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CSS MCQ Based Preliminary Test (MPT)

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ISLAMIAT
1. The Holy Quran was revealed in
A. 22 years C. 22 years 6 months 14 days
B. 22 years 5 months 14 days D. 23 years 4 months 5 days
2. What was the name of Spaceship used in the first space exploration mission named "Mishkat al-Falak" (‫ )اكشمةالفلك‬by Muslim Scientists?
A. ‫( النجمة الطائرة‬Al-Najmah al-Ta'irah) C. ‫( الرحالة الفضائية‬Al-Rahalah al-Fadaiyah)
B. ‫( المركب الكون‬Al-Markab al-Kawni) D. None of these
3. What does “Istidlal” mean?
A. Juristic Deduction C. Analogical Deduction
B. Social Behaviour D. None of these
4. Foundation of Islamic Jurisprudence was laid down by?
A. Imam Shafi C. Imam Abu Hanifa
B. Imam Malik D. All of the above
‫لعظي‬
5. Exegesis of the Great Qur'an' ‫ تفسيرارقلآنا م‬was written by?
A. Imam Razi C. Ibn Taymiyya
B. Umar ibn Kathīr D. Al-Dhahabi.
6. Who is considered the "Poet of the Jahiliyya" and is renowned for his elegies and panegyrics during the pre-Islamic era?
A. Imru' al-Qais C. Zuhair ibn Abi Sulma
B. Labid ibn Rabia D. None of these
7. Sahih al-Bukhari ‫ يحصااخبلري‬is one of the six major collections of hadith was compiled by?
A. Imam Ahmad bin Hanbal C. Imam Jalaudin Sayyouti
B. Imam Malik D. None of these
8. "Golden Chain of Narration" is remarkable work of?
A. Imam Abu Hanifa C. Imam Shafi
B. Imam Malik D. Imam Jaffar al Sadiq
9. Running between Safa & Marwa is called as
A. Sayaee C. Tawaf
B. Shoot D. Waquf
10 Prophet PBUH migrated to Madina in which year?
A. 620 AD C. 622 AD
B. 621 AD D. 624 AD
11. What does Qisas mean?
A. Equal punishment for the crime committed C. To give paradon
B. Retributive justice D. Both A & B
12. Who was the first ambassador of Islam?
A. Hazrat Hamza R.A C. Hazrat Mus'ab ibn Umar R.A
B. Hazrat Abu Bakr R.A D. Hazrat Ali R.A
13. The 7th month of the Islamic calendar is the month of _________?
A. Shabaan C. Rajab
B. Ramzan D. Nones of these
14. What does Taqlid means
A. To purse C. To Agree
B. Follow a school of law D. None of these
15 Which Islamic Month is called as Syed Us Shahoor?
A. Muharam C. Zil Hajj
B. Rajab D. Ramzan
16 Who is often referred to as the "Hujjat al-Islam" (Proof of Islam) and is known for his contributions to Islamic philosophy and theology?
A. Ibn Taymiyyah C. Imam al-Ghazali
B. Imam Shafi'i D. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
17 Who was the first female Shaheed (martyr) of Islam?
A. Hazrat Nafoosa R.A C. Hazrat Umm e Aimen R.A
B. Hazrat Sumayyah R.A D. Hazrat Umm e Hani R.A
18 Who was the 1st Hafiz of Quran?
A. Hazrat Khalid bin Waleed R.A C. Hazrat Ali R.A
B. Hazrat Usman R.A D. Hazrat Abubakar R.A
19 Which method is used to prove the correctness of Sanad of hadith?
A. Isma-ur-Rajjal C. Riwayat
B. Dirayat D. Musnad
20 Bait-e- Rizwan took place in _______ Hijrah?
A. 6th C. 8th
B. 7th D. 9th

CSS MCQ Based Preliminary Test (MPT)


Screening Test 2022
‫)‪CSS MCQ Based Preliminary Test (MPT‬‬
‫)‪Screening Test 2023 (Test 03‬‬ ‫‪CSS Preparations‬‬
‫‪P‬‬
‫‪Panacea Institute CSS Multan 0300-80-70-666‬‬

‫‪URDU‬‬
‫دنمرہجذلیوساولںےکےچیناچرآزنشپدےیےئگںیہ‪،‬درتسوجاباکااختنبرکںی۔‬
‫ں‬
‫رشتفیرےیھکانجب‪،‬اچےئاشےئ یپےگآپ؟‬ ‫‪.21‬‬
‫(اشےئ)ظفلِلمہمےہ۔‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫(اشےئ)رمبکےہ۔‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫(اشےئ)مہینعمظفلےہ۔‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫(اشےئ)ظفلِوموضعےہ۔‬ ‫‪(C‬‬
‫ریمضِوموصہلیکرعتفیایکےہ؟‬ ‫‪.22‬‬
‫سجاکرمعجوپرےےلمجریغباےکسدعبہنالایاجےئوتبلطمھجمسںیہنآات۔‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫سجاکرمعجوپرےےلمجتیمساےکسدعبالایاجےئوتبلطمھجمسںیہنآات۔‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫سجاکرمعجوپرےےلمجتیمساےکسدعبالایاجےئوتیھببلطمھجمسآاتےہ۔‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫سجاکوعفملوپرےےلمجتیمساےکسدعبالایاجےئوتبلطمھجمسںیہنآات۔‬ ‫‪(C‬‬
‫ڈنیماھیکومثنایکےہ؟‬ ‫‪.23‬‬
‫اگےئ‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫ڈنیمیھ‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫ڑیھب‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫سنیھب‬ ‫‪(C‬‬
‫رمبکِانصقہلمجوتںیہنرگمےلمجاکہصحوہاتکسےہ۔‬ ‫‪.24‬‬
‫یھبکوہاتکسےہاوریھبکںیہن‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫اہں‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫وکیئںیہن‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫ںیہن‬ ‫‪(C‬‬
‫متوخداجےتنوہہکمتےناانپاکروابرابتہایکےہ۔‬ ‫‪.25‬‬
‫وخد۔ریمضِصفيیےہ۔‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫وخد۔ریمضِاتدیکیےہ۔‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫وکیئںیہن‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫وخد۔ریمضِریکنتیےہ۔‬ ‫‪(C‬‬
‫ریماایخلےہہکآپاکیردمحلااسننںیہ۔‬ ‫‪.26‬‬
‫ریما۔ریمضِافیلعےہ۔‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫ریما۔ریمضِاِاضیفےہ۔‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫ریما۔ریمضِوموصہلےہ۔‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫ریما۔ریمضِوعفمیلےہ۔‬ ‫‪(C‬‬
‫دنمرہجذلیںیمےس ِ‬
‫رحوفیسمشوکنےسںیہ؟‬ ‫‪.27‬‬
‫ادقلوس‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫اابلری‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫ادمصل‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫اویلم‬ ‫‪(C‬‬
‫اجودیدرتفےسرھگآایگےہ۔اِسرقفےںیم ِ‬
‫رحفاجروکاسنےہ؟‬ ‫‪.28‬‬
‫درتف‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫اجودی‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫رھگ‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫ےس‬ ‫‪(C‬‬
‫راتدِلںیمویںریتیوھکیئوہیئایدآیئ۔۔۔ےسیجوریاےنںیمےکپچےساہبرآاجےئ۔اِسرعشںیم(ےسیج)۔۔۔۔۔ےہ۔‬ ‫‪.29‬‬
‫ِ‬
‫رحفدنا‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫ِ‬
‫رحفطع‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫تسبي‬
‫رحف ح‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫ِ‬
‫رحفااہفتسم‬ ‫‪(C‬‬
‫امسِرظفیک۔۔۔۔۔ںیمسقںیہ۔‬ ‫‪30.‬‬
‫‪3‬‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫‪4‬‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫‪6‬‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫‪2‬‬ ‫‪(C‬‬
‫افلوکایےئںیمدبانل۔۔۔۔۔الہکاتےہ۔‬ ‫‪.31‬‬
‫ایےئوہجمل‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫اامہل‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫اداغم‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫ایےئرعموف‬ ‫‪(C‬‬
‫وہ لعفسجاکافلعولعممہنوہ۔۔۔‬ ‫‪.32‬‬
‫لعفانصقالہکاتےہ۔‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫ایےئوہجملالہکاتےہ۔‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫لعفوہجملالہکاتےہ۔‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫لعفیہنالہکاتےہ‬ ‫‪(C‬‬
‫دنمرہجذلیںیمےسوکاسن(دان)الہقحےہ؟‬ ‫‪.33‬‬
‫دارتنیاھکساکےنٹےکاکمآیتےہ۔‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫ونابےناینپدوتلدانرکدی‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫دااینلوسایگ۔‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫ایسدتسانےنرُکیساچبیئ۔‬ ‫‪(C‬‬
‫ِرمعدرازامگنرکالےئےھتاچردن‪،‬دوآرزوںیمٹکےئگدوااظتنرںیم۔‬ ‫‪.34‬‬
‫اچردن۔امسِدعدنیعتمےہ‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫اچردن۔امسِدعدنیعمےہ۔‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫اچردن۔ںیمامسِدعدریغنیعمےہ‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫اچر۔امسِدعدنیعمےہ۔‬ ‫‪(C‬‬
‫دنمرہجذلیںیماامسےئرتشمکوکنےسںیہ؟‬ ‫‪.35‬‬
‫اعتون‬ ‫‪(B‬‬ ‫ڑجیہا‬ ‫‪(A‬‬
‫اسمف‬ ‫‪(D‬‬ ‫ارتشاہیک‬ ‫‪(C‬‬

‫)‪CSS MCQ Based Preliminary Test (MPT‬‬


‫‪Screening Test 2022‬‬
CSS MCQ Based Preliminary Test (MPT)
Screening Test 2023 (Test 03) CSS Preparations
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‫دنمرہجذلیاچرآزنشپںیمےسدرتسرتہمجاکااختنبےئجیک۔‬
‫ریشوکدےتھکییہاکشریاھبگالکن۔‬ .36
Saw the lion, the hunter ran away. (B Seeing the lion, the hunter ran away. (A
See the lion, the hunter ran away. (D Seeing the lion, the hunter runs away. (C
‫اکشہکآجاقدئزدنہوہےت۔‬ .37
Would that Quaid is alive today. (B Would that Quaid was alive today. (A
Would that Quaid were alive today. (D Would that Quaid are alive today. (C
‫اشماکوتقےہ۔‬ .38
It is evening. (B The time is evening. (A
It is in the evening. (D This time is evening time. (C
‫وہوتکیھٹےساکیظفلںیہنوبلاتکس۔‬،‫رواینےسارگنزییوبانلوتدرانکر‬ .39
Not to speak of speaking English fluently, he cannot even speak single (B Not to speak of speaking English fluently, even he cannot speak a (A
word properly. single word properly.
Not to speak of telling English fluently, he cannot even speak a single (D Not to speak of speaking English fluently, he cannot even speak a (C
word properly. single word properly.
‫امہمنایھبایھبدیمانںیمدالخوہےئںیہ۔‬ .40
The guests entered the ground lately. (B The guests have entered the ground lately. (A
The guests have entered in the ground recently. (D The guests has entered the ground lately. (C

ENGLISH
In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the correct synonym of the given word and fill the
appropriate bubble on the MCQ Response Form.
41 ACQUAINT
A. Appraise C. Denounce
B. Apprise D. Deter
42 ABSCISSION
A. Induction C. Addition
B. Extirpation D. Delusion
43 ACUMEN
A. Reticence C. Exuberance
B. Penitence D. Percipience
44 COGNIZANT
A. Indigenous C. Ingenious
B. Acquainted D. Ignorant
45 COMPLAISANT
A. Unflinching C. Amenable
B. Haughty D. Agile
46 DELIQUESCE
A. Gnaw C. Coagulate
B. Thaw D. Solidify
47 EXPIATE
A. Excruciate C. Forfeit
B. Worsen D. Recompense
48 EXECRABLE
A. Lugubrious C. Laudable
B. Appalling D. Appealing
49 HALCYON
A. Turbulent C. Perfunctory
B. Tranquil D. Tempestuous
50 HACKNEYED
A. Symbolic C. Cliché
B. Imaginative D. Haggard
In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the correct antonym of the given word and fill the
appropriate bubble on the MCQ Response Form.
51 HAVOC
A. Mayhem C. Serendipity
B. Serenity D. Oblivion

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52 IMPLAUSIBLE
A. Farfetched C. Incredible
B. Credible D. Susceptible
53 LANGUID
A. Laggard C. Insipid
B. Laconic D. Vigorous
54 PROCLIVITY
A. Pristine C. Penchant
B. Disinclination D. Tendency
55 PROSAIC
A. Unexceptional C. Proactive
B. Inspiring D. Prosodic
56 PRECOCIOUS
A. Gusto C. Adolescent
B. Astute D. Shrewd
57 PLETHORA
A. Cornucopia C. Surfeit
B. Dearth D. Dirge
58 PARSIMONY
A. Stinginess C. Paucity
B. Generosity D. Avarice
59 OPULENT
A. Lavish C. Affluent
B. Inchoate D. Poor
60 OFFICIOUS
A. Alleged C. Ostensive
B. Superficial D. Subservient
Choose the correct option.
61 CURD: MILK
A. Diamond: Hard C. Disc: Sciatica
B. Ring: Gold D. Hammer: Diamond
62 HYGROMETER: HUMIDITY
A. Odometer: Light C. Clock: Second
B. Thermometer: Temperature D. Gauge: Pressure
63 GRIPPING: PLIERS
A. Killing: Knife C. Hammer: Breaking
B. Appealing: Picture D. Elevating: Jack
64 DIRGE: FUNERAL
A. Chain: Letter C. Telephone: Call
B. Jingle: Commercial D. Bell: Church
65 UMBRAGE: OFFENSE
A. Decorum: Decoration C. Elation: Jubilance
B. Infinity: Meaning D. Aria: Soprano
Choose the correct preposition.
66 The knavish wolf was able to convince the pig to let him __________ his house.
A. In C. At
B. Into D. On
67 I looked this word _____ in the dictionary, but I still couldn’t understand it.
A. In C. Off
B. Into D. Up
68 The morgue is redolent _______ the odor of deceased individual.
A. Of C. To
B. With D. Off
69 His body is impervious ______ moisture.
A. For C. In
B. With D. To
70 He is cogitating _______ some means of revenge.
A. For C. Upon
B. With D. Into
Read the following passages and choose the correct answers based on the information given in the passages.
The University Grant Commission's directive to college and University lecturers to spend a minimum of 22 hours a week in direct teaching is the
product of budgetary cutbacks rather than pedagogic wisdom. It may seem odd, at first blush, that teachers should protest about teaching a mere 22
hours. However, if one considers the amount of time academics require to prepare to lectures of good quality as well as the time, they need to spend
doing research, it is clear that most conscientious teachers work more than 40 hours a week. In University system around the world lecturers rarely
spend more than 12 to 15 hours in directing teaching activities a week. The average college lecturer in India does not have any office space. If

CSS MCQ Based Preliminary Test (MPT)


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computers are available, internet connectivity is unlikely. Libraries are poorly stocked. Now the UGC says universities must implement a
complete freeze on all permanent recruitment, abolish all posts which have been vacant for more than a year, and cut staff strength by 10 per cent.
And it is an order to ensure that these cutbacks do not affect the quantum of teaching that existing lecturers are being asked to work longer.
Obviously, the quality of teaching and academic work in general will decline. While it is true that in some college teachers do not take their classes
regularly, the UGC and the institution concerned must find a proper way to hold them accountable. An absentee teacher will continue to play truant
even if the number of hours he is required to teach goes up.
All of us are well aware of the unsound state that the Indian higher education system is in today. Thanks to years of sustained financial neglect, most
Indian universities and colleges do no research worth the name. Even as the number of students entering colleges has increased dramatically, public
investment in higher education has actually declined in relative terms. Between 1985 and 1997, when public expenditure on higher education as
percentage of outlays on all levels of education grew by more than 60 per cent in Malaysia and 20 per cent in Thailand, India showed a decline of
more than 10 percent. Throughout the world, the number of teachers in higher education per million populations grew by more than 10 per cent in
the same period; in India it fell by one per cent. Instead of transferring the burden of government apathy on to the backs of the teachers, the UGC
should insist that the need of the country's university system be adequately catered to.

71 Why does the UGC want to increase the directing teaching hours of university teachers?
A. UGC feels that the duration of contact between the C. UGC does not have money to appoint additional teachers
teacher and the taught should be more.
B. UGC wants teachers to spend more time in their D. All of above
departments
72 Which of the following is the reason for the sorry state of affairs of the Indian Universities as mentioned in the passage?
A. The poor quality of teachers C. Politics within and outside the departments
B. Heavy burden of teaching hours on the teacher D. Not getting enough financial assistance
73 Besides direct teaching, University teachers spend considerable time in / on
A. Administrative activities such as admission C. Supervising examination and correction of answer papers
B. Carrying out research in the area of their interest D. None of these
74 Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?
A. UGC wants teachers to spend minimum 40 hours in a C. Some college teachers do not conduct their classes regularly
week in teaching
B. None D. All are true
75 Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in the context of the passage?
1. Most colleges do not carry out research worth the name.
2. UGC wants lecturers to spend minimum 22 hours a week in direct teaching
3. Indian higher education system is in unsound state
A. None C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. All
Once upon a time there was a royal elephant which used to reside in the premises of the king's palace. Elephant was very dear to the king, so he was
well-fed and well-treated. There was also a dog who lived near the elephant's shed. He was very weak and skinny. He was always fascinated by the
smell of rich sweet rice being fed to the royal elephant.

One day, the dog could no longer resist the aroma of the rice and somehow managed to sneak into the elephant's mouth. He linked the rice so much,
that he started going there daily to eat the rice. For days, the huge elephant didn't notice the small dog as he was busy enjoying the delicious food.
Gradually, the dog grew bigger and stronger eating such rich food. Finally, the elephant noticed him and allowed him access to the food. The elephant
enjoyed the company of the dog and started sharing his food with him. They also started spending time with each other and soon became good
friends. They ate together, slept together and played together. While playing, the elephant would hold the dog in his trunk and swing him back and
forth. Soon neither of them was happy without the other. They became great friends and didn't want to be separated from each other.
Then one day, a man saw the dog and asked the elephant-keeper, "I want to buy this dog. What price do you want for it? "The elephant-keeper didn't
own the dog but sold it and extracted a sum of money from this deal. The man took the dog to his home village, which was far away. The king's
elephant became very sad after this incident. He missed his friend a lot and started neglecting everything. He didn't want to do anything without his
dear friend, so he stopped eating, drinking and even bathing.
Finally, the elephant-keeper reported this to the king; however, he didn't mention anything about the dog. The king had a wise minister, who was
known for his keen understanding of animals. The king ordered the minister, "Go to the elephant's shed and find out the reason for the elephant's
condition". The intelligent minister went to the elephant's shed and found the elephant very sad. He examined the elephant and asked the elephant-
keeper, "there is nothing wrong with this elephant's body, then why does he look so sad? I think this elephant is grief stricken, possibly due to the loss
of a dear friend. Do you know if this elephant shared a close friendship with anyone?" The elephant-keeper said, "There was a dog who used to eat,
sleep and play with the elephant. He was taken by a stranger three days ago". The minister went back to the king and said, "Your majesty, in my
opinion, the royal elephant is not sick, but he his lonesome without his dear friend, the dog". The king said, "You're right, friendship is one of the most
wonderful things of life. Do you know where that dog is?" The Minister replied, "elephant-keeper has informed me that a stranger took him away and
he doesn't know his whereabouts". The king asked, "How can we bring back my elephant's friend and make him happy again?” The minister
suggested, "Your Majesty, make a declaration, that whoever has the dog that used to live at the royal elephant's shed will be penalized". The king did
the same and the man who had taken the dog, instantly turned him loose when he heard the proclamation.
As soon as he was freed, the dog ran back as fast as he could to the elephant's shed. The elephant was so delighted to see the dog that he picked his
friend up with his trunk and swung him back and forth. The dog wagged his tail, while the elephant's sparkled with happiness. The king was content
to see the elephant happy once again and rewarded the minister for his wise judgment.

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76 What was the minister's diagnosis of the elephant's condition?
A. The elephant hated his keeper C. The elephant was lonely
B. The elephant was starving D. The elephant had hurt his leg and was is pain
77 What method did the Minister suggest to king to get back the dog?
A. To declare that whoever had that particular dog would C. To keep a bowl of rice for the dog in the elephant's shed so that he
be punished could be lured back to the place
B. To command the elephant-keeper to look for the dog in D. To persuade the elephant to call out to the dog
the village
78 Why had the elephant become very sad?
A. He no longer got his daily bowl of rice C. He was unhappy with the king for having sold the dog
B. He missed his friend, the dog D. He was sold to an unknown man by his keeper
79 What did the elephant-keeper do to the dog?
A. He sold the dog to an unknown man for a price C. He hit the dog as the dog was eating the elephant's food
B. He killed the dog D. He complained to the king about the dog
80 Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
A. Friends and Enemies C. The Playful Dog
B. The Elephant-Keeper D. The Bond of Friendship
Choose the correct option.
81 My friend said to me, “I have faced the music if I don’t bother on my work.”
A. My friend told he that he has faced the music if he don’t C. My friend told he that I had faced the music if I didn’t bother on my
bother on his work. work.
B. My friend told he that he had faced the music if he didn’t D. My friend told he that he had faced the music if he didn’t bother
bother on his work. on my work.
82 After finishing my lecture, ____________________.
A. I heard the bell ring C. I heard the bell ringing
B. The bell rang D. The bell was rung
83 The passengers __________________ their destination by now.
A. Will reach C. Reached
B. Will have reached D. Had reached
84 If he had not died, ___________________.
A. He would have grown up to be a murderer C. He will grow up to be a murderer
B. He would grow up to be a murderer D. He had grown up to be a murderer
85 Under the shade of the huge building _______________________________.
A. A beggar and a thief were standing C. Were standing a beggar and a thief
B. A beggar and a thief was standing D. Was standing a beggar and a thief
86 No sooner ___________________ she started crying.
A. Had I called my mother than C. Had I called my mother when
B. I had called my mother than D. Had I called my mother then
87 My friend got _____ ‘F’ in the exam.
A. A C. An
B. The D. None
88 Neither the scientist nor the bacteriologist nor the oncologist _____________________.
A. Has done his job C. Have done his job
B. Has done their job D. Have done their job
89 I heard him _________ the stairs.
A. Going down C. Go down
B. To go down D. To going down
90 He is ____________ of the class.
A. The more taller boy C. Tallest boy
B. The most tallest boy D. The tallest boy
GENERAL ABILITIES
91 How many months have 28 days?
A. One C. Twelve
B. Six D. All of them
92 If you were running a race and you passed the person in 2nd place, what place would you be in now?
A. 1st place C. 3rd place
B. 2nd place D. 4th place
93 If a red house is made from red bricks and a blue house is made from blue bricks, what is a greenhouse made from?
A. Green bricks C. Glass
B. Plants D. Green paint
94 How many sides does a circle have?
A. One C. Infinite
B. Two D. None
95 If you’re in a race alone, what place are you in?
A. 1st C. 2nd

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B. Last D. None of these
96 The present ages of three persons in proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was 56. Find their present ages (in years).
A. 8, 20, 28 C. 20, 35, 45
B. 16, 28, 36 D. None of these
97 If you have a bowl with six apples and you take away four, how many do you have?
A. 2 C. 6
B. 4 D. 0
98 (256)0.16 × (256)0.09 =?
A. 4 C. 256.25
B. 64 D. 16
99 Three partners shared the profit in a business in the ratio 5: 7: 8. They had partnered for 14 months, 8 months and 7 months respectively. What
was the ratio of their investments?
A. 5: 7: 8 C. 38: 28: 21
B. 20: 49: 64 D. None of these
100 A starts business with Rs. 3500 and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner. After a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B's
contribution in the capital?
A. Rs. 7500 C. Rs. 8500
B. Rs. 8000 D. Rs. 9000
101 Ali, Waseem and Majid are running a business firm in partnership. What is Waseem's share in the profit earned by them?
I. Ali, Waseem and Majid invested the amounts in the ratio of 2: 4: 7.
II. Majid's share in the profit is Rs. 8750.
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer D. Both I and II are necessary to answer
102 A wheel that has 6 cogs is meshed with a larger wheel of 14 cogs. When the smaller wheel has made 21 revolutions, then the number of
revolutions mad by the larger wheel is
A. 4 C. 12
B. 9 D. 49
103 10 women can complete a work in 7 days and 10 children take 14 days to complete the work. How many days will 5 women and 10 children take
to complete the work?
A. 3 C. 5
B. 7 D. Cannot be determined
104 In a restaurant, there are 4 dishes of vegetable and 3 are non-vegetable and 2 types of cold drinks. How many ways a man can choose a meal,
selecting one from each category
A. 48 C. 24
B. 20 D. None
105 In world cup of cricket, in a group 1 there are 6 teams playing matches with each other. There is only 1 match between every two teams. How
many matches will be held?
A. 20 C. 10
B. 15 D. 30
106 When three coins are tossed at a time or a coin is tossed three times, the probability of getting at least one head is:
A. 3/8 C. 4/8
B. 6/8 D. 7/8
107 There are 40 students in a class, of which 25 are boys and 15 are girls, the teacher writes the name of each student on slip of paper. What is the
probability that the name on the slip is of a boy?
A. 5/8 C. 3/8
B. 3/5 D. 0
108 4 2
Pakistan is playing a cricket match against Australia. If the probability that Pakistan will win is and that of Australia will win is . What is the
11 11
probability that match will be drawn?
A. 5/11 C. 9/11
B. 6/11 D. 10/11
109 A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn is blue?
A. 10/21 C. 2/7
B. 11/21 D. 5/7
110 The product of two numbers is 2028 and their H.C.F. is 13. The number of such pairs is
A. 1 C. 2
B. 3 D. 4
111 What will be the least number which when doubled will be exactly divisible by 12, 18, 21 and 30?
A. 196 C. 1260
B. 630 D. 2520
112 The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of its digits is 36. What is the difference
between the two digits of that number?
A. 3 C. 4
B. 9 D. Cannot be determined
113 The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two-digit number?
A. 69 C. 78

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B. 78 D. Cannot be determined
114 A number consists of two digits. If the digits interchange places and the new number is added to the original number, then the resulting number
will be divisible by
A. 3 C. 9
B. 5 D. 11
115 If m and n are whole numbers such that 𝑚𝑛 = 121, the value of (𝑚 − 1)𝑛+1 is?
A. 1 C. 21
B. 10 D. 1000
116 A shopkeeper sells some toys at Rs. 250 each. What percent profit does he make? To find the answer, which of the following information given in
Statements I and II is/are necessary?
I.Number of toys sold.
II.Cost price of each toy.
A. Only I is necessary C. Only II is necessary
B. Both I and II are necessary D. Either I or II ins necessary
117 A small shop contains 25 pairs of shoes. If 20% are joggers, how many are not joggers?
A. 5 C. 15
B. 10 D. 20
118 30% of a number is 8 more than 40% of 1000. Find the number.
A. 1000 C. 1360
B. 2000 D. 2360
119 What is the length of a running train crossing another 180-meter-long train running in the opposite direction?
I. The relative speed of the two trains was 150 kmph.
II. The trains took 9 seconds to cross each other
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer D. Both I and II are necessary to answer
120 Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. 𝑙𝑜𝑔10 10=1 C. 𝑙𝑜𝑔( 1 + 2 + 3) = 𝑙𝑜𝑔 1 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔 2 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔 3
B. 𝑙𝑜𝑔(2 + 3) = 𝑙𝑜𝑔(2 × 3) D. 𝑙𝑜𝑔10 1=0
121 The ratio between the perimeter and the breadth of a rectangle is 5: 1. If the area of the rectangle is 216 sq. cm, what is the length of the
rectangle?
A. 16 cm C. 24 cm
B. 18 cm D. Data inadequate
122 A rectangular park 60 m long and 40 m wide has two concrete crossroads running in the middle of the park and rest of the park has been used as
a lawn. If the area of the lawn is 2109 sq. m, then what is the width of the road?
A. 2.91 m C. 3m
B. 5.82 m D. none of these
123 The price of a cap is increased by 25%. By how much percent should its price be decreased now to get the original price?
A. 25% C. 20%
B. 22% D. 23%
124 A can run 22.5 m while B runs 25 m. In a kilo meter race B beat, A by?
A. 100 m C. 40 m
B. 25 m D. 50 m
125 In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'PLANE' be arranged?
A. 510 C. 1440
B. 120 D. 5040
126 In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is the probability that it is neither red nor green?
A. 1/3 C. 7/19
B. ¾ D. 8/21
127 Find the odd man out. 3, 5, 7, 12, 17, 19
A. 19 C. 17
B. 12 D. 5
128 Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers. (6, 13, 18, 25, 30, 37, 40)
A. 25 C. 30
B. 37 D. 40
129 Find out the wrong number in the series. 3, 7, 15, 39, 63, 127, 255, 511
A. 7 C. 65
B. 39 D. 15

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130 Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the same remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:
A. 4 C. 5
B. 6 D. 8
131 The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is 36. What is the difference between the sum
and the difference of the digits of the number if the ratio between the digits of the number is 1: 2?
A. 4 C. 8
B. 16 D. None of these
132 The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 60 years. Six years ago, father's age was five times the age of the son. After 6 years, son's
age will be:
A. 12 years C. 14 years
B. 18 years D. 20 years
133 Three candidates contested an election and received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes respectively. What percentage of the total votes did the
winning candidate get?
A. 57% C. 65%
B. 60% D. 90%
134 In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but the selling price remains constant, approximately what
percentage of the selling price is the profit?
A. 30% C. 100%
B. 70% D. 250%
135 If the cost of x meters of wire is d rupees, then what is the cost of y meters of wire at the same rate?
𝑥𝑦
A. Rs. ( ) C. Rs. (yd)
𝑑
𝑦𝑑
B. Rs. (𝑥𝑑) D. Rs. ( )
𝑥
136 A flagstaff 17.5 m high casts a shadow of length 40.25 m. The height of the building, which casts a shadow of length 28.75 m under similar
conditions will be:
A. 10 m C. 12.5 m
B. 17.5 m D. 21.25 m
137 In how many days can 10 women finish a work?
I. 10 men can complete the work in 6 days
3
II. 10 men and 10 women together can complete the work in3 days.
7
III. If 10 men work for 3 days and thereafter 10 women replace them, the remaining work in completed in 4 days.
A. Any two of the three C. II and III only
B. I and II only D. I and III only
138 The population of a town increases at a rate of 15% per year. At present population is 4000. What will it be after two years?
A. 5290 C. 5200
B. 5431 D. 500
139 A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage of decrease in area is:
A. 10% C. 20%
B. 10.8% D. 28%
140 What is the capacity of a cylindrical tank?
I. Radius of the base is half of its height which is 28 meters.
II. Area of the base is 616 sq. meters and its height is 28 meters
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
141 In 100 m race, A covers the distance in 36 seconds and B in 45 seconds. In this race A beats B by
A. 20 m C. 22.5 m
B. 25 m D. 9m
142 The radius of the circle is increased by 20%, its area is increased by:
A. 44% C. 20%
B. 40% D. No change
143 A box contains 2 white balls, 3 black balls and 4 red balls. In how many ways can 3 balls be drawn from the box, if at least one black ball is to be
included in the draw?
A. 32 C. 64
B. 48 D. 96
144 If 𝑎 − 𝑏 = 3 and 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 = 29, find the value of ab?
A. 12 C. 15
B. 10 D. 18
145 The product of two numbers is 120 and the sum of their squares is 289. The sum of the number is
A. 20 C. 23
B. 169 D. None of these
146 Find the odd man out. 10, 14, 16, 18, 21, 24, 26
A. 26 C. 21
B. 24 D. 18

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147 Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers (1, 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, 91)
A. 31 C. 56
B. 91 D. 15
148 Insert the missing number 7, 26, 63, 124, 215, 342, (....)
A. 481 C. 511
B. 391 D. 421
149 ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, _____, MLNA
A. OLPA C. LLMA
B. KLMA D. KLLA
150 Look carefully for the pattern, and then choose which pair of numbers comes next. (42 40 38 35 33 31 28)
A. 25 22 C. 26 24
B. 26 23 D. 26 22

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
151 When mobile proceeds from one tower to another during a course of a call, this process is called as
A. Routing C. Handoffs
B. Frequency reuse D. Switching
152 What is the range of Bluetooth® technology approximately?
A. 20 ft C. 30ft
B. 25 ft D. 35ft
153 The shortcut key to center the selected text is
A. Ctrl+ C C. Ctrl+ O
B. Ctrl+ E D. Ctrl+ U
154 ISDN stands for
A. Integrated Services Digital Network C. Interval Set Down Next
B. Internal Select Data Nulls D. Interior Sector Direct Network
155 SEO stands for_____________.
A. Search Engine Optimization C. Search Engine Optimum
B. Search Electronic Optimization D. None of the above
156 Bile is secreted by
A. Pancreas C. Spleen
B. Liver D. Stomach
157 Which among the following clearly describes a Silver Fish?
A. A Fish C. A frog
B. A wingless Insect D. An Anthropod
158 Farsightedness is also called as
A. Myopia C. Hyperopia
B. Cataract D. All of these
159 The size of left kidney is
A. Higher than right one C. Equal to right one
B. Lower than right one D. Not equal to right one
160 Percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide is
A. 4% C. 0.04%
B. 21% D. 72%
161 Neurons are found in
A. Brain C. Spinal Cord
B. Kidneys D. Liver
162 Non-vascular plants are called as
A. Fungi C. Algae
B. Gymnosperms D. Bryophytes
163 Which of the vitamin is associated with coagulation of blood?
A. A C. K
B. C D. D
164 The richest source of vitamin A is
A. Apple C. Citrus
B. Eggs D. Liver
165 Damage caused by tornado is measured in which scale
A. Enhanced Fujita C. Richter
B. Barometer D. None of these
166 The age of our solar system is
A. 3.441 billion years C. 5.500 billion years
B. 4.571 billion years D. 6.513 billion years

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167 When the Constituent Assembly passed the Objective Resolution?
A. 12th March 1949 C. 14th February 1949
B. 15th August 1949 D. 9th June 1949
168 After how many years did Pakistan got its first constitution?
A. 9 years C. 17 years
B. 11 years D. 12 years
169 What is the other name of Mohammad Ali Bogra Formula?
A. Third Report C. New Law of Pakistan
B. Constitutional Formula D. Pakistan Report
170 When Mr. Z.A. Bhutto launched a new constitution in the country?
A. 11th August 1973 C. 14th August 1973
B. 17th August 1973 D. 21st August 1973
171 According to 1973 constitution what is the term of the office of President?
A. 6 years C. 4 years
B. 5 years D. 3 years
172 In which of the following city the Pakistan Naval Academy is located?
A. Multan C. Rawalpindi
B. Lahore D. Karachi
173 Which mountain range separates Pakistan and Afghanistan?
A. Karakoram range C. The Hindu Kush
B. Pamirs Range D. Kirthar Range
174 Marvi is a folk story of ____________ ?
A. Sindh C. Seraiki
B. Thar D. Thal
175 Who is Current Chief justice of Pakistan?
A. Justice Mian Saqib Nisar C. Justice Asif Saeed Khan Khosa
B. Justice Qazi Faez Isa D. Justice Gulzar Ahmed
176 Who is current president of India?
A. Ram Nath Kovind C. Droupadi Murmu
B. Pranab Mukherjee D. Pratibha Devisingh Patil
177 Which Iranian activist got the Noble peace prize on 6 October 2023?
A. Zainab Fatimi C. Fatima Zahra
B. Narges Mohammadi D. None of these.
178 Fukushima Daiichi nuclear power plant is located in which country?
A. China C. Russia
B. South Korea D. Japan
179 First country to land on the south Pole of the moon on 23rd August 2023 is _________?
A. China C. India
B. Russia D. USA
180 Who is the Pakistan’s first visually-impaired UN delegate?
A. Saima Saleem C. Ayesha Farooqi
B. Sadia saleem D. None of these
181 Which is the biggest and most powerful space telescope in the world?
A. Hubble C. James Webb
B. Astro 2 D. Hisaki (SPRINT-A)
182 Who is the Current Foreign Minister of China?
A. Chen Yi C. Huang Hua
B. Wang Yi D. Qin Gang
183 A trilateral Security alliance named as AUKUS was formed in which year?
A. 2004 C. 2017
B. 2016 D. 2021
184 What is the name of NASA’s helicopter that commenced its flight in Mars?
A. Determination C. Ambition
B. Mars Rover D. Ingenuity
185 Global Inflation in year 2023 is ____
A. 4.1% C. 8.7%
B. 9.8 D. None of these.
186 According to economic survey of Pakistan 2022 2023, Large Scale Manufacturing (LSM) growth during Jul-Mar FY2023 declined by Large Scale
Manufacturing (LSM) growth during Jul-Mar FY2023 declined by 8.11%____
A. 9.71% C. 30.1%
B. 8.11% D. None of these
187 According to economic survey of Pakistan 2022 2023, fiscal deficit reduced to __% of GDP during FY2023 against 4.9% of GDP
A. 2.7% C. 4.6%
B. 3.9 D. None of these
188 According to economic survey of Pakistan 2022 2023, FBR tax collection during Jul-May, FY2023, increased by _______
A. 15.8% C. 19.5%

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B. 16.1% D. 22.1%
189 According to economic survey of Pakistan 2022 2023, Pakistan’ total Exports during Jul-Apr FY2023 were amounting to ____
A. US$ 29.3 billion C. US$ 23.2 billion
B. US$ 24.7 billion D. US$ 21.9 billion
190 According to economic survey of Pakistan 2022 2023, Pakistan’s total Imports during Jul-Apr, FY2023 amounted to _____
A. US$ 39.8 billion C. US$ 46.9 billion
B. US$ 41.6 billion D. US$ 57.3 billion
191 According to economic survey of Pakistan 2022 2023, Pakistan recorded Current Account deficit of ______during Jul-Apr FY2023
A. US$ 3.1 billion C. US$ 3.4 billion
B. US$ 3.3 billion D. None of these
192 During FY2023, the Government allocated Rs. _____ to HEC for implementation of 154 development projects of Public Sector Universities/HEIs.
A. Rs 44.72 billion C. Rs 49.22 billion
B. Rs 46.80 billion D. Nonne of these
193 Total installed capacity of electricity in Pakistan is ________
A. 39,000 MW C. 41,000 MW
B. 40,000 MW D. 45,000 MW
194 Pakistan’s IT exports during FY2023 remained at _________
A. US$ 1.85 billion C. US$ 1.94 billion
B. US$ 1.92 billion D. US$ 1.95 billion
195 In which year Pakistan played first test match?
A. 1951 C. 1953
B. 1952 D. 1954
196 Pakistan National Clean Air Policy (NCAP) was launched in
A. March, 2023 C. May, 2023
B. April, 2023 D. June, 2023
197 The six Nuclear Power Projects, having installed capacity of 3,530 MW, supplied about __ units of electricity to the national grid, during FY2023.
A. 18,738 million C. 18,740 million
B. 18,739 million D. 18,741 million
198 The capital of Burkina Faso is?
A. Lomé C. Ouagadougou
B. Bamako D. Conakry
199 What is the name of President of Russian Federation?
A. Vladimir Putin C. Mikhail Mishustin
B. Dmitry Medvedev D. Grigori Rapota
200 What is the chemical symbol for the element Gold?
A. Ag C. Fe
B. Au D. Cu

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