MCQs MBA

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OMBC – 101 - Principles & Practices of Management - Assignment – 1
Instructions –
Number of Questions – 20
Maximum Marks – 20
Each question carries 1 Mark.
All questions are compulsory.
Attempts – 1
1) Which one of the following statements is correct?

• Planning and controlling are essentially one and the same
• Planning and controlling are not same.
• Controlling is a part of the planning process.
• A control process is meaningless without pre-set goals.
2) Can you comment - "Authority delegation is a means of directing".

• this is absolutely true
• this is not possible
• it depends on organisational policy
• it depends on type of organisation
3) For which of the following, the Owner of the business is not responsible for?
• Preparing objectives
• Mission to carry over business
• Decision making
• Environmental conditions
4) Find the incorrect option with reference to characteristics of Information.

• is a form of unprocessed data.
• increases reliability and accuracy.
• is a basis for growth and expansion.
• source of invention and research.
Downloaded by Komal Basantani (komalbasantani3@gmail.com)

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5) What is SIPOC?
• means Seller, Input, Process, Output and Customer
• means Suppliers, Input, Performance, Output and Customer
• means Suppliers, Input, Process, Output and Customer
• means Suppliers, Input, Process, Output and Celluloid
6) Name the Industry which uses natural resources as raw material.

• Primary Industries
• Secondary Industries
• Tertiary
• Quaternary Industry
7) Which of the following is not an element of directing?

• Supervision
• Communication
• Leadership
• Inspection
8) Which out of the following is not the supervisory skills

• Setting standards
• Increasing efficiency
• Controlling
• Monitoring
9) Which function of management tells how to conducts the activities in

organisation.
• Planning
• Directing
• Organizing
• Controlling
10) Which of the following does not include Directing?

• Giving instruction & Guiding
• Ruling,
• Counselling
• Motivating and leader

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11) Summarize this statement in ONE word - "A place where people come together,
organize and co-ordinate activity to achieve some specific goal".
• Business
• Organization
• Management
• Corporate
12) Explain the concept of "Co-operative "briefly.

• Is a for-profit business owned by two or more people.
• The owner of the business has unlimited liability for the debts incurred by the
business.
• Is a limited liability business that has a separate legal personality from its
members.
• Is a limited liability business that can organize for-profit or not-for-profit.
13) Identify an option that is NOT among the components of a business.

• Owner
• Employees
• Competitors
• Customers
14) Interpreted the" Production Function" of business organisation.

• This is a process where raw material and other resources are put to use.
• Sale of goods produced by production department
• Finding out right vendor for raw material supplies.
• Equipping with other resources like material, technology, finance etc.
15) Management is as ______________term.

• Economical
• Sociological
• Interdisciplinary
• Mathematical
16) The industry which uses natural resources as raw material is______________.
• Primary Industries
• Secondary Industries
• Tertiary
• Quaternary Industry

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17) _______&________ are the two key factors of sound and healthy group
environment.
• Motivation and interaction
• Interaction and motivation
• Interaction and Communication
• Motivation and innovation
18) Manager is not always responsible to Motivates, supervises, co-ordinates work

of Employees.
• True
• False
19) According to VED analysis, stock is categorised as Variable, effective and

desirable.
• True
• False
20) According to Hersey and Blanchard manager need to follow the different
leadership styles as per subordinates’ maturity level.
• True
• False

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Assignment – 2
Instructions – Assignment 2 is based on the following text/paragraph of case

study/situational exercise etc. You first need to read this text and then answer the
following MCMR i.e. Multiple choice multiple response questions.
Each question carries 2 Mark
All Five Questions are Mandatory.
Attempts – 1
Mr Kumar is a Recruitment Manager in Mafoi Pvt Ltd. At the beginning of the new
year, he anticipated that the company would need 15 new additional persons to fill up
different vacancies. he gave an advertisement in the newspaper inviting applications for
filling up different vacant posts. As many as 75 applications were received. The same
were scrutinized. Out of these, conditions of 15 applicants were not acceptable to the
company. Letters of regret, giving reasons, were sent to them. Remaining candidates
were called for preliminary interview. The candidates called for were asked to fill up
blank application forms. Thereafter, they were given four tests. The objective of the
first test was to find out how much interest the applicant takes in his work. The objective
of the second test was to find out ‘specialization’ of the applicant in any area. Third test
aimed at making sure whether the applicant was capable of learning through training or
not. The purpose of the fourth test was to find out how much capability a person has to
mix-up with other persons, and whether he/she can influence other persons and get
influenced by them.
1) The purpose of the fourth test was to find out how much capability a person has
to mix-up with other persons, and whether he/she can influence other persons
and get influenced by them. Which tests is indicated in this situation.
• Skill test
• Personality Test
• Numerical Test
• Trade Test

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2) At the beginning of the new year, he anticipated that the company would need
15 new additional persons to fill up different vacancies. Identify the two initial
steps of staffing.
• Promotion
• Training and Development
• Matching
• Need analysis
3) From the given lines from the paragraph, ‘Out of these, conditions of 15
applicants were not acceptable to the company.’ Letters of regret, giving reasons,
were sent to them. Which aspect of staffing is highlighted in the statement?
• Matching
• Performance appraisal
• Selection
• Training
4) The applicants were given four tests like intelligent test to interest test after
filling up blank application form. Identify which step of selection process was
followed by the management.
• Selection Tests
• Selection Decision
• Job Offer
• Medical Examination
5) Which are important phases of human resources in the organisation

• Changing Phase
• Acquisition and development Phase
• Organising Phase
• Retention and Termination Phase

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OMBC – 102 - Organizational Behaviour - Assignment – 1

Instructions –
Attempts – 1
1) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a bureaucratic organisation?

• Authority
• Regulations
• Command structure
• Change
2) Who is most associated with the Hawthorne studies?

• Professor Hawthorne
• Professor Elton Mayo
• Fritz Roethlisberger and William Dickson
• Max Weber
3) What is the human relations movement?

• A theory trying to get everyone to get on better with each other.
• An academic movement who studies the social relations between people and
the human factors of management.
• A view that says you do not need to pay people more to get them to work harder.
• A new approach to teamwork.
4) Who had developed Scientific Management approach?

• Elton Mayo
• Henry Fayol
• F.W. Taylor
• Maslow

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5) Which of the following is not an example of common stereotyping?

• Age
• Politics
• Social
• Perceptual
6) "The process by which the perception of a person is formulated on the basis of a

single favourable or unfavourable trait or impression, where other relevant
characteristics of that person are dismissed" compare this statement with one of
the following processes.
• clouded judgment
• the angel effects
• the halo effects
• stereotyping
7) Which of the following is NOT an internal motivational force?

• Goals
• Needs
• Attitude
• Feedback
8) Who has introduced X and Y theory

• Mc Gregor
• Peter Drucker
• Henry Fayol
• FW Taylor
9) Which character belong to Theory Y employee

• They enjoy their work and take initiative
• Always boring and avoid workload
• Needs to be guided
• Must be forced
10) Choose the most significant management skill out of the followings.
• Technical, Human and Conceptual
• Technical, behavioural and Conceptual
• Systematic, Human and Conceptual
• Technical, Human and cognitive

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11) Which of the Following is the feature of Autocratic model of Organization.

• Employees are treated as partner
• Employee decision is considered
• Employees are treated as assets
• Employees decision is not considered
12) What is the trait approach to personality?

• Assumes that people are motivated by unconscious emotional conflicts
• Assumes that each individual has stable personality characteristics
• Assumes that people’s thoughts and beliefs are central to personality
• Assumes that people have an innate tendency to become self-actualized
13) Type A personality –

• Tends to be aggressive
• Relaxed.
• Uncompetitive.
• Tend to be calm.
14) When in perceiving stimuli or phenomena, the tendency is to keep certain

phenomena in focus and other phenomena in background this phenomenon is
one of the following.
• Perceptual organization
• Perceptual context
• Subminimal perception
• Figure-ground
15) Forces for and against change can exist both inside and outside an organization.
• True
• False
16) The encouragement by corporations of their employees' participation in a local

fund-raising campaign is an example of a socially responsible business activity.
• True
• False

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17) A planned change of the formally prescribed task and authority relationships in
an organization's design is called a structural change.
• True
• False
18) Communication is a _____exchange process.

• one way
• three ways
• two ways
• four ways
19) The _____ is a shared system of meaning among employees.

• Organizational systems
• Collective sensemaking
• Organizational culture
• Cultural sensitivity
20) The term "organizational culture" is considered _____, while "job satisfaction"
is _____.
• evaluative, objective
• subjective, descriptive
• descriptive, evaluative
• objective, subjective

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Assignment – 2

Attempts – 1
Ice Cool Private Limited was an ice cream manufacturing company employing about
100 persons including persons at various levels of management Because of increasing
business, the company needed to strengthen its accounting procedure particularly
through computerisation. For this purpose, the company decided to hire a new manager,
designated as assistant business manager The company invited applications through
press advertisement. After receiving the applications, it appointed a selection committee
consisting of members of top management including business manager Rakesh Mohan.
The committee interviewed several candidates and finally selected Bishwash as new
assistant business manager. Bishwash was neat, well dressed and quite articulate.
Bishwash joined the company immediately and started working very hard. He used to
put extra efforts and even worked during holidays as he did not have any family
responsibility. He gained the reputation of being a dedicated and competent employee,
his strong point being his knowledge of accounting and computer system. He was
reporting to Rakesh Mohan, the business manager who was quite impressed with his
working. At that time, the company had no computer system, and its accounting
procedures were in need of considerable improvement. Anil Kumar, the managing
director of the company, directed Rakesh Mohan to get the needful done. Since most of
accounting work related to scales, no Separate accounting department existed and the
work was performed under the direction of business manager. Bishwash was mainly
appointed to strengthen the accounting aspects of the business. He was asked to prepare
a project so that necessary changes can be made. In order to get the first-hand
information about the problem, Bishwash began meeting regularly with Anil Kumar
without the knowledge of Rakesh Mohan. There was no attempt to have secret meeting
– Anil Kumar would just call Bishwash in for a report without bothering to tell Rakesh
Mohan. The management team, whose members were with the company for a quite long
period, had formed a tight-kait group and appeared satisfied with the company. They
all worked together and the company prospered in spite of fierce competition. The
meetings between Anil Kumar and Bishwash continued and Rakesh Mohan was
audially losing contact with the project and its progress. In fact, Bishwash was almost
porting directly to the managing director though he was placed under business manager
and trained his title of assistant business manager. Rakesh Mohan was now visibly upset

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over the development and was also concerned about Bishwash's spreading share of
influence. He started feeling down in the company.
1) Predict the situation which will arise because of Mr. Bishwash reporting to Mr.
Rakesh?
• Power conflict
• Hierarchical problems
• Proper coordination
• Better communication
2) How could Mr. Rakesh Mohan prevent the Bishwash’s assumption of power
and how specifically could it be done?
• Maintaining hierarchy in reporting
• Centralised decision making
• Trust
• Loyalty
3) Suggest the course of action now available to Anil Kumar, Rakesh Mohan and
Bishwash?
• Tall structure organization
• Matrix organization
• Defining roles and responsibility of every individual
• Decentralization
4) What could be the organizational situation in the above case?

• Blame Game
• Proper coordination
• Doubtful environment
• Better communication
5) Analyse the mindset of Mr. Bishwash and Mr. Anil Kumar

• Superiority complex
• Feeling down
• Trust in between
• Team building in between

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OMBC – 103 - Management Accounting - Assignment – 1
Instructions –
Attempts – 1
1) Which year the term management accounting was first coined in?
• 1950
• 1945
• 1955
• 1960
2) Which are those rules of action or conduct which are adopted by the accountants
universally while recording accounting transactions?
• Accounting Principles
• Accounting Conventions
• Both
• Accounting Practice
3) Why are goods sold on credit?

• Assets increase
• Assets decrease
• One asset increases and other asset decrease
• Increase in Sales

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4) As per company's Act 1956 all companies must maintain their accounts on basis
of –
• Accrual method
• Accrual and Double entry
• Double entry
• Single entry
5) Which of the following cost is also known as overhead cost or on cost:

• Cost of direct labour
• Cost of indirect labour
• Direct expenses
• Indirect expenses
6) ABC analysis is used in

• CPM
• PERT
• Inventory control
• Receivables management
7) What does the term contribution refer to

• The difference between selling price and fixed cost
• The difference between selling price and variable cost
• Loss
• Profit
8) What is the primary purpose of using a standard cost system is

• to make things easier for managers in the production facility.
• to provide a distinct measure of cost control.
• to minimize the cost per unit of production.
• to find out predetermined sales
9) Relate how ABC analysis divides an organization's on-hand inventory into three
classes based upon
• annual dollar volume.
• the number of units on hand.
• unit price.
• annual demand.

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10) What does the standard cost card contain quantities and costs for
• direct material only.
• direct labour only.
• direct material and direct labour only.
• direct material, direct labour, and overhead.
11) A man who is involved in the process of book keeping and accounting is called
a/an
• Accountant
• Finance Manager
• Data entry operator
• Finance head
12) The quantity of material to be ordered at one time is known as

• EOQ
• BOQ
• Re-order
• Minimum order
13) Opportunity cost does not involve

• cash outflow
• cash inflow
• Cash outlay
• cash fluctuations
14) What are broad general assumptions which underline the periodic financial
statements of business enterprises?
• Accounting concepts
• Accounting Conventions
• Accounting Principles
• Accounting Practice

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15) ______________________ is a common base for preparing a trial balance.

• Ledger accounts
• General Journal
• Specialized Journal
• Balance Sheet
16) All costs are classified under ______ segments under absorption costing.
• Five
• Six
• Four
• Three
17) __________ indicates the extent of which the sales can be reduced without
resulting in loss.
• BEP
• Key factor
• Contribution
• Margin of safety
18) Accounting equation may not hold for every transaction.

• True
• False
19) Auditor's Report is a part of Annual Report.

• True
• False
20) Resource sacrificed or forgone to achieve specific objective is called as Cost.

• True
• False

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Assignment – 2

Attempts – 1
Read the following case study and answer questions
Samarth and Jayesh started with Cash 10,000 and Machinery 1,00,000. They decided
to set up a production line for PPE kits for the protection from Covid 19 virus. As their
demand rose, they decided to buy one more piece of machinery. For the same, they took
bank overdraft and purchased the machinery. The quality of the company’s product was
extremely high and therefore, it could develop a reputation for itself in the market and
business was flourishing. After 1.5 years, their old machinery turned obsolete so they
decided to sell the same. They sold it and got some cash proceeds. To further increase
the brand presence among the concerned stakeholders, they decided to run
advertisements from the cash proceeds of machinery sold. As more and more customers
demanded their product, they decided to launch a discount for bulk purchases. The
discount was not to be recorded in the books of accounts. This campaign was successful
and they earned a lot of profits from the same.
1) Which type of discount is being discussed in the last part of the passage & which
type of Investment is discussed in the first passage?
• Trade discount
• Cash discount
• Initial Capital Investment
• Bank Overdraft

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2) Identify the asset which is discussed in the line, “The quality of the company’s
product was very high and therefore, it could develop a reputation for itself in
the market and business was flourishing”? also state that Machinery is known as
which asset?
• Tangible
• Intangible
• Current
• Fixed Asset
3) Choose which type of liability is discussed in the passage & in which Form it
is?
• Non-current
• Current
• Bank Overdraft
• Bank Loan
4) Identify the capital initially invested in the form of Cash & Machinery.
• 10,000
• 1,00,000
• 1,10,000
• 1,50,000
5) Identify the Concept on which the case is depend.

• Capital Receipts
• Revenue Receipts
• Initial Capital Investment
• Assets

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OMBC - 104 - Managerial Economics - Assignment – 1
Instructions –
Attempts – 1
1) What is the reason that marginal cost increases if output of the firm increases for
a typical firm?
• diseconomies of scale
• minimum efficient scale
• the law of diminishing returns
• normal profit exceeds economic profit
2) In which type of market structure there are no barriers to entry?

• perfect competition
• oligopoly
• monopoly
• Monopolistic competition
3) Which of the following is the distinguishing characteristic of monopolistic

competition?
• Large number of firms
• Low entry barriers
• Product standardization
• Product differentiation

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4) Which of the following is correct in case of perfect competition?

• the marginal revenue curve and the demand curve facing the firm are
identical.
• the marginal revenue curve is always above the demand curve facing the firm.
• the marginal revenue curve is always below the demand curve facing the firm.
• the marginal revenue curve intersects the demand curve when marginal revenue
is minimized.
5) Choose the relevant time period if firms can neither enter nor leave an industry.
• Short run
• Intermediate run
• Long run
• Immediate run
6) Which of the following alternative is true with regards to short run production
function?
• all resources are fixed
• the level of output is fixed
• the size of the production plant is variable
• at least one resource is fixed and others are variable
7) Which of the following statements about a fixed input is true?

• Its price is fixed
• The quantity of it that a firm can use in the long run is fixed.
• The quantity of it that a firm can use in the short run is fixed.
• The quantity of output that the firm can produce with it is fixed.
8) Which of the following statements about demand curves is TRUE?

• If price falls and quantity demanded increases, this is represented by a
movement along a given demand curve.
• If price falls and quantity demanded increases, this is represented by a shift of
the demand curve.
• If price falls and quantity demanded increases, this can be represented by either
a movement along a given demand curve, or a shift of the demand curve.
• If price falls and quantity demanded increases there is neither a movement along
the demand curve nor shift in the demand curve.

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9) Which of the following is NOT a determinant of the demand for good X?

• The income of consumers who buy good X.
• The cost of labour used to produce good X.
• The price of good Y, a complement to X.
• The number of buyers of good X.
10) What would happen if cookies are a normal good and incomes increase?
• An increase in equilibrium price and a decrease in equilibrium quantity.
• A decrease in equilibrium price and an increase in equilibrium quantity.
• A decrease in equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity.
• An increase in equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity.
11) Which of the following form basis for derivation of supply curve?
• The preferences of consumers of that good.
• The income of consumers of that good.
• The marginal cost of producing that good.
• The marginal product of producing that good.
12) Which of the following will NOT shift the market supply curve of good X?
• A change in the cost of inputs used to produce good X.
• A change in the technology used to produce X.
• A change number of sellers of good X.
• A change in the price of good X.
13) When deciding how much of a particular good to purchase, a consumer should
• Keep buying more units until the total benefits equal the total costs.
• Always buy at additional unit if its marginal net benefit is positive.
• Keep buying more units if marginal cost is greater than marginal benefit.
• Always buy at additional unit if its marginal benefit is positive.
14) Which of the following can we infer if following a decrease in the supply of
good X, we observe that the price of good Y decreases.
• Good X is an inferior good.
• Goods X and Y are complements.
• Goods X and Y are substitutes.
• Good Y is an inferior good.

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15) Production Possibility Frontier (PPF) is also termed as Production Possibility

Curve (PPC).
• True
• False
16) Demand refers to the willingness or capability of individuals to buy a product at

a particular price.
• True
• False
17) Inclined the slope of the demand curve, higher the elasticity of demand.
• True
• False
18) Macroeconomics is the study of ___________________

• Individual building blocks in the economy
• The relationship between different sectors of the economy
• Household purchase decisions
• The economy as a whole
19) If the income of a buyer increase, his demand for inferior goods will _______
• Increase
• Decrease
• Doesn't change
• Unity
20) Macroeconomics deals with ________________.

• economic aggregates.
• behaviour of firms.
• activities of individual units.
• behaviour of a particular market.

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Assignment – 2

Number of Questions – 5.
Attempts – 1
In a perfect competition market structure, there is a large number of buyers and

sellers. All the sellers of the market are small sellers in competition with each other.
There is no one big seller with any significant influence on the market. So, all the firms
in such a market are price takers. The demand curve perceived by seller is horizontal
and Marginal and Revenue curves coincide with demand curve. Any attempt from seller
to increase the price would make his demand to zero. There are certain assumptions
when discussing the perfect competition. This is the reason a perfect competition market
is pretty much a theoretical concept. Monopolistic Competition is a more realistic
scenario that actually occurs in the real world. In monopolistic competition, there are
still a large number of buyers as well as sellers. But they all do not sell homogeneous
products. The products are similar, but all sellers sell slightly differentiated products.
Now the consumers have the preference of choosing one product over another. The
sellers can also charge a marginally higher price since they may enjoy some market
power. So the sellers become the price setters to a certain extent. For example, the
market for cereals is a monopolistic competition. The products are all similar but
slightly differentiated in terms of taste and flavours. Another such example is
toothpaste. In monopolistic competition, demand curve is the Average Revenue (AR)
curve. In perfect competition, Marginal Revenue (MR), price and AR are equal and
constant. On the other hand, in imperfect competition (monopolistic competition,
monopoly and oligopoly), MR is less than price and AR. In an oligopoly, there are only
a few firms in the market. While there is no clarity about the number of firms, 3-5
dominant firms are considered the norm. So, in the case of an oligopoly, the buyers are
far greater than the sellers. The firms in this case either compete with another to
collaborate together, they use their market influence to set the prices and in turn
maximize their profits. So, the consumers become the price takers. The demand curve
is kinked, Due to the kink in the demand curve of the oligopolist, his MR curve is
discontinuous at the level of output corresponding to the kink. In an oligopoly, there are
various barriers to entry in the market, and new firms find it difficult to establish
themselves. In a monopoly type of market structure, there is only one seller, so a single

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firm will control the entire market. It can set any price it wishes since it has all the
market power. Consumers do not have any alternative and must pay the price set by the
seller. The demand curve for a monopoly firm is downward sloping as any increase in
price will cause the quantity demanded to decline. However, it is not horizontal as in
the case of perfect competition because the goods have no perfect substitutes, and the
monopoly firm is the sole producer of the good. The marginal revenue curve for the
monopoly firm lies below its demand curve. It shows the additional revenue gained
from selling an additional unit. Monopolies are extremely undesirable. Here the
consumer loses all their power and market forces become irrelevant. However, a pure
monopoly is very rare in reality.
1) Which of the following are true in relation to monopoly?

• A large number of sellers
• Only one seller
• Close Substitute available in the market
• Firm is price maker
• Firm is price taker
2) In which market MR may become zero or negative?

• Monopoly
• Perfect Competition
• Monopolistic Competition
• Oligopoly
3) Which of the following are true about perfect competition?

• Perfect competition does not exist in real world.
• Demand Curve is downward sloping.
• MR curve lies below AR Curve.
• Demand curve coincides with the price line.
4) Which of the following are true in relation to perfect competitions?

• AR curve indicates price
• AR Curve and Demand Curve are the same
• Many sellers but only one buyer
• Each Seller can influence market
• Each seller can decide the price of his product.

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5) Which of the following are true in relation to monopolistic competition?

• Homogenous products
• Differentiated products
• Only one seller
• Many Sellers
• Faces horizontal demand curve

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OMBC – 105 - Business Communication - Assignment – 1
Instructions –
Attempts – 1
1) Which of the following is not the element of communication process?

• Feedback
• Reinforcement
• Medium
• Interaction
2) Select the objective of marketing is to inform the customer about availability of

• Product and services
• Raw materials and machineries
• Loan and EMI
• Discounts and offers
3) Office communication is based on rules and regulations and hence it requires

• Knowledge of Employees
• Knowledge of office etiquette
• Knowledge of systems and procedures
• Knowledge of language
4) With which system, it is possible to spread a written word all over the world.
• Telex and Fax
• Mobile and Email
• Postal and Courier
• Mobile and Fax

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5) Select the correct option for, 'Business Communication is always'

• Purposeful
• Fruitful
• Aimless
• Pleasant
6) In supplier-oriented communication, what is not generally required.

• Ineffective Communication
• Winning Communication
• Energetic Communication
• Persuasive Communication
7) House magazines can really be useful for

• Strengthening Relations
• Disturbing Relations
• Dividing Unions
• Dividing Industrial Relations
8) What is the purpose of preparation of hand bill?

• Use as quality document
• Use as packing slip
• To Explain the product
• To wrap the product
9) Choose what a correspondence can be supported with

• Graphs, Charts, Pictures
• Graphs, Pictures
• Charts, Graphs
• Pictures, Charts
10) Bill boards are supposed to be used for a

• Small Entertainment
• Big Entertainment
• Small period of time
• Long period of time

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11) In which literature lot of communication in words is used along with pictures
and colours.
• Sales literature
• Bio-data
• Appointment letters
• Termination letters
12) In vertical communication, what is preferred?

• Email Address
• Telephone Number
• Address
• Designation
13) Which of the mentioned is an example of picture communication.

• Video
• Vlogs
• Wall Painting
• Blogs
14) Downward communication can be done with

• Subordinates
• Bosses
• Colleagues
• Relatives
15) One of the important areas of knowledge for communication is . . . . . . . . .

• Reading Skills
• Writing Skills
• Language
• Understanding Skills
16) If you are learning business communication, start reading ____

• Business Reports
• Business Newspapers
• Business Magazines
• Audited Statements

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17) In the times of ____ you assume someone else's responsibility for the same
organization.
• Difficulty
• Simplicity
• Routine
• Complexity
18) One of the objective of communication is communication should be clear and

brief.
• True
• False
19) In barriers, most of the barriers are through human handling and one has to try
to change human handling.
• True
• False
20) Whatever information you have promised should not be delivered in time.
• True
• False

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Assignment – 2

Attempts – 1
Monsooned Rebecca works with United Technologies, a Chicago based company. She
is talking on the phone to Anubhav, the manager of one of United Technologies vendors
for customer service outsourcing. Rebecca – We really need to get all of the customer
service representatives trained on our new process in the next two weeks. Can you get
this done? Anubhav – That timeline is pretty aggressive. Do you think it’s possible?
Rebecca – I think it will require some creativity and hard work, but I think we can get
it done with two or three days to spare. Anubhav – Ok. Rebecca – Now that our
business is settled, how is everything else? Anubhav – All’s well, although the heavy
monsoons this year are causing a lot of delays getting around the city. Two weeks later,
Anubhav – We’ve pulled all of our resources and I’m happy to say that 60% of the
customer service representatives are now trained in the new process. The remaining
40% will complete the training in the next two weeks. Rebecca – Only 60%? I thought
we agreed that they all would be trained by now! Anubhav – Yes. The monsoon is now
over so the rest of the training should go quickly. Rebecca – This training is critical to
our results. Please get it done as soon as possible. Anubhav – I am certain that it will
be done in the next two weeks.

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1) What communication challenges between Rebecca and Anubhav?

• By the looks of its Rebecca is quite assertive and Anubhav gave in to the Idea of
reducing the timeline for Learning and Development.
• At Rebecca’s insistence Anubhav gave quite a meek response by just saying,
“OK”.
• This is the best example of 2-way communication which shows the Robert
Craig’s Communication generative process that creates the social world. Here
Rebecca and Anubhav have a good communication Cycle and are seen working
collaborating towards communication
• Both Rebecca and Anubhav are showing good Active listening Skills and
Conflict Management Skills. The area of interpersonal communication is
well covered in the above conversation.

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2) What possible solutions that Rebecca and Anubhav can use to overcome the
communication Challenges.
• When Rebecca asserted that she would like to complete the training in 2
weeks, she was not certain how that can be achieved. In fact, she responded
by just saying that we will have to be creative and work hard. Here if
Anubhav knew that the timeline is aggressive, he could have come to a
consensus with Rebecca. When people are uncertain, they often look at
others for taking an informed decision. Here Anubhav could have placed a
certain example of how completing the training in the stipulated time would
be good for operational success.
• Since the SOP has mandated the normal training duration will be more than
2 weeks. Agreeing to an aggressive timeline will be counterproductive.
Example of how the previous trainings were successful, would have given
Anubhav the extra time needed to ensure all the employees required for the
process are trained. This consistency would have persuaded Rebecca to not
rush the training.
• Rebecca did not used the principle of Authority to persuade where, as a client
she influenced Anubhav to reduce the training timeline.
• There are many types of interpersonal skills that they may want to acquire, so
with great interpersonal skill they might be able to speak so that people will
listen, decode body language, negotiate easily, be charismatic this is just a small
change that is ethical and costless to implement.

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3) Which are the communication styles that Anubhav can use to motivate
employees.
• Anubhav can have a relaxed mind to communicate with a few with whom
he wants to build a lasting professional relationship in the team. This will
help the core team members become comfortable in the functioning of the
team. This core team with relaxed communication will work with
enthusiasm and energy.
• Most communication with a group is always reactionary and the group might not
think of the long-term advantages. In a group the interests in the short term are
more acceptable. Anubhav can keep away the group members from long term
thinking and go on disclosing from time to time, only as much information that
is required for functioning.
• The practice of exchange for mutual benefit will be an important factor in
the motivation of the employees. Anubhav can communicate how the
successful launch of this process can lead to expansion and promotions.
Thus, highlighting the focus and communicating the commitment to a better
future at office.
• If Anubhav wants to establish Leadership in his communication, he must step up
his communication towards paternalism (trust and diplomacy). He must
negotiate a reasonable level of results and expectation from all employees.

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4) In case of a delay in training how can Anubhav minimize the learning and
development module completion
• Hiring freshers will save money for the organization The freshers always
welcome innovative, new and fresh ideas with an instinct to learn further.
Moreover, they would ventilate their perspective which might have been unseen
or undiscovered by any other current staff. Although Anubhav will have to spend
some extra time and energy in training the inexperienced staff on the process.
• Hiring through referrals is a method that helps the company fill up vacant
positions through the current employees, this way the company empowers
the current employees to act as brand ambassadors. Attracting top talent
through the peer network make the companies communication and the team
communication strategies easier. There is always a clarity in goals keeps all
the team members motivated and enthusiastic. The team is brimming with
confidence due to open and clear communication. This way Anubhav can
attract experienced professionals to reduce the training time.
• Advertisements will be the key to inform people inside and outside about the
vacant positions. Anubhav can use various media to advertise and hire
experienced professionals this way the training program duration can be reduced.
From improving employer brand awareness to generating a consistent pipeline
of talent, a solid recruitment advertising strategy can be a great way to attract,
engage, and nurture both active and passive candidates throughout the candidate
journey.
• One of the main benefits of employee training is that opportunities for
learning and career growth increase employees’ levels of job satisfaction.
When you provide learning opportunities, your employees can apply their
new skills and take on new challenges at work, which improves their level
of enthusiasm for their job.

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5) What is the Effectiveness of Meetings?

• Anubhav and Rebecca spoke with specific background information. All of
the discussion was done and they came to the meeting prepared.
• The focus of the discussion was on the solution and Anubhav agreed for
early conclusion of process training having kept an open mind.
• Reduction of training time has to be debated and make a careful assessment of
the impact of reduced training time. This action will have an impact on
Technical, Operational, Financial and Commercial aspects of the process. Thus,
a Collection of Expert views will give a collective understanding of the impact
of reduced training time and thus contributing to the decision-making process.
• The most important aspect missing in the communication between Anubhav and
Rebecca Participative decision making. Here all the participants could come
together and take a genuine collective decision.
10

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OMBC – 106 - Research Methodology - Assignment – 1
Instructions –
Attempts – 1
1) Research can be conducted by a person who –

• has studied research methodology
• holds a postgraduate degree
• possesses thinking and reasoning ability
• is a hard worker
2) Evaluation research is related with

• How well are we doing?
• What are we doing?
• Why are we doing?
• When we are doing?
3) Name the data of research

• Qualitative only
• Quantitative only
• Quantitative & Qualitative only
• Research qualitatives
4)What is the main goal of Descriptive research?

• Carried out to test and validate the study of hypotheses
• Describe the data and characteristics about what is being studied
• Exploratory research is used to gain a deeper understanding of the issue or
problem
• Studies explore the effect of one thing on another and more specifically

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5) Marketing research that can be considered conclusive includes all of the

following Except
• Search of secondary data
• Statistical Analysis
• Experimentation
• Simulation
6) What is a cross-sectional design?

• A comparison of two or more variables longitudinally
• A design that is devised when the researcher is in a bad mood.
• The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time.
• Research into one particular section of society, e.g., the middle classes.
7) If a study is "reliable", this means that –

• the methods are outlined in the methods discussion clearly enough for the
research to be replicated.
• the measures devised for concepts are stable on different occasions.
• the findings can be generalized to other social phenomena
• it was conducted by a reputable researcher who can be trusted.
8) What is "Internal validity"

• whether or not there is really a causal relationship between two variables.
• whether or not the findings are relevant to the researchers' everyday lives.
• the extent to which the researcher believes that this was a worthwhile project.
• how accurately the measurements represent underlying concepts.
9) Explain The term 'external validity' is concerned with –

• the question of whether the results of a study can be generalized beyond the
specific research context.
• whether the research question is judged to be a good research question by those
outside the study.
• the question of whether or not social scientific findings are applicable to people's
every day, natural social settings.
• an ambiguous concept whose meaning depends on how it is defined.

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10) Explain the term cross-sectional design?

• A comparison of two or more variables longitudinally
• A design that is devised when the researcher is in a bad mood.
• The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time.
• Research into one particular section of society, e.g., the middle classes.
11) Survey research is cross-sectional and as a result, it is

• Low in internal validity but high in replicability.
• High in internal validity but low in reliability.
• None of the above
• High in ecological validity but low in external validity.
12) What does the term 'longitudinal design' mean?

• A study completed far away from where the researcher lives.
• A study which is very long to read.
• A study with two contrasting cases.
• A study completed over a distinct period of time to map changes in social
phenomena.
13) Out of following, presents a problem, discusses related research efforts, outlines
the data needed for solving the data and shows the design used to gather and
analyse the data.
• Research Question
• Research Proposal
• Research Design
• Research Methodology
14) Cross cultural studies are an example of –

• Longitudinal design
• Comparative design
• Experimental design
• Case study design
15) The _____________ of the hypothesis would necessarily involve testing the
statistical significance of the hypothesized relation.
• Validation
• Testing
• Reliability

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16) A __________________ is written in such a way that it can be proven or

disproven by valid and reliable data.
• Hypotheses
• Testing
• Reliability
17) _______________ includes specifying the population to be studied, the

sampling process and plan, sample size and selection.
• Research Design
• Research proposal
• Literature review
• Research methods
18) Whether a hypothesis is an assumption or a statement that may or may not be

true.
• True
• False
19) The hypotheses that are proposed with the intent of receiving a rejection for
them are called null hypotheses.
• True
• False
20) Rejection of null hypotheses leads to the acceptance of alternative hypotheses.

• True
• False

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Assignment – 2
Instructions –
Assignment 2 is based on the following text/paragraph of case study/situational exercise
etc. You first need to read this text and then answer the following MCMR i.e. Multiple
choice multiple response questions.
Attempts – 1
Research design refers to the plan or strategy used to carry out a study or research
project. It involves making decisions about how data will be collected, analyzed, and
interpreted in order to answer a specific research question or test a hypothesis. A well-
designed research study is essential for obtaining valid and reliable results. There are
several types of research designs, including – Experimental design – This type of
research design involves manipulating an independent variable to observe its effects on
a dependent variable. Participants are usually randomly assigned to different groups,
such as an experimental group and a control group. The goal of experimental design is
to establish causality. Correlational design – Correlational design involves measuring
the relationship between two variables, such as height and weight, or education level
and income. This type of research design does not establish causality but can identify
associations between variables. A researcher can find the value of dependent variable
given the value of independent variable/s. Quasi-experimental design – Quasi-
experimental design is similar to experimental design, but it does not involve randomly
assigning participants to groups. Instead, groups are formed based on pre-existing
characteristics or circumstances. This type of research design is useful when random
assignment is not feasible. Survey design – Survey design involves collecting data from
a sample of participants through questionnaires or interviews. This type of research
design is useful for gathering information about attitudes, opinions, beliefs, or
behaviours. Case study design – Case study design involves studying a single
individual, group, or organization in depth. This type of research design is useful for
understanding complex phenomena or situations in real-life contexts. Longitudinal
design – Longitudinal design involves collecting data over time from the same group
of participants. This type of research design is useful for studying changes in behaviour
or attitudes over time. Cross-sectional design – Cross-sectional design involves
collecting data at a single point in time from different groups of participants. This type
of research design is useful for comparing different groups or populations. Mixed–
methods design – Mixed-methods design involves using both quantitative and
qualitative research methods in the same study. This type of research design is useful
for obtaining a more complete understanding of a phenomenon. In conclusion, the

lOMoARcPSD|29593412
choice of research design depends on the research question, the type of data to be
collected, and the resources available. A well-designed research study is essential for
obtaining valid and reliable results.
1) Which of the following is/are true about experimental design?

• It involves manipulating a dependent variable
• It involves randomly assigning participants to groups
• It allows for causal inferences
• It is appropriate for studying naturally occurring phenomena
2) Which of the following is/are true about correlational design?

• It involves measuring the relationship between two variables
• It can be used to predict one variable based on another
• It involves manipulating an independent variable
3) Which of the following is/are true about quasi-experimental design?

• It involves randomly assigning participants to groups
• It is appropriate for studying naturally occurring phenomena
4) Which of the following is/are true about survey design?

• It involves collecting data from a sample of participants
• It can be used to measure attitudes, beliefs, and behaviours
5) Which of the following is/are true about case study design?

• It involves studying a single individual, group, or organization
• It can provide in-depth information about a specific phenomenon

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OMBC – 107 - Environmental Awareness & Disaster Management - Assignment

–1
Instructions –
Attempts – 1
1) Find The fuel resources which will provide more sustained, cost-effective and
eco- friendly energy.
• Mineral fuel resources
• Conventional fuel resources
• Natural gas fuel resources
• Non-conventional fuel resources
2) Choose the weather condition when rain, snow, or hail fall from the sky.
• Precipitation
• Nitrogen
• Air
• Whether
3) Which micro-organisms helps in formation of soil?

• Bacteria
• Moss
• Lichens
• Erosion
4) Which country became the largest consumer of energy in the world, overcoming
the US In 2010?
• India
• China
• Australia
• Japan

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5) How much percent of the Earth’s water resources are oceans (saltwater).
• 0.8
• 0.9
• 0.95
• 0.975
6) Why burning waste is not an acceptable practice of solid waste management?

• Because it is very costly
• Because it requires modern technologies
• Because it causes several environmental issues
• Because it requires lot of space
7) Which city receive the highest rainfall in the country?

• Cherrapunji
• Pune
• Delhi
• Raipur
8) How the rainwater harvesting can be done?

• By collecting rainwater on the rooftops
• Discharging Water
• Borewell
• Spray
9) Which of the following is an effect of noise pollution?

• Sleeping disorder
• Asthma
• Lung cancer
• Hepatitis
10) What are the problems associated with air pollution?

• Deforestation
• Respiratory problems
• Soil erosion
• Sanitation

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11) Which river needs cleaning and is considered most polluted in India?
• Brahmaputra
• Kaveri
• Chenab
• Ganga
12) Taj Mahal is getting affected due to what kind of pollution?

• Noise pollution
• Soil Pollution
• Air pollution
• Water pollution
13) This is taking care of the situation before the disaster takes place is called
• Disaster Management
• Pre-disaster management
• Post-disaster management
• Management
14) Which is the substance in large quantities that plays a major role in the depletion
of ozone?
• Chlorofluorocarbons
• Nitrogen
• Carbon dioxide
• Chlorine
15) The water from well is clean and pure, as it is filtered naturally through layers
of soil, clay, and rock.
• True
• False
16) As water reaches the ground due to rain or other precipitation, some water does
not stick to the topmost surface layer.
• True
• False
17) Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) contains a wide variety of materials.

• True

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• False
18) Water is strived of oxygen by decomposition of dead algae is known as
___________.
• Eutrophication
• Decomposition
• Transpiration
• Aeration
19) A pond, which is a small-sized ecosystem are also known as

• Micro ecosystem
• Ecosystem
• Pond
• Small
20) Coal is popularly in colour as ___________.

• White
• Yellow
• Green
• Black
21) _______________ can be recycled many times.

• Plastic
• Wood
• Organic materials
• Aluminium
22) Electric vehicles will help to prevent the____________ pollution.

• Air
• Water
• Thermal
• Marine
23) In …..............India participated in the conference at the United Nations held in

Stockholm.
• 1972
• 1973
• 1974
• 1975

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24) What is the collection of rainwater for the use of people called __________
• Pumping of rainwater
• Digging for rainwater
• Rainwater harvesting
• Collection of rainwater
25) Due to global warming, the glacier and the ice on mountain are ____________
• Melting slowly
• Melting fast
• Safe
• Not Melting
26) Land filling is an economic alternative for solid waste disposal and it can be
implemented easily.
• True
• False
27) A sewage treatment plant is a point source of water pollution.

• True
• False
28) The State Board can also apply to the court to restrain industries from emissions
that exceed the prescribed limits.
• True
• False
29) Earthquakes is natural Disaster.

• True
• False
30) The decreasing temperatures are altering the trend of snowfall and rainfall with
severe storms affecting countries across the world.
• True
• False

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Assignment – 2

following MCMR i.e., Multiple choice multiple response questions.
All Ten Questions are Mandatory.
Attempts – 1
Paragraph – 1
Delhi, the capital of India, has been grappling with severe water pollution for several
years now. The city's water bodies, including the Yamuna River, have been
contaminated with toxic chemicals, sewage, and industrial waste, making it unsafe for
human consumption. The primary cause of water pollution in Delhi is the discharge of
untreated sewage and industrial effluents into the water bodies. The city's sewage
treatment plants are outdated, and their capacity is inadequate to treat the enormous
volume of sewage generated every day. As a result, much of the sewage ends up in the
Yamuna River, contaminating it with harmful bacteria and viruses. Another significant
source of water pollution in Delhi is industrial effluents discharged into the river. The
city is home to several industrial areas where various manufacturing processes take
place, resulting in the release of toxic chemicals and heavy metals into the water bodies.
The impact of water pollution on the health of the people living in Delhi is severe. The
contaminated water is a breeding ground for diseases such as cholera, typhoid, and
hepatitis the poor and marginalized sections of the society, who do not have access to
clean drinking water, are the most affected by the water pollution crisis. The
government and civil society organizations have taken several steps to address the issue
of water pollution in Delhi. The government has initiated various programs to upgrade
the sewage treatment plants and reduce the discharge of untreated sewage into the water
bodies. The industrial sector has also been mandated to install effluent treatment plants
to treat their wastewater before releasing it into the rivers. Additionally, several civil
society organizations have been working to create awareness among the citizens about
the importance of water conservation and pollution control. They have been organizing
campaigns to clean the water bodies and promote sustainable water usage practices.
Water pollution in Delhi is a severe issue that requires urgent attention and action from
all stakeholders. The government, industry, and citizens must work together to
implement sustainable solutions that can reduce the contamination of the city's water
bodies and ensure access to safe drinking water for all.

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1) Which pollutant Yamuna River making it unsafe for human consumption?

• Toxic chemicals
• Sewage
• Water
• Nothing
2) What is the impact of water pollution on the health of the people living in Delhi?
• Cholera
• Typhoid
• Sugar
• Heart attack
3) What is the primary cause of water pollution in Delhi?

• Untreated sewage
• Industrial effluents
• Transport
• Traffic
4) Civil society organizations have been working to create awareness among the
citizens regarding
• Water conservation
• Pollution control
• Idea
• Nothing
5) What are the various programs government has initiated?

• Upgrade Sewage treatment plants
• Reduce the discharge of untreated sewage into the water bodies
• Sports
• Nothing

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Paragraph – 2
Kanpur, a city in the northern Indian state of Uttar Pradesh, has been plagued by severe
air pollution for several years. The city's rapid industrialization and urbanization have
resulted in the emission of high levels of pollutants, including particulate matter,
nitrogen oxides, and sulphur dioxide. A recent study conducted by the Indian Institute
of Technology (IIT) Kanpur found that the city's air quality has deteriorated
significantly over the past few decades. The study attributed the rise in air pollution to
industrial emissions, vehicular traffic, and burning of agricultural waste. The primary
causes of air pollution in Kanpur are industrial activities, vehicular emissions, and open
burning of waste. Kanpur is known for its leather industry, which is a major source of
air pollution. The industry generates a large amount of hazardous waste and releases
toxic gases into the air, contributing significantly to the city's air pollution levels. The
city's transport system heavily relies on diesel-powered vehicles, which release high
levels of particulate matter and nitrogen oxides into the air. The burning of waste in
open areas, including plastics and other non-biodegradable materials, is also a
significant contributor to the city's air pollution levels. The high levels of air pollution
in Kanpur have led to several adverse health effects, including respiratory diseases,
heart disease, and cancer. The city's air pollution levels have exceeded the safe limits
prescribed by the World Health Organization (WHO), leading to an increase in hospital
admissions and deaths due to air pollution-related illnesses. The pollution has also
impacted the local environment, including the deterioration of water quality and soil
fertility. To address the air pollution problem in Kanpur, the government and other
stakeholders have taken several measures. The government has implemented stricter
regulations for industries, including the closure of polluting units and the installation of
pollution control devices. The city has also introduced a public transport system,
including electric buses and cycle-sharing initiatives, to reduce the number of diesel-
powered vehicles on the roads. The government has also launched campaigns to raise
awareness about the harmful effects of air pollution and encourage residents to adopt
eco-friendly practices, including waste segregation and composting. 0
1) What are the primary sources of air pollution in Kanpur?

• Vehicular emissions
• Industrial emissions
• Rain
• Pollution
2) How has air pollution affected the health of people in Kanpur?

• Increased respiratory problems
• River
• Increased cases of heart disease
• No effect

lOMoARcPSD|29593412
3) What steps have been taken to address air pollution in Kanpur?

• Ban on burning of biomass
• Air Filter
• Implementation of vehicle emission standards
• Initiative
4) What can individuals do to reduce air pollution in Kanpur?

• Use public transport
• Plant trees
• Nothing
• Vehicle
5) Which two cities in India is facing severe air pollution problems?

• Mumbai
• Delhi
• Kanpur
• Bangalore

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OMBC – 101 - Principles & Practices of Management - Assignment – 1

1) Which one of the following statements is correct?

2) Can you comment - "Authority delegation is a means of directing".

4) Find the incorrect option with reference to characteristics of Information.

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6) Name the Industry which uses natural resources as raw material.

7) Which of the following is not an element of directing?

8) Which out of the following is not the supervisory skills

9) Which function of management tells how to conducts the activities in

10) Which of the following does not include Directing?

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12) Explain the concept of "Co-operative "briefly.

13) Identify an option that is NOT among the components of a business.

14) Interpreted the" Production Function" of business organisation.

15) Management is as ______________term.

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18) Manager is not always responsible to Motivates, supervises, co-ordinates work

19) According to VED analysis, stock is categorised as Variable, effective and

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Instructions – Assignment 2 is based on the following text/paragraph of case

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5) Which are important phases of human resources in the organisation

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OMBC – 102 - Organizational Behaviour - Assignment – 1

1) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a bureaucratic organisation?

2) Who is most associated with the Hawthorne studies?

3) What is the human relations movement?

4) Who had developed Scientific Management approach?

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5) Which of the following is not an example of common stereotyping?

6) "The process by which the perception of a person is formulated on the basis of a

7) Which of the following is NOT an internal motivational force?

8) Who has introduced X and Y theory

9) Which character belong to Theory Y employee

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11) Which of the Following is the feature of Autocratic model of Organization.

12) What is the trait approach to personality?

13) Type A personality –

14) When in perceiving stimuli or phenomena, the tendency is to keep certain

16) The encouragement by corporations of their employees' participation in a local

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18) Communication is a _____exchange process.

19) The _____ is a shared system of meaning among employees.

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Instructions – Assignment 2 is based on the following text/paragraph of case

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4) What could be the organizational situation in the above case?

5) Analyse the mindset of Mr. Bishwash and Mr. Anil Kumar

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OMBC – 103 - Management Accounting - Assignment – 1

3) Why are goods sold on credit?

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5) Which of the following cost is also known as overhead cost or on cost:

6) ABC analysis is used in

7) What does the term contribution refer to

8) What is the primary purpose of using a standard cost system is

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12) The quantity of material to be ordered at one time is known as

13) Opportunity cost does not involve

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15) ______________________ is a common base for preparing a trial balance.

18) Accounting equation may not hold for every transaction.

19) Auditor's Report is a part of Annual Report.