a eaeae ae el ee ® Aakash MOA AAKASH TEST SERIES Readeach question {is mandatory to us appropn Marks \deductes foreach incorrect answer from the total score. et 8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candid: should check that Roll No. and Centre Code have been filed ¢ marked correctly. ly after the prescribed examination time is over, sheetto be returned to the invigilator. re are two sections in each subjecti.e., Section-A& Sectio. Roll No. anc Test Booklet Code on V——————————————————CRE CEES 2720 wm 72 Time: Hrs 20 in [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer: SECTION-A 7. Among the following choose the correct 1. A coil of resistance 10 © and inductance 5 H is connected to a 100 V battery. Energy stored in the coll after long time will be (1) 1504 (2) 2504 @) 4004 (4) 1005 2. Lenz's law is a consequence of law of conservation of (1) Charge (2) Momentum (3) Mass (4) Energy 3. A metalic ring is attached to the wall of the room, When the north pole of magnet is moved towards the ring, the induced current in ring is (as from the side of magnet) (1) Zero (2) In clockwise direction (3) In anti-clockwise direction (4) Infinite 4, Acoil having an area a is placed in a magnetic field which changes from Bo to 5Bo in a time interval & ‘The average emf induced in the coil will be (1 See (a) he 5. Two circuits have coefficient of mutual induction 0.05 H. Average emf induced in the secondary by a change of current from 0 to 10 ampere in 0.001 s in the primary will be (1) 300 (2) 50V (3) 500V (4) 600 V 6. Acoll and a bulb are connected in ser source. A soft iron core is then inserter Then in steady state condition g (1) Intensity of the bulb r (4) The bulb ¢ Compal wappfOros representation of variation of magnetic field induction with distance from a thin current carrying wire. 8 (2) f 8 3) jsses through a long straight em from the wire, the fe field at 12.cm from the wire (4) 48 9. The dimensions of the magnetic field B is (1) (MLT20-) (2) (MT2A4) (3) IML-TA*] (4) [M@LT=20-4] ‘Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Phone = 011-4762345610, 1, 12, 13, 14 16. Cor ‘A charged particle is moving in a circular path in a Uniform magnetic field of intensity B. Radius of Circular path is directly proportional to (1) Charge of particle (2) Magnetic field (3) Speed of particle (4) Both (1) and (2) Choose the correct option that can be used to Produce electromagnetic radiation (1) A stationary charge (2) Achargetess particle (3) An accelerating charge (4) A charge moving with constant velocity For an electromagnetic wave in free space the root ‘mean square value of the electric field is Em, = 12 Vim, The peak value of the magnetic field is, (1) 237 «107 (2) 410° (3) 2.83 « 107 (4) 5.65 x 10° E The dimension of | is similar to that of (where E's electric field and His magnetising field intensity) (1) Resistance (2) Capacitance (3) Inductance (4) Inductance * Capacitance Choose the incorrect statement among the given option (where symbols have usual meaning) (1) Speed of light in free space = 1 (2) Speed of light in medium = Fi ws: (3) (4) The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce ‘energy losses duo to (1) Eddy currents (2) Hysteresis (8) Resistance in winding (4) Both (2) and (3) Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-11000: 16. 17, 48 19 ersted is a unit of (1) Impedance (2) Magnetic field (3) Magnetic dipole moment (4) Pole strength A circular ring of 4 tums is made by 2 conducting Wire. The magnetic field at the centre is Bo. If tas Wire is bent to form a circular ring of 12 turns, then ‘magnetic field at centre if current is same in both the cases (1) Bo (2) 3B (3) 9Bo % (4) 3 For an infinite long solid cylindrical current carrying Conductor if magnetic field at a point P as shown in figure is Bo, then the magnetic feld at point R willbe (uniformly distributed current) ! e 3s % lass 2 4 (9 3m @ ta, 5 (4) 3 Wet magnetic: fel in 8 medium is gen by B= ny(F-eM, ten magnate suscepisny ofthe mmediumis HW M My (2) a B FG20, uniformly charged hollow sphere is rotating win angular velocity 5 ras shown in the tauren magnetic moment of the how sphere aboei fe axis 0” passing through centre © is his aes + : a4 “(ye )- : (1) 52103 Ame (2) 1.25% 10° Am? @) 47107 Ame (4) 72104 Am? 21. fata place the value of true dip is 22.5°, that place apparent angle of dip would be (1) Generally less than 22.5° (2) Generally greater than 22.5° (3) Always equal to 22.5° (4) Equal to 11.25° 22. Time period of @ bar magnet in earth's magnetic then at 7 field is > 8. If its cut perpendicular to length in 4 equal parts, then time period of each part of magnet in same field is T T () 3s 2) 35s Tr Tr @) 48 (4) 58 23. For a solenoid, the ratio of coefficient of self- inductance when volume of solenoid is doubled to its value and when volume is halved (assuming ‘number of turns per unit length remains constant) () 1:2 (2) 4:4 Gat (4) 1:4 4, Fora series LCR Circuit the resonant frequency is 100 Hz. If capacitance of capacitor is tripled and inductance is halved of their initial value, then resonant frequency of circuit becomes approximately (1) 180 Hz (2) 82Hz (3) 28 Hz (4) 108 Hz 25, 26. 27. 28, 29, 30. Choose the incorrect option regarding Current for series L.C.R circut (1) It dopends on inductance of eiult (2) It does not depend on capacitance of crcut {G) It depends on resistance of circuit (4) It depends on voltage applied ‘Aa alternating current in 9 circuit is given by 1 B0sinost ampere. If effective value of resulting ‘current is 40/3 A, then (1) b= 204 8) fy =20v3A The root mean square voltage of the square waveform shown in the figure is (2) = 308 (4) = 408 v +20 t ~20| (1) 10v2v (2) 20v (3) 20/2 v (4) 16.7 For an EM wave travelling in vacuum if Ey = 50 Vim then the value of average Poynting vector is (1) 6.53 wime (2) 3.31 Wim? (3) 2.63 wim? (4) 13.23 wime The wave function (in Si electromagnetic wave is given as units) for an We, 1) = 4000 co8(8 x 10x — 7 « 108 xt) units The speed of the wave is (1) 1.75 « 10° mis (2) 3*10' mis (3) 8.75 x 103 mis (4) 5108 mis, The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by By= 3 10 sin(0.3 * 10% + 1.4 « 10%) T, expression for the electric field is (1) Ex = 140 sin(0.3 « 102% + 1.4 x 10°9VIm (2) Ey=900 sin(0.3 x 102x + 1.4 x 10% Vim (3) Ee= 140 sin(0.3 * 10% + 1.4 x 10HVim (4) Ex = 600 sin(0.3 * 102% + 4.4 x 10%q)Vim Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110008, Phone 01147623456rorya 7 20 wer? fats 00 mal incidence. if ight wih an eneray books 2 total perfectly absorbing sua the surface has an area momentum delivered in 30 at , then the ‘of 40 om : minutes time span will be (1) 2 102 kg mis (2) 50% 10° kg mis (3) 4.8 * 10° kg mis (4) 60 10% kg rvs The velocity of gamm: changed by changing 1a rays in vacuum can be 32 (1) Amplitude (2) Wavelength (3) Frequency (4) None of these In the figure shown a current / flows through the Circuit across points Q and S, then the magnetic field at the centre of square is 33, 34. Pand Q are two identical wires having same length 4m and carry same current 2 A. P is bent into a Circle and Qis bent inthe form of a square. If 8: and Brare the values of magnetic induction at the centre Of circle and the centre of square respectively, then ratio of Ba : Bs is (lake x? = 10) 36. 37. 38, yer mass 20 mg is projected in, “reid B= 2.0 TAroMthe lower | pare, The coordinates of the og as shown in FOU"e. os iower plate in the limi there the particle Stn ent collide wth way t so that tase ofveloaly 60 hat wall ce yee (1) 2mm, 0) (2) (0.-2mm) (3) (3mm, 0) (4) (4mm, 0) SECTION-B In the figure shown a current carrying circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 6 direceg towards right, The torque on circular loop will be (1) 0.95Nm (3) 0.35Nm (2) 0.75Nm (4) 0.55 Nm At any axial point of a current carrying circular coil of radius R, valve of magnetic ld is 1 mest value at centre. Then the distance of point from centre of loop is (1) 28R will be (1) V25 (2) V82:5 (1) av e) 6V (ga @) 4:6 (3) 32v (4) ey Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi 10005. Phone : O17 47623455the figure the value of Vs ig 300 V, 50 Hz nine cect shown nt # (y av a) s5VfV (3) 75V26 V evi v 40, Inthe given fgure the curve best representing the vatiaton of reactance across an inductor wih, frequency for a series LCR circuit is Frequency (a 2B ac 4) 0 Figure shows a part of a circuit, the rate of change ofthe current init is 2ov 10Y 4a 20H 6V — b. 2A 40V (1) 32 Als, decreasing 2) 52A5, increasing 9) 42s, decreasing 4) 22 is, decreasing = Sonsider a Wheel of cycle rotating in uniform _fserse magnetic eld, wih the axis of rotation of Mt % 43, 44, 45, 46. 47. the weet Parallel to the magnetic field. Wa 023 Choose the correct statement. (1) Potential difference between two points on circumference is zero (2) Potential difference between centre and a point wheel (8) Induced emf between centre and a point on Circumference does not depend on number of spokes (4) All of the above A and B are two long parallel wires that are held Perpendicular to the plane of paper and at a distance of 8 m apart. A and B carry 5 ampere and 8 ampere current respectively in the same direction, then the magnetic field at a point half-way between the wires is Buy (1 $2 2 te @) 0 (4) So * ‘8x A power line with current of 8 A lies along the east- west direction. The force per unit length on power line due to earth magnetic field if magnitude of earth's magnetic field is 10~ T is (1) 8 104 Nim (2) 6104 Nim (3) 12* 10-1Nim (4) 410-1 Nim The magnetic field at two points on the axis of a Circular coil at distances of 0.05 m and 0.2 m from {he centre are in the ratio 8 : 1. The radius of coil is (1) 045m (2) 02m (3) 04m (4) 1m Direction of induced current in a circuit is determined by (1) Newton's law (2) Lenz's law (3) Maxwells rule (4) Ampere’s rule What is the value of inductance L for which the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with C= 10 uF and w = 1000 rad 5"? (1) 1mH (2) 100 mH (3) 0.1mH (4) 0.001 mH Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 014-47623456ae 1 of inductar 49, Acol ence of 8 ohm and the combination ig, ince 80 H Is connected In serig, a Pacis Ankach Tet Series 4 4B. nan LOR sores crcl te capactance 1s ohana rositon ffom C to 36. For the resonant frequency to fem ath athe terminals of 22volt battery. The time cont unchanged, the inductance should be changed fom of the ciroult 'S ) Lito (1) 58 le | a ; ae O28 : go. An Ac source is ratad 290 V, 25 Hz. Tho avy at Metage ie calculated ina time interval of 0.01 g hy : ft) mustbe zoo (2) Mayboz0r0 OF ( ‘ (230 4 (3) Never zero (22) v [CHEMISTRY] ce 58, Transuranium element among the following is ‘51. CaHsNHe + Hinsberg reagent > P_ on Product (P) in the above reaction is a (1) CsHsNHC2Hs (2) CeHsSO2NHC2Hs (©) Np s (3) CsHsNH2 (4) CsHsSNHC2Hs oe 2. Which amen > a Jamo mite following will give positive | ©° Cone arte of thermal stability of alkaline car etal carbonates is oAZ ete (1) S1C0s < CaCOs< MgCOs NH, (2) CaCOs < SrCOs < MgCOs a ao a SS (3) MgCOs < SrCO3 < CaCOs 53. x acid ligand among the we 60, Seg ws ton nov on pp Metal that wil form both oxi ai ae combustion in air is ed! 7s (4) oN yi Na omplex that can exhibit ym (2) K aro el can exit gamete omer oo 1) Prue iG vies (2) (NicLBrp () cs 13)2Cl} (4 er = ne 0 Benn 61. Correct order of solubi Je compa ion song the foowing (1) L200 < Naxos «Ka (1) tFe(teo} Ror chan (2) [Mn(Hz02 (2) RbxCO3 < Kec eee (3) [Ru(H20)2* (4) [Os(He0}* (8) K¢COs ©) Fe(cny,) (4) (Fe(ox)- 72 Malch the complex species den in column | yin their hybridisation given in column Column | _|founn ©) [sp2 (Q) [esp (R) | sp? (S) spe (1 () > (8), a (Py, (WM) > (Q), Vy 5 (RY (2) > (8), (N(R), - (Q), (WV) (P) 3) 0 (8). 0) >), cw + (@), (WY) 3 (R) (4) () > (R), (M) + (8), (M1) (Q), (tv) (Py ad, New Delhi-110005, Phone 011-47623455 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New DelhNi oth a ts ela B50 oy ean (4) (CaHs)«PD- (8) CattxCOONa Oe as conoarat wl 'ghe’ meximan arnt predate win exons AgNO? (1) Coqnts).ci (2) Co(NHs)sCls (9) Co(NHs).cl (4) Co(NHs)cis Malch the metal ions given in column | with their magnetic moment given in column I 7 78, (1.0). > (8), (Q), () > (R) (2) 1) (8), ), () -»(R), (tv) (Q) ©) > (Q).(M) - (R, (a) -» (), V) + (8) © > (Q).) > ©), CM) -» (R), vy -» (8) 78. Among the following metals, one with the highest ‘melting point is at av (3) or (4) Mn 77 Which among the following is coloured due to charge transfor? (1) iteOyp 2) C03 (3) [Cucup (4) [Core 78. Which of the following oxidising power? ©x0 ons has highest (1) vos (2) cr03- (3) Mnoz (4) Tio 78. Incorect statement regarding intersttiat Compounds is (1) They have high meting point (2) They are chemically inert (3) They do not retain (4) They are very hard ‘metallic conductivity CoMporate Otice Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, 80. at 82 83, 85. 86. 87. 88, observed in ction will be id contra Lanthanoi aes (1) ba wid Oe to actinoid series among yg belongs Element that following is vey ni bce a) ct 8 ris is tee te . (2) CaSO«2H20 (1) CaSO« (3) 2(CaSO«)'H20 (4) CaSO. rocess on passing CO2 through bring precipitated out are (1) NaHCOs (3) NHACI A solution of Na in liquid ammonia is_ strongly reducing due to the presence of (2) Liquid ammonia (2) NaxCOs (4) (NHs)2COs, (1) Sodium ions (3) Solvatedelectrons (4) Sodium amide Slaked lime is (1) cao (2) Ca(OH)s (3) Cacos (4) Caso. SECTION-B rich ofthe following carbides will give methane, on hydrolysis? (1) Cace (2) Nace (3) MazCa (4) Alcs Shlotide of which alkali metal can form hydrated salt? au 2) Na (3) k (4) Rb Statement (I): Carbonate thermally unstable, Statement (i; 1) and relationship, Ma show diagonal {n the light of above sta Groat ansve tome 8 Beton (1) Both statement i) ang Statey ne (2) Both statement (3) Statement () ig ‘tM are true Mand statement (N) are false true but state, my (4) Statement tig SP" (is fase tat false but Statement (yg true ‘ew Delhi-1 10005. Phone 01147623455 —oo tat can ge Phooeletc eect most realy ay @) Na 0 (4) k “one compounds given in column | with theie 3 air formula in column Il according to gre, acton sequence. a ‘n+Naz003 +2 Yetow, One D [Column tt (P) |NazCrOw oa w [8 (Q) [Naacreor i |e (8) [Kacre0r imo (S) [Fecno. () 05.1) >P, (ll) >, (MOR 2045.) +2, +P, (VY) >R +2.) 4S, (I) +P) >R 4) +S.) +2, () +R, (IV) 9B Idenily incorrect statement among the following, (1) Mn shows highest oxidation state in 3d series (2) Se does not show variable oxidation state (@) K:Cr2O7 is more soluble than NazCreO7 (4) Cu" ion is not stable in aqueous medium Statement |: Dichromate solution turns yellow’ in basic medium. Statement Il: KMinOs crystals are isostructural with those of KCIO., In ight of the above statements choose the most ‘ppropriate answer from options given below. (1) Both statement (I) and statement (Il) are true (2) Both statement (I) and statement (I) are false (9) Statement (I) is true but statement (Il) false (4) Statement () is false but statement I) is true Gabriel phthalimide synthesis cannot be used for Preparation of NH, (1) Crane @) a oo CHK, -) ‘Paes Oe Aakash Tor, 8, Pua Road New Debit 0005, Prana “BTTATSRSIGG— The reaction of phenol with benzene diazonium ay chloride n alkaline medium gives (1) Yelow aye (2) Orange dye (2) Blue dye (2) Green ye 85. Which among the following has least pk value NK, () oO @ oO NY @) CO O Ayes 95. The sum of coordination number and oxidation state of central metal in [Cofen}ICls is (6 @e @s @9 87. Which among the folowing complexes is used for treatment of cancer? HN ci HN cl (a) Pt. (2) Pt ci Na HN Na HN i HN 1 (3) Pd) (4) Pa. az Nvu HN Ne 98, Select the correct. statement(s) among. the following (2) Chlorophyll is a complex compound of Mg. (©) Vitamin 8:2 is a complex compound of Co, (c) Haemoglobin is a complex compound of Fe. (1) (@)only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (b) and (¢) only (4) (@), (b) and (c) 89. Compound used to estimate hardness of water is (1) NasEDTA (2) Nas{Ag(S203) (3) Naz{Fe(CN)sNo} (4) [Cu(NHs)JS0« 100. Optical isomerism can be shown by (1) [CotNHs):Ciy) (2) Zncuy- (3) [Cofen)sj (4) [PUNE cigremy MA nda Aakash Tes ANY ION-A “ : ve 7 (1) Spirulina Butyric acid 101. A dinucleotide dovs not cont ee (1) Phosphodiester bond (2) N-glycosidic linkage (3) Hydrogen bond (4) Phosphoester bond Mark the incorrect statement for double helix structure of DNA, (1) The two chains run in anti-parallel fashion. @ 102, The two chains are helically twisted in a right handed fashion. @ ‘Amount of purines is not equal to the amount of pyrimidines, It is chemically and structurally more stable than RNA, « 103. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the formation of DNA over RNA template? (1) Reverse transcriptase (2) RNA polymerase i () Helicase (4) Gyrase 104. The positive charge of histone proteins are due to (1) Lysine and arginine residues (2) Serine and lysine residues (3) Glycine and arginine residues (4) Glycine and serine residues {mn the nucleus of diploid eukaryotic cell, many nucleosomes wil be present if 4.2 10° bp? 108. ow it contains (1) 1.2% 105 nucleosomes (2) 1.2% 10* nucleosomes @) 2.4 « 10% nucleosomes (4) 24 © 40% nucleosomes Which of the following Frederick Grfith in the (1) E co @) Streptococcus pneumoniae ) Vicia faba (4) Bacteriophage a "¢ Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, 106, 19 organisms was used by tansformation experiment? 108, 109, 110. 111, 112, (2) Trichoderma (@) Aspergillus niger Cyclosporin A (4) Monascus Statins pupureus Which of the following characteristics should by Cited by a biocontrol agent to become s component of PM? (1) Broad spectrum and free living (2) Narrow spectrum and symbiotic (8) Broad spectrum and symbiotic (4) Species-specific and inability to affect non target organisms ‘Biochemical oxygen demand’ estimates (1) Amount of pollutants in air (2) Amount of organic matter in sewage (3), Amount of adulterants in oil (4) Amount\of organic matter plant ‘Major composition of ‘biogas’ includes (1), Neand Oz (2) HeS and so, (8) CH. and cop (4) Orang Hes produced in biogas (9) Trichoderma, thuringiensis (2) Cyanobacteria, At (8) Nucteopolyhedre, (4) Saccharomyces Phids, Nostog ius, Oscillatoria, TMY coe Perevisiae, — Baculovirus Lactobacillus mediat lediated conversi Increases the content of qo” Of milk into curd Rutrient in cur Which of the followi ot Ng options i 7 "9 °Ptions is appropriate to fil (1) Vitamin a, (2) Vitam) 3) Vitamin ine (8) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin & 114, 115, 116. 118, 110008. Phone. 011-47623455 —— B ce PB (1 18. wy treatment mary and secondary treatments sent A: Jaya’ and ‘Ratna’ are the varieties of states on brought green revolution. : than is considered nt B: MS. Swamint as sistemehFateraionel green revolution the (1) Statement Ais correct {a Bott (2) Statement B is correct 5) Both the statements are correct 14) Gath the statements are incorrect which of the following crops is used for the roauation of protein fortified wheat? (2) Rattan (4) Ratna wich of the following is most commonly used as. rmutagens to improve the plant varieties? (2) IR-ays (4) Zeatin (1) Alas 66 (3) Shakti a ys (3) Microwave the following statements and choose the option whichis true for them. Statement A: Okazaki fragments are used to elongate the lagging strand towards replication fork, Statement B: Leading daughter strand synthesis occurs away from the direction of replication fork. (1) Only statement Ais correct (2) Only statement B is correct <) Both the statements A and B are correct (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect, f 30" codon of a gene that is encoding a Polypeptide chain having 80 amino acids is converted to UGA, what will be the impact on the soypeptide chain? (") Resuting polypeptide would have 29 amino atid (2) Reg *) Resulting polypeptide would have 30 amino ac, (2) There wil be no. chan amino acid inthe (4) Resut acids, ing in the number of resulting polypeptide 9 Polypeptide would have 79 amino Corporate Office ‘kash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone 118. The model organism used by son af that suggested the semiconservativ replication was (1) Orosophiia melanogaster (2) Escherichia coll (8) Streptococcus pneumoniae (4) Bacteriophage 120. Which of the following processes joins the exons ‘and removes the introns to make the primary transcript functional? ) Splicing (2) Capping 8) Tailing A) Wooplig 121. Regulation of fac operon by _A_ is referred to as B_ regulation, re of Choose the correct option for (A) and (8) respectively. (1) Promoter and positive (2) Repressor and negative (3) Operator and negative (4) Repressor and positive 122. The elucidation of lac operon was also a result of Close association between geneticist Francois Jacob and (1) Oswald avery (2) Martha Chase (3) Jacque Monod (4) Francis Crick 123. Which of the following initiates the process of transcription in prokaryotes? (1) o factor (2) p factor (4) Ribozyme 124. ‘DNA is the genetic materia’. It was unequivocally Proved through the experiments conducted by (1) Hershey and Chase (2) Meselson and Stahl (3) Avery MacLeod and McCarty (4) Severo Ochoa 125. Template independent-RNA synthesis can be catalysed by (1) Polynucieotide phosphorylase (2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase (3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (4) Peptidy! transferase 126. Among the following options, choose the organism responsible for the production of ‘clot buster bioactive molecule, streptokinase. (1) Staphylococcus (2) Candida lipolytica (3) Trichoderma (4) Streptococcus (3) DNA polymerase 111-47623456Pe 17. Which of the following microbes can be.used or ‘commercial production of acetic acid? (1) Acetobacter aceti (2) Clostridium butyticum (8) Aspergitus niger (4) Lactobacittus 128. Which of the following is not a property of genetic code? (1) Universal (2) Degenerate (8) Overlapping (4) Triplet 129, Distance between two consecutive base pairs i DNA is approximately (1) 036m (2) 340m (8) 340.0 (4) 34m 130. On which of the following locations of hnRNA capping is done? (1) Send (2) Send (3) Oneach introns (4) On each exons 4131, RNA polymerase Il catalyses the transcription of (1) hnRNA (2) tRNA (3) 88 rRNA (4) 285 RNA 4192. Alcoholic beverages can be produced with the help of (1) Streptococcus (2) Penictium roquetort (9) Lactobacitus (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae 133, Which of the following is regarded as the frst antibiotic discovered? (1) Perici (2) Tetracycine (3) Erythromycin (4) Neomycin 134, Select the eorreet statement among the folowing options (1) indian Council of Forest Research and Education ICFRE carries out the evaluation for the newly developed improved varieties of cxops. (2) Collection of only wild species of a particular crop is considered as germplasm collection (3) ‘dee-geo-woo-gen’ gene is used production of dwarf rice varieties (4) Spirutina is @ eukaryotic source of single cet protein, 135. Which of the following varieties is of ‘bhindi’ that is resistant to yellow mosaic virus? (1) Hig (2) Pusa Komal (3) Parbhani Kranti (4) Karan Rai for the Conorate Ooo akash Toner, 8 Pisa Road fy iow 197. 138. 140. 141 Fusion of ProtoPlaetS fay naciane x Oy janand Knee 3) PEG and sodium (2 a ae ind Kalyan a sonalika 2 ania (2) High yielding : te (4) Rice varieties jeties Wheat varieties a ; Oe operon, 3 non-sense mutation ooo tn tae al gene, which of te iru 6? be synthesize (1) Permease and p-galactosidase (2) Permease and transacetylase {@) p-gatactosidase and transacetylase (4) Only permease : vn following is true regarding i. yéshows polymorphism in population rAd which is inhertable. {@) shows, similarity in population and | proteins, : (4) Codesfor only those proteins which = responsible for facilitating cell cycle. Identify the incorrect match. — Okazaki fragments are tome * (1) Replication (2) Transcription — p factor serves as the termination factor (3) Translation — Release factor serves as te initiation factor : (4) Lac operon — Product of gene i controls? expression of structural gem Match the correct pairing w.r.t. tRNA structure. Column-| Column A. Amino acid P. DHU loop acceptor arm : 8 Aminoacy synthetase Q. mRNA inte nding loop oop C. Anticodon top R. 3’ end of RM 0. Ribosomal binding loop S. TyC loo? (1) AP, Bg, 7 (3) A. Delite ind for are us {allowing phenomenor [DNA fingerprinting and human genome 142. whieh ol pasis of rmapsing? (1) NA polymorphism (2) Cocing ONA {@) RNA polymorphism {@) Protein polymorphism sequence of which of the following structures tales the amino acid sequence in polypeptide formed in tanslation? (2) FRNA (2) mRNA @) tRNA (4) SnRNA +44, To wich ofthe following promoter sequence, RNA polymerase binds during transcription to assume saddle tke structure? (1) TTAA (2) TATA (3) GTGT (4) AATT. Which of the following happens in the first phase of | of anti-codon 2) Recagnition of 5° end of MRNA ‘Aminoacyiation of tRNA of mRNA and ribosome the approximate length of a 147. 148. 149, 150 In paddy important biotertlizer. Select the correct option "2 tA) (1) Azotobacter (@) Anabaena Insewage treatment process, suspended solids can be removed by (1) Primary treatment (2) Secondary treatment 3) Tertiary treatment (4) Biological treatment Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement A: Flocs are responsible for the aerobic degradation of organic waste in sewage. Statement B: Sedimented flocs constitute activated sludge. (1) Statement A is correct (2) Statement B is correct (3) Both the statements A and B are correct (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect, Identily the following statements as true (T) or false (F) and choose the option accordingly. ‘A: Methanogens aerobically degrade cellulosic ‘material to produce methane. B: Methanogens are found in anaerobic sludge produced during sewage treatment. (2) Rhizobium (4) Azospinitura mmailian DNA double helix, if the total number of A 8 base pais ae 6.8 10" and distance between two | (1) TT ive base pairs is 3.447 QF T 2 mai. (2) 122 meters OF oF 2) 1.2 meters (4) 23 meters @t oF [ZOOLOGY] SECTION-A 152. Choose the incorrect Statement wart. the According Darwin, the fitness refers to ultimately vsiological fitness fitness eroductive fitness (4) Anatomical fines Comporate Office ash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Neanderthal man, (1) The extinct human species who liv Hitann /ed 10,000 (2) They ved in near east and central Asia (3) They buried their dead 4 (4) They used hides to protect their body, Delhi-1 10005. Phone 011-4762 3456 aAll nia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 153. How many of the following given below in the box are examples of adaptive radiation seen in marsupials of Australia? as 3 154. The work of which of the given scientist economistiphilosopher influenced Darwin? aa (3) 6 (1) Louis Pasteur (2) Thomas Malthus (3) Lamarck (4) Mende! 185. Select the odd one w.r!. mammals that live wholly in water. (1) Pratypus (2) Sea cow (3) Whales (4) Dolphins 188. Which one of the following options gives one correct example, each of convergent evolution and divergent evolution? [Convergent Divergent evolution evolution (7) Flippers of penguin | Eye of Ocfopus and and dolphin mammals (2) [Sweet potato and [Bones of forelimbs of potato vertebrates Eye of Octopus and] Placental mammals | manmats and Asan : __|rarawat Benes lords | Thoms of Bougaic] alveriabrates lana tenses fie 57. 1858, SL. Wier. an American scion coated elecric discharge contanng al of te token dive gases of 500°C except (1) Che @ @) Ni 6) 0 Choose the incorrect statement wir thea ‘special creation. teas (1) The Earths about 4000 years @) All ving organisms that we see today wore 158. (3) The diversity was always the same since Creation and will be the same in future also. (4) Units of lite called spores were transferred to different planets including Earth 189. Choose the animal that is characterised by plate backed and spikes al the end of tail (1) Brachiosaurus (3) Triceratops (2) Stegosaurus 164 164, 165. 168, 167, ee (4) Tyrannosaurus Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road. h New Delhi n7 160. 162. 163. fe Vries studied mutations in the plant nameg (2) Pisum sativum (4) Evening primrose lowing does not illustrate the: tural selection? int breeds of dogs Hugo d (1) Hibiscus (3) Eucalyptus Which of the fol phenomenon of nat (1) Generation of differe (2) Industral melanism (@) Herbicide-resistant weeds {4) Development of antibiotic-esistant bacteria Select the correct option to complete the analogy Heroin : Depressant ::__: Stimulant (1) Morphine (2) Cannabinoid (3) Hashish (4) Crack Select the correct statement wrt. AIDS. (1) Infected macrophages can survive while viruses are being replicated and released. (2) Helper T-lymphocytes act like a HIV factory. {@) AIDS was first reported in 1987. (4) Viral DNA is produced by DNA dependent DNA polymerase. A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is (1) Biopsy (2) Sonography (3) ELISA (4) Widal test How many of the diseases given below in the box are associated with the increased incidence of harmful effects of smoking? [Cancer of ung, cancer of urinary bladder, | cancer of throat, Emphysema, Bronchitis, | Gastric ulcer, Coronary heart disease i ()7 @ 6 (3) 4 4) 5 Consider the drugs given below : a. Barbiturates b. Benzodiazepines ©. Caffeine t j i v7 1” 172 173, elect the option that only contains the drugs thal help patients toc ope with ill depression and insomnia, "a! ness Mt (1) bande only 2) a (3) aandb only ee, (8) Nausea and swe; (4) Excitement atingdrugs are obtai 108- MS i ‘sativa, except or (2) Morphine i (4) Charas @) Mae antibody received by infant during intial ss MeN aon Is A. THE is @ good example of i) oo ae th option that cooly Metis (A) and 8 Natural active immunity Natural passive immunity ‘Avtificial passive immunity ‘tical active immunity 1) 6 _ 1g analogy by selecting the tra. Camlete the followin correct option. ‘Secondary lymphoid orgat primary lymphoid organ (1) Thymus (3) Peyer's patches 471. Choose the odd one wr. bacterial (1) Diphtheria (2) Plague (3) Pneumonia (4) Amoebic dysentery +172. When people are healthy, all of the following arg n : Lymph node «: (2) Tonsils (4) Spleen observed, except (1) They are more efficient at work 2) Productivity and economic prosperity is increased in these people (3) Longevity is reduced in these people (6) They are free from infections and are physically fit 173. Comprehend the given statements and select the incorrect option (*) Physical barriers like skin and physiological barriers like acid in stomach are included in innate immunity QT a exaggerated response of the immune quan 10 certain antigens present inthe _, “mfonmentis called allergy 3) Ace rman Of defence, is chay (4) Visine ected oy Y which is a non-specific type racterised by memory. ell Meteo ayes S806 proteins called h fronting nih Protect non-infected cells ~ Vital infection, (3) It induces euphoria, stim energy level in the body, (4) Itis taken by injection and snort and snorting Choose the correct full form of NACO. (1) National antic Wlation and increases 176. Cancer Organisation (2) National AIDS Control Organisation (3) National Alcohol Control Organisation (4) National Anthrax Control Organisation Select the correct option w. Ch Pasredtum or mosato and huss eepecee (1) Merozoites, Sporozoites (2) Sporozoites, Gametocytes (3) Gametocytes, Sporozoites (4) Sporozoites, Merozoites Russian scientist who proposed the theory of chemical evolution was (1) Oparin (2) Haldane @,urey (4) Miller The theory that explains us about the origin of Universe is (A) Special creation theory (2). Big Bang theory (3) Panspermia theory (4) Chemical evolution theory 176. 47, ja78. 179, demonstrated with his experiments that life comes only from pre-existing life and used in his experiment. Fill in the blanks respectively by choosing the correct option. (1) Oparin, killed bacteria (2) Miler, Killed yeast (3) Louis pasteur, killed yeast (4) Urey, killed bacteria 180. The type of lymphoid tissue that are located within the lining of the major tracts such as digestive, respiratory, etc. constitutes about °X’ per cent of the total lymphoid tissue in the human body. Choose the option that correctly identifies ‘x’. (1) 25 (2) 50 (3) 75 (4) 35 ic ——EE ° ‘Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi }10005, Phone : 011-47623456CU ‘acids. In similar experiments scientists, they observed molecules, except (1) Fats (2) Sugars (3) Pigments (4) Alkaloids 182. Darwin's finches are the good exams of # except (1) Adaptive radiation (2) Divergemt evolution 1) Natural selection (4) Convergent evolution setin, twas 163, Assertion (A): Before industri on evolved due to 8 ark color in rmoths boomer 3 in industrial mutation induced by chemicals present smoke in the light of above statements, select the correct option. +) Both (A) and (RI are true and (R) is the comect to correct examples) ved from Sauropsids? a bo Birds : ¢. Mammals e {Snakes (2) ab, eandt 3) bc dance (4) od. eandt 185. Probably (i) _. some of the land reptiles that went back into water to evolve into fish-lke reptiles were calles lu Select he option that e2 rectly identifies ()) and (i) (1) (200 mya, (i) Triceratops (2) (i 250 mya: (i) Coelacanth (3) (200 mya, (i) Ichthyosaurs (4) () 250 bya: (i) Coetacanth Corporate Office “Aakash Tower. 8, Pu and (P) ) (1) Both A) : t ) and (R) are true and (F) 1 ) ee a0) i frequency of te recessive: cre ea conan wat i 0.90 Calculate the percentage of individuals fromozygous for the dominant allele. i (1) 49% (2) 90% 1m (3) 39% (4) 24% i 489. On comparison of primitive Earth’s atmosphere with 191 that of present day Earth's almosphere, which of te” given observation is correct for the primitive Eart's. atmosphere? ‘ (1) The atmosphere of primitive Earth mas reducing in nature. (2) Less UV rays reached the primitwe Earte surface. 4 (3) The atmosphere of primitive arts was: oxidising type (4) There was presence of ozone layer in primatine Eantn’s atmosphere Which of the following scientists name is comedy ches with the theory put forth boy tims? (1) Hugo de Vries Mutation theory (2) Past Natural selection 3) Lamarck Theory of continuity of191. All of the folowing aro common festures between t malignant tumors and benign tumors, wee (1) Absence of property named contact inhibition (2) Presence of property called metastasis (3) Ability to form new cells (4) Breakdown of cell growth and differentiation process 4192. Choose the odd one w.rt. the side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females, (1) Increased aggressiveness and masculinisation (2) Abnormal menstrual cycle (8) Reduction of clitoris (4) Excessive growth of hair on the body 193. Which of the following had the largest brain capacity ‘among the given hominids? (1) Homo habilis (2) Homo erectus (3) Homo sapiens (4) Homo neanderthalensis 194. The total number of interchain and intrachain disulphide bonds present in a typical molecule of IgG is, respectively ¢ 12 15 1) 4 (2) 2, 10 3) 5, (4) 3, 10 How many diseases given below in the box have ntrolled to @ large extent by the use of Smallpox, Polio, Diphtheria, Pneumonia, Tetanus 12 correct option, (2) 3 (4) 4 he incorrect statement nya is caused by the bite of female ‘odium falciparum causes malignant au {1} Sohanoreise 2) Contors (8) Ginkgo (3) Herbaceous ieopode 188. Variations as proposed by Darn (1) Random and directioniess, ae (2) Smal and directions (8) Random and directional (4) Smal and drectionioss 188. Choose the correet match, Disease Causative Mode of organism infection (1) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of mate vivax ‘Anopholes mosquito (2) Typhoid Salmonella Droplet yphi infection (3) Common Rhino virus ‘Spread from cold rat (4) Filariasis — Wuchereria Bite of an bancrofti infected Culex. mosquito: 200. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) Drug called smack is synthesized by methylation of morphine. (2) Latex of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug ‘Heroin’ (3) Hashish as well as ganja are known for their effects on cardiovascular system of the body. (4) Cannabinoids being abused by sportsperson. are a For Answers & Solutions Please visit our website: www.aakash.ac.in ‘Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011-47623456