1. What is a computer peripheral?

a. The central processing unit (CPU)

b. Any device that connects to the computing unit but is not part of the core
architecture
c. The motherboard
d. The power supply

Answer: b

2. Which of the following is considered part of the core computing unit?

a. Monitor
b. Keyboard
c. Central Processing Unit (CPU)
d. Printer

Answer: c

3. What is the core computing unit made up of?

a. CPU, Monitor, and Keyboard

b. Motherboard, Mouse, and Power Supply
c. CPU, Motherboard, and Power Supply
d. RAM, Hard Disk, and Case

Answer: c

4. Which of the following is NOT a peripheral?

a. Printer
b. External Hard Drive
c. CPU
d. Webcam

Answer: c
5. What type of device is used for pointing and clicking to interact with
graphical user interfaces?

a. Printer
b. Mouse
c. Keyboard
d. Monitor

Answer: b

6. What is responsible for displaying visual output from the computer?

a. CPU
b. Monitor
c. Keyboard
d. External Hard Drive

Answer: b

7. Which device allows for digital drawing and handwriting input?

a. Monitor
b. Graphics Tablet
c. Printer
d. Scanner

Answer: b

8. What type of device enables wired network connectivity?

a. USB Flash Drive

b. Wireless Network Adapter
c. Network Interface Card (NIC)
d. Modem

Answer: c

9. What does a webcam do?

 a. Outputs sound
b. Captures video
c. Scans documents
d. Prints hard copies

Answer: b

10. Which of the following is a security device that uses fingerprints or other
biometric data for authentication?

a. External Drive Bay

b. Biometric Scanner
c. Security Camera
d. Headphones

Answer: b

1. Which of the following is considered a computer peripheral?

 A) RAM
 B) CPU
 C) Motherboard
 D) Printer
Answer: D) Printer
2. What is the primary function of RAM in a computer system?
 A) Store long-term data
 B) Provide extra processing power
 C) Store the operating system
 D) Provide temporary storage for quick access
Answer: D) Provide temporary storage for quick access
3. Which peripheral is used for video input in a computer system?
 A) Printer
 B) Webcam
 C) Microphone
 D) Monitor
Answer: B) Webcam
4. What is the purpose of a DVD-ROM in a computer system?
 A) Print documents
  B) Provide additional RAM
 C) Read optical discs for data access
 D) Input text and commands
Answer: C) Read optical discs for data access
5. Which of the following is an input device?
 A) Monitor
 B) Printer
 C) Keyboard
 D) Speaker
Answer: C) Keyboard
6. What does a microphone primarily function as in a computer system?
 A) Output device
 B) Input device
 C) Storage device
 D) Processing device
Answer: B) Input device
7. Which peripheral is responsible for producing a hard copy of a document?
 A) Monitor
 B) Printer
 C) Webcam
 D) Microphone
Answer: B) Printer
Question 1: Which category of computer peripherals is responsible for sending data
to the computer?

A. Input devices
B. Output devices
C. Input/output and storage devices
D. None of the above

Answer: A. Input devices

Question 2: Which type of peripheral is responsible for receiving data from the
computer?

A. Input devices
B. Output devices
 C. Input/output and storage devices
D. None of the above

Answer: B. Output devices

Question 3: Which category of peripherals can both send and receive data from the
computer?

A. Input devices
B. Output devices
C. Input/output and storage devices
D. None of the above

Answer: C. Input/output and storage devices

Question 4: What is the primary function of a printer in the context of computer

peripherals?

A. Sending data to the computer

B. Receiving data from the computer
C. Both sending and receiving data
D. None of the above

Answer: B. Receiving data from the computer

1. What does the acronym "OS" stand for in Linux OS?

 A) Open Source
 B) Operating System
 C) Output System
 D) Online Service

Answer: B) Operating System

2. Which command is used to display the current working directory in Linux?

 A) ls
 B) pwd
 C) cd
 D) dir

Answer: B) pwd

3. What is the purpose of the "ls" command in Linux?

 A) List files and directories

 B) Print system logs
 C) Load a shell script
 D) Locate files in the system

Answer: A) List files and directories

4. How can you navigate to the home directory in Linux using a command?

 A) home
 B) cd /
 C) cd ~
 D) go home

Answer: C) cd ~

5. What command is used to create a new directory in Linux?

 A) mkdir
 B) touch
 C) newdir
 D) addfolder

Answer: A) mkdir

6. How can you display the contents of a file in the terminal in Linux?

 A) display
 B) show
 C) cat
 D) openfile
 Answer: C) cat

7. Which command is used to copy files or directories in Linux?

 A) mv
 B) cp
 C) copy
 D) clone

Answer: B) cp

8. How do you remove a file in Linux using the command line?

 A) rmfile
 B) delete
 C) rm
 D) erase

Answer: C) rm

9. What does the "chmod" command in Linux do?

 A) Change mode of a file (permissions)

 B) Change the modification time of a file
 C) Compress files
 D) Check disk space usage

Answer: A) Change mode of a file (permissions)

10. How can you find out information about the Linux system, including kernel
version and architecture?

 A) systeminfo
 B) info
 C) uname
 D) sysinfo

Answer: C) uname
 11. What is the purpose of the "ps" command in Linux?

 A) Print system configuration

 B) Pause system processes
 C) Display a snapshot of current processes
 D) Power off the system

Answer: C) Display a snapshot of current processes

12. How can you search for a specific string in a file using the command line?

 A) grep
 B) findstr
 C) search
 D) locate

Answer: A) grep

13. Which command is used to compress files in Linux?

 A) tar
 B) compress
 C) zip
 D) pack

Answer: A) tar

14. What does the "df" command display in Linux?

 A) Detailed file information

 B) Directory structure
 C) Disk space usage
 D) Device files

Answer: C) Disk space usage

15. How can you terminate a running process in Linux using the command line?

 A) end
 B) terminate
 C) kill
 D) stop

Answer: C) kill

Question 5: Which peripheral is commonly used for entering text and commands
into a computer?

A. Monitor
B. Keyboard
C. Printer
D. Speaker

Answer: B. Keyboard

Question 6: Which device is responsible for displaying visual output from the
computer?

A. Monitor
B. Mouse
C. Printer
D. Scanner

Answer: A. Monitor

Question 7: What is the function of a network interface card (NIC) in the context of
computer peripherals?

A. Sending data to the computer

B. Receiving data from the computer
C. Enabling network connectivity
D. Both A and B

Answer: C. Enabling network connectivity

Question 8: Which peripheral is commonly used for private audio output?

A. Speaker
B. Headphones
C. Microphone
D. Webcam

Answer: B. Headphones

1. What is the primary function of computer memory? a. Display graphics

b. Store and retrieve data
c. Execute programs
d. Connect to peripherals

Answer: b. Store and retrieve data

2. Which of the following is an example of primary-volatile memory? a. Hard

Drive
b. CD-ROM
c. RAM
d. USB Flash Drive

Answer: c. RAM

3. What does RAM stand for? a. Read-Only Memory

b. Random Access Memory
c. Read and Write Memory
d. Real-time Access Memory

Answer: b. Random Access Memory

4. Which type of memory is non-volatile and retains data even when the power
is turned off? a. RAM
b. Cache Memory
c. ROM
d. Virtual Memory

Answer: c. ROM

5. What is the main purpose of Read-Only Memory (ROM)? a. Temporary data

storage
b. Store the operating system
c. Store user-generated files
d. Execute program instructions

Answer: b. Store the operating system

6. Secondary memory is also known as:

a. RAM
b. ROM
c. Hard Drive
d. Cache Memory

Answer: c. Hard Drive

7. Which of the following is an example of secondary memory? a. USB Flash

Drive
b. RAM
c. Cache Memory
d. Optical Disc (e.g., CD)

Answer: a. USB Flash Drive

8. Which type of memory is used to store frequently accessed data for quick
retrieval by the CPU? a. ROM
b. Cache Memory
c. RAM
d. Hard Drive
Answer: b. Cache Memory

9. What happens to the data stored in RAM when the computer is powered off?
a. It is permanently lost
b. It is moved to the hard drive
c. It remains intact
d. It is transferred to ROM

Answer: a. It is permanently lost

10. Which memory type is suitable for long-term storage of large amounts of
data? a. RAM
b. Cache Memory
c. ROM
d. Secondary memory (e.g., Hard Drive)

1. What does RAM stand for in computing? a. Read-Only Memory

b. Random Access Memory
c. Sequential Access Memory
d. Real-time Access Memory

Answer: b. Random Access Memory

2. Which type of memory is volatile and loses its content when the power is
turned off? a. ROM
b. SRAM
c. DRAM
d. PROM

Answer: c. DRAM

3. SRAM stands for: a. Sequential Random Access Memory

b. Static Random Access Memory
c. Synchronous Random Access Memory
d. Serial Random Access Memory

Answer: b. Static Random Access Memory

1. What is Git used for in software development?

 A) Managing databases
 B) Version control
 C) Graphic design
 D) System administration

Answer: B) Version control

2. Which command is used to initialize a new Git repository locally?

 A) git new
 B) git init
 C) git start
 D) git create

Answer: B) git init

3. What is the purpose of the command git add in Git?

 A) Commit changes
 B) Stage changes
 C) Delete files
 D) View commit history

Answer: B) Stage changes

4. Which Git command is used to create a new branch?

 A) git branch
 B) git merge
 C) git create
 D) git new-branch

Answer: A) git branch

5. What does the git clone command do?

 A) Create a new branch

 B) Copy a repository from a remote source
 C) Delete a branch
 D) Rename a file

Answer: B) Copy a repository from a remote source

 6. How do you check the status of your changes in a Git repository?

 A) git status
 B) git check
 C) git changes
 D) git diff

Answer: A) git status

7. What command is used to commit changes to the local repository in Git?

 A) git push
 B) git commit
 C) git save
 D) git update

Answer: B) git commit

8. Which Git command is used to merge branches?

 A) git join
 B) git merge
 C) git combine
 D) git connect

Answer: B) git merge

9. How do you discard changes in your working directory for a specific file in Git?

 A) git undo
 B) git reset
 C) git discard
 D) git revert

Answer: B) git reset

10. What does the git pull command do?

 A) Push changes to a remote repository

 B) Fetch changes from a remote repository and merge them
 C) Create a new branch
 D) Delete a branch
Answer: B) Fetch changes from a remote repository and merge them

4. What is the primary characteristic of SRAM? a. Volatility

b. Slower access speed
c. Requires constant refreshing
d. No need for refreshing, retains data as long as power is supplied

Answer: d. No need for refreshing, retains data as long as power is supplied

5. DRAM stands for: a. Dynamic Random Access Memory

b. Dual Random Access Memory
c. Data Retention Access Memory
d. Digital Random Access Memory

Answer: a. Dynamic Random Access Memory

6. Which statement is true about DRAM? a. It is non-volatile

b. It does not require refreshing
c. It is faster than SRAM
d. It requires constant refreshing to retain data

Answer: d. It requires constant refreshing to retain data

7. PROM stands for: a. Programmable Random Access Memory

b. Permanent Read-Only Memory
c. Programmable Read-Only Memory
d. Primary Read-Only Memory

Answer: c. Programmable Read-Only Memory

8. What is a key characteristic of PROM? a. Can be programmed only once

b. Can be reprogrammed multiple times
c. Volatile nature
d. Fast access speed

Answer: a. Can be programmed only once

 9. EROM stands for:

a. Erasable Read-Only Memory

b. Electric Read-Only Memory
c. Enhanced Read-Only Memory
d. Efficient Read-Only Memory

Answer: a. Erasable Read-Only Memory

10. EEPROM stands for: a. Electronic Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory

b. Electrically Erasable Programmable Random Access Memory
c. Erasable Electrically Programmable Read-Only Memory
d. Enhanced Electronic Programmable Read-Only Memory

Answer: c

1. What is a secondary storage device?

 A) Monitor
 B) Keyboard
 C) Solid-state drive (SSD)
 D) CPU
 Answer: C) Solid-state drive (SSD)
2. Which of the following is an outdated secondary storage device that uses
magnetic tape?
 A) SSD
 B) Zip drive
 C) Tape drive
 D) CD-ROM drive
 Answer: C) Tape drive
3. In modern operating systems, secondary drives are assigned letters starting
from:
 A) A
 B) B
 C) C
 D) D
 Answer: D) D
4. Historically, what were drive letters A: and B: reserved for in DOS and Windows
operating systems?
 A) Hard drives
  B) CD-ROM drives
 C) Floppy drives
 D) USB drives
 Answer: C) Floppy drives
5. Which type of storage is known for its high speed and durability due to the
absence of moving parts?
 A) HDD
 B) SSD
 C) CD-ROM
 D) DVD
 Answer: B) SSD
6. What type of storage relies on cloud-based servers for data storage and
retrieval?
 A) HDD
 B) SSD
 C) Cloud storage
 D) DVD
 Answer: C) Cloud storage
7. Which storage device is commonly used for optical data storage and has a
larger capacity than a CD?
 A) CD-ROM drive
 B) DVD drive
 C) Blu-ray drive
 D) USB flash drive
 Answer: C) Blu-ray drive
8. What is the primary function of a USB flash drive?
 A) Display visuals
 B) Store and transfer data
 C) Read optical discs
 D) Connect to the internet
 Answer: B) Store and transfer data
9. Which storage device is known for its small size, portability, and use in digital
cameras and mobile devices?
 A) Floppy diskette
 B) SD card
 C) Zip drive
 D) HDD
 Answer: B) SD card
10. What term refers to the settings or the hardware-software arrangement in a
computer system?
 A) BIOS
 B) Configuration file
 C) System configuration
 D) Registry
 Answer: C) System configuration
11. In systems engineering, what does "system configuration" encompass?
 A) Only hardware components
 B) Only software components
 C) Hardware, processes, and devices
 D) Processes and operating system only
 Answer: C) Hardware, processes, and devices
12. Which of the following is responsible for assigning drive letters in modern
operating systems?
 A) CPU
 B) BIOS
 C) Operating system
 D) Monitor
 Answer: C) Operating system
13. What are volume letters A:, B:, and C: historically reserved for in DOS and
Windows?
 A) Network drives
 B) Hard drives
 C) Floppy drives
 D) Optical drives
 Answer: C) Floppy drives
14. Which of the following is a removable storage device that was commonly used
but is now considered obsolete?
 A) SSD
 B) Zip drive
 C) HDD
 D) CD-ROM drive
 Answer: B) Zip drive
15. What is the purpose of a CD-ROM drive?
 A) Store data magnetically
 B) Read data from optical discs
 C) Store data electronically
 D) Connect to the internet
 Answer: B) Read data from optical discs
16. What is the primary function of a modem in a computer system?
 A) Store data
 B) Connect to the internet
 C) Display visuals
 D) Read optical discs
 Answer: B) Connect to the internet
17. Which of the following is a biometric security device used for user
authentication?
 A) Webcam
 B) Biometric scanner
 C) Microphone
 D) USB flash drive
 Answer: B) Biometric scanner
18. What type of storage device is commonly used for private audio output?
 A) Microphone
 B) Headphones
 C) Speakers
 D) Blu-ray drive
 Answer: B) Headphones
19. Which device allows for digital drawing and handwriting input?
 A) Graphics tablet
 B) Scanner
 C) Projector
 D) Network Interface Card (NIC)
 Answer: A) Graphics tablet
20. What type of device is commonly used for video conferencing or recording?
 A) Webcam
 B) Network Interface Card (NIC)
 C) Scanner
 D) External hard drive
 Answer: A) Webcam

 What is the primary advantage of SSDs over Hard Disk Drives

(HDDs)?
 A) Higher storage capacity
 B) Lower cost
  C) Faster performance
 D) Greater durability
 Answer: C) Faster performance
 Why are SSDs generally more expensive than HDDs?
 A) Lower manufacturing costs
 B) Higher demand
 C) Faster read and write speeds
 D) Advanced data backup features
 Answer: C) Faster read and write speeds
 What is a potential drawback of SSDs in terms of data loss?
 A) They are more prone to physical damage
 B) They have lower storage capacity
 C) If they fail, data loss can occur without warning
 D) They are not suitable for gaming
 Answer: C) If they fail, data loss can occur without warning
 In which scenarios are SSDs particularly beneficial?
 A) Tasks requiring higher storage space
 B) Gaming and real-time computing
 C) Low-budget computing
 D) Archiving large files
 Answer: B) Gaming and real-time computing
 What is a key consideration for individuals who prioritize storage
space over speed?
 A) Opting for HDDs
 B) Investing in external SSDs
 C) Choosing SSDs with higher capacity
 D) Upgrading RAM
 Answer: A) Opting for HDDs
 Which of the following statements is true about the cost
comparison between SSDs and HDDs?
 A) SSDs are always cheaper than HDDs
 B) HDDs are always more expensive than SSDs
 C) SSDs are generally more costly than HDDs
 D) The cost of SSDs and HDDs is always the same
 Answer: C) SSDs are generally more costly than HDDs
  What is a recommended practice to mitigate the risk of data loss in
SSDs?
 A) Using SSDs exclusively for gaming
 B) Regularly backing up data
 C) Choosing SSDs with lower storage capacity
 D) Keeping SSDs in high-temperature environments
 Answer: B) Regularly backing up data

1. What is the primary function of a processor in a computer?

 A) Display graphics
 B) Store data
 C) Perform calculations
 D) Provide network connectivity

Answer: C) Perform calculations

2. Which term is often used interchangeably with "processor"?

 A) Monitor
 B) CPU
 C) RAM
 D) Hard Drive

Answer: B) CPU

3. What types of instructions does a processor execute?

 A) Only arithmetical instructions

 B) Only logical instructions
 C) Only input/output instructions
 D) Arithmetical, logical, and other basic instructions

Answer: D) Arithmetical, logical, and other basic instructions

4. What does the acronym GPU stand for in the context of computing?
 A) General Processing Unit
 B) Graphical Performance Unit
 C) Graphics Processing Unit
 D) General Purpose Unit

Answer: C) Graphics Processing Unit

5. How is a CPU different from a processor in the broader sense?

 A) CPU is a type of storage device

 B) Processor is a synonym for CPU
 C) CPU is the only processor in a computer
 D) Processor includes CPU and other types of processors

Answer: D) Processor includes CPU and other types of processors

6. Which operations are NOT typically performed by a processor?

 A) Arithmetical
 B) Logical
 C) Display graphics
 D) Input/output

Answer: C) Display graphics

7. What is the role of an operating system in relation to a processor?

 A) Manufacture processors
 B) Execute processor instructions
 C) Control and manage processor operations
 D) Design processor architecture

Answer: C) Control and manage processor operations

8. Besides the CPU, which component is mentioned as another type of

processor?
 A) RAM
 B) Hard Drive
 C) Graphics Card
 D) Monitor

Answer: C) Graphics Card

9. In modern usage, what term is often used incorrectly as a synonym for

the CPU?

 A) Microprocessor
 B) RAM
 C) GPU
 D) Hard Drive

Answer: A) Microprocessor

10. What can some hard drives be technically capable of, in addition to
storage?

 A) Display graphics
 B) Perform calculations
 C) Network connectivity
 D) Processing

Answer: D) Processing

1. What is the primary storage type for a computer's Basic Input/Output

System (BIOS)?

 A) Random Access Memory (RAM)

 B) Read-Only Memory (ROM)
 C) Flash Memory
 D) Hard Disk Drive (HDD)
 Answer: B) Read-Only Memory (ROM)
 2. When does the BIOS execute in a computer system?

 A) After the operating system is loaded

 B) During the shutdown process
 C) As the first program when the computer is powered up
 D) Only when prompted by the user
 Answer: C) As the first program when the computer is powered up

3. What is the primary function of the BIOS during the boot process?

 A) Running application programs

 B) Managing network connections
 C) Identifying and configuring hardware
 D) Creating backup copies of files
 Answer: C) Identifying and configuring hardware

4. Which term refers to the sequence of actions performed by the BIOS

when a computer is turned on?

 A) System Restore
 B) Boot Process
 C) BIOS Configuration
 D) Kernel Initialization
 Answer: B) Boot Process

5. What does POST stand for in the context of the BIOS?

 A) Personal Operating System Test

 B) Power-On Self-Training
 C) Pre-Operating System Task
 D) Power-On Self-Test
 Answer: D) Power-On Self-Test

6. Why is the BIOS considered firmware?

 A) It can be updated easily over the internet.

 B) It is stored in volatile memory.
 C) It is a combination of hardware and software.
 D) It is stored in nonvolatile memory and maintains its state even when
powered off.
 Answer: D) It is stored in nonvolatile memory and maintains its state
even when powered off.

1. What does VGA stand for?

 A) Video Graphics Adapter
 B) Visual Graphics Array
 C) Video Graphics Array
 D) Virtual Graphics Adapter
 Answer: C) Video Graphics Array
2. What is the maximum resolution supported by a standard VGA connection?
 A) 720p
 B) 1080p
 C) 1440p
 D) 640x480
 Answer: D) 640x480
3. Which of the following is a common use for VGA ports?
 A) Connecting printers
 B) Audio output
 C) Displaying video on monitors
 D) Network connectivity
 Answer: C) Displaying video on monitors

HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface):

4. What does HDMI stand for?

 A) High-Definition Multimedia Interface
 B) Hyperlink Data Management Interface
 C) High-Density Modulation Interface
 D) Hardware Device Monitoring Interface
 Answer: A) High-Definition Multimedia Interface
5. How many audio channels can HDMI support along with video signals?
 A) 2
 B) 4
 C) 6
 D) 8
  Answer: D) 8
6. Which of the following devices commonly uses HDMI for connection?
 A) Printers
 B) Gaming consoles
 C) Keyboards
 D) Optical drives
 Answer: B) Gaming consoles

NFC (Near Field Communication):

7. What does NFC stand for?

 A) Near Frequency Communication
 B) National File Consortium
 C) Near Field Communication
 D) Network File Compression
 Answer: C) Near Field Communication
8. What is the typical range of NFC communication?
 A) 10 meters
 B) 100 meters
 C) 1 meter
 D) 50 meters
 Answer: C) 1 meter
9. Which of the following is a common application of NFC technology?
 A) Wireless charging
 B) Contactless payments
 C) Satellite communication
 D) Optical character recognition
 Answer: B) Contactless payments

SATA (Serial ATA):

10. What does SATA stand for?

 A) Serial Advanced Technology Attachment
 B) Systematic ATA
 C) Sequential Access Technology Adapter
 D) Structured ATA
 Answer: A) Serial Advanced Technology Attachment
11. How many data cables are typically used in a SATA connection?
  A) 1
 B) 2
 C) 3
 D) 4
 Answer: A) 1
12. Which of the following is a common use for SATA connections?
 A) Video output
 B) Powering peripherals
 C) Data storage devices
 D) Network connectivity
 Answer: C) Data storage devices

RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks):

13. What does RAID stand for?

 A) Redundant Array of Independent Disks
 B) Random Access Integrated Drive
 C) Rapid Access for Intelligent Disk
 D) Relational Array of Indexed Drives
 Answer: A) Redundant Array of Independent Disks
14. Which RAID level provides both striping and mirroring?
 A) RAID 0
 B) RAID 1
 C) RAID 5
 D) RAID 10
 Answer: D) RAID 10
15. What is the primary purpose of RAID configurations?
 A) Enhancing graphics performance
 B) Improving network speed
 C) Redundancy and data protection
 D) Increasing processor speed
 Answer: C) Redundancy and data protection

GPU (Graphics Processing Unit):

16. What is the main function of a GPU?

 A) Managing network connections
 B) Processing graphics and images
  C) Storing data permanently
 D) Running operating system tasks
 Answer: B) Processing graphics and images
17. Which component is responsible for rendering images and videos in a
computer system?
 A) CPU
 B) GPU
 C) RAM
 D) HDD
 Answer: B) GPU
18. What type of memory is commonly found on a GPU for fast access to graphical
data?
 A) Random Access Memory (RAM)
 B) Flash Memory
 C) Video RAM (VRAM)
 D) Cache Memory
 Answer: C) Video RAM (VRAM)

Mixed Questions:

19. Which connection type is commonly used to connect a high-definition monitor

to a computer?
 A) VGA
 B) HDMI
 C) NFC
 D) SATA
 Answer: B) HDMI
20. What technology is often used for wireless data transfer between devices in
close proximity?
 A) SATA
 B) HDMI
 C) NFC
 D) RAID
 Answer: C) NFC
21. Which of the following is associated with data storage and commonly used for
connecting hard drives?
 A) VGA
 B) HDMI
  C) NFC
 D) SATA
 Answer: D) SATA
22. If you want to configure multiple hard drives for data protection and
performance, what technology would you likely use?
 A) RAID
 B) HDMI
 C) NFC
 D) GPU
 Answer: A) RAID
23. Which component is responsible for processing complex graphics tasks in a
gaming computer?
 A) CPU
 B) GPU
 C) RAM
 D) NFC
 Answer: B) GPU
24. What type of cable is commonly used to connect a computer to an older
monitor or projector?
 A) HDMI
 B) USB-C
 C) VGA
 D) SATA
 Answer: C) VGA
25. In a computer system, which technology is used to provide a fast, temporary
storage solution between the CPU and main memory?
 A) GPU
 B) SATA
 C) RAID
 D) Cache Memory
 Answer: D) Cache Memory

1. What is machine language also known as?

 A) High-level language
 B) Assembly language
 C) Machine code
 D) Source code
 Answer: C) Machine code

2. What is machine language primarily composed of?

 A) Letters and symbols

 B) Decimal numbers
 C) Binary numbers or bits
 D) Hexadecimal code
 Answer: C) Binary numbers or bits

3. Which of the following is true about machine language?

 A) It is easy to comprehend.
 B) It is used in high-level programming languages.
 C) It is executed directly by the computer's processor.
 D) It is written in natural language.
 Answer: C) It is executed directly by the computer's processor.

4. What does machine language serve as for other programming

languages?

 A) Source code
 B) Assembly code
 C) Object code
 D) Bytecode
 Answer: C) Object code

5. Why is machine language considered tough to comprehend?

 A) It uses complex mathematical functions.

 B) It is written in a foreign language.
 C) It consists of binary numbers.
 D) It requires internet connectivity.
 Answer: C) It consists of binary numbers.

6. What type of data do computers understand, making machine

language essential?
 A) Analog data
 B) Hexadecimal data
 C) Decimal data
 D) Binary data
 Answer: D) Binary data

1. What is Assembly Language?

a. High-level programming language

b. Low-level programming language
c. Markup language
d. Scripting language

Answer: b. Low-level programming language

2. What is the primary purpose of assembly code?

a. Human-readable documentation
b. Directly execute complex algorithms
c. Create graphical user interfaces
d. Enhance network connectivity

Answer: b. Directly execute complex algorithms

3. How is assembly code converted into machine code?

a. Compilation
b. Interpretation
c. Assembling
d. Linking

Answer: c. Assembling

4. What does the term "assembly time" refer to in the context of

programming?
 a. The time taken to execute a program
b. The time taken for code compilation
c. The time taken for code interpretation
d. The time taken during the assembly process

Answer: d. The time taken during the assembly process

5. Which component is responsible for converting assembly code into

machine code?

a. Compiler
b. Interpreter
c. Assembler
d. Linker

Answer: c. Assembler

6. What is the relationship between assembly language instructions and

machine code instructions?

a. Weak correspondence
b. No correspondence
c. Strong correspondence
d. Random correspondence

Answer: c. Strong correspondence

1. What is a high-level programming language?

 A. A language used for low-level machine instructions
 B. A language that is closer to human languages
 C. A language used exclusively for hardware programming
 D. A language that directly communicates with hardware registers
Answer: B
2. Which of the following is considered a high-level programming
language?
 A. Assembly language
 B. Machine code
  C. C++
 D. Binary code
Answer: C
3. What is the main advantage of high-level languages?
 A. Closer proximity to machine languages
 B. More efficient execution
 C. Greater portability and readability
 D. Direct control over hardware resources
Answer: C
4. What is the purpose of a compiler in programming?
 A. Executes a program
 B. Translates source code into machine code
 C. Interprets high-level code directly
 D. Debugs the code in real-time
Answer: B
5. Which programming languages are typically used for low-level
programming close to hardware?
 A. High-level languages
 B. Assembly languages
 C. Scripting languages
 D. Functional languages
Answer: B
6. In the context of programming languages, what does bytecode refer to?
 A. Code written in binary format
 B. Intermediate code generated by a compiler
 C. Code that can only be executed on specific hardware
 D. Machine code translated from assembly language
Answer: B
7. How does an interpreter differ from a compiler in terms of reading
source code?
 A. An interpreter reads the entire source code at once
 B. A compiler reads the source code line by line
 C. Both interpreter and compiler read the whole source code at once
 D. An interpreter only reads code written in high-level languages
Answer: A
8. What does an interpreter do when it encounters an error in the code?
 A. Stops execution and reports the error
 B. Continues executing the code with warnings
 C. Ignores the error and proceeds
 D. Rewrites the code to correct the error
Answer: A
9. How does a compiler handle errors in the source code?
 A. Ignores errors and continues execution
 B. Reports errors after the entire code is executed
 C. Stops execution and reports the first encountered error
 D. Fixes errors automatically during execution
Answer: B
10. Which of the following is an example of a high-level programming
language used for scientific and engineering applications?
 A. Java
 B. FORTRAN
 C. Python
 D. HTML

Answer: B

11. What is the primary role of the central processing unit (CPU) in a
computer system?
 A. Execute high-level programming languages
 B. Manage peripheral devices
 C. Interpret assembly language instructions
 D. Perform arithmetic and logic operations

Answer: D

12. Which type of language is closer to machine languages and is specific to

a particular computer architecture?
 A. High-level language
 B. Assembly language
 C. Machine code
 D. Low-level language
 Answer: B

13. What is the primary function of a network interface card (NIC) in a

computer system?
 A. Translate high-level code into machine code
 B. Enable wireless network connections
 C. Facilitate communication between computers on a network
 D. Provide additional storage for data transfer

Answer: C

14. Which device is responsible for converting physical documents or images

into a digital format?
 A. Scanner
 B. Printer
 C. Webcam
 D. Microphone

Answer: A

15. What is the purpose of a graphics tablet in computing?

 A. Display visual output
 B. Input text and commands
 C. Enable digital drawing and handwriting input
 D. Provide private audio output

Answer: C

16. Which programming language is often used for developing web

applications and dynamic content on websites?
 A. C
 B. Python
 C. JavaScript
 D. Swift

Answer: C
17. In the context of programming, what does the term "portability" refer
to?
 A. Ability to connect peripherals
 B. Ability to run on different computer systems
 C. Ability to generate machine code
 D. Ability to compile source code

Answer: B

18. What type of programming languages are Java and C++ considered?
 A. Low-level languages
 B. Assembly languages
 C. High-level languages
 D. Scripting languages

Answer: C

19. Which output device is used for producing hard copies of documents?
 A. Monitor
 B. Printer
 C. Projector
 D. Speakers

Answer: B

20. What does an external hard drive provide to a computer system?

 A. Additional processing power
 B. Extra memory for the CPU
 C. Increased network speed
 D. Additional storage capacity

Answer: D

21. Which of the following is a security device that uses fingerprints or other
biometric data for authentication?
 A. Webcam
  B. Biometric Scanner
 C. Modem
 D. External Drive Bay
Answer: B
22. What does VR stand for in the context of computing?
 A. Visual Rendering
 B. Virtual Reality
 C. Voice Recognition
 D. Variable Resolution
Answer: B
23. Which of the following is a feature of high-level programming
languages?
 A. Closer proximity to machine languages
 B. Increased difficulty in code readability
 C. Greater reliance on hardware-specific instructions
 D. Easier expression of complex algorithms
Answer: D
24. Which programming language is often used for developing system-level
applications and operating systems?
 A. Java
 B. C++
 C. Python
 D. HTML
Answer: B

Operating Systems:
1. What is the primary purpose of an operating system?
 A. Run applications
 B. Manage hardware resources
 C. Both A and B
 D. None of the above
Answer: C
2. Which component is NOT typically part of an operating system?
  A. CPU
 B. Monitor
 C. Motherboard
 D. Power Supply
Answer: B
3. What is the role of a bootloader in the boot process?
 A. Manages user authentication
 B. Loads the operating system into memory
 C. Handles file system operations
 D. Controls peripheral devices
Answer: B

Windows Operating System:

4. Which version of Windows introduced the Start menu?
 A. Windows XP
 B. Windows 7
 C. Windows 8
 D. Windows 10
Answer: A
5. What is the primary function of the Windows Registry?
 A. File system management
 B. System configuration settings
 C. Application installation
 D. Network connectivity
Answer: B
6. During the installation of a Windows OS, what is the purpose of the
"format" option for a disk partition?
 A. Install device drivers
 B. Create a new partition
 C. Erase data and prepare for file storage
 D. Upgrade the operating system
Answer: C

Linux Operating System:

7. What is the core component of the Linux operating system kernel?
 A. Bash shell
 B. GNOME desktop environment
 C. GNU utilities
 D. The Linux kernel
Answer: D
8. Which Linux distribution is known for its focus on stability and long-term
support (LTS)?
 A. Ubuntu
 B. Fedora
 C. CentOS
 D. Arch Linux
Answer: C
9. What is the purpose of the /etc directory in the Linux file system?
 A. Temporary files storage
 B. System configuration files
 C. User home directories
 D. Application executables
Answer: B

Partitions and Comparison:

10. What is the primary advantage of using disk partitions in both Windows
and Linux?
 A. Improved security
 B. Better performance
 C. Enhanced data organization and management
 D. Increased storage capacity
Answer: C
11. Which command-line utility can be used to view disk partition
information in Linux?
 A. fdisk
 B. chkdsk
 C. diskpart
 D. format
 Answer: A

Virtual Machines:
12. What is the purpose of a virtual machine (VM)?
 A. Run multiple operating systems on a single physical machine
 B. Increase CPU speed
 C. Expand RAM capacity
 D. Enhance

Process Management:

1. Question: What is the primary responsibility of process management in an

operating system?
 A. File storage
 B. CPU utilization and scheduling
 C. Network configuration
 D. Printer management
 Answer: B. CPU utilization and scheduling
2. Question: What is a process in the context of process management?
 A. A running application
 B. A file on the hard disk
 C. A peripheral device
 D. A network protocol
 Answer: A. A running application

File Management:

3. Question: In a file system, what is a directory?

 A. A type of file
 B. A storage device
 C. A collection of files
 D. A network protocol
 Answer: C. A collection of files
4. Question: What is the purpose of file permissions in a file management system?
 A. To organize files
 B. To restrict access to files
  C. To compress files
 D. To rename files
 Answer: B. To restrict access to files

Network Management:

5. Question: What does IP address stand for in the context of network management?
 A. Internet Provider address
 B. Internal Protocol address
 C. Internet Protocol address
 D. Interconnect Point address
 Answer: C. Internet Protocol address
6. Question: What is the purpose of a router in network management?
 A. File storage
 B. CPU scheduling
 C. Data packet forwarding
 D. Printer management
 Answer: C. Data packet forwarding

Main Memory Management:

7. Question: What is the role of the Memory Management Unit (MMU) in main
memory management?
 A. Manage CPU processes
 B. Manage file storage
 C. Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses
 D. Manage network connections
 Answer: C. Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses
8. Question: What is virtual memory?
 A. Physical RAM
 B. Hard disk space used as an extension of RAM
 C. CPU cache
 D. Network storage
 Answer: B. Hard disk space used as an extension of RAM

Secondary Storage Management:

9. Question: Which of the following is an example of secondary storage?

  A. RAM
 B. CPU cache
 C. Hard disk drive
 D. CPU registers
 Answer: C. Hard disk drive
10. Question: What is the purpose of a file system in secondary storage management?
 A. Manage CPU processes
 B. Organize and store data on storage devices
 C. Translate virtual addresses
 D. Manage network connections
 Answer: B. Organize and store data on storage devices

I/O Device Management:

11. Question: What is the role of device drivers in I/O device management?
 A. Manage CPU processes
 B. Translate virtual addresses
 C. Interface with hardware devices
 D. Manage network connections
 Answer: C. Interface with hardware devices
12. Question: Which of the following is an input device?
 A. Printer
 B. Monitor
 C. Keyboard
 D. Speakers
 Answer: C. Keyboard

Security Management:

13. Question: What is the purpose of encryption in security management?

 A. File organization
 B. Restricting access to files
 C. Securing data by converting it into a coded format
 D. Managing network connections
 Answer: C. Securing data by converting it into a coded format
14. Question: What is a firewall used for in security management?
 A. File storage
 B. CPU scheduling
  C. Monitor and control network traffic
 D. Printer management
 Answer: C. Monitor and control network traffic

Command Interpreter System:

15. Question: What is the primary function of a command interpreter (shell)?

 A. Manage CPU processes
 B. Interpret and execute user commands
 C. Manage file storage
 D. Translate virtual addresses
 Answer: B. Interpret and execute user commands
16. Question: Which command is used to list files in a directory in a command-line
interface (CLI)?
 A. DIR (Windows) or LS (Unix/Linux)
 B. CD
 C. COPY
 D. DEL (Windows) or RM (Unix/Linux)
 Answer: A. DIR (Windows) or LS (Unix/Linux)

1. Question: Which Windows version was released in 1985 as the first version of the
Microsoft Windows operating system?
 A. Windows 1.0
 B. Windows 3.1
 C. Windows 95
 D. Windows XP
 Answer: A. Windows 1.0
 Release Date: November 1985
2. Question: Windows 95 introduced the iconic Start menu and Taskbar. In which year
was Windows 95 released?
 A. 1992
 B. 1995
 C. 1998
 D. 2000
 Answer: B. 1995
 Release Date: August 24, 1995
3. Question: Windows XP was known for its stability and user interface overhaul. When
was Windows XP officially released?
  A. 1998
 B. 2000
 C. 2001
 D. 2005
 Answer: C. 2001
 Release Date: October 25, 2001
4. Question: The successor to Windows XP, which Windows version had the codename
"Longhorn" during its development phase?
 A. Windows Vista
 B. Windows 7
 C. Windows 8
 D. Windows 10
 Answer: A. Windows Vista
 Release Date: January 30, 2007
5. Question: Windows 7 was praised for its improved performance and streamlined
user interface. In which year was Windows 7 released?
 A. 2008
 B. 2009
 C. 2010
 D. 2011
 Answer: B. 2009
 Release Date: October 22, 2009
6. Question: Windows 8 introduced the Metro user interface. What was the release
year of Windows 8?
 A. 2011
 B. 2012
 C. 2013
 D. 2014
 Answer: B. 2012
 Release Date: October 26, 2012
7. Question: Windows 10 is known for its continuous updates and the introduction of
the Windows as a Service (WaaS) model. When was Windows 10 officially released?
 A. 2014
 B. 2015
 C. 2016
 D. 2017
 Answer: B. 2015
 Release Date: July 29, 2015
8. Question: Which version of Windows was released with a focus on bridging the gap
between traditional desktop computing and touchscreen devices?
 A. Windows 7
 B. Windows 8
 C. Windows 10
 D. Windows XP
 Answer: B. Windows 8
 Release Date: October 26, 2012

1. What is the primary responsibility of the Linux kernel?

 A) Execute application programs

 B) Interact with system libraries
 C) Manage hardware and core OS activities
 D) Provide graphical user interfaces

Answer: C) Manage hardware and core OS activities

2. Which component of Linux hides low-level hardware details from

system or application programs?

 A) System Libraries
 B) Kernel
 C) System Utilities
 D) Application Programs

Answer: B) Kernel

3. What is the role of System Libraries in Linux?

 A) Execute application programs

 B) Manage hardware resources
 C) Implement most operating system functionalities
 D) Perform specialized tasks

Answer: C) Implement most operating system functionalities

 4. What type of access rights are NOT required by System Libraries in
Linux?

 A) Kernel module code access rights

 B) Read access to application programs
 C) Execute access for system utilities
 D) Write access for managing hardware

Answer: A) Kernel module code access rights

5. Which Linux component is responsible for specialized, individual-level

tasks?

 A) Kernel
 B) System Libraries
 C) System Utilities
 D) Application Programs

Answer: C) System Utilities

6. What does the Linux kernel provide to hide low-level hardware details?

 A) Abstraction
 B) Encryption
 C) Compression
 D) Virtualization

Answer: A) Abstraction

7. Which component directly interacts with the underlying hardware in

Linux?

 A) System Libraries
 B) Application Programs
 C) System Utilities
 D) Kernel
 Answer: D) Kernel

8. What do System Utilities in Linux primarily focus on?

 A) Managing hardware resources

 B) Implementing core OS functionalities
 C) Performing specialized tasks
 D) Interacting with system libraries

Answer: C) Performing specialized tasks

9. Which part of Linux is responsible for abstracting hardware details to

application programs?

 A) System Libraries
 B) System Utilities
 C) Kernel
 D) Application Programs

Answer: C) Kernel

10. What is the main purpose of System Libraries in Linux?

 A) Execute application programs

 B) Manage hardware resources
 C) Implement most operating system functionalities
 D) Perform specialized tasks

Answer: C) Implement most operating system functionalities