SECTION-A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q.1-Q.30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Passage (Q.1 – Q.5): On 15 August 2021, the Taliban swept back to power in Kabul. This was less than a month
short of the 20th anniversary of the terrorist attacks of 11 September 2001 that launched the global ‘war on terror’
and precipitated the ouster of the Taliban from power in Afghanistan, in retaliation for their hosting of the Al-
Qaeda perpetrators of the attack.

On 7 September 2021, the Taliban announced their caretaker government, sporting a prime minister on the UN’s
sanctions list and an interior minister on the US’ terrorist list, and not a single woman. This came one week
before the UN International Day of Democracy celebrated on 15 September each year.
It is in this sobering context that the author seeks to address the strained nexus between terrorism, security and

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democracy that has often raised its head in the last twenty years of the ‘war on terror’ and deserves renewed

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scrutiny today. [1] In effect, the relationship between the three keywords that have dominated public discourse

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and in turn impelled or paralysed political decisions since the calamitous events of 9/11 has become increasingly

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complex over the past two decades. These keywords—democracy, security and terrorism—are not new for they
lie at the core of all debates on democracy since its early infancy in Mesopotamia, Athens and elsewhere. While
democracy and security have frequently been challenged through the centuries by extremists, secessionists,

critical self-examination and honest redress than today.

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terrorists, or other such threats, never have their relationships with each other been more vexed and in need of

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"In the fight against terrorism, democracies should not only pursue state or homeland security but human

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security." At this twentieth anniversary of the ‘war on terror’, despite the innumerable scholarly, political and

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public debates fostered by and since 9/11, democracy continues to face particular threats. These threats are
threefold.

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The first threat is the obvious one that Al-Qaeda-inspired terrorism undermines democracy both deliberately and
indirectly and attacks the security of citizens which is democracy’s central asset.

itself.
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The second is that the attempt to prevent terrorism through democracy promotion, a deliberate strategy of the
‘war on terror’, has backfired into a broad backlash against democracy promotion initiatives and democracy

Third, the pursuit of the ‘war on terror’ itself poses a significant threat to democracy by eroding the core values
of democracy, namely human rights, rule of law and legitimacy.
In effect, both terrorism and the war on terrorism have upset the delicate balance between democracy and security
and placed democracy at risk.
As we mark sombrely the 20th anniversary, it is more urgent than ever to recognise and redress these three threats
and the ways tr-in5R 6I 4Rhave endangered the fragile balance between security and democracy and initiated
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an insidious process of eroding democracy itself.

1. Which option, if true, weakens the argument of the author that the Taliban is a threat to democracy?
(a) The Taliban government now features women in their cabinet.
(b) The Taliban’s values have shifted greatly in the last twenty years for the better.
(c) The Taliban will continue to uphold what it believes and go to any lengths for that.
(d) The Taliban now vouches to engage with other countries.

2. The author of the passage has not mentioned which of the following in the passage?
(a) The nexus between terrorism, democracy and security.
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(b) Challenges of the threats to democracy from terrorism.
(c) Counters to the challenges of the threats to democracy.
(d) Taliban’s return to power in Afghanistan.

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 functions and jurisdictions. Such a law is expected to lead to a much-needed legislative oversight. This umbrella
organisation will help put an end to the multiplicity of proceedings.

The proposed central law for the umbrella investigative body can be replicated by the States as well because it
is the State level investigating agencies which handle most of the cases and they must enjoy the same level of
credibility as that of the national agency. Since the police have an active interface with the people, there is a need
to re-orient their training modules to reflect the changing needs and sensitise them about the people's concerns.

6. Which of the following words is closest to the word 'anathema'?

(a) Love (b) Opposite (c) Treasure (d) Curse

7. According to the passage, what could be the characteristics of authoritarianism?

(a) An Inhibition of individual freedom, dignity and cultural and social diversity.
(b) Corruption, harassment and excesses by the police force.
(c) An independent and autonomous investigative agency.
(d) Both a and b.

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8. What is the tone of the passage?
(a) Belligerent (b) Indignant (c) Commiserating

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(d) Dogmatic

9. Which of the following options uses the idiom 'hanging fire' correctly?
(a) The construction of the dam was hanging fire because of a lack of funds.

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(b) Ronald said that he was hanging fire on the agreement that Stef had proposed.

a
(c) The issue of slavery is hanging fire for a very long time.

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(d) Rahul was hanging fire for not getting the job.

10.

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What could be the most logical purpose of this article?
(a) Blame the government for the current state of the police department.

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(b) Apprise the readers of the current state of the police department and suggest reforms.
(c) Request the judiciary to take some action against the police department.
(d) Define Authoritarianism through the actions of the police department.

Passage (Q.11 – Q.15): Paragraph 1: Educational success today has boiled down to a number game. How well
you score in the Board and entrance exams ensure admission into the college of your choice. If you wish to
pursue a mainline, stereotypical career, then being a ‘good student’ is simply not good enough. You have to be
one of the best.

Paragraph 2: tr-
But not
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all
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are4Requally gifted. There will always be achievers and failures. Ever wondered how it
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goes for the ones in between? Those who didn’t score high yet haven’t failed. Those classified as ‘average
students’ or ‘low-scorers’. For these students, the pressure to succeed and consequent failure to achieve the
requisite grades causes anguish and despair. They feel treated as non-entities because, in our education system,
undue importance is given to high scorers. They need not lose hope however and must understand that numerous
career avenues are open for them, regardless of their scores in the Board exams.

Paragraph 3: Psychologist Swathi Menon insists that low scores are not the end of the world. ‘There are so many
avenues to explore. Most importantly, avoid making hasty decisions. Don’t panic and do not choose an unsuitable
vocation. Take time off to think right. You need to acknowledge your negative feelings and vent these off. A
problem shared is a problem halved. Look 6Lup4Rvocational courses designed to provide you with practical skills
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for work that could make you highly employable. Crisis or disappointments are a part of life. You need to deal
with these effectively to move on,” she advises.

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 Passage (Q.16 – Q.20): Freedom of religion encompasses all religions acting within the law in a particular
region, whether or not an individual religion accepts that other religions are legitimate or that freedom of
religious choice and religious plurality in general are good things. Exclusivist religions teach that theirs is the
only way to salvation and to religious truth, and some of them would even argue that it is necessary to suppress
the falsehoods taught by other religions. Some Protestant sects argue fiercely against Roman Catholicism, and
fundamentalist Christians of all kinds teach that religious practices like those of paganism and witchcraft are
pernicious. This was a common historical attitude prior to the Enlightenment and has appeared as governmental
policy into the present day under systems like Afghanistan's Taliban regime, which destroyed the ancient
Buddhas of Bamyan. Many religious believers believe that religious pluralism should entail not a competition
but cooperation, and argue that societal and theological change is necessary to overcome religious differences
between different religions, and denominational conflicts within the same religion. For most religious traditions,
this attitude is essentially based on a non-literal view of one's religious traditions, hence allowing for respect to
be engendered between different traditions on fundamental principles rather than more marginal issues. It is

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perhaps summarized as an attitude which rejects focus on immaterial differences and instead gives respect to

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those beliefs held in common. Giving one religion or denomination special rights that are denied to others can

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weaken religious pluralism. This situation obtains in certain European countries, where Roman Catholicism or

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regional forms of Protestantism have special status. Relativism, the belief that all religions are equal in their
value and that none of the religions gives access to absolute truth, is an extreme form of inclusivism. Likewise,
syncretism, the attempt to take over creeds of practices from other religions or even to blend practices or creeds

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from different religions into one new faith is an extreme form of inter-religious dialogue. Syncretism must not
be confused with ecumenism, the attempt to bring closer and eventually reunite different denominations of one
religion that have a common origin but were separated by a schism. The existence of religious pluralism depends

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on the existence of freedom of religion. Freedom of religion exists when different religions of a particular region

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possess the same rights of worship and public expression. Freedom of religion is restrained in many Islamic

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countries, such as in Saudi Arabia, where the public practice of religions other than Islam is forbidden; in Iran,

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where the Baha'is have no legal rights and are persecuted, and in the Palestinian Authority, where Arab Christians
report they are frequent victims of religious persecution by Muslims. Religious freedom did not exist at all in
many Communist countries such as Albania and the Stalinist Soviet Union, where the state prevented the public

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expression of religious belief and even persecuted some or all religions. This situation persists still today in North
Korea, and to some extent, in China and Vietnam.

According to the author, what is the basic governing principle of the freedom of religion?
(a) The freedom that people of a certain religion have to choose the region of inhabitation.
(b) The legitimacy of various religions and their acceptance of other religions.
(c) The co-existence of a number of religions acting within the law in a particular region.
(d) The religions of a particular region possess different rights of worship and public expression.

17. The non-literal view

tr-5R
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4S3E one’s
1L6I 4R religious traditions is based on:
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(a) The competition between the different religions and religious beliefs.
(b) The historical attitude responsible for destroying the Buddha statues in Bamyan.
(c) The special rights assigned to a particular religion over other religions.
(d) The attitude that focuses on common beliefs rather than the immaterial differences between religions.

18. How does the author reinforce his opinion about the weakening of religious pluralism?
(a) The author’s example of the destruction of the Buddha statues at Bamyan and the reason behind their
destruction.
(b) The author’s statement about giving special rights to a religion and denying other religions of those rights
which can lead to a weakening of religious
6L4R pluralism.
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(c) The example of European countries where Roman Catholicism or regional forms of Protestantism have
special status.
(d) The author mentions the need for cooperation instead of competition for freedom of religion.

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24. “…allow them to contribute more fully and effectively to their community.”
The word ‘effectively’ is a/an
(a) Adverb (b) Noun (c) Verb (d) Adjective

Passage (Q.25 – Q.30): Former Reserve Bank of India (RBI) governor Raghuram Rajan said that consumers are
benefiting in a big way from the business of scale with several services in the new technology age coming for
free or very cheap, but it needs to be seen whether this can continue going ahead. Speaking in Davos at a session
of the World Economic Forum (WEF) annual meeting, Mr. Rajan said we benefit tremendously from the business
of scale; there are benefits of efficiency at large corporations, and consumers are gaining in a big way from low
prices. For example, Google provides a big amount of free services, said Mr. Rajan, who teaches at Chicago
University and is regarded as a global voice on economy.

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Mr. Rajan said that we all know nothing is free, so it needs to be known who is paying for it when consumers

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get it for free. He also wondered whether the business of scale is creating superstar firms” and who has the real

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power — is it large corporations or the governments? ‘Obviously, they are making money somewhere, and we

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need to know whether the two revenue sides of consumers and advertisers are comparable when it comes to data
and technology platforms” he added. Mr. Rajan said we need to think whether competition would continue in
the future.

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“The concern is not so much about today but about tomorrow. We need to think whether these benefits from the
scale would continue for the consumers,” he said and added that “more than being about too big to manage, it is

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about too big to control. Our corporations are becoming too big to control for our political systems”. The

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panellists at the session also discussed big-ticket mergers, digital platforms and market uncertainty that are

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transforming industries across the world. They also discussed how businesses are responding to this new strategic
context.

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Bank of America chief Brian T. Moynihan, Google senior vice-president Ruth Porat and Blackstone group CEO

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Stephen Schwarzman were among the participants. Mr. Moynihan said the banking industry in U.S. is still very
unconsolidated, though there are big firms like Bank of America. He also defended a strong regulatory
framework for the banking industry, saying one cannot take money from people without having a strong set of
regulations and market uncertainty that are transforming industries across the world. They also discussed how
businesses are responding to this new strategic context.

Asked whether data is the new oil, Mr. Porat said data is much better as it is not limited and data keeps getting
generated by all of us.

Mr. Rajan said the U.S. 6I

1Lhas
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7O4C 4Ralways been very uncomfortable with any entity being very big, starting with banks
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in the 1930s. He said Facebook and Google are being talked about a lot today, but the U.S. has a history of
proceeding against firms that became very big, and they were broken down. However, things are changing now
because of China coming into the picture.

25. Which of the following concerns did Mr. Rajan express?

(a) The corporations may be getting too big to control.
(b) The free services need to be accounted for by the companies.
(c) The existence of competition in markets.
(d) All of the above.
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 SECTION-B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Directions (Q.31–Q.65): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Passage(Q.31-Q.37): Negotiators for the Ethiopian government and regional forces from Tigray were due to
meet in the South African capital Pretoria for the first formal peace talks since war broke out two years ago. The
talks come after the Ethiopian military and their allies, who include troops from neighbouring Eritrea, captured
several large towns in Tigray, a region in northern Ethiopia, over the past week. The situation on the ground
appeared to put the government in a stronger position than its opponents going into the talks, though it was under
pressure from foreign powers, including the United States and European Union, to halt its offensive.

The war stems from a power struggle between the federal government and the authorities in Tigray, who
dominated a coalition that governed Ethiopia for almost three decades until they lost their grip on power in 2018.

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The conflict has killed thousands, displaced millions, and left hundreds of thousands on the brink of famine. It

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has also further destabilised the perennially volatile Horn of Africa region and complicated Ethiopia's diplomatic
relations with Western allies, who have been calling for a ceasefire.

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31. Which of the following statement is correct about the Tigray War?

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(a) The Tigray War is an ongoing civil war in the western part of the African Continent.
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other.
(c) Both a and b

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(b) The Ethiopian federal government is fighting on one side, and the TPLF and Eritrea are fighting on the

32.
(d) None of the above

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Which of the following statement is incorrect about the African Union?

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(a) The African Union was announced in the Sirte Declaration on September 9, 1999, in Sirte, Libya.
(b) The AU's intention was to replace the Organisation of African Unity (OAU), which was founded in May
1963 in Addis Ababa by 32 signatory governments.

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(c) The current chairperson of the African Union belongs to South Africa.
(d) None of the above.

Which of the following statement is correct about the Horn of Africa?

(a) The Horn of Africa (HoA), also referred to as the Ethiopian Peninsula.
(b) It runs along the Dead Sea's southern rim.
(c) The Horn of Africa Region includes the internationally recognised countries of Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia,
and Somalia, as well as the de facto self-proclaimed Somaliland.
(d) Both a and b.
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34. Who is the current Prime Minister of Ethiopia?
(a) Hailemariam Desalegn (b) Abiy Ahmed
(c) Meles Zenawi (d) Tamrat Layne

35. What is the correct expansion of TPLF?

(a) Tigray People's Liberal Federation
(b) Tigray’s Promotion of Liberation Foundation
(c) Tigray’s People Liberation Federation
(d) Tigray People's Liberation Front
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36. The International Criminal Court is seated in which of the following country?
(a) Switzerland (b) USA (c) Netherlands (d) France

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44. Shaktikanta Das is serving as _______ governor of India.
(a) 24th (b) 25th (c) 26th (d) 27th

Passage(Q.45-Q.51): Four years after it was placed on the “grey list” and penalised with severe financial
strictures by the Financial Action Task Force, Pakistan won a major reprieve on Friday, as the international
watchdog on terror financing and money laundering agreed to remove Pakistan’s name from the list of countries
under “increased monitoring”. Reacting to the decision, the Ministry of External Affairs said that Pakistan must
continue to take “credible, verifiable, irreversible and sustainable” action against terror groups on its soil.

In all, the FATF said Pakistan had completed two action plans comprising a 34-point task list in the period since
2018, and in a statement said that it “welcomes Pakistan’s significant progress” in its AML/CFT mechanisms.

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“We are satisfied after a FATF inspection team went down, spoke to the authorities took a look, and verified,

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and they were satisfied that there’s a high-level political commitment on the part of the Pakistani authorities to

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not just implement the current set of action steps that they need to take, but they’re also committed to ongoing

45. Which of the following statement is correct about the Financial Action Task Force?

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reform,” said FATF President [1] from Singapore, speaking to the media at the end of the plenary session.

policies to combat terrorism financing and money laundering.

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(a) The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is a joint initiative of G7 and the UN Security Council to develop

(b) FATF was established at the 1989 G7 Summit in Washington, D.C., and is headquartered there as well.

financing in 2001.
(d) Both a and b

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(c) Following the September 11th terror attacks, the organization's mandate was expanded to include terrorist

a
46.

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Which of the following statement is incorrect about Group of Seven (G7)?
(a) The G7 is an intergovernmental political forum comprised of Australia, Canada, France, Germany, Japan,

IMF.
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the United Kingdom, and the United States.
(b) Its member nations are the world's largest developed economies and liberal democracies, as defined by the

(c) Russia was a formal member of the group (as part of the Group of Eight) from 1997 to 2014.
(d) None of the above.

47. When did India become a member of the FATF?

(a) 2006 (b) 2008 (c) 2010 (d) 2012

48. Which of the tr-

following
5J7G
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6L4C country of India was recently moved to the ‘black list’ of FATF?
(a) China (b) Myanmar (c) Nepal (d) Sri Lanka

49. Which of the following statement is correct about the Gulf Cooperation Council?
(a) The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) comprises Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the
United Arab Emirates
(b) The main headquarters of the council is in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
(c) The GCC's current member states are all monarchies
(d) All of the above

50. Who is the current Chief Economist7Oof4S3L

the1LInternational
6L4R Monetary Fund?
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(a) Gita Gopinath (b) Kristalina Georgieva
(c) Pierre-Olivier Gourinchas (d) Surjit Bhalla

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56. Where will the 2022 United Nations Climate Change Conference conference be held?
(a) Geneva (b) Shubra El Kheima
(c) Sharm El Sheikh (d) Glasgow

57. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were proposed and set up by which of the following international
body?
(a) UN Economic and Social Council
(b) UN General Assembly
(c) United Nations Environment Programme
(d) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

58. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) is an agency of which of the following ministry of the government
of India?
(a) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

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(c) Prime Minister’s Office.
(d) None of the above

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Passage(Q.59-Q.65): The Centre on Wednesday withdrew the long-awaited Personal Data Protection (PDP)
Bill, 2019 to replace it with a new bill with a ‘comprehensive framework’ and ‘contemporary digital privacy
laws’.

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The PDP bill was first introduced in Lok Sabha on December 11, 2019. The bill was referred to Joint

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Parliamentary Committee, which tabled its report in Lok Sabha on December 16, 2021. The committee proposed

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a single law for dealing with both personal and non-personal datasets. The report was also under dispute as it
suggested moving towards complete localisation of data.

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The withdrawn Bill had proposed restrictions on the use of personal data without the explicit consent of citizens.
It had also sought to provide the government with powers to give exemptions to its probe agencies from the
provisions of the Act, a move that was strongly opposed by the opposition MPs who had filed their dissent notes.

A statement containing the reasons for the withdrawal was circulated to the members of Lok Sabha. Reportedly
the statement included that the government was working on a comprehensive legal framework considering 81
amendments and 12 recommendations proposed by the JPC.

After the Bill was withdrawn, the Minister of State for IT tweeted that this will soon be replaced by a
comprehensive 1L6I 4R
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5Jframework
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7O4C of global standard laws including digital privacy laws for contemporary and future
challenges, and catalyses Prime Minister Narendra Modi's vision.

59. Consider the following statements about The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital
Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021.
I. Social media intermediaries, with registered users in India above a notified threshold, have been classified
as significant social media intermediaries (SSMIs).
II. SSMIs are required to observe certain additional due diligence such as appointing certain personnel for
compliance, enabling identification of the first originator of the information on its platform under certain
conditions, and deploying technology-based measures on a best-effort basis to identify certain types of
content. 6L4R
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Which of the abovementioned statements is false?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) None of the above

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 SECTION - C: LEGAL REASONING

Directions(Q.66-Q.105): Read the comprehension and answer the questions:

Passage (Q.66 – Q.70): Marriage as an institution gives rise to a relationship between two partners. This
relationship also gives birth to different sets rights and obligations. These rights and obligations cumulatively
constitute ‘Conjugal rights’ and can be termed as essence of the marital union. The term ‘Conjugal Rights’ in
literal sense means ‘Right to stay together’. The same has its origins in feudal English Law, which at that time
considered a wife to be the chattel of the husband and not from any religious obligations or personal laws.
The section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act and under section 22 of the Special Marriage Act provide that when
either the husband or the wife has, without reasonable excuse, withdrawn from the society of the other, the
aggrieved party may apply, by petition to the district court, for restitution of conjugal rights and the court, on

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being satisfied of the truth of the statements made in such petition and that there is no legal ground why the
application should not be granted, may decree restitution of conjugal rights accordingly.

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In T. Saritha Vengata Subbiah v. State, the court had ruled that that S.9 of Hindu Marriage Act relating to
restitution of conjugal rights as unconstitutional because this decree clearly snatches the privacy of wife by

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compelling her to live with her husband against her wish. In Harvinder Kaur v. Harminder Singh, the judiciary
again went back to its original approach and held Section 9 of Hindu Marriage Act as completely valid. The ratio
of this case was upheld by the court in Saroj Rani v. S.K. Chadha.

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In our country every citizens have a fundamental right to associate with anyone according to his/her wish, by the
matrimonial remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is freedom is violated as a wife is compelled to have an

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association against her will, with her husband. In Huhhram v. Misri Bai the court passed the restitution against

a
the will of the wife. In this case though the wife had clearly stated that she would not wish to live with her

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husband, still the court went ahead and gave the judgment in favour of the husband. This the primary shortcoming

66.
or regressive application of this archaic law.

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In which of the following grounds has the section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act has been criticized or challenged:

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I. Restitution of conjugal rights is an archaic law enacted as a result of patriarchy.
II. Inhibiting from exercising one’s sexual autonomy, the section is violative of right to privacy conferred by
article 21 of the Constitution.
III. Being forced to live with the other spouse violates freedom to reside in any part of the country and the
freedom to pursue profession of one’s choice.
IV The remedy of restitution to a spouse cannot be drawn from the personal laws of any religion in the country.
Choose the correct option:
(a) I and II (b) IV and II (c) III only (d) I, II and IV

67. Leanord and Penny4C have been

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be shackled by the marital bonds and pursue her abandoned acting career. So, she leaves their house to live all
by herself in Bombay for finding her inner self. After she left, Leanord made an application under section 9 of
the Hindu Marriage Act for restitution of conjugal rights. Penny has contested the petition contending that she
has a valid reason behind leaving and she no more fits in the institution of marriage. The matter is pending before
the district court for judgment. Choose the correct option.
(a) The court shall not allow the application as law cannot force Penny to stay with Leanord in derogation of her
right to privacy which ensures her sexual autonomy.
(b) The court shall allow the application as the decision of separation in an institution of marriage is bound to
be a mutual one as allowed in the cases of divorce.
(c) The court shall not allow the application as realizing that one no more fits into the institution and leaving to
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explore one’s inner self is a tr- 5R7O4S3L1L6L
reasonable excuse to separate from spouse.
(d) The court shall allow the application as Penny separated from Leanord without any reasonable excuse which
warrants strict order of restitution of conjugal rights.

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 Passage (Q.71 – Q.76): In India the law addressing child labour is known as the Child Labour (Prohibition and
Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016. This law regulates the employment of children and does not allow children
below the age of 14 to work except as a child artist and in a family business. The Constitution of India, 1950
under Article 21(A) mandates free and compulsory education for all children in the age group of 6-14 years.
Article 24 also specifically prohibits the employment of children below the age of fourteen years in dangerous
factories which may cause them physical as well as long term mental harm.

The child labour law in India classifies children below the age of 18 into 2 categories, child (below 14 years)
and adolescents (between 14-18 years). The work which is allowed under the law depends on which age category
the child falls in. It is illegal for any person to employ or allow children under the age of 14 in any form of
occupation except as a child artist, or in a family business. A child as well as adolescent is allowed to work in a
family business to support the family, but only after school hours and during vacations.

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For adolescents between the ages of 14-18, the law strictly prohibits them from working in a particular list of

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hazardous non-industrial and industrial processes, such as mines or places which use inflammable substances or
explosives, firework shops, slaughter houses, food processing industry, etc.

rs .
Under the child labour law in India, any person who employs a child or an adolescent in any labour work will

k e
be punished. Punishment for employing a child is imprisonment between six months and two years and/or a fine
between Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 50,000 and for employing an adolescent in any illegal occupation is imprisonment
for a period between six months and two years and/or fine between Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 50,000 and imprisonment

71.

r n
between one to three years if a person continues with child labour after having been punished once.

a
Kriti was a 17 year old girl living with her mother and grandmother. She had the sole responsibility to support

o p
them because of the sudden demise of her father in an accident. After this incident, she was left as the only
earning member of her family. She started doing multiple shifts in a call centre to afford basic necessities for her
family and pay her own school fees. However, the income generated from this was not enough for the family.

T
She soon found a new well paid job in a firework industry, where she just had to monitor the works of the
labourers and report to the supervisor every evening. As soon as the authorities got to know about Kriti, they
rescued her and charged the supervisor for employing a child in the firework industry. Whether the supervisor
is guilty for employing a child or not?
(a) The supervisor is not guilty because the job in the firework industry was just a part time job for Kriti and she
worked full time only in a call-center.
(b) The supervisor is not guilty because the job for which Kriti was employed was only to monitor the work of
other laborers, which is non-hazardous in nature, though the industry is of hazardous nature.
(c) The supervisor is guilty because he employed a 17 year old girl in an industry, who should be focused on
her studies at7Gthis
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(d) The supervisor is guilty because he employed Kriti, an adolescent in a firework industry which is hazardous
in nature and is impermissible under the law.

72. Jahnavi was an extremely talented dancer from a very small age. Her parents belonged to a poor community and
therefore they couldn’t pay for her dance classes. One of the members of Nritya Sangam, another community of
their village proposed that if they allow her to perform in the functions organized by them, he will pay for
Jahnavi’s dance classes and help them to meet their expenses. Another member of Jahnavi’s community was not
happy with this arrangement and therefore filed a complaint against the member of the Nritya Sangam
community under the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016. Will this person be
punished as Jahnavi was only 11 years old at the time?
6L4R
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(a) No, the person should not be punished as the law permits any person to employ or allow children under the
age of 14 to work as a child artist.

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 (b) Abhay’s parents should not be punished for involving him in their family business because even a child
below the age of 14 can work in a family business to support his family.
(c) Abhay’s parents should not be punished for involving him in their family business because due to his father’s
accident he was the only earning member left in the family and he has to skip school to meet his family’s
needs.
(d) Abhay’s parents should not be punished for involving him in their family business because making bangles
is not hazardous work and it is permissible to work in such an industry under the law.

76. Assertion (A): It is legal for any person to employ or allow children under the age of 14 in any form of occupation
except as a child artist, or in a family business.
Reasoning (R): Under the child labour law in India, any person who employs a child or an adolescent in any
labour work will be punished.
(a) A is incorrect, R is correct.
(b) A & R both are correct, and R is the correct explanation for A.
(c) A & R both are correct, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
(d) A is incorrect, R is incorrect.

c o m
rs .
Passage (Q.77 – Q.81): General Defences, as the phrase indicates, are like weapons in the hands of the
defendants (also called ‘tortfeasor’) which help them evade liability. One of such defence is Volenti Non Fit

k e
Injuria. This phrase derived from Latin translates to: “to a willing person, injury is not done,” In simple words,
it states that when a person voluntarily consents to a risk of injury, being aware of the consequences of it, then
that person cannot bring a claim against the other party, for any injuries suffered. Consent under the Law of Torts

n
has two elements involved in it. They are: knowledge of the party and voluntary agreement to the risks.

a
Therefore, if both of the above elements are present in a Tort, then the defence of volenti non fit injuria can be

r
claimed. But it must be kept in mind that such consent is not valid (a) If it is given under any kind of

o p
misconception and accused knows about it (b) If consent is given while intoxicated (c) If given by a person of
unsound mind (d) Consent is given by a person under 12 years of age who does not have the maturity to
understand the consequences of the act. However, this defence has exceptions: (i) Carelessness of the other party:

T
you consent to the risks of the game but not the carelessness of the other party. (ii) However what you must
appreciate is, under the Law of Torts, a rescuer is not considered to have voluntarily accepted to the risks.
In this case, your actions do not contain your consent. Therefore, your claim will stand not only because you
wanted to rescue the child but also for the negligence of the stadium authorities for not maintaining the stadium
properly. However, it is also seen that sometimes a person doesn’t need to rescue, and yet the person acts in
rescue thereby claiming the exception of the defence. Then his claim will not succeed. (iii) Illegal acts: To claim
the defence of volenti non fit injuria, the act committed by the defendant must not be illegal or unlawful.

77. X learned that Y had lately purchased a large amount of diamond jewellery in preparation for her daughter's
wedding the following 4S3E
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month.
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aware of this, he chose to attack the same night. Y's servant caught him and started screaming as he was ready
to escape with the jewellery. Y and her husband entered the room. As a result, X pointed a revolver at Y's husband
and threatened to shoot him if they did not let him escape with the valuables. Because Y had already contacted
the police, she was unconcerned about what would happen and informed X that she didn't care because the police
were already on their way. When he heard this, X became enraged and shot Y's husband. X claimed volenti
non fit injuria when Y reported him to the police. Decide.
(a) X can assert volenti non fit injuria because he had previously told Y of the possibility of shooting, to which
she consented.
(b) X cannot assert volenti non fit injuria since the necessary conditions are not met in this circumstance.
(c) X can plead volenti non fit injuria because
6L4RY was aware that X would undoubtedly shoot her husband.
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(d) X cannot contend volenti non fit injuria since Y consented under threat of harm.

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 Passage (Q.82 – Q.86): Negligence in legal terms means the breach of a duty of care that result in damage. The
following three ways make the constituents for negligence: a legal duty to exercise due care on the part of the
party complained of towards the party complaining the former’s conduct within the scope of duty; breach of the
same duty and consequential damages. Medical negligence is a combination of two words. The second word
solely describes the meaning, though the meaning of negligence has not been described in a proper way but it is
an act recklessly done by a person resulting in foreseeable damages to the other. Negligence is an offense under
tort, IPC, Indian Contracts Act, Consumer Protection Act and many more. Medicine is such a profession where
a practitioner is supposed to have requisite knowledge and skill needed for the purpose and has a duty to exercise
reasonable duty of care while dealing with the patient. The standard of the care depends upon the nature of the
profession. A surgeon or anesthetist will be determined by the standard skill of average practitioner in that field
while in case of specialists, a higher skill is needed. If the doctor or a specialist doesn’t attend a patient admitted
in emergency or under his surveillance and the patient dies or becomes victim of consequences which could have

m
been avoided with due care from the doctor, the doctor can be held liable under medical negligence. Moreover,

o
the liability of the doctor cannot be invoked now and then and he can’t be held liable just because something has

c
gone wrong. For fastening the liability, very high degree of such negligence is required to be proved. Res Ipsa

rs .
Loquitur means ‘things speak for itself’. While deciding the liability of the doctor it has to be well established
that the negligence pointed out should be a breach in due care which an ordinary practitioner would have been
able to keep.

82.

k e
X experienced an extremely severe stomach infection. He tried a number of medications, but the ache got worse
every day. When he eventually visited a doctor, he was told that he would need to have a surgery so that the

n
cause of his pain could be removed. The medication that would have kept his blood pressure at the proper level

a
throughout surgery was not given to him by the doctor. Fortunately, he had already had a healthy blood pressure

r
level, which helped the surgery go smoothly. The family of X sued the doctor after learning about his negligence.

o p
What are your thoughts on the situation at hand?
(a) Since the doctor failed to provide the patient the necessary medication, which could have led to further harm,
he should be held accountable for his negligence.

T
(b) Since the doctor failed to inform X of the change in blood pressure level before to the surgery, he should be
made responsible.
(c) Considering that X was obligated to inform the doctor of his blood pressure fluctuation before the procedure,
the doctor shouldn't be held accountable.
(d) Since the prerequisites for holding the doctor liable under the negligence tort are not satisfied in this instance,
the doctor should not be made liable.

83. Choose the one that, in your opinion, best fits the passage's facts and the assertion it contains.
(a) The doctor can also be held liable even if something minor goes wrong or have his liability brought up
sometimes. 6I 4R degree of such negligence is not required to be demonstrated in order to establish
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the culpability.
(b) There is a legal obligation for the party being complained of to exert reasonable care for the party
complaining about the former's conduct within the limits of the duty. A breach of the same duty and
subsequent damages are necessary to hold a person accountable.
(c) Medicine is one of those professions where the practitioner must have the information and skills necessary
for the job in addition to having an obligation to treat patients with a decent amount of care. The nature of
the profession is irrelevant to the level of care required.
(d) Though it hasn't been properly defined, negligence is defined as an action performed irresponsibly by one
person that causes another person to suffer an unanticipated harm.
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 Passage (Q.87 – Q.91): Damnum Sine Injuria is a legal maxim which refers to damages without injury or
damages in which there is no infringement of any legal right, which is vested with the plaintiff. Since no legal
right has been infringed, no action lies in the cases of Damnum Sine Injuria. It is an implied principle in law that
there are no remedies for any moral wrongs, unless and until any legal right has been infringed. Even if the act
or omission done by the defendant was intentional, the court will not grant any damages to the plaintiff. So, it
can be rightly said that an act which is lawfully or legally done, without negligence and in the exercise of a legal
right, such damages as comes to another thereby is damage without injury whereas Injuria Sine Damnum is a
violation of a legal right without causing any harm, loss or damage to the plaintiff and whenever any legal right
is infringed, the person in whom the right is vested is entitled to bring an action. So in total, Injuria Sine Damnum
refers to the remedies which are provided in the form of damages or compensation in violation of any legal right,
such that if the legal right is violated then an action lies even if there is no harm to another. In other words, it is
an infringement of a right where no loss is suffered but it creates a cause of action. The conclusion of the two
maxims are such that one is a moral wrong for which the law gives no remedy even though they cause great loss

o m
or detriment to the plaintiff’s but on the other hand other one is a legal wrong for which the law does give a legal
remedy though there be a violation of a private right, without actual loss or detriment in that particular case.

c
.
87. Given that there was no bakery in the entire area, X opened one in the H district. He had a monopoly on the

rs
business. He charged more than what was going on in the market in other districts. One G moved into the same
district and chose to open a bakery because he had 10 years of experience in the industry. He used higher-quality

e
materials than X and priced 10% less for all items as compared to X. As a result, demand for X's items
plummeted, and he incurred a significant loss. As a result, he filed a lawsuit against G for monetary damages. G
claimed Damnum Sine Injuria as a defence.

n k
(a) G's claim is valid since the requirements of Damnum Sine Injuria are met in this case.

a
(b) G's claim is invalid since the circumstances in the given case do not satisfy the prerequisites of Damnum

r
Sine Injuria.
(c) G's claim is invalid because G violated X’s right to freedom of trade and profession.

88.
o p
(d) G's argument is convincing because he has the freedom to follow any profession he wants.
T was a leading figure in fashion. She intended to do just one video out of the two because her followers had

T
consistently asked her to do one on both her skincare routine and diet plan. To allow her followers decide, she
posted a poll on her story. R was ready to cast her ballot when her Feedgram suddenly stopped working,
preventing her from doing so. As a result, T's diet plan received the most votes, whereas R preferred it to be a
skincare regimen. Feedgram was sued by her for violating her right to vote. Comment on R's actions and the
measures she took.
(a) R is entitled to compensation from Feedgram since the error of the application resulted in a violation of her
right to vote.
(b) R is not eligible for compensation because Feedgram was not at fault for the app's discontinuation since it
was a result of her excessive use of the app.
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(c) Since neither 7Othe
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tr-5R of injuria sine damnum nor damnum sine injuria are met in the particular
situation, R is not qualified to receive compensation from Feedgram.
(d) R is entitled to compensation from Feedgram because the app's technical defect prevented her from casting
a vote, which prevented her from streaming the video of her choice.
89. M submitted applications to six schools, with XYZ School being her top preference. During the admissions
process, she went to XYZ School to enroll in standard 11. There, she was rejected admission for no apparent
reason. She was soon contacted by PJ School, which had accepted her application and offered her admission.
Despite being admitted to a school, she chose to submit a complaint against XYZ School for depriving her of
her right to education without justifiable grounds. What are your thoughts on the given instance?
(a) Since M was finally admitted to PJ School, 6L4R
she is not allowed to complain about XYZ School.
tr-5R7O4S3L1L
(b) M is not eligible to complain about XYZ School since they are not obligated to let her know why she was
turned down for admission.
(c) M has the right to sue XYZ School under the provisions of the maxim of Injuria Sine Damnum.
(d) M has the right to sue XYZ School since she was denied admission without being given a valid explanation.
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92. Hari has wanted to colour his hair for quite some time. It was his birthday, and he went to Harpreet's saloon-
style edge, where Harpreet treated Hari's hair with a dye and as a result Hari contracted dermafitis. The
manufacturers of the dye, M & Kinsley Company had delivered the dye to Harpreet in labelled bottles together
with a small brochure of instructions. Both the label and the brochure contained a warning that the dye might be
dangerous to certain skins and a test of skin was recommended before it was used. Hari sues the manufacturers
M & Kinsley Company for negligence for product liability. Would the manufacturers of the dye be held liable
to Hari?
(a) No, but Harpreet can file a damage suit against the manufacturers of the dye, M & Kinsley Company.
(b) No, as Products contained inherent defects that has caused harm to a Hari.
(c) No, as the liability of Harpreet comes in the picture for his negligence.
(d) No, as there is no manufacturing defect that has caused harm to the consumer.

93.

c o m
D, a doctor, inoculate some children with Hepatitis B vaccine. The children were taken ill because of the presence
of some toxin in the vaccine used by D who purchased it from C, a reputed chemist. C, in turn, had purchased
the vaccine from M, the manufacturer. Decide the liability, if any, of C and M towards the children.
(a) All of them including D, will be held liable based on the principle of negligence.
(b) M and then C will be held liable in order under product liability suit.
(c) C and then M will be held liable in order under product liability suit.

rs .
the product would be the subjects of products liability suits.

k e
(d) Both C and D will be held liable as Products containing inherent defects that cause harm to a consumer of

94.

r an
Yashasvi purchased a pair of blue jeans from 'Lovely Outfitters' at Ansal Plaza for his girlfriend Girija. Girija
developed acute dermatitis as a result of wearing it due to the presence of extra sulphites, which were discovered
to have been irresponsibly left in the denim manufacturing process. The denim had been purchased from a cloth

o p
mill and therefore the defendant, the manufacturer of the jeans, did not know of the defect in the cloth. In a
damages complaint brought by Girija, the defendant claims, among other things, that he did nothing to prevent
examination before the trousers reached the real user, and that he did not sell the garment to Girija in any

T
case. Is defendant’s plea maintainable?
(a) Yes, as it should be the buyer who should been more careful while purchasing the item.
(b) No, as the buyer was prevented from conducting the examination of the cloth and thus defendant’s plea is
not maintainable.
(c) Yes, as the seller did not prevent the examination before the trousers reached the real user.
(d) No, as the Products containing inherent defects that cause harm to a consumer of the product would be the
subjects of products liability suits.

95. Z purchased a pullover for her husband, H, from an outfitters based in Kamla Park, Mumbai. After wearing it,
H suffered acute 1L6I
dermatitis
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manufacturing of the wool. The wool was not manufactured by the defendant's pullover manufacturer; it was
purchased from another manufacturer, and hence the defendant was unaware of the flaw in the wool. In an action
for damages brought by H, the defendant pleads inter alia, that he had done nothing to prevent examination
before the garment reached the actual user and in case he did not sell the garment to H. Make your case for H.
(a) The product disputed will be made a subject of product liability suit.
(b) H had acted negligently as he failed to examine the product before buying it from the outfitter.
(c) The Product contained inherent defects that harmed H and thus the manufacturers should be held liable.
(d) H will lose the case since the suit for damages in the current case is against the manufacturer from whom
defendants purchased.
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 (c) Y is permitted to use the mistake of fact as a defense under section 79 because it occurs when an accused
person misinterprets a fact that disproves a crime's element.
(d) Y cannot assert the defense of insanity since the conditions that necessitate it have not been met.

99. J was rushing to get to his office on time because he had a crucial customer meeting to attend. He was due to get
at his office by 10am, but it was then 9:45 and he was still 30 minutes away. He would receive a raise if he could
work out the deal with the client. Therefore, he moved against the flow of traffic, did not follow the traffic lights
and drove pretty quickly. The traffic cops pulled him over at the next stop and seized his license. J claims mistake
of fact. Decide.
(a) J may assert a defense of fact given that he misunderstood the direction of traffic and accidentally disregarded
traffic signals in an effort to make it to work on time.
(b) J cannot claim that he made a mistake of fact because breaching the rules cannot excuse him from the offence.
He must be aware of them and obey them.

their life.

c m
(c) J cannot use mistake of fact as an excuse because his carelessness could have resulted in someone losing

o
(d) Since the prerequisites have been met, J may invoke the defense provided by Section 79 of the Indian Penal
Code.

100. According to the information in the passage, pick the answer that is the most accurate.

rs .
k e
(a) Nothing constitutes a crime just by virtue of being carried out in good faith with the desire to prevent or avert
greater injury to people or property, even if it is done in the knowledge that it will probably result in harm.
(b) It is essential to remember that insanity plays a significant part in constitutional law and that in order to assert

n
defense under IPC, its legal sense rather than its medical sense must be considered.

a
(c) If a person commits an act in a way that leads them to genuinely think they are under legal obligation, it will
be considered a crime.

r
o p
(d) Ignorance of fact is an unacceptable defense, but it is not acceptable to be ignorant of the law, according to
the legal proverb ignorantia facti excusati ignorantia juris non excusat.

T
101. P and his friends went to an amusement park to enjoy the ride. By 11am, all of the friends were scheduled to
assemble at the main entrance. P made the decision to wait within the park and enjoy some ice cream because
his friends were snarled up in traffic. He entered without purchasing the ticket because the ticket checker was
not present at the counter. The guard saw that he didn't have the ticket-checking stamp on his hand when he was
leaving with his friends. As a result, the guard assessed him a fine of 5000 rupees. Speculate about the validity
of the accusation.
(a) P will not be subject to any penalties because the ticket checker had an obligation to ensure that everyone
had a ticket before entering the park.
(b) P won't face any penalties since he can argue that he didn't realize getting into the park required buying a
ticket, hence he4C
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4Smade
3L1E
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(c) Due to P's mistake, which the passage says has no defense, he will be held accountable.
(d) P will be held accountable because he had the opportunity to pay the ticket price when he left the park rather
than just opting not to do so.

Passage (Q.102 – Q.105): When, at the desire of the promisor, the promisee or any other person has done or
abstained from doing, or does or abstains from doing, or promises to do or to abstain from doing, something,
such act or abstinence or promise is called a consideration for the promise. If what is given in exchange for the
promise has value in the eyes of the law, the court will not question whether that value is adequate and will not
interfere with the fairness of the bargain made by the parties. The law on this point, regarding the adequacy of
consideration is simple and clear. 7O The consideration
6L4R is not required being of a particular fixed value or an
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approximation to the promise for which it is exchanged but it must be have some value in the eyes of the law. It
must change the promisee‘s position after the consideration is acted upon or transferred from the promisee to the
promisor. Consideration is indispensable for making an agreement to be enforceable as per Section 10 of the

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105. V threatened to keep M from leaving his house unless M gave him his brand-new McLaren. Since he was afraid,
M initially offered V his car at no cost but then eventually requested payment for it. According to V, M gave
him his car out of his own free will; hence as per Section 25(2), it did not require any sort of consideration.
Decide.
(a) V shall not be held accountable because Section 25(2) provides that no consideration is required if a person
performs an act freely for the promisor.
(b) Since the requirements under section 25(2) are not met, V will be held responsible for paying the
consideration for the car.
(c) Since V gave the car to M out of love and affection, he will not be held responsible for paying the car's
expenses.
(d) Since M cannot take such a valuable car out of V's possession without paying the amount, M will be held
responsible for paying V the charges for the vehicle.

c o m
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109. Which option best summarises the author’s arguments in the passage?
(a) Since the USA has signalled a policy shift on marijuana, India must follow it impetuously.
(b) It is about time India legalises organic drugs, especially when countries like the USA have started doing so.
(c) Marijuana is part of the culture, there is no need to put a blanket ban on it; restrictions should end.
(d) The revisiting of the decades-old rule in the USA is remarkable as it paves the way for the countries to control
marijuana.

110. Which among the following is a statement of fact rather than a statement of opinion?
(a) Pushed for by advocates, around 50 countries now allow medicinal cannabis programmes, India should allow
it too.
(b) Encouragingly, some states of India have climbed down from the draconian stand on the matter of marijuana.
(c) Excluding marijuana from the purview of the drug laws in India would be in alignment with the stance that
it took at the UN in 2020.

o m
(d) The pardon by the President paves the way for the convicts to smoothly reintegrate into the society and
pursue gainful activities, including work and education.

c
rs .
Passage (Q.111-Q.115): A face recognition attendance system has been put in place in schools in Andhra
Pradesh. This policy change is aimed at raising the quality of education and improving the learning experiences
of students, including their assessment of the formative level.

k e
Several reports have hailed this move as a revolutionary shift that will help children develop an array of abilities

n
and provide them with experiences that will enhance their problem-solving and critical-thinking faculties. This

a
is nothing new in this. Teacher absenteeism got recognised as a systemic issue almost four decades ago and

r
became a policy goal soon after that. Keeping teachers in their schools has become an end in itself and the

o p
policies framed to ensure this have an inspectorial character rather than a reformatory one.

So far, the behaviourist schemes of policymakers were restricted to students, But it seems now that teachers too

T
are being targeted. Reward and punishment postings have, of course, been part of the system for long. However,
what is new is the link between the policy measure and its intended result. A teacher — who has to be
“motivated” and offered “incentives” to download an app — is expected to build intellectual abilities and make
learning inquiry-driven. How marking a teacher’s face on an app will lead to the acquisition of intellectual
abilities by his/her students remains a puzzle.

Issues related to teachers’ absenteeism cannot be resolved by an app. They require a humanist understanding of
teachers as professionals, their predicaments and needs. Sudden visits by school inspectors, community
supervision and even panchayat scrutiny were part of educational policies of the past three decades. Like the
app-based attendance 1L6I 4R
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recording
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fundamentally a social interaction. It is about students and teachers putting their minds together.

A teacher’s presence is, of course, necessary but it’s more important that he/she has curiosity and passes on the
spirit of inquiry to students. The Reports of the National Commission on Teachers (1983-85), NCF-2005 and the
NCFTE (2009) have much that’s useful for this purpose. All three policy documents argued for treating teachers
as professionals and not as caged employees whose presence has to be constantly monitored. Two decades ago,
UNESCO described the attitude of policymakers towards teachers as a silent crisis by asking, Where Have All
the Teachers Gone?

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 points, lawmakers tend to miss out on the Indian cultural context in which the law is meant to operate, the State
capacity available to enforce such a law in India, and a deep understanding of what it will take for the law to be
successful here. Copying without appreciating these critical factors is often responsible for the law missing its
mark.

116. Which of the following options best summarises the author’s arguments in the passage?
(a) India should be oblivious to the laws going around in the world.
(b) Copying Western or global laws is not the best course for India.
(c) Adapting from international best practices is a symptom of our national character.
(d) India must make its own laws without prejudice due to other laws.

117. Which among the following could be attributed to the author’s opinion when B.R. Ambedkar gave an unexpected
speech on the draft Constitution?
(a) The author is surprised at how B.R. Ambedkar isn’t proud of the Constitution.

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(b) The author readily agrees with the point of view of B.R. Ambedkar regarding the Constitution.

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(c) The author considers B.R. Ambedkar to be a learned scholar, and Ambedkar’s opinions are his opinions.

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(d) The author understood the context of framing of the Constitution that later entered other policy matters.

118. The information in the passage disallows which of the following to be inferred from the passage?

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(a) India’s lawmakers are more concerned about framing original laws than borrowing from analogous ones.
(b) India’s judges and lawyers have no choice but to submit to what the analogous laws around the world say.

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(c) Analogous laws are more problematic than what is originally perceived by the lawmakers.
(d) All of the above

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119. What role could the following sentence play in the context of the passage? “Policy-makers need to carefully set

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out the problem statement of what the law is trying to solve.”
(a) This statement would strengthen the author’s arguments in the passage.

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(b) This statement is an assumption based on which the author’s argument depends.

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(c) This statement could be an extension of the author’s claims based on the information in the passage.
(d) This statement weakens the arguments presented by the author in the passage.

Passage (Q.120-Q.124): Nobody wants to worry about where their next meal is coming from. Yet over 800
million people around the world - most of them in developing countries - suffer from chronic food deprivation
on a daily basis. Global hunger creates a cycle that people can't escape from. It causes individuals to be less
productive and more prone to disease, which in turn makes them less able to improve their livelihoods or earn a
better income. But with the planet producing enough food to feed everyone, why are so many people going
hungry? World hunger refers to pockets of the human population who regularly do not get enough food to eat.
A vast majority 1L6I 4R hungry people live in developing countries. The situation is worst in Africa, with
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almost 21 per cent of the population there facing hunger on a daily basis. As a region, Sub-Saharan Africa
struggles the most, with nearly one in every four people facing undernourishment.

The effects of world hunger are as diverse as they are devastating. At its core, a diet characterized by an
insufficient intake of calories, proteins, vitamins and minerals impedes human development at every level - for
infants, children and adults. In turn, this negatively impacts the health, education, economic and social
development of entire communities across the globe. Hunger is more than just having enough food to eat - it's
about having enough nutritious food to eat. Poor nutrition is attributed to 45 per cent of deaths in children under
the age of five, while one out of every six children in developing countries is underweight. A significant portion
of the world's population is also affected by micronutrient deficiencies - a shortage of vitamins and minerals
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necessary for good health. This is sometimes called "hidden hunger," because there may not be obvious, visible
signs of malnutrition. Iron deficiency in women of reproductive age is a prime example of a micronutrient
deficiency. The right to food is a basic human right. And while our planet produces enough food to feed the more

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 Passage (Q.125-Q.130): Immigration has increasingly been a defining factor in the Republican and Democratic
parties’ shift into their respective populist corners. In 2016, with the vilification of illegal and legal immigration
at the core of his campaign, Donald Trump tapped into the socio-cultural anxieties of the American electorate.
This mainly informed the defection of the working class (after having voted twice for Barack Obama) in favour
of Trump’s electoral prospects in crucial swing states. Thereafter, in the Left’s bid to wrest the mantle of being
the “worker’s party,” views once held by a small fraction of progressives re-emerged. One such view - once held
by the likes of Vermont Sen. Bernie Sanders and Ohio Sen. Sherrod Brown - was over temporary work visa
programmes driving down wages and putting locals out of jobs.

However, in a sign of his own turn to the Left on the matter, the Biden campaign’s promise on expanding
temporary work visas begins with the assertion: “High skilled temporary visas should not be used to
disincentivize recruiting workers already in the US for in-demand occupations.” Furthermore, Biden has

the labour market and not used to undermine wages.”

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committed to “a wage-based allocation process” and “enforcement mechanisms to ensure they are aligned with

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Biden’s inconsistency on the matter, however, could have been informed by the political pressures of the
election. For instance, appealing to progressives could have been the motivation for touting the cause of
correcting wage disparities and, thereby, protecting American and foreign workers alike. With this position’s

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indirect apprehension over immigration, Biden could also deftly avoid his campaign from being “an uneasy fit”
with Democrats’ largely pro-immigration posturing against Trump’s anti-immigrant stance over the past four
years.

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Beyond intra-party positioning, Biden’s stance could have also been informed by the inclination to not be

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completely out-of-step with the rising nativism amongst the American electorate, as some polls earlier this year

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reported an unprecedented 79 percent of Americans supporting “a temporary stop to all immigration.” This could
have been a key determinant, as it was around that time of increased apprehension over immigration when Trump
signed an executive order to pause (for 60 days) issuance of new permanent residencies or green cards.

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From the standpoint of US-India ties, a Biden administration would likely be supportive of New Delhi’s desire
to not interlink the H1B matter to other divergences in the bilateral relationship. For instance, the Trump
administration had momentarily considered limiting H1B visas to 15 percent for “any country that does data
localization.” Whereas, on exercising continuity over some positive developments of the Trump years, New
Delhi would expect the Biden administration to at least continue negotiations over a “totalisation agreement,”
which would permit Indian professionals in the US to withdraw their social security deposits after their visas
expire.

However, on his promised 1L6I

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expansion of the H1B visa programme, Biden will mostly focus on gradually reversing
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Trump’s record in order to better gauge the political viability of increasing temporary work visas at a time of
economic uncertainty in the US.

125. “Immigration has increasingly been a defining factor in the Republican and Democratic parties’ shift into their
respective populist corners.” Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the author’s argument?
(a) Indian Americans who are eligible to vote are already citizens, and hence immigration-related policies do
not affect them.
(b) Republican candidates of both the past and this election have not had any immigration-related issues in their
manifesto.
(c) Last year a poll was conducted, and a6Lsignificant
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immigration, were found to be anti-immigration.
(d) The challenges related to immigration are now prominent in the U.S, making the Republican and Democratic
parties choose a side: pro-immigration or anti-immigration.

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 Direction (Q.131-Q.135): Four families, each consisting of a married couple and one child, are waiting at a
pediatric clinic. Among them A, B, C and D are males whose ages are 28, 30, 32 and 34 years, not necessarily
in that order. P, Q, R and S are females, whose ages are 25, 26, 28 and 29 years, not necessarily in that order. W,
X, Y and Z are the children whose ages are 3, 4, 7 and 8 years, not necessarily in that order. The following
particulars are known about them.
(i) D’s child is not the youngest, but the youngest female’s child is the youngest.
(ii) X’s age is twice the difference of ages of X’s parents but his mother Q is younger to at least two other
ladies.
(iii) R’s husband is nine years elder to P. Neither P nor S is W’s mother.
(iv) Y is as much elder to Z as his mother is to A’s wife. P’s husband is six years elder to C’s wife.
(v) B and R is a married couple and their child is four years old.

131. How old is B’s wife?

(a) 25 years

132. Who is Y’s father?

(b) 26 years (c) 28 years

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(d) 29 years

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(a) D (b) B

133. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(c) C

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(d) A

(a) B – R – Z (b) C – P – Y

134. Who among the following is A’s child?

(c) D – Q – Y

k e (d) C – Q – X

(a) W (b) X

135. How old is Q’s husband?

r an (c) Y (d) Z

(a) 32 (b) 28

o p (c) 26 (d) 30

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142. If the total number of public sector banks in 1960-61 and 2000-01 were 14 and 28 respectively, then find the
ratio of average branches per bank in these two years.
(a) 1:4 (b) 4:1 (c) 1:3 (d) 2:5

143. There- is a- proposal to merge SBI ‘and its associate banks in 2000-01 due to which the total number of branches
will decrease by 5,000. After this SBI has 40% of total branches.Find the percentage change in the total branches
of SBI its associate banks before and after merging.
2 2
(a) 16 3 % increase (b) 16 3 % decrease
2 2
(c) 14 % decrease (d) 14 % increase
7 7

144. If 40% of the total branches are in rural areas in 1970-71 and 60% of the total branches are in urban areas in
2000-01, then find the increase in the number of rural branches in these two yeas.
(a) 48000 (b) 40000 (c) 44000 (d) 42000

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branches the lowest?
(a) From 1990 − 91 to 2000 − 01 (b) From 1960 − 81 to 1990 − 91
.
145. If there were 10,000 branches less in 1980-81, then between which two decades, is the growth rate in number of

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(c) From 1960-61 to 1970-71 (d) None of these

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Direction (Q.146-Q.150): A science institute offer M.Sc. with specialization in Mathematics, Physics and

n
Chemistry. 45% of total student in M.Sc. are girls. 30% of total number of boys in M.Sc. have admitted in

a
Mathematics. 40% of total girls are in Chemistry department. Ratio of number of boys and girls in Mathematics

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department is 3:2. Out of total number of boys in institution, 50% are studying Physics. Total number of boys in
Mathematics is 297.

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146. How many students are pursuing M.Sc.?
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(a) 2000 (b) 2200

T (c) 1800

147. Difference between number of girls studying Chemistry and that in Mathematics is:
(a) 198 (b) 126 (c) 162 (d) 226

148. Number of boys studying Physics is what percent of total number of students in institution?
(d) 1600

(a) 27.75% (b) 27% (c) 27.25% (d) 27.5%

149. What is the ratio between number of boys and girls studying Chemistry?
(a) 7:8 (b)
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150. Total number of boys in the institution is what percent more than total number of girls in the institution?
1 2
(a) 22.5% (b) 19% (c) 33 3 % (d) 22 9 %

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