· lI~ !

{R'fI<61 I QUESTION BOOKLET

~
:::om/coDE: 01
!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Wll ~ I SR.No.

702038
~~w:oTcCr~1
Number of Pages in Booklet: 32

~~Jf~cCr~ I
01m A
fcItm
Number of Questions in Booklet: 150

~ I Time: 3.00 tte I Hours ~ I Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS M~
1. Answer all questions. 1. 'f1'4t );f!i-;fT~ ~ ~I
2. All questions carry equal marks. 2. 'f1'4t );l'~-;fT ~ i3:fcn WTR %" 1
3. Only one answer is to be given for each question. 3. ~ );f~-;or'!iT ~ ~ m~ ~I
4. If more than one answers are marked, it would be 4. ~ f:t ~ ~ ?;q ctt C::~1Tif );l':?-;or~ ~ eN ~
treated as wrong answer. '1FIT ~I
S. Each question has four alternative responses marked 5. ~ );f~-;or~ 'tlR ~ ~ ~ 'lit %", ~
serially as 1. 2, 3, 4. You have to darken only one ~~T: 1, 2, 3, 4 13m fct<rr 1]<11 %" 1 i31'P.:fl'jl eN 00
circle or bubble indicating the correct answer on the ~~ c:q;fcf~~f:t~~~\3i~
Answer Sheet using BLUE BALL POINT PEN. ~ eN ~-lf;fcli 1R ~ ~ ~ q;, f:t 'TIm
Cfi11T %" 1
6. 1/3 part of the mark(s) of each question will be
deducted for each wrong answer. (A wrong answer 6. ~ ~ ~ '!iT );l'H i3:fcn '!iT 1 /3 'llPT9m
means an incorrect answer or more than one answers ~1~~f:t~i31~~<::JTM);f~-;or
for any question. Leaving all the relevant circles or ~ ~ f:t ~ ~ f:t %" I M ~.,
);f~-;orf:t *if<m
bubbles of any question blank will not be considered ~<::JT~eN~~~~;:nft'1FIT
~I .
as wrong answer.)
7. After opening the envelope the candidate should 7. );f~-;or-q?[ ~ ~ ~ If;fcli ~ ~ eft ~
ensure that Series Code of the Question Paper and ~ 1R wm
% ~'CRf CF.t # f2n '3B'f; imf{
Answer Sheet must be same. In case they are different.
If;fcli 1R cmr ~ ~
%" ;:;it );f'i-;or-q?[ ~ 1R
a candidate must obtain Envelop of Question paper
~ %" 1~ ~ ~ N ill ~ f:t );f~-;or-q?[ eft
& O.M.R. Sheet the same series. Candidate himself m BtfM 'ffi'IT ~ );f~~-q?[ '!iT lWf;m qr:{f CF.t # 1
shall be responsible for ensuring this.
W -;or~ 1R ~ i31~ eft ~I
8. Mobile Phone/Bluetooth Devices or any other
8. ~ qiR /~ ~
i31~ ~(ijctilH9i <R '!iT
electronics gadget in the examination hall is strictly
wen ~ if m~
ffi %"1 ~ M i31'P.:f~
dealt as per rules.
~ qrn W ~ ffi BTT-Tlft~ % ill '3B'f; ~
oi'ri &m HI:jIjljfll{ W ~ ctt ~ I
9. Please correctly fill your Roll Number in O.M.R.
Sheet. 5 Marks will be deducted for filling wrong or
9. en q<:[ ~ m ~ i3TI.~. ,3m. If;fcli 1R mt:
incomplete Roll Number.
TRr~OO 'lft1~<::JT i3~m~ ~ 1R
5 i3:fcn CfRf
-a
~ if f:t ~ ~ f:t <W: ~I
10. If there is any sort of ambiguity/mistake either of
printing or factual nature in Hindi and English Version
10. ~ M W-l~ ~ ~ t:lJt ~ ~ if M
of the question, the English Version will be treated
W!R ctr ~ FT <::JT(f&lT("1il\W!R ctr ~ N ill
);f~-;or'!iT i3#'rGfr ~ l1F'1 WIT 1
as standard.
~ : i3'flR ~ i3MeTT ~ ~ ~ \;fTffi' %" <::JT
Warning : If a candidate is found copying or if any ~ 1:[ffi f:t ~ ~ (f fWf!ft 1:fT{ ;;mft %, ;m
unauthorised material is found in his/her possession, i31~ ~ ~ ~ if ~ q;:;f ~ ~ i3frr
F.LR. would be lodged against him/her in the Police
i31R.1ft.~ (~ ~ eFT ~) ~, 1992
Station and he/she would liable to be prosecuted under
Section 3 of the R.P.E. (Prevention of Unfairmeans)
~ ~ 3 <fi 'ffi?'(f ~ eFT ~I me.r m c!\i rm
\3i~ eN ~ <r if iFt ~ c!\i eft Wffi1 rrftmi31T
Act, 1992 Board may also debar him/her permanently f:t ~ CF.t Wliill %I
from all future examination of the Board.

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1. According to India Meteorological Department (IMD), a rainy day is defined as the
day having total rain of
1) S10mm 2) ~2.5 mm
3) 2.5 mm 4) 2.5 em
1. a:il\(rll:a ~faiflO1 ~(31I~QJig) <l1~, '(,I"q;ilHili"l~~q;)-~~T
~ ~
tftif <l1fao.T <l1~ # ~ ~ 7f<1f t
1) 510 fi'i;RT 2) ~2.5~
3) 2.5 fi'i;RT 2.5 mfr4)
2. In India, the most popularly used non-recording rain gauge is the
1) Symons rain gauge 2) Weighing bucket rain gauge
3) Tipping bucket rain gauge 4) Natural siphon rain gauge
2. 3fRrf # 'ffiR}.~ mq;fQ~ ~RCfi'(f!JI ~r ~ ft
1) ~1~Jii1 ~rit;r 2) (fOf;;:fnfrc:tt~r~
3) feft:t'." ~~r~ 4) \4'tmq;~'~4iii ~r~
3. Runoff is the drainage of precipitation from a
1) Drainage channel 2) Catchment
3) River 4) Reservoir
3, ~ ~* crttt<l1~f<Aq;1'Ei1 tr
1) .~~ 2) *ilcRc
3) ~ 4) ~m
4, Consider the following statements from which Rational method is developed
1.It gives maximum runoff volume
2.Rainfall occurs at uniform intensity for duration at least equal to the time of
concentration of the watershed
3. Rainfall occurs at a uniform intensity over the entire area of the watershed
4. Frequencies of rainfall and runoff are similar
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2,3 and 4
d. 1,2 and 3
4. ~~tR~q:;t ~*~~~fa*1lIi"l ~
L~ ~ ~<m 31!:actV!tcrr~·
2. Cf'SIt ~ ~ ~ tR ~rn- cfrr ticl1?\OI <l1~ ~ CfiJi" * CfiJi" iRfif{
~~1mr~~
3. qcU ~rn- <l1~ mtR'"QCff ~ ~ tR' M~
4. Cf\1T 3fi;r ~ cfrr 3i1~;zjf ~ ~
:?1R~tTP1kif(q~i"I ~~*m~ ~t?
Vili' 1 fr 4ft 23fi;r3gT
~ 2, 3 3fi;r 4 !fr 1,2 3fi;r 3

3
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5. If recharge capacity of the watershed is 25.4em, then curve number for that area is
1) 91 2) 100
3) 5 4) 50

5. ~)S~fhH;j~25.4M~m,~ a:hpl;$itr~~t
1) 91 2) 100
3) 5 4) 50
6. The area under hydrographs gives
1) Total rainfall 2) Rainfall intensity
3) Total runoff volume 4) Rate of runoff
t-~mq:<;ffaor~
6. f.!~h.lI~Nt
1) ,.,
q;(>f~ 2) ~~
3) ,., ~
CfiN 31ill(1til
. 4) ~cfrr~
7. The main factor responsible for soil erosion in India is
1) Diversified soil type 2) Undulated terrain
3) Erratic rainfall 4) Excessive deforestation
Which of the following factors given above is/are correct?
a.I,2and3
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 2,3 and 4
d. 4 only
7. 3lm:r ~ ~ a:R'OT<l;~ ~ fa;;::;AcU,< mcv
1) ~~<l;~ 2) <4e;'lal'l ~
3) 31fi111U1H
~r 4) ~ cr;;:it cfrr~
3\tR~<ftfi1HiR>tffilct i!if411Til ~~~m ~t?
VCf) 1 tT
iff 2m3tT
~ 2,3m4

8. What does the slope of the mass curve in any time interval express
1) Accumulated rainfall 2) Rainfall intensity
3) Change point 4) <l>-index
8. ~3ft~~R~~ ~ ~~~~~
1) ~~ 2) ~cfKRIT
3) ~~ 4) <l>-ti,,'tlCf;icfl'

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9. Which one of the following statement is correct?
1) Runoff plots are those areas used to measure soil losses due to rill and inter-
rill erosion
2) Runoff plots are isolated areas of known size used to measure the losses of
soil water due to sheet erosion
3) A multi-slot divisor is used to collect the total runoff into a masonry tank
4) Runeff'plots of size from 1/500 to 11250 ha are commonly used
9. ~R1ftilffild ~~m~~~
1. ~ ~•.. ~ at;r t ::;ITfr<;r 3fi:r $e{t)(>i Cfi'ClCr cfit ~ 'it fRtn.rre' q:;f
~ c);- fmr $@RIt11%'t \5ffil~
2. ~ ~ -;nm3{1Cfif{ c);- ,m;m ahf~. ::;IT!i!fR: ~ cfit ~ 'it ~-cn;fr
~ .., <'h'ft I'" q:;f ~
..)
~ ftircr $'fdJ"lI (>i~ \5ffil~
3. trcfi ~ ~ 11Cfi(if ~
..)
qlifr ~ ~ c);- ftircr trcfi ~-~ Bq"I"'~
~~aTdT~
4. 1/500~ 11250 ~q:t~{ 3fF.'fi1'tc);- ~ ~tR$'fdJ"lI(>i ~\5ffil t
10. The basic intake rate is the highest in
1) Sandy soil 2) Moderately textured soil
3) Heavy textured soil 4) Sandy-loam soil
10. $lfiA:z:ncfnrcnr tf:r'dffct, ~
..)
~~ ~ ~ ~
1) ~f11tr 2)' iA i"'J.i'fI GI;;:Ua e: Pttt
3) a:rrft ilirll4e: ~ 4) ~~f.r:rtr
11. If the land slope will increase from 2% to 8%, then the erosive capacity will increase by
1) Three times 2) Four times
3) Sixteen times 4) Eight times
11.3fm~~dl2%~8%~~,rrr~crnqqrr~~~~
1) ctlar iIR 2) 'tiR" iIR
3)~ iIrr 4) 3m5iIR

12. The average rate of soil loss of India is about

1) 16.35 tIha 2) 5 to 7 tlha
3) 12.25 tIha 4) 25 tlha
12. 31RO ~ f1rlr 61<W8161
.)
<ftr3fR:rc:r ~ ~ ~
1) 16.35 Cif / ~~;oq=( 2) 5 ~ 7 Cif I ~<R:;oq'l
3) 12.25 C;; I ~~<H 4) 25 C;; / ~<R:;oq{
13. Crop management factor in USLEfrom a clean-tilled, continuous, fallow terraced land is
1) 1 2) 0.6
3) 1.5 4) 0.45
13. V<'f;::mtfl-~.~,
• .
tffift:R1$le;H ~~~P1q:8Ql
¥~~ ~
~ir1q;~I;;q
..)
~sftifl~ol~
~~~~
l) I 2) 0.6
3) 1.5 4) 0.45

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14. A simple device used for alignment of contour trench in hill slope is
1) Dumpy lev~l 2) Theodolite
3) A-frame 4) Hand level
14. ~~~~iH'l:-:q 0rt':H~&OI t'ff:rlr~t[q;~~$+clIRI<"f~~~
1) ~~ 2) ~
3) V~~ 4) ~~
15.Terrace spacing is also expressed as
1) Terrace width 2}Vertical interval
3) Vertical interval and terrace width combined together 4) Batter slope
15.~<fle;H <tcr~3fc:rtC#'''Hn~~~~~t'
I} :a'>I~al{<tcr~~ 2)~~
3) ~if+:q ~ ~:allraF( <tcr(:f?ntl~ntt[q;~ ti<:l<fCi
,:J
4}m~
16. In low rainfall areas, the primary purpose of contour cultivation is to
1) Conserve rainwater into the soil 2) Reduce soil loss
3) Reduce runoff 4) Increase crop yield
16, qw:r~~~~, ~JOftl:-:q~q;r ~Itlf.i:l<fim<r(f<fT~
1) ~~qlSfT'3f<"f'~~ 2) fRtrq;r~ Cf1T<m1
~
3) ~Cf1Tqw:r~ 4) ~~3tNf~~
17. Which one of the following is not a stream bank:erosion control measure
1) Retaining wall 2) Jetty
3) Jacks 4) Shelter belts
17.~#ltmmvq;URr~~fil<iSlol t'3GP-f~~
1) ~iiifTV~ 2) ~
3) ~ 4} ~~~
18. Gully erosion is an. advanced stage of
I) Sheet erosion 2) Splash erosion
3) Rill erosion 4) Slip erosion
18. m.fr~~ 3i.uqcff~~
1) ~ftc;~ 2.) ~r~
3) ;::m;rr~ 4) ~~

19. Drop spillway is generally recommended at a drop of

1) <2m 2} <3m
3) 3-5 m 4) >5 m
19.~~Ma 3m1cfR"tR ~(1\r11 ~tff~~~t'
1) <2~ 2) 1<3~
3) 3-5~ 4) C>5~

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 20. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched:
1) Isohyet - Line of equal rainfall magnitude
2) Isobath- Line of equal depths of evapotranspiration
3) Isoehrone- Line joining the points having equal time of runoff travel
4) Isohel- Line joining the points having equal sunshine hours
20. filth1ThtUSl(1 ~#~~~~~~f.F1(qIG1 vrtfi'~:
1) $tI)~$C: - iRTiR~q~<AIOI q:;f~~mr
2) ~ - ~~:Uq) i1~q'H'fit1 cl;" CiRTiR
<A11rr q:,1~ ~ mr
3) $:mSfl)oOl. ~<:rm~~~~q:,1~~tm
4) $:a)~(q - CiRTiRq,tr-at~~~~q:;f~~mr
21. The process responsible for transporting the maximum portion of the soil along the
surface of the ground by rolling and pushing by the force of the wind is known as
1) Saltation 2) Surface creep
3) Suspension 4) Gravitational force
21. ~~iif(if~~~~~~cfrr~~~~(f)T~3iI7r*
qnq~01 ~n:tcrr..;,MGH \OI'fliiQl CRlT~#l~~t
1) '8(>i~'8;;:J 2) '8'{$'H #iter
3) ~r.rr 4) 31{)(=C11#i~(J1
..:>
iif(if
22. If the amount of sediment load transported in a day is 86.4 tonnes in a channel with
stream flow rate of 1 cumec, then what will be the sediment concentration in the flow?
1) 10 mg/lit 2) 1000 rug/lit
3) 3600 gm/lit 4) 240 mgllit
22. ~ 1 ~A#i cfrr trm ~ cfrr ~ ~ mtr. t!<fl ~ it ct(>i~e:31R cfrr ~ t!<fl fzyr
it 86.4 c.=rt. m-~itct(>i3e: ~r.rrf.l;(1;;:JI~?
1) 1 ~(ifl""liH!~ 2) 1000 ~<>fl.aliH!~
3) 3600 d,:ffl1!~ 4) 10 f/:l(ifl,*;jISf! ~
23. The water harvesting system with. embankment across lower hill slopes of Rajasthan
is known as
1) Nadi 2) Naada
3) Khadin 4) Sandhis
23. ~ ~ ~ trtmfr ~ 31t #l FfCiit:r~ mtr ~ ~~4;;:J I)OI'OIIC'fl
Cf<lT ~ it
~~t
1) ~. 2) rnsJ
3) '@ Ia'I<i1 4) iliaT
24. Fann pond should be located at places where
1) Hills are nearby 2) Sewage pipes are passing through
3) The earth is impermeable 4) The earthwork is minimum
24. ~~~t::R'~~"m1tv
1) ~~ttRl 2) ~~~~~tn
3) ~~t 4) ~ "fiT q:;p::r ';:4,:11 ct Sf ~

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25. What return period i~used to calculate the maximum expected runoff to the waterway
1) 20 year 2) 25 year
3) 10 year 4) 5 year
25. @(qd=ltJ~ c:m ~ ~ ~ ~ dTOlii1T ~ ~ ~ ~ <';"'HIClld=101
3rcl1b ~~~.~~
1) 20att 2)
3) watt 4)
26. The longest of the chain lines used in making survey is generally called as
1) Main line 2) base line
3) check line 4) tie line
26. ~~tF~·~~~~~~@AIM *r~~. ~ 3rrA'Fi'ktR'
CR1r~~~
1) ~~ 2)
3) $:F;~ 4)
27. A plane to which all vertical distances or elevations in survey work are referred is called
1) Datum 2) Horizontal plane
3) Vertical plane 4) None of above
27. "Q'Cfi ~ ~ ~~. ~ ~ ~ <:ITg";"F4Oi ;:;IT g~ffilR ~ ~ ~~,
~CR1r~~~
1) sre<R" 2) ~;r:j'F(1:fl:q ~
3) 3>t-~~ 4) ~~~34T~
28. Central Arid Zone Research Institute is located at
1) Bikaner 2) Kota
3) Jaipur 4) Jodhpur
28. ~~<t ~psq:;~~:a'F~I""
~ ~ ~~t?
1) ~CfiI;A::{ 2) ~
3) ~ 4) ~
29. The following watershed programmes/organization:
1. Integrated W..asteland Development Project (IWDP)
2. National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA)
3. National Watershed Development Programme for Rainfed Areas (NWDPRA)
4. Drought Prone Area Programme (DPAP)
Appeared in India at different times. Their-chronological order is:
(a) 4,3,1,2 (b) 3,1,4,2
(c) 3,4,1,2 (d) 1,3,2,4

29. ~MfclftSlR ~Ts" CfiI;QStiJ111~:

1).Q*'1'(1 ~ ~ fclCfiI~ q~;;u)@<A1(31I~ge-.<,,"<{~cfl)

2), ~It>{'J:a ~ R.fRln m~ (tr.rr .3-1R tr try
3) ~ ~ ~ ~ mv {IG?\:a are:.t~Ts"fclCfim q~~:fI@<A1(tr.rr g~<t.!fr tft 31R tr)
4) ~ t;RfOT mCfir;QStili (g)cft Q t{)
3i(qdf 3i(qdf ~ tR :rnm ~ ~ ~I ~ <4I<r!Shf,Ft·q:;
ct>1 ..::>
Shd-i ~ ~~:
(qi) 4,3,1,2 tX5l) 3,1,4,2
(df) 3,4,1,2 (?h) 1,~.2,4

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30. Which one of the following statement is not an objective of watershed management
1. To control damaging runoff 2. To reduce sediment production
3. Inappropriate use of land resources 4. To enhance groundwater recharge
30. fo'lH1~ffla ~ ~mm'Q'q;':m;r~~Cffl''Q'q;'mlf~~
1) ~lfo'lq;F(q; ~ <tiTfo'l~~(1 ~ c\r ff:rt:r
2) a(>lUe 3<"'4¥d:i1 <tiT~~$~
3)~~ifiT3I1ftla ~
4)~~~~~
31. The soil structure or soil physical conditions favourable for the germination and
growth of crop plants denotes
1) Soil profile 2) Soil building

.
3) Soil tilth 4) Soil climate
31 . ~ ~ ~
~
3tk. f<t<mr c.l; ff:rq ~ ~~
~ cfit ~. <rr ~ ~ ~fa41 q;r ri
1) ~ si1tfil$(>I 2) ~ c\r fo'llHlOI
3) ~mnr~ 4) ~~(>Iql~
32. Tensiometer installed in soil measures
1) Osmotic suction of soil moisture 2) Capillary potential of soil
3) Soil moisture content 4) Soil moisture constants
32. ~;R-~~iflITm'«iT~
1) f.Fttr~~cfi'r 31V8J'itRrCfi~lif 2) ~~~~
3) ~ ~ cfi'rm:;rr 4) ~~~
33. Find the statement which is not correct
I) Granular soil structures have high organic matter content
2) Total pore space of 50% in top soil is ideal for plant growth
3) Water held at potential more than -15 bars is not available to most plants
4) Water movement can occur from atmosphere to soil
33. ~~ ~~~~tttrr<>f7lTtt
1) ~ ~ :a-Ct:li1lltT;R- ~ CfiIGlfo'lq;~ <tiTm:;rrM~
2) 3itR'~;R- 50% cffr~ ~~, qftif cffr~ ~ ~ ~r ~
3) -15 ilR ~ ~ ~ tR ~J4If<l·ttc;~ ~ qftif ~ ~ 34(>1&tr~
tfutrt
4) ~<tiT :a€l('iirl m<j.mm- ~~~~~~
Ar a
1)

34.

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35. If the bulk density of soil is 1.5 gm/cc in 0·15 em depth and the moisture content on
dry weight basis is 15%. then soil moisture on volume basis will be
1) 10% 2) 33.75%
3) 22.5% 4) 15%
35. 3fJR 0-15 ~~;R' ~ <l;• ~ 1.5 CI1r.11/lfRfr ~ 3ft;{ ~ q.;n; ~ 3ffUR"
tR i;;ft ~ ~ 15% *" err 3fi~k1lrf ~ ~ ~ tR' ~ ~ i;;ft f<:t;aG4'l{ftifr
1) 10% 2) 33.75%
3) 22.5% 4) 15%
36. Evapotranspiration losses consist of transpiration from plants and evaporation from
1) Stems and leaves of the plants 2) Leaves of the plants
3) Ground surface and plants 4) Ground surface only
36. ~ 14)iilf¥w'('SGi lrfCfi'SIlrf tfttit ~ ~ 3ft;{ fct;;~rit q I\Stf\q:;,(o I ~ fJ:':I(>1
Cfi'(iJ<ffdT ~
.:>
1) tfftit ~ ~ 3ft;{ q f?c:l <l1 2) tfftit <firqf?c:l <ll
3) ~~~~t:fttIT 4) ~<fir~~
37. Evapotranspiration can be directly measured through
1) Atmometer 2) Lysimeter
3) Eveporimeter 4) Pluviometer
37. ~Iq)::>t~~;alrf ~orr ~<l;~~11fCIT~~*,
1) 3fk<A)Ae{ 2) (>11$~1;;::fk'(
3) Qaq'Jt)Ac:( 4) 41.fa:zflAe{
38. Crop water requirement implies
1) Evapotranspiration needs only
2) EvapotranspWttion needs and other special needs
3) EvapotranSpIration needs, application losses and other special needs
4) Evapotranspiration needs, conveyance and application losses, and other
special needs
38. ·~'q1iff*t~~CfiT~~ *'
1) ~:uq'j::>tPfq{'801~~
2) ~ilq'::>tPfq:Hi01 cflt~3.fR ~m't15f ~4ificll3lT ~~
3) $'31lciH.~~;a01 *t ~ t, ~ tl1Cf 3fR ~ ~~",~4Cficlr3lT *t ~
4)~lq)~fiR::q{;a01 *,,~,~3.fR~~,3fR~m~~~3itcflt~
39. Puddling is done mainly for
1) Smoothing of seed bed 2) Reducing deep percolation of water
3) Reducing seepage of water 4) Reducing evaporation
39. ~~~~l\Cf~1%<rr~~
,.;)

1) ~~;RH~~ 2)
"
3) qr;fr ~ ftmq ~ r.ti1i CfitOiT 4)

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40. Which of the following term is commonly used in irrigation practice in India
1) Capacity factor 2) Delta
3) Kor watering 4) Duty
40. ~<hrIfN~Ci ~~3iIHct1~ q{31l«i~Rfttl~. c<QCle;H ~~~~t
1) ~~ 2) ~
3) q;R t:ffi1ft 4) S<rfr
, '"
41. Find the delta for a crop when its duty is 432 hectares/cumec on the field and base
period of 120 days
1) 60 em 2) 100em
3) 120 em 4) 240 em
m q{ ~
41 . .3f<I"R' l:fim>f <ll JIltlTt .3fClfft 120 ~ t 3ltt S<rfr
~ '"
432 ~.(fl<Q~I Cf<Q
'"
ACfi t.
m~~~ fCti<"liiil ~
1) 60~ 2) 100~
3) 120~ 4) 240~

42. Which of the following instrument is not used for water measurement in closed conduit
1) Current meter 2) Water meter
3) Venturi meter 4) None of the above
42. ~kifi;trn)(1 mtro'11t ~ m m iia" ~ 1t trrm HTtr Gl <il fNl:r $@HIM ~ ~ ~ t
1) eRe ~ 2) t:ffi1ft <il~
3) ~~ 4) 3q~)Cf(i~tr~a:nft
43. The cipoletti weir is a contracted trapezoidal weir having side slope
1) 1:1 2) 1:4
3) 1:1.5 4) 4:1
43. fiql<4{1cfI<:R \Ffi ~f{J1("i<klI<:tl1{ cft'<:RtTafi<:tlltIT~a~t
1) 1:1 " 2) 1:4
3) 1:1.5 4) .4:1

44. The system considered to be a powerful tool for promoting better water utilization in
command area is
1) Block 2) Shejpalli
3) Warabandi 4) Localized
44. ~m~~ttTcrfj*3q4)dl q;fqq;rar~t-~Vcti~RFI ~~~m>fr
3q<:tl\(UI1fl'iff~t, ~(f<fft
I) ~ 2)
3) Cl\(al<!l 4)

11
45. The width of a rectangular channel with flow depth of 30 em which carries maximum
discharge is
1) 15cm 2) 20 em
3) 45 cm 4) 60 em
45. 3f7R' vq;- 311;q"IGflI~ ~ tW ~ ~ ;JliHI~ 30 M ~ ~
~B;pqI..-A~~~,m~~*t~f4;atAl ~
1) 15~ 2) 20~
3) 45M 4) 60~
46. The irrigation project is classified as medium if the potential is between
1) > 10000 ha 2) 2000-10000 ha
3} 4000-10000 ha 4) <4000 ha
46. Jid'Tt ~ 1%:aGflf~ ~ ~ FIT ~'tll~ qfi;q)3fO:u q;)-~ aaffCf" ~ ~ ~
1) >10000 tcR:t 2) 2000-10000 ~
3) 400(}"10000~ 4) <4000~
47. With adequate on-farm development and good water management on the farm, it has
been estimated that application efficiency can be increased
1) 50%-70% 2) 70%-90%
3) 600/0-80% 4} 40010-70%
47. ~ tR 4<:tlCcl ~
~
~Gfll:a 3fR ~. aM gam:; tW ~> .llGiJ1lf-icl~
~
~ ~
~Cfi.fl~~~t
1) 50%-70% 2) 700/0-90%
3) 600/0-80% 4) 400/0-70%
48. The efficiency which is important when water supplies are limited or when excessive
time is required to secure adequate penetration of water into the soil is
1) Water conveyance efficiency 2) Water application efficiency
3) Water storage efficiency 4) Water distribution efficiency
48. ~ qTifr cfi'r ~ ~\7tcl ~ <.IT~ ~ ff'11t #l qTifr cfi'r qatica tto ~
~ ~ ~ 3Tf<n~~. ~ lH$('a'{ul~q;r;rm q:;qr~
1) ~~~ 2) ~~c;8;lctT
3) ~~~ ~Rlcl{OI~ 4)
49. A watershed of 1800 hectares is discharging through a drain at an average rate of 2.5
eumec, calculate the drainage coefficient
1) 1.2 em 2) 2.4cm
3) 3.0cm 4) 3.6cm
49.Jrm' 1800 ~cR::q{ q;r t:rGfl' ~Ts 2.5 ~.Aifi cfi'r ~ G{ ~ t:rGfl' ;;:m;fr~ ~ ~
~a~01 CfR~~. m~~ifilfflJIOli4l
~
f4:iH<1i1 ~
1) 1.2~ 2) 2.4~
3) 3.0~ 4) 3.6M

12
50. The drainage system which is the most effective method of surface drainage and is
well suited for both irrigated and rainfed area is
1) Gridiron 2) Random
3) Parallel field drain 4) Bedding
50. ~~miftl:8'l CfiT~~~~ 3ttt~~'f<t)t13'tk~ lfltufit1 m<l;
fc.lv ~~ ~ ~~,.:>" nr~ miftl<fl QUliN) CfiT iim
I) Rts 31T<Ri1 2) f511
3) m:rrrc:fr
(1a1ICi1iW( 4) ·;8'f<HUI
51. The most widely used envelop materials in tile drains is
I) Gravel 2) Coarse sand
3) Straw 4) Coir matting

51. ~ril~4j ~~~Iqq:; ~~$'fd<Al(if ~qslq)1 'fi1\Hd1t ~

1) ~ 2) ~t;
3) ~ 4) ~~

52. The most common method of irrigation in India is

1) Check basin 2) Corrugation
3) Border strip 4) Ring basin
52. 31ROitQfill$ Cfij'~ 3M(1~Cfi' ~
1) ~arn01 2) Cf)<{)a) 'fi01
3) m~ 4) ftJrafi:101
53. Sprinkler irrigation technique is not suitable for soils
1) Sandy 2) Heavy clay
3) Sandy loam 4) Loamy clay

53. lhcaHI RfcU$ CiCh0i1Cfi,at ~ *' ff;lv 34lfCf(i

."
;;tT ~
1) ~a\C"f1 2) 31TtrfAtt
3) ~aUrc: 4) ~fAtt

13
 54. Which one of the following ssarement/s is correct in drip irrigation
1) The soil moisture content is maintained at near optimum levels to facilitate
optimum growth and production of crops
2) Based on operating pressure, emitter discharge of 10 lit/hour is referred as
high
3) Laterals are usually made ofHDPE pipes
4) Disk filters. when used, form the final filtering component. before water
enters the drip line
Which of the fonowing statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 1,2 and 3
c. 1 and 4 only d. 2. 3; and 4

54. ~~f(;l~H~*~m~~6l~~~
1) ~ m:rr ~
~ ~ <fiT ~ce:H'1~ 3ft{ 3ft1l~&1
~ ~ ~ fAv
~ ~\SCct'1~tRutr~~
2) 3tlq~~dl ~R't' 3tlmt tR, 10 00 I tier ~ ~ fi1~$&1
q;)' 3't-l:4
fi1~~&1~~t
3) ~ ~tR3t:'iHlitFCfqlcl'lQ1il<Zt;A (Ql:4!fJcfI~) ~*~ t
4) ttlifi· ~ ~ # mr *~~ ~ 3fflt;J:r ~ t' mr:q; t' t\tT #
~fdJ1Ii'f~~t
3>tT{ttrfi1~f(;lmH ~6l*~m ~t?
trcfi 1~ if!" l,23ft{3
~ 13ft{4~ ~ 2; 3 3ft{4

55. Keeping the hydraulic properties of the aquifer as constant, doubling the diameter of
the well will increase the well yield by about
1) 7% 2) 9%
3) 10% 4) 15%
55. 3fdT{~<frC<JRr.~~in~.,n, fomR~t ~1~~)ft:lq;:fT~ ~SV'
err f31T *r 3tM" iJ:l fchaA'J <tft ~
1) 7% 2) .9%
3) 10% 4) 15%
56. The most common bore hole geophysical operation to find out the possibility of
aquifer is
1) Electrical resistivity 2) Electric logging
3) Gamma-ray logging 4) None of the above
56. ~·<fiT·~tmtJOT~tft:l1r~ 3i1iR'~~ ~ ~r;r~
1) t4G:.irl ~ 2) $N~q; <'1ITJ'jal
3) crrmr~t<'1'{fJfdl 4) ~~~3fi~

14
57. Match the following:
(1) Specific capacity (A) Water storage properties of confined and
semi-confined aquifers
(2) Transmissibility (8) Property of unconfined aquifer
(3) Specific yield (C) Yield per unit depth of drawdown
(4) Coefficient of storage (D) Rate of movement of water through a
vertical strip of the aquifer
57. NlihilNm(i #trent:
mlT-l
C\, ~-2
(1) f4~f?n<ti *q~t) (A) 'ft",rnd 3nt 3ft 'ffirnd a<441~ ftR <l;
~JisRuTdjCT
(2) ~j:af11~fc)fiIt1 (B) 3f01<hrrq,S Q~Ql{ cJit ~
(3) f4~f?nq; ~ (C) ~~~ClltHI$~~
(D) ~~~~tt1t<l;~~
• ~ 3f141a/tl ~ 1~iCh01

58. Which one of the following statement is not correct:

1) Mole drainage is semi-permanent method of sub-surface drainage
2) Evaporation pond can be used as a means of disposing drainage water
3) The open drains are used either as interceptor or relief drains
4) In drainage practiceif the underlying layer has one-tenth the conductivity
of the upper layer then it is considered to be impermeable
58. filihifWfiSCi ~ Cfi't01' m mtT ~ t:
1) ft:n>r ~ fil<tiI:Hl3It- ~ 3\r- ~ ~ filChI'fflcfiT"QCf)~ t
2) ClIIStfl<ti{UI(iIMlit ~ fil<til:H) ~ filQC:I4A ~ '(fciI1 ~ ~ ~ ~ $@J1IM ~
~~t
3) ~;:H~:4f
.:>
em ~C:H~ce{<.rrmr<i;;:n~;ql ~~6l3ft$@J:lI(iOf ~~t
4) ~ fil<til'fi'j llJ:<al:a :R' 3fclR' 3l(im~(1 t::R(1 cfiT ~1$~)ft;lCf1ill(iOfCf1CiI
~ tR(1 ctrr
awt~.aT~ ~611i{f~~
59. The most efficient indigenous water lifting device is
1) Don 2) Swing basket
3) Arehemedian screw 4) Hand pump
59. ~~m~ft~:x;r;;tq:;r3qCf1{OI
.;)
~
1)sTa:r 2)~~(~<iiI**C)
.;)

3) 3i1~itfg:tlCl1~ 4) ~qq-

15
60. The effective head of PU!llP is the
1) actual head at which pump works 2) manometric head
3) suction head 4) delivery head
60. titf clnmrcfr ~ t
1) qlf'ct~ij;~; ~tR'tiqCfiI11~t 2) R1Ai;J:)teq; ts
3)~ra1~ 4) B(Ofiqfl ~

61. Which one of the following objectives is not meant for secondary tillage?
1) To destroy grasses and weeds in the field
2) To cut crop residues and mix them with top soil of the field
3) To reduce soil strength, cover plant materials and rearrange aggregates
4) To break the big clods and to make the field surface uniform and leveled
61, ~;J;;ffi;lR?ld mm~~m~~~~~~ .:>
1) m~'EI"RT 3lk &{q ("h1 H em 'iT{1S'C ~
2) tl'im'f ~ 3m~ ~ ~ 3lk m~3i"CR ~ ~~ ~ PiJ3fOT
3) ~ ~. ~ em cm:r~. t:ittt 'ftIR4I CfiT 3ilvBI~\Tj ~ 3lk
QCill.ne.:'ft~ q\Tjc4q~
.:>
~

4) ~ ~ ~ <l; ~ JtR ffi cfrr ~ 'ftR'64JtR flA'1('l ~

62. The spacing of the furrow openers in tractor drawn seed drill is fixed at about
1) 15 em 2) 18 em
3) 25em 4) 30 em
62. ~ G:.Ciffi ~ lfis ~ ~ tfRf 3itqiH~Cf)T :ffi:Rr<;r f4i("l<ri1 ~ t
1) 15M 2) IBM
3) 2S~ 4) 30M

63. Which of the following implement is used indryland farming?

1) Zero seed drill 2) Ferti seed drill
3) Acne harrow 4) Sub-sailer
63. f;1'hHR>lRsld $J:cJ)tlc ~~~m~~~~~~~6"? .;)

1) ~.~~ 2) ~-~.~
3) ~~ 4) ~-'Hl$Jl'(
64. The common implement used for primary tillage operations is
I) Indigenous plough 2) Mould board plough
3) Disc plough 4) Chisel plough

64.. aT 3mi $J:t<>l)ik I1lltlfJ141~.;) GfiFif ~ ~ ~f8<HI(q~ ~ 6"

1) ~ft6<'1 2) ~iftt~
3) ~~ 4) ~~

16
65. The share component of plough is commonly made up of
1) Pig iron 2) Medium carbon steel
3) High carbon steel 4) Alloy steel
65. ~ <fi>r~ ~RR.tlI<FI·lcr<Q(1 ~ ~ q;rr ~ ~
1) ftt;rr.~ 2) m.<.rJ1.~.~
3) 4)

66. The sowing method in which the spacing between the rows is.same as that of plants
1) Check rowing 2) Dibbling
3) Drilling 4) Hill dropping
66. ~.., ~ ~ci~(141 ~ ~ 3kR' 3flt tfkti' ~ ~ 3kR' ~ ~
1) ~~ 2) RiSkIk4dl
3) ~Q'dl 4) ft<>r.~
67. The actual area cover by the implement based on its total time consumed and its width is
1) Theoretical field capacity 2) Effective field capacity
3) Unit draft 4) Field efficiency
67. ~ t;RFffi'
.., ~.., ~ 3iR ~ ~ ~ 3fft1R tR ~ CilfdfaCfi e:hr~~tlc
~ CfiGff emrr ~
1) ~~i~Cfim~ 2) ~m~
3) ~~ 4) tf:m;;s~
68. The size of a combine harvester is indicated by
I) Width of cut 2) Height of operation
3) Diameter of cylinder 4) Power requirement
68. lJq;'CfiMlI$iTI ttl(~R~CfiT~fchtict ~~~~t
1) ~cttr~ 2) ~Tif~brt
3) 4)
69. The.crop for which threshing operation has been totally mechanized in India is
1) Rice 2) Maize
3) Pearl millet 4) Wheat
69. 3lt~cif~1n.9rn6·lq a:nmlir~cm-~~~~~6flIT~j. ~~ qrr am:r~~
1) ~ 2) ~.
3) ~ 4) ~
70. The instrument used for determining power is
I) Pyranometer 2) Atmometer
3) Dynamometer 4) Voltmeter

70. ~mttrCfiT~~~fiifvmm<tt~~~6?
I) q<:i ~;;:ftJ"i'lc~ 2) JikIR)Rlc{
3) g)iTlCR)<A)c{ 4) JiRA1c{

17
71. A tractor engine runs at high speed, but the real wheel of the tractor requires power at
1) High speed and high torque 2) Low speed and high torque
3) High speed and low torque 4) low speed and low torque
71. 3f7R' 't!ifi' ~ 3'ttr ~ ~ tmm'~;
CfiT~ m~ q;r tflU; ~ tR ~nto~·3m~~
1) 3W dTfff :fltt3W c:r$ 2) ~ dTfff :fltt~ c:r$
3) ~ dTfff :fltt~~ 4) ~ 7l'fR 3fR ~c:r$

72. If it is desired to obtain 108kg-m torque of the transmission output shaft, what gear
ratio would be necessary if transmission efficiency i~ 90% and input, torque. is 10kg-m?
1) 1:8 2) 1:10 3) 1:12 4) 10:1
72. 3fiR ~ 111'81'(01 3C"4iali1 ~l1'tfC~ 108fch(4)dllli-1ftct c:r4; ~ ~ ~ R4v aifU:o ~,
eRn' f7r<:R' ~ ~ ~~ ~ ~ ~ <rfe; ~£J«OI ~ 90% • ~ ~ ~ 10 .

f(l;(4)"JISl-1ftct t?
1) 1:8 2) 1:10 3) 1:12 4) 10:1
73. Which one of the following statement is not correct for maintenance of tractor?
I) Use clean oil of proper grade
2) Always clean the filter with jet of compressed air
3) Maintain the oil level as prescribed by the manufacturer
4) Over lubricate the bearings
73. PikiR>'lUSrl i!'<:rTVrltmm~~~:n!H~la ~~~rrtTt?
1) 3Rrc1 w *tmco
ffi;r q;r~ ~
2)~rrtitfl~rl ~~~~~~~e<{ mcocR'
3) PitJOtlrlla:.am ~ ffi;r ~~ cm~ m
4) ift4ffa r em 3ffft -~CfiII1IcR'
74. Psychrometric chart is graphical representation of which properties of air?
1) Chemical 2) Aerodynamic
3) Thermodynamic 4) Hygroscopic
74. Rl$ll1~~Cf)T:rtt~~~~*t~i4A4I11fd~4~?
1) <( I~U4 Pi Cf) 2) 'Q"4'U g'Jil f.A Cf)

75. In adiabatic drying and remains constant

1) Dry bulb and wet bulb temperature
2) Wet bulb temperature and enthalpy
3) Dry bulb temperature & Enthalpy
4) Wet bulb temp & Relative humidity
75. ~ ~(gI;!1~ 3W fftR ®T ~
I) ~ ~ dft<;:rr ~
34'\"{ <11qlR lirf
2)
" ~
dftm <114<11llii 3-lR crrcfr<:r ~
3) ~ ~ rllq<l1lif 34'\"{ crrcfr<:r ~
4) ;ftm ~ <1r41R11ii~ ~ .mam
18
 -
76. Indented cylinder separator works on basis of.
1) Relative length 2) Sphericity 3) Size 4) Roundness
76. aiaaR ~J1~${$" ~ CilliiiRt 31TUktf{ ~ C6rc1r ~
1) ~~ 2) S4i"dfiJi 3) 31Tcfi"R" 4) ~
77.100 kg grains dried from 25 % (WB) to 20 % (WB), the amount of moisture removed
1). 4.8 Kg 2) 5kg 3) 6.25 kg 4) 6.52 kg
77. 100 ~ 31iT'iTa" 25% ~ .mtlTt) ~ 20% (dfl<>rr .31TUR) 'flTmsr ~. m 31iT'iTa" ~ ¢
;r.rt *tmm tt "
2) 5f<h@djIJOi 3) 6.25 ~(!'f);aIJOi 4) 6.52 ~(!'f)(I.lIJOi
78. Fineness modulus indicates .........•........" ..of grind in resultant product
1) Degree 2) Percentage 3) Quantity 4) Uniformity
78. qlluIIA1 ~6l4ai'f1401 A14ilfl, ~cftr ~Cfitffft
1) ~ 2) ~l(i 3) mm 4) QQ;'64(11
79. Match list-1 with list-IT and select the correct answer by using the codes given below
the lists:
List-I List-II
A. COP; Coefficient of performanee 1. Storage
B.CAP 2. Dryer
C.HTST 3. Refrigeration
D.LSU 4. Pasteurizer
Codes:
ABC D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4
79. Y1t'iliJ'f ~';1 ~-<t~d'I<4 $"~~:a Rl41 ~ifrtfav7f'Tl'flTs<m3q;zftCiI
•.• ~
~~<m~~:
~-1 ~-2
"
V . qlluUJOi <fir ~ (~ l.~
6ft . ~ ~ $<RI'C(1 em 6tG (~VcfI) 2.~
~ . 3'i:tf ctlq<RI01 q;;::r ~ (Qi1~V:aet) 5. ~frc:ro;
g)" • <'1$~<41011~~qfcla<4I(q<4
~ ~ 6. qf'tl:ft\?l'(
(V(qQ:a:zp
ems:
Q" 6ft ~ g)"
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(e) 3 1 4 2
(d) 1 3 .2 4

19
80. Find the correct matching from the following pairs:
List-I List-Il
A. Scalping 1. Classification of cleaned product into
quality fraction
B. Grading 2. Separation of cleaned product into quality
fraction based on size. shape, colour etc.
A. Sorting 3. Removal of large particle initially
D. Cleaning 4. Removal of foreign & undesirable matter
Codes:
ABC D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4
80. ~1h1f(;;ffiifl ~~~~~:
~-l
ir. :Ft;fi>!q 3 I 1. 31Ui<:lC-(11 ;:);
,:)
mr ;R. ~ ~ Cfi1"<:laffCfi{ U I
?ft.~ 2. 31TCfiTt,~, L··
iaT ~;:); .31'1tn"{ 'R "IOf(k81
,:)
;:); mr it ~
~Cfi1"~
~.~ 3.~~<FOr Efi)-\R'~ ~
m. <;ffi) TA "I 4. ~!T'tF<'I .3i<:lil§:rfi<ll ~Efi)-~
q:;)s;

ir ?ft m gr
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
..•
(c) 1 '" 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4

81. The most commonly used fumigant in grain storage is

1) Carbon disulphide 2) Ethylene dibromide
3) Hydrogen cyanide 4) Phosphine
81. ~~J.l~ ~$fHJiI(>l ~~tr3ffiT~.'>
1) ~ sl$=8(>'4)I$s 2) ~ sl$?ilfJis

82. Modem storage structure for storing grain in bulk?

1) Pusa bin 2) Silo
3) Cement & Brick bin 4) Cover and plinth
82. ~J.l~~~~ ~~~:8{ijill?
.:>
l)qm~
C'>,
2) =81$(4)

3)m.Rc3fR~~ 4)CflGR"~~

20
 -
83. The temperature employed in UHT milk processing.
1) Upto 135°C 2) below 100
3) 70°C 4) 61°C
83. iQil t) ~ Q:8f4l{OI a.T ~@CHI(>I ~;,;m:rr a14CHI<rl
1) 135 M:afie:e<Fa (i(f; 2) 100 M:af(;::a4f1 :a-;:fiit
3) 70 ~ :afAi4f1 4) 61 f!iJT :afi4l4f1
84. Most commonly used heat exchanger in large size dairy industry,
1) Barrel type 2) Plate type
3) Surface type 4) All of the above
84. i1$ 3ffc1fiR" ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ $fdlAl(>J ~ ~ tIc Qif=8tl;;J{. ~ ~(ffi' t?
1) ~~ 2) ~~
3) ~~ 4) :;;tRcf;miT
85. Percentage of oil in parboiled rice bran,
1) 15-20 2) 25·30 3) 5-10 4) 10-15
85. 4{ Ii\ ("in:m:f(>f ~ ~;R- ffi;r j4:;d!)1I1Afff~R1t?
1) 15-20 2) 25-30 3) 5-10 4) 10-15

86. In dry milling method of pulse processing. following operation is earned out prior to
oil treatment?
1) Pitting 2) Soaking
3) Grading 4) Polishing
86. ~. Q:8'fCh{OI <fit. ~ f.F\f(;1JI Fciftt ;R-, q;1;;:r m ~ ~TiI' ffi;r ~sqiU~ *~
~~t?
1) ~ 2) ~
3) ~ 4) ilCH4iI~
87. Which of the following is not a source of commercial fuel?
I) Coal 2) Animal dung
3) Petroleum 4) Electricity
87. ~ it:a- q;1;;:rm cUfOlf}44i~ Cfff 'Q'Efi ~ i11ff~
1) Cf)14(>11 2) ~r~
.:>
3) c1,)f(;l4CH 4) fa",(>\")
88. The percentage of rural energy consumed from traditional sources is
1) 60% 2) 50%
3) 80% 4) 90%
88. q4q{I<lldmm:a-<u1J11ol ~613q4)dt ~$T~R1j4:;d01I ~
1) 60% 2) 50%
3) 80% 4) 90%

21
 ---
89. The biogas technology in India was initiated by
1) Khadi and Village Industries Corporation
2) Indian Agricultural Research Institute
3) Action for Food PROduction
4) Indian Veterinary Research Institute
89. ~;B-\iu<:n.n:a t;i1e;'QnJi4il
..• f$'H4; ~~A\~~trr?
... ~
1) <Srnfr~ .m<Rlct<:ndl~ <*' cfr :mt tfr)
2)3il{cfJ4~~~(~
3)~3?41e;0i~fi'.w~(~
4) 3i1,ft)4 ~Rlf$rttl ~~(~
90. The gas produced through biogas plant is
1) Methane 2) Nitrous oxide
3) Ammonia 4) Carbon dioxide
90. iijlll),,':a~~RJt.~~3?4I1e;fI ~~
1) ~ 2) lrlli!S?'H3i1<f'HIi!Ss
3) 3iJ1UiF41 4) ~~
91. Typically, a silicon solar cell generates
1) 0.1volt 2) 0.6 volt 3) 1.2volt 4) 1.8 volt
91. 3i1\Rct1~~~ 'Q(il ~Th1(fifOi m~ 3?4Chf1~~
1) 0.1 <fu;c: 2) 0.6 <fu;c: 3) 1.2<fu;c: 4) 1.8 <fu;c:

92. The ratio of 'solid to water' for highest gas production in biogas plant is
1) 1:10 2) 1:15 3) 1:20 4) 1:12.5
92. iijl'Q)J\:a~;B- 3-e.il(i\R ~ 3ft11Glrl ~fi'.w '<5m" ~ tfl';ff (fiT~~
1) 1:10 2) 1:15 3) 1:20 4) 1:12.5
93. The term 'packing factor' is used in
I) Solar energy 2) Wind energy
3) Biogas 4) Nuclear energy
93. ~ti<.;~~t\l<f?A' ~;B-~@J1I(q ~~~
1) m~ 2)
3) iijI4)Jl:a 4)
94. A minimum average wind speed required to operate a wind mill is
I) 5 killometer per hour 2) 30 killometer per hour
3) 20 killometer per hour 4) 10 killometer per hour
94. ~ qq;:r ~. ~illfitld ~ *' fitlv ""<i.fld<H~ traT <fIT ~ 7lfff ~~ 6?
I) m ~ 5 f4iMiJ4'lc,;{ 2) m ~ 30 f4i(q)tAlc:<
3) mtit20\?f;i"fIJf1e;~ 4) mtitlo\?f;HIAk:{

22
 -
95. Which one of the following can be used as a high quality fuel for cooking and
lighting
1) Fire wood 2) Biogas 3) Solar cooker 4) None ofthe above
95. ~k1fNrnH *~~ ~ 3fit ~r ~ ~ fN1r m;m- vq:; 3'W i.i1U1q&'f(
~~~~*$'fHJ1Il>1 ~~~~
1)3ITdT~~ 2)iI1I4'1Jl'A 3)~~ 4)3q~1<ifd*~~~
96. The minimum number of fan type blades used for operation of most mechanical wind
machines is
1) 8 2) 6 3) 4 4) 3
96. ~ A~~<6(O'1 5<U mfim ~ :8t1Ik'iirt ~ fN1r $'fHI"tI64 ~~ ~ ~ ~
r:lOlii'iH<H ~~
1)" 8 2) 6 3) 4 4) 3
97. The largest wind. farm in Rajasthan state is
1) Muppandal wind park 2) Welspunwind park
3) Chakala wind park 4) Jaisalmer wind. park
97. {IGlftfIVl ~dl~~6cH~~
1) iH ctis<>t trc';:ftlf~
.::J.
2) it (q:f4iii qqcrr ~
3) it<bl<>tl ~ 'Q1'$ 4) ~'8 (q;H{ qqcrr ~

98. The percentage of total fuel requirement of the non-commercial energies in India met
from firewood is
1) 15% 2) 20% 3) 55% 4) 65%
98. ~ dl ~ ~ ~ ~-qlfiilRT:ll<b ~ cRteMf
.:J
~ ~~ <fiTf4:i{i0i1
~Rf~
1) 15% 2) 20% 3) 55% 4) 65%

99. The most widely used material in photo-voltaic cell is silicon, which is abundant as
silicon dioxide in
1) Sand 2) Silt 3) Minerals 4) Granite
99. tfiRJ-a)&t$Cft ~dl~c~.uqq; ~~ffI~q;T01 '8liH4i$@J41(q~, ~ 'Wm'd1f:U
.:J
dl ffI~q;TOi~~~ dl f@:ai\ qrm~~
1) t; 2) fi'rR 3) "t:r&~~""""3i 4) J}iiil$c
100. The state which is likely to emerge as'the global hub for solar power in India
1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Rajasthan
3) Haryana 4) Gujarat
100. ~~q;f31"ffi1dlmt~t"~~~cf;'~it~cRt~~
1) Rt-<:r~U 2) ~
3) 6~;qfull 4) dJ\jj{lct
 ---
101. 'Marukantar' name is related to :
1. Bikaner 2. Sirohi
3. Jaipur 4. Marwar

2. fuMr
4. ~

102 To which age does 'Nagari' civilization is belong?

1. Stone age 2. Bronze age
3. Iron age 4. All

102. '~' rtr B'R:fffi fcnBTT B ~ ~ ?

1. ~ TT 2.
3. ~"9:T 4.

103 Where the 'Pushkar' is situated?

1. Jodhpur 2. Ajmer
3. Bikaner 4. Sirohi

-,
2. '3fSi11{
4. fuMr
104 The 'Rangmahal' is situated:
1. Bikaner 2. Jodhpur
3. Jaipur 4. Sirohi

104 . '. ,r-, ~?

~W-TCfQ:
1. Gj'ICflI~ { 2. :ir~
3. ~ 4. fuMr
105. 'Sri EKlingaji' temple is situated at :
1. Jodhpur 2. Ajmer
3. Udaipur 4. Jaipur

105. '.sft Q, CflM 11 ;:;ft' "CflT W W-TCf~ ?

1. :ir~ 2.
3. ~ 4.

106 What was the early name of the 'Jaisalmer?

1. Shivi 2. Madhyamika
3. Mad 4. Maru

106. ',jh=JM4("CflT ~ ~ ~ m ?
1. mPcr 2. '1T~
3. lOlls 4. %

24
107. Who built the 'Kumbhalgarh Fort?
1. Prithvi Raj Chowhan 2. Rana Sanga
3. Udai Singh 4. Maharana Kumbha

107. '~~' ~ cHCll(Oj1 ?

L rr~ -In?H 2. ?JUTI BlTJT
3. '~C:,(OjR4$ 4. 4$1{IOII ~

108. Where the 'Taragarh Fort' is Situated?

1. Ajmer 2. Nagour
3. Abu 4. Sirohi

108. ffiWIC?~ %T ~ ~ % ?
1. ~ 2. ~
3. '3Wi 4. m-ffifr

109. Who was the author of 'Annals and Antiquities of Rajasthan' ?

1. Kaviraja Shyamal Das 2. Cot James Tod
3. GR.Ozha 4. Munshi Devi Prasad

109. .
'~-qus "Fcfg cl\l1 '3W-1 ?}J'R.!l-lR ''\''?
Q,ael f\
CfiT ~ CfiT'1 m .
L CfXCl~J\)'11~(Oj14M~lfl 2. m~ ifg
3. vTI.~. ~ 4. lfr~fr~ ~

110. In which year, the 'First battle of Tarain' was Fought?

1. 1190 AD. 2. 1191 AD.
3. 1192 AD. 4. 1206 AD.

11O. 'cmf.1 CfiT >T~ ~' CfiGf ~ T{(:lT ?

1. 1190 ~ 2. 1191 t
3. 1192 ~ 4. 1206 ~

111. 'Marwar Seva Sangh' was formed by Jainarain vyas in :

1. 1920 A.D. 2. 1939 A.D.
3. 1940 AD. 4. 1941 AD.

111. \)'1(Oj'iI{I(OjOI CIllB ~ '~ Ben B'tl' CfiT ~ ~ ?

1. 1920 ~ 2. 1939 t
3. 1940 ~ 4. 1941 ~

112. 'Mewar Praja Mandal' was established in:

1. 24 April, 1938 2. 21 Aug, 1942
3. 21 Dee, 1945 4. 1 Jan, 1946

25
112. '~>!<J11110Sfl' Cf5T mrq;rr rt ?
1. 24~, 1938 2. 21~, 1942
3. 21~, 1945 4. 1~, 1946

113. 'Timania' an ornament is worn by ladies around:

l. Waist 2. Neck
3. Hand 4. Feet

114. Which dynesty ruled in 'Mondore' ?

1. Pal 2. Pratihara
3. Rastra Kuta 4. Chalukya

114. '-.:ruiR' it fctB cj-~T C{)T ~m=Rm ?

1. LfWf
3. {1G<;;q"ic

115. Who did write 'Prithvi Raj Vijai' ?

1. Nansi 2. Dayal Das
3. Jayanak 4. Banki Das

115. '~~ ~' C{)T ~ ~ m ?

1. ~ 2. Ci'QIflCiJB
,., r-;
,). \~'1'QI'iCh 4. iSlICl?IC:.It1

116. 'Jaisalmer Praja MandaI' was formed in:

l. 1945 AD 2. 1935 AD
3. 1930 AD 4. 1939 AD

116. 'Jltlfl~{ >!<J1

111IJsfl , Cf5T mrq;rr rt ?
1. 1945 t. 2. 1935 t.
3. 1930 t. 4. 1939 t.
117 'Alwar Praja Mandal' was established in:
1. 1937 AD 2. 1938 AD
3. 1939 AD 4. 1940 AD

1. 1937 t. 2. 1938 t.
3. 1939~. 4. 1940 t.
26
 --
118. Who formed the 'Marwar Sewa Sangh' ?
1. Jainarain vyas 2. Manikya Lal Verma
3. Chand Mal Surana 4. Kapoor Chand Patani

118. ~ '~ ~' q)f ~ ~ ?

1. \Jj;q '1I~l;q 01 czm:r 2. lO:iIfill Cf<Ol M i(Tj Cfl1f
3. ~ WTUIT 4. Cflq:{ il ~ qrc;:fr

119. Which newspaper published by Vijai Singh Pathik ?

1. Prabhat 2. Lokvani
3. Rajasthan Kesari 4. Navjyoti

119. Rl\Jj;q m~ W-lGf) ~ fctB t/l1lill { ~ q)f S1CflT~R ~ ?

1. >r~ 2. \'11 CflC!Iofj
3. {[\iW-Wf m 4. '1C!"",M'd

120. 'Gogamedi fair' is held in the memory of which folk deity?

1. Tejaji 2. Gogaji
3. Mallinathji 4. Pabuji

120. 'lIPII~$i -itrrr' fcnB ~ m CfiT ~ £{ ~ \JfICfT % ?

1. ~ 2. ~
3. ~~ iJlt 4. 1Wi iJlt

121. In which place 'Mallinathji' temple is situated?

1. Tilwara 2. Asinda
3. Ram devara 4. Dhuwan

121. '~~' q)f ~ fcnB ~-Wf CR W-.rn % ?

1. RiMC!I!?1 2. ~
3. {111~c!{1 4. yq1

122. 'Paropkari Sabha' was formed in

1. 1883 AD 2. 1885 AD
3. 1890 AD 4. 1895 AD

122. 'qflqCflIRon B'm' q)f ~ ~ Tf(:IT m ?

1. 1883~. 2. 1885 ~.
3. 1890 t. 4. 1895 ~.

123. Who was the ruler of Chittor at the time Aluddin's invasion?
1. Prithvi Raj Chowhan 2. Kahan dev
3. Ratan Singh 4. Man Singh

123. 31#1 l\j~I'1 ~ in '3:rmJ11OT in ~ ~ COT ~W:1Cfl ~ :aT ?

1. gu:fm\J1" ~ 2. ~ ~
3. ~l? 4. I1Hr~ts

27
124. 'Lohagarh Fort' is situated at :
1. Jaipur 2. Bharat Pur
3. Jodhpur 4. Ajmer

124. 'MIi?IJIi?~' R~ % ?
1. ~ 2. ~
3. ;ir~ 4. ,~

125. Where the Junagarh Fort is situated?

1. Bikaner 2. Jaipur
3. Kota 4. Sirohi

125. '~~' ~ T:R ~ % ?

1. GnChI~{ 2. ~
3. c€tcr 4. rn-nm
126. Which one of the following new district of S.N. 33 of Rajasthan?
1. Pratapgarh 2. Rajsamand
3. Hanumangarh 4. Karouli

126. ~-.:rf1 Cf,T~ ~ 33 qf ~ % ?

1. >ldlqJIi? 2. {1,j1El4~
3. i?i41;:PIi? 4. CfJfu;fr

127. In Rajasthan, the tropic of cancer is passed through:

1. to Banswara Sirohi districts 2. to Durgapur Udaipur Districts
3. to Udaipur Pratapgarh districts 4. to Durgapur Banswara District

2. ~~~B
4. ~ qi~:1ClI$1~ B
128. Name of the dead river in Rajasthan?
1. Luni 2. Banas 3. Ghagghar 4. Mahi

3. crcr: 4. ~

129. Which characteristics of Rainy season is not found in Rajasthan?

1. Irregular Rainfall 2. Inedequate Rainfall
3. Unequal distribution of Rainfall 4. Heavy Rainfall

129. ~-.:rf1 if qlSll::{1 eFt ~ fEr~)q-m~ f?wrill % ?

1. crsIT ctrJl Pi q Iii ct 2. q lSII ctr31f.:1f!i~
3. crsIT eFtJl Elli I 'i ct I 4. crsIT ctr 'JlT~

28
 130, An ancient areas of Rajasthan, Durgapur & Banswara region is known as
1. Hadoti 2. Marwar
3. Mand 4. Bagar

130. ~ cfIBClP$1~~T, ~-TR ~ >11-q11fll1~~ii it ~ \rflli % ?

1. ~ 2. lfT7CIT?
3. lTfU5 4. ~

131. Causes of 'Hail Strom' is :

1. Thunderstorm
2. Gravity force
3. Condensation 4. Dust Strom

131. "~
0iIVllq q)f CfiR1 ~ - ?
1. r
~~ 2. :Jfl0=l1Cf) IS! 0 I GfVI"
3. ~ 4. 0i1f..~

132. Which of the following district has the 'Confluence of three rivers'
1. Banswara 2. Udaipur
3. Sirohi 4. Durgapur

132. 'ill"1" ~ q)f m ~-Wf' ~ m if % ?

1. Cfr~1Cllsl 2. ~
3. ffiinft' 4. ~

133. The state flower of Rajasthan is

1. Sunflower
,.., 2. Rose
.J. Rohida 4. Hajari

133. ~q)f~:rscr~% ?
1.
fL4:L~sfl 2.
3. -n~ 4.
~
~

134 Which district have highest rainfall in Rajasthan ?

1. Kota 2. Bundi
3. Sirdhi 4. Ihalawar

135. The sex ratio of Rajasthan in 2011 is :

1. 940 2. 950
3. 928 4. 920

135. ;:psf 2011 if ~ q)f fVjlljqlfl % ?

1. 940 2. 950
3. 928 4. 920

29
 --
136. Where is salar forest found in Rajasthan?
1. 1aisalmer 2. Kota 3. Barmer 4. Alwar

3.~ 4 ..3WfCR

137. The project constructed on river Banas is :

1. Parbati Project 2. Bisalpur Project
3. Mahi Project 4. Som-Kagdar Project

138. Bhakra-Nengal project has a share with the following states:

1. Madhya Pradesh & Rajasthan 2. Punjab & Rajasthan
3. Punjab & Haryana 4. Haryana, Pubjab & Rajasthan

138. ~ *wr qj),(Ol'I,jF"11 f.:r9 ~ ~ ~ it cAT ~ % ?

1. -q~~Tq~ 2. ~q~~
3. ~ q GP(Ol1"11 4. GR(OlI'iI, ~ ~ "D\lW--IT'i"

139. Which of the following are helpful in dealing with the problem of famine and drought in
Rajasthan ?
1. Artificial rain 2. Control over the march of desert
3. Sufficient facility of irrigation 4. All of above

139. ~ if 'JfCfi'm q ~ c€r ~ c€r ~ ~ ~ f.:r9 frB ~ ~ ~ ~ % ?

1. ~ Gft.1f 2. ~~ ~ ~ 1::l1 ~
3. ~ c€r ~ ~-TT Cfl01T 4. .-:,q ~~I
CfC1 B1fr

140. The factor which extremely affects agriculture in westem sandy areas is :
1. High temperature 2. Lack of Rainfall
3. Fertility of Soil 4. Desert topography

140. qf~ {diJi 'Ii'lWT if ~ rir wm '3W~ ~ ~ ~ CfKill % ?

1. \j"Ci:l ~ 2. Gft.1f c€r m
3. filtt c€r zcmn 4. ~. 'Ii ~

141. Which crop has the name of hybrid variety as mahi kanchan & Mahi Dhawal ?
1. Jowar 2. Bajra 3. Maize 4. Barley

30
 "
/'" lr ---
) l
. ~

147. Name of largest Salt lake in Rajasthan?

1. Lunkaransar 2. Didwana
3. Pachbadra 4. Sarnbhar

147. ~-TfTf if WlB q'fl @~ql1l ctT ~ % ?

""'C"~rr-.-r
L iiOICflFH"F 2. IssCl1'11
3. ~ 4. W'l-R
'.
148. Which of the following lakes is located in Bikaner?
1. Kolayat
3. Nakki
2. Puohkar
4. Anasagar
.,
148. c1ICflI1{ if ~ ~ ft':;-Tff %
1. CbI(1I£1(1 2. ~
3. ~ 4. Ji'iI{WI{

149. Which of the following districts fall in very humid climatic region
1. Jhalawar, Banswara 2. Bharatpur Dholpur
3. Alwar, Jaipur 4. Bundi - Sirohi

149. ~ B "JiM if '3Wr '3119: ~ >R~T if BI4J8-!\1 % ?

1. $lIMIClI$ clIBClI$1 2. ~,~
3. '~. '~'1~'i~ 4. ~,R~{)61

150. Which of the following winds are termed as 'Loo' ?

L Winds coming from the water-bodies 2. Hot winds blowing from the thar desert
3. Winds of same speed 4. Wmds blowing such as hot and sand - stroms,

150. '~fclffi:::rcfiR ctT ~ % ?

1. ~ ~ \JfM"~ B 'Jildl % I 2. Tflf ~ ~ m 11W..f\Tl B q cc11 % I
3. ~ ~ TTfu ~ 'itfr % I 4. $ClIQ ~ Tflf ~ ~ 'o/r ~1\11% I

32