Practice Module - For CAT

1 Practice Module
Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension
Directions (1-5) : Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The relationship between the biblical and the classical traditions has always been fraught. One of the many reasons Vergil is
central to the Western tradition is that his Fourth Eclogue, which portrays the birth of a miraculous boy ‘sent down from heaven’ to
inaugurate a new Golden Age, helped calm these fears: it was seen by readers from late antiquity until the 18th century as a pagan
prophecy of the birth of Christ, thereby allowing Christianity to assimilate the Classics rather than merely rejecting them.
Whatever one may think about the supernatural dimension, there is abundant evidence for personal and intellectual contact
between Jews and non-Jewish Greeks and Romans before and after the birth of Christ. Jews composed something like 10-20 percent
of the population of the Roman Empire; there are many overt references to Jews and Judaism in classical texts; and the Septuagint
– the Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures undertaken in the 3rd century BCE – would have been accessible to educated non-
Jewish people throughout the Mediterranean world. Classicists and intellectual historians should be paying far more attention than
they presently do to the impact of Jewish texts and culture on classical authors.
There are several reasons why believing that some acrostics in Greek and Latin poetry are intentional is both sane and
rewarding. First, ancient writing and reading practices were more congenial than ours to letterplay and vertical ‘decoding’. Texts
consisted of blocks of capital letters with no spaces in between, rather like our word-search puzzles. As one unrolled a scroll, the
columns would appear before the rows, and sometimes the first letters of verses were even enlarged and separated by dots. Second,
ancient authors such as Cicero actually talk about acrostics, especially in the context of the Sibylline Oracles. Third, the vertical
axis allows for both permanently unresolvable ambiguities, which is a plus for learned writers conveying complex messages, and
the addition of a ‘voice’ freed from the horizontal constraints of metre, authorial persona and decorum. Acrostics always have, in
theory, plausible deniability – even if that deniability seems rather implausible sometimes, as in the modern example from Arnold
Schwarzenegger to members of the California State Assembly. Fourth, they are delightful ‘Easter eggs’ for those hardy souls who
read carefully, like the undergraduate student who published an article on an acrostic she had discovered during my class.
Finally, vertical texts can parallel and enhance the ‘Great Conversation’ among horizontal texts that lies at the heart of the
humanities. Vergil’s ‘Isaiah acrostic’ – the great disruptive event of my intellectual life – participates in an intertextual conversation
involving snakes, desire, and (im)mortality that ultimately traces back to the most consequential of biblical stories: the serpentine
seduction of Eve.
One of the more fascinating parts of my journey has been getting to know the dipsas, a snake whose name comes from the
Greek for ‘thirsty’ (as in ‘dipsomaniac’). This unsavoury critter, which appears frequently in ancient literature and material culture,
was thought to experience unquenchable thirst itself and to induce that state in its victims. A Greek magical amulet, apparently
intended to aid in human fertility by reducing excess uterine blood, pictures two snakes flanking an altar and bears the inscription
‘Dipsas-Tantalus, drink blood!’
Tantalus (source of ‘tantalise’) is the sinner punished in the underworld with unending hunger and thirst, as fruit and water
constantly recede just out of his reach. Though there is some scholarly disagreement about how to interpret dipsas here – it could
be referring to the snake, or it could be describing Tantalus as ‘thirsting’ – literary evidence suggests that Tantalus and the dipsas
are closely connected, and that both are associated with sexual desire and sexual morbidity. The association of sexual desire with
unquenchable thirst, and sometimes with snakes, is in fact an Ovidian leitmotif. In a hilarious dirge lamenting the poet’s impotence
despite the proximity of his extremely desirable girlfriend, he compares himself to Tantalus, ‘thirsting in the middle of the waves’.
Ovid’s masterpiece, the Metamorphoses, depicts a plague whose symptoms bear a suspicious resemblance to love sickness – fever,
blushing, insomnia, shortness of breath, and insatiable thirst – caused by snakes infecting springs and lakes
1. In light of the passage’s discussion on the use of vertical acrostics in ancient literature, what INFERENCE can be made
about the distinctive advantage that vertical acrostics provided to ancient writers?
(a) They provide a straightforward method for conveying complex messages.
(b) They allow authors to directly address the reader’s questions and concerns.
(c) They offer a hidden layer of meaning while maintaining plausible deniability.
(d) They enable writers to maintain a clear authorial persona and decorum.
2. NONE of the given statement is likely to be aligned closely with the author’s judgment regarding the significance of
vertical acrostics in ancient Greek and Latin poetry, EXCEPT-
(a) The author believes vertical acrostics were rarely intentional and had little impact on the text’s meaning.
(b) The author considers vertical acrostics to be a curious but ultimately unimportant aspect of ancient poetry.
(c) The author argues that vertical acrostics were a deliberate and meaningful literary device in ancient poetry.
(d) The author suggests that vertical acrostics were mainly used for political propaganda in ancient times.
3. Based on the passage’s discussion of the dipsas snake’s association with sexual desire and unquenchable thirst, ONLY
this theme/topic would be the most relevant next point of discussion in the passage-
(a) The symbolic significance of the dipsas snake in classical literature.
(b) The role of sexual desire in the biblical stories and its connection to classical texts.
(c) The historical context of the Roman Empire and its influence on classical literature.
(d) The impact of the Septuagint on the assimilation of Jewish culture into the classical tradition.
4. Which of the given options would NOT be INCORRECT about highlighting the primary thematic point concerning the
intersection of classical and biblical traditions that the passage primarily discusses?
(a) The evolution of acrostics as a literary device from classical to modern literature.
(b) The historical context of the Roman Empire and its impact on religious practices.
(c) The significance of snakes in classical literature and its influence on biblical stories.
(d) The role of the Septuagint in preserving classical texts for future generations.
5. In the context of the passage, which of the following, IF NOT FALSE, would not weaken the author’s argument about the
significance of vertical acrostics in ancient Greek and Latin poetry?
(a) Many classical texts that are believed to contain acrostics have been lost or are incomplete.
(b) The majority of classical readers did not possess the skills to decode acrostics due to their complexity.
(c) Modern scholars have widely criticized the author’s theory about the deliberate use of acrostics.
(d) Vertical acrostics were exclusively used by Jewish authors in classical literature.
In the past few years, Americans have begun to recognise that the United States, with fewer than 5 percent of the world’s population
and more than 20 percent of its prison population, has a mass incarceration problem. People from across the political spectrum agree
that criminal law has been the solution to too many social problems, that the state cages too many people, and that the penal system
– from patrol to parole – is infused with racism.
There’s a real question whether Americans’ nascent turn against incarceration can be squared with MeToo, the progressive
social movement that became so popular in recent years that the press dubbed it a new civil rights movement and the country’s
‘cultural revolution’. The MeToo chapter of feminism came to prominence following reports of the movie mogul Harvey Weinstein’s
decades-long abuse of female celebrities, and it calls for zero tolerance of violence against women. Reflecting the tension between
anti-incarceration and MeToo sentiments, many have responded to Black Lives Matter protesters’ calls to defund the police by
asking: ‘What about rape and domestic violence?’ The main messages of the two movements can’t easily be reconciled.
MeToo, like the feminist anti-violence movements that preceded it, is at its core ‘carceral’, or incarceration-centric, while
Black Lives Matter and associated movements are anti-carceral. The latter maintains that the US criminal system is not ‘broken’
but functions as intended: protecting landowners’ property interests, maintaining racial hierarchy, legitimating state violence and
neoliberal governance, and vindicating regressive moral codes. The tide is finally turning against mass incarceration, and MeToo
movement feminists should get on board. They should rescue their important anti-violence agenda from the US policing, prosecution
and punishment apparatus that has captured it.
The sociologist Elizabeth Bernstein coined the term carceral feminism to describe some late-20th-century feminists’ unyielding
commitment to law and order, and feminism’s larger ‘drift from the welfare state to the carceral state as the enforcement apparatus
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for feminist goals’. Of course, many in the MeToo movement focus on workplace equality and women’s political empowerment,
but the movement generally remains committed to the criminal law response to violence against women. Its early formative
achievement was Weinstein’s sentence of 23 years behind bars. Feminist reformers continue to propose broad criminalisation
programmes, despite their recognition that they’re enforced by anti-Black masculinist police officers and condemn individuals
to prisons to suffer sexual and other violence – and now coronavirus. Across the political spectrum, this carceral impulse is
powerful.
In the fight against gender violence, criminal law should be a last, not first, resort. Many feminists embrace criminal law because
of a set of presumptions: law always tolerated, if not encouraged, crimes against women; few alternatives outside of criminal
law have been available to feminists; and feminist engagement can transform the uncaring, racist, sexist criminal justice system
from within. However, in researching a variety of feminist criminal law reform efforts in the US through the ages, from the
anti-‘white slavery’ crusade at the turn of the century to the Brock Turner saga of a few years ago, I discovered that these
presumptions are not warranted.
Historically, legal authorities didn’t under-enforce laws against sexual and domestic violence so much as selectively enforce
them depending on the class, race and other statuses of the parties. During the Reconstruction era in the late 19th century,
Southern whites cited women’s protection from rape as ground for their campaign of terror against Black men. In the past,
powerful feminist groups repeatedly chose criminal law as the remedy for gender violence, despite non-carceral alternatives and
numerous cautions from within and outside feminist ranks. To be sure, these reforms provided protection and justice to many
women, but they imprisoned other women – disproportionately marginalised women of colour. Feminist criminal law reforms
interacted with larger social phenomena from slavery to sex panic, and often reinforced racism, classism and indeed sexism.
Nor have feminist criminal laws operated outside of or tempered the criminal justice system’s entrenched masculinism, racism
and cruelty. In fact, they have often exacerbated them. Feminists’ repeated turn to and success with criminal law helped establish
prosecution as the key to gender justice, and has stunted the development of our non-penal imaginations. It’s never been more
important to think of addressing serious problems with measures other than incarceration.
6. After drawing an inference from the paragraph’s content, ONLY this option would suggest the complex source of
tension the MeToo movement encountered in its connection to the struggle against mass incarceration-
(a) The MeToo movement primarily focuses on workplace equality, which is unrelated to issues of incarceration.
(b) The MeToo movement has failed to gain popular support compared to the mass incarceration movement.
(c) The MeToo movement advocates for criminal law responses to violence against women, which conflicts
with the anti-carceral stance.
(d) The MeToo movement and the fight against mass incarceration have successfully collaborated.
7. Within the paragraph’s context, which of the given options elucidate the concept of “carceral feminism” and expound
upon its role and significance within the broader feminist movement?
(a) Carceral feminism refers to feminist efforts focused on workplace equality.
(b) Carceral feminism is the term for feminist collaboration with mass incarceration movements.
(c) Carceral feminism indicates feminist resistance to the criminal justice system.
(d) Carceral feminism represents feminist commitment to law and order in addressing gender violence.
8.
In the context of the paragraph’s discussion about feminism and the criminal justice system, what CAUSAL
RELATIONSHIP is presented regarding the impact of feminist criminal law reforms on the approach to gender
justice?
(a) Cause: Feminist criminal law reforms.
Effect: Establishment of prosecution as the key to gender justice.
(b) Cause: Marginalized women of color.
Effect: Successful feminist criminal law reforms.
(c) Cause: The MeToo movement.
Effect: Increased support for mass incarceration.
(d) Cause: Criminal law responses to violence against women.
Effect: Decreased racial hierarchy.
9. In bolstering the contention within the passage that feminist criminal law reforms have often exacerbated racial
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issues, which assumption among the following would be of utmost importance?
(a) Feminist criminal law reforms have consistently advocated for racial equality within the criminal justice
system.
(b) Criminal law responses to violence against women have always resulted in reduced racial hierarchy.
(c) The MeToo movement has actively collaborated with anti-carceral advocates to address gender violence.
(d) Mass incarceration is the only viable solution to violence against women in the United States.
Transition age youth (TAY) encompasses a broad demographic spanning from older adolescence to young adulthood (15–26
years old). This population includes diverse subgroups of youth, who vary across broad domains, including but not limited
to physical and behavioral health diagnoses, education, socioeconomic status, and social determinants of health. What
unites all TAY, however, is that they experience a myriad of psychosocial transitions. These include gaining and maintaining
independence, identity formation, exploring sexuality and relationships, post-secondary education, career development,
and engaging in behaviors that have potential for poor health outcomes. This developmental stage also appears particularly
vulnerable to new-onset of mental health disorders, including mood, psychotic, and substance use disorders as well as suicide
ideation and attempts. Moreover, the mental health needs of TAY have escalated during the COVID-19 pandemic, with social
distancing policies disrupting daily routines, social supports, relationships, employment, and typical coping strategies including
connections with friends.
Despite this ever-clear need for behavioral health care, TAY experience numerous unique barriers to receiving mental
health resources, including rigid cutoffs for pediatric services ending between ages 18–21, lack of systematic transition from
school-based services after graduation from high school, unfamiliarity with adult mental health providers and resources,
difficulty navigating transitions from pediatric to adult systems of care, and greater perceived responsibility and ownership for
medical decisions. These obstacles reinforce the already low rates of mental health care seeking as well as treatment receipt
and retention among TAY, maintaining the gap in mental health care for this population. Unfortunately, inadequate quantity and
access to mental health resources during this critical developmental period can impact long-term trajectories of functioning.
By supporting young people with resources they need to navigate this transition to adulthood, we can mitigate adverse health
outcomes and, in turn, promote personal achievement and thriving.
Recognizing the unique needs of TAY nearly a decade ago, Wilens and Rosenbaum concluded in their clinical perspective
piece titled Transitional Aged Youth: A New Frontier in Child and Adolescent Psychiatry that “child and adolescent psychiatrists
are uniquely situated for the direct clinical care of TAY and to oversee the care of TAY in innovative programs”.
Despite these recommendations, there remains a dearth of mental health programs designed for TAY across a variety of
medical disciplines. Those documented in the literature, while demonstrating feasibility, primarily focus on subgroups within
the broader TAY population and often rely on school- and college-based care structures, which are not applicable to all TAY.
Furthermore, racial, ethnic, and geographic disparities in TAY mental healthcare access and outcomes remain, with minoritized
youth often not receiving care. For example, even though adolescents living in neighborhoods with concentrated disadvantage
often receive mental health support in public grade schools, this source of services and support drops off dramatically when
these youth graduate high school, especially for those who move into the workforce directly rather than continuing with higher
education. Recognizing the structural inequities by race, gender, and access to healthcare among this population, coupled with
the unique experiences and stressors of young adulthood, more inclusive and equitable mental health interventions are needed
urgently.
10. Considering the complexities discussed in the passage, which of the given options is most likely to be seen as a
primary obstacle that hinders the development of effective mental health programs for TAY?
(a) A lack of awareness about mental health among TAY
(b) The shortage of universally applicable innovative programs
(c) Disparities in access to mental healthcare exacerbated by structural inequities
(d) TAY’s perception of mental health issues as a normal part of growing up
11. NONE of the given options best reflects the overall sentiment and judgment about the current state of mental health
programs for Transition Age Youth, EXCEPT-
(a) The passage is highly critical of existing mental health programs for TAY.
(b) The passage is optimistic about the progress made in mental health programs for TAY.
(c) The passage is neutral and does not express a clear opinion on mental health programs for TAY.
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(d) The passage emphasizes that mental health programs for TAY need further evaluation.
12. According to the information provided in the passage, which of the following statements would NOT WEAKEN the
conclusion that more comprehensive and equitable mental health interventions are urgently needed for Transition
Age Youth?
(a) The passage highlights the decrease in mental health issues among TAY during the COVID-19 pandemic.
(b) The passage suggests that the TAY population is not significantly affected by disparities in mental healthcare
access.
(c) The passage emphasizes that mental health programs for TAY are already widely available and effective.
(d) The passage discusses the impact of racial, ethnic, and geographic disparities on TAY mental healthcare
access and outcomes.
Particles with the same electric charge sign repel each other. So additional interactions are required to hold protons close-packed
in the nucleus. These interactions arise from quark and antiquark pairs called pions that constantly spill out of each proton and
neutron to be absorbed by another such particle nearby. The energy exchanged in this transfer is big enough to compensate for
the electric repulsion between protons and, thus, bind together protons and neutrons, storing the immense energy that may be
released in nuclear fission processes.
However, the extremely short lifetime of the pions limits how far protons and neutrons may be from each other, curbing the
nucleus size to a 1 to 10 fm radius. Thus, from a particle perspective, the nucleus is tiny compared with an atom. A nitrogen
nucleus, composed of seven protons and seven neutrons, has a radius of about 3 fm. In contrast, nitrogen’s atomic radius
is 179,000 fm. At the scale of atoms and molecules, nuclei are no more than heavy, point-like positive charges without any
apparent internal structure. So are the electrons: they are just light, point-like negative charges.
If atoms and molecules remained a collection of point-like particles, they would be mostly empty space. But at their size
scale, they must be described by quantum theory. And this theory predicts that the wave-like picture predominates until a
measurement disturbs it. Instead of localised bullets in empty space, matter delocalised into continuous quantum clouds.
Matter is fundamentally quantum. Molecules cannot be assembled under the rules of classical physics. The classical electrical
interactions between nuclei and electrons are insufficient to build a stable molecule. Due to the electric attraction of charges of
opposite signs, the negatively charged electrons would quickly spiral toward the positively charged nuclei and glue to them. The
resulting combined particles with no net charge would fly apart, preventing any molecule from forming.
Two quantum properties avoid this bleak fate. The first property arises from the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, which holds
that a quantum particle cannot simultaneously be at a precise position and also have zero speed. This implies that an electron
cannot glue to a nucleus because both particles would be in a well-defined place and at rest to each other – defying a central role
of the quantum world. The second quantum property is the Pauli exclusion principle. The fundamental components of matter
are split into two types, bosons and fermions. The gluons inside the proton are examples of bosons. We can have as many of
them as we want, sharing the same position simultaneously. On the other hand, fermions – such as electrons, quarks, protons and
neutrons – obey a much more restrictive rule named the Pauli exclusion principle: no two identical fermions can simultaneously
occupy the same space and have the same spin. With all those effects encoded into the Schrödinger equation, the master
equation of quantum theory, it predicts that our point-like nuclei and electrons must, in fact, behave like waves. They delocalise
in quantum clouds much bigger than their particle-picture size to satisfy the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, with electrons
shaped into different clouds to satisfy the Pauli exclusion principle. The lighter the particles are, the bigger the delocalisation.
Thus, a single electron cloud may spread over multiple nuclei, forming a chemical bond and stabilising the molecule.
13. What assumption can be derived from the passage regarding the behavior of electrons in atoms and molecules?
(a) Electrons in atoms and molecules are always localized at specific positions.
(b) Electrons in atoms and molecules cannot exist in quantum clouds.
(c) Electrons in atoms and molecules follow classical physics rules.
(d) Electrons in atoms and molecules must delocalize in quantum clouds to satisfy quantum principles.
14. ALL of the given options can be eliminated as the main objective of the passage when it delves into quantum
principles and their influence on the behavior of atoms and molecules, EXCEPT-
(a) To elucidate the fundamental influence of quantum principles .
(b) To investigate the classical physics foundations of atomic nuclei.
(c) To illustrate the significance of the Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
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(d) To emphasize the importance of pions in nuclear physics.
15. Based on the passage, what inference can be made about the quantum principle that states an electron cannot occupy
a precise position while having zero speed?
(a) The Quantum Cloud Principle
(b) The Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
(c) The Quantum Entanglement Principle
(d) The Quantum Superposition Principle
The Bitcoin network is designed to specialise only in payments. It is difficult, and in many cases impossible, to program more
complex transactions into it. But Buterin’s Toronto-based company, Ethereum, is building a new kind of blockchain system that
would make these more complex transactions easy to design and execute.
‘Instead of specialising for each individual application,’ Buterin continues, ‘you come up with a programming language,
and then that programming language is so powerful that you can build any application on top of it.’ Ethereum’s language is so
flexible that it is, in the jargon, ‘Turing complete’. And so its distributed network will (in theory) be able to host and administer
anything from asset-trading platforms and escrow services to the sale or rental of any resource connected to the internet, such
as hosting, data or processing power. The terms of every sale, trade or agreement would be encoded into the system, their
trustworthiness ensured by the swarm of hosts running it.
Transactions would be paid for using Ethereum’s own Bitcoin-like cryptocurrency, called Ether, which would also be
used to pay the system’s hosts. And just as with Bitcoin, the ability of these constructs to securely cross national borders and
attract a mutable swarm of hosts means that no one – not hackers, not competitors, and not governments – will be able to shut
them down. Code will be the new financial law. We are talking about companies that run themselves, at the very limits of human
oversight.
In The Zero Marginal Cost Society, the US social theorist Jeremy Rifkin analyses current patterns in computerised
management. He describes how, through the ever tighter merging of communications, energy and logistics, distributed peer-to-
peer networks are making it cheaper and easier to start new companies.
Rifkin’s favoured examples are outfits such as Airbnb, Uber and Kickstarter, which smooth the ‘crowdsourcing’ of
everything from vacations to financing. The premise of these companies is that they cut out the middleman, letting people
provide services directly to each other at prices close to the cost of production. In many cases – such as the repurposing of
unused rooms – that cost could be nearly nothing. And as everything from refrigerators to cars start to be accessed and controlled
through the internet, those efficiencies will mount up. Rifkin calls the resource-rich, low-profit economy that seems destined to
emerge ‘the Collaborative Commons’.
And yet, on reflection, Rifkin’s examples turn out to be anything but collaborative at their heart. Companies such as Uber
and Airbnb are fiercely profit-driven, taking large cuts from all the exchanges they facilitate. They are middlemen themselves,
albeit somewhat more efficient and open than their predecessors. What’s more, the digital payment systems that underpin their
services are also highly centralised and very expensive. Rifkin unintentionally highlights this when he claims that the ‘web-
facilitated scaling of financing brings the marginal cost of lending to borrowers to near zero’, only to clarify that Kickstarter
takes 5 percent of all funds raised on its site, with another 3 to 5 per cent going to Amazon Payments. Those costs are not even
close to zero. They represent a vampire squid attached to the face of the Collaborative Commons.
The root of the problem is that a true digital currency – one that travels the network fast enough to enable decentralised
sharing – is very difficult to implement. An effective currency requires trust, both between the members of the community who
use it and in the technology that implements it. The US dollar has remained the world’s reserve currency not only because of the
robustness of the US economy, but also thanks to its various anti-counterfeiting measures and the relative caution with which the
US reserve bank issues it. Meanwhile, the very open nature of the internet – its lack of deep identity controls and its vulnerability
to manipulation – makes it a challenging environment in which to establish a standalone currency. That’s why Bitcoin, which
offers a clever solution to the digital cash problem, is such a significant achievement.
16. When carefully analysed, the paragraph reveal that the Ethereum’s blockchain system possesses the potential to
accommodate a diverse array of applications, BECAUSE-
(a) Because Ethereum is primarily focused on simple payments.
(b) Because Ethereum’s programming language is “Turing complete” and flexible.
(c) Because Ethereum’s programming language is highly specialized.
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(d) Because Ethereum uses a different cryptocurrency than Bitcoin.
17. In the context of the passage, which concept CONTRADICTS the Collaborative Commons vision of Jeremy Rifkin
while also being indirectly related to the decentralized nature of Ethereum’s programming language?
(a) Companies like Airbnb and Uber that are profit-driven intermediaries.
(b) The centralization of digital payment systems in the sharing economy.
(c) Decentralized peer-to-peer networks that reduce the cost of services.
(d) The emergence of a true digital currency for online transactions.
18. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following, IF TRUE, would WEAKEN the assumption that
Ethereum’s programming language will revolutionize the Collaborative Commons as described by Jeremy Rifkin?
(a) Ethereum’s programming language has significant security vulnerabilities.
(b) The majority of companies in the Collaborative Commons have already adopted Ethereum.
(c) Ethereum’s cryptocurrency, Ether, is not widely accepted for transactions.
(d) Jeremy Rifkin himself has expressed doubts about the potential of Ethereum’s programming language.
19. Select the option that, IF NOT FALSE, would challenge or provide a nuanced perspective on the role of decentralized
networks in the Collaborative Commons as discussed in the passage.
(a) Recent studies show Ethereum’s cost reduction impact on the Collaborative Commons.
(b) Traditional institutions adopt decentralized networks to control sharing economy payments.
(c) Government regulations favor decentralized blockchain, boosting its role in the Commons.
(d) Rifkin asserts that the Commons’ success hinges solely on middlemen elimination, excluding decentralized
networks.
20. This paragraph is followed by four options which have summarized the passage in their own way. Pick the option that
best summarizes the passage.
It is difficult not to hear echoes of this past today. Integrative medicine continues to push for broader conceptualisations
of the whole body in medical practice. Personalised medicine uses medical genetics, gene therapy and predictive
pharmacotherapy to shape treatment and prevention around a particularised, neoliberal picture of the patient that
supposedly anticipates and guides her destiny. Physical and occupational therapy expend hefty amounts of conceptual
and clinical labour to help the individual reconcile her cognitive and physical realities with the demands of her world.
The welfare state that tends toward the widest possible inclusion of citizens in its medical schemes clashes ever more
intensely with the realities of the medical marketplace, the demand for choice, and the urgencies of individual care
and healing.
(a) Integrative and personalized medicine challenge traditional practices, emphasizing holistic approaches and
clashing with the demands of the medical marketplace and individual care within the welfare state.
(b) Medicine today is undergoing significant transformations, impacting healthcare systems, patient care, and
clashing with the demands of the medical marketplace, individual care, and the welfare state’s goal.
(c) Integrative medicine primarily relies on medical genetics and gene therapy to shape treatment, which
contradicts the goals of the welfare state.
(d) Occupational therapy plays a minor role in addressing the challenges posed by the medical marketplace and
individual care, while personalized medicine focuses solely on gene therapy without considering broader
patient needs.
21. There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. look at the paragraph and decide in which blank (option
1,2,3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.
Sentence: This insight has deep implications for the question of what makes work good, especially in light of
capitalism.
In capitalism, most workers are permitted to execute only their bosses’ purpose at work. They themselves do not
determine what purpose to execute._(1)_Using Kant’s language, we might say that most workers do not have ‘the
power of choice’ at work. Rather, that power resides exclusively with their bosses._(2)_Many workers become mere
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animals at work, since what is produced is ‘not based on any rational deliberation on their part’._(3)_So, while labour
in capitalism is determined by some purpose, it is importantly not the workers’ purpose._(4)_
(a) Blank 3 (b) Blank 4
(c) Blank 1 (d) Blank 2
1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.
Sentence: The crisis of the humanities has reached a tipping point of financial and popular disinvestment.
_(1)_Right now, many forms of knowledge production seem to be facing their end._(2)_While technological advances
such as new artificial intelligence programmes may outstrip human ingenuity._(3)_As news outlets disappear,
extreme political movements question the concept of objectivity and the scientific process._(4)_Many of our systems
for producing and certifying knowledge have ended or are ending.
23. This paragraph is followed by four options which have summarized the passage in their own way. Pick the option that
best summarizes the passage.
ARTs such as IVF are often viewed as a ‘treatment’ for infertility. Infertility, however, turns out to be difficult to
define. A prima facie attempt might see it as the inability to conceive and reproduce through natural means. Yet, from
the outset, Raymond and other feminist theorists questioned the claim that infertility is a disease, and instead noted
how infertility diagnoses rose in tandem with the proliferation of commercially motivated infertility specialists.
Raymond also drew an analogy with the classification of disability, pointing to the way in which disability rights
activists maintain that physical handicaps should not be treated as diseases. Philosophers of medicine continue to
debate the nature and definition of ‘disease’.
(a) ARTs like IVF are seen as treatments for infertility, but defining infertility is complex. Some feminist
theorists, like Raymond, argue it’s not a disease, paralleling debates in philosophy of medicine about
‘disease’ definitions.
(b) ARTs are viewed as treatments for infertility, but there is debate about whether infertility is a disease, similar
to discussions in philosophy of medicine.
(c) Infertility is challenging to define, and some feminist theorists, like Raymond, argue that it is not a disease,
drawing parallels with disability classification.
(d) The paragraph discusses how infertility is linked to commercial interests and debates about disease
definitions in philosophy of medicine but lacks broader context.
24. This paragraph is followed by four options which have summarized the passage in their own way. Pick the option
that best summarizes the passage. Economic deservingness involves two aspects: first, the distribution of material
resources, which raises questions about fairness and redistributive justice. Second, deservingness is evaluated at a
personal level, entailing judgments about individuals and their moral qualities. This uneasy connection between
the economic and the moral – unsettling because it brings together two realms that are often, and for good reasons,
thought of as separate – is what deeply impacts social relationships. For better or for worse, it is within their social
networks that individuals develop a deep understanding of economic inequalities and express their nuanced beliefs
about justice. That’s what we can learn from listening to people’s stories and memories of the post-1989 changes.
(a) Economic deservingness is a complex concept that affects social relationships and justice beliefs through
people’s stories and memories of post-1989 changes.
(b) Economic deservingness involves the distribution of material resources and personal moral judgments,
impacting social relationships and shaping beliefs about justice through people’s stories and memories of
post-1989 changes.
(c) The uneasy connection between economic and moral aspects deeply impacts social networks, and people’s
stories and memories of post-1989 changes offer valuable insights into this issue.
(d) Social relationships are influenced by the connection between economic and moral aspects, with a focus on
the impact of post-1989 changes on people’s beliefs about justice.
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1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.
Sentence: It seemingly comes out of nowhere, and otherwise healthy people have it.
Primary focal dystonia affects specific muscle groups and does not connect to an underlying medical problem._(1)_
Persons can experience, for instance, an imbalance in the neck muscles called cervical dystonia or torticollis._(2)_The
neck pulls in one direction while the opposing muscle, usually working to keep our gaze forward, stays inert._(3)_
Imagine a situation where your neck is drawn to the right against your will whenever you speak or walk._(4)_
9
Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation
Directions (26 to 30) : Answer the following question based on the information given below.
‘Royal Fitness Club’ has eight trainers namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W, who train Cardio to the children in their society. One
day, management asked each one of them to give a rating to ‘Royal Fitness Club’ out of 15 based on the different parameters.
Then, it was found that exactly two trainers gave equal ratings. Also, when each of them calculated the sum of the ratings of the
other seven trainers, the results obtained were 65, 66, 67, 68, 69, 70, 71, and y.
Note: Only integral numbers can be used for rating.
26. Find the possible value of ‘y’

(a) 65 (b) 67
(c) 70 (d) None of these
27. What was the highest rating given by any trainer?

(a) 15 (b) 13
(c) 12 (d) 11
28. What was the lowest rating given by any trainer?

(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 8
29. Find the arithmetic mean of the top four ratings.

(a) 10.5 (b) 11.5
(c) 12.75 (d) 13.5
30. It is given that exactly two trainers gave equal ratings to ‘Royal fitness club’. What is that rating?
(a) 8 (b) 9
(c) 10 (d) 11
Eight persons – P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6, P7, and P8 went to watch movies. Each of the eight persons watched one or more than one
of the four Hollywood movies – West Side Story, X-Men, Y2K, and Zombiez. No one watched all four movies. Further, it is
known that:
I. Only one male watched West Side Story and only two females watched Y2K.
II. The number of persons who watched exactly three movies is two more than those who watched exactly two
movies. The number of persons who watched exactly one movie is two, and both of them are males.
III. P2, P5, and P7 are managers. There is no movie that two or more than two managers watched.
IV. P3 watched only those movies that P7 watched.
V. P1 watched all the movies that P2 did not watch.
VI. There are only two movies that P8 and P4 watched together.
VII. The number of persons who watched movies West Side Story, X-Men, Y2K, and Zombiez are in an arithmetic
progression (in that order). The number of people who watched Zombiez is more than those who watched
any other movie.
VIII. P5 watched Y2K.
31. Who among the given persons did not watch X-Men?
(a) P2 (b) P6
(c) P7 (d) None of these
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32. Who among the given persons watched exactly two movies?
(a) P2 (b) P1
(c) P8 (d) P3
33. How many people watched the movie West Side Story?
(a) Three (b) Five
(c) Six (d) Seven
34. How many people watched the movie Y2K?

(a) Three (b) Four
(c) Five (d) Six
35. How many people watched the movie Zombiez?

(a) Three (b) Four
(c) Five (d) Six
Word matrix is a 5 × 5 grid into which the letters of the word ABLE have been written so that each letter occurs once in each
row and column of the square. The letters may or may not be scrambled in a row or column and a blank cell appears somewhere
in each row and column to fill the grid.
An example of a word matrix with the word ABLE is shown.
1 2 3 4 5
p A L E B
q E A B L
r L B E A
s L A B E
t B E L A
Clues about the blank cell and letters’ location for the word CASE are given below. (Note: letter locations are given
without counting the blank cell, for example, the 3rd letter down column 1 word means the letter is in either the 3rd or 4th row,
depending on where the blank cell is).
1. E is the 2nd letter across the first row.
2. The 4th letter in column 1 is C.
3. A is the 2nd letter in column 2.
4. In column 4, E is immediately followed by S in the next cell.
5. The blank cell in the second row is not in column 3.
6. The 4th letter in column 3 is E.
7. S is the 4th letter across the first row.
8. C is the 4th letter across the fourth row.
9. The letter in the third row, column 3 is S.
10. In column 1, A is somewhere above the blank cell.
11. In the 3rd row, the blank cell is not in column 5.
36. Which letter from the following appears in the cell r-3, where r indicates the 3rd row and 3 indicates the 3rd column?
(a) C (b) S
(c) A (d) E
37. Which of the following cells is blank?

(a) p–2 (b) s–1
11
(c) p–4 (d) q–4
38. The letter E appears in how many of the instances above alphabet S in all the columns put together?
39. In how many of the instances do all the vowels of the word CASE come together without any space in case of row?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
40. Which letter from the following appears in cell s-2, where s indicates the 4th row and 2 indicates the 2nd column?
(a) C (b) S
(c) A (d) None of these
Three kids- David, Eve, and Froger are studying in three different colleges- C1, C2, and C3 though not in that order. When asked
about their schools, they answered as follows:
Eve: I don’t study in C2.
Froger: studies in C3.
David: doesn’t study in C1.
Froger: David doesn’t study in C2.
I don’t study in C1.
Eve: doesn’t study in C3.
David: I study in C2.
Eve: doesn’t study in C1.
Froger: doesn’t study in C3.
It is known that exactly one among David, Eve, and Froger always speaks the truth, and exactly one of the three always lies and
the third person alternates between lie and truth, in any order.
41. Which of the following is true?

(a) David studies in C1.
(b) Froger studies in C3.
(c) David studies in C2.
(d) Eve studies in C1.
42. Who is the liar?

(a) David (b) Eve
(c) Froger (d) Cannot be determined
43. Who studies in C3?

(a) David (b) Eve
44. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above information?
(1) David always speaks the truth
(2) Froger always lies.
(3) Eve studies in C3.
(a) Only statement 1
(b) Statements 1 and 3
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(c) Statements 2 and 3
(d) All the three statements
45. If the colleges of David and Eve get interchanged, then who studies in C2?
(a) David (b) Eve
A round-robin league competition involved the participation of six teams: America, Brazil, Canada, Denmark, England, and France.
In this tournament format, each team had the opportunity to compete against all the other teams once. Victories were rewarded with
three points, draws with one point, and losses with no points.
The subsequent table presents the points accumulated by four out of the six teams when the tournament concluded. It was also
found that France has a greater number of wins than England.
Team Points
England 12
Brazil
Denmark 4
Canada 5
France
America 6
46. How many points did Team Brazil score?

(a) 3 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) Cannot be determined
47. Which team(s) did Team Canada beat?

(a) Only America
(b) Only England
(c) Only Denmark and Canada
(d) Only Brazil
48. Which of the following team(s) did team America beat?

(a) Both Brazil and Denmark
(b) Both Canada and Brazil
(c) Both Canada and Denmark
(d) Exactly one of Canada and Denmark
49. Which team(s) lost more than 75% of the matches that they played?
(a) Only Brazil
(b) Only America
(c) Only America and Denmark
(d) America, Brazil, and Denmark
50. What is the percentage of total matches that all the teams won combined?
(a) 75.75% (b) 90.09%
(c) 100% (d) 86.67%
13
Quantitative Aptitude
51. Rajesh scores 30% in an examination, but after a review, his score is increased by 60%, and he still falls short of
passing by 25 marks. If his score is further increased by 15%, he will have 10 marks more than the passing score.
What is the percentage score needed for passing the examination?
52. Two varieties of tea, labeled as x and y, are blended and sold at a price of Rs. 40 per kilogram. The profit margin is
10% when they are mixed in a 3 : 2 ratio and 5% when the ratio is 2:3. Find the cost prices per kilogram of tea x and
y considering their undisclosed ratio.
(a) 17:25 (b) 18:25
(c) 19:24 (d) 21:25
53. Two cars X and Y leave City P and City Q simultaneously and travel towards Q and P at constant speeds. They meet
at a point in between the two cities and then proceed to their respective destinations in 54 minutes and 24 minutes
respectively. How long did Y take to cover the entire journey between City Q and City P?
54. If 5 workers and 3 helpers can reap 23 hectares in 4 days, and if 3 workers and 2 helpers can reap 7 hectares in 2 days,
then how many helpers must assist 7 workers in order for them to reap 45 hectares in 6 days?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
55. An individual, let’s call them Person A, purchased 20 Product X and 12 Product Y. They applied a 15% markup on
each “Product X” and added Rs. 20 to the cost price of each “Product Y.” After selling 75% of the “Product X” and
8 “Product Y,” Person A achieved a profit of Rs. 385. The cost of a “Product Y” is 60% of the cost of a “Product X.”
Determine whether Person A ended up with an overall profit or loss and how much?
(a) Loss of Rs. 355 (b) Loss of Rs. 210
(c) Loss of Rs. 250 (d) Loss of Rs. 300
56. Suppose Rahul borrows a principal amount of Rs 150,000 at an annual interest rate of 20%, with the interest
compounded annually. He agrees to make three equal payments over the course of three years, with one payment due
at the end of each year. What is the value of each installment payment?
(a) Rs. 71209 (b) Rs. 68439
(c) Rs. 76484 (d) Rs. 72904
57. An individual preparing for the SNAP exam takes a certain number of practice tests. When considering the first 10
tests, the average score is 20, and when considering the last 10 tests, the average score is 30. The individual’s average
score increases by 1 if the first 10 tests are excluded and decreases by 1 if the last 10 tests are excluded. What is the
total number of tests the individual took for SNAP preparation?
58. In a certain solution, alcohol constitutes 35% of the volume. Subsequently, if 40 ml of water is introduced into this
100 ml solution, what will be the percentage of alcohol in the resulting mixture?
(a) 30% (b) 35%
(c) 25% (d) 20%
59. Two individuals, X and Y, work together to complete a task in 13 days. X works alone until half the task is completed,
then both X and Y work together for four days, and finally, Y works alone to complete the remaining 5% of the task.
If Y takes 20% longer than X to complete the task when working alone, how many days would Y take to complete the
entire task by themselves?
(a) 25 days (b) 30 days
(c) 19.5 days (d) 15 days
60. Participants in a spacious venue are seated for various programs. When arranged in rows of 16 participants, there are
12 participants left over. If they are organized into rows of 24, there are 20 participants left. When arranged in rows
14
of 25, there are 21 participants left, and for rows of 30, there are 26 participants left. What is the smallest number of
participants that could be present in the venue to account for these situations?
(a) 1216 (b) 1784
(c) 1196 (d) 2396
61. How many factors of 36288 are perfect cubes?
62. What is the remainder when 22004 is divided by 7?

(a) 4 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 6
63. Find the unit digit of 432412 × 499431
64. Numbers are selected at random, one at a time, with replacement, from a set of all two-digit numbers (00 to 99).
Event E occurs if and only if the product of the two digits of a selected number is 18. What is the probability that
event E occurs exactly three times in four trials?
97 98
(a) (b)
25 4 390625
97 97
(c) 8
(d)
25 380626
17
65. log3x + logx3 = . Find the value of x.
4
(a) 34 (b) 31/4
1
1
(c) (d) 3 4 or 34
33
66. Find the value of p, if 25(p – 1) + 100 = 5(2p – 1).
67. All the values of m for which both roots of the equation x2 − 2mx + m2 = 1are greater than - 2 but less than 4, lie in
the interval
(a) –2 < m < 0 (b) m>3
(c) −1 < m < 3 (d) 1<m<4
68. 3x + 4|y| = 33. How many integer values of (x, y) are possible?
(a) 6 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) Infinite
69. If f(x + 2) = f(x) + f( + 1) for all positive integers x, and f(11) = 91, f(15) = 617, then f(10) equals
70. ABCD is a trapezoid where BC is parallel to AD and perpendicular to AB. Kindly note that BC < AD. P is a point on
AD such that CPD is an equitriangle. Q is a point on BC such that AQ is parallel to PC. If the area of the triangle CPD
is 4 3 , find the area of the triangle ABQ.
(a) 2 3 (b) 43 – 3
(c) 2 (d) 3
71. In a triangle ABC, the lengths of the sides AB and AC equal 17.5 cm and 9 cm respectively. Let D be a point on the
line segment BC such that AD is perpendicular to BC. If AD = 3 cm, then what is the radius (in cm) of the circle
circumscribing the triangle ABC?
15
72. Let C be a circle of radius 5 meters having center at O. Let PQ be a chord of C that passes through points A and B
where A is located 4 meters of O and B is located 3 meters east of O. Then, the length of PQ, in meters, is nearest to
(a) 8.8 (b) 6.6
(c) 7.8 (d) 7.2
73. The viwership of a television show increased by 50% after introducing Comedy Star Abhishek Sharma. But due to
some backlashes with Sunil Sharda an another rising Comedy star, the viewership of the shows decreased by 40%.
After a week, when Mr. Sunil announced his own show, the viewership again decreased by 20%. If 4,24,800 lacs
people are still watching the show, what was its viwership initially (in lacs)?
(a) 4.8 (b) 5.6
(c) 5.9 (d) 5.3
74. Rani spends 77% of her income. 25% of her expenditure is on Rent, 10% on transport, 15% on medical and rest
on foods. If her income increased by 10%, and her expenditure doesn’t change. What % of her new income she is
spending on Rent?
75. The average of some numbers is 55. If 80% of the numbers are increased by 5 each, and the rest are decreased by 9
each, then what is the percentage increased in their average?
(a) 5% (b) 4%
(c) 6% (d) 8%
16
Answers Key
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a)
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (2) 14. (c) 15. (d)
16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d)
26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (d)
36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (2) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (b)
46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (d)
51. (53) 52. (c) 53. (60) 54. (b) 55. (a)
56. (a) 57. (60) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (c)
61. (6) 62. (b) 63. (4) 64. (a) 65. (d)
66. (2) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (54) 70. (a)
71. (26.25) 72. (a) 73. (5,90,000) 74. (17.5) 75. (4)
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Hints and Solutions
1. What the question is asking: This question is asking for a specific advantage or benefit that vertical acrostics provided
to writers in ancient times, as mentioned in the passage. It’s asking you to look for a clear, factual response based on
the information in the text.
Explanation: This option is correct. The passage mentions that vertical acrostics allow for complex messages with
plausible deniability. In other words, authors could embed hidden meanings while still having the ability to deny their
existence if necessary.
Incorrect Answers:
(a) This option is incorrect. The passage suggests that acrostics, both horizontal and vertical, were used to
convey complex messages, but it doesn’t imply that they provided a straightforward method. In fact, it
highlights that they often added complexity and ambiguity.
(b) This option is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention that vertical acrostics were used for authors to directly
address reader questions or concerns. Instead, it focuses on their use for letterplay and complexity.
(d) This option is incorrect. The passage doesn’t discuss vertical acrostics in terms of maintaining authorial
persona or decorum. Instead, it emphasizes their role in conveying complex messages and letterplay.
2. What the question is asking: This question is asking you to identify the author’s viewpoint or opinion regarding the
importance of vertical acrostics in ancient poetry. It requires you to analyze the author’s perspective as presented in
the passage and select the most accurate statement that aligns with that perspective.
Explanation: This option is correct. The passage indeed conveys the author’s perspective that vertical acrostics were
deliberate and had meaning, emphasizing their role in conveying complex messages.
Incorrect Answers:
(a) This option is incorrect. The author’s perspective, as expressed in the passage, is quite the opposite. The
author argues that intentional vertical acrostics had significance and allowed for complex messages.
(b) This option is incorrect. The author doesn’t describe vertical acrostics as unimportant but rather highlights
their potential for conveying complex messages and their significance in ancient writing practices.
(d) This option is incorrect. The passage doesn’t suggest that vertical acrostics were primarily used for political
propaganda. It focuses on their use for conveying complex messages and letterplay.
3. What the question is asking: This question is asking you to consider the current theme in the passage, which is the
association of the dipsas snake with sexual desire and thirst, and then suggest what would be the most relevant or
logical topic for the passage to discuss next. It requires you to infer the potential direction of the passage.
Explanation: This option is a relevant continuation of the passage because it would delve further into the discussion
of how the dipsas snake was portrayed in classical literature and its symbolic meaning. The passage briefly mentions
the dipsas snake’s association with unquenchable thirst and its connection to figures like Tantalus and Ovid’s work,
making this a logical next topic to explore in detail.
Incorrect Answers
(b) While the passage briefly mentions the association of sexual desire with the dipsas snake, it doesn’t establish
a strong connection to biblical stories. Therefore, this option would require more context and information to
be a relevant continuation of the passage.
(c) This option doesn’t directly follow the discussion of the dipsas snake and its association with sexual desire
in the passage. It would represent a shift in focus away from the current theme.
(d) This option, while related to the broader theme of the passage, is not a direct continuation of the discussion
about the dipsas snake and its association with sexual desire. It addresses a different aspect of the passage’s
overall message.
4. What the question is asking: This question is asking you to identify the main or central idea of the passage, specifically
focusing on the intersection of classical and biblical traditions. You need to recognize and summarize the core idea
presented in the passage.
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Explanation: This option is correct. The passage indeed emphasizes the historical context of Jewish culture in the
Roman Empire as a significant theme. It discusses the presence of Jews in the Roman Empire, references to Judaism
in classical texts, and the accessibility of the Septuagint to non-Jewish people.
Incorrect Answers:
(a) While the passage does discuss acrostics in ancient poetry, this is not the primary theme. The passage mainly
emphasizes the potential impact of Jewish culture on classical authors and the role of acrostics in conveying
complex messages in their texts. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
(c) While the passage briefly mentions snakes in classical literature, this is not the primary theme. The main
focus is on the impact of Jewish culture and the role of acrostics. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
(d) This option is not the primary theme of the passage. While the Septuagint is mentioned, the passage primarily
discusses its accessibility and its role in allowing the assimilation of Jewish culture into classical traditions.
Therefore, this option is incorrect.
5. What the question is asking: This question is asking you to identify a statement that, if true, would not weaken the
author’s argument regarding the importance of vertical acrostics. It requires you to consider the impact of various
statements on the author’s argument and select one that doesn’t undermine it.
Explanation: This option is less relevant because it proposes an extreme and unlikely scenario. The passage doesn’t
suggest that vertical acrostics were exclusive to Jewish authors but rather discusses their use more broadly in classical
literature.
Incorrect Answers:
(a) This option is a plausible weakening factor. If many texts containing acrostics have been lost or are
incomplete, it would challenge the argument’s premise that acrostics were deliberate and significant in
classical literature. Lost or incomplete texts would mean less evidence to support the claim.
(c) This option is relevant as it addresses the credibility of the author’s theory. If modern scholars widely
criticize the theory, it could weaken the argument’s premise about the significance of acrostics.
(b) This option is relevant because it suggests that the audience’s ability to understand acrostics was limited.
If true, it could undermine the argument’s premise that acrostics were an effective means of conveying
complex messages to a broad audience.
6. What the question is asking: This question asks you to infer, or deduce from the information in the paragraph,
the complicated source of tension faced by the MeToo movement in its relationship with the fight against mass
incarceration. It’s looking for an understanding of the conflict highlighted in the paragraph.
Explanation: This is the correct answer. The paragraph explicitly states that the MeToo movement’s focus on criminal
law responses to violence against women conflicts with the anti-carceral stance of the fight against mass incarceration.
It highlights the tension between these two approaches.
Incorrect Answers:
(a) This option is not supported by the paragraph. The paragraph mentions that the MeToo movement, like
previous feminist movements, is “carceral” or focused on the criminal law response to violence against
women, which is related to incarceration.
(b) The paragraph doesn’t mention the level of popular support for either movement. Therefore, this option is
not supported by the information in the paragraph.
(d) The paragraph doesn’t mention any successful collaboration between the MeToo movement and the fight
against mass incarceration. Therefore, this option is not supported by the information in the paragraph.
7. What the question is asking: This question is asking you to identify among the provided options, which one explains
the term “carceral feminism” and discusses its role and importance within the larger feminist movement.
Explanation: This is the correct answer. The paragraph discusses “carceral feminism” as a term coined to describe
feminist commitment to law and order, particularly the use of criminal law, in addressing gender violence. It implies
a reliance on the criminal justice system.
Incorrect Answers:
(a) This option is not correct. The term “carceral feminism,” as mentioned in the paragraph, does not primarily
refer to feminist efforts related to workplace equality. Instead, it describes a specific approach within
19
feminism that emphasizes the use of criminal law responses to address gender violence.
(b) This option is not correct. “Carceral feminism” is not about collaboration with mass incarceration movements.
It’s about a feminist approach that leans towards the use of the criminal justice system to combat gender
violence.
(c) This option is not correct. “Carceral feminism” does not indicate resistance to the criminal justice system.
Instead, it refers to a particular strand of feminism that actively engages with and supports the use of
criminal law to address issues of gender violence.
8. What the question is asking: This question is asking you to identify the cause-and-effect relationship discussed in the
paragraph concerning the influence of feminist criminal law reforms on the approach to achieving gender justice. For
this, you need to understand the argument presented in the passage.
Explanation: This is the correct answer. The paragraph discusses the historical impact of feminist criminal law
reforms, highlighting that they played a significant role in establishing prosecution as the primary approach to
achieving gender justice, despite potential negative consequences such as increased incarceration.
Incorrect Answers:
(b) This option is not supported by the paragraph. While the paragraph does mention the impact of feminist
criminal law reforms on marginalized women, it doesn’t state that these reforms necessarily led to their
success. It acknowledges that these reforms imprisoned some marginalized women.
(c) This option is not accurate. The paragraph discusses tension between the MeToo movement and the fight
against mass incarceration, but it doesn’t suggest that the MeToo movement directly caused increased
support for mass incarceration. In fact, it suggests the opposite – a conflict between their approaches.
(d) This option is not supported by the paragraph. The paragraph does not indicate that criminal law responses
to violence against women led to a decrease in racial hierarchy. It emphasizes the role of criminal law
reforms in reinforcing issues like racism and sexism within the criminal justice system.
9. What the question is asking: This question is asking you to identify the crucial assumption that, if made, would
strengthen the argument presented in the passage about how feminist criminal law reforms have historically worsened
racial issues. It’s about identifying what would support the argument’s validity.
Explanation: This is a crucial assumption that would strengthen the argument in the passage. The passage suggests
that feminist criminal law reforms have historically reinforced racism and sexism. If it can be assumed that these
reforms did not consistently advocate for racial equality, it would support the claim that they exacerbated issues of
racism.
Incorrect Answers:
(a) This option is not necessarily related to the argument in the passage. The passage doesn’t suggest that
criminal law responses have ever consistently resulted in reduced racial hierarchy. It focuses on the negative
impact of such responses on issues like racism and sexism.
(c) While collaboration between the MeToo movement and anti-carceral advocates might be desirable for some,
it’s not a necessary assumption to strengthen the argument in the passage. The passage primarily discusses
the historical impact of feminist criminal law reforms.
(d) This option is not supported by the passage and is not relevant to the argument presented. The passage
doesn’t claim that mass incarceration is the only solution but rather that it has negative consequences,
including reinforcing racism and sexism.
10. What the question is asking: This question asks you to identify the main barrier or challenge discussed in the passage
that obstructs the creation of effective mental health programs specifically tailored for Transition Age Youth (TAY).
It prompts you to consider the complexities and obstacles described in the text.
Explanation: This option is the correct answer. The passage highlights racial, ethnic, and geographic disparities in TAY
mental healthcare access and outcomes, emphasizing that more inclusive and equitable mental health interventions
are urgently needed. Structural inequities are identified as a significant obstacle.
Incorrect Answers
(a) This option is not the primary obstacle mentioned in the passage. The passage focuses more on systemic and
structural challenges rather than the awareness of mental health issues among TAY.
20
(b) This option is close to the primary obstacle discussed in the passage. The passage emphasizes the lack
of mental health programs designed for TAY across various medical disciplines. However, the primary
obstacle mentioned relates more to disparities in access to mental healthcare due to structural inequities.
(d) This option is not the primary obstacle mentioned in the passage. The passage does discuss TAY’s reluctance
to seek mental health treatment as a challenge, but it doesn’t suggest that TAY perceives mental health issues
as a normal part of growing up as the primary obstacle.
11. What the question is asking: This question seeks to understand the overall tone and evaluation presented in the
passage regarding the existing mental health programs for Transition Age Youth (TAY). It asks you to identify the
sentiment or judgment expressed in the text regarding these programs.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: This option is the correct answer. The passage highlights various challenges and obstacles faced by
TAY in accessing mental health programs, including disparities and the lack of universally applicable innovative
programs. These challenges, along with the urgent need for more inclusive and equitable interventions, reflect a
critical tone towards the current state of mental health programs for TAY.
Incorrect Answers:
(b) This option is incorrect. The passage does not express optimism or mention significant progress made in
mental health programs for TAY. Instead, it focuses on existing challenges and disparities.
(c) This option is incorrect. The passage does express a clear opinion by highlighting the urgent need for more
inclusive and equitable mental health interventions and addressing the challenges faced by TAY. It is not
neutral but rather critical in its tone.
(d) This option is not the correct choice. While the passage does emphasize the need for more inclusive and
equitable mental health interventions, it primarily discusses the challenges and disparities rather than the
need for further evaluation of existing programs.
12. What the question is asking: This question asks you to find a statement among the options that, if true, would not
weaken the conclusion that there is an urgent need for more comprehensive and equitable mental health interventions
specifically designed for Transition Age Youth (TAY). It requires you to consider the information and arguments
presented in the passage.
Explanation: This option is the correct answer. The passage explicitly mentions these disparities and underscores
the need for more inclusive and equitable mental health interventions. Highlighting these disparities strengthens the
conclusion that comprehensive and equitable interventions are urgently needed for TAY, as it supports the main point
made in the passage.
Incorrect Answers:
(a) This option is incorrect. The passage actually emphasizes that the mental health needs of TAY have
escalated during the COVID-19 pandemic, which contradicts the statement. Therefore, it would weaken the
conclusion.
(b) This option is incorrect. The passage discusses racial, ethnic, and geographic disparities in TAY mental
healthcare access and outcomes, which directly contradicts the statement. It would weaken the conclusion.
(c) This option is incorrect. The passage primarily discusses the lack of comprehensive and equitable mental
health interventions for TAY, indicating that such programs are not widely available or effective. This
statement goes against the passage’s content and would weaken the conclusion.
13. What the question is asking: This question is asking you to identify an assumption or inference that can be made
based on the information presented in the passage regarding how electrons behave within atoms and molecules. It
requires you to draw a logical conclusion from the passage’s content.
Explanation: This is the correct answer. The passage explains that electrons in atoms and molecules must delocalize
into quantum clouds to satisfy quantum principles like the Heisenberg uncertainty principle and the Pauli exclusion
principle. This is a fundamental concept of quantum physics and is supported by the information provided in the
passage.
Incorrect Answers:
21
(a) This statement contradicts the information provided in the passage. The passage explicitly states that electrons
must delocalize into quantum clouds, and they cannot be simultaneously at a precise position and at rest to the
nucleus due to the Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
(b) This statement is incorrect based on the information in the passage. The passage clearly states that electrons
must delocalize into quantum clouds to satisfy quantum principles like the Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
(c) This statement is incorrect according to the information in the passage. The passage emphasizes that classical
physics rules are insufficient to explain the behavior of electrons in atoms and molecules due to quantum
effects.
14. What the question is asking: This question seeks to understand the main objective or intent of the passage concerning
quantum principles and their influence on the behavior of atoms and molecules. It prompts you to consider why the
passage discusses quantum principles and what message or knowledge it aims to convey.
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: This is the correct answer. The passage’s primary purpose is to explain how quantum principles,
including the Heisenberg uncertainty principle and the Pauli exclusion principle, fundamentally influence the behavior
of particles in atoms and molecules. It discusses the need for electrons to delocalize into quantum clouds and how this
affects the formation of stable molecules. This overarching theme aligns with the primary purpose of the passage.
Incorrect Answers:
(b) This option is incorrect. The passage does not investigate classical physics foundations; rather, it contrasts
classical physics with quantum principles and explains why classical physics is insufficient to describe atomic
and molecular behavior.
(c) This option is also incorrect. While the Heisenberg uncertainty principle is mentioned as one of the quantum
principles, it is not the primary purpose of the passage to solely illustrate this principle. The passage discusses
a broader range of quantum principles and their implications.
(d) This statement is not the primary purpose of the passage. While the passage mentions pions briefly in the
context of nuclear interactions, the primary focus is on quantum principles and their impact on atomic and
molecular behavior.
15. What the question is asking: This question is asking you to identify the specific quantum principle that is mentioned in
the passage as governing the behavior of electrons. It relates to the passage’s discussion of the principles that underlie
electron behavior.
Explanation: This is the correct answer. The passage mentions the Heisenberg uncertainty principle as a fundamental
quantum principle that dictates that an electron cannot simultaneously have a precisely defined position and zero
speed. This principle is essential for understanding the behavior of particles in the quantum world.
Incorrect Answers:
(a) This option is incorrect. While the passage discusses electrons delocalized into quantum clouds, the specific
principle related to the uncertainty of position and momentum is the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, not the
“Quantum Cloud Principle.”
(c) This option is incorrect. The passage does not discuss quantum entanglement in the context of electrons’
positions and speeds. It primarily focuses on the Heisenberg uncertainty principle and the Pauli exclusion
principle.
(d) This option is incorrect. The passage does not mention the quantum superposition principle in relation to the
uncertainty of position and speed for electrons. Quantum superposition is a different concept related to the
simultaneous existence of multiple states in quantum systems.
16. What the question is asking: This question seeks to understand the reasons or factors mentioned in the passage
that make Ethereum’s blockchain system capable of accommodating various applications. It’s asking for specific
information from the text that supports this potential.
Explanation: The passage explains that Ethereum’s programming language is “Turing complete,” which means it is
extremely flexible and can be used to build a wide variety of applications. This flexibility allows Ethereum’s blockchain
to host a range of applications beyond simple payments.
Incorrect Answers:
22
(a) The passage mentions that Ethereum’s blockchain system is not primarily designed for simple payments
but, in fact, has the potential to host a wide range of applications due to its flexible and “Turing complete”
programming language. Therefore, it’s incorrect.
(c) The passage actually states the opposite – Ethereum’s programming language is highly flexible and not
specialized for simple payments.Therefore, it’s incorrect.
(d) The passage mentions that Ethereum has its own cryptocurrency called Ether, but it doesn’t imply that this
is the reason for Ethereum’s ability to host various applications. Therefore, it’s incorrect.
17. What the question is asking: This question requires you to identify a concept mentioned in the passage that goes
against or conflicts with Jeremy Rifkin’s vision of the Collaborative Commons. It also asks for a connection to the
decentralized nature of Ethereum’s programming language.
Explanation: The passage aligns with the concept of decentralized peer-to-peer networks reducing the cost of services,
which is in line with Jeremy Rifkin’s vision of the Collaborative Commons. It mentions how distributed peer-to-peer
networks make it cheaper and easier to start new companies.
Incorrect Answers:
(a) While the passage does mention companies like Airbnb and Uber, it doesn’t directly state that these
companies contradict Jeremy Rifkin’s vision of the Collaborative Commons. The passage discusses these
companies as somewhat efficient middlemen but doesn’t explicitly say they contradict the vision.
(b) The passage does mention that the digital payment systems underpinning services like Airbnb and Kickstarter
are highly centralized and expensive. However, it doesn’t directly state that this centralization contradicts
Jeremy Rifkin’s vision of the Collaborative Commons. It implies this indirectly.
(d) While the passage discusses the challenges of implementing a true digital currency in the context of the
internet, it doesn’t directly state that the emergence of such a currency contradicts Jeremy Rifkin’s vision.
The passage discusses this as a challenge rather than a contradiction.
18. What the question is asking: This question challenges you to find a statement that, if true, would cast doubt on the
idea that Ethereum’s programming language will have a revolutionary impact on the Collaborative Commons. It
requires you to consider potential weaknesses or counterarguments to the assumption made in the passage.
Explanation: If Ethereum’s programming language has significant security vulnerabilities, it would weaken the
assumption that it will revolutionize the Collaborative Commons. Security issues could deter companies from
adopting Ethereum for their applications.
Incorrect Answers:
(b) The passage does not provide information about whether the majority of companies in the Collaborative
Commons have already adopted Ethereum. Therefore, this statement neither strengthens or weakens the
assumption.
(c) The passage mentions that transactions in the Collaborative Commons are paid for using Ethereum’s
cryptocurrency, Ether. It does not suggest that Ether is not widely accepted for transactions, so this statement
does not weaken the assumption.
(d) The passage does not provide any information about Jeremy Rifkin’s views on Ethereum’s programming
language. Therefore, whether he has expressed doubts or not does not have any direct impact on the
assumption.
19. What the question is asking: This question asks you to pick an option that introduces a perspective or information that
challenges or adds complexity to the role of decentralized networks in the context of the Collaborative Commons, as
discussed in the passage.
Explanation: If recent studies show that Ethereum-based transactions have significantly reduced costs and contributed
positively to the Collaborative Commons, this would provide strong support for the idea that decentralized networks
like Ethereum are crucial for the Commons, aligning with Jeremy Rifkin’s vision.
Incorrect Answers:
(b) While traditional financial institutions showing interest in adopting decentralized networks might suggest
their recognition of their potential, it doesn’t necessarily challenge the role of decentralized networks in the
Collaborative Commons. It could be seen as a potential adaptation rather than a challenge.
23
(c) If government regulations become more favorable to decentralized blockchain technologies, it would likely
enhance their role in the Collaborative Commons, which is consistent with the passage and Rifkin’s vision.
This option doesn’t provide a nuanced perspective or challenge.
(d) If Jeremy Rifkin himself asserts that the success of the Collaborative Commons depends solely on middlemen
elimination, without any reliance on decentralized networks, it would contradict the passage and the idea
that decentralized networks like Ethereum have a role to play. This option presents a challenge but does not
align with the passage’s information.
20. Explanation: This summary captures the essence of the paragraph. It highlights the key points about integrative and
personalized medicine challenging traditional medical practices, emphasizing holistic approaches, and their clash
with the medical marketplace and individualized care within the welfare state.
Incorrect Answers:
(b) This summary is overly general because it doesn’t specifically mention integrative and personalized
medicine or their impact on traditional practices. It mentions transformations in medicine but lacks the
necessary details from the paragraph.
(c) This summary is too specific because it focuses solely on integrative medicine’s reliance on medical genetics
and gene therapy, neglecting the broader context of the clash with the medical marketplace and the welfare
state, which is a significant aspect of the paragraph.
(d) This summary is too narrow because it narrows down the discussion to occupational therapy and personalized
medicine’s focus solely on gene therapy, ignoring the broader issues raised in the paragraph about integrative
medicine, the clash with the medical marketplace, and the welfare state’s challenges.
21. The given sentence would best fit in blank 2 (option d)

Explanation: Blank 2 is the most appropriate place for the given sentence because it introduces the Kant concept of
‘the power of choice’ at work and directly leads to a discussion about the implications of this insight on the nature of
work in capitalism.
Incorrect Answers:
Blank 1 discusses the power of choice at work, but it doesn’t directly introduce the insight mentioned in the given
sentence. Therefore, it’s not correct.
Blank 3 talks about workers becoming like animals at work due to the lack of rational deliberation, but it doesn’t
connect with the broader implication mentioned in the given sentence. Therefore, it’s not correct.
Blank 4 touches on the idea that labor in capitalism is determined by some purpose, but it doesn’t address the specific
insight mentioned in the given sentence. Therefore, it’s not correct.
22. The given sentence would fit best in blank 2 (option b)

Explanation: The sentence before blank 2 discusses technological advances potentially surpassing human ingenuity.
The missing sentence, which talks about the crisis in the humanities, is relevant here because it emphasizes the
critical nature of this crisis in the context of technological advancement. It suggests that the crisis has reached a
tipping point, adding weight to the argument that technological advances are a significant factor in the current state
of knowledge production.
Incorrect Answers:
Blank 1 doesn’t provide any context for the crisis of the humanities or the impact of technological advances. Hence,
it’s incorrect.
Blank 3 discusses the disappearance of news outlets and political movements but doesn’t directly address the crisis
in the humanities. Hence, it’s incorrect.
Blank 4 mentions the ending of systems for producing knowledge but doesn’t connect it to technological advances.
Hence, it’s incorrect.
23. Explanation: The correct summary provides a concise yet comprehensive overview of the paragraph. It mentions that
ARTs are viewed as treatments for infertility, highlights the complexity of defining infertility, references the views of
feminist theorists like Raymond on infertility not being a disease, and draws a parallel to debates in the philosophy
of medicine regarding the definition of ‘disease.’
24
Incorrect Answers:
(b) This summary is overly general because it briefly mentions ARTs and the debate surrounding infertility but
lacks specific details such as the role of feminist theorists like Raymond and the connection to debates in the
philosophy of medicine. It oversimplifies the content of the paragraph.
(c) This summary is too specific as it focuses primarily on infertility and disability classification without
mentioning the broader context of ARTs, feminist perspectives, and debates in philosophy of medicine. It
misses important elements from the paragraph.
(d) This summary is too narrow because it focuses solely on the link between infertility and commercial
interests and debates about disease definitions in philosophy of medicine. It neglects the discussion of ARTs
and feminist perspectives, providing an incomplete representation of the paragraph.
24. Explanation: The correct summary effectively captures the main points of the paragraph. It highlights the two
aspects of economic deservingness, the connection between economic and moral judgments, their impact on social
relationships, and the importance of people’s stories and memories in understanding these dynamics.
Incorrect Answers:
(a) This summary is overly general because it mentions economic deservingness, social relationships, and
justice beliefs but lacks the specific details about the two aspects of economic deservingness, the connection
between economics and morality, and the role of post-1989 changes in people’s stories and memories.
(c) This summary is too specific as it focuses primarily on the uneasy connection between economic and moral
aspects and the impact on social networks. It does not provide a broader view of the paragraph’s content,
such as the two aspects of economic deservingness and the role of post-1989 changes.
(d) This summary is too narrow because it focuses solely on the impact of post-1989 changes on people’s beliefs
about justice, neglecting the broader discussion about economic deservingness, the connection between
economics and morality, and their influence on social relationships.
25. The given sentence would best fit in blank 1: (Option a)

Explanation: The sentence before blank 1 serves as an introductory sentence that sets the stage for the discussion
about primary focal dystonia. It introduces the idea that this condition can affect otherwise healthy individuals,
creating curiosity and interest in the reader before delving into more specific details in the subsequent blanks.
Incorrect Answers:
Blank 2 describes the specific condition, cervical dystonia or torticollis, that individuals can experience as a result of
primary focal dystonia, it doesn’t connect with the given sentence. Therefore, it’s incorrect.
Blank 3 provides further details about the physical manifestation of the condition, explaining the imbalance in neck
muscles. As it is giving further information it would break the flow of the para. Therefore, it’s incorrect.
Blank 4 uses a hypothetical situation to help the reader empathize with the experience of having the condition. The
sentence doesn’t go well with this example. Therefore, it’s incorrect.
25
26. Let us say that ratings given by P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are a, b, c, d, e, f, g, and h respectively. Each number must
have been included in 7 other totals. So, the sum of all the ratings must be 7(a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h)
Sum of all the totals is also 71 + 70 + 69 + 68 + 67 + 66 + 65 + y
Now, y can only take one of the values already mentioned in the sequence because two trainers who have given the
same ratings must have got the same total for all the others combined.
Let us equate both the expressions:
7(a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 71 + 70 + 69 + 68 + 67 + 66 + 65 + y
7(a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 476 + y
Now, we know that LHS is a multiple of 7, so RHS must also be a multiple of 7. We know that 476 is a multiple of
7, so ‘y’ must also be a multiple of seven. The only number from 65 to 71 that is a multiple of 7 is 70. Therefore,
y = 70.
27. Let us say that ratings given by P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are , and h respectively. Each number must
7(a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 71 + 70 + 69 + 68 + 67 + 66 + 65 + y
7(a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 476 + y
7, so ‘y’ must also be a multiple of seven. The only number from 65 to 71 that is a multiple of 7 is 70. Therefore, y =
70.
Therefore, 7(a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h)
= 476 + 70 = 546
a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h = 78
The lowest total given is 65, this trainer must have given the highest rating. So, the highest rating must be 78 – 65 = 13
7(a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 71 + 70 + 69 + 68 + 67 + 66 + 65 + y
7(a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 476 + y
y = 70.
Therefore, 7(a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 476 + 70 = 546
a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h = 78
The highest total given is 71, this trainer must have given the lowest rating. So, the lowest rating must be
78 – 71 = 7
26
7(a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 71 + 70 + 69 + 68 + 67 + 66 + 65 + y
7(a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 476 + y
y = 70.
a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h = 78
The lowest total given is 65, this trainer must have given the highest rating. So, the highest rating must be
78 – 65 = 13
78 – 71 = 7
We can certainly infer that the ratings must be in ascending order i.e., 7, 8, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13.
10 + 11 + 12 + 13
So, the arithmetic mean of the top four ratings = 11.5
4
7(a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 71 + 70 + 69 + 68 + 67 + 66 + 65 + y
7(a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h) = 476 + y
y = 70.
a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h = 78
The lowest total given is 65, this trainer must have given the highest rating. So, the highest rating must be
78 – 65 = 13
78 – 71 = 7
We can certainly infer that the ratings must be in ascending order i.e., 7, 8, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13.
Hence, that equal rating given by two trainers must be ‘8’.
31. Let the initials for the movies – West Side Story, X-Men, Y2K and Zombiez be W, X, Y, and Z respectively.
According to condition 2, the number of persons who watched 2 or 3 movies will be 2 and 4 respectively.
Total person movies = 4 × 3 + 2 × 2 + 2 × 1 = 18
27
Using condition 7, the total number of people watched W, X, Y, and Z (since they are in AP) can only be 3, 4, 5, and
6 respectively. According to conditions 3, P2, P5, and P7 can only watch 1 or 2 movies which means out of P1, P8, P6,
P4, and P3, 4 persons watched 3 movies and 1 person watched 2 movies.
Using condition 4, P3 watched 2 movies and so P7 watched 2 movies, which means P5 and P2 are both males. Since
P5 watched Y, P2, and P7 did not watch Y according to condition 3 and also P3 did not watch Y according to condition
4. So, P1, P8, P6, P4, and P5 watched Y. 6 people watched Z. P5 did not watch Z as he watched only 1 movie. Further,
out of P2 and P7, only P7 watched Z if P7 did not watch, then P3 also did not watch Z.
Now for W and X, managers are P2 and P7 (not necessarily in that order).
If P2 watched movie X, P1, P7, and P3 watched movie W, it means P8 and P4 again watched movie X together, which
is not possible as they already watched two movies together.
If P2 watched movie W, then P1, P7, and P3 watched movie X, and one of P8 and P4 watched the movie with them. The
second person among P8 and P4 watched movie W with P2 and P6.
The final arrangement is as follows,
W(3) X(4) Y(5) Z(6)
P1 N Y Y Y
P2 Y N N N
P3 N Y N Y
P4 N N Y Y
Y Y
P5 N N Y N
P6 Y N Y Y
P7 N Y N Y
P8 Y N Y Y
N Y
From condition 2, P2 and P5 are both males.
P7 did not watch X-men.
Using condition 4, P3 watched 2 movies and so P7 watched 2 movies, which means P5 and 2 are both males. Since
out of P2 and P7, only P7 watched Z if P7 did not watch, then 3 also did not watch Z.
second person among P8 and P4 watched movie W with P2 and 6.
W(3) X(4) Y(5) Z(6)
P1 N Y Y Y
28
P2 Y N N N
P3 N Y N Y
P4 N Y Y Y
Y N
P5 N N Y N
P6 Y N Y Y
P7 N Y N Y
P8 Y N Y Y
N Y
Among the given persons, P3 watched exactly two movies.
If l2 watched movie X, P1, P7, and P3 watched movie W, it means P8 and P4 again watched movie X together, which
W(3) X(4) Y(5) Z(6)
P1 N Y Y Y
P2 Y N N N
P3 N Y N Y
P4 N Y Y Y
Y N
P5 N N Y N
P6 Y N Y Y
P7 N Y N Y
P8 Y N Y Y
N Y

Three person watched West Side Story.
29
6 respectively. According to conditions 3, P2, P5, and P7 can only watch 1 or 2 movies which means out of 1, P8, P6,
W(3) X(4) Y(5) Z(6)

P1 N Y Y Y
P2 Y N N N
P3 N Y N Y
P4 N Y Y Y
Y N
P5 N N Y N
P6 Y N Y Y
P7 N Y N Y
P8 Y N Y Y
N Y
Five people watched the movie Y2K.
30
W(3) X(4) Y(5) Z(6)
P1 N Y Y Y
P2 Y N N N
P3 N Y N Y
P4 N Y Y Y
Y N
P5 N N Y N
P6 Y N Y Y
P7 N Y N Y
P8 Y Y Y Y
N N
Six people watched the movie Zombiez.
36. It is given that each row and each column of the Word matrix contains the characters C, A, S, and E and a blank cell
in some order so that no character or blank cell can be repeated in a row or a column.
From (9), S is in row 3, column 3.
From (1), E is the 2nd letter across row 1 so it has to be in column 2 or 3; while from (6) E is the 4th letter in column 3.
E in row 1 must be in column 2.
From (2), C is the 4th letter in column 1, while from (8), C is the 4th letter across row 4. C in column 1 must be in row 5.
From (4), we get that in column 4, E is immediately followed by S in the next cell.
So, S in row 1 would be in column 5 (from (7)).
E in column 4 would be in row 3 or row 4. So, S in column 4 would be in row 4 or row 5.
i.e. either E or S would be in row 4 column 4.
So, C in row 4 would be in column 5 (from (8)).
From (1), there has to be a letter in row 1 of column 1. The only possible letter in this cell is A.
From (3), A in column 2 must be in rows 2 or 3.
C in column 2 cannot be in rows 1, 4, and 5. So, C has to be in row 3 and A in row 2 of column 2. (Note: If C is in
row 2, C would be the second letter in column 2, which is a contradiction to (3).
So, S in column 2 has to be in rows 3 or 4.
As S in column 4 is also in row 4 or row 5, S in column 1 has to be in row 2.
1 2 3 4 5
p A E S
q S A
r C S
s C
t C
Consider column - 3
A would be in the last two rows.
31
Therefore, from (6), A would be in row 4 and E would be in row 5.
Therefore, from (5), the only remaining letter of column 3 (i.e. C) would be in row 2.
Thus, the blank cell of row 1 would be in column 3, and hence, C in row 1 would be in column 4.
Consider row – 2
S, E, and C are in columns 1, 2, and 3. Also, E cannot be in column 4. So, E would be in column 5 and a blank cell
in column 4.
Consider column -5
S, E, and C are in rows 1, 2, and 4. So, from (11), A has to be in row 3. Thus, a blank cell would be in row 5.
Consider column - 4
C and a blank cell are in the first two rows. A in columns 3 and 5 are in rows 4 and 3 respectively. So, A would be in
row 5. This leaves E and S in rows 3 and 4 respectively.
Consider column -2
S would be in row 5 and a blank cell must be in row 4.
So, E in column 1 would be in row 4.
Now, the word matrix with the word CASE will be as follows-
1 2 3 4 5
p A E C S
q S A C E
r C S E A
s E A S C
t C S E A
From the above table, we can see that the letter S appears in cell r – 3.
From (1), E is the 2nd letter across row 1 so it has to be in column 2 or 3; while from (6) E is the 4th letter in
column 3.
From (2), C is the 4th letter in column 1, while from (8), C is the 4th letter across row 4. C in column 1 must be in
row 5.
32
1 2 3 4 5
p A E S
q S A
r C S
s C
t C
Consider column - 3
Consider row – 2
S, E, and C are in columns 1, 2, and 3. Also, E cannot be in column 4. So, E would be in column 5 and a blank cell in
column 4.
Consider column -5
Consider column - 4
C and a blank cell are in the first two rows. A in columns 3 and 5 are in rows 4 and 3 respectively. So, A would be in row
5. This leaves E and S in rows 3 and 4 respectively.
Consider column -2
1 2 3 4 5
p A E C S
q S A C E
r C S E A
s E A S C
t C S E A
From the final arrangement, we get that cell q – 4 is blank.
38. It is given that each row and each column of the Word matrix contains the characters C, A, S, and E and a blank cell in
some order so that no character or blank cell can be repeated in a row or a column.
33
1 2 3 4 5
p A E S
q S A
r C S
s C
t C
Consider column - 3
Consider row – 2
S, E, and C are in columns 1, 2, and 3. Also, E cannot be in column 4. So, E would be in column 5 and a blank cell
in column 4.
Consider column -5
Consider column - 4
Consider column -2
1 2 3 4 5
p A E C S
q S A C E
r C S E A
s E A S C
t C S E A
From the final arrangement, we get that the letter E appears above the alphabet S in columns 2 and 4 i.e. two
instances.
From (1), E is the 2nd letter across row 1 so it has to be in column 2 or 3; while from (6) E is the 4th letter in column
3.
34
C in column 2 cannot be in rows 1, 4, and 5. So, C has to be in row 3 and A in row 2 of column 2. (Note: If C is in row 2,
C would be the second letter in column 2, which is a contradiction to (3).
1 2 3 4 5
p A E S
q S A
r C S
s C
t C
Consider column - 3
Consider row – 2
column 4.
Consider column -5
Consider column - 4
C and a blank cell are in the first two rows. A in columns 3 and 5 are in rows 4 and 3 respectively. So, A would be in row
5. This leaves E and S in rows 3 and 4 respectively.
Consider column -2
Now, the word matrix with the word CASE will be as follows –
1 2 3 4 5
p A E C S
q S A C E
r C S E A
s E A S C
t C S E A
we get that, three rows p, r, and t have all the vowels (A and E) come together without any space.
35
40. It is given that each row and each column of the Word matrix contains the characters C, A, S, and E and a blank cell in
some order so that no character or blank cell can be repeated in a row or a column.
From (2), C is the 4th letter in column 1, while from (8), C is the 4th letter across row 4. C in column 1 must be in
row 5.
C in column 2 cannot be in rows 1, 4, and 5. So, C has to be in row 3 and A in row 2 of column 2. (Note: If C is in row
2, C would be the second letter in column 2, which is a contradiction to (3).
1 2 3 4 5
p A E S
q S A
r C S
s C
t C
Consider column - 3
Consider row – 2
column 4.
Consider column -5
Consider column - 4s
Consider column -2
36
1 2 3 4 5
p A E C S
q S A C E
r C S E A
s E A S C
t C S E A
we can see that the s-2 cell is a blank cell.
41. Case-1 : Let Eve be the person who always speaks the truth. So, Froger studies in C3, David studies in C2, and Eve
studies in C1.
Considering Froger’s statements, his first statement is false. His second statement is true. So, Froger is an alternator.
His third statement must be false.
However, this is not the case because Eve doesn’t study in C3.
Case-2 : Let Froger be the person who always speaks the truth.
So, David studies in either C1 or C3. Froger studies in either C2 or C3. and Eve studies in either C1 or C2.
If David studies in C1, then Eve studies in C2, and Froger studies in C3.
If David studies in C3, Froger studies in C2, and Eve studies in C1.
Now consider cases 2-1: David studies in C1, Eve studies in C2, and Froger studies in C3. So, Eve’s first statement is
false, the second statement is true, and the third statement is false.
So, Eve is an alternator and David is a liar. David’s first statement is false. However, his second statement is true. This
is not possible. So, case 2-1 is not possible.
Consider Case 2-2: David studies in C3, Froger studies in C2, and Eve studies in C1.
So, Eve’s first statement is true, the second statement is false, and the third statement is true. So, Eve is an alternator
and David is a liar.
David’s first statement is false. His second statement is also false. However, his third statement is true. So, this case
is not possible.
Case 3: Let David be the person who always speaks the truth. So, David studies in C2. Eve does not study in C1. So,
Eve studies in C3, and Froger studies in C1.
So, Eve’s first statement is true. That implies that Eve is an alternator, and his second statement must be false, and
the third statement must be true. Froger is the liar. So, all his three statements must be false. So, David is the person
who always speaks the truth, and he studies in C2. Froger is a person who always lies, and he studies in C1. Eve is the
alternator and he studies in C3. So, the final table looks like this-
Person Category School
David Truthteller C2
Froger Liar C1
Eve Alternator C3
Hence, David studies in C2.
studies in C1.
37
David’s first statement is false. His second statement is also false. However, his third statement is true. So, this case is
not possible.
Froger Liar C1
Eve Alternator C3
Hence, Froger is a liar.
studies in C1.
Case-2: Let Froger be the person who always speaks the truth.
David’s first statement is false. His second statement is also false. However, his third statement is true. So, this case is
not possible.
38
Froger Liar C1
Eve Alternator C3
Hence, all statements can be inferred.
studies in C1.
David’s first statement is false. His second statement is also false. However, his third statement is true. So, this case
is not possible.

Froger Liar C1
Eve Alternator C3
If the colleges of David and Eve get interchanged, then Eve studies in C2.
46. Let six teams America, Brazil, Canada, Denmark, England, and France represented as A, B, C, D, E, and F respectively
It is given that each team has played each of the other teams in the group exactly once. Hence, each team must have
played a total of five matches.
For any team, the number of wins, losses, and draws put together must be four i.e., W + L + D = 5.
Team E scored a total of 12 points, which obviously means that it won four matches as no other condition was
satisfied.
For team E, W = 4 ⇒ L = 1 and D = 0
It is given F has more wins than E. So, F has 5 wins and earns 15 points.
As team F scored a total of 15 points, which obviously means that it won all five matches it played.
39
For team F, W = 5 ⇒ L = 0 and D = 0
Team C scored a total of 5 points. As it cannot have 5 draws (and the total number of matches played is only 5), it won
one of the matches and drew two of the matches.
For team C, W = 1 and D = 2 ⇒ L = 2
Now for team A, total points = 6. These 6 points must be from 2 wins and 3 loss, or 1 win and 3 draws.
Considering A has 2 wins and no draws,
For team A, W = 2 and D = 0 ⇒ L = 3
Team D got four points, so it cannot have four draws, as it already lost against teams E and F. Hence one of the matches
must be a win and one of the matches must be a draw.
For team D, W = 1 and D = 1 ⇒ L = 3
Now, C has two draws, one of these two draws must be against team D. Now regarding the remaining draw, it cannot
be against A, as D = 0 for team A.
It cannot be against E or F, as D = 0 for team E or F.
The remaining draw must be against team B.
Now in the complete table,
Total wins = Total losses
Let the number of wins of B be x and losses be y.
Total wins in the table are A(2) + B(x) + C(1) + D(1) + E(4) + F(5) = 13 + x
Total losses in the table is A(3) + B(y) + C(2) + D(3) + E(1) = 9 + y
Now, 13 + x = 9 + y
y = 4 + x...(1)
Further, for team B, Draw = 1, W + L = 4 i.e., x + y = 4 ⇒ x = 0 and y = 4
The final table will be as follows:-
Team Win Loss Draw Points
America 2 3 0 6
Brazil 0 4 1 1
Canada 1 2 2 5
Denmark 1 3 1 4
England 4 1 0 12
France 5 0 0 15
Considering A has 2 wins and 3 draws,
As A had lost matches from E and F so the Lost matches for A are L = 2; Hence, W + L + D = 2 + 2 + 3 = 7 is not
possible.
Now let us analyze the result of every match. We know that the match between B and C and that between C and D are
both draws and B lost every other match. Further E won every match it played except against France.
England lost 1 match and that will definitely be against France. Canada has lost 2 matches to E and F and played 2
draw matches to Brazil and Denmark so it definitely won the match against America.
Denmark lost 3 matches to America, France and England. And played a draw match against Canada so it has definitely
won a match against Brazil.
Brazil has played a draw match against Canada and lost all other matches to 4 other teams.
40
so Let us represent this in the following table in which the winner of every match is listed.
MATCH
America Brazil Canada Denmark England
SUMMARY
America(A)
Brazil(B) A won
Canada(C) C won Draw
Denmark(D) A won D won Draw
England(E) E won E won E won E won
France(F) F won F won F won F won F won
Brazil scored only one point.
satisfied.
Team C scored a total of 5 points. As it cannot have 5 draws (and the total number of matches played is only 5), it
won one of the matches and drew two of the matches.
Team D got four points, so it cannot have four draws, as it already lost against teams E and F. Hence one of the
matches must be a win and one of the matches must be a draw.
For team D, W = 1 and D = 1 ⇒ =3
Now, 13 + x = 9 + y
y = 4 + x...(1)
41
America 2 3 0 6
Brazil 0 4 1 1
Canada 1 2 2 5
Denmark 1 3 1 4
England 4 1 0 12
France 5 0 0 15
possible.
Now let us analyze the result of every match. We know that the match between B and C and that between C and D
are both draws and B lost every other match. Further E won every match it played except against France.
MATCH
America Brazil Canada Denmark England
SUMMARY
America(A)
Brazil(B) A won
Canada beats only America.
satisfied.
42
Now, 13 + x = 9 + y
y = 4 + x...(1)
Further, for team B, Draw = 1, W + L = 4 i.e., x + y = 4 ⇒ x = 0 and =4
The final table will be as follows: -

America 2 3 0 6
Brazil 0 4 1 1
Canada 1 2 2 5
Denmark 1 3 1 4
England 4 1 0 12
France 5 0 0 15

possible.
MATCH SUMMARY America Brazil Canada Denmark England

America(A)
Brazil(B) A won
America beat both Brazil and Denmark.
43
satisfied.
Total wins in the table are A(2) + B(c) + C(1) + I(1) + E(4) + F(5) = 13 + x
Now, 13 + x = 9 + y
⇒ y = 4 + x...(1)
America 2 3 0 6
Brazil 0 4 1 1
Canada 1 2 2 5
Denmark 1 3 1 4
England 4 1 0 12
France 5 0 0 15
possible.
44
America(A)
Brazil(B) A won
Brazil lost 4 matches out of 5. So, it lost 80% of its matches.
satisfied.
Team D got four points, so it cannot have four draws, as it already lost against teams c and F. Hence one of the
45
Total losses in the table is A(3) + B(y) + C(2) + D(3) + E(1) = 9 +
Now, 13 + x = 9 + y
⇒ y = 4 + x...(1)
Further, for team B, Draw = 1, W + L = 4 i.e., = 4 ⇒ x = 0 and y = 4
The final table will be as follows: -
America 2 3 0 6
Brazil 0 4 1 1
Canada 1 2 2 5
Denmark 1 3 1 4
England 4 1 0 12
France 5 0 0 15
possible.
America(A)
Brazil(B) A won
The total number of matches played is 15, and the total number of matches won by all teams is 13. So, the required
% is 86.67%.
51. Let the total marks be 100y.

Rajesh’s initial score = 30% of 100y = 30y.
After the review, his score increases by 60%, so his new score is 30y + 0.6 × 30y = 48y.
He falls short of passing by 25 marks, so the passing marks are 48y + 25.
Now, let’s consider his score is increased by 15%, which gives us a new score of 48y + 0.15 × 48y = 55.2y.
In this case, he has 10 marks more than the passing score, so the passing score would be 55.2y – 10.
Now, we can set up an equation:
46
Passing score (from the first case) = Passing score (from the second case)
48y + 25 = 55.2y – 10
Now, let’s solve for y:
48y – 55.2y = – 10 – 25
–7.2y = – 35
(−35)
y = ≈ 4.86 (rounded to two decimal places)
(−7.2)
So, the total marks for the examination are approximately 100 × 4.86 ≈ 486.
Now, let’s find the percentage score needed to pass the examination:
Passing marks = 48y + 25 = 48 × 4.86 + 25 ≈ 258.28
 Passing marks   258.28 

Percentage score needed to pass the examination =   × 100 ≈  486  × 100 ≈ 53%.
 Total marks   
Therefore, the percentage score needed for passing the examination is approximately 53%.
52. The selling price of the mixture is Rs.40/kg.

Let a be the price of 1 kg of tea X in the mixture and b be the price per kg of tea Y.
It has been given that the profit is 10% if the 2 varieties are mixed in the ratio 3:2
Let the cost price of the mixture be x.
It has been given that 1.1x = 40
40
x= Price per kg of the mixture in ratio 3:2
1.1
(3a + 2b) 40 ...(1)
= =
5 1.1
= 200
The profit is 5% if the 2 varieties are mixed in the ratio 2 : 3.
Price per kg of the mixture in 2 : 3
(2a + 3b) 40
= =
5 1.05 ...(2)
2.1a + 3.15b = 200
Equating (1) and (2), we get,
3.3a + 2.2b = 2.1a + 3.15b
1.2a = 0.95b
a 19
=
b 24
53. Let us assume Car X travels at a speed of a and Car Y travels at a speed of b.
Further, let us assume that they meet after t minutes.
Distance traveled by car X before meeting car Y = a × t. Likewise distance traveled by car Y before meeting car
X = b × t.
47
Distance traveled by car X after meeting car Y = a × 54. Distance traveled by car Y after meeting car
= 24 × b.
Distance traveled by car X after crossing car Y = distance traveled by car Y before crossing car X (and vice versa).
⇒ at = 24b...(1)
and bt = 54a...(2)
Multiplying equations 1 and 2
we have ab × t2 = 54 × 24 × ab
⇒ t2 = 54 × 24
⇒ t = 36
So, both cars would have traveled 36 minutes prior to crossing each other. Or, Y would have taken 36 + 24 = 60
minutes to travel the whole distance.
54. 5 workers + 3 helpers can reap 23 hectares in 4 days.

3 workers + 2 helpers can reap 7 hectares in 2 days.
14 (5 workers + 3 helpers) can reap 23 × 14 hectares in 4 days.
23 (3 workers + 2 helpers) can reap 7 × 2 × 23 hectares in 4 days.
14 (5 workers + 3 helpers) = 23 (3 workers + 2 helpers).
1 worker = 4 helpers. Now 5 workers + 3 helpers = 23 helpers.
23 helpers can reap 23 hectares in 4 days.
30 helpers can reap 45 hectares in 6 days.
But 30 helpers = 28 helpers + 2 helpers = 7 workers + 2 helpers.. ( 1 worker = 4 helpers).
Hence 2 helpers must assist 7 workers.
55. Let the CP of 1 Product X = S

Thus, the CP of 1 Product Y = 0.6S
Given that, SP of 1 Product X = 1.15 S and SP of 1 Product Y = 0.6S + 20
Also, 15 × 1.15 × S + 8 × (0.6S + 20) – 15S – 8 × 0.6 × S = 385
Thus, solving we get S = 100
Hence, Total CP of 20 Product X and 12 Product Y = 20 × 100 + 12 × 60 = 2720
SP of 15 Product X and 8 Product Y = 15 × 1.15 × 100 + 8 × 80 = 2365
Thus, the overall loss = 2365 – 2720 = 355 Rs.
56. Let the installment paid be x.

The amount 150000 earns an interest for 3 years. So, the installments must also compensate for the interest.
The first installment paid will earn an interest for 2 more years, the second installment paid will earn
an interest for 1 more year and the last installment paid will earn not earn any interest.
⇒ 150000 × (1.2)3 = x × (1.2)2 + x (1.2) + x
⇒ 150000 × (1.2)3 = 3.64x
⇒ = Rs. 71209
57. Let the total number of tests be ‘n’ and the average by ‘A’
Total score = n × A
When 1st 10 tests are excluded, decrease in total value of scores = (nA – 20 × 10) = (nA – 200)
48
Also, (n – 10)(A + 1) = (nA – 200)
On solving, we get 10A – n = 190 ...(i)
When last 10 tests are excluded, decrease in total value of scores = (nA – 30 × 10) = (nA – 300)
Also, (n – 10)(A – 1) = (nA – 300)
On solving, we get 10A + n = 310 ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get n = 60
Hence, 60 is the correct answer
58. Here percentage alcohol in the mixture is to be found out. So, the quantity of alcohol is kept as numerator
Alcohol qa 0.35×100 35
= = = (since 40 ml water is added Quantity of mixture = 100 + 40).
Mixture qa + qw 100+40 140
35
% alcohol = × 100 = 25%
140
59. Let number of days taken by X alone to complete job be a days.
120 6a
Number of days taken by alone Y to complete job = a × =
100 5
1 a
Number of days X worked to complete half of work = ×a=
2 2
1
X’s 1 day’s work =
a
Y’s 1 day’s work = 5

6a
Ratio of time taken alone by A and B = 5:6
1 5 11
(X + Y)’s 1 days work = + =
a 6a 6a
45% of work is completed in 4 days by X and Y. (50% by X, and 5% by Y)
100 80
If they work together, then work will complete in = 4 × =
45 9
11 9
=
6a 80
440
a=
27
 440  6
Number of days in which Y alone can complete work =   × = 19.5 days
 27  5
60. 16 in a row → 12 left
24 in a row → 20 left
49
In all the 4 cases above, the remainder is 4.
(16 – 12) = (24 – 20) = (25 – 21) = (30 – 26)
Hence the required students = LCM (16, 24, 25, 30 ) – 4
= 1200 – 4
= 1196
61. 36288 = 26 × 34 × 7
For any perfect cube, all the powers of its prime numbers have to be multiples of 3.
So, if the factor is of form 2a × 3b × 7c, a can take values 0, 3, 6
And b can take values 0, 3
And c can take value 0.
⇒ There are 3 × 2 × 1 = 6 possibilities
62. 22004 is again a product (2 × 2 × 2... (2004 times)). Since 2 is a number less than 7 we try to convert the product into
product of numbers higher than 7. Notice that 8 = 2 × 2 × 2. Therefore we convert the product in the following manner
– 22004 = 8668 = 8 × 8 × 8... (668 times).
The remainder when 8 is divided by 7 is 1. Hence the remainder when 8668 is divided by 7 is the remainder obtained
when the product 1 × 1 × 1... is divided by 7. Therefore, remainder = 1
63. (432)412 × (499)431

Taking unit digits
⇒ 2412 × 9431
As we know unit digit of 21 = 2, 22 = 4, 23 = 8, 24 = 6
⇒ 24(103) × 9431
⇒ 6 × 9
⇒ 54
⇒ The unit digit of (432)412 × (499)431 is 4.
64. Out of numbers 00, 01, 02,…., 99, those numbers the product of whose digits is 18 are 29,36, 63, 92 i.e., only 4.
4 1
P( E ) = =
100 25
Probability of non - occurrence of E is
4 96
q = 1 − P( E ) = 1 − =
100 100
Out of the four numbers selected, the probability that the event
E occurs atleast 3 times, is given as
From Binomial distribution
P(E occurring at least 3 times) = P (E occurring 3 times) + P(E occurring 4 times)
3 4
1 24 1
(4C3p3q) + (4C4 p4) = 4 ×     +  
 25   25   25 
97
=
(25) 4

50
17
65. log3x + logx3 =
4
Let y = log3x
1
so, logx3 =
y
 1  17
We can write y +   =
 y 4
4y2 + 4 = 17y
4y2 + 4 – 17y = 0
Solving the above equation we get y = 4 or
If y = 4
log3x = 4
Then x = 34
1
If y =
4
log3x = 1
1
4
Then x = 3 4
66. We have 25(p – 1) + 100 = 5(2p – 1)

⇒ 5(2p – 1) – (52)(p – 1) = 100
⇒ 5(2p – 1) – 5(2p – 2) = 100
⇒ 5(2p – 2) × (5 – 1) = 100
⇒ 5(2p – 2) × 4 = 100
⇒ 5(2p – 2) = 25
⇒ 5(2p – 2) = 52
On comparing the powers,
2p – 2 = 2 ⇒ p = 2
67. Let α, β
are roots if the equation x2 − 2mx + m2 =1
x = m + 1, m – 1
now –2 < m + 1 < 4
and –2 < m – 1 < 4
= –3 < m < 3 (A)
= –1 < m < 5 (B)
by A and B we get –1 < m < 3 from the representation
68. 3x = 33 – 4|y|
Since x and y are integers, and since |y| is always positive regardless of the sign of y, this means that when you
subtract a multiple of 4 from 33, you need to get a multiple of 3.
51
Since 33 is already a multiple of 3, in order to obtain another multiple of 3, you will have to subtract a multiple of 3
from it. So, y has to be a positive or a negative multiple of 3.
y = 3, –3, 6, –6, 9, –9, 12, –12...etc.
For every value of y, x will have a corresponding integer value.
So there are infinite integer values possible for x and y.
69. f(x + 2) = f(x) + f(x + 1)

As we can see, the value of a term is the sum of the 2 terms preceding it.
It has been given that f(11) = 91 and ƒ(15) = 617.
We have to find the value of f(10).
Let f(10) = b
f(12) = b + 91
(13) 91 + b + 91 = 182 + =
f(14) = 182 + b + 91 + b = 27 3 + 2b
ƒ(15) = 273 + 2b + 182 + b = 455 + 3b
It has been given that 455 + 3b = 617
3b = 162
⇒ b = 54
70. CPD equilateral triangle

∠CPD = ∠PDC = ∠DCP = 60°
AQ || PC ⇒ ∠CPD = ∠QAP = 60°
BC || AD ⇒ ∠QAP = ∠AQB = 60°
⇒ AQCP is a parallelogram, hence AQ = PC = a
∆AQB is a 30° – 60° – 90° triangle.
Area of triangle CPD = 4 3 , therefore a = 4
3a
Height of triangle CPD = = 2 3 = AB
2
AB 2 3
⇒ BQ = = =2
tan 60 3
1 2×2 3
Area of triangle ABQ = ( AB × BQ) =
2 2
71.
x
Let x be the value of third side of the triangle. Now we know that Area = 17.5*9* * where R is circumradius.
(4 R)
Also Area = 0.5* x* 3.
9
Equating both, we have 3 =17.5*
*
⇒ R = 26.25. (2 R)
52
72.
In right triangle AOB, AB = 5

(Pythagorean triplet)
3× 4
Also, OM is the altitude = = 2.4
5
In right triangle OMP,
⇒ OP2 = OM2 + MP2
⇒ 52 = (2.4)2 + MP2
MP = 4.4
PQ = 2MP = 2*4.4 = 8.8
73. Let the initial viwership be ‘x’
50  40  20   3 3 4 
So, current viewership = x 1 +  1−  1− × × × 
= 4, 24, 800  100  100  100   2 5 5 
50
⇒ x = 4, 24, 800 × = 11,800 × 50 = 5,90,000
36
74. Let her income be 100x.
Her new income = 110x
then, Expenditure = 77x
77x
Expenditure on rent =
4
77x 77x
So now required % ÷ 110x ×100 = ×100 = 17.5
4 4 ×110x
75. Let total number be ‘100x’
So, sum of number = 55 × 100x = 5,500x
So, no. of number increased by 5 = 80x
Sum of these numbers = 80x (55 + 5) = 4800x
No. of numbers decreased by 9 = 20x
Sum of these numbers = 20 × (55 – 9) = 920x
So sum of these numbers = 4800x + 920x = 5720x
Their average = 57.2
57.2 − 55
% increased in their avg. = × 100
55
220
= =4
55
53
TIPS, TRICKS AND CONCEPTUALIZATION

How to approach para summary questions in Verbal Ability (CAT).
Step 1. Begin by reading the paragraph carefully to grasp its purpose and structure.
Step 2. Create a mind map that highlights the key points, important arguments, and supporting examples to organise the
information.
Step 3. Pay close attention to transition words such as (besides, however,furthermore) within the paragraph to understand
the flow of ideas.
Step 4. Now, start the elimination process by using the BANE theory (Broad, Alien, Narrow, and Extreme). Eliminate options
that fall into these categories. For exp: Eliminate if option is too broad to be the answer, too alien/contradictory to
be the answer, too narrow to be the answer and too extreme to be the answer.
Step 5. It can be too broad when there is a divergence in the main idea, it can be too narrow when only an aspect of main
idea is covered, it can be alien when it is contradicting the main idea it can be too extreme when the main idea is
presented with rigid keywords such as (never,always,only)
Step 6. Ensure that the selected option is consistent, precise, concise, and in sync with the original passage.
ow to approach the missing sentence (Fill in the Blanks) questions in Verbal Ability (CAT).
Step 1. Start by reading the entire paragraph containing the blanks to get the context.
Step 2. Identify the main theme/topic of the passage and discern the logical flow of ideas within it.
Step 3. Pay close attention to transitional words/phrases that indicate the relationships between sentences.
Step 4. Evaluate the order/continuation of ideas, progression of arguments, and cause-and-effect relationship to eliminate
the wrong blanks.
Step 5. Eliminate the options that would disrupt the coherency and logical flow of the paragraph if the sentence is placed
there.
Step 6. Check if the sentence, after being placed, adheres to the criteria of context, thought continuity, coherence, and
clarity.
How to approach different types of questions in Reading Comprehension (CAT).
⇒ Primary Purpose

Step 1. Start by quickly skimming the passage to grasp its context and main idea.
Step2. Examine the passage’s structure, paying particular attention to the introductory and concluding paragraphs.
Step 3. Look for paragraph transitions and consider the author’s tone. Transitions can indicate shifts in the author’s
argument, while tone can provide insights into their attitude or perspective.
Step 4. Try to locate supporting examples within the text that align with the main ideas.
Step 5. Avoid words that lead to extreme language, such as “always,” “never,” “completely,” “none,” “all,” etc
54
Step 6. From the reading of the passage, understand the main trigger of the passage. What drives the overall concern/
main idea and accordingly, eliminate answer options that fall into the BANE theory categories, which are
Broad, Alien, Narrow, and Extreme.
⇒ Tone
Step 1. Begin by quickly skimming the passage to grasp its overall context and main idea.
Step 2. Try to identify the dominant emotion/feeling conveyed by the author throughout the passage.
Step 3. Look for tone-related keywords within the passage, such as “fortunately,” “surprisingly,” “clearly,” “arguably,”
etc.
Step 4. Analyse the context of the passage and pay attention to any shifts in the author’s feelings or opinions.
Step 5. Summarise the author’s opinions and feelings in a few words to encapsulate the overall tone of the passage.
Step 6. Eliminate answer options that contain extreme language, such as “always,” “never,” “all,” “completely,” etc.
Step 7. Choose the answer option that best aligns with the author’s emotions, mood, and intent presented in the passage.
⇒ Main Idea
Step 1. Start by quickly skimming the entire passage and creating a mind map of the important ideas and transitions.
Step 2. Pay special attention to the introductory and concluding paragraphs of the passage. Often, the main idea is
introduced or summarised in these sections.
Step 3. Within each paragraph, identify the topic sentence.
Step 4. Look for the connections between the supporting details and the central ideas presented in the passage.
Step 5. Try to summarise the passage in your own words to capture the essence of the content.
Step 6. When selecting the correct answer, eliminate options that fall into the BANE theory categories, which are
Broad, Alien, Narrow, and Extreme.
Step 7. Choose the answer option that best encapsulates the main idea of the passage.
⇒ Common Purpose
Step 1. Begin by skimming through all the passages to gain a quick understanding of the author’s main ideas, tone, and
arguments within each paragraph.
Step 2. Pay attention to common themes or ideas that appear in multiple passages.
Step 3. Consider how the authors assess or criticize a particular objective or idea presented in the passages.
Step 4. Identify sentences or statements where the author is making a point or expressing his/her perspective on the
given idea.
Step 5. Eliminate options that are too extreme, overly general, and not aligned with the viewpoints expressed by the
author.
⇒ Retrieval

55
Step 1. Start by carefully reading the question to understand what specific information you need to find in the passage.
Step 2. Quickly skim through the passage to get a sense of its content and structure in order to identify the keywords that
the question has asked and to find the answer of the relevant question.
Step 3. Pay close attention to the keywords or phrases in the question that you need to find in the passage.
Step 4. Once you’ve identified the keywords, read only the relevant paragraph or section of the passage carefully.
Step 5. While searching for the answer, do not go beyond the context of the passage. Stick to the information provided and
avoid making assumptions or going beyond what is written.
Step 6. When evaluating answer choices, consider the main idea presented in the options as the correct option may not be
entirely textual.
⇒ Title

Step 1. Begin by skimming the passage to identify the key ideas and main arguments presented. This step helps you grasp
the core content.
Step 2. Identify the central theme or overarching message of the passage.
Step 3. Exclude supporting details, arguments, sub-themes, and examples from consideration when crafting the title.
Step 4. Pay attention to the tone of the passage, as it can provide insights into the author’s attitude or perspective. For exp:
If the tone is commiserating (piteous) and the main idea is increasing rape cases against female then the possible
title can be discerned.
Step 5. Summarise the passage in your own words, emphasising the key ideas and central theme.
Step 6. When evaluating potential titles, eliminate options that do not align with the central theme or main idea of the
passage.

By the following ways one can start and ace LRDI section-
Understand the Basics of LR and DI:
Familiarize yourself with different types of graphs, charts, and tables for Data Interpretation.
For Logical Reasoning, understand the basic concepts of arrangements, selections, and logical sequences.
Practice Regularly with good Quality sets (Start with the easy):
Solve a variety of DILR sets regularly to get a feel for different types of questions.
Time yourself while solving to simulate exam conditions.
Read Questions Carefully (Ace the minute detailing of each sets):
Sometimes, the questions are tricky, and missing out on a small detail can lead you to the wrong answer. Always read the
questions and the given data carefully.
Prioritize Sets:
During the exam, quickly skim through all the DILR sets and start with the ones you’re most comfortable with. This
ensures that you secure those marks first.
Stay Calm and Logical:
Don’t let a tough set fluster you. If you’re stuck, move on to another set and come back later if time permits.
56
Use logical reasoning rather than guesswork.
Use Rough Paper Effectively:
Make neat and organized calculations. This will help you avoid confusion, especially in complex DI sets.
Improve Calculation Speed:
For DI, quick calculations can save a lot of time. Practice mental math and use shortcuts wherever possible.
Mock Tests:
Take regular mock tests to get a feel for the actual exam. Analyze your performance in each test to identify areas of
improvement.
Avoid Silly Mistakes:
Double-check your answers if time permits, especially if you’ve made any approximations or assumptions.
51. Percentages- Passing Marks concept
52. Ratio Proportion and Multiplying factors
53. Time, Speed and Distance - Relative Speed
54. Time and Work - Man days hours
55. Profit, loss, discount and Multiplying factors
56. Simple and Compound Interest - Instalments.
57. Averages
58. Mixture and Alligation - Initial and Final Quantity
59. Time and Work - Work done in parts.
60. LCM Based Concept
61. Number System – Factors
62. Number System - Remainders (Cyclicity)
63. Number System - Units Digit
64. Probability
65. Logarithms
66. Algebra – Exponents
67. Quadratic Equations - Sum and Product of roots
68. Algebra - Linear Equations
69. Functions
70. Mensuration - Quadrilaterals and Triangles
71. Geometry – Triangles
72. Geometry - Circles
73. Percentages - Multiplying Factor
74. Percentages - Income and Expenditure based.
75. Averages
57

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1 Practice Module

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension

Note: Only integral numbers can be used for rating.

26. Find the possible value of ‘y’

27. What was the highest rating given by any trainer?

28. What was the lowest rating given by any trainer?

29. Find the arithmetic mean of the top four ratings.

34. How many people watched the movie Y2K?

35. How many people watched the movie Zombiez?

37. Which of the following cells is blank?

41. Which of the following is true?

42. Who is the liar?

43. Who studies in C3?

46. How many points did Team Brazil score?

47. Which team(s) did Team Canada beat?

48. Which of the following team(s) did team America beat?

61. How many factors of 36288 are perfect cubes?

62. What is the remainder when 22004 is divided by 7?

63. Find the unit digit of 432412 × 499431

21. The given sentence would best fit in blank 2 (option d)

22. The given sentence would fit best in blank 2 (option b)

25. The given sentence would best fit in blank 1: (Option a)

Sum of all the totals is also 71 + 70 + 69 + 68 + 67 + 66 + 65 + y

From condition 2, P2 and P5 are both males.

W(3) X(4) Y(5) Z(6)

Person Category School

Team Win Loss Draw Points

Considering A has 2 wins and 3 draws,

MATCH SUMMARY America Brazil Canada Denmark England

51. Let the total marks be 100y.

 Passing marks   258.28 

52. The selling price of the mixture is Rs.40/kg.

54. 5 workers + 3 helpers can reap 23 hectares in 4 days.

55. Let the CP of 1 Product X = S

56. Let the installment paid be x.

Y’s 1 day’s work = 5

63. (432)412 × (499)431

66. We have 25(p – 1) + 100 = 5(2p – 1)

69. f(x + 2) = f(x) + f(x + 1)

70. CPD equilateral triangle

Area of triangle CPD = 4 3 , therefore a = 4

In right triangle AOB, AB = 5

73. Let the initial viwership be ‘x’

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension

Step 3. Within each paragraph, identify the topic sentence.

Step 2. Identify the central theme or overarching message of the passage.

Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation

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