Friday 3rd July

Day 9
Question 1:
𝑥 𝑛 −𝑦 𝑛
Let x, y be reals such that is an integer for
𝑥−𝑦
some four consecutive positive integer n. Prove that
𝑥 𝑛 −𝑦 𝑛
is integer for all positive integer n.
𝑥−𝑦
Solution 1:
𝑥 𝑛 −𝑦 𝑛
Let tn = . Then,
𝑥−𝑦

tn+2 + btn+1 + ctn = 0

for all n ≥ 0, b = –(x + y) and c = xy. In particular,
we have t0 = 0 and t1 = 1.
It is sufficient to show that b, c ∈ ℤ because the rest
follows by induction.
Now, suppose tn ∈ ℤ for n = m, m+1, m+2 and m+3.
cn = (xy)n = tn+12 – tntn+2 ∈ ℤ when n = m, m+1.
Therefore, cm and cm+1 ∈ ℤ. Hence, c is rational.
Since cm ∈ ℤ and m>0, therefore c ∈ ℤ.
Now, let us focus on b.
𝑡𝑚 𝑡𝑚+3 −𝑡𝑚+1 𝑡𝑚+2
b=
𝑐𝑚

So, b is rational.
Claim: There exists a polynomial fn ∈ ℤ[x] such that
fn has leading coefficient 1 or (–1), deg(fn) = n – 1
and fn(b) = tn.
Proof of claim:
t1 = 1. So, we have f1(x) ≡ 1.
t2 = x + y. So, we have f2(x) = –x.
t3 = x2 + xy + y2 = (x + y)2 – xy. So, we have
f3(x)=x2 – c.
We approach by induction:
Assume, for all n =1, 2, …, k, our claim holds.
So, tk+1 = (–b)tk + (–c)tk-1 = –bfk(b) – cfk-1(b).
So, let us select fk+1(x) = –xfk(x) –cfk-1(x).
fk+1 ∈ ℤ[x] with degree = deg(fk) + 1 = k and
fk+1(b)=tk+1.
Hence, by induction, our claim is true.
So, finally, for the polynomial g(x) = fm(x) – tm, we
see that b is a rational root.
Furthermore, g(x) ∈ ℤ[x] and has leading coefficient
1 or (–1). Therefore, by rational root theorem, we
conclude that b ∈ ℤ.
This completes the proof.
Question 2:
Let ℝ+ be the set of all positive reals. Find all
functions f: ℝ+→ ℝ+ such that
f(x)2 ≥ f(x + y) (f(x) + y)
holds for all x, y ∈ ℝ+.
Solution 2:
The given inequality can be rewritten in the form
f(x) 𝑦
f(x)– f(x + y) ≥ . . . . . . . (∗)
f(x) + 𝑦
Note that f(x) > f(x + y) for all x, y > 0
⇒ f is strictly decreasing.
1
Claim: f(x) – f(x + 1) ≥
2
Proof of Claim:
Fix x > 0. There exists n ∈ ℕ such that n.f(x+1) ≥ 1

𝑘 1
Replace (x, y) by (x + , ) where k ∈ {0, 1, …, n – 1}
𝑛 𝑛
in (*):
𝑘 1
𝑘 𝑘+1 f (x + )𝑛 1
f (x + ) – f (x + )≥ 𝑛 ≥
𝑛 𝑛 𝑘 1 2𝑛
f (x + ) +
𝑛 𝑛
where the last inequality follows from the fact that
𝑘
n.f(x+ ) ≥ n.f(x+1) ≥ 1.
𝑛
Adding these inequalities, we get
1
f(x) – f(x+1) ≥
2
So, our claim is true.
Now, pick a natural number m such that m ≥ 2f(x).
f(x) – f(x+m)
𝑚−1

= ∑ [f(𝑥 + 𝑖 ) − f(𝑥 + 𝑖 + 1)]

𝑖=0
𝑚
≥ ≥ f(𝑥)
2
Therefore, f(x+m) ≤ 0 which contradicts the fact
that f is always positive.
So, unfortunately, no such function exists.
Question 3:
Let a, b, c > 0 such that abc = 1. Prove that
(a + b)a+b + (b + c)b+c + (c + a)c+a ≥ 4(a + b + c)
Solution 3:
Let f(x) = xx, x>0.
By Taylor’s Theorem, we have, for all x>0, there
exists qx lying between x and 2 such that
1 1
xx = f(2) + f ’(2) (x – 2) + f ’’(qx) (x – 2)2
1! 2!
1
f ’(x)=xx(1+𝑙𝑛(x)) and f ’’(x)=xx( + (1+𝑙𝑛(x))2)>0
x
1
Thus, xx ≥ f(2)+ f ’(2)(x–2)= 4+4(1+𝑙𝑛(2))(x – 2)
1!
The rest is pretty straightforward.
(a + b)a+b + (b + c)b+c + (c + a)c+a
≥ ∑𝑐𝑦𝑐 (4 + 4(1 + 𝑙𝑛(2))(a + b – 2))
= 4(a + b + c) + (4 + 8𝑙𝑛(2)) ∑𝑐𝑦𝑐(a − 1)
= 4(a + b + c) + (4 + 8𝑙𝑛(2))(a + b + c − 3)
≥ 4(a + b + c)
3
as a + b + c ≥ 3 √abc = 3
Question 4:
Let a, b, c, d, e and f be positive integers such that
S = a+b+c+d+e+f divides both abc+def and
ab+bc+ca – de – ef – fd. Show that S is composite.
Solution 4:
Consider P(x) = (x+a)(x+b)(x+c) – (x–d)(x–e)(x–f)
= Sx2 + Qx + R
where Q = ab + bc + ca – de – ef – fd
and R = abc + def
So, from the given conditions, we conclude that
S divides P(x) for all integers x.
Assume S is prime.
S | P(d) = (d+a)(d+b)(d+c)
⇒ S divides at least one among d+a, d+b and d+c
But S is larger than each of them (⇒⇐)

Hence proved.
Question 5:
Find all functions f : ℝ+ → ℝ such that
x
f(x) – f(x + y) = f ( ) f(x + y)
y
holds for all x, y > 0.
Solution 5:
Let’s look at a different problem:
Suppose g : ℝ+ → ℝ such that
g(x + y) = g(x) + g(y)
and
g(xy) = g(x).g(y)
What can we conclude about g?
From the first condition, we conclude that
g(x)=g(1)x for all x ∈ ℚ+. The second condition
implies g(1) = 0 or 1.
If g(1) = 0, then g(x) ≡ 0. So, assume g(1) = 1.
For x>0, g(x) = g(√x)2 ≥ 0.
So, g has a lower bound.
Pick any a ∈ [0, 1]
1 = g(1) = g(a) + g(1 – a) ≥ g(a) ≥ 0
So, g is bounded in [0, 1].
Now, pick any x ∈ ℝ+. Let N ∈ ℕ such that Nx > 1.
Consider the interval In = (nx – 1, nx) for n≥ N.
Let xn be a rational in this interval.
g(x – y) =g(x) – g(y) for all x>y. Also, nx – xn ∈ [0, 1].
|g(nx – xn)|
= |g(nx) – xn|
= |ng(x) – xn|
= |n(g(x) – x) + (nx – xn)| ≥ n|g(x) – x| – |nx – xn|
≥ n|g(x) – x| – 1
If g(x) ≠ x, then {g(nx – xn)}n≥N is unbounded which
contradicts the fact that g is bounded in [0, 1]
Hence, g(x) = x for all x>0.
Let P(x, y) denotes the assertion
x
f(x) – f(x + y) = f ( ) f(x + y)
y
First, suppose, there exists a>0 such that f(a)=0.
Then for all b<0, P(b, a – b) implies
b
f(b)– f(a) = f ( ) f(a)
a−b
⇒ f(b) = 0
So, f(a) = 0 ⇒ f(b) = 0 for all b < a . . . . . . . . . . (*)
Now, P(a, 1) implies:
f(a) – f(a + 1) = f(a) f(a + 1)
⇒ f(a + 1) = 0
This, in turn, implies, f(a + 2) = 0. In general, we
obtain, f(a + n) = 0 for all n ∈ ℕ.
Hence, by (*), we conclude f(x) = 0 for all x < a+n
for all n ∈ ℕ. Hence, f(x) ≡ 0.
So, we assume f(x) is non-zero for all x > 0.
Claim: f(1) = 1.
Proof of claim:
P(x, 1): f(x) – f(x + 1) = f(x) f(x + 1)
1
Define g(x) =
f(x)

We have g(x + 1) – g(x) = 1

Let g(1) = c
Therefore, g(2) =1 + c, g(3) = 2 + c, …
In general, g(n) = c + (n – 1) for all n ∈ ℕ.
1
So, f(n) =
c + (n – 1)

P(4, 2):
f(4) – f(6) = f(2)f(6)
1 1 1 1
⇒ − =
c+3 c+5 c+1c+5
2 1
⇒ = ⇒ 2c + 2 = c + 3
(c + 5)(c+3) (c + 1)(c + 5)

Therefore, g(1) = c = 1 ⇒ f(1) = 1

P(x, x) : f(x) – f(2x) = f(1).f(2x) ⇒ f(x) = 2f(2x)
P(x, y) and P(y, x):
x
f(x) = [1 + f ( )] f(x + y)
y
y
f(y) = [1 + f ( )] f(x + y)
x
Therefore,
x
[1 + f (
f(x) y)]
=
f(y) [1 + f (y)]
x
So,
x 2x 1 x
1+ f(y) f ( x) f(2x) 1+ f( y ) 1+2f(y)
y = = = 𝑦 = 𝑦
2+ 2f(x) 2f(y) f(y) 1+ f(2x) 1+ 2f( x )
x y
Let f ( ) = a and f ( ) = b.
y x

So,
1
1+𝑎 1 + a
= 2 ⇒ ab = 1
2 + 2b 1 + 2b
x y
Therefore, f ( ) f ( ) = 1
y x
x
f(x) [1+ f( )] 1+a x
y
Hence, = y = 1 = a = f( )
f(y) [1+ f( )] 1+ y
x a

We conclude that f is multiplicative.

We have
x
f(x) – f(x + y) = f ( ) f(x + y)
y
⇒ f(x)f(y) = f(y)f(x + y) + f(x)f(x + y)
⇒ f(x)f(y) = (f(y) + f(x))f(x + y)
Therefore,
1 1 1
+ =
(
f x ) (
f y ) f(x + y)
Finally, we have
g(x+y) = g(x) + g(y) and g(xy) = g(x) g(y). Also, g
is non-zero everywhere.
Hence, g(x) = x
1
So, f(x) = .
x
We verify that this is indeed a solution.
So, the two solutions are
1
f(x) ≡ 0 and f(x) =
x