Class Assignment Book

CLASS
ASSIGNMENTS
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Quantitative Aptitude Page 01 to Page 20
Logical Reasoning Page 21 to Page35
Verbal Ability Page 36 to Page62
General Awareness Page 63 to Page 82

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Quantitative Aptitude | Class 1

Basics of Numbers | Percentages - I
Relevant for exams: CUET (GAT), SET, NMIMS, CHRIST, IPM and all other entrance exams
Basics Of Numbers
1. Which of the following is divisible by 99? (c) 295 (d) 643

(a) 135732 (b) 80358
(c) 3572403 (d) 114345 6. David gets on the elevator at the 11th floor of a
building and rides up at the rate of 57 floors per
2. Find the value of ‘y’ if the no. 4y56 is divisible by minute. At the same time, Albert gets on an
33. elevator on the 51st floor of the same building
and rides down at the rate of 63 floors per
3. A number 1568a35b is divisible by 88. Find a + b. minute. If they continue traveling at these rates,
then at which floor will their paths cross?
4. (461 + 462 + 463 + 464) is divisible by which of the (a) 19 (b) 28
following (c) 30 (d)37
(a) 11 (b) 13
(c) 17 (d) 19 7. Solve 5(1/2) + 6(1/2) – 8(1/4)
(a) 2(3/4) (b) 3(3/4)
5. Solve: [(469 + 174)2 – (469 – 174)2] / (469 x 174) (c) 2(1/4) (d) None of these.
(a) 2 (b) 4
PERCENTAGES – I
8. If 25% of a number is 75, then 45% of that 12. 4/5th of the voters in Delhi promised to vote for
number is: Kejriwal and the rest promised t vote for Modi.
(a) 145 (b) 125 Of these voters, 10% of the voters who had
(c) 150 (d) 135 promised to vote for Kejriwal, did not vote on
election day, while 20% of the voters who had
9. If we express 41(3/17) % as a fraction, then it is promised to vote for Modi did not vote on
equal to election day. What is the total no. of votes
(a) 17/7 (b) 7/17 polled if Kejriwal got 216 votes?
(c) 12/17 (d) 31/7 (a) 200 (b) 300
(c) 264 (d) 100
10. The price of an item is increased by 20% and
then decreased by 20%. The final price of the 13. A person who has a certain amount with him
item as compared to its original price is: goes to market. He can buy 50 oranges or 40
(a) 4% more (b) 4% loss mangoes. He retains 10% of the amount for taxi
(c) No profit No loss (d) Cannot be found fares and buys 20 mangoes and of the balance,
he purchases oranges. The number of oranges
11. Two candidates fought in an election. One got he can purchase is:
65% of the votes and won by a margin of 3,600 (a) 36 (b) 40
votes. The total number of votes polled is: (c) 15 (d) 20
(a) 12,000 (b) 10,000
(c) 2,000 (d) 8,000
Class Assignment Book Page 1

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14. 40% of the employees of a certain company are than A. What percent less than the sum of A’s
men and 75% of the men earn more than Rs. and B’s marks should C obtain to pass the exam?
25,000 per year. If 45% of the company’s (a) 40% (b) 41(3/17) %
employees earn more than Rs. 25,000 per year, (c) 28% (d) Any of these
what fraction of the women employed by the
company earn Rs. 25,000 or less per year? 17. A machine depreciates in value each year at the
(a) 2/11 (b) 1/4 rate of 10% of its previous value. However,
(c) 1/3 (d) 3/4 every second year there is some maintenance
work so that in that particular year, depreciation
15. In a class 25% of the students passed in both is only 5% of its previous value. If at the end of
English and Hindi. 37.5% of the students failed in the fourth year, the value of the machine stands
both subjects while 60% failed in Hindi. The at 1,46,205, then find the value of the machine
difference between the students who passed in at the start of the first year.
English and those who passed in Hindi is 15. (a) 1,90,000 (b)2,00,000
What is the total number of students in class? (c) 1,95,000 (d)2,10,000
(a) 180 (b) 420
(c) 360 (d) 200 18. Each side of a cube is increased by 20%. The total
percentage increase in the surface area of the
16. To pass an examination, 40% marks are cube is:
essential. A obtains 10% marks less than the (a) 144% (b) 40%
pass marks and B obtains 11.11% marks less (c) 44% (d) 72.8%
Space for Rough Work
Page 2 Class Assignment Book

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Percentages – II | Profit and Loss
PERCENTAGES – II
1. If the price of a product is increased by 33.33%. (c) Rs. 9 (d) None of these
By what % should the consumption be lowered
to keep the expenditure same? 3. The hourly wages of a female labour are
(a) 44% (b) 25% increased by 12.5%, whereas the weekly
(c) 50% (d) 35% working hours are reduced by 8%. Find the
percentage change in the weekly wages if she
2. A reduction of 25% in the price of eggs will was getting Rs. 1200 per week for 50 hours
enable one to buy 4 dozen more eggs for Rs. 96. previously.
What is the price per dozen? (a) +3.5% (b) 4%
(a) Rs. 6 (b) Rs. 8 (c) 4.5% (d) None of these
PROFIT AND LOSS
4. A man buys a cycle for Rs. 1400 and sells it at a (c) 49.4% (d) 50.4%
loss of 15%. What is the selling price of the
cycle? 9. A fruit vendor buys fruits from the fruit market
(a) Rs 1202 (b) Rs 1190 at wholesale prices and sells them at his shop at
(c) Rs 1160 (d)Rs 1000 retail prices. He operates his shop 30 days a
month, as a rule. He buys in multiples of 100
5. A man sells a book at a profit of 20%. If he had fruits and sells them in multiples of a dozen
bought it at 20% less and sold it for Rs. 18 less, fruits. He purchases mangoes for 425 per
he would have gained 25%. The cost price of the hundred and sells at 65 per dozen, he buys
book is _________. apples at 150 per hundred and sells at 30 per
dozen, he buys watermelons (always of equal
6. The C.P. of 20 articles is the same as the S.P. of size) at 1800 per hundred and sells at 360 per
15 articles. The profit percent is…. dozen. Which of the three fruits yields him the
(a) 25% (b) 30% maximum percentage profit?
(c) 33 1/3 % (d) 50% (a) Mangoes (b) Apples
(c) Watermelons (d) Both (b) and (c)
7. An article when sold at a gain of 5% yields Rs. 15
more than when sold at a loss of 5%. What is the 10. A shopkeeper gives a discount of 10%, every 4
C.P.? months on an article. If a man purchases, it for
(a) Rs. 64 (b) Rs. 80 Rs. 25515 in the month of December, then what
(c) Rs. 150 (d) None of these was the initial price of that article in the month
of January?
8. Find a single discount equivalent to a discount (a). Rs. 40000 (b). Rs. 36000
series of 30%, 20%, and 10%. (c). Rs. 35000 (d). Rs. 45000
(a) 50% (b) 49.6%

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11. Genelia bought some stationery items at the 1 kg. Find his overall profit or loss percentage.
rate of 5 for Re. 1 and an equal number of items (a) 20% (b)25%
at the rate of 4 for Re. 1. She mixed both types (c) 10% (d)None of these
of items and sold them at the rate of 9 for Rs. 2.
In this transaction she bore a loss of Rs. 3. Find 14. A shopkeeper marks his goods at 20% above the
the total number of items purchased by her? CP and he allows a discount of 20% on them, but
(a) 1100 (b) 1080 he uses a false weight of 800 gm instead of 1 kg.
(c) 1060 (d) 1020 Find his overall profit or loss percentage.
12. A man sells two wrist watches. One at a profit of 15. A grain dealer cheats to the extent of 10% while
10% and another at a loss of 10%, but the selling buying as well as selling, by using false weights.
price of each watch is Rs. 200. Find the net His total gain% is.
percentage profit or loss. _________ (a) 10% (b) 20 %
(c) 22 2/9% (d) 21%
13. A shopkeeper sells his goods at the cost price,
but he uses a false weight of 800 gm instead of

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Ratio | Proportion and Variation | Partnership
Ratios
1. If 2A=3B=5C, find the value of A : B : C. (c) 120 (d) 80
2. The ratio of A : B is 1: 3, B : C is 2 : 5, C : D is 2: 3. 9. In a journey of 48 km performed by Tonga,

Find the value of A : B : C : D. rickshaw and cycle in that order, the distance
covered by the three ways in that order are in
3. The ratio between two numbers is 3 : 4 and their the ratio of 8:1:3 and charges per Kilometer in
LCM is 180. The first number is: that order are in the ratio of 8:1:4. If the Tonga
(a) 6 (b) 45 charges being 24 paise per kilometre, the total
(c)1 (d) 20 cost of the journey In Rs is
(a) 9.24 (b) 10
4. Find the duplicate ratio of 2:3. (c) 12 (d) None of these
5. A cat takes 5 steps for every 7 steps of a dog, but 10. A father distributed some chocolates among his
5 steps of a dog are equal to 6 steps of a cat. four children and kept some with him. The
What is the ratio of speed of cat to that of dog? eldest three children got chocolates in the ratio
(a) 24 : 25 (b) 42 : 25 3 : 11 : 7. The total number of chocolates with
(c) 24 : 19 (d) 25 : 42 father and youngest child is three times the total
chocolates with the three eldest children. The
6. If A, B & C have some sweets with them all ratio of chocolates with father and that with all
together weighing 110 kg. If A gives half of his the children is 3 : 4. Find the total number of
share to B then he now has twice as much as A. chocolates if the youngest child has 81
but if C gives half of his share to B, then B now chocolates with him?
has four times as much as that of C. What (a) 273 (b) 252
amount of sweets does B has initially? (c) 278 (d) 303
(a) 60 kg (b) 30 kg (e) None of these
(c) 20 kg (d) None of these
11. Ages of Ram and Shyam are in the ratio of 17:18.
7. A bag contains 50P, 25P and 10P coins in the After 16 years, the ratio will become 21:22. Find
ratio of 5:9:4, amounting to Rs. 206. Find the the present age of Ram.
number of coins of each type respectively
(a) 360, 160, 200 (b) 160, 360, 200 12. The present ratio of ages of A and B is 4:5. 18
(c) 200, 360, 160 (d) 200, 160, 300 years ago, this ratio was 11 : 16. Find the sum
total of their present ages.
8. A bag contains 25 paise, 50 paise and 1 Re. coins. (a) 90 years (b) 105 years
There are 220 coins in all and the total amount (c) 110 years (d) 80 years
in the bag is Rs.160. If there are thrice as many 1
Re. coins as there are 25 paise coins, then what 13. The incomes of A and B are in the ratio of 3:7 and
is the number of 50 paise coins? their expenditures are in the ratio of 2:9. If they
(a) 60 (b) 40 save Rs. 6500 each, find the income of A.

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Proportion and Variation
14. Find the mean proportion between 8 and 72. 17. The price of a precious stone is proportional to
the cube of its weight. What will be the loss
15. Find the fourth proportional to 3, 15 and 27. incurred, if a stone weighing 12gm and costing
Rs. 34,560, breaks into 3 pieces whose weights
16. X is directly proportional to Y2 and inversely are in the ratio 1:2:3 ?
proportional to Z3. If Y = 10 and Z = 5, then X =
20. Find the value of Y when X = 10 and Z = 10.
PARTNERSHIP
18. If A invests Rs 1500 for 4 months, B invests Rs (c) 3 : 5 : 10 (d) 5 : 6 : 10

2000 for 3 months and C invests Rs 500 for a
year. Annually, they earned a profit of Rs 5000. 21. A company makes a profit of Rs. 9,00,000.
Find the share of C in it. Twenty percent of which is paid as taxes. If the
rest is divided among the partners, P, Q & R in
19. A and B entered a partnership with RS 50,000 the ratio of 1 ∶ 3 2 ∶ 2, then the shares of P, Q &
and Rs 60,000 respectively. After 4 months, A R are respectable:
invested Rs. 25,000 more while B withdrew Rs (a) Rs. 2,40,000, Rs. 3,20,000, Rs. 1,60,000
20,000. Find the share of A in the annual profit (b) Rs. 3,20,000, Rs. 2,40,000, Rs. 1,60,000
of Rs. 2,89,000. (c) Rs. 1,60,000, Rs. 3,20,000, Rs. 2,40,000
(d) Rs. 1,60,000, Rs. 2,40,000, Rs. 3,20,000
20. A, B, C started a business with their investments
in the ratio 1:3 :5. After 4 months, A invested the 22. Karan began a business with Rs. 85,000. He was
same amount as before and B as well as C joined afterward by Rohan with Rs. 42,500.
withdrew half of their investments. The ratio of After how many months does Rohan join, if the
their profits at the end of the year is : annual profit was divided in the ratio of 3:1?
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 4 : 15

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Alligation-Mixtures | SI - CI
ALLEGATION - MIXTURES
1. In the 75 L mixture of milk and water, the ratio 6. Two solutions of 90% and 97% purity are mixed,
of milk and water is 4: 1. The quantity of water resulting in a 21L mixture of 94% purity. How
required to make the ratio of milk and water 3:1 much is the quantity of first solution in the
is: mixture.
(a) 1L (b) 3L
(c) 4L (d) 5L 7. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of
tea worth Rs 60 per kg and Rs 65 per kg, so that
2. A shopkeeper mixes 30 kg of type A rice at by selling the mixture at Rs 68.20 per kg, he may
Rs.40/kg and 45 kg of type B rice at Rs.30/kg, gain 10%.
determine the price of the formed mixture of
rice. 8. Two solutions have ratio of milk and water as
(a) 10 (b) 12 4:7 and 5:1. These two solutions are mixed
(c) 28 (d) 34 resulting in a new solution having the ratio of
milk and water as 5:7. Find the ratio in which
3. One quality of wheat at Rs 9.3 per kg is mixed these two solutions are mixed.
with another quality at a certain rate in the ratio
of 8:7. If the mixture so formed is worth Rs 10 9. 5L is drawn from a container which contains 50L
per kg, what was the price of the second quality pure milk and is then filled with water. Find the
of wheat? quantity of milk left after
• One more such operation _______
4. A milk vendor bought a certain quantity of pure • Four more such operations _______
milk at 40 Rs/L, and he mixes water in it. He sold
the mixture at 35 Rs/L. Find the ratio of milk and 10. 8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is
water in the new mixture. then filled with water. This operation is
performed three more times. The ratio of the
5. In states A and B out of the total population, the quantity of wine now left in cask to that of the
male population is 60% and 50% respectively. If water is 16:65. How much wine the cask hold
the male population, when both the states are originally?
taken together, becomes 58% of the total (a) 18 litres (b) 24 litres
population, then find that total population of (c) 32 litres (d) 42 litres
state B is what percent of that of state A.
(a) 25 (b) 30
(c) 38 (d) 40
Simple and Compound Interest
11. Find the SI if 2000 Rs was invested for 2 years at (a) 1000 (b) 500
25% p.a. (c) 1500 (d) NOTA

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12. In how many years, SI on Principal becomes (a) Rs. 331 (b) Rs. 662
equal to the principal, at 25% p.a.? (c) Rs. 993 (d) NOTA
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6 17. Difference between CI and SI on a certain
principal for 2 years is Rs. 20 @ 5% p.a. Find the
13. A principal becomes 5 times of itself in 10 years, Principal.
find its rate of interest. (a) 6000 (b) 8000
(a) 50 % (b) 60 % (c) 16000 (d) NOTA
(c) 40 % (d) NOTA
18. Difference between CI and SI on a certain
14. A principal becomes RS. 800 after 3 years and principal for 3 years is Rs. 122 @ 5% p.a. Find the
1100 after 6 years on Si. Find its Principal and Principal.
rate of interest. (a) 6000 (b) 8000
(c) 16000 (d) NOTA
15. 5000 Rs. was invested for 3 years @10% p.a. for
on CI. Find the amount after 3 years. 19. A principal becomes 2 times of itself in 5 years.
In how many years, it will become 8 times of
16. 2000 Rs was invested for 9 months at 40% p.a. itself
on CI, but interest to be calculated quarterly. (i) on SI (ii) on CI
Find the interest after 9 months.

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Averages
AVERAGES
1. What is the average of the first 50 odd numbers? 7. A total of 35 soccer players is divided into two
(a) 100 (b) 50 teams of 15 and 20 players. The average weight
(c) 51 (d) None of These of the first team is 60 Kg and that of the second
team is 70 Kg. The team manager wants to know
2. The average weight of 8 people increases by 2.5 the average weight of the whole team. Help him
kg when a new person comes in place of one of to find the answer.
them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight (a) 60 (b) 70
of the new person? (c) 65.71 (d) 80
(a) 84 kg (b) 85 kg
(c) 86 kg (d) 87 kg 8. The average of runs of a cricket player of 10
innings was 32. How many runs must he make in
3. The average salary of 12 employees of STAR his next innings so as to increase his average of
PLUS is Rs. 18,000 and that of 15 employees of runs by 4 ?
NDTV is Rs. 25,000 per month. The average (a) 76 (b) 79
monthly of all employees in rupees is: (c) 85 (d) 87
(a) 17,000 (b) 16,500
(c) 20,000 (d) None of these 9. In a class with a certain number of students if
one new student weighing 50 kg is added, then
4. In a Company the average salary of the entire average weight of class is increased by 1 kg. If
staff is Rs. 2000 and the average salary of one more student weighing 50 kg is added, then
officers is Rs.3000 and workers is Rs. 1500 and the average weight of the class increases by 1.5
there are 4 officers in that company then find kg over the original average. What is the original
out the number of workers in the company. average weight (in kg) of the class?
(a) 8 (b) 5 (a) 46 (b) 42
(c) 4 (d) 10 (c) 27 (d) 47
(e) None of these
5. The average of 4 consecutive odd numbers is 18.
Find the 2nd odd number in the consecutive 10. In an exam of 100 marks, the average marks of a
number’s list. class of 40 students are 76. If the top 3 scorers of
(a) 19 (b) 45 the class leave, the average score falls “down by
(c) 17 (d) 13 1. If the other two toppers except “the highest
topper scored not more than 85. “then what is
6. The average weight of 12 students is about 65 the minimum score the topper can score?
kg. After a new student joins, the average (a) 86 (b) 98
increases to about 67 kg. What is the weight of (c) 95 (d) 92
the new student? (e) None of these
(a) 91 (b) 65
(c) 110 (d) 80 11. Find the average of first 30 multiples of 7.
(a) 108.5 (b) 108
(c) 210 (d) None Of These

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12. Dev and Om are among 22 students who write the child 5 years ago was 20 years. The present
an examination. Dev scores 82.5. The average age of the husband is:
score of the 21 students other than Om is 62. (a) 35 (b) 40
The average score of all the 22 students is one (c) 50 (d) None Of These
more than the average score of the 21 students
other than Dev. Find the score of Om ? 15. The average age of 7 students of a class
(a) 50 (b) 51 increases by 3 years, when a student with 25
(c) 52 (d) 53 years of age is replaced by a new student. Find
the age of new student.
13. The captain of a cricket team of 11 members is (a) 45 (b) 46
26 years old and the wicket keeper is 3 years (c) 47 (d) None Of These.
older. If the ages of these two are excluded, the
average age of the remaining players is one year 16. Average money of 25 students of a class is 79Rs.
less than the average age of the whole team. The average of first 12 of them is 75 Rs and that
What is the average age of the team? of last 12 is 80Rs. Find the amount that 13th
(a) 23 (b) 24 student is having with him.
(c) 25 (d) None Of These (a) 101 (b) 111
(c) 121 (d) None Of These
14. The average age of husband, wife and their child
3 years ago was 27 years and that of wife and

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Time and Work
TIME AND WORK
1. ‘A’ and ‘B’ can together complete a piece of lit was the first candle twice the height of the
work in 4 days. If ‘A’ alone can complete the second?
same work in 12 days, in how many days can ‘B’ (a) 0.45 hr (b) 1.5 hr
alone complete that work? (c) 2.6 hr (d) 2.4 hr
(a) 4 days (b) 5 days
(c) 6 days (d) 7 days 7. X is 60% less efficient than Y. If X does the job in
30 days, Y would take how many days to finish
2. ‘A’ is twice as good as a workman as ‘B’ and the job?
together they finish a piece of work in 18 days. (a) 12 days (b) 18 days
In how many days will ‘B’ alone finish the work? (c) 75 days (d) None of these
(a) 27 days (b) 54 days
(c) 56 days (d) 68 days 8. A and B together can complete a particular task
in 4 days. If A alone can complete the same task
3. Ram can do a piece of work in 8 days which in 12 days. How many days will B take to
Shyam can finish in 12 days. If they work at it on complete the task if he works alone?
alternate days with Ram beginning, in how (a) 9 days (b) 7 days
many days, the work will be finished? (c) 5 days (d) None of these
(a) 9 and 1/3 (b) 9 and 1/24
(c) 9and 1/2 (d) 10 and 1/3 9. A and B together can complete a task in 20 days.
B and C together can complete the same task in
4. 4 men and 6 women finish a job in 8 days, while 30 days. A and C together can complete the
3 men and 7 women finish it in 10 days. In how same task in 40 days. What is the respective
many days will 10 women working together ratio of the number of days taken by A when
finish it? completing the same task alone to the number
(a) 30 days (b) 40 days of days taken by C when completing the same
(c) 50 days (d) 60 days task alone?
(a) 2 : 5 (b) 2 : 7
5. Sakshi can do a piece of work in 20 days. Tanya (c) 3 : 7 (d) None of These
is 25% more efficient than Sakshi. The number
of days taken by Tanya to do the same piece of 10. A and B together can do a piece of work in 16
work is: days and B and C can do the same work in 24
(a) 15 (b) 16 days. From starting A and B worked for 4 days
(c) 18 (d) 25 and 7 days respectively. When A lefts the work
then C joins the work and then he works for 23
6. Two candles of the same height are lit at the days and complete the work. Then find in how
same time. The first is consumed in 4 hr and the many days will C complete the work alone?
second in 3 hr. Assuming that each candle burns (a) 32 days (b) 16 days
at a constant rate, in how many hrs after being (c) 8 days (d) None of these

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11. Ritu takes thrice the time of Jitu to complete a (a) 22 days (b) 20 days
piece of work, and Jitu takes five times the time (c) 25 days (d) 27 days
of Pawan to complete the same work. If they
work together then they can finish the work in 14. Two machines each working 12 hours per day
30 days. Then find the time taken by them to for 8 days handle 9 tons of coal with an
complete the work individually. efficiency of 90%. While 3 other coal loading
(a) 570 days, 190 days, 38 days machines at an efficiency of 80% are set to
(b) 380 days, 190 days, 38days handle 12 tons of coal In 6 days. Find how many
(c) 570 days, 190 days, 57 days hours per day each should work.
(d) None of these (a) 12 hrs/day (b) 16 hrs/day
(c) 20 hrs /day (d) 18 hrs/day
12. X men can finish a job in 40 days. If 5 extra Men
join them, the job takes 10 days less. What is the 15. In the beginning, Ram works at a rate such that
value of X? he can finish a piece of work in 24 hrs, but he
(a) 15 (b) 20 only works at this rate for 16 hrs. After that, he
(c) 10 (d) 18 works at a rate such that he can do the whole
work in 18 hrs. If Ram is to finish this work at a
13. Sandesh can do a piece of work in 50 days. He stretch, how many hours will he take to finish
worked only for 5 days and was infected with this work?
Corona and had to leave the job. Shantanu (a) 12 hrs (b) 18 hrs
completed the remaining work in 30 days. The (c) 11.5 hrs (d) None of these
number of days, in which both together can
complete the work is

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Pipes and Cistern | Time Speed and Distance - I
PIPES AND CISTERN
1. Two taps can fill a tub at 10 L/min. and 15 L/min. 4. Pipe A can fill a tank in 8 hours while pipe B can
respectively. A pipe can empty it in at the rate of fill it in 16 hours. A third pipe C can empty the
8L/min. If all three are kept open The tank gets full tank in 32 hours. All three pipes are opened
filled in 24 hours. What is the capacity of the simultaneously. At what time will an empty tank
tank? be filled?
(a) 5.5 hours (b) 6 hours
2. Two pipes ‘A’ and ‘B’ can fill a tank in 6 hours (c) 6.4 hours (d) 7 hours
and 4 hours respectively. If they are opened on
alternate hours and if pipe ‘A’ is opened first, in 5. A tank is fitted with two inlet pipes A and B and
how many hours, the tank will be full? an outlet pipe C. Pipe A can fill the empty tank
in 12 minutes. While pipe B alone can fill it in 18
3. Two pipes, P and Q can fill a cistern in 12 and 15 minutes. Pipe C can empty the full tank in 11 1/4
minutes respectively. Both are opened together, minutes. If all three pipes are opened
but at the end of 3 minutes, the first Is turned simultaneously, in what time will the empty
off. How much longer will the cistern take to fill tank be filled?
completely? (a) 16 minutes (b) 18 minutes
(a) 8.25 min (b) 10 min (c) 20 minutes (d) 22 minutes
(c) 9 min (d) 8.5 min
TIME SPEED DISTANCE – I
6. Usain Bolt runs 100 metres in 9 seconds. Find his (a) 9.3 (b) 8.5
speed in km/hr. (c) 8 (d) 16.8
7. Walking at 4/5 of my usual speed, I miss the bus 10. A motor car does a journey in 17.5 hours,
by 5 minutes. What is my usual time? covering the first half at 30 km/h and the second
(a) 15 mins (b) 20 mins half at 40 km/h. Find the distance of the journey.
(c) 25 mins (d) 30 mins (a) 684 km (b) 600 km
(c) 120 km (d) 540 km
8. Walking at ¾ of his normal speed, a man takes
2(1/2) hours more than the normal time. Find 11. A thief runs at a speed of 10m/s. A policeman
the normal time. runs behind him at a speed of 12.5m/sec but the
(a) 7.5 h (b) 6 h policeman started running after 10 seconds.
(c) 8 h (d) 12 h After how many meters, will the policeman
catch the thief?
9. A person covers 40% of the distance from A to B (a) 600 mtr. (b) 500 mtr.
at 8km/hr, 40% of the remaining distance at (c) 400 mtr. (d) 300 mtr
9km/hr, and the rest at 12km/hr. His average
speed (in km/hr) for the journey is:

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12. A bus travels at an average speed of 100 km/hr, 14. A man started his journey from Delhi towards
stopping for 3 minutes after every 75 km. How Agra @ 25 km/hr at 6 AM and at 8 AM, another
long did it take to reach its destination 600 km man started from Agra (towards Delhi) @ 15
from the starting point? km/hr. If the distance between Agra and Delhi is
(a) 6 hr 24 min (b) 6 hr 21 min 250 km, then at what time will they meet?
(c) 6 hr 18 min (d) 6 hr 15 min (a) 12 noon (b) 1 PM
(c) 2 PM (d) None of These
13. Buses start from a bus terminal with a speed of
20 km/hr at intervals of 10 mins. What is the 15. Two trains, A and B, start from stations X and Y
speed of a man coming from the opposite towards each other. They take 4 hrs 48 mins and
direction towards the bus terminal if he meets 3 hrs 20 mins to reach Y and X respectively. After
the buses at intervals of 8 mins? they meet, if train A is moving at 45 km/hr., then
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr the speed of train B is
(c) 5 km/hr (d) 7 km/hr (a) 60 km/hr (b) 64.8 km/hr
(c) 54 km/hr (d)37.5 km/hr

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Time Speed and Distance - II
TIME SPEED DISTANCE – 2
1. Two trains are moving in opposite directions at (c) 2.4 km (d) 3.4 km
a speed of 60 km/hr and 90 km/hr respectively.
Their lengths are 1.10 km and 0.9 km 6. A boat goes 35 km upstream and comes back in
respectively. The time taken by the slower train 12 hours. If the speed of stream is 1 km/hr, then
to cross the faster train in seconds is: find the speed of boat in still water in km/hr.
(a) 44 s (b)42 s (a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 48 s (d)200 s (c) 7 (d) 8
2. Renu was sitting inside train A, which was 7. In a km race, A beats B by 100m and B beats C by
traveling 50 km/h. Another train, B, whose 200m. In the same race, A beats C by ……?
length was three times the length of A crossed (a) 300m (b) 280m
her in the opposite direction in 15 seconds. If the (c) 320m (d) None of These
speed of train B was 58 km/h, then the length of
train A (in m) is: 8. In a 100 m race, Shyam runs at 1.66 m/s. If
(a) 210 (b) 150 Shyam gives Sujit a start of 4 m and still beats
(c) 180 (d) 160 him by 12 seconds, what is Sujit’s speed?
(a) 1.11 m/s (b) 0.75 m/s
3. A train approaches tunnel AB. Inside the tunnel, (c) 1.33 m/s (d) 1 km/h
a goat is located at a point i.e. 5/12 of the
distance AB measured from entrance A. When 9. In a 500m race, Dishu beats Abhishek by 100 m
the train whistles, the goat runs. If the goat or 5 sec. In another race on the same track at the
moves to the entrance of tunnel A. The train same speeds, Abhishek and Prashant start at
catches the goat exactly at the entrance. If the one end while Dishu starts at the opposite end.
goat moves to exit B, the train catches the goat How many meters would Abhishek have
exactly at the exit. Find the ratio of the speed of covered, by the time Dishu meets Prashant
the train and goat. given that Dishu’s speed is 10m/sec more than
(a) 6:1 (b) 7:6 that of Prashant.
(c) 8:7 (d) 9:5 (a) 200m (b) 180m
(c) 300m (d) 250m
4. If Rahul rows 15 km upstream in 3 hours and 21
km downstream in 3 hours, then the speed of 10. There are three runners Deepak, Sandeep and
the stream is Pawan with their respective speeds of 10 km/h,
(a) 5 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr 20 km/h and 30 km/h. They are initially at P and
(c) 2 km/hr (d) 1 km/hr they have to run between the two points P and
Q which are 10 km apart from each other. They
5. A man can row at 5 kmph in still water. If the start their race at 6 am and end at 6 pm on the
velocity of the current is 1 kmph and it takes him same day. If they run between P and Q without
1 hour to row to a place and come back. How far any break, then how many times they will be
is that place? together either at P and Q during the given time
(a) 0.4 km (b) 1.4 km period?

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(a) 11 times (b) 13 times will they meet together first time and when will
(c) 12 times (d) 12.5 times they together meet at the starting point?
(a) 36 min, 396 min (b) 24 min, 264 min
11. Two cyclists start on a circular track from a given (c) 48 min, 528 min (d) 12 min, 132 min
point but in opposite directions with speeds of 7
m/s and 8 m/s respectively. If the circumference 14. On walking at 5km/hr, a boy reaches his school
of the circle is 300m, after what time will they 10 mins late but if he walks at 6 km/hr, he
meet at the starting point? reaches 10 mins early. How far is his school?
(a) 20 s (b) 100 s (a) 2 km (b) 10 km
(c) 300 s (d) 200 s (c) 600 km (d) None Of These
12. Two persons A and B are making on a circular 15. A man driving his bike at 24 km/hr, reaches his
track at a speed of 15 m/s and 25 m/s office 5 minutes late. Had he driven 25% faster
respectively. The circumference of a circular on average, he would have reached 4 minutes
track is 1200 m. If they start at the same place, late. How far is his office?
at Set-8 the same time and also in the same (a) 2 km (b) 4 km
direction then find after how much time will (c) 120 km (d) None Of These
they meet first? And also find after how much
time will they reach at the starting point 16. The distance between Kanpur and Bangalore by
together. flight is 1800 km. An aircraft was slowed down
(a) 60 sec, 120 sec (b) 120 sec, 240 sec due to bad weather. The time of the journey
(c) 80 sec, 160 sec (d) 50 sec, 100 sec from Bangalore to Kanpur is increased by 30
minutes and the average speed for the journey
13. A, B and C are running on a circular track of was reduced by 300 km/h. What is the usual
radius 63 m. B and C run in the opposite duration of the flight if there is no bad weather?
direction of A. If the speed of A, B and C is 30, 25 (a) 3/2 hour (b) 4/5 hour
and 14 m/minutes respectively then find when (c) 6/5 hour (d) 2/3 hour

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Number System
1. How many trailing zeros will be there after the 10. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the
rightmost non-zero digit in the value of 25!? quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the
(a) 25 (b) 8 remainder is 46, then the dividend is
(c) 6 (d) 5 (a) 4306 (b) 4236
(c) 5336 (d) 4336
2. Find the number of zeros at the end of
5 x 10 x 15 x 20 x 25 x … x 240 x 245 x 250 11. If 3 divides the integer n, the remainder is 2.
(a) 42 (b) 47 Then, what will be the remainder when 7n is
(c) 32 (d) 50 divided by 3
(a) 3 (b) 2
3. Find the number of zeros in 75! (c) 6 (d) 4
(a) 16 (b) 18
(c) 20 (d) 21 12. What is the remainder obtained if 45518 is
divided by 19
4. The unit digit in 3 × 38 × 537 × 1256 is (a) 0 (b) 3
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 4 (d) 1
(c) 6 (d) 2
13. What is the remainder of 15+25+ 35 + 45 + 55 +
5. The units digit of the expression 65+75+…..+ 505 when divided by 5
𝟐𝟓𝟔𝟐𝟓𝟏 +𝟑𝟔𝟓𝟐𝟖 +𝟕𝟑𝟓𝟒 is (a) 3 (b) 4
(a) 0 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 0
(c) 4 (d) 5
14. How many factors of 74 x 32 x 2³ are there?
6. The digit in unit’s place of the product 49237 × (a) 40 (b) 45
3995 × 738 × 83 × 9 is (c) 55 (d) 60
(a) 6 (b) 0
(c) 5 (d) 7 15. Find the sum of factors of 7 4 x 32 x 2³?
(a) 550000 (b) 546195
7. The last digit of 𝟑𝟒𝟎 is (c) 557125 (d) 532758
(a) 9 (b) 1
(c) 7 (d) 3 16. How many factors of 1080 are perfect squares?
(a) 4 (b) 6
8. Find the unit digit in the product 𝟒𝟑𝟖𝟕𝟐𝟒𝟓 . (c) 8 (d) 5
𝟔𝟐𝟏𝟕𝟐
(a) 7 (b) 1 17. How many factors of 25 * 36 * 52 are perfect
(c) 5 (d) 2 squares?
(a) 18 (b) 24
9. When a number is divided by 56, the remainder (c) 36 (d) 8
obtained is 29. What will be the remainder when
the number is divided by 8 ? 18. How many factors of the number 28 * 36 * 54 *
(a) 4 (b) 5 105 are multiples of 120?
(c) 3 (d) 7 (a) 540 (b) 660
(c) 594 (d) 792

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19. The L.C.M. of three different numbers is 120. 75 and 125, then that number is
Which of the following cannot be their H.C.F.? (a) 77 (b) 88
(a) 12 (b) 35 (c) 99 (d) 110
(c) 8 (d) 24
24. The least number which when divided by 5, 6 ,
20. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 23 and the other 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3, but when divided
two factors of their L.C.M. are 13 and 14. The by 9 leaves no remainder, is
larger of the two numbers is (a) 1677 (b) 1683
(a) 299 (b) 322 (c) 2523 (d) 3363
(c) 276 (d) 347
25. Find the Greatest Number that will devide 43,
21. The greatest number which on dividing 1657 91 and 183 so as to leave the same remainder
and 2037 leaves remainders 6 and 5 in each case
respectively, is (a) 4 (b) 7
(a) 123 (b) 127 (c) 9 (d) 13
(c) 235 (d) 305
26. On dividing 2272 as well as 875 by 3-digit
22. L.C.M of two prime numbers x and y (x>y) is number N, we get the same remainder. The
161. The value of 3y-x is sum of the digits of N is
(a) - 2 (b) – 1 (a) 10 (b) 11
(c) 1 (d) 2 (c) 12 (d) 13
23. The H.C.F and L.C.M of two numbers are 11 and

385 respectively. If one number lies between

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Linear Equations | Quadratic Equations | Basic Probability
Linear Equations
Complete the following table

Equations Value of Ratio of Type of Line Nature of
Constants Constants Solution
2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 9 a1 = = a2 a1/a2 = Intersecting [ ] Unique []

3𝑥 + 7𝑦 = 15 b1 = = b2 b1/b2 = Parallel [] No Solution [ ]
c1 = = c2 c1/c2 = Coincident [ ] Infinite []
2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 9 a1 = = a2 a1/a2 = Intersecting [ ] Unique []

6𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 15 a1 = = a2 a1/a2 = Intersecting [ ] Unique []

1. In an entrance test comprising of 100 questions, (c) 70 (d) 71

a student scores 6 marks for every correct
answer and loses 2 marks for every wrong 2. The number of values of 𝑘 for which the system
answer. If a student attempted 90 questions of equations has infinitely many solutions:
and scores 356 marks, then the number of (a) 0 (b) 1
questions answered correctly are: (c) 2 (d) Infinite
(a) 67 (b) 68
Quadratic Equations
Complete the following table

Equations Root 1 Root 2 Sum of Roots Product of Roots
x2 + 3x + 2 = 0
x2 - 4x + 4 = 0
4x2 + 4x + ___ = 0 1/2
3. Kunal told Kanika that he has either 𝑎 or 𝑏 4. The positive value of ‘m’ for which the roots of
marbles. Further, he stated that 𝑎 and 𝑏 satisfy equation 𝑥2 + 4(𝑚 − 2)𝑥 + 27 = 0 are in ratio 1:3,
the equation 𝑥2 − 𝑝(𝑥 + 1) + 𝑐 = 0, then is:
(𝑎 + 1)(𝑏 + 1) = (a) 7 (b) 5
(a) 1 - c (b) c - 1 (c) 3 (d) 1
(c) 1 + c (d) c

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5. If one root of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0, 6. If 𝛼, 𝛽 are the roots of the following equation :
is reciprocal of the other, then: 3𝑥2 + 4𝑥 + 7 = 0, then the value of 1/𝛼 + 1/𝛽 is
(a) b = c (b) a = c (a) -3/7 (b) -4/7
(c) a = 0 (d) b = 0 (c) -4/3 (d) -7/4
Probability
7. What will be the probability of getting odd 11. A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What
numbers if a dice is thrown? is the probability of getting a king of a black
(a) 1/2 (b) 1 suit?
(c) 1/4 (d) 3 (a) 1/26 (b) 1/52
(c) 3/26 (d) 7/52
8. What is the probability of getting a sum as 3 if a
dice is thrown? 12. If a number is selected at random from first 50
(a) 2/18 (b) 1/36 natural numbers, what will be the probability
(c) 1/18 (d) 1/4 that the selected number is a multiple of 3 and
4?
9. The probability of getting two tails when two (a) 7/50 (b) 4/25
coins are tossed is (c) 2/25 (d) NOTA
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/6
(c) 1/3 (d) 1/2 13. There are 3 blue socks, 5 brown socks, and 4
white socks in a drawer. If two socks are picked
10. In a box, there are 8 orange, 7 white, and 6 blue up randomly, what is the probability that the
balls. If a ball is picked up randomly, what is the selected socks are of the same color?
probability that it is neither orange nor blue? (a) 19/66 (b) 4/11
(a) 1/3 (b) 5/21 (c) 1 (d) 0
(c) 1/21 (d) 2/21

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Logical Reasoning | Class 1

Blood Relations | Direction Test
Blood Relations
1. Pointing to a lady in the photograph, Shaloo 7. If ‘B × C’ means ‘B is the daughter of C’, ‘B + C’

said, “Her son’s father is the son-in-law of my means ‘B is the husband of C’ and ‘B – C’ means
mother.” How is Shaloo related to the lady? ‘B is the sister of C’, then what does ‘M + N – P
(a) Aunt (b) Sister Å~ Q’ mean?
(c) Mother (d) Cousin (a) M is the brother-in-law of Q
(e) None of these (b) M is the uncle of Q
(c) M is the son-in-law of Q
2. Introducing a lady at the party, Goldy told her (d) Q is the mother-in-law of M
friend, “She is the sister-in-law of my only (e) None of these
brother who is the father of Ganesh who is
grandson of Navya’s husband who is my father Read the following information carefully and
who has only two children.” How is Ganesh answer the questions which follow:
related to that lady? If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is son of B’.
(a) Father (b) Brother If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is father of B’.
(c) Nephew (d) Uncle If ‘A > B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’.
(e) None of these If ‘A < B’ means ‘A is wife of B’.
3. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “I have no 8. Which of the following pairs of people represent
brother or sister but that man’s father is my first cousins with regard to the relations given in
father’s son”. Whose photograph, was it? the expressions, if it is provided that A is the
(a) His son’s (b) His father's sister of J:
(c) His nephew’s (d) His own L > V < J + P and S ~ A < D + F < E + K
(a) LP (b) SP
4. Markandey is Rajiv's mothers's father. (c) SK (d) SF
Markandey has three brothers. One of them has
grandson Abhi. Rajan is son of Abhi. Rajan is 9. A # B means B is A’s wife
related to Rajiv as A % B means B is A’s sister
(a) Brother (b) Nephew A $ B means B is A’s mother
(c) Cousin (d) Uncle A & B means B is A’s father
“W is the aunt of X” is denoted by :
5. Raghu and Babu are twins. Babu's sister is (a) W $ X # Y % Z (b) X & Y # Z % W
Reema. Reema's husband is Rajan Raghu's (c) Y & Z % X $ W (d) W # Z % Y & X
mother is Lakshmi. Lakshmi's husband is Rajesh. (e) X # Y % W & Z
How is Rajesh related to Rajan ?
(a) Uncle (b) Son-in-law 10. If S — T means ‘S’ is the wife of ‘T’
(c) Father-in-law (d) Cousin S + T means ‘S’ is the daughter of ‘T’
S ÷ T means ‘S’ is the son of ‘T’
6. Kusuma is the wife of Ravi. Govind and Prabha What will M + J ÷ K mean?
are brothers. Govind is the brother of Ravi. (a) 'K' is the father of 'M'
Prabhu is Kusuma's ….? (b) M' is the grand daughter
(a) Uncle (b) Cousin (c) 'J' is wife of 'K'
(c) Brother-in-law (d) Brother (d) 'K' and 'M' are brothers

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11. If, A + B means A is the mother of B (c) 3 (d) 4

A – B means A is the brother B; (e) Can't be determined
A % B means A is the father of B
A ~ B means A is the sister of B 2. Who among the following is the father of Z?
Which of the following shows that P is the (a) A (b) B
maternal uncle of Q? (c) C (d) D
(a) Q – N + M ~ P (b) P + S ~ N – Q (e) Can't be determined
(c) P – M + N ~ Q (d) Q – S % P
3. Who among the following is a couple?
Read the following information carefully and (a) A-P (b) B-R
answer the questions given beside. (c) C-S (d) D-P
A, B, C and D are four males who are married to (e) None of these
four females namely P, Q, R and S not necessarily
in the same order. U, W, X, Y and Z are five 4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
children who belong to these four couples. B is way and thus form a group. Which of the
married to S, who does not have any child. U is following does not belong to the group?
the only son of Q, who is not married to A. W and (a) S (b) P
X are siblings and are of different genders. C is the (c) Y (d) Z
father of two children. Y is the daughter of R, who (e) W
does not have any another child. A has one
daughter X. Z is the sister of U. 5. Y is the child of whom among the following?
(a) C (b) D
1. How many boys are there in the group of (c) B (d) A
children? (e) None of these
(a) 1 (b) 2
Data Interpretation
Three friends, Chand, Chandni, and Chanchal (a) 62% (b) 72%
went to a shopping centre. Each of them had Rs. (c) 78% (d) 68% (e) NOTA
2500. In the shopping centre, the session sale
discount was 10% on the marked price. Chandni 2. The amount paid by Chand for the juicer was
and Chanchal were regular customers, so they how much more than that by Chanchal?
got 20% each an additional discount on the (a) 45% (b) 50%
discounted price but Chand being a new (c) 55.33% (d) 66.67% (e) NOTA
customer didn’t get any additional discount. Only
Chanchal had a membership card of the shopping 3. What is the ratio of the amount paid by Chand
centre which gave an additional discount of 25% to that by Chanchal?
on the discounted price. They all like Juicers of xyz (a) 9: 7 (b) 3: 2
brand and they purchased one piece each of that (c) 6: 5 (d) 5: 3 (e) NOTA
brand. The marked price of each piece was same.
In last, when they calculated then they found that 4. How much money was left with Chand after
Chandni had paid Rs. 360 more than that of purchasing the juicer?
Chanchal. (a) Rs. 900 (b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 700 (d) Rs. 750 (e) NOTA
1. If all of them combine the money paid for Juicer
then, the total money paid by them for three 5. What was the marked price of the juicer?
pieces of the juicers were what percentage of (a) Rs. 1800 (b) Rs. 2400
the total marked price of the three juicers? (c) Rs. 2000 (d) Rs. 2150 (e) NOTA

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Data Sufficiency
Each of the questions below consists of a (5) Neither Statement is sufficient, alone.
question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the 1. How is M related to K?
data provided in the statements are sufficient to I. K says I have only one brother.
answer the question. Read both the statements II. M says I have only one sister.
and give answer.
Options: 2. How is the person in photograph related to
(1) Either Statement I or II are sufficient. Chinky?
(2) Statement I alone is sufficient. I. Chinky has no brother and sister?
(3) Statement II alone is sufficient. II. Lady in the photograph is Chinky’s mother’s
(4) Both Statements are required together. child
Direction Test
1. Rishi started from home for his work and drove 5. A clock is placed at 12 noon its minute hand
50 km towards the east, then took a right turn points towards north east. In which direction
and drove another 30 km. He again took a left does its hour hand point at 1:30 PM?
turn and drove 30 km in that direction. Then, he (a) North (b) East
turned to his right and drove 30 km to reach his (c) South (d)West
final destination. What is the shortest distance (e) Cannot be determined
between Rishi’s home to his office?
(a) 65 km (b) 98 km 6. One morning after sunrise Neha and Nisha were
(c) 100 km (d) 120 km talking to each other face to face at Dalphin
(e) 75 km crossing. If Nisha’s shadow was exactly to the
right of Neha, which direction Nisha was facing?
2. A person moves North, then turns to his right (a) North (b) South
and then again right and then finally go to left. (c) East (d) Inadequate data
In which direction is he moving now?
(a) East (b) South-East Read the following information carefully and
(c) West (d) North answer the questions that follow:
M%N means M is to the right of N at 1m distance.
3. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are nine houses. C is M@N means M is to the left of N at a distance of 1m.
2km East of B. A is 1km North of B and H is 2km M$N means M is to the north of N at 1m distance.
South of A. G is 1km West of H while D is 3km M # N means M is to the south of N at 1m distance.
East of G. F is 2km North of G, I is situated just in The persons are facing the south direction.
the middle of B and C, while E is just in the
middle of H and D. Find the distance between E 1. A % B # C % D, then D is in which direction with
and G. respect to A?
(a)2 km (b)1.5 km (a) North (b) South-East
(c)3 km (d)4 km (c) North-West (d) South-West
(e) South
4. A man is facing south. He turns 135o in the
anticlockwise direction and then 180o in the 2. A # B % C $ D, then D is in which direction with
clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing respect to A?
now? (a) North (b) North-East
(a) North-east (b) North-west (c) South (d) West (e) South-West
(c) South-east (d) South-west

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Syllogism
DIRECTIONS (1-2): In each of the questions 4. Statements:

below are two statements followed by two All buildings are houses.
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take No house is an apartment.
the three given statements to be true even if All apartments are flats.
they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts and then decide which of the given Conclusions:
conclusion logically follows from the two I. All buildings being flats is a possibility.
statements disregarding commonly known II. All apartments being building is a possibility.
facts. Give answers:
(a) If the conclusion I follows (a). If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If conclusion II follows (b). If only conclusions II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows (c). If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows (d). If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II
(e) If both conclusion I and II follows follows
1. Statements: 5. Statements:
Every Minister is a student. Some oceans are seas.
Every student is inexperienced. All oceans are rivers.
No river is a canal.
Conclusions:
I. Every Minister is inexperienced. Conclusions:
II. Some inexperienced are students. I. All rivers can never be oceans.
II. All canals being oceans is a possibility.
2. Statements:
All jungles are tigers. (a). If only conclusion I follows
Some tigers are horses. (b). If only conclusions II follows
(c). If both conclusion I and II follows
Conclusions (d). If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II
I. Some horses are jungles. follows
II. No horse is jungles.
6. Statements:
3. Statements: Some wins are trophies.
All pins are rods. Some trophies are cups.
Some rods are chains. No cup is a prize.
All chains are hammers.
Conclusions:
Conclusions: I. At least some cups are wins.
I. Some pins are hammers. II. All prizes being trophies is a possibility.
II. Some hammers are rods
III. No pin is hammer. (a). If only conclusion I is true
(b). If only conclusion II is true
(a) Only I follows (c). If either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Only II follows (d). If both conclusions are true
(c) Only III follows (e). If neither conclusion I nor II is true
(d) Only either I or III & II follows
(e) None of these

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DIRECTIONS(7-8): In each question, a set of six (c). CDB

statements are given, followed by five answer (d). CBE
choices. Each of the answer choices has a (e). None of these
combination of three statements from the given
set of six statements. You are required to 8. Statements:
identify the answer choices in which the third A. All cows are goats.
statement logically follows the first two in the B. All goats are dogs.
same order. C. No goats are cows.
D. No goats are dogs.
7. Statements: E. All cows are dogs.
A. All red is green. F. All dogs are cows.
B. All red is white.
C. All red is black. (a). FAB
D. All black is white. (b). ABE
E. All green is yellow. (c). AFB
F. All green is white. (d). ABF
(e). None of these
(a). ABF
(b). AEF
Data Interpretation
Directions: Study the following information 6. The number of students who qualified in M.tech
carefully and answer the questions given beside: is approximately how much % of the number of
students who applied for M.tech?
The charts show the number of students who (a) 33% (b) 67%
applied for different courses and qualified in that (c) 50% (d) 75%
courses. (e) None of these
Total number of students who applied = 21000 7. If the number of female students who applied
for M.com is 50% more than the number of male
students who applied for M.com, find the
numbers of male students who applied for
M.com.
(a) 2650 (b) 2590
(c) 2450 (d) 2520
(e) None of these
8. Find the difference between the number of

students who applied for M.Sc and MBA and the
number of students who qualified in the same
Total number of students who qualified = 15000 course.
(a) 2520 (b) 2460
(c) 2390 (d) 2100
(e) None of these
9. What is the ratio between the number of

students who applied for MCA and the number
of students who qualified in the same course?
(a) 42 : 25 (b) 25 : 49

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(c) 25 : 19 (d) 21 : 25 (a) 2150 (b) 2220

(e) 42 : 29 (c) 2250 (d) 2050
(e) None of these
10. What is the average of the number of students
who qualified in M.tech, M.Sc and MCA course?
Data Sufficiency
Each of the questions below consists of a (2) Statement I alone is sufficient.

question and two statements numbered I and II (3) Statement II alone is sufficient.
given below it. You have to decide whether the (4) Both Statements I and II are required together
data provided in the statements are sufficient to (5) Neither Statement I nor II are sufficient
answer the question. Read both statements and
give answer. 1. Who is taller among A, B, C, D & E?
Options: i. D is shorter than B. A is shorter than only E.
(1) Either Statement I or II are sufficient ii. B is taller than only D. E is taller than A and R.
Logical Venn Diagram
1. The diagram given below represents those Study the diagram and identify the students who
students who play Cricket, Football and play all three games.
Kabaddi. (a) P+Q+R
(b) V+T
(c) S+T+V
(d) S
2. In a class of 40 students, 20 have chosen

Chemistry, 15 have chosen Chemistry but not
Physics. If every student has chosen either
Chemistry or Physics or both, find the number of
students who chose both Chemistry and Physics
and the number of students who chose Physics
but not Chemistry

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Analytical Reasoning
Analytical Reasoning
Directions (1-5): Read the following information than two persons have their birthdays in the
to answer these questions: same months. All the birthdays are either on 14th
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a circle facing or 23rd of the month. No two persons have their
at the centre and playing cards. birthdays on the same day of the same month.
(ii) E is a neighbour of A and D, who is sitting 3rd The following information is also known about
to the right of B. them. F does not have birthday in May. E wasn’t
(iii) G is not between F and C, if seen in born in July. H’s birthday is immediately after B’s.
anticlockwise direction starting from F. E celebrates his birthday before B. The number of
(iv) F is to the immediate right of A. persons who have their birthdays between the
birthdays of G and H is equal to the number of
1. Which of the following does not have the pair of persons who have their birthdays between the
persons sitting adjacent to each other? birthdays of B and D. D was born in July. Birthdays
(a) BA (b) CB of both E and B are in the same month. There are
(c) DE (d) GD (e) NOTA three birthdays between the birthdays of F and C.
2. Which of the following pairs has the 2nd person 6. Who among the following were born in the same
sitting immediately to the right of the 1st? month?
(a) AB b) CB (a) A and D (b) B and C
(c) EA (d) DG (e) NOTA (c) C and F (d) D and G (e) NOTA
3. What is the position of F? 7. Who was born on 23rd July?

(a) 3rd to the left of C (a) A (b) B
(b) 2nd to the right of C (c) C (d) D (e) NOTA
(c) To the immediate left of A
(d) To the immediate right of B 8. Which of the following Birthday–Person
(e) None of these combination is correct?
(a) January 23rd – G (b) April 14th – E
4. Who are the neighbours of B? (c) May 23rd – H (d) July 14th – C
(a) A and F (b) C and D (e) None of these
(c) F and C (d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these 9. In which month C has his birthday?
(a) January (b) April
5. Which of the following persons are sitting (c) May (d) July
adjacent to each other from left to right in the (e) Can’t be determined
order as shown?
(a) BGC (b) FBC 10. How many people have birthdays before G?
(c) CDG (d) EGD (e) NOTA (a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7 (e) NOTA
Directions (6-10): Read the given information
carefully and answer the questions given beside: Directions (11-15): These questions are based on
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H have their the following information, read the
birthdays on different months of the year viz. comprehension carefully to answer the given
January, April, May and July, such that not more questions.

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Eight persons Andrew, Bill, Charles, David, Emma, way and so form a group. Find the one who does
Fabio, George and Henry are sitting on a square not belong to that group?
table and all are facing outside but not necessarily (a) Andrew (b) David
in the same order. Some are sitting at corners and (c) Charles (d) Emma (e) Henry
some are sitting at the middle of the sides. Two
of them likes ice-cream of Vanilla and Strawberry 13. What is the position of Emma with respect to
flavour. David sits at one of the corners but does George?
not like any ice-cream. George sits immediate (a) Second to left
right of David. Bill sits opposite to Fabio who likes (b) Fourth to the right
ice-cream but not Vanilla. Charles sits third to the (c) Immediate right
left of Fabio. Andrew sits at one of the corners but (d) Third to the right
Andrew is not the immediate neighbour of Emma (e) None of these
and Fabio. Henry and Emma are immediate
neighbours of each other. George does not like 14. How many persons sit between David and Emma
any of the ice-cream.Henry sits opposite to the when counted from left of David?
one who like Vanilla ice-cream. Neither Bill nor (a) One (b) Two
Fabio sits at the corner. (c) More than Four (d) Three
(e) Four
11. Who likes vanilla ice-cream?
(a) Andrew (b) Bill 15. Who among the following sits exactly between
(c) Charles (d) Emma (e) NOTA George and Bill?
(a) Andrew (b) David
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain (c) Charles (d) Emma (e) Fabio
Pattern Recognition
Directions (16-20): A word and number (c) deeds (d) 39

arrangement machine, when given an input line (e) None of these
of words and numbers, rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The 17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
following is an illustration of input and way and thus form a group. Which of the
rearrangement. following does not belong to the group?
Input: hard 27 nut 14 impossible 54 to 86 crack (a) for – 27 (b) pleasure - 75
62 (c) 96 – deeds (d) 39 - pleasure
Step1:54 hard 27 nut 14 impossible 86 crack 62 to (e) pleasure – 27
Step2:86 54 hard 27 14 impossible crack 62 to nut
Step3:14 86 54 hard 27 crack 62 to nut impossible 18. In which of the following steps, 96 is seen exactly
Step4:62 14 86 54 27 crack to nut impossible hard between 62 and 75 for the first time?
Step5:27 62 14 86 54 to nut impossible hard crack (a) Step 1 (b) Step 3
Step 5 is the final output. (c) Step 4 (d) Step 5
(e) None of these
11. Find the different steps of output using the
above-mentioned logic for the following input. 19. Which of the following is second to the right of
Input: deeds 39 for 96 humanity 75 give 27 '39' in step 4?
pleasure 62 (a) 75 (b) humanity
(c) 96 (d) pleasure
16. Which of the following elements is third to the (e) None of these
left of fifth element from right end in step 3?
(a) crack (b) 75 20. What is the sum of the digits of the numbers
which are second from left end and fourth from

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right end in step 3? (c) abbbc (d) aabba

(a) 35 (b) 29 (c) 36
(d) 40 (e) 24 26. In a certain code ‘SEQUENCE’ is coded as
‘FDOFVRFT’. How is ‘CHILDREN’ coded
Directions (Question 21 to 25): Complete the In that code?
given sequences/series (a) OFESJMID (b) OFSEMJID
21. 26, 12, 10, 16, ? (c) OFSEJIMD (d) OFSEJMID
(a) 50 (b) 52 (c) 53
(d) 56 (e) 57 27. In a code language, ‘Elephant is told as Jackal’,
‘Jackal is told as Monkey’, ‘Monkey is told as
22. 82, 107, 207, 432, 832,? Dog’, ‘Dog is told as Lion’, ‘Lion is told as Goat’,
(a) 1550 (b) 1450 (c) 1457 Goat is told as Mouse’, then who will be the king
(d) 1542 (e) 1478 of the jungle?
(a) Mouse (b) Goat
23. 122, 213, 340, 509, 726, ? (c) Lion (d) Jackal
(a) 942 (b) 997 (c) 919
(d) 950 (e) 922 28. Choose a figure which would most closely
resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).
24. 25, 37.5, 56.25, ?, 125.625
(a) 72.375 (b) 84.375 (c) 92.255
(d) 59.750 (e) 69.450
25. Which one set of letters when sequentially

placed at the gaps in the given letter series
shall complete it?
b _ac _ cc _ cb _ ab _ ac
(a) cbaba (b) bbaac
Data Sufficiency
Each of the questions below consists of a (3) Statement II alone is sufficient.

question and two statements numbered I and II (4) Both Statements I and II are required together
given below it. You have to decide whether the (5) Neither Statement I or nor Statement II are
data provided in the statements are sufficient to sufficient
answer the question. Read both the statements
and give answer. 29. Who is C’s partner in a game of cards involving
Options: four players A, B, C, and D?
(1) Either Statement I or Statement II areI. D is sitting opposite to A
sufficient II. B is sitting right of A and left of D.
(2) Statement I alone is sufficient.
In a survey among 140 students, 60 likes to play (i) students who play only outdoor games
videogames, 70 likes to play indoor games, 75 (ii) students who play video games and indoor
likes to play outdoor games, 30 play indoor and games, but not outdoor games.
outdoor games, 18 like to play video games and
outdoor games, 42 play video games and indoor
games and 8 likes to play all types of games. Use
the Venn diagram to find

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Analogy
Analogy
Directions (1-3): In each of the following 4. 12 : 72 : : 8 : ?

questions, there is some relationship between (a) 0 (b) 32
the two terms to the left of : : and the same (c) 36 (d) 38
relationship holds between the two terms to its
right. Also, in each question, one term either to 5. 6 : 42 :: 7 : ?
the right of : : or to the left of it is missing. This (a) 56 (b) 40
term is given as one of the alternatives given (c) 52 (d) 43
below each question. Find out this term.
6. 16 : 22 :: 36 : ?
1. DBU : EEZ : : CJH : ? (a) 44 (b) 26
(a) DMM (b) DNN (c) 24 (d) 46
(c) DMN (d) DNM
7. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures
2. FIG : EGHJFH : : BIN : ? that would replace the question mark (?).
(a) CAJHOM (b) CAHJMOC Problem Figures: Answer Figures:
(c) ACJHMO (d) ACHJMO
3. BLOCKED : YOLXPVW :: ? : OZFMMXS (A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(a)LAUNNCH (b) RESULTS
(c) LABOURS (d) DEBATES (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
Directions (4-6): In each of the following 8. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures
questions, there is a certain relationship between that would replace the question mark (?).
two given numbers on one side of : : and one
number is given on another side of : : while Problem Figures: Answer Figures:
another number is to be found from the given
alternatives, having the same relationship with
this number as the numbers of the given pair (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
bear. Choose the best alternative.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
Data Interpretation
Directions:
Study the following table chart carefully and
answer the questions given beside. The following
table shows the number of different items in
different shops and their respective Selling Price.

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9. Find the number of Fans in all shops together. 15. If total Indians in Gulf in the year 2014 are equal
(a) 8052 (b) 6050 to the total Pakistanis in Gulf in the year 2017,
(c) 7582 (d) 9622 (e) NOTA then find the ratio of Bangladeshis in Gulf in the
respective years.
10. Find the percentage of total income which (a) 2:5 (b) 1:5
comes from Cooler from shop D. (c) 3:5 (d) 2:3 (e) NOTA
(a) 47.05% (b) 59.12%
(c) 42.15% (d) 39.31% (e) NOTA 16. If total persons in 2015 are three times the total
Bangladeshis in 2016 and also the total Indians
11. Find the total income earned by shop C? in the year 2015 are 5670, then find that the
(a) Rs. 23,560,000 (b) Rs. 61,450,000 total Indians in the year 2015 are how much per
(c) Rs. 61,800,000 (d) Rs. 32,654,000 cent more than the total Bangladeshis in the
(e) None of these year 2016.
(a) 5% (b) 2.5%
12. How much percent Income in Shop F is from AC? (c) 0% (d) 7.5% (e) 6 %
(a) 11.6% (b) 18.18%
(c) 16.24% (d) 319.89% (e) NOTA 17. If the total Pakistanis in the year 2013 are 2250
and ratio of Pakistanis in the years 2013 and
13. What is the ratio between the earnings by sale 2014 is 45:88, then find the total number of
of Fan in shop B and shop E? persons in the Gulf in the years 2013 and 2014
(a) 20:51 (b) 39:70 together.
(c) 40:61 (d) 64:91 (e) NOTA (a) 22000 (b) 20000
(c) 18000 (d) 17500 (e) 25000
Direction: Study the bar chart carefully and
answer the questions given beside. 18. If ratio of total persons in all the given years
Given bar graph shows the percentage of jobs from 2013 to 2017 is 2 : 3 : 3 : 4 : 5, then find the
held by Indians, Pakistanis and Bangladeshis in ratio of total Indians in the Gulf over all the given
the Gulf over the different years. Study the bar years from 2013 to 2017.
graph and answer the following questions- (a) 25 : 23 : 21 : 22 : 20
(b) 23 : 27 : 25 : 24 : 30
(c) 24 : 27 : 21 : 23 : 20
(d) 23 : 27 : 21 : 22 : 20
(e) None of these
Directions: Study the following table chart

carefully and answer the questions given beside
.
Respective
Ratio of
Total Valid
% of Valid
Year Number votes of
Votes
of Votes male and
valid votes
14. If the ratio of the total persons who are doing of female
their jobs in the year 2013 and 2016 is 3:5 and 2011 - - 5:3
the total Indians in the Gulf in 2016 are 4125, 2012 500 - 5:4
then find the total Bangladeshis in the year 2013 2013 1000 38% -
in Gulf. 2014 - 60% 7:5
(a) 1525 (b) 2250 2015 2500 40% -
(c) 1575 (d) 2275 (e) NOTA
19. In 2013, if the number of valid votes of female
was 100, what was the respective ratio of

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number of valid votes of male and number of (c) 120 (d) 150 (e) 210
valid votes of female in the same year?
(a) 15:19 (b) 13:11 22. In 2014, if the difference between number of
(c) 14:5 (d) 13:5 (e) 15:17 valid votes of male and number of valid votes of
female was 150, what was the total number of
20. The total number of votes increased by 50% votes in 2014?
from 2012 to 2016. If 16% of the votes were valid (a) 1845 (b) 1500
in 2016, what was the number of valid votes in (c) 1660 (d) 1600 (e) 1720
2016?
(a) 205 (b) 250 23. In 2011, the respective ratio of total number of
(c) 120 (d) 140 (e) 130 votes to valid votes was 5:4. Number of valid
votes of female in 2011 constitutes what percent
21. If the average number of valid votes in 2012 and of the total number of votes in the same year?
2015 was 635, what was the number of votes (a) 35% (b) 25%
given by female in 2012? (c) 15% (d) 30% (e) CBD
(a) 270 (b) 135
Data Sufficiency
24. What is the area of the rectangle? 25. What is the present age of Rakesh?
I. The ratio of length to breadth of the rectangle I. The ratio of the ages of Ramesh and Rakesh,
is 15 : 7. three years ago, was 4 : 5.
II. The perimeter of the rectangle is 44 cm. II. The ratio of the ages of Rajesh and Rakesh,
III. The length of diagonal of the rectangle is 16.55 after two years, will be 4 : 5.
cm III. Two years ago the ratio of the ages of Rajesh
1: I and II only 2: I and III only and Ramesh was 12 : 13.
3: (I and II) or (II and III) 4: Any two 1: I and II only 2: II and III only
3: I and III only 4: All I, II and III
In a survey among 140 students, 60 like to play 360, and 440 students respectively. The number
videogames, 70 like to play indoor games, 75 like of athletes playing exactly two racket games for
to play outdoor games, 30 play indoor and any combination is 40 each. The number of
outdoor games, 18 like to play video games and athletes who play all the four games is 60. Also, it
outdoor games, 42 play video games and indoor was noticed that the number of people who play
games and 8 likes to play all types of games. Use exactly three games is 20 for each combination of
the Venn diagram to find games.
(i) students who play only outdoor games (i) Find the number of athletes in the stadium.
(ii) students who play video games and indoor (ii) Find the number of athletes in the stadium
games, but not outdoor games. who play either only squash or only tennis.
(iii) How many athletes in the stadium
In the ABC sports stadium, athletes choose from participate in athletics? If all the athletes were
four different racket games (apart from athletics compulsorily asked to add one game to their
which is compulsory for all). These are table existing list (except those who were already
tennis, tennis, squash, and badminton. It is also playing all 4) then what would be the number of
known that 20 % of the athletes practicing there athletes who would be playing all 4 games after
are not choosing any of the racket sports. The this change?
four games given here are played by 460, 360,

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Clocks | Calendars | Cubes | Dice
Clocks
1. An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in the by Y and Z was recorded by watch W2. The time
morning. Through how many degrees will the taken by X, Y and Z to complete the race
hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o'clock according to the respective watches used was 5,
in the afternoon? 6 and 3 seconds respectively. W2 is a faulty clock
(a) 144º (b) 150º and loses time uniformly. If X beats Y by 10 m,
(c) 168º (d) 180º what was the speed of Z during the race?
(a) 26 (b) 96
2. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, (c) 16 (d) 56
the hour hand has turned through:
(a) 145º (b) 150º 7. There is a clock which loses 5 minutes after every
(c) 155º (d) 160º hour. It shows correct time at 9 o clock on
Wednesday on 1st September. Among the
3. Ram has a digital watch that shows time in a 24 following options, when will it show the correct
hour format. The time on the watch is 4:56. How time of 9 o clock again?
many minutes will pass before the watch next (a) Friday,10th September
shows a time with digits in ascending order from (b) Tuesday,14th September
left to right? (c) Monday, 13th September
(a) 71 (b) 459 (d) Monday, 6th September
(c) 457 (d) 458
8. At what time between 7 and 8 o'clock will the
4. In a watch, the minute hand crosses the hour hands of a clock be in the same straight line but,
hand for the third time exactly after every 3 hr not together?
18 min and 15s of normal time. What is the time (a) 5 min. past 7
gained or lost by this watch in one day? (b) 5(2/11) min. past 7
(a) 14 min 10 s lost (c) 5(3/11) min. past 7
(b) 13 min 48 s lost (d) 5(5/11) min. past 7
(c) 13 min 20 s gained
(d) 14 min 40 s gained 9. At what time between 5:30 and 6 will the hands
of a clock be at right angles?
5. In a clock having a circular scale of twelve hours, (a) 43(5/11) min. past 5
when time changes from 7:45 A.M. to 7:47 A.M., (b) 43 (7/11) min. past 5
by how many degrees the angle formed by the (c) 40 min. past 5
hour hand and minute hand changes? (d) 45 min. past 5
(a) 10 (b) 11
(c) 12 (d) 15 (e) NOTA 10. How many times in a day, are the hands of a
clock in straight line but opposite in direction?
6. X, Y and Z ran a 50 m race. The time taken by X (a) 20 (b) 22
was recorded by watch W1 and the time taken (c) 24 (d) 48
Calendars
1. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day (a) Sunday (b) Saturday
of the week Jan 1, 2010? (c) Friday (d) Wednesday

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2. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be: (a) Tuesday (b) Monday
(a) Wednesday (b) Saturday (c) Sunday (d) Wednesday
(c) Tuesday (d) Thursday
7. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same
3. If 6th March, 2005 is Monday, what was the day for the year:
of the week on 6th March, 2004? (a) 2014 (b) 2016 (c) 2017 (d) 2018
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday
(c) Tuesday (d) Wednesday 8. Which of the following is not a leap year?
(a) 700 (b) 800 (c) 1200 (d) 2000
4. On what dates of April, 2001 did Wednesday
fall? 9. On 8th Dec, 2007 Saturday falls. What day of the
(a) 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th week was it on 8th Dec, 2006?
(b) 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th (a) Sunday (b) Thursday
(c) 3rd, 10th, 17th, 24th (c) Tuesday (d) Friday
(d) 4th, 11th, 18th, 25th
10. January 1, 2008 is Tuesday. What day of the
5. The last day of a century cannot be week lies on Jan 1, 2009?
(a) Monday (b) Wednesday (a) Monday (b) Wednesday
(c) Tuesday (d) Friday (c) Thursday (d) Sunday
6. On 8th Feb, 2005 it was Tuesday. What was the

day of the week on 8th Feb, 2004?
Cubes
Directions (1-5) : The following questions are 4. How many cubes will have green colour on two
based on the information given below: sides and rest of the four sides having no colour?
A cuboid shaped wooden block has 6 cm length, (a) 12 (b) 10
4 cm breadth and 1 cm height. Two faces (c) 8 (d) 4
measuring 4 cm x 1 cm are coloured in black. Two
faces measuring 6 cm x 1 cm are coloured in red. 5. How many cubes will remain if the cubes having
Two faces measuring 6 cm x 4 cm are coloured in black and green coloured are removed?
green. The block is divided into 6 equal cubes of (a) 4 (b) 8
side 1 cm (from 6 cm side), 4 equal cubes of side (c) 12 (d) 16
1 cm (from 4 cm side).
Directions (6-10): The following questions are
1. How many cubes having red, green and black based on the information given below:
colours on at least one side of the cube will be All the opposite faces of a big cube are coloured
formed? with red, black and green colours. After that is cut
(a) 16 (b) 12 into 64 small equal cubes.
(c) 10 (d) 4
6. How many small cubes are there where one face
2. How many small cubes will be formed? is green and other one is either black or red?
(a) 6 (b) 12 (a) 28 (b) 8
(c) 16 (d) 24 (c) 16 (d) 24
3. How many cubes will have 4 coloured sides and 7. How many small cubes are there whose no faces
two non-coloured sides? are coloured?
(a) 8 (b) 4 (a) 0 (b) 4
(c) 16 (d) 10 (c) 8 (d) 16

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8. How many small cubes are there whose 3 faces dimensions 3 x 3 are coloured green. Now the
are coloured? cuboid is cut into small cubes of side 1 cm.
(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 16 (d) 24 11. How many small cubes will have only two faces
coloured?
9. How many small cubes are there whose only one (a) 4 (b) 8
face is coloured? (c) 12 (d) 16
(a) 32 (b) 8
(c) 16 (d) 24 12. How many small cubes have three faces
coloured?
10. How many small cubes are there whose at the (a) 32 (b) 24
most two faces are coloured? (c) 16 (d) 8
(a) 48 (b) 56
(c) 28 (d) 24 13. How many cubes have no coloured face at all?
(a) 16 (b) 8
Directions (11-14): The following questions are (c) 4 (d) 2
based on the information given below: There is a
cuboid whose dimensions are 4 x 3 x 3 cm. The 14. How many cubes have only one coloured face?
opposite faces of dimensions 4 x 3 are coloured (a) 8 (b) 16
yellow. The opposite faces of other dimensions 4 (c) 10 (d) 24
x 3 are coloured red. The opposite faces of
Dice
1. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to 3. Analyze the following dice carefully and answer
the face with symbol *? the following questions
(a) @ (b) $
(c) 8 (d) +
(i) How many dices are possible
2. How many points will be on the face opposite
to in face which contains 2 points?
(a) only B (b) A and B only

(c) only C (d) A, B, C and D
(ii) Find the number opposite to ‘3’.

(a) 1 (b) 5
(c) 4 (d) 6 (a) 1 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) Can’t be determined

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Verbal Ability | Class 1

Subject Verb Agreement | Phrasal Verbs
SUBJECT-VERB AGREEMENT
Significance: by our expert faculty and practice as much as

➢ The subject and the verb must agree with you can.
each other. There must be a number
agreement between a subject and its verb. DIRECTIONS. Underline the subject (or
➢ Errors pertaining to this topic are perhaps compound subject) and then identify the verb
the most common ones asked in the exam. that agrees with it.
Sentence improvement and fill up questions 1. Your friendship over the years and your support
are also based on this concept. (has/have) meant a great deal to us.
➢ Along with the high weightage, the well laid 2. Hamilton Family Center, a shelter for teenage
out rules that dictate subject−verb runaways in San Francisco, (offers/offer) a wide
agreement make it a scoring area for the variety of services.
students. 3. The main source of income for Trinidad (is/are)
➢ It is easy to learn rule & score in verbal ability oil and pitch. 4. The chances of your being
with accuracy. promoted (is/are) excellent.
4. 5.There (was/were) a Pokémon card stuck to
What will this Assignment cover? the refrigerator.
➢ A finite verb agrees with its subject in number 5. Neither the professor nor his assistants
and person. (was/were) able to solve the mystery of the
➢ There are three items that work together to eerie glow in the laboratory.
form a complete sentence. They are: 6. Many hours at the driving range (has/have) led
a. Subject us to design golf balls with GPS locators in
b. Verbs them.
c. Complete thought 7. Discovered in the soil of our city garden
➢ All previous year important questions. (was/were) a button dating from the Civil War
dating from the turn of the century.
Approach to solve this assignment: 8. Every year, during the midsummer festival, the
➢ Learn all the rules for solving Subject Verb smoke of village bonfires (fills/fill) the sky.
Agreement questions. 9. The story performers (was/were) surrounded
➢ A singular subject is followed by a singular by children and adults eager to see magical
verb i.e., Subject (he, car, James) - singular tales.
Verb (goes, was)
➢ Subject is preceded by a phrase starting with DIRECTIONS. Edit the following sentences to
‘of’. eliminate problems with subject-verb
➢ Two singular subjects linked by neither/nor agreement and write the edited sentence. If a
or either/or are always followed by a singular sentence is correct, write “correct.”
verb. 1. One of the main reasons for elephant poaching
➢ Always use plural verb with two or more are the profits received from selling the ivory
subjects, if they are linked by ‘and’. tusks.
➢ The obvious way to become perfect in solving 2. Not until my interview with Dr. Chang were
the questions is to follow the tricks and tips other possibilities opened to me.

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3. Batik cloth from Bali, blue and white ceramics D. Sandals and towels does not essential gear
from Cambodia, and a bocce ball from Turin has for a trip to the beach.
made Hannah’s room the talk of the dorm.
4. The board of directors, ignoring the wishes of QUESTION.
the neighborhood, has voted to allow further A. The president or the vice president are
development. speaking today.
5. Measles is a contagious childhood disease. B. The president or the vice president is
6. The presence of certain bacteria in our bodies speaking today.
are one of the factors that determines our C. The president or the vice president are not
overall health. speaking today.
7. Leah is the only one of the many applicants who D. The president or the vice president were not
has the ability to step into this job. speaking.
8. Neither the explorer nor his companions was
ever seen again. QUESTION.
A. Everyone of them is a defaulter.
Direction : Choose the correct option B. Everyone of them are a defaulter.
QUESTION C. Everyone of them were a defaulter.
A. Every one of the shirts has a green collar. D. Everyone of they is a defaulter.
B. Every one of the shirts have a green collar.
C. Every one of the shirts were a green collar. QUESTION.
D. Every one of the shirts are a green collar. A. The politicians, along with the newsmen, is
expected shortly.
QUESTION. B. The politician, along with the newsmen, is
A. Sandals and towels are essential gear for a expected shortly.
trip to the beach. C. The politician, along with the newsmen, are
B. Sandals and towels is essential gear for a expected shortly.
trip to the beach. D. The politician, along with the newsmen were
C. Sandals and towels is not essential gear for expected shortly.
a trip to the beach.
PHRASAL VERBS
Significance: ➢ Phrasal verbs do have their uses, after all. For

➢ A verb, such as "goes," becomes a phrasal example, they convey a casual tone, and while
verb when one or more prepositions are this is not usually desirable in academic writing,
added, such as "The light goes off" or "She the best academic writers can vary their tone at
goes out with him." The verb's meaning is will.
entirely altered by each new preposition.
Now it’s called a phrasal verb Separating phrasal verbs
➢ Some phrasal verbs can be separated by
When to use a Phrasal Verb? intervening words, while others have to stay
➢ Phrasal verbs are normally avoided, but together in the sentence. There is no rule to tell
because they are so prevalent, it will be whether a phrasal verb can be separated, so
challenging to consistently find suitable you have to learn by memory and practice—
replacements. Change them when you can, one good reason to avoid them when you can.
and when you "run out" of ideas for ➢ One helpful pointer, though, is that phrasal
rephrasing, "cheer up," "believe in" yourself, verbs that can be separated must be separated
when their object is a pronoun(e.g., it, her,
and "write down" your phrasal verbs
them).
meticulously.

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Example: Separable 4. Our boss _______ our meeting until next

• Call the meeting off. week.
• Call off the meeting. A. put
B. put off
➢ Note that if a phrasal verb is separable, it must C. put down
be separated when its object is a pronoun(e.g.
it, her, them). 5. Could you _______ the music while I'm on the
phone?
• Call it off. A. turn
• Call off it. B. turn off
C. turn around
Example: Inseparable
6. I don't _______ my new science teacher.
• The message didn’t come across well.
A. get up
• The message didn’t come well across.
B. get over
C. get on with
Example: Must be separated
Some phrasal verbs always have to be
7. We both _______ meeting your new girlfriend.
separated, but this is comparatively rare.
A. look
• Oscar will take Sven upon the offer. B. look up
• Oscar will take up Sven on the offer. C. look forward to
1. Would you _______ my dog for me this 8. My car _______ on the highway today.
weekend? A. broke down
A. look B. broke off
B. look after C. broke away
C. look up
9. It will be easier to read if you _______ the
2. My neighbor _______ eggs yesterday. lights.
A. ran A. switch
B. ran out of B. switch on
C. ran into C. switch over
3. John _______ his leg at the baseball game. 10. I have to _______ to the finish line and back.
A. broke A. run away
B. broke down B. run out of
C. broke off C. run
READING COMPREHENSION
Inference kind of questions • What the passage suggests or indicates about

There are many other types of information that some particular matter addressed explicitly in
a writer leaves out and relies on the reader to the passage
supply. There are a variety of Reading • What, according to the passage, is true of some
Comprehension questions that assess this particular matter?
ability.
For example, you might be asked: ➢ The first thing that an aspirant must keep in
• What can be inferred from a passage or from mind is that the answers to inference-based RC
some specific portion of the passage questions are not directly stated in the passage.

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➢ The word inference suggests that it is something C. simple scholarship, with a narrow focus,
derived from what is already given to us. But the might not place enough emphasis on the
passage will have very strong evidence in favor student’s needs
of the right answer. Thus, the correct answers D. simple scholarship will always be lopsided in
are justified by something that is explicitly nature because of its ambiguous stand on
stated in the passage. problems
➢ Sometimes this may be no more than a single
sentence; on the other hand, sometimes you DIRECTION for the question: Answer the
may have to pull together information from question based on the information given in
various parts of the passage to identify the the passage.
correct answer. A being whose activities are associated with
➢ In some cases, locating the part of the passage others has a social environment. What he
that justifies an inference is straightforward. does and what he can do depend upon the
➢ In other cases, the relevant justifying expectations, demands, approvals, and
information might not be where one would condemnations of others. A being connected
most naturally expect to find it. with other beings cannot perform his own
➢ In still other cases, there is no single part of the activities without taking the activities of
passage that contains all the relevant justifying others into account. For they are the
information. indispensable conditions of the realization of
his tendencies. When he moves, he stirs them
DIRECTION for the question: Answer the and reciprocally. We might as well try to
question based on the information given in imagine a businessman doing business,
the passage. buying and selling, all by himself, as to
The need for knowledge of the constitution conceive it possible to define the activities of
and functions, in the concrete, of human an individual in terms of his isolated actions.
nature is great just because the teacher's The manufacturer moreover is as truly
attitude to subject matter is so different from socially guided in his activities when he is
that of the pupil. The teacher presents in laying plans in the privacy of his own counting
actuality what the pupil represents only in house as when he is buying his raw material
posse. That is, the teacher already knows the or selling his finished goods. Thinking and
things which the student is only learning. feeling that have to do with action in
Hence the problem of the two is radically association with others is as much a social
unlike. When engaged in the direct act of mode of behavior as is the most overt
teaching, the instructor needs to have subject cooperative or hostile act.
matter at his fingers' ends; his attention
should be upon the attitude and response of Q. It can be inferred from the paragraph
the pupil. To understand the latter in its that:
interplay with subject matter is his task, while A. In our social world, one’s thinking, feelings
the pupil's mind, naturally, should be not on and actions cannot stand in isolation to
itself but on the topic in hand. Or to state the actions of others
same point in a somewhat different manner: B. In our social world, thinking, feelings and
the teacher should be occupied not with actions of an individual are driven by
subject matter in itself but in its interaction motivations and thoughts of others
with the pupils' present needs and capacities. C. In our social world, thinking, feelings and
Hence simple scholarship is not enough. actions of a person cannot stand in isolation
to those of others
Q. It can be inferred from the paragraph D. In our social world, thinking, feelings and
that: actions of a single person are juxtaposed
A. simple scholarship is lop-sided in its focus retrospectively to those of others
B. simple scholarship might overlook the subject
matter and focus purely on the student

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DIRECTION for the question: The question DIRECTION for the question: Answer the
has a text portion followed by four question based on the information given in
alternative summaries. Choose the option the passage.
that best captures the essence of the text. An increase in the level of serotonin levels in
An increase in the median income of the the human body is known to significantly
middle class does not cause average levels of enhance the mood of the person and in some
education for the middle class to go up. If they cases, help people overcome depression.
did, then countries with the highest median Serotonin taken orally does not pass into the
income of the middle class would also have pathways of the central nervous system,
the highest levels of education for this class. because it does not cross the blood–brain
In fact, when the median income of the barrier. However, tryptophan and its
middle class is made suitably comparable for metabolite 5-hydroxytryptophan (5- HTP),
different countries (accounting for inflation, from which serotonin is synthesized, does
currency fluctuations and purchasing power cross the blood–brain barrier. These agents
parity), there is no such co-relation. are available as dietary supplements, and may
be effective serotonergic agents.
Q. Which of the following can be correctly
inferred from the statements above? Q. Which of the following can be correctly
A. Countries with the highest median income of inferred from the statements above?
the middle class do not have the highest A. Individuals who do not consume enough
levels of education for the middle class tryptophan can develop depressive
B. It is difficult to reliably compare the education tendencies
and income levels of one country with B. Individuals who consume tryptophan can
another metabolize enough serotonin and do not run
C. A reduction in the median income of the the risk of depression
middle class of the country will not C. Consumption of serotonin laced foods can
necessarily lower the average level of help cure depression in some cases
education for the said class D. Tryptophan is an effective agent that can help
D. Countries with low levels of education for the cure depression in some cases
middle class have comparatively higher levels
of median income for the middle class

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Tenses | Parallelism
TENSES
Significance: Direction: Complete the sentences with the correct

➢ Tenses can be classified as the part which enables form of the Present Tense.
one to frame short/long sentences, write stories, 1. Jeremy usually ______ to school by bus but today
essays etc. his dad _______ him. (GO, DRIVE)
➢ A little knowledge or incorrect knowledge of the 2. How often ________ to the park for a picnic? (YOU
tenses might land the student in trouble. GO)
➢ Any undergraduate entrance exam like CUCET, 3. Northern California _______ a lot of rain during the
NPAT, IPMAT among others can be crackedwhen wintertime but this winter it _______ at all. (GET,
you have good understanding about the usage of NOT RAIN)
Tenses. 4. My sister often _______ in bed but today she is so
tired that she _______ anything at all. (READ, NOT
What will this Assignment cover? READ)
➢ Agreement of the Verb with the Subject according 5. Look to your right! Mary _______ her little sister to
to tenses school. How sweet! (BRING)
➢ Fill in the blanks with correct Verb according to
Tense Direction: Fill in the correct form of the past tense:
➢ Using Conditionals with correct Tenses simple or progressive.
1. While the policeman ______ out of the window, he
Structure of the assignment ______ that a blue SUV ______ down the road.
➢ The questions in the assignment have covered all (LOOK, NOTICE, PARK)
aspects of tenses as per latest exam pattern. The 2. I ______ on my report when the phone ______. My
questions in the assignment have been arranged wife ____ to know when I ______ home. (WORK,
in categories. RING, WANT, COME)
3. He ______ down the street when he ______ his old
Edu tip / approach to solve this assignment: schoolteacher on the other side. (WALK, SEE)
➢ While answering the questions related to tenses, 4. During the time I ______ in South Africa I never
make sure you understand the time of action as it ______ a serious crime. (SPEND, SEE)
5. While they ______ lunch at the new restaurant, a
will help in choosing the right form of verb.
journalist ______ up to them and ______ to ask a
➢ As a general tip, make sure that you use
few questions. (HAVE, COME, WANT)
consistent form of verb all over the sentence or
text, until the theme or time of action needs to
Direction: Complete the sentences with the correct
change.
form of the present perfect tense.
➢ Understand the questions first and try to find out
1. The post office is not far from here. I _____ there
if it needs change or not as sometimes there are many times before. (BE)
afew questions which require no changes and are 2. You can go home now. You ______ emails for over
given merely to confuse the reader. three hours. You must be very tired. (WRITE)
➢ The obvious way to become perfect in solving the 3. I ______ him at least four times but he _______ the
questions is to follow the tricks and tips by our phone. (CALL, NOT ANSWER)
expert Faculty and practice as much as you can. 4. Bobby is so dirty because he ______ outside the
whole afternoon. (PLAY)
5. The president _______ for his speech the whole
morning. He still isn't finished. (PREPARE)

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Direction: Fill in the correct form of the verb in 1. We _________ the room by the time you get back.
brackets: Past/Past Perfect/Past Perfect (FINISH)
Continuous Tense) 2. The phone is ringing. – I _______ and answer it. (GO)
3. I _______ tomorrow so we can go to the beach.
1. My friend Tim _______ well yesterday because he (NOT WORK)
_____ too many sweets. (NOT FEEL / EAT) 4. If you touch the stove, you _______ yourself.
2. After she _____ , she _____ much better. (REST, (BURN)
FEEL) 5. She _______ for the job that was advertised in the
3. She _____ him for a year before they finally _____ newspaper. (APPLY)
on holidays together. (KNOW, GO) 6. Next week at this time we _______ in the sun in
4. I asked him what _____ because I ______ noise the Spain (LIE)
whole morning. (HAPPEN, HEAR) 7. My sister _____ in the USA next year. (STUDY) 8. The
5. The next morning, I realised that someone ______ Pope _________ Turkey in November. (VISIT)
my new bike. (STEAL). 8. I _________ lunch with Mary at 12. (HAVE)
9. I don't think the exam _________ very difficult. (BE)
Direction: Complete the sentences using a form of
the future, future progressive or future perfect.
PARALLELISM
Significance: ➢ When you connect two clauses or phrases with a

➢ In the Grammar section of Entrance exams, correlative conjunction (not only-but also, Either-
there are questions on the concept of Parallelism, or, Neither-nor, If-then, etc.)
which is the repetition of a chosen grammatical ➢ Observe parallel structure when elements arein a
form within a sentence. list.
➢ In a sentence, with phrases and clauses, the tense ➢ When you connect two clauses or phrases with a
remains the same throughout. Parallelism error is word of comparison, such as ‘than’ or ‘as’, use
not evident to a layman in conversational English parallel structure.
but that does not take away from the fact that it
is an incorrect sentence. DIRECTIONS: Decide whether the sentencehas
➢ Errors pertaining to this topic are perhaps the parallel structure or not.
most common ones asked in the exam.Sentence
improvement questions also based on this. 1. She decided to leave her job and travelling the
world.
What will we cover in This Assignment? A. Parallel
➢ Faulty parallelism in parts of speech B. Not Parallel
➢ Faulty parallelism in phrases and clauses
➢ How Verbal skills functions in differentcontexts. 2. He started the engine, released the handbreak,
➢ Identify ways that are parallel and notparallel.
and checked the mirror.
➢ All previous year important questions.
A. Parallel
Structure of the assignment B. Not Parallel
The questions in the assignment have coveredall
3. Some people think that being successful isthe
aspects of Parallelism as per the latest exam
pattern. same thing as to have money.
A. Parallel
5 GOLDEN RULES to be mastered to solveparallel B. Not Parallel
sentences:
➢ When you connect two or more clauses or 4. Did you decide not to come because you are
phrases with a conjunction (for, and, nor, but, tired or are you feeling sick?
etc.) use parallel structure. A. Parallel
B. Not Parallel

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1. Kajal presented the paper with perfection and

5. When I wake up I like either walking the dogor confidence.
to go for a jog. 2. Kajal presented the paper perfectly and confidently.
A. Parallel 3. Both A and B
B. Not Parallel 4. None of the above
6. I would describe her as intelligent, caring, and 5. Amal has ___.

thoughtful. 1. A car, a bike, and a cycle.
2. A car, a bike, and she has a cycle.
A. Parallel
3. A car and a bike, and she has a cycle.
B. Not Parallel
4. None of the above.
7. He suggested that we go for a meal then we
6. Public transport such as _____
should see a film.
1. Buses and a train reduces air pollution.
A. Parallel 2. Buses or a train reduces air pollution.
B. Not Parallel
3. Buses and trains reduce air pollution.
4. None of the above.
8. Spain is a place where you can eat cheapfood
and soak up the sun. 7. Karishma likes ______.
A. Parallel 1. Cooking, cleaning and to knit.
B. Not Parallel 2. Cooking, cleaning and knitting.
3. To cook, clean and knitting.
Direction: Choose the most appropriate option. 4. None of the above.
1. Mia likes playing Ludo, carroms, and play chess.
1. Mia likes playing Ludo, carroms, and chess. 8. For lunch I would like _______.
2. Mia likes playing Ludo, play carroms, and to play 1. Fried eggs and to bake potatoes.
chess. 2. Baked potatoes and to fry eggs.
3. Mia likes to play Ludo, carroms, and playing chess. 3. To fry eggs and bake potatoes.
4. None of the Above 4. None of the above.
2. Furniture items like desks or a chair can be made 9. I like to __.

out of wood. 1. Eat healthy food, sleep early and exercise regularly.
1. Furniture items like desks or chair can be made out 2. Eat healthy food, sleep early and to exercise
of wood. regularly.
2. Furniture items like desks and chairs can be made 3. Eat healthy food, sleep early and I like to exercise
out of wood. regularly.
3. Furniture items like a desk or chairs can be made out 4. None of the Above.
of wood.
4. None of the above 10. Riya has ___.
• A pen, a pencil, and a ruler.
3. Peter likes painting, sketching, and to draw • A pen, a pencil, and she has a ruler.
cartoons. • A pen and a pencil, and she has a ruler.
1. Peter likes to paint, sketching, and drawing • None of the above.
cartoons.
2. Peter likes to paint, sketch, and drawing cartoons.
3. Peter likes painting, sketching, and drawing
cartoons.
4. None of the above
4. Kajal perfectly and with confidence presented the

paper.

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:
Possible tone Meaning of the word Q. What are some commonly used tones in RC
Speculative Theoretical rather than passages?
practical; thoughtful; Some commonly used tones are – Aggressive,
reflective; hypothetical
Biased, Cynical etc.
Satirical Ironical; taunting; human
folly held up to scorn/
derision/ ridicule Direction: Choose the most appropriate tone for
Sarcastic Harsh, bitter derision; the following passages.
taunting; sneering; cutting
remarks • On hot summer nights his family drove to the local
Provocative Inciting; stimulating; ice cream stand, where, for just a few minutes,
irritating; vexing
nothing mattered but the cold, sweet treat. No
Obsequious Fawning; showing servile
complaisance; flattering dessert, before or since, was as delicious as a
Motivating Impelling; inciting double-dip cone eaten while he balanced on a log
Introspective Consider one’s own internal behind the parking lot.
state of feelings (A) nostalgic (B) biting
Humourous Funny and amusing (C) irreverent (D) cynical (E) satirical
Grandiose More complicated/ elaborated
than necessary; pompous
• All registered cyclists have passed an examination
Cynical displaying a belief that people
are always self seeking in
covering traffic rules and safety. Those interested in
actions the new BikeShare Program must register their
Contemptuous Expressing contempt/ disdain bicycles and provide a major credit card to ensure
Condescending Patronizing; payment. Call 555-1212 for more information.
showing/implying patronising (A) Idealistic (B) Argumentative
descent from dignity/ (C) sentimental (D) informative (E) caustic
superiority
Caustic Biting; acerbic • Iguacu Falls, which sit on the border between
Biased Favouring one Argentina and Brazil, are said to make Niagara look
thing/person/group over
like a leaky faucet. The great cataracts stretch for
another for personal reasons.
Belligerent Aggressively hostile; two and a half miles across lushly foliaged rocky
bellicose outcroppings before plunging a staggering two
Apologetic Expressing remorse, regret, hundred and thirty feet into the river below. The
sorrow for having failed, falls region is densely forested, and is home to a
injuredt wide variety of plants and animals, including a
Aggressive Forceful; tending towards number of endangered ones. It is a paradise where
unprovoked offensiveness parrots dive and swoop through the spray,
Acerbic Harsh/ severe; bitter. butterflies cavort among the tropical plants and
coatis, and giant otters and anteaters amble through
Q. What do you understand by the tone of the the trees. The foliage itself varies between tropical
passage? and deciduous with orchids blushing in the shade of
The tone of a passage is the writer’s attitude or pines and ferns nodding gracefully in the shadow of
feeling about the subject that he or she is fruit trees.
presenting. The author’s attitude toward Iguacu Falls can best
be described as which of the following?
Q. What is the difference between note and tone? (A) Overweening pride.
The note, which corresponds to a specific (B) Positive appreciation.
frequency, is the sound’s absolute pitch. The (C) Mild acceptance.
sound that may be identified by its regularity of (D) Apathetic objectivity.
vibrations is known as a tone. (E) Cautious optimism.

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Sentence Correction and Completion | Errors in Sentences
Significance: D. It is too far hard an essay to attempt for

➢ Errors pertaining to this topic are perhaps the me.
most common ones asked in the exam.
Sentence improvement and fill-up questions Choose the one which conveys the
are also based on this pattern. meaning of the sentence correctly.
➢ Most part of Verbal Ability pertains to such A. The teacher asked the student to leave
type of questions. Hence scoring in this area the room with a frown on his face.
can help score well in the whole section. B. With a frown on his face, the teacher
➢ Sentence correction, errors in sentences, asked the students to leave the room.
sentence improvement can be easily solved if C. The teacher asked the students with a
we have a clarity on the earlier topics, we frown on his face, to leave the room.
studied including subject verb agreement, D. The teacher asked with a frown on his
parallelism and tenses. face the student to leave the room.
What will this Assignment cover? Choose the one which conveys the meaning of
➢ Multiple questions from errors in sentences, the sentence correctly.
sentence correction, improvement and A. Failing your help, I must try to carry out my task
completion. alone.
➢ Relevant previous year questions. B. Besides help from you, I must try to carry out my
➢ Variety of questions involving subject verb task alone.
agreement, parallelism and tenses. C. Without your help I must try to carry out my task
alone.
Structure of the assignment D. Barring your help I should try to carry out my
➢ The questions in the assignment have task alone.
covered all aspects of Errors in sentences as
per latest exam pattern. Choose the one which conveys the meaning of
the sentence correctly.
Choose the one which conveys the A. Sincerely I remain yours hoping to be hearing
meaning of the sentence correctly. from you.
A. I was impressed rather by the manner of the B. Hoping to have heard from you, I sincerely
speaker than by his matter. remain yours.
B. I was rather impressed by the manner of C. Hoping to hear from you, I remain yours
the speaker than by his matter. sincerely.
C. I was impressed by the manner of the D. Hoping to be hearing from you, I remain yours
speaker rather than by his matter. sincerely.
D. Rather I was impressed by the manner of
the speaker than by his matter. Choose the one which conveys the meaning of
the sentence correctly.
Choose the one which conveys the A. He came in too quickly to avoid waking his
meaning of the sentence correctly. father.
A. It is too hard an essay for me to far B. He came in very quickly so that he might avoid
attempt. waking his father.
B. Too far it is an essay hard for me to C. Having not to wake his father, he came in
attempt. quickly.
C. It is far too hard an essay for me to D. He entered in quickly, so as not be waking his
attempt. father.

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Direction: Read the passage and choose the B. subjected

option that best fits in. C. rendered
National Integration is, therefore the need of D. put
the hour. India has already suffered (1)
centuries of servitude and enslavement. QUESTION: 2
Perhaps India is the only country in the world, Choose the best word in the given passage?
which has suffered foreign rule of (2) more than A. period
seven hundred and fifty years. The internal B. duration
dissensions among the Rajput kings and princes C. interval
allowed the Muslim rulers (3) to establish their D. lapse
foothold in India, which was prolonged (4) as
long as five countries. QUESTION: 3
Choose the best word in the given passage?
1. Choose the best word in the given passage? A. when
A. had already been suffering B. as
B. has had already suffered C. while
C. has already suffered D. since
D. suffered already
QUESTION: 4
2. Choose the best word in the given passage? Choose the best word in the given passage?
A. for A. for
B. from B. upon
C. since C. towards
D. over D. against
3. Choose the best word in the given passage? QUESTION: 5

A. plunderers Choose the best word in the given passage?
B. attackers A. over
C. intruders B. on
D. invaders C. to
D. for
4. Choose the best word in the given passage?
A. prolonged over Direction: Which of phrases given below each
B. prolonged for sentence should replace the phrase printed in
C. prolonged to bold type to make the grammatically correct?
D. No correction required If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the
answer.
Direction: Read the passage and answer the 1. The small child does whatever his father was
choose the option that best fits in. done.
Our body is a wondrous mechanism and when A. has done
revealed (1) to unusual stress over a spell (2) of B. did
time, it adapts itself to deal more effectively C. does
with that stress. So if (3) you exert your muscles D. had done
to (4) resistance, they are forced to adapt and E. No correction required
deal with this extraordinary workload. Strands
of muscle fibres become thicker and stronger in 2. You need not come unless you want to.
response to the demands placed over (5) them. A. You don't need to come unless you want to
B. You come only when you want to
Choose the best word in the given passage? C. You come unless you don't want to
A. exposed D. You needn't come until you don't want to

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E. No correction required E. No correction required
3. There are not many men who are so famous that 7. He is too important for tolerating any delay.
they are frequently referred to by their short A. to tolerate
names only B. to tolerating
A. initials C. at tolerating
B. signatures D. with tolerating
C. pictures E. No correction required
D. middle names
E. No correction required 8. The population of Tokyo is greater than that of
any other town in the world.
4. The man to who I sold my house was a cheat. A. greatest among any other
A. to whom I sell B. greater than all other
B. to who I sell C. greater than those of any other
C. who was sold to D. greater than any other
D. to whom I sold E. No correction required
E. No correction required
9. The performance of our players was rather
5. They were all shocked at his failure in the worst than I had expected.
competition. A. bad as I had expected
A. were shocked at all B. worse than I had expected
B. had all shocked at C. worse than expectation
C. had all shocked by D. worst than was expected
D. had been all shocked on E. No correction required
10. Why did you not threw the bag away?
6. I need not offer any explanation regarding this A. did you not throw
incident - my behaviour is speaking itself. B. had you not threw
A. will speak to itself C. did you not thrown
B. speaks for itself D. you did not thrown
C. has been speaking
D. speaks about itself
Direction: Read the passage and answer the key to success in the present-day world lie in
questions accordingly. artificial fibers: glass nylon, crepe nylon, tery
What, one wonders, is the lowest common mixes, polyesters and what have you. More
denominator of Indian culture today? The than the bicycles, the wristwatch or the
attractive Hema Malini? The songs of Vinidh transistor radio, synthetic clothes have come to
Barati? The attractive Hema Malini? The sons of represent the first step away form the village
Vinidh Barati? Or the mouth-watering Masala square. The village lass treasures the flashy
Dosa? Delectable as these may be, each yield nylon sari in her trousseau most delay; the
pride of place to that false (?) symbol of a new village youth gets a great kick out of his cheap
era-the synthetic fibre. In less than twenty terrycot shirt and trousers, the nearest he can
years the nylon sari and the terylene shirt have approximate to the expensive synthetic sported
swept the countryside, penetrated to the by his wealthy citybred contemporaries. And
farthest corners of the land and persuaded the Neo-rich craze for ‘phoren’ is nowhere
every common man, woman and child that the more apparent than in the price that people will

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pay for smuggled, stolen, begged borrowed courses, every summer to brush up their
second hand or thrown away synthetics. Alas, knowledge. Besides, if college managements
even the uniformity of nylon. increase their library budget it will help both
the staff and the to new students a great deal.
1. ‘The lowest common denominator’ of the At the same time, however, it will be unfair to
Indian culture today is – deny college education to thousands of young
A. Hema Malini men and women, unless employers stop
B. Songs of Vividh Barati insisting on degrees even for clerical jobs. For a
C. Masala Dosa start, why can't the Government disqualify
D. Synthetic fibre graduates from securing certain jobs, say class
III and IV posts? Once the link between degrees
2. The synthetic fibre has – and jobs is severed at least in some important
A. Always been popular in India departments, in will make young people think
B. Become popular during the last twenty years twice before joining college.
C. Never been popular the last twenty years
D. Been as popular as other kinds of fibre 1. What can automatically help to reduce
admission:
3. The latest symbol of modernity for the rural A. Though entrance tests
people is – B. Discouragement to open new coll1eges
A. The bicycle C. Selective admissions
B. The wristwatch D. Abolishing reservation
C. The transistor
D. The synthetic cloth 2. Many of the new college are –
A. Centres of advanced learning
4. The tern ‘Neo-rich’ means – B. Research institutions
A. The aristocracy C. Factories producing degree holders
B. The industrialists D. Knowns for their academic excellence
C. The newly rich people
D. The common people 3. How can teachers are –
A. By arranging refresher courses
5. The tone of the passage is – B. By providing monetary help/incentive
A. Tragic C. Ironic C. By providing better library facilities
B. Sombre D. Satiric D. By sending them abroad
Direction: Read the passage and answer the 4. The author is in favor of restricting college
questions accordingly. admissions –
A vexed problem facing us is the clamour to A. Only when degrees are delinked form jobs
open more colleges and to reserve more seats B. When alternative avenues are open for the
for backward classes. But it will be a sheer folly students
to expand such facilities recklessly without C. When the teacher student ratio is reduced
giving any thought to the quality of education D. Only when parents think gtwice before sending
imparted. If admissions are made far more their children
selective, it will automatically reduced the
number of entrants. This should apply 5. The phrase “Vexed problem” means
particularly colleges, many of which are little A. A serious problem
more than degree factories. Only then can the B. A debatable problem
authorities hope to bring down the teacher- C. A difficult problem
student ratio to manageable proportion. What D. An irritating problem
is more, teachers should be given refresher

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Voice Change | Narration Change | Critical Reasoning
Voice Change
Significance: 2. I remember my sister taking me to the museum.

➢ Considering the current exam pattern, voice A. I remember I was taken to the museum by my
change has been a very important part in sister.
Verbal Ability section in every entrance exam. B. I remember being taken to the museum by my
➢ Voice change is very easy to understand and sister.
solve, hence a very scoring area. C. I remember myself being taken to the museum
➢ Voice change consists of active and passive by my sister.
voice and their transitions. D. I remember taken to the museum by my sister.
➢ Once we understand the rules and practice
enough questions, we can easily score in this 3. Who is creating this mess?
area. A. Who has been created this mess?
B. By whom has this mess been created?
What will this Assignment cover? C. By whom this mess is being created?
➢ Multiple questions from Voice Change. D. By whom is this mess being created?
➢ A variety of exam relevant questions that
appeared in entrances. 4. They greet me cheerfully every morning.
➢ Questions from previous years’ question papers. A. Every morning I was greeted cheerfully.
B. I am greeted cheerfully by them every morning.
Approach to solve this Assignment C. I am being greeted cheerfully by them every
➢ Try to understand the meaning of each sentence morning.
given. D. Cheerful greeting is done by them every morning
➢ Read the directions very clearly before to me.
attempting the question.
➢ Understand and learn to apply the rules for voice 5. Darjeeling grows tea.
change in the questions. (Rules to convert Active A. Tea is being grown in Darjeeling.
voice to Passive Voice and vice versa.) B. Let the tea be grown in Darjeeling.
C. Tea is grown in Darjeeling.
Directions: In the questions below the D. Tea grows in Darjeeling.
sentences have been given in Active/Passive
voice. From the given alternatives, choose the 6. They have built a perfect dam across the river.
one which best expresses the given sentence in A. Across the river a perfect dam was built.
Passive/Active voice. B. A perfect dam has been built by them across the
river.
1. After driving professor Kumar to the museum C. A perfect dam should have been built by them.
she dropped him at his hotel. D. Across the river was a perfect dam.
A. After being driven to the museum, Professor
Kumar was dropped at his hotel. 7. Do you imitate others?
B. Professor Kumar was being driven dropped at his A. Are others being imitated by you?
hotel. B. Are others imitated by you?
C. After she had driven Professor Kumar to the C. Have others being imitated by you?
museum she had dropped him at his hotel. D. Were others being imitated by you?
D. After she was driven Professor Kumar to the
museum she had dropped him at his hotel. 8. You need to clean your shoes properly.

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A. Your shoes are needed to clean properly. C. She was spoken to by the official on duty.
B. You are needed to clean your shoes properly. D. She was the official to be spoken to on duty.
C. Your shoes need to be cleaned properly.
D. Your shoes are needed by you to clean properly. 16. The doctor advised the patient not to eat rice.
A. The patient was advised by the doctor not to eat
9. He is said to be very rich. rice.
A. He said he is very rich. B. The patient was advised by the doctor that he
B. People say he is very rich. should not eat rice.
C. He said it is very rich. C. The patient was being advised by the doctor that
D. People say it is very rich. he should not rice by the doctor.
D. The patient has been advised not to eat rice by
10. The invigilator was reading out the instructions. the doctor.
A. The instructions were read by the invigilator.
B. The instructions were being read out by the 17. I cannot accept your offer.
invigilator. A. Your offer cannot be accepted by me.
C. The instructions had been read out by the B. I cannot be accepted by your offer.
invigilator. C. The offer cannot be accepted by me.
D. The instructions had been read by the invigilator. D. Your offer cannot be accepted.
11. You can play with these kittens quite safely. 18. You should open the wine about three hours
A. These kittens can played with quite safely. before you use it.
B. These kittens can play with you quite safely. A. Wine should be opened about three hours
C. These kittens can be played with you quite before use.
safely. B. Wine should be opened by you three hours
D. These kittens can be played with quite safely. before use.
C. Wine should be opened about three hours
12. A child could not have done this mischief. before you use it.
A. This mischief could not be done by a child. D. Wine should be opened about three hours
B. This mischief could not been done by a child. before it is used.
C. This mischief could not have been done by a
child. 19. They will inform the police.
D. This mischief a child could not have been done. A. The police will be informed by them.
B. The police will inform them.
13. James Watt discovered the energy of steam. C. The police are informed by them.
A. The energy of steam discovered James Watt. D. Informed will be the police by them.
B. The energy of steam was discovered by James
Watt.
C. James Watt was discovered by the energy of
steam.
D. James Watt had discovered energy by the steam.
14. She makes cakes every Sunday.

A. Every Sunday cakes made by her.
B. Cakes are made by her every Sunday.
C. Cakes make her every Sunday.
D. Cakes were made by her every Sunday.
15. She spoke to the official on duty.

A. The official on duty was spoken to by her
B. The official was spoken to by her on duty.

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NARRATION Change
Significance: 10. She said to the man, “Does Suresh talk to him?”
➢ According to the current exam pattern,
Narration change has also been a very Directions: According to the Direct speech,
➢ important part in Verbal Ability section in choose the best Indirect speech from the
every entrance exam. options given below.
➢ Narration change is very easy to understand
and solve, hence a very scoring topic. 1. She said, “I am eating rice.” What will be the
➢ Narration change consists of active and indirect speech of this sentence? –
passive voice and their transitions. A. She said she is eating rice.
➢ Once we understand the rules and practice B. (b)She said that she was eating rice.
enough questions, we can easily score in this C. She said that she were eating rice.
area. D. She said she was eating rice.
What will this Assignment cover? 2. Rahim said, “I have seen the bird.” What will be
➢ Multiple questions from Narration Change. the indirect speech of this sentence? –
➢ A variety of relevant questions that appeared in A. Rahim said that he has seen the bird.
entrances. B. Rahim said that he had saw the bird.
➢ Questions from previous years’ question papers. C. Rahim said that he had seen the bird.
D. none of the above
Approach to solve this Assignment
➢ Try to understand the meaning of each sentence 3. I said to you, “He punished himself.” What will
given. be the indirect speech of this sentence? –
➢ Read the directions very clearly before A. I told you he punished himself.
attempting the question. B. I told you that he had punished himself.
➢ Understand and learn to apply the rules for C. I said to you that he had punished himself.
Narration change in the questions. (Rules to D. I told him he had punished himself.
convert Direct Speech to Indirect Speech and
vice versa.) 4. He said to me, “She is a fool.” What will be the
indirect speech of this sentence? –
Directions: Change the speech of the following A. He said me that she was a fool.
sentences. B. He told me that she was a fool.
1. The master said to the servant, “Go to the bazaar C. He told me that she is a fool.
and bring me some sugar.” D. He said me that she is a fool.
2. “Are the trains very crowded on these lines?”
Lady Lal asked. 5. The boy said, “My sister came here long ago.”
3. Teacher said to the student, “Tell me the name What will be the indirect speech of this
of the poet.” sentence? –
4. The teacher said, “Where was Napoleon exiled A. The boy said that my sister came there long ago.
after the Battle of Waterloo”. B. The boy said that her sister came there long ago.
5. “They still have him in the lock up, though he is C. The boy said that her sister came there long
very stubborn and won’t say anything about the before.
jewel,” said Mr Sivasanker.“I don’t know D. The boy said that his sister had come there long
master,” Sidda said to Mr Sivasanker. before.
6. He says, “A voice will run from hedge to hedge.”
7. She says, “I am a dancer.” 6. Sujata said, “I have made mistake.” What will
8. He said, “He is weak.” be the indirect speech of this sentence? –
9. Alpana said to her mother, “Did you eat last A. Sujata said that he had made mistake.
night?” B. Sujata said that she has made mistake.

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C. Sujata told that she has made mistake. B. He said I might live long.
D. Sujata admitted that she had made mistake. C. He wished that I might live long.
D. none of the above
7. Hamid said, “I must serve the poor.” What will
be the indirect speech of this sentence? – 12. Mother said, “Wait till I come.” What will be the
A. Hamid said that he must serve the poor. indirect speech of this sentence? –
B. Hamid said that he must be serve the poor. A. Mother said that wait till I come.
C. Hamid said that he must have serve the poor. B. Mother ordered to wait till she come.
D. Hamid said that he was serve the poor. C. Mother said to wait till she comes.
D. Mother ordered to wait till she comes.
8. He said to me, “I have come.” What will be the
indirect speech of this sentence? – 13. Mili said to me, “When will you go home?”
A. He said that he had come. What will be the indirect speech of this
B. He told me that he had come. sentence? –
C. He said that he has come. A. Mili asked me when I would come home.
D. He told that he has come. B. Mili asked me if when I would come home.
C. Mili asked me when I shall come home.
9. Rana said to me, “I am unwell today.” What will D. Mili told me when I would come home.
be the indirect speech of this sentence? –
A. Rana told me I am unwell that day. 14. He said to me, “Do you know English?” What
B. Rana told me he is unwell that day. will be the indirect speech of this sentence? –
C. Rana told me that he was unwell today. A. He asked me that do I knew English.
D. Rana told me that he was unwell that day. B. He asked me if I knew English.
C. He told me if I knew English.
10. My friend said to me, “Man is mortal.” What D. He asked me if I know English.
will be the indirect speech of this sentence? –
A. My friend said me man is mortal. 15. He said to me, “What is your name?” What will
B. My friend told me that man is mortal. be the indirect speech of this sentence? –
C. My friend told me that man was mortal. A. He asked me what my name was.
D. My friend said me that man is mortal. B. He asked me what his name was.
C. He told me what his name is.
11. He said, “May you live long.” What will be the D. He told me what was his name.
indirect speech of this sentence? –
A. He said God might you live long.
CRITICAL REASONING
Significance: What will we cover in this assignment?

➢ An integral part of entrance exams is Critical ➢ Best Summary/Main Arguments
Reasoning. Critical reasoning is a high order ➢ Implicit statement
skill that requires an analysis, synthesis, ➢ Strong & weak arguments.
evaluation of information, gathered by
observation or experience. Directions: Choose the best summary for the
➢ In the exam, as in life itself, critical thinking given passage.
is essential to make sense of events. In this 1. When a man produces a greater quantity of
sense, the word ‘critical’ is not to be any commodity than he desires for himself, it
understood as negative but an important can only be on one account; namely, that he
process of unravelling the meaning and impact desires some other commodity which he can
of an issue and analyzing it in detail. obtain in exchange for the surplus of what he
himself has produced. It seems hardly

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necessary to offer any thing in support of so C. The Labour party of the 1990s was effective
necessary a proposition; it would be bybeing equivocal.
inconsistent with the known laws of human D. The Labour party of the 1990s was confused
nature to suppose, that a man would take the itselfand acted in a non-committal manner.
trouble to produce anything without desiring
to have anything. If he desires one thing,and IMPLICIT STATEMENTS
produces another, it is only because the thing
which he desires can be obtained by means of Directions: In each question below is given a
the thing which he produces, and better statement followed by two assumptions
obtained, than if he had endeavored to numbered I and II. Consider the statement
produceit himself. and assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement
Which of the following best summarizes the
above paragraph? ▪ Statement: "In order to bring punctuality in
A. The purpose of producing something that is our office, we must provide conveyance
not desired can only to obtain something in allowance toour employees." - In charge of a
exchange. company tells Personnel Manager.
B. The purpose of producing something in excess Assumptions:
that desired by oneself is to obtain something I. Conveyance allowance will not help in bring
he desires in exchange for it. punctuality.
C. The purpose of producing something that is II. Discipline and reward should always go hand in
desired can only to obtain something in hand.
exchange that is not desired. A. Only assumption I is implicit
D. The purpose of producing something is desired B. Only assumption II is implicit
is further justified by exchanging it for C. Either I or II is implicit
something is also desired but not produced. D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit
1. In the 1990s, the Labour party could plausibly
offer positive-sum redistribution and could ▪ Statement: Unemployment allowance should
therefore please both left and right. Take for be given to all unemployed Indian youth above
example expanding higher education. This was 18 years of age.
leftist - because a higher supply of graduates Assumptions:
would bid down the graduate premium and I. There are unemployed youth in India who
hence help reduce inequality. But it was also needs monetary support.
rightist because it improved skills and II. The government has sufficient funds to
opportunity. Or take tax credits and provideallowance to all unemployed youth.
minimum wages. These were leftist because A. Only assumption I is implicit
they reduced poverty, but also rightist B. Only assumption II is implicit
because they encouraged work. Similarly, the C. Either I or II is implicit
promise of policy stability was intended both D. Neither I nor II is implicit
to please business and to encourage job E. Both I and II are implicit
creation. Such policies were centrist, vote-
winning and (within limits) reasonable
Strong and Weak Arguments
economics.
Which of the following best summarises the Statement: Should India go in for
above paragraph? computerization in all possible sectors?
A. The Labour party of the 1990s was cunning Arguments:
andmanipulative. I. Yes. It will bring efficiency and accuracy in
B. The Labour party of the 1990s was hamstrung thework.
andin effect, centrist.

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II. No. It will be an injustice to the monumental Arguments:

human resources which are at present I. Yes. Workers can concentrate on production.
underutilized. II. No. This is the only way through which
III. No. Computerization demands a lot of money. employees can put their demands before the
We should not waste money on it. management.
IV. Yes. When advanced countries are introducing III. Yes. Employees get their illegal demands
computers in every field, how can India afford fulfilledthrough these unions.
tolag behind? IV. No. Trade unions are not banned in other
A. Only I is strong economically advanced countries.
B. Only I and II are strong A. Only I is strong
C. Only I and III are strong B. Only II is strong
D. Only II and III are strong C. Only I and II are strong
E. All are strong D. Only I, II and III are strong
E. None of these
Statement: Should trade unions be banned
completely?

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Para Jumble | Phrasal Verbs
PARA JUMBLES
Significance: 3. Correcting the mutation in the gene would not

➢ Para Jumbles for Entrance exams are jumbled only ensure that the child is healthy but also
sentences that are not in their right order. prevents transmission of the mutation to future
The candidate has to apply verbal and logical generations.
understanding to unjumble the sentences, 4. It is caused by a mutation in a particular gene
i.e.,set them in the right order. and a child will suffer from the condition even if
➢ The examiner can test the candidate's reading it inherits only one copy of the mutated gene.
and reasoning skills through this part of the 5. In results announced in Nature this week,
English section. It is a crucial part of the scientists fixed a mutation that thickens the
verbal ability section. heart muscle, a condition called hypertrophic
cardiomyopathy.
What will we cover in this Assignment?
➢ The opening sentence and closing sentence Question 2:
are already fixed. 1. The process of handing down implies not a
➢ Questions are asked after the jumbled passive transfer, but some contestation in
sentences. defining what exactly is to be handed down.
➢ 4-5 Jumbled sentences are given which need 2. Wherever Western scholars have worked on the
to be arranged into a meaningful paragraph. Indian past, the selection is even more apparent
and the inventing of a tradition much more
Structure of the assignment recognizable.
➢ The questions in the assignment have 3. Every generation selects what it requires from
covered all aspects of Para jumbles as per the past and makes its innovations, some more
latest exam pattern. The questions in the than others.
assignment havebeen arranged in categories. 4. It is now a truism to say that traditions are not
handed down unchanged, but are invented.
Directions: The five sentences labelled (1, 2, 3, 5. Just as life has death as its opposite, so is
4, 5) given in this question, when properly tradition by default the opposite of innovation.
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each
sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on Question 3:
the proper order for the sentences and key in 1. This has huge implications for the health care
this sequence of five numbers as your answer. system as it operates today, where depleted
resources and time lead to patients rotating in
Question 1: and out of doctor's offices, oftentimes receiving
1. Scientists have for the first time managed to minimal care or concern (what is commonly
edit genes in. a human embryo to repair a referred to as "bed side manner") from doctors.
genetic mutation, fueling hopes that such 2. The placebo effect is when an individual's
procedures may one day be available outside medical condition or pain shows signs of
laboratory conditions. improvement based on a fake intervention that
2. The cardiac disease causes sudden death in has been presented to them as a real one and
otherwise healthy young athletes and affects used to be regularly dismissed by researchers as
about one in 500 people overall. a psychological effect.
3. The placebo effect is not solely based on
believing in treatment, however, as the clinical

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setting in which treatments are administered is got through on the shop-telephone to the
also paramount. Consulate, intimating my location.
4. That the mind has the power to trigger C. Then, while the pharmacist was wrapping up
biochemical changes because the individual a six-ounce bottle of the mixture, I groaned and
believes that a given drug or intervention will be inquired whether he could give me something
effective could empower chronic patients for acute gastric cramp.
through the notion of our bodies' capacity for D. I intended to stage a sharp gastric attack, and
self-healing. entering an old-fashioned pharmacy, I asked for
5. Placebo effects are now studied not just as foils a popular shampoo mixture, consisting of olive
for "real" interventions but as a potential portal oil and flaked soap.
into the self-healing powers of the body.
Choose from the below options:
Question 4: (a) DCBA (b) DACB
1. Before plants can take life from atmosphere, (c) BDAC (d) BCDA
nitrogen must undergo transformations similar
to ones that food undergoes in our digestive Q2:
machinery. A. If caught in the act, they were punished, not
2. In its aerial form nitrogen is insoluble, unusable for the crime, but for allowing themselves to be
and is in need of transformation. caught another lash of the whip.
3. Lightning starts the series of chemical reactions B. The bellicose Spartans sacrificed all the finer
that need to happen to nitrogen, ultimately things in life for military expertise.
helping it nourish our earth. C. Those fortunate enough to survive babyhood
4. Nitrogen — an essential food for plants — is an were taken away from their mothers at the age
abundant resource, with about 22 million tons of seven to undergo rigorous military training.
of it floating over each square mile of earth. D. This consisted mainly of beatings and
5. One of the most dramatic examples in nature of deprivations of all kinds like going around
ill wind that blows goodness is lightning. barefoot in winter, and worse, starvation so
that they would be forced to steal food to
Question 5: survive.
1. The implications of retelling of Indian stories, E. Male children were examined at birth by the
hence, takes on new meaning in a modern India. city council and those deemed too weak to
2. The stories we tell reflect the world around us. become soldiers were left to die of exposure.
3. We cannot help but retell the stories that we
value — after all, they are never quite right for Choose from the below options:
us — in our time. (a) BECDA (b) ECADB
4. And even if we manage to get them quite right, (c) BCDAE (d) ECDAB
they are only right for us — other people living
around us will have different reasons for telling Q3:
similar stories. A. Passivity is not, of course, universal.
5. As soon as we capture a story, the world we B. In areas where there are no lords or laws, or
were trying to capture has changed. in frontier zones where all men go armed, the
attitude of the peasantry may well be different.
Directions: Rearrange the sentences and C. So indeed it may be on the fringe of the
choose the best option. unsubmissive.
Q1: D. However, for most of the soil-bound
A. With that, I swallowed the shampoo, and peasants the problem is not whether to be
obtained the most realistic results almost on the normally passive or active, but when to pass
spot. from one state to another.
B. The man shuffled away into the back regions E. This depends on an assessment of the
to make up a prescription, and after a moment I political situation.

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Choose from the below options: C. Most of our traditional sources of

(a) BEDAC (b) CDABE information about the Old Kingdom are
(c) EDBAC (d) ABCDE monuments of the rich like pyramids and tombs.
D. Houses in which ordinary Egyptian lived have
Q4: not been preserved, and when most people
A. As officials, their vision of a country shouldn’t died they were buried in simple graves.
run too far beyond that of the local people with E. We know infinitely more about the wealthy
whom they have to deal. people of Egypt than we do about the ordinary
B. Ambassadors have to choose their words. people, as most monuments were made for the
C. To say what they feel they have to say, they rich.
appear to be denying or ignoring part of what
they know. Choose from the below options:
D. So, with ambassadors as with other (a) CDBEA (b) ECDAB
expatriates in black Africa, there appears at a (c) EDCBA (d) DECAB
first meeting a kind of ambivalence.
E. They do a specialized job and it is necessary Q7:
for them to live ceremonial lives. A. Personal experience of mothering and
motherhood are largely framed in relation to
Choose from the below options: two discernible or “official” discourses: the
(a) BCEDA (b) BEDAC “medical discourse and natural childbirth
(c) BEADC (d) BCDEA discourse”. Both of these tend to focus on the
“optimistic stories” of birth and mothering and
Q5: underpin stereotypes of the “good mother”.
A. To avoid this, the QWERTY layout put the B. At the same time, the need for medical
keys most likely to be hit in rapid succession on expert guidance is also a feature for
opposite sides. This made the keyboard slow, contemporary reproduction and motherhood.
the story goes, but that was the idea. But constructions of good mothering have not
B. A different layout, which had been patented always been so conceived – and in different
by August Dvorak in 1936, was shown to be contexts may exist in parallel to other equally
much faster. dominant discourses.
C. The QWERTY design (patented by Christopher C. Similarly, historical work has shown how
Sholes in 1868 and sold to Remington in 1873) what are now taken-for-granted aspects of
aimed to solve a mechanical problem of early reproduction and mothering practices result
typewriters. from contemporary “pseudo-scientific directives”
D. Yet the Dvorak layout has never been widely and “managed constructs”. These changes have
adopted, even though (with electric typewriters led to a reframing of modern discourses that
and then PCs) the anti-jamming rational for pattern pregnancy and motherhood leading to
QWERTY has been defunct for years. an acceptance of the need for greater expert
E. When certain combinations of keys were management.
struck quickly, the type bars often jammed. D. The contrasting, overlapping, and ambiguous
strands within these frameworks focus to
Choose from the below options: varying degrees on a woman’s biological tie to
(a) BDACE (b) CEABD her child and predisposition to instinctively
(c) BCDEA (d) CAEBD know and be able to care for her child.
E. In addition, a third, “unofficial popular
Q6: discourse” comprising “old wives” tales and
A. But this does not mean that death was the based on maternal experiences of childbirth has
Egyptians’ only preoccupation. also been noted. These discourses have also
B. Even papyri come mainly from pyramid been acknowledged in work exploring the
temples. experiences of those who apparently do not

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“conform” to conventional stereotypes of the Q10:

“good mother”. A. Call it the third wave sweeping the Indian
media.
Choose from the below options: B. Now they are starring in a new role, as suave
(a) EDBC (b) BCED (c) DBCE dealmakers who are in a hurry to strike alliances
(d) EDCB (e) BCDE and agreements.
C. Look around and you will find a host of deals
Q8: that have been inked or are ready to be
A. Branded disposable diapers are available at finalized.
many supermarkets and drug stores. D. Then the media barons wrested back control
B. If one supermarket sets a higher price for a from their editors, and turned marketing
diaper, customers may buy that brand warriors with the brand as their missile.
elsewhere. E. The first came with those magnificent men in
C. By contrast, the demand for private-label their mahogany chambers who took on the
products may be less price-sensitive since it is world with their mighty fountain pens.
available only at a corresponding supermarket
chain. Choose from the below options:
D. So the demand for branded diapers at any (a) ACBED (b) CEBDA
particular store may be quite price sensitive. (c) CAEBD (d) AEDBC
E. For instance, only SavOn Drugs stores sell
SavOn Drugs diapers. Directions for Questions 1 to 5: Rearrange the
F. Then stores should set a higher incremental following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
margin percentage for private label diapers. in the proper sequence to form a paragraph;
then answer the questions given below them.
Choose from the below options: (A) A small wooden nest box is all it has taken to
(a) ABCDEF (b) ABCEDF rekindle all the romance of bringing sparrows
(c) ADBCEF (d) AEDBCF and other birds back into our Cities and halt
them from fading into the past like a forgotten
Q9: folktale.
A. Similarly, turning to caste, even though being (B) There is something wrong with a city that
lower caste is undoubtedly a separate cause of remains unperturbed even as its birds desert it.
disparity, its impact is all the greater when the (C) Thankfully, the situation is not as hopeless as
lower-caste families also happen to be poor. it seems.
B. Belonging to a privileged class can help a (D) Much as we try to defend the seemingly
woman to overcome many barriers that irreversible modern life of these cities, we can’t
obstruct women from less thriving classes. stop our hearts from crying when we realize
C. It is the interactive presence of these two that our rapidly degenerating urban eco-system
kinds of deprivation – being low class and being isn’t generous enough to let these delicate
female – that massively impoverishes women winged creatures build tiny little nests in its
from the less privileged classes. nooks and crannies, sit in solitude, and rear
D. A congruence of class deprivation and gender offspring.
discrimination can blight the lives of poorer (E) And this desertion seems to be true with
women very severely. most metros in India where house sparrows
E. Gender is certainly a contributor to societal have almost become a thing of tin past.
inequality, but it does not act independently of
class. 1. Which of the following should be
the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
Choose from the below options: (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
(a) EABDC (b) EBDCA
(c) DAEBC (d) BECDA 2. Which of the following should be
the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

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(1) E (2) D (3) C (4) B (5) A (c) RSQP (d) PSRQ
3. Which of the following should be 3.

the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? S1. A few workmen came to cut down the tree
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E P. It took them all morning
Q. They did not know what to do with the roots
4. Which of the following should be R. It was not an easy job to cut down such a huge
the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? tree
(1) E (2) D (3) C (4) B (5) A S. They decided to dig out the roots
S6. The roots ran so deep that they were not able
5. Which of the following should be to finish the job by dusk
the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? (a) PQRS (b) RPQS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E (c) RPSQ (d) SRQP
Directions: The first and last sentences of a 4.

passage are numbered S1 and S6. The S1. A mob went berserk at the hospital near our
remaining parts of the passage are split into home yesterday
four parts and they are named P, Q, R and S. P. The agitators also smashed equipment and
They are not given in the correct order. Read windows of the hospital
the sentences carefully and find out which of Q. The boy had died on the operating table soon
the combinations given in the alternatives are after being administered with anaesthesia
correct to make a meaningful and complete R. This happened after the death of a 15 year old
passage. boy
1. S. The victim’s relatives and neighbours clashed
S1. Many scientists are working on safer and with the police
better ways to kill mosquitoes S6. Work at the hospital stopped for the rest of the
P. Bringing more of these animals into places where day.
mosquitoes live and breed might help (a) QSPR (b) PRQS
Q. Mosquitoes have many natural enemies like bats, (c) RQSP (d) SQPR
birds etc.
R. Mosquito nets can be used for protection 5.
S. But, there is no sure way to protect everyone S1. Children are not the only ones who can fly
from their deadly bites. kites
S6. This is a natural solution P. In some countries like Malaysia and Japan, there
(a) SRQP (b) PQRS are kite festivals
(c) SRPQ (d) RSQP Q. These experts are mostly adult amateur kite
flyers
2. R. Kite flying is a good leisure activity for parents
S1. The spider fell several times but did not give up. too, with their children
P. The king learnt a lesson from the spider S. Self designed kites are flown by experts during
Q. It tried again and finally succeeded in reaching such times
the top
R. Then he attacked his enemies repeatedly and did S6. The occasions are celebrated with dancing and
not give up hope by the setbacks in battle. music
S. He appealed to the people for help and collected (a) PSQR (b) SRPQ
soldiers to form a large army (c) QSPR (d) RPSQ
S6. At last he won the battle and got back his
kingdom
(a) PQSR (b) QPSR

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CLOZE TEST
Significance: Q 3.
➢ A Cloze test is an exercise where the candidate is A) Good B) Relish
provided with a paragraph. C) Delicious D) Happy
➢ The paragraph has missing words or blanks which
have to be filled. Q 4.
➢ Sometimes the blanks will have a word in A) Slice B) Whittled
the brackets accompanying it. And the candidate C) Cut D) Levelled
will be asked to pick a word meaning similar to
the word in the brackets. Directions: Read the following text and complete
➢ Here we will see all types of Cloze test questions. it using the words given in the options.
Not to mention, the Cloze test is a very important He was a manly man, free from any strong (1)
section. And so, questions are duly expected from [mother] ________ strain, and he had loved his
it in the examination. dark-eyed, dainty bright-coloured, and active little
wife with a real vein of passion in his sentiment.
Directions: Read the following text and complete But he had always felt (he had never allowed
it using the words given in the options. himself to think of it) that the promptitude of
I do remember it. And I’m grateful. But I can’t help their family was a little (2) [insensitive]_______ of
feeling that a woman capable of taking other her, and in a sense an intrusion. He had, however,
people’s lives and juggling with them as if they planned brilliant careers for his two sons, and,
were rubber balls, as she did with ours, is likely at with a certain human amount of warping and
any moment to break out in a new place. So, my delay, they were pursuing these. One was in the
gratitude to her is the sort of (1) ______ [hat tip] Indian Civil Service and one in the rapidly
you would feel toward a cyclone if you were developing motor business. The daughters, he
walking home late for dinner and it caught you up had hoped, would be their mother’s care.
and deposited you on your doorstep. Moreover,
your Aunt Lora is a human (2) _____[storm]. No, Q 1.
on the whole, she’s more like an earthquake. As A) Maternal B) Paternal
she has a habit of splitting up and altering the face C) Mother D) Childish
of the world whenever she feels like it, and I’m
too well satisfied with my world at present to (3) Q 2.
_____[enjoy] the idea of having it changed.” A) Tactful B) Indelicate
Little by little the garrison of the studio had been C) Insensitive D) Non-proportionate
(4) _______ [small slice] down. Except for Steve,
the community had no regular members outside In the following passage some words have
the family itself. As Hank was generally out of been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of
town. And Bailey paid one more visit, then the alternative given.
seemed to consider that he could now absent Every day for a whole year, all kind of holy men,
himself altogether. And the members of Kirk’s hermits, scholars and nobles came, and related
bachelor circle stayed away to a man. to the priests their deeds of ___(1)___, and the
priests in solemn council heard their calms. At
Q 1. last, they decided that the one who seemed to
A) Tippy B) Gratitude be the greatest lover of ____(2)_____was a rich
C) Excellence. D) Battle. man who had that very year given all his
___(3)___to the poor. So they gave him the
Q 2. plate of gold, but when he took it in his hand, it
A) Cyclone B) Giant turned into ___(4)___lead; thought, when he
C) Chin D) Hunter dropped it on the floor, to his __(5)___, it
become gold again.

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Q: (A) Wealth (B) Energy

Select the most appropriate option that will fill (C) time (D) Life
in the blank (1).
(A) Charity (B) kindness Q:
(C) happiness (D) sympathy Select the most appropriate option that will fill
in the blank (4).
Q: (A) Gold (B) Worthy
Select the most appropriate option that will fill (C) Worthless (D) Valuable
in the blank (2).
(A) Destitute (B) Moneyless Q:
(C) Mankind (D) Women Select the most appropriate option that will fill
in the blank (5).
Q: (A) Confusion (B) Happiness
Select the most appropriate option that will fill (C) admiration (D) Amazement.
in the blank (3).
CRITICAL REASONING
What will we cover in This Assignment? FACTS, INFERENCE, JUDGEMENT

➢ cause and effects
➢ facts/judgements/inferences Directions: Mark ‘F’ if sentence is a fact, ‘I’ if
➢ probably true/ probably false sentence is an inference and ‘J’ if sentence is
a judgement.
CAUSE AND EFFECT 1. Inequitable distribution of all kinds of resources
is certainly one of the strongest and most
Directions: sinister sources of conflict.
Give answer (a) if statement I is the cause 2. Even without war, we know that conflicts
and statement II is its effect; continue to trouble us – they only change in
Give answer (b) if statement II is the cause character.
and statement I is its effect; 3. Extensive disarmament is the only insurance
Give answer (c) if both the statements I and II for our future; imagine the amount of
areindependent causes; resources that can be released and
Give answer (d) if both the statements I and redeployed.
II areeffects of independent causes; 4. The economies of the industrialized western
Give answer (e) if both the statements I and II world derive 20% of their income from the
areeffects of some common cause. sale ofall kinds of arms.
A. IJJI B. JIJF C. IIJF
Statement 1 – The performance of most of D. JIIF E. IJIF
the students in final exam of class Tenth in the
schools run by government was excellent. 1. The ideal solution will be to advertise
Statement 2 – Many teachers of the aggressively.
government schools left the school and joined 2. One brand is already popular amongst the
private schools. youth.
3. Reducing prices will mean trouble as our
Statement 1 – Majority of the citizens in the revenuesare already dwindling.
locality belong to higher income group. 4. The correct solution will be to consolidate by
Statement 2 – The sales in the local super aggressive marketing.
market are comparatively much higher than in A. JFIJ B. FJJI C. IJFF
other localities. D. JJIF E. FFFF

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PROBABLY TRUE/ PROBABLY FALSE
Directions: Read the passage and answer the

following questions:
The process of developmental planning in
India is greatly dominated by the experts and
the technocrats. But it was not always so.
Among the initial stalwarts in the Indian
planning process there were only a handful of
economists. It was their political conviction
and their preconceived political pattern of
creating an economy and a society which gave
them the specific stability in the path of
development. Under the leadership of Indira
Gandhi there was some change in the
scenario and the reflection of electoral
manifesto of the Congress Party was
continually enhanced inthe plans.
1. In the planning procedure the common
man isprimary.
A. If the inference is definitely true
B. If the inference is probably true
C. If the data are inadequate
D. If the inference is probably false
E. If the inference is definitely false
2. After the independence, our leaders

understood the need for framing
development oriented planning and made
their desired participation.
A. If the inference is definitely true
B. If the inference is probably true
C. If the data are inadequate
D. If the inference is probably false
E. If the inference is definitely false

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General Awareness | Class 1

Polity and Constitution
Relevant for exams: CUET (GAT), SET, NMIMS, …….
Edu opener
➢ What is the difference between Republic day and Constitution day?
➢ What is the role of constitution assembly in formation of constitution?
➢ How many Articles were there during the enforcement of constitution?
➢ Can constitution be amended? If yes, how many times has it been amended till now?
➢ What is the difference between preamble, schedule and articles?
➢ Who is called as the guardian of Indian constitution?
➢ Who acts as the president in case of President?
➢ Who conducts the election of president and Lok Sabha?
➢ What happens during the time of emergency?
➢ Who is more powerful in India - President or Prime minister?
1. The Constitution Assembly was formed on and state government

the proposals suggested by which of the (b) Supremacy of parliament
following? (c) Supremacy of Judiciary
(a) August offer (d) Single Citizenship
(b) Cripps mission, 1942
(c) Wavell plan, 1940 6. Which one of the following is a basic
(d) Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 feature of the Presidential Government?
(a) Rigid Constitution
2. Who was the first President of the (b) Single Executive
constitution assembly? (c) Supremacy of the Legislature
(a) Pt. J L Nehru (d) Residual Powers of the States
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) Dr. B R Ambedkar 7. The article of Indian Constitution related to
(d) Mahatma Gandhi abolition of untouchability is
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 16
3. When was the national flag of India (c) Article 17 (d) Article 18
adopted?
(a) 22 July 1947 (b) 23 July 1970 8. The concept of natural justice is vested in
(c) 24 July 1947 (d) 25 July 1947 which article?
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 15
4. Concept of the preamble is taken from (c) Article 19 (d) Article 16
which country?
(a) USA (b) UK 9. “socialist” word in the Indian constitution
(c) Canada (d) Germany preamble is added by?
(a) 42nd constitution amendment 1976
5. The most essential feature of a federal (b) 44th constitution amendment 1978
government is: (c) 61st constitution amendment 1988
(a) Division of Power between the federal (d) 52nd constitution amendment 1985

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10. Which of the following is not correctly (a) Article 18 (b) Article 15
matched? (c) Article 14 (d) Article 17
(a) Union Government: Part 5
(b) Cooperative Societies: Part 9 16. Fundamental Rights can be suspended
(c) Official language: Part 17 during
(d) Constitution amendment: Part 20 (a) Whenever the President wants, without
any cause.
11. Match List 1 with List 2 and choose the (b) An emergency by the Parliament
correct answer with the help of given (c) Both (a) & (b).
codes: (d) None of the above
List 1 List 2 17. How many Fundamental Rights are

Post of Vice President Ireland enjoyed by the Indians?
President’s election America (a) Six (b) Seven
Concurrent list Japan (c) Eight (d) Five
Procedure established by law Australia
18. Which of the following is/are parts of
Code: Union Executive?
A B C D I. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime
(a) 1 2 3 4 Minister
(b) 4 3 2 1 II. President of India
(c) 2 1 4 3 III. Central Secretariat
(d) 1 2 4 3 IV. Vice President
Select the correct answer from the codes
12. The Directive principles of state policy is? given below:
(a) Positive (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 & 2
(b) Negative (c) Only 1, 2 & 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
(c) Neutral
(d) Negative with the virtue of positivity. 19. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
13. A “mandamus” writ cannot be issued (a) Members of Lok Sabha are directly
against which one of the following? elected by the eligible voters
(a) Public entity (b) President (b) Money Bills can only be introduced in
(c) Subordinate court (d) Authority Lok Sabha
(c) The Vice-President of India is the ex-
14. B. R. Ambedkar termed Article 32 of the official Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Indian Constitution as the “Heart and Soul (d) President nominates four members of
of the Indian Constitution”. Which one of Anglo-Indian Community to Lok Sabha
the following fundamental rights does it
contain? 20. Which of the following is not matched?
(a) Right to freedom (a) Article 54: Presidential election
(b) Right to constitutional remedies (b) Article 55: manner of presidential
(c) Right to elementary education election
(d) Right to freedom of religion (c) Article 60: Procedure for impeachment
of the President
15. Which article of the Constitution abolishes (d) Article 123: Power of the President to
Untouchability? promulgate ordinance

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21. Which article of the Indian constitution (a) Mandamus (b) Habeas Corpus
envisages that there shall be an Attorney (c) Quo Warranto (d) Certiorari
General of India?
(a) Article 78 (b) Article 76 28. Which one of the following is the guardian
(c) Article 67 (d) Article 113 of Fundamental Right?
(a) Legislature (b) Executive
22. Who is the chief executive head of the (c) Political parties (d) Judiciary
state?
(a) Chief minister (b) Governor 29. Which Article in the Constitution on India
(c) President (d) NOTA provides for the post of Comptroller and
Auditor General of India (CAG)?
23. What is the tenure of the elected members (a) Article148 (b) Article343
of Rajya Sabha? (c) Article266 (d) Article 248
(a) 2 years (b) 4 years
(c) 6 years (d) 8 years 30. India has taken the concept of ‘Judicial
Review’ from which country’s
24. Which Article is related to the Money Bill constitution?
and where can it be introduced? (a) United States (b) United Kingdom
(a) Article 110, Rajya Sabha (c) Canada (d) Ireland
(b) Article 110, Lok Sabha
(c) Article 121, Rajya Sabha 31. Who recognizes the political parties in
(d) Article 121, Lok Sabha India?
(a) President of India
25. Which of the following is not a required (b) Election Commission of India
qualification for being a judge in SC? (c) Ministry of Law and Justice
(a) It is compulsory to be a citizen of India (d) None of the above
(b) He should be a respected jurist in the
eyes of Parliament 32. Which Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) Must be a judge in the High Court for at discontinued the Anglo-Indian reserved
least 5 years seats in the Parliament and State
(d) He should be a lawyer in the High Court legislatures?
for at least 10 years (a) 104th Amendment Act.
(b) 103rd Amendment Act.
26. The basic features of Indian Constitution (c) 102nd Amendment Act.
which are not amendable under Article 368 (d) 101st Amendment Act.
are :
(a) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal 33. Which among the following states has the
system and judicial review smallest Legislative Assembly in terms of
(b) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and capacity?
parliamentary system of government (a) Kerala (b) Nagaland
(c) Judicial review and the federal system (c) Goa (d) Chhattisgarh
(d) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal
system, judicial review and parliamentary 34. Suppose the legislative assembly dissolves,
system of government and the Bill is pending in the legislative
council but not passed by the assembly at
27. Which of the following is a bulwark of the time of dissolution, then what happens
personal freedom? to the Bill?

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(a) The Bill lapses (d) Governor of the State

(b) The Bill does not lapse
(c) Depends, if it’s a Money Bill or not 38. How many languages are included in the
(d) None of the above3 Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 18 (b) 22
35. Who is the Chief Protagonist of All-India (c) 16 (d) 12
Services?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru 39. How does the Constitution of India
(b) Rajendra Prasad describe India?
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (a) Legislature
(d) Dr. Ambedkar (b) Union of States
(c) Federation
36. Which amendment is called Anti-Defection (d) None of the above
Law?
(a) 52nd (b) 91st 40. The Parliament of India can make use of
st
(c) 51 (d) 54th the residuary powers
(a) At all times
37. The de-jure head of a State Government is (b) Only during national emergency
the: (c) During national emergency as well as
(a) Chief Minister of the State constitutional emergency as well in a state
(b) Law Minister of the State (d) None of the above
(c) Home Minister of the State
Edu highlights
1. How many schedules in Indian constitution have been introduced after enforcement of constitution?
2. How many times preamble of Indian constitution has been amended?
3. State reorganization commission is related to ?
4. Protection of life and personal liberty is related to which Article of Indian constitution?
5. How many writs are provided in Indian constitution?
6. Uniform civil code is given in which part of constitution?
7. Swaran Singh's recommendations are realted to which part of constitution?
8. Impeachment of the President is explained in which Article of constitution?
9. Finance commission is appointed by whom ?
10. Tenure of Governor of state is of how many years?

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Indian and World History
Edu Opener
➢ Why is Ashoka considered the Greatest emperor of India?

➢ Who was Chandragupta Maurya and Chandragupta Vikramaditya?
➢ When did India start the Independent Freedom Movement?
➢ Why Dr. BR Ambedkar is called as Father of the Indian Constitution?
➢ Why was Simon Commission abolished by all Indians?
➢ Why did the British introduce English education in India?
➢ Which revolution inspired revolutionary movements in India?
➢ How many different sections in India started in the 6th BC?
➢ Why is Raja Ram Mohan Roy called the father of Indian Renaissance?
➢ Who controlled India between 1947 to 1950?
1. Which among the following kings was also 5. Which among the following places has
known as Mamallan (great wrestler)? given the earliest evidence of agriculture in
(a) Pulakesi II the Indian subcontinent?
(b) Mahendravarman I (a) Pratapgarh (b) Mehrgarh
(c) Narasimhavarman I (c) Quetta (d) Kalat
(d) None of the above
6. Raja Todar Mal introduced standard
2. Where and when was the second Buddhist weights and measures, a land survey and
council held? settlement system, revenue districts and
(a) Patliputra in 250 B.C. officers during Akbar’s reign. In whose
(b) Sri Lanka in 1st century B.C. reign as a finance minister Raja Todarmal
(c) Vaishali in 383 B.C. developed his expertise?
(d) Mandalay in 1871 A.D. (a) Humayun (b) Akbar
(c) Shershah Suri (d) Babur
3. Which work of Kalidas is counted among
the hundred famous literary works of the 7. Which of the following is not correctly
world? matched?
(a) Off season (a) Brahama Samaj - Reformist Movements
(b) Meghdootam (b) Prarthana Samaj - Reformist Movements
(c) Identification Shakuntala (c) Aligarh Movement - Reformist
Movements
(d) Kumarasambhavam
(d) Arya Samaj - Reformist Movements
4. Which among the following places have
8. First Indian woman to preside a session of
given the earliest evidence of agriculture in
Indian National Congress was__?
the Indian subcontinent?
(a) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(a) Pratapgarh (b) Mehrgarh
(b) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(c) Quetta (d) Kalat
(c) Aruna Asaf Ali
(d) Sarojini Naidu

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9. Match List-I with List-II : (a) R. Yes. Bhandarkar

List-I (Harappian sites) List-II (b) V. D. Savarkar
(Location) (c) C.R. The servant
A. Manda 1. Rajasthan (d) Sardar Bhagat Singh
B. Daimabad 2. Haryana
C. Kalibanga 3. J&K 16. Who wrote the book 'Gita Rahasya'?
D. Rakhigarhi 4. Maharashtra (a) Mahatma Gandhi
(a) A → 1, B → 2, C → 3, D → 4 (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) A → 2, B → 3, C → 4, D → 1 (c) Vinoba Bhave
(c) A → 3, B → 4, C → 1, D → 2 (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) A → 4, B → 1, C → 2, D → 3
17. What is the similarity between Ram Prasad
10. Indicate the correct sequence of the Bismil, Roshan Singh and Rajendra Lahiri?
outbreak of revolt of 1857 in the following (a) He threw a bomb in the Central
places? Legislative Assembly on 8th April, 1929
1. Kanpur (b) He was a founding member of the
2. Lucknow Swaraj Party
3. Allahabad (c) He was the founder of the Hindustan
(a) 2,3,1 (b) 2,1,3
Republican Association
(c) 3,2,1 (d) 1,2,3
(d) He was associated with the Kakori
Conspiracy Case
11. Which movement is the related to “ do or
die ”?
(a) Dandi (b) Ashawagoa 18. October 16, 1905 is famous for which of
(c) Khaliphate (d) Quit India the following reasons in the context of the
Indian freedom struggle?
12. Who was the leader of the Bardoli (a) The Swadeshi movement was formally
Satyagraha? announced at the Town Hall of Calcutta
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Banga-Bhang (Partition of Bengal)
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru officially came into force on this day
(c) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel (c) Dadabhai Naoroji declared that the goal
(d) Acharya J.B. Kripalani of Indian National Congress was Swarajya
(d) Lokmanya Tilak started a foreign
13. Which university was built by King movement in Poona
Dharmapala? (This university was later
destroyed during an attack by Bakhtiyar 19. Which of the following animal figures
Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate) found on a seal indicates that there were
(a) Sompuri (b) Vikramashila
trade relations between the Indus Valley
(c) Jagdal (d) Takshashila
and Mesopotamian civilizations?
(a) Horse (b) Donkey
14. Who started the first English newspaper in
(c) Bull (d) Elephant
India?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy 20. Which animals are depicted in the
(c) J. A. Hickey Pashupati Shiva/Adya Shiva seal obtained
(d) Lord William Bentinck from Mohenjodaro?
(a) Tiger and Elephant
15. Who founded the anti-British organization (b) Rhinoceros and Buffalo
called 'Abhinav Bharat'? (c) Deer (d) All of these.

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21. Match List-I with List-II : 26. Who translated 'Bhagavad Gita' and 'Yoga
List-I List-II Vashishtha' into Persian with the help of
A. Visakhadatta 1. Medicine Sanskrit scholars?
B. Varahamihira 2. Drama (a) Salim Chishti
C. Charaka 3. Astronomy (b) Amir Khusro
D. Brahmagupta 4. Mathematics (c) Dara Shikoh
(a) A → 1, B → 3, C → 4, D → 2 (d) None of these
(b) A → 2, B → 1, C → 3, D → 4
(c) A → 2, B → 3, C → 1, D → 4 27. The correct sequence of occupation of
(d) A → 3, B → 4, C → 1, D → 2 forts by Shivaji is
(a) Sinhagad / Kondana-Toran-Purandar-
22. Sudarshan Lake, Jiraka was built by Raigarh
Pushpagupta, the governor of Saurashtra (b) Toran-Singhgarh / Kondana-Purandar-
province of Chandragupta Maurya, and Raigarh
who got it repaired for the second time, (c) Purandar Singhgarh / Kondana-Toran-
which was first repaired by Saka ruler Raigarh
Rudradaman? (d) Raigarh-Singhgarh / Kondana-Toran-
(a) Samudragupt (b) Skandagupta Purandar
(c) Chandragupta II (d) kumarguptal
28. 'Two pearls dissolved in water, 27 pieces of
23. Which is not correctly matched? gold lost, the loss of silver and copper
(a) Vagbhata - The eight-fold heart cannot be estimated'—what is it related
(b) Kamandak - Policy Summary to?
(c) Vishakhadatta - Mudrarakshasa (a) With the destruction of the Maratha
(d) Bhartrihari – Meghdootam army in the third battle of Panipat
(b) From the first Anglo-Maratha war
24. Only two examples of cave paintings (c) Second Anglo-Maratha War
belonging to the Gupta period are (d) From basin treaty
available in ancient India. One of these is
the painting done in the caves of Ajanta. 29. Match List-I with List-II :
Where is the second surviving example of List-I (Persons) List-II (Topics)
Gupta painting available? A. Macdonald 1. Doctrine of
(a) Wagh Caves Lapse
(b) Ellora Caves B. Linlithgow 2. Communal
(c) Lomesh Rishi Cave Award
(d) Nashik Caves C. Dalhousie 3. August
resolution
25. The Sufi saint whom Akbar greatly D. Chelmsford 4. Diarchy Code
respected and by whose blessings Prince (a) A → 3, B → 2, C → 1, D → 4
Salim (Jahangir) was born was (b) A → 3, B → 2, C → 4, D → 1
(a) Sheikh Salim Chishti (c) A → 2, B → 3, C → 1, D → 4
(b) baba farid (d) A → 2, B → 3, C → 4, D → 1
(c) Sheikh Abdul Qaddas Gangohi
(d) None of these 30. Its proposal came in May. It still aspired to
have a partition-free India which was to
have the form of a federal state made up

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of British provinces' – the above quote (a) The Constituent Assembly of India was
refers to elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the
(a) From simon commission year 1946.
(b) From Gandhi Irwin Pact (b) Jawaharlal Nehru, MA Jinnah and
(c) From Cripps Mission Vallabh Bhai Patel were the members of the
(d) cabinet mission Constituent Assembly of India.
(c) The first session of the Constituent
31. What would be the correct chronological Assembly of India was held in January 1947.
order of the following? (d) Constitution of India was adopted on
1. Wood's Education Dispatch January 26, 1950
2. Macaulay's Minute on Education
3. The Sargent Education Report 36. The last chance to avoid the partition of
4. Hunter Report India was over
(a) 2, 1, 4,3 (a) With the rejection of the Cripps Mission
(b) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) Along with rejecting Rajagopalachari
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 formula
(d) 4, 3, 1, 2 (c) Along with rejecting the cabinet mission
(d) Along with rejecting Wavell plan
32. Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his
most profound beliefs were reflected in 37. The song 'Amar Sonar Bangla', written
the book 'Unto This Last' and that the book during the India Swadeshi Movement,
changed his life. What was the message of encouraged Bangladesh in its freedom
this book that changed Mahatma Gandhi? struggle and was adopted as the national
(a) It is the moral responsibility of a well- anthem of Bangladesh. Who wrote this
educated person to uplift the oppressed or song?
the poor. (a) Rajni Kant Sen
(b) The life of the individual lies in the (b) Dwijendra Lal Rai
welfare of all (c) Mukunda Das
(c) Celibacy and spiritual contemplation are (d) Rabindranath Tagore
essential for higher life
(d) In this context all the above statements 38. Who said, 'A blow to my back will prove to
'a', 'b' and 'c' are correct be a nail in the coffin of the British
Empire'?
33. In which year the national song Vande (a) Lala Lajpat Rai
Mataram was sung for the first time? (b) Bhagat Singh
(a) 1896 (b) 1905 (c) Chandrashekhar Azad
(c) 1930 (d) 1947 (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
34. 'Godan' and 'Gabana' both are the works 39. Why did people gather to protest in
of the same author. What is his name? Jallianwala Bagh?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Kalidas (a) To protest the arrest of Gandhiji and
(c) Munshi Prem Chand (d) Nirala Lajpat Rai
(b) To protest the arrest of Kitchlew and
35. Which one of the following statements is Satyapal
correct? (c) For Vaishakhi prayer
(d) To protest the inhuman activities of the
Punjab Government

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40. In 1932, Mahatma Gandhi fasted until his (c) Ramsey MacDonald Announces
death mainly because Communal Award
(a) The Round Table Conference failed to (d) In this context none of the statements
satisfy Indian political aspirations. 'a', 'b' and 'b' given above is correct
(b) Congress and Muslim League had
differences
EDU Highlights
• When was the communal policy of divide and rule started by the British?
• Why Gupta Age is called as “Golden age of India”?
• What are the major temples established by Chola Empire?
• What were the 3 major wars that lead to establishment of British rule?
• What are the contributions of Indian Nation Army in Indian National Movement?
• Role of Chankya in the establishment of Mauryan empire?
• Why Sardar patel is called as called as “Iron man of India”?
• What are the architecture contribution during the reign of Mughal Rule?
• What were the 3 mains battles fought at Panipat?
• Why Harappan Civilization is called as Urban Civilization?

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Indian Economy and Business Awareness
Edu Opener
➢ India follows which type of economic planning?

➢ India follows which type of taxation system?
➢ How does any country prints money?
➢ What are Open Market Operations?
➢ A rising fiscal deficit in a country will lead to?
➢ What do you understand by Nominal GDP and Real GDP?
➢ What do you understand by Privatization and Disinvestment?
➢ Government securities are traded in which type of market?
➢ How do remittance effects GDP of any country?
➢ When did Nationalization of the banks start in India?
1. Why is direct taxation considered a better (c) Loss of equipment over time due to wear and
form of taxation? tear
(a) Direct taxation fetches more revenue (d) Destruction of a plant in a fire accident
(b) Direct Taxation gives permission for taxation
in accordance with the means 5. Gilt-edged market means
(c) Direct taxation has hefty tax compliance (a) Bullion market
(d) None of these (b) Market of government securities
(c) Market of guns
2. Which among the following does not come (d) Market of pure metals
under the monetary policy for regulating the
economy? 6. If the cash reserve ratio is lowered by RBI, its
(a) Discount rate impact on credit creation will be to
(b) Government spending (a) Increase it (b) Decrease it
(c) Reserve requirement (c) No impact (d) NOTA
(d) Open market Operations
7. Which among the following is the main
3. Robin Hood effect is related to which of the function of a stock exchange?
following? (a) Funding the corporate segment
(a) Income and consumption (b) Funding the commercial banks
(b) Income generation (c) funding the financial intermediaries
(c) Income redistribution (d) Gives liquidity to existing securities & shares
(d) Proportional tax
8. KOSPI is the index of which country?
4. Depreciation means (a) Japan (b) South Korea
(a) Closure of a plant due to lock out (c) Singapore (d) France
(b) Closure of a plant due to labor trouble
9. What is called "Blue Chip"?

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(a)Companies that are run by large corporate (c) Expenditure method (d) All of the above
houses
(b) A company, whose share always provides 18. A Surplus budget is recommended during
profit (a) Depression (b) Boom
(c) A multinational company (c) War (d) Famines
(d) A company that is listed on a foreign stock
exchange 19. Deficit financing means that the government
borrows money from the
10. Which of the following words do not belong to (a) Revenue Department
the stock exchange? (b) World bank
(a) NAV (b) NSE (c) Reserve Bank of India
(c) IPO (d) KPO (d) State Bank of India.
11. Capital market regulator is: 20. The currency convertibility concept in its
(a) R B I (b) I R D A original form originated in
(c) N S E (d) S E B I (a) Wells Agreement
(b) Bretton Woods Agreement
12. Which of the following organizations provides (c) Taylors Agreement
a guarantee to the exporters? (d) None of the above
(a) ExiM Bank
(b) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation(ECGC) 21. In the state of India, the State Financial
(c) Director General Foreign Trade Corporation have given assistance mainly to
(d) Reserve Bank of India. develop ______ .
(a) agricultural farms
13. Which among the following is known as a (b) cottage industry
Doubtful Asset? (c) large-scale industries
(a) NPA for not more than 12 months (d) medium and small-scale industries
(b) NPA not more than 6 months
(c) NPA for a period exceeding 12 months 22. Which of the following cannot be called as a
(d) NPA for a period exceeding 24 months 21. debt instrument as referred to in financial
transactions.
(a) Certificate of deposit (b) Bonds
14. The first wholly Indian Bank was set up in
(c) Commercial Papers (d) Stocks
(a) 1794 (b) 1894
(c) 1896 (d) 1902 22.
23. Which of the following has not occurred after
the liberalization of economic policies under
15. The central co-operative banks are in direct the New Economic Policies (NEP) in 1991?
touch with (a) Significant increase in India’s foreign
(a) farmers
exchange reserves
(b) state co-operative banks
(b) Increase in inflows from foreign direct
(c) land development banks
investment
(d) central government
(c) A massive increase in the share of agriculture
in India’s gross domestic product
16. Debenture holders of a company are its
(d) Increase in India’s share of exports in world
(a) shareholders (b) creditors
trade
(c) debtors (d) directors
24. Which of the following is the outcome of the

17. India's National income is measured with the
globalisation of a country’s economy?
help of
(a) Outsourcing (b) Privatisation
(a) Product method (b) Income method

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(c) Liberalisation (d) NOTA (c) An insurance Corporation

(d) A department of Central Government
25. Which among the following is a qualitative
tool of monetary policy? 33. Schedule Banks mean those banks which
(a) Credit rationing (a) Has been Nationalized
(b) Not nationalized
(b) Credit Ceiling
(c) Headquatered Overseas
(c) Bank Rate (d) The name is included in the second schedule
(d) Cash Reserve Ratio of the Reserve Bank of India
26. What is a Bear? 34. SEBI’s functions include

(a) Investor who believes market will grow (a) regulating the functions of the stock
(b) Investor who beleives market will fall exchange
(c) Investor who beleives market will crash (b) Prohibiting unfair and fraudulent business
(d) None practices related to the stock market
(c) controlling insider trading in securities
27. What is economic planning in India? (d) All of the above
(a) Union List (b) State list
35. What is the result of currency devaluation?
(c) Concurrent List (d) NOTA
(a) Expansion of export trade
(b) Contraction of import trade
28. For which of the following, the Reserve Bank
(c) Proliferation of Import Agents
of India has stipulated a maximum Capital
Adequacy Requirements in India? (d) All of the above
(a) Private Sector Banks
(b) Banks that Undertake Insurance Business 36. Bank rate is the rate at which-
(c) Local Area Banks (a) Bank lends to the public
(d) Scheduled Commercial Banks (b) RBI lends to the public
(c) RBI lends to commercial banks
29. A market structure dominated by only a few (d) Government of India lends to other countries
firms is called__
(a) Perfect Competition 37. Mark the one which is false about currency
(b) Monopoly expansion
(c) Oligopoly (a) Currency spread indicates an increase in
(d) Monopolistic Competition group prices on a point-to-point basis
(b) The rate of currency expansion in India is
30. Which of the following car models, does not calculated on the basis of a wholesale price
belong to Rolls-Royce car? index.
(a) Phantom (b) Wraith (c) Retail prices of certain commodities are also
(c) Mustang (d) Silver Dawn taken into account to measure currency
inflation.
31. Luxury car-maker Audi is a car company, (d) A fall in the rate of inflation does not mean a
based in: fall in prices.
(a) Japan (b) Italy
(c) Germany (d) France 38. Which of the following has the highest share
in credit disbursement in agriculture and
32. NABARD is a – allied activities in India?
(a) National Bank Of Agriculture and Rural (a) Commercial Bank
Development (b) Cooperative bank
(b) A financial Institution (c) Private sector banks

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(d) Microfinance institution 40. What is meant by zero based budgeting?

(a) unlimited deficit financing
39. What is a fiscal de (b) non-cutting of unproductive expenditure
(a) Total Expenditure - Total Receipts (c) not evaluating new programs
(b) Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts (d) budgeting from scratch each time
(c) Capital Expenditure - Capital Receipts -
Market Debt 41. Which of the following brands is NOT an
(d) Sum of budgetary deficit and market debt Indian brand?
and liability of the government (a) Cafe Coffee Day (b) Old Monk
(c) Lakme (d) NOTA
Edu Higlights
➢ What are the ways to increase the GDP of the Country?

➢ Difference between Niti Aayog and Planning Commission?
➢ Anushka Sharma and Virat Kohli are the Brand ambassadors of which brand?
➢ What is the role of RBI?
➢ If exports of the country increase, what will be the change in GDP?
➢ What is the difference of GDP and GNP?
➢ What is the difference between shares, bonds and debenture?
➢ What is the role of SEBI?
➢ what do you understand by a Unicorn startup?
➢ What is the difference between Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan ?

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Indian and World Geography
EDU OPENER
➢ What is the shape of earth?

➢ Which is the lightest planet?
➢ Which is the world’s second longest river?
➢ India lies in the which part of the world?
➢ Which coy has maximum time zone?
➢ Which river is called as Ganga of south?
➢ Why Mawsynram receives world’s maximum rainfall?
➢ What is the difference between Young and the Fold mountain?
➢ Which is the India’s longest southern River?
➢ Which is India highest cotton producing state and why ?
1. The proportion of Hydrogen to Helium in the 6. "Titan" is a satellite of ?

Sun is _____ (a) Mercury (b) Earth
(a) 3:2 (b) 3:1 (c) Venus (d) Saturn
(c) 1:1 (d) 3:4
7. Hirakud Hydel Power station is located on
2. Ozone is present in which of the following which River?
layers? (a) Chambal (b) Gandak
(a) Mesosphere (b) Stratosphere (c) Mahanadi (d) Sonbhadra
(c) Mesosphere (d) Thermosphere
8. Consider the following rivers:
3. Which is correct order of Ocean sizes in 1. Narmada River
Decreasing? 2. Son River
(a) Pacific Ocean, Indian Ocean, Atlantic Ocean, 3. Tapti River
Arctic Ocean Which of the above rises from Amarkantak in
(b) Arctic Ocean, Pacific Ocean, Indian Ocean, Madhya Pradesh?
Atlantic Ocean (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 & 2
(c) Pacific Ocean, Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean, (c) Only 2 & 3 (d) 1, 2 & 3
Arctic Ocean
(d) Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean, Arctic Ocean, 9. Pir Panjal Pass provides the easiest access
Pacific Ocean between which of the following places?
(a) Kashmir and Kargil
4. Red sea lies in which regui? (b) Jammu and the valley of Kashmir
(a) Southeastern America (b) Australia (c) Leh and Siachen Glacier
(c) North America (d) Asia (d) None of the above
5. Gobi desert is in which Continent? 10. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) Asia (b) Africa (a) Methane (b) Sulfur Hexa Fluoride
(c) Australia (d) Europe (c) Nitrous Oxide (d) Carbon monoxide

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11. Which award is given to those who show 19. Which passes make way to the land route
indomitable courage in the field of wildlife between Kailash and the Manasarovar?
conservation? (a) Mana Pass (b) Rohtas Pass
(a) Indira Gandhi Environment Award (c) Nathula Pass (d) Baralachala Pass
(b) Medini Award Scheme
(c) Amrita Devi Bishnoi Award 20. Which of the following water bodies separates
(d) Pitambar Pant National Award the Andaman from the Nicobar?
(a) 11° Channel (b) Gulf of Mannar
12. From which source is the list of countries (c) 10° Channel (d) Andaman Sea
emitting carbon dioxide based on carbon
dioxide emissions? 21. Which of the following river has the largest
(a) Burning of fossil fuels river basin in India?
(b) Cement Industry (a) The Indus (b) The Ganga
(c) Both of the above (c) The Brahmaputra (d) The Krishna
(d) None of these
22. Which of the following states has the highest
13. Soft drinks such as cocoa contain significant irrigation coverage?
quantities of (a) Punjab (b) Karnataka
(a) Caffeine (b) Nicotine (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand
(c) Tannin (d) Rennin
23. Which of the following was a part of the green
14. At what time of day is the relative humidity revolution strategy?
normally at a minimum? (a) High yielding variety seeds
(a) When the air temperature is highest (b) Chemical fertilizers and pesticides
(b) Just before sunrise (c) Irrigation
(c) About midnight (d) All the above
(d) When the air temperature is lowest
24. Which of the following sea port of India does
15. The blueness of the sky is mainly due to: not have a natural harbour?
(a) The scattering of sunlight by air molecules (a) Mumbai (b) Cochin
(b) The presence of water vapor (c) Marmagao (d) Paradeep
(c) Absorption of blue light by the air
(d) Emission of blue light by the atmosphere 25. Which of the following is a ‘Rabi Crops’?
(a) Cotton (b) Maize
16. Ramsar Convention refers to the conservation (c) Arhar (d) Mustard
of ____________
(a) Deserts (b) Wetlands 26. When oil and gas resources are burnt they kill
(c) Agriculture lands (d) Forest land many forests and lakes by
(a) deforestation (b) water pollution
17. Which of the following geographical term (c) acid rain (d) forest fire
related to the ''piece of sub-continental land
that is surrounded by water''? 27. The southernmost hill ranges in India are
(a) Peninsula (b) Gulf known as
(c) Strait (d) Island (a) Nilgiri Hills (b) Annamalai Hills
(c) Nallamalai Hills (d) Cardamom Hills
18. Which of the following is the world’s largest
peninsula? 28. Which of the following two rivers empty in Gulf
(a) India (b) South Africa of Khambhat?
(c) Arabia (d) Both A & B (a) Narmada and Tapti rivers
(b) Jhelum and Tapti

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(c) Jhelum and Ravi (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4

(d) Tapti and Godavari (c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 2, 3, 4, 1
29. Which of the following of the boundary lines 34. Which of the following is the most important
and their related country are correct? riverine port of India?
1. McMohan line- Between India and china (a) Kandla Port (b) Paradwip Port
2. Radcliff line- Between India and Pakistan (c) Kolkata Port (d) Mumbai Port
3. Durand Line- Between India and Afghanistan
4. Palk strait- Between India and Sri Lanka 35. Which of the following pair is not correctly
Choose the correct option from the codes given matched?
below: (a) Koyli - Gujarat
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 1, 2 & 4 (b) Nagapattinam - Andhra Pradesh
(c) 1, 3 & 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (c) Numaligarh - Assam
(d) Manali - Tamil Nadu
30. The traditional construction type earthquake-
resistant house Bhonga is found in which of the 36. Consider the following Indian states –
following places in India? 1. Chhattisgarh 2. Telangana
(a) Karnataka (b) Tripura 3. Andhra Pradesh 4. Uttarakhand
(c) Gujarat (d) West Bengal 5. Tamil Nadu
Which of the above states is the largest and the
31. Which of the following peaks of Greater smallest respectively (on the basis of
Himalayas is situated in the state of geographical area)
Uttarakhand? (a) 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 2
(a) Kamet (b) Nanda Devi (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 5
(c) Badrinath (d) All of the above
37. Which of the following does not share its
32. What type of coral reefs are found in the border with Arunachal Pradesh?
Lakshadweep Islands? (a) Assam (b) Nagaland
(a) Fringing type (c) Bhutan (d) Manipur
(b) Barrier type
(c) Atoll type 38. Which of the following pair is not correctly
(d) None of the above matched?
(a) Koyli - Gujarat
33. Arrange the following state as per the (b) Nagapattinam - Andhra Pradesh
descending order of their share in India’s (c) Numaligarh - Assam
coastline (d) Manali - Tamil Nadu
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Gujarat
3. Tamil Nadu 4. Kerala 39. Earthquake is caused by -
Choose the correct option from the codes given (a) Earth travel (b) Tectonism
below: (c) Earth rotation (d) Food cover

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STUDY AND MARK MAJOR MOUNTAIN RANGERS AND RIVERS WITH THE HELP OF MAP.

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General Awareness
This section will cover the basic knowledge questions an individual comes across in all walks of life.
Edu Opener
➢ Does mud pot keep the water cool? If yes, why? If no, why?
➢ What is the function of RTPCR test?
➢ Why do bowlers keep shining the ball from one side during the cricket match?
➢ Excessive use to Air Conditioner can lead to increase of which gas in surroundings?
➢ how is the temperature of sun and stars measured?
➢ What is the difference between Global Warming and Greenhouse effects?
➢ How are we able to walk on the Earth without slipping?
➢ What will happen if there is no Nitrogen gas in the atmosphere?
➢ What is the difference between a Disease, an Epidemic and a Pandemic?
➢ Does coastal region experience extreme high or low temperature across the year?
1. The complex feeding relationships within a 7. Which of the following is the heaviest
community are called: metal?
(a) Food chain (b) Food web (a) Osmium (b) Mercury
(c) Trophic level (d) All of them (c) Iron (d) Nickel
2. The longest fiber on the cell body of a 8. Eating tobacco and throwing on the road
neuron is called: can produce ______ pollutant.
(a) Myelin (b) Nerve Endings (a) Air (b) Soil
(c) Axon (d) Dendrites (c) Noise (d) Water
3. The movement of a plant part in response 9. By what is the density of milk measured?
to light is called: (a) Lactometer (b) Hydrometer
(a) Phototropism (b) Geotropism (c) Barometer (d) Hygrometer
(c) Chemotropism (d) Hydrotropism
10. ‘Ecomark’ is given to those Indian products
4. Name the first enzyme that mixes with which
food in the digestive tract? (a) Are pure and unadulterated
(a) Pepsin (b) Trypsin (b) Are economically viable
(c) Amylase (d) NOTA (c) Are friendly to the environment
(d) Are protein rich
5. Nervous System consists of:
(a) Brain (b) Spinal Cord 11. Water is used in hot water bags because-
(c) Nerves (d) All of them (a) It is easy to get
(b) It is cheap and not harmful
6. The normal body temperature of a human (c) It has a higher specific heat
being is (d) Heating water is easy
(a) 98°F (b) 98°C
(c) 68°F (d) 66°F 12. Why is a small space left at the joint
between two rail tracks?
(a) Leaving such space will save some cost

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(b) Metals expand on heating and contract (c) Polio (d) Aids
on cooling
(c) To generate the necessary gravitational 21. Which of the following is a biodegradable
force pollutant
(d) None of these (a) Sewage
(b) Heavy metals
13. Room air ______________ when a table (c) Pigment discharge
fan is running in a closed room (d) Depigmented exudates
(a) Will be hot
(b) It will be cold 22. Red-green color blindness is caused by
(c) Will have no effect (a) Heavy drinking
(d) None of the above (b) Inheritance of the X chromosome
(c) Inheritance of Y chromosome
14. While shouting people always keep the (d) Vitamin E deficiency
palm near the mouth because-
(a) In that case the sound energy would 23. On what principle does a nuclear power
point in only one direction plant work?
(b) This action has no effect on the sound (a) Fragmentation
(c) Pitch of voice increases (b) Fusion
(d) None of These (c) Thermal combustion
(d) Effect of all three above
15. The world's largest ecosystem is -
24. Sodium metal is kept under
(a) Grassland (b) Great lakes
(a) petrol (b) alcohol
(c) Sea (d) Forest (c) water (d) kerosene
16. Whose details are given in 'Red Data 25. Oracle is

Book'? (a) An operating system
(a) Only extinct animals (b) Word processing software
(b) Endangered plants and animals (c) Database software
(c) Fossil plants (d) None of these
(d) Endangered plants only
26. Which of the gas is not known as
17. Which vitamin is active in blood clotting? greenhouse gas?
(a) Methane (b) Nitrous oxide
(a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin A
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Hydrogen
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K
27. Tetraethyl lead is used as ____?
18. Which of the following is the best source of (a) Pain killer
iodine? (b) Dire extinguisher
(a) Algae (b) Beans (c) Mosquito repellent
(c) Sugar (d) Wheat (d) Petrol additive
19. How many calories do you get from 28. What makes a byte?
drinking a glass of water? (a) 8 bit (b) 16 bit
(a) 0 (b) 15 (c) 32 bit (d) 64 bit
(c) 25 (d) 50
29. What is the full form of RAM?
(a) Random Access Memory
20. Which disease is detected by ELISA test?
(b) Ready Application Module
(a) Cancer (b) T.B.
(c) Read Access Memory

www.edumentor.co.in
(d) Remote Access Machine 40. Chlorophyll is a naturally occurring chelate

compound in which central metal is
30. The inert gas which is substituted for (a) copper (b) Magnesium
nitrogen in the air used by deep sea divers (c) iron (d) Calcium
for breathing, is
(a) Argon (b) Xenon 41. Which of the following metals forms an
(c) Helium (d) Krypton amalgam with other metals?
(a) Tin (b) Mercury
31. Who invented television (TV)? (c) Lead (d) Zinc
(a) laurels (b) JL Baird
(c) R.A.Millikan (d) Louis Braille 42. The gas usually filled in the electric bulb is
(a) Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen
32. The hardest substance available on earth is (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Oxygen
(a) Gold (b) Iron
(c) Diamond (d) Platinum 43. Soda water contains
(a) Carbonic acid (b) Sulphuric acid
33. The acidity of rainfall is measured by - (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Nitrous acid
(a) Barometer (b) Hygrometer
(c) Emitter (d) pH meter 44. In fireworks, the green flame is produced
because of
34. Which one of the following pairs is not (a) Sodium (b) Barium
correctly matched? (c) Mercury (d) Potassium
(a) Thiamine - Berry Berry
(b) Vitamin D - Rickets 45. LPG consists of mainly
(c) Vitamin K – Infertility (a) Methane, Ethane and Hexane
(d) Niacin – Pellagra (b) Ethane, Hexane and Nonane
(c) Methane, Hexane and Nonane
35. What do most toothpastes contain to (d) Methane, Butane and Propane
prevent tooth decay?
(a) Bromide (b) Fluoride 46. Air is a/an
(c) Iodide (d) Chloride (a) Compound (b) Element
(c) Electrolyte (d) Mixture
36. Dengue fever is transmitted by which
vector? 47. Thalassemia is a hereditary disease, which
(a) Culex Fatigan (b) Anapheles calcifices affects the following -
(c) Aedes aegypti (d) Mansonia uniformis (a) Blood (b) Lungs
(c) Heart (d) NOTA
37. Cereals are a rich source of -
(a) Starch (b) Glucose 48. Which of the following fossil fuels is the
(c) Fructose (d) Maltose cleanest fuel?
(a) Coal (b) Petrol
38. What is a U-Boat? (c) Natural gas (d) Diesel
(a) Ship (b) Submarine
(c) Helicopter (d) Balloon 49. Human eye is like a camera, so it has a lens
body. What does eye lens make?
39. Which of the following is a non metal that (a) reticle
remains liquid at room temperature? (b) inverted, virtual image of an object on
(a) Phosphorous (b) Bromine the retina
(c) Chlorine (d) Helium (c) inverted, real image of an object on the
retina
(d) erect or real image of a body on iris

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CLASS

Quantitative Aptitude Page 01 to Page 20

Logical Reasoning Page 21 to Page35

Verbal Ability Page 36 to Page62

General Awareness Page 63 to Page 82

Quantitative Aptitude | Class 1

1. Which of the following is divisible by 99? (c) 295 (d) 643

Class Assignment Book Page 1

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Quantitative Aptitude | Class 2

PROFIT AND LOSS

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Quantitative Aptitude | Class 3

1. If 2A=3B=5C, find the value of A : B : C. (c) 120 (d) 80

2. The ratio of A : B is 1: 3, B : C is 2 : 5, C : D is 2: 3. 9. In a journey of 48 km performed by Tonga,

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Proportion and Variation

18. If A invests Rs 1500 for 4 months, B invests Rs (c) 3 : 5 : 10 (d) 5 : 6 : 10

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Quantitative Aptitude | Class 4

Simple and Compound Interest

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Quantitative Aptitude | Class 5

Class Assignment Book Page 9

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Quantitative Aptitude | Class 6

TIME AND WORK

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Quantitative Aptitude | Class 7

PIPES AND CISTERN

TIME SPEED DISTANCE – I

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Quantitative Aptitude | Class 8

TIME SPEED DISTANCE – 2

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Quantitative Aptitude | Class 9

Class Assignment Book Page 17

23. The H.C.F and L.C.M of two numbers are 11 and

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Quantitative Aptitude | Class 10

Complete the following table

2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 9 a1 = = a2 a1/a2 = Intersecting [ ] Unique []

2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 9 a1 = = a2 a1/a2 = Intersecting [ ] Unique []

6𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 15 a1 = = a2 a1/a2 = Intersecting [ ] Unique []

1. In an entrance test comprising of 100 questions, (c) 70 (d) 71

Complete the following table

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Logical Reasoning | Class 1