is B seated?
Ans A. Between C and G

B. Between E and D

C. Between E and C

D. Between G and C

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165864
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.2

Ans

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165894
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -1/4

Q.3 After the term examination, Rohan ranked 15th from the top and his friend Shailesh ranked
23rd from the bottom. If their ranks are interchanged, Rohan will rank 18th from the top.
What will be Shailesh position from the bottom?
Ans A. 25

B. 26

C. 40

D. 22

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165867
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.4 If the first half of the following series is written in reversed manner, and then all the
symbols are removed, which letter/number will be at 4th to the left of 8th letter/number from
the left?

A, D, %, 3, 4, F, G, Y, &, $, 7, S, 3, C, F, R, C, D, @, E, R, 4, #, 5, 7, 2, 4, %, V, F
Ans A. 3

B. S

C. C

D. 7

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165877
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.5 If in a code language ‘BOOT’ is coded as ‘UQRF’, and ‘SUITE’ is coded as ‘VVVMJ’, how
‘TILE’ would be coded in the same language?
Ans A. VNIL

B. UNIL

C. UNLI

D. VNLI

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165882
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.6 If 26th January of a particular year is Wednesday and 3rd April of the same year is on
Sunday, what day of the week would be on 5th March of the same year?
Ans A. Monday

B. Tuesday

C. Sunday

D. Saturday

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165868
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.7 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I, and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts,
decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
Some cows are tigers.
No tiger is wild.

Conclusions:
I. Some cows are not wild
II. Some cows are wild
Ans A. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

B. Only conclusion I follows

C. Only conclusion II follows

D. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165872
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.8 Find out the value of X in the following series.

2, 1, 4, X, 6, 5, 8, 7, 10, 9, 12, 11, 14

Ans A. 2

B. 5

C. 3

D. 6

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165904
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.9 Sheela drove 5 km towards south from her house. Then she turned right and drove for 7 km.
She then turned right and drove 10 km to reach her grandfather’s house. From there she
turned right and drove 6 km. Finally, she turned right and drove for 5 km to reach her Uncle’s
house. In which direction is her uncle’s house from her house?
Ans A. East

B. West

C. North

D. South

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165890
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.10

Ans

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165897
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.11 Study the following statements and decide which of the conclusions can logically be drawn
from the statements.

Statements:
1. V > W
2. U ≤ X < Y
3. Y > V

Conclusions:
I. V ≤ X
II. X > Y
Ans A. Only conclusion I can be drawn

B. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II can be drawn

C. Only conclusion II can be drawn

D. Both conclusions I and II can be drawn

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165875
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4
Q.12 Few students are sitting in a row. Aman is sitting at the 11th position from the left and his
friend Vikram is sitting at the 19th position from the right. Chetna is sitting exactly in the
middle between Aman and Vikram. If Aman is at 7th position from Chetna. How many
students are sitting in the row?
Ans A. 42

B. 44

C. 43

D. 45

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165871
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.13 A statement is given followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. Consider the
statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in
the statement.

Statement:
“Spitting on public places are punishable offence”- A notice by municipal corporation.

Assumptions:
(I) People spit on public places.
(II) Strict action is required for compliance.
Ans A. Only Statement II is Implicit

B. Only Statement I is Implicit

C. None of the statements are Implicit

D. Both the statements II and II are Implicit

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165892
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -1/4

Q.14 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number
is related to the first number.

25 : 49 :: 64 : ?
Ans A. 100

B. 102

C. 101

D. 103

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165909
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.15 Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F live in a building having six floors. Each one lives on one floor
of the building but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor of the building is
names as 1st floor and the floor above is called second floor and so on up to sixth floor.
Only 2 friends live on the floor which is above the floor where D lives. E lives on the top
floor. A do not lives on the floor above the floor where C lives. Four friends live below the
floor where B lives. C and F lives on consecutive floors. Who lives on the ground floor?
Ans A. D

B. A

C. C

D. F

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165869
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.16 In a code language, 'MUTNTA' is written as ‘NTTUAM’. How will 'CALCUM' be written in that
language?
Ans A. MCCUAL

B. CLUMAC

C. CULAMC

D. CULMAC

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165880
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.17

Ans A. Company A

B. Company B

C. Company C

D. Data is not sufficient

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165913
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.18 Three of the following four words are similar and one is different. Choose the odd word.
Ans A. CT Scan

B. Angiogram

C. MRI

D. X-Ray

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165887
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -1/4

Q.19 From among the numbers in the options, choose the one is related with the same logic as
the following numbers.

4913, 6859, 29791

Ans A. 19683

B. 1331

C. 15626

D. 13824

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165907
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.20 Consider the two statements given below and decide which of the following correctly
depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Statements:
I. Pharmaceutical funds have given good returns in past few years.
II. There have been significant progress in science and technology in the last two decades.
Ans A. Both the statements I and II are independent causes.

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

C. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165891
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.21 Find out the wrong term in the following series.

S, U, T, U, V, A, Y, A, C, E, H, E, N, I, U, O
Ans A. Y

B. S

C. V

D. O

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165879
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.22 Which of the given combination of interchanges will make the following equation
CORRECT?

35 + 7 x 6 ÷ 12 – 4 = 26
Ans A. + and –; 7 and 4

B. ÷ and +; 6 and 4

C. ÷ and x; 7 and 6

D. + and x; 6 and 4

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165912
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.23 Given below is a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. Study the
information given in the statement and assuming that everything in the statement is true to
decide which of the given courses of action logically follow(s).

Statement:
Underground water resources are in a dangerous stage in many parts of the country.

Course of Action:
1. Government should take action stop the use of underground water resources.
2. Rain water harvesting must be made mandatory by the government.
Ans A. Only course of action II follows

B. Both courses of action I and II follow

C. Only course of action I follows

D. Neither course of action I nor course of action II follows

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165893
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4
Q.24 Select the option that is related to the third letter-cluster in the same way as the second
letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster.

CHAIN : MOHJZBGIBD :: MARKS : ______

Ans A. RTJLQSZBLN

B. JLRTQSZBLN

C. JLRTQSZBNL

D. RTJQLSZBLN

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165886
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.25

Ans

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165874
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.26 From among the number triads in the options, choose the one in which the numbers are
related with the same logic as the numbers in the following triad.

(19, 100, 1)
Ans A. (15, 40, 76)

B. (15, 9, 1)

C. (11, 32, 20)

D. (32, 25, 49)

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165908
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.27 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming
the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts,
decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
Some engineers are graduates.
Some students are engineers.
All graduates are students.

Conclusions:
I. Some engineers are students
II. Some students are graduates
III. Some graduates are engineers
Ans A. Conclusions I and III follow

B. Conclusions I and II follow

C. Conclusions I, II and III follows

D. Conclusions II and III follow

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165873
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.28 Three of the following four letter clusters are similar and one is different. Choose the odd
letter cluster.
Ans A. DHLPT

B. BFJNR

C. YCGKN

D. PTXBF

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165888
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.29 Find out the wrong number in the following series.

5, 5, 6, 10, 14, 18, 45, 120, 184, 600, 925, 3600

Ans A. 5

B. 925

C. 120

D. 18

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165905
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.30 Three of the following four-word pairs are similar and one is different. Choose the odd word
pair.
Ans A. Miracle : Normalcy

B. Just : Impartial

C. Clean : Besmirched

D. Permanent : Transient

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165889
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4

Q.31

Ans A. 18

B. 20

C. 12

D. 22

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165906
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.32 If '@' means 'minus', '%' means 'divided by', '&' means 'plus' and '>' means 'multiplied by', Then
what would be value of X in the following equation?

124 % 4 @ 6 & 10 > 9 = X

Ans A. 115

B. 125

C. –125

D. –113

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165911
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.33

Ans

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165902
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.34 If in a code language ‘COPY’ is coded as ‘116’, and ‘CHALK’ is coded as ‘70’, how ‘CUPS’
would be coded in the same language?
Ans A. 86

B. 92

C. 118

D. 112

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165883
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.35 From among the given word pairs choose the one which is similar to the following word
pairs.

BAKLUV : ABINRY
Ans A. NHYTRD : OGARUA

B. CRTYSV : BSRAPY

C. NHTRSW : MGRTPZ

D. BHTERS : AIRFOV

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165885
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4

Q.36 Select the option that is related to the third letter-cluster in the same way as the second
letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster.

QUICK : UQKIC :: TRICK : ______

Ans A. TRKCI

B. TRKIC

C. TKRIC

D. TKRCI

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165884
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.37

Ans

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165903
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.38

Ans

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165900
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.39 Three out of the following four number pairs are similar and one is different. Choose the
odd number pair.
Ans A. 16 : 240

B. 8 : 56

C. 3 : 6

D. 21 : 421

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165910
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.40 In a code language, 'PUNCTURE' is written as ‘UUTRPNEC’. How will 'TUBULAR' be written in
that language?
Ans A. UTURLAB

B. UTTRLAB

C. UTURLBA

D. UUTRLBA

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165881
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.41

Ans

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165901
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.42 Five friends Aqueel, Komal, Madan, Lalmani and Tarita appeared for an examination. Komal
ranked higher than two of her friends, Madan ranked above Tarita who ranked above Komal.
How many of them ranked below Tarita?
Ans A. 3

B. 1

C. 4

D. 2

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165866
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.43

Ans

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165895
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.44 If the second half of the following series is written in reversed manner, then which letter will
be at 8th to the right of 5th letter from the left?

A, F, R, T, G, V, E, D, C, R, B, H, U, S, X, E, B, N, H, Y
Ans A. N

B. H

C. A

D. Y

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165876
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.45

Ans A. A, E, D, B, C

B. A, C, E, D, B

C. A, E, B, C, D

D. A, B, E, D, C

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165896
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.46 Select the option that will fill in the blank and complete the given series.

BUTE, FXVF, JAXG, ____, RGBI, VJDJ

Ans A. NDAH

B. MDZH

C. NEZH

D. NDZH

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165878
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.47 During a team meeting, eight team members K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are discussing around
a square table. All of them are facing the center of the table. L is sitting at the sixth position
to the right of K. P is sitting at the third position to the left of L. O is sitting at the second
position to the left of P and Q is sitting between K and L. P is sitting immediately right to M
and immediately left to N. Who is sitting between L and N?
Ans A. R

B. M

C. O

D. Q

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165865
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.48

Ans

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165898
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4
Q.49

Ans

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165899
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -1/4

Q.50 Eight boxes of different colors red, blue, green, yellow, violet, orange, black and white are
kept on eight different racks in a vertical manner. The lowest rack is named as A, and the
rack above it are named as B, C, D, E, F, G and H respectively. The box which is kept on the
rack below E rack is either yellow or green. The red box is kept below blue box which is kept
below the green box. There are six boxes above the blue box. White box is kept on the top
and is kept above the black box. There is one box kept between white and orange boxes.
Which box is kept on the rack named as F?
Ans A. Violet

B. Yellow

C. Orange

D. Green

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165870
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 India’s Permanent Representative to the UN, _______ has been appointed as the Chair of the
UN Security Council Counter-Terrorism Committee for 2022.
Ans A. Arun Kumar Singh

B. T N Kaul

C. Kewal Singh

D. T S Tirumurti

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165922
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.2 The Rajasthan Camel (Prohibition of Slaughter and Regulation of Temporary Migration or
Export) Act passed in _______ is set for amendments in 2022.
Ans A. 2013

B. 2017

C. 2014

D. 2015

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165923
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.3 Minister of State (MoS) for Ayush, Munjpara Mahedrabhai, virtually inaugurated the _______
on November 26, 2021 in New Delhi.
Ans A. Naturopathy-2021

B. Ayurveda Parv-2021

C. Siddha Parv-2021

D. Homeopathy-2021

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165914
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.4 In _______, the Ilbert Bill was introduced which gave Indian judges the power to hear cases
against European, by the then Viceroy Lord Ripon and Sir Courtenay Ilbert, the legal advisor
to the Council of India.
Ans A. 1843

B. 1832

C. 1883

D. 1865

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165932
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.5 The Indian archers bagged _______ medals at the 2021 Asian Archery Championships held in
Dhaka, Bangladesh.
Ans A. six

B. five

C. eight

D. seven

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165926
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.6 The 6th edition of biennial Indo–France joint military exercise called ______ was concluded
on November 26, 2021 in France.
Ans A. Ex SAAS-2021

B. Ex MIL-2021

C. Ex SHAKTI-2021

D. Ex VIR-2021

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165916
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.7 According to the first-ever national nutrition survey conducted by the government of India,
breastfeeding is ______ proportional to household wealth and other factors.
Ans A. directly

B. inversely

C. unequally

D. equally

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165917
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4

Q.8 Arthashastra was rediscovered by _______ in 1905 after it had disappeared in the 12th
century.
Ans A. R Shamasastry

B. Bharata Muni

C. Yajnavalkya

D. Sushruta

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165933
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.9 In 1955, which Committee witnessed the potential of utilizing small scale industry for
promoting rural development?
Ans A. Karve

B. Malhotra

C. Rangrajan

D. Kelkar

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165956
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.10 Which of the major peaks of the Kumaon Himalaya is also known as the ‘Temple of God”?
Ans A. Hardeol

B. Rimo 1

C. K2

D. Trishul 1

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165951
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.11 Which of the following languages belong to the Dravidian style of language?
Ans A. Bodo

B. Telugu

C. Urdu

D. Dogri

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165937
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.12 Which of the following is NOT one of the three styles of Manipuri Ras Leela?
Ans A. Danda Rasak

B. Mandal Rasak

C. Tal Rasak

D. Kali Rasak

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165934
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.13 Odia was given the status of the Classical language in which year?
Ans A. 2013

B. 2011

C. 2012

D. 2014

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165936
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.14 Sex ratio, as per the 2011 census is ______, which is largely comparable to the best
performance of 941 in 1961 in last fifty years.
Ans A. 940

B. 942

C. 943

D. 944

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165955
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -1/4

Q.15 Tamil Nadu won the Syed Mushtaq Ali T-20 Trophy-2021 defeating which of the following
states?
Ans A. Kerala

B. Maharashtra

C. Bihar

D. Karnataka

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165925
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.16 All living organisms belong to 3 categories, which of the following is NOT one of them?
Ans A. Bronchea

B. Archaea

C. Bacteria

D. Eukarya

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165961
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.17 Mechanics is divided into three following categories. Which of the following is NOT one of
these?
Ans A. Statistical mechanics

B. Non-Classical mechanics

C. Classical mechanics

D. Quantum mechanics

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165963
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.18 National Housing Bank (NHB) was set up on 9 July _______ under the National Housing Bank
Act, 1987.
Ans A. 1989

B. 1988

C. 1998

D. 1990

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165947
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.19 In 2014, Justice BV Acharya published his autobiography named ‘_______’.

Ans A. Ente Katha

B. All from Memory

C. Towards Freedom

D. Waiting for a Visa

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165939
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.20 Where is the headquarters of the EXIM (Export Import Bank of India) bank?
Ans A. Delhi

B. Kolkatta

C. Ahmedabad

D. Mumbai

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165948
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.21 Bhavani, Noyyal and Amaravathy are the main tributaries in the state of _______.
Ans A. West Bengal

B. Karnataka

C. Kerala

D. Tamil Nadu

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165954
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -1/4

Q.22 Cavalier-Smith had reduced the total number of animal kingdoms from eight to six. Which
of the following is NOT one of them?
Ans A. Fungi

B. Chromista

C. Protozoa

D. Porifera

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165962
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -1/4

Q.23 The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) has granted permission for mass production of AK-
203 rifles deal with which country in November 2021?
Ans A. Canada

B. Ireland

C. Russia

D. Australia

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165918
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.24 The first Industrial Policy in India was announced in _______.

Ans A. 1948

B. 1952

C. 1950

D. 1949

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165957
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.25 Where is the Keoladeo Ghana National Park situated?
Ans A. Sikkim

B. Rajasthan

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Odisha

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165950
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.26 Who was the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856?

Ans A. Robert Clive

B. Lord Ripon

C. Warren Hastings

D. Lord Dalhousie

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165931
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.27 The Telangana Government at the Council meeting suggested strategies to rightfully use
the waters of which two rivers?
Ans A. Tungabhadra and Wardha

B. Wardha and Godavari

C. Krishna and Godavari

D. Brahmaputra and Manjra

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165921
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.28 The first Five-year Plan was launched in _______.

Ans A. 1955

B. 1951

C. 1947

D. 1958

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165946
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.29 Minister of Coal and Mine, Pralhad Joshi, inaugurated the ‘E-portal of accreditation scheme’
for _______ exploration on November 23, 2021.
Ans A. minerals

B. coal

C. carbon

D. petroleum

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165920
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.30 Who is known as the father of genetics?

Ans A. Charles Darwin

B. Ada Lovelace

C. Galileo Galilei

D. Gregor Johann Mendel

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165960
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.31 _______ is all about the study of all the nuances of Moon, its physical features as well as the
surface.
Ans A. Areology

B. Asteroseismology

C. Photometry

D. Selenography

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165959
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.32 The Fincare group consists of two NBFC-MFIs, Future Financial Services Pvt. Ltd. (FFSPL)
and _________.
Ans A. Disha Microfin Pvt. Ltd

B. Annapurna Microfinance Pvt. Ltd

C. Asirvad Microfinance

D. Equitas Micro Finance Pvt. Ltd

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165943
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.33 Which of the following areas of scientific study do NOT fall under the realm of physical
geology?
Ans A. Earthquakes

B. Ionization

C. Weathering

D. Plate tectonics

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165958
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.34 The International Cricket Council (ICC) has announced the 14 host countries of the ICC
men’s white-ball events from 2024-2031 and India is set to host the ______ Champions
Trophy.
Ans A. 2029

B. 2026

C. 2030

D. 2025

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165928
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.35 The Green Revolution resulted in a great increase in production of food grains, especially
two of them. Which of the following are those?
Ans A. Maize and oats

B. Wheat and maize

C. Wheat and rice

D. Rice and barley

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165944
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.36 Indian badminton legend _______ has been selected for the prestigious Lifetime
Achievement Award for 2021 by the Badminton World Federation (BWF) Council.
Ans A. Nandu Natekar

B. Prakash Padukone

C. Parupalli Kashyap

D. Pullela Gopichand

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165927
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.37 The Coringa marine sanctuary in India is located in which of the following states?
Ans A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. West Bengal

D. Gujarat

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165952
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.38 In which year did the British announce their decision to part Bengal into two provinces?
Ans A. 1933

B. 1905

C. 1915

D. 1926

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165929
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.39 The Green Revolution within India led to an increase in agricultural production, especially in
certain states. Which is NOT one of them?
Ans A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Punjab

C. Haryana

D. Chhattisgarh

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165945
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.40 Which of the following is NOT a book written by Arundhati Roy?

Ans A. Power Politics

B. Broken Republic : Three Essays

C. The God of Small Things

D. Last man in Tower

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165941
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4
Q.41 During 1917 and 1918, Mahatma Gandhi was involved in three struggles in three places
before he launched the Rowlatt Satyagraha. Which of the following place is NOT one of
them?
Ans A. Porbander

B. Ahmedabad

C. Champaran

D. Kheda

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165930
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.42 As per the National Family and Health Survey (2019-2021) data, what is India’s current Total
Fertility Rate?
Ans A. 2.0

B. 1.8

C. 1.9

D. 2.1

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165915
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.43 _______ is a type of money whose value as money is equivalent to its value as a commodity.
Ans A. Token Money

B. Prize Money

C. Representative Full-bodied Money

D. Full-bodied Money

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165942
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.44 In Jainism, ‘Tirthankara’ refers to ______ enlightened spiritual masters who are believed to
have achieved perfect knowledge through asceticism.
Ans A. 28

B. 27

C. 24

D. 21

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165938
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.45 Lambadi, Dhimsa and Kolattam are the folk-dance forms of which of the following states?
Ans A. Bihar

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Chhattisgarh

D. Haryana

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165935
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -1/4

Q.46 The Supreme Court gave the go-ahead to the Centre to disinvest its 29.54% residual shares
in which of the following companies?
Ans A. Mewat Zinc Ltd

B. Sunrise Zinc Ltd

C. Hindustan Zinc Ltd

D. Ambuja Zinc Ltd

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165924
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.47 In 2006, Indian film director and composer, ________ published his autobiographical book
'Living Shadows'.
Ans A. Satyajit Ray

B. Aribam Syam Sharma

C. Deepak Chopra

D. Abhinav Bindra

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165940
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.48 The second edition of the Maritime SheEO digital conference is scheduled to held on
November 25, 2021, being conceptualised by______, the Founder of Maritime SheEO.
Ans A. Raghunandan Saran

B. Sanjam Sahi Gupta

C. Desh Bandhu Gupta

D. Kishore Biyani

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165919
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.49 Kangra Tea and Kullu shawl are the G. I Tags of which of the following states?
Ans A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Bihar

C. Himachal Pradesh

D. Haryana

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165953
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.50 India maintains ______ rank on IMD's World Competitiveness Index, 2021.
Ans A. 33rd

B. 43rd

C. 55th

D. 50th

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165949
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 A shop keeper sells the book (History of India) at a discount of 15% on marked price. He
earns a profit of 19%. Then the ratio of C.P to the marked price of the book is:
Ans A. 5 : 7

B. 7 : 8

C. 7 : 5

D. 6 : 5

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165983
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.2 Three solutions having milk and water in the respective ratios 1 : 2 ,2 : 3 and 4 : 5 are mixed
in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. Find the ratio of milk to water in the mixture.
Ans A. 37 : 53

B. 36 : 51

C. 38 : 55

D. 39 : 54

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165974
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.3

Ans A. 6.82

B. 5.76

C. 6.04

D. 5.04

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165967
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -1/4

Q.4 In a class the number of girls is 30% more than that of the boys. The strength of the class is
69. If 6 more girls are admitted to the class, the ratio of the number of boys to that of the
girls is:
Ans A. 2 : 3

B. 5 : 6

C. 3 : 4

D. 3 : 7

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165984
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.5 Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of
three numbers is 66. What is the smallest number?
Ans A. 28

B. 32

C. 54

D. 36

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165975
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.6

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651002
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.7 The speeds of two bodies are in the ratio 1 : 2. If the difference in the time taken to cover 50
m is 10 sec. Find the difference in their speeds.
Ans A. 5/2 m/s

B. 6/5 m/s

C. 7/2 m/s

D. 3/2 m/s

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165991
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.8
Ans A. 13 : 14

B. 15 : 9

C. 15 : 2

D. 2 : 15

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165985
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.9 The average monthly salary of a family of 4 persons is Rs. 36000.If one of the family
members earning Rs. 18000 loses his job. While another member gets an increment of Rs.
9000, What will be the new average monthly salary of the family?
Ans A. Rs. 31750

B. Rs. 33750

C. Rs. 34750

D. Rs. 32750

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165973
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.10 A sum of money amounts to Rs. 8650 after five years, and to Rs. 10,606 after seven years at
same rate of S.I. The rate of interest per annum is:
Ans A. 26.01%

B. 19.56%

C. 18.13%

D. 22.56%

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165987
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.11 Two items are sold for Rs. 1,25,000 each, one at a profit of x% and the other at a loss of x%,
resulting in an overall loss of 2.89%. Find the value of x.
Ans A. 14%

B. 15%

C. 17%

D. 16%

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165979
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.12 A solid metallic right circular cylinder of base diameter 20 cm and height 5 cm is melted
and recast into a right circular cone of height three times that of the cylinder. Find the
curved surface area of the cone.
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651010
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -1/4

Q.13 A work is done by 20 men or 50 boys in 15 days. In how many days will 40 men and 60 boys
do the same work?
Ans A. 71/18 days

B. 75/16 days

C. 72/13 days

D. 70/21 days

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165998
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.14 If the capacity of a cylinder tank is 2816 m3 and the diameter of its base is 16 m, then find
the depth of the tank.
Ans A. 12 m

B. 8 m

C. 9 m

D. 14 m

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651005
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.15 If 286 × 37 = 10582, then 1.0582 ÷ 2.86 = ?

Ans A. 0.37

B. 3.7

C. 0.0037

D. 0.037

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165968
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.16

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651003
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.17 Find the least number which when divided by 12, 18, 24 and 42 leaves 7 as remainder in
each case, but when divided by 5 leaves no remainder.
Ans A. 1030

B. 1020

C. 1015

D. 1027

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165969
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.18

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165970
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.19 A batsman scores of 93 runs in the 12th inning and thus increases his average by 5. Find his
average after 12th inning.
Ans A. 36

B. 42

C. 38

D. 48

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165971
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4
Q.20 A thief running at 10 Km/hr is chased by a policeman whose speed is 12 Km/hr.If the thief is
50 meters ahead of the policeman, then the time required for the policeman to catch the
thief will be:
Ans A. 50 sec

B. 80 sec

C. 90 sec

D. 60 sec

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165993
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4

Q.21
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651011
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.22 The salary of a professor has been reduced by 25%. In order to restore to the original salary,
the current salary must be increased by what percentage?
Ans A. 33.33%

B. 38.32%

C. 35.43%

D. 39.64%

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165982
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.23

Ans A. 1

B. 2

C. –2

D. –1

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651004
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.24 A dishonest dealer sells the goods at 15% loss on cost price but uses 20% less weight. What
is the percentage profit or loss?
Ans A. 7.25% gain

B. 6.25% gain

C. 7.25% loss

D. 6.25% loss

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165978
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.25 The speeds of three bikes are in the ratio of 8 : 9 : 12. What is the ratio between the times
taken by the bikes to cover the same distance?
Ans A. 8 : 6 : 9

B. 9 : 8 : 6

C. 12 : 9 : 8

D. 12 : 8 : 9

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165997
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -1/4

Q.26 Gopal takes double the time taken by Rahul to do the work. In how many days can Rahul
alone do the work, if they can complete the work together in 24 days?
Ans A. 32 days

B. 35 days

C. 36 days

D. 38 days

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165999
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.27 At the foot of the mountain the elevation of its summit is 45°. After ascending 50 m towards
the mountain up a slope of 30° inclination is found to be 60°. The height of the mountain is:
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651012
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.28 There is a cube of volume 252 cm3. It is to be molded into a cuboid having one edge equal
to 6 cm. The number of ways that it can be done so that the edges have different integral
values is:
Ans A. 2 ways

B. 4 ways

C. 3 ways

D. 5 ways

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651006
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4

Q.29

Ans A. 8.5 cm

B. 6.5 cm

C. 9.5 cm

D. 7.5 cm

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651013
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -1/4

Q.30 A hemisphere of lead of radius 3 cm is cast into a right circular cone of height 45 cm. The
radius of the base of the cone is:
Ans A. 1.90 cm

B. 1.20 cm

C. 1.44 cm

D. 1.09 cm

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651008
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -1/4
Q.31

Ans A. 64

B. 63

C. 72

D. 71

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651000
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.32 The average speed of a car is 150 Km/hr. The driver of the car first increases its average
speed by 40% and then decrease by 20%. What is the new average speed?
Ans A. 159 Km/hr

B. 184 Km/hr

C. 172 km/hr

D. 168 Km/hr

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165992
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.33 Find the greatest number which divides 23, 41 & 94 leaves remainder 6, 7 and 9
respectively.
Ans A. 16

B. 15

C. 17

D. 14

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165965
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.34

Ans A. Rs. 325

B. Rs. 350

C. Rs. 425

D. Rs. 400

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165980
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.35 Difference of two numbers is 1790. If 8.5% of one number is 13.5% of the other number.
Find the two numbers.
Ans A. 4652, 3256

B. 4589, 3352

C. 4733, 3125

D. 4833, 3043

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165976
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.36

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165966
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.37 A rectangular block 9 cm x 12 cm x 18 cm is cut up into an exact number of equal cubes.
Find the least possible number of cubes.
Ans A. 69

B. 78

C. 72

D. 64

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651009
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.38 A person covers 30 Km distance at a speed of 15 Km/hr,then he covers the next 51 Km at a

speed of 17 Km/hr and the last 69 Km is covered by him at a speed of 23 Km/hr. Find out his
average speed of the whole journey.
Ans A. 69/2 Km/hr

B. 71/4 Km/hr

C. 65/4 Km/hr

D. 75/4 Km/hr

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165996
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.39 Patel invested 1/3 of his capital at 6% ,1/4 at 9% and the remaining at 12%. If his annual
income is Rs. 793. Then find the capital. (using simple interest)
Ans A. Rs. 6475.86

B. Rs. 9145.92

C. Rs. 8572.97

D. Rs. 7856.45

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165988
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -1/4

Q.40 Find the compound interest on Rs. 2500 at 12% per annum for 1 year 4 months, compound
annually.
Ans A. Rs. 412

B. Rs. 456

C. Rs. 568

D. Rs. 525

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165990
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.41 If the radius of a sphere is increased by 3 cm, then its surface area increases by 264 cm2.
The radius of the sphere before the increase was:
Ans A. 4 cm

B. 5 cm

C. 6 cm

D. 2 cm

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651007
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4

Q.42 Two trains of length 160 m & 220 m respectively run at the speeds of 72 Km/hr and 99
Km/hr respectively in opposite directions on parallel tracks. Find the time which they take to
cross each other.
Ans A. 9 sec

B. 6 sec

C. 7 sec

D. 8 sec

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165995
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.43 The average weight of 54 students in a class is 41 Kg. 6 of them whose average weight is
47 Kg leave the class and other 6 students whose average weight is 65 Kg join the class.
What is the new average weight (in Kg) of the class?
Ans A. 44 Kg

B. 39 Kg

C. 43 Kg

D. 38 Kg

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165972
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.44

Ans A. 231

B. 211

C. 201

D. 221

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651001
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.45 The difference between the SI and CI received in 2 years, on a certain sum of money at 12%
per annum payable annually is Rs. 468. What is the principal.
Ans A. Rs. 35500

B. Rs. 25500

C. Rs. 29800

D. Rs. 32500

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165989
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.46 If A is 20% more than B and B is 10% less than C, then A : B : C = ?

Ans A. 50 : 54 : 52

B. 55 : 42 : 50

C. 54 : 45 : 50

D. 54 : 40 : 55

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165986
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.47 A train covers distance between two stations A and B in 3 hours. If the speed of train is
reduced to 6 Km/hr, then it travels the same distance in 5 hours. Calculate the distance
between two stations and speed of the train.
Ans A. 45 Km, 15 Km/hr

B. 40 Km, 25 Km/hr

C. 35 Km, 30 Km/hr

D. 60 Km, 20 Km/hr

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165994
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4

Q.48 Two candidates fought an election. One of them got 72% of the total votes and won by 396
votes. What is the total number of votes polled?
Ans A. 920

B. 850

C. 870

D. 900

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165981
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.49 After the division of a number successively by 3, 5 and 7, the remainders obtained are 2,3
and 4 respectively. What will be the remainder if 17 divides the same number?
Ans A. 12

B. 0

C. 8

D. 6

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165964
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.50 Find the single discount equivalent to a series discount of 15%, 20% and 25%.
Ans A. 49%

B. 52%

C. 55%

D. 43%

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 107165977
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no
improvement is needed, select 'No improvement required'.

Shilpa had ignored all the warnings and venture out alone on the day of her tragedy.
Ans A. ventured up alone on

B. ventured out alone on

C. No improvement required

D. ventures out alone on

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651023
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.2 Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word.

Tiny
Ans A. Minute

B. Vast

C. Important

D. Valuable

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651029
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.3 Complete the given proverb with the CORRECT option.

Barking dogs ________.

Ans A. seldom bite

B. must be avoided

C. are always hungry

D. always bite

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651042
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.4 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no
improvement is needed, select 'No improvement required'.

The chairs were all arranged at a distance of five feets to maintain social distancing.
Ans A. all arrange at a distance of five feets

B. all arranged at a distance of five feet

C. No improvement required

D. all arranged in a distance of five feet

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651020
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.5 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that
contains a grammatical error.

Do you know/ where I/ might have leave/ my mobile?

Ans A. my mobile?

B. Do you know

C. might have leave

D. where I

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651015
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Complaisant
Ans A. Unwilling

B. Unbelievable

C. Unlikely

D. Unruly

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651038
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.7 Select the grammatically CORRECT sentence as per the context from the given options.
Ans A. Within a couple of hours after its launch the trailer of the film was being forwarded
online and increasing the excitement around it.
B. Increasing the excitement around it being forwarded online the trailer of the film
within a couple of hours after its launch
C. Being forwarded online the trailer of the film within a couple of hours after its launch
and increasing the excitement around it.
D. Within a couple of hours being forwarded online the trailer of the film and increasing
the excitement around it after its launch the trailer of the film.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651052
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.8 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain a spelling
error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any
error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

The shopkeeper did not accept/ online payment so/ it was a minor nuesance.
Ans A. No error

B. online payment so

C. it was a minor nuesance.

D. The shopkeeper did not accept

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651046
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Synergy
Ans A. Link

B. Exchange

C. Contact

D. Discord

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651037
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.10 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that
contains a grammatical error.

We should be grateful/ for the teachers/ who laid the foundation/ for our later education.
Ans A. We should be grateful

B. who laid the foundation

C. for our later education.

D. for the teachers

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651016
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

After the last examination was over the students ______ happily.
Ans A. approved

B. jolted

C. jeered

D. cheered

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651025
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -1/4

Q.12 Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word.

Cohesive
Ans A. Uneven

B. Broken

C. Divided

D. Unified

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651033
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.13 Select the CORRECTLY punctuated sentence from the options below.
Ans A. The ancestral house which, belonged to Aditya, is now being sold by, his son Gautam.

B. The ancestral house, which belonged, to Aditya, is now being sold by his son,
Gautam.
C. The ancestral house, which belonged, to Aditya is now being sold, by his son Gautam.

D. The ancestral house, which belonged to Aditya, is now being sold by his son, Gautam.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651057
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Expert
Ans A. Excellent

B. Professional

C. Outstanding

D. Amateur

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651034
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -1/4

Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Deflect
Ans A. Attract

B. Twist

C. Turn

D. Bend

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651036
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that
contains a grammatical error.

We worked mainly/ in the zoology laboratory/ during a duration/ of our project.

Ans A. We worked mainly

B. during a duration

C. of our project.

D. in the zoology laboratory

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651017
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.17 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given IDIOM.

Crack the whip

Ans A. To go for horse riding

B. To push or urge someone to work harder

C. To break something unexpectedly

D. To look after someone carefully

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651039
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.18 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A government order to temporarily stop something, especially trading or giving information

Ans A. Embargo

B. Veto

C. Ban

D. Prohibition

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651058
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -1/4

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The shop assistant placed all the toys before the little boy and said,” Pick ______ one you like
best.”
Ans A. either

B. whichever

C. whatever

D. each

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651027
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.20 Select the CORRECTLY punctuated sentence from the options below.
Ans A. “Have you locked all the doors, carefully” Anita asked Vir.

B. “Have You locked, all the doors carefully?” Anita asked Vir.

C. “Have you, locked all the doors, carefully?” Anita asked Vir.

D. “Have you locked all the doors carefully?” Anita asked Vir.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651056
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.21 Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word.

Delay (N)
Ans A. Relief

B. Hindrance

C. Assistance

D. Support

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651031
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.22 Select the most appropriate collocation to fill in the blank.

The manager gave them a motivational talk to _____ their morale.

Ans A. increase

B. lift

C. boost

D. improve

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651050
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.23 Complete the given proverb with the CORRECT option.

Don’t cross the bridge _________.

Ans A. when there is heavy rain

B. if you don’t know how to swim

C. until you come to it

D. unless it is essential

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651043
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4

Q.24 Select the most appropriate collocation to fill in the blank.

The box was _______ damaged when it fell from the third floor.
Ans A. acutely

B. gravely

C. badly

D. desperately

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651049
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.25 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given IDIOM.

Pull the plug

Ans A. To continue assistance in cash and kind to a good cause

B. To do something that prevents an activity from continuing

C. To advise someone about financial matters

D. To support a social welfare activity with a generous donation

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651041
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.26 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

It has been a ______ since I saw a good movie or read the recent ______ of a good book.
Ans A. week; addition

B. weak; addition

C. weak; edition

D. week; edition

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651044
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.27 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Rude
Ans A. Improper

B. Wicked

C. Shocking

D. Polite

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651035
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.28 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Kishore has one pair of glasses for official wear and _____ for casual use.
Ans A. other

B. different

C. another

D. odd

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651028
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4
Q.29 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no
improvement is needed, select 'No improvement required'.

These days most peoples are aware of rain water harvesting methods.
Ans A. most people are aware

B. mostly people are aware of

C. No improvement required

D. most people are aware of

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651019
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.30 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no
improvement is needed, select 'No improvement required'.

Try listening soothing music to relax your mind and rest.

Ans A. No improvement required

B. listen soothing music to relax

C. listening to soothing music to relax

D. listening soothing music for relaxing

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651021
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.31 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

________ happened when the car came speeding on to the pavement?

Ans A. Which

B. Whose

C. What

D. Where

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651026
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.32 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain a spelling
error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any
error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

The alevation/ of the building/ is quite impressive.

Ans A. is quite impressive.

B. of the building

C. No error

D. The alevation

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651047
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.33 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that
contains a grammatical error.

Beside giving her/ a gift, Raja brought/ Mini a cake/ on her birthday.
Ans A. Beside giving her

B. a gift, Raja brought

C. on her birthday.

D. Mini a cake

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651014
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4

Q.34 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that
contains a grammatical error.

The situation was most deftly handled/ by the police/ who arrived/ inside minutes of the
accident.
Ans A. by the police

B. The situation was most deftly handled

C. who arrived

D. inside minutes of the accident.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651018
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.35 Select the most appropriate collocation to fill in the blank.

The committee said they ________ the misbehaviour of the young people.
Ans A. sturdily smash

B. toughly criticise

C. strongly condemn

D. powerfully slam

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651051
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.36 Select the CORRECTLY punctuated sentence from the options below.
Ans A. Ansari is the secretary of the student’s union.

B. Ansari, is the Secretary, of the students union!

C. Ansari is the Secretary of the Students’ Union.

D. Ansari is, the Secretary, of the students Union?

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651054
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4

Q.37 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The red hair-dryer my cousin gave me works very ______.

Ans A. successfully

B. effectively

C. actually

D. profitably

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651024
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.38 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain a spelling
error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any
error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

The spiritual writings of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa/ contain the quintessence/of the

wisdom of great thinkers.
Ans A. The spiritual writings of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa

B. contain the quintessence

C. No error

D. of the wisdom of great thinkers.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651048
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -1/4

Q.39 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given IDIOM.

Turn a deaf ear

Ans A. Criticise what another says

B. Object to an opinion

C. Complain about something

D. Ignore what someone says

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651040
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.40 Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word.

Ease (V)
Ans A. Build

B. Lessen

C. Raise

D. Drag

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651030
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.41 Select the CORRECTLY punctuated sentence from the options below.
Ans A. “Keep talking, Im listening,” Arun said, to Suraj.

B. “Keep talking, I’m listening,” Arun said to Suraj.

C. “Keep talking. I’m listening?” Arun said to Suraj.

D. “Keep talking! I’m listening,” Arun said to Suraj!

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651055
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.42 Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word.

Conferred
Ans A. Awarded

B. Withheld

C. Received

D. Granted

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651032
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.43 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no
improvement is needed, select 'No improvement required'.

There was disappointment all over when the bowler dropped the easy catch.
Ans A. No improvement required

B. There have been disappointment all over

C. There were disappointment all over

D. There was disappointment over all

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651022
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -1/4
Q.44 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain a spelling
error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any
error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

The speacious rooms/ in this apartment/ are well-furnished.

Ans A. in this apartment

B. The speacious rooms

C. No error

D. are well-furnished.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651045
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.45 Select the grammatically CORRECT sentence as per the context from the given options.
Ans A. Still imports them in large quantities and India is unable to grow enough pulses to
meet its domestic demand
B. India is unable to grow enough pulses to meet its domestic demand and still imports
them in large quantities.
C. To meet its domestic demand India is unable to grow enough pulses and still imports
them in large quantities.
D. To meet its domestic demand and India is unable to grow enough pulses in large
quantities so still imports them.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651053
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Protein is one of the most important substances in your body. Your muscles, hair, eyes,
organs, and many hormones and enzymes are primarily made out of protein. It also helps to
repair and maintain your body tissues.
However, not all protein is created equal, and there are things you can do to help your body
use it more efficiently.
Protein is a very large nutrient that’s made up of smaller substances called amino acids.
There are 20 amino acids, but your body can only make 11 of them. The other nine are
called essential amino acids, and you can only get them through your diet.
High-quality protein sources, such as meat, fish, eggs, and dairy products, contain all nine of
the essential amino acids. These are also called whole proteins or complete proteins.
Other protein sources, such as nuts, beans, and seeds, only contain some essential amino
acids. However, you can combine some of these protein sources, such as rice and beans, to
create a complete protein that contains all nine essential amino acids.
Not sure how much protein you need per day? Here’s how you calculate how much you really
need.
Protein digestion begins when you first start chewing. There are two enzymes in your saliva
called amylase and lipase. They mostly break down carbohydrates and fats.
Once a protein source reaches your stomach, hydrochloric acid and enzymes called proteases
break it down into smaller chains of amino acids. Amino acids are joined together by
peptides, which are broken by proteases.
From your stomach, these smaller chains of amino acids move into your small intestine. As
this happens, your pancreas releases enzymes and a bicarbonate buffer that reduces the
acidity of digested food.
This reduction allows more enzymes to work on further breaking down amino acid chains into
individual amino acids.

SubQuestion No : 46
Q.46 According to the passage, how many amino acids does the body make?
Ans A. Twenty

B. Two

C. Nine

D. Eleven

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651061
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Protein is one of the most important substances in your body. Your muscles, hair, eyes,
organs, and many hormones and enzymes are primarily made out of protein. It also helps to
repair and maintain your body tissues.
However, not all protein is created equal, and there are things you can do to help your body
use it more efficiently.
Protein is a very large nutrient that’s made up of smaller substances called amino acids.
There are 20 amino acids, but your body can only make 11 of them. The other nine are
called essential amino acids, and you can only get them through your diet.
High-quality protein sources, such as meat, fish, eggs, and dairy products, contain all nine of
the essential amino acids. These are also called whole proteins or complete proteins.
Other protein sources, such as nuts, beans, and seeds, only contain some essential amino
acids. However, you can combine some of these protein sources, such as rice and beans, to
create a complete protein that contains all nine essential amino acids.
Not sure how much protein you need per day? Here’s how you calculate how much you really
need.
Protein digestion begins when you first start chewing. There are two enzymes in your saliva
called amylase and lipase. They mostly break down carbohydrates and fats.
Once a protein source reaches your stomach, hydrochloric acid and enzymes called proteases
break it down into smaller chains of amino acids. Amino acids are joined together by
peptides, which are broken by proteases.
From your stomach, these smaller chains of amino acids move into your small intestine. As
this happens, your pancreas releases enzymes and a bicarbonate buffer that reduces the
acidity of digested food.
This reduction allows more enzymes to work on further breaking down amino acid chains into
individual amino acids.

SubQuestion No : 47
Q.47 Which of the following are ‘whole’ proteins according to the passage?
Ans A. dairy products, rice, beans, nuts, and seeds

B. wheat, beans nuts, beans and seeds

C. meat, fish, eggs, and dairy products

D. rice, beans nuts, beans and fruits

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651063
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Protein is one of the most important substances in your body. Your muscles, hair, eyes,
organs, and many hormones and enzymes are primarily made out of protein. It also helps to
repair and maintain your body tissues.
However, not all protein is created equal, and there are things you can do to help your body
use it more efficiently.
Protein is a very large nutrient that’s made up of smaller substances called amino acids.
There are 20 amino acids, but your body can only make 11 of them. The other nine are
called essential amino acids, and you can only get them through your diet.
High-quality protein sources, such as meat, fish, eggs, and dairy products, contain all nine of
the essential amino acids. These are also called whole proteins or complete proteins.
Other protein sources, such as nuts, beans, and seeds, only contain some essential amino
acids. However, you can combine some of these protein sources, such as rice and beans, to
create a complete protein that contains all nine essential amino acids.
Not sure how much protein you need per day? Here’s how you calculate how much you really
need.
Protein digestion begins when you first start chewing. There are two enzymes in your saliva
called amylase and lipase. They mostly break down carbohydrates and fats.
Once a protein source reaches your stomach, hydrochloric acid and enzymes called proteases
break it down into smaller chains of amino acids. Amino acids are joined together by
peptides, which are broken by proteases.
From your stomach, these smaller chains of amino acids move into your small intestine. As
this happens, your pancreas releases enzymes and a bicarbonate buffer that reduces the
acidity of digested food.
This reduction allows more enzymes to work on further breaking down amino acid chains into
individual amino acids.

SubQuestion No : 48
Q.48 The most appropriate title for this passage is:
Ans A. Which foods contain proteins?

B. Protein sources and their digestion

C. Digestion of Enzymes

D. Who should we eat protein foods?

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651060
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Protein is one of the most important substances in your body. Your muscles, hair, eyes,
organs, and many hormones and enzymes are primarily made out of protein. It also helps to
repair and maintain your body tissues.
However, not all protein is created equal, and there are things you can do to help your body
use it more efficiently.
Protein is a very large nutrient that’s made up of smaller substances called amino acids.
There are 20 amino acids, but your body can only make 11 of them. The other nine are
called essential amino acids, and you can only get them through your diet.
High-quality protein sources, such as meat, fish, eggs, and dairy products, contain all nine of
the essential amino acids. These are also called whole proteins or complete proteins.
Other protein sources, such as nuts, beans, and seeds, only contain some essential amino
acids. However, you can combine some of these protein sources, such as rice and beans, to
create a complete protein that contains all nine essential amino acids.
Not sure how much protein you need per day? Here’s how you calculate how much you really
need.
Protein digestion begins when you first start chewing. There are two enzymes in your saliva
called amylase and lipase. They mostly break down carbohydrates and fats.
Once a protein source reaches your stomach, hydrochloric acid and enzymes called proteases
break it down into smaller chains of amino acids. Amino acids are joined together by
peptides, which are broken by proteases.
From your stomach, these smaller chains of amino acids move into your small intestine. As
this happens, your pancreas releases enzymes and a bicarbonate buffer that reduces the
acidity of digested food.
This reduction allows more enzymes to work on further breaking down amino acid chains into
individual amino acids.

SubQuestion No : 49
Q.49 Which word most closely matches the meaning of “buffer” in the passage?
Ans A. Barrier

B. Shield

C. Storage area

D. Memory

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651062
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Protein is one of the most important substances in your body. Your muscles, hair, eyes,
organs, and many hormones and enzymes are primarily made out of protein. It also helps to
repair and maintain your body tissues.
However, not all protein is created equal, and there are things you can do to help your body
use it more efficiently.
Protein is a very large nutrient that’s made up of smaller substances called amino acids.
There are 20 amino acids, but your body can only make 11 of them. The other nine are
called essential amino acids, and you can only get them through your diet.
High-quality protein sources, such as meat, fish, eggs, and dairy products, contain all nine of
the essential amino acids. These are also called whole proteins or complete proteins.
Other protein sources, such as nuts, beans, and seeds, only contain some essential amino
acids. However, you can combine some of these protein sources, such as rice and beans, to
create a complete protein that contains all nine essential amino acids.
Not sure how much protein you need per day? Here’s how you calculate how much you really
need.
Protein digestion begins when you first start chewing. There are two enzymes in your saliva
called amylase and lipase. They mostly break down carbohydrates and fats.
Once a protein source reaches your stomach, hydrochloric acid and enzymes called proteases
break it down into smaller chains of amino acids. Amino acids are joined together by
peptides, which are broken by proteases.
From your stomach, these smaller chains of amino acids move into your small intestine. As
this happens, your pancreas releases enzymes and a bicarbonate buffer that reduces the
acidity of digested food.
This reduction allows more enzymes to work on further breaking down amino acid chains into
individual amino acids.

SubQuestion No : 50
Q.50 The tone of this passage is:
Ans A. provocative

B. conciliatory

C. advisory

D. ironical

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 1071651064
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Section : English Mock Typing Test

Q Dating back some 4300 years, written poetry is the most ancient record of
. human literature. The roots of poetry are likely to reach even much further Question Type : TYPING TEST
1 into the past, to a time when literacy had not yet evolved, and poems were Question ID : 1071651065
passed down in oral traditions. The fact that poetry has accompanied
Status : Answered
humankind over such a long period suggests a strong grip on human
cognition and emotion. Poetry therapy, a form of expressive arts therapy, Typing Type : Unrestricted
involves the therapeutic use of poems, narratives, and other spoken or Correct Words : 148.0
written media to promote well-being and healing. Therapists may use
existing literature as part of treatment or encourage those in therapy to Incorrect Words : 3.0
produce their own literary works to express deep-seated emotions. In Gross WPM : 30.2
either case, they offer a safe, non-judgmental atmosphere in which people
in therapy are able to explore their written expressions. Research shows Net WPM : 29.6
the method is frequently a beneficial part of the treatment process. Error Count : 0
T

Dating back some

Backspace Count : 74
y
Time Taken : 300.0
p
e Accuracy : 98.01
d

4300 years, written

Skipped Words : 0.0
T
e
x
t
:
poetry is the most
ancient record of
human literature. The
roots of poetry are
likely to reach even
much further into the
past, to a time when
literacy had not yet
evolved, and poems
were passed down in
oral tradition. The fact
that poetry has
accompanied
humankind over such a
long period suggests a
strong grip on human
cognition and emotion.
Poetry therapy, a form
of expressive arts
therapy, involves the
therapeutic use of
peoms, narratives, and
other spoken or
writtern media to
promote well-being and
healing. Therapists
may use existing
literature as part of
treatment or
encourage those in
therapy to produce
their own literary works
to express deep-seated
 emotions. In either
case, they offer a safe,
non-judgmental
atmosphere in which
people in therapy are
able to explore their
written expressions.
Research shows the
method is frequently a
beneficial part of the
treatment process.
Section : English Typing Test
Q Health benefits of gardening, gardening is not just about making your
. house look good. Many scientific researches suggest that caring for Question Type : TYPING TEST
1 plants can also do wonders for your own well-being. The physical Question ID : 1071651066
exercise can contribute to a healthy weight and blood pressure levels, and
Status : Answered
just interacting with flora can improve your mood and mental health. So, it
can be rightly said that besides providing nutritious veggies and fruits for Typing Type : Unrestricted
your dinner table, gardening also offers a variety of health benefits. Correct Words : 349.0
Vitamin D increases your calcium levels, which benefits your bones and
immune system. According to a study, exposure to sunlight helps older Incorrect Words : 1.0
adults achieve adequate serum vitamin D levels. So, outdoor activities, Gross WPM : 35.0
like gardening are a perfect way to get your sunshine. But, do not forget
the sunscreen to protect your skin, and sunglasses for your eyes. As a Net WPM : 34.9
result, it helps in boosting your strength, stamina, and flexibility. After Error Count : 0
retirement, many people struggle with fewer socialization opportunities
Backspace Count : 192
and community gardens can be a fun way to engage with others.
Community gardens are referred to as open spaces where participants Time Taken : 600.0
join together in the maintenance and products of the garden, including Accuracy : 99.71
healthful and affordable fresh fruits and vegetables. Gardening burns a lot
of calories. Being a moderate-intensity exercise, gardening allows you to Skipped Words : 0.0
burn about three hundred thirty calories in just one hour of light gardening
and yard work. Just thirty minutes of moderate-level physical activity in a
week can prevent and control high blood pressure. Besides the physical
exercise, you will get access to a vegetable garden that promotes a better
diet by supplying fresh, healthy produce. The Dietary Guidelines
recommend eating at least two cups of vegetables and one and a half
cups of fruits per day. This is essential to get necessary nutrients and
reduce risk of chronic disease. Do let your kids participate in gardening.
Gardening can relieve stress, depression and anxiety symptoms. In fact,
some hospitals even use planting and flower arranging as a type of
rehabilitation for people recovering from injuries, strokes, surgeries, and
other medical conditions. So, get started with your gardening skills today.
T
y
p
e
d
Health benefits of
T
e
x
t
gardening, gardening is
:
not just about making
your house look good.
Many scientific
researches suggest
that caring for plants
can also do wonders
for your own well-
being. The physical
exercise can contribute
to a healthy weight and
blood pressure levels,
and just interacting
with flora can improve
your mood and mental
health. So, it can be
rightly said that
besides providing
nutritious veggies and
fruits for your dinner
table, gardening also
offers a variety of
health benefits.
Vitamin D increases
your calcium levels,
which benefits your
bones and immune
system. According to a
study, exposure to
sunlight helps older
adults achieve
adequate serum
vitamin D levels. So,
outdoor activities, like
gardening are a perfect
way to get your
sunshine. But, do not
forget the sunscreen to
protect your skin, and
sunglasses for your
eyes. As a result, it
helps in boosting your
strength, stamina, and
flexibility. After
retirement, many
people struggle with
fewer socialization
opportunities and
community gardens
can be a fun way to
engage with others.
Community gardens
are referred to as open
spaces where
participants join
together in the
maintenance and
products of the garden,
including healthful and
affordable fresh fruits
and vegetables.
Gardening burns a lot
of calories. Being a
moderate-intensity
exercise, gardening
allows you to burn
about three hundred
thirty calories in just
one hour of light
gardening and yard
work. Just thirty
minutes of moderate-
level physical activity in
a weel can prevent and
control high blood
pressure. Besides the
physical exercise, you
will get access to a
vegetable garden that
promotes a better diet
by supplying fresh,
healthy produce. The
Dietary Guidelines
recommend eating at
least two cups of
vegetables and one
and a half cups of
fruits per day. This is
essential to get
necessary nutrients
and reduce risk of
chronic disease. Do let
your kids participate in
gardening. Gardening
can relieve stress,
depression and anxiety
symptoms. In fact,
some hospitals even
use planting and flower
arranging as a type of
rehabilitation for
people recovering from
injuries, strokes,
surgeries, and other
medical conditions. So,
get started with your
gardening skills today.