Perguntas teste: massa e centragem e performance

1. Given: dry operating mass= 29 800kg, maximum take-off mass= 52 400kg, maximum zero-fuel
mass= 43 100kg, maximum landing mass= 46 700 kg, trip fuel= 4 000kg, fuel quantity at brakes
release= 8 000kg. The maximum traffic load is: 12 900kg.
2. The loaded center of gravity (cg) of an aeroplane is 713 mm aft of datum. The mean aerodynamic
chord lies between station 524 mm aft and 1706 mm aft. The cg expressed as % mac (mean
aerodynamic chord) is: 16%.
3. The take-off mass if an aeroplane is 117 000kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 000kg and fuel of
46 000kg. What is the dry operating mass? :53 000kg.
4. A location in the aircraft which is identified by a number designating its distance from the datum is
known as: Station.
5. The mass if an aircraft is 1950kg. If 450kg is added to a cargo hold 1,75 meters from the loaded center
of gravity (cg). The loaded cg will move: 33cm.
6. The Dry operating mass includes crew and crew baggage, catering, removable passenger service
equipment, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
7. If 390 Ibs of cargo are moved from compartment B (aft) to compartment A (forward), what is the
station number of the new center of gravity (cg). Given: gross mass 116 500 Ibs, present cg station
435.0, compartment A station 285.5, compartment B station 792.5: 433.3.
8. The center of gravity of a body is that point: through which the sum of the forces of all masses of
the body is considered to act.
9. the stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a: high gross mass and
forward center of gravity.
10. with the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected?: a decrease
in range.
11. the maximum load per running meter of an aircraft is 350 kg/m. the width of the floor area is 2 metres.
The floor strength limitation is 300kg per square metre. Which one of the following crates (length x
width x height) can be loaded directly on the floor?: a load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions
1.2m x 1.2m x 1.2m.
12. given the following: maximum structural take-off mass 48 000kg; maximum structural landing mass:
44 000kg; maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000kg; taxi fuel: 600kg; contingency fuel: 900kg; alternate
fuel: 800kg; final reserve fuel: 1 100kg; trip fuel: 9 000kg. the actual TOM can never be higher than:
47 8000kg.
13. the maximum zero-fuel mass: 1- is a regulatory limitation 2- is calculated for a maximum load factor
of +3.5g 3- is based on the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root 4- is defined in the
assumption that fuel Is consumed from the outer wings tank first 5- is defined on the assumption that
fuel is consumed from the centre wing tank first 6- can be increased by stiffening the wing the
combination of correct statements is: 1, 3, 5.
14. if nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how ill this movement affect the location of the centre
of gravity (cg) on the aircraft? it will cause the cg to move aft.
15. at the flight preparation stage, the following paraments in particular are available for determining the
mass of the aircraft: 1- dry operating mass 2- operating mass which statement is correct: the dry
operating mass includes fixed equipment needed to carry out a specific flight.
16. which of the following corresponds to zero fuel mass?: the take-off mass of an aeroplane minus all
usable fuel.
17. given that: maximum structural take-off mass: 146 000kg; maximum structural landing mass:
93 900kg, maximum zero fuel mass: 86 300kg; trip fuel: 27 000kg; taxi fuel: 1 000kg; contingency
fuel: 1350kg-, alternate fuel 2650kg; final reserve fuel: 3000kg, determine the actual take-off mass:
120 300kg.
18. on an aeroplane without central fuel tank, the maximum zero fuel mass is related to: the bending
moment at the wing root.
19. given that: maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000kg; maximum structural landing mass: 56
000kg, maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000kg; trip fuel: 18 000kg; taxi fuel: 800kg; contingency fuel:
900kg-, alternate fuel 700kg; final reserve fuel: 2000kg, determine the actual take-off mass: 69 600kg.
20. the centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the: longitudinal axis.
21. in mass and balance calculations which of the following describes the datum?: it is the point on the
aircraft designated by the manufacturer from which all centre of gravity measurements and
calculations are made.
22. an aircraft has its centre of gravity located 7 metres from the datum line and it has a weight of 49000N.
the moment about the datum is: 343 000Nm.
23. which one of the following is correct?: Arm = moment / force.
24. given: total mass 2900kg centre of gravity (cg) location station: 115 Aft cg limit station: 116 the
maximum mass that can be added at station 130 is: 207kg.
25. given: total mass: 7500kg, centre of gravity (cg) location station: 80,5, Aft cg limit station: 79,5. How
much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at station 150 to the forward cargo
compartment at station 30 in order to move the cg location to the aft limit?: 62,5kg.
26. a jet aeroplane, with the geometrical characteristics shown in the appendix, has a take-off weight (w)
of 460 000N and a centre of gravity (point G on annex) located at 15.40 m from the zero-reference
point. At the last moment the station manager has 12 000N of freight added in the forward
compartment at 10 m from the zero-reference point. The final location of the centre of gravity,
calculated in percentage of mean aerodynamic chord AB (from point A), is equal to: 27,5%.
27. which is true of the aeroplane empty mass?: it is a component of dry operating mass.
28. the total mass of an aeroplane is 9000kg. the centre of gravity (cg) position is at 2.0m from the datum
line. The aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line. What mass of cargo must be shifted from the
front cargo hold (at 0.8m from the datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8m), to move the cg to the aft limit?:
300kg.
29. assume: aircraft actual mass: 4750kg centre of gravity at station: 115.8. what will be the new position
of the centre of gravity if 100kg is moved from the station 30 to station 120?: station 117.69.
30. an aeroplane with a two-wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the ground with a single nose
wheel load of 500kg and a single main wheel load of 6000kg. the distance between the nose wheels
and the main wheels is 10 meters. How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels?: 40cm.
31. considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane’s maximum range),
the traffic load is normally limited by: the maximum take-off mass.
32. The zero-fuel mass of an aeroplane is always: the take-off mass minus the mass of take-off fuel.
33. given: maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900kg, maximum structural landing mass= 93 800kg,
maximum zero fuel mass= 86 400kg, trip fuel= 27 500kg, block fuel= 35 500kg, engine starting and
taxi fuel = 1000kg. the maximum take-off mass is equal to: 120 900 kg.
34. given: aeroplane mass= 36 000kg centre of gravity (cg) is located at station 17m what is the effect on
cg location if you move 20 passengers (total mass= 1600kg) from station 16 to station 23?: it moves
aft by 0.31m.
35. in mass and balance calculations the “index” is: is a figure without unit of measurements which
represents a moment.
36. loads must be adequately secured in order to: avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement
and aircraft damage.
37. Traffic load is the: zero fuel mass minus dry operating mass.
38. given the following information, calculate the loaded centre of gravity (cg). Details at reference: 56.53
cm aft datum

39. given are the following information at take-off. Details at reference, given that the flight time is 2
hours and the estimated fuel flow will be 1050 litres per hour and the average oil consumption will be
2.25 litres per hour. The specific density of fuel is 0,79 and the specific density of oil is 0.96. calculate
the lading centre of gravity: 61.28 cm aft of datum.
40. given that the load total mass of an aeroplane is 112 000kg with a centre of gravity position at 22.62m
aft of the datum. The centre of gravity limits are between 18m and 22m. how much mass must be
removed from the rear hold (30m aft of the datum) to move the centre of gravity to the middle of the
limits: 29 344kg.
41. What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane?: the location of the centre of gravity
with respect to the neutral point.
42. Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity
from the forward to the aft limit will cause: increased cruise range.
43. while making mass and balance calculation for a particular aircraft, the term “basic empty mass”
applies to the sum of airframe, engine(s), fixed ballast plus: unusable fuel and full operating fluids.
44. the term “maximum zero fuel mass” consist of: the maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane
with no usable fuel.
45. The actual “zero fuel mass” is equal to the: dry operating mass plus the traffic load.
46. The actual “take-off mass” is equivalent to: dry operating mass plus take-off and the traffic load.
47. Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) with following data: distance
datum – centre of gravity: 12.53m distance datum- leading edge: 9.63m Length of Mac: 8m.: 36.3%
MAC.
48. With respect to aeroplane loading in the planning phase, which of the following statements is always
correct? LM= landing mass TOM = take-off Mass MTOM = Maximum take-off Mass ZFM = zero
fuel mass MZFM = maximum zero fuel mass DOM = ray operating mass : LM = TOM – Trip Fuel.
49. Given an aeroplane with: maximum structural mass: 125000kg, maximum zero fuel mass: 108500kg,
maximum structural take-off mass: 155000kg, dry operating mass: 82000kg, Scheduled trip fuel is
17000kg and the reserve fuel is 5000kg. assuming performance limitations are not restricting the
maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively: 130500kg and
26500kg.
50. for the purpose of completing the mass and balance documentation, the traffic load is considered to
be equal to the take-off mass: less the operating mass.
51. for the purpose of completing the mass and balance documentation, the operating mass is considered
to be Dry operating mass plus: take-off fuel mass.
52. When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty mass is defined as the sum of the:
standard empty mass plus specific equipment mass plus trapped fluids plus unusable fuel mass.
53. for the purpose of completing the mass and balance documentation, the dry operating mass is defined
as: the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel
and traffic load.
54. an aeroplane’s weighing schedule indicates that the empety mass is 57329+0kg. the nominal dry
operating mass is 60120kg and the maximum zero fuel mass is given as 72100kg. which of the
following is correct statement in relation to this aeroplane?: operational items have a mass of 2800kg
and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane is 11980kg.
55. an aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance limited take-off mass is 89200kg.
certificated maximum masses are as follows: Ramp (taxi) mass- 89930kg, Maximum take-off mass-
89430kg, Maximum Landing mass- 71520kg, Actual zero fuel mass- 62050kg, Fuel on board at ramp:
Taxi fuel- 600kg, Trip fuel- 17830kg, Contingency, final reserve and alternate- 9030kg. If the dry
operating mass is 40970kg the traffic load that can be carried on this flight is: 21080kg.
56. The empty mass of an aeroplane, as given in the weighing schedule, is 61300kg. the operational items
(including crew) is given as a mass of 2300kg. if the take-off mass is 132000kg (including a useable
fuel quantity of 43800kg) the useful load is: 68400kg.
57. the following data applies to an aeroplane which is about to take-off: certified maximum take-off
mass- 141500kg, performance limited take-off mass- 137300kg, dry operating mass- 58400kg, crew
and crew hand baggage mass- 640kg, crew baggage in hold- 110kg, fuel on boar- 60700kg, from this
data calculate the mass of the useful load: 78900kg.
58. a revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane’s structural limits:
maximum ramp mass: 69 900kg, maximum take-off mass: 69 300kg, maximum landing mass:
58 900kg, maximum zero fuel mass: 52 740kg. The performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg
and the performance limited lading mass is 55 470kg. dry operating mass: 34 900kg. trip fuel: 6 200kg.
taxi fuel: 250kg. contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300kg. alternate fuel: 1 100kg. the maximum
traffic load that can be carried is: 17 840kg.
59. A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane’s structural limits: -
Maximum Ramp mass: 69 900kg; - maximum take-off mass: 69 300kg. Maximum lading mass:
58 900kg, maximum zero fuel mass: 52 740kg, take-off and landing mass are not performance limited.
Dry operating mass: 34 930kg, trip fuel: 11 500kg, taxi fuel: 250kg, contingency & final reserve fuel:
1 450kg, alternate fuel: 1 350kg, the maximum traffic load than can be carried is: 17 810kg.
60. A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane’s structural limits: -
Maximum Ramp mass: 69 900kg; - maximum take-off mass: 69 300kg. Maximum lading mass:
58 900kg, maximum zero fuel mass: 52 740kg, take-off and landing mass are not performance limited.
Dry operating mass: 34 900kg, trip fuel: 11 800kg, taxi fuel: 500kg, contingency & final reserve fuel:
1 600kg, alternate fuel: 1 900kg, the maximum traffic load than can be carried is: 17 840kg.
61. At reference or see loading manual MRJT 1 figure 4.14. The medium range twin jet transport is
scheduled to operate from a departure airfield where conditions limit the take-off mass to 65050kg.
 the destination airfield has a performance limited lading mass of 54500kg. The dry operating mass is
34900kg. Loading data is as follows- Taxi fuel 350kg Trip fuel 9250kg, contingency and final reserve
fuel 1100kg, alternate fuel 1000kg, traffic load 18600kg, check the load and ensure that the flight may
be operated without exceeding any of the aeroplane limits. Choose, from those given below, the most
appropriate answer: the flight is “lading mass” limited and the traffic load must be reduced to
17500kg.

62. the following data is extracted from and aeroplane’s loading manifest: Performance limited take-off
mass 93500kg. Expected lading mass at destination 81700kg, Maximum certificated landing mass:
86300kg, fuel on board 16500kg, during the flight a diversion is made to an en-route alternate which
is not “performance limited” for lading. Fuel remaing at lading is 10300kg. The lading mass: is
87300kg and excess structural stress could result.
63. At maximum certicated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which is not limiting for
either take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the number one engine suffers a contained
disintegration. An emergency is declared, and the aeroplane returns to departure airfield for an
immediate lading. The most likely result of this action will be: a high threshold speed and possible
undercarriage or other structural failure.
64. the crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - dry operating mass:
90 000kg; - Block fuel: 30 000kg; - Taxi fuel: 800kg; -Maximum take-off mass: 154 000kg. the traffic
load available for this flight is: 25 800kg.
65. The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 190 000kg, with its centre of gravity located at
29% MAC. Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the flight crew that 4 000kg must be
loaded in cargo 4. After the handing operation, the new centre of gravity location is % MAC will be:
25%.
66. At reference or see Loading Manual SEP1, figure 2.4. With respect to a single-engine piston powered
aeroplane, determine the zero fuel moment (ibs.In./100) in the following conditions: Basic empty
mass: 2415 Ibs. Arm at basic empty mass: 77,9In. Cargo zone a: 350Ibs. Baggage zone B: 35Ibs. Pilot
and front seat passenger: 300 Ibs (total): 2548,8.

67. Determine the zero-fuel mass fot the following single engine aeroplane. Given: basic empty mass:
1799 Ibs, Optional equipment: 35 Ibs, Pilot front seat passenger: 300 Ibs, Cargo mass: 350 Ibs, Ramp
fuel= Block fuel: 60 Gal. Trip fuel: 35 Gal. Fuel density: 6 Ibs/Gal: 2449 Ibs.
68. Determine the lading mass for the following single engine aeroplane. Given: standard empty mass:
1764Ibs, optional equipment: 35 Ibs, Pilot front seat passenger: 300 Ibs, cargo mass: 350 Ibs, ramp
fuel = block fuel: 60-Gal, Trip fuel: 35 Gal. Taxi fuel 1.7 Gal. Fuel density: 6 Ibs/Gal. determine the
expected lading mass: 2589 Ibs.
69. to calculate the allowable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include: the sum of the
maximum lading mass and the trip fuel.
70. Allowed traffic load is the difference between allowed take off mass and operating mass.
71. Given: Dry operating mass= 38 000kg, maximum structural take-off mass= 72 000kg, maximum
lading mass= 65 000kg, maximum zero fuel mass= 61000kg, fuel burn= 8 000kg, take-off fuel =
 10 300kg, the maximum allowed take-off mass and payload are respectively: 71 300 kg and 23 000
kg.
72. maximum allowed take-off mass limit: 37 200kg, dry operating mass: 21 600kg, take-off fuel:
8 500kg, passengers on board: male 33, female 32, children 5. Baggage’s: 880kg. The company uses
standard passenger mass systems (see annex) allowed by regulations. The flight is not a holiday
charter. In these conditions, the maximum cargo that may be loaded is: 585kg.

73. Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1m, Moment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50m, moment
arma of the aft cargo: +2,50m, the aircraft mass is 2 200kg and its centre of gravity is at 25% MAC to
move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass has to be transferred from the forward to the aft cargo
hold?: 110kg.
74. Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct?: the traffic load
can be limited by the desired range.
75. Which of the following statements is correct?: a tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a
lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplane.
76. Which of the following statements is correct?: a tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a
lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplane.
77. Which of the following statements is correct?: The maximum landing mass of an aeroplane is
restricted by structural limitations, performance limitations and the strength of the runway.
78. Given an aeroplane with: maximum structural landing mass: 68000kg, maximum zero fuel
mass:70200kg, maximum structural take-off mass: 78200kg, dry operating mass: 48000kg, scheduled
trip fuel is 7000kg and the reserve fuel is 2800kg. Assuming performance limitations are not
restricting, the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively: 75000kg
and 17200kg.
79. Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the mass is
located. That point is known as: the datum.
80. At reference or see Loading manual MRJ1 page 20. For the medium range twin jet the datum point is
located: 540 inches forward of the front spar.
81. The centre of gravity of an aircraft is that point through which the total mass of the aircraft is said to
act. The weight acts in a direction: parallel to the gravity vector.
82. When an aircraft is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically: through its centre of
gravity.
83. The weight of an aircraft, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act: vertically through
the centre of gravity.
84. An aeroplane is weighed and the following recordings are made: nose wheel assembly scale 5330kg
left main wheel assembly scale 12370kg right main wheel assembly scale 12480kg if the “operational
items” amount to a mass of 1780kg with a crew mass of 545kg, the empty mass, as entered in the
weight schedule, is: 30180kg.
85. If individual masses are used, the mass of an aircraft must be determined prior to initial entry service
and thereafter: at intervals of 4 years if no modifications have taken place.
86. The empty mass of an aeroplane is recorded in: the weighing schedule and is amended to take
account of changes due to modifications of the aeroplane.
87. Prior to departure an aircraft is loaded with 16500 litres of furl at a fuel density of 780 kg/m3. This is
entered into the load sheet as 16500kg and calculations are carried out accordingly. As a result of this
error, the aircraft is: lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high.
88. An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is not entered into the
load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected and calculated take-off safety speeds:
will give reduced safety margins.
89. Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400kg but is erroneously entered into the load and trim sheet as
14500kg. this error is not deyecyed by the flight crew but they will notice that: speed at un-stick will
be higher than expected.
90. At reference or see loading manual MRJT 1 figure 4.11. at the maximum landing mass the range of
safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual is: forward limited
7.4% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC.
91. At a given mass the CG position is at 15% MAC. If the leading edge of MAC is at a position 625.6
inches aft of the datum and the MAC is given as 134.5 inches determine the position of the CG in
relation to the datum: 645.78 inches aft of datum.
92. At reference or see loading manual MRJT 1 figure 4.11. the aeroplane has a take-off mass of 58 000kg.
at this mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading
manual, is: forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 26,5% MAC.

93. When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aircraft, which of the following is not
required?: drain all engine tank oil.
94. An aircraft is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsonsible for deriving the dry
operational mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the “operational items”?: the operator.
95. An aircraft may be weighed: in an enclosed, non-air conditions, hanger.
96. At reference or see loading manual MRJT 1 figure 4.11. an aeroplane has a lading mass of 53 000kg.
the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
forward limit 7,3% MAC aft limit 26,8% MAC.
97. At reference or see loading manual MRJT 1 figure 4.11. the aeroplane has a mass of 61 000kg in the
cruise. The range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading
manual, is: forward limit 8,3% aft limit 26,3% MAC.
98. At reference or see loading manual MRJT 1 figure 4.9. for the transport aeroplane the moment
(balance) arm (B.A) for the forward hold centroid is: 367.9 inches.

99. Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of gravity on an
aeroplane in flight?: changing the tailplane (horizontal stabilizer) incidence angle.
100. At reference or see loading manual MRJT 1 figure 4.9. Referring to the loading manual for the
transport aeroplane, the maximum running load for the aft section of the forward lower deck cargo
compartment is: 14.65 kg per inch.
101. At reference or see loading manual MRJT 1 figure 4.9. referring to the loading manual fot the
transport aeroplane, the maximum load intensity for the lower forward cargo compartment is:
a) 7288 kg in forward compartment and 9232 kg in aft compartment.
b) 3305 kg in forward compartment and 4187 kg in aft compartment.
c) 150 kg per square foot.
d) 68 kg per square foot.

102. The maximum floor loading for a cargo compartment in an aeroplane is given as 750 kg per
square metre. A package with a mass of 600 kg. is to be loaded. Assuming the pallet base is entirely
in contact with the floor, which of the following is the minimum size pallet that can be used?: 40 cm
by 200 cm.
103. The maximum intensity floor loading for an aeroplane is given in the flight manual as 650 kg
per square metre. What is the maximum mass of a package which can be safely supported on a pallet
with dimensions of 80 cm by 80 cm?: 416.0 kg.
104. The distance from the datum to the centre of gravity of a mass is known as: the moment arm
or balance arm.
105. At reference os see loading manual MRJT 1 figure 4.9. a pallet having a freight platform which
measures 200 cm x 250 cm has a total mass of 300 kg. the pallet if carried on two ground supports
each measuring 20 cm x 200 cm. using the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, calculate how
 much mass may be added to, or must be off loaded from, the pallet in order fot the load intensity to
match the maximum permitted distribution load intensity for lower deck forward cargo compartment:
285.6 kg may be added.

106. During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more
rapidly than expected. This is an indication that: the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.
107. Dry operating mass is the mass of the aircraft less: usable fuel and traffic load.
108. The total mass of the aeroplane including crew, crew baggage; plus, catering and removable
passenger equipment; plus potable water and lavatory chemicals but excluding usable fuel and traffic
load, is referred to as: dry operating mass.
109. The responsibility for determination of the mass of “operating items” and “crew members”
included within the dry operating mass lies with: the operator.
110. If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will: require elevator trim which
will result in an increase in fuel consumption.
111. An aeroplane is said to be “neutrally stable”. This is likely to: be caused by a centre of gravity
which is towards the rearward limit.
112. The dry operating mass is the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation
but excluding: usable fuel and traffic load.
113. The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which includes a traffic load of 14200 kg and a
usable fuel load of 10500kg. if the standard mass for the crew is 545 kg the dry operating mass is:
42000kg.
114. When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be: extremely stable and
will require excessive elevator control to change pitch.
115. If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator control will:
become hiver making the aeroplane more difficult to maneuvered in pitch.
116. An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will result in: an
increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tailplane moment.
117. An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses “fleet masses”
and provided that changes have been correctly documented, this interval is: 9 years for each aeroplane.
118. A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at destination a
straight in approach and immediate lading clearance is given. The landing mass will be higher than
planned and: the lading distance required will be longer.
119. At reference or see loading manual MRJT 1 figure 4.9. from the loading manual for the jet
transport aeroplane, the maximum floor loading intensity for the aft cargo compartment is: 68kg square
foot.

120. At reference or see loading manual MRJT 1 figure 4.9. from the loading manual for the
transport aeroplane, the aft cargo compartment has a maximum total load for: 4187 kg.

121. At reference or see loading manual MRJT 1 figure 4.9. from the loading manual for the
transport aeroplane, the maximum load that can be carried in that section of the aft cargo compartment
which has a balance arm centroid at: 835.5 inches is 3062kg.
122. A mass of 500kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres behind the present centre of
gravity and 16 metres behind the datum. (assume: g=10 m/sec squared). The moment for that mass
used in the loading manifest is: 80000 Nm.
123. The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that mass to which an aeroplane may be
loaded prior to engine start. It is: a fixed value which is listed in the flight manual.
124. The maximum mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded, prior to engine start, is: maximum
certificated taxi (ramp) mass.
125. The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by: structural considerations.
126. The zero fuel mass and the dry operating mass: differ by the value of the traffic load mass.
127. Mass for individual passengers (to be carried on an aircraft) may be determined from a verbal
statement by or on behalf of the passengers if the number of: passenger seats available is less than 10.
128. The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800kg. operational items (including crew
standard mass of 1060 kg) are 2300kg. if the maximum zero fuel mass is given as 65500kg, the
maximum traffic load which could be carried is: 18400kg.
129. At reference or see loading manual MRJT 1 figure 4.14. the following data relates to a planned
flight of an aeroplane -Dry operational mass 60520kg, performance limited take-off mass 92750kg,
performance limited landing mass 72250kg, maximum zero fuel mass 67530kg, fuel on board at take-
off, trip fuel 12500kg, contingency and final reserve fuel 2300kg, alternate fuel 1700kg. using this
data, as appropriate, calculate the maximum traffic load that can be carried: 7010kg.
130. At reference or see loading manual MERJT 1 figure 4.14. aeroplane dry operating mass
85000kg, performance limited take-off mass 127000kg, performance limited landing mass 98500kg,
maximum zero fuel mass 89800kg, fuel requirements for flight, trip fuel 29300kg, contingency and
final reserve fuel 3600kg, alternate fuel 2800kg. the maximum traffic load that can be carried on this
flight is: 4800kg.

131. The maximum zero fuel mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the aeroplane dry
operating mass plus: traffic load and unusable fuel.
132. The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 14100kg. total fuel on board is 63000 kg including
14000kg reserve fuel and 1000kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800kg. the zero fuel mass is:
79000kg.
133. “Standard mass” as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass of a chill as:
35kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.
134. The maximum certificated take-off mass is: a structural limit which may not be exceeded for
any take-off.
135. For a particular aeroplane, the structural maximum mass without any fuel on board, other than
unusable quantities, is: a fixed value which is stated in the aeroplane operating manual.
136. An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a high altitude
airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an exceptionally long runway. Which of the
following is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the take-off mass?: altitude and
temperature of the departure airfield.
137. On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use standard mass
values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is not a holiday charter, the mass value
which may be used for an adult is: 84kg.
138. The standard mass for a chill is: 35kg for all flights.
139. On an aeroplane with 20 or more seats engaged on an inter-continental flight, the “standard
mass” which may be used for passenger baggage is: 15kg per passenger.
140. The following data applies to a planned flight. Dry operating mass 34900kg, performance
limited take-off mass 56300kg, performance limited landing mass 55200kg, maximum zero fuel mass
53070kg, fuel required at ramp: taxy fuel 400kg, trip fuel 8600kg, contingency fuel 430kg, alternate
fuel 970kg, holding fuel 900kg, traffic load 16600kg. fuel costs at the departure airfield are such that
 it is decided to load the maximum fuel quantity possible. The total fuel which may be safely loaded
prior to departure is: 12700kg.
141. In determining the dry operating mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to use “standard
mass” values for crew. These values are: flight crew 85kg, cabin crew 75kg each. These include an
allowance for hand baggage.
142. An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 30550kg. fuel on board at take-
off (including contingency and alternate of 19450kg) is 121450kg. the dry operating mass is 161450kg.
the useful load will be: 141100 kg.
143. When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is
true?: stalling speeds will be higher.
144. If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle of attack
will: be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease.
145. Conversion of fuel volume to mass: may be done by using standat fuel density values as
specified in the operating manual, if the actual fuel density is not known.
146. Standard masses may be used for the computation of mass values for baggage if the aeroplane:
has 20 or more seats.
147. Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of gravity positions an
aeroplane?: elevator and tailplane (horizontal stabilizer) effectiveness in all flight conditions.
148. A jet transport has the following structural limits: maximum ramp mass: 63 060kg; maximum
take-off mass: 62 800kg, maximum landing mass: 54 900kg, maximum zero fuel mass: 51 300kg. the
aeroplane’s fuel is loaded accordance with the following requirements: taxi fuel: 400kg, trip fuel:
8400kg, contingency $ final reserve fuel: 1800kg, alternate fuel: 1100kg. if the dry operating mass is
34930kg, determine the maximum traffic load that can be carried on the flight if departure and landing
airfields are not performance limited: 16 370kg.
149. A flight has been made from London to Valencia carrying minimum fuel and maximum traffic
load. On the return flight the fuel tanks in the aeroplane are to be filled to capacity with a total fuel
load of 20100 litres at a fuel density of 0.79 kg/l. the following are the aeroplane’s structural limits:
maximum ramp mass: 69 900kg, maximum take-off mass: 69 300 kg, maximum landing mass:
58 900kg, maximum zero fuel mass: 52 740kg. the performance limited take off mass at Valencia is
67 330kg. the landing mass at London is not performance limited. Dry operating mass: 34 930kg, trip
fuel (Valencia to London): 5 990 kg, taxi fuel: 250kg. the maximum traffic load that can be carried
from Valencia will be: 14 331kg.
150. The term “useful load” as applied to an aircraft includes: traffic load plus usable fuel.
151. An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230kg. the dry operating mass is
35000kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080kg. if the take-off mass is 64280kg the useful load is: 29280kg.
152. See loading manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5. for the medium range transport aeroplane, from the
loading manual, determine the maximum total volume of fuel which can be loaded into the main wing
tanks. (fuel density value 0.78kg/l): 11646 litres.

153. Contrary to the forecast given in the LOAD and TRIM sheet, cargo compartment 1 is empty.
The take-off centre of gravity in MAC% will be located at: 31%.
154. Contrary to the loading sheet forecasts you have: cargo compartment 1: empty. Cargo
compartment 2: 1000kg. cargo compartment 3: 3000kg. cargo compartment 4: 2000kg. cargo
compartment 5: 100kg. passengers in compartment OA: 20. Passengers in compartment OB: 20.
Passengers in compartment OC: 30. The take-off centre of gravity in MAC %, will be located at
31.5.%.
155. Just prior to departure, you accept 10 passengers additional on board who will be seated in
“compartment OA” and you have 750kg unloaded from cargo compartment 5. The take-off centre of
gravity in MAC % will be located at: 28.8%.
156. A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the
following statements is correct?: IAS decreases and TAS decreases.
157. Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus the true airspeed (TAS), for
a piston-engine aeroplane with a given mass. The tangent from the point of origin to the point of contact
on the curve, at: maximum endurance.
158. For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is: that which gives the minimum
value if induced drag.
159. Which of the following statements is correct?: a stop way means an area beyond the take-off
runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.
160. During take-off the third segment begins: when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.
161. Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?: straight
flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed.
162. Which of the following will decrease V1?: inoperative anti-skid.
163. Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?: airport
elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.
164. Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15º to flap 5º will normally result in a longer take-
off distance and a better climb.
165. In accordance with JAR-25, the reference landing speed (VREF) has the following minimum
margin above the reference stalling speed in the landing configuration (VSR0): 23%.
166. Use the attached graphic. What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine turbojet
aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N-1) and a mass of 75 000kg? using the following: g=10 m/s2,
1 kt=100 ft/min, SIN (angle of climb) = (Thrust – drag)/weight: 1267 ft/min.

167. In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles
is: the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the
obstacle domain.
168. During certification flight testing of a transport aeroplane, the distances measured from brake
release to the 35 feet point are equal to: 1547m with all engines running, 1720m with failure of critical
engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged. The take-off distance adopted for the
certification file is: 1779 m.
169. For a turboprop powered aeroplane (performance class A) on a commercial flight, a 2220 m
long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be wet. It must be ensured that the lading mass
of the aeroplane allows a full stop landing on a dry runway within a lading distance of: 1339 m.
170. At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is creased by 5% - assuming the engines
specific consumption remains unchanged, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by: 5%.
171. Considering the take-off decision speed V1, which of the following is correct?: if an engine
failure is recognized before reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
172. What will be the effect on and aeroplane’s performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is
decreased?: it will decrease the take-off distance required.
173. Is the aerodrome pressure altitude increases it will: decrease the take-off distance.
174. Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows: thrust = 50 000
newton/engine, g=10m/s2, drag=72 569 N, minimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN (angle
of climb) = (thrust-drag)/weight. The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segmented conditions is:
101 596 kg.
175. The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet
aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1- undercarriage retracted. 2- undercarriage
exceeded. 3- flaps up. 4- flaps in take-off position. 5- all engines at the take-of thrust. 6- operative
engine(s) at take-off thrust. 7- climbing speed of V2 10kts. 8- climbing speed of 1.3 VS. 9- climbing
speed of V2. 10- commencing height 35ft. the correct statements are: 1, 4, 6, 9.
176. Minimum control speed on the ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being
maintained by: primary aerodynamic control only.
177. Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1, but VR remains unchanged?:
accelerate stop distance.
178. Which of the following answers is true?: V1 is lower or equal to VR.
179. The length of a clearway may be included in: the take-off distance available.
180. How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain constant
and not limiting?: a downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.
181. The effect of increasing the flap setting, from zero to the recommended take-off setting, on the
length of the take-off distance required (TODR) and the field-length-limited take-off mass (TOM) is:
decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
182. How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?: VMCA decreases with increasing
pressure altitude.
183. Which one of the following is not affected by a tailed wind?: the climb limited take-off mass.
184. Considering VR, which statement is correct?: VR is the speed at which rotation should be
initiated.
185. Which statement is correct?: VT must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.
186. Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?: VMCG.
187. Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max trye speed and
max brake energy speed are not limiting?: VR.
188. During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off
distances measured are: 3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognized at V1, 2555m with all
engines operating and all other things being equal. The take-off distance adopted for the certification
file is: 3050m.
189. In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to
decelerate the aeroplane is to: apply wheel brakes.
190. If the antiskid systems is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?: the accelerate
stop distance decreases.
191. In which of the following distances can the length of a stop way be included?: in the accelerate
stop distance available.
192. Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect
allowable take-off mass?: allowable take-off mass decreases.
193. If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will: no be affected.
194. Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM( every factor
considered independently)?: low flap setting, how PA, low OAT.
195. The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only specified
or: the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.
196. At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?: 400 ft above field elevation.
197. A head wind will: increase the climb flight path angle.
198. Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane’s angle of climb?:
weight, drag and thrust.
199. How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an
aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?: both decreases.
200. An operator shall ensure tha the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The hald-width of
the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least: 90 m + 0.125D.
201. What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?: the time to climb does
not change.
202. The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally
be: smaller.
203. Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be: lower than that for clean configuration.
204. Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of
TAS?: both will decrease.
205. How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere (under ISA conditions)?: TAS
decreases.
206. The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane: increases when the aeroplane
mass decreases.
207. Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining
constant: bothe will increase with increasing altitude.
208. How does the specific ranege change when the altitude increases for jet aeroplanes flying with
the speed for maximum trange?: first increases than decreases.
209. At reference. Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams provided correctly shows
the movement of the “thrust required curve”. Mass m1 higher than mass m2: c.
210. Longe range cruise is a flight procedure which gives: a specific range which is approximately
99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed.
211. A commercial flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing
distance available of 2400m. the aeroplane mass must be such that on arrival the aeroplane can be
landed within: 1 440m.
212. At the destination aerodrome the lading distance available is 3000m. the appropriate weather
forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight
the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
1565m.
213. With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines
is: equal to the angle of attack corresponding the maximum lift to drag ratio.
214. Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal)
are at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000kg and its hourly fuel
consumption is 4300 kg/h. the mass of the second aircraft is 115 000kg and its hourly fuel consumption
is: 3804 kg/h.
215. A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0,06 kg per
newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per nautical
mile. In the same flying conditions+, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific
fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of: 8.17 kg/NM.
216. The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane
with 5º, 15º and 25º flaps angles in take-off, leads to the followings values, with wind: flap angle: 5º
15º 25º FFLTOM (kg): 66 000 69 500 71 500 CLTOM: 72 200 69 000 61 800 wind correction: Head
wind: +120 kg/kt, Tail wind: -360kg /kt. Given that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the
maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be: 67 700kg / 15º.
217. Given: VS= stalling speed, VMCA= air minimum control speed, VMU= minimum unstick
sped (disregarding engine failure), V1= take-off decision speed, VR= rotation speed, V2 min.=
minimum take-off safety speed, VLOF: lift-off speed. The correct formula is: VS< VMCA < V2 min.
218. Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: is the airspeed on the ground at which the
pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.
219. During certification teste flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs
from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at
which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are: -1747m, all engines operating – 1950m,
with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged. Considering
both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). The certificated value of the take-off run is:
2009m.
220. An airport has a 3000 meters ling runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that
runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available
cannot be grater than: 4500 metres.
221. At reference or see performance manual MRJT 1 figure 4.4. for a twin engine turbojet
aeroplane two take-off flaps setting (5º and 15º) are certified. Given: field length available =2400 m,
outside air temperature= -10ºC, airport pressure altitude= 7000 ft. the maximum allowed take-off mass
is: 56 000kg. ( veer o fim)

222. The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is: 1.13 VSR for two- and three-engine turbo-
propeller and turbojet aeroplanes.
223. The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual gradient is: smaller.
224. Which of the following three speed of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
holding, maximum climb angle minimum glide angle.
225. The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the:
IAS increases.
226. Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the movement of the power required curve
with increasing altitude form H1 to H2?: figure d.

227. In a steady descending flight ( descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the
aeroplane is given by: (T=thrust, D=drag, W=weight): T+W sin GAMMA =D.
228. An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward
speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / glide angle / CL/CD ratio:
increases / increases / decreases.
229. An aeroplane is in a power off glide at speed for minimum glide for minimum glide angle. If
the pilot increases pitch altitude the glid distance: decreases.
230. Maximum endurance for a piston engine aeroplane is achieved at: the speed that approximately
corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed.
231. The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level
flight, is reached: at the lowest possible altitude.
232. During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will: increase,
because the lift coefficient decrease.
233. At reference or see performance manual SEP1 1 figure 2.4. with regard to the graph for landing
performance, what is the minimum headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland
airport? Given: runway length: 1300 ft, runway elevation: MSL, weather: assume ISA conditions +,
mass: 3200 Ibs, obstacle height: 50 ft: 10 kt.

234. A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb
angle / the pitch angle change?: reduce/decrease.
235. A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range/fuel flow change?:
increase/decrease.
236. During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will: decrease.
237. During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum range
speed, the IAS / the drag will: decrease / decrease.
238. An aeroplane descend from FL 410 to FL 270 at its cruise Mach number and from FL 270 to
FL 100 at the IAS achieved at FL 270. Assuming odle thrust, a clean configuration and ignoring
compressibility effects, how does the angle of descent change (i) in the first and (ii) in the second part
of the descent?: (i) increases (ii) remains constant.
239. Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide?
(ignore compressibility effects): configuration and angle of attack.
240. Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at zero wind and zero thrust.
Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics?: there is no
difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.
241. Compared with still-air, the effect a headwind has on values of the maximum range speed and
the maximum gradient climb speed respectively is that: the maximum range speed increases and the
maximum gradient climb speed is not affected.
242. The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when: the maximum thrust is equal to the total
drag.
243. With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct?: an
aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude increases
continuously during flight.
244. How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? (no compressibility
effects): the lift coefficient is independent of altitude.
245. What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take-off, constant
IAS is maintained? (assume a constant mass): the drag remains almost constant.
246. Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct? (from low to high
speeds): Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.
247. If a flight is perfomed with a higher “cost index” at a given mass which of the following will
occur?: a higher cruise Mach number.
248. For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of “maximum
range speed”?: minimum specific fuel consumption.
249. The speed for maximum lift/drag ration will result in: the maximum range for a propeller driven
aeroplane.
250. What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?: the lift coefficient
increases.
251. Which of the following provides maximum obstacles clearange during climb?: the speed for
maximum climb angle Vx.
252. Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while
maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?: tailwind.
253. Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?: low mass.
254. Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at “long range speed”?: it is
efficiency to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed.
255. If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is
correct?: V1 must be increased to at least the value of VMCG.
256. The speed used to determine the “maximum tyre-speed limit” is the: groundspeed.
257. Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: windshear is reported on the take-
off path.
258. Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: the runway is contaminated.
259. The use of reduce take-off thrust is permitted, only if: the actual take-off mass is lower than
the performance limited take-off mass.
260. When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance /
climb performance: decreases / remains constant.
261. Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?: the
field length limited take-off mass will increase.
262. The combination of factors that most requires a low-angled setting for take-off is: high field
elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.
263. The combination of factors that most requires a low-angled flap setting for take-off is: high fiel
elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.
264. the approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
minimum climb gradient on the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
265. How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20º is chosen instead not T/O flaps 10º?: V2 decreases if not
restricted by VMCA.
266. During the flight preparation the climb limits take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater
than the fiel length limited TOM using 5º flap. In what way can be performance limited TOM be
increased? There are no limiting obstacles: by selecting a higher flap setting.
267. Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed
limited take-off?: a high runway elevation and tail wind.
268. If on a particular flight the value of V1 used on take-off exceeds the correct value of V1, if an
engine fails at a speed immediately above the correct value of V then: the accelerate/stop distance will
exceed the accelerate/stop distance available.
269. Which of the following statements is correct?: VR is the speed at which the pilot should start
to rotate the aeroplane.
270. The drift down requirements are based on: the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new
cruising altitude if an engine has failed.
271. Which of he following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for
performance class A aeroplane, is correct?: It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle
clearance with the respect to the “net take-off flight path”:
272. The “maximum tyre speed” limits: VLOF in terms of ground speed.
273. For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?: when determining the
maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available distance is taken into account,
if the runway is expected to be dry.
274. Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the “buffet onset
boundary” graph?: aerodynamics.
275. Which data can be extracted from the Buffet onset boundary chart?: the values of the Mach
number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitude.
276. Why should the temperature of the wheel brakes be checked prior to take-off?: because
overheated brakes will not preform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off.
277. Which is the correct sequences of speeds during take-off?: VMCG, V1, VR, V2.
278. A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Chich operational speed limit is most likely to
be reached?: the maximum operating Mach number.
279. A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which speed limit will be exceeded?:
maximum operating speed.
280. Which of the following statements regarding the reduced thrust take-off technique is correct?:
reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the performance limited take-off
mass.
281. Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?:
the climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.
282. Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?: a
take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition.
283. Which statement regarding V1 is correct?: V1 must not exceed VR.
284. When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA: the actual take-off mass equal
the field length limited take-off mass.
285. For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?: the
take-off performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a
few values are verified by flight testes.
286. To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should: make a “positive”
landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible.
287. Which of the following statements is true regarding a balanced field-length?: a balanced fiels
length provides the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure.
288. At reference or see performance manual MRJT 1 figure 4.24. with regard to the drift down
performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by “equivalent gross mass at engine failure”?:
the equivalent gross mass at engine failure is the actual gross mass corrected for OAT higher than ISA
+10ºC.

289. The stop way is an area which allows an increase only in the: accelerate-stop distance available.
290. VR cannot be lower than: V1 and 105% of VMCA.
291. The effects of an increased ambient air temperature beyond the flat rating cut-off temperature
of the engines on (i) the field-length-limited take-off mass and (ii) the climb-limited take-off mass are:
(i) decrease (ii) decrease.
292. The on-engine take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and: the middle of
the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.
293. The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed: below which take-off must be
rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above which take-off should be continued.
294. Regarding unaccelerated horizontal flight, minimum drag is: proportional to aircraft mass.
295. Which of the following statements is correct?: VR is the speed at which the pilot should start
to rotate the aeroplane.
296. If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases: the minimum drag decreases
and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
297. The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet
aeroplane, determines the speed for: maximum endurance.
298. For a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is: that corresponding to the point of contact
of the tangent from the origin to the drag versus TAS curve.
299. Which cruise system gives minimum fuel consumption during cruise between top of climb and
top od descent? (still air, no turbulence): maximum range.
300. A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with in engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain
area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed: of
greatest lift-to-drag ratio.
301. A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass= 150 000kg) iw established on climb with all engines
operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14. Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 newton. The gradient of climb
is: (given: g=10 m/s2): 12.86%.
302. Density altitude is the: pressure altitude corrected for “non standard” temperature.
303. The density altitude: is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
304. Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance?:
high temperature and high relative humidity.
305. What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope: decreases the take-off
speed V1.
306. During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component: decrease the ground distance down
during that climb.
307. The effect that a tailwind has on the value of the maximum endurance speed is: none.
308. During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate if climb reuces to 100 ft/min: service
ceiling.
309. The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is: 0ft/min.
310. How does the thrust of a propeller vary during take-off run, assuming unstalled flow conditions
at the propeller blades? The thrust: decreases while the aeroplane speed builds up.
311. A twin-engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed with take-off thrust on both
engines. The critical engine suddenly fails. After stabilizing the engine failure transient which
parameter(s) must be maintainable?: straight flight.
312. The speed V2 is: the take-off safety speed.
313. Which of the following speeds may vary if a stop way or clearway is available?: V1.
314. What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other
parameters remain constant?: the ROC speed increases with increasing mass.
315. The long-range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise: higher.
316. Approaching in turbulent wind conditions during manual flight requires: an increase in
approach speed.
317. Field length is balanced when: take-off distance available equals accelerate stop distance
available.
318. The second segment retracted: when landing gear is fully retracted.
319. Take-off run is defined as the: horizontal distance along the take-off path from the star of the
take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the
aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
320. The minimum value of V2 must exceed VMC by: 10%.
321. Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbo propeller powered
aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?: maximum landing distance at the destination aerodrome
and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (lading distance available).
322. For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles may be avoided: by banking not more
than 15º between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.
323. An aeroplane operating inder the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to: 180 minutes fluing
time from a suitable airport in still air, with onde engine inoperative.
324. ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable
airport is within an area of: 60 minutes fluing time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise
speed.
325. At reference or see performance manual MRJT 1 figure 4.24. with regard to the drift down
performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the
chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 3 minutes at FL370?: because at this mass it
makes about 3 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift down at the original cruising level.
326. At reference or see performance manual MRJT 1 figure 4.5. with regard to the take-off
performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink
at 30ºC and PA 0 ft?: the engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures
they are temperature limited.

327. At refence os see performance manual MRJT 1 figure 4.5. consider the take-off performance
for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit chart. Why has the wind been omitted from the chart?: the
limitation presented in this chart is taken relative to air.
328. The speed VR: is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.
329. If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slop would: increase
the maximum mass for take-off.