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TABLE OF CONTENTS

Numbers 2
Type 1: Odd Even properties 2
Type 2: Can/must be true 7
Type 3: Place value and face value math 10
Type 4: Operations 12
Type 5: Consecutive numbers 14
Type 6: Prime numbers 18
Type 7: Divisibility 20
Type 8: Factors and Multiples 27
Type 9: H.C.F & L.C.M 36
Type 10: Determination of Smallest or Largest Fraction 38
Type 11: Decimal 41
Type 12: Exponents 43
Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication and Division of Exponents 45
Type 13: Last digit and missing digit problems 52
Type 14: Reciprocals and Inverses 56
Type 15: Number Line properties 58
Type 16: Properties of algebraic formula 60
Type 17: Value identification 62
Review Test 1 73
Review Test 2 78
Review Test 3 82

Percentage 94
Type 1: Basic Percentage Math 95
Type 2: Percentage and Fractions 99
Type 3: Percentage Comparison 101
Type 4: Multiple ranges 103
Type 5: Successive Change 103
Type 6: Zero net change 108
Type 7: Multiple Variables 110
Type 8: Interest 112
Type 9: Miscellaneous Problems 116
Review Test 1 118
Review Test 2 122
Review Test 3 127
Profit-Loss 136
Type 1: Basic Profit Loss 137
Type 2: Sequential Profit Loss 139
Type 3: Profit after discount 141
Type 4: Different rates comparison 143
Type 5: Increase/decrease in selling price 145
Type 6: Multiple rates of discount/mark up 147
Type 7: Multiple items at different rates of profit/loss 149
Review Test 1 151
Review Test 2 154

Average 158
Type 1: Math using general formulae: 158
Type 2: Change in average due to inclusion or exclusion of an element 163
Type 3: Change in average due to replacement (i = nx + o) 166
Type 4: Average and consecutive numbers 168
Type 5: Maximum and minimum possible value of an element 171
Type 6 Mean median and mode 173
Review Test 176

Age 182
Type 1: Combined ages to be solved by forming an equation 182
Type 2: Ratio of ages given 187
Review Test 190

Inequalities 196
Type 1: Solving by changing sides and using properties 196
Type 2: Finding out possible values 200
Type 3: Addition, subtraction, multiplication and division of inequalities 203
Review Test 207

Ratio and Proportion 214


Type 1: Finding the ratio of two/more quantities or expressing in the ratio of two/more quantities 216
Type 2: Determining the Value 219
Type 3: Changes in Ratio 224
Review Test 1 227
Review Test 2 232

Mixture 242
Type 1: Mixture Formula 242
Type 2: Spider Method 244
Type 7: Special Category Spider Method in Average 250
Type 3: How much is to be added or removed to obtain a specific ratio 252
Review Test 255

Work Done Problems 260


Type 1: Basic Unitary method 260
Type 2: Or / and work done math 263
Type 3: Efficiency and Multiple of a working rate 265
Type 4: Different rates working together to finish the job 268
Type 5: People working together/alone then someone leaves/joins 271
Type 6: Pipes and tanks (Can have several sub types) 274
Review Test: 278

Speed distance 284


Type 1: Average Speed 285
Type 2: Problems with non-uniform speed 289
Type 3: Object with different speed 291
Type 4: Ratio 294
Type 5: Percent Change or Efficiency 296
Type 6: Relative Speeds 298
Type 7: Value Identification 301
Type 8: Train passing a point (same/opposite direction) 305
Type 9: Train passing an extended object (same/opposite direction) 307
Type 10: Geometric application 310
Type 11: Races and Games 312
Type12: Upstream, downstream, still water - Value Identification 314
Review Test 1 319
Review test 2 324

Set 336
Permutation and Combination 344
Probability 350
Geometry 356
Type 1: Angles 356
Type 2: Sides, angles and centers of a triangle 361
Type 3: Right Angled Triangles (Pythagorean Triplets) 368
Type 4: Area and perimeter of triangles 372
Type 5: Congruency and similarity 376
Type 6: Polygons 380
Type 7: Quadrilaterals 384
Type 8: Parallelograms 385
Type 9: Rectangles 387
Type 10: Squares 388
Type 11: Hybrids 390
Type 12: Circle 392
Solid Geometry 399

NUMBERS
Numbers
Type 1: Properties of Odd and Even numbers

Odd Numbers (বিজ োড় সংখ্যো):


An odd number is an integer (পূর্সংখ্যা)
ণ which is not a multiple of two ( ২ এর গুণর্তক নয়)। If it is divided by two, it leaves
a remainder (ভাগশেষ) or the result can be represented as a fraction. They are generally represented as
“2x + 1” or,” 2x – 1” where x is an integer.

Even Number (জ োড় সংখ্যো):


Any integer (never a fraction) that can be divided exactly by 2. The last digit of any even number is
always 0, 2, 4, 6 or 8. They are generally represented as “2x “, where x is an integer.

Addition and Subtraction:


Operation Result Example

Even + Even Even 2+4=6

Even + Odd Odd 6+3=9

Odd + Even Odd 5 + 12 = 17

Odd + Odd Even 3+5=8

(The same happens when subtraction is done instead of addition.)

Multiplication:

Operation Result Example

Even × Even Even 4 × 8 = 32

Even × Odd Even 4 × 7 = 28

Odd × Even Even 5 × 8 = 40

Odd × Odd Odd 5 × 7 = 35

Exponents:

Operation Result Example

Even ^ Even Even 2^2=4

Even ^ Odd Even 2^3=8

Odd ^ Even Odd 3^2=9

Odd ^ Odd Odd 3 ^3 = 27

● It is usually better to try out all the options and solve this math through elimination process.

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Example:
If x, y and z are consecutive positive integers and if x>y>z, which of the following must be a positive odd
integer?

a. xyz b. (x–y) (y–z) c. x–yz d. x(y + z) e. None of these

Answer: option (b)

Explanation:
Since, all the variables are consecutive positive integers, two scenarios are possible.
Scenario 1: x and z are odd numbers and y is even.
Scenario 2: x and z are even numbers and y is odd.

Let, x be an odd number. If x, y and z are 3, 2 and 1 respectively


Option (a) 3x2x1 = 6 which is not a positive odd integer, so it can be eliminated.
Option (b) (3-2) x (2-1) = 1 which is a positive odd integer
Let, x be an even number. If x, y and z are 4, 3 and 2 respectively
Option (b) (4-3) x (3-2) = 1 which is a positive odd integer
Option (c) 4 – (3x2) = -2 which is not a positive integer, so it can be eliminated
Option (d) 4 x (3+2) = 10 which is a not a positive integer, so it can be eliminated.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

Practice Math:

1. If a, b and c are consecutive non-zero integers, and if a < b < c, which of the following must be a positive integer?

a. a – c b. a + b + 1 c. a + b+ c d. ac – b + 1 e. None of these

2. If (4x2 + 7x + y) is an even integer, which of the following must be true?

a. 3x is even
b. y is odd
c. (x + y) is even
d. (x + y + 1) is even
e. None of these

3. Which of the following must be odd?

I. Even × Even x Odd II. Odd × Odd x Odd III. Even + Odd +Even

a. None
b. I only
c. II and III only
d. I and III only
e. I, II and III

e. either (b) & (a)

4. If x is an odd integer, which of the following must be an even integer?

a. 13x–2 b. 3(2–x) c. (16x+24)/8 d. (6x + 12)/3 e. None of these

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5. If ‘a’ is an even integer, for which of the following equations must ‘b’ be an odd integer?

a. ab = 8 b. a + b = 8 c. a + 2b = 7 d. 2a + b = 7 e. None of these

6. If p is an odd integer and q is an even integer and both are positive numbers, which of the following must be
even?

a. 𝑝2 + 𝑞 2 b. 𝑝𝑞 + 𝑞 2 c. 𝑝3 + 𝑞 2 d. 𝑝𝑞 + 𝑝2 e. None of these

7. If p is an even integer and q is an odd integer, which of the following statements is(are) always true?

I. p + q is odd II. pq is odd III. 2p + q is even

a. I only
b. II and III only
c. III only
d. I and III only
e. None of these

8. If x is a positive odd number, then each of the following is even except:

a. (x + 4) (x + 6)
b. 𝑥 2 + 5
c. 𝑥 2 + 6x + 9
d. 3𝑥 2 + 3
e. None of these

9. If x and y are integers and (xy + y) is odd, which of the following is true?

a. If y is odd x must be even.


b. If y is even x must be odd
c. If y is odd x must be odd
d. both a and b
e. None of these

10. If a, b and c are even integers, which of the following expressions must be an odd integer?

a. ab + bc + ca
b. a(b + c – 1)
c. a2 – b2 + c2
d. 3(ac – bc)
e. None of these

Answers
1. d 2. c 3. c 4. d
5. d 6. b 7. a 8. a 9. a
10. e

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Solutions

1. Since, a, b and c are consecutive non-zero integers, all the variables can either be negative or positive. The
answer MUST be a positive integer. We can pick any 3 positive consecutive numbers and any 3 negative
consecutive numbers and then see which option gives us the desired result for both sets of numbers.
Let, a = −10, b= −9 and c = −8,
Option (a) a−c = −10+8 = −2 so it can be eliminated as it is not a positive integer
Option (b) a+b+1 = −10−9+1= −18 so it can be eliminated as it is not a positive integer
Option (c) a+b+c = −10−9−8 = −27, so it can be eliminated as it is not a positive integer
Option (d) ac-b+1= (−10)*( −8)–( −9) +1 = 90 which is a positive integer.
Now testing with a=6, b=7 and c=8 we get,
Option (d) ac –b +1= 48−7+1=42 which is a positive integer.

Here if all three are positive, b needs to be larger than c for the expression to become a negative integer, so it is
not possible for the expression to be anything but a positive integer.

So, option (d) is the correct answer

2. We know, Even X Even = Even, Even X Odd= Even and, Odd X Odd = Odd
4x2 is always even as 4 is an even number. If (4𝑥 2 + 7x + y) is an even integer, either 7x and y both have to be
even or both have to be odd.
(a) If 3x is even, then x has to be even. But that is not something that MUST be true. Both x and CAN be odd.
(b) y is even if x is even. So, y being odd CAN be true but not MUST be true.
(d) If x and y are both even then x+y+1 is an odd number.
(c) If x and y are both odd then, x+y is even, and if x and y are both even, x+y is even.

So, Option (c) is the correct answer.

3. I. Even x Even x Odd = Even x Odd = Even


II. Odd x Odd x Odd = Odd x Odd = Odd
III. Even + Odd + Even = Even + Odd = Odd

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

4. If x is odd,
Option (a) Odd x Odd − Even = Odd
Option (b) Odd x (Even – Odd) = Odd
Option (c) (16x + 24)/8 = 2x+3
i.e. Even x Odd + Odd = Odd
Option (d) (6x + 12)/3 = 2x+4
i.e. Even x Odd + Even = Even
Therefore, option (d) is even.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.


5. Option (a) b can either be odd or even
Option (b) b must be even
Option (c) b can be a fraction
Option (d) b must be odd since 2a is even and the summation is 7 which is an odd number.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

6. In option (a), p2 is odd and q2 is even. So, their summation is odd.


In option (b), q2 is even and pq is even. So, their summation must be even.

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In option (c), p3 is odd and q2 is even. So, the summation is odd.
In option (d), pq is even and p2 is odd. So, the summation is odd

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

7. (I) is true. Since, Even + Odd = Odd.


(II) is false since Odd x Even = Even.
(III) is false since even + odd = odd.

So, only option (a) is the correct answer.

8. Option (a) is odd because (Odd + Even) x (Odd + Even) = Odd x Odd = Odd

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

9. Here, (xy + y) is odd only when x is even and y is odd.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

10. If a, b and c are even integers,


Option (a), Even x Even + Even x Even + Even x Even = Even.
Option (b), Even x (b+c-1) = Even.
Option (c), It is the summation/subtraction of three even squares so the result is even.
Option (d), Odd x Even = Even.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

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Type 2: Can/must be true

You may have noticed some of the questions in the previous type asked which ‘must be true? ‘

“Must be true” questions are made out of scenarios where the equation will act or result in the same manner in every
possible condition. Basically, the required answer has to be applicable for all possible scenarios.
অর্াৎ
ণ একটি equation এ ‘x’ এর যতগুশ া মান সম্ভব, প্রশতযকটি মাশনর জনয প্রদত্ত েতণটি সতয হশত হশব।
For example, If given, x2 = 25 and x is a positive integer; it must be true that x = 5. No other integer fulfills the conditions.

“Can be true” questions are made from scenarios where the equation might get the accurate result under only one or
more conditions, but not all. So, the equation should fulfill at least one condition.
অর্াৎ
ণ একটি equation এ ‘x’ এর যতগুশ া মান সম্ভব, তার মশযয অন্তত একটি মাশনর জনয প্রদত্ত েতণটি সতয হশ ই চ শব।
For example, when only x2 = 25 is stated, x = 5 can be true. It can also be true that x = -5.

Example:
If x and y are positive and z is negative, which of the following must be true?
I. (x – y) < (x – z)
II. x/z < y/z
III. 1/y < 1/z

a. only I b. only II c. only III d. both II and III e. None of these

Answer: option (A)

Explanation:
In case of (I), -z is always positive and -y is always negative. So, x – z is always greater than x – y. So, option (I)
is true.
In case of (II), the answer depends on x and y. If x is smaller than y than option (II) is false.
In case of (III), 1/y is positive while 1/z is negative. So, 1/y is always greater. So, option (III) is false.

Therefore, only option (I) is true.

Practice Math:

1. If x and y are both odd integers, which of the following numbers must be an even integer?

a.𝑥 2 + y – 1 b. 𝑥𝑦 + 𝑦 2 c. xy-2 d. xy + 2 e. None of these

2. If n and p are both even numbers, which of the following must be an odd number?

a. n + p + 1 b. np c. np + 2 d. n + p e. 2n + p

3. Which of the following must be an integer if p is a positive integer and (3/p + 5/p) is also an integer?

a. p/4 b. 24/p c. 12/p d. 30/p e. None of these

4. Which of the following can be an integer if p is a positive integer and (3/p + 5/p) is also an integer?

a. p/4 b. 24/p c. 12/p d. 30/p e. All of these

5. If x > 1 which of the following must be a positive number?


I. (2x – 3)
II. (5x – 6)

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III. (x2 – 1)/x3

a. None b. I only c. III only d. I and III only e. I, II and III

6. If x an odd integer, in which of the following equations must y be an odd integer?


I. xy = 5
II. x + 2y =11
III. 2x + y = 12

a. Only I b. only II c. only III d. both II and III e. None of these

7. If m is an integer, and y = (m – 2) (m + 3) – (m – 2) (m–3), then which of the following must be true?

a. y is odd only when m is odd


b. y is odd only when m is even
c. y is even only when m is even
d. y is even only when m is odd
e. None of these

Answers
1. b 2. a 3. b 4. e 5. c
6. e 7. e

Solutions

1. Here, xy + y2
= y(x + y).
Given, both x and y are odd.
So, Odd x (Odd + Odd) = Odd x Even = Even

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. n + p + 1 = Even + Even + Odd = Odd.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

3. Here, 3/p + 5/p = 8/p.


Since p is an integer and 8/p is also an integer, p has to be a factor of 8.
So, p must be divisible by any multiple of 8.
So, 24/p is an integer.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

4. Here, 3/p + 5/p = 8/p.


Since p is an integer and 8/p is also an integer, p has to be a factor of 8.
The factors of 8 are = 1, 2, 4 and 8.
Putting different possible values of p in the options,

(a) If p = 8 or 4, p/4 is an integer


(b) 24/p = 3 x (8/p); which is an integer
(c) If p = 1, 2 or 4, 12/p is an integer
(d) If p = 1 or 2, 30/p is an integer

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So, option (e) is the correct answer.

5. Here, x >1 but it does not necessarily have to be an integer.


In case of (I), if x2 is less than or equal to 1.5, we have a result which is a negative number or zero.
In case of (II), if x is less than or equal to 1.2, we have a result which is a negative number or zero.
In case of (III), the expression (x2-1)/x3 will always be greater than 0 i.e. a positive number.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

6. In case of (I), y can be a fraction. For example, if x = 25 and y = 1/5, then xy = 5. So, y doesn’t have to be an odd
number.
In case of (II), y can be an even number since 2 x Even = Even and 2 x Odd = Even.
In case of (III), y can be an even number.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

7. y = (m – 2) (m + 3) – (m – 2) (m – 3)
= (m – 2) (m + 3 – m + 3)
= (m – 2) 6.
Therefore, y is always even.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

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Type 3: Place value and face value math

In math, every digit in a number has a place value.


Place value can be defined as the value represented by a digit in a number on the basis of its position in the number.
Here’s an example showing the relationship between the place or position and the place value of the digits in 12437.
Here the digit 1 has a face value of 1, but a place value of 10000 because of its position.
Here the digit 2 has a face value of 2, but a place value of 2000 because of its position.
Here the digit 4 has a face value of 4, but a place value of 400 because of its position.
Here the digit 3 has a face value of 3, but a place value of 30 because of its position.
Here the digit 7 has both a face value & a place value of 7 and 7, because it’s a unit digit

Example:
A two-digit number has 5 in its unit digit. The sum of its digits is one fifth of the number itself. What is the
number?

a. 35 b. 45 c. 55 d. 65 e. None of these

Answer: Option (B)

Explanation:
Let the digit in the tens place be x. So the number is 10x+5.
Therefore,
x + 5 = (10x + 5)/5
Or, 5x + 25 = 10x + 5
Or, 5x = 20
Or, x=4
So, the number is 45

Therefore, option (b) is correct.

Practice Math:

1. While entering the marks of his students in a grade sheet, Mr. Mahtab reversed the digits of the score of one of
the students by mistake. As a result, the student received 36 marks more than his actual score. What was the
student’s actual score?

a. 37 b. 47 c. 65 d. 86 e. None of these

2. The difference between the place value and the face value of 6 in the numeral 856973 is

a. 973 b. 6973 c. 5994 d. 994 e. None of these

3. Find the sum of the face value and place value of 8 in 12821?

a. 88 b. 808 c. 88088 d. 8 e. None of these

4. Find the sum of face value of 6 and 9 in 914620?

a. 3 b. 15 c. 900006 d. 899994 e. None of these

5. Find the sum of place value of the 2s in 4224?

a. 4 b. 22 c. 220 d. 2002 e. None of these

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Answers
1. a 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. c

Solutions

1. Let, the correct score be 10x + y. So, incorrect score is 10y + x.


So, 10y + x – (10x + y) = 36
Or, 9y – 9x = 36
Or, y – x = 4
So, the difference between the two digits = 4
Checking with the options, we see in case of 37, 7 – 3 = 4 and 73 – 37 = 36.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

2. The place value of 6 in this number is 6 X 103 i.e. 6000 and the face value is 6. So, the difference would
be 6000 – 6 = 5994.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. The place value of 8 in 12821 is 800 and face value of is 8. So, the sum = 800 + 8 = 808.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

4. The face value of 9 and 6 are 9 and 6 respectively. The sum is 6+9 =15.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. The place value of 2 in 4224 are 200 and 20 respectively. So, the sum is 220.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

Type 4: Operations

These involve basic operations like addition, subtraction, division and multiplication. They also involve special operators
whose functions are to be identified and applied.

Example:
If # is an operator such that (4 # 2= 14) and (2 # 3 = 6), what will be the value of (7 # 2)?

a. 31 b. 37 c. 43 d. 47 e. None of these

Answer: Option (D)

Explanation:
Here, we have to look at the given uses of the operator # in the question and try to figure out its function.

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Given, 4#2 = 14. This can mean 4#2 = 42 – 2.
Again, 2#3 = 6. This can mean 2#3 = 23 −2.
So, we can conclude if the number in front of # is ‘x’ and the number after # is ‘y’, then
x # y = xy – 2.
So, 7 # 2 = 72 – 2 = 47

Practice Math:

1. If @ is an operator such that (5@8) = 24 and (4@12) = 4, what is the value (3@7)?

a.1 b. 5 c. 7 d. 17 e. None of these

2. If # is an operator such that (3#4) = 61 and (2#4) = 14, what is the value of (3#5)?

a. 66 b. 122 c. 158 d. 25 e. None of these

3. (X#Y) = XY+1, find the value of ((3#2)#2)

a. 96 b. 54 c. 101 d. 104 e. None of these

Answers
1. a 2. b 3. c

Solutions

1. Here, x @ y = 2x – y.
So, 3 @ 7 = 23 – 7 = 1

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

2. Here, x#y = yx – x
So, 53 – 3 = 122

So, option (b) is the correct answer


3. (3#2) = 32+1 = 10
(10#2) = 102+1 = 101

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So. Option (c) is the correct answer

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Type 5: Consecutive numbers

Consecutive numbers have a common difference of 1.


However, keep in mind that consecutive even or consecutive odd numbers have a common difference of 2.
Example:
The product of three consecutive even number is divisible by

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. None of these

Answer: Option (d)

Explanation:
The consecutive numbers are 2n, 2n +2 and 2n+4.
Product = 2n (2n + 2) (2n + 4)
= 2 x 2 x 2 x n (n + 1) (n + 2)
= 8n (n + 1) (n + 2)
So, the number is divisible by 8

Finding out the sum of the series


An arithmetic progression (সমোন্তর প্রগবি) or arithmetic sequence is a sequence of numbers such that the difference
between the consecutive terms is constant. For example, the sequence 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15 is an arithmetic progression
with common difference of 2.
If the first term in an arithmetic progression is ‘a’ and the common difference between all the numbers in the sequence
is ‘d’,
The general form of that Arithmetic Progression is a, a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d and so on.
Here, the 2nd term is (a+d)
The 3rd term is (a +2d)
The 4th term is (a +3d)
Thus, nth term of an AP series is Tn = {a + (n – 1) d}

Sum of first n terms of an AP, S = (n/2) * {2a + (n – 1) d}

Example:
What is the sum of first 30 odd numbers?

a. 900 b. 125 c. 149 d. 1050 e. 1118

Answer: Option (A)

Explanation:
The first 30 odd numbers follow an arithmetic progression where the first term a = 1 and the common difference
d = 2 and number of terms n= 30. So, the sum of the arithmetic progression is

S = (n/2) * {2a + (n – 1) d}
= (30/2) * {2*1 + (30 – 1) * 2}
= 900
So, the correct answer is option (A).
Practice Math:

1. The sum of six consecutive odd number exceeds twice the largest by 46. Find the sum of the six numbers.

a. 50 b. 64 c. 72 d. 84 e. None of these

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2. If the 1st number in a series of consecutive odd numbers is 12 less than the last number in the series, how
many numbers are there in the series?

a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 e. 9

3. Five consecutive integers are given. If the sum of the first three integers is 27, what is the sum of the last three?

a. 30 b. 31 c. 32 d. 33 e. None of these

4. The sum of 5 consecutive odd numbers is 5 more than 6 times the smallest number. Find the sum of the
numbers

a. 75 b. 95 c. 85 d. 65 e. None of these

5. (51+ 52 + 53 + ……… + 100) is equal to:

a. 2525 b. 2975 c. 3225 d. 3775 e. None of these

6. The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is always divisible by:


I. 2 II. 3 III. 5 IV. 6

a. Only I
b. Only II
c. Only I and II
d. Only II and IV
e. I, II and III

7. The difference of the squares of two consecutive even integers is divisible by which of the following integers?

a.3 b.4 c.6 d.7 e. None of these

8. The difference of the squares of two consecutive odd integers is divisible by which of the following integers?

a.3 b.6 c.7 d.8 e. None of these

9. The sum of the three consecutive numbers is always divisible by

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 7
10. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is always divisible by

a.2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6 e. 7

Answers
1. d 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. d

6. b 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. d

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Solution

1. Let, the smallest number be x.


A/Q, x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6) + (x + 8) + (x + 10) = 2(x + 10) + 46
Or, 6x + 30 = 2x + 20 + 46
Or, 4x = 36
Or, x=9
Therefore, the required sum = 84.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. Let, the first number in the series = 1


Then, the last number in the series = (1 + 12) = 13
So, the series is (1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, and 13)
So, there are 7 numbers in the series.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. In case of a series of consecutive integers having odd number of terms, the average is the middle term.
Here, the sum of first 3 integers is 27. So, their average = middle term = (27/3) = 9
So, the first 3 terms are 8, 9 and 10
And, the last 3 terms are 10, 11 and 12
So, their sum = (10 + 11 + 12) = 33

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

4. Let, the smallest number be x


So, the numbers in the series are x, (x + 2), (x + 4), (x + 6) and (x + 8)
A/Q,
x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6) + (x + 8) = 6x + 5
or, 5x + 20 = 6x + 5
or, x = 15
So, the required sum = (5 X 15) + 20 = 95

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. We know, Sum of first n terms of an AP: S =(n/2)*[2a + (n – 1)d]


Here, n = number of terms = 50
a = first term of the series = 51
d = Common difference = 1
So, S = (50/2) * [(51 X 2) + (50 – 1) X 1]
Or, S = 25 X (102 + 49)
So, S = 3775

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

6. Let the three consecutive odd numbers be (2x + 1), (2x + 3) and (2x + 5).
Their sum = (6x + 9) = 3(2x + 3),
(6x + 9) is always divisible by 3.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

7. Let the two consecutive even integers be 2n and (2n + 2).


Then, (2n + 2)2 – (2n)2

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= (2n + 2 + 2n) (2n + 2 – 2n)
= (4n + 2) X 2
= 4(2n + 1), which is divisible by 4.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

8. Let the two consecutive odd integers be (2n + 1) and (2n + 3).
Then, (2n + 3)2 – (2n + 1)2
= (2n + 3 + 2n + 1) (2n + 3 – 2n – 1)
= (4n + 4) * 2
= 8(n + 1), which is divisible by 8.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

9. Let, three consecutive numbers be n, n+1 and n+2


The sum = n + n+1 + n+2 = 3n + 3 = 3 (n+1)
So, the sum is divisible by 3

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

10. Let, the three numbers are 2n, 2n + 2 and 2n + 4.


The sum = 2n + 2n + 2 + 2n + 4 = 6n + 6 = 6(n + 1)
So, the sum is divisible by 6.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

Type 6: Prime numbers

A prime number (মমৌণ ক সংখ্যা) is a natural number greater than 1 that cannot be formed by multiplying two smaller
natural numbers.
To determine if a number is a prime, follow these steps:
Determine the rough approx. square root of that number.
Divide the number by all the primes less than the approx. square root.
If the number is not divisible by any of the primes, it is a prime.

Easy way to remember the number of primes from 1 to 100 is 4, 4, 2, 2, 3, 2, 2, 3, 2, 1. This signifies number of primes
in each tenth i.e. there are 4 prime numbers in the first 10 numbers (1-10) and 4 prime numbers from (11-20), 2 prime
numbers from (21-30) and so on.

Example:
How many prime numbers between 11 and 20?

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 e. None of these

Answer: Option (b)

Explanation: The numbers are 11, 13, 17 and 19

Practice Math:

1. What is the next prime number after 37?

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a. 38 b. 39 c. 41 d. 43 e. 47

2. How many prime numbers are there between 10 and 20?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6

3. How many integers between 100 and 110 are prime numbers?

a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. 4

4. How many prime numbers are there between 65 and 100?

a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9 e. None of these

5. What is the closest prime number to 35?

a. 31 b. 33 c. 37 d. 39 e. 41

Answers
1. c 2. c 3. e 4. b 5. c

Solutions

1. The next prime number is 41.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

2. The numbers are 11,13,17 and 19

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. The numbers are 101,103,107 and 109.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

4. The numbers are 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89 and 97.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. The closest is 37.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Type 7: Divisibility

Divisibility (ণবভাজযতা) is the property of an integer number to be divided by another, resulting an integer number.

Divisibility criteria:
● A number is divisible by 2 when it is even or ends in 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8.
● A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is a multiple of 3.
● A number is divisible by 4 when its last two digits are zeros or they are a multiple of 4.
● A number is divisible by 5 when it ends in 0 or 5.
● A number is divisible by 6 when it is divisible by 2 and by 3 simultaneously.
● A number is divisible by 7 when separating the first digit on the right, multiplying by 2, subtracting this product
from what is left and so on, gives zero or a multiple of 7.
● A number is divisible by 8 when its last three digits are zeros or they are a multiple of 8.
● A number is divisible by 9 when the sum of its digits is a multiple of 9.
● A number is divisible by 10 when it ends in 0.
● A number is divisible by 11 when the difference between the sum of the absolute values of odd numbers place
and the sum of the absolute values of torque figures place from right to left, is zero or a multiple of 11.
● A number is divisible by 13 when separating the first digit on the right, multiplied by 9 subtracting this product
from what is left and so on, gives zero or a multiple of 13.
● A number is divisible by 17 when separating the first digit on the right, multiplied by 5, subtracting this product
from what is left and so on, gives zero or a multiple of 17.
● A number is divisible by 19 when separating the first digit on the right, multiplied by 17, subtracting this product
from what is left and so on, gives zero or multiple of 19.
● A number is divisible by 25 when its last two digits are zeros or they are a multiple of 25.
● A number is divisible by 125 when its last three digits are zeros or are a multiple of 125.

● Remember, Dividend = (Divisor x Quotient) + Remainder


অর্াৎ,
ণ ভাজয = (ভাজক x ভাগফ ) + ভাগশেষ

Example:
If n is an integer divisible by 15 but not by 9, then which of the following CANNOT be an integer?

a. n/3 b. n/5 c. n/45 d. n/7 e. None of these

Answer: Option (C)

Explanation:
45 is 5 x 9. But the number is not divisible by 9. So, n/45 is not an integer.

Practice Math:

1. If (a + a) = (b + b+ b) and (a + b) = 5, then what is the value of (𝑎2 – 𝑦 2 )?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. None of these

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2. When a is divided by 19, the answer is b with a remainder of 7. When a is divided by 11, the answer is c with a
remainder of 7. If a, b and c are all integers, what is the remainder of bc/19?

a. 2 b. 7 c. 0 d. 9 e. None of these

3. (xn – an) is completely divisible by (x – a), when

a. n is any natural number


b. n is an even natural number
c. n is and odd natural number
d. n is prime
e. n is a negative integer

4. N is a whole number which when divided by 4 gives 3 as remainder. What will be the remainder when 2n is
divided by 4?

a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 0 e. None of these

5. How many of the following numbers are divisible by 3 but not by 9?

2133, 2343, 3474, 4131

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. None of these

6. The largest natural number which exactly divides the product of any four consecutive natural numbers is:

a. 6 b. 12 c. 24 d. 120 e. Cannot be determined

7. On dividing a number by 999, the quotient is 366 and the remainder is 103. The number is:

a. 364724 b. 365387 c. 365737 d. 366757 e. None of these

8. When a number is divided by 31, the remainder is 29. When the same number is divided by 16, what will be the
remainder?

a. 11 b. 13 c. 15 d. 17 e. Cannot be determined

9. A number when divided by 6 leaves a remainder 3. When the square of the same number is divided by 6, the
remainder is:

a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. None of these

10. If x is an integer and x > 1, then x2(x2 – 1) is always divisible by:

a. factors of 12
b. 24
c. 12 – x
d. multiples of 12
e. None of these

11. A number when divided successively in order by 4, 5 and 6. The remainders were respectively 2, 3 and 4. The
number can be:

a. 214 b. 476 c. 954 d. 1908 e. None of these

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12. A number when divided by 3 leaves a remainder 1. When the quotient is divided by 2, it leaves a remainder 1.
What will be the remainder when the number is divided by 6?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. None of these

13. What least number must be added to 1056, so that the sum is completely divisible by 23?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 18 d. 21 e. None of these

14. The largest 4-digit number exactly divisible by 88 is:

a. 9944 b. 9768 c. 9988 d. 8888 e. None of these

15. The difference of two numbers is 1365. On dividing the larger number by the smaller, we get 6 as quotient and
the 15 as remainder. What is the smaller number?

a. 240 b. 270 c. 295 d. 360 e. None of these

16. If the number 481M673 is completely divisible by 9, then the smallest whole number in place of M will be:

a. 2 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 e. None of these

17. On dividing a number by 56, we get 29 as remainder. On dividing the same number by 8, what will be the
remainder?

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 e. None of these

18. It is given that (232 + 1) is completely divisible by a whole number. Which of the following numbers is completely
divisible by that whole number?

a. (216 + 1) b. (216 – 1) c. (7 x 223) d. (296 + 1) e. None of these

Answers
1. d 2. c 3. a 4. b
5. a 6. c 7. c 8. e 9. d
10. a 11. a 12. c 13. a 14. a
15. b 16. d 17. b 18. d

Solutions
1. 2a = 3b and a + b = 5
Or, a + 2a/3 = 5
Or, 5a/3 = 5
Or, a/3 = 1
Or, a=3
So, b=2
Therefore, a2 – b2 = 32 – 22 = 9 – 4 = 5

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So, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. Here,
a = 19b + 7
and a = 11c + 7
Therefore, 19b + 7 = 11c + 7
Or, 19b = 11c
Now, since 19 and 11 are both prime numbers, b must be a multiple of c and c must be the same multiple of
19.
Otherwise the LHS won’t be equal to RHS.
Since c is a multiple of 19, when ‘bc’ is divided by 19, the remainder will be 0.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. We know,
an – bn = (a – b) (an–1 + an–2 b + an–3 b2 + …. + abn–2 + bn–1)
So, for every natural number n, (xn – an) is completely divisible by (x – a).

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

4. Let n = 4q + 3. (Where q is the quotient when n is divided by 4)


Then 2n = 8q + 6
= 8q + 4 + 2
= 4(2q + 1) + 2.
Thus, when 2n is divided by 4, the remainder is 2.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. Taking the sum of the digits, we have:


S1 = 9, S2 =12, S3 = 18, S4 = 9
Clearly S2 is divisible by 3 but not by 9.
So, only 2343 is divisible by 3 but not by 9.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

6. The smallest number which is the product of 4 consecutive natural numbers is 1 x 2 x 3 x 4 = 24


So, the product any 4 consecutive natural numbers will be a multiple of 24. Now, different sets of numbers may
be divisible by different multiples of 24. The question asks about ‘any’ four consecutive natural numbers. So,
we will have to consider sets of numbers from having the lowest possible value to the highest possible values.
The smallest possible value is 24.
So, 24 is the largest number to divide the product of any 4 consecutive natural numbers.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

7. As we know,
Dividend= (divisor X quotient) + remainder
Here divisor = 999
Quotient = 366
Remainder =103
So, the number is = (999 X 366) + 103
= {(1000 – 1) X 366} + 103
= 366000 – 366 + 103
= 365737

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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8. Let, the number = 31Q + 29
Here Q is the quotient when the number is divided by 31
The number can also be = 16q + r where
q`=quotient when the number is divided by 16
r= remainder when divided by 16
Now 31Q + 29 = 16q + r
From the equation we can see that the number can vary depending on Q, q and r
The data in the question is inadequate.
So, the answer cannot be determined.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

9. Let, the number = x


The quotient when divided by 6 = q
x= 6q + 3
x2 = (6q + 3)2
= 36q2 + 36q + 9
= 6(6q2 + 36q + 1) + 3
So, dividing x2 by 6 will leave a remainder of 3

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

10. If x is an integer and x > 1


Then the smallest possible integer x can be is 2
Then the smallest possible value of x2(x2 – 1) is
= 22(22 – 1)
=4 X 3
= 12
12 is divisible by 12, 4, 3, 2
That means the x2(x2 – 1) will always be divisible by 12, 4, 3, 2

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

11. Let the number be x. Here, x is first divided by 4 and its quotient is divided by 5 and again that quotient is divided
by 6.
According to the question, x = 4a + 2. (Assuming a is the quotient of x/4)
Again, a = 5b + 3. (Assuming b is the quotient of a/5)
And, b = 6c+4 (Assuming c is the quotient of b/6)
By solving this, we get
x = 4[5(6c + 4) + 3] + 2 (since a = 5b + 3 and b = 6c + 4)
x = 120c + 94
Now, c is any natural number.
Now checking with the available options, we get a match when we put c = 1, x becomes 214.
[Note: Other acceptable values of x can also be found assuming other values of c.
For example: when c = 2, x = 120 X 2 + 94 = 334]

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

12. Let, q be the quotient when the number is divided by 3


So, the number= 3q+ 1 [when divided by 3, leaves a remainder 1]
Again, let p be the quotient when q is divided by 2.
So, q = 2p + 1 [q, when divided by 2, leaves a remainder 1]
So, the number = 3q + 1
= 3(2p + 1) + 1
= 6p + 4

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So, if divided by 6, the remainder will be 4

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

13. 1056/ 23 = (45 X 23) + 21


So, the remainder is 21
The next divisible number by 23 is 46 X 23
= (45 X 23) + 23
= (45 X 23) + 21 + 2
= (1056/23) + 2
So, the least number to be added to 1056 is, 2.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

14. The largest 4-digit number is 9999


It is not divisible by 88
So, we can get the largest 4-digit number that is divisible by 88 by subtracting the remainder that we get by
dividing 9999 by 88
9999/88= 113 X 88 + 55
i.e. When we divide 9999 by 88, the remainder is 55.
So, the largest 4-digit number, divisible by 88 = 9999 – 55 = 9944

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

15. Let, the smaller number = x


So, the larger number= x + 1365
Dividing (x + 1365) by x gives 6 as quotient and 15 as remainder.
So, (x + 1365) = 6x + 15
5x = 1350
x = 270
So, the smaller number is 270.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

16. If a number is to be divisible by 9


The sum total of the digits has to be divisible by 9.
The number refers to as 481M673 where * is a digit in the number
The sum total of the digits = 4 + 8 + 1 + M + 6 + 7 + 3 = 29 + M
The smallest digit as M that makes the number divisible by 9 will be the number that makes the sum of the
digits equal to the smallest multiple of 9 that is greater than 29.
The smallest multiple of 9 which is greater than 29 is 36.
So, M = 36 – 29 = 7

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

17. let, the number = 56Q + 29 [ divided by 56, quotient = Q, remainder = 29]
Dividing by 8 we get,
(56Q + 29)/8
= {(56Q + 24) + 5} / 8
Now, (56Q + 24) is divisible by 8. So, 5 will be the remainder.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

18. Let 232 = x


232 + 1= x + 1
x3 + 1= (232)3 + 1= 296 +1

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(x + 1)(x2 – x + 1)= 296 + 1
(232 + 1)(x2 – x + 1)= 296 + 1
So, 296 + 1 is divisible by 232 + 1.
Any whole number that can divide 232 + 1, can divide 296 + 1.
So, 296 + 1 will be divisible by that whole number.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

Type 8: Fractions

Example:
What fraction of 4/7 must be added to itself to make the sum 11/14?

a. 3/7 b. 3/14 c. 3/21 d. 4/9 e. 3/8

Answer: Option (E)

Explanation:
Let x be added to 4/7 to make the sum 11/14
Now, 4/7 + x= 11/14
Or, (4 + 7x) / 7= 11/14
Or, 4+7x= 11/2
Or, 8+14x=11
Or, 14x=3
So, x= 3/14
So, the required fraction is {(3/14) / (4/7)} = 3/8

So, 3/8 of 4/7 should be added to itself to make the sum 11/14.
Practice Math:

1. If the value of X and Y in the fraction XZ/Y are both doubled, how does the value of the fraction change?

a. Increases by half
b. Decreases by half
c. Triples
d. Doubles
e. Remains the same

2. Which of the fractions is the largest?

a. 12/15 b. 11/14 c. 5/6 d. 17/21 e. 29/35

1 1
3. If 1/y = 3 then ?
2 𝑦+2

a. 7/16 b. 2/7 c.7/9 d. 7/8 e. 16/7

4. a = 4 and b = 1/8 what is b in terms of a?

a. 32a b. 2a/32 c. 3a/96 d. a/8 e. None of these

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13. Mr. X divided his money among his 3 sons. The middle son got 3 times more than the youngest. And the oldest
son got 5 times more than the middle son. What fraction of the entire money did the middle son receive?
a. 1/8 b. 5/12 c. 3/14 d. 3/21 e. None of these

14. What must be added to x/y to make 3y/x?

a. 3x2/y b. (xy – y2) /x c. (3𝑦 2 – 𝑥 2 )/xy d. x/y e. None of these

15. If (x + y + z)/5 = (x + y)/4, then what is the value of z?

a. (x + y)/4 b. (x + y)/5 c. (x + y)/10 d. (x + y)/20 e. None of these

16. If a/x + b =1, what is the value of x?

a. (1 – a) b. (b–1) c. (1 – a)/b d. a/(1 – b) e. None of these

17. If 1/y = 5.5 then 1/(y+2)?

a. 11/24 b. 15/2 c. 11/9 d. 9/11 e. 24/11

18. If 1/a + 10/b = 1.5 and a = 2b, what is the value of b?

a. 3 b. 4 c. 6.66 d. 7 e. None of these

19. A piece of wood is divided into three pieces so that the first piece is four times as big as the second and the
second piece is five times as big as the third. What fraction of the initial piece of wood is the smallest piece?

a. 1/20 b. 1/21 c. 1/26 b. 1/10 e. None of these

20. 3/100 + 7/10000 + 3/50000 =?

a. 0.0376 b. 0.03076 c. 0.00376 d. 0.030076 e. None of these

21. Siddiqi drank 1/4 of a bottle full of coke and passed it on to Aswad. Aswad drank 2/3 of what remained and the
rest was equally consumed by Sakib and Shahjada. If Shahjada consumed 150 ml of coke, what was the
capacity of the bottle in liters?

a. 3 b. 1.8 c. 2.4 d. 1.2 e. 1.5

22. If x = 2/3, then (9𝑥 2 )/4 + 1/8 + 5/(9𝑥 2 ) = ?

5 3
a. 2.5 b. c. 2 d. 3 e. 1.5
8 8

23. If x = 2 and y = 1/5 then the value of x in terms of y is

a. 1/10y b. 1/2y c. 5/2y d. 2/5y e. 10y

24. (1/3)3 + (2/3)3 + 3(1/3) (2/3) (1/3 + 2/3) =?

a. 5 b. 8/27 c. 19/27 d. 1 e. None of these

25. If the value of a certain fraction is equal to 0.6 and the denominator of the fraction is 45, then the numerator of
the fraction is

a. 18 b. 27 c. 9 d. 6 e. None of these

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26. Kel had a 350 ml bottle of orange soda which was 4/5th full. What quantity should he consume to make the
bottle 5/7th empty?

a. 120 ml b. 280 ml c. 180 ml d. 220 ml e. 160 ml

27. Raisa, Oishi, and Ramisa paid a total of 820 taka for their dinner at a restaurant. If Raisa paid 1/2 of the total
amount, Oishi paid 328 taka, and Ramisa paid the rest, what fraction of the total amount did Ramisa pay?

a. 1/10 b. 53/140 c. 14/53 d. 1/2 e. 3/14

28. Of the animals in Rangpur Zoo, 1/7 are Zebras, 1/9 are Giraffes, 1/3 are Tigers, and the rest is comprised of 26
Deer. How many Zebras are there in the Zoo?

a. 26 b. 37 c. 7 d. 9 e. 70

29. If a/x + x/a = x/b + b/x, then x =?

a. ±√(𝑎𝑏) b. ±√(𝑎/𝑏) c. ±√(𝑏/𝑎) d. ±√(1/𝑎𝑏) e. None of these

30. One-third of a number is equal to two-fifth of another number. If 60 is added to the larger number, it becomes
two times the second number. What is the smaller number?

a. 75 b. 60 c. 100 d. 75 e. None of these

31. If 5/x =6 and y/3 = 2 then (2+y)/(x+1) =?

a. 3 b. 36/5 c. 44/3 d. 9/4 e. None of these

32. If one number exceeds another number by 17 and the larger number is 3/2 times the smaller number, then the
smaller number is-

a. 17 b. 34 c. 51 d. 39 e. 65

33. Two sacks with equal capacity, are each 3/5 full of rice. If 4 kilos of rice from the first sack is transferred to the
second sack, the second sack will contain twice the amount of rice now contained in the first sack. What is the
capacity of each sack?

a. 12 b. 15 c. 20 d. 24 e. None of these

Answers
1. a 2. c 3. a 4. e 5. e
6. c 7. a 8. d 9. a 10. d

11. c 12. b 13. d 14. c 15. e


16. d 17. b 18. e 19. a 20. d
21. a 22. d 23. c 24. b 25. c

Solutions

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1. If X and Y are both doubled XZ/Y becomes 2XZ/2Y = XZ/Y.
Therefore, the answer remains the same.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

2. A. 12/15 = .8 B. 11/14 = .78 C. 5/6 = .833 D. 17/21 = .809 E. 29/35 = 0.828

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

1
3. 1/y = 3 = 7/2. Therefore, y = 2/7
2
2 16
Now, 1/(y+2) = 1/ ( +2) = 1/ = 7/16
7 7

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

4. a = 4 and b = 1/8
Now, a = 4 X 8/8
or, a = 32/8
or, a = 32b
or, b = a/32
or, b = 3a/(3 X 32)
or, b = 3a/96

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

5. Let, the youngest son gets x


So, the middle son gets 3x
And, the oldest son gets 15x
So, the fraction of money that the middle son gets = 3x/(x + 3x + 15x) = 3x/19x = 3/19

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

6. 3y/x – x/y = (3y2 – x2 )/xy

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

7. (x + y + z)/5 = (x + y) /4
Or, 4(x + y + z) = 5 (x + y)
Or, 4x + 4y + 4z = 5x + 5y
Or, x + y = 4z
Or, z = (x + y)/4

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

8. a/x + b = 1
Or, a/x = 1 – b
Or, 1/x= (1 – b)/a
Or, x = a/(1 – b)

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

9. 1/y = 5.5 = 11/2


So, y = 2/11.
Now, 1/(y + 2)= 1/ (2/11 + 2)=1/ (24/11) = 11/24

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So, option (a) is the correct answer.

10. 1/a + 10/b = 1.5


Or, 1/2b + 10/b = 1.5
Or, (1 + 20)/2b = 1.5
Or, b = 21/3 = 7

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

11. Let the size of the smallest piece be x.


So, size of middle piece is 5*x= 5x
So, size of largest piece is 4 *5x= 20x
Total size = x + 5x + 20x = 26x
So, smallest piece/ entire wood = x/26x = 1/26

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

12. 3/100 = .03


7/10000 = .0007
3/50000 = (3/5)/10000 = .6/10000 =.00006
So, 3/100 + 7/10000 + 3/50000 = .03076

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

13. Sakib and Shahjada consumed 1/3 of what remained after Siddiqi drank his share.
Here, Shahjada consumed 150 ml of coke
So, Sakib consumed 150 ml of coke as well.
A/Q, (150 + 150) = 300 ml is 1/3 of what remained after Siddiqi drank his share.
So, (300*3) = 900 ml is what remained after Siddiqi drank his share
Again, A/Q, Siddiqi drank 1/4 of a bottle full of coke
So, 900 ml is 3/4 of the total capacity of the bottle.
So, capacity of bottle = (4/3)*900
= 1200 ml

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

14.
Here, 9x2
= 9* (2/3)2
= 9*4/9
= 4

So, (9𝑥 2 )/4 + 1/8 + 5/ (9𝑥 2 )


= 4/4 + 1/8 + 5/4
= (8+1+10)/8
= 19/8
3
= 2
8

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

15. Here, x/y = 2/(1/5)


Or, x/y = 10
Or, x= 10y

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

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16. We know,
a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b) = (a + b)3
Here, a= 1/3, b=2/3
So, (a + b)3 = (1/3 + 2/3)3 = 13 = 1

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

17. Numerator/Denominator = fraction


Let, numerator be x.
x/45= .6
So, x= 27

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

18. Here, the bottle contained (4/5)*350 = 280 ml


When it becomes 5/7th empty, it basically becomes 3/7th full.
Now, (3/7)*280 = 120 ml
So, Kel has to consume (280 – 120) = 160 ml

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

19. Raisa paid= 820*1/2= 410 Tk


So, Ramisa paid = 820 – 410 – 328 = 82 Tk
So the fraction that of total amount that Ramisa paid = 82/820 = 1/10

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

20. Let total number of animals be x


(x/7) + (x/9) + (x/3) + 26 = x
Or, x – x/7 – x/9 – x/3 = 26
Or, 26x/63 = 26
Or, x = 63
So, number of zebras = x/7 = 63/7 = 9

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

21. a/x + x/a = x/b + b/x


Or, a/x – b/x = x/b – x/a
Or, (a –b)/x = x (1/b – 1/a)
Or, (a – b)/x = x {(a – b)/ab}
Or, 1/x = x/ab
Or, x2= ab
Or, x = ±√(𝑎𝑏)

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

22. Let the numbers be x & y. x is the greater number.


So, x/3 = 2y/5
Or, x = 6y/5_____(1)
Again, x + 60 = 2y_______(2)
Putting value of x from (1) into (2)
6y/5 + 60 = 2y
Or, 2y – 6y/5 = 60

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Or, 4y/5 = 60
Or, y=75

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

23. 5/x = 6, so x = 5/6


y/3 = 2, so y = 6
Now, (2 + y)(x + 1) = (2 + 6)(5/6 + 1)= 8*11/6 = 44/3

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

24. Let the numbers be x & y. x is the greater number.


Now, x – y = 17 ______ (1)
And, x = 3y/2 _______ (2)
Putting value of x from (1) into (2)
3y/2 – y = 17
Or, y/2 = 17
Or, y =34

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

25. Let total capacity of each sack be x kg


Initially, total amount of rice in each sack= 3x/5 kg
4 kilos were removed from first sack to the second one that made the ratio 1:2.
So, (3x/5) – 4 : (3x/5) + 4 = 1: 2
Or, (3x – 20)/(3x + 20) = 1/2
Or, 6x – 40 = 3x + 20
Or, 3x = 60
Or, x = 20

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Type 9: Factors and Multiples

Factors (গুর্নীয়ক) of any number are numbers that we can multiply with an integer to get that initial number
Again multiple (গুণর্তক) of a number is what we get after multiplying that number by an integer (not a fraction).
Let, ‘a’ and ‘b’ are 2 integers and a = 5b
So, ‘b’ is a factor of ‘a’
Again, ‘a’ is a multiple of ‘b’
Any number itself is its largest factor and smallest multiple.

Lowest Common Multiple (লসোগু) :


The least or smallest common multiple of any two or more given natural numbers are termed as LCM. For example,
LCM of 10, 15, and 20 is 60.

Highest Common Factor (গসোগু):


The largest or greatest factor common to any two or more given natural numbers is termed as HCF of given numbers.
Also known as GCD (Greatest Common Divisor). For example, HCF of 4, 6 and 8 is 2.

Properties of HCF and LCM:

Property 1: The product of LCM and HCF of any two given natural numbers is equivalent to the product of the given
numbers.
LCM of two numbers × HCF of the two numbers = Product of the two numbers.
Suppose A and B are two numbers, then.
LCM (A & B) × HCF (A & B) = A × B

Property 2: H.C.F. and L.C.M. of Fractions


LCM of fractions = LCM of numerators/ HCF of denominators
HCF of fractions = HCF of numerators/ LCM of denominators

Example:
What is the smallest number of apples that can distributed equally among 6, 9, 15, 18 students having a surplus
of 3 apples each time?

a. 422 b. 362 c. 183 d. 62 e. None of these

Answer: Option (e)

Explanation:
The LCM of 6, 9, 15 and 18 is 90
So, the smallest number of apples that can be equally distributed among 6, 9, 15, 18 students with 0 surplus is
90.
So, the smallest number of apples that can distributed equally among 6, 9, 15, 18 students having a surplus of
3 apples each time is (90+3) = 93 apples.
So, the answer is option (e) none of these

Example:
3 and 7 factors of F. From this information, we can conclude that

a. 8 is a factor of F
b. F is a multiple of 21
c. F=3 × 7
d. 21 is a multiple of 21

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e. 3 and 7 are the only factors of F

Answer: Option (B)

Explanation:
The L.C.M. of 3 and 7 is 21. Therefore, F must be a multiple of 21.

Practice Math:
1. If n is an integer divisible by 15 but not by 9, then which of the following CANNOT be an integer?

a. n/3 b. n/5 c. n/6 d. n/30 e. n/45

2. 60 bento boxes are to be divided into x bags so that each bag contains equal number of boxes. What can’t be
the value of x?

a. 4 b. 20 c. 15 d. 6 e. 7

3. The greatest common factor of two positive integers is X. The least common multiple of the two integers is Y.
If one of the integers is Z, what is the other number?

𝑋𝑌 𝑌𝑍
a. b. c. z + y d. x + z e. None of these
𝑍 𝑋

4. If y is an integer divisible by 5 but not by 3 then which of the following will never be an integer?

𝑦 𝑦 𝑦 𝑦
a. b. c. d. e. None of these
5 3 15 2

5. If x and y are two distinct positive integers divisible by 6, then which of the following is necessarily divisible by
9?
.
a. x + y b. x – y c. x2 + y2 d. 2x + y e. None of these

6. Find the value of Z if (x+1) is a factor of x3 + Zx + 3x2 – 2.

a. 6 b. 5 c. 4.5 d. 4 e. None of these

7. A number when divided by a divisor leaves a remainder of 24. When twice the original number is divided by the
same divisor the remainder is 7. What is the value of the divisor?

a. 13 b. 59 c. 33 d. 41 e. 47

8. When Adree divided X Taka among Y people, he found each person should get 25.375 Taka. But he could only
pay an integer amount of money per person. So, he found he had 3 Taka left after division. What is the value of
x + y?

a. 210 b. 211 c. 212 d. 213 e. None of these

9. Find the smallest number which when divided by 12 and 18 will have a remainder of 6 and 12 respectively?

a. 16 b. 22 c. 30 d. 44 e. None of these

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10. If x/2, x/3 and x/13 represent integers, then x can be

a. 42 b. 56 c. 70 d. 68 e. 156

11. What is the minimum number of chocolates that must be added to the existing stock of 770 chocolates so that
the total stock can equally be divided among 8, 12 or 16 persons?

a. 32 b. 46 c. 58 d. 80 e. None of these

12. A basket contained 15 mangoes, 33 grapes and 19 apples. If x apples are removed, the fruits can be equally
divided into 3 portions without any surplus fruits. What must be the value of x?

a. 1 b. 4 c. 5 d. 9 e. Cannot be determined

13. Sozen’s comet can be seen once every 36 years. Halley ’s Comet can be seen once every 40 years. If both the
comets were seen in 2019, when can we see both the comets in the same year again?

a. 2059 b. 2280 c. 2379 d. 2487 e. None of these

Answers
1. e 2. e 3. a 4. c 5. c
6. e 7. d 8. b 9. c 10. e
11. b 12. e 13. c

Solution
1. Since n is not divisible by 9, n can’t be divisible by any multiple of 9 either.
Since, 45 = 9 x 5 i.e. 45 is a multiple of 9, n can’t be divisible by 45.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

2. 60/7 is not an integer. So, x can’t equal 7.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

3. For any pair of numbers a and b,


HCF of a,b x LCM of a,b = a x b
Let, the other number = n
So, X*Y=Z*n
Or, n = XY/Z

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

4. Since 15 is a multiple of 3, i.e. 15 = 5 x 3,


y/15 will never be an integer.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

5. x and y are divisible by 6


Let, x = 6a; where a in any natural number
And, y = 6b; where b is any natural number
So, x2 + y2 = (6a)2 + (6b)2
= 36 (a2 + b2)
Now, 36 (a2 + b2) is divisible by 9.

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So, x2 + y2 is divisible by 9.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

6. If x + 1 is a factor of x3 + Zx + 3x2 – 2
When, x = –1,
x3 + Zx + 3x2 – 2 = 0
Now, putting the value of x in the equation, we find Z = 0

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

7. Let, the divisor be x and the initial quotient when the original number is divided by x be q.
i.e. (original number / x) = q and remainder is 24 (Since remainder is 24, we understand x > 24)
We know, Dividend = (Divisor x Quotient) + Remainder
Here, Original number = qx + 24
So, twice the original number = 2qx + 48
Now, when twice the original number is divided by x, we know ‘2qx’ part will leave no remainder. When x goes
on to divide the extra 48 part, it leaves a remainder of 7.
Since x > 24, x can divide 48 only once.
Thus, x = (48 – 7) = 41.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

8. Here,
X/Y = 25.375
after dividing X by Y, Adree found 3 as remainder
3
So, X/Y = 25 (In a mixed fraction, the fraction part is composed of remainder/divisor)
𝑌
Now, 0.375 is equal to the (remainder/divisor)
In this case, we can write 0.375 = 3/Y
So, Y = (3 ÷ 0.375) = 8
And, the value of X = (8 x 25.375) = 203
So, X + Y = (203 + 8) = 211

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

9. Option (a) 16 divided by 12 leaves a remainder of 4. So, it can be eliminated


Option (b) 22 divided by 12 leaves a remainder of 10. So, it can be eliminated.
Option (c) 30 divided by 12 leaves a remainder of 6 and 30 divided by 18 leaves a remainder of 12. So, Option
(c) is a possible option.
Option (d) 44 divided by 12 leaves a remainder of 8. So, it can be eliminated.
Only Option (c) matched the condition. So, Option (e) can be eliminated.

So, Option (c) is the correct answer.

10. x has to be divisible by 2, 3 & 13, for x/2, x/3 & x/13 to represent integers. So, x has to be a multiple of
2*3*13 = 78.
Option (a) 42 is not a multiple of 78
Option (b) 56 is not a multiple of 78
Option (c) 70 is not a multiple of 78
Option (d) 68 is not a multiple of 78
Option (e) 156 is a multiple of 78

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

11. LCM of 8, 12 & 16 = 48.

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So the number of apples has to be a multiple of 48 that is just larger than 770.
Multiple 48 that is just larger than 770 = 48*17 = 816.
So, minimum numbers of apples to be added= 816 – 770 = 46

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

12. Here, since all the fruits are to be divided into 3 equal portions, the number of apples will have to be divisible by
3. Now, there are 6 possible numbers less than 19 that are divisible by 3. So, there are six possible values that
can be subtracted from 19 to get a number which is divisible by 3. So, we can’t possibly determine what then
value of x must be.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

13. Here, the LCM of 36 and 40 = 360


So, both comets will appear in the same year again in 360 years from 2019.
So, the required year = (2019 + 360) = 2379

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

Type 10: Determination of Smallest or Largest Fraction

When two fractions are given, there is a simple trick to help figure out which fraction is the larger. Multiply the numerator
( ব) of the first fraction (the top number in the fraction) by the denominator (হর) of the second fraction (the bottom
number in the fraction). Again, multiply the numerator of the second fraction by the denominator of the first fraction.
Then compare the two answers.
Let’s compare 3/8 and 4/9.
● 3 * 9 = 27
● 4 * 8 = 32
Since, 32 > 27
We can conclude, 4/9 > 3/8.
Make sure that the answers relate to the numerator.
In this example 27 relates to 3/8 and 32 to 4/9.

Example
Which of the following fraction is the largest?

a.7/8 b.13/16 c.31/40 d.63/80 e. None of these

Answer: Option (a)

Explanation
Another way of approaching this kind of math is through a common base i.e. denominator.
The LCM of 8, 16 , 40 and 80 = 80
7/8 = (7*10)/ (8*10) = 70/80
13/16 = (13*5)/ (16*5) = 65/80
31/40 = (31* 2)/ (40*2) = 62/80
63/80 = 63/80
70 > 65 > 63 > 62
7/8 >13/16 > 63/80 > 31/40
The largest fraction is 7/8

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Practice Math:

1. Which of the following fractions is the smallest?

a. 2/7 b. 4/13 c. 5/16 d. 1/3 e. 3/10

2. Which of the following is the largest?

a. 7/15 b. 13/19 c. 4/7 d. 9/13 e. 2/3

3. Which of the following is greater than 2/3?

a. 16/25 b. 14/19 c. 31/51 d. 16/27 e. None of these

4. Which of the following fractions is the largest?

a. 12/15 b. 11/14 c. 5/6 d. 17/21 e. 29/35

5. Which of the following is the largest?

a.√0.4 b. 3/5 c. 6/11 d. 3/7 e. 8/17

6. Which of the following fractions is the smallest?

a. 23/45 b. 24/46 c. 28/57 d. 2/3 e. 29/58

7. Which of the following fractions has the greatest value?

a. 1/ (32 X 52) b. 2/ (32 X 52) c. 7/ (33 X 52) d. 45/ (33 X 53) e. 65/(34 X 54)

8. Which of the following fraction is the largest?

a. 11/12 b.41/50 c.21/40 d. ⅚ e. None of these

Answers
1. a 2. d 3. b 4. c 5. a
6. c 7. e 8. a

Solution
1. Comparing Option (a) & Option (b), 2*13 = 26, 4*7 = 28, so 2/7 < 4/13. Option (a) is smaller.
Comparing Option (a) & Option (c), 2*16 = 32, 5*7 = 35, so 2/7 < 5/16. Option (a) is smaller.
Comparing Option (a) & Option (d), 2*3 = 6, 1*7 = 7, so 2/7 < 1/3. Option (a) is smaller.
Comparing Option (a) & Option (e), 2*10 = 20, 3*7 = 21, so 2/7 < 3/10. Option (a) is smaller.

So, Option (a) is the correct answer.

2. Comparing Option (a) & Option (b), 7*19 = 133, 4*7 = 195, so 7/15 < 13/19. Option (b) is greater.
Comparing Option (b) & Option (c), 13*7 = 91, 19*4=76, so 13/19 > 4/7. Option (b) is greater.
Comparing Option (b) & Option (d), 13*13=169, 19*9=171, so 13/19 < 9/13. Option (d) is greater.
Comparing Option (d) & Option (e), 9*3 = 27, 13*2 = 26, so 9/13 > 2/3. Option (d) is greater.

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So, Option (d) is the correct answer.

3. Option (a) 2*25 = 50, 3*16 = 48, so 2/3 > 16/25. So, it can be eliminated.
Option (b) 2*19 = 38, 3*14 = 42
So, 2/3 < 14/19.

So, Option (b) is the correct answer.

4. Comparing Option (a) & Option (b), 12*14 = 168, 15*11 = 165, so 12/15 > 11/14. Option (a) is greater.
Comparing Option (a) & Option (c), 12*6 = 72, 15*5 = 75, so 12/15 < 5/6. Option (c) is greater.
Comparing Option (c) & Option (d), 5*21 = 105, 6*17 = 102, so 5/6 > 17/21. Option (c) is greater.
Comparing Option (c) & Option (e), 5*35 = 175, 6*29 = 174, so 5/6 > 29/35. Option (c) is greater.

So, Option (c) is the correct answer.

5. We know, (0.6)2 = 0.36


Or, √0.36 = 0.6
So, √0.4 is very close to and greater than 0.6
Now, option (b) 3/5 = 0.6
Option (c) 6/11 is less than 0.6 since 6/10 = 0.6
Options (d) and (e) both are less than 0.5
So, option (a) √0.4 is the largest.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

6. Comparing Option (a) & Option (b), 23*46 = 1058, 45*24 = 1080, so 23/45 < 24/46. Option (a) is smaller.
Comparing Option (a) & Option (c), 23*57 = 1311, 45*28 = 1260, so 23/45 > 28/57. Option (c) is smaller.
Comparing Option (c) & Option (d), 28*3 = 84, 57*2 = 114, so 28/57 < 2/3. Option (c) is smaller.
Comparing Option (c) & Option (e), 28*58 = 1624, 57*29 = 1653, so 28/57 < 29/58. Option (c) is smaller.

So, Option (c) is the correct answer.

7. Comparing Option (a) & Option (b), Option (b) is greater. (Same denominator, but greater nominator).
Comparing Option (c) & Option (d), Option (d) is greater. (Same denominator, but greater nominator).
Comparing Option (b) & Option (d), 2* 33*53 < 45 * 32 *52. So, Option (d) is greater.
Comparing Option (d) & Option (e), 24*34*54 < 65*33*53. So, Option (e) is greater.

So, Option (e) is the correct answer.

8. The LCM of 12, 50 , 40 and 6 = 600


11/12 = (11*50)/ (12*50) = 550/600
41/50 = (41*12)/ (50*12) = 492/600
21/40 = ( 21* 15)/(40*15) = 315/600
5/8 = (5*100)/ (6* 100) = 500/600
Now, 550 > 500 > 492 > 315
So, 11/12 > 5/8 > 41/50 > 21/40

So, Option (a) is the correct answer.

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Type 11: Decimal (দশবমক)

How to multiply
● Multiply normally, ignoring the decimal points.
● Then put the decimal point in the answer – the product will have as many decimal places as the two original
numbers combined.
Just count up how many numbers are after the decimal point in both numbers you are multiplying, then the answer
should have that many numbers after its decimal point.
অর্াৎ,
ণ ময দুটি সংখ্যা গুন করা হশে, তাশদরশক পূর্ ণ সংখ্যা ণহশসশব ণবশবচনা কশর গুন করশত হশব। তারপর সংখ্যা দুটি ণমণ শয়
দেণমশক এর পর যত ঘর রশয়শে, গুনফ টিশতও দেণমশকর পর টিক ততগুশ া ঘর র্াকশব।

How to divide
● Multiply the divisor by as many 10's as necessary until we get a whole number.
● Remember to multiply the dividend by the same number of 10's.
প্রর্শম ভাজক মক পূর্ সংখ্যা
ণ বানাশত হশব। তার জনয ভাজকশক যত ণদশয় গুন ণদশত হশয়শে, টিক তত ণদশয়ই ভাজয মক গুন ণদশত
হশব।

Example:
What is the HCF of 2.04, 0.24 and 0.8?

a. 1 b. 2 c. 0.02 d. 0.04 e. None of these

Answer: Option (d)

Explanation:
2.04 = 204* (1/100)
0.24 = 24* (1/100)
0.8 = 80 * (1/100)
Now, the HCF of 204, 24 and 80 is 4
So, the required HCF = 4 * (1/100)

So, option (d) is the correct answer

Practice Math:
1. Which of the following numbers is the least?

a. 0.009200 b. 0.180000 c. 0.1049 d. 0.111 e. 0.19

2. 0.004 x 0.006 x 2.05 =?

a. 0.000492 b. 0.0000049 c. 4.92 x 10-5 d. 0.0049 e. None of these

3. Which of the following is true?

1
a. 0< < 0.01
10
1
b. 0.12< < 0.15
8
1
c. 0.3< <.5
4
1
d. 0.3< < 0.33
3

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e. None of these

4. Which of the following is greater than 1?

a. 0.0004/0.005
b. 0.0006/0.01
c. 0.1/0.03
d. 0.0003/0.006
e. 0.001/0.01

5. 2.205 divided by 0.3 gives

a. 7.35 b. 6.25 c. 8.15 d. 6.95 e. None of these

6. Which is the highest among the following?

a. 0.1 ÷ 0.3 b.0.3 c. 0.03 d. 0.32 e. Cannot be determined

Answers
1. a 2. c 3. b 4. c 5. a
6. a

Solutions
1. 0.0092 is the lowest.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

2. 0.004 x 0.006 x 2.05


= 4 x 10-3 * 6 x 10-3 * 205 x 10-2
= 4920 x 10-8
= 4.92 x 10-5

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. 1/8 = 0.125

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

4. 0.1/0.03 = 3.33

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

5. 2.205/0.3 = (2205/1000)/(3/10) = (2205* 10) / (1000 * 3)= 2205/300 = 7.35

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

6. 0.1/0.3 = 0.333…

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Type 12: Exponents

Exponents (সূচক) are used in many algebra problems, so it's important that you understand the rules for working with
exponents. Let's go over each rule in detail, and see some examples.

Rules of 1
There are two simple "rules of 1" to remember.
First, any number raised to the power of "one" equals itself. This makes sense, because the power shows how many
times the base is multiplied by itself. If it's only multiplied one time, then it's logical that it equals itself.
Secondly, one raised to any power is one. This, too, is logical, because one times one times one, as many times as you
multiply it, is always equal to one.

Product Rule
The exponent "product rule" tells us that, when multiplying two powers that have the same base, you can add the
exponents. In this example, you can see how it works. Adding the exponents is just a short cut.

Power Rule
The "power rule" tells us that to raise a power to another power, just multiply the exponents. Here you see that 5 2 raised
to the 3rd power is equal to 56.

Quotient Rule
The quotient rule tells us that we can divide two powers with the same base by subtracting the exponents. You can see
why this works if you study the example shown.

Zero Rule
According to the "zero rule," any nonzero number raised to the power of zero equals 1.

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Negative Exponents

The last rule in this lesson tells us that any nonzero number raised to a negative power equals its reciprocal raised to
the opposite positive power.

Exponent simplification
Here we basically take an exponential function, bring out its factors and get and exponential term for each of those
factors.
For example:
208 = (4*5)8 = 48 *58 = (22)8 * 58= 216 * 58.

Example 1:
If 8(2𝑎+𝑏) =16(𝑎+2𝑏) , then a =?

a. b b. b+2 c. 0.33b d. 5b/2 e. None of these

Answer: Option (d)

Explanation:
8(2𝑎+𝑏) =16(𝑎+2𝑏)
Or, 23(2𝑎+𝑏) =24(𝑎+2𝑏)
Or, 3(2a+b) = 4(a+2b)
Or, 6a+3b = 4a + 8b
Or, 2a = 5b
Or, a = 5b/2

So, option (d) is the correct answer

Example 2:
If 1252x–4 = 6257–x, then what is the largest prime factor of x?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. 11

Answer: Option (a)

Explanation:
1252x–4 = 6257–x
Or, (53)2x–4 = (54)7–x
Or, 53(2x–4) = 54(7–x)
Or, 3(2x – 4) = 4(7 – x)
Or, 6x – 12 = 28 – 4x
Or, 10x – 12 = 28
Or, 10x = 40
Or, x=4
The largest prime factor of 4 is 2.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Square-root Simplifications

Before we can simplify the square root, we keep factoring it until we've broken it down into two identical parts. With
some large square roots, you can simplify more than once. If this happens, multiply the integers together to get your
final result.
Here's an example:
√180 = √(2 x 90)
√180 = √(2 x 2 x 45)
√180 = 2√45, but this can still be simplified further.
√180 = 2√(3 x 15)
√180 = 2√(3 x 3 x 5)
√180 = (2)(3√5)
√180 = 6√5

Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication and Division of Exponents

Example:
102 (108+108)/ 104 =?

a. 1014 b. 2(106) c. 108 d. 2(108) e. None of these

Answer: Option (b)

Explanation:
102 (108+108)/ 104
= 102. 2. 108 / 104
= 2. 108+2-4
= 2*106

Practice Math:

1. Simplify the expression √5 (2√3 + √12)

a. 10√3 b. 4√30 c.3√2 d. 10√15 e. 4√15

2. Simplify √(45)(9) + (27)(36)

a. 7√17 b. 7√15 c. 9√15 d. 9√19 e. 9√17

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3. Simplify √(27)(45)(125)

a. 205√3 b. 225√3 c.125√27 d.135√5 e. 75√20

4. If n is a positive integer and 3n is a factor of 972, what is the highest value of n?

a. 3 b. 2 c. 5 d. 4 e. 6

5. If 2𝑥 = (162 × 85 × 43 )/221 , then x =?

a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10 e. None of these

6. If 4𝑥 = y, then, what is 4(3−𝑥) ?

a. 81/y b. 27/y c. 16y d. 64/y e. None of these

7. If 2𝑥 = 512 then, what is x?

a. 9 b. 51 c. 256 d. 18 e. 9

8. 𝑅𝑐 × 𝑅𝐷 ×𝑅𝐸 ×𝑅𝐹 =𝑅 −17 . If R>0 and C, D, E and F are each different negative integers, what is the possible smallest
value of C?

a. –12 b. –11 c. 0 d. –1 e. None of these

9. √3989 / √0.3989= ?

a. 0.0001 b. 0.01 c. 100 d. 1000 e. None of these

10. (452+453+454) is divisible by -

a. 7 b. 13 c. 15 d. 17 e. None of these

3
11. What is the value of ( √36 )2?

a. 81 b. 27 c. 9 d. 3 e. 1

12. If 3x+3x+3x=3n what is x in terms of n?

a. n/2 b. 9n c. 3n d. n–1 e. None of these

13. 102+103+104 =?

a. 1011 b. 102 × 1101 c. 102 ×105 d. 11100 e. None of these

14. What is the value of 104 x 105 x 106?

a. 1015 b. 1025 c. 10120 d. 10420 e. None of these

15. If a4 = 256 and b3 = 512, which one must be true?

a. a = b b. a = 2b c. b = 2a d. a2 = b e. None of these

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16. If (0.0025 × 10x)/ (0.05 × 10y) = 5 × 104, then x – y =?

a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 e. 9

17. Which of the following is equal to 410 + 410 + 410 + 410 + 411?

a. 215 b. 223 c. 240 d. 250 e. 260

18. If 3 + 3n+3 = 81, what is 3n+2?

a. 3 b. 9 c.18 d. 26 e. 81

19. Karim sent a chain email to 10 of his friends. The number of people who got the email increases by a factor
of 1.4 every week. Which expression gives the number of people who got the email after 3 weeks?

a. 15.6 b. (10 X 1.4)3 c. 10*1.43 d. 10 + 1.43 e. None of these

20. The town of Richardson has a population of 9900 people. The population is growing at a rate of 2.3% each year.
Which expression gives the population 7 years from now?

a. 9900(1 – 0.023)7
b. 9900(1.23)7
c. 9900(1.023)7
d. 9900 X 0.0237
e. None of these

21. In a storage warehouse, each container weighs 63 pounds. If there are 65 containers, how much do the crates
weigh in total?

a. 68 b. 128 c. 65 + 63 d. 36 e. 615

22. You own a microscope with an objective lens and an eyepiece. The objective lens can magnify an
object 103 times, and the eyepiece can further magnify an object 100.5 times. What is the maximum
magnification on your microscope?

a. 106 b. 101.5 c. 103.5 d. 150 e. None of these

23. Belle likes to gather coconuts. Over 2 weeks, Belle has gathered 26 coconuts for herself. Assuming she
continues to gather coconuts at the same rate, how many coconuts will she have after 8 weeks of coconut
gathering?

a. 28 b. 27 c. 26 d. 25 e. None of these

24. At room temperature, bacterium doubles in every 30 minutes. In three hours, what will be the total number of
bacteria from an initial number of 3?

a. 18 b. 192 c. 144 d. 96 e. 729

Answers
1. e 2. e 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. d

7. a 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. a 12. d

13. d 14. a 15. e 16. b 17. b 18. d

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19. c 20. c 21. a 22. c 23. a 24. b

Solution

1. √5 (2√3 + √12) = (2√3x√5 + √12 𝑥 √5 )


= 2√15 + √60
= 2√15 + 2√15
= 4√15

So, option (e) is the correct answer

2. √(45)(9) + (27)(36)
= √(32 × 5 × 32 ) + ( 32 × 33 × 22 )
= √34 (5 + 3 × 22 )
= 9 √5 + 12
= 9 √17

So, option (e) is the correct answer

3. √(27)(45)(125)
= √33 (5 × 32 )53
= √35 × 54
= 32 × 52 √3
= 225 √3

So, option (b) is the correct answer

4. 972
= 2 x 486
= 2 x 2 x 243
= 2 x 2 x 3 x 81
= 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 27
= 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x (3)3
= (2)2 x (3)5
So, n=5

So, option (c) is the correct answer

5. 2x= (162 X 85 X 43)/221


Or, 2x= (24*2 X 23*5 X 22*3)/221
Or, 2x= 28+15+6-21
Or, 2 x= 2 8
Or, x= 8

So, option (b) is the correct answer

6. 4(3−𝑥) =43 /4𝑥 = 64/y

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

7. 2𝑥 = 512
Or, 2𝑥 = 256 x 2

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Or, 2x = 128 x 2 x 2
Or, 2x = 64 x 2 x 2 x 2
Or, 2x = 32 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2
Or, 2x = 16 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2
Or, 2x = (2)4 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2
Or, 2x = (2)9
Or, x=9

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

8. For C to have the smallest value, D, E and F should have the greatest possible values.
The greatest possible values of D, E & F are –1, –2 & –3, because they are negative numbers and each have
different values.
So, C + D + E + F = –17
Or, C – 3 – 2 – 1 = –17
Or, C= –11

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

9. √3989 / √0.3989 = √0.3989 ∗ 10000 / √0.3989= √10000 = 100

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

10. (452 + 453 + 454) = 452 (1 + 4 + 42) = 452. 21= 3*7*452.


So, it is divisible by 7.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

3
11. ( √36 )2
= (36/3)2
= (32)2
= 81

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

12. 3x + 3x + 3x=3n
Or, 3.3x = 3n
Or, 3x+1 = 3n
Or, x + 1= n
Or, x=n–1

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

13. 102+103+104 = 102 (1 + 10 + 100) = 111 x 100 = 11100

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

14. 104 x 105 x 106 = 104+5+6 = 1015

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

15. Here, a4 = 256


So, a = ± 4
And, b3 = 512
So, b = 8

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Now, only option (c) b = 2a can be true if a = 4
However, it does not stay true for a = –4
So, none of the options MUST be true.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

16. (0.0025×10x)/ (0.05 × 10y) = 5 × 104


Or, (0.05 × 10x) / 10y = 5 × 104
Or, 0.05 × 10 x-y = 5 × 104
Or, 10x-y = (5 × 104) / 0.05
Or, 10x-y = (5/0.05) × 104
Or, 10x-y = 100 × 104
Or, 10x-y = 106
Or, x–y=6

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

17. 410 + 410 + 410 + 410 + 411


= 410 + 410 + 410 + 410 + 4 * 410
= 410(1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 4)
= 410 x 8
= (23)(22)10
= (23) (220)
= 223

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

18. 3 + 3n+3 = 81
Or, 3(1 + 3n+2) = 81
Or, (1 + 3n+2) = 27
Or, 3n+2 = 26

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

19. Number of people who got emails after 1 week = 10 x 1.4


Number of people who got emails after 2 weeks = 10 x 1.4 x 1.4
Number of people who got emails after 3 weeks = 10 x 1.4 x 1.4 x 1.4
= 10 x (1.4)3

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

20. Population growth per year = 1 + 0.023 = 1.023


So, population in 7 years = 9900 X 1.023 7

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

21. Total weight = 63 X 65 = 63+5 = 68

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

22. Total magnification = 103 X 10.5 = 103.5

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

23. Coconuts gathered in 1 week = 26/2 =25


Coconuts gathered in 8 weeks = 25*8 = 25 X 23 = 28

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So, option (a) is the correct answer.

24. Number of times doubled = 180min/30 min = 6 times


So, total number of bacteria = 3 x 26 = 192

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

Type 13: Last digit and missing digit problems

Recognizing Patterns
A common way to attempt these types of questions is to list out the initial expansions of a power to determine a pattern.
Questions which ask about the last decimal digit of a power can be solved completely after proving that the pattern in
question holds.

● Digits 0, 1, 5 & 6: When we observe the behavior of these digits, they all have the same unit's digit as the number
itself when raised to any power.
0n = the last digit will be 0,
1n = the last digit will be 1,
5n = the last digit will be 5,
6n = the last digit will be 6.

● Digits 4 & 9: Both these numbers have a cycle of only two different digits as their unit's digit.
Let us take a look at how the powers of 4 operate: 4 1 = 4, 42 = 16, 43 = 64, and so on.
Hence, the power cycle of 4 contains only 2 digits 4 & 6, which appear in case of odd and even powers
respectively.
Likewise, the powers of 9 operate as follows: 91 = 9, 92 = 81, 93 = 729, and so on.
Hence, the power cycle of 9 also contains only 2 digits 9 & 1, which appear in case of odd and even powers
respectively.
So, broadly these can be remembered in even and odd only,
4odd = the last digit will be 4
4even = the last digit will be 6
Likewise,
9odd = the last digit will be 9
9even = the last digit will be 1

● Digits 2, 3, 7 & 8: These numbers have a power cycle of 4 different numbers.


21 = 2, 22 = 4, 23 = 8 & 24 = 16 and after that it starts repeating.
So, the power cycle of 2 has 4 different digits (2, 4, 8, 6) as the last digit.
31 = 3, 32 = 9, 33 = 27 & 34 = 81 and after that it starts repeating.
So, the power cycle of 3 has 4 different digits (3, 9, 7, 1) as the last digit.
7 and 8 follow similar logic.
So, these four digits i.e. 2, 3, 7 and 8 have a unit digit power cycle of four steps.

Example:
What is the unit digit in 7105?

a. 1 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9 e. None of these

Answer: Option (c)

Explanation:

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Unit digit of 7105
= unit digit of (74)26 x 71.
=unit digit of (1)26 x 71 [ Because unit digit of (74) = 1]
=7

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

Practice Math:

1. What is the last digit of 4219?

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. None of these

2. If x is a positive integer, what is the units digit of (249) 4x+3 x (525)3x x (423)3?

2 b. 5 c. 4 d. 0 e. None of these

3. What is the unit digit in {(6374)179 x 3(625)317 x (341)491}?

a. 0 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 e. None of these.

4. What is the unit digit in (795 – 358)?

a. 0 b. 4 c. 6 d. 7 e. None of these

Answers
1. b 2. b 3. a 4. b

Solution
1. If the power of 4 is an odd number then the last digit of the number is 4.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. 4x+3 will always be odd regardless the value of x.


So, the units digit of (249)4x+3 = 9 (Last digit when 9odd)
Again units digit of (525)3x = 5 (Last digit of 5n will always be 5)
And, units digit of 4233 = 7 (From the power cycle of 3)
So, the required units digit = unit digit of (9 x 5 x 7), which is 5

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

3. Unit digit of 6374179 = unit digit of 4179


Now in 4x, x is odd, the unit digit of 4x is 4
If x is even, the unit digit of 4x is 6
Therefore, the unit digit of 4 179 will be 4

Unit digit of 625317 = unit digit of 5317= 5 [unit digit of 5x =5, if x𝜖 N]

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Unit digit of 3x625317 = unit digit of (3x5) = 5

Unit digit of 341491 = unit digit of 1491 = 1

Therefore, the unit digit of 6374179 x 3(625)317 x 341491 = the unit digit off 4x5x1 = 0

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

4. 795 – 358
The power cycle of 7 shows us
71 = 7
72 = 49
73 = 343
74 = 2401
The last digits keep repeating from here on. So, for every exponent which is a multiple of 4 will yield 1 as the
last digit.
So, 796 will have 1 as the last digit.
So, 795 will have 3 as the last digit.
Using the same principle for 358, we find
358 will have 9 as the last digit.
So, the required unit digit is |**3 - **9| = 4

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Type 14: Reciprocals and Inverses

Example:
What is the reciprocal of 7/ √1470?

a.√84/7 b. √30/7 c. √30 d. √84 e. None of these

Answer: Option (c)

Explanation:
The reciprocal of
7/ √1470 is √1470 /7
Or, √49 × 5 × 6 /7
Or, 7 x √30 / 7
Or, √30

Practice Math:

1. The sum of a number and its inverse (or reciprocal) is equal to twice the number. What is the number?

a. 1 b. –1 c. 1 or –1 d. –2 e. 2

2
2. The reciprocal of p/n is n/p and vice versa. Which of the following is the reciprocal of
√48

4√3
a. b. 2 √3 c. 2 d. 3 √2 e. None of these
3

3. The sum of the two numbers is 12 and their product is 35. What is the sum of the reciprocals of these numbers?

a. 12/35 b.13/5 c.3/58 d.7/32 e. None of these.

4. The difference between a positive fraction and its reciprocal is 9/20. Find the sum of the fraction and its
reciprocal.

a. 41/20 b.17/20 c.11/20 d.9/20 e. None of these

Answers
1. c 2. b 3. a 4. a

Solution
1. x + 1/x = 2x
or, x = 1/x
or, x2 = 1

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or, x=±1

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

2. Inverse of 2/√48 = √48 / 2 = √4 × 4 × 3 /2 = 2√4 × 3/2 = 2√3

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

3. Let the numbers are a and b


Sum of the numbers, a + b = 12
Product of the numbers, ab = 35
Sum of the reciprocals of the numbers (1/a) + ( 1/b) = (a + b)/ab = 12/35 [putting the values of a + b and ab]

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

4. Let, the required proper fraction = x


So, the reciprocal = 1/x
Since x is a proper fraction, 1/x > x.
Now, (1/x) – x = 9/20
Or, 20- 20x2 =9x
Or, 20x2 + 9x - 20= 0
Or, 20x2 + 25x - 16x - 20 = 0
Or, 5(4x+5) -4(4x+5) =0
Or, (4x+5) (5x-4) =0
So, x= –5/4 or, ⅘
But x is a proper fraction
So, x= ⅘
1/x = 5/4
Sum of the fraction and its reciprocal, x + (1/x) = ⅘ + 5/4 = (16 + 25)/20 = 41/20

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

Type 15: Number Line properties

A number line is a picture of a graduated straight line that serves as abstraction for real numbers, denoted by R. Every
point of a number line is assumed to correspond to a real number, and every real number to a point.

Example:
How many numbers 1 to 250 inclusive are cubes of integers?

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a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 e. 8

Answer: Option (c)

Explanation:
The cubes of integers from 1 to 250 are 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216.

Practice Math:

1. If X is greater than zero, but less than 1, which of the following is the largest?

a. X4 b. X3 c. X d. 1/X4 e. 1/X3

2. If x is between 0 and 1, which of the following increases as x increases?


I. 1–x2 II. 1-x III. 1/x2

a. I and II b. II and III c. I & III only d. II only e. None of these

3. If x < –4, then which of the following must be true?

a. x3 > x2 > x b. x2 > x3 > x c. x2 > x > x3 d. x > x3 > x2 e. x > x2 > x3

4. On a real number line, x1 = –5 and x2 = 17. What is the distance between these two points?

a. 4 b. –22 c. 22 d. 10 e. None of these

5. If x is between -1 and 0, which one decreases as x increases?


(i) 1-x2 (ii) 1-x3 (iii) 1/x3

a. i b. i and ii c. ii and iii d. i and iii e. i, ii and iii

Answers
1. d 2. e 3. c 4. c 5. c

Solution

1. If a number is between 0 and 1. The greater the power of the denominator the greater the value.
So, 1/x4 is the greatest number. This can be confirmed by putting in any acceptable value of x and trying out all
the options.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. In case of (I) if x increases 1 – x2 decreases. So, it is false.


In case of (II) if x increases 1 – x decreases. So, it is false.
In case of (III) if x increases 1/x2 decreases. So, it is false
Therefore, none of them are correct.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

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3. Since x is negative, x2 is positive and the greatest of the three. x3 is negative and smaller than x.
Therefore, x2 > x > x3

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

4. The distance between two points is always positive. We calculate lx 2 – x1l, which will give us the distance
between the points.
|17 – (–5)| = |17 + 5| = |22| = 22

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

5. Here, we input different acceptable values of x and test all the options.
In case of (i) if x increases, 1– x2 increases. So, it is false.
In case of (ii) if x increases, 1 – x3 decreases. So, it is true.
In case of (iii) if x increases, 1/x3 decreases. So, it is true.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Type 16: Properties of algebraic formula

Example:
If a + b = 7 and a – b = 9, what is the value of a2 – b2?

a. 49 b. 56 c. 63 d. 77 e. None of these

Answer: Option (c)

Explanation:
We know, (a + b) (a – b) = a2 – b2
Or, a2 – b2 = 7 x 9
Or, a2 – b2 = 63

Practice Math:

1. If a−b=6 and a2 + b2 =116, then what is the value of ab?

a. 20 b. 40 c. 60 d. 80 e. None of these

2. If a + b= 8 and a2 + b2 = 124, then what is the value of ab?

a. –60 b. -30 c.0 d. 30 e. 60

3. If a + b = 5 and a – b = √17 then value of ab should be

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. None of these

4. Simplify a(c - b) - b(a - c)

a. ac – 2ab – bc
b. ac – 2ab + bc
c. ac + 2ab + bc
d. ac + bc
e. None of these

5. If a + b=6 and a – b = 8, what is the value of (a2 + b2)?

a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100 e.125

Answers
1. b 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. b

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Solution

1. We know,
(a – b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2
Or, 62 = 116 + 2ab
Or, 2ab = 116 – 36 = 80
Or, ab = 80/2 = 40

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. We know,
(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2
Or, 64 = 124 + 2ab
Or, 2ab = -60
Or, ab = -30

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

3. We know,
(a + b)2 – (a – b)2 = 4ab
Or, 25 – 17 = 4ab
Or, 4ab = 8
Therefore, ab = 2

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

4. a(c – b) – b(a – c)
= ac – ba – ba + bc
= ac – 2ab + bc

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. We know,
(a + b)2 + (a – b)2 = 2(a2 + b2)
Or, 2(a2 + b2) = 64 + 36
Or, a2 + b2 = 100/2
Or, a2 + b2 = 50

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Type 17: Value identification

The problems in this type require the use of basic understanding of numbers which have been discussed in the previous
sections. All you need to do is develop equations using which you can determine the value of the unknown variables.

Example:
There were n books in a store. After 1/4th of the books were sold and 7 more books were procured, the total
number of books in the shop stood at 64. What was the original number of books in the shop?

a. 76 b. 85 c. 92 d. 96 e. None of these

Answer: Option (a)


Explanation:
n – (n/4) + 7 = 64
Or, (3n/4) = 64 – 7
Or, n = (57 x 4)/ 3
Or, n = 76

Practice Math:

1. If x is a negative integer, what is the minimum possible value of 2 – 5x?

a. 7 b. –3 c. 2 d. 1 e. Cannot be determined

2. If a, b and c are 3 consecutive positive even integers and a > b > c, which of the following has the minimum
value?

a. (a + b)/c b. (b + c)/a c. (c + a)/b d. (c + b)/b e. (a + c)/b

3. x, y & z are consecutive positive integers. If x < y < z and (xy) + z is an odd integer, which of the following could
be the value of z?

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. None of these

4. If x + y = 8, which of the following must be true?


I. x and y are integers.
II. If x is odd the y must be even.
III. If x is negative, then y must be positive.

a. I only b. II only c. I & III only d. III only e. I, II and III

5. Which one of the following is the minimum value of the sum of two integers whose product is 81?

a. -37 b. 20 c. 15 d. -82 e. -18

6. 2ab5 is a four-digit number divisible by 25. If the number formed from the two digits ab is a simple multiple of
16. Then value of ab can be?

a. 10 b. 16 c. 32 d. 48 e. None of these

7. The difference between three hundred and nine thousand sixteen and ninety-three thousand seven hundred and
six is-

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a. 216,310 b. 215,305 c. 216,305 d. 215,310 e. None of these

8. If 4 is subtracted from one-sixth of a number, the result is 20. The number is

a. 84 b. 144 c. 108 d. 116 e. None of these

9. If the product of 2, 9 and 12 is equal to one half the sum of 132 and x, then x =?

a. 210 b. 300 c. 455 d. 785 e. 1,110

10. If b is a positive integer and 100/ (b + 1) = b/6. What is b?

a. 16 b. 20 c. 24 d. 25 e. None of these

11. A manager has a sales target of taka 60 million per quarter in 2019. Accounts show that during the first three
quarters he has sold taka 10, 15, and 20 million worth of goods respectively. How much in taka should the
manager sell during the fourth quarter in order to maintain the average sales target?

a. 10 million b. 15 million c. 150 million d. 195 million e. None of these

12. Rate of call is Tk. 6.5 per minute for all outgoing and Tk. 3.5 for all incoming from and to my mobile telephone.
Find the charge if I made 13 calls (7 calls for 3 minutes and 6 calls for 2 minutes) and received 12 calls (5 calls
for 5 minutes and 7 calls for 4 minutes)?

a. 348 b. 396 c. 400 d. 424 e. 456

13. If (x+2)2 = 9 and (y + 7)2 =25 then the minimum value of y/x is

a. –1 b. –12 c.–8 d. –7 e. None of these

14. If (3x + 6y + 9z) / 8 = (x + 4y) /4, then z =?

a. (x + 2y)/9 b. (x – 2y)/9 c. (2y – x)/9 d. (2x + y) /9 e. None of these

15. If X = 7Z/(Y+0.5Z), then what is the value of Z?

a. 2XY/ (7 – 0.5X)
b. XY + 2X/7
c. X(Y + 0.5)/7
d. 2XY/ (14 – X)
e. None of these

16. If z is the sum of x and y, and x > y, which of the following is equal to (z – 2y)?

a. z – x – y b. z + x – y c. 2x – z d. 2z – x + y e. None of these

17. If 7/8 of a number is 9 more than 5/7 of the number, what is 1/4 of that number?

a. 14 b. 20 c. 2 d. 32 e. None of these

18. The sum of all solutions for x in the equation x2– 4x – 21 = (x – 2) + 5 is equal to:

a. –7 b. 8 c. 11 d. -5 e. None of these

19. If (a/x) + b = 3, what is the value of x?

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a. (3 – a) b. (b – 3) c. (3 – a)/b d. a/ (3 – b) e. None of these

20. What is the value of (x – 2). When 3x – 8 = 1?

a. 5/3 b. 1 c. ⅔ d. 1/3 e. 0

21. When x2 – 5x + 6 = 0 and x2 – 4 = 0, what is the value of x?

a. –2 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1 e. 4

22. If x/8 – 16/x = 1, x=?

a. –4 b. –8 c. 16 d. both a & b e. both b & c

𝑎𝑏−𝑏+𝑎−𝑏2
23. If = 9, then b =?
𝑎−𝑏

a. 6a b. 8 c. 3√a d. 2 e. None of these

24. If x/a + a/b = 6, what is the value of x?

a. (–a2/b) + 6a b. a2/b – 3b c. a2b – 3 d. a + b e. None of these

25. If y = 10x – 16 and x = z + 4, what is y in terms of z?

a. z + 18 b. 10z – 20 c. 10z + 12 d. 10z + 24 e. None of these

26. If one number exceeds another number by 24 and the larger number is 7/4 times the smaller number, then the
smaller number is

a. 12 b. 18 c. 24 d. 32 e. None of these

27. If x/y = 1/5 and 3x + y = 64, then what is the value of x?

a. 33/5 b. 13 c. 8 d. 17.5 e. None of these

28. If x =3, which of the following is equal to the average of (x + 3)2 and (x – 3)2?

a. 𝑥 2 b. 𝑥 2 + 2 c. 𝑥 2 + 3x d. 𝑥 2 + 2x e. None of these

29. When 20 is divided by a positive integer x, the remainder is x – 1, which of the following could be the value of
x?

a. 3 b. 4 c. 7 d. 8 e. None of these

30. Iftekhar earns $ 9.5 per hour on days other than Sundays and twice that rate on Sundays. Last week he worked
a total of 40 hours, including 8 hours on Sunday. What were his earnings for the week?

a. $ 284 b. $ 396 c. $ 456 d. $ 472 e. None of these

31. If 1/x + 5/y = 7/4 and x = 4y, then y =?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 3.33 d. 4 e. None of these

32. If x/y = 4, then (x–y)/x =?

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a. –4 b. –3/4 c. 3/4 d. 1 e. 3
2
𝑚 +𝑚−6
33. If = 1, then m could equal
6

a. –3 b. 0 c. 1 d. 4 e. None of these

34. If x/ (y + 3) = 2/7, then y =?

a. 2x/7 b. 2x/7 + 2/7 c. 2x /7+1 d. 2x/7–1 e. None of these

35. If 12 is 3/4th of x, what number is 1/8th of x?

a. 2 b. 4 c. 12 d. 15 e. 27

36. If x is a negative number, what is the minimum possible value of 4 – 3x?

a. 4 b. 3 c. 7 d. 1 e. Cannot be determined

37. The difference of two numbers is 1365. On dividing the larger number by the smaller, we get 6 as quotient and
the 15 as remainder. What is the smaller number?

a. 240 b. 270 c. 295 d. 360 e. None of these

38. The price of 3 tables and 4 chairs is TK. 3300. With the same money one can buy 2 tables and 10 chairs. If one
wants to buy 1 table and 1 chair, how much does he need to pay?

a. TK. 940 b. TK. 1050 c. TK. 1040 d. TK. 950 e. None of these

39. There are 6 working days in a regular week and for each day, there are 10 working hours in a day. A man earns
TK. 2.10 per hour for regular work-hours and TK. 4.20 per hour for overtime. If he earns TK. 525 in 4 weeks, how
many hours did he work?

a. 245 b. 285 c. 275 d. 255 e. None of these

40. In a group of ducks and cows, the total number of legs is 28 more than twice the number of heads. Find the
total number of cows.

a. 14 b. 12 c. 9 d. 8 e. None of these

41. Coins are to be put into 8 pockets so that each pocket contains at least one coin. At most 4 of the pockets are
to contain the same number of coins and no two of the remaining pockets are to contain an equal number of
coins. What is the least possible number of coins needed for the pockets?

a. 8 b. 14 c. 18 d. 22 e. None of these

42. If the product of 3 consecutive integers is 210, the sum of the integers is:

a. 9 b. 12 c. 14 d. 15 e. 18

43. If 4 is subtracted from one-fifth of a number, the result is 20. The number is

a.84 b. 96 c. 120 d. 144 e. None of these

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Answers
1. a 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. d
6. c 7. d 8. b 9. b 10. c
11. d 12. c 13. b 14. c 15. d
16. c 17. a 18. e 19. d 20. b
21. b 22. e 23. b 24. a 25. d
26. d 27. c 28. c 29. c 30. c
31. b 32. c 33. e 34. e 35. a
36. e 37. b 38. b 39. a 40. a
41. c 42. e 43. c

Solutions

1. For the expression (2-5x) to have the minimum value, x must have the greatest possible value. Since, x is a
negative integer, Maximum value of x= -1.
So, 2 – 5x = 2 – 5 x (–1) = 2 + 5 = 7

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

2. Let, a= 6, b= 4 and c=2.


Option (a) = (a+b)/c = (6+4)/2 = 5
Option (b) = (b+c)/a = (4+2)/6 = 1
Option (c) = (c+a)/b = (2+6)/4 = 2
Option (d) = (c+b)/b = (2+4)/4 = 1.5
Option (e) = (a+c)/b = (2+6)/4 = 2
Basically, the minimum possible value of a fraction is gained when the numerator has the smallest value and
the denominator has the largest value.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

3. Since, x, y and z are all consecutive positive integers and (xy) + z is odd, both x and z must be odd while y is
even.
Again, since x < z, the smallest possible value of x is 1 and z is 3.
In fact, the value of z can be any odd number greater than 1.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

4. We put in different acceptable values of x and y and try out all the options.
If x= 7.5 and y= 0.5 then x+y = 8. Here, x and y are not integers. so option (I) is false
If x= 3 then y=5 for x+y = 8. If x is odd y must be odd. So, option (II) is false
If x is negative y must be positive since x+y is positive. So, only option (III) is true.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

5. Let, ab = 81
Now, the greatest possible value of a + b can be found by adding 1 (the lowest positive factor of 81) with 81
(the greatest positive factor of 81).
i.e. a + b = 81 + 1 = 82.
Similarly, the lowest possible value of a+b can be found by taking the negative corresponding values of these
factors.
i.e. a + b = (–81) + (–1) = –82.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

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6. 2ab5 will be divisible by 25 when the value of b is either 2 or 7.
In option (c) 32, we find a value which meets the previously stated criteria and also is a multiple of 16.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

7. 309016 – 93706 = 215310

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

8. Let, the number be x.


Here,
x/6 – 4 =20
Or, x/6 = 24
Or, x = 24 x 6
Therefore, x = 144

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

9. 2 X 9 X 12 = ½ X (132 + x)
Or, 432 =132 + x
Or, x = 300

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

10. Here, 100/(b + 1) = b/6


Or, 600 = b (b + 1)
Or, 600 = b2 + b
Or, b2 + b – 600 = 0
Or, b2 + 25b – 24b – 600 = 0
Or, b (b + 25) – 24(b + 25) = 0
Or, (b - 24) (b + 25) = 0
So, b = 24 or, b = –25
Since b is positive, b = 24

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

11. Here, 10 million + 15 million + 20 million + X million = (60 x 4) million


Or, 45 million + X million = 240 million
Or, X = 240 – 45
Or, X = 195
Therefore, his sales should be 195 million.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

12. Total Charge for outgoing calls = (7 x 3 x 6.5) + (6 x 2 x 6.5) = 214.5


Total charge for incoming calls= (5 x 5 x 3.5) + (7 x 4 x 3.5) = 185.5
Therefore, total charge = 400

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

13. (x + 2)2 = 9
Or, x + 2 = ±3
So, x = 1 or x = –5
Again, (y + 7)2 = 25

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Or, y + 7 = ±5
So, y = –2 or y = –12
Therefore, least possible value of y/x = –12/1 = –12

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

14. (3x + 6y + 9z)/8 = (x + 4y)/4


Or, (3x + 6y + 9z)/2 = x + 4y
Or, 3x + 6y + 9z = 2x + 8y
Or, 9z = 2y – x
Or, z = (2y – x)/9

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

15. X = 7Z/ (Y + 0.5Z)


Or, XY + 0.5XZ = 7Z
Or, 2XY + XZ = 14Z
Or, 2XY = Z (14 – X)
Or, Z = 2XY/ (14 - X)

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

16. Here, z – 2y = x + y – 2y = x – y
Again, 2x – z = 2x – x – y = x – y
Therefore, z – 2y = 2x – z

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

17. Let, the number be n. So,


7n/8 = (5n/7) + 9
Or, 7n/8 – 5n/7 = 9
Or, (49n – 40n)/ 56 =9
Or, 9n = 56 X 9
Or, n = 56
Therefore, ¼ of n = 14

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

18. X2 – 4X – 21 = (X – 2) + 5
Or, X2 – 4X –21 – X + 2 – 5 = 0
Or, X2 – 5X – 24 = 0
Or, X2 – 8X + 3X – 24 = 0
Or, X = 8 or, X = –3
So, the sum of the solutions = 8 + (–3) = 5

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

19. a/x + b = 3
Or, a/x = 3 – b
Or, x = a/ (3 – b)

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

20. 3x – 8 = 1
Or, 3x = 9
Or, x=3

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Or, x–2=1

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

21. x2 – 5x + 6 = 0
Or, (x – 3) (x – 2) =0
Or, x = 2 or, x = 3
Again,
x2 – 4 = 0
Or, x = ±2
Therefore, x = 2

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

22. x/8 – 16/x = 1


Or, x/8 = (x + 16)/x
Or, x2/8 = x + 16
Or, x2 – 8x – 128 =0
Or, x2 – 16x + 8x – 128 = 0
Or, x (x – 16) + 8 (x – 16) = 0
Or, (x – 16) + (x + 8) = 0
Or, x = 16 or, x = –8

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

23. (ab – b + a – b2)/(a – b) =9


Or, (ab – b2 + a – b)/ (a – b) = 9
Or, {b (a – b) + 1(a – b)}/ (a – b) = 9
Or, (a – b) (b + 1)/ (a – b) = 9
Or, b + 1 =9
Or, b=8

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

24. x/a + a/b = 6


Or, x/a = 6 – a/b
Or, x/a = (6b – a)/b
Or, x = (6ab – a2) /b
Or, x = 6a – (a2/b)
Or, x = (–a2/b) + 6a

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

25. x = z+4
Again, y = 10x –16
Or, y = 10z +40 –16 (Putting the value of x)
Or, y = 10z + 24

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

26. Let, the larger number be n and the smaller number be x.


So, n = x + 24
Again, 7x/4 = n
Or, 7x/4 = x + 24 (Putting the value of n)
Or, 7x = 4x + 96
Or, 3x = 96

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Or, x = 32

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

27. x/y = 1/5


Or, 5x = y
Again, 3x+y=64
Or, 3x + 5x = 64 (Putting the value of y)
Or, 8x = 64
Or, x=8

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

28. Here, the average is,


{(x + 3)2 + (x – 3)2}/2
= (x2 + 6x + 9 + x2 – 6x + 9) / 2
= (2x2 + 18) / 2
= x2 + 9
=9+9
= 18
Again, x2 + 3x = 9 + 9 = 18

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

29. Trying out all the options we see, if x =7,


20/7 = 2 with remainder 6, which is (x – 1)

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

30. A/Q, Iftekhar earns,


{(2 x 9.5) x 8} + (9.5 x 32)
= $ 456

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

31. Here, x = 4y
Or, y = x/4
Now,
1/x + 5/y = 7/4
Or, 1/x + 5/ (x/4) = 7/4 (Putting value of y)
Or, 1/x + 20 /x = 7/4
Or, 21/x = 7/4
Or, (21 X 4)/7 = x
Or, x = 12
So, y = (12/4) = 3

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

32. x/y = 4
Or, x = 4y
Again, (x – y)/x = (4y – y) / 4y = 3y/4y = 3/4

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

33. (m2 + m – 6)/6 = 1


Or, m2 + m – 6 = 6

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Or, m2 + m – 12 =0
Or, m2 + 4m – 3m –12 = 0
Or, (m + 4) (m – 3) = 0
Or, m = –4 or m = 3
None of the acceptable values of m are given in the options.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

34. x/(y + 3) = 2/7


Or, 2y + 6 = 7x
Or, y = (7x – 6)/2

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

35. 3x/4 = 12
Or, x= 16
Or, x/8 = 2

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

36. (4 – 3x) will have its minimum value if x is maximum.


x is any negative number. So, it does not necessarily have to be an integer.
So the maximum possible of value can’t be determined.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

37. Let the smaller number be x.


Then, larger number = (x + 1365).
We know, Dividend = (Divisor x Quotient) + Remainder
So A/Q,
x + 1365 = 6x + 15
Or, 5x = 1350
Or, x = 270

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

38. Let the price of a table be x & the price of a chair be y


Now, 3x + 4y = 3300______ (1)
Again, 2x + 10y = 3300______ (2)
(1) & (2) imply
3x + 4y = 2x + 10y
Or, x = 6y ______ (3)

Now, putting value of x from (3) into (1)


3 X 6y + 4y = 3300
Or, 18y + 4y = 330
Or, 22y = 3300
Or, y = 3300/22 = 150
So, x = 6 X 150 = 900, and (x + y) = 150 + 900 = 1050

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

39. Let the overtime work hours be x


Now, regular work hours in 4 weeks = 6*10*4 = 240 hours
A/Q, 2.10 X 240 + 4.20x = 525
Or, 504 + 4.2x = 525

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Or, 4.2x = 21
Or, x = 21/4.2 = 5
So, total work hours = 240 + 5 = 245

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

40. Let number of ducks be x & number of cows be y.


Total number of heads = x + y
Total number of legs = 2x + 4y
Now, 2x + 4y = 28 + 2(x + y)
Or, 2x +4y – 2x – 2y = 28
Or, 2y = 28
Or y= 28/2 = 14

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

41. The least number of coins a pocket can hold is 1. So, 4 pockets should contain 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4 coins.
The rest should contain 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 14 coins.
So, least possible number of total coins = 4 + 14 = 18 coins.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

42. Let, the middle term be x.


So, the integers are (x-1), x and (x+1)
A/Q,
(x – 1)*(x)*(x + 1) = 210
Or, (x2 – 1)*(x) = 210
Or, x3 – x = 210
Now, the closest perfect cube greater than 210 is 216 i.e. 6 3. So, we should try out numbers adjacent to 6.
Putting x = 6 in LHS, we find LHS = RHS.
So, the numbers are 5, 6 and 7.

Therefore, their sum = (5 + 6 + 7) = 18.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

43. Let, the number be x


(x/5) – 4 = 20
Or, x/5 = 24
Or, x = 120

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Review Test 1

1. Which of the following must be odd?


I. Even × Even II. Odd × Odd III. Even + Odd

a. None
b. I only
c. II and III only
d. I an III only
e. I, II and III

2. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer.
If he attempts all 80 questions and secures 120 marks, how many questions does he answer correctly?

a. 30 b. 60 c. 50 d. 40 e. None of these

3. If x and y are both odd integers, which of the following numbers must be an even integer?

a. x2 + y – 1 b. xy + y2 c. x + y + 1 d. xy + 2 e. None of these

4. What is the sum of all even natural numbers from 1 to 101?

a.5050 b.2550 c.5040 d.2540 e. None of these

5. On dividing a number by 5, we get 3 as remainder. What will the remainder when the square of the number is
divided by 5?

a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 e. None of these

6. A 3-digit number 4a3 is added to another 3-digit number 984 to give a 4-digit number 13b7, which is divisible by
11. Then, (a + b) =?

a. 10 b. 11 c. 12 d. 15 e. None of these

7. On dividing a number by 357, we get 39 as remainder. On dividing the same number 17, what will be the
remainder?

a. 0 b. 3 c. 5 d. 11 e. None of these

8. Minik contributed 1/4 of his salary to a charity, which is half the salary of Rafid. Rafid contributed 2/5 of his
salary to the same charity, which is twice the salary of Shabab. Shabab contributed 5/16 of his salary to the
charity. If Rafids’s salary is Tk. 40,000, what was the total contribution to the charity?

a. Tk. 38500 b. Tk. 42500 c. Tk. 38875 d. Tk. 39675 e. None of these

9. A club has equal number of male and female members. On a certain day, two fifths of the members were absent.
Of the members present, one third were female. What is the ratio of male and female members who were not
present on that day?

a. 1 b. 3/5 c. 2/3 d. 1/3 e. None of these

10. A sum of TK. 2200 has been divided among A, B and C such that A gets 1/4 of what B gets and B gets 1/5 of
what C gets. What is B's share?

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a. TK. 341 b. TK. 364 c. Tk. 372 d. TK. 352 e. None of these

11. One-third of Rahul's savings in National Savings Certificate is equal to one-half of his savings in Public Provident
Fund. If he has TK. 1, 80,000 as total savings, how much has he saved in Public Provident Fund?

a. TK. 72000 b. TK. 44000 c.TK. 58000 d.TK. 92000 e. None of these

12. If both 52 and 32 are factors of x where x = n × 25 × 62 × 73, what is the smallest possible positive value of n?

a. 25 b. 27 c. 45 d. 75 e. None of these

13. A room has equal number of men and women. Eight women left the room, leaving twice as many men as women
in the room. What was the total number of men and women present in the room initially?

a. 32 b. 34 c. 28 d. 30 e. None of these

14. How many pieces of 85 cm length can be cut from a rod 42.5 metres long?

a. 15 b. 20 c. 2 d. 50 e. None of these

15. In a garden, 26 trees are planted at equal distances along a yard 300 meters long, one tree being at each end
of the yard. What is the distance between two consecutive trees?

a. 10 metres b. 20 metres c. 14 metres d. 12 metres e. None of these

Answers
1. c 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. d
6. a 7. c 8. a 9. d 10. d
11. a 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. d

Solution
1. We know Even x Even = Even, Odd x Odd = Odd & Even + Odd = Odd
So, (II) & (III) are both odd.

So, Option (c) is the correct answer.

2. Let the correctly answered questions be x.


So, questions answered wrong are (80-x)
Now, 4x – 1*(80-x) = 120
Or, 4x – 80 + x = 120
Or, 5x = 200
Or, x = 200/5 = 40

So, option (d) is the correct answer.


3. Here,
Option (a) implies: Since x is odd, x2 is also Odd. So, Odd + Odd – Odd = Odd.
Option (b) implies: xy is Odd & y2 is Odd. So, Odd + Odd = Even.
Option (c) implies: Odd + Odd + Odd = Odd
Option (d) implies: xy is Odd. So, Odd + Even = Odd

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

4. We know, Sum of consecutive integers from 1 to n = n(n+1)/2

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So, (2 + 4 + ……… + 98 + 100)
= 2(1 + 2 + ……… + 49 + 50) [taking 2 as common]
= 2 X (50 X 51)/2
= 2550

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. Let, the number = 5q + 3 [divided by 5, quotient = q, remainder= 3]


Square of the number= (5q + 3)2= 25q2 + 30q + 9 = 5(5q2 + 6q +1) + 4
So, dividing the square by 5, the remainder will be 4

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

6. 13b7 is divisible by 11. If we apply the method of long division, we see that the information in the blank boxes
are missing as we don’t know the value of b. From there through back calculation and trial and error, we can
understand the blank box should contain 2. This leads us to find the value of b to be 9.

Cross checking,
127 X 11= 1397
So, b = 9
1397 – 984 = 413
Now,
4a3 = 413
So, a = 1
That means, a + b= 1 + 9 = 10

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

7. Let x be the number and y be the quotient. Then,


x = 357*y + 39
= 357*y + 34 + 5
= (17* 21* y) + (17* 2) + 5
= 17(21y + 2) + 5
The 17(21y +2) part is divisible by 17
Required remainder = 5.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

8. Rafid’s Salary = 40000tk


So, Rafid’s contribution = 40000*2/5 = 16000tk
So, Makin’s contribution= 40000*1/2 = 20000tk
Shabab’s Salary = 16000/2 = 8000tk
So Shabab’s contribution = 8000*5/16= 2500tk
So, Total contribution= 16000+20000+2500 = 38500tk

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

9. Let total number of members in the club be x. Male members = Female members = x/2
Absent members = 2x/5

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So present members= 3x/5
Present female members= 3x/5 * 1/3 = x/5
So, present male members = 3x/5 – x/5 = 2x/5
Absent male members = x/2 -2x/5 = (5-4) x/10= x/10
Absent female members= x/2 – x/5 = (5-2) x/10 = 3x/10
So, ratio of absent male & female members = (x/10)/(3x/10)= 1/3

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

10. Let, C’s share = x


B’s share = (x/5)
A’s share = (¼) of (x/5) = (x/20)
According to the question,
x+ (x/5) + (x/20) = 2200
Or, (20x+ 4x + x)/20 = 2200
Or, 25x= 2200* 20
Or, x = (2200* 20)/ 25
Or, x= 1760
B’s share = x/5 = 1760/5 =352

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

11. Let, the public provident fund savings ( ppfs) = x


⅓ X savings in the national savings certificate (snsc) = x/2
3𝑥
So, snsc =
2
According to the question,
x + (3x/2) = 180000
Or, 5x = 360000
Or, x = 72000
So the the ppfs is Tk. 72000

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

12. x is divisible by 52 or 25 and 32 or 9.


Now, 32 is present but 25 is not present in the other factors i.e. 2 5 x 62 x 73
So, 25 is the minimum value of n.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

13. Let the number of men be x & number of women be y.


Given, x = y _____ (1)
And, 2(y – 8) = x
Or, 2y – 16 = x _____ (2)
Now, putting value of x from (1) into (2)
2x – 16 = x
Or, x = 16.
So, y = 16
Now, x + y = 16 + 16 = 32

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

14. We know, 1 meter = 100cm. 42.5 meter = 4250 cm


So, number of pieces = 4250/85 = 50

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So, option (d) is the correct answer.

15. For planting trees, one had to be put in the end to cover the distance between the trees.
So, the distance between the trees = 300 / (26 - 1) = 300/25 = 12

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

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Review Test 2

1. If (a + b + c)/7 = (a + c) /4. Then that is the value of b?

a. 3(a + c)/4 b. (a + c)/4 c. (a + c)/8 d. (a + c)/12 e. None of these

2. An organization decided to raise TK. 6 lakh by collecting equal contribution from each of its employees. If each
of them had contributed TK. 60 extra, the contribution would have been TK. 6.24 lakh. How many employees
are there in that organization?

a. 400 b. 300 c. 200 d. 100 e. None of these

3. The unit’s digit in the number (3127)173 is:

a. 1 b. 3 c. 7 d. 9 e. None of these

4. If ¼ of a number is 16 then ½ of the number is-

a. 1/8 b. ¼ c. 16 d.24 e.32

5. If x2 – y2 = 16. Then 4 (x + y) (x – y) =?

a. 64 b. 32 c. 16 d. 8 e. 128

6. The price of 24 apples is equal to that of 28 oranges. The price of 45 apples and 60 oranges together is TK.
1350. The total price of 30 apples and 40 oranges is

a. tk. 920 b. tk. 940 c. tk. 880 d. tk. 900 e. None of these

7. How many of the following numbers are divisible by 132?

264, 396, 462, 792, 968, 2178, 5184

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. None of these

8. A number when divided by the sum of 555 and 445 gives two times their difference as quotient and 30 as the
remainder. The number is:

a. 1220 b. 1250 c. 22030 d. 220030 e. None of these

9. If n is a natural number, then (6n2 + 6n) is always divisible by:

a. 6 only
b. 6 and 12 both
c. 12 only
d. by 18 only
e. none of these

10. An engineer, designed a ball so that when it was dropped, it rose with each bounce exactly one-half as high as
it had fallen. The engineer dropped the ball from a 36-foot platform and caught it after it had traveled 33.75
yards. How many times did the ball bounce?

a. 6 b. 12 c. 5 d. 4 e. None of these

11. Which of the following fractions is the smallest?

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a. 33/128 b. 45/138 c. 53/216 d. 83/324 e. 15/59

12. If all chocolates from a box were equally distributed among some children, each child would get 3 chocolates.
If four more children are added to the group and you want to give each child 2 chocolates, you will run short by
two chocolates. How many chocolates do you have for distribution?

a. 15 b. 17 c. 18 d. 19 e. none of these

13. At room temperature, yeast doubles in every 10 minutes. In an hour, what will be the total number of yeast from
an initial number of 3?

a. 18 b. 192 c. 144 d. 96 e. 729

Answers
1. a 2. a 3. c 4. e 5. a

6. d 7. c 8. d 9. b 10. d

11. c 12. c 13. b

Solution

1. (a + b + c)/7 = (a + c)/4
Or, 4a + 4b + 4c=7a + 7c
Or, 4b = 3a + 3c
Or, b = 3(a + c)/4

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

2. Let the numbers of employees be x and contribution by each employee be y.


Now, xy = 600000_____ (1)
Again, x(y + 60) = 624000
Or, xy + 60x = 624000_____ (2)
Now, putting value of xy from (1) into (2)
600000 + 60x = 624000
Or, 60x = 624000 – 600000
Or, x = 24000/60 = 400

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

3. Unit’s digit in 3127173 = unit’s digit in 7173 = unit’s digit in (74)43 x 71


Now, unit’s digit in 74 is 1
Therefore, unit’s digit in (74)43 is 1
Therefore, unit’s digit in (74)43 x 71 is 7
Unit’s digit in 3127173 is 7

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

4. n/4 = 16
Or, n/2 = 32

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

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5. x2 – y2 = 16
Or, (x + y) (x – y) =16
Or, 4 (x + y) (x – y) = 64

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

6. Let the price of apples be x & the price of oranges be y.


Given, 24x = 28y
Or, 6x = 7y
Or, x = 7y/6______ (1)
Again, 45x + 60y = 1350______ (2)
Now, putting value of x from (1) into (2)
45 X (7y/6) + 60y = 1350
Or, 52.5y + 60y = 1350
Or, 112.5y = 1350
Or, y = 1350/112.5 = 12
So, x = 7 X 12/6 = 14
Now, 30x + 40y = (30 X 14) + (40 X 12) = 420 + 480 = 900

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

7. A number is divisible by 132, if it is divisible by each one of 11, 3 and 4.


968 is not divisible by 3.
None of 462 and 2178 is divisible by 4.
Also, 5184 is not divisible by 11.
Each one of remaining 3 is divisible by each one of 11, 3 and 4 and therefore, by 132. So three numbers are
divisible by 132

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

8. The sum of 555 and 445 is = 555 + 445 = 1000


The difference of 555 and 445 is = 555 – 445= 110
The number when divided by 1000 gives the quotient of two times 110 or 220 and leaves 30 as remainder.
So the number is = (1000*220) + 30 = 220030

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

9. 6n2 + 6n = 6n (n + 1)
6n (n + 1) is divisible by 6
Again, n (n + 1) is always even
So, 6n (n + 1) is an even multiple of 6
So, it can be divided by both 6 and 12

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

10. 33.75 yards = 101.25 ft.


For the first bounce = 36 + 18 ft = 54 ft
For the second bounce = 18 + 9 = 27 ft
For the third bounce = 9 + 4.5 = 13.5 ft
For the fourth bounce = 4.5 + 2.25 = 6.75 ft
Total distance = 101.25 ft
Therefore, the ball bounced 4 times

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

11. Comparing Option (a) & Option (b), 33 X 138 = 4554, 128 X 45 = 5760, so 33/128 < 45/138. Option (a) is smaller.

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Comparing Option (a) & Option (c), 33 X 216 = 7128, 128 X 53 = 6784, so 33/128 > 52/216. Option (c) is smaller.
Comparing Option (c) & Option (d), 53 X 324=17172, 216 X 83 = 17928, so 53/216 < 83/324. Option (c) is smaller.
Comparing Option (c) & Option (e), 53 X 59=3127, 216 X 15 = 3240, so 53/216 < 15/59. Option (c) is smaller.

So, Option (c) is the correct answer.

12. Let the number of chocolates be n. So, number of children is n/3


A/Q, (n/3 + 4) x 2 = n + 2
Or, (n + 12)/3 x 2 = n + 2
Or, (n + 12) x 2 = 3n + 6
Or, 2n + 24 = 3n + 6
Or, n = 18

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

13. Number of times doubled = 60min/10 min = 6 times


So, total number of yeasts = 3 x 26 = 192

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Review Test 3

1. If x and y are positive even integers and z is an odd integer, which one of the following statements cannot be
true?

a. (x – z) 𝑦 2 is odd
b. (x – z)2 y is even
c. (x – z) y is even
d. (x – y)2 z is even
e. None of these

2. A club collected exactly Tk. 129 from its members. If each member contributed at least Tk. 13, what is the
greatest number of members the club could have?

a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11 e. None of these

3. If x/3 + 13 = x /4 + 25, x =?

a. 144 b. 118 c. 124 d. –114 e. None of these

4. If 6 is subtracted from one-fourth of a number, the result is 24. Which of the following is the number?

a. 56 b. 72 c. 96 d. 120 e. None of these

5. The 276 members of Metro Chamber of Commerce will vote to choose a president. With 5 candidates seeking
office, what is the least number of votes a successful candidate could receive and yet have more votes than
any other candidate?

a. 55 b. 56 c. 92 d. 138 e. 139

6. The least number which must be added to 6709 to make it exactly divisible by 9 is:

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. None of these

7. If the number 517#324 is completely divisible by 3, then the smallest whole number in the place of # will be:

a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. None of these

8. Sabina needs to make a cake and some cookies. The cake requires 3/20 cup of sugar and the cookies require
1/10 cup of sugar. If Sabina has 1/4 cup of sugar then:

a. She needs 1/10 of a cup of sugar


b. She needs 1/8 of a cup of sugar
c. She needs 3/80 of a cup of sugar
d. She needs 4/19 of a cup of sugar
e. None of these

9. A gas tank is 1/3rd full and requires 70 gallons more to make it 4/5th full. What is the capacity of the tank?

a. 210 b. 120 c. 135 d. 150 e. 140

10. A certain test consists of 7 sections with 15 questions numbered from 1 to 15, in each section. If a student
answered all of the even-numbered questions correctly and 3/4 of the odd numbered questions correctly, what
was the total number of questions he answered correctly?

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a. 84 b. 93 c. 91 d. 98 e. None of these

11. The value of P, when 4864 x 9P2 is divisible by 12, can be

a. 7 b. 5 c. 8 d. 9 e. None of these.

12. What is the largest integer, n, that satisfies the inequality (𝑛2 + 5n– 93) < (𝑛2 – 12n + 9)?

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 e. None of these

Answer

1. a 2. b 3. a 4. d 5. b
6. d 7. c 8. e 9. d 10. c
11. a 12. b

Solution
1. Option (a) is false because, y2 is even. And if an even number is multiplied to any number, the product is even.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

2. 13 x10 =130. If each member paid at least 13 the club has to have less than 10 members. So, the greatest
number of members it can have is 9.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

3. x/3 + 13 = x/4 + 25
Or, x/3 – x/4 = 12
Or, (4x – 3x)/12=12
Or, x = 144

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

4. Let the number be n


n/4 – 6 = 24
Or, n/4 = 30
Or, n = 120

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

5. 276/ 5 = 55.2. So, a person needs at least 56 votes to win.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

6. The number 6709 is not divisible by 9.


Now if we divide 6709 /9 = 745.4444…. = 745 + (4/9)
We get a remainder 4
If we subtract 4 from 6709, we get 6709 – 4 = 6705

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6705 is divisible by 9
So, the next number divisible by 9 is (6705 + 9) = 6714
So, we have to add (6714 – 6709) = 5

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

7. If a number is to be divisible by 3
The sum total of the digits has to be divisible by 3.
The number refers to as 517#324 where # is a digit in the number
The sum total of the digits = 5 + 1 + 7 + # + 3 + 2 + 4 = 22 + #
The smallest digit as # that makes the number divisible by 3 will be the number that makes the sum of the digits
equal to the smallest multiple of 3 that is greater than 22.
The smallest multiple greater than 22 is 24
So, # = 24 – 22 = 2

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

8. Total sugar that Sabina needs = 3/20 + 1/10 = 5/20 = ¼


So, she has enough sugar.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

9. Let the total capacity be x


4x/5 – x/3 = (12 – 5) x/15= 7x/15
Now, 7x/15 =70
So, x = 150

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

10. Even numbers in (1 – 15) = 7


Total even number questions answered correctly = 7 X 7 = 49
Odd numbers in (1 – 15) = 8
Total odd number questions answered correctly = 7 X 8 X 3/4= 42
Total questions answered correctly = 49 + 42 = 91

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

11. 4864 is divisible by 4, but indivisible by 3


So, for 4864 x 9P2 to be divisible by 12
9p2 has to be divisible by 3
To be divisible by 3, the sum of the digits has to be divisible by 3
Here, 9 + P + 2= 11+ P
The nearest numbers greater than 11 which is divisible by 3 are 12, 15, 18
So, the value of P = 12 – 11 = 1, or 15 – 11 = 4, or 18 – 11 = 7

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

12. (n2 + 5n – 93) < (n2 – 12n + 9)


Or, 5n + 12n < 9 + 93
Or, 17n < 102
Or, n<6
Therefore, highest possible integer is 5.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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PERCENTAGE

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Percentage (শিকরো)

The meaning of ‘Percent’ is parts per hundred. It is basically a ratio between two numbers where the second number is
100. That is, x:y or x/y where y = 100. Whenever we use the term ‘percent’ or the symbol “%” it means 1/100.
For example, 20% = 20 x (1/100) = 20/100 = 1/5

● If we want to measure ‘x %’ of a number ‘y’, we simply multiply ‘y’ by ‘x %’


For example: 20% of 50 = (20/100) x 50 = 10.

● 100% of a number is the number itself

For example: 100 % of 50 = (100/100) x 50 = 50

● To calculate what % of a number ‘x’ is another number ‘y’, we multiply (y/x) by 100.
For example: 10 is what % of 50?
Answer: (10/50) x 100 = 20.

● If a number ‘x’ increases by 20 %, the result is x + (20 % of x)

For example: If 50 increases by 20 %, the result is (50 + 20 % of 50) = (50 + 10) = 60


We can also say if a number ‘y’ increases by 20 %, the result is y multiplied by 1.2
For example: If 50 increases by 20 %, the result is 50 x 1.2 = 60
As, {(50 x 1) + (20/100) x 50} = {(50 x 1) + (0.2 x 50)} = 50 x (1 + 0.2) = 50 x 1.2 = 60

● If a number ‘x’ decreases by 20 %, the result is x – (20 % of x)

For example: If 50 decreases by 20%, the result is (50 – 20 % of 50) = (50 - 10) = 40
We can also say if a number ‘y’ decreases by 20 %, the result is y multiplied by 0.8
For example: If 50 decreases by 20 %, the result is 50 x 0.8 = 40
As, {(50 x 1) – (20/100) x 50} = {(50 x 1) – (0.2 x 50)} = 50 x (1 – 0.2) = 50 x 0.8 = 40

Type 1: Basic Percentage Math

Math in this type can be easily solved by assuming the value of a certain variable or total number of elements to be 100
or a multiple of 100 and compare with the given situation in the question. We can also assume the value of the variable
or total number to be ‘x’ and proceed accordingly.

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অর্াৎ,
ণ মযশকাশনা চ শকর মান ১০০ বা ১০০ এর গুণর্তক যশর ণনশয় প্রশে উশেণখ্ত মাশনর সাশর্ ঐণকক ণনয়ম বযবহার কশর প্রকৃত
মানটি মবর করা যায়। আবার চ শকর মান ‘x’ যশরও সহশজই অংকগুশ া করা যায়।

Example: A club sold drama tickets for Tk. 100 each for donating to an orphanage. One member sold 75% of his tickets
and had 80 tickets left. How much money did the member collect?

Let, total number of tickets = x


So, the member sold 0.75x and has (x – 0.75x) = 0.25x tickets
According to question, 0.25x = 80.
So, x = (80/0.25) = 320.
So, 0.75x = (0.75*320) = 240
So, total money collected = (240*100) = 24,000.

Practice Math:

1. Shahjada sells 60 percent of apples he had and throws away 15 percent of the remainder. Next day he sells 50
percent of the remainder and throws away the rest. What percent of his apples does Shahjada throw away in
total?

a. 17 b. 23 c. 32 d. 34 e. None of these

2. If S is 150 percent of T, then T is what percent of S + T?

a. 40 b. 45 c. 50 d. 75 e. None of these

3. If 20% of x = y, then y% of 20 is the same as:

a. 5% of x b. 4% of x c. 20% of x d. 10% of x e. None of these

4. The price of a book is 200% of a pen. If the price of the pen increases by 10% and the price of the book decreases
by 10%, what percent of the pen’s original price is the new combined price of the pen and book?

a. 300 b. 290 c. 280 d. 260 e. None of these

5. Shahriar earns 40% less than Adree. Jawad’s income is 40% of Adree’s income. What % of Shahriar’s income
does Jawad earn?

a. 100 b. 50 c. 33.33 d. 66.66 e. None of these

6. In an election contested by two parties, Party A secured 10% of the total votes more than Party B. If party B got
3150 votes and there are no invalid votes, by how many votes did it lose the election?

a. 500 b. 600 c. 700 d. 800 e. None of these

7. A company spends 42% of their budget on advertising, 10% on research, 29% on production and the remaining
Tk. 988000 for salaries. What is the company’s total budget in thousand BDT?

a. 4800 b. 5000 c. 5200 d. 5400 e. 6200

8. In a school, 60% students know how to cycle. Of the cyclists, 75% own a mountain bike. The rest 12 cyclists
own a road bike. How many students don’t know how to cycle?

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a. 32 b. 40 c. 42 d. 48 e. None of these

9. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks
was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are:

a. 43, 34 b. 54, 45 c. 51, 42 d. 33, 42 e. None of these

10. In a flight, 40% passengers pre-ordered duck, 30% pre-ordered chicken. The rest 24 passengers didn’t pre-order
their dinner. What is the maximum number of duck meals that could be required on that flight?

a. 36 b. 24 c. 32 d. 56 e. Cannot be determined

11. What is 10% of y/2, if 4y/5 is 10% of 800?

a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 4 e. None of these

.
Answers:
1. b 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. d
6. c 7. c 8. a 9. d 10. d
11. c

Solutions:

1. Let, the total number of apples = 100


So, Shahjada sells 60% of 100 = (60/100) x 100 = 0.6 x 100 = 60 apples
So, he has (100 – 60) = 40 apples left
Now he throws away 15% of the remainder. So he throws away,
15% of 40 = 0.15 x 40 = 6 apples.
So, he now has (40 – 6) = 34 apples left.
Next day, he sells 50% of 34 apples = 0.50 x 34 = 17 apples
And throws away the rest 17 apples
So, in total he throws away (17 + 6) = 23 apples

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. Let, T = 100
So, S = 1.5 x 100 = 150
So, T is 100 / (100 + 150) = 100/250 = 0.4 = 40% of S + T

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

3. Let, x = 100
So, y = 100 x 0.2 = 20
Now, y% of 20 = 20% of 20 = 0.2 x 20 = 4
Again, 4 = 4% of 100 = 4% of x

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

4. Let, price of the pen is 100


So, the price of the book is 200
So, after a 10% increase, the price of the pen becomes (100 x 1.1) = 110
And, after 10% decrease, the price of the books becomes (200 x 0.90) = 180
So, the new combined price of the book and the pen = 290

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So, compared to the original price of the pen, the new combined price is (290/100) = 2.9 times
Or, we can write the new combined price is 290% of the original price of the pen

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. Let, Adree’s income = 100 Taka


So, Shahriar’s income = 100 – (0.4 x 100) = 100 – 40 = 60 Taka
And, Jawad’s income = 0.4 x 100 = 40 Taka
So, the required percentage = (40/60) x 100% = 66.66%

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

6. Here Party A secured 10% of the total votes more than B and there were no invalid votes
So, A got 55% of the total votes
And B got 45% of the total votes.
Given, 45% of total votes = 3150
So, 10% of total votes = (3150/45) x 10 = 700 votes

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

7. The company spends on advertising, research and production, (42 + 10 + 29) = 81% of its total budget
So, it has (100 – 81) = 19% of its remaining budget for salaries
Given, 19% of its budget = 988000 = 988 thousand BDT
So, its total budget = (988/19) x 100 = 5200 thousand BDT

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

8. Let, total number of students = a


So, number of students who can cycle = 0.6a
And, number of students who can’t cycle = (a – 0.6a) = 0.4a
Now, number of students who own a mountain bike = (0.75 x 0.6a) = 0.45a
So, number of students who own a road bike = (0.6a – 0.45a) = 0.15a
Given, 0.15a = 12
So, number of students who can’t cycle = (12/0.15a) x 0.4a = 32

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

9. Let, total marks obtained by them be ‘a’


So, one student gets 0.56a
And, the other student gets 0.44a
A/Q, 0.56a – 0.44a = 9
Or, 0.12a =9
Or, a = (9/0.12) = 75
So, the first student gets (0.56 x 75) = 42
And the other student gets, (42-9) = 33

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

10. Here,
The percent of total passengers who didn’t pre-order their dinner = 100 – (40 +30) = 30%
A/Q, 30% of passengers = 24
So, Total number of passengers = (24/0.3) = 80
So, the number of people who pre-ordered duck = (80 x 0.4) = 32
Now, the people who didn’t pre-order meals can all order duck during flight
So, the maximum number of duck meals that could be required is (24 + 32) = 56

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So, option (d) is the correct answer.

11. 4y/5 = 800 * 0.1


Or, y = (5*80) / 4
Or, y = 100
Now, 10% of y/2 = 10% of 100/2 = 50 * 10/100 = 5

So, option (c) is the right answer.

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Type 2: Percentage and Fractions

Fractions and Percentage are both interchangeable. The math discussed under this type contain both fractions and
Percentage. It is important to keep the following values in mind:

1/2 = 0.5 = 50% 1/3 = 0.333 = 33.33% 1/4 = 0.25 = 25% 1/5 = 0.20 = 20%

1/6 = 0.166 = 16.67% 1/8 = 0.125 = 12.5% 1/10 = 0.10 = 10% 2/3 = 0.666 = 66.66%

3/4 = 0.75 = 75%

Practice Math:

1. In BBA 27th, 20% of students are below 18 years of age. The number of students above 18 years of age is 2/3
of the number of students of 18 years of age. There are 48 students who are 18 year old. What is the total
number of students in BBA 27th?

a. 80 b. 100 c. 120 d. 150 e. None of these

2. Aateeya multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3.What is the % of error in her calculation?

a. 50 b. 60 c. 64 d. 125 e. 166.66

3. Bangladesh Cricket Team has won 19 out of 30 matches it has played in 2018. If there are 25 more matches to
be played in 2019 and Bangladesh wants to win ⅘ of all the matches in the two years, what percent of remaining
matches must Bangladesh win in 2019?

a. 25 b. 50 c. 60 d. 80 e. 100

4. In a box there are red and blue balls. The number of blue balls is twice the number of red balls. If 1/4 of the blue
balls are taken out and 1/2 of the red balls are taken out, what % of the total balls have been removed?

a. 12.5 b. 16.67 c. 25 d. 33.33 e. 40

5. Mr. Taijul had two sons and two daughters. He distributed his total wealth in such a way that the total amount
of money received by his sons was half of what his two daughters received together. If both sons received an
equal share of money, what percent of Mr. Taijul’s total wealth did one of the sons get?

a. 25 b. 20 c. 30 d. 16.67 e. 12.5

Answers:
1. b 2. c 3. e 4. d 5. d

Solutions:

1. Here, the number of students who are above 18 years of age = (2/3) of 48 = 32
A/Q, (48 + 32) = 80 students make up 80% of the total students

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So, total students in BBA 27th = 100

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. Here, Aateeya’s margin of error was (5/3) – (3/5) = 16/15


So, in terms of percentage, her error was,
(16/15) ÷ (5/3)
= 16/25
= 0.64
= 64%

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. Total number of matches in 2019, (30 + 25) = 55


Bangladesh needs to win a total of (4/5) of 55 = 44 matches
So, they need to win (44-19) = 25 more matches
So, they need to win 100% of their remaining matches

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

4. Let, there are 100 red balls in the box


So, there are 200 blue balls in the box
By taking out ¼ of the blue balls, (200/4) = 50 balls are removed
And, by taking out ½ the red balls, (100/2) = 50 balls are removed
So, in total (50 + 50)/300 = 100/300 = 0.3333 = 33.33% balls are removed

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

5. Let, each son gets x


So, total amount received by sons = 2x
So, total amount received by daughters = 4x
So, Mr. Taijul’s total wealth = 6x
So, the required percentage = (x/6x) × 100% = 16.67%

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

Type 3: Multiple ranges

এ যরশনর অংশক ণবণভন্ন range উশেখ্ করা র্াশক। মকান range এ কত percent মদয়া আশে তা ভা কশর মখ্য়া রাখ্শত হয়।

Practice Maths:

1. A superstore gives 8% discount on any purchase between 4000-6000 Taka. Any purchase above that, results in
a 12% discount on the entire sum. If a person received a discount of Tk. 900 after a purchase, what was the
value of the purchase?

a. 5800 b. 6000 c. 7200 d. 7500 e. 7800

2. Customers who spend between 2000-5000 Taka in a store get a 10% discount. Anybody spending more gets a
discount of 15%. If a person ends up paying 4675 Taka after discount, what was the original bill?

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a. 4900 b. 4975 c. 5500 d. 5750 e. None of these

3. A company pays a tax of 10% on its first Tk. 100,000 earnings and 12% on all earnings in excess of Tk. 100,000.
How much tax does the company pay if it earns 240,000 Taka?

a. 26,800 b. 28,800 c. 36,000 d. 27,800 e. None of these

Answers:
1. d 2. c 3. a

Solutions:

1. Here, the maximum discount a person can get while in the 8% range is (6000 x 0.08) = 480 Taka
Since the person received a discount of 900 Taka, we understand they spent over 6000 Taka.
So, the discount amount is 12% of the purchase amount.
So, the value of the purchase is (900/0.12) = 7500

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. Here, a person purchasing 5000 Taka worth of item, ends up paying (5000 x 0.9) = 4500 Taka
Since, the total bill after discount was 4675 Taka, we can assume the 15% discount was availed.
So, the original bill is (4675/0.85) = 5500 Taka

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. Here, the company pays for the first 100,000 Taka, (100000 x 0.10) = 10000 Taka
And, the company pays for the remaining (240,000 – 100,000) 140000 Taka,
(140000 x 0.12) = 16,800 Taka
So, total tax paid by the company is (10000 + 16800) = 26800 Taka
So, option (a) is the correct answer.

Type 4: Successive Change


If the value of something changes by a% and then undergoes b% change again, the net change can be calculated through
the formula a + b + (ab/100)

Example:
The price of oil increased by 20% in a month. It again decreased by 20% the next month. What is the net %
change in price of oil?

a. No change
b. 4% increase
c. 4% decrease
d. 2% decrease
e. None of these

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Explanation:
Here, a = 20
And, b = -20
So, a + b + (ab/100) = 20 + (-20) + [{20(–20)}/100] = –4
So, net % change is 4% decrease

So, the correct option is (c) 4% decrease.

Practice Math:

1. A successive increase of 10% and 30% on price of a good results in net change of?

a. 20% b. 40% c. 43% d. 143% e. None of these

2. The price of a good increased by 20% in January. It decreased by 15% in February. If the price of the item was
250 before the increase in January, what is the change in the price of the item now?

a. Remained the same


b. Increased by 5 Taka
c. Decreased by 5 Taka
d. Increased by 25 Taka
e. None of these

3. A local seller spends ‘M’ Taka behind growing a kg of crop. He sells it to a whole seller at a 10% increased price.
The whole seller then sells it to a retailer for 20% more price than what he paid for it. The retailer then sells it to
a consumer for 50% more price than what he paid for it. What is the selling price of the retailer in terms of M?

a. 1.32 M b. 1.82 M c. 1.98 M d. 2.64 M e. None of these

4. Armin buys stationary which has listed price of Tk.6500. She got a 12% discount on the bargain. She had to pay
a 5% tax on the discounted price. What was the amount of tax paid?

a. 300 b. 286 c. 264 d. 250 e. None of these

5. An item was marked up by 40% in January. A discount of 20% was given on February. The item was again
marked up by 25% in March. If the selling price of that item was Tk.420 after the mark up in March, what was
the selling price of that item after the mark up in January?

a. 420 b. 320 c. 300 d. 340 e. None of these

6. The rate of income tax in a state is 20%. A person had to pay income tax of Tk. a in 2018. In 2019, he got a raise
of 20%. What is the tax paid by him in 2019 in terms of a?

a. 1.2a b. 1.5a c. 4a/3 d. 2a e. None of these

7. 5% of clothes produced in a garments factory are rejects. If loss per reject item is Tk.40 and a total of Tk. 5000
loss is incurred in a day, what is the total production of the factory that day?

a. 2500 b. 2700 c. 3500 d. 4000 e. None of these

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Answers:
1. c 2. b 3. c

4. b 5. a 6. a 7. a

Solutions:

1. Here, a = 10
And, b = 30
So, net change = 10 + 30 + {(30 x 10)/100} = 43

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

2. Here, net change = 20 + (–15) + [{20(–15)}/100] = 2


So, the price increased by 2%
So, the price increased by (250 x 0.02) = 5 Taka

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

3. The successive change formula only works for taking two changes at a time. So, we will need to calculate the
net change from first two changes and then apply the same formula taking the initial net change and the last
change.
So, initial net change till the retailer,
10 + 20 + (200/100) = 32
Now, the change till the consumer,
32 + 50 + {(32 x 50)/100} = 98
So, total change from the local seller to the consumer is a 98% increase.
So, the consumer pays (M x 1.98) = 1.98M

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

4. Here, Armin’s cost after getting discount = 6500 x 0.88 = 5720


So, the tax she pays = 5720 x 0.05 = 286

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. Let, price of the item in January be a


After a markup up by 40%, the price of the item becomes 1.4a
After a discount of 20%, the price of the item becomes (1.4a x 0.8) = 1.12a
Again after markup by 25%, the price becomes (1.12a x 1.25) = 1.4a
A/Q, 1.4a = 420
So, a = (420/1.4) = 300
So, after the mark up in January, the SP = (300 x 1.4) = 420

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

6. We know 20% = 1/5


So, if 20% of his income = a
Then, his total income in 2018 = 5a

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In 2019, his income becomes (5a x 1.2) = 6a
So, the tax paid by him in 2019 = (6a x 0.2) = 1.2a

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

7. Here, total loss = 5000 Taka


So, total items rejected = (5000/40) = 125 items
A/Q, 125 items = 5% of total items
So, total production = (125/0.05) = 2500

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Type 5: Zero net change

● If a number increases by X/Y, then to restore it back to its original value, we need to decrease it by X/(X + Y).

● If a number decreases by X/Y, then to restore it back to its original value, we need to increase it by X/(Y – X).

Example:
If a number decreases by 20%, by how much should we increase it to restore it back to its original value?

a. 20% b. 25% c. 16.67% d. 30% e. None of these

Solution:
20% decrease means decrease in a number by 1/5
Here, X = 1 and Y = 5.
So, to restore it back to its original price, we need to increase the number by 1/(5-1) = 1/4
We know, 1/4 = 0.25 = 25%
So, to restore it back to its original price, we need to increase the number by 25%

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

Practice Math:

1. Oishee’s salary went down from 81,000 Taka to 72,000 Taka as her company faced some loss. By what % should
her salary be increased to restore her original salary?

a.20% b. 16% c. 9% d. 12.5% e. 11.11%

2. If the price of fish increases by 20%, by how much must a user cut down his consumption so that his expenditure
on petrol remains constant?

a. 25% b. 20% c. 16.67% d. 80% e. None of these

3. Jawad has 1 million cows at the beginning of Year 2019. The numbers grow by x% (x > 0) during the year. A
famine hits his village in the next year and many of his cows die. The cow population decreases by y% during
2020 and at the beginning of 2021 Jawad finds that he is left with 1 million cows. Which of the following is
correct?

a. x > y b. y > x c. x = y d. xy = 1 e. Cannot be determined

Answers:
1. d 2. c 3. a

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Solutions:

1. Here, Oishee’s salary decreased by (81000-72000)/81000 = 9000/81000 = 1/9


So, to restore her salary, it has to be increased by,
1/(9 – 1) = 1/8 = 0.125 = 12.5%

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. Let, before price increase, 100 kg fish cost 100 Taka


And, the user used to consume 100 kg fish paying 100 Taka.
Now, 100 kg fish costs (100 x 1.2) = 120 Taka
So, a user can now get for 100 Taka, (100/120) x 100 = 83.33 kg
So, a consumer has to cut down usage by (100 – 83.33) = 16.67%

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. Let us assume the value of x to be 10%.


Therefore, the number of cows in the herd at the beginning of year 2020 (end of 2019) will be 1 million + 10% of
1 million = 1.1 million.
In 2020, the numbers decrease by y% and at the end of the year the number cows in the herd = 1 million.
i.e., 0.1 million cows have died in 2020.
In terms of the percentage of the number of cows alive at the beginning of 2020, it will be
(0.1/1.1)*100 % = 9.09%.
From the above illustration it is clear that x > y.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Type 6: Multiple Variables
We need to work with multiple variables (একাণযক চ ক ) in this type of questions.

1. In a plane carrying 190 passengers, 20% of the business class passengers and 30% economy passengers
ordered chicken for dinner. If a total of 50 chicken dinners were ordered, how many business class passengers
were there on the flight?

a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. 80 e. 100

2. In IBA there are only BBA and MBA students. The number of BBA students is thrice that of MBA students. If 1/5
of the MBA students and 1/10 of the BBA students live in IBA hostel, what % of the total students live in IBA
hostel?

a. 16.67% b. 20% c. 25% d. 33.33% e. None of these

3. A table and chair costs Tk.8000 combined. If the price of the chair went down by 5% and the price of the table
went up by 5%, the combined price becomes Tk. 8150. What was the original price of the chair?

a. 6000 b. 2000 c. 5500 d. 2500 e. None of these

4. If the price of petrol increases by 25% and Boltu intends to spend only an additional 15% on petrol, by how much
% will he reduce the quantity of petrol purchased?

a. 20% b. 15% c. 12.5% d. 10% e. None of these

Answers:
1.c 2.a 3.d 4.e

Solutions:

1. Let, total number of business class passengers = x


So, total number of economy passengers = (190 – x)
A/Q, 0.2x + 0.3(190 – x) = 50
Or, 0.2x – 0.3x = 50 – 57
Or, –0.1x = -7
So, x = 70

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

2. Let, Number of MBA students = 100


So, number of BBA students = 300
Now, (1/5 of 100) = 20 MBA students and (1/10 of 300) = 30 BBA students live in IBA hostel.
So, (20+30) = 50 out of 300 live in IBA hostel.
Which means, 50/300 = 1/6 = 0.1666 = 16.67% students live in IBA hostel

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

3. Let, price of table= x


So, price of chair= 8000 – x
A/Q, 1.05x + 0.95 (8000 – x) = 8150

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Or, 1.05x + 7600 – 0.95x = 8150
Or, 0.10x = 550
So, x = 5500
So, (8000 – x) = 2500

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

4. Let initially, Boltu buys 100 litre petrol at 100 Taka


Now, 100 litre petrol costs 125 Taka
And, Boltu is willing to spend 115 Taka.
So, Boltu can now purchase (100/125) x 115 = 92 litre petrol.
So, he has to reduce usage by (100 – 92) = 8%

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

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Type 7: Interest
Some important terms to know:

Principal (আসল) : The initial sum of money that is kept in a bank or lent out to others. Interest rate is calculated on
principal.

Interest (সুদ): The additional money paid back to the lender along with the principal is known as interest.

Interest Rate (সুজদর হোর): The proportion of a loan that is charged as interest to the borrower, typically expressed as
an annual percentage of the loan outstanding.

Time Period (সময়): The duration for which the loan is due and the interest is accumulated.

Amount (সুদোসল): The sum total of the Principal and the total interest at the end of the time period. So,
Amount = Principal + Interest

Simple Interest (সরল সুদ): When the interest rate is always based on the initial principal after each time period, it is
called
simple interest. If,
Principal = P
Interest = I
No. of time periods = n
Interest rate = r
Then,
Interest = P X n X r
Amount = P + I
= P + Pnr
= P(1 + nr)

Compound Interest (চক্রিৃদ্ধি সুদ): Compound interest (or compounding interest) is interest calculated on the initial
principal, which also includes all of the accumulated interest of previous periods of a deposit or loan. In compound
interest, the principal amount with interest after the first unit of time becomes the principal for the next unit.
The formula used to calculate standard compound interest (including the principal) is as follows:
A = P (1 + r)n
A is the final amount you repay at the end of the loan.
P is the principal amount you borrow.
r is the annual rate of interest.
n is the number of periods you borrow/invest over.

Example:
An investment earns 10% compounded annually. Find the value of an initial investment of $5,000 after 2 years

a. 6000 b. 5500 c. 6050 d. 6500 e. None of these

Solution:
Here, r = 0.1
N=2
P = 5000
Therefore, Amount = P (1 + r)n
= 5,000 (1 + 0.1)2
= 6,050
So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Practice Math:

1. Maksud and Antor kept the same amount of money in two different banks. Maksud’s bank provided him a
simple interest rate of 20% annually. On the other hand, Antor’s bank provided him a compound interest rate of
20% annually. After 2 years, the difference between their money was 200 Taka. How much money did each of
them keep in the bank initially?

a. 2000 b. 4000 c. 5000 d. 7500 e. None of these

2. Bank C offers 6% interest rate annually and Bank A offers 8% interest rate annually. Sakib keeps a total of 10,000
Taka in the banks and at the end of the year gets 750 Taka as interest. How much money did he keep in Bank
C?

a. 2500 b. 3000 c. 4000 d. 5000 e. 7500

3. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Taka 815 in 3 years and to Taka 854 in 4 years. The sum is: Tk.
698

a. 776 b. 815 c. 715 d. 700 e. 698

4. Nazrul invested a sum of money at 20% interest rate compounded annually. After 2 years, his money grew to
28,800 Taka. How much did he invest originally?

a. 18,000 b. 19,000 c. 20,000 d. 22,000 e. 24,500

5. A man kept 5000 Taka in the bank that yields him 5% interest annually. He kept X Taka at 12% interest annually.
At the end of the year, he gets 10% interest on the entire sum of money he kept in the bank. How much money
did he invest at 12% interest?

a. 8000 b. 9600 c. 12,500 d. 10,500 e. 13,000

6. Rubaiya kept 1,00,000 Taka in the bank at x% interest rate. At the end of the year she took home 115,000 Taka
after the government deducted 20% from her total amount including interest as tax and then the bank charged
her 5000 Taka for maintenance fees. What is x?

a. 30 b. 50 c. 60 d. 70 e. None of these

7. May took a loan of 1500 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she paid 375 as interest
at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest?

a. 5% b. 6% c. 8% d. 10% e. None of these

8. Jawad takes a loan of 3200 Taka from Adree, a usurer. The interest rate charged by Adree is 50% and the
amount is to be paid back within 4 months. If Jawad manages to pay him 1000 Taka per month for the first 3
months, how much does he owe Adree in the last month?

a. 1000 b. 1200 c. 1500 d. 1800 e. 2100

Answers:

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1. c 2. a 3. e 4. c 5. c 6. b 7. a 8. d

Solution:

1. Let, both of them kept Tk. P in the bank.


So, Maksud’s amount after 2 years at 20% simple interest annually = P + (2 x 0.2P) = P + 0.4P = 1.4P
And, Antor’s amount after 2 years at 20% compound interest annually = {1.2 (1.2P)} = 1.44P
Now, A/Q,
1.44P – 1.4P = 200
Or, 0.04P = 200
So, P = (200/0.04) = 5000

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

2. Let, he invested Tk. P at Bank C.


So, he invested Tk. (10000 – P) at Bank A.
A/Q, 0.06P + 0.08(10000 – P) = 750
Solving this equation, we get, P = 2500

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

3. Here, the amount after 3 years = 815


And, amount after 4 years = 854
So, interest per year = (854 – 815) = 39
So, interest accumulated over 3 years = (39 x 3) = 117
So, principal = (815-117) = 698

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

4. Let, Nazrul’s principal be Tk. P


So, at 20% interest rate compounded annually, his amount = 1.2(1.2P) = 1.44P
A/Q, 1.44P = 28,800
Or, P = (28,800/1.44)
= 20,000

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

5. A/Q, 0.05 x 5000 + 0.12X = 0.10 (5000 + X)


Solving this equation we get,
x = 12,500

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

6. Here,
Rubaiya’s amount before maintenance fees = (115,000 + 5000) = 120,000
Her amount before tax = (120,000 / 0.8) = 150,000
Her principal = 100.000
So, her interest rate, x = (150,000 – 100,000) / 100,000 = 0.5 = 50%

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

7. Here,

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Interest = Principal x Time Period x Interest Rate
Let, Time period = Interest rate = R
So, we can write,
375 = 1500 x R x R%
Or, 375 = 1500 x R x R/100
Or, 37500 = 1500R2
Or, R2 = 25
So, R=5

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

8. Jawad needs to pay Adree, (3200 x 1.5) = 4800


He has paid back = (1000 x 3) = 3000
So, he still owes = (4800 – 3000) = 1800

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

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Type 8: Miscellaneous Problems

1. When processing flower nectar into honeybees' extract, a considerable amount of water gets reduced. How
much flower nectar must be processed to yield 1kg of honey, if nectar contains 50% water, and the honey
obtained from this nectar contains 15% water?

a. 1.5kg b. 1.7kg c. 1.8kg d. 2kg e. None of these

2. Peter got 30% of the maximum marks in an examination and failed by 10 marks. However, Paul who took the
same examination got 40% of the total marks and got 15 marks more than the passing marks. What was the
passing marks in the examination?

a. 40 b. 50 c. 65 d. 75 e. 85

3. Tamim Iqbal scored 120 runs which included 8 boundaries and 8 sixes. What percent of his total score did he
make by running between the wickets?

a. 25% b. 33.33% c. 40% d. 50% e. None of these

4. Salman went to a store and bought items worth Tk. 3200. He paid Tk. 420 as tax. If the tax rate was 15%, what
was the value of the tax free items he purchased?

a. 2800 b. 1200 c. 1000 d. 800 e. 400

5. Tahi imports a TV from abroad. He has to pay a shipping fee that costs 20% of the original cost price. In the
customs he has to pay a 25% tax on the original and shipping costs combined. He then sells the TV to his friend
at a 20% profit. If his friend had to pay him a total of 90,000 Taka, what was the original price of the TV?

a. 75,000 b. 70,000 c. 60,000 d. 50,000 e. 40,000

6. In Palette Town 40% people own cars. 25% people own motorbikes. 105 people own cycles and 140 people
don’t own any vehicles. If the total population of the town is 700, what is the ratio of car owners and people with
no vehicles?

a. 1:2 b. 2:1 c. 1:3 d. 3:1 e. 3:5

7. Two numbers A and B are such that the sum of 5% of A and 4% of B is two-third of the sum of 6% of A and 8%
of B. Find the ratio of A:B.

a. 4:3 b. 3:4 c. 3:5 d. 5:3 e. Cannot be determined

8. Tina, Mina, Gina, Lina and Bina are 5 sisters, aged in that order, with Tina being the eldest. Each of them had to
carry a bucket of water from a well to their house. Their buckets' capacities were proportional to their ages.
While returning, equal amount of water got splashed out of their buckets. Who lost maximum amount of water
as a percentage of the bucket capacity?

a. Tina b. Mina c. Gina d. Lina e. Bina

Answers:
1. b 2. e 3. b 4. e 5. d
6. b 7. a 8. e

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Solutions:

1. Flower-nectar contains 50% of non-water part.


In honey this non-water part constitutes 85% (100-15).
Therefore, 0.5 X Amount of flower-nectar = 0.85 X Amount of honey = 0.85 X 1 kg
Therefore, amount of flower-nectar needed = (0.85/0.5) * 1kg = 1.7 kg.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. Here, Difference between Peter and Paul’s marks = (40% - 30%) = 10% of total marks
Again, difference between Peter and Paul’s marks = (10+15) = 25 marks
So, 10% of total marks = 25 marks
So, Peter got, 30% of total marks = (25/0.1) x 0.3 = 75 marks
So, passing bar is (75 + 10) = 85 marks

So, option (e) is the correct answer.


3. Here, Tamim scored from boundaries, (8 x 4) = 32 runs
And, Tamim scored from sixes, (8 x 6) = 48 runs
So, he scored from running between the wickets, 120 – (32 + 48) = 40
So, the % of runs from running between the wickets (40/120) = 0.3333 = 33.33%

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

4. Here, 420 = 15% of the taxable items


So, total value of taxable items = 2800
So, the value of the tax free items he purchased = (3200 – 2800) = 400

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

5. Here, TV’s cost excluding 20% profit = (90,000/1.2) = 75,000


TV’s cost excluding 25% tax = (75,000 / 1.25) = 60, 000
TV’s cost excluding shipping fees = (60,000 / 1.20) = 50,000

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

6. Here, (40 + 25) 65% people own cars or motorbikes.


So, (100 – 65) 35% people own cycles or don’t own any vehicle.
A/Q, 35% people = (105 + 140) = 245 people
So, Total number of people = (245/0.35) = 700
So, number of car owners = (0.40 x 700) = 280
So, the required ratio = 280/140 = 2/1 = 2:1

So, option (b) is the correct answer.


7. Here, 0.05A + 0.04B = 2/3 (0.06A + 0.08B)
Or, 3 (0.05A + 0.04B) = 2 (0.06A + 0.0B)
Or, 0.15A + 0.12B = 0.12A + 0.16B
Or, 0.03A = 0.04B
Or, A/B = 0.04/0.03
Or, A/B = 4/3
So, A:B = 4:3

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

8. Tina is the older and Bina is the youngest.


So, Bina's bucket would have been the smallest.

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Each sister lost equal amount of water. As a proportion of the capacity of their buckets Bina would have lost
the most.

So, option (e) is the correct answer

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Review Test 1
1. What is the % of numbers from 1 to 50 that have 2, 3 and 4 in unit’s digit?

a. 12% b. 25% c. 30% d. 40% e. None of these

2. X = a% of b
Y = b% of a; it is true that:

a. X > Y b. Y > X c. X = Y d. X = 1/Y e. None of these

3. The population of Cinnabar Island increased by 10%, 20% and then decreased by 30%. The new population is
what % of the original?

a. 91.5% b. 94.6% c. 92.4% d. 95.8% e. 96.2%

4. Grade A steel has 20% impurities. Grade C steel has 68% impurities. What amount of Grade A steel is required
to extract pure steel equal to the pure steel extracted from 200 kg of Grade C steel?

a. 80 b. 72 c. 64 d. 60 e. None of these

5. Rabbani needed 33% marks to pass in an exam. He scored 125 and yet failed by 40 marks. What was the total
marks in that exam?

a. 275 b. 350 c. 425 d. 500 e. 550

6. Mr. Riyad spends 20% of his income for house rent, 10% for utilities and 90% of the remaining for day to day
expenditure. He saves the rest. What % of his total income does he save?

a. 6% b. 7% c. 8% d. 9% e. 10%

7. In a school, 500 books were distributed equally among students in such a way that the number of books received
by each student is 20% of the total number of students. How many books did each student receive?

a. 5 b. 7 c. 10 d. 15 e. None of these

8. If 80% of X is added to 80, the result is X. What is the value of X?

a. 320 b. 360 c. 400 d. 500 e. None of these

9. Adree’s height is 40% less than that of Ankan. By what % is Ankan taller than Adree?

a. 40% b. 60% c. 66.66% d. 33.33% e. 25%

10. A jar contained 8.4 kilos of sugar. Due to a spill, 21 grams were lost. What % of the sugar was lost?

a. 0.25% b. 0.333% c. 0.40% d. 0.50% e. 0.60%

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11. A seller usually gets 9% commission on his total sales. If the sale exceeds Tk.10,000 he gets an additional 3%
bonus commission on the excess of sales over Tk.10,000. If he gets total commission of Tk.1380, then the
bonus he received is:

a. 60 b. 80 c. 90 d. 100 e. 120

12. Arafat's salary is 40% of Bonnie's salary which is 25% of Clint's salary. What percentage of Clint's salary is
Arafat's salary?

a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. 50

13. The ratio 5 : 4 expressed as a percent equals :

a. 12.5% b. 90% c. 80% d. 125% e. None of these

14. A person got a discount of 250 Taka on a product he purchased. If he ended up paying 2500 Taka for the
product, approximately what % did the person save?

a. 8% b. 9% c. 10% d. 12.5% e. 15%

15. The price of edible oil goes up from 600 Taka per litre to 750 Taka per litre. Nahian won’t spend more than he
already does behind oil. By how much should he cut down his consumption?

a. 12.5% b. 20% c. 25% d. 37.5% e. 40%

Answers:
1.c 2.c 3.c 4.a 5.d
6. b 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. a
11. e 12. a 13. d 14. b 15. b

Solution:

1. For a range of 1 to 10, the required numbers are 2, 3 and 4 (3 out of 10 numbers)
For a range of 1 to 20, the required numbers are 2, 3, 4, 12, 13 and 14 (6 out of 20 numbers)
In all such ranges, the number count is 30% of total numbers within the range
So, the answer is 30%.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

2. Let, a = 20
And, b = 50
Now, X = a% of b = 20% of 50 = 10
Again, Y = b% of a = 50% of 20 = 10
So, X = Y

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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3. Let, population of Cinnabar Island is 100
After 10% increase it becomes, 100 x 1.1 = 110
After a further 20% increase, it becomes, 110 x 1.20 = 132
Then, after a 30% decrease, it becomes 132 x 0.70 = 92.4%

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

4. Grade C has 68% impurities. So, it contains (100 – 68) = 32% pure steel
So, from 200 kg of Grade C, we can extract 200 x (1 – 0.68) = 200 x 0.32 = 64 kg pure steel.
Again, Grade A has 20% impurities and contains 80% of pure steel.
Let, 64 kg pure steel be extracted from X kg of Grade A
So, 0.8X = 64
Or, X = 80

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

5. Rabbani scored 125 and failed by 40 marks.


So, the passing mark of that test is (125 + 40) = 165
A/Q, 165 = 33% of Total Marks
So, Total Marks = (165 ÷ 0.33) = 500

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

6. For rent and utilities Mr. Riyad spends (20 + 10) = 30% of his salary.
So, he has (100 – 30) = 70% left
He spends 90% of remaining on day to day expenditure
So, he spends (70 x 0.9) = 63% of his total salary on day to day expenditure
So, he has left 100 – (30 + 63) = 7% for savings

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

7. Let, total number of students be Y


So, each student received = 0.2Y books
Now, Total number of books = Y x 0.2Y = 0.2Y 2
A/Q, 0.2Y2 = 500
Or, Y2 = 2500
So, Y = 50
So, each student received, 0.2 x 50 = 10 books

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

8. Here, 80 + 0.8X = X
Or, X – 0.8X = 80
Or, 0.2X = 80
So, X = (80 ÷ 0.2) = 400

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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9. Let, Ankan’s height = 100
So, Adree’s height = 60
So, compared to Adree, Ankan is (100 – 60) / 60 = 40/60 = 0.666 = 66.66% taller

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

10. A jar contains, 8.4 kilo = 8400 grams of sugar


Due to a spill, 21 grams were lost
So, sugar lost = (21/8400) x 100% = 0.25%

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

11. Let, his total sales be X where X > 10,000


A/Q, He gets the bonus commission on (X – 10000) Taka of sales
A/Q, 0.09X + 0.03(X – 10000) = 1380
Or, 0.09X + 0.03X = 1380 + 300
Or, 0.12X = 1680
Or, X = 1680 ÷ 0.12 = 14000
So, he makes a total sale of 14000 Taka
So, the amount eligible for bonus is (14000 – 10000) = 4000
So, the bonus amount is, (0.03 x 4000) = 120

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

12. Let, Bonnie’s salary is 100


So, Arafat’s salary is 40
Again, Clint’s salary is (100 ÷ 0.25) = 400
So, Arafat’s salary is 40/400 = 0.10 = 10% of Clint’s salary

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

13. Here, 5:4 = 5/4 = 1.25 = 125%

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

14. Here, without the discount, the amount to be paid would be (250 + 2500) = 2750
So, the margin of saving here is (250 ÷ 2750) = 0.09 (approx)
So, he saved 9%

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

15. Let, Nahian used to consume 10 litres of oil before.


So, his consumption used to cost him 6000 Taka.
Now, 10 litres of oil cost 7500 Taka
However, Nahian still spends 6000 taka behind oil
So, his current consumption is (10 ÷ 7500) x 6000 = 8 litres of oil
So, he cut down consumption by 20%

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Review Test 2

1. A shopkeeper offered a 25% discount on items he sells and noticed his revenue increased by 20%. By what %
did his customers increase?

a. 15% b. 20% c. 25% d. 40% e. 60%

2. The difference of two numbers is 20% of the larger number, if the smaller number is 20, then the larger number
is:

a. 25 b. 30 d. 45 e. 50 e. None of these

3. Maksud sells an item at 25% cheaper than Alam. Antor sells the item at 25% higher price than Alam.
Approximately how much cheaper is Maksud’s item compared to Antor?

a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. 75% e. None of these

4. Pantasia Bakery offers a new promotion of 20% off the original price of cakes, which is Taka 120. Before the
promotion 250 cakes were sold each day. After the promotion, the sale of cakes increases an average of 18%
more per day. How much more or less does Pantasia make each day in cakes sales after the promotion?

a. 1850 less b. 2020 more c. 1750 more d. 1680 less e. None of these

5. A trader’s earning increases by 25% in first year but decreases by 4% in the next and so on. After 5 years his
earning will become Tk. 72,000. What is his present earning?

a. 32,000 b. 36,000 c. 40,000 d. 42,000 e. 45,000

6. Twenty percent of Komola’s monthly salary is equal to thirty two percent of Nasif’s monthly salary. Tirtha’s
monthly salary is four fifth that of Nasif’s monthly salary. If Tirtha’s annual salary is 384,000 Taka, what is
Komola’s monthly salary?

a. 42,000 b. 64,000 c.128,000 d. 420,000 e. 76,800

7. A farmer had 50 kilos of rice. He sold 10 kilos at a 20% profit. He then sold 30 kilos at 30% profit. The rest of
the rice remained unsold. What is his % of profit or loss?

a. 2% profit b. 4% profit c. 2% loss d. 4% loss e. 1% profit

8. A and B started a business with 30% and 70% ownership respectively. They then sold ownership of 25% of their
entire business to C for a sum of 100000 Taka. What is the worth of B’s stakes in the company?

a. 100000 b.120000 c. 90000 d. 210000 e. None of these

9. 70% students in IBA are male. From the male students, 40% have a cgpa of over 3. From the female students,
50% have a cgpa over 3. What % of students in IBA have a cgpa equal to or below 3?

a. 30% b. 43% c. 57% d. 62% e. None of these

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10. In a mocktail, 20% is lime juice, 20% is coconut milk and 60% is sugar syrup. 1.5 litre of the mocktail was mixed
with 500 ml of water. What is the ratio of water to sugar syrup in the new concoction?

a. 3:4 b. 4:3 c. 5:9 d. 9:5 e. Cannot be determined

11. There are 150 questions in a 6 hr exam. Among these questions 50 descriptive questions, each of which require
double the time than rest of the questions. How many minutes should be spent on descriptive questions?

a. 120 min b. 150 min c. 180 min d. 200 min e. 220 min

12. One-third of the boys and one-half of the girls of a college participated in a sport. If the number of participating
students is 300, out of which 100 are boys. What is the total number of students in the college?

a. 400 b. 450 c. 600 d. 700 e. None of these

13. 5% of a number is 25% more than another number. The difference between the numbers is 96. Then find the
value of the numbers?

a. 100, 4 b. 106, 10 c. 108, 12 d. 120, 16 e. None of these

14. The average marks in a finance course is 60. Top 20% of the students averaged 75 in the test and the bottom
20% of the students averaged 30. What was the average marks of the rest of the students?

a. 50 b. 60 c. 65 d. 70 e. Cannot be determined

15. The value of a phone has a 40% annual depreciation rate. If the cost of the phone is Tk.10000 today, what will
be the value of the phone after 3 years?

a. 4000 b. 3240 c. 2860 d.2160 e. None of these

Answers:
1. e 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. c
6. b 7. a 8. d 9. c 10. c
11. c 12. d 13. a 14. c 15. d

Solutions:

1. Let, the shopkeeper sold each item for 100 Taka to 100 customers
So, his initial revenue was (100 x 100) = 10000 Taka
After discount, his revenue went up by 20% and became, (10000 x 1.2) = 12000 Taka
However, he now sells each item for (100 x 0.75) = 75 Taka
So, his current customer number = (12000 ÷ 0.75) = 160
So, his customers increased by 60%

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

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2. Let the larger number be X
A/Q, X – 20 = 0.2X
Or, 0.8X = 20
So, X = (20 ÷ 0.8) = 25

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

3. Let, Alam sells the item at 100 Taka


So, Maksud sells the item at 75 Taka
Again, Antor sells the item at 125 Taka
So, Compared to Antor, Maksud sells the item at (125 – 75) / 125 = 0.4 = 40% cheaper

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

4. Previously, Pantasia used to make (120 x 250) = 30,000 Taka


Now, the price went down by 20% and became (120 x 0.80) = 96 Taka
However, the sales increased by 18% and became = (250 x 1.18) = 295 Taka
So, now Pantasia makes (295 x 96) = 28320 Taka
So, now they make (30,000 – 28,320) = 1680 Taka less

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

5. Let, his present earning = X


In year 1, it increases to 1.25X
In year 2, it decreases to (1.25 x 0.96) = 1.2X
In year 3, it increases to (1.2 x 1.25) = 1.5
In year 4, it decreases to (1.5 x 0.96) = 1.44
In year 5, it increases to (1.44 x 1.25) = 1.8
So, AQ, 1.8 = 72,000
So, X = (72,000 ÷ 1.8) = 40,000 Taka

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

6. Here, Tirtha’s annual salary is 3,84,000 Taka


So, Tirtha’s monthly salary is (384000 ÷ 12) = 32,000
So, Nasif’s monthly salary = (32,000 x 5) ÷ 4 = 40,000
Let, Komola’s salary = X
A/Q, 0.20X = 0.32 x 40,000
Or, X = (0.32 x 40,000) / 0.20 = 64,000

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

7. Let, cost of per kilo of rice be 100 Taka


So, the farmer’s total cost = (50 x 100) = 5000
He sold 10 kilos at 20% profit for (10 x 100 x 1.2) = 1200 Taka
And, 30 kilos at 30% profit for (30 x 100 x 1.3) = 3900 Taka
So, his total revenue = (1200 + 3900) = 5100 Taka
So, his profit margin, (5100 – 5000) / 5000 = 0.02 = 2% profit

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

8. A/Q, 25% of the company was worth Tk. 100000


So, worth of remaining (100 – 25) = 75% of the company is (75 x 100000) / 25 = 300000 Taka
So, A and B have 30% and 70% stakes in 300000 Taka
So, B’s stakes = (300000 x 0.70) = 210000 Taka

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So, option (d) is the correct answer.

9. Let, total number of students in IBA = 100


So, number of male students = 70
And, number of female students = 30
Number of male students with cgpa over 3 = (70 x 0.40) = 28
And, number of female students with cgpa over 3 = (30 x 0.50) = 15
So, total number of students with cgpa over 3 = (15 + 28) = 43
So, total number of students with cgpa equal or below 3 = (100 – 43) = 57
So, the answer is 57%

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

10. Here, 1.5 litre of mocktail = 1500 ml


The quantity of sugar syrup in the mocktail = (1500 x 0.60) = 900 ml
This was mixed with 500 ml of water
So, the required ratio = 500 : 900 = 5 : 9

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

11. Here, let time required to solve each regular question is a


So, total time required to solve all the regular questions = 100a
Again, time required to solve each descriptive question = 2a
So, time required to solve each descriptive question = (50 x 2a) = 100a
Here, we see that the descriptive questions take up the same time in total as all other questions
So, the descriptive questions require half of the total allotted time i.e 3 hours = 180 minutes

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

12. Let number of boys in the school = x


Let number of girls in the school = y
Number of students participated in the sports = 300
Out of which boys = 100
But given number of boys participated in sports = x/3
So, x/3 = 100
So, x = 300
Now, Remaining girls = 300 – 100 = 200
So, y/2 = 200
So, y = 400
Therefore, total number of students in the college = x + y = 300 + 400 = 700

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

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13. Let, the bigger number be A and the smaller number be B
A/Q, 0.05A = 1.25B
Or, A = 1.25B ÷ 0.05
= 25B
Again, A – B = 96
Or, 25B – B = 96
Or, B = 96/24 = 4
So, A = 25 x 4 = 100

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

14. Let, total number of students be a


So, total marks in the course is 60a
Now, 20% of students averaged 75 in the test
So, their total marks = (0.20a x 75) = 15a
Again, bottom 20% averaged 30 in the test
So, their total marks = (0.2a x 30) = 6a
The total marks obtained by the top 20% and bottom 20% = (15a + 6a) = 21a
So, total markes obtained by rest 60% students = (60a – 21a) = 39a
Now, Total marks by 0.6a students = 39a
So, each student in this middle range gets in average, (39a ÷ 0.6a) = 65

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

15. The cost of the phone after a year = 10000 x 0.6 = 6000
The cost of the phone after 2 years = 6000 x 0.6 = 3600
The cost of the phone after 3 years = 3600 x 0.6 = 2160

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

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Review Test 3

1. There are 600 footballers in a league. Among them 4% are sponsored by Nike. Of the remaining, 25% are
sponsored by Adidas. How many players are neither sponsored by Nike nor Adidas?

a. 144 b. 432 c. 576 d. 426 e. None of these

2. Last year Nafis saved 10% of his annual earnings, this year he earned 5% more than last year and he saved 12%
of his annual earnings. The amount saved this year was what percentage of the amount saved last year ?

a. 26 b. 50 c. 105 d. 126 e. None of these

3. At an examination in which maximum marks are 500. K got 10% less than L, L got 25% more than M and M got
20% less than N. If K got 360 marks what percentage of marks was obtained by N?

a. 80 b. 70 c. 60 d. 50 e. None of these

4. 3 hours constitute what % of a day?

a. 33.33% b. 12.5% c. 25% d. 11.11% e. None of these

5. Mukarram bought a movie ticket for 47 Taka. He then sold the ticket to Iftekhar for 141 Taka. What was the % of
markup?

a.300% b. 200% c. 150% d. 100% e. None of these

6. Rahim is 33.33% older than Karim. Karim is 20% older than Selim. If Rahim is 16 years old, how old will Selim be
in 6 years?

a. 16 b. 18 c. 22 d. 12 e. None of these

7. 20% of 700 is equal to 7A/2. What is the value of 30% of 3A?

a. 14 b. 30 c. 36 d. 39 e. 42

8. A packet of skittles contains 4 differently colored candies. The number of yellow candies is twice that of green
ones. The number of green candies is thrice the red ones. The number of orange candies is twice that of red
ones. What % of total candies are green?

a. 12 b. 12.5 c. 25 d. 33.33 e. 40

9. John wants to have an interest income of Tk. 3,000 a year at a 8% simple interest. What is his amount after a
year?

a. 27,778 b. 36,000 c. 37,500 d. 40,300 e. None of these

10. The cost of a school bag is 40% more than a water bottle. The cost of a pencil box is 1/3 of the bag. If the
difference between the price of the bottle and box is 320 Taka, what is the price of the school bag?

a. 320 b. 460 c. 680 d. 840 e. 960

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11. The Bangladesh cricket team had a win rate of 40% after playing 15 matches in 2019. The team went on to win
all of the remaining matches and finished 2019 with a 64% win rate. How many matches did Bangladesh play in
2019?

a. 32 b. 25 c. 22 d. 20 e. None of these

12. In Toronto, 10% people follow Basketball. 60% people follow Hockey. The rest of the population don't follow
either. If the difference between people who don’t follow any sports and people who follow hockey is 3600, how
many people follow Basketball?
a. 3600 b. 2500 c. 1200 d. 1500 e. None of these

13. 500 Taka was given as bonus to 20% of the employees in an office. If each of them gets at least 20 Taka bonus,
what is the highest possible number of employees in the office?

a. 125 b. 105 c. 100 d. 85 e. None of these

14. 30% students in a batch take finance courses. Of the students who don't choose finance, 80% choose marketing.
The remaining 70 students pick HR. How many students pick Marketing?

a. 320 b. 280 c. 240 d. 180 e. None of these

15. In a school, 80% of the students are male and 60% of the total students play football. If 20% of the girls don't play
football, what % of the boys play football?

a. 48% b. 36% c. 55% d. 60% e. None of these

16. Reevu's salary increases by 10% per year. If his monthly salary is 20000 Taka. What will be his annual salary after
2 years?

a. 264,000 b. 288,000 c. 290,400 d. 302,000 e. None of these

17. The import duty of an item costing 5000 Taka is between 2% to 6% of the cost price. Which one of the following
can be the price of the item after import duty?

a. 5090 b. 5290 c. 5340 d. 5400 e. None of these

18. In a group of 600 football fans, some support Chelsea and others support Arsenal. 85 fans are wearing jerseys
of the club they support. 10% of Arsenal fans and 20% of Chelsea fans are wearing the jerseys. How many
Chelsea fans are there in the group?

a. 200 b. 250 c. 300 d. 350 e. Can’t be determined

19. If an item costs over 500 Taka, you have to pay a 23% tax on the portion of the cost that exceeds 500 Taka. If
you had to pay 345 Taka as tax for an item, what was the cost of that item?

a. 1300 b. 1800 c. 2000 d. 2400 e. None of these

20. The difference between Simple interest and compound interest compounded annually on a certain sum of money
for 2 years at 8% per annum is Taka. 12.80. Find the principal.

a. 1200 b. 1800 c. 2000 d. 2300 e. None of these

21. Sadia has received 13 A's in 15 courses she has taken at IBA. How many more A's does she need to ensure she
ends up with at least 92% A's in all 40 courses in IBA?

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a. 18 b. 19 c. 22 d. 24 e. None of these

22. The price of vegetables went up by 50%. By how much should the price be reduced to ensure the price of
vegetables go back to its original state?

a. 12.5% b. 25% c. 30% d. 33.33% e. None of these

23. During Ramadan, businessmen increased the price of goods by 20%. The government then forced them to
decrease prices by 20%. If a good used to cost 300 Taka before Ramadan, how much does it cost now?

a. 182 b. 288 c. 340 d. 425 e. None of these

Answers:
1. b 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. b
6. a 7. c 8. c 9. e 10. d
11. b 12. c 13. a 14. b 15. c
16. c 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. c
21. d 22. d 23. b

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Solution:

1. Number of footballers sponsored by Nike are = (600 x 0.04) = 24


Footballers remaining = (600 – 24) = 576
So, footballers sponsored by Adidas = (576 x 0.25) = 144
So, number of remaining footballers = (576 – 144) = 432

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. Let, Nafis earned 1000 Taka last year.


So, he saved (1000 x 0.10) = 100 Taka last year
This year, he earned (1000 x 1.05) = 1050 Taka
And, he saved, (1050 x 0.12) = 126 Taka this year
So, the amount saved this year is 126% of the amount saved last year

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

3. Here, K got 360 marks


So, L got (360 ÷ 0.90) = 400 marks
So, M got (400 ÷ 1.25) = 320 Marks
So, N got (320 ÷ 0.80) = 400 Marks
In terms of percentage, N got 400/500 = 0.80 = 80% of total marks

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

4. We know, 1 day = 24 hours


So, 3 hours equal = 3/24 = 0.125 = 12.5% of a day

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. Here, Mukarram marked up the price by (141 – 47) = 94 Taka


So, the % of markup = 94/47 = 2 = 200%

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

6. Here, Rahim is 33.33% older than Karim. We know, 33.33% means 1/3. We can say Rahim’s age is 4/3 of Karim’s
age.
So, 16 = 4/3 of Karim’s age
Or, Karim’s age = (16 x 3) / 4 = 12
Again. Karim is 20% older than Selim.
So, Selim’s age = (12 ÷ 1.20) = 10
So, in 6 years, Selim will be (10 + 6) = 16

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

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7. Here, 20% of 700 = 7A/2
Or, 140 = 7A/2
Or, A = 40
So, 3A = 120
So, 30% of 3A = 0.30 x 120 = 36

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

8. Let, the number of red candies = x


So, number of orange candies = 2x
And, number of green candies = 3x
So, number of yellow candies = 6x
So, total number of candies = 12x
So, % of total candies that are green = 3x/12x = 0.25 = 25%

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

9. Here, the required principal = (3000/0.08) = 37,500


So, the amount = (37,500 + 3000) = 40.500

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

10. Let, price of the water bottle = x


So, price of the school bag = 1.4x
And, price of the pencil box = 1.4x/3
A/Q, x – 1.4x/3 = 320
Or, 3x – 1.4x = 960
Or, 1.6x = 960
So, x = 600
So, 1.4x = (600 x 1.4) = 840

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

11. Let, Bangladesh played x more matches in 2019.


So, Total matches played in 2019 = 15 + x
And, total matches won in 2019 = (15 + 0.4) + x = 6 + x
A/Q, (6 + x) / (15 + x) = 64%
Or, (6 + x) / (15 + x) = 64/100
Or, 100(6 + x) = 64(15 + x)
Solving for x, we get, x = 10
So, Bangladesh played a total of 25 matches in 2019

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

12. Let, total number of people in Toronto = x


Here, people who follow basketball = 0.1x
People who follow hockey = 0.6x
People who don’t follow either = x – (0.6x + 0.1x) = 0.3x

A/Q, 0.6x – 0.3x = 3600


Or, 0.3x = 3600
So, 0.1x = (3600/3) = 1200

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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13. To find the highest possible number of employees, we have to assume each employee gets the lowest possible
bonus amount since the total bonus amount is fixed. So, we assume each employee gets 20 Taka as bonus.
Now, if each employee gets 20 Taka bonus, 500 Taka was distributed to (500/20) = 25 employees.
A/Q, 25 = 20% of total employees
So, total employees = (25/0.2) = 125

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

14. Let, total number of students = a


Finance students = 0.3a
Remaining students = 0.7a
Among them, 80% chose Marketing
So, Marketing students = 0.7a x 0.80 = 0.56a
So, HR students = (0.7 – 0.56)a = 0.14a
A/Q, 0.14a = 70
So, 0.56a = 280

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

15. Let, total students in the school = 100


So, number of boys = 80
Number of girls = 20
Number of students who play football = 60
Let, % of boys that play football = b
A/Q, b% of 80 + 80% of 20 = 60
Or, 0.b x 80 + 16 = 60
Or, 0.b = 44/80
Or, b = 55
So, 55% of the male students play football

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

16. Here Reevu’s monthly salary after 1 year = (20000 x 1.1) = 22,000
His monthly salary after 2 years = (22000 x 1.1) = 24,200
So, his annual salary = (24200 x 12) = 290,400

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

17. Here, the range of acceptable price with import duty is between (5000 x 1.02) = 5100 and (5000 x 1.06) = 5300
So, the acceptable answer is 5290

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

18. Let, number of Chelsea fans = x


So, number of Arsenal fans = (600 – x)
A/Q, 0.10(600 – x) + 0.20x = 85
Or, 60 – 0.10x + 0.20x = 85
So, 0.1x = 25
So, x = 250

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

19. Here 345 Taka is 23% of (345/0.23) = 1500 Taka


So, cost of the item = (1500 + 500) = 2000 Taka

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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20. Let, principal amount be 100
At 8% simple interest, after 2 years total interest = 16
At 8% compound interest, after 2 years total interest = 16.64
So, 0.64 is the difference when principal is 100
So, 12.8 is the difference when principal is {(100x12.80)/0.64} = 2000
So, option (c) is the correct answer.

21. Here, 40 x 0.92 = 36.8


Since Sadia can’t get 36.8 A’s , she has to get 37 A’s to ensure she maintains the record of at least 92% A’s.
So, she needs (37 – 13) = 24 more A grades

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

22. Let, price of vegetables be 100


So, after 50% increase, the price becomes 150
Now, to ensure the price goes back to its original state, it should be reduced by
(150 – 100) / 150 = 50/150 = 0.33 = 33.33%

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

23. Price of the good after 20% increase = (300 x 1.2) = 360
Again, price of the good after 20% decrease = (360 x 0.80) = 288

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Profit Loss

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Profit-Loss

Some important terms:

Cost Price (ক্রয় মূলয): The price, which is paid by the seller to acquire the product, is called cost price.

Selling Price (বিক্রয় মূলয): The price which is paid by the customer to the seller.

Marked Price (MP): The price, which is listed or marked on the product, is also known as quotation price/printed
price/catalogue price/invoice price. This term is generally used to denote initial selling price which is subject to change.

Profit: If selling price is greater than Cost price, then (SP – CP) is called Gain or Profit.

Loss: If selling price is less than Cost price, then (CP – SP) is called Loss.

Markup (মূলযিৃদ্ধি): Markup is the ratio between the selling price of a good and its cost price. It is used to show by how
much a seller increases the CP to gain a profitable SP.
For example: If the CP of a good is 50 Taka and markup is 20%, the selling price of the good is then (50 + 20% of 50) =
(50 + 10) = 60.
Markup can be applied on SP as well.
For example: The good which has a SP of 60 Taka can have a further mark up of 20% and the new SP becomes (60 +
20% of 60) = (60 + 12) = 72.

Markdown (মূলযহ্রোস): Markdown is the reduction of SP of a good.


For example: A seller marks down the price of a good which had a marked price of 60 Taka by 20%. So, the new SP of
the good is 60 x (1-0.2) = 60 x 0.8 = 48 Taka
Note that, Markdown is always applied on SP and almost never on CP .

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Type 1: Basic Profit Loss

Practice Math:

1. Shahriar buys a television for Tk. 24000. He wants to make a 40% profit on selling it. What should be his
selling price?

a. 28800 b. 32500 c. 33600 d. 37500 e. None of these

2. Rafid sold his iphone which he bought for Tk.70000 at a loss of 10%. If he wants to sell the phone at 15% profit,
by how much more will he have to sell the phone than his actual selling price?

a. 3500 b. 14000 c. 17500 d. 18000 e. None of these

3. Nawal bought an umbrella originally priced at Tk. 300 at a 10% discount. She then sold the umbrella to Nafi at
a 5% profit. How much did Nafi buy the umbrella for?

a. 283.5 b. 292.5 c. 302.75 d. 301.5 e. 315

4. Navid sold a painting for Taka 360 and made a 20% loss. What would be his selling price be if he were to sell
the painting at 30% profit?

a. 468 b. 450 c. 485 d. 585 e. 560

Answers:
1. c 2. c 3. a 4. d

Solution:

1. Here,
Cost Price = Tk. 24000
Profit Margin = 40%
So, Selling Price = 24000 + 0.40(24000) = 33600

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

2. Here, at 10% loss, selling price = (70,000 x 0.90) = 63,000


At 15% profit, selling price = (70,000 x 1.15) = 80,500
So, difference in selling price = (80,500-63,000) = 17,500

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. Here, original price = 300


Nawal bought it at, (300 x 0.90) = 270
Now, Nawal made a 5% profit upon selling to Nafi
So, Nafi bought it at (270 x 1.05) = 283.5

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So, option (a) is the correct answer.

4. Let, cost price of the painting = X


So, at 20% loss, the selling price = 0.8X
According to question,
0.8X = 360
Or, X = (360 ÷ 0.8) = 450
So, at 30% profit, Selling Price = (450 x 1.30) = 585

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

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Type 2: Sequential Profit Loss

1. A farmer sold a truck full of grains at a 20% profit to a wholesaler. The wholesaler sold the grains to a retailer
at a 33.33% profit. The retailer sold the grains at a 15% loss to a consumer. If the consumer bought the grains
for Tk. 3400, what was the cost price for the farmer?

a. 2000 b. 2500 c. 3000 d. 4000 e. None of these

2. Joy, a craftsman sells his handmade vases for 10% profit. Big companies buy the vases from him and sell them
at their outlets at Tk. 660 to make 200% profit on them. How much money would a customer save if he bought
a vase directly from Joy instead of the outlets?

a. 400 b. 420 c. 440 d. 460 e. None of these

3. Adnan sold a watch to Hossain at a 20% loss. Hossain sold the same watch to Tushar at 20% loss. What % of
the original cost price did Tushar purchase the watch for?

a. 60% b. 64% c. 70% d. 80% e. None of these

Answers:
1. b 2. c 3. b

Solution:

1. Here, SP for retailer = Tk. 3400


Let, CP for retailer = Tk. X
A/Q, 0.85X = 3400
Or, X = (3400/0.85) = 4000
Now, X = CP for retailer = SP for wholesaler = 4000
Given, the wholesaler made a 33.33% profit. We know 33.33% = 1/3. For ease of calculation we consider profit
to be 1/3 of the wholesaler’s cost price.
Let, wholesaler’s CP = Y
A/Q, Y + (Y/3) = 4000.
So, Y = 3000
Let, CP for farmer = Z
A/Q, 1.2Z = 3000
So, Z = 2500

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. Let, CP for big companies = X


So, SP for big companies = (X + 200% of X) = X + 2X = 3X
A/Q, 3X = 660.
So, X = 220.

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i.e, A customer can buy the vase from Joy at Tk.220.
So, money saved would be (660-220) = Tk.440

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. Let original cost price for the watch be 100


So, at 20% loss, Adnan sold to Hossain for (0.8 x 100) = 80
Now, Hossain’s CP = 80
So, at 20% loss, Hossain sold to Tushar for (0.8 x 80) = 64
i.e Tushar purchased the watch for 64% of the original cost.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Type 3: Discounts

1. 5% of the total items a wholesaler purchases turn out to be defects and 15% of the total items perish in his
warehouse. How much profit does he need to make from selling the rest to ensure an overall profit of 20%?

a. 20% b. 25% c. 37.5% d. 40% e. 50%

2. Upon selling a good for Taka 720, a trader makes a profit of 20%. If he decides to make a profit of 12% by
offering a discount, what should be the difference between the old selling price and the new selling price?

a. 42 b. 48 c. 50 d. 64 e. None of these

3. A restaurant sells a burger for Taka 240. During a promotional offer, they give a discount of 15%. They still make
a profit of 20% during that offer. What is their usual profit margin in taka per burger?

a. 35.5 b. 41.2 c. 63 d. 70 e. 75.5

4. Maksud usually makes 25% profit on items he sells. He gave a discount of 16% during a sale. What was his
profit margin?

a. 2% b. 4.5% c. 5% d. 8% e. 10%

5. Even after reducing the marked price of a bag by Taka 32, a shopkeeper makes a profit of 15%. If the cost price
be Taka 320, what percentage of profit would he have made if he had sold the bag at the marked price?

a. 50 b. 30 c. 25 d. 75 e. 80

6. Ankan got 30% concession on the labeled price of a cricket bat and sold it for Tk. 8750 with 25% profit on the
price he bought. What was the labeled price?

a. 10000 b. 12000 c. 12400 d. 13900 e. None of these

Answers:
1. e 2. b 3. d 4. c 5. c 6. a

Solution:

1. Let, total number of items = 100


And, total cost price for the items = 100 Taka.
A/Q, total number of items that can be sold = 100 – (0.05 x 100) – (0.15 x 100) = 100 – 20 = 80
Desired revenue = 100 + (0.2 x 100) = 120 Taka.
So, the wholesaler must now sell 80 items for 120 Taka.
Now, CP = 80 & SP = 120.
So, Profit = (120 – 80) = 40.
So, profit margin = 50%

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

2. Here, CP = (720 ÷ 1.20) = 600


At 12% profit, SP = 600 + (600 x 0.12) = 672
So the trader needs to decrease the selling price by (720 – 672) = 48

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So, option (b) is the correct answer.

3. Usual SP = 240
At 15% discount, SP = (240 x 0.85) = 204
Given, when SP is 204, they still make a profit of 20%
So, CP = (204 ÷ 1.2) = 170
So, usual profit per burger = (240-170) = Tk. 70

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

4. Let, CP = 100
So, usual SP = (100 x 1.25) = 125
After 16% discount, SP = 125 – (125 x 0.16) = 125 – 20 = 105
So, new profit margin = (105-100) = 5%

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

5. CP = 320
At 15% profit SP = (320 x 1.15) = 368
So, before reduction the SP was (368 + 32) = 400
Now profit at marked price = (400 – 320) = 80
So, Profit rate = (80/320) = 0.25 = 25%

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

6. Here, Ankan’s SP = 8750


So, Ankan’s CP = (8750 ÷ 1.25) = 7000
So original labeled price = (7000 ÷ 0.70) = 10000

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Type 4: Different rates comparison
In this type, different rates of buying and selling are mentioned and we need to compare between the rates to find out
how much profit or loss is made

1. Jawad buys equal number of two types of chocolates at the rate of Tk. 1/9 and 1/11 respectively. If Jawad now
sells them at the rate of Tk. 1/10 what will be his profit/ loss?

a. 2% profit b. 2% loss c. 1% profit d. 1% loss e. No profit/loss

2. If the cost price of 20 articles is equal to the selling price of 16 articles, what is the percentage of profit that the
merchant makes?

a. 10% b. 20% c. 25% d. 40% e. None of these

3. Shabab spends equal amount of money purchasing sweet and sour candies at 1/5 per taka and 1/6 per taka
respectively. He then sells all the candies at 1/6 per taka. What is his profit margin?

a.10% b. 12.5% c. 20% d. 25% e. None of these

4. A tailor buys clothes at the rate of 5 Taka/ft and sells them at 17 Taka per yard. What is his profit rate?

a. 10% b. 13.33% c. 16.67% d. 18.5% e. None of these

5. A man buys bananas at the rate of x Taka per dozen. He then sells them at 1.5x Taka per 10 bananas. What is
his profit rate?

a. 20 b. 40 c. 80 d. 60 e. None of these

6. Nowshin buys eggs at 350 Taka per 100 and sells at Tk. 60 per dozen. If her total profit on a day is Tk. 120, how
many eggs did she sell that day?

a. 20 b. 40 c. 80 d. 60 e. None of these

Answers:
1. d 2. c 3. a 4. b 5. c 6. c

Solution:

1. We find the LCM of the denominators given in the question i.e. 9 and 11.
The LCM = 99.
We assume, 99 candies of each type are bought.
So, total cost of candies = 99 x (1/9) + 99 x (1/11) = 11 + 9 = 20 Taka
Now, total SP = (99 + 99) x (1/10) = 198 x (1/10) = 19.8
So, loss = 0.2/20 = 0.01 = 1%

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. Let CP of 20 articles = SP of 16 articles = 100


So, SP of 20 articles = (100 x 20) ÷ 16 = 125 (Basic Unitary Method)

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So, Profit on 20 articles = (125 – 100) = 25%

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. We assume, Shabab spends 30 Taka buying sweet candies and 30 Taka buying sour candies.
So, he bought (30 x 1/5) = 5 sweet candies
And, (30 x 1/6) = 6 sour candies
Now he sold all the candies at 1/6 per taka.
So, he sold all his candies for (5 + 6) ÷ (1/6) = 11 ÷ (1/6) = 66
Now, his CP = (30 + 30) = 60 and SP = 66
So, profit rate = (66 – 60)/60 = 6/60 = 0.10 = 10%
[30 is the LCM of the denominators of 1/5 and 1/6. Assuming Shabab spent 30 Taka on each kind of candy
ensured we get an integer total value for both kind of candies.]

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

4. 1 yard = 3 feet
So, tailor’s CP per yard = (5 x 3) = 15
His SP = 17
So profit rate = (2/15) = 0.1333 = 13.33%

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. Let x = 100
The man buys 12 bananas for 100 Taka
And, the man sells 10 bananas for (1.5 x 100) = 150 Taka
So, the man sells 12 bananas for (150÷10) x 12 = 180 Taka (Unitary method)
So, Profit = (180 – 100) = 80%

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

6. Nowshin’s cp per egg = (350 ÷ 100) = 3.5


Nowshin’s sp per egg = (60 ÷ 12) = 5
So, profit per egg = 1.5
If total profit is 120, she sold (120 ÷ 1.5) = 80

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Type 5: Multiple rates of discount/mark up
This type provides information about how much profit/loss will be made by selling the items at different levels of
selling prices. We need to find the required answers using this information.

1. Rafsan manages a profit of 20% even after offering a discount of 16% on the selling price. What was his
approximate original profit margin?

a. 38.7% b. 42.9% c. 62.5% d. 68.9% e. None of these

2. Nony bought a gaming console and sold it at a 20% loss. If he had bought the console for 90 Taka less and sold
it for 75 Taka more, he could have made a profit of 50%. What was the cost price of the console?

a. 250 b. 300 c. 340 d. 400 e. None of these

3. A book was sold at a 5% profit. If the selling price was increased 20%, then the profit would be Taka 156. What
is the cost price of the book?

a. 600 b. 500 c. 400 d. 300 e. 200

4. A man sold a bag for 288 Taka and incurred a loss of 20%. How much less should the cost price have been to
ensure the man would make 20% profit upon selling the item at the same price?

a. 80 b. 120 c. 180 d. 240 e. None of these

Answers:
1. b 2. b 3. a 4. b

Solution:

1. Let, Rafsan’s selling price = 100 Taka


At 16% discount, selling price = (100 – 100 x 0.16) = 84
Rafsan still makes a profit of 20%
So, his CP = (84 ÷ 1.2) = 70
So, original profit margin is = (100 – 70)/70 = 30/70 = 0.429 = 42.9% (approx.)

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. Let, Nony bought the console for 100x


So, he sold it for 80x
A/Q,
If he bought for (100x – 90) and sold for (80x + 75), he would have made a 50% profit.
So, we can write,
(80x + 75) – (100x – 90) = 0.50(100x – 90)
Or, –20x + 165 = 50x – 45
Or, x=3
So, Nony’s CP = 100x = 300

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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3. Let, the CP of book = 100x
So, SP of the book = 105x
A/Q, if the book’s SP is increased by 20% i.e. it became 1.2(105x) = 126x, then profit would be 156 Taka.
So, we can write,
126x – 100x = 156
Or, 26x = 156
So, x=6
So, CP of the book = 100x = 600

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

4. Here, at 20% loss, SP = 288 Taka


So, CP = (288/0.80) = 360 Taka
Now, if he were to make a 20% profit with SP = 288, then CP would be,
(288/1.2) = 240 Taka
So, the required difference = (360 – 240) = 120 Taka.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Type 6: Multiple variables

In this type, we have to deal with multiple variables. There can be multiple products being sold at different levels of profit
and loss. There can be change in profit/loss due to increase and decrease in sales.

1. An iphone and an android costs the same to make. However, selling an iphone yields 300% profit and selling an
android yields a 60% profit. A manufacturer sells 12 iphones and x androids and finds the total profit collected
from androids and iphones to be the same. What is x?

a. 40 b. 60 c. 80 d. 120 e. None of these

2. Maksud bought 2 laptops for 80000 Taka. He sold one at 20% profit and one at 33.33% loss. At the end he found
he made no profit or loss. What was the selling price of the laptop he sold at a loss?

a. 20000 b. 24000 c. 25000 d. 30000 e. None of these

3. A car dealer sold a car for 12% profit. He sold the same model the next day for an 8% loss. What is his total
margin of profit/loss?

a.1% profit b. 1% loss c. 2% loss d. 2% profit e. None of these

4. Sabbir bought a table for 6000 Taka and a chair for 2000 Taka. He sold the table at a 20% profit and the chair
at a 40% profit. What was his total profit on investment?

a. 10% b. 12.5% c. 20% d. 25% e. None of these

5. Prottay used to make 50% profit on the goods he sells. He gave a 20% discount and as a result, his sales went
up by 40%. His new profit is what % of his old profit?

a. 37.5% b. 48% c. 51% d. 56% e. 65%

6. A company increased the price of their product by 20% and sales fell by 10%. The change in revenue here is?

a. –10% b. +10% c. –8% d. +8% e. None of these

7. A store gave a discount of 20% on clothes and found out their revenue has not changed. By how much did their
sales increase?

a.10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% e. None of these

Answers:
1. b 2. a 3. d 4. d
5. d 6. d 7. e

Solution:

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1. Here, let CP of iphone = CP of android = y
So, profit from an iphone = 3y and profit from an android = 0.6y
A/Q, 12*3y = 0.6yx
Or, 36 = 0.6x
So, x = 60

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. We assume, he bought the computer that he sold at a loss at x Taka


So, he bought the computer that he sold at a profit at (80000 – x) Taka
His loss = 0.33x
And, his profit = 0.2(80000 – x)
A/Q, 0.33x = 0.2(80000 – x)
Or, x/3 = (80000 – x)/5
Or, 5x = 240000 – 3x
Or, x = 30000
So, CP of computer sold at a loss = 30000 Taka
So, SP of the computer sold at a loss = (1– (1/3)) x 30000 = 2/3 x 30000 = 20000

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

3. Let, CP of each car = 100


So, SP of car sold at a profit = 112
And, SP of car sold at a loss = 92
So, Total CP = (100 + 100) = 200
And, total SP = (112 + 92) = 204
So, profit = (204 – 200)/200 = 4/200 = 0.02 = 2%

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

4. Here, his total investment = (6000 + 2000) = 8000 Taka


And, his total SP = (6000 x 1.2) + (2000 x 1.4) = 7200 + 2800 = 10000 Taka
So, his profit = (10000 – 8000) / 8000 = 2000/8000 = 0.25 = 25%

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

5. Let’s assume, Prottay used to sell 100 items and his cost price per item be 100 Taka.
At 50% profit, his initial selling price = (100 x 1.5) = 150
His initial profit per item = 50
So, his initial total profit = (50 x 100) = 5000
At 20% discount, selling price = (150 x 0.80) = 120
Discounted profit per item = 20
Increased sales after discount = (100 x 1.40) = 140
So, new total profit = (20 x 140) = 2800
So, the required % = (2800/5000) = 0.56 = 56%

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

6. Let, initial SP = 100 and number of products initially sold be 100


So, initial revenue = (100 x 100) = 10000
Now, after 20% rise, SP = (100 x 1.2) = 120
After 10% fall, sales = (100 x 0.90) = 90
So now the revenue = (120 x 90) = 10800
So change in revenue, (10800 – 10000) / 10000 = 800/10000 = 0.08 = 8%

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

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7. Let, initial SP = 100
Initial items sold = 100 pieces
After discount, SP = (100 x .80) = 80
And sales after discount = S
A/Q, (100 x 100) = (80 x S)
Or, S = 125
So, increase in sales, (125 – 100)/100 = 25/100 = 0.25 = 25%

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

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Review Test 1

1. Rabbani offers a discount of 40% on the marked price of his goods and thus ends up selling at cost price, what
was the % mark up?

a. 25% b. 33.33% c. 50% d. 66.66% e. None of these

2. Shuhrat offers a discount of 30% on the selling price, then she makes a loss of 16%. What % profit or % loss will
she make if she sells at a discount of 10% of the initial selling price?

a. 4% profit b. 4% loss c. 8% profit d. 8% loss e. None of these

3. A merchant marks his goods up by 60% and then offers a discount on the marked price. If the final selling price
after the discount results in the merchant making no profit or loss, what was the percentage discount offered
by the merchant?

a. 12.5% b. 37.5% c. 50% d. 60% e. None of these

4. A merchant marks his goods in such a way that the profit on sale of 50 articles is equal to the selling price of
25 articles. What is his profit margin?

a. 150% b. 100% c. 75% d. 50% e. 25%

5. Candies are bought at the rate of 30 for a dollar, how many candies must be sold for a dollar, so as to gain 20%?

a. 28 b. 25 c. 20 d. 18 e. 15

6. Ramesh sells an item at Tk. 120 to make a 20% loss. Suresh sells the same item at Tk. 120 to make a 50%
profit. What is the difference between their cost prices?

a. 70 b. 80 c. 90 d. 100 e. None of these

7. A trader buys goods at a 20% discount on the label price at a wholesale market. If he wants to make a profit of
20% after allowing a discount of 20% on his own marked price, by what % should his own marked price be
greater than the original label price?

a. 20% b. 25% c. 30% d. 40% e. 50%

8. Shamonty sold a pen for Taka 56 which cost her Taka X. If she had gained X% on her outlay, what was her cost?

a. 30 b. 32 c. 40 d. 42 e. None of these

9. A person buys a pen from a wholesaler at Taka 10 for 20 pens. He sells those pens at Taka 10 for 15 pens. Find
his profit or loss percent.

a. 10 b. 25 c. 33.33 d. 66.66 e. 70

10. If the cost price of an article is 66.66% of the selling price, what is the profit percent?

a. 50 b. 33.33. c. 40 d. 60 e. None of these

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Answers:
1. d 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. b
6. a 7. a 8. c 9. c 10. a

Solution:
1. Let, the initial selling price = 100
So, at a 40% discount, final selling price = 60
AQ, the cost price would also be = 60
So, the initial markup = (100 – 60) / 60 = 40/60 = 0.666
So, the % of markup was, 66.66%

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. Let, the cost price = 100


When a 16% loss is made, selling price = 84
A/Q, 16% loss was made after the discount of 30% on selling price.
Let, the initial selling price before 30% discount = X
A/Q, (X – 30% of X) = X – 0.3X = 0.7X = 84
So, X= (84 ÷ 0.7) = 120.
So, the initial selling price before 30% discount = 120
Now, if 10% discount is given, selling price becomes (120 x 0.9) = 108
We assumed, cost price = 100
So, a profit of 8% would be made.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. Let, CP = 100
So, after 60% mark up, SP = 160
A/Q, The final SP = 100
So, the merchant decreased the SP by 60 Taka.
In terms of percentage, the decrease equals (60 ÷ 160) = 0.375
So, the % of discount to be offered = 37.5%

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

4. Let, the profit on sale of 50 articles = SP of 25 articles = 100


So, profit per article = (100 ÷ 50) = 2
And, SP per article = (100 ÷ 25) = 4
So, CP per article = (4 – 2) = 2
So, profit margin is 100%

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. Here, CP for 30 candies = 1


At a gain of 20%, the SP for 30 candies = 1.20
So, SP per candy = (1.20 ÷ 30) = 0.04
So, total number of candies to be sold per dollar, (1 ÷ 0.04) = 25

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

6. For Ramesh, CP = (120 ÷ 0.80) = 150


For Suresh, CP = (120 ÷ 1.50) = 80
So, the difference = (150 – 80) = 70

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

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7. Let, the label price = 100
So, Trader bought the goods at = 80
If he wants to make a profit of 20%, his SP = (80 x 1.20) = 96
Now, this SP is ensured after a 20% discount on marked price.
So, the Marked price would have to be = (96 ÷ 0.80) = 120
We assumed, the label price = 100
So, the marked price is greater than the label price by 20%.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

8. A/Q, X + [(X/100)*X] = 56
Or, X (1 + X/100) = 56
Or, 100X + X2 = 5600
Or, X2 + 100X – 5600 = 0
Through middle term breaking, we find,
X = 40 or, X = -140
Since X can’t have a negative value,
X = 40

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

9. Here, CP of 20 pens = Taka 10


So, CP of 15 pens = (10÷20) x 15 = 7.5
Given, SP of 15 pens = 10
So, profit margin = (10 - 7.5) / 7.5 = 0.333
So, profit is 33.33%

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

10. Here, CP is 66.66% of the SP


Or, we can say CP is 2/3 of the SP
Let,
CP = 100
So, SP = (3/2)*100 = 150
So, the profit is 50%

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Review Test 2

1. A man bought two watches at the same price, and sold one at 10 % profit and other at 15 % loss. Find his overall
gain or loss percent.

a. 1.5% gain b. 1.5% loss c. 2.5% gain d. 2.5% loss e. None of these

2. A dealer wants to mark the price of an article such that on offering a 5 % discount, he is able to get 33 % profit.
Find the percent of CP above which the article should be marked.

a. 20% b. 40% c. 50 d. 60 e. None of these

3. While selling of 10 pens, a person incurred loss equal to cost price of 3 pens. Find the loss percent.

a. 25% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50% e. 60%

4. Jawad sold a book at a loss of 20%. If he sold that book for Tk. 12 more, he would have gained 10%. Find the
cost price of that book.

a. 28 b. 36 c. 40 d. 48 e. 60

5. If an article is sold for TK.178 at a loss of 11%, what should be its selling price in order to earn a profit of 11%?

a. 212 b. 220 c. 222 d. 242 e. None of these

6. Anika had a piece of land that cost her 1.5 lakh taka. She sold it to Tahiya at a 5% profit. Tahiya then sold the
land back to Anika at a 2% loss. In the entire transaction, Anika gained:

a. 3150 b. 3350 c. 3450 d. 3750 e. None of these

7. By selling an article at 80% of its marked price, Meera makes a loss of 12%. What will be the percent profit or
loss made by the Meera if she sells the article at 95% of its marked price?

a. 4.5% b. 5% c. 6.25% d. 7.5% e. 8%

8. Even after reducing the marked price of pen by Tk. 32, a shopkeeper makes a profit 15%. If the cost price be Tk.
320, what percentage of profit does he make if he sells the pen at the marked price?

a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% e. None of these

9. An item was sold at a 20% loss. If the item were sold at 80 Taka more, there would be a 20% profit. What is the
cost price of the item?

a. 180 b. 200 c. 260 d. 300 e. None of these

10. Ayon makes a loss of 5% by selling an item at 1900 Taka. What should his selling price be to make a profit of
12%?

a. 1840 b. 1950 c. 2100 d. 2180 e. 2240

Answers:
1. d 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. c
6. a 7. a 8. e 9. b 10. e

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Solution:

1. Let, CP per watch = 100


Then, SP at 10% profit = 110
And, SP at 15% loss = 85
So, total CP = (100 x 2) = 200
And, total SP = (110 + 85) = 195
So, overall loss = (200 – 195) / 200 = 5/200 = 0.025
So, the loss is 2.5%

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. Let, CP = 100
At, 33% profit, SP = 133
If, 133 is SP after a 5% discount, the initial SP before 5% discount is, (133÷ 0.95) = 140
So, the required mark up here is 40%

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

3. 10 SP = 10CP – 3CP
10 SP = 7 CP
SP / CP = 7/10
Loss % = (3/ 10) x 100 = 300 / 10 = 30%

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

4. Let, CP of the book = x


At 20% loss, his SP = 0.8x
At 10% profit, his SP = 1.1x
So, the difference, (1.1x – 0.8x) = 0.3x
According to question, 0.3x = 12
So, x = (12 ÷ 0.3) = 40

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

5. Let, CP = X
At 11% loss, SP = 0.89X
A/Q, 0.89X = 178
So, X = (178 ÷ 0.89) = 200
So, at 11% profit, SP = (200 x 1.11) = 222

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

6. Anika at 5% profit, sold to Tahiya at (150000 x 1.05) = 157,500


Tahiya at 2% loss, sold it back to Anika at (157500 x 0.98) = 154,350
So, in the entire transaction Anika gained (157500 – 154350) = 3150

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

7. A/Q, 0.8 SP = 0.88 CP


Or, SP/CP = 0.88/0.8 = 1.1
Now, if CP = 100

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We get, SP = 110
So, 95% of the SP = (110 x 0.95) = 104.5
So, the profit would be 4.5%

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

8. Here, CP = 320
So, at 15% profit, SP = (320 x 1.15) = 368
A/Q, SP is 368 after a discount of 32.
So, the original SP is 400
So, profit margin when SP is 400 is, (400 – 320) = 80 Taka
So, in %, it is (80 ÷ 320) = 25%

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

9. Let, CP = X
At, 20% loss, SP = 0.8X
Again, at 20% profit, SP = 1.2X
A/Q, 1.2X – 0.8X = 80
Or, 0.4X = 80
So, X = 200

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

10. Here, at 5% loss, SP = 0.95 x CP = 1900


So, CP = (1900 ÷ 0.95) = 2000
So, at 12% profit, SP = (2000 x 1.12) = 2240

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

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Average
Type 1: Math using general formulae:

Average (গড়) is a calculated “central” value of a set of numbers. To calculate it, we add up all the numbers, then divide
the value by how many numbers are there.

𝑆𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑏𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑠
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 =
𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑏𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑠

Note:
a) The average is always calculated for a set of numbers.
b) The average always lies above the lowest number of the set and below the highest number of the set.
c) The net deficit due to the numbers below the average equals the net surplus due to the numbers above the
average.
d) If the average of some numbers is A, and if all the numbers is multiplied by N, then the new average equals to
(A × N).
e) If the average of some numbers is A, and if all these numbers are divided by N, then the new average equals to
A/N.
f) If the average of some numbers is A, and if N is added to each number, then the new average is (A + N).
g) If the average of some numbers is A, and if N is subtracted from each number, then the new average
is (A – N).

Example:
A family consists of two grandparents, two parents and three grandchildren. The average age of the grandparents is 67
years, that of the parents is 35 years and that of the grandchildren is 6 years. What is the average age of the family?

a. 28.47 years b. 31.71 years c.32.17 years d.33.27 e. None of these

Answer: Option (B)

Explanation:
The total age of grandparents is 67 × 2 = 134,
The total age of parents is 35 × 2 = 70,
The total age of children is 6 × 3 = 18
Total age is 134 + 70 + 18 = 222
Average age is 222/7 = 31.71
Practice Math:

1. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining
40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?

a. 6.25 b. 6.5 c. 6.75 d. 7 e. None of these

2. A grocer has a sale of TK. 6435, TK. 6927, TK. 6855, TK. 7230 and TK. 6562 for 5 consecutive months. How
much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of TK. 6500?

a. TK. 4991 b. TK. 5991 c. TK. 6001 d. TK. 6991 e. None of these

3. The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than zero?

a. 0 b. 1 c. 10 d. 19 e. None of these

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4. The average monthly income of P and Q is TK. 5050. The average monthly income of Q and R is TK. 6250 and
the average monthly income of P and R is TK. 5200. The monthly income of P is:

a. TK. 3500 b. TK. 4000 c. TK. 4050 d. TK. 5000 e. None of these

5. The average age of husband, wife and their child 3 years ago was 27 years and that of wife and the child 5 years
ago was 20 years. The present age of the husband is:

a. 35 years b. 40 years c. 50 years d. 60 years e. None of these

6. The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40 kg and that of B and C be 43
kg, then the weight of B is:

a. 17 kg b. 20 kg c. 26 kg d. 31 kg e. None of these

7. The average weight of 16 boys in a class is 50.25 kg and that of the remaining 8 boys is 45.15 kg. Find the
average weights of all the boys in the class.

a. 47.55 kg b. 48 kg c. 48.55 kg d. 49.25 kg e. None of these

8. A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. The average number of visitors per
day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is:

a. 250 b. 276 c. 280 d. 285 e. 300

9. If the average marks of three batches of 55, 60 and 45 students respectively is 50, 55, 60, then the average
marks of all the students is:

a. 53.33 b. 54.68c. 55 d. 56 e. 58

10. Find the average of first 40 natural numbers.

a. 20.5 b. 18 c. 19.5 d. 19 e. None of these

11. Find the average of all the numbers between 6 and 34 which are divisible by 5

a. 18 b. 20 c. 24 d. 30 e. 36

12. The average of 2, 7, 6 and x is 5 and the average of 18, 1, 6, x and y is 10. What is the value of y?

a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 3 e. 6

13. In seven given numbers, the average of first four numbers is 4 and that of the last four numbers is
also 4. If the average of these seven numbers is 3, the fourth number is

a. 3 b. 4 c. 7 d. 11 e. None of these

14. The average wages of a worker during a fortnight comprising 15 consecutive working days was TK.90 per day.
During the first 7 days, his average wages was TK.87 per day and the average wages during the last 7 days was
TK.92 per day. What was his wage on the 8th day?

a. TK. 83 b. TK. 92 c. TK. 90 d. TK. 97 e. TK. 102

15. The average of 5 quantities is 6. The average of 3 of them is 8. What is the average of the remaining two
numbers?

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a. 6.5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 3.5 e. 7

Answers:
1. a 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. b
6. d 7. c 8. d 9. b
10. a 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. d
15. c

Solution:

1. Total runs in the first 10 overs is 3.2 × 10 = 32


Runs needed over the next 40 overs is 282 - 32 = 250
So, required run rate for the last 40 overs is 250/40 = 6.25

Option (a) is the correct answer.

2. To get average sale of TK. 6500 in 6 months he must get a total of TK. (6 × 6500) = 39000
In 5 months he got 6435 + 6927 + 6855 + 7230 + 6562 = 34009
He needs to get 39000 – 34009 = 4991 in the sixth month.

Option (a) is the correct answer.

3. Average of 20 numbers = 0.
Sum of 20 numbers (0 x 20) = 0.
It is quite possible that 19 of these numbers may be positive and if their sum is a positive number, then 20th
number is negative.

Option (d) is the correct answer.

4. Let P, Q and R represent their respective monthly incomes. Then, we have:


P + Q = (5050 x 2) = 10100.... (i)
Q + R = (6250 x 2) = 12500.... (ii)
P + R = (5200 x 2) = 10400.... (iii)
Adding (I), (ii) and (iii), we get: 2(P + Q + R) = 33000 or P + Q + R = 16500.... (iv)
Subtracting (ii) from (IV), we get P = 4000.P's monthly income = TK. 4000.

Option (b) is the correct answer.

5. Sum of the present ages of husband, wife and child = (27 x 3 + 3 x 3) years = 90 years.
Sum of the present ages of wife and child = (20 x 2 + 5 x 2) years = 50 years.
Husband's present age = (90 – 50) years = 40 years.

Option (b) is the correct answer.

6. Let A, B, C represent their respective weights. Then, we have:


A + B + C = (45 x 3) = 135.... (i)
A + B = (40 x 2) = 80.... (ii)
B + C = (43 x 2) = 86.... (iii)
Adding (ii) and (iii), we get: A + 2B + C = 166.... (iv)
Subtracting (i) from (IV), we get: B = 31.
B's weight = 31 kg.

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Option (d) is the correct answer.

7. Total weight of 16 boys is 16 × 50.25 = 804


Total weight of 8 boys is 45.15 × 8 = 361.2
Total weight = 1165.2
Average weight = 1165.2/24 =48.55

Option (c) is the correct answer.

8. That month will have 5 Sundays.


Total visitors = 510 × 5 + 240 × 25 = 8550
Average visitors = 8550/30 = 285

Option (d) is the correct answer.

9. Total marks = 55 × 50 + 60 × 55 + 45 × 60 = 8750


Average marks = 8750/160 = 54.68

Option (b) is the correct answer.

10. Sum of first 40 natural numbers = 40(40 + 1)/2 = 820


Average = 820/40 = 20.5

Option (a) is the correct answer.

11. Numbers that are divisible by 5 are 10, 15, 20, 25, 30
Sum = 100 and average = 100/5 = 20

Option (b) is the correct answer.

12. (15 + x)/4 = 5….(i)


(25 + x + y)/5 = 10….(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii) we get y = 20, x = 5

Option (c) is the correct answer.

13. Let the sum of first 3 and last three numbers are a and b and the 4th number is x
(a + x + b)/7 = 3 or, a + x + b = 21…(i)
(a + x)/4 = 4 or, a + x = 16…(ii)
(b + x)/4 = 4 or, b + x = 16…(iii)
Adding (i) and (ii), a + b + 2x = 32…(iv)
Subtracting (i) from (iv), x = 11

Option (d) is the correct answer.

14. Let the sum of first 7 and last 7 days’ wages are a and b and the 8th day’s wage is x
Now, (a + x + b)/15 = 90 or, a + x + b = 1350…(i)
a/7 = 87 or, a = 609
b/7 = 92 or, b = 644
x = 1350 – 609 – 644 = 97

Option (d) is the correct answer.

15. The sum total of five quantities = 5 × 6 = 30


Sum of 3 quantities is 8 × 3 = 24

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Sum of the remaining 2 quantities is 30 – 24 = 6
Average of the remaining 2 quantities is 3

Option (c) is the correct answer.

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Type 2: Change in average due to inclusion or exclusion of an element

Inclusion of an element:
একটি set এ নতু ন মকাশনা element এর আগমন হশ , average ও মস অনুযায়ী পণরবণতণত হশয় যায়।
Suppose, the average (Age/Weight) of N persons is A.
If a new person having age/weight ‘P’ is included in this group, then its new average becomes M.
The Age or Weight of included person= No. of persons previously in the group × (Increase in average) + New Average
i.e. P = N × (M – A) + M

Exclusion of an element:
একটি set এ মকাশনা element মবর হশয় মগশ , average ও মস অনুযায়ী পণরবণতণত হশয় যায়।
Suppose, the average (Age/Weight) of N persons is A. If an existing person having age/weight ‘P’ is excluded from this
group, then its new average becomes M.
The Age or Weight of excluded person = No. of persons previously in the group × (Decrease in average) + New Average
I.e. P = N × (A – M) + M

Example:
The average weight of 29 students is 28 kg. By the admission of a new student, the average weight is reduced to 27.8
kg. The weight of the new student is

a. 22 kg b. 21.6 kg c. 22.4 kg d. 21 kg e. None of these

Answer: Option (A)

Explanation:
The total weight of 29 students = 29 × 28
The total weight of 30 students = 30 × 27.8
Weight of the new student = (30 × 27.8 – 29 × 28)
= 834 – 812
= 22

Practice Math:
1. The captain of a cricket team of 11 members is 26 years old and the wicket keeper is 3 years older. If the ages
of these two are excluded, the average age of the remaining players is one year less than the average age of
the whole team. What is the average age of the team?

a. 23 years b. 24 years c. 25 years d. 30 years e. 35 years

2. Nine persons went to a hotel for taking their meals. Eight of them spent TK. 12 each on their meals and the
ninth spent TK.8 more than the average expenditure of all the nine. What was the total money spent by
them?

a. 117 b. 180 c. 150 d. 200 e. 220

3. The average mark of a class of twenty students is 64. If three students whose marks are 32, 28 and
34 are removed , then find the approximate average mark of the remaining students of the class.

a. 71 b. 74 c. 57 d. 75 e. 69.7

4. The average age of 40 students is 8 years. If the age of teacher is also included , then their average age
increases by half a year. What is the age of the teacher?

a. 45 years b. 48.5 years c. 28.5 years d. 26.5 years e. 30.5 years

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5. The average age of a group of 12 students is 20 years. If 4 more students join the group, the average age
increases by 1 year. The average age of the new students is

a. 24 b. 26 c. 23 d. 22 e. 27

6. When a student weighing 45 kgs left a class, the average weight of the remaining 59 students increased by
200g. What is the average weight of the remaining 59 students?

a. 57 kgs b. 56.8 kgs c. 58.2 kgs d. 52.2 kgs e. None of these

7. Rufaida had a CGPA of 3.6 on her first four semesters. After the fifth semester, her CGPA dropped to 3.2. What
was her GPA in the fifth semester?

a. 2.4 b. 2.2 c. 1.8 d. 1.6 e. 1.4

8. The average of five numbers is 35. After one of the numbers is removed, the average of the remaining numbers
is 43. What number has been removed?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. None of these

Answers:
1. a 2. a 3. e 4. c 5. a
6. a 7. d 8. b

Solution:

1. Let the average age of the whole team be x years.


So, total age of the whole team is 11x. And the total age of the team excluding the captain and wicket keeper is
9(x – 1)
Therefore,
11x – (26 + 29) = 9(x – 1)
11x – 9x = 46
2x = 46
x = 23.
So, average age of the team is 23 years.

Option (a) is the correct answer.

2. Let the total expenditure be x, Then the average = x/9,


8 × 12 + [x/9 + 8] = x or [x – x/9] =104.
8x/9 = 104, x =104 × 9/8 =117.

Option (a) is the correct answer.

3. Total marks of 20 students = 64 × 20 = 1280


Total marks of 17 students = 1280 – 32 – 28 – 34 = 1186
Average = 1186/17 = 69.67 70

Option (e) is the correct answer.

4. The total age is 40 × 8 = 320


Let the age of the teacher is x

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(320 + x)/41 = 8.5
Or, 320 + x = 348.5
Or, x = 28.5

Option (c) is the correct answer.

5. Let the average of the new students is x


(12 × 20 + x × 4)/ (12 + 4) = 21
Or, 240 + 4x = 336
Or, x = 24

Option (a) is the correct answer.

6. Let the average weight of 59 students is x


60(x –.2) – 59x = 45
Or, x = 45 + 60 × 0.2
Or, x = 57

Option (a) is the correct answer.

7. Total grades in 4 semesters = 3.6 × 4 = 14.4


Total grades in 5 semesters = 3.2 × 5 = 16
GPA in 5th semester = 16 – 14.4 = 1.6

Option (d) is the correct answer.

8. Sum of five numbers is = 35 × 5 = 175


Sum of the four numbers is 43 × 4 = 172
The removed number = 175 – 172 = 3

Option (b) is the correct answer.

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Type 3: Change in average due to replacement
If a new element replaces an existing element in a set, then the average changes accordingly. A formula can be applied
here. It is:
I = nx + O
Where,
I = Value of the incoming element
n = number of elements in the set
x = Change in average due to replacement
O = Value of the outgoing element.

Example:
The average of a set of 8 numbers which includes 30 is N. If 30 is replaced by 34, what is the average of the new set of
numbers in terms of N?

a. N + 4 b. N + 2 c. N + 1 d. N + 1/2 e. None of these

Answer: Option (D)

Explanation:
Here, I = 34, n = 8 ,O = 30
x=?
So,
34 = 8x + 30
So, x = ½
So, the new average is ‘ N + ½ ‘

Practice Math:

1. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them
weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?

a. 76 kg
b. 76.5 kg
c. 85 kg
d. None of these
e. Data Insufficient

2. A pupil's marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. Due to that the average marks for the class got
increased by half (1/2). The number of pupils in the class is:

a. 10 b. 20 c. 40 d. 73 e. 80

3. The average age of a committee of 8 members is 40 years. A member aged 55 years retired and his
place was taken by another member aged 39 years . The average age of present committee is;

a. 39 years b. 38 years c. 36 years d. 35 years e. 40 years

4. Eight persons participated in a shooting competition. The top score in the competition is 85 points. Had the
top score been 92 points instead of 85 points, the average score would have been 84. Find the number
of points actually scored in the competition.

a. 645 b. 655 c. 665 d. 636 e. None of these

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Answers:
1. c 2. c 3. b 4. c

Solution:

1. Total weight increased = (8 x 2.5) kg = 20 kg.


Weight of new person = (65 + 20) kg = 85 kg.

Option (c) is the correct answer.

2. Let number of pupils in class is x, and average mark is a


(ax + 20)/x – a = 0.5
Or, ax – ax + 20 = 0.5x
Or, x = 40

Option (c) is the correct answer.

3. Total age of the committee is 8 × 40 = 320


After replacing = 320 – 55 + 39 = 304
Average = 304/8 = 38

Option (b) is the correct answer.

4. Let the total score is x


(X – 85 + 92)/8 = 84
Or, x + 7 = 672
Or, x = 665

Option (c) is the correct answer.

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Type 4: Average and consecutive numbers

In this type of problems, you will be asked to find the average of consecutive numbers, consecutive odd numbers,
consecutive even numbers etc. The formulas are important for solving this type of problems.

𝑛+1
1. Average of first n natural numbers =
2
2. Average of first n even numbers = (n + 1)
3. Average of first n odd numbers = n
𝐹𝑖𝑟𝑠𝑡 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟+𝐿𝑎𝑠𝑡 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟
4. Average of consecutive numbers =
2
𝐿𝑎𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑑𝑑 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟+1
5. Average of 1 to n odd numbers =
2
𝐿𝑎𝑠𝑡 𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟+1
6. Average of 1 to n even numbers=
2
(𝑛+1)(2𝑛+1)
7. Average of sum of square of first n natural numbers =
6
2(𝑛+1)(2𝑛+1)
8. Average of sum of square of first “n” even numbers =
3
4𝑛2 −1
9. Average of sum of square of first “n” odd numbers =
3
𝑛(𝑛+1)2
10. Average of cubes of first ”n” natural numbers =
4
11. Average of cubes of first “n” even natural numbers = 2n (n +1) 2
12. Average of cubes of first “n” odd natural numbers = n (2n 2 – 1)
𝑚(𝑛+1)
13. Average of first “n“ multiple of ”m” =
2
14. If average of “n1” observations is “A1“, and average of “n2” observations is “A2“, then
(𝑛1 𝐴1 −𝑛2 𝐴2 )
Average of (n1 – n2) observations is .
𝑛1 −𝑛2

Example:
BMS University had 100 students aged 22 years on an average. At the end of the year, 20 students aged 22 years left
and 25 students aged 18 years on an average joined the university. What is the approx. average age of the present
students of the university?

a. 21.5 b. 21 c. 20.5 d. 20 e. None of these

Answer: Option (B)

Explanation:
Total age of all the students = 100 × 22 = 2200
After replacing, the total age becomes, 2200 - (20 × 22) + (25 × 18) = 2210
And total number of students is 100 – 20 + 25 = 105
Average = 2210/105 = 21.0476

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Practice Math:

1. The average of 7 consecutive numbers is 20. The largest of these numbers is

a. 20 b. 22 c. 23 d. 24 e. None of these

2. The average of 11 consecutive integers is 22. What is the smallest integers?

a. 16 b.17 c. 18 d. 19 e. None of these

3. If the average of 5 consecutive odd integers is 25, what is the average of the last two integers?

a. 26 b. 27 c. 28 d. 30 e. None of these

4. The average of four consecutive positive odd integers is always

a. An odd number
b. Divisible by 4
c. An even number
d. Both (b) & (c)
e. Either (b) or (c)

Answers:
1. c 2. b 3. c 4. c

Solution:
1. Let the largest number is x

Sum of the consecutive numbers is x + (x – 1) + (x – 2) + (x – 3) + (x –4) + (x – 5) + (x – 6) = 7x – 21


Average
(7x-21)/7 = 20
Or, x – 3 = 20
Or, x = 23

Option (c) is the correct answer.

2. Let the smallest number is x


Sum of the consecutive numbers is
x + (x + 1) + (x + 2) + (x + 3) + (x + 4) + (x + 5) + (x + 6) + (x + 7) + (x + 8) + (x + 9) + (x + 10) = 11x + 55
Average
(11x + 55)/11= 22
Or, x + 5 = 22
Or, x = 17

Option (b) is the correct answer.


3. Let the smallest number is x
Sum of the consecutive numbers is
x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6) + (x + 8) = 5x + 10
Average

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(5x + 20)/5 = 25
Or, x+4 = 25
Or, x = 21
Average of 27 and 29 is 28

Option (c) is the correct answer.

4. Let the smallest number is 2n+1


Sum of the consecutive numbers is
(2n + 1) + (2n + 3) + (2n + 5) + (2n + 7) = 8n + 16
Average (8n + 16)/4 = 2n + 4
It is an even number but not always divisible by 4

Option (c) is the correct answer.

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Type 5: Maximum and minimum possible value of an element

In these questions, some conditions will be given in the question and you will be asked to find out the maximum value,
the minimum value or the most accurate average. When you see this type of problems on the test,

STEP 1: At first assign the variable x to the unknown quantity.


STEP 2: Write down the conditions that are given in the question.
STEP 3: Find value(s) that suit all the conditions.
STEP 4: Find the average of these values to get the most accurate average.

Example:
In Arun's opinion, his weight is greater than 65 kg but less than 72 kg. His brother does not agree with Arun and he thinks
that Arun's weight is greater than 60 kg but less than 70 kg. His mother's view is that his weight cannot be greater than
68 kg. If all are them are correct in their estimation, what is the average of different probable weights of Arun?

a. 67 kg. b. 68 kg. c. 69 kg. d. Data inadequate e. None of these

Answer: Option (A)

Explanation:
Let Arun's weight by X kg.
According to Arun, 65 < X < 72
According to Arun's brother, 60 < X < 70.
According to Arun's mother, X <= 68
The values satisfying all the above conditions are 66, 67 and 68.
Required average = 66 + 67 + 68 = 201/3 = 67 kg.

Practice Math:

1. The average weight of 4 men is 67 kg. None of them weight less than 65 kg. What is the maximum possible
weight (in kg) of a person in that group?

a. 73 b. 72 c. 71 d. 70 e. None of these

2. 5 candidates appeared in an exam. The highest mark was 45 and the lowest was 25. If no 2 candidates got the
same marks in the exam, what is the best range to describe the average marks scored in the exam?

a. 25 < X < 45 b. 28 < X < 42 c. 30 < X < 40 d. 32 < X < 38 e. None of these

3. The average number of daily customers in 10 outlets of a chain store is 600. If the lowest numbers of customers
an outlet can have in a day is 50, what is the maximum possible number of customers an outlet can have in a
day?

a. 3500 b. 4050 c. 5550 d. 6400 e. None of these

Answers:
1. a 2. c 3. c

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Solution:

1. If 3 men weigh 65 then the deviation from average in total is (67 – 65) × 3 = 6
Which can be added to the fourth man = 67 + 6 = 73

Option (a) is the correct answer.

2. Here, the highest possible tally of numbers can be 45,44,43,42 and 25.
So the highest possible average is (45+44+43+42+25)/5 = 199/5 = 39.8

Again, the lowest possible tally of numbers can be 45, 25, 26, 27, 28.
So, the lowest possible average is (45+25+26+27+28)/5 = 151/5 = 30.2

Option (c) is the correct answer.

3. Total number of daily customers is 600 × 10 = 6000


If lowest is 50 then 9 days can have the lowest number of customers = 9 × 50 = 450
So highest number of customers in a day is 6000 – 450 = 5550

Option (c) is the correct answer.

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Type 6 Mean median and mode

Mean(গড়):
The mean is found by adding the numbers in a data set and dividing by how many numbers there are. The formula for
mean is as follows:
(∑ 𝑥)
𝑥=
𝑁

Median(মধ্যমা):
The median is the middle number in a data set when the numbers are listed in either ascending or descending order.
If the total number of numbers(n) is an odd number, then the formula is given below:
𝑛 + 1 𝑡ℎ
𝑀𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑛 = ( ) 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚
2

If the total number of the numbers(n) is an even number, then the formula is given below:
𝑛 𝑡ℎ 𝑛 𝑡ℎ
( ) 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚 + ( + 1) 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚
𝑀𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑛 = 2 2
2

Mode(প্রচুরক):
The mode is the value that occurs the most often in a data set.
𝑇ℎ𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑑𝑒 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑙𝑦 𝑜𝑐𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑠𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑒 𝑜𝑟 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒

Example:
Mukarram works 20 days a month. He is paid x Takas per hour for the 8 hours he works in a day. He is paid y Takas per
hour for any overtime. If he works 12 hours a day once every week, then what is his average hourly wage for a month?

a. 8(y + 20x) b.10(y + 16x) c.16(y + 10x) d. 4(3y + 7x) e. None of these

Answer: Option (e)

Explanation:
He is paid a total of 8 × 20 × x = 160x for the work hour
He is paid a total of 4 × 4 × y = 16y for the overtime
Total number of hours = 20 × 8 + 4 × 4 = 176
Total wage = 16(y + 10x)
Average payment per hour = (128x + 16y)/176 = (10x + y)/11

Practice Math:

1. If m is the average of the first 10 positive multiples of 5 and if M is the median of the first 10 positive multiple
of 5, what is the value of M-m?

a. –5 b. 0 c. 5 d. 25 e. None of these

2. The number of students in the three sections of a class are in the ratio 2:3:4. The average marks scored
in each of these sections is in the ratio 4:3:1. By what percent is the average mark of the second
section more than the class average?

a. 23.27% b. 28.57% c. 32.38% d. 36.74% e. None of these

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3. The average age of a family of 5 members is 20 years. If the age of the youngest member be 10 years then what
was the average age of the family at the time of the birth of the youngest member?

a. 13.5 b. 14 c. 15 d. 12.5 e. None of these

4. Let, A = 5B – C and D = 2B. What is the average of A, B, C, D?

a. B + 2 b. 2B c. B/2 d. 3B/4 e. None of these

Answers:
1. b 2. b 3. d 4. b

Solution:
1. The first 10 positive multiples of 5 are, 5,10,15,20,25,30,35,40,45,50.
Mean = (5+50)/2 = 27.5
Median = (25+30)/2 = 27.5
M–m=0

Option (b) is the correct answer.

2. Let the number of students be 2x, 3x, 4x.


Let the average marks be 4y, 3y, and y.
Average mark of class = (8xy + 9xy + 4xy)/(2x + 3x + 4x) =21xy/9x=7y/3
Percentage difference = (3y – 7y/3)/7y/3 × 100 = 28.57%

Option (b) is the correct answer.

3. Total age of the family 5 × 20 = 100


Before 10 years the total age was 100 – 5 × 10 = 50
Average of 4 members = 50/4 = 12.5

Option (d) is the correct answer.

4. A + C = 5B…(I)
D = 2B… (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii),
A + C + D = 7B
Or, A + B + C + D = 8B
Or, (A + B + C + D)/4 = 2B

Option (b) is the correct answer.

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Review Test
1. A car dealer sold 5 cars in a month. The average commission he gained from his first 4 sales is 20% more than
the average commission he gained from all 5 of his sales. The commission earned from his last sale accounts
for what % of his total commissions?

a. 20% b. 10% c. 8% d.6% e.4%

2. 6 friends decide to invest a total of Tk. x in a business with equal shares. However, 2 of them pull out and the
rest of them pay the entire amount. How much more did each of them have to pay now?

a. x/8 b. x/12 c. x/24 d. 3x/16 e. None of these

3. The average of 5 numbers is 40. If 3 more numbers, with an average of 31, are added to these numbers, what
will be the average of the combined 8 numbers?

a. 34.6 b. 35.4 c. 35.6 d. 36.4 e. 36.6

4. Mushfiqur Rahim averaged 70 in his first m number of matches. After n more matches, he had an overall
average of 75. In terms of m and n, his average for the last n matches was?

a. (5m + 75)/n
b. (5m/n) + 75
c. (5n/ m) + 75
d. (70m + 75n) / (m + n)
e. None of these

5. In a group of 4 people, the heights of the group members are 5 feet 6 inches, 5 feet 7 inches, 5 feet 8 inches,
and 5 feet 11 inches. The average height of the group members is:

a. 5 feet 6 inches
b. 5 feet 7 inches
c. 5 feet 8 inches
d. 5 feet 9 inches
e. None of these

6. The average of four numbers is 7 and the average of five numbers including the previous four numbers is 10.
What is twice the fifth number?

a. 22 b. 24 c. 32 d. 44 e. None of these

7. What is the average of (x + 2)2 and (x – 2)2?

a. x2 b. x2 + 2 c. x2 + 4 d. x2 + 2x e. None of these

8. The average of the three numbers is a. If one of the numbers is b and another is c, what is the remaining
number?

a. bc – a b. a – 3bc c. a/3 – (b + c) d. 3a – b – c e. a – (b + c)

9. If the average of 7, 13, x, and y is 12, what is the average of x + 7 and y – 3?

a. 14 b. 15 c. 16 d. 17 e. 18

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10. Find the average of all integers between 1 and 100 that end in 3.

a. 44 b. 45 c. 46 d. 47 e. None of these

Answers:
1. e 2. b 3. e 4. b 5. c
6. d 7. c 8. d 9. c 10. e

Solution:

1. Let the average commission from first 5 cars is x


The average commission from 4 cars = 1.2x [because 100% + 20% = 1.2]
Total commission from 5 cars = 5 × x = 5x
Total commission from 4 cars = 4 × 1.2 × x =4.8x
Commission from last car is 5x – 4.8x = .2
(.2)/5 × 100% = 4% from last sale

Option (e) is the correct answer.

2. Each of 6 pays x/6


The amount the 2 pulled out = 2 × x/6 = x/3
This amount must be paid by remaining 4 friends, so each of them pays x/3 × ¼ = x/12

Option (b) is the correct answer.

3. Sum of 5 numbers is 5 × 40 = 200


Sum of the 3 numbers is 3 × 31 = 93
Sum of the 8 numbers = 293
Average = 293/8 = 36.62

Option (e) is the correct answer.

4. Total in first m matches = 70m


Total in (m + n) matches = 75(m + n)
Total last n matches = 75m + 75n – 70m = 5m + 75n
Average of last n matches = 5m/n + 75

Option (b) is the correct answer.

5. Sum of the heights = 20 ft 32 in = 20 × 12 + 32 in = 272 in


Average = 272/4 = 68 in = 5 ft 8 in

Option (c) is the correct answer.

6. Sum of 4 numbers = 7 × 4 = 28
Sum of 5 numbers = 10 × 5 = 50
5th number = 50 – 28 = 22
Twice of 5th number = 44

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Option (d) is the correct answer.

7. Sum = x2 + 4x + 4 + x2 – 4x + 4 = 2x2 + 8
Average = x2 + 4

Option (c) is the correct answer.

8. Let other number is x


b + c + x = 3a
x = 3a – b – c

Option (d) is the correct answer.

9. 20 + x + y = 12 × 4 = 48 or, x + y = 28
(x + y + 7 – 3) /2 = (28 + 4)/2 = 16

Option (c) is the correct answer.

10. The sum of 3, 13, 23, 33, 43, 53, 63, 73, 83, 93 is = 480
Average = 480/10 = 48
If we look at the numbers that end in 3, we get an arithmetic sequence of; 3, 13, 23, 33, 43……, 93. The average
of an arithmetic sequence = (a+l)/2, Where a = the first term, l = the last term.
3+93
So, the required answer is = 48
2

Option (e) is the correct answer.

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Age
Type 1: Forming Equation

If the ages of one or more persons are given, an equation is to be formed with the given information. For example, “A
man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. What is the present age of
the son?”

Now all the information is relative to the age of the son. So, we are required to consider the son’s age as the variable.
So, let the age of the son be x years. The man is 24 years older than the son. So, the age of the father is x+24 years.

In two years, the age of the son and the father becomes x+2 years and x+26 years respectively. According to the
questions, age of the father is twice the age of the son. We can form an equation with this information.

2 × (x + 2) = x + 26

By solving this equation, we can find the desired value of x which is the present age of the son.
Here, 2x + 4 = x + 26
Or, x = 22
Therefore, the age of the son at present is 22 years.
In this way, we can solve problem related to ages by forming equations.

Practice Math:

1. The average age of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 10 years. What is the age of the youngest
child?

a. 4 years b. 8 years c. 10 years d. 12 years e. None of these

2. A father said to his son, "At the time of your birth, I was as old as you are now". If the father's age is 48 years
now, the son's age five years from now will be:

a. 29 years b. 19 years c. 33 years d. 38 years e. None of these

3. A is two years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of A, B and C is 27, then how old is
B?

a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10 e. 11

4. Father is aged three times more than his son Rohit. After 8 years, his age will be two and a half times of Rohit's
age. After further 8 years, how many times will father’s age be compared to Rohit's age?

a. 2 times b. 2.2 times c. 2.4 times d. 3 times e. 4 times

5. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. The present age of
his son is:

a. 14 years b. 18 years c. 20 years d. 22 years e. None of these

6. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 60 years. Six years ago, father's age was five times the
age of the son. After 6 years, son's age will be:

a. 12 years b. 14 years c. 18 years d. 20 years e. 24 years

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7. Ayesha's father was 38 years of age when she was born while her mother was 36 years old when her brother
four years younger to her was born. What is the difference between the ages of her parents?

a. 2 years b. 4 years c. 6 years d. 8 years e. 10 years

8. A person's present age is two-fifth of the age of his mother. After 8 years, he will be one-half of the age of his
mother. How old is the mother at present?

a. 32 years b. 36 years c. 40 years d. 48 years e. None of these

9. Q is as much younger than R as he is older than T. If the sum of the ages of R and T is 50 years, what is definitely
the difference between R and Q's age?

a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 25 years
d. Data inadequate
e. None of these

10. The age of father 10 years ago was thrice the age of his son. Ten years hence, father's age will be twice that of
his son. The ratio of their present ages is:

a. 5 : 2 b. 7 : 3 c. 9 : 2 d. 13 : 4 e. None of these

11. The present age of Ravi’s father is four times Ravi’s present age. Five years back he was seven times as old as
Ravi at that time. What is the present age of Ravi’s father?

a. 84 years b. 70 years c. 40 years d. 35 years e. None of these

12. Robin’s brother is 3 years elder than him. His father was 28 years of age when his sister was born while his
mother was 26 years of age when he was born. If his sister was 4 years of age when his brother was born, the
ages of Robin’s father and mother respectively when his brother was born were?

a. 32 years and 23 years


b. 32 years and 29 years
c. 35 years and 29 years
d. 35 years and 33 years
e. None of these

13. The product of the ages of Kamal and Mitesh is 240 years. The sum of the ages of Kamal 4 years hence and
Mitesh 10 years before is 25 years. Find the present age of Mitesh.

a. 16 years b. 14 years c. 12 years d. 9 years e. None of these

Answers:
1. a 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. d
6. d 7. c 8. c 9. d 10. b
11. c 12. a 13. a

Solution:

1. The average age of 5 children is 10 years, so the sum of their ages is 50 years

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Let, the age of the youngest child be x years
Now, x + (x + 3) + (x + 6) + (x + 9) + (x + 12) = 50
Or, 5x + 30 = 50
Or, 5x = 20
Or, x=4

So, option (a) is the correct answer

2. Let, the age of the son be x years. So, the age of the father is (x + x) = 2x years.
Now, 2x = 48
Or, x = 24
Therefore, the age of the son 5 years from now will be = 24 + 5 = 29

So, option (a) is the correct answer

3. Let, the age of C be x. So, the age of B is 2x and the age of A is 2x + 2


Now, x + 2x + 2x + 2 = 27
Or, 5x + 2 = 27
Or, 5x = 25
Or, x=5
Therefore, the age of B = 2 x 5 = 10 years

So, option (d) is the correct answer

4. Let, the current age of the son be x. So, the age of the father is 3x.
After 8 years, the age of the son will be x + 8 and the father will be 2.5 (x + 8)
Now, 3x + 8 = 2.5 (x + 8)
Or, 3x + 8 = 2.5x + 20
Or, 0.5x = 12
Or, x = 24
After, 16 years from now the age of Rohit will be 24 + 16 = 40
And age of his father will be (3 x 24) + 16 = 88
So, the age of the father will be 88/40 = 2.2 times

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. Let, the age of the son be x years. So, the age of the father is x + 24.
Now, 2 × (x + 2) = x + 24 + 2
Or, 2x + 4 = x + 26
Or, x = 22

So, option (d) is the correct answer

6. Let, six years ago, the age of the son was x years and the age of the father was 5x years.
Now, (x+6) + 5x + 6 = 60
Or, 6x + 12 = 60
Or, 6x = 48
Or, x=8
After 6 years, the age of the son will be x + 6 + 6 = 8 + 6 + 6 = 20 years.

So, option (d) is the correct answer

7. Age of the father when she was four = 38 + 4 years = 42 years.


When she was 4, the age of father was 42 while the age of mother was 36. So, difference = 6 years

So, option (c) is the correct answer

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8. Let, the age of the mother be x. So, the age of the person is 2x/5.
Now, 2x/5 + 8 = (x + 8)/2
Or, 4x + 80 = 5x + 40 [Multiplying by 10]
Or, x = 40

So, option (c) is the correct answer

9. No relationship between Q and R or T is mentioned

So, option (d) is the correct answer

10. Let, the age of the son 10 years ago was x. The age of the father was 3x. 10 years from now their
ages will be (x + 20) and 2(x + 20) respectively.
A/Q, 2(x + 20) = 3x + 20
Or, 2x + 40 = 3x + 20
Or, x =20
Therefore, present ages of father and son are (3x + 10) or, 70 and (x + 10) or 30.
Ratio between their ages is 7:3

So, option (b) is the correct answer

11. Let the present age of Ravi be = x years


The present age of Ravi’s father = 4x years
The age of Ravi 5 years back = x – 5 years,
The age of Ravi’s father 5 years back = 4x – 5 years
According to the question,
4x – 5 = 7(x – 5)
Or, 4x – 5 = 7x – 35
Or, 3x = 30 or x = 10
Therefore, the present age of Ravi is 10 years.
The present age of Ravi’s father is 40 years

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

12. Let the present age of Robin be x years


Then, the present age of his brother is x + 3 and his sister is x + 7 years.
Age of father when his sister was born = 28,
Age of father when his brother was born = 28 + 4 = 32 years. (Because his brother is 4 years younger to his
sister).
Age of mother when Robin was born = 26,
Age of mother when his brother was born = 26 – 3 = 23 years, (because Robin is 3 years younger to his brother).
Ages of Robin’s father and mother were 32 years and 23 years respectively

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

13. Let the present ages of Kamal and Mitesh be A and B.


Therefore, from question:
(A + 4) + (B – 10) = 25
Or, A + B – 6 = 25
Or, A + B = 31 --------- (1).
We have,
A x B = 240
Or, X = 240/ Y -------- (2)
Therefore,
240/B + B = 31, [substituting (2) in (1)]

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Or, B2 – 31B + 240 = 0
Or, B2 – 16B – 15B + 240 = 0
Or, B (B – 16) – 15 (B – 16) = 0
Or, (B – 15) (B – 16) = 0
Hence, the answer could be either 15 years or 16 years.
According to options 16 years.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Type 2: Ratio of ages given

If the ratio of ages is given, the ages can be considered as variables related to each other and equations can be formed
with the given information.
For example, “A is younger than B by 8 years. If their ages are in the respective ratio of 9:11, how old is A?
Now, the ratio of the ages of A and B is given. Let, the ages of A and B are 9x and 11x respectively. It is given that A is
younger than B by 8 years. So, an equation can be formed.
11x – 9x = 8
By solving this equation, we can find the values of x.
Here, 2x = 8
Or, x=4
So, the required value of x is 4. Now the age of A is equal to 9x. So, the required age of A is 9 × 4 = 36 years.
In this way, problems related to ages can be solved if the ratio of the ages are given.

Practice Math:

1. Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Kunal and Shagor was 6: 5. Four years hence, the ratio of their ages will
be 11:10. What is Shagor's age at present?

a. 16 years
b. 18 years
c. 20 years
d. Cannot be determined
e. None of these

2. Present ages of Paul and Richard are in the ratio of 5:4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of their ages
will become 11: 9 respectively. What was the ratio of their ages 3 years ago?

a. 9: 7
b. 27: 22
c. 40: 23
d. Cannot be determined
e. None of these

3. At present, the ratio between the ages of Araf and Dinash is 4:3. After 6 years, Araf's age will be 26 years. What
is the age of Dinash at present?

a. 12 years b. 15 years c. 19 and half d. 21 years e. None of these

4. Shourav is younger than Ratul by 7 years. If their ages are in the ratio of 7:9, how old is Shourav?

a. 16 years b. 18 years c. 28 years d. 24.5 years e. None of these

5. The present ages of three persons are in the ratio, 4: 7: 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was 56. Find
their present ages (in years).

a. 8, 20, 28 b. 16, 28, 36 c. 20, 35, 45 d. 21, 35, 40 e. None of these

6. The ratio of the present age of father to that of his son is 7 : 2. After 10 years their ages will be in the ratio of 9
: 4. The present age of father is –

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a. 35 years b. 40 years c. 30 years d. 25 years. e. None of these

Answers:
1. a 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. b
6. a

Solution:

1. Let, the ages six years ago of Kunal and Shagor was 6x and 5x respectively.
Then, (6x + 6 + 4) / (5x + 6 + 4) = 11/10
Or, (6x + 10) / (5x + 10) = 11/10
Or, 60x + 100 = 55x + 110
Or, 5x = 10
Or, x=2
Therefore, Shagor’s present age is 5x + 6 = 10 + 6 = 16

So, option (a) is the correct answer

2. Let the present ages of Paul and Richard be 5x and 4x respectively.


(5x + 3) / (4x + 3) = 11/9
Or, 45x + 27 = 44x + 33
Or, x=6
Therefore, the ratio of their ages three years ago was:
[(5*6) – 3] : [(4*6) – 3]
Or, 27 : 21
Or, 9:7

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

3. Let the present ages of Araf and Dinash be 4x and 3x respectively.


Then, 4x + 6 = 26
Or, 4x = 20
Or, x=5
Therefore, Dinash’s present age is 5 x 3 = 15

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

4. Let their present ages of Shourav and Ratul be 7x and 9x respectively.


Then, 9x – 7x = 7
Or, 2x = 7
Or, x = 3.5
Therefore, 7x = 3.5 x 7 = 24.5

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

5. Let their present ages be 4x, 7x and 9x years respectively.


Then, (4x – 8) + (7x – 8) + (9x – 8) = 56

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Or, 20x = 80
S0, x = 4.
Their present ages are 4x = 16 years, 7x = 28 years and 9x = 36 years respectively.

So, option (b) is the correct answer

6. Let the present ages of the son and the father be 7x and 2x respectively.
Their ages after 10 years will be 7x + 10 and 2x + 10.
Therefore, the ratio = (7x + 10) : (2x + 10) = 9 : 4
Now, the product of the means = the product of the extremes.
Or, (2x + 10) 9 = (7x + 10) 4
Or, 18x + 90 = 28x + 40
Or, 10x = 50
Or, x=5
Hence the present age of father = 7 x 5 = 35 years.

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Review Test
1. A person‘s present age is two-ninth of the age of his mother. After 10 years, he will be four-eleventh of the age
of his mother. How old will the mother be after 15 years?

a. 48 years b. 60 years c. 55 years d. 53 years e. None of these

2. Ratio of the ages of A and B is 5 : x. A is 18 years younger to C. After nine years C will be 47 years old. If the
difference between the ages of A and B is same as the age of C, what is the value of x?

a. 13 b. 12 c. 14.5 d. 13.25 e. None of these

3. The sum of present ages of A and B is 11 times the difference of their ages. 5 years hence, their total ages will
be 13 times the difference of their ages. What is the present age of older one between the two?

a. 35 years b. 20 years c. 25 years d. 30 years e. None of these

4. The average age of father, mother and their son was 42 years. Then the son got married and exactly after 1 year
he had a child. When the child became 5 years old, the average age of the family became 36 years. What was
the age of bride at the time of the marriage?

a. 30 years b. 27 years c. 25 years d. 22 years e. None of these

5. A says, “If you reverse my own age, the figures represent my Brother‘s age. He is, of course, senior to me and
the difference between our ages is one-eleventh of their sum.” Then A‘s brother‘s age is?

a. 45 b. 54 c. 25 d. 52 e. None of these

6. L is as much younger than M as he is older than N. If the sum of the ages of M and N is 60 years, what is
definitely the difference between M and L‘s age?

a. 3 years
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. Cannot be determined
e. None of these

7. If three times of the son‘s age in years is included to the mother‘s age, the total is 75 and if two times of the
mother‘s age is included to the son‘s age, the total is 80. So the son‘s age is?

a. 15 years b. 18 years c. 14 years d. 22 years e. None of these

8. The ages of P, Q and R together are 57 years. Q is thrice as old as P and R is 12 years older than P. Then, the
difference between ages Q and R is?

a. 11 years b. 6 years c. 8 years d. 4 years e. None of these

9. If 10 years are subtracted from the present age of kelly and the remainder is divided by 6, then the present age
of his grandson kyle is obtained. If kyle is 2 years younger to Nony whose age is 7 years, then what is kelly‘s
present age?

a. 40 years b. 35 years c. 52 years d. 55 years e. None of these

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Answers:
1. b 2. c 3. d 4. c
5. b 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. a

.
Solution:

1. Present ratio P:M = 2:9


After 10 years P:M = 4:11
Then (2x + 10)/ (9x + 10) = 4/11
Or, 22x + 110 = 36x + 40
Or, x = 5.
Then Mother‘s present age = 9*5 = 45 years.
After 15 yrs Mother‘s age will be 60yrs.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. Given A:B = 5: x
A = C – 18
C + 9 = 47
Or, C = 47 – 9
Or, C = 38 years.
Therefore, A is (38-18) or, 20 years old
And B is (20+38) or, 58 years old
So, 5: x = 20: 58
Or. X= 14.5

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. A + B = 11(A – B)
A:B = 6:5
According to 2nd condition
6x + 5x + 10 = 13(6x – 5x)
Or, x=5
So, the one who is older between the two is aged 6*5 = 30.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

4. F + M + S = 42*3 = 126
The total age of family after 6 years =36*5=180
The age of bride after 6 years = 180 – (126+ 18 + 5)
= 180 – 149
= 31 years
Age of bride at the time of marriage = 31 – 6 = 25 years.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

5. From option
54 – 45 = 1/11 (45 + 54)
Or, 9=9
Condition satisfied.

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So, option (b) is the correct answer.

6. M – L = L – N
(M + N) = 2L
Given (M + N) = 60
then 2L = 60
Or, L = 30
But it’s not possible to find the specific values of M or N
Therefore, cannot be determined.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

7. Let son‘s age = A and mother‘s age = B


Given: 3A + B = 75 and A + 2B = 80
Solving both the equations simultaneously, we will get A = 14.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

8. Let P‘s age = X


R 12 years older than P so R‘s age = x + 12
Q is thrice as old as P so Q‘s age = 3x
x + (x +12) + 3x = 57
Or, 5x = 45
Or, x=9
P‘s age = 9
Q‘s age = 3x = 27
R‘s age = x + 12 = 21
Q – R = 27 – 21 = 6 years.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

9. Kyle’s age = 7 – 2 = 5 years


Let Kelly’s age be x years.
Then (x – 10)/6 = 5
x = 40
So, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Inequalities (অসমিো)
Type 1: Solving by changing sides and using properties

Theory
These problems deal with numbers that are less than, greater than, or equal to other numbers. The following rules apply
to all inequalities:

“<” means “less than”, for example 5 < 6


“>” means “greater than”, for example 6 > 5
“≤” means “less than or equal to”, for example x ≤ 6 and y ≤ 6
“≥” means “greater than or equal to”, for example x ≥ 5 and y ≥ 6

Adding or subtracting equal quantities from an inequality does not change the signs of the inequality.
For example, if x > y,
Then (x + z) > (y + z)
And, (x – z) > (y – z).
Here, neither adding nor subtracting “z” has any effect on the signs of the inequality.

Multiplying or dividing equal quantities which are positive numbers does not change the sign of the inequality.
For example, if x > y and z is a positive number,
then xz > yz
and x/z > y/z.
Here, the multiplication or the division caused by “z” has no effect on the signs of the inequality.

Multiplying or dividing equal quantities which are negative in nature does change the sign of the inequality.
For example, if x > y and z is a negative number,
xz < yz and x/z < y/z.
Here, initially it is stated that “x > y” but due to “z” being negative, the inequality sign changes when x and y are multiplied
or divided by a negative “z”.

Practice Math:

1. If 7x-13 > 3x+3. Which one of the following is true?

a. x > 5 b. x < 2 c. (–x) > 4 d. x < 4 e. (–x) < (–4)

2. If x is greater than y and x + y = 12 and xy = 35, what is the value of (-x + y)?

a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. -2 e. –1

3. If 5x-8y> 3x+7y, which of the following must be true?

a. x + y > 0 b. y – x > 0 c. x > y d. x < y e. None of these

4. If 10z –7 < 5y + 13, which of the following must be true?

a. 3z > 7 + y
b. (z – 2) < 0.5y
c. 0.25z + 5 > y – 5
d. z < (y + 3)/2
e. None of these

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5. Delilah goes to NYC and buys x flowers and y pens. If she spends equal amount of money for both purchases
and the cost per unit flowers was more than the cost per unit pen, we can conclude:

a. x > y b. y > x c. x = y d. 2x > y e. Cannot be determined

6. If (x2 –4x + 12) < 17, which of the following must be true?

a. x > 5 b. (–1) > x > 5 c. (–1) < x < 5 d. x < 1 e. None of these

7. If a < b < c, then which of the following must be true?

a. 2a < (b + c)
b. (a – b) < (a – c)
c. a < (b + c)
d. 2a = (b + c)
e. None of these

8. If (x/y) < 0 which of the following must be negative?

a. x b. y c. –x d. –y e. Cannot be determined

9. Which of the following is the same as (13x – 17) > 9?

a. (x + 2)<0 b. (x –2)<0 c. (–x)<(–2) d. x<(–2) e. None of these

10. If abc < 0 and c < 0, then which of the following must be true?

a. ab = 1 b. ab < 1 c. a > bc d. ab < c e. ab > 0

11. If a > 1 which of the following decreases as ‘a’ increases?

a. a2 – a b. 1 – a2 c. a2 – 1 d. (a + 1)2 e. None of these

12. If a > 1 which of the following increases as ‘a’ increases?

a. 1 – a2 b. 1/a2 c. a2 – a d. 1/(a – 1) e. None of these

13. If 0 > a > –1 which of the following is true?

a. a3 > a b. a3 > 1 c. a > a2 > a3 d. a > a2 e. None of these

14. If x/y < 0, which of the following must be true?

a. x < 0 b. y < 0 c. xy < 0 d. x – y < 0 e. All of these

15. If xy < 0 and y < 0 which of the following must be positive?

(−𝑦−𝑥)
a. x – y b. 2x + 3y c. x + y d. e. 2y + x2
𝑥

Answers:
1. e 2. d 3. e 4. b 5. b
6. c 7. c 8. e 9. c 10. e

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11. b 12. c 13. a 14. c 15. a

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Solution:

1. Now, 7x – 13 > 3x + 3
Or, 7x – 3x – 13 > 3
Or, 4x > 16
Or, x>4
Or, - x < –4

Option (e) is the correct answer.

2. Now, x > y
xy = 35
Or, y = 35/x
Now, x + 35/x = 12
Or, x2 + 35 = 12x
Or, x2 – 12x +35 = 0
Or, x = 5, 7
Now x = 5, y = 7 is not possible since x > y
So, x = 7 and y = 5
Therefore, (–x + y) = –7 + 5 = –2

Option (d) is the correct answer.

3. 5x – 8y > 3x + 7y
Or, 5x – 3x > 7y + 8y
Or, 2x > 15y
This doesn’t provide necessary information to solve the inequality.

Option (e) is the correct answer.

4. 10z – 7 < 5y +13


Or, 10z – 7 – 13 < 5y
Or, 10z – 20 < 5y
Or, z – 2 < 0.5y

Option (b) is the correct answer.

5. Since flowers cost more than pens, less flowers can be bought than pens for equal amount of money. Therefore,
y>x

Option (b) is the correct answer.

6. x2 – 4x + 12 < 17
Or, x2 – 4x + 12 – 17 < 0
Or, x2 – 4x – 5 < 0
Or, x2 – 5x + x – 5 < 0
Or, x (x – 5) + 1 (x – 5) < 0
Or, (x – 5) (x + 1) < 0
Or, –1 < x < 5

Option (c) is the correct answer.

7. Since, a < c and a < b


Therefore, a < b + c

Option (c) is the correct answer.

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8. If x/y is less than 0 either x or y must be negative. But it cannot be confirmed which one is negative.

Option (e) is the correct answer.

9. 13x – 17 > 9
Or, 13x > 9 + 17
Or, 13x > 26
Or, x>2
Or, –x < –2

Option (c) is the correct answer.

10. c is less than 0 and abc < 0. The product of a and b must be a positive number. Therefore, ab > 0.

Option (e) is the correct answer.

11. If the value of a increases, a2 also increases. So, 1 – a2 decreases.

Option (b) is the correct answer.

12. If a > 1, a2 – a = a (a – 1)
If a increases, a – 1 also increases and a(a – 1) also increases.

Option (c) is the correct answer.

13. Here, a is between –1 and 0. So, for example, if a = –0.5, then a3 = –0.125
On the number line, a3 will be on the right side of a

Option (a) is the correct answer.

14. If x/y < 0. Either x or y is negative.


So, their product xy is negative i.e. xy < 0

So, option (c) is the right answer.

15. If xy < 0 and y < 0 then y is negative so x is positive.


Again, –y is always positive.
So, x – y is always positive.

So, option (a) is the right answer.

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Type 2: Finding out possible values

The sum of two positive numbers is greater than 0.


For example, if x and y are two number and x > 0 and y > 0, x + y > 0.

Again, the subtraction of two positive numbers may be equal to 0, less than 0 or more than 0.
For example, If x and y are two numbers and x > y > 0, x – y > 0.

The product of two positive numbers is greater than 0 and the product of two negative number is also greater than 0. If
one number is positive and one is negative, only then is the product less than 0.

For example,
If x and y are two numbers and x > 0 and y > 0, then xy > 0
If x and y are two numbers and x < 0 and y < 0, then xy > 0
If x and y are two numbers and x < 0 and y > 0, then xy < 0

Practice Math:

1. x and y are both integers. If 10 > x > 9 and x2 = (10 – y) (10 + y), which of the following is a possible value of y?

a. - 7 b. - 6 c. - 3 d. 4 e. both c and d

2. A lift operator is not allowed to carry less than 7 and more than 10 passengers in the lift at one time. If there are
45 people waiting on the ground floor, what is the minimum number of trips that the lift must make in order to
transport all the people?

1
a. 4 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6
2

3. The weight of Kalim is an integer. If he gains 6 kg, he will weigh less than 70 kg. If he gains 8 kg, he will weigh
more than 70 kg. What is his weight?

a. 61 b. 62 c. 63 d. 65 e. None of these

4. Jim has 5 pieces of string. He needs to choose the piece that will be able to go around his 36-inch waist as his
belt broke. The piece needs to be at least 4 inches longer than his waist so he can tie a knot in it, but it cannot
be more than 6 inches longer so that the ends will not show from under his shirt. Which of the following pieces
of string will work the best?

3 1 1
a. 3 feet b. feet c. 3 feet d. 3 feet e. None of these
4 2 4

5. Find the range of real values of x satisfying the inequalities 3x – 2 > 7 and 4x – 13 > 15

a. 7 > x > 3 b. –3 > x > –7 c. x > 7 d. x > 3 e. None of these

6. If 8 < √{(𝑛 + 6) (𝑛 + 1)} < 9, then n would be equal to

a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 e. 9

7. What is the sum of all integers x, such that – 35 ≤ x < 37?

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a. –36 b. 71 c. 36 d. 1260 e. None of these

8. If –100 < x < y < 0, then of the following, which has the greatest value?

a. y – x b. x + y c. x – y d. x3 e. y3

Answers:
1. e 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. c
6. a 7. c 8. a

Solution:

1. If 10 > x > 9, x2 will be between 81 and 100. 100 > x2 > 81


Now, x2 = 100 – y2. Or, x2 +y2 = 100. Since, the value of x2 is between 100 and 81, the value of y2 must be between
0 and 19.
4, 9 and 16 are whole square numbers that fit the condition. So, y can be 2, -2, 3, -3, 4 or -4

Option (e) is the correct answer.

2. Minimum number of trips mean maximum number of people per trip. So, 10 every time. So, number of trips = 5
as you cannot make half a trip.

Option (d) is the correct answer.

3. Let, the weight of Kalim be x


x + 6 < 70 and, x + 8 > 70
Therefore,
x + 7 = 70
Or, x = 63

Option (c) is the correct answer.

4. Length of waist = 36 inch. The length of the string should be 4 to 6 inches longer.
1 1
So, the string should be 40 inches to 42 inches. So, the string should be 3 feet to 3 feet.
3 2

Option (c) is the correct answer.

5. 3x – 2 > 7
Or, 3x > 7 + 2
Or, 3x > 9
Or, x>3
Again, 4x – 13 > 15
Or, 4x > 28
Or, x>7
Therefore, x > 7

Option (c) is the correct answer.

6. 82 = 64 and 92 = 81
If n = 5, (n + 6) (n + 1) = 11 x 6 = 66
If n = 6, (n + 6) (n + 1) = 12 x 7 = 84
So, the value of n must be 5

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Option (a) is the correct answer.

7. The integers range from –35 to 36.


The sum of integer from –35 to 35 is 0.
Therefore, the sum is 36.

Option (c) is the correct answer.

8. Since y and x are both negative, – x is positive. As the value of x is the lesser between x and y the value of –x is
greater. So, y – x has the greatest value and it is positive. All the other values are all negative.

Option (a) is the correct answer.

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Type 3: Addition, subtraction, multiplication and division of inequalities

Theory
While adding, subtracting, multiplying and dividing two different inequalities with two different variables and finding the
potential value, the minimum value and maximum value of both the inequalities are needed to be considered.

Addition/Subtraction

Let’s say 7 ≥ x ≥ 3 and 5 ≥ y ≥ 2.

আমাশদর মদখ্শত হশব x and y এর মকান values এর জনয (x+y) এর value সবশচশয় বড় হশব এবং মকান values এর জনয (x+y) er
values সবশচশয় মোি হশব।

(x+y) এর greatest value হশব যখ্ন (maximum value of x + maximum value of y) = (7+5) = 12
Again, (x+y) এর smallest value হশব when we have (minimum value of x + minimum value of y) = (3+2) = 5
So, we can say 12 ≥ (x+y) ≥ 5

Similarly, for (x-y),

(x-y) er greatest value হশব when we have (maximum value of x – minimum value of y) = 7 – 2 = 5
And, (x-y) er smallest value হশব when we have (minimum value of x – maximum value of y) = 3-5 = -2
So, we can say 5 ≥ x-y ≥ -2

Example: 7>x>3 and 5>y>2 and x and y are both integers. What is the minimum possible value of (x-y)?

a. 0
b. -2
c. 1
d. 5
e. None of these

Correct answer: (a) 0

Explanation:
Here, minimum possible value of (x-y) = (minimum possible value of x – maximum possible value of y)
Since, x and y are both integers,
And x>3, the minimum possible value of x = 4
And, 5>y, the maximum possible value of y = 4
So, the minimum possible value of (x-y) = (4-4) = 0

Multiplication and Division

Multiplication and Division এর মেশে x and y এর extreme values গুশ া ণনশয় আমাশদর মদখ্শত হশব মকান pair এর জনয
আমরা highest বা lowest values পাচ্ছে।

Example:

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9 ≥ x ≥ -11 and, 6 ≥ y ≥ -7

Here, maximum possible value of x = 9 and maximum possible value of y = 6. However, the maximum value of (xy) = (-
11)*(-7) = 77

And, minimum value of xy = (-11)*(6) = -66

So, 77 ≥ xy ≥ -66

এখ্াশন highest বা lowest value মবর করার জনয x এর extreme (highest and lowest) value এর সাশর্ y এর দুইিা extreme
value cross multiply কশর মদখ্শত হশব।

Similarly, division এর জনয, dividend এর extreme value গুশ া ণদশয় divisor এর extreme value গুশ া ভাগ ণদশয় highest বা
lowest value determine করশত হশব। Example,

If 20 ≥ x ≥ 10 and 5 ≥ y ≥ 2,

then for (x/y), (20/5) = 4, (20/2) = 10, (10/5) = 2 and (10/2) = 5.

So, we see that when x = 20 and y = 2, x/y has the highest value

And, when x = 10 and y = 5, x/y has the lowest value

So, 10 ≥ x/y ≥ 2

Practice Math:

1. If 0 ≤ x ≤ 5 and y < 10, which of these can be a value of xy?


I. –2 II. 0 III. 50

a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I & II only e. I and III only

2. If 0 ≤ x ≤ 4 and y < 12, which of the following cannot be the value of xy?

a. –2 b. 48 c. 6 d. 24 e. None of these

3. If 1 ≤ x ≤ 3 and 2 ≤y ≤ 4, which of the following must be true?

a. xy ≥ 5 b. xy ≤ 12 c. xy = 12 d. xy > 3 e. None of these

4. If x ≥ 8 and y ≤ 3, then which of the following must be true?

a. x/y = 5 b. (x + y) ≤ 11 c. (x – y) ≥ 5 d. xy ≤ 24 e. none
of these

5. If – 4 ≤ x ≤ 12 and – 2 ≤ y ≤ 13, which of the following numbers represent the maximum


value of (y – x)?

a. 25 b. 1 c. 14 d. 17 e. –1

6. If 3 ≤ x ≤ 7 and 5 ≥ y ≥ 2, which of the following must be true?

a. x + y > 8 b. x – y > 0 c. x – 2y < 2 d. 2x – y > 1 e. None of these

7. If x and y are integers, 13 < x < 25 and (–2) < y < 13, what is the greatest possible value of (x – y)?

a. 13 b. 24 c. 25 d. 36 e. None of these

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8. a and b are both integers. If 3 < a < 9 and –4 < b < 12, what are the possible values of a + b?

a. a + b must be between –3 and 6


b. a + b must be between 2 and 5
c. a + b must be between –3 and 21
d. a + b must be between 2 and 11
e. a + b must be between 1 and 19

9. If –5 ≤ a ≤ 2, and –7 ≤ b ≤ 1, what are the possible values for ab?

a. between –14 and 2


b. between –35 and 2
c. between 2 and 35
d. between –12 and 3
e. between –14 and 35

10. What are the values of (x – y) if 5 ≤ x ≤ 9 and –4 ≤ y ≤ –1?

a. –4 < x – y < 9
b. 9 ≤ x – y ≤ 10
c. –1< x – y < 5
d. 6 ≤ x – y ≤13
e. None of these

Answers:
1. d 2. b 3. e 4. c 5. d
6. d 7. d 8. e 9. e 10. d

Solution:

1. The value of x can be 1 and y can be -2. So, the value of xy can be –2. So, (I) is true.
The value of x can be 0 so the value of xy can be 0. So, (II) is true
The value of x can be 5 but the value of y cannot be 10. So, 50 is not possible. So, (III) is false. Therefore, only
(I) and (II) are true.

Option (d) is the correct answer.

2. The maximum value of x is 4. But, the value of y cannot be 12. Therefore, the value of xy cannot be 48.

Option (b) is the correct answer.

3. The value of xy can be between 2 and 12. None of the options satisfy this condition.

Option (e) is the correct answer.

4. The highest value of y is 3. The lowest value of x is 8. So, the lowest value of x – y is 5.

Option (c) is the correct answer.

5. The maximum value of y is 13 and the minimum value of x is –4. The value of y – x = 17.

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Option (d) is the correct answer.

6. The lowest value of x is 3 and lowest value of y is 2. So, x + y > 5


The lowest value of x is 3 and the value of y is 4. So, x – y < –1
The highest value of x is 7 and the lowest value of y is 2. So, x – 2y = 7 – 4 = 3. So, 2x – y > 2
The lowest value of x is 3 and highest value of y is 5. So, 2x – y = 1. So, 2x – y > 1

Option (d) is the correct answer.

7. The highest value of x is 24 and the lowest value of y is –1. So, maximum value of x – y is 24 - (-1) = 25

Option (d) is the correct answer.

8. The lowest value of a is 4 and the lowest value of b is - 3. So, the lowest value of a + b is 1.
The highest value of a is 8 and the highest value of b is 11. So, the highest value of a + b is 19.
Therefore, the value of a + b must be between 1 and 19.

Option (e) is the correct answer.

9. The lowest value of ab is (–7) x 2 = –14. The highest value of ab is (–7) x (–5) = 35.
Therefore, the value of ab must be between –14 and 35.

Option (e) is the correct answer.

10. The lowest value of x is 5 and the highest value of y is –1. The lowest value of x – y is 6.
The highest value of x is 9 and lowest value of y is –4. The highest value of x – y is 13.
Therefore, the value of x – y is between 6 and 13.

Option (d) is the correct answer.

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Review Test
1. If –8 < a < 20, and –4 < b < –2, what are the possible values of a / b?

a. a / b must be between 2 and –10


b. a / b must be between –2 and 20
c. a / b must be between –5 and 4
d. a / b must be between –80 and 32
e. a / b must be between –10 and 4

2. If 2p + 7 is greater than 3p – 5, which of the following best describes the possible values of p?

a. p must be greater than 2


b. p must be greater than 12
c. p must be less than 2
d. p must be less than 12
e. p must be greater than 2 but less than 12

3. If a > b > c > 1 and a x b x c = 48 where a, b, and c are integers, what is the greatest possible value of a?

a. 8 b. 18 c. 24 d. 36 e. 72

4. What values may z have if 2z + 4 is greater than z – 6?

a. Any value greater than –10


b. Any value greater than –2
c. Any value less than 2
d. Any value less than 10
e. None of these

5. If a > 0, b < 0, c > 1 and d < 1, which of the following must be true?

a. ab > cd b. ab < cd c. ac > d d. ac < bd e. Cannot be determined

6. If a > 0, b < 0 and c > a, which of the following must be positive?

a. (a/b – b/c) / (c – b)
b. (b/a – c/b) / (a – b)
c. (c/b – a) / (a – c)
d. abc /(c + b)
e. None of these

7. If x = (0.1)2, y = 1/5 and z = √1/100, which of the following is true.

a. xy > z b. xz > y c. x < y < z d. xy > z e. None of these.

8. If x is less than y, which of the following numbers must be greater than x and less than y?
I. (x + y)/2 II. xy/2 III. x2 – y2

a. only I b. only II c. I and III d. I and II e. None of these

9. If x = (0.08)2, y = 1 / (0.08)2 and z = (1 – 0.08)2 – 1, which of the following is true?

a. x = y = z
b. y < z < x

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c. z < x < y
d. y < x and x = z
e. None of these

10. If (a + b) > 0 and √(𝑎 + 𝑏) > b, which of the following must be true?

a. a > 0 b. b > 0 c. a < 0 d. b < 0 e. None of these

11. If m > n, n < p and n > 0, which of the following must be true?

a. mn > p2 b. mp > n2 c. pn > m2 d. mn > np e. None of these

12. If x / y < (x + 1) / (y + 1), which of the following must be true?

a. x < 1 b. x < y c. y < 1 d. y < x e. None of these

13. If x > 0 and y < 0, which of the following must be true?

a. x + y > 0 b. x2 – y2 > 0 c. y2 – x > 0 d. y + x2 > 0 e. None of these

14. If x < 1/x, then which of the following must be true?


I. x3 > x2 II. x2 > x3 II. x > x2

a. only I
b. only II
c. only III
d. both II and III
e. None of these

15. If (2 + √𝑥) > 2√𝑥, which of the following must be true?

a. x < 1 b. x < 2 c. x < 3 d. x < 4 e. None of these

16. Suppose z = a x b x c x d x e where a > b > c > d > e. A decrease by 1 in which of the factors would result in the
greatest decrease in the value of z?

a. a b. b c. c d. d e. e

17. If 2x + y = 2 and x + 3y > 6, then

a. y ≥ 2 b. y < 2 c. y > 2 d. y ≤ 2 e. y = 2

Answers:
1. e 2. d 3. a 4. a 5. e
6. e 7. e 8. a 9. c 10. e
11. b 12. b 13. e 14. b 15. d
16. e 17. c

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Solution:

1. The highest value of a is 20 and the highest value of b is –2. So, the lowest value of a/b is –10. The lowest
value of a is –8 and the lowest value of b is –2. The highest value of a/b is 4.
Therefore, the value of a/b is between –10 and 4.

Option (e) is the correct answer.

2. Now, 2p + 7 > 3p – 5
Or, 7>p–5
Or, 12 > p

Option (d) is the correct answer.

3. Since, the value of c and b cannot be 1 their minimum values are 3 and 2 respectively.
Now, a x b x c = 48
Or, a x 3 x 2 = 48
Or, a = 48/6
Or, a=8

Option (a) is the correct answer.

4. 2z + 4 > z – 6
Or, 2z – z + 4 > -6
Or, z > (–4) – (–6)
Or, z > –10

Option (a) is the correct answer.

5. We know, a is positive and b is negative. We can also say for sure that c is always going to be positive. But d
can be both positive or negative since d < 1. Therefore, any term containing d can be positive or negative (since
all the options are in the product form). So, the answer cannot be determined.

Option (e) is the correct answer.

6. a is positive, b is negative and c is positive. But there is no value mentioned.

Option (e) is the correct answer.

7. x = 0.01, y = 0.2 and z = 0.1. All four of them are false.

Option (e) is the correct answer.

8. If y > x, then (x + y)/2 is less than y and greater than x. So, (I) is true.
xy/2 is always greater than y. So, (II) is false.
(x2 – y2) is less than x in some case. So, (III) is false.

Option (a) is the correct answer.

9. Here, x < 1, y > 1 and z < 0


So, z < x < y

Option (c) is the correct answer.

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10. Not sufficient information is present.

Option (e) is the correct answer.

11. m, n and p are greater than zero. m and p are both greater than n. So, the product of m and p will be greater than
n2

Option (b) is the correct answer.

12. Now, x/y < (x + 1)/(y + 1)


Or. xy + x < xy + y
Or, x<y

Option (b) is the correct answer.

13. x is positive and y is negative. But since no value of x and y is mentioned so the answer cannot be determined.

Option (e) is the correct answer.

14. Here, x must be less than 1 or else 1/x will be less than x.
x2 will always be greater than x3 as if x is negative, x2 is positive but x3 is negative.
If x is positive but less than 1, the greater the power the lower the value.

Option (b) is the correct answer.

15. 2 + √𝑥 > 2√𝑥


Or, 2 > √𝑥
Or, 4>x

Option (d) is the correct answer.

16. The decrease in the lowest value that is e by 1 will result in the greatest decrease in the value of z.

Option (e) is the correct answer.

17. 2x + y = 2
Or, x = (2 – y)/2

Again, x + 3y > 6
Or, (2 – y)/2 + 3y > 6
Or, 2 – y + 6y > 12
Or, 2 + 5y > 12
Or, 5y > 10
Or, y>2

Option (c) is the correct answer.

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Ratio and Proportion

RATIO (অনুপোি)

A ratio is a comparison of two numbers. We generally separate the two numbers in the ratio with a colon (:).
Suppose we want to write the ratio of 8 and 12. We can write this as 8:12 or as a fraction 8/12, and we say the ratio is
eight to twelve. The first quantity of the ratio is called the antecedent and the second quantity is called the subsequent
or consequent.

Example:

Jawad has a bag with 3 video-cassettes, 4 marbles, 7 books, and 1 orange.

● What is the ratio of books to marbles?


Expressed as a fraction, with the numerator equal to the first quantity and the denominator equal to the second, the
answer would be 7/4.
Two other ways of writing the ratio are 7 to 4, and 7:4.

● What is the ratio of videocassettes to the total number of items in the bag?
There are 3 videocassettes, and 3 + 4 + 7 + 1 = 15 items total.
The answer can be expressed as 3/15, 3 to 15, or 3:15.

PROPORTION

A proportion is an equation with a ratio on each side. It is a statement that two ratios are equal.
3/4 = 81/108 is an example of a proportion.
When one of the four numbers in a proportion is unknown, cross multiplication may be used to find the unknown number.

Example:

Solve for n: 1/2 = n/4.


Using cross multiplication, we see that 2 × n = 1 × 4
Or, 2 × n = 4
So, n = 2

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Type 1: Ratio Determination
If the number of two objects are in any particular ratio, say there are black and blue pens in a box in the ratio 5:3, then
the sum total of pens in the box will be a multiple of (5+3) = 8.

So, if there are 8x pens in the box, 5x = black pens and 3x = blue pens.

Practice Math:

1. The ratio of 1/3 to 4/7 is

a. 1 to 3 b. 1 to 7 c. 7 to 12 d. 3 to 4 e. 7 to 4

2. A jar contains 12 pencils. Some sharpened and some unsharpened. Each of the following could be the ratio of
sharpened to unsharpened pencils except.

a. 2:1 b. 3:1 c. 4:1 d. 5:1 e. 1:1

3. Given that (p + 7q)/4p = 19/20, what is the ratio q:p?

a. 2:7 b. 2:5 c. 2:4 d. 1:3 e. 1:2

4. If 45 percent of the people who purchase a certain product is a child, what is the ratio of the number of children
who purchase the product to the number of adults who purchase the product?

a. 11/9 b. 10/9 c. 9/10 d. 9/11 e. 5/9

5. If a:b = 3:4, b:c = 4:7, c:d = 7:4; and d:e = 4:11 then what is a:e?

a. 3/11 b. 4/11 c. 3/7 d. 4/7 e. None of these

6. To mix a certain color of paint, Imtiaz combines 5 liters of red paint, 2 liters of blue paint, and 4 liters of yellow
paint. What is the ratio of red paint to the total amount of paints?

a. 5:2 b. 11:4 c. 5:4 d. 5:11 e. None of these

7. If 30% of x equals 36% of y and 18% of y equals 15% of z, what is the ratio of x to z?

a. 1.2 b. 1 c. 0.8 d. 75 e. none of these

8. If A = 3/4 B, B = 3/4 C, and C = 3/4 D, what part of D is B?

a. 27/64 b. 9/16 c. 1 d. 75% e. 4/3

9. A box contains 28 balls, some red and some black. Each of the following could be the ratio of red to black balls
except:

a. 1:1 b. 3:1 c. 5:3 d. 4:3 e. 5:2

10. If a right-angled isosceles triangle is inscribed in a semi-circle, what is the ratio of the area of the circle to the
area of the triangle?

a. 1/4 b. 1/2 c. π/2 d. 2 e. π

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Answers:
1. c 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. a
6. d 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. c

Solution:

1. LCM of 3 and 7 = 21
Now, 1/3: 4/7 = [(1/3) *21] : [(4/7) *21] = 7: 12

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

2. Option (a) implies 2 + 1 = 3, which is a factor of 12. So, it cannot be the answer.
Option (b) implies 3 + 1 = 4, which is a factor of 12. So, it cannot be the answer.
Option (c) implies 4 + 1 = 5, which is not a factor of 12. So, it can be the answer.
Option (d) implies 5 + 1 = 6, which is a factor of 12. So, it cannot be the answer.
Option (e) implies 1 + 1 = 2, which is a factor of 12. So, it cannot be the answer.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. Now, 20(p + 7q) = 19*4p


Or, 20p +140q =76p
Or, 56p = 140q
Or, q/p = 56/140 = 2/5

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

4. Children: adults = 45: (100 – 45) = 45: 55 = 9: 11

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

5. a: b: c: d: e = 3: 4: 7: 4: 11

So, option (a) is the answer.

6. Total paint = 5 + 2 + 4 = 11 liters


Ratio of red paint to total = 5/11

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

7. 30%x = 36%y
Or, 30/100 x = 36/100y
Or, 5x = 6y
Again, 18%y = 15%z
Or, 18/100 y = 15/100 z
Or, 6y = 5z.
So, 5x = 6y = 5z
Or, x/z = 5/5=1

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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8. B = 3/4 * (3/4 D) = 9/16 D

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

9. Option (a) implies 1+1 = 2, which is a factor of 28. So, it cannot be the answer.
Option (b) implies 3+1 = 4, which is a factor of 28. So, it cannot be the answer.
Option (c) implies 5+3 = 8, which is not a factor of 28. So, it can be the answer.
Option (d) implies 4+3 = 7, which is a factor of 28. So, it cannot be the answer.
Option (e) implies 5+2 = 7, which is a factor of 28. So, it cannot be the answer.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

10. Area of a semi-circle = πr2/2


Let the length of each side of the isosceles triangle other than the hypotenuse be x,
So, x2 + x2 = (2r)2
Or, 4r2 = 2x2
Or, x = r√2
Area of isosceles triangle = ½ (𝑟√2)(𝑟√2) = r2
Ratio of area of to circle of the triangle = π/2

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Type 2: Value Determination

Practice Math:

1. If a:b = b:c = 3:2 and c = 2, what is the value of a?

a. 3 b. 4 c. 4.5 d. 2.5 e. 5

2. A certain pole casts a shadow 24 ft. long. At the same time, another pole which is 3 feet high casts a shadow 4
feet long. How high is the first pole, given that the heights and shadows are in proportion?

a. 21 b. 20 c. 24 d. 18 e. 12

3. Four children aged 11, 9, 7 and 4 share a sum of money in the ratio of their ages. If the youngest child receives
Tk. 2400, what is the sum of money?

a. 16,800 b. 17,200 c. 18,000 d. 18,600 e. 19,200

4. A pudding weighing 1100g has three ingredients: flour, sugar, and eggs. There is twice as much flour as sugar
and one and a half times as much sugar as eggs. What is the quantity of sugar (in gram) in the cake?

a. 90g b. 180g c. 300g d. 450g e. none of these

5. Taka 1235 was divided between X, Y & Z. The amounts of money received by X & Y were in the ratio 1:2. Amounts
of money received by Y & Z were in the ratio 3:5. How much money did X receive?

a. Tk 205 b. Tk 195 c. Tk 150 d. Tk 100 e. None of these

6. If X:Y = 3:2, Y:Z = 4:3 and X + Y + Z = 650, what is the value of X?

a. 325 b. 195 c. 65 d. 390 e. None of these

7. The ratio of blue, red and white marbles in a box is 3:4:5. If 10 blue marbles are removed and 8 red marbles are
added, the total number of marbles becomes 118. How many red marbles are there in the box now?

a. 32 b. 45 c. 48 d. 50 e. none of these

8. Abu, Rafi and Arif invest Tk. 5000, Tk. 7000, and Tk. 12000 respectively in a business. If the profits are
distributed proportionately, what share of a Tk. 2222 profit should Arif receive?

a. Tk. 462.80 b. Tk. 508.00 c. Tk. 666.67 d. Tk. 740.66 e. Tk. 1111.00

9. The ratio of x to y is 0.6. If the ratio of 4y + 7 to 2x + 1 is 5, then what is the value of y?

a. 2 b. 3 c. –2 d. 3 e. None of these

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10. Three friends- Asif, Tanzila and Baha divided Tk. 1135 amongst them in such a way that if Tk. 20, Tk. 30 and Tk.
25 were removed from the amount Asif, Tanzila and Baha received respectively, then the share of the amount
they got would be in the ratio of 11:18:24. How much Baha receive?

a. 505 b. 520 c. 490 d. 385 e. None of these

11. Aahan started a business on the first day of 2008. Baky joined the business of Aahan on partnership contract
with double the investment to that of Aahan on July 1 of 2008. Rafi, on the first day of September 2008, joined
the partnership business of Aahan and Baky with thrice the investment to that of Aahan. The firm earned a profit
of Tk. 96,000 on 31st December, 2008. What will be the share of profit of Rafi?

a. Tk. 48,000 b. Tk. 32,000 c. Tk. 16,000 d. Tk. 64,000 e. None of these

12. Ages of three persons are now in the ratio of 4:5:6 and in eight years from now, the ratio will be 6:7:8. What is
the present age of the youngest person?

a. 32 b. 20 c. 16 d. 24 e. None of these

13. The ratio of marbles collected by Azim, Babu and and Mezbah is 1:2:5. If Babu gives 3 marbles to Azim and
receives 6 marbles from Mezbah, the ratio becomes 3:5:8. How many marbles did Mezbah have?

a. 25 b. 30 c. 35 d. 45 e. none of these

14. Sum of 1/4th of Manish’s income and 1/3rd of Baka’s income equal to Tk. 33,000. If 1/8th of Manish’s income is
equal to 1/5th of Baka’s income, what is Baka’s income?

a. 45,000 b. 43,500 c. 36,000 d. 33,000 e. none of these

15. The ratio of girls to boys in class is 6:9. The number of students in the class could be any of the following
except:
a. 30 b. 45 c. 50 d. 60 e. 90

16. The ratio of incomes of Shazneen & Raniya is 7:6 and the ratio of their expenditure is 4:3. If Shazneen saves Tk
500 per month, what is the income of Raniya?

a. Tk 2,500 b. Tk. 2,000 c. Tk. 1,500 d. Tk. 1,000 e. cannot be determined

17. Alif, Sahib and Salman started a business jointly with a total amount of Tk. 280. Alif paid Tk. 45 more than Sahib
and Sahib paid Tk. 70 less than Salman. If the company made a profit of Tk. 56, how much profit should Sahib
receive?

a. 22 b. 20 c. 25 d. 27 e. none of these

18. Three workers, X, Y and Z are paid a total of Tk 7,700 for a particular job. X is paid 133.33% of the amount paid
to Y and Y is paid 75% of the amount paid to Z. How much is paid to Z?

a. 1,750 b. 1,850 c. 2,100 d. 2,800 e. none of these

Answers:
1. c 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. b
6. e 7. c 8. e 9. e 10. a
11. b 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. c

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16. e 17. e 18. d
Solution:

1. b/2 = 1.5. So, b = 3


Again, a/3 = 1.5. So, a = 4.5

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

2. Let the height of the first pole be x


Pole: Shadow = 3: 4
Now, 3: 4 = x: 24
So, x = 18.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

3. The four children receive 12x, 10x, 5x and 4x respectively.


Now, 4x = 2400.
So, x = 600.
So, sum of money = 12x + 10x + 5x + 4x = 31x = 31* 600 = 18600

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

4. Let the amount of egg be x


So, amount of sugar = 1.5x
So, amount of flour = 3x
Now, x + 1.5x + 3x = 1100
Or, x = 1100/5.5 = 200
So, quantity of sugar = 200*1.5 = 300g

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

5. X: Y= 1:2 = 3:6
Y: Z= 3:5 = 6:10
X: Y: Z = 3: 6: 10
Amount X receives = 1235 *3/19 = 195

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

6. X: Y = 3: 2 = 6: 4
Y: Z = 4: 3
X: Y: Z = 6: 4: 3
So, X = 650 * 6/13 = 300

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

7. Let the number of blue red and white marbles be 3x, 4x and 5x respectively
Now, 3x – 10 + 4x + 8 + 5x = 118
Or, 12x = 118 + 2
Or x =10
So, number of red marbles = (10*4) + 8 = 48

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

8. Ratio of investment = 5000: 7000: 12000 = 5: 7: 12


Arif’s share of profit = 2222* 12/24 = 1111

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So, option (e) is the correct answer.

9. x = 0.6y
Now, (4y+7)/ (2x + 1) = 5
Or, 4y + 7 = 10x + 5
Or, 4y + 7 = 6y + 5
Or, 2y = 2
Or, y=1

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

10. Asif receives = 11x + 20


Tanzila receives = 18x + 30
Baha receives = 24x + 25
Now, 11x + 20 + 18x +30 + 24x + 25 = 1135
Or, 53x + 75 = 1135
Or, 53x = 1060
Or, x = 1060/53 = 20
So, Baha receives = 24*20 + 25 = 505

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

11. Ratio of investments = 1: 2: 3


Ratio of time = 12: 6: 4
Ratio of profit = 12: 12: 12= 1: 1: 1
So, Rafi’s share = 96000/3 = Tk. 32,000

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

12. Let the present ages of the persons 4x, 5x and 6x.
Now, (4x+8)/(5x+8) = 6/7
Or, 28x + 56 = 30x + 48
Or, x=4
So, the present age of the youngest = 4*4 = 16

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

13. Let the number of marbles collected by Azim, Babu and Mezbah be x, 2x and 5x respectively
After exchange, Babu’s marbles = 2x-3+6 = 2x +3
After exchange, Mezbah’s marbles = 5x-6
Now, (2x+3)/ (5x-6) = 5/8
Or, 16x + 24 = 25x – 30
Or, 9x = 54
Or, x=6
Mezbah’s marbles = 5*6 = 30

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

14. Let Manish and Baka’s income be x and y respectively


Now, 1/8 x = 1/5 y
Or, x =8/5 y
Now, 1/4 x + 1/3 y = 33000
Or, (1/4 * 8/5 * y) + 1/3 y = 33000
Or, y (2/5 + 1/3) = 33000
Or, y*(11/15) = 33000
Or, y = 45,000

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So, option (a) is the correct answer.

15. 6 + 9 = 15. To be the ratio of the class, it has to be a factor of the number.
Option (a) is 30 which is a factor of 15
Option (b) is 45 which is a factor of 15
Option (c) is 50 which is not a factor of 15.
Option (d) is 60 which is a factor of 15
Option (e) is 90 which is a factor of 15

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

16. Let Shazneen and Raniya’s income be 7x and 6x.


And expenditures be 4y and 3y.
Now, 7x – 4y = 500.
But 6x – 3y = ?
No other conditions are given.
The answer cannot be determined.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

17. Let payment of Sahib be x


Alif’s payment = x + 45
Salman’s payment = x + 70
Now, x + x + 45 + x + 70 = 280
Or, 3x + 115 = 280
Or x = 165/3 = 55
Sahib pays = 55 Tk
Alif pays = 55 + 45 = 100 Tk
Salman pays = 55 + 70 = 125Tk
So, Ratio of their investments = 55:100:125 = 11:20:25
So, Sahib receives = 56*(11/56) = 11

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

18. Let the amount that Z is paid be A.


So, Y is paid = 0.75A
So, X is paid = 1.33 * 0.75A = A
Now, A+ 0.75A + A = 7700
Or, 2.75A = 7700
Or, A = 2,800

So, option (d) is the answer.

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Type 3: Changes in Ratio

Practice Math:

1. A rugby team had a ratio of win to loss of 3:2. After winning 8 games in a row, the team’s ratio of win to loss
became 5:2. How many games had the team won before it won the 8 games?

a. 24 b. 12 c. 9 d. 6 e. 3

2. The ratio of water and salt in a 20 kg of salt-water solution is 3:1. How much water in kg must be added to make
the ratio of water to salt 4:1?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 e. None of these

3. The ratio of green marbles to red marbles in a box is 3:4. If there are 28 marbles in the box, how many additional
green marbles will be required to make the ratio of green marbles to red marbles 1:1?

a. 12 b. 9 c. 6 d. 3 e. None of these

4. In a salt solution the ratio of water to salt was 5:1. If the total weight of the solution was 3 kg, how much more
salt should be added so that the ratio becomes 2:1?

a. 0.25 kg b. 0.5 kg c. 0.75 kg d. 3 kg e. None of these

5. On a blueprint of a park, 1 foot represents 1 mile. If an error of 1/2 inch is made in reading the blueprint, what
will be the corresponding error on the actual park? [1 mile = 5280 feet]

a. 110 feet b. 220 feet c. 330 feet d. 440 feet e. None of these

6. On a blueprint, 1 inch represents 1 foot. If a window is supposed to be 60 inches wide, how wide would its
representation be on the blueprint?

a. 60 inches b. 12 inches c. 5 inches d. 32 inches e. None of these

7. A jar contains gray and silver balls. If there are 30 balls in the jar, all of the following could be the ratio of gray
to silver balls EXCEPT:

a. 9:1 b. 7:3 c. 1:1 d. 1:4 e. 1:8

Answers:
1. b 2. e 3. e 4. c 5. b
6. c 7. e

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Solution:

1. Let the number of games won and lost be 3x and 2x respectively.


Now, (3x + 8)/ 2x = 5/2
So, 6x + 16 = 10x
Or, 4x = 16
Or, x=4
So, number of games won before = 3*4 = 12.

So, option (b) is the correct answer

2. Let water to be added be x kg


Water in solution = 20*(3/4) = 15 kg
Salt in solution = 20 – 15 = 5 kg
Now, (15+x)/5 = 4/1
Or, 15 + x = 20
Or, x=5

So, option (e) is the correct answer

3. Let the number of green marbles to be added be x


Number of Green marbles = 28 * 3/7 = 12
Number of Red marbles = 28 – 12 = 16
Now, (12 + x)/16 = 1/1
Or, x + 12 = 16
Or, x=4

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

4. Let the amount of salt to be added be x kg


Amount of water in the solution = 3*5/6 = 2.5kg
Amount of salt in the solution = 3 – 2.5 = 0.5 kg
Now, 2.5/ (0.5 + x) = 2:1
Or, 2.5 = 1 + 2x
Or, x = 1.5/2 = 0.75

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

5. Actual error = 5280/12 * 1/2 = 220 feet

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

6. We know, 12 inches = 1 foot


So, representation on the blue print = 60/12 = 5 inches

So, option (c) is the answer.

7. Option (a) implies 9+1 = 10, which is a factor of 30. So, it cannot be the answer.
Option (b) implies 7+3 = 10, which is a factor of 30. So, it cannot be the answer.
Option (c) implies 1+1 = 2, which is a factor of 30. So, it cannot be the answer.
Option (d) implies 1+4 = 5, which is a factor of 30. So, it cannot be the answer.
Option (e) implies 1+8 = 9, which is not a factor of 30. So, it can be the answer.

So, option (e) is the answer.

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Review Test 1

1. The ratio of income of Afnan and Azwad is 4:5. The ratio of their expenditures is 5:6. Find the ratio of their
savings if the savings of Afnan is one fifth of his income?

a. 5:4 b. 19:12 c. 4:6 d. 20:29 e. 9:11

2. If x and y are integers greater than 150 such that x + y = 400, which of the following could be the exact ratio of
x to y?

a. 9 to 1 b. 6 to 2 c. 5 to 3 d. 4 to 1 e. 3 to 2

3. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the two numbers is:

a. 2 : 5 b. 3 : 5 c. 4 : 5 d. 6 : 7 e. None of these

4. If 40% of a number is equal to two-third of another number, what is the ratio of first number to the second
number?

a. 2 : 5 b. 3 : 7 c. 5 : 3 d. 7 : 3 e. 5 : 1

5. If A : B = 4 : 7 and B : C = 5 : 9 then A : B : C is :

a. 20: 35: 63 b. 35: 36: 63 c. 30: 35: 65 d. 25: 34: 68 e. None of these

6. If M : N = 3 : 4 and N : O = 8 : 9, then M : O is :

a. 1 : 3 b. 3 : 2 c. 2 : 3 d. 1 : 2 e. 1 : 7

7. If 15% of A is the same as 20% of B, then A : B is :

a. 3 : 4 b. 4 : 3 c. 17 : 16 d. 16 : 17 e. 4 : 5

8. In a company 10% of male staffs are same in number as 1/4th of the female staffs. What is the ratio of male
staff to female staff?

a. 3 : 2 b. 5 : 2 c. 2 : 1 d. 4 : 3 e. None of these

9. If 0.4 of a number is equal to 0.06 of another number, the ratio of the numbers is :

a. 2 : 3 b. 3 : 4 c. 3 : 20 d. 20 : 3 e. None of these

10. p, q and r are three positive numbers and S = (p + q + r)/2; If (S – p):(S – q):(S – r) = 2:5:7, then find the ratio of
p, q and r ?

a. 4:3:7 b. 12:9:7 c. 9:7:4 d. 4:3:2 e. None of these

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11. The ratio of the cost prices of two articles A and B is 4:5. The articles are sold at a profit with their selling prices
being in the ratio 5:6. If the profit on article A is half of its cost price, find the ratio of the profits on the articles
A and B?

a. 7:10 b. 9:11 c. 5:9 d. 10:11 e. None of these

12. If 80% of the girls at a school equals 50% of the total number of students, what is the ratio of girls to boys at
that school?

a. 5:3 b. 3:2 c. 2:5 d. 1:3 e. 1:5

13. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls in Patronus is 9:7. If total number of students in Patronus
at present is 288, how many girls should join to make the ratio 1:2?

a. 36 b. 90 c. 198 d. 210 e. None of these

14. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a proposal to increase
these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of increased seats?

a. 2 : 3 : 4 b. 6 : 7 : 8 c. 6 : 8 : 9 d. 1 : 4 : 5 e. None of these

15. In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quantity of water
to be further added is:

a. 20 liters b. 30 liters c. 40 liters d. 60 liters e. 70 liters

16. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college is 7 : 8. If the percentage increase in the number of boys
and girls be 20% and 10% respectively, what will be the new ratio?

a. 8 : 9 b. 17 : 18 c. 21 : 22 d. 25 : 26 e. None of these

17. The salaries A, B, C are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If the increments of 15%, 10% and 20% are allowed respectively in
their salaries, then what will be new ratio of their salaries?

a. 3 : 3 : 10 b. 10 : 11 : 20 c. 23 : 33 : 60 d. 12 : 13 : 16 e. 2 : 5 : 7

18. A mixture of 85 kg contains milk and water in the ratio 27:7. How much more water is to be added to get a new
mixture containing milk and water in the ratio 3:1?

a. 5 kg b. 6.5 kg c. 7.5 kg d. 8 kg e. 9 kg

19. The ages of Raju and Biju are in the ratio 3:1. Fifteen years hence, the ratio will be 2:1. Their present ages are:

a. 30yrs, 10yrs
b. 45 yrs, 15yrs
c. 21 yrs, 7 yrs
d. 60 yrs, 20 yrs
e. None of these

Answers:
1. d 2. e 3. c 4. c 5. a
6. c 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. b
11. d 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. d
16. c 17. c 18. a 19. b

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Solution:

1. Let income of Afnan and Azwad be 4x and 5x respectively.


And, expenditure be 5y and 6y respectively.
Now, 4x – 5y = 4x/5 or, 0.8x
Or, 20x – 25y = 4x
Or, 16x = 25y
Or, y = (16/25) x
So, ratio of savings = (8/10)x : [5x – {6*(16/25)x}] = 20:29

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. Option (a) implies, x = 360, y = 40, which doesn’t fulfill the condition.
Option (b) implies, x = 300, y = 100, which doesn’t fulfill the condition.
Option (c) implies, x = 250, y = 150, which doesn’t fulfill the condition.
Option (d) implies, x = 320, y = 80, which doesn’t fulfill the condition.
Option (e) implies, x = 240, y = 160, which fulfills the condition.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

3. Let the third number be x.


Then, first number = 120% of x =120x/100 = 6x/5
Second number = 150% of x = 150x/100 = 3x/2
Ratio of first two numbers = 6x/5 : 3x/2 = 12x : 15x = 4 : 5

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

4. Let the numbers be x and y.


Now, 0.4x = y*(2/3)
Or, x*(2/5) = y*(2/3)
Or, x/y= 5/3

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

5. B has to be brought to the same value.


So, A: B = 4: 7 = 20: 35
And, B: C = 5: 9 = 35: 63
So, A: B: C = 20: 35: 63

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

6. M: N = 3: 4 = 6: 8
So, M: N: O = 6: 8: 9
M: O = 6: 9 = 2: 3

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

7. Now, A*0.15 = B*0.20


Or, A/B = 0.20/0.15
Or, A: B = 4: 3

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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8. Let the number of male and female staffs be M & F respectively.
Now, 0.1M = F* 1/4
Or, M/F = 1/0.4
Or, M: F = 5/2

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

9. Let the numbers be x & y respectively.


Now, 0.4x = 0.06y
Or, x/y = 0.06/0.4
Or, x: y = 3: 20

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

10. (S – p):(S – q):(S – r) = 2:5:7


So, S – p = 2k _______ (1)
And, S – q = 5k ______ (2)
And, S – r = 7k ______ (3)
Now, (1) + (2) + (3) imply,
3S – (p + q + r) = 14k
Or, 3S – 2S = 14k
Or, S = 14k
Putting the value of S in (1), (2) & (3)
p = 12k
q = 9k
r = 7k
So, the ratio = p: q: r = 12: 9: 7

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

11. Let the profit on article A be denoted by Z and the profit on article B be denoted by Y
Let cost price of A be 4x.
So, cost price of B is 5x
Profit for A (Z) is 4x/2 = 2x
Now, (4x + 2x): (5x + Y) = 5: 6
Or, 6x/ (5x + Y) = 5/6
Or, 36x = 25x + 5Y
Or, Y = 11x/5.
Now, Z : Y = 2x : 11x/5 = 10:11

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

12. Let the number of boys be x and girls be y


Now, 0.8y = 0.5(x + y)
Or, 0.8y = 0.5x + 0.5y
Or, 0.3y = 0.5x
Or, y/x = 0.5/0.3 = 5:3

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

13. Let the number of girls to join Patronus be x


Number of boys = 288*(9/16) = 162
Number of girls = 288 – 162 = 126
Now, 162/(126 + x) = 1/2
Or, 324 = 126 + x
Or x = 324 – 126 = 198

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So, option (c) is the correct answer.

14. Let original number of seats for Mathematics, Physics & Biology be 5x, 7x and 8x.
Ratio after increase
1.4*5x : 1.5*7x : 1.75*8x
= 7x : 10.5x : 14x
= 14x : 21x : 28x
= 2:3:4

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

15. Quantity of milk= 60*(2/3) = 40 liters


Quantity of water = 60 – 40 = 20 liters
Now, 40/(x + 20) = ½
Or, 20 + x = 80
So, x = 60

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

16. Originally, let the number of boys and girls in the college be 7x and 8x respectively.
New ratio = (7x * 1.2) : (8x * 1.1) = 8.4x : 8.8x = 21 : 22

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

17. Let the salaries of A, B, C be 2x, 3x & 5x respectively.


New ratio
(2x*1.15) : (3x*1.1) : (5x*1.2)
= 2.3x : 3.3x : 6x
= 23 : 33 : 60

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

18. Milk in mixture = 85* (27/34) = 67.5 kg


Water in mixture= 85 – 67.5 = 17.5 kg
Now, 67.5 : (17.5 + x) = 3 : 1
Or, 67.5 = 52.5 + 3x
Or, 3x = 15
Or, x = 5 kg

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

19. Let Raju and Bilu’s age be 3x and x respectively.


Now, (3x + 15) : (x + 15) = 2 : 1
Or, 3x + 15 = 2x + 30
So, x =15
So, Raju’s age = 45
Bilu’s age = 15

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Review Test 2

1. In a club, the ratio of men and women is 16:9. The ratio of married men and married women is 4:3. Find the
percentage of married men out of the whole bunch if 75% of the women are married.

a. 36% b. 27% c. 25% d. 56.25% e. None of these

2. 10 liters are drawn from a container full of mango juice and is then filled with water. This operation is performed
three more times. The ratio of the quantity of mango juice now left in container to that of water is 16 : 81. How
much mango juice did the container hold originally?

a. 24 liters b. 30 liters c. 36 liters d. 42 liters e. None of these

4 2
3. A and B together have TK. 1210. If of A's amount is equal to of B's amount, how much amount does B
15 5
have?

a. TK. 460 b. TK 484 c. TK 550 d. TK 664 e. None of these

4. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the ratio of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets TK. 1000 more than D,
what is B's share?

a. TK. 500 b. TK. 1500 c. TK. 2000 d. TK. 2500 e. TK. 3000

5. Salaries of Rashid and Shumon are in the ratio 2 : 3. If the salary of each is increased by TK. 4000, the new ratio
becomes 40 : 57. What is Shumon's salary?

a. TK. 17,000 b. TK. 20,000 c. TK. 25,500 d. TK. 34,000 e. TK. 42,000

6. If 0.75: x = 5 : 8, then x is equal to:

a. 0.12 b. 1.2 c.25 d.30 e. 35

7. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of the first to second is 2:3 and that of the second to the third is
5: 8, then the second number is:

a. 20 b. 30 c. 48 d. 58 e. 62

123
8. If TK. 782 be divided into three parts, proportional to : : , then the first part is:
234

a. TK. 182 b. TK. 190 c. TK. 196 d. TK. 204 e. None of these

9. If 5:8 = 15:x, find the value of x.

a. 18 b. 24 c. 19 d. 20 e. 25

10. Two number are in the ratio of 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from each, the new numbers are in the ratio of 12 : 23.
The smaller number is:

a. 27 b. 33 c. 49 d. 55 e. 62

11. In a bag, there are coins of 25 paisa, 10 paisa and 5 paisa in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If there is TK. 30 in all, how
many 5 paisa coins are there?

a. 50 b. 100 c. 150 d. 200 e. None of these

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12. The ratio of number of boys and girls in a class is 3 : 2. In the 1st semester exam 20% of boys and 25% of girls
get more than or equal to 90% marks. What percentage of students get less than 90% marks?

a. 56 b. 70 c. 78 d. 80 e. 86

13. The speeds of three motor bikes are in the ratio 6 : 5 : 4. The ratio between the time taken by them to travel the
same distance is :

a. 10 : 12 : 15 b. 12 : 10 : 8 c. 15 : 12: 10 d. 10 : 15 : 12 e. None of these

14. The telephone bill of a certain establishment is partly fixed and partly varies according to the number of calls
made. When in a certain month 540 calls are made, the bill is TK.1800. In another month, when 620 calls are
made, the bill becomes TK.2040. If in another month 500 calls are made, the bill for that month would be:

a. TK.1560 b. TK.1680 c. TK. 1840 d. TK.1950 e. None of these

15. The ratio of incomes of two person P1 and P2 is 5: 4 and the ratio of their expenditures is 3: 2. If at the end of
the year, each saves TK.1600, then what is the income of P1?

a. TK. 800 b. TK. 2400 c. TK. 4000 d. TK. 3200 e. None of these

16. If 96 is divided into four parts proportional to 5, 7, 4, 8, the smallest part is:

a. 16 b.14 c. 20 d. 18 e. 20

17. Some ladies can do a piece of work in 12 days. Two times the number of such ladies will do half of that work
in:

a. 6 days b. 4 days c. 12 days d. 3 days e. None of these

18. Ram, Sham and Suresh start business investing in the ratio 1/2: 1/3: 1/4. The time for which each of them
invested their money was in the ratio 8:6:12 respectively. If they get profit of TK.18000 from the business, then
how much share of profit will Ram get?

a. TK. 4000 b. TK. 6000 c. TK. 9000 d. TK. 10000 e. None of these

19. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets TK. 1000 more
than D, what is the total amount?

a. TK. 14000 b. TK. 15000 c. TK. 20000 d. Tk. 25000 e. None of these

20. A bag contains 50 paisa, 20 paisa and 10 paisa coins in the ratio 5:3:1. If the total amount in the bag is 640 TK,
find the difference in the amounts contributed by 50 paisa and 20 paisa coins.

a. TK. 300 b. TK. 400 c. TK. 380 d. TK. 500 e. None of these

Answers:
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. d
6. b 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. b
11. c 12. c 13. a 14. b 15. c
16. a 17. d 18. e 19. a 20. c

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Solution:

1. Let the total number be 100


So, number of men = 100*(16/25) = 64
And women = 36
Number of married Women = 36*75% = 27
So, number of married men = 27*4/3 = 36.
So, percentage of married men out of the whole bunch = 36%

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

2. Let the amount of mango juice in the container be x


x (1 – 10/x)4/x = 16/81
Or, (1 – 10/x)4 = (2/3)4
Or, (x – 10)/x = 2/3
Or, 3x – 30 = 2x
Or, x = 30 liters

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

3. Now, A*4/15 = B*2/5


Or, A/B = 30/20 = 3/2
So, B’s share = 2/5 * 1210 = TK 484

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

4. Let A’s share be 5x. So, B’s share is 2x. C’s share is 4x. D’s share is 3x
Now, 4x – 3x = 1000
Or, x = 1000
So, B’s share = 2* 1000 = TK. 2000

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

5. Let the salaries of Rashid and Shumon be 2x & 3x.


Now, (2x + 4000): (3x + 4000) = 40: 57
Or, 114x + 228000 = 120x + 160000
Or, 6x = 68000
Or, x = 68000/6
So, Shumon’s salary = 3* 68000/6 = TK 34,000

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

6. 0.75*8 = x*5
Or, 6 = 5x
Or, x = 1.2

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

7. Let the numbers be x, y & z.


x: y = 2: 3 = 10: 15
y: z = 5: 8 = 15: 24
x: y: z = 10: 15: 24
So the second number = 98* 15/ (10 + 15 + 24) = 30

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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8. 1/2 : 2/3 : 3/4 = 6: 8: 9
So, first part = 782* 6/ (6 + 8 + 9) = TK. 204

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

9. Let the fourth proportional be x.


So, 5: 8 = 15: x
Now, 8*15 = 5x
So, x = 24

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

10. Let the numbers be 3x and 5x


Now, (3x – 9): (5x – 9) = 12: 23
Or, 69x – 207 = 60x – 108
Or, x = 11
So, the smaller number is = 3*11 = 33

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

11. Let the number of coins of 25, 10 & 5 Paisa be p : 2p : 3p.


Total value in Paisa = 3000
Therefore,
(25p + 20p + 15p) = 3000
So, p = 3000/60 = 50
Or, 3p = 150

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

12. Let the number of boys be 3x and girls be 2x.


Number of people who got less than 90% marks = (0.8* 3x) + (0.75*2x) = 3.9x
So, required percentage = (3.9x/5x)100 = 78%

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

13. LCM of 6, 5, 4 is 60. So, let the total distance be 60 units


So, ratio of time taken to travel same distance = 60/6: 60/5: 60/4 = 10: 12: 15

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

14. Let the fixed amount be x and the cost of each call be y.
540y + x = 1800 _____ (1)
620y + x = 2040 _____ (2)
(2) – (1) imply,
80y = 240
Or, y =3
Putting value of y in (1),
1620 + x = 1800
Or, x = 180
So, bill for the month = 180 + 500*3 = TK. 1680

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

15. Let the incomes be 5x and 4x respectively.


And the expenditures be 3y and 2y.
Now, 5x – 3y = 1600_____ (i)

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And, 4x – 2y = 1600_____ (ii)
(ii) – (i) imply,
5x – 3y – 4x + 2y = 1600 – 1600
Or, x=y
Putting value of x in (1)
x = 800, y= 800
So, P1’s income = 5*800 = TK. 4000

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

16. Given proportion = 5 : 7 : : 4 : 8


So, smallest part = 96 * 4/ (5 + 7 + 4 + 8) = 16

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

17. Two times the number of ladies can do the same work in 12/2 = 6 days
Again, two times the number of ladies can do half work in 6/2 = 3 days

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

18. Ratio of Investment = 1/2:1/3:1/4 = 6:4:3


Time for which investment is made = 8:6:12
So, actual investment = (6*8) : (4*6) : (3*12) = 48: 24: 36 = 4: 2: 3
So, Ram gets = 4/9 *18000 = TK. 8000

So, option (e) is the correct answer

19. Let A’s share be 5x. So, B’s share is 2x. C’s share is 4x. D’s share is 3x
Now, 4x – 3x = 1000
Or, x = 1000
So, the total amount = 5x + 2x + 4x + 3x =14x = TK. 14000

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

20. Let the number of 50p, 20p and 10p coins be 5x, 3x and x respectively.
Sum of their values = 250x/100 + 60x/100 + 10x/100 = 320x/100
Now, 320x/100 = 640
Or, x = 200
Amount by contributed by 50p coins = 250*200/100 = 500
Amount by contributed by 20p coins = 60*200/100 = 120
Difference = 500 – 120 = TK. 380

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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MIXTURE
Mixture (বমশ্রণ)
Type 1: Mixture Formula

Two elements having individual concentration (ঘনত্ব) are mixed together to form a mixture. The mixture will have a new
concentration. The total volume/weight of the mixture will be the sum of that of the elements.
Solving a mixture problem requires that you read the question carefully and figure out what the unknown or the desired.
quantity is. Then replace that quantity with x and find its value.
The following formulae will help you solve mixture problems:

(Concentration1) (Amount1) + (Concentration2) (Amount2) = (final concentration) (total amount)

Note:

(a) The concentration of pure acid is 100%.


(b) The concentration of pure water is 0%.

Practice Math:

1. Two alloys of equal weights containing tin, copper and lead in the ratio 3:2:7 and 4:11:3 are melted and mixed
together. What is the ratio of tin, copper and lead in the resultant alloy?

a. 41:81:37 b. 33:91:81 c. 17:28:27 d. 51:86:89 e. 41:85:84

2. Mixture X is 15 percent peanut and 85 percent hazel nut by weight, mixture Y is 45 percent peanut and 55
percent cashew nut. If a mixture of X and Y contains 30 percent peanut, what percent of the weight of this
mixture is X?

a. 10% b. 33.33% c. 40% d. 50% e. 66.66%

3. Tea worth TK. 126 per kg and TK. 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1:1:2. If the mixture is
worth TK. 153 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg will be:

a. TK. 169.50 b. TK. 170 c. TK. 175.50 d. TK. 180 e. None of these

4. Richard has three quarts of a 40% acid solution and six pints of a 20% acid solution. If he mixes them, what will
be the concentration of the resulting solution? [1 quart = 2 pint]

a. 22% b. 23% c. 30% d. 25% e. 26%

5. 28 buckets of 36% paint solution is mixed with 36 buckets of 28% paint solution. What is the concentration of
the resulting solution?

a. 20% b. 31.5% c. 32.5% d. 30% e. 34%

Answers:
1.c 2.b 3.c 4. d 5. b

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Solution:

1. Let the weight of the two alloys be w each.


Required ratio
(3w/12 + 4w/18): (2w/12 3+ 11w/18): (7w/12 + 3w/18)
= 17w/36: 28w/36: 27w/36
= 17:28:27

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

2. Let the weight of mixture X be m


And the weight of mixture Y be n
Therefore, the weight of the final mixture is m+n
And the weight of peanut in the mixture X is 0.4m
The weight of peanut in mixture Y is 0.25n
Now, 0.15 m + 0.45 n = 0.3(m + n)
Or, 0.15 m + 0.3 n = 0.3 m + 0.3 m
Or, 0.15 m = 0.15 n
Or, n=m
So, percentage of m in the mix = m/ (m + n) = 1/2 = 50 %

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

3. Let the price of the third variety be x Tk.


Now, 126*1 + 135*1 + 2x = 153*(1 + 1 + 2)
Or, 126 + 135 + 2x = 612
Or, 2x = 612 – 135 – 126 = 351
Or, x = 351/2 = 175.50

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

4. Let the final concentration be x


Now, 3*2*40% +6*20% = 12x
Or, 12x = 360%
Or, x = 30%

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

(28×36)+(36×28) 2016
5. The concentration of the resultant mixture =
28+36
= 64
= 31.5

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Type 2: Spider Method

An easy approach to solving mixture problems is the Spider Method. If two ingredients are mixed, one cheaper and
another costlier, then

(𝑄𝑢𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑐ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑝) (𝐶𝑃 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡𝑙𝑦 − 𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒)


=
(𝑄𝑢𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡𝑙𝑦) (𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒 − 𝐶𝑃 𝑜𝑓 𝑐ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑝)

The above formula can be represented with the following diagram:

(Cheap Quantity) : (Costly Quantity) = (d – m) : (m – c)

Practice Math:

1. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of pulses costing TK. 15 and TK. 20 per kg respectively so as to
get a mixture worth TK. 16.50 kg?

a. 3:7 b. 5:7 c. 7:3 d. 7:5 e. None of these

2. A dishonest milkman declares to sell his milk at cost price but he mixes it with water and thereby gains 25%.
The percentage of water in the mixture is:

1
a. 4% b. 6 % c. 20% d. 25% e. None of these
4

3. How many kilograms of sugar costing TK. 9 per kg must be mixed with 27 kg of sugar costing TK. 7 per kg so
that there may be a gain of 10% by selling the mixture at TK. 9.24 per kg?

a. 36 kg b. b. 42 kg c. 54 kg d. 63 kg e. 54 kg

4. A jar full of whisky contains 40% alcohol. A part of this whisky is replaced by another containing 19% alcohol
and now the percentage of alcohol was found to be 26%. The quantity of whisky replaced is what fraction of the
original mixture:

1 2 2 3
a. b. c. d. e. None of these
3 3 5 5

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2
5. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to gain 16 % on selling the mixture at cost price?
3

a. 1:6 b. 6:1 c. 2:3 d. 4:3 e. 7:5

6. Find the ratio in which rice at TK. 7.20 per kg be mixed with rice at TK. 5.70 per kg to produce a mixture worth
TK. 6.30 per kg.

a. 1:3 b. 2:3 c. 3:4 d. 4:5 e. 8:5

7. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of tea worth TK. 60 per kg and TK. 65 per kg so that by selling the
mixture at TK. 68.20 per kg he may gain 10%?

a. 3:2 b. 3:4 c. 3:5 d. 4:5 e. 5:4

8. The cost of Type-1 rice is TK. 15 per kg and Type-2 rice is TK. 20 per kg. If both Type-1 and Type-2 are mixed in
the ratio of 2 : 3, then the price per kg of the mixed variety of rice is:

a. TK. 18 b. TK. 18.50 c. TK. 19 d. TK. 19.50 e. Tk. 20

9. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on
the whole. The quantity sold at 18% profit is:

a. 400 kg b. 560 kg c. 600 kg d. 640 kg e. 700 kg

10. Two varieties of sugar are mixed in a certain ratio. The cost of the mixture per kg is Tk 0.50 less than that of the
superior variety and TK. 0.75 more than that of the inferior variety. What was the ratio of superior variety to
inferior variety in the mixture?

a. 5:2 b. 3:2 c. 2:1 d. 1:1 e. None of these

11. Coffee A normally costs 100 Taka per pound. It is mixed with coffee B, which normally costs 70 Taka per pound,
to form a mixture which costs 88 Taka per pound. If there are 10 pounds of the mix, how many pounds of coffee
A was used in the mix?

a.4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 e. None of these

12. Coffee A normally costs 75 paisa per pound. It is mixed with Coffee B, which normally costs 80 paisa per pound,
to form a mixture, which costs 78 paisa per pound. If there are 10 pounds of the mix, how many pounds of
Coffee A were used in the mix?

a. 3 b. 4 c. 4.5 d. 5 e. 6

13. How many pounds of chocolate worth $1.20 per pound must be mixed with 12 pounds of chocolate worth 90
cents per pound to produce a mixture worth $1.00 per pound?

a. 3 b. 6 c. 10 d. 15 e. 20

Answers:
1. c 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. a
8. a 9. c 10. b 11. c 12. b 13. b

Solution:

1. Let ratio of both varieties be x:y

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Variety 1 Variety 2
15 20

16.5

x y
3.5 1.5

So, the ratio x:y = 3.5:1.5 = 7:3

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

2. Let cost price of milk be x Tk.


So, selling price of mixture = x Tk. (Gain 25%)
Cost price of mixture = x/ (x + 0.25x) *x = 0.8x

CP of Milk CP of Water
x 0

0.8x

0.8x 0.2x

So, percentage of water = 0.2x/x * 100 = 20%

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. Selling price of mixture = 9.24 Tk.


So, cost price = 9.24 *100/110 = 8.40 Tk.

CP of 1st Kind CP of 2nd Kind


9 Tk. 7 Tk.

8.40 Tk.

1.40 0.60

So. Ratio = 1.4: 0.6 = 7: 3


Let weight of 1st kind be x kg

Now, 7: 3 = x: 27
Or, x = 63

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

4.
Strength of Jar 1 Strength of Jar 2
40% 19%

26%

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7 14

So. Ratio = 7: 14 = 1: 2
So replaced quantity = 2/ ((1 + 2) = 2/3

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. Let cost price of milk be x Tk.


So, selling price of mixture = x Tk. (Gain 50/3 %)
Cost price of mixture = x/ (x + 0.5x/3) * x = 6x/7
CP of Water CP of Milk
0 x

6x/7

x/7 6x/7

So, ratio = x/7: 6x/7 = 1: 6

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

6.
Cost of 1st Kind Cost of 2nd kind
7.2 5.7

6.3

0.6 0.9

So. Ratio = 0.6: 0.9 = 2: 3

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

7. Selling price of mixture = 68.20 TK.


So, cost price = 68.20 *100/110 = 62 TK.
CP of 1st Kind CP of 2nd Kind
TK. 60 TK. 65

TK. 62

3 2

So. Ratio = 3: 2

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

8. Let the price of mix variety be x Tk. x /kg

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CP of 1st Kind CP of 2nd Kind
TK. 15 TK. 20

x Tk.

20 – x x – 15

Now, (20 – x): (x – 15) = 2:3


Or, 60 – 3x = 2x – 30
Or, 5x = 90
Or, x = 18

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

9.

8% 18%

14%

4% 6%

So the ratio is 4: 6 or 2: 3
So, the quantity sold at 18% profit is: 3*1000/5 = 600 kg

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

10. The ratio of the quantity of the superior variety to that of the inferior variety is 0.75: 0.5 = 3: 2

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

11.
Coffee A Coffee B
100 70

88

18 12

So, the ratio of the quantity of coffee A to Coffee B is 18:12 = 3: 2


So, the quantity of coffee A is 3*10/5 = 6

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

12.
Coffee A Coffee B
75 80

78

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2 3

So the ratio of the quantity of coffee A to Coffee B is 2:3.


So the quantity of coffee A is 2*10/5 = 4

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

13.
Chocolate A Chocolate
1.2 0.9

0.1 0.2

So the ratio of the quantity of chocolate A to chocolate B is 1:2.


So the quantity of chocolate A is 12/2 = 6

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Type 3: Special Category Spider Method in Average

Spider method is a faster technique to solve questions based on weighted average. Be careful to understand the concept
of this method in depth so that you are able to solve the question quite fast.

When to use the spider method?


We can use this method in problems where two quantities or ingredients are mixed to obtain the third quantity or
ingredient. The quantity/cost price/concentration of the former two quantities are written at the upper two hands of the
spider as shown in the figure below. The mean (m) of these two quantities/cost prices/concentrations are written at
the middle. Naturally, the value of the mean (m) will be higher than the quantity having low value and lower than the
quantity having greater value, i.e., the value of the mean will be in the middle of these two quantities.
The mean value is subtracted from the quantity with greater value and the resulting value is written at the hand opposite
to that quantity. The lower quantity is subtracted from the mean value and the resulting value is written at the hand
opposite to that quantity.

Cost Price (CP) of a Cost Price (CP) of a


unit quantity of unit quantity of
cheap ingredient (c) costly ingredient (d)

Mean Price

(m)

(d–m) (m–c)

=> (Cheap Quantity) : (Costly Quantity) = (d – m) : (m – c)

The two resulting values at the lower hands give the ratio in which the two ingredients are to be mixed to get the third
ingredient.
In the above example, Cost Price has been used to indicate the values of the two quantities. This method can also be
used for such questions where the values are in the form of quantity (kg), concentration (%) etc.

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Practice Math:

1. Eight kilograms of rice costing TK. 16 per kg is mixed with four kilograms of rice costing TK. 22 per kg.
What is the average price of the mixture?

a. 20 b. 18 c. 16 d. 19 e. 22

2. Tea worth TK. 126 per kg and TK. 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1:1:2. If the mixture is
worth TK. 153 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg will be:

a. TK. 169.50 b. TK. 170 c. TK. 175.50 d. TK. 18 e. None of these

3. A vessel is filled with liquid, 3 parts of which are water and 5 parts syrup. How much of the mixture must be
drawn off and replaced with water so that the mixture may be half water and half syrup?

a. 1/3 b. 1/4 c. 1/5 d. 1/7 e. 1/8

Answers:
1. b 2. c 3. c

Solution:

1. 8 kg of 16 = 8 ×16 = 128
4 kg of 22 = 4 × 22 = 88
Average price = 216/12 = 18

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. Let the price of third variety is x


The mixture is (126 + 135 + 2x)/4 = 153
x = 175.5

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. Let the part taken out is x


Water in the mixture taken out is 3x/8
Syrup in the mixture taken out is 5x/8
3(1 – x)/8 + x = 5(1 – x)
Or, x = 1/5

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Type 4: Obtaining a specific ratio

A common mixture problem that you might see on the test is substitution of some amount of mixture with another
component liquid. For example, the scenario might be that from a container of diluted milk (milk + water), 5 litres is
drawn out and is replaced with the same volume of water. By this operation, the starting volume remains unchanged
but the ratio of amounts of milk and water in the mixture changes.

The core concept is that as you draw out 5 litres from the mixture, you are removing both milk and water in certain
proportions. While adding, you put in only 5 litres of water. The milk part that was taken out in the 5 litres of the mixture
is completely lost. But the 5 litres of water that you just put in won’t increase the amount of water by the whole 5 litres
because while initially taking out the 5 litres of the mixture, you also took out some water that was lost.

Problems involving repeated operations can be solved with the following formula:
Suppose, a container contains x units of a liquid from which y units are drawn out and replaced with water. After n
operations, quantity of pure liquid in the container will be
𝑦 𝑛
𝑥 (1 − ) 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
𝑥

Practice Math:

1. A vessel is filled with liquid, 3 parts of which are water and 5 parts syrup. What portion of the mixture must be
drawn off and replaced with water so that the mixture may be half water and half syrup?

1 1 1 1
a. b. c. d. e. None of these
3 4 5 7

2. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B is the ratio 7:5. When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off and the
can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7:9. How many litres of liquid A was contained by the can
initially?

a. 10 b. 20 c. 21 d. 25 e. 27

3. A milk vendor has 2 cans of milk. The first contains 25% water and the rest milk. The second contains 50%
water. How much milk should he mix from each of the containers so as to get 12 litres of milk such that the
ratio of water to milk is 3:5?

a. 4 litres, 8 litres
b. 6 litres, 6 litres
c. 5 litres, 7 litres
d. 7 litres, 5 litres
e. None of these

4. A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container 4 litres of milk was taken out and replaced by water.
This process was repeated further two times. How much milk is now contained by the container?

a. 26.34 litres
b. 27.36 litres
c. 28 litres
d. 29.16 litres
e. 31.25 litres

5. 8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This operation is performed three more
times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that of water is 16 : 65. How much wine did the cask
hold originally?

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a. 18 litres b. 24 litres c. 32 litres d. 42 litres e. 54 litres

6. In a salt-water solution, the ratio of water to salt is 13:5. If you add 8 kgs of salt, the ratio becomes 13:7. What
is the amount of salt in the original solution in kg?

a. 33 b. 14 c. 20 d. 28 e. None of these

7. How many litres of milk should be added to a 44 litres mixture of milk and water containing milk and water in
the ratio of 7:4 such that the resultant mixture has 33.33% water in it?

a. 4 b. 10 c. 5 d. 12 e. None of these

Answers:
1.c 2.c 3.b 4.d 5.b
6. c 7.a

Solution:

1. Let the liquid to be replaced be x liters


Total liquid = 5 + 3 = 8 parts
Now, (3 – 3x/8 + x): (5 – 5x/8) = 1: 1
Or, 24 – 3x + 8x = 40 – 5x
Or, 10x = 16
Or, x = 1.6
So, portion to be replaced = 1.6/8 = 0.2 = 1/5

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

2. Let liquids contained by the can be 7x and 5x


Quantity left in A = 7x – 9*7/12 = 7x – 21/4
Quantity left in B = 5x – 9*5/12 = 5x – 15/4
Now, (7x – 21/4) : (5x – 15/4) + 9) = 7 : 9
Or, (28x – 21) : (20x + 21) = 7: 9
Or, 252x – 189 = 140 + 147
Or, 112x = 336
Or, x=3
So, liquid A in the can was = 3*7 = 21 liters

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. Milk in 1st can mixture = 3/4.


Milk in 2nd can mixture = ½
Milk in final mixture = 5/ (3 + 5) = 5/8

Milk in 1st Can Milk in 2nd Can


3/4 1/2

5/ 8

1/8 1/8

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So, Ratio = 1: 1
So, Quantity taken from both cans should be 6 liters

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

4 3 9 9 9
4. Amount of milk left after 3 operations = {40 (1 - ) } liters = 40 x x x = 29.16 liters.
40 10 10 10

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

5. Let the quantity in the wine cask be x liters


8
Wine left after 4 operations = {x (1 – )4}
𝑥
8
Now, {x (1 – )4} /x = 16 / (16 + 65)
𝑥
8 2
Or, (1 – ) = ( )4
4
𝑥 3
Or, 8/x = 1/3
Or, x = 24

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

6. Let the amount of salt be 5x


And amount of water = 13x
Now, 13x : (5x + 8) = 13:7
Or, 91x = 65x + 104
Or 26x = 104
Or, x=4
So, salt in the original solution = 4*5 kg or 20 kg

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

7. Milk in mixture = 44*7/11 = 28 liters


Water in mixture = 44*4/11 = 16 liters
Let the milk to be added be x liters.
Now, (28 + x) : 16 = 2:1
Or, 28 + x = 32
Or, x=4

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Review Test

1. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on
the whole. The Quantity sold at 18% profit is

a. 720 b. 660 c. 540 d. 600 e. None of these

2. A wholesaler mixes Coffee A that cost TK. 2.60 per kg and Coffee B that cost TK.4 per kg to make 100 kg of a
mixture that costs TK. 3.30 per kg. How many pounds of TK.2.60 per kg nut is put into the mixture?

a. 30 b. 40 c. 45 d. 50 e. 60

3. How many cubic centimeters of water must be added to 100 cc of 70% solution of Boric Acid to reduce it to a
50% solution?

a. 40 b. 45 c. 50 d. 55 e. 60

4. A man adds two quarts of pure alcohol to a 30% solution of alcohol in water. If the new concentration is 40%,
how many quarts of the original solution were there?

a. 12 b. 15 c. 18 d. 20 e. 24

5. How many ounces of water must be added to 48 ounces of alcohol to make a solution that is 25% Alcohol?

a. 140 b. 144 c. 148 d. 152 e. 156

6. A solution of 66 liters contains milk and water in the ratio 7: x. If four liters of water is added to the solution,
the ratio becomes 3:2, find the value of x?

a. 8 b. 5 c. 3 d. 4 e. 6

7. A mixture of 20 kg of spirit and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to this mixture to
raise the percentage of water to 25%

a. 4 kg b. 5 kg c. 8 kg d. 30 kg e. None of these

8. The ratio of water and salt in a 16 kg of salt-water solution 3:1. How much water in kg must be added to make
the ratio of water to salt 4:1?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 e. None of these

9. Eight kilograms of rice costing TK. 16 per kg is mixed with four kilograms of rice costing Tk. 22 per kg. What is
the average price of the mixture?

a. TK. 20 b. TK. 18 c. TK. 16 d. TK. 19 e. 21

10. How many kilograms of tea powder costing TK. 31 per kg be mixed with 36 kilograms of tea powder costing
Tk. 43 per kg, such that the mixture when sold at TK. 44 per kg gives profit of 10%?

a. 12 b. 15 c. 20 d. 10 e. 20

11. In 24 kg of salt water, 8% is salt, of another mixture, 4% is salt. How many kg of the 2nd solution must be added
to the first mixture to get a solution that is 5% salt?

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a. 24 b. 36 c. 48 d. 72 e. 96

12. 16 gm of supplement A contains 230 micro grams of vitamin B and 16 gm of supplement B contains 190 micro
grams of vitamin B. If an 8 gm mixture of these two supplements contains 105 micro grams of vitamin B, what
fraction of the mixture is supplement A?

a. 1/3 b. 12/27 c. ½ d. 2/3 e. 47/54

Answers:
1. d 2. d 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. d 7. a
8. c 9. b 10. a 11. d 12. c

Solution:

1. Profit on 1st part = 8%


Profit on 2nd part = 18%

8 18

14

4 6

So, ratio of 1st and 2nd part = 4:6.


Therefore, the quantity of the 2nd part = (3/5) * 1000 kg = 600 kg.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. Let the weight of $2.60 mixture be x pounds


Now, 2.6x + 4(100-x) = 3.3*100
Or, 2.6x + 400 – 4x = 330
Or, 1.4x = 70
Or, x = 70/1.4= 50

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

3. Let the water to be added be x cc


Now, 100*0.7 + 0*x = 0 .50(100 + x)
Or, 70 = 50 + .5x
Or, 0.5x = 20
Or, x = 40

So, option (a) is the correct answer.


4.
Concentration of Pure Acid solution
acid 30%
100%

40%

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10% 60%

Let the required quantity of 30 % acid solution is x quarts


Therefore,
10: 60 = 2: x
Or, x = 12

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

5.
Concentration of water Concentration of pure
0% alcohol
100%

25%

75 25

Let the required amount of water be x ounces


So, 3: 1 = x: 48
Or, x = 144

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

6. New total quantity = 66 + 4 = 70


Milk in new solution = 70 * 3/5 = 42
Water in new solution = 70 – 42 = 28
Water in old solution = 28 – 4 = 24
Ratio in old solution = 42: 24 = 7: 4

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

7. Amount of water in the solution = 20* 10% = 2 kg


Let water added be x kg
Now, (2 + x)/ (20 + x) = 25% = 1/4
Or, 8 + 4x = 20 + x
Or, 3x = 12
Or, x=4

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

8. Salt in the solution = 16/4 = 4kg


Water in the solution = 16-4 = 12kg
Let the added salt be x kg
So, (12 + x)/4 = 4:1
Or, 12 + x = 16
Or, x=4

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

9. Let the average price be x


Now, 16*8 + 22*4 = (8 + 4) x
Or, 128 + 88 = 12x
Or, 12x = 216
Or, x = 18

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So, option (b) is the correct answer.

10. Selling price of mixture =TK. 44


So, cost price = 44 *100/110 =TK. 40

31 43

40

3 9

Let the required quantity of tea powder at TK. 31 per kg is x


Therefore,
x : 36 = 3 : 9 = 1 : 3
Or, x = 12

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

11.

8 4

1 3

Let the required amount of the 2nd solution be x


Therefore,
24 : x = 1 : 3
Or, x = 72

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

12. Let the amount of supplement A in the mixture be x


Now, x (230/16) + (8 – x) (190/16) = 105
Or, 230x + 1520 – 190x = 1680
Or, 40x = 160
Or, x=4
So, fraction of supplement A in the mixture = 4/8 = ½

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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WORK DONE
PROBLEMS

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Work Done Problems
Type 1: Basic Unitary method (ঐবকক বনয়ম)

Practice Math:

1. A piece of work can be finished by a certain number of men in 150 days. If there were 10 men less, it would take
10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?

a. 75 b. 82 c. 100 d. 160 e. 180

2. 2 pumps, working 4 hours a day, can empty a tank in 2 days. How many hours a day must 4 pumps work to
empty the tank in 1 day?

a. 9 b. 10 c. 11 d. 4 e. 8

3. If the cost of x meters of wire is r Taka, then what is the cost of y meters of wire at the same rate?

a. TK. (x/yr) b. TK. (xr) c. TK. (yr) d. TK. (yr/x) e. None of these

4. Running at the same constant rate, 5 identical machines can produce a total of 200 cans per minute. At this
rate, how many cans could 10 such machines produce in 4 minutes?

a. 648 b. 1600 c. 2700 d. 10800 e. 1200

5. A fort had provision of food for 120 men for 40 days. After 10 days, 30 men left the fort. For how many more
days for which the remaining food will last, is:

a. 29 b. 37 c. 40 d. 54 e. 87

6. 40 persons can repair a road in 8 days, working 5 hours a day. In how many days will 30 persons, working 6
hours a day, complete the work?

a. 10 b. 8 c. 14 d. 15 e. 7

7. A man completes 25% of a job in 10 days. At this rate, how many more days will he take to finish the job?

a. 5 b. 30 c. 7 d. 712 e. None of these

8. If a quarter kg of potato costs 40 paisa, how much will 200 gm cost?

a. 32 paisa b. 54 paisa c. 56 paisa d. 72 paisa e. None of these

9. In a dairy farm, 30 cows eat 40 bags of grass in 40 days. In how many days will one cow eat one bag of grass?

a. 1 b. 1140 c. 30 d. 80 e. 35

10. If 6 spiders make 6 webs in 6 days, then 1 spider will make 1 web in how many days?

a. 1 b. 3.5 c. 6 d. 49 e. 4

Answers:
1.d 2.d 3.d 4.b 5.c

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6.b 7.b 8.a 9.c 10.c

Solution:

1. Let the number of men originally be x


What they could do in 150 days is done by (x-10) men in 160 days.
Let one man in one day does one unit of work. So, the total work is of 150x units
150x = (x-10)160
150x = 160x – 1600
1600=10x
x= 160

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. 2 pumps empty a tank in 2 days working 4 hours per day


1 pump empties the tank in 1 day working 4(2*2) hours per day
4 pumps empty the tank in 1 day working = 16/4 hours per day
= 4 hours per day

So, option (d) is the correct answer

3. x meters of wire costs r Taka


1 meters of wire costs r/x Taka
y meters of wire costs = ry/x Taka

So, option (d) is the correct answer

4. In 1 min 5 machines can produce 200 cans


In 1 min 1 machine can produce 200/5 cans
In 4 min 10 machines can produce 40*4*10 = 1600 cans

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. After 10 days, 120 men had food for 30 days.


So, for 120 men the provision will last for 30 days
For 1 man the provision will last for 30*120 days
For 90 men the provision will last for (30*120)/90 days
= 40 days

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

6. Working 5 hours a day, 40 people take 8 days to complete the work


Working 1 hour a day, 1 person take 8*5*40 days to complete the work
Working 5 hours a day, 40 persons take = 1600/ (5*40) days to complete the work
= 8 days

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

7. Work left to do = 1-(25/100)= 75/100 part


0.25 part of the work is done in 10 days
So, 1 part of the work is done in (10/0.25) days
So, 0.75 part of the work is done in (40*0.75) =30 days

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So, option (b) is the correct answer.

8. 1 kg = 1000 gm
1000/4=250 gm potato costs 40 paisa
1 gm potato costs (40/250) =0.16 paisa
So, 200 gm potato costs (0.16*200) =32 paisa

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

9. 30 cows eat 40 bags of grass in 40 days


1 cow eats 1 bag of grass in (40*30)/40 days = 30 days

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

10. 6 spiders make 6 webs in 6 days


1 spider makes 6 webs in 6*6 days
1 spider makes 1 web in (6*6)/6 days= 6 days

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Type 2: Or / and work done math

Practice Math:

1. If 6 men and 8 women can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 women can do the same in 2
days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 women in doing the same type of work will be:

a. 4 days b. 5 days c. 6 days d. 7 days e. 8 days

2. 10 men or 18 women can do a piece of work in 38 days, in how many days will 6 men and 12 women do it
together?

a. 35 b. 30 c. 45 d. 50 e. 55

3. If 12 men and 16 women can do a piece of work in 5 days. 13 men and 24 women can do it in 4 days, how long
will 7 men and 10 women take to do it?

a. 3 days
b. 5.6 days
c. 8.33 days
d. Cannot be determined
e. None of these

4. In a camp, there is a meal for 120 men or 260 children. If 150 children have taken the meal, how many men will
be catered to with remaining meal?

a. 20 b. 50 c. 40 d. 0 e. 30

Answers:
1. a 2. b 3. c 4. b

Solution:

1. Let, in one day, one man can do ‘m’ unit of work and one woman can do ‘w’ unit of work
Therefore,
(6m + 8w)10 = (26m + 48w )2
Or, 30m + 40w = 26m + 48w
Or, 4m = 8w
Or, m = 2w
Or, m/w = 2/1
Hence, total work = (6*2w+ 8w) *10 = 200w units
Required time for (15m + 20w) units of work = 200/(15*2 + 20*1) = 200/50 = 4 days

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

2. In 38 days, 10 men can do 1 work


So, in one day, one man can do 1/(10*38) part of the work
So, in one day, 6 men can do 6/380 part of the work

In 38 days, 18 women can do 1 work


So, in one day, one woman can do 1/(18*38) part of the work
So, in one day, 12 women can do 12/684 part of the work
Therefore, working together,

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6 12 1
6 men and 12 women can do ( + ) 𝑜𝑟 part of the work in 1 day
380 684 30
So, 6 men and 12 women can do 1 work in 30 days

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

3. Let one man, in one day, can do M unit of work and one woman, in one day, can do W unit of work
Therefore,
5(12 M + 16 W) = 4(13 M + 24 W)
60M + 80W = 52M + 96W
That gives, 8M = 16W, which is, 1M=2W
So, one man can do the work of two women

Now, 12 men + 16 women can do work in 5 days.


So, 12 men + 8 men can do work in 5 days.
Or, 20 men can do work in 5 days.
Now, 7 men + 10 women = 7 men + 5 men = 12 men
Hence, 12 men can do work in (20*5)/12 = 8.33 days

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

4. As given, 120 men = the equivalent of 260 children


1 child = 120/260 = the equivalent of 6/13 men
So food left for 260 – 150 = 110 children = food left for 110*(6/13) men = 50.77 men.
Therefore, 50 men can be properly catered to with the remaining food.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Type 3: Efficiency and Multiple of a working rate

Practice Math:

1. Raman is thrice as good as workman as Anan and therefore is able to finish a job in 60 days less than Anan.
Working together, they can do it in:

a. 20 days b. 22.5 days c. 25 days d. 30 days e. 35 days

2. Sakib is 25% more efficient than Monisha. How much time will they, working together, take to complete a job
which Sakib alone could have done in 20 days?

a. 10 days b. 11.11 days c. 13 days d. 15 days e. 3 days

3. Sany can do a piece of work in 20 days. Tanvir is 25% more efficient than Sany. The number of days taken by
Tanvir to do the same piece of work is:

a. 15 b. 16 c. 18 d. 25 e. None of these

4. Afra takes twice as much time as Rehana or thrice as much time as Monisha to finish a piece of work. Working
together, they can finish the work in 2 days. Rehana can do the work alone in:

a. 4.5 days b. 1.5 days c. 8.66 days d. 12.75 days e. None of these

5. Kabir works twice as fast as Samid. If Samid can complete a work in 12 days independently, the number of days
in which Kabir and Samid can together finish the work is :

a. 4 days b. 6 days c. 8 days d. 18 days e. None of these

6. Twenty girls can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen boys can complete the same work in fifteen days. What is
the ratio between the capacity of a boy and a girl?

a. 3 : 4 b. 4 : 3 c. 5 : 3 d. 7 : 4 e. Cannot be determined

7. Asid and Abir can do a job together in 7 days. Asid is 7/4 times as efficient as Abir. The same job can be done
by Asid alone in :

a. 91 days b. 11 days c. 12 days d. 16 days e. 82 days

Answers:
1. b 2. b 3. b 4. e 5. a
6. b 7. b

Solution:

1. The efficient ratio of Raman to Anan is 3:1. Therefore the ratio of the required number of days for each of them
to finish the work individually is 1:3.
The difference in the ratio is 2, which corresponds to 60 days.
Hence Raman takes 30 days and Anan takes 90 days.
So, in 30 days Raman can do 1 work.
In 1 day, he finishes 1/30 part of the work.
In 90 days, Anan can do 1 work.
In 1 day, he finishes 1/90 part of the work.
So, working together,

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They finish (1/30 + 1/90) part or 2/45 part of the work in 1 day
Therefor they finish 1 part of the work in 45/2 days or 22.5 days

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. The efficient ratio of Sakib to Monisha is 1.25 : 1 therefore ratio of the required number of days for each of them
to finish the work individually is 1 : 1.25
So Monisha would take 20*1.25 =25 days
Work done by Sakib in one day = 1/20 part
Work done by Monisha in one day = 1/25 part
Work done by Sakib and Monisha in one day: 1/20 + 1/25 = 9/100 part
If both of them worked together, it would take them 100/9 or 11.11 days.

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

3. Let the total work is of 100 units.


So, in 20 days Sany can do 100 units of work
So, in one day he does 100/20 = 5 units of work
Tanvir is 25% more efficient than Sany.
So, Tanvir does 1.25*5 units of work in 1 day.
So, he does one unit of work in 1/ (1.25*5) days
Therefore he does 100 units of work in 100/(1.25*5) days or 16 days

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

4. Suppose Afra, Rehana and Manisha take 3x, 1.5x and x days to finish the work respectively
Therefore, in one day they can finish 1/3x , 2/3x and 1/x part of the work respectively
So, working together, they finish (1/3x + 2/3x + 1/x) or 6/3x part or 2/x part of the work in 1 day
They finish 1 part of the work in x/2 days
Therefore
x/2 = 2
Or, x=4
Therefore, Rehana takes 6 days to finish the work

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

5. As the efficiency of Kabir to Samid is 2:1. So, ratio of required number of days to finish the work individually is
1:2
So, kabir independently finishes the work in 12/2 = 6 days
And if they work together, in one day, they finish (1/6 + 1/12) =1/4 part of the work
So, they can finish the whole work in 4 days

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

6. 20 girls in 16 days can do 1 work


So, one girl, in one day, can do 1/ (20*16) part of the work
16 boys in 15 days can do 1 work
So, one boy, in one day, can do 1/ (16*15) part of the work
Therefore, the ratio of the capacity of a boy and a girl is (16*20)/ (16*15) = 4:3

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

7. Asid’s 1 day’s work: Abir’s 1 day’s work = 7/4 :1 = 7:4


Let Asid’s and Abir’s 1 day’s work be 7x and 4x respectively
Then, 7x + 4x = 1/7
11x=1/7

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Or, x= 1/77
So Asid’s 1 day’s work = (1/77 *7) = 1/11
Therefore, in one, day Asid completes 1/11 part of the work
So, he can do the whole work alone in 11 days

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Type 4: Different rates working together to finish work

Practice Math:

1. Mala can do a work in 15 days and Amit in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of
the work that is left is:

a. 1/4 b. 1/10 c. 7/15 d. 8/15 e. None of these

2. A can lay railway track between two given stations in 16 days and B can do the same job in 10 days. With help
of C, they did the job in 4 days only. Then, C alone can do the job in:

a. 9.15 b. 9.25 c. 11.42 d. 10.25 e 12.69

3. X, Y and Z can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can X do the work if he
is assisted by Y and Z on every third day?

a. 12 days b. 15 days c. 16 days d. 18 days e. 21 days

4. P alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and Q alone in 8 days. P and Q undertook to do it for Tk. 3200. With
the help of R, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to R?

a. TK. 375 b. TK. 400 c. TK. 600 d. Tk. 800 e. TK. 900

5. X can do a piece of work in 4 hours; Y and Z together can do it in 3 hours, while X and Z together can do it in 2
hours. How long will Y alone take to do it?

a. 8 hours b. 10 hours c. 12 hours d. 24 hours e. None of these

6. A can do a certain work in the same time in which B and C together can do it. If A and B together could do it in
20 days and C alone in 60 days, then B alone could do it in:

a. 15 days b. 20 days c. 60 days d. 30 days e. 45 days

7. P can complete a work in 10 days working 8 hours a day. Q can complete the same work in 8 days working 15
hours a day. If both P and Q work together, working 9 hours a day, in how many days can they complete the
work?

a. 15/11 b. 16/7 c. 16/9 d. 16/11 e. None of these

8. X and Y can do a work in 8 days, Y and Z can do the same work in 12 days. X, Y and Z together can finish it in 6
days. X and Z together will do it in:

a. 4 days b. 6 days c. 8 days d. 12 days e. 16 days

Answers:
1.d 2.c 3.b 4.b 5.c
6.c 7.e 8.c

Solution:

1. Mala, in 15 days finishes 1 part of the work


Or, in 1 day finishes 1/15 part of the work
Or, in 4 days finishes 4/15 part of the work

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Similarly, Ajit in 4 days finishes 4 /20 part of the work
So, work left = 1 – (4/15 + 4/20) = 8/15

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. Let the number of days C needs to finish the job alone is x


As given, 4/16 +4/10 +4/x= 1
Or, 13/20 +4/x = 1
Or, 4/x = 1- 13/20=7/20
Or, x = 80/7 days
=11.42 days

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. X’s 2 day’s work= 1/20 *2= 1/10


(X+Y+Z)’s 1 day’s work = (1/20+1/30+1/60) = 6/60 = 1/10
Work done in 3 days = (1/10 + 1/10) = 1/5
Now, 1/5 work is done in 3 days
So, whole work will be done in =3*5=15 days

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

4. In 8 days, P can do 1 work


In 1 day, he can do 1/8 part of the work
In 3 days, he can do 3/8 part of the work
In 6 days, Q can do 1 work
In 1 day, he can do 1/6 part of the work
In 3 days, he can do 3/6 or ½ part of the work.

3 1 1
Therefore, in 3 days R does (1 − − ) part or part of the work
8 2 8
For the whole work, together they receive TK 3200.
1
So, R should receive TK. (3200 * ) or, TK. 400
8

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. Let Total Work = LCM (2, 3, 4) = 12 units.


X does 12/4= 3 units per hour.
X + Z completes 12/2 = 6 units per hour.
Or, Z complete 6 – 3 = 3 units per hour.
Y + Z complete 12/3 = 4 units per hour.
Or, Y completes 4 - 3 = 1 unit per hour.
Y alone can complete work in 12/1 = 12 hours

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

6. (A + B)'s 1 day's work = 1/20


C's 1 day’s work = 1/60
(A + B + C)'s 1 day's work = 1/20 + 1/60 = 1/15
Also A's 1 day's work = (B+C)'s 1 day's work
Therefore, we get:
2 x (A's 1 day’s work) =1/15
Or, A's 1 day's work = 1/30

Therefore, B's 1 day's work = 1/20 – 1/30 = 1/60


So, B alone could do the work in 60 days

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So, option (c) is the correct answer.

7. P can complete the work in (10 x 8) hrs or, 80 hrs


Q can complete the work in (8 x 15) hrs or, 120 hrs
Therefore, P's 1 hour’s work =1/80 and Q's 1hour’s work = 1/120
(P + Q)'s 1 hour's work = (1/80) + (1/120) = 5/240
So, together, P and Q will finish the work in 48 hours
Therefore, Number of 9-hour working days = 48/9 = 16/3

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

8. In one day, X, Y and Z together can do 1/6 part of the work


In one day, X and y can do 1/8 part of the work
So, in one day Z alone can do (1/6 – 1/8) or 1/24 part of the work
In one day, Y and Z can do 1/12 part of the work
So, in one day X alone can do (1/6 – 1/12) or 1/12 part of the work
So, in one day X and Z can do (1/24 + 1/12) or 1/8 part of the work
Therefore, working together,
X and Z can do 1/8 work in 1 one day
Or, they complete the whole work in 8 days

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Type 5: People working together/alone then someone leaves/joins

Practice Math:

1. A does 80% of a work in 20 days. He then calls in B and they together finish the remaining work in 3 days. How
long B alone would take to do the whole work?

a. 23 days b. 37 days c. 37.5 days d. 40 days e. 45 days

2. A machine X can print 120 books in 8 hours, machine Y can print the same number of books in 10 hours while
machine Z can print them in 12 hours. All the machines are started at 9 A.M. while machine X is closed at 11
A.M. and the remaining two machines complete work. Approximately at what time will the work (to print 120
books) be finished?

a. 11:30 A.M. b. 12: 35 P.M. c. 12:30 P.M. d. 1:05 P.M. e. None of these

3. A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in 20 days. B worked for 10 days and left the job. In
how many days, A alone can finish the remaining work?

a. 5 b. 512 c. 9 d. 8 e. None of these

4. A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked together for 20 days and then B left. After another
25 days, A finished the remaining work. In how many days A alone can finish the work?

a. 40 b. 50 c. 54 d. 75 e. 80

5. X and Y can do a piece of work in 20 days and 12 days respectively. X started the work alone and then after 5
days Y joined him till the completion of the work. How long did the work last?

a. 6.5 days b. 10.62 days c. 15.75 days d. 20.25 days e. 25 days

6. Mahi and Kumar are working on an assignment. Mahi takes 6 hours to type 32 pages on a computer, while
Kumar takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will they take, working together on two different
computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?

a. 7 hours 30 minutes
b. 8 hours
c. 8 hours 15 minutes
d. 8 hours 25 minutes
e. None of these

7. A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 24, 6 and 10 days respectively. Working together, they will complete
the same work in:

a. 1/24 days b. 7/24 days c. 120/37 days d. 4 days e. None of these

8. Sarah and Bobby can complete a work in 15 days and 10 days respectively. They started doing the work together
but after 4 days Bobby had to leave and Sarah alone completed the remaining work. The whole work was
completed in:

a. 9 days b. 10 days c. 15 days d. 12 days e. 16 days


Answers:
1.c 2.d 3.c 4.d 5.b
6.c 7.c 8.a

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Solution:

1. A completes 80% of the work in 25 days


A completes the whole work in 20*100/80 = 25 days.
So, in one day, A can do 1/25 part of the work
A and B together complete 20% of the work in 3 days.
Together they can complete the whole work in 3*100/20 = 15 days.
So, in one day, they complete 1/15 part of the work
Therefore, in one day, B can complete (1/15 – 1/25) or 2/75 part of the work
So, B alone will complete the work in 75/2 or 37.5 days

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

2. In 8 hours, machine X can print 120 books


So, in 1 hour, it can print 120/8 or 15 books
In 10 hours, machine Y can print 120 books
So, in 1 hour, it can print 120/10 or 12 books
In 12 hours, machine z can print 120 books
So, in 1 hour, it can print 120/12 or 10 books
In one hour, together, the three machines print (15+12+10) books or 37 books
So, in two hours they print 37*2 = 74 books
Therefore, number of books remaining = (120 – 74) = 46
Machine Y and Z together in one, hour can print (12 + 10) or 22 books
So, they print the remaining 46 books in 46/22 or 2.09 hours
So, the work will be finished by around 1:05 pm (approx.)

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

3. B’s 10 day’s work = (1/20 *10) = ½


Remaining work = 1– ½ = ½
Now 1/18 work is done by A in 1 day
So ½ work is done by A in (18 * ½) = 9 days

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

4. Since, A & B work together for 20 days, they complete 2/3 of the work.
Remaining 1/3 work is done by A in 25 days.
So, A alone can do full job in 75 days.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

5. Work done by x in 5 days = 5/20 = ¼


Remaining work = 1 – ¼ = ¾
(x + y)’s 1 day’s work = 1/20 +1/12 = 8/60 = 2/15
Now, 2/15 work is done by x and y in 1 day
So ¾ work will be done by x and y in = 15/2 * 3/4 = 45/8 = 5.625 days
So total time taken= 5 + 5.625 days = 10.625 days

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

6. Mahi’s 1 hour’s work 32/6 = 16/3 pages


Kumar’s 1 hour’s work = 40/5= 8 pages
Working together, in one hour they can type (16/3 + 8) or 40/3 pages

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∴ Required Time = 110 * 3 /40 = 33/4 hours = 8 hours 15 minutes

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

7. (A+B+C)'s 1 day's work = (1/24 + 1/6 + 1/10) = 37/120


So, A, B and C together will complete the work in 120/37 days

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

8. In one day, Sarah and Bobby together complete, (1/15 + 1/10) or 5/30 or 1/6 part of the work
In 4 days, they complete (1/6 * 4) or 2/3 part of the work
So, 1/3 of the work remains
Sarah completes 1/15 part of the work in 1 day
Therefore, she completes 1/3 of the work in 15/3 or 5 days
Therefore, the whole work lasts for (4 + 5) or 9 days

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Type 6: Pipes and tanks

Practice Math:

1. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank from empty to full in 30 minutes, 20 minutes, and 10 minutes respectively.
When the tank is empty, all the three pipes are opened. A, B and C discharge chemical solutions P, Q and R
respectively. What is the proportion of the solution R in the liquid in the tank after 2 minutes?

a. 5/11 b. 6/11 c. 7/11 d. 8/11 e. 11/35

2. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 5 and 4 hours respectively. Pipe C can empty it in 12 hours. If all the three pipes
are opened together, then the tank will be filled in:

a. 113.17 hours
b. 28.11 hours
c. 2.72 hours
d. 4.12 hours
e. None of these

3. A pump can fill a tank with water in 0.5 hours. Because of a leak, it took 7/3 hours to fill the tank. The leak can
drain all the water of the tank in:

a. 4/13 hours b. 7/3 hours c. 8 hours d. 7/11 hours e. 8/13 house

4. Two pipes X and Y can fill a cistern in 40 minutes and 36 minutes respectively. Both pipes are opened. The
cistern will be filled in just half an hour, if the Y is turned off after:

a. 5 min. b. 9 min. c. 10 min. d. 15 min. e. None of these

5. A tank is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The first two pipes operating simultaneously fill the tank in the
same time during which the tank is filled by the third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours faster
than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe to fill the tank alone
is:

a. 6 hours b. 10 hours c. 15 hours d. 30 hours e. 35 hours

6. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 25 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can empty 3 liters per minute. All
the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 15 minutes. The capacity of the tank is:

a. 60 liters
b. 100 liters
c. 128.5 liters
d. 180 liters
e. 200 liters

7. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes X, Y and Z. The pipe Z is twice as fast as Y and Y is twice as fast as X.
How much time will pipe X alone take to fill the tank?

a. 20 hours
b. 25 hours
c. 35 hours
d. Cannot be determined
e. None of these

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8. Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 4 hours. Had they been opened separately, then B would have
taken 6 hours more than A to fill the cistern. How much time will be taken by A to fill the cistern separately?

a. 1 hour b. 2 hours c. 6 hours d. 8 hours e. Cannot be determined

Answers:
1.b 2.c 3.d 4.b 5.c
6.c 7.c 8.c

Solution:

1. Part of the tank filled by pipe A in 1 min = 1/30


Part of the tank filled by pipe B in 1 min = 1/20
Part of the tank filled by pipe c in 1 min = 1/10
Here we have to find the proportion of the solution R.
Pipe C discharges chemical solution R
Part of the tank filled by C in 2 min = 2*(1/10) = 1/5
Part of the tank filled by the 3 pipes A, B and C working together in 1 min= 1/30+ 1/20+1/10 = 11/60
Part of the tank filled by pipe A, B and C in 2 min = 2*(11/60) = 11/30
Required proportion= 1/5:11/30 =30 /55 = 6/11

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. In one hour: part of the tank filled by A =1/5, by b = ¼ and emptied by c = 1/12
If three pipes are opened together then part of the tank filled in 1 hour = ¼ +1/5 – 1/12 =11/30
11/30 of tanked is filled in 1 hour. So, time taken to fill the tank= 30/11 = 2.72 hour

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. In 0.5 hours, the pipe can fill one tank


So, in 1 hour the pipe can fill 2 tanks
Because of the leak, in 7/3 hours the pipe could fill 1 tank
So, in 1 hour the pipe was able to fill 3/7 part of the tank
3 11
So, in 1 hour, the leak empties (2 – ) 𝑜𝑟 part of the tank
7 7
Therefore, the whole tank will be emptied by the leak in 7/11 hours

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

4. In 40 minutes, pipe X fills 1 cistern


In 1 minute, pipe X fills 1/40 part of the cistern
In 30 minutes, pipe X fills 30/40 or ¾ part of the cistern
So, pipe Y needs to fill (1 – ¾) or ¼ part of the cistern

Pipe Y fills the 1 cistern in 36 minutes


S0, it fills ¼ part of the cistern in 36/4 or 9 minutes

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

5. Let the time taken by the first pipe be x hours


1
So, in 1 hour it fills part of the tank
𝑥
So, the time taken by the second pipe is x-5 hours
1
So, in 1 hour it fills part of the tank
𝑥−5

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And the time taken by the third pipe is (x-5-4) or (x-9) hours
1
So, in 1 hours it fills part of the tank
𝑥−9

Therefore,
1 1 1
+ = 𝑥−9
𝑥 𝑥−5

2𝑥−5 1
Or, =
𝑥 2 −5𝑥 𝑥−9

Or, 𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 = 2𝑥 2 – 23x + 45

Or, x2 – 18x + 45 = 0
Or, x=3 or, x = 15
x cannot be equal to 3 because in that case the time required by the other pipes to fill the tank would be negative.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

6. Let the capacity of the pipe be x liters


In 1 minute, the first pipe fills x/20 liters
In 1 minute, the second pipe fills x/25 liters
𝑥 𝑥
So, when the waste pipe is open, together, in one minute, they fill (
20
+ 25 – 3) liters

9𝑥
= – 3 liters
100

9𝑥−300
= liters
100
9𝑥−300
So, in 15 minutes they fill 15( ) liters
100

Therefore,
9𝑥−300
15(
100
) =x
Or, 100x = 135x – 4500
Or, 35x = 4500
Or, x = 128.57

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

7. Suppose X fills the tank in n hours


So, in one hour it fills 1/n part of the tank
So, Y fills it in n/2 hours
So, in 1 hours it fills 2/n part of the tank
And Z fills it in n/4 hours
So, in 1 hour it fills 4/n part of the tank
Together, the three pips can fill the tank in 5 hours
So, in one hour they together fill 1/5 part of the tank

Therefore,
1/n + 2/n + 4/n = 1/5
Or, 7/n = 1/5
Or, n = 35

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

8. Let A Takes x hour


So, B takes x+6 hours

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1
In one hour, A fills part of the cistern
𝑥
1
In one hour, B fills part of the cistern
𝑥+6
1 1
So, in one hour, they fill ( + 𝑥+6) part of the cistern
𝑥
1 1 1
Therefore, + 𝑥+6 = 4
𝑥

2𝑥+6 1
Or, =4
𝑥 2 +6𝑥

Or, 8x + 24 = 𝑥 2 + 6𝑥

Or, x2 – 2x – 24 = 0

Or, x2 – 6x + 4x – 24 = 0

Or, (x – 6) + (x + 4) = 0

So, X = 6

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Review Test:

1. A flagstaff 20.5 m high casts a shadow of length 40.25 m. The height of the building, which casts a shadow of
length 38.75 m under similar conditions will be:

a. 10 m b. 19.74 m c. 17.5 m d. 21.25 m e. None of these

2. An industrial loom weaves 0.125 meters of cloth every second. Approximately, how many seconds will it take
for the loom to weave 30 meters of cloth?

a. 178 b. 240 c. 204 d. 488 e. 500

3. 27 men can complete a piece of work in 20 days. In how many days will 36 men complete the same work?

a. 12 b. 18 c. 22 d. 15 e. None of these

4. 4 mat-weavers can weave 4 mats in 4 days. At the same rate, how many mats would be woven by 6 mat-weavers
in 6 days?

a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 9 e. None of these

5. A and B can do a piece of work in 30 days, while B and C can do the same work in 24 days and C and A in 20
days. They all work together for 15 days. Then B and C leave. How many more days will A take to finish the
work?

a. 3 days b. 24 days c. 30 days d. 36 days e. None of these

6. Chandu can finish a work in 24 days, Joseph in 9 days and Parisa in 12 days. Joseph and Parisa start the work
but are forced to leave after 3 days. The remaining work was done by Chandu in:

a. 5 days b. 6 days c. 10 days d. 1012 days e. None of these

7. Robi can do a piece of work in 40 days. He works at it for 8 days and then Bizli finished it in 16 days. How long
will they take to complete the work together?

1
a. 13 days b. 15 days c. 20 days d. 26 days e. 63 days
3

8. Sanju and Mizan together can do a piece of work in 30 days. Sanju having worked for 16 days, Mizan finishes
the remaining work alone in 44 days. In how many days shall Mizan finish the whole work alone?

a. 30 days b. 40 days c. 60 days d. 70 days e. 75 days

9. Two pipes X and Y can fill a tank in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are used together, then
how long will it take to fill the tank?

a. 12 min b. 15 min c. 25 min d. 50 min e. 55 min

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10. Two pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 15 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened together
but after 4 minutes, pipe P is turned off. What is the total time required to fill the tank?

a. 10 min. 20 sec.
b. 11 min. 45 sec.
c. 12 min. 30 sec.
d. 14 min. 40 sec.
e. 16 min. 10 sec.

11. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes can fill the tank in 35
minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in:

a. 81 min. b. 108 min. c. 140 min. d. 192 min. e. 200 min.

12. A large tanker can be filled by two pipes X and Y in 60 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. How many minutes
will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if Y is used for half the time and X and Y fill it together for the other
half?

a. 15 min b. 20 min c. 27.5 min d. 30 min e. 55 min.

13. A tap can fill a tank in 5 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is the total
time taken to fill the tank completely?

a. 3 hrs 15 min
b. 3 hrs 7.5 min
c. 4 hrs
d. 4 hrs 15 min
e. None of these

14. Three taps X, Y and Z can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If X is open all the time and Y and Z are
open for one hour each alternately, the tank will be full in:

a. 6 hours b. 623 hours c. 7 hours d. 712 hours e. None of these

Answers:
1.b 2.b 3.d 4.d 5.a
6.c 7.a 8.c 9.a 10.d
11.c 12.d 13.b 14.c

Solution:

1. Let the height of building be x


As given, 20.5: 40.25 = x : 38.75
40.25 x = 20.5*38.75
x = 794.38/40.25 = 19.74

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. Loom weaves 0.125m in 1 second


So, it weaves 30 m in 30/0.125 = 240 second

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

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3. 27 men finish the work in 20 days
1 man finish the work in 20*27 days
36 men finish the work in 20*27/36 days
=15 days

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

4. In 4 days, 4 mat weavers can weave 4 mats

4
In 1 day, 1 mat weaver can weave mats
4×4

4 ×6×6
In 6 days, 6 mat weavers can weave mats
4×4

= 9 mats

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

5. (A + B)’s + (B + C)’s + (A + C)’s one day of work = 1/30 + 1/24 + 1/20 = 15/120 = 1/8
2(A + B + C)’s 1 day’s work = 1/30 + 1/24 + 1/20 = 15/120 = 1/8
Therefore, (A + B + C)’s 1 day’s work = 1/16
Work done by A, B, C together in 15 days = 15/16
Remaining work = 1 – 15/16 = 1/16

A’s one day’s work= 1/16 – 1/24 = 1/48

Now 1/48 work is done by A in 1 day


So, 1/16 work will be done by A in (48/16) = 3 days

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

6. (Joseph + Parisa)’s 1 day’s work= 1/9 +1/12 = 7/36


Work done by Joseph and Parisa in 3 days = 7/36 *3= 7/12
Remaining work = 1- 7/12 =5/12

Now, 1/24 work is done by Chandu in 1 day


So, 5/12 work is done by Chandu in (24* 5/12) = 10 days

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

7. Work done by Robi in 8 days = 8/40= 1/5


Remaining work= 1-1/5 = 4/5

Now 4/5 work is done by Bizli in 16 days.


Whole work will be done by Bizli in (16* 5/4) = 20 days
(Robi + Bizli)’s 1 day’s work = 1/40 + 1/20 = 3/40

1
Hence Robi and Bizli will complete the work together in 40/3 = 13 days
3

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

8. Let Sanju’s 1 day’s work = x and Mizan’s 1 day’s work = y


Then, x + y =1/30 and 16x + 44y=1
Solving these two equations, we get x = 1/60 and y = 1/60
So Mizan’s 1 day’s work = 1/60

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Hence Mizan alone shall finish the whole work in 60 days

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

9. In 20 minutes the first pipe fills 1 tank


So, in one minute it fills 1/20 tank
In 30 minutes the second pipe fills 1 tank
So, in one minute the second pipe fills 1/30 tank
So, in one minute, together they fill (1/20 + 1/30) tank or 1/12 tank
Therefore, together, the two pipes will fill the whole tank in 12 minutes

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

10. In one minute, p fills 1/15 tank


Where q fills 1/20 tank
Let q is on for x mins
4/15 + x/20 = 1
Or, 16 + 3x = 60
Or, x = 44/3
= 14 min 40 sec

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

11. Slower pipe takes x min


So, in one minute it fills 1/x tank
Faster pipe takes x/3 min
In one minute, it fills 3/x tank
So, 1/x + 3/x = 1/35
Or, x = 140 min

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

12. In 1 minute X fills 1 /60 tank


And Y fills = 1/40 tank
Let total time be n minutes
(n/2 * 1/40) + n/2 (1/60 + 1/40) =1
Or, n = 30 min

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

13. In 1 hour, the tank fills 1/5 part


The tank is half filled in 2.5 hours
Rest part is completed by 4 similar pipes in x hours
x(4/5) = ½
x = 0.625
Total time = 2.5 +0.625 = 3.125 = 3 hour 7.5 min

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

14. Let the total work = LCM (12,15.20) = 60 units


Individual work per hour: X = 5 units, Y = 4 units and Z = 3 units
In a 2-hour cycle, they complete 5 + 4 + 5 + 3 = 17 units
Full tanks will take 60/17 cycles= (60/17) *2 = 7 hours

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Speed distance

Time (SI unit - seconds) and distance (SI unit - meters) are fundamental quantities of measurement. For a distance ‘d’
covered in a time ‘t', the average speed ‘s’ or simply the speed is defined as the rate of covering the given distance or
distance covered per unit time.

Therefore,
Speed (s) = Distance (d)/ Time (t)

and, Distance (d) = Speed (s) X Time (t)

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Type 1: Average Speed

When a body travels different distances at different speeds, the average speed is the amount of time taken to travel
the total distance in total time.

Caution average speed SHOULD NOT BE CALCULATED as average of different speeds, i.e.

So, Average Speed ≠ (Sum of speed / No. of different Speed)

There are two different cases when average speed is required.

Case I: When time remains constant and speed varies


If a man travels at the rate of x km/h for t hours and again at the rate of y km/h for another t hours, then for the
whole journey, his average speed is given by

Average speed = Total distance/ Total time taken


= (xt + yt)/ (t + t)
= (x + y)/2 kmph

Case II: When the distance covered remains same and the speeds vary
When a man covers a certain distance with a speed of x km/h and another equal distance at the rate of y km/h. then
for the whole journey, the average speed is given by

Average speed = 2xy/(x + y) km/h

Example:
A man travels 300 miles from point A to B with a speed of 80 mph. He then goes from B to A. If the average speed
of the man is 100 mph during the trip. What was his speed when he was moving from B to A?

a. 90 mph b. 122.33 mph c. 133.33 mph d. 150 mph e. 166.67 mph

Solution:
We know, Average Speed = 2xy/ (x + y)
Or, 100 = (2 X 80 X x)/ (x + 80)
Or, 100 = 160x/ (x + 80)
Or, 100x + 8000 = 160x
Or, 60x = 8000
So, x = 133.33

Therefore, the correct answer is option (c) 133.33 mph.

Practice Math:

1. Jawad travelled from his home to school by car at 40 kmph. On his way back, he crossed half the distance at 4
kmph and the remaining half by a bus at 30 kmph. What is his average speed of the round trip?

a. 6.5 kmph b. 12 kmph c. 28.5 kmph d. 30 kmph e. None of these

2. Nowshin travels a certain distance at a rate of 20 miles an hour and returns at the rate of 60 miles an hour.
What is her average speed?

a. 30 b. 35 c. 40 d. 45 e. None of these

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3. Adrito travels x miles in y hours and z minutes. What is his average speed in miles per hour?

a. x/ (y + 60z)
b. (60y + z)/x
c. 60x/ (y + z)
d. 60x/ (60y + z)
e. None of these

4. Parsa travels from hall to university by car at a speed of 30 km per hour and returns to her hall at a speed of 20
km per hour by her bike. What is her average speed in the entire journey in km/hour?

a. 22 b. 23 c. 24 d. 25 e. 26

5. Arshia traveled 20% of the way from Pallet town to Lavender town at an average speed of 30 miles/hour. He
travelled at an average speed of x miles/hour for the remaining part of the trip. The average speed for the entire
trip was 50 miles/hour. What is x?

a. 30 b. 60 c. 80 d. 100 e. None of these

6. Nafisa walked from point P to point Q and backed again, a total distance of 2 miles. If she averaged 4 miles per
hour on the trip from P to Q and 5 miles per hour on her return trip, what was her average walking speed for the
entire trip?

2 4 1
a. 2 mph b. 4 mph c. 4 mph d. 4 mph e. 5 mph
9 9 2

Answers
1. b 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. b
6. c

Solution:
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 (𝑑)
1. We know that, speed (s) =
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 (𝑡)
𝑑
Or, t=
𝑠

Let, the distance form Jawad’s home to school be 2d.


So, time taken by Jawad to go to school by car will be
2𝑑
t1 = [∵because speed of the car is 40 kmph]
40
𝑑
=
20
On his way back home from school, Jawad crossed half the distance at 4 kmph.
2𝑑
So, half the distance = =𝑑
2
and, time taken to cross half the distance,
𝑑
t2 =
4
Again, he crossed the remaining half of the distance by bus at 30 kmph. So, time taken,
𝑑
t3 =
30
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
Now, average speed =
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
Here, total distance = 2d + 2d = 4d
𝑑 𝑑 𝑑 3𝑑+15𝑑+2𝑑 20𝑑 𝑑
total time = + + = = =
20 4 30 60 60 3

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4𝑑 4𝑑×3
So, average speed = 𝑑 = = 12
𝑑
3

Option (b) is the correct answer

2𝑥𝑦
2. Since Nowshin is travelling the same distance with both the speeds, we use the formula for calculating the
𝑥+𝑦
average speed

2×20×60 2400
So, average speed = = = 30 kmph
20+60 80

Option (a) is the correct answer.

𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
3. We know, average speed =
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
Here, total distance = x miles
total time = y hours z minutes
𝑧
= y hours + hours
60
60𝑦 + 𝑧
= hours
60
[Here, everything needs to be in the same unit]
𝑥 60𝑥
Therefore, average speed = 60𝑦+7 =
60𝑦+𝑧
60

Option (d) is the correct answer

4. Distance traversed by Parsa with both speeds is the same. Therefore,

2𝑥𝑦 2× 30× 20 1200


Average speed = = = = 24 kmph
𝑥+𝑦 20+30 50

Option (c) is the correct answer

5. Let, the total distance travelled by Arshia be: d.


So, 20% of d = 0.2d
So, remaining distance = 0.8d
0.2𝑑
time taken to travel 0.2d, t1 =
30
0.8𝑑
and, time taken to travel 0.8d, t2 =
𝑥
𝑑
Therefore, average speed =
𝑡1 +𝑡2
𝑑
Or, 50 = 0.2𝑑 0.8𝑑
+
30 𝑥
𝑑
Or, 50 = 0.2 0.8
𝑑( + )
30 𝑥
1
Or, 50 = 0.2𝑥+24
( )
30𝑥
30𝑥
Or, 50 =
0.2𝑥+24
Or, 10x + 1200 = 30x
Or, 20x = 1200
1200
Or, x =
20
So, x = 60

Option (b) is the correct answer

6. Distance traversed by Nafisa with speeds is equal.


2𝑥𝑦 2 × 4× 5 40 4
Therefore, average speed = = = = 4 mph
𝑥+𝑦 4+5 9 9

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Option (c) is the correct answer

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Type 2: Problems with non-uniform speed

Practice Math:

1. A farmer travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 hours. He travelled partly on foot at 4 km/hr and partly on bicycle at
9 km/hr. The distance travelled on foot is:

a. 14 km b. 15 km c. 16 km d. 17 km e. 18 km

2. I travel the first part of my journey at 40 kmph and the second part at 60 kmph and cover the total distance of
240 km in 5 hours. How long did the first part of my journey last?

a. 4 hours b. 2 hours c. 3 hours d. 2.5 hours e. 6 hours

3. Ram covers a part of the journey at 20 kmph and the rest at 70 kmph taking total of 8 hours to cover a total
distance of 400 km. How long does he travel at 20 kmph?

a. 2 hours
b. 3 hours 20 minutes
c. 2 hours 40 minutes
d. 3 hours 12 minutes
e. None of these

4. A certain 90-mile trip took 2 hours. Exactly 1/3 of the distance traveled was by rail, and this part of the trip took
1/5 of the travel time. What was the average rate, in miles per hour, of the rail portion of the trip?

a. 12 mph b. 30 mph c. 45 mph d. 60 mph e. 75 mph

Answers:
1. c 2. c 3. d 4. e

Solution:

1. Let the distance travelled on foot be x


So, the distance travelled by bicycle is (61 – x).
Given, total time required is 9 hours.
𝑥
Now, Time travelled on foot, t1 =
4
61−𝑥
Time travelled by bicycle t2 =
9
Therefore,
total time = t1 + t2
𝑥 61−𝑥
Or, 9= +
4 9
9𝑥+4×61−4𝑥
Or, 9=
36
Or, 36 × 9 = 5x + 4× 61
Or, 5x = 80
80
So, x= = 16 km
5

Option (c) is the correct answer

2. Let the distance covered in the first part of the journey be x


So, the distance covered in the second part of journey is (240 – x)
𝑥
Now, time for first part is t1 =
40

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240−𝑥
Time for second part is t2 =
60
So, total time = t1 + t2
𝑥 240−𝑥
Or, 5 = +
40 60
3𝑥+2×240−2𝑥
Or, 5 =
120
Or, 5 × 120 = x + (2 × 240)
So, x = 600 – 480 = 120
120
So, time taken to complete first part of journey is t1 = = 3 hours
40

Option (c) is the correct answer

3. If the distances travelled in both parts of the journey be x and (400 – x) kms, and the time required for each be
𝑥 400−𝑥
t1 = and t2 = respectively,
20 70
𝑥 400−𝑥
then, 8= +
20 70
7𝑥+800−2𝑥
Or, 8 =
140
Or, 5x = 1120 – 800
320
So, x = = 64
5
So, time required to complete 1st part of journey is
64
t1 = = 3.2 hours = 3 hours 12 mins
20

Option (d) is the correct answer

1 1 1 1 2
4. of the trip is equal to 90× = 30 miles and of the time is equal to 2× = hours.
3 3 5 5 5
2
Therefore, the distance travelled by rail is 30 miles and time taken is hours.
5
30 30×5
So, average speed for this part = 2 = = 75 mph
2
5

Option (e) is the correct answer

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Type 3: Object with different speed

Practice Math:

1. In covering a distance of 30 km, Abhay takes 2 hours more than Sameer. If Abhay doubles his speed, then he
would take 1 hour less than Sameer. Abhay's speed is:

a. 5 kmph b. 6 kmph c. 6.25 kmph d. 7.5 kmph e. None of these

2. A man covered a certain distance at some speed. Had he moved 3 kmph faster, he would have taken 40 minutes
less. If he had moved 2 kmph slower, he would have taken 40 minutes more. The distance (in km) is:

2 1
a. 35 b. 36 c. 37 d. 40 e. None of these
3 2

3. A person traveled from his house to office at 30 kmph; then he was late to his office by 5 minutes. If he increases
his speed by 10 kmph he would be early by 15 minutes to his office. What should be his speed so that he reaches
his office on time ?

a. 36 kmph b. 32 kmph c. 34 kmph d. 35 kmph e. None of these

4. A man moves from A to B at the rate of 4 km/hr. Had he moved at the rate of 3.67 km/hr, he would have taken
3 hours more to reach the destination. What is the distance between A and B?

a. 33 kms b. 132 kms c. 36 kms d. 144 kms e. None of these

5. By walking at 3/4th of his usual speed, a man reaches office 20 minutes later than usual. What is his usual
time?

a. 30 min b. 60 min c. 70 min d. 50 min e. None of these

6. A lorry can travel thrice as fast when empty as when it is full. It travels 216 miles with full load, spends 2 hours
for unloading and returns to its original warehouse empty. It took 18 hours to complete the journey. What is the
speed when the lorry was fulll?

a. 18 b. 54 c. 28 d. 45 e. 16

Answers
1. a 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. a

Solution:

1. Let, speed of Abhay is x kmph


speed of Samee is y kmph
So, according to question,
30 30
− = 2...................... (i)
𝑥 𝑦
30 30
− = 1...................... (ii)
𝑦 2𝑥
Adding (i) and (ii), we get,
30 30 30 30
− + − = 2+1
𝑥 𝑦 𝑦 2𝑥
30 30
Or, − =3
𝑥 2𝑥

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60−30
Or, =3
2𝑥
30
Or, =𝑥
2×3
So, x = 5

Option (a) is the correct answer

2. Let, total distance be x


speed be y
𝑥 𝑥 2
then, − = ........................... (i)
𝑦−2 𝑦 3
𝑥 𝑥 2
− = ............................ (ii)
𝑦 𝑦+3 3
40 2
[∵ 40 mins = hours = hrs]
60 3
From (i)
𝑥 𝑥 2
Or, − =
𝑦−2 𝑦 3
𝑥𝑦−𝑥𝑦+2𝑥 2
Or, =
𝑦(𝑦−2) 3
3
Or, 2x × = 𝑦(𝑦 − 2)
2
Or, y(y – 2) = 3x .................. (iii)

Again, from (ii),


𝑥 𝑥 2
− =
𝑦 𝑦+3 3
𝑥𝑦+3𝑥−𝑥𝑦 2
Or, =
𝑦(𝑦+3) 3
Or, 3x ×3 = 2y (y+3)
Or, 2y(y+3) = 9x ............ (iv)

Dividing (iv) by (iii), we get,


2𝑦 (𝑦 + 3) 9𝑥
=
𝑦(𝑦−2) 3𝑥
2 (𝑦 + 3)
Or, (𝑦−2)
=3
Or, 2y + 6 = 3y – 6
Or, y = 12

Putting value of y in (i), we get,


𝑥 𝑥 2
− =
10 12 3
12𝑥−10𝑥 2
Or, =
120 3
2
Or, 2x = × 120
3
80
Or, x =
2
𝑥 = 40 kms

Option (d) is the correct answer

1
3. Total difference of time in both cases, (5 + 15) mins = 20 mins = hrs
3
Let, total distance be x.
𝑥 𝑥 1
So, − =
30 40 3
𝑥 1
Or, =
120 3
So, x = 40
40
Therefore, when travelling at 40 kmph, time required to reach office is = 1 ℎ𝑟
40
So, in order to reach office exactly on time, required time is (1 hrs + 15 mins)
15
= (1 hrs + hrs)
60
1
= (1 hrs + hrs)
4

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5
= hrs
4
40 40 ×4
Therefore, required speed = 5 = = 32 kmph
5
4

Option (b) is the correct answer

4. Let, the total distance be x.


𝑥 𝑥
So, − =3
3.67 4
𝑥 𝑥 2 4
Or, 2 − =3 [∵ 3.67 = 3 = ]
3 4 3 3
3
𝑥 𝑥
Or, 11 − =3
4
3
3𝑥 𝑥
Or, − =3
11 4
12𝑥−11𝑥
Or, =3
44
Or, x = 3 × 44
So, x = 132

Option (b) is the correct answer

5. If the distance remains constant, then for two different speeds, the ratio of the respective time required is
inverse of the ratio of the two speeds.
3 4
Here, the speed becomes of the original so, the time will be of the original. If the original time is considered
4 3
to be t hours, then,
4 1 1
t–t= [∵20 mins = hrs]
3 3 3
1 1
Or, 𝑡=
3 3
∴ t = 1 hour

Option (b) is the correct answer

6. Since distance travelled is same, the ratio of speeds and respective time required will be inverse. Here, the ratio
of speeds when empty and full is 3 : 1. So, ratio of time world be 1 : 3.
Now, since two hours have been spent unloading, total time of the trip was 16 hours. Dividing the time in the
ratio 1 : 3, we get 4 hours when it is empty and 12 hours when it is full.
216
So, speed of the lorry when full = = 18 mph
12

Option (a) is the correct answer

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Type 4: Ratio

Practice Math:

1. The ratio of the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs 400 km in 4 hours, then the speed of the
first train is:

a. 70 km/hr b. 75 km/hr c. 84 km/hr d. 87.5 km/hr e. None of these

2. It takes eight hours for a 600 km journey, if 120 km is done by train and the rest by car. It takes 20 minutes more,
if 200 km is done by train and the rest by car. The ratio of the speed of the train to that of the cars is:

a. 2 : 3 b. 3 : 2 c. 3 : 4 d. 4 : 3 e. None of these

3. Aman traveled two-fifth of the total distance of his trip by bike. He traveled the remaining distance on foot. The
ratio of his walking time to driving time was 10:3. Calculate the ratio of his driving speed to his walking speed.

a. 5:2 b. 20:9 c. 11: 5 d. 2: 5 e. 25: 1

Answers:
1. d 2. c 3. b

Solution:

1. Given, ratio of speeds is 7 : 8


400
Speed of 2nd train is = 100 kmph
4
st 100
So, speed of 1 train = × 7 = 87.5 kmph
8

Option (d) is the correct answer

2. Let, the speed of the train be x


the speed of the car be y
Therefore,

120 480
+ = 8 ......................(i)
𝑥 𝑦
200 400 25
+ = ........................(ii)
𝑥 𝑦 3
Now, multiplying (i) by 5 and (ii) by 3, we get,
600 2400
+ = 40..................... (iii)
𝑥 𝑦
600 1200
+ = 25 .................... (iv)
𝑥 𝑦
Subtracting (iv) from (iii), we get,
600 2400 600 1200
+ − − = 40 − 25
𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦
1200
Or, = 15
𝑦
So, y = 80
Therefore, ratio of the speed of train to that of car is 60 : 80 or, 3 : 4.

Option (c) is the correct answer

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3. Let, the total distance be 5x.
So, distance travelled by bike is 2x.
distance travelled on foot is 3x.
Let, the time takes or foot be 10t
So, time taken by bike is 3t.
2𝑥
Therefore, speed of bike =
3𝑡
3𝑥
speed while walking =
10𝑡
So, ratio of driving speed to walking speed is
2𝑥
3𝑡 2𝑥 10𝑡 20
3𝑥 = × =
3𝑡 3𝑥 9
10𝑡
∴ 20: 9

Option (b) is the correct answer

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Type 5: Percent Change or Efficiency

Practice Math:

1. A train can travel 50% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B 75 kms away
from A at the same time. On the way, however, the train lost about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the stations.
The speed of the car is:

a. 100 kmph b. 110 kmph c. 120 kmph d. 130 kmph e. None of these

2. A man driving his bike at 24 kmph reaches his office 5 minutes late. Had he driven 25% faster, he would have
reached 4 minutes earlier than the scheduled time. How far is his office?

a. 24 km b. 72 km c. 18 km d. 6 km e. None of these

3. A truck uses one liter of diesel to travel 20 km. After an engine tune-up, the truck travels 10% farther on one liter.
How many liters of diesel (to the nearest tenth) will it take for the truck to travel 110 km. after a tune-up?

a. 5.5 b. 5 c. 4.8 d. 4.5 e. 6

4. Aatiya intends to walk a certain distance in 1/5 less time than she usually takes. By what percent must she
increase her running speed to accomplish her goal?

a. 25% b. 27.5% c. 33.33% d. 35% e. None of these

Answers
1. c 2. c 3. b 4. a

Solution:

1. Let, the speed of the car be x.


3
So, the speed of the train is x.
2
75 75 5 125
−3 = [12.5 mins = hrs]
𝑥 𝑥 24 10×60
2
75 50 5
Or, − =
𝑥 𝑥 24
25 5
Or, =
𝑥 24
24
Or, x = 25 ×
5
So, x = 120 kmph

Option (c) is the correct answer

2. Let, the distance be x.


Therefore,
𝑥 𝑥 9
−5 =
24 ×24 60
4

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𝑥 4𝑥 9
Or, − =
24 120 60
9
So, 𝑥 = × 120 = 18
60

Option (c) is the correct answer

3. Travelling 10% fasrther, the truck would travel (20+10% of 20) or 22 km per liter of diesel.
So, after tune up, the truck would need,
110
( ) or 5 litres of diesel
22

Option (b) is the correct answer

1 4 5
4. If the time decreases by th, it becomes Because of the inverse relation, the speed will have to become .
5 5. 4
5
So, increase in speed = ( − 1) × 100%
4
= 25%

Option (a) is the correct answer

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Type 6: Relative Speeds

Practice Math:

1. An escalator moves towards the top level at the rate of 11 ft/sec and its length is 140 feet. If a person walkss
on the moving escalator at the rate of 3 feet per second towards the top level, how much time does he take to
cover the entire length?

a. 14 sec b. 10 sec c. 12 sec d. 8 sec e. None of these

2. A and B participate in a 5000 m bicycle race which is being run on a circular track of 500 m. If the speed of A
and B are 20 m/s and 10 m/s respectively, what is the distance covered by A when he passes B for the seventh
time?

a. 2500 b. 2800 c. 4000 m d. 5000 m e. Cannot be determined

3. Two persons start running simultaneously around a circular track of length 400 m from the same point at
speeds of 15 kmph and 25 kmph. When will they meet for the first time anywhere on the track if they are moving
in the opposite direction?

a. 144 sec b. 36 sec c. 124 sec d. 32 sec e. None of these

4. Ajith and Rana walk around a circular course 115 km in circumference, starting together from the same point.
If they walk at speed of 4 kmph and 5 kmph respectively, in the same direction, when will they meet?

a. after 20 hours
b. after 115 hours
c. after 115 minutes
d. after 20 minutes
e. None of these

5. There are 4 people who has to cross a stretch of 300 km. They normally run at a speed of 10 kmph. One of them
has a bike that travels at 50 kmph. The biker first takes one person alone and crosses the stretch while the other
two keep running. Then he comes back without wasting time and picks up another person from the way, drives
him across the stretch, and does the same for the last person. How long does this whole process take?

a. 24 hrs b. 16 hrs c. 56/3 hrs d. 58/3 hrs e. None of these

6. Two trains of equal length 120 metres move in the same direction. The faster train completely overtakes the
slower one in 15 seconds. If the slower train were to move at half its speed, the overtaking would take 10
seconds. At what speeds are the 2 trains moving (faster and slower respectively in m/s)

a. 24, 22 b. 32, 16 c. 30, 18 d. 28, 14 e. None of these

7. Two trains A and B start simultaneously from stations X and Y towards each other respectively. After meeting
at a point between X and Y, train A reaches station Y in 9 hours and train B reaches station X in 4 hours from
the time they have met each other. If the speed of train A is 36 km/hr, what is the speed of train B?

a. 24 km/hr b. 54 km/hr c. 81 km/hr d. 16 km/hr e. None of these

8. A man and a woman 81 miles apart from each other, start traveling towards each other at the same time. If the
man covers 5 miles per hour to the women's 4 miles per hour, how far will the woman have travelled when they
meet?

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a. 27 b. 36 c. 45 d. 54 e. Cannot be determined
9. Two cars start towards the same destination at the same time. One car is 17 km behind the other. If the speed
of the car at the front is 630 m/minute and that of the other car is 970 m/minute, after how many minutes will
the two cars meet?

a. 50 b. 24 c. 25 d. 30 e. None of these

Answers
1. b 2. e 3. b 4. b 5. d
6. b 7. b 8. b 9. a

Solution:

1. Since, both the person and escalator are moving in the same direction.
the same direction,
the relative speed = (11+ 3) ft/ sec
140
= 14 ft/ sec. So, time required = sec = 10 sec
14

Option (b) is the correct answer

2. Track length = 500 m


𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 500
Speed of A and B are 20 m/s and 10 m/s respectively. Time taken by them to meet = = = 50
𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 (20−10)
seconds
Time taken to meet for the 7th time = 7 × 50 = 350 secs
In 350 seconds, the distance travelled by A is 350*20 = 7000 m

The total race is of 5000 m


Since the required distance is greater than the total length of the race, the situation is not possible

Option (e) is the correct answer

3. Since, they are running on opposite direction,


relative speed = (15 + 25) kmph = 40 kmph.
0.4
Therefore, the time required = hours = 0.01 hours = 0.01 ×3600 sec = 36 sec.
40

Option (b) is the correct answer

4. Here, the relative speed is (5 – 4) kmph = 1 kmph


115
So, they will meet after = hours = 115 hours
1

Option (b) is the correct answer

300
5. Time taken to carry the 2nd person = hours = 6 hours
50
(300−6×10)
Time taken to meet 3rd person = = 4 hours
(50+10)
300−100
Time taken to carry 3rd person = = 4 hours
50
[∵ since 10 hours passed before meeting 3rd person, he already travelled (10 × 10) kms on 100 kms]
(300−140) 8
Time taken to meet 4th person = =
60 3

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500
(300− ) 8
Time taken to carry 4th person = 3
=
50 3
8 50 50 500
[∵ total (6 + 4 + 4 + ) on hours passed before meeting 4th person, so he already travelled (10× ) on kms]
3 3 3 3
8 8 58
Therefore, total time = 6 + 4 + 4 + + = hours
3 3 3

Option (d) is the correct answer

6. Let, the speed of the faster train be x


the speed of the slower train be y
240
So, x – y = .................... (i)
15
1 240
x– y= ...................... (ii)
2 10

Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get,


1 240 240
x–y–x+ y= −
2 15 10
1 2400−3600
Or, − y =
2 150
1 1200
Or, − y = -
2 150

1200
Or, y = × 2 = 16
150
So, x – 16 = 16
Therefore, x = 32

Option (b) is the correct answer

7. If two objects A and B start at the same time in opposite directions from the points and after passing each other,
they complete the journey in ‘x’ and ‘y’ hours respectively, then,
A’s speed : B’s speed = √𝑦 ∶ √𝑥
Therefore, in this case,
A’s speed : B speed = √4 ∶ √9 = 2 : 3
36
So, speed of B = × 3 = 54 kmph
2

Option (b) is the correct answer

8. Here, relative speed = (5 + 4) mph = 9 mph


81
So, time required for them to meet = hrs = 9 hrs
9
Therefore, the woman would have travelled
(4× 9) kms
= 36 kms

Option (b) is the correct answer

9. Distance to be covered = 17 km = 17000 m


𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 17000 17000
So, time required = = = = 50 minutes
𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 970−630 340

Option (a) is the correct answer

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Type 7: Value Identification

Practice Math:

1. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?

a. 3.6 b. 7.2 c. 8.4 d. 10 e. 12

2
2. An airplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 240 kmph in 5 hours. To cover the same distance in 1 hours,
3
it must travel at a speed of:

a. 300 kmph b. 360 kmph c. 600 kmph d. 720 kmph e. 800 kmph

3. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more. The actual distance
travelled by him is:

a. 50 km b. 56 km c. 70 km d. 80 km e. None of these

4. A boy runs 200 metres in 24 seconds. What is his speed?

a. 20 km/hr b. 24 km/hr c. 28.5 km/hr d. 30 km/hr e. None of these

5. In a flight of 600 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed for the trip was reduced
by 200 km/hr and the time of flight increased by 30 minutes. The duration of the flight is:

a. 1 hour b. 2 hours c. 3 hours d. 4 hours e. 5 hours

6. If the speed of a man is 45 km per hour, then what is the distance traveled by him in 30 seconds?

a. 275m b. 360m c. 375 m d. 420 m e. 520 m

7. Without any halt a train travels a certain distance with an average speed of 75 kmph , and with halts it covers
the same distance at an average speed of 60 kmph. When it is traveling with halts, how many minutes/per hour
does the train halt on an average?

a. 48 min. b. 12 min. c. 15 min. d. 18 min. e. 10 min

8. Train A traveling at 60 km/hr leaves Mumbai for Delhi at 6 P.M. Train B traveling at 90 km/hr also leaves Mumbai
for Delhi at 9 P.M. Train C leaves Delhi for Mumbai at 9 P.M. If all three trains meet at the same time between
Mumbai and Delhi, what is the speed of Train C if the distance between Delhi and Mumbai is 1260 kms?

a. 60 km/hr b. 90 km/hr c. 120 km/hr d. 135 km/hr e. None of these

9. Ankon drove to work at an average speed of 27 miles per hour and returned home along the same route at an
average speed of 63 miles per hour. If his entire traveling time was 1 hour, what was the total number of miles
in the round trip?

a. 15 b. 18.9 c. 30 d. 36.5 e. 45

10. Mr. Antor traveled to his office from his home at speed of 5 km/hr. if his total traveling time was 7 hours, what
is the distance in kms, of his office from his home?

a. 35 b. 20 c. 25 d. 40 e. None of these

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11. Mr. Antor traveled from A to B at a speed of 9 km/hr and returned from B to A at a speed of 4 km/hr. If the round
trip required 8 hours what was the distance between A and B in km?

6 2 4
a. 25 b. 21 c. 22 d. 18 e. 26
7 13 9

12. A Pathao car charges Tk. 70 as base fare, Tk. 4.2 for each 0.3 of a kilometer and Tk. 150/ hour as the travelling
time charge. What will be the fare for a 9 kilometer trip if the travelling time is 140 minutes?

a. 230 b. 340 c. 460 d. 546 e. None of these

13. A traveler walked for two days. On the second day the traveler walked five hours longer and her speed was 4
miles per hour faster than that of the first day. If during the two days she walked a total of 231 miles and spent
a total of 23 hours, what was her speed (miles/hour) on the first day?

a. 9 b. 7.6 c. 5 d. 8 e. None of these

14. Zihan walks 25 blocks to work every morning at a rate of 5 miles per hour. If there are 50 blocks in a mile, how
long does it take him to walk to work?

a. 5 minutes b. 10 minutes c. 6 minutes d. 7.5 minutes e. 4.5 minutes

Answers
1.b 2.d 3.a 4.d 5.a
6.c 7.b 8.c 9.b 10.a
11.c 12.d 13.b 14.c

Solution:
1. Speed in kmph = × [∵ is the multiplier for converting metre/minute to kmph]
= 7.2 kmph

Option (b) is the correct answer

2. Total distance to be covered = 240 × 5 = 1200 kms.


Therefore, required speed = = 720 kmph.

Option (d) is the correct answer

3. Let he travels for time ‘t’


Therefore, 14t – 10t = 20
Or, t=5
So, originally he traveled 5*10 = 50 km

Option (a) is the correct answer

4. Required speed = × [∵ is the multiplier for converting m/s to km/hr]


= 30 kmph

Option (d) is the correct answer

5. The speed of the flight after reduction became, (600 – 200) kmph on, 400 kmph.
So, ratio of the speeds is 600 : 400 or, 3 : 2
Since, distance is constant, the ratio of time would be inverse, that is 2 : 3.
So, if the previous time is 2t and new time is 3t, then,

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3t – 2t = 30
Or, t = 30
So, duration of the flight is 2t or, 1 hour

Option (a) is the correct answer

5 5
6. The distance traveled = 45 × × 30 [∵ is the multiplier for converting km/hr to m/s]
18 18
= 375 m

Option (c) is the correct answer

7. Due to halts, it covers 15 km less


Time taken to cover 15 km = × 60 = 12 mins.
Option (b) is the correct answer

8. Relative speed between 1st and 2nd train is (90 – 60) = 30 kmph
The distance covered by the first train when 2nd train starts is (60 × 30) = 180 km
So, they meet or, 6 hours after 2nd train starts, that is, at 3 a.m.
They meet the third train also at 3 a.m. (6 × 90) or, 540 kms from Mumbai.
So, distance from Delhi is (1260 – 540) = 720 kms.
Therefore, speed of Train C is kmph = 120 kmph

Option (c) is the correct answer

9. Here, if the distance is x, then,


+=1
Or, =1
Or, 10 x = 189

So, x = = 18.9 km

Option (b) is the correct answer

10. Distance of office from home = (5 × 7) km = 35 km

Option (a) is the correct answer

11. Let, the distance be x


So, +=8
Or, =8
Or, 13 x = 8 × 36
So, x = = 22

Option (c) is the correct answer


12. Total fare = Tk. 70 + Tk. × 4.2 + Tk. 150 × = Tk. 546.

Option (d) is the correct answer

13. Let, the time travelled on the first day be t.


So, t + t + 5 = 23
Or, 2t = 18
∴ t = 9
Let, the speed on the first day be x.
So, 9x + 14(x + 4) = 231
Or, 9x + 14x + 56 = 231

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Or, 23x = 175
∴ x = 175/23 = 7.6

Option (b) is the correct answer

14. Distance for 50 blocks in miles is miles = miles


So, time required = ×× mins. = × = 6 mins.

Option (c) is the correct answer

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Type 8: Train passing a point (same/opposite direction)
Relative Speeds

If two objects are travelling in the same direction then their relative speed is determined by subtracting their speeds and
if the two objects are travelling in the opposite direction then the relative speed is determined by adding the two speeds.

If x kmph and y kmph are the speeds of two objects travelling in the same direction, then their relative speed is (x + y)
kmph and if they are travelling in the opposite direction their relative speeds are (x – y) kmph.

Problems on Trains

Train Problems form an interesting portion of the time-distance problems. The Train Problems are a bit different from
the regular problems on the motion of the objects. This is because the size of the train needs to be taken into account.
Due to the small size of the cars and other objects, we take them as point objects. Since the size of the trains is
comparable to the distances that they may travel, then we have to take the size or the length of the trains into account
too.

● When a train crosses a small object or a pole or a human (point object)


Because the length of a pole or a human or any such small object is very small, we consider them as point objects
and ignore their lengths. In this case, in order to cross or pass this point object, the distance covered by the train is
the length of the train itself.

● When a train crosses a platform or a bridge (extended object)


When a train crosses an extended object, the total distance covered by the train in order to completely cross that
object is the length of the train itself and the length of the object.
If the length of one train is P and the length of the object or a second train is Q, the total distance to be covered is
(P+Q).

Practice Math:

1. A train which is 390 m long, is running 45 kmph. In what time will it cross a person moving at 9 kmph in same
direction?

a. 26 sec b. 39 sec c. 36 sec d. 29 sec e. None of these

2. A train running at the speed of 63 km/hr took 18 seconds to pass a certain point. What was the length of the
train?

a. 90 m b. 120 m c. 315 m d. 540 m e. None of these

Answers
1. b 2. c

Solution:

1. A person is considered a point object.


So, distance to be covered = 390 m
and relative speed = (45 – 9) × m/s
= 10 m/s.
So, time required = seconds
= 39 seconds

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Option (b) is the correct answer
2. So, the length of the train = ××
= 315m

Option (c) is the correct answer

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Type 9: Train passing an extended object (same/opposite direction)

Practice Math:

1. Two trains, 250 metres and 150 metres long respectively, are running on parallel lines. If they are running in the
same directions, the faster train crosses the slower train in 40 seconds. If they are moving in the opposite
direction they pass each other in eight seconds. What is the speed of the slower train?

a. 108 kmph b. 82 kmph c. 92 kmph d. 72 kmph e. None of these

2. A train 575 m long crosses a tunnel of length 325 in 90 sec. What is the speed of the train in kmph?

a. 28 b. 32 c. 36 d. 24 e. None of these

3. A train 250 meters long, travelling at 63 km/h, completely crosses a bridge in 50 seconds. How long is the
bridge?

a. 700 m b. 650 m c. 800 m d. 625 m e. 500 m

4. Two trains are running on the same route at the rate of 35 and 70 miles per hour. If the first train starts out an
hour earlier, how long will it take the second train to catch up with it?

a. 1 hrs b. 4 hrs c. 3 hrs d. 2 hrs e. None of these

5. A train 350 meters long is moving at a speed of 54 km/hr. How long will it take to cross a man coming from the
opposite direction at a speed of 9 km/hr?

a. 20 sec b. 32 sec c. 28 sec d. 24 sec e. 16 sec

6. Two trains running in the same direction at 34 km/hr and 16 km/hr completely pass one another in 40 seconds.
If the length of the first train is 125 meters, what is the length of the second train?

a. 125 m b. 150 m c. 200 m d. 75 m e. 133 m

7. Two trains are running on parallel lines in the same direction at a speed of 72 km/hr and 45 km/hr respectively.
The faster train crosses a man sitting in the slower train in 18 seconds. What is the length of the faster train?

a. 170 m b. 135 m c. 98 m d. 85 m e. 64 m

8. A train crosses a 600 meter long fly-over in 1.5 minutes and a lamp post in 15 seconds. What is the length of
the train?

a. 50 m b. 60 m c. 120 m d. 100 m e. Cannot be determined

Answers
1. d 2. c 3. d 4. a
5. a 6. d 7. b 8. c

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Solution:

1. Let, the speed of the faster train be x


The speed of the slower train be y.
Total distance to be covered = (250 + 150) m
= 400 m
So, x – y = ..... (i)
x + y = .......... (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii) we get,
x–y+x+y= +
⇒ 2x = 10 + 50
⇒ x =
∴ x = 30
So, speed of slower train, y = 50 – 30
= 20
Therefore, required speed = ×kmph
= 72 kmph.

Option (d) is the correct answer

2. Speed of the train = m/s.


= 10 m/s
= 10 × kmph
= 36 kmph.

Option (c) is the correct answer

3. Total distance travelled = 63 * (5/18) * 50 m


= 875 m
So, length of bridge = (875 – 250) m
= 625 m

Option (d) is the correct answer

4. The first train is ahead by


= (35 × 1) miles
= 35 miles
So, time required for 2nd train to catch up = = = 1 hour

Option (a) is the correct answer

5. Relative speed here = (54 + 9) × m/s.


= 63 × m/s.
= 17.5 m/s.
Therefore, required time = seconds
= 20 seconds

Option (a) is the correct answer

6. So, relative speed = (34 – 16) × m/s.


So, distance covered in 40 seconds
= (5 × 40) m
= 200 m

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Therefore, length of second train = (200 – 125) m
= 75 m.

Option (d) is the correct answer

7. Relative speed here = ( 72 – 45) × m/s.


= 7.5 m/s.
So, length of faster train = (7.5 × 18) m
= 135 m

Option (b) is the correct answer

8. Let, the speed of the train be x.


So, = 90 [∵ 1.5 mins = 90 secs]
⇒ 600 + 15x = 90x
So, 75x = 600
⇒ x = 8
So, length of train,
= (15 × 8) m
= 120 m

Option (c) is the correct answer

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Type 10: Geometric application

Practice Math:

1. A lady starts from P towards Q and realizes that at a point R, if she walks 50 km further she will be at a point S,
which is as far away from R as it is from Q. What is the distance between P and Q if the distance between P and
R is half the distance from R to Q?( Assume that P, Q, R and S are all on the same straight line)

a. 150 km b. 200 km c. 250 km d. 125 km e. None of these

2. Two buses A and B leave the same bus depot, A towards the North and B towards the East. The bus A travels
at a speed of 5 km/hr more than that of the bus B. If after four hours the distance between the two buses is 100
km, find the speed of the bus A.

a. 60 kmph b. 40 kmph c. 20 kmph d. 15 kmph e. None of these

3. If two planes leave the same airport at 1:00 PM. how many miles apart will they be at 3:00 PM if one travels
directly north at 300 mph and the other travels directly west at 400 mph?

a. 100 miles b. 500 miles c. 1000 miles d. 800 miles e. None of these

Answers
1.a 2.c 3.c

Solution:

1. RS = 50km.
Given, QS = RS.
Again, PR = ½*RQ
Now, PQ = PR + RQ
= ½*RQ + RQ
= 3/2*RQ
= 3/2 *(RS + SQ)
= 3/2 * 2RS
= 3* 50km
= 150km

Option (a) is the correct answer.

2. Let speed of bus B be x km/hr


So, speed of bus A = (x + 5) km/hr
After 4 hours, distance travelled by bus A = 4x + 20 km
Distance travelled by bus B = 4x km
Now, (4x)2 + (4x+20)2 = 1002
Or, 16x2 + 16x2 + 160x + 400 = 10000
Or, 32x2 + 160x – 9600 = 0
Or, x2 + 5x – 300 = 0
Or, x2 + 20x - 15x – 300 = 0
Or, x (x + 20) – 15 (x + 20) = 0
Or, (x + 20) (x - 15) = 0
So, x = –20,15

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But x =-20 is not applicable.
So, x = 15
So, speed of bus A = 15 + 5 km/hr = 20km/hr

Option (c) is the correct answer.

3. The distance traveled by the plane going north in 2h = 600 miles


The distance traveled by the plane going south in 2h = 800 miles
N

600

W E
800

The distance between the planes = √6002 + 8002 = 1000 miles

Option (c) is the correct answer

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Type 11: Races and Games

Practice Math:

1. In a 100 m race, A beats B by 10 m and C by 28 m. In the same race B beats C by::

a. 18 m b. 20 m c. 27 m d. 9 m e. None of these

2. A and B take part in 100 m race. A runs at 5 kmph. A gives B a head start of 8 m and still beats him by 8 seconds.
The speed of B is:

a. 5.15 kmph b. 4.14 kmph c. 4.25 kmph d. 4.4 kmph e. None of these

3. In a 500 m race, the ratio of the speeds of two contestants A and B is 3 : 4. A has a head start of 140 m. Then,
A wins by:

a. 60 m b. 40 m c. 20 m d. 10 m e. None of these

4. A can run 22.5 m while B runs 25 m. In a 1 kilometer race B beats A by:

a. 100 m b. 111 m c. 25 m d. 50 m e. 70 m

2
5. A runs 1 times as fast as B. If A gives B a head start of 80 m, how far must the winning post be so that A and
3
B might reach it at the same time?

a. 200 m b. 300 m c. 270 m d. 160 m e. 250 m

Answers
1. b 2. b 3. c 4. a
5. a

Solution:

1. A: B = 100:(100 - 10) = 100: 90


A: C = 100:(100 - 28) = 100: 72
Now, B: C = B/A * A/C = 90/100 * 100/72 = 5:4
When B runs 5 m, C runs 4 m
So, when B runs 100 m, C runs 100*4/5 = 80m
So, B beats C by (100 - 80) = 20 m

Option (b) is the correct answer.

2. Speed of A = 5 *5/18 m/s = 25/18 m/s


Time taken by A to cover 100m = 100* 18/25 = 72s
Now, Time taken by B to cover (100 - 8) or 92m is (72 + 8) s = 80s
So, speed of B = 92/80 * 18/5 = 4.14 kmph

Option (b) is the correct answer.

3. To reach the winning post A will have to cover a distance of (500 - 140) m = 360 m.
While A covers 3 m, B covers 4 m

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While A covers 360 m, B covers 350*4/3 = 480m
So, when A reaches the winning post, B stays behind = (500 - 480) m = 20 m

Option (c) is the correct answer.

4. When B runs 25 m, A runs 22.5 m


So, when B runs 1000m, A runs 1000*22.5/25 m = 900m
Therefore, B beats A by (1000-900) m = 100m

Option (a) is the correct answer.

5. Ratio of the speeds of A and B = 5/3 :1 = 5:3


A & B finishes at the same time.
So, the 80m head start has to be gained within.
In each 5m, A gains (5 - 3)m or 2m over B.
Now, 2m is gained in a race of 5m
So, 80m is gained in a race of 80*5/2 m = 200m

Option (a) is the correct answer.

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Type12: Upstream, downstream, still water - Value Identification
Problems on Boats and Streams
When solving problems on boats and streams relative speed between the speed of the boat in still water and the speed
of the stream or current needs to be taken into account. The same principles apply when solving problems related to
planes and air current.

● When travelling downstream or with the current


When travelling downstream, the boar always moves with the current. In this case, if the speed of the boat is v
m/s and speed of the current is u m/s, then relative speed is (v + u) m/s.

● When travelling upstream or with the current


When travelling upstream, the boar always moves against the current. In this case, if the speed of the boat is v
m/s and speed of the current is u m/s, then relative speed is (v – u) m/s.

Important Note:
If the speed of boat travelling downstream (v + u) and upstream (v – u) are given, then

● Speed of boat, v = (speed downstream + speed upstream)/ 2


● Speed of current, u = (speed downstream – speed upstream)/ 2

Practice Math:

1. A boat sailing against the current takes 6 hours to travel 36 km. If it had been sailing with the current the time
taken would have been only 4 hours. What is the speed of current?

a. 3km/hr b. 2.5 km/hr c. 2 km/hr d. 1.5 km/hr e. None of these

2. Two boats on the opposite shores of a river start moving towards each other. When they pass each other, they
are 600 yards from one shoreline. They each continue to the opposite shore, immediately turn around and start
back. When they meet again, they are 300 yards from the other shoreline. Each boat maintains a constant speed
throughout. How wide is the river?

a. 1000 yards b. 1050 yards c. 2000 yards d. 2100 yards e. none of these

3. A man rowed 3 miles upstream in 60 minutes. If the river flowed with a current of 3 miles per hour, how long did
the man's return trip take?

a. 20 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 45 minutes d. 60 minutes e. 80 minutes

4. A certain river has a current of 3 miles per hour. A boat takes thrice as long to travel upstream between two
points as it does to travel downstream between the same two points. What is the speed of the boat in still
water?

a. 3 mph b. 6 mph c. 9 mph d. 12 mph e. Cannot be determined

5. A boat travels for three hours with a current of 40 mph and then returns the same distance against the current
in 4 hours. What is the boat's speed in calm water?

a. 20 mph b. 25 mph c. 30 mph d. 32 mph e. 35 mph

6. With the wind, an airplane travels 1344 miles in seven hours. Against the wind, however, it takes eight hours.
Find the velocity of the wind.

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a. 20 mph b. 140 mph c. 12 mph d. 10 mph e. 160 mph

7. A man can row 6 km/h in still water. The current in the river is running at 2 km/h. If it takes him 135 minutes to
row to a place and back, how far is the place?

a. 3 km b. 4.5 km c. 6 km d. 7.5 km e. None of these

8. A motorboat, whose speed is 15 km/hr in still water goes 40 km downstream and comes back in a total of 6
hours. The speed of the stream (in km/hr) is:

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 10 e. None

9. In one hour, a boat goes 13 km/hr along the stream and 7 km/hr against the stream. The speed of the boat in
still water (in km/hr) is:

a. 5 km/hr b. 6 km/hr c. 9 km/hr d. 10 km/hr e. None of these

10. A boat can travel with a speed of 15 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time
taken by the boat to go 76 km downstream.

a. 2 hours b. 3 hours c. 4 hours d. 5 hours e. 6 hours

11. A boatman goes 2 km against the current in 1 hour and goes 1 km with the current in 15 minutes. How long will
it take to go 5 km in still water?

a. 1 hour b. 1 hr 20 min c. 1 hr 30 min d. 1 hr 40 min e. None

12. The speed of a motor boat itself is 16 km/h and the rate of flow of the river is 4 km/h. Moving with the stream,
the boat went 120 km. What distance will the boat cover during the same time going against the stream?

a. 60 km b. 72 km c. 84 km d. 96 km e. 120 km

13. A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time
taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream.

a. 2 hours b. 3 hours c. 4 hours d. 5 hours e. None of these

14. A man's speed with the current is 15 km/hr and the speed of the current is 2.5 km/hr. The man's speed against
the current is:

a. 8.5 km/hr b. 9 km/hr c. 10 km/hr d. 12.5 km/hr e. 15 km/hr

Answers
1. d 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. e
6. c 7. c 8. b 9. d 10. c
11. d 12. b 13. c 14. c

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Solution:

1. Speed against the current = 36/6 = 6 km/hr


Speed with the current = 36/4 = 9 km/hr
Now, Boat + Current = 9
Again, Boat – Current = 6
Or, 2 x Current = 3
Therefore, speed of current is 1.5 km/hr

Option (d) is the correct answer

2. Let, the speed of the first boat be A yard/hr and speed of the second boat be B yard/hr
Let, the width of the river be x yards
At time t1, At1 = x – 600, Bt1 = 600
Or, B/A = 600/ (x – 600)
Or, B = 600A/ (x – 600)
At time t2, At2 = x + 300, Bt2 = 2x – 300
Or, B/A = (2x – 300)/(x+300)
Now, 600/(x – 600) = (2x – 300)/(x + 300)
Or, 600x + 180000 = 2x2 – 300x – 1200x + 180000
Or, 2x2 = 600x + 300x + 1200x
Or, x2 = 2100x /2
Or, x2 = 1050x
Or, x = 1050

Option (b) is the correct answer

3. Speed of the boat against the current is 3 miles/hr


Speed of current is 3 miles/hr
So, Speed of the boat with the current = (3+3+3) miles/hr = 9 miles/hr
The return trip takes = 3/9 = 0.333 h = 20 minutes.

Option (a) is the correct answer

4. Let, the speed of the boat be x mph.


Speed downstream = x+3 mph
Speed upstream = x -3 mph
Let, the distance between the two points be y.
Now, time downstream = 3 x time upstream
Therefore, y (x+3) = 3y (x-3)
Or, x+3 = 3x - 9
Or, 2x = 12
Or, x =6

Option (b) is the correct answer

5. We know, Distance = Velocity × Time


Let, the speed of the boat be 𝑥 mph.
Velocity Against the current × Time = Velocity with the current × Time
Or, Velocity against the current × 4 = 40 × 3
Or, Velocity against the current = 30
Now, Velocity of boat + Velocity of current = 40
And, Velocity of boat – Velocity of current = 30
Now, 2 × Velocity of boat = 70

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Therefore, velocity of boat = 35

Option (e) is the correct answer

6. Speed of the plane + velocity of the wind = 1344/7 =192 mph


Speed of the plane – velocity of the wind = 1344/8 168 mph
2 x velocity of wind = 24
Therefore, velocity of the wind = 12 mph

Option (c) is the correct answer

7. Let, the place is x km away


Velocity with the current = 8 km/h
Velocity against the current = 4 km/h
Total Time taken = (Distance/velocity against the current) + (Distance/Velocity with the current)
Or, 135/60 = (x/4) + (x/8)
Or, 135 × (8/60) = 2x + x
Or, x = (135/3) × (8/60)
Or, x = 6

Option (c) is the correct answer

8. Let, the speed of current = x km/h


A/Q, 40/(15 + x) + 40/(15 – x) = 6
Or, (15 + x +15 – x) / (15 + x)(15 – x) = 6/40
Or, (15 + x)(15 – x) / 30 = 40/6
Or, 152 – x2 = 40 x 30 /6
Or, 225 – x2 = 200
Or, x2 = 225 – 200
Or, x2 = 25
Or, x =5

Option (b) is the correct answer

9. Speed of the boat + Speed of current = 13 km/h


Speed of the boat – Speed of current = 7 km/h
2 x Speed of boat = 20 km/h
Or, Speed of boat = 10

Option (d) is the correct answer

10. Speed of boat downstream = 15 + 4 = 19 km/h


Time required to travel 76 km = 76/19 = 4h

Option (c) is the correct answer

11. Speed of boat – Speed of current = 2


Speed of boat + Speed of current = 1/0.25 = 4
2 x Speed of boat = 6
Or, Speed of boat = 3
Time taken to travel 5 km = 5/3 = 1.67 = 1h 40 min

Option (d) is the correct answer

12. Speed of boat with the current = 20 km/h


Speed of boat against the current = 12 km/h

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Time taken with the current = 120/20 = 6h
Therefore, the distance the boat will travel against the current in 6 h = 6 x 12 = 72 km

Option (b) is the correct answer

13. Required time = hrs.


= 4 hrs

Option (c) is the correct answer

14. The man’s speed in still water is (15 – 2.5) km/hr = 12.5 km/hr
So, speed against current = (12.5 – 2.5) km/hr = 10 km/hr

Option (c) is the correct answer

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Review Test 1

1. A man travels for 6 hours at a rate of 50 miles per hour. His return trip takes him 9 hours. What is his average
speed for the whole trip?

a. 35.5 mph b. 40 mph c. 44.44 mph d. 45 mph e. 50 mph

2. Jawad travels to IBA from Uttara by car at a speed of 40 km per hour and returns to Uttara at a speed of 30 km
per hour by an auto rickshaw. What is his average speed in the entire journey in km/hour?

a. 35 b. 34.3 c. 37.5 d. 35.3 e. 36

3. A hiker walked up Everest from a way station to an observation point and back to the way station by the same
route. His average speed for the ascent was 5 miles per hour, and his average speed for the descent was 9
miles per hour. If the observation point is exactly 14 miles from the way station, what was the hiker’s average
speed, in miles per hour, for the entire trip?

2 3 1 3
a. 7 mph b. 6 mph c. 3 mph d. 6 mph e. 4
5 7 3 5

4. One third of a certain journey was covered at the speed of 20 km per hour, one fourth at the rate of 30 km per
hour and the rest at the rate of 50 km per hour. Find the average speed (per hour) of the whole journey?

a. 28 km/hr b. 30 km/hr c. km/hr d. 40 km/hr e. None of these

5. Maksud drove from home at an average speed of 30 mph to a bus station. He then took a bus to his office at
an average speed of 90 mph. The entire distance was 210 miles; the entire trip took three hours. Find the
distance from the bus station to the office.

a. 30 miles b. 60 miles c. 120 miles d. 180 miles e. None of these

6. On a certain trip, a motorist drove 20 miles at 30 miles per hour, 20 miles at 40 miles per hour, and 50 miles at
50 miles per hour. What portion of the total driving time was spent driving 50 miles per hour?

5 7 2 6 12
a. b. c. d. e.
7 13 3 13 47

7. Running at a constant rate of 8 miles per hour, it takes Parsa exactly one hour to reach home from school. If
she walks at a constant rate of 6 miles per hour, how many minutes will the trip take?

a. 46 b. 80 c. 84 d. 62 e. 96

8. Jawad and Mahim started from point A and reached point B in 15 minutes and 12 minutes respectively. If the
traveling speed of Jawad was 3 km/hr less than that of Mahim, what was the distance between A and B in kms?

a. 2 b. 4.9 c. 5 d. 3 e. None of these

9. Nahian usually takes an Uber to his University from his house at a speed of 45 km per hour. It takes him 20
minutes longer to take a rickshaw for the same distance at 18 km per hour. What is the distance (in km) between
his house and University?

a. 12 b. 8 c. 15 d. 10 e. None of these

10. A truck is traveling on a highway. At 8 A.M, it passes a lorry traveling in the same direction. The lorry continues
on the highway traveling at 70 mph while the truck travels at 85 mph. How far apart are the lorry and the truck
at 2 P.M?

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a. 115 Miles b. 130 Miles c. 90 Miles d. 200 Miles e. 75 Miles

11. Mr. X and Mr. Y started from point A and reached point B in 18 minutes and 14 minutes respectively. If the
traveling speed of Mr. X was 7 km/hr less than that of Mr. Y, what was the distance between A and B in kms?

a. 8 b. 4.5 c. 6.8 d. 7.35 e. None of these

12. Two hikers start hiking from the starting point of a trail. The second hiker travels at 7 miles per hour and starts
3 hours after the first hiker who is traveling at 5 miles per hour. How much time will pass before the hiker
catches up with the first from the time the second hiker started hiking?

1 3
a. 5 hours b. 7 c. 4 d. 6 hours e. None of these
2 4

13. Arijit, Billu and Chunky start at the same time in the same direction to run around a circular stadium. Arijit
completes a round in 126 seconds, Billu in 231 seconds and Chunky in 297 seconds, all starting at the same
point. After what time will they all be again at the starting point?

a. 26 minutes and 18 seconds


b. 42 minutes and 36 seconds
c. 45 minutes and 38 seconds
d. 69 minutes and 18 seconds
e. None of these

14. A train leaves Abrar’s house and travels at 36 miles per hour. Two hours later, another train leaves from Abrar’s
house on the track parallel to the first train but it travels at 68 miles per hour. How far away from his house will
the faster train pass the other train?

a. 160 miles b. 172 miles c. 153 miles d. 136 miles e. 197 miles

15. Two friends start at the same time from opposite ends of a course that is 75 miles long. One friend is travelling
at 18 mph and the second friend is traveling at 27 mph. How long after they begin will they meet?

a. 30 minutes b. 80 minutes c. 60 minutes d. 100 minutes e. None of these

16. Abir can run 14 miles per hour, while Manish can run only 11 miles per hour. If they start at the same time from
the same point, and run in opposite directions, how far apart will they be after 18 minutes?

a. 6.5 miles b. 8 miles c. 7.5 miles d. 6 miles e. 7 miles

17. Manikganj and Comilla are 320 miles apart. If a train leaves Manikganj in the direction of Comilla, at 67 miles
per hour, how long will it take before that train meets another train, going from Manikganj to Comilla, at a speed
of 45 miles per hour?

a. 4 hours b. 4.33 hours c. 2.86 hours d. 5.67 hours e. 6.67 hours

Answers
1. b 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. d 7. b
8. d 9. d 10. c 11. d 12. b 13. d 14. c
15. d 16. c 17. c

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Solution:

1. Total distance travelled by the man initially is


(6 ×50) miles = 300 miles

Therefore, distance for return trip is also 300 miles. Time taken for return is 9 hours.

300 100
So, speed during return trip = = mph
9 3

100 10000
2×50× 10000 3
The average speed = 100
3
= 3
150+100 = × = 40
50+ 3 250
3 3

Option (b) is the correct answer

2. Distance traversed with both speeds is same.


2×40×30 2400
Therefore, average speed = = = 34.28 kmph
30+40 70

Option (b) is the correct answer

3. Since the distance travelled is same.


2×5×9 45 3
Therefore, average speed = = =6
9+5 7 7

Option (b) is the correct answer

4. Let the total distance be d.


𝑑
1 𝑑
So, time taken to cover of the distanceis, t1 = 3
=
3 20 60
𝑑
1 𝑑
time taken to cover of the distance is, t2 = 4
=
4 30 120
1 1
time taken to cover (1 − − ) or,
3 4
5𝑑
5 𝑑
of the distance is, t3 = 12
=
12 50 120
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
Therefore, average speed =
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒

𝑑
=
𝑡1 +𝑡2 +𝑡3

𝑑
= 𝑑 𝑑 𝑑
+ +
60 120 120

𝑑
= 4𝑑
120

𝑑×120
=
4𝑑

= 30 kmph

Option (b) is the correct answer

5. Let, the distance from bus station to office be x so, the distance from home to bus station is (210 – x)
210−𝑥
Therefore, time taken to go to station, t1 =
30
𝑥
Time taken to go to office, t2 =
90
𝑥 210−𝑥
So, total time = +
90 30

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𝑥+(3×210)−3𝑥
Or, 3 =
90
Or, 3 × 90 = −2x + 630
Or, 2x = 630 – 270
360
𝑆𝑜, x= = 180
2

Option (d) is the correct answer

20 2
6. Time taken to drive 1st part, t1 = =
30 3
nd 20 1
Time taken to drive 2 part t2 = =
40 2
rd 50
Time taken to drive 3 part, t3 = =1
50
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑓𝑜𝑟 3𝑟𝑑 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡
So, required fraction,
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
1
=2 1
+ +1
3 2
1
= 4+3+6
6
6
=
13

Option (d) is the correct answer

7. Total distance = 8 × 1 = 8 miles


So, required time = 8/6 = 1.33 hours = 80 minutes

Option (b) is the correct answer

8. Let, the distance be x.


𝑥 1
Then, speed of Jawad 1 is [∵15 mins = hrs]
4
4
= 4x
𝑥 1
Speed of Mahim is 1 [∵12 mins = hrs]
5
5
= 5x
Therefore, 5x – 4x = 3
x =3

Option (d) is the correct answer

9. Let, the distance be x.


𝑥
Therefore, time required for Uber
45
𝑥
Time required for Rickshaw
18
𝑥 𝑥 1 1
So, − = [∵20 mins = hrs]
18 45 3 3
5𝑥−2𝑥 1
⇒ =
90 3
90
⇒ 3x =
3
30
∴ x= = 10 km
3

Option (d) is the correct answer

10. Distance between truck and lorry


= relative speed × time
= (85 – 70) × 6 miles
= 90 miles

Option (c) is the correct answer

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11. Let, the distance be x.
𝑥 10𝑥 18 3
Speed of Mr X is 18 on, [∵ mins = hrs]
3 60 10
60
𝑥 30𝑥 14 7
Speed Mr. Y is 14 on, [∵ mins = hrs]
7 60 30
60
30𝑥 10𝑥
Therefore, − =7
7 3
90𝑥−70𝑥
⇒ =7
21
⇒ 20x = 147

147
So, x= = 7.35
20

Option (d) is the correct answer

12. The first already covered (3× 5) miles = 15 miles


Here, relative speed = (7 – 5) mph
= 2 mph
15
So, time required for 2nd hiker to catch up is = 7.5 hours
2

Option (b) is the correct answer

13. We have to determine the L.C.M of 126, 231 and 247 which is 4158 seconds.
4158
On, 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑠 = 69.3 mins = 69 mins 18 seconds
60

Option (d) is the correct answer

14. The first train already covers, (36 × 2) miles


On, 72 miles
72
So, the faster train covers this distance in ( ) hours = 2.25 hours
68−36
Therefore, required distance from Abrar’s house is (2.25 × 68) miles = 153 miles.

Option (c) is the correct answer

15. Here, relative speed = (27+18) mph = 45 mph


75
So, they will meet after = ( ) × 60 minutes = 100 minutes
45

Option (d) is the correct answer

16. Relative speed = (14 + 11) mph = 25 mph


18
So, after 18 minutes, they will be apart by ( × 25) miles = 7.5 miles
60

Option (c) is the correct answer

17. Here, relative speed = (67 + 45) mph = 112 mph

320
Therefore, the Trains will meet after hours = 2.86 hours
112

Option (c) is the correct answer

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Review test 2

2
1. An aeroplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 240 kmph in 5 hours. To cover the same distance in 1
3
hours, it must travel at a speed of:

a. 300 kmph b. 360 kmph c. 600 kmph d. 720 kmph e. None of these

2. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more. The actual distance
travelled by him is:

a. 50 km b. 56 km c. 70 km d. 80 km e. 90 km

3. An ambulance travels 12 miles at a speed of 90 miles per hour. How fast must the ambulance travel on the
return trip if the round-trip travel time is to be 20 minutes?

a. 60 mph b. 55 pmh c. 62.5 mph d. 65 mph e. None of these

4. At 10:00 a.m. train A left the Airport Railway Station and 3 hours later train B left the same station on a parallel
track. If train A averaged 50 kilometers per hour and train B averaged 65 kilometers per hour until B passed A,
at what time did B pass A?

a. 2:00 p.m. b. 5:00 p.m. c. 6:00 p.m. d. 11:00 p.m. e. 9:00 p.m.

5. A train traveling at 108 km/h crosses a platform in 30 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 18
seconds. What is the length of the platform in meters?

a. 360 m b. 360 m c. 420 m d. 600 m e. None of these

6. A train 240 meters long moving at a speed of 90 km/hr crosses a train 360 meters long coming from the
opposite direction in 10 seconds. What was the speed of the second train?

a. 132 km/hr b. 126 km/hr c. 60 km/hr d. 50 km/hr e. 40 km/hr

7. In a 200 meters race A beats B by 35 m or 7 seconds. A's time over the course is:

a. 40 sec b. 47 sec c. 33 sec d. 50 sec e. None of these

8. In a 300 m race A beats B by 22.5 m or 6 seconds. B's time over the course is:

a. 86 sec b. 80 sec c. 76 sec d. 72 sec e. 96 sec

9. A boat takes 90 minutes less to travel 36 miles downstream than to travel the same distance upstream. If the
speed of the boat in still water is 10 mph, the speed of the stream is:

a. 2 mph b. 2.5 mph c. 3 mph d. 4 mph e. 6 mph

10. A man can row at 5 kmph in still water. If the velocity of current is 1 kmph and it takes him 1 hour to row to a
place and come back, how far is the place?

a. 2.4 km b. 2.5 km c. 3 km d. 3.6 km e. None of these

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11. A boat covers a certain distance downstream in 1 hour, while it comes back in 1.5 hours. If the speed of the
stream be 3 kmph, what is the speed of the boat in still water?

a. 12 kmph b. 13 kmph c. 14 kmph d. 15 kmph e. None of these

12. In one hour, a boat goes 11 km along the stream and 5 km against the stream. The speed of the boat in still
water (in km/hr)is:

a. 3 kmph b. 5 kmph c. 8 kmph d. 9 kmph e. 12 kmph

13. A man rows downstream 32 km and 14 km upstream. If he takes 6 hours to cover each distance, then the
velocity (in kmph) of the current is:

a. 0.5 kmph b. 1 kmph c. 1.5 kmph d. 2 kmph e.. 3 kmph

14. If a man rows at the rate of 6 kmph in still water and his rate against the current is 4.5 kmph, then the man’s
rate along the current is

a. 6 kmph b. 7.5 kmph c. 6.5kmph d. 8 kmph e. 9 kmph

15. A boat moves upstream at the rate of 1 km in 20 minutes and downstream 1 km in 12 minutes. The speed of
the current is :

a. 1 kmph b. 2 kmph c. 3 kmph d. 2.5 kmph e. None of these

Answers
1. d 2. a 3. a
4. d 5. a
6. b 7. c 8. b
9. a 10. a
11. d 12. c 13. c 14. b 15. a

Solution:

1. Total distance to be covered = 240 × 5 = 1200 kms.


Therefore, required speed = = 720 kmph.

Option (d) is the correct answer

2. If the time spent walking is t,


then, t (14 – 10) = 20
⇒ t =
So, t=5
Therefore, distance actually covered = 10 × 5 = 50 kms

Option (a) is the correct answer

3. Time required to cover the 12 miles = minutes = 8 minutes.


So, time left round trip = (20 – 8) = 12 minutes
Therefore, required speed = = 60 mph.

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Option (a) is the correct answer

4. In 3 hours, train A will go ahead by = (50 × 30) kms


So, time required for train B to catch up is hrs = 10 hrs.
So, trains will meet up at 11:00 pm.

Option (d) is the correct answer

108×5
5. Speed of train = = 30 m/s.
18
Total distance travelled is (30 × 30) m = 900 m
Length of the train = 30× 18 = 540 m
And length of platform (900 – 540) m = 360 m

Option (a) is the correct answer

6. Total distance = (240 + 360) m = 600 m


So, relative speed = = 60 m/s.
Speed the first train = 90*(5/18) = 25 m/s
Therefore, speed of second train = (60 – 25) m/s. = 35 m/s = 35 × = 126 kmph

Option (b) is the correct answer

7. B is beaten by 35 meters or 7 seconds.


So, B runs 35 m in 7 s
B covers 200 m in 200*7/35 s= 40 s
So, A’s time = 40 – 7 s = 33 s

Options (c) is the correct answer.

Option (a) is the correct answer.

8. B is beaten by 22.5 meter or 6 seconds.


So, B runs 22.5 m in 6 s
B covers 300 m in 300*6/22.5 s= 80 s

Option (b) is the correct answer.

9. Let, speed of Stream be x.


So, – = 1.5
⇒ = 1.5
⇒ = 100 – x2
⇒ 48x = 100 – x2
⇒ x2 + 48x – 100 = 0
⇒ x2 + 50x – 2x – 100=0
⇒ x (x + 50) – 2(x + 50) = 0
⇒ (x + 50) (x – 2) = 0
So, x = – 50 or, x = 2
But, x ≠ – 50

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So, x = 2.

Option (a) is the correct answer

10. Let, the distance be x.


So, + =1
⇒ = 1
⇒ x =
So, x = 2.4

Option (a) is the correct answer

11. So, the ratio of the time is 1 : 1.5 or, 2 : 3


So, ratio of speed upstream and downstream is 3 : 2
Let, speed of boat in still water be x.
Therefore, =
⇒ 2x + 6 = 3x – 9
⇒ x = 15

Option (d) is the correct answer

12. Let, the speed of boat be x


The speed of stream be y
A/Q
x + y = 11 ........ (i)
x – y = 5 ......... (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we get,
2x = 16
So, x=8

Option (c) is the correct answer

13. Let, the speed of boat be x


The speed of current be y
A/Q
32
x+y= ........ (i)
6
14
x–y= .......... (ii)
6

Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get,


2y =
⇒ 2y = 3
So, y = 1.5

Option (c) is the correct answer

14. The rate of the current is (6 – 4.5) = 1.5 kmph


Therefore, speed with current = (6 + 1.5) kmph = 7.5 kmph

Option (b) is the correct answer

15. Let, the speed of boat be x


The speed of current be y
A/Q
x + y = = 5 ........ (i)

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x – y = = 3 .......... (ii)
Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get,
⇒ 2y = 2
So, y=1

Option (a) is the correct answer

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SET
Set
The collection of well-defined distinct objects is known as a set. The word well-defined refers to a specific property
which makes it easy to identify whether the given object belongs to the set or not. The word ‘distinct’ means that the
objects of a set must be all different. The set containing all objects or elements and of which all other sets are subsets
is called the Universal Set.

Union of Sets:
Union of two given sets is the smallest set which contains all the elements of both the sets.
To find the union of two given sets A and B is a set which consists of all the elements of A and all the elements of B
such that no element is repeated.
The symbol for denoting union of sets is ‘∪’.

For example:
Let set A = {2, 4, 5, 6} and set B = {4, 6, 7, 8}
Taking every element of both the sets A and B, without repeating any element, we get a new set = {2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}.

Intersection of Sets:
Intersection of two given sets is the largest set which contains all the elements that are common to both the sets.
To find the intersection of two given sets A and B is a set which consists of all the elements which are common to both
A and B.
The symbol for denoting intersection of sets is ‘ꓵ‘.

For example:
Let set A = {2, 3, 4, 5, 6} and set B = {3, 5, 7, 9}
In this two sets, the elements 3 and 5 are common. The set containing these common elements i.e., {3, 5} is the
intersection of set A and B.

Practice Math:

1. Let A and B be two finite sets such that n(A) = 20, n(B) = 28 and n(A ∪ B) = 36, which one of the following is the
value of n(A ∩ B)?

a. 13 b. 15 c. 12 d. 18 e. None of these

2. If n(A - B) = 18, n(A ∪ B) = 70 and n(A ∩ B) = 25, then what is the value of n(B)?

a. 52 b. 62 c. 45 d. 33 e. 56

3. In a group of 60 people, 27 like cold drinks and 42 like hot drinks and each person likes at least one of the two
drinks. How many like both coffee and tea?

a. 8 b. 15 c. 18 d. 9 e. 5

4. Let A = {x: x is a natural number and a factor of 18} and B = {x: x is a natural number and less than 6}. Which one
of the following is (A∪B)?

a. {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 18}
b. {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 9}

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c. {2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 18}
d. {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 18}
e. None of the above

5. If P = {multiples of 3 between 1 and 20} and Q = {even natural numbers up to 15}. Which one of the following is
(P ∩ C)?

a. {6, 9} b. {6, 18} c. {6, 12} d. {6, 15} e. None of these

6. There are 30 students in a class. Among them, 8 students are learning both English and French. A total of 18
students are learning English. If every student is learning at least one language, how many students are learning
French in total?

a. 22 b. 10 c. 26 d. 20 e. 24

7. In a group, there were 115 people whose proofs of identity were being verified. Some had passport, some had
voter id and some had both. If 65 had passport and 30 had both, how many had voter id only and not passport?

a. 30 b. 50 c. 80 d. 90 e. 60

8. Among a group of people, 40% liked red, 30% liked blue and 30% liked green. 7% liked both red and green, 5%
liked both red and blue, 10% liked both green and blue. If 86% of them liked at least one color, what percentage
of people liked all three?

a. 10 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12 e. 14

9. In a class of 60 students, 40 students like math, 36 like science, 24 like both the subjects. Find the number of
students who like neither.

a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11 e. 12

10. At a conference of 100 people there are 29 Bangladeshi women and 23 Bangladeshi men. Out of these
Bangladeshi people 4 are doctors and 24 are either men or doctors. There are no foreign doctors. What is the
number of women doctors attending the conference?

a. 4 b. 3 c. 3 d. 1 e. 5

11. At a breakfast buffet, 20 people chose coffee and 17 chose juice. 10 people chose both coffee and juice. If each
person chose at least one of these beverages, how many people visited the buffet?

a. 37 b. 30 c. 27 d. 13 e. 54

12. In a school there are 25 teachers who teach engineering or management. Of these, 15 teach engineering and 6
teach both engineering and management. How many teach management?

a. 14 b. 15 c. 16 d. 19 e. 21

13. In a class of 120 students, 70 students passed in English, 80 students passed in Bangla and 40 students passes
in both English and Bangla. How many students failed in both the subjects?

a. 10 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 e. 60

14. In a class of 40 students, 12 enrolled for both English and German. 22 enrolled for German. If the students of
the class enrolled for at least one of the two subjects, then how many students enrolled for only English and not
German?

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a. 34 b. 28 c. 10 d. 18 e. 16

15. Of the 200 candidates who were interviewed for a position at a call center, 100 had a two-wheeler, 70 had a
credit card and 140 had a mobile phone. 40 of them had both, a two-wheeler and a credit card, 30 had both, a
credit card and a mobile phone and 60 had both, a two-wheeler and mobile phone and 10 had all three. How
many candidates had none of the three?

a. 0 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30 e. 40

16. In a class 40% of the students enrolled for Math and 70% enrolled for Economics. If 15% of the students enrolled
for both Math and Economics, what % of the students of the class did not enroll for either of the two subjects?

a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% e. 25%

17. If in a set 8 members are present, then how many subsets does the set have?

a. 256 b. 512 c. 128 d. 512 e. 64

18. In a group of 60 students, 45 students speak Spanish and 25 students can speak English and Spanish both,
then how many students can speak only English?

a. 25 b. 35 c. 45 d. 15 e. 55

19. Set B contains all prime numbers. Set C contains all even numbers. How many numbers are common to both
sets?

a. 0 b. 1 c. infinite d. undefined e. Cannot be determined

20. How many subset/s are there for an empty set?

a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. None of these

Answers:
1. c 2. a 3. d 4. d 5. c

6. d 7. b 8. c 9. a 10. d

11. c 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. b

16. a 17. a 18. d 19. b 20. b

Solution:

1. Using the formula n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A ∩ B).


Then n(A ∩ B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A ∪ B)
= 20 + 28 - 36
= 48 - 36
= 12

Option (c) is the correct answer

2. Using the formula n(A∪B) = n(A - B) + n(A ∩ B) + n(B - A)


70 = 18 + 25 + n(B - A)

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70 = 43 + n(B - A)

n(B - A) = 70 - 43
Or, n(B - A) = 27

Now n(B) = n(A ∩ B) + n(B - A)


= 25 + 27
= 52

Option (a) is the correct answer

3. Let A = Set of people who like cold drinks.


B = Set of people who like hot drinks.
Given
(A ∪ B) = 60 n(A) = 27 n(B) = 42 then;

n(A ∩ B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A ∪ B)


= 27 + 42 - 60
= 69 - 60 = 9
=9
Therefore, 9 people like both

Option (d) is the correct answer

4. A = {1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18}
B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Therefore, A ∪ B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 18}

Option (d) is the correct answer

5. P = {multiples of 3 between 1 and 20}


So, P = {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18}
Q = {even natural numbers up to 15}
So, Q = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14}
Therefore, intersection of P and Q is the largest set containing only those elements which are common to both
the given sets P and Q
Hence, P ∩ Q = {6, 12}

Option (c) is the correct answer

6. 18 are learning English and 8 are learning both. This means that 18 – 8 = 10 are learning ONLY English.
n(E∪F) = 30, n(E) = 10
n(E∪F) = n(E) + n(F) – n(E∩F)
30 = 18+ n(F) – 8
n(F) = 20
Therefore, total number of students learning French = 20

Option (d) is the correct answer

7. n(P∪V) = n(P) + n(V) – n(P∩V)


115 = 65+n(V) – 30
n(V) = 80
People with only voter id = 80-30 = 50

Option (b) is the correct answer

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8. n(RᴜBᴜG) = n(R) + n(B) + n(G) – n(R∩B) – n(B∩G) – n(R∩G) + n(R∩G∩B)
86 = 40+30+30-5-10-7+ n(R∩G∩B)
Solving this gives 8

Option (c) is the correct answer

9. No. of students who like either math or science:


= n (M or S)
= n (M U S)
= n(M) + n(S) – n (M∩S)
= 40 + 36 - 24
= 52
No. of students who like neither math nor science
= 60 – 52
=8

Option (a) is the correct answer

10. n(M) = 23, n(D) = 4, n(M∪D) = 24


n(M∪D) = n(M) + n(D) - n(M ∩ D)
24 = 23 + 4 - n(M ∩ D)
n(M ∩ D) = 3
n (Men and Doctors) = 3
So, out of the 4 Bangladeshi doctors, there are 3 men.
And the remaining 1 doctor is a Bangladeshi women.

Option (d) is the correct answer

11. n(a) + n(b) – n(a ∩ b)= total number of visitors


Or, 20 + 17 – 10 = 27

Option (c) is the correct answer

12. n (E ∪ M) = 25, n (E) = 15 and n (E ∩ M) = 6


n (E ∪ M) = n (E) + n (M) – n (E∩ M),
25 = 15 + n (M) – 6
Thus n (M) = 16
Hence 16 teachers teach management

Option (c) is the correct answer

13. n(U) = n (passed in English) + n (passed in Bangla) – n (Passed in both) + n (Failed)


120 = 70 + 80 – 40 + n (F),
n (F)= 10

Option (a) is the correct answer

14. Let A be the set of students who have enrolled for English and B be the set of students who have enrolled for
German.
Then, n(A∪B) is the set of students who have enrolled for at least one of the two languages. As the students of
the class have enrolled for at least one of the two languages, we will not find anyone outside A∪B in this class.
So, n(A ∪ B) = 40
Or, n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ∩ B)
Or, 40 = n(A) + 22 – 12
Or, n(A) = 30
n(only English) = n(English) - n(A ∩ B) = 30 - 12 = 18.

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Option (d) is the correct answer

15. Number of candidates who had none of the three = Total number of candidates - number of candidates who
had at least one of three devices.
Total number of candidates = 200.
Number of candidates who had at least one of the three = n(A ∪ B ∪ C)
Where A is the set of those who have a two wheeler, B is the set of those who have a credit card and C is the
set of those who have a mobile phone.
n(A ∪ B ∪ C) = n(A) + n(B) + n(C) - {n(A ∩ B) + n(B ∩ C) + n(C ∩ A)} + n(A ∩ B ∩ C)
Therefore, n(A ∪ B ∪ C) = 100 + 70 + 140 - {40 + 30 + 60} + 10
Or, n(A ∪ B ∪ C) = 190.
As 190 candidates who attended the interview had at least one of the three gadgets, 200 - 190 = 10 candidates
had none of three.

Option (b) is the correct answer

16. n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A ∩ B), where (A ∪ B) represents the set of people who have enrolled for at least one
of the two subjects Math or Economics and (A ∩ B) represents the set of people who have enrolled for both the
subjects Math and Economics.
n(A ∪ B) = 40 + 70 - 15 = 95%
That is 95% of the students have enrolled for at least one of the two subjects Math or Economics.
Therefore, the balance (100 - 95) % = 5% of the students have not enrolled for either of the two subjects.

Option (a) is the correct answer

17. Number of subsets = 28 = 256

Option (a) is the correct answer

18. n(H U E) = 60, n(H) = 45, n(H ∩ E) = 25.


n(H U E) = n(H) + n(E) – n(H ∩ E) or, 60 = 45 + n(E) – 25 or, n(E) = 40
So total number of people who speak only English = 40 – 25 = 15

Option (d) is the correct answer

19. Prime numbers are numbers with no other factors than themselves and one. Two is the first prime number and
the only even prime number. Other examples are 5, 7, 11, etc.
Even numbers are numbers divisible by 2. Set C includes all numbers ending in 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8.
Thus, there is one number common to both sets: 2.

Option (b) is the correct answer

20. Number of subsets of an empty set = 2n = 20 = 1

Option (b) is the correct answer

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PERMUTATIO
N and
COMBINATIO
N
Permutation and Combination
A combination is a selection of all or part of a set of objects, without regard to the order in which objects are selected.
For example, suppose we have a set of three letters: A, B, and C. We might ask how many ways we can select 2 letters
from that set. Each possible selection would be an example of a combination. The complete list of possible selections
would be: AB, AC, and BC.

Computing the number of combinations:


The number of Combinations of n objects taken r at a time is:

n
Cr = n!/r!(n-1!)

A permutation is an arrangement of all or part of a set of objects, with regard to the order of the arrangement.
For example, suppose we have a set of three letters: A, B, and C. We might ask how many ways we can arrange 2 letters
from that set. Each possible arrangement would be an example of a permutation. The complete list of possible
permutations would be: AB, AC, BA, BC, CA, and CB.

Computing the number of permutations:


The number of Permutations of n objects taken r at a time is:

n
Pr = n! /(n-1)!

If you have n items to choose from and you choose r of them, then the number of permutations with repetitions allowed
is nr.

Practice Math:

1. From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 3
men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done?

a. 564 b. 645 c. 735 d. 756 e. None of these

2. In a group of 6 boys and 4 girls, four children are to be selected. In how many different ways can they be selected
such that at least one boy should be there?

a. 159 b. 194 c. 205 d. 209 e. None of these

3. How many 3-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 9, which are divisible by 5 and none of
the digits is repeated?

a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. 25

4. In how many ways a committee, consisting of 5 men and 6 women can be formed from 8 men and 10 women?

a. 266 b. 5040 c. 11760 d. 86400 e. None of these

5. A box contains 2 white balls, 3 black balls and 4 red balls. In how many ways can 3 balls be drawn from the box,
if at least one black ball is to be included in the draw?

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a. 32 b. 48 c. 64 d. 96 e. 112

6. In a group of 6 boys and 4 girls, four children are to be selected. In how many different ways can they be selected
such that at least one boy should be there?

a. 159 b. 209 c. 201 d. 212 e. None of these

7. From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 3
men are there in the committee. In how many ways can it be done?

a. 624 b. 702 c. 756 d. 812 e. 852

8. A bag contains 2 white balls, 3 black balls and 4 red balls. In how many ways can 3 balls be drawn from the bag,
if at least one black ball is to be included in the draw?

a. 64 b. 128 c. 32 d. 16 e. None of these

Answer
1. d 2. c 3. d 4. c
5. c 6. b 7. c 8. a

Solution:

1. We may have (3 men and 2 women) or (4 men and 1 woman) or (5 men only).
Required number of ways = (7C3 x 6C2) + (7C4 x 6C1) + (7C5)
= (525 + 210 + 21)
= 756.

Option (d) is the correct answer

2. We may have (1 boy and 3 girls) or (2 boys and 2 girls) or (3 boys and 1 girl) or (4 boys).
Required number of ways = (6C1 x 4C3) + (6C2 x 4C2) + (6C3 x 4C1) + (6C4)
= (24 + 90 + 80 + 15)
= 209.

Option (c) is the correct answer

3. Since each desired number is divisible by 5, so we must have 5 at the unit place. So, there is 1 way of doing it.
The tens place can now be filled by any of the remaining 5 digits (2, 3, 6, 7, 9). So, there are 5 ways of
filling the tens place.
The hundreds place can now be filled by any of the remaining 4 digits. So, there are 4 ways of
filling it.
Required number of numbers = (1 x 5 x 4) = 20.

Option (d) is the correct answer

4. Required number of ways = (8C5 x 10C6)


= (8C3 x 10C4)
= (8 x 7 x 6)/ (3 x 2 x 1) x (10 x 9 x 8 x 7)/ (4 x 3 x 2 x 1)
= 11760.

Option (c) is the correct answer

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5. We may have (1 black and 2 non-black) or (2 black and 1 non-black) or (3 black).
When we have 3 black balls, number of ways = 3C3 = 1
When we have 2 black and 1 non-black, number of ways = 3C2 * 6C1 = 3 * 6 = 18
When we have 1 black and two non-black, number of ways = 3C1 * 6C2 = 3 * 15 = 45
So, total number of ways = 1 + 18 + 45 = 64

Option (c) is the correct answer

6. In a group of 6 boys and 4 girls, four children are to be selected such that at least one boy should be there.
Hence, we have 4 options as given below
We can select 4 boys ... (option 1)
Number of ways to this = 6C4

We can select 3 boys and 1 girl ... (option 2)


Number of ways to this = 6C3 × 4C1

We can select 2 boys and 2 girls ... (option 3)


Number of ways to this = 6C2 × 4C2

We can select 1 boy and 3 girls ... (option 4)


Number of ways to this = 6C1 × 4C3

Total number of ways


= 6C4 + 6C3 × 4C1 + 6C2 × 4C2 + 6C1 × 4C3
= 15 + 80 + 90 + 24 = 209

Option (b) is the correct answer

7. From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected with at least 3 men.
Hence, we have the following 3 options.

We can select 5 men ...(option 1)


Number of ways to do this = 7C5

We can select 4 men and 1 woman ...(option 2)


Number of ways to do this = 7C4 × 6C1

We can select 3 men and 2 women ...(option 3)


Number of ways to do this = 7C3 × 6C2
Total number of ways
= 7C5 + (7C4 × 6C1) + (7C3 × 6C2)
= 7C2 + (7C3 × 6C1) + (7C3 × 6C2)[∵ nCr = nC(n-r) ]
= 21 + 210 + 525 = 756

Option (c) is the correct answer

8. From 2 white balls, 3 black balls and 4 red balls, 3 balls are to be selected such that at least one black ball
should be there.
Hence we have 3 choices as given below
We can select 3 black balls...(option 1)
We can select 2 black balls and 1 non-black ball ...(option 2)
We can select 1 black ball and 2 non-black balls ...(option 3)
Number of ways to select 3 black balls = 3C3
Number of ways to select 2 black balls and 1 non-black ball = 3C2 × 6C1
Number of ways to select 1 black ball and 2 non-black balls = 3C1 × 6C2

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Total number of ways
= 3C3 + 3C2 × 6C1 + 3C1 × 6C2
= 3C3 + 3C1 × 6C1 + 3C1 × 6C2 [∵ nCr = nC(n-1)]
= 1 + 18 + 45 = 64

Option (a) is the correct answer

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PROBABILITY
Probability

Practice Math:

1. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the
ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?

a. ½ b. 2/5 c. 8/11 d. 9/20 e. 18/25

2. A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none
of the balls drawn is blue?

a. 2/7 b. 11/21 c. 2/7 d. 5/7 e. 10/21

3. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is the probability that it
is neither red nor green?

a. 1/3 b. ¾ c. 7/19 d. 8/21 e. 6/11

4. What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice?

a. 1/6 b. 1/8 c. 1/9 d. 1/12 e. 1/7

5. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most two heads?

a. ¾ b. ¼ c. 3/8 d. 9/17 e. 7/8

6. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting two numbers whose product is even?

a. ¾ b. ¼ c. 3/8 d. 7/8 e. 2/7

7. In a class, there are 15 boys and 10 girls. Three students are selected at random. The probability that 1 girl and
2 boys are selected, is

a. 21/46 b. 25/117 c. 1/50 d. 3/25 e. 11/21

8. In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What is the probability of getting a
prize?

a. 1/10 b. 2/5 c. 3/7 d. 5/7 e. 2/7

9. Two friends A and B apply for a job in the same company. The chances of A getting selected is 2/5 and that of
B is 4/7. What is the probability that both of them get selected?

a. 8/35 b. 34/35 c. 27/35 d.9/19 e. None of these

10. In a game there are 70 people in which 40 are boys and 30 are girls, out of which 10 people are selected at
random. One from the total group, thus selected is selected as a leader at random. What is the probability that
the person, chosen as the leader is a boy?

a. 4/7 b. 4/9 c. 5/7 d. 2/7 e. 2/9

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11. An eight-digit telephone number consists of exactly two zeroes. One of the digits is repeated thrice. Remaining
three digits are all distinct. If the first three digits (from left to right) are 987, then find the probability of having
only one 9, one 8 and one 7 in the telephone number.

a. 1/18 b. 1/20 c. 1/10 d. 5/4 e. ¾

12. ABCD is a square. M is the midpoint of BC and N is the midpoint of CD. A point is selected at random in the
square. Calculate the probability that it lies in the triangle MCN.

a. 1/8 b. 1/3 c. 1/17 d. 5/9 e. 1/2

Answer:
1. d 2. e 3. a 4. c
5. e 6. a 7. a 8. e
9. a 10. a 11. c 12. a

Solution:

1. Here, S = {1, 2, 3, 4, ...., 19, 20}.


Let E = event of getting a multiple of 3 or 5 = {3, 6 , 9, 12, 15, 18, 5, 10, 20}.
𝑛(𝐸)
P(E) = = 9/20
𝑛(𝑆)

Option (d) is the correct answer.

2. Total number of balls = (2 + 3 + 2) = 7.


Let S be the sample space.
Then, n(S) = Number of ways of drawing 2 balls out of 7
= 7C2 `
= (7×6)/(2×1)
= 21.
Let E = Event of drawing 2 balls, none of which is blue.
n(E) = Number of ways of drawing 2 balls out of (2 + 3 ` ) balls = 5C2 = 10.
𝑛(𝐸)
P(E ) = = 10/21
𝑛(𝑆)

Option (e) is the correct answer.

3. Total number of balls = (8 + 7 + 6) = 21.


Let E = event that the ball drawn is neither red nor green = event that the ball drawn is blue.
n(E) = 7.
𝑛(𝐸) 7 1
P(E) = = 21 = 3
𝑛(𝑆)

Option (a) is the correct answer.

4. In two throws of a dice, n(S) = (6 x 6) = 36.


Let E = event of getting a sum = {(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3)}.
𝑛(𝐸) 4 1
P(E) = = 36 = 9
𝑛(𝑆)

Option (c) is the correct answer.

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5. Here S = {TTT, TTH, THT, HTT, THH, HTH, HHT, HHH}
Let E = event of getting at most two heads.
Then E = {TTT, TTH, THT, HTT, THH, HTH, HHT}.
P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 7/8

Option (e) is the correct answer

6. In a simultaneous throw of two dice, we have n(S) = (6 x 6) = 36.


Then, E = {(1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 2), (3, 4),
(3, 6), (4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6), (5, 2), (5, 4), (5, 6), (6, 1),
(6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6)}
n(E) = 27.
𝑛(𝐸) 27 3
P(E) = = =
𝑛(𝑆) 36 4

Option (a) is the correct answer

7. Let S be the sample space and E be the event of selecting 1 girl and 2 boys.
Then, n(S) = Number ways of selecting 3 students out of 25 = 25C3 = 2300
n(E) = (10C1 x 15C2) = 1050.
𝑛(𝐸) 1050 21
P(E) = = =
𝑛(𝑆) 2300 46

Option (a) is the correct answer

8. P (getting a prize) = 10/(10 + 25) = 10/35 =2/7

Option (e) is the correct answer

9. P(A) = 2/5
P(B) = 4/7
E = {A and B both get selected}
P(E) = P(A)*P(B) = 2/5 * 4/7 = 8/35

Option (a) is the correct answer

10. The total groups contains boys and girls in the ratio 4:3
If some person are selected at random from the group, the expected value of the ratio of boys and
girls will be 4:3
If the leader is chosen at random from the selection, the probability of him being a boy = 4/7

Option (a) is the correct answer

11. There is only one 9, one 8 and one 7 in the number.


Hence, there has to be one digit from {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} repeated thrice.
Total number of ways in which such a number can exist: = 6C1×5!3!×2! =60

One of the three digit {9, 8, 7} is repeated thrice.


Hence there will be one digit from {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}.
Total number of ways in which such a number can exist = 3C1 × 6C1 × 5!3! × 2! = 3C1 × 6C1 × 5!3! × 2 =540
Total possible telephone numbers =60 + 540 = 600 = 60 + 540 = 600
Probability = 60/600 = 1/10

Option (c) is the correct answer

12. Let 2x be the length of the square.


Area of square = 2x × 2x = 4x2

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Area of triangle MCN is
P (point in the triangle) = (½)x2 ÷ 4x2
= (1/2) x2 ÷ 1/ (4x2)
= 1/8

Option (a) is the correct answer

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GEOMETRY
Geometry
Type 1: Angles
An angle is a combination of two rays (half-lines) with a common endpoint. The latter is known as the vertex of the
angle and the rays as the sides, sometimes as the legs and sometimes the arms of the angle.

Types of angles

Acute Angle
An acute angle is an angle which measures between 0⁰ and 90⁰.

Obtuse Angle
An obtuse angle is an angle which measures between 90⁰ and 180⁰.

Right Angle
An angle which measures exactly 90⁰ is called a right angle.

Straight Angle
An angle which measures exactly 90⁰ is called a straight angle.

Reflex Angle
When the value of an angle is greater 180⁰ it is called a reflex angle.

Complementary Angles
Two Angles are Complementary to each other when they add up to 90 degrees (a Right Angle). They don't have to be
next to each other, just so long as the total is 90 degrees.

Supplementary Angles
Two Angles are Supplementary when they add up to 180 degrees. They don't have to be next to each other, just so long
as the total is 180 degrees.

Vertically Opposite Angles


Vertically Opposite Angles are the angles opposite each other when two lines cross. "Vertical" in this case means they
share the same Vertex (corner point), not the usual meaning of up-down.
Vertically opposite angles are equal to each other.

Fred’s Theorem
When a pair of parallel lines are crossed by a third straight line (called a transversal), then all the acute angles formed
are equal, and all of the obtuse angles are equal.

Practice Math:

1. In the figure below, AB II CD. EF and GH are transversals. X = 45°.


Then, Y=?

a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90°
e. Cannot be determined

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2. Here, a = 2d, d = ⅔b, b = c. What is the value of c?

a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 50°
d. 60°
e. Cannot be determined

3. Which angle is one-fourth its own supplement?

a. 25° b. 30° c. 36° d. 42° e. 48°

4. In the figure, a + b + d =?

a. 170°
b. 185°
c. 200°
d. 205°
e. 215°

5. In the figure, AB ll CD and EF ll GH. What is the value of p + r + s + t?

a. 240°
b. 300°
c. 360°
d. 420°
e. None of these

6. In the figure, ∠EOB = ∠FOE = ∠COF. What is the value ∠x?

a. 120°
b. 150°
c. 90°
d. 135°
e. None of these

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7. In the figure, AB ll CD ll EF. ∠GNA = 40⁰. And ∠NOP = ∠DOM. What is the value of ∠OMF?

a. 140⁰
b. 130⁰
c. 152⁰
d. 60⁰
e. 80⁰

8. In the figure, AB ll CD, ∠EOG = 90⁰ and ∠EMD = 35⁰. What is the measurement of ∠x?

a. 125⁰
b. 160⁰
c. 85⁰
d. 90⁰
e. 135⁰

9. In the figure, lines AB and EF intersect each other at a right angle.


OC is perpendicular OD. GH ll OD and ∠COE = ∠BOD. What is the
value of ∠EMH?

a. 40⁰
b. 70⁰
c. 125⁰
d. 150⁰
e. Cannot be determined

10. A flag pole, which is 36.2 ft high, casts a shadow of 5 ft at 11 a.m. The shadow cast by a tower at the same time
is 35 ft long. The height of the tower is

a. 153.4 ft
b. 203.4 ft
c. 200 ft
d. 186.3 ft
e. 253.4 ft

Answers:
1.e 2.b 3.c 4.e 5.c
6.a 7.b 8.a 9.e 10.e

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Solution:

1. We do not have enough data to calculate the value of Y. Additional information such as the value of
Its corresponding angle or
Its alternate angle or
Its vertically opposite angle or
Its adjacent angle
Is required.

So, option (e) is the correct answer

2. b = c …………………(i)
2
d= b
3
2
or, d = c …………(ii) [Since, b =c]
3

a = 2d
2
or, a = 2( c) [From, (ii)]
3
4
or, a = c …..…...(iii)
3

Based on the figure,


a + b + c + d = 180°
4 2
or, c + c + c + c = 180° [From (i), (ii) and (iii)]
3 3
4𝑐+ 3𝑐+ 3𝑐+ 2𝑐
or, = 180°
3
12𝑐
or, = 180°
3
or, 4c = 180°
or, c = 45°

So, option (b) is the correct answer

3. Let such an angle be x. Therefore, the supplement of that angle,


y = 180° - x
1
Therefore, x = y
4
1
or, x = (180° - x) [Since, y = 180° - x]
4
or, 4x = 180 - x
or, 5x = 180°
or, x = 36°

So, option (c) is the correct answer

4. c = 40° ………… (i) [Vertically opposite angles]


a + b + c + 65° + d + 40° = 360°
or, a + b + 40° + 65° + d + 40° = 360° [From (i)]
or, a + b + d = 215°

So, option (e) is the correct answer

5. Considering the lines AB, CD and EF


p = supplementary angle of s
p + s = 180° ………..(i)
t = supplementary angle of r
t + r = 180° …………(ii)
Therefore,

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p + r + s + t = 180° + 180° [From (i) and (ii)]
or, p + r + s + t = 360°

So, option (c) is the correct answer

6. ∠EOB + ∠FOE + ∠COF = 90°


or, 3∠FOE = 90° [∠EOB = ∠FOE = ∠COF]
or, ∠FOE = 30°

In the right-angled triangle,


∠FOE + ∠LMO + supplementary angle of ∠x = 180°
or, 30° + 90° + supplementary angle of ∠x = 180°
or, supplementary angle of ∠x = 60°
or, ∠x = 120°

So, option (a) is the correct answer

7. ∠NOP + ∠GOC = 90⁰


or, ∠NOP + ∠GNA = 90°
or, ∠NOP + 40° = 90° [∠GNA = 40⁰]
or, ∠NOP = 50°

Therefore, ∠DOM = 50° [∠NOP = ∠DOM]


Therefore, ∠OME = 50° [Alternate angles]
∠OME + ∠OMF = 180° [Supplementary angles]
Or, 50° + ∠OMF = 180° [ ∠OME = 50°]
Or, ∠OMF = 130°

So, option (b) is the correct answer

8. ∠EOG = 90⁰
Therefore, ∠FOG = 90⁰... (i) [Supplementary angle]
∠MOG + ∠OGM + ∠MGO = 180⁰
or, 90⁰ + 35⁰ + ∠MGO = 180⁰
or, ∠MGO = 55⁰

x + ∠MGO = 180⁰ [Supplementary angles]


or, x + 55⁰ = 180⁰ [∠MGO = 55⁰]
or, x = 125⁰

So, option (a) is the correct answer

9. We need to know (directly or indirectly) the value of the supplementary angle or the vertically opposite angle in
order to find out the value of ∠EMH for which we do not have sufficient data.

So, option (e) is the correct answer

𝐻𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑓𝑙𝑎𝑔 𝑝𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝐻𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑡𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟


10. =
𝐿𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠ℎ𝑎𝑑𝑜𝑤 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑓𝑙𝑎𝑔 𝑝𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝐿𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠ℎ𝑎𝑑𝑜𝑤 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑡𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟

36.2 𝑓𝑡 𝐻𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑡𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟


or, =
5 𝑓𝑡 35 𝑓𝑡

or, Height of tower = 253.4 ft


So, option (e) is the correct answer

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Type 2: Sides, angles and centers of a triangle

A triangle is a closed figure with three sides, each side being a line segment. The sum of the angles of a triangle is
always 180.

Classification of Triangles:

● Acute angled triangles are triangles where each angle inside the triangle is an acute angle.

● Obtuse angled triangles are triangles where at least one angle inside the triangle is an obtuse angle.

● Scalene triangles are triangles with no two sides equal. Scalene triangles also have no two angles equal.

● Isosceles triangles have two equal sides and two equal angles which are opposite to the equal sides.

● Equilateral triangles have all three sides and all three angles equal. Since the sum of the three angles of a
triangle is 180°, each angle of an equilateral triangle is 60°.

● Right angled triangle has one angle equal to a right angle (90°). The sum of the other two angles of a right
triangle is, therefore, 90°.

Relationship of sides to interior angles in a triangle


In a triangle:

1. The shortest side is always opposite the smallest interior angle


2. The longest side is always opposite the largest interior angle

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Practice Math

1. In ∆MNO, what is the value of x?

a. 12°
b. 18°
c. 15°
d. 9°
e. 10°

2. In the diagram, ∆GHI is an equilateral triangle.


Find out ∠EMJ?

a. 60⁰
b. 45⁰
c. 75⁰
d. 30⁰
e. None of these

3. In the ∆ABC, ∠OBC = ½ ∠ABC and ∠OCB = ½ ∠ACB. If ∠BAC = 70⁰, then determine the value of ∠BOC in
degrees?

a. 135°
b. 85°
c. 105°
d. 100°
e. 125°

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4. In the figure, ∠BCA = 60⁰. What is the value of ∠ABD?

a. 50⁰
b. 70⁰
c. 60⁰
d. 80⁰
e. 90⁰

5. In ∆XYZ, M and N are points on XZ and YZ respectively such that MN is the perpendicular
bisector of YZ. If XM = XY and ∠XYZ = 90 , what is
∠XZY?

a. 60° b. 30° c. 55°


d. 45° e. 65°

6. PQR is a triangle. If S is a point in the plane of the triangle such that the perpendicular distance from S to the
three sides of the triangle are all equal, then there exist(s)

a. Just one such point S


b. Three such points S
c. Two such points S
d. Four such points S
e. None of the above

7. If the largest angle in a triangle is 70°, what is least possible value of the smallest angle of the triangle?

a. 69° b. 1° c. 40° d. 39° e. 41

8. What is the circumradius of a triangle whose sides are 7, 24 and 25 respectively?

a. 18 b. 12.5 c. 12 d. 14 e. None of these

9. What is the measure of the circumradius of a triangle whose sides are 9, 40 and 41?

a. 6 b. 4 c. 24.5 d. 20.5 e. None of these

10. The area of a triangle is 30 cm2. The perpendicular distance from one of the vertex to the opposite side is 5 cm.
what is the length of the largest possible side of the triangle?

a. 13 cm c. 6.5 cm c. 16 cm d. None of these e. Cannot be determined

Answers:
1.d 2.a 3.e 4.d 5.b
6.a 7.c 8.b 9.d 10. e

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Solutions:

1. 8x + 9x + 3x = 180
or, 20x = 180
or, x=9

So, option (d) is the correct answer

2. ∠GHI = ∠GMF [Corresponding angle]


or, ∠GHI = ∠EMJ [Vertically opposite angle]
or, 60⁰ = ∠EMJ [Equilateral triangle]

So, option (a) is the correct answer

3. In the ∆OBC
∠BOC+∠OCB+∠OBC = 180⁰
Since, ∠OBC = ½ ∠ABC and ∠OCB = ½ ∠ACB
Therefore, ∠BOC + ½ ∠ACB + ½ ∠ABC = 180⁰
or, ∠BOC + ½(∠ACB + ∠ABC) = 180⁰
or, ∠BOC + ½(180⁰ - ∠BAC) = 180⁰ [∠ACB + ∠ABC + ∠BAC = 180⁰]
or, ∠BOC + ½(180⁰ -70⁰) = 180⁰ [∠BAC = 70⁰]
or, ∠BOC + ½(110⁰) = 180⁰
or, ∠BOC + 55⁰ = 180⁰
or, ∠BOC = 125⁰

So, option (e) is the correct answer

4. ∠ABD + ∠DBC = 90⁰ …………….(i)


Now, in triangle ∆BDC,
∠DBC + ∠BCD + ∠CDB = 180⁰
or, ∠DBC + ∠BCA + ∠CDB = 180⁰
or, ∠DBC + 60⁰ + 90⁰ = 180⁰ [∠BCD = ∠BCA = 60⁰; ∠CDB = 90⁰]
or, ∠DBC = 30⁰ ……………(ii)

(i)=> ∠ABD + ∠DBC = 90⁰


or, ∠ABD + 30⁰ = 90⁰ [(ii)]
or, ∠ABD = 60⁰

So, option (d) is the correct answer

5. MN || XY [both MN and XY form the same angle with the line YZ]
Since, MN is a bisector, ZN =NY
Therefore, ZM = MX

[If we connect the middle points of two of the three sides of a triangle, the resulting line will be parallel to the
third line. Therefore, if we have a line such that it is parallel to one side and intersects another at the middle
then the said line will intersection the other line at the middle point as well.]

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Therefore, MZ = XM = XY [XM = XY] ………….(i)
Since, MN intersects YZ and XZ at their respective middle points, MN will be parallel to XY and be half as much
in length.
1
MN = XY
2
1 1
or, MN = XY = MZ [As per (1), XY = MZ]
2 2
We now have a right angled triangle where one side is half the hypotenuse. In such cases, the angle opposite to
the said side will be 30° and the other two will be 90° and 60°. The line MN is half of MZ and the angle opposite
to MN is ∠MZN and therefore, ∠MZN = ∠XZY = 30°

So, option (b) is the correct answer

6. Keep this in mind. This is a theorem.

Option (a) is the correct answer

7. Sum of three angles = 180°


70° + The smallest angle + the other angle = 180°
Or, The smallest angle + The other angle = 110°
Now, if the other angle = x
Then, the smallest angle = 110°-x

Since, we have to find the smallest possible value of an angle in the triangle, the value of x has to be maximum.
Since the largest angle is 70°, the highest possible value of x too is 70° since any greater a value of x would
make that value the largest angle. Now since the acceptable (largest possible) value of x is 70°,

Smallest angle = 110° - x


or, the smallest angle = 110° - 70°
or, the smallest angle = 40°

So, option (c) is the correct answer

8. 7, 24 and 25 form one of the many Pythagorean triplets (Pythagorean triplets are integer solutions to the
Pythagoras’ theorem). Therefore, the triangle is a right-angled triangle. For a right-angled triangle, the
circumradius is always half its hypotenuse. Therefore, in this case, the circumradius = 25/2 = 12.5
In case of non-Pythagorean triplets (sides a, b and c), use the formula,
𝑎𝑏𝑐
Circumradius, r = [∆ 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒]
4∆

So, option (b) is the correct answer

9. 9, 40 and 41 form one of the many Pythagorean triplets (Pythagorean triplets are integer solutions to the
Pythagoras’ theorem). Therefore, the triangle is a right-angled triangle. For a right-angled triangle, the
circumradius is always half its hypotenuse. Therefore, in this case, the circumradius = 41/2 = 20.5
In case of non-Pythagorean triplets (sides a, b and c), use the formula,
𝑎𝑏𝑐
Circumradius, r = 4∆

[Note: A Pythagorean triple consists of three positive integers a, b, and c, such that a² + b² = c² where c> a, b]

So, option (d) is the correct answer

10. The height of the triangle is 5 cm. so the length of the base = 12 cm
If the triangle is a right angled triangle, we can determine the length of the hypotenuse. Which is 13 cm
But if the triangle is an obtuse angled triangle, then there is no way to determine the length of the two sides
other than the base.

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So, option (e) is the correct answer

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Type 3: Right Angled Triangles (Pythagorean Triplets)

The Pythagorean triplet is a shortcut formula taken from the Pythagorean theorem, where all three side lengths of a
right-angle triangle are integers and satisfy a + b = c .
2 2 2

The largest number signifies the hypotenuse, where the other two denote base and height.

The most common example for a triplet is (3, 4, 5), where 5 is the length of the hypotenuse and 3 & 4 are the base and
height and 32 + 42 = 52.

It is called a 3-4-5 triangle.

The following and the multiple of the following are common


Pythagorean Triples:
(3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), (7, 24, 25), (8, 15, 17), (9, 40, 41),
(11, 60, 61), (20, 21, 29)

Some certain angle sets also follow the Pythagorean Theorem. They are:
i.45°, 45°, 90°; Opposite sides are at a ratio of (1, 1, √2)
ii.30°, 60°, 90°; Opposite sides are at a ratio of (1, √3, 2),

Practice Math

1. ∆ABC is a right-angled triangle. Side BC = 7 cm. What is the


value of side AC?

a. 12 cm
b. 13 cm
c. 14 cm
d. 15 cm
d. 16 cm

2. In the ∆ABC, what is the value of x?

a. 9
b. 14
c. 6
d. 10
e. 16

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3. Find the value of x

a. 12 cm
b. 13 cm
c. 25 cm
d. 10 cm
e. 16 cm

4. Starting from a point X, a man travels 4√2 kilometers north-east and reaches a point Y. Then he travels 4
kilometers north and reaches a point Z. Then he travels 8√2 kilometers north-east and reaches the point V. what
is the distance from point X to point V?

a. 12 cm b. 16 cm c. 20 cm d. 24 cm e. 28 cm

5. The figure represents the starting position (AB) and the finishing position (CD) of a ladder as it slips. The ladder
is leaning against a vertical wall. AC = x, OC = 4AC, BD = 2AC and OB = 5 m. find the length of the ladder.

a. 26 cm
b. 27.5 cm
c. 18 cm
d. 9.1 cm
e. None of these

6. The upper end of the pole PR, slides down 17 m to a point on the wall, X. Calculate YR, the distance the lower
end of the pole has slid away from its original position R. (PQ = 24 m and RQ = 7 m).

a. 16 m
b. 12 m
c. 13 m
d. 17 m
e. none of these

7. The perimeter of a right-angled triangle is 60 cm. its hypotenuse is 25 cm. find the area of the triangle.

a. 150 cm2
b. 225 cm2
c. 300 cm2
d. 440 cm2
e. None of these

Answers:
1. c 2. e 3. e 4. c 5. e
6. d 7. a

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Solutions:
1. ∠ACB= 60º, ∠BAC= 30º, so BC is the smallest side.
𝑠 𝑠 √3
The sides in a 30°, 60°, 90° triangle are , , s. Where s is the hypotenuse and s/2 is the smallest side.
2 2
So, AC= 2*BC = 14 cm

So, option (c) is the correct answer

2. X2 + (x-4)2 = (x+4)2
X2 = (x+4+x-4) (x+4-x+4)
X2 = 2x*8
x = 16

So, option (e) is the correct answer

3. Check for Pythagorean triple:


Get the ratio of the two given sides:
12 : 20 = 3 : 5 ( divide by 4 )
From the ratio, we know that it is a Pythagorean triple.
So, x = 4 × 4 = 16 cm

So, option (e) is the correct answer

4. Traveling north-east means travelling in the 45° angle direction. For a right-angled triangle
whose angles are in the ratio of 45°, 45°, 90°, opposite sides are in the ratio of (1,
1, √2). So, traveling 𝑥√2 km north-east is equivalent to travelling 𝑥 km to the east and then 𝑥 km to the
north.
So, equivalent distance traveled towards the east = 4+8 km = 12 km
And equivalent distance traveled north = 4+4+8 = 16 km
So, the distance between point x and point V is √122 + 162 = 20 km

So, option (c) is the correct answer

5. The length of the ladder = AB = CD


OA2 + OB2 = AB2
OD2 + OC2 = CD2
Therefore,
(5x)2 + 52 = (5 + 2x)2 + (4x)2
Or, 25x2 + 25 = 25 + 20x + 4x2 + 16x2
Or, x=4
Now, the length of OA = 5x = 20 m
The length of OB = 5 m
So, AB = √202 + 52 = 20.61 m

So, option (e) is the correct answer

6. The length of the pole = √242 + 72 = 25


Therefore, YQ = √252 − 72 = 24
So, RQ = 24 – 7 = 17

So, option (d) is the correct answer

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7. The length of the hypotenuse is 25 cm. So, the sum of the other two sides is 35 cm.
Let the height of the triangle is X
So, the breadth of the triangle is (35 – X)
Therefore,
X2 + (35 – X)2 = 252
Or, X2 + 1225 – 70X + X2 = 625
Or, 2X2 – 70X + 600 = 0
Or, X2 – 35X + 300 = 0
Or, X2 – 15X – 20X + 300 = 0
Or, (X – 15) (X – 20) = 0
Or, X = 15 Or, X = 20

Therefore, the area of the triangle 0.5*15*20 = 150 cm 2

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Type 4: Area and perimeter of triangles

Practice Math

1. The area of an equilateral triangle is 48√3. What is the perimeter of the triangle?

a. 21√3 b. 28 c. 18 d. 24√3 e. None of these

2. In the figure, AC = 10 units and AB = CD = 6 units. What is the ratio of the area of
∆ABD and area of ∆ABC?

a. 1:4
b. 2:3
c. 3:4
d. 1:2
e. None of these

3. Areas of ∆ABC and ∆ADE are 16 sq. cm and 9 sq. cm. DE ll BC and ∆AEF is an equilateral
triangle. What is the ratio of CE and EF?

a. 2:5
b. 7:4
c. 8:3
d. 1:3
e. Cannot be determined

4. The sum of all the three sides of an equilateral triangle is 72. Find the height of this triangle.

a. 12.4 cm b. 4.8 cm c. 3.6 cm d. 14.4 cm e. 20.78 cm

5. If the perimeters of an equilateral triangle and a square are the same, then what is the ratio of the area of the
square to the area of the equilateral triangle?

a. √3:4 b. 2:1 c. 3:4 d. 4: √3 e. None of these

6. If the area of triangle ABC is 1/4 (a2+b2) where a and b are the lengths of two sides, find the angles of the
triangle.

a. 30°, 60°, 90°


b. 60°, 60°, 60°
c. 90° , 45°, 45°
d. 45° , 60°, 45°
e. None of these

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7. The sum of three sides of an isosceles triangle equals 14m; the ratio of lateral side to the base is 5 : 4. Find the
area of the triangle in square meters.

a. 4√21 m2 b. 3√3 m2 c. 4√3 m2 d. 5√3 m2 e. 2√21m2

8. The length of the three sides of a triangle is in the ratio of 5:12:13. The difference between largest side of this
triangle and the smallest side of this triangle is 1.6 centimeters. Find the area of the triangle?

a. 2.4 cm2 b. 30 cm2 c. 1.2 cm2 d. 1.8 cm2 e. 1.5 cm2

9. The three side of a triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm respectively, then its area is:

a. 6 sq.cm b. 7 sq.cm c. 8 sq.cm d. 9 sq.cm e. 10 sq. cm

10. The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 12 cm. what is its altitude?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 2√3 d. 3√2 e. None of these

Answers:
1.d 2.a 3.d 4.e 5. e
6.a 7.e 8.c 9.a 10. c

Solution:

√3
1. The area of an equilateral triangle with the side “x” is = 𝑥 2 ∗ .
4
√3
Solving 𝑥2 ∗ = 48√3, we get x= 8√3. So the perimeter of the equilateral tringle is 3x=
4
3*(8√3) = 24√3

So, option (d) is the correct answer

2. AC2= AB2+ BC2


BC = √ (102 - 62)
BC = 8
So, BD = BC - CD = 8-6 =2

½∗𝐴𝐵∗ 𝐵𝐷 𝐵𝐷
∆ABD/∆ABC = = =2/8 = 1:4
½∗𝐴𝐵∗𝐵𝐶 𝐵𝐶

So, option (a) is the correct answer

3. In two similar triangles, the ratio of their areas is the square of the ratio of their sides.

∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 𝐴𝐶 2
=( ) =16/9
∆𝐴𝐷𝐸 𝐴𝐸

𝐴𝐶
or, = 4/3
𝐴𝐸

Again, AC = AE + CE
So, CE= 1

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CE: AE = 1:3,
CE: EF = 1:3, since AE = EF = AF

So, option (d) is the correct answer

4. 3*x = 72
x = 24
Now,
h = √(242- 122) = 20.78 cm

So, option (e) is the correct answer

5. Let, length of one side of the square be “a” and that of the triangle be x
4a= 3x
a = (3/4) x

Area of the square: area of the equilateral triangle


a2 : (√3/4) x2
(3/4)2: √3/4
9/4: √3
3√3: 4

So, option (e) is the correct answer

𝑠 𝑠√3
6. The sides in a (30° − 60° − 90°) triangle are , ,𝑠. where s is the hypotenuse and s/2 is the smallest side.
2 2
a2 +b2 = h2
b= h/2
area = ½ b*h
or, ½ (h/2) *h
or, ¼ *h2
or, ¼ *(a2 +b2)

So, option (a) is the correct answer

7. 2b+ a =14, b= lateral equal side, a= the base


2+ (a/b) = 14/b
2+ (4/5) = 14/b
b= 14/2.8 = 5, a= 4
Height of the triangle, h = √(5 2 - 22) = √21
So, area = 0.5*√21*4 = 2√21

So, option (e) is the correct answer

8. 13x- 5x = 1.6
8x = 1.6
x = 0.2
So the smallest side is 5*0.2 or, 1 cm, other side is 12* 0.2 or, 2.4 cm.
Since the sides of the triangle are Pythagorean triplets, the area is 0.5*1*2.4 or, 1.2 cm 2.

So, option (c) is the correct answer

9. Area of a triangle with three sides, a, b, c is


√{𝑠 (𝑠 − 𝑎) (𝑠 − 𝑏) (𝑠 − 𝑐)}, where, s = (a+ b+ c) /2 = 6
√(6 ∗ 3 ∗ 2 ∗ 1) = 6

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So, option (a) is the correct answer

10. The perimeter of the equilateral triangle = 12 cm


So, the length of one side = 4 cm
The height of the triangle = √42 − 22 = 2√3

So, option (c) is the correct answer

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Type 5: Congruency and similarity

Congruent Triangles:
Triangles are congruent when all corresponding sides and interior angles are congruent. The triangles will have the
same shape and size, but one may be a mirror image of the other.
Any triangle is defined by six measures (three sides, three angles). But you don't need to know all of them to show that
two triangles are congruent. Various groups of three will do. Triangles are congruent if:

● SSS (side side side)


All three corresponding sides are equal in length.
● SAS (side angle side)
A pair of corresponding sides and the included angle are equal.
● ASA (angle side angle)
A pair of corresponding angles and the included side are equal.
● AAS (angle angle side)
A pair of corresponding angles and a non-included side are equal.
● HL (hypotenuse leg of a right triangle)
Two right triangles are congruent if the hypotenuse and one leg are equal.

Similar Triangles

Triangles are similar if they have the same shape, but can be different sizes. (They are still similar even if one is rotated,
or one is a mirror image of the other).
Triangles are similar if they have the same shape, but not necessarily the same size. You can think of it as "zooming in"
or out making the triangle bigger or smaller, but keeping its basic shape. This means that all the corresponding angles
will be equal but the sides will not be. However, the ratio of each pair of corresponding sides will be equal.

Properties of Similar Triangles

● Corresponding angles are congruent (same measure)


So in the figure above, the angle P=P', Q=Q', and R=R'.

● Corresponding sides are all in the same proportion


Above, PQ is twice the length of P'Q'. Therefore, the other pairs of sides are also in that proportion. PR is twice
P'R' and RQ is twice R'Q'. Formally, in two similar triangles PQR and P'Q'R' :

PQ/P'Q' = PR/P'R' = RQ/R'Q'

Also, (area of PQR)/( area of P’Q’R’) = (PQ)2/(P’Q’)2 = (PR)2/(P'R')2 = (RQ)2/(R'Q')2

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Practice Math

1. In the figure, DE ll BC. If the area of triangle ADE is 4 times that of the trapezium
BDEC. What is the ratio of AE to AC?

a. 1:4
b. 1:√3
c. 2:1
d. 5:2
e. 2:√5

2. In the figure, ∠BAD = ∠ECD. Also, DE = 8, CD = 6 and


AB = 7.5. What is the length of AD?

a. 10
b. 15
c. 12.5
d. 15
e. 14

3. In the figure, the ratio of AD to DE is 2:1. AB = 8 and BE = 9. BC =?

a. 10
b. 12
c. 14
d. 16
e. None of these

4. In the figure, FE and JH are parallel. what is the area of the triangle FGE?

a. 6 m2
b. 8 m2
c. 10 m2
b. 12 m2
e. None of these

5. In the figure, STU is a right-angled triangle, SU = 10 cm, TU = 6 cm, angle STU = UVT = 90°. Find the length of
SV.

a. 4.8 cm
b. 3.6 cm
c. 6.4 cm
d. 8.4 cm
e. None of these

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6. In WXY, WY = 24 m and ∠Y = 90°, PQ is perpendicular to YX, WP = 13 m and PX = 12 m. Find the length of PQ.

a. 9.5 m
b. 6.2 m
c. 11.52 m
d. 12.5 m
e. None of these

7. The perimeters of two similar triangles ABC and PQR are 40 cm and 60 cm respectively. if PQ = 12 cm, find
∆𝐴𝐵𝐶
∆𝑃𝑄𝑅

a. 0.22 b. 0.33 c. 0.44 d. 0.55 e. None of these

Answers:
1.e 2.a 3. a 4. a 5. c
6.c 7.c

Solution:

1. ∆ABC = ∆ADE+ BCDE


∆ABC = ∆ADE+ (∆ADE/4)
5
∆ABC/∆ADE =1+(1/4)=
4
In two similar triangles, the ratio of their areas is the square of the ratio of their sides.
𝐴𝐶 5
( )2=
𝐴𝐸 4
So, AE: AC = 2: √5

So, option (e) is the correct answer

𝐴𝐵 𝐵𝐷
2. =
𝐶𝐷 𝐷𝐸

7.5 𝐵𝐷
=
6 8

BD= 10

So, option (a) is the correct answer


3. Triangles ADC and ABE are similar triangles. The ratio of BE to AC is 3:2
So, BE : AC = 3 : 2
AC = 6
Therefore, BC = √82 + 62 = 10

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So, option (a) is the right answer

4. Triangle FGE and triangle GJH are similar triangles


JG/GE = JH/FE
Or, 6/4 = 7.5/FE
Or, FE = 5
Since FGE is a right-angle triangle, FE = √52 − 42 = 3
Therefore, the area of the triangle = 0.5*3*4 = 6 m2

So, option (a) is the correct answer

5. ST = √102 − 62 = 8
Triangles SUT and SVT are similar.
SV/ST = ST/SU
Or, SV = 8*8/10 = 6.4

So, option (c) is the correct answer

6. ∆𝑃𝑄𝑋 And ∆𝑊𝑌𝑋 are similar triangles.


𝑃𝑄 𝑃𝑋
Therefore, =
𝑊𝑌 𝑊𝑋
12
Or, PQ = × 24 = 11.52
25

So, option (c) is the correct answer

7. The ratio of the perimeters of triangles ABC and PQR is 40/60 = 2/3
So, the length of side of the triangle ABC which is corresponding to PQ is equal to 8 cm
∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 82
Therefore, = = 0.44
∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 122

So, option (c) is the correct answer

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Type 6: Quadrilaterals

Quadrilaterals are polygons with 4 sides. The two kinds of quadrilaterals that we will need to deal with most are
parallelograms and trapezoids.

Practice Math

1. In the figure, which angle is the greatest?

a. ∠A
b. ∠B
c. ∠C
d. ∠D
e. Cannot be determined

2. The perimeter of a quadrilateral is 48 units. What is the maximum possible area of the quadrilateral?

a. 144 b. 128 c. 80 d. 140 e. Cannot be determined

3. The area of a quadrilateral is 256 sq. units. What is the minimum possible perimeter of the quadrilateral?

a. 260 b. 64 c. 80 d. 136 e. Cannot be determined

Answers:
1.b 2.a 3.b

Solution:

1. Here, the greatest side is CD=6. The angle opposite to side CD is angle B. The angle opposite to the greatest
side is the greatest angle. Therefore, B is the greatest angle.

So, option (b) is the correct answer

2. The maximum possible area of a quadrilateral is formed when it is a square. If the given quadrilateral is a square,
then the length of one side of the square is (48/4) or 12 units.
So, the area of the square is 122 sq. units or 144 sq. units.

So, the correct answer is option (a) 144.

3. For a given quadrilateral the perimeter is minimized if it is a square. So considering


the given quadrilateral to be a square, the length of one side is √256 units or 16 units.
So, the required minimum perimeter is 4*16 units or 64 units.

So, the correct answer is option (b) 64.

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Type 7: Parallelograms

Parallelograms: They are four-sided flat shapes whose opposite sides are both equal and parallel to each other. A
parallelogram has two pairs of opposite sides that are parallel and equal in length. A parallelogram also has two pairs
of opposite angles that are also equal to each other. The adjacent angles form supplementary angles that add up to
180 degrees. The diagonals of a parallelogram will always bisect each other or meet at exactly the midpoint of each
diagonal.

Practice Math

1. In parallelogram ABCD, which is true?

a. AB > AD
b. AB < AD
c. CD > AB
d. CD < BC
e. None of these

2. In the figure, areas of parallelogram AFCE an EBFD are 10 and 12 respectively. What is the area of rectangle
ABCD?
a. 16
b. 18
c. 22
d. 28
e.32

3. In the parallelogram ABCD, what is the value of ∠ADC?

a. 60⁰
b. 100⁰
c. 75⁰
d. 80⁰
e. None of these

4. In the parallelogram ABCD, CD = 7. F is the midpoint of EB. What is the ratio of the area of the shaded region to
the area of the parallelogram?

a. 1/7 b. 1/6 c. 2/5 d. 1/5 e. 2/7

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5. In parallelogram ABCD, DE = 3 and CE = 2. What is the ratio of the shaded region to the area of the parallelogram?

a. 1/7 b. 1/10 c. 1/8 d. 1/5 e. None of these

In the triangle ODC, the line OE divides the base in the ratio 3:2. So the ratio of the areas of triangles ODE and
OCE is 3:2.
Again, we know that the diagonals of a parallelogram divide it into four triangles of equal areas. So, area of
triangle ODC to the area of the parallelogram ABCD is 1:4.
Let us consider, the area of triangle ODC to be 5 sq. units. So, the area of triangle OCE is 2 sq. units and area of
the parallelogram is 20 sq. units.
Therefore, the required ratio is 2:20 or 1:10.

So, the correct answer is option (b) 1/10.

Answers:
1.a 2.c 3.b 4.a 5.b

Solution:

1. The opposite side of the angle with 28o = AD


The opposite side of the angle with 34o = CD
We know, the opposite side of the greater angle is the greater side.
So, CD > AD. In parallelogram ABCD, CD = AB.
Therefore, AB > AD

So, option (a) is the correct answer

2. Area of Parallelogram AFCE = Height AD x Base AE = 10


Area of Parallelogram EBFD = Height AD x Base BE = 12
Area of Rectangle ABCD = Side AD and Side AB
Now, AD x AE + AD x BE = 10+12
or, AD (AE+BE) = 22
or, AD x AB = 22

So, option (c) is the correct answer

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3. In triangle ACD, ∠A = 38o ∠C = 42o
The sum of all three angles = 180o
Angle D = (180 – 38 – 42) o = 100o

So, option (b) is the correct answer

4. Since CD = 7, AB = 7.
Now, in right angled triangle ADE, AD = 5 and AE = 4. Therefore, DE = 3. So, CE = 4.
So, area of triangle BEC = 0.5 * 4 * 4 = 8 sq. units.
And, area of triangle BFC = 4 sq. units (since CF divides the triangle BEC into two equal parts as F is midpoint
of BE).
Area of parallelogram ABCD = 7*4 sq. units = 28 sq. units.
So, the required ratio = 4/28 = 1/7.

So, the correct option is (a) 1/7.

5. In the triangle ODC, the line OE divides the base in the ratio 3:2. So the ratio of the areas of triangles ODE and
OCE is 3:2.
Again, we know that the diagonals of a parallelogram divide it into four triangles of equal areas. So, area of
triangle ODC to the area of the parallelogram ABCD is 1:4.
Let us consider, the area of triangle ODC to be 5 sq. units. So, the area of triangle OCE is 2 sq. units and area of
the parallelogram is 20 sq. units.
Therefore, the required ratio is 2:20 or 1:10.

So, the correct answer is option (b) 1/10.

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Type 8: Rectangles

Rectangles are four-sided flat shapes with four right angles. The first property of rectangles is that they have four 90-
degree angles. The second property is that the opposite sides of a rectangle are parallel and equal in length to each
other. Basically, a parallelogram whose all four angles are equal to each other and measures 90 degrees (a right angle)
is called a rectangle. The diagonals of a rectangle will always bisect each other or meet at exactly the midpoint of each
diagonal

Practice Math

1. In the rectangle ABCD, BC = 12, AC = 15. What is the perimeter of ABCD?

a. 60
b. 48
c. 56
d. 42
e. 38

2. Old McDonald built a fence around his rectangular farm that covered 3 sides of the farm. Only the 12 ft. wide
entrance was not covered. If the area of the farm is 156 sq. ft., what was the length of the fence?

a. 38 b. 52 c. 26 d. 30 e. 48

3. In the rectangle ABCD, the perimeter is 48. What is the maximum possible area of ABCD?

a. 256 b. 164 c. 128 d. 144 e. Cannot be determined

4. In rectangle ABCD, the perimeter is three times the side AB. If AB = 10, then what is the area of the rectangle?

a. 40 b. 25 c. 82 d. 68 e. 50

5. In the figure, ABCD is rectangle. E is the midpoint of CD.


Area of ∆AEC is 15. What is the area of ABCD?

a. 75
b. 60
c. 48
d. 55
e. 105

6. The sides of a rectangular floor are 12 feet and 20 feet respectively. A rectangular caret when placed on the
floor exposes 5 feet wide strip of floor on each side. What is the area of the carpet?

a. 10 ft.2 b. 15 ft.2 c. 20 ft.2 d. 25 ft.2 e. None of these

7. The perimeter of a rectangle is 50 feet and its area is 150 sq. feet. Find the length L, such that L > W.

a. 12 b. 20 c. 15 d. 25 e. 10

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8. The diagonal d of a rectangle has a length of 100 feet and its length y is twice its width x (see figure below).
Find its area.

a. 2500 b. 3000 c. 3500 d. 4000 e. Cannot be determined

9. The sides (other than the hypotenuse) of a right triangle are in the ratio of 3:4. A rectangle is described ion its
hypotenuse, the hypotenuse being the longer side of the rectangle. The breadth of the rectangle is 4/5 of its
length. Find the shortest side of the right triangle if the perimeter of the rectangle is 180 cm.

a. 10 cm b. 15 cm c. 20 cm d. 25 cm e. 30 cm

10. Length and breadth of a rectangular park is in ratio 5:2. A 2.5 m path moves around outside of the park has an
area of 305 sq. m. Find the area of the park.

a. 540 b. 640 c. 700 d. 850 e. None of these

11. Two crossroads, each 2 m wide, run at right angles through the centre of a rectangular park of length 64 m and
breadth 38 m, such that each is parallel to one of the sides of the rectangle. Find the area of the remaining part
of the park.

a. 2232 b. 2540 c. 1680 d. 2520 e. None of these

Answers:
1.d 2.a 3.d 4.e 5.b
6.c 7.c 8.e 9.d 10.b
11. a

Solution:

1. In rectangle ABCD, BC = AD = 12.


In triangle ABC, BC = 12, AC = 15. ABC is a right-angled triangle.
Here, AB2 = AC2 – BC2
AB2 = 81
Therefore, AB = 9
Therefore perimeter= 2 (AB + BC) = 2 (9+12) = 42

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So, option (d) is the correct answer

2. Area of the farm = 156 sq. ft. One side = 12 ft.


Length of another side = 156/12 = 13 ft.
So, total length of the fence = 13 + 12 + 13 = 38 ft

So, option (a) is the correct answer

3. Perimeter = 48. So, the sum of the two sides = 48/2 = 24


The highest possible area will be 144 if the sides are 12 and 12 respectively.

So, option (d) is the correct answer

4. Perimeter of rectangle ABCD = 2 (AB+BC) = 3 x 10


or, AB + BC = 15
or, BC = 15 – 10 = 5
Therefore, area = 5 x 10 = 50

So, option (e) is the correct answer

5. Here, CE = ED = 5. Therefore, CD= 10


In triangle AEC, the height = AD and the base = CE. Now, area = ½ * AD * CE = 15
Or, AD = (15*2)/5 = 6
Therefore, area of rectangle ABCD = AD x CD = 6 * 10 = 60

So, option (b) is the correct answer

6. The length of both the sides decrease and become, (20 – 2*5)
or 10 and (12 – 2*5) or 2 ft respectively.
Area of the carpet = 10*2 = 20 ft2 5 ft

So, option (c) is the correct answer

7. There is only one combination of length and breadth for which the area is 150 sq. feet and perimeter is 50 feet.
And the combination is length 15 feet and breadth 10 feet.

Alternative method,
Let length be x and breadth be y.
A/Q,
2 (x + y) = 50 and xy = 150

Solving for these two we will get two values of x, 15 and 10. We consider 15 to be the value because given that
L > W.

So, the correct answer is option (c) 15.

8. Since the length is twice the width of the rectangle, so y = 2x.


Now, according to the question,
1002 = (2x)2 + x2
Or, 10000 = 5x2
Or, x2 = 2000

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So, the area of the rectangle is x*2x = 2x2 = 2000*2 = 4000

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

9. Let the smallest side of the triangle be 3x.


Therefore, the hypotenuse of the triangle is 5x and the other side is 4x. (Pythagorean triplets).
So, the length of the rectangle is 5x. Therefore, the width is (4/5) * 5x = 4x.
According to the question,
2 (5x + 4x) = 180
Or, 18x = 180
Or, x = 10

So, length of the smallest side of the triangle is 3x = 30 cm.

So, option (e) is the correct answer.

10. Let the length of the park be 5x and width be 2x.


So, the area of the park is 10x2. And area of the park with the road is (5x + 5) (2x + 5).
According to the question,
(5x + 5) (2x + 5) – 10x2 = 305
Or, 10x2 + 25x + 10x +25 – 10x2 = 305
Or, 35x = 280
Or, x=8
Therefore, area of the park is 10x2 = 10 * 64 = 640

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

11. We can consider the layout of the park to be as follows:

So, we can see that the park can be considered to be divided into four similar parts each with dimensions 31*18.
So, the total area of the park without the area of the road is 4*31*18 = 2232

So, option (a) is the correct answer.

Type 9: Squares

Squares are quadrilaterals whose sides are all the same size and whose angles are all right angles measuring 90
degrees. So, if all the sides of a rectangle become equal to each other, the rectangle becomes a square.

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Practice Math:

1. In the figure, ABCD is a square. What is its area?

a. 40
b. 50
c. 60
d. 45
e. 64

2. Each side of a square is increased 20%. What is the corresponding change in area?

a. 25% b. 35% c. 44% d. 50% e. 64%

3. The length of the diagonal of a square was multiplied by √2. As a result:

a. The area of the square got multiplied by √2


b. The area of the square got multiplied by 2
c. Each side of the square got multiplied by 2
d. The area of the square increased by √2
e. None of these

4. A room is to be filled with square shaped tiles with each side measuring 4 inches. Each file costs Tk 3. The
dimension of the room is 8 ft. by 12 ft. What is the total cost of tiles required to cover the room?

a. 3467 b. 4250 c. 2592 d. 1896 e. 2450

5. A square with area 64 m2 has the same perimeter as a rectangle with a side of 5 meters. What is the area of the
rectangle?

a. 65 b. 55 c. 75 d. 60 e. 50

6. In square ABCD, E and F are midpoints of AB and BC respectively. What


is the area of ∆DEF?

a. 10.5
b. 13
c. 21.5
d. 17
e. 13.5

Answers:
1.b 2.c 3.b 4.c 5.b
6.e

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Solutions:
1. Here, Diagonal = √2a = 10
Therefore, a = 10/√2 = 5√2
Therefore, area = (5√2)2 = 50

So, option (b) is the correct answer

2. Let, the length of a side of a square be 1. As one side is increased by 20%, the side becomes 1.2
Area of the square before increase = 1*1 = 1
Area of the square after increase = 1.20*1.20 = 1.44
Change in area = (1.44 – 1.0) = 0.44 = 44%

So, option (c) is the correct answer

3. Area of square = (Diagonal)2/2


If a diagonal is increased by √2. Then area is increased by = (√2) 2 = 2

So, option (b) is the correct answer

4. Area of the room = 8 ft x 12 ft = 96 sq. ft.


Length of each tile = 4 in = 1/3 ft
Area of the tile = (1/3) * (1/3) = 1/9 sq. ft
Therefore, number of files required = 96/(1/9) = 96*9 = 864
Cost of each tile = Tk 864*3 = Tk 2592

So, option (c) is the correct answer

5. Area of the square = 64 sq. m


Length of each side = 8 m
Perimeter of square = 4*8 = 32m
A/Q
2 (Length x Breadth) = 32
Or, Length + 5 = 16
Or, Length = 11 m
Therefore, area of the rectangle = 11*5 =55 sq. m

So, option (b) is the correct answer

6. AE=BE=3, BF=CF=3
The area of square ABCD = 62 = 36
Area of triangle AED = ½ * 6 * 3 =9
Area of triangle DCF = ½ * 6 * 3 = 9
Area of triangle BEF = ½ * 3 * 3 = 4.5
Therefore, area of triangle DEF = 36 – 9 – 9 – 4.5 = 13.5

So, option (e) is the correct answer

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Type 10: Trapezium

Practice Math
1. The parallel sides of a trapezium are 20 cm and 10 cm. Its nonparallel sides are both equal, each being 13 cm.
Find the area of the trapezium.

a. 180 cm² b. 488 cm² c. 256 cm² d. 324 cm² e. Cannot be determined

2. The perimeter of an isosceles trapezium is 176 cm and the parallel sides are 48 cm and 78 cm respectively.
Find the length of the diagonal d.

a. 52 cm b. 60 cm c. 64 cm d. 72 cm e. Cannot be determined

3. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB is parallel to CD. AB = 50 cm and CD = 70 cm. If P and Q are the midpoints of
AD and BC respectively. What is the length of PQ?

a. 55 cm b. 60 cm c. 65 cm d. 68 cm e. None of these

4. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB is parallel to CD. AB = 70 cm and CD = 50 cm. If P and Q are the midpoints of
AD and BC respectively. What is the ratio of the area of PQDC to the area of ABQP?

a. 7/9 b. 8/9 c. 5/7 d. 11/13 e. Cannot be determined

Answers:
1. a 2. 3.a 4.b 5.d

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Solution:
1. If the non-parallel sides of a trapezium are equal then they project equal portions from both sides on the base.
So, the trapezium should look like this:

Therefore, the height of the trapezium is 12 cm (Pythagorean triplets).


Hence, the area of the trapezium is 0.5 * (10 + 20) * 12 = 180

So, option (a) is the correct option.

2. The length of the non-parallel sides is (176-48-78)/2 or 25 cm each. So, the length of each side can be calculated
as follows:

Therefore, the length of diagonal d is √(48 2 + 202) or 52 cm.

So, the correct answer is option (a) 52 cm.

3. Join B with p and extend it to G to meet with CD. In triangle PCD and triangle APG

Angle DPC = angle GPA


Angle PDC = angle AGP
So, the two triangles are congruent as PC = AP.
So, CD = AG and PD = PG
In triangle BGD
P is the midpoint of GD
Q is the midpoint BD
So, we can conclude that PQ || AB and PQ = 0.5 BG
Therefore, PQ = 0.5 (AB + CD) = 0.5 (70 + 50) = 60

So, the correct answer is option (b) 60 cm.

4. In triangle ADB, P is the midpoint of side AD. A line drawn through the midpoint of side AD parallel to base AB
meets opposite side BD at R, so that DR = RB and PR = 0.5 AB.

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Hence, PR = 35 cm.

Similarly, we can determine QR = 25 cm.


Hence, PQ = PR + QR = 60 cm
Since P and Q are the mid points of non-parallel sides of the trapezium, distance between parallel lines CD and
PQ is same as distance between parallel lines PA and AB.
Let, h be the distance.
So, area of trapezium DCQP = 0.5 * h * (60 + 50) = 55h
And area of trapezium ABQP = 0.5 * h * (60 + 70) = 65h
So, the require ratio = 55h/65h = 11/13

So, the correct answer is option (d) 11/13

Type 11: Polygons

A polygon is a closed figure where the sides are all line segments. Each side must intersect exactly two other sides but
only at their endpoints. The sides must be non-collinear and have a common endpoint.

For a polygon with ‘n’ sides, the sum of all internal angles = (n-2) * 180
For a regular polygon, i.e. polygon whose all sides are equal, each interior angle measures = {(n-2)*180}/n

Practice Math

1. If a regular polygon has each of its angles equal to three-fifth of two right angles, then the number of sides is:

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 e. 8

2. The sum of all interior angles of a regular polygon is twice the sum of all the exterior angles. The number of
sides of the polygon is:

a. 10 b. 8 c. 12 d. 6 e. 9

3. ABCDEFGH is a regular octagon. What is the value of ∠HAF?

a. 70⁰
b. 45⁰
c. 90⁰
d. 25⁰
e. None of these

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4. ABCDEF is a regular hexagon where each side is equal to 8 cm.
What is the area of ∆ABE?

a. 32√3
b. 15√2
c. 9
d. 18
e. 16√3

5. Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 120 degrees greater than each exterior angle. How many sides are
there in the polygon?

a. 6 b. 8 c. 12 d. 13 e. 15

6. Find the number of triangles in an octagon.

a. 326 b. 120 c. 56 d. 128 e. Cannot be determined

7. What is the measure of in circum-radius of the triangle whose sides are 5, 12 and 13?

a. 12.5 b. 3 c. 6.5 d. 10.5 e. None of these

8. If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon measures up to 144° degrees, how many sides does the
polygon have?

a. 10 sides b. 8 sides c. 12 sides d. 9 sides e. 15 sides

9. A piece of land shaped like a regular hexagon was divided equally among two brother. If the length of each side
of the original piece of land was 4 miles, what was the area of and each brother received?
a. 12√3
b. 16
c. 24
d. 24√3
e. None of these

Answers:
1.c 2.d 3.b 4.a 5.c
6.c 7.c 8.a 9.a

Solutions:

1. Sum of interior angles = 180⁰ × (n – 2)


or, n×(one interior angle) = 180⁰ × (n – 2)

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3
or, n×( ×2×90⁰) = 180⁰×(n – 2)
5
or, n×108⁰ = 180⁰×(n – 2)
or, n×108⁰ = 180⁰×n – 180⁰×2
or, 72⁰ × n = 360⁰
or, n=5

So, option (c) is the correct answer

2. Let, the number of sides of the polygon be n and, the interior angle be x. Now,
Exterior angle = 180⁰ - interior angle
Or, exterior angle = 180⁰ - x
Since, sum of all interior angles = 2× sum of all exterior angles
nx = n×2×(180⁰ - x)
or, x = 2×(180⁰ - x)
or, x = 360⁰ - 2x
or, 3x = 360⁰
or, x = 120⁰

Now, sum of all interior angles = 180⁰×(n – 2)


or, nx = 180⁰×(n – 2)
or, n×120⁰ = 180⁰×(n – 2) [Since, x = 120⁰]
or, n × 120⁰ = 180⁰ × n – 360⁰
or, n × 60⁰ = 360⁰
or, n=6

So, option (d) is the correct answer

3. n(interior angle) = 180⁰(n-2)


or, 8(interior angle) = 180⁰×8 - 360⁰
or, interior angle = 180⁰ - 45⁰
or, interior angle = 135⁰
or, ∠HAB = 135⁰
or, ∠HAF + ∠FAB = 135⁰
or, ∠HAF + 90⁰ = 135⁰ [∠FAB = 90⁰]
or, ∠HAF = 45⁰

So, option (b) is the correct answer

4. BE = 16cm [The length of a diagonal of a regular hexagon is equal to two times the length of its side]
According to Pythagoras’ theorem,

𝐴𝐵2 + 𝐴𝐸 2 = 𝐵𝐸 2
or, 82 + 𝐴𝐸 2 = 162
or, 𝐴𝐸 2 = 192
or, 𝐴𝐸 = 8√3

1
Therefore, Area = ×AE×AE
2
1
or, Area = ×8×8√3
2
or, Area = 32√3

So, Option (a) is the correct answer

5. Let interior angle be, x


Therefore, exterior angle = 180⁰ - x
Therefore, x = 120⁰ + 180⁰ - x

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or, 2x = 300⁰
or, x = 150⁰
or, nx = 180⁰ (n – 2) [Sum of all interior angles = 180⁰(n-2). Or, nx = 180⁰(n-2) where, n = number of sides,
x = one interior angle]
or, n(150⁰) = 180⁰ (n –2)
or, n(150⁰) = 180⁰×n - 360⁰
or, 30⁰ × n = 360⁰
or, n = 12

So, option (c) is the correct answer

6. There are 8 vertices to choose from and we only need 3 vertices to form a triangle. Therefore, number of
triangles in an octagon,
8
8! 8×7×6×5×4×3×2×1 8×7×6×5×4×3×2×1
C3 = = = = 56
3!(8−3)! 3×2×1×(5)! 3×2×1×5×4×3×2×1

So, option (c) is the correct answer


7. 5, 12 and 13 form one of the many Pythagorean triplets (Pythagorean triplets are integer solutions to the
Pythagoras’ theorem). Therefore, the triangle is a right-angled triangle. For a right-angled triangle, the
circumradius is always half its hypotenuse. Therefore, in this case, the circumradius = 13/2 = 6.5
In case of non-Pythagorean triplets (sides a, b and c), use the formula,
𝑎𝑏𝑐
Circumradius, r =
4∆

So, option (c) is the correct answer

8. Sum of the interior angles = 180°(n-2)


or, 1440° = 180°(n-2)
or, 1440° = 180°×n - 360°
or, 180°×n = 1800°
or, n = 10

So, option (a) is the correct answer

9. We know, Area of a regular hexagon = 3√3 (side)2 /2


= 3√3*16/2
= 24√3
Therefore, each brother receives = 24√3/2 = 12√3

So, option (a) is the correct answer

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Type 12: Circle
● A circle is the set of all points in the plane that are a fixed distance (the radius) from a fixed point (the centre).
● Any line segment joining a point on the circle to the centre is called a radius. By the definition of a circle, any
two radii have the same length.
● An line joining two points on the circle is called a chord.
● A chord that passes through the centre is called a diameter. Since a diameter consists of two radii joined at
their endpoints, every diameter has length equal to twice the radius.
● A circle forms a curve with a definite length, called the circumference, and it encloses a definite area.
● The ratio of the circumference and the diameter of any circle is π.
● If a circle has radius r, then circumference of the circle = 2πr and area of the circle = πr2

Practice Math

1. What is the ratio of area of a circle and its diameter?

a. π/2 b. (πr)/2 c. πr d. r2/2 e. None of these

2. The area of a circle is 154 m2. What is its circumference?

a. 32 b. 22 c. 44 d. 56 e. None of these

3. The diameter of a semicircle is 21 m. What is its perimeter?

a. 54 m b. 42 m c. 33 m d. 42 m e. None of these

4. How many degrees does a minute hand of a clock move in 52 minutes?

a. 360 b. 320 c. 312 d. 288 e. 272

5. What is the difference between the hour hand of a clock and the minute hand when the clock strikes 4:20?

a. 12⁰ b. 10⁰ c. 20⁰ d. 22⁰ e. 28⁰

6. What is the difference between the hour hand of a clock and minute hand at 12:30?

a. 175⁰ b. 165⁰ c. 195⁰ d. 210⁰ e. Cannot be determined

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7. In the figure, O is the center of the circle. The area of the triangle AOB is 18. What is
the area of the circle?

a. 12π
b. 18π
c. 24π
d. 36π
e. 40π

8. The area of a circle is 25π. What is the value of the circumference?

a. 25 b. 10π c. 35 d. 15π e. 25π

9. In the figure, O is the center of the circle. Which is one of the following must be true
about the perimeter of the triangle?

a. always less than 5


b. always greater than 20
c. always greater than 15
d. always less than 15
e. less than 20 and greater than 10

10. In the figure above, A and B are centers of two circles that touch each other externally. What is the area of the
circle whose diameter is AB?

a. 4π
b. 25π/4
c. 9π
d. 16π
e. 25π

11. The side length of a square inscribed in a circle is 2. What is the area of the circle?

a. π
b. √2π
c. 2π
d. 2√2π
e. π2

12. In the figure, O is the center of the circle. ∠OBC = 40⁰. What is the value of ∠BAC?

a. 45⁰
b. 50⁰
c. 55⁰
d. 60⁰
e. None of these

13. If the diameter of a circle is doubled, how much does the area change?

a. Area is doubled
b. Area is tripled

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c. Area is quadrupled
d. Area is squared
e. None of these

14. In this figure, O is the center of the circle with radius 4 and a vertex of square OABC. What is the length of AC?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 4√2
d. 2√2
e. Cannot be determined

15. Here, ABCD is a square whose one side CD is a chord on the circle with center O. If the radius of the circle is 5,
what is the length of BD?

a. 5
b. 5√2
c. 10
d. 10√2
e. 3√2

16. In the circle with center O, what is the value of a⁰?

a. 30⁰
b. 45⁰
c. 60⁰
d. 80⁰
e. None of these

17. In the figure, ∠BED = 110° and ∠CDE = 100°. What is the value of ∠A?

a. 30°
b. 40°
c. 50°
d. 60°
e. 65°

18. P, Q and R are the centers of 3 circles with equal radius.


If the radius is 4, what is the perimeter of the triangle QPR?

a. 16
b. 24
c. 28
d. 32
e. None of these

19. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and AB is the diameter of the circle. If ∠CAB = 48 °, then what is the value (in
degrees) of ∠ADC?

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a. 52°
b. 77°
c. 138°
d. 142°
e. None of these

20. In the given diagram O is the centre of the circle and CD is a tangent. ∠CAB and ∠ACD are supplementary to
each other ∠OAC = 30°. Find the value of ∠OCB.

a. 30°
b. 60°
c. 45°
d. 20°
e. None of these

21. The length of the chord of a circle is 8 cm and perpendicular distance between centre and the chord is 3 cm.
Then the radius of the circle is equal to:

a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 6
e. None of these

22. Consider the circle shown below having angle AOB as 135º and the shaded portion is the x part of the circular
region. Calculate the value of x.

a. 1/3
b. 1/4
c. 1/6
d. 1/9
e. 1/12

23. AB and CD are two parallel chords on the opposite sides of the center of the circle. If AB = 10 cm, CD = 24 cm
and the radius of the circle is 13 cm, the distance between the chords is

a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 18
e. None of these

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24. Find the perimeter of the semicircle of radius 7.

a. 22
b. 28
c. 32
d. 36
e. None of these

25. Find the area of the sector which makes 90 degree at the center for the circle with radius 14 cm

a. 134
b. 144
c. 154
d. 164
e. None of these

26. A wire in the form of a circle of radius 3.5 m is bent in the form of a rectangle, whose length and breadth are in
the ratio of 6 : 5. What is the area of the rectangle?

a. 28
b. 30
c. 32
d. 60
e. None of these

27. A thread of length 44 cm is used to make a circle. Find the approx. area of this circle.

a. 124
b. 134
c. 144
d. 154
e. 164

28. Given that a “12-inch pizza” means circular pizza with a diameter of 12 inches, changing from an 8-inch pizza
to a 12-inch pizza gives you approximately what percent increase in the total amount of pizza?

a. 33
b, 50
c. 67
d. 80
e. 125

29. In the diagram below, ABC is an equilateral triangle. D is the midpoint of AC. BD is a diameter of the circle. If
AD = 4, what is the area of the circle?

a. 12 π
b. 16 π
c. 48 π
d. 8√2 π
e. None of these

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30. The wheel of scooter has diameter 140 cm. How many revolutions per minute must the wheel make so that
the speed of the scooter is kept at 132 km per hour?
a. 1100
b. 500
c. 250
d. 1000
e. None of these

1.e 2.c 3.a 4.c 5.b


6.b 7.d 8.b 9.e 10.b
11.c 12.b 13.c 14.b 15.c
16.e 17.a 18.b 19.c 20.a
21.a 22.b 23.c 24.d 25.c
26.b 27.d 28.e 29.a 30.b
Answers:

Solutions:

1. The area of a circle and diameter of a circle has different units. So, it is not possible to find their ratio.

So, option (e) is the correct answer

2. Here, area of a circle = πr2 = (22/7) X πr2 = 154


Now, (22/7) X πr2 = 154
or, r2 = 49
or, r=7
Now, circumference = 2πr = 2 X (22/7) X 7 = 44

So, option (c) is the correct answer

3. The diameter of a semicircle is 21 m. Perimeter of semicircle = πr + d


Here, πr + d = (22/7) X (21/2) + 21
or, πr + d = 33 + 21
So, perimeter = 54 m

So, option (a) is the correct answer

4. We know, a minute hand moves 360⁰ in 60 minutes.


So, it moves (360/60) = 6⁰ per minute
So, it moves (6 X 52) = 312⁰ in 52 minutes.

So, option (c) is the correct answer

5. At 4:20, the hour hand has already travelled for 20 minutes from 4.
We know, the hour hand moves ½⁰ per minute.
So, in 20 minutes it moves (20 X ½) = 10⁰
On the other hand, the minute stays at 4.
So, the required angle is 10⁰.

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Shortcut formula: |30h – (11/2) m| = |30 X 4 – (11/2) X 20| = |120 – 110| = 10

So. option (b) is the correct answer

6. At 12:30, the hour has already travelled for 30 minutes from 12.
We know, the hour hand moves ½⁰ per minute.
So, in 30 minutes it moves (30 X ½) = 15⁰.
On the other hand, the minute hand is at 6.
So, the required angle = (180 – 15) = 165⁰
Shortcut formula: |30h – (11/2) m| = |30 X 0 – (11/2) X 30| = |0 – 1650| = 165⁰

So, option (b) is the correct answer

7. In the right-angled triangle AOB, ½ X AO X OB = 18


Here, AO = OB =radius of circle
Now, ½ X AO X Ob = 18
or, ½ X r2 = 18
or, r2 = 36

So, the area of the circle = πr2 = 36π

So, option (d) is the correct answer

8. Here, πr2 = 25π


or, r2 = 25
or, r=5
So, the circumference = 2πr= 2 X π X 5
= 10π
So, option (b) is the correct answer

9. In ∆AOB, OA and OB are radii of the circle. Hence, both equal 10 (since OA = 10 in the
figure).

Now, the perimeter of a triangle equals the sum of the lengths of the sides of the triangle. Hence, perimeter of
∆AOB = OA + OB + AB = 10 +10 +AB = 20 + AB.

In a triangle, the length of any side is less than the sum of the lengths of the other two sides and is greater than
the difference. So, AB is less than OA + OB (20) and is greater than 10 – 10 = 0. So, we have 0 < AB < 20. Adding
20 to each part of this inequality yields 20 < 20 + AB < 20 + 20, or 20 < perimeter < 40.

So, option (e) is the correct answer

10. Here, the two circles touch each other. The distance between their centers, AB, equals the sum of the radii of
the two circles, which 2 + 3= 5. Hence, the area of a circle with diameter AB (or radius = AB/2) is
π X r2 = π(AB/2)2
= π(5/2)2
= 25π/4

So, option (b) is the correct answer

11. The diagonal of a square inscribed in a circle is a diameter of the circle. The formula for the diagonal of a square
is √2 X side.
So, √2 X 2 = 2√2
So, radius = (2√2)/2 = √2
So, the area of the circle = π(√2)2 = 2π

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So, option (c) is the correct answer

12. Here, ∠OBC = 40⁰.


In ∆OBC, OB = OC
So, ∠OBC = ∠OCB= 40⁰
So, ∠BOC =180⁰ - (40⁰ + 40⁰) = 100⁰

Here, ∠BOC is the angle in the center. And ∠BAC is the angle at the circumference. So, value of angle ∠BAC will
behalf of angle ∠BOC i.e. 50⁰. Because, the angle formed at the center of a circle by any arc on that circle is
always twice the value of any angle formed at the circumference of that circle by the same arc.

So, option (b) is the correct answer

13. Let, initial diameter be 2r.


So, area = πr2.
Now, if diameter is doubled, it becomes 4r.
So, area = π(2r)2 = 4πr2
So, the area becomes 4 times i.e. quadrupled.

So, option (c) is the correct answer

14. Here, AC = OB = diagonal.


Again, since O is center at B is a point on the circumference, OB = radius = 4.
⸫ AC = 4.

So, option (b) is the correct answer

15. Here, OD = OC = radius = 5


In the right angled ∆ODC, CD = hypotenuse
So, CD2 = OD2 + OC2
or, CD2 = 52 + 52
or, CD = √50

So, length of each side in ABCD is √50.

Therefore, length of each diagonal = √2 X √50 = √100 = 10

So, option (c) is the correct answer

16. Here, 4a⁰ + (a + b)⁰ + 3a⁰ + (a – b)⁰ = 360⁰


or, 9a⁰ = 360⁰
or, a⁰ = 40⁰

So, option (e) is the correct answer

17. Here, AB is a straight line


So, ∠AED + ∠BED = 180°
or, ∠AED + 110° = 180°
or, ∠AED = 70°

Again, AC is a straight line

So, ∠EDA + ∠CDE = 180°

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or, ∠EDA + 100° = 180°
or, ∠EDA = 80°

Now, in ∆ADE, ∠A + ∠E + ∠D = 180°

or, ∠A + ∠70° + ∠80° = 180°


or, ∠A = 30°

So, option (a) is the correct answer

18. Here, the length of PQ = Radius of circle P + Radius of circle Q = 4+4 =8


Similarly, PR = QR = 8
Therefore, perimeter of triangle PQR = 8+8+8 =24

So, option (b) is the correct answer

19. given, AB is a diameter


Therefore, ∠ACB = 90°
Also, given that, ∠CAB = 48°
∠ABC = 180° - (90° + 48°)
= 42°
ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral
∠ADC = 180° - ∠ABC
= 180° - 42°
= 138°

So, option (c) is the correct answer


20. Given:
∠CAB and ∠ACD are supplementary to each other.
∠CAB + ∠ACD = 180°
In the given diagram, AB || CD
∠DCB = ∠ABC
Also given, ∠OAC = 30°
∠OAC = ∠OCA = 30°
Therefore, ∠AOC = 120°
So, ∠ABC = 60° (AOC is angle at the center and ABC is angle at the
circumference)
Since, ∠DCB = ∠ABC
∠DCB = 60°

Now, ∠OCD = 90°


∠OCB = ∠OCD - ∠DCB = 90° - 60°
∠OCB = 30°.

So, option (a) is the correct answer

21. Chord, AB = 8 cm
Then, AC = CB = 4 cm
Perpendicular distance between centre 'O' and chord AB, ie., OC = 3 cm

By Pythagoras theorem in right angled triangle OAC,


Now, radius of the circle = OA = √[OC2 + AC2]
= √[32 + 42]
= √[9 + 16]

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= √25
= 5 cm

So, option (a) is the correct answer

22. ∠AOC = 180º - 135º = 45


∠AOC = ∠BOD = 45º
Shaded part is xth part of circular region.
∴ x = 90/360
= 1/4
Therefore, value of x is 1/4.

So, option (b) is the correct answer


23. From O, draw OL perpendicular to AB and OM perpendicular to CD.
Then, join OA and OC.
AL = (1/2)AB = (1/2)10
AL = 5 cm
OA = radius of the circle = 13 cm
From OAL, (OL)2 = (OA)2 - (AL)2
= (13)2 - (5)2 = 169 - 25
(OL)2 = 144
OL = 12 cm
Then, CM = (1/2)*CD = (1/2)*24 = 12 cm
And OC = radius of the circle = 13 cm
From OMC, (OM)2 = (OC)2 - (CM)2
= (13)2 - (12)2 = 169 - 144
(OM)2 = 25
OM = 5 cm
Therefore, distance between the chords, ML = OM + OL
ML = 5+ 12
ML = 17 cm.

So, option (c) is the correct answer


24. Given, radius, r = 7
perimeter of the semicircle = pi * r + d
So, (22/7) * 7 + 14
= 22 + 14
Thus, Circumference of the semicircle = 36

So, option (d) is the correct answer


25. Given, Ø = 90 deg
Area of sector = (Ø / 360 ) * pi * r2
= (90 /360) * (22/7) * 14 * 14
= 22 * 7
= 154 cm2
Thus, Area of sector = 154 cm2

26. Given, circle of radius (r) = 3.5 m


The circular wire is bent to form rectangle, which means
Circumference of circle = perimeter of rectangle
Circumference of circle = 2 * pi * r
= 2 * (22/7) * 3.5
= 22
or, perimeter of rectangle = 22

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So, 2(length + breadth) = 22
Given, length and breadth are in the ratio of 6 : 5
or, length = 6x meters and breadth = 5x meters.
or, 2(6x + 5x) = 22
or, 11x = 11
so, x = 1

Then, length = 6x meters = 6 meters


and breadth = 5x meters = 5 meters

Area of rectangle = length X breadth


=6X5
= 30
Therefore, Area of rectangle = 30 meters

So, option (b) is the correct answer


27. Here, 2*(22/7)*r = 44
So, r = 7
So, area = (22/7)*72 = 154

So, option (d) is the correct answer

28. Here, for an 8-inch pizza, r = 4 So, area = πr2 = 16π


For 12-inch pizza, r = 6, So area = πr2 = 36π
So, the increase is more than double i.e. the increase is over 100%.

So, the correct answer is option (e)

29. Here, AD = 4
So, AB = 8
Now, AB2 = AD2 + BD2
Or, 64 = 16 + BD2
So, BD2 = 48
So, (diameter)2 = (2 * r)2 = 48
So, 4r2 = 48
So, r2 = 12
So, area = πr2 = 12 π

So, option (a) is the correct answer

30. Distance travelled by wheel in one revolution = circumference of wheel


= 22/7 × 140 = 440 cm.
Speed of scooter = 132 km/hr = 132 × 1000 × 100/60 cm/min = 220,000 cm/min.
The wheel has therefore got to travel 220,000 cm in 1 min i.e. it has to perform 220,000/440 revolution in 1
min i.e. 500 revolutions.

So, option (b) is the correct answer

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Type 13: Hybrids

Practice Math

1. The area of the square MNQP is 25. What is the perimeter of the Trapezium
ONMQP?

a. 35
b. 30
c. 25
d. 20
e. Can’t be determined

2. In the figure above, each of the four squares has sides of length x. If triangle
△PQR is formed by joining the centers of three of the squares, what is the
perimeter of △PQR in terms of x?

a. 2x√2
𝑥√2
b. +2
2
c. 2x + √2
d. x√2 + 2
e. 2x + x√2

3. The area of rectangle ABCD in the figure above is 90. What is the length of diagonal EG in square EHGF?

a. 15√3 b. 16 c. 18√2 d. 12√2 e. 14

4. In the figure, ABCD is a square. What is its area?

a. 280
b. 360
c. 400
d. 320
e. 420

5. If the length of a rectangle increases by 20% and the width decreases by 30%,
what is the percent change in area?

a. Increases by 10%

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b. Decreases by 10%
c. Decreases by 16%
d. Increases by 16%
e. No change occurs

6. The length of the side of a square is represented by x + 2. The length of the side of an equilateral triangle is 2x.
If the square and the equilateral triangle have equal perimeter, then what is the value of x?

a. 5 b. 14 c. 17 d. 4 e. 11

7. The area of the larger square is 64 sq. units. What is the area of the inscribed square?

a. 48 b. 16 c. 32 d. 24√2 e. None of these

8. What is the ratio of the area of the smaller square to that of the larger square?

a. 1:3 b. 1:1 c. 1:2 d. 1:5 e. 2:3

9. Two vertices of the square touches the mid points of the two equal sides of the isosceles triangle. If the area
of the square is 36 sq. units, then what is the length of one of the equal sides of the isosceles triangle?

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a. 6√5 b. 6√2 c. 5√3 d. 5√5 e. Cannot be determined

10. Two vertices of the square touches the mid points of the two equal sides of the isosceles
triangle. If the length of one of the equal sides of the triangle is 8√5, and the base
is 16 then what is the length of the diagonal of the square?

a. 6√5 b. 8√2 c. 6√3 d. 5√5 e. Cannot be determined

11. There is a rectangular garden whose length and width is 60 m and 20 m. There is a walkway of uniform width
around garden. Area of the walk way is 516 sq. m. Find the width of the walkway.

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. None of these

12. From a rectangle of area 768 sq. cm, a semi-circular part with area 72π sq. cm is removed. What is the perimeter
of the leftover portion in cm?

a. 88 + 12π b. 82 + 24π c. 80 + 16π d. 86 + 8π e. None of these

Answers:
1.c 2.e 3.d 4.c 5.c
6.d 7.c 8.c 9.a 10.b

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11. c 12.a

Solutions:

1. Area of a square is 25. So, length of a side = 5.


The triangle OPN is an equilateral triangle. SO, ON = NP = OP = 5
Therefore, perimeter = 5*5 = 25

So, option (c) is the correct answer

2. The side PQ and QR is equal to the side of a square = x


The side PR is equal to the diagonal of a square = √2x
Therefore, perimeter = x + x+ √2 x = 2x + 𝑥√2

So, option (e) is the correct answer

3. Area of rectangle ABCD = (x-4) (x+5) = 90


Or, x2 + x – 20 = 90
Or, x2 + x – 110 = 0
Therefore, x =10
Therefore, length of each side of square = 12
Therefore, length of diagonal = 12√2

So, option (d) is the correct answer

4. DEF is a right-angled triangle. So, CD2 = DE2 + CE2 = 122 + 162 = 400
Therefore, length of each side = CD = 20. Area = 20 2 = 400

So, option (c) is the correct answer

5. Change is area = a + b + ab/100


= +20 + (-30) + (20)(-30)/100
= 20 – 30 – 6
= - 16

So, option (c) is the correct answer

6. Since the side of the squares is x + 2, its perimeter = 4 (x + 2) = 4x + 8


Since the side of the equilateral triangle is 2x, its perimeter = 3 * 2x = 6x
Also, the perimeters of both are equal.
So, 4x + 8 = 6x
Or, 2x = 8
Or, x=4

So, the correct answer is option is (d) 4.

7. Length of one side of the larger square is 8 units.


So, length of a side of smaller square is 4√2 units.
Therefore, the area of the smaller square is (4√2) 2 or 32 sq. units.

So, the correct answer is option (c) 32.

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8. Length of one side of the larger square is 8 units.
So, length of a side of smaller square is 4√2 units.
Therefore, the area of the smaller square is (4√2) 2 or 32 sq. units.
The require ratio is 32:64 or 1:2.

So, the correct answer is option (c) 1:2.

9. Since, the side of the square touches the mid points of the two sides of the isosceles triangle, the base is twice
the length of the side of the square.
Length of a side of the square is √36 or 6 units. So, the base is 12 units. Now in the
two right angled triangles on the two sides, the bases are 3 units and the perpendiculars
are 6 units. So, the hypotenuse are √(36+9) or √45 or 3√5 units. Now, since the square
touches the mid points of the two equal sides of the isosceles triangle, the hypotenuse
equal one half of each of the two sides.
Therefore, length of each of the two equal sides of the isosceles triangle is (3√5 * 2)
or 6√5 units.

So, the correct answer is option (a) 6√5.

10. Since, the side of the square touches the mid points of the two sides of the isosceles triangle, the base is twice
the length of the side of the square. Given, the base is 16 units.
So, the length of a side of the square is 8 units and the diagonal is 8√2 units.

So, the correct answer is option (b) 8√2.

11. Let the width of rectangle be x so the length and breadth is increased by 2x.
S the new total area along with walkway is (60 + 2x) (20 + 2x)
So, (60 + 2x) (20 + 2x) – 60 * 20 = 516
Or, (60 + 2x) (20 + 2x) = 1716
Or, x=3

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

12. Given the area of semi-circle is 72π sq. units. So, the area of the circle is 144π sq. units.
Hence, the diameter of the circle is 24 units and the perimeter of the semi-circle is 12π units.
Now, the diameter of the semi circle is the length of the rectangle. So the breadth of the rectangle is (768/24)
or 32 units. So, perimeter or the leftover portion is (24 + 32*2 + 12π) units or (88 + 12π) cm.

So, the correct answer is option (a) 88 + 12π.

Type 14: Solid Geometry

Cube:
● Volume of cube = a3
● Surface area of cube = 6a2
● Short diagonal = a√2
● Long diagonal = a√3

Rectangular Solid:
● Volume = lwh

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● Surface area = 2 (lw + wh + hl)

Longest diagonal = √(l2 + w2 + h2)

Sphere:
● Volume = 4/3 * πr3
● Surface area = 4πr2

Cylinder Formulas:
● The lateral Surface area of the cylinder = 2πrh square units
● The total surface area of the cylinder, A = 2πr(r+h) square units
● The volume of the Cylinder, V = πr2h cubic units.

Practice Math

1. A cube of side 5 cm is painted on all its side. If it is sliced into 1 cubic centime cubes, how many 1 cubic
centimeter cubes will have exactly one of their sides painted?

a. 9 b. 61 c. 98 d. 54 e. 64

2. What is the approximate surface area of a square pyramid that has a base area of 100 feet squared, a base
perimeter of 40 feet, a height of 50 feet, and a slant height of 60 feet?

a. 1,000 feet squared b. 1,300 feet squared c. 2,000 feet squared


d. 900 feet squared e. 1,500 feet squared

3. What is the volume of a triangular pyramid that has a base area of 200 feet squared, a base perimeter of 60
feet, a height of 100 feet, and a slant height of 150 feet?

a. 6,666.67 feet cubed b. 6,543.20 feet cubed c. 7,000 feet cubed


d. 7,777.77 feet cubed e. 6,500 feet cubed

4. What is the volume of a cylinder with a height of 9 inches and a radius of 8 inches?

a. 1791.42 inches cubed b. .1800 inches cubed c. 2000 inches cubed


d. 1809.56 inches cubed e. 1904.42 inches cubed

5. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal to the sum of the
areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is:

a. 720 b. 900 c. 1200 d. 1800 e. None of these


6. 66 cubic centimeters of silver is drawn into a wire 1 mm in diameter. The length of the wire in meters will be:

a. 84 b. 90 c. 168 d. 336 e. 96

7. A hollow iron pipe is 21 cm long and its external diameter is 8 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is 1 cm and iron
weighs 8 g/cm3, then the weight of the pipe is:

a. 3.6 kg b. 3.696 kg c. 36 kg d. 36.9 kg e. .36 kg

8. A boat having a length 3 m and breadth 2 m is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when a man gets on
it. The mass of the man is:

a. 12 kg b. 60 kg c. 72 kg d. 96 kg e. None of these

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9. 50 men took a dip in a water tank 40 m long and 20 m broad on a religious day. If the average displacement of
water by a man is 4 m3, then the rise in the water level in the tank will be:

a. 20 cm b. 25 cm c. 35 cm d. 50 cm e. 60 cm

10. The slant height of a right circular cone is 10 m and its height is 8 m. Find the area of its curved surface.

a. 30 m2 b. 40 m2 c. 60 m2 d. 80 m2 e. None of these

11. A metallic sheet is of rectangular shape with dimensions 48 m x 36 m. From each of its corners, a square is cut
off so as to make an open box. If the length of the square is 8 m, the volume of the box (in m 3) is:

a. 483 b. 512 c. 642 d. 896 e. 452

12. The curved surface area of a cylindrical pillar is 264 m 2 and its volume is 924 m3. Find the ratio of its diameter
to its height.

a. 3: 7 b. 7: 3 c. 6: 7 d. 7: 6 e. 5 : 2

13. A cistern of capacity 8000 liters, measures externally 3.3 m by 2.6 m by 1.1 m and its walls are 5 cm thick. The
thickness of the bottom is:

a. 90 cm b. 1 dm c. 1 m d. 1.1 cm e. 120 cm

14. What is the total surface area of a right circular cone of height 14 cm and base radius 7 cm?

a. 344.35 cm2 b. 462 cm2 c. 498.35 cm2


d. 582 cm2 e. None of these

15. How many bricks, each measuring 25 cm x 11.25 cm x 6 cm, will be needed to build a wall of 8 m x 6 m x 22.5
cm?

a. 5600 b. 6000 c. 6400 d. 7200 e. 4800

16. Given a sphere with the radius 7cm. Find the volume of this sphere. Take π as 3.14.

a. 1436.03 cm2 b. 1436.03 cm3 c. 87.92 cm2


d. 87.92 cm3 e. 132.45 cm3

17. Given a sphere with a volume of 904.32 in3. Find the radius of the sphere. Take π as 3.14.

a. 10 in3 b. 10 in c. 6 in3 d. 6 in3 e. 7 in3

18. If 64 identical small spheres are made out of a big sphere of diameter 8 cm, what is the surface area of each
small sphere?

a. π cm2 b. 2π cm2 c. 4π cm2 d. 8π cm2 e. None of these

19. What is the diameter of the largest circle lying on the surface of a sphere of surface area 616 square cm?

a. 14 cm b. 10.5 cm c. 7 cm d. 3.5 cm e. 4.5 cm

20. What is the volume of the largest sphere that can be carved out of a cube of edge 3 cm?

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a. 9π cubic cm b. 6π cubic cm c. 4.5π cubic cm
d. 3π cubic cm e. None of these

21. If the ratio of the diameters of two spheres is 3: 5, then what is the ratio of their surface areas?

a. 9 : 25 b. 9 : 10 c. 3 : 5 d. 27 : 125 e. 7 : 8

22. A right circular metal cone (solid) is 8 cm high and the radius is 2 cm. It is melted and recast into a sphere. What
is the radius of the sphere?

a. 2 cm b. 3 cm c. 4 cm d. 5 cm e. 6 cm

23. Let the largest possible right circular cone and largest possible sphere be fitted into two cubes of same length.
Let C and S denote the volume of cone and volume of sphere respectively, then which one of the following is
correct?

a. C = 2S b. S = 2C c. C = S d. C = 3S e. None of these

24. If the surface area of a sphere is 616 square cm, what is its volume?

a. 4312/3 cubic cm
b. 4102/3 cubic cm
c. 1257 cubic cm
d. 1023 cubic cm
e. None of these

25. The surface area of a sphere is 616 square cm. If its radius is changed so that the area gets reduced by 75%,
then the radius becomes

a. 1.6 cm b. 2.3 cm c. 2.5 cm d. 3.5 cm e. 4.5 cm

26. If the diameter of a sphere is doubled, how does its surface area change?

a. It increases two times


b. It increases three times
c. It increases four times
d. It increases eight times.
e. It remains the same.

27. A sphere is inscribed in a cubical box such that the sphere is tangent to all six faces of the box. What is the ratio
of the volume of the cubical box to the volume of sphere?

a. 6π b. 36π c. 4π/3 d. 6/π e. None of these

28. What is the number of wax balls, each of radius 1 cm that can be molded out of a sphere of radius 8 cm?

a. 256 b. 512 c. 768 d. 1024 e. 1200

29. What is the volume (in cm3) of a spherical shell with 8 cm and 10 cm as its internal and external diameters
respectively?

a. 61π/3 b. 122π/3 c. 244π/3 d. 250π/3 e. None of these

Answers:

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1.d 2.b 3.a 4.d 5.c
6.a 7.b 8.b 9.b 10.c
11.b 12.b 13.b 14.c 15.c
16.b 17.d 18.c 19.a 20.c
21.a 22.a 23.b 24.a 25.d
26.d 27.d 28.b 29.c

Solutions:

1. When a 5 cc cube is sliced into 1 cc cubes, we will get 5 * 5 * 5 = 125 cubes of 1 cubic centimeter.
In each side of the larger cube, the smaller cubes on the edges will have more than one of their sides painted.
Therefore, the cubes which are not on the edge of the larger cube and that lie on the facing sides of the larger
cube will have exactly one side painted.
In each face of the larger cube, there will be 5 * 5 = 25 cubes.
Of these, the cubes on the outer rows will be on the edge. 16 such cubes exist on each face.
If we count out the two outer rows on either side of a face of the cube, we will be left with 3 * 3 = 9 cubes which
are not on the edge in each face of the cube.
Therefore, there will be 9 cubes of 1-cc volume per face that will have exactly one of their sides painted.
In total, there will be 9 * 6 = 54 such cubes.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. Surface area of a square pyramid, a2+ 2a √ (a2/4 + h2), a is the base edge and h is the slant height.
Given, a2 =100, so, a=10
Putting a= 10 and h= 60 we get, 1304 ≈1300 square feet

So, option (b) is the correct answer

3. Volume of a triangular pyramid is 1/3 * Ab *h, where, Ab is the area of the triangular base and h is the height.
(1/3) * 200* 100 = 6666.67 feet cubed

So, option (a) is the correct answer

4. Volume of a cylinder = 𝜋 r2h


So, v = 𝜋 82*9 = 1809.56 inches cubed

So, option (d) is the correct answer

5. 2*(15*12) = 2*(15x) + 2*(12x)


360 = 30x + 24x
x = 6.6667
So, volume = 15*12*6.6667 =1200 cu. m

So, option (c) is the correct answer

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6. Volume of the silver in the wire v, is 𝜋r2h = 66 cc, where h is the length of the wire
Here, r is .05 cm, solving the equation we get h = 8400 cm or 84 m

So, option (a) is the correct answer

7. Volume of the iron pipe = 𝜋*(R2 - r2)*h, where, R is the external & r is the internal radius, and h is the length of
the iron pipe.
Putting R = 4, r = 3 and h= 21 we get, v = 461.81 cc
So total weight of the iron pipe is = 4*461.81 = 3696 gm or 3.696 kg

So, option (b) is the correct answer

8. The weight of the man is equal to the water displaced


Volume of water = 3*2*0.01 cu. M = 0.06 cu. M
Amount of water = 1000* 0.06= 60 kg, density of water is 1000kg/cubic meter

So, option (b) is the correct answer

9. For one man, water displaced is 40*20*x = 4, so, x = 0.005 m, where x is the rise in the water level
For 50 men, rise in water level, x = 0.005*50 = 0.25 m or 25 cm

So, option (b) is the correct answer

10. Radius, r = √ (102- 82) = 6 m


Area of the lateral surface

So, option (c) is the correct answer

11. Volume of the open box with a side of 8m is 8*8*8 is 512 cubic meter.

So, option (b) is the correct answer

12. 2𝜋rh = 264…… (i)


𝜋r2h= 924……… (ii)
Solving the two equations, we get, r = 7, h=6
So the ratio of its diameter to its height is, 14:6, or, 7:3

So, option (b) is the correct answer

8000
13. The inner volume of the cistern should be or 8 cubic meter.
1000
The inner dimensions are, (3.3 - 0.1) or, 3.2 meter, (2.6 - 0.1) or, 2.5 meter.
8
So, the other dimension should be or,1 meter.
3.2∗2.5
The thickness of the bottom is (1.1 - 1), or, 0.1 meter, or 1 decimeter.

So, option (b) is the correct answer

14. Slant height of the cone, l = √ (14 2 + 72) = 15.65.


Total surface area = πrl+πr2 = 498.35 cm2

So, option (c) is the correct answer

8∗6∗0.225
15. Number of bricks needed = = 6400
0.25∗0.1125∗0.06

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So, option (c) is the correct answer

16. To calculate the volume, we can use the formula for the volume of a sphere. Note that r is the radius of the
sphere.
4
Formula for the volume of a sphere: V = 𝜋𝑟 3
3
Since the values for r, and π are given, we can substitute r with 5 and π with 3.14. After substituting these values,
we can calculate V as shown below:
4
V = 𝜋𝑟 3
3
= 1436.03
Now, the calculated number 1436.03 carries no meaning unless we include the unit for it. Since the radius is in
cm, the unit for volume will be cm3. Hence:
V = 1436.03 cm3

So, option (b) is the correct answer

17. Since the value of the volume, V and π are given, we can substitute them into the volume of a sphere formula
as shown:
4
V = 𝜋𝑟 3
3
4
or, 904.32 = 𝜋𝑟 3
3
3
or, r3 = 904.32 ×
4𝜋
or, r3 = 215.89
3
or, r = √215.89
or, r=6
Now, the calculated number 6, has no meaning until we include the unit for it. Since volume in unit inch3, r will
be in inch. Hence:
r = 6 in

So, option (d) is the correct answer

18. The diameter of the big sphere is 8 cm. So, its radius is 4 cm.
Let the radius of small sphere be r cm

∴ Volume of 64 small spheres is equal to volume if 1 big sphere


Therefore
4 4
64 x πr3 = π x 43
3 3
⇒ 64r3 = 64
⇒ r=1
Surface Area of small circle = 4 x π x 12 = 4π cm2

So, option (c) is the correct answer

19. Surface area of a sphere is given by 4πr2


∴ 4πr2 = 616
⇒ 4 x 22r2/7 = 616
⇒ r2 = 616 x 7/88 = 49 = 72
⇒ r = 7 cm
Therefore Diameter = 14 cm

So, option (a) is the correct answer

20. The diameter of the sphere is equal to the length of the edge of the cube
∴ The radius of the sphere r = 3/2

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4 3
Volume of a sphere is given by = x π x ( )3 = 4.5π cm3
3 2

So, option (c) is the correct answer

21. Surface Area 1 = 4π32


Surface Area 2 = 4π52

Therefore, the ratio of the surface areas of the two spheres = 4π3 2 : 4π52 = 9 : 25

So, Option (a) is the correct answer

1 4
22. Volume of a cone = πr2h and volume of a sphere = πr3
3 3
∴ π x 22 x 8 = 4πr3
Therefore r3 = 8
=> r = 2 cm

So, option (a) is the correct answer

23. Radius of both cone and sphere is same and height of cone is twice the radius of the sphere
1 1 2
Volume of cone = πr2h = πr2x2r = πr3
3 3 3
4
Volume of sphere = πr3
3
Comparing the two volumes it can be seen that the volume of sphere S is twice the volume of cone C.

So, option (b) is the correct answer

24. 4πr2 = 616


Or, 4 x 22 x r2/7 = 616
⇒ r=7
4
Volume of sphere = πr3 = 4/3 x 22 x 73 = 4312
3

So, option (a) is the correct answer

25. New area = 25% of original area


or, 4πr2 = 1/4 x 616
or, 4πr2 = 154
or, 4 x 22 x r2/7 = 154
or, r2 = 49/4 = (7/2)2
Therefore r = 7/2 or 3.5 cm

So, option (d) is the correct answer

26. If the diameter is doubled radius is also doubled


V2 = (4 x π(2r)3)/3 = 8(4 x πr3)/3
V1 = (4 x πr3)/3
V2 = 8V1

So, option (d) is the correct answer

27. Diameter of sphere = side of cube = s


∴ Radius of the sphere r = s/2
V (cube) = s3
4𝜋𝑠3 𝜋𝑠 3
V (sphere) = (4π(s/2)3)/3 = =
8×3 6
Therefore, V (cube): V (sphere) = 6/𝜋

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So, option (d) is the correct answer

28. Volume of 1 sphere with radius 8 cm = volume of n spheres with radius 1 cm


n x (4/3)π x (1)3 = (4/3) x π x 83
⇒ n = 512

So, option (b) is the correct answer

29. A spherical shell is the region between two concentric spheres of differing radii.
Diameter of 10 and 8 means radii of 5 and 4 respectively
Required volume = 4/3π (53 - 43)
= 4/3π(125 – 64)
= 244π/3

So, option (c) is the correct answer

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