19/08/2021 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2021 Time : 200 Minutes

Mock Test-02
Complete Syllabus of NEET
Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 4. Two blocks of mass 10 kg and 5 kg are
1. The exchange particles responsible for nuclear connected with a light string which passing over
weak interaction are an ideal pulley attached with a fixed smooth
(1) Photon wedge. If the system is released from rest, then
(2) W and Z bosons the acceleration of the blocks will be

(3) -Mesons
(4) Gluons
2. If energy E, volume V and time T are taken as
fundamental units, the dimensional formula of the
force will be
(1) [EV–1/3T0] (2) [EV–2T]
(3) [E2V–1T–1] (4) [EV–1T0] (1) 5 m/s2
3. A body when dropped freely from certain height,
7
reaches the ground in time t second. The (2) m/s2
3
average velocity during its journey is
(1) gt (2) 2gt (3) 2 m/s2

gt 14
(3) Zero (4) (4) m/s2
2 3

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CST-8 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

5. If a ball of mass 4 kg moving with velocity of 11. The equation y = acos2t + asin2t is
3 m/s collides elastically head on with another (1) Periodic but not oscillatory
ball of mass 6 kg which is at rest, then the ratio of
(2) Oscillatory but not periodic
speed of second ball to first after collision will be
(3) SHM
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(4) Non-periodic
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 4 : 3
12. A mass m attached to a spring oscillates with a
6. A uniform chain of length L and mass M is lying
th
time period 4 s. If the mass is increased by 1 kg,
1 then period increases by 1 s. Its initial mass is
on a table and of its length is hanging
4
vertically down over the edge of the table. If g is 16
(1) kg
acceleration due to gravity, the work required to 9
pull the hanging part back on the table 4
(2) kg
MgL MgL 3
(1) (2)
16 32 8
(3) kg
MgL MgL 9
(3) (4)
8 4 4
(4) kg
7. Two balls are thrown vertically upward 9
simultaneously. While they are in air, the 13. Two capillary tube of radii 0.3 cm and 0.4 cm are
acceleration of their centre of mass dipped in the same liquid. The ratio of respective
(1) Depends on the masses of the balls heights through which liquid will rise, is
(2) Depends on volume of the balls (1) 3 : 4 (2) 4 : 3
(3) Depends on the speed of the balls (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2

(4) Is equal to acceleration due to gravity 14. Heat is supplied to an ideal monoatomic gas at
constant pressure. The ratio of Q : U : W is
8. We have two spheres, one of which is hollow and
other is solid. They have identical mass and (1) 5 : 3 : 2 (2) 1 : 5 : 2
moment of inertia about its tangent. The ratio of (3) 2 : 3 : 5 (4) 2 : 5 : 7
their radii is given by
15. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is B. If it is
3 5 subjected to uniform pressure P, the fractional
(1) (2) decrease in surface area is
5 7
P P
21 7 (1) (2)
(3) (4) B 3B
5 5
2P P
9. A particle of mass m is moving in a plane along a (3) (4)
3B 2B
circular path of radius r. Its angular momentum
about the axis is L. The centripetal force acting 16. The latent heat of vaporisation of substance is
on the particle is (1) Greater than its latent heat of sublimation
2 2
L Lm (2) Greater than its latent heat of fusion
(1) (2)
mr r (3) Equal to latent heat of sublimation
2 2
L L (4) Less than its latent heat of fusion
(3) (4)
mr 3 mr 2 17. A string of linear density 0.4 kg/m is stretched
10. If the earth suddenly stop rotating, the value of ‘g’ with force of 1000 N. A transverse wave is set up
at the equator would along it. The speed of the wave is
(1) Remains same (2) Slightly increase (1) 75 m/s (2) 25 m/s
(3) Decrease (4) None of these (3) 100 m/s (4) 50 m/s

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-8 (Code-A)

18. A pipe open at both ends produces a note of 23. A battery of emf, 20 V is connected to
fundamental frequency 1. When the pipe is kept resistances as shown in figure. The potential at
 1
rd the point C will be
with   of its length in water, it produces a
3

note of frequency 2.The value of 1 is
2

4 2
(1) (2)
3 3
3 8
(3) (4)
2 3
19. A set of 16 tuning forks are so arranged that
each produce 4 beats with the previous one. If (1) 10 V (2) 8 V
the frequency of last tuning fork is double that of (3) 6 V (4) 12 V
first, the frequency of third tuning fork is 24. A long solenoid has 1000 turns per meter length
(1) 68 Hz (2) 60 Hz of solenoid. A current of 3.2 A flow through it.
(3) 120 Hz (4) 32 Hz The magnetic induction at the end of solenoid is
q1 (1) 2 × 10–3 T
20. If q1 + q2 = 3q, then the value of the , for which
q (2) 8 × 10–4 T
the force of repulsion between q1 and q2 is (3) 8 × 10–3 T
maximum is
(4) 2 × 10–4 T
1 3
(1) (2) 25. The relative permeability (r) of a substance is
2 2
related to its susceptibility () as
3
(3) 1 (4) (1) r = 1 –  (2) r = 1 + 
4
21. A cube of side a has charge q at two diagonally (3) r = 1 – 2 (4) r = 1 + 2
opposite vertices as shown in the figure. The net 26. A 0.2 m long conductor carrying a current of 20 A
electric potential at the centre of the cube will be is held perpendicular to magnetic field of 2.5 mT.
The mechanical power required to move the
conductor with speed 2 m/s perpendicular to
length and field is
(1) 20 mW (2) 6.25 mW
(3) 12.5 mW (4) 10 mW
27. A circuit is made up of resistance 3  and
inductance 0.01 H. An alternating emf of 100 V at
50 Hz is connected, then the phase difference
4q q
(1) (2) between the current and the emf in the circuit is
30 a 30 a
(1) tan1  
4q q
(3) (4)
0 a 2 0 q 
(2) tan1  
22. Ohm’s law is valid if 3

(1) V is directly proportional to I3 

(3) tan1  
(2) The relation V and I is non-linear 2
(3) V is directly proportional to I2 
(4) tan1  
(4) I depends on V linearly 4

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CST-8 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

28. A ray of light strikes a silvered surface as shown 35. The distance of closest approach of an alpha
inclined to another one. Then the net deviation of particle fired towards gold nucleus with kinetic
the reflected rays will be energy k is r0. The distance of closest approach
when the alpha particle is fired towards same
nucleus with kinetic energy 4k will be
r0 r0
(1) (2)
2 3
r0
(3) (4) r0
4

(1) 90º (2) 45º SECTION-B

(3) 180º (4) 0º 36. Activity of radioactive element decrease to

29. Magnification at least distance of distinct vision one-fourth of original activity R0 in 16 years, after
by simple microscope having focal length 2.5 cm further 16 years, its activity will be
is R0 R0
(1) 6 (2) 11 (1) (2)
8 16
(3) 5 (4) 10
R0 R0
30. The angle between the plane of vibration and (3) (4)
plane of polarization is 12 20
(1) 90º (2) 60º 37. When a soap bubble is illuminated by source of
(3) 30º (4) 45º white light, it appears coloured. This is due to
31. n photons of wavelength  are absorbed by a (1) Dispersion (2) Interference
black body of mass ‘m’. The momentum gained
(3) Refraction (4) Diffraction
by the body is
38. A point mass m is placed at a distance 2R from
nh nh
(1) (2) the centre of the shell of mass M and radius R.
 m
The gravitational force exerted by shell on the
mnh h point mass is
(3) (4)
 m
GMm GMm
32. The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure (1) (2)
will be R2 4R 2
4GMm
(3) (4) Zero
R2
(1) AB (2) A  B 39. An incompressible liquid flows through a
horizontal tube as shown in the following figure.
(3) A  B (4) AB  BA
The velocity v of the fluid is
33. A n-p-n transistor can be used as
(1) Choke coil (2) Voltage regulator
(3) Rectifier (4) Amplifier
34. The current flow through the resistance in the
given circuit is : (Cut-off voltage for both diodes is
0.7 V)

(1) 3.0 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s

(1) 4.65 mA (2) 5 mA
(3) 4.8 mA (4) 5.2 mA (3) 4.0 m/s (4) 2.0 m/s

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-8 (Code-A)

40. Two moles of helium gas are taken over the
cycle ABCDA as shown below in P-T diagram.
Assuming the gas to be ideal, the work done on
the gas in taking from A to B is
44. Four metallic plates, each with a surface area A,
are placed at a distance d from each other as
shown in the figure. If points A and B is
connected with a battery of emf V, then the
charge on the plate a will be

3A0V A0V
(1) (2)
d 3d
(1) 200R
2 A0V A0V
(2) 500R (3) (4)
3d d
(3) 400R
45. A fish from inside water sees a bird in air at a
(4) 300R
distance
41. If the absolute temperature of hot black body is
(1) Equal to its real distance
raised by 2%, by how much percentage rate of
heat energy radiated would be increased nearly? (2) Less than its real distance

(1) 4% (2) 8% (3) Greater than its real distance

(3) 20% (4) 16% (4) Equal to its real distance but displaced
sideway
42. A child is standing with folded hands at the
centre of a platform rotating about its central axis. 46. A potentiometer wire of length 100 cm has
The kinetic energy of the system is K. The child resistance of 20 ohm. It is connected in series
now stretches his arms so that the moment of with an external resistance and a cell of emf
3 2 volt and of negligible internal resistance. A
inertia of the system becomes of the initial source of emf 20 mV is balance against a length
2
moment of inertia. The kinetic energy of the of 40 cm of the potentiometer wire. What is the
system is now value of external resistance?

2K (1) 790  (2) 620 

(1)
3 (3) 780  (4) 560 
K 47. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic
(2)
3 W
wave of intensity I  2  on a non-reflecting
K m 
(3) surface is (c is the velocity of light)
4
4K I
(4) (1) Ic (2)
9 c

43. The potential energy of a particle of mass 2 kg in I

(3) Ic2 (4)
motion along the x-axis is given by U = 2 (1 – cos c2
2x) J, where x is in meters. The period of small 48. In Young double slit experiment the nth red bright
oscillations (in s) is band coincide with (n + 1)th blue bright band. If
  the wavelength of red and blue light are 7500 Å
(1) (2)
2 4 and 5000 Å, then the value of ‘n’ is

2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3)  (4)
3 (3) 5 (4) 4

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CST-8 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

49. Variation of photoelectric current with intensity of

light for a given frequency, is
(4)

(1)
50. Two SHMs in same direction are represented by
y1 = asint and y2 = asin(t + ). When they
superimpose, the initial phase difference of the
resultant SHM is
(2) (1) 
(2) 2

(3)
2
(3)

(4)
4

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 56. Correct order of van der Waals constant b of
51. Which among the following species is pyramidal given gases is
in shape? (1) CO2 > N2 > O2 > H2 > He
(1) ClF3 (2) N2 > CO2 > O2 > H2 > He
(2) SF4 (3) CO2 > N2 > O2 > He > H2
(3) NF3 (4) N2 > O2 > H2 > He > CO2
(4) BCl3 57. For the reaction, CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
52. The species which does not exist is
H = 82.8 kJ at 25°C, U at 25°C is
(1) H2 (2) He2
(1) 85.28 kJ (2) 82.8 kJ
(3) C2 (4) O2
(3) 80.32 kJ (4) 234 kJ
53. Maximum number of electrons present in p
58. Which of the following is most acidic in nature?
subshell is
(1) HClO (2) HClO2
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 10 (4) 5 (3) HClO3 (4) HClO4

54. Packing fraction of body centred cubic structure 59. pH for 0.01 M NaOH solution is
is (1) 2 (2) 12

 3 (3) 10 (4) 8
(1) (2) 
6 8 60. Oxidation state of oxygen in KO2 is

2 3 1
(3)  (4)  (1) – 1 (2) –
8 6 2
55. Monomer of neoprene polymer is 1
(3) – 2 (4) 
(1) 2-Chloro-1, 3-butadiene 2

(2) 1-Chloro-1, 3-butadiene 61. The volume strength of 0.75 M H2O2 solution is

(3) 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene (1) 8.4 (2) 0.26

(4) 3-Hydroxybutanoic acid (3) 3 (4) 7.5

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62. Which one of the alkali metal can directly react 70. Limiting molar conductivity of HAc
with N2 of air?
[i.e., m
o
(HAc) ] is equal to
(1) Li (2) Na
(3) K (4) Rb (1) m
o
(HCl) – m (NaAc) – m (NaCl)
o o

63. When copper is reacted with dilute HNO3, the

(2) m
o
(HCl)  m (NaAc) – m (NaCl)
o o
gaseous product(s) obtained is/are
(1) NO2 only (3) m
o
(NaCl)  m (NaAc) – m (HCl)
o o

(2) N2O only

(4) m
o
(HCl)  m (NaAc)  m (NaCl)
o o

(3) NO
(4) N2O and NO2 71. For the reaction, N2 + 3H2  2NH3, if
d[N2 ]
64. Which of the following can show maximum   2  10–3 mol L–1 s–1, the value of
covalency of six? dt
– d[H2 ]
(1) C (2) B would be
dt
(3) N (4) Si
(1) 1 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 (2) 6 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
65. Among the following, which is the strongest
oxidising agent? (3) 3 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 (4) 4 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

(1) O2 (2) F2 72. Minimum boiling point among the following is of

(3) Br2 (4) I2 (1) H2O (2) H2S

66. The number of 3-centre-2-electron bonds in B2H6 (3) H2Se (4) H2Te
is 73. In the given reaction
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 6
67. The most stable carbanion among the following
is
The product P is

(1) (2)

(1) (2)
(3) (4)

68. The compound which will react fastest by SN2

mechanism is
(3) (4)
(1)

(2) 74. Consider the following reaction sequence

(i) NH2NH2
CH3CHO 
dil NaOH

A 
(ii) Ethylene glycol/KOH/ 
 B.
(3) Ph—CH2—Br
B is
(4) (Ph)3C—Br
(1) CH3–CH=CH–CHO
69. At 25°C, the highest osmotic pressure is
exhibited by 0.1 M solution of (2) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–OH

(1) Urea (2) Glucose (3) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(3) NaCl (4) AlCl3 (4) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3

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CST-8 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

75. Which of the following does not undergo 83. Phenelzine is an example of
Cannizzaro reaction?
(1) Tranquilizer (2) Antimicrobial

(1) HCHO (2) (3) Analgesic (4) Antiseptic

84. Monomer of orlon is
(3) CH3–CH2–CHO (4) (CH3)3C–CHO
(1) Ethene (2) Acrylonitrile
76. Which of the following gives both positive
(3) Vinylchloride (4) Tetrafluoroethene
iodoform test and positive Fehling’s solution test?
(1) Acetaldehyde (2) Acetone 85. Which of the following compounds gives positive
carbylamine test?
(3) Ethyl alcohol (4) Formaldehyde
(1) Secondary amine
77. Major product formed on oxidation of 1-Decanol
in the presence of Jones reagent is (2) Tertiary amines
(1) Decanal (2) Decanoic acid (3) Primary amine
(3) Pentanoic acid (4) Pentanal (4) Quaternary ammonium salt
78. Compound which will undergo fastest SECTION-B
nucleophilic substitution reaction among the
86. Incorrect statement among the following is
following is
(1) Myosin is fibrous protein
(2) Insulin has fibre-like structure
(1) (2) (3) Glycine is an optically inactive molecule
(4) Proline is non-essential amino acid
87. The process of settling of colloidal particles is
known as
(3) (4) (1) Electrophoresis
(2) Brownian movement
(3) Coagulation
79. Consider the following reaction sequence
(4) Peptization
PBr H O
RCH2OH 3 A   B 
alc. KCN 3

C(major) 88. Magnetic moment (in BM) of Cu2+ ion is
Major product C is
(1) 1.73 (2) 5.92
(1) RCH2CHO (2) RCH2COOH
(3) Zero (4) 4.89
(3) RCH2CN (4) RCH2CH2NH2
89. Select the correct statement among the following.
80. The number of isomers for the complex species
[Co(en)2Br2]+ is (1) The prescribed upper limit concentration of
lead in drinking water is about 50 ppm
(1) 6 (2) 3
(2) Na3AsO3 is used as pesticide
(3) 4 (4) 2
(3) Excessive nitrate ion in drinking water can
81. Chloroform on reaction with O2 in presence of
light gives cause methemoglobinemia

(1) CO2 (2) COCl2 (4) Photochemical smog occurs in cool humid
climate
(3) CO (4) CCl3-CHO
90. Cationic detergent among the following is
82. The correct order of basic strength is
(1) Aniline > p-nitroaniline > p-toluidine (1) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide

(2) p-nitroaniline > Aniline > p-toluidine (2) Sodium laurylsulphate

(3) p-toluidine > Aniline > p-nitroaniline (3) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(4) p-toluidine > p-nitroaniline > Aniline (4) Sodium-potassium tartrate

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-8 (Code-A)

91. Select the alcohol which will give immediate 96. The correct order of bond order of the given
turbidity on reaction with conc. HCl in presence species is
of anhyd. ZnCl2.
(1) CH3–CH2–OH (2) CH3CH2CH2–OH (1) O2  O2  O2

(3) (4) (CH3)3C–OH (2) O2  O2  O2

92. Which of the following is arranged in the order of (3) O2  O2  O2
increasing radius of ions in aqueous solution?
(4) O2  O2  O2
(1) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ < Cs+
(2) Cs+ < Rb+ < K+ < Na+ < Li+ 97. The orbital angular momentum of 3d electron is
(3) Rb+ < Na+ < Li+ < Cs+ < K+ (1) 2h (2) 6h
(4) Cs+ < K+ < Rb+ < Li+ < Na+
93. Correct order of acidic strength is (3) 5h (4) 3h
(1) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3 98. Ratio of the kinetic energy of 14 g of N2 at 27°C
(2) BBr3 < BCl3 < BF3 < BI3 to 16 g of O2 at 127°C will be
(3) BI3 < BBr3 < BCl3 < BF3 (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 1
(4) BBr3 < BI3 < BCl3 < BF3 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 2 : 3
94. Consider the following reaction sequence

99. The correct IUPAC name of is

(1) 1-Methoxypropane
Product B is
(2) 2-Methoxybutane
(1) C6H5–CH2–NH2 (2) C6H5CN
(3) 2-Methyl-2-methoxy propane
(3) C6H5–NC (4) C6H5–CH2–NC
95. Major product of the given reaction is (4) 3-Methoxy butane

(CH3)3CBr + CH3–CH2–ONa  product 100. The most acidic compound among the following
(1) is
(1) C2H5OH
(2) H2O

(2)
(3)
(3) CH3–CH2–O–CH3
(4) CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3 (4) HC  CH

BOTANY
SECTION-A 102. Which of the following options about tapetum is
101. The bulbil of Agave represents: correct?

(1) Reduced disc shaped stem inside the bulb (1) It is protective layer of thick walled cells

(2) Vegetative propagule (2) It is sporogenous layer

(3) Leaf bud (3) It nourishes the developing pollen grains

(4) Modified underground bud (4) It helps in dehiscence of anther

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CST-8 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

103. The device that prevents both autogamy and 110. Find odd one w.r.t. single cell protein.
geitonogamy in some flowering plants is (1) Yeast and blue-green alga
(1) Monoecious condition (2) Methylophilus and Saccharomyces species
(2) Hermaphrodite condition (3) Mushrooms and Spirulina
(3) Dioecious condition (4) Atlas-66 and IR-8
(4) Cleistogamous condition 111. Ethyl alcohol and bread are produced on
104. Among the following, which fruit would we not commercial scale by using
select to induce parthenocarpy by the application (1) Streptococcus (2) Aspergillus
of plant growth regulators?
(3) Saccharomyces (4) Leuconostoc
(1) Banana (2) Pomegranate
112. All are the important photosynthetic biofertilizers,
(3) Grape (4) Orange except
105. Choose the incorrect statement regarding lac (1) Oscillatoria (2) Nostoc
operon.
(3) Frankia (4) Anabaena
(1) There are 3 structural genes
113. Which of the following options most appropriately
(2) It consists of regulatory gene-i describes colour blindness?
(3) i-gene has its own promoter (1) Chromosomal disorder
(4) Operator is the site of attachment of RNA (2) Recessive autosomal gene disorder
polymerase
(3) X-linked dominant genetic disorder
106. In tailing of hnRNA, nearly how many adenylate
(4) X-linked recessive genetic disorder
residues are added at 3-end in a template
independent manner? 114. Which of the following statements is not correct
regarding the selection of Drosophila
(1) 10 - 20 (2) 200 - 300
melanogaster by T.H. Morgan in his experiment?
(3) 1000 - 5000 (4) 61 - 64
(1) A single mating produces very large number
107. In point mutation, the reading frame of genetic of offspring
code remains unaltered from that point onwards
(2) It has life cycle of about two weeks
in case of
(3) It could be grown on simple synthetic
(1) Insertion of one base
medium
(2) Deletion of one base
(4) Female and male Drosophila are not
(3) Deletion of two bases distinguishable
(4) Insertion of three bases 115. Mendel’s law of dominance concludes all, except
108. The x-ray diffraction data of famous double helix (1) The factors occur in pairs
model for the structure of DNA was produced by
(2) Factors are discrete units that control
(1) M. Wilkins and R. Franklin characters
(2) J. Watson and F. Crick (3) Gamete carries only one factor of a character
(3) F. Miescher and F. Crick (4) Dominant factor expresses in heterozygous
(4) A. Hershey and M. Chase condition, recessive does not
109. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus 116. Select the wrong match regarding sex
and powdery mildew were developed by determination.
(1) Cross hybridization (1) XX-XY type — Mammals
(2) Mutation breeding (2) XX-XO type — Grasshopper
(3) Polyploidy (3) ZW-ZZ type — Birds
(4) Somatic hybridisation (4) ZO-ZZ type — Chickens

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117. In Mendel’s experiment on Pisum sativum, plant
with inflated pods and round seeds was crossed
with constricted pods and wrinkle seeds. The F1
offsprings were “IiRr”. What would be the
genotypic ratio in F2 generation when F1 is
crossed with pea having “iirr” genotype?
(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1
118. Langdon Down first described a chromosomal
disorder in human called Down’s syndrome is
due to
(1) Three copies of chromosome 21
(2) Two copies of Y-chromosomes
(3) Two copies of X-chromosomes in males
(4) Just one X-chromosome in females
119. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
matched?
(1) High pressure in – Biochemical
ocean adaptation in fishes
(2) Desert lizards – Behavioural
adaptation
(3) All archaebacteria – Deep sea
hydrothermal vents
122. In which of the following areas, highest diversity
in birds species is seen?
(1) Colombia (2) Arctic
(3) New York (4) Greenland
123. In relation, log S = log C + Z log A, large the
explored area,
(1) Less is steepness of the slope of line
(2) More is steepness of the slope of line
(3) The slope of line would be paralles to the
area axis
(4) Decrease in the number of the species
124. Human being is the only organism who has
(1) Consciousness
(2) Self-consciousness
(3) Ability to detect change in the environment
(4) Cellular organisation
125. Choose the incorrect one regarding wheat plant.
(1) Wheat is a dicot annual plant
(2) It belongs to family Poaceae
(3) Its genus is Triticum
(4) Its division is Angiospermae
126. Slime moulds form plasmodium
(1) Under unfavourable condition
(2) Due to aggregation of mycelium
(3) Which causes malaria in human beings

(4) High altitude – Altitude sickness (4) Under favourable conditions

127. Which one of the following diseases is not
120. Read the following statements: caused by bacteria?
(a) Slash and burn agriculture commonly called (1) Tetanus (2) Citrus canker
jhum cultivation.
(3) Mad cow disease (4) Typhoid
(b) Deforestation disturbs hydrological cycle. 128. Lichens are
(c) Chipko Movement started in Garhwal (1) Mutual association between algae and fungi
Himalayas.
(2) Symbiotic associations of algae and mosses
(d) Amrita Devi Bishnoi has introduced concept
(3) Association of roots of angiosperms and
of Joint Forest Management.
fungi
How many are correct? (4) Good pollination indicators as they grow in
(1) Four (2) Three polluted areas
(3) Two (4) One 129. Classification of flowering plants given by
Bentham and Hooker are based on all the
121. During primary succession in water, the pioneer
following features, except
species are replaced with time by
(1) External features
(1) Rooted sub-merged plants
(2) Internal features like anatomy and
(2) Sub-merged free floating plants ultrastructure
(3) Marsh-meadow plants (3) Phytochemistry
(4) Reed-swamp plants (4) Evolutionary relationships among organisms

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CST-8 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

130. Proponent of artificial system of classification of SECTION-B

organisms is 136. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) Takhtajan (2) Hutchinson (1) The divisions in meristematic tissues results
(3) Engler (4) Linnaeus in open type growth in plants

131. Among the following characteristics, how many (2) The growth of multicellular organisms is due
are correct for Volvox? to mitosis

a. Colonial algae (3) In lower plants, haploid cells do not divide

b. Fresh water algae (4) The division of cells restores the

nucleocytoplasmic ratio
c. Chloroplast with pyrenoid
137. Which one of the following organelles is
d. Sexual reproduction isogamous
observed in large number in the cells actively
(1) Four (2) Three involved in protein synthesis and secretion?
(3) Two (4) One (1) Plastids
132. Statement-A : Mosses along with lichens are the (2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
first organisms to colonise rocks. (3) Peroxisome
Statement-B : Mosses are of great ecological (4) Lysosome
importance.
138. In roots, the innermost boundary of the cortex is
Select the correct option regarding the impervious to water because of
statements A and B.
(1) A band of lignified matrix
(1) Both statements are false
(2) Plasmodesmata
(2) Statement A is false
(3) Casparian strips
(3) Both statements are true
(4) Deposition of inclusion bodies
(4) Statement B is false
139. The best defined function of manganese is
133. Gymnosperms are (1) Carbohydrate translocation
(1) Vascular cryptogams (2) Synthesis of chlorophyll
(2) Thallophytes (3) Synthesis of auxin
(3) Homosporous (4) Splitting of water during photosynthesis
(4) Heterosporous 140. Which one of the following statements is wrong
134. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? for the plants showing ‘Kranz anatomy’?
(1) Hard and stony endocarp – Drupe (1) Bundle sheath cells are present
(2) Edible part is thalamus – Apple (2) The cells surrounding the vascular bundle
have a large number of chloroplasts
(3) Opposite phyllotaxy – Alstonia
(3) Primary CO2 acceptor is C4-acid
(4) Events precursor to seed habit – Selaginella
(4) RuBisCO is present in stroma of chloroplast
135. Nucleus is double membrane bound organelle of
cell. The width of perinuclear space between 141. In glycolysis, water molecule is released during
outer and inner membrane is which of the following conversion steps?

(1) 1 - 2 nm (1) Glucose-6-Phosphate Fructose-6-Phosphate

(2) 10 - 50 nm (2) 2-Phosphoglycerate Phosphoenolpyruvate

(3) 100 - 500 nm (3) PEP Pyruvic acid

(4) 0.1 – 0.5 nm (4) 3-Phosphoglycerate 2-Phosphoglycerate

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-8 (Code-A)

142. Match the following columns and select the 146. Which of the following plants show clear cut
correct option. vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases?
a. ABA (i) Helps to overcome (1) Mango plant (2) Carrot
apical dominance
(3) China rose (4) Coconut
b. Gaseous PGR (ii) Stress hormone
147. The haplodiploid system of sex determination
c. NAA (iii) Thinning of cotton mechanism is designated in
fruits
(1) Drosophila (2) Birds
d. Cytokinin (iv) Rooting in stem cutting
(3) Honey bee (4) Grasshopper
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
148. Select the incorrect match from the following.
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
143. The hypothetical hormone that induces flowering (1) Psilotum – Vascular system
is synthesised in (2) Ginkgo – Double fertilization
(1) Flower bud (2) Leaves
(3) Polytrichum – Protonema
(3) Apical meristem (4) Lateral cambium
144. Choose the incorrect match. (4) Zostera – Sea-grass

(1) Sclerenchyma — Lignified cell walls 149. Water loss in the form of droplets around
(2) Collenchyma — Thickening at the corners openings of the veins near the tip of grass blades
due to high root pressure is called
(3) Parenchyma — Small intercellular space
(1) Transpiration (2) Translocation
(4) Bast fibres — Living cells
(3) Guttation (4) Bleeding
145. In the floral formula of family Solanaceae A5
represents 150. Find odd one w.r.t. the results of dedifferentiation.
(1) Polyandrous condition (1) Cork cambium
(2) Epipetalous condition (2) Interfascicular cambium
(3) Epitepalous condition (3) Wound cambium
(4) Polyadelphous condition (4) Secondary cortex

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 153. Complete the analogy for the following.
151. Proboscis gland is an excretory organ for Collar cells : Sycon :: Muscular foot : ______
(1) Echinus (1) Physalia (2) Euspongia
(2) Pheretima (3) Taenia (4) Pila
(3) Balanoglossus
154. Cells present in all of the following connective
(4) Rana tissue secrete fibres, except
152. Study the following table and choose the (1) Adipose tissue (2) Bone
incorrect option.
(3) Blood (4) Areolar tissue
Phylum Symmetry Segmentation 155. Type of cell junction that help to stop substances
from leaking across a tissue is
(1) Annelida Bilateral Present
(1) Tight junctions
(2) Mollusca Bilateral Present
(2) Gap junctions
(3) Cnidaria Radial Absent (3) Adherens junctions
(4) Chordata Bilateral Present (4) Hemi-desmosomes

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CST-8 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

156. A are bone forming cells, whereas B are 161. While leaving for work, Rohan's mother who by
profession is a Zoology lecturer at Aakash
bone maintaining cells.
institute, instructed him to place the tomatoes in
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank A the refrigerator. Rohan had been too occupied
and B. with his PUBG squad online and didn't pay much
A B attention, and eventually had trouble recalling
what he had been instructed to do. On her return
(1) Osteoblasts Osteoclasts during evening hours, she finds the tomatoes still
lying on the table and decided to explain this fact
(2) Osteoblasts Osteocytes
to Rohan, that keeping tomatoes in the
(3) Osteocytes Osteoblasts refrigerator would keep them fresh for long
because
(4) Osteoclasts Osteocytes
(1) Low temperature preserves the colour and
157. In a cockroach, how many among the following smell
given in box, helps in excretion? (2) Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a
Malpighian tubules, Fat body, Flame cells, temporary inactive state
Nephrocytes, Uricose glands (3) Tomato ripe quickly when comes in contact
with air at very high temperature outside
(1) Thee
refrigerators
(2) Four
(4) Atmospheric air destroys the enzyme activity
(3) Five
162. Read the statement and choose the option which
(4) Two correctly fills the blank.
158. How many among the following given in box are The tongue is a freely movable muscular organ
secondary metabolites? attached to the floor of the oral cavity by ______.

Cellulose, Codeine, Anthocyanin, Fructose, (1) Papillae (2) Frenulum

Vinblastin, Lysine (3) Sphincter (4) Valve

(1) Six (2) Three 163. Which layer forms the gastric glands in stomach?

(3) Four (4) Five (1) Mucosa

159. Choose the mismatch among the following. (2) Sub-mucosa

(1) Nucleoside – Uridine (3) Serosa

(2) Nucleotide – Adenylic acid (4) Muscularis

(3) Nitrogen base – Cytosine 164. All of the following statements are correct w.r.t
stomach and gastric gland, except
(4) DNA – Ribose sugar
(1) The stomach stores the food for 4-5 hours
160. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option. (2) Oxyntic cells secrete HCl

Statement-A : Adenine and guanine
substituted purines.
Statement-B : Uracil is present in DNA, instead
of thymine.
(1) Both A and B are correct
(2) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) A is correct but B is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect but B is correct
are (3) Lipases are completely absent in gastric juice
(4) Pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and
peptones
165. Select the mismatch among the following.
(1) pO2 in alveoli – 104 mm Hg
(2) pCO2 in deoxygenated blood – 45 mm Hg
(3) pCO2 in tissues – 40 mm Hg
(4) pO2 in oxygenated blood – 95 mm Hg
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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-8 (Code-A)

166. Which among the following is incorrect 171. Complete the analogy w.r.t excretion in human
statement? beings.
(1) Concentration of enzyme, carbonic Urea : 25-30 g/day :: CO2 : ______
anhydrase is very high in RBCs as compare
to plasma (1) 10 L/hr (2) 12 L/hr

(2) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can (3) 200 L/hr (4) 5 L/hr
transport 4 ml of O2 under normal 172. Which of the following is an active ATPase
physiological conditions enzyme?
(3) Role of oxygen in regulating respiratory (1) Globular actin
rhythm is quite insignificant
(2) Light meromyosin
(4) Around 20-25 percent of CO2 is transported
by RBCs (3) Globular head in HMM
167. Match column I with column II and choose the (4) Tropomyosin
correct option. 173. Study the following table and choose the
Column I Column II mismatch.
(1) Hinge joint – Knee joint
a. Platelets (i) Allergic reactions
(2) Saddle joint – Between carpal and
b. Neutrophils (ii) Secrete
metacarpal of
antibodies
thumb
c. Eosinophils (iii) Anti-inflammatory (3) Gliding joint – Between atlas and
reactions axis
d. B lymphocytes (iv) Phagocytic cells (4) Ball and socket joint – Between humerus
and pectoral girdle
(v) Blood clotting
174. Choose the incorrect statement among the
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
following.
(3) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) The left and right hemispheres of brain are
168. A person with only anti-A antibodies in his connected by corpus callosum
plasma can donate blood to people with blood
group(s) (2) The medulla in hind brain does not contain
centre for gastric secretions
(1) Only B (2) Only O and B
(3) The hypothalamus contain a centre which
(3) Only AB (4) Only AB and B
control body temperature
169. Incomplete double circulation of blood is found in
(4) Limbic system along with hypothalamus is
(1) Scoliodon (2) Crocodile
involved in regulation of sexual behaviour
(3) Parrot (4) Frog
175. The photopic vision is the function of A
170. Read the following statement and choose the
option that correctly fills the blank A and B. cells, whereas scotopic vision is the function of
Conditional reabsorption of Na+ occurs in A , B cells.
whereas 70-80 percent of electrolytes are Choose the option that correctly fills the blank A
reabsorbed in B of a nephron. and B.

A B A B

(1) DCT Collecting duct (1) Rods Cones

(2) DCT PCT (2) Cones Rods

(3) Henle’s loop PCT (3) Cones Bipolars

(4) DCT Henle’s loop (4) Rods Bipolars

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CST-8 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

176. How many hormones given in the box below are A B

directly secreted by pituitary gland?
(1) Spermatogenesis Spermiogenesis
FSH, ACTH, Thymosins, Adrenaline, Prolactin,
Somatotrophin, Somatostatin (2) Spermatocytogenesis Spermiation

(1) Six (2) Three (3) Spermiogenesis Spermatogenesis

(3) Five (4) Four (4) Spermiogenesis Spermiation
177. Which among the following hormones interact
183. Presence of a fluid filled cavity called antrum is a
with membrane bound receptors on a cell?
characteristic of
(1) Testosterone (2) Cortisol (1) Secondary follicle (2) Tertiary follicle
(3) Epinephrine (4) Progesterone (3) Primary follicle (4) Corpus albicans
178. How many among the following given in box are 184. Study the given diagram carefully and read the
linked with the functions of melatonin? following statements.
Diurnal rhythm, Body temperature,
Pigmentation, Menstrual cycle, Defence
capability

(1) Five (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Two
179. Which among the following is pseudo-coelomate
and a human parasite?
(1) Anopheles (2) Aedes
(3) Wuchereria (4) Hirudinaria
180. Oestrus cycle does not occur in
(1) Cows (2) Tiger
(i) The embryo at stage (e) contain A cells.
(3) Monkeys (4) Dogs
(ii) The growing embryo at stage (g) is known as
181. Which among the following statement is
incorrect w.r.t male reproductive tract? B .

(1) Prostate gland is an accessory male Choose the option that correctly answers the
reproductive gland blanks above.
(2) Seminal plasma is rich in sucrose, calcium A B
and certain enzymes
(1) 16-32 Morula
(3) The secretions of bulbourethral gland helps
in the lubrication of penis (2) 8-16 Blastocyst
(4) Penis is made up of special tissue that helps
(3) 8-16 Gastrula
in erection
182. Read the statements and choose the option that (4) 16-32 Blastocyst
correctly fills the blank A and B. 185. Choose the option which correctly states the
(i) LH acts on leydig cells and stimulate hormones produced in women only during
secretion of androgens, which in turn pregnancy.
stimulate the process of A . (1) hCG, relaxin, progesterone

(ii) FSH acts on Sertoli cells and stimulate (2) hCG, hPL, relaxin and cortisol
secretion of some factors which help in the (3) hCG, hPL and relaxin
process of B . (4) hCG, hPL and oestrogen

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-8 (Code-A)

SECTION-B 191. All of the following can be used to reduce the

186. Select the mismatch among the following. symptoms of allergy, except

(1) Saheli – Non-steroidal pill (1) Adrenaline

(2) Multiload 375 – Hormone releasing (2) Steroids

IUD (3) Anti-histamine
(3) Lippes loop – Non-medicated IUD (4) Oxytocin
(4) Periodic abstinence – Natural method of 192. Jersey is an improved breed of
contraception
(1) Chicken
187. How many among the items given below in the
box are viral STls ? (2) Cattle
(3) Fish
Hepatitis-B, AIDS, Gonorrhoea, Genital herpes,
Syphilis, Genital warts, Chlamydiasis (4) Pig
193. Which of the following gene will get inactivated if
(1) Six (2) Three
an alien DNA is ligated at the Pvu I restriction site
(3) Five (4) Four of vector, pBR322?
188. Who disapproved the embryological support for (1) ori
evolution, proposed by Ernst Heckel?
(2) rop
(1) Charles Darwin
(3) ampR
(2) Thomas Malthus
(4) tetR
(3) Hugo de Vries
194. During DNA isolation from animal cells, chilled
(4) Karl Ernst von Baer
ethanol is used to precipitate the purified DNA.
189. Read the following statements carefully about This separated DNA can be seen as fine threads
evolution of man. in the suspension and can be removed on glass
(i) They had a large brain around 900 cc rod by
(ii) They existed around 1.5 mya (1) Elution
(iii) They probably ate meat (2) Centrifugation
‘They’ in the above statements are (3) Gel electrophoresis
(1) Australopithecines (4) Spooling
(2) Homo erectus 195. Which of the following option is most suitable for
(3) Homo habilis permanent cure of ADA deficiency?
(4) Neanderthal man (1) Regular enzyme replacement therapy
190. Match column I with column II and choose the (2) Bone marrow transplantation
correct option.
(3) Insertion of ADA cDNA into adult
Column I Column II lymphocytes
(4) Introduction of the gene isolated from bone
a. Cellular barriers (i) Mucus coating
marrow cells producing ADA into cells at
b. Physiological (ii) Interferons early embryonic stages
barriers
196. Select the mismatch among the following.
c. Cytokine barriers (iii) Neutrophils
(1) Bioluminescence – Pleurobrachia
d. Physical barriers (iv) Tears from
(2) Metagenesis – Obelia
eyes
(3) Proboscis gland – Petromyzon
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) Air bladder – Hippocampus

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CST-8 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

197. The bond present between ribose sugar and 199. Which of the following is not a function of
nitrogenous base within a nucleotide is a association areas present in forebrain?

(1) H-bond (1) Memory

(2) Communication
(2) Glycosidic bond
(3) Expression of emotional reactions
(3) Phosphodiester bond
(4) Inter sensory association
(4) Peptide bond
200. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. functions of
198. Complete the analogy regarding number of ribs cortisol.
present in human beings.
(1) It stimulates RBC production
Vertebrochondral ribs : 6 : : Vertebrosternal ribs : (2) It is not involved in maintaining kidney
(1) 4 functions

(2) 6 (3) It is involved in maintaining the cardio-

vascular system
(3) 14
(4) It produces anti-inflammatory reactions and
(4) 8 suppresses immune system



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