Microbiology 2nd MCQ's

Microbiology 2nd edition mcq,s January 21, 2015
Chapter # 1 A Brief History of Microbiology
1. All the following types of microorganisms were viewed and described by Leeuwenhoek except
a. Viruses
b. Protozoa
c. Algae
d. Prokaryotes
2. Which of the following types of microbes is most similar to animals in terms of their cell structure and nutrition?
a. Algae
b. Protozoa
c. Prokaryotes
d. Fungi
3. Robert Koch and his colleagues are remembered for which of the following achievement?
a. A discovery of "magic bullet"
b. Providing evidence that disproved spontaneous generation
c. The first photograph of bacteria
d. A discovery of the cause of fermentation.
4. The first scientist to provide scientific evidence that contradicted the spontaneous generation of the microbes was?
a. Redi
b. Spallanzani.
c. Nedham.
d. Aristotle.
5. The scientist who pioneered hand washing was a mean of reducing disease transmission was/
a. Snow
b. Semmel
c. Lister.
d. Ehrlich
6. Which of the following scientist demonstrated that a bacterium was the cause of tuberculosis?
a. Buchner.
b. Pasteur
c. Koch
d. Gram
7. Which of the following scientist developed the most – widely used staining technique?
a. Ehrilch
b. Lister
c. Fracastoro
d. Gram
8. Which of the following disease has shown resurgences after being almost eradicated?
a. Rift valley fever.
b. Tuberculosis.
c. SARS
d. Monkeypox
9. Louis Pastuer was involved in research of all the following problems except.
a. Fermentation
b. Biogenesis
c. The development of vaccine
d. Chemotherapy
10. The two types of prokaryotes are
a. Bacteria and algae
b. Protozoa and algae
c. Fungi and Archaea
d. Bacteria and Archaea
11. Which of the following types of microbes is photosynthetic?
a. Protozoa
b. Prokaryotes
c. Algae
d. Fungi
12. Which of the following is an incorrect pairing?
a. Fungi: no nuclei
b. Protozoa: Locomotion
c. Bacteria: Peptidoglycan
d. Algae: Food for aquatic animals
13. Which of the following is incorrect pairing?
a. Pasteur: "Swan necked" flasks
b. Linnaes: Beginning of taxonomy
c. Aristotle: Bioled beef gravy in sealed flasks
d. Redi: Experiments with decaying meat
14. All of the following are the reasons for the slow development of microbiology as a scienceexs except
a. The art of making microscopes was temporarily lost after Leeuwenhoek's death.
b. Lab techniques for working with microbes had to be developed first.
c. Microbes were thought to play no rules in human affairs
d. There was no established system for naming different kinds of microbes
15. Which of the following is an acellular obligatory parasite?
a. Protozoa
b. Fungi
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c. Viruses
d. Bacteria
16. All of the following advances in microbiology are attributable to Robert Koch and his colleagues except.
a. The use of petri dishes to hold solid media.
b. The use of steam to sterilize the growth media
c. The development of simple staining techniques for bacteria.
d. The discovery of viruses.
17. All of the following are terms associated with fungi except.
a. Hypae
b. Budding
c. Yeast
d. Pseudopodia
18. Which area of study is concerned with the distribution and spread of disease in humans?
a. Molecular Biology
b. Ecology
c. Epidemiology
d. Immunology
19. Edward Jenner developed vaccination as a way to protect individuals from
a. Small pox
b. Anthrax
c. Cholera
d. Tuberculosis
20. Which of the following statement is NOT a reason for Leeuwenhoek,s success?
a. He was dedicated, curious, and enthusiastic about his work
b. He conducted carefully controlled experiments
c. He wrote detailed reports of what he saw under the microscope
d. He learnt the secrets of making excellent microscopes.
Chapter # 2 Chemistry of Microbiology
1. Which of the following parts of an atom CANNOT be located precisely at any given time?
a. An electron
b. A proton
c. A neutron
d. All of these
2. The atomic no of the element carbon is 6; this means it has
a. 6 electrons in nucleus
b. 12 protons in its nucleus
c. 6 protons in its nucleus
d. 3 proton and 3 neutrons in its nucleus
3. Two atoms that significantly different electro negativities can form a/ an
a. Non covalent polar bond
b. Covalent polar bond
c. Ionic or covalent bond
d. Ionic bond
4. All of the following are true statements regarding hydrogen bonds except?
a. Hydrogen bonds are a weak type of ionic bond
b. Hydrogen bonds are important for stabilizing the shapes of large molecules
c. Hydrogen bonds results from forces created by polar covalent bonds
d. Hydrogen bonds are essential for life because they form strong connection between atoms
5. Which of the following pairs of terms is an incorrect match?
a. Anabolism: Breaking chemical bonds
b. Synthesis: Endothermic
c. Exothermic: Release of energy
d. Decomposition: catabolism
6. Water is important for life for all of the following reasons except.
a. Water can participate in many cellular reactions.
b. Water remains a liquid over a wide range of temperatures
c. Water has enough surface tension to form a layer on the surface of cells.
d. Water does not absorb heat energy.
7. Substances that prevent changes in PH are called
a. Bases
b. Acids
c. Buffers
d. Electrolytes
8. A solution that has a PH of 4 has how many hydrogen ions in relation to a solution of PH of 6?
a. 10 times less
b. 100 times more
c. 10 times more
d. 100 times less
9. – OH is an example of a/an
a. Macromolecule
b. Electrolyte
c. Buffer
d. Functional group.
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10. Which of the following pairs of terms is an incorrect match?

a. Fat: Hexoses
b. Polysaccharides: Cellulose
c. Nucleotides: Genetic material
d. Proteins: Peptide bonds
11. Beta – pleated sheets are associated with which level of protein structure
a. Primary
b. Quaternary
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary
12. All proteins have a minimum of how many levels of proteins structure?
a. One
b. Three
c. Four
d. Two
13. Which of the following is a type of protein that is covalently bond to a carbohydrate?
a. Glycoprotein
b. Lipoprotein
c. Metalloprotein
d. Nucleoprotein
14. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is found both in cell's genetic material and energy containing molecule?
a. Guanine
b. Cytosine
c. Adenine
d. Thymine
15. Which of the following nitrogenous bases are purines?
a. Cytosine and Guanine
b. Adenine and Guanine
c. Uracil and Adenine
d. Thymine and Cytosine
16. Two amino acids bonded to gather from a molecule called a
a. Polypeptide
b. Dipeptide
c. Polysaccharide
d. Diasaccharide
17. The stereoisomers of amino acids and sugars most commonly used by organisms are
a. L. amino acids and L. sugars
b. D. amino acids and L. sugars
c. D. amino acids and D. sugars
d. L. amino acids and D. sugars
18. Disulfide bridges are used in which level of protein structure?
a. Secondary
b. Tertiary
c. Tertiary and quaternary
d. Quaternary
19. All of the following are the major roles of proteins within cells except.
a. Immune defense
b. Energy source
c. Transportation in and out of the cell
d. Regulation of the cell function.
20. Which of the following is a polysaccharide produced by animals?
a. Cellulose
b. Amylopectin
c. Glycogen
d. Amylase
Chapter # 3 Cell Structure and Function
1. Cells engaging in taxis are exhibiting which of the following basic process of the life?
a. Responsiveness
b. Reproduction
c. Growth
d. Metabolism
2. The glycovalyx of microbial cells has all of the following functions except
a. It provides a mechanism of attachment for the microbe
b. It keeps the microbe from the drying out.
c. It enhances the ability of pathogenic microbes to colonize surfaces
d. In enhances the destruction of the microbes by immune cells.
3. Thiomargartia namibiensis is a notable microbe for which of the following reasons?
a. It is a eukaryotic cell that is the size as E. Coli
b. It is the largest prokaryotic microbe ever discovered.
c. It is a prokaryote with primitive nucleus.
d. It is a eukaryotic with a prokaryotic type flagellum.
4. Which of the following is a true statement concerning falgella?
a. Flagillin is only molecule found in eukaryotic flagella.
By M.Nadeem Khan
b. "Runs" and "tumbles" are characteristics of eukaryotic cell movement.

c. Prokaryotic flagella have a "9 + 2" microtubule arrangement.
d. Prokaryotic flagella rotate instead of whipping back and forth.
5. All of the following are true statements concerning bacterial cell walls except.
a. Peptidoglycan is composed of NAG, NAM and amino acids.
b. The periplasmic space is a feature of Gram Positive cell walls.
c. The gram negative cell wall contain lipid A which can cause severe problem during infections.
d. Gram Positive cell wall contains teichoic acids.
6. Which of the following organelle is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Ribosomes
c. Mitochondria
d. A nucleus
7. Which of the following organelle is involved in the degradation of the toxic molecules?
a. Golgi bodies
b. Peroxisomes
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Lysosome
8. The endosymbiotic theory is one possible explaination for the origin of the following organelles?
a. Golgi bodies
b. Chloroplast
c. Peroxisomes
d. Centrioles
9. Which of the following organelles is involved in the production and transport of proteins throughout the cell?
a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. Ribosomes
c. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
d. The Golgi body.
10. All of the following are the true statements concerning fimbriae except?
a. They are shorter than flagella or pilli.
b. They help bacteria form biofilm
c. They are important for bacterial conjugation
d. They play an important role in bacterial disease.
11. Movement of a bacterium toward a chemical substance is called
a. Negative chemotaxis
b. Positive chemotaxis
c. Negative phototaxis
d. Positive phototaxis
12. Which of the following molecules is not found in eukaryotic cell walls?
a. Chitin
b. Peptidoglycan
c. Cellulose
d. Carrageenan
13. Passive transport of molecules that requires specific channel protein is called
a. Endocytosis
b. Group translocation
c. Osmosis
d. Facilitated diffusion
14. Crenation, the shriveling of cells due to loss of water, occurs when cells are placed in what kind of solution?
a. Hypertonic
b. Isotonic
c. Hypotonic
15. A reserve deposit of valuable nutrients found in many cells is called
a. Organelle
b. Inclusion
c. Nucleoid
d. Centriole
16. Which of the following structures is not present in eukaryotic flagella?
a. Hook
b. Basal body
c. Filament
d. All of the above are present in eukaryotic flagella
17. All of the following eukaryotic cellular structure contain tubulin microtubules except.
a. Flagella
b. Cilia
c. The cytoskeleton
d. Chloroplast
18. The cytoplasmic membrane
a. Is composed primarily of phospholipid and proteins
b. Incorporates water molecules into its structure, as defined by mosaic model
c. Allows molecules of all types to pass freely
d. All of the above are correct.
19. Which of the following types of the molecules would NOT accepted to cross the cytoplasmic by diffusion alone?
a. Small molecules
b. Electrically charged molecules
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c. Lipid soluble molecules

d. All of these can cross the membrane by diffusion
20. All of the following statements concerning peptidoglycan are true except
a. Gram negative cell walls have inner and outer peptidoglycan layers
b. Peptidoglycan is not present in the cell walls of the Archaea
c. Peptidoglycan is composed primary of repeating monosaccharide units
d. Polypeptide cross bridges contribute the rigidity of the peptidoglycan molecules.
Chapter # 4 Microscopy, Staining and Classification
1. If you wanted to determine if a microorganism fermented a particular carbohydrate, which of the following kinds of tests would
you use?
a. Biochemical test
b. Serology
c. Phage typing
d. Morphology
2. Put the following units of measurement in order, from largest to smallest
i. Millimeter
ii. Centimeter
iii. Micrometer
iv. Mater
v. Nano meter
a. V, iii, I, ii, iv
b. Iv, ii, I, iii, v
c. V, iii, ii, I, iv
d. Iii, v, I, ii, iv
3. Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?
a. Violet light
b. Red light
c. An electron beam
d. White light
4. In microscopy which of the following plays an important role in visualizing extremely small objects clearly?
a. Wavelength of radiation used
b. Numerical aperture of the lens
c. Contrast between the specimen and its background
d. A,B, and C are correct
5. Which of the following types of microscopes is being used to examine the relationship between the microbes in biofilms on
stromatolites?
a. Transmission electron
b. Confocal
c. Scanning electron
d. Scanning tunneling
6. All of the following are the components of bright – field compound microscope except
a. The phase plate
b. The oil immersion objective lens
c. The condenser lens
d. The scanning objective lens
7. The limit of useful magnification for light of a light microscope is
a. 100x
b. 2000x
c. 1000x
d. 10,000x
8. All of the following types of microscope can be used to view living specimen except
a. An electron microscope
b. A dark – field microscope
c. An atomic force microscopy
d. A bright field microscope
9. Which of the following strains is used for visualizing Mycobacterium?
a. Gram Stain
b. Endospore Stain
c. Acid Fast Stain
d. Negative Stain
10. In Gram Stain, which of the reagent actually differentiates between gram positive and gram negative cells?
a. Safranin
b. Crystal violet
c. Iodine
d. Ethanol / Acetone
11. All of the following statements concerning taxonomy are true except
a. Each taxon includes all of the taxa above it.
b. All taxa have latin names.
c. The genus name and the specific epithet to gather are called binomial
d. Species of asexual organisms are defined as collection of strains.
12. The designation E. Coli 0157:H7 is a result of which type of microbial identification process?
a. Serology
b. Morphology
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c. Biochemical tests
d. Phage typing
13. The domain, a taxon proposed by Carl Woese, contains or replaces which of the following taxonomic groups?
a. The kingdom
b. The order
c. The phylum
d. The genus
14. Which of the following taxonomic groupings was NOT part of the tradition Linnaean system of classification?
a. Genus
b. Family
c. Subspecies
d. Class
15. Which of the following staining procedures is useful for visualizing endospores?
a. Gram
b. Osmium tetraoxide
c. Zeihl – Neelsen
d. Schaeffer – Fulton
16. Which of the following combinations would give the best microscopic resolution?
a. Large numerical aperture lens, short wavelength radiation.
b. Large numerical aperture lens, long wavelength radiation.
c. Small numerical aperture lens, short wave length radiation
d. Small numerical aperture lens, long wavelength radiation
17. All of the following aspects of scanning electron microscopy EXCEPT
a. Specimen must be placed into a vacuum
b. Secondary electrons are used to visualize the specimen
c. Scanning electron micrographs typically appear two – dimensional
d. Whole specimen can be observed.
18. In gram stain crystal violet serves as the
a. Mordant
b. Counter stain
c. Decolorizing agent
d. Primary stain
19. Which of the following is true statement concerning basic dyes?
a. Eosin is example of basic dye
b. Basic dyes are also known as anionic chromophores.
c. Basic dyes are attracted to the negatively charged surface of cells
d. Basic dyes work best at a low PH
20. Which is the purpose of fixation in smear preparation?
a. It keeps cells from drying out during staining
b. It enables cells to take up more stain
c. It attaches cells firmly to the slide's surface.
d. It temporarily keeps cells from growing
Chapter # 5 Microbial Metabolism
1. The cellular process of linking building blocks to gather into macromolecule is called
a. Metabolism
b. Polymerization
c. Catabolism
d. Oxidation
2. Dehydrogenation reactions are an example of which of the following?
a. Activation reaction
b. Endergonic reaction
c. Oxidation reaction
d. Reduction reaction
3. All of the following are electron carrier molecules that are important for cellular redox reactions except
a. NAD+
b. FAD
c. NADP+
d. TCA
4. Many vitamins are important for metabolism because they acts as
a. Coenzyme
b. Holoenzyme
c. Ribozymes
d. Apoenzyme
5. Activation energy
a. Can be achieved by lowering the temperature of a reaction
b. Is higher in the presence of an enzyme.
c. Is the same for all chemical reactions?
d. Is the amount of the energy it takes to trigger a chemical reaction?
6. Changes in PH have an adverse effect on the shape of an enzyme because PH effects which level of protein structure?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Both b and c
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e. All of the above.

7. Sulfanilamide is a drug which interfares with bacterial enzymes in which of the following ways?
a. End – product inhibition.
b. Competitive inhibition.
c. Feed- back inhibition.
d. Non- competitive inhibition.
8. All of the following are associated with the process of glycolysis except
a. Production of NADPH+
b. Substrate level phosphorylation.
c. Production of pyruvic acid
d. Phosphrylation of glucose
9. All of the following are true statements concerning chlorophyll except.
a. Magnesium ion is an integral part of chlorophyll molecule.
b. Chlorophyll molecule function by absorbing light of various wavelengths.
c. All photosynthetic organisms use the same type of chlorophyll.
d. The active site of chlorophyll is structurally similar to a cytochrome molecule.
10. All the following processes are ways in which a cell can use a proton gradient except
a. Flagellar motion.
b. ATP production.
c. Active transport.
d. Electron transport.
11. What is the major function of fermentation?
a. The reduction of glucose
b. The production of ADP.
c. The generation of NAD+ for glycolysis
d. The generation of a protein gradient.
12. All of the following are byproducts of fermentation except
a. Ethanol
b. Acetic acid
c. Pyruvic acid
d. Lactic acid
13. Beta – oxidation is method of catabolizing which of the following molecules?
a. Glucose
b. Fatty acids
c. Proteins
d. Glycerol
14. In eukaryotic cells, all of the following processes occurs in mitochondria except
a. Beta – oxidation
b. Electron transport.
c. The kerb cycle.
d. Glycosis
15. Which of the following best describes the function of photosystem?
a. The absorption of light energy and conversion to ATP and NADPH
b. The generation of NADH and FADH2 from the oxidation of acetyl – CoA
c. The generation of proton gradient in order to produce ATP
d. The generation of glucose from carbon dioxide and water.
16. NADH generated during cellular respiration results in the production of how many ATP?
a. 38
b. 4
c. 34
d. 30
17. What is the purpose of Calvin – Benson cycle?
a. The catabolism of glucose to pyruvic acid using enzyme different from those of glycolysis
b. The production of glyceraldehyde – 3 – phosphate by fixation of CO2 molecules.
c. Transfer of an amine group from one amino acid to another.
d. The function of phosphorylated pentose sugars from glucose – 6 – phosphate.
18. Which of the following enzymes might be expected to catalyze the removal or addition of electrons of other molecules/
a. A ligase
b. An isomerase
c. An oxidoreductase
d. A transferase
19. Which of the following is temporarily formed during an enzymatic reaction?
a. A proton gradient
b. A coenzyme
c. Activation energy
d. The enzyme – substrate complex
20. All of the following could be considered precursor metabolites except
a. Fats
b. Glyceraldehyde – 3 – phosphate
c. Acetyl CoA
d. Ribose – 5 – phosphate
Chapter # 6 Microbial Nutrition and Growth
1. Which of the following PH level would probably be lethal to an alkalophile?
By M.Nadeem Khan
a. PH 14
b. PH 10
c. PH 4
d. PH 8
2. A cell uses an organic carbon source and obtain energy from light would be called
a. Photoheterotroph
b. Chemoautotroph
c. Photoautotroph.
d. Chemohetertroph.
3. Which of the following forms of oxygen is often used by phagocytic cells to destroy pathogens?
a. Singlet oxygen
b. Superoxide radicals
c. Peroxide anions
d. Hydroxyl radicals
4. These microbes don't have an aerobic metabolism, but they can detoxify oxygen enough to live in its presence.
a. Facultative anaerobe
b. Obligate anaerobe
c. Microaerophiles
d. Aerotolerant anaerobes
5. Which of the following element is often growth limiting for organisms because of its limited availability?
a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon
6. Organic molecules that organism need, but cannot synthesize all by themselves are called
a. Trace elements
b. Carotenoids
c. Growth factors
d. Nutrients
7. A microbe isolated from deep in the ocean could be characterized as a
a. Barophile.
b. Mesophile
c. Psychrophile
d. Both a and c
e. All of the above
8. All of the following are true statements regarding clinical specimens except
a. Clinical specimens are often transported in special media to help preserve them.
b. Clinical specimens must be properly labeled and promptly transported to the laboratory
c. Universal precautions are observed in order to protect specimen from contamination
d. Clinical specimens include saliva, feces and blood.
9. All of the following are associated with streak plate method of isolation except
a. A solid medium in a Petri dish
b. A sterile inoculating loop or needle
c. Colonies growing at and below the surface of the medium
d. Isolation of CFU's from one another.
10. Microbes living in geothermal springs are most likely to metabolize hydrogen than sulfur because.
a. Hydrogen is more plentiful in these environments than sulfur
b. They cannot obtain enough oxygen to support sulfur metabolism.
c. They can obtain hydrogen from other microbes in their habitat.
d. The by – products of sulfur metabolism are poisonous to them.
11. Why is agar a useful substance in the microbiology lab?
a. Solid agar melts at temperature above 40 C
b. Agar does not solidify until it cools to about 40
c. Agar is a good source of nutrients for microbes
d. Agar dissolves in water at about 60 C
12. All of the following are true statements concerning types of media except
a. A synthetic medium is the same thing as a defined medium
b. Differential media often involve visible changed in the appearance of colonies
c. Complex media often involve the addition of substances such as soya, yeast or blood.
d. Media can either be selective or differential but never both.
13. Kineococcus radiotolerans is an example of which of the following?
a. A barophile
b. An extremophile
c. A Mesophile
d. A psychrophile
14. The most destructive form of oxygen is
a. The peroxide form
b. The hydroxyl radical
c. Singlet oxygen
d. The superoxide radical
15. A bacterium species that has been determined to have a generation time of 30 minutes. If a microbiologist starts with inoculum of
1000 cells/ml, and wants to grow it to a culture of 1,000,000 cells/ml, approximately how long should the culture be incubated?
a. 3.5 hours
b. 5 hours
c. 100 hours
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d. 24 hours
16. Why do bacterial cultures go through lag phase?
a. Because they are gradually beginning to die
b. Because the DNA and protein synthesis in the culture has not caught up with cell division
c. Because they are being exposed to increasing amounts of their own waste products
d. Because they are synthesizing new enzymes in order to use nutrients in their medium.
17. All of the following statements concerning bacterial growth curve are true excpt
a. When death phase is reached, all cells in the culture have died
b. Under certain conditions, the lag phase can be maintained indefinitely
c. During stationary phase, the number of dying cells equals the number of cells being produced.
d. Cells divide at a maximal rate during the log phase.
18. All of the following are direct methods of measuring microbial growth except
a. A coulter counter
b. Turbidity
c. Viable pate count
d. Membrane filtration.
19. If a cell counter slide is determined to have a mean number of 20 bacterial cells per square, the total number of bacteria per ml of
culture would be
a. 1,000,000
b. 25,000,000
c. 50,000,000
d. Unable to determine
20. All of the following are draw backs to determine to the use of spectrophotometry in estimating microbial growth except
a. It kills the organisms as they are being counted
b. It cannot distinguish between live and dead cells
c. It will underestimate the true number of cells if they are not uniformly in suspension
d. It can be used if there are less than one million cells per millimeter.
Chapter # 7 Microbial Genetics
1. Which of the following functions might be associated with genes carried on a bacterial plasmid?
a. Growth
b. Metabolism
c. Cellular reproduction
d. Antibiotic resistance
2. Which of the following types of plasmids is associated with bacterial conjugation?
a. Bacteriocin factors
b. Resistance factors
c. Virulence factors
d. Fertility factors
3. All of the following are events associated with RNA processing in eukaryotic cells except
a. Caping
b. Polyadenylation
c. Splicing
d. Transversion
4. All of the following are associated with the process of DNA replication except
a. DNA ligase
b. Helicase
c. Sigma factors
d. Primase
5. All of the following are functions of DNA methylation except
a. Protection against viral infections.
b. DNA mutation
c. DNA repair
d. Control of gene expression
6. All of the following are true statements concerning the replication of DNA except
a. Each okazaki fragment is about 1000 nucleotides long.
b. Proof reading occurs as DNA replication proceeds.
c. DNA primers are replaced with RNA
d. The lagging strand is synthesized discontionously
7. All of the following are the characteristics of RNA polymerase except
a. Does not require helicase
b. Proof reads
c. Incorporates ribonucleotides
d. Relatively slow polymerization
8. Which of the following is involved in the regulation of translation in the cells?
a. Operators
b. Exons
c. Ethidum promide
d. Antisense RNA
9. All the following are the characteristics of the genetic code except
a. More than one codon is associated with each amino acid.
b. Most organisms use the same genetic code.
c. More than one amino acid is associated with each codon.
d. There are 64 possible codons.
By M.Nadeem Khan
10. Which of the following is a molecule involved in transcription termination in prokaryotic cells?
a. Rho
b. Anticodon
c. Release factor
d. Sigma factor
11. All of the following are associated with prokaryotic transcription except
a. It uses sigma factors
b. It occurs in the cytosol
c. There are no introns in mRNA molecules.
d. It involves three types of RNA polymerase.
12. Which of the following stages of translation does not require energy in the form of GTP?
a. Initiation
b. Termination
c. Elongation
d. All of these stages require GTP energy.
13. Which of the following is regulatory sequence responsible for control of an operon?
a. The operator
b. The release factor
c. The promoter
d. The Corepressor
14. All of the following are true statements concerning genetic mutation except
a. Genetic mutation always results in problems for cells and organism.
b. Mutations in asexual organisms are usually passed on to the offsprings.
c. A mutation is any change in the nucleotide base sequence of an organism's genome.
d. A point mutation is the most common type of mutation
15. Which of the following types of point mutations is usually the most serious?
a. Silent
b. Substitution
c. Transposition
d. Frame shift
16. Ethidium bromide is an example of which of the following?
a. Pyrimidine dimer
b. A nucleotide analog
c. A nucleotide – altering chemical
d. A frame shift mutagen
17. Which of the following DNA repair mechanism is designed to cope with the most common type of DNA damage?
a. Base – Excision repair
b. The SOS repair
c. The mismatch repair
d. Light repair
18. All of the following are associated with the Ames test except
a. Histidine auxotrophs
b. An F plasmid
c. Salmonella
d. Liver enzyme.
19. Hfr cells are associated with which of the following?
a. Transformation
b. Transposons
c. Conjugation
d. Transduction
20. All of the following are true statements concerning transposons except
a. A special enzyme is needed for insertion of some transposons.
b. Transposons are often called "jumping genes"
c. Transposons are found only in prokaryotic cells.
d. All transposons contain palindromic sequences at their ends
Chapter # 8 Recombinant DNA Technology
1. All of the following are the applications of recombinant DNA Technology except
a. Treatment of human genetic disorders.
b. Altering plants to make them resistant to pests.
c. Using bacteria to detect the presence of carcinogen.
d. Production of human proteins in bacterial cells.
2. Reverse transcriptase produces which of the following?
a. tRNA
b. codons
c. mRNA
d. cDNA
3. synthetic antisense nucleic acid molecules may one day be used for
a. For the creation of restriction enzymes.
b. The control of genetic disease
c. The separation of different DNA molecules
d. Genetic finger printing
4. All of the following are true statements concerning restriction enzymes except
a. There are two basic types of restriction enzymes
By M.Nadeem Khan
b. They are an important tool of Recombinant DNA Technology

c. They cut DNA molecule at a specific site.
d. They are found in all cells
5. All of the following can serve as vectors except
a. Primers
b. Transposons
c. Plasmids
d. Viruses
6. All of the following can carry large genes except
a. Plasmids
b. Transposons
c. Viruses
d. All of these can carry large genes.
7. A gene library contains which of the following?
a. Mutant strains of particular microorganism
b. Clones that contain fragments of an organism's entire genome.
c. Clones that contain all the genes from a single chromosome
d. Both b and c
8. Why is PCR such a useful technique?
a. It can be used in a variety of application, such as the identification of unknown pathogen
b. A large number of copies of DNA molecule can be produced in a short amount of time
c. A large number of copies can be made of a single DNA molecule
d. All of the above are correct.
9. Which of the following are the correct sequence of events in the PCR process
a. Priming, extension, denaturation
b. Denaturation, extension, priming
c. Extension, denaturation, priming
d. Denaturation, priming, extension
10. The DNA polymerase from which of the following microbe is used in PCR?
a. Thermus aquaticus
b. Bacillus anthrax
c. Deinococcus radiodurans
d. Haemophilus influenza
11. In electrophoresis, all of the following are criteria by which DNA molecules can be separated except
a. Sequence
b. Shape
c. Size
d. Electrical charge
12. All of the following are true statements concerning the gel electrophoresis of DNA molecules except
a. The sizes of DNA molecule can be determined by the position to which they migrate in the gel.
b. Smaller DNA molecule move faster and farther than larger ones
c. DNA molecules move through the gel toward the negative electrodes
d. Gels used for electrophoresis of DNA are made out of agrose.
13. Which of the following is thought to contribute to the infectious nature of the yeast Candida albicans?
a. It has extra genes not found in other yeasts
b. It does not require nitrogen for growth
c. It can changes its growth pattern
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
14. Which of the following involves molecules of single stranded DNA bound to glass slides or silicon chips?
a. Southern blots
b. Electroporation
c. DNA microarrays
d. PCR
15. Which of the following methods of introducing DNA into cells can be used on intact tissues?
a. Protoplast fusion
b. Injection
c. Electroporation
d. All of the above.
16. Fluorescent nucleotides are associated with which of the following ?
a. DNA finger printing
b. Electroporation
c. Southern blotting
d. Nucleotide sequencing
17. An oral vaccine against which of the following is currently being tested?
a. Plasmodium falciparum
b. The SARS virus
c. Mannheimia haemolytica
d. HIV
18. The shelf life of certain genetically – engineered tomatoes has been lengthened due to use of which of the following
technologies?
a. PCR
b. Antisense RNA
c. DNA finger printing
d. Protoplast fusion
By M.Nadeem Khan
19. Which of the following is associated with recombinant DNA application of herbicide resistance?
a. "Roundup – ready" soybeans
b. BGH – producing bacteria
c. MacGregor tomatoes
d. Beta – carotene – containing rice
20. Which of the following is an example of xenotransplantation?
a. Transferring bacterial genes into a plant
b. Implanting pig heart valves into a human
c. Transferring human genes into bacterial cells
d. All of the above
Chapter # 9 Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment
1. A nurse prepares an area of skin for injection by scrubbing it with an alcohol swab; this process is called
a. Disinfection
b. Sanitization
c. Degerming
d. Sterilization
2. Which of the following term include the destruction of bacterial endospores?
a. Antisepsis
b. Sanitization
c. Sterilization
d. Pasteurization
3. Antimicrobial agents that disrupt the cell membrane will also damage
a. Cellular DNA
b. Cell wall
c. The viral envelope
d. Cellular enzyme
4. Which of the following statements concerning microbial death is correct?
a. It is the same for all microbes under all conditions
b. It can be plotted on a semilogarithmic graph.
c. It is a loss of reproduction ability that lasts for 12 – 24 hours.
d. All of the above are correct
5. A membrane filter with a pore size of 1.2 micrometer would trap all of the following except
a. Multicellular fungi
b. Protozoa
c. Bacteria
d. Yeasts
6. All of the following would contribute to the increased efficiency of an antimicrobial agent except
a. Higher concentration of the agent
b. Higher PH
c. Longer exposure to the cells
d. Higher temperatures
7. Which of the following microbial control procedures creates pyrimidine dimers in DNA?
a. Heavy metals
b. Non – ionizing radiation
c. Autoclaving
d. Ionizing radiation
8. An experimental disinfectant has a phenol coefficient of 10 against E. Coli, which of the following is the most accurate
interpretation of this data?
a. Nothing can be calculated until an in – use test is done
b. The disinfection is better than phenol
c. The disinfection is 10 times better than phenol
d. The disinfection is worse than phenol.
9. Which of the following test gives the most accurate picture of the activity of a disinfectant in a particular environment or
application?
a. The phenol coefficient
b. The decimal reduction test
c. The in – use test
d. The use – dilution test
10. All of the following statements concerning autoclaving are correct except
a. Under 15 psi of pressure, water boils at 121 oC
b. Large volume or solid substances require longer autoclaving time
c. Any material that needs to be sterile should be autoclaved
d. In order of an item to be sterilized in an autoclave, steam must contact all of its surfaces
11. All of the following microbes are killed by pasteurization except
a. E.Coli
b. Brucella melitensis
c. Mycobacterium bovis
d. Bacillus stearothermophilus
12. A particular machine passes milk through steam at a temperature of 140 oC for one seconds and then cools it readily, this is an
example of
a. Pasteurization
b. Ultra – high temperature pasteurization
c. Ultra – high temperature sterilization
By M.Nadeem Khan
d. Autoclaving
13. All of the following microbial methods are bacteriostatic except
a. Lyophilization
b. Refrigeration
c. Desiccation
d. Ionizing radiation
14. All of the following are examples of ionizing radiation except
a. Electron beams
b. Gamma rays
c. Ultraviolet rays
d. X. rays
15. Which of the following antimicrobial agents can disrupt the cell membrane?
a. Aldehyde
b. Halogens
c. Quaternary ammonium compounds
d. Heavy metals
16. Which of the following compound is no longer used to preserve vaccines?
a. Calcium hypochlorite
b. Thimerosal
c. Hexachlorophene
d. Silver nitrate
17. All of the following antimicrobial agents function by chemically cross – linking and inactivating proteins and nucleic acids
except
a. Gluteraldehyde
b. Ethylene oxide
c. Beta – propiolactone
d. Peracetic acid
18. Which of the following is NOT a gaseous antimicrobial agent?
a. Propylene oxide
b. Beta – propiolactone
c. Ethylene oxide
d. Gluteraldehyde
19. Which of the following is incorrect pairing?
a. Iodophor: Alcohol solution of iodine
b. Chlorine dioxide : Antimicrobial gas
c. Bromine: Hot tub disinfectant
d. Chloramine: Disinfection of municipal water supplies
20. The decimal reduction time for endospore of Chlostridium botalinium is 0.204 minutes at 121 o C , how long should it take to
reduce a population of 1015 endospores to 1 endospore?
a. 2.0 minutes
b. 1.3 minutes
c. 2.5 minutes
d. 3.1 minutes
Chapter # 10 Controlling Microorganisms in the Body Antimicrobial Agents
1. Which of the following is Not the genus of antibiotic producing microbe?

a) Penicillium
b) Bacillus
c) Streptomyces
d) Streptococcus
2. The majority of antimicrobial agents are
a. Antiprotozoan
b. Antibacterial
c. Antifungal
d. Antihelminthic
3. All of the following are the mechanism of action associated with different types of cell wall inhibiting drugs except
a. They prevent cross linking between NAM subunits
b. The interfere with the formation of alanine – alanine cross bridges
c. They dismantle existing peptidoglycan molecule
d. The block the secretion of NAG and NAM from the cytoplasm
4. Which of the following cellular structures or molecules is most similar in both bacteria and human?
a. Cell membrane
b. Ribosome
c. Cell wall
d. DNA
5. Tetracycline inhibits which of the following?
a. Protein synthesis
b. Nucleic acid synthesis
c. Cell wall synthesis
d. Metabolic pathways
6. What is the reason that some drugs which inhibit protein synthesis in bacterial can also be harmful to humans?
a. Eukaryotic mitochondria have 70s ribosomes.
b. Some drugs are powerful enough to inhibit human cell protein synthesis as well as that of bacterial cells
c. Some human cells have mutated ribosomes which are more susceptible to these drugs
By M.Nadeem Khan
d. Human and bacteria have very similar types of ribosomes

7. What was the first practical antimicrobial agent to be widely used?
a. Arsenic compounds
b. Sulfanilamide
c. Vancomycin
d. Penicillin
8. Which of the following does not block the formation of folic acid in bacteria?
a. Dapsone
b. Trimethoprim
c. Metronidazole
d. Sulfanilamide
9. The bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase is a target of which of the following drug?
a. Quinolones
b. Isoniazid
c. Polymyxin
d. Aminoglycosides
10. Why are viruses more susceptible to nucleotide analogs than their host cells
a. Viruses replicate their nucleic acid more rapidly than host cells do
b. Viral DNA polymerase incorporate nucleotide analogs into their DNA more readly than do host cells
c. Cellular DNA is not distorted by the presence of nucleotide analogs as is viral DNA
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
11. All of the following drug results in the disruption of fungal cytoplasmic membrane except
a. Polymyxin
b. Tubinafine
c. Fluconazole
d. Amphotericin B
12. Which of the following routes of administration of an antimicrobial drug produces the lowest blood concentration of the drug?
a. Intramuscular
b. Oral
c. Intravenous
d. All of these
13. Beta – lactamases are an example of which of the following mechanisms of resistance?
a. Alteration of the cell's metabolism
b. Prevention of an antimicrobial drug's entery into the cell
c. Alteration of a cellular receptor for antimicrobial drug
d. Deactivation of an antimicrobial
14. Which of the following drugs does not inhibit protein synthesis by interacting with ribosomes?
a. Streptomycin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Fomiversan
d. Erythromycin
15. Which of the following drug interferes with nucleic acid synthesis?
a. Macrolides
b. Amphotericin B
c. Trimethoprim
d. Amantadine
16. Why is chemotherapy against Mycobacterium species so problematic?
a. They grow and reproduce very slowly
b. They don’t use sterols in their cell membrane
c. They have ribosomes that are different from those of other bacteria
d. They are not good drugs that can be used against Mycobacterium
17. Which of the following is a reason to make semisynthetic derivatives of naturally – occurring antibiotics
a. To make the drug more readily absorbed by the body.
b. To make the drug less susceptible to the activity of bacterial enzymes.
c. To make the drug more stable in the stomach
d. Both a and c
e. All of these
18. All of the following drugs inhibits protein synthesis exept
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Erythromycin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Streptomycin
19. Which of the following types of antimicrobial drugs is also effective against rapidly dividing cancer cells?
a. Nucleotide analogs
b. Protein synthesis inhibiters
c. Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
d. Disrupters of the cell membrane
20. A patient develops a serve intestinal infection as a result of antibiotic therapy for a respiratory infection. Which of the following
is the best explanation for why this occurred?
a. The patient is allergic to the antibiotic
b. The microbe that caused the original infection has become resistant to the antibiotic
c. The patient is showing signs of drug toxicity
d. The antibiotic has disrupted the normal microbiota of the intestine
By M.Nadeem Khan
Chapter # 11 Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes
1. All of the following are bacterial cell shapes except

a. Tetrads
b. Bacilli
c. Spirilla
d. Cocci
2. Snapping division is associated with which of the following?
a. Corynebacterium
b. Clostridium
c. Mycobacterium
d. Agrobacterium
2. Binary fission
a. Ends with the replication of the cell's DNA
b. Results in the disappearance of the parental cell
c. Occurs in all prokaryotes
d. Is asexual mode of reproduction
3. Endospores are resistant to all of the following except
a. Radiation
b. Boiling water
c. Bleach
d. To all of these
4. The Archaea
a. Are classified in one phylum
b. Have the same cell wall composition as other prokaryotes
c. Live in unusual habitats or generate unusual metabolic by products
d. Can cause disease in animals and humans
5. All of the following are examples of G + C Gram Positive bacteria except
a. Mycoplasma
b. Listeria
c. Mycobacterium
d. Streptococcus
6. The cyanobacteria were formerly known as
a. Actinomycetes
b. Purple sulfur bacteria
c. Blue – green algae
d. Mycoplasmas
7. Which of the following bacterial groups is known for its production of various toxin and endospores?
a. Actinomycetes
b. Psuedomonads
c. Mycoplasma
d. Clostridia
8. What is unusual about the mycoplasmas?
a. They produces huge quantities of methane
b. They move using axial filaments
c. They can survive inside immune cells
d. They don't have cell walls
9. All of the following are the groups of Archaea except
a. Halophiles
b. Thermophiles
c. Pseudomonads
d. Methanogens
10. Which of the following can be the contaminant of milk and meat products?
a. Lactobacillus
b. Bacillus
c. Streptococcus
d. Listeria
11. Why members of the bacterial genus Rhizobium important?
a. They convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form of nitrogen that is usable by plants
b. They cause tumor in plants
c. They can be used to leach metals from low – grade ores
d. They are important source of antibiotics
12. Which of the following can be used in the genetic manipulation of plants?
a. Caulobacter
b. Agrobacterium
c. Nitrosomonas
d. Zoogloea
13. Which of the following is a parasite of other bacteria?
a. Chlamydia
b. Myxobacteria
c. Spirochetes
d. Bdellovibrio
14. All members of the phylum Proteobacteria are
a. Gram Positive
b. Photosynthetic
By M.Nadeem Khan
c. High G + C bacteria
d. Gram Negative
15. "Swamps gas" is associated with which of the following?
a. Thermophiles
b. Phototrophs
c. Methanogen
d. Halophiles
16. Which of the following bacterial group is known for its unique life cycle, distinguished by the generation of differentiated
reproductive structures?
a. Pseudomonads
b. Myxobacteria
c. Bacteriods
d. Mycoplasmas
17. The most common type of asexual reproduction is
a. Binary fission
b. Sporulation
c. Fragmentation
d. Budding
18. Which of the following is a group of bacteria that resemble fungi in their growth characteristics?
a. Pseudomonads
b. Corynebacteria
c. Chlamydia
d. Actinomyctes
19. The largest and most diverse group of Proteobacteria is the
a. Gamma Proteobacteria
b. Alpha Proteobacteria
c. Beta Proteobacteria
d. Delta Proteobacteria
Chapter # 12 Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes
1. All of the following are terms associated with sexual reproduction except
a. Schizont
b. Gamete
c. Meiosis
d. Zygote
2. Cell duplicate their DNA during
a. Anaphase
b. Telophase
c. Prophase
d. Interphase
3. A chromatid is
a. A microtubule structure that helps divide chromosomes during mitosis
b. Pair of chromosomes visible during the last two stages of mitosis
c. Another term for chromosomes
d. One half of the chromosome visible during the first two stage of mitosis
4. Which of the following events does not happen during conjugation?
a. Disintegration of the macronucleus
b. Formation of a new macronucleus from micronuclei
c. Fusion of haploid macronuclei
d. Exchange of micronuclei between cells
5. Which of the following stages is responsible for generating the genetic variation associated with mitosis?
a. Metaphase II
b. Prophase II
c. Anaphase II
d. Prophase I
6. Mitosis produces
a. Four diploid nuclei
b. Two haploid nuclei
c. Four haploid nuclei
d. Two diploid nuclei
7. Dinoflagellates are classified as a type of protozoa on the basis of the presence of _______ in their cells?
a. Alveoli
b. Starch
c. Photosynthetic pigments
d. Cellulose cell wall
8. Which of the following groups of the protozoa contain membrane capsule of producing neurotoxins?
a. Euglenids
b. Dinoflagellates
c. Ciliates
d. Kinetoplasts
9. All of the following of protozoa have names related to their form of locomotion except
a. Amoebae
b. Dinoflagellate
c. Apicomplexans
By M.Nadeem Khan
d. Ciliates
10. All of the following are the characteristics of amoebae except
a. Most are non – pathogenic to humans
b. Exhibit bioluminescence
c. Many have protein or silica shells
d. Movement by pseudopodia
11. Which of the following is associated only to pathogenic fungi?
a. A thalus
b. A sporangium
c. A mycelium
d. Haustoria
12. Which of the following are asexual spores of fungi except
a. Sporangiospore
b. Chlamydiospore
c. Zygosporingia
d. Conidiospores
13. Association between fungi and photosynthetic microbes such as cyanobacteria or green algae are called
a. Lichens
b. Mycoses
c. Saprobes
d. Mycorrhzia
14. Which group of algae is most similar to plants in terms of their cell wall composition and the type of the chlorophyll they posses?
a. Chlorophyta
b. Rhodophyta
c. Chrysophyta
d. Phaeophyta
15. Which group of algae produces alginic acid, a substrate often used as a thickening agent?
a. Phaeophyta
b. Rhodophyta
c. Chlorophyta
d. Chrysophyta
16. A pseudoplasmodium is associated with which of the following groups of microbes?
a. A cellular slime molds
b. Cellular slime molds
c. Water molds
d. Pesudoplasmodium are associated with all of these
17. What is the stimulus for the reproduction of plasmodial slime mold?
a. Darkness
b. Presence of water
c. Presence of other slime mold
d. Absence of water or food
18. Meiosis of a diploid cell with 16 chromosomes in its nucleus will produce daughter cells with how many chromosomes?
a. 8
b. 4
c. 32
d. 16
19. Which of the following groups of protozoa are thought to have descended form eukaryotes that lost their organelles?
a. Diplomonadida
b. Euglenozoa
c. Amoebozoa
d. Alvelolates
20. A pellicle and an "eyespot" are features associated with protozoa in which of the following kingdoms?
a. Cercozoa
b. Amoebozoa
c. Euglenozoa
d. Radiolarian
Chapter # 13 Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids and Prions
1. Viruses lack all of the following except

a. Nucleic acid
b. Organelles
c. Cytoplasmic membrane
d. Cytosol
2. Which of the following term refers to a virus in the extracellular state?
a. Capsid
b. Nucleocapsid
c. Virion
d. Bacteriophage
3. The first virus to be identified was isolated from a
a. Bacterium
b. Plant
c. Fungus
d. Human
4. The protein coat of a virus is composed of subunit called
By M.Nadeem Khan
a. Capsid
b. Envelopes
c. Icosahedra
d. Capsomers
5. All of the following terms refers to viral shapes except
a. Prion
b. Complex
c. Helical
d. Polyhedral
6. Why do viruses have to infect host cells?
a. They infect host cells in order to cause tumors
b. They are dependent on host cells organelles and enzymes for their replication
c. They infect host cell in order to steal the cell's genome
d. They cannot survive outside the host cell.
7. The tail fibers of a bacteriophage are associated most closely to which of the following stages of the lytic replication cycle?
a. Attachment
b. Assembly
c. Entry
d. Synthesis
8. Which of the following viruses exhibits a lysogenic replication cycle?
a. HIV
b. Influenza virus
c. Lambda
d. T4
9. Which of the following viruses creates a DNA intermediary transcribed from their RNA genome?
a. Positive sense ssRNA
b. Negative sense ssRNA
c. dsDNA
d. retroviruses
10. Which of the following groups of viruses is replicated in the cell's nucleus?
a. Negative – sense ssRNA viruses
b. Positive – sense ssRNA viruses
c. dsDNA viruses
d. dsRNA viruses
11. Negative – sense ssRNA viruses require which of the following enzymes for their replication?
a. Lysozyme
b. Reverse transcriptase
c. RNA dependent RNA transcriptase
d. DNA polymerase
12. Bacteriophage can use all of the following structures for attachment to bacterial cell except
a. Flagella
b. The cell wall
c. Pilli the cytoplasmic membrane
13. A naked virus is one without
a. Capsomeres
b. An envelope
c. A genome
d. A capsid
14. All of the following are common features of bacteriophage and animals virus infections except.
a. Assembly
b. Penetration
c. Uncoating
d. Attachment
15. What is the advantage of Lysogeny to lambda phage?
a. The genome of the phage is replicated much faster.
b. Other phages infect the same cell and recombine with lambda phage
c. The host cell is destroyed more easily
d. The phage persists for generations in the bacteria genome.
16. The first evidence that the virus can cause some animal cancer was provided by
a. Prusiner
b. D Herelle
c. Ivanowsky
d. Rous
17. Viruses can be cultured in the laboratory using all of the following except
a. Embryonated eggs
b. Whole organisms
c. Agar plates
d. Cell cultures
18. HeLa cells are an example of a/ an
a. Plaque
b. Continuous cell culture
c. Diploid cell culture
d. Tumor
19. Which of the following types of genetic material is normally found in certain types of viruses
a. dsDNA
By M.Nadeem Khan
b. ssRNA
c. dsRNA
d. None of these is limited to viruses.
21. Prions are infectious because of which of the following phenomena?
a. Induction
b. Protein folding
c. Metastasis
d. Latency
Chapter # 14 Infection, Disease and Epidemiology
1. The growth of Staphylococcus aureus on human skin is an example of

a. Parasitism
b. Antagonism
c. Mutualism
d. Commensalism
2. Which of the following is most accurate definition of a pathogen?
a. A parasite that kills its host
b. Microbe that cause disease in humans
c. A virus it harms its host
d. A parasite that cause disease
3. All of the following are true statements concerning the normal microbiota except
a. The resident and transient microbiota are often found in the same areas.
b. An indivual's normal microbiota begins to develop at birth
c. The normal microbiota can become opportunistic pathogens
d. Most of the resident microbiota are mutualists
4. All of the following encourage the development of pathogen except
a. An invasion of an unusual body site by the normal microbiota
b. It exposure to a non-living reservoir
c. Immune suppression in the host
d. Changes in the host's normal microbiota
5. Why do the pathogens prefer the mucous membranes rather than the skin as a portal of entry?
a. Cells of mucous membranes are living
b. Mucous membranes are generally thinner than the skin
c. Mucous membranes have more attachment molecules
d. Both a and b
e. All of the three
6. The number of new cases of disease divided by the number of people at risk for the disease is called
a. Prevalence
b. Virulence
c. Morbidity
d. Incidence
7. Which of the following would be classified as a sign of a disease?
a. Nuasea
b. Headache
c. Diarrhea
d. Chills
8. Which of the following affects the function of cells lining the gastrointestinal tract?
a. Coagulase
b. Enterotoxin
c. Staphylokinase
d. Endotoxin
9. Which of the following types of bacterial toxins is capable of stimulating fever?
a. Only exotoxins
b. Only endotoxins
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
10. M protein produced by Streptococcus pyogenes, is an example of a /an
a. Extracellular enzyme
b. Antitoxin
c. Antiphagocytic chemical
d. Toxoid
11. Which of the following stage is not always exhibited by infectious disease?
a. Prodromal period
b. Incubation period
c. Decline
d. Convalescence
12. Rabies is an example of a/an
a. Epidemic disease
b. Latent disease
c. Syndrome
d. Zoonotic disease
13. Which of the following is associated with vector transmission?
a. Fomites
b. Droplet nuclei
By M.Nadeem Khan
c. House flies
d. Kissing
14. A disease that develops rapidly and lasts a short time is called a/an
a. Latent disease
b. Acute disease
c. Chronic disease
d. Subacute disease
15. All of the following are examples of non – communicable disease except
a. Influenza
b. Acne
c. Tetanus
d. Tooth decay
16. A disease which occurs more frequently than expected for a given population would be considred
a. Endemic
b. Pandemic
c. Sporadic
d. Epidemic
17. Koch postulates are an important part of which of the following?
a. Analytical epidemiology
b. Descriptive epidemiology
c. Experimental epidemiology
d. All of the above
18. Which of the following is not aspect of universal precautions?
a. Patient education about blood and body fluids
b. Use of protective barriers to prevent exposure to blood and body fluids
c. Immediate washing of hands and skin contaminated by blood and body fluids
d. Disposal of used needles in sharp containers
19. An infection caused by surgery or by the use of devices such as catheter is called
a. Endogenous infection
b. Exogenous infection
c. Iatrogenic infection
d. Endemic infection
20. Which of the following is not an activity associated with public health agencies in their work limiting disease transmission?
a. Monitoring sewage treatment and water supplies
b. Proper inspection of meats
c. Screening of health care workers for latent infections
d. Enforcements of standards in the preservation of foods
Chapter # 15 Innate Imunity
1. All of the following are associated with the protection of the skin except
a. Sebum
b. Complement
c. Lysozyme
d. All of these help in protection
2. Which of the following cells is responsible for mucus secretion in the respiratory system?
a. Goblet cells
b. Macrophages
c. Granulocytes
d. Platelets
3. All of the following are associated with the normal microbiota except
a. Phagocytosis of invaders
b. Stimulation of defense mechanism
c. Completion for nutrients
d. Secretion of antimicrobial substances
4. Lysozyme are found in all of the following secretions except
a. Tears
b. Vaginal secretions
c. Saliva
d. Urine
5. All of the following are associated with body's second line of defense except
a. Cells
b. Antimicrobial chemicals
c. Defensive processes
d. Barriers
6. All of the following are examples of fixed macrophages except
a. Kupffer cells
b. Alveolar macrophages
c. Microglia
d. All are fixed macrophages
7. Toll – like reciptors recognize
a. Complement protein
b. Microbial chemicals
c. Antibodies
d. Antimicrobial peptides
By M.Nadeem Khan
8. Which of the following type of granulocyte can phagocytoze pathogens?

a. Eosinophil
b. Basophil
c. Neutrophil
d. Both a and c
e. All of these
9. An abnormal amount of which of the following cells in indicative of helminth infestation?
a. NK cells
b. Eosinophil
c. Platelets
d. Macrophages
10. M protein a virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes, directly interferes with which of the following steps of phagocytosis?
a. Adherence
b. Digestion
c. Elimination
d. Chemotaxis
11. Which of the following is important defense against virus infected cells and cancer cells?
a. Monocytes
b. NK cells
c. Neutrophils
d. Kupffer cells
12. All of the following are true statements concerning complement except
a. Complement protein can trigger inflammation and fever
b. The alternate pathway of complement is useful in the early stages of infection
c. The product of each reaction in the complement cascade is an enzyme that catalyze the next reaction
d. Only the classical pathway of the complement results in the formation of MAC
13. Megakaryocytes are large cells that give rise to which of the following formed elements of blood?
a. Leukocytes
b. Platelets
c. Erythrocytes
d. Lymphocytes
14. Which of the following is also known as macrophage activation factor?
a. Beta interferon
b. Delta interferon
c. Gamma interferon
d. Alpha interferon
15. All the following are aspects of inflammation except
a. Migration of phagocytes
b. Tissue repair
c. An increase in metabolic rate
d. Dilation of blood vessels
16. All of the following are chemicals that provoke early events in inflammation except
a. Prostaglandins
b. Histamine
c. Pyrogens
d. Leukotrienes
17. Pus is associated with which of the following?
a. Inflammation
b. Interferon
c. Fever
d. Complement
18. The edema associated with inflammation is a direct result of activity of which of the following?
a. Interleukin – 1
b. Prostaglandins
c. C3a and C5a
d. Fibroblasts
19. Which of the following types of cell is able to create webs of extracellular fibers that help kill a variety of microbes?
a. NK cells
b. Neutrophils
c. Platelets
d. Eosinophils
20. All of the following are thought to be beneficial aspects of fever except
a. Stimulation of tissue repair
b. Denaturation of proteins
c. Inhibition of microbial growth
d. Increased activity of immune cells.
Chapter # 16 Specific Defense: Adaptive Immunity
1. All of the following are characteristics of effective antigens except.

a. Stable molecules
b. Large molecular weight
c. Simple molecule
d. Composed of protein or glycoprotein
2. How does penicillin trigger allergy in some people?
By M.Nadeem Khan
a. It is a very large molecule

b. It stays in the circulation too long.
c. It becomes attached to a hapten in the blood
d. The body metabolize it into other molecules that acts as antigens
3. Where are auto antigen found?
a. Virus – infected cells
b. Bacterial cells
c. Immune cells
d. Normal body cells
4. All of the following are the components of the lymphatic system except
a. Stem cells
b. The liver
c. The spleen
d. The thymus
5. All of the following are characteristics of lymphatic vessels except they
a. Flow away from the heart
b. Are extremely permeable
c. Have one – way valves
d. Are associated with lymph nodes
6. Hepatitis C virus disables the immune response against itself by interfering with the production of
a. CD4 cells
b. Tumor necrosis factor
c. Antibodies
d. Interferon
7. Plasma cells belong to which of the following groups of cells?
a. Cytotoxic T cells
b. Helper T cells
c. B cells
d. Macrophages
8. One variable region of antibody is composed of
a. 2 heavy chains
b. 1 heavy, 1 light chains
c. 2 light chains
d. 2 heavy and 2 light chains
9. Prevention of virus attachment to its target cell is an antibody function known as
a. Opsonisation
b. Apoptosis
c. Neutralization
d. Agglutination
10. Which of the following classes of antibody has an unknown function?
a. IgD
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgG
11. Which of the following classes of antibodies is transferred to newborns through the mother's breast milk?
a. IgD
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgG
12. Which of the following types of cells is depleted during HIV infection?
a. Helper T cell
b. Memory B cell
c. Suppresser T cell
d. Cytotoxic T cell
13. All of the following are examples of cytokines except
a. Perforins
b. TNF
c. Chemokines
d. Interferon
14. Lymphocyte editing occurs in which of the following sites?
a. Bone marrow
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. Both a and b
e. A b and c
15. All of the following are true statements concerning MHC except
a. MHC allows the body to distinguish between self and non self
b. If an antigen cannot bind to an MHC molecule, it will not trigger an immune response
c. There are two classes of MHC proteins
d. MHC protein control the recognition of antigens by B cells
16. Class I MHC molecules are found on which of the following types of cells?
a. B cells
b. Helper T cells
c. All nucleated cells
d. A and b
By M.Nadeem Khan
e. All are correct

17. Which of the following is a true statement concerning T – independent antigens?
a. They are large enough to cause cross – linking of B cell reciptors
b. They bind to MHC molecule more tightly than do T – dependent antigens
c. They are smaller than T – dependent antigens
d. They are found only on bacterial cells
18. The speed and effectiveness of the secondary immune response is dependent upon which of the following types of cells?
a. Plasma B cells
b. Memory cells
c. Antigen presenting cells
d. Helper T cells
19. All of the following are associated with cytotoxic T cells except
a. Perforins
b. Granzymes
c. Haptens
d. All are associated
20. Antibodies passed to newborn through its mother's breast milk are an example of
a. Artificially acquired active immunity
b. Artificially acquired passive immunity
c. Naturally acquired active immunity
d. Naturally acquired passive immunity
Chapter # 17 Immunization and Immune Testing
1. Edward Jenner method of protecting against small pox was called

a. Haemoglutination
b. Vaccination
c. Variolation
d. Immunodiffusion
2. Attenuation is
a. The process of increasing the antigenicity of a vaccine
b. The process of reducing a pathogen's virulence
c. Another term for passive immunization
d. Method of collecting antiserum from lab animals
3. Herd immunity can be stimulated by which of the following?
a. Antiserum
b. Toxiod vaccines
c. Live vaccines
d. Killed vaccines
4. Which of the following stimulates antibody – mediated immunity?
a. Toxoid vaccines
b. Killed vaccines
c. Live vaccines
d. B and c
e. A and b
5. Multiple doses and reinoculation ever 10 years are disadvantages of which of the following types of vaccines?
a. Modified live vaccines
b. Toxoid vaccines
c. Attenuated vaccines
d. All of the above
6. Oral polio vaccines is no longer routinely used in the U.S because
a. Immunized individuals can develop polio
b. It can cause anaphylactic shock in immunized individuals
c. It is much more expensive than other types of polio vaccines
d. It is not as effective as the inactivated polio virus
7. Why are monoclonal antibodies useful?
a. They are antibody preparation obtained from single animal
b. They are longer – lasting than regular antibody preparation
c. They work more quickly than regular antibody preparation
d. They are pure preparations of a single antibody molecule.
8. The statement " complex antigen are generally multivalent" means that complex antigens
a. Have many antigenic determinants
b. Are active only in large quantities
c. Are found in a wide variety of cells
d. Trigger many types of allergic reactions.
9. Immunodiffusion requires all of the following except
a. An ager plate
b. A solution of antibodies
c. An electrical current
d. A solution of antigens
10. An ant – antibody is an antibody directed against
a. Another antibody molecule
b. A larger, complex antigen
c. Two or more different antigens
d. An antigen found on normal body cells
By M.Nadeem Khan
11. Which of the following techniques involves the separation of antigens based on their sizes and electrical charges?
a. Agglutination
b. Radial Immunodiffusion
c. Immunofiltration
d. Immunoelctrophoresis
12. Which of the following types of antibody is most effective in an agglutination test?
a. IgD
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE
13. Serum that has a high antibody titer
a. Can be greatly diluted while still being able to cause agglutination
b. Causes less agglutination than serum with a low titer
c. Has a high antibody content
d. Both a and c are correct
e. Both b and c are correct
14. Which of the following is evidence of viral neutralization?
a. Presence of viral haemagglutination
b. Absence of cytopathic effect
c. Presence of viral pigments in the patient's serum
d. Absence of antigen – antibody precipitation
15. In a positive complement fixation test
a. Sheep RBC remain intact
b. Complement binds to the antigen – antibody complexes of interest
c. Sheep RBC are lysed
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
16. Which of the following is used to detect the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in sputum sample?
a. Western blot
b. A complement fixation test
c. A neutralization test
d. Direct fluorescent antibody test
17. All of the following are examples of labeled antibody test except
a. The ouchterlony test
b. Western blot
c. Fluorescent antibody test
d. ELISA
18. ELISA can be used for all of the following applications except
a. Detection of specific antibodies in the serum
b. Quantification of antibodies in serum
c. Quantification of complement proteins
d. Quantification of particular antigen in serum
19. All of the following are associated with western blot except
a. Gel electrophoresis
b. An enzyme – labeled anti – antibody solution
c. Sheep RBC
d. Nitrocellulose membrane
20. Which of the following is commonly used as the basis for the rapid pregnancy test?
a. An immunochromatographic assay
b. An immunofiltration assay
c. A radial immunodfifusion assay
d. An antibody sandwich ELISA
Chapter # 18 Hypersensitivities, Autoimmune Disease and Immune Responses
1. Allergens cause which of the following types of hypersensitivity?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
2. All of the following types of immune cells can produce the effects of allergy except
a. Mast cells
b. Neutrophils
c. Basophils
d. Eosinophils
3. All of the following are associated with type I hypersensitivity except
a. Urticaria
b. Hay fever
c. Glomerulonephritis
d. Asthma
4. All of the following might be used to treat type I hypersensitivity except
a. Corticosteroids
b. Rhogam
c. Epinephrine
d. Antihistamine
By M.Nadeem Khan
5. A person with type B blood will have which of the following types of antibodies present?
a. Anti – A
b. Anti – B
c. Both anti – A and anti – B
d. Neither anti – A nor anti – B
6. Which of the following is caused by differences in Rh antigens?
a. Allergic contact dermatitis
b. Anaphylactic shock
c. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
d. Systemic lupus erythermatosus
7. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is which of the following types of hypersensitivity?
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
8. What accounts for the time – delayed nature of type IV hypersensitivity?
a. The production of antibodies
b. The formation and deposition of immune complexes
c. The migration and proliferation of macrophages and T cells
d. The slow destruction of platelets
9. All of the following are examples of type IV hypersensitivity except
a. Graft rejection
b. Allergic contact dermatitis
c. Transfusion reactions
d. The tuberculin response
10. Which of the following is the least useful type of grafts in humans?
a. An allograft
b. An isograft
c. A xenograft
d. An autograft
11. Which of the following types of graft would provoke a type IV hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Isograft
b. Xenograft
c. Autograft
d. None of these
12. All of the following are privileged sites in the body except
a. The testes
b. The uterus
c. The thymus
d. The brain
13. Which of the following can result from a bone marrow transplant?
a. Systemic lupus erthyematosus
b. Graves' disease
c. Graft – versus – host disease
d. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
14. Which of the following immune suppressive drug is a folic acid antagonist?
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Cyclosporine
c. Methotrexate
d. Azathioprine
15. All of the following are possible explanations of the cause of the autoimmune disease except
a. The effects of estrogen on cytotoxic T cells
b. Maternal or fetal cells that accidently cross the placenta
c. Molecular mimicry
d. Clonal deletion of T cells in the thymus
16. Type I diabetes mellitus is a result of
a. Immunedeficiency
b. Type iv hypersensitivity
c. Immunosuppression
d. Autoimmunity
17. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease affecting nervous tissue?
a. DiGeorge anomaly
b. Lupus
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Graves' disease
18. Which of the following autoimmune disease results from a type iii hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Chronic granulomatous disease
c. Systemic lupus erthematosus
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
19. Which of the following is an example of a secondary immunodeficiency disease?
a. DiGeorge anomaly
b. AIDS
c. Bruton – type agammaglobulinemia
By M.Nadeem Khan
d. SCID
20. Bruton – type agammaglobulinemia is an immunodeficiency in which individual lack
a. Antibodies
b. A thymus
c. T cells
d. Neutrophils
Chapter # 19 Pathogenic Gram Positive Cocci and Bacilli
1. Which of the following molecules is associated with the ability of Staphylococcus aureus to evade phagocytosis?
a. Protein A
b. Enterotoxin
c. Beta – lactmase
d. Hyaluronidase
2. Which of the following microbes is NOT associated with contaminated food?
a. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Clostridium Botulinum
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
3. All of the following are associated with cutaneous disease caused by Staphylococcus aureus except
a. Empyema
b. Impetigo
c. Carbuncles
d. Folliculitis
4. Lancefied groups are associated with which of the following microbes?
a. Streptococcus
b. Staphylococcus
c. Clostridium
d. Mycobacterium
5. All of the following are associated with the pathogenicity of Streptococcus pyogenes except
a. Deoxyribonucleases
b. A hyaluronic acid capsule
c. Protein M
d. Enterotoxin
6. A diffuse rash associated with some Streptococcus pyogenes infections is a symptom of
a. Pharyngitis
b. Scarlet fever
c. Toxic shock syndrome
d. Necrotizing fascilitis
7. Which of the following can be caused by either a bacterial or viral infection?
a. Pharyngitis
b. Impetigo
c. Anthrax
d. Leprosy
8. Which of the following is associated with dental caries?
a. Virdans streptococcus
b. Group A streptococcus
c. Sptreptococcus pneumonia
d. Group B streptococcus
9. Group B streptococcus is a special problem for which of the following groups?
a. The elderly
b. Young adults
c. Teenagers
d. Newborns
10. All of the following are pneumococcal disease except
a. Glumerlonephritis
b. Otitis media
c. Endocarditis
d. Meningitis
11. Which of the following is an endospore – forming genus of Gram Positive bacilli?
a. Bacillus
b. Corynbacterium
c. Clostridium
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
12. An eschar is associates with which type of anthrax?
a. Cutaneous anthrax
b. Inhalation anthrax
c. Gastrointestinal anthrax
d. With all of the above
13. Hansen's disease is another term for which of the following?
a. Leprosy
b. Deptheria
c. Tetanus
d. Gas Gangrene
By M.Nadeem Khan
14. Which of the following microbe is an opportunistic pathogen in patients being treated with broad – spectrum antibiotics?
a. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Nocardia asteroids
c. Mycobacterium lepree
d. Clostridium difficille
15. Feeding honey to an infant less than a year old can result in which of the following disease?
a. Botulinum
b. Diphtheria
c. Pneumonia
d. Meningitis
16. Which of the following is capable of growing inside human cells?
a. Leisteria monocytogenes
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Corynebacterium diphtheria
d. Both a and b
e. All of these
17. Which of the following is effectively prevented by immunization?
a. Leprosy
b. Botulism
c. Diphtheria
d. Tuberculosis
18. Mycetoma is a symptom of infection with which of the following?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Propionibacterium
c. Nocardia asteroids
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
19. BCG vaccine protects against which of the following?
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Bacillus anthracis
c. Staphalycoccus aureus
d. Clostridium Botulinum
20. Which of the following can opportunistic pathogen in patients with catheter or artificial joints?
a. Nocordia asteroids
b. Propionibacterium
c. Clostridium prfringens
d. Mycobacterium lepree
Chapter # 20 Pathogenic Gram – Negative Cocci and Bacilli
1. All of the following are causes of sexually transmitted disease except

a. Yersinia
b. Neisseria
c. Haemophilus
d. All of these
2. PID is associated with which of the following?
a. Bordetella
b. Brucella
c. Klebsella
d. Neisseria
3. All of the following are the members of enterobacteriacaeae except
a. Serratia
b. Proteus
c. Pseudomonas
d. E. coli
4. All of the following are molecules associated with the outer membrane of the Enterobacteriaceae except
a. H antigen
b. O polysaccharide
c. Common antigen
d. Lipid A
5. Why are antibiotic not generally used to treat diarrheal disease caused by enteric bacteria?
a. Most enteric bacteria are resistant to antibiotics
b. Most cases of diarrhea are self – limiting
c. Antibiotics can make some enteric infections worse
d. Both a and c
e. Both b and c
6. Which of the following is the correct designation for capsular antigen of enteric bacteria?
a. C
b. O
c. K
d. H
7. Which of the following coliform is noted for its production of a red – pigment?
a. Klebsella
b. Serratia
c. E. coli
d. Enterobacter
By M.Nadeem Khan
8. Which of the following is often carried in the gallbladder of an infected individual?

a. Pasteurella
b. Yersinia
c. Shigella
d. Salmonella
9. Taxonomically, all Salmonella are thought to be members of the species
a. S. typhi
b. S. Paratyphi
c. S. typhimurim
d. S. enterica
10. Which of the following enteric bacteria has an extremely low infection dose?
a. E. coli
b. Proteus
c. Salmonella
d. Shigella
11. Amplifying host for Yersinia pestis
a. Are animals such as rats and mice
b. Do not die from the infection
c. Support increase in the number of infected fleas
d. All of the above
12. Which of the following is associated with cat and dog bites?
a. Haemophilus
b. Pasteurella
c. Brucella
d. Pseudomonas
13. All of the following are transmitted by various insect vectors except
a. Trench fever
b. Tularemia
c. Undulant fever
d. Plague
14. Which of the following can infect a variety of domestic animals such as goats and cattle?
a. Bartonella
b. Brucella
c. Bordetella
d. Pasteurella
15. Which of the following microbes may be useful in the cleanup contaminated environmental sites?
a. Legionella pneumophila
b. Bordetella pertussis
c. Bartonella bacillifromis
d. Burkholderia cepacia
16. All of the following are characteristics of pseudomonas aeruginosa except
a. It uses the Enter – Doudoroff pathway of glucose metabolism
b. It can be found in virtually every environment
c. It expresses few virulence factors
d. It has inherent resistance to a wide variety of antimicrobial agents.
17. Who is most at risk for Farncisella infections?
a. Sexually active individuals
b. Cystic fibrosis patients
c. Hunters
d. Infants
18. Which of the following can be spread by air conditioning systems?
a. Bordetella
b. Haemophilus
c. Legionella
d. Bacteriods
19. The cause of Q fever is
a. Bartonella henselae
b. Francisella tularensis
c. Coxiellia burnetii
d. Unknown
20. All of the following terms are associated with Neisseria except
a. Oxidase positive
b. Coliform
c. Diploccocci
d. LOS
Chapter # 21 Mycoplasmas, Rickettsias and Chlamydia
1. Which of the following statements concerning the classification of mycoplasmas is correct?

a. They stain Gram Negative but are genetically similar to Gram Positive bacteria
b. They stain Gram Positive but are genetically similar to Gram Negative bacteria
c. They stain Gram Negative and are genetically similar to Gram Negative bacteria
d. They are not really bacteria
2. Why primary atypical pneumonia is often called "walking" pneumonia?
a. Because patients with it exhibits much milder symptoms than those of other types of pneumonia.
By M.Nadeem Khan
b. Because patient can cough productively only when they walk around
c. Because in the 19th century, people acquired it from walking in the cold winter air
d. Because it is spread easily among family members and other close contacts
3. Which of the following is a cause of nongonococcal urethritis?
a. Ureaplasma urealyticum
b. Mycoplasma hominis
c. Mycoplasma genitalium
d. Both a and c
e. All of the above
4. Why is penicillin useless in treating mycoplasma infections?
a. Most species of mycoplasmas have become resistant to penicillin
b. Mycoplasma do not have a cell wall
c. Mycoplasma metabolizes penicillin too quickly for it to have any effect on the cell.
d. Penicillin does not enters mycoplasma cell readily
5. All of the following are pieces of evidence supporting the cellular nature of rickettsias except
a. They contain functional ribosomes
b. They reproduce via binary fission
c. They have a typical bacterial cell wall
d. They contain DNA and RNA
6. The symptoms of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever are result of
a. The host immune response against R.Rickettsias
b. Rikettsial toxin
c. Damage to blood vessels
d. All of the above
7. Which of the following organism causes scrub typhus?
a. Leptospira
b. Helicobacter
c. Ehrlichia
d. Orienta
8. Which of the following is classified as an emerging disease?
a. Latent syphilis
b. Lyme disease
c. Peptic ulcer
d. Human monocytic ehrlichiosis
9. Lymphogranuloma venereum is associated with infection of which of the following?
a. Chlamydia pneumonia
b. Campylobacter jejuni
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Treponema pallidum pertenue
10. Which of the following can produce blindness especially in children?
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Chlamydia psittaci
c. Chlamydia pneumonia
d. All of these
11. A widespread rash extending to even the soles of the feet is associated with
a. Tertiary syphilis
b. Latent syphilis
c. Secondary syphilis
d. Primary syphilis
12. All of the following are nonvenereal treponemal disease except
a. Bejel
b. Yaws
c. Ornithosis
d. Pinta
13. Arthritis is a major symptom of which of the following diseases?
a. Epidemic typhus
b. Relapsing fever
c. Lyme disease
d. Cholera
14. Relapsing fever can be transmitted by all of the following except
a. Lice
b. Ticks
c. Fleas
d. All of these can transmit
15. Which of the following is a zoonosis?
a. Cholera
b. Bejel
c. Leptospirosis
d. Trachoma
16. Why Vibrio Cholera is the most likely cause of cholera contracted from contaminated drinking water?
a. It is only specie of vibrio that is found world wide
b. It is the most virulent specie of vibrio
c. It is the only specie of the vibrio that can survive in fresh water
d. It is the only specie of vibrio that can survive exposure to stomach acid
17. Cholera toxin
By M.Nadeem Khan
a. Is composed of three types of subunits

b. Produce rice – water stools
c. Inactivates adenylate cyclase
d. Both b and c
e. All of the above
18. Septicemia can result from infection with
a. Vibrio vulnificus
b. Vibrio cholera
c. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d. All of the above
19. Campylobacter jujeni is the most common cause of which of the following disease in the United States?
a. Bacterial gastroenteritis
b. Pneumonia
c. Typhus
d. Ulcers
20. All of the following are virulence factors that allow Helicobacter plyori to colonize the stomach except.
a. Adhesions
b. Flagella
c. Reticulate bodies
d. Exotoxins
Chapter # 22 Pathogenic Fungi
1. Which of the following is not a factor that increases an individual's risk of experiencing opportunistic mycosis?
a. Catheterization
b. Poor hygiene
c. Diabetes
d. All of these are involved in doing such
2. Which of the following method of diagnosing a fungal infection is used for dimorphic fungal pathogen?
a. Growth at 25 and 37 oC
b. KOH preparation
c. Direct immunoflourscence nucleic acid probes
d. GMS stain
3. Why is Sabouraud dextrose agar used to isolate fungi in specimens collected from patients?
a. It encourages the growth of opportunistic fungi
b. It favors fungal growth over bacterial growth
c. It suppress the growth of non – pathogenic fungi
d. It reveals the presence of dimorphic fungi
4. Which of the following is the target of most antifungal agents?
a. Cell division
b. DNA synthesis
c. Ergosterol
d. RNA synthesis
5. Which of the following antifungal drug is used for fungal infections of the nails?
a. Flourocytosine
b. Amphotericin B
c. Griseofulvin
d. Ergosterol
6. Systemic fungal infections initially begin as which of the following types of infections?
a. Nervous system
b. Pulmonary
c. Intestinal
d. Subcutaneous
7. In Eastern United States, approximately 90% of the population will test positive for the exposure of which of the following?
a. Paracoccidioides
b. Histoplasma
c. Coccidioides
d. Blastomyces
8. Tissues samples that exhibit "steering wheel" formation of yeast cells are indicative of infection with which of the following?
a. Coccidioides
b. Blastomyces
c. Paracoccidioides
d. Histoplasma
9. The diagnosis of opportunistic fungal infections is a special challenge for children because
a. They often present atypical symptoms
b. They often occur in individuals not residing in endemic areas.
c. They cause more sever sign and symptoms that would be observed in a healthy person.
d. All of these
10. Which of the following is a common member of the skin – microbiota?
a. Pneumocystis
b. Candida
c. Cryptococcus
d. Aseprgillus
11. All of the following are aspects of pathogenicity of Cryptococcus except?
a. Predilection for the bloodstream
By M.Nadeem Khan
b. Production of melanin
c. Capsule formation
d. All of these are apects
12. Which of the following was originally thought to be a protozoan?
a. Pneumocystis jiroveci
b. Candida albicans
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Aspergillus niger
13. All of the following cause zygomycoses except
a. Trichopyton
b. Rhizopus
c. Absidia
d. Mucor
14. All of the following are associated with end – stage AIDS patients except
a. Candida albicans
b. Aspergillus fumigatus
c. Amanita phalloides
d. Cryptococcus neoformans
15. Which of the following is an emerging fungal disease associated with AIDS patients?
a. Pneumocystis jiroveci
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Malassezia furfur
d. Trichosporon beigelii
16. All of the following are examples of superficial mycosis except
a. Ring worm
b. Piedra
c. Pityriasis
d. Mycetoma
17. Which of the following is associated with pityriasis?
a. Piedraia hortae
b. Fonsecaea pedrosoi
c. Trichophyton rubrum
d. Malassezia furfur
18. Which of the following commonly infects the arms and legs of gardeners?
a. Sporothrix schencki
b. Aspergillus flavus
c. Phialophora verrucosa
d. Trichosporon beigelii
19. All of the following are sources to exposure to mycotoxins except
a. Milk
b. Inhalation of airborne spores
c. Contaminated grains
d. Al of these
20. Which of the following is source of important drug such as ergometerine and ergotamine?
a. Gyromitra esculenta
b. Clavicep purpura
c. Psilocybe cubensis
d. Amanita phalloides
Chapter # 23 Pathogenic Protozoa, Helminths and Arthropod borne Vectors
1. Balantidium coli is found in all of the following hosts except

a. Primates
b. Rodents
c. Blood sucking flies
d. Pigs
2. Which of the following Amoebae are involved in brain infections?
a. Entamoeba
b. Naegleria
c. Acanthamoeba
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
3. Testes flies can carry
a. Gardia intestinalis
b. Trypanosome brucei
c. Trypanosome cruzi
d. Plasmodium falciparium
4. The cyclical waves of parasitemia associated with Trypanasoma brucei infections are related to
a. Immunesupressive effects of the parasite
b. The host inflammatory response
c. Trypanasoma toxins
d. Antigenic variation
5. The vector for the disease nick named "Bghdad boil" is the
a. Mosquito
b. Testes fly
By M.Nadeem Khan
c. Body louse
d. Sand fly
6. All of the following have preference for the intestinal tract except
a. Balantidium
b. Entamoeba
c. Trichomonas
d. Giardia
7. All of the following are characteristics of all apicomplexan parasites except
a. They are parasites of animals
b. The infect the blood stream
c. They require two types of hosts to complete their life cycle
d. All of these are characteristics associated with
8. All of the following are associated with the Plasmodium life cycle except
a. Amastigotes
b. Merozygotes
c. Hypnozoites
d. Ookinetes
9. Resistance to malaria is increased by all of the following except
a. Sickle – cell anemia
b. Presence of hameoglobin A
c. Glucose – 6 – phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
d. Lack of duffy antigens of erythrocytes
10. Which is thought to be the major source of toxoplasma infection for humans?
a. Ingestion of undercooked meat
b. Contact with infected cats and their feces
c. Bites from infected arthropods
d. All of these can transmit toxoplasma
11. Which of the following parasite can cross the placenta?
a. Toxoplasma
b. Plasmodium
c. Cryptosporidium
d. Cyclospora
12. Which of the following disease is now being treated with drugs derived from traditional cheese medicines?
a. Malaria
b. Giardiasis
c. Leishmaniasis
d. Chagas' disease
13. Humans are "dead end" for tapeworm Taenis Solium because
a. Humans are not normally cannibals
b. Solum is killed by the normal microbiota of the intestinal tract.
c. Solum larvae have no way of leaving the human digestive tract
d. Human lack an important growth factor for further development of tapeworm.
14. Tapeworm use their scolex for
a. Anchorage
b. Ingesting nutrients
c. Reproduction
d. For all these functions
15. Cysticerci are found in which of the following hosts of cestode?
a. The definitive host
b. The intermediate host
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
16. Which of the following tapeworms has an affinity for liver?
a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Taenia solium
d. Taenia saginata
17. Flukes can parasitize all of the following except
a. The liver
b. The lungs
c. The blood stream
d. The brain
18. The deposition of eggs in the perianal area is a characteristic of which of the following?
a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Enterobius vermicluaris
c. Fasciola hepatica
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
19. The condition elephantiasis is associated with infection of which of the following?
a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Fasciola gigantica
c. Wuchereria bancrofti
d. Necator americanus
20. Which of the following disease is known "snail fever" in china?
a. Giardiasis
b. Ascariasis
By M.Nadeem Khan
c. Filariasis
d. Schistosomiasis
Chapter # 24 Pathogenic DNA Viruses
1. Raised lesion filled with clear liquid are called

a. Pustules
b. Macules
c. Vesicles
d. Papules
2. Poxviruses are transmitted primarily by
a. Sexual contact
b. Droplet inhalation
c. Direct contact
d. Zoonotic transfer
3. Which of the following disease can be transmitted to humans by infected pet rodents?
a. Whitlow
b. Hepatitis
c. Varicella
d. Monkeypox
4. All of the following are reasons that small pox was eventually eradicated
a. Small pox cannot be carried asymptomatically
b. There is no animal reservoir of small pox
c. Small pox is easily treated
d. Small pox can be quickly and accurately diagnosed
5. Infections involving which of the following have the highest mortality rate?
a. Molluscipoxivirus
b. Variola minor
c. Variola major
d. Vaccinia virus
6. All of the following are dsDNA viruses except
a. Poxviruses
b. Parvoviruses
c. Adenoviruses
d. Herpesviruses
7. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is NOT commonly seen in the United States?
a. Genital herpes
b. Genital warts
c. Molluscum contagiosum
d. Hepatitis B
8. HHV – 1 causes
a. Kaposi's sarcoma
b. Genital herpes
c. Infectious mononucleosis
d. Cold sores
9. Which of the following is Not associate with HHV – 1 or HHV – 2?
a. Ocular herpes
b. Herpes gladiatorum
c. Shingles
d. Whitlow
10. Which of the following can be used to diagnose herpes infections?
a. Observation of characteristic lesion
b. Microscopic examination of syncytia in tissue specimens
c. Immunoassay
d. All of these
11. Chicken pox in adult is more severe than in children because
a. Adults are usually infected by more virulent strain of VZV
b. Adults have more developed immune system
c. VZV can spread to the brain and spinal cord in adults
d. VZV is more likely to become latent in children
12. All of the following are true statements concerning shingles except
a. A person can have multiple recurrences of shingles
b. Shingle lesion tends to be localized
c. A person with shingles can give chicken pox to someone who has never had it
13. Epstein – Bar virus is known to cause which of the following?
a. Oral hairy leukoplakia
b. Chronic fatigue syndrome
c. Hodgkin's lymphoma
d. Burkitt's lymphoma
14. Epstein – Bar virus is transmitted by
a. Sexual contact
b. Direct contact
c. Saliva
d. Blood
15. Infection with which of the following can result in mental retardation in children?
By M.Nadeem Khan
a. Epstein – Bar virus

b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Varicella – Zoster virus
d. HHV – 6
16. Papillomaviruses cause
a. Warts
b. Fifth disease
c. Respiratory infections
d. Multiple sclerosis
17. All of the following can cause cancer except
a. HBV
b. Papillomaviruses
c. Parvoviruses
d. Polyomaviruses
18. The drug fomivirsen is used to halt the progression of the disease caused by which of the following?
a. CMV
b. HHV – 6
c. HBV
d. HIV – 1
19. Dane particles are associated with which of the following
a. HBV
b. Pinkeye
c. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
d. Burkitt's lymphoma
20. Amother name for fifth disease is
a. Roseola
b. Erythema infectiosum
c. Infectious mononucleosis
d. Whitlow
Chapter # 25 Pathogenic RNA Viruses
1. All of the following diseases are caused by positive ssRNA viruses except
a. Polio
b. Measles
c. Hepatitis A
d. The common cold
2. Rhinovirus infection can be transmitted by all of the following except
a. Fomites
b. Hand – to – hand contact
c. Aerosols
d. Arthropod vectors
3. Most polio virus infection results in
a. Paralytic polio
b. Asymptomatic infections
c. Minor polio
d. Nonparalytic polio
4. Which of the following is not considered to be a "dead end" host for West Nile Virus?
a. Horses
b. Humans
c. Rodents
d. All are dead ends hosts
5. Which of the following disease is caused by an arbovirus?
a. Rubella
b. Hepatitis E
c. Hemorrhagic fever
d. Yellow fever
6. Dengue fever is commonly known as
a. German measles
b. Yellow jack
c. Reye's syndrome
d. Break bone fever
7. Which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her unborn child?
a. Rubella virus
b. HIV
c. Coxsackei B virus
d. All of the above
8. All of the following are HIV envelope glycoproteins except
a. Gp 120
b. Gp 41
c. Cd 4
d. All of are found on the surface of the HIV
9. Some HIV infected individual have not yet developed AIDS because
a. They are infected with defective virus
b. Their cells lack effective corecetptors for the virus
By M.Nadeem Khan
c. They have well – developed immune system

d. Any of the above
10. HAART is a therapy used for treatment of infections of which of the following?
a. Influenza virus
b. Rabies virus
c. HIV
d. RSV
11. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a rare complication of
a. AIDS
b. Mumps
c. Measles
d. Rubella
12. A single vaccine can be used to immunize against all of the following except
a. Rubella
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Polio
13. Infection of which of the following are prevalent in day – care centers?
a. Parainfluenza virus
b. Rubella virus
c. Respiratory syncytial virus
d. Poliovirus
14. The SARS virus was identified as a type of coronavirus using which of the following?
a. Agglutination assay
b. DNA microarray
c. ELISA
d. Western blot
15. What is the leading cause of death among HIV – infected individuals?
a. Taxoplasmosis
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Tuberculosis
d. Kaposi's sarcoma
16. All of the following are true statements concerning influenza virus except
a. The NA molecule is used to hydrolyze mucus
b. Antigenic shift occurs yearly in influenza viruses
c. The sign and symptoms of flu are due to the effects of immune response against virus.
d. There are two species of this virus.
17. Bunyavirus infections are transmitted primarily by
a. Direct contact
b. Arthropod vectors
c. Sexual contact
d. Respiratory droplets
18. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome can be largely prevent by
a. Insect control
b. Hand washing
c. Universal precautions
d. Rodent control
19. Hepatitis D virus is unusual for what reason?
a. It does not actually cause hepatitis
b. It uses an RNA intermediate for its replication
c. Its steals its glycoprotein from another virus
d. It can be transmitted by respiratory methods
20. Half of all severe diarrhea in children is caused by
a. Para influenza virus
b. Coltivirus
c. Influenza virus
d. Rota virus
Chapter # 26 Applied and Environmental Microbiology
1. Saccharomyces cerevesiae is used in the production of

a. Ale
b. Leavened bread
c. Wine
d. All of the above
2. All of the following are associated with the production of wine except
a. Hops
b. Starter culture
c. Must
d. Sulfur dioxide
3. All of the following are intrinsic factors in food spoilage except
a. The food's physical nature
b. PH
c. The presence of preservatives
d. Water activity
By M.Nadeem Khan
4. Tomato sauce is an example of

a. Highly – perishable
b. Perishable
c. Semi – perishable
d. Non – perishable
5. All of the following are examples of preservative except
a. Wort
b. Wood smoke
c. Garlic
d. Benzoic acid
6. All are the aspect of continuous flow production in industrial fermentation except
a. The fermentation product is harvested all at once
b. Wastes are constantly removed
c. Fresh nutrients are constantly added
d. The microbe secretes its products into the medium.
7. PHA is
a. A hormone made by recombinant E.coli
b. A pesticide
c. A preservative
d. A bacterial polymer
8. The toxin of which of the following is used as a biological insecticide?
a. Pseudomonas syringae
b. Botrycococcus braunii
c. Aspergillus oryzae
d. Bacillus thringiensis
9. During the flocculation step of water treatment,
a. Suspended particles and microbes are removed
b. Biofilm are used to purify the water
c. Chlorine is added
d. Sand and silt settle out.
10. Which process is used by some bacteria to convert ammonium into nitrogen gas using nitrate as an electron acceptor?
a. Nitrification
b. Denitrification
c. Anammox
d. Ammonification
11. Which steps of waste water treatment accomplishes the disinfection of the water?
a. Sludge treatment
b. Primary treatment
c. Secondary treatment
d. Chemical treatment
12. Oxidation lagoons accomplish the same result as which of the following?
a. Primary treatment
b. Sludge treatment
c. Secondary treatment
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
13. Which of the following is an example of bioremediation?
a. An artificial wetland
b. The use of bacteria to clean up oil spills
c. The production of methane as an alternative fuel
d. All of these
14. Which of the following is largest ecological association?
a. Community
b. Ecosystem
c. Population
d. Guild
15. Which of the following stages of biochemical cycling involves the transformation of certain organic chemicals into other organic
chemicals?
a. Production
b. Decomposition
c. Turnover
d. Consumption
16. All of the following are associated with carbon cycle except
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Ammonia
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Methane
17. Microbes such as Rhizobium are integral participants in which of the following?
a. Nitrogen cycle
b. Sulfur cycle
c. Carbon cycle
d. Phosphorous cycle
18. Which of the following regions of a deep lake is deepest?
a. The littoral zone
b. The profundal zone
By M.Nadeem Khan
c. The limnetic zone

d. The benthic zone
19. All of the following are aspects an ideal biological warfare except
a. Can be treated outside the hospital
b. Produces the secondary and tertiary waves of infection
c. High lethality
d. Long – term environmental stability
20. Which of the following category A bioterror threats is the most worrisome?
a. Botulism
b. Plague
c. Tularemia
d. Smallpox
‫ﺗﺼﻮﯾﺮ ﺗﯿﺮی ﺟﺲ دن ﺳﮯ زﮨﻦ ﻣﯿﮟ ﺑﻨﺎ ﯾﯽ ﮨﮯ۔‬

‫ اﻧﮑﮭﻮں ﺳﮯ ﻧﯿﻨﺪ اﭘﻨﯽ ﮔﻨﻮاـﯽ ﮨﮯ‬،‫دل ﺳﮯ ﭼﮭﯿﻦ‬
By M.Nadeem Khan

Microbiology 2nd MCQ&#39;s

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Microbiology 2nd MCQ&#39;s

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Microbiology 2nd edition mcq,s January 21, 2015

Chapter # 1 A Brief History of Microbiology

Chapter # 2 Chemistry of Microbiology

10. Which of the following pairs of terms is an incorrect match?

Chapter # 3 Cell Structure and Function

b. "Runs" and "tumbles" are characteristics of eukaryotic cell movement.

c. Lipid soluble molecules

Chapter # 4 Microscopy, Staining and Classification

Chapter # 5 Microbial Metabolism

e. All of the above.

Chapter # 6 Microbial Nutrition and Growth

1. Which of the following PH level would probably be lethal to an alkalophile?

Chapter # 7 Microbial Genetics

Chapter # 8 Recombinant DNA Technology

b. They are an important tool of Recombinant DNA Technology

Chapter # 9 Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment

Chapter # 10 Controlling Microorganisms in the Body Antimicrobial Agents

1. Which of the following is Not the genus of antibiotic producing microbe?

d. Human and bacteria have very similar types of ribosomes

Chapter # 11 Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes

1. All of the following are bacterial cell shapes except

Chapter # 12 Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes

Chapter # 13 Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids and Prions

1. Viruses lack all of the following except

Chapter # 14 Infection, Disease and Epidemiology

1. The growth of Staphylococcus aureus on human skin is an example of

Chapter # 15 Innate Imunity

8. Which of the following type of granulocyte can phagocytoze pathogens?

Chapter # 16 Specific Defense: Adaptive Immunity

1. All of the following are characteristics of effective antigens except.

a. It is a very large molecule

e. All are correct

Chapter # 17 Immunization and Immune Testing

1. Edward Jenner method of protecting against small pox was called

Chapter # 18 Hypersensitivities, Autoimmune Disease and Immune Responses

1. Allergens cause which of the following types of hypersensitivity?

Chapter # 19 Pathogenic Gram Positive Cocci and Bacilli

Chapter # 20 Pathogenic Gram – Negative Cocci and Bacilli

1. All of the following are causes of sexually transmitted disease except

8. Which of the following is often carried in the gallbladder of an infected individual?

Chapter # 21 Mycoplasmas, Rickettsias and Chlamydia

1. Which of the following statements concerning the classification of mycoplasmas is correct?

a. Is composed of three types of subunits

Chapter # 22 Pathogenic Fungi

Chapter # 23 Pathogenic Protozoa, Helminths and Arthropod borne Vectors

1. Balantidium coli is found in all of the following hosts except

Chapter # 24 Pathogenic DNA Viruses

1. Raised lesion filled with clear liquid are called

a. Epstein – Bar virus

Chapter # 25 Pathogenic RNA Viruses

c. They have well – developed immune system

Chapter # 26 Applied and Environmental Microbiology

1. Saccharomyces cerevesiae is used in the production of

4. Tomato sauce is an example of

c. The limnetic zone

‫ﺗﺼﻮﯾﺮ ﺗﯿﺮی ﺟﺲ دن ﺳﮯ زﮨﻦ ﻣﯿﮟ ﺑﻨﺎ ﯾﯽ ﮨﮯ۔‬

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Microbiology 2nd MCQ's

Microbiology 2nd MCQ's