SCIENCE OPEN MERIT TEST 2019-20

[Organized by Delhi State Science Teachers’ Forum (Regd.]

Maximum Marks : 150 Time Allowed : 2 Hours

   Candidate's Roll No. This Booklet contains 32 pages.

bl iqfLrdk esa 32 i`"B gSaA

TEST BOOKLET
ijh{kk iqfLrdk
General Instructions (lkekU; funsZ'k)%
1. Attempt all questions. Each question carries ONE mark.
lHkh iz'u vfuok;Z gSaA lHkh iz'u ,d vad osQ gSaA
2. There are 150 multiple choice questions in total. Only ONE of the options in every question is correct.
bl iz'ui=k esa oqQy 150 cgqfodYih iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u esa osQoy ,d gh fodYi lgh gSA
3. Mark cross (X) only in one box for response against each question. The response once marked is not
liable to be changed. More than one response indicated against a question will be deemed as incorrect
response.
izR;sd iz'u osQ mÙkj osQ fy, iz'u osQ lkeus ckWDl esa ØkWl (X) vafdr dhft,A ,d ckj vafdr fd;k x;k mÙkj ifjofrZr
ugha fd;k tk ldrk gSA fdlh iz'u osQ lkeus ,d ls vf/d mÙkj vafdr djus ij mls xyr mÙkj ekuk tk,xkA
4. Way of marking: If your response of question number 14 is 3, mark cross (X) as shown below:
vadu dk <ax% ;fn vkidk iz'u la[;k 14 dk mÙkj 3 gS rks] ckWDl esa uhps fn[kk, vuqlkj ØkWl (X) yxkb,%
Q. No. 1 2 3 4

14

5. Use Blue/Black ball point pen only to write on the answer sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
mÙkji=k ij fy[kus osQ fy, osQoy uhys@dkys ckWy ikWbUV isu dk gh mi;ksx dhft,A isafly dk mi;ksx loZFkk oftZr
gSA
6. Check carefully the test booklet. For any discrepancy, report the matter to the invigilator for replacement
of the test booklet. Tearing off any page from the test booklet is strictly prohibited.
ijh{kk iqfLrdk dh lko/kuhiwoZd tk¡p dhft,A ;fn dksbZ deh gS] rks fujh{kd dks bldh lwpuk nhft, rFkk ijh{kk
iqfLrdk dks cnyus dk vkxzg dhft,A ijh{kk iqfLrdk dk dksbZ i`"B iQkM+uk loZFkk oftZr gSA
7. Leaving the examination hall within one hour from the start is not allowed. However, in emergency
the candidates will not be allowed to carry the question booklet before the test is finally over.
ijh{kk vkjaHk gksus osQ i'pkr~ ,d ?kaVs ls igys ijh{kk Hkou NksM+uk oftZr gSA ijarq] vkikr fLFkfr esa ijh{kk lekIr
gksus ls igys ijh{kk iqfLrdk ys tkus dh vuqefr ugha nh tk,xhA
Note: Write your Roll No. in the space provided on the answer sheet given on the back of this test booklet.
uksV% bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk osQ ihNs fn, x, mÙkj&i=k ij fu;r LFkku ij viuk vuqØekad fyf[k,A
 2

1. The given ray diagram shows four rays A, B, C and 1. fn, x, fdj.k vkjs[k esa pkj fdj.ksa A, B, C rFkk D fdlh
D incident on a spherical mirror. For which ray, the xksyh; niZ.k ij vkifrr fn[kkbZ x;h gSaA buesa ls fdl
angle between the incident ray and reflected ray is fdj.k osQ fy, vkifrr fdj.k rFkk ijkofrZr fdj.k osQ
likely to be 90°? chp 90° dk dks.k gks ldrk gS\
IIII IIII
III III
I I A I I
A

III
III

IIII
IIII

IIII
IIII

IIIIII
IIIIII

IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII
IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII
C F C F

B B

I
C

I
I

I
I

I
I

IIII
IIIII

III
III

I
III
I

III III
III III
III
D D
(1) Ray A. (2) Ray B. (1) fdj.k A (2) fdj.k B
(3) Ray C. (4) Ray D. (3) fdj.k C (4) fdj.k D
2. Given ray diagram shows three parallel rays 2. fn, x, fdj.k vkjs[k esa rhu lekUrj fdj.ksa fdlh vory
incident on a concave mirror. After reflection at niZ.k ij vkifrr fn[kkbZ xbZ gSa 1 niZ.k ij ijkorZu osQ
the mirror, the rays will converge at: i'pkr ;s fdj.ksa ftl fcanq ij vfHklfjr gksxh og
IIII IIII
III III
F I I F I I
III

III
IIII

IIII
IIII

IIII
IIIIII

IIIIII
IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII

IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII
C F C F
I

I
I

I
I

I
I

I
I

I
IIIII

IIIII
III

III
III

III
I

III
I

III
F
III
F
III III
III

(1) the point F. (1) fcanq F gksxkA

(2) any point on the line FF'. (2) js[kk FF' ij dksbZ fcanq gksxkA
(3) any point on the line FF''. (3) js[kk FF'' ij dksbZ fcanq gksxkA
(4) the point C. (4) fcanq C gksxkA
3. The given ray diagram shows the image of an 3. fn, x, fp=k esa vory niZ.k osQ lkeus j[ks fdlh fcEc
object formed by a convex mirror placed in front dk niZ.k }kjk cus mlosQ izfrfcEc dk fdj.k vkjs[k n'kkZ;k
of it. Which of the following distances would be x;k gSA ubZ dkrhZ; fpg~u i¼fr osQ vuqlkj fuEu esa ls
expressed with a positive sign according to the New fdu nwfj;ksa dks /u fpg~u osQ lkFk O;Dr fd;k tk;sxk\
Cartesian Sign Convention?
 3

M M
r r
r r

A A
A A

B P B F C B P B F C

N N
(1) Focal length and object distance.
(2) Height of image and image distance.
(3) Height of object and object distance.
(4) Height of image and object distance.
4. Which of the following spherical mirror would you
like to recommend for shaving mirror?
(1) A spherical mirror of focal length – 100.00 cm.
(2) A spherical mirror of focal length – 15.00 cm.
(3) A spherical mirror of focal length + 100.00 cm
(4) A spherical mirror of focal length + 15.00 cm.
5. An object is placed in front of a concave mirror of
focal length 20 cm at a distance of 10 cm from its
pole. The nature of the image formed would be–
(1) Real and erect.
(2) Virtual and erect.
(3) Real and inverted.
(4) Virtual and inverted.
6. As the angle of incidence is increased for a
ray incident on a reflecting surface, the angle
between the incident and reflected rays ultimately
approaches what value?
(1) zero (2) 45°
(3) 90° (4) 180°
(1) iQksdl nwjh rFkk fcEc dh nwjhA
(2) izfrfcEc dh Å¡pkbZ rFkk izfrfcEc dh nwjhA
(3) fcEc dh Å¡pkbZ rFkk fcEc dh nwjhA
(4) izfrfcEc dh Å¡pkbZ rFkk fcEc dh nwjhA
4. fuEu esa ls fdl xksyh; niZ.k dks vki nk<+h cukus osQ
fy, mi;qDr niZ.k osQ :i esa mi;ksx djus dh lykg
nsaxs\
(1) – 100.00 cm iQksdl nwjh dk dksbZ niZ.kA
(2) – 15.00 cm iQksdl nwjh dk dksbZ niZ.kA
(3) + 100.00 cm iQksdl nwjh dk dksbZ niZ.kA
(4) + 15.00 cm iQksdl nwjh dk dksbZ niZ.kA
5. 20 cm iQksdl nwjh osQ fdlh vory niZ.k osQ lkeus blosQ
/qzo ls 10 cm dh nwjh ij dksbZ fcEc j[kk gSA fufeZr
izfrfcEc dh izÑfr gksxhµ
(1) okLrfod vkSj lh/kA
(2) vkHkklh vkSj lh/kA
(3) okLrfod vkSj mYVkA
(4) vkHkklh vkSj mYVkA
6. fdlh ijkorZd i`"V ij vkifrr fdj.k osQ fy, tSls&tSls
vkiru dks.k c<+k;k tkrk gS rks vkifrr fdj.k vkSj
ijkofrZr fdj.k osQ chp dks.k dk eku vUrr% D;k gks
tkrk gS\
(1) 'kwU; (2) 45°
(3) 90° (4) 180°

7. A 3 cm tall object is placed in front of a convex
mirror of focal length 10 cm. If the object distance
is 20 cm, the image formed will be–
(1) 1 cm tall, 6.7 cm behind the mirror.
(2) 1 cm tall, 6.7 cm in front of the mirror.
(3) 2 cm tall, 10 cm behind the mirror.
(4) 2 cm tall, 10 cm in front of the mirror.
8. An object is placed at the focus F of a convex lens.
A plane mirror is held perpendicular to the axis of
the lens on its other side. Which of the following
statements is correct?
(1) A real, erect and enlarged image will be formed
at infinity.
(2) A real, inverted an enlarged image will be
formed at infinity.
(3) A real and inverted image having same size as
the object will be formed at F.
(4) A real and erect image having same size as the
object will be formed at F.
9. Which part of the eye is transplanted to impart
vision to a visually impaired person?
(1) Iris. (2) Cornea.
(3) Retina. (4) Crystaline lens.
10. A concave mirror has a focal length of 20 cm. The
image of an object placed in front of it is of the
same size as the object. The object distance is:
(1) 20 cm. (2) 40 cm.
(3) 10 cm. (4) 30 cm.
11. Which of the following is true about the image of
a candle flame placed at the centre of curvature of
a concave mirror?
(1) It overlaps the object flame such that the two
cannot be seen separately.
(2) It is inverted vertically as well as laterally with
respect to the object.
(3) It is of the same size as the object and has no
lateral inversion.
(4) It is of same size but is neither inverted vertically
nor laterally with respect to the object.
4
7. 3 cm m¡QpkbZ dk ,d fcEc 10 cm focal nwjh osQ mÙky
niZ.k osQ lkeus j[kk gSA ;fn fcEc dh nwjh 20 cm gks rks
fufeZr izfrfcEc cusxkµ
(1) 1 cm Å¡pk] niZ.k osQ ihNs 6.7 cm nwjh ijA
(2) 1 cm Å¡pk] niZ.k osQ lkeus 6.7 cm nwjh ijA
(3) 2 cm Å¡pk] niZ.k osQ ihNs 10 cm nwjh ijA
(4) 2 cm Å¡pk] niZ.k osQ lkeus 10 cm nwjh ijA
8. dksbZ fiaM fdlh mÙky ysal osQ iQksdl fcanq F ij j[kk gSA
ysal osQ nwljh vksj mlosQ v{k osQ yEcor~ ,d lery
niZ.k j[kk gSA fuEu esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgh gS\
(1) vuar ij okLrfod] lh/k rFkk vR;f/d cM+k izfrfcEc
cusxkA
(2) vuar ij okLrfod] mYVk rFkk vR;f/d cM+k izfrfcEc
cusxkA
(3) fcEc osQ cjkcj lkbT+k dk okLrfod rFkk mYVk
izfrfcEc F ij cusxkA
(4) fcEc osQ cjkcj lkbT+k dk okLrfod rFkk lh/k
izfrfcEc F ij cusxkA
9. fdlh n`f"V ckf/r O;fDr dks n`f"V iznku djus osQ fy,
vk¡[k osQ fdl Hkkx dk izR;kjksi.k fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) ifjrkfjdk (2) LoLN eaMy
(3) n`f"ViVy (4) fØLVyh; ysalA
10. fdlh vory niZ.k dh iQksdl nwjh 20 cm gSA blosQ
lkeus j[ks fdlh fcEc dk leku lkbT+k dk izfrfcEc curk
gSA niZ.k ls fcEc dh nwjh gS%
(1) 20 cm (2) 40 cm
(3) 10 cm (4) 30 cm
11. fdlh vory niZ.k osQ oØrk osaQnz ij ,d izTofyr
eksecÙkh j[kh gSA Tokyk osQ izfrfcEc osQ fo"k; esa fuEu
esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS\
(1) ;g fcEc Tokyk dks bl izdkj <d ysxh fd nksuks
dks vyx&vyx ns[kuk laHko ugha gksxkA
(2) ;g fcEc osQ lkis{k ÅèokZ/jr% rFkk ikf'Zodr% nksuksa
gh izdkj ls mYVk gksxkA
(3) ;g lkbT+k esa fcEc osQ cjkcj gksxk rFkk blesa ikf'Zod
foLFkkiu ugha gksxkA
(4) ;g lkbT+k esa fcEc osQ cjkcj gksxk ijUrq fcEc osQ
lkis{k ;g u gh ÅèokZ/jr% vkSj u gh ikf'Zod mYVk
gksxkA
 5

12. An object of height 3.0 cm is placed vertically at 12. 3-0 cm Å¡pkbZ dk dksbZ fcEc fdlh mÙky ySal ls 37.5
37.5 cm from a convex lens. An image of height cm dh nwjh ij ÅèokZ/j j[kk gS ftldk ysal ls 25.0
–2.0 cm is formed at 25.0 cm from the lens. Next, cm dh nwjh ij –2.0 cm Å¡pk izfrfcEc curk gSA vc
the same object is placed vertically at 25.0 cm from mlh fcEc dks ysal ls 25.0 cm ij ÅèokZ/j j[kk tkrk
the lens. Which of the following gives the correct gSA fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dFku izfrfcEc dh nwjh v rFkk
values of image distance v and height h of the image mldh Å¡pkbZ h dk lgh fooj.k izLrqr djrk gS\
in the new situation?
(1) v = + 37.5 cm and h = + 4.5 cm. (1) v = + 37.5 cm rFkk h = + 4.5 cm.
(2) v = – 37.5 cm and h = + 4.5 cm. (2) v = + 37.5 cm rFkk h = + 4.5 cm.
(3) v = + 37.5 cm and h = – 4.5 cm. (3) v = + 37.5 cm rFkk h = – 4.5 cm.
(4) v = – 37.5 cm and h = – 4.5 cm. (4) v = – 37.5 cm rFkk h = – 4.5 cm.
13. A glass rod when rubbed with a piece of silk 13. fdlh dk¡p dh NM+ dks flYd ls jxM+us ij blesa
acquires +1 nC of charge. How many electrons has +1 nC vkos'k vk tkrk gSA dk¡p dh NM+ us fdrus bysDVªkWu
it lost or gained? [kks, ;k ik, gSa\
(1) lost 6.25 × 109 electrons. (1) 6.25 × 109 bysDVªkWu [kks, gSaA
(2) gained 6.25 × 109 electrons. (2) 6.25 × 109 bysDVªkWu ik, gSaA
(3) lost 6.25 × 1018 electrons. (3) 6.25 × 1018 bysDVªkWu [kks, gSaA
(4) gained 6.25 × 1018 electrons. (4) 6.25 × 1018 bysDVªkWu ik, gSaA
14. The power of a combination of two lenses in contact is 14. ijLij laioZQ esa j[ks nks ysalksa osQ la;kstu dh {kerk
–0.5 D. If the focal length of one of the lenses be +50.00 µ 0.5 D gSA ;fn buesa ls ,d ysal dh iQksdl nwjh +
cm, the focal length of the other lens should be: 50.00 cm gks rks nwljs ysal dh iQksdl nwjh gksuh pkfg,%
(1) – 66.67 cm (2) + 66.67 cm (1) – 66.67 cm (2) + 66.67 cm
(3) – 40.00 cm (4) + 40.00 cm (3) – 40.00 cm (4) + 40.00 cm
15. A force of 5 N, when applied on a body of mass m1 15. 5 N dk dksbZ cy] tc m1 kg nzO;eku osQ fiaM ij yxk;k
kg accelerates it through 10 ms–2 and when applied tkrk gS rks blesa 10 ms–2 dk Roj.k mRiUu djrk gS vkSj
on a body of mass m2 kg accelerates it through 20 tc m2 kg nzO;eku osQ fiaM ij yxk;k tkrk gS rks blesa
ms–2. The acceleration of combined mass (m1 + m2) 20 ms–2 dk Roj.k mRiUu djrk gSA 5 N cy yxkus ij
under force 5 N will be– la;qDr nzO;eku (m1 + m2) dk Roj.k gksxkµ
(1) 15 m s–2. (2) 6.67 m s–2. (1) 15 m s–2. (2) 6.67 m s–2.
(3) 30 m s–2. (4) 10 m s–2. (3) 30 m s . –2 (4) 10 m s–2.
16. A 3 V battery is connected to a 12 W resistor through 16. 3 V dh dksbZ cSVjh ,d oqaQth osQ }kjk 12 W osQ fdlh
a key. If the current is switched ON for 20 s, the izfrjks/d ls tqM+h gSA ;fn oqaQth dks 20 s osQ fy, ^vkWu*
charge that will pass through the circuit will be: fd;k tk;s rks ifjiFk ls izokfgr vkos'k gksxk%
(1) (1/80) C (2) (1/5) C (1) (1/80) C. (2) (1/5) C.
(3) 5 C (4) 80 C (3) 5 C. (4) 80 C.
17. When three resistors of resistances 1 W, 3 W and 17. 1 W, 3 W rFkk 6 W izfrjks/ osQ rhu izfrjks/dksa osQ Js.kh
6 W arranged in series are connected to a battery, Øe la;kstu dks fdlh cSVjh ls tksM+us ij 12 W dh
the power consumed is 12 W. If the parallel 'kfDr [kpZ gksrh gSA ;fn bu izfrjks/dksa osQ ik'oZ la;kstu
combination of the three resistors is connected to dks mlh cSVjh ls tksM+k tk;s rks ifjiFk esa [kpZ gksus okyh
the same battery, the power consumed will be: 'kfDr dk eku gksxk%
(1) 18 W. (2) 36 W. (1) 18 W. (2) 36 W.
(3) 180 W. (4) 360 W. (3) 180 W. (4) 360 W.
 6

18. A current carrying solenoid will NOT exert a force on
(1) a bar magnet placed in its magnetic field.
(2) a charge moving along its axis.
(3) an electron moving perpendicular to its field.
(4) a bar magnet moving perpendicular to its
magnetic field.
19. Given circuit diagram shows two parallel combina-
tions of resistors connected in series with a battery
and a switch. The total current and the effective
resistance in the circuit will respectively be:
24  24  24  24
18. dksbZ /kjkokgh ifjukfydk dksbZ cy vkjksfir ugha djsxh
(1) mlosQ pqEcdh; {ks=k esa j[ks fdlh NM+ pqEcd ijA
(2) mlosQ v{k osQ vuqfn'k xfr'khy fdlh vkos'k ijA
(3) mlosQ pqEcdh; {ks=k osQ yEcor~ xfr'khy fdlh
bysDVªkWu ijA
(4) mlosQ pqEcdh; {ks=k osQ yEcor~ xfr'khy fdlh NM+
pqEcd ijA
19. fn, x, ifjiFk vkjs[k esa izfrjks/dksa osQ nks ik'oZ la;kstuksa
dks fdlh cSVjh rFkk oqaQth ls Js.kh Øe esa tksM+k x;k gSA
ifjiFk esa izokfgr oqQy /kjk rFkk izHkkoh izfrjks/ osQ eku
Øe'k% gksaxs


12  24  12  24 

10 V 10 V

(1) 0.11 A and 108 W. (2) 0.5 A and 20 W. (1) 0.11 A rFkk 108 W. (2) 0.5 A rFkk 20 W.
(3) 0.67 A and 8 W. (4) 2.0 A and 24 W. (3) 0.67 A rFkk 8 W. (4) 2.0 A rFkk 24 W.
20. Electrical resistivity of four substances A, B, C 20. pkj inkFkks± A, B, C vkSj D dh oSn~;qr izfrjks/drk Øe'k%
and D are 49 × 10–6 Wm, 2.63 × 10–8 Wm, 1.84 × 49 × 10–6 Wm, 2.63 × 10–8 Wm, 1.84 × 10–6 Wm rFkk
10–6 Wm and 1.62 × 10–8 Wm respectively. Wires 1.62 × 10–8 Wm gSA bu inkFkks± esa ls fdlosQ rkj fon~;qr
of which of these materials will be most suitable ifjiFkksa esa la;kstd rkjksa osQ :i esa lcls mi;qDr gksaxs\
to be used as connecting wires in electric circuits?
(1) Substances A and B. (2) Substances B and C. (1) inkFkZ A vkSj BA (2) inkFkZ B vkSj CA
(3) Substances B and D. (4) Substances A and C. (3) inkFkZ B vkSj DA (4) inkFkZ A vkSj CA
21. Which one of the following sets include devices 21. fuEu esa ls fdl lsV esa nh x;h ;qfDr;k¡ fon~;qr~ ifjiFkksa
that are used in electrical circuits for their safety? dks lqjf{kr j[kus osQ fy, mi;ksx dh tkrh gSa\
(1) Switch, tester and fuse. (1) oqaQth] VsLVj ,oa Ý;wT+kA
(2) Tester, fuse and MCB. (2) VsLVj] Ý;wT+k ,oa MCBA
(3) Switch, fuse and MCB. (3) oqaQth] Ý;wT+k ,oa MCBA
(4) MCB, switch and tester. (4) MCB, oqaQth ,oa VsLVjA

22. In domestic electric circuits, all appliances are
connected in parallel to the live wire so as to
(1) ensure that each one of them receives equal
current.
(2) ensure that each one of them is supplied current
at desired voltage.
(3) prevent fire due to short circuit.
(4) enhance effectiveness of earthing of each
appliance.
23. A student while studying dependence of current on
potential difference sets up an electric circuit as per
the circuit diagram shown. When he closed the key
he found that there is no deflection in the ammeter
(A) as well as in the voltmeter (V). The reason for
this observation is that the
+ A –
+ +
R V
– –
– + K K
( )
(1) position of ammeter and voltmeter has been
interchanged.
(2) ammeter is connected properly while voltmeter
is not in correct order.
(3) voltmeter is connected properly while ammeter
is not in correct order.
(4) both ammeter and voltmeter and not connected
properly.
24. A current carrying solenoid has a uniform magnetic
field inside it. It implies that magnetic field lines
inside such a solenoid
(1) coincide with its axis.
(2) do not exist.
(3) are curved like the ones on its outside.
(4) are parallel to each other.
7
22. ?kjsyw fon~;qr ifjiFkksa esa lHkh midj.kksa dks ik'oZ Øe esa
fon~;qUe; rkj ls tksM+k tkrk gS rkfd
(1)  ;g lqfuf'pr fd;k tk losQ fd lHkh midj.kksa dks
cjkcj /kjk izkIr gksA
(2)  ;g lqfuf'pr fd;k tk losQ fd lHkh midj.kksa dks
ok¡fNr oksYVst ij /kjk miyC/ gksA
(3)  y?kqiFku osQ dkj.k vkx yxus ls lqj{kk iznku dh tk losQA
(4)  izR;sd midj.k osQ HkwlEioZQ.k dks vf/d izHkkoh
cuk;k tk losQA
23. foHkkokUrj ij fon~;qr /kjk dh fuHkZjrk dk vè;;u djus
osQ fy, fdlh Nk=k us fn, x, ifjiFk vkjs[k osQ vuqlkj
ifjiFk LFkkfir fd;kA oaqQth dks can djus ij mlus ns[kk
dh u gh ,sehVj esa vkSj u gh oksYVehVj esa dksbZ fo{ksi
gqvkA bl izs{k.k dk dkj.k ;g gS fd
+ A –
R V
– + ( )
(1) ,sehVj vkSj oksYVehVj nksuksa osQ LFkkuksa dh vnyk&cnyh
gks xbZ gSA
(2) ,sehVj dk la;kstu mfpr gS tcfd oksYVehVj dk
la;kstu mfpr ugha gSA
(3) oksYVehVj dk la;kstu mfpr gS tcfd ,sehvj dk
la;kstu mfpr ugha gSA
(4) ,sehVj vkSj oksYVehVj nksuksa dk gh la;kstu mfpr
ugha gSA
24. fdlh /kjkokgh ifjukfydk osQ Hkhrj pqEcdh; {ks=k ,dleku
gksrk gSA bldk vFkZ ;g gS fd ,slh ifjukfydk osQ Hkhrj
pqEcdh; {ks=k js[kk,¡
(1) mlosQ v{k osQ lEikrh gksrh gSaA
(2) fo|eku ugha gksrhA
(3) mlosQ ckgj dh {ks=k js[kkvksa dh Hkk¡fr oØ gksrh gSaA
(4) ijLij lekUrj gksrh gSaA

25. A 60 W bulb is connected to an electric source of
240V. The current through the bulbs and the heat
produced by it in one second will respectively be
(1) 0.25 A and 240 J. (2) 0.25 A and 60 J.
(3) 4.0 A and 240 J. (4) 4.0 A and 60 J.
26. Two spherical bodies of mass 2 kg and 4 kg are
dropped simultaneously from a height of 20 m.
The ratio of their kinetic energies when they have
fallen through 15 m will be:
(1) 1 : 2. (2) 1 : 3.
(3) 1 : 2. (4) 1 : 3 .
27. A bird weighing 1.5 N is sitting on the base of wire-
mesh cage weighing 5.0 N. If the bird begins to fly
inside the cage, the weight of bird-cage assembly
would be:
(1) 6.5 N. (2) 5.0 N.
(3) 3.5 N. (4) 1.5 N.
28. A billiard ball B1 is moving with a velocity 2.0 m/s
collides head-on with another identical billiard ball
B2 at rest. After the collision the ball B1 continues to
move along its original direction with a velocity 0.2
m/s. Assuming that no other external forces were
acting on balls B1 and B2, the velocity of ball B2
after the collision will be:
(1) 2.2 m/s in the direction opposite to that of
ball B1.
(2) 2.2 m/s in the same direction as that of B1.
(3) 1.8 m/s in the direction opposite to that of
ball B1.
(4) 1.8 m/s in the same direction as that of B1.
29. Velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight
line with a constant speed will be a
(1) straight line parallel to the time axis.
(2) straight line parallel to the velocity axis.
(3) straight line included at an angle to both the
axes.
(4) part of a parabola.
8
25. 60 W dk dksbZ cYc fdlh 240 V osQ fo|qr lzksr ls
tqM+k gSA cYc ls izokfgr /kjk rFkk mlosQ }kjk ,d lsoaQM
esa mRiUu Å"ek dk eku Øe'k gksxk%
(1) 0.25 A rFkk 240 J (2) 0.25 A rFkk 60 J
(3) 4.0 A rFkk 240 J (4) 4.0 A rFkk 60 J
26. 2.0 kg rFkk 4.0 kg osQ nks xksyh; fiaM 20 m dh
Å¡pkbZ ls lkFk&lkFk fxjk, tkrs gSaA 15 m dh nwjh rd
fxjus osQ i'pkr~ mudh xfrt ÅtkZ dk vuqikr Øe'k%
gksxk%
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 3
27. 1.5 N Hkkj dk dksbZ i{kh fdlh 0.5 N Hkkj osQ rkj dh
tkyh ls cus fiatjs osQ vk/kj ij cSBk gSA ;fn i{kh fiatjs
osQ Hkhrj mM+us yxs rks i{kh µ fiatjs osQ la;kstu dk
la;qDr Hkkj gksxk%
(1) 6.5 NA (2) 5.0 NA
(3) 3.5 NA (4) 1.5 NA
28. dksbZ fcfy;MZ cky] B1, 2.0 m/s osQ osx ls xfr djrh
gqbZ fLFkj voLFkk esa j[kh fdlh vU; loZle fcfy;MZ
cky] B2 ls lh/s la?kêð (vkeus&lkeus dh VDdj) djrh
gSA VDdj osQ ckn B1 viuh vkjafHkd xfr dh fn'kk esa
0.2 m/s osQ osx ls xfr djus yxrh gSA ;fn nksuksa ckyksa
B1 rFkk B2 osQ nzO;eku cjkcj gksa rFkk mu ij dksbZ cká
cy vkjksfir u gks rks VDDj osQ ckn cky B2 dk osx gksxk%
(1) 2.2 m/s, cky B1 dh xfr dh fn'kk dh foijhr
fn'kk esaA
(2) 2.2 m/s, mlh fn'kk esa ftlesa cky B1 xfr'khy gSA
(3) 1.8 m/s, cky B1 dh xfr dh fn'kk dh foijhr
fn'kk esaA
(4) 1.8 m/s, mlh fn'kk esa ftlesa cky B1 xfr'khy gSA
29. ,d ljy js[kk esa fLFkj pky ls xfr'khy fdlh fiaM dk
osx&le; xzkiQ
(1) le; v{k osQ lekUrj js[kk gksxkA
(2) osx v{k osQ lekUrj ljy js[kk gksxkA
(3) nksuksa v{kksa ls dks.k curh gqbZ dksbZ ljy js[kk
gksxkA
(4) fdlh ijoy; oQk ,d Hkkx gksxkA
 9

30. A wheel of one meter diameter makes 30 revolutions 30. ,d ehVj O;kl dk dksbZ ifg;k ,d feuV esa 30 pDdj
in one minute. The linear velocity of a point on the yxkrk gSA ifg;s dh ifjf/ ij fLFkr fdlh fcanq dh jsf[kd
circumference of the wheel will be: pky gksxh%
(1) 60p m/s. (2) 30p m/s. (1) 60p m/s. (2) 30p m/s.
(3) p m/s. (4) (½)p m/s. (3) p m/s. (4) (½)p m/s.
31. If the kinetic energy of a body is made four times, 31. ;fn fdlh fiaM dh xfrt ÅtkZ pkj xquh dj nh tk, rks
its momentum will be: mldk laosx
(1) ¼ times. (2) ½ times. (1) ,d pkSFkkbZ jg tk;sxkA (2) vk/k gks tk;sxkA
(3) two times. (4) four times. (3) nks xquk gks tk;sxkA (4) pkj xquk gks tk;sxkA
32. SI unit of atmospheric pressure is 32. ok;qeaMyh; nkc dk SI ek=kd gS%
(1) Nm2. (2) kgms–2. (1) Nm2. (2) kgms–2.
(3) gcm–1s–2. (4) kgm–1s–2. (3) gcm–1s–2. (4) kgm–1s–2.
33. A sound wave of frequency 500 Hz is moving in 33. 500 Hz vko`fÙk dh dksbZ èofu rjax ok;q esa 350 m/s dh
air with a speed 350 m/s. The distance between its pky ls xfr dj jgh gSA bl rjax osQ Øe'k% nks Jaxksa osQ
two consecutive crests will be: eè; nwjh gksxh%
(1) 70 m. (2) 70 cm. (1) 70 m. (2) 70 cm.
(3) 7.14 m. (4) 71.4 cm. (3) 7.14 m. (4) 71.4 cm.
34. Two longitudinal waves W1 and W2 are propagating 34. nks vuqnS?;Z rjaxsa W1 rFkk W2 ok;q esa 330 m/s dh pky
in air with a speed 330 m/s. The wavelengths of W1 ls lapfjr gks jgh gSA W1 rFkk W2 dh rjaxnS?;Z Øe'k%
and W2 are 0.01 m and 0.015 m respectively. Which 0-01 m rFkk 0-015 m gSA bu nks rjaxksa osQ fo"k; esa fuEu
of the following is correct about the two waves? esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS\
(1) Both the waves are in ultrasonic range and the (1) nksuksa rjaxsa ijkJO; ifjlj esa gSa rFkk W1 dk rkjRo
pitch of W1 is more than that of W2. W2 ls vf/d gSA
(2) Both waves are in ultrasonic range and the pitch (2) nksuksa rjaxsa ijkJO; ifjlj esa gS rFkk W2 dk rkjRo
of W2 is more than that of W1. W1 ls vf/d gSA
(3) Both the waves are in hearing range and the (3) nksuksa rjaxsa JO;rk ifjlj esa gSa rFkk W1 dk rkjRo
pitch of W1 is more than that of W2. W2 ls vf/d gSA
(4) Both the waves are in hearing range and the (4) nksuksa rjaxsa JO;rk ifjlj esa gSa rFkk W2 dk rkjRo
pitch of W2 is more than that of W1. W1 ls vf/d gSA
35. A force F1 increases the velocity of a body from 35. dksbZ cy F1 fdlh fiaM dk osx t s esa 2 m/s ls 4 m/s
2 m/s to 4 m/s in time t s. In the next t s another rd c<+k nsrk gSA ,d vU; cy F2 mlh fiaM dk osx
force F2 increases the velocity of the body from 4 vxys t s esa 4 m/s ls 10 m/s rd c<+k nsrk gSA fuEu
m/s to 10 m/s. Which of the following expresses esa ls dkSu&lk dFku nksuksa cyksa osQ chp lEcU/ dks lgh
correct relation between the two forces? O;Dr djrk gS\
(1) F1 = 3 F2. (2) F1 = (1/3) F2. (1) F1 = 3 F2. (2) F1 = (1/3) F2.
(3) F1 = 4F2. (4) F1 = (¼) F2. (3) F1 = 4F2. (4) F1 = (¼) F2.
 10

36. Which of the following is due to inertia? 36. fuEu esa ls fdl ?kVuk dk tM+Ro ls lEcU/ gS\
(1) Raindrops usually attain nearly uniform speed (1) o"kkZ ty dh cw¡nsa izk;% i`Foh dh lrg ij igq¡pus
before reaching ground. rd yxHkx ,dleku pky izkIr dj ysrh gSaA
(2) It is difficult to walk on a smooth wet (2) fdlh fpdus ,oa xhys iQ'kZ ij pyuk dfBu izrhr
surface. gksrk gSA
(3) The seat belt of a car seems to tighten up when (3) czsd yxkus ij dkj dh lhV dh isVh dlrh gqbZ izrhr
the brakes are applied. gksrh gSA
(4) A ball rolling along the ground comes to rest (4) fdlh lrg ij yq<+drh cky oqQN le; ckn :d
after some time. tkrh gSA
37. Mass of a person A is two times the mass of person 37. fdlh O;fDr A dk nzO;eku nwljs O;fDr B osQ nzO;eku
B. A and B run up to the same staircase to reach dk nks xquk gSA loksZPp ry rd igq¡pus osQ fy, A vkSj
the top floor. The time taken by A is three times the B ,d edku dh lhf<+;ksa ij nkSM+dj p<+rs gSaA A dks B
time taken by B. The ratio of the power expanded ls 3 xquk le; yxrk gks rks Øe'k% A vkSj B }kjk [kpZ
by A to that of B is: dh xbZ 'kfDr;ksa dk vuqikr gksxk%
(1) 2 : 3. (2) 3 : 2. (1) 2 : 3. (2) 3 : 2.
(3) 6 : 1. (4) 1 : 6. (3) 6 : 1. (4) 1 : 6.
38. The mass of moon is (1/6) times that of the earth. 38. pUnzek dk nO;eku i`Foh osQ nzO;eku dk (1@6) xquk gSA
If the force of gravity of the earth on the moon be ;fn i`Foh }kjk pUnzek ij vkjksfir xq#Ro cy dk eku
2.01 × 1020 N, the force due to gravitation of the 2.01 × 1020 N gks rks pUnzek }kjk vius xq#Ro osQ dkj.k
moon on the earth should be: i`Foh ij vkjksfir cy dk eku gksuk pkfg,A
(1) (1/36) × 2.01 × 1020 N. (1) (1/36) × 2.01 × 1020 N.
(2) (1/12) × 2.01 × 1020 N. (2) (1/12) × 2.01 × 1020 N.
(3) (1/6) × 2.01 × 1020 N. (3) (1/6) × 2.01 × 1020 N.
(4) 2.01 × 1020 N. (4) 2.01 × 1020 N.
39. In which of the following situations will the 39. ;fn m nzO;eku osQ fdlh fiaM dks 5.0 m foLFkkfir fd;k
work done be minimum if a body of mass m kg is tk, rks fuEu esa ls fdl izdj.k esa fd;k x;k dk;Z U;wure
displaced through 5.0 m? gksxk\
(1) When pushed along a horizontal surface over (1) nzO;eku dks csyuksa ij j[kdj {kSfrt ry osQ vuqfn'k
rollers. /osQyus ijA
(2) When pushed up along a plane inclined at (2) nzO;eku dks fdlh 45° osQ vkur ry osQ vuqfn'k
45°. èkosQyus ijA
(3) When lifted vertically upwards. (3) nzO;eku dks ÅèokZ/j Åij mBkus ijA
(4) When pushed along a smooth horizontal (4) nzO;eku dks fdlh fpdus {kSfrt ry osQ vuqfn'k
surface. èkosQyus ijA
40. Which of the following properties of all light 40. fuokZr esa lHkh izdk'k fofdj.kksa dk fuEufyf[kr esa ls
radiations remains the same in vacuum? dkSu&lk vfHky{k.k leku jgrk gS\
(1) Velocity. (2) Wave length. (1) osx (2) rjaxnS?;Z
(3) Frequency. (4) Amplitude. (3) vko`fÙk (4) vk;keA
 11

41. A particle moves on a circular path of radius R. In 41. dksbZ d.k R f=kT;k osQ o`Ùkkdkj iFk ij xfreku gSA fdlh
a certain time interval it moves through a distance le;kof/ esa ;g pR nwjh pyrk gSA izkjafHkd fLFkfr ls
pR. Its displacement from the initial position is: blosQ foLFkkiu dk eku gSµ
(1) pR. (2) R. (1) pR (2) R
(3) 2R. (4) zero. (3) 2R (4) 'kwU;A
42. In an experiment to verify laws of resistance in 42. Js.khØe izfrjks/ksa osQ fu;e osQ lR;kiu osQ iz;ksx esa oksYVrk
series the voltage source provided to you has 3 dry lzksr osQ :i esa vkidks 3 'kq"d lsyksa dh ,d Js.khØe
cells packed in series. The range of the voltmeter cSVjh nh xbZ gSA vki ifjiFk esa tks oksYVehVj yxk,saxs
you will connect in the circuit would be: mldk ifjlj gksuk pkfg,µ
(1) 0 – 1.0 V. (2) 0 – 3 V. (1) 0 – 1.0 V (2) 0 – 3 V
(3) 0 – 5 V. (4) 0 – 10 V. (3) 0 – 5 V (4) 0 – 10 V
43. In the adjoining figure, the value of refractive index 43. fn, x, fp=k esa ekè;e 1 osQ lkis{k ekè;e 2 osQ viorZuk¡d
of medium 2 with respect to medium 1 is : dk eku gSµ
B OA = a B OA = a
OB = r OB = r
medium 1 C OC = b medium 1 C OC = b
medium 2 O A CD = d medium 2 O A CD = d

D D
(1) b/a. (2) d/r. (1) b/a (2) d/r
(3) r/d. (4) a/b. (3) r/d (4) a/bA
44. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a 44. dksbZ fcEc ,d mÙky ysal ls 10 cm dh nwjh ij j[kk gSA
convex lens. The distance between the object and its bl fcEc vkSj ysal ls cus blosQ okLrfod izfrfcEc osQ
real image is 40 cm. The focal length of the lens is: chp dh nwjh 40 cm gSA ysal dh iQksdl nwjh gSµ
(1) 8 cm. (2) 16 cm. (1) 8 cm (2) 16 cm
(3) 7.5 cm. (4) 15 cm. (3) 7.5 cm (4) 15 cm
45. The speed of light in vacuum is 3×108 ms–1, the 45. fuokZr esa izdk'k 3×108 dh pky ls xeu djrk gS]
ms–1
speed of light in a medium of refractive index 1.5 1-5 viorZukad osQ ekè;e esa izdk'k dh pky gksrh gSµ
will be:
(1) 1.5 × 108 ms–1. (1) 1.5 × 108 ms–1
(2) 2 × 108 ms–1. (2) 2 × 108 ms–1
(3) 2.5 × 108 ms–1. (3) 2.5 × 108 ms–1
(4) 3.0 × 108 ms–1. (4) 3.0 × 108 ms–1

Note: For questions number 46–50 two statements are
given–one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions
from the codes (1), (2), (3) and (4) as given below
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true
46. Assertion (A): Radio waves are electromagnetic
waves like light. They follow the same laws of
reflection and refraction as are followed by light
rays. A transistor radio receiver can receive radio
waves carrying signals even if it is placed in a
remote corner of a building.
Reason (R): Electromagnetic radio waves undergo
multiple reflections from all surfaces outside and
inside the building.
47. Assertion (A): Biofocal lenses are advised for
persons to correct their vision due to presbyopia.
These lenses have a concave and a convex lens
made on a single piece of glass.
Reason (R): A person suffering from presbyopia
cannot see clearly nearby as well as distant objects.
The two lenses in a bifocal lens facilitate to focus
distinct image of nearby as well as distant objects
on the retina without changing the spectacle.
48. Assertion (A): Biofocal lenses are advised for
persons to correct their vision due to presbyopia.
These lenses have a concave and a convex lens
made on a single piece of glass.
Reason (R): Presbyopia is a defect of vision which
is prevalent in old age because the eye lens becomes
milky and cloudy.
49. Assertion (A): The principle of working of both
electric motor and generator is based on the
phenomenon of electromagnetic induction.
Reason (R): An electric motor transforms electric
energy into mechanical energy while generator
transforms mechanical energy into electric energy.
12
iz'u la[;k 46&50 osQ fy, nks dFku fn, x, gSa ftuesa ,d dks
vfHkdFku (A) rFkk nwljsa dks dkj.k (R) }kjk vafdr fd;k
x;k gSA bu iz'uksa osQ lgh mÙkj uhps fn, dksMksa (1)] (2)] (3)
vkSj (4) esa ls lgh pqudj nhft,%
1. ^A* vkSj ^R* nksuksa dFku lgh gSa ijUrq R vfHkdFku*
dh lgh O;k[;k gSA
2. ^A* vkSj ^R* nksuksa lgh gSa ijUrq R vfHkdFku dh lgh
O;k[;k ugha gSA
3. ^A* lgh gS ijUrq ^R* xyr gSA
4. ^A* xyr gS ijUrq ^R* lgh gSA
46. vfHkdFku (A)% izdk'k dh Hkk¡fr jsfM;ks rjaxsa Hkh
fon~;qrpqEcdh; rjax gksrh gSaA ;g Hkh izdk'k dh rjg
gh ijkorZu vkSj viorZu osQ fu;eksa dk ikyu djrh gSaA
VªkaftLVj jsfM;ks dk xzkgh (lsV) fdlh Hkou osQ vUrjax
Hkkx esa Hkh flXuy/kjh jsfM;ks rjaxksa dks xzg.k dj ysrk gSA
dkj.k (R)% fon~;qrpqEcdh; jsfM;ks rjaxsa Hkou osQ ckgj
vkSj vUnj dh lHkh lrgksa ls vusdkusd ckj ijkofrZr
gksdj mlosQ vUrjax Hkkxksa rd igq¡p tkrh gSaA
47. vfHkdFku (A)% tjk&nwjkn`f"Vrk ls ihfM+r O;fDr;ksa dks
n`f"V nks"k dk fuokj.k djus osQ fy, f}iQksdlh ysalksa dk
mi;ksx djus dk ijke'kZ fn;k tkrk gSA bl izdkj osQ ysalksa
esa dk¡p osQ ,d gh VqdMs+ esa vory vkSj mÙky ysal cus
gksrs gSaA
dkj.k (R)% tjk&nwjn`f"Vrk ls ihfM+r O;fDr mlosQ fudV
rFkk nwj fLFkr oLrqvksa dks Li"V ugha ns[k ldrsA f}iQksdlh
ysal osQ nks ysal mUgsa fcuk p'es dks cnys fudV ,oa nwj
fLFkr oLrqvksa osQ izfrfcEc dks jsfVuk ij iQksdl djus dh
lqfo/k iznku djrs gSaA
48. vfHkdFku (A)% tjk&nwjn`f"Vrk ls ihfM+r O;fDr;ksa dks
n`f"V nks"k dk fuokj.k djus osQ fy, f}iQksdklh ysalksa dk
mi;ksx djus dk ijke'kZ fn;k tkrk gSA bl izdkj osQ ysalksa
esa dk¡p osQ ,d gh VqdM+s esa vory vkSj mÙky ysal cus
gksrs gSaA
dkj.k (R)% tjk&nwjn`f"Vrk ,d ,slk n`f"V nks"k gS tks
lkekU;r% o`¼ O;fDr;ksa esa ik;k tkrk gS D;ksafd muosQ
vfHkus=k ysal nwf/;k rFkk /q¡/ys gks tkrs gSaA
49. vfHkdFku (A)% fon~;qr eksVj rFkk tfu=k nksuksa dk
gh dk;Zdkjh fl¼kUr fon~;qr~ pqEcdh; izsj.k ij vk/kfjr
gSA
dkj.k (R)% fon~;qr~ eksVj fon~;qr~ ÅtkZ dks ;kaf=kd ÅtkZ
esa :ikarfjr djrh gS tcfd fon~;qr~ tfu=k ;k¡f=kd ÅtkZ
dks fon~;qr ÅtkZ esa :ikarfjr djrk gSA

50. Assertion (A): An ammeter is a device that is
used to measure current in an electric circuit.
An ammeter consists of a light coil of fine wire
suspended between the poles of a strong permanent
magnet. The ends of the coils are connected to the
terminals of the ammeter. A pointer is attached
to the coil which rotates over a scale calibrated
to measure current in ampere or milliampere. A
special arrangement is made to allow only a small
fraction of the current so as not to affect the current
in the circuit.
Reason (R): The coil of the ammeter should be
rectangular in shape otherwise it will not rotate
when a current passes through it.
51. Which one of the following statements is not true
for gases?
(1) They are highly compressible.
(2) They do not possess mass.
(3) They diffuse rapidly.
(4) They mix well with other gases.
52. The factors which will help in increasing the rate
of evaporation of a liquid are
(A) Decrease in temperature.
(B) Increase in wind speed.
(C) Pouring the liquid from a test tube into a petri
dish.
(1) B only. (2) A and B only.
(3) A and C only. (4) B and C only.
53. Select the correct option from the following regarding
the change of state in the following processes:
(A) Freezing of water.
(B) Burning of candle.
(C) Dissolving salt in water.
(D) Decomposing water into hydrogen and oxygen
by passing electric current through it:
(1) A and D involve physical change.
(2) B, C and D involve chemical change.
(3) B involves both physical and chemical change.
(4) Only C involves a physical change.
13
50. vfHkdFku (A)% ,sehVj ,d ,slh ;qfDr gS tks fdlh
ifjiFk fon~;qr /kjk dh eki ysus osQ fy, mi;ksx dh
tkrh gSA ,sehVj esa irys rkj ls cuh gYdh oqaQMyh fdlh
'kfDr'kkyh LFkkbZ pqEcd osQ /qzoksa osQ eè; yVdh gksrh gSA
oqaQMyh osQ fljs ,sehVj osQ VfeZuy ls tqM+s gksrs gSaA oqaQMyh
ls ,d laosQrd tqM+k gksrk gS tks ,d va'kkafdr iSekus osQ
Åij ?kwedj /kjk dk eku fefy,sfEi;j ;k ,sfEi;j esa
ekirk gSA ,d fo'ks"k izca/ }kjk ifjiFk esa izokfgr èkkjk
osQ vYika'k dks gh ,sehVj ls izokfgr djk;k tkrk gS rkfd
ifjiFk esa izokfgr /kjk izHkkfor u gksA
dkj.k (R)% ,sehVj dh oqaQMyh dh vkÑfr prqHkqZtkdkj
gksuh pkfg, vU;Fkk mlls /kjk izokfgr gksus ij og ugha
?kwesxhA
51. xSlksa osQ fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ,d dFku lR; ugha
gSA
(1) os vR;Ur lEihM~; gSaA
(2) muesa nzO;eku ugha gksrk gSA
(3) os rhozrk ls folfjr gksrh gSaA
(4) os vU; xSlksa osQ lkFk fefJr gksrh gSaA
52. fdlh nzo osQ ok"iu dh nj esa o`f¼ djus okys dkjd
gSa%
(A) rki esa dehA
(B) ok;q osx esa o`f¼A
(C)  fdlh nzo dks ij[kuyh ls isVªh fM'k esa maMsyukA
(1) osQoy BA (2) osQoy A vkSj BA
(3) osQoy A vkSj CA (4) osQoy B vkSj CA
53. voLFkk ifjorZu osQ lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr izØeksa esa ls uhps
fn, x, lgh fodYi dks pqfu,%
(A) ty dk fgehHkwr gksukA
(B) eksecÙkh dk tyukA
(C) ty esa ued dk ?kqyukA
ty esa fo|qr/kjk izokfgr djosQ mldk gkbMªkstu
(C) 
rFkk vkWDlhtu esa vi?kVu djukA
(1) A vkSj D esa HkkSfrd ifjorZu lfEefyr gSA
(2) B, C vkSj D esa jklk;fud ifjorZu lfEefyr gSA
(3) B esa HkkSfrd vkSj jklk;fud nksuksa ifjorZu gksrs gSaA
(4) osQoy C esa HkkSfrd ifjorZu gksrk gSA

54. A mixture of two miscible liquids A and B, having
boiling points 380 K and 395 K respectively, can
be separated by:
(1) distillation.
(2) using a separating funnel.
(3) fractional distillation.
(4) evaporation.
55. The percentage composition of a sample of calcium
carbonate obtained from a source is as follows:
Ca = 40%, C = 12%, O = 48%
What will be the amount of calcium present in
10 g sample of calcium carbonate obtained from
some other source, keeping in mind that law of
constant proportion is true.
(1) 40.0 g. (2) 4.0 g.
(3) 0.4 g. (4) 1.0 g.
56. The number of molecules in 8g of methane is:
(1) 8 × 6.02 × 1023. (2) 4 × 6.02 × 1023.
(3) 6.02 × 1023. (4) 3.01 × 1023.
57. The beam of particles used in Rutherford's
experiment consisted of:
(1) helium ions with +2 charge.
(2) helium ions with +1 charge.
(3) deuterium ions with +2 charge.
(4) deuterium ions with +1 charge.
58. Which of the following correctly represents the
electronic configuration of S2– ion (sulphide ion)?
(1) 2, 8, 4. (2) 2, 8, 6.
(3) 2, 8, 8. (4) 2, 8, 6, 2.
59. a HNO3 + b Ca (OH)2 → x Ca(NO3)2 + y H2O
In the balanced chemical equation given above, the
values of a, b, x and y are:
(1) a = 3, b = 2, x = 1, y = 3.
(2) a = 2, b = 1, x = 1, y = 2.
(3) a = 1, b = 1, x = 1, y = 2.
(4) a = 2, b = 3, x = 2, y = 3.
14
54. A vkSj B nks feJ.kh; nzoks]a ftudk DoFkukad Øe'k% 380K
vkSj 395 K gS] osQ feJ.k dks i`Fkd fd;k tk ldrk
gSA
(1) vklou }kjkA
(2) i`FkDdj.k dhi dk mi;ksx djosQA
(3) vkaf'kd vklou }kjkA
(4) ok"iu }kjkA
55. fdlh lzksr ls izkIr oSQfY'k;e dkcksZusV osQ ,d uewus dk
izfr'kr la?kVu fuEu izdkj gS%
Ca = 40%, C = 12%, O = 48%
fdlh vU; Lkzksr ls izkIr oSQfY'k;e dkcksZusV osQ
10 g uewus esa oSQfY'k;e dh fdruh ek=kk mifLFkr gksxh]
;g è;ku esa j[krs gq, fd fuf'pr vuqikr dk fu;e
lR; gS\
(1) 40.0 g (2) 4.0 g
(3) 0.4 g (4) 1.0 g
56. 8 g esFksu esa v.kqvksa dh la[;k gS%
(1) 8 × 6.02 × 1023 (2) 4 × 6.02 × 1023
(3) 6.02 × 1023 (4) 3.01 × 1023
57. jnjiQksMZ osQ iz;ksx esa iz;qDr d.kksa osQ fdj.k iqat esa Fks%
(A) +2 vkos'k okys ghfy;e vk;uA
(B) +1 vkos'k okys ghfy;e vk;uA
(C) +2 vkos'k okys M;wVhfj;e vk;uA
(D) +1 vkos'k okys M;wVhfj;e vk;uA
58. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu S2– vk;u (lYiQkbM vk;u) osQ
bysDVªkWfud foU;kl dks lgh rjg ls fu:fir djrk gS\
(1) 2, 8, 4 (2) 2, 8, 6
(3) 2, 8, 8 (4) 2, 8, 6, 2
59. a HNO3 + b Ca (OH)2 → x Ca(NO3)2 + y H2O
Åij nh xbZ lUrqfyr jklk;fud lehdj.k esa a, b, x vkSj
y osQ eku gSa%
(1) a = 3, b = 2, x = 1, y = 3
(2) a = 2, b = 1, x = 1, y = 2
(3) a = 1, b = 1, x = 1, y = 2
(4) a = 2, b = 3, x = 2, y = 3
 15

60. Which is the correct statement regarding following 60. fuEufyf[kr jklk;fud lehdj.k osQ lUnHkZ esa dkSu&lk
chemical equation? dFku lgh gS\
ZnO + C → Zn + CO ZnO + C → Zn + CO
(1) Zinc is reduced and carbon is oxidised. (1) ftad vipf;r gksrk gS vkSj dkcZu vkWDlhÑr gksrk gSA
(2) Zinc is oxidised and carbon is reduced. (2) ftad vkWDlhÑr gksrk gS vkSj dkcZu vipf;r gksrk gSA
(3) Zinc and carbon, both are reduced. (3) ftad vkSj dkcZu nksuksa vipf;r gksrs gSaA
(4) Zinc and carbon, both are oxidised. (4) ftad vkSj dkcZu nksuksa vkWDlhÑr gksrs gSaA
61. When water is added to solid calcium oxide, a reaction 61. tc Bksl oSQfY'k;e vkWDlkbM esa ty feyk;k tkrk gS
occurs with evolution of heat. Which of the following rks Å"ek mRltZu osQ lkFk ,d vfHkfØ;k gksrh gSA bl
statements are true about this reaction? It is: vfHkfØ;k osQ fy, uhps fn, x, dkSu ls dFku lgh gSa\
(A) a combination reaction. (A) ,d la;kstu vfHkfØ;kA
(B) an exothermic reaction. (B) ,d Å"ek{ksih vfHkfØ;kA
(C) a redox reaction. (C) ,d jsMkWDl vfHkfØ;kA
(D) a displacement reaction. (D) ,d foLFkkiu vfHkfØ;kA
(1) A and C. (2) B and D. (1) A vkSj C (2) B vkSj D
(3) A, B and C. (4) A and B. (3) A, B vkSj C (4) A vkSj B
62. Which of the following reactions(s) can be 62. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh vfHkfØ;k@vfHkfØ;kvksa dks
classified as redox reaction? jsMkWDl vfHkfØ;k osQ :i esa oxhZÑr fd;k tk ldrk gS\
(A) Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu. (A) Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu
(B) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl. (B) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl
(C) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3. (C) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
(D) 2KMnO4 + 10 FeSO4 + 8 H2SO4 → 2 MnSO4 (D) 2KMnO4 + 10 FeSO4 + 8 H2SO4 → 2 MnSO4
+ 5 Fe2 (SO4)3 + K2SO4 + 8 H2O. + 5 Fe2 (SO4)3 + K2SO4 + 8 H2O
(1) D only (2) B and C (1) osQoy D (2) B vkSj C
(3) A and D (4) A, B and D (3) A vkSj D (4) A, B vkSj D
63. Which one of the following substances reacts with 63. fuEufyf[kr inkFkks± esa ls dkSu H2SO4 osQ lkFk vfHkfØ;k
H2SO4 to from carbon dioxide? djosQ dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM cukrk gS\
(1) Zinc metal. (2) Copper nitrate. (1) ftad /krqA (2) dkWij ukbVªsVA
(3) Marble. (4) Ethanol. (3) laxejejA (4) ,FksukWyA
64. The solution of which salt in water is expected to 64. fdl yo.k osQ tyh; foy;u dk pH 7 ls de visf{kr
have pH less than 7? gS\
(1) NH4Cl (2) KCl (1) NH4Cl (2) KCl
(3) Na2SO4 (4) Na2CO3 (3) Na2SO4 (4) Na2CO3
65. Sodium chloride is not used as the raw material for 65. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlosQ fuekZ.k osQ fy, lksfM;e DyksjkbM
the manufacture of: dPps eky osQ :i esa iz;qDr ugha gksrk gS\
(1) slaked lime (2) bleaching powder. (1) cq>k pwukA (2) fojatd pw.kZA
(3) baking soda. (4) caustic soda. (3) csfdax lksMkA (4) dkfLVd lksMkA

66. Select the wrong statement amongest the following
(1) Bleaching powder also acts as an oxidising
agent.
(2) Na2CO3. 10H2O is an important constituent of
baking powder.
(3) Plaster of Paris is obtained on heating gypsum.
(4) Five water molecules are present in one
formula unit of copper sulphate.
67. Two substances A and B react to form a salt
and water. The aqueous solution of the salt thus
obtained has a pH of more than 7. The substances
A and B could be respectively.
(1) potassium oxide and hydrochloric acid.
(2) sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid.
(3) sodium hydroxide and acetic acid.
(4) calcium hydroxide and sulphuric acid.
68. The atomic number of metal M is 13. The formula
of its oxide will be:
(1) M3O2. (2) MO3.
(3) MO2. (4) M2O3.
69. In general, ionic compounds show both the properties.
(1) Low melting points and insoluble in polar
solvents.
(2) High melting points and conduct electricity in
molten state.
(3) High solubility in polar solvents and do not
conduct electricity in molten state.
(4) Soluble in solvents like kerosene and brittle in
nature.
70. Copper, which is low in activity series, can be
extracted from its ore by the reaction.
(1) 2 Cu2O + C Heat 4 Cu + CO2.
(2) 2 Cu2O + Cu2S Heat 6 Cu + SO2.
(3) 2 Cu O Heat 4 Cu + O .
2 2
Heat
(4) 3 Cu2O + 2Al 6 Cu + Al2O3.
16
66. fuEufyf[kr esa ls xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,%
(1) fojatd pw.kZ ,d vkWDlhdkjd dh Hkk¡fr Hkh dk;Z
djrk gSA
(2) Na2CO3. 10H2O csfdax ikmMj dk ,d izeq[k ?kVd
gSA
(3) ftIle dks xeZ djosQ IykLVj vkWiQ isfjl izkIr fd;k
tkrk gSA
(4) dkWij lYisQV dh ,d lw=k bdkbZ esa ty osQ ik¡p
v.kq mifLFkr gksrs gSaA
67. A vkSj B nks inkFkZ ijLij vfHkfØ;k djosQ yo.k vkSj
ty cukrs gSaA izkIr yo.k osQ tyh; foy;u dk pH 7
ls vf/d gSA inkFkZ A vkSj B Øe'k% gks ldrs gSa%
(1) iksVSf'k;e vkWDlkbM vkSj gkbMªksDyksfjd vEyA
(2) lksfM;e gkbMªkWDlkbM vkSj gkbMªksDyksfjd vEyA
(3) lksfM;e gkbMªkWDlkbM vkSj ,slhfVd vEyA
(4) oSQfY'ke gkbMªkWDlkbM vkSj lYÝ;wfjd vEyA
68. /krq M dk ijek.kq Øekad 13 gSA blosQ vkWDlkbM dk lw=k
gksxk%
(1) M3O2 (2) MO3
(3) MO2 (4) M2O3
69. lkekU;r;k vk;fud ;kSfxd dkSu&ls nksuksa xq.k/eZ n'kkZrs gS\a
(1) fuEu xyukad vkSj /zqoh; foyk;dksa esa vfoys;A
(2) mPp xyukad vkSj xfyr voLFkk esa fo|qr/kjk dk
pkyu djrs gSaA
(3) /qzoh; foyk;dksa esa mPp foys;rk vkSj xfyr voLFkk
esa fo|qr/kjk dk pkyu ugha djrsA
(4) fdjkslhu tSls foyk;dksa esa foys; vkSj izÑfr esa HkaxqjA
70. dkWij] tks lfØ;rk Js.kh esa uhps gS] dks mlosQ v;Ld
ls fuEu vfHkfØ;k }kjk izkIr dj ldrs gSa%
(1) 2 Cu2O + C rkiu 4 Cu + CO2
(2) 2 Cu2O + Cu2S rkiu 6 Cu + SO2
(3) 2 Cu2O rkiu 4 Cu + O2
(4) 3 Cu O + 2Al rkiu 6 Cu + Al O
2 2 3
 17

71. The method commonly used for obtaining more 71. vf/d vfHkfØ;k'khy /krqvksa dks muosQ v;Ldksa ls izkIr
reactive metals from their ores involves reduction djus dh lkekU; iz;qDr fof/ esa dkSu lk vip;u lc¼
of: gksrk gS\
(1) metal oxides with carbon. (1) /krq vkWDlkbM dk dkcZu lsA
(2) metal halides with hydrogen. (2) /krq gSykbM dk gkbMªkstu lsA
(3) molten ores by electrolytic process. (3) xfyr v;Ld dk oS|qrvi?kVuh izØe lsA
(4) metal oxides with Zn. (4) /krq vkWDlkbM dk ftad lsA
72. Match the metal from column A with its reactivity 72. dkWye A esa nh gqbZ /krq dk dkWye B esa nh xbZ mldh
with water in column B. ty osQ izfr vfHkfØ;k'khyrk osQ lkFk feyku dhft,A
Column A Column B dkWye A dkWye B
(a) Magnesium (i) reacts with cold water. (a) eSXuhf'k;e (i) B.Ms ty osQ lkFk vfHkfØ;k
djrk gSA
(b) Potassium (ii) reacts with hot water. (b) iksVsf'k;e (ii) xje ty osQ lkFk vfHkfØ;k
djrk gSA
(c) Gold (iii) reacts with steam. (c) lksuk (iii) tyok"i osQ lkFk vfHkfØ;k
djrk gSA
(d) Aluminum (iv) does not react with water. (d) ,yqfefu;e (iv) ty osQ lkFk vfHkfØ;k ugha
djrk gSA
(1) a – (ii), b–(i), c–(iv), d–(iii) (1) a – (ii), b–(i), c–(iv), d–(iii)
(2) a – (i), b–(ii), c–(iv), d–(iii) (2) a – (i), b–(ii), c–(iv), d–(iii)
(3) a – (i), b–(ii), c–(iii), d–(iv) (3) a – (i), b–(ii), c–(iii), d–(iv)
(4) a – (ii), b–(i), c–(iii), d–(iv) (4) a – (ii), b–(i), c–(iii), d–(iv)
73. Metal A is found in free state in nature whereas 73. /krq A izÑfr esa Lora=k voLFkk esa ikbZ tkrh gS tcfd
metals B and C are found in combined states. Metal /krq,¡ B vkSj C la;qDr voLFkk esa feyrh gSaA /krq B]
B can displace metal C from the solution of its salt. /krq C dks mlosQ yo.k osQ foy;u ls foLFkkfir dj
Their position in activity series in decreasing order ldrh gSA budh lfØ;rk Js.kh esa vfHkfØ;k'khyrk osQ
of reactivity will be: ?kVrs Øe esa fLFkfr gksxhµ
(1) A > B > C. (1) A > B > C
(2) B > A > C. (2) B > A > C
(3) C > B > A. (3) C > B > A
(4) B > C > A. (4) B > C > A
74. Which of the following statements is not correct: 74. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh ugha gS\
(1) Non metals exist as solid, liquid as well as gas. (1) v/krq,¡ Bksl] nzo vkSj xSl :i esa fo|eku gksrh gSaA
(2) All metals are solid. (2) lHkh /krq,a Bksl gSaA
(3) Lithium is a very soft metal. (3) yhfFk;e cgqr uje /krq gSA
(4) All ores are minerals. (4) lHkh v;Ld [kfut gksrs gSaA
 18

75. Aqueous solutions of some salts are taken in four 75. oqQN yo.kksa osQ tyh; foy;uksa dks vyx&vyx pkj
test tubes and a piece of metal is added to each of ij[kufy;ksa esa fy;k x;k vkSj izR;sd esa ,d&,d /krq
them. Which of the following combinations will dk VqdM+k Mkyk x;kA fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk la;kstu
show chemical reaction? jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k n'kkZ,xk\
(1) MgSO4(aq) + Zn(s) (2) NaCl(aq) + Cu(s) (1) MgSO4(aq) + Zn(s) (2) NaCl(aq) + Cu(s)
(3) CaSO4(aq) + Fe(s) (4) ZnCl2(aq) + Fe(s) (3) CaSO4(aq) + Fe(s) (4) ZnCl2(aq) + Fe(s)
76. A metal ion M3+ with mass number 27, contains 76. 27 nzO;eku la[;k okys fdlh /krq vk;u M3+ osQ ukfHkd
14 neutrons in its nucleus. How many electrons esa 14 U;wVªkWu gSaA mlesa fdrus bysDVªkWu fo|eku gSa\
are present in it?
(1) 13 (2) 10 (1) 13 (2) 10
(3) 14 (4) 16 (3) 14 (4) 16
77. Elements present in the same group of the modern 77. vk/qfud vkorZ lkj.kh osQ leku lewg osQ rRoksa dk gksrk
periodic table possess same: gS lekuA
(1) electronic configuration. (1) bysDVªkWfud foU;klA
(2) atomic size. (2) ijek.kq vkdkjA
(3) number of electrons in the outer most shell. (3) ckgjh dks'k esa bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;kA
(4) number of protons in their nucleus. (4) ukfHkd esa izksVkWuksa dh la[;kA
78. An atom with high electronegativity generally has 78. mPp fo|qr½.kkRedrk okyk ijek.kq lkekU;r;k j[krk gS%
(1) low reactivity. (1) fuEu lfØ;rkA
(2) large atomic size. (2) cM+k ijek.kq vkdkjA
(3) tendency to form (+) ve ions. (3) /ukRed vk;u cukus dh izo`fÙkA
(4) tendency to form (–) ve ions. (4) ½.kkRed vk;u cukus dh izo`fÙkA
79. When a neutral atom is converted into a cation, 79. tc dksbZ mnklhu ijek.kq /uk;u esa ifjofrZr gksrk gS rks
its: bldkµ
(1) size decreases. (1) vkdkj ?kVrk gSA
(2) size increases. (2) vkdkj c<+rk gSA
(3) atomic mass decreases. (3) ijek.kq nzO;eku ?kVrk gSA
(4) atomic number decreases. (4) ijek.kq Øekad ?kVrk gSA
80. Which of the following set of elements possess 80. fuEufyf[kr rRoksa osQ leqPp; esa ls dkSu lk ½.kk;u
strong tendency to form anions? cukus dh izo`fÙk j[krk gS\
(1) P, S, Cl. (2) Be, Mg, Ca. (1) P, S, Cl (2) Be, Mg, Ca
(3) Fe, Co, Ni. (4) B, C, N. (3) Fe, Co, Ni (4) B, C, N
81. The elements A, B, C, D and E have atomic numbers 81. A, B, C, D vkSj E rRoksa osQ ijek.kq Øekad Øe'k% 6] 8]
6, 8, 9, 13 and 14, respectively. Which of these 9] 13 vkSj 14 gSaA buesa ls dkSu&ls rRo vk/qfud vkorZ
elements belong to the same group in the modern lkj.kh osQ leku lewg osQ lnL; gSa\
peridic table?
(1) B and C. (2) A and B. (1) B rFkk C (2) A rFkk B
(3) D and E. (4) A and E. (3) D rFkk E (4) A rFkk E
 19

82. Note: Study the following portion of Modern 82. uksV% vk/qfud vkorZ lkj.kh osQ uhps fn, Hkkx dk vè;;u
Periodic Table in which elements are represented dhft, ftlesa oqQN rRoksa dks vaxzsth o.kZekyk osQ v{kjksa
by English alphabets, and answer Q. No. 82 to 84 osQ :i esa fu:fir fd;k x;k gSA blesa nh xbZ lwpuk osQ
based on the information given in the table. vk/kj ij iz'u la[;k 82 ls 84 osQ mÙkj nhft,A
1 18 1 18
1 A 2 13 14 15 16 17 R 1 A 2 13 14 15 16 17 R
2 B F J K L M 2 B F J K L M
3 C G Q 3 C G Q
4 D ← 3 – 12→ H 4 D ← 3 – 12→ H
5 E 5 E
6 6
7 7
Which one of the following decreasing orders of fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ijek.kfod f=kT;k dk ?kVrk

atomic radius is correct? Øe lgh gS\
(1) C > G > B > J. (2) G > C > B > J. (1) C > G > B > J (2) G > C > B > J
(3) J > B > G > C. (4) B > C > G > J. (3) J > B > G > C (4) B > C > G > J
83. Which one of the following elements will form ion 83. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk rRo + 3 vkos'k okyk vk;u
with + 3 charge? cuk,xk\
(1) A (2) B (1) A (2) B
(3) G (4) K (3) G (4) K
84. Identify the covalent compounds out of the 84. fuEufyf[kr esa ls lgla;ksth ;kSfxd igpkfu,%
following :
(1) DL. (2) CQ2. (1) DL (2) CQ2
(3) KA3. (4) DM2. (3) KA3 (4) DM2
85. Which of the following statements are true about 85. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&ls dFku letkrh; Js.kh osQ fo"k;
homologous series? esa lR; gSa\
(A) There is a difference of CH2 between two (A) nks Øeokj lnL;ksa osQ chp CH2 dk vUrj gksrk
consecutive members. gSA
(B) All members show similar chemical properties. (B) lHkh lnL; leku jklk;fud xq.k n'kkZrs gSaA
(C) They can be represented by a general formula. (C)  mUgsa ,d lkekU; lw=k ls fu:fir fd;k tk ldrk gSA
(D) Members of homologous series are also called (D) letkrh; Js.kh osQ lnL;ksa dks vij:i Hkh dgrs
allotropes. gSaA
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) (A), (C) and (D) (1) osQoy (A) vkSj (B) (2) (A), (C) vkSj (D)
(3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (B), (C) and (D) (3) (A), (B) vkSj (C) (4) (B), (C) vkSj (D)

86. Which structure represents butanal?
O O
(1) CH3 — C — CH2 — CH3
O O
(2) CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — C — H
O O
(3) CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — C — H
O O
(4) CH3 — CH2 — C — CH3
87. Ethene can be prepared by heating to 443K, a
mixture of:
(1) ethanol and conc, H2SO4.
(2) bromoethane and conc. H2SO4.
(3) ethanol and ethanoic acid.
(4) ethanal and conc. H2SO4.
88. One mole of a gaseous hydrocarbon requires 3.5
moles of oxygen for complete combustion. The
hydrocarbon is:
(1) ethyne. (2) ethene.
(3) ethane. (4) propane.
89. Butyne can be converted into butane by:
(1) heating at 443 K with conc. H2SO4.
(2) treating with hydrogen in presence of sunlight.
(3) simply boiling with water.
(4) reaction with hydrogen in presence of
palladium.
90. An organic compound 'A' reacts with another
compound 'B' in presence of concentrated sulphuric
acid to form another compound 'C' which possesses
fruity smell. Compound 'A' reacts with NaHCO3 to
produce a gas which is used for extinguishing fire
whereas compound 'B' reacts with sodium metal to
form another gas which burns with a pop sound.
The compound 'A', 'B' and 'C' are respectively.
(1) ethanol, ethanoic acid and butanone.
(2) ethanoic acid, propanol and butanal.
(3) ethanol, ethanoic acid and an ester.
(4) ethanoic acid, propanol and an ester.
20
86. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh lajpuk C;wVsuSy dks fu:fir
djrh gS\
(1) CH3 — C — CH2 — CH3
(2) CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — C — H
(3) CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — C — H
(4) CH3 — CH2 — C — CH3
87. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl feJ.k dks 443K rd xje djosQ
,Fkhu dk fojpu fd;k tk ldrk gS\
(1) ,FksukWy vkSj lkUnz H2SO4
(2) czkseks,Fksu vkSj lkUnz H2SO4
(3) ,FksukWy vkSj ,FksukWbd vEy
(4) ,sFksuSy vkSj lkUnz H2SO4
88. fdlh xSlh; gkbMªksdkcZu osQ ,d eksy dks iw.kZ ngu osQ
fy, vkWDlhtu osQ 3-5 eksyksa dh vko';drk gksrh gSA
;g gkbMªksdkcZu gSµ
(1) ,FkkbZuA (2) ,FkhuA
(3) ,FksuA (4) izksisuA
89. C;wVkbZu dks C;wVus esa fdlosQ }kjk ifjofrZr fd;k tk ldrk gS\
(1) lkUnz H2SO4 osQ lkFk 443 K ij xje djosQA
(2) lw;Z osQ izdk'k dh mifLFkfr esa gkbMªkstu osQ lkFk
vfHkÑr djosQA
(3) ty osQ lkFk DoFku djosQA
(4) iSyfs M;e dh mifLFkfr esa gkbMªkt s u osQ lkFk vfHkfØ;k
djosQA
90. dksbZ dkcZfud ;kSfxd 'A' ,d vU; ;kSfxd 'B' osQ lkFk
lkUnz lYÝ;wfjd vEy dh mifLFkfr esa vfHkfØ;k djosQ
;kSfxd 'C' cukrk gS ftldh xU/ iQyksa tSlh gksrh gSA
;kSfxd 'A' NaHCO3 osQ lkFk vfHkfØ;k djosQ ,d xSl
mRiUu djrk gS tks vkx cq>kus esa iz;qDr gksrh gS] tcfd
;kSfxd 'B' lksfM;e /krq osQ lkFk vfHkfØ;k djosQ ,d
vU; xSl cukrk gS tks ^ikWi* dh vkokt osQ lkFk tyrh
gSA ;kSfxd 'A', 'B' vkSj 'C' Øe'k% gSaµ
(1) ,FksukWy] ,Fksuksbd vEy] C;wVsuksuA
(2) ,FksukWbd vEy] iksisukWy] vkSj C;wVsuSyA
(3) ,FksukWy] ,Fksuksbd vEy vkSj ,d ,LVjA
(4) ,FksukWbd vEy] izksisukWy vkSj ,d ,LVjA
 21

91. Select the correct statement: 91. lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,%
(1) During micelle formation, the hydrophilic end (1) felsy fuekZ.k osQ nkSjku lkcqu osQ v.kqvksa dk tyjkxh
of the soap molecules is in the interior. fljk vanj dh vksj gksrk gSA
(2) Hydropholic end of soap molecules interact (2) diM+ksa dks lkiQ djus osQ nkSjku lkcqu osQ v.kqvksa dk
with the oily droplets during cleansing of tyfojkxh fljk rsy dh NksVh&NksVh cw¡nksa osQ lkFk
clothes. vU;ksU;fØ;k djrk gSA
(3) Soaps are better cleansing agents in hard water. (3) dBksj ty esa lkcqu csgrj liQkbZ dkjd gksrs gSaA
(4) Detergents are not effective cleansing agents (4) dBksj ty esa viektZd izHkkoh liQkbZ dkjd ugha
in hard water. gksrs gSaA
92. Select the wrong statement: 92. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Bonds formed by sharing of electrons between (1) nks ijek.kqvksa osQ chp bysDVªkWuksa dh lk>snkjh ls cuk
two atoms are called covalent bonds. vkca/ lgla;ksth vkac/ dgykrk gSA
(2) Covalent bonds can also be formed between (2) lgla;ksth vkca/ nks /krq ijek.kqvksa osQ chp Hkh fufeZr
the atoms of two metals. gks ldrk gSA
(3) Two nitrogen atoms are joined by three (3) ukbVªkstu v.kq esa nks ukbVkstu ijek.kq rhu lgla;ksth
convalent bonds in nitrogen molecule. vkca/ksa ls tqMs+ gksrs gSaA
(4) Covalent bond between two atoms is also (4) nks ijek.kqvksa osQ chp cus vkca/ dks ,d js[kk ls Hkh
represented by a line. O;Dr fd;k tkrk gSA
93. Which of the following is both an oxidation as well 93. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh vkWDlhdj.k vkSj ngu nksuksa
combustion reaction? izdkj dh vfHkfØ;k gS\
(1) CH4 + Cl2 Sunlight CH3Cl + HCl (1) CH4 + Cl2 lw;Z izdk'k CH3Cl + HCl
Alk. KMnO4 {kkjh; KMnO4
(2) CH3 CH2 OH CH3COOH (2) CH3 CH2 OH CH3COOH
(3) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O + heat and light (3) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O + Å"ek o izdk'k
H2/Ni H2/Ni
(4) CH3 – CH = CH2 CH3 – CH2 – CH3 (4) CH3 – CH = CH2 CH3 – CH2 – CH3
94. Which one of the following is a double displacement 94. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh f}foLFkkiu vkSj lkFk gh
as well as precipitation reaction? vo{ksi.k vfHkfØ;k Hkh gS\
(1) 2NaOH(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l) (1) 2NaOH(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l)
(2) 2Pb(NO3)2(s) D 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g) (2) 2Pb(NO3)2(s) D 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
(3) Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq)→ 2NaCl(aq) + BaSO4(s) (3) Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq)→ 2NaCl(aq) + BaSO4(s)
(4) Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s) (4) Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
95. UNESCO declared the year 2019 as international 95. UNESCO (;wusLdks) us o"kZ 2019 dks ?kksf"kr fd;k
year of: vUrjkZ"Vªh; o"kZµ
(1) Chemistry. (2) Light. (1) jlk;u foKku dkA (2) izdk'k dkA
(3) Periodic Table. (4) Radioactivity. (3) vkorZ lkj.kh dkA (4) jsfM;ks/feZrk dkA

Note: For question numbers 96-100, two statements are
given– One Assertion (A) and the other Reason (R). Select
the correct answer to these questions from the codes (1),
(2), (3) and (4) as given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct
explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(3) A is correct but R is wrong.
(4) A is wrong but R is correct.
96. Assertion (A): A piece of zinc metal gets a brown
coating when kept in copper sulphate solution for
sometime.
Reason (A): Copper is more reactive than Zn.
97. Assertion (R): Neutralisation reactions are
exothermic in nature.
Reason (R): During neutralisation reactions H+ ions
from acids combine with OH– ions from bases to
form water molecules and energy is released.
98. Assertion (A): Silver bromide turns grey on
exposure to sunlight.
Reason (R): Silver bromide decomposes to form
silver and bromine when exposed to sunlight.
99. Assertion (A): Magnesium is joined by two
covalent bonds with chlorine in MgCl2.
Reason (R): Magnesium has two electrons in its
valence shell which it transfers to two chlorine
atoms to form Mg2+ ion and Cl– ions.
100. Assertion (A): The number of carbon compounds
is very large.
Reason (R): Carbon exists in various allotropic forms.
101. In which one of the following, the internal fertilization
takes place?
(1) Reptiles. (2) Fishes.
(3) Frog. (4) Toad.
22
uksV%& iz'u la[;k 96&100 osQ fy,] nks dFku fn, x, gSaµ,d
dks vfHkdFku (A) vkSj nwljks dks dkj.k (R) }kjk vafdr fd;k
x;k gSA bu iz'uksa osQ lgh mÙkj uhps fn, x, dksMksa (1)] (2)]
(3) vkSj (4) esa ls pqudj nhft,%
(1) A vkSj R nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj R vfHkdFku dh lgh
O;k[;k gSA
(2) A vkSj R nksuksa lgha gSa ijUrq R vfHkdFku dh lgh
O;k[;k ugha gSA
(3) A lgh gS vkSj R xyr gSA
(4) A xyr gS vkSj R lgh gSA
96. vfHkdFku (A)% fdlh ftad osQ VqdM+s dks tc dkWij
lYisQV foy;u esa oqQN le; osQ fy, j[kk tkrk gS rks
mlosQ Åij Hkwjs jax dh ijr p<+ tkrh gSA
dkj.k (R)% dkWij] ftad dh vis{kk vf/d vfHkfØ;k'khy
gSA
97. vfHkdFku (A)% mnklhuhdj.k vfHkfØ;k,a izÑfr esa
Å"ek{ksih gksrh gSaA
dkj.k (R)% mnklhuhdj.k vfHkfØ;kvksa esa vEy ls H+
vk;u vkSj {kkj esa ls OH– vk;u la;ksftr gksdj ty osQ
v.kq cukrs gSa vkSj Å"ek fu{ksfir gksrh gSA
98. vfHkdFku (A)% lw;Z osQ izdk'k esa [kqyk NksM+us ij
flYoj czksekbM ?kwlj gks tkrk gSA
dkj.k (R)% lw;Z osQ izdk'k esa flYoj czksekbM fo?kfVr
gksdj flYoj vkSj czksehu cukrk gSA
99. vfHkdFku (A)% MgCl2 esa eSXuhf'k;e] Dyksjhu osQ lkFk
nks lgla;ksth vkcU/ksa ls tqM+k gksrk gSA
dkj.k (R)% eSXuhf'k;e osQ la;kstdrk dks'k esa nks bysDVªkuW
gSa ftUgsa ;g nks Dyksjhu ijek.kqvksa dks LFkkukUrfjr djosQ
Mg2+ vk;u vkSj Cl– cukrk gSA
100. vfHkdFku (A)% dkcZu ;kSfxdksa dh la[;k cgqr vf/d
gSA
dkj.k (R)% dkcZu fofHkUu vij:iksa esa fo|eku gksrk gSA
101. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlesa vkarfjd fu"kspu gksrk gS\
(1) ljhl`i (2) eRL;
(3) esa<d (4) VksM
 23

102. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall 102. ,d esaMyh; iz;ksx esa cSaxuh iwQyksa okys yacs rFkk eVj osQ
pea plants bearing violet flowers with dwarf pea ikS/ksa dk ckSus rFkk 'osr iq"i okys ikS/ksa ls ladj.k djk;k
plants bearing white flowers. The progeny all bore x;kA larfr osQ lHkh ikS/s cSxa uh iq"i;qDr Fks] ijUrq yxHkx
violet flowers but almost half of them were dwarf. The vk/s ikS/s yacs rFkk vk/s ikS/s ckSus FksA yacs tud ikS/ksa osQ
genetic make up of tall parent can be depicted as: thuh (iz:i) laxBu dks bl izdkj n'kkZ ldrs gSµ a
(1) wwTT. (2) WWTT (1) wwTT. (2) WWTT
(3) WWTt. (4) WwTt (3) WWTt. (4) WwTt.
103. Which one of the following stakeholders of the 103. ou laink osQ fuEufyf[kr nkosnkjksa esa ls fdlus ouksa dks
forests causes the maximum damage to the forest? lokZf/d {kfr igq¡pkbZ gS\
(1) People who live in and around forest. (1) ou osQ vanj ,oa blosQ fudV jgus okys yksxA
(2) The Forest Department of Government. (2) ljdkj dk ou foHkkxA
(3) The wildlife and nature enthusiasts. (3) oU; thou ,oa izÑfr izsehA
(4) Industrialists. (4) m|ksxifrA
104. Grazing animals can change the type of vegetation 104. pjus okys izk.kh fdlh {ks=k dh ouLifr osQ Lo:i dks
in an area by: bl izdkj cny ldrs gSaµ
(1) Cross pollination. (2) Seed dispersal. (1) ijijkx.kA (2) chtksa dk izdh.kZuA
(3) Selective grazing (4) Spreading diseases. (3) p;ukRed pkj.kA (4) jksx lapj.kA
105. A characteristic feature common to plant sieve cells 105. ikS/ksa dh pyuh&ufydk dksf'kdkvksa vkSj Lru/kfj;ksa dh
and mammalian erythrocytes is : yky #f/j dksf'kdkvksa dh lajpuk esa leku vfHky{k.k gSµ
(1) absence of cell wall. (1) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk dh vuqifLFkfrA
(2) presence of mitochondria in large number. (2) vf/d la[;k esa ekbVksØkWfMª;k dk ik;k tkukA
(3) presence of chloroplast. (3) DyksjksIykLV dh mifLFkfrA
(4) absence of nucleus. (4) osQUnzd dh vuqifLFkfrA
106. Which of the following is a useful product of 106. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk mi;ksxh mRikn ckáRoph;
epidermal origin? mRifÙk dk gS\
(1) Cloves. (2) Saffron. (1) ykSaxA (2) osQljA
(3) Cotton. (4) Cork. (3) diklA (4) dkoZQA
107. Choose the correct statement (s) on budding in yeast 107. ;hLV esa eqoqQyu dh izfØ;k osQ fy, fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa
from the following : esa ls lgh dFku@dFkuksa dks pqfu,%
(A) A parent cell devides into two or more daughter (A) tud dksf'kdk nks ;k vf/d larfr dksf'kdkvksa esa foHkkftr
cells and the parent identity is lost. gksrh gS rFkk tud dk vfLrRo lekIr gks tkrk gSA
(B) A bud arises from a particular region on the (B) tuddk; osQ fdlh fo'ks"k {ks=k esa dksbZ eqoqQy mHkjrk
parent body. gSA
(C) The elongated nucleus divides to form two or (C) nh?khZÑr osQUnzd nks ;k vf/d larfr osQUnzdksa esa
more daughter nuclei. foHkkftr gks tkrk gSA
(D) After detaching from the parent body the bud (D) tuddk; ls foyx gkssus osQ i'pkr~ eqoqQy iw.kZ
grows into a new independent individual. fodflr gksdj u;k Lora=k tho cu tkrk gSA
(1) ‘A’ only (2) ‘C’ only (1) osQoy ‘A’A (2) osQoy ‘C’A
(3) ‘A’ and ‘D’ only (4) ‘B’ and ‘D’ only (3) osQoy ‘A’ vkSj ‘D’A (4) osQoy ‘B’ vkSj ‘D’A
 24

108. A scientist from IARI Pusa advised a farmer not 108. vkb , vkj vkbZ osQ ,d oSKkfud us ,d fdlku dks [ksr
to add nitrogenous fertilizer to his wheat crop. The esa mxkbZ xbZ xsgw¡ dh iQ+ly esa ukbVªkstu moZjd ugha Mkyus
reason given by him was that the soil fertility had dh lykg nhA mlus crk;k fd bl I+kQly ls igys mxkbZ
already improved due to the crop which was grown xbZ I+kQly osQ dkj.k [ksr dh moZjrk esa i;kZIr lq/kj gqvk
earlier. The earlier grown crop was of: gSA igys mxkbZ xbZ I+kQly dk uke gSµ
(1) Maize. (2) Mustard. (1) eDdkA (2) ljlksaA
(3) Pea. (4) Paddy. (3) eVjA (4) /kuA
109. Which one of the following has the largest 109. fdlh vkgkj J`a[kyk esa lcls cM+h lef"V dkSu&lh gS\
population in a food chain.
(1) Producers. (2) Primary consumers. (1) mRikndA (2) izkFkfed miHkksDrkA
(3) Secondary consumers.(4) Tertiary consumers. (3) f}rh; miHkksDrkA (4) r`rh; miHkksDrkA
110. Which of the following group of microbes is used 110. fuEu esa ls dkSu&ls lw{ethoksa dk mi;ksx [kk| inkFkks± osQ
in preparation of food items. fuekZ.k esa fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) Lactobacillus and Scaceharomyes cervisiae. (1) ySDVkscSlhyl rFkk lSdjksekblhT+k ljohlhA
(2) Aspergillus niger and Rhizopus. (2) ,Lijftyl ukbxj rFkk jkbT+kksilA
(3) Streptococeus and S. cervisiae. (3) LVªsIVksdkDdl rFkk ,l ljohlhA
(4) Lactobacillus and E.coli. (4) ySDVkscSlhyl ,oa b- dksykbZA
111. The breakdown of pyruvate to give CO2, water and 111. ik;:osV fo?kfVd gksdj CO2] ty ,oa ÅtkZ iznku djrk
energy takes place in: gS] ;g fØ;k laiUu gksrh gSµ
(1) Cytoplasm. (2) Chloroplast. (1) dksf'kdknzO; esaA (2) DyksjksIykLV esaA
(3) Nucleus. (4) Mitochondria. (3) osQUnzd esaA (4) ekbVksdkWfMª;k esaA
112. The gap between two neurons is called: 112. nks raf=kdk dksf'kdkvksa osQ eè; fjDr LFkku dks dgrs gSaµ
(1) dendrite. (2) synapse. (1) nqzfedkA (2) flusIlA
(3) axon (4) impulse. (3) ,DlkWuA (4) vkosxA
113. If chromosome number in pollengrain of an 113. ;fn] ,d vko`rchth ikS/s osQ ijkxd.k esa xq.klw=kksa dh la[;k
angiospermic plant is 12, then number of 12 gS] rks blosQ Hkwz.k rFkk Hkzw.kiks"k esa xq.klw=kksa dh la[;k
chromosomes in embryo and endosperm of the gksxhµ
same plant will be :
(1) 12 and 24 respectively. (1) Øe'k% 12 rFkk 24
(2) 24 and 12 respectively. (2) Øe'k% 24 rFkk 12
(3) 24 in both. (3) nksuksa esa 24
(4) 24 and 36 respectively. (4) Øe'k% 24 rFkk 36
114. Right side of human heart contains: 114. ekuo&ân; osQ nkfgus Hkkx esa ik;k tkrk gSµ
(1) Oxygeneted blood. (2) Deoxygenated blood (1) vkWDlhÑr #f/jA (2) vukWDlhÑr #f/jA
(3) Mixed blood. (4) Lymph. (3) fefJr #f/jA (4) ylhdkA
115. Select the set of homologous organs from the 115. fuEufyf[kr es a ls letkr va x ks a os Q leq P p; dks
following : pqfu,µ
(1) Wings of duck and dragon fly. (1) cÙkd vkSj Mªsxu ÝykbZ osQ ia[kA
(2) Flaps of whale and wings of a bat. (2) âsy osQ ÝySi rFkk pexknM+ osQ ia[kA
(3) Wings of butterfly and a bat. (3) frryh vkSj pexknM+ osQ ia[kA
(4) Forelimbs of a lizard and a spider. (4) fNidyh vkSj edM+h esa vxziknA
 25

116. A student while observing an embryo of a gram seed
listed various parts of the embryo as listed below:
Testa, Micropyle, Cotyledon, Tegmen, Plumule,
Radicle.
Looking at the list the teacher said, “only three are
correct.’’ Select these three:
(1) Cotyledon, Micropyle, Plumule.
(2) Radicle, Tegmen, Cotyledon.
(3) Testa, Plumule, Cotyledon.
(4) Cotyledon, Plumule, Redicle.
117. Malaria can be detected by testing the blood for the
presence of :
(1) Plasmodium in red blood cells.
(2) ruptured liver cells in blood.
(3) larvae of mosquito in blood.
(4) eggs of mosquito in red blood cells.
118. In rural areas, cow dung is used to coat the floor and
walls of the house/huts to:
(1) make the surface smooth and clean.
(2) give natural colour to the floor and walls.
(3) make them rough to increase friction.
(4) keep the insects away.
119. “Chipko Movement” was strengthened under the
leadership of:
(1) Sunder Lal Bahuguna.
(2) Amrita Devi Bishnoi.
(3) A.K. Banerjee.
(4) Medha Patkar.
120. Experimental proof of the organic evolution theory
that hydrogen, water, methene and ammonia may
have originally given rise to amino acids was
furnished by:
(1) Haldane. (2) Stanely Miller.
(3) Charles Darwin. (4) Jean Baptist Lamark.
121. Periyar Sanctuary is known for the protection of:
(1) Chinkara (2) Elephant
(3) Leopard (4) Tiger.
122. Which component of the phloem is not living
(alive)?
(1) Companion cells. (2) Phloem fibres.
(3) Sieve tubes. (4) Phloem-parenchyma.
116. pus osQ cht dk izs{k.k djrs le; ,d Nk=k us uhps fn,
x, vuqlkj Hkzw.k osQ fofHkUu Hkkxksa dh lwph cukbZµ
chtkoj.k] chtk.M}kj] chti=k] var% dop] izkoqQj] ewykaoQq jA
bl lwph dks ns[kdj f'k{kd egksn; us dgk] ^^buesa ls
osQoy rhu gh lgh gSaA** bu rhu dks pqfu,A
(1) chti=k] chtk.M}kj] izkaoqQjA
(2) ewykadj] var% dop] chti=kA
(3) chtkoj.k] izkaoqQj] chti=kA
(4) chti=k] izko
a Qq j] ewykaoQq jA
117. :f/j dh tk¡p }kjk fdl lajpuk dh mifLFkfr ls eysfj;k
dh igpku gksrh gSµ
(1) yky :f/j dksf'kdkvksa esa IyST+eksfM;e dhA
(2) :f/j esa {kfrxzLr ;Ñr dksf'kdk,¡A
(3) :f/j esa ePNj osQ ykosZA
(4) yky :f/j dksf'kdkvksa esa ePNj osQ vaMsA
118. xzkeh.k {ks=kksa esa ?kj] >ksiM+h osQ iQ'kZ vkSj nhokjksa dks xk;
osQ xkscj esa yhik tkrk gSµ
(1) lrg dks fpduk vkSj lkiQ j[kus osQ fy,A
(2) iQ'kZ vkSj nhokjksa dks izkÑfrd jax nsus osQ fy,A
(3) [kqjnjk cukdj ?k"kZ.k c<+kus osQ fy,A
(4) dhV&iraxksa dks nwj j[kus osQ fy,A
119. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlosQ usr`Ro esa ^fpidks vkUnksyu* dks
cy feykµ
(1) lqanj yky cgqxq.kkA
(2) ve`rk nsoh fo'uksbZA
(3) ,-osQ- cSuthZA
(4) es?kk ikaVdjA
120. gkbMªkstu] ty] ehFksu rFkk veksfu;k dks Ñf=ke okrkoj.k
iznku dj vehuks vEy dk la'ys"k.k dj tSo fodkl dk
izk;ksfxd izek.k fdl oSKkfud }kjk fn;k x;kµ
(1) gkYMsuA (2) LVsuys&feyjA
(3) pkYlZ MkfoZuA (4) thu ckifVLV ykekoZQA
121. isfj;kj vH;kj.; fdl tUrq osQ laj{k.k osQ fy, tkuk tkrk gSµ
(1) fpadkjkA (2) gkFkhA
(3) rsanqvkA (4) 'ksjA
122. Ýyks,e dh dkSu&lh lajpuk ltho ugha gS\
(1) dEisfu;u lsyA (2) Ýyks,e iQkbcjA
(3) lho V~;wcA (4) Ýyks,e iSjsudkbekA
 26

123. Which one of the following equations is the 123. fuEufyf[kr lehdj.kksa esa ls fdls izdk'kla'ys"k.k izfØ;k
summary of photosynthesis? dk lkjka'k ekuk tkrk gSA
(1) 6CO2 + 12H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O. (1) 6CO2 + 12H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
(2) 6CO2 + H2O + Sunlight → C6H12O2 + 6O2 + 6H2O (2) 6CO2 + H2O + lw;Z dk izdk'k → C6H12O2 + 6O2
(3) 6CO2 + 12H2O + Chlorophyll + Sunlight → + 6H2O
C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O. (3) 6CO2 + 12H2O + DyksjksfiQy + lw;Z dk izdk'k →
(4) 6CO2 + 12H2O + Chlorophyll + Sunlight → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
C6H12O6 + 6CO2 + 6H2O. (4) 6CO2 + 12H2O + DyksjksfiQy + lw;Z dk izdk'k →
C6H12O6 + 6CO2 + 6H2O
124. Ram and Shyam observed an animal in their 124. jke rFkk ';ke us vius cxhps esa ,d tUrq dks ns[kkA
garden. Shyam called it an insect while Ram said ';ke us bls ,d dhV crk;k tcfd jke us mls osaQpqvk
it was an earthworm. Choose the character from dgkA fuEufyf[kr y{k.kksa dk p;u dhft, ftuls blosQ
the following which confirm that it is an insect. dhV gksus dh iqf"V gksrh gksA
(i) Bilaterally symmetrical body. (i) f}ik'oZ&lefer dk;A
(ii) Body with jointed legs. (ii) laf/;qDr iknksaokyh dk;A
(iii) Cylindrical body. (iii) csyukdkj dk;A
(iv) Body with small segmentation. (iv) NksVs&NksVs [k.Mksa;qDr dk;A
(1) (i) and (iv). (2) (ii) and (iii). (1) (i) vkSj (iv) (2) (ii) vkSj (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii). (4) (iii) and (iv). (3) (i) vkSj (ii) (4) (iii) vkSj (iv)
125. Organelle other than nucleus containing DNA is. 125. osQUnzd osQ vfrfjDr Mh-,u-, ;qDr ik;s tkus okys vU;
dksf'kdkax gSa
(1) endoplasmic reticulum. (2) golgi apparatus (1) varnzZO;h tkfydkA (2) xkYth midj.kA
(3) mitochondria. (4) lysosome. (3) ekbVksdkWfUMª;kA (4) ykblkslkseA
126. While doing work and running, you move your 126. dk;Z djrs le; rFkk Hkkxrs le; vki vius 'kjhj osQ
organ like hand, legs etc. Which among the vax tSls gkFk] Vk¡xsa vkfn dks fgykrs Mqykrs gksA bl fØ;k
following is correct. esa fuEu esa dkSu lgh gS%
(1) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament (1) fpduh ekalisf'k;ksa dk laoqQpu rFkk vfLFk;ksa dh xfr
to move the bones. osQ fy, fyxkesaV dk f[akpukA
(2) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons (2) fpduh ekalisf'k;ksa dk laoqQpu rFkk vfLFk;ksa dh xfr
to move the bones. osQ fy, VSUMuksa esa f[akpkoA
(3) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament (3) oaQdkyh; ekalisf'k;ksa dk laoqQpu rFkk vfLFk;ksa dh
to move the bones. xfr osQ fy, fyxkesaV dk f[akpkoA
(4) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendons (4) oaQdkyh; ekalisf'k;ksa dk laoqQpu rFkk vfLFk;ksa dh
to move the bones. xfr osQ fy, VSUMuksa esa f[akpkoA
127. Which among the following have scales: 127. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlesa 'kYd gksrs gSaµ
(i) Amphibians. (ii) Pisces. (i) ,sfEiQfc;kA (ii) filhT+kA
(iii) Reptiles. (iv) Mammals. (iii) ljhl`iA (iv) Lru/kjhA
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (iii) and (iv) (1) (i) vkSj (iii) (2) (iii) vkSj (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (ii) (3) (ii) vkSj (iii) (4) (i) vkSj (ii)

128. Which scientist was awarded Nobel Prize for
discovering the cause of Peptic ulcer?
(1) Maurice Wilkins & R. Franklin.
(2) Taylor & Colleague.
(3) Barry Marshall & Robin Warren.
(4) Meselsons Stahl.
129. Name the British Scientist who suggested that
life must have developed from simple inorganic
molecules which were present during early years
of formation of the Earth:
(1) Stanley L. Miller. (2) J.B.S. Haldane.
(3) Harold Urey. (4) Nirenberg.
130. If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva which
of the following events in the mouth cavity will
be affected?
(1) Protein breaking down into amino acids.
(2) Starch breaking down into sugar.
(3) Fat breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol.
(4) Absorption of vitamins.
131. In our country, there are attempts to increase the
height of several existing dams like Tehri and
Almati dams across rivers. Choose the correct
statements among the following that may be
consequences of raising the height of dams:
(i) Terrestrial flora and fauna of the area is destroyed
completely.
(ii) Dislocation of people and domestic animals
living in the area.
(iii) Valuable agricultural land may be permanently
lost.
(iv) It will generate permanent employment for
people.
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
132. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
events of sexual reproduction in a flower?
(1) Pollination, fertilization, Seedling, Embryo.
(2) Seedling, Embryo, Fertilization, Pollination.
(3) Pollination, Fertilization, Embryo, Seedling.
(4) Embryo, Seedling , Pollination, Fertilization.
27
128. isifVd vylj osQ dkj.k osQ vkfo"dkj osQ iQyLo:i
fdl oSKkfud dks ukscsy izkbT+k feyk Fkkµ
(1) ekSfjl foyfdal vkSj vkj ÚSUosQyhuA
(2) Vsyj vkSj lg;ksxhA
(3) cSjh ek'kZy vkSj jksfcu oSjuA
(4) eslsYlu vkSj LVkgyA
129. ml oSKkfud dk D;k uke gS ftlus lq>ko fn;k Fkk fd
i`Foh osQ cuus osQ izkjfEHkd fnuksa esa tho dh mRifr
mifLFkr ljy vdkcZfud rRoksa ls gqbZ gksxh\
(1) LVsuyh ,y ehyjA (2) tsú chú ,lú gkyMsuA
(3) gSjksYM ;wjsA (4) fujsucxZA
130. ;fn ykj esa ykj&,sekbyst dh deh gks] rc eq[k&xqgk esa
dkSu&lh ?kVuk izHkkfor gksxh\
(1) izksVhu dk vehuks vEyksa esa fo?kfVr gksukA
(2) LVkpZ dk 'koZQjk esa fo?kfVr gksukA
(3) olk dk olk&vEy vkSj fXyljksy esa fo?kfVr gksukA
(4) foVkfeuksa dk vo'kks"k.kA
131. gekjs ns'k esa ufn;ksa osQ vkj&ikj cus ck¡/ksa] tSls Vsgjh vkSj
vYekuh cka/ksa dh Å¡pkbZ c<+kus osQ iz;Ru fd, tk jgs gSaA
uhps fn, x, dFkuksa esa ls lgh dFku pqfu, ftuls bl
ckr dk laosQr feyrk gks fd ck¡/ksa dh Å¡pkbZ c<+kus osQ
D;k ifj.kke gksaxsA
(i) {ks=k osQ LFkyh; ikni vkSj izk.kh iwjh rjg ls u"V gks
tk;saxsA
(ii) {ks=k esa jg jgs yksx vkSj ikyrw i'kq vO;ofLFkr gks
tk;saxsA
(iii) [ksrh osQ fy, mi;ksxh tehu LFkk;h :i ls u"V gks
tk;sxhA
(iv) blls yksxksa dks LFkk;h ukSdjh fey losQxhA
(1) (i) vkSj (ii) (2) (i), (ii) vkSj (iii)
(3) (ii) vkSj (iv) (4) (i), (iii) vkSj (iv)
132. ,d iq"i esa ySafxd tuu dh ?kVukvksa dk lgh Øe
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk gS\
(1) ijkx.k] fu"kspu] uoksnfen~] Hkwz.kA
(2) uoksn~fen~] Hkw.k] fu"kspu] ijkx.kA
(3) ijkx.k] fu"kspu] Hkw.k] uoksnfen~A
(4) Hkwz.k] uoksnfen~] ijkx.k] fu"kspuA

133. New species may be formed if:
(i) DNAundergoes significant changes in germ cells.
(ii) Chromosome number changes in the gamete.
(iii) There is no change in the genetic material.
(iv) Mating does not take place.
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
134. Which of the following statements is true about heart?
(i) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from
different parts of the body while right atrium
receives dexoygenated blood from lungs.
(ii) Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to
different body parts while right ventricle
pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs.
(iii) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to right
ventricle which sends it to different body parts.
(iv) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood
from different parts of the body while left
ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different
parts of the body.
(1) (i) (2) (ii)
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii)
135. The movement of sunflower in accordance with the
path of sun is due to:
(1) Phototropism. (2) geotropism.
(3) chemotropism. (4) hydrotropism.
136. Two pink coloured flowers on crossing resulted in
1 red, 2 pink and 1 white flower progeny. The nature
of the cross will be:
(1) double fertilization.
(2) incomplete dominance
(3) co dominance
(4) no fertilization.
137. According to the evolutionary theory of Darwin,
formation of a new species is generally due to:
(1) Sudden creation by nature.
(2) Accumulation of variations over several
generation.
(3) Clones formed during asexual reproduction.
(4) Movement of individuals from one habitat to
another.
138. When air is blown from mouth into a test tube
containing lime water, the lime water turned milky
due to presence of:
(1) oxygen. (2) carbon dioxide.
(3) nitrogen. (4) water vapour.
28
133. ubZ Lih'kht dk fuekZ.k gks ldrk gS tc%
(i) tuu dksf'kdkvksa osQ DNA esa egRoiw.kZ ifjorZu gksrs gSAa
(ii) ;qXed osQ xq.klw=kksa dh la[;k esa ifjorZu vk tkrk gSA
(iii) vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ esa dksbZ ifjorZu ugha gksrkA
(iv) tudksa esa ijLij eSFkqu ugha gksrkA
(1) (i) vkSj (ii) (2) (i) vkSj (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) vkSj (iv) (4) (i), (ii) vkSj (iii)
134. ân; osQ ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh gSµ
(i) ck;k¡ vfyan 'kjhj osQ fofHkUu Hkkxksa ls vkWDlhtfur
jDr izkIr djrk gS tcfd nk;k¡ vfyan isQiQM+ksa esa
fovkWDlhtfur jDr izkIr djrk gSA
(ii) ck;k¡ fuy; vkWDlhtfur jDr dks 'kjhj osQ fofHkUu Hkkxksa
esa iai dj nsrk gS tcfd nk;k¡ fuy; fovkWDlhtfur
jDr dks isQI+kQM+ksa esa iai dj nsrk gSA
(iii) ck;sa vfyan esa ls vkWDlhtfur jDr nk;sa fuy; esa
pyk tkrk gS tks bl jDr dks 'kjhj osQ fofHkUu Hkkxksa
esa Hkst nsrk gSA
(iv) nk;k¡ vfyan 'kjhj osQ fofHkUu Hkkxksa ls fovkWDlhtfur
jDr izkIr djrk gS tcfd ck;k¡ fuy; vkWDlhtfur
jDr dks 'kjhj osQ fofHkUu Hkkxksa esa iai dj nsrk gSA
(1) (i) (2) (ii)
(3) (ii) vkSj (iv) (4) (i) vkSj (iii)
135. lw;Z osQ lkFk&lkFk lw;Zeq[kh osQ iq"i dh xfr dk dkj.k
gksrk gSµ
(1) izdk'kkuqorZuA (2) xq:RokuqorZuA
(3) jlk;ukuqorZuA (4) tykuqorZuA
136. nks xqykch jax osQ iq"iksa dks ladfjr djkus osQ ifj.kkeLo:i
,d yky] nks xqykch rFkk ,d lisQn iq"i dh larfr izkIr
gqbZ bl izfØ;k esa ladj.k dh izÑfr D;k gksxh\
(1) f}fu"kspuA (2) vkf'kad izHkkohA
(3) lgizHkkohA (4) 'kwU; fu"kspuA
137. MkfoZu osaQ fodklh; fl¼kUr osQ vuqlkj ubZ Lih'khT+k dk
fuekZ.k lkèkkj.kr% bl dkj.k gksrk gSµ
(1) izÑfr }kjk ;dk;d l`f"VA
(2) vusdksa ihf<+;ksa rd fofHkUurkvksa dk lap;uA
(3) vySafxd tuu osQ nkSjku Dyksuksa dk fuekZ.kA
,d LFkku ls nwljs LFkku dh vksj O;f"Vxr tho dh
(4) 
xfrA
138. tc eq¡g osQ }kjk ,d ij[kuyh ftlesa pwus dk ikuh gks]
gok iw¡Qdh tkrh gS rc ij[kuyh osQ Hkhrj tks pwus dk
ikuh gS og nwf/;k fdldh mifLFkfr osQ dkj.k gks tkrk gSA
(1) vkWDlhtuA (2) dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbMA
(3) ukbVªkstuA (4) tyh; ok"iA

139. Electrical impulse travels in a neuron from:
(1) Dendrite→axon→oxonal end →cell body.
(2) Cell body→dendrite→axon →axonal end.
(3) Dendrite→cell body→axon →axonal end.
(4) Axonal end→axon→cell body→dendrite.
140. The substance that triggers wilting of mature leaves
is:
(1) Auxin. (2) gibbrellin.
(3) Abscisic acid. (4) cytokinin.
141. Honeybee, spider and prawn are classified under
the same phylum because they have:
(1) Three pairs of legs. (2) Jointed appendages.
(3) Show metamorphosis. (4) Well developed eyes.
142. Lata is about to face an interview, But during
the first five minutes before the interview she
experience sweating, increased rate of heart beat
and respiration etc. which hormone is responsible
for her restlessness:
(1) Estrogen. (2) Thyroxin.
(3) Adrenaline. (4) Insulin.
143. Following are few definitions of osmosis. Read
carefully and select the correct definition:
(1) Movement of water molecules from a region
of higher concentration to a region of lower
concentration through a semipermeable
membrane.
(2) Movement of solvent molecules from its higher
concentration to lower concentration.
(3) Movement of solvent molecules from higher
concentration to lower concentration of
solution through a permeable membrane.
(4) Movement of solute molecules from lower
concentration to higher concentration of
solution through a semipermeable membrane.
144. Root cap is absent in:
(1) Mesophytes.
(2) Holophytes.
(3) Xerophytes.
(4) Hydrophytes.
145. Which of the following groups is often referred to
as amphibian of the plant kingdom: tyFkypjh; (,EiQhfc;u) dgk tkrk gS\
(1) Spermatophyta. (2) Bryophytes.
(3) Pteridophytes. (4) Thallophyta.
29
139. U;wjkWu esa fo|qr vkosx dgk¡ ls vkjEHk gksdj dgk¡ rd tkrs gSAa
(1) MsaMªkbV→,sDlkWu→,sDlkWu Nksj→dksf'kdkdk;A
(2) dksf'kdkdk;→MsMªkbV→,sDlkWu→,sDlkWu NksjA
(3) MsaMªkbV→dksf'kdkdk;→,sDlkWu→,sDlku NksjA
(4) ,Dlku Nksj→,sDlkWu→dksf'kdkdk;→MsMªkbVA
140. ikS/s ij ls ifjiDo ifÙk;ksa dk eqj>kuk fdl inkFkZ osQ
dkj.k gksrk gS\
(1) vkWfDluA (2) ftcjsfyuA
(3) ,fClfld vEyA (4) lkbVksdkbfuuA
141. e/qeD[kh] edM+h rFkk >haxk oQks ,d gh iQkbye esa oxhZÑr
fd;k x;k gS D;ksafd muesa gksrs gSaµ
(1) rhu tksM+s iknA (2) laf/r mikaxA
(3) dk;karj.k gksrk gSA (4) iw.kZ fodflr vk¡[ksaA
142. yrk lk{kkRdkj osQ fy, rS;kj gS ysfdu lk{kkRdkj nsus osQ
ik¡p feuV iwoZ og ilhuk fudyus] ân; Lina nj vkSj
'olu nj c<+us vkfn dk vuqHko djrh gS crk;sa fd
mldh cSpSuh osQ fy, dkSu&lk gkeksZu mÙkjnk;h gS\
(1) ,LVªkstuA (2) FkkbjkWDlhuA
(3) ,fMªuyhuA (4) balqfyuA
143. ijklj.k dh oqQN ifjHkk"kk;sa uhps nh xbZ gSa bUgsa lko/kuh
ls if<+;s vkSj lgh ifjHkk"kk dk p;u dhft,µ
(1) v/ZikjxE; f>Yyh ls gksdj] ty osQ v.kqvksa dk
vf/d lkUnzrk okys {ks=k ls fuEu lkUnzrk okys {ks=k
dh vksj tkukA
(2) foyk;d v.kqvksa dk vf/d lkUnzrk ls fuEu lkUnzrk
dh vksj tkukA
(3) ikjxE; f>Yyh ls gksdj foyk;d v.kqvksa dk vf/d
lkUnzrk ls fuEu lkUnzrk okys foy;u dh vksj tkukA
(4) v/ZikjxE; f>Yyh ls gksdj foys; v.kqvksa dk fuEu
lkUnzrk okys foyk;d ls vf/d lkUnzrk okys foyk;d
dh vksj tkukA
144. ewyxksi (Vksi) vuqifLFkr gksrk gSµ
(1) leksn~fHkn~ (ehtksiQkbV) esaA
(2) yo.k e`nksn~fHkn (gSyksiQkbV) esaA
(3) e:LFkyh; ikS/ksa (e:j~fHkn~) esaA
(4) tyksn~fHkn~ ikS/ksa esaA
145. fuEufyf[kr oxksZ esa fdl oxZ dks ikni txr dk
(1) LijesVksiQkbVkA (2) czk;ksiQkbVA
(3) VsfjMksiQkbVA (4) FkSyksiQkbVkA

Note: For question numbers 146-150, two statements are
given– one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these question
from the codes (1) (2) (3) and (4) as given below
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation
of the assertion.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
146. Assertion (A): To increase the shelf-life of food
items, enough sugar and salt is added in pickles,
jams, tomato ketchup etc.
Reason (R): Remove water from the microbes,
make them plasmolysed and inactive.
147. Assertion (A): wings of birds and forelimbs of
lizard are Analogous organs.
Reason (R): Above noted organs have common
origin but perform different functions. So they are
not analogous but homologous organs.
148. Assertion (A): Monerans have well defined nucleus.
Reason (R): Monerans are unicellular, earliest
evolved with simple cell structure without definite
nuclear membrane.
149. Assertion (A): Green organs of the plants, during
photosynthesis, release oxygen in the atmosphere.
Reason (R): Photosynthesis, being faster than
respiration, produces and releases oxygen.
150. Assertion (A): Human heart has two pairs of
pulmonary veins and one pair of pulmonary
arteries.
Reason (R): To ensure smooth flow pulmonary
arteries carry blood with some pressure, while
leaving lungs, blood in pulmonary veins has no
pressure.
30
uksV%& iz'u la[;k 146&150 osQ fy,] nks dFku fn, x, gSaµ,d
dks vafdr vfHkdFku (A) rFkk nwljs oQks vafdr dkj.k (R)
}kjk fn;k x;k gS bu iz'uksa osQ lgh mÙkj uhps fn, x, dksMksa
(1)] (2) (3) vkSj (4) esa ls pqudj nhft,A
(1) A vkSj R nksuksa lgha gSa rFkk R vfHkdFku dh lgh O;k[;k
gSA
(2) A vkSj R nksuksa lgh gSa ijUrq R vfHkdFku dh lgh O;k[;k
ugha gSA
(3) A lgh gS ijUrq R xyr gSA
(4) A xyr gS ijUrq R lgh gSA
146. vfHkdFku (A)% vpkj] tSe] VekVj oSQpvi vkfn [kk|
inkFkks± dh 'ksYiQ ykbZiQ c<+kus osQ fy, mlesa vf/d ek=kk
esa phuh vkSj ued dk iz;ksx gksrk gSA
dkj.k (R)% phuh@ued lw{ethoksa ls ikuh (ty) dks ckgj
[khap dj mUgsa fuf"Ø; ,oa IykT+eksykbT+k dj nsrk gSA
147. vfHkdFku (A)% ia{kh osQ ia[k ,oa fNidyh dh vxzckgq
le:i vax gSaA
dkj.k (R)% mijksÙkQ dFku esa if{k;ksa dk ia[k ,oa
fNidyh dh vxzckgq dh mRifr leku gS fdUrq dk;Z
fHkUu gS blfy, ;g le:i ugha vfirq letkr vax gSaA
148. vfHkdFku (A)% Li"V osQUnzd eksujUl esa gksrs gSaA
dkj.k (R)% lcls igys mRiUu gksus okyh ljy lajpuk
,d dksf'kdh; eksujUl esa Li"V osQUnzd f>Yyh ugha gksrh
gSA
149. vfHkdFku (A)% izdk'kala'ys"k.k osQ nkSjku ikS/s osQ gjs
Hkkx vkWDlhtu okrkoj.k esa NksM+rs gSaA
dkj.k (R)% izdk'kla'ys"k.k] 'olu dh rqyuk esa] rst
xfr ls gksus osQ dkj.k vkWDlhtu cukrk ,oa NksM+rk gSA
150. vfHkdFku (A)% ekuo ân; esa nks tksM+s iqQÝiqQl f'kjk,¡
vkSj ,d tksM+k iqQÝiqQl /euh gksrh gSaA
dkj.k (R)% fuckZ/ izokg dks lqfuf'pr djus osQ fy,
lhfer nkc osQ lkFk :f/j iqQ­­ÝiqQl /euh }kjk isQiQM+ksa esa
izos'k djrk gS fdUrq ogh jDr isQiQM+ksa ls iqQ­ÝiqQl f'kjk,¡
ls fudyrs le; nkcojfgr gksrk gSA
 Candidate's Roll No.
ANSWER SHEET
mÙkj i=k

  Q.No. 1 2 3 4 Q.No. 1 2 3 4 Q.No. 1 2 3 4 Q.No. 1 2 3 4 Q.No. 1 2 3 4 Q.No. 1 2 3 4

1 26 51 76 101 126

2 27 52 77 102 127

3 28 53 78 103 128

4 29 54 79 104 129

5 30 55 80 105 130

6 31 56 81 106 131

7 32 57 82 107 132

8 33 58 83 108 133

9 34 59 84 109 134

10 35 60 85 110 135

11 36 61 86 111 136

12 37 62 87 112 137

13 38 63 88 113 138

14 39 64 89 114 139

15 40 65 90 115 140

16 41 66 91 116 141

17 42 67 92 117 142

18 43 68 93 118 143

19 44 69 94 119 144

20 45 70 95 120 145

21 46 71 96 121 146

22 47 72 97 122 147

23 48 73 98 123 148

24 49 74 99 124 149

25 50 75 100 125 150

Signature of Invigilator Signature of Evaluator