05/03/2021 [(coaea] ® Aakash MedicalllIT-JEE| Foundations Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Ph. 011-47623486 uu:720 NEET BOOSTER TEST SERIES (NBTS) for NEET-2021 = timo: 3.00 Hrs. Test -12 Topics Covered: Complete Syllabus of Class-X! & Xi (NEET Pattern) Instructions : (Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (i) Mark should be dark and should completely fil the circle. (ii) Dark only ore circle for each entry. (iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only. te-fluid or any other rubbing (v) Rough work must not be done on the” Answer sheet and do not use whit material on Answer sheet. (v)_Each question caries 4 marks. For every wrong sponse 1 mark shall be deducted from (ola S00"? Choose the correct answer: 4. Ifa physical quantity is given by the percentage errors of measurement in a, b, ¢ and d are respectively 2%, 1%, 9% and 4%. Maximum percentage error in the value of x will be akg 3Kg (i) 8% 2) 3% (1) Skg wt (2) 5 kg wt (3) 12% (4y18% (@) Bkg wt (4) 3.75 kg wt 2. Which of the following curve can't represent | 4. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The motion in one dimension? coefficient of static friction between the mass and iY “ty floor is 0.6, A force F is acting on it as shown in 7 eae the tgue. The fstonal ore on the Blocks F=8N te 2g) ? ? v uy (1) Zero (2) 12N (3) 2N (4) 8N @ « 5, Aball is dropped from a height of 100 m, Due to 7 collision with the floor it loses its 20% kinetic t ‘energy. Alter collision ball will rise to a height of 3. If all the pulleys and strings are ideal, then the @ulaom 7 reading of spring balance In given situation is (2) 20m (g= 10 mvs?) @) 40m (4) 50mTest-12 (Code-A) 6 A bullet of mass m moving with velocity v horizontally strikes. another object of mass 3m suspended vertically with a thread as shown. If bullets remain embedded in the object then find the minimum value of v so that composite body can completes its vertical circular path. —¥ Q3m ™ (1) Sai (2) JTégi (3) 2091 (4) /80g7 7. A‘T shaped rod is placed in xy plane as shown in the figure. If the rod is uniform and both parts are of equal length L and mass m then distance of centre of mass of the system from origin will be (ignore thickness of the rod) ay @s a = (3) 4v2 o> 8 The moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is /. Four such spheres are arranged as! shown in the figure. The moment of inertia’of the system about the axis XX’ will be. . x: (1) 131 ase (3) 171 (4) 191 A satelite of mass “ is revolving around the Planet of mass M in a circular orbit of radius R. Then its angular momentum is (1) [SPR (2) ete 4 9) [SaeR 5 i a () Jee 13. NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 10. The motion of a particle is expressed by the equation @ = ~ bx, where a is the acceleration and x is the displacement from the equilibrium position and b is constant. Time period of the particle will be (1) 2nvb (2) 2n/b (3) 2n/vo (4) V2n7b If two waves represented by y, = 4 sin(at + kx) and Jp = 3sin (ot + kx + n/3) interfere at a point, then amplitude of the resulting wave will be closest to (7 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 11 ‘An earthquake generates both transverse (S) and fongitudinal (P) sound waves in the earth. The speed of the S waves is about 4.5 km/s and that of P waves Is about 8.0 km/s. A Selsmograph records P and S waves from an earthquake. The first wave P arrives 4 minutes before the first S wave. The epicentre of the earthquake is located ata distance avout (1) 25 km (2) 1200 km (3) 800 km (4) 2500 km A cable that can support a maximum load of 240 kg is cutinto, wo equal parts. The maximum load that can beisupported by either part is (1) eoKam A S52) 12049 (3), 240 ka (ay 480.kg 4A lijuld nai, 3:36 Is filed in © U-tube, Upto a”length\of40 cm height, which Contains mercury. Another liquid 8 is filled in Clher arm of U-tube"to a height of 8 om. If upper @yid'B are same then density of liquid 11. 12, * foveal Bi. (6g Be 6 gicm*) oA Xo ) 176 gle? (2) 0.6 gfcm? ~ (8) 1.36 glem® (4) 0.8 yrari? [ Two Camot engines X and Y are operated in succession. The first engine X receives heat from a source at T: = 800 K and rejects to sink at Ta K. The second engine Y receives heat rejected by the first engine and rejects to another sink at Ta = 300 K. If the work output of two engines are equal, then the value of Tz is (1) 550K (2) 460K (3) 1100K (4) 1600 K 16. A uniform electric field of 40 N/C exists along the x-axis in a space. The potential difference (Va - Va) for the points A(4 m, 3 m) and B(8 m, 6 m) will be (1) 120V. (3) -160V (2) 160 (4) -120Vv (2)NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 17. A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a square plate of copper. The electie fold ave Point very close to the centre of the plate is 40 Vim. If the copper plate is replaced by a paper Plate of identical dimensions and carrying the same charge Q uniformly distributed, then the electric field at the point P will be (1) 80 vim (2) 40. Vim (3) 20 Vim (4) 10 Vim 18. If capacitance between two successive plates in given arrangement is C, then equivalent Capacitance between the points A and B, willbe a 6 3c 2c 1) 3E 2) 26 > as c ‘ a) & (3) 2c > 19. An electrical circuit is given in the figure. Power developed in the 1 ohm resistance wil be maximum if value of Xis x +H A tL 100 20Vv 40 10% [+ ——— 8 EE 40 (1) 102 @ 40 @) 19 (4) Zero 20. In the given circuit, the value. of reading of ‘ammeter (ideal) is ; 30 10 Of me TP 20 20 | Gy 169 (1) 06a (2) 1A @) 04 (4) 144 21. A conductor camying current / is bent in the shape as shown in the figure. Common centre of all the three arcs is O. Magnetic field intensity at the point O is, @) 22. 23, 24, Test-12 (Code-A) 0, LE SIRT a) 210 seer aw gl Sul &) ear © Dax In the figure given below the magnet is moved towards the stationary coll with speed v and induced emf in the col isc. Now, f magnet and Coil both recede away from one another, each moving, with speed. 2v (Same postin), then induced emt inthe col wil be 4) = M4 (2) = 5 68) 4 @e In an AC circuit, current is given by the function {= 80 sin (100xt). The time required for the current to achieve its peak value from t= 0, wil be 0 (2) (3) « ‘An_slectromagneic pulse having intensity of 1200 Wim? Is incident on a metal surface. If pulse afler normal incidence over the plate reflects back completely, then force applied by pulse on the metal surface will be (Given surface area of metal is 2 m®) (1) 0.8 10-°N (2) 0.8% 10°N (3) 1.6% 109N (4) 1.8% 105Test-12 (Code-A) 25. A light ray i incident on the compote ab os shou in the figure. Anglo made by the light 2 with the normal in medium 3 will be a waz 2 weg neo 4 a sion (2) se'(35) omg) om (8) 26. Ifthe de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the a ‘second Bohr's orbit is : oo ms es (3) 2m oe ¢ 27. The half life of Co is approximateiy 5.25 years. Ina sample containing 1 g of freshly prepared 59C9, how much of the isotove will be.left after,| 21 years? = (1) 16 mg (2) 31.25 mg (3) 62.5 mg (4) 6.25 mg 5 The stopping potential Vo, for an experiment of photoelectric effect from as metal, surface,, is plotted with frequency v of incident light as shown in the figure. Wi 28. Planck's constant is given by (1) Slope of the line divided by the charge on an NEET Boostor Test Saves (NBTS) for NEET-2004, 29. A particle in a certain conservative force field has @ potential energy given by U=12%2 The force y exerted on itis 10x a) 1055, y 102; 402+ zi ¥ 40x25 10x, 102} , xz] _10x5 y ~oy 102; , 10x25 10% y @ Noy @ “ y In an NPN transistor the collector current is 24 1A. If 80% of electrons reach collector, its emitter current in mA is (1) 36 2) 30 (3) 24 (4) 64 Of the diodes shown In the following diagrams, which one is reversed biased? 30. 3t R +15V ‘The total energy of an electron in its n excited 32. slate of hydrogen atom is K. Its kinetic energy in this state is (1) -K (2) Ka 2K a) 2K (3) 2K as 33. A man weighing 60 kg stands on a weighing electron line multiplied by the charge on scale in a lift which is moving upwards with @ 2 Se eee seal 8 Maton of © mee, ol on te (3) Intercept cut by the line on y-axis weighing scale will be (9 = 10 hid E 1) 24 kg (2) 60kg i is and charge of r (4) ee on yrari ee o (4)36, 36, 37. 38, Fewound so as to hy a currents base ght 3 ts and te sae feld at the centre ig" The new magnetic (1) Bag r 2) 98 (3) Bs @) 3% A Coil in the shay side ‘L’ is suspen a permanent magnet such that magnetic field B is in the plane of the coil. If due to a current J in {he triangle a torque + acts on it, the side L of the triangle is Pe of an equilateral triangle of \ded between the pole pieces of Ayia 2x ° Fis ® Ge 2c : : OV 66 © Re ‘A convex lens of focal length f= 20 cm is placed in front of a plane mirror as shown in the figure. x— An object ‘O’ is placed in front of convex lens. For ‘what value of x final image will coincides with the object? (1) 20cm (3) 30cm (4) All of the above a q In the follawing civcuit, the output. ¥. for al possible inputs A and Bis expressed by the truth table faa io (2) 40cm y Y ABY ay ao0 oe (0 10 bp 100 aN 141 saree ABY rane o014 @oio @otd 100 ser dees 110 amo nt. beams _of Two coherent monochromatic tig intensities | and 47 are superimposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are (1) Stand! (3) Stand (2) Stand! (4) 91nd 37 6) 39. The sum of magnitudes of two fox 40. 41 42. 43, Test-t2 (CoderA) Foes acting at a is 8V3N at 90° of smaller magnitude. The two Point is 16 N and their resultant i with the force forces (in N) are. (1) BNand6N (2) 4Nand 10 (3) 3Nand 11.N (4) 2Nand 14 Initial temperature and volume of a gas are T and V respectively. If gas expands to 27 V following the equation VPS = constant, then tal temperature ofthe gas wil become () Ter @) 97 (9) 277 wz For a certain organ pipe, three successive resonance frequencies are ubserved at 425, 595 and 765 Hz respectively. Taking the speed of sound in air to be 340 ms~, the length of the organ pipe is (1) 3m (2) 2m @) 4m (4) 1m A conductor of length 3L carrying a current 1 is placed perpendicular to a long straight conductor AB carrying current 21 as shown in the figure. A 2 et 2 w—> 4.4 —. B ‘The magnitude of force acting on AB is, Ho 2 42/7Ing () S8F In (2) E24Pin2 @ se (3) 42/2in2 ® oe (4) Pina Electrons in a certain energy level a = mi, can emit 3 spectral lines. When they are in another energy level n = na they can emit 6 spectral lines, The ratio of orbital speeds of electrons in the two orbits are in the ratio 3 4 OF (2) 3 16 9 gy & ae @ > 4) 16Test-12 (Code-A) 44. A charge Q is distributed over two concentric hollow spheres of radii r and R (> r) such that the surface densities are equal. The potential at the common centre is aR+r) ) Faery 2) Treg? +7?) QR? +r?) Q ® Greg(R+r)? O Tar NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2921 45, AA concave lens of focal length 10 cm is placed in a liquid such that refractive index of lens and liquid is same. The new focal length of the lens will be (yo 2) © @F (4) 12 48. Number of atoms in 0.2 g molecule of Os is (1) Ne (2) 0.2Na (3) 06% (4) 1.2 47. Orbital in which electron density is not along the axis, is (0 2p. (2) 3p, (8) 4p. (4) 3d, 48. Element of highest electronegativity among the following is ao Qs » oh @) Se (4) Te g 49. Which molecule does not have tetrahedral geometry? (1) CHe (2) NHY (3) PCls (4) Cc 50, Paramagnetic species among the following i, \ | (1) He (2) Ne @) Fe (1.03 RK 51. Density (in g/t) of Ozone at 1 atm'end 207°C)3, » | (1) 122 @ 122, AVC (3) 10.2 (4)°22.2%—" 52. 1 mol of an ideal gas reversibly compressed from 5 L to 0.5 L at 127°C temperature. Work done involves in this process is (1) 921.2R (2) 921.2R (3) -460.6R (4) 460.6 R 53, EAN of metal ion in complex ion [co(co), J" is (1) 27 (2) 38 (3) 36 (4) 37 54, 56. 59, 3 acaic compound among the folowing is (1) HCCkCOOH = (2) FCH:COOH (@) ClcH:COOH (4) CHsCOOH Standard enthalpy of formation is zero for (1) White phosphorous (2) Diamond (8) Hydrogen tqud (4) focine quid Correct order of solubility of salts AgsCOs, AguCr0« and Ag:SOcis (Given : Key (Ag:SOs) > Kip (Ay003) > Kio (Aa:Cro9) (1) AasS04 ABO A6.004 (2) AgiSO1> AGC)» Ag:CrO« (9) AgsC03> Agsci0«3)Ag:S04 es ON, Neaeeee Salt involving anionic hydigiysi. is (1) eticooHe SO") nHuct M: (3). (NHY:SO0" (4) Cole NHC Equimolar aqueous solution of which of the following species has highest hydrogen ion concentration at 298 K? (Given : Ks (HNO2) > Ks (CH:COOH) > Ka (HON) > Ks (CeHsOH)] (1) HNO: (2) CHscooH (3) CeHkOH (4) HON Select the reaction which is not redox among the following, (1) TiClg())+2Mg(s)—> Ti(s)+ 2MaCl(s) (2). r20s(s)+2Al(s) —+Al,03(s)+2Cr(s) (3) 2H,O(I)+Fy(g)——> 4HF (aq) +02(9) (4) AgNO, (aq)+KI(aq)— Agl(s) +KNOs (aq) (6)NEET Booster Tost Sories (NBTS) for NEET-2071 60. E* of cell reaction, Cu(s) +1a(s)—+ cu (ag) +21 (aq), is Test-12 (Code-A) 68. Select the molecule which will give fastest precipitation reaction with AgNOs solution? Br Gas =034 Vande, = 054 v) Oy '@ a a (1) -0.2V (2) 0.88V Br (@) o2v (@) otav 7 a 61. Strength of 2.8 volume solution of hydrogen peroxide is 69. In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen (1) 2% eS present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.5 g of sample neutralised 20 ml of 1 M HCI. The (3) 0.85% (4) 1.7% percentage of nitrogen in the soils 62. Alkali metal of highest density among the (1) 14% (2) 28% following is (3) 56% (4) 50% amu @k 70. Which among the following can exhibit (3) Rb (4) Cs tautomerism? 63. Select the correct statement among the following. th cH, 3 (DUC diqacent oe epsanes et | ig (7) oC tuydrate of LiCl - 2H20 KS 7 (2) Lithium forms ethynide on reaction: » iD cael ethyne 0. Oo (3) LiF is much more soluble in water than LiBr, @) Oe m4) CW (4) Lithium is softest amony alkali metals Ay (1) Plaster of paris CaSOs-% HO towards electrophilic aromatic substitution? (2) Gypsum CaSO+: H20 H, CH(CH,), (4) Teicalcium sifcate : < CasSiOs 65. Diborane on hydrolysis by water gives cca HCH, (1) Boris oxide + Oxygen gas (2) Borazine + Oxygen gas ° @ (3) Boric acid + Hydrogen gas nO, (4) Borie oxide + Hydrogen gee \ 72. Excessive concentration of nitrate in drinking 66. Which species is least Ikely t'exist? eaten cures (1) SiFg- (2) Gece (1) Kidney damage (2) Liver damage @) [sn(or), >) SBE 68) Metheroglobinemia 67. Oxide, which is. distinctly acidic among the (4) Laxaive effet following is 73. Ferrimagnetic substance among the following is (1) co Oo (1) Mo (2) Fes (3) $n0 (4) PbO? (3) CoHe (4) CrOz mTost-12 (Code-A) 74, The vapour pressure of pure liquids A and B respectively are 900 and 800 mmHg. Partial vapour pressure of B in the liquid mixture in which A and B are mixed in the ratio of 2: 3 is (1) 300 mmHg (2) 480 mmHg (3) 840 mmHg (4) 360 mmHg 75. Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode which is placed in solution of pH = 4, is () ov 2) 024 (8) -0s6V (4) -048v 76. Select the ion having maximum limiting molar conductivity (in water) at 298 K among the following (1) Nat an (3) On (4) Br 77. Rate constant (in mol L-! s“) of a zero Order teacon in whieh reactant concenvaton changes frum 0.2 M10 0.08 Min 20 see ie (1) 7.5 (2075 (3) 0.0075, (4) 0.075 |, 78. Maximum coagulating power for codiguaion of congo red sol is of (1) APY (2) Po} (@) Bar (@) soF 78. Vapour phase refining is used fenrefising of |, ~- (1) 2r (2) Fe 4 (3) Zn (4) Cur - 80. In acid solution on See ion 9f tNoe ovide of nitrogen formedis aN (1) Noe 8) (CéisCcHbr 87, ‘Alcoliol “which gives ‘Lucas reagent, is. (4) CHOH (2) CHsCH,OH (3). (CHii:cHon (4) (CHs)sCOH ‘lls tests not given by (1) HCOOH (3) CHsCOCHs immediate turbidity with (2) CHsCHeCHO. (4) PhcHcHo Which ‘amine does not react with Hinsberg’s reagent? (1) CHNHe (2) PhCHaNHe (3) (CHs)sN (4) (Ph)CHNHe Select the correct statement among the following, (1) Nylon 6, 6 is an addition polymer (2) Polyvinyl is a thermosetting polymer (8) Dilute aqueous solution of boric acid is used as a weak antiseptic for eyes (4) Sodium lauryl sulphate is non-ionic detergentNEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-12 (Code-A) 91. Mango and pot \g0 and potato belong to same 98, Select the incorrect statement from the (1) Family (2) Class following (8) Genera (4) Order (1) In spring season, cambium produces vessels 92. The taxonomic aid ‘Key’ is based on the set of that have narrow lumens Contrasting characters. Each character in this set (2) In winter, fewer xylary elements are formed ee : by cambium (2) Couplet oe ee faire (3) Early wood is formed during spring s e 93. In five kingdom classification, Chlamydomunas is (4) Autumn wood is darker in colour and nas 2 placed in kingdom higher density (1) Monera (2) Plantae 99, Consider the following chart (8) Animalia (4) Protista Classes of Major | Stored food ‘94. The following features are related to a fungus algae pigments + Karyogamy is delayed after plasmogamy. (Chlorophyceae A = + Meiospores are formed inside the ascus. emsaphnieeee a eS One of the fungi that exhibits the above give ne of the ang that exe 1e above given eauiniene 5 a (1) Penicitium (2) Atougo ‘Solect the option which is true for A, B, C or D. (8) Agaricus (4) Puccinia (1) A~ Chlorophyll, chlorophyll d and 95, Match the following columns and select, the phycovyanin correctoption, (2) B- Chlorophyll a, chlorophyll cand Column! Column fucoxanthin a. [Pulvinus | ( | Green coloured leat (8) C= Floridean starch like petiole (4) D~ Chlorophyll a, Chlorophyll b and | Lamina {i | Expanded pert of leaf xanthophyll c._| Stipule (ii) | Swollen leaf base 09. In whieh of the following aspects, Cycas is ferent from Pinus? (i ik &. | Phitode | (| Leaf tke strcture at (1) Dependency of female gametophyte on parent sporophyte (alu), BG, ef), Ait) 2) atid; DCW, fv). A) a ») Possessing tap root system {@) aliv), be, eli), a) (4) ali, BC, ef, a eee oe 6. Fora formula of plants given bolow: - ©) Betng sod which ero ot encod win 09 Fass Anus Se (4) Forming symbiotic association with nitrogen ‘The floral formula is not indicating that fixing cyanobacteria in coralold roots (1) Androecium is epiphyllous 101, The envelope in bacoi that allows them to hide 0 (2) Gynoecium is syncarpous mice sole system le meee Up of (3) Flower is bisexual pe ra | (2) Lipoproteins (4) Placentation is axile ee ae (4) Polysaccharides 97, The band like structures in the endodermis of . The chramesomes that have satelite foots are impermeable to water due to the (1) Lack primary constriction presence of (2) Have secondary constriction (1) Lignin (2) Pectin (8) Do not undergo replication (3) Suberin (4) Chitin (4) Are always telocentric (9)Test-12 (Code-A) 103. "The cell does not replicate DNA but remains ‘metabolically active". This statement is true for Which of the following stages? (a) Gz phase (b) S phase (©) Gophase (¢) G1 phase The correct one(s) is/are (1) Allexcept (b} (2) Only (4) (3) Only (a) and (d) (4) Only (c) and (a) 104. Match the following columns and select the correct option. Columns Column a. | Metaphase! | (i) | Centriotes replicate b. | Prophase tt (ii) | Formation of double ‘metaphasic plate c._| Interkinesis | «iy | Centromere spits J. | Anaphase 1! | (iv) | Nucteolus disintegrates (1) ali, B, et), ati biiv) eli (iv). ef), ai) _ 105. Which one of the following is not true regarding the events responsible for the opening of stomata? . (1) Dissociation of malic acid into malate.and H" (2) Trensportof Kons ing the guard cats (3) Increase of CO2 coneenitation in Substomatal, caviy \ AY (4) Formation of potassium malate into lara cells ' 106, Mineral elements are ransid8StW& through xylem (1) Both inorganic and organe forms (2) Onlin norganis form (9) Onlyin organi forms (4) Oni in one forms 107. Which of the following is not considered as essential mineral nutrient for plant? (1) Nitrogen (2) Phosphorous (3) Potassium (4) Carbon 108. Deficiency symptoms of Mg, Fe and Ca in plants are also seen due to toxicity of () zn (2) Mn (3) Mo (4) cu NEET Booster Test Series (NTS) for NEET-2021 109. According to chemiosmotic hypothesis, tho ultimate event that provide energy for the synthesis of ATP in chloroplast is (1) Breakdown of proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane (2) Transfer of protons from stroma to the lumen of thylakoid (3) Uphill transport of photosystem (4) Removal of protons from stroma by reduction of NADP* to NADPH + H* 110. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is considered as a major limiting factor influencing the rate of photosynthesis because (1) Carbon dioxide is the main source of carbon for plants (2) The level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is far betow for optimum photosynthesis not easily dissolved in the electrons to the (3) Carbon dioxide i: water oA (4) Carbon dioxide is'absorbed by the plants only througfistomata’, 111. Instespication) which of the following sutstrates ‘on its complete oxidation. will resGlt maximum net gain of ATP molecules?\,\\~ (1) One molecule of glucose (@)-One molécule of ructose-6-phosphate “(8)-1wo” “molecules glyceraldehyde-3- ‘(Phosphate of (8) Two molecules of pyrvie acia 112, The complex in ETS of mitochondria which has ‘wo copper centres is (1) Comtex (2) Compiex iv 8) Complex (4) Comptex 113. Two leaves (A and B) of a Plant have sizes to. om and 2 om? respectively. After one day sizes become 20 cm? 2 respectively, a On the basis of correct statement, (1) Both the leaves show same relative growth rate Given information select the (2) Relative growth rate of that of leaf B (8) Relative growth rate that of leat A (4) Absolute ‘growth rate of leaf Ais that of leaf B Laren leaf A is more than of leaf B is more than (10)Test-2 (Coge-ay 120. nthe dpa lol cls oF towering psn Molec genes A and areas as of A a J l ut 2 800 generative cells of the poten grains formed by this plant, 50 has both a 50 has both dominant alleles fiend 8 on the same chromosome’ ae aces 114, Match the fol lowir orrect option, "9 Columns and sole the [* [seen domineres [| Eros | Pemeree acobioa Abscisic | ip me ) atv) b«m), 6), ay @) atid, Gi), efi), aviv) 7 8) alii, b6v), efi, acy (4) ali), bv), fin, aq) 8 115. Which of the following statements is not true Writ. asexual reproduction? (1) Itis a quick method of reproduction What should be the distance between these two enes in this plant? 121. Read the following statements and choose the option which is tre for them? Statemont-1/ : The individual inflicted with Tumer’s syndrome is a sterile male. Statoment-2 : in human when a normal egg {fuses with an abnormal sperm that has both tia Sex chromosomes, it results in the disorder called Klinefelter's syndrome, (1) Both the statements are correct (2) Both the statements are incorrect (3) Only statement-1is correct 116. All the following are related with Spirogyra except one. Identify that one. (1) Formation of motile male gamete (2) ‘Internal fertilisation (3) Presence of chlorophyll a arid b (4). Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation 117. The ovary has generally single ovule in (1) Wheat (2) Papaya (3) Orchid (4) Water melon (n [moo [= [siksiowe | 2 Basal prof ovo (4) Only statement-2 is correct 122. In eukaryotes, transcription of RNAs is catalysed by (1) Only RINA polymerase | (2) Both RNA polymerase | and Il (8) Both RNA polymerase Il and ill (4) Both RNA polymerase I and I 123. In which of the following organisms, there is Single origin of replication? (1) Vila faba 2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (8) Escherichia col (4) Aspergilus niger apparatus 9) | Synersids (4) | Megaspore | ~ | Heplois mother call 1A woman ith blood group AB and carior of 110. jour indies i martod oan orca whose blood group is 0. What would be. probabilily of their B blood group children to be esiourbina? (1) 6.25% @) 50% (3) 12.5% (A) 25% aTO el i Se “Test-12 (Code-A) NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2024 7124, IRNA with which of the following anticodon is not found? is 3 o 2) Reo eat 3 3 @) a) ook aU 125. In lac. operon, the genes lac @ and Fgene respectively code for (1) B-galactosidase and permease 2, (2) Transacetylase and pugalactosidage © | (9) Transacetylase and repressor protein (4) Permease and repressor protein 126. The crucial step for the success of.tieeding experiment is (1) Selection and recombin testing of superior (2) Release and commerciaisation a, eh cultivars GE Y (3) Evaluation and selection of parents (4) Cross hybridisation among. the, selected -|( parents 127. For which work, Ernest chain ‘and Howard pes were awarded Nobel prize? (1) Establishing full potential of, Gébtain 2s on effective antibiotic (2) Extracting the antibiotic streptomycin from a species of Streptomyces (3) Exploring the various Saccharomyces (4) Finding the use of various microorganisms for human weltare. 128.A bioactive molecule used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant patient is produced by (1) Monascus purpureus (2) Trichoderma polysporum (3) Aspergillus niger benefits of 729, Select the incorrect statement from the following (1) A stage of suspended development found in many zooplanktons is called diapause (2) Most of the lower vertebrates are able to maintain homeostasis by _ physiological means (3) Nearly all plants cannot maintain a constant internal environment (4) Snail and fishes escape in time by the mechanism called aestivation 130, Paramecium caudatum and paramocium aurelia in same culture will show (1) Competitive co-existence (2) Parasitism (3) Commensalism (4) Competitive exclusion 4191. A secondary consumer in an ecosystem (1) Is a herbivorous animal ,() Occupies.the second trophic level ), Is said top6/@.primary carnivore (4) Can occudy the trstroptic level 192. A trafstionalscommunity-in xerarch succession does notindlude "XO oO a, ©) Moses” x0 1 CyjanuarsiessegO™ (8) Lichenss\)>> (y ‘Shrubs 133, Which of the following is not among the Evil Quartet that cause biodiversity loss? (1) Over exploitation (2) Biomagnitication (3) Habitat loss and fragmentation (A), Alien species invasions 134. How many of the following are ox-situ conservation strategies? Botanical garden, National park, Sacred groves, Seed bank, Aquaria, Wiklife Safari park, illife sanctuary (1) Five (@) Three (2) Four (4) Two 495. The correct option regarding the contribution of various greenhouse gases to global warming in increasing order is (1) CFCs < NOz < CO2< CHe (2) NOz < CFCs < CHi< COz (3) NOz < CHy< COz< CFCs (4) CFCs < N20 < CHe< COz (4) Geotrichum candidum (12)NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) fo, NEET-20; 4 NEET-2021 136. Cillated epithelium is present in (1) PCT of cortical nephrons (2) Intestinal mucosa (2) Inner lining of bronchi (4) Inner lining of buccal cavity 187, Identily the tissue shown inthe figure given below ‘and choose the option which is correct matched with its characteristics, i Test-12 (Code-A) (1) 0), B(@), C(e) (2) Ala), B(9), Cp) (3) A(P), Bip), C(q) soo, 20-600 . During chemical analysis of fving tissue fi obiaines nocd incl Waclos kro | (1) Filtrate | (2) Retentate (3) Substrate (4) Preciitate 140. Choose the incorrect match. (1) | Heparin Protein prevents Coagulation of blood (2) [Antboay [=| Fiahs infectious agents = (@) [etut-4 |~ | Enables glucose (1) [eiccd f= [itis main circulatory tid transport into cols inthe body ' transportation of vatious | |S (4) | Iasulin | | Heteropoiymer of amino substances // » } _ea),acids and is secreted Da from pancreas (2) | Bone = | Havin, jon a @ Having herd Tend 86r- | 441. The cata yee ofan (2) Genital warts 7 (3) Genital her (1) [Adenohy- [UH | Spermat- | Testosterone Ti ad pophysis. ogenesis (4) HIV (2)|| Anterior [FSH | Spermato- | Androgen], 17°: Steet te incorrest meh. pituitary genesis | 7 © Created electric @) [Pas [FSH [inhibin | Testostbrone discharge ina sistas closed flask ( [resus [Fon [non [artogees Maley acipalegs | 165. Choose the incorrect match. = @ 16 LEmbryological (1) [ Gametogenesis | - [ Formation of ¢ a¢ Lo, | ka support for I Formato Tle Ae evotton (2) [insemination — | ~ | Transfer of sparme (4) [ChariegBabvin [- |HM.S. Bago | inrfomate genital} |, tact 171 Lemur and spotted cuscus represent (3)| implantation | — | Formation and Ce iceinpenrn GSrolepment of. fs] > (2) Divergent evolution blastocyst } (@) Adaptive radiation (4) | Gestation Embryo : (4) Homology | [devetzoment | | 172, alto he ftowing were evolved from thecodonts through geological period except 4166. Which of the following structures is not present in interstitium of testis? (1) Leydig cells (2) Sertoli cells (3) Immunologically competent cells (4) Blood vessels 467. Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer. ‘A: Fertilization in humans is practically feasible Gniy if the ovum and sperms are transported Simultaneously to ampulla region of the fallopian tube. ‘clopie pregnancies are referred (0 35 to hormonal (1) Mammais, (2) Crocodiles (3) Dinosaurs (4) Birds 173. Choose the option which fils the blank correctly to complete the analogy. Haemophilus : Pneumonia influenzae (1) Female Anopheles (2) Female Culex (3) Plasmodium vivax (4) Wuchereria bancrofti Malaria pregnancies terminated due imbalance. (16)NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 474, Belymphocytes produce an army of proteins in response 10 pathogens in our blood to fight against them. This army of proteins is called (1) Antigens (2) Antibodies (3) Interferons (4) Enzymes 17, Match column-A with column-B r Band ch option with all correct match. — Column-A, ‘Column-B a. | Asthma (| infectious disease b. | Rheumatoid (i | Infestational arthritis disease a S (ii) | Auto-immune disease @. | Elphantiasis _| (v) | Alleray (1) ati, B«i, efi), iv) (2) aii, bi), c(i). div) (3) ativ), Bai) (7). ai) (4) aliv), Ded. 0) a 4176, Select the correct statement about the drug mn in the following figure giver HO~ H OM, Hom (1) Drug is. morphine obtained from Alropa belladonna (2) It binds to cannabinoid receptors present in brain (3) Its receptors are present in our gastro- intestinal tract (4) itis a stimulant and activates body fun etions a a Test-12 (Code-A) .g animal breeding is helpful 477. Which of the followin: ion? to overcome inbreeding depress! (1) Inbreeding (2) Out-crossing (3) Cross-breeding (a) Interspecific hybridisation 478, Which of the following options oP correct order of steps in PCI (1) Annealing, denaturation, ex (2) Extension denaturation, annealing (@) Denaturation, annealing: extension (4) Denaturation, extension, annealing 479. Read the following statements carefully. 5 to identify resents the tension xpression help’ () A gene whose © transformed cell is known 9S selectable marker. rents can be visualized ited DNA fragm th ethidium bromide only 0” (i) Separat after staining wit exposure to UV light joined to form & (iiy NA. fragments)can be i recombinant ONA_ by using restriction enzymes. ‘stranded, transferable. (v)Plasmids are double circular DNA having:in per statements is dependent replication. How many of the UP Jare false? (1) 2 ey3 Ke (4) 1 480. Which of treatment of (1) oclactalbumin (2) o-t-antitrypsin (3) Tissue-plasminoge the following proteins is used for f emphysema? n activator (4) Interferon a