ELEGANT STUDY FORUM

ASSIGNMENT CLASS - XII ALCOHOL, PHENOL, ETHER

Q1. Maximum H-bonding is present in:

(a) C2H5OH (b) C2H5Cl (c) (C2H5)2O (d) (C2H5)3N
Q2. Which of the following has highest boiling point?
(a) CH4 (b) CH3OH (c) CH3Cl (d) CH3Br
Q3. Among the following which is completely miscible with water?
(a) CCl4 (b) C2H5OH (c) CHCl3 (d) C6H6
Q4. Alcohols having low molecular mass are:
(a) water soluble (b) soluble in hot water (c) insoluble in all solvents (d) insoluble in water
Q5. Which bond in CH3CH2OH show heterolysis most readily?
(a) 𝐶−𝐶 (b) 𝐶 − 𝐻 (c) 𝐶 − 𝑂 (d) 𝑂 − 𝐻
Q6. Na-metal can’t be stored in:
(a) benzene (b) kerosene (c) alcohol (d) toluene
Q7. With conc. H2SO4 , C2H5OH gives:
(a) CH2 = CH2 (b) CH3 – CH = CH2 (c) CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2 (d) None of these
Q8. On oxidation with acidic K2Cr2O7, C2H5OH gives:
(a) acetic acid (b) acetaldehyde (c) formaldehyde (d) formic acid
Q9. HBr readily reacts with:
(a) 2-methylpropan-2-ol (b) propan-1-ol (c) propan-2-ol (d) 2-methyl propan-1-ol
Q10. Iodoform test is given by:
(a) CH2CH2COCH2CH3 (b) CH3CHOHCH3
(c) CH3CH2COC6H5 (d) CH3CH2CH2OH
Q11. In dehydration the correct order of reactivity of alcohol is:
(a) 10 > 2 0 > 3 0 (b) 30 > 20 > 10 (c) 10 > 30 > 20 (d) none of these
Q12. On heating with conc. H2SO4, C2H5OH gives:
(a) C4H8 (b) C2H4 (c) C3H4 (d) C2H2
Q13. When vapours of an alcohol are passed over hot Cu, alkene is obtained. This alcohol is:
(a) p-alcohol (b) s-alcohol (c) t-alcohol (d) none of these
Q14. CH3OH and C2H5OH may be distinguished by:
(a) HCl (b) NH3 (c) solubility (d) iodoform test
Q15. p, s and t-alcohols may be distinguished by:
(a) Fehling’ solution (b) Victor mayer test (c) Hoffmann’s test (d) Beilestein test
Q16. Conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2 are used in testing of:
(a) nitroalkanes (b) alkyl halide (c) alkyl amine (d) alcohol
Q17. At ordinary temperature which react with Lucas reagent at maximum rate?
(a) butanol-1 (b) butanol-2 (c) 2-methyl propanol-1 (d) 2-methyl propanol-2

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Q18. Which of the following is used in tonics?
(a) ether (b) methanol (c) ethanol (d) rectified spirit
Q19. Denatured spirit in mainly used as:
(a) good fuel (b) medicines (c) sokvent in varnishes (d) in making oils
Q20. Sodium ethoxide is specific reagent for:
(a) dehydration (b) dehydrogenation (c) dehydrohalogenation (d) dehalogenation
Q21. Among the following, which do not give iodoform with I2/NaOH?
(a) CH3OH (b) C2H5OH (c) CH3CHO (d) CH3COCH3
Q22. Ethanol is isomer of:
(a) methanol (b) diethyl ether (c) acetone (d) dimethyl ether
Q23. Which of the following is not isomer of diethyl ether?
(a) methyl-n-propyl ether (b) butan-1-ol (c) 2-methyl propan-2-ol (d) butanone
Q24. IUPAC name of CH3 –O−C2H5 is:
(a) ethoxy methane (b) methoxy ethane (c) methyl ethyl ether (d) ethyl methyl ether
Q25. Number of structural isomers of C4H10O is:
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7
Q26. Diethyl ether may be considered as anhydride of:
(a) C2H5COOH (b) C2H5OH (c) C2H5CHO (d) C2H5COC2H5
Q27. Which of the following is simple ether?
(a) CH3OC2H5 (b) C2H5OC3H7 (c) C2H5OC2H5 (d) CH3OC3H7
Q28. Product obtained when t-butyl bromide reacts with sodium methoxide is:
(a) t – butyl methyl ether (b) isobutene (c) sodium t-butoxide (d) isobutylene
Q29. Ethyl alcohol may be converted into diethyl ether by:
(a) dehydrogenation (b) hydrogenation (c) dehydration (d) heterolytic fission
Q30. Formation of ethers by action of sodium alkoxide on alkyl halide is known as:
(a) Kolbe reaction (b) Williamson’s method (c) Wurtz reaction (d) Frankland’s reaction
Q31. Ethyl iodide on heating with sodium ethoxide gives:
(a) ether (b) ethyl alcohol (c) acetaldehyde (d) acetic acid
Q32. Among the following Williamson’s synthesis is:
Zn−Hg 𝐷𝑖𝑙. 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
CH3
(a) C=O → CH3 CH2 CH3 (b) CH3CHO → CH3CH = CHCHO
CH3 Conc. HCl − 𝐻2 𝑂
𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
(c) C2H5I + C2H5ONa ⟶ C2H5OC2H5 + NaI (d) HCHO → HCOONa + CH3OH
Q33. By using Williamson’s synthesis, ethoxy ethane is prepared by:
(a) passing ethanol vapours over hot alumina
(b) reaction between sodium ethoxide and ethyl bromide
(c) reaction between ethyl alcohol and sulphuric acid
(d) reaction between ethyl iodide and dry Ag2O
Q34. At 1400C reaction between excess of C2H5OH and H2SO4 gives:
(a) C2H5HSO4 (b) C2H5−O−C2H5 (c) C2H4 (d) CH3OH

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Q35. On passing vapours of ethanol over alumina at 2500C, the product obtained is:
(a) CH3CHO (b) CH3COCH3 (c) C2H4 (d) (C2H5)2O
Q36. Intermolecular dehydration of alcohols give:
(a) alkene (b) ketone (c) alkyne (d) ether
Q37. Dimethyl ether and ethanol both have same formula C 2H6O, but boiling point of ethers is less than alcohols, because
………… is present in ethanol.
(a) H- bond (b) ionic bond (c) Co-ordinate bond (d) resonance
Q38. Among the following, which does not react with Na?
(a) C2H5OH (b) CH3−CHOH−CH3 (c) CH3 –O –CH3 (d) CH3COOH
Q39. Ethers are:
(a) acidic (b) alkaline (c) neutral (d) amphoteric
Q40. With conc. HI, one mole of diethyl ether gives two moles of:
(a) ethanol (b) iodoform (c) ethyl iodide (d) methyl iodide
Q41. Diethyl ether behaves as:
(a) Lewis acid (b) Lewis base (c) oxidant (d) reductant
Q42. The compound used as anaesthetic is:
(a) ethyl acetate (b) ethyl alcohol (c) ether (d) CCl4
Q43. Williamson’s method is used for the preparation of:
(a) alcohol (b) ethers (c) amines (d) Grignard reagent
Q44. In the following possible isomers of Butanol, the compound exhibiting optical isomerism is:
(a) CH3CHOHCH2CH3 (b) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (c) (CH3)2CHCH3OH (d) (CH3)2COH
Q45. Common and IUPAC names of CH3 – O –CH3 are:
(a) dimethyl ether and methoxy methane (c) dimethyl ether and methoxy ethane
(c) diethyl ether and methoxy methane (d) diethyl ether and methoxy ethane
Q46. Lucas reagent is:
(a) Conc. HCl + anhydrous ZnCl2 (b) Pd / BaSO4
(c) dil. HCl + anhydrous ZnCl2 (d) None of these
Q47. Phenol is less acidic than:
(a) ethanol (b) methanol (c) o-nitrophenol (d) p-methyl phenol
Q48. Phenol and ethanol may be distinguished by:
(a) NaOH (b) PCl5 (c) FeCl3 (d) benzoic acid
Q49. Phenol may be converted into salicylic acid:
(a) Etard reaction (b) Kolbe reaction (c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (d) Gattermann reaction
Q50. With neutral FeCl3 phenol gives:
(a) red colour (b) green colour (c) violet colour (d) blue colour
Q51. At low temperature, phenol reacts with Br 2/CS2 to give:
(a) o-bromophenol (b) p-bromophenol (c) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol (d) both (a) and (b)
Q52. The product obtained, when phenol reacts with conc. H2SO4 in the first step and with conc. HNO3 in second step, is:
(a) nitrobenzene (b) nitrophenol (c) 2, 4,6-trinitrobenzene (d) o-nitrophenol

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Q53. On passing phenol vapours over hot Zn dust, the product formed is:
(a) benzene (b) benzaldehyde (c) benzoic acid (d) benzophenone
Q54. The product of Reimmer-Tiemann reaction is:
(a) benzaldehyde (b) acetophenone (c) salicylaldehyde (d) toluene
Q55. On heating phenol with phthalic anhydride in the presence of conc. H2SO4 is:
(a) Bakelite (b) phenolphthalein (c) salicyclic acid (d) both (a) and (b)
Q56. Among the following which is more acidic.
(a) H2O (b) C6H5OH (c) C2H5OH (d) CH3OCH3
Q57. Phenol is heated with Nitric acid to give:
(a) Chloretone (b) Picric acid (c) Methoxy Benzene (d) Benzene
Q58. Dehydration of alcohol involves:
(a) Free radicals (b) Carbonium ion (c) Carbanion ion (d) Carbene
Q59. Ethylene glycol is an example of a/an:
(a) Dihydric alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol (c) Tertiary alcohol (d) Unsaturated alcohol
Q60. Fermentation is:
(a) An exothermic process (b) An endothermic process
(c) A reversible process (d) A physical process
Q61. n-propyl bromide reacts with aqueous KOH to form:
(a) Propane (b) Propene (c) Propyne (d) Propanol
Q62. Among the following substituted phenols, the most acidic is:
(a) p-aminophenol (b) p-chlorophenol (c) p-nitrophenol (d) m-nitrophenol
Q63. Which among the following will not show H-bonding?
(a) Chloroform (b) Chloral (c) Ethanol (d) Acetic acid
Q64. Dehydration of glycerol gives a foul smelling compound called:
(a) Propane (b) Acrolein (c) Methyl isocyanide (d) Mercaptans
Q65. Which is used as common antifreeze?
(a) Glycol (b) Water (c) Ethanol (d) Methanol
Q66. Which of the following compound is known as oil of winter green?
(a) Acetyl salicyclic acid (b) Methyl salicylate (c) Phenyl salicylate (d) Salicylic acid
Q67. When phenol is treated with bromine / H2O, it gives:
(a) o- and p-dibromophenol (b) 2, 3, 4-tribromophenol
(c) 2, 4, 6- tribromophenol (d) None of the above
Q68. Glycerol contains:
(a) Two primary alcoholic and one secondary alcoholic group (b) All the three primary alcoholic groups
(c) One primary and two secondary alcoholic groups (d) None of the above
Q69. The order of reactivity among
(i) Phenol (ii) p-nitrophenol (iii) 2, 4-dinitrophenol
follows the order:
(a) (i) = (ii) = (iii) (b) (i) < (ii) < (iii) (c) (ii) < (i) = (iii) (d) (i) < (iii) < (ii)

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Q70. Alcohols:
(a) react with sodium to form low melting covalent solids
(b) react with base due to the presence of lone pair of electrons on the O-atom
(c) have pH between 7 and 8 in aqueous solution
(d) none of the above
Q71. Which of the following isomeric alcohols has the highest b.pt/m.pt?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) All of the above
Q72. Which of the following alcohols would give positive iodoform test?
(a) Ethanol (b) 1-propanol (c) 2-Methyl propanol-2 (d) Hexanol-3
Q73. Among the following compounds, the strongest acid is:
(a) 𝐶𝐻 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 (b) C6H6 (c) C2H6 (d) CH3OH
Q74. Which one of the following compounds will be most readily attacked by an electrophile?
(a) Chlorobenzene (b) Benzene (c) Phenol (d) Toluene
Q75. Which of the following is most acidic?
(a) Phenol (b) Benzyl alcohol (c) m-chlorophenol (d) Cyclohexanol
Q76. Which of the following is the most suitable method for removing the traces of water from ethanol?
(a) Heating with Na metal (b) Passing dry HCl gas through it
(c) Distilling it (d) Reacting with Mg
Q77. The most suitable method of separation of a mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols mixed in the ratio of 1 : 1 is:
(a) Steam distillation (b) Crystallization (c) Vapourization (d) Colour spectrum
Q78. Propan -1-ol may be prepared by reaction of propene with:
(a) H3BO3 (b) B2H6 / NaOH – H2O2
(c) H2SO4 / H2O (d) O
CH3 – C – O –O −H
Q79. The ionization constant of phenol is higher than that of ethanol because:
(a) Phenoxide ion is a stronger base than ethoxide ion
(b) Phenoxide ion is stabilized through delocalization
(c) Phenoxide ion is less stable than ethoxide ion
(d) Phenoxide ions is bulkier than ethoxide ion
Q80. When m-chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with 50% KOH solution, the product (s) obtained is (are):

Q81. Lucas test is used for the distinction of:

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 (a) Alcohols (b) Alkyl halides (c) Phenols (d) Aldehydes
Q82. When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH, the product formed is:
(a) Benzaldehyde (b) Salicylaldehyde (c) Salicyclic acid (d) Benzoic acid
Q83. Which of the following compound dehydrates most easily?
(a) R3COH (b) CH3CH2OH (c) R2CHOH (d) CH3CH2CH2OH
Q84. When CH2 = CH – COOH is reduced with LiAlH4, the compound obtained will be:
(a) CH3 − CH2 –COOH (b) CH2 = CH – CH2OH (c) CH3 – CH2 – CH2OH (d) CH3 – CH2 − CHO
Q85. Ether in contact with air for a long time form peroxides. The presence of peroxide in ether can be tested by adding
Fe2+ ion in it and then adding:
(a) KCNS (b) SnCl2 (c) HgCl2 (d) KI
Q86. Glycerol on oxidation with conc. HNO3 mainly yields:
(a) Glyceric acid (b) Tartronic acid (c) Mesoxalic acid (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q87. Carbinol is the trivial name for:
(a) (CH3)3COH (b) C2H5OH (c) CH3OH (d) CH3CH2CHOHCH3
Q88. On conversion into the Grignard reagent followed by treatment with absolute ethanol, how many isomeric alkyl
chlorides would yield 2-methyl-butane?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Q89. Which of the following methods cannot be used for the preparation of an ester?
(a) RCOOH + R’OH + OH − (b) RCOCl + R’OH + Pyridine
(c) RCOOH + R’OH + H+ (d) (RCO)2O + R’OH + Pyridine
Q90. Metal alkoxides contain:
(a) Metal carbon bond (b) Metal oxygen bond (c) Metal methyl bond (d) None of these
Q91. The correct order of the ease with which primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols can be dehydrated using
concentrated H2SO4 is:
(a) Tertiary > Secondary > Primary (b) Primary > Secondary > Teritary
(c) Secondary > Tertiary > Primary (d) Secondary > Primary > Teritary
Q92. Glycerol on treatment with oxalic acid at 1100C forms:
(a) Formic acid (b) CO2 and CO (c) Allyl alcohol (d) Glycol
Q93. For the preparation of t-butylmethylether by Williamson’s method the correct choice of reagents is:
(a) Methoxide and t-butylbromide (b) Methanol and 2-bromobutane
(c) 2-Butanol and methylbromide (d) t-Butoxide and methylbromide
𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡
Q94. The product formed in the following reaction C 6H5 –O –CH3 + HI → are:
(a) C6H5OH and CH3I (b) C6H5I and CH3OH
(c) C6H5CH3 and HOI (d) C6H6 and CH3OI
Q95. Widespread deaths due to liquor poisoning occurs due to:
(a) presence of lead compounds in liquor (b) presence of methyl alcohol in liquor
(c) presence of ethyl alcohol in liquor (d) presence of carbonic acid in liquor

Q96. Which will not form yellow precipitate on heating with an alkaline solution of iodine?

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 (a) CH3CHOHCH3 (b) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 (c) CH3OH (d) CH3CH2OH
Q97. Which of the following reacts with water?
(a) CHCl3 (b) CCl4 (c) CCl3CHO (d) None of these
Q98. Ethylene glycol on oxidation with per iodic acid gives:
(a) Oxalic acid (b) Glyoxal (c) Formaldehyde (d) Glycollic acid
Q99. The compound which gives the least stable carbonium ion on dehydration is:
(a) CH3 – CH – CH2OH (b) CH3 –CH2 −CH2 − CH2OH

CH3

CH3

(c) CH3 − C −OH (d) CH3 − CH − CH2 − CH3

CH3 OH
Q100. On heating glycerol with conc. H2SO4, a compound is obtained which has bad odour. The compound is:
(a) Acrolein (b) Formic acid (c) Allyl alcohol (d) Methyl isocyanide
Q101. The compound which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature is:
(a) Butan -1-ol (b) Butan-2-ol (c) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol (d) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
Q102. A compound with molecular formula C4H10O3 is converted by the action of acetyl chloride to a compound with
molecular weight 190. The original compound has:
(a) One OH group (b) Two OH groups (c) Three OH groups (d) No OH group
Q103. 1-Phenyl ethanol can be prepared from benzal-dehyde by the action of:
(a) CH3Br (b) CH3Br and AlBr3 (c) CH3I, Mg and HOH (d) C2H5I and Mg
𝐷𝑟𝑦
Q104. The reaction, CH3COOH + HOC2H5 → CH3COOC2H5 + H2O is called:
𝐻𝐶𝑙
(a) Fischer – Speier esterification (b) Clemmensen condensation
(c) Claisen condensation (d) None of these
Q105. There are four alcohols P, Q, R and S which have 3, 2, 1 and zero alpha hydrogen atom(s). Which one of the
following will not respond to Victor-Meyer’s test?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
Q106. In the reaction involving 𝐶 − 𝑂𝐻 bond in alcohols, the order of reactivity is:
(a) 10 > 2 0 > 3 0 (b) 30 > 20 > 10 (c) 20 > 30 > 1 (d) None of these
Q107. Ethers are made free from peroxide linkage on distilling impure sample with:
(a) Conc. HNO3 (b) Conc. H2SO4 (c) Conc. HCl (d) None of these
Q108. Ethers are not distilled to dryness for fear of explosion. Thus is due to formation of:
(a) Oxides (b) Alcohol (c) Ketones (d) Peroxides
Q109. If there be a compound of the formula CH3C(OH)3 which one of the following compounds would be obtained from
it without treatment with any reagent?
(a) Methanol (b) Ethanol (c) Acetic acid (d) Formaldehyde
Q110. Na reacts rapidly with:
(a) 10 alcohol (b) 20 alcohol (c) 30 alcohol (d) None of these
Q111. Dunstan’s test is used for identification of:

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 (a) Acetone (b) Alcohol (c) Glycerol (d) Carbonyl compound
Q112. In CHECH2OH, the bond that undergoes heterolytic change most readily is:
(a) C − C (b) C − O (c) C − H (d) O − H
Q113. When phenol is distilled with zinc dust, it gives:
(a) benzene (b) toluene (c) benzaldehyde (d) benzoic acid
Q114. The compound which gives the most stable carbonium ion on dehydration is:
(a) (CH3)2CHCH2OH (b) (CH3)3COH (c) CH3CH2CH2OH (d) CH3CHOHCH2CH3
Q115. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by all reagents except:
(a) NaOH (b) FeCl3 (c) Br2/H2O (d) Na
Q116. Aspirin is an acetylation product of:
(a) p-Dihydroxybenzene (b) o-Hydroxy benzoic acid
(c) o-Dihydroxybenzene (d) m-Hydroxy benzoic acid
Q117. The vapours of an alcohol (X) are passed over heated copper to 300 0C whereby an alkene is formed as the
product. The alcohol (X) is expected to be:
(a) secondary alcohol (b) tertiary alcohol (c) primary alcohol (d) allyl alcohol
Q118. The correct order of boiling points for 10, 20 and 30 alcohol is:
(a) 10 > 2 0 > 3 0 (b) 30 > 20 > 10 (c) 20 > 10 > 30 (d) 2 0 > 3 0 > 10
Q119. Which of the following is the most suitable method for removing the traces of water from ethanol?
(a) Heating with Na metal (b) Passing dry HCl gas through it
(c) Distilling it (d) Reacting with Mg
Q120. The ionization constant of phenol is higher than that of ethanol because:
(a) phenoxide ion is a stronger base than ethoxide ion (b) phenoxide ion is stabilized through delocalization
(c) phenoxide ion is less stable than ethoxide ion (d) phenoxide ion is bulkier than ethoxide ion
Q121. Phenol is heated with phthalic anhydride in the presence of conc. H 2SO4. The product gives pink colour with
alkali. The product is:
(a) Phenolphthalein (b) Bakelite (c) Salicylic acid (d) Fluorescien
Q122. Which of the following will exhibit highest boiling point?
(a) CH3(CH2)3CH2OH (b) CH3(CH2)2CH(CH3)OH
(c) CH3CH2C(CH3)2OH (d) CH3C(CH3)2CH2OH
Q123. 1-proponal and 2-proponal can be best distinguished by:
(a) oxidation with KMnO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution
(b) oxidation with acidic dichromate followed by reaction with Fehling solution
(c) oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with Fehling solution
(d) oxidation by heating with zinc followed by reaction with Fehling solution
Q124. N-propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol can be chemically distinguished by which reagent?
(a) PCl5 (b) Reduction (c) Oxidation with potassium dichromate (d) Ozonolysis
Q125. When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH, the product formed is:
(a) benzaldehyde (b) salicylaldehyde (c) salicylic acid (d) benzoic acid
Q126. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with conc. H2SO4, the initial step is:
(a) formation of an ester (b) protonation of alcohol molecule
(c) formation of carbocation (d) elimination of water
Q127. Propan-1-ol can be prepared from propene by:
(a) H2O/H2SO4 (b) Hg(OAC)2/H2O followed by NaBH4

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 (c) B2H6 followed by H2O2 (d) CH3COOH/H2SO4
Q128. Wood spirit is known as:
(a) methanol (b) ethanol (c) acetone (d) benzene
Q129. Acetone reacts with Grignard reagent to form:
(a) 30 alcohol (b) 20 alcohol (c) ether (d) no reaction
Q130. Which of the following reacts fastest with a mixture of anhydrous ZnCl2 and conc. HCl?
(a) Trimethyl carbinol (b) Ethanol (c) Propanol (d) Methanol
Q131. Isopropyl benzene on air oxidation in the presence of dilute HCl acid gives:
(a) C6H5COOH (b) C6H5COCH3 (c) C6H5CHO (d) C6H5OH
Q132. The electrophile involved in the above reaction is:


(a) dichloromethyl cation (C HCl2 ) (b) dichlorobenzene (: CCl2)
() 
(c) Trichloremethyl anion ( C Cl3 ) (d) formyl cation (C HO)
Q133. In the following sequence of reactions

CH3CH 2OH  A 

P I Mg
B   C 
HCHO 2
 D
H O 2

ether

the compound ‘D’ is:

(a) propanol (b) butanol (c) n-butyl alcohol (d) n-propyl alcohol
Q134. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of primary alcohol into aldehyde with the same number of carbon
atoms is:
(a) acidified K2Cr2O7 (b) acidified KMnO4
(c) alkaline KMnO4 (d) pyridinium chlorochromate
Q135. What will be the bond angle 𝐶 − 𝑂 − 𝐻 in alcohol if C and O atom possess sp3 hybridization?
(a) 1090 28’ (b) 1110 42’ (c) 1090 (d) 1080 30’
Q136. Propene on hydroboration oxidation gives:
(a) CH3CH2CH2OH (b) CH3CHOHCH3 (c) CH3CHOHCH2OH (d) CH3CH2CHO
Q137. Benzene diazonium chloride on hydrolysis gives:
(a) chlorobenzene (b) phenol (c) benzyl alcohol (d) benzene
Q138. The formation of salicylic acid from phenol using NaOH and CO2 is known as:
(a) Friedel-Crafts reaction (b) Kolbe’s reaction
(c) Reimer – Tiemann reaction (d) Fittig reaction
Q139. Acid catalysed hydration of alkenes except ethane leads to the formation of:
(a) primary alcohol (b) secondary or tertiary alcohols
(c) mixture of primary and secondary alcoholos (d) mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols

Q140. Which of the following ethers is not cleaved by concentrated HI even at 525 K?

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Q141. Which of the following gives positive iodoform test upon heating with I 2 and NaOH?
(a) C6H5CH2CH2OH (b) CH3CHCH2OH

CH3

(c) PhCHOHCH3 (d) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH3

Q142. Which statement is incorrect?
(a) Phenol is a weak acid (b) Phenol is an aromatic compound
(c) Phenol liberates CO2 from NaHCO3 solution (d) Phenol is soluble in NaOH
Q143. Ethyl chloride on being heated with sodium ethoxide forms:
(a) acetaldehyde (b) acetic acid (c) diethyl ether (d) methanol

Q144. Ethanol PBr


 X Alc.KOH
  Y (i)H
3
 Z
SO 2 4
at room temperature. The product Z is:
(ii) H 2O,Heat

(a) C2H5 −O −C2H5 (b) CH3CH2O − SO3H (c) CH3CH2OH (d) CH2 − CH2
Q145. Given

The decreasing order of their acidic character is:

(a) A>B>C (b) B>A>C (c) B>C>A (d) C>B>A
Q146. From amongst the following alcohols the one that would react fastest with Lucas reagent is:
(a) 1-butanol (b) 2-butanol (c) 2-methyl propan-2-ol (d) 2-methyl propanol
Q147. An organic compound ‘A’ reacts with sodium to form ‘B’. The compound ‘A’ when heated with concentrated
H2SO4 forms diethyl ether. The compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are:
(a) C3H7OH and C3H7ONa (b) CH3OH and CH3ONa
(c) C4H9OH and C4H9ONa (d) C2H5OH and C2H5ONa
Q148. The boiling points of n –butyl alcohol (I), isobutyl alcohol (II), s-butyl alcohol (IV) decreases in the order:
(a) IV > III > II > I (b) I > II > III > IV (c) I > III > II > IV (d) IV > II > III > I
Q149. Ethanol reacts with chlorine water to give:
(a) C2H5Cl (b) CHCl3 (c) CH3CHO (d) CCl3CHO
Q150. Which of the following will not respond positively to iodoform test?
(a) C2H5OH (b) CH3CHO (c) (CH3)2CHOH (d) C6H5CH2OH
Q151. When acetaldehyde is treated with Grignard reagent, followed by hydrolysis, the product formed is:
(a) primary alcohol (b) secondary alcohol (c) carboxylic acid (d) tertiary alcohol

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