NEST 2024

ONLINE EXAMINATION-1 [JEE ]

PHYSICS length of the pendulum?

p
[ Hint T = 2π l /g
1. In which of the following situations, the image
T - Time period of oscillation of the pendulum
formed is always erect and virtual ?
l - Length of the pendulum
(1) Plane mirror and convex mirror
g -Acceleration due to gravity]
(2) Plane mirror and convex lens
(3) Convex mirror and concave mirror
(4) Plane mirror and concave mirror

−
2. number of electrons constitute 1C of
charge.
(1) 1 (2) 1.6 × 1019
(3) 6.25 × 1018 (4) None of the above (1) 0.74 m (2) 1.5 m
(3) 2.2 m (4) 3 m
3. How long does a 60 W bulb take to consume an
energy of 0.72 units ? 7. Work done by the force of gravity on a satellite of
(1) 1 h (2) 6 h 360 kg at a height of 36000 km is
(3) 12 h (4) 120 h (1) 0 J (2) 1031 J
(3) 1021 J (4) 109.8 J
4. The frequency of ac is 60 Hz. The direction of
electric current in the armature coil of the ac gen- 8. A vehicle will accelerate as long as
erator changes times in one second. (1) Air resistance is greater than the thrust
(1) 60 (2) 120
(2) Air resistance is greater than the inertia
(3) 30 (4) 15
(3) Thrust is greater than the sum of air resis-
5. The average acceleration of a body during a time tance and friction
interval ’ t ’ is given by the slope of its (4) Friction is greater than the thrust
(1) Velocity - speed graph
9. The waves that require a material medium for
(2) Velocity - time graph
their propagation are called
(3) Speed - time graph
(1) Matter waves
(4) Velocity - displacement graph
(2) Electromagnetic waves
6. The graph given below gives the displacement of (3) Carrier waves
a pendulum bob with respect to time. What is the (4) Mechanical waves

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10. Three bulbs are rated 40 W, 60 W and 100 W. 15. Two objects have masses in the ratio 1 : 2. If the
Which bulb will glow brightly if they are con- forces acting on them are in the ratio 2 : 1 Then
nected in series across a 220 V source? the ratio of their accelerations is
(1) 40 W (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(2) 60 W (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
(3) 100 W
16. A current of 1.6 mA is flowing through a circuit for
(4) All will glow equally bright
10s. The number of electrons flowing through the
11. A train of length 200 m takes 1 minute to cross circuit during this time will be about
a bridge of length 1 km. How long does it take (1) 6 × 1018 (2) 1017
to cross another bridge of length 100 m with the (3) 20 (4) 120 × 1017
same speed?
17. An object is kept at a distance of 1 m from a con-
(1) 24 s (2) 30 s
vex lens of power 1 dioptre. The image is formed
(3) 42 s (4) 15 s
at a distance from the object.
12. The heat from an electric bulb fixed on the roof of (1) 0.5 m (2) 1 m
a room is transmitted to the floor by the process (3) 2 m (4) Infinity
of :
18. An object is dropped from a height h, find the
(1) convection
height from the ground at which the kinetic en-
(2) radiation
ergy and potential energy are in the ratio 3 : 4.
(3) convection and radiation
(4) conduction 3h 4h
(1) (2)
13. A bar magnet as shown in figure (1) is cut into 4 3

two pieces. The two pieces are then arranged as 4h 3h

(3) (4)
shown in figure (2). The force between the ends B 7 7
and C will be : 19. The net force acting on a book placed on a table is
(1) Force of gravity
(2) Force exerted by table on the book
(3) Frictional force
(4) Zero

(1) attractive (2) repulsive 20. A car travels 9 km towards East and then 12 km to-
(3) zero (4) neutral wards North. The magnitude of displacement of
the car is
14. A boy moving along a circular path of radius 10 m
(1) Zero (2) 14 km
completes 3/4th of the circle in 10s. Speed and
(3) 10 km (4) 15 km
magnitude of velocity are respectively
(1) 4.71 m/s and 47.1 m/s 21. If the angle between the mirror and the incident
(2) 4.71 m/s and 1.41 m/s ray is 35◦ , the angle of reflection is
(3) 1.41 m/s and 4.71 m/s (1) 0◦ (2) 35◦
(4) 1.41 m/s and 1.41 m/s (3) 55◦ (4) 145◦

2
22. When a body is positively charged by method of (1)A and C (2)B and D
conduction, then it has (3)A and D (4)B and C
(1) excess of neutrons
(2) excess of electrons 28. When the butter turns rancid, butter is
(3) excess of protons (1)Displaced
(4) deficiency of electrons (2)Decomposed
(3)Oxidised
23. If the distance between two objects is increased (4)Reduced
by 3 times, then the gravitational force between
then will 29. Which of the following is NOT a property of Ionic
(1) Increase 9 times (2) Increase 3 times compound?
(3) Decrease 3 times (4) Decrease 9 times
(1) Generally brittle and break into pieces when
24. Effective resistance across PQ is: pressure is applied
(2) High melting point & low boiling points
(3) Generally soluble in water
(4) Generally insoluble in kerosene

30. Which among the following will not conduct elec-

tricity?
(1)NaCl crystal
(2) NaCl solution
(1) 1.5Ω (2) 3Ω (3)Molten/Fused NaCl
(3) 1Ω (4) 12Ω (4)None of the above conduct electricity

25. Unit of electric current can be: 31. Brass is an alloy of

(1) joule (1) Cu and Sn
(2) joule/coulomb (2) Cu and Zn
(3) ampere second (3)Cu and Hg
(4) none of these (4)Cu and Mn

CHEMISTRY 32. Which of the following is not a synthetic polymer?

(1) Nylon
26. In the balanced chemical equation (2) Polyvinyl Chloride
XFe + Y H2 O → Fe3 O4 + Y H2 (3) Polythene
What is the value of X and Y respectively? (1) 4,3 (4) Cellulose
(2) 3,4 (3) 3,5
33. Which among the following metal is extracted and
(4) 5,3
purified by electrolysis?
27. Identify the pair of isotopes among the following (1) Ag (2) Pb
40 14 40 12
18 A 6 B 19 C 6 D (3) Zn (4) Al

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34. Which of the following is the correct order of 40. Which of the following is an example of Ther-
metallic character? mosetting plastic
(1) Li > Na > K > Rb (1) Teflon
(2) Rb > K > Na > Li (2) Nylon
(3) Li > K > Na > Rb (3) prC
(4) Rb > Na > Li > K (4) Bakelite

35. Mass number of an atom is 31 . The M shell of this 41. Which among the following is the most reactive
atom contains 5 electrons. What is the number of metal?
neutrons present in the atom? (1)Gold (2) Lead
(1) 16 (2) 13 (3)Iron (4)Sodium
(3) 17 (4) 20
42. Presence of which gas is indicated by the flaring
36. When a drop of ink added to a beaker of water, up of a glowing match stick?
speeding of ink is observed. This spreading is (1)Oxygen
known as (2)Ozone
(1) Osmosis (2) Diffusion (3)nitrogen
(3)Dialysis (4)Reverse Osmosis (4)Phosphorous

37. Match the following

43. Identify the oxidising agent in the following reac-
tion.
2Na + Cl2 −→ 2NaCl
(1) Na
(2) Cl2
(3) NaCl
(4) Can not be determined

(1) A − Y , B → X ,C → W, D → Z
44. Identify the wrong statement?
(2) A → W, B → Z ,C → X , D → Y
(1) Noble gases are not reactive generally
(3) A → X , B → Y ,C → Z , D → W
(2) Metalloids have the property of metals and
(4) A → Y , B → X ,C → Z , D → W
non - metals
38. Identify the acidic oxide among the following (3) All halogens are gases
(1) SO3 (2) Na2 O (4) Galium melts in our hand.
(3) K2 O (4) MgO
45. In laboratory preparation of chlorine, which
39. Which among the following has the least pH? among the following is treated with HCl?
(1) Water (1) N2
(2)Vinegar (2)O3
(3)Baking soda (3)KMnO4
(4)Blood. (4)HNO3

4
 p p
46. Which among the gas is formed by the thermal 52. If p(x) = x 3 + x 2 + 3x + 3, then the value of
p
decomposition of KMnO4 ? p(− 3) is
(1) Hydrogen (2) Chlorine p p
(1) −3 3 (2) −2 3
(3) Nitrogen (4)Oxygen p p
(3) 3 + 3 (4) −3 + 3
47. Soda water is acidic due to the formation of
(1)HCl (2)H SO 53. Factors of polynomial 12x 2 + 7x + 1 are
2 4
(3)H2 CO3 (4)CO2 (1) (3x − 1)(4x + 1)

48. If x is the number of electrons in K-shell of N a (2) (3x − 1)(4x − 1)

atom and y is the number of electrons in L-shell (3) (4x − 1)(3x − 1)
of Cl atom; then what is the value of x + y ?
(4) (4x + 1)(3x + 1)
(1) 2 (2) 8
(3) 10 (4) 18 54. Which one of the following is a polynomial?

49. Which of the following statements are not related x2 2 p

(1) − 2 (2) 2x − 1
to DaltonS atomic theory? 2 x
3x 3/2 x −1
(1) Matter is made up of tiny atoms (3) x 2 + p (4)
x x +1
(2) All the atoms of an element are similar
(3) Atoms of different elements are different 55. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial

(4) Atom contains subatomic particles such as x 2 + (a + 1)x + b are 2 and -3 , then
electron, proton, neutron, etc.
(1) a = −7, b = −1 (2) a = 5, b = −1
50. An aqueous solution of NaOH is taken in a beaker (3) a = 2, b = −6 (4) a = 0, b = −6
H
and P is measured. When then lemon juice is
6 8
added to the solution, PH value........ 56. Solve : x + = 11, 3x + = 28
y y
(1) Increases (1) x = 5, y = 1 (2) x = 8, y = 2
(2) Decreases 1
(3) Remain same (3) x = 4, y = (4) x = 9, y = 3
2
(4) Can not be predicted
57. If 3x−y = 9 and x −2y = 6 represent a system of the
equations, then the value of x + y is

(1) -2 (2) -6

MATHEMATICS (3) -4 (4) None of these

58. Aruna has only |1 and |2 coins with her. If the

total number of coins that she has is 50 and the
51. Which of the following are the zeroes of the poly- amount of money with her is |75, then the num-
2
nomial x + 3x − 4 ? ber of |1 and |2 coins are, respectively

(1) 1, 4 (2) −4, 1 (1) 35 and 15 (2) 35 and 20

(3) −1, −4 (4) −1, 4 (3) 15 and 35 (4) 25 and 25

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59. The 6th term from the end of the A.P. 65. In the given figure, if ∠O AB = 40◦ , then ∠ AC B is

5, 2, −1, −4, ....., -31 , is equal to:

(1) -25 (2) -22

(3) -19 (4) -16

60. How many numbers lie between 10 and 201,

which when divided by 3 leave a remainder 2 ?

(1) 61 (2) 62
(1) 50◦ (2) 40◦
(3) 63 (4) 64
(3) 60◦ (4) 70◦
1 1 1
q¶
x xr xp¶
µ µ ¶ µ
qr rp pq
61. The value of × × is equal to 66. Find the 18t h term of an A.P, if 7 times the 7t h term
xr xp xq
1 1 1 is equal to 11 times its 11t h term.
(1) x p +q +r (2) 0
(1) 3 (2) 15
(3) x pq+qr +r p (4) 1
(3) 18 (4) 0
2m+n 3p
62. If n−m = 16, n = 81 and a = 21/10 ,
2 3 67. Find the value of x for which (8x + 4), (6x − 2) and
a 2m+n−p (2x + 7) are in A.P.
then ¡ ¢−1 =
a m−2n+2p 7
(1) (2) 7
(1) 2 (2) 1/4 3
15
(3) 9 (4) 1/8 (3) (4) 4
2
p
3−3 × 62 × 98 68. Find the sum of the n terms of an A.P, if the first
63. Find the value of r
3 1 and third terms of A.P., are 15 and 20 respectively.
52 × × (15)−4/3 × 31/3
25
p (1) n[30 + (n − 1)5]
(1) 28 2 (2) 28 · ¸
n 5
p (2) 30 + (n − 1)
(3) 28 3 (4) None of these 2 2
· ¸
n 5
64. In the given figure, if O A = 5 cm, AB = 8 cm and (3) 15 + (n − 1)
2 2
OD is perpendicular to AB , then C D is equal to : (4) None of these

69. In the given figure, two concentric circles with

centre O are given and OM ⊥ P S. If P S = 22 cm
and QR = 14 cm, then PQ is

(1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm

(3) 4 cm (4) 5 cm

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 (1) 5 cm (2) 3 cm 73. PQRS is the diameter of a circle of radius 6 cm.
The length PQ,QR and RS are equal. Semi circles
(3) 2.5 cm (4) 4 cm
are drawn with PQ and QS as diameter as shown
70. In the following figure, O is the centre of the circle. in the figure. The ratio of the area of the shaded
If ∠P AO = 15◦ and ∠P BO = 30◦ , then the region to that of the unshaded region is

measure of ∠ AOB is

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 13 : 5

(3) 5 : 13 (4) 18 : 5
(1) 30◦ (2) 60◦

(3) 90◦ (4) 110◦ 74. If the mean of x, x + 3, x + 6, x + 9 and x + 12 is 10 ,

then x equals
71. In the given figure, the shaded area is (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) 6

75. The mean of 53 observations is 36 . Out of these

observations, the mean of first 27 observations is
32 and that of the last 27 observations is 40 . The
27th observation is

(1) 23 (2) 36
2 2
(1) 50(π − 2)cm (2) 16(π − 2)cm
(3) 38 (4) 40
2 2
(3) 16(π + 2)cm (4) 5(π − 2)cm
76. There are 50 numbers. Each number is subtracted
72. A square is circumscribing a circle. The side of the from 43 and the mean of the numbers so obtained
square is 14 cm. Find the area of the shaded re- is found to be 5 . The mean of the given numbers
gion. is

(1) 38 (2) 39

(3) 48 (4) 49

77. Two friends were born in the year 1996. The prob-
ability that they have the same birth date is
1 2
2 2
(1) (2)
(1) 21 cm (2) 42 cm 183 365
1 1
(3) 48 cm2 (4) 196 cm2 (3) (4)
365 366

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78. In a single throw of a pair of dice, the probability (1) 95◦ (2) 40◦
of getting the sum as a perfect square is
(3) 60◦ (4) 75◦
7 5
(1) (2) p
36 36 83. The length of the diagonal of a cube is 6 3 cm. Its
8 11 total surface area is
(3) (4)
36 36
(1) 144 cm2 (2) 216 cm2
79. A card is drawn from a well shuffled pack of 52
playing cards. The probability that the card is a (3) 180 cm2 (4) 108 cm2
red or a club is
84. The ratio of the radii of two spheres is 4 : 5. Then
1 1
(1) (2) the ratio of their total surface area is
3 4
p
3 3 (1) 16 : 25 (2) 2 : 3
(3) (4)
4 13
(3) 5 : 4 (4) 2 : 3
80. In the given figure, the value of angle q is
85. If two cubes, each of edge 4 cm are joined end to
end, then the surface area of the resulting cuboid
is

(1) 100 cm2 (2) 160 cm2

(3) 200 cm2 (4) 80 cm2

86. A vessel is in the form of a hollow hemisphere

(1) 60◦ (2) 90◦
mounted by a hollow cylinder. The diameter of
(3) 50◦ (4) 40◦ the hemisphere is 42 cm and the total height of
the vessel is 30 cm. Find the inner surface area of
81. In the figure, if P S ⊥ l and RQ ⊥ l , then the value
the vessel.
of y is
(1) 3500 cm2 (2) 3800 cm2

(3) 3960 cm2 (4) 3900 cm2

x + 4 x − 4 10
87. The roots of + = are
x −4 x +4 3
(1) ± 4 (2) ± 6
p
(3) ± 8 (4) 2 ± 3
(1) 55◦ (2) 90◦
88. The two roots of a quadratic equation are 2 and -1
(3) 65◦ (4) 135◦
. The equation is
82. In figure, AB ∥C D, the value of x is
(1) x 2 + 2x − 2 = 0 (2) x 2 + x + 2 = 0

(3) x 2 − 2x + 2 = 0 (4) x 2 − x − 2 = 0
5
89. If 2 is a root of the equation x 2 + kx − = 0, then
4
the value of k is

8
 11 −11 random contains 53 Sundays is
(1) (2)
8 8 7 28
11 −11 (1) (2)
(3) (4) 366 183
4 4
1 2
(3) (4)
7 7
90. The probability that a leap year selected at