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IELTS Academic Practice Test 1
IELTS Academic Practice Test 1
Practice Test 1
Practice Test 1
LISTENING MODULE
Practice Test 1, Track 1
Questions 6–10
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 6–10 on your answer sheet.
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Practice Test 1
Comments
A It lasts for 30 minutes each session.
B They have a strict diet.
C It is only available after the tournament.
D It will close at 16:30.
E It is a good place to eat outside.
F It has a total of five floors.
G Only bread should be eaten here.
11 jousting
12 castle
13 shop and café
14 the field
15 geese
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Practice Test 1
Questions 16–20
Identify the area with the correct label on the map, A–M.
Write your answers in boxes 11–16 on your answer sheet.
A C
B
D
YOU
ARE
HERE
THE
LAKE
F G
H
THE
CARPARK
I
16 kiosk
17 Tudor gardens
18 landscape gardens
19 jousting
20 picnic field
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23 Aidan wants to start his field work one term early because
A he wants to finish his project sooner
B he wants to include all four seasons in his field work study
C this is his favourite subject
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Practice Test 1
Questions 26–30
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 26–30 on your answer sheet.
26 At first, parakeets in England were kept ………….. and would have lived indoors.
27 Aidan wants to gather information on how ………….. the parakeets negative impact
is on the local environment.
28 Parakeets can affect the local habitat through ………….. habits as well as breeding.
29 ………….. species could be negatively affected if they share the same food source
as parakeets.
30 Aidan’s supervisor reminds him that hybridization is another way in which
parakeets could change the ………….. of native species.
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Practice Test 1
Current regulations
• In Europe, clean air control includes the use of catalytic converters and
38 ………….. on power stations.
• Regulations in China are not as strict as in Europe.
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Practice Test 1
Due to the moon’s longstanding fame as our only moon, people are often
surprised to learn that the moon is not alone in its orbit of the Earth. In 1986,
astronomer Duncan Waldron discovered the object 1986 TO. Waldron later named
this asteroid Cruithne, which in Old Irish refers to a Scottish tribe (In English
called ‘the Picts’) who lived during the late Iron Age and early Medieval period.
Although commonly referred to at the time of its discovery as our second moon,
Cruithne is more accurately described as a ‘quasi-orbital satellite’ of Earth, as
its orbit around Earth is simply one part of its true orbit around the sun. This
contrasts to the moon’s orbit, which travels directly around the Earth.
Another quasi-orbital satellite, named simply 2016 HO3, was discovered yet
more recently in April 2016 by the Pan STARRS 1 asteroid telescope in Haleakala,
Hawaii. This satellite, thought to be 40–100 metres in diameter, has an extremely
elliptical orbit, which has been described as a horseshoe orbit by astronomers,
due to the uncommon loop of its route. Describing 2016 HO3’s trajectory, The
Center of NEO studies commented that, ‘In effect, this small asteroid is caught in
a game of leap frog with Earth that will last for hundreds of years.’
Astronomers have calculated that, though only recently discovered, 2016 HO3
has been a stable quasi-satellite of Earth’s for over a century. More than a decade
ago, another asteroid followed a similar trajectory around Earth and the sun,
but as the gravitational pull on this asteroid was not as strong as the Earth’s
pull on 2016 HO3, it has since moved outside of Earth’s gravitational pull and
disappeared from view outside of our solar system.
For many, these discoveries of previously unknown objects caught in the Earth’s orbit
are exciting finds. To such people, they are testaments of activity happening in the
rest of the universe. For others, the thought that we could have an object with such a
large mass so close to Earth for the past 100 years and fail to notice it is a terrifying
example of our global lack of preparation in the event of an asteroid collision.
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Practice Test 1
Thankfully, neither Cruithne nor 2016 HO3 are expected to collide with Earth,
although the possibility of an asteroid collision is not as unlikely as many believe.
Numerous other asteroids passing close to Earth have been deemed ‘near
misses’ by scientists. In 2014, asteroid 2014 DX110 passed less than one lunar
distance (a measurement form the centre of the Earth to the centre of the moon)
to Earth. Before it passed safely by, it was predicted to have a one in ten chance
of a collision with Earth.
We know how dangerous a collision could be from the effects of the asteroid
collision in the prehistoric period—It took only one collision to destroy an
entire species of animal. Thankfully, for the past 65.5 million years, all asteroid
collisions have been considerably smaller than the meteoroid that killed the
dinosaurs, and yet these asteroids still pose a significant threat. In 1908, a
meteoroid hit Tunguska, Russia with an estimated 15 megatons of TNT a force
1,000 times greater than the Impact of the atomic bomb dropped on Hiroshima.
Though Cruithne and 2016 HO3 will remain our peaceful companions for years
to come, the risk of asteroid collision remains significant. Worldwide, we have no
clear strategy in place to combat the effects of an unexpected collision with Earth,
and yet, as the discovery of 2016 HO3 makes evident; even very large asteroids
are capable of taking us by surprise.
Questions 1–5
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 1–5 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
1 The moon is the most visible heavenly body to the naked eye. t
2 Cruithne is correctly referred to as our second moon. f
3 Satellite 2016 HO3 was first identified from Hawaii. t
4 In 2014, an asteroid passed the Earth at a measurement less than one lunar
distance. t
5 Since the prehistoric period, there have been no deaths caused by asteroids ng
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Practice Test 1
Questions 6–9
Questions 6 and 7
Choose TWO letters, A–E.
Which TWO sentences relate to the Earth’s quasi orbital satellite, Cruithne?
Questions 8 and 9
Choose TWO letters, A–E.
Which TWO sentences refer to asteroid collisions with Earth?
Questions 10–13
Look at the following statements (Questions 10–13) and the list of Earth’s satellites below.
Match each statement with the correct satellite, A, B or C.
Write the correct letter, A, B, or C in boxes 10–13 on your answer sheet
NB You may use any letter more than once
Earth’s Satellites
A The Moon
B Cruithne
C 2016 HO3
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Practice Test 1
Reading Passage 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14–26, which are based on Passage 2
below.
In the majority of early European societies, poetry is thought to have been used as
a means of telling stories. Before the invention of the printing press; before mass
production of early writing materials such as scrolls and quills; and before illiteracy had
been largely overcome; stories had to be memorised in order to be later repeated. Poems
would often be told to large groups of people in order to retell fables or historical events. It
was often crucial that the poet recounted the story as accurately as possible.
Many of the features of early poetry were designed primarily to help the speaker to
remember the lines of the poem, rather than to simply entertain the listener. In Anglo
Saxon English, for instance, alliteration—or the repetition of the first sound in a letter—
was frequently used. Alliteration helped to create memorable lines for the poet; recalling
individual words was also made easier, as the poet would occasionally know what the
letter started with based on the previous word.
While alliteration is still widely used, another Anglo-Saxon poetic device, the kenning,
is less popular in modern English poetry. Traditionally, Anglo-Saxon poets would use
a kenning to replace a single word. Kennings take two individual words, and combine
them—often with the use of a hyphen—into one word. Kennings were used in order to give
a figurative, or sometimes metaphorical description of something, rather than a purely
literal identification. For example, battle-sweat could be used to describe blood, and
bone-house could be used to describe a body.
Though perhaps less common as a poetic device, kennings can still occasionally be
found in modern English. Though you may not have heard the word ‘kenning’ before,
you will surely be familiar with kennings such as ankle-biter (an alternative to ‘children’),
bookworm (a person who reads a lot) and head-hunter (a person who finds suitable
employees for a company).
As poetry progressed through the renaissance period, technical and difficult poetic forms
were favoured, and the rules of poems had to be strictly followed. The Shakespearian
sonnet is a good example of a complexly structured poem. All classic sonnets contain
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Practice Test 1
fourteen lines, which consist of an octave (the first eight lines) and a sestet (the final
six lines). The Shakespearian sonnet’s main difference from classic Italian sonnets
(sometimes called Petrarchan sonnets) is the rhyme scheme, which always follows the
pattern ABBACDCD EFEFGG, where each new letter indicates a new end-rhyme. Note that
the Shakespearian sonnet contains a couplet (GG) at the end, a feature which Italian
sonnets do not traditionally have. On top of this, Shakespearian sonnets are usually
written in iambic pentameter, the most common type of metrical line used to reflect
natural speech and mimic the pace of a heartbeat.
In the 20th century, English poetry underwent the most violent change of all. Free
Verse, or unstructured poetry (which has no clear rhyme schemes or common metrical
pattern), became increasingly popular, as did fluid, less coherent but more emotionally
charged, and occasionally dreamlike poetry. This style of poetry, termed ‘modernist’,
was accompanied by modernist movements in the visual and dramatic arts. This sudden
and extreme veer from the traditional path is generally thought to have resulted from the
excitement and fear of the times. The late 19th century and early 20th century saw a great
deal of rapid change in thought and lifestyle, from scientific discoveries such as Darwin’s
theory of evolution and Einstein’s theory of relativity, to the catastrophic effects of the
two World Wars, and engineering advances in transport and communication. Poets broke
free from traditional poetic forms, and forged a new path. Though poets writing today will
sometimes employ traditional forms and structures to their poems, since the modernist
movement, it is very rare for a poet not to employ Free Verse at some point in their work.
Questions 14–18
Choose the correct letter: A, B or C.
Write your answers in boxes 14–18 on your answer sheet.
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Practice Test 1
18 The author suggests that events in the late 19th and early 20th century caused
poetry to
A become less controlled and more experimental
B improve in quality, compared to early poetry
C become more strictly structured and controlled
Questions 19–23
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 19–23 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
19 Before the invention of the printing press, it was not important for poems to be
memorised f
20 Traditional Italian poems do not contain alliteration ng
21 ‘Ankle-biter’ is a kenning which means ‘youngsters’ t
22 All Petrarchan sonnets contain 14 lines t
23 The majority of poems written today contain Free Verse t
Questions 24–26
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A–E, below.
Write the correct letter, A–E, in boxes 24–26 on your answer sheet.
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Practice Test 1
Reading Passage 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27–40, which are based on Passage 3
below.
A Among biologists, there is a well-known story about peppered moths. The light
speckled colouring of these moths allows them to camouflage themselves from
predators as they are able to blend seamlessly amongst the bark and lichen
on trees. During the industrial revolution, however, the enormous increase of
pollution in Britain discoloured the trees a dark sooty colour. In a relatively short
amount of time it was noticed that many of the peppered moths had changed
their colour, too. Over a number of years, darker varieties of the peppered moth
gradually appeared. The darker the moths were, the better they could blend into
the newly darkened trees. Eventually, the majority of moths in London were dark
enough in colour to remain undetected against the soot-stained trees. The study
shows that lifeforms are capable of adapting to live in the polluted lands we
humans are responsible for creating.
C Of course, the conditions of the land do not provide animals with an ideal
environment. Many people exposed to radiation from the explosion died from
acute radiation syndrome, and the population of most animals breeds within the
exclusion zone initially showed a severe decrease. Recently, a study tracking the
populations of these animals has been published, with surprising results.
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Practice Test 1
F In one instance, the research found that the population of wolves was seven
times greater inside the exclusion zone than it was in nearby, uncontaminated
land. Overall, the research showed that animal populations had flourished
compared not only to the researchers predicted results, but also compared to
animals living outside the exclusion zone, on healthy land without radiation
damage. One researcher at the Ukraine’s National Academy of Sciences found
that simply howling at the border of the exclusion zone provided a quick and easy
way to identify a wolf pack living nearby; she howled into the exclusion zone, and
wolf cubs howled back at her from within. The researcher’s ad-hoc experiment
suggests that the population density of wolves in the exclusion zone is fairly high:
if a pack of wolves happened to be near the edge of the exclusion zone while the
researcher was, this suggests that packs of wolves are relatively common within
the exclusion zone.
G Of course, though the data shows an increase in animal populations, this does
not mean that radiation is beneficial for animals. Though serious mutations
in animals were documented only in the immediate aftermath of the accident,
lingering problems persist. Voles living within the area have shown a higher
susceptibility to developing cataracts than voles living on uncontaminated land;
and partial albinism (a lack of pigment in the skin and feathers) is higher among
swallows living within the exclusion zone.
H What the study appears to show, instead, is that despite the significant impact
the polluted land has on the population size of animals, living on extremely
irradiated land has a less harmful impact than humans do on the animals’ ability
to grow in populations size. The findings of the study have shown that despite the
terrible effects Chernobyl has had on the environment, it has at least not deterred
the local animals’ determination to survive.
Questions 27–34
Reading Passage 3 has eight paragraphs labelled A–H. Which paragraph contains the
following information?
Write your answers in boxes 27–34 on your answer sheet.
NB: You may use any letter more than once.
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Practice Test 1
Questions 35–40
Complete the sentences below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 35–40 on your answer sheet.
discoloured
35 The sudden increase in pollution during the Industrial Revolution ………….. the
bark of many trees.
36 evacuated
in 1986, people living within the 10 kilometre area worst affected were …………..
from their homes. decrease
37 Animal populations were seen to ………….. significantly in the initial aftermath of
the Chernobyl disaster.
radiated
38 Researchers from PSRER tracked the populations of animals living on …………..
land within the exclusion zone.
greater
39 Wolf populations are seven times ………….. within the exclusion zone compared to
surrounding areas.
cataracts
40 Voles living on the radiated land have a higher risk of developing ………….. than
those living in uncontaminated land nearby.
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Practice Test 1
Task 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
While some people believe that government surveillance (such as Closed Circuit Television
(CCTV), and the use of speed cameras) is essential for individuals to feel safe within a
society, others feel it limits their freedom.
Discuss both these views and give your own opinion.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge
and experience.
Write at least 250 words.
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Practice Test 1
SPEAKING MODULE
Time: 11–14 minutes
Part 1
Introduction to interview (4–5 minutes): The examiner will begin by introducing himself
or herself and checking your identity. She or he will then ask you some questions about
yourself based on everyday topics.
• Let’s talk about television
• Do you like to watch TV programmes? [Why/Why not?]
• What is your favourite type of TV programme? [Why?]
• Would you say you spend too much time watching TV? [Why/Why not?]
• What are TV programmes like in your country, compared with other countries?
Part 2
Individual long turn (3–4 minutes):
Please read the topic below carefully. You will be asked to talk about it for one to two
minutes. You will have one minute to think about what you are going to say. You can make
some notes to help you if you wish.
Task Card
Please read the topic below carefully. You will be asked to talk about it for one to
two minutes. You will have one minute to think about what you are going to say. You
can make some notes to help you if you wish.
Describe the last meal you had which you really enjoyed. You should say:
• what you ate
• who you were with
• what made it so enjoyable
Also, explain how it could have been even better.
The examiner may then ask you a couple of brief questions to wrap up this part of the test.
Further questions:
• How often do you have meals like this?
• How was this different to your usual meals?
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Practice Test 1
Part 3
Two-way discussion (4–5 minutes): In Part 3, the examiner will ask you further questions
related to the topic in Part 2.
Let’s talk about restaurants:
• Do you prefer going to restaurants or eating at home? [Why?]
• What sort of restaurants do you prefer going to? [Why?]
• Do you think that most people would rather have meal cooked for them than cook
for themselves? [Why?/Why not?]
Finally, let’s talk about healthy eating:
• How easy is it to eat healthily in your country?
• Do you usually choose food based on taste or health? Why?
• Do you agree that it is easier to eat unhealthy food than healthy food? Why is that?
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