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As we have entered in a new year 2024 with so much of hope, enthusiasm and
commitment, let’s take a pledge to keep ourselves CONSISTENT in learning & practice
throughout the year. I know you people are very much serious about your studies,
the only thing which lacks is irregularities. Let’s beat this being regular. Take it as
your RESOLUTION.

Just to boost your confidence in your preparation, on the first day of 2024 this is a
small gift for you.

This is a FREE PDF for all of you which carries a total 2024 questions of both Prelims
& Mains. I hope this small effort from our side will help all my champions on the first
day of new year to get a positive kick start.

Wish You a Very Happy & Successful Year 2024


All the Best
Blessings
चूँकि हम बहुत अधिि आशा, उत्साह और प्रधतबद्धता िे साथ नए वर्ष 2024 में प्रवेश िर चुिे हैं, आइए परे वर्ष
सीखने और अभ्यास में खुद िो धथथर रखने िा संिल्प लें। मैं जानता हं कि आप लोग अपनी पढाई िो लेिर
बहुत गंभीर हैं, िे वल एि चीज िी िमी है वह है धनयधमतता िी। आइए इसे धनयधमत होिर हराएूँ। इसे अपने
जीवन में एि बडा धविास िरने िे धलए 2024 िे धलए अपने सबसे बडे संिल्प िे रूप में लें।

आपिी तैयारी में आत्मधवश्वास बढाने िे धलए, 2024 िे पहले कदन यह आपिे धलए एि छोटा सा उपहार है।

यह आप सभी िे धलए एि FREE PDF है धजसमें प्रीधलम्स और मेन्स दोनों िे िु ल 2024 प्रश्न हैं। मुझे उम्मीद है
कि हमारी ओर से यह छोटा सा प्रयास नए साल िे पहले कदन मेरे सभी चैंधपयनों िो सिारात्मि शुरुआत देने
में मदद िरे गा।

Wish You a Very Happy & Successful Year 2024


All the Best
आशीवाषद

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Number Of Page
S. No. Topic
Questions Number
1. Alphanumeric Series 100 7
2. Coding Decoding 100 21
3. Inequality 100 34
4. Syllogism 100 51
5. Blood Relation 50 74
6. Direction Distance 50 82
7. Miscellaneous (Prelims) 24 90
8. Seating Arrangement (Prelims) 400 94
9. Puzzle (Prelims) 400 127
Seating Arrangement & Puzzle
10. 400 167
(Mains)
11. Miscellaneous (Mains) 300 264
Total 2024

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CHAPTER - 1 ALPHANUMERIC SERIES

Directions (1-5): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
1NB25ZXA6DEH9P8MN73Y
1. Which of the following is 7th to the left of 16th from the left end?
(a) 6 (b) D (c) A
(d) E (e) None of these
2. If 1 is added to all the even digit, then which of the following is 15th from the left end?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) P
(d) 9 (e) M
3. If all the consonants are replaced by the next letter as per the English alphabetical order, then
which of the following is 3rd to the right of 18th from the right end?
(a) X (b) Z (c) 7
(d) A (e) D
4. Which of the following is 10th to the left of 5th from the right end?
(a) X (b) Z (c) A
(d) 6 (e) None of these
5. If all the even digit is increased by 1 and then all the numbers are arranges in descending order
from left to right and followed by alphabet letters, then which of the following is 6th to the left of
9th from the right end?
(a) 2 (b) 9 (c) 1
(d) 5 (e) 3

Directions (6-10): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
WRY COB MUG GYM ARE ROE
6. If all the words are arranged in dictionary order from left to right, then how many words remain
unchanged in their position?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) More than three (e) None
7. If the position of first and third letters are interchanged within the word, then how many new
words thus formed will give meaningful words?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) More than three (e) None
8. If the odd position letters(within the word) are replaced by its immediate next letter and even
position letters (within the word) are replaced by its immediate previous letter in the English
alphabetical series, then how many words thus formed will have at least one vowel?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) More than three

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9. If the position of the first and the second letter are interchanged within the words and then the
words are arranged in dictionary order from right to left, then which of the following word is
second from the left end?
(a) GYM (b) ROE (c) MUG
(d) WRY (e) None of these
10. If all the words are written continuously without any gap, then how many vowels are there each
of which is immediately preceded by a constant which comes first half of the English alphabetical
series?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) More than three (e) None

Directions (11-15): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
CAN ART ONE YOU MAY
11. If all the letters are arranged in the alphabetical order from the left end within each word, then
how many words begin with vowels?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) More than four
12. If, in each word, all the consonants are changed to the next letter as per the English alphabetical
order, then how many words will have more than one vowel?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) None
13. If the first letters of each word are combined to form five-letter meaningful words using all the
letters only once, then how many meaningful words can be formed?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) None
14. If the words are arranged in the dictionary order from left to right, then which of the following
word will be fourth from the right end?
(a) CAN (b) ART (c) YOU
(d) MAY (e) ONE
15. If the second and the third letters are interchanged within each word, then how many words thus
formed will end with a vowel?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) None

Directions (16-20): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
766 304 683 542 642
16. If 3 is added to the third digit of each number, then the first and the third digit get interchanged,
then what is the difference between the second highest and second lowest numbers?
(a) 168 (b) 157 (c) 109
(d) 135 (e) 144

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17. If all the digits in each number are arranged in ascending order within the number, then which
of the following number will be divisible by 4?
(a) 766 (b) 642 (c) 542
(d) 304 (e) 683
18. Find the difference between the number which is divisible by 3 and the number which is divisible
by 6 in the given series?
(a) 78 (b) 32 (c) 44
(d) 56 (e) None of these
19. If 1 is added to the second digit of each number and the second and first digits get interchanged
within the number and the first and third digits get interchanged within the number, then which
of the following number is the third highest?
(a) 642 (b) 304 (c) 766
(d) 683 (e) 542
20. What will be the resultant if the third digit of the second highest number gets multiplied by the
first digit of the lowest number?
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 9
(d) 15 (e) 10

Directions (21-25): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
358 456 517 269 754
21. If all the digits are arranged in the descending order within the number, then which of the
following number is the second-highest number?
(a) 517 (b) 754 (c) 358
(d) 456 (e) None of these
22. If the odd positioned digits within the numbers are added by one, then how many numbers are
divisible by 3?
(a) Three (b) One (c) Two
(d) More than three (e) None
23. If the first two digits are interchanged within the number, then which of the following number is
the third least number?
(a) 269 (b) 754 (c) 358
(d) 456 (e) None of these
24. If the last two digits of the numbers are replaced with its product, then how many numbers
obtained are prime numbers (single-digit products are written with zero preceding it)?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) More than three (e) None
25. If the first and the last digits of each number are interchanged and then the numbers are arranged
in the ascending order from left to right, then which of the following number will be second from
the right end?
(a) 269 (b) 754 (c) 358
(d) 456 (e) None of these

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Directions (26-30): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
345 721 925 163 249
26. If the digits are written in the ascending order within each number from the left end, then which
of the following number will be the third-lowest number?
(a) 345 (b) 721 (c) 925
(d) 163 (e) 249
27. If the second digit of the lowest number is added with the third digit of the second-highest
number, then which of the following will be the resultant?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8
(d) 9 (e) 10
28. If the position of the first and the third digits is interchanged within each number, then what
would be the sum of the second-lowest and the third-highest number thus obtained?
(a) 980 (b) 895 (c) 1485
(d) 890 (e) 468

29. If all the even digits in each number are dropped, then how many numbers will be exactly
divisible by 5?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) None
30. If all the numbers are arranged in the descending order from left to right, then what will be the
product of the second digit of the second number from the left end and the third digit of the
second number from the right end?
(a) 18 (b) 9 (c) 10
(d) 5 (e) None of these

Directions (31-35): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
286 948 567 763 842
31. If all the digits are written in the ascending order within the number, then which of the following
number will be the highest number?
(a) 367 (b) 268 (c) 489
(d) 567 (e) 248
32. If the second digit of each number is dropped and the first and the last digits are interchanged,
then which of the following will be the lowest number?
(a) 286 (b) 948 (c) 567
(d) 763 (e) 842
33. If all the digits are added within the number, then how many resultants thus obtained are
divisible by three?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) None

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34. What is the sum of the second digit of the second-highest number and the third digit of the lowest
number?
(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 12
(d) 8 (e) 6
35. If the first and the second digits of each number are interchanged and then all the numbers are
arranged in the ascending order from left to right, then which of the following number is second
from the right end?
(a) 948 (b) 286 (c) 763
(d) 842 (e) 567

Directions (36-40): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
SAD DOG NOD PAY CUB
36. If the letters of all the words are arranged in the alphabetical order without any gap from left end
(including the letters that appear twice) and every third letter from the left end is removed, then
which is the tenth letter from the right end in the final series?
(a) A (b) O (c) G
(d) C
37. How many such words are there in the series in which the second and the third letters have at
least ten letters in between them in the English alphabetical series?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
(d) 1 (e) None
38. If “E” is added after the last letter of each word, then how many words thus formed are
meaningful?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) None
39. If all the vowels are removed and the rest of the letters are written continuously from the left end
in the same order, then which of the following letter is seventh from the right end in the final
series?
(a) D (b) G (c) S
(d) N (e) P
40. If all the letter are arranged in the alphabetical order from left to right within each word and the
words thus formed are arranged in the dictionary order from left to right, then which of the
following word will be the second from the right end?
(a) DOG (b) NOD (c) CUB
(d) PAY (e) SAD

Directions (41-45): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
965 496 325 716 582
41. What is the product of the first digit of the lowest number and the second digit of the second-
lowest number?
(a) 63 (b) 72 (c) 30
(d) 27 (e) 24

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42. If the position of the first and the last digits of all the numbers are interchanged, then how many
numbers thus formed will be divisible by three?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) None
43. If the first and the last digits of the number are added and the difference of the sum and the second
digit is obtained, then which of the following resultant is the highest number?
(a) 965 (b) 496 (c) 325
(d) 582 (e) 716
44. If all the digits of the numbers are written in the descending order within the number, then which
of the following number will be the second-highest number?
(a) 965 (b) 582 (c) 325
(d) 496 (e) 716
45. If all the digits of the numbers are written in the ascending order within the number, then which
of the following number will be the third-lowest number?
(a) 965 (b) 582 (c) 325
(d) 496 (e) 716

Directions (46-50): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
QMJUPBTNCEXHIPTUCARXSNOJFLB
46. If every alternative letter is dropped from the series starting from Q, then how many consonants
are left in the new arrangement?
(a) Eight (b) Ten (c) Seven
(d) Eleven (e) Nine
47. If the first eleven letters from the left are replaced by the immediate preceding letter and the
remaining are replaced by the immediate succeeding letter according to the alphabetical series,
then how many vowels are there in the new arrangement?
(a) Five (b) Six (c) seven
(d) Four (e) More than seven
48. The number of letters to the left of the third vowel from the right end is same as the number of
letters between M and ___?
(a) R (b) C (c) A
(d) T (e) X
49. What will be the third preceding letter according to the alphabetical series of the seventh letter
to the left of A?
(a) T (b) V (c) U
(d) S (e) W
50. Which among the following letter is ninth to the left of the sixth letter from the right end?
(a) H (b) I (c) P
(d) X (e) T

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Directions (51-55): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
€8β62G£YM¥B9N5AO∑U@H$#3®E7J&%4∞
51. If all the consonants and even numbers are removed from the series, then how many numbers
are there which are immediately followed by a symbol?
(a) One (b) Three (c) Two
(d) More than three (e) None
52. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement?
€β6 Y¥B A∑U (?)
(a) H2# (b) H@$ (c) #®E
(d) UYG (e) None of these
53. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a vowel and immediately followed by an even number?
(a) One (b) None (c) Three
(d) Two (e) Four
54. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter?
(a) Three (b) Two (c) None
(d) One (e) Four
55. Which of the following element is the 12th to the right of the 10th element from the left end in
the above arrangement?
(a) 2 (b) # (c) H
(d) W (e) None of these

Directions (56-60): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
4WY56@$4&TE5*^L6*HKL89@5$F6#5L&MN6
56. If the eight middle elements are reversed which of the following element is tenth to the right of
the one which is ninth from the left end of the arrangement?
(a) * (b) 6 (c) K
(d) L (e) None of these
57. If the first half of the series is reversed and similarly the second half is also reversed, then which
of the following element is 14th to the right of 5th element from the extreme left end of the row?
(a) * (b) L (c) H
(d) 6 (e) None of these
58. If even numbers are deleted from the series then how many letters are immediately followed by
a symbol?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Less than three
(d) More than four (e) None of these

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59. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Find the odd one out?
(a) W6& (b) Y @ & (c) H85
(d) F5M (e) None of these
60. Which element is third to the right of the element which is seventh to the left of the one which is
second from the extreme right end of the series?
(a) 9 (b) 5 (c) @
(d) L (e) None of these

Directions (61-65): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
234 456 542 182 684
61. If the 1st digit of each number is interchanged with the 3rd digit within the number, then which
number becomes the highest?
(a) 234 (b) 542 (c) 182
(d) 456 (e) 684
62. If all the digits in each number are arranged in descending order within the number, then which
of the following numbers will become the third lowest?
(a) 456 (b) 234 (c) 684
(d) 182 (e) 542
63. What is the sum of the 2nd digit of the largest number and 1st digit of the second smallest
number?
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12
(d) 6 (e) None of these
64. What is the product of the 3rd digit of the second largest number and 2nd digit of the smallest
number?
(a) 16 (b) 12 (c) 10
(d) 8 (e) None of these
65. If the second and the third digits of each number is interchanged and then all the numbers are
arranged in descending order from the right end. What will be the sum of third and fourth number
from the left end?
(a) 860 (b) 1124 (c) 989
(d) 1123 (e) None of these

Directions (66-70): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
725 524 693 472 319 267
66. If one is subtracted from the lowest digit in each given numbers and then all the digits in each
number are arranged in descending order then which of the following number is third highest
number?
(a) 319 (b) 471 (c) 267
(d) 725 (e) None of these

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67. If the first and second digits of each number are interchanged and then numbers are written with
their digits in the reverse order, which number among the following will be the second lowest
number?
(a) 693 (b) 267 (c) 524
(d) 472 (e) None of these
68. Which of the following number will be obtained if the total of the first digit of the second highest
number and third digit of the lowest number is multiplied by the first digit of the second lowest
number?
(a) 26 (b) 56 (c) 13
(d) 39 (e) None of these
69. If each number is subtracted by 53, then how many numbers will be even number?
(a) None (b) Three (c) Four
(d) One (e) None of these
70. If one is added to each even digit and one is subtracted from each odd digit and then how many
numbers so formed will be exactly divisible by 2?
(a) Three (b) Two (c) More than three
(d) One (e) None of these

Directions (71-75): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
JY2=S*&EGM!7$HP9KL%@WQ13#CD^
71. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately
followed by a number or immediately preceded by a letter, but not both?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two
(d) Three (e) More than three
72. How many such letters are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately
followed by a number or immediately preceded by a symbol, but not both?
(a) None (b) Two (c) Four
(d) Six (e) More than six
73. How many such numbers are there each of which Is either immediately followed by a symbol or
immediately preceded by a letter, but not both?
(a) Five (b) Four (c) Three
(d) Two (e) None of these
74. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the positions of the elements in the
above arrangement and hence from a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) 2 Y C D (b) S 1 3 (c) J S ^ 3
(d) E 1 W (e) = # 2 C
75. 2 Y S is to E G * in the same way as P H K is to?
(a) W Q % (b) @ W L (c) @ % Q
(d) @ W K (e) None of these

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Directions (76-80): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
564378632354872398697342647
76. Find the number of numbers which are immediately preceded by an odd number but not followed
by an even number.
(a) Two (b) Six (c) Five
(d) Three (e) None of these
77. After dropping all the square numbers, which of the following will be fifteenth from the left end?
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 3
(d) 8 (e) None of these
78. What will be the resultant of addition of the fifth element from the right end and seventeenth
element from the left end after reversing the fifteen elements from the right end?
(a) 14 (b) 11 (c) 17
(d) 13 (e) None of these
79. How many odd numbers are there which are preceded by a perfect square?
(a) Two (b) Four (c) Three
(d) One (e) None of these
80. Which of the following is the middle digit of eight element from the left end and fourteenth
element from the right end?
(a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 5
(d) 8 (e) None of these

Directions (81-85): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
655 499 388 766 933
81. If all the digits in each number are arranged in ascending order within the number then how
many numbers will remain the same?
(a) Two (b) One (c) More than three
(d) Three (e) None of these
82. If the positions of the first and the second digit of each number are interchanged then what will
be the sum of all the digits of the lowest number thus formed?
(a) 13 (b) 15 (c) 17
(d) 21 (e) None
83. What will be the result if the first digit of the lowest number is multiplied by the third digit of the
second-lowest number?
(a) 24 (b) 32 (c) 27
(d) 15 (e) None of these
84. If all the numbers are arranged in descending order from the left to the right then which of the
following will be third from the right end?
(a) 933 (b) 499 (c) 766
(d) 655 (e) None

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85. None of these If one is subtracted from the first digit and two is subtracted from the third digit of
each of the numbers then which of the following will be the third digit of the largest number thus
formed?
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 2
(d) 0 (e) None

Directions (86-90): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
JSL SXD BAQ GNS RAC
86. If the first and the second letters of each word are interchanged then what is the difference
between the numerical values of the second letter of the second word and the third letter of the
fifth word from the left end?
(a) 13 (b) 19 (c) 16
(d) 14 (e) None of these
87. If each consonant in each word is changed to its next letter according to the alphabetical series,
then how many meaningful words will be formed?
(a) One (b) Five (c) Three
(d) Four (e) None of these
88. If each vowel of each word is changed to its next letter according to the alphabetical series then
how many meaningful words will be formed?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Four
(d) Three (e) None
89. If each letter in each of the word is arranged according to the alphabetical series, then which is
the second letter of the word, which is fourth from the right end?
(a) B (b) X (c) D
(d) S (e) None of these
90. If all the words are arranged according to the alphabetical series from the right to the left then
which of the following words is third from the left end?
(a) GNS (b) JSL (c) BAQ
(d) SXD (e) None of these

Directions (91-95): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
3216 4172 6241 8413 6152
91. If all the digits within each number are rearranged in the ascending order from left to right, then
which of the following number is the second largest number?
(a) 6152 (b) 3216 (c) 4172
(d) 8413 (e) None of these

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92. If ‘1’ is added to the first and the third digit and ‘2’ is added to the second and the fourth digit,
then how many newly formed four-digit numbers have more than one prime digit?
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 2
(d) 3 (e) None
93. If the first and the third digits and the second and the fourth digits are interchanged within the
number, then which of the following number is the second lowest number after rearrangement?
(a) 3216 (b) 6241 (c) 6152
(d) 4172 (e) None of these
94. If all the digits within each number are rearranged in the descending order from left to right, then
what is the difference between the highest and the lowest number after rearrangement?
(a) 3710 (b) 1900 (c) 2110
(d) 200 (e) None of these
95. If the last digit of each number is removed, then how many numbers thus formed will be divisible
by 3?
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 2
(d) 3 (e) None

Directions (96-100): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
GTH RNM QLP DXY KSA
96. When first and second letter of each word is interchanged, then how many meaningful word will
be formed?
(a) Two (b) Four (c) Three
(d) Five (e) No meaningful word is formed
97. If each consonant is changed to previous letter in the alphabetical series and each vowel is
changed to next letter in the alphabetical series, then how many word contains at least two
vowel?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2
(d) 3 (e) 4
98. If words are arranged according to the alphabetical order from left to right then which word is
third from the right end?
(a) KSA (b) RNM (c) GTH
(d) DXY (e) QLP
99. If each letter in each word is arranged according to the alphabetical order from left to right then
how many meaningful word will be formed?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2
(d) 3 (e) 4
100. How many letters gap between second letter of third word from the left and third letter of
the second word from the right according to English alphabet?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 9
(d) 8 (e) 6

17
Solutions
Solutions (1-5)
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (e)
Solutions (6-10)
6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (e) 9. (c) 10. (c)
Solutions (11-15)
11. (e) 12. (d) 13. (e) 14. (a) 15. (c)
Solutions (16-20)
16. (b) 17. (e) 18. (e) 19. (d) 20. (c)
Solutions (21-25)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (e) 25. (c)
Solutions (26-30)
26. (e) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
Solutions (31-35)
31. (d) 32. (e) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (c)
Solutions (36-40)
36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (a)
Solutions (41-45)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (e) 44. (d) 45. (b)
Solutions (46-50)
46. (e) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (b)
Solutions (51-55)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (b)
Solutions (56-60)
56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (b)
Solutions (61-65)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (c)
Solutions (66-70)
66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (c)
Solutions (71-75)
71. (d) 72. (e) 73. (b) 74. (e) 75. (b)
Solutions (76-80)
76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (c)
Solutions (81-85)
81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (d) 85. (b)

18
Solutions (86-90)
86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (e) 89. (d) 90. (b)
Solutions (91-95)
91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (b)
Solutions (96-100)
96. (e) 97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (a) 100.(b)

***

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19
CHAPTER - 2 CODING – DECODING

Directions (1-5): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
In a certain code language,
“Things always matter life” is written as “bat dfi lea kae”
“Time makes precious life” is written as “vet kae roh frt”
“Matter changes often ever” is written as “rja sea bat yfo”
“Precious things secured ever” is written as “sea vet dfi xdr”
1. What is the code for the phrase “secured matter” in the given coded language?
(a) dfi bat (b) dfi kae (c) xdr bat
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
2. Which of the following phrase denotes the code “roh lea” in the given coded language?
(a) Always time (b) Things makes (c) Always makes
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
3. If “subject tough often” is coded as “sdf rja otn”, then what is the code for the word “changes” in
the given coded language?
(a) yfo (b) rja (c) bat
(d) sea (e) None of these
4. Which of the following phrase denotes the code “kae vet” in the given coded language?
(a) Precious life (b) Life Matter (c) Always makes
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
5. What is the code for the word “Things” in the given coded language?
(a) bat (b) dfi (c) xdr
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these

Directions (6-10): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
In a certain coded language,
“Good friends stays forever” is written as “sgr kow nfg oae”
“Friends never retain negativity” is written as “mge kow fgq oit”
“Positive mind cleans negativity” is written as “xfg ior mge sae”
“Good mind never fails” is written as “qvr oae oit ior”
6. Which of the following phrases represent the code “ior kow” in the given code language?
(a) Negativity forever (b) Mind friends (c) stay negativity
(d) Never friend (e) Cannot be determined
7. What is the code for the phrases “retain fails” in the given code language?
(a) qvr mge (b) ior oit (c) oae kow
(d) qvr fgq (e) Cannot be determined

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8. Find the code for the phrase “never cleans” in the given code language?
(a) oit sae (b) xfg oit (c) fgq xfg
(d) Either b or c (e) Either a or b
9. If the code for “Relation stays” is written as “nfg hwe”, then which of the following word
represents the code “sgr” in the given code language?
(a) Stays (b) Good (c) Friends
(d) Forever (e) Cannot be determined
10. What is the possible code for the phrases “Cleans Forever” in the given code language?
(a) qvr mge (b) ior oit (c) sgr nfg
(d) sgr xfg (e) Cannot be determined

Directions (11-15): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain code language,
‘thread glass paper metal’ is coded as ‘dv gr ry pq’
‘paper plastic tin water’ is coded as ‘rx gr tf hb’
‘plastic tin glass thread ’ is coded as ‘dv ry rx tf’
‘glass tin water metal’ is coded as ‘pq rx hb ry’
11. What is the code for ‘glass’?
(a) dv (b) rx (c) ry
(d) gr (e) Cannot be determined
12. What is the code for ‘water thread’?
(a) gr, rx (b) rx, ry (c) pq, dv
(d) dv, hb (e) None of these
13. What can be the possible code for ‘solid tin’?
(a) de sp (b) ak zu (c) sw ql
(d) pr ty (e) rx ug
14. What is the code for ‘paper’?
(a) hb (b) gr (c) Tf
(d) Rx (e) Pq
15. Which of the following word is coded as ‘tf’?
(a) Metal (b) Paper (c) Plastic
(d) Tin (e) Water

Directions (16-20): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain coding language,
“Education is our right” is coded as “mn pt ls xa”
“Education is for all” is coded as “zb mn gk ls”
“We all take our education right” is coded as “nc gk pt ls xa sj”
“Right is to take education” is coded as “pt wh sj ls mn”

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16. What is the code for “Our education”?
(a) xa ls (b) xa mn (c) pt ls
(d) pt mn (e) zb mn
17. What is the code for “Take right”?
(a) sj wh (b) xa nc (c) sj pt
(d) nc ls (e) sj mn
18. What is the possible code for “Our right future”?
(a) xa wh pt (b) zb gk nc (c) mn pt gk
(d) ls mn wh (e) xa pt yl
19. What is the code for “We”?
(a) sj (b) nc (c) gk
(d) zb (e) Wh
20. What is the code for “All take education”?
(a) zb mn nc (b) gk pt nc (c) zb ls nc
(d) gk sj ls (e) gk sj mn

Directions (21-25): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain code language,
‘door flat robot server’ is coded as ‘rm dq os pk’
‘cast door print language’ is coded as ‘fz lz os ko’
‘loud print server table’ is coded as ‘zx ko rm xt’
‘grass focus loud flat’ is coded as ‘fu xt pk xd’
21. What will be the code for ‘print robot’?
(a) xd os (b) ko zx (c) rm dq
(d) ko dq (e) None of these
22. What may be the code for ‘loud music’?
(a) pk xt (b) xt os (c) lz zx
(d) zx xt (e) xt zj
23. What is the code for ‘language cast flat’?
(a) fz rm dq (b) pk rm dq (c) lz zx pk
(d) fz lz pk (e) None of these
24. Which word is coded as ‘xt rm’?
(a) loud server (b) print server (c) loud table
(d) language loud (e) None of these
25. Which word is coded as ‘xd fz’?
(a) server grass (b) table cast (c) cast grass
(d) language focus (e) Cannot be determined

22
Directions (26-30): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain code language,
“Precaution is better than cure” is coded as “xz pv lm ad tp”
“Always better to take care” is coded as “dy mn sq or ad”
“Precaution is to take care” is coded as “mn dy tp or xz”
“Cure is always better in care” is coded as “ad xz lm or za sq”
26. What is the code for “always better”?
(a) Dy ad (b) Or mn (c) Sq ad
(d) Ad mn (e) Mn dy
27. What is the code for “to”?
(a) Dy (b) Mn (c) Or
(d) Sq (e) Either ‘dy’ or ‘mn’
28. What is the code for “cure”?
(a) Pv (b) Im (c) Ad
(d) Xz (e) Tp
29. What is the code for “care is cure”?
(a) Or dy pv (b) Mn dy ad (c) Pv sq dy
(d) Or xz lm (e) Dy xz tp
30. What is the possible code for “medicine always better”?
(a) Fg sq ad (b) Mn za xz (c) Or lm tp
(d) Hj ik om (e) Fg mn za

Directions (31-35): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain code language
‘found many space system’ is coded as ‘jh gf ds aq’
‘radio found care place’ is coded as ‘yr et ds ko’
‘sound care system call’ is coded as ‘zx ko jh tv’
‘jail trap sound many’ is coded as ‘fu tv aq xd’
31. What will be the code for ‘care space’?
(a) xd ds (b) ko zx (c) jh gf
(d) ko gf (e) None of these
32. What will be the code for ‘jail’?
(a) yr (b) fu (c) Either fu/xd
(d) Either xd/tv (e) None of these
33. Which word is coded as ‘yr et’?
(a) Back sound (b) Radio place (c) Sound care
(d) Space radio (e) None of these

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34. What may be the code for ‘jail place many’ if ‘jumbo radio trap’ is coded as ‘tf xd yr’?
(a) jh ty cx (b) bx et yr (c) et fu qw
(d) fu et aq (e) ds aq tv
35. Which word is coded as ‘tv ds zx’?
(a) found care many (b) sound found call (c) many found call
(d) call system many (e) None of these

Directions (36-40): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
"Work give you opportunity" is coded as "po de mv ka"
"Opportunity to prove self" is coded as "li je vx mv"
"Self work not required" is coded as "de bn je hy"
"You prove as desired" is coded as "fm li ez po"
36. How is “work” coded in the given language?
(a) ka (b) po (c) de
(d) bn (e) je
37. “Opportunity” is coded as ___________
(a) bn (b) hy (c) mv
(d) fm (e) Cannot be determined
38. What could be the code for “to give you”?
(a) bn vx ka (b) hy po ka (c) mv po je
(d) vx po ka (e) None of these
39. Four from the following are similar in a certain way and form a group. Find out the one, which
does not belong to that group.
(a) Prove (b) Opportunity (c) Desired
(d) Self (e) You
40. What is the code for ‘Not Self’ if “give required” is coded as ka hy?
(a) bn je (b) bn li (c) je de
(d) fm vx (e) None of these

Directions (41-45): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain code language
‘Hindustan Times Hindu Statesman’ means ‘mtj itk lgv mop’,
‘Times Tribune Deccan Chronicle’ means ‘itk iew sog mks’,
‘Hindustan Tribune Business Standard’ means ‘mtj iew zox ksg’,
‘Financial Express Statesman Business’ means ‘lvt uky mop zox’
41. What does "lgv" represent in the given code language?
(a) Hindu (b) Statesman (c) Hindustan
(d) Times (e) Can’t be determined

24
42. What is the code for the phrase ‘Tribune Statesman’ in the given code language?
(a) iew mop (b) itk iew (c) zox itk
(d) mop itk (e) iew zox
43. What does 'mtj lvt ' represent in the given code language?
(a) Express Hindustan (b) Tribune Express (c) Hindustan Financia
(d) Either a or b (e) Either a or c
44. If “Deccan Business” represents a code “sog zox” then what does “mks itk” represent in the given
code language?
(a) Standard Express (b) Times Tribune (c) Chronicle Times
(d) Hindu Times (e) None of the above
45. What is the code for the phrase ‘Statesman Standard Tribune’ in the given code language?
(a) ksg mop lvt (b) lgv itk iew (c) lgv itk mtj
(d) mop mtj iew (e) mop ksg iew

Directions (46-50): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain language,
“Banks Primary Role Money” is coded as “P # J M @ Y Q $ T S & A”
“Capital Role Help Banks” is coded as “E $ N S & A M @ Y O # G”
“Help Saving Money Fund” is coded as “”Q $ T C & U O # G H @ Z”
“Primary Fund Role Borrow” is coded as “C & U S & A L @ X P # J”
46. Which among the following statement(s) is/are required to get the code for “Money Banks” in the
given code language?
(a) Only I and III (b) Only II and IV (c) Only I and IV
(d) Only II and III (e) Only III and IV
47. Which among the following phrase is coded as “Q$T H@Z” in the given code language?
(a) Primary Fund (b) Saving Role (c) Money Saving
(d) Help Bank (e) Role Money

48. What is the code for the word “Capital” in the given code language?
(a) M @ Y (b) S & A (c) # G
(d) C & U (e) E $ N
49. If “Borrow” is related to “L@X” and “Help” is related to “O#G” in the same way which among the
following is related to “C&U” in the given code language?
(a) Saving (b) Money (c) Role
(d) Primary (e) Fund
50. Which among the following word is required to get the code for “Fund Role” in the given code
language?
I). Primary
II). Money
III). Borrow
IV). Help
(a) Only I and III (b) Only II and IV (c) Only I and IV
(d) Only II and III (e) Only III and IV

25
Directions (51-55): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain code language,
'There is Park' is written as ‘nup yex ace’
'People in Schools' is written as ‘ybx cvu vcl’
'Several Schools Are Present There' is written as ‘cal del vuc ybx yex’
'Park is Dark' is written as ‘nup cig ace’
'Dark People in Several Park' is written as ‘vcl cal nup cig cvu’
51. What is the code for ‘is’ in the give code language?
(a) nup (b) cvu (c) cig
(d) ace (e) Either option A or D
52. What does the code ‘cal’ stand for in the given code language?
(a) People (b) Schools (c) Dark
(d) Present (e) Several
53. Which of the following could be the code for ‘all present park there’?
(a) del yex clu nup (b) cuv aec pun exy (c) clu exy gic pun
(d) uvc pun exy led (e) None of these
54. Which of the following is the code for ‘are there’?
(a) vuc yex (b) del vuc (c) del yex
(d) Can't be determined (e) Either option A or C
55. What could be the code ‘cig ybx gkl vcl’ stand for in the given code language?
(a) Dark In People There Park (b) Near People Dark Schools
(c) Schools Present There Park (d) People Set Park Schools
(e) None of these

Directions (56-60): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain code language,
“action packed night concert” is coded as “jio nul meb fot”
“star night out media” is coded as “ops hfa meb gul”
“media action report drama” is coded as “nul vis hfa dum”
“star strike media concert” is coded as “hfa gul fot sam”
56. Find the code for the word “strike out”?
(a) ops jio (b) ops sam (c) gul fot
(d) gul sam (e) Can't be determined
57. Which of the following codes could be a possible code for "packed goods"?
(a) vis jio (b) nul jio (c) gul tue
(d) jio anw (e) anw tue

26
58. What is the code for "drama night"?
(a) meb vis (b) dum nul (c) meb dum
(d) gul vis (e) Can't be determined
59. Code "dum" stands for which of the following?
(a) action (b) report (c) drama
(d) Either A or B (e) Either B or C
60. Code "ops gul" stands for which of the following?
(a) star night (b) strike night (c) out star
(d) out strike (e) Can't be determined

Directions (61-65): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain code language:
‘good to go’ is coded as ‘te fa pe’
‘my chance to’ is coded as ‘tm fa jt’
‘net pal good’ is coded as ‘pe vn bm’
‘rog net chance’ is coded as ‘cm jt vn’
61. What is the code for ‘chance’?
(a) jt (b) vm (c) bn
(d) cm (e) None of these
62. Which word is coded as ‘tm’?
(a) Net (b) Go (c) My
(d) Rog (e) None of these
63. What is the code for ‘net go’?
(a) pe jt (b) vn te (c) bm vn
(d) cm jt (e) None of these
64. Which word is coded as ‘bm pe fa’?
(a) my chance rog (b) pal rog to (c) pal good to
(d) good my go (e) None of these
65. What is the code for ‘go my net rog’?
(a) te tm vn jt (b) te tm fa pe (c) te tm vn cm
(d) te tm vn bm (e) None of these

Directions (66-70): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain code language,
‘start peace today self’ is written as ‘hp ml uw ee’,
‘system task start’ is written as ‘iq ml so’,
‘today task system’ is written as ‘iq so ee’,
‘task self tradition power’ is written as ‘so wu uw ty’.

27
66. What is the code for ‘peace’?
(a) ee (b) uw (c) ml
(d) hp (e) Either ml or hp
67. What does ‘wu’ stands for?
(a) task (b) self (c) power
(d) tradition (e) Either power or tradition
68. What will be the possible code for ‘task power system’?
(a) ty iq uw (b) wu so ml (c) iq wu ty
(d) ty so iq (e) so wu ee
69. What does ‘ml’ stands for?
(a) today (b) system (c) peace
(d) start (e) Cannot be determined
70. If ‘tradition is trust’ is coded as ‘mp de wu’, then what will be the code for ‘power’?
(a) so (b) uw (c) ty
(d) wu (e) Cannot be determined

Directions (71-75): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
“Hard way to win” is coded as “tas bas vas las”
“Smart way make win” is coded as “kas jas tas bas”
“Make way to money” is coded as “tas kas vas cas”
“Hard work to smart” is coded as “las vas das jas”
71. Which of the following is the code for ‘Hard’?
(a) bas (b) las (c) tas
(d) vas (e) None of these
72. Which of the following is the code for ‘Smart work’?
(a) tas-jas (b) bas-das (c) jas-das
(d) vas-las (e) None of these
73. Which of the following is the code for ‘money make win’?
(a) Jas-bas-kas (b) Cas-kas-tas (c) Tas-vas-las
(d) cas-kas-bas (e) None of these
74. Which of the following is the possible code for ‘Success to smart work’?
(a) mas-vas-jas-das (b) das-las-bas-kas (c) vas-das-las-bas
(d) las-kas-vas-tas (e) None of these
75. Which of the following is the code for ‘way’?
(a) bas (b) las (c) tas
(d) vas (e) None of these

28
Directions (76-80): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
‘how much do you care’ is coded as ‘su pt dp ma kt’
‘if you care enough’ is coded as ‘mi ma dp pe’
‘how will you grab’ is coded as ‘vc ma kt pv’
‘do grab enough clothes’ is coded as ‘cs pe pt vc’
76. What is the code for ‘will care’?
(a) Kt pv (b) dp ma (c) dp vc
(d) pv ma (e) dp pv
77. What is the corresponding word for the code ‘ma vc’?
(a) grab care (b) you clothes (c) grab enough
(d) you grab (e) None of these
78. Which of the following is coded as ‘do enough’?
(a) Pv pe (b) Pt pv (c) Pe pt
(d) Pe kt (e) None of these
79. What is the code for ‘how’?
(a) kt (b) su (c) pt
(d) ma (e) Cannot be determined
80. Which of the following can be code for ‘clothes much necessary’?
(a) SHy vc su (b) su hy cs (c) cs su pt
(d) ma cs su (e) None of these

Directions (81-85): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain code language,
‘thread glass paper metal’ is coded as ‘dv gr ry pq’
‘paper plastic tin water’ is coded as ‘rx gr tf hb’
‘plastic tin glass thread ’ is coded as ‘dv ry rx tf’
‘glass tin water metal’ is coded as ‘pq rx hb ry’
81. What is the code for ‘glass’?
(a) dv (b) rx (c) ry
(d) gr (e) Cannot be determined
82. What is the code for ‘water thread’?
(a) gr, rx (b) rx, ry (c) pq, dv
(d) dv, hb (e) None of these
83. What can be the possible code for ‘solid tin’?
(a) de sp (b) ak zu (c) sw ql
(d) pr ty (e) rx ug

29
84. What is the code for ‘paper’?
(a) hb (b) gr (c) Tf
(d) Rx (e) Pq
85. Which of the following word is coded as ‘tf’?
(a) Metal (b) Paper (c) Plastic
(d) Tin (e) Water

Directions (86-90): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain coding language,
“Education is our right” is coded as “mn pt ls xa”
“Education is for all” is coded as “zb mn gk ls”
“We all take our education right” is coded as “nc gk pt ls xa sj”
“Right is to take education” is coded as “pt wh sj ls mn”
86. What is the code for “Our education”?
(a) xa ls (b) xa mn (c) pt ls
(d) pt mn (e) zb mn
87. What is the code for “Take right”?
(a) sj wh (b) xa nc (c) sj pt
(d) nc ls (e) sj mn
88. What is the possible code for “Our right future”?
(a) xa wh pt (b) zb gk nc (c) mn pt gk
(d) ls mn wh (e) xa pt yl
89. What is the code for “We”?
(a) sj (b) nc (c) gk
(d) zb (e) Wh
90. What is the code for “All take education”?
(a) zb mn nc (b) gk pt nc (c) zb ls nc
(d) gk sj ls (e) gk sj mn

Directions (91-95): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain code language,
‘door flat robot server’ is coded as ‘rm dq os pk’
‘cast door print language’ is coded as ‘fz lz os ko’
‘loud print server table’ is coded as ‘zx ko rm xt’
‘grass focus loud flat’ is coded as ‘fu xt pk xd’
91. What will be the code for ‘print robot’?
(a) xd os (b) ko zx (c) rm dq
(d) ko dq (e) None of these

30
92. What may be the code for ‘loud music’?
(a) pk xt (b) xt os (c) lz zx
(d) zx xt (e) xt zj
93. What is the code for ‘language cast flat’?
(a) fz rm dq (b) pk rm dq (c) lz zx pk
(d) fz lz pk (e) None of these
94. Which word is coded as ‘xt rm’?
(a) loud server (b) print server (c) loud table
(d) language loud (e) None of these
95. Which word is coded as ‘xd fz’?
(a) server grass (b) table cast (c) cast grass
(d) language focus (e) Cannot be determined

Directions (96-100): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain code language,
“Precaution is better than cure” is coded as “xz pv lm ad tp”
“Always better to take care” is coded as “dy mn sq or ad”
“Precaution is to take care” is coded as “mn dy tp or xz”
“Cure is always better in care” is coded as “ad xz lm or za sq”
96. What is the code for “always better”?
(a) Dy ad (b) Or mn (c) Sq ad
(d) Ad mn (e) Mn dy
97. What is the code for “to”?
(a) Dy (b) Mn (c) Or
(d) Sq (e) Either ‘dy’ or ‘mn’
98. What is the code for “cure”?
(a) Pv (b) Im (c) Ad
(d) Xz (e) Tp
99. What is the code for “care is cure”?
(a) Or dy pv (b) Mn dy ad (c) Pv sq dy
(d) Or xz lm (e) Dy xz tp
100. What is the possible code for “medicine always better”?
(a) Fg sq ad (b) Mn za xz (c) Or lm tp
(d) Hj ik om (e) Fg mn za

31
Solutions
Solutions (1-5)
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b)
Solutions (6-10)
6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (e) 9. (d) 10. (e)
Solutions (11-15)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (e) 14. (b) 15. (c)
Solutions (16-20)
16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (e) 19. (b) 20. (d)
Solutions (21-25)
21. (d) 22. (e) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (e)
Solutions (26-30)
26. (c) 27. (e) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a)
Solutions (31-35)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (b)
Solutions (36-40)
36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (a)
Solutions (41-45)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (e) 44. (c) 45. (e)
Solutions (46-50)
46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (e) 49. (e) 50. (e)
Solutions (51-55)
51. (d) 52. (e) 53. (a) 54. (e) 55. (b)
Solutions (56-60)
56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (e) 59. (e) 60. (c)
Solutions (61-65)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (c)
Solutions (66-70)
66. (d) 67. (e) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (c)
Solutions (71-75)
71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (c)
Solutions (76-80)
76. (e) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (b)

32
Solutions (81-85)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (e) 84. (b) 85. (c)
Solutions (86-90)
86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (e) 89. (b) 90. (d)
Solutions (91-95)
91. (d) 92. (e) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (e)
Solutions (96-100)
96. (c) 97. (e) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100.(a)

***

Use Code - Y188 for Maximum Discount

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33
CHAPTER - 3 INEQULITY

Directions (1-5): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the
given statements and select the appropriate answer:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow
1. Statement:
N≥O≥R=S≤K≤L
Conclusions:
I). N > S
II). L > R
2. Statement:
J<M<Q≤I=K≤V>S=U>A
Conclusions:
I). Q ≤ V
II). V ≥ A
3. Statement:
Z>R>T=Y≥M<Q≥S≤I=H
Conclusions:
I). M ≤ Z
II). H < Y
4. Statement:
H≤Q≤T<Y<A=D≥I≥C≥M=B
Conclusions:
I). B ≤ A
II). H < D
5. Statement:
C≤Q<T<W=I≥F>J>G=M
Conclusions:
I). C > F
II). W > M

Directions (6-10): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the
given statements and select the appropriate answer:

34
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow
6. Statements:
Y > Q ≥ M = F > T; S < R = G ≤ M = P > J
Conclusions:
I). P ≤ Y
II). R ≤ F
7. Statements:
G ≤ E < M = I < A; S > R > B ≥ Q = W > A
Conclusions:
I). E < Q
II). B > M
8. Statements:
K ≥ Q = P ≤ J, Y > G ≤ J
Conclusions:
I). G ≥ Q
II). J > K
9. Statements:
D < F ≤ V > R, M > O, R ≤ C < M
Conclusions:
I). M > D
II). O < C
10. Statements:
A > E ≤ G, N = P > E, P ≤ V
Conclusions:
I). A > N
II). P > G

Directions (11-15): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in


the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on
the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow

35
11. Statement: P ≤ B < D ≤ M = K ≥ W = T ≥ R > S
Conclusions:
I. P ≤ K
II. M > R
12. Statements: J > K ≥ L > M ≥ N = O < P ≤ Q
Conclusions:
I. K > O
II. N < Q
13. Statements: A > B ≥ C = D ≥ E < F ≤ G = H
Conclusions:
I. B ≥ E
II. C > G
14. Statement: Z < Y ≤ X ≤ W = V ≥ U > T ≥ R = S
Conclusion:
I. Z< V
II. T≥ S
15. Statement: J > U < K ≤ P = B ≤ L > Y
Conclusion:
I. L > K
II. L = K

Directions (16-20): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in


the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on
the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow
16. Statement: D ≥ N = G ≥ S < H ≥ P > C
Conclusion:
I. H ≤ D
II. S > C
17. Statement: K ≥ M < Y = B ≤ I > O = E
Conclusion:
I. I > M
II. E > Y
18. Statement: S ≥ X < R ≥ Y < F ≤ P < C
Conclusion:
I. R ≤ S
II. C > Y

36
19. Statements: T < R > A ≥ I = N, A= L > E, L < F
Conclusions:
I. E < R
II. N < F
20. Statements: G > T = P ≥ C ≥ N, S≥J≤N=Y
Conclusion:
I. T > J
II. T = J

Directions (21-25): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in


the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on
the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow

21. Statements: A < M = R ≥ V ≤ L < H, R > Z < S < F


Conclusion:
I. H ≥ M
II. F < A

22 Statements: E > D = O > V, C ≤ I = B < N, V≥N>Q


Conclusion:
I. D > C
II. V > I

23. Statements: P > I > V = D > Y, K≤I≥N>E


Conclusion:
I. P > E
II. D < N

24. Statements: Y ≥ A = K ≤ R > D > W = Q ≤ L ≥ N


Conclusion:
I. A > W
II. L = K
25 . Statements: T ≥ W = B > X = O ≤ G ≥ E ≤ A > K
Conclusion:
I. G ≥ W
II. A > O

37
Directions (26-30): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in
the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on
the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow
26. Statements: P ≤ R < V ≤ B < G = W > M = S ≥ A
Conclusion:
I. W > R
II. P > M
27. Statements:B ≥ V > O > E > W, O = R ≥ C ≤ X
Conclusions:
I. R > W
II. B < C
28. Statements: T = C ≥ W > J > H = S = M < N
Conclusion:
I. C > M
II. H < T
29. Statements: L ≥ Z = M > T, Q=A<T
Conclusions:
I. M > A
II. Q ≤ L
30. Statements: P = C ≥ F ≥ E, G=D≤E
Conclusions:
I. P > G
II. P = G

Directions (31-35): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in


the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on
the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow
31. Statements: N > O < P < M, M ≥ R ≥ B
Conclusions:
I. N > R
II. B < P

38
32. Statements: I > J = K < L, V = S ≥ L
Conclusions:
I. S ≤ I
II. V > K
33. Statements:
R = S ≤ T = U, P = Q ≥ R, U ≤ V ≥ W
Conclusions:
I. R < V
II. R = V
34. Statements:
D ≥ K ≥ L < I, A = B ≥ C = D, I > O ≥ P
Conclusions:
I. C > L
II. C = L
35. Statements: U = C ≥ V, R > T = Y ≥ U, V ≥ N < B
Conclusions:
I. T = N
II. T > N

Directions (36-40): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in


the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on
the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow
36. Statements:
G > E ≥ H, B = N < M ≤ G, H ≥ T = R
Conclusions:
I. G > R
II. M ≤ T
37. Statements:
C < V ≤ B ≥ N, Z > X = C, N > M = L
Conclusions:
I. X < N
II. V ≤ L
38. Statements:
C ≥ D < E ≥ F, A = B ≥ C, F > G < H
Conclusions:
I. A > D
II. A = D

39
39. Statements:
X ≤ C ≥ S > D, R ≤ T = X, Q = E ≥ R
Conclusions:
I. R = C
II. R < C
40. Statements:
R ≥ C ≤ V, T ≥ S = R, V = E ≤ Y = X
Conclusions:
I. C < X
II. C = X

Directions (41-45): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in


the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on
the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow
41. Statements:
Z ≥ F > V < U < T; G ≤ O < M ≤ U
Conclusions:
I). M < T
II). F ≥ O
42. Statements:
U < X ≤ W = K ≥ Z; M ≥ A > B ≥ U
Conclusions:
I). X ≥ A
II). W > Z
43. Statements:
C < D ≥ B = F ≤ E; I ≥ G > H < C
Conclusions:
I). B > H
II). H = F
44. Statements:
Y ≥ X = E > F ≤ G; M > P ≥ L > X
Conclusions:
I). P > F
II). M < Y
45. Statements:
T = U ≤ B < A ≥ C; V ≥ M > N > B
Conclusions:
I). U < M
II). V > C

40
Directions (46-50): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in
the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on
the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow
46. Statements:
P ≥ S > G ≤ B ≤ D; B ≥ H > N
Conclusions:
I). S > H
II). D > N
47. Statements:
M < O ≤ N > G = T ≥ W; G > P ≥ Z
Conclusions:
I). N > Z
II). T < M
48. Statements:
R≥T=V≤F,N=L>F
Conclusions:
I). N < V
II). L > R
49. Statements:
X > H = G; G > C = Y
Conclusions:
I). X > Y
II). H > C
50. Statements:
A = B ≥ C= D > T = V
Conclusion:
I). A ≥ D
II). C > V

Directions (51-55): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in


the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on
the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow

41
51. Statements:
G = K < J = H < I ≥ F; T > Y ≥ U ≥ I
Conclusions:
I. H = G
II. Y ≥ F
52. Statements:
G = F ≤ V < B; U ≥ O = P > L; B ≥ Y = U
Conclusion:
I. Y > L
II. G ≤ B
53. Statements: H < B ≤ F < R = W; Y < R > G ≥ L > O
Conclusions:
I. Y > H
II. F ≤ O
54. Statements: Q > M ≤ Z = I ≤ U; Y≥U>O≥R
Conclusions:
I. M = Y
II. M < Y
55. Statements: D < C ≤ N = J; V > X = G; D<X=I>K
Conclusions:
I. V > C
II. J > I

Directions (56-60): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in


the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on
the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow
56. Statements: A > D ≥ F < E; S > Z > E; Y = N > S
Conclusions:
I. E < Y
II. A > Z
57. Statements: C ≥ X = K > Y, I=A ≤ Y
Conclusions:
I. K > A
II. I ≤ C

42
58. Statements: U = O ≥ H ≥ J, T = N ≤ J
Conclusions:
I. U > T
II. U = T
59. Statements: J > W < A < V, V ≥ S ≥ Z
Conclusions:
I. J > S
II. Z < A

60. Statements: G ≤ J = E ≤ C < O > M = L ≥ P ≥ R = X > T ≥ Y ≥ V


Conclusions:
I: J > R
II: E ≤ X

Directions (61-65): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in


the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on
the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow
61. Statements: Q > E ≥ T = U > O ≥ P ≤ D < A < F = H ≤ K ≤ Z < C ≤ B = M
Conclusions:
I: Q > P
II: D < B
62. Statements: S > T > R, O ≤ I ≤ T > A, D < B ≤ A
Conclusions:
I. T > D
II. I < S
63. Statements:
J < K > W = D > Y ≤ L, C ≥ N > M = D ≥ I
Conclusions:
I. C > Y
II. C = W
64. Statements:
Q < W = F ≤ V ≤ J > L < Y, S < Z = V < P
Conclusions:
I. Y > S
II. J > Z

43
65. Statements:
Z ≥ X > C = V > B, G > E ≤ W > C = H
Conclusions:
I. Z < G
II. B > E

Directions (66-70): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in


the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on
the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow
66. Statements:
T = Y > U = H < J, A ≤ S > X = Z ≤ U
Conclusions:
I. T ≥ X
II. J < Z
67. Statements:
E < X = F ≤ G < J, F > P > Q ≥ R = S > T
Conclusions:
I. P < J
II. Q > T
68. Statement:
I = O > P; Q > W ≤ E; Y ≤ U ≤ I; E ≥ T ≥ R < Y
Conclusion:
I. R < O
II. W ≥ R
69. Statement:
R ≤ T ≤ G; Q ≥ A ≥ S; E < D < F = R; S = W ≥ E
Conclusion:
I. E < G
II. Q ≥ E
70. Statement:
K > L ≥ O; A ≥ S ≤ D; O ≤ P; G < H > J = K; D = F ≤ G
Conclusion:
I. D ≥ J
II. K < P

44
Directions (71-75): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
71. Statement: M ≥ N < O = P < Q, Q ≤ R ≤ T
Conclusion:
I. M > Q
II. N < T
72. Statement: A ≤ B = C ≤ D, D > E = F ≥ G
Conclusion:
I. A > F
II. A ≤ F
73. Statement: P = Q = R ≤ S < T < U, U ≤ V > W
Conclusion:
I. P < V
II. Q < W
74. Statements: Q > C < M < R ≤ T, R = D > J ≥ L = A
Conclusions:
I. T ≥ L
II. C < D
75. Statements: H ≥ M > X, H = S < V ≤ N, T ≥ V < D
Conclusions:
I. M = T
II. D > X

Directions (76-80): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
76. Statements: P > K = E ≥ S = T, J = K > L ≥ M, X = R ≥ K > O
Conclusions:
I. X < P
II. X > M

45
77. Statements: R < Q = B ≤ N = X, S > N = E > M, Z = J = S > L
Conclusions:
I. Z > R
II. L > B
78. Statements: O ≤ T = G < M, O = V ≥ K > S, P ≤ M = D
Conclusions:
I. G > S
II. V < M
79. Statements: U ≤ P = C ≤ H, N ≥ C < E = X, P = B ≤ S = T
Conclusions:
I. B > X
II. N ≥ U
80. Statements: U = E > V < B, D ≤ F = E < X, X < T = G > A
Conclusions:
I. U < G
II. B < A

Directions (81-85): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
81. Statements: H < B ≤ F < R = W; Y < R > G ≥ L > O
Conclusions:
I. Y > H
II. F ≤ O
82. Statements: Q > M ≤ Z = I ≤ U; Y≥U>O≥R
Conclusions:
I. M = Y
II. M < Y
83. Statements: D < C ≤ N = J; V > X = G; D<X=I>K
Conclusions:
I. V > C
II. J > I
84. Statements: A > D ≥ F < E; S > Z > E; Y = N > S
Conclusions:
I. E < Y
II. A > Z

85. Statements: C ≥ X = K > Y, I=A ≤ Y


Conclusions:
I. K > A
II. I ≤ C

46
Directions (88-90): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
86. Statements: U = O ≥ H ≥ J, T = N ≤ J
Conclusions:
I. U > T
II. U = T
87. Statements: J > W < A < V, V ≥ S ≥ Z
Conclusions:
I. J > S
II. Z < A

88. Statements: G ≤ J = E ≤ C < O > M = L ≥ P ≥ R = X > T ≥ Y ≥ V


Conclusions:
I: J > R
II: E ≤ X
89. Statements: Q > E ≥ T = U > O ≥ P ≤ D < A < F = H ≤ K ≤ Z < C ≤ B = M
Conclusions:
I: Q > P
II: D < B
90. Statements: S > T > R, O ≤ I ≤ T > A, D < B ≤ A
Conclusions:
I. T > D
II. I < S

Directions (91-95): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
91. Statements:
J < K > W = D > Y ≤ L, C ≥ N > M = D ≥ I
Conclusions:
I. C > Y
II. C = W
92. Statements:
Q < W = F ≤ V ≤ J > L < Y, S < Z = V < P
Conclusions:
I. Y > S
II. J > Z

47
93. Statements:
Z ≥ X > C = V > B, G > E ≤ W > C = H
Conclusions:
I. Z < G
II. B > E
94. Statements:
T = Y > U = H < J, A ≤ S > X = Z ≤ U
Conclusions:
I. T ≥ X
II. J < Z
95. Statements:
E < X = F ≤ G < J, F > P > Q ≥ R = S > T
Conclusions:
I. P < J
II. Q > T

Directions (96-100): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
96. Statement:
I = O > P; Q > W ≤ E; Y ≤ U ≤ I; E ≥ T ≥ R < Y
Conclusion:
I. R < O
II. W ≥ R
97. Statement:
R ≤ T ≤ G; Q ≥ A ≥ S; E < D < F = R; S = W ≥ E
Conclusion:
I. E < G
II. Q ≥ E
98. Statement:
K > L ≥ O; A ≥ S ≤ D; O ≤ P; G < H > J = K; D = F ≤ G
Conclusion:
I. D ≥ J
II. K < P
99. Statement:
B = V ≤ C; M > N < B; C < X = Z
Conclusion:
I. V ≤ Z
II. X > N
100. Statements: Y ≥ P = O,P < R ≤ J
Conclusions:
I. R > Y,
II. J > O

48
Solutions
Solutions (1-5)
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (e) 5. (b)
Solutions (6-10)
6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
Solutions (11-15)
11. (d) 12. (e) 13. (a) 14. (e) 15. (c)
Solutions (16-20)
16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (e) 20. (d)
Solutions (21-25)
21. (e) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (c)
Solutions (26-30)
26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)
Solutions (31-35)
31. (e) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (c)
Solutions (36-40)
36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (c)
Solutions (41-45)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (d)
Solutions (46-50)
46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (e)
Solutions (51-55)
51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (d)
Solutions (56-60)
56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (c)
Solutions (61-65)
61. (e) 62. (e) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d)
Solutions (66-70)
66. (d) 67. (e) 68. (a) 69. (e) 70. (d)
Solutions (71-75)
71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (b)
Solutions (76-80)
76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (b) 80. (a)
Solutions (81-85)
81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (a)

49
Solutions (86-90)
86. (c) 87. (d) 88. (c) 89. (e) 90. (e)
Solutions (91-95)
91. (a) 92. (d) 93. (d) 94. (d) 95. (e)
Solutions (96-100)
96. (a) 97. (e) 98. (d) 99. (b) 100.(b)

***
Use Code - Y188 for Maximum Discount

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50
CHAPTER - 4 SYLLOGISM

Directions (1-5): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
1. Statements:
Some birds are animals.
All animals are zebra.
No zebra is ant.
Conclusions:
I). Some animals are ants
II). All birds are zebra is a possibility.
2. Statements:
All air is zone.
Some zones are ports.
All air is cups.
Conclusions:
I). All air being port is a possibility.
II). No cup is zones.
3. Statements:
Some general is OBC.
Some OBC is ST.
No SC is OBC.
Conclusions:
I). All SC being ST is a possibility.
II). Some general is not SC.
4. Statements:
Only a few Chinook are Apache
All Apache are Viper
Some Apache are Iroquois
Conclusions:
I). Some Iroquois are Viper
II). All Chinook can be Viper
5. Statements:
Every T20 is IPL.
At least some IPL is Test.
No Test is WC.
Conclusions:
I) Some T20 is not WC.
II). All IPL can be WC.

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Directions (6-10): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
6. Statements:
Only a few A is B
All B is C
No C is D
Only a few D is E
Conclusions:
I). All A cannot be D
II). Some E is not C
7. Statements:
All days are week
Only a few weeks are months
Some months are dates
Only a few years are dates
Conclusions:
I). All days can be months
II). Some years are not date is a possibility
8. Statements:
Only a few pens are pencil
Some pencils are erasers
No eraser is note
Only a few notes are rubbers
Conclusions:
I). All rubbers cannot be erasers
II). No pen is eraser
9. Statements:
All red is black
Only a few black is brown
Only brown is rose
No red is yellow
Conclusions:
I). All brown can be Black
II). No red is rose

52
10. Statements:
Only a few carrots are beetroot
All brinjal is beetroot
No brinjal is ladies finger
Only a few radishes are ladies finger
Conclusions:
I). All radishes cannot be brinjal
II). All ladies finger can be beet root

Directions (11-15): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
11. Statements:
Only Phones are Mobile.
No Tab is Phone.
Only a few Tabs are Laptops.
All Laptops are Computers.
Conclusions:
I). Some Computers are not Phone.
II). No Laptop is Mobile.
12. Statements:
Some Books are Paper.
Only a few Papers are Files.
Some Files are Wrapper.
All Papers are Note.
Conclusions:
I). No Book is Wrapper.
II). Some Notes are not File.
13. Statements:
No River is Falls.
All Falls are Dam.
Some Dams are Sea.
Only a few Seas are Ocean.
Conclusions:
I). Some Dams are Rivers.
II). Some Oceans are not Falls.

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14. Statements:
All Phones are mobile.
Some Mobiles are Cell.
No Cell is Ipod.
All Ipods are Music.
Conclusions:
I). Some Mobiles are Music.
II). No Music is Mobile.
15. Statements:
Only Sea is River.
Some Sea is Ocean.
Only a few Ocean is Beach.
Some Beaches are Waves.
Conclusions:
I). No Beach is River.
II). Some Waves are River is a possibility.

Directions (16-20): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements:
Only a few Ford is Volkswagen
No Volkswagen is Fiat
Some Fiat is Opel
Conclusions:
I). Some Ford is not Volkswagen
II). No Volkswagen is Opel
17. Statements:
Only a few Skoda is Nissan
No Nissan is Volvo
All Skoda is Toyota
Conclusions:
I). All Skoda is Volvo
II).Some Nissan is Toyota
18. Statements:
Only a few Aster is Tulips
Some Tulips are Daisy
Some Aster is Poppy
Conclusions:
I). Some Aster is not Tulip
II). All Tulip being Poppy is a possibility

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19. Statements:
Only a few Periwinkle is Peony
All Peony is Petunia
All Petunia is Jasmine
Conclusions:
I). Some Peony is Jasmine
II). No Periwinkle is Petunia
20. Statements:
No liquid is Alcohol.
Some Sanitizer is Dettol.
All Liquid is Dettol.
Conclusions:
I). Some Dettol is not Alcohol.
II). Some Sanitizer is not Alcohol.

Directions (21-25): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
21. Statements:
Only a few Friends are Family.
All Family is Relatives.
No Relatives are Enemies.
Conclusions:
I. Some Friends are not Family
II. No Enemies are Family
22. Statements:
All Wires are Cables.
Only a few Cables are Pipes.
Only a few Pipes are Strings.
Conclusions:
I. Some Wires are Strings
II. No Wires are Strings
23. Statements:
Only a few Doctors are Police.
All Police is Nurses.
Only a few Nurses are Surgeons.
Conclusions:
I. All Doctors are Nurses
II. No Surgeons are Police

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24. Statements:
Only a few Cars are Trucks.
Only a few Trucks are Trains.
All Trains are Cycles.
Conclusions:
I. Some Trucks are not Trains
II. No Cars are Cycles
25. Statements:
All Soul is Plus
Some Plus Hat
All Fold is Hat
No Soul is Fold
Conclusions:
I. Some Soul is not Hat
II. All Hat being Soul is a possibility

Directions (26-30): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
26. Statements:
All Hot is River
Only a few River is Water
All Water is Sea
No Hot is Water
Conclusions:
I. Some River is not Sea
II. All Water Can be River
27. Statements:
Some Digit is Number
Only a few Number is Value
No Digit is value
Conclusions:
I. Some Number is not Digit
II. Some Number is not Value
28. Statements:
Only a few Red is Paint
All Paint is Cool
Some State is Cool
No Paint is State
Conclusions:
I. Some Red which is Paint is not State
II. All Red being Cool is a possibility

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29. Statements:
All Hole is Bull
All Bull is Sun
Only a few Sun is Tag
No Tag is Hole
Conclusions:
I. Some Bull is not Tag
II. Some Sun not being Tag is a possibility
30. Statements:
Some cool is hot.
No coffee is hot.
Only a few tea is hot.
Conclusions:
I. Some coffee is cool is a possibility.
II. Some coffee is tea.

Directions (31-35): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
31. Statements:
All Biology are Chemistry.
Only a few Chemistry are Physics.
All Physics are Mathematics.
Conclusions:
I. Some Mathematics are Chemistry.
II. Some Chemistry are Biology.
32. Statements:
Only a few Literature are Project.
Only a few Stories are Project.
Conclusions:
I. Some Literature are Story.
II. No Story is Literature.
33. Statements:
Only a few Clocks are Registers.
All Records are Remarks.
Only a few Records are Registers.
Conclusions:
I. Some Remarks are Registers.
II. No Registers are Remarks.

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34. Statements:
All Stairs are Circles.
Only a few Stairs are Straight.
Only a few Lines are Straight.
Conclusions:
I. All Lines are Stairs.
II. Some Circles are Straight.
35. Statements:
All Jersey are Uniform.
Only a few Uniforms are White.
Conclusions:
I. No Jersey is White.
II. Only a few Jersey are White.

Directions (36-40): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
36. Statements:
All Cricket are Badminton.
Only a few Badminton are Tennis.
All Tennis are Hockey.
Conclusions:
I. Some Hockey are Badminton
II. No Cricket are Tennis
37. Statements:
Some Wheat are Rice.
All Rice are Pulses.
Only a few Pulses are Vegetables.
Conclusions:
I. All Wheat are Rice
II. Only a few Wheat are Rice
38. Statements:
All Bottles are Jars.
Only a few Jars are Drums.
Only a few Drums are Tins.
Conclusions:
I. Some Bottles can be Drums
II. Some Jars are not Tins

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39. Statements:
All Threads are Wires.
Only a few Wires are Pipes.
Only a few Pipes are Cables.
Conclusion:
I. Some Cables are Wires
II. Some Pipes can be Threads
40. Statements:
Only a few Universe are Space.
No Space are Planets.
All Planets are Earth.
Conclusions:
I. Some Universe are not Planets
II. Some Space are not Earth

Directions (41-45): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
41. Statements:
Only a few chocolates are biscuit.
All biscuits are chips.
Some chips are crispy.
Only crispy is hot.
Conclusion:
I). Some hot can be biscuit.
II). All chips can be chocolate.
42. Statements:
Only a few English is Tamil.
Only Tamil is Hindi.
No Tamil is Telugu.
Only a few French is Telugu.
Conclusions:
I). Some Telugu is not English.
II). Some English is Telugu.
43. Statements:
Only a few firstcry is myntra.
No myntra is flipkart.
Some flipkart is meesho.
Only a few meesho is shopsy.
Conclusions:
I). Some Shopsy can be myntra.
II). All meesho are Firstcry.

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44. Statements:
Only gown is maxi.
Some sarees are gown.
Only a few sarees are tops.
All tops are skirt.
Conclusions:
I). All sarees can be skirt.
II). No maxi is tops.
45. Statements:
Only a few months are day.
Some days are week.
No week is year.
Only a few years are leap year.
Conclusions:
I). Some leap years are not week.
II). All days can be year.

Directions (46-50): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
46. Statements:
All Pine is Aspen.
Some Aspen is Ash.
Each Ash is Hazel.
Only a few Neem is Aspen.
Conclusions:
I). Some Neem being Pine is a possibility.
II). Some Pine being Hazel is not a possibility.
47. Statements:
90% Sun is Star.
No Star is Moon.
Only a few Moon is Earth.
Many Sun is Venus.
Conclusions:
I). All Sun being Moon is a possibility.
II). Some Earth is Venus.

60
48. Statements:
All Apple is Fig.
Only a few Fig is Papaya.
All Papaya is Mango.
Only a few Mango is Orange.
Conclusions:
I). All Apple can never be Orange.
II). Some Papaya being Apple is a possibility.
49. Statements:
Only a few English is Hindi.
No Hindi is Tamil.
Only a few Tamil is French.
All Spanish is French.
Conclusions:
I). Some French being English is not a possibility.
II). All Hindi being French is a possibility.
50. Statements:
Only a few Colleges are Schools.
No Home is School.
Some Homes are Office.
Only a few Offices are Camp.
Conclusions:
I). Some Homes are not College.
II). All Homes are Colleges.

Directions (51-55): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
51. Statements:
All low are sick.
Only a few thoughts are low.
Some low are cool.
Conclusions:
I. All thoughts can’t be low.
II. Some sick are cool.

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52. Statements:
All barred are famous.
Only a few stops are told.
Some told are barred.
Conclusions:
I. All stops being barred is a possibility.
II. Some famous are told.
53. Statements:
All barred are famous.
Only a few stops are told.
Some told are barred.
Conclusions:
I. At least some barred are stops.
II. Some stops are famous.
54. Statements:
Some entry is parked.
All parked is station.
Only a few scooters are station.
Conclusions:
I. All station being entry is a possibility.
II. All station are scooters.
55. Statements:
Some entry is parked.
All parked is station.
Only a few scooters are station.
Conclusions:
I. Some scooters are definitely not entry.
II. All stations can be scooters.

Directions (56-60): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
56. Statements:
Only a few Computers are Laptop
Only a few Laptops is CPU
Some CPU is Mouse
Conclusions:
I. All Computers can be Laptop
II. All CPU can be Mouse

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57. Statements:
Only a few Cars are Truck
All Buses are Car
No Truck is Jeep
Conclusions:
I. Some buses are not jeep
II. Some cars are not jeep
58. Statements:
All Codes are Digit
Only a few Digits are Binary
Some Binary are not Task
Conclusions:
I. Some Codes are not Binary
II. Some Tasks are not Binary
59. Statements:
Only a few coats are mixed.
No trouser is coat.
Only a few coats are high.
Conclusions:
I. All coats can never be high.
II. Some mixed are trouser.
60. Statements:
Only a few coats are mixed.
No trouser is coat.
Only a few coats are high.
Conclusions:
I. Some mixed is high.
II. All mixed can never be coats.

Directions (61-65): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
61. Statements:
All Legs are Hands.
No Hands are Heads.
Only a few Heads are Fingers.
Conclusions:
I. No Legs are Heads
II. Some Fingers can be Hands

63
62. Statements:
Only a few Jazz are Salsa.
Only a few Salsa are Contemporary.
All Contemporary are Classical.
Conclusions:
I. Some Jazz is not Contemporary.
II. All Salsa can be Classical
63. Statements:
Only a few Dictionaries are Atlas.
Some Atlas are not Diaries.
All Diaries are Workbooks.
Conclusions:
I. Some Dictionaries are Diaries.
II. No Dictionaries are Diaries.
64. Statements:
All Newspapers are News.
Only a few News is True.
All True is Correct.
Conclusions:
I. Some Newspapers can be Correct
II. Some News is not True
65. Statements:
All Dogs are Cats.
Only a few Cats are Rats.
No Rats are Rabbits.
Conclusions:
I. Some Cats are not Rabbits
II. No Rats are Dogs

Directions (66-70): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
66. Statements:
Some Animals are not Pets.
Only a few Pets are Wild
No Wild are Domestic
Conclusions:
I. Some Animals are Domestic
II. No Animals are Domestic

64
67. Statements:
Only a few Cups are Plates.
All Plates are Bowls.
No Bowls are Spoons.
Conclusions:
I. Some Plates can be Spoons
II. Some Cups can be Spoons
68. Statements:
Only a few Mornings are Noon.
Only a few Noon are Evenings.
All Evenings are Nights.
Conclusions:
I. Some Mornings are Evenings
II. No Mornings are Evenings
69. Statements:
Only a few Fruits are Vegetables.
Only a few Vegetables are Pulses.
All Pulses are Cereals.
Conclusions:
I. Some Fruits can be Cereals
II. Some Vegetables are not Pulses
70. Statements:
Some Lemons are not Oranges.
Only a few Oranges are Mangoes.
All Mangoes are Litchis.
Conclusions:
I. Some Mangoes are not Lemons
II. Some Oranges are not Litchis

Directions (71-75): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow
71. Statements:
Only a few Bhim is Phonepe.
No Phonepe is Paytm.
All Paytm is Gpay.
Conclusions:
I. All Phonepe can be Gpay.
II. Some Bhim is not Phonepe.

65
72. Statements:
Only a few Skype is Line.
All Line is Hike.
No Hike is Telegram.
Conclusions:
I. Some Skype is Hike.
II. All Line can be Telegram.
73. Statements:
Only a few Cones are Star.
Some Stars are Cube.
Only Cube is Hexagon.
Conclusions:
I. Some Hexagon being star is a possibility.
II. All Cube can be Cone.
74. Statements:
Only a few Hearts are Arrow.
Only Arrow is Cross.
Some Arrows are Oval.
Conclusions:
I. Some Arrows are not Oval.
II. All Heart being Arrow is not a possibility.
75. Statements:
Only a few Actions are Horror.
All Horrors are Fiction.
No Fiction is Comic.
Conclusions:
I. Some Horrors are not Comic.
II. Some Actions are Fiction.

Directions (76-80): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
76. Statements:
Only a few Bats are Balls.
No Bat is Helmet.
All Helmets are Gloves.
Conclusions:
I) Some Gloves are Helmet.
II) All Bats are Ball is a possibility.

66
77. Statements:
Only a few animals are birds.
Only a few birds are insects.
No insect is mammal.
Conclusions:
I). All birds being insects is a possibility.
II). All insects are birds is a possibility.
78. Statements:
Only a few dreams are goals.
No goal is aim.
Some aims are achieved.
Conclusions:
I). Some achieved are goals is a possibility.
II). All dreams are goals.
79. Statements:
All Pianos are Guitar.
Only a few Guitars are Violin.
Some Xylophones are Violin.
Conclusions:
I)All Xylophones can be Piano.
II) Some Violins are not Piano.
80. Statements:
Only a few Bricks are Cement.
Only Cement is Sand.
All Tiles are Bricks.
Conclusion:
I)All Cement being Bricks is a possibility.
II) All Tiles can be Cement.

Directions (81-85): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
81. Statements:
Only a few Printers are Router.
No Router is Mouse.
Some Mouse are Webcam.
Conclusions:
I)All Routers can be webcam.
II) Some Printers are Mouse.

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82. Statements:
Only a few Tablets are Disk.
Some Disks are Scanner.
No Scanner is USB.
Conclusions:
I)All Tablets can be Disk.
II) All Disks can be USB
83. Statements:
Only a few Blenders are Oven.
Some Ovens are Kettle.
Some Kettles are Mixer.
Conclusions:
I)No Oven is Mixer.
II) Some Mixer are Oven.
84. Statements:
Only a few Microwaves are Toast Machine.
All Toast Machines are Lamp.
All Microwaves are Dish Washer.
Conclusions:
I) Some Dishwasher being lamp is a possibility.
II) Some Lamps are Microwaves.
85. Statements:
Only a few Alliums are Anemone.
All Anemones are Aster.
No Aster is Bellflower.
Conclusions:
I)Some Asters are Allium.
II)All Allium can be Bellflower.
III) No Anemone is a Bellflower.

Directions (86-90): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
86. Statements:
Only a few Tamil is Kannada
All Kannada is Marathi
Some Marathi is Hindi
Conclusions:
I). Some Kannada can be Hindi
II). No Tamil is Hindi

68
87. Statements:
Only a few Telugu is Urdu
All Telugu is Malayalam
All Malayalam is Bengali
Conclusions:
I). Some Malayalam can be Urdu
II). All Telugu is Bengali
88. Statements:
Only a few Gujarati is Punjabi
Some Punjabi is Odia
Some Odia is Sanskrit
Conclusions:
I). Some Sanskrit is Gujarati
II). No Gujarati is Sanskrit
89. Statements:
Only a few Nepali is Konkani
All Konkani is Kashmiri
No Kashmiri is Sindhi
Conclusions:
I). No Konkani is Sindhi
II). Some Nepali is Kashmiri
90. Statements:
Only a few Bodo is Santali
No Bodo is Manipuri
No Santali is Dogri
Conclusions:
I). All Santali can be Manipuri
II). No Bodo is Dogri

Directions (91-95): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
91. Statements:
All Oils are Tank.
Some Tanks are Bowl.
Only a few Bowls are Water.
All Waters are Mixture.
Conclusion:
I. Some Mixture can never be tank.
II. All Tanks are Water.

69
92. Statements:
Some LEDs are Bulb.
All Bulbs are Light.
No Light is Fan.
Only a few Fans are Electric.
Conclusion:
I. Some Electrics are not Light.
II. All LEDs being Fan is a possibility.
93. Statements:
Only a few Milk are Coffee.
All Coffees are Sugar.
All Sugars are Syrup.
No Syrup is Honey.
Conclusion:
I. All Coffees can be Milk.
II. No Coffee is Honey.
94. Statement
Only a few Kiwis are Orange.
No Orange is Grape.
All Grapes are Lemon.
Conclusion
I. Some Oranges being Lemon is a possibility.
II. Some Kiwis are not Grape.
95. Statement
Only a few Peaches are Avocado.
All Avocados are Fig.
Only Fig is Lime.
Conclusion
I. Some Peaches are Fig.
II. All Lime can be Avocado.

Directions (96-100): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If Only conclusion I follows.
(b) If Only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
96. Statements:
Only a few Courts are Legal
Only legal is Law
Some Cases are not Court
Conclusions:
I). Some Courts May be Cases
II). Some Legal are Case

70
97. Statements:
All Coasts are Sea
Mostly Seas are Water
Only a few Waters are Ocean
Conclusions:
I). Some Seas are not Ocean
II). All Waters cannot be Ocean
98. Statements:
39% Myth is Live
Only a few Lives are Aim
No Aim is Worth
Conclusions:
I). All Myth can be Aim
II). All Lives being Worth is not a possibility
99. Statements:
Some BM is not CM
All CM is PM
Only a few PM is AM
Conclusions:
I). All PM is not BM
II). All CM may be AM
100. Statements:
Every Site is Web
No Web is Server
Some Servers are not Search
Conclusions:
I). No Site is Search
II). All Webs are not Search

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Solutions
Solutions (1-5)
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (e) 4. (e) 5. (d)
Solutions (6-10)
6. (e) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (e)
Solutions (11-15)
11. (e) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a)
Solutions (16-20)
16. (c) 17. (e) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
Solutions (21-25)
21. (e) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d)
Solutions (26-30)
26. (b) 27. (e) 28. (e) 29. (a) 30. (a)
Solutions (31-35)
31. (e) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (d)
Solutions (36-40)
36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a)
Solutions (41-45)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (e) 45. (a)
Solutions (46-50)
46. (a) 47. (e) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)
Solutions (51-55)
51. (e) 52. (e) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (b)
Solutions (56-60)
56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (d)
Solutions (61-65)
61. (e) 62. (b) 63. (c) 64. (e) 65. (a)
Solutions (66-70)
66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (e) 70. (d)
Solutions (71-75)
71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (e) 74. (d) 75. (d)
Solutions (76-80)
76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (b)
Solutions (81-85)
81. (a) 82. (e) 83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (c)

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Solutions (86-90)
86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (e) 90. (d)
Solutions (91-95)
91. (e) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (a)
Solutions (96-100)
96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (e) 99. (b) 100.(d)

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73
CHAPTER - 5 BLOOD RELATION

Directions (1-4): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
There are eight members in a family – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H. A is the grandmother of G, who is the
cousin of H. A is married to B. B has one son and one daughter. C is the son of A and is married to E.
F is the wife of D. H is the son of D. E has one son.
1. How is H related to B?
(a) Grandson (b) Son (c) Brother-in-law
(d) Son-in-law (e) Cannot be determined
2. How is F related to B?
(a) Son (b) Daughter (c) Mother
(d) Sister (e) Daughter-in-law
3. How many female members are there in the family?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) None of these
4. If H is married to I, then how is I related to F?
(a) Daughter (b) Daughter-in-law (c) Son-in-law
(d) Son (e) None of these

Directions (5-8): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, and J are in the same family of three generations. Only three couples
are there in the family each with two children. Both C and D are brothers while C is the brother-in-
law of E. B is the mother-in-law of F. Both G and H are sons of E and F respectively. Both I and J are
grandchildren of A. J is not H’s sibling and I is not J’s sibling. E has one daughter.
5. How is B related to the family?
(a) A’s wife (b) C’s mother (c) E’s mother-in-law
(d) G’s grand-mother (e) All of these
6. What is the relation between I and H?
(a) Brothers (b) Sisters (c) Either brothers or brother-sister
(d) Neither brothers nor brother-sister (e) Can’t be determined
7. Who among the following person is the father of J?
(a) A (b) C (c) D
(d) G (e) None of these
8. Who among the following person is the father-in-law of E?
(a) A (b) C (c) B
(d) D (e) G

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Directions (9-11): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
There are seven members P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V in the family with three generations. There is a couple
in each generation. Q is the daughter-in-law of P, who has two children. U is the son of R and does
not have any siblings. U is married to V. S is unmarried. There is no single parent in the family.
9. How is T related to R if P is a female?
(a) Father (b) Mother (c) Son-in-law
(d) Sister-in-law (e) None of these
10. How is U related to S?
(a) Uncle (b) Sister (c) Niece
(d) Nephew (e) None of these
11. How R is related to V?
(a) Father-in-law (b) Mother (c) Son-in-law
(d) Sister-in-law (e) None of these

Directions (12-15): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a family, there are eight members. Four men Ram, Shyam, Mohan, and Sohan, and four women
Sita, Geeta, Sangeeta, and Meeta. Sangeeta has two married sons and one married daughter. Ram is
Mohan’s son-in-law. Geeta is Shyam’s sister. Sita is not Sohan’s wife.
12. Who are the two daughters-in-law of Mohan?
(a) Sita and Geeta (b) Sita and Meeta (c) Geeta and Meeta
(d) Sangeeta and Sita (e) Sangeeta and Meeta
13. Who among the following person is the wife of Sohan?
(a) Sita (b) Geeta (c) Meeta
(d) Sangeeta (e) Either Meeta or Sita
14. Which of the following is not a correct pair of wife and husband?
(a) Sangeeta and Mohan (b) Meeta and Sohan (c) Sita and Shyam
(d) Geeta and Ram (e) Shyam and Meeta
15. If Meeta has a son Rahul, then how Meeta’s siblings are related to Rahul?
(a) Uncle (b) Aunt (c) Either uncle or aunt
(d) None of these (e) Father

Directions (16-20): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
There are nine members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and I in the family with three generations. Only six male
members are there in the family. D is the grandmother of I who has no children. B is the daughter of
A, whose spouse is alive. I is the daughter of G. Both H and F are brothers and are the children of G. A
is married to D. Each female has two sons and one daughter except the third generation female.

75
16. What is the relation of G with respect to C?
(a) Aunt (b) Nephew (c) Daughter
(d) Sister (e) Brother-in-law
17. Who among the following person is the son of G?
(a) H (b) F (c) Both H and F
(d) D (e) None of these
18. Who among the following person is the son-in-law of A?
(a) G (b) D (c) F
(d) H (e) None of these
19. Who among the following person is the nephew of E?
(a) G (b) B (c) A
(d) H (e) I
20. What is the relation of E with respect to I?
(a) Son (b) Uncle (c) Daughter
(d) father (e) None of these

Directions (21-23): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
A family of three generations consists of eight members – I, G, N, P, Q, R, S, and T and two married
couples. G is the sister-in-law of S who does not have siblings. R is the only daughter of I, who is the
only son of P. T is the mother-in-law of I and maternal grandmother of Q. S is the mother of Q. N is
the father of G.
21. How is Q related to G?
(a) Daughter (b) Son (c) Niece
(d) Nephew (e) Can't be determined
22. Who among the following person is the paternal grandfather of R?

(a) T (b) S (c) N


(d) G (e) R
23. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Q is the sister of R (b) N is the brother-in-law of T
(c) G is the daughter-in-law of P (d) S and I are siblings
(e) Q is the son of I
Directions (24-25): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven members are from the same family of three generations and two married couples. A is the
mother of F, who is the brother-in-law of D. E is the grandson of G, who is the father of B. Both F and
B are unmarried. A has only one daughter and she got married.

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24. Who is the mother of E?
(a) D (b) A (c) C
(d) B (e) None of these
25. How is E related to F?
(a) Niece (b) Nephew (c) Brother
(d) Sister (e) None of these

Directions (26-28): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Ten persons- A, B, C, E, G, H, S, T, U and V are in the family. There are four married couples and three
generations.
S is the father of A, who is the mother of G. T and U are sisters and both are married. B and E is a
couple and parents of H. V is the only brother-in-law of T. V has a married girl child. V is not married
to A. C and E are of the same gender. No female is unmarried in the family. U is the grandmother of
H.
26. What B is related to S?
(a) Father (b) Nephew (c) Niece
(d) Daughter (e) Sister
27. Which of the following is/are couple?
I). A-C
II). U-S
III). V-H
IV). S-T
(a) Both I and III (b) Both II and IV (c) Both I and IV
(d) Both I and II (e) All I, II and III
28. What is the relation of T with respect to G?
(a) Aunt (b) Sister (c) Grandmother
(d) Daughter (e) Cannot be determined

Directions (29-30): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
There are five members A, B, C, D and E in a family of three generations.
A is the only daughter of D who is not married to E. B is the only child of E. C is the sibling of A. B has
only two children. Gender of both D and C is opposite to E.
29. How is A related to B?
(a) Sister (b) Daughter-in-law (c) Daughter
(d) Mother (e) Sister-in-law
30. How is E related to C?
(a) Mother (b) Father (c) Grand Mother
(d) Brother (e) Sister

77
Directions (31-33): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
G is the father-in-law of Q’s wife and has only two children. J is the paternal aunt of W and she is
married. E is the brother-in-law of Q. H and E are siblings. W is the daughter of Q. P has only two sons.
P and E are of different genders. O is a married female member of the family. Not more than eight
members are there in the family
31. How P is related to J?
(a) Sister-in-law (b) Brother-in-law (c) Mother-in-law
(d) Father (e) Sister
32. If K is the spouse of G, then how W is related to K?
(a) Son (b) Brother (c) Sister
(d) Nephew (e) Granddaughter
33. How many female members are there in the family?
(a) One (b) None (c) Two
(d) Four (e) Cannot be determined

Directions (34-35): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
A is the sister of M. M is married to P, who is the mother of K. H is the son of F. M is the father-in-law
of F. P has only one child who is a female. A is married to V. X is the only daughter of V.
34. How H is related to P?
(a) Nephew (b) Niece (c) Grandson
(d) Daughter (e) Uncle
35. If L is the son of U, who is the son-in-law of V, then how X is related to L?
(a) Mother (b) Daughter (c) Sister
(d) Brother (e) Granddaughter

Directions (36-38): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
A Family consists of seven members and two married couples viz. G, H, N, Q, S, T, and V. N is the father
of V, who is the spouse of S. H is the mother-in-law of V. Q is the only daughter of G, who is the mother-
in-law of S. T is the nephew of Q.
36. If B is married to Q, then how is B related to G?
(a) Daughter-in-law (b) Sister-in-law (c) Son-in-law
(d) Brother-in-law (e) None of these
37. How is Q related to S?
(a) Sister-in-law (b) Sister (c) Daughter
(d) Mother (e) Can’t be determined

78
38. How many female members are there in the family?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) Five

Directions (39-40): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven persons viz. F, H, J, N, S, U and X are from the same family with three generations and not more
than three couples. The number of females is more than the number of males. F is the son-in-law of
N, who is the grandparent of H. X is the wife of U and mother-in-law of J. All the couples have only
one child and no single parent has a child. S is not a female but a parent of J.
39. How is H related to J?
(a) Sister (b) Daughter (c) Son
(d) Granddaughter (e) None of these
40. Who among the following person is the mother of J?
(a) N (b) S (c) U
(d) H (e) Cannot be determined

Directions (41-34): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a family of eight persons and three generations, M is the only son of X who is a son-in-law of T. S
is a spouse of T. K is a sister-in-law of Y who is the father-in-law of L. Y does not have any siblings. Z
is the mother of X and spouse of Y. T and M are of the same genders.
41. How K is related to Z?
(a) Brother-in-law (b) Sister (c) Brother
(d) Can’t be determined
42. How many male members are in the family?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4
43. Who among the following person is the paternal grandfather of M?
(a) S (b) T (c) Z
(d) Y (e) None of the above

Directions (44-45): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
There are eight members K, L, M, N, O, P, J and R in the family of three generations. There are only
three married couples in the family. There is no single parent in the family. No female has siblings. K
is the sister-in-law of M, who is the uncle of P and he is not married. R is the daughter of N who is the
sister-in-law of P. J is married and she doesn’t have any child. L is not the father of R.
44. What is the relation of O with respect to L?
(a) Daughter (b) Son (c) Father
(d) Mother (e) Brother

79
45. Which of the following statement is/are not true?
(a) and J are siblings (b) R is the daughter of O (c) is the nephew of M
(d) Only I (e) Only III

Directions (46-48): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven members in the family consist of two generations in which there were two married couples. P
is the father-in-law of J who is married to O. O is the brother in law of C. Q is the nephew of A, Who is
the brother of H. J and C were the same gender. No person in the family had more than one sibling.
46. Which of the following statement is false?
i) P is married to the only brother of A.
ii) O is the brother of Q.
iii) C is the sister of J.
(a) Both i and ii (b) Only i (c) Only ii
(d) Both i and iii (e) Only iii
47. If M is married to Q, then how is M related to O?
(a) Niece (b) Brother in law (c) Daughter in law
(d) Sister in law (e) Sister
48. If B is the child of J then how is B related to P?
(a) Grand son (b) Grand Daughter (c) Son
(d) Either a or b (e) Wife

Directions (49-50): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
A family consist of seven members-L, M, N, P, Q, S, and T and two married couples. N is the sister-in-
law of S who is the daughter of M. S has a sister. L is the only son of P. Q is the son of S’s only brother.
P is the father of T. M is the spouse of P.
49. How T is related to Q?
(a) Mother (b) Sister (c) Father
(d) Uncle (e) Aunt
49. How many male members are there in the family?
(a) One (b) Five (c) Two
(d) Four (e) Three
A family consists of eight members and three married couples. No single parent in the family. B
is the sister-in-law of V and vice versa. C is the only son of M who is the spouse of N. B is the aunt
of R. L is the son-in-law of N who is the grandfather of Q. Q is the only kid of B.B is not married to
C.
50. How Q is related to C?
(a) Sister (b) Brother (c) Nephew
(d) Niece (e) Can't be determined

80
Solutions
Solutions (1-5)
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (e)
Solutions (6-10)
6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d)
Solutions (11-15)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (e) 15. (c)
Solutions (16-20)
16. (e) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)
Solutions (21-25)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (e) 24. (c) 25. (b)
Solutions (26-30)
26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
Solutions (31-35)
31. (c) 32. (e) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (a)
Solutions (36-40)
36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (a)
Solutions (41-45)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (e) 44. (c) 45. (b)
Solutions (46-50)
46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (c)

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81
CHAPTER - 6 DIRECTION DISTANCE

Directions (1-3): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Point B is 8m to the north of Point N. Point A is 12m to the west of Point B. Point R is 15m to the south
of Point A . Point M is 9m to the south of Point S. Point S is 7m to the east of Point D which is mid-
point of Point B and Point N.
1. What is the total distance between Point D and Point M?
(a) 11m (b) 9m (c) 10m
(d) 16m (e) None of these
2. What is the total distance between Point R and Point S?
(a) 42m (b) 31m (c) 39m
(d) 38m (e) None of these
3. What is the direction of Point A with respect to Point M?
(a) South-east (b) North-east (c) North-west
(d) North (e) None of these

Directions (4-5): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Point U is 80m towards the south of Point R. Point S is 30m towards the east of point U. Point W is
50m towards the east of point U. Point V is 40m towards the north of point S. Point M is 30m towards
the south of point W.
4. Point V is in which direction of point M?
(a) North (b) South-East (c) North-West
(d) East (e) Can’t be determined
5. Find the odd one.
(a) S, M (b) V, W (c) S, R
(d) U, M (e) R, W

Directions (6-8): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Arun started walking from his home towards the south and walked for 8km and reached Point B,
then he turned towards his left and walked for 15km and reached Point N, then he walked 15km
towards the north and reached Point E after that he turned towards his left and walked for 6km and
reached Point A, finally he turned towards the north and walked for 5km and reached his office.
6. What is the shortest distance between the final position and starting position of Arun?
(a) 15m (b) 17m (c) 12m
(d) 10m (e) None of these

82
7. What is the direction of Point E with respect to initial position of Arun?
(a) North-east (b) South-east (c) South-west
(d) East (e) None of these
8. What is the total distance between Point B and Point A?
(a) 38km (b) 42km (c) 45km
(d) 52km (e) None of these

Directions (9-10): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Point C is 6m to the south of point V which is 10m to the west of point E. Point T is 9m to the south
of Point E. Point P is 15m to the north of Point Z. Point S is 4m to the west of Point P. Point Z is 8m to
the east of Point T. Point K is 12m to the east of Point C.
9. What is the direction of Point E with respect to Point Z?
(a) North (b) North-east (c) South-west
(d) North-west (e) None of these
10. If M is 7m to the west of S, then what is the direction of point M with respect to point C?
(a) North -east (b) South -east (c) North-west
(d) North (e) West

Directions (11-12): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Point N is to the north of Point D. Point N is 5m to the east of Point H. Point F is 12m to the north of
Point H. Point K is 5m to the west of Point A. Point W and D lie in the same straight line. Point H is
the mid-point between Point F and Point W. Point L is 5m to the west of Point H. Point A is to the 6m
west of the point which is exactly between Point N and Point D.
11. What is the direction of Point N with respect to Point K?
(a) South (b) South-west (c) South-east
(d) North-west (e) None of these
12. What is the shortest distance between Point F and Point W and what is the direction of Point F
with respect to Point D?
(a) 24m, North-west (b) 32m, South-east (c) 24m, South-east
(d) 15m, North (e) None of these

Directions (13-15): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Point D is 16m east of point W. Point P is 20m south of point W. Point N is 8m north of point J. Point
K is 14m west of point X. Point K is 22m east of point N. Point K is 24m north of point P.
13. Point X is in which direction with respect to point J?
(a) North (b) South-East (c) North-East
(d) East (e) Cannot be determined

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14. Find the odd one.
(a) K, W (b) N, J (c) X, D
(d) W, P (e) K, P
15. What is the distance between points N and X?
(a) 40m (b) 32m (c) 36m
(d) 42m (e) None of these

Directions (16-17): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Point G is 20m south of point F. Point E is 40m south of point D. Point C is 20m north of point A. Point
F is 10m east of point E. Point D is 20m west of point C. Point A is 10m west of point B
16. Point F is in which direction of point A?
(a) North (b) West (c) South-West
(d) North-East (e) Either B or D
17. Find the odd one.
(a) C, E (b) A, F (c) B, G
(d) F, B (e) C, F

Directions (18-20): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Point P is 4m west of point Q. Point R is 5m North of Point Q. Point S is 6m east of point R. Point T is
7m south of point S. Point U is 6m west of point T. Point Z is 5m north of point Y. Point X is 4m west
of point Y. Point W is 6m South of Point X. Point V is 4m South of point U. Point W is 9m east of Point
V.
18. In which direction is point Z with respect to point R?
(a) West (b) East (c) North East
(d) South East (e) North West
19. What is the shortest distance between Point P and point Y?
(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 15
(d) 17 (e) 19
20. In which direction is point V with respect to Point Q?
(a) South (b) South East (c) South West
(d) North (e) North East

Directions (21-22): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
W lives to the south of Y. J lives to the east of Y. N lives to the north of T. N lives to the south of J. P
lives to the west of J and to the east of Y.
21. In which direction T lives with respect to W?
(a) North - west (b) South (c) South-east
(d) West (e) Can’t be determined

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22. If M lives to the east of N, then in which direction Y lives with respect to M?
(a) North - west (b) South (c) South-east
(d) West (e) Can’t be determined

Directions (23-25): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Mohit started walking towards the north and walked 30 m to reach point QA, and then he turned left
and walked 20 m to reach point RA. He then turned right and walked 40 m to reach point SA and then
he turned left and walked for 30 m. Finally, he turned left and after walking for 70 m, he stopped at
point PA.
23. Point RA is in which direction with respect to the starting point of Mohit?
(a) North-East (b) South-East (c) North-West
(d) West (e) None of these
24. What is the distance between Mohit’s starting point and the point PA?
(a) 20 m (b) 40 m (c) 50 m
(d) 30 m (e) Data inadequate
25. Point QA is in which direction with respect to the point PA?
(a) East (b) South-East (c) North
(d) North-East (e) None of these

Directions (26-27): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven cars (M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S) are parked at different distances and direction with respect to one
another in a parking lot. Car O is parked 7m west of Car M. Car R is parked 17m east of Car O. Car N
and Car P are parked in north and south of Car R respectively. The distance between (Car M and Car
R) is same as the distance between (Car N and Car R), and (Car R and Car P). Car Q is parked 16m
west of Car N. Car S is parked 10m north of Car M.
26. In which direction and at what distance Car Q is parked with respect to Car S?
(a) East, 7m (b) West, 10m (c) West, 6m
(d) East, 17m (e) North, 6m
27. What is the direction of Car S with respect to the car, which is parked in south-east direction of
Car M?
(a) North-East (b) West (c) East
(d) North-West (e) None of the above

Directions (28-30): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight people (P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W) are sitting in a certain manner in playground. V is sitting 3m
to the east of W. T is sitting 2m to the north of S. W is sitting to the south of S. U is sitting 2m to the
north of V. Q is sitting 12m to the west of P. R is sitting 5m to the north of Q. R is sitting to the west
of S at a distance equal to the distance between S and U. U is to the east of R.

85
28. What is the direction of T with respect to V?
(a) North (b) South-east (c) North-west
(d) East (e) None of the above
29. What is the shortest distance between P and R?
(a) 13m (b) 15m (c) 17m
(d) 21m (e) None of the above
30. P is to the _____ of U.
(a) North-east (b) South (c) North
(d) South-east (e) South-west

Directions (31-33): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight cars C1, C2, C3, C4, C5, C6, C7 and C8 are standing in a parking lot such that C2 is 10m west of
C7, which is 20m south of C4. C3 is 5m west of C4. C8 is 25m north of C3. C6 is 30m east of C8. C5 is
35m south of C6. C1 is 15m west of C5.
31. What is the direction of Car C8 with respect to Car C1?
(a) North (b) North-east (c) North-west
(d) South-east (e) South-west
32. Find the odd one out.
(a) C1 – C6 (b) C2 – C5 (c) C7 – C1
(d) C3 – C2 (e) C4 – C6
33. P is 8m west of Q. T is 10m east of S. T is 5m north of U. V is 10m west of U. S is 6m south of Q.
What is the direction of V with respect to P?
(a) South-west (b) North-east (c) South-east
(d) South (e) North-west

Directions (34-35): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven points (K, M, J, N, O, P, and Q) are drawn on a sheet of paper. Point P is 13cm west of Point M.
Point Q is 11cm south of Point P, which is 6cm west of Point J. The distance between Point K and
Point Q is 2cm less than the distance between Point M and Point J. Point K is in west of Point Q. Point
N is 5cm north of Point O, which is 6cm north of Point K.
34. Point N is in _____ direction of Point Q.
(a) North-East (b) North-West (c) South-West
(d) South-East (e) North
35. The distance between Point K and Point Q is equal to the distance between Point O and ____.
(a) Point K (b) Point M (c) Point J
(d) Point N (e) None of the above

86
Directions (36-37): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight trees are located at different direction with respect to each other. G is 5m south of F. I is 4m
west of L. P is 15m north of I. J is 2m south of P. E is 12m east of F. L is 13m south of F.
36. If Q is 4m west of G, then what is the shortest distance between F and Q?
(a) 3m (b) 5m (c) 6m
(d) √41m (e) None of the above
37. What is the direction of tree L with respect to tree E?
(a) North (b) South (c) South-West
(d) South-East (e) None of the above

Directions (38-40): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight persons, A through H are sitting at some distance from each other. C is sitting in the middle of
A and B. E is sitting 3m north to F, who is sitting 5m east to G, who is sitting 2m north to H. C is sitting
3m north to D, who is sitting 5m west to E. A is sitting 4m west to B.
38. What is the shortest distance between H and C?
(a) 7m (b) 8m (c) 5m
(d) 6m (e) None of these
39. What is the direction of E with respect to B?
(a) South (b) West (c) South East
(d) North West (e) None of these
40. A is 12m west of B, which is 15m north of C. E is 8m east of F. F is 13m west of C. D is 11m east of
C. P is 10m north of D and 23m east of Q.

What is the shortest distance between B and Q?


(a) 18m (b) 12m (c) 13m
(d) 15m. (e) None of these.

Directions (41-43): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight persons, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting at some distance from each other. A is sitting 3m
north to C, who is sitting 5m west to D, who is sitting 9m north to E. H is sitting 6m east to G, who is
sitting 4m north to F, who is sitting 6m east to E. C is sitting in the middle of A and B.
41. If H moves 4m towards south, then what is the shortest distance between H ad D?

(a) 12m (b) 15m (c) 20m


(d) 9m (e) None of these
42. What is the direction of B with respect to G?
(a) North west (b) North East (c) West
(d) South West (e) None of these
43. What is the direction of F with respect to A?
(a) South (b) South east (c) North east
(d) East (e) None of these

87
Directions (44-45): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
A is sitting 3m west to B. F is sitting 8m east to G. D is sitting 5m west to E, who is sitting 2m north to
F, who is sitting 3m west to H. C is sitting 4m north to B. D is sitting 4m south to B.
44. F is in which direction with respect to B?
(a) North-West. (b) South-West. (c) South-Eas.
(d) North-East (e) None of these
45. If X is placed 11m to the east of A, then what is the shortest distance between H and X?
(a) 6m (b) 5m (c) 9m
(d) 8m (e) None of the above

Directions (46-47): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven persons are sitting at some distance from each other. A is sitting 3m west to B, who is sitting
2m north to C. G is sitting 6m north to F, who is sitting 1m east to E, who sitting 2m north to D. D is
sitting 4m east to C.
46. What is the shortest distance between A and G?
(a) 10m (b) 12m (c) 20m
(d) 8m (e) None of these
47. What is the direction of F with respect to C?
(a) North (b) North East (c) West
(d) South West. (e) None of these

Directions (48-50): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven persons are sitting at some distances from each other. Q sits 6m to the south of P. R sits 5m to
southeast of Q and 3m to the north of S, who is 4m to the east T such that T is in south-west of Q. V is
4m to the west of U, who is 3m to the north of T.
48. What is the shortest distance between U and S?
(a) 5m (b) 4m (c) 6m
(d) 3m (e) None of the above
49. Four of the following five are related to each other in some way or the other and thus form a
group. Choose the one which does not belong to that group?
(a) PT (b) RT (c) PV
(d) QV (e) PR

Some persons are playing hide and seek. F hides to the east of A. G hides to the north of F. A hides
to the north of B, who hides to the north of C. D hides to the west of B. E hides to the south of D. J
hides to the east of G. I hides to the north of J. E hides to the west of C.
50. If a person K hides to the west of G and in line with A, then what is the direction of K with respect
to E?
(a) West (b) South-West (c) North-East
(d) South-East (e) None of these

88
Solutions
Solutions (1-5)
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c)
Solutions (6-10)
6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (e) 9. (d) 10. (a)
Solutions (11-15)
11. (e) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c)
Solutions (16-20)
16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (a)
Solutions (21-25)
21. (e) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (d)
Solutions (26-30)
26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d)
Solutions (31-35)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d)
Solutions (36-40)
36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c)
Solutions (41-45)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (a)
Solutions (46-50)
46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (e) 50. (c)

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89
CHAPTER - 7 MISCELLANEOUS (PRELIMS)

Directions (1-5): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘Radiocarbon’ each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet (Both forward and backward)?
(a) Nil (b) One (c) Two
(d) Three (e) None of these
2. If '2' is subtracted from each odd digit and '1' is added to each even digit in the number 96352947,
then how many numbers occur twice or more in the number thus formed?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) None
3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘Discredit’ each of which has as many letters
between them in the word as in the English alphabet (Both forward and backward)?
(a) Nil (b) One (c) Two
(d) Three (e) None of these
4. In a certain code, XUTPOJDB is written as WAINSCOT and VUMFCBB is written as TABLEAU. How
would ZSOJEDBB be written in that code language?
(a) RADIANCY (b) RADIANT (c) RADIANCE
(d) RADIANCYS (e) None of these
5. How many such pairs of letters in the word “DOCUMENT” which has many letters between them
in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two
(d) Three (e) More than three

Directions (6-10): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
6. Which of the following words can be formed using the letters of word "COMPENSATION" only?
(a) ANCESTOR (b) NOTEPAD (c) INSPECT
(d) COMPLIANT (e) ENCRYPRT
7. How many meaningful word/words can be formed using (each letter once) the 2nd, 4th, 6th, 8th,
and 10th letters of “DEPRESSION”?
(a) More than 3 (b) 1 (c) 3
(d) 2 (e) 0
8. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number ‘8698241564’ which have as many digits
between them as in numerical series both in forward and backward direction?
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 6
(d) 7 (e) More than 8

90
9. If 1st, 4th, 6th, 7th, and 9th letters of the word “PRESSURISE” are changed to their immediately
preceding letters as per English alphabet series and rest are changed to their immediately
succeeding letters as per English alphabet series, then how many letters (in English alphabet
series) are there between the 3rd and 7th letters of the newly formed word?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9
(d) 7 (e) 10
10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the meaningful word “ELECTRIFICATION” each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2
(d) 5 (e) More than 5

Directions (11-15): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
11. In a certain code language, if ‘TRACES’ is coded as ‘RPAAEQ’ and ‘CLUSTER’ is coded as ‘AJUQREP’,
then what is the code for ‘KNIFES’?
(a) ILIDFQ (b) ILICEQ (c) ILIDER
(d) ILIDEQ (e) None of these
12. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘Thermopile’ each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet (Both forward and backward)?
(a) Nil (b) One (c) Two
(d) Three (e) None of these
13. If in a number 729645138, 1 is subtracted to each odd number and 1 is added to each even
number then what is the product of third digit from the left and fourth digit from the right end,
in the new arrangement?
(a) 45 (b) 32 (c) 54
(d) 40 (e) None of these
14. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘Irredentist’ each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet (Both forward and backward)?
(a) Nil (b) One (c) Two
(d) Three (e) None of these
15. If in a certain way BABBLER is coded as CBCCMFS, then how ABANDON will be coded in the same
manner as?
(a) BCBOFPO (b) BCBQEPO (c) BCBOEBO
(d) BCBOEPO (e) None of these

Directions (16-20): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
16. What will be the 3rd letter of the meaningful English word formed using 1st, 4th, 6th and 9th
letters of the word “I N T E R V I E W”. Each letter is to be used only once in the meaningful word.
If more than 1 such words can be formed then mark ‘X’ as your answer, if no such word can be
formed then mark ‘Z’ as your answer.
(a) V (b) E (c) I
(d) X (e) Z

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17. Priya is the daughter-in-law of Manisha whose only son Amit is the brother of Shital, then how
Priya is related to Shital?
(a) Sister (b) Mother (c) Sister-in-law
(d) Mother-in-low (e) Cousin sister
18. How many pair of letters in the word “OBJECTIVE” have as many letters between them as they
have in between the English alphabetical series (in both forward and backward direction)?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2
(d) 3 (e) 4
19. What will be the 2nd letter of the meaningful English word formed using the 2nd, 6th, 7th, and
10th letters of the word “D E F I N I T I O N ”. Each letter is to be used only once in the meaningful
word. If more than 1 such word can be formed then mark ‘X’ as your answer, if no such word can
be formed then mark ‘Z’ as your answer.
(a) N (b) I (c) T
(d) X (e) Z
20. If all letters in the word “UNEMPLOYMENT” are rearranged as they appear in the English
alphabet series from right to left then the position of how many letters will remain unchanged
after the rearrangement?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2
(d) 1 (e) None

Directions (21-24): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
21. In a certain code language, if ‘PROJECT’ is coded as ‘NPMHCAR’ and ‘OPENING’ is coded as
‘MNCLGLE’, then what is the code for ‘LUXURY’?
(a) JVSSPW (b) JSVPSW (c) JSVSWP
(d) JSVSPW (e) None of these
22. In the number 859634724, if odd digits are replaced by their preceding digits and even digits are
replaced by their succeeding digits and then arranged in ascending order from left to right, then,
which digit is placed at the fourth position from the right end?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 4
(d) 7 (e) None of these
23. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BENEFIT each of which has as many letters
between them in the word in both forward and backward directions as in the English alphabet?
(a) Two (b) Five (c) Four
(d) Three (e) None
24. In a certain code language, if ‘TRIUMPH’ is coded as ‘IJNQSUV’ and ‘MAJESTY’ is coded as
‘BFKNTUZ’, then what is the code for ‘SOCIAL’?
(a) BDJMPU (b) BDJNPT (c) BDJMPT
(d) BDJMQT (e) None of these

92
Solutions
Solutions (1-5)
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (e) 4. (a) 5. (a)
Solutions (6-10)
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (e) 10. (b)
Solutions (11-15)
11. (d) 12. (e) 13. (b) 14. (e) 15. (d)
Solutions (16-20)
16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (e) 19. (b) 20. (d)
Solutions (21-24)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (c)

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93
SEATING ARRANGEMENT
CHAPTER - 8
(PRELIMS)
Directions (1-5): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows. P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in one row (Row 2), not
necessarily in the same order. A, B, C, D and E are sitting in another row (Row 1), again not necessarily
in the same order. Row 1 is in the north of row 2. All the persons are facing north. The persons sitting
in row 1 are just sitting in front of row 2.
E is sitting second to the right of the person sitting opposite to S. R and E are not sitting opposite to
each other. A is sitting second to the left of the person sitting opposite to Q. Neither B nor P are sitting
at extreme ends of the row. There is exactly one person sitting between S and T. D sits second to the
left of E. S doesn’t sit at the end.

Directions (6-10): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Eight persons, A through H are sitting at corners and in the middle of the sides of a square. Persons
sitting at corners are facing the centre, while others are facing away from the centre.
G is sitting 2nd to the right of B. A is sitting 3rd to the right of G. F is sitting 2nd to the left of A. One
person is sitting between F and D. Neither H nor C is facing the centre. E is not sitting adjacent to C.

Directions (11-15): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight model horses are attached on a Circular Carousel among which some of them are facing
towards the centre and some are facing away from the centre. Eight kids - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are
riding the carousel and sitting on each of the horses but not in the same order.
The horse on which D is sitting is facing outwards and does not sit immediate next to the horse on
which F is sitting. Two kids are sitting between D and H when counted from the left of H who faces
inwards. The horses on which both G and E are sitting are immediate right to each other and none of
them is immediate next to D and H. A is equidistant to G when counted from either left or right from
G. Both A and G faces the same direction. B is third to the left of C and none of them is immediate next
to G. C is sitting on a horse facing inwards. B faces the direction same as E and F.

Directions (16-20): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Twelve people are seated in two different rows facing each other such that six people are seated in
each row. A, B, C, D, E, F are seated in row 1 facing north while P, Q, R, S, T, U are seated in row 2
facing south. E is seated third to the left of A. R is seated to the immediate right of the person seated
opposite to E. One person is seated between U and R. Two people are seated between B and the
person seated opposite to U, where B is not seated to the left of E. P is seated opposite to B. Q is seated
second to the right of P. C is seated to the immediate left of D. S is not seated opposite to A.

94
Directions (21-25): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Certain number of persons sit in a linear row facing the north direction. All of them sit at equal
distance.
R sits third to the right of J and second to the left of D. Only one person sits to the right of K. Six
persons sit between D and U, who sits third from one of the ends of the row. K sits fifth to the right
of R.

Directions (26-30): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven persons are sitting in a linear row such that some are facing north while some are facing south.
T is facing north. W is sitting second to the right of S and both are facing the same direction. T is
sitting second to the left of A. E is sitting to the immediate right of F and both are facing opposite
directions. S is sitting to the immediate right of A and they are facing opposite directions. Two
persons are sitting between T and R. E and R are facing opposite directions and are not sitting next
to each other. R is to the right of T.

Directions (31-35): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Ten people, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V, are seated around a rectangular table, with three at each
length and with two at each width. All of them are facing the centre.
S sits in the middle along the length of the table. R sits fifth to the left of M who is an immediate
neighbour of S. Only four people are seated between U and T who faces P. V, who is an immediate
neighbour of R, sits third to the left of U. Only three people are seated between O and N who is not
an immediate neighbour of T.

Directions (36-40): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing north. Three persons are sitting between A
and C who does not adjacent to D. Four persons are sitting between D and A who sits to the left of C.
B sits fourth to the right of D and sixth to the left of G. T sits exactly between B and G. K sits fifth to
the left of T and third from any end. G sits second from any of the ends.

Directions (41-45): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in two parallel rows such that four people are sitting
in a row facing north and the rest of the people are sitting in a row facing south. There is an equal
distance between adjacent persons of the same row and the persons in both rows are facing each
other. A is sitting neither adjacent to B nor H. Only one person is sitting between F and D. G is sitting
at one of the ends of one of the rows. D is sitting adjacent to the one facing C and is facing the north.
E is sitting immediately to the right of A. Only two people are sitting between H and C.

95
Directions (46-50): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Nine people were seated around a triangular table facing towards the centre. There was one person
seated on each corner and two people seated on each edge. G was seated second to the left of B. B
was seated at the corner. Two people were seated between D and G. H was seated to the immediate
right of D. Three people were seated between H and E. E was not seated at the corner. F was seated
to the immediate left of A. K was seated second to the right of C.

Directions (51-55): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Certain number of persons sit in a linear row facing the south direction. Five persons sit between C
and W, who sits sixth to the right of O. The number of persons sitting to the left of V is the same as
the number of persons sitting to the right of A, who sits second to the right of C. V sits third to the left
of O and immediate right of L, who sits at the end of the row.

Directions (56-60): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Six friends Amar, Hari, Mark, Piu, Riya and Sam are sitting around a circle and are facing away from
the centre. Everyone lives in a different house viz. Apartment, Cottage, Mansion, Manor, Palace and
Ranch. Only two friends are sitting between Piu and the one who lives in a ranch. Hari lives in a
mansion. Only one friend is sitting between Mark and Riya who lives in a cottage. The one who lives
in a palace is sitting second to the right of Amar. Sam lives in an apartment and is sitting third to the
left of Mark. Riya and Piu are sitting adjacent to each other.

Directions (61-65): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven persons are sitting in a row such that some of them are facing north while some of them are
facing south. C is sitting third to the right of R. L is sitting to the immediate left of N and facing the
same direction as N. Same number of persons are sitting between H and L as in between R and D. A
is sitting second to the left of L. C is facing north. The immediate neighbours of A are facing the same
direction. The people sitting to the right of L are facing north. There are two persons to the left of A
and L is not one of them. N is not a neighbour of H or C.

Directions (66-70): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Ten cousins are seated in two parallel rows, five in each row. Lalit, Komal, Ashwini, Mohit and Rishi
sit in row 1 facing the south, whereas Ishi, Mansi, Vimal, Asha and Piyush sit in row 2 facing the north
direction. No two females sit adjacent to each other.
Rishi sits exactly between Ashwini and Mohit, who sit second from one of the ends. Komal and
Ashwini are the sisters of Rishi. Two persons sit between Mansi and Vimal. Piyush sits second to the
right of Vimal. Ishi sits to the left of Asha, who sits to the left of Mansi. Vimal does not sit opposite of
Mohit.

96
Directions (71-75): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around an octagonal table but not necessarily in the same
order. Each person sits on the middle side and faces towards the centre of a table.
Three persons sit between A and H. Three persons sit between D and F, and three persons sit
between C and E. G sits immediately to the right of C. B sits third to the right of D. H is not an
immediate neighbour of D.

Directions (76-80): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are seated in a row facing north. R is seated third to the left of T.
U is seated second to the left of R. Two people are seated between Q and U. Q is seated fourth to the
left of V. P is seated to the left of S but to the right of W.

Directions (81-85): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six persons - U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting on a circular table facing outwards. V is sitting fourth to
the right of U. W sits immediate right to Z and third to the left of X.

Directions (86-90): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
A certain number of persons are waiting for bus on a bus stop and sitting on a vertical and long seat
facing west. Four persons are sitting between M and P who is sitting second to the left of Q. One
person is sitting between R and S, who sits immediate right of M. Both R and S are sitting to the right
of M. T sits third to the left of P but to the right of M.

Directions (91-95): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight people were seated around a square table such that one person was seated at each side and at
each corner. The people seated at the corner were facing away from the center while the people
seated at the sides were facing towards the center. C is seated third to the right of E. D was not seated
adjacent to H. B is seated second to the right of F. G is seated opposite to A and adjacent to H. E, who
is seated at one of the corners, sits adjacent to F.

Directions (96-100): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Arun, Bina, Chaitra, Deepak, Ezra, Firoz and Ganga are sitting in a row facing North. Chaitra sits 2nd
right to Arun. Firoz sits immediate left of Deepak. Bina is at the middle of the row. Ezra is immediate
right to Bina and there are only 2 persons between Arun and Bina.

Directions (101-105): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight Artists Krish, Shivani, Alok, Manoj, Nitin, Pratik, Mary and Nikhil are seated around a circular

97
Dinner Table, facing towards the center.
Neither Shivani nor Manoj is a neighbor of Pratik. Manoj is not sitting next to Mary. Shivani is sitting
3rd to the right of Manoj. Alok and Shivani are not next to each other. Pratik is sitting to the
immediate right of Nitin. Shivani is not the neighbor of Nitin. Krish and Alok are next to each other.

Directions (106-110): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six persons sit around a triangular table, two persons on each side. People sitting on same side of the
table are facing in the opposite direction. (E.g., If P and Q sit on same side of the table and P is facing
inside, then Q will be facing outside the centre.)
B sits second to the left of A. Two persons sit between B and F, who faces inside the centre. D and C
are facing in the same direction. D sits to the immediate right of B. E sits to the immediate left of C,
and both sit on the same side.

Directions (111-115): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated around a circular table not necessarily in the same
order. They are facing the centre. The arrangement is based on the following rules:
• A is seated 2nd to the left of D
• C and H are seated with a gap of two seats
• H is not a neighbour of D and D is not a neighbour of B and C.
• F is 2nd to the right of G
• E is seated 3rd right of B
• F and H are seated on consecutive seats.

Directions (116-120): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
A certain number of people are sitting in a linear row, and all are facing in the south direction. T sits
at one of the extreme ends of the row. Four people are sitting between T and S. Q sits third to the left
of S. Six people are sitting between Q and R. P sits third to the right of R. Only one person sits to the
right of P. R sits to the right of Q

Directions (121-125): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight people P,Q,R,S,T,U,V,W are seated in two linear rows facing each other. People sitting in row 1
are facing north while the people sitting in row 2 are facing south. Further it is known that U who
was sitting in row1 was not seated at any end .P was sitting opposite to the person sitting second to
the left of Q.T was seated adjacent to R but not at the end of the row. W was seated at the left end of
row 1.V was second to the right of R.

Directions (126-130): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Ten persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seated in two parallel rows with the same distance

98
between them. The persons sitting in row 1 face in the south while the persons sitting in row 2 face
in the north direction.
N sits immediate left of U, who faces north direction. Only one person sits between M and Q, who sits
adjacent to V. Neither M nor Q sits opposite to S. The person who sits opposite to P sits second to the
right of V. Two persons sit between P and S, who sits at the end of the row. T sits third to the right of
R.

Directions (131-135): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table. Some of them are facing
towards the centre of the table while others are facing away from the centre of the table. Not more
than 2 people facing same direction are sitting together. Distance between 2 immediate neighbours
is constant.
D is 3rd to the right of F who sits to the immediate left of C. Neither E nor B is adjacent to D. H's
immediate neighbours face the same direction. C & H are not adjacent. A is 2nd to the right of G.
Immediate neighbours of F face the same direction. E & B face each other.

Directions (136-140): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Certain number of persons are sitting around a circular table and all of them are facing towards the
centre of the circle. Sophia is sitting fourth to the left of Robin. Yuan is sitting third to the right of
Neon who is sitting immediate right to Robin. Five persons are sitting between Sophia and Liam who
is not immediate next to Neon. Four persons are sitting between Liam and Tom and not more than
sixteen persons are sitting on the table. Equal number of persons are sitting between Maria and Tom
counting either from the left of Maria or from the right of Maria.

Directions (141-145): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight persons are sitting around a square table such that one person is sitting at each corner and one
person is sitting at each edge. All of them are facing outward. E is sitting third to the right of N. R is
sitting second to the left of A. Three persons are sitting in between M and G. G is sitting to the
immediate right of Y. T is sitting at an edge. E is sitting adjacent to M.

Directions (146-150): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
12 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are standing around the circle, all are facing towards the
centre. The distance between any two persons standing adjacent is same.
A is standing 2nd to the left of F, who is facing L. Only 3 persons are standing between A and J. Only
2 persons are standing between J and K, who is standing 2nd to the left of B. C and B are facing
towards each other. Only 2 persons are standing between D and E, who is standing to the immediate
left of G. H who is standing to the immediate right of I is not a neighbour of D.

99
Directions (151-155): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Ten persons from Dholakpur are sitting around the circular table facing outside the centre. Three
persons sit between Om and Bheem. Raju, an immediate neighbour of Kaliya, sits fifth to the right of
Bheem. Bholu sits immediately to the left of Dholu, who sits fourth to the right of Om. Kaliya sits
opposite to Indu. Neither Dolly nor Chutki is the neighbour of Bheem. Jaggu sits third to the left of
Chutki.

Directions (156-160): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square shaped table. One person is sitting
at each corner and one person is sitting at the middle of each side. The persons sitting at the corners
are facing outwards while the ones sitting at the middle of the sides are facing inwards. More than
one person is sitting between H and B, when counted in a clockwise manner from H. D is sitting
immediately to the right of A and is facing inwards. H and G are not sitting adjacent to each other. E
and F are sitting adjacent to each other. Three people are sitting between G and A. D is sitting second
to the left of E.

Directions (161-165): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six cows A, B, C, D, E and F, stand around the hexagonal water tank on corners to drink water, but
not necessarily in the same order. All are facing towards the centre of the tank.
Cow A is second to the right of cow F. Three cows stand between F and B. Cow D stands second to
the left of cow C. Cow E do not stand next to cow F.

Directions (166-170): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Five friends A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a horizontal line facing the north. Everyone likes a different
fruit among Guava, Kiwi, Peach, Pear and Plum. The one who likes Peach is sitting to the immediate
right of B. The ones who like Guava and Kiwi do not sit adjacent to each other. At least one friend is
sitting between D and C. Three friends are sitting between B and the one who likes Pear. The one
who likes Kiwi is sitting to the right of A. C and the one who likes Plum are not sitting adjacent to
each other. A is sitting adjacent to the one who likes Peach.

Directions (171-175): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight people are seated around a circular table facing towards the centre. Gauri is seated second to
the right of Varun. Nandu is seated adjacent to Gauri. Payal is seated third to the right of Nandu.Tarun
is seated to the immediate left of Payal. Raju is seated second to the right of Harshi. Lalit is not an
immediate neighbour of Harshi.

Directions (176-180): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six people were seated around a triangular table such that two people were seated on each edge.

100
Some of them were facing towards the centre while the others were facing away from the centre. R
was seated to the immediate left of V and both were seated on different edges. S, who was facing
away from the centre, was seated third to the right of R. T was seated second to the right of S. P was
seated to the immediate right of T. P and T were facing in the same direction. U and P were facing in
the same direction. R and U were facing in the opposite directions.

Directions (181-185): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Ten people were seated in two different rows facing each other such that 5 people were seated in
each row. People seated in row 1 were facing north while people seated in row 2 were facing south.
D was seated in row 1. The person seated opposite to D is seated third to the left of R. One person is
seated between T and R. The person seated opposite to T is seated second to the right of C. U is seated
to the immediate right of V in row 2. Z is seated to the right of T. The person seated opposite to Z is
seated to the immediate left of F. B is seated to the left of E.

Directions (186-190): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Seven people were seated in a linear row facing north. B is seated third to the left of E. G is seated
immediate left of B. D is seated to the immediate right of A. H is seated second to the right of D. F is
seated to the right of A.

Directions (191-195): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Certain number of people were seated around a circular table facing inwards. Information about only
some of them is known. No three people whose information is known were seated together. Not more
than 12 people were seated around the table. P was seated fourth to the right of R and 2nd to the left
of S. S was 8th to the left of U. R was seated second to the left of U. P was seated fourth to the left of
T. V was seated second to the left of Q and adjacent to T.

Directions (196-200): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Seven persons sit around a circular table such that some persons are facing towards the centre of a
table while others are facing away from the centre of a table. Either the name or the birthplace of
every person sitting in the table is known.
Rohi sits second to the right of Sai. The person who was born in Kanpur sits adjacent to both Sia and
Rohi. The person born in Ahmedabad sits second to the right of Sia and he does not face away from
the centre of the table. The person born in Ahmedabad sits third to the right of Rohi. Two persons sit
between Pia and Rohi, when counted from the right of Pia. The immediate neighbours of Sia face the
same direction, but they face the direction opposite to the person born in Ahmedabad. Sai sits to the
immediate right of the person who was born in Shillong.

Directions (201-205): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight persons - H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting around a square table such that two persons sit on
each side of the row and are facing towards the centre. Each member is sitting exactly opposite to
another member. Two persons sit between L and O. M and J are immediate neighbours but not on
the same side. K sits second to the left of H and opposite to I. J sits second to the right of O. N and L
are not immediate neighbours.

101
Directions (206-210): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight people are seated in a linear row. Some of them were facing north while some of them were
facing south. No three people seated together were facing the same direction.
Note: If two people are facing the same direction then it means that if one is facing north then the
other is also facing north and vice versa and if two people are facing the opposite direction then it
means that if one facing the south then the other is facing the north and vice versa.
B is seated at one of the ends. R is seated third to the right of B and both of them were facing in the
same direction.T is seated third to the right of R and is facing south. One person is seated between T
and L.N is seated to the immediate left of K and second to the right of L.N and L are facing in opposite
directions.M who is facing south is seated to the right of S.S is not seated at the end.

Directions (211-215): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Twelve people were seated in two different rows facing each other such that six people were seated
in each row. A, B, C, D, E and F were seated in row 1 and were facing north while P, Q, R, S, T and U
were seated in row 2 and were facing south. S was seated opposite to the person seated third to the
right of A. U is seated second to the right of S. C is seated opposite to S. Three people are seated
between C and D. P is seated to the immediate left of T. A and P are not seated opposite to each other.
E is seated opposite to Q. B is seated to the right of F.

Directions (216-220): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six persons are sitting around a triangular table such that one person is sitting at each corner and
one person is sitting at each edge. Some of them are facing toward the centre while some are of them
are facing outward. A is facing outward and is sitting to the immediate right of H. H is sitting at the
corner. Two persons are sitting in between H and M and they are facing toward the same direction.
S is sitting second to the right of E and they are facing toward opposite directions. E is sitting to the
immediate left of L. L is not facing outward.

Directions (221-225): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Certain numbers of people are sitting in a linear row facing north. Three people are sitting between
A and D. E sits third to the right of D. Ten people are sitting between E and B. C sits second to the
right of E. No one sits to the left of B. C sits second from the extreme end of the row. Three people are
sitting between A and B.

Directions (226-230): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six people were seated around a circular table. Some people were facing towards the centre while
some were facing away from the centre.
Note: If two persons face the same direction then one person faces towards the centre and also other
person faces towards the centre. If two persons are facing the opposite direction, then one person

102
facing towards the centre and other person faces away from the centre.
B is seated second to the right of A. M is seated to the immediate left of B who was facing away from
the centre. F is seated third to the right of M and is facing towards the centre. C is seated to the
immediate left of F. U who is facing away from the centre, is seated second to the left of C. M and C
are facing the opposite direction.

Directions (231-235): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Certain number of people were seated in a linear row facing north. Four people were seated between
B and D. Only one person was seated between D and E. Five people were seated between E and H. F
was seated fourth to the left of H. Five people were seated between G and B. Only two people were
seated between A and G who is seated at one of the ends. Number of people seated to the left of B is
equal to the number of people seated to the right of E.

Directions (236-240): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six people A,B,C,D,E,F were sitting around a circular table facing inwards ,wearing shirts of different
colour among green, yellow, pink, blue, brown, red not necessarily in the same order. Further it is
known that E was second to the left of the one who was wearing red shirt and third to the right of D.
C was wearing yellow shirt. B was sitting opposite to the one wearing brown shirt which was not E.
D and A were seated adjacent to each other and none of them was wearing brown shirt. F was seated
to the immediate right of the one wearing green shirt which was not D. B was not wearing red or blue
shirt.

Directions (241-245): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six people were seated in a linear row. Some of them were facing north while some of them were
facing south.
Note: If two persons face the same direction then one person faces north and also other person faces
north. If two persons are facing opposite direction, then one person faces north direction and other
person faces south direction.
A is seated second from one of the ends and second to the right of F. J is seated to the immediate left
of P. P is not seated at the end. K is seated second to the left of C who is facing north. K and F are not
immediate neighbours. P and K face the same direction. A and J face the same direction but faces
opposite to

Directions (246-250): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people in each row in such a way that
there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In the 1st row M, V, K, P, L, and G are seated and
all of them are facing south. In the 2nd row E, R, T, Y, U, and I are seated and all of them are facing
north. Four people sit between L and V, who does not sit opposite to Y. T sits 3rd to the left of R. I sits
opposite to L. Two people sit between I and U. G sits 2nd to the right of L. The person who is sitting
3rd to the right of M sits opposite to T. K is not an immediate neighbour of G.

103
Directions (251-255): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight people are seated around a square table facing inwards such that one person is seated on each
edge and one at each corner. G is seated third to the left of K who is seated at the corner. U is seated
to the immediate left of K. T is seated to the immediate left of P. W is seated opposite to P. L is not
seated opposite to U.

Directions (256-260): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Seven persons- A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit around a circular table, but not necessarily in the same order.
Not more than four persons are facing inside the centre of a table.
Four persons sit between A and D (either from the left or right of D). B sits second to the left of D. C
is immediately right of B and immediately left of F. G sits second to the right of C. B sits fourth to the
left of E. The neighbours of F face in the same direction. A and G are facing inwards.

Directions (261-265): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight things named F, J, L, O, R, T, W and X are kept in two parallel rows such that four things are kept
in a row facing north and the rest of the things are kept in a row facing south. Only two things are
kept between X and T. J is kept immediately to the right of W and is at the end of the row. O is kept
immediately to the left of F. T is at the end of the row facing south and is not kept opposite to J. R is
kept immediately to the left of W and is facing the north. L is not facing the south.

Directions (266-270): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Certain numbers of people are sitting in a linear row facing north. Two people are sitting between R
and P. T sits second to the left of P. Five people are sitting between T and S. No person sits to the left
of S. N sits to the fourth to the right of S. Only three people sit to the right of R. Not more than 12
people are sitting in the row.

Directions (271-275): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
There are nine persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, and U who are sitting around a circular ring facing away
from the centre. M sits third to the left of N, who sits adjacent to T. Three friends sit between T and
Q. R sits second to the left of Q. Two persons sit between U and O, who is an immediate neighbour of
both S and N. There are nine persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, and U who are sitting around a circular ring
facing away from the centre. M sits third to the left of N, who sits adjacent to T. Three friends sit
between T and Q. R sits second to the left of Q. Two persons sit between U and O, who is an immediate
neighbour of both S and N.

Directions (276-280): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Ten people were seated in two different rows such that 5 people were seated in each row and face

104
each other. People seated in row 1 were facing north while people seated in row 2 were facing south.
R is seated in row 1 to the immediate left of P. The person seated opposite to P is seated second to
the right of D. A is seated to the immediate left of D. The person seated opposite to A is seated to the
immediate right of U. V is seated in row 1 to the right of W. B is seated opposite to W. C is seated to
the right of E.

Directions (281-285): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight people A, B, L, M, P, Q, X, and Y are sitting in a row facing the north. Y is sitting adjacent to Q.
Three people are sitting between P and M. Two people are sitting between Q and X. X is sitting
immediately to the left of L and neither is sitting adjacent to M. B is sitting immediately to the right
of P. The number of people sitting to the left of M is a perfect square.

Directions (286-290): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
There are 8 people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in parallel rows. In each row there is one vacant
seat. In row 1, A, C, E and G are sitting and all facing in south direction and in row 2, B, D, F and H are
sitting and all facing in north direction.
D faces the one, who is sitting immediate right to the vacant seat. Only one person is sitting between
D and the one who faces G.D and F are immediate neighbors to each other. E faces a vacant seat. C
sits immediate left of E. There is only one seat between H and B. A sits second to the right of G, who
faces H.

Directions (291-295): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight persons - Aindrila, Sandip, Saurav, Mayank, Izaz, Urmila, Pradip and Namita are sitting around
a circular table and facing the center. The persons whose names start with vowels do not sit together.
Aindrila sits 4th to the right of Mayank. One person sits between Mayank and Izaz. Urmila is not an
immediate neighbour of Pradip. Saurav sits 3rd to the right of the person who sits opposite to Izaz.
Sandip sits 2nd to the left of Urmila. Namita and Pradip are immediate neighbours.

Directions (296-300): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Nine trees are planted in a linear row from east to west. Consider all the trees to be facing north. Only
two trees are planted to the left of O. Two trees are in between A and O. Three trees are in between
A and H. T is an immediate neighbour of H. Two trees are in between W and G. L is to the left of Z. As
many trees are to the right of T as many trees are to the left of P. One tree is in between P and G.

Directions (301-305): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Nine persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are sitting around a triangular table, where three persons
are sitting at the three corners of the table facing away from the centre and rest are sitting at the
edges of the table facing inside the centre. Only two people are sitting at each edge of the table.

105
Two persons sit between Q and W, who sits immediate right of P. Q sits second to the right of T, who
sits immediate left of R. Three persons sit between R and U, who faces away from the centre. V sits
third to the left of X.

Directions (306-310): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight people, viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H, are sitting around a square-shaped table, facing inwards.
One person is sitting in one corner each and one person is sitting in the middle of each side. F is
sitting immediately to the right of B. Three people are sitting between D and H. Three people are
sitting between E and G, who is sitting adjacent to C.
E is sitting third to the left of H, who is not sitting in the corner.

Directions (311-315): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Certain number of persons sit in a linear row facing the south direction. All of them sit at equal
distance.
D sits immediate right of K. Five persons sit between F and M, who sits immediate left of E. U sits
adjacent to E and fourth from the end of the row. Two persons sit between F and D, who sits at the
end of the row.

Directions (316-320): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people in each row in such a way that
there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In the 1st row E, F, G, H, W and K are seated and
all of them are facing south. In the 2nd row A, B, C, D, S and L are seated and all of them are facing
north. Each person in a row is facing a person from the other row.
C faces H, who is not adjacent to K. F sits at one of the extreme ends of the row and diagonally
opposite to L. Only two persons sit between L and C. K sits 3rd to the left of W. The person who sits
2nd to the left of H faces B, who does not sit at extreme end. At least two persons sit between A and
D, who sits to the right of S. Two persons sit between G and H.

Directions (321-325): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U are seated around a circular table facing inwards. Each of them likes a
different colour among red, pink, white, blue, green and yellow. U is seated third to the right of the
person who likes blue colour. One person is seated between P and U. The person who likes green
colour is seated opposite to P. T is seated second to the left of the person who likes green colour. R
who likes pink colour, is seated second to the left of T. S is seated to the immediate right of the person
who likes yellow colour. The person who likes white colour is seated second to the left of Q.

Directions (326-330): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight students - O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V stand in a queue from west to east to submit the exam form,

106
but not necessarily in the same order. The students standing at the western and the eastern ends
submit the form at first and the last, respectively.
Five students stand between Q and P, who submits the form immediately before R. Four students
submit the form between P and S. O submits the form before P and R. Two students stand between
O and U. V submits the form before T but after R.

Directions (331-335): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight people, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are seated around an Octagonal table, with one at each side of
the table. All are facing the centre.
G sits second to the right of H. E sits second to the right of F, who is adjacent to D. C sits third to the
right of B. A sits immediate left of D. H is an immediate neighbour of C.

Directions (336-340): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Certain number of persons sit around the circular table facing the centre. Z sits third to the right of P
and immediate left of S. W sits tenth to the left of S. Five persons sit between P and D. Three persons
sit between G and P. Equal number of persons sit between W and Z when counted from both sides of
W.

Directions (341-345): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Five different types of flowers are placed in a row facing north. The distance (in meters) between
two consecutive flowers is the sum of the total number of letters in those words.
Jasmine is placed in the middle of the row. Two flowers are kept between Lily and Lotus. Lily is an
immediate neighbour of Rose, which is kept at one of the extreme ends. Daisy is not placed to the
right of Lotus.

Directions (346-350): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting on a square table such that 4 of them are sitting at
4 corners and remaining 4 are sitting at the four sides of the table. All are facing center except G, who
is facing away from the center.
• A is sitting 2nd to the left of F.
• H and A are facing each other. H is sitting immediate left of G.
• B is not neighboring of C and A.
• D is not neighboring of B.
• E is 3rd to the left of D.

Directions (351-355): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated around a circular table. Some of them are facing the
centre while others are facing outside the centre. No two adjacent people are facing the same

107
direction.
D sits opposite to E, who faces the centre. Neither B nor C sits opposite to A. A sits immediately to the
right of F. B sits second to the right of C, who sits second to the right of G. Neither F nor H is adjacent
to E. A faces the centre.

Directions (356-360): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Certain number of people is sitting in a linear row facing the south direction. B sits third from one of
the extreme ends of the row. Three people are sitting between A and B. D sits adjacent to A. C sits
third to the right of D. One person sits to the right of C. No more than 11 people are sitting in the row.

Directions (361-365): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people in each row in such a way that
there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In the 1st row P, Q, R, S, T and U are seated and
all of them are facing south. In the 2nd row I, J, K, L, M and N are seated and all of them are facing
north. Each member in row 1 is facing a member of row 2.
R sits 3rd to the right of T, who is not adjacent to P. Neither L nor R sits at an extreme end of the row.
I sits opposite to U. J sits opposite to the person who sits immediate right of S. Only three persons sit
between P and U. K sits 4th to the left of I. More than two persons sit between K and M. N sits 2nd to
the left of M.

Directions (366-370): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G were seated in a straight row facing the north.
F was seated 2nd to the left of C. 2 persons were seated between A and G. A was neighbouring C. B
was 3rd to the left of E's neighbour. B was not neighbouring C. Only one person was seated between
D and E.

Directions (371-375): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six persons Sia, Zia, Pia, Dia, Mia and Jia sit around a triangular table. Three persons sit at the corners
of the table facing away from the centre, while three persons sit at the middle of the edges facing
towards the centre. Each of them knows a different software language among Python, Java, C++, PHP,
SQL and C, but not necessarily in the same order.
Two persons sit between Pia and Mia, who knows Java. The person who knows C++ sits immediate
left of Dia, who faces away from the centre. Sia, who knows PHP, sits second to the left of the person
who knows Python. Zia, who knows SQL, sits second to the right of Pia.

Directions (376-380): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Nine persons were seated around a triangular table such that one on each corner and two on each of
the edges. All of them were facing inside. C was seated second to the left of A and third to the right of

108
D. Neither A nor H was seated at the corner. Two persons were seated between F and I. E was seated
second to the left of I. Neither E nor F was seated adjacent to D. B and E were immediate neighbours.
Two persons were seated between B and G. More than three persons were seated between E and H
(when counted from the left of E).

Directions (381-385): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
A certain number of persons are sitting in a row in which some of them are facing north and some
are facing south. B is sitting seventh to the left of K and both face north. Three persons are sitting
between H and K, who is sitting to the left of H. Only two persons are sitting to the right of K. Equal
number of persons are sitting to the left and right of H. G sits at an extreme end and F is sitting second
to the left of G. Number of persons sitting between L and G is the maximum possible number of
persons sitting between any two persons in the row. L and G face opposite directions. P is sitting
exactly between F and L, where both F and P are facing direction opposite to that of L.

Directions (386-390): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Ten people K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, T and U are seated around a circular table facing towards the centre.
P is seated third to the left of S. Three people are seated between S and K. M is seated to the immediate
left of K. T is seated third to the right of M. One person is seated between L and T. R is seated to the
immediate left of U. Q and L are not neighbours.

Directions (391-395): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Ten persons- M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V sit around a pentagonal table, but not necessarily in the
same order. Five persons sit along the five corners while five persons sit on the middle edges of a
table such that no two adjacent persons face in the same direction.
Five persons sit between O and N (either from left or right of N). R sits fourth to the left of N. M sits
adjacent to T and Q, who sits immediate to the right of N. S sits third to the right of R. U sits adjacent
to O but along one of the corner of a table. P is not adjacent to R. Neither S nor U faces inwards.

Directions (396-400): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six people P, Q, R, W, X and Y are sitting in two parallel rows in such a way that P, Q, R are sitting in
row-1 and facing south while W, X, Y are sitting in row-2 and facing north. Each person sitting in row-
1 faces the person sitting in row-2. Each of them like different colours - red, blue, green, yellow, white
and black but not in the same order.
Q likes White. The person who likes yellow is adjacent to the person who likes blue. W sits to the left
of Y. Y is sitting opposite to the person who sits immediate right of the one who likes green. P faces
X who likes yellow. The person who likes red faces W.

109
Solutions
Solution (1-5)

Solutions (6-10):

Solutions (11-15):

Solutions (16-20):

Solutions (21-25):

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Solutions (26-30):

Solutions (31-35):

Solutions (36-40):

Solutions (41-45):

Solutions (46-50):

Solutions (51-55):

111
Solutions (56-60):

Solutions (61-65):

Solutions (66-70):

Solutions (71-75):

Solutions (76-80):

112
Solutions (81-85):

Solutions (86-90):

Solutions (91-95):

Solutions (96-100):

113
Solutions (101-105):

Solutions (106-110):

Solutions (111-115):

Solutions (116-120):

Solutions (121-125):

114
Solutions (126-130):

Solutions (131-135):

Solutions (136-140):

Solutions (141-145):

115
Solutions (146-150):

Solutions (151-155):

Solutions (156-160):

Solutions (161-165):

116
Solutions (166-170):

Solutions (171-175):

Solutions (176-180):

Solutions (181-185):

Solutions (186-190):

117
Solutions (191-195):

Solutions (196-200):

Solutions (201-205):

Solutions (206-210):

118
Solutions (211-215):

Solutions (216-220):

Solutions (221-225):

Solutions (226-230):

Solutions (231-235):

119
Solutions (236-240):

Solutions (241-245):

Solutions (246-250):

Solutions (251-255):

Solutions (256-260):

120
Solutions (261-265):

Solutions (266-270):

Solutions (271-275):

Solutions (276-280):

Solutions (281-285):

Solutions (286-290):

121
Solutions (291-295):

Solutions (296-300):

Solutions (301-305):

Solutions (306-310):

Solutions (311-315):

122
Solutions (316-320):

Solutions (321-325):

Solutions (326-330):

Solutions (331-335):

Solutions (336-340):

123
Solutions (341-345):

Solutions (346-350):

Solutions (351-355):

Solutions (356-360):

Solutions (361-365):

124
Solutions (366-370):

Solutions (371-375):

Solutions (376-380):

Solutions (381-385):

Solutions (386-390):

Solutions (391-395):

125
Solutions (396-400):

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126
CHAPTER - 9 PUZZLE (PRELIMS)

Directions (1-5): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A person reads seven different books in a sequence (from 1 to 7), but not necessarily in the same
order. Only two books are read before V. Only one book is read after R. One book is read between V
and X. S is read immediately before P. B is read before N and X.

Directions (6-10): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Eight crates are stacked over each other and are numbered 1 - 8 from bottom to top.
Different fruits are kept in different crates. No fruit is kept above the Lychee, which is kept
immediately above the Kiwi. At least four crates are stacked between the crates of the Pear and the
Kiwi. Only two crates are stacked between the crates of the Pear and the Fig. The Plum is kept
immediately above the Melon, which is kept in an odd-numbered crate. The Longan is kept above the
Peach, which is kept in an odd-numbered crate.

Directions (11-15): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
The ICC T20 matches are scheduled on dates 2nd, 15th and 23rd of March, April and May of 2023.
Nine teams viz., India, Australia, Ireland, Scotland, Namibia, South Africa, Oman, Sri Lanka and
Bangladesh will play the match, but not necessarily in the same order.
Four teams will play between Bangladesh and India. Neither India nor Bangladesh will play in March.
Two matches will be played between India and Australia. Namibia will play immediately before
Scotland. Six matches will be played between Ireland and Australia. Sri Lanka will play immediately
after South Africa but not in the same month.

Directions (16-20): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven children A, B, C, D, E, F and G were born in a week starting from Monday to Sunday in the same
week of the same year, but not necessarily in the same order.
At most four children were born after B. A was born immediately before C. F was born on Saturday
but not after D. Only E was born between B and C. G was not born before A.

Directions (21-25): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Six persons- S, T, U, V, W and X are born in the month of March, June and August on dates 7th, 12th
and 19th, but not necessarily in the same order. Two persons were born in the same month on the
same date.
Three persons were born between T and X, who was born after W. V was born on 7th March. Two
persons born between U and W. People, born in the month of even number of days, have their
birthday on an even-number date.

127
Directions (26-30): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Six ministers were born in six years - 1958, 1968, 1969, 1970, 1972 and 1973. They signed the MOUs
in six different sectors such that the eldest person was the first while the youngest person was the
last to sign the MOU.
The ministers born in 1969, 1970 and 1972 signed the MOUs of Education, Oil & Gas and Defence
(not necessarily in the same order). Two MOUs were signed between the MOU of Defence and
Environment. One MOU was signed between MOUs of Finance and Education. The minister born in
1973 does not signed the MOU of Tourism and Finance.

Directions (31-35): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live in a four floored building numbered 1 - 4 from bottom to top.
The building has two flats on each floor named P and Q such that flat 'P' is to the west of flat 'Q'.
Everyone lives in a different flat. D lives in the flat 'Q' but does not live on the same floor as G. C lives
in a flat to the west of A's flat. A lives on a floor immediately above H and both live in the same named
flats. E lives in a flat of an odd numbered floor and lives to the west of H's flat. C lives on a floor
immediately below F and both do not live in the same named flats.

Directions (36-40): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight cartons containing different edibles are stacked one above another. Cookies are kept
immediately below jam. There are two cartons in between the ones containing juices and milk.
Chocolates are kept above eggs but not immediately. The number of cartons above the one containing
pickles is same as the number of cartons below the one containing milk. Jam is kept above pulses.
Milk is kept below eggs but not immediately. Milk is not kept on the lowermost carton. Less than
three cartons are kept in between cookies and pickles.

Directions (41-45): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
From the year 1997 to 2011, eight books will be released every alternate year on the same date in
July. Four books will be released in between A and B. A will be released before B. L will be released
immediately after A. There are three years in between the releases of O and N. E will be released
immediately after N. D will be released after F but not immediately.

Directions (46-50): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight police personnel are A, B, C, D, P, Q, R, and S. Their designations are different and the decreasing
order of their designations is DGP, ADGP, DIGP, ASP, ACP, API, ASI, and CON. Only two personnel are
ranked between C and B, who is immediate junior to Q. The number of personnel ranked between A
and R is twice the number of personnel ranked between Q and R. Only four personnel are ranked in
between C and D. A is the ADGP and at least one personnel is ranked between A and R. S is senior to
P, who is senior to at least one person.

128
Directions (51-55): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Six persons will travel to six different places on 26th and 28th of January, February and March. No
two persons will travel on the same day. V will travel in January to Surat. Two persons will travel in
between V and D. The person who will travel immediately before D will travel to Chandigarh. D will
not travel in February. The one who will travel to Bhopal will travel on 28th March. C will travel to
Shillong. The one who will travel to Vellore will travel immediately before S. L will travel before S but
not immediately. L will not travel to Chandigarh. The one who will travel to Mumbai is not G and he
will not travel in February.
Directions (56-60): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven students T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z cleared three different exams namely IBPS PO, IBPS Clerk and
IBPS SO. Each exam is cleared by at least two and not more than three students.
Neither W nor V cleared the IBPS Clerk exam. Only two students cleared the IBPS PO exam. Neither
V nor Y cleared IBPS PO. Only V and Z cleared the same exam. U did not clear IBPS Clerk.

Directions (61-65): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In an apartment there are four floors which are numbered as 1,2, 3 and 4 (Floor 4 being the topmost
floor). Each floor has two flats I and II such that flat I is west of flat II. There is one person living in
each flat. A lived on 3rd floor in the flat which is immediately above H's flat. G and C lives on same
flat and there is only one floor between G and C flat where C lived on the same floor as A. F lived west
of D. B lived in the same flat as F but in different floors. E and H do not live on the same floor.

Directions (66-70): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Six persons stand in a vertical queue at Nagpur Bus stop's ticket centre. They are going to Nashik,
Pune, Hyderabad, Amravati, Mumbai and Bhopal.
The person going to Hyderabad stands immediately behind the person going to Bhopal. Two persons
stand between the persons going to Pune and Amravati. Only three people stand ahead of the person
going to Mumbai. The person going to Nashik stands ahead of the person going to Pune.

Directions (71-75): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Six people - A, B, C, D, E and F are born in three different months namely January, February and March
on two different dates of each month i.e. 13th and 28th. No two people are born on the same date of
the same month. E is born in one of the months after January. C is born immediately after E. Three
people are born between C and F. D is born immediately before A. B is born before F.

Directions (76-80): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
There are seven racks stacked one over another. Each rack is labelled with the first letter of the name
of the person whose has kept his or her belongings on the rack. No two persons have names that

129
start with the same letter and one rack belongs to one person only. F is the rack immediately above
N. There are two racks in between C and T. C is above T. R is above E. L is not above F. C is below R.
E is not below L. The lowermost rack is not labelled L. The topmost rack is not labelled R.

Directions (81-85): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight persons were born in eight consecutive years from 2012 to 2019. No two persons were born
in the same year. T was born in the immediate year before E. Two persons were born in between R
and E. R was born after the year 2016. One person was born in between F and L. M was born after L.
C was born before the year 2015. At least four persons were born in between C and G. F was born
before L.

Directions (86-90): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live in a eight floored building numbered 1 - 8 from bottom to
top. Everyone lives on a different floor. Only three people live between F and B who do not live below
F. Three people live between A and G and two people live between D and A. C lives somewhere above
H who lives adjacent to E. G lives immediately below B. E lives on an even numbered floor. F lives on
an even numbered floor.

Directions (91-95): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven employees- A, B, C, D, E, F, and G work in an organization at different designations (In
decreasing order) i.e. CEO, Director, CCO, President, Manager, A. manager, and Clerk, but not
necessarily in the same order.
NOTE: Not more than one person works on the same designation.
F works as A. manager in the organization. There are at least three designations between F and B. E
is immediately junior to B. G is immediately senior to C. A is junior to G but senior to D.

Directions (96-100): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Six people went to the market on different days of the week (Starting from Sunday to Saturday). Only
one person went to the market each day. No one went to the market on any one of the day of the
week before Thursday. Two people went to market between P and B. The day on which R went to
the market is immediately before the day on which N went to the market. P went to the market on
Tuesday. One person went to market between F and R. X went to market before N.

Directions (101-105): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Ten officers viz. A, B, C, D, E, V, W, X, Y, and Z work together. Their ranks (in decreasing order) are
GEN, LTG, BRG, MAJ, and CAP. Two officers are designated on the same rank.
E is immediately junior to Z. There are at least three ranks below A's rank. The rank of A and Z is the
same. W is senior to C but is not senior to X. D is junior to V but is not junior to Y. X is junior to E and
the rank of W and B is the same.

130
Directions (106-110): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Anu visited five different cities viz. Athens, Porto, Prague, Oslo and Rome on five consecutive days of
a week starting from Monday but not necessarily in the similar order. She used five different modes
of transport viz. Bus, Bike, Car, Ship and Train to visit the cities. Neither Rome nor Porto was visited
by car. Only one city was visited between the city visited by bus and Rome. The city visited by ship
was visited after the city visited by bike. The city visited by train was visited immediately after the
one visited by bus. Oslo was visited before the city visited by train. The number of cities visited before
visiting Rome was the same as that visited after visiting Rome. Only two cities were visited between
the city visited by train and Porto. Athens was not visited on Tuesday

Directions (111-115): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Four different tasks namely Task A, Task B, Task C and Task D are completed by eight different
people, but not necessarily in the same order. At least one and not more than three people completed
each task.
Neither T nor Q completed Task B, Task C and Task D. S and V completed the same task. V and U
completed neither Task A nor Task D. U and V did not complete the same task. Only P and U
completed the same task. Neither Task B nor Task A is completed by R. W completed Task B
Directions (116-120): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven students had joined a company in seven different months in a sequence from March to
September, but not necessarily in the same order. No more than one student joined the company in
any month.
U had joined the company before June. Two students joined the company between U and P. Three
people joined the company between S and R. S joined the company before R. Two people joined the
company between Q and V. Q joined the company before U. T joined the company after V.

Directions (121-125): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven students received laptop from the college, but not particularly in the same order.
Note: No two students received the laptop at the same time.
Three students received the laptop between M and R. M received the laptop before R. Two people
received the laptop between S and N. The number of people received the laptop between O and Q is
the same as the number of people received the laptop between Q and P. S received the laptop
immediately before P. N received the laptop after R.

Directions (126-130): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W live in an apartment building with four floors such that the
bottommost floor is floor 1, the floor immediately above it is floor 2 and so on till the top floor as
floor 4. Each floor has two flats - Flat A and Flat B where Flat A is to the west of Flat B. Flat A of floor
2 is immediately above Flat A of floor 1 and so on till top floor.

131
U lives in Flat A but above P who does not live on the bottom most floor. One person lives between
the floors of V and W and both lives in the same flat. S lives in a flat immediately below V. R lives on
the top floor. T lives on floor 2 but not in a flat same as R.

Directions (131-135): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Six floors are rented for shops - A, B, C, D, E and F in a building. The bottommost floor is numbered
as 1 while the topmost floor is numbered as 6. Two shops are rented between E and F. Shop B is
immediately below Shop D and rented on an odd-numbered floor. Shop C is above shop A and E but
below Shop D.

Directions (136-140): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven shelves are stacked one above another such that a different item is kept on each shelf. Books
are kept immediately below shoes. Two shelves are above the one which has a laptop on it. As many
shelves are above the one that has shoes on it as are below the one which has pans on it. Cosmetics
are kept on the shelf immediately above the one that has soaps on it. Two shelves are in between the
ones that have jars and pans on them. Jars are kept above pans.

Directions (141-145): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Nine people were born in nine different years among
1891,1897,1898,1904,1907,1912,1915,1917,1920. F was born immediately before H. Two people
were born between C and I where I was born after D. D was born just after C in an odd year. Five
people were born between H and B where H is born before B. C was not born in an odd year. A was
born before E. Three people were born between G and D where G was born before D in an even year.

Directions (146-150): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Six tourist destinations celebrate tourism months from March to September of the same year. No two
places celebrate it in the same month. There are three individual months between the tourism
months of N and I. N celebrates its tourism month immediately after C. S celebrates its tourism month
in July. U celebrates its tourism month immediately after I. O celebrates its tourism month after C.
None of the places celebrate in June.

Directions (151-155): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Eight people, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H lives in a four-floored building, floors of which are numbered 1
- 4 from bottom to top. The building has two flats on each floor numbered 1 and 2 such that flat '1' is
to the east of flat '2'. Everyone lives in a different flat. G lives on a floor immediately above C's floor
in the same numbered flat. A lives on a floor above F's floor and neither of them lives on C's floor. B
lives in an even-numbered flat on an even-numbered floor. E lives on a floor immediately above G's
floor but not in the same numbered flat. H lives on a floor below D's floor but not in same numbered
flat. E and B live on the same floor.

132
Directions (156-160): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
8 books A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are stacked one above another, but not necessarily in the same order.
Book G is at the sixth position from the top of the stack. 2 books are placed between G and H, which
is placed adjacent to book B. 2 books are placed between B and A. Only 1 book is placed between A
and C. Book E is placed above D but below F. Number of books placed between D and E are more than
that of D and H.

Directions (161-165): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Seven shirts of different colours were kept one above the other in the form of stack. One shirt was
kept between the red and the pink shirt. Three shirts are kept between white and red shirt where
the white shirt is kept above the red shirt. Two shirts are kept between white and yellow shirt. The
yellow shirt is kept immediately below the blue shirt. Purple shirt is kept above the brown shirt.

Directions (166-170): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Eight banks launched a new tap card on different days of a year. The months in which they launched
the card were January, April, June and August and the dates were 7th and 15th of these months. SBI
launched the card immediately after ICICI bank. ICICI bank launched the card in June. Three banks
launched the card between AXIS and ICICI bank. Only one bank launched card between UCO and AXIS
bank. DENA bank launched the card immediately before CENTRAL bank. HDFC launched the card
after CANARA bank.

Directions (171-175): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
A certain number of boxes of different heights are kept one above another. No two boxes have the
same height. Only a few are known to us.
Number of boxes between the box Q and A is odd and below 4. Box K, which is not adjacent to box Q,
is kept immediately above box S. Box C is kept immediately below the topmost box which is 6 inches
tall. Q is 3 inches tall and kept immediately below the box whose height is an even prime number.
Box A is the shortest with a height of 1 inch and kept at the lowermost position. Height of box C is
even and between 2 and 7 in number. Number of boxes between C and Q is odd but less than the
number of boxes kept between Q and A.

Directions (176-180): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, joined the company in a sequence, but not necessarily in the
same order.
Note:
(i) No two people joined the company at the same time.
(ii) No two people joined the company in the alphabetical order ( E.g. Q didn't joined the company
immediately before or after P and R and So on)

133
Five people joined the company between D and E. D joined the company before E. Two people joined
the company between H and C. G joined the company immediately after A. H joined the company
before C. B joined the company before F. F joined the company immediate after D.

Directions (181-185): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
An apartment building has seven floors numbered from 1 to 7 from the ground floor to the topmost
floor respectively. One person lives on each floor. Y lives on the floor immediately above the floor on
which A lives. K does not live on an adjacent floor to that of O or N. Three persons live in between T
and N such that N lives below T. T and H live on adjacent floors. More than two persons live in
between O and Y.

Directions (186-190): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Five people work in the United Nations. Their designations (in the decreasing order) are SG, DSG,
USG, ASG and DO. Every person is from a different country.
The one from India is ranked adjacent to B. A is immediately senior to E and one of them is from
India. C is from Brazil. The one from France is senior to the one from Canada. Only one person is
ranked between the ones from India and Japan. D is from neither France nor Canada. B is not from
France. The same number of people is ranked above and below B.

Directions (191-195): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Eight persons graduated from college in eight consecutive years from 1998 to 2005. No two persons
graduated in the same year. Three persons graduated in between S and U. U graduated before 2001.
N graduated immediately before L. U and J graduated in consecutive years but not necessarily in the
same order. One person graduated in between Y and J. B graduated immediately after J. H graduated
before B.

Directions (196-200): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Martin received a letter from each of his eight different friends in different years from 1925 to 1932.
No two letters were received in the same year. He received exactly two letters before the letter from
Henry was received. Only one letter was received between the years in which Henry and Sam sent
the letters. Four letters were received between the years in which the letter from Sam and the letter
from Daniel were received. Sarah's letter was received before Ben's letter but after Daniel's letter.
Two letters were received between the years in which Sarah's letter and Fred's letter were received.
Maria's letter was received before Nikhil's letter.

Directions (201-205): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Nine people were born on different days of a year. The months in which they were born were March,
April and May and the dates were 13th, 14th and 21st of these months. No two persons were born

134
on the same date of same month. H was born on an even date of April. Three people were born
between H and G. N was born immediately after G. Four people were born between N and B. D was
born immediately before J in the same month. F was born before V. L was born after V.

Directions (206-210): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
A country did export different commodities viz. Chemicals, Cereals, Clothing, Electronics, Ores, Oils,
Plastics and Vehicles in different consecutive months of 1984 starting from January. Only two
commodities were exported between oils and ores. Chemicals were not exported in the first month.
Only two commodities were exported between cereals and plastics. Vehicles were exported before
oils and after clothing. Clothing was exported immediately before cereals. Plastics were exported in
a month having 30 days.
Ores were exported after plastics and were exported in neither May nor July.

Directions (211-215): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Seven shelves are stacked one above another such that each shelf has a different edible item. Sugar
is kept immediately above tea. Three shelves are above the biscuits. One shelf is in between the coffee
and the chips such that coffee is kept above the chips. At least three shelves are in between the
mathris and the laddoos. Neither the mathris nor the laddoos are kept on the lowermost shelf. The
mathris and the sugar are not kept on adjacent shelves.

Directions (216-220): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
A person invites six different people namely P, R, T, V, W and Y by telephone in a sequence (one after
the other), but not necessarily in the same order. Three people were invited between R and V. T is
invited immediately after R. Y is invited immediately before P. W is invited before V and R.

Directions (221-225): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Eight people were born on different days of a year. The months in which they were born were
January, March, May and June and the dates were 7th and 15th of these months. D was born in the
month of June. Three people are born between B and D. G is born immediately before B in the same
month. Two people are born between G and A. C is born after A. E is born after F. H is born after F
but not in January.

Directions (226-230): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Ten persons got married in ten consecutive years from 1998 to 2007. E got married in 2005. Five
persons got married in between E and W. Two persons got married in between W and N. C got
married immediately after N. Two persons got married in between C and A. Z and A got married in
consecutive years. B got married immediately before S. R got married after D but before A.

135
Directions (231-235): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Six people- I, J, K, L, M and N are working in the army at different designation (In decreasing order)
i.e. Lieutenant General, Major General, Brigadier, Colonel, Lt. Colonel, and Major, but not necessarily
in the same order.
NOTE: Not more than one person work on the same designation.
At least three people are senior to M. There are two designations between designations of M and N.
L is immediately junior to N. J is senior to I and L. I is junior to L but senior to K.

Directions (236-240): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
7 persons A, B, C, D, E, F & G have to attend seminar on 7 different days of a week starting from
Monday. No two friends attend seminar on same day.
2 people have seminar between A & D. A has seminar after G but before F. C has seminar immediately
after E. B & D don't have seminar on consecutive days. E has seminar before Thursday. B has seminar
after F.

Directions (241-245): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Six pastry chefs, A, B, D, E, F, and G live in a six-storey building, but not necessarily in the same order.
The lowermost floor is numbered as 1, the floor above is numbered as 2, and so on up to the topmost
floor is numbered as 6. They expertise in baking different types of items, viz. Croissants, Donuts,
Cookies, Cupcakes, Bread and Bun, and Pies, but not necessarily in the same order.
E, who bakes Croissants, lives on an odd-numbered floor, immediately below A. B who bakes Pies
lives on a floor that is immediately above the one on which G lives. F bakes neither Breads and Buns
nor Cupcakes. The one who bakes Donuts lives on a floor above the one on which A lives. The one
who lives on the topmost floor bakes Bread and Bun. There are two persons who live between the
one who bakes Cookies and the one who bakes Donuts.

Directions (246-250): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Eight countries signed the environmental conservation treaty on different days of a year. The months
in which they signed the treaty were March, April, May and June and the dates were 12 and 21 of
these months. China signed the treaty on even date of a month with 31 days. Three countries signed
the treaty between Spain and China. Germany signed the treaty immediately after Spain. Two
countries signed the treaty between Germany and India. Japan signed the treaty immediately before
France. Ghana signed the treaty before Nepal.

Directions (251-255): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
A person plays seven different games namely Tennis, Yoga, Surfing, Boxing, Cricket, Hockey and
Archery in a sequence one after the other, but not necessarily in the same order.
Three games are played between Tennis and Yoga. Surfing is played immediately after Yoga. Archery

136
is played before Tennis and Hockey. The number of games played between Cricket and Boxing is the
same between Hockey and Boxing. Surfing is not played immediately before Archery. Boxing and
Cricket are played before Archery.

Directions (256-260): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
8 books P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are stacked one above another.
P is placed 3rd from the top of the stack. 2 books are placed between P and T. Only 1 book is placed
between T and S. 3 books are placed between S and R. Only 2 books are placed between Q and U. No
book is placed between Q and V. Number of books placed between S and V are more than 3.

Directions (261-265): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
A builder has seven apartments to be completed by 2032. In every two years, only one apartment
will be ready. O will be ready immediately after I. X will be ready in 2032. N will be ready after 2026.
A will be ready immediately before V. O will be ready after V. D will be ready before 2024.

Directions (266-270): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Seven people viz. K, L, M, N, O, P and Q work in a bank. Their designations (in decreasing order) are
ED, PCGM, CGM, GM, DGM, AGM and AM. O is not the junior most person. Two people are ranked
between M and P. Four people are senior to K. Q is an immediate junior to L. P is junior to K and is
not the junior most.

Directions (271-275): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Nine books of different languages were launched in a year on different days. The months in which
these books were launched were April, June and August and the dates were 10th, 12th and 17th of
these months. The German book was launched on 10th of a month with 31 days. One book was
launched between the German and the Spanish book. Four books are launched between Spanish and
Hindi books. English book is launched on 12th of a month immediately after Tamil book. Three books
are launched between Tamil and Telugu books. The French book was launched after the Punjabi book
but before the Marathi book.

Directions (276-280): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Eight caps of different colours are kept one above the other in the form of stack. Three caps are kept
between Brown and Yellow cap. The red cap is kept immediately below the yellow cap. Only one cap
is kept between the red cap and the green cap. The white cap is kept immediately above the green
cap. The blue colour cap is kept above the brown cap but below the pink cap. Five caps are kept
between purple and blue cap. The purple cap is kept below the green cap.

137
Directions (281-285): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Nine people were born in nine different years from 1991 to 1999. H was born in an even numbered
year but not in 1994. Three people are born between H and R. Two people are born between R and
T where T was born before R. N is born immediately after T. Six people were born between N and G.
P was born in an odd numbered year, immediately before W. J was born after Z.

Directions (286-290): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Seven people were born in seven different years from 1992 to 1998. R is born immediately after P. P
is born in one of the years after 1994. Three people are born between S and R. Only one person is
born between S and T where T is born before S. U is born after V. W is born before V.

Directions (291-295): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below
Eight people L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S live in a four floored building numbered 1 - 4 from bottom to
top. The building has two flats on each floor, numbered 1 and 2 such that flat '1' is to the west of flat
'2'. No two persons live in the same flat. M lives on a floor immediately above Q's floor. R and N live
on the same floor. There is only one floor between the floors of P and N who lives in flat '2'. O and S
live on the same floor and O's flat is to the west of S's flat. P lives in flat '1' and does not live on an
even numbered floor. L lives on a floor immediately above R and both lives in the same numbered
flat.

Directions (296-300): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
A school canteen brought seven different stationary items in a sequence one after the other, but not
necessarily in the same order.
Note: Only one item is brought at a time.
Two items are brought between Eraser and Notebook. The sharpener is brought immediately before
the Notebook. Pencil and Pen are brought before Scale. Only two items are brought after Scale. The
pen is brought before Sketchpad but after Pencil. The pencil is not brought immediately before or
after the pen.

Directions (301-305): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Seven people P,Q,R,S,T,U and V were born on seven different dates of the same year. The dates in
which they were born were 5th , 11th, 16th of May, June and July. Nobody was born on some of these
dates. T was born on 16th of a month but before Q. S was born 5th June. U was born before R but not
just after V. Nobody was born on the same date as U. R was born immediately after P i.e., They were
born on consecutive turns. V and R were born on the same date.

138
Directions (306-310): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Ten boxes of water bottle from different brands - Milton, Cello, Tupperware, Nike, Signoraware,
Pigeon, Nirlon, Puma, Borosil and Greenchef are kept one above another forming a stack.
Tupperware bottle is kept below Milton bottles but not at the bottom. Pigeon bottle is kept adjacent
to neither Borosil nor Milton bottles. Nike bottles are kept above Signoraware bottles. Three boxes
are kept between Milton and Greenchef bottles. Nirlon bottle is kept immediately above Cello and
four boxes are between Nirlon and Puma bottles. Borosil bottle is kept above Puma bottle and two
boxes are kept between them. One box is kept between Borosil and Greenchef bottles.

Directions (311-315): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six people - P, Q, S, T, U, and V work in the same organization at the different designation (in
descending order) i.e. CEO, Director, President, HR, Manager, and Clerk, but not necessarily in the
same order. Each one of them has a different number of Notebooks.
Only two people are junior to the one who has 4 notebooks. P is junior to the one who has 4
notebooks. There are two designations between P and V. Q has 9 notebooks. V has four notebooks
less than Q. Q is senior to V. T is immediately senior to U. T has 2 notebooks less than U. S has one
notebooks less than U. S is junior to V. P has 4 notebooks more than S.

Directions (316-320): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V not necessarily in the same order attended a meeting on different
days of a week starting from Monday to Sunday, again not necessarily in the same order. P attended
the meeting on Friday. At least two persons attended the meeting between P and R. One person
attended the meeting between R and Q. At least two persons attended the meeting between Q and S.
S attended the meeting before V but after R. The number of persons attending the meeting between
S and U is same as the persons attending between U and T.

Directions (321-325): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
In a family of three generations, there are eight members i.e., Py, Qy, Ry, Sy, Ty, Uy, Vy and Wy who
were born on the same day of the same month but in the different years i.e., 1977, 1984, 1988, 1990,
1992, 1993, 1994 and 2013, but not necessarily in the same order.
Note: Their ages are considered as on the same month and day of the year 2021.
Qy is four years elder than Vy. There is no grandfather in the family. Sy is the grandmother and the
head of the family. The sum of Uy's age and Vy's age is a perfect square and perfect cube. Py's age is
a perfect cube. The difference between the age of Ty and Ry is equal to the difference between the
age of Ry and Wy. Ty is elder than Wy.

Directions (326-330): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
In year 2019, from the months of January to July, a fest is held in different cities in each month.

139
The fest in Dehradun was held in a month with even numbered days. Two cities had fest in between
Guwahati's fest and Delhi's fest. Only one city had fest between Kolkata's fest and Jaipur's fest.
Bangalore's fest was held before Delhi's. Mumbai's fest was before Delhi's fest, but not immediately
before. Two cities had fest between Bangalore's and Dehradun's fest.

Directions (331-335): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight persons J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q work in film production company. Their designations are
Director, Producer, Executive producer (EP), Principal cast (PC), Casting Director (CD), Production
designer (PD), Art director (AD) and Photography director (PHD), but not necessarily in the same
order.
Note: The given sequence of designation is in decreasing order such that Director is the senior most
while the Photography director is the junior most persons in the hierarchy.
More than three persons are junior to N. The number of persons senior to Q is equal to the number
of persons junior to K. Q is immediate senior to O, who is junior to N. P is the Producer. Either one or
five persons are ranked between L and J. Q is junior to J.

Directions (336-340): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six females- Jin, Jiya, Piya, Riya, Rima and Sima occupy the shops in the six-storey building, such that
the bottommost shop is numbered as 1 and the topmost shop is numbered as 6, but not necessarily
in the same order. One person occupies the shop on each floor.
Rima occupies an even-numbered shop whereas not less than three shops are occupied below Piya.
Two shops are occupied between Riya and Piya. Riya's shop is immediately above Jiya. Sima's shop
is neither above Rima nor below Jin.

Directions (341-345): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Seven shelves are stacked over each other and a different eyeglass is kept on each shelf. The
eyeglasses are Carrera, Esprit, Lacoste, Polaroid, Police, Oakley, and Vogue. The same number of
eyeglasses are kept above and below Esprit. Only one eyeglass is kept between Police and Esprit.
Carrera is kept immediately above Police. Four eyeglasses are kept between Vogue and Police.
Polaroid and Vogue are kept adjacent to each other. Either Oakley or Lacoste is kept adjacent to
Esprit. Oakley is not kept at the bottom.

Directions (346-350): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
A building has four floors from first floor to fourth floor from bottom to top. Each floor has two flats
such that one flat is to the east of the other. One person lives in each flat.
R lives immediately below P on the same side of the building. M lives to the west of P. M lives below
A. One floor is in between M and A. T lives on the immediate floor below A. One person lives to the
west of K. One floor is in between Y and K. Nobody lives to the east of D.

140
Directions (351-355): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight countries launched a space rocket to establish their satellites but in different years from 1987
to 1994. USA launched the rocket in a year which is a multiple of 3. Three countries launched the
rocket between USA and Russia. Only one country launched the rocket between Russia and Iran.
Three countries launched the rocket between Iran and India. UK launched the rocket after India but
before USA. Germany launched the locket before China but after Japan.

Directions (356-360): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Seven officers of the Indian Navy are posted in different cities. Their designations are different and
the decreasing order of their designations is Rear Admiral, Commodore, Captain, Commander, Lt.
Commander, Lieutenant and Sub - Lieutenant. The cities are Karwar, Kochi, Okha, Vasco, Paradip,
Mumbai and Panaji. The one posted in Panaji or Paradip is not the top ranked officer. Only one officer
is ranked between the ones posted in Kochi and Karwar.The one posted in Vasco is ranked
immediately above the one posted in Mumbai. The one posted in Kochi is the commodore. Only two
officers are ranked between the ones posted in Paradip and Karwar.

Directions (361-365): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight boxes of different colours namely Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, White, Grey, Brown and Black are
kept in a stack (one above the other), but not necessarily in the same order.
The brown colour box is kept at the bottom of the stack. Only three boxes are kept above the Red
colour box. Two boxes are kept between the Red colour box and the Grey colour box. Five boxes are
kept between the Grey colour box and the Green colour box. The yellow colour box is kept is
immediately above the Blue colour box. A black colour box is placed immediately below the green
colour box.

Directions (366-370): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are living in a seven storey where ground floor is numbered as
floor 1 and topmost floor is numbered floor 7. Not more than one person lives on each floor. T lives
on the floor which is above floor 5. There are two floors between T and P. S lives immediately below
P. There are two people living between S and R. R lives on an even numbered floor. U lives
immediately above Q.

Directions (371-375): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Seven babies will get vaccinated on seven days of the week from Sunday to Saturday. Z will get
vaccinated on an immediate day before U. L and Z will get vaccinated on consecutive days. Three
babies will get vaccinated in between R and M such that M will get vaccinated after R. R and G will
get vaccinated on consecutive days. More than two babies will get vaccinated in between E and Z.

141
Directions (376-380): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Certain number of books are placed one above the other in a stack. There are two books placed
between Book A and Book D. Book A is placed above Book D. One book is placed between Book A and
Book E. Two books are placed between Book E and Book C. Only one book is placed above Book C.
More than Six books are placed in the stack. Book D is placed at the bottom of the stack.

Directions (381-385): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
A student went to six different shops namely A, D, M, O, S and W for particular stationery in a
sequence, but not necessarily in the same order. The student went to three shops between shop S
and shop O. He went to shop S before shop O. He went to shop D immediately after shop S. He went
to shop M immediately before shop A. He went to shop W before shop D.

Directions (386-390): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
A building has five floors from ground floor to fourth floor. One person lives on each floor and each
floor is painted with a different colour. Three floors are in between the floors on which E and J live.
E lives above J but not on the floor that is painted pink or yellow. N lives immediately above the floor
that is painted blue. N does not live on the first floor. A lives immediately below G. One floor is in
between the floors that are painted blue and white. The floor that is painted yellow is immediately
above the floor that is painted gray.

Directions (391-395): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
There were seven boxes kept one above the other in the form of stack. These boxes had different
clothing items in them. Three boxes were kept between the box which contained shoes and the box
which contained blazer. The box with coat was kept immediately above the box containing blazer.
Two boxes were kept between the box containing coat and the box containing pant. The box of belt
was kept below the box of shirt but above the box of shoes. The t-shirt box was kept below the pant
box but not immediately above the shoes box.

Directions (396-400): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are working in an organization at different designations (in descending order)
i.e. Chairman, MD, GM, DGM, AGM, S.Manager, Manager and Clerk, but not necessarily in the same
order.
W is junior to the one who works as AGM. There are two people senior to S. There is one designation
between W and P. V is immediately senior to S. R is immediately senior to U. Q is senior to T and R. T
is senior to U.

142
Solutions
Solution (1-5):
Sequence Book
1 S
2 P
3 V
4 B
5 X
6 R
7 N

Solutions (6-10):
Sr. No. Fruits
8 Lychee
7 Kiwi
6 Longan
5 Fig
4 Plum
3 Melon
2 Pear
1 Peach

Solutions (11-15):

143
Solutions (16-20):

Solutions (21-25):

Solutions (26-30):

Solutions (31-35):

144
Solutions (36-40):
Case 1 Case 2

Chocolates Chocolates

Juices Pickles

Eggs Eggs

Pickles Juices

Milk Jam

Jam Cookies

Cookies Milk

Pulses Pulses

Solutions (41-45):

Solutions (46-50):

145
Solutions (51-55):
Date Case 2
Person Place
26 Jan L Mumbai
28 Jan V Surat
26 Feb C Shillong
28 Feb G Chandigarh
26 Mar D Vellore
28 Mar S Bhopal

Solutions (56-60):
Exam Student Cleared
IBPS PO W, U
IBPS Clerk Y, T, X
IBPS SO V, Z

Solutions (61-65):

I II

4 F D

3 C A

2 B H

1 G E

Solutions (66-70):

146
Solutions (71-75):

Solutions (76-80):

Solutions (81-85):

147
Solutions (86-90):

Solutions (91-95):

Solutions (96-100):

148
Solutions (101-105):

Solutions (106-110):

Solutions (111-115):

Solutions (116-120):

149
Solutions (121-125):

Solutions (126-130):

Solutions (131-135):

150
Solutions (136-140):

Solutions (141-145):

Solutions (146-150):

151
Solutions (151-155):

Solutions (156-160):

Solutions (161-165):

Solutions (166-170):

152
Solutions (171-175):

Solutions (176-180):

Solutions (181-185):

153
Solutions (186-190):

Solutions (191-195):

Solutions (196-200):

154
Solutions (201-205):

Solutions (206-210):

Solutions (211-215):

Solutions (216-220):

155
Solutions (221-225):

Solutions (226-230):

Solutions (231-235):

156
Solutions (236-240):

Solutions (241-245):

Solutions (246-250):

Solutions (251-255):

157
Solutions (256-260):

Solutions (261-265):

Solutions (266-270):

158
Solutions (271-275):

Solutions (276-280):

Solutions (281-285):

159
Solutions (286-290):

Solutions (291-295):

Solutions (296-300):

Solutions (301-305):

160
Solutions (306-310):

Solutions (311-315):

Solutions (316-320):

161
Solutions (321-325):

Solutions (326-330):

Solutions (331-335):

162
Solutions (336-340):

Solutions (341-345):

Solutions (346-350):

Solutions (351-355):

163
Solutions (356-360):

Solutions (361-365):

Solutions (366-370):

164
Solutions (371-375):

Solutions (376-380):

Solutions (381-385):

165
Solutions (386-390):

Solutions (391-395):

Solutions (396-400):

***

166
CHAPTER - 10 SEATING ARRANGEMENT &
PUZZLE (MAINS)
Directions (1-5): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Eight books namely, Love, Mile, Night, Omega, Palace, Queen, Rocket and Search, were launched on
20th on four different months January, June, August and November of two different years 2018 and
2019. Author of the given books are among- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, but not necessarily in the same
order. Each book is provided with the code number, which is calculated by adding the position of
first letter of the book and position of the last letter of the month, in which, it was launched, according
to English alphabetical series.
Night, which is book of D, was launched five months after Omega, which is book of H. Search was
launched immediately before Night. Three books were launched between Mile and the book, whose
code number is 39. Difference between the code number of Mile and F's book is four. F's book was
not the first book to be launched. Difference between the code number of Palace and Love is at least
15. One book was launched five months before Queen, which is book of G. Difference between the
code number of A and B's book is in multiple of 10. E's book was launched either immediately before
or immediately after B. At most two books were launched between the book of C and D. At least one
book was launched between the book, whose code number is highest and the book, whose code
number is lowest. If E's book was launched before C's book, then sum of their code number is at least
61.
1. What is the sum of the code number of A and C's book?
(a) 72 (b) 75 (c) 79
(d) 82 (e) None of these
2. How many books were launched after the book, whose code number is the lowest?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Five
(d) Six (e) None of the above
3. How many books were launched between the book, whose code number is highest and the book,
whose code number is 34?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Five
(d) Six (e) None of the above
4. How many books were launched between Love and the book, which was launched immediately
after Queen?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four
(d) Six (e) None of the above
5. What is the sum of the code numbers of the books, which were launched in 2019?
(a) 118 (b) 126 (c) 128
(d) 133 (e) None of the above

167
Directions (6-10): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
In the year 2018, seminars for either Astronomy or History, are conducted in all the months
having odd number of days. In each month, only one seminar is conducted of either of the subject
and is conducted on different dates in each month. No seminar is held on 1 st of any month.
On 28th of August, History seminar was conducted. Only one astronomy seminar was conducted
before May, that was held on 6 th. None of the astronomy seminar was held in the months of May
and October. In December, seminar was held on the date which is factor of the date on which
seminar was held in October, which is half of the August's seminar date. In May, seminar was held
on date, which is possible smallest factor of the date on which seminar was held in January. One
of the history seminars was held on 10 th, which is not in January, March and May. Sum of dates of
seminars of March and July is equal to August's seminar date. All the history seminars are held
on even numbered dates.
6. How many history seminars are held in the whole year 2018?
(a) Three (b) Two (c) Five
(d) Four (e) More than five
7. Out of all the astronomy seminars held, when was the second seminar held in the year?
(a) There was only one astronomy seminar (b) None of these (c) 18thmarch
(d) 18thJuly (e) 7thDecember
8. How many history seminars are held between January and August (excluding both)?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two
(d) Three (e) Either two or three
9. On which date in July, the seminar was held?
(a) 2nd (b) 3rd (c) 10th
(d) 7th (e) Cannot be determined
10. Which of the following is odd?
(a) December - 6th (b) January - 5th (c) May - 3rd
(d) March - 17th (e) July - 9th

Directions (11-15): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Ten persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J live in a 6-storeyd building where bottommost floor is
numbered as 1 and topmost floor is numbered as 6. There are two flats (X and Y) in each floor
such that flat X is to the west of flat Y. Only one person lives in one flat and two flats (one flat X
and one flat Y) are vacant. Each person speaks different only one language among German,
Spanish, Italian, African, Arabic, Japanese, French, Korean, Russian and Turkish.
C speaks African and H does not speaks French. A's flat is to the west of E. One flat immediate
above 3rd floor is vacant. J neither live on 4 th floor nor in flat X. The flat immediate below D's flat
is vacant. E speaks Japanese and the flat immediate above to this flat is vacant. The person who
speaks Japanese and the person who speaks Spanish live in same flat. No one live above I's floor.

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The person who speaks Russian and H live on same floor. The person who speaks Spanish live on
6th floor. There are three floors in between the floors of F and C and both live in same flat. D
speaks Italian and lives in flat X. G lives in the flat immediate below I's flat and speaks German.
The person who speaks Japanese and the person who speaks Korean live in same floor. A's flat is
immediate below C's flat. The person who lives in flat Y on 4 th floor speaks Turkish. F lives in one
of the floor above C. E does not speak Korean.
11. How many persons live above B's floor?
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 4
(d) 2 (e) 6
12. Who does not live in flat Y?
(a) H (b) Who speaks Russian (c) Who speaks Spanish
(d) J (e) B
13. Which of the following combination represents vacant flats?
I. Flat X on 4th floor
II. Flat X on 3rd floor
III. Flat Y on 3rd floor
IV. Flat Y on 2nd floor
V. Flat Y on 4th floor
(a) I and IV (b) II and III (c) I and V
(d) II and IV (e) I and III
14. Which of the following combination is correct?
(a) Spanish - F (b) Japanese - H (c) Korean - A
(d) Korean - F (e) Spanish - B
15. Who among the following lives below J's floor?
I. C
II. The person who speaks Japanese
III. D
IV. The person who speaks French
V. A
(a) Only I (b) Only I, II and III (c) Only III and IV
(d) Only I, II and V (e) Only III and V

Directions (16-20): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Twelve persons namely, Sam, Jim, Tom, Ria, Mon, Yam, Ram, Kim, Bob, Jia, Col and Dim, sit around
two concentric equilateral triangular table. Each person has different novels among- Dracula, Emma,
Catch, Fire, Fury, Twist, Trial, Letter, Crime, Road, Wind and City, but not necessarily in the same
order. Six persons sit on inner table, such that three of them sit at the corner and remaining sit on
middle of the side of the table. Six persons sit on outer table, such that three of them sit at the corner
and remaining sit on middle of the side of the table.

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Each person faces only one person, who is closest to him/her. Persons, who sit on outer table, face
towards the centre and the persons, who sit on the inner table, face away from the centre of the table.
Persons, who sit on the same table, don't face each other.
Kim, who has Emma, faces Col and sits three places away from Sam, who has Trial. Yam, who has
City, sits immediate right of Col. Jim, who sits at the corner of the table, faces the person, who has
Wind. Neither Jim nor the person who has Wind is immediate neighbour of Yam. Ria, who has Road,
sits at the corner of the table. Jia, who has Fire, sits immediate right of Ria. Jia is not immediate
neighbour of Kim. Person, who has Dracula, sits on the outer table and sits at immediate right of the
person, who has Letter. Bob, who has Catch, faces Dim, who has Twist. Person, who has Fury, sits on
the inner table, but doesn't face Yam. Tom and Bob are immediate neighbours. Ram neither has Wind
nor Letter. Jim doesn't have Crime. Mon doesn't sit two places away from the person, who has Crime.
16. Four of the following five are related to each other in some manner to form a group. Which of
the following does not belong to that group?
(a) Jia (b) Col (c) Ram
(d) Bob (e) Sam
17. What is the position of Ram with respect to the person, who has Crime?
(a) Second to the right (b) Immediate right (c) Second to the left
(d) Third to the right (e) None of the above
18. Four of the following five groups of persons are related to each other in some manner. Find the
odd one out.
(a) Jia, Ram (b) Ria, Col (c) Mon, Jim
(d) Tom, Yam (e) Bob, Dim
19. How many persons sit between Sam and the person, who has Crime, when counted from the left
of Sam?
(a) Both sit on different table (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four (e) None of the above
20. Who sits second to the right of the person, who faces Ram?
(a) Persons who has Twist (b) Person who has City
(c) Person, who has Fury (d) Person, who has Fire
(e) None of these

Directions (21-25): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Sixteen persons, from A to P are sitting around two concentric circular tables such that eight
persons sit around the inner table facing outside the centre and eight persons sit around the
outer table facing inside the centre. The person sitting around the inner table sits opposite to the
person sitting around the outer table.
Only one person sits between E and N. Neither B nor L sits adjacent to K. Four persons sit between
D and H, who sits opposite to K. G, who sits opposite to I, sits second to the right of C. A sits second
to the left of K and immediate right of M. B sits third to the right of L, who sits opposite to C. F
sits adjacent to J, who sits opposite to E. O, who faces inside the centre, sits immediate left of D.

170
21. What is the position of P with respect to A?
(a) Third to the left (b) Second to the right (c) Immediate left
(d) Third to the right (e) Second to the left
22. How many persons sit between F and L on the same table when counted from the right of F?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) More than 3 (e) None
23. Four of the following are related to each other in some way and thus form a group. Who
among the following does not belong to that group?
(a) I (b) B (c) J
(d) H (e) N
24. How many pairs of persons sit adjacent to each other according to alphabetical series (in
forward direction)?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) More than 3 (e) None
25. E, who sits opposite to _____, sits _______________ of ____ who sits opposite to _______.
(a) R, Immediate left, D, O (b) J, Second to the right, K, H (c) C,
Third to the left, P, B
(d) J, Fourth to the right, A, M (e) L, Second to the left, N, I
Directions (26-30): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Fourteen persons are sitting at an equal distance in two parallel rows, such that , P through V are
sitting in row 1 facing north and A through G are sitting in row 2 facing south. Persons sitting in row
1 and row 2 are facing each other. Each of them lives in seven different places. No two persons who
live in the same city are sitting in the same row.
P is sitting 3rd to the right of the person, who lives in Agra. One person is sitting between R and P.
Person, who lives in Bhopal, sits to the immediate right of R, who sits opposite to the person, who
lives in Mumbai. Three persons sit between C and the person, who lives in Mumbai. One person lives
between C and one of the persons living in Agra. Q, who lives in Mumbai, is sitting in the east of the
person opposite to C. One person sits between Q and S, who lives in Shimla. V lives neither in Agra
nor in Bhopal. C doesn’t sit in the north west of V. T, who doesn’t sit opposite to the person to the
west of E, doesn’t live in Bhopal. Two persons are sitting between E, who doesn’t live in Shimla and
G. One person is sitting between G and D, who doesn’t sit in the north east of S. Neither B nor A is
sitting opposite to S. F lives in Ranchi. B sits in north-west to the person who lives in Pune. A lives in
Delhi. Both P and C live in the same city.
26. How many persons are sitting between F and E?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
(d) 1 (e) None of these
27. What is the position of C with respect to A?
(a) 2nd to the right (b) Immediately right (c) immediately left
(d) 3 to the left
rd (e) None of these

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28. ______ definitely lives in Delhi?
(a) R (b) A (c) V
(d) U (e) None of these
29. ________ sits opposite to Q.
(a) C (b) D (c) G
(d) A (e) None of these
30. How many persons are sitting between Q and T?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 3
(d) 1 (e) None of these

Directions (31-34): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight persons namely, Lana, Neha, Jill, Hank, Ria, Sam, Tim and Jon, sit around a regular hexagonal
shaped table and face towards the centre of the table. Six of these persons sit along the corner of the
table. The remaining two persons sit along the middle of the side of the table such that they sit
opposite to each other. Each of them has different card numbers among- 13, 17, 18, 19, 21, 24, 27
and 31, but not necessarily in the same order. They are playing a game of cards with certain condition
based on the number in each card. Depending on the card number each person holds, they have to
place their respective card in the form of a shelf, having slots to place the card. The slot which is at
the bottommost position is numbered as 1, the slot above it is numbered as 2 and so on.
Conditions:
1- No two prime number cards are to be placed adjacent to each other.
2- An even number card is not placed on any of the prime numbered slot.
Lana, who does not sit along the middle of the side, sits second to the right of Jill. The one, who has
card 13, sits along the middle of the side, but not adjacent to Jill. Jill doesn't sit along the middle of
the side. Ria, who has card 18, sits third to the left of one of the persons who sit along the middle of
the side. Sam sits second to the left of Tim. No person who holds a prime numbered card sits adjacent
to Tim. Sam does not sit along the middle of the side. The one, who has card 19, sits second to the left
of Jon. Tim does not have card 19, Neha sits adjacent to Jon.
Neither Ria nor the one, who has card 24 place their card in the 1st slot. The card number 21 is placed
on 6th slot. Card number 31 is immediately below card number 27, Jill's card and Hank's card are not
adjacent. Jon's card is three slots above the Hank's card. Jon's card is not 24, Neha's card is not
adjacent to Jon's card. Tim's card is above Sam's card. Jill has even numbered card.
31. How many person sit between the one, who has card number 17 and the one, who has card
number 31, when counted from the right of the one, who has card number 31?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Five
(d) Four (e) None
32. _____ cards are kept below the card of the one, who sits fourth to the right of Tim?
(a) Five (b) Six (c) Four
(d) Three (e) Seven

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33. What is the sum of the card number of the persons, who sit adjacent to Sam?
(a) 42 (b) 49 (c) 45
(d) 51 (e) 48
34. _____, who has card number _____, sits third to the left of Jon.
(a) Jill, 24 (b) Hank, 17 (c) Ria, 18
(d) Jon, 21 (e) None of the above

Directions (35-39): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a society, there are four buildings located at equal distance from one another around a circular
ground. One building has 4 floors, two have 3 floors and one building has 2 floors. Twelve persons O,
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z, live on different floors of the given four buildings. Each building faces
towards the centre of the ground. Also, in each building the floor which is at the bottom is numbered
as 1, the floor above it as 2 and so on. The building with four floors is opposite to the building which
has two floors. Each person, who lives in these buildings, work in different companies among- SBI,
RIL, HAL, BARC, SAIL, BEL, PNB, ITC, L&T, TCS, NTPC and DRDO, but not necessarily in the same
order.
Note:
1) No two persons, whose initials start with consecutive alphabetical letters, as per English
alphabetical order, live in adjacent floors of the same building.
2) If A is immediate left/immediate right of B, then both of them must be on the same floor i.
(e). if A lives on 2nd floor, then B must also live on the 2nd floor.
O, who works in SBI, lives on the topmost floor. There is only one floor between O and W, in the same
building. X lives immediate right of W. V lives two floors above Y. P, who works in SAIL, lives
immediate right of Y. S lives immediately above the one, who works in BARC, but not on an even
numbered floor. U lives immediate right of S. Z lives immediate right of Q. The one, who works in
HAL, lives above R. T works in RIL. The one, who works in BEL, lives second to the right of the one,
who works in PNB. The one, who works in BEL, doesn't live in the building of U. Q does not work in
PNB. The one, who works in ITC, lives on the same floor as the one, who works in L&T. The one, who
works in L&T, lives above the one, who works in TCS, in the same building. Y does not work in DRDO.
35. Which of the following statement/ statements is/are correct?
Statement I: S, who lives in the same building as O, works in ITC.
Statement II: The one, who works in DRDO, and the one, who works in RIL, live in different buildings.
Statement III: There is at least one floor between the one, who works in L&T and the one, who works
in TCS.
(a) Only statement I is correct (b) Only statement II is correct
(c) Only statement III is correct (d) Only statements I and II are correct
(e) Only statements I and III are correct
36. Z, who lives in the same building as ____, works in ____.
(a) T, RIL (b) R, SAIL (c) T, DRDO
(d) Q, TCS (e) None of the above

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37. Who among the following lives second to the left of the one, who works in L&T?
(a) The one who works in RIL (b) The one who works in NTPC
(c) The one who works in BEL (d) The one who works in HAL
(e) More than one option is true
38. Four of the following five are alike in a certain manner and one is different. Choose the pair
which is different.
(a) O and the one, who works in SAIL (b) V and the one, who works in NTPC
(c) U and the one, who works in TCS (d) T and the one who works in DRDO
(e) R and the one who works in HAL
39. ____, who works in ____, lives ____ to the right of the one, who works in NTPC.
(a) T, DRDO, third (b) Q, NTPC, second (c) Q, ITC, second
(d) Z, DRDO, third (e) None of the above

Directions (40-44): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
A kid was playing a game, where he arranged twelve letters of alphabets in two parallel rows
with the same distance between them. The letters arranged in row 1 have their direction towards
the south while the letters arranged in row 2 have their direction towards the north direction.
The number of the letters arranged in row 1 is two more than the number of letters arranged in
row 2. None of the places is vacant between adjacent letters in each row.
Letter K is kept opposite of letter E, which is fourth to the right of letter D. Letter F is kept
immediately to the right of letter A, which is kept opposite to letter H. Letter H is arranged exactly
between Letter G and the letter K. Three letters are kept between letter B and letter M. Letter A
is kept second to the right of letter D and third, to the left of the letter B. L is kept opposite to the
letter who is second to the left of F. Letter J is kept second to the left of Letter M. Letter C is kept
third to the left of letter G, which is having its direction towards the north.
40. Which pair of letters is kept at the ends of a row?
(a) K and G (b) B and D (c) M and J
(d) C and L (e) F and G
41. How many letters are kept between letter E and letter J?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) More than 3 (e) None
42. Which among the following is kept opposite to the letter which is fourth to the left of letter E?
(a) L (b) H (c) K
(d) J (e) G
43. Which of the following letter is kept opposite to B?
(a) K (b) C (c) L
(d) G (e) None

174
44. What is the position of letter C with respect to letter L?
(a) Third to the right (b) Immediate left (c) Second to the left
(d) Second to the right (e) Cannot be determined

Directions (45-49): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In an apartment complex, there are 21 floors, such that floor immediately above the ground floor is
numbered as 1, the floor above it as 2 and so on. Two lifts operate in the apartment, lift A and lift B
from ground to floor. The stoppage of these lifts is according to certain conditions and the lift moves
upward only. Initially the lift starts from the ground floor.
The two lifts never stop on the same floor. Lift A does not stop on 1st floor. One of the lift stops on the
21st floor. B does not stop in any two consecutive floors, but if B stops on 12th floor then it must stops
on 13th floor. Lift B stops at least 7 times. Lift A always stops two floors above each perfect square
numbered floor. Below the 8th floor, B stops on only prime numbered floors. The fourth stop of A is
on an even numbered floor. Between the fourth stop of A and the fourth stop of B there are three
floors. Between the 11th floor and the 18th floor, lift A stops only once and on an odd numbered floor.
Between 11th floor and 18th floor, A does not stop on a floor immediately above B. The fifth stop of A
is on a prime numbered floor. Above 14th floor, lift B stops at least twice and only on even numbered
floor such that there are at least two floors between two consecutive stops. Above 14th floor, A stops
at least twice on the floors which are immediately below the floor, where lift B stops.

45. How many floors are there between the 4th and the 5th stop of A?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five
(d) Two (e) None of the above

46. On how many floors neither of the two lifts stops?


(a) Five (b) Two (c) One
(d) Six (e) Seven

47. Which of the following statement/ statements is/are definitely true?


Statement I: Lift A stops on 19th floor and lift B stops on 20th floor.
Statement II: The third stop of lift A is on the 6th floor
Statement III: After the fifth stop of lift A, lift B stop 4 times
(a) Only statement I is true (b) Only statements II and III are true (c)
Only statements I and III are true
(d) Only statements II and III are true (e) All three statements are true

48. What is the sum of number of stops of lift A above the 13th floor and the stops of lift B below the
16th floor?
(a) 11 (b) 9 (c) 13
(d) 14 (e) 10

175
Directions (49-52): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Ten persons A, D, G, J, L, N, Q, S, W and Z were born in different months of the same year starting
from March to December but not necessarily in the same order. They were born in different cities
among Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai, Kolkata and Pune such that two persons were born in each city.
Two persons born in consecutive months were not born in the same city.
Three persons were born between the two persons born in Delhi. N was born in June immediately
after the person who was born in Pune. Four persons were born between the two people born in
Chennai where the younger one is Z. J is elder to Q. W was born immediately after the person who
was born in Pune. Three persons were born between J and Q where both were born in the month
of 31 days. The person who was born in November was born in Mumbai. Neither J nor Q was born
in Chennai. L was born immediately before A, who was born in Delhi. Only one person was born
between G and S, who was born in Kolkata. N was not born in Mumbai. L was not born in Chennai.
49. How many persons were born between W and S?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
(d) 5 (e) More than 5
50. In which of the following months D was born?
(a) June (b) April (c) October
(d) August (e) May
51. Four of the following are related to each other in some way and thus form a group, who
among the following does not belong to that group?
(a) G (b) L (c) W
(d) N (e) Z
52. In which of the following city S was born?
(a) Pune (b) Delhi (c) Kolkata
(d) Mumbai (e) Chennai

Directions (53-55): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
10 consecutive prime numbers, greater than 11, are written in decreasing order from top to bottom.
The letters of the words 'PINK' are written from bottom to top in the same order against the number
with the sum of digits as an even number. Three alphabets are neither written between I and N nor
between K and N. P and I are written against consecutive prime numbers. As many numbers are
between K and M as the number of alphabets between 'S' and 'V' as per English alphabetical order.
There is a difference of 6 between the numbers against which 'A' and 'D' are written. There are two
numbers between the number against which the letter 'D' and letter 'E' are written. E is written
against a number greater than 38, O is written against a number which has sum of digits as prime
number. U is written below O. The sum of the letters against which P and U are written is not 30.
53. Four of the following five pairs of letter are alike in certain manner and one is different. Choose
the one that is different.
(a) O, U (b) A, I (c) D, I
(d) M, K (e) A, P

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54. How many numbers are there between P and U?
(a) Three (b) Five (c) Four
(d) Two (e) None
55. Which of the following letter/letters are written against the numbers, which are smaller than
the number against which D is written?
Letter 1: N
Letter 2: E
Letter 3: U
(a) Only letter 1 (b) Only letter 2 (c) Only letter 1 and letter 2
(d) Only letter 2 and letter 3 (e) Only letter 1 and letter 3

Directions (56-60): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
7 players A, B, C, D, E, F and G were practicing football. Each person played as a forward and as a
goal keeper. When one person played as a forward another person played as a goal keeper. Each
player scored goal against a different goal keeper. No player played against the same player twice.
Thus, if C played as a goal keeper against B, then B will not be playing as the goal keeper against
C. Each forward player scored different number of goals viz. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 not necessarily
in the same order.
A played as the forward against the one who played the forward against G. G scored twice as
many goals as scored against B. E scored 6 goals against the one who played as the forward
against C. D played as the goal keeper against G. F and A scored consecutive number of goals. 5
goals were scored against E. B scored 4 goals more than that scored by D. The goals scored against
F were twice as that of the goals scored against A. C did not play with G.
56. Who scored the least number of goals?
(a) A (b) C (c) E
(d) F (e) G
57. Who defended against F?
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) G (e) Cannot be determined
58. How many goals were scored against D?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) 5
59. Which of the following shows a pair who played together?
(a) A, F (b) E, D (c) C, F
(d) B, E (e) E, B
60. What was the difference between the number of goals scored by F and G?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) 5

177
Directions (61-65): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Seven people are sitting in a linear row from west to east. They are sitting in consecutive English
alphabetical order from the left end. Each of them works in different companies - HP, HCL, TCS, CTS,
IBM, Infosys and Wipro. Some of the people sitting in a linear row faces north and some of them are
facing south. No three persons sitting together faces the same direction. Also, not more than three
persons faces north direction.
Note: If two persons faces the same direction means either both faces north direction or faces south
direction. If two persons faces the opposite direction means, if one person faces north, then another
person faces south and vice versa.
Three persons sit between the one who works in IBM and the one who works in Infosys. The one
who works in TCS sits second to the left of the one who works in IBM. The one who works in TCS sits
at the end. The one who works in Wipro sits second to the left of the one who works in HCL. The
immediate neighbors of I faces the same direction. The number of persons who sit to the left of I is
same as the number of persons who sit to the right of the one who works in IBM. The immediate
neighbors of the one who works in IBM faces the opposite direction. I, who works in HP and the one
who works in HCL are immediate neighbors. The one who sits at the corner faces the same direction.
61. Who sits third to the left of I?
(a) The one who works in TCS (b) The one who works in Infosys
(c) The one who works in CTS (d) The one who works in IBM
(e) The one who works in Wipro
62. Who among the following is not sitting in the given linear row?
(a) L (b) E (c) F
(d) G (e) K
63. Four of the following were in a certain group, which of the following that does not belong to that
group?
(a) The one who works in TCS (b) The one who works in Wipro
(c) The one who works in HCL (d) The one who works in CTS
(e) The one who works in Infosys
64. Who among the following works in CTS?
(a) H (b) J (c) K
(d) E (e) F
65. Who sits to the immediate right of the one who works in HCL?
(a) I (b) G (c) K
(d) J (e) H

Directions (66-70): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
In 2 concentric squares, 8 chairs each are placed along both squares. They are placed such that 4
chairs are placed in the corner and 4 chairs are placed along the side of the square. 8 chairs on the

178
inner square are facing away from the centre and those on the outer square are facing towards
centre. 12 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are sitting on one of these chairs in no particular
order.
A is facing G, who is sitting along the inner square. G is sitting 3rd to the left of K, who is sitting in the
corner of the square. B is sitting to the immediate left of C, who is sitting in the corner of the inner
square. B is facing H, who is sitting 2nd to the left of L. L is facing D, who is sitting 3rd to the right of
I. I is facing E, who is sitting to the immediate right of F. J is neither sitting adjacent to H nor sitting
adjacent to B. J is sitting in the corner of one of the squares.
66. D is facing __.
(a) K (b) J (c) L
(d) C (e) Cannot be determined
67. Find the odd one out.
(a) C (b) D (c) G
(d) K (e) L
68. Who is facing the person sitting 4th to the right of F?
(a) No one is facing him (b) No one is sitting 4 th to the right of F
(c) B (d) D (e) H
69. J is facing __.
(a) K (b) F (c) C
(d) I (e) E
70. Who is sitting 2nd to the left of I?
(a) No one (b) A (c) C
(d) D (e) B

Directions (71-75): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Ten persons A, D, F, H, K, M, O, R, T and V sit around a pentagonal table such that five persons sit at
the corner of the table facing inside the centre and five persons sit at the middle of the edges of the
table facing outside the centre. The person sitting at the corner of the table likes different movies
viz., Hawkeye, Venom, Inception, Deadpool and Thor while the person sitting at the middle of the
table likes different sports.
Three persons sit between H and R, who likes Football. H neither likes Kabaddi nor Tennis. The
number of persons sitting between V and F is an even number when counted from the right of V. F
likes Cricket. M sits third to the right of T, who sits adjacent to F and likes Venom movie. One of the
person likes Basketball. D sits immediate right of O, who faces inside the centre. The person who
likes Kabaddi sits third to the left of the person who likes Inception movie. V, who likes Hawkeye
movie, sits immediate left of H. Two persons sit between M and A, who likes Thor movie.
71. O likes _______.
(a) Tennis (b) Deadpool (c) Kabaddi
(d) Inception (e) Basketball

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72. How many persons sit between K and the person who likes Tennis when counted from the right
of K?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
(d) 5 (e) More than 5
73. Which of the following statement is true?
i) K likes Inception movie.
ii) Three persons sit between A and T when counted from the right of A.
iii) F faces outside the centre.
iv) O sits immediate right of the person who likes Kabaddi.
(a) Only i and ii (b) Only ii, iii and iv (c) Only ii and iv
(d) Only i, ii and iii (e) All statements are true.
74. If all persons sit according to alphabetical order starting from A clockwise direction, how many
persons will remain in the same position after rearrangement except A?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) More than 3 (e) None
75. K sits third to the right of _____, who likes _________ and faces _______ the centre.
(a) D, Tennis, inside (b) R, Thor, outside (c) O, Venom, inside
(d) H, Basketball, outside (e) M, Kabaddi, inside

Directions (76-80): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Five employees worked in five different companies among Intel, Amazon, Flipkart, Samsung and
Google in a year. They worked for five different years among 2018, 2019, 2020, 2021 and 2022. Each
of the employees switched the company after a year such that each employee worked for five
different companies in the given five years. Each employee worked only for one year in a company.
Further information regarding this is given below.Mohit worked in Google immediate after the year
Srijan worked in Google. Srijan and Mridul worked for Intel and Google respectively in the year 2019.
Harsh did not work for Flipkart in 2021. Rajat did not work in Flipkart in the year 2018. Rajat worked
for Amazon in an even numbered year immediate after Mohit left the same company. Harsh did not
work for Samsung in the year 2019. Rajat worked for Intel immediate after the year he left Google.
Srijan did not work for Amazon in 2020.
76. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Mridul worked for Intel in the year 2021 (b) Mohit worked for Samsung in the year 2022
(c) Harsh worked for Google in the year 2019 (d) Rajat worked for Flipkart in the year 2021
(e) Srijan worked for Samsung in the year 2020
77. Which of the following pair worked in Flipkart for the year 2020 and 2021 respectively?
(a) Mohit, Srijan (b) Mridul, Srijan (c) Harsh, Mridul
(d) Rajat, Harsh (e) Rajat, Mohit
78. In which of the following year Harsh worked for Intel?
(a) 2018 (b) 2019 (c) 2020
(d) 2021 (e) 2022

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79. Who worked for Samsung in the year 2019?
(a) Rajat (b) Mohit (c) Srijan
(d) Mridul (e) Harsh

Directions (81-85): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Eight people i.e. E, G, K, N, Q, R, S and T like different fruits i.e. grapes, pear, peach, cherry, kiwi,
papaya, melon and mango but not necessarily in the same order. They all are from eight different
classes i.e. class 1, class 2, class 3, class 4, class 5, class 6, class 7 and class 8 but not necessarily in the
same order.
More than four persons are senior to N. R who likes Papaya is in class 5. One who likes Cherry is
immediate junior to R. T is junior to R and E is junior to N. T neither likes Cherry nor the juniormost
among all. One who likes Melon is senior to N. One who likes Grapes is one class senior to the one
who likes Melon. K is junior to the person who likes Grapes. K neither likes Cherry nor Melon. S is
one class senior to the person who likes Kiwi. G is junior to S. Neither N nor E likes Pear. One who
likes Pear is not immediate junior to G. One who likes Mango is junior to S. One who likes Mango is
senior to the one who likes Peach.
81. Who among the following likes Mango?
(a) K (b) T (c) N
(d) E (e) R
82. Which of the following fruit is liked by Q?
(a) Mango (b) Peach (c) Pear
(d) Grapes (e) Kiwi
83. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) N is senior to one who likes Melon. (b) One who likes Pear is senior to K.
(c) One who is in class 7 likes Mango. (d) One who likes Cherry is senior to T.
(e) R is junior to E.
84. Which of the following combination is correct?
(a) Class 7 - Peach (b) Class 6 - Grapes (c) Class 3 - Kiwi
(d) Class 2 - Pear (e) Class 4 – Melon
85. In which of the following class S studies?
(a) Class 3 (b) Class 2 (c) Class 6
(d) Class 8 (e) Class 7

Directions (86-90): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Seven persons-A, B, C, D, E, F and G have swimming classes from Monday to Sunday, but not
necessarily in the same order. They were born on different years of same date in a month and their
ages are calculated with respect to 2022. None of them was born in the same year. No two persons
have same age.

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Note: If the person’s age is considered as last two digits of the person’s birth year, then it will be in
any sequence. For example, if the age of Z is considered as the last two digits of Z’s birth year 2014,
then the age of Z is either 14 or 41
A has a class on Wednesday. Only one person has a class between A and the one who was born in
1969. The one whose age is the last two digits of B’s birth year has a class immediately after the one
who was born in 1969. Two people have classes between the one who was born in 1981 and the one
who is 33 years old. The one who was born in 1981 has a class after the one who is 33 years old. The
one who was born in 1989 has a class before Thursday but not on Tuesday. E has a class two days
before the one who is 41 years old. Two people have classes between E and C. C has a class after A.
The one who was born in 1995 has a class immediately after the one who was born in 1997. The one
who was born in 1997 has a class before Saturday. Two people have classes between F and the one
who was born in 1995. D has a class before E. The one who was born in 1971 has a class after G. B
was not born in 1981. The difference between the ages of F and G is 30.
86. How many people are older than E?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
(d) 5 (e) 6
87. B was born in____.
(a) 1971 (b) 1911 (c) 2011
(d) 1951 (e) 1995
88. C has a class on_______.
(a) Sunday (b) Thursday (c) Tuesday
(d) Saturday (e) Friday
89. Who was born in 1951?
(a) B (b) F (c) G
(d) E (e) D
90. Who has a class on Tuesday?
(a) C (b) B (c) F
(d) E (e) G

Directions (91-95): Read the below given information carefully and answer the question
given below:
“A lives on a floor that is above B’s floor” does not necessarily mean that A and B live in the same
building.
“A lives on a floor adjacent to B” indicates A and B lives in adjacent floors of the same building.
There are two buildings of 6 floors each, each building has 6 residents (One resident per floor).
Consider the building to your left to be building 1 and the other as building 2.
W lives on an odd prime number floor just below to Y but not in the same building. As many floors
are above Z is same as below U, who lives just above V. U and V lives in the same building but not as
O. Y lives in an even numbered building. Six persons live between N and X, who lives either on the
top or the bottom most floor in the same building. One floor is between Y and Z, who does not live on
the top floor. W and N does not live on the same floor. Number of floors above Q is one more than the

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number of floors below V. One floor is between M and P, who doesn’t live on 1st floor. Neither P nor
M lives on a floor above N. If P lives adjacent to Q, then R and O live on the same floor else they live
on different floors.
91. What is the maximum number of floors between two people who has a vowel letter as their name
and who live in the same building?
(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 2
(d) 0 (e) 4
92. Who among the following lives on 3rd floor of Building 1 and 1st floor of Building 2 respectively?
(a) W and X (b) U and P (c) M and Z
(d) X and W (e) None of the above
93. How many floors are between the floor on which Q and Y lives?
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) More than 3
(d) 1 (e) 3
94. Which among the following statements is/are true?
(a) P lives on an even numbered floor
(b) Number of floors below Y is one more than the number of floors above V
(c) M and N lives in same building
(d) Z lives immediately above W
(e) None of the statement is true
95. How many persons live above Z but below N?
(a) 6 (b) 1 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) 2

Directions (96-100): Read the below given information carefully and answer the question
given below:
Nine persons, namely A1, B2, C3, D4, E5, F6, G7, H8, and I9, attended conferences on different dates
among the 13th, 21st, and 28th of different months from January to March of the same year. No two
persons attended the conference on the same date. Each of them has published a different number
of journals ranging from 1 to 4. At least two persons have published the same number of journals. All
the above information is not necessarily in the same order.
Four people attended the conference between H8 and F6, who didn't attend the journal in the month
having 31 days. Those who attended the conference on the odd dates of March published only one
journal. I9 attended the conference on an odd date immediately after B2. F6 has published 2 journals.
B2 attended the conference in January. A1, who attended the conference on the 13th of a month, did
so before D4. Both E5 and G7 published 4 journals. H8 didn't attend the conference on an odd-
numbered date. C3 attended the conference on an odd-numbered date and published 3 journals. E5
attended the conference before G7. B2 published the same number of journals as the person who
attended immediately before G7. I9 published twice the number of journals as H8.
96. What is the number of journals published by I9?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) Cannot be determine

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97. How many people attended the conference between B2 and C3?
(a) Four (b) Three (c) One
(d) Two (e) None of these
98. Which among the following combination is true?
(a) H8-30th March-1 Journal (b) I9-21st-January-2 Journals
(c) B2-13th January-3 Journals (d) G7-21st-February-4 Journals
(e) All are true
99. If total number journals published by all 3 people in January are a prime number, then what is
the sum of the journals published by H8 and B2?
(a) Four (b) Five (c) Three
(d) Either A or B (e) Either B or C
100. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the
following does not belong to the group?
(a) B2-E5 (b) I9-F6 (c) C3-A1
(d) G7-D4 (e) H8-A1

Directions (101-105): Read the below given information carefully and answer the question
given below:
Eight people, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are staying in a three-storied building such there were four flats
on each floor numbered 1 to 4 from western to eastern side of the building. The ground floor is
numbered 1, the next floor is numbered 2, and so on. Flat-1 of third floor is immediately above flat-
1 of second floor and so on. Similarly, for flat-2, flat-3 and flat 4
At least one flat on each side of the building is vacant. The adjacent flats of A are vacant. A lives in
flat-2. C and F lives in adjacent flats. G lives in a flat of the 2nd floor immediately above H's flat. E lives
in flat-1 of the 3rd floor. D lives on a floor above B's floor. No two person shares the same flat.
Note: If X and Y lives in adjacent flats then X lives immediately above/below Y or X lives to the
immediate west/east of Y.
101. D lives in flat _______ of the _________ floor.
(a) 2, 3rd (b) 2, 2nd (c) 1, 1st
(d) 3, 3rd (e) 2, 1st
102. On which floor does F live?
(a) 3rd (b) 2nd (c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) 1st (e) Cannot be determined
103. H lives in flat _________ .
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) Either (a) or (d)
104. On which floor does C live?
(a) 3rd (b) 2nd (c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) 1st (e) Cannot be determined

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105. How many flats are vacant in the building?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) More than 4

Directions (106-110): Read the below given information carefully and answer the question
given below:
Eight friends - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a rectangular table with three people on
each longer side and one person on each shorter side. All of them are facing the centre. They all like
different games such as Cricket, Chess, Badminton, Tennis, Hockey, Football, Basketball and Carrom
but not necessarily in the same order. No two successive persons sit together according to the English
alphabetical order.
One person seated between R and the one who likes Badminton. S likes Hockey. U and the one who
likes Cricket are immediate neighbours. V sits second to the right of the one who likes Tennis. T sits
opposite to the one who likes Carrom. W does not like Tennis. The one who likes Chess sits opposite
to V. P sits opposite to the one who likes Badminton. Q sits third to the left of T and second to the
right of the one who likes Hockey. V and the one who likes Football are immediate neighbours.
106. Who among the following likes Basketball?
(a) S (b) T (c) U
(d) V (e) W
107. What is the position of W with respect to the one who likes Cricket?
(a) Second to the left (b) Second to the right (c) Third to the left
(d) Third to the right (e) Immediate left
108. Who among the following sits opposite to each other?
(a) P and the one who likes Chess (b) U and the one who likes Cricket
(c) R and the one who plays Hockey (d) Q and the one who likes Carrom
(e) S and the one who likes Football
109. If V is related to Chess and T is related to Carrom then in the same way P is related to?
(a) Cricket (b) Hockey (c) Basketball
(d) Badminton (e) Tennis
110. Which of the following combination is true?
(a) W likes Carrom
(b) R and the one who likes Tennis are not immediate neighbours
(c) V and R are immediate neighbours
(d) Q and the one who likes Chess are immediate neighbours
(e) R likes Football

Directions (111-115): Read the below given information carefully and answer the question
given below:
Nine people are sitting on a triangular mat and are facing inside. They are seated in such a way that
one person is sitting at each corner and two people are sitting on each side. Their ages are multiple
of three.

185
If everyone is arranged according to their ages in the ascending order, then J comes immediately
before L who comes immediately before K. The one whose age is 24 sits immediately left of K. Only
two people sit between J and L. Age of F is twice the age of I and both sit on the same edge of the mat.
H is not the oldest. The youngest member sits to the immediate right of L. G is sitting at one of the
edges. The age of the one who is sitting second to the right of J is twice of the one who is sitting second
to the left of J. Three people sit between G and K, whose age is 33. L sits fifth to the left of the one
whose age is 24. G is not the youngest of all. Age of E is half of the age of L. D sits third to the right of
the one whose age is thrice his age.
111. Who are sitting at the corners?
(a) I, H and F (b) H, F and D (c) D, E and G
(d) J, L and K (e) K, F and E
112. Select the correct combination.
(a) K - 36 (b) D - 12 (c) F - 15
(d) G - 24 (e) H – 33
113. Who among the following are aged above 20?
(I) G
(II) I
(III) H
(a) Only III (b) Both I and II (c) Only II
(d) Only I (e) Both I and III
114. F is sitting third to the left of _____?
(a) J (b) E (c) D
(d) L (e) I
115. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Age of F is multiple of 8
(b) Sum of ages of I and H is less than 40
(c) LCM of ages of D and H is 24
(d) Age of L is 27
(e) The sum of the ages of the people sitting at the corners is 69.

Directions (116-120): Read the below given information carefully and answer the question
given below:
Eight cricket players - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a linear row facing north. All of them has
different jersey number and scored different runs.
Following is the distribution of players in descending order of their runs:
S(17)>V(21)>T(10)>U(18)>P(13)>W(25)>R(29)>Q(27)
(Note: S(17) means that S wears jersey number 17)
Further it is known that the difference between the jersey numbers of the immediate neighbours of
U is ten. Both R and P do not sit at any of the ends. Two persons sit between S and the one who wears
lowest jersey number. T and the one who scored second highest runs are immediate neighbours. S
sits at the end. The difference between W's jersey number and the one who sits to the immediate
right of W is four.

186
116. Who among the following sits to the immediate left of V?
(a) The one who scored third lowest runs
(b) The one who scored fourth highest runs
(c) The one whose jersey number was in multiple of three
(d) The one who sits second to the right of R
(e) The one who scored fourth lowest runs
117. The number of persons who sits to the left of T is twice that of the number of persons who sits
to the right of _______
(a) Q (b) R (c) P
(d) U (e) V
118. How many persons sit between the one who scored least number of runs and the one who
wears jersey which was in multiple of six?
(a) Four (b) Three (c) Two
(d) One (e) None
119. Four of the following were in a certain group, which of the following that does not belong to
that group?
(a) P Q (b) S T (c) W P
(d) V W (e) U V
120. Which of the following combination(s) is/ are true?
(a) T sits second to the left of the one who scored third least number of runs
(b) P and the one who scored second least runs are immediate neighbours
(c) Other than the given options
(d) S and the one who wears the highest jersey number are sits at the ends
(e) Both (b) and (d)

Directions (121-125): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
There are two concentric hexagonal tables such that one person is sitting at each corner of each table.
All the persons are facing toward the centre. No person whose name start with a vowel is sitting at
the outer table. X is sitting second to the left of S. One person is sitting in between G and N. N is sitting
exactly behind U. T is sitting second to the right of U. A is an immediate neighbour of O. Q is sitting
second to the right of O. H and E are sitting in the same line of sight but H is not sitting exactly behind
E. P is not a neighbour of H.
121. Who is sitting to the immediate right of P?
(a) N (b) G (c) T
(d) S (e) X
122. How many persons are sitting in between Q and E, to the left of E?
(a) None (b) More than three (c) Two
(d) One (e) Three
123. Who is sitting immediately in front of X?
(a) A (b) O (c) E
(d) T (e) Q

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124. Which of the following pairs are the immediate neighbours of the persons sitting exactly behind
A?
(a) PG (b) SP (c) XG
(d) GN (e) XS
125. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions. Find the odd one
out.
(a) TS (b) QG (c) EX
(d) ON (e) AP

Directions (126-130): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight colleagues are sitting around a circular table facing the centre and working. Each of them left
office at a different time such that two consecutive persons left at a gap of half an hour.
K was sitting second to the right of P and he was the first one to leave office but only after 5:00 pm.
Three persons are sitting between S and A. The one who left immediately before D was sitting second
to his left. P left two hours before S. C is sitting to the immediate left of the person who left at 8:00
pm. The one who left immediately after K was sitting exactly opposite to him. T was not the last one
to leave office. C left before A. E left two hours after K but not after 9:00 pm. S is not an immediate
neighbor of K or P. Neither A nor D leaves at 9pm. No one leaves on or after 10pm.
126. How many persons left office after A?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two
(d) Three (e) More than three
127. At what time did the person sitting third to the right of T leave office?
(a) Half an hour after T (b) An hour after T
(c) An hour before T (d) Two hours before T (e) Two hours after T
128. Who is sitting exactly opposite to E?
(a) The one who left one hour after E
(b) The one who left one hour before E
(c) The one who left at 6:30 pm
(d) The one who left at 8:30 pm
(e) None of the above
129. In anticlockwise, how many people are sitting between C and the one who left immediately after
him?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two
(d) Three (e) More than three
130. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. The one who left at 8:30 pm was sitting opposite to the one who left immediately after him.
II. C was a neighbor of P.
III. P left after A.
(a) Both II and III (b) Both I and II (c) Only I
(d) Only III (e) None of the statements

188
Directions (131-135): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Fourteen persons are sitting at two concentric rectangular tables. One person is sitting at each corner
of both the tables. One person is sitting at each length of the inner table while one person is sitting at
each length and each width of the outer table. All the persons at the outer table are facing outward
and all the persons at the inner table are facing inward. If two persons are sitting at the lengths of
different tables, then they will be sitting exactly behind each other or in the same line of sight.
Similarly, it applies for two persons sitting at two corners that are diagonally aligned and are of
different tables.
is sitting second to the left of A. S is sitting to the immediate right of A. S is at the corner. O is sitting
immediately behind Q. Neither D nor K is a neighbour of Q. D is sitting at the corner exactly behind
K. K is facing inward. B is sitting to the immediate right of M and both are sitting at the corners. C is
sitting second to the right of H. L is sitting to the immediate left of W. G is not a neighbour of A or R.
O is not sitting at the width.
131. Which of the following persons is an immediate neighbor of R?
(a) W (b) L (c) Q
(d) S (e) C
132. Which of the following persons is sitting at the corner?
(a) H (b) C (c) A
(d) G (e) L
133. Who is sitting third to the left of W?
(a) R (b) A (c) M
(d) G (e) B
134. Which of the following pairs of persons are sitting diagonally aligned with each other?
(a) MW (b) BG (c) OS
(d) GL (e) QH
135. How many persons are sitting in between Q and R, to the left of Q?
(a) None (b) Three (c) Two
(d) More than three (e) One

Directions (136-140): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Twelve persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are living in a building with four floors numbered 1
to 4 from bottom to top. There are three flats on each of the four floors numbered 1-3 from left to
right. The flats were built facing the north direction. Only one person is living on each flat.
One person lives between B and F in the same flat number. F lives on an even-numbered floor. A lives
immediately below F but not in the same flat number. G lives to the right of A. I live immediately
above G but not in flat number 3. Three persons live below D. D's flat number and J's floor number
are same. E lives to the south-east of J. K lives to the east of L. E and L does not live in the same floor
number. K and C live in the same flat number. I and L do not live in the same flat number. No one
lives to the left of B. H's floor number is one less than the E's flat number.

189
136. E lives in ___
(a) Flat 2 of floor 1 (b) Flat 3 of floor 1 (c) Flat 3 of floor 2
(d) Flat 2 of floor 2 (e) Flat 1 of floor 3
137. Who lives immediately below E but not in the same flat number?
(a) H (b) J (c) K
(d) C (e) D
138. Which of the following pair of persons stay on the same floor?
(a) G D (b) J G (c) I A
(d) H E (e) A E
139. The number of persons who lives to the left of C is the same as between the number of persons
who lives to the right of _____
(a) E (b) H (c) K
(d) J (e) D
140. Sum of the floor number of B and the flat number of K is ____
(a) More than 5 (b) 3 (c) 4
(d) 2 (e) 5

Directions (141-145): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight friends - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were born in different consecutive months of a year from
January to August. All of them like different districts in Tamilnadu - Erode, Coimbatore, Salem,
Tirupur, Vellore, Madurai, Theni and Nagercoil.
Two persons were born between R and the one who likes Coimbatore. Three persons were born
between S and the one who likes Erode. The number of persons born between P and the one who
likes Tirupur is same as between V and the one who likes Salem. U likes Vellore. W is born
immediately before the one who likes Theni. One person born between U and the one who likes
Nagercoil. T does not like Salem. R was born in the month which has 30 days. The number of persons
born after T is same as the number of persons born before the one who likes Madurai. One person
was born between S and the one who likes Madurai. More than two persons were born between V
and the one who likes Nagercoil. Neither P nor Q likes Madurai. T lives immediately above the one
who likes Coimbatore.
141. R likes ______
(a) Nagercoil (b) Maduri (c) Tirupur
(d) Salem (e) Cannot be determined
142. How many persons were born before the one who likes Vellore?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) More than four
143. If Q is related to Coimbatore and R is related to Theni, then in the same way S is related to?
(a) Salem (b) Madurai (c) Erode
(d) Nagercoil (e) Theni

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144. Who among the following was born in June?
(a) R (b) The one who likes Madurai
(c) V (d) The one who likes Vellore (e) Cannot be determined
145. How many persons were born between T and the one who likes Madurai?
(a) More than four (b) Four (c) Three
(d) Two (e) One

Directions (146-150): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
16 bricks marked from A to P were used to construct a wall. The wall was constructed in such a way
that it forms a matrix of 4×4. The left and right direction was taken according to the brick which was
placed. The lowermost row was numbered as row 1, just above row 1 was row 2, just above row 2
was row 3 and the topmost row was row 4. The columns were numbered from left to right in
increasing order from 1 to 4 respectively.
Note the conditions to be followed:
i) When it is said that Brick A was placed above/below/left/right of Brick B this means both Brick A
and Brick B were placed in the same row or column.
ii) The directions can be understood from the example that if Brick B was placed to the left of Brick
A, Brick C was placed to the right of Brick A, Brick D was placed above Brick A, and Brick E was
placed below Brick A then we can say that Brick B was to the west of Brick A, Brick C was to the
east of Brick A, Brick D was to the north of Brick A and Brick E was to the south of Brick A.
Brick J was not placed in an odd-numbered row. Brick K was placed in an even-numbered row to the
southeast of Brick D. Brick B was placed just below the brick which was placed exactly between Brick
F and Brick K. Brick G was placed to the northeast of Brick B and Brick N was placed below it. Brick
N was placed in an odd-numbered row. Brick I was placed above Brick H which was placed to the
southeast of Brick L. Brick O was placed above Brick D which was placed to the right of Brick L. There
was one brick placed between Brick F and Brick K either horizontally or vertically. Brick E was placed
to the southeast of Brick A which was placed to the right of Brick D. Brick F was placed below the
row in which Brick O was placed. Brick C was placed to the northwest of Brick M. Brick E was not
placed in the lowermost row. Brick C and Brick M were placed in even-numbered rows. More than
one brick was placed to the right of Brick P. Brick I and Brick D were not in the same row.
146. What was the position of Brick J with respect to Brick L?
(a) North-East (b) North-West (c) South-West
(d) South-East (e) West
147. Which among the following brick was placed in column 4 ?
(a) A (b) N (c) O
(d) K (e) B
148. How many bricks are placed to the north-west of Brick K?
(a) Zero (b) One (c) Two
(d) Three (e) Four

191
149. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, thus they form a group, which of the
following is not part of the group?
(a) PF (b) MD (c) NE
(d) LC (e) DJ
150. How many bricks were placed above Brick A?
(a) Zero (b) One (c) Two
(d) Three (e) Four

Directions (151-155): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Seven employees, A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are posted in different designations for the same organization.
The designations in ascending order are Receptionist, Clerk, Administrative Officer, General
Manager, HR, CFO and CEO, where the CEO is the senior most. Their cabins are on different floors of
a seven-story building with floors numbered 1 to 7 from the bottom to the top.
At most two persons may have their cabins on the same floor. Only odd prime numbered floors are
vacant except the one which is a multiple of 5.
Only B's cabin is on the lowermost floor. D is the senior most employee. G's cabin is on an even-
numbered floor below the floor on which A has his cabin. The cabin for the Clerk is on the same floor
as the HR. C is an immediate senior to E. A is neither the Administrative Officer nor the Clerk. The
CEO and the CFO have their cabins on the same floor which is the even-numbered floor. Neither G
nor E is the CFO. B is the junior most employee. The cabin for C is on a floor immediately below the
floor on which the CEO has his cabin. A is immediately junior to G.
151. Who among the following is the Clerk?
(a) A (b) F (c) E
(d) G (e) None of the above
152. Who among the following has/have cabin/s on the 5th floor?
(a) A and C (b) Only C (c) A and G
(d) E (e) None of the above
153. A is the ___________________ and his cabin is on the ______________ floor.
(a) General Manager, 4th (b) HR, 6th
(c) Clerk, 2nd (d) Administrative Officer, 5th (e) None of the above
154. Whose cabin is on the 2nd floor?
(a) F (b) C (c) G
(d) A (e) None of the above
155. _________________ is the CFO.
(a) None of the given options (b) G (c) A
(d) C (e) F

192
Directions (156-160): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
There are seven shelves stacked one over another such that there are books of either one subject or
two subjects placed in the shelves. English, Hindi and Assamese are the literature subjects and only
the shelf which has books of any of these subjects will have books of another subject. None of these
three subjects are kept on the same shelf. History books are kept immediately above Chemistry
books. Polity books are kept immediately below Maths books. There are three shelves in between
the Hindi and Accountancy books. The topmost shelf has books of only one subject. Neither
Economics nor Maths books are kept alone. There is one shelf in between the Physics and Assamese
books. Neither Hindi nor Chemistry books are kept on the lowermost shelf. The immediate shelf
above Hindi books has one subject only. Assamese books are kept above Hindi books. As many
shelves are below English books as many are above Maths books.
156. Which of the following subjects is/are kept immediately below the Chemistry books?
(a) Physics (b) English and Economics (c) Maths and Assamese
(d) English and Polity (e) Hindi and Maths
157. How many subject books are kept above the History books?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four
(d) Five (e) More than five
158. Which of the following subject books are below the Maths books?
(a) Chemistry (b) None of the given (c) Hindi
(d) Accountancy (e) Economics
159. Which of the following books of literature are kept above Economics books?
(a) English (b) Assamese (c) Hindi
(d) Both option (a) and (b) (e) All of option (a), (b) and (c)
160. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way. Find the odd pair out.
(a) Physics, Economics(b) Assamese, Chemistry (c) English, History
(d) Economics, Chemistry (e) History, Polity

Directions (161-165): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
A train running on the track has 40 boxes numbered from 1-40 in an horizontal manner from left to
right such that the leftmost box is numbered as 1 and the last box is numbered as 40. Eight people
A,B,C,D,E, F,G, H start running from box 1 and run till box 40. It is known that while running each of
these persons stops at exactly 5 different boxes. These people start stopping from box number 1. No
two people stop at the same numbered box. None of the people stops at two consecutive boxes. A
always stops immediately after D; where D stops only at prime numbered boxes. H always stops at a
box adjacent to the box in which C stops(except for once) and also at box number 39. B was the first
person to stop. G stops at only those boxes which are a multiple of 4, but G did not stop between box
10 and 20. C stops only at the boxes which are perfect squares of a natural number. F always stops
after B and also definitely stops only once before B stops again. E stops at the boxes which are a
multiple of 7. D did not stop immediately after B.
Note: If X always stops immediately after Y and Y stops at box 2 then, X stops at box 3.

193
161. Who among the following stops at box number 30?
(a) A (b) B (c) F
(d) E (e) None of these
162. Which of these statements is true?
(a) F stops at box number 18 (b) D stops at box number 23
(c) B stops thrice between box 20 and 30 (d) A was the third last person to stop
(e) None of these is true
163. How many times did G stops between box 15 and box 33?
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 5
(d) 3 (e) 1
164. Which of the following pairs is correct with respect to stops of the people?
(a) F-19-34 (b) D-11-26 (c) A-18-32
(d) B-13-35 (e) C-9-40
165. On which of the following box number A does not stops?
(a) 6 (b) 22 (c) 30
(d) 38 (e) 12

Directions (166-170): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Some shops are set up as part of the annual fair. There are three rows A, B and C with five shops each
such that the shops of rows A and C are facing north while those of row B are facing south. Each shop
of row B is facing a shop of row C as well as exactly behind a shop of row A. Thus, each shop of row
A has the same back wall with a shop of row B. Each row has at least one shop vacant. The occupied
shops are set in such a way that in each row, the names of the shops are in alphabetical order from
west to east respectively.
The shop to the immediate left of the shop named 'Colours' is vacant. The shop named 'One' is facing
north. There is no occupied shop to the right of the shop 'Stones'. There are two shops in between
the shops 'Beads' and 'Gates'. The shop immediately behind 'Gates' is vacant. The shop 'Rosewood'
is facing an occupied shop. One of the shops in between the shops 'Foam' and 'Yolk' is vacant. The
shop 'Charades' is facing the shop that is exactly behind the shop 'Hibiscus'. The shop 'Marshmallow'
is in row A but not adjacent to a vacant shop. Shop 'Charades' is not placed in the middle of any row.
Shop 'Colours' is facing north. Shop "Stones' is not placed at the end.
166. What is the position of 'Rosewood' with respect to 'Foam'?
(a) Immediate right
(b) Immediate left
(c) They are in different rows facing the same direction
(d) They are in different rows facing opposite directions
(e) Second to the left
167. Which of the following shops is 'Yolk' facing?
(a) It is not facing any shop (b) A vacant shop
(c) Rosewood (d) One (e) Stones

194
168. Which of the following shops is immediately behind a vacant shop?
(a) Yolk (b) Marshmallow (c) One
(d) Hibiscus (e) Beads
169. How many occupied shops are to the left of 'Foam'?
(a) None (b) Two (c) One
(d) Three (e) Can't be determined
170. Which shop is third to the left of 'One'?
(a) None of the given (b) A vacant shop (c) Hibiscus
(d) Beads (e) Charades

Directions (171-174): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Nine persons A, I, O, Y, W, R, M, H and D were sitting in a linear row from west to east (not necessarily
in the same order) forming arrangement 1. They are made to shift their positions and form
arrangement 2. They shift their positions again and form arrangement 3. In every arrangement, all
of them are facing south.
Arrangement 1: A is sitting third to the right of M. Two persons are sitting in between W and O. M
is an immediate neighbour of O. Three persons are sitting to the right of R. D is sitting second to the
left of I. H is an immediate neighbour of Y. Y is not sitting at the corner. Less than six persons are
sitting in between A and W but they are not immediate neighbours.
Arrangement 2: The names of the person sitting exactly in the middle of the previous arrangement
and the two persons sitting at the eastern end forms a meaningful word along with R. They are made
to sit at the western end such that the word is formed with their names from west to east. The rest
of the persons are made to sit in the alphabetical order from east to west.
Arrangement 3: The letter that holds fourth rank in the English alphabetical series and the vowel
which holds third rank among the vowels of the alphabetical series forms a meaningful word with
the name of the person who is sitting fourth from the eastern end in Arrangement-2 when arranged
in alphabetical order. The first two letters of the meaningful word formed in arrangement 2 are taken
and reversed, and the letter preceding the reverse of the third letter is taken to form another
meaningful word. The names of the three remaining persons also forms a meaningful word. Now, the
three words formed are arranged in dictionary order from west to east.
171. Who is sitting exactly in the middle of the row in Arrangement 3?
(a) H (b) O (c) A
(d) I (e) Y
172. How many persons are sitting to the right of M in the final arrangement?
(a) Two (b) Four (c) Three
(d) None (e) More than four
173. Who is sitting fifth to the left of I in Arrangement 2?
(a) R (b) O (c) Nobody
(d) M (e) D

195
174. Which of the following words is a part of the final arrangement?
(a) WAY (b) HIM (c) HAY
(d) MID (e) WAR

Directions (176-180): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G & H were sitting around a square table. Four people are sitting at four
corners while one person at middle of each side. People sitting at corners face toward centre while
others towards outside the centre. They all were born on 1 January but different years 1975, 1979,
1982, 1986, 1990, 1995, 1996 & 1999.
• A who was born in 1995 sits third to left of C.
• Two people sit between C & person born in 1999.
• B sits 3rd to left of person born in 1996 & none of them is immediate neighbour of A.
• Neither the youngest person nor B is immediate neighbour of the oldest person.
• D sits opposite to E who was not born in 1996.
• Person born in 1986 faces person born in 1979
• F is adjacent to person born in 1986.
• At least 3 persons were born between E & H who is not adjacent to E.
• H is neither the youngest person nor the oldest person.
• G wasn't born in 1990.
• B is not facing towards the outward direction.
176. Who sits immediate right of A?
(a) E (b) H (c) Person born in 1999
(d) Person born in 1982 (e) C
177. Who is seated opposite to the person born in 1996?
(a) C (b) F (c) B
(d) G (e) E
178. How many people sit between the oldest & the youngest person when counted towards right of
the oldest person?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
(d) 5 (e) None
179. Who sits third to right of D?
(a) B (b) Person born in 1986 (c) G
(d) H (e) None of these
180. How many people were born between G & person who is immediate right of G?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) None

196
Directions (181-185): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six people - J, K, L, M, N and O are living in a six-storey building in which topmost floor is numbered
six and bottommost floor is numbered one. All of them works in the bank at different designations.
The order of the positions in increasing order is Clerk, Deputy General Manager (DGM), General
Manager (GM), Chief Financial Officer (CFO), Chief Executive Officer (CEO) and President.
Three persons live between K and the one who is junior to one person. K lives in an even numbered
floor. The number of persons who lives above K is same as the number of persons who lives below
the one, who is least ranked. One person lives between N and the one who is least ranked. The one
who works as a GM lives immediately above N. M lives immediately below the one who is senior to
three persons. M neither works as a GM nor CEO. The number of persons live between L and the one
who works as a President is same as between J and the one who works as a Clerk. J either works as a
GM or DGM.
181. Who among the following works as a DGM?
(a) N (b) L (c) O
(d) J (e) K
182. Who among the following lives immediately above the one who is second least ranked?
(a) K (b) M (c) O
(d) J (e) L
183. How many persons live between O and the one whose rank is highest?
(a) More than three (b) One (c) None
(d) Two (e) Three
184. Who among the following lives in the fourth floor?
(a) K
(b) The one whose rank is lowest (c) The one whose rank is highest
(d) The one who works as a GM (e) L
185. Which of the following combination(s) is true?
(a) The one who is junior to three persons lives in an odd numbered floor
(b) M works as a President and lives in the fifth floor
(c) Other than the given options
(d) O, who lives in the bottommost floor works as a DGM
(e) Both (a) and (b)

Directions (186-90): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Eight persons are of different ages such that no two persons are of the same age. Each person has
written different number of books. In a library, the books of these persons are kept on eight shelves
stacked one over another. The persons in the decreasing order of their ages are as follows:
H (6) > B (21) > J (11) > D (27) > R (32) > A (28) > F (30) > V (15)
The numbers in the brackets are the number of books written by that person. There are two shelves
in between the books of the oldest person and the one who has written the highest number of books.

197
The books of the youngest person are immediately below the one who has written books just more
than B. Two shelves are above the books of the person who is older than R. Less than three shelves
are below the second youngest person. More than two shelves are above the books of the one who
has written 21 books. The books of the one who has written 28 books are kept immediately below
to the books of the oldest person. The number of books by the writer whose books are kept
immediately below those of V's is less than V. As many shelves are above the books of the person
who wrote the second-highest number of books as many are in between the third youngest person
and V. Books written by A wasn't placed in the fourth stack from the bottom.
186. How many shelves are below the books of the third oldest person?
(a) Two (b) One (c) Three
(d) More than three (e) None
187. Whose books are kept immediately above the books of the third youngest person?
(a) R (b) H (c) J
(d) V (e) B
188. What is the sum of the books written by the person whose books are kept on the shelves
adjacent to F?
(a) 21 (b) 42 (c) 27
(d) 43 (e) 49
189. Which of the following persons are younger than the person whose books are kept immediately
above those of B?
(a) B (b) D (c) R
(d) A (e) Both R and D
190. Which of the following is false?
I. The sum of the number of books written by the persons whose books are kept adjacent to
those of R's is equal to that written by R.
II. As many shelves are above R as many people are older than him.
III. As many shelves are below J as many persons are there who have written more number of
books than him.
(a) Only I (b) Only II and III (c) Only I and III
(d) All of I, II and III (e) Only II

Directions (191-195): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight persons work in a tourism firm and their designations in decreasing order are PR manager
(PRM), Event Organizer (EO), Tour Operator, Tour agent, Activity Coordinator (AC), Client Attendant
(CA), Tour guide and Receptionist. They joined the firm in the same year but in consecutive months
from May to December (not necessarily in the same order). No two persons joined in the same month.
N joined in a month that has 30 days but not in November. L joined before N. P joined in a month that
has 31 days but before November. Three persons joined in between P and the AC. The AC joined after
September. M is the EO. M joined immediately before Q. The number of persons who have
designations lower than K is equal to the number of persons who joined after M. The PRM joined

198
immediately after the CA. Three persons joined in between the CA and O. O joined before the CA. The
number of persons who have designations lower than O is equal to the number of persons who have
designations higher than R. K joined in a month that has 31 days. K joined immediately before the
Tour Operator. The Tour Operator did not join in November. Not more than two persons have
designations lower than that of O.
191. Who joined the firm in September?
(a) The tour guide (b) L (c) The tour operator
(d) The client attendant(CA) (e) R
192. In which month did the Receptionist joined the firm?
(a) August (b) May (c) October
(d) July (e) September
193. What is the designation of Q?
(a) Client attendant(CA) (b) Tour operator (c) Tour agent
(d) Tour guide (e) Activity coordinator (AC)
194. How many persons joined in between L and the Event Organizer?
(a) None (b) Three (c) More than three
(d) One (e) Two
195. Who joined immediately before the Tour agent?
(a) O (b) N (c) K
(d) L (e) P

Directions (196-200): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
In a family of ten members there are three generations in the family. Either both or none of the
parents of a person are alive. Everyone is holding a different degree and is sitting in a line facing the
north. There are three couples in the family.
Either Mother or Father of M sits to the right of M. The one who is having a BA degree is the sister-
in-law of the one having a BSc degree. N has two children of different genders. N is married to the
one having a BA degree. Only two people sit between D and D's son-in-law. Pointing at Y, F says that
"She is her grandmother and holds a BBA degree". Three people sit between N and M. X neither hold
BE nor MA. A male member holds an MBA degree. The one having a BBA degree is married to the one
having a ME degree. Sibling of a person who is sitting at the fourth position from the right end of the
row sits immediately to the right of that person. Y has a daughter and a son and both are married.
Most number of people sit between the ones who are holding a BSc degree and a BE degree. Z is D's
daughter-in-law and is a BSc graduate. X is sitting immediately to the left of the who is holding a BSc
degree. M and W are siblings. X is the sister-in-law of the one holding an LLB degree. L and E are
cousins of the same gender. F neither holds LLB nor MCA. M's sibling sits second to the left of M. E is
a B.Tech graduate and is W's nephew. Three people sit between W's son and W. The one holding a
BE degree is married. D's son-in-law sits at one of the ends of the row.

199
196. Who among the following is holding a LLB degree?
(a) X's sister (b) E's uncle (c) Y's granddaughter
(d) W's husband (e) N's brother-in-law
197. Select the odd pair.
(a) ME - LLB (b) BE - BA (c) BSc – Btech
(d) BBA - BA (e) BE – MA
198. The one who is sitting at the right end of the row is married to ________?
(a) D's daughter (b) X's brother (c) The one holding a BBA degree
(d) F's uncle (e) L's mother
199. Who among the following are male members of the family?
(I) W's spouse
(II) The one holding a ME degree
(III) The one who is sitting at the third position from the left end of the row
(a) Only III (b) Only II (c) Both I and III
(d) Only I (e) Both I and II
200. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) M sits immediately to the right of his father. (b) D and W are married
(c) N is holding an MBA degree (d) Y is W's mother-in-law
(e) Y and E sit adjacent to each other

Directions (201-205): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight people were seated around a square table. Each of them had a different number of toffees from
1-8. These people were facing inwards such that there was one person seated on each edge and one
on each corner. No two persons had the same number of toffees. The person who had toffees which
were a square of a natural number was seated third to the right of the person having 3 toffees. P was
seated third to the left of T. Two people were seated between W and the person having 5 toffees. U
was seated on the edge and was seated to the immediate left of the person having 3 toffees. R had 8
toffees and was seated adjacent to the person who was seated opposite to U. V was seated to the
immediate right of Q. W was seated adjacent to R and had thrice the number of toffees as with U. Q
was seated third to the right of S and both of them had the odd number of toffees where S had more
toffees than Q but not 3.
201. Who was seated fifth to the right of V?
(a) S (b) U (c) P
(d) W (e) R
202. How many toffees does the person seated opposite to Q had?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 3
(d) 1 (e) None of these
203. Who was seated fifth to the left of the person having second highest number of toffees?
(a) P (b) W (c) R
(d) T (e) Q

200
204. Who was seated opposite to the person having 1 toffee?
(a) W (b) Q (c) V
(d) R (e) S
205. How many persons was seating between T and U?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) None of these

Directions (206-209): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Eight people A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H were seated in a playground in 2 concentric circles facing
towards the centre. The seats were numbered as shown in the figure below:

A was seated in the outer circle. D was at position 1. C was seated second to the left of F. (e) was
seated on the outer circle at the position which was 5 less than B.H was at position 5.The position
of G was half that of the position of C but not 4.
206. Who was seated to the immediate right of A?
(a) D (b) E (c) G
(d) B (e) Cannot be determined
207. What is the position number at which C was seated?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
(d) 6 (e) 8
208. Who was seated third to the left of B?
(a) F (b) H (c) C
(d) G (e) A
209. What is the difference in the position number of A and F?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
(d) 5 (e) None of these

201
210. Study the following information and answer the given question.
If the letters of the following words in I, II and III are replaced by the previous letter, then
in which of the following words the 4th letter from the right is a consonant?
(Note: None of the given words in I, II and III are meaningful words.)
I. B G L Q V Y T
II. F W E J O X C
III. E C H J R W T
(a) Only I (b) Both I and II (c) Only II
(d) None of I, II and III (e) All I, II and III

Directions (211-215): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Nine boxes A, D, G, K, M, P, S, V and Z are kept one above another. The bottommost position is
number 1 while the topmost position is number 9. Each of them contains different number of
bottles among 9, 15, 23, 36, 42, 51, 60, 66 and 79 but not necessarily in the same order.
Four boxes are kept between box K and box V, which is kept above box K. Box A is kept
immediately above box P and immediately below box G, which contains square number bottles.
Only one box is kept between box M and the box which contains highest number of bottles. The
box which contains 79 bottles is kept immediately below the box which contains 15 bottles. Box
V is kept immediately below box M, which contains 51 bottles. The number of boxes kept above
the box which contains 66 bottles is the same as the number of boxes kept below the box which
contains lowest number of bottles. Box D is kept immediately below box S, which contains bottles
which is multiple of 11. Box A having 60 bottles is kept immediately above a box of 23 bottles.
More than three boxes are kept above box G.
211. How many bottles are kept in box D?
(a) 9 (b) 79 (c) 42
(d) 36 (e) 60
212. Four of the following boxes are related to each other in some way and thus form a group,
which of the following box does not belong to that group?
(a) Box K (b) Box S (c) Box G
(d) Box V (e) Box Z
213. Which of the following statement is/are false?
(a) Box Z contain 66 bottles. (b) Box S is kept at the topmost position.
(c) Two boxes are kept above box M.
(d) Box P is kept immediately above box K. (e) All statements are false
214. How many boxes are kept below box A?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) More than 3 (e) None
215. Box of 9 bottles is kept immediately below box _____, which contains ______ bottles.
(a) V, 15 (b) S, 79 (c) M, 66
(d) P, 23 (e) Z, 36

202
Directions (216-220): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Nine persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are posted in a bank at different designation i. (e)., GM, MD
DGM, CA, SM, Manager, AM, PO and Clerk but not necessarily in the same order. The designations are
in decreasing order of precedence such that GM is the senior most designation and Clerk is the junior
most designation. All of them have different number of bitcoins i. (e)., 10, 15, 17, 21, 23, 26, 28,
38 and 43.
Only two persons are junior to the one, who has 3rd highest number of bitcoins. The sum of number
of bitcoins of MD and Manager is equal to that of CA. MD has less bitcoins than Manager. C has 15
bitcoins and is just junior to F. As many persons are senior to C as junior to B. At most two persons
are junior to B. The sum of number of bitcoins of C and SM is equal to that of A. A is not junior to B.
Three persons are designated between A and D. H doesn’t have less bitcoins than B but is senior to
D. One person is designated between G and I.
216. If the sum of the bitcoins of G and D is 49, and the sum of number of bitcoins of E and B is less
than 49, then who has 21 bitcoins?
(a) The one, who is just senior to B
(b) The one, who is four designations junior to H
(c) The one, who is three designations senior to D
(d) The one, who is designated as Manger
(e) Cannot be determined
217. Which of the following statements is/are definitely true?
I. A is three designations senior to H
II. At most two persons are designated between C and G
III. F has more bitcoins than at least two persons
(a) Only statement I is true (b) Only statement II and III are true
(c) Only statement III is true (d) Only statement I and II are true
(e) None of the above
218. How many persons have more bitcoins than the one, who has just less bitcoins than GM?
(a) As many persons, who has less bitcoins than Manager
(b) As many persons, who has less bitcoins than PO
(c) As many persons, who has less bitcoins than MD
(d) As many persons, who has less bitcoins than Clerk.
(e) Cannot be determined
219. ______ has _____ bitcoins and _____ has _____ bitcoins respectively.
(a) F, 17, E, 26 (b) B, 28, I, 21 (c) C, 15, A, 43
(d) D, 23, H, 43 (e) None of the above
220. If E has less bitcoins than F, then how many persons are junior to the one, who has 10 bitcoins?
(a) As many persons, who are senior to B.
(b) As many persons, who are senior to H
(c) As many persons, who are senior to the one, who is just senior to F
(d) As many persons, who are senior to CA
(e) None of the above

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Directions (221-224): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven friends - A, B, C, D, E, F & G were born on different years - 1975, 1982, 1988, 1989, 1994,
1998 & 2000 (not necessarily in the same order). They all were born on same date & month (i .
(e) 1st Jan). They all belonged to different cities. On 1 st January 2018, their ages were
calculated & we got following information:
• E who was born in a leap year, belongs to Goa.
• C's age is not a multiple of 4.
• Person who belongs to Punjab, is youngest.
• Combined age of E & person from Bangalore is equal to A & person from Pune.
• Neither B nor D ages is born just before or just after C.
• B doesn't belong to Pune.
• Person from Mumbai was born after person from Delhi.
• B doesn't belong from Delhi & Kolkata
• G who is older than F and D, doesn't belong to Pune.
221. What is the difference in age of A & C?
(a) 11 (b) 25 (c) 9
(d) 23 (e) None of these
222. Who belongs to Delhi?
(a) D (b) A (c) C
(d) F (e) Cannot determine
223. What is the age of person who belongs to Mumbai?
(a) 24 (b) 20 (c) 43
(d) 36 (e) None of these
224. How many people are older than G?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4
(d) 5 (e) None

Directions (225-229): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Certain number of persons sits around a circular table facing towards the centre of the table. The
circumference of the table is 104m. The distance between two adjacent persons in anti - clockwise
direction is increasing by 2m in arithmetic progression. Minimum distance between any two
adjacent persons is 6m. Some of the persons working different media groups Zee, Sony, Star and Eros.
Distance between Ajay and Ena is 14m (from either side). Ajay sits adjacent to the one, who works
in Zee. Ena doesn’t work in any media group. Distance between Ena and Binod is 22m (from either
side). The one, who works in Sony, sits third to the right of Chris. Distance between the one, who
works in Zee and Chris, who works in Eros is at most 18m. Donald sits adjacent to Chris. Distance
between Ena and Hina is 10m more than the distance between Chris and Donald (from either side).
The one, who works in Star, neither sits adjacent to Fiza nor sits adjacent to Ena. Hina doesn’t sit
adjacent to Binod. Fiza doesn’t sit immediate right of Binod. Gopal is one of the persons sitting around
the table.

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225. Which of the following statement/statements are definitely false?
I. Distance between Donald and the one, who works in Star is 98m (from either side).
II. Gopal sits immediate left of the one, who works in Sony.
III. Distance between Ena and Fiza is 30m, when counted from the left of Ena.
IV. The person, who works in Star, sits adjacent to Ajay.
(a) Only I (b) Only I, II and IV (c) Only I and III
(d) Only II and IV (e) Only I, II and III
226. _____ sits fourth to the right of the person, who sits seventh to the left of the one, who work in
Star.
(a) Person, who works in Sony. (b) Hina
(c) Person, who works in Zee. (d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
(e) Fiza
227. How many persons sit between Fiza and the one, who sits immediate right of Ena, when
counted from the left of Fiza?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five
(d) No one (e) Two
228. Distance between the person, who works in Sony and the one, who works in Zee, is ______,
when counted from either side.
(a) 52 m (b) 42 m (c) 36 m
(d) 54 m (e) Cannot be determined
229. _____ sits _______ to the right of _______.
(a) Donald, 2nd, Ajay (b) Binod, 4th, Chris (c) Gopal, 3rd, Donald
(d) Ena, 5th, Hina (e) None of the above.

Directions (230-233): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Sixteen persons A to P sit in linear two rows, eight persons in each row. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H
sit in row 1 facing the south direction while I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P sit in row 2 facing the north
direction, but not necessarily in the same order.
K sits fourth to the left of O and sits opposite to H. G sits immediate left of A. B sits immediate left
of H and opposite to I, who sits third to the right of P. E sits opposite to J. Neither P nor M sits
opposite to C. Five persons sit between D and G, when counted from left of D. L sits second to the
left of O and third to the right of M, who sits opposite to D.
230. How many persons sit between N and the persons who sits opposite to D?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) More than 3 (e) None
231. If G is related to N in the same way C is related to ____.
(a) K (b) F (c) L
(d) O (e) P

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232. Which of the following statement is false?
(a) A sits opposite to O.
(b) K sits second to the left of P.
(c) Three persons sit between N and I.
(d) The person who sits immediate left of F sits opposite to M.
(e) All are false
233. B sits ____________ of A and second to the left of _____.
(a) Immediate right, G (b) Third to the left, E
(c) Sixth to the right, F (d) Second to the right, H
(e) Third to the right, D

Directions (234-237): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a three-generation family, there are 7 members (Brad, Anup, Dona, Sri, Sanu, Rita and Mika), who
are sitting around a linear horizontal table at equal distance from each another such that each of
them faces north direction.
Anup’s grandfather sits adjacent to his son-in-law. Dona’s mother-in-law sits fourth to the left of her
grandson. Sri is daughter of Dona, who is daughter-in-law of Rita. Anup’s father has a brother. Neither
Anup nor Rita sits adjacent to Sri. Mika’s daughter sits at one of the extreme ends. Brad is grandfather
of Anup. Brad and Rita are not married to each other. Dona’s husband sits adjacent to his brother.
Dona’s father doesn’t sit adjacent to Rita. Anup’s mother doesn’t sit adjacent to Anup.
234. What is the position of Sri’s mother with respect to Rita’s unmarried son?
(a) Second to the right (b) Third to the left (c) Second to the left
(d) Third to the right (e) None of the above
235. How is Mika’s son related to the one, who sits second to the left of Brad?
(a) Uncle (b) Father (c) Son
(d) Nephew (e) None of the above
236. Who among the following sits to the left of Mika’s father-in-law?
I. Mika’s brother
II. Sri’s mother
III. Sanu’s nephew
(a) Only III (b) Only I and II (c) Only II
(d) Only II and III (e) None of the above
237. Which of the following statements is definitely true?
(a) Mika sits second to the left of Dona’s mother-in-law.
(b) Two persons sit between Dona and her husband.
(c) Both option ‘b’ and option ‘d’
(d) Either Dona’s son or Dona’s daughter sit at an extreme end.
(e) Brad sits second to the left of his daughter.

206
Directions (238-240): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Ten friends - Tina, Meena, Heena, Sheena, Reena, Hema, Shusma, Reshma, Karishma and Chetana
have test at their tuition on seven different days starting from Monday up to Sunday and at least
one and at most two friends have test on the same day.
Note: If Hema has her test before Sheena that denotes on a day before her and not on the same
day.
Shusma and Karishma have their tests on the same day. Shusma and Meena have their exams
immediately after each other but none of them has test on Sunday. Reshma has her test on
Tuesday. There is a difference of two days between the days of test for Reshma and Sheena. Tina
has her test before Sheena but not on a day immediately before. Heena has her test before Tina
and no other friend has her exam on that day. There is a difference of more than two days
between the tests of Karishma and Hema. Both Reena and one of her friend have their test on the
same day.
238. On which of the following day does Chetana have her test?
(a) Thursday (b) Tuesday (c) Sunday
(d) Saturday (e) Friday
239. Who among the following has/have her test on a day immediately after the day on which
Shusma has her test?
(a) Meena (b) Hema (c) Reena
(d) Reshma (e) Both Reena and Reshma
240. Which of the following pair have test on the same day?
(a) Reshma & Shusma (b) Reena & Tina (c) Chetana & Reena
(d) Hema & Chetana (e) Heena & Tina

Directions (241-245): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
There are ten stage lights around a circular stage however only seven of these ten stage lights are
functional and the rest are non functional. The stage lightsface towards the center of the stage and
are at equal distance from each other. These stage lights are operated by Raj and for his convenience
he has marked the seven functional stage lights as, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V. Also, each functional light
emits a different color among- Red, Blue, White, Yellow, Cyan, Magenta and Green. No two non
functional lights are adjacent to each other.
Note: If a functional light is first/second/third to the right/left of the other functional light, then
there may or may not be a nonfunctional light between them.
Light, which is immediate left of Q, which emits Red color, is functional. Q issecond functionallight to
the right of P. There are only two lights between Q and R, from either side. T isthe first functional
light to the left of R. R does not emit Magenta color light. Light, which is opposite to T, is the non
functional light. Light, which is immediate left of V, which emits White color, is the non
functionallight. Light, which is opposite to V, is the non functional stagelight. There is at least one
functional light between V and S, from either side. Light, which is opposite to U, emits Blue color.
Light, which is immediate left of one of the non functionallight,emits Yellow color. T does not emit
Cyan color. Light, which is opposite to thelight, which emits Cyan color, does not emit Green color.

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241. S, which emits _____ color, is _____ functional stage light to the ______ of V.
(a) Blue, third, right (b) Yellow, third, right
(c) Green, sixth, left (d) Yellow, fourth, right (e) Blue, fifth, left
242. Match the following.
1 2

a. P i. Cyan

b. T ii. Green

c. R iii. Yellow

iv. Magenta

v. Blue
(a) a-i, b-iii, c-ii (b) a-iv, b-ii, c-i (c) a-v, b-iii, c-ii
(d) a-iv, b-ii, c-v (e) a-iii, b-iv, c-i
243. How many stage lights are there between the light, which is third to the left of V, and the
functional light, which is third to the right of P, when counted from either side?
(a) Seven (b) Eight (c) Three
(d) None (e) Either option ‘b’ or option ‘d’
244. _____ is the third functional light to the left of _____, which emits _____ color.
(a) U, S, Cyan (b) T, V, Green (c) R, P, Magenta
(d) Q, U, Red (e) None of the above
245. Which of the following pair of stage lights have at least one nonfunctional stage light between
them, when counted in clockwise direction?
(a) P, U (b) Q, P (c) R, V
(d) U, S (e) More than one pair

Directions (246-250): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
There are eight Social media Influencers i. (e). A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H who went for a
show and are sitting in a linear row, where four of them are facing north and other four are facing
south. Each of the influencer is from different social media platform i. (e). Facebook,
Twitter, Instagram, LinkedIn, Pinterest, Snapchat, Whatsapp and Tiktok, but not necessarily in
the same order.
Note: No two successive influencers are sitting according to the alphabetical series except D and
E, which means C will not sit with B and D, B will not sit with C and A and so on.
The one who is influencer on Snapchat is sitting third to the right of B. H sits third to the right of
E, who is influencer on Whatsapp. A sits third to the right of H. The influencer of Twitter does not
face in north direction and does not sit at any extreme end of the row. B, who is the influencer on
Instagram, sits immediate right of H, who faces in south direction. D sits at an extreme end of the

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row and is the influencer on Tiktok. F is the influencer on Pinterest. The influencer of LinkedIn
is sitting immediate right to the Influencer of Instagram and both are facing in opposite direction.
C sits second to the right of D.
246. Who among the following Influencer is sitting third to the right of F?
(a) D (b) A (c) B
(d) G (e) None of the above
247. B is the Influencer on which social media platform?
(a) Snapchat (b) Facebook (c) Instagram
(d) Tiktok (e) None of the above
248. How many influencers are sitting between B and C?
(a) Five (b) One (c) Three
(d) Four (e) Two
249. In the following four options are same and follows some logic, find the odd one out?
(a) G (b) H (c) A
(d) E (e) D
250. What is the position of the one who is the influencer on Twitter with respect to the one
who is influencer on LinkedIn?
(a) Third to the left (b) Second to the left (c) Third to the right
(d) Second to the right (e) None of the above
Directions (251-255): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Ten persons - L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a rectangular table facing the centre
such that two persons are sitting on the longer sides, one on the shorter sides and four at the
corners but not in the same order.
N is sitting adjacent to neither U nor L. Q is not sitting at any of the corners. M is sitting on the
shorter side and third to the left of U. P is sitting immediate right to S and none of them is sitting
on the longer sides. T is sitting equidistant to P when counted from either the left or the right of
P. O is sitting on one of the longer side and immediate left to L.
251. Who is sitting fourth to the right of R?
(a) N (b) O (c) T
(d) M (e) L
252. Who among the following is sitting at a shorter side?
(a) P (b) T (c) N
(d) U (e) S
253. If U is related to T and N is related to S then who is related to O?
(a) T (b) P (c) M
(d) Q (e) R
254. How many persons are sitting between U and P when counted from the right of P?
(a) Two (b) Four (c) Six
(d) Seven (e) Eight

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255. Find the odd one.
(a) U (b) N (c) Q
(d) M (e) T

Directions (256-259): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eleven persons namely, Abby, Abhay, Abhi, Cia, Joe, Ram, Raj, Ravi, Ria, Ross and Tom, live in 11
different floors of 11-storey building but not necessarily in the same order. The bottommost floor is
numbered as 1 and the topmost floor is numbered as 11. Only seven persons went to office on seven
different days starting from Monday to Sunday. Four persons are businessmen and they don’t go to
office.
The sum of the floor numbers of Abby and Ravi is 11. Persons, who live in perfect cube numbered
floors, are businessmen. Abby went to office 2 days before Cia. Tom lives below Ross, who went to
office two days after Ram. Ram lives 5 floors above Ravi. Three persons went to office between Abhay
and Ross. Three persons live between Tom and Ram, who lives adjacent to Cia. Ravi went to office
before Ross and 2 days after Cia. As many people lives below Ram as above Raj, who lives in prime
numbered floor. Tom went to office but not on Monday. The one, who went to office on Saturday,
lives 3 floors above Joe. Both the persons, who live adjacent to the one, who wentto office on Tuesday,
are businessmen.
256. Who lives 3 floors above the one, who went to office on Sunday?
(a) The one, who lives just below the one, who went to office on Thursday
(b) The one, who lives 2 floors above Abby
(c) The one, who lives on 7th floor
(d) The one, who went to office on Wednesday
(e) None of the above
257. If Abhi lives below Tom, then which of the following statements is/are true?
I. Ria lives just below the one, who went to office on Sunday
II. Only two persons live between Abhi and Ravi
III. More than three persons live between Ria and Ross
(a) Only statement I is true (b) Only statements I and III are true
(c) All statements are true (d) Only statements II and III are true
(e) None of the above
258. ______ lives _____ floors below the one, who went to office on Wednesday.
(a) Abhi, Four (b) Ria, Six (c) Raj, Seven
(d) Ross, Two (e) Abhay, Five
259. The one, who went to office on Thursday, lives on which floor?
(a) Three floors above the floor on which Ria lives
(b) Two floors below the floor on which Ross lives
(c) Four floors above the floor on which Abby Lives
(d) Just below the floor on which Raj lives
(e) None of the above

Directions (260-263): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Nine persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are born on 8 th, 15th and 22nd of January, July and
November of the same year and each of them wearing different coloured dress - Red, Blue, Green,
Yellow, White, Pink, Brown, Violet and Black but not necessarily in the same order.

210
D is born on 15 th of a month with 31 days. Three persons are born between D and G. The person
wearing blue dress is born immediately after G and four persons are born between persons
wearing blue and black. C is born immediately after F but in different months and none of them
is wearing black dress. B is born neither in November nor in January but wearing Yellow coloured
dress. Three persons are born between person wearing Yellow and A, who is wearing brown
dress. The person wearing white dress is born before A also as many person born before A as
after White. I is wearing Green coloured dress and H is born immediately before him. Two
persons are born between E and the person wearing Red coloured dress. F does not wear violet
coloured dress.
260. Who is born on 15th of November?
(a) F (b) G (c) H
(d) I (e) B
261. Which of the following colour dress is C wearing?
(a) Blue (b) Green (c) Red
(d) Yellow (e) Brown
262. Which of the following is true regarding E?
(a) 8thJanuary - White (b) 15thJuly – Yellow (c) 22ndNovember - Brown
(d) 8thJuly - Red (e) 22ndJuly - Violet
263. Which of the following is true based on the given options?
(a) D is wearing green coloured dress.
(b) B is born before F.
(c) H is born in a month with 30 days.
(d) A and E are born in consecutive months.
(e) None is true.

Directions (264-267): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are working in the Operations department of a company
and their designations are - Operations Executive (OE), Operations Analyst (OA), Operations
Engineer-1 (OE-1), Process Engineer (PE), Operations Manager (OM), Program Manager (PM),
Operations Specialist (OS) and Operations Consultant (OC) but not in the same order. All of them
are working at warehouses in different location - Haridwar, Kanpur, Lucknow, Bhilai, Dehradun,
Nagpur, Nasik and Siliguri.
Note: The designations are in an increasing order such that the Operations Executive (OE) is the
junior most and the Operations Consultant (OC) is the senior most person.
U is immediate junior to the person posted in neither Dehradun nor Bhilai warehouse. One
person is designated between the persons posted in Lucknow and Dehradun warehouses. T is
senior to P and three persons are designated between both of them. Neither T nor P are the senior
most or the junior most and the person working at Siliguri warehouse is designated exactly
between both of them. Two persons are designated between the person at warehouses in Siliguri
and Nasik who is neither the junior most nor the senior most. R is posted in Haridwar warehouse

211
and he is immediate senior to Q. Two persons are designated between Q and S, who is not from
Nasik. W is posted in Nagpur warehouse and he is immediately senior to the person in Kanpur. V
is neither posted in Nasik warehouse nor is the junior most person.
264. In which of the following warehouse is S posted?
(a) Nasik (b) Kanpur (c) Nagpur
(d) Haridwar (e) Bhilai
265. Find the odd pair.
(a) T - Haridwar. (b) Q - Nagpur (c) P - Bhilai
(d) U- Siliguri (e) W - Kanpur
266. What is the designation of the person posted in Nagpur Warehouse?
(a) Operations Manager (b) Operations Analyst
(c) Operations Engineer-1 (d) Operations Specialist
(e) Operations Consultant
267. Which of the following is true based on the given arrangement?
(a) P is posted in Kanpur warehouse.
(b) Q is posted in Siliguri Warehouse.
(c) U is the Operations Specialist.
(d) Only 'a' is true.
(e) All a, b, c are true.

Directions (268-270): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Sixteen persons A to P live in a four-storeyed building such as the ground floor is number 1 above
that number 2 and so on. Each of the floors has 2 flats viz., flat 1 and flat 2. Flat 1 is west of flat 2.
Only vowel letters are female. No two vowel letter person is living on the same floor and each
vowel letter person is living on each floor with their spouse. Also, Consonant letter persons living
in the same flat on the same floor are siblings.
Two floors are between G and L and both live in the same flat. P and D are not siblings. Two floors
are between H and K. O lives immediately below J in the same flat. E lives immediately west of L
but not on floor 1. Only one floor is between E and P, who does not live in the same flat as G. M
does not live on the same floor as K. A lives immediately below C and both of them live in the
same flat but not in flat 1. Only one floor is between C and I, who is spouse of M. B lives
immediately east of F on the odd number floor. The flat numbers of H and K is even number.
268. P lives immediately _______ ____ and in the same flat as ___________.
(a) Below F, N (b) Above J, A (c) Below H, D
(d) Above O, B (e) Below M, N
269. In which flat does D live?
(a) Flat 2 floor 3 (b) Flat 1 floor 4 (c) Flat 2 floor 1
(d) Flat 1 floor 3 (e) Flat 2 floor 2
270. Which of the statements is false?
(a) C and B are siblings. (b) O and F are couples.
(c) D lives on an odd number of floors. (d) I lives immediately west of H.
(e) All statements are false.

212
Directions (271-275): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven youtubers namely, Ami, Rim, Tom, Rik, Sam, Jon and Kim, are owner of different youtube
channels among- P, Q, R, S, T, U and V. Each youtuber belongs to different countries among- Japan,
China, Russia, Kenya, Canada, Italy and Spain, but not in the same order. Each youtuber has different
number of subscribers (in millions) among- 2, 5, 6.5, 8, 9.5, 12 and 15.
Rik, who belongs to Italy, has 3 million more subscribers than Sam, whose channel is U. Subscribers
of channel R is 1.5 million more than subscribers of Jon, who belongs to China. Kim, whose channel
is P, has 3 million more subscribers than Ami, who belongs to Russia. Subscribers of channel Q is 4.5
million less than the subscribers of Rim, who belongs to Kenya. Subscriber of channel T is more than
subscriber of channel V. Jon is not the owner of channel V. Owner of channel T doesn’t belong to
China. Sum of the subscribers of Tom and the youtuber, who belongs to Spain, is at least 11 million.
Youtuber, who belongs to Canada, has more subscribers than the youtuber, who belongs to Japan.
Sum of the subscribers of the youtuber, who belongs to Canada and subscribers of channel S is at
least 15 million. Tom doesn’t belong to Japan.
271. How many youtubers have more number of subscribers than the subscribers on the channel S?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) None of the above
272. What is the sum of the number of subscribers of the youtuber, who belongs to Canada and the
youtuber, who belongs to Spain?
(a) 13 millions (b) 14.5 millions (c) 21.5 millions
(d) 27 millions (e) None of the above
273. Sum of the number of subscribers of the youtuber, who belongs to _____ and the youtuber, who
belongs to _____ is 16 millions.
(a) Kenya, China (b) Canada, Kenya (c) Italy, China
(d) Spain, Kenya (e) None of the above
274. What is the sum of the number of subscribers of youtubers, who have less subscribers than the
subscribers of the youtuber, who belongs to China?
(a) 7 millions (b) 8.5 millions (c) 13.5 millions
(d) 2 millions (e) None of the above
275. How many youtubers have more subscribers than Kim but less than Tom?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) None of the above
Directions (276-279): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
The designations of the persons working in the excise department are Commissioner, Additional
Commissioner (AC), Joint Commissioner (JC), Deputy Commissioner (DC), Assistant
Commissioner (ASC), Chief Account Officer (CAO) and Assistant Director (AD). The rank of
Commissioner is considered as the seniormost while the rank of Assistant Director is considered
as the juniormost in the hierarchy. The persons are A, B, C, D, E, F and G and they are selected
through different exams viz., IB, PSI, CGL and CHSL such that each person is selected through
exactly two exams.

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C neither selected through CGL nor PSI. Not more than two persons are junior to C. Four persons
are senior to G but junior to the one who is selected through PSI and CHSL. A is senior to E and
both selected through different exams. A and E neither ranked as DC nor ASC. Two persons
selected through CGL as well as PSI exams. B is ranked as JC. F, who is immediate junior to D, is
selected through IB exam. G is selected through PSI and IB. B and E are selected through the
different exams.
276. Who among the following is not selected through IB exams?
(a) Additional Commissioner (AC) (b) Joint Commissioner (JC)
(c) Deputy Commissioner (DC) (d) Assistant Commissioner (ASC)
(e) Chief Account Officer (CAO)
277. How many persons are selected through CHSL exam?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) More than four
(d) Two (e) None
278. Who among the following is ranked as Assistant Commissioner (ASC)?
(a) The person who is selected through PSI and CHSL
(b) D
(c) The person who is selected through IB and CHSL
(d) C
(e) The person who is selected through CGL and CHSL
279. Maximum number of persons are selected through _____ exam.
(a) IB (b) PSI (c) CHSL
(d) Both IB and CHSL (e) CGL

Directions (280-284): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
There are seven flights (P, Q, R, S, T, U and V) which take off from different cities namely, Mumbai,
Pune, Lucknow, Jaipur, Patna, Varanasi and Kolkata, on same day at different time (in AM) among-
5:00, 5:30, 6:30, 7:15, 7:30, 8:00 and 8:45, but not necessarily in the same order. Each flight lands in
Delhi and their travel time (in minutes) is different among- 15, 30, 45, 60, 75, 90 and 120, but not in
the same order.
Note: If flight X takes off at 6:00 and its travel time is 40 minutes, then it lands in Delhi at 6:40.
Flight Q, which takes off from Mumbai, takes off before flight P, which takes off from Kolkata, and
both flights lands in Delhi at 7:00. Difference between the travel time of flight Q and P is equal to the
travel time of flight U, which takes off from Jaipur. Flight U takes off 45 minutes after the flight, which
takes off from Patna. No flight lands in Delhi after 9:30. No flight lands in Delhi at 7:45 and at 8:30.
Number of flights, which takes off between R and S is not 2. Take off time of flight T and landing time
of flight V is same. Travel time of V is not 60 minutes. Flight, which takes off from Lucknow, lands in
Delhi at 8:45. Sum of the travel time of flight R and S is at most 2 hours. Flight, which takes off from
Pune, takes off before the flight which takes off from Varanasi. Flight which takes off from Varanasi
doesn’t land after 9:00. Sum of the travel time of the flight, which takes off from Pune and the flight
which lands at last in Delhi is at most 70 minutes. At least two flights lands before flight R.

214
280. How many flights lands after the flight, whose travel time is minimum?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four
(d) Five (e) None of the above
281. How many flights lands between the flight, which takes off from Lucknow and the flight,
which takes off from Varanasi?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) None of the above
282. What is the sum of the travel time of the flights, which land after the flight, which takes off
from Patna?
(a) 30 minutes (b) 60 minutes (c) 120 minutes
(d) 135 minutes (e) None of the above
283. What is the sum of the travel time of the flights, which land before 7:30?
(a) 90 minutes (b) 135 minutes (c) 165 minutes
(d) 225 minutes (e) None of the above
284. What is the sum of the travel time of the flight, which takes off from Pune and the flight, which
takes off from Jaipur?
(a) 45 minutes (b) 90 minutes (c) 105 minutes
(d) 135 minutes (e) None of the above
Directions (285-289): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight persons- Dim, Gim, Jim, Kim, Nim, Rim, Sim and Tim are sitting around a circular table
having eleven seats but not in the same order. Half persons are facing inside the centre and half
persons are facing outside the centre.
Three seats are between Gim and Sim, whose seat is immediate left of Kim. One of the seats
adjacent to Jim is vacant. Kim neither face inside the centre nor seat of Kim is adjacent to vacant
seat. Seat of Rim is third to the right of seat of Nim and both of them face same direction. Only
one seat is between Rim and Jim. Two seats are between Sim and Nim, whose seat is adjacent to
vacant seat. Seat of Tim is second to the right of seat of Jim.
285. How many seats are between Gim and Tim when counted from the right of Tim?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5
(d) 7 (e) More than 7
286. Four of the following are related to each other in some way and thus form a group, wo
among the following does not belong to that group?
(a) Kim (b) Nim (c) Rim
(d) Jim (e) Dim
287. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Seat of Jim is third to the left of seat of Sim.
(b) Rim sits adjacent to vacant seat.
(c) Tim is facing outside the centre.
(d) Three seats are between Dim and Sim when counted from the left of Dim.
(e) All statements are true.

215
288. Seat of Nim is adjacent to _______ seat and ______ seat.
(a) Tim's, Kim's (b) Vacant, Jim's (c) Dim's, Vacant
(d) Gim's, Rim's (e) Vacant, Vacant
289. If Gim is related to Rim in the same way Tim is related to ______.
(a) Jim (b) Nim (c) Dim
(d) Sim (e) Kim

Directions (290-293): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
There are eight persons namely, Ayan, Ryan, Byan, Myan, Syan, Eyan, Zyan and Dyan, sitting around
a regular pentagonal table, which contains 10 seats, such that five seat are at the corners and
remaining five are on the middle of the sides of the table. Each person faces towards the centre of the
table. Two of the seats are vacant. Each person drinks different drinks among- Cider, Wine, Cocktail,
Coffee, Tea, Milk, Beer and Juice, in the gathering, but not in the same order.
Note: If a person sits immediate right/left of another person, then there may or may not be a vacant
seat between them.
If a person is immediate neighbour of another person, then their seats are adjacent to each other.
If a person sits opposite to another person, then number of seats between them (from either
direction) is same.
Person, who drinks Milk, sits immediate right of Eyan, who drinks Juice, and both of them sit on the
sides of the table. One of the vacant seats is on the side of the table. Two persons sit between Eyan
and Ryan, from either side of the table. Person, who drinks Tea, sits immediate right of Myan, who
drinks Coffee, and both of them sit at the corner of the table. Ayan, who drinks Beer, sits opposite to
the one of the vacant seats. Ayan is an immediate neighbour of the person, who drinks Cider. Ryan
doesn’t drink Cider. Syan sits opposite to the person, who likes Cocktail. Dyan, who drinks Wine, is
not immediate neighbour of Zyan. If Byan drinks Cocktail, then he must sit adjacent to a vacant seat.
Zyan doesn’t sit opposite to the person, who drinks Juice.
290. Who sits third to the right of the person, who drinks Wine?
(a) Person, who drinks Coffee (b) Zyan
(c) Person, who drinks Beer (d) Syan
(e) None of the above
291. How many persons sit between Syan and the person, who drinks Tea, when counted from the
right of Syan?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) None of the above
292. How many persons sit between Ryan and the person, who drinks Juice, when counted from
the left of Ryan?
(a) Two (b) Four (c) Five
(d) Six (e) None of the above
293. Four of the following five are related to each other in some manner. Find the odd one out.
(a) Dyan (b) Zyan (c) Syan
(d) Byan (e) Myan

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Directions (294-297): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Six employees- P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a hexagonal table such that some of them are
facing inside the centre and some of them are facing outside the centre. All persons are sitting at
the middle of the edges of the table. Each of them is there to attend different rounds of interview
viz., Aptitude, Technical, HR, Managerial, Screening and Coding. All the information is not
necessarily in the same order.
Two persons sit between R and Q, who attends Coding round. S does not face outside the centre.
R does not attend Technical round. The person who attends Coding round sits immediate left of
U. Only one person sits between Q and S. The one who attends Technical round sits immediate
right of P. The one who attends Aptitude round sits fourth to the left of the one who attends
Screening round. T, who attends HR round, sits second to the right of R. T faces same direction
as P but opposite direction as Q.
294. How many persons sit between S and U when counted from the right of S?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) None
295. What is the position of P with respect to R?
(a) Second to the left (b) Third to the right (c) Immediate left
(d) Second to the right (e) Third to the left
296. Which of the following combination is true?
I) R - Managerial
II) U - Technical
III) P - Aptitude
(a) Only I and II (b) Only II and III (c) Only I and III
(d) None is true (e) All are true
297. P sits second to the right of _____, who attends ___________ round.
(a) S, Screening (b) Q, HR (c) R, Technical
(d) T, Aptitude (e) U, Managerial
Directions (298-300): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven dogs namely, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V, sit in a linear row and face in north direction. Each dog
belongs to different breed among- Labrador, Bulldog, Beagle, Collie, Boxer, Poodle and Pug, but not
necessarily in the same order.
An&B means A sits ‘nth’ to the left of B.
A&nB means B sits ‘nth’ to the right of A where “n” can be first, second, third etc.
S&3(Poodle), (Poodle)&1Q, V&3(Boxer), R2&U, (Labrador)&2(Bulldog)
S doesn’t belong to Bulldog breed. Dog of Collie breed sits at extreme right end of the row. U doesn’t
belong to the Boxer breed. P, who belongs to Pug breed, doesn’t sit at extreme end of the row. At least
one dog sits between T and Beagle.
298. What is the position of dog of Labrador breed with respect to dog Poodle breed?
(a) Third to the right (b) Fourth to the right (c) Third to the left
(d) Fourth to the left (e) None of the above

217
299. How many dogs sit to the right of the dog, who sits immediate right of dog of Beagle breed?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) None of the above
300. How many dogs sit between the dog, who sits immediate right of U and the dog, who sits
immediate left of R?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) None of the above

Directions (301-305): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are invited for a birthday party. All persons sit in a linear row
facing in north direction for dinner, but not necessarily in the same order. Each person has different
food items Juice, Cake, Coke, Pepsi, Fanta, Fruits, Toffee, and Pastry. No two persons with names
starting with consecutive alphabets as per the English alphabetical series sit adjacent to each other.
After the party, they go to their home. Each person lives on different floors of eight floor building,
such that the bottommost floor is numbered as 1 and the floor just above it, is numbered as 2 and so
on.
In Seating arrangement:
At most two persons sit to the right of Q. V doesn't have Coke. The person, who has Fanta, sits
immediate left of R, who has Pepsi. Only two persons sit between P and the person, who has Cake.
The person, who has Coke, sits to the left of the person, who has Toffee. The person, who has Fruits,
sits to the right of the person, who has Toffee. T, who has Pastry, sits second to the left of U, who is
one of the immediate neighbours of Q. W, who has Juice, is one of the immediate neighbours of T. W
sits immediate right of S.
In Floor arrangement:
The person, who sits immediate right of V, lives on a prime numbered floor. Only two persons live
below the person, who has Toffee. Only three persons live between the person, who has Cake and
the person, who has Fanta. The person, who has Fanta, lives on an even numbered floor, but below
the person, who sits second to the right of S. As many persons live below the person, who has Toffee,
as above the person, who sits second to the left of Q. The person, who sits immediate right of U,
doesn't live on an odd numbered floor. T doesn't live immediately above P.
301. How many persons live between the person, who has Cake, and the person, who sits third to
the right of T?
(a) Same as the number of persons living below the person, who had Fanta
(b) Same as the number of persons sitting between W and R
(c) Same as the number of persons sitting between the person, who lives on 3rd floor and R
(d) Same as the number of persons sitting to the left of the person, who has Toffee
(e) None of the above
302. V lives_____ floors above W, who sits_____ to the left of the person, who has ______.
(a) One, Immediate, Pastry (b) Two, Second, Coke
(c) Four, Third, Fanta (d) Three, Third, Toffee (e) None of the above

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303. Number of persons sitting to the left of T is same as the number of persons living below_______.
(a) the person, who has Coke (b) the person, who has Toffee
(c) the person, who has Fruits (d) the person, who has Cake
(e) the person, who had Pastry
304. Which of the following statements is/are definitely correct?
I. Three persons live between T and W
II. P, who has Coke, sits second to the right of Q, who has Fanta
III. R sits third to the right of the person, who lives on fourth floor
(a) Only II and III (b) Only III (c) Only II
(d) Only I (e) Only I and III
305. Which of the following combinations is/are definitely incorrect?
(a) 8th floor - S- Cake (b) 2nd floor - Q- Fruits (c) 6th floor - P- Coke
(d) 4th floor - W- Juice (e) 7th floor - R - Pepsi

Directions (306-310): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
6 friends A, B, C, D, E & F are sitting in a row. Some of them are facing north while others are
facing south. Distance between 2 adjacent friends is constant. Not more than 2 person facing
same direction are sitting together. Distance between C & D is 24m.
D & C face different direction. One person sit between D & E whose immediate neighbours face
same direction. E is not adjacent to B. 2 people sit between A & B. E is towards right of F but not
immediate right. One person sit between D & E whose immediate neighbours face same direction.
Both A & B face same direction. A faces north.
Now, they had some movements:
(a) A moved 12m straight & took a right turn & moved 16m.
(b) E turned 180 degrees & moved 24m turned right & moved 16m.
(c) D turned towards C & Moved 20m.
306. Before movements, what was the distance between D & B?
(a) 12m (b) 18m (c) 24m
(d) 32m (e) None of these
307. What is B's direction with respect to E after movements?
(a) North-west (b) South-west (c) South-east
(d) North-east (e) South
308. After movements what is the distance between D & F?
(a) 16m (b) 20m (c) 24m
(d) 12m (e) None of these
309. What is the distance between A & C and C is in which direction with respect to A? (After
movements)
(a) 20m towards north-east (b) 20m towards south-west
(c) 15m towards north-east (d) 15m towards south-west
(e) 12m towards South

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310. Which of the following statement is true?
I. After movements, A is towards north-west of E
II. After movements, A is towards south-east of E.
III. After movements, distance between A & F is 20m.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3
(d) Both 1 & 3 (e) None of these

Directions (311-314): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Twelve persons sit on twelve seats on two concentric circular tables, such that six persons A, B, C, D,
E, and F sit around the outer table and face towards the center. Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, and U sit
around the inner table and face away from the center of the table. Position of seat is shown in the
figure given below. Each person belongs to a family of two generation. No single person in the family
is a parent. The persons, who sit on the same table belongs to the same generation. Spouses do not
sit adjacent to each other on a same table. Only the persons, who sit on the same seat number, face
each other.

U sits second to the right of Q's brother-in-law. C's nephew does not sit on a prime numbered seat.
U's mother is only sister of B. U is married to P's only sister. C is sister husband of D, who is mother
of
E has only two sons and both of them are married. R is sister-in-law of T, who is unmarried. D sits
immediate left of F, who doesn't sit adjacent to Q's father. E sits third to left of C, who has one nephew.
R's mother-in-law sits immediate right of C's sister-in-law, who doesn't face U's wife. T sits second
to the right of the person, who faces B's sister. There is equal number of male and female members
in the family. Q faces the person, who sits second to the left of A, who is father of P. P has only one
sibling. A sits on one of the prime numbered seats.
311. Which of the following persons sit in seat number 4 on the outer table?
(a) F's sister (b) E's sister-in-law (c) E's brother-in-law
(d) Either 'a' or 'b' (e) Either 'b' or 'c'
312. Which of the following combinations of persons do not face each other?
(a) P and F (b) Q and C (c) S and D
(d) T and E (e) R and A

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313. How is P's brother-in-law related to the person, who sits on seat number 2 in the inner table?
(a) Brother (b) Husband (c) Son
(d) Nephew (e) Cannot be determined
314. What is the position of A's sister with respect to the S's brother's mother-in-law?
(a) Third to the right (b) Second to the right (c) Second to the left
(d) Immediate left (e) None of the above

Directions (315-318): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven boxes - P, Q, R, S, T, U and V were kept one above the one in the form of stack. Each box has
different number of chocolates ranging between 1-10. The number of chocolates with two
immediate neighbours has no common factor except 1. No two boxes has same number of
chocolates.
Three boxes were kept between box Q and the box which has 7 chocolates. The box which has 7
chocolates was kept below box Q. One box is kept between box V and the box which has 7
chocolates. The number of boxes kept below box V is one more than the number of boxes kept
above the box which has 8 chocolates. Two boxes were kept between T and the box which has 8
chocolates. Box Q have chocolates which was in multiple of three. Sum of the chocolates of box S
and box U was in prime number. The number of boxes kept between P and the box which has 5
chocolates is same as between box Q and the box which has 6 chocolates. Box R is kept
immediately below the box which has 5 chocolates. One box was kept between box S and the box
which has 4 chocolates. Difference between the chocolates of box P and box U is one.
315. How many boxes were kept above the box which have 3 chocolates?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two
(d) Three (e) More than three
316. Sum of number of chocolates in box R and box Q is _____
(a) 9 (b) 12 (c) 14
(d) 15 (e) More than 15
317. Which of the following box have second least number of chocolates?
(a) U (b) P (c) V
(d) S (e) R
318. Four of the following pair were in a certain group, which of the following that does not
belong to that group?
(a) Box P and the box which has 9 chocolates
(b) Box V and the box which has 8 chocolates
(c) Box U and the box which has 7 chocolates
(d) Box Q and the box which has 4 chocolates
(e) Box T and the box which has 6 chocolates

Directions (319-322): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
There are certain number of shelves in three stacks Stack A, Stack B and Stack C such that Stack A is
in west of Stack B, which is in west of Stack C. The bottommost shelf is numbered as 1 and the shelf
just above it is numbered as 2 and so on. All stacks have different number of shelves. All shelves are

221
of the same dimension. No shelf is vacant. There are at most 10 stacks in each shelf. Some of these
shelves are of different colours.
Note: If it is given that 'a shelf' is one/two/three/four shelves above/below 'another shelf' then both
shelves are in the same stack unless stated otherwise. If it is given that 'a shelf' is in north-east/north-
west of 'another shelf' then the shelf must be one of the shelves above 'another shelf' unless stated
otherwise.
Number of shelves above K is one less than the number of shelves below H (in the same stack). K is
two shelves below the Yellow shelf. Q is three shelves above P, but not in the same stack. There is
one shelf above S, which is not in stack B. U, which is Blue shelf, is in north-west of G, which is four
shelves above M. V, which is three shelves above U, is the topmost shelf. There are two shelves below
P, which is not in the same stack as S. J, which is Pink shelf, is above G, such that the Yellow shelf is in
north-west of J. Violet shelf is three shelves above H, but not in the same stack. N, which is Cyan shelf,
is in north-west of O, which is one shelf below Violet shelf. As many shelves are below O as above L,
which is three shelves above X. O, L and X are in the same stack. Violet shelf is two shelves below the
Orange shelf, which is in north-east of J. Both M and T are in the same stack. S, which is Red shelf, is
in north-east of T, which is one shelf above Q.
319. If Z, which is White shelf, is three shelve below E but not immediately above X, then which of
the following shelves is in north-west direction of M?
I. Shelf Z
II. Shelf P
III. Shelf E
IV. Shelf H
(a) Only I and II (b) Only I, II, and III (c) Only III and IV
(d) Only II, III, and IV (e) All I, II, III, and IV
320. If Shelf W is three shelves below shelf T, then number of shelves between Shelf W and Shelf G
(in the same stack) is not same as the number of shelves between______ and_____(in the same
stack).
(a) Shelf N, Shelf V (b) Shelf K, Shelf U (c) Shelf H, Shelf P
(d) Shelf L, Shelf O (e) Shelf J, Shelf T
321. Violet shelf is______ shelf in ______, which has______ shelves.
(a) Third, Stack B, Eight (b) Sixth, Stack B, Nine (c) Seventh, Stack
C, Nine
(d) Second, Stack A, Ten (e) None of the above
322. Which of the following correctly represents the place of the Violet shelf?
(a) Two shelves above Shelf L in Stack B (b) In north-west direction of Shelf T in
Stack C (c) Six shelves above the shelf X in Stack C
(d) Three shelves below shelf U in Stack A (e) In north-east direction of Shelf K in Stack
B

Directions (323-326): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Fourteen people have cleared six different exams namely RRB Clerk, RRB PO, SBI PO, SBI Clerk,
IBPS PO and IBPS Clerk, but not necessarily in the same order.
NOTE: At least one and at most four people cleared the same exam.

222
K cleared the SBI Po exam. Neither B nor D cleared SBI Clerk, IBPS PO and IBPS Clerk. F and D do
not clear the RRB PO exam, IBPS PO and IBPS Clerk. Only two people cleared the SBI Po exam. A
and K cleared the same exam. B and C do not clear RRB Clerk, SBI Clerk and IBPS Clerk. B, L and
N clear the same exam. Neither F nor E clears the RRB Clerk exam. D, G and J clear the same exam.
E and I clear the same exam but not IBPS PO, RRB Clerk and SBI Clerk. Four people cleared the
RRB Clerk exam. H does not clear RRB Po, RRB Clerk, IBPS Po and IBPS Clerk. Three people
cleared the RRB PO exam. M did not clear SBI Clerk, IBPS Clerk and IBPS PO.
323. How many people have the IBPS Po exam?
(a) Four (b) One (c) Two
(d) Three (e) Can't be determined
324. Which of the following exams does H have?
(a) RRB PO (b) IBPS PO (c) SBI Clerk
(d) RRB Clerk (e) IBPS Clerk
325. As M is related to RRB Clerk in the same way E is related to ____.
(a) RRB Clerk (b) SBI PO (c) IBPS PO
(d) IBPS Clerk (e) RRB PO
326. Find the odd one out.
(a) D (b) G (c) J
(d) F (e) M

Directions (327-330): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a company, Gina has motivated her employees to work efficiently. Due to this motivation, her
employees work seven days a week. Employees are allowed to work on any four days of the week for
the company and remaining three days of the week on their own project. On a particular day Gina
observed three of her trusted employees and found some facts about their weekly schedule.
Each of them works only four days a week for the company and work on their own project on three
days of the week (starting from Sunday). At least one person works for the company every day of the
week. Same pair of employees doesn't work on their own project more than once in a week (Ex- If A
and B works on their own project on Monday, then A and B doesn't work on their own project on any
other remaining days of the week). If all the three employees work (on the same day for company)
in the first three days of the week, then Roma doesn't work on her own project on Friday. All three
work together only once (for the company) in a week. None of them works for the company on three
consecutive days of a week. Anita works on her project on Tuesdays, Thursdays, and Sundays. Roma
works on her project on Saturdays. Rishi doesn't work for company on Friday and Sunday.

327. Which of the following combinations of days represents the days on which Roma works on
her own project?
(a) Saturdays, Tuesdays, Wednesdays (b) Saturdays, Tuesdays, Thursdays
(c) Saturdays, Tuesdays, Mondays (d) Saturdays, Wednesdays, Wednesdays
(e) Either option 'a' or option 'b'

223
328. If Roma doesn't work for company on Thursdays, then which of the following statements
is/are definitely correct?
(a) All three employees work together on Wednesdays
(b) Roma works on her own project on Saturdays, Tuesdays and Mondays
(c) Roma works for company on Sundays, Mondays and Saturday
(d) Rishi definitely works for Company on Wednesdays
(e) None of the above
329. If Rishi and Roma work on their own project on Wednesday, then on which of the following
days Roma definitely works for company?
(a) Sundays (b) Mondays (c) Fridays
(d) Thursday (e) All of the above
330. On which of the following combination of days, Rishi definitely works for the company?
(a) Mondays, Tuesdays, Thursdays, and Saturdays
(b) Wednesdays, Tuesdays, Thursdays, and Saturdays
(c) Mondays, Wednesdays, Thursdays, and Saturdays
(d) Either 'a' or 'b'
(e) None of the above

Directions (331-335): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight clubs G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N were established on 1stJanuary of different years i. (e)., 1988,
1978, 1975, 1972, 1963, 1954, 1947 and 1932. Each club had different themes i. (e)., Twister,
Emotion, Elite, Unity, Vibes, Destiny, Thrill and Memory but not necessarily in the same order. Each
club was based upon a popular movie BJK, HYT, RST, NVK, JSD, WRF, PSY and FQZ of that year. The
age of each club is calculated with respect to 1stJanuary, 2022.
The club, which had Destiny theme, was established just after K. As many clubs were established
after K as before the club, which was based upon PSY. The club, which had Vibes theme, was 9 years
older than K. M, which had Elite theme, was established before the club, which was based upon FQZ.
Only one club was established between N and the club, which had Emotion theme. Neither J nor K
had Thrill theme. I was not the third oldest club. N, which was based upon RST, was 31 years older
than J. L had neither Destiny nor Emotion theme. Difference between the age of the club, which was
based upon FQZ and the club, which had Thrill theme, is 3 years. G was established before the club,
which was based upon WRF. I, which was based upon JSD, neither had Vibes nor Thrill theme. The
club, which had Twister theme, was based upon NVK.
331. The question given below consists of two statements numbered I and II given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read all the statements and answer the question.
Which among the following club had Memory theme?
Statement I: The club, which was based upon HYT, was established in an even number year.
Statement II: The club, which had Unity theme, was established at least 30 years after the club,
which was based on HYT.
(a) Data given in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
(b) Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Data given in both statement I and statement II together are sufficient to answer the
question.
(e) Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

224
332. What is the difference between the age of the club, which had Destiny theme, and the club,
which was based on RST?
(a) 31 years (b) 25 years (c) 43 years
(d) 22 years (e) None of the above
333. _______ was established _______ years after the club, which had _______ theme.
(a) M, 15 years, Memory (b) K, 18 years, Elite
(c) J, 12 years, Destiny (d) I, 16 years, Twister
(e) L, 46 years, Unity
334. If the theme of the club, which was established in an odd numbered year are renamed. Then
which among the following clubs are renamed?
I. The club, which was established just before the club, which had Emotion theme.
II. The club, which was established just after the club, which was based on PSY.
III. The club, which was established two years before the club, which was based on BJK.
IV. The club, which was established just after the club, which had Twister theme.
(a) Only I and II (b) Only II and IV (c) Only I, II and IV
(d) Only I and IV (e) All I, II, III and IV
335. Which among the following is definitely the correct pair of clubs, which had crossed 50 years
of their establishment?
(a) The club, which had Memory theme and I.
(b) M and the club, which was based on FQZ.
(c) N and the club, which was established 9 years before J.
(d) The club, which had Thrill theme and M.
(e) L and the club, which was established just before K.

Directions (336-340): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight persons- Ale, Bob, Dan, Emi, Hop, Jeh, Leo and Sam are living in an eight-storeyed building
but not necessarily in the same order. The bottommost floor is 1 above that 2 and so on. The floor
number of each person is the addition of last two digits of the birthyear of that person (If
birthyear of A = 1934 then floor number of A is 7).
Jeh is 5 years younger than Hop. The difference between the birthyears of Jeh and Ale is 2 years.
Emi is 10 years elder to Hop. The difference between the birthyear of Emi and Dan is 6 years.
Two floors are between Bob and Sam, whose birthyear is 1923. The difference between the
birthyear of Sam and Hop is 3 years. Birthyear of Leo is either 1929 or 1930. The difference
between birthyear of Dan and Bob is 1 year.
336. Bob was born in year _______.
(a) 1909 (b) 1922 (c) 1911
(d) 1933 (e) 1925
337. How many persons live below Leo?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) More than 3 (e) None

225
338. If Leo is related to 1930 in the same way Ale is related to _______.
(a) 1921 (b) 1935 (c) 1916
(d) 1924 (e) 1933
339. Emi lives immediately _________ ________.
(a) Below, Hop (b) Above, Dan (c) Below, Sam
(d) Above, Leo (e) Below, Ale
340. Jeh lives on _____ floor and was born in _______.
(a) 3rd, 1930 (b) 8th, 1917 (c) 6th, 1924
(d) 4th, 1931 (e) 7th, 1907

Directions (341-344): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a society, there is a car parking building, which has eight floors. Each floor has two parking spots
i. (e)., spot 1 and spot 2 in such a way that spot 2 is in east of spot1. Each spot is owned by different
persons and there are different cars parked on some spots.
Note:
1.) If car A is parked to the south-west/south-east of car B, then car A is parked below the car, which
is west/east of car B. And same is applicable for the owners of the spot.
2.) If car A is above car B, then they must be parked in the same type of spot unless stated otherwise.
3.) If person A owns spot, which 2/3/4/5 floors above/below person B, then they must own same
type of spot unless stated otherwise.
B owns the spot 1 of the odd prime numbered floors. Verna is parked just above B in the same type
of spot. L owns one of the spots of floor 1 . Kwid is parked to the east of Tiago. C owns that spot, which
is just below the spot on which Kwid is parked in the same type of spot. C owns the spot of that floor,
which is exactly between the B's floor and L's floor. The spot, which M owns, is south-east of the spot,
which K owns. As many floors are above K as below M, which doesn't own a spot on odd numbered
floor. Only three floors are between the floors on which, car A4 is parked and car i10 is parked. As
many parking spots are above the parking spot, which A owns as below the parking spot, which B
owns (including both spots). Car A4 is parked to the west of A.
341. The question given below consists of two statements numbered I and II given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read all the statement and answer the question.
Who owns the spot 2 of 7th floor?
Statement I: Car K10 is parked 3 floors above the floors on which Kwid is parked. K owns that
spot, which is southwest of G.
Statement II: D owns that spot which is three floors above the one, on which Verna is parked
(in the same type of spot). G doesn't own a parking spot, which is northeast of D.
(a) Data given in statement, I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Data given in statement, II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Data given in both the statement I and statement II together are sufficient to answer the
question.
(e) Data given in both the statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.

226
342. Which of the following statement/statements is/are definitely false?
I. Car i10 is parked south-east of car Tiago.
II. L owns the same type of parking spot on which Kwid is parked
III. Car A4 is parked three floors above the floor on which B owns a parking spot.
(a) Only statement III (b) Only statement I and II(c) Only statement II
(d) Only statements I and III (e) Only statement I
343. _____ owns the parking _____ of _____ floor.
(a) B, spot 1, 7th (b) B, spot 1, 5th (c) B, spot 1, 3rd
(d) K, spot 1, 3rd (e) None of the above
344. If car Beat is parked one floor above A, then how many floors are between the floors, on which
C owns a parking spot and the floor on which Beat is parked?
(a) As many floors as between the floor on which B owns a parking spot and the floor on which
Verna is parked.
(b) As many floors as between the floor on which L owns a parking spot and the floor on
which A4 is parked
(c) As many floors as between the floor on which Kwid is parked and the floor on which K
owns a parking spot.
(d) As many floors as between the floor on which A4 is parked and the floor on which M owns
a parking spot.
(e) None of the above

Directions (345-349): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight friends - H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting in a linear row in which some of them are facing
north while some of them are facing south. All of them works in different companies such as TCS,
CTS, Facebook, Twitter, Google, HCL, LG and IBM. All the above information is not necessarily in
the same order. Not more than five persons faces the same direction.
Two person sits between L and the one who works in Twitter. Three persons sit between J and
the one who works in Facebook. I sits second to the right of the one who works in Facebook and
both of them faces the opposite directions. The number of persons sit between L and the one who
works in Google is same as between K and the one who works in IBM. The immediate neighbours
of O faces opposite directions. One person sits between O and the one who works in LG. The one
who works in Google faces north. N and K faces same direction. H sits second to the right of the
one who works in Twitter. H neither works in CTS or TCS. J does not work in Twitter. Two persons
sit between I and the one who works in CTS. Four persons sit between M and the one who works
in TCS. Neither J nor the one who works in TCS sits at any of the ends. The immediate neighbours
of K faces opposite directions. More than two persons sit between N and the one who works in
HCL. N works in IBM. J sits second to the left of the one who works in TCS. The one who works in
Facebook do not sit to the immediate right of the one who works in Google. Neither J nor K works
in Google or TCS. The one who works in Twitter do not sit to the immediate left of the one who
works in TCS.

227
345. K works in _________
(a) LG (b) HCL (c) CTS
(d) TCS (e) Twitter
346. The number of persons sits to the left of the one who works in Twitter is two more than
the number of persons sits to the right of _______
(a) H (b) I (c) O
(d) K (e) L
347. Four of the following were in a certain group, which of the following that does not belong
to that group?
(a) The one who works in LG (b) The one who works in TCS
(c) The one who works in Facebook (d) The one who works in CTS
(e) The one who works in HCL
348. How many persons sit between M and the one who works in IBM?
(a) More than four (b) Four (c) Three
(d) Two (e) One
349. Which of the following combination is true?
(a) Two persons sit between L and the one who works in LG
(b) L works in TCS
(c) Three persons sit between L and the one works in Facebook
(d) I sits to the immediate left of the one who works in Google
(e) L sits to the immediate right of the one who works in LG

Directions (350-354): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J sit around a regular pentagonal shaped table, such that five
of these persons seat along the middle of the sides of the table and the rest sit at the corners. Some
of these persons face towards the centre of the table while the others face away from the centre. Each
person holds different designation in the company, CEO, MD, CGM, GM, AGM, DGM, Manager, AM, PO
and Clerk. The designations are given in decreasing order of precedence such that CEO is the highest
designation and Clerk is the lowest designation. No two persons with name that start with
consecutive alphabets, as per English alphabetical order, sit adjacent to each other. The number of
people, who face towards the centre, is not equal to the number of people who face, away from the
centre. Also, not more than two adjacent persons face in the same direction.
A, who sits in one of the middle seats and faces towards the centre, is AM. D, who faces towards the
centre, sits third to the left of A. At least three persons sit between B and C, when counted from both
the sides of B. B, who faces towards the centre, sits adjacent to D. Person, who is _[1]_,sits third to the
left of E. C does not sit adjacent to A. As many persons are junior to D as the number of persons sitting
between C and D, when counted from the left of D. _[5]_ persons, sit between the one, who is _[6]_ and
C, when counted from the right of C. No person, who is senior to D, sits adjacent to D. Neither E nor
G sits at the corner seats. _[7]_ persons, sit between F and the one, who is MD, when counted from
the right of MD. E, who is the only person senior to G, sits second to the right of G. As many persons
are junior to F as senior to I. J, who is senior to C, faces in the opposite direction to C. J, who is _[2]_,
sits _[3]_ to the _[4]_ of A. E is _[8]_ designations senior to the one, who sits immediate right of H.

228
350. If there is at least one designation between F and D, then what will come in place of [1]?
(a) DGM (b) GM (c) CGM
(d) The one, who is two designations senior to A (e) Both option 'a' and option 'd'
351. What will come in place of [2], [3] and [4] respectively?
(a) GM, fourth, left (b) PO, fourth, left (c) Clerk, third, right
(d) CGM, fifth, right (e) Cannot be determined
352. If the person, who sits second to the left of H, is not junior to H, then what will come in place of
[5] and [6]?
(a) Four, PO (b) Five, GM (c) Three, AM
(d) two, CGM (e) None of the above
353. What will come in place of [7]?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five
(d) Six (e) None of the above
354. What will come in place of [8]?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) None of the above

Directions (355-358): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Ten persons are sitting around a rectangular table such that some are facing inward while some
are facing outward. One person is sitting at each corner and at each shorter side while two
persons are sitting at each longer side. Any person whose name starts with a vowel is facing
outward while his immediate neighbours are facing inward. T is sitting third to the right of S. H
is sitting exactly opposite to S. H is sitting to the immediate right of L. X is sitting second to the
right of O. X is not sitting along the length and he is not facing inward. A is sitting to the immediate
right of P. Two persons are sitting in between P and E. C is sitting exactly opposite to the person
who is sitting to the immediate right of T. Not both the immediate neighbours of P are named as
vowels. A is not sitting exactly opposite to another person whose name starts with a vowel.
355. Who is sitting third to the left of L?
(a) A (b) X (c) O
(d) C (e) T
356. Who is sitting exactly opposite to the person who is sitting second to the left of H?
(a) O (b) E (c) A
(d) X (e) T
357. Which of the following is correct?
I. S and X are sitting at the corners and facing toward the same direction.
II. X is sitting exactly opposite to P.
III. Both the immediate neighbours of C are named as vowels.
(a) Only II (b) Both I and III (c) Both I and II
(d) None of I, II and III (e) Only I

229
358. In which of the following pairs, both the persons are not immediate neighbours of persons
who are facing inward?
(a) HT (b) XL (c) SC
(d) PX (e) CP

Directions (359-360): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight different football clubs, VFC, GFC, BFC, AFC, NFC, TFC, RFC and DFC, based around different
area of Los Santos, participate in the Ryder Memorial Football League. A table is maintained by the
organizers, where the teams are ranked according to their points. After each match the club with
most point is ranked 1 and the club with least point is ranked 8. Each club has different number of
points, 40, 38, 36, 32, 28, 26, 24 and 20, however not in this particular order.
The clubs to the north-east of NFC have fewer points than NFC.AFC is 6km to the north of NFC, which
has 26 points. TFC, which has 2 points less than AFC, is to the south-east of AFC. Only four clubs have
more points than DFC. VFC, which does not have the lowest point, has 8 points less than RFC. BFC
has more points than GFC as well as RFC. One of the clubs is 3km to the west of GFC. The third ranked
club and the eighth ranked club are along a vertical straight line. AFC is 5km to the south-west of the
club, which has minimum points. The club, which has the highest points, is 5km to the north-west of
GFC.BFC is not to the north west of NFC. VFC is to the south-east of DFC. The club, which is ranked
immediately lower than TFC, is 7km to the south of TFC. One of the clubs is 17km to the east of RFC.
The shortest distance between BFC and VFC is at most 29km.
359. What is the shortest distance between the seventh ranked club and the club to the north of DFC?
(a) 27km (b) 28km (c) 29km
(d) 25km (e) 23km
360. How many teams are to the southeast of the 5thranked team, rank higher than NFC?
(a) Five (b) Four (c) Three
(d) Two (e) None

Directions (361-364): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight people viz. L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S went to market to buy different types of garments viz.
Blazer, Jacket, Jumpsuit, Jeans, Kurta, Shawl, Shirt and Sweater. Everyone bought their garments
in different slots of one hour each. There is no gap between two consecutive slots and the first
slot starts at 11.00 AM.
L bought a jacket. Q went before the one who bought a kurta but not in the first slot. Q neither
bought after L. The one who bought a sweater went immediately after R. M went immediately
before S and neither of them went in the last slot. Four people went to the market between R and
O. Two people went to the market between Q and N. Four people went to the market between the
one who bought a jumpsuit and the one who bought jeans. O's slot ended before 2.00 PM.
Jumpsuit was bought immediately before sweater. Shawl was bought immediately after jeans.
Three people went to the market between the one who bought a sweater and the one who bought
a kurta. Shirt was bought immediately after a blazer.

230
361. Select the correct combination.
(a) L - Sweater (b) O - Kurta (c) R - Shirt
(d) M - Shawl (e) S - Blazer
362. Who bought a garment in the second slot ?
(a) Q (b) L (c) P
(d) N (e) R
363. How many people bought a garment between R and L ?
(a) 6 (b) 1 (c) 4
(d) 2 (e) 5
3634. Shawl was bought immediately before ________ was bought.
(a) Sweater (b) Jacket (c) Blazer
(d) Kurta (e) Shirt
Directions (365-369): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
There are four buildings, A, B, C and D with different number of floors among 2, 3, 4 and 5 not
necessarily in the same order. Each of these buildings is placed from west to east such that D is east
of C, which is east of B and A is west of B. Some persons living on different floors of these buildings
belong to different places. The dimensions of each floors is same. The bottommost floor is floor 1 and
the floor above it is floor 2 and so on.
Note: If X lives in the north-west of Y, then X lives above the floor, which is exactly in the west of Y. If
one person lives between X and Y, then all of them must live in the same building until and unless
stated otherwise. If a person lives one/two/three floors above/below the other person then they
must live in the same building.
U lives two floors above P in building B. T lives to the south east of P. U doesn’t live on 2 nd topmost
floor of any building. Person from Pune, lives to the north east of T but not on even numbered floor.
R lives on the topmost floor of one of the building and immediately above S. S lives to the north east
of the person from Raipur, who lives on the topmost floor. Q lives to the north west of the person
from Raipur. Person from Mumbai lives below Q in the same building. Neither K nor T is from Raipur.
K lives to the south east of the person from Mumbai but not in building D. V lives two floors above
the person from Bhopal, who doesn’t live anywhere to the east of T. K doesn’t belong to Bhopal. W
doesn’t belong to Raipur but lives to the north east of K.
365. Who among the following doesn’t live to the north west of W?
I. Q
II. P
III. S
(a) Only I and II (b) Only III (c) Only I and III
(d) Only II (e) Only I
366. Who lives immediately below the person from Pune in the same building?
(a) Person from Raipur (b) Person from Mumbai
(c) Person from Bhopal (d) W
(e) Unknown person

231
367. Who among the following doesn’t live on odd numbered floor (in any of the buildings)?
I. W
II. K
III. V
(a) Only II and III (b) Only III (c) Only II
(d) Only I and III (e) All I, II and III
368. ___ lives on floor 2 of building __.
(a) Person from Mumbai, D (b) Person from Bhopal, B
(c) Person from Raipur, A (d) P, B
(e) W, C
369. What is the direction of the person from Mumbai with respect to the one, who is from Raipur?
(a) North west (b) West (c) South west
(d) South (e) None of the above
Directions (370-373): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight shelves are stacked one above another such that each shelf has a different item. The
minimum quantity of an item in a shelf is 4 while the maximum quantity of an item is 15. The
items which start with the letter 'b' are kept only on shelves which have odd number of sh elves
below them.
Postcards are kept below bags but not immediately. The number of bags is half the number of
masks. Masks are kept immediately below the shelf which has 9 things. The number of clips is 3
more than the number of cups. There are four shelves in between cups and books such that cups
are kept below books. The sum of the number of clips and postcards is 27. The number of vases
is 4 more than the number of masks. There is one shelf in between the masks and vases. Two
shelves are in between the vases and the books. 8 things are kept on the shelf immediately above
the lowermost shelf. The number of toys is one less than the number of books. Clips are kept
immediately below the toys. The number of items on the shelf immediately below the vases is
equal to the number of vases.
370. If the number of cups is 4 more than the number of masks, then what is the number of
postcards?
(a) 14 (b) 10 (c) 8
(d) 12 (e) 9
371. The shelf immediately below the cups has twice the number of bags. What is the number of
things on the shelf immediately above the cups?
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 8
(d) 11 (e) 13
372. The sum of the number of things on all the shelves below the cups is 21. The number of
masks is _____.
(a) 7 (b) 12 (c) 8
(d) 9 (e) 10

232
373. Which of the following items is kept immediately below the postcards?
(a) Toys (b) Cups (c) Clips
(d) Bags (e) Masks

Directions (374-377): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight cricket players S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z score different runs in a match. Each of them is standing
in the ground such that the highest scorer is 8m south of Z, who is the only person to the north west
of V.
At least five players score more than V. S is 9m south of V. Number of players, who score more than
S is equal to the number of players, who score less than V. Three players score more than Y, who is
7m north of W. The person, who is 10m west of W, is somewhere to the south west of S and scores
more than Y. Neither U nor X is to the west of W. U doesn’t score less than T. X is 4m north of U.
X and V are horizontally inline and distance between them is 7m. Person, who is north of X, scores
the lowest run. Person, who is nearest to Z, scores less than W. Exactly two players don’t score less
than X.
Distance between S and one of the players, who scores less than S, is 4m.
374. What is the direction of the lowest scorer with respect to the 2nd highest scorer?
(a) North east (b) South west (c) North
(d) North west (e) None of the above
375. Assume that T moves 2m towards east, now what is the shortest distance between T and
3rd lowest scorer?
(a) 18m (b) 20m (c) 25m
(d) 17m (e) None of the above
376. How many players score more than the one, who is to the extreme north?
(a) Six (b) Four (c) Five
(d) Seven (e) None of the above
17. The player, who is nearest to S scores more than ___ players.
(a) Four (b) Two (c) Six
(d) Five (e) None of the above

Directions (378-381): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight persons are standing in two parallel rows having five seats in each row. P, Q and R are
standing in row 1 and facing south while A, B, C, D and E are standing in row 2 and facing north,
but not necessarily in the same order. They all are part of the MNC firm with the designations
MD, CEO, CFO, CTO, PO, SM, PM and DM. MD is considered as the seniormost and DM is juniormost
rank in the hierarchy.
The seats at the extremes are not vacant. E stands immediate to the left of B, who faces SM. Only
D and E are junior to SM. C stands third to the left of D. Neither A nor D faces P. Four persons are
senior to P but junior to R. One person stands between MD and CFO. The person who stands
second to the right of PO faces CFO. A is neither senior than Q nor a neighbour of PM.

233
378. How many person(s) is/are senior than the person who stand at the extreme left end of
row 2?
(a) Two (b) More than five (c) Three
(d) One (e) Cannot be determined
379. Who among the following faces the person who works as DM in the MNC firm?
(a) R (b) Either P or R (c) Q
(d) Either P or Q (e) None
380. Who among the following are senior than B but junior to the person who faces C?
I. A and C
II. Q and the person who is CTO
III. The persons who works as CEO, CFO and CTO
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only III
(d) Both I and III (e) All I, II and III
381. How many persons are standing towards the right of A?
(a) Either two or three
(b) Either one or three
(c) Equal to the number of persons between C and D
(d) None
(e) Four

Directions (382-385): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Nine persons J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R sit in a straight row. Some of them face north while others
face south but not more than two adjacent persons face same direction. Each of them was born on
12th of different months in same year such that none of them was born after September. No two
persons with names starting with consecutive alphabets are adjacent to each other.
B@3A means B sits 3rd to the left of A.
!A means A faces north and ~!A means A doesn’t face north.
M@4O, ~!O, !N, R@3Q
Person, who was born in August, sits 2nd to the right of O. Only one person sits to the left of L, who
faces north. R was born in March. Q sits adjacent to the person, who was born in August. Person, who
was born in May, sits adjacent to R and faces south. N was not born in February. K sits 2nd to the right
of P, who was born in June. J sits adjacent to the person, who was born in July. M was born in a month,
which consists of 31 days. Neither N nor Q was born in September. J doesn’t sit at extreme end.
382. Who sits 3rd to the left of the eldest person?
(a) R (b) J (c) O
(d) L (e) None of the above
383. What is the position of P with respect to the youngest person?
(a) 3rd to the left (b) 2nd to the right (c) 4th to the right
(d) 3rd to the right (e) None of the above

234
384. How many persons sit between R and the person, who was born in April?
(a) Three (b) One (c) Four
(d) Five (e) None of the above
385. Which among the following statements is/are true?
(a) Person, who was born in July, faces north
(b) R sits adjacent to the 2nd eldest person
(c) L sits adjacent to the person, who was born in April
(d) Four persons sit between Q and J.
(e) None of the above statements is true

Directions (386-390): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Ten persons, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J went to a Mall for celebrating F’s birthday, for dinner they
booked a table for ten persons in Mabruk Restaurant. Each of them is sitting around a circular table.
Some of them are facing the centre and others are facing away from the centre. Each of them has
different number of coupons from 1 to 10.
After dinner they bought 10 tickets of a comedy show event. Their seats were allotted in such a
manner as the one who has 1 coupon is sitting at 1 and who has 2 coupons is sitting at 2 and so on.
They were sitting in two parallel rows as shown in the given figure. All of them are facing the north.

Before rearrangement: A is sitting 3rd to the left of J and both of them are facing the same direction.
F is sitting 3rd to the left of A. Person, who has highest number of coupons, is sitting immediately right
of F, who has 7 coupons. Immediate neighbours of A are facing the opposite direction of A, who has
fewer coupons than J. Two persons are sitting between G and the person, who has 10 coupons. G is
not facing the centre and doesn’t sit adjacent to J. H, who has least number of coupons, is sitting 2nd to
the left of G. Both E and B are sitting immediate left of each other. E has thrice the number of coupons
that B has. One of the immediate neighbours of J has 5 coupons. C has twice of number of coupons
than B. I has more coupons than D. G has one coupon less than I, who is facing the same direction as
H. Both D and C are facing the opposite direction of I.
386. Who is sitting opposite to A at the comedy show event?
(a) J (b) F (c) E
(d) B (e) None of the above
387. What is the average of the number of coupons of A, I and D?
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 6
(d) 4 (e) None of the above

235
388. How many persons are sitting between C and E, when counted from the left of C (at Mabruk)?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5
(d) 6 (e) Cannot be determined
389. Find the odd one out.
(a) I (b) E (c) F
(d) H (e) D
390. How many persons are sitting between H and B if B doesn’t face towards the centre(at dinner)?
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4
(d) 3 (e) None of the above

Directions (391-394): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven employees P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are working in a company, where the different designations
in descending order are CEO, Director, D. Director, GM, AGM, Manager and Clerk. Each of them
likes different colors i. (e). Blue, Brown, White, Pink, Black, Grey and Green, but not
necessarily in the same order.
R is junior to the one who works as AGM in the organization. The one who likes White color is
senior to the one who works as D. Director in the company. The number of people junior to R is
same as the number of people senior to S. Three people are senior to the one who likes green
color. U likes Grey color. Q works as CEO in the organization. The one who likes Blue color is
senior to the one who likes pink color. P likes Green color. S likes White color. U is senior to P. V,
who likes black color, is senior to T, who likes brown color.
391. Which color is liked by the one who works as AGM in the company?
(a) Blue color (b) Black color (c) Green color
(d) Pink color (e) Brown color
392. Who among the following is Senior to S?
(a) The one who is CEO of the company. (b) P (c) T
(d) The one who is Manager of the company (e) None of the above
393. How many People are junior to the one who likes Grey color?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two
(d) Three (e) More than Three
394. The number of people senior to U is same as the number of people junior to ____?
(a) Q (b) P (c) T
(d) V (e) None of the above

Directions (395-398): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight batsmen namely, Karan, Varun, Manoj, Deepak, Surya, Rohit, Rahul and Jay, played two matches
match-1 and match-2. They scored different number of runs 10, 14, 23, 32, 36, 41, 50 and 59 in
match-1, and scored different number of runs 12, 17, 23, 30, 41, 47, 52 and 53 in match-2, but not
necessarily in the same order.
Sum of the number of runs scored by Rahul is 100. Jay scored 9 runs more than Deepak in match-1.
Rohit, who scored second highest number of runs in match-2, scored 4 runs more than Karan in
match-1. Deepak scored 7 runs more than Jay in match-2. Only one player scored total number of

236
runs (in match-1 and match-2) between 80 and 86 runs. Sum of the number of runs (in match-1 and
match-2) scored by Varun in two matches is lowest, but he is not the lowest scorer in any of the two
matches. Surya, who was the lowest scorer in match-2, scored more runs than Manoj in match-1.
Sum of the number of runs of lowest scorer (total runs in match-1 and match-2) and second highest
scorer (total runs in match-1 and match-2) is at least 124.
395. What is the difference between the total score (in match-1 and match-2) of the second highest
scorer of match-1 and second lowest scorer of match-2?
(a) 25 (b) 33 (c) 37
(d) 46 (e) None of the above
396. What is the sum of the total score (in match-1 and match-2) of all the batsmen, who scored
even number of run-in match-2?
(a) 185 (b) 177 (c) 183
(d) 142 (e) None of the above
397. What is the total score (in match-1 and match-2) of the batsman, who scored fourth highest
number of runs in match-1?
(a) 88 (b) 83 (c) 48
(d) 54 (e) None of the above
398. How many batsmen scored even number of runs in both the matches?
(a) No one (b) One (c) Two
(d) Either option ‘a’ or option ‘b’ (e) Cannot be determined

Directions (399-400): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Ten persons live in a five-storey building. The bottommost floor is numbered as 1 while the
topmost floor is numbered as 5. Each floor has two flats- Flat Y and Flat Z. Flat Y is towards the
west of Flat Z. The flat Y of floor 2 is immediately above the flat Y of floor 1, and the flat Z o f floor
2 is immediately above the flat Z of floor 1 and so on.
Either the names or the hobbies of the persons are known. Madhuri lives on an odd -numbered
floor with a person who likes Badminton. The person who likes Polo lives in Flat Y on floor 4, but
neither below the floor of Madhuri nor above Alia. Nupoor and Jaya live above the person who
likes Badminton, but on the same floor. Only two persons live between the floors of Madhuri and
Jaya. One of the people likes Hockey. Tara lives immediately above Jaya in the same flat. Four
persons live between Alia and Rekha, both live in the same flat. The person who likes Tennis lives
to the west of Rekha but not in the same flat as Madhuri.
399. Who among the following shares the floor with Alia?
(a) The person who likes Polo
(b) The person who likes Hockey
(c) Tara
(d) The person who lives immediately above Nupoor's flat
(e) None of these
400. The information about the hobbies of how many persons living in Flat Z is given?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) Either 2 or 3 (e) None

237
Solutions
Solutions (1-5):
Year Month Author Book Code number
2018 January E Mile 38
June B Love 17
August H Omega 35
November A Search 37
2019 January D Night 39
June G Queen 22
August C Rocket 38
November F Palace 34

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d)


Solutions (6-10):
January 6th Astronomy

March 18th History

May 2nd History

July 10th History

August 28th History

October 14th History

December 7th Astronomy


6. (c) 7. (e) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c)
Solutions (11-15):
Floor Flat X Flat Y

6 F French I Spanish

5 D Italian G German

4 Vacant B Turkish

3 H Arabic J Russian

2 C African Vacant

1 A Korean E Japanese
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d)

238
Solutions (16-20):

16. (e) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
Solutions (21-25):

21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (e) 24. (c) 25. (b)
Solutions (26-30):
E(Bhopal) D(Mumbai) B(Shimla) G (Agra) F(Ranchi) C(Pune) A(Delhi)
T (Agra) R(Ranchi/Delhi) U(Bhopal) P(Pune) S(Shimla) V(Delhi/Ranchi) Q(Mumbai)
26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (b)
Solutions (31-34):

239
Slot Person Card number
8 Jill 24
7 Tim 13
6 Jon 21
5 Sam 17
4 Ria 18
3 Hank 19
2 Lana 27
1 Neha 31

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c)


Solutions (35-39):

35. (e) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (e) 39. (d)
Solutions (40-44):

40. (a) 41. (d) 42. (e) 43. (e) 44. (e)
Solutions (45-48):
Floor number Lift A Lift B
21 Stop -----
20 ----- Stop
19 Stop -----
18 Stop -----
17 ----- -----
16 ----- Stop
15 Stop -----
14 ----- -----

240
13 ----- Stop
12 ----- Stop
11 Stop -----
10 ----- -----
9 ----- -----
8 Stop -----
7 ----- Stop
6 Stop -----
5 ----- Stop
4 Stop -----
3 Stop -----
2 ----- Stop
1 ----- -----
Ground
45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (e) 48. (b)
Solutions (49-52):
Months Person City
March J Pune
April W Chennai
May D Pune
June N Mumbai
July Q Kolkata
August G Delhi
September Z Chennai
October S Kolkata
November L Mumbai
December A Delhi

49. (d) 50. (e) 51. (a) 52. (c)


Solutions (53-55):
Number Letter
47 O
43 M
41 E
37 U
31 K
29 D
23 A
19 N
17 I
13 P

241
53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (a)
Solutions (56-60):
Goals Forward Goal Keeper
1 F C
2 A B
3 D A
4 G D
5 C E
6 E F
7 B G
56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (c)
Solution (61-65):

61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (e) 65. (b)
Solution (66-70):

66. (c) 67. (e) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (c)
Solution (71-75):

71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (e) 74. (a) 75. (d)

242
Solution (76-80):
Years →
2018 2019 2020 2021 2022
↓ Companies
Intel Mridul Srijan Mohit Rajat Harsh
Amazon Srijan Harsh Mridul Mohit Rajat
Flipkart Mohit Rajat Harsh Mridul Srijan
Samsung Rajat Mohit Srijan Harsh Mridul
Google Harsh Mridul Rajat Srijan Mohit

76. (e) 77. (c) 78. (e) 79. (b)


Solution (81-85):
Classes Fruits Persons
Class 1 Peach E
Class 2 Pear T
Class 3 Mango N
Class 4 Cherry G
Class 5 Papaya R
Class 6 Kiwi K
Class 7 Melon S
Class 8 Grapes Q
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (d) 85. (e)

Solution (86-90):
Days Name Year Age
Monday D 1989 33
Tuesday E 1997 25
Wednesday A 1995 27
Thursday G 1981 41
Friday C 1969 53
Saturday F 1951 71
Sunday B 1971 51
86. (e) 87. (a) 88. (e) 89. (b) 90. (d)
Solution (91-95):
Floor No. Building Building
1 2
6 R O
5 U N
4 V Y
3 W P
2 Z Q
1 M X
91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (d) 94. (b) 95. (d)

243
Solution (96-100):
Days Month Date Person Journals
31 January 13th B2 3
21st I9 2/4
28th E5 4
28 February 13th F6 2
21st C3 3
28th G7 4
31 March 13th A1 1
21st D4 1
28th H8 1/2
96. (e) 97. (b) 98. (c) 99. (b) 100.(e)
Solution (101-105):
Floors Flat 1 Flat 2 Flat 3 Flat 4

3 E D C --

2 B -- F G

1 -- A -- H
101.(a) 102.(b) 103.(d) 104. (a) 105.(d)

Solution (106-110):

106.(d) 107.(c) 108.(c) 109. (d) 110.(d)

Solution (111-115):

244
111.(d) 112.(b) 113.(e) 114. (c) 115.(c)
Solution (116-120):

116.(e) 117.(a) 118.(e) 119. (c) 120.(b)


Solution (121-125):

121.(b) 122.(d) 123.(b) 124. (e) 125.(c)


Solutions (126-130):

126.(c) 127.(e) 128.(b) 129. (a) 130.(c)


Solutions (131-135):

131.(c) 132.(a) 133.(d) 134. (a) 135.(d)

245
Solutions (136-140):
Floor/ 1 2 3
Flat
4 F I C
3 J A G
2 B E D
1 L H K
136.(d) 137.(c) 138.(b) 139. (d) 140.(e)
Solutions (141-145):
Month Person District
January Q Erode
February T Nagercoil
March P Coimbatore
April U Vellore
May S Salem/Tirupur
June R Salem/Tirupur
July W Madurai
August V Theni
141.(e) 142.(c) 143.(b) 144. (a) 145.(b
Solutions (146-150):
Row 4 C O I J
Row 3 L D A G
Row 2 F M K E
Row 1 P B H N

146.(a) 147.(b) 148.(e) 149. (e) 150.(b)


Solutions (151-155):
Floors Cabins
7 -

6 D (CEO), F (CFO)

5 C (AO)
4 A (GM)
3 -

2 G (HR), E (Clerk)

1 B (Receptionist)
151.(c) 152.(b) 153.(a) 154. (c) 155.(e)

246
Solutions (156-160):
Books
Physics
English, Accountancy
Assamese,
Economics
History
Chemistry
Hindi, Maths
Polity
156.(e) 157.(d) 158.(b) 159. (a) 160.(e)
Solutions (161-165):
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4
1234567890 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0

BF HCDAE GC H D A B E H C D A F G E B F G C H B E D A F G B F E C D A H G
161.(a) 162.(b) 163.(d) 164. (a) 165.(b)
Solutions (166-170):

166.(d) 167.(c) 168.(a) 169. (b) 170.(e)


Solutions (171-175):
Arrangement 1:

Arrangement 2:

Arrangement 3:

171.(c) 172.(a) 173.(c) 174. (c)

247
Solutions (176-180):

176.(d) 177.(e) 178.(a) 179. (c) 180.(b)


Solutions (181-185):
Floor Person Designation

6 K CFO

5 M President

4 J GM

3 N DGM

2 L CEO

1 O Clerk
181.(a) 182.(d) 183.(e) 184. (d) 185.(b)
Solutions (186-190):
Shelves

D(27)

V(15)

J(11)

R(32)

B(21)

F(30)

H(6)

A(28)
186.(d) 187.(b) 188.(c) 189. (d) 190.(b)

248
Solutions (191-195):
Month Person Designation

May O Receptionist

Jun L Tour Agent

Jul K Tour Guide

Aug P Tour Operator

Sep N CA

Oct R PRM

Nov M EO

Dec Q AC
191.(d) 192.(b) 193.(e) 194. (a) 195.(c)
Solutions (196-200):

196.(e) 197.(b) 198.(d) 199. (e) 200.(a)


Solutions (201-205):

249
201.(b) 202.(b) 203.(e) 204. (a) 205.(c)
Solutions (206-209):

206.(c) 207.(d) 208.(c) 209. (c) 210.(a)


Solutions (211-215):
Position Box Bottles
9 S 66
8 D 42
7 M 51
6 V 15
5 Z 79
4 G 36
3 A 60
2 P 23
1 K 9
211.(c) 212.(e) 213.(a) 214. (b) 215.(d)
Solutions (216-220):
Designation Person Bitcoins
GM A 38
MD F 17
DGM C 15
CA H 43
SM D 23
Manager G 26
AM B 28
PO I 21
Clerk E 10
216.(b) 217.(e) 218.(c) 219. (d) 220.(c)

250
Solutions (221-224):
Birth Year Age Person Belongs To

2000 18 A Punjab

1998 20 B Mumbai

1994 24 F Bangalore

1989 29 C Delhi/Kolkata

1988 30 E Goa

1982 36 D Pune

1975 43 G Kolkata/Delhi
221.(a) 222.(e) 223.(b) 224. (e)
Solutions (225-229):

225.(d) 226.(d) 227.(a) 228. (a) 229.(c)


Solutions (230-233):

230.(d) 231.(c) 232.(b) 233. (e)


Solutions (234-237):
Person Sri Dona Rita Sanu Mika Brad Anup

251
234.(c) 235.(d) 236.(b) 237. (b)
Solutions (238-240):
DAYS NAMES

MONDAY Heena

TUESDAY Reshma, Tina

WEDNESDAY Shusma, Karishma

THURSDAY Meena

FRIDAY Sheena

SATURDAY Reena, Chetana

SUNDAY Hema
238.(d) 239.(a) 240.(c)
Solutions (241-245):

241.(e) 242.(b) 243.(e) 244. (c) 245.(e)


Solutions (246-250):

246.(a) 247.(c) 248.(e) 249. (c) 250.(d)

252
Solutions (251-255):

251.(b) 252.(e) 253.(c) 254. (c) 255.(e)


Solutions (256-259):
Floor Person Day
11 Ross Saturday
10 Cia Wednesday
9 Ram Thursday
8 Joe -x-
7 Abby Monday
6 Ria/Abhi -x-
5 Tom Sunday
4 Ravi Friday
3 Raj -x-
2 Abhay Tuesday
1 Abhi/Ria -x-
256.(a) 257.(d) 258.(c) 259. (b)
Solutions (260-263):
MONTH NAME COLOUR
8th January(31) E White
15th January(31) D Black
22nd January(31) F Pink
8th July(31) C Red
15th July(31) B Yellow
22nd July(31) G Violet
8th November(30) H Blue
15th November(30) I Green
22nd November(30) A Brown
260.(d) 261.(c) 262.(a) 263. (c)

253
Solutions (264-267):
DESIGNATION NAME WAREHOUSE
OC V Lucknow
OS U Nasik
PM T Dehradun
OM R Haridwar
PE Q Siliguri
OE-1 W Nagpur
OA P Kanpur
OE S Bhilai
264.(e) 265.(d) 266.(c) 267. (e)
Solutions (268-270):
Floor Flat 1 Flat 2

4 E J K L

3 O F C B

2 P N A D

1 I M H G
268.(a) 269.(e) 270.(c)
Solutions (271-275):
Number of subscribers Youtuber YouTube Channel Country
2 Ami Q Russia
5 Kim P Japan
6.5 Rim V Kenya
8 Jon S China
9.5 Tom R Canada
12 Sam U Spain
15 Rik T Italy
271.(c) 272.(c) 273.(b) 274. (c) 275.(b)
Solutions (276-279):
Designation Persons IB PSI CGL CHSL
Commissioner A Y N Y N
AC E N Y N Y
JC B Y N Y N
DC D Y N N Y
ASC F Y N N Y
CAO C Y N N Y
AD G Y Y N N
276.(a) 277.(b) 278.(c) 279. (a)

254
Solutions (280-284):
Flight City Take of time (in AM) Travel time (in minutes) Landing time (In AM)
Q Mumbai 5:00 120 7:00
P Kolkata 5:30 90 7:00
S Pune 6:30 15 6:45
V Varanasi 7:15 45 8:00
R Lucknow 7:30 75 8:45
T Patna 8:00 60 9:00
U Jaipur 8:45 30 9:15
280.(e) 281.(e) 282.(a) 283. (d) 284.(a)
Solutions (285-289):

285.(a) 286.(e) 287.(b) 288. (c) 289.(d)


Solutions (290-293):

290.(c) 291.(a) 292.(b) 293. (a)


Solutions (294-297):

294.(b) 295.(c) 296.(e) 297. (a)

255
Solutions (298-300):
Dog V P S R T U Q
Breed Beagle Pug Labrador Boxer Bulldog Poodle Collie
298.(c) 299.(e) 300.(c)
Solutions (301-305):
Floors Persons Food Items
8 S Cake
7 R Pepsi
6 P Coke
5 T Pastry
4 V Fanta
3 U Toffee
2 Q Fruits
1 W Juice
301.(b) 302.(d) 303.(b) 304. (d) 305.(d)
Solutions (306-310):

306.(d) 307.(e) 308.(b) 309. (e) 310.(c)


Solutions (311-314):

256
311.(c) 312.(e) 313.(a) 314. (b)
Solutions (315-318):
Box Chocolates

P 4

Q 9

S 8

V 5

R 6

T 7

U 3
315.(e) 316.(d) 317.(b) 318. (a)
Solutions (319-322):
Shelf Number/Stacks Stack A Stack B Stack C
10 V (Yellow) -------- --------
9 N (Cyan) -------- (Orange)
8 K J (Pink) S (Red)
7 U (Blue) T (Violet)
6 Unknown Q O
5 E G Unknown
4 H Unknown L
3 P Unknown Unknown
2 Z (White) Unknown Unknown
1 Unknown M
319.(e) 320.(d) 321.(c) 322. (c)
Solutions (323-326):
Exam People who cleared

RRB Clerk D, G, J, M

RRB PO B, L, N

SBI PO K, A

SBI Clerk F, H

IBPS PO C

IBPS Clerk E, I
323.(b) 324.(c) 325.(d) 326. (d)

257
Solutions (327-330):
Days/Employees Anita Roma Rishi
Sunday Own Project Company Work Own Project
Monday Company Work Company Work Company Work
Tuesday Own Project Own Project Company Work
Wednesday Company Work Company Work Own Project
Thursday Own Project Own Project Company Work
Friday Company Work Company Work Own Project
Saturday Company Work Own Project Company Work
327.(e) 328.(e) 329.(e) 330. (a)
Solutions (331-335):
Year Age Club Name Theme Movie

1932 90 N Memory RST

1947 75 M Elite BJK/HYT

1954 68 G Emotion HYT/BJK

1963 59 J Vibes PSY

1972 50 K Twister NVK

1975 47 H Destiny FQZ

1978 44 L Thrill WRF

1988 34 I Unity JSD


331.(e) 332.(c) 333.(d) 334. (d) 335.(c)
Solutions (336-340):
Floor Person Birthyear

8 Hop 1926

7 Emi 1916

6 Ale 1933

5 Sam 1923

4 Jeh 1931

3 Leo 1930

2 Bob 1911

1 Dan 1910
336.(c) 337.(b) 338.(e) 339. (a) 340.(d)

258
Solutions (341-344):
Floor Spot 1 Spot 2
8
7 D G
6 [A4] A [K10]
5 K
4 [Verna] M
3 B [Tiago] [Kwid]
2 [i10]/ /C [i10]
1 L/ /L
341.(d) 342.(b) 343.(c) 344. (b)
Solutions (345-349):

345.(b) 346.(d) 347.(e) 348. (a) 349.(e)


Solutions (350-354):

350.(e) 351.(d) 352.(a) 353. (d) 354.(b)


Solutions (355-358):

355.(c) 356.(a) 357.(d) 358. (a)

259
Solutions (359-360):
Rank Club Points
1 BFC 40
2 AFC 38
3 TFC 36
4 RFC 32
5 DFC 28
6 NFC 26
7 VFC 24
8 GFC 20

359.(c) 360.(d)
Solutions (361-364):
Slot Name Garment
11.00 AM - 12.00 PM O Jeans
12.00 PM - 1.00 PM Q Shawl
1.00 PM - 2.00 PM M Kurta
2.00 PM - 3.00 PM S Blazer
3.00 PM - 4.00 PM N Shirt
4.00 PM - 5.00 PM R Jumpsuit
5.00 PM - 6.00 PM P Sweater
6.00 PM - 7.00 PM L Jacket
361.(e) 362.(a) 363.(b) 364. (d)
Solutions (365-369):
A(3) B(5) C(2) D(4)
-------- U -------- --------
-------- V -------- R
Q P -------- S(Pune)
(Mumbai) (Bhopal) (Raipur) W
Unknown K T Unknown
365.(b) 366.(d) 367.(d) 368. (b) 369.(b)

260
Solutions (370-373):
Item Qty
Books 9
Masks n-4
Bags (n - 4)/2
Vases n
Post cards n
Cups 24 - n
Toys 8
Clips 27 - n
370.(d) 371.(a) 372.(e) 373. (b)
Solutions (374-377):

Ranking: U > T > S > Y > W > V > X > Z


374.(a) 375.(b) 376.(d) 377. (a)
Solutions (378-381):

378.(d) 379.(e) 380.(e) 381. (d)


Solutions (382-385):
North North South South North North/South South North South
N L Q O J R K M P
April August February July September March May January June

261
382.(b) 383.(c) 384.(c) 385. (c)
Solutions (386-390):

386.(a) 387.(c) 388.(e) 389. (c) 390.(a)


Solutions (391-394):
Designation Employee Color
CEO Q Blue
Director S White
D.Director U Grey
GM P Green
AGM V Black
Manager R Pink
Clerk T Brown
391.(b) 392.(a) 393.(e) 394. (d)
Solutions (395-398):
Batsmen Runs in match-1 Runs in match-2 Total runs
Karan 10 47 57
Rohit 14 52 66
Varun 23 17 40
Manoj 32 53 85
Surya 36 12 48
Deepak 41 30 71
Jay 50 23 73
Rahul 59 41 100
395.(b) 396.(a) 397.(c) 398. (c)

262
Solutions (399-400):
Flat Y Flat Z
Floor 5 Hockey Alia
Floor 4 Polo Tara
Floor 3 Nupoor Jaya
Floor 2 Tennis Rekha
Floor 1 Badminton Madhuri
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263
CHAPTER - 11 MISCELLANEOUS (MAINS)

Directions (1-4): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges them following a
particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 45 89 71 16 20 22 23 84 62 14 24
Step 1: 54 98 17 61 02 22 32 48 26 41 42
Step 2: 54 17 61 02 98 22 26 32 48 41 42
Step 3: 54 17 02 61 98 22 26 32 48 41 42
Step 4: 17 02 54 61 98 22 26 32 41 48 42
Step 5: 02 17 54 61 98 22 26 32 41 42 48
Step 5 is the final output.
Study the given arrangement and answer the following questions based on the arrangement.
Input: 21 30 49 57 29 11 37 18 95 72 33
1. What is the sum of all the digits of the numbers present between the numbers which are third
from the both ends in step 3?
(a) 37 (b) 40 (c) 42
(d) 41 (e) 43
2. Which number is fourth to the right of the number which is second to the left of the number '59'
in step 4?
(a) 27 (b) 33 (c) 73
(d) 94 (e) 81
3. If in step 1, all the even numbers are interchanged with their squares and all the odd numbers
are doubled, then what is the sum of the numbers which are smaller than 100?
(a) 150 (b) 160 (c) 148
(d) 146 (e) 156
4. How many numbers are present to the right of '75' in the last step?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8
(d) 9 (e) None of these

Directions (5-8): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges them following a
particular rule in each step. The given is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 684 957 735 407 482 548 747 277
Step I: 36 63 45 33 28 51 36 32
Step II: 648 894 690 374 454 497 711 245
Step III: 244 373 453 496 647 689 710 893

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Step IV: 10 13 12 19 17 23 8 20
Step V: 20 12 10 8 23 19 17 13
As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the given questions the
appropriate step for the input given.
Input: 456 728 731 842 994 986 642 814
5. Which of the following is the 4th number from the left side in step IV?
(a) 19 (b) 16 (c) 22
(d) 12 (e) None of the above
6. Which of the following is the 6th number from the right side in step II?
(a) 698 (b) 814 (c) 950
(d) 917 (e) None of the above
7. What is the sum of the numbers which is 4th from the right side in step III and 3rd number from
the left side in step IV?
(a) None of the given as options (b) 810 (c) 799
(d) 608 (e) 793
8. What is the product of the number which is 2nd from the left in step IV and the number which is
3rd from the right side of step V?
(a) 144 (b) 168 (c) 156
(d) 132 (e) None of the above

Directions (9-11): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges them following a
particular pattern in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement.
Input: 3675 1984 7732 2765 6954 8197 3425 6734 1993 8764
Step I: 9841 3675 7732 2765 6954 8197 3425 6734 8764 9931
Step II: 7652 9841 3675 7732 6954 8197 6734 8764 9931 5432
Step III: 7653 7652 9841 7732 6954 8197 8764 9931 5432 7643
Step IV: 9654 7653 7652 9841 8197 8764 9931 5432 7643 7732
Step V: 9871 9654 7653 7652 9841 9931 5432 7643 7732 8764
Step V is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.
As per the pattern followed in the above steps, find the output for the given input:
Input: 4562 5916 4981 6745 4789 2171 6175 2856 8672 5743
9. Which of the following steps has the smallest number?
(a) Step V (b) Step IV (c) Step II
(d) Step I (e) Step III
10. How many numbers are between the highest and lowest numbers in the last step?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) None
(d) 3 (e) Either c or d
11. Which of the following numbers do not appear till step IV?
(a) 8672 (b) 6542 (c) 7543
(d) 9841 (e) 9651

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Directions (12-19): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
The question given below consists of two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to
decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both
the statements and give answer.
(a) Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(b) Data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(c) Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(d) Data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(e) Data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
12. Five persons (L, M, N, O and P) live on different floors of 5-storey building, such that bottommost
floor is numbered as 1, floor above it is numbered as 2 and so on. They belong to different
profession among- Engineer, Doctor, Actor, Teacher and Lawyer, but not necessarily in the same
order. What is the profession of O and lives on which floor of the building?
Statement I: P and M, who is Engineer, lives on even numbered floor. There are two floors
between the floor of M and the floor of N, who is a Lawyer. Actor lives on the floor, which is
immediately above the floor of N. L lives on the floor, which is above the floor of Teacher.
Statement II: L, who is Doctor, lives on the top floor. P, who is an Actor, lives below the floor of M
but above the floor of N, who is a Lawyer. O doesn't lives on the even number floor.
13. Are D > K and A < N definitely true?
Statement I: O ≥ K ≥ B< N > P; K < M; D ≥ A; M > D; P > M
Statement II: O = Q < D < S = M; K ≤ Q; A < T; B ≤ P = N; B = T
14. There are five students namely, Ajay, Samar, Rohit, Vijay and Tarun, who scored different marks
in the exam. Who scored maximum marks?
Statement I: Tarun scored less marks than Vijay and Rohit. Samar scored more marks than Ajay
but less marks than Tarun.
Statement II: Samar scored more marks than only Ajay. Tarun scored less marks than only two
students. Rohit scored more marks than at least three students.
15. How many persons are sitting in a row facing north?
Statement I: M sits fourth to left of R and P sits at either end of the row. Number of person sitting
between M and Q is same as Q and R, who sits sixth from right end. Number of person between P
and Q is same as that of M and R.
Statement II: P sits third from either end and is third to left of R. Number of person between P
and R is same as R and Q. S sits immediate left of Q. Only three person sits between S and T. T sits
immediate right of P.
16. Seven cousins - Ansh, Neha, Smita, Bitto, Chandu, Dhruv and Gauri completed graduation one
after another in seven years from 2011 to 2017 such that only one person pass out in one year.
In which year did Chandu complete graduation?

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Statement I: Dhruv completed him just after Ansh, who completed graduation in a leap year.
Three persons completed graduation between Neha and Dhruv.
Statement II: Smita completed graduation after Bitto. Only two persons completed graduation
between Smita and Dhruv. Gauri completed graduation three years before Bitto.
17. In a town Hospital, School, Bank, Market, Medical, College and Ground are at a certain direction
from each other. What is the direction of the College with respect to the Bank?
Statement I: The Ground is to the west of the Market and is to the east of the Bank. Hospital is to
the east of Medical. The School and the College both are to the south of the Ground and the Market
respectively.
Statement II: The Medical is to the north of College. The Bank is to the west of the Market and
Ground is exactly between the both. The Market is to the south of the Medical.
18. If "Mind to win" is coded as "fan tan lan", what will be the code of ''Win'' from the given
statements?
Statement I: "A will to win" is coded as "ban tan ran fan" and "Failure to success" is coded as "ran
tan san".
Statement II: "Quitters never win" is coded as "pan fan wan" and "Dream to success" is coded as
"tan ran van".
19. Seven persons - Q, G, T, S, B, L and D are sitting in a row not necessarily in the same order and
three are facing north while others are facing south. T is sitting in the middle of the row and G is
sitting second to the left of T. Who is sitting immediate right to S?
Statement I: Three persons are sitting between G and S and both of them faces north. P is sitting
immediate right to G and not sitting at any of the corners.
Statement II: Both Q and D are sitting at extreme ends of the row and G sits immediate next to Q.

Directions (20-21): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
The question given below consists of three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have
to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all
the statements and give answer.
20. Six persons M, N, O, P, Q and R live on different floors of a 6-storey building. Two of them like
different colors (Green and Blue). The bottommost floor is numbered 1 and the topmost floor is
numbered 6. How many persons live between M and O?
Statement I: Persons, who like colors, live on prime numbered floor. M lives at least two floors
above O. P likes blue color and lives above O.
Statement II: Q lives three floors above the one, who likes Blue. One person lives between Q and
N. Person, who likes green, lives two floors above P, who lives above 2nd floor.
Statement III: M lives above R, who doesn’t live on even numbered floor. P lives below N but not
on 1st floor.
(a) Data given in only statements I and II are together sufficient to answer.
(b) Data given in only statements II and III are together sufficient to answer.
(c) Data given in only statements I and III are together sufficient to answer.
(d) Data given in all three statements I, II and III are together sufficient to answer.
(e) Data given in all three statements I, II and III together are not sufficient to answer.

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21. Five persons M, N, O, P and Q live on different floors a 5-storey building. The bottommost floor is
numbered as 1, floor above it as 2 and so on. Who among the following lives on 3rd floor?
Statement I: N lives three floors above O, who lives on odd numbered floor. M lives just above Q’s
floor.
Statement II: P lives just above N’s floor. Q lives on 2nd floor. M lives two floors above O’s floor.
Statement III: N doesnot live on topmost floor. Q lives above O’s floor. P does not live adjacent to
M’s floor.
(a) Data given in only statement III is sufficient
(b) Data given in either statement I or II alone is sufficient
(c) Data given in only statement I is sufficient
(d) Data given in both statement I and II together is sufficient
(e) None of the above
22. Many colleges of the Delhi University have imposed regulations that forbid the use in speech or
print of language that “offends” or “insults” the members of any group, especially women and
racial, ethnic, and religious minorities. Though these regulations are defended in the name of
“democracy”, in reality, they restrict freedom of speech and exhibit suppression in a way that
opposes the true spirit of democracy.
The argument above attempts to prove its case primarily by
(a) providing examples that support a theoretical principle
(b) impugning the credentials of an opponent
(c) revealing a contradiction in an opposing point of view
(d) appealing to the patriotic feelings of its audience
(e) taking advantage of inconsistencies in the definition of “democracy”
23. In the question below, a few statements are given depicting an issue or a problem. You have to
assume everything in the statements to be true even if they are at variance from commonly
known facts, and on the basis of the information given in the statements, decide which of the
suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.
Rigid master plans and restrictive zoning regulations limit the land available for building,
constricting cities' abilities to grow in accordance with changing needs.
(a) Land should be made available for all purposes under all circumstances.
(b) Land should only be used for construction.
(c) There is no better alternative to rigid plans and restrictive zoning regulations.
(d) City planning must be done keeping in mind the needs of the growing population and other
demands of the cities to avoid future conflicts.
(e) City planning must not be done at all.
24. The act of buying and selling of stocks of a company by its own corporate officers and directors
for their own portfolios is termed as “insider trading”. Generally, when the ratio of such inside
sales to inside purchases falls below 2 to 1 for a given stock, a rise in stock prices is imminent.
Recently, while the stock price of RIL Industries has been falling, the corporation’s officers and
directors have bought up to ten times as much of it as they have sold.
The facts above best support which of the following predictions?

268
(a) The price of RIL stock will soon begin to go up.
(b) The majority of RIL stock will soon be owned by RIL’s own officers and directors.
(c) Inside purchases of RIL stock are about to cease abruptly.
(d) The price of RIL stock will continue to drop, but less rapidly.
(e) The imbalance between inside purchases and inside sales of RIL stock will grow even further.
25. In the question given below, there are two statements numbered (I) and (II). These statements
may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause.
One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and
decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two
statements.
I. There are more bicycle stands being constructed in every city.
II. Many states have started implementing the rules prescribed by the UNFCC to incorporate
sustainable development strategies to reverse the impact of climate change.
(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.
(b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.
(c) Both statements I and II are independent causes.
(d) Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(e) Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause .
26. The city of Hyderabad is mushroomed with corner shops selling food items. This is strange
owning to the fact that there are many supermarkets in the city which sell food at cheaper prices,
and many of these supermarkets are open 24-hours.
Which of the following, if true, would be of least help in explaining the paradoxical observation?
(a) The supermarkets are mostly located on the outskirts of the city and require residents to use
cars or public transport to reach them.
(b) The supermarkets offer the facility of home delivery
(c) The corner shops are selling specialist food items not available in the supermarkets.
(d) The main business of the local shops is newspaper distribution and food items represent a
small part of their turnover.
(e) The corner shops run on family-owned business format and have been there for much longer
than the supermarkets and are perceived as an important feature of the community.
27. Read the passage below and answer the question that follows.
Simultaneous elections should imply that elections to all the three tiers of constitutional
institutions take place in a synchronized and co-ordinated fashion. What this effectively means is
that a voter casts his vote for electing members for all tiers of the Government on a single day.
Which of the following, if true would weaken the argument that India should adopt simultaneous
elections?
(a) Simultaneous elections are more expensive and elaborate than the ones currently held.
(b) Simultaneous elections promote democracy by providing elaborate choices to the voters.
(c) It will free up the taskforce including the military of the nation.
(d) Simultaneous elections provide additional time for MPs and MLAs to do their actual job.
(e) Simultaneous elections are voter friendly.

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28. The campaign launched by an environment and wildlife conservation activist for protecting
skunks could not generate the desired impact. From her experience, she concluded that even
though the campaign highlighted the vital role the skunks played in the ecology of the region,
people were unenthusiastic about saving skunks as these animals are perceived as unpleasant
creatures with a foul smell. People are not likely to feel passionate about animals with which they
have no positive feelings.
The expert’s opinion would be most strengthened by which of the following observations?
(a) Spiders and bats also need protection in this region as a result of human activity.
(b) The children in the local schools were found to have a greater aversion to skunks than to pigs.
(c) A recent campaign to save pigs achieved a measure of success only after a cartoon pig was
adopted as the mascot of the local basketball team.
(d) The campaign to protect skunks has been in existence for over five years and yet the skunk
population continues to decline.
(e) Ecological conservation is an increasingly important concern in the region.
29. Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.
Currently, India ranks very low in the innovation index. It is by investing in breakthrough ideas
and embracing entrepreneurship as an economic model of growth that India will be able to
unleash the power of innovation to ensure a better life for all its citizens. Research and
innovation, fuelled by technology, will catalyse the kind of non-linear growth that will make the
country one of the world's top three economies and bring it closer to developed nation status by
2047.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above information?
I. People get a better life only by encouraging entrepreneurship.
II. India is not encouraging start-ups and new technology.
III. India might become a top-performing nation through research and innovation.
(a) Both I and II (b) Only II (c) Both I and III
(d) Only III (e) None of the above
30. In the question below, a statement is given below, followed by two assumptions on which the
passage may or may not lie. From the options below, choose the one that reflects the correct
choice of assumptions that follow.
The greatest lesson that she teaches us is to maintain an equilibrium in life. We learn to maintain
composure through our joys, sorrows and fears. In fact, there are a thousand lessons that nature
can teach us, provided we look for them.
I: Nature is like our mother or our first teacher at school.
II: Equilibrium in life destroys the 'survival of the fittest theory' by Darwin.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit. (b) Only assumption II is implicit.
(c) Both assumptions I and II are implicit. (d) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit.
(e) Either assumption I or II is implicit.

Direction (31-35): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
In a certain code,

270
‘patriot warrior safe drive ’ is written as ‘18^I 22?R 18$A 19?R’
‘station circuit act board’ is written as ‘19%C 19?T 18?C 17^A’
‘heat salient flight charge’ is written as ‘14!G 19$A 17!A 19?I’
‘light screen building thinker’ is written as ‘15?N 16!E 13^G 19#D’
31. What is the code for “safe flight station”?
(a) 22?R 14!G 17^A (b) 19?I 19?R 19%C (c) 14!G 18^I 16!E
(d) 18$A 14!G 19?T (e) None of these
32. What is the code for “building”?
(a) 16!E (b) 19#D (c) 14^G
(d) 15?N (e) None of these
33. What is the code for “charge circuit”?
(a) 19?I 17^A (b) 14!G 19%C (c) 19?I 19%C
(d) 14!G 19?T (e) None of these
34. As per the given coding format what can be the possible code for “Ancient History”?
(a) 15^E 16?O (b) 11%I 13*T (c) 19?I 17?T
(d) 12#K 14$D (e) None of these
35. What can be the possible code for “Silent Warrior”?
(a) 19?I 22?R (b) 17^A 18?R (c) 15*E 17&R
(d) 12$L 16@R (e) None of these

Direction (36-38): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
5%Q#8B2MZ4$F@3V&N6ECO7©J=T€9
Step 1: Each letter in given series which is immediately followed by a symbol is written to left of ‘M’
but to right of ‘2’ in reverse alphabetical order from left to right.
Step 2: 1 is added to each such number which immediately followed by an symbol and immediately
preceded by alphabet in new series formed after step 1.
Step 3: Symbol '+' is added to immediate right of each such symbols which are immediately preceded
by a symbol and immediately followed by a number in new series formed after step 2.
Step 3 is the final output of the given string and the steps follows in the given order only.
36. How many symbols are there between 6th element from left end and element which is 3rd to
right of 9th element from right end in final string?
(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 2
(d) 4 (e) 5
37. How many symbols are there in the final step which are immediately preceded by a symbol and
also immediately followed by a symbol?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1
(d) 3 (e) None
38. Which element is 10th to the left of 7th from the right end in step II?
(a) Z (b) F (c) M
(d) 5 (e) J

271
Directions (39-41): In each question, some coded statements are followed by some coded
conclusions. You have to take given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions follow(s) from
the given statements.
A # B means only a few A are B
A @! B means all A can be B
A $ B means no A is B
A *! B means some A can be B
A * B means some A are B
A % B means only A is B
A @ B means all A are B
39. Statements:
Flower*Black
Black$Shoe
Shoe*Rubber
Conclusions:
I. Rubber*Flower
II. Shoe$Flower
(a) Only conclusion I follows (b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both I and II follow (d) Either I or II follows
(e) Neither I nor II follows
40. Statements:
Brick#Sand
Sand*Oil
Oil$Water
Conclusions:
I. Brick*Water
II. Water*!Brick
(a) Only conclusion I follows (b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both I and II follow (d) Either I or II follows
(e) Neither I nor II follows
41. Statements:
Salt@Food
Food*Worm
Worm#Thread
Conclusions:
I. Salt@!Thread
II. Worm@Salt
(a) Only conclusion I follows (b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both I and II follow (d) Either I or II follows
(e) Neither I nor II follows

272
Directions (42-44): In each of the questions given below two conclusions are followed by a
few sets of statements. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the entire conclusion and then decide which
of the given statements logically follows to make these conclusions correct.
42. Conclusions:
Some shakes are not juice
(a) Some tea is juice. No juice is coffee. Some shakes are coffee.
(b) Some shakes are tea. All tea is juice. No juice is coffee.
(c) All tea are juice. No juice is coffee. Some coffee is shake
(d) Some shakes are tea. All tea are juice. No juice is coffee
(e) All coffee is juice. No tea is juice. Some shakes are tea. All coffee being tea is a possibility
43. Conclusions:
Some green are red
All pink being blue is a possibility
(a) All green are pink. No pink is red. All blue are red.
(b) Some red are blue. All blue are green. Some green are pink.
(c) Some blue are red. Some red are blue. Some blue are green
(d) All pink are green. No green is blue. Some blue are red.
(e) Some pink are red. All blue are green. No green is pink.
44. Conclusions:
Some cats are not rat
All frogs being dog is a possibility
(a) Some dogs are cat. No dog is rat. No rat is frog
(b) All dogs are cat. Some rats are dog. No rat is frog
(c) No rats is frog. All dogs are rat. Some frogs are cat
(d) All cat are dog. Some frog are dog. No frog is rat
(e) All cat are dog. All dogs are rat. No frog is rat

Direction (45-47): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
P @ Q (5) means P is 5m North of Q
P $ Q (5) means P is 5m South of Q.
P # Q (5) means P is 5m East of Q.
P © Q (5) means P is 5m West of Q.
A © B (4), B @ C (5), D # C(4), E $ D(3), E # F (8), F @ G (4), H # G (4).
45. Which is the shortest distance between point B and H?
(a) 12m (b) 10m (c) 11m
(d) 9m (e) 13m
46. In which direction is point C with respect to point G?
(a) South (b) South – east (c) South —west
(d) North—East (e) North —West

273
47. In which direction is point D with respect to point H?
(a) South—West (b) North—East (c) South—East
(d) North—West (e) North

Direction (48-52): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
If A + B means A is the father of B
If A × B means A is the sister of B
If A $ B means A is the wife of B
If A % B means A is the mother of B
If A ÷ B means A is the son of B
48. What should come in place of the question mark (?) to establish that J is the brother of T in the
expression?
J÷P%H?T%L
(a) × (b) ÷ (c) $
(d) Either ÷ or × (e) Either + or ÷
49. Which among the given expressions indicate that M is the daughter of D?
(a) L % R $ D + T × M (b) L + R $ D + M × T (c) L % R % D + T ÷ M
(d) D + L $ R + M × T (e) L $ D ÷ R % M ÷ T
50. Which among the following options is true if the expression ‘I + T % J × L ÷ K’ is definitely true?
(a) L is the daughter of T (b) K is the son-in-law of I
(c) I is the grandmother of L (d) T is the father of J
(e) J is the brother of L
51. Which among the following expressions is true if Y is the son of X is definitely false?
(a) W % L × T × Y ÷ X (b) W + L × T × Y ÷ X (c) X + L × T × Y ÷ W
(d) W $ X + L + Y + T (e) W % X + T × Y ÷ L
52. What should come in place of the question mark (?) to establish that T is the sister-in-law of Q in
the expression?
R%T×P?Q+V
(a) ÷ (b) % (c) ×
(d) $ (e) Either $ of ×

Direction (53-54): In the following questions, the symbols are used with the following
meaning as illustrated below:
J # K means ‘J is neither greater than nor equal to K’
J @ K means ‘J is neither smaller than nor equal to K’
J % K means ‘J is not greater than K’
J & K means ‘J is not smaller than K’
J ^ K means ‘J is neither greater nor smaller than K’

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53. Statements: S % N # K ^ E; P @ H % I % L & Q @ K
Conclusions: I. S # L II. Q @ P
(a) Only conclusion II is true (b) Either conclusion I or II is true
(c) Both conclusion I and II is true (d) Only conclusion I is true
(e) None is true
54. Statements: B # H ^ T @ N # L; N % Q @ R % M; F % E ^ G & R
Conclusions: I. Q @ F II. B % R III. T & E
(a) Only conclusion I follows (b) Both conclusions I and II follow
(c) Only conclusion III follows (d) Both conclusions II and II follow
(e) None follows

Directions (55-58): In each of the following questions below is given a group of letters
followed by four combinations of digits/ symbols. You have to find out which of the
combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system
and mark the combination you think is correct as the answer. If none of the four combinations
correctly represents the group of letters, mark ‘None of these’ as the answer.
@ ^ % < ( & ? # $ 3 = £
/
D U Z O E X B M T F L
W
P Y J S C V G R H A N K I
Case I: If any word contains two or more vowel and ends with a consonant, then give the “<” sign to
all the vowel.
Case II: If any word contains 2nd letter as vowel and the 4th letter as consonant, then change the
code of letter with the code of letter next to them in the given table.
Case III: If any word starts with a consonant and ends with a vowel, then the code of both letters will
be as per consonant.
Case IV: If the code is having 2 same signs after applying above steps, then give the “#” sign to the
3rd letter and “/” to the 5th letter.
Note: If more than one case will applicable, then we will apply all the cases in a sequential manner
like Case I will be applied first, followed by Case II, Case III and Case IV.
55. What is the final code for the word “TRIVIA”?
(a) 3& < ? < < (b) # # & / 3 (c) < # & = % ?
(d) 3 $ <? < 3 (e) None of the above
56. What is the final code for the word “YOUTUBE”?
(a) ^ & % = ( & # (b) & ? % = % & ^ (c) ^ & # = / # ^
(d) 3 & % = 3 ? < (e) < ( & = % ? %
57. What is the final code for the word “ZOYSIAS”?
(a) < & # ( / < < < (b) & & / # % & (c) < < ^ ( < < (
(d) < ( ^ & < < ^ (e) None of these

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58. What is the final code for the word “HYPOTHICAL”?
(a) < @ $ ( # & / < ( ? (b) $ ^ @ < 3 = < & < £ (c) < @ @ < ^ ( < < ( %
(d) $ ^ # < / $ < ( < £ (e) ( @ ^ & # = / # ^ ?

Direction (59-60): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions given
below:
"A +(12) B" means "A is 24 m to the northeast of B".
"A $(20) B" means "A is 40 m to the west of B".
"A *(17) B" means "A is 34 m to the east of B".
"A @(15) B" means "A is 30 m to the south of B".
"A %(09) B" means "A is 18 m to the north of B".
Some codes are given below based on which answer the questions that follow.
A $(12) L ; K %(10) N ; J @(2) O ; P %(1) L ; K *(9) P ; J +(18) N ; M @(1) Z ; O $(2) H ; Z +(13) H
59. What is the shortest distance between point J and H?
(a) 10 m (b) 4√2 m (c) 8√2 m
(d) 2√4 m (e) 8 m
60. K is in which direction concerning L?
(a) Northeast (b) Southwest (c) Northwest
(d) Southeast (e) None of these

Directions (61-68): A question and two statements numbered I and II are given below. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question.
61. Six people lives on different floor numbered from 1 to 6. The bottom floor is 1 and so on till 6.
Who lives on the second floor?
I. M lives two floors below N. G lives on an even numbered floor above third floor. H lives
immediately below K, who doesn’t lives on second floor. N lives immediately below G.
II. F lives above R. N lives three floors above G. G lives five floors below H. There is one floor
between N and M.
(a) The data in Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in Statement
2 is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in both the Statements 1 and 2 is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data in Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in Statement
1 is not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Either Statement 1 or Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data in both the Statements 1 and 2 together is necessary to answer the question.
62. The conclusion H ≤ S is definitely followed by which of the following statements?
I. G < E = R, H ≤ Y = E > C, S > C
II. N > W ≥ Q = S, H ≤ C < B = Q

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(a) The data in Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in Statement
2 is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in Statement
1 is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data in both Statements 1 and 2 together is not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Either Statement 1 or Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data in both the Statements 1 and 2 together is necessary to answer the question.
63. Eight people went to Paris on different days of the year. The months in which they went were
May, June, July, and August and the dates were the 16th and 18th of these months. Two people
went between J and B. R went on the same date as F. P was the second person to go. How many
people went between T and R?
Statement I: F went immediately before T but in different months. Three people went between T
and S. N in August.
Statement II: N went immediately after B but in different months. J and S went on the same date
where J went after S.
Read both the statements and mark your answer as:
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
64. Eight persons, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting around a circular table facing the center.
Q sits third to the right of V. U sits third to the right of S, who sits as an immediate neighbor of V.
W and R sit facing each other. Neither W nor R sits adjacent to S. How many people sit between
R and P when counted left of P?
Statement I: Only one person sits between T and P. Neither T nor P sits adjacent to W.
Statement II: T and R sit adjacent to each other.
(a) If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement
II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
65. It is given that 'Some cakes are deserts' and 'No deserts is a biscuit'. Which statement shows
'Some cakes are sweet'?
Statement I: All desserts are sweet.

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Statement II: Some biscuits are salty.
(a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
(c) If the data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) If the data in both statement I and statement II together are sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
66. Six persons - Ali, Dev, Kim, Man, Ria, and Zoe sit around the triangular table. Three persons sit at
the corner of the table facing inside the center, while the rest sit in the middle of the edge facing
outside the center. Who among the following sits the immediate right of Zoe?
Statement I: Two persons sit between Kim and Man. Neither Man nor Kim sits adjacent to Zoe.
Dev sits immediately left of Zoe.
Statement II: Only one person sits between Ria and Dev, who faces inside the center. Kim sits
second to the left of Man. Neither Ali nor Man sits adjacent to Ria. Zoe sits opposite to Ali.
(a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in both statement I and statement II together are sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) If the data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
(e) If the data in the statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in the
statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
67. In a Gym six different workouts viz., Biceps, Leg, Triceps, Shoulders, Arms, and Chest on six
different days of the week starting from Monday. Only one workout is on each day and one of the
days is for the Rest of the workout. Which day is for the Arms workout day?
Statement I: Three days are between Biceps and Chest workouts. Leg day is on the last day of the
week. Shoulder and Biceps days are on consecutive days.
Statement II: Biceps day is just after Triceps day, which is on the fourth day of the week. Rest day
is not on Sunday. Chest day is just before the Rest day.
(a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) If the data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
(e) If the data in both statement I and statement II together are sufficient to answer the question

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68. How many boxes are kept between boxes Q and T in a stack of eight boxes one above the other?
I. Box R is kept second from the bottom. Box P is kept at the top. Box T is not kept adjacent to box
Q. Box S is neither kept adjacent to box Q nor adjacent to box R. Box P and box Q are kept at a
gap of two boxes.
II. Box P is kept at the top. Only three boxes are kept between Q and R, which is kept at the bottom.
Box S is kept just below box Q. Box T is neither kept adjacent to box S nor box R.
(a) If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement
II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Directions (39-40) : The question given below consists of three statements numbered I, II, and
III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give answers.
69. Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, and T score different marks in an entrance exam, but not
necessarily in the same order. How many persons score more marks than P?
Statement I: P scores more marks than N. M score the lowest marks. Two persons score marks
between S and M.
Statement II: T scores the second highest marks. Three persons score marks between T and Q.
Statement III: P scores less marks than T but not the lowest. Two persons score marks between
P and Q.
(a) Only statement I and statement III together are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Only statement II and statement III together are sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Only statement I and statement II together are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) All the statements together are sufficient to answer the question.
(e) None of the statements is sufficient to answer the question.
70. In which direction is point Q with respect to K?
Statement I: Point J is to the west of point K. Point L is to the north of point K. Point M is to the
east of point L.
Statement II: Point N is to the south of point M. Point O is to the east of point N and southeast of
point K. Point P is to the north of point O.
Statement III: Point Q is to the east of point P. Point Q is to the northeast of point O. Point R is to
the north of point Q. Distance between point M and point N is the sum of the distance between
point P, O and the distance between point L, K.
(a) Only statement I and statement III together are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Only statement II and statement III together are sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Only statement I and statement II together are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) None of the statements is sufficient to answer the question.

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(e) All the statements together are sufficient to answer the question.

Directions (71-75): A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of
words/numbers, rearranges them following the rules illustrated below.
INPUT: cloud 54 size 31 roasted 72 wrench 29 85 ate
Step I: uphlaf cloud 54 size 31 roasted 72 85 ate 18
Step II: prdqrhb uphlaf cloud 54 size 72 85 ate 18 20
Step III: ajrxb prdqrhb uphlaf size 72 85 ate 18 20 65
Step IV: qlxh ajrxb prdqrhb uphlaf 85 ate 18 20 65 83
Step V: drh qlxh ajrxb prdqrhb uphlaf 18 20 65 83 74
As per the rules followed above, find out the appropriate steps for given input.
INPUT: 48 yield 53 64 learner 27 rise envelopes 36 spelling
71. ‘yield 53 64 learner rise 16’ occurs in which of the following steps?
(a) Step I (b) Step IV (c) Step III
(d) Step V (e) Step II
72. Which of the following element is 5th to left of ‘47’ in the penultimate step?
(a) wkhjb (b) jhdplhp (c) hlthjrnhq
(d) qnhjjlle (e) None of these
73. How many odd numbers are there between the one which is 3rd from the left end and 59 in step
III?
(a) Four (b) Two (c) Three
(d) One (e) None of these
74. What the position of ‘wlhjb’ w.r.t to ‘59’ in step 5?
(a) 4th to the right (b) 6th to the left (c) 3rd to the left
(d) 6th to the right (e) None of the above
75. What is the sum of the numbers which are perfect square in step I of the given input?
(a) 116 (b) 126 (c) 118
(d) 124 (e) None of these

Directions (76-80): An arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers and words
rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement.
INPUT: tree march absolute complete 57 71 69 18
STEP 1: absolute tree march complete 57 71 69 18
STEP 2: absolute complete tree march 71 69 18 57
STEP 3: absolute complete march tree 71 18 57 69
STEP 4: absolute complete march tree 18 57 69 71
STEP 4 is the last step
OUTPUT: absolute complete march tree 18 57 69 71
As per the rules followed in the above input, work out the steps for the following input:
INPUT: kite normal triangle issue outrage you same 88 21 49 23 14 91 74

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76. Which of the following is the 5th step?
(a) issue kite normal outrage same triangle you 88 91 14 21 23 49 74
(b) outrage kite normal issue same triangle you 91 14 74 23 49 21 88
(c) issue normal kite outrage same you triangle 91 14 21 23 49 88 74
(d) normal kite issue same you triangle outrage 14 21 23 49 74 88 91
(e) normal kite triangle outrage same issue you 14 21 23 49 74 88 91
77. How many elements are there between ‘you’ and ‘23’ in STEP 4?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3
(d) 7 (e) 4
78. How many steps are required to complete the arrangement?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6
(d) 7 (e) 8
79. What is the position of ‘88’ with respect to ‘same’ in the 5th step?
(a) 2nd to the right (b) 3rd to the right (c) 4th to the right
(d) 5th to the right (e) 6th to the right
80. Which of the following is 4th to the left of ‘74’ in the 3rd step?
(a) 21 (b) 23 (c) 14
(d) Same (e) You
81. Directions: Read the following group of statements and choose the best inference which can be
deduced from the argument given below.
After our disastrous socialist years, India finally got its act together in 1991. Since then, every
government has reformed in a slow, stealthy manner, and even slow reforms have added up to
make India the world’s fastest-growing major economy. As a result, almost 500 million people
have crossed the poverty line, and there is a rapidly growing middle class. If India continues to
grow in the next 25 years at the same pace as the last three decades, we can look forward to an
India at 100 where the lives of the vast majority will be at ease.
(a) Definition of the poverty line and middle class are not well specified in the country.
(b) Socialist strategy did not work for India in tandem prior to 1991.
(c) Growth is directly proportional to reforms by the government.
(d) Upper class has no say in the growth story of the country.
(e) None of the above.
82. Directions: In the following question a paragraph is given, followed by five options, each giving a
conclusion which may or may not follow. Choose the one which reflects the conclusion that
follows.
Politics may be amoral and focused on winning by hook or by crook, and secularism is just one
more meaningless term being invested with political significance for electoral gains. Politicians
will learn not to manipulate community sensibilities only when communities themselves engage
with one another and come up with compromises they can both live with.
(a) Secularism is not the high principle its backers claim it is.
(b) Communities should apply critical sense before voting for a political representative or party.
(c) Secular and socialist are terms mainly used to gain short-term political legitimacy.
(d) Secularism carries its own narrow meaning in India.
(e) All political parties manipulate community sensibilities for electoral gains.

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83. Directions: In the question given below, there are two statements (I) and (II). These statements
may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause.
One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both statements and
decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two
statements.
Statement I: Humans now impact 83% of Earth’s land and 66% of its seas while our atmosphere
holds the highest ever CO2 concentrations from fossil fuels.
Statement II: Land based species have declined by 20% while 40% amphibians, 33% corals and
30% marine mammals could be permanently lost.
(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.
(b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.
(c) Both statement I and II are independent causes.
(d) Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(e) Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
84. Directions: A passage is given followed by three statements. Read the following passage and
answer the question that follows.
Co-education is important for social existence. When we expect higher education and
professional decisions to be taken without gender discrimination, having same gender schools
negates our intentions. Gender based education is an act against the Right to Equality.
I. A study conducted by Kerala Sathra Sahithya Parishad around seven years ago claimed that
students in mixed schools study more and are better at social relationships.
II. A government Survey showed that the results of co-ed students were better than those from
same gender schools.
III. Same gender schools fail to impart students with feeling of equality, consideration, healthy
competition.
Which of the above statements strengthen/s the idea that co-education helps students to better
understand equality?
(a) Only I (b) Both II and III (c) Only II
(d) Both I and II (e) Both I and III
85. Directions: In the following question a paragraph is given, followed by five options, each giving a
conclusion which may or may not follow. Choose the one which reflects the conclusion that
follows.
India’s alcohol market is characterized by two features. First, demand for alcohol seems
impervious to economic downturns. Second, alcohol catalyzes moralizing in India. These two
features lead to alcohol’s unique political economy. It’s highly taxed and along with fuel makes
up about 24% of states own tax base. These unique features also feed into the political economy
of corruption through time-tested methods of licensing and regulatory distortions to favor
handpicked manufactures.
(a) India’s vast welfare system is funded partly by taxes on alcohol.
(b) State withdrawal from the alcohol trade can be characterized by litigations and allegations of
corruption.
(c) Smart regulation of alcohol trade is needed in all states of India.
(d) Alcohol regulation is crying for reforms in India.
(e) Prohibition is the most extreme form of distortion.

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86. Directions: A passage is given followed by three statements. Read the following passage and
answer the question that follows.
Indian enterprises are feeling more confident about their management competence as they
recover from the pandemic. Women executives have more confidence in their organization’s
management capabilities than men. Self-appraisal on tech indicates plenty of room from
improvement.
I. Women score their organizations lower than men in the areas such as people leadership and
application of technology and knowledge.
II. Women rate management capability of their enterprises higher than men on the majority of
the 10 yardsticks including vision and leadership.
III. Both genders agree in their rating on the criterion of focus on getting results.
Which of the above statements weaken the contention that women executives are more confident
than men in management capabilities?
(a) Only II (b) Both II and III (c) Only I
(d) Both I and II (e) Both I and III
87. Directions: A situation/problem statements is given followed by three statements. Choose the
one/s which is/are the correct course of action/s to be followed from the problem statement.
Newer BA.5 and BA.4 Omicron sub variants are more contagious and prone to attacking lungs;
India is closely monitoring BA.2.75. A South African study indicates neutralizing antibodies from
previous Omicron infection fell eightfold against BA.4/BA.5, but only decreased three fold among
those vaccinated. And most infections seem mild doesn’t mean the virus can’t mutate into
something worse.
Course of action:
I. Government should lower the gap between vaccination and booster doses.
II. Government should categorically broadcast public messaging for booster doses.
III. Government should research the idea about how virus can mutate.
(a) Both I and III (b) Both II and III (c) Both I and II
(d) Only II (e) Only III
88. Directions: In the question given below, there are two statements (I) and (II). These statements
may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause.
One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and
decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two
statements.
Statement I : Zero trust is a sequence of maturity levels an organization must go through as part
of their security preparedness.
Statement II : People are working remotely nowadays, workloads are moving to the cloud, and
information is shared by APIs which is vulnerable to cyber security of an organization.
(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.
(b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.
(c) Both statement I and II are independent causes.
(d) Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(e) Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

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89. Directions: Read the following group of statements and choose the best inference which can be
deduced from the argument given below.
Having witnessed good policies translating into rapid improvement in economic fortunes, the
Indian electorate now returns to power leaders who deliver such change without getting mired
in corruption scandals. Simultaneously, it does not hesitate to give a boot to leaders who fail to
perform or perform but indulge in blatant corruption. Unsurprisingly, analysts who remain
wedded to the old voting model which postulates that caste and community equations are the
best guide to voter behavior repeatedly get their election forecasts wrong.
(a) Indian electorate has a variety of leaders in which some of them are power leaders while some
of them are corrupt leaders.
(b) Voter behavior is difficult to judge nowadays.
(c) Corruption is a problem enrooted in the India politics.
(d) Perform or perish is the new mantra for modern day electorate.
(e) The new voter votes for efficient and clean leaders who bring development in lieu of cast
politics.
90. Directions: A situation/problem statement is given followed by three statements. Choose the
one/s which is/are the correct course of action/s to be followed from the problem statement.
With the Monkeypox disease being declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern
by the World Health Organization, the discussion has again centered on ways to ‘defeat the virus’
and response strategies of case detection, isolation, contact tracing, containment, vaccines and
therapies.
Course of Actions:
I. Public awareness regarding the disease should be communicated to the mass population.
II. A disease surveillance system should be set up by each government in response.
III. Deforestation must be taken care of by the concerned authorities which is the major cause of
the emergence of new pathogens.
(a) Only III (b) Both I and II (c) Both II and III
(d) Only II (e) All of I, II and III

Direction (91-93): Read the following instructions carefully and answer the questions given
below.
A $ B (9) means A is 12 m north of B
A © B (5) means A is 9 m south of B
A # B (8) means A is 6 m east of B
A % B (15) means A is 14 m west of B
Expression:
J © K (10), K % L (4), M $ L (2), N # M (9), O © N (7), P # O (6), P $ Q (3), Q % R (6), S $ R (9)
91. What is the shortest distance between point L and point S?
(a) 15 m (b) 18 m (c) 20 m
(d) 22 m (e) 16 m

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92. In which direction is point P with respect to point J?
(a) East (b) North-East (c) South-East
(d) West (e) North-West
93. What is the shortest distance between point S and point O?
(a) √87 (b) √97 (c) √83
(d) √89 (e) Cannot be determined

Directions (94-96): Read the information carefully and answer the questions given beside-
“Actress, National, Selfish” is coded as “9I@, 10M%, 9T$”
“Yours, Revenue, Format” is coded as “9D$, 8U%, 7T&”
“Director, Society, Initiative,” is coded as “12D$, 10S#, 9Z$”
94. What is the code for “Expenses”?
(a) Q*13 (b) 10T$ (c) Q$13
(d) S*13 (e) None of these
95. What is the code for “Limelight”?
(a) Q*13 (b) R$12 (c) Q$13
(d) 11U@ (e) None of these
96. What is the code for “Revenue”?
(a) 9D$ (b) R12$ (c) Q13$
(d) S13* (e) None of these

Direction (97-99): Study the following information and answer the given question. In each of
the questions below are given some statement followed by conclusions. You have to take the
given statement to be true even if they seem to be variance with commonly known facts. Read
all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically does not follow
from the given statement, disregarding commonly known facts. Give the Answers.
P * Q means, All P are Q as well as P > Q
P + Q means, Some P are Q as well as P ≤ Q
P - Q means, No P are Q as well as P < Q
P $ Q means, Only P are Q as well as P = Q
P @ Q means, Only a few P are Q as well as P ≥ Q
(a) Only conclusion I and III
(b) Only conclusion II
(c) Only conclusion III
(d) Both conclusion II and conclusion III
(e) All Conclusions I, II and III
97. Which of the conclusion is not true?
Statement: Pen * Pencil * colour, Pencil @ Black + Blue
Conclusions:
I. Blue + Pen
II. Pen > Black
III. Blue > Pen

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98. Which of the conclusion is not true?
Statements: Bench @ Walls, Houses + Walls + Roads $ Jungle
Conclusions:
I. Jungle ≥ Bench
II. Jungle - Houses
III. Houses – Benches
99. Which of the conclusion is not true?
Statement: Desk – Chair – Pillow – Sofa + Bench
Conclusions:
I. Bench > Desk
II. Bench * Sofa
III. Desk < Sofa

Directions (100-102): Consider the alphanumeric string given below consisting of letters,
numbers and symbols answer the questions that follow based on the given steps:
L5M+@83#K&1FT%P9=C26/*\4Z$
All the alphabets in the English alphabetical series are coded from left to right in the given order. For
e.g. A is coded as L, B is coded as 5 and Z is coded as $ and so on.
I. If the word starts with a vowel and ends with a consonant, then the codes of the last two letters are
interchanged.
II. If the word starts with a vowel and ends with a vowel, then the code of the third letter and fifth
letter is replaced by the code of the first letter and last letter, respectively.
III. If the word has more than three consonants, then the codes of all vowels are replaced by the code
of the second letter of the given word.
IV. If the middle letter of the word is a vowel, then the code of that letter is replaced by that of the
first letter. (Note: The unchanged letters will be replaced by the codes given in the string. If more
than one condition is applicable, then the last condition will be applied. Example: If 1st, 3rd and
4th conditions are applicable, then 4th condition will be applied only).
100. What will be the code for the word “TRUSTEE”?
(a) 6C/26// (b) /C62C// (c) 6CC26CC
(d) 6C/26// (e) 6C/CC//
101. What will be the code for the word “UTILITIES”?
(a) /K6FK6K@2 (b) 6KFK6K@2 (c) 6KF/6K2@
(d) /6KF/6K@2 (e) 6KFk6K2@
102. What will be the code for the word “OASES”?
(a) PL22@ (b) P22@L (c) L2@2P
(d) L2@P2 (e) PL2@2

Directions (103-105): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given beside.
All P are J means P is son of J
Some M is N means M is Husband of N

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No A is B means A is Wife of B
Some Q is not R means Q is Brother of R
S is greater than T means S is Father-in-law of T
C is less than D means C is Father of D
O is either greater than or equal to E means O is Sister of E
Y is either less than or equal to Z means Y is Mother of Z
F is equal to G means F is mother-in-law of G
103. All E are B. No C is A. Some D is not F. G is either greater than or equal to E. A is greater than B.
F is less than G. All F are C. Which of the following is true?
(a) Some E is not G. (b) No B is D. (c) All D are E.
(d) C is equal to G. (e) C is either less than or equal to B.
104. Some R is U. S is either greater than or equal to P. No Q is V. R is less than P. Some T is not V. Q
is equal to U. Which of the following is true?
(a) P is either greater than or equal to S. (b) U is either less than or equal to P.
(c) Some P is not S. (d) T is greater than R. (e) Q is less than R.
105. O is either greater than or equal to M. Some K is M. O is either less than or equal to L. Some N is
not L. P is less than N. All J are M. Which of the following is true?
(a) Some M is not O. (b) O is equal to J. (c) Some J is L.
(d) L is either greater than or equal to N. (e) None of these.

Directions (106-108): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown


in the statement. The statements are followed by three conclusions. Choose the correct
answer on the basis of information given below.
(a) Only conclusion I and II follow
(b) Only conclusion I and III follow
(c) Only conclusion II and III follow
(d) All conclusions follow
(e) None of the conclusion follows
106. Statements: P = Q < R, Q ≥ S ≥ T, S = U ≥ V, V = X ≤ Y
Conclusions: Q ≥ X, T ≤ R, P ≥ U
107. Statements: H < I ≤ J, I = K > L, K < M = N, N > O ≥ P
Conclusions: J > L, H < N, N > L
108. Statements: R ≥ S ≥ T, T = Q < P, Q ≥ V ≥ M, M ≤ N = O
Conclusions: S ≥ O, R ≥ M, V < P

Directions (109-110): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
P # Q means "P is greater than or equal to Q"
P * Q means "P is smaller than Q"
P ^ Q means "P is not greater than Q"

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P % Q means "P is not smaller than or equal to Q"
P @ Q means "P is neither greater nor smaller than Q"
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Only conclusion III follows
(d) None follow
(e) Either conclusion II or III follows
109. Statements: T % U ; V * W ; W % U ; X @ Y ; Y % V ; X * A ; A * Z
Conclusions: I. Z % V II. A % W III. U @ X
110. Statements: Q * U * S ; M # Q ; R @ T ; S * R
Conclusions: I. R * Q II. T ^ S III. Q % T
111. Statements: H * R * G % Z ; I @ Z % Q ; L * M * Q
Conclusions: I. Q * R II. H % I III. I # H

Directions (112-115): Consider the alphanumeric string given below consisting of letters,
numbers and symbols answer the questions that follow based on the given steps:
9$M6?%T@#5C73*4^21A/P8=E¥€
In the series given above each element represents a particular letter of the English alphabet from left
to right. E.g. 9 represents A, $ represents B, and € represents Z.
I. If a word starts with and ends with a vowel, then the code for all the vowels in a word will be the
code of the next letter as per the English alphabetical series.
II. If a word starts with a consonant and ends with a consonant, then the code for all the consonants
in a word will be the code of the previous letter as per the English alphabetical series.
III. If the word starts with a vowel and ends with a consonant, then the codes of the 1st and 2nd
letters are interchanged, and the codes of the 3rd and 4th letters are interchanged, and so on.
IV. If the word starts with a consonant and ends with a vowel, then the codes of the 2nd and 3rd
letters are interchanged with the code of the last and 2nd the last letter of the word,
respectively.
(Note: The unchanged letters will be replaced by the codes given in the string. If more than one
condition is applicable, then none of the conditions will be applied).
112. What will be the code for the word “DISCHARGE’’?
(a) 6T?M@91#A (b) 6?TM@91T# (c) 6?TM@91A#
(d) 6#AM@91A# (e) 6?TM@91T?
113. What will be the code for the word “ORPHANAGE’’?
(a) ^1^@$*$T% (b) ^1^@$*$T? (c) 41^@9*$T%
(d) ^1^@9*9T? (e) ^1^@M*9T%
114. What will be the code for the word “ARGUMENT’’?
(a) 19P3?T/* (b) 19PT/3?* (c) 19PT3?*/
(d) 19PT?3*/ (e) 19PT?3/*
115. What will be the code for the word “REPRESENT”?
(a) 1?^?A?*/ (b) 2?42?1?3A (c) 2?42A?*/
(d) 2?64?1?3A (e) 2?^?A??3A

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Directions (116-119): In each question some statements are followed by some conclusions.
You have to take given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions follow(s) from the
given statements.
Consider the following De-Coding Rules:
A ! B means “All B are A”
A @ B means “Only a few A are B”
A & B means “No A is B”
A # B means “Some B are A”
A % B means “Some A is not B”
Note: ($) means "is a possibilty"
Ex- A #$ B means "Some B are A is a posibilty"
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both I and II follow
(e) Neither I nor II follows
116. Statements:
Dogs # Cats
Ants @ Leopards
Dogs % Tigers
Tiger & Ants
Conclusions:
I. Ants # Cats
II. Tigers !$ Leopards
117. Statements:
Bat # Rat
Mat & Rat
Hat ! Mat
Bat % Ball
Conclusions:
I. Hat #$ Rat
II. Mat !$ Ball
118. Statements:
Science & Hindi
Physics # Hindi
English ! Physics
English % Chemistry
Conclusions:
I. Science # Chemistry
II. English !$ Hindi

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119. Statements:
Pencil & Eraser
Eraser & Scale
Scale @ Pen
Sharpener ! Pen
Conclusions:
I. Scale !$ Pencil
II. Eraser & Sharpener
120. If all the consonants in the word "DERMATOGLYPHICS" are replaced with the next letter and
all the vowels are replaced with the previous letter as per the English alphabetical series, then
how many pairs of letters are there in the new word which have as many letters between them
as in the English alphabetical series when counted from both forward and backward directions?
(a) 7 (b) 4 (c) 6
(d) 5 (e) 8

Direction (121-130): Two statements numbered I and II are given below. You have to decide
whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement
II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(b) If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(c) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement
I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(d) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
(e) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
121. Six friends have different weights such that no two persons have the same weight. The weight
of X is 83 kg. Who is the third lightest?
I. C is lighter than E but heavier than H. J is lighter than T. X is heavier than C. The weight of C is
70 kgs.
II. T is heavier than H but lighter than C. E is heavier than X. J is lighter than H. The weight of H
is 50 kgs.
122. Seven people - P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a linear row facing south. The number of
persons who sit to the right of Q is same as the number of persons who sit to the left of S. How
many persons sit between P and T?
Statement 1: Three persons sit between P and V. S and V are immediate neighbours. R sits
second to the right of Q. Neither P nor V sits at the end. Two persons sit between T and U.
Statement 2: Three persons sit between R and S. T sits second to the left of S. T and V are
immediate neighbours. U sits to the left of P. Either R or S sits at the end. Not more than two
persons sit between S and U.
123. Eight people E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L were born on different dates 16th and 27th of different
months i.e. January, April, May, and September of the same year. J is the second oldest among
all. K was born in May. How many people were born between L and G?

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Statement I: Only 3 persons were born between I and H such that both of them were born in a
month having even number of days. L was born just after F, who was born on an odd date in
May. Only 2 persons were born between I and E.
Statement II: Only 2 persons were born between K and H. E is elder than L, who is younger than
I. As many persons were born before G is same as after F, who is not born in April nor born on
even date.
124. What is the code for ‘Corporate’?
Statement I: 'Check is Mandatory' is written as '@wt ^yi *nr' and 'Corporate is expensive' is
written as '$bl (ux *nr’.
Statement II: ‘Corporate Check Shipping' is written as '^yi (ux #jc' and 'Check praise expensive’
is written as '%hr ^yi $bl'.
125. Eight persons A, B, C, D, U, V, W, and X are sitting in two parallel rows. A, B, C, and D are sitting
in row-1 facing south direction and U, V, W, and X, are sitting in row-2 facing north direction in
such a way that each person sitting in row-1 faces the person sitting in row-2. Who among the
following faces the one who sits just right of X?
Statement I: Only one person sits between U and W who is sitting at the extreme right end of
the row. B sits second to the left of A. C faces the one who is an immediate neighbour of U. V
faces D.
Statement II: A sits 2nd from one end and faces the U. B does not face the one who is the
neigbour of X. D and V does not sit at ends of the rows.
126. How is ‘HEALTHY’ written in that code language?
Statement I: In a certain code language, EATING is written as HDRLLE.
Statement II: In a certain code language, REPLACE is written as PHNJDAH.
127. Six persons – I, J, K, L, M, and N have visited different countries – U, V, W, X, Y, and Z and are
sitting around a triangular table facing the center, one person on each corner and one person
on each side. Who sits 3rd to the left of the one who visited W?
Statement I: K, who visited Y sits 2nd to the right of J. Two persons sits between I and the one
who visited U. L visited Z and sits on the corner, just to the right of the one who visited X. M sits
immediate left of K. The one who visited W sits at a corner.
Statement II: The one who visited Z, sits just right of I at a corner. Two persons sit between J
and N, who visited W. M visited U and sits just left of K who visited Y.
128. Eight friends- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in
the same order. All of them are facing the center. Who is facing V?
Statement I: V is sitting to the immediate left of W. R is sitting 2nd to the left of S.
Statement II: Q is sitting 2nd to the left of T. T is facing P. The number of friends sitting between
P and Q is same as the number of friends sitting between P and W.
129. Seven persons from T to Z are sitting in a linear row facing towards north. Who is sitting at the
right end?
Statement I: Y is second to the left of W, who is on the immediate right of Z. X is third to the left
of T, who is an immediate neighbor of Y.

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Statement II: Z is on the immediate right of Y and doesn't sit at extreme end. U, who does not sit
at an extreme end is third to the left of Y. T is third to the left of W.
130. Nine persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X belongs to a family of three generation where only
married couples have children. How is X related to S?
Statement I. P is married to U. V is married to R. Q is the husband of W. S is the daughter-in-law
of W.
Statement II. V is the father of Q. U is the mother-in-law of Q. T is the sibling of X. T is unmarried.

Directions (131-135): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions. When a letter/number/symbol arrangement machine is given an input line of
letters/numbers/symbol, it arranges them following a certain rule. Following is an
illustration of Input and rearrangement. Read the following information and answer the
questions that follow.
INPUT: 6 G $ Y E 8 L ≤ 2 F 1 J * M P ¥ 1 % D 4 7 W @ 3
Step 1: 3 6 G $ E 8 L ≤ 2 F 1 J * M P ¥ 1 % D 4 7 W @ Y
Step 2: @ 3 6 G $ 8 L ≤ 2 F 1 J * M P ¥ 1 % D 4 7 W Y E
Step 3: W @ 3 6 G $ L ≤ 2 F 1 J * M P ¥ 1 % D 4 7 Y E 8
Step 4: 7 W @ 3 6 G $ ≤ 2 F 1 J * M P ¥ 1 % D 4 Y E 8 L
And so on...
Since there is no end to the number of steps of the above input one can make as many steps as
intended. As per the rules followed in the above input, work out the steps for the following input:
INPUT: F 3 V ! 9 J & 4 * ≤ T 7 L Ω 1 J S 2 # C @ U 6 L K
The number of steps to be worked out is more than four.
131. How many elements are there between C and 9 in step 6?
(a) 19 (b) 12 (c) 21
(d) 13 (e) 10
132. How many elements are there between F and S in step 5?
(a) 13 (b) 9 (c) 12
(d) 11 (e) 10
133. Which is the seventh element to the right of T in step 5?
(a) S (b) 2 (c) #
(d) J (e) !
134. If all the elements at even position are dropped in step 6, then which is the 8th element from
right end?
(a) # (b) V (c) 1
(d) L (e) T
135. How many elements are there between first two symbols from left end in step 5?
(a) 15 (b) 17 (c) 7
(d) 18 (e) 11

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Directions (136-140): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions. When a letter/number/symbol arrangement machine is given an input line of
letters/numbers/symbol, it arranges them following a certain rule. Following is an
illustration of Input and rearrangement. Read the following information and answer the
questions that follow.
INPUT: F 4 % M 3 @ L & Z # C A 2 & 1 K $ 7 U H ≤ B 5
Step 1: A 4 % M 3 @ L & Z # C 2 & 1 K $ 7 U H ≤ B 5 F
Step 2: A 2 % M 3 @ L & Z # C & 1 K $ 7 U H ≤ B 5 F 4
Step 3: A 2 & M 3 @ L & Z # C 1 K $ 7 U H ≤ B 5 F 4 %
Step 4: A 2 & 1 3 @ L & Z # C K $ 7 U H ≤ B 5 F 4 % M
And so on..
Since there is no end to the number of steps of the above input one can make as many steps as
intended. As per the rules followed in the above input, work out the steps for the following
input:
INPUT: T V 1 # U & 9 $ 2 M L @ C Z 4 R 7 & F ! 5 J Q ¥ 3
The number of steps to be worked out is more than four.
136. Which is the 11th element from the left end in Step 5?
(a) 7 (b) 2 (c) &
(d) L (e) M
137. How many elements are there between 2 and 9 in step 7?
(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14
(d) 15 (e) 10
138. Which element is sixth to the left of U in step 6?
(a) M (b) @ (c) 5
(d) Q (e) ¥
139. How many elements are there between U and F in step 4?
(a) 10 (b) 17 (c) 12
(d) 16 (e) None of these
140. Which is the 17th element from the right end in step 7?
(a) L (b) M (c) 2
(d) $ (e) &
141. In the question given below, there are two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be
either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of
these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide
which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two
statements.
I. Authorities were prompted to impose a total fire ban through Saturday as nearly 100 wildfires
are burning throughout the country.
II. The average maximum temperature across the country last week was 105.6 degrees
Fahrenheit, topping the previous record of 104.5 degrees Fahrenheit.
(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect
(b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect
(c) Both statements I and II are independent causes
(d) Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes
(e) Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause

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142. In the question below, a statement is provided, followed by three situations which may or may
not depict reasons for the given statement. Read the passage and answer the question that
follows.
Statement: The practice of 'streaming' involves separating students into classes depending on
their diagnosed levels of attainment within schools, it means selecting students into a 'stream'
of general ability or 'sets' of subject-specific ability. Most education experts suggest that
streaming students is a bad idea for students who fall behind their peers.
Which of the following can be a possible reason of experts suggesting against streaming of
students?
I. Parents of students at the lower end complain that their child is not receiving adequate
support and attention from the teacher.
II. Parents of students at the top are concerned that their child is not being challenged.
III. Streaming significantly and negatively affects those students placed in the bottom sets.
(a) Only I and II (b) All of I, II and III (c) Only I and III
(d) Only III (e) None of I, II and III
143. Read the passage/situation given below and answer the questions that follow.
Heat stress is more likely to endanger the health of older members of the community.
Which of the following weaken(s) the argument given in the passage?
(a) The perspiration process- an important mechanism of cooling skin- is higher for older
people as compared to young people
(b) Babies and young children are highly vulnerable to the heat because of their small size.
(c) Heat stress occurs when the body can't cool itself and maintain a healthy temperature.
(d) The ageing body doesn't cope with heat stresses as quickly or effectively as a younger body.
(e) Older people with chronic medical problems usually take regular medications and some
medications can hinder the body's ability to regulate temperature and make people more
susceptible to heat stress.
144. Directions: Read the following group of statements and choose the best assumption on which
the argument is based.
Foreign or currency exchange rates affect the value of everything a nation buys or sells on
international markets. It also impinges on the cost of credit and debt, and the value of foreign
currencies held in national and private banks. A strong currency exchange rate can make a
country's exports more expensive, reducing demand and potentially harming local industries.
On the other hand, a weaker currency exchange rate can make exports cheaper and increase
demand, boosting the local economy.
(a) Fluctuations in foreign exchange currency rates can impact multinational corporations and
investors who operate across borders.
(b) Exchange rates are derived on the basis of the values of foreign currencies held in national
and private banks.
(c) Governments and central banks also play a crucial role in managing currency exchange
rates.
(d) Exports and imports are mostly done in foreign currencies and not in local currencies.
(e) None of the above

294
145. Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by two statements. From
the options, choose the one that reflects the correct choice of assumptions that follow.
Mercantilists consider international trade as essential to national development. However, they
are generally not enthusiastic about the laissez faire and limited government doctrine, typically
associated with the liberal perspective.
Statement I: Mercantilist-oriented strategy calls for the state to strongly emphasize its
comparative advantages in selected sectors of the economy.
Statement II: A more open and market-based approach to the economy may be more effective
in promoting growth and development in the long run.
(a) Both I and II are implicit (b) Only I is implicit
(c) Only II is implicit (d) Either I or II is implicit
(e) Neither I nor II is implicit
146. Directions: In the question given below, there are two statements (I) and (II). These statements
may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes. One of these
statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both statements and decide which of
the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Statement I: El Nino and ocean temperature variability and extremes lead to more intense and
greater numbers of hurricanes, tornadoes, and typhoons.
Statement II: Ocean acidification destroys coral reefs.
(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.
(b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.
(c) Both statement I and II are independent causes.
(d) Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(e) Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
147. Directions: Consider the following passage and answer the question that follows.
The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement that was signed in 1997 by most of the
world's countries. Its goal was to reduce the emissions of greenhouse gases, which are a major
contributor to climate change. The protocol has been criticized for not doing enough to address
the issue of climate change, as some of the world's largest polluters, such as the United States
and China, did not sign on to the agreement.
What can be inferred from the passage?
(a) The Kyoto Protocol was signed by all countries in the world.
(b) The Kyoto Protocol was successful in reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
(c) Developing countries were required to reduce their emissions under the Kyoto Protocol.
(d) Under the protocol, industrialized countries agreed to reduce their emissions by a certain
amount, while developing countries were exempted from this requirement.
(e) None of the mentioned options.
148. Directions: A situation/problem statement is given followed by three statements. Choose the
one/s which is/are the correct course of action/s to be followed from the problem statement.
The lack of affordable housing is a major problem in many urban areas. The high cost of living
in cities makes it difficult for low and middle-income families to find suitable housing options.

295
Course of actions:
I. The government should invest in building more public housing projects and increase subsidies for
low-income families to make housing more affordable.
II. Private real estate companies should be encouraged to build more affordable housing options and
should be incentivized with tax breaks for doing so.
III. Families should consider moving to suburban or rural areas where housing costs are lower.
(a) Only I (b) Both II and III (c) Both I and III
(d) Both I and II (e) All of the above
149. Directions: Read the following group of statements and identify the main conclusion in the
argument.
The USA is too weak to directly be the world’s policeman. It relies on international institutions
(rules, norms, international law), but it must cede some of its power to these organizations as
well. Hegemons have great power over the types of rules that develop (ex: The Dutch helped to
develop the norm of “free passage over open seas” in the 1600s when they dominated global
trade).
(a) Negotiation and cooperation of other states and actors in the international system create
world order.
(b) The development of international rules and norms is not solely determined by the
hegemon's power.
(c) The USA's military power and global influence allow it to act unilaterally and disregard
international institutions.
(d) The USA as a global hegemon can create a world order based on institutions of law and rules.
(e) None of the above
150. Directions: In the question below, a paragraph is given with options (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E).
Read the paragraph carefully and identify which of the given options correctly explains the
paragraph or correctly summarizes it, if none of the options correctly explains it mark (E) as
your answer.
All living organisms require energy to perform their functions, including humans. This energy
comes from the food we eat, which is broken down into smaller molecules that are used to
generate ATP, the energy currency of the cell. ATP powers all cellular activities, including
muscle contraction, nerve transmission, and protein synthesis.
(a) Living organisms do not require energy to perform their functions.
(b) The energy required for cellular activities comes from sunlight.
(c) ATP is not essential for cellular activities.
(d) All cellular activities require energy that is generated from the breakdown of food.
(e) The energy required for cellular activities is generated from the breakdown of water.

Directions (151-155): A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of
words and numbers rearranges them following a particular pattern in each step. The
following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement.
Input: 9 may 22 october 11 august 91 march 37 june
Step I: august 9 may 22 october 11 91 march 37 june
Step II: august may 22 october 11 91 march 37 june 9
Step III: august june may 22 october 11 91 march 37 9

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Step IV: august june may 22 october 91 march 37 9 11
Step V: august june march may 22 october 91 37 9 11
Step VI: august june march may october 91 37 9 11 22
Step VII: august june march may october 91 9 11 22 37
Step VIII: august june march may october 9 11 22 37 91
Step VIII is the last step.
As per the above pattern rearrange the following input
Input: 27 january 33 april 3 december 82 july 17 june
151. How many steps are required for the given input?
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9
(d) 10 (e) 11
152. In which step ' 82 3 17' appears in the given order?
(a) Step VI (b) Step IX (c) Step X
(d) Step V (e) Step IV
153. How many words/ numbers are there between 'january' and '17' in step II?
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 4
(d) 6 (e) 3
154. What is the position of 'december' in step III?
(a) second from the right end (b) third from the left end
(c) sixth from the left end (d) second from the left end
(e) fifth from the right end
155. Which of the following is the sixth step for the given input?
(a) april december 82 july june 3 17 27january 33
(b) april december january 27 33 82 july june 3 17
(c) april 27 january 33 december 82 july 17 june 3
(d) april december january july 82 june 3 17 27 33
(e) april december january 33 82 july june 3 17 27

Directions (156-160): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given beside.
Input: cloth interview experience pending symbol
Step I: htolc weivretni ecneirepxe gnidnep lobmys
Step II: iunmd xdhwsduoh ddodhsdqyd hoheodq mncnzt
Step III: 27 343 729 64 216
Step IV: 14 36 126 24 12
Step V: 9 9 49 36 1
Step V is the final step.
As per the pattern followed in the above steps, find out the output for given input:
Input: submit height frequency setting question
156. What is the difference between the 2nd number from left end of step III and 1st number from
right end of step IV?
(a) 13 (b) 12 (c) 17
(d) 11 (e) None of these

297
157. Which of the following element is 3rd to left of the word which is 2nd from the right end in step
1?
(a) timbus (b) thgieh (c) ycneqerf
(d) gnittes (e) None of these
158. What would be the resultant if 1st number from left end in step IV is added with the 2nd number
from right end in step V?
(a) 11 (b) 46 (c) 24
(d) 16 (e) None of these
159. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which of the
following does not belong to the group?
(a) 36 (b) 27 (c) 40
(d) 64 (e) 12
160. What is the position of ‘uihhdi’ with respect to ‘hohuudt’ in step II?
(a) 2nd to the right (b) 3rd to the left (c) Immediate right
(d) 2nd to the left (e) None of these

Directions (161-170): Each of the following consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question:
(a) Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Data in either of the statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Data in neither of the statement is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Data in both statements together is sufficient to answer the question.
161. Eight students B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and I scored different marks in maths test. No two students
scored same marks.
Who scored the lowest marks?
I. Three students secured more marks than C. The number of students secured less marks than
C is same as the number of students secured more marks than I. Two students secured
marks between I and D, who secured less marks than C.
II. Three students secured marks between G and H, where G secured more marks than H. E
secured more marks than B, who secured more marks than G. D scored less marks than H.
162. Eight boxes B, D, F, H, J, L, N and P are kept in a stock one above the other, but not necessarily
in the same order. The bottom most box is labelled I and box above it is labelled 2 and so on.
How many boxes are kept between B and H?
I. Box N is kept either on the topmost position or on the bottom most position. Two boxes are
kept between N and B. The number of boxes kept above B is same as the number of boxes
kept Below P.
II. Box J is kept above box D. Box H is kept immediate below P. Box D is kept immediate above
L.

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163. There are eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are living on 4 floors (numbered 1 to 4) of a
building. There are two different flats on each of the four floors. Flats are X, and Y such that Flat
X is exactly to the west of flat Y. Flat X of floor 2 is exactly above the Flat X of floor 1 and so on.
Who lives two floors above C in same flat type?
Statement I: A lives to the west of D. There are only 2 floors below F, who has noone towards
the east of him. H is northeast of C, who lives on an odd numbered floor. B lives just below G
and both live in flat X. F and H does not live on same floor.
Statement II: There are only three floors below A’s floor. B lives below D but both of them live
in different flats. No one lives below E, who lives to the south-east of G. F lives just above H,who
lives towards the east of B and F & H lives in the same type of flat. G does not live on 1st floor.
B lives on the even floor.
164. Five students had their exams on five days of a week starting from Monday to Friday. No two
students had their exam on the same day. On which day does Garima has her exam?
Statement I: Namrata had exam on Tuesday. Karishma’s exam is after Garima. Shritika does not
have exam either on Friday or Monday.
Statement II: Ridhima and Karishma have exam after Namrata. Garima’s exam was before
Shritika. Karishma neither has exam on Friday nor on Thursday. Shritika does not have exam
on Friday.
165. The conclusion M > I is definitely followed by which of the following statements?
I. W > S = X ≥ I > D = V ≤ B= M
II. W > I = X ≤ C < D = M ≤ B= A
166. The conclusion ‘Some machine is working’ is definitely followed by which of the following
statements?
I. All car is machine
Some machine is hard
All car is working
All working is hard
II. Some car is working
All machine is hard
Some car is machine
167. Eight boxes are placed one above another in the stack. Box number 8 is placed on top position
and box number 1 is placed on bottom position. How many boxes are kept below box W?
I. Three boxes are kept between box B and W, which is kept below box P. Box B is kept on an
even number position below 5th position. Box G is kept at the top position.
II. Only two boxes are kept below box P, which is kept two boxes below box G. The number of
boxes kept below box G is the same as the number of boxes is kept above box W.
168. Who is the brother-in-law of E?
I. A is the grandfather of C, who is the daughter of B. B is the sister E, who is the uncle of C’s
brother H.
II. C is the grandchild of F. F has only one son G. No single parent in the family.

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169. Point A is in which direction with respect to point D?
I. Point C is 20m west of point F. Point F is 30m south of point G, which 5m northeast of D. Point
G is 16m west of point I. Point I is 40m northeast of point A.
II. Point B is 20m northwest of point A. Point A is 20m south of point C, which is 10m west of
point F. Point D is 20m south of point F.
170. Which code word stands for ‘Sun’ in the coded sentences ‘WP NH SJ’ which means ‘Off sun
should’?
I. In the same code language ‘DF TU NH OE’ means ‘Come outside under sun’
II. In the same code language ‘RL SJ TU OE’ means ‘Light off under come’
171. Directions: In the question given below, there are two statements (I) and (II). These statements
may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause.
One of these statements may be the effect of the other statements. Read both statements and
decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these
two statements.
Statement I: State governments routinely grant remission of sentences to life convicts for
political reasons.
Statement II: Two of the Supreme Court’s five guidelines for granting remission framed in 2000
stipulate examining “whether the offence is an individual act of crime without affecting society
at large”.
(a) Statement I is the cause and Statement II is the effect.
(b) Statement II is the cause and Statement I is the effect.
(c) Both Statements I and II are independent causes.
(d) Both Statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(e) Both Statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
172. Directions: A situation/problem statement is given followed by three statements. Choose the
one/s which is/are the correct course of action/s to be followed from the problem statement.
According to a recent survey, many people in urban areas suffer from mental health issues such
as anxiety and depression. This is primarily due to the high-stress levels associated with urban
living. Therefore, it is important to take measures to address mental health issues in urban
areas.
Course of action:
I. Urban planning should prioritize the creation of green spaces and parks in urban areas to
provide residents with access to nature.
II. Governments should invest more in mental health services and make them more accessible
to the public.
III. People in urban areas should move to rural areas to escape the stresses of urban living.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Only III follows
(d) Both I and II follow (e) Both I and III follow
173. Directions: Read the following group of statements and choose the best assumption on which
the argument is based.

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The World Economic Forum’s Gender Gap Report 2022 confirms what we know from
experience. Covid may have put gender parity back by a generation, and South Asia is the worst-
off. At current rates of progress, it will take nearly 200 years to achieve any meaningful equality
between women and men. This gap exists because of centuries of bone-deep social and material
bias against women, so it will not narrow by itself.
(a) World Economic Forum report on Gender Gap in 2022 and our experience regarding gender
disparity is same.
(b) Gender gap can be narrowed by removing social and material biases against women.
(c) Current rate of progress in removing gender parity is slow.
(d) Current rate of progress cannot narrow the gender gap instantly and neither the gap will
narrow by itself.
(e) None of the above
174. Directions: In the following question a paragraph is given, followed by five options, each giving
a conclusion which may or may not follow. Choose the one which reflects the conclusion that
follows.
A recent study conducted by a group of scientists found that exposure to high levels of noise
pollution can have negative effects on human health, including hearing loss, cardiovascular
disease, and sleep disturbance. The study involved a group of 500 participants who lived near
busy roads and were exposed to high levels of traffic noise. The results showed that those who
were exposed to noise levels above 65 decibels had a higher risk of developing cardiovascular
disease compared to those who were exposed to lower levels of noise.
(a) All individuals who live near busy roads and are exposed to high levels of noise pollution
will develop cardiovascular disease.
(b) Exposure to high levels of noise pollution can only cause hearing loss and sleep disturbance.
(c) It is important for individuals who live near busy roads to take steps to protect themselves
from high levels of noise pollution.
(d) The study involved a small group of participants and cannot be generalized to the larger
population.
(e) Exposure to high levels of noise pollution is not harmful to human health.
175. Directions: A situation/problem statement is given followed by three statements. Choose the
one/s which is/are the correct course of action/s to be followed from the problem statement.
A rise in Covid cases in Delhi coincided with the easing of various Covid restrictions like
masking. While hospitalizations remain low, sporadic infections have made schools and parents
jittery, which should give further impetus to quickly inoculate all schoolgoers. The 5-11 age
group has an estimated 16 crore children.
Course of action:
I. More number of vaccines should get emergency use authorization for 5-11 years old.
II. Regular inoculation of 5-11 years old should be permitted as soon as possible.
III. Schools should make masking mandatory and follow Covid norms.
(a) Only III (b) Both II and III (c) Only II
(d) Both I and II (e) All of the above

301
176. Directions: Consider the following passage and answer the question that follows.
The Mona Lisa is a painting by the Italian artist Leonardo da Vinci, widely regarded as one of
the greatest works of art in human history. It depicts a woman, believed to be Lisa Gherardini,
a member of a wealthy Florentine family. The painting has been the subject of much fascination
and analysis over the years, with many theories and speculations about the identity of the
woman in the painting, the symbolism of the various elements in the painting, and the
techniques used by da Vinci to create it.
What can be inferred from the passage?
(a) The Mona Lisa is not a well-known work of art.
(b) The painting depicts a man, not a woman.
(c) The identity of the woman in the painting is not known for certain.
(d) The Mona Lisa is not widely regarded as a great work of art.
(e) None of the mentioned options.
177. Which of the following most logically completes the argument below?
To reduce carbon emissions and combat climate change, it is essential to shift to clean energy
sources. While renewable energy sources like wind and solar power have gained popularity in
recent years, nuclear power also plays a significant role in reducing carbon emissions. Although
nuclear power has its risks, it is considered to be a reliable and low-emission source of energy.
Therefore, governments should ________.
(a) Rely solely on renewable energy sources and abandon nuclear power altogether.
(b) Continue to use fossil fuels as they are more reliable than nuclear power.
(c) Invest only in nuclear power and abandon renewable energy sources.
(d) Ignore the potential risks and rely solely on nuclear power to reduce carbon emissions.
(e) Consider the use of nuclear power alongside renewable energy sources as part of a
comprehensive strategy to reduce carbon emissions.
178. Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows.
Globally, child malnutrition is measured through the ‘growth charts’. India currently uses the
growth charts recommended by WHO (2006) based on the Multicentre Growth Reference Study
(MGRS) for children from zero to five years. The WHO growth charts are the growth standards
which consider the optimal condition to determine normal growth. Instead of taking random
children, their selection criteria were strict, making them more reasonable than other available
growth charts at that time (between 1997 & 2003).
Which of the following is a good reason that growth charts are useful tools to represent growth
standards?
(a) Every child's growth pattern is unique, and growth charts only provide average values for
children at different ages.
(b) The accuracy of growth charts depends on the quality and quantity of the data used to create
them.
(c) Using growth charts to monitor a child's growth can lead to overdiagnosis and
overtreatment.
(d) Growth charts are a powerful visual tool to assess a child’s growth based on various
readings such as height, weight, age or body mass index.
(e) Children come in different shapes and sizes, and their growth can be influenced by several
factors, such as genetics, diet, and environment.

302
179. Directions: In the following question a paragraph is given, followed by five options, each giving
a conclusion that may or may not follow. Choose the one which reflects the conclusion that
follows.
The use of solar power is becoming increasingly popular as people look for ways to reduce their
carbon footprint and save money on energy bills. Solar panels, which are installed on the roof
of a house or building, convert sunlight into electricity, which can be used to power appliances
and other electrical devices. While the initial cost of installing solar panels can be high, the long-
term savings can be significant.
(a) Solar power is not a cost-effective option for homeowners.
(b) Solar panels can only be installed on the roof of a building.
(c) The use of solar power can help reduce carbon emissions and save money on energy bills.
(d) The cost of solar panels has decreased significantly in recent years.
(e) Solar power is only a viable option for those living in areas with high levels of sunlight.
180. Directions: In the question below, a few statements are given describing a situation. You have
to assume everything in the statements to be true even if they are at variance from commonly
known facts, and on the basis of the information given in the statements, answer the question
that follows.
A recent study has found that long working hours can lead to physical and mental health issues,
such as heart disease, anxiety, and depression. Many people, particularly those in high-pressure
jobs, work long hours regularly. Therefore, it is important to take measures to address the
negative effects of long working hours on health.
Which of the following statements is the course of action to be followed according to the
problem statement in the above passage?
(a) Governments should legislate maximum working hours and ensure that employees comply
with the regulations.
(b) Employees should take breaks and identify opportunities for physical exercise during the
workday.
(c) Colleagues should take responsibility for managing individual’s work-life balance.
(d) Employers can set realistic expectations for workloads and deadlines, and avoid
overloading employees with excessive work.
(e) Employers can offer paid mental health resources, such as counselling or employee
assistance programs.
181. If each consonant in the each series is replaced by the next alphabet in the English alphabetical
series then which series would form a meaningful word after the rearrangement?
(I) EARSEQM
(II) BOUMSEF
(III) BOMSAIM
(a) Only I (b) Both II and III (c) Only III
(d) Both I and III (e) Both I and II

Direction (182-184): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Relations of a family which has seven members are given in a coded language using symbols. Study
the following information and answer the questions. Either both or none of the parents of a person
are alive. There are more female members than the male members.

303
1 # 2 means 1 is the mother of 2.
1 * 2 means 1 is the spouse of 2.
1 X^ 2 means 1 has one child and is sibling of 2
1 Y% 2 means 1 has one child and is brother-in-law of 2.
1 & 2 means 1 and 2 are not of the same gender.
D X^ G & C
B#F
D Y% A # E * C
182. How is C related to G?
(a) Daughter (b) Son-in-law (c) Daughter-in-law
(d) Brother (e) Son
183. If F is married to W, then how D is related to W?
(a) Brother-in-law (b) Father-in-law (c) Mother-in-law
(d) Sister-in-law (e) Mother
184. ____ is the odd member among the following.
(a) C (b) A (c) D
(d) B (e) G
185. Given below is series of groups of letters. Each group has 4 letters but 1 of the letters has been
suppressed and indicated as a blank. The letters when filled in these blanks will make the group
of letters following a logical pattern from the preceding and following graph of letters.
K_TB, MAS_, _BPZ, QC_Y
(a) Z, W, O, L (b) Z, A, O, K (c) A, Z, P, K
(d) A, Z, O, L (e) Z, W, O, K

Direction (186-187): In each of the questions below arc given four statements followed by
three conclusions nubered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even
if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
186. Statements:
Some sacks are walls.
Some walls are disks.
No disk is a pill.
All pills are hands.
Conclusions:
I. No hand is a disk.
II. Some hands are walls.
III. Some disks are sacks.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows (c) Only II and III follow
(d) Only III follows (e) None of these

304
187. Statements:
Some gloves are laps.
Some laps are banks.
All banks are plots.
All plots are bulls.
Conclusions:
I. Some bulls are plots.
II. All plots are banks.
III. All banks are bulls.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only I and II follow (c) Only I and III follow
(d) All follow (e) None of these

Directions (188-190): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
3H>@G4R*%PO7!2ADF56&Z$2VM<KC9B≤7YS
Step 1: Each such number which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a
symbol is placed immediate right of D in decreasing order.
Step 2: Each such alphabet which is immediately followed by a number and immediately preceded
by an alphabet is placed to the immediate right of * symbol in alphabetical order.
Step 3: Each such symbol which is second to the right of an alphabet and second to the left of a
number is placed between V and M ( 1st such symbol from left end should be placed left
followed by 2nd such symbol and so on).
Step 3 is the last.
188. How many symbols are there to the right of G and the left of B?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7
(d) 8 (e) 9
189. How many numbers are there between D and Y?
(a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 9
(d) 5 (e) None of these
190. Which of the following pair is odd from the rest?
(a) O! (b) D% (c) V@
(d) * C (e) BY

Directions (191-195): In a certain code language, the words are written in the form of
numbers which are specific to a certain code. These codes can be traced from the table given
below with the respective number. For e.g. the code for the number 32 will be "mk" , code for
the number 13 will be "qa" and so on.
"read good books for speed" is coded as "30 23 00 32 22"
"many schools help students free" is coded as "01 31 10 33 13"
"fresh read is available" is coded as "02 22 12 21"
"take books is knowledge gain" is coded as " 00 03 11 20 12"
Based on the given information, answer the questions that follow:

305
191. What is the code for "read is"?
(a) au hy (b) fg sp (c) fg au
(d) sp hy (e) cannot be determined
192. What is the statement for the code "33 13"?
(a) free students (b) school help (c) free school
(d) many free (e) Cannot be determined
193. What is the code for "fresh books" if the code for "available food" is "sp ma"?
(a) hy tz (b) sp au (c) hy au
(d) tz dm (e) Cannot be determined
194. What is the code for "knowledge school"?
(a) 11 10 (b) 10 21 (c) 22 11
(d) 31 11 (e) Cannot be determined
195. If the code for "take round" is "ed jg" and the code for "knowledge transfer" is "ic tf", what is the
code for " life gain"?
(a) zc ty (b) ri em (c) up tz
(d) ri mk (e) df sp

Directions (196-198): In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given, the
resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and
the question below the rows of numbers is to be answered, the operation of number
progresses from left to right.
Rules:
I. If an even number is followed by an odd number, both are to be multiplied.
II. If an odd number is preceded by another odd number, the bigger number is to be divided by the
smaller number.
III. If an even number is preceded by another even number, both are to be added.
IV. If an odd number is followed by an even number, the smaller number is to be subtracted from the
bigger number.
196. What is the product of the resultant of first row and the resultant of second row?
34 17 168
637 13 49
(a) 747 (b) 746 (c) 646
(d) 546 (e) None of these
197. If 'm' is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row?
199 200 57
66 56 m
(a) 5854 (b) 68 (c) 95
(d) 6954 (e) None of these

306
198. If 'n' is the resultant of the second row, what will be the resultant of the first row?
1081 23 n
112 92 15
(a) 3013 (b) 3003 (c) 2003
(d) 2103 (e) 2013

Directions (199-201): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
If,
A#B (22m) means A is 15m north of B
A&B (33m) means A is 26m south of B
A@B (39m) means A is 32m east of B
A>B (46m) means A is 39m west of B
If,
@P(12m); R#Q(10m); U>T(13m); V#U(11m); W#X(13m); S>R(10m); W@V(22m); S&T(9m)
199. What is the position of T with respect to X?
(a) North (b) West (c) East
(d) Northwest (e) Northeast
200. If J@X(10m); K&J(10m) and K>Y(11m), then what is the distance between P and Y?
(a) 9m (b) 11m (c) 13m
(d) 15m (e) 18m
201. If S@M(11m); M#N(13m) and O@N(9m), then what is the direction of O with respect to P?
(a) South (b) Southeast (c) North
(d) Southwest (e) Northeast

Directions (202-204): The following are the codes used for denoting the directions between
two points:
'K & L (4 m)' means 'K is 16 m to the north of L'
'K ~ L (9 m)' means 'K is 36 m to the south of L'
'K € L (10 m)' means 'K is 40 m to the east of L'
'K ≤ L (7 m)' means 'K is 28 m to the west of L'
Some codes are given below based on which answer the questions that follow.
≤ N (1 m), M & S (5 m), G ~ N (2 m), E € G (7 m), E & P (2 m), R € M (6 m), T ~ Q (4 m), P ≤ S (3 m)
202. What is the shortest distance between the points S and T?
(a) 40 m (b) 32 m (c) 36 m
(d) 44 m (e) 28 m
203. What is the direction of G with respect to R?
(a) South-east (b) South-west (c) North-east
(d) North-west (e) East
204. If U ~ M (3 m), then which of the following is correct?

307
(a) U & S (1 m) (b) E ≤ U (3 m) (c) U ~ P (1 m)
(d) U € G (7 m) (e) R & U (5 m)
205. In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion
among given three conclusions is definitely true and then give your answer accordingly.
Statements: A ≥ F = M > B; L > J > C; C ≥ R = A
Conclusions:
I. F is the third smallest entity
II. C is the third largest entity
III. B is the smallest entity
IV. L is the largest entity
(a) Only II and III are true (b) All are true (c) III, II and IV are true
(d) Only III and IV are true (e) Only III is true
206. Which parts of column I match correctly with that in column II, such that the part in column II
forms the conclusion of the statements given in column I.
Column I Column II

1. H≥ W > P=M ≥ L ≥ S > K (A) L > K

2. U= L< S ≤ Z< K =R ≤ P (B) P ≥ S


(a) Only 1- A (b) Only 2-B (c) Both 1-B and 2-A
(d) Only 1-B (e) Both 1-A and 1-B
207. In the following question, a statement is followed by two conclusions. Assuming the given
statement to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) is/are true and then give your answer
accordingly.
Statement: G < K ≤ O > Q < W ≤ E = R
Conclusions:
I. Q > G
II. R > Q
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(c) Only conclusion II follows
(d) Both conclusions I and II follow
(e) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
208. In the question below, a statement is followed by two conclusions based on the statement. Study
the conclusions and select the correct option as the answer.
Statement: I ≤ C < X = Y > W ≥ D
Conclusion:
I: X > D
II: I ≤ Y
(a) Neither I nor II follows (b) Either I or II follows
(c) Only II follows (d) Both I and II follow (e) Only I follows

308
Directions (209-210): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
'A $ B' means 'A is not greater than B'.
'A * B' means 'A is not smaller than B'.
'A % B' means 'A is neither greater than nor equal to B'.
'A # B' means 'A is neither smaller than nor equal to B'.
'A @ B' means 'A is neither greater than nor smaller than B'.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the
two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Mark the option as your answer.
(a) If only conclusion I is true.
(b) If only conclusion II is true.
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(e) If both conclusion I and conclusion II are true.
209. Statements: A*C#T#K, L$B$C%M
Conclusion:
I. B%K
II. L$A
210. Statements: G%M%T#R#S, K%B%H*I@L@R
Conclusion:
I. T#H
II. I#S

Directions (211-212): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
If A@B means A is not greater than B
A#B means A is not smaller than B
A$B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B
A%B means A is neither greater nor equal to B
A&B means A is equal to B
In the following question the relationship between different elements is given in the statements
followed by two conclusions I and II. Read the statements carefully and mark your answer
accordingly.
211. Statements: M @ N % O & R; T @ P # A $ R
Conclusions:
I. P $ N
II. M # A
III. T @ O
(a) Only conclusion I is true (b) Only conclusions I and II are true
(c) Only conclusions I and III are true (d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) None of the above

309
212. Statements: E # D & G $ H % F @ I % J
Conclusions:
I. J $ D
II. H % E
III. G # J
(a) Only conclusion I and III are true
(b) Only conclusions II and III are true
(c) Either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
(d) Either conclusion I or III and conclusion II are true
(e) None of the above

Directions (213-214): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
If ‘>’ is denoted as ‘@’
‘≥’ is denoted as ‘#’
‘=’ is denoted as ‘%’
‘≤’ is denoted as ‘&’
And ‘<’ is denoted as ‘$’
213. Statements: R $ P & Q $ S; U # T $ S $ V; Y @ U # W
Conclusions:
I. R $ V
II. W @ R
III. W $ S
(a) Only conclusion I is true. (b) Only conclusion II is true
(c) Both conclusion I and III is true (d) Both conclusion II and III are true.
(e) All the conclusions are true.
214. Statements: L @ K # M % N; B $ A & N @ C; E $ D & B
Conclusions:
I. L @ E
II. C $ K
III. M @ D
(a) Only conclusion I is true. (b) Both conclusion II and III are true.
(c) Only conclusion II is true. (d) All the conclusions are true.
(e) None is true.
215. Choose the correct option which contains the signs of inequality that can replace % and ¥,
respectively in the statement E ≥ R % N < B ¥ V ≤ C < O, so that 'C > N' holds true and 'C > R'
holds false.
(a) ≥, > (b) ≥, < (c) =, >
(d) None of these (e) ≤, ≥
216. Choose the correct option which contains the signs of inequality that can replace @ and *,
respectively in the statement R ≤ I ≤ J @ M * W ≥ Z, so that 'W ≥ R' holds definitely true?
(a) ≥, ≤ (b) ≤, < (c) =, >
(d) ≤, ≤ (e) ≤, ≥

310
Directions (217-218): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
U @ V (x) means U is x metres east of V.
U # V (x) means U is x metres west of V.
U ® V (x) means U is x metres north of V.
U © V (x) means U is x metres south of V.
217. In ‘A # B [7], C @ F [10], E® B [5], F © G [3], C ® H [6], G @ E [5]’, what is the shortest distance
between A and G?
(a) 10m (b) 7√2m (c) 13m
(d) 5√2m (e) None of the above
218. In ‘P ® M [8], L @ R [8], O # N[10m], Q @ M [6], O © R [7], Q ® N[5]’, in which direction is L
with respect to P?
(a) North-east (b) South-east (c) South-west
(d) North-west (e) None of the above

Directions (219-221): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
P @10m Q – P is 4m east of Q.
P *11mQ – P is 5m west of Q.
P &23mQ – P is 17m south of Q.
P$16mQ – P is 10m north of Q.
A certain number of cars are parked in a parking lot at some distance.
G*19mB. H@11mC. F$14mI. D*15mI. D&17mG. F@9mA. E$14mH. E@8mJ. B$9mJ
219. What is the shortest distance between E and D?
(a) 20m (b) 15m (c) 25m
(d) 17m (e) None of these
220. what is the shortest distance between A and E?
(a) 8m (b) 9m (c) 10m
(d) 15m (e) None of these
221. What is the direction of J with respect to C?
(a) North (b) North-East (c) South-East
(d) North-West (e) None of these

Directions (222-224): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
If ‘@’ means East, ‘#’ means West, ‘&’ means North, ‘%’ means South.
@ and & means distance between points is either 4m or 15m.
# and % means distance between points is either 7m or 18m.
Combination of two symbols means consider only the direction and not the distance.
Note: AB < BC means the distance between A and B is lesser than distance between B and C.
B&H; H#K; L&K; L&@B; M@L; D%M; MD > LK; HK < MD; LM < HK; P@B; P&#K; F%P; F%#D. The
distance between H and K is an odd number.

311
222. Which of the following is true?
(a) PF > LK (b) BP > BH (c) D&# K
(d) P@ H (e) None of these
223. What is the direction of M with respect to P?
(a) North (b) North- West (c) South-east
(d) North-east (e) None of these
224. What is the sum of the shortest distance between line (B, H) and line (K, D)?
(a) 9m (b) 10m (c) 14m
(d) 20m (e) None of these

Directions (225-229): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In the question below there are two/three conclusions followed by three/four statements in the
options. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given statements is true disregarding the
commonly known facts.
225. Conclusions:
I. Some Art can be Natural.
II. Every Skill can be Art.
Statements:
(a) Only a few Skill is Talent. No Talent is Art. Some Art is Natural.
(b) No Art is Skill. Only a few Skill is Natural. Few Natural is Talent.
(c) Some Talent is Art. All Art is Skill. Only a few Talent is Natural.
(d) All Art is Skill. No Skill is Natural. No Talent is Art.
(e) Few Art is Skill. Only Skill is Natural. Some Talent is Art.
226. Conclusions:
I. Some Large can be Small.
II. Every Small can be Copy.
Statements:
(a) Some File is Large. No Large is Small. Only a few Small is Copy.
(b) Only a few Copy is Large. All Large is Small. No Small is File.
(c) Only Small is File. Some Small is Copy. Few Copy is Large.
(d) All Large is Small. No Small is File. Only a few File is Copy.
(e) Few Copy is not Large. Some Large is File. Only a few Copy is Small.
227. Conclusions:
No rain is drop
Some sea being water is a possibility
Statements:
(a) Some water is rain. A few rain is sea. No sea is drop.
(b) All water is rain. No rain is sea. Only sea is drop.
(c) No water is rain. All rain is sea. Only sea is drop.
(d) No water is rain. All sea is rain. Some sea is drop.
(e) None of the above

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228. Conclusions:
Some brands are pigeons
At least some pure are karrots
All pure being brand is a possibility
Statements:
(a) Some karrots are pure. Some pure are pigeon. Some pigeons are brands. All pure are perfect.
(b) Some karrots are pigeons. Some pigeons are pure. Some pure are brands. No karrot is
perfect.
(c) All karrots are pure. Some pure are perfect. All brands are perfect. No pigeon is perfect.
(d) All karrots are pure. All pure are pigeon. No plastic is brand. Some perfect are pigeon.
(e) None of these
229. Conclusions:
All solars being yards is a possibility
No solar is a minor
Some days are solars
Statements:
(a) At least some solars are weeks. No week is a minor. No solar is yard. Some yards are
playground.
(b) All solars are weeks. No week is a minor. All minor are yards. All weeks are days.
(c) At least some solars are weeks. All solars are minors. No solar is yards. Some yards are
playgrounds.
(d) All solars are weeks. No week is a minor. All solars are days. No week is yard.
(e) None of these

Directions (230-231): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
A % B means A is the wife of B;
A @ B means A is the son of B;
A $ B means A is the brother of B;
A & B means A is the daughter of B;
A * B means A is the sister of B.
230. P*Q*R@O%L@N$M, how is Q related to L?
(a) Daughter (b) Niece (c) Daughter in law
(d) Brother (e) Cannot be determined.
231. U%T$V&R%S@P%Q$W, If V is 20years old, S is 35 years old what can be the possible age of Q?
(a) 34 (b) 20 (c) 60
(d) Either (b) or (c) (e) None of these.

Directions (232-234): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Y%Z means ‘Y’ is the husband of ‘Z’

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Y+Z means ‘Y’ is the wife of ‘Z’
Y&Z means ‘Y’ is the mother of ‘Z’
Y@Z means ‘Y’ is the father of ‘Z’
Y?Z means ‘Y’ is the daughter of ‘Z’
Y*Z means ‘Y’ is the son of ‘Z’
232. How is N related to Q if ‘M % S & N + P @ O’ and ‘R ? N ? S & Q’ are true?
(a) Father-in-law (b) Sister (c) Mother-in-law
(d) Son (e) Brother
233. How is U related to T if ‘J @ L + S @ T % V & U’ is true?
(a) Sister-in-law (b) Mother-in-law (c) Father
(d) Sister (e) Cannot be determined
234. How is K related to I if ‘D + J @ F % K & G & I’ is true?
(a) Grandfather (b) Sister (c) Grandmother
(d) Father (e) None of the above
235. Five words are given in each option. By taking five letters from each of the words as specified,
different five letter words can be obtained by rearranging them. Mark the option in which
English meaningful word cannot be obtained. [1st number in the bracket signifies the letter to
be chosen from the 1st word from the left end, similarly, 2nd number signifies the letter to be
choses from the 2nd word from the left end and so on].
(a) ENTER, DEAL, SCORE, MODE, LIGHT (4, 2, 4, 1, 3)
(b) POLE, NARROW, MEAL, GREAT, HINT (1, 1, 3, 5, 2)
(c) URBAN, GUN, VERB, CHAIR, LUNCH (5, 1, 4, 4, 2)
(d) FUTURE, SOIL, VERGE, WATER, LONG (6, 2, 1, 1, 1)
(e) COUNT, GRAB, HERB, WIND, MAT (4, 4, 3, 2, 2)
236. If the consonants of the following words are replaced by their immediate succeeding letters
while the vowels are replaced by their immediately preceding letters in the English alphabetical
series, and then consonants are arranged first followed by the vowel as per the English
Alphabetical order, then which is the fourth letter of each word from the left end after the
rearrangement?
I. DETERMINE
II. RATIONAL
III. STANDARD
(a) DHO (b) RMT (c) HSZ
(d) HDR (e) MDT
237. Six bogies - A, B, C, X, Y, and Z can carry a different number of passengers multiple of five. X can
carry an immediately higher number of passengers than A. At least one bogie carries fewer
passengers than Z. Only two bogies can carry more passengers than C and only one bogie can
carry fewer passengers than Y. The third highest number which can be carried in a bogie is 105.
Which of the following can be the passenger count of bogie X?
I. 110

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II. 115
III. 100
(a) Only I and II (b) Only II and III (c) Only I
(d) Only II (e) Only III
238. If the consonants of the words in I, II and III given below are replaced with the next letters as
per English alphabetical series, then in which of the following words, the 4th letter from the
right is a vowel?
I. A S D F J V B N
II. O X C N G M R I
III. Q M E K H P W J
(a) Both I and II (b) Only II (c) Only I
(d) Both I and III (e) Only III
239. If it is possible to make one meaningful English word from the 3rd, 5th, 6th and 9th letter of the
word MONUMENTAL using the letters only once, then which letter will be the last letter of the
newly formed word from the right end? If no such word can be formed then mark your answer
as (X). If more than one word can be formed then mark your answer as (Y).
(a) M (b) N (c) A
(d) X (e) Y
240. If 2nd letter (from left end) of each word from each group is considered, then which among the
following group can make one or more English Meaningful word if each of the letters is used
only once?
I. Create, Learn, Camera
II. Prize, Class, Umbrella
III. Physics, Flight, Wrong
(a) Only I (b) Only II and III (c) Only I and II
(d) Only II (e) Only I and III

Directions (241-242): Study the information below and answer the following questions:
P % Q means P is the brother of Q
P $ Q means P is the daughter of Q
P # Q means P is the husband of Q
P & Q means P is the son of Q
P @ Q means P is the wife of Q
241. If expression ‘A % C $ B # D $ E’ is true, then how is wife of E related to C’s mother?
(a) Mother (b) Mother in law (c) Sister in law
(d) Aunt (e) None of these
242. If P is the daughter of T’s brother in law, then which of the following expression is true?
(a) L $ Q % R $ T (b) Q # R $ P # T (c) R # P $ Q % L @ T
(d) P # L $ R % T $ S (e) one of these

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Directions (243-245): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
When a number arrangement machine is given an input line of numbers, it arranges them following
a certain rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Read the following
information and answer the questions that follow.
Input: 79 42 56 18 22 61 85 71 40 39
Step I: 79 42 56 61 85 71 40 39 19 23
Step II: 79 42 56 61 85 71 19 23 36 41
Step III: 79 61 85 71 19 23 36 41 43 57
Step IV: 79 85 19 23 36 41 43 57 58 68
Step V: 19 23 36 41 43 57 58 68 76 82
Step V is the last step of the input.
Find the steps of the following input.
Input: 81 13 59 44 67 76 94 25 38 95
243. In the given input, if the terms of step IV from left to right are coded as the terms of step I from
left to right respectively, then what will be the code for the term '45'?
(a) 38 (b) 44 (c) 94
(d) 95 (e) 76
244. In the given input, if the terms of step II from left to right are coded as the terms of step V from
right to left respectively, then what will be the code for the term '76'?
(a) 56 (b) 78 (c) 64
(d) 95 (e) 77
245. In the given input, if the terms of step I from left to right are coded as the terms of step V from
left to right respectively, then what will be the sum of the codes for the terms '67' and '38'?
(a) 122 (b) 132 (c) 109
(d) 114 (e) 107

Directions (246-250): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
When a word and number arrangement machine is given the input line of words and numbers, it
arrange them following the certain rule. Following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Read the information and answer the question that follows.
Input: 20 Kite 33 Leaves 36 Elephant 17 Monkey 41 Fins
Step 1: Meknoy 20 Kite 33 Leaves 36 Elephant 41 Fins 36
Step 2: Levaes Meknoy Kite 33 36 Elephant 41 Fins 36 62
Step 3: Ktie Levaes Meknoy 36 Elephant 41 Fins 36 62 68
Step 4: Fnis Ktie Levaes Meknoy Elephant 41 36 62 68 110
Step 5: Enahpelt Fnis Ktie Levaes Meknoy 36 62 68 110 84
Step 6: Eanphlet Fins Kite Lveeas Mkeony 011 26 48 63 86
Step 6 is the last step of input.
Input: 15 action 21 survey 52 enormous 73 movement 22 strategy

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246. What is the sum of all digits which appears at the last of step 1, 2 and 3?
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13
(d) 14 (e) 15
247. Word 'enormous' is exactly between ------ and 44 in step 3.
(a) Sevruy (b) Sgetarty (c) Sveury
(d) Segartry (e) Cannot be determined.
248. In which of the step "sevruy 32 44" appears together in given sequence?
(a) Step 2 (b) Step 3 (c) Step 4
(d) Step 5 (e) Step 6
249. What is the difference of numbers which appears at the last of step 5 and 6?
(a) 703 (b) 693 (c) 90
(d) 991 (e) None of these
250. In the final output, word 'movement' is changed into------
(a) movmvnet (b) menemovt (c) mvemenot
(d) monvemet (e) mnemevot

Directions (251-257): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You
have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions.
(a) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(c) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(d) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(e) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
251. Eight A, B, C, D, E, F, L and M are staying in a nine floored building in the floors are numbered 1
to 9 from bottom to top. How many people are staying in between E and F?
Statement I: C stays somewhere above E on an odd numbered floor. Three floors are between
the floors of A and B who stays on the second floor. No one stays between A and E and E stays
above A. F stays on a floor immediately above B.
Statement II: F stays on an odd numbered floor below A. Three floors are between the floors of
M and D who stays on a floor immediately below A. E does not on an odd numbered floor. M
stays on the bottom most floor.
252. Six persons - L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting along a rectangular table on which two persons are
sitting on each of the longer sides and one person is sitting on each of the shorter sides of the
table but not in the same order and face towards the centre of the table. O is sitting on the longer
side and Q is sitting opposite to him. Who is sitting opposite to L?

317
Statement I: M, who is sitting on the longer side, is sitting immediate next to O. One person is
sitting between M and N who is not sitting at any of the shorter sides.
Statement II: L is sitting immediate right of M who is sitting on the longer side. P is not sitting
opposite to M.
253. Seven persons - A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit in a linear row facing the north direction but not
necessarily in the same order. D sits third to the left of C. What is the position of F with respect
to G?
Statement I: Five persons sit between A and C, who sits immediate right of B. Two persons sit
between A and D. B sits adjacent to F.
Statement II: Four persons sit between B and E, who does not sit at the end of the row. A does
not sit adjacent to E. G sits second to the right of A.
254. Six boxes, A, B, C, D, E and F, are kept one above the other, such that the box which is at the
bottommost position is numbered as 1, the box which is above it is numbered as 2 and so on.
How many boxes are there between C and F?
Statement I: A is an even numbered box. B is immediately above A. C is a prime numbered box.
There is one box between C and D.
Statement II: E is an even numbered box. There are three boxes between E and F. C is a prime
number box above F. D is an odd numbered box but not immediately above A. There is one box
between B and C.
255. Eight persons, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and Ssit around a square table and face towards the centre of
the table. Four persons sit on the corner while remaining sit on the middle of the side of the
table. How many persons sit between P and L, when counted from the right of P?
Statement I:L, who sits at the corner, faces R. N sits immediate right of O but not at the corner.
M sits second to the right of L. P sits opposite to Q.
Statement II:O faces M, who sits at the corner. R sits second to the left of O. P sits third to the
left of R. Q sits second to the left of N. L does not sit adjacent to S.
256. In a certain code language,
“Trek places in India” is coded as “rnr, knr, lnr, mnr”.
“Kheerganga trek is easy” is coded as “pnr, mnr, qnr, onr”.
What is the code for “Kedarkantha trek hard”?
Statement I: “kedarkantha are in India” is coded as “rnr, knr, bnr, snr” in the same coding
language.
Statement II: “Trek are hard” is coded as “snr, jnr, mnr” in the same coding language.
257. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F visit Zoo on six different days starting from Wednesday to next
Monday. Who visits Zoo immediately after A?
Statement I: B visits 3 days before D. Only two persons visit between E and F, who visits after
Saturday. A visits just after E. C doesn’t visit before E.
Statement II: A visits 2 days before F. C visits just after F. Only two persons visit between B and
D. E visits before D.

318
Directions (258-259): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
The question given below consists of three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. Read all
the statements and give answer.
258. Seven persons (A, B, C, D, E, F and G) sit in a linear row and face in north direction, but not
necessarily in the same order. How many persons sit between D and B?
Statement I: Only 2 persons sit to the right of D. A sitssecond to the right of B. A doesn’t sit
adjacent to D.
Statement II: Two persons sit between F and A. F sits adjacent to D. More than 3 persons sit
between F and B.
Statement III: G sits third to the left of C. B sits immediate left of E. Two persons sit between E
and D, who sits right of B.
(a) Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Data given in statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question
(c) Data given in statement I alone or statement II alone or statement III alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
(d) Data given in either statement II alone or III alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Data given in either statement I or statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question.
259. Six persons J, K, L, M, N and O sit around an equilateral triangle shaped table. Three of them sit
at each corner while others sit at the middle of each side. Each of them faces towards the centre.
Who sits immediate right of M?
Statement I: L sits immediate left of J, who sits at a corner. Two persons sit between L and O
(from either side). M sits adjacent to O.
Statement II: J sits third to right of M. L sits second to the right of M. O sits third to the left of L,
who sits on of the sides.
Statement III: N is fourth to the right of M. O sits immediate right of N. L sits third to the left of
O, who sits at a corner.
(a) Data given in only statements I and II are together sufficient to answer.
(b) Data given in any of the statements I or II or III alone is sufficient to answer.
(c) Data given in all three statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer.
(d) Data given in either statement I and III together or statement II and III together are sufficient
to answer the question.
(e) Data given in all three statements I, II and III together are not sufficient to answer.
260. Three words i.e., word 1, word 2 and word 3, having six letters each are given below. The
3rdletter and the 5th letter of each word of word 1 and word 3 are replaced by their nearest
vowel as per English alphabetical series (from A-Z), either in the forward direction or in the
backward direction. Similarly, the 2nd letter, 3rd letter and the 5th letter of the word 2 is
replaced by the nearest vowel as per English alphabetical series (A-Z). Which of the following
statements is correct?
Word 1: STSPKD
Word 2: HDBVMN
Word 3: FLQWWR

319
(a) Only word 1 and word 3 form a meaningful word after rearrangement.
(b) Only word 2 forms a meaningful word after rearrangement.
(c) Only word 1 forms a meaningful word after rearrangement.
(d) Only word 2 and word 3 form a meaningful word after rearrangement.
(e) Neither of the words from a meaningful word after rearrangement

Directions (261-262): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In the question below, two statements (I) and (II) are given. These statements may be either
independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these
statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of
the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
(b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
(c) Both the statements I and II are independent causes
(d) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
(e) Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause
261. I. The Meteorological department has warned about increase in temperature and the
prevalence of loo in the coming week.
II. The district magistrate has ordered that the all the schools would remain close for a week.
262. I. The government has revised the growth rate estimate for the monsoon quarter.
II. The meteorological department has said that the rainfall during monsoon is going to be lower
than expected.
263. In the question given below, a passage is given followed by three statements which may or may
not be a suitable course(s) of action. Select the correct combination of statements that follow
as a suitable course(s) of action.
The food inflation has skyrocketed in recent weeks. This is due to the sudden increase in prices
of grains, especially pulses. The lower than expected monsoon in the states of Madhya Pradesh
and Rajasthan has led to a fall of almost 30% in the production of pulses. As the common man
feels the heat of the rising prices, the government is contemplating a range of measures to
reduce inflation.
1. The government should reduce the import duty for pulses.
2. The government should reduce import quota for pulses.
3. The government should take measures to spread the cultivation of pulses to other states of
the country.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 2
(d) 2 and 3 (e) 1 and 3
264. In the question below, a premise is given, followed by statements which may or may not be
assumptions on which the statement lies. From the options below, choose the one that reflects
the correct choice of assumption that follows.

320
The district of Salampur has seen a spike in the incidents of gang-related violence. The residents
claim that they are living in a state of fear and are afraid to leave their houses at night. They are
demanding an increase in police presence in the towns. They are also demanding more frequent
police patrols at night.
1. The police presence will act as a deterrent for the criminals.
2. The police will be able to stop or catch the criminals.
3. Increasing police presence will increase the fatality rate in police operations.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 2
(d) 2 and 3 (e) Only 3
265. In the question given below, a passage is given followed by three statements which may or may
not be a suitable course(s) of action. Select the correct combination of statements that follow
as a suitable course(s) of action.
The cold wave has intensified across North India with the minimum temperature dipping to
4oC in Delhi. This has resulted in 40 deaths due to cold in the last one week. Amid widespread
criticism, the state government has now decided to take measures to prevent cold-related
deaths.
1. Provide more blankets to the poor and homeless.
2. Provide potable drinking water to those who cannot afford clean water.
3. Build more shelters containing beds and blankets, to the homeless.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 3 (c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3 (e) 1, 2 and 3
266. In the question given below, a passage is given followed by statements which may or may not
be inferred from the passage. Select the correct combination of statements that can be inferred.
Children are generally considered to be too young to make important decisions for themselves,
and so decision-making falls to parents, teachers, etc. For child performers, there are additional
decision-makers: their agents. Since agents benefit financially from the child’s getting a role or
doing well in a sporting event, there is a definite risk of exploitation.
1. Financial gain can act as a motive for a person to exploit someone.
2. Parents and teachers usually do not exploit children.
3. Child performers have a greater risk of getting exploited than other children.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2 (c) Only 1 and 3
(d) Only 2 and 3 (e) All 1, 2 and 3
267. As per certain surveys, the best-selling beverage is lime soda, although those who prefer fruit
juice rarely go for lime soda. Thus, it can be said that on an average, at restaurants, lemon tarts
sell better than fruit salads.
Which of the following is an assumption upon which the author of the argument relies?
(a) People who prefer lime soda also tend to like fruit salads.
(b) Because someone prefers lime soda does not mean he prefers lemon tarts.
(c) Preferences for certain beverages are similar to preferences for food at restaurants.
(d) Someone who prefers lime soda may still order fruit salad on occasion.
(e) Those who prefer neither lime soda nor fruit juice also prefer other delicacies offered at
restaurants.

321
268. While accepting the fact that it is a difficult task to maintain quality of service at the same time
that the amount of subsidy the taxpayers give the railway network is reduced, the railway
spokesperson added that over the recent years, there has been an increase in the number of
passengers travelling by railways despite the subsidy reductions. On this basis, he has
concluded that the quality of service provided by railways has been satisfactory.
The spokesperson’s argument is based on which one of the following assumptions?
(a) It is impossible to reduce subsidies to the railroad network without some effect on the
quality of service.
(b) The quality of service on the trains must have improved in spite of subsidy reductions.
(c) Some people refuse to travel by train if they are dissatisfied with the quality of service.
(d) The increase in the number of passengers will increase revenue sufficiently to offset the
subsidy reductions.
(e) Taxpayers do not wish to have their taxes raised to subsidize the railroads.
269. Some of the world’s most beautiful dogs are German dogs. However, it must be acknowledged
that all German dogs are pompous, and pompous dogs are invariably irritating.
If the statements above are true, each of the following must also be true on the basis of them
EXCEPT:
(a) Some irritating dogs are among the world’s most beautiful dogs.
(b) Some pompous dogs are among the world’s most beautiful dogs.
(c) Any dog that is not irritating is not a German dog.
(d) Some irritating and beautiful dogs are not German dogs.
(e) Some of the world’s most beautiful dogs are irritating.
270. As per a recent study, the average time spend on reading by a literate person today is less than
the average literate person did 40 years ago. In spite of this, many more books are sold per year
now than were sold 40 years ago.
Each of the following, if true, help resolve the apparent discrepancy above EXCEPT:
(a) People who read books 40 years ago were more likely to read books borrowed from
libraries than are people who read books today.
(b) People of 40 years ago were more likely than people are today to display large collections
of books as a sign of education and good taste.
(c) Books sold now tend to be shorter and easier to read that were books sold 40 years ago.
(d) The average scholar or other person who uses books professionally today owns and
consults many more different books than did the average scholar or similar professional
40 years ago.
(e) The population of the literate people is significantly larger today than it was 40 years ago.

Directions (271-273): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
When a number and word arrangement machine is given an input line of numbers and words it
arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement.
Input: different 543 persons 945 share 812 personality 789 putter 625

322
Step I: dÿ#r#nt 812 p#rs&ns 543 sh@r# 625 p#rs&n@l%ty 945 p$tt#r 789
Step II: g%ii#u#qw 161 s#uv&qv 154 vk@u# 302 s#uv&q@o%wb 454 s$ww#u 638
Step III: s#uv&qv vk@u# s$ww#u s#uv&q@o%wb g%ii#u#qw 154 161 302 454 638
Step IV: v#uv&qs #k@uv u$ww#s b#uv&q@o%ws w%ii#u#qg 451 161 203 454 836
Step V: Ω#ΩΩ&ΩΩ #Ω@ΩΩ Ω$ΩΩ$Ω Ω#ΩΩ&Ω@Ω%ΩΩ Ω%ΩΩ#Ω#ΩΩ µ µ ¥ ¥ ¥
And the step V is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above step, find
out each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: monkey 344 pox 864 viral 962 disease 457 cautious 553
271. What is the sum of the largest and smallest number in Step IV of the given input after the
rearrangement?
(a) 1044 (b) 1102 (c) 1133
(d) 1003 (e) None of the above
272. Which of the following element is 3rd last element from the right end of the given input in Step
V after the rearrangement?
(a) Ω@$Ω%&$$ (b) Ω@ΩΩ%&$Ω (c) Ω@$Ω%&$Ω
(d) #%Ω #@ΩΩ (e) µ
273. Which of the following is Step III of the given input after the rearrangement?
(a) p&qn#b h%v#@v# e@$w%&$v s&a y%u@o 124 155 186 285 326
(b) p&qn#b g%v#@v# f@$w%&$v s&a o%u@v 124 155 186 285 623
(c) p&qn#b g%v#@v# f@$w%&$v s&a y%u@o 421 155 681 285 326
(d) p&qn#b g%v#@v# f@$w%&$v s&a y%u@o 124 155 186 285 326
(e) None of the above

Directions (274-277): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
When a word arrangement machine is given an input line of words, it arranges them following a
certain rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Read the following
information and answer the following questions.
INPUT: Square 65 Triangle 43 Rectangle 17 Hexagon 52 Cylinder 91
Step 1: 19 Square 65 43 Rectangle 17 Hexagon 52 Cylinder Triangle
Step 2: 19 9 65 43 18 17 12 52 12 15
Step 3: 52 18 12 12 9 15 17 19 43 65
Step 4: 14 12 6 6 12 8 10 12 15 33
Step 5: 19 3 6 4 4
Step 6: 14 22
Step 7: 8
Step 7 is the final output.
Find the output for the given input.
INPUT: Forward 46 Normal 89 Distance 27 Velocity 92 Garage 34
274. What is the final output of the given input?
(a) 54 (b) 45 (c) 57
(d) 43 (e) 37

323
275. What is the third element from the right end in step-3?
(a) 27 (b) 15 (c) 9
(d) 10 (e) 19
276. What is the sum of the numbers which are second from both the ends in step 4?
(a) 16 (b) 37 (c) 33
(d) 40 (e) 21
277. What is the number repeated in step 5?
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 42
(d) 4 (e) None of the above.

Directions (278-281): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
A number and word arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers and words
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input
rearrangement.
Input: 356836 599832 137223 612573 213743 436587
Step I: 356836 599832 612573 213743 436587 733221
Step II: 356836 599832 612573 436587 733221 743321
Step III: 599832 612573 436587 733221 743321 866533
Step IV: 599832 612573 733221 743321 866533 876543
Step V: 612573 733221 743321 866533 876543 998532
Step VI: 733221 743321 866533 876543 998532 765321
Step VII: 411 301 210 111 031 121
Step VIII: 06 04 03 03 04 04
And the step VIII is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above step,
find out each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: 515227 897212 263471 932181 454159 762316
278. How many steps are required to get the final step of the given input?
(a) Six (b) Seven (c) Eight
(d) Nine (e) None of the above
279. How many numbers are smaller than ‘6’ in the final step of the given input?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four
(d) Five (e) More than five
280. Which of the following is the second last step of the given input?
(a) 112 413 231 131 151 110 (b) 111 413 234 131 151 110
(c) 111 413 231 131 152 110 (d) 111 413 231 131 151 110
(e) None of the above
281. What is the sum of all the digits of the fourth number from the left end in step IV of the given
input?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 32
(d) 33 (e) None of these

324
Directions (282-286): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
The question given below consists of two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to
decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both
the statements and give answer.
(a) Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(b) Data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(c) Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(d) Data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(e) Data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
282. There are six batsmen (S, T, U, V, W and X) who scored different number of runs in the match.
Who is the highest scorer?
Statement I: X scored more runs than W but scored less number of runs than T and U. V, who is
the second highest scorer, scored more number of runs than S and T.
Statement II: S scored more runs than W but scored less number of runs X and U. T scored more
number of runs than at least three batsmen.
283. Four persons A, C, J and P are of different ages and like different colours. C likes blue. A is
immediately older than C. The youngest person likes black. The one who likes white is younger
than the one who likes red. Which colour does the second youngest person like?
Statement I: A is older than P.
Statement II: J does not like white.
284. Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V were seated in a row facing the North. Who was seated
exactly in the middle of the row?
Statement I: U was 3rd to the left of V and neither of them were seated at the extreme ends. R
was 2nd to the left of P. Q was seated at one of the extreme ends. Number of persons to the left
of S was twice as that of the number of persons to the right of P.
Statement II: P was to the immediate left of T who was 3rd to the right of R. Q was seated at one
of the extreme ends. U was 3rd to the right of Q's neighbour.
285. Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table, four are at the centers of
the sides and four are at the corners. Who among them are facing the centre?
Statement I: People sitting at the sides are facing the Centre and the ones at the corners are
facing opposite to the Centre, 'B' and 'C' are facing each other.
Statement II: 'H' is sitting second to the right of 'B', 'A' is sitting third to the left of 'G', who is at
a corner.
26. Six teams India, China, USA, Italy, Japan, and Korea competed in Commonwealth Games and
secured different number of Gold medals. Which team has secured the 3rd highest number of
Gold medals?
Statement I: China secured more medals than Italy, which secured more medals than USA. Only
India secured more medals than Korea. Japan secured more medals than Italy.
Statement II: Italy secured more medals than only USA. Japan secured more medals than only
two teams. Korea secured more medals than China.

325
Directions (287-291): Below questions consists of one question followed by statements. Study the
following information carefully and decide which of the following statement is sufficient to answer the
question.
287. Height of seven persons viz.- P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are different. How many persons are taller
than Q?
(a) Only two persons are taller than R. Q is taller than S and U but not as much as V.
(b) Only one person is shorter than S. Two persons having height in between S and R. Q is taller
than S and C. U but not as much as T and P, who is shorter than R.
(d) Only three persons are taller than P. The number of persons taller than R is the same as the
number of persons shorter than U, who is not the shortest person.
(e) R is only shorter to T and V but not as much as S and Q, who is not the shortest person.
288. Eight persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting around a circular table facing the center. Who
among the person sits facing R?
(a) The one who sits facing S sits third to the left of W. U neither sits adjacent to W nor S. U sits
third to the left of T, who doesn’t sit adjacent to W.
(b) Three persons are sitting between P and T, who sits second to the right of Q. W neither sits
adjacent to P nor Q, who sits third to the left of R.
(c) V sits third to the right of P. Neither V nor P sits adjacent to R, who sits third to the right of
Q. One person sits between S and R.
(d) S sits third to the right of T, who sits immediate left of R. U neither sits adjacent to T nor S.
U sits second to the left of V.
(e) None of these
289. Seven persons – A, D, G, I, Q, T, and W were born on a different day of the same month starting
from Monday to Sunday. Who among the person was born immediately after W?
(a) Four persons were born between T and I, either of them was born on Monday. Q was born
on Wednesday. Two persons were born between Q and T, who was born immediately
before G.
(b) Three persons were born between G and Q, none of them was born on Tuesday. One person
was born between G and A, who was born four persons after I.
(c) Three persons were born between I and A, who was born on Friday. Neither W nor Q was
born on Tuesday. W was born three days before G, who was not born on Saturday.
(d) Four persons were born between I and T, who was born immediately after A. One person
was born between A and Q, who was not born immediately after W.
(e) None of these
290. Seven persons – C, E, H, J, M, R, and Z are sitting in a row facing north, How many persons are
sitting between J and Z?
(a) J sits third from the left end. Three persons are sitting between J and H. Neither H nor J sits
adjacent to Z.
(b) Three persons are sitting between Z and R, who sits at one of the ends. Neither J nor H sits
adjacent to Z.
(c) Z sits third from the right end. Two persons are sitting between Z and E, who sits fifth to the
left of H.
(d) Two persons are sitting between E and Z, who sits third from the right end. Neither E nor Z
sits adjacent to H.
(e) None of these

326
291. There are six members in the family. Two married couples and each married couple have at
least one child. How Q is related to R?
(a) R is the mother of Q. U is the son of R’s only son.
(b) U is the son of Q’s brother. M is the only son of E, who is the father-in-law of T.
(c) T is the only daughter-in-law of E. M is the father of U, who is the nephew of Q.
(d) U is the daughter of Q’s brother. M is the only son of E, who is married to R.
(e) None of these
292. In the question given below, a passage is given followed by three statements which may or may
not be inferred from the passage. Select the correct combination of statements that can be
inferred.
India’s merchandise exports shot up to a record $36 billion in July, signalling a sustained rise in
demand for Indian products in key Western markets despite high freight costs and supply chain
bottlenecks. Preliminary data released by the commerce ministry showed the trade deficit
shrank to $20 billion as exports picked up pace while imports eased to $56 billion during the
month.
I. Indian products in Western markets are priced more competitively as compared to their
rivals.
II. A country’s trade deficit always decreases with the increase in its exports.
III. High freight costs have a negative impact on a country’s exports.
(a) Only I (b) Only III (c) Only II and III
(d) Only I and II (e) All I, II and III
293. In the question given below, a passage is given followed by three statements which may or may
not be inferred from the passage. Select the correct combination of statements that can be
inferred.
The number of US firms with regional headquarters in Hong Kong has fallen to an 19-year low,
fuelling arguments that the city’s national security campaign and ‘covid zero’ strategy are
eroding its appeal as a global financial centre. There were 254 US firms with regional hubs in
Hong Kong as of 1 June, compared with 282 a year ago. That marked a 10% drop from last year,
and the lowest number since 2003, when there were 242 US firms based in the city. At the same
time, the number of mainland Chinese firms rose by 5% last year, totalling 252. Mainland
Chinese and US firms now account for an equal share—17%—of regional headquarters in the
city.
I. Hong Kong’s national security campaign preceded the exodus of US firms from the city.
II. In the last year, the share of mainland Chinese companies in the number of regional
headquarters in Hong Kong was 12%.
III. The number of US firms with regional headquarters in Hong Kong has never been lower
than 242.
(a) Only II (b) Only I (c) Only I and II
(d) Only II and III (e) All I, II and III
294. In the question given below, a passage is given followed by three statements which may or may
not be inferred from the passage. Select the correct combination of statements that can be
inferred.
As the world gets increasingly digitised, data centres and server farms are proliferating. All
computers consume energy and generate heat. But few people realise just how much energy is
consumed and heat is generated by the humongous data centres that Big Tech companies like
Amazon, Microsoft, Google or Facebook use. Millions of litres of water are often required to
keep them cool, particularly if the data centres are not set up in extremely cold regions.

327
I. Data centres are generally not located in extremely cold regions.
II. The environmental cost of establishing data centres is generally overlooked.
III. Data centres may cause water stress in a region if their location research is not conducted
before their establishment.
(a) Only I (b) Only III (c) Only II
(d) Only II and III (e) All I, II and III
295. In the question given below, a passage is given followed by three statements. Read the passage
and answer the question that follow.
Not being able to use oxygen makes acetogens less efficient at building biomass; they are slow
growers. But interestingly, it makes them more efficient producers. Acetogens are potentially
up to twice as efficient as most current industrial processes - which makes them a cheaper and
more environmentally friendly option.
Which of the following statement/s weaken/s the argument given above?
I. If solar energy was used to provide renewable hydrogen for use in gas fermentation (via
acetogens), food crops would have an overall energy efficiency closer to 10-15%.
II. Gas fermentation currently is not done commercially with carbon dioxide, despite this being
a much larger emission source than carbon monoxide.
III. A typical food crop's energy efficiency (where sunlight is turned into a product) may be
around 1%.
(a) None of I, II and III (b) Only III (c) Only I
(d) Only I and III (e) Only II
296. In the question below, a statement is followed by three assumptions I II and III. An assumption
is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the given
assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Energy consumption involves release of greenhouse gases resulting in global warming. Hence,
it is the contention of the underdeveloped nations that the economically developed countries
must make a higher contribution to funds constituted towards taking measures to fight global
warming.
Which of the following is an assumption in the above argument?
I. Developed nations are rich and hence can contribute more liberally to funds required for
fighting global warming.
II. Energy consumption varies directly as the economic status of a nation.
III. Fighting global warming needs huge funds which can be contributed only by the developed
nations.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only III
(d) Both I & II (e) Both I & III
297. In the question below, a statement is followed by some conclusions. A conclusion is something
you draw out of the given statement. You have to consider the statement and the given
conclusion and decide which of the conclusion is implicit in the statement.
Ludwig Wittgenstein stands out as the one whose life fascinates almost as much as his work
does. Even the life of Martin Heidegger, with his controversial Nazi connections and his later
attempt to live the authentic life of a peasant, looks dull and suburban by comparison.
Which of the following is an inference that can be drawn from the above paragraph?

328
(a) Wittgenstein and Heidegger were both Germans
(b) Heidegger and Wittgenstein were both involved in a common experiences of human
endeavour.
(c) Both Wittgenstein and Heidegger had peasant origins but Wittgenstein had an urban
upbringing.
(d) Heidegger was a Nazi sympathizer while Wittgenstein was against it.
(e) None of the above
298. In the question below, a situation is given. Among the given options, select the possible reason
or a combination of possible reasons for the situation in the question.
The sale of human organs offers a possible solution to this crippling shortage of organs. There
is already an established black market trade in organs.
I. It is important for the donor and recipient to have the same blood type and similar genetic
make-up in order to minimize the change of the receiver's body rejecting the organ.
II. The number of patients who require organ transplants exceeds the number of organs
available
III. The public sale of sale of human organs is illegal and thus banned by the government.
Which of the following can be possible reason(s) for the existence of black market in sale of
human organs?
(a) I and III only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only
(d) III only (e) All I, II and III

Directions (299-300): Read the following information’s carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In the question below, two statements (I) and (II) are given. These statements may be either
independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these
statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of
the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
(b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
(c) Both the statements I and II are independent causes
(d) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
(e) Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause
299. I. ABC Pvt. Ltd., a catering company providing meals in Malta’s trains, has plans to reduce the
serving size in its long-haul trains.
II. ABC Pvt. Ltd. has decided to replace bottled drinking water, which is provided with meals, with
water dispensers which will be installed in all the coaches.
300. I. In a bid to attract top-ranking foreign higher educational institutes to set up their campuses
in India, the government has set up a committee to prepare rules and regulations for these
foreign institutes.
II. An increasing number of Indians are now going abroad for their higher studies, which leads to the
outflow of foreign capital from India, putting pressure on the domestic currency.

329
Solutions
Solutions:
1. (d) 2. (e) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c)
6. (a) 7. (e) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (e) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a)
16. (e) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (e) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b)
26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (e) 34. (c) 35. (e)
36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (e) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (a)
46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (e) 55. (b)
56. (c) 57. (e) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (a)
66. (e) 67. (e) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (e)
71. (e) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (a)
76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (d) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (e) 85. (c)
86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (e) 90. (e)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (d)
96. (a) 97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100.(c)
101.(d) 102.(a) 103.(a) 104. (b) 105.(e)
106.(b) 107.(d) 108.(c) 109. (a) 110.(d)
111.(e) 112.(c) 113.(a) 114. (e) 115.(b)
116.(e) 117.(d) 118.(b) 119. (a) 120.(e)
121.(d) 122.(c) 123.(a) 124. (d) 125.(d)
126.(e) 127.(d) 128.(b) 129. (a) 130.(d)
131.(a) 132.(e) 133.(b) 134. (e) 135.(c)
136.(d) 137.(d) 138.(e) 139. (e) 140.(c)
141.(d) 142.(c) 143.(a) 144. (d) 145.(b)
146.(e) 147.(e) 148.(d) 149. (d) 150.(d)
151.(d) 152.(b) 153.(c) 154. (d) 155.(e)
156.(e) 157.(a) 158.(b) 159. (c) 160.(d)
161.(c) 162.(e) 163.(b) 164. (e) 165.(b)
166.(a) 167.(c) 168.(e) 169. (c) 170.(a)
171.(c) 172.(d) 173.(d) 174. (c) 175.(e)
176.(c) 177.(e) 178.(d) 179. (c) 180.(d)
181.(d) 182.(c) 183.(b) 184. (a) 185.(e)
186.(a) 187.(c) 188.(c) 189. (b) 190.(e)
191.(c) 192.(e) 193.(a) 194. (e) 195.(b)
196.(b) 197.(d) 198.(a) 199. (e) 200.(a)

330
201.(c) 202.(d) 203.(b) 204. (b) 205.(c)
206.(e) 207.(c) 208.(e) 209. (b) 210.(b)
211.(a) 212.(d) 213.(a) 214. (d) 215.(b)
216.(d) 217.(c) 218.(b) 219. (d) 220.(b)
221.(b) 222.(a) 223.(d) 224. (a) 225.(c)
226.(e) 227.(c) 228.(a) 229. (b) 230.(a)
231.(c) 232.(b) 233.(e) 234. (c) 235.(c)
236.(c) 237.(d) 238.(e) 239. (e) 240.(a)
241.(a) 242.(c) 243.(c) 244. (e) 245.(a)
246.(d) 247.(a) 248.(d) 249. (a) 250.(b)
251.(a) 252.(d) 253.(b) 254. (a) 255.(a)
256.(a) 257.(e) 258.(e) 259. (d) 260.(c)
261.(a) 262.(b) 263.(e) 264. (b) 265.(d)
266.(c) 267.(c) 268.(c) 269. (d) 270.(b)
271.(b) 272.(c) 273.(d) 274. (c) 275.(a)
276.(b) 277.(d) 278.(c) 279. (b) 280.(d)
281.(b) 282.(a) 283.(d) 284. (b) 285.(e)
286.(e) 287.(b) 288.(d) 289. (c) 290.(a)
291.(e) 292.(b) 293.(b) 294. (d) 295.(a)
296.(b) 297.(b) 298.(c) 299. (d) 300.(b)

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