Physics Support Material 23-24

MESSAGE BY THE DEPUTY COMMISSIONER
I am delighted to announce the release of Support Material/Study material for the
students of class X and XII. In our relentless pursuit of academic excellence, we have been
constantly revising and upgrading our teaching methodologies and resources. And one of the
important resources is the support material which is prepared by Kendriya Vidyalayas for
the students of class X and XII. This Support material is in two parts: Part A is the core
concepts/topics of all subjects which aims minimum level of learning for each student and
Part B is a detailed topics/lessons with practice questions which aims to foster a deeper
understanding of subjects, stimulate critical thinking and helps in achieving better score in
CBSE exam. Whereas Part A is planned to be printed and distributed amongst all students
whereas Part B which is the larger one is planned to disseminate through electronic
media/blogs.
I hope this support material in two parts will greatly benefit the academic journey of class X
and XII not only in pursuit of good result in CBSE exams but also helpful for various
entrance examinations.
Let’s march ahead with dedicated minds and relentless endeavors for better future through
better education.
With warm regards
2
CONTENT DEVELOPEMENT TEAM FOR CLASS XII – 2023 - 24
NAME OF THE NAME OF THE NAME OF THE KV REVIEW TEAM
CHAPTER TEACHER
Electric Charges Ms. Leena Mary KV Kollam Ms. K V Sudha,

and Fields
Ms. Geetha S KV NTPC Kayamkulam KV No 1 Calicut
Electric Potential Mr. Haridasan M K KV Thrissur Mr. Ramachandran M,
& Capacitance
Ms. A Jyothi KV Thrissur KV Thrissur
Current Electricity Ms. Preetha. R KV CRPF Pallipuram Ms. Mony P,
Mr. Madhu P.L KV CRPF Pallipuram KV No 1 Palakkad
Moving Charges Ms. Beena Divakar K V No1,Naval Base, Kochi Mr. K Sivadas,
& Magnetism
Ms Rajalatha KV INS Dronacharya KV Kanjikode
Magnetism & Matter Ms. Bindu Nelson K V No1,Naval Base, Kochi Mr. Suresh Kumar S K
Ms. Shiny Johney K V No1,Naval Base, Kochi KV Ernakulam
Electromagnetic Ms. Sindhu R Menon KV Kannur Mr. Sreeja Vivek
Induction KV NO 1 Calicut
Ms. Shameena A KV Kannur
Alternating Currents Mr. Vilesh V L No 1 Kasaragod Ms. Thanuja P A,
Ms. Pushpa Rani KV Kanhangad KV Keltron Nagar
Electromagnetic Ms. Shiny Thomas KV No2 Naval Base, Kochi Mr. Suresh G,
Waves
Mr. Francis paul KV No2 Naval Base, Kochi KV Adoor Shift II
Ray Optics and Mr. Sukesh. G KV Pangode Mr. Randheer,
Optical Instruments
Ms. Chitra. G KV Pangode KV No 1 Palakkad
Wave Optics Ms. Jayasree V R KV Port Trust Ms. Asha J P
Ms. Roja Rani A N KV Port Trust KV NAD Aluva
Dual Nature of Ms. P. Beena Kumari K V Ottapalam Ms. R Amudha,
Radiation and
Ms. Meera. V KV Ottapalam KV Port Trust
Matter
Atoms Ms. Gayathri SV KV SAP Ms. Lakshmi Devi,
Ms. Maya G kV No 2 Kasaragod KV SAP Peroorkada
Nuclei Ms.Valsala Kumari M S K V Pattom S-1 Ms. Sachu S R,
Ms. Ashwathy R K V Pattom S-1 KV AFS Akkulam
Semiconductor Mr. Naresh Banoth KV Kavaratti Mr. JacobK J ,
Electronics:
KV INS Dronacharya
Materials, Ms. Aswathi T B K V Kanjikode
Devices and
Simple circuits
3
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
PREPARATION
QUESTION NAME OF THE
PAPER TEACHER NAME OF THE KV REVIEW TEAM
Sample Question Ms. Bindu R KV ERNAKULAM

Paper 1 Ms. Mini Panicker KV Ernakulam Ms. P C Radha,
KV Malappuram
Sample Question Mr. Rajender K V Idukki
Paper 2 Mr. Varun P K K V Ezhimala
Sample Question Mr. Binoj Bose KV Pattom Shift I

Paper 3 Mrs. Liziamma Soy KV RB Kottayam Ms. Susmitha Mary
Robbins,
Sample Question Ms. Sandhya K KV Adoor Shift I KV Kalpetta
Paper 4 Mr. Saji R KV Adoor Shift I
Sample Question Ms. Padmaja M G Pattom Shift II Ms. Beena Mathews,

Paper 5 Ms. Bindu T L Pattom Shift II KV RB Kottayam
DOCUMENT EDITING
Mr. Prasanth Kumar M KV Payyanur
Mr. Sreekanth S KV No 2 Calicut
Mr. Syam T S KV KPA Ramavarmapuram
4
INDEX
S.No Content Page No
1 Syllabus 6
2 Chapter-1; Electric Charge and Field 14
3 Chapter-2; Electric Potential and Capacitance 25
4 Chapter-3; Current Electricity 48
5 Chapter-4; Moving Charges and Magnetism 64
6 Chapter-5; Magnetism and Matter 76
7 Chapter-6; Electromagnetic Induction 87
8 Chapter-7; Alternating Current 111
9 Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves 134
10 Chapter–9: Ray Optics and OpticalInstruments 149
11 Chapter–10: Wave Optics 179
12 Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 203
13 Chapter–12: Atoms 221
14 Chapter–13: Nuclei 246
Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics:
15 260
Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits
16 Sample Question paper 1 279
21 Sample Question Paper -Answer Key 318
❖ Every Chapter Contains:
✓ Gist of Lesson
✓ Important formulas used
✓ Mind map
✓ MCQ Questions
✓ Reason Assertion Questions
✓ Case Study Based Questions
✓ 1 Marks, 2 Marks, 3 Marks & 5 Marks Questions with Answer
5
CLASS XII (2023-24)
PHYSICS (THEORY) (Code No.42)
Time: 3 hrs. Max Marks: 70
No. of Marks
Periods
Unit–I Electrostatics
Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields
26
16
Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Unit-II Current Electricity

18
Chapter–3: Current Electricity
Unit-III Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
25
Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism
Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter 17
Unit-IV Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating
Currents 24
Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction
Chapter–7: Alternating Current
Unit–V Electromagnetic Waves
04
Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves
Unit–VI Optics 18
Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 30
Chapter–10: Wave Optics

Unit–VII Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
8
Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
12
Unit– Atoms and Nuclei
VIII 15
Chapter–12: Atoms
Chapter–13: Nuclei
Unit–IX Electronic Devices
Chapter–14: Semiconductor 10
Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple 7
Circuits
Total 160 70
6
Detailed syllabus
Unit I: Electrostatics 26 Periods
Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields
Electric charges, Conservation of charge, Coulomb's law-force between two- point charges,
forces between multiple charges; superposition principle and continuous charge distribution.
Electric field, electric field due to a point charge, electric field lines, electric dipole, electric
field due to a dipole, torque on a dipole in uniform electric field.
Electric flux, statement of Gauss's theorem and its applications to find field due to infinitely
long straight wire, uniformly charged infinite plane sheet and uniformly charged thin spherical
shell (field inside and outside).
Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Electric potential, potential difference, electric potential due to a point charge, a dipole and
system of charges; equipotential surfaces, electrical potential energy of a system of two-point
charges and of electric dipole in an electrostatic field.
Conductors and insulators, free charges and bound charges inside a conductor. Dielectrics and
electric polarization, capacitors and capacitance, combination of capacitors in series and in
parallel, capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with and without dielectric medium between
the plates, energy stored in a capacitor (no derivation, formulae only).
Unit II: Current Electricity 18 Periods
Chapter–3: Current Electricity
Electric current, flow of electric charges in a metallic conductor, drift velocity, mobility and
their relation with electric current; Ohm's law, V-I characteristics (linear and non-linear),
electrical energy and power, electrical resistivity and conductivity, temperature dependence of
resistance, Internal resistance of a cell, potential difference and emf of a cell, combination of
cells in series and in parallel, Kirchhoff's rules, Wheatstone bridge.
Unit III: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism 25 Periods
Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism
Concept of magnetic field, Oersted's experiment.

Biot - Savart law and its application to current carrying circular loop.
Ampere's law and its applications to infinitely long straight wire. Straight solenoid (only
qualitative treatment), force on a moving charge in uniform magnetic and electric fields.
Force on a current-carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field, force between two parallel
current-carrying conductors-definition of ampere, torque experienced by a current loop in
uniform magnetic field; Current loop as a magnetic dipole and its magnetic dipole moment,
moving coil galvanometer- its current sensitivity and conversion to ammeter and voltmeter.
7
Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter
Bar magnet, bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid (qualitative treatment only), magnetic field
intensity due to a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) along its axis and perpendicular to its axis
(qualitative treatment only), torque on a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) in a uniform magnetic
field (qualitative treatment only), magnetic field lines.
Magnetic properties of materials- Para-, dia- and ferro - magnetic substances with
examples, Magnetization of materials, effect of temperature on magnetic properties.
Unit IV: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents 24 Periods

Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction
Electromagnetic induction; Faraday's laws, induced EMF and current; Lenz's Law, Self and
mutual induction.
Chapter–7: Alternating Current
Alternating currents, peak and RMS value of alternating current/voltage; reactance and
impedance; LCR series circuit (phasors only), resonance, power in AC circuits, power factor,
wattless current.
AC generator, Transformer.
Unit V: Electromagnetic waves 04 Periods

Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves
Basic idea of displacement current, Electromagnetic waves, their characteristics, their transverse
nature (qualitative idea only).
Electromagnetic spectrum (radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-rays,
gamma rays) including elementary facts about their uses.
Unit VI: Optics 30 Periods
Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
Ray Optics:
Reflection of light, spherical mirrors, mirror formula, refraction of light, total internal reflection
and optical fibers, refraction at spherical surfaces, lenses, thin lens formula, lens maker’s
formula, magnification, power of a lens, combination of thin lenses in contact, refraction of
light through a prism.
Optical instruments: Microscopes and astronomical telescopes (reflecting and refracting) and
their magnifying powers.
Chapter–10: Wave Optics
Wave optics:
Wave front and Huygen’s principle, reflection and refraction of plane wave at a plane surface
using wave fronts. Proof of laws of reflection and refraction using Huygen’s principle.
Interference, Young's double slit experiment and expression for fringe width (No derivation
final expression only), coherent sources and sustained interference of light, diffraction due to a
single slit, width of central maxima (qualitative treatment only).
8
Unit VII: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 08 Periods
Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Dual nature of radiation, Photoelectric effect, Hertz and Lenard's observations; Einstein's
photoelectric equation-particle nature of light.
Experimental study of photoelectric effect
Matter waves-wave nature of particles, de-Broglie relation.

Unit VIII: Atoms and Nuclei 15
Periods
Chapter–12: Atoms
Alpha-particle scattering experiment; Rutherford's model of atom; Bohr model of hydrogen atom,
Expression for radius of nth possible orbit, velocity and energy of electron in nth orbit, hydrogen
line spectra (qualitative treatment only).
Chapter–13: Nuclei
Composition and size of nucleus, nuclear force
Mass-energy relation, mass defect; binding energy per nucleon and its variation with mass number;
nuclear fission, nuclear fusion.
Unit IX: Electronic Devices 10 Periods
Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits

Energy bands in conductors, semiconductors and insulators (qualitative
ideas only) Intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors- p and n type, p-n junction
Semiconductor diode - I-V characteristics in forward and reverse bias, application of

junction diode -diode as a rectifier.
9
PRACTICALS
Total Periods 60
The record to be submitted by the students at the time of their annual examination has to include:
Record of at least 8 Experiments [with 4 from each section], to be performed by the
students.
Record of at least 6 Activities [with 3 each from section A and section B], to be performed
by the students.
The Report of the project carried out by the students.
Evaluation Scheme
Max. Marks: 30
Time 3 hours
Two experiments one from each section 7+7 Marks

Practical record [experiments and activities] 5 Marks
One activity from any section 3 Marks
Investigatory Project 3 Marks
Viva on experiments, activities and project 5 Marks
Total 30 marks
Experiments SECTION–A
1. To determine resistivity of two / three wires by plotting a graph for potential difference versus
current.
2. To find resistance of a given wire / standard resistor using metre bridge.
3. To verify the laws of combination (series) of resistances using a metre bridge.
OR
To verify the laws of combination (parallel) of resistances using a metre bridge.
4. To determine resistance of a galvanometer by half-deflection method and to find its figure of
merit.
5. To convert the given galvanometer (of known resistance and figure of merit) into a voltmeter of
desired range and to verify the same.
OR
To convert the given galvanometer (of known resistance and figure of merit) into an ammeter of
desired range and to verify the same.
6. To find the frequency of AC mains with a sonometer.
10
Activities
1. To measure the resistance and impedance of an inductor with or without iron core.
2. To measure resistance, voltage (AC/DC), current (AC) and check continuity of a given circuit
using multimeter.
3. To assemble a household circuit comprising three bulbs, three (on/off) switches, a fuse and a
power source.
4. To assemble the components of a given electrical circuit.
5. To study the variation in potential drop with length of a wire for a steady current.
6. To draw the diagram of a given open circuit comprising at least a battery, resistor/rheostat, key,
ammeter and voltmeter. Mark the components that are not connected in proper order and correct
the circuit and also the circuit diagram.
SECTION-B
Experiments
1. To find the value of v for different values of u in case of a concave mirror and to find the focal
length.
2. To find the focal length of a convex mirror, using a convex lens.
3. To find the focal length of a convex lens by plotting graphs between u and v or between 1/u and 1/v.
4. To find the focal length of a concave lens, using a convex lens.
5. To determine angle of minimum deviation for a given prism by plotting a graph between angle of
incidence and angle of deviation.
6. To determine refractive index of a glass slab using a travelling microscope.
7. To find the refractive index of a liquid using convex lens and plane mirror.
8. To find the refractive index of a liquid using a concave mirror and a plane mirror.
9. To draw the I-V characteristic curve for a p-n junction diode in forward and reverse bias.
Activities
1. To identify a diode, an LED, a resistor and a capacitor from a mixed collection of such items.
2. Use of multimeter to see the unidirectional flow of current in case of a diode and an LED and
check whether a given electronic component (e.g., diode) is in working order.
3. To study effect of intensity of light (by varying distance of the source) on an LDR.
4. To observe refraction and lateral deviation of a beam of light incident obliquely on a glass slab.
5. To observe diffraction of light due to a thin slit.
6. To study the nature and size of the image formed by a (i) convex lens, or (ii) concave mirror, on a
screen by using a candle and a screen (for different distances of the candle from the lens/mirror).
7. To obtain a lens combination with the specified focal length by using two lenses from the given
set of lenses.
11
Suggested Investigatory Projects
1. To study various factors on which the internal resistance/EMF of a cell depends.
2. To study the variations in current flowing in a circuit containing an LDR because of a variation in
(a) the power of the incandescent lamp, used to 'illuminate' the LDR (keeping all the lamps at a fixed
distance).
(b) the distance of a incandescent lamp (of fixed power) used to 'illuminate' the LDR.
3. To find the refractive indices of (a) water (b) oil (transparent) using a plane mirror, an
equiconvex lens (made from a glass of known refractive index) and an adjustable object
needle.
4. To investigate the relation between the ratio of (i) output and input voltage and (ii) number
of turns in the secondary coil and primary coil of a self-designed transformer.
5. To investigate the dependence of the angle of deviation on the angle of incidence using a
hollow prism filled one by one, with different transparent fluids.
6. To estimate the charge induced on each one of the two identical Styrofoam (or pith) balls
suspended in a vertical plane by making use of Coulomb's law.
7. To study the factor on which the self-inductance of a coil depends by observing the effect of
this coil, when put in series with a resistor/(bulb) in a circuit fed up by an
A.C. source of adjustable frequency.
8. To study the earth's magnetic field using a compass needle -bar magnet by plotting
magnetic field lines and tangent galvanometer.
12
QUESTION PAPER DESIGN
Theory (Class: XI/XII)
Maximum Marks: 70 Duration: 3 hrs.
S No. Typology of Questions Total Approximate

Marks Percentage
1 Remembering: Exhibit memory of previously learned material 27 38 %
by recalling facts, terms, basic concepts, and answers.
Understanding: Demonstrate understanding of facts and ideas
by organizing, comparing, translating, interpreting, giving
descriptions, and stating main ideas
2 Applying: Solve problems to new situations by applying 22 32%

acquired knowledge, facts, techniques and rules in a
different way.
3 Analysing : Examine and break information into parts by 21 30%
identifying motives or causes. Make inferences and find
evidence to support generalizations
Evaluating:
Present and defend opinions by making judgments about
information, validity of ideas, or quality of work based on a set
of criteria.
Creating:
Compile information together in a different way by combining
elements in a new pattern or proposing
alternative solutions.
Total Marks 70 100
Practical 30
Gross Total 100
Note:
The above template is only a sample. Suitable internal variations may be made for generating
similar templates keeping the overall weightage to different form of questions and typology of
questions same.
For more details kindly refer to Sample Question Paper of class XII for the year 2023- 24 to be
published by CBSE at its website.
13
CHAPTER 1
Electric charges and Fields
MIND MAP
14
Gist of the lesson
• Electric charges
• Conservation of charge.
• Coulomb’s law .
• Force between two point charges.
• Superposition principle.
• Continuous charge distribution.
• Electric field
• Electric field due to a point charge
• Electric field lines.
• Electric dipole.
• Electric field due to a point charge.
• Torque on a dipole in uniform electric field.
• Electric flux.
• Gauss’s theorem
• Applications of Gauss’s theorem.
• To find electric field due to infinitely long straight wire.
• To find electric field due to infinite plane sheet.
• To find electric field due to uniformly charged thin spherical shell ( field inside and outside)
15
Multiple choice questions ( 1 mark)
1. Three-point charges Q1, Q2and Q3 are placed equally spaced in order along a straight line. Q2 and Q3 are
equal in magnitude but opposite in sign . If the net force on Q3 is zero, the value of Q1 is
(a) Q1 = 4Q3 (b) Q1 = 2Q3 (c) Q1= √2 Q3 (d) Q1 = | Q3|
2. Two-point charges are placed at a distance d apart. If a copper plate is placed between the charges the
effective force will be
(a) F (b) 2F (c) √F (d) zero
3. The charges on two spheres are +7µC and -5 µC respectively. They experience a force F. If an
additional charge of-2 µC is given to each of them the force between them is
(a) F (b) F/2 (c) F/√3 (d)2F
4. What is the flux through a cube if q is at one corner of the cube ?
(a) q/Є0 (b)2q/ Є0 (c) q/8 Є0 (d) q/4 Є0
5. Two positive ions each carrying a charge q are separated by a distance d .If F is the force of repulsion
between the ions , the number of electrons missing from each ion will
be
4𝜋Є0 𝐹𝑑2 4𝜋Є0 𝐹𝑒 2 4𝜋Є0 𝐹𝑑 2 4𝜋Є0 𝐹𝑒 2
(a) (b)√ (c) √ (d)
𝑒2 𝑑2 𝑒2 𝑑2
6. A plane square sheet of charge of side 0.5m has uniform surface charge density .An electron at 1cm
from the center of the sheet experiences a force of 1.6x10-19 N directed away from the sheet. The total
charge on the plane square sheet is
(a) 16.25 µC (b) -22.15 µC (C) -44.27 µC (d) 144.27 µC
7.There are two charges +1C and -5C . The ratio of the force acting on them will be
(a) 1:5 (b) 1:1 ( c ) 5:1 (d) 1: 25
8.The ratio of the forces between two small spheres with constant charges in air and in a medium of
dielectric constant k respectively is
(a) 1:K (b) K:1 (c) 1: K2 (d) K2:1
9. A charge q1 exerts a force on charge q2 . If another charge q3 is brought near the force on q1 due to q2
will
(a) decrease (b) increase
(c ) remain unchanged (d) increase if q1is similar to q3
10.An electric dipole is placed inside an electric field which increases along the Z axis . The dipole
undergoes
(a) Translational motion along Z axis only
(b) Rotational motion only
( c) Rotational and translational motion along negative X axis
(d) Rotational and translational motion along positive X axis
11.Seven charges of equal magnitude q are placed at the corners of a cube of side b. The force
experienced by another charge Q placed at the center of the cube is
( a) Zero (b ) KQq/ 3b ( c) 7KQq/3b (d) 2KQq/3b
12.Electric charge is uniformly distributed along a long straight wire of radius 1mm. The charge per cm of
the wire is Q coulomb. Another cylindrical surface of length L meter encloses the wire symmetrically, The
total flux through the surface is
(a) Q/𝞮0 (b) LQ/ 𝞮0 (c) QL/ 10-3𝞮0 (d) Q/L 10-3𝞮0
16
13. The total electric flux emanating from an alpha particle is
(a) 2e/𝞮0 ( b)e/ 𝞮0 ( c ) 4e/ 𝞮0 (d) e2/ 𝞮0
14. A positive charge Q is placed at the center of a neutral conducting metal sphere and an electric field E
is applied outside the sphere .Then
(a) force on Q is due to E is zero
(b) Net force on Q is zero
(c) Net force on Q and conducting shell as a single system is zero
(d) Net force on the shell due to E is zero
15.A charge Q is placed at each of the opposite corners of a sphere. A charge q is placed at each of the
other corners .If the net electrical force on Q is zero then Q/q is equal to
(a) -2√2 (b) -1 (c) 1 (d) -1/√2
16. Which statement is true for Gauss law?

(a)All charges whether inside or outside the Gaussian surface contribute to the electric flux.
(b)Electric flux depends on the geometry of the Gaussian surface.
( c )Gauss theorem can be applied to non-uniform electric field.
( d )The electric field over the Gaussian surface remains continuous and uniform at every point.
17. Electric field provides information about

(a)Field strength. ( b )direction ( c ) nature of charge. ( d )All the above
18.The unit of dipole moment is (

a )Newton ( b )Coulomb ( c ) Farad ( d )Debye
19. Consider a region inside which, there are various types of charges but the total charge is zero.
(a) the electric field is necessarily be zero.
(b) the electric field is due to the dipole moment of the charge distribution only.
(c) the dominant electric field is inversely proportional to r3 for large r(distance r from origin.
(d) the workdone to move a charge particle along a closed path, away fom the region will not be zero.
20. A hemisphere is uniformly charged positively. The electric field at a point on the diameter away from
the centre is directed
(a) perpendicular to the diameter
(b) parallel to the diameter.
(c) at an angle tilted towards the diameter
(d) zero
21.A negatively charged object P is repelled by another object Q. However an objet R is attracted to object
Q.Which of the following is the most possibility for the object R?
(a) positively charged only.
(b) negatively charged only.
(c) neutral or positively charged
(d) neutral or negatively charged.
22. Electric field at a point is

(a) always continuous
(b) continuous if there is no charge at that point.
(c) discontinuous only if, there is a negative charge at that point.
17
(d) both a and c.
23.A cylinder of radius r and length l is placed in a uniform electric field parallel to the axis of the
cylinder. The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is given by
(a) zero (b) 3.14 r2 (c) 3.14 E r2 (d) 2E(3.14 r2)
24. Two parallel large thin metal sheets have equal surface densities 26.4x10-12 C/m2 of opposite signs.
The electric field between these sheets is
(a) 1.5 N/C (b) 1.5x10-16N/C (c) 3x10-10N/C (d) 3N/C
25. An electric dipo experile of length 2cm is placed at an angle of 300 with an electric field 2x105 N/C.
If the dipole experiences a torque of 8x 10-3Nm, the magnitude of either charge of the dipole, is
(a) 4μ C (b) 7 μ C (c) 8 μ C (d) 2mC
Answers.
1. a 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. c
6. c 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. d
11. d 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. a
16.d 17. d 18. d 19. c 20 a
21. c 22. d 23. a 24. d 25. A
Assertion- Reason Questions.
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Ais true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
1. Assertion(A) : A negative charge in an electric field moves along the direction of the electric field.
Reason(R) : On a negative charge a force acts in the direction of the electric field.
2. Assertion(A) : In a non- uniform electric field, a dipole will have translatory as well as rotatory
motion.
Reason (R) : In a non-uniform electric field, a dipole experiences a force as well as torque.
3. Assertion(A): All the charge in a conductor gets distributed on whole of its outer surface.
Reason(R) : In a dynamic system, chargesctry to keep their potential energy minimum.
4. Assertion(A) : The basic difference between magnetic lines of force and electric lines of force is
electric lines of force are discontinuous and magnetic lines of force are continuous.
Reason(R) : Magnetic lines of force exist in a magnet but no electric lines of force exists in a
charged body.
5. Assertion (A) : Total flux through a closed surface is zero if no charge is enclosed by the surface.
Reason (R) : Gauss law is true for any closed surface, no matter wht its shape or size is.
6. Assertion( A ): For a charged particle moving from point P to Q ,the net work done by the
electrostatic force is independent of the path connecting P and Q
Reason( R ): The net work done by a conservative force in moving a particle along a closed
loop is zero
18
7. Assertion( A ): When a body is given a negative charge there is a slight increase in the mass of the
body
Reason( R ): During charging of a body there is an actual transfer of electrons
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
8. Assertion( A ): An electric field produces the same acceleration in electron and proton
Reason( R ): For a given force acceleration does not depend upon mass
Both A and R are false
9. Assertion( A ): Two electric lines of force cannot intersect each other
Reason( R ): The tangent at any point of electric field line gives the direction of field line at
that point.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
10. Assertion( A ): When air between two charges is replaced by mica the force between the two
charges is reduced
Reason( R ): The electrostatic force between two charges is inversely proportional to the
dielectric constant of the medium
11. Assertion( A ): A metal ball suspended by an insulating thread in a uniform electric field is
deflected in the direction of the field when X ray beam falls on the ball
Reason( R ): X rays produce negative charges on the ball.
A is true , R is false
12. Assertion( A ): A metallic shield in form of a hollow shell may be built to block an electric field.
Reason( R ): In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside it is zero at every point
13. Assertion( A ): When bodies are charged through friction, there is a transfer of electric charge
from one body to another, but no creation or destruction of charge.
Reason( R ): This follows from conservation of electric charges.
14. Assertion( A ): The tyres of aircraft are slightly conducting.
Reason( R ): If a conductor is connected to ground, the extra charge induced on conductor
will flow to ground.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
15. Assertion( A ): When a conductor is placed in an external electrostatic field, the net electric field
inside the conductor becomes zero after a small instant of time.
Reason( R ): It is not possible to set up an electric field inside a conductor.
A is true , R is false
ANSWERS
1.d 2.a 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. a 7 a 8 d 9 b 10 a 11c
12 a 13 a 14 b 15 c
19
Two mark Questions
1. An electric dipole free to move is placed in a uniform electric field. Explain alongwith
diagram its motion when it is placed, (a) parallel to the field,(b) perpendicular to the field.
2. Write Coulomd’s law in vector form. What is the importance of expressing it in vector form?
3. Calculate coulomb force between two alpha particles separated by a distance of 3.2x10-15m in
air.
4. Two identical metallic spheres, having unequal, opposite charges are placed at a distance
0.90m apart in air. After bringing them in contact with eachother, they are again placed at the
same distance apart. Now the force of repulsion between them is 0.025 N. Calculate the final
charge on each of them
5. Calculate the electric field strength required to just support a water drop of mass 10-7kg and
having a charge 1.6x 10-19 C.
6. Two positive charges Q and 4Q are fixed at a distanceof 12cm from each other. Sketch the
lines of force and locate the neutral points, if any.
7. Two large parallel plane sheets have uniform charge densities + σ and -σ. Determine the
electric field (i) between the sheets, and (ii) outside the sheets.
8. A sphere encloses a charge of 8.85 x 10-8C . (i) calculate the electric flux passing through the
surface (ii) if the radius of the gaussian surface is tripled, how would the flux change.
9. What is the electric flux through one face of a cube enclosing a dipole of dipole moment 2x10-
7
Cm?
10. Two tiny spheres carrying charges 1.5𝜇C and 2.5𝜇c are located at 30 cm apart. Find the
electric field at the midpoint of the line joining the two charges and the and at a point 10 cm
from the midpoint in a plane normal to the line passing through the midpoint
11. Two charges -2q and +q is placed at (a, 0) and (4a, 0) respectively. What is the flux through a
sphere of radius 3a with its centre at the origin due to these charges?
12. A uniformly charged conducting sphere of diameter 24m has a surface charge density of
80μc/m2. Find the charge on the sphere and the total electric flux leaving the sphere
13. Two point charges Q and -3Q are placed at some distance apart at some distance apart. If
electric field at location of Q is E Find the field in the location of -3Q.
Answers
1. (a) Since the line of action of the two forces passes through the same point,the net force and
the net torque acting on the dipole is zero. So no motion is produced when a dipole is placed
parallel to the electric field.
(b)the two equal and opposite forces-qE and +qEconstitute a couple and hence a torque acts on
the dipole, given by
Torque = pE Sin90=q2a E
This torque rotates the dipoleabout an axis perpendicular to the electric field and passing
through the midpoint of the dipole.
2. Importance of vector form of Coulomb’s law
The two charges exert equal and opposite force on each other. So Coulombian forces obey
Newton’s third law of motion.
F21 = -F21
3. Q1=Q2= 2e =3.2x 10-15C. r= 3.2x 10-15m
F= 90N
20
4. Solve using Coulomb’s law. Q= 1.5x10-6C
5. Force on water drop due to electric field = Weight of water drop.

qE =mg
E = 6.125x1012N/C
6. The lines of force will be outward and is crowed together near the +4Q. .
7. (i) E= σ/E0
(ii) E = 0
8. (i) Electric flux = 104Nm2C-1
(ii) Electric flux remains the same as the charge enclosed is the same.
Electric flux = 104Nm2C-1.
9. Net charge of dipole is zero. Hence flux is zero
10. q1= 1.5կ C q2=2.5կ C At the midpoint r= 15cm
Field due to q1 directed towards q2= +E1 Field due to q2 is directed toward q1 = -E2
Net field E= E2-E1 E= K/r2 (1.5-2.5) x 10-6 E= (9 x 109 x 104 x 106)/ 225
E= 4 x 105 NC-1
To find equatorial field: - Distance x= √(15^2 + 10^2 )= 18cm

cosθ= 15/18= 5/6 sinθ= 10/18=5/9
Ex= (E2-E1) cosθ = k/r2 (2.5-1.5) x 10-6 x 5/6 = 2.3 x 105 NC-1
Ey= (E1-E2) sinθ = k/r2 (2.5+1.5) x 10-6 x 5/9 =6.2 x 105 NC-1
E= √Ex2 + √Ey 2 = 6.6 x 105 NC-1

11 .Charge -2q is at (a, 0) and +q is at (4a, 0). The sphere with radius 3a encloses the charge
- 2q . therefore Φ = -2q /€0
12. Q = σ4πr2 =80x 10-6 x 4x 3.14 x (1.2)2 = 1.45 x 10-3C
Φ=Q/ €0 = 1.6 x 108 Nm2C-1
13. Field at Q due to -3Q is E = K. 3Q/x2 towards -3Q
Field at -3Q due to Q is E’ = KQ/x2 away from Q E/E’ = 3
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS-3 MARKS

1. A spherical rubber balloon carries a charge that is uniformly distributed over its surface. As the
balloon is blown up, how does E vary for points (i) inside the balloon (ii) on the surface of the
balloon (iii) outside the balloon ?
2. Two point charges q and -3q fixed on x-axis separated by distance ‘d‘ where should a third
charge 2q be placed such that it will not experience any force?
3. A uniform electric field given by E = (3i+ 4j +5k)N/ C pierces the Gaussian cube as shown.
Find the electric flux through the right face and top face in Nm2 /C.
Y
X
x=1 x=3
21
4. Two charged conducting spheres of radii a and b are connected to each other by a wire. Find the
ratio of the electric field at their surfaces.
5. Two small identical electric dipoles AB and CD each of dipole moment P are kept at an angle
1200 to each other in an electric field E pointing along the X axis. Find the dipole moment of
the arrangement and the magnitude and direction of torque acting on it.
A +q
-q 1200 X
E
B -q +q C
Answers
1. (i) For points inside the balloon , E =0
(ii) As the balloon is blown up, surface charge density decreases and so electric field on its
surface decreases.
(iii) For points outside the surface E does not change as the charge enclosed by the Gaussian
surface remains the same.
2. x= d/2(1+√3) to the left of q.
3. 𝞥 = EA Right face 𝞥 = 3 x 22 = 12 , Top face 𝞥 = 4 x 22 = 16
𝐾𝑞𝑎 𝐾𝑞𝑏
4. V1 = V2 . kqq /a = kqb/b , qq /a = qb/b Ēa = 𝑎2 Ēb= 𝑏2
Ea/Eb = b/a
5. Dipole moment of AB is P j Dipole moment of CD = pcos30 i – pcos60 j= p√3/2 i -p/2 j Net
dipole moment = p√3/2 I + p/2 j | p| = P Direction𝜽 = 300 Torque on
dipole AB = (p j x Ei ) = pE (-k) Torque on CD = pE/2 ( k ) Net torque =
pE/2 (-k)
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS
1. QUANTISATION OF CHARGE
Smallest charge that can exist is the charge of the electron. During rubbing due to friction
transfer of charges occur..Hence net charge on an object is an integral multiple of the charge of
the particle transferred that is electrons
(i)Which of the following properties is not satisfied by electrons?
(a) Conservation (b) Quantisation ( c ) Charge variety ( d ) change in charge with velocity
( ii) Which of the following charges is possible?
(a ) 5.8 x 10-18 C ( b ) 3.2 x 10-18 C ( c ) 4.5 x 10-18 C ( d ) 8.6 x 10-18 C
( iii ) If the charge on a body is 1nC how many electrons are present in the body?
( a ) 6.25 x 1027 ( b ) 6.25 x 1028 ( c ) 6.25 x 109 ( d ) 1.6 x 1019
( iv ) If a body gives out 109 electrons every second how much time is required to get a
total charge of 1 C from it?
( a ) 190.19 years ( b ) 150.12 years ( c ) 198.19 years ( d ) 188.21 years
( v ) A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a charge of 3.2 x 10-7C .
How many electrons have been transferred?
( a ) 2 x 1012 ( b ) 2 x 10 14 ( c ) 3 x 1012 ( d ) 3 x 1012
22
2.MILLIKAN’S OIL DROP EXPERIMENT
In 1909 Millikan was the first person to determine the charge of the electron by his oil drop
experiment .Tiny oil drops were sprayed into a uniform electric field between oppositely charged
plates.The drops were observed through microscope. The electric field on the drops was adjusted
to balance the weight of the drops. Millikan accurately measured the charges on many drops and
found that it was an integral multiple of 1.6 x 10-19 C
( i ) If a drop of mass 1.08 x 10-14Kg is balanced by an electric field 1.68 x 105N/C then
the charge of the drop is
( a ) 6.4 x 10-19 C ( b ) 3.2 x 10-19 C ( c ) 1.6 x 10-19 C ( d ) 4.8 x 10-19 C
( ii ) Extra electrons of the above oil drop are
(a) 4 ( b ) 3 ( c ) 5 ( d ) 8
( iii ) A negatively charged oil drop is prevented from falling under gravity by an electric
field of 100V/m. If the number of electrons on the drop is 1012 the mass of the drop is
( a ) 1. 6 x 10-3 Kg ( b ) 1. 6 x 10-3 g ( c ) 5. 6 x 10-3 g ( d ) 1. 9 x 10-3 g
( iv ) The important conclusion of Millikan’s experiment is
( a ) Charge has no definite value ( b ) Charge on oil drop always changes
( c ) Charge is quantized ( d ) Charge is constant
( v ) If the charges on oil drops is found to be 8𝞵C,12 𝞵C,20 𝞵C then quanta of charge is
( a ) 8 𝞵C ( b ) 12 𝞵C ( c ) 20 𝞵C ( d ) 4𝞵C
ANSWERS
1. (i ) d (ii ) b (iii ) c ( iv ) c (v ) a
2. ( i ) a ( ii ) a ( iii ) b ( iv ) c ( v ) d
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS ( 5 MARKS )
1. State Coulomb’s law in electrostatics and express it in vector form. Two charges q and 2q
are located at pints (0,0 ) and (a,a ) respectively. Find the force exerted by charge q on
charge 2q in terms of unit vectors i and j .
2. A charge is distributed uniformly over a ring of radius R. Calculate the expression for the
electric field intensity along the axial point of the ring and show that for far axial points the
ring behaves like a point charge.
3. An infinitely long positively charged straight wire has a linear charge density .An electron
revolves around this wire with a constant speed v .Find the kinetic energy of the electron in
terms of the magnitude of the charge and the linear charge density of the wire. Draw a graph
of kinetic energy as a function of linear charge density
Hints
𝐾𝑞 1𝑞2 ̂
𝑖+𝑗 𝐾𝑞2
1. F = 𝑟́ ; r = √2 a 𝑟́ = F= ( 𝑖́ + 𝑗́) N
𝑟2 √2 𝑎2 √2
2. Consider the ring as made of elementary lengths . and charge per unit length is
𝐾𝑞𝑥
𝝀 = q/2𝞹R E= along X axis
(𝑎2 +𝑥 2 )3 /2
3. The centripetal force for revolving electron mv2/R = eE ; E = 𝝀/2𝞮0r K 𝝰 𝝺
Hence graph is a straight line with constant slope.
23
SELF PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1.The inward and outward flux from a closed surface are respectively 8 x 103 and 4 x 103 units .
Find the net charge inside the closed surface.
2. Three infinitely charged sheets are kept parallel to xy plane having charge densities as shown.
Find the value of electric field at P.
Z = 3a σ
Z = 2a .p -2 σ
Z=0 -σ
3. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it . If Ф is the electric flux associated with
the curved Surface B , find the flux linked with one of
the plane faces A .
C B A
4.Two charged particles having different magnitudes of charge when placed at a distance ‘d’apart
experience a force F. These two particles are put in contact and again placed in contact and again placed
at the same distance apart. What is the magnitude of interaction between them now?
5. A sphere S1 of radius r1 encloses a charge Q .If there is another concentric sphere of radius r2
( r2 > r1 )and there are no additional charges between S1and S2 Find the ratio of electric flux
through S1 and S2
6. A charge Q is placed at the center of a cube of side L. What is the electric flux through each face of the
cube?
7. Two point charges of +16µc and -9µc are placed 8cm apart in vacuum. Determine the position
of the point where the resultant field is zero.
8. An electron moves a distance of 6 cm when accelerated from rest by an electric field of strength 2x10-4
N/C. Calculate the time of travel.
9. Define electric field intensity .write its SI unit .Is it a scalar or a vector quantity?
10. Define electric flux write its SI unit .Is it a scalar or a vector quantity?
11. Define electric potential at a point write its SI unit .Is it a scalar or a vector quantity?
12. Define electric dipole moment write its SI unit .Is it a scalar or a vector quantity?
13. Write the characteristics of electric field lines.
14. Draw the electric field lines due to ( a ) point positive charge ( b ) electric dipole
15. How does the force between a pair of charges change in the presence of a dielectric medium
between them?
16. Graphically represent the variation of electric field with distance for ( a ) electric dipole ( b )
spherical shell of charge.
17. Obtain the relation between electric field intensity and electric potential.
18. Derive an expression for the electric field intensity at a point due to an electric dipole at a
point along (a ) axial field (b ) equatorial field
19. Derive expression of torque on an electric dipole placed in an external electric field State Gauss
theorem. Apply it to obtain the electric field due to
(a) straight charged conductor
(b ) thin Plane sheet of charge
( c) Spherical conducting shell of charge .
20. Obtain expressions for electric field intensity at a point inside and at a point outside an atom
of atomic number Z and radius R.
24
MIND MAP - ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
ELECTROSTATICS OF ELECTROSTAIC
CONDUCTORS SHIELDING
DIELECTRICS DIELECTRIC
POLARISATION
POTENTIAL DUE TO A
SYSTEM OF CHARGES
RELATION WITH
FIELD
POTENTIAL DUE TO
DIPOLE
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL EQUIPOTENTIAL

POTENTIAL DUE TO POINT SURFACES
CHARGE
CAPACITANCE
SERIES & PARALLEL
COMBINATION CAPACITORS
ENERGY STORED
EFFECT OF
DIELECTRIC
25
ELECTRIC POTENTIAL & CAPACITANCE
GIST / KEY POINTS OF THE LESSON :-
• Electrostatic Potential: Work done per unit positive Test charge to 𝑊
𝑉=
move it from infinity to that point in an electric field. It is a scalar. 𝑞𝑜
SI unit: J/C or V
Electric potential at a distance ‘r’ from a point charge Q 1 𝑄
𝑉(𝑟) =
4𝜋𝜀𝑜 𝑟
Definition of 1 Volt: The electrostatic potential at any point in an 1𝐽
electric field is said to be one volt when one joule of work is done 1𝑉 = 1𝐶
in bringing one unit charge from infinity to that point.
Relation between Electric field intensity & Potential: The electric 𝑑𝑉
field intensity at any point is the negative gradient of potential at 𝐸 = − . 𝑂𝑅,
𝑑𝑟
𝑟
that point ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑉(𝑟) = − ∫ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑟
∞
𝑛
Potential due to a system of charges 𝑞𝑖
𝑉(𝑟) = ∑ 𝐾
𝑟𝑖
𝑖=1
Variation of field/potential with distance
1 1
𝐸 ∝ 𝑟2 ; V∝𝑟
Potential due to Electric dipole 1 𝑝 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃

(i) 𝑉 =
(i) At any point distant ‘r’ from the centre of the dipole 4𝜋𝜀𝑜 𝑟2
1 𝑝
(ii) At a point along the axial line (ii) 𝜃 = 0; 𝑉 = 4𝜋𝜀 2
𝑜 𝑟
(iii) At equatorial line ( along the perpendicular bisector) (iii) 𝜃 = 90 ; 𝑉 = 0
Potential difference between two points (i)𝑉𝐴 > 𝑉𝐵 ; 𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐵 = +𝑣𝑒

(i) +Q (ii) 𝑉𝐴 < 𝑉𝐵 ; 𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐵 = − 𝑣𝑒
(ii) -Q
A B Example :- Work done by external
A B agency is
Example: 𝑊 = 𝑞∆𝑉= 𝑞(𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐵 )
Work done by the field in moving a positive charge from ‘B’ to # W is +ve by external agency
‘A’ ? # W is -ve by the field
# ∆ 𝑈 𝑖𝑠 + 𝑣𝑒 & ∆𝐾 𝑖𝑠 − 𝑣𝑒
Potential energy of two charges: 𝑘𝑞 𝑞
U = 𝑟1 2
Potential energy of a dipole kept in a uniform electric field U = −𝑝. 𝐸⃗
Stable equilibrium : Dipole is parallel to electric field. 𝜃 = 0 = p E [𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃1 -𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃2 ]
Unstable equilibrium: Dipole antiparallel to electric field 𝜃 = 180
Equipotential surfaces:
The surfaces on which the potential is same at every point
+ve charge
Two equal +ve charges Uniform electric field Electric dipole
26
Properties of equipotential surface:
(i) Workdone in moving a charge between any to points on an
equipotential surface is zero
(ii) The field lines are normal to the equipotential surface
(iii) No two equipotential surfaces intersect.
(iv) Equipotential surfaces are closer where electric field is
stronger
• Electrostatics of conductors
(i) Inside a conductor Electrostatic field is zero
(ii) On the surface E is always Normal to the surface
(iii) No excess charge resides inside the conductor
(iv) Charge distribution on the surface is uniform if the surface
is smooth
(v) Electric field is zero in the cavity of hollow conductor and
potential remains constant which is equal to that on the
surface.
Capacitor: An arrangement to store charge will act as a capacitor
Capacitance: Ability to store charge. 𝑸
𝑪=𝑽
Mathematically, it is the ratio of charge stored to potential applied
1𝜇𝐹 = 10−6 𝐹 .
It is a scalar quantity. S I unit is Farad.
Capacitance is said to be 1Farad when a charge of 1C increases the 1𝑛𝐹 = 10−9 𝐹
potential difference between the plates by 1 Volt. 1𝑝𝐹 = 10−12 𝐹
Parallel plate capacitor: An arrangement of two conductors Electric field between the plates
separated by a small distance without any electrical contact between 𝝈
𝑬=
𝜺𝒐
them is called parallel plate capacitor.
Capacitance with air as medium
𝜺 𝑨
𝑪𝒂𝒊𝒓 = 𝒐𝒅
Parallel plate Capacitor with a medium of dielectric constant K Capacitance with dielectric as
𝜖 𝐴
medium Cm = 𝑜 𝑡
(𝑑−𝑡+ )
𝑘
𝜖𝑜 𝐴
If t=0 => C0 = (𝑑)
𝜖𝑜 𝐴
If t=d => Cm =k (𝑑) =k C0
Energy stored in capacitors: The work done in charging a capacitor 2
1 2 = 1 QV = 1 Q
is stored as electrostatic PE U = CV
2 2 2 C
Total energy is additive in series & parallel combinations
𝑼𝒕𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 = ∑ 𝑼𝒊
The area under V-Q graph

𝑸 1
Slope = = C C is constant for a given capacitor U = 𝑄𝑉
𝑽 2
n
Combination of capacitors: Series 1 1
=
c i =1 ci
When ‘n’ identical capacitors C are
connected in series,
27
𝐶
𝐶𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑒𝑠 =
Charge Q stored is same in 𝑛
all capacitors
Potential divides among the
capacitors
Combination of capacitors: Parallel n

c =  ci
i =1
Potential difference V
is same for all capacitors, When ‘n’ identical capacitors C are
Charge Q =𝑞1 + 𝑞2 + 𝑞3 connected in parallel,
𝐶𝑝 = 𝑛𝐶
Energy density : Energy stored per unit volume of a capacitor 1 𝜎2

𝑈𝐸 = 𝜖0 𝐸 2 =
2 2𝜖0
When two charged capacitors are connected : The energy lost is appeared as heat
𝑪 𝑽 +𝑪 𝑽 energy in the circuit.
Common potential = 𝑽 = 𝟏 𝑽𝟏 +𝑽𝟐 𝟐
𝟏 𝟐
𝟏 𝑪 𝑪
Energy loss during sharing of charges, ∆𝑼 = 𝟐 𝑪 𝟏+𝑪𝟐 (𝑽𝟏 − 𝑽𝟐 )𝟐
𝟏 𝟐
The capacitance of a spherical conductor of radius R is 𝑄
𝑉 = 4𝜋𝜀 𝑅; where 4𝜋𝜀𝑜 𝑅 is the
C = 4𝜋𝜖𝑜 𝑅. 𝑜
capacitance of the conductor
Dielectric strength of a medium:- Dielectric strength of air is 3MV/m
The maximum external electric field the dielectric can withstand
without losing its insulating property is called dielectric strength. SI
unit Vm-1.
Dielectric Polarisation : ⃗𝑷⃗ The induced dipole moment per unit 𝑃⃗ ∝ ⃗⃗⃗ 𝐸 ; 𝑃⃗ = 𝜀𝑜 𝜒𝑒 ⃗⃗⃗
𝐸
volume is called Polarisation Vector. The direction of polarisation
vector is same as that of external electric filed. Unit is Cm-2
Electric susceptibility of a dielectric medium (𝜒𝑒 ) 𝑃
𝜒=
Dimensionless quantity. Greater the value of susceptibility, greater 𝜖𝑜 𝐸
the polarization of dielectrics
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. A capacitor of capacitance C has a charge Q and stored energy W. If the charge is increased to 2Q,
the stored energy will be
𝑊 𝑊
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 2W (d) 4W
2. A battery is used to charge a capacitor till the potential difference between the plates become equal to
the emf (V) of the battery. The ratio of the the energy stored in the capacitor to the work done by the
battery will be
(a) ½ (b) 2 (c) ¼ (d) 4
3. The electric potential V at any point (x,y,z) in space is given by V=3x2 where x,y,z are all in metre.
The electric field at the point (1m,0,2m) is
(a) 6V/m along -x axis
(b) 6V/m along +x axis
(c) 1.5V/m along -x axis
(d) 1.5V/m along +x axis
4. A parallel plate capacitor with oil in between the plates (dielectric constant of oil is 2)
has a capacitance ‘C’. If the oil is removed, what will be the new capacitance
𝐶 𝐶
(a) (b) 2 (c)2𝐶 (d) √2 𝐶
√2
28
5. A conducting sphere of radius R carrying charge Q lies inside an uncharged conducting shell of radius
2R. If they are connected by a metal wire, the amount of heat that will be produced is
1 𝑄2 1 𝑄2 1 𝑄2 1 𝑄2
(a) (b) 4𝜋𝜀 (c) (d) 4𝜋𝜀
4𝜋𝜀𝑜 𝑅 𝑜 2𝑅 4𝜋𝜀𝑜 3𝑅 𝑜 4𝑅
6. A metallic sphere has a charge of 10μC. A unit negative charge is brought from point A to another
point B both 100cm away from the sphere, but A being east of it while B being on west. The net
workdone is
2 1
(a) 10J (b) − 10 𝐽 (c) Zero (d) Data insufficient
7. A parallel plate air capacitor having a capacitance ‘C’ is half-filled by a medium of dielectric constant
5. What % change will be there in the capacitance of the capacitor?
(a) 200% increase (b) 400% decrease
(c) 400% increase (d) 66.6% increase
8. Two parallel plate capacitors X and Y have same plate area and same separation between the plates.
X has air between the plates and Y has a dielectric medium of K=4. When they are connected in series
with a source of 12V, what is the ratio of energies stored in X to Y
(a) 1:4 (b) 8:1 (c) 4:1 (d)√2 : 1
9. An electric charge 10-3 µC is placed at the origin (0,0) of (x, y) co-ordinate system. Two points A and
B are situated at (√2, √2) and (2,0) respectively. The potential difference between the points A and B
will be
(a) 4.5 V (b) Zero (c) 2.0V (d) 9.0V
10. Two identical metal plates are given positive charges q1 and q2 (q1> q2). If they are now brought near
to each other to form a capacitor with capacitance C, what will be the potential difference between the
plates?
(a) (q1+q2)/2C (b) (q1+q2)/C (c) (q1- q2)/C (d) (q1-q2)/2C
11. Some charge is being given to a conductor. Then its potential
(a) Is maximum at the surface (b) Is maximum at the centre
(c )Remains the same throughout the conductor (d) Is maximum somewhere between surface and
centre
12. Three particles lie on the X axis : particle 1 with a charge of 1x10-8C is at x = 1cm,particle 2 with a
charge of 2x10-8C is at x = 2 cm and particle 3, with a charge of -3 x10-8C is at x = 3cm. The potential
energy of this arrangement, relative to the potential energy for infinite separation is
(a) + 4.9x10-4 J (b) - 4.9x10-4 J (c) + 8.5 x10-4 J (d) -8.5 x10-4 J
13 Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1mm and 2mm are separated by a distance of 5cm and are
uniformly charged . If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire, then in equilibrium condition,
the ratio of magnitudes of the electric fields at the surface of spheres A and B is :
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
14. N identical spherical drops charged to the same potential V are combined to form a big drop. The
potential of the new drop will be :
(a) V (b) V/N (c) VN (d) VN2/3
15. The potential on the hollow sphere of radius 1m is 100 V, then potential at ¼ m from the centre of the
sphere is :
(a)1000 V (b) 500 V (c) 250 V (d) 0 V
16. In a certain charge distribution, all points having zero potential can be joined by a circle S. Points
inside S have positive potential and points outside S have negative potential.. A positive charge, which
is free to move, is placed inside S.
(a) It will remain in equilibrium
(b)It can move inside S, but it cannot cross S
(c)It must cross S at some time
(d)It may move but will ultimately return to its starting point
29
17. A capacitor having a capacitance of 2μF has a charge of 1μC on its plates. If the charge on the plates
is changed to 2 μC, the new capacitance of the capacitor is
(a)4μF (b) 2μF (c) 1μF (d) 0 μF
18. A capacitor of 20 μF is charged up to 500 V is connected in parallel with another capacitor of 10μF
which is charged up to 200 V.The common potential is
(a) 500 V (b) 300 V (c) 400 V (d)200 V
19. Three capacitors each of capacitance 4μF are to be connected in such a way that the effective
capacitance is 6 μF. This can be done by connecting
(a)All of them in series
(b) all of them in parallel
(c) two in parallel and one in series
(d)two in series and one in parallel
20. A battery is used to charge a series combination of two identical capacitors . If the potential difference
between the terminals of the battery is V and a charge Q flows through the battery during charging
process then the charge on the positive plates of each capacitor and the potential difference across
each capacitor are :
(a)Q/2 and V/2 respectively
(b) Q and V respectively
(c) Q/2 and V respectively
(d) Q and V/2 respectively
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (1 MARK)

21. A charge ‘q’ is moved from a point A above a dipole of dipole moment ‘p’ to a point B below the
dipole in equatorial plane without acceleration. Find the work done in the process.
22. Why electrostatic potential is constant throughout the volume of the conductor and has the same value
as on its surface?
23. The given graph shows the variation of charge q versus potential difference V for two capacitors
C1 and C2. Both the capacitors have same plate separation but plate area of C2 is greater than that C1.
Which line (A or B) corresponds to C1 and why?
24.
A uniform electric field exists between the two parallel plates of a capacitor. What is the work done
in taking a unit positive charge along the path ABCD?
25. Is the electro static potential necessarily be zero at a point where electric field is zero? Justify
26. A large hollow metallic sphere A is charged positively to a potential of 100V and a small sphere B to
a potential of 50V. Now B is placed inside A and they are connected by a wire. In which direction will
the charge flow?
30
27. An Aluminium sheet foil is introduced midway between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of
capacitance ‘C’. What will be the new capacitance if (a) the foil is electrically insulated (b) the foil is
connected to the positive plate of the capacitor?
28. What is the total potential energy of the configuration shown here:
29. How does the energy stored in a capacitor change if after disconnecting from the battery, the plates
are moved farther? Justify
30. Draw the equipotential surfaces corresponding to
(a) A constant electric field in Z-direction
(b) A field that uniformly increases in magnitude
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2MARK)

31. (i) Two circular metal plates, each of radius 10cm are kept parallel to each other at a distance
of 1mm. What kind of capacitor do they make?
(ii) If the radius of each of the plates is increased by a factor of √2 and distance of separation
reduced to half, calculate the ratio of capacitance in both case
32. A regular hexagon of side 10cm has charge 5μC at all vertices. Calculate the potential at the centre.
33. Calculate the potential difference in the capacitance C2 in the circuit shown. The potential at A is 90V
and C1 = 20 μF , C2 = 30 μF, C3=15 μF.
34. Find the charge on the 6 μF capacitor shown in the figure.
35. A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volts. The charge stored in it
is 360 μC. When the potential is reduced by 120V, the charge stored in it becomes 120 μC. Calculate
the potential V and capacitance C
36. Find the ratio of the potential differences that must be applied across the parallel and series
combination of two identical capacitors so that energy stored, in two cases, becomes the same.
37. A parallel plate capacitor having plate area 100cm2 and separation 1.0mm holds a charge of 0.12μC
when connected to a 120V battery. Find the value of dielectric constant of material filling the gap.
31
38. A capacitor 200 pF is charged by a 300V battery. The battery is disconnected and the charged capacitor
is connected to another uncharged capacitor 100pF. Calculate the difference in the final and initial
energy stored.
39. The space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is completely filled in two ways. In the first
case, it is filled with a slab of dielectric constant K. In the second case, it is filled with two slabs of
equal thickness and dielectric constants K1 and K2 respectively as shown in the figure. The
capacitance of the capacitor is same in the two cases. Obtain the relationship between, K, K1 and K2
40. An electric field E=20i+30j exists in space. if the potential at the origin is taken to be zero, then what
is the potential at (2m,2m)?
41. What is the significance of dielectric strength of a dielectric medium? Can dielectric strength be
negative?
42. On joining two or more capacitors in series, the equivalent capacitance has a smaller value even than
that of capacitor of the least capacitance in the series grouping. Then, what is the use of series grouping
of capacitance?
43. The direction of electric field is represented from left to right of the reader, a dipole is kept in the
vicinity of the above electric field as shown, Predict the direction of motion of the dipole, explain.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

44. A parallel plate is charged by a battery. When the battery remains connected, a dielectric slab is
inserted in the space between the plates. Explain what changes if any, occur in the values of
(a) its capacitance
(b) electric field between the plates and
(c) energy stored in the capacitor be affected? Justify your answer giving necessary
mathematical expression for each case.
45. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery to a potential. The battery is disconnected and a
dielectric slab is inserted to completely fill the space between the plates. How will
(a) its capacitance
(b) electric field between the plates and
(c) energy stored in the capacitor be affected? Justify your answer giving necessary mathematical
expression for each case.
46. In the figure given below, find the equivalent capacitance of the network between A and B
C1 = C5= 8µF, C2 = C3 = C4 = 4 µF
(i) Calculate effective capacitance between A and B
(ii) Maximum charge supplied by the source
(iii) The energy stored in the network
32
47. Two point charges +Q1 and -Q2 are placed at a distance ‘r’ apart. Obtain the expression for the amount
of work done to place a third charge Q3 at the midpoint of the line joining the two.
48.
Calculate the work done to dissociate the system of three charges placed at the vertices of a triangle
as shown. Given: q = 1.6 x 10-10 C
49.
The variation of potential with distance from a fixed point is as shown in the figure. What is the electric
field at (i) x = 8m (ii) x = 14m?
50. A graph showing variation between two physical quantity ‘x’ with ‘r’, where ‘r’ is the distance from
the center of a charged conducting sphere.
(i) Name the physical quantity ‘x’
(ii) What does the distance ‘OB’ represent?
(iii) At what point the electric field of this conducting sphere (a) minimum (b) maximum?
Write the values
51. What should be the charge on a sphere of radius 4cm, so that when it is brought in contact with another
sphere of radius 2cm carrying a charge of 10μC, there is no transfer of charge from one to another.
52.
Figure shows a parallel plate capacitor of charge densities +σ and – σ. A dielectric slab of constant K
and a conducting slab both are of thickness ‘d’ are inserted in between the plates.
Find the potential difference between the plates. Plot the graph between the E and x taking x=0 at +ve
plate and x=5d at -ve plate
53. (a) Two isolated metal spheres A and B have radii R and 2R respectively and same charge q. Find
which of the two spheres has greater (i) capacitance (ii) energy density just outside the spheres.
(b)Concentric equipotential surfaces due to a point charge at the centre are shown. Identify the
polarity of the charge and draw the field lines.
33
54. Figure shows 9 surfaces connected to two terminals of a battery to form a system of parallel plate
capacitors, as shown in figure. The distance between each plate is ‘d’ and each plate has an area A.
a. If there are n number of such surfaces , write an expression for the effective capacitance of the
capacitor.
b. What is the new energy density of the capacitor when the entire capacitor is shrunk to half of its
original volume?
55. A. What is an equipotential surface? Draw an equipotential surface between two plates of a parallel
plate capacitor when one plate is removed by a conducting sphere.
B.Two protons are released when 2X10−14 m apart. Find their speeds when they are 5X10−14 apart.
Mass of proton is 106X10−27kg.
56. In which direction, protons and electrons tend to go in a region of varying potential? A ring has a
uniform charge density λ with units of coulomb per unit meter of arc. Find the electric potential at a
point on the axis passing through the center of the ring.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

57. (a) Derive the expression for the PE of a system of 2 charges q1 and q2 located at r1 and r2
respectively in an external electric field.
(b) Can electric field exist tangential to equipotential surfaces? Give reason.
58. Explain briefly the process of charging a parallel plate capacitor when it is connected across DC
battery. A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’ is charged to ‘V’ volts by a battery. After sometime battery is
disconnected and distance is doubled. Now a dielectric slab of constant, 1 < K < 2, is introduced to
fill the gap between the plates. How will the following get affected: (i) the electric field between the
plates (ii) the energy stored in the capacitor. Justify your answer by writing necessary expressions.
59. Two identical parallel plate capacitors A and B are connected to a battery V volts with a switch ‘S’
closed. The switch is now opened and the free space between the plates of the capacitor is filled with
a medium of dielectric constant K. Find the ratio of the total energy stored in both capacitors before
and after the introduction of the dielectric.
60. (a) Define Electrostatic potential due to point charge.

(b) If ‘n’ similar drops of mercury each of capacitance C, surface charge density ‘σ’, Energy ‘E’
and potential ‘V’ combine to form a big drop, then calculate the capacitance, surface charge
density, energy and potential of the big drop.
61. (a) Does the capacitance C of a capacitor increase, decrease or remain same when (i) the charge
on it is tripled (ii) the potential difference across the plates is halved? Justify your answer.
(b) Two metal spheres A and B of radius ‘r’ and ‘2r’ whose centres are separated by a distance
‘6r’ are given charges Q each and are potential V1 and V2 respectively. Find the ratio of V1 to
V2
(c) If the spheres are now connected by a wire, what amount of charge will flow through the wire?
34
62. (a) Define electrostatic potential energy of a system of charges
(b) Two charges q1 and q2 are brought to the field of charge Q. Deduce the expression for the
total potential energy of the system
Determine the electrostatic PE of a system of charges 7µC and -2 µC placed at (-9cm,0,0) and
(9cm,0,0) in the absence of any external field
63. (a) A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’ is charged to a potential ‘V’. What is the electrostatic energy
stored ?
(b) Two capacitors C1 and C2 with potentials V1 and V2 are connected together. Will the total
electrostatic PE remain conserved or will there be increase/decrease in the PE ? Justify your
answer.
A 800pF capacitor is charged by 100V battery. After sometime, it is disconnected from the
battery and connected to another 800pF capacitor. Calculate the initial and final PE. If there is
a difference, write the reason
CASE BASED QUESTIONS (Each sub question carry 1 mark)
64. The electrical capacitance of a conductor is the measure of its ability to hold electric charge. Figure
shows an isolated spherical conductor of radius R. The charge Q is uniformly distributed over its entire
surface. It can be assumed to be concentrated at the centre of the sphere. The potential at any point on
the surface of the spherical conductor will be V=Q/4πε0R. Capacitance of the spherical conductor
situated in vacuum is C=QV=4πε0R Clearly, the capacitance of a spherical conductor is proportional
to its radius
(i) If an isolated sphere has a capacitance 50pF. Then radius is

(a) 90 cm (b) 45 cm (c) 45 m (d) 90 m
(ii) How much charge should be placed on a capacitance of 25 pF to raise its potential to l05 V?
(a) 1μC (b) 1.5μC (c) 2μC (d) 2.5μC
(iii) Metallic sphere of radius R is charged to potential V. Then charge q is proportional to
(a) V (b) R (c) both V and R (d) none of these.
(iv) If 64 identical spheres of charge q and capacitance C each are combined to form a large sphere.
The charge and capacitance of the large sphere is
(a) 64q, C (b) 16q,4C (c) 64q,4C (d) 16q,64C
65. A dielectric slab is a substance that does not allow the flow of charges through it but permits them
to exert electrostatic forces on one another.
35
When a dielectric slab is placed between the plates, the field E o polarises the dielectric. This
induces charge -Qp on the upper surface and + Q p on the lower surface of the dielectric. These
induced charges set up a field E p inside the dielectric in the opposite direction of external field E.
(i) In a parallel plate capacitor, the capacitance increases from 4μF to 80μF on
introducing a dielectric medium between the plates. What is the dielectric constant
of the medium?
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 50 (d) 80
(ii) A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 8 pF.
The separation between the plates is now reduced by half and the space between them
is filled with a medium of dielectric constant 5.
Calculate the value of capacitance of the capacitor in the second case.
(a) 20 pF (b) 40 pF (c) 60 pF (d) 80 pF
(iii) A dielectric introduced between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor with
battery remain connected
(a) decreases potential difference between the plates
(b)decreases the electric field between the plates
(c) increases the charge on the plates
(d) all the above
(iv) A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 1 pF has separation between the plates
d. When the distance of separation becomes 2d and wax of dielectric constant x is
inserted in it the capacitance becomes 2 pF. What is the value of x?
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 1
66. The surface on which all points have the same potential is called the equipotential surface. On the
equipotential surface, to move a charge from one point to another no work is required.
Equipotential Points: The same electric potential points on the electric field are called equipotential
points. The line or curve connecting the points is known as an equipotential line. The surface on which
the point lies is called the equipotential surface. The volume in which the points are filled is known as
an equipotential volume.
In an equipotential surface, if a point charge is said to move from point VA to VB, then the
work done in moving the charge is given by,
W = q0 (VA –VB)
As VA – VB is said to be zero and the total work done, W = 0.
(i) Which of the above figures represent uniform electric field? (a)
fig (a) only (b) fig (a&c) (c) fig (b&d) (d) all the above
36
(ii) A charge +Q is moved from point A to point B. Choose the correct statement:
(a) Work done in fig(d) is the least (b)
Work done in fig (a) is greater than that in other cases (c)
Work done in fig (a) & (c) are equal but greater than that in fig(b&d)
(d) Work done in all three cases is equal
(iii) A charge -3μC is taken from a point P to point Q where potential difference is 2.4V.
Calculate the work done (a)
0 J (b) 7.2 J (c) – 7.2 J (d) -7.2 μJ
(iv) Suppose a charge +20 μC is trapped at the centre of a uniformly charged conducting sphere
of radius 5cm and surface charge density 15 μC/cm2. What is the work done required to
move the 20 μC to the surface? (a)
100 μJ (b) 300 μJ (c) Zero (d) 25 μJ
67. Consider a dipole with charge q1 = +q and q2 = - q placed in a uniform electric field E, as shown in
figure. The dipole experiences no net force but experiences a torque given by τ = p x E , which will
tend to rotate it (unless p is parallel or antiparallel to E). Suppose an external torque is applied in such
a manner that it just neutralizes this torque and rotates it in the plane of paper from angle θ0 to θ1 at an
infinitesimal angular speed and without angular acceleration. The amount of work done by the external
torque will be given by W= pE (cos θ0 – cos θ1) This work is stored as the potential energy of the
system.
i) The dipole experience maximum torque when the angle between dipole and electric field is
(a) 0° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 180°
ii) A dipole placed in a uniform electric field experiences no torque
(a) If the dipole is parallel to the field. (b) If the dipole is antiparallel to the field.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
iii) The dipole is at unstable equilibrium when the dipole is
(a) parallel to external electric field
(b) antiparallel to external electric field
(c) Normal to external electric field
(d) None of the above
iv) A dipole of dipole moment 6 x10-9 Cm is rotated in an external electric field of 5.0 N/C through an
angle 0o to 60o. Calculate the work done
68.
Electric field lines due a single point charge are radial lies either pointing inward or outward depending
on its polarity. As you know the potential due to a charge decrease in the direction of field line. So
whenever a charge is moved in an electric field work is required to be done against the field by an
external agency which may be positive or negative depending on the nature of the electric field and
the polarity of test charge. Work done by an external force in bringing a unit positive charge from
infinity to a point is equal to electrostatic potential (V) at that point. V(r)= Q/4πεor.
In the figure (a) field shown is due to + ve charge and figure (b) that due to - ve charge.
i) (a) V(P) > V(Q)
(b) V(P) < V(Q)
37
(c) V(P) = V(Q)
(d) V(P) ≥ V(Q)
ii) Draw the potential versus distance graph for an isolated point charge
iii) Give the sign of the potential energy difference of a small negative charge moving from the point A
to B
iv) How does the KE of a small negative charge change when moved from B to A
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) Can’t determine
69.
The Bohr model of the atom was proposed by Neil Bohr in 1915. It came into existence with the
modification of Rutherford’s model of an atom. Rutherford’s model introduced the nuclear model of
an atom, in which he explained that a nucleus (positively charged) is surrounded by negatively charged
electrons. Bohr modified with few more specification by statin his postulates on ‘stable orbits’,
‘quantisation of energy’ and ‘quantisation of angular momentum’. According to him the electrons are
revolving in circular orbits of constant radius with nucleus at the center.
Based on the concept of electrostatic potential and equipotential surfaces, answer the following:
i) Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Electron in the nearest orbit has lowest energy
(b) Electron in the farthest orbit has lowest nergy
(c) No work is done by the nucleus in revolving electron in the orbit
Kinetic energy of an electron during the complete revolution is conserved
ii) When electron jumps from a higher orbit to lower orbit, energy
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remain same
Depends on the separation between the orbits
iii) What is work done in moving an electron in the first orbit (radius = 0.53Ao ) by the nucleus of a
Hydrogen atom
(a) 9x109 N
(b) Zero
(c) 32.03x109N
None of the above
iv) Which property of equipotential surfaces is not true
(a) The electric field lines are normal at every point of equipotential surface
(b) More the spacing between the equipotential surfaces, greater will be the strength of field
(c) At any point on the equipotential surface, the potential is same
(d)Both (b) and (c)
ASSERTION – REASON QUESTIONS
70. Assertion: The electric field decreases when one moves from the positive to negative plate of a parallel
plate capacitor
Reason: The positive plate carrier greater charge than negative plate
71. Assertion : The capacitance of a plate is independent of the charge stored and potential applied
Reason: Capacitance is the ability to store charge and is a scalar quantity
72. Assertion: The PE of a dipole in an external uniform electric field is minimum when it aligns itself
along the field
Reason: The field makes an angle 180o with the dipole moment
73. Assertion: The work done in moving an electron along the equatorial line of an electric dipole is zero
Reason: The potential at all points along the equatorial line is same
74. Assertion: When capacitors are connected in parallel, net capacitance increases
Reason: In parallel combination, potential gets shared among the capacitors
38
75. Assertion: Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor increases when a dielectric is introduced in the
space between the plates
Reason: A dielectric reduces the effective electric field between the plates
76. Assertion: The potential decreases in the direction of electric field
Reason : The field lines are always perpendicular to equipotential surfaces
77. Assertion: The work done in moving a charge from one point to another on an equipotential surface
is zero
Reason: No component of electric field acts along the equipotential surface
78. Assertion: The potential inside a charged conductor is same at all points
Reason: There is a constant electric field acting inside a charged conductor
79. Assertion: The kinetic energy of an electron increases while moving opposite to the direction of an
electric field
Reason: The potential energy decreases in an attractive field
80. Assertion: No two equipotential surfaces intersect each other
Reason: Equipotential surfaces are surfaces parallel to electric field lines
81. Assertion: When two protons are brought nearer, the potential energy of the system increases
Reason: work done by the external agency is positive
82. Assertion : Capacitance of a capacitor doubles when the plate area doubles
Reason : Capacitance of a capacitor does not depend on the nature of the material of the plate
83. Assertion : The effective capacitance increases in the series combination of capacitors and decreases
in the parallel combination of capacitors
Reason: Capacitance is a vector quantity and obeys laws of vector addition
84. Assertion: Net charge stored in a capacitor is zero
Reason : There is no electric field between the plates of a capacitor
85. Assertion : In the case of two concentric charged shells, the potential difference between the shells
depend on the charge on the inner shell
Reason : The potential due to the outer shell remains same at all points inside the shell
86. Assertion : Polar molecules have permanent dipole moment .
Reason: In polar molecules the centres of positive and negative charges coincide.
ASSIGNMENTS
1. A parallel plate air capacitor consists of two circular plates of diameter 8 cm. At what distance
should the plates be held so as to have the same capacitance as that of a sphere of diameter 20 cm?
2. A metal plate is introduced between the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor. What is its
effect on the capacitance of the capacitor?
3. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential V. It is then connected to
another uncharged capacitor having the same capacitance. Find out the ratio of the energy stored
in the combined system to that stored initially in the single capacitor
4. A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as that of the plates of a parallel plate
capacitor, but has the thickness d/2, where d is the separation between the plates. Find out the
expression for its capacitance when the slab is inserted between the plates of the capacitor.
5. Two identical metal plates are given positive charge Q1 and Q2 (<Q1) respectively. What is the potential
difference between them if they are now brought close together to form a parallel plate capacitor with
capacitance C?
6. Consider a system of capacitors where two parallel plate air capacitors each of capacitance C are
connected in series to a battery of EMF ξ. Now one of the capacitor is filled uniformly with a
dielectric of dielectric constant K. What would happen to electric field strength of that capacitor
and what would be the change in electric field strength? Calculate the amount of charge that
flows through the battery?
39
7. A hollow charged conductor has a tiny hole cut into its surface. Show that the electric field in the hole
is (σ/2ϵ0) n^ where n^ is the unit vector in the outward normal direction, and σ is the surface charge density
near the hole.
Let us consider a conductor with a cavity or a hole. Electric field inside the cavity is zero.
Let E is the electric field just outside the conductor, q is the electric charge, σ is the charge density, and ∈0
is the permittivity of free space.
8. What is the dielectric constant K of an insulator?
9. Two charges of magnitudes −2Qand +Q are located at points (a,0) and (4a,0) respectively. What is
the electric flux due to these charges through a sphere of radius 3a with its centre at the origin?
10. A uniformly charged conduction sphere of 2.4 m diameter has a surface charge density
of 80.0μC/m2 (a) Find the charge on the sphere. (b) What is the total electric flux leaving the
surface of the sphere?
11. A 500 µC charge is at the Centre of a square of side 10 cm. Find the work done in moving a
charge of 10 µC between two diagonally opposite points on the square.
12. The given graph shows variation of charge ‘q’ versus potential difference ‘V’ for two capacitors
C1 and C2. Both the capacitors have same plate separation but plate area of C2 is greater than that
of C1. Which line (A or B) corresponds to C1 and why?
13. Two point charges 4Q, Q are separated by lm in air. At what point on the line joining the charges
is the electric field intensity zero?
Also calculate the electrostatic potential energy of the system of charges, taking the value of
charge, Q = 2 × 10-7C
14. Calculate the work done to dissociate the system of three charges placed on the vertices of a
triangle as shown.
15. Two charges -q and + q are located at points A (0, 0, – a) and B (0, 0, +a) respectively. How much
work is done in moving a test charge from point P (7, 0, 0) to Q (-3,0,0)? Explain with necessary
steps
16. Two small identical electrical dipoles AB and CD, each of dipole moment ‘p’ are kept at an angle
of 120° as shown in the figure. What X’ is the resultant dipole moment of this combination? If
this system is subjected to electric field (E) directed along + X direction, what will be the
magnitude and direction of the torque acting on this?
17. Figure shows two identical capacitors C1 and C2, each of 2 µF capacitance, connected to a battery
of 5 V. Initially switch ‘S’ is left open and dielectric slabs of dielectric constant K = 5 are inserted
to fill completely the space between the plates of the two capacitors. How will the charge and
(ii) potential difference between the plates of the capacitors be affected after the slabs are
inserted?
40
18. Net capacitance of three identical capacitors in series is 1 pF. What will be their net capacitance if
connected in parallel?
Find the ratio of energy stored in the two configurations if they are both connected to the same
source.
POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE - ANSWERS

MCQ (1 MARK)
1. (d) 4W
2. (a) ½.
If V is the emf of the battery, Work done = QV = CV2 . The energy stored = ½ CV2
3. (a) 6V/m along -x axis

Electric potential V=3x2
E=−dV/dx
E=−6x
At the point (1,0,2)
Electric field E=6×1=−6V/m
4. 𝐶
(b) 2
5. 1 𝑄2
(d) 4𝜋𝜀
𝑜 4𝑅
6. (c) Zero
7. (d) 66.6% increase (Hint: Series combination of 2 capacitors of spacing d/2)
8. (c) 4:1
9. (b) Zero
𝜎 −𝜎 𝑞1 −𝑞2
10. (d) (q1-q2)/2C Hint: E = E1 – E2 = 12𝜀 2 = 2𝜀 ; V = Ed
𝑜 𝐴𝑜
11. (c)
12. (b)
13. (b)
14. (d)
15. (a)
16. (b)
17. (b)
18. (c)
19. (b)
20. (d)
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE(1 MARK)
21. Work done in the process is zero. Because, equatorial plane of a dipole is equipotential surface
and work done in moving charge oh equipotential surface is zero.
W = qVAB = q × 0 = 0
22. Since, electric field intensity inside the conductor is zero. So, electrostatic potential is a
constant.
But, E = –ΔV/Δr
∴ E = 0, ΔV = 0
or V2 – V1 =0, V2 – V1
The potential at every point inside the conductor remains same.
23. Line B corresponds to Q because slope (q/V) of B is less than slope of A.
24. Zero. Electrostatic field is a conservative field

25. 𝑑𝑉
No. 𝐸 = − 𝑑𝑟 . That is, even when E = 0, potential can be a non zero constant
41
26. From B to A. When sphere B is placed inside the sphere A, total potential of B become 150V.
So charge flow from higher potential to lower potential.
27. (a) With foil electrically insulated, the arrangement is a series combination. Both capacitors
having d/2 separation between the plates. So effective capacitance Cs = 2C/2 =C
(b) Capacitance become twice as the distance reduces to d/2
28. 𝑄. 𝑄 𝑄. (−𝑄) (−𝑄). 𝑄

𝑈=𝑘 +𝑘 +𝑘 =0
𝑑 2𝑑 2𝑑
29. Energy increases.

𝑞2
The capacitance, C decreases as plate distance increase. As the battery is disconnected, 𝑈 = 2𝐶
which will increase
30.
(a) (b)
SHORT ANSWER TYPE (2 MARKS)
31. (i) Parallel plate capacitor
𝑟 𝐴 𝑑 𝐶 1
(ii) 𝑟 ′ = . 𝐴′ = 2 . 𝐵𝑢𝑡 𝑑 ′ = 2 . 𝑆𝑜 𝐶 ′ = 4𝐶. ∴ 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 , 𝐶′ =
√2 4
32. 1 𝑞
Potential V = 6. 4𝜋𝜀 = 2.7x106 V
0 𝑟
33. For series combination Cs = 20/3 μF
Charge on Cs , Q = Cs V = 600 μC.
Charge stored is same for all capacitors in series.
Potential drop on C2 , V2 = Q/ C2 = 20V
34. 2 1
Current through the circuit𝐼 = 6+10 = 8 𝐴
6 3
Voltage across 6Ω resistor, V’= IR = 8 = 4 𝑉
Charge on the capacitor, Q = CV’ = 4.5 μC
35. Given, Q = CV = 360 μC. ……………(i)
On reducing the voltage by 120V,
Q’ = C (V-120) = 120 μC ………….(ii)
On solving eqn(i) & (ii) ; V = 180V
Then unknown capacitance, C = Q/V =2 μF
36. 𝐶
For identical capacitors: 𝐶𝑠 = 2 ; 𝐶𝑝 = 2𝐶
𝑈𝑠 = 𝑈𝑝
1 𝑉𝑝 𝐶/2 1
𝐶𝑠 𝑉𝑠 2 = 𝐶𝑝 𝑉𝑝2. ∴ = √ =
2 𝑉𝑠 2𝐶 2
37. 𝑄 𝜀𝑜 𝐴
𝐶 = = 10−9 𝐹. 𝐹𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑎, 𝐶 = 𝐾 , 𝐾 = 11.3
𝑉 𝑑
38. 1
𝑈𝑖 = 𝐶1 𝑉1 2 = 9 × 10−6 𝐽
2
𝐶 𝑉 +𝐶 𝑉
Common potential after both capacitors connected, 𝑉𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑛 = 1𝐶1 +𝐶2 2 = 200𝑉
1 2
42
1 1
𝑈𝑓 = 𝐶𝑝 𝑉𝑐𝑜𝑚 2 = 300𝑝𝐹 𝑥(200)2 = 6 × 10−6 𝐽
2 2
Difference in energy = (9 – 6) x 10-6 J = 3 x 10-6 J
39. Case 2 is a series combination

𝜀 𝐴 2𝐾1 𝐾2 𝜀𝑜 𝐴
𝐶1 = 𝐾 𝑜𝑑 ; 𝐶2 = ( 𝐾 +𝐾 ) 𝑑
1 2
2𝐾1 𝐾2
𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑒, 𝐶1 = 𝐶2 ; 𝐾 =
𝐾1 + 𝐾2
40. ∆𝑉 = −𝐸𝑥 ∆𝑥 − 𝐸𝑦 ∆𝑦 = (−20 × 2 − 30 × 2) = −100𝑉
41. The dielectric strength of a dielectric medium is the maximum value of electric field which it
can withstand without breaking. Therefore, we can design a capacitor having a maximum rating
of potential difference between its plates so that there is no leakage of charge from the capacitor
The value of a dielectric constant is always greater than 1.
42. In series grouping, the combination can withstand a higher voltage than individual capacitor.
For example, we have four capacitors of 1 μF each which can withstand a potential of 250 volt.
Their series combination has a capacitance of only 0.25 μF but can withstand a potential of 1000
volt.
43. U = −p E cosθ is the potential energy of the dipole. The dipole system always moves to decrease it's
potential energy. Since the potential 𝐸1 is greater than 𝐸2 So, net force on the dipole acts
towards right side.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE (3 MARKS)
44. (i) Capacitance increases as C’ = KC (K>1)
𝑉
(ii) Potential difference remans same as battery remain connected. So E = 𝑑 remain same
1𝐶𝑉 2
(iii) Energy, U = ; U’ = KU
2
45. (a) The capacitance increases as the dielectric constant K>1.
Potential difference V= CQ. As C increases and Q remains the same since the battery is
disconnected, the p.d. between the plates decreases.
𝑽
(b) Electric field E = 𝒅 where V is the p.d. and d the separation between the plates. As V decreases and
d remains the same, electric field also decreases.
𝟏𝑸𝟐
(c) Energy stored in a capacitor U = 𝟐𝑪 . As Q is constant and C increases, U decreases.
46. Since C1,C2 are short circuited, the net charge on them =0
Similarly, net charge on C4 and C5 = 0
So effective capacitance = C3 = 4µF
Then, Q = CV = 4µF x 5 = 20 µC
1
Energy stored, U = 2 𝐶𝑉 2 = 50µJ
47.
+Q1
r/2 r/2
𝑄1 𝑄3 𝑄3 𝑄2 𝑄1 𝑄3 −𝑄3 𝑄2
𝑊=𝑘 − = 2𝑘( )
𝑟/2 𝑟/2 𝑟
48. Work done = - ( PE)
𝑞1 𝑞2 + 𝑞1 𝑞3 + 𝑞2 𝑞3
𝑊=𝑘
𝑟
Substituting, W = 2.3 x 10-8 J
49. dV
E = − dx
(i) At x = 8m, V is constant. E = 0
(10−30)
(ii) At x = 14m, V is gradually decreasing. 𝐸 = − (16−12)
= 5𝑉/𝑚
43
50. (i) Electric potential (ii) OB = radius of the sphere
(iii) E max is at surface (x = radius) ,
at B Emin is x < radius
51. For no transfer of charge, V1 = V2
𝑞 𝑞
𝑘 𝑟1 = 𝑘 𝑟2 ; then q1 = 20μC
1 2
52. 𝐸𝑜 𝑑 𝐸𝑜 𝑑
(i) V = 𝐸𝑜 𝑑 + + 𝐸𝑜 𝑑 + 0 + 𝐸𝑜 𝑑 = 3𝐸𝑜 𝑑 +
𝐾 𝐾
53. (a) (i) ∝ 𝑅 ; Capacitance of sphere B is greater

𝑈 𝑄 2 ⁄2𝐶 𝑈
(𝑖𝑖) 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 = = 4 . On solving, 𝑈𝐴 = 16: 1
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝜋𝑅 3 𝐵
3
(b) Negative charge.
54. (n−1)A€
a. The effective capacitance will be 𝑑
1 2
b. Energy density U = εE
2
When the entire capacitor is shrunk to half of its original volume, the area of the plates
(A) will also be reduced to half, assuming the plates retain their shape. The distance
between the plates (d) is also halved. So there will be no change in the new capacitance
but electric filed will change as V=Ed, when d is halved E becomes double
1
So the new energy U = 2 ε(2E)2
Ie, U=4(the initial energy)
55. Equipotential surface is a surface of constant potential.
AB ) loss in potential energy= gain in kinetic energy
𝑈𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑟𝑡 -𝑈𝑒𝑛𝑑 = 𝑘𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑟𝑡 -𝑘𝑒𝑛𝑑
𝑒2 1 1 1
= 4𝜋ε(2𝑋10−14 -5𝑋10−14 ) =2(2m𝑣 2 )-(0)
𝑠𝑢𝑏𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑚, 𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ε
6
𝑣 = 2.08𝑋10 m/s
44
56. Protons tend to move from higher potential to lower potential. Electrons will move from lower
potential to higher potential.
𝑑𝑞
Vp=k∫ 𝑟
A general element of the arc between θ and θ+dθ is of length Rdθ and therefore contains a
charge equal to λRdθ The element is at a distance of √(𝑍 2 + 𝑅 2 ) from P, and therefore the
potential is
2𝜋 λRdθ
k∫0 [√(𝑍 2+ 𝑅2]
λR 2𝜋
= k√(𝑍 2+ 𝑅2 ∫0 [ dθ]
λR2𝜋
= k√(𝑍 2+ 𝑅2
q
= k√(𝑍 2+ 𝑅2
LONG ANSWR TYPE

57. Derivation.
No, if the electric field has tangential component, then work done in moving a charge between
any two points on an equipotential surface will not be zero.
58. Hint: C1 = C; V1=V and Q1 = CV

When battery is disconnected, Q remains same.
So after distance is doubled and battery disconnected, C2 = KC/2
C1V1 = C2V2 ; Electric field E1 = Vd and E2 = E1/K
59. 1
When switch is connected, UA = UB = 2 𝐶𝑉 2
1
Total energy Ui= 2 ( 2 𝐶𝑉 2 ) = 𝐶𝑉 2
After the introduction of dielectric slab and switch opened, CA = CB = KC

P.D across A = V; P.D across B = V/K ( since Q remains same for A and B)
1 1
UA = 2 𝐾𝐶𝑉 2 ; UB = 2𝐾 𝐶𝑉 2
𝐾2 +1 1
On adding final energy, Uf = ( ) 𝐶𝑉 2
𝐾 2
𝑈𝑓 𝐾2 +1
Ratio, = ( )
𝑈𝑖 2𝐾
45
60. (b) Volume of big drop =n× volume of small drop
4/3πR3=n×4/3πr3
R=n1/3 r
Capacitance of small drop, C=4πε0r
Capacitance of big drop, C’ =4πε0R = 4πε0 n1/3r
C’ = n1/3 C
The potential of small drop V=q/C= q/4πε0r
The potential of big drop V’ = nq/ n1/3 C
V’ =n2/3 V
∴ Energy of small drop E= ½ CV2
Energy of big drop E’=½C'V’2
∴ Energy E’ = n5/3 E
61. (a) No change in capacitance since C does not depend on Q or V
(b) V = kQ/r . So the ratio V1:V2 = 2:1
(c) When connected by a wire, the potentials become equal. On
equating, Q1’ = Q2’/2.
Charge flowing = Q/3 (
electric charge is conserved. 2Q = Q1’+ Q2’ = 3 Q2’/2.)
62. (a) Electrostatic PE of a system of charges can be defined as the work done in assembling
the charges in the present positions by bringing them from infinity
(b) Let V(r1) and V(r2) be the potentials at positions r1 and r2 respectively due to the charge
Q. Then work is to be done against the field due to Q and q1 while bringing q2 from
infinity. Similarly for charge q2.
Total PE of the system is the total work done in assembling the charges q1 and q2 in the
field of Q
𝑞1 𝑞2
𝑊 = 𝑈 = 𝑞1 𝑉(𝑟1 ) + 𝑞2 𝑉(𝑟2 ) + 𝐾
𝑟12
𝑞1 𝑞2
(c) 𝑈 = 𝐾 𝑟
12
𝑞1 𝑞2 9
(−14 × 10−6 )
𝐾 = 9 × 10 × = −0.7𝐽
𝑟12 0.18
63. 1
(a) 𝑈 = 2 𝐶𝑉 2
(b) The PE decreases. The loss in PE is appeared as heat energy in the circuit.
𝐶 𝑉 +𝐶 𝑉
Common Potential after sharing,𝑉 = 1𝐶1+𝐶2 2
1 2
1 2 1 2
Initial PE = 𝑈𝑖 = 2 𝐶1 𝑉1 + 2 𝐶2 𝑉2
1
Final PE = 𝑈𝑓 = 2 (𝐶1 + 𝐶2 )𝑉 2 , where V is the common potential.
On substituting, we get the final energy is less than initial energy by a quantity,
1 𝐶1 𝐶2
(𝑉1 2 − 𝑉2 2
2 𝐶1 + 𝐶2
1
(c) 𝑈𝑖 = 2 × 800𝑝𝐹 × 100 × 100 = 4µ𝐽. Common potential = 50 V (after calculation)
1 1
𝑈𝑓 = (𝐶1 + 𝐶2 )𝑉 2 = × 1600𝑝𝐹 × 50 × 50 = 2µ𝐽
2 2
64. (i) 45 cm
(ii) 2.5μC
(iii) V and R
(iv) 64q,4C (q’ = nq; C’ = n1/3 C)
65. (i) 20 (C’ = KC)

(ii) 80 pF
(iii) increases the charge on the plates ( Battery connected V remains same)
(iv) 4
46
66. (i) fig (a) only
(ii) Work done in all three cases is equal
(iii) -7.2 μJ
(iv) Zero (the potential inside a charged sphere is uniform)
67. (i) c
(ii) a
(iii) b
(iv) 1.5 x 10-8
68. (i) a
(ii) Fig.2.4 NCERT Text
(iii) b
(iv) b
69. (i) a
(ii) a
(iii) b
(iv) b
ASSERTION-REASON
70. D
71. B
72. C
73. A
74. C
75. A
76. B
77. A
78. C
79. A
80. C
81. A
82. B
83. D
84. C
85. A
86. C
47
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
MIND MAP
48
GIST OF THE LESSON
Electric Current The net flow of charge : I= Q/t
It is a scalar quantity .Does not obey vector algebra .Its unit is ampere
Flow of electric charges When a potential difference is applied across the ends of a conductor the
in a metallic conductor electron will drift from one end to the other
Drift velocity The average velocity acquired by the free electrons in a conductor when
subjected to an electric field .
vd= 𝑒𝐸τ/𝑚 = 𝑒𝑉τ/𝑚𝐿 (where E = V/L) where ι is called the relaxation time – it
is the average time interval between two successive collision of free electrons
of a conductor when subjected an electric field
Mobility Drift velocity = 𝑒𝐸τ/𝑚 =µE ,Where µ is called mobility ,μ=eτ/m
Expression for current 𝐼 = 𝑄/t , I = 𝑛𝑒𝐴𝐿/𝑡 (n is number density of free electrons, A is area of cross
in terms of drift section and L is the length of the conductor)
velocity 𝐼 = 𝑣𝑒𝑛A
Current density j= I /A – current through unit area and it is a vector quantity
Ohm’s law V = IR, ,𝐼 = 𝑛𝑒(𝑒𝐸𝜄/𝑚)A , I/A = ne2τE/m
J =σE where σ is conductivity
V-I characteristics Ohmic device – Devices that obey Ohm’s law, the V I graph will be linear
(linear and nonlinear) Non Ohmic device – Devices that does not obey Ohm’s law, the V I graph will
not be straight line (example diode)
Conductivity σ= ne2τ/m
Resistivity ρ= m/ne2 τ the reciprocal of conductivity (depends on temperature and nature of
the material)
Resistance and 𝑅 = 𝜌𝐿/A, dependence on temperature, nature and dimension of the material
temperature dependence 𝑅 = 𝑅0 + 𝛼𝑅0𝛥T ,here α is called the temperature coefficient of resistance
Material like constantan and mangaine are having very low value for
coefficient of resistance hence used to make standard resistors .
Resistors in series and Series
parallel : Current through all resistors same but potential difference across each resistor
is different
Effective resistance is larger than the largest &R effective = R1 + R2 +R3
Parallel:
Potential difference across each resistor is same but current through the
resistors are different
Effective resistance is smaller than the smallest
1 /𝑅 𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 = 1/ 𝑅1 + 1/ 𝑅2 + 1/ 𝑅3
Electrical energy and The rate at which electric energy is consumed is called electric power
Power P = VI, , P = I2R
Electric cell The device that converts chemical energy into electrical energy is called
electric cell
Emf Electromotive force – The work done to move a unit charge through the circuit
Internal resistance Resistance offered by the cell depends on
1.Nature of the electrolyte
2,Directly proportional to the concentration of the electrolyte
3.Directly proportional to the distance between the electrodes
4.Varies inversely as the common area of the electrodes
5.Increases with the decrease in temperature of the electrolyte
49
Terminal voltage and The potential difference between the terminals of a cell, when current is drawn
emf from the cell
Relation between Emf = terminal voltage + internal resistance x current

internal resistance, emf Emf = V + Ir
and terminal voltage In open circuit ie when I is zero then emf =terminal voltage (When a cell gets
charged then emf = V – Ir)
Combination of cells in Series

series and parallel
Effective emf = E1 + E2………….
Effective internal resistance:
r eff = r1 + r2…… +……...
If cells are identical then effective emf = nE (where n is the number of cells)
Effective resistance = nr
If connected across an external resistor R then
Parallel
If n identical cells are connected in parallel then E effective = E (emf of a

single cell) &
If connected across an external resistor then current is :
Kirchhoff’s rules Junction rule and loop rule

Junction rule is based on law of conservation of charge
Loop rule is based on law of conservation of energy
Wheatstone’s bridge
It is an arrangement of four resistors
The bridge is said to be balanced when the points B
and D are at the same potential. Then the current
through the galvanometer is zero.
When bridge is balanced then :P/Q = R/S

If the position of the cell and the galvanometer is interchanged, then also the
galvanometer will show null deflection
50
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
1. State the condition in which the terminal voltage across a cell is equal to its emf
2. What happens if the galvanometer and cell are interchanged at the balance point of the bridge? Would the
galvanometer show any current?
3. Two wires A and B of the same material and having same length have their cross-sectional areas in the ratio
1:4. What would be the ratio of heat produced in the wires when same voltage is applied?
4. A potential difference V is applied across a conductor of length L. How is the drift velocity affected when V is
doubled and L is halved?
5. Plot a graph showing the variation of resistance of conducting wire as a function of its radius, keeping the
length of the wire and its temperature as constant
6. Two wires A and B of the same material having length in the ratio 1:2 and radii in the ratio 2:1. What is the
ratio of the resistance?
7. Draw a graph showing the variation resistivity with temperature for nichrome
8. How does the random motion of the free electrons in a conductor gets affected when a potential difference is
applied across it ?
9. A 100 W and 500W bulb are joined in parallel to the mains. Which bulb will glow brighter?
10. Write any two factors on which the internal resistance of a cell depends on
ONE MARK QUESTION S MCQ

11. How many electrons pass through a lamp in 1 min if the current is 300mA?
(i) 1.125x1020
(ii) 1.875x10-18
(iii) 1.875x1018
(iv) 1.125x10-20
12. Drift velocity varies with the intensity of electric field as per the relation
(i) VαE
(ii) V α 1/E
(iii) V α E2
(iv) V α E-2
13. The current through the 5Ωresistor is :
(i) 2A
(ii) 4A
(iii) zero
(iv) 1A
14. In a Wheatstone bridge circuit, P = 7Ω, Q =8Ω, R = 12 Ω and S = 7 Ω. Find the additional resistance to be
used in series with S, so that the bridge is balanced
(i) 6.72 Ω
(ii) 7.62 Ω
(iii) 2.67 Ω
(iv) 6.27 Ω
15. A cell of emf 2V, when short circuited gives a current of 4A. What is the internal resistance of the cell in ohm
(i) 0.5
(ii) 1.0
(iii) 2.0
(iv) 4.0
16. When a current of 0.2 A is drawn from a battery then the potential difference between its terminals is 20V and
when a current of 2A is drawn, then the potential difference drops to 16V. The emf of the battery is
(i) 15.1V
(ii) 20.4V
(iii) 18.9V
(iv) 23.3V
51
17. If two identical cells when connected in series or in parallel, supply the same amount of current through an
external resistance of 2Ω, the internal resistance of the cell is
(i) 8Ω
(ii) 2Ω
(iii) 4Ω
(iv) 1Ω
18. Kirchhoff’s second law for the electric network is based on
(i) Law of conservation of charge
(ii) Law of conservation of energy
(iii) Law of conservation of angular momentum
(iv) Law of conservation of mass
19. If percentage change in current through a resistor is 1%, then the change in power through it would be
(i) 1%
(ii) 2%
(iii) 1.7%
(iv) 0.5%
20. In the given circuit, the potential drop across the resistor is:
(i) V
(ii) V/2
(iii) V/3
(iv) 2V/3
ASSERTION AND REASONING QUESTIONS
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
Following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
1. Assertion: The coil of a heater is cut into two equal halves and only one of them is used into heater.
The heater will now require half the time to produce the same amount of heat.
Reason: The heat produced is directly proportional to square of current.
2. Assertion: Electrons move from a region of higher potential to a region of lower potential
Reason: .Electron has less potential energy at points where potential is higher and vice versa
3. Assertion: The value of temperature coefficient of resistance is positive for metals
Reason: The temperature coefficient of insulators is also positive
4. Assertion: An electric bulb starts glowing instantly as it is switched on
Reason: Drift speed of electrons in a metallic wire is very large
5. Assertion: The drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor increases with the increase in the
applied electric field
Reason: The force experience by the free electrons in a conductor depends on the
applied electric field
6. Assertion: A wire carrying an electric current has no electric field around it

Reason: Rate of flow of electrons in one direction is equal to the rate of flow of
protons in the opposite direction
52
7. Assertion: A current flows in a conductor only when there is an electric field
within the conductor
Reason: The drift velocity of electrons in the presence of electric field decreases
8. Assertion: A current carrying wire should be charged.

Reason: The current in a wire is due to flow of free electrons in a definite direction.
9 Assertion: Heater wire must have high resistance and high melting point.
Reason: If resistance is high, the electric conductivity will be less.
10 Assertion: When a wire is stretched to three times of its length, its resistance
becomes 9 times.
Reason: Resistance is directly proportional to length of wire.
ANSWER KEY AND SOLUTIONS
Solution of 1 mark questions

1 When no current is drawn from the cell
2 No change . The galvanometer will not show any current
3 since voltage is same power is inversely proportional to resistance
4 and hence becomes 4 times

5 graph is rectangular hyperbola
6
8 Random motion gets partially gets directed towards the higher potential side
9 In parallel same voltage V is applied to both the bulbs. But 500W bulb has smaller resistance , so it
will produce more heat
10 Nature of the electrolyte .Directly proportional to the concentration of the electrolyte
Directly proportional to the distance between the electrodes
Varies inversely as the common area of the electrodes
Increases with the decrease in temperature of the electrolyte
11 Ii
I = q/t
12 i
13 i
14 I
15 i
16 ii
17 ii
18 ii
19 ii
20 Iii
SOLUTIONS OF ASSERTION AND REASON
1 The correct Answer is A
53
H = I 2RT = (V /R)2 Rt ∴ H ∝ 1/R, at constnat voltage. The coil is cut into two equal halves.
Hence R is halved. ∴ H. ∝ 2 R So,H. = 2H
2 The correct answer is A
Electron has negative charge and has less potential energy at where the potential is high and
hence move from high potential to low potential
3 Answer is C
Temperature coefficient of resistance is positive for metals but negative for insulators
4 Answer is C
The assertion is true but the drift velocity of electrons in a conductor is very low
5 Answer is A
The drift velocity depends on the applied electric field
6 Answer is C
7 Answer is C
As soon as the electric field is set up in the conductor electrons starts drifting in the opposite
direction of the electric field but they gain speed and hence the reason is false
8 Answer is D
9 Answer is B
10 Answer is B
TWO MARK QUESTIONS
1. Using the concept of drift velocity of charge carriers in a conductor deduce the relation ship between
current density and resistivity of the conductor
2. Two bulbs are marked 220V,100W and 220V and 50W respectively. They are connected in series to
220V mains. Find the ratio of heat generated in them
3. A potential difference of 6V is applied across a conductor of length 0.12m. Calculate the drift
velocity of the electrons, it the electron mobility is 5.6 x 10-6m2v-1s-1
4. Explain why electric power transmitted at high voltages and low currents to distant places
5. The V-I curve for a given metallic wire at two different temperatures T1 and T2 are shown in the
figure. Which temperature is greater and give reason
I
T1
T2
6. A wire when connected to 220V main supply, has power dissipation P1. Now the wire is cut into two
equal pieces which are connected in parallel to the same supply, power dissipation in this case is P2.
Find the ratio P2/P1
7. Three identical cells each of emf 2V and internal resistance 0.2Ω are connected in series to an
external resistor of 7.4 Ω. Calculate the current in the circuit
8. Distinguish between emf and terminal voltage
9. Why alloys like constantan are used for making standard resistors?
10. Distinguish between ohmic and non ohmic devices. Give one example each
HINTS ANS SOLUTIONS
1 ( explained in the summary)
2 In series connection current is same
54
3
4 To minimise power loss due to Joule heating

5 Current is less for T2 means resistance if more for T2
Resistance increases with increase in temperature
Hence T2 is more than T1
6
7 E effective= 6
r effective = 0.6
Total resistance 7.4+0.6=8
I = 6/8=.75A
8 Definition given in summary
9 Low value for temperature coefficient of resistance. Hence resistance wont vary much with
change in temperature
10 Given in summary
3 MARK QUUESTIONS
1. Three identical resistors, each of resistance R when connected in series with a d c source dissipate
power X. If the resistors are connected in parallel to the same d c source, how much power will be
dissipated?
2. The thickness of a conductor continuously decreases from its one end A to another end B. It is
connected across the terminals of a battery. What will be the effect on the value of?
(I) electric field
(ii) current density
(iii) mobility of the electron
at a point on the conductor as one moves from end A to end B
3. A battery of emf e and internal resistance r is connected to a variable external resistance R. Find the
value of R for which current in the circuit is maximum, terminal potential difference across the
battery is maximum also find the maximum value of current and terminal voltage in each case
4. Derive the condition for balanced Wheatstone’s bridge
5. Prove that when electrical appliances are connected in parallel, the total power consumed is equal to
the sum of the powers of the individual appliances.
6. The resistance of a tungsten filament at 1500C is 133 Ω. What will be its resistance at 5000C? Given
the temperature coefficient of tungsten is 0.0045/0C.
7. A battery of emf 2V and internal resistance 0.1Ω is being charged by a current of 5A. What will be
the direction of current inside the battery? What is the potential difference between the terminals of
the battery?
8. Define drift velocity and derive an expression for drift velocity of electrons in a conductor hence
deduce Ohm’s law
9. State and explain Kirchhoff’s laws. In the electric network shown in the figure, use Kirchhoff’s rules
to calculate the power consumed by the resistance R=4Ω
55
10. Using Kirchhoff’s rules determine the value of unknown resistance R in the circuit shown, so that no
current flows through 4Ω resistance. Also find the potential difference between A and D
HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

1 P = V2/R
R effective in series is 3R
R effective in parallel is R/3
Hence power = 9X
2
E is proportional to 1/A hence decreases from end A to end B
J =I/A
Hence j decreases from end A to B
hence constant
3
Hence to get maximum current R = 0
I=E/r
V= E -Ir
For maximum value of V , I must be zero and for that R = infinity
Hence V = E
4 Derivation
5 Derivation
6
7 During charging a battery the current inside the battery flows from the positive to the
negative terminal of the battery, so the terminal potential difference is greater than the emf
V = E +Ir = 2+5 x 0.1
V = 2.5V
8 Derivation
56
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
1. Emf of a cell is the maximum potential difference between two electrodes of the cell when no
current is drawn from the cell. Internal resistance is the resistance offered by the electrolyte of a
cell when the electric current flows through it. The internal resistance of a cell depends upon the
following factors;
(i) distance between the electrodes
(ii) nature and temperature of the electrolyte
(iii) nature of electrodes
(iv) area of electrodes.
For a freshly prepared cell, the value of internal resistance is generally low and goes on increasing
as the cell is put to more and more use. The potential difference between the two electrodes of a
cell in a closed circuit is called terminal potential difference
(i) The terminal potential difference of two electrodes of a cell is equal to emf of the cell when
(a) current is zero
(b) when current is not equal to zero
(c) neither a or b
(d) both a and b
(ii) A cell of emf E and internal resistance r gives a current of 0.5 A with an external resistance
of 12Ω and a current of 0.25 A with an external resistance of 25Ω . What is the value of the internal
resistance of the cell?
(a) 5Ω
(b) 1 Ω
(c) 7 Ω
(d) 3 Ω
(iii) Choose the wrong statement.
(a) Potential difference across the terminals of a cell in a closed circuit is always less than its emf.
(b) Internal resistance of a cell decrease with the decrease in temperature of the electrolyte.
(c) Potential difference versus current graph for a cell is a straight line with a -ve slope
(d) Terminal potential difference of the cell when it is being charged is given as V = E + Ir.
(iv) . IF external resistance connected to a cell has been increased to 5 times, the potential
difference across the terminals of the cell increases from 10 V to 30 V. Then, the emf of the cell is
(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 50
(d) 40
57
2. An electrical appliances (geysers) uses a lot of electric energy when it is operated. The electrical
energy consumed is dependent on the time for which a specific appliance of fixed power rating is
used. The commercial unit of electric energy is KWh (I unit). Different electric appliances have
different power consumption which is mentioned in the device clearly.
(a) A bulb is rated 60W, 220V.It signifies

(i) It consumes 60J in one second (iii) It has 60W energy
(ii) It consumes 220J in one second (iv) None of the above
(b) Which of the following does not represent electric power?

(i) VI (iii) V2/R
(ii) I2R (iv) I2V
(c) The electric bulbs P and Q having resistance ratio 1:2 will consume power in the ratio when V is
constant
(i) 1:2 (iii) 1:4
(ii) 2:1 (iv) 4:1
(d) An electric heater consumes 1.5KW power. If it is used every day for 2 hours, then the electric
energy used in January is
(i) 90unit (iii) 93unit
(ii) 92unit (iv) 95 unit
3. An electric cell is source of energy that maintains a continuous flow of charge in a circuit. it changes
chemical energy into electrical energy. It has two electrodes – positive and negative. Electric cell has
to do some work in maintaining the current through a circuit. The work done by the cell in moving
unit positive charge through the whole circuit is called the emf of the cell.
(a) When two electrodes of a cell are immersed in an electrolytic solution the charges are exchanged
between
(i) Positive electrode and electrolyte (iii) Both electrodes and electrolyte
only (iv) Directly between two electrodes
(ii) Negative electrode and electrolyte
only
(b) The current flowing in the sell is

(i) I = E /(R+r) (iii) I=E/r
(ii) I = E/R (iv) I = (R+r)/E
(c) The maximum current that can be drawn from a cell is for
(i) R = infinity (iii) R=0
(ii) R = finite non-zero resistance (iv) R =r
(d) When R is infinite, then potential difference V between P and N is

(i) E (iii) E/2
(ii) 2E (iv) E/4
58
4. The materials can be classified as conductors, semi-conductors and insulators depending on their
resistivities. Metals have low resistivities in the range of 10-8Ωm..At the other end are insulators like
ceramic, rubber and plastics having resistivities 10-18 times greater than metals or more. In between
these two are the semiconductors. These however have resistivities characteristically decreasing with
a rise in temperature. The resistivities of semiconductors can be decreased by adding small amount
of suitable impurities. This last feature is exploited in use of semiconductors for electronic devices.
(a) Which of the following material can be used for heating purpose in electric geyser
(i) Copper (iii) Gold
(ii) Aluminium (iv) Nichrome
(v)
(b) The temperature of coefficient of resistance is negative for

(i) Copper (iii) Carbon
(ii) Gold (iv) Silver
(c) The resistance of a wire at 200C is 20Ω and at 5000C it is 60Ω. At what temperature the
resistance is the temperature is 25Ω
(i) 1600C (iii) 1000C
(ii) 2500C (iv) 800C
(d) The product of resistivity and conductivity of a conductor depends on
(i) Area of cross section ‘ (iii) Length
(ii) Temperature (iv) None of these
5. Wheatstone bridge, also known as the resistance bridge, is the setup that is used for measuring the
unknown resistance. It was invented by Samuel Hunter Christie in 1833 and was later popularised by
Sir Charles Wheatstone in 1843.
A Wheatstone bridge comprises four arms which are termed as resistors, and among which
the ratio of two resistors is kept at a fixed value and the two arms left, that is, the remaining arms are
balanced, one of them can be varied while the other arm is an unknown resistor
Then through the method of balancing or null condition, the unknown resistance is calculated. The
circuit of the Wheatstone bridge provides the exact measurement of the resistance. There are many
variations of the Wheatstone bridge that are utilised for the AC circuits.
(a) Why the Wheatstone bridge is more accurate than the other methods of measuring res
(i) It has four resistor arms
(ii) It is based on Kirchhoff’s laws
(iii) It does not involve ohm’s la
(v) It is null method
(b) In a balanced Wheatstone’s bridge network, the resistance in arms Q and S are interchanged.
As a result of this
(i) galvanometer and cell must be interchanged to balance
(ii) galvanometer shows null deflection
(iii) Network is not balance
(iv) network is still balanced
59
(c ) In a Wheatstone bridge circuit P= 5Ω, Q =6Ω, R = 10Ω and S = 5Ω. What is the additional
resistance to be used in series with S, so that the bridge is balance
(i) 5Ω
(ii) 7 Ω
(iii) 10 Ω
(vi) 9 Ω
(d) Five equal resistors each of R are connected in a network as shown in the figure. The equivalent
resistance between the points A and B is
(a) R
(b) 2R
(c ) R/2
(d) 4R.
SOLUTIONS ( CASE BASED QUESTIONS )
1 (a) Current is zero
E = V + Ir
(b) 1Ω
© Internal resistance decreases with decrease in temperature
(d) 60Ω
2 (a) It consumes 60J in one sec
(b) I2V
© 2:1
(d) 93 unit
3 (a) Both electrode and electrolyte
(b) I= E/R +r
© R=r
(d) E
4 (a) Nichrome
(b) Carbon
(c)
Given : RT=60 ohms @ T=500oC
Also, RT′=20 ohms @ T′=20oC
Resistance at a given temperature RT=RT′[1+α(T−T′)]
∴ 60=20[1+α(500−20)] ⟹ α=4802=0.00417
Let resistance of wire is 25 ohm at temperature T′′.
∴ RT′′=RT′[1+α(T′′−T′)] OR 25=20[1+(0.00417)(T′′−20)] ⟹ T′′=80oC
(d) None of these

5 (a) It is null method
Network is not balanced
(b)
(c) 7Ω
R
(d)
60
5 MARKS QUESTIONS
1. (a) Define the term drift velocity and relaxation time ,giving their physical significance
(b) A conductor of length L is connected to a dc source of emf E. If this conductor is replaced by
another conductor of same material and same area of cross section but of length 5L, how will the
drift velocity change?
2. (a) Define the term conductivity of a metallic wire. Write its SI unit
(b) Using the concept of free electrons in a conductor, derive the expression for the conductivity of a
wire in terms of number density and relaxation time. Hence obtain the relation between current density
and the applied electric field.
3. Two cells of emf E1 and E2 are and internal resistances r1 and r2 respectively are connected in
series and in parallel. Obtain expressions for the equivalent emf and effective resistance of the
combination in the two cases
SOLUTIONS: Explained in the summary
SELF EVALUATION TEST
1. Two wires of equal length , one of copper and the other of manganine have the same resistance.
Which will be thicker;
(a) Copper
(b) Manganine
(c) Both have same thickness
(d) Cant be predicted
2. A wire whose cross sectional area is increasing linearly from its one end to the other is connected
across a battery of V volt. Which of the following quantities remains constant in the wire
(a) Drift speed
(b) Current density
(c) Electric current
(d) Electric field
3. The internal resistance of a cell :
(a) Always acts in the cell in an open circuit
(b) Acts only in a closed circuit and reduces emf
(c) Acts only in a closed circuit and reduces the current
(d) None of these
4. Two wires of the same material have lengths l and 2l and area of cross section 4A and A respectively.
The ratio of the specific resistance would be ;
(a) 1:2
(b) 8:1
(c) 1:8
(d) 1:1
5. Two wires of resistance R and 2R are connected in parallel , then ratio of heat generated in R and 2R is
:
(a) 3:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:4
(d) 4:1
6. 3 identical bulbs are connected in series and these together dissipate a power P. If now the bulbs are
connected in parallel , then the power dissipated will be :
(a) P/3
(b) 3P
(c) 9P
(d) P/9
61
7. A battery of emf 10V and internal resistance 3Ωis connected to a resistor. The current in the circuit is
0.5A .The terminal voltage of the battery when the circuit is closed is :
(a) 10V
(b) Zero
(c) 1.5V
(d) 8.5V
8. A wire of resistance is stretched to twice its original length. Its new resistance will be :
(a) 4R
(b) R/9
(c) R/3
(d) 3R
9. Three cells of very low internal resistance are to be connected across an external resistance R such as to
get the grouping effect. They should be connected in:
(a) Series
(b) parallel
(c) Both series and parallel will give the grouping effect
(d) None of these
10. Kirchhoff’s second law is based on
(a) Law of conservation of charge
(b) Law of conservation of energy
(c) Law of conservation of momentum
(d) Law of conservation of mass
ASSERTION AND REASONING QUESTIONS
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
11. Assertion : Though large number of free electrons are present in the metal , there is no current in the
absence of electric field
Reason : In the absence of electric field the electrons move randomly
12. Assertion: The resistivity of metals increases with increase in temperature
Reason: As the temperature increases the collision between the electrons increases and the relaxation
time decreases
Short answer questions
13. Define the term mobility and give the unit of mobility. The length of a conductor is doubled keeping
the potential difference across the conductor constant. How the drift velocity changes
14. A cell is a device that convert chemical energy to electrical energy. Draw the graph showing the
terminal voltage and current drawn from a cell
15. Derive the expression for resistivity of a material and explain the temperature dependence of resistivity
based on the expression
62
16. A 10 V battery of negligible internal resistance is connected across a 200V battery and a resistance of
38Ω as shown . Find the value of current in the circuit
10V
38Ω 200V
17. Prove that the current density of a metallic conductor is directly proportional to the speed of electrons
18. The number density of free electrons in three conductors X, Y and Z is 4:1:8 and their electrical
conductivities are in the ratio 2:1:2 . For which conductor the relaxation time of free electrons
maximum and minimum
19. Draw a plot showing the variation of resistivity of a conductor and semi conductor with the increase in
temperature . How does one explain this behaviour in terms of number density of charge carriers and
relaxation time
20. Explain giving reason how the internal resistance of a cell changes in the following cases
(a) When concentration of the electrolyte is increased
(b) When area of anode is decreased
(c) When temperature of the electrolyte is increases
63
CHAPTER 4
MOVING CHARGES & MAGNETISM
MIND MAP
64
Important points/Formulae
1. Biot-Savart law
The magnetic field due to a small current element can be obtained using this law.
𝜇𝑜 𝐼𝑑𝑙 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
𝑑𝐵 =
4𝜋 𝑟2
Direction of the magnetic field can be obtained by Right Hand Thumb Rule.
2. Applications of Biot-Savart law

(i) Magnetic field at the centre of a circular current carrying coil
𝜇𝑜 𝐼
𝐵=
2𝑎
(ii) Magnetic field at a point on the axis of a circular current carrying coil having N turns
𝜇𝑜 𝑁𝐼𝑎2
𝐵= 3
2(𝑎2 + 𝑥 2 )2
3. Ampere’s circuital law
Ampere’s circuital law states that the line integral of the magnetic field B taken over a closed loop
is  0 times the current I threading the path.
⃗ . ⃗⃗⃗
∮𝐵 𝑑𝑙 = 𝜇0 𝐼
4. Applications of Ampere’s circuital law

i) Magnetic field due to a straight infinitely long current carrying conductor.
𝜇0 𝐼
𝐵 = 2𝜋𝑟
ii) Magnetic field well inside a current carrying a solenoid
𝐵 = 𝜇0 𝑛𝐼
𝑛 − 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛𝑠 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ.
5. Force on a moving charge
i) Force on a charge in an electric field, 𝐹𝐸 = 𝑞𝐸⃗ (Electric Lorentz force)
ii) Force on a charge in a magnetic field, 𝐹⃗⃗⃗⃗𝐵 = 𝑞(𝑣 × 𝐵
⃗ ) (Magnetic Lorentz force).
iii) Lorentz force - The total force experienced by a charged particle moving in a region
where both electric and magnetic fields are present, is called Lorentz force.
𝐹 = 𝑞𝐸⃗ + 𝑞(𝑣 × ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵)
6. Shape of the path of the charged particle moving inside the field.
i) Charged particle entering perpendicular to the magnetic field moves in a circular path.
𝐶𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑝𝑒𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 = 𝑀𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝐿𝑜𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑧 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒
𝑚𝑣 2
= 𝑞𝑣𝐵
𝑟
𝑚𝑣
𝑅𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑡ℎ , 𝑟 =
𝑞𝐵
𝐵𝑞𝑟
𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒, 𝑣 =
𝑚
2𝜋𝑟 2𝜋𝑟 2𝜋𝑚 2𝜋𝑚
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑, 𝑇 = = = 𝑇=
𝑣 𝐵𝑞𝑟 𝐵𝑞 𝐵𝑞
𝑚
1 𝐵𝑞
𝐹𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 , 𝑓 = =
𝑇 2𝜋𝑚
65
ii) A charged particle is entering a magnetic field making an angle with it (inclined) will
move in helical path.
iii) A charged particle is entering perpendicular to an electric field moves in a parabolic
path.
2𝑚𝑣 2
Equation of the path is 𝑥 2 = ( )×𝑦 .
𝑞𝐸
7. Force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in an external magnetic field.
⃗)
𝐹 = (𝐼𝑙 × 𝐵
For finding the direction of this force Fleming’s Left Hand Rule can be used.
8. Force per unit length between two infinitely long straight parallel current carrying wires.
𝐹1 𝜇0 𝐼1 𝐼2
𝑓1 = =
𝑙 2𝜋𝑟
• If the currents are in the same direction, the force is attractive.
• If the currents are in the opposite direction, the force is repulsive.
9. Torque acting on a current carrying loop suspended in a uniform magnetic field.
𝜏 = 𝑁𝐼𝐴𝐵 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
𝜏=𝑚 ⃗
⃗⃗ × 𝐵
10 magnetic dipole moment
𝑚
⃗⃗ = 𝑁𝐼𝐴
11. Moving coil galvanometer
• 𝜏 = 𝑁𝐼𝐴𝐵 = 𝑘𝜙
• Figure of merit of a galvanometer
𝐼 𝑘
𝐺= =
𝜙 𝑁𝐴𝐵
• Current sensitivity.
𝜙 𝑁𝐴𝐵
𝐼𝑆 = =
𝐼 𝑘
• voltage sensitivity.
𝜙 𝜙 𝑁𝐴𝐵
𝑉𝑆 = = =
𝑉 𝐼𝑅 𝑘𝑅
𝐼𝑆
𝑉𝑆 =
𝑅
66
12. Conversion a galvanometer into an ammeter of given range.
• This can be done by connecting a low resistance in parallel (shunt S) with the
galvanometer.
𝐼𝑔 𝐺
• 𝑆 = (𝐼−𝐼
𝑔)
• Effective resistance of the converted ammeter (𝑅𝐴 )

𝐺𝑆
𝑅𝐴 =
𝐺+𝑆
13. Conversion a galvanometer into a voltmeter of given range
• This can be done by connecting a high resistance in series with the galvanometer.
𝑉
𝑅= −𝐺
𝐼𝑔
The effective resistance of the converted voltmeter is 𝑅𝑉 = 𝑅 + 𝐺
QUESTIONS
1 mark
1. What is the magnitude of the force experienced by a stationary charge in a uniform magnetic field?
2. A moving neutron enters a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly. What is the force on the neutron
due to the magnetic field?
3. An electron beam is moving vertically upwards. It passes through a magnetic field directed from south
to north in a horizontal plane. In which direction the beam will be deflected?
4. Does a current carrying coil produce a uniform magnetic field?
5. There are two identical galvanometers. One is converted into an ammeter and the other into a
milliammeter. Which of the shunts will be larger resistance?
6. A body is suspended from the lower end of a vertical spring. A direct current is passed through the
spring. What will happen?
7. A charge of 3C is moving with a velocity 𝑣 = (4𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂)𝑚𝑠 −1 in a magnetic field
⃗ = (4𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂)𝑇. What is the force acting on the charge?
𝐵
8. An 𝛼 particle and a 𝛽 particle are projected with the same velocity perpendicular to a magnetic field.
Which one will experience more force?
9. An electron travelling west to east enters a chamber having a uniform electrostatic field in a north to
south direction. Specify the direction in which a uniform magnetic field should be set up to prevent
the electron from its straight line path.
10. A solenoid 1.5cm long and 0.4cm in diameter possesses 10 turns per cm of length. A current of 5A
flows through it. Find the magnetic field at the axis inside the solenoid.
67
2 marks
11. An electric current passes through a long straight wire. At a distance 10 cm from the wire , the
magnetic field is 8T. Find the magnetic field at 80cm from the wire.
12. A current of 4A is passing through a long wire which has a semi-
circular loop of radius 10cm as shown in figure. Find the magnetic field
produced at the centre of the loop.
13. A closely wound helix made of stiff wire is mounted vertically with its lower end just
touching a dish of mercury, as shown in fig. When a current from a battery is started
in the coil through the mercury, the wire executes oscillatory motion with the lower
end jumping out of and into the mercury. Give reason.
14. In figure the straight wire AB is fixed while the loop PQRS is free to move
under the influence of the electric currents flowing in them. In which
direction does the loop begin to move? Give reason for your answer.
15. Why is the magnetic field radial in a moving coil galvanometer? Explain how it is achieved.
16. A straight wire of length ‘L’ carrying a current ‘I’ stays suspended horizontally in mid-air in a region
where there is a uniform magnetic field𝐵 ⃗ . The linear mass density of the wire is 𝜆. Obtain the
magnitude and direction of the magnetic field.
17. A galvanometer of resistance 25Ω is shunted by a 2.5Ω wire. Find the part of total current that flows
through the galvanometer .
18. The scale of a galvanometer of resistance 100Ω contains 25 divisions. It gives a deflection of one
division on passing a current of 4 × 10−4 𝐴. Find the resistance required to convert it into a
voltmeter of range 2.5𝑉.
19. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 10Ω and the metre shows full scale deflection for a current
of 1𝑚𝐴.Find the shunt resistance required to convert the galvanometer into an ammeter of range 0-
100mA.
20. Which one of the following will describe the smallest circle when projected with the same velocity 𝑣
perpendicular to the magnetic field 𝐵 : (i) 𝛼 particle, and (ii) 𝛽 particle?
3 Marks
21. A long wire with a small current element of 6mm is placed at the origin and carries a current of 2A
along the X-axis. Find the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field due the element on the Y
axis at a distance 0.2m from it.
22. A circular coil, having 100 turns of wire, of radius 20cm each, lies in the XY plane with its centre at
the origin of co-ordinates. Find the magnetic field, at the point (𝑜, 𝑜, 20√3 𝑐𝑚), when the coil
2
carries a current of (𝜋) 𝐴.
23. Two coaxial circular loops 𝐿1 and 𝐿2 of radii 3cm and 4cm are placed as
shown. What should be the magnitude and direction of the current in
the loop 𝐿2 so that the net magnetic field at the point O be zero?
68
24. The wire shown in figure carries a current of 10A. Determine the magnitude of the
magnetic field at the centre O. Given the radius of the bent coil is 3cm.
25. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at a certain place is 5× 10−5 𝑇 and the
direction of the field from the geographic south to north. A very long straight conductor is carrying a
steady current of 2A. What is the force per unit length on it when it is placed on a horizontal table
and the direction of the current is (a) east to west (b) south to north?
26. What is the magnitude of the force on a wire of length 0.05m paced inside a solenoid near its centre,
making an angle of 30𝑜 with its axis? The wire carries a current of 8A and the magnetic field due to
the solenoid is of magnitude 0.50T.
27.
A rectangular loop of wire of size 2𝑐𝑚 × 5𝑐𝑚 carries a steady current of 1A. A straight
long wire carrying 4A current is kept near the loop as shown in figure. If the loop and the
wire are coplanar, find (i) the torque acting on the loop and (ii) the magnitude and
direction of the force on the loop due to the current carrying wire.
28. A moving coil galvanometer has the following particulars: Number of turns, 𝑁 = 24; Area of the coil,
𝐴 = 20 × 10−3 𝑚2; magnetic field strength, 𝐵 = 0.20𝑇 ; Resistance of the coil, 𝑅 = 14Ω.
(i) Indicate a simple way to increase the current sensitivity of the meter by 25%. (It is not east
to change A or B).
(ii) If in doing so, the resistance of the coil increases to 21Ω , is the voltage sensitivity of the
modified meter greater or less than the original meter?
29. To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer by 50%, its resistance is increased
so that the new resistance becomes twice its initial resistance. By what factor does its voltage
sensitivity change?
30. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter of certain range by connecting a resistance of
980Ω in series with it. When the resistance is 470Ω connected in series, the range is halved. Find the
resistance of the galvanometer.
5 marks
31. a) State Biot – Savart law. Using this law, find expression for the magnetic field at a point on the
axis of a circular current carrying coil.
b) From the above result obtain an equation for magnetic field at the centre of the coil.
c) Schematically represent the direction of the magnetic field lines through a coil carrying
current. Also mention the law used to find the direction.
32. a) Using Ampere’s circuital law obtain an equation for magnetic field due to straight current
carrying conductor.
b) Derive an equation for magnetic field well inside a solenoid using the above law.
33. a) Show that the path of a charged particle moving inside a uniform electric field with initial
velocity perpendicular to the field is parabolic.
b) An 𝛼 particle is describing a circle of radius 0.45m in a magnetic field of strength 1.2T. Find
its speed and frequency. (Use the known values of mass and charge of 𝛼 particle).
34. a) Describe the principle, construction and working of a moving coil galvanometer.
b) ‘Increasing the current sensitivity may not necessarily increase the voltage sensitivity.’ Justify
the statement.
69
35. a) Derive an expression for torque acting on a rectangular current carrying loop placed in a
uniform magnetic field.
b) What is magnetic dipole moment? Write its SI unit and dimensions.
36. a) How can a galvanometer be converted into a voltmeter of required range?
b) How can a galvanometer be converted into an ammeter of required range?
37. a) Obtain an equation for current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer.
b) Obtain an equation for voltage sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer.
c) Write any 3 methods to improve the sensitivity of a galvanometer.
38. a) Find an expression for force per unit length between two parallel current carrying conductors.
b) Define ampere using the above expression.
39. a) Write an equation for force acting on a moving charge inside a uniform magnetic field.
b) Using the concept derive an equation for force acting on a current carrying conductor kept
inside a magnetic field.
40. Show that a current carrying loop behaves as a magnetic dipole. Hence write an expression for its
magnetic dipole moment.
MCQ
41. A straight wire carrying a current of 12A is bent into a
semicircular arc of radius 2cm as shown in fig. The
magnitude of magnetic field at the center O of the arc is
𝑎) 1.89 × 10−4 𝑇 𝑏) 1.72 × 10−3 𝑇 𝑐) 4.25 × 10−6 𝑇 𝑑) 2.1 × 10−5 𝑇

42. A and B are two concentric coils of centre O and carry currents 𝐼1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐼2 as shown in
fig. If the ratio of their radii is 1:2 and ratio of the flux densities at O due to A and B is
𝐼1
1:3, then value of is
𝐼2
𝑎) 1 /4 𝑏) 1 /3 𝑐)1 /6 𝑑)1 /2
43. A current carrying coil is subjected to a uniform magnetic field. The coil will orient so
that its plane becomes
a) Inclined at 45𝑜 to the magnetic field.
b) Inclined at 30𝑜 to the magnetic field.
c) Parallel to the magnetic field.
d) Perpendicular to the magnetic field.
44. To make the magnetic field radial in a moving coil galvanometer
a) Poles are cylindrically cut.
b) The number of turns in the coil is increased.
c) Coil is wound on aluminium frame.
d) Phosphor bronze spring is used.
45. A neutron, a proton, an 𝛼 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒 and an electron enter a
region of constant magnetic field with equal velocities. The
magnetic field is along the inward normal to the plane of
the paper. The tracks of the particles are labelled in figure.
The electron follows track…. and the alpha particle follows
track….
𝑎) 𝐴, 𝐶 𝑏) 𝐶, 𝐴 𝑐) 𝐵, 𝐷 𝑑) 𝐷, 𝐵
70
46. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter of given range, a _____ resistance is
connected in ____ with the galvanometer.
𝑎) 𝑙𝑜𝑤, 𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑒𝑠 𝑏) 𝑙𝑜𝑤, 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙 𝑐) ℎ𝑖𝑔ℎ , 𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑒𝑠 𝑑) ℎ𝑖𝑔ℎ , 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙
47. A certain electric motor wire that carries a current of 4A is perpendicular to a
magnetic field of 0.8T. What is the force on each cm of the wire?
𝑎) 0.08𝑁 𝑏) 0.06𝑁 𝑐) 0.03𝑁 𝑑) 0.01𝑁
48. Two parallel wires of 9m each are separated by a distance of 0.15m. If they carry
equal currents in the same direction and exert a total force of 30 × 10−7 𝑁 on each
other, then the value of current must be
𝑎) 2.5𝐴 𝑏) 3.5𝐴 𝑐) 1.5𝐴 𝑑) 0.5𝐴
49. In a certain region of space, the electric field 𝐸⃗ and magnetic field 𝐵
⃗ are
perpendicular to each other. An electron enters perpendicularly to both the fields
and moves undeflected. The velocity of the electron is
𝑎) (𝐸 )/𝐵 𝑏) (𝐵 )/𝐸 𝑐) 𝐸⃗ × 𝐵
⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗ . 𝐵
𝑑) 𝐸 ⃗
50. An electron is moving in a region of electric field and magnetic field, it will gain
energy from,
𝑎) 𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑 𝑏) 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑 𝑐) 𝑏𝑜𝑡ℎ 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑𝑠 𝑑) 𝑛𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑠𝑒
CBQ
51 Velocity selector is an arrangement used to select charged particles of a specific velocity from a
. beam in which particles move with different speeds. It consists of a region of crossed electric and
magnetic fields. These two fields are perpendicular to each other. In the figure, the electric field is
upwards. Magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the paper and coming outward.
The positively charged particle is deflected upwards (towards the negative plate) with a force,
𝐹𝐸 = 𝑞𝐸
This particle is deflected downwards with
a force
𝐹𝐵 = 𝑞𝑣𝐵
When these two forces are equal the particle is not
deflected in any direction.
𝑞𝑣𝐵 = 𝑞𝐸
𝐸
𝑣=
𝐵
Hence particles with velocity ‘v ’ only will be coming out through the straight path. Velocity
selector is used in accelerator mass spectroscopy to select particles of a particular velocity
Answer the following questions.
1. The magnetic field employed in a velocity selector is 25T and the electric field is 200N/C.
This can select particles of velocity
𝑎) 10𝑚/𝑠
𝑏) 3𝑚/𝑠
𝑐) 8𝑚/𝑠
𝑑) 80𝑚/𝑠
2. Instead of a positive charge let an electron enter into the same arrangement as shown in
figure. The electrons will be deflected by the electric field and magnetic field respectively in
directions:
71
𝑎) 𝑢𝑝𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑, 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑
𝑏) 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑, 𝑢𝑝𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑
𝑐) 𝑢𝑝𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑, 𝑢𝑝𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑
𝑑) 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑, 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑
3. Let the magnetic field direction is reversed in the above arrangement. Magnetic field is
directed into the plane of the paper. Then the positive charge will be
𝑎) 𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑢𝑝𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑𝑠
𝑏) 𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑𝑠
𝑐) 𝑢𝑛 𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑
𝑑) 𝑚𝑜𝑣𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑎 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑝𝑎𝑡ℎ
4. You are requested to select only particles with velocity 10m/s in the selector. The magnetic
field provided is 25T. What should be the surface charge density given to the parallel sheets
to produce the required electric field.
𝑎) 3.5 × 10−9 𝐶𝑚−2
𝑏) 4.4 × 10−9 𝐶𝑚−2
𝑐) 6.9 × 10−9 𝐶𝑚−2
𝑑) 2.2 × 10−9 𝐶𝑚−2
52 A uniform magnetic field 3000G is established along the positive Z direction. A rectangular loop of
. sides 10cm and 5cm carries a current of 12A.
1. The
magnitude of the
magnetic dipole
moment is
𝑎) 0.06𝐴𝑚2
𝑏) 0.09𝐴𝑚2
𝑐) 6.06𝐴𝑚2
𝑑) 2.86𝐴𝑚2
2. The torque acting on loop in figure (a) is
𝑎) − 1.8 × 10−2 𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
𝑏) 1.8 × 10−2 𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
𝑐) − 1.8 × 10−2 𝑘̂𝑁𝑚
𝑑. 1.8 × 10−2 𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
3. The torque acting on loop in figure (b) is
𝑎) − 1.8 × 10−2 𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
𝑏) 1.8 × 10−2 𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
𝑐) − 1.8 × 10−2 𝑘̂𝑁𝑚
𝑑. 𝑁𝑜 𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑞𝑢𝑒
4. The torque acting on loop in figure (e) is
𝑎) − 1.8 × 10−2 𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
𝑏) 𝑁𝑜 𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑞𝑢𝑒
𝑐) − 3.6 × 10−2 𝑘̂𝑁𝑚
𝑑. 1.8 × 10−2 𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
72
53
. When a conductor carrying a current is placed in an
external magnetic field, it experiences a mechanical force.
A current is an assembly of moving charges and a magnetic
field exerts a force on a moving charge. That is why a
current carrying conductor when placed in a magnetic field
experiences a sideways force as the force experienced by
the moving electrons is transmitted to the conductor as a whole. A conductor of length ′𝑙 ′ carrying
⃗ at an angle 𝜃 with it, experiences a force given by
a current ′𝐼 ′ held in a magnetic field 𝐵
𝐹 = 𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
In vector form,⃗⃗⃗𝐹 = 𝐼(𝑙 × 𝐵⃗)
The direction of ⃗⃗⃗𝐹 is perpendicular to both𝑙 &𝐵
⃗ and is given by Fleming’s left -hand rule. A
conducting bar with mass ′𝑚′ and length ′𝑙 ′ slides over horizontal rails that are connected to
voltage source ′𝑉 ′ .the source maintains a constant current ′𝐼 ′ in the rails and bar, and a uniform
⃗ acts in the region between the rails vertically upwards.
magnetic field 𝐵
Answer the following questions.
1. Ignoring friction, air resistance and electrical resistances, the magnitude and direction of the
net force on the conducting bar is
𝑎) 𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
𝑏) 𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑒𝑓𝑡
𝑐) 2𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
𝑑) 2𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑒𝑓𝑡
2. If the bar has mass ‘𝑚’, find the distance ‘𝑑’ that the bar must move along the rails from rest
to attain speed ‘𝑣’.
3𝑣 2 𝑚 5𝑣 2 𝑚 𝑣2𝑚 𝑣2𝑚
𝑎) 𝑏) 𝑐) 𝑑)
2𝐼𝑙𝐵 2𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝐼𝑙𝐵 2𝐼𝑙𝐵
3. A force acting on a conductor of length 5m carrying a current of 8A kept perpendicular to the

magnetic field of 1.5T is
𝑎) 100𝑁 𝑏) 60𝑁 𝑐) 50𝑁 𝑑) 75𝑁
4. A straight wire of mass 200g and length 1.5m carries a current of 2A. It is suspended in mid -
air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field B. The magnitude of B in tesla is
𝑎) 2 𝑏) 1.5 𝑐) 0.55 𝑑) 0.65
ANSWERS/HINTS
1. Zero ( Reason ,v=0 )
2. Zero ( reason q=0)
3. South ( Hint , Fleming’s left hand rule)
4. No, however at the centre of the coil, the magnetic field is nearly uniform.
5. Milli ammeter.(Reason: It need to measure only less current and hence its resistance can be
higher.)
73
6. The body will be lifted upwards.
(Reason: The direction of current through each turn of the coil is same. Parallel currents in the
same direction attract each other. Hence the coils contract.)
7. 𝐹𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒, 𝐹 = 𝑞(𝑣 × 𝐵 ⃗)=0
Cross product of two equal vectors is zero.
8. 𝐹 = 𝑞(𝑣 × 𝐵 ⃗)
𝐹 ∞𝑞
𝛼 particle has more charge than 𝛽particle. Hence 𝛼 particle will experience more force.
9. Magnetic field must act in vertically down ward direction.
(Hint: Apply Fleming’s left hand rule)
10. 2𝜋 × 10−3 𝑇
1
11. 1𝑇 (𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡 ∶ 𝐵 ∝ 𝑟 )
12. 𝜇𝑜 𝐼
4𝜋 × 10−6 𝑇 (𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: 𝐵 = )
4𝑅
13. • The windings of the helix carry currents in the same direction.
• They exert attractive forces pulling the lower end out of the mercury.
• Hence circuit breaks and the current and force disappears.
• The helix then regain its original condition.
• Then the lower end again dips in mercury.
• Then current starts and the process repeats.
14. • The currents in QR and PS have no effect on AB.
• There is a force of attraction between AB and PQ.
• There is repulsion between AB and RS.
• But PQ is closer to AB. Hence attraction is stronger.
• Hence the loop begins to move towards AB.
15. (Find from text book)
16. 𝐷𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 − 𝐻𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑧𝑜𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒.
𝜆𝑔
𝐵=
𝐼
17. 𝐼𝑔 1
=
𝐼 11
18. 150Ω
19. (0.1Ω)
𝑚
20. ( 𝛽 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒. 𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: 𝑟 ∞ 𝑞 )
21. 𝐵 = 3 × 10−8 𝑇
Direction – Perpendicular to the plane of the paper outwards.
𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡 ∶ 𝐵𝑖𝑜𝑡 − 𝑆𝑎𝑣𝑎𝑟𝑡 𝑙𝑎𝑤 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
22. 𝐵 = 25𝜇𝑇
23. 𝜇𝑜 𝐼𝑎2
𝐼2 = 0.56𝐴, 𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: 𝐵 = 3
2(𝑎2 + 𝑥 2 )2
24. 3 𝜇𝑜 𝐼
𝐵 = 1.57 × 10−3 𝑇, 𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡 𝐵 = ×
4 2𝑅
74
25. 𝐹
(𝑎), 𝑓 = 10−4 𝑁𝑚−1 , (𝑏)𝑧𝑒𝑟𝑜. 𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: 𝑓 = = 𝐼𝐵 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
𝑙
26. 𝐹 = 0.1𝑁, 𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: 𝐹 = 𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
27. (𝑖)𝜏 = 0, (𝑖𝑖)𝐹 = 2.67𝜇𝑁, 𝑡𝑜𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒
28. (𝑖)𝑁 𝑠ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑑 𝑏𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑒𝑑 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 24 𝑡𝑜 30. 𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: 𝐼𝑠 ∞𝑁
(𝑖𝑖)𝑀𝑜𝑑𝑖𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑑 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 ℎ𝑎𝑠 𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑦
𝑁
𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: 𝑉𝑠 ∞
𝑅
,
29. 𝑉𝑠 = 0.75𝑉𝑠 ; 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑑𝑒𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑒𝑠 𝑏𝑦 25%.
30. 𝐺 = 40Ω
𝑉 𝑉
𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: =
980 + 𝐺 2(470 + 𝐺)
41. 𝑎) 1.89 × 10−4 𝑇

42. 𝑐)1 /6
43. d) Perpendicular to the magnetic field.
44. a) Poles are cylindrically cut
45. 𝑑) 𝐷, 𝐵
46 𝑏) 𝑙𝑜𝑤, 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙
47. 𝑐) 0.03𝑁
48 𝑑) 0.5𝐴
49 𝑎) (𝐸 )/𝐵
50 𝑏) 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑
51. 1. 𝑐) 8𝑚/𝑠
2. 𝑏) 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑, 𝑢𝑝𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑
3. 𝑎) 𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑢𝑝𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑𝑠
4. 𝑑) 2.2 × 10−9 𝐶𝑚−2
52. 1. 𝑎) 0.06𝐴𝑚2
2. 𝑎) − 1.8 × 10−2 𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
3. 𝑎) − 1.8 × 10−2 𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
4. 𝑏) 𝑁𝑜 𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑞𝑢𝑒
53. 1. 𝑎) 𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
𝑣 2𝑚
2. 𝑑)
2𝐼𝑙𝐵
3. 𝑏) 60𝑁
4. 𝑑) 0.65
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GIST OF CHAPTER
The end of a magnet which points toward the geographic north pole of the Earth is called the north pole
(denoted by N), and the opposite end is called the south pole (denoted by S).
Materials that are attracted by both types of magnetic poles are called magnetic materials. For example,
iron, nickel, cobalt, and certain alloys such as steel (but not stainless steel) are magnetic materials. The
hypothetical lines which tells us about the strength of magnetic field in a particular region, such as near a
bar magnet, are called magnetic field lines.
Properties of magnetic lines of force:
(a) Magnetic lines of force form closed continuous curves
(b) Outside the body of the magnet, their direction is from north pole to south pole
(c) The tangent to these lines at any point gives the direction of the magnetic field at that point
(d) No two lines can intersect each other
(e) The lines of force contract longitudinally and dilate laterally
(f) Crowding of magnetic lines of force represents stronger magnetic field and vice versa.
Potential energy of the bar magnet is U = -MB ⋅
where, M is magnetic moment and B is the strength of the magnetic field.
The potential energy of a bar magnet will be minimum when θ = 0˚ and minimum value is
Umin = –mB, which corresponds to the most stable position of the bar magnet in a uniform magnetic
field.
Potential energy will be maximum when θ = 180˚ and maximum value is Umax = mB, which corresponds
to the most unstable position of the bar magnet in uniform magnetic field.
The number of magnetic field lines that passes normally through a surface is called magnetic flux.
Gauss’s law in magnetism: Gauss’s law for magnetic field is a formal way of saying that magnetic
monopoles do not exist. The law asserts that the net magnetic flux ∅ through any closed Gaussian
surface is zero:
∅ = ∫ B.ds = 0
The net magnetic moment per unit volume of a material is known as the Intensity of Magnetisation I
of the material. Magnetisation I is a vector quantity and its SI unit is A/m. Mathematically, it is
expressed as I = M/V
Magnetic induction B is defined as the number of magnetic lines of force crossing a unit area
normally through the magnetic material.
Magnetic intensity H is equal to the degree to which a material can be magnetized by a magnetic field.
Magnetic susceptibility χ of a material is defined as the ratio of the intensity of
magnetisation (I) and the strength of magnetising field (H).

Magnetic permeability of a material is defined as the ratio of the magnetic induction of the material to the
strength of magnetizing field. It is given by µ.
If µ0 is the absolute permeability of free space, then the relative permeability of a medium is given by
77
µ
µ= µ0
Diamagnetic substances are those substances which when placed in a magnetic field are feebly
magnetised in a direction opposite to that of the applied magnetising field.
Paramagnetic substances are those substances, which when placed in a magnetic field are feebly
magnetised in the direction of the applied magnetising field.
Ferromagnetic substances are those substances, which when placed in a magnetic field are strongly
magnetised in the direction of the applied magnetising field.
Diamagnetism is fundamental to all the magnetic substances.
Curie’s law states that the magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance varies inversely
with its absolute temperature. Mathematically it is expressed as
1
χ∝
T
Curie temperature is the temperature for a ferromagnetic substance above which it behaves as a
paramagnetic substance
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
1) Assertion: If a compass needle be kept at magnetic north pole of the earth the compass needle may
stay in any direction.
Reason: Dip needle will stay vertical at the north pole of earth
2) Assertion: Diamagnetic materials can exhibit magnetism.

Reason: Diamagnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moment.
3) Assertion: Electromagnets are made of soft iron.

Reason: Coercivity of soft iron is small.
4) Assertion: A paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation (for the same magnetic field) when
cooled.
Reason: The magnetisation does not depend on temperature.
5) Assertion: The poles of magnet cannot be separated by breaking into two pieces. Reason: The
magnetic moment will be reduced to half when a magnet is broken into two equal pieces.
6) Assertion : The earth’s magnetic field does not affect the working of a moving coil galvanometer.
Reason : Earth’s magnetic field is very weak.
78
ASSERTION REASONING –ANSWER KEY
1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (d)
5. (b)
6. (a)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 mark)

1. Two wires of same length are shaped into a square and a circle if they carry same current,
ratio of magnetic moment is:
(a) 2 : π
(b) π: 2
(c) π : 4
(d) 4 : π
2. If a diamagnetic material is placed in a magnetic field, the magnetic field inside

the material compared to that outside will be
(a) slightly less
(b) slightly more
(c) very high
(d) same
3. The value of the magnetic susceptibility for a super-conductors is:-

(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) -1
(d) +1
4. A stationary magnet does not interact with:-

(a) iron rod
(b) moving charge
(c) magnet
(d) stationary charge
5. A ferromagnetic material is heated above its Curie temperature. Which one is a correct statement?
(a) Ferromagnetic domains are perfectly arranged
(b) Ferromagnetic domains become random
(c) Ferromagnetic domains are not influenced
(d) Ferromagnetic material changes into diamagnetic material
6. The domain formation is a necessary feature of

(a) diamagnetism
(b) Paramagnetism
(c) ferromagnetism
(d) all of these
79
7. A bar magnet is cut into two equal halves by a plane parallel to the magnetic axis. Of the following
physical quantities, the one which remains unchanged is
(a) pole strength
(b) magnetic moment
(c) intensity of magnetisation
(d) None of these
8. Curie temperature is the temperature above which

(a) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagenetic
(b) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
(c) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
(d) a paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic
9. The susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material is χ at 27°C. At what temperature will its

susceptibility be 0.5 χ ?
(a) 54°C
(b) 327°C
(c) 600°C
(d) 237°C
10. Relative permittivity and permeability of a material are εr and μr, respectively. Which of the
following values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material ?
(a) εr=1.5, µr=0.5
(b) εr=0.5, µr=0.5
(c) εr=1.5, µr=1.5
(d) εr=0.5, µr=1.5
11. Consider the given statements with respect to the figure showing a bar of diamagnetic material
placed in an external magnetic field.
I. The field lines are repelled or expelled and the field inside the material is reduced
II. When placed in a non–uniform magnetic field, the bar will tend to move from high to low field.
III. Reduction in the field inside the material is slight, being one part in 105.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III
12. If a magnetic dipole of moment M situated in the direction of a magnetic field B is rotated by 180°,
then the amount of work done is
(a) MB
(b) 2MB (c)MB/√2
(d) √MB
13. A curve between magnetic moment and temperature of a magnet is
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14. The relative permeability of a medium is 0.075. What is its
magnetic susceptibility? (a)
0.925
(b) – 0.925
(c) 1.075
(d) -1.075
15. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near north or south pole of a bar magnet, it is
(a) attracted by poles
(b) repelled by poles
(c) repelled by north pole and attracted by south pole
(d) repelled by south pole and attracted by north pole
CBQ QUESTIONS
1. In small fields, ferromagnetic materials typically have much larger susceptibility, and therefore
larger permeability than paramagnetic materials. Ferromagnetism results because of spontaneous,
self-aligning, cooperative interaction among relatively large number of iron atoms in regions called
domains. As a result of molecular interactions the molecular magnetic moments in each domain are
aligned parallel to one another. In other words, each domain is spontaneously magnetised to
saturation even in the absence of any external magnetic field. The directions of magnetisation in
different domains are random, so that the resultant magnetisation is zero and the specimen is un-
magnetised.
(i) What changes will occur in specimen on placing it inside a solenoid and increasing
H (magnetising intensity)?
(a) Intensity of magnetisation decreases
(b) Intensity of magnetisation increases
(c) Magnetic susceptibility of specimen increases
(d) Magnetic susceptibility of specimen decreases
Answer to MCQs
1. Answer (c)
2. Answer (a)
3. Answer (d)
4. Answer (d)
5. Answer (b)
6. Answer( c)
7. Answer( c)
8. Answer (a)
81
9. Answer (b)
χ1/χ2=T2/T1
χ/0.5χ=T/300
T = 600K= 327°c
10. Answer (a) εr>1, µr<1
11. Answer (d)

12. Answer (b)
Work done in rotating the magnetic dipole from position
𝜃1= 0° to𝜃2= 180°
W = MB (cos𝜃1– cos𝜃2)
W = MB (cos0 – cos 180°) = 2MB
13. Answer (c) Magnetism of a magnet falls with rise of temperature and becomes practically zero above
curie temperature
14. Answer (b) χ=µr-1= 0.075-1= -0.925
15. Answer (b)
Answers to CBQs
1. (i) b
(ii) a
(iii) a
(iv) d
2. (i) c
(ii) a
(iii) d
(iv) c
3. (i) a
(ii) a
(iii) b
(iv) c
4. (i) d
(ii) d
(iii) b
(iv) a
5. (i)In either case, one gets two magnets, each with a north and south pole.
(ii) No force if the field is uniform. The iron nail experiences a non-uniform field due to the bar magnet. There
is induced magnetic moment in the nail, therefore, it experiences both force and torque. The net force is
attractive because the induced south pole (say) in the nail is closer to the north pole of magnet than induced
north pole.
(iii) Not necessarily. True only if the source of the field has a net non-zero magnetic moment.
(iv) Try to bring different ends of the bars closer. A repulsive force in some situation establishes that both are
magnetised. If it is always attractive, then one of them is not magnetised. In a bar magnet the intensity of the
magnetic field is the strongest at the two ends (poles) and weakest at the central region. This fact may be used
to determine whether A or B is the magnet. In this case, to see which one of the two bars is a magnet, pick up
one, (say, A) and lower one of its ends; first on one of the ends of the other (say, B), and then on the middle
of B. If you notice that in the middle of B, A experiences no force, then B is magnetised. If you do not notice
any change from the end to the middle of B, then A is magnetised.
82
Answers to LAQs
1. Torque=MxB (derivation) PE = -M.B
2. (a)Magnetic moment M= τ/Bsinθ = 0.032/0.16*sin 30 = 0.40J/T

(b)In stable equilibrium potential energy is minimum or θ=0. So the bar will be in stable
equilibrium when magnetic moment M is parallel to B.
It will be in unstable equilibrium when M is antiparallel to B or θ=180°. (c)PE
in stable equilibrium is minimum=-MB= -0.4*0.16 = -0.064J
PE in unstable equilibrium is maximum=+MB= 0.4*0.16 = +0.064J
3.
diamagnetic paramagnetic ferromagnetic

susceptibilit Small and -ve Small and +ve Very large and +ve
y
permiability µ<µ0 µ>µ0 µ>>µ0
Field lines
( c)The magnetisation increases as temperature decreases because the tendency to disrupt the
alignment of dipoles (with the magnetising field) arising from random thermal motion is reduced at
lower temperature.
(ii) With an increase in temperature, magnetic susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains constant
(d) First increases and then decreases
(iii) For a diamagnetic material, which of the following option is correct?
(a) Magnetic susceptibility < 0
(b) Magnetic susceptibility > 0
(c) Magnetic susceptibility = 0
(d) Magnetic susceptibility = 1
(iv) The property possessed by a ferromagnetic substance only is
(a) Hysteresis
(b) Susceptibility
(c) Directional property
(d) Strong attraction of magnetic substance
2. By analogy to Gauss’s law of electrostatics, we can write Gauss’s law of magnetism as ∫ B. dS = 0.
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We do not have an isolated magnetic pole in nature. At least none has been found to exist till date. The
smallest unit of source of magnetic field is a magnetic dipole where the net magnetic pole is zero.
Hence, the net magnetic pole enclosed by any closed surface is always zero. Correspondingly, the flux
of the magnetic field through any close surface is zero.
Consider the two idealised systems:

(i) (I) A parallel plate capacitor with large plates and small separation and
(II) A long solenoid of length L>>R the radius of cross section.
In case (I) 𝐸̅ is ideally treated as a constant between the plates and zero outside. In (II) magnetic
field B is constant inside the solenoid and zero outside. These idealised assumptions, however,
contradict fundamental laws as
(a) Case (I) agrees with ∫ 𝐸. 𝑑𝑙 = 0
(b) Case (II) contradicts ∫ 𝐵. 𝑑𝑙 = I
(c) Case (II) contradicts Gauss’s law for magnetic fields
(d) Case (I) contradicts Gauss’s law for electrostatic fields.
(ii) Net magnetic flux through any closed surface kept in a magnetic field is
(a) Zero (b) µ0/2𝜋
(c) 2𝜋𝜇0 (d) 4 𝜇0/𝜋
(iii) A closed surface S encloses a magnetic dipole of magnetic moment 2ml. The magnetic
flux emerging from the surface
(a) µ0 m
(b) 2 µ0 m
(c) 2m/ µ0
(d) Zero
(iv) The surface integral of a magnetic field over a surface is
(a) Proportional to mass enclosed
(b) Proportional to charge enclosed
(c) Zero
(d) Equal to its magnetic flux through that surface
3. Before the 19th century, scientists believed that magnetic properties were confined to a few materials
like iron, cobalt and nickel. But in 1846, Curie and Faraday discovered that all the materials in the universe
are magnetic to some extent. These magnetic substances are categorised in two groups. Weak magnetic
materials are called diamagnetic and para magnetic materials. Strong magnetic materials are called
ferromagnetic materials. According to the modern theory of magnetism, the magnetic response of any
material is due to circulating electrons in the atoms. Each such electron has a magnetic moment in a direction
perpendicular to the plane of circulation. In magnetic materials all these magnetic moments due to the orbit
and spin motion of all the electrons in any atom vectorially add up to a resultant magnetic moment. The
magnitude and direction of these resultant magnetic moment is responsible for the behaviour of the materials.
For diamagnetic materials χ is small and negative and for paramagnetic materials χ is small and positive.
Ferromagnetic materials have a large χ and are characterised by non–linear relation between 𝐵̅ and 𝐻
̅.
(i) The universal (or inherent) property among all substance is

(a) Diamagnetism (c) Ferromagnetism
(b) Para magnetism (d) Both (a) and (b)
84
(ii) When a bar is placed near a strong magnetic field and it is repelled, then the material of
the bar is
(a) Diamagnetic (c) Paramagnetic
(b) Ferromagnetic (d) Anti-ferromagnetic
(iii) Magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance
(a) Decreases with temperature (d) First increases then decreases
(b) Is not affected by temperature with temperature
(c) Increases with temperature
(iv) For a para magnetic material, the dependence of the magnetic susceptibility χ on the
absolute temperature is given as
(a) χ ∝ T (c) χ ∝ 1/T
(b) χ ∝ 1/T2 (d) independent
4. There exists a perfect diamagnet, namely, a superconductor. This is a metal at very low
temperatures. In this case χ = –1, µr = 0, µ= 0. The external magnetic field is totally expelled.
Interestingly, this material is also a perfect conductor. However, there exists no classical theory
which ties these two properties together. A quantum- mechanical theory by Bardeen, Cooper, and
Schrieffer (BCS theory) explains these effects. The BCS theory was proposed in1957 and was
eventually recognised by a Nobel Prize in physics in 1970.
1. The value of magnetic susceptibility for a superconductor is
(a) Zero (c) +1

(b) Infinity (d) -1
2. Superconductors are
(a) Insulators (c) Conductors
(b) Semiconductors (d) Perfect conductors
3. Resistance of a superconductor is
(a) Infinite (c) Maximum
(b) Zero (d) Minimum
4. Which of the following is a property of superconductors?

(a) Meissner Effect (c) Photoelectric effect
(b) Hall Effect (d) Doppler effect
5. A magnet is a material or object that produces a magnetic field. This magnetic field is invisible but
is responsible for the most notable property of a magnet: a force that pulls on other ferromagnetic
materials, such as iron, steel, nickel, cobalt, etc. and attracts or repels other magnets. A permanent
magnet is an object made from a material that is magnetized and creates its own persistent
magnetic field. An everyday example is a refrigerator magnet used to hold notes on a refrigerator
door. Materials that can be magnetized, which are also the ones that are strongly attracted to a
magnet, are called ferromagnetic (or ferrimagnetic). The resemblance of magnetic
85
field lines for a bar magnet and a solenoid suggest that a bar magnet may be thought of as a arge
number of circulating currents in analogy with a solenoid. Cutting a bar magnet in half is like
cutting a solenoid. We get two smaller solenoids with weaker magnetic properties. The field lines
remain continuous, emerging from one face of the solenoid and entering into the other face. One
can test this analogy by moving a small compass needle in the neighbourhood of a bar magnet
and a current-carrying finite solenoid and noting that the deflections of the needle are similar in
both cases.
The arrangement of iron filings surrounding a

bar magnet. The pattern mimics magnetic field lines.
The pattern suggests that the bar magnet
is a magnetic dipole.
(a) What happens if a bar magnet is cut into two pieces: (i) transverse to its length, (ii) along its
length?
(b) A magnetised needle in a uniform magnetic field experiences a torque but no net force. An
iron nail near a bar magnet, however, experiences a force of attraction in addition to a torque.
Why?
(c) Must every magnetic configuration have a north pole and a south pole?
(d) Two identical looking iron bars A and B are given, one of which is definitely known to be
magnetised. (We do not know which one.) How would one ascertain whether or not both are
magnetised? If only one is magnetised, how does one ascertain which one? [Use nothing else but the
bars A and B.]
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS(5MARKS)
1. Derive an expression for the torque experienced by a magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic
field. Hence obtain the expression for potential energy of the dipole.
2. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with a uniform external magnetic field of
0.16 T experience a torque of magnitude 0.032 J. (a) estimate the magnetic moment of the magnet.
(b) If the bar were free to rotate, which orientation would correspond to its
(i) stable (ii) unstable equilibrium? (c) What is its potential energy in the field for (i) stable (ii)
unstable equilibrium?
3. (a)Distinguish the magnetic properties of dia, para and ferromagnetic substances in terms of (i)
susceptibility (ii) permeability. Give one example of each of these materials.
(b) Draw the field lines due to an external magnetic field near a (i) diamagnetic (ii) ferromagnetic
substance
(c)Why does the magnetisation of a paramagnetic material decrease on cooling?
86
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
87
Magnetic Flux (Φ): Magnetic Flux through any surface is the number of magnetic lines of force passing
normally through that surface.
It can also be defined as the product of the area of the surface and the component of the magnetic field
normal to that surface.
dΦ = B. ds = B d s n Flux is maximum when θ = 0° and Φ = BA
Φ = B. A = B A 𝒏 or Φ = B A cos θ
Positive Flux: Magnetic Flux is positive

for 0° ≤ θ < 90° & 270°< θ ≤ 360°
Negative Flux: Magnetic Flux is negative
for 90°< θ < 270
Magnetic Flux is zero for θ = 90° & θ =

270°
Magnetic Flux across a coil can be changed by varying:

1) the strength of the magnetic field B
2) the area of the cross-section of the coil A
3) the orientation of the coil with magnetic field θ or
4) any of the combination of the above
Magnetic flux is a scalar quantity.

* SI unit of magnetic flux is weber or tesla-metre2 or ( wb or Tm2).
* cgs unit of magnetic flux is maxwell.
* 1maxwell = 10-8webber
Faraday’s Experiment - 1:
If the North-pole of a bar magnet is pushed towards the coil, the pointer in the galvanometer deflects,
indicating the presence of electric current in the coil. This deflection lasts as long as the bar magnet
remains in motion.
The galvanometer doesn’t show any deflection when the magnet is held at rest.
When the magnet is pulled away from the coil, the galvanometer shows deflection in the opposite
direction, which indicates a reversal of the current’s direction.
This shows that the relative motion between the magnet and the coil is responsible for generating
(induction) electric current in the coil.
88
If the bar magnet is replaced by a second coil C2 (as shown in the figure given above) connected to a
battery. The steady current in coil C2 produces a steady magnetic field.
If coil C2 is moved towards coil C1, then the galvanometer shows a deflection. This indicates that
electric current is induced in coil C1.
When C2 is moved away, the galvanometer shows a deflection again, but this time in the opposite
direction. The deflection will be observed as long as coil C2 is in motion.
When the coil C2 is held fixed and C1 is moved, the same effects are observed. Again, it is the relative
motion between the coils that induces the electric current.
The galvanometer shows a momentary deflection when the tapping key K is pressed. The pointer in
the galvanometer returns to zero immediately. If the key is held and pressed continuously, there is no
deflection in the galvanometer.
When the key is released, a momentary deflection is observed again, but in the opposite direction. It is
also observed that the deflection increases when an iron rod is inserted into the coils along their axis
Faraday’s Laws of Electromagnetic Induction:
I Law: Whenever there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with a circuit, an emf and hence a
current is induced in the circuit. However, it lasts only so long as the magnetic flux is changing.
II Law: The magnitude of the induced emf is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic
flux linked with a circuit.
E α d Φ / dt
E = k d Φ / dt (where k is a constant and units are chosen such that k = 1)
E = d Φ / dt
E = (Φ2 – Φ1) / t
89
Lenz’s Law: The direction of the induced emf or induced current is such that it opposes the change
that is producing it.
i.e. If the current is induced due to the motion of the magnet, then the induced current in the coil sets
itself to stop the motion of the magnet. If the current is induced due to a change in current in the
primary coil, then the induced current is such that it tends to stop the change.
Lenz’s Law and Law of Conservation of Energy:
According to Lenz’s law, the induced emf opposes the change that produces it. It is this opposition
against which we perform mechanical work in causing the change in magnetic flux. Therefore,
mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy. Thus, Lenz’s law is in accordance with the law
of conservation of energy.
Expression for Induced emf based on both the laws:
E = - d Φ / dt E = - (Φ2 – Φ1) / t
And for ‘N’ no. of turns of the coil, E = - N d Φ / dt E = - N (Φ2 – Φ1) / t
Expression for Induced current: I = - d Φ / (R dt)
Expression for Charge: dq / dt = - d Φ / (R dt) dq = - dΦ / R
Methods of producing Induced emf:
1. By changing Magnetic Field B: Magnetic flux Φ can be changed by changing the magnetic
field B and hence emf can be induced in the circuit (as done in Faraday’s Experiments).
2. By changing the area of the coil A available in the Magnetic Field (MOTIONAL EMF)
Magnetic flux Φ can be changed by
changing the area of the loop A which is
acted upon by the magnetic field B and
hence emf can be induced in the circuit.
d Φ = B.A =BA COS0 =BA = BL x
(A=Lx is the area of the loop)
E = - d Φ / dt
𝒅(𝑩𝑳𝒙)
E=- 𝒅𝒕
𝐝𝐱 𝒅𝒙
=-BL = B Lv where v = − 𝒅𝒕
𝐝𝐭
The induced emf is due to the motion of the loop and so it is called ‘motional’ emf
The direction of the induced current is clockwise in the loop by Fleming’s Right-hand Rule or
Lenz’s Rule.
Fleming’s Right-hand Rule: If the central finger, forefinger, and thumb of the right hand are
stretched mutually perpendicular to each other and the forefinger points to a magnetic field, the
thumb points in the direction of motion (force), then central finger points to the direction of
induced current in the conductor.
3. By changing the orientation of the coil (θ) in Magnetic Field:
Magnetic flux Φ can be changed by changing the relative orientation of the loop (θ) with the
magnetic field B and hence emf can be induced in the circuit.
Φ = N B A cos θ
At time t, with angular velocity ω, θ = ωt (at t = 0, loop is assumed to be perpendicular to the
magnetic field and θ = 0°)
Φ = N B A cos ωt Differentiating w.r.t. E = E0 sin ω t (where E 0 = NBA ω is the
t, d Φ / dt = - NBA ω sin ω t maximum emf)
E = - d Φ / dt
E = NBA ω sin ω t
90
Self-Induction: Self Induction is the phenomenon by which any growth or decay of current in the coil is
opposed by the production of self-induced emf (back emf) due to a change in current and hence the
change in magnetic flux in the coil.
The induced emf opposes the growth or decay of current in the coil and hence delays the current to
acquire the maximum value.
Self-induction is also called the inertia of electricity as it opposes the growth or decay of current.
Self -Inductance:
Φ α I or Φ = LI
If I = 1, then L = Φ (where L is the constant of proportionality and is known as Self Inductance or co-
efficient of self-induction)
Thus, self-inductance is defined as the magnetic flux linked with a coil when a unit current flows
through it.
Also, E = - dΦ / dt or E = - L (dI / dt) If dI / dt = 1, then L = E
Thus, self-inductance is defined as the induced emf set up in the coil through which the rate of change of
current is unity.
SI unit of self-inductance is henry (H).
Self-inductance is said to be 1 henry when 1 A current in a coil links a magnetic flux of 1 weber.
Inductance is a scalar quantity. It has the dimensions of [M L2 T-2 A-2]
Self-inductance of a solenoid
The magnetic Field due to the solenoid is B = µ0 n I
Magnetic Flux linked across one turn of the coil is
µ0 NIA N
Φ = B A = µ0 n IA = (𝑛= )
𝑙 𝑙
µ0 N xN IA µ0 𝑁 2 IA
NΦ= = …(1)
𝑙 𝑙
µ 𝟎 𝑵𝟐 𝐀
But, NΦ = LI …… (2) So, L= 𝒍
Note: If we fill the inside of the solenoid with a material of relative permeability μr
(for example, soft iron, which has a high value of relative permeability),
µ 𝟎 µ 𝒓 𝑵𝟐 𝐀
L= 𝒍
Factors on which Self Inductance depends

The self-inductance of the coil depends on its geometry and on the permeability of the medium.
The self-induced emf is also called the back emf as it opposes any change in the current in a circuit
Energy stored in Inductor:
Small work done dW in establishing a current I in the coil in time dt is
dW = - EI dt dW = LI dI (since E = -L (dI / dt) W = ∫ L I dI = ½ LI02
Mutual Induction:
Mutual Induction is the phenomenon of inducing emf in the secondary coil due to a change in current
in the primary coil and hence the change in magnetic flux in the secondary coil.
Φ21 α I1 or Φ21 = M21 I1

If I1 = 1, then M21= Φ21 (where M21 is the constant of proportionality and is known as Mutual
Inductance or co-efficient of mutual induction)
Thus, mutual inductance is defined as the magnetic flux linked with the secondary coil when unit
current flows through the primary coil.
SI unit of mutual inductance is henry (H). Mutual inductance is said to be 1 henry when 1 A
current in the primary coil links the magnetic flux of 1 weber across the secondary coil.
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Mutual inductance of two long co-axial solenoids:
Magnetic Field due to primary solenoid is

B1 = µ0 n1 I 1
Magnetic Flux linked across one turn of the secondary solenoid is
Φ21 per turn = B1 A = µ0 n1 I 1 A = µ0 N1 I 1 / L (where n1 = N1/L)
Magnetic Flux linked across N2 turns of the secondary solenoid is
N2 Φ21 = µ0 N 1N 2 I 1A / L
But, N2 Φ21 = M21 I1
M21 = µ0 N 1N 2 A / L = µ0 n 1n 2 A L
Similarly, M12 = µ0 N 1N 2 A / L = µ0 n 1n 2 A L
For two long co-axial solenoids of the same length and cross-sectional area, the mutual inductance is
the same and leads to the principle of reciprocity
M = M 12= M21
1) If the two solenoids are wound on a magnetic core of relative permeability µr,
then M = µ0 µr N 1N 2A / L
2) If the solenoids S1 and S2 have no. of turns N1 and N2 of different radii r1 and r2 (r1 < r2), then M
= µ0 µr N 1N 2 (πr 21)/ L
Formulae at a glance
Physical Quantity Formula SI UNIT Dimension
Magnetic flux (φ) Φ =B.A weber M1 L2 T-2 A-1
Induced emf (e) E = - L (dI / dt) volt M1 L 2 T -3A-1
Self-inductance L = Φ/I henry(H) M L 2T -2A-2
Mutual inductance henry(H) M L 2T -2A-2

M = Φ/I
Magnetostatic ½ LI2 Joule ML 2T-2
energy stored
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1. When the current in a coil change from 5 A to 2 A in 0.1 s, an average voltage of 50V is
produced. The self-inductance of the coil is
(a)1.67H (b) 6H (c) 3H (d) 0.67 H
2. A coil having 500 sq. loops of side 10 cm is placed normal to magnetic flux which increases at a
rate of 1 T/s. The induced emf is
(a) 0.1V (b) 0.5V (c)1V (d) 5 V
3. Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction is as per the law of conservation of

(a)energy. (b)Angular momentum (c) charge. (d) Mass
4. There are two coils A and B as shown in the figure. A current starts flowing in B as shown, A is
moved towards B and stops when A stops moving. The current in A is counter clockwise B is kept
stationary when A moves. We can infer that
(a) there is a constant current in the clockwise direction in A.

(b) there is a varying current in A
(c) there is no current in A.
(d) there is a constant current in the counter clockwise direction in A.
5. In a coil of self-induction 5 H, the rate of change of current is 2 A/s. Then emf

induced in the coil is
(a) 10 V (b) -10 V (c) 5 V (d) -5 V
6. A solenoid is connected to a battery so that a steady current flows through it. If an

iron core is inserted into the solenoid, the current will
(a) increase (b) decrease (c) remain same (d) first increase then decrease
7. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Whenever the amount of magnetic flux linked with a circuit changes, an emf is
induced in the circuit.
(b) The induced emf lasts so long as the change in magnetic flux continues.
(c) The direction of induced emf is given by Lenz’s law.
(d) Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of Charge.
8. There is a uniform magnetic field directed perpendicular and into the plane of the
paper. An irregularly shaped conducting loop is slowly changing into a circular loop
in the plane of the paper. Then
(a) current is induced in the loop in the anti-clockwise direction.
(b) current is induced in the loop in the clockwise direction.
(c) ac is induced in the loop.
(d) no current is induced in the loop.
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9. Inductance plays the role of
(a) inertia (b) friction (c) source of emf (d) force
10. If the number of turns in primary and secondary coils is increased to two times
each, then mutual inductance
(a) becomes 4 times
(b) becomes 2 times
(c) becomes A times
(d) remains unchanged 4
One mark question
1. Two spherical bobs, one metallic and the other of glass, of the same size are allowed to fall freely
from the same height above the ground. Which of the two would reach earlier and why?
2. When the current in a coil changes with time, how is the back emf induced in the coil related to it?
3. State the law that gives the polarity of the induced emf.
4.A long straight current carrying wire passes normally through the centre of a circular
loop. If the current through the wire increases, will there be an induced emf in the loop? Justify.
5.(a) How does the mutual inductance of a pair of coils change when (i) the distance
between the coils is increased and (ii) the number of turns in the coils is increased?
6. A plot of magnetic flux (φ) versus current (I), is shown in the figure for two inductors
A and B. Which of the two has large value of self-inductance?
7. On what factors does the magnitude of the emf induced in the circuit due to magnetic
flux depend?
8. A bar magnet is moved in the direction indicated by the arrow between two coils PQ and
CD. Predict the directions of induced current in each coil.
9. The closed loop PQRS is moving into a uniform magnetic field acting at right angles to
the plane of the paper as shown. State the direction of the induced current in the loop.
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10. Predict the directions of induced currents metal rings 1 and 2 lying in the same plane
where current I in the wire is increasing steadily.
Answers
1. a)1.67H
2. d)5V
3. a) Energy
4 (d) there is a constant current in the counterclockwise direction in A.
5. (b) -10 V
6. (b) decrease
Reason. The current will decrease. This is because on inserting an iron core in the solenoid,
the magnetic field increases, and hence magnetic flux linked with the solenoid increases.
As per Lenz's law, the emf induced in the solenoid will oppose this increase, which can be
achieved by a decrease in Current.
7 (d) Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of Charge.
8. (a) current is induced in the loop in the anti-clockwise direction.
Reason. Due to change in the shape of the loop, the magnetic flux linked with the loop
increases. Hence, current is induced in the loop in such a direction that it opposes the
increases in flux. Therefore, induced current flows in the anticlockwise direction.
9. (a) inertia
10. (a) becomes 4 times
One mark
1. Ans. Glass would reach earlier. This is because there is no effect of electromagnetic
induction in glass, due to the presence of the earth’s magnetic field, unlike in the case of metallic balls.
2. Ans. The back emf induced in the coil opposes the change in current.
3. Lenz’s Law: The polarity of induced emf is such that it tends to produce a current which
opposes the change in magnetic flux that produces it.
4. No. Justification: As the magnetic field due to the current carrying wire will be in
the plane of the circular loop, so magnetic flux will remain zero. Also, magnetic flux does
not change with the change in current.
5.(i) With the increase in the distance between the coils, the magnetic flux marked with the
stationary coil decrease and hence the mutual inductance of the two coils will decrease.
(ii) M ∝ n1n2 so with the increase in the number of turns mutual inductance increases.
6. The slope of the graph is equal to self-inductance L. It is larger for inductor A; therefore
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inductor A has a larger value of self-inductance ‘L’
7. It depends on the rate of change in magnetic flux (or simply change in magnetic flux).
8. In the figure, N-pole is receding away coil (PQ), so in coil (PQ), the nearer faces will act as S- pole,
and in coil (CD) the nearer face will also act as S-pole to oppose the approach of the magnet towards coil
(CD), so currents in coils will flow clockwise as seen from the side of the magnet. The direction of the
current will be from P to Q in coil (PQ) and from C to D in coil (CD).
9. Due to the motion of coil, the magnetic flux linked with the coil increases. So by the current induced in
the coil will oppose this increase, hence tend to produce a field upward, so the current induced in the coil
will flow anticlockwise. i.e., along PSRQP
10
ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering
these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but the Reason is incorrect.
1. Assertion: Induced emf will always occur whenever there is a change in magnetic flux.
Reason: Current always gets induced whenever there is a change in magnetic flux.
2. Assertion: Faraday’s laws are a consequence of the conservation of energy.
Reason: The self-inductance of a coil depends on the current flowing through the coil.
3. Assertion: Only a change in magnetic flux will maintain an induced current in the coil.
Reason: The presence of large magnetic flux through a coil maintain a current in the coil if the circuit is
continuous.
4. Assertion: Lenz’s law violates the principle of conservation of energy.

Reason: Induced emf always opposes the change in magnetic flux responsible for its production.
5. Assertion: In the phenomenon of mutual induction, the self-induction of each of the coils persists.
Reason: Self-induction arises when the strength of the current in the same coil changes.
In mutual induction, the current is changing in both individual coils.
6. Assertion: Acceleration of a magnet falling through a long solenoid decreases.
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Reason: The induced current produced in a circuit always flows in such a direction that it opposes the
change to the cause that produced it.
7. Assertion: Figure shows a horizontal solenoid connected to a battery and a switch. A copper ring is
placed on a smooth surface, the axis of the ring being horizontal. As the switch is closed, the ring will
move away from the solenoid.
Reason: Induced emf in the ring, e= -dΦ/dt
8. Assertion: An emf can be induced by moving a conductor in a magnetic field.

Reason: An emf can be induced by changing the magnetic field.
9. Assertion: The figure shows a metallic conductor moving in a magnetic field. The induced
emf across its ends is zero.
Reason: The induced emf across the ends of a conductor is given by e = Bvℓ sinθ.
10. Assertion: Eddy currents are produced in any metallic conductor when magnetic flux is changed around
it.
Reason: Electric potential determines the flow of charge.
Answers:
TWO MARKS QUESTION
1. How is the mutual inductance of a pair of coils affected when (i) separation between the
coils is increased? (ii) the number of turns in each coil is increased? (iii) a thin ironsheet
is placed between the two coils, other factors remaining the same? Justify your answer in
each case.
2. Two loops of different shapes are moved in the region of a uniform magnetic field pointing
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downward. The loops are moved in the directions shown by arrows. What is the direction of
the induced current in each loop?
11. A rectangular loop and a circular loop are moving out of a uniform magnetic field region to a field-free
region with a constant velocity. In which loop do you expect the induced emf to be a constant during the
passage out of the field region? The field is normal to the loop.
12. Predict the polarity of the capacitor C connected to coil, which is situated between two bar magnets
moving as shown in figure
13. The magnetic field through a circular loop of wire 12 cm in radius and 8.5 Ω resistance,
changes with time as shown in the figure. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop.
Calculate the induced current in the loop and plot it as a function of time.
14. A rectangular conductor LMNO is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T. The field is directed
perpendicular to the plane of the conductor. When the arm MN of the length of 20 cm is moved towards
the left with a velocity of 10 ms-1. Calculate the emf induced in the arm. Given the resistance of the arm
to be 5 Ω (assuming that other arms are of negligible resistance), find the value of the current in the arm.
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15. (i) When primary coil P is moved towards secondary coil S (as shown in the figure below) the
galvanometer shows momentary deflection. What can be done to have a larger deflection in the
galvanometer with the same battery? (ii) State the related law.
16. A current is induced in coil C1 due to the motion of current-carrying coil C2.
(a) Write any two ways by which a large deflection can be obtained in the galvanometer G. (b) Suggest
an alternative device to demonstrate the induced current in place of a galvanometer.
9. (i) Define mutual inductance. (ii) A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If the current
in one coil changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 s, what is the change of flux linkage with the other coil?
10.(a) What is induced emf? Write Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. Express it
mathematically.
Answers
1. (i)When the relative distance between the coil is increased, the leakage of flux increases which
reduces the magnetic coupling of the coils. So magnetic flux linked with all the turns decreases.
Therefore, mutual inductance will be decreased.
ii)Mutual inductance for a pair of coil is given by
M= K( L1 L 2)1/2
where L =µ 0 N 2A/l = and L is called self- inductance. Therefore, when the
number of turns in each coil increases, the mutual inductance also increases.
iii)When a thin iron sheet is placed between the two coils, the mutual inductance increases because
of M∝ permeability. The permeability of the medium between coils increases.
2. Loop abc is entering the magnetic field, so the magnetic flux linked with it begins to increase.
According to Lenz’s law, the current induced opposes the increases in magnetic flux, so the current
induced will be anticlockwise which tends to decrease the magnetic field
3. In a rectangular coil the induced emf will remain constant because in this case rate of change of area
in the magnetic field region remains constant, while in circular coil the rate of change of area in the
magnetic field region is not constant.
4. Current induced in coil will oppose the approach of magnet; therefore, left face of coil will act
as N-pole and right face as S-pole. For this the current in coil will be anticlockwise as seen from left,
therefore, the plate A of capacitor will be positive and plate B will be negative.
5.
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6. Induced emf in a moving rod in a magnetic field is given by ε = Blv
Since the rod is moving to the left so ε = Blv = 0.5 × 0.2 × 10 = 1 V
Current in the rod I = ε /R = 1/5 =0.2 A
7 (i) For larger deflection, coil P should be moved at a faster rate.
(ii) Faraday law: The induced emf is directly proportional to rate of change of magnetic
flux linked with the circuit.
8 a) The deflection in galvanometer may be made large by
(i) moving coil C2 towards C1 with high speed.
(ii) by placing a soft iron laminated core at the centre of coil C1.
b) The induced current can be demonstrated by connecting a torch bulb (in place of
a galvanometer) in coil C1. Due to induced current the bulb begins to glow.
9.(i) Mutual inductance of two coils is the magnetic flux linked with the secondary coil when a
unit current flows through the primary coil,
∅2
∅2 = 𝑀𝐼1 OR M= 𝐼1
ii) change of flux for small change in current d∅ = M dI =1.5(20-0) =30Weber
10.definition and proof

3 MARKS QUESTIONS
1. The current flowing through an inductor of self-inductance L is continuously increasing.

Plot a graph showing the variation of (i) Magnetic flux versus the current (ii)
Induced emf versus dI/dt (iii) Magnetic potential energy stored versus the current.
2. Derive an expression for self-inductance of a long air-cored solenoid of length l, cross-sectional
area A and having number of turns N.
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3. Obtain the expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial solenoids S1 and S2 wound
one over the other, each of length L and radii r1 and r 2 and n1 and n2 be number of turns per unit
length when a current I is set up in the outer solenoid S2.
4. A coil of a number of turns N, area A is rotated at a constant angular speed ω, in a uniform
magnetic field B and connected to a resistor R. Deduce an expression for (i) maximum emf
induced in the coil. (ii) power dissipation in the coil.
5. How does the mutual inductance of a pair of coils change when
(i) distance between the coils is increased and
(ii) number of turns in the coils is increased
6. A coil Q is connected to low voltage bulb B and placed near another coil P as shown in the figure.
Give reasons to explain the following observations:
(a) The bulb ‘B’ lights.

(b) Bulb gets dimmer if the coil Q is moved towards left.
7. Define mutual inductance. A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If the current
in one coil changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 s, what is the change of flux linkage with the other coil?
8. In the given diagram a coil B is connected to a low voltage bulb L and placed parallel to another
coil A as shown. Explain the following observations
(i) Bulb lights, and
(ii) Bulb gets dimmer if coil B is moved upwards.
.
9. Two concentric circular coils one of small radius r1 and the other of large radius r2, such that r1 <<
r2, are placed co-axially with centres coinciding. Obtain the mutual inductance of the arrangement.
10. A bar magnet is dropped so that it falls vertically through coil C. The graph obtained for the
voltage produced across the coil versus time is as shown in figure (b)(i) Explain the shape of the
graph and
(ii) why is the negative peak longer than the positive peak?
Answers
1.
101
2.Derivation
3. Derivation
4. Correct derivation
5. (i) Mutual inductance decreases’, because flux linked with the secondary coil
decreases.
(ii) M=μ0n 1n 2Al, so when n1 and n2 increase, mutual inductance (M)
increases.
6.1.The bulb B lights on account of emf induced in the coil Q due to mutual
induction between P and Q.
2.When coil Q is moved towards left, magnetic flux linked with Q decreases and
may even reduce to zero at some distance. The emf induced may decrease and
the bulb B gets dimmer.
7. Mutual inductance is numerically equal to the magnetic flux linked with a coil
when the unit current passes through the neighbouring coil.
Given M = 1.5 H, dl = 20 – 0 = 20 A,
dt = 0.5 s, Φ = ? Φ = – Mdl/dt or
Φ = – 1.5 × 20/0.5 = – 60 Wb
8.(a) When ac is applied across coil A an induced emf is produced in coil B due to
mutual induction between the two coils. This makes the lamp light up.
(b) When coil B is moved upwards the mutual induction and hence induced emf in
coil B decreases. This makes the lamp dimmer.
9. Derivation
10.(a) As the magnet approaches the coil, an emf is induced in it. As the magnet
approaches the coil the magnetic flux linked with the coil increases. As a result, the induced emf
increases. When the magnet enters the coil, the change in magnetic flux linked with the coil begins
to decrease and becomes zero when the magnet is completely inside the coil. This starts decreasing
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the emf and makes it zero.When the magnet comes out of the coil the direction of induced emf
changes direction and begins to increase in the opposite direction. When the magnet moves far
away from the coil the induced emf becomes zero.
CASE STUDY-BASED QUESTION

1. Electromagnetic induction is defined as the production of an electromotive force across an electric
conductor in the changing magnetic field. The discovery of induction was done by Michael Faraday in
the year 1831. Electromagnetic induction finds many applications such as in electrical components
which includes transformers, inductors, and other devices such as electric motors and generators.
Alternating current is defined as an electric current which reverse in direction periodically. In most of
the electric power circuits, the waveform of alternating current is the sine wave.
i). How to increase the energy stored in an inductor by four times?
(a) By doubling the current
(b) This is not possible
(c) By doubling the inductance
(d) By making current 2 times
ii). Consider an inductor whose linear dimensions are tripled and the total number of turns per unit
length is kept constant, what happens to the self-inductance?
(a) 9 times (b) 3 times (c) 27 times (d) 13 times
iii). Lenz law is based on which of the following conservation
(a) Charge (b) Mass (c) Momentum (d) Energy
iv). What will be the acceleration of the falling bar magnet which passes through the ring such that the
ring is held horizontally and the bar magnet is dropped along the axis of the ring?
(a) It depends on the diameter of the ring and the length of the magnet
(b) It is equal due to gravity
(c) It is less than due to gravity
(d) It is more than due to gravity
2.Self Induction. When a current I flows through a coil, flux linked with it is φ = LI, where
L is a constant known as self- inductance of the coil.
Any charge in current sets up an induced emf in the coil. Thus, self-inductance of a coil is the induced emf
set up in it when the current passing through it changes at the unit rate. It is a measure of the opposition to
the growth or the decay of current flowing through the coil. Also, value of self- inductance depends on the
number of turns in the solenoid, its area of cross-section and the permeability of its core material.
103
i)The inductance in a coil plays the same role as
(a) inertia in mechanics
(b) energy in mechanics
(c) momentum in mechanics
(d) force in mechanics
ii) A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux linked with the coil
is
(a) 0.5 Wb
(b) 12.5 Wb
(c) zero
(d) 2 Wb
iii)The inductance L of a solenoid depends upon its radius R as

(a) L ∝ R
(b) L ∝ 1/R
(c) L ∝ R2
(d) L ∝ R3
iv)The unit of self-inductance is

(a) Weber ampere
(b) Weber-1 ampere
(c) Ohm second
(d) Farad
v)The induced emf in a coil of 10 henry inductance in which current varies from 9 A to
4 A in 0.2second is
(a) 200 V
(b) 250 V
(c) 300 V
(d) 350 V
3. Lenz's law states that the direction of induced current in a circuit is such that it opposes the change
which produces it. Thus, if the magnetic flux linked with a closed circuit increases, the induced current
flows in such a direction that magnetic flux is created in the opposite direction of the original magnetic
flux. If the magnetic flux linked with the closed circuit decreases, the induced current flows in such a
direction so as to create magnetic flux in the direction of the original flux.
(i) Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The induced e.m.f is not in the direction opposing the change in magnetic flux so as to oppose
the cause which produces it.
(b) The relative motion between the coil and magnet produces change in magnetic flux.
(c) Emf is induced only if the magnet is moved towards coil
(d) Emf is induced only if the coil is moved towards magnet
(ii) The polarity of induced emf is given by

104
(a) Ampere's circuital law (b) Biot-Savart law
(c) Lenz's law (d) Fleming's right-hand rule
(iii) Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
(a) charge (b) mass (c) momentum (d) energy
(iv)Near a circular loop of conducting wire as shown in the figure, an electron
moves along a straight line. The direction of the induced current if any in the
loop is
a)Variable b)clockwise c)anticlockwise d)zero
(v) Two identical circular coils A and B are kept in a horizontal tube side by side
without touching each other. If the current in coil A increases with time, in
response, the coil B.
(a) is attracted by A (c) is repelled
(c) is repelled (d) rotates
4.In year 1820 Oersted discovered the magnetic effect of current. Faraday gave the thought that reverse of
this phenomenon is also possible i.e., current can also be produced by magnetic field. Faraday showed that
when we move a magnet towards the coil which is connected by a sensitive galvanometer. The
galvanometer gives instantaneous deflection showing that there is an electric current in the loop.
Whenever relative motion between coil and magnet takes place an emf induced in coil. If coil is in
closed circuit then current is also induced in the circuit. This phenomenon is called electromagnetic
induction.
(i) The north pole of a long bar magnet was pushed slowly into a short solenoid
connected to a galvanometer. The magnet was held stationary for a few seconds with
the north pole in the middle of the solenoid and then withdrawn rapidly. The
maximum deflection of the galvanometer was observed when the magnet was
(a) moving towards the solenoid (b) moving into the solenoid
(c) at rest inside the solenoid (d) moving out of the solenoid.
(ii) Two similar circular loops carry equal currents in the same direction. On moving
the coils further apart, the electric current will
(a) remain unaltered (b) increases in one and decreases in the second
(c) increase in both (d) decrease in both
(iii) A closed iron ring is held horizontally and a bar magnet is dropped through the
ring with its length along the axis of the ring. The acceleration of the falling
105
magnet is
a) Equal to g b)less than g
c)more than g d)depends on diameter of ring and length of magnet
(iv) Whenever there is a relative motion between a coil and a magnet, the magnitude
of induced emf set up in the coil does not depend upon the
a) relative speed between coil and magnet
b) magnetic moment of coil
c) resistance of coil
d) number of turns in the coil
(v) A coil of metal wire is kept stationary in a non-uniform magnetic field

(a) an emf and current both are induced in the coil
(b) a current but no emf is induced in the coil
(c) an emf but no current is induced in the coil
d) neither emf nor current is induced in the coil
5. Currents can be induced not only in conducting coils, but also in conducting sheets or blocks. Current is
induced in solid metallic masses when the magnetic flux threading through them changes. Such currents
flow in the form of irregularly shaped loops throughout the body of the metal. These currents look like
eddies or whirlpools in water so they are known as eddy currents. Eddy currents have both undesirable
effects and practically useful applications. For example it causes unnecessary heating and wastage of power
in electric motors, dynamos and in the cores of transformers.
(I) The working of speedometers of trains is based on

(a) wattless currents (b) eddy currents
(c) alternating currents (d) pulsating currents
(ii) Identify the wrong statement

(a) Eddy currents are produced in a steady magnetic field
(b) Induction furnace uses eddy currents to produce heat.
(c) Eddy currents can be used to produce braking force in moving trains
(d) Power meters work on the principle of eddy currents.
(iii) Which of the following is the best method to reduce eddy currents?
(a) Laminating core (b) Using thick wires
(c) By reducing hysteresis loss (d) None ofthese
(iv) The direction of eddy currents is given by

(a) Fleming's left hand rule (b) Biot-Savart law
(c) Lenz's law (d) Ampere-circuital law
(v) Eddy currents can be used to heat localised tissues of the human body. This branch of medical therapy is
called
(a) Hyperthermia (b) Diathermy
(c) Inductothermy (d) none of these
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Answers
1. i (a) By doubling the current
ii (b) 3
iii)(d) Energy
iv)(c) It is less than due to gravity
2 i ) (a) inertia in mechanics
ii) (b) 12.5 Wb
iii)(c) L ∝ R2
iv)(c) ohm second
v) (b) 250 V
3 . (i)(b) The relative motion between the coil and the magnet produces a change in the
magnetic flux in the coil. The induced emf is always in such a direction that it
opposes the change in the flux.
(ii) (c)
(iii) (d)
(iv)(a): When an electron is moving from right to left, the flux linked with loop (which
is going into the page) will first increase and then decrease as the electron passes
by. So,the induced current I, in the loop will be first clockwise and will change
direction (i.e. will become anticlockwise) as the electron passes by.
(v) (c): When current in coil A increases with time, there will be a change of flux in coil B which will induce
a current in B. Now, according to Lenz's law, the direction of induced current in B will be opposite to the
direction of current in A. Thus, if two loops carry current in opposite direction they will repel each other.
4.(i) (d) :More rapid is the movement of bar magnet, more is the deflection observed in the galvanometer
(ii) (c) : Two circular loops carrying current in the same direction will attract each other. If they are now
separated, induced currents will try to keep status quo, by increasing the current in both the coils.
(iii) (b): Acceleration of the magnet will not be equal to g. It will be less than g. This is because, as the
magnet falls, amount of magnetic flux linked with the ring changes. An induced emf is developed in the
ring which opposes the downward motion of the magnet.
(iv) (c) : The magnitude of induced emf set up in the coil does not depend upon the resistance of the coil
whereas induced current set up in the coil depend upon the : As long as a coil of metal is kept stationary
in a magnetic field, even if it is
non-uniform, unless it is changing with respect to time, there will be no
induced emf or current in the coil.
5.(i) (b)The working of speedometers is based on eddy currents.
(ii) (a)
(iii) (a)To reduce the eddy currents in the metal armature of motors, wire is wrapped
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around number of thin metal sheets called lamination.
(iv) (c)Eddy currents also oppose the change in magnetic flux, so their direction is
given by Lenz's law.
(v) (c)
5 MARKS QUESTIONS
1. a)State Faradays and Lenz’s Law of electromagnetic induction.

b)Use Lenz’s law to determine the direction of induced current in the situation described by
following figs.
i)A wire of irregular shape turning into a circular shape.
ii)A circular loop being deformed into a narrow straight wire.
2. (a) Define mutual inductance and write its SI units.

(b) Derive an expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial solenoids of
the same length wound one over the other.
(c) In an experiment, two coils C1 and C2 are placed close to each other. Find out the expression for
the emf induced in the coil C1 due to a change in the current through the coil C2.
3. a) Define the self-inductance of a coil. Show that magnetic energy required to build up the
current I in a coil of self-inductance L is given by U= ½ LI2
b. A 1.0 m metallic rod is rotated with an angular velocity of 400 rad/s about an axis
normal to the rod passing through its one end. The other end of the rod is in contact
with a circular metallic ring. A constant and uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T parallel to
the axis exists everywhere. Calculate the emf developed between the centre and the ring.
Answers
1.a) Statement
b)i)For the given periphery the area of a circle is maximum. When a coil takes a circular shape, the
magnetic flux linked with the coil increases, so the current induced in the coil will tend to decrease the flux
and so will produce a magnetic field upward. As a result, the current induced in the coil will flow
anticlockwise i.e., along a′d′c′b′.
(ii) For given periphery the area of circle is maximum. When circular coil takes the shape of narrow
straight wire, the magnetic flux linked with the coil decreases, so current induced in the coil will tend to
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oppose the decrease in magnetic flux; hence it will produce upward magnetic field, so current induced
in the coil will flow anticlockwise i.e., along a′ d′ c′ b′
2.a) statement
b) derivation
c)When the current in the coil C2changes the flux linked with C1changes.This change in
flux linked with C1induces emf in C1.
3. a) Derivation
b)
Emf developed between the centre of ring and the point on the ring
e = ½ B wl2
Given B= 0.5T ,w= 400rad/s ,l=1.0m
e = 100 V
Self -Evaluation test

1.A jet plane is travelling westward at a speed of 1800 km/h. What is the potential difference developed
between the ends of a wing 25 m long? Its earth’s magnetic field at the location has a magnitude of 5.0
×10-4 T and the dip angle is 30°.
2. A horizontal straight wire 10 m long extending from east to west is falling with a speed of 5.0 ms-1 at
right angles to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field equal to 0.30 ×10-4 Wbm-2. (a) What
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is the instantaneous value of the emf induced in the wire? (b) What is the direction of emf? (c) Which emf
of the wire is at the higher electrical potential?
3. Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1 s. If an average emf of 200 V is induced, calculate
the self-induction of the circuit.
4. A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small loop of area 2.0 cm2 placed inside normal to the axis
of the solenoid. The current carried by the solenoid changes steadily from 2 A to 4 A in 0.1 s, what is
the induced emf in the loop while the current is changing?
5. An air-cored solenoid with a length of 30 cm, an area of cross-section of 25 cm2 and a number of turns
500 carries a current of 2.5 A. The current is suddenly switched off in a brief time of 10-3 s. How much is
the average back emf induced across the ends of the open switch in the circuit? Ignore the variation in
magnetic field near the ends of the solenoid.
6. An area A = 0.5 m2 shown in the figure is situated in a uniform magnetic field B = 4.0 Wb/m2 and its
normal makes an angle of 60° with the field. Find the magnetic flux passing through the area A .
7. A rectangular loop of sides 8 cm × 2 cm with a small cut is stationary in a uniform magnetic field produced
by an electromagnet. If the current feeding the electromagnet is gradually reduced so that the magnetic
field decreases from its initial value of 0·3 T at the rate of
0·02 Ts-1. If the cut is joined and the loop has a resistance of 1·6 Ω, how much power is dissipated by the
loop as heat ? What is the source of this power?
8. A 0.5 m long solenoid of 10 turns/cm has area of cross-section 1 cm2 . Calculate the voltage induced
across its ends if the current in the solenoid is changed from 1A to 2A in 0.1s.
9. A 0.4 m long straight conductor is moved in a magnetic field of induction 0.9 Wbm-2
with velocity of 7 ms-1. Calculate the maximum emf induced in the conductor.
10.A metal disc of radius 200 cm is rotated at a constant angular speed of 60 rads-1
In a plane at right angles to an external field of magnetic induction 0.05 Wb m-2.
Find the emf induced between the centre and a point on the rim.
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ALTERNATING CURRENT
• Alternating current (a.c.): When the current changes continuously in magnitude and direction periodically,
then the current is said to be alternating.
I= I0 sin ωt = I0 sin 2πft
I0= Peak or maximum value of current
f= frequency of a.c.
I is instantaneous value of current
• Direct current (d.c.) : The current which flows with a constant magnitude in the same direction is called
direct current.
• Alternating voltage: The voltage whose magnitude changes continuously and the direction reverses
periodically, then voltage is said to be alternating.
V= V0 sin ωt = V0 sin 2πft
V= Instantaneous value of voltage
V0= Peak or maximum value of voltage
f= frequency of alternating voltage
T= Time period of alternating voltage
• Average or mean value of a.c. over half a cycle: It is that value of steady current which sends the same
charge through a resistor as is sent by given a.c. in the same resistor in its half time period.
Iav over half a cycle= 2I0/π = 0.637 I0
• Average or mean value of alternating voltage over half a cycle: It is that value of steady voltage which
sends the same charge through a resistor in the same time as is sent by the given alternating voltage through
the same resistor in its half cycle.
Vav over half a cycle= 2V0/π = 0.637 V0
• Average or mean value of a.c. over a cycle: It is that value of steady current which sends the same charge
through a resistor in the same time as is sent by the given a.c. through the same resistor in its one cycle.
Average of a.c. over a cycle= 0
• Average of alternating voltage over a cycle is zero.
• Root Mean Square (rms) value of A.C. : It is that value of steady current which produces the same amount
of heat in a given resistor in the same time as is produced by the a.c. in the same resistor in one time period.
Irms= I0/ √2 = 0.707 I0
Vrms= V0/ √2 = 0.707 V0
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• Phasor: A rotating vector that represents a sinusoidally varying quantity is called a phasor.
• Phasor diagram: A diagram that represents alternating current and voltage of same frequency as phasor
along with proper phase angle between them is called a phasor diagram.
• A.C. source connected across a pure resistor:
As V= V0 sin ωt
I= I0 sin ωt
The voltage is in phase with the current
I0 = V0/R, Irms= Vrms/R
Average power consumed by a pure resistor connected to an a.c. source

Vrms Irms = V0 I0 /2
• A.C. source connected across a pure inductor:
When a source of alternating voltage V= V0 sin

ωt is connected to a pure inductor, it drives a
current
I= I0 sin (ωt- π/2)
Current lags behind potential by π/2
Peak value of current
I0= V0 / XL Irms = Vrms / XL
Where XL = ωL is called inductive reactance. Inductive reactance is the
opposition offered by a pure inductor to flow of a.c. through it.
Variation of XL with frequency is shown in the graph.

• A.C. source connected across a capacitor:
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When a source of alternating voltage V= V0 sin ωt is connected across a
capacitor of capacitance C. The current
leads voltage by π/2.
I= I0 sin (ωt+ π/2)
Peak value of current
I0= V0 / XC Irms = Vrms / XC
Where XC= 1/ωC is called capacitive reactance. Capacitive reactance is the

opposition offered by a capacitor to flow of current through it.
Variation of XC with frequency is shown in graph.

• A capacitor blocks d.c. but allows a.c. to pass because for d.c., frequency =0
XC= 1/ωC =1/2πfC = ∞
So I0= V0 / XC =0
For a.c. frequency f has finite value so XC and hence I0 has finite value.
• LCR series circuit:
(i) If VL > VC, tan ϕ= (XL -XC)/R
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Voltage leads current by ϕ. Circuit is inductive.
Z= [R2 + (XL -XC)2]1/2
(ii) If VL < VC, tan ϕ= (XC-XL)/R

Voltage lags current by ϕ. Circuit is capacitive.
Z= [R2 + (XC-XL)2]1/2
• Variation of current with frequency in a series LCR circuit:

Z= [R2 + (XL -XC)2]1/2
Z= [R2 + (ωL-1/ωC)2]1/2
And I=V/Z
Case I: If ω→0, Z→ ∞
So, I=0, i.e. Z is very high and I is very low.
Case II: If ω→ ∞ i.e. ω is very high
Z→ ∞, I→0
So again, Z is very high and I is very low.
Case III: When XL =XC (at resonance)
ωL= 1/ωC
Or ω= 1/√LC
Z is minimum and Z=R.
So I is maximum. This frequency is called resonant frequency of circuit.
ω= 1/√LC
Or fr= 1/2π√LC
Resonance: The phenomenon in which the current through an LCR circuit, becomes maximum at a particular
frequency is called resonance. This frequency is called resonant frequency of circuit.
• Impedance (Z): It is the total opposition to the flow of a.c. in a circuit containing R and L, R and C, or R,L
and C.
tan ϕ= X/R or cos ϕ= R/Z

Average power consumed by series LCR circuit in a complete cycle of a.c.
P = VrmsIrms cos ϕ, where cos ϕ is called power factor.
AC Generator
A.C. generator works on the principle of electro-magnetic induction. In a generator mechanical energy is
converted in to electric energy. An ac generator consists of filed magnet, armature coil, slip rings and brushes.
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Working: When the armature coil rotates between the pole pieces of field magnet, the effective area of the
coil is A cos θ, where θ is the angle between A and B.
The flux at any time is ϕ=BAN cosθ
=> ϕ= BAN cos ωt
Where ω is the angular velocity of the coil.
The induced e.m.f., ε = −dϕ/dt
= −N d/dt (BA cos ωt)
ε = NABω sin ωt
ε = NABω (numerically), which is the maximum value of induced emf. i.e., when ωt = 90o or 270o, the change
of flux is maximum. When the armature coil is mechanically rotated in a uniform magnetic field, the magnetic
flux through the coil changes and hence an emf is induced in the coil. The ends of the coil are connected to
external circuit by means of slip rings and brushes.
Transformer: It is a device works on the principle of mutual induction.
Vs/Vp = Ns/Np = Ip/Is
Step up transformer
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Ns > Np, Vs > Vp and is < ip
Step down transformer
Ns < Np, Vs < Vp and is > ip
Efficiency of transformer, η = Output power /Input Power
Different Power losses in a transformer

1. Copper loss
2. Eddy current loss
3. Magnetic flex leakage
4. Hysteresis loss
1 Mark Questions:
1. Sketch a graph showing variation of reactance of a capacitor with frequency of the applied voltage.
2. What will be effect on inductive reactance XL and capacitive reactance XC , if frequency of ac source is
increased ?
3. The power factor of an a.c. circuit 0.5. What is the phase difference between voltage and current in the
circuit?
4. Sketch a graph showing the variations of impedance of LCR circuit with the frequency of applied voltage.
5. In series LCR circuit, the plot of Imax vs ω is shown in the figure. Find the bandwidth and mark in the
figure.
6. The peak value of emf in ac is E0. Write its (i) rms (ii) average value over a complete cycle.
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7. A device X is connected to an a.c. source V=V0 sin ωt. The variation of voltage, current and power in one
complete cycle is shown in the following figure.
(a) Which curve shows power consumption over a full cycle?
(b) Identify the device ‘X’.
8. An inductor is connected in series with a bulb to an a.c. source. What happens to brightness of bulb when
number of turns in the inductor is reduced?
9. For a series LCR circuit, connected to an a.c. source, identify the graph that corresponding to ω > 1/√LC.
Give reason.
10. In the circuit shown, when the frequency of supply is doubled, how should the values of L and C be
changed so that the glow in the bulb remains
unchanged?
2 Mark Questions:
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1. Calculate the current drawn by the primary coil of a transformer which steps down 200 V to 20 V to
operate a device of resistance 20 Ω. Assume the efficiency of the transformer to be 80%.
2. Why is the use of a.c. voltage preferred over d.c. voltage? Give two reasons.
3. A 15 µF capacitor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz source. Find the capacitive reactance and the currents
(rms and peak) in the circuit. If the frequency is doubled, what happens to the capacitive reactance and the
current?
4. An AC voltage V= Vm sin ωt is applied across:
(i) A series RC circuit in which capacitive impedance is ‘a’ time the resistance in the circuit.
(ii) A series RL circuit in which inductive impedance is ‘b’ times the resistance in the circuit. Find
the value of power factor of the circuit in each case.
5. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source (200 V, 50 Hz). The voltage across the resistor, capacitor
and inductor are respectively 200 V, 250 V and 250 V.
(i) The algebraic sum of the voltages across the three elements is greater than the voltage of the
source. How is this paradox resolved?
(ii) Given the value of the resistance of R is 40 Ω. Calculate the current in the circuit.
6. Draw a plot showing the variation of the current I as a function of angular frequency ‘ω’ of the applied ac
source for the two cases of a series combination of (i) inductance L1, capacitance C1 and resistance R1 and (ii)
inductance L2, capacitance C2 and resistance R2 where R2 > R1 . Write the relation between L1, C1 and L2, C2
at resonance. Which one of the two, would be better suited for the fine tuning of receiver set? Give reason.
7. Figure shows how the reactance of an inductor varies with frequency.
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(i) Calculate the value of the inductance of the inductor using information given in the graph.
(ii) If this inductor is connected in series to a resistor of 80 ohm, what would be the impedance at 300 Hz?
8. A resistor ‘R’ and an element’ are connected in series to an ac source of voltage. The voltage is found to
lead the current in phase by 𝝅/4. If ‘X’ is replaced by another element ‘Y’, the voltage lags behind the current
by 𝝅/4.
(i) Identify elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(ii) When both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are connected in series with R to the same source, will the power dissipated in the
circuit be maximum or minimum? Justify your answer.
9. How is the large-scale transmissions of electric energy over long distances done with the use of
transformers?
10. An ac voltage of 100 V, 50 Hz is connected across a 20-ohm resistor and a 2mH inductor in series.
Calculate (i) impedance of the circuit (ii) wattless current of the given ac circuit.
3 Mark Questions:
1. A circuit containing an 80 mH inductor and a 250 µF capacitor connected in series connected to a 240 V,
100 rad/s supply. The resistance of the circuit is negligible. Obtain (i) rms value of the current (ii) What is
the total average power consumed by the circuit?
2. The primary coil of an ideal step-up transformer has 100 turns and transformation ratio is also 100. The
input voltage and power are 220 V and 1100 W respectively. Calculate: (i) The current in the primary coil
(ii) The voltage across the secondary coil (iii) The power in the secondary coil
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3. The graph shown below depict the variation of current im V/s angular frequency ω for two
different series LCR circuits. Observe the graphs carefully.
(i) State the relation between the L and C values of the two circuits
when the current in the two circuits is maximum.
(ii) Indicate the circuit for which power factor is higher.
4. A resistor of 200 ohm and a capacitor of 15 µF are connected in series to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac source. Calculate
the current in the circuit and rms voltage across the resistor and the capacitor. Is the algebraic sum of these
voltages more than the source voltage? If yes, resolve the paradox.
5. Given below are two electrical circuits A and B. Calculate the ratio of power factor of circuit A to the power
factor of circuit B.
6. An inductor of unknown value, a capacitor of 100 µFand a resistor of 10 ohm are connected in series to a
200 V, 50 Hz ac source. It is found that power factor of the circuit is unity. Calculate the inductance of the
inductor and current amplitude.
7. (a) Determine the value of phase difference between the current and the voltage in the given series LCR
circuit.
(b) Calculate the value of additional capacitor which may be joined suitably to the capacitor C that would
make the power factor of the circuit unity.
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8. Figure a, b and c shows three alternating circuits with equal currents. If the frequency of alternating emf be
increased, what will be the effect on currents in the three cases? Explain.
9. A circular coil of radius 8 cm and 20 turns rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular speed of 50
rad/s in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 3x10-2 T. Obtain the maximum and average emf
induced in the coil. If the coil forms a closed loop of resistance 10 ohm, calculate the maximum value of
current in the coil.
10. (a) For given a.c. i=im sin ωt, show that the average power dissipated in a resistor R over a complete cycle
is 1/2 im2 R.
(b) A light bulb is rated at 100 W for a 220 V a.c. supply. Calculate the resistance of the bulb.
5 Mark Questions:
1 (i) A power transmission line feeds input power at 2200 V to a step-down transformer with its primary
windings having 3000 turns. Find the number of turns in the secondary to get the power output at 220 V.
(ii) A step-up transformer converts a low voltage into high voltage. Does it not violate the principle
of conservation of energy? Explain.
(iii) Write any two sources of energy loss in a transformer.
2. (i) A coil of number of turns N, area A is rotated at a constant angular speed ω in a uniform magnetic field
B and connected to a resistor R. Deduce an expression for maximum emf induced in the coil.
(ii) A circular coil of cross-sectional area 200 cm2 and 20 turns is rotated about the vertical diameter with
angular speed of 50 rad/s in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 3x 10-2 T. Calculate the maximum value
of emf in the coil.
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3. (a) Figure shows the variation of resistance and reactance versus angular frequency. Identify the curve
which corresponds to inductive reactance and resistance.
(b) Show that series LCR circuit at resonance behaves as a purely resistive circuit. Compare the phase
relation between current and voltage in series LCR circuit for (i) XL > XC (ii) XL = XC using phasor diagrams.
(iii)What is an acceptor circuit and where it is used?
MCQ
1. When an AC voltage of 220 V is applied to the capacitor C
a. the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V.
b. the current is in phase with the applied voltage.
c. the charge on the plates is in phase with the applied voltage.
d. power delivered to the capacitor is zero
2. An inductor of reactance 1 Ω and a resistor of 2 Ω are connected in series to the terminals of a 6 V (rms)
AC source. The power dissipated in the circuit is
a. 8 W b. 12 W c. 14.4 W d. 0 W
3. The output of a step-down transformer is measured to be 24 V when connected to a 12 W light bulb. The
value of the peak current is
a. 1/√2 A b. 2 A c. 2 √2 A d. 18 A
4. The phase difference between instantaneous voltage and current of purely capacitive circuit is
a. 180 b. 90 c. 0 d. 360
5. The current flowing in purely capacitive circuit connected with ac source
a. conventional current b. electronic current c. wattless current d. none
6. For unity power factor the circuit should be
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a. purely capacitive b. purely resistive c. LCR series circuit d. purely inductive
7. As frequency of an ac circuit increases, the current first increases and then decreases. What combination
of circuit elements is most likely to comprise the circuit?
a. Inductor and capacitor b. Resistor and inductor
c. Resistor and capacitor d. Resistor, inductor and capacitor
8. Electrical energy is transmitted over large distances at high alternating voltages. Which of the following
statements is (are) correct?
a. For a given power level, there is a lower current
b. Lower current implies less power loss
c. Transmission lines can be made thinner
d. It is easy to reduce the voltage at the receiving end using step-down transformers
9. A coil of resistance 2000Ω and self-inductance 1.0 Henry has been connected to an AC source of
frequency 2000/2π Hz. The phase difference between voltage and current is
a. 30o b. 60o
c. 75o d. 45o
10. In an AC circuit V and I are given by V = 50 sin 50t Volt and I = 100 sin (50t + π/3) mA. The power
dissipated in the circuit
a. 2.5 kW b. 1.25 kW
c. 5.0 kW d. 500 W
Case Study
1. Transformer is a device which works only in AC not in DC, it working principle is mutual induction. It
changes AC voltage and current but does not alter the frequency of AC. A transformer consists of two coils
wounded over a soft iron core. The number of turns in the primary and secondary coils of a transformer
are 1000 and 100 respectively. The primary coil is connected to a main supply of 12 V and secondary is
connected to a resistor of resistance 6 Ω.
(i) The value of output voltage in the secondary coil is
(a) 1.2 V (b) 3 V (c) 12 V (d) 6 V
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(ii) The value of current flowing through the resistor connected in the secondary
(a) 0.6 A (b) 0.2 A (c) 2 A (d) 3A
(iii) The value of current in the primary coil is
(a) 2 A (b) 0.2 A (c) 0.02 A (d) 0.4 A
(iv) The power dissipated in the primary coil is
(a) 12 W (b) 0.24 W (c) 24 W (d) 6 W
(v) The power dissipated in the primary coil is
(a) 12 W (b) 24 W (c) 0.24 W (d) 6 W
2. When a resistor of resistance R, inductor of inductance L, and a capacitor of capacitance C are connected
in series to an AC source. The current at any instant through the three elements has the same amplitude
and is represented as I = Io sin ωt. However, voltage across each element has a different phase relationship
with the current as shown in the phasor diagram.
The effective resistance of LCR circuit is called impedance (Z) of the circuit and the voltage leads the current
by a phase angle 𝜑. A resistor of 12Ω, a capacitor of reactance 14 Ω and an inductor of inductance 0.1 H are
connected in series with a source 200V, 50 Hz ac supply.
(i) The value of inductive reactance is
(a) 0.1 Ω (b) 62.8 Ω (c) 14 Ω (d) 31.4
(ii) Impedance of the circuit is
(a) 21.13 Ω (b) 42.26 Ω (c) 15 Ω (d) 30 Ω
(iii) The value of current in the circuit is
(a) 14 A (b) 5 A (c) 9.46 A (d) 6.28 A
(iv) The phase angle between current and voltage is
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(a) 50o (b) 53o4’ (c) 55o4’ (d) 63o9’
(v) Find the correct relationship from the phasor diagram
(a) VL > VC (b) VL < VC (c) VL = VC (d) VL ≥ VC
3. An AC source of emf E = Em sinωt is connected in series with an

inductor of inductance L. The instantaneous current in the circuit
is I = Im sin (ωt−π/2). The inductive reactance is XL = Lω.
(i) A 50 Hz AC is flowing in a 14 mH coil. The reactance of

the circuit is
(a) 15 Ω (b) 7.5 Ω (c) 8.8 Ω (d) 4.4 Ω
(ii) In a pure inductive circuit, the resistance offered to current is called
(a) Resistance (b) Inductive reactance
(c) Capacitive reactance (d) Resistance and reactance
(iii) In a pure inductive circuit, the phase angle between current and emf.
(a) 120o (b) 90o (c) 45o (d) 60o
(iv) How much inductance should be connected to 100V, 50Hz AC supply so that a maximum current
of 0.45A flows through it
(a) 5 H (b) 15 H (c) 1 H (d) 10 H
(v) Find the maximum value of current when inductance of 2 H is connected to 300V, 50 Hz supply.
(a) 0.337 V (b) 0.676 V (c) 1.512 V (d) 2.224 V
4. In an LCR circuit for a particular value of frequency of ac supply, the inductive reactance and
capacitive reactance become equal, the impedance of circuit is equal to the ohmic resistance in the
circuit only. This condition is called resonance and the frequency of the ac supply is known as resonant
frequency. Unlike the LCR circuit, resonance cannot be observed in an RL or RC circuit. A series LCR
circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480 nF, R = 23 Ω is connected to a 230 V as supply.
(i) The value of source frequency for which current amplitude is maximum.
(a) 222.32 Hz (b) 550.52 Hz (c) 770Hz (d) 663.48Hz
(ii) At resonance, find the value of current
(a) 22.52 A (b) 14.14 A (c) 47.41 A (d) 50.25 A
(iii) Find the Q factor of this circuit
(a) 42.21 (b) 35.42 (c) 21.74 (d) 25
(iv) Find the maximum power dissipated in the circuit
(a) 2299.3 W (b) 5500 W (c) 2200 W (d) 4700 W
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(v) At resonance, which of the physical quantity(s) is/are maximum?
(a) Current (b) Impedance (c) both a and b (d) None of these
5. Step-down transformers reduce the voltage level of an input ac. They are used to supply required
voltage to domestic use as well as factories. A small town has a demand of 800 kW of electric power
at 220 V is situated 15 km away from an electric plant generating power at 440 V. The resistance of
the two wires line carrying power is 0.5Ω per km. The town gets power from the line through a 4000
– 220 V step-down transformer at a sub-station in the town.
(i) The total resistance of the wire is

(a) 30 Ω (b) 35 Ω (c) 25 Ω (d) 15 Ω
(ii) Find the power loss in the line as heat
(a) 700 kW (b) 600 kW (c) 650 kW (d) 550 kW
(iii) Find the power supplied by the electric plant, if the power loss is negligible
(a) 1400 kW (b) 500 kW (c) 1600 kW (d) 600 kW
(iv) The total voltage transmitted from the plant is
(a) 7 kV (b) 3 kV (c) 4 kV (d) 0.5 kV
(v) The voltage drop in the power line is
(a) 3 kV (b) 2 kV (c) 1.7 kV (d) 2.8 kV
ANSWERS:
1 Mark Questions:
1.
2. The inductive reactance XL= ω L=2𝝅fL will increase with increase

of frequency f, while capacitive reactance XC = 1/ωC = 1/2𝝅fC will decrease with increase of
frequency.
3. Power factor= cos ϕ =0.5 =1/2

ϕ =60°
There is a phase difference of 60°
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4.
5.
Bandwidth is the difference of two frequencies when I=I0max /2
From figure we see that
Δ ω= 1.2- 0.8= 0.4 rad/s
6. peak value of emf in ac = E0
(i) Erms = E0/√2
(ii) Eavg= 0
7. (i) Curve A= Power
(ii) Device X is a capacitor.
8. Current through the bulb
Irms = Vrms/ Z
Z= [R2 +ω2 L2]1/2

When the no. of turns n in the inductor increases, L will increase as L∝n2 so Z will increase which will lead
to decrease in the current flowing through the bulb, so the brightness of the bulb will decrease.
9. When ω > 1/√LC, XL= ω L will be large and XC = 1/ωC will be small. So, XL > XC. So, the circuit will be
inductive. In inductive circuit, voltage leads current. i.e. current lags behind voltage. So, graph (a) corresponds
to ω > 1/√LC.
10. As Z= [R2 + (ωL-1/ωC)2]1/2
= [R2 + (2𝝅fL-1/2𝝅fC)2]1/2 and Iv =Ev /Z
The glow of the bulb will remain same when Iv remains same.
So, when f is doubled, L should be halved and C should be halved.
2 Mark Questions:
1. EP = 200 V, ES= 20 V, RL = 20 ohm

Efficiency= η= 80 %
IS= ES/ RL= 20/20 = 1A
η = Po/ Pi = ES IS/ EP IP
So IP =ES IS / η IP = (20×1×100) / (80 ×200) = 0.125 A
2. (i) A.C. can be transmitted to distant places without any significant line loss by using step up transformers.
(ii) A.C. can be reduced by using a choke coil without any significant loss of energy. As average power
consumed by a choke coil in one cycle is zero.
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3. Vrms = 220 V , 𝝂 = 50 Hz, C= 15 µF
XC = 1/ωC = 1/2𝝅 𝝂 C
= 1/(2 × 𝝅 ×50 × 15 ×10-6)
= 212 ohm
Irms = Vrms/XC = 220/212= 1.04 A
Io= √2 Irms = 1.414× 1.04 = 1.47 A
4. a) Power factor cos ϕ= R/Z where Z= [R2 + X2]1/2

(i) X= XC= aR
So, Z= [R2 + (aR)2]1/2
= R [a2 +1]1/2
So, cos ϕ= R/ R [a2 +1]1/2 = [a2 +1]-1/2
(ii) X= XL= bR
So, Z= [R2 + (bR)2]1/2
== R [b2 +1]1/2
So, cos ϕ= R/ R [b2 +1]1/2 = [b2 +1]-1/2
5. (i) In case of a resistor the current (I) and potential (V) are in phase.
In case of an inductor, V leads I by 𝝅/2. So VL leads VR by 𝝅/2.
In case of a capacitor, V lags behind I by 𝝅/2. So VC lags behind VR by 𝝅/2.
So VL and VC have a phase difference of 𝝅 so the phasor is
Veff = [VR 2+ (VL-VC)2]1/2
As VL= 250 V, VC = 250 V and they are out of phase so Veff = 200 V
(ii) As R= 40 ohm, VL=VC given

So XL= XC
Z= [R2 + (XL -XC)2]1/2 = R
So I= Veff/R =200/40= 5A
6.
ωr = 1/ √L1C1 = 1/√L2C2
So √L1C1 = √L2C2
For fine tuning, L1, C1 and R1 is better suited because Q-factor is high and resonance will be sharp.
7. (i) As per given graph for a frequency f= 100 Hz, XL= 20 ohm
So XL= ω L=2𝝅fL
⇒ L= XL/ 2𝝅f = 20/(2× 3.14×100) = 0.032 H
(ii) As at a ftrequency f0= 300 s-1 , XL= 60 ohm
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Impedance, Z= [R2 + XL 2]1/2
= [802 + 60 2]1/2
=100 ohm
8. (i) X is an inductor, because in series R-L circuit voltage leads current.

Y is a capacitor because in series R-C circuit voltage lags behind current.
(ii) In series LCR circuit Pav= Vrms Irms cos ϕ

If inductive reactance is not equal to capacitive reactance, so V and I are not in phase i.e.
cosϕ<1 so
power dissipated is minimum.
If XC = XL then ϕ=0 then power dissipated will maximum.
9. At the power station, the voltage of AC is stepped up by using step up transformer. This reduces the current
that flows through the cable. As energy lost as heat is I2Rt so it reduces the resistive power loss. Then at the
consumer end, the voltage is decreased using step down transformer.
10. Given V= 100 V, 𝝂 =50 Hz , R= 20 ohm, L= 2 mH
(i) Impedance of R-L circuits ,Z = [R2 + XL 2]1/2
= [R2 + (ωL) 2]1/2 = [R2 + (2𝝅 𝝂L) 2]1/2
=[202 + (2×3.14 ×50 ×2 ×10-3) 2]1/2
= [400 + (0.628) 2]1/2 ≈ 20 ohm
(ii) rms current = Irms = V/Z = 100/20 = 5A
3 Mark Questions:
1. (i) L= 80 mH = 80 × 10-3 H, C= 250 µF, Vrms = 240 V, ω=100 rad/s

Irms XC- Irms XL = 240, Irms =240 / XC-XL
= 240 / [(1/ 100 × 250 × 10-6)- (100 × 80 × 10-3 )]
Irms = 240/ (40-8) = 240/32= 7.5 A
(ii) Total average power consumed by the circuit is zero.
2. Np = 100, k=100 , EP= 220 V, Pin = 1100 W

(i) Pin = EP IP or IP = Pin / EP = 1100/220 = 5A
(ii) k = NS/ Np= ES/EP or ES= kEP = 100 × 220 = 22000V
(iii) PO = ES IS = 22000 × 5/100 = 1100 W
3. (i) As ωr = 1/ √LC
As ωr is same for two circuits
So √L1C1 = √L2C2 i.e. L1C1= L2C2
(ii) At resonance Z=R
Power factor = cos ϕ = R/Z= 1
Power factor is same for both the circuit and is equal to 1.
4. Given R= 200 ohm , C= 15 ×10-6 F , V=220 V, f=50 Hz

Capacitive reactance, XC = 1/ (2 ×3.14 ×50 × 15 ×10-6) = 212 ohm
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Impedance of circuit, Z= [R2 + XC 2]1/2 = [(200)2 + (212) 2]1/2 = 291.5 ohm
Irms = Vrms /Z = 220/ 291.5 = 0.75 A
Voltage across resistance, VR = IR = 200 × 0.75= 150 V
Voltage across capacitor, VC = IXC = 212 × 0.75= 159 V
Algebraic sum of VR and VC = VR+ VC = 150+159= 309 V > 212 V
This is because these voltage are not in same phase but VC lags behind VR by an angle 𝝅/2
So V= [VR 2 + VC 2]1/2 = [(150) 2 + (159) 2]1/2 =220 V
5. Impedance of circuit A
ZA= [R2 + XL2]1/2 = [R2 +9R2]1/2= √10 R
Impedance of circuit B
ZB = [R2 + (XL- XC)2 ]1/2 = [R2 + (3R- R)2 ]1/2 = [R2 + 4R2]1/2 = √5 R
Power factor = cos ϕ = R/Z
(cos ϕ)A/ (cos ϕ)B = ZB/ ZA = √5 R/√10 R= 1/√2
6. For power factor unity, XL = XC

ωL = 1/ωC
L=1/ω2C = 1/ 4 𝝅2f2 C
L= 1/ (4 ×3.14 ×3.14 ×50 ×50 ×10-4)= 0.1 H
Current amplitude, I0= V0/Z
At resonance Z=R
So I= 200√2/10= 28.28 A
7. (i) In a series LCR circuit

tan ϕ =XL- XC/ R or XC- XL/ R
XL=ωL = 1000 × 10-1 = 100 ohm
XC= 1/ωC= 1/ (1000 ×2 ×10-6)= 500 ohm
tan ϕ = (500-100)/ 400= 1
So ϕ= 45°
(ii) For power factor to be unity, R=Z

i.e. XL=XC
Let the new capacitance be C’
1/ω C’= 100 or C’= 1/(1000×100)= 10-5 F= 10 µF
We need to increase the capacitance from 2 µF to 10 µF. So, we should connect a capacitor of
8µF in parallel with a 2 µF capacitor.
8. In circuit (a) there will be no change in current as in case of a resistor, the opposition to current is not
affected by change in frequency.
(b) In this case as frequency increases, XL= 2𝝅fL will also increase.
(c) In case of a capacitor XC= 1/2𝝅fC
As the frequency of source will increase, the XC will decrease so the current will increase.
9. N=20 , r= 8 cm, ω= 50 rad/s

B= 3×10-2 T, R=10 ohm
(i) Max induced emf= E0= NBAω = NB𝝅r2ω
E0= 20× 3×10-2 ×3.14×64 ×10-4 ×50= 0.603 V
(ii) As Eav= E0 sin ωt =0 as average of sin ωt over a cycle is zero.
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(iii) Maximum current, I0 = E0/ R= 0.603/10= 0.0603 A
10. (i) When a.c. source is connected across a resistor, current and potential are in phase so
V=Vm sin ωt
Instantaneous power P= dW/dt
dW= Pdt = VI dt =Vm sin ωt Im sin ωt dt
W=∫ dW = 0∫T Vm Im sin2 ωt dt
= Vm Im 0∫T (1- cos 2 ωt)/2 dt
= Vm Im T/2
Pav= W/T= Vm Im/2 = Im2R/2
(ii) P= 100 W, Vrms =220 V

Pav= Vrms2/ R or R=Vrms2/Pav= (220)2/100 = 484 ohm
5 Mark Questions:
1.(i) EP= 2200 V, nP= 3000, nS= ?, ES= 220 V

ES/EP = nS/nP
So nS= 3000 ×1/10 = 300
(ii) A step up transformer converts a low voltage into high voltage,it does not violate principle of
conservation of energy as the increase in voltage is at the cost of current. When voltage increases
the current decreases.
(iii) Energy loss in a transformer:
(a) Eddy current loss: Alternating magnetic flux induces eddy currents in the iron core, which leads to
energy loss in the form of heat. It can be minimized by using laminated core.
(b) Hysteresis loss: AC carries the core to the process of magnetization and demagnetization. Work is done
in each of these cycles resulting into loss of energy.
2. (i) Consider a coil consisting of N turns of insulated copper wire rotated in a uniform magnetic field B. Let
the angle between magnetic field and area vector at any point of time be θ. The coil is rotated with angular
velocity ω.
ϕ= NBA cos θ
θ= ωt
So ϕ= NBA cos ωt
E= -dϕ/ dt= -NBAω (- sin ωt)= ANBω sin ωt
E=0 when ωt=0
E= max when ωt=𝝅/2
Emax = NBAω =E0
Ein = E0 sin ωt
(ii) A= 200 cm2 = 200 ×10-4 m2, N=20, ω= 50 rad/s , B= 3×10-2 T

E0= NBA ω= 20× 3×10-2× 200 ×10-4× 50 = 0.6 V
131
3. (i) Curve B is for inductive reactance and Curve C for
resistance.
(ii) Impedance of a series LCR circuit is
Z= [R2 +(XL- XC )2]1/2
At resonance, XL= XC
So Z=R. So the circuit behave as a purely resistive
circuit at resonance. Phase relationship
between current and voltage in series LCR circuit.
(i) When XL> XC (ii) XL= XC , tanϕ=0
(iii) It is a series LCR circuit. It is used in tuning of radio sets.
MCQ
1. d 2. c 3. a 4. b 5. c
6. b 7. a 8. b 9. d 10. b
Case study
1. i - (a) 1.2 V Ip/Is = Vs/Vp
ii - (b) 0.2 A Is = Vs/R
iii - (c) 0.02 A Ip/Is = Vs/Vp
iv - (b) 0.24 W Pp = VpIp
v - (c) 0.24 W Ps = VsIs
2. i - (d) 31.4 XL = ωL = 2πf L
ii - (a) 21.13 Z = √𝑅 2 + (𝑋𝐶 − 𝑋𝐿 )2
iii - (c) 9.46A Im = Vm/Z
𝑋𝐶 −𝑋𝐿
iv - (c) 55o4’ tanφ = 𝑅
v - (a) VL > VC
3. i - (d) 4.4 Ω XL = ωL = 2πf L
ii - (b) Inductive reactance
iii - (b) 90o
iv - (c) 1 H Im = Em/XL
v - (b) 0.676 V Im = Em/XL
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4. i - (d) 663.48Hz ω = 2πf, ω = 1/√𝐿𝐶
ii - (b) 14.14 A Is = Vs/R
iii - (c) 21.74 Q = XL/R
iv - (a) 2299.3 W Pmax = ½ Im2R
v - (a) Current
5. i - (d) 15 Ω Total resistance = (15+15) x 0.5
ii - (b) 600 kW I = P/V, P =I2R
iii - (a) 1400 kW
iv - (a) 7 kV
v - (a) 3 kV V = IR
133
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
134
BASIC CONCEPTS OF DISPLACEMENT CURRENT
Maxwell modified the Ampere’s law by suggesting that the source of magnetic field is not just the conduction electric
current due to the flow of charges, but also the time rate of change of electric field(displacement current).
DISPLACEMENT CURRENT : Dispalcement current arise due to electric flux changing with time.
ID =
MAXWELL’S EQUATIONS:
Gauss’s Law in Electrostatics :
Gauss’s Law in Magnetism:
Faraday’s- Lenz’s law of Electromagnetic Induction:
Ampere’s- Maxwell law :
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES:
The variation of electric and magnetic fields, perpendicular to each other , producing electromagnetic disturbance in
space at right angles to each other, which have the properties of waves and propagate through free space without any
material medium is called electromagnetic wave.
PROPERTIES OF EM WAVES:
• They are produced by oscillating or accelerating charges.

• They do not require any medium for their propagation.
• They are transverse in nature.
• The amplitudes of electric and magnetic fields are related by
• All EM waves travels through space or vaccum with the speed of 3 x 108m/s and it is given by the
relation
• EM waves carry energy, which is shared equally between electrc and magnetic field vectors.
• EM waves carry momentum and exert a radiation pressure.
Momentum, p = U/c
• The velocity of EM waves depends entirely on electric and magnetic properties of the medium in
which they travel and is independent of the amplitude of field vectors.
135
ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM :
The orderly arrangement of electromagnetic radiations according to its frequqency or wavelengthis called
electromagnetic spectrum.
EM SPECTRUM, ITS PRODUCTION, DETECTION AND USE
Type of Wavelength Production Detection Uses

wave range
Frequency
Range
➢ Used in radio & TV
Rapid
Communication.
acceleration and
Radio > 0.1 m ➢ Cellular phones used
deceleration of Receiver’s aerials
Waves 109 Hz to 105Hz radio waves to transmit
electrons in
voice communication.in
aerials
the UHF band.
➢ Used in radar system for
aircraft navigation.
➢ Used in long distance
communication.
➢ Used in microwave
0.1m to 1 mm Klystron valve or Point contact oven.
Microwave
1011Hz to 109Hz Magnetron valve diodes ➢ Used in detecting the
speed of cricket ball,
tennis ball, speed of
vehicle etc.
➢ Used in study of atomic
& molecular structure.
Thermophiles ➢ Greenhouse effect
1 mm to 700 nm Vibration of
Bolometer, ➢ Used in haze
Infrared 1011Hz to atoms or
Infrared photography.
1014Hz molecules
photographic film
136
➢ IR lamps are used in
Physical therapy.
➢ IR detectors are used in
Earth satellites, both for
military purposes and to
observe growth of crops.
➢ Used in remote control
of TV & VCD.
➢ Used in weather
forecasting through IR
photography.
➢ It produced the sense of
700 nm to 400
The eye, vision.
Visible nm Electron in atom
Photocells ➢ Used in photography.
Light 4 x 1014Hz to 8 during transition
Photographic film ➢ Used in optical
x 1014Hz
instruments.
➢ UV lamps are used to
kill germs in water
Inner shell
purifier.
electron in atom
400 nm to 1 nm ➢ Used in LASIK eye
moving from one Photocell &
Ultra violet 8 x 1014Hz to surgery.
energy level to a Photographic film
1016Hz ➢ Used in burglar alarms.
lower energy
➢ Used to check forged
level
documents in the
forensic labs.
➢ Used as diagnostic tool
in medicine to take the
picture of internal organ
of human body for the
Photographic
detection of fracture.
1 nm to 10-3nm X- ray tube or film,
➢ Used to study the crystal
X –rays 1016 Hz to inner shell Geiger tubes
structure.
1021Hz electrons Ionisation
➢ Used to detect the faults,
chamber
cracks & holes in metal
sheets.
➢ Used in treatment of
certain form of cancer.
137
➢ Used in treatment of
Photographic cancer & tumour
< 10-3nm film, ➢ Used to study the
Gamma Radioactive decay
1019Hz to Geiger tube structure of atomic
rays of the nucleus
1023Hz Ionisation nuclei
chamber ➢ Used for detecting flaws
in metal castings.
MUTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Electromagnetic waves are produced by
(a) a static charge (b)a moving charge (c)an accelerating charge (d) chargeless particles
2. An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by E=Eₒ sin (kx - ωt). Which of the
following is/are independent of the wave length?
(a) k (b) ω (c) k/ω (d) k ω
3. Dimensions of 1/√µₒɛₒ is
(a)L/T (b) T/L (c) L2/T2 (d) T2/L2
4. An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by E=Eₒ sin (kx - ωt); B=Bₒ sin (kx -
ωt). Then
(a) Eₒ k=Bₒ ω (b) EₒBₒ=ω k (c) Eₒ ω=Bₒ k (d) none of these
5. A magnetic field can be produced by
(a) moving charge (b)a changing electric field (c) none of them (d) both of them
6. Name the part of the electromagnetic spectrum whose wave length lies in the range 10-10m
(a) micro waves (b) X rays (c) ν rays (d) UV rays
7. A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material surface. The wave delivers momentum p and
energy E.
(a) p=0, E=0 (c) p≠0 E=0 (c) p≠0, E≠0 (d)p=0,E=0
8. Which of the following laws was modified by Maxwell by introducing the displacement current?
(a) Gauss’s Law (b) Amperes law (c) Biot –Savarts law (d) Coulombs law
9. Choose the wave relevant to telecommunication
(a)Ultra Violet (b) Infrared (c) Radio wave (d) Visible light
10. Which of the following E M Wave has the highest wave length?
(a) X- ray (b) U V rays (c) Infrared (d) Micro waves
138
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)
11. For an electromagnetic wave, write the relationship between amplitudes of electric and magnetic fields
in free space.
12. State two characteristics of an electromagnetic wave
13. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along X direction. What can you say about the
directions of electric and magnetic field vectors?
14. What was the range of wave lengths of E M waves produced by Professor J C Bose?
15. Name the electromagnetic waves that have frequencies greater than those of ultra violet but less than
those of gamma rays
16. Write the frequency limit of visible range of electromagnetic spectrum in visible range?
17. Arrange the following in descending order of wave length: X rays, Radio waves, Blue light, Infrared
light.
18. Name the electromagnetic radiations used for viewing objects through haze and fog.
19. The wave length values, λ1 and λ2of two spectral lines, of the electromagnetic spectrum are 1800nm
and 0.12 nm respectively. Calculate the ratio υ1/ υ2 of their frequencies.
20. Special devices, like Klystron valve or magnetron valve are used for the production of EM waves.
Name these waves and also write one of their applications.
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)
21. Draw a sketch of electromagnetic spectrum, showing the relative positions of UV, IR, X rays, and
microwaves with respect to visible light. State approximate wavelength of any two.
22. What is meant by transverse nature of EM waves? Draw a diagram showing the propagation of an EM
wave along the X direction, indicating clearly the directions of oscillating electric and magnetic fields
associated with it.
23. Identify the following electromagnetic radiations as per the frequencies given below. Write one
application of each. (a) 1020 Hz (b) 1022 Hz (c)1017 Hz.
24. Name the electromagnetic radiation having the wave length range from 10-1 m to 10-3 m. Give its two
important applications.
25. Write expressions for (i) linear momentum and (ii) pressure exerted by an em wave on a surface.
26. The oscillating electric field of an EM wave is given by
Ey = 30 sin [ 2x 1011t + 300 πx] V/m
(a) Obtain the value of the wavelength of EM wave.
(b) Write down the expression for oscillating magnetic field.
139
27. Electromagnetic radiations with wavelength:
(i) λ1 are used to kill germs in water purifier.
(ii) λ2 are used in TV communications.
(iii) λ3 play an important role in maintaining earth’s warmth.
Name the part of EM spectrum to which these radiations belongs. Arrange these wavelengths
in decreasing order of their magnitude.
28. The oscillating magnetic field of an EM wave is given by
By = 8 x 10-6 sin [ 2 x 1011t + 300 πx] Tesla
(a) Calculate the wave length of EM wave
(b) Write down the expression for oscillating electric field.
ASSERTION –REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
29. Assertion – A charge moving in a circular orbit can produce electromagnetic wave.
Reason – The source of electromagnetic wave should be in accelerated motion.
30. Assertion – Sound waves cannot travel in vacuum but light can travel in vacuum.
Reason – Sound waves are longitudinal waves and they cannot be polarised but electromagnetic
waves are transverse and they can be polarised.
31. Assertion – The earth without it’s atmosphere would be inhospitably cold.
Reason – All heat would escape in the absence of atmosphere.
32. Assertion – In electromagnetic waves electric field and magnetic field lines are perpendicular to
each other.
Reason – Electric field and magnetic field are self-sustaining.
33. Assertion – UV radiation causes photo dissociation of ozone into O2 and O, thus causing damage to
the stratospheric ozone layer.
Reason – Ozone hole is resulting in global warming and climate change.
140
I. According to Maxwell’s electromagnetic equations it has been proved that electric and magnetic field
vectors are perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the direction of propagation as
shown in the figure below. If EX is the electric field along X axis, then BY will be the direction of
magnetic field along Y axis and both which are perpendicular to the Z axis showing direction of
propagation. The light waves are also the electromagnetic waves and may travel through vacuum
also. So, we can find the velocity of a light traveling through the material medium having permittivity
‘ε’ and magnetic permeability ‘μ’ as v = 1/ √εμ.
In this way, we proved that velocity of light also depends on the electrical and magnetic properties
of that medium through which it is traveling. The velocity of light which is a constant, having value
as 3 x 108 m/s. The most technological importance of EM waves is that they are having strong
capacity to take energy from one place to another place. The best examples are radio waves, TV
signals which also carry energy from their broadcasting stations. Also, life is possible on the earth
only because of the sunlight coming from the sun to the earth which also carry energy and it is nothing
but the EM waves. Due to which EM waves are considered as the transverse waves.
(i) The ratio of permittivity of the medium to the permittivity of vacuum is called as _____.
(a) Permeability (c) Dielectric constant of the medium
(b) Permittivity of free space (d) Electric intensity
(ii) Who showed that electromagnetic waves can be produced?
(a) Maxwell (c) Ampere
(b) Hertz (d) Michelson and Morley
(iii) The pressure exerted by the electromagnetic wave is called as
(a) Light pressure (c) Magnetic pressure

(b) Electric pressure (d) Radiation pressure
141
(iv) What is the relationship between magnitude of magnetic field and electric field in case of
electromagnetic waves from Maxwell’s equations?
(v) What is meant by permittivity and permeability of the medium?
II. The electromagnetic spectrum consists of visible light, x-rays, gamma rays, microwaves, ultrsviolet
rays, radio waves and infrared waves. The waves used in radio and television communication are the
radio waves having frequency range 500kHz to 1000MHz. In the ultrahigh frequency bands cellular
phones uses th radio waves to transmit voice. Microwaves are the waves having short wavelength. In
aircraft navigation, for the radar system microwaves are used due to their short waveleght.
Infrared waves are also called as heat waves. Infrared radiation has most importance in maintaining
earth’s surface temperature through greenhouse effect. The infrared waves have vast application in
real life such as infrared detectors are used military purposes and also to see the groth of cropes. The
waves which are visible to human eye are the visible rays. Visible rays are having frequency range
as 4 x1014 Hz to 7 x 1014Hz. The huge source of ultraviolet light is the sun. Ultra violet rays have
wavelegth range from 4 x 10-7m to 6 x 10-10m. X- rays are used to destroy the living tissue and
organisms in medical field. Then gamma rays are the rays having wavelegth range as 10-10 m to 10-
14
m which are the high frequency radiations mostly produced in nuclear reactions. Gamma rays are
also used to destroy cancer cells in medical field.
(i) The TV waves range from _______________ which are the radio waves.
(a) 54 Hz to 890 Hz
(b) 54 MHz to 890 MHz
(c) 500kHz to 1000 MHz
(d) 1000 Hz to 1000 KHz
(ii) The domestic application of microwave used is _______________
(a) Electrical induction
(b) Water heater
(c) TV
(d) Microwave oven
(iii) The part of the electromagnetic spectrum which is detected by human eye is having
wavelength as
(a) 900 – 400 nm

(b) 200 – 400 nm
(c) 100 – 400 nm
(d) 700 – 400 nm
(iv) Why infrared waves are also called as heat waves?
(v) How ozone layer in atmosphere plays a protective role?
142
III. In an electromagnetic wave both the electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to the direction of
propagation, that is why electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature. Electromagnetic waves carry
energy as they travel through space and this energy is shared equally by the electric and magnetic
fields. Energy density of an electromagnetic wave is the energy in unit volume of the space through
which the wave travels.
(i) The electromagnetic waves propagated perpendicular to both E and B. The electromagnetic
waves travel in the direction of
(ii) The fundamental particle in an electromagnetic wave is

(a) Photon (c) Electron
(b) Phonon (d) Proton
(iii) Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature is evident by

(a) Polarisation (c) Interference
(b) Reflection (d) diffraction
(iv) For a wave propagating in a medium, identify the property that is independent of the others.
(a) Velocity (c) Frequency
(b) Wavelength (d) All these depend on each other
(v) The electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic waves are
(a) in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other
(b) In opposite phase and parallel to each other
(c) In phase and perpendicular to each other
(d) In phase and parallel to each other
MARKING SCHEME – EM WAVES
1. c 2. c 3. a 4. a 5. d
6. b 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. d
11. E0 /B0 = c = 1/√ µ0↋0
12. (i) The EM Waves travel in free space with a speed of 3x108 m/s.
(ii) They are transverse in nature.
13. Electric field vectors are along Y direction and magnetic field vectors are along Z direction.
OR
Electric field vectors are along Z direction and magnetic field vectors are along Y direction.
14. J.C Bose was able to produce em waves of the wave length ranging from 25mm to 5mm.
143
15. X rays
16. 4x 1011kHz to7.7x1011 kHz
17. Radio waves >Infrared >Red>Yellow> γ Rays
18. Infrared
19. υ1/υ2=λ2/λ1 =0.12/1800 =1/15000
20. Microwaves used in Microwave ovens.
21.
22. The directions of oscillations of E and B are perpendicular to direction of propagation of e.m waves.
So these waves are transverse in nature.
23. (a)X rays in the study of crystal structure

(b) γ Rays used in the treatment of malignant tumors
(c) U V rays used in food preservation.
24. Micro waves, they are used in (i) radar systems (ii) in microwave ovens.
25. If an electromagnetic wave transfers total energy U to a surface in time t, then the total linear
momentum delivered to the surface is p=U/c.
The radiation pressure for an em wave is of intensity I is given by Pr =I/c.
26. Ey = E0 Sin [kx + ωt]
k = 2π / λ λ = 0.67 cm B0 = E0 /c B0 = 10-7 T
27. (i) λ1 (UV)
(ii) λ2 (Radio wave)
(iii) λ3 (IR)
Decreasing order of magnitude λ2 > λ3 > λ1
144
28. By = B0 Sin [kx + ωt]
k = 2π / λ λ = 0.67 cm
E0 = c B0 E0 = 2400 V/m
ASSERTION –REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (b)
QUESTION I:
(i). (c) dielectric constant of the medium
(ii). (b) Hertz
(iii). (d) radiation pressure
(iv). From Maxwells equqtions,the relationship between magnitude of electric field and magnetic field
is given as B˳=E˳/c
(v). Permittivity of the medium is the ability of that medium to store electric potential energyin that
medium.While permeability of the medium is the ability of the mediumto alloe the number of field
lines through it
QUESTION II:
(i). (b)54MHz to 890 MHz (ii). (d) Micro wave oven (iii). (d)700-400nm
(iv). Infra red waves are the waves which have the frequency lower than the frequency of visible
range.Water molecules present in most materials readily absorb infrared waves.(Many other
molecules,for example CO2 ,NH3 also absorb infra red waves).After absorption ,their thermal
motion increases ,ie,they heat up and heat their surroundings.
(v). The very harmful UV rays coming from sun are absorbed by ozone layer in the atmospherewhich
is at an altitude of 40-50 km from the earth surface.And due to which very less U V rays from the
sun reach the earth.UV rays in large quantities are very harmful to human which may cause skin
cancer.In this way ozone layer in the atmosphere plays a very protective role.
QUESTION III:
(i). (b) E x B
(ii). (a) Photon
(iii). (a) Polarisation
(iv). (c) Frequency
145
ADDED QUESTIONS
ASSERTION - REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

In the following questions, mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion. A charge moving in a circular orbit can produce electromagnetic wave.
Reason. The source of electromagnetic wave should be in accelerated motion.
2. Assertion. The frequencies of incident, reflected and refracted beam of monochromatic light incident
from one medium to another are same.
Reason. The incident, reflected and refracted rays are coplanar.
3. Assertion. Sound waves cannot travel in vacuum but light can travel in vacuum.
Reason. Sound waves are longitudinal waves and they cannot be polarised but electromagnetic waves
are transverse waves and they can be polarised.
4. Assertion. Radio waves can be polarized.
Reason. Sound waves in air are longitudinal in nature.
5. Assertion. Dipole oscillations produce electromagnetic waves.
Reason. Accelerated charge produces electromagnetic waves.
6. Assertion. The earth without its atmosphere would be inhospitably cold.
Reason. All heat would escape in the absence of atmosphere.
7. Assertion. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
Reason. The electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave are perpendicular to each other
and also perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
8. Assertion. Electromagnetic radiations exert pressure.
Reason. Electromagnetic waves carry both momentum and energy.
9. Assertion. UV radiation causes photo dissociation of ozone into O2 and O, thus causing damage to
stratospheric ozone layer.
Reason. Ozone hole is resulting in global warming and climate change.
10. Assertion. X-ray astronomy is possible only from satellites orbiting the earth.
Reason. Efficiency of X ray telescope is large as compared to any other telescope.
1.(a)
2 (b)
3. (b)
4. (b)
5. (a)
6.(a) In the absence of Greenhouse effect ,the earth will become cold.
7.(a)
8.(a)
9.(b)
10.(c) The earth atmosphere absorbs X rays, X ray astronomy is possible only from satellites orbiting
the earth at a height of 36000 km where the earth atmosphere is thin.
146
CASE BASED QUESTION 1
I. ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM
II.
Maxwell s equations are applicable for electromagnetic waves of all wavelengths. Visible light has
wavelengths roughly in the range 380nm to 780nm.Today we are familiar with electromagnetic waves
having wavelengths as small as 30fm (1fm=10-15m) to as large as 30km.Figure shows E M spectrum
we are familiar with. The boundaries separating different regions of spectrum are not sharply defined.
The gamma region and X ray region overlap considerably. We can only say that on the average,
wavelengths of gamma rays are shorter than those of X rays.
1. In the order of increasing frequency, the electromagnetic spectrum may be arranged as:
a. gamma rays, X rays, Visible light, Radio waves.
b. X rays, gamma rays, visible light, radio waves.
c. Radio waves, visible light, X rays, gamma rays.
d. Radio waves, visible light, gamma rays, X rays.
2. The condition under which a micro wave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules
most efficiently, is
a. The frequency of micro waves must match the resonant frequency of water molecules.
b. The frequency of microwaves has no relation with natural frequency of water molecules.
c. Micro waves are heat waves, so always produce heating.
d. Infrared waves produce heating in a micro wave oven.
3. The structure of solids is investigated by using
a. Cosmic rays (b) X rays (c) Gamma rays (d) infrared radiation
4. Which of the following radiations has the least wave length?
a. γ rays (b) β rays (c) α rays (d) X rays
147
ANSWER KEY
Case Study 1
1.(c) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(a)
CASE BASED QUESTION 2
III. The basic source of electromagnetic waves is an accelerated charge This produces changing electric
field and changing magnetic field which constitute the wave. Radio waves may be produced by
charges accelerating in AC circuits having an inductor and a capacitor. An LC circuit containing
inductance L and Capacitance C produces electromagnetic waves of frequency, ν = 1/2π√LC .These
waves are used in radio and T V communication. Micro waves are also produced by such electric
circuits with oscillating current. They are used for radar systems among other applications. Infrared
waves are emitted by atoms and molecules of hot bodies. Among the electromagnetic waves, visible
light is most familiar to us. This is emitted by atoms under suitable conditions. The sun emits large
amount of ultraviolet radiation. X rays are produced when fast moving electrons decelerate inside a
metal target. Gamma rays are emitted by nuclei and have the highest frequency among the
electromagnetic waves we generally deal with.
1. Light can travel in vacuum due to its
(a) transverse nature (b) electromagnetic nature
(c) longitudinal nature (d) both a and c
2. If a source is transmitting electromagnetic waves of frequency 8.2x 106Hz,the wave length of
electromagnetic wave transmitted from the source is
(a) 35.6m (b) 18.8 m (c) 42.8m (d) 58m
3. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along k direction, where i , j , k are unit vectors along
x,y,z directions. The direction along which the electric and the magnetic field vectors point may be
respectively
(a) i and j (b) i and –j (c) j and I (d) k and i
4. The amplitude of the magnetic field part of a harmonic em wave in vacuum is B0 =510nT.The
amplitude of electric part of the wave is
(a) 124 N/C (b) 314N/C (c) 120 N/C (d) 153 N/C
ANSWER KEY Case Study 2
1.(b) 2. (a) 3.(a) The direction of propagation is along E x B ie, along i x j 4.(d)
MCQ
1. Which of the following rays are not electromagnetic waves?
a. γ rays (b) β rays (c) X rays (d) heat rays
2. The electromagnetic waves with shortest wave length among the following is
a. Microwaves (b) UV rays (c) X rays (d) Gamma rays
3. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultra violet and gamma rays is
a. microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
b. gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwave
c. microwave, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
d. infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
4. The energy of em waves is of the order of 15keV.To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does
it belong?
a. γ rays (b) X rays (c) infrared rays (d) ultraviolet rays
5. What is the cause of greenhouse effect?
a. infrared rays (b) ultraviolet rays (c) X rays (d) radio waves
ANSWER KEY
1.(b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4.(b) 5.(a)
148
Ray Optics & Optical Instruments
Reflection: When light is incident on a surface, it is sent back by the surface in the same medium through
which it had come. This phenomenon is called ‘reflection of light’ by the surface.
The bending of the ray of light passing from one medium to the other medium obliquely is called refraction.
Laws of reflection: The reflection at a plane surface always takes place in accordance with the following two
laws:
(i) The incident ray, the reflected ray and normal to surface at the point of incidence all lie in the same
plane
(ii) The angle of incidence i is equal to the angle of reflection r, i. e.,
Formation of Image by the Plane Mirror: The formation of image of a point object O by a plane mirror
is represented in figure
149
The image formed I has the following characteristics
Reflection of Light from Spherical Mirror
a) A spherical mirror is a part cut from a hollow sphere.
b) They are generally constructed from glass.
c) The reflection at spherical mirror also takes place in accordance with the laws of reflection
Sign Convention: Following sign conventions are the new cartesian sign convention:
i) All distances are measured from the pole of the mirror & the distances measured in the direction
of the incident light is taken as positive. In other words, the distances measured toward the right of
the origin are positive
ii) The distance measured against the direction of the incident light are taken as negative. In other
words, the distances measured towards the left of origin are taken as negative
iii) The distance measured in the upward direction, perpendicular to the principal axis of the mirror,
are taken as positive & the distances measured in the downward direction are taken as negative.
• Mirror Formula:
•
Where u = distance of the object from the pole of mirror
v = distance of the image from the pole of mirror
f = focal length of the mirror
Where R is the radius of curvature of the mirror.

• Magnification: It is defined as the ratio of the size of the image to that of the object.
Linear magnification,
Where I = size of image and O = size of obje
• Magnification, m is positive, implies that the image is real and inverted.
• Magnification, m is negative, implies that the image is virtual and erect.
Refraction: The bending of light rays when it travelling from one transparent medium to another transparent
medium obliquely is called refraction
150
(1) The refraction of light takes place on going from one medium to another because the speed of light is
different in the two media.
(2) Greater the difference in the speeds of light in the two media, greater will be the amount of refraction.
(3) A medium in which the speed of light is more is known as optically rarer medium and a medium is which
the speed of light is less, is known as optically denser medium.
(4) When a ray of light goes from a rarer medium to a denser medium, it bends towards the normal.
Incident ray
i Rarer medium
Deviation  = (i – r) 
Denser medium Refracted ray
(5) When a ray of light goes from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it bends away from the normal.
Denser medium
i
Deviation  = (r – i )
r
Rarer medium

(6) Snell’s law : The ratio of sine of the angle of incidence to the angle of refraction (r) is a constant called
refractive index
sin i 2 sin i
i.e. = (a constant). For two media, Snell's law can be written as 1 2 = =
sin r 1 sin r
 1  sin i =  2  sin r i.e.  sin  = constant

Also in vector form : ˆi  n
ˆ =  ( rˆ  n
ˆ)
Refractive Index
(1) Refractive index of a medium is that characteristic which decides speed of light in it.
(2) It is a scalar, unit less and dimensionless quantity.
(3) Absolute refractive index : When light travels from vacuum to any transparent medium then refractive
c
index of medium w.r.t. vacuum is called it’s absolute refractive index i.e. vacuum  medium = .
v
Absolute refractive indices for glass, water and diamond are respectively
3 4 12
g = = 1 .5, w = = 1 .33 and D = = 2 .4
2 3 5
(4) Relative refractive index : When light travels from medium (1) to medium (2) then refractive index of
 2 v1
medium (2) w.r.t. medium (1) is called it’s relative refractive index i.e. 1  2 = = (where v1 and v2 are the
1 v 2
speed of light in medium 1 and 2 respectively).
(5) When we say refractive index we mean absolute refractive index.
(6) The minimum value of absolute refractive index is 1. For air it is very near to 1. ( ~= 1 .003 )
(Red  violetso Red   violet)
(8) If a light ray travels from medium (1) to medium (2), then
 2 1 v 1
1 2 = = =
1  2 v 2
151
(9) Dependence of Refractive index
(i) Nature of the media of incidence and refraction.
(ii) Colour of light or wavelength of light.
(iii) Temperature of the media : Refractive index decreases with the increase in temperature.
Table 29.2 : Indices of refraction for various substances, Measured with light of vacuum wavelength
0 = 589 nm
Substance Refract Substance Refract
ive ive
index index
Solids at 20°C Liquids at
20°C
Diamond (C) 2.419 Benzene 1.501
Fluorite 1.434 Carbon 1.628
(CaF2) disulfide
Flused quartz 1.458 Carbon 1.461
(SiO2) tetrachloride
Glass, crown 1.52 Ethyl alcohol 1.361
Glass, flint 1.66 Glycerine 1.473
Ice (H2O) (at 1.309 Water 1.333
o
0 C)
Polystyrene 1.49 Gases at
0°C,
1 atm
Sodium 1.544 Air 1.00029
chloride 3
Zircon 1.923 Carbon 1.00045
dioxide
(10) Reversibility of light and refraction through several media

Incident
1
1 ray
i 2
r
3
2
1 2  2 1 3  3 1 = 1
1
(A) 1 2 = (B) 1 3
2 1 or 2 3 =
1 2
Real and Apparent Depth

If object and observer are situated in different medium then due to refraction, object appears to be displaced
from it’s real position.
(1) When object is in denser medium and observer is in rarer medium

h
Real depth h h O
(i) = =
Apparent depth h d O
(ii) Real depth > Apparent depth
152
 1 4 h 3 h
(iii) Shift d = h − h' =  1 −  h . For water  = d = ; For glass  =  d =
  3 4 2 3
(iv) Lateral magnification : consider an object of height x placed vertically in a medium 1 such that the
lower end (B) is a distance h from the interface and the upper end (A) at a distance (h – x) from the interface.
Opti
cal
1
(h – x) A'
h B'
A
B
2
Distance of image of B (i.e. B') from the interface = h
1
2
Distance of image of A (i.e. A') from the interface = (h − x )
1
2
Therefore, length of the image x
1
2 1
or, the lateral magnification of the object m= =
1 
(v) If a beaker contains various immiscible liquids as shown then

d1 d2 d3
Apparent depth of bottom = + + + ....
1 2 3 1 d1
2 d2
d AC d + d 2 + .....
 combination = = 1 3 d3
d App . d1 d 2
+ + ....
1 2
2 1  2
(In case of two liquids if d1 = d 2 than = )
1 +  2
O d
(2) Object is in rarer medium and observer is in denser medium h
O h
h'
(i) =
h
(ii) Real depth < Apparent depth.

(iii) d = ( − 1)h
h h
(iv) Shift for water dw = ; Shift for glass dg =
3 2
Refraction Through a Glass Slab

(1) Lateral shift : The refracting surfaces of a glass slab are parallel to each other. When a light ray passes
through a glass slab it is refracted twice at the two parallel faces and finally emerges out parallel to it's incident
direction i.e. the ray undergoes no deviation  = 0. The angle of emergence (e) is equal to the angle of incidence
(i) i
r 
t
r
N

M
e
The Lateral shift of the ray is the perpendicular distance between the incident and the emergent ray, and it is
given by
MN = t sec r sin (i – r)
153
(2) Normal shift : If a glass slab is placed in the path of a converging or diverging beam of light then point
of convergence or point of divergence appears to be shifted as shown
O' O
Normal shift x

 1
OO ' = x =  1 −  t t
  
(3) Optical path : It is defined as distance travelled by light in vacuum in the same time in which it travels
a given path length in a medium.
x
Time taken by light ray to pass through the medium = ; where x = geometrical path and x = optical
c
path

Light
Total Internal Reflection (TIR)
When a ray of light goes from denser to rarer medium it bends away from the normal and as the angle of
incidence in denser medium increases, the angle of refraction in rarer medium also increases and at a certain
angle, angle of refraction becomes 90o, this angle of incidence is called critical angle (C).
When Angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle than light ray comes back in to the same medium after
reflection from interface. This phenomenon is called Total internal reflection (TIR).
r
90°
i C  >C 
1
(1) = = cosec C where → Rarer Denser
sin C
(2) Conditions for TIR

(i) The ray must travel from denser medium to rarer medium.
(ii) The angle of incidence i must be greater than critical angle C
(3) Dependence of critical angle
1
(i) Colour of light (or wavelength of light) : Critical angle depends upon wavelength as   sin C

(a)  R  V  C R  C V
1  R D v D
(b) Sin C = = = = (for two media)
R D  D R v R
(ii) Nature of the pair of media : Greater the refractive index lesser will be the critical angle.
(a) For (glass- air) pair → C glass = 42 o
154
(b) For (water-air) pair → C water = 49 o
(c) For (diamond-air) pair → C di amond = 24 o
(iii) Temperature : With temperature rise refractive index of the material decreases therefore critical angle
increases.
Common Examples of TIR
(1) Looming : An optical illusion in cold countries
(2) Mirage : An optical illusion in deserts
(3) Brilliance of diamond : Due to repeated internal reflections diamond sparkles.
(4) Optical fibre : Optical fibres consist of many long high quality composite glass/quartz fibres. Each
fibre consists of a core and cladding.
(i) The refractive index of the material of the core (1) is higher than that of the cladding (2).
(ii) When the light is incident on one end of the fibre at a small angle, the light passes inside, undergoes
repeated total internal reflections along the fibre and finally comes out. The angle of incidence is always larger
than the critical angle of the core material with respect to its cladding.
(iii) Even if the fibre is bent, the light can easily travel through along the fibre
(iv) A bundle of optical fibres can be used as a 'light pipe' in medical and optical examination. It can also
be used for optical signal transmission. Optical fibres have also been used for transmitting and receiving
electrical signals which are converted to light by suitable transducers.
2
Clad 1
ding
Clad
C
ding
o
r
e
(5) Field of vision of fish (or swimmer) : A fish (diver) inside the water can see the whole world through
a cone with. r
C  >C
h
C
(a) Apex angle = 2C = 98 o C

h 3h
(b) Radius of base r = h tan C = ; for water r=
2 −1 7
h2 9 2
(c) Area of base A = ; for water a= h
( 2 − 1) 7
(6) Porro prism : A right angled isosceles prism, which is used in periscopes or binoculars. It is used to
deviate light rays through 90 o and 180 o and also to erect the image.
45o
90o
45o 45o
45o
45o 45o
90o 45o
B A
B
A
90o
45o 45o
155
Refraction From Spherical Surface
1 1
2 2
O P I O P I
 2 − 1 2 1
(1) Refraction formula : = −
R v u
Where 1 = Refractive index of the medium from which light rays are coming (from object).
 2 = Refractive index of the medium in which light rays are entering.
u = Distance of object, v = Distance of image, R = Radius of curvature
(2) Lateral magnification : The lateral magnification m is the ratio of the image height to the object height
 h    v  1
or m =  i  =  1   
 h0    2   u 
2
h0 C
P hi
u v
Lens
(1) Lens is a transparent medium bounded by two refracting surfaces, such that at least one surface is
curved. Curved surface can be spherical, cylindrical etc.
(2) Lenses are of two basic types convex which are thicker in the middle than at the edges and concave for
which the reverse holds.
(3) As there are two spherical surfaces, there are two centres of curvature C1 and C2 and correspondingly
two radii of curvature R1 and R2
(4) The line joining C1 and C2 is called the principal axis of the lens. The centre of the thin lens which is
on the principal axis, is called the optical centre.
(5) A ray passing through optical centre proceeds undeviated through the lens.
Incident light R1 → Positive
R2 R2 → Negative
C2 O C1
R1
(A)
Incident light R1 → Negative
R1 R2 → Positive
C1 O C2
R2
(B)
156
(6) Principal focus : We define two principal focus for the lens. We are mainly concerned with the second
principal focus (F). Thus wherever we write the focus, it means the second principal focus.
First principal focus : An object point for which image is formed at infinity.
F1 F1
(A) (B)
Second principal focus : An image point for an object at infinity.
F2 F2
(A) (B)
Focal Length, Power and Aperture of Lens
(1) Focal length (f) : Distance of second principle focus from optical centre is called focal length
fconvex → positive, fconcave → negative, fplane → 
(2) Aperture : Effective diameter of light transmitting area is called aperture. Intensity of image  (Aperture)2
(3) Power of lens (P) : Means the ability of a lens to deviate the path of the rays passing through it. If the
lens converges the rays parallel to the principal axis its power is positive and if it diverges the rays it is
negative.
1 100
Power of lens P = = ; Unit of power is Diopter (D)
f (m ) f (cm )
Pconvex → positive, Pconcave → negative, Pplane → zero .
Rules of Image Formation by Lens

Convex lens : The image formed by convex lens depends on the position of object.
(1) When object is placed at infinite (i.e. u = )
Image
At F
Real 2F F F 2F
Inverted
Very small in size
Magnification m << – 1
(2) When object is placed between infinite and 2F (i.e. u > 2f)
Image
Between F and 2F
Real F 2F
Inverted 2F F
Very small in size
Magnification m < – 1
(3) When object is placed at 2F (i.e. u = 2f )
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Image
At 2F 2F
F
Real
2F F
Inverted
Equal in size
Magnification m = – 1
(4) When object is placed between F and 2F (i.e. f < u < 2f )
Image
Beyond 2F
F 2F
Real F
2F
Inverted
Large in size
Magnification m > – 1
(5) When object is placed at F (i.e. u = f )
Image
At 
F 2F
Real 2F F
Inverted
Very large in size
Magnification m >> – 1
(6) When object is placed between F and optical center

(i.e. u < f )
Image
Same side as
that of object
Virtual F 2F
Erect F
large in size
Magnification m > 1
Concave lens : The image formed by a concave lens is always virtual, erect and diminished (like a convex
mirror)
(1) When object is placed at 
Image
At F 2F F 2F
Virtual
Erect
Point size
Magnification m << + 1
(2) When object is placed any where on the principal axis
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Image
Between optical centre and focus
Virtual
Erect
F
Smaller in size
Magnification m < + 1
Lens Maker's Formula and Lens Formula

(1) Lens maker's formula : If R1 and R2 are the radii of curvature of first and second refracting surfaces
of a thin lens of focal length f and refractive index  (w.r.t. surrounding medium) then the relation between f,
, R1 and R2 is known as lens maker’s formula.
1  1 1 
= ( − 1) − 

f  R1 R 2 
Focal length of different lenses

Lens Focal length For  = 1.5
Biconvex lens
R1 = R R
f = f=R
R2 = − R 2( − 1)
Plano-convex
lens
R
R1 =  f = f = 2R
( − 1)
R2 = − R
Biconcave
R
R1 = − R f =− f = −R
2( − 1)
R2 = + R
Plano-concave
R1 =  −R
f= f = −2 R
R2 = R ( − 1)
(2) Lens formula : The expression which shows the relation between u, v and f is called lens formula.
1 1 1
= −
f v u
Magnification
The ratio of the size of the image to the size of object is called magnification.
I v f f −v
(1) Transverse magnification : m= = = = (use sign convention while solving the problem)
O u f +u f
2 2
I v 2 − v1
2
dv  v   f   f −v 
(2) Longitudinal magnification : m= = . For very small object m= =   =   =  
O u 2 − u1 du  u   f + u   f 
2
Ai  f 
(3) Areal magnification : ms = = m 2 =   ,
Ao  f +u
(Ai = Area of image, Ao = Area of object)
159
(4) Relation between object and image speed : If an object moves with constant speed (Vo ) towards a
convex lens from infinity to focus, the image will move slower in the beginning and then faster. Also
2
 f 
Vi =   . Vo
 f +u
Lens Immersed in a Liquid

If a lens (made of glass) of refractive index g is immersed in a liquid of refractive index l, then its focal
1  1 1 
length in liquid, fl is given by = ( l  g − 1)  − 
 ......(i)
fl  R1 R2 
If fa is the focal length of lens in air, then
1  1 1 
= ( a  g − 1)  − 
 ......(ii)
fa  1
R R 2 
fl (a μ g − 1)
 =
fa (l μ g − 1)
(1) If  g  l , then fl and fa are of same sign and fl  fa .

That is the nature of lens remains unchanged, but it’s focal length increases and hence power of lens
decreases.
(2) If  g = l , then fl =  . It means lens behaves as a plane glass plate and becomes invisible in the medium.
(3) If  g  l , then fl and fa have opposite signs and the nature of lens changes i.e. a convex lens diverges
the light rays and concave lens converges the light rays.
Displacement Method
By this method focal length of convex lens is determined.
Consider an object and a screen placed at a distance D (> 4f) apart. Let a lens of focal length f be placed
between the object and the screen.
x
Object
O
I2
I1
D > 4f
Screen
(1) For two different positions of lens two images (I1 and I2 ) of an object are formed at the screen.
D −x
2 2
x
(2) Focal length of the lens f= =
4D m1 − m 2
I1 I2
where m1 = ; m2 = and m 1 m 2 = 1.
O O
(3) Size of object O= I1 . I 2
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Cutting of Lens f, P
2f 2f
P/2 P/2
(1) A symmetric lens is cut along optical axis in two equal parts. Intensity of image
formed by each part will be same as that of complete lens. Focal length is double 
the original for each part.
(2) A symmetric lens is cut along principle axis in two equal parts. Intensity of image
formed by each part will be less compared as that of complete lens.(aperture of each part f, P
is 1 times that of complete lens). Focal length remains same for each part.
2 
f, P
Combination of Lens
(1) For a system of lenses, the net power, net focal length and magnification are given as follows :
1 1 1 1
P = P1 + P2 + P3 .......... , = + + + .......... . , m = m1  m 2  m 3 .......... ..
F f1 f2 f3
(2) In case when two thin lens are in contact : Combination will behave as a lens, which have more power
or lesser focal length.
f1 f2
1 1
= +
1
 F= and P = P1 + P2
F f1 f2 f1 + f2
(3) If two lens of equal focal length but of opposite nature are in contact then combination will behave as
a plane glass plate and Fcombination = 
(4) When two lenses are placed co-axially at a distance d from each other then equivalent focal length (F).
f1 f2
1 1 1 d
= + − and P = P1 + P2 − dP1 P2
F f1 f2 f1 f2
(5) Combination of parts of a lens :
 and
f F =f F=f
and
F = f/2
F=
f
R R R
fm = , fl = so F=
2 ( − 1) 2
Prism
Prism is a transparent medium bounded by refracting surfaces, such that the incident surface (on which
light ray is incidenting) and emergent surface (from which light rays emerges) are plane and non parallel.
161
(1) Refraction
A
through a prism
i – Angle of incidence,
A

e e – Angle of emergence,
i r1 r2
A – Angle of prism or refracting
 angle of prism,
C B
r1 and r2 – Angle of refraction,
A = r1 + r2 and i+ e = A +
sin i 1 sin r2
For surface AC  = ; For surface AB =
sin r1  sin e
(2) Deviation through a prism : For thin prism  = ( − 1) A . Also deviation is different for different colour
light e.g.  R  V so  R   V .
Flint  Crown so F  C
(i) Maximum deviation : Condition of maximum deviation is

max
 i = 90 o  r1 = C, r2 = A − C and from Snell’s law on emergent surface e
r2
 sin(A − C)  i = 90o
r1 = C
e = sin −1  
 sin C 
  sin(A − C ) 
 max = + sin −1  −A
2  sin C 
(ii) Minimum deviation : It is observed if i = e and r1 = r2 = r , deviation produced is minimum.
i e
r r
m
(a) Refracted ray inside the prism is parallel to the base of the prism for equilateral and isosceles prisms.
A A + m
(b) r= and i=
2 2
A + m
sin
sin i 2
(c) = or  = (Prism formula).
sin A / 2 sin A / 2
(3) Condition of no emergence : For no emergence of light, TIR must takes place at the second surface
For TIR at second surface r2 > C
A
So A > r1 + C (From A = r1 + r2) i r1 r
2
As maximum value of r1 = C
TIR
So, A  2C. for any angle of incidence.
If light ray incident normally on first surface i.e.  i = 0° it means
r1 = 0°. So in this case condition of no emergence from second surface is A > C.
 sin A  sin C  sin A 
1
   cosec A

162
Lens Camera
(1) In lens camera a converging lens of adjustable aperture is used.
(2) Distance of film from lens is also adjustable.
(3) In photographing an object, the image is first focused on the film by adjusting the distance between
lens and film. It is called focusing. After focusing, aperture is set to a specific value and then film is exposed
to light for a given time through shutter.
(4) f-number : The ratio of focal length to the aperture of lens is called f-number of the camera.
2, 2.8, 4, 5.6, 8, 11, 22, 32 are the f-numbers marked on aperture.
f-number =
Focal length
 Aperture  1
Aperture f - number
(5) Time of exposure : It is the time for which the shutter opens and light enters the camera to expose
film.
(i) If intensity of light is kept fixed then for proper exposure
1
Time of exposure (t) 
(Aperture)2
(ii) If aperture is kept fixed then for proper exposure

1
Time of exposure (t) 
[Intensity(I)]2
 I t = constant  I1t1 = I2 t2
(iii) Smaller the f-number larger will be the aperture and lesser will be the time of exposure and faster will
be the camera.
(6) Depth of focus : It refers to the range of distance over which the object may lie so as to form a good
quality image. Large f-number increase the depth of focus.
Microscope
It is an optical instrument used to see very small objects. It’s magnifying power is given by
Visual angle with instrument ( )
m =
Visual angle when object is placed at least distance of distinct vision ( )
(1) Simple microscope

(i) It is a single convex lens of lesser focal length.
(ii) Also called magnifying glass or reading lens.
(iii) Magnification’s, when final image is formed at D and  (i.e. m D and m  )
 D  D
m D =  1 +  m  =  
 f max
and  f min
D−a D−a
(iv) If lens is kept at a distance a from the eye then mD = 1 + and m =
f f
A
Virtual and
enlarged image
A
B F B
ve=D to 
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Compound microscope
uo vo ue
B
B Q E
O A
ve=D to 
(i) Consist of two converging lenses called objective and eye lens.
(ii) feye lens  fobjective and (diameter) eye lens  (diameter )objective
(iii) Intermediate image is real and enlarged.

(iv) Final image is magnified, virtual and inverted.
(v) uo = Distance of object from objective (o), vo = Distance of image ( A B ) formed by objective from
objective, ue = Distance of A B  from eye lens, ve = Distance of final image from eye lens, fo = Focal length of
objective, fe = Focal length of eye lens.
vo  D
(vi) Final image is formed at D : Magnification mD = − 1 +  and length of the microscope tube
 fe 
uo 
(distance between two lenses) is LD = vo + ue .
Generally object is placed very near to the principal focus of the objective hence uo ~= fo . The eye piece is
also of small focal length and the image formed by the objective is also very near to the eye piece.
So v o ~= LD , the length of the tube.
−L  D
Hence, we can write mD = 1 + 
 fe 
fo 
(vii) Final image is formed at  : Magnification

v0 D
m = − . and length of tube L = v0 + fe
u0 fe
(L − fo − fe )D
In terms of length m =
fo fe
(viii) For large magnification of the compound microscope, both fo and fe should be small.
(ix) If the length of the tube of microscope increases, then its magnifying power increases.
(x) The magnifying power of the compound microscope may be expressed as M = mo  me ; where mo is the
magnification of the objective and me is magnifying power of eye piece.
Astronomical Telescope (Refracting Type) fo ue
A
By astronomical telescope heavenly bodies are seen.
B
(1) fobjective  feyelens and d objective  d eye lens . B
O Q E
(2) Intermediate image is real, inverted and small.
(3) Final image is virtual, inverted and small. A
f0  f  fo
(4) Magnification : mD = −  1 + e  and m = − P
fe  D fe ve=D to 
(5) Length : LD = f0 + ue and L = f0 + fe
164
Reflecting Telescope
Reflecting telescopes are based upon the same principle except that the formation of images takes place
by reflection instead of by refraction. T1
Light
45o from 
M
T2
Objective Eye piece
If fo is focal length of the concave spherical mirror used as objective and fe, the focal length of the eye-
fo
piece, the magnifying power of the reflecting telescope is given by m=
fe
Further, if D is diameter of the objective and d, the diameter of the pupil of the eye, then brightness ratio
D2
() is given by =
d2
Resolving Limit and Resolving Power
(1) Microscope : In reference to a microscope, the minimum distance between two lines at which they
are just distinct is called Resolving limit (RL) and it’s reciprocal is called Resolving power (RP)
 2  sin 1
R.L. = and R.P. =  R. P. 
2  sin   
O
 = Wavelength of light used to illuminate the object, Objective
 = Refractive index of the medium between object and objective,

 = Half angle of the cone of light from the point object,  sin  = Numerical aperture.
(2) Telescope : Smallest angular separations (d) between two distant objects, whose images are separated
1 .22 
in the telescope is called resolving limit. So resolving limit d  =
a
1 a 1
and resolving power (RP ) = =  R. P.  where a = aperture of objective.
d  1 .22  
1 MARK QUESTIONS
1. When a converging and diverging lens of equal focal length are combined what is the power of the
combination?
2. How does the angle of minimum deviation of a glass prism vary if the incident violet light is replaced by
red light?
3. For the same angle of incidence, the angle of refraction in two media A and B are 25° and 35°
respectively. In which one of the two media is the speed of light lesser?
4. The focal length of an equiconvex lens is equal to the radius of curvature of either face. What is the value
of refractive index of the material of the lens?
5. A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 1.65. What is the
nature of the lens ?
6. A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a glass slab at normal incidence. After travelling
through the slab which colour will emerge out first from it?
7. Does the magnifying power of a microscope depend on the colour of the light used? Justify your answer.
8. An unsymmetrical double convex thin lens forms the image of a point object on its axis. Will the position
of the image change if the lens is reversed?
9. State the condition under which a large magnification can be achieved in an astronomical telescope.
10. A lens of power of –4.0 D what is its focal length? Identify the nature of the lens.
165
ANSWERS
1. P=0, P=1/f1+1/f2
2. Decreases. dR<dV
3. VA<VB
N=sini/sinr=v1/v2,
nA/nB=sinrB/sinrA=VB/VA
rA<rB , VA<VB
4. N=1.5
1 2
= (𝑛 − 1) 𝑅, f=R, (n-1)=1/2
𝑓
5. Convex lens
1 𝑛𝑔 −2
= ( − 1)( 𝑅 ), nm>ng, so fm =+ve
𝑓𝑚 𝑛 𝑚
6. red
𝐿 𝐷
7. Yes. M=𝑓𝑜 x(1+𝑓𝑒), fαλ
8. No change. Principle of reversibility of light.
9. focal length of objective must be greater than focal length of eyepiece. M=fo/fe
10. f=-25cm, concave
Assertion Reason type Question: Ray Optics & Optical Instruments
Option A: Both Assertion and reason are right and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Option B: Both Assertion and reason are right and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
Option C: Assertion is right but reason is wrong
Option D: Both Assertion and reason are false
1. Assertion: Power of a lens is inversely proportional to its focal length
Reason: focal length is measured in meters whereas power of a lens in dioptre
2. Assertion: focal length of lens varies when it is immersed in liquids
Reason: focal length of lens depends on refractive index of medium in which it is placed
3. Assertion: A glass slab is placed over different colored dots (violet to red) and viewed through it, then
violet dot appeared to be raised more compared to red dot.
Reason: Red has least deviation than violet color
4. Assertion: Magnifying power of a telescope depends on its focal lengths of objective and eyepiece
Reason: In telescope focal length of eyepiece is greater than that of objective
5. Assertion: A convex can be act as divergent lens
Reason: when a convex lens placed in medium of higher refractive index, it behaves like concave lens
Answers
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. A
2 MARK QUESTIONS
1. Focal length of a convex lens of refractive index 1.5 is 2 cm. What will be the Focal length of lens, when
immersed in a liquid of refractive index of 1.25 ?
2. A ray of light passes through an equilateral glass prism such that the angle of incidence is equal to angle
of emergence and each of these angles is equal to 3/4 of angle of prism. What is the value of angle of
deviation?
166
3. A spherical convex surface of radius of curvature 20 cm, made of glass (n = 1.5) is placed in air. Find the
position of the image formed, if a point object is placed at 30 cm in front of the convex surface on the
principal axis.
4. Calculate the radius of curvature of an equi-concave lens of refractive index 1.5, when it is kept in a
medium of refractive index 1.4, to have a power of –5D
5. An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The
separation between the objective and an eye piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at infinity.
Calculate the focal length of the objective and the focal length of the eye piece?
6. The refractive index of a material of a concave lens is n1. It is immersed in a medium of refractive index
n2. A parallel beam of light is incident on the lens. Trace the path of emergent rays when (i) n2 = n1 (ii)
n2>n1 (iii) n2< n1.
7. The radii of curvature of both the surfaces of a lens are equal. If one of the surfaces is made plane by
grinding, then will the focal length of lens change? Will the power change?
8. Give two reasons to explain why a reflecting telescope is preferred over a refracting telescope.
9. Calculate the speed of light in a medium whose critical angle is 45°. Does critical angle for a given pair
of media depend on wave length of incident light? Give reason.
10. An equilateral glass prism has a refractive index 1.6 in air. Calculate the angle of minimum deviation of
the prism, when kept in a medium of refractive index 4√2 /5 .
ANSWERS
1 2
1. =(n-1)𝑅 ,1/2=(1.5-1)*2/R, R=2cm
𝑓
1
=(1.5/1.25-1)*2/R, f=5cm
𝑓
2. In prism i + e = A + D = and i= e=3/4A
A+D=3/4A+3/4A, D=A/2=30
𝑛2 𝑛1 𝑛2−𝑛1
3. 𝑣 - 𝑢 = 𝑅
𝑉 = −180𝑐𝑚
1 2
4. =(n-1)𝑅 , R=2.86cm
𝑓
5. Magnification m = f0 / fe = 5
f0 = 5 fe length of the tube, L = f0 +fe=36cm
fe=6cm & fo=30cm
6.
1 2
7. =(n-1)𝑅, f=R/2(n-1) 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑎 𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑛𝑒 𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑒 𝑅 = 𝛼
𝑓
F’=R/(n-1)=2f, f is doubled
P=1/f , p’=p/2, power is halved
8. ) Reflecting telescope is preferred over refracting telescope because
(a) No chromatic aberration, because mirror is used.
(b) Spherical aberration can be removed by using a parabolic mirror.
(c) Image is bright because no loss of energy due to reflection.
(d) Large mirror can provide easier mechanical support.
167
9. n=1/sinic=1/sin45=√2
Yes, critical angle for a pair of media depends on wavelength, because n=a+b/λ2 where a and
b are constants of the media.
𝐴+𝑑𝑚)
sin ( 𝑛2
2
10. n= 𝐴 =
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑛1
2
60+𝑑𝑚)
1.6𝑥5 sin ( 2
= = 60
4√2 𝑠𝑖𝑛
2
Dm=30
3 MARKS QUESTIONS
1. Three rays 1,2, 3 of different colours fall normally on one of the sides of an isosceles right angled
prism as shown in fig. The refractive indices of prism for these rays are 1.39, 1.47 and 1.52
respectively. Find which of these rays get normally reflected and which get only refracted from AC.
Trace the path of rays. Justify your answer with the necessary calculations ?
2. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate image formation by a Newtonian type reflecting telescope? Hence
state two advantages of it over refracting type telescopes?
3. Write two conditions necessary for total internal reflection to take place.
4. When monochromatic light is incident on a surface separating two media, the reflected and refracted
light both have the same frequency as the incident frequency. Explain why?
5. What is total internal reflection? Under what conditions does it occur? Find a relation
between critical angle and refractive index and name one phenomenon which is
based on total internal reflection.
6. A ray of light incident on face AB of an equilateral glass prism shows a
minimum deviation of 30°. Calculate the speed of light through the prism
also find the angle of incidence at face AB so that the emergent ray grazes
along with the face AC
7. Find the radius of curvature of the convex surface of a plane convex lens,
whose focal length is 0.3m and the refractive index of the material of the lens
is 1.5?
8. Show that the limiting value of the angle of prism is twice its critical angle? Hence define critical
angle?
9. A convex lens made of glass of refractive index 1.5 is dipped in , i) carbon di sulphide of refractive
index 1.65. (ii ) Water of refractive index 1.33.
a) Will it behave as a converging or diverging lens in each case ?
b) How will its focal length change in the two media ?
10. Define total infernal reflection of light? Hence write two advantages of total reflecting prisms over a
plane mirror?
168
ANSWERS
1. When light is incident normally on face AB, so no deviation occur. Light is incident on face AC at an
angle of 45 . The face AC will transmit light for which i is less than ic .
2. Advantages
(a) The image formed in reflecting type telescope is free from chromatic aberrations
(b) The image formed is very bright due to its large light gathering power.
Newtonian telescope (reflecting type)
3.
(a) The incident ray should travel from the denser to the rarer
medium.
(b) The angle of incidence, in the denser medium, should be
greater than the critical angle for the given pair of media.
4. Reflection and refraction arise through the interaction of incident light with the atomic constituents of
matter. Atoms may be viewed as oscillators that take up the frequency of the external agency (light)
causing forced oscillations. The frequency of light emitted by a charged oscillator equals its frequency
of oscillation. Thus the frequency of scattered light equals the frequency of incident light.
5. Reflection of a light by a substance through which light can pass is called total internal reflection, it occurs
when the angle made by the incidence ray is more than critical angle. critical angle is that angle which is made
by incidence ray with normal above which the total internal reflection will take place. When the angle of
refraction is equal to 90°, the angle of incidence is called the critical angle, at any angle of incidence greater
than the critical angle, the light cannot pass through the surface - it is all reflected. Optical fiber works on total
internal reflection.
6.
7.
For plane convex lens
R = 0.15 m
169
8. Angle of the prism
For limiting
(Maximum)
Value of angle of prism for means
But when =C
Amax = 2C
The angle of incidence for which angle of refraction is 90o is called critical angle.
9. a) When the convex lens is dipped in carbon di sulphide of refractive index 1.65, using lens makers
formula we get f1 is negative. Hence the lens behave as a diverging lens
b) When the convex lens in water f2 is positive. Hence it behaves as a converging lens.
10. The phenomenon of reflection of light when a ray of light traveling from a denser medium is sent
back to the same denser medium provided the angle of incidence is greater than the angle called critical
angle is called total internal reflection.
Advantages
1. It does require silvering
2. Multiple reflections do not take place in a reflecting prism due to this; only one image is formed,
which is very bright.
CASE BASED QUESTION : 1
An optical fibre is extremely thin and long strand of very fine quality glass or quartz
coated with the thin layer of a material of refractive index less than refractive index of strand. They are used
as a guided medium for transmission of signals over long distances. The inner layer is called core and outer
layer is called cladding. In order to provide the safety and strength the core cladding of optical fibre, it is
enclosed in a plastic jacket called as buffer coating
170
1. Optical fibres are used extensively to transmit
a) Optical Signal b) current c) Sound waves d) None of the above
2. Which of the following statement is not true.
a) Optical fibres is based on the principle of total internal reflection.
b) The refractive index of the material of the core is less than that of the cladding.
c) An optical fibre can be used to act as an optical pipe.
d) There is no appreciable loss in the intensity of the light signal while propagating through an
optical fibre
3.In which of the following the principle of total internal reflection is not used.
a) Endoscope b) Mirage c) Total reflection prism d) Periscope
4. The basic reason for the extraordinary sparkle of suitably cut diamond is that
(a) It has low refractive index (b) It has high transparency
(c)It has high refractive index (d) It is very hard
5. A substance has critical angle 45° for yellow light. What is its refractive index?
a) √2 b) 1/√2 c) 2 d) ½
CASE BASED QUESTION-2
A prism is a portion of a transparent medium bounded by two plane faces inclined to each other at a suitable
angle. A ray of light suffers two refractions on passing through a prism and hence deviates through a certain
angle from its original path. The angle of deviation of a prism is, δ = (μ- 1) A, through which a ray deviates
on passing through a thin prism of small refracting angle A.
If μ is refractive index of the material of the prism, then prism formula is,μ=sin(A+δm)/2sinA/2
1. (i) For which colour, angle of deviation is minimum?
(a) Red (b) Yellow (c) Violet (d) Blue
2. When white light moves through vacuum
(a) all colours have same speed (b) different colours have different speeds
(c) violet has more speed than red (d) red has more speed than violet.
3. The deviation through a prism is maximum when angle of incidence is
(a) 45° (b) 70° (c) 90° (d) 60°
4. A ray of light falling at an angle of 50° is refracted through a prism and suffers minimum deviation. If the
angle of prism is 60°, then the angle of minimum deviation is
(a) 45° (b) 75° (c) 50° (d) 40°
CASE BASED QUESTION-3
A compound microscope is an optical instrument used for observing highly magnified images of tiny
objects. Magnifying power of a compound microscope is defined as the ratio of the angle subtended at the
eye by the final image to the angle subtended at the eye by the object, when both the final image and the
objects are situated at the least distance of distinct vision from the eye. It can be given that: M=MO x Me ,
where Me is the magnification produced by the eyepiece and Mo is the magnification produced by the
objective lens. In the case of telescope , its magnification is given by the ratio of focal length of objective
lens to eye piece for normal adjustment condition.
171
(i) A compound microscope with an objective of 1 cm focal length and an eyepiece of 2 cm focal length
has a tube length of 20 cm. Then the magnifying power of the microscope if the final image is formed
at the near point of eye
(a) 280 (b) 270 (c) 255 (d) 300
(ii) The final image in an astronomical telescope with respect to object is
(a) virtual erect (b) real erect (c) real and inverted (d) virtual and inverted
(iii) The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between the
objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. Then the focal lengths of lenses ?
(a) 10 cm, 10 cm (b)15 cm, 5 cm (c) 18 cm , 2 cm (d) 11 cm , 9 cm
(iv) The intermediate image formed by the objective of a compound microscope is
(a) real, inverted and magnified (b) real, erect and magnified
(c) virtual, erect and magnified (d) virtual, inverted and magnified
CASE STUDY : 4
Power of a lens is given by the reciprocal of focal length (f) of the lens ie P= 1/f where f is in metre
power in dioptre. For a convex lens power is positive and for concave lens power is negative. When a
number of thin lenses of powers P1, P2,P3…. Are held in contact with each other, power of the
combination is given by the algebraic sum of the powers of all the lenses . ie P= P1 + P2+ P3+………..
(i) When two thin lenses of equal and opposite focal lengths are placed in contact then what is the power of
the combination
a) 0 b) α c) P1 + P2 d) P1 -P2
(ii) Two thin lenses are in contact and focal length of the combination is 80 cm. If the focal length of one is
20 cm , what would be the power of the other lens
a) 2 D b) 3.75 D c) -3.75 D d) 0
(iii) What is the focal length and power of a plane mirror
a) 0, α b) 0, 1 c) α, 0 d) α, 1
(iv) Three lenses of powers 3D, -0.5 D and 1.5 D are placed in contact. Will the combination produce
converging or diverging effect
a) converging effect b) Diverging effect c) no effect d) sometimes converging sometimes diverging
CASE STUDY : 5
The criteria for image formation by a mirror or a lens is , mimimum two reflected or refracted light rays
actually meet at a point or appears to meet at a point. The image formed by actal meeting of light rays is
called real image. When two light rays appears to meet at point , the image formed is called virtual image.
Real image can be focussed on screen but virtual image cannot be focussed on screen. Real image always
inveted while virtual image is erect.
(i) A convex lens is of focal length 20 cm is cut in to two equal halves horizotally parallel to principal
axis. Then the focal length of each halves
a) 10 cm, 10 cm b) 5 cm, 5 cm c) 20 cm , 20 cm d) 20 cm , 10 cm
(ii) The half portion ( both sides) of a convex lens is painted with black colour, the what happens to the
image
a) the image will not be formed b) the size of the image will be half
c)image will be formed but its intensity will be half d) blurred image will be formed
172
(iii)A concave mirror and a convex lens are immerced in water, then what happens to focal length
a) focal length of both will not change b) focal length of both will change
c) mirror focal length will not change but lens focal length will increases
d) ) mirror focal length will not change but lens focal length will decreases
(iv) A convex lens of focal length 15 cm and concave lens of focal length 15 cm combined together then
the combination will acts as
a) converging b) diverging c) neither converging nor diverging d)it will not pass light rays
ANSWERS
CASE BASED QUESTION : 1 1. A) 2. B) 3. D) 4. C) 5. A)
CASE BASED QUESTION-2: Ans: i) a (ii) a (iii) c (iv) d
CASE BASED QUESTION-3 Ans: i) b (ii) d (iii) c (iv) a
CASE STUDY : 4 Ans: (i) a (ii) c (iii) c (iv) a
CASE STUDY : 5 Ans: (i) c (ii) c (iii) c (iv) c
5 mark Questions
1. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens of focal length 15 cm are kept 30 cm apart
with their principal axes coincident. When an object is placed 30 cm in front of the convex lens,
calculate the position of the final image formed by the combination. Would this result change if the
object were placed 30 cm In front of the concave tens? Give reason.
2. Draw a labelled diagram of telescope when the image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision?
Hence derive the expression for its magnifying power?
3. Derive the relation
Where are focal lengths of two thin lenses and F is the focal length of the
combination in contact.
4. A beam of light converges at a point P. Now a lens is placed in the path of the convergent beam 12 cm
from P. At what point does the beam converge if the lens is (a) a convex lens of focal length 20 cm,
and (b) a concave lens of focal length 16 cm?
5. A ray of light Is an Incident on one face of a glass prism and emerges out from the other face. Trace
the path of the ray and derive an expression for the refractive index of the glass prism. Also, plot a
graph between the Angle of incidence and angle of deviation
6. A) Below given figure shows a cross-section of a ‘light pipe’ made of a glass fibre of refractive
index 1.68.
The outer covering of the pipe is made of a material of refractive index 1.44. What is the range of the
angles of the incident rays with the axis of the pipe for which total reflections inside the pipe take
place, as shown in the figure.
B) What is the answer if there is no outer covering of the pipe?
173
7. Derive the lens maker formula.
8. a) under what conditions is the phenominon of total internal reflection of light observed ? Obtain the
relation between the critical angle and refractive index of the medium ? b) three lenses of focal
lengths + 10 cm, -10 cm and + 30 cm are arranged co axially as shown in the figure.Find the position
of the final image formed by the combination ?
9. a) Draw a ray diagram for the final image formed at a distance of distinct vision (D) by a compound
microscope and write expression for its magnifying power b) An
angular magnification of 30 is desired for a compound microscope using an objective of focal length
10. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image of an object placed between the optic centre and
focus of the convex lens. Write the characteristics of image formed. Using this diagram, derive the
relation between object distance , image distance and focal length of the convex lens. Write the
assumptions and conventions of signs used. Draw the graph showing the variation of u and v .
ANSWERS
1. The image of an object can be obtained at two different positions of a convex lens for a fixed value of the
distance between the object and the screen if values of u and v are interchanged in these two positions. This
situation is as shown below.
Here x + 20 + x = 90 cm or x = 35cm
Therefore, u = -35 cm, v = + 55 cm, f = ?
Or
For image formed by a convex Lens

f1 = + 20 cm, u = – 30 cm
174
Therefore, u for concave Lens = 60 – 30 = + 30 cm and f2 = – 15 cm
Now for concave lens
No, the result will not change as per the principle of reversibility.
2.
magnifying power =
(since angles are very small)
3. Consider two thin lenses in contact having focal length For the first lens
For the second lens acts as an object which forms the final image I
Adding equation (1) & (2)
175
Using lens formula
For n no. of thin lenses is contact
4. In the given situation, the object is virtual and the image formed is real.
Object distance, u = +12 cm
(a) Focal length of the convex lens, f= 20 cm
Image distance = v
According to the lens formula, we have the relation:
Hence, the image is formed 7.5 cm away from the lens, toward its right.
(b) Focal length of the concave lens, f= –16 cm
Image distance = v
According to the lens formula, we have the relation:
Hence, the image is formed 48 cm away from the lens, toward its
right.
5. The graph is as shown
Consider a cross-section XYZ of a prism as shown in the figure. Let A
be the angle of the prism. A ray PQ of monochromatic light is incident
on face XY of the prism at an angle i. The ray is called the incident
176
ray and the angle is called the angle of incidence. This ray is refracted towards the normal NQE and
travels in the prism along QR. This ray is called the refracted ray at the face XY.
Let r1 be the angle of refraction at this surface. The

refracted ray QR is incident at an angle r2 on the
surface XZ. The ray QR again suffers refraction
and emerges out of face XZ at an angle e along
with RS. The ray is called the emergent ray and the
angle e is called the angle of emergence. When the
ray SR is extended backwards it meets the
extended ray PQ at point D such that δ is the angle
of deviation of the ray.
By deriving (Refer NCERT Text volume II) , we can obtain the formula
n =sin((A+δm )/ 2) / sin(A/2). Thus, above is the prism formula.
6 .(a) Refractive index of the glass fibre,

Refractive index of the outer covering of the pip
e, = 1.44
Angle of incidence = i
Angle of refraction = r
Angle of incidence at the interface = i‘
The refractive index of the inner core – outer core interface is given as:
For the critical angle, total internal reflection (TIR) takes place only when , i.e.,
Maximum angle of reflection,
Let, be the maximum angle of incidence.
The refractive index at the air – glass interface,
We have the relation for the maximum angles of incidence and reflection as:
Thus, all the rays incident at angles lying in the range will suffer total internal reflection.
177
(b) If the outer covering of the pipe is not present, then:
Refractive index of the outer pipe, = Refractive index of air =1
For the angle of incidence , we can write Snell’s law at the air – pipe interface as:
Since > r, All incident rays will suffer total internal reflection.
7.
Refer NCERT Text Vol II , by deriving we get
Where μ is the refractive index of the material. This is the lens maker formula derivation.
8. a) sin ic / sin r = i/n , r= 90, when i= ic sin ic = i/n
b) For the image formed by first lens
- 1/u1 + 1/v1 = 1/f1 - 1/-30 + 1/v1 = 1/10, v1 = 15 cm
The image formed by first lens acts as object for second lens. It is at a distance (15-5 ) = 10 cm to
the right of the second lens. Although the image is real it serves as a virtual object for the second lens
so as the rays appears to come from it . Thus for the second lens
1/v2 –1/u2 = 1/f2 so 1/v2-1/10 = 1/-10 , v2 = α , the virtual image is formed at infinite distance to
the right of the second lens. It acts as the object for the third lens.
1/v3 -1/u3 = 1/f3 , 1/v3 – 1/α = 1/30 , there fore v3 = 30 cm
9. a ) Refer NCERT TEXT
b) In the normal adjustment position for microscope, image is formed at least distance of vision,
D= 25 cm, fe= 5 cm, Angular magnification of eye piece = (1+ D/fe ) = 6
Total magnification =30. M= Me x Mo
Angular magnification of the objective , Mo = M/ Me = 30/6 = 5, Since real image is formed by the objective
there fore Mo = vo/ uo = - 5 or vo= -5 uo, fo= 1.25 cm, Usinf the formula -1/u + 1/vo = 1/fo
Uo = - 1.5 cm. Thus the object should be held at 1.5 cm in front of the objective lens, Also vo = -5 uo = 7.5
cm
As 1/ve -1/ue = 1/fe , ue = -4.17 cm. separation between the objective lens and eye piece is sum of
modulas of ue and vo = 4.17 + 7.5 = 11.67 cm.
11. Refer NCERT Text vol II
178
CHAPTER : 10 WAVE OPTICS
CONCEPT MAP
WAVE OPTICS
HUYGENE'S
INTERFERENCE
PRINCIPLE DIFFRACTION
LAWS OF
REFLECTION CONDITION FOR YOUNG'S
CONSTRUCTIVE AND DOUBLE SLIT
AND SINGLE SLIT
DESTRUCTIVE EXPERIMENT
REFRACTION EXPERIMENT
INTERFERENCE
CONDITION
CONDITION FOR FOR MINIMA
FRINGE
CENTRAL AND
WIDTH
MAXIMA SECONDARY
MAXIMA
179
SHORT NOTES
WAVE FRONT:
The surface of constant phase. ( It is the locus of all points where particles
vibrate with same phase).
TYPES OF WAVE FRONT:
(i) Spherical wavefront : The wave front emerging from a
point source.
(ii) Cylindrical Wavefront : the wave front emerging from a
linear source
(iii) Plane Wave front : The wave front emerges from a distant
source (point or linear)
HUYGEN’S PRINCIPLE :
It is the geometrical construction which allows to determine the
position of wave front at any time.
1. Every point on the primary wave front act as the source of secondary wavelets (part of
the wavefront) which spread out in all directions with same speed of the wave.
2. The surface touching these secondary wavelets
tangentially in the forward direction gives the position of new wave front at that
instant.
REFLECTION ON THE BASIS OF WAVE THEORY:

⊿ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 ≅ ⊿ 𝐴𝐸𝐶 and ∠𝑖 = ∠𝑟 Thus law of reflection is proved.
REFRACTION OF WAVE ON THE BASIS OF WAVE THEORY :

(i) Refraction of plane wavefront from rarer to denser
medium
(ii) Refraction of plane wavefront from denser to rarer

medium
180
BEHAVIOUR OF PRISM, LENS AND SPHERICAL MIRROR TOWARDS A PLANE
WAVE FRONT:
Prism : Refracted wavefront is tilted towards the base
of the prism.
Convex Lens : The refracted wavefront is spherical and
converging.
Concave Mirror : Reflected wavefront is converging
and spherical.
PRINCIPLE OF SUPERPOSITION OF WAVES :

When a number of waves travelling through a medium, superpose on
each other, the resultant displacement
at any point is equal to the vector sum of the displacements due to
individual waves. 𝒚 = 𝒚𝟏 + 𝒚𝟐 + ………….+𝒚𝒏
INTERFERENCE :
When two light waves of same frequency having constant phase difference travelling in the same
direction superpose each other, the intensity in the region of super position gets redistributed becoming
maximum at some points and minimum at other points. This phenomenon is Interference.
Constructive Interference :
An increase in intensity takes place at points where crest of one wave falls on the
crest of other wave.
Destructive Interference :
A decrease in intensity takes place if crest of one wave falls on the trough of another
wave.
Condition for Interference :
Interference pattern is observed only when light waves being superposed are coherent.
Coherent Sources :
Sources which emit waves of constant phase difference and same
frequency.
To obtain coherent sources, the waves emitted by a single source is
split in to two parts. Two independent sources cannot act as coherent.
Conditions for Sustained Interference :
(i) Sources must be coherent
(ii) Amplitudes of two waves must be equal (which gives complete contrast in pattern)
(iii) Sources must be narrow.
(iv) Sources must be close to each other (to avoid overlapping, path difference must be
small)
181
Conditions For constructive and Destructive Interference :
Y = A sin(𝝎𝒕 ), resultant wave with amplitude A.
A2 = a12 + a22 + 2a1a2 Cos ------------(1)
Intensity of the wave (amplitude)2
𝑰 = 𝑰𝟏 + 𝑰𝟐 + 𝟐√𝑰𝟏 𝑰𝟐 𝐜𝐨𝐬 ∅
When I1 = I2 =Io (intensity of light from the two slits are equal)
I = 2 Io + 2Io cos = 2 Io(1 + cos I = 4 Io (𝐜𝐨𝐬 ∅/𝟐)2
Constructive Interference: Maximum intensity, cos∅ = +1
∅ = 0, 2𝜋, 4 , … … = 2𝑛 𝜋 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑛 = 0, 1,2 … ..
2𝜋
For ′𝑥′ path difference, 𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒 𝑑𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒, 𝜙 = 𝑥
𝜆
Therefore, 𝒙 = 𝒏𝝀, 𝒏 = 𝟎, 𝟏, 𝟐, … …
Destructive Interference : Minimum intensity, cos∅ = −1
∅ = 𝜋, 3 , … … = (2𝑛 − 1)𝜋 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑛 = 1,2 … ..
𝒙 = (𝟐𝒏 − 𝟏) 𝝀/2, n = 1,2, 3…..
Graphical Pattern of Interference All bright fringes are equally bright.

Maximum and Minimum Intensity in terms of amplitudes :
Imax = a12 + a22 + 2 a1 a2 = (a1 + a2)2
Imin = a12 + a22 - 2 a1 a2 = (a1 - a2)2
𝑰𝒎𝒂𝒙 (𝒂𝟏 + 𝒂𝟐)𝟐

=
𝑰𝒎𝒊𝒏 (𝒂𝟏 − 𝒂𝟐)2
Angular width
𝛽 𝜆
𝜃= =
𝐷 𝑑
Interference with white light :
While using white light, coloured fringes are formed with central white.
𝐷𝜆
𝛽=
𝑑
Since 𝜆𝑅 > 𝜆 , 𝛽𝑅 > 𝛽𝑣 , red fringe is wider.
DIFFRACTION :
The phenomenon of bending of light around the corners of
small obstacles or apertures and its consequent spreading into
the regions of geometrical shadow.
182
Diffraction – Condition :
Size of the obstacle should be comparable with the wavelength of waves.
It is common to all types of waves. Radio waves and sound waves are of larger wavelength, it is readily
observable. But for visible light, its wavelength is small, so it is not so common because the obstacle of
this size is not hardly available.
DIFFRACTION AT SINGLE SLIT :
All the wavelets going straight (𝜃 = 0°) across the slit
are focused at the central point of the screen. The
wavelets from any two corresponding points of the two
halves of the slit reach the point ‘O’ in same phase,
added constructively to produce central bright fringe.
This is called central maxima.
Path Difference :
The secondary wavelets from different parts of the slit reach the point P in different phases.
The path difference between the wavelets from A and B is
BC = a sin𝜃
Position of Minima (dark fringes)
For nth minimum, sin 𝜃𝑛 = 𝜆 /a = 𝜃𝑛 , since angles are small.
Fringe width of maxima or minima,
𝑫𝝀
𝜷=
𝒂
Width of central maxima :
𝟐𝑫𝝀
𝜷𝒐 =
𝒂
Angular Width of maxima and minima : 𝜃 = 𝜆 /a
Angular width of central maxima, 𝜃𝑜 = 2𝜆/a
GRAPHICAL REPRESENTATION OF
DIFFRACTION PATTERN :
183
IMPORTANT FORMULAE
SL. TERMS FORMULA
NO
INTERFERENCE
1 Position of 𝑛𝑡ℎ
bright fringe from the centre in 𝐷𝑛𝜆
Young’s Double slit Experiment 𝑦𝑛 =
𝑑
2 Position of 𝑛𝑡ℎ
dark fringe from the centre in (2𝑛 − 1)𝐷𝜆
Young’s Double slit Experiment 𝑦𝑛′ =
2𝑑
3 Fringe Width 𝐷𝜆
𝛽=
𝑑
4 Condition for constructive Interference Path difference , 𝑥 = 𝑛𝜆
Phase Difference, 𝜙 = 2𝑛𝜋
5 Condition for destructive Interference Path difference , 𝑥 𝜆
Phase Difference, 𝜙 = (2𝑛 − 1)𝜋
6 Resultant amplitude of interfering waves A = √𝑎12 + 𝑎22 + 2𝑎1𝑎2 Cos∅
7 Resultant Intensity of interference pattern I=I

8 When I1 = I2 =Io ( intensity of light from the I=4 Io
two slits are equal)
9 Ratio of intensity of maxima and minima 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 (𝑎1 + 𝑎2)2

=
𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛 (𝑎1 − 𝑎2)2
10 Ratio of width of the two slits 𝑤1 = 𝐼1 = 𝑎122

𝑤2 𝐼2 𝑎2
DIFFRACTION
11 Condition for nth minimum of diffraction 𝑛𝜆

pattern Sin 𝜃𝑛 = , n= 1,2, 3,……
12 Condition for nth maxima of diffraction sin 𝜃𝑛′ = ( 2𝑛2+𝑎1)𝜆 , n = 1,2, 3
12 Width of central maxima 2𝐷𝜆
𝛽𝑜 =
𝑎
13 Width of maxima = Width of minima 𝐷𝜆

𝛽=
𝑎
14 Angular Width of maxima and minima λ

θ=
a
15 Angular width of central maxima 2λ
θ=
a
184
QUESTIONS :
1. The phase difference between any two points of a wavefront is:
(a) 0 (b) π/4 ( c) π/2 (d) π
2. In the adjoining figure, a wavefront AB moving in air
is incident on a plane glass surface XY. Its position CD, after
refraction through a glass slab, is as shown also along with the
normal drawn at A and D. The refractive index of glass with
respect to air will be equal to
a. BD/AC b. AB/CD c. BD/AD d. AC/AD
3. The intensity of light issuing out of two slits in young’s experiment is in ratio 1:4. The
intensity of the minimum to the maximum will be in the ratio
( a) 1:2 (b) 1:4 (c) 1:9 (d) none of the above
4. In Young’s double-slit experiment, if there is no initial phase difference between the light
from two slits, a point on the screen corresponding to the fifth minimum has path difference
( a) 5 λ/2 ( b) 10 λ/2 ( c)9 λ/2 (d)11 λ/2
5. A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal
length 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength 5 x 10-5 cm.
The distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the centre of the screen is:
(a) 0.20 cm (b) 0.15 cm (c) 0.10 cm (d) 0.25
cm
6. Two slits in young’s double slit experiment have widths in the ratio 81 :1. The ratio of the
amplitudes of light waves is
(a) 3 :1 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 9 :1 (d) 6:1
6. The colour of bright fringe nearest to central achromatic fringe in the interference pattern with
white light will be
(a) violet (b) red (c) green (d) yellow
7. At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of a single -slit diffraction, the phase
difference between the Huygens’s wavelet from the edge of the slit and the wavelet from the
midpoint of the slit is
(a) π radian (b) π/8 radian (c) π/4 radian (d) π/2 radian
8. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000A0 is incident normally on a single
narrow slit of width 0.001mm. The light is focussed by a convex lens on a screen placed in focal
plane. The first minimum will be formed for the angle of diffraction is equal to
(a) 00 (b) 150 (c) 300 (d) 50
185
9. In a Young’s double slit experiment, two slits of equal width are arranged symmetrically w.r.to the
sources. The intensity of the central bright fringe is I. If one of the slits is closed, the intensity at
the Centre of the screen will be
( a) I ( b) I/4 (c) I/2 (d) 2I
10. How does the diffraction band of blue light look in comparison with the red light?
(a) No changes (b)Diffraction pattern becomes narrower
(c) Diffraction pattern becomes broader (d)Diffraction pattern disappears
11. Two coherent sources of light can be obtained from
(a) Two different lamps (b) Two different lamps and of different colours
(c ) Two different lamps of the same colour (d) None of these
12. Which of the following phenomenon is not explained by Huygens’s wave theory?
a)Diffraction (b) interference c) Photoelectric effect d) None of these
13. A wave front is a source of constant .
a) phase b) amplitude c) frequency d) amplitude

14. Which one of the following phenomenon is not explained by Huygen’s construction of wave front
cylindrical
a) refraction b) reflection c) diffraction d) origin of spectra
15. the wavefront due to a source at infinity is
a) spherical b) cylindrical c)planar d) none of these
16. Two waves are said to be coherent, if they have
(a) same phase and different amplitude (b) different frequency, phase and amplitude
(c) same frequency but different amplitude (d) same frequency, phase and amplitude
medium to rarer
17. During the refraction of green light from denser medium to rarer medium , the property of light
which always remains constant is its
(a)speed (b) frequency (c) wavelength (d)direction
18. Interference occurs in which of the following waves
a) longitudinal b) transverse c) electromagnetic d) all of these with same intensity
19. The fringes produced in diffraction pattern are
a) equal width same intensity b) unequal width with varying intensity
c)equal intensity d) equal width with varying intensity
20. A Young’s double slit experiments uses monochromatic sources. The shape of the wavefront
obtained on the screen is
a) straight line b) hyperbola c )circle d)parabola
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21. Consider the diffraction pattern for a small pin hole. As the size of pin hole increases
a) size decreases and intensity increases b) size decreases and intensity decreases
c) size increases and intensity increases d) size increases and intensity decreases
22. For a light emerging from point source –
a) wave front is spherical b) wave front is parabolic
c)the intensity at the wavefront does not depend on distance d) wave front is
cylindrical
23. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the path difference at a certain point on the screen between
two interfering waves is 𝟏/ 𝟖 th of the wavelength. The ratio of intensity at this point to that at the
centre of a bright fringe is close to
a) 0. b) 0.74 c) 0.94 d) 0.85
24. Interference is possible only
a) light waves only b)sound waves only
c) both sound and light waves d) neither sound nor light wave
ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1) a. wavefront is the locus of all the points on a surface which are in the same phase i.e ,phase
difference is zero
2) a refractive index , n = 𝑣1/𝑣2 = (𝐵𝐷 𝑋 𝑡)/(𝐴𝐶 𝑋 𝑡) = 𝐵𝐷/𝐴𝐶
3) c ( a1 /a2) 2 = I1 /I2 = 1/4 , a1/a2 = 1/2 now, Imax / I min = (a1+a2) 2 /(a1 ---a2) 2 = 9/1 I min/Imax =
1:9
4) c Path difference for nth minima = (2n−1)λ/2
For fifth minima (n = 5) = 9λ/2
5 ) b f=D = 60 cm For first minima, y=λ D /a = 5×10−5× 60x / 0.02 = 0.15cm

6. c W1/W2= a1 2 /a2 2
7. b red
8. a π radian
9.c dsinθ = nλ θ = sin−1(nλ/d/) =s in−1 ((1)(5000×10−10/0.001 x10-3 )) θ=30o .
10. b When one slit is closed, then no interference pattern will be formed and the intensity at the
centre is
I/4
11. (b) Diffraction pattern becomes narrower.
12. (d) None of these
13. c. Photoelectric effect
14. a 15.d 16. C 17. D 18.b 19.d 20. B 21. B 22.a 23. a 24.d 25.c
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ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given
below. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false d) A is false and R is also false
1. ASSERTION: In an interference pattern observed in Young's double slit experiment, if the
separation (d) between coherent sources as well as the distance (D) of the screen from the coherent
sources both are reduced to 1/3rd , then new fringe width remains the same.
REASON: Fringe width is proportional to (d/D).
2. ASSERTION: In Young's double slit experiment all the fringes are of equal width
REASON: The fringe width depends on wavelength (λ) of light, distance between the slits and
distance between slit and the screen( D )
3. ASSERTION: According to Huygen’s principle, no backward wave-front is possible.
Reason : Amplitude of secondary wavelet is proportional to (1 + cos θ) where θ is the angle between
the ray at the point of consideration and the direction of secondary wavelet.
4.ASSERTION:No interference pattern is detected when two coherent sources are infinitely close to
each other.
REASON: The fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between the two sources.
5. ASSERTION: White light falls on a double slit with one slit is covered by a green filter. The
bright fringes observed are of green colour.
REASON: The fringes observed are coloured.
6. ASSERTION: It is necessary to have two waves of equal intensity to study interference
pattern. REASON: There will be an effect on clarity if the waves are of unequal intensity.
7. ASSERTION: Interference pattern is made by using yellow light instead of red light, the
fringes becomes narrower.
REASON: In Young’s double slit experiment, fringe width is given by β=λD/d
8. ASSERTION: Diffraction takes place for all types of waves mechanical or non-mechanical,
transverse or longitudinal.
REASON: Diffraction’s effect are perceptible only if wavelength of wave is comparable to
dimensions of diffracting device.
9.ASSERTION The frequencies of incident, reflected and refracted beam of monochromatic light
are same. REASON: The incident, reflected and refracted rays are coplanar.
10. ASSERTION When a light wave travels from a rarer to a denser medium, it loses speed.
The reduction in speed imply a reduction in energy carried by the light wave.
REASON: The energy of a wave is proportional to velocity of wave.
11. ASSERTION Interference is not observed if the two coherent slit sources are broad.
REASON: A broad source is equivalent to many narrow slit sources.
12 ASSERTION When a plane wave passes through a thin prism, the emerging wavefront gets
tilted. REASON: Speed of light is less is glass than in air.
13. ASSERTION: The fringe closest on either side of the central white fringe in case of interference
pattern due to white light is red and the farthest appears blue.
REASON: The interference patterns due to different component colours of white light overlap.
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14. ASSERTION: All bright interference bands have same intensity.
REASON: Because all bands do not receive same light from two sources.
15. ASSERTION If we look clearly at the shadow cast by an opaque object, close to the region of
geometrical shadow, alternate dark and bright regions can be seen.
REASON: This happens due to the phenomenon of interference.
SOLUTIONS
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. A 5.c 6.d 7.a 8. B 9.b 10.d 11.a 12.a 13.b 14.c 15.c
CASE BASED QUESTIONS

1) Refraction of a plane wave
We know that when a light travels from one

transparent medium to another transparent
medium its path changes. So the laws of
refraction state that the angle of incidence is the
angle between the incident ray and the normal
and the angle of refraction is the angle between
the refracted ray and the normal. The incident
ray, reflected ray and the normal, to the
interface of any two given mediums all lie in
the same plane. We also know that the ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle
of refraction is constant.
(i) What is the angle made by the ray of light on the wavefront?
a) 90˚ b) 0˚
c) 45˚ d) None of the above
ii) Which parameter remains unchanged while a ray of light propagates from one medium to
another?
(a) velocity b) Wave length
c) frequency d) None of the above
iii) According to the above given fig., identify the correct expression for Snell’s law.
(a) n1 sin i = n2 sin r b) n2 sin i = n1 sin r
c) n21 = sin r/ sin i d) None of the above
iv) When a ray of light travels from a denser to a rarer medium, it
(a) it bends towards the normal b) it travels in a straight line irrespective of
angle of incidence.
c) it bends away from the normal d) None of the above
v) Which parameter changes while a ray of light propagates from one medium to another?
(a) velocity b) Wave length c) frequency d) both a and b
SOLUTIONS
i) a ii) (c) iii) (a) iv) (c) v)d
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2)Diffraction at a single slit
In the single-slit diffraction experiment, we can observe the bending

phenomenon of light or diffraction that causes light from a coherent
source to interfere with itself and produce a distinctive pattern on the
screen called the diffraction pattern. Diffraction is evident when the
sources are small enough that they are relatively the size of
the wavelength of light
(i) In the phenomena of Diffraction of light when the violet light is used in the experiment is used instead of
red light then,
(a) Fringe width increases (b) No change in fridge width
(c) Fringe width decreases (d) Colour pattern is formed
(ii) Diffraction aspect is easier to notice in case of the sound waves then in case of the light waves because
sound waves
a) Have longer wavelength (b) Shorter wavelength
(c) Longitudinal wave (d) Transverse waves
( iii) When 2nd secondary maxima is obtained in case of single slit diffraction pattern, the angular position is
given by
a) (b) /2 (c) 3/2 (d) 5/2
(iv) Intensity of secondary maxima in diffraction has

(a) same intensity as central maxima (b) less intensity than central maxima
(c) more intensity than central maxima (d) None of these,
SOLUTION (i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (d) (iv) (d)
3.Young’s Double slit experiment
Young’s double slit experiment uses two coherent sources

of light placed at a small distance apart. Usually, only a few
orders of magnitude greater than the wavelength of light are
used. Young’s double slit experiment helped in
understanding the wave theory of light, which is explained
with the help of a diagram. As shown, a screen or
photodetector is placed at a large distance, ‘D’ away from
the slits.
i) What is the path difference between the two light waves coming from coherent sources, which produces 3rd
maxima.
a)  b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
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ii) What is the correct expression for fringe width()?
a) d/D (b) /dD (c) d/D d) D/d
iii) what is the phase difference between two interfering waves producing 1st dark fringe?
a) π b) 2π c) 3π d) 4π
iv) The ratio of the widths of two slits in Young’s double slit experiment is 4: 1. Evaluate the ratio of
intensities at maxima and minima in the interference pattern.
a) 1:1 b) 1:4 c) 3:1 d) 9:1
v) In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is 0.1 mm, the wavelength of light
used is 600 nm and the interference pattern is observed on a screen 1m away. Find the separation between
bright fringes.
(a) 6.6 mm (b) 6.0 mm (c) 6 m (d) 60cm
SOLUTIONS
i) (c) ii) (d) iii) (a) iv) d v) b
4.Diffraction
In the single slit diffraction experiment, we can observe the bending of light
or diffraction that causes light from a source interfere with itself and produce
a distinctive pattern called the diffraction pattern. Diffraction is evident when
the sources are small enough that they are relatively the size of the
wavelength of light.
i)To observe diffraction, the size of the obstacle

a) Should be λ/2, where λ is the wavelength of light b) Should be of the order of wave length of light
c) Has no relation to wavelength of light d) Should be much larger than the wavelength
ii)When violet light of wavelength 415nm falls on a single slit, it creates a central diffraction peak that is
9.2cm wide on a screen that is 2.55m away. How wide is the slit?
a)3x108m b)3.8x10-7m c)2.3x10-5m d)4.2x10-7m
iii)A single slit 1mm wide is illuminated by 450nm light. What is the width of the central maximum in the
diffraction pattern on a screen 5cm away?
a)300x10-7m b)800x10-7cm c)450x10-7m d)500 x10-7m
iv)What happens with the diffraction pattern if the whole apparatus is immersed in water
(a) Width of central maximum increases b) Width of central maximum decreases
c) Wavelength of light increases d) Frequency of light decreases
SOLUTIONS
(i) .b 2. (c) a = 2λD/β =2.3x10-5 m 3. (c) β=2λD/a =2λD/a = 450x10-7m 4. (b) Wave length decrease
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5. Interference
Interference is based on the superposition principle. According
to this principle, at a particular point in the medium, the resultant
displacement produced by a number of waves is the vector sum
of the displacements produced by each of the waves. If two
sodium lamps illuminate two pinholes S1 and S2. the intensities
will add up and no interference fringes will be observed on the
screen. Here the source undergoes abrupt phase change in times
of the order of 10-10 seconds
i)In Young’s double slit experiment, the central bright fringe can be identified
(a)By using white light instead of monochromatic light (b) As it narrower than other bright fringes
(c)As it wider than other bright fringes (d)As it has greater intensity than the other bright fringes
(ii) In a Young's double-slit experiment, the slit separation is doubled. To maintain the same fringe spacing on
the screen, the screen-to-slit distance D must be changed to
a) 2D b) 4D (c) D/2 (d) D/4
(iii) In an interference experiment, third bright fringe is obtained at a point on the screen with a light of 700
nm. What should be the wavelength of the light source in order to obtain 5th bright fringe at the same point
(a)500nm (b)420nm (c) 750nm (d)630nm
(iv) The resultant amplitude of a vibrating particle by the superposition of the two waves
y1=a sin[ωt+π/3] and y2=a sinωt is
a) a (b)2√2 a (c) 2a (d) √3 a.
SOLUTIONS
(i) a (ii) a ( β=λ D/d) (iii) b , 3x700D/d = 5 λ D/d λ = 420nm

(iv) d Resultant amplitude =√ a +a +2axacos π/3 = √3a
2 2
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)
1.Define secondary wavelets and how can we construct new wavefront with them?
2.In a single slit diffraction experiment, width of the slit is increased. How will the (a) size and (b)
intensity of central bright band be affected? Justify your answer
3.(i)State one feature by which the phenomenon of interference can be distinguished from that of
diffraction. (ii)A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600 nm is incident normally on a slit of width
‘a’. If the distance between the slits and the screen is 0.8 m and the distance of 2nd order maximum
from the centre of the screen is. 15 mm, calculate the width of the slit.
4.State two conditions required for obtaining coherent sources In Young’s arrangement to produce
interference pattern, show that dark and bright fringes appearing on the screen are equally spaced.
5. Laser light of wavelength 640 nm incident on a pair of slits produces an interference pattern in
which the bright fringes are separated by 7.2 mm. Calculate the wavelength of another source of
light which produces interference fringes separated by 8.1 mm using same arrangement. Also find
the minimum value of the order ‘n’ of bright fringe of shorter wavelength which coincides with that
of the longer wavelength.
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6. Define the term wavefront. State Huygen’s principle.
7. Two slits are made 1mm apart and the screen is placed away. What should be the width of each slit
to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit pattern within the central maximum of the single slit pattern.
8. Sketch a graph showing the variation of fringe width versus the distance of the screen from the
plane of the slits (keeping other parameters same) in young’s double slit experiment What
information can one obtain from the slope of this graph?
9. Yellow light (λ = 6000Å) illuminates a single slit of width 1 x 10-4 m. Calculate (i)the distance
between the two dark lines on either side of the central maximum, when the diffraction pattern is
viewed on a screen kept 1.5 m away from the slit; (ii)the angular spread of the first diffraction
minimum.
10. A parallel beam of light of 500 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction pattern
is observed on a screen 1 m away. It is observed that the first minimum is at a distance of 2.5 mm
from the centre of the screen. Calculate the width of the slit.
11. (i) In what way is diffraction from each slit related to the interference pattern in a double slit
experiment? (ii) When a tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from a distance source, a
bright spot is seen at the centre of the shadow of the obstacle. Explain, why.
12. Write the distinguishing features between a diffraction pattern due to a single slit and the
interference fringes produced in Young’s double slit experiment?
SOLUTIONS
1. According to the Huygens’ principle, every particle of the medium, situated on the wavefront, acts
as a new source of light wave from which new similar waves originate. These waves are called
secondary wavelets. 1 The envelop of the secondary wavelets in the forward direction at any instant
gives the new wavefront at that instant
2. The width of the central bright band = 2D × λ d where d = width of the slit. (i) As the width of the
slit is doubled, the size of the central diffraction band will be half. 1 (ii) Intensity of central bright
band is proportional to d2. So, the intensity will get quadrupled.
3. i) In interference all the maxima are of equal intensity. In diffraction pattern central fringe is of
maximum intensity while intensity of secondary maxima falls rapidly. (ii) Position of nth maximum,
y=(2n+1) λD/2d, here n=2 y=5λD/2d
Substituting and solving, we get, d=80µm
4. Two conditions for obtaining coherent sources: (i) Two sources should give monochromatic light.
(ii)Coherent sources of light should be obtained from a single source by some device. The fringe width
(dark and bright) is given by Hence, it is same for both dark and bright fringes, so they are equally
spaced on the screen
5. Distance between two bright fringes = Fringe width β=λD/d ,for same values of D and d ,we get
β1/β2=λ1/λ2
Substituting and solving we get ,λ2=720 nm Calculation of minimum value of order for n to be
minimum (n + 1)th maxima of shorter wavelength should coincide with nth maximum of longer
wavelength (n+1)640= n(720),n=8.Hence minimum order of shorter wavelength is (n+1)=8+1=9
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6. Wave front: Wavefront is locus of all points in which light waves are in same phaseHuygens’
Principle: Each point of the wavefront is the source of a secondary disturbance and the wavelets
emanating from these points spread out in all directions. These travel with the same velocity as that
of the original wavefront.
7. width of central maxima of single slit pattern = width of10 maxima of double slit pattern
2λD/a=10(λD/d) a=0.2d , 0.2×10−3=0.2×10−3m=0.2mm
8.
Graph gives Wavelength λ = Slope x d
9. i) Distance between two dark lines, on either side of central maximum is =2λD/a,
Substituting and solving we get,18mm
(ii)Angular spread of the first diffraction minimum (on either side) ϴ=λ/a
Substituting and solving we get ϴ=6x10-3 rad
10. Path difference for nth minimum is asinϴ=nλ or aϴ=nλ
Also,ϴ=x/D From this we get, ax/D=nλ Substituting and solving we get. a=2x10-4 m
11. (i) Diffraction from each slit is related to interference pattern in a double slit experiment in the
following ways: The intensity of minima for diffraction is never zero, while for interference it is
generally zero. All bright fringes for diffraction are not of uniform intensity, while for interference,
these are of uniform intensity
(ii) Waves from the distant source are diffracted by the edge of the circular obstacle and these
diffracted waves interfere constructively at the centre of the obstacle’s shadow producing a bright spot.
12.
Interference Diffraction
1 Interference fringes may or may not Diffraction fringes are not to be of the same width
be of the same width.
2 The intensity of minima is generally The intensity of minima is never zero.

zero.
3 All bright fringes are of uniform All bright fringes are of not uniform intensity.
intensity.
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03 Marks questions
1.Two monochromatic waves emanating from two coherent sources have the displacements
represented by y1 = a cos ωt and y2 = a cos (ωt + ϕ ), where ϕ is the phase difference between the two
displacements. (a)Show that the resultant intensity at a point due to their superposition is given by I =
4I0 cos2 ϕ/2, where I0 = a2 . (b) Hence obtain the conditions for constructive and destructive
interference.
2.In Young’s double slit experiment to produce interference pattern, obtain the conditions for
constructive and destructive interference. Write the expression for fringe width
3. Draw the intensity pattern for single slit diffraction and double slit interference. Hence, state two
differences between interference and diffraction pattern.
4.The intensity pattern at the central maxima in Young’s double slit experiment is I0. Find out the
intensity at a point where the path difference is λ/4 &λ/3.
5. A beam of light consisting of two wavelength 800 nm and 600 nm is used to obtain the
interference fringes in young’s double slit experiment on a screen held 1.4 m away. If the two slits
are separated by 0.28 mm, calculate the least distance from the central bright maximum, where the
bright fringes of the two wavelengths coincide.
6. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, the slits are separated by 0.28 mm and the screen is placed
1.4 m away. The distance between the central bright fringe and the fourth bright fringe is measured
to be 1.2 cm. Determine the wavelength of light used in the experiment.
7. In a double-slit experiment the angular width of a fringe is found to be 0.2° on a screen placed 1 m
away. The wavelength of light used is 600 nm. What will be the angular width of the fringe if the
entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water? Take refractive index of water to be 4/3.
8. A slit of width “a” is illuminated by light of wavelength, 650nm.What will be the value of the
width ‘a’ when a) first minimum falls at an angle of diffraction 300 ? b) first maximum falls at an
angle of diffraction 300 ?
(c) Why does the intensity of the secondary maximum become less as compared to the central
maximum?
9. (a) If one of two identical slits producing interference in Young’s experiment is covered with glass,
so that the light intensity passing through it is reduced to 50%, find the ratio of the maximum and
minimum intensity of the fringe in the interference pattern. (b) What kind of fringes do you expect
to observe if white light is used instead of monochromatic light
10. (a) Why are coherent sources necessary to produce a sustained interference pattern?
(b) In Young’s double slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity of
light at a point on the screen where path difference is λ, is K units. Find out the intensity of light at a
point where path difference is λ/3.
SOLUTIONS
1. (a) Let the two waves be represented by equations y1=acosωt,y2=a cos(ωt+φ) From the Principle of
superposition of waves we get, y=y1+y2=2acos(φ/2) cos (ωt+φ/2) Resultant Amplitude is A
=2acos(φ/2) Hence, Resultant Intensity α (amplitude)2 =4a2 cos2 (φ/2)
(a) For constructive interference: (ii)For destructive interference: Cos (Ф/2) = 0 or Ф/2 = (2n-1)π/2 Ф =
(2n-1)π
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2. Let the Resultant wave Amplitude be ‘A’ A2=a1 2+a2 2+2a1a2cosφ
For constructive interference: Cosφ=+1, so, Phase difference is φ=2nπ and path difference is
x=nλ For destructive interference, Cosφ=-1,So φ=(2n-1)π,n=1,2,3…. Hence path difference is
x= (2n-1)λ/2 Fringe width β= λD/d
3.
4. Answer: If the path difference =λ/4 Here for the given, first case, the path difference is given as
Δx=λ/4 , Δx=2π/λ× ϕ ⇒ϕ=π/2 Now substituting the value of ϕ=π/2 in the equation I=4I0cos2ϕ/2
⇒I=4I0cos2π/4 ⇒I=2I0 Therefore the intensity at a point on a screen in Young’s double-slit
experiment where interfering waves of equal intensity have a path difference of λ/4 is given as 2I0.
ii). For λ/3 ⇒ϕ=2π/3 ⇒I=4I0cos2 (2π/6 )⇒ ∴I=I0 Therefore the intensity at a point on a screen in
Young’s double-slit experiment where interfering waves of equal intensity have a path difference of
λ/3 is given as I0
5. The two bright fringes will coincide when n1λ1=n2λ2
⇒ n1×800×10−9= n2×600×10−9
⇒4n1=3n2 n1≠=0,n2≠ 0
For y to be minimum and since n are integers, n1=3,n2=4
y=n1λ1D/d= 3x800x10-9 x1.4/0.28x10-3 ⇒y=1.2×10−2m
⇒y=1.2 cm
6. Distance between the slits, d = 0.28 mm = 0.28 × 10 -3 m

Distance between the slits and the screen, D = 1.4 m
Distance between the central fringe and the fourth (n = 4) fringe = 1.2 cm = 1.2 × 10 -2 m
For constructive interference, the distance between the two fringes is given by relation: x = nλ D/d
where, n = Order of fringes wavelength of the light can be given as:
λ = xd/nD = 1.2x10-2x0.28x10-3 /4x1.4 = 6x10-7 m
7. Distance of the screen from the slits, D = 1 m

Wavelength of light used, λ1 =600 nm
Angular width of the fringe in air, θ1 = 0.2°
Angular width of the fringe in water = θ,
Refractive index of water, µ = 4/3
Refractive index is related to angular width as: µ =
θ1/ θ2 θ2 = 3/4 θ1 = 3/4 x 0.2 = 0.15°.
8. (i)first minimum at 300 satisfies the condition, d sinθ=λ, d= λ/sin 30 =1300nm

(ii) first maxima at 300 satisfies the condition d sinθ =3λ/2 d= 3λ/2sin 30 =1950nm
(a) As the order increases only 1/nth (where n is an odd number) of the slit, will contribute in producing
brightness at a point in diffraction. So the higher order maxima are not so bright as the central
maximum
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9. (a) After the introduction of the glass sheet (say, on the second slit),
we have = 50% = 1/ 2
Ratio of the amplitudes = a1/ a2 = √1/2
Hence I max/ I min = (a1+a2)2/(a1-a2)2
(1+1/√2)2 / (1-1/√2)2= (√2+1)2/ (√2-1)2
=34.55
a. central fringe remains white. No clear fringe pattern is seen after a few (coloured) fringes on either side
of the central fringe
10. (a) Coherent sources are needed to ensure that the positions of maxima and minima do not change
with time. These have a constant phase difference and, therefore produce sustained interference
pattern.
I’=k/4
Intensity, I=4I0 cos2ф/2
For path difference λ, phase difference ф= 2π
Hence, K=4Iocos2π= 4Io=K
For path difference λ/3, phase difference ф=(2π/3)(λ/3)= 2π/3
Intensity I’=4I0 cos2π/3 =4I0 (1/2)2 =I0
05 marks questions
1.State Huygen’s principle. Using this principle draw a diagram to show how a plane wave front
incident at the interface of the two media gets refracted when it propagates from a rarer to a denser
medium. Hence verify Snell’s law of refraction. (b) When monochromatic light travels from a rarer to
a denser medium, explain the following, giving reasons : (i) Is the frequency of reflected and refracted
light same as the frequency of incident light? (ii) Does the decrease in speed imply a reduction in the
energy carried by light wave?
2.(a) State the essential conditions for diffraction of light (b) In a single slit diffraction experiment, the
width of the slit is made double the original width. How does this affect the size and intensity of the
central diffraction band? (c) In what way is diffraction from each slit related to the interference pattern
in a doubleslit experiment? (d) Draw the intensity pattern for double and single slit experiment.
3.(a) A plane wavefront is incident at an angle of incidence I on a reflecting surface . Draw a diagram
showing incident wavefront, reflected wavefront and verify the laws of reflection on the basis of
Huygens wave theory the shape of
(b) Two wavelengths of sodium light of 590 nm and 596 nm are used in turn to study the diffraction
taking place at a single slit of aperture 2 × 10-6 m. The distance between the slit and the screen is 1.5
m. Calculate the separation between the positions of first maxima of the diffraction pattern obtained in
the two cases
4. (a) Why cannot the phenomenon of interference be observed by illuminating two pin holes
with two sodium lamps? (b) Two monochromatic waves having displacements y1 = a cos ωt and y2 = a
cos (ωt + θ) from two coherent sources interfere to produce an interference pattern. Derive the
expression for the resultant intensity and obtain the conditions for constructive and destructive
interference.
5. (a) Use Huygens’ geometrical construction to show how a plane wave front at t = 0
propagates and produces a wave front at a later time.
(b) Verify, using Huygens’ principle, Snell’s law of refraction of a plane wave propagating from a
denser to a rarer medium
c) When monochromatic light is incident on a surface separation two media, the reflected and
refracted light both have the same frequency. Explain why?
197
SOLUTIONS
1. (a) Huygen’s Principle ; Huygen’s Principle is based on two assumptions : (i) Each point on the
primary wavefront is a source of a new disturbance called secondary wavelets which travel in all
directions with same velocity as that of original waves. (ii) A surface tangential to the secondary .
wavelets gives the position and shape of new wavefront at any instant. This is called secondary
wavefront.
Verification of Snell’s Law, From the figure

Prove sini/sinr=v1/v2= n21
we get the Snell’s Law
(b) (i) Yes, frequency is the property of source. Hence, frequency

does not change when light is reflected or refracted.
(c) (ii) No, decrease in speed does not imply reduction in energy
carried by light wave.
This is because the frequency does not change and according to the
formula E = hv, energy will be independent of speed. Energy carried by a wave depends on the
amplitude of the wave, not on the speed of wave propagation
2. Size of the slit or aperture must be smaller the wavelength of light used(b) When width of single
slit is made double, the half angular width of central maximum which is λ/a, reduces to half. The
intensity of central maximum will become 4 times. This is because area of central diffraction band
would become 1/4th. (c) If width of each slit is of the order of λ, then interference pattern in the
double slit experiment is modified by the diffraction pattern from each of the two slits d) Intensity
pattern due to a single slit
3.
Consider a plane wave AB incident at an angle i on a

reflecting surface MN. If v represents the speed of the
wave in the medium and if τ represents the time taken
by the wavefront to advance from the point B to C
then the distance BC = vτ In order to construct the
reflected wavefront draw a sphere of radius vτ from
the point A as shown in Fig. Let CE represent the
tangent plane drawn from the point C to this sphere. Obviously, AE = BC = vτ
Consider the triangles EAC and BAC they are congruent and therefore, the angles i and r would be
equal.
This is the law of reflection
198
b) Wavelengths of sodium light, λ1 = 590 nm and λ2 = 596 nm The general expression for nth secondary
maxima is given
First maxima due to λ1(β1) = λ1D x3/2d
First maxima doe to λ2(β2) = λ2D

x3/2d β1- β2 = 3D (λ2-λ1)/2d = 6.75
mm
4. (a) The interference phenomenon cannot be observed by using two illuminating pin holes with two
sodium lamps because the light emitted from sodium lamps undergoes abrupt phase changes in 1s
which will not have any fixed phase relationship as they are incoherent.
(b) The displacement equations for two monochromatic waves are given as y1
= acos wt and y2 = acos (wt + θ) Derive
A2 = 2a2 [1 + cos 2wt] A2 = 4a2 cos2 wt/2 This is the required expression.
For constructive interference, I should be maximum I max = 4a2 , if wt= 0, ± 2π, ± 4
π... For destructive interference, I should be minimum I min = 0, if wt = ± π, ± 3 π,
± 5 π....
5.(a).
(b)
The figure drawn here shows the refracted wave front corresponding to the given incident wave
front. It is seen that sini= BC/ AC= v1 t/ AC = sinr= AE /AC= v2 t /AC = sini/ sinr=v1/v2=n21
This is Snell’s law of refraction
Also prove ν1=ν2
(c) Reflection and refraction arise through interaction of incident light with
atomic constituents of matter which vibrate with the same frequency as that of the
incident light. Hence frequency remains unchanged.
SELF EVALUATION TEST -1

M.M : 25 TIME : 45 MIN MCQ [4 x 1 =4]
1. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4 I are superposed. The
maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beams are :
(a) 5 I and I (b) 9 I and I (c) 5 I and 3 I (d) 9 I and 3 I
2. A plane wave front passes through a convex lens. The geometrical shape of the wavefront
that emerges is
(a) Plane (b) diverging spherical (c) converging spherical (d) none of these
199
3. Diffraction aspect is easier to notice in case of the sound waves than in case of light waves
because sound waves
(a) Have Longer wavelength (b) have shorter wavelength
(c) are longitudinal waves (d) are transverse waves
4. In diffraction from a single slit, the angular width of the central maxima does not depend
upon
(a) Wavelength of the light used (b) width of the slit
(c) distance of slits from screen (d) ratio of wavelength and slit width
Assertion – Reason ( options have the usual meaning) [ 2x 1 = 2]
5. Assertion : To observe diffraction of light, the size of the obstacle aperture should be of the
order of 10-7 m.
Reason : 10-7m is the order of the wavelength of light.
6. Assertion : The emergent plane wave front is tilted on refraction of a plane wave by a thin
prism Reason : The speed of light waves is more in glass and the base of the prism is thicker
than the top.
7. What will be the effect on interference fringes in YDE when

(i) the width of the source slit is increased? (ii) the monochromatic source is replaced by a
source
of white light? [2]
8. (i) Define wavefront (ii) draw the shape of wave front in each of the following cases :
(a) light diverging from a point source (b) wavefront emerging from a distant source.
[2]
9. (i) In Young’s Double slit experiment, write the conditions for constructive and destructive
Interference at a point on the screen (ii) Draw a graph showing the variation of intensity in the
Interference pattern against the position ‘x’ on the screen. [3]

10. In a diffraction pattern, how will the angular width of central maximum change, (i) orange
light is used in place of green light.
(ii) screen is moved closer to the slit
(iii) Slit width is decreased ? Justify your answer in each case. [3]
11. CASE BASED QUESTION : [4]

According to superposition principle, the resultant displacement produced due the number of waves
at a particular point is the vector sum of displacement produced by each vector at that point. The two
sources of light are said to be coherent only when the phase difference between the light waves
produced by them is zero or constant. The point at which two waves are in phase or if trough of one
wave coincides with the trough of other or crest of one wave coincides with the crest of other then
the resultant intensity produced at that point will be larger and amplitude also maximum. Such points
are the points where constructive interference takes place. While there are some points where two
light waves are not in phase with each other and crest of one wave coincides with the trough of other
and vice versa due to which resultant intensity at that point is minimum and amplitude also get
decreased. Such points are the points where destructive interference takes place.
(i) For coherent sources of light the phase difference must be : [1] a)
one b) zero c) either zero or constant d) 90°
200
(ii) The interference and diffraction of light explains which nature of light? [1]
(iii) How conservation of energy is possible in interference and diffraction of light? [2]
12. . (i) State Huygen’s principle. Using this , verify Snell’s Law of refraction for a plane wave
Propagating from rarer to denser medium.
(ii) Write two points of difference between an interference and diffraction pattern. [5]
SELF EVALUATION TEST : 2

M.M : 25 TIME : 45 MIN
MCQ [4X1=4]
1. The energy of the wave travels in a direction ______ to the wavefront
(a) Parallel b) Perpendicular c) Both a and b d) None
2. Each point of the wave front is the source of secondary disturbance and the wavelets
originating from these points spread out
(a) In only one direction b) In all directions with the speed of wave
c) In all directions d) None
3. The intensity of the wave is directly proportional to the
(a) Cube of the amplitude b) Amplitude c) Square of the amplitude d) None
4. For destructive interference, the resultant intensity is
(a) Maximum b) Minimum c) Zero d) None
ASSERTION -REASON ( options have the usual meaning) [2 X 1 =2]
5. Assertion : No interference pattern is detected when two coherent sources are infinitely close
to each other.
Reason : The fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between the two sources.
6. Assertion : Interference pattern is made by using yellow light instead of red light, the fringes
becomes narrower.
Reason : In YDSE, fringe width is given by β=λD/d
7. (i) Differentiate between a ray and a wave front.

(ii) Draw the shape of wavefront emerging out of a concave mirror when a plane wave is
incident on
it [2]
8. Laser light of wavelength 640 nm incident on a pair of slits produces an interference pattern
in which the bright fringes are separated by 7.2 mm. Calculate the wavelength of another
source of light which produces interference fringes separated by 8.1 mm using same
arrangement. [2]
201
9. State Huygen’s Principle. Using Huygen’s construction draw a figure showing the
propagation of a plane wave reflecting at the interface of the two media. Show that the angle
of incidence is equal to
the angle of reflection. [3]
10. (a) Why are coherent sources necessary to produce a sustained interference pattern?
(b) In Young’s double slit experiment using mono-chromatic light of wavelength X, the
intensity of light at a point on the screen where path difference is X, is K units. Find out the
intensity of light at a
point where path difference is 2 𝜆. [3]
3
CASE BASED QUESTION

[4]
11. The phenomenon of bending of light around the corners of small obstacles or apertures and
its consequent spreading into the regions of geometrical shadow is called diffraction of light.
If the size of the aperture is small , comparable to the wavelength of waves, then the
diffracted waves are
almost spherical. If the size of the aperture is larger, then the amount of bending is small.
The sound waves have larger wavelength so they get easily diffracted by the objects around
us.
(i) Write the necessary condition for diffraction to occur. [1]

(ii) Diffraction is common in sound but not common in light
waves.
Why ? [1]
(iii) Two students are separated by a 7 m partition wall in a

room 10 m high. If both light and sound waves can bend
around obstacles, how is it that the students are unable to
see each other even though
they can converse easily? [2]
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [5]

12. (i) (a) In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is made double the original
width. How does this affect the size and intensity of the central diffraction?
(ii) Coloured spectrum is seen, when we look through a muslin cloth. Why?
(iii) In a young’s double slit experiment, the slit are repeated at 0.24mm. The screen is 1.2m
away from the slits. The fringe width is 0.3cm calculate the wavelength of light used in the
experiment?
202
CHAPTER 11: DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
203
GIST OF LESSON:
Work Function
The minimum energy needed by an electron to come out from a metal surface (Wo or фo). Electron emission
The electrons from a metal surface can be emitted by supplying energy greater than Wo by suitably heating
(thermionic emission) or applying strong electric field (field emission) or irradiating it by light of suitable
frequency (photoelectric emission).
K.E. gained by an accelerated electron
An electron accelerated from rest through a p.d. of V volts,
Gain in K.E = ½ mv 2 = eV
Electron Volt
Kinetic energy gained by an electron when accelerated through a p.d. of V volts.
1eV = 1.6 x 10 -19 J, 1 MeV = 1.6 x 10 -13 J
Particle nature of light -The photons
According to Planck’s quantum theory of radiation, an electromagnetic wave travels in the form of discrete
packets of energy called quanta. One of quantum of light radiation is called a photon.
Photon nature of electromagnetic radiation
1. In its interaction with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made of particles, called
2. photons.
3. Each photon carries an energy (E = hυ) and momentum (p = (h / λ), which depends upon
4. the frequency of radiation and not on its frequency.
5. Photons are electrically neutral not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
6. In photon – electron collision, total energy and total momemtum are conserved but the
7. number of photons may not be conserved.
8. The rest mass of a photon is zero.
9. The equivalent mass of a photon is given by
E = mc 2 = hυ or m = hυ / c 2
Photoelectric effect
The phenomenon of emission of electrons from a metal surface, when electromagnetic radiation
of suitable frequency is incident on it. Metals like Li, Na, K, Ce show photoelectric effect with
visible light while metal like Zn, Cd, Mg respond to ultraviolet light.
Photoelectric Current
The current constituted by photoelectrons. It depends on (i) the intensity of incident light, (ii)
p.d. applied between the two electrodes, and (iii) the nature of emitter material.
Cut off or stopping potential
The minimum value of negative potential applied to the anode of a photocell to make the
photoelectric current zero. It depends on (i) frequency of incident light and (ii) the nature of
emitter material. For a given frequency of incident light, it is independent of its intensity. It is
related to the maximum K.E. of the emitter electrons as
Threshold frequency
The minimum value of the frequency of incident radiation below which the photoelectric
emission stops altogether, it is a characteristic of the metal.
Laws of Photoelectric emission
1. For a given metal and a radiation of fixed frequency, the rate of emission of
Photo electrons is proportional to the intensity of incident radiation.
2. For every metal, there is a certain minimum frequency below which no photoelectrons are emitted;
however high is the intensity of the incident radiation. This frequency is called threshold frequency.
3. For the radiation of frequency higher than the threshold frequency, the maximum kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons is directly proportional to the frequency of incident radiation and is independent of the
intensity of incident radiation.
4. The photoelectric emission is an instantaneous process.
204
Failure of wave theory to explain photoelectric effect
The picture of continuous absorption of energy from the radiation could not explain
1. The independence of Kmax on intensity,
2. The existence of threshold frequency vo, and
3. The instantaneous nature of photoelectric emission.
Einstein’s theory of photoelectric effect
When a radiation of frequency v is incident on a metal surface, it is absorbed in the form of discrete photons
each of energy hv. Photoelectric emission occurs because of single collision of a photon with a free electron.
The energy of the photon is used to
1. Free the electron from the metal surface. It is equal to the work function Wo of the metal.
2. Provide kinetic energy to the emitted electron
hv =Kmax + W0
1
or Kmax= 2 mv 2 max = h𝜈 – W0
This is Einstein’s photoelectric equation.
Explanation of photoelectric emission on the basis of Einstein’s photoelectric emission
1. Clearly, above the threshold frequency υ0, Kmax is directly proportional to υ i.e. the maximum K.E. of
the emitted electrons depends linearly on the frequency of incident radiation.
2. When υ υ0, Kmax become negative. The kinetic energy becomes negative which has no physical
meaning. Hence there is no photoelectric emission below the threshold frequency υ0.
3. It is obvious from the photo-electric equation that the maximum K.E. of photo-electrons does not
depend on the intensity of incident high.
Dual nature of radiation:
Light has dual nature. It manifests itself as a wave in diffraction, interference, polarization etc. while it shows
particle nature in photoelectric effect, Compton scattering etc.
Dual nature of matter:
According to De-Broglie hypothesis, material particles in motion display wave like properties. This hypothesis
was based on (i) de-Broglie concept of nature loves symmetry, and (ii) matter can be converted into energy
and vice versa. So moving particles like protons, neutrons, electrons etc. are associated with de-Broglie waves
and their wavelength is given by
h h
λ = P = mv
De-Broglie wavelength of an electron:
The wavelength associated with an electron beam accelerated through a potential difference of V volts is given
by
h 1.227 12.27
λ= = nm = A0
√2meV √V √V
IMPORTANT GRAPHS
205
IMPORTANT FORMULAE:
Sl. Formulae Symbol Application

No.
1. E = hυ =hc/ λ E = energy of photon, To find energy of photon
h = Planck’s constant,
υ = frequency
2. фo= hυo = hc /λ o фo=work function , Relation between work
ϑo = threshold frequency, function фo and ,λo
λo=threshold wavelength
3. Kmax= ½ mv2 Kmax = Maximum kinetic Einstein’s photoelectric

= hυ – фo energy of emitted electron, equation
= h υ– υo ) vmax= maximum velocity
4. Kmax = ½ mv2= eVo E = charge on electron, Relation between
Vo = stopping potential maximum kinetic energy
and stopping potential
5. λ = h/ mv = h/p λ =wavelength of matter wave, p de- Broglie wavelength of

= momentum of matter matter wave
particle
206
6. λ = h/ √mE = h/√2mqV E = kinetic energy Relation between de-
V = accelerating potential Broglie wavelength
and
kinetic energy E and V
7. eVo = hυ– фo λ = wavelength of incident Relation between
= hc/λ – фo radiation, wavelength of incident
λ = hc/(eVo +фo ) фo = work function, radiation and φo,Vo when
Vo = stopping potential photoelectric current is
brought to zero. Straight
line curve between V0
And ϑ
8 N = P/E N = no. of photons emitted by the To find no. of photons
source per sec, P = power of emitted per sec on an
incident radiation, E = energy of average by the source.
photon
9 dV0 /dυ = h/e Vo = stopping potential ϑ Slope of Vo vs υ gives

= frequency of incident Planck’s constant, Also
radiation slope is constant for all
metals
Multiple choice questions

1. Cathode ray consists of
a. Photons
b. Electrons
c. Protons
d. α-particles
2. In which of the following, emission of electrons does not take place?
a. Thermionic emission
b. X-rays emission
c. Photoelectric emission
d. Secondary emission
3. Which of the following when falls on a metal will emit photo electrons ?
a. UV radiations
b. Infrared radiation
c. Radio waves
d. Microwaves
4. Which of the following metals is not sensitive to visible light?
a. Caesium
b. Sodium
c. Rubidium
d. Cadmium
5. Photons are deflected by
a. electric field only
b. magnetic field only
c. electromagnetic field
d. None of these
6. The momentum of a photon of wavelength λ is
a. hλ b. h/λ c. λ/h d. h/cλ
7. Maximum KE of photo electrons is 4 e V Then the stopping potential is
a. 4 V b. 1.6 V c. 4 J d. 4 e V
207
8. The slope of stopping potential vs frequency of the incident light graph is
a. e/h
b. h/e
c. h/c
d. c/h
9. Photoelectric effect shows

a. wave like behaviour of light
b. paritcle like behaviour of light
c. both wavelike and paticle like behavior
d. neither wave like nor particle like behaviour of light.
10. An electron and a proton have the same de Broglie wave length. Which of them have greater
velocity.
a. Electron
b. proton.
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
11. The work function of a metal is hc/λ0 . If light of wavelength λ is incident on

its surface , then the essential condition for the electron to come out from
the metal surface is
a. λ > λ0 b .λ > 2 λ0 c. λ < λ0 d. λ < 2λ0
12. When monochromatic radiation of intensity I falls on a metal surface, the number of photoelectron
and their maximum kinetic energy are n and k respectively. If the intensity of radiation is 21, the
number of emitted photoelectron and their maximum kinetic energy will be
a. n and 2k b. 2n and 2k c. 2n and k d. n and k
13. The work function of caesium is 2.14 eV. Find the wavelength of the incident light if the photo
current is brought to zero by a stopping potential of 0.60 volt :-
(a) 454 nm (b) 640 nm (c) 540 nm (d) None of these
14. The maximum K.E of the electrons emitted in photoelectric effect is related to the work function
of metal as
a) It doesn’t depend on work function b)It decreases as the work function increases
c) It increases as the work function increases d) It’s value is doubled with the work function
15. What is the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated from rest through a potential
difference of 100 volts?
(a) 12.3 Å (b) 1.23 Å (c) 0.123 Å d) None of these
ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a
corresponding statement of Reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as:
(A)If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(B)If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(C)If assertion is true and reason is false
(D)If both assertion and reason are false
1. Assertion: A photon has no rest mass , yet it carries definite momentum.
Reason: Momentum of photon is due to its energy and hence its equivalent mass.
2. Assertion: Mass of moving photon varies inversely as the wavelength.
Reason: Energy of the particle = mass x (speed of light)
3. Assertion: In photoelectron emission, the velocity of electron ejected from near the surface is larger
than that coming from interior of metal.
Reason. The velocity of ejected electron will be zero.
208
4. Assertion: A photocell is called an electric eye.
Reason. When light is incident on some semiconductor, its electrical resistance is reduced .
5. Assertion: The de Broglie equation has significance for any microscopic or sub microscopic particle.
Reason: The de Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to the mass of the object if velocity is
constant.
6. Assertion: A particle of mass M at rest decay into particles of masses m1 and m2,having non- zero
velocities will have ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths unity.
Reason. Here we cannot apply conservation of linear momentum.
7. Assertion: Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.
Reason. The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light.
8. Assertion: When a certain wavelength of light falls on a metal surface it ejects electron.
Reason. Light has wave nature.
9. Assertion: As work function of a material increases by some mechanism, it requires greater energy to
excite the electrons from its surface.
Reason. A plot of stopping potential (V) versus frequency (v) for different materials, has greater slope for
metals with greater work functions.
10. Assertion: Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on photo sensitive
material. If the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled the photo current remains unchanged.
Reason. The photo electric current varies directly with the intensity of light.
11. Assertion : On increasing the intensity of light, the number of photoelectrons emitted is more. Also
KE of each photon increases but photoelectric current is constant.
Reason : Photoelectric current is independent of intensity, but increases with increase in frequency.
12. Assertion: It is easier to remove an electron from Sodium than Copper.
Reason : Threshold frequency of Copper is more than that of Sodium.
13. Assertion : Non-metals can also show photo electric effect.
Reason: They show photoelectric effect with light of very low frequency
14. Assertion: A Photon is about 1840 times heavier than an electron. When it is accelerated by a PD of
1kV, it‘s KE is 1keV.
Reason: Gain in KE =Charge X PD
15. Assertion:. An electron microscope has better resolving power than an Optical Microscope.
Reason : Electrons have wave nature
1 Marks Questions
1. If the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is doubled what will happen to the energy of
photons?
2. Two metals A and B have work functions 4 eV and 10 eV, respectively. Which metal has higher
threshold wavelength?
3. What is the momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV?
4. A proton and an electron have same kinetic energy. Which one has greater de-Broglie wavelength
and why?
5. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated through a potential difference V
is λ. What will be its wavelength when the accelerating potential is increased to 4 V?
6. The maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is 3 eV. What is its stopping potential ?
7. It is difficult to eject out an electron from copper than sodium, which of the two metals has greater
work function and which has greater threshold wavelength?
8. Electrons are emitted from a photosensitive surface when it is illuminated by green light but electron
emission does not take place by yellow light. Will the electrons be emitted when the surface is
illuminated by (i)red light ,(ii)blue light?
9. A proton, a neutron, an electron and an α particle have same energy. Then their de-
Broglie wavelengths compare as
10. Why do we not observe the phenomenon of photoelectric effect with non-metals?
209
2 Marks Questions
1. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 100 volt. What is the de-Broglie
wavelength associated with it? To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does this value of
wavelength correspond?
2. Two lines, A and B, in the plot given below show the variation of de-Broglie wavelength, λ versus
1√V, Where V is the accelerating potential difference, for two particles carrying the same charge.
Which one of two represents a particle of smaller mass ?
3. An alpha particle and a proton are accelerated through same potential difference. Find the
ratio(vᾳ/vp) of velocities acquired by two particles.
4. (i). The stopping potential in an experiment on photoelectric effect is 1.5 V. What is the maximum
kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted?
(ii) State one factor which determines the intensity of light in the photon picture of light.
5. Monochromatic light of frequency 6x1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2x103W.
i) What is the energy of photon in the light? ii) How many photons per second on the average are
emitted by the source
6. The work function of a certain metal is 4.2 eV. Will this metal give photoelectric emission for
incident radiation of wavelength 330 nm?
7. The graph shows variation of stopping potential Vo verses frequency of incident radiation ϑ for
two photosensitive metals A and B
8. (i) Which of the two metals has higher threshold frequency and why?
(ii)What does intercept on –ive y axis represent?
V0
9. What is the effect of wavelength of incident photons on velocity of photoelectrons?

A beam of monochromatic radiation is incident on a photosensitive surface. Do the emitted
photoelectrons have the same kinetic energy ? Explain
10. In an experiment on photoelectric emission, following observations were made 1) Wavelength of
the incident light = 2 × 10–7 m 2) Stopping potential = 3 V Find (i) kinetic energy of photoelectrons with
maximum speed (ii) work function
3 Marks Questions
1. The work function of Caesium metal is 2.14eV. When light of frequency 6 x 1014Hz is incident
on the metal surface photoemission of electrons occurs.
a. What is the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons
b. stopping potential
c. maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons
2. Define the terms (i) cut-off voltage and (ii) threshold frequency in relation to the Phenomenon of
photoelectric effect. Using Einstein’s photoelectric equation show how the cut -off voltage and
210
threshold frequency for a given photosensitive material can be determined with the help of a suitable
plot.
3. The work function for a certain metal is 4.2 eV. Will this metal give photoelectric emission for
incident radiation of wavelength 330nm?
4. X-rays of wavelength fall on a photo sensitive surface emitting electrons. Assume that the work
function of the metal can be neglected, prove that the de-Broglie wave length of the emitted electron
ℎ𝜆
will be√2𝑚𝑐
5. An electron and a photon each have a wavelength 10-9 m. Find (i) Their momenta (ii) The energy of
the photon and (iii) The kinetic energy of electron.
6. When a given photo sensitive material is irradiated with light of
frequency ϑ, themaximum speed of the emitted photoelectron
equals v max.v 2 is observed varywith ϑ as per the following max
graph. Obtain expression for (i) Planck’s constant and (ii)the

work function of the given photo sensitive material, in terms of
the parameters l, n and the mass of the electron (iii) How is
threshold frequency determined from the graph?
7. Light of wavelength 2000A0 falls on an aluminum surface. In aluminium4.2 eV are required to

remove an electron. What is the kinetic energy of (a) fastest (b) the slowest photoelectron?
8. A beam of monochromatic radiation is incident on a photosensitive Surface. Answer the following
questions giving reasons.
a. Do the emitted photoelectrons have the same kinetic energy?
b. Does the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons depend on the intensity of incident radiation?
c. On what factors does the number of emitted photoelectrons depend?
9.The following graph shows the variation of stopping potential V0 with the frequency v of the incident
radiation for two photosensitive metals X and Y
I. Which of the metals has larger threshold wavelength? Give reason.

II. Explain, giving reason, which metal gives out electrons, having larger kinetic energy, for the
same wavelength of the incident radiation.
III. If the distance between the light source and metal X is halved, how will the kinetic energy of
electrons emitted from it change? Give reason.
10. Monochromatic radiation of wavelength 640.2nmfrom a neon lamp irradiates a photosensitive
metal made of tungsten. The stopping potential is measured to be 0.54 V. The source is replaced by an
iron source which emits radiation of wavelength 427.2nm which irradiates at the same potential.
Calculate the stopping potential.
5 Marks Questions
1) Draw properly labelled graphs to show the following concerning photo electric emission:
(i) Variation of photo electric current with the intensity of incident radiation .
ii) Variation of photo electric current with accelerating and stopping potential .
(iii) Variation of stopping potential with frequency of incident radiation . From the graph how the following
can be determined.
1)Plank’ s constant .
2)The work function of the material .
211
2) Obtain Einstein s photoelectric equation. Explain how it enables us to understand the
(i) Indepedence of maximum energy of the emitted photo electrons from the intensity of incident light
.
(ii) Linear dependence of the maximum energy of the emitted electrons on the frequency of the incident
radiation .
(iii) The existence of threshold frequency for a given photo emitter.
3) Derive the expression for the de Broglie wavelength of an electron moving under a potential difference
of V volts .
A deuteron and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same accelerating potential .Which one of
the two has; (i) greater value of de Broglie wavelength. (ii) Less kinetic energy.? Explain
CASE BASED QUESTIONS:
I. According to wave theory of light, the light of any frequency can emit electrons from metallic surface
provided the intensity of light be sufficient to provide necessary energy for emission of electrons,
but according to experimental observations, the light of frequency less than threshold frequency can
not emit electrons; whatever be the intensity of incident light. Einstein also proposed that
electromagnetic radiation is quantised.
If photoelectrons are ejected from a surface when light of wavelength λ1 = 550 nm is incident on it.
The stopping potential for such electrons is Vs =0.19 .If photoelectrons are ejected from a surface
when light of wavelength λ1 = 550 nm is incident on it. The stopping potential for such electrons is
Vs =0.19 . Suppose the radiation of wavelength λ2 = 190 nm is incident on the surface.
i. Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because
A. there is a minimum frequency of light below which no photoelectrons are emitted.
B. the maximum K.E. of photoelectric depends only on the frequency of light and not on its
intensity
C. even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the photo electrons leave the surface
immediately.
D. electric charge of the photoelectrons is quantized.
d. A, B, C
e. B, C
f. C, D
g. A, D, C
ii. In photoelectric effect, electrons are ejected from metals, if the incident light has a certain
minimum
a. Wavelength
b. Frequency
c. Amplitude
d. angle of incidence
iii. Calculate the stopping potential Vs2 of surface.
a. 4.47
b. 3.16
c. 2.76
d. 5.28
iv. Calculate the work function of the surface
a. 3.75
b. 2.07
c. 4.20
d. 3.60
v. Calculate the threshold frequency for the surface
a. 500 x 1012 Hz
b. 480 x 1013 Hz
c. 520 x 1011 Hz
d. 460 x 1013 Hz
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II. Lenard observed that when ultraviolet radiations were allowed to fall on the emitter plate of an
evacuated glass tube, enclosing two electrodes (metal plates), current started flowing in the circuit
connecting the plates. As soon as the ultraviolet radiations were stopped, the current flow also stopped.
These observations proved that it was ultraviolet radiations, falling on the emitter plate, that ejected
some charged particles from the emitter and the positive plate attracted them.
i. Alkali metals like Li, Na, K and Cs show photo electric effect with visible light but metals like
Zn, Cd and Mg respond to ultraviolet light. Why?
a. Frequency of visible light is more than that for ultraviolet light
b. Frequency of visible light is less than that for ultraviolet light
c. Frequency of visible light is same for ultraviolet light
d. Stopping potential for visible light is more than that for ultraviolet light
ii. Why do we not observe the phenomenon of photoelectric effect with non-metals?
a. For non metals the work function is high
b. Work function is low
c. Work function can’t be calculated
d. For non metals, threshold frequency is low
iii. What is the effect of increase in intensity on photoelectric current?
a. Photoelectric current increases
b. Decreases
c. No change
d. Varies with the square of intensity
iv. Name one factor on which the stopping potential depends
a. Work function
b. Frequency
c. Current
d. Energy of photon
v. How does the maximum K.E of the electrons emitted vary with the work function of metal?
a. It doesn’t depend on work function
b. It decreases as the work function increases
c. It increases as the work function increases
d. It’s value is doubled with the work function
III. According to de-Broglie a moving material particle sometimes acts as a wave and sometimes as a
particle or a wave is associated with moving material particle which controls the particle in every
respect. The wave associated with moving material particle is called matter wave or de-Broglie wave
whose wavelength called de-Broglie wavelength, is given by λ = h/mv
i. The dual nature of light is exhibited by
a. diffraction and photo electric effect c. refraction and interference
b. photoelectric effect d. diffraction and reflection
ii. If the momentum of a particle is doubled, then its de-Broglie wavelength will
a. remain unchanged c. become two times
b. become four times d. become half
iii. If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of waves having the same λ , it implies
that they have the same
a. Energy c. Velocity
b. Momentum d. angular momentum
iv. Velocity of a body of mass m, having de-Broglie wavelength λ, is given by relation
a. v = λ h/m c. v = λ/hm
b. v = λm/h d. v = h/ λm
v. Moving with the same velocity, which of the following has the longest de Broglie wavelength?
a. ᵦ -particle c. proton
b. α -particle d. neutron
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IV. Observations in Photoelectric Effect
1. For each metal there is a characteristic minimum frequency below which photoelectric effect is
not observed. This is called threshold frequency.
If frequency of light is less than the threshold frequency there is no ejection of electrons no
matter how long it falls on surface or how high is its intensity.
2. The kinetic Energy of electrons emitted is directly proportional to frequency of striking photons
& independent of their intensity.
3. The no. of electrons that are ejected per second from metal surface depends upon intensity of
striking radiations and doesn’t depend upon their frequency.
4. If frequency of incident light is more than threshold frequency then the excess energy is
imparted to electrons in the form of kinetic energy. (E−W=1/2mv 2 )
i. Electrons are emitted with zero velocities from metal surface when exposed to radiation of
wavelength 6800 A o . Calculate (ν0= photon’s frequency & W0 = work function)?
a. 3.21x 10 12 /sec &9.7 x 10 -19 J
b. 4,14x 10 14 /sec & 2.92 x 10 -19 J
c. 7.76 x 10 14 /sec &9.7 x 10 -19 J
d. 4.14 x 10 -14 /sec & 2.922 x 10 -19 J
ii. A proton of wavelength 400 nm strikes metal surface. The electrons are ejected with velocity
5.85 × 10 5 m/s. Calculate min. energy required to remove electron from metal surface. (Mass
of electron = 9.1 × 10 -31 kg)
a. 29.43 ×10 -20 J
b. 34.50 ×10 20 J
c. 29.43 ×10 20 J
d. 34.50 ×10 -20 J
iii. Einstein could explain photoelectric effect using Plank’s Quantum theory as follows: -
a. Greater he frequency of incident light, greater the kinetic energy of e –
b. Greater the intensity of light more the no. of electrons ejected.
c. Both are correct
d. Only b is correct
iv. Who discovered the Photoelectric effect?
a. Hertz. c. Max Planck
b. Einstein. d. de-Broglie
e.
V. PHOTOELECTRIC EMISSION: The photoelectric emission is possible only if the incident light is in
the form of packets of energy, each having a definite value, more than the work function of the metal.
This show that light is not of wave nature but of particle nature. It is due to this reason that
photoelectric emission was accounted by quantum theory of light
i. Packet of energy are called
a. Electron c. Frequency
b. Quanta d. Neutron
ii. One quantum of radiation is called
a. Meter c. Photon
b. Meson d. Quark
iii. Energy associated with each photon
a. Hc c. Hv
b. Mc d. mc 2
iv. Which of the following waves can produce photoelectric effect?
a. UV radiation c. Radio waves
b. Infrared radiation d. Microwaves
e.
v. Work function of alkali metals is
a. less than zero c. greater than other metals
b. Just equal to other metals d. Quite less than other metals
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ANSWERS
MCQ
1) b . 2) b. 3) a . 4) d . 5 ) d. 6) b. 7 ) a . 8) b . 9) b . 10 ) a . 11) c 12) c 13) a 14) b 15) b
ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
1(a) ,2, (a), 3.(c), 4. (c), 5. (a), 6. (a), 7. (d), 8. (b), 9. (c), 10. (d) 11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (a) 15 (b)
1 mark questions
1.Energy of photon reduces to one half.
2.Wavelength is inversely proportional to work function, so metal A with lower work function has higher
threshold wavelength.
3.Energy E = 1 MeV = 1.6 x 10 -13J, p = E/c= 5.33x 10-22Kg m/s

4.4.λ = ℎ /𝑝 = ℎ/ √2𝑚𝐾 ,λe>λp
5.𝜆 = 12.27/ √𝑉 𝐴̇0
for V = 4 V ,𝜆 = 12.27/ √4 𝐴̇ = 6.135𝐴̇0
6KEmax = 3eV => 3eV = eV0 => V0 = 3V
7.Since electron ejection is difficult from copper than sodium, so copper has greater work function than
sodium..As threshold wavelength is inversely related with work function, so sodium has higher threshold
wavelength than copper.
8. : Since electron ejection is difficult from copper than sodium, so copper has greater work function than
sodium. As threshold wavelength is inversely related with work function, so sodium has higher
threshold wavelength than copper.
9.λα 1/√m mα>mp = mn>me ,λe<λp = λn> λα
10.Non-metals have high work function.
2marks questions
1.λ = 1.227/√V nm = 1.227/√100 =1.227A0
X rays
2.B line represents particle of larger mass because slope 1/√m
3.Gain in K.E = qV
½ mpvp2 =qp V, ½ mαvα2 =qα V
½ mαvα2 / ½ mpvp2 = qα /qα
2 2
Vα / Vp = qα /qα x mp /mα = 2/1 x 1/4 =1/2
Vα / Vp = 1/√2
4.(i)1.5eV
(ii)Number of photons emitted per second
5.ν = 6x1014 Hz P = 2x10-3W

i) energy of photon = E = hν= 6.6x10-34 x6x1014 = 3.98x10-19J
ii) If N is the number of photons emitted per second by the source then Power = N x energy of photon
P = NE N = P/E = 2x10-3/3.98x10-19 = 5 x 10 15 photons per second
6..E = hc/λ =6.6×10−34×3×108 / 330 x10-9 = 3.767eV ϕo = 4.2eV

since E < W0 no photoelectric emission.
7. (i)From Einstein Photoelectric equation,
eV0=hϑ- ϕ0 or V0=hϑ/e−ϕ0/e
215
It is an equation of straight line as Shown by line of A and B in figure
∴ slope of the line AB = ΔV0/Δ v = h/e also threshold frequency is value from origin to point where line
meets /cuts frequency axis.
Hence from the graph, the threshold frequency of Metal A is greater than the Metal B
,therefore the work function of Metal A is more than Metal B
(ii) Intercept on potential axis = − ϕ0 / e from the equation Where, Work function =ϕ0, e= charge of
electron
8. K.E.of photoelectron KEmax= h (ν – ν0)

KEmax = h(1/𝜆 – 1/𝜆0 )=mv2max/2 ,
vmax∝ 1 √𝜆
As the wavelength of incident light decreases, the velocity of photoelectrons increases.
9. No, the different electrons belong to different energy level in conduction band. They need different
energies to come out of the metal surface. For the same incident radiation, electrons knocked off from
different energy levels come out with different energies.
10. Vs = 3 V and Kmax = eVo, so Kmax = 3 eV

(ii) λ = 2000 Å = 2 × 10–7m.
Energy of incident photon = hc/ λ = 6.6 x 10-34x 3 x 108 / 2 × 10–7 = 6.20 eV
W = E – Kmax = 3.2 eV
3 marks questions
1. Kmax = hv – ϕ0
i) 6.63x10-34x 6 x1014/1.6x10-19 – 2.14eV = 0.314eV
ii) eV0 = Kmax = 0.314eV V0 = 0.314V
iii)345.8X103 m/s
2. Definitions.
From Einstein’s photoelectric equation, eV0 = hν – φ0 for ν > ν0.
Cut off voltage V0 = (h/e) ν – (φ0/e )
h/e is the slope of the graph.
ν0 = φ0/h
3.E = hc/λ =6.6×10−34×3×108 / 330 x10-9 = 3.767eV ϕo = 4.2eV since E < W0 no photoelectric emission.
4. As x ray photon of wavelength λ is incident on the metal surface, so KE of electrons KE max=hc/λ

(since,work function is negligible)
De Broglie wavelength of emitted electron, λ’= h / √ (2mKEmax) But,KEmax =hc/λ
So,λ’=h/ √(2m(hc/λ))=√(hλ/2mc)
5.p= h/λ = 6.63x10-25 m (ii) 𝐸= hc/λ= 1243 eV (iii) 𝐸= 𝑝2/2m= 1.52 eV.
6. Einstein photoelectric equation can be used to determine the plank's constant 'h'.thus,we have
We know, the slope of the graph is plank's constant h= ml/2n
(b)From the graph 2фo/m = l
Hence, the work function will be ф0 = ml/2
(c)The threshold frequency is the intercept on horizontal axis
7. Given wavelength is λ = 2000Ao = 2×10−7 m

ϕo= 4.2eV.
(a) The kinetic energy is K.Emax = 1/2mv2max = h ν−½ mV2max= hc/λ−ϕo = (6.6×10−34×3×108 /2×10−7)−4.2
½ mV2max = 2eV This is the K.E of the fastest electron is 2eV
(b) The velocity of the slowest electron would be zero, hence the kinetic energy it possesses is also zero.
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8. a) No kinetic energy or photoelectrons depends on the energy level from which it comes out. Electrons
from different energy levels beer different kinetic energies.
b) No kinetic energy depends on the energy of each photon only and not on the number of photons (i.e.
intensity of light)
c) The number of photoelectrons depends on the intensity of incident light.
9.(i) X as X has smaller threshold frequency

(ii) Since фY>фX so KEy>KEx Therefore x gives out electrons with large KE
(iii)no change
10. Use Einstein equation eVo = hc/λ – Φo

For neon lamp eVo1= hc/λ1– Φo
for iron source eVo2=hc/λ2–Φo
V02 – V01 =hc/e [1/ λ1- 1/ λ2} Place values and solve = 0.97 V
V02=V01+ 0.97=1.51V
Case Study Questions:
ANS(i) ANS(ii) ANS(iii) ANS(iv) ANS(v)

Q.NO.1 a b a b a
Q.NO.2 b a a b a
Q.NO.3 a d b d a
Q.NO.4 b d c a ----
Q.NO.5 b c c a d
HIGHER ORDER THINKING QUESTIONS

1.A particle is moving 3 times fast as an electron .The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength of
the particle to that of the electron is 1.813 X10 -4 . Calculate the particles mass and identify
the particle. (HINT -Use the formula m= h/λv. Ratio of velocities and ratio of wave
lengths given .So mass can be calculated.)
ANS -1.675 X 10 -27 Kg. Particle is proton or neutron.
2.A 5 Watt source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 A0 . When placed 0.5m
away ,it liberates photoelectrons from a metallic surface . When the source is moved to a
distance of 1.0 m, how will the number of electrons liberated change ?
(HINT -Intensity at a distance d is given by I= P/4 where P is the Power. I 1 /I 2 =d 2 2 /d 1 2
I 2 =I 1 /4 , )
3.Monochromatic radiation of wave length 640.2 nm from a Neon lamp irradiates a

photosensitive material made of Caesium or Tungsten . The stopping voltage measured is
0.54 V .The source is replaced by a iron source and its 427.2 nm line irradiates the same
photocell .Predict the new stopping voltage. (HINT – V 2 -V 1 =(hc/e) (1/λ 2 -1/λ 1 ) .)
4. . A small plate of metal of work function 1.17 ev is placed at distance 2 m from a
monochromatic light source of wavelength 4.8 x 10 -17 m and power 1 watt the light falls
normal to the plate. find the number of photons striking the metal plate per square meter
per second. if a constant magnetic field of strength 10-4 T is applied parallel to the metal
surface find the radius of largest circular path followed by the emitted photo electrons
5. What is the principle on which an electron microscope works ?
217
6. When a monochromatic light of wave length 2000 A 0 falls upon a Nickel plate , the latter
acquires positive charge . The wavelength is increased and at 3400 A 0,however intense the
radiation may be, effect is found to cease . Give reason.
6.Work function of Aluminium is 4.2 eV. If two photons each of energy 2.5 eV are incident
on it’s surface , will the emission of electrons take place? Justify your answer.
7. Electrons are emitted from a photo-sensitive surface when it is illuminated by green light
,but electron emission does not take place by yellow light . Will electrons be emitted when
the surface is illuminated by (i) blue light and (ii) red light .
8. The extent of localisation of a particle is determined roughly by it’s de-Broglie

wavelength.
If an electron is localized within the nucleus of an atom of size 10 -14 m , what is it ‘s energy ?
Compare this energy with the typical binding energies (of the order of few MeV ) in a
nucleus and hence argue why electrons cannot reside in a nucleus.
9. How will you justify that the rest mass of photon is zero ?
10. For what kinetic energy of the proton, will the associated de-Broglie wavelength be
16.5 nm? Mass of proton 1.675 X 10 -27 kg.
TEST-1
1. Two metals X and Y have work functions 2 eV & 5 eV respectively. Which metal will emit electrons, when
it is radiated with light of wavelength 400 nm & why ?
14 -3
2. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 X10 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2.0 X10
W.
(a) What is the energy of a photon in the light beam ?
(b) Estimate the number of photons emitted per second on an average by the source.
3. An particle and a proton are accelerated from rest through the same potential difference V . Find the ratio
of their de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them
4. An electron, an alpha particle and a proton have the same kinetic energy. Which one of these particles has
the largest/ shortest de-Broglie wavelength ?
14
5. The work function of Cesium metal is 2.14 eV. When light of frequency 6.0 X 10 Hz is incident on metal
surface, photoemission of electron occurs. What is the
(i) maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons
(ii) stopping potential, and
(iii) maximum speed of emitted photoelectrons
6. An electron and a proton each has de-Broglie wavelength of 1.6 nm.

(i) write the ratio of their linear momenta
(ii) compare the kinetic energy of the proton with that of the electron
1. Show the variation of photocurrent with collector plate potential for different frequencies but same
intensity of incident radiation.
218
2. The work function of a certain metal is 4.2 eV. Will this metal give photoelectric emission for incident
radiation of wavelength 330 nm?
3. What is threshold frequency for photoelectric effect? Two metals A, B have work functions 2eV and 4eV
respectively. Which metal has lower threshold wavelength for photo electric effect? Which metal
corresponds to lower stopping potential?
10. Sketch the graphs showing variation of the stopping potential with frequency of incident radiation for
two photosensitive materials A and B having threshold frequencies as ν1 and ν2(ν1> ν2):
In which case is the stopping potential is more and why?
Does the slope of the graph depend on the nature of the material used? Explain.
TEST 2
1. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased by 16 times , the % increase in de-
Broglie wavelength of the particle is
(a) 25 % (b) 75 % (c) 60% (d) 50%
2. The energy that should be added to an electron to reduce its de-Broglie wavelength
from 1 nm to 0.5 nm is
(a) 4 times the initial energy (b) equal to the initial energy
(c) twice the initial energy . (d) thrice the initial energy .
3. What is the de -Broglie wavelength of an electron having energy 10keV ?

(a)0.12 A 0 . (b) 1.2A 0 . (c) 12.2 A 0 . (d) none of these.
4 A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface . .The

momentum transferred to the surface is
(a)E/c (b) 2E/c. (c) Ec (d)E/c 2 .
5. The work function of a substance is 4 eV. The longest wavelength of light that
can cause photoelectron emission from the substance is
(a) 540 nm
(b)400nm
(c)310nm.
(d) 220nm.
6. State the three important properties of photons which describe the particle picture of
Electromagnetic radiation .
7.Calculate the momentum and de-Broglie wavelength of electrons accelerated through a

potential difference of 56 V.
8. Red light , however bright it is, cannot produce the emission of electrons from a clean
Zinc surface . But even weak UV radiation can do so why ?
9. Compare the energy of electron of de-Broglie wavelength 1 A 0 with that of an X -ray

photon of the same wavelength.
10. X rays fall on a photo sensitive surface to cause photo electric emission. Assuming that
the work function of the surface can be neglected. Find the relation between de-Broglie
wavelength of electrons emitted and the energy of the incident photons. Draw the nature of
the graph for wavelength as a function of energy.
219
11. Write Einstein’s Photoelectric equation in terms of velocity and threshold frequency for
a given photosensitive material. Draw a graph showing the variation of square of the
velocity with frequency of the incident radiation.
12. Radiations of frequency 10 and 15 Hz are incident on two surfaces P and Q, following
observations are made for the two surfaces,
Surface P: Photo-emission occurs but photo electrons have zero kinetic energy
Surface Q: Photo-emission occurs and photo electrons have some kinetic energy
(a) Which of these has a higher work function?
(b) If, the incident is slightly reduces, what will happen to the photo electron emission in
the two cases?
13. An electron, proton and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same potential,
which one of the three has
a. Greater de-Broglie wavelength
b. Less kinetic energy
c. Less momentum?
220
ATOMS
1. MIND MAP
221
2. GIST OF CHAPTER
1. All elements consist of very small invisible particles, called atom. Every atom is a sphere of radius of
the order of 10-10 m, in which entire mass is uniformly distributed and negative charged electrons revolve
around the nucleus.
2. Thomson Model
According to Thomson, "An atom consists of positively charged matter, into which negatively charged
particles are embedded randomly". But this model did not last long as it could not explain the observations
of Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering experiment.
3. Experimental arrangement for α-scattering experiment and trajectory followed by particles
4. Impact parameter perpendicular distance of the velocity vector of α -particle from the central line of the
nucleus of the atom is called impact parameter (b).
where, K is KE of α-particle, θ is scattering angle, Z is atomic number of the nucleus and e is charge of
nucleus.
5. Basic assumption of Rutherford’s atomic model

(i) Atom consists of small central core, called atomic nucleus in which whole mass and positive charge is
assumed to be concentrated.
(ii) The size of nucleus is much smaller than the size of the atom.
(iii) The nucleus is surrounded by electrons and atom is electrically neutral.
(iv) Electrons revolves around the nucleus and centripetal force is of electrostatic nature.
222
6. Distance of Closest Approach At a certain distance r0 from the nucleus, whole of the KE of α-particle
converts into electrostatic potential energy and α-particle cannot go farther close to nucleus, this distance
(r0) is called distance of closest approach.
7. Angle of Scattering Angle by which a-particle gets deviated from its original path around the nucleus is
called angle of scattering.
8. Drawbacks of Rutherford’s Model

(i) Could not explained stability of atom clearly. As per the model, the orbital revolution of electrons
around the nucleus is not stable as the revolving electrons in orbits will undergo acceleration and emit
energy. This will result in loss of energy of electrons and they will ultimately fall into the nucleus.
(ii) Unable to explain line spectrum.
9. Bohr’s Theory of Hydrogen Atom Bohr combined classical and early quantum concepts and gave his
theory in the form of three postulates. These are
(i) Bohr’s first postulate was that an electron in an atom could revolve in certain stable orbits without the
emission of radiant energy, contrary to the predictions of electromagnetic theory.
(ii) Bohr’s second postulate defines these stable orbits. This postulate states that the electron revolves around
the nucleus only in those orbits for which the angular momentum is some integral multiple of h/2π, where h
is the Planck’s constant (= 6.6 x 10-34 Js). Thus, the angular momentum (L) of the orbiting electron is
quantised,
i. e. L = nh/2π
As, angular momentum of electron (L) = mvr
∴ For any permitted (stationary) orbit,
mvr = nh/2π
where, n = any positive integer i.e. 1, 2, 3, ….
It is also called principal quantum number.
(iii) Bohr’s third postulate states that an electron might make a transition from one of its specified non-
radiating orbits to another of lower energy. When it does so, a photon is emitted having energy equal to the
energy difference between the initial and final states.
The frequency of the emitted photon is then given by
hv – Ei– Ef
where, Ei and Ef are the energies of the initial and final states and Ei > Ef .
10. Limitations of Bohr’s Model
(i) Applicable only for hydrogen like atom.

(ii) The theory could not account for the spectra of atoms more complex than hydrogen.
iii) The theory does not give any information regarding the distribution and arrangement of electrons in
an atom.
i) It does not explain, the experimentally observed variations in intensity of the spectral lines of
the element.
223
11. Important formulae related to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atoms are given below:
12. Energy Level The energy of an atom is the least when its electron is revolving in an orbit closest to
the nucleus i.e. for which n = 1.
13. The lowest state of the atom is called the ground state; this state has lowest energy. The energy of this
state is -13.6 eV. Therefore, the minimum energy required to free the electron from the ground state of the
hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV.
14. (i) Emission Spectrum Hydrogen spectrum consists of discrete bright lines a dark
background and it is specifically known as hydrogen emission spectrum.
(ii) Absorption Spectrum There is one more type of hydrogen spectrum exists where we get dark lines on
the bright background, it is known as absorption spectrum
224
15. The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum consisting of various series.
4. ONE MARK QUESTIONS

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1 The ratio between Bohr radii is
(a) 1 : 2 : 3
(b) 2 : 4 : 6
(c) 1 : 4 : 9
(d) 1 : 3 : 5
225
2. The K.E. of the electron in an orbit of radius r in hydrogen atom is proportional to
3. In terms of Rydberg constant R, the wave number of the first Balmer line is
(a) R
(b) 3R
(c) 5R/36
(d) 8R/9
4. The ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Following Bohr’s theory the energy corresponding
to a transition between 3rd and 4th orbits is
(a) 3.40 eV
(b) 1.51 eV
(c) 0.85 eV
(d) 0.66 eV
5. The transition of electron from n = 4, 5, 6, ………. to n = 3 corresponds to
(a) Lyman series
(b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series
(d) Brackett series
6. Which of the following spectral series in hydrogen atom gives spectral line of 4860 A?
(a) Lyman
(b) Balmer
(c) Paschen
(d) Brackett
7. Which of the following postulates of the Bohr model led to the quantization of energy of the hydrogen
atom?
(a) The electron goes around the nucleus in circular orbits.
(b) The angular momentum of the electron can only be an integral multiple of h/2π.
(c) The magnitude of the linear momentum of the electron is quantized.
(d) Quantization of energy is itself a postulate of the Bohr model.
8. The transition from the state n = 5 to n = 1 in a hydrogen atom results in UV radiation. Infrared
radiation will be obtained in the transition
(a) 2 → 1
(b) 3 → 2
(c) 4 → 3
(d) 6 → 2
9. For ionising an excited hydrogen atom, the energy required (in eV) will be
(a) a little less than 13.6 eV
(b) 13.6 eV
(c) more than 13.6 eV
(d) 3.4 or less
226
10. In terms of Rydberg constant R, the shortest wavelength in Balmer series of hydrogen atom spectrum
will have wavelength
B. Very short answer type questions( one mark each)

1. The radius of innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10-11 m. What is the radius of orbit in
the second excited state?
2. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and potential energies of
electron in this state?
3. What is the maximum number of spectral lines emitted by a hydrogen atom when it is in the third
excited state?
4. State Bohr’s quantization condition of angular momentum
5. Which series of the hydrogen spectrum has wavelength in the visible range?
6. When an electron jumps from fourth excited state to the ground state identify the number of spectral
lines produced in H spectrum
7. What is the energy required for transition from ground state to the highest permitted state
8. What is the significance of negative energy of electron in the orbit?
9. If λ1 and λ2 are the wavelengths of first line of Lyman and Paschen series find the ratio
λ1: λ2
10. In Rutherford scattering experiment what is the scattering angle corresponding to zero impact
parameter
ANSWER KEY
1. Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) 1 : 4 : 9, In Bohr’s atomic model, rn n²
2. Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) e2/2r, Scince K.E = ke2/2r
3. Answer: c
Explaination
4. Answer: d
Explaination
227
5. Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) In transition from n1 = 3 and n2 = 4, 5, 6,….
Infrared radiation of Paschen spectral is emitted.
6. Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) Since spectral line of wavelength 4860 A
lies in the visible region of the spectrum which is Balmer series of the spectrum.
7.Answer: b
8. Answer: c
9. Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) As the energy of the electron is – -3.4 eV in first excited state and magnitude is less for higher excited
state.
10. Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) For shortest wavelength n1 =∞, n2 = 2

VSA TYPE QUESTIONS(one mark each)
1. r = n2 x 5.3 x 10-11m, n = 3, r = 4.77 x 10-11m.
2. Kinetic energy, Ke = + T.E. = 13.6 eV
Potential energy, PE = 2T.E. = 2 (-13.6) = – 27.2 eV
3. For third excited state, n2 = 4, and n1 = 3, 2, 1 Hence there are 3 spectral lines.
4. Bohr’s Quantisation condition: Only those orbits are permitted in which the angular momentum of the
electron is an integral multiple of h/2π.
5. Balmer.
6. Number of spectral lines =10
7. 13.6eV
8. Electrons are bound to the nucleus.
9. 7:108
10. 180 degrees
228
5. ASSERTION –REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Answer: A Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.

Answer: B Both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Answer: C Reason is wrong.
Answer: D Both are wrong.
1. Assertion: According to Bohr’s atomic model the ratio of angular momenta of an electron in first excited
state and in ground state is 2:1.
Reason: In a Bohr’s atom the angular momentum of the electron is directly proportional to the principal
quantum number.
2. Assertion : The force of repulsion between atomic nucleus and a-particle varies with distance according
to inverse square law.
Reason : Rutherford did a-particle scattering experiment.
3. Assertion : The positively charged nucleus of an atom has a radius of almost 10−15m.
Reason : In a-particle scattering experiment, the distance of closest approach for aparticles is ≃ 10−15m.
4. Assertion : Electrons in the atom are held due to coulomb forces
Reason : The atom is stable only because the centripetal force due to Coulomb?s law is balanced by the
centrifugal force.
5. Assertion: Total energy of revolving electron in any stationary orbit is negative
Reason: Energy is a scalar quantity. It can have only positive value
6. ASSERTION –REASON TYPE – ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION
1. Correct answer : A
2. Correct Answer: B
Solution : Rutherford confirmed the repulsive force on a-particle due to nucleus varies with distance
according to inverse square law and that the positive charges are concentrated at the centre and not
distributed throughout the atom.
3. Correct Answer: A
Solution : In a-particle scattering experiment, Rutherford found a small number of aparticles which were
scattered back through an angle approaching to 180∘. This is possible only if the positive charges are
concentrated at the centre or nucleus of the atom.
4. Correct Answer: C
Solution : According to postulates of Bohr?s atom model, the electron revolve round the nucleus in fixed
orbit of definite radii. As long as the electron is in a certain orbits it does not radiate any energy.
5. Correct Answer: B
Solution: The negative sign in the total energy indicates that it is a bound syste,.
229
7. TWO MARK QUESTIONS
1. What is the ratio of radii of the orbits corresponding to first excited state and ground state in a hydrogen
atom?
2. Draw graph showing total number of alpha particles scattered at different angle θ in Rutherford alpha
particle scattering experiment
3. Find the ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of an electron of hydrogen atom from its
(i) second permitted energy level to the first level, and
(ii) the highest permitted energy level to the first permitted level.
4. In Rutherford scattering experiment, draw the trajectory traced by a-particles in the coulomb field of
target nucleus and explain how this led to estimate the size of the nucleus.
5. An α-particle moving with initial kinetic energy K towards a nucleus of atomic number z approaches a
distance ‘d’ at which it reverses its direction. Obtain the expression for the distance of closest approach ‘d’
in terms of the kinetic energy of α-particle K
6. Find out the wavelength of the electron orbiting in the ground state of hydrogen atom.
7. Calculate the shortest wavelength of light emitted in the Paschen series of hydrogen spectrum.
8. Using Bohr’s second postulate of quantization of orbital angular momentum show that the
circumference of the electron in the n,th orbital state in hydrogen atom is n times the de-Broglie
wavelength associated with it.
9. The electron in hydrogen atom is initially in the third excited state. What is the maximum number of
spectral lines which can be emitted when it finally moves to the ground state?
10. In the ground state of hydrogen atom, its Bohr radius is given as 5.3 × 10-11 m. The atom is excited
such that the radius becomes 21.2 × 10-11 m. Find the value of the principal quantum number
8. HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1.
.
2.
3.
230
4.
5.
.
6.
7.
8. According to the de-Broglie hypothesis, this electron is also associated with wave character.
Hence a circular orbit can be taken to be a stationary energy state only if it contains an integral number of
de- Broglie wavelengths i.e. we must have 2πr = nλ
According to Bohr’s-second postulate
9. For third excited state n = 4

For ground state n = 1
231
Hence, possible transitions are :
10.
Therefore, Value of principal quantum number in this excited state is 2.

9. THREE MARK QUESTIONS
1. The figure shows energy level diagram of hydrogen atom. (a) Find out the transition which results in
the emission of a photon of wavelength 496 nm. (b) Which transition corresponds to the emission of
radiation of maximum wavelength ? Justify your answer.
2. In the ground state of Hydrogen atom, its Bohr radius is given as 5.3X 10 -11m.The atom is excited
such that the radius becomes 21.2X 10 -11m.Find (i) the value of the principal quantum number and
(ii) the total energy of the atom in the excited state
3. Construct a quantity with the dimensions of length from the fundamental constants e, me, and h, where
these letter have their usual meanings.
4. In the Fig. for the stationery orbits of the hydrogen atom, mark the transitions representing the Balmer
and Lyman series.
232
5. What is the minimum energy (in eV) required to remove an electron from the ground state of doubly
ionised LI atom (Z = 3)?
6.
The energy levels of an atom are as shown in Fig. Which one of these transitions will result in the
emission of a photon of wavelength 275 nm?
7. (a)Give an example each of a metal from which photoelectrons are emitted when irradiated with (i)
UV light (ii) Visible light (b) The workfunction of a metal is 4.5eV Find the frequency of light to be
used to eject electrons from the metal surface with a maximum kinetic energy of 6.06 X 10 -19 J
8. Calculate the longest and shortest wavelength in Balmer series of hydrogen atom. Given RH = 1.097 x
107 m-1.
9. 18 kV accelerating voltage is applied across an X-ray tube. Calculate (a) the velocity of the fastest
electron striking the target and (b) the minimum wave length in the continuous spectrum of the X-rays
produced. Given mass of electron, m = 9 x 10-31 kg; charge of electron, e = 1.6 x 10-19 C, Planck's
constant, h=6.6 x 10-34 Js and c= 3 x 108 m/s
10. A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. Upto which
energy level the hydrogen atoms would be excited? Calculate the wavelength of the first member of
Lyman and first member of Balmer series.
10.HINTS AND SOLUTIONS
1.
2.
rn α n2
3. The quantity is radius of the innermost orbit (n=1) of the H-atom. It is given by
ℎ2
a0= 4πε0 .4 2𝑚 It is also called Bohr’s radius
𝑒 𝑒2
233
4.
5. For LI-atom, Z = 3, Doubly ionised Li-atom (Li++) is a hydrogen –like atom. Therefore, minimum
energy (ionization energy) required to remove an electron from the ground state of Li++ atom will
be Z2 times the ionization energy for hydrogen atom i.e. 32 x 13.6 = 122.4 eV
ℎ𝑐
6. Energy of emitted photon E = = 4.5eV
The photon of energy 4.5eV will be emitted, corresponding to transition B.

7. UV radiation range for wavelength belongs to 100 – 400 nm, for this the work function range will
be
3.1 eV ≤ φ ≤ 12.4 eV. The metals that fall in this range are Ca, Mo, Pb, Al, Hg, Cu, Ag, Ni and Pt.
Visible light range for wavelength belongs to 400 nm – 700 nm, for this the work function range
will be 1.78 eV ≤ φ ≤ 3.1 eV. The metals that fall in this range are Cs, K, Na.
Kinetic energy of photon required is 8.29 eV frequency ν = E/ h =; 2 X1015 Hz
8. The Hα-line of the Balmer series is obtained from the transition n = 3 (energy = - 1.5eV) to n=2
(energy=-3.4 eV). Calculate the wave length of this line. Given that h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js; 1 eV = 1. 6 *
10- 19J and c = 3 * 108 m / s.
E2 = -3.4 eV E3 = - 1.5 eV
hv = E3 – E2 = 1.9 eV Therefore λ = 6513 Å
9. 1/2 mv2 = eV Therefore v = 8 x 107 m/s-1

Minimum wavelength = hc/eV = 0.6875 Å
10. Energy of the electron in the nth state of an atom =(-13.6/n2)eV
−13.6/nf2+13.6/ni2eV=12. ⇒nf=3.51 Since nf cann't be fraction ∴nf=3 Hence

hydrogen atom would be excited upto 3rd energy level
First member of lyman: λ=1215A˙ First member of Balmer λ=6563A˙
Case Based Questions
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows.
1. At room temperature, most of the H-atoms are in ground state. When an atom receives some energy (i.e.
by electron collisions), the atom may acquire sufficient energy to raise electron to higher energy state. In
this condition, the atom is said to be in excited state. From the excited state, the electron can fall back to a
state of lower energy, emitting a photon equal to the energy difference of the orbit.
234
In a mixture of H – He+ gas (He+ is single ionised He atom) H – atoms and He+ ions are excited to their
respective first excited states. Subsequently H-atoms transfer their total excitation energy to He+ ions (by
collisions).
i) Calculate the wavelength of radiation emitted, when an electron having total energy -1.5
eV makes a transition to the ground state.
[Given energy in the ground state
= -13.6eV and Rydberg’s constant
1.09 x 107 m-1
ii) Hydrogen atom has only one electron but its emission spectrum has many lines. Explain with
reason.
iii) iii)Find the relation between the three wavelengths λ1, λ2 and λ3 from the energy level diagram
shown below.
(i) As a result of transition, electron goes from excited state to ground state.
Energy of radiation = -1.5-(-13.6) = 12.1 eV
(∵ ground state energy of H-atom = -13.6 eV
𝑐
Since, E = hv = ℎ 𝜆
ℎ𝑐
⇒ = 12.1 eV
𝜆
1 12.1𝑥1.6𝑥10−19
⸫ = 6.62𝑥10−34 𝑥3𝑥108
𝜆
𝜆 = 1.025x10−7m = 1025 Å
=========
(ii) Every atom has different energy states. In the ground state, the electron occupies lowest energy
level. When an atom is excited by means of some external energy from outside, then the electron
jumps to a higher energy level. Within nano-seconds (10-9 s), the electron jumps back from higher
energy level to lower energy level. This process can take in either one step (ie, from highest
235
possible energy level to ground state) or in multiple state by passing through other lower energy
levels.
These are countless atoms in a light-source, hence all possible transitions can take place an many
lines are observed in the spectrum.
(iii) According to question,
ℎ𝑐
EB – EC = 𝜆1 …(i)
ℎ𝑐
EA – EB = 𝜆2 …(ii)
−ℎ𝑐
EC – EA = …(iii)
𝜆3
On adding Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get

EB – EC + EA– EB + EC – EA
1 1 1
= hc + -
𝜆1 𝜆2 𝜆3
1 1 1
⇒ = 𝜆1 + 𝜆2
𝜆3
1 𝜆1𝜆2
= 𝜆1+𝜆2
𝜆3
This is the required expression.

2. Due to many reasons, Rutherford model of atom had many limitations.
Rutherford model failed to explain the stability of an atom. As the electron's
energy decreases gradually, it collapses into the nucleus Hence the charge
of the atom will disrupt making the atom unstable. In Rutherford model, an
electron can revolve in orbit of all possible radii hence it should emit a
continuous spectrum but atoms like hydrogen always emit a discrete line
spectrum. From the developing ideas of quantum hypothesis, Bohr made
modifications to Rutherford's model. By studying the Rutherford's model
for months he presented three postulates by combining classical and early
quantum concepts. Bohr gave the conditions of momentum and energy
associated with different orbits. By following his postulates, we were able
to find total energy on an electron, the radius of the orbit, velocity of an
electron revolving around the nucleus.
A) In Bohr Model, what is the atomic radius of 3rd orbit?
𝑟0
a) 9
b) 𝑟0
c) 9𝑟0
d) 3𝑟0
B) Radii of the permitted orbits increase in …………… ratio.

a) 1 : 2 : 3
b) 2: 4 : 6
c) 1 : 4 : 9
C) As per Bohr model, the radius of stationary orbit are related to principal quantum number n as
a) Inversely proportional to square of n
b) Inversely proportional to n
c) Directly proportional to n
d) Directly proportional to square of n
236
D) If the orbital radius of electron in the hydrogen is 4.7x10-11m. Kinetic energy of electron
a) 15.3 eV
b) -15.3 eV
c) 13.6 eV
d) d) -13.6 eV
E) What is the angular momentum of an electron in the third orbit of an atom?

a) 3.15 x 10-34 Js
b) 3.15 x 10-35 Js
c) 3 x 10-34 Js
d) 1.15 x 10-28 Js
Explanation:
rn = r0n2
r3= 32 r0 = 9r0
A) c) 1 : 4 : 9
Explanation:
rn ∝ n2
Taking n = 1, 2, 3 we get r1 :r2 : r3 = 1: 4: 9
B) (d) Directly proportional to n2
Explanation: Centripetal force = electrostatic force

𝑚𝑣 2 𝑒2
= 4𝜀 ………. (1)
𝑟 0 𝑟2
𝑒2
r= 4𝜀 ……… (2)
0 𝑟2
𝑛ℎ 𝑛ℎ 𝑛2 ℎ2 40
Since 𝑚𝑣𝑛 𝑟𝑛 = => r= Solving this r= ie; r ∝ n2
2 2𝑚𝑣 42 𝑚𝑒 2
The radius of stationary orbit is directly proportional to n square.

C) a) 15.3 eV
Explanation:
𝑘𝑧𝑒 2
K.E = ½ mv2 = Calculating
𝑧𝑟
E) a) 3.15 x 10-34 Js
Explanation:
n = 3, h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js
Angular momentum,
𝑛ℎ 3𝑥6.6𝑥10−34
L = 2𝜋 =L= =3.15x10-34 Js
2𝑥3.14
237
3. Rutherford's model of atom was modified by Bohr using classical quantum concepts. The greatness of
Bohr's theory is that it not only successfully explained the already known series of layman, Balmer and
Paschen but also predicted two new series in the infrared region which was later discovered by Brackett and
Pfund. From Bohr's theory, energy level diagram was established in which different energies of different
stationary states of an atom are represented by parallel horizontal lines, drawn according to some suitable
energy scale. An electron can have definite values of energy while revolving in different orbits. This is called
energy quantisation. Atoms may acquire sufficient energy to raise the electron in higher energy level. It is
known as excitation energy and the accelerating potential which excites the electron to higher energy level
is known as excitation potential. In various lines, when photons are emitted, it means electrons jump from
higher energy to lower energy state. Those spectral lines are called emission lines. But when an atom absorbs
a photon, it has energy equal to the energy needed by the electron in a lower. State to make the transition to
higher state. This is called absorption spectra.
A) For scattering α-particles, Rutherford suggested that

a) Mass of atom and its positive charge were concentrated at centre of atom
b) Only mass of atom is concentrated at centre of the atom
c) Only positive charge of atom is concentrated at centre of atom
d) Mass of atom is uniformly distributed throughout it’s volume
B) In Pfund series, the ratio of maximum to minimum wavelength of emitted spectral lines is
𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 4
a) =3
𝜆𝑚𝑖𝑥
𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 9
b) =5
𝜆𝑚𝑖𝑥
𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 2
c) =3
𝜆𝑚𝑖𝑥
𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 36
d) = 11
𝜆𝑚𝑖𝑥
C) A set of atoms in excited state decays

a) In general to any of the state with lower energy
b) Into a lower state only when excited by an external field
c) All together simultaneously into lower state
d) To emit photons only when they collide
D) Which of the following spectral series in hydrogen atom gives line of 4860 Å
a) Lyman b) Balmer c) Paschen d) Brackett
E) The ground state energy of the hydrogen atom is E0. The Kinetic energy of the electron in 3rd excited
level is
𝐸˳ 𝐸˳ 𝐸˳ 𝐸˳
(a) – 16 (b) – (c) (d)
9 16 9
Answers:
(A) (a) Mass of atom and its positive charge were concentrated at centre of atom.
Explanations: Through scattering experiment, Rutherford was able to explain the most of the
alpha particles passed through the atom suggesting most of the space is empty and most
deflection (180) was observed when alpha particles retaliated from the nucleus due to like charge.
𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 36
(B) (d) = 11
𝜆𝑚𝑖𝑥
Explanations:
In P fund series
238
1 1 1
=R – 𝑛2 = 6, 7 …
𝜆 52
1 1 1
Maximum wavelength is given by 𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 = – 62
52
In transition 5 to 6
1 1 1
Minimum wavelength is given by = –∞
𝜆 52
In transition 5 to ∞
36
So, ratio is 11
(C) (a) In general to any of the state with lower energy

Explanations: A set of atoms in excited state decays to any state with lower energy because they
are more stable than the excited state.
(D) (b) Balmer
Explanations: Spectral line wavelength 4860 Å lies in visible region of spectrum which is
Balmer series of spectrum.
𝐸˳
(E) (a) 16
Explanations:
𝐸˳
E = 𝑛2
For third excited level, n = 4

𝐸˳
Kinetic Energy = – 𝐸˳ = – 16
=====
4. The trajectory traced by an α-particle depends on the impact parameter, b of collision. The impact
parameter is the perpendicular distance of the initial velocity vector of the α-particle from the centre of the
nucleus. A given beam of α-particles has a distribution of impact parameters b, so that the beam is scattered
in various directions with different probabilities. (In a beam, all particles have nearly same kinetic energy.)
It is seen that an α-particle close to the nucleus (small impact parameter) suffers large scattering. In case of
head-on collision, the impact parameter is minimum and the α-particle rebounds back (𝜃 ≅ π). For a large
impact parameter, the α-particle goes nearly undeviated and has a small deflection (𝜃 ≅ 0).
A) If an α particle collides head on with the nucleus, what is impact parameter?

(a) zero (b) infinite
-10 10
(c) 10 m (d) 10 m
B) The size of the atom is proportional to

1
(a) A (b) 𝐴3
2 −1
(c) 𝐴3 (d) 𝐴 3
C) An alpha particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 1800 by a fixed uranium nucleus. The distance
of closest approach is of the order of
(a) 10-10 m (b) 10-10 cm (c) 10-12 cm (d) 10-15 m
239
D) According to classical theory of Rutherford’s model, the path of electron will be
(a) Parabolic (b) Hyperbolic
(c) Circular (d) Elliptical
E) An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The
Coulomb force F between the two is
𝑒2 𝑒2 𝑒2 𝑒2
(a) k 𝑟 2 r (b) – k 𝑟 3 r (c) k 𝑟 2 𝑟̂ (d) k 𝑟 2 𝑟̂
Answers: (A) Zero
1 1
(B) (b) R=R0 𝐴3 => 𝐴3
Explanations: The radius of a nucleus is proportional to the cube root of its mass number. So,
1
the size of the atom is proportional to 𝐴3
(C) 10-15m
(D) Circular
𝑒2
(E) (b) – k r
𝑟3
Explanations: Here, q1 = -e
q2 = Ze, where Z = 1 for hydrogen atom, then
q2=e
𝑒2
Thus F = – k 𝑟 3 r
5. Bohr’s theory was successfully able to explain the spectrum of hydrogen, but it had many shortcomings.
For example, it was only successful for hydrogen like single electron atoms and fails in case of atoms with
two or more electrons. Bohr’s theory does not explain why only circular orbits should be chosen when
elliptical orbits are also possible. As electrons exhibit wave properties also, so orbits of electrons cannot be
exactly defined as in Bohr’s theory. Bohr’s theory predicts only the frequency of these lines and fails to
explain anything about the relative intensities of various spectral lines.
A. As per Bohr’s model, the minimum energy required to remove an electron from the ground state of
doubly ionized Li atom is
a) 20.8
b) 1.51
c) 13.6
d) 122.4
B. Bohr’s atom model assumes
a) The nucleus is of infinite mass and is at rest
b) Electrons in the quantized orbit will not radiate energy
c) Mass of electron remains constant
d) All of the above
C. Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom failed to explain
a) Emission Spectra
b) Diameter of H atom
c) Ionisation energy
d) The fine structure of even hydrogen spectrum.
240
D. According to Bohr theory, relation between quantum number n and radius of orbit r is,
a) n α r
b) r α 1/n
c) r α n2
d) r α 1/n2
E. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, which of the following is quantized?
a) Linear velocity of electron
b) Angular velocity of electron
c) Linear momentum of electron
d) Angular momentum of electron
Answers:
(A) (d) 122.4
Explanations: The doubly ionized Li atom is hydrogen like atom
−13.6𝑍 2
En = eV
𝑛2
The ground state energy of doubly ionized Li atom will be

−13.6𝑥3 2
E1 = eV = 122.4eV
1
(B) (d) all of the above

Explanations: Bohr’s model of atom assumes that the nucleus is off infinite mass and is at
rest. Electron in a quantized orbit will not radiate energy and mass of the electron remains
constant.
(C) (d) the fine structure of even hydrogen atom.
Explanations: Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom did not fully explain the fine structure of
even hydrogen atom.
(D) (c) r α n2
𝑛 2 ℎ2
r = 4𝜋 2𝑚𝑘𝑍𝑒 2 = r α n2
(E) (d) Angular momentum of electron

Explanations: In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, angular momentum of an electron is
quantized.
5 mark questions
1. (a)Write two important limitations of Rutherford model which could not explain the observed
features of atomic spectra. How were these explained in Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom ?(b)Use
the Rydberg formula to calculate the wavelength of the Hα line.(R = 1.1 × 107 m–1 (c)Using
Bohr’s postulates, obtain the expression for the radius of the nth orbit in hydrogen atom.
2. (a)Draw a schematic arrangement of Geiger-Marsden experiment showing the scattering of α-
particles by a thin foil of gold. (b)Why is it that most of the α-particles go right through the foil and
only a small fraction gets scattered at large angles ?(c) Draw the trajectory of the α-particle in the
coulomb field of a nucleus.(d) What is the significance of impact parameter and what information
can be obtained regarding the size of the nucleus ? (e)Estimate the distance of closest approach to
the nucleus (Z = 80) if a 7.7 MeV α-particle before it comes momentarily to rest and reverses its
direction
241
3. Photoelectrons are emitted, when 400nm radiation is incident on a surface of work function 1.9eV.
These photoelectrons pass through a region containing –particles. A maximum energy electron
combines with –particle to form a He+ ion, emitting a single photon in this process. He+ ions
thus formed are in their fourth excited state. Find the energies in eV of photons lying in the 2 to 4
eV range, that are likely to be emitted during and after the combination. Take h = 4.14 x 10-15eVs.
4. Light from a discharge tube containing hydrogen atoms falls on the surface of sodium. The kinetic
energy of the fastest electrons emitted from sodium is 0.73 eV. The work function for sodium is
1.82 eV. Find (a) the energy of the photons causing the photoelectric emission(b) the quantum
numbers of the two levels involved in the emission of these photons(c) the change in the angular
momentum of the electron in the hydrogen atom in the above transition. (d) the recoil speed of the
emitting atom assuming it to be at rest before the transition. (Ionisation energy of hydrogen is 13.6
eV)
SOLUTION(5mark questions)
1.(a)Electron moving in a circular orbit around the nucleus would get accelerated, therefore it would
spiral into the nucleus, as it looses its energy.(ii) It must emit a continuous spectrum. According to Bohr’s
model of hvdrogen atom (i) Electron in an atom can revolve in certain stable orbits without the emission of
radiant energy (ii) Energy is released / absorbed only when an electron jumps from one stable orbit to
another stable orbit. This results in a discrete spectrum
(b)
(c)
242
2
3. hv = hc/ ƛ = 3.1 eV From Einstein’s photoelectric equation, we have
hv = Փ + ½ m vmax2
½ m vmax2= hv - Փ = 3.1 – 1.9 = 1.2 eV
When a photoelectron of maximum kinetic energy combines with an alpha-particle, it is raised to its fourth
excited state ( n= 5) and a single photon is emitted in the process. If E5 is the energy of the alpha particle
in the fourth excited state and E, the energy of the emitted photon, then the process can be represented as
½ m vmax2= E5 + E
Hence, the energy of the emitted photon,
E= ½ m vmax2 - E5 = 3.38 eV
243
Inorder to find the energies with which the photons are emitted in the energy range 2 to 4 eV, let us first
find the energy associated with different energy levels He+ ion. They are as obtained below:
E1= -54.4eV; E2= -13.6eV;
E3= -6.04eV; and E4= -3.4eV;
In the possible transitions, which can take place between the energy levels ranging from n = 5 to n = 1, the
energies of the photons will be as calculated below:ΔE = E5 – E4 = -2.18 – (-3.4) = 1.22 eV (not in the
energy range 2 to 4 eV) For transition from n = 5 to n = 3, ΔE = 3.86 eV Hence, the photons that are
likely to be emitted in the energy range 2 to 4eV are of energies 3.86 eV (transition from n = 5 to n = 3)
and 2.64 eV (transition from n = 4 to n = 3)
4. (a) Here, work function of sodium, Փ = 1.82 eV and maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons,
½ m vmax2 = 0.73 eV From Einstein’s photoelectric equation, we have hv = Փ + ½ m vmax2
Therefore, energy of the photon of incident light,hv = 1.82 + 0.73 = 2.55 eV
b) Here, ionization energy of hydrogen = 13.6eV
Therefore, energy of the electron in nth orbit,
En = -(13.6 )/n2 eV
Suppose that the photon of energy 2.55 eV is emitted when electron jumps from the energy level of
quantum number ni to nf. If Ei and Ef are the energies associated with these levels , then
Ei - Ef = 2.55
or – 13.6/(ni2 ) - (13.6/(nf2 )) = 2.55 or or1/( nf2) - 1/( ni2) = 0.1875
The two quantum numbers must satisfy the equation (i). Let us first try for photons emitted in Lyman
series:
If ni = 2 and nf =1 , then
1/( nf2) - 1/( ni2) =1/12 - 1/22 = 0.75
If ni = 3 and nf =1 , then 1/( nf2) - 1/( ni2) == 0.89
As the calculated values of (1/( nf2)- 1/( ni2) ) differ more and more from 0.1875, the emitted photons do
not correspond to the radiation emitted in Lyman series.
Let us now try for photons emitted in Balmer series:

If ni = 3 and nf = 2 , then 1/( nf2) - 1/( ni2) = 0.139
If ni = 4 and nf = 2 , then 1/( nf2) - 1/( ni2) =0.1875
There the emitted photons corresponds to the second member Balmer series and the energy levels involved
in the emission of this photons are of quantum numbers ni = 4 and nf = 2.
c) Change in angular momentum = 4(h/2π) – 2(h/2π) = h/ π
d) Initially hydrogen atom having mass mH is at rest. When photon is emitted, let v H be the recoil speed
of hydrogen atom. Since the momentum of photon is h v/c, from the principle of conservation of
momentum
mH vH + hv/c = 0 hv = 2.55 eV = 2.55 x 1.6 x 10-19 J
mH = 1 a.m.u. = 1.67 x 10-27 kg Therefore vH = - 0.814 ms-1

Conclusion: The negative sign tells that H-atom moves in the direction opposite to that in which the
photon is emitted
244
ASSIGNMENT /EXERCISE
1. The figure shows energy level diagram of hydrogen atom. (a) Find out the transition which results
in the emission of a photon of wavelength 496 nm. n = 4 n = 3 n = 2 n = 1 (b) Which transition
corresponds to the emission of radiation of maximum wavelength ? Justify your answer.
2. (a) In Rutherford scattering experiment, draw the trajectory traced by α-particles in the coulomb
field of target nucleus and explain how this led to estimate the size of the nucleus. (b) Describe
briefly how wave nature of moving electrons was established experimentally. (c) Estimate the ratio
of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with deuterons and α-particles when they are accelerated
from rest through the same accelerating potential V.
3. In the Geiger-Marsden experiment, an α-particle of 5·12 MeV energy approaches a gold target (Z =
79), comes momentarily to rest and then reverses its direction. Find the distance of closest
approach of α-particle to the target nucleus.
4. Estimate the ratio of the wavelengths associated with the electron orbiting around the nucleus in
the ground and second excited states of hydrogen atom.
5. When a hydrogen atom is in its second excited state, find the ratio of the maximum and minimum
wavelengths of the radiations emitted in the process of transition.
6. Calculate the ratio of the frequencies of the radiation emitted due to transition of the electron in a
hydrogen atom from its (i) second permitted energy level to the first level and (ii) highest permitted
energy level to the second permitted level.
7. (a)Consider two different hydrogen atoms. The electron in each atom is in an excited state. Is it
possible for the electrons to have different energies but same orbital angular momentum according
to the Bohr model? Justify your answer. (b)If a proton had a radius R and the charge was uniformly
distributed, calculate using Bohr theory, the ground state energy of a H – atom when R = 10 Ao .
8. A monochromatic light source of power 5mW emits 8X1015 photons per second. This light ejects
photoelectrons from a metal surface. The stopping potential for this set up is 2V. Calculate the
work function of the metal.
9. (i) State Bohr’s quantization condition for defining stationary orbits. How does de Broglie
hypothesis explain the stationary orbits ? (ii) Find the relation between the three wavelengths λ1 ,
λ2 and λ3 from the energy level diagram shown below
245
Chapter: Nuclei
Flow chart/mind map:
Gist of the chapter:

Composition of the Nucleus:
• Nucleus consists of protons and neutrons.
• Nucleus is practically responsible for the whole mass of the atom.
• Every atomic nucleus except that of Hydrogen has two types of particles –Protons and neutrons which
are known as Nucleons.
• Proton is a fundamental particle with positive charge 1.6 x 10-19 C and mass 1.67 x 10-27 kg (1836
times heavier than an electron).
• Neutron is also a fundamental particle with no charge and mass 1.675 x 10-27 kg ( 1840 times heavier
than an electron).
Atomic Mass Unit (u):
Atomic Mass Unit (amu) is 1/12th of mass the carbon (C12 ) atom.
1 u = ( 𝟏/𝟏𝟐 ) x 1.992647 X 10 -26 kg
1u = 1.6605 X 10-27 kg
From E= m c2, the energy equivalent to 1u is 931.494 Mev.
246
• Proton is a fundamental particle with mass 1.67 x 10-27 kg (1836 times heavier than an electron).
Neutron is also a fundamental particle with mass 1.675 x 10-27 kg (1840 times heavier than an electron).
Atomic Number (Z):
The number of protons in a nucleus of an atom is called atomic number.
Atomic Mass Number (A):
The sum of number of protons and number of neutrons in a nucleus of an atom is called atomic mass number.
A=Z+N
Size of Nucleus:
Nucleus does not have a well-defined boundary but its radius is about 10-15m..
R = R0 A1/3
-15
Where R0 = 1.2 x 10 m is a constant which is the same for all nuclei andA is the mass number of the
nucleus.
Nucleus Density:
Mass of nucleus, M = A amu = A x 1.66 x 10-27 kg
Nuclear Volume,
4 4
V= 3 π R3 = 3 π AR03
4
= π (1.2 x 10-15)3 A m3
3
= 7.24 x 10-45 A m3
Nucleus Density, ρ = M/ V =2.29 X 10 17 kg m -3 .
The energy equivalent of 1 g of substance.
Here, m = 1 g = 10−3 kg,
E = m c2 = 10−3 (3 × 108)2 = 9 × 1013 J
Energy Equivalent to 1 amu or 1 u
1 amu = 1 u = 1.66 × 10-27 kg
C = speed of light = 3 × 108 m s-1
E = m c2 = 1.66×10-27 (3×108)2 = 1.49×10−10 Joule
1MeV = 1.6×10−13 J
E = 1.6 × 10−13 x 1.49 × 10−10 = 931.6 MeV
Mass Defect:
It is the difference between the rest mass of the nucleus and the sum of the masses of the nucleons
composing a nucleus is known as mass defect.
Δm = [ Zmp + (A – Z) mn ] - M
Binding Energy:
It is the energy required to break up a nucleus into its constituent parts and place them at an infinite
distance from one another.
Eb = ∆ M c2
Binding Energy per nucleon:
Eb = ∆M c2 / A
247
Binding Energy per nucleon as a function of Mass number:
Mains features of the Binding Energy per nucleon Vs Mass number curve.
• The binding energy per nucleon is practically independent of the atomic number for nuclei of middle
mass number ( 30 < A < 170 ).
• The curve has a maximum of about 8.75 MeV for A= 56 and a value of 7.6 MeV for A = 238.
• B.E/nucleon is lower for both light nuclei ( A < 30)and heavy nuclei (A>170).
• .For mass numbers ranging from 2 to 20, there are sharply defined peaks corresponding to ₂He⁴, ₆C¹²,
₈O¹⁶, etc. indicating that these nuclei are relatively more stable than the other nuclei in their
neighbourhood.
From these observations it can be concluded that
• The force is attractive and sufficiently strong to produce a binding energy of a few MeV per nucleon.
• The constancy of the binding energy in the range 30 < A < 170 is a consequence of the fact that the
nuclear force is short ranged.
• The property that a given nucleon influences only nucleons close to it is referred to as saturation
property.
• B.E/nucleon is smaller for heavier nuclei than the middle ones. Hence, when a heavier nucleus splits
into lighter nuclei, B.E/ nucleon increases from about 7.6 MeV to 8.4 MeV associated with the
liberation of energy. This explains why heavier nuclei are more prone to fission.
• B.E/nucleon is smaller for lighter nuclei than the middle ones. That is, they are less stable. Hence,
when two lighter nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus, B.E/Nucleon increases associated with the
liberation of energy. This explains why lighter nuclei are more prone to fusion.
NUCLEAR FORCE:
• The protons and neutrons are held together by the strong attractive forcesinside the nucleus. These
forces are called as nuclear forces.
These forces, which act between the nucleons, are mainly responsible for the stability of the nucleus.
Characteristics of nuclear forces:
(i) Nuclear forces are attractive in nature: - The magnitude which depends uponinter nucleon
distance is of very high order.
(ii) Nuclear forces are charge independent: - Nature of force remains the same whether we
consider force between two protons, between two neutrons or betweena proton and a neutron.
(iii) These are short range forces: - Nuclear forces operate between two nucleonssituated in close
neighborhood only.
(iv) Nuclear forces decrease very quickly with distance between two nucleons: - Their rate of
decrease is much rapid than that of inverse square law forces. The forces become negligible when the
nucleons are more than 10-12 cm apart.
(v) Nuclear forces are spin dependent: - Nucleons having parallel spin are morestrongly bound to each
other than those having anti-parallel spin.
248
Potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation:
• The potential energy is a minimum (Negative PE) at a distance r0 of about 0.8fm.

• At large distances (> r0) the force is attractive for distances larger than 0.8fm and negative PE goes on
decreasing.
• For distances < r0, the forces become repulsive i.e if they are separated by distances less than 0.8 fm.
The negative PE decreases to zero and becomes positive.
Nuclear Fission:
The phenomenon of splitting of heavy nuclei (uranium) into two small nuclei whena high energetic neutron
incident on it, is known as the Nuclear Fission.
1
0𝑛 + 92𝑈
235
→ 36𝐾𝑟92 + 56𝐵𝑎141 + 3 0𝑛1 + 200 MeV
Fission does not always produce barium and krypton. A different pair can beproduced, for example:
1
0𝑛 + 92 𝑈
235
→ 92𝑈236 → 51Sb133 + 41Nb99 + 4 0n1
0𝑛
1
+ 92𝑈235 → 54𝑋𝑒140 + 3 8 𝑆𝑟
94
+ 2 0𝑛1
Types of Nuclear Fission:
There are two type of nuclear fission reaction-
1. Controlled Nuclear Fission – Example – Nuclear Reactor
2. Uncontrolled Nuclear Fission reaction Example – Atom Bomb
Nuclear Fusion:
In nuclear fusion, two nuclei with low mass numbers combine to produce asingle nucleus with a higher mass
number.
Nuclear fusion is defined as a type of nuclear reaction in which two lighternuclei merge into one another to
form a heavier nucleus accompanied by a release of a large amount of energy.
Thermonuclear fusion:
• To generate useful amount of energy, nuclear fusion must occur in bulk matter.
• To raise the temperature of the material until the particles have enough energy –due to their thermal
motions alone – to penetrate the coulomb barrier and undergo fusion. This process is called thermo
nuclear fusion.
Proton – Proton Cycle:

1H
1
+ →
1H
1
1H
2
+ +1e0 + 0.4 MeV
1H
1
+ 1H2 → 2He3 + 5.5 MeV
2He
3
+ 2He3 → 2He
4
+ 2 1H1 + 12.9 MeV
249
Important Formulae:
Atomic Mass Unit (u):
Atomic Mass Unit (amu) is 1/12th of mass of 1 atom of carbon 12.
1u = 1.66 X 10 -27 kg
Size of Nucleus:
Nucleus does not have a sharp or well-defined boundary but its radius is about 10-15 m. .
R = R0 A⅓
where R0 = 1.2 x 10-5 m is a constant which is the same for all nuclei and A is the mass number of the
nucleus.
Nucleus Density:
Mass of nucleus, M = A amu = A x 1.66 x 10-27 kg
Nuclear Volume, V = (4/3) π R3 = (4/3) π (1.2 x 10-15)3 A m3 = 7.24 x 10-45 A m3
Nucleus Density, ρ =M/V= 2.29 x 1017 kg m-3
Calculate the energy equivalent of 1 g of substance.
Here, m = 1 g = 10−3 kg, E = m c2 = 10−3 (3 × 108) 2 = 9 × 1013 J
Calculate Energy Equivalent to 1 amu or 1 u
amu = 1 u = 1.66 × 1027 kg
C = speed of light = 3 × 108 m s-1
E = m c2 = 1.66×1027(3×108)2 = 1.49×10−10 Joule
1MeV = 1.6×10−13 J
Mass Defect:
Δm = [ Z mp + (A – Z) mn ] – M
Binding Energy:
It is the energy required to break up a nucleus into its constituent parts and placethem at an infinite distance
from one another.
Eb = ∆ M c2
Important Graphs
Binding Energy per nucleon as a function of Mass number
250
Potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS:

MCQs
1. The ratio of the volume of an atom to the volume of its nucleus is of the order of:
(a) 10 (b) 105 (c) 1010 (d) 1015
[Hint: The radius of an atom is of the order of 10-10m.]
2. Binding energy of a nucleus is of the order of:
(a) Electron volt (eV)
(b) Kilo electron volt (keV)
(c) Mega electron volt(MeV)
(d) joule (J)
3. As the mass number of a nucleus increases, the binding energy per nucleon:
(a) Goes on increasing
(b) Goes on decreasing
(c ) Remains the same
(d) First increases, then decreases.
4. The stability of a nucleus is decided by its:
(a) Binding energy
(b) Binding energy/nucleon
(c) Number of protons
5. Number of nucleons The curve of binding energy per nucleon against mass number has a sharp peak for
helium nucleus.
This means that helium nucleus:
(a) Is very stable
(b) Is radioactive
(c) Is easily fissionable
(d) None of these.
6. The radius of a nucleus is
(a) directly proportional to its mass number
(b) inversely proportional to its atomic weight
(c) directly proportional to the cube root of its mass number
(d) None of these
251
7. A neutron can cause fission in
(a) Hydrogen (b)Uranium – 235
(c) Thorium (d)Uranium – 238
8. One milligram of matter converted into energy, will give
(a) 9 J (b)9 x 103 J
(c) 9 x 105 J (d)9 x 1010J
9. The mass density of a nucleus varies with mass number A as
(a) A2 (b)A (c) Constant (d)1/ A
10. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because
(a) Nuclei break up at high temperature
(b)Atoms gets ionised at high temperature
(c) Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei
(d)Molecules break up at high temperature.
11. The order of magnitude of density of Uranium nucleus [mp=1.67x10-27kg] is
(a)1020kg/m3 (b) 1017kg/m3 (c) 1014kg/m3 (d) 1011kg/m3
12. Which of the following statements about nuclear forces is not true?
(a) The nuclear force between two nucleons falls rapidly to zero as their distance is more than a few
femtometres.
(b) The nuclear force is much weaker than the Coulomb force.
(c) The force is attractive for distances larger than 0.8 fm and repulsive if they are separated by distances
less than 0.8 fm.
(d) The nuclear force between neutron-neutron, proton-neutron and proton-proton is approximately the
same.
Ans: 1 (d), 2 (c), 3 (d), 4 (b), 5 (a), 6(c), 7(b), 8(d), 9(c), 10(c),11(b), 12(b)
ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Given below two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most appropriate answer
from the following:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d)Both A and R are false
1. Assertion: The nuclear force becomes weak if the nucleus contains too many protons compared to
neutrons
Reason: The electrostatic forces weaken the nuclear force.
2. Assertion: Mass is not conserved, but mass and energy as a single entity called mass- energy.
Reason: Mass and energy are inter-convertible in accordance with Einstein’s relation, E = mc2
3. Assertion: Two protons can attract each other.
Reason: The distance between the protons within the nucleus is about 10-15 m.
Ans: 1. c 2. a 3. a
252
2 Marks Questions
1.Imagine the fission of a 26Fe into two equal fragments of 13Al28 nucleus. Is the fission
56
energetically possible? Justify your answer by working out Q value of the process.
2.Distinguish between nuclear fission and fusion.
3. Draw a plot of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation. Write two
important conclusions which you can draw regarding the nature of nuclear forces.
4.Why do stable nuclei never have more protons than neutrons?
5.If 200 MeV energy is released in the fission of one U235 nucleus, how many fissions must occur
per second to produce a power of 2KW?
Hints and solutions:
1) Given: m (26Fe56 ) = 55.93494u, m (13Al28 ) = 27.98191u.
Mass Difference = 55.93494 – 2 x 27.98191
= -0.02888u.
Fission not possible.
2)
Nuclear Fission Nuclear Fusion
The phenomenon in which a heavy nucleus The process in which two light nuclei
when excited splits into two smaller nuclei of combine to form a single heavier nucleus is
comparable masses is called nuclear fission. called nuclear fusion.
The conditions of high temperature The conditions of high temperature
and pressure are not necessary for its occurrence. and pressure are necessary for its occurrence.
Neutrons are the link particles for this process Protons are the link particle for this Process
It is a quick process It occurs in several steps
Energy available per nucleon is Energy available per nucleon is
small, about 0.85 MeV large, about 6.75 MeV
Produces very harmful radioactive wastes The products of fusion are Harmless
3)
a) Nuclear force is short ranged

b)The force is attractive for distances larger than 0.8fm and repulsive if the distances less than
0.8fm
4) Protons are positively charged and repel one another electrically.
This repulsion becomes so great in nuclei with more than 10 protons or so, that an excess of neutrons
which produce only attractive forces, is required for stability.
5)Energy released in fission of U235 nucleus = 200 MeV
= 3.2 x 10-11J
If the number of fissions required per second to produce a power of 2 kW is n, then
3.2 x 10-11 x n = 2 x 1000
n = 2 x 1000 / 3.2 x 10-11 = 6.25 x 1013.
253
3 Marks Questions:
1. The figure shows the plot of binding energy (BE) per nucleon as a function of mass number A. The
letters A, B, C, D and E represent the positions of typical nuclei on the curve. Point out, giving reasons, the two
processes (in terms of A, B, C, D and E), one of which can occur due to nuclear fission and the other due to
nuclear fusion.
2. (a)Draw a graph showing the variation of binding energy per nucleon (BE/A) vs mass number A for
the nuclei in 20≤ A ≤ 170.
(b)A nucleus of mass number 240 and having binding energy/nucleon 7.6 MeV splits into two
fragments Y, Z of mass numbers 110 and 130 respectively. If the binding energy/nucleon of Y, Z is equal to
8.5MeV each, calculate the energy released in the nuclear reaction.
3. Draw the curve showing the variation of binding energy per nucleon with the mass number of nuclei.
Using it, explain the fusion of nuclei lying on ascending part and fission of nuclei lying descending part of this
curve.
4 (a) Write two characteristic properties of nuclear force.

(b) How does one explain the release of energy in the processes of nuclear fission and
nuclear fusion?
5.(a)Draw the plot of binding energy per nucleon (BE/A) as a function of mass number A. Write two
important conclusions that can be drawn regarding the nature of nuclear force.
(b)Use this graph to explain the release of energy in both the processes of nuclear fusion and
fission. Write one typical reaction for each.
Hints and solutions:
1)a) Nuclear fission of E to D and C; as there is increase in binding energy per nucleon
b) Nuclear fusion of A and B into C; as there is increase in binding energy per nucleon.
254
2)
Energy released
= [(110+130) x 8.5 – 240 x 7.6] MeV
= 240(8.5 – 7.6) MeV
= 216 MeV
3) Explanation for fusion
On the ascending part of the curve B.E./A increases with mass number (A). So, B.E. of
The resultant will be greater than that of the nuclei which are fused together. Hence,
the fusion of the nuclei on the ascending part, results in an increase in binding energy
i.e. a more stable nucleus.
Explanation for fission
On the descending part of the curve, the B.E. of the heavier nuclei is lower. Hence the
fission of the heavier nuclei, on the descending part will again cause an increase in B.E.
and, therefore, more stable nucleus.
4) (a) Characteristics of nuclear forces (Any two)
(i)Nuclear forces are attractive in nature: - The magnitude which depends upon inter nucleon distance is of very
high order.
(ii) Nuclear forces are charge independent: - Nature of force remains the same whether we consider force
between two protons, between two neutrons or between a proton and a neutron.
(iii) These are short range forces: - Nuclear forces operate between two nucleons situated in close
neighbourhood only.
(iv) Nuclear forces decrease very quickly with distance between two nucleons: - Their rate of decrease is much
rapid than that of inverse square law forces.
(v) Nuclear forces are spin dependent: - Nucleons having parallel spin are more strongly bound to each other
than those having anti-parallel spin.
(b) The breaking of a heavy nucleus into smaller nuclei is called nuclear fission while the combining of two
light nuclei to form a heavy nucleus is called nuclear fusion.
255
In both the processes, the binding energy of the daughter nuclei is more than that of the parent nuclei. The
difference in binding energy is released in the form of energy. In both processes, some mass gets converted into
energy.
5)a)
The constancy of binding energy per nucleon over a wide range of mass number
30< A <170 indicates that
(i) Nuclear force is a short range force.
(ii) Nuclear force shows saturation effect.
b)Nuclear fusion: Lighter nuclei have smaller BE/A than heavier nuclei, so they are less stable. When two
light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus, the higher binding energy per nucleon results in the release of
energy.
Nuclear fission: BE/A is smaller for heavier nuclei than the middle ones, so they are less stable when a
heavier nucleus splits into the lighter nuclei, the BE/A increases resulting in the release of energy.
1
0𝑛 + 92𝑈
235
→ 36𝐾𝑟92 + 56𝐵𝑎141 + 3 0𝑛1 + 200 MeV
2He →
3 3 4
2He + 2He + 2 1H1 + 12.9 MeV
Case Based/Source based/CCT questions
1. NUCLEAR FORCE
Neutrons and protons are identical particle in the sense that their masses are nearly the same and the force,
called nuclear force, does into distinguish them. Nuclear force is the strongest force. Stability of nucleus is
determined by the neutron Proton ratio or mass defect or packing fraction. Shape of nucleus is calculated by
quadrupole moment and the spin of nucleus depends on even or odd mass number. Volume of nucleus depends
on the mass number. Whole mass of the atom (nearly 99%)is centred at the nucleus.
1. The incorrect statement about the nuclear force is
(a) Charge independent
(b) Short range force
(c) Non conservative force
(d) Obeys inverse square law
2. The range of nuclear force is the order of
(a) 2 x10 -10 m (b) 1.5 x10-20 m (c) 1.2 x10 – 4m (d) 1.4 x10 – 15 m
256
3. Density of a nucleus
(a) Increases with mass number
(b) Decreases with mass number
(c) Constant for any nucleus
(d) low density for small nuclei and large for heavy nuclei
4. Heavy stable nuclei have more neutrons than protons. This is because
of the fact that
(a) Neutrons are heavier than protons.
(b) Electrostatic force between protons are repulsive.
(c) Neutrons decay into protons through beta decay.
(d) Nuclear forces between neutrons are weaker than that between protons.
Ans: 1(a), 2(d), 3(c), 4(b)

2. BINDING ENERGY OF A NUCLEUS
An atomic nucleus is composed of protons and neutrons. The measurements using mass spectrometer have
revealed that the mass of a stable nucleus is always less than the sum of the masses of its constituent protons and
neutrons. The difference in the mass of a nucleus and its constituents is called mass defect, ∆m = Zmp + (A –
Z)mn – M. Using Einstein’s mass energy relation, we express this mass difference in terms of energy as ∆Eb =
mc2. This energy ∆Eb is called the binding energy of the nucleus. This energy represents the surplus energy
which the nucleons give upby virtue of their mutual attraction when they become bound together to form a
nucleus. The value of binding energy per nucleon of a nucleus gives a measure of the stability of that nucleus.
Greater is the binding energy per nucleon of a nucleus, more stable is the nucleus. In the mass number range A
= 30 to 170, the binding energy per nucleon is nearly constant, about 8 MeV/nucleon.
(i) If the number of nucleons increases, then binding energy per nucleon of the nucleus
(a) First increases and then decreases with mass number
(b) Continuously increases with mass number
(c) Continuously decreases with mass number
(d) Remains constant with mass number.
(ii) The average binding energy per nucleon is maximum for the nucleus
4
(a) 2He (b) 8O16 (c) 26Fe56 (d) 92U238
(iii) The curve of binding energy per nucleon as a function of a atomic mass number has a sharp peak for
helium nucleus. This implies that helium nucleus
(a) Can easily be broken up
(b) Is very stable
(c) Can be used as fissionable material
(d) Is radioactive
257
(iv) If mo is the mass of isotope 8O16 , mp and mn are the masses of a proton and neutron respectively, the
nuclear binding energy of the isotope is
(a) (mo - 16 mn)c2
(b) (mo - 8mp)c2
(c) (8mp + 8 mn - mo)c2
(d) moc2
(v) The binding energy per nucleon is almost same for many nuclei. It indicates that the nuclear forces
are:
(a) Attractive (b) short-range (c) charge-independent (d) saturated
Ans: (i)a, (ii) c, (iii) b, (iv)c, (v) d
3. NUCLEAR FISSION
In a single uranium fission about 0.9 x 235 MeV (≈ 200MeV) of energy is liberated. If each nucleus of about
50 kg of U235 undergoes fission the amount of energy involved is about 4 x 1015J. This energy is equivalent to
about 20000 tons of TNT, enough for a super explosion. Uncontrolled release of large nuclear energy is called
an atomic explosion. On August 6, 1945 an atomic device was used in warfare for the first time. The US dropped
an atom bomb on Hiroshima, Japan. The explosion was equivalent to 20000 tons of TNT. Instantly the radioactive
products devastated 10 sq km of the city which had 343000 inhabitants. Of this number 66000 were killed and
69000 were injured, more than 67% of the city structures were destroyed.
(i) When 92U235 undergoes fission, about 0.1% of the original mass is converted into energy. The energy released
when 1 kg of 92U235 undergoes fission is
(a) 8.2 x 1011 J (b) 8.2 x 1013 J (c) 8.2x 1015 J (d) 8.2 x 1018 J
(ii) In any fission process, ratio of mass of daughter nucleus to mass of parent nucleus is
(a) Less than 1 (b) Greater than 1 (c) Equal to 1
(d) Depends on the mass of parent nucleus
(iii)A nuclear fission is said to be critical when multiplication factor or K
(a) K = 1 (b) K > 1 (c) K < 1 (d) K = 0
(iv) On an average, the number of neutrons and the energy of a neutron released per fission of a uranium atom
are respectively
(a) 2.5 and 2 keV (b) 3 and 1 keV (c) 2.5 and 2 MeV (d) 2 and 2 keV
Ans: (i) b (ii) a (iii) a (iv) c
Self-Evaluation test:
1) Taking the Bohr radius as 53 pm, the radius of Li++ ion in its ground state, on the basis of
Bohr’s model, will be about
(A) 53 pm. (B) 27 pm. (C) 18 pm. (D) 13 pm.
2) State two characteristic properties of nuclear force
3)Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 1: 2. What is the ratio of their nuclear densities?
4) Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 1: 8. What is the ratio of their nuclear radii?
5) Calculate the energy released in MeV in the following nuclear reaction:
238 234
92U 90Th + 2He 4 +Q
258
[Mass of 92U238 = 238.05079u,
Mass of 90Th 234 =234.043630 u,
Mass of 2He 4 = 4.002600u, 1u= 931.5 MeV/c 2 ]
6) The mass of a nucleus in its ground state is always less than the total mass of its constituents –
neutrons and protons. Explain.
7) Plot a graph showing the variation of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their
separation.
8) A heavy nucleus X of mass number 240 and binding energy per nucleon 7.6 MeV is split into two
fragments Y and Z of mass numbers 110 and 130. The binding energy of nucleons in Y and Z is 8.5
MeV per nucleon. Calculate the energy Q released per fission in MeV.
9) Draw a plot of the binding energy per nucleon as a function of mass number for a large number of
nuclei, 2 ≤ A ≤ 240. How do you explain the constancy of binding energy per nucleon in the range
30 < A < 170 using the property that nuclear force is short-ranged?
10) Using the curve for the binding energy per nucleon as a function of mass number A, state clearly
how the release of energy in the processes of nuclear fission and nuclear fusion can be explained.
259
SEMI CONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following energy band diagram shows the N-type semiconductor
Conduction band(CB) Conduction band(CB)
(a) (b)
Impurity level
Eg1eV 1eV
Valance band (VB) Valance band (VB)
(c) (d)
Valance band (VB) Valance band (VB)
Impurity level
1eV 1eV
Conduction band(CB) Conduction band(CB)
2. Which of the energy band diagrams shown in the figure corresponds to that of a semiconductor
(a) CB (b) CB
VB
VB
(c) CB (d)
CB
Eg>>KT
VB
Eg = KT
VB
3. Electric current due to drift of electrons occurs in

(a) Metallic conductors (c) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Semi-conductors (d) None of thes
4. In extrinsic semiconductors
(a) The conduction band and valence band overlap
(b) The gap between conduction band and valence band is more than 16 eV
(c) The gap between conduction band and valence band is near about 1 eV
(d) The gap between conduction band and valence band will be 100 eV and more
260
5. A piece of semiconductor is connected in series in an electric circuit. On increasing the temperature, the
current in the circuit will
(a)Decrease (b) Remain unchanged (c)Increase (d)Stop flowing
6. Regarding a semiconductor which one of the following is wrong
(a) There are no free electrons at room temperature
(b) There are no free electrons at 0 K
(c) The number of free electrons increases with rise of temperature
(d) The charge carriers are electrons and holes
7. In the following the energy gap for non-conductors is

(a) 6 eV (b) 1.1 eV (c)0.8 eV (d)0.3 eV
8. The energy band gap is maximum in
(a) Metals (b) Superconductor (c)Insulators (d)Semiconductors
9. Which is the correct relation for forbidden energy gap in conductor, semiconductor and insulator
(a) Egc  Egsc  Eginsulator (b) Eginsulator  Egsc  Egconductor
(c) Egconductor  Eginsulator  Egsc (d) Egsc  Egconductor  Eginsulator
10. If ne and nh are the number of electrons and holes in a semiconductor heavily doped with phosphorus,
then
(a) ne  nh (b) ne  nh (c) ne  nh (d) ne = nh

11. Energy bands in solids are a consequence of
(a) Ohm’s Law (b)Pauli’s exclusion principle (c)Bohr’s theory (d)Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
12. Fermi level of energy of an intrinsic semiconductor lies
(a) In the middle of forbidden gap (b) Below the middle of forbidden gap
(c) Above the middle of forbidden gap (d) Outside the forbidden gap
13. If N P and N e be the numbers of holes and conduction electrons in an extrinsic semiconductor, then
depending on the nature of impurity
(a) N P  N e (b) N P = N e (c) N P  Ne (d) N P  Ne or N P  Ne
14. The temperature (T) dependence of resistivity ( ) of a semiconductor is represented by
a)  b)  c)  d) 
T O T O T
O T
O
.
261
Assertion and Reason
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
15. Assertion: If the temperature of a semiconductor is increased then it's resistance decreases.
Reason: The energy gap between conduction band and valence band is very small
16. Assertion: Semiconductors do not Obey's Ohm's law.
Reason : Current is determined by the rate of flow of charge carriers.
17. Assertion: The temperature coefficient of resistance is positive for metals and negative for P-type
semiconductor.
Reason: The effective charge carriers in metals are negatively charged whereas in P-type semiconductor they
are positively charged.
18. Assertion: Electron has higher mobility than hole in a semiconductor.
Reason: Mass of electron is less than the mass of hole.
19. Assertion: An N-type semiconductor has a large number of electrons but still it is electrically neutral.
Reason : An N-type semiconductor is obtained by doping an intrinsic semiconductor with a
pentavalent impurity.
20. Assertion: The crystalline solids have a sharp melting point.
Reason : All the bonds between the atoms or molecules of a crystalline solids are equally strong,
that they get broken at the same temperature.
21. Assertion: Silicon is preferred over germanium for making semiconductor devices.
Reason : The energy gap for germanium is more than the energy gap of silicon.
22. Assertion: The depletion region in a p-n junction is devoid of free electrons and holes.
Reason: We can take a slab of p-type semiconductor and join it physically to n-type and form a p-n junction.
23. Assertion: In a half-wave rectifier if diode is short circuited the output from the rectifier will be identical
to the wave of the input primary voltage.
Reason: Since the diode is shorted, it acts as a piece of wire.
24. Assertion: Full-wave rectifier preferred to half-wave rectifier.
Reason: The output of a full-wave rectifier is twice as great as the half-wave rectifier.
25. Assertion: The depletion layer in p-n junction under forward bias decreases.
Reason: The electric field due to external voltage supports the electric field due to potential barrier.
26. What are semiconductors? Give examples.
27. What is an energy band?
262
28. What is a valence band?
29. What is a forbidden energy gap?
30. What is the value of forbidden gap energy of germanium?
31. What is Fermi energy level?
32. What is called doping?
33. Define Fermi level.
34. Define Fermi energy.
35. What is an intrinsic semiconductor?
36. What is the ratio of number of holes and the number of conduction electrons in an n-type intrinsic
semiconductor?
37. Why semiconductors are doped?
38. What type of impurity is added to obtain n-type semiconductor?
39. Which type of semiconductor is formed, when (a) germanium is doped with indium? (b) germanium is
doped with arsenic?
40. The electron and hole concentration in a semiconductor in thermal equilibrium is given by the
relation...............
41. What is a hole?
42. Which type of doping creates a hole?
43. Draw the symbol for p-n junction diode
44. Name the two processes involved in the formation of p-n junction?
45. Give an approximate value for the potential barrier of silicon type junction diode
46. What is the name of the ability of a junction diode to convert an AC to DC?
47. The formation of depletion region in a p-n junction diode is due to
a) Movement of dopant atoms
b) Diffusion of both electrons and holes
c) Drift of electrons only
d) Drift of holes only
48. When a voltmeter is connected across a forward biased diode, it will read a voltage approximately
a) Bias battery voltage
b) Output voltage
c) Diode barrier potential
d) None of these
49. When p-n junction diode is forward biased, then
(a) the depletion region is reduced and barrier height is increased
263
(b) the depletion region is widened and barrier height is reduced
(c) both the depletion region and barrier height are reduced
(d) both the depletion region and barrier height are increased.
50. In an unbiased pn junction, electrons diffuse from n-region to p-region because
(a) electrons travel across the junction due to potential difference
(b) electron concentration in n-region is more as compared to that in p-region
(c) only electrons move from n to p region and not the vice-versa
(d) holes in p-region attract them.
51. In a p-n junction diode, not connected to any circuit
(a) the potential is the same everywhere
(b) the p-type side is at a higher potential than the n-type side
(c) there is an electric field at the junction directed from the n-type side to the p-type side
(d) there is an electric field at the junction directed from the p-type side to the n-type side.
ANSWER KEY(1 MARK)

1. (b)In N-type semiconductor impurity energy level lies just below the conduction band.
2. (d)In semiconductors, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is very
small, almost equal to kT. Moreover, valence band is completely filled whereas conduction band is
empty.
3. Ans. (c)
4. Ans. (c)
5. Ans. (c)Because with rise in temperature, resistance of semiconductor decreases, hence overall
resistance of the circuit increases, which in turn increases the current in the circuit
6. Ans. (a)At room temperature, few bonds breaks and electron hole pair generates inside the
semiconductor
7. Ans. (a)
8. Ans. (c)
9. Ans. (B)
10. Ans. (a)Phosphorus is a pentavalent impurity so ne > nh.
11. Ans. (b)Formation of energy bands in solids are due to Pauli's exclusion principle.
12. Ans. (a)
264
13. Ans. (d)
14. Ans. (c)With rise in temperature, resistivity of semiconductors decreases exponentially
15. Ans. (a)In semiconductors the energy gap between conduction band and valence band is small (≈ 1
eV). Due to temperature rise, electron in the valence band gained thermal energy and may jump across
the small energy gap, goes in to the conduction band. Thus, conductivity increases and hence
resistance decreases.
16. Ans. (D)The assertion is not true. In fact, semiconductor Obeys Ohm's law for low values of electric
field (~ 106 V/m). Above this, the current becomes almost independent of electric field
17. Ans. (b)
18. Ans. (a)The ratio of the velocity to the applied field is called the mobility. Since electron is lighter
than holes, they move faster in applied field than holes
19. Ans. (b)
Intrinsic + Pentavalent N-type
semiconduct impurity
(Neutral) semiconduct
or (Neutral) (Neutral)
20. Ans. (a)At a particular temperature all the bonds of crystalline solids break and show sharp melting
point.
21. Ans. (c)The energy gap for germanium is less (0.72 eV ) than the energy gap of silicon (1.1 eV ) .
Therefore, silicon is preferred over germanium for making semiconductor devices.

22. Ans:C
23. Ans:A
24. Ans:A
25. Ans: C
26. Ans.The material whose resistivity lies between that of good conductors and insulators are called
semiconductors.
Examples: Germanium, Silicon.
27. Ans.The range of energies possessed by electrons in a solid is known as energy band.
28. Ans.The energy band occupied by the valence electrons are called valence band. It may be completely
filled or partially filled with electrons but can never be empty.
29. Ans.The valence band and the conduction band are separated by a gap is known as forbidden energy
gap.
265
30. Ans. 0.7 eV.
31. Ans. The highest energy level, which an electron can occupy in the valence band at 0 K is called
Fermi energy level.
32. The process of adding impurities to a semiconductor is called doping.
33. Fermi level is defined as the uppermost filled energy level in a conductor at zero Kelvin (0K).
34. Fermi energy is defined as the maximum energy that an electron can have in a conductor at zero
Kelvin
35. Ans. A semiconductor free from all types of impurities is called an intrinsic semiconductor.
36. Ans. It is less than 1.
37. Ans. The conductivity of intrinsic semiconductors is so small that it is practically of no use. The
semiconductors are dopped so as to increase their conductivity.
38. Ans. Pentavalent atoms, such as arsenic and phosphorous.
39. Ans. (a) p-type (b) n-type .
40. Ans : ne nh = ni 2
41. Ans. A vacancy created in the covalent bond of a semiconductor is called hole.
42. Ans. The doping of semiconductor with impurity atoms having 3 electrons in valence shell creates
holes.
43.
44. Diffusion and drift

45. 0.7 V
46. Rectification
47. Ans : b
48. Ans C
49. Ans: C
50. Ans B
51. Ans: C
TWO MARK QUESTIONS
52. What is a conduction band?
53. Why germanium is preferred over silicon for making semiconductor devices?
54. What is a p-type semiconductor?
55. What is N-type semiconductor?
56. Why does a potential barrier set up across a junction diode?
57. Why is a p-n junction also called junction diode?
58. Why does the width of depletion layer of ap-n junction increase in reverse biasing?
266
59. Can we measure the potential difference of a p-n junction by connecting a sensitive voltmeter across its
terminals?
60. In the following diagram, which bulb out of B, and B, will glow and why?
61. Determine the currents through the resistances of the circuits shown in Fig.
62. For the circuit shown, find the current flowing through the 1Ω resistor. Assume that the two diodes, D1,
and D2, are ideal diodes
63. Define the term dynamic resistance for the junction diode?
ANSWER KEY (2 MARK)
52. Ans.. The electrons which have left from the valence band are called conduction
electrons. The energy band occupied by these conduction electrons are called conduction band. It may be
empty or partially filled with electrons but can never be completely filled.
53 Ans. For germanium (Ge) and silicon (Si), the values of forbidden energy gap are 0.7 eV and 1.1 eV
respectively. Owing to the smaller value of forbidden energy gap, germanium is preferred over silicon.
54 Ans. When a semiconductor is doped with a trivalent impurity, the holes are created in the covalent bonds.
As a result, the semiconductor possesses a large number of holes (majority carriers) and a small number of
electrons (minority carriers). Such a semiconductor is called p-type semiconductor.
55 Ans. When a semiconductor is doped with pentavalent impurity atoms (Phosphorus, arsenic) are added to
a pure semiconductor, it is called N-type semiconductor. Here electrons are majority carriers and holes are
minority carriers.
56 Ans. The accumulation of negative charges in the p-region and positive charges in the n-region sets up a
potential difference across the junction. This is called potential barrier which opposes the diffusion of electrons
and holes across the junction.
267
57 Ans. A p-n junction allows a large current to flow through it when forward biased and it offers a high p-n
resistance when it is reverse biased. This unidirectional property is similar to that of a vacuum diode. Hence
junction is also called a junction diode.
58 Ans. During reverse biasing, the positive terminal of the external battery attracts electrons from the n-
region and its negative terminal attracts holes from the p-region i.e., the majority charge carriers move away
from the junction. This increases the width of the depletion layer.
59 Ans. No, there are no free charge carriers in the depletion region. So it offers infinite resistance in the
absence of any forward biasing.
60 Ans. Only bulb B1 glows. This is because diode D1 is forward biased while D2 is reverse biased.
61 Ans. In Fig. (a), both the diodes D1 and D2 are forward biased and offer no resistance.
Current in the circuit 2.0 V/ 20 Ω = 0.1 A
In Fig. (b), diode D2 being reverse biased offers infinite resistance, so current through the series circuit = zero.
62 Ans. Diode D1 is forward biased and offers zero resistance.
Diode D2 is reversed biased and offers infinite resistance.
By Ohm's law, the current through the 1Ω resistor is I=6 V/(2+1)= 2 A
63 Ans. It is the ratio of the small change in the applied voltage ∆V to the corresponding change in current ∆I.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
64. What is the difference between hole-current and electron current?
65. An n-type semiconductor has a large number of electrons but still it is
electrically neutral. Explain.
66. Why is a semiconductor damaged by a strong current?
67. Explain the terms depletion layer and potential barrier for a junction diode. Or What do you mean by
depletion region and potential barrier in a junction diode?
68. Draw a circuit diagram for p-n junction diode in forward bias. Sketch the voltage-current graph for the
same?
69. Draw a circuit diagram for the reverse biased p-n junction diode. Sketch the voltage-current graph for
the same
70. How is forward biasing different from reverse biasing in a pn junction?
71. An n-type semiconductor has excess of free electrons while a p-type semiconductor has a deficiency of
these. But when a p-n junction is formed, all the electrons do not flow from n-region to the p-region.
Why?
72. Figure shows the characteristic curve of a junction diode. Determine the d.c. and a.c. resistance of the
diode, when it operates at 0.3 V.
268
ANSWER KEY(3 MARK)
64 Ans. In a p-type semiconductor, there are vacancies called holes. When such a material conducts, an
electron from a nearby covalent bond jumps into the vacant place in order to fill it and thereby the hole shifts to
the covalent bond from which the electron has jumped. The movement of holes constitutes the hole-current. In
an n-type semiconductor, the free electrons constitute the electron current.
65 Ans. An n-type semiconductor is obtained by doping pure Si or Ge-crystal with a pentavalent impurity. As
the impurity atoms enter into the configuration of the Si-crystal, its four electrons take part in covalent bonding,
while the fifth electron is left free. Since each atom of the semiconductor as a whole is electrically neutral; the
n-type Ge-crystal, though having large number of free electrons, is electrically neutral.
66 Ans. A strong current, when passed through a semiconductor, heats up the semiconductor and the covalent
bonds break up. It results in a large number of free electrons. The material, then, behaves just as a conductor.
As now the semiconductor no longer possesses the property of low conduction, it is said to be damaged.
67 Ans. Depletion region. A layer, created around the junction between p and n-sections of a junction diode
devoid of holes and electrons, is called depletion region.
Potential barrier. The potential difference developed across the junction due to migration of majority
carriers is called potential barrier.
68 Ans
69 Ans
70 Ans. Forward biasing of p-n junction

(i) p-side is connected to the +ve terminal and n-side to the -ve terminal of the battery.
(ii) Forward current is due to majority charge carriers.
(iii) Depletion layer becomes thin.
(iv) Resistance across the p-n junction decreases.
Reverse biasing of p-n junction
(i) p-side is connected to the -ve terminal and n-side to the +ve terminal of the battery.
(ii) Reverse current is due to minority charge carriers.
(iii) Depletion layer becomes thick.
(iv) Resistance across the p-n junction increases.
269
71 Ans. Though the p-type and n-type semiconductors have excess free electrons and holes respectively, but
they have equal number of fixed positive donor ions and negative acceptor ions respectively. When a p-n
junction is formed, electrons diffuse from n-region to p-region while holes diffuse from p-region to n-region.
As a result, the n-region near the junction becomes increasingly positive and the p-region becomes increasingly
negative. This sets up a potential barrier across junction which opposes the further diffusion of electrons and
holes across the junction. That is why all the electrons do not flow from region to p-region.
72 Ans. The d.c. resistance is just equal to the voltage divided by current.
R= VB/ IB = 0.3 V/(4.5 × 10-3 A ) = 66.67 Ω
Consider two points A and C around the point of operation B.
Then rac = ΔV/ ΔΙ =VC -VA / IC -IA =0.35 -0.25 /(6-3)x 10-3 = 33.33 Ω
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
73.Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic semi-conductors?
74.Distinguish between N-type Semiconductor and P-type Semiconductor?
75.With the help of suitable diagram, describe briefly the two important processes involved in the formation
of a pn junction. Define the terms depletion region and potential barrier
76.If a small voltage is applied to a p-n junction diode how will the barrier potential be affected when it is (i)
forward biased, and (ii) reverse biased? Briefly explain.
77.Draw V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode.
78.Answer the following questions, giving reasons:
(i) Why is the current under reverse bias almost independent of the applied potential upto a critical
voltage?
(ii) Why does the reverse current show a sudden increase at the critical voltage?
79.Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of a p-n junction diode as a half-wave rectifier.
80.Draw the circuit diagram of a full-wave rectifier using p-n junction diode. Explain its working and show
the output and input waveforms.
ANSWER KEY (5 MARK)
73 Ans. The major difference between extrinsic and intrinsic semiconductors are as follow:
270
Intrinsic Semiconductors Extrinsic Semiconductors
Semiconductor in its purest form. Semiconductor in its impure form.
It has a higher conductivity than an intrinsic

It has low conductivity.
semiconductor.
The band gap between the conduction and The energy gap is greater than that of an intrinsic
valence bands is quite narrow. semiconductor.
Fermi level can be found in the forbidden The presence of a Fermi level depends on the type of
energy gap. extrinsic semiconductor.
Electrical conductivity in a pure semiconductor is

Temperature alone determines electrical
affected by temperature as well as the quantity of
conductivity.
impurity doping.
Pure Silicon and Germanium crystalline Impurities such as As, Sb, P, In, Bi, Al, and others are
forms are examples. doped with Germanium and Silicon atoms.
74 Ans.The differences between N-type Semiconductor and P-type Semiconductor are shown in the below
table:
N-type Semiconductor P-type Semiconductor
Impurities such as Arsenic, Antimony, Impurities such as Aluminium, Gallium
Phosphorous and Bismuth (elements having and Indium (elements having three valence
five valence electrons) are added in N-type electrons) are added in P-type
semiconductors. semiconductors.
Impurities are added in N-type Impurities are added in P-type
semiconductors in order to increase the semiconductors in order to increase the
number of electrons (also known as Donor number of holes (also known as Acceptor
atom). atom).
In a N-type semiconductor, the majority of In a P-type semiconductor, the majority
charge carriers are free electrons whereas theof charge carriers are holes whereas the
holes are in minority. free electrons are in minority.
In the case of N-type semiconductor, the In the case of a P-type semiconductor, the
majority of charge carriers move from low majority of charge carriers move from high
potential to high potential. potential to low potential.
The donor energy level is close to the The acceptor energy level is close to the
conduction band in the case of N-type conduction band in the case of P-type
semiconductors. semiconductors.
271
75 Ans. Hint: Two important processes involved during the formation of p-n junction are diffusion and drift.
Due to the concentration gradient across the p- and n-sides of the junction, holes diffuse from p-side to n-side
and electrons diffuse from n-side to p-side of the junction. This movement of charge carriers gives rise to
diffusion current across the p-n junction. This process leaves behind -ve acceptor ions on the p-side and +ve
donor ions on the n-side of the junction. The space charge region on either side of the junction which gets
devoid of mobile charge carriers and has only immobile ions is called depletion layer. The accumulation of
negative charges in the p-region and positive charges in the n-region sets up a potential difference across the
junction. This is called barrier potential because it opposes the further diffusion of electrons and holes across
the junction.
76 Ans i) When p-n junction is forward biased, the positive terminal of the battery pushes the holes of p-
region and negative terminal pushes the electrons of n-region towards the junction. The presence of electrons
and holes decreases the width of the p-n junction
ii) When pn junction is reversed biased, the negative terminal of the battery pulls holes from p-region and
positive terminal pulls the electrons from the n-region away from the junction. This increases width of
depletion layer
77.
78. Ans (i) When the diode is reverse biased, a very small current of few µA flows due to the drift of
minority charge carriers whose number density remains constant, so the current under reverse bias is almost
independent of the applied potential upto a critical voltage.
(ii) When the reverse voltage across the p-n junction reaches a critical voltage, the reverse current suddenly
increases to a large value. It is due to the increase in the number of minority charge carriers because of the
breakdown of the diode. The avalanche breakdown occurs in lightly doped diodes due to ionisation by
collision. Zener breakdown occurs at low voltages in heavily doped diodes by field emission.
79 Ans The secondary of the transformer supplies ac voltage across A and B. When A is at higher potential
with respect to the potential at B, the diode is forward biased and it conducts. In the reverse condition, diode
272
does not conduct. This way output voltage appears across the load resistance or R, only for half cycle of ac
voltage. The output voltage though still varying in magnitude is flowing in only one direction and is said to be
rectified.
80 Ans. During the first half of the cycle, if A is at higher potential with respect to centre tap and B is at lower
potential, the diode D1, being forward biased conducts and the diode D2, being reverse biased does not conduct.
The current flows through the load in the sense H to L. During the second half of the cycle, conditions get
reversed and only diode D2, conducts. Again, the current flows through the load in the sense H to L.
Case Study Questions

81. From Bohr's atomic model, we know that the electrons have well defined
energy levels in an isolated atom. But due to interatomic interactions in a crystal,
the electrons of the outer shells are forced to have energies different from those in
isolated atoms. Each energy level splits into a number of energy levels forming a
continuous band. The gap between top of valence band and bottom of the
conduction band in which no allowed energy levels for electrons can exist is
called energy gap.
I. (I) In an insulator energy band gap is
a)Eg= 0 b)Eg< 3eV c) Eg> 3eV d)None of the above
II. (II) In a semiconductor, separation between conduction and valence band is of the order of
a)0 eV b)1 eV c) 10 eV d) 50 eV
III. Based on the band theory of conductors, insulators and semiconductors, the forbidden gap is smallest in
a) conductors b) insulators c) semiconductors d) All of these
IV. (IV) Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence electrons each. At room temperature
which one of the following statements is most appropriate?
a) The number of free electrons for conduction is significant only in Si and Ge but small in C
b) The number of free conduction electrons is significant in C but small in Si and Ge
c) The number of free conduction electrons is negligibly small in all the three
d) The number of free electrons for conduction is significant in all the three.
V. Solids having highest energy level partially filled with electrons are
A) semiconductor B) conductor C) insulator D) none of these
273
82.There are different techniques of fabrication of p-n junction. In one such technique, called fused junction
techniques, an aluminium film is kept on the wafer of n-type semiconductor and the combination is then heated
to a high temperature (about 600°C). As a result, aluminium fused into silicon and produces p-type
semiconductor and in this way a p-n junction is formed.
(1) When a p-n junction is reverse biased, then how does the height of potential barrier change?
(a) No current flows
(b) The depletion region is reduced
(c) Height of potential barrier is decreased
(d)Height of potential barrier is increased
(2) The cause of potential barrier in p-n junction is
(a) depletion of positive charges near the junction
(b) concentration of negative charges near the junction.
(c) concentration of positive and negative charges near the junction.
(d) depletion of negative charges near the junction.
(3) The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. What
is the current flowing in the circuit?
(a) 1.17 A (b) 2.0 A (c) 2.31 A (d) 1.33 A
(4) Carbon, germanium and silicon all are fourteenth
group elements.
(a) C and Ge are semiconductors.
(b) C and Si are semiconductors.
(c) all C, Si and Ge are semiconductors.
(d) Si and Ge are semiconductors.
OR
When a p-n junction is forward biased, then
(a) only diffusion current flows.
(b) both diffusion current and drift current flow but diffusion current is more than drift current.
(c) only drift current flows.
(d) both diffusion and drift current flow but drift current exceeds the diffusion current.
83.In Forward bias arrangement, the p-side of a p-n junction is connected to the positive terminal of battery
and n-side to negative terminal of battery. The current first increases very slowly till a certain threshold voltage
is reached. Beyond this value, the diode current increases exponentially even for a very small increment in
diode bias voltage. In reverse bias, the current suddenly increases at very high reverse bias. This is called
breakdown voltage.
(1) The characteristic curve for p-n junction in forward bias is
274
(2) What is the approximate value of threshold voltage for a germanium diode?
(a) 0.7 V (b) 0.7 eV (c) 0.2V (d) 0.2 eV
(3) Which diagram represents the reverse bias of a p-n junction diode?
(4) How does current under reverse bias depend on applied voltage?
(a) It varies directly with potential.
(b) It varies inversely with potential.
(c) It is almost independent of applied potential upto critical voltage.
(d) It remains unchanged after critical voltage is reached.
84.An alternative voltage V = 200 sin100t is applied to a device that offers an ohmic resistance of 20Ω to the
flow of current in one direction, while blocked the flow of current in opposite direction.
(1) Which device is used here?
(a) AC generator (b) Transformer (c) p-n junction diode (d)none of these
(2) Which type of circuit is this?
(a) Inductive circuit (b) Capacitive (c) Half-wave rectifier (d) Full-wave rectifier
(3) What is the rms value of current in the above circuit for one cycle?
(a) 5 A (b) 6 A (c) 7 A (d) 8 A
OR
What is the average value of current for one cycle?
(a) 1.18 A (b) 2.18 A (c) 3.18 A (d) 4.18 A
(4) How many diodes are used by a half wave rectifier circuit for the transformation?
(a) No diode used (b) One (c) Two (d) Four
ANSWER KEY (CASE STUDY QUESTIONS)
81. Ans I (c) In insulator, energy band gap is > 3 eV
275
II (b): In conductor, separation between conduction and valence bands is zero and in insulator, it is greater
than 1 eV. Hence in semiconductor the separation between conduction and valence band is 1 eV.
III (iii) (a): According to band theory the forbidden gap in conductors Eg = 0, in insulators Eg > 3 eV and in
semiconductors Eg < 3 eV.
IV (a): The four valence electrons of C, Si and Ge lie respectively in the second, third and fourth orbit. Hence
energy required to take out an electron from these atoms (i.e. ionisation energy Eg) will be least for Ge,
followed by Si and highest for C. Hence, the number of free electrons for conduction in Ge and Si are
significant but negligibly small for C.
V (b)
82. Ans 1.d 2.c 3.b 4.d or b
83. Ans 1.b 2.c 3.d 4.c
84. Ans 1.c 2.c 3.c or c 4.b
ASSIGNMENT/EXERCISE QUESTIONS (SELF-EVALUATION TEST)
85. In a pure silicon (ni = 1016/m3) crystal at 300 K, 1021 atoms of phosphorus are added per cubic meter. The
new hole concentration will be
(a)1021 per m3 (b)1019 per m3 (c)1011 per m3 (d)105 per m3
86. Pure sodium (Na) is a good conductor of electricity because the 3s and 3p atomic bands overlap to form a
partially filled conduction band. By contrast the ionic sodium chloride (NaCl) crystal is
(a) Insulator (b)Conductor (c) Semiconductor (d)None of these
87. Would there be any advantage to adding n-type or p-type impurities to copper
(a)Yes (b)No (c)May be (d) Information is insufficient
88. When a battery is connected to a P-type semiconductor with a metallic wire, the current in the
semiconductor (predominantly), inside the metallic wire and that inside the battery respectively due to
(a)Holes, electrons, ions (b)Holes, ions, electrons
(c) Electrons, ions, holes (d) Ions, electrons, holes
89. Is the ionisation energy of an isolated free atom different from the ionisation energy Eg for the atoms in a
crystalline lattice
(a)Yes (b)No (c)May be (d)None of these
90. The energy gap of silicon is 1.5 eV. At what wavelength the silicon will stop to absorb the photon
(a)8250 Å (b) 7250 Å(c) 6875.5 Å (d)5000 Å
91. In the depletion region of a diode
(a) there are mobile charges.
(b) equal number of holes and elections exist, making the region neutral.
(c) recombination of holes and electrons has taken place.
(d) immobile charged ions do not exist.
92. A p-type semiconductor can be obtained by adding
(a) arsenic to pure silicon.
276
(b) gallium to pure silicon.
(c) antimony to pure germanium. (d) phosphorus to pure germanium.
93. A 2V battery is connected across the points A and B as shown in the figure. Assuming that the resistance
of each diode is zero in forward bias and infinity in reverse bias, the current supplied by the battery when its
positive terminal is connected to A is
(a) 0.2 A (b) 0.4 A (c) Zero (d) 0.1 A
94. Current in the circuit will be
(a) 5/40 A (b) 5/50 A (c)5/10 A (d) 5/20 A
95. The I-V characteristic of a p-n junction diode is shown below. The approximate dynamic resistance of the
p-n junction when a forward bias of 2 volt is applied
a) 1Ω (b) 0.5 Ω (c) 0.25 Ω (d) 5 Ω
96. The current in the forward bias is known to be more (mA) than the current in the reverse bias (~μA).
What is the reason?
97. A student wants to use two p-n junction diodes to convert alternating current into direct current. Draw the
labelled circuit diagram she would use and explain how it works.
ASSIGNMENT/EXERCISE QUESTIONS (ANSWER KEY)
85 Ans. (c)
By using mass action law ni2 = ne nh
ni2 (10 16 )2
nh = = = 10 11 per m 3
ne 10 21
86 Ans. (a)
+ −
In sodium chloride the Na and Cl ions both have noble gas electron configuration corresponding to
completely filled bands. Since the bands do not overlap, there must be a gap between the filled bands and the
empty bands above them, so NaCl is an insulator.
87. Ans.b)
Pure Cu is already an excellent conductor, since it has a partially filled conduction band, furthermore, Cu
forms a metallic crystal as opposed to the covalent crystals of silicon or germanium, so the scheme of using an
277
impurity to donate or accept an electron does not work for copper. In fact adding impurities to copper decreases
the conductivity because an impurity tends to scatter electrons, impeding the flow of current.
88. Ans. (a)
Charge carriers inside the P-type semiconductor are holes (mainly). Inside the conductor charge carriers are
electrons and for cell ions are the charge carriers.
89. Ans. (a)
The ionisation energy of an isolated atom is different from it’s value in crystalline lattice, because in the latter
case each bound electron is influenced by many atoms in the periodic crystalline lattice.
90. Ans. (a)
hc 6.6  10 −34  3  10 8
= = = 8.25  10 −7 m = 8250 Å
E 1.5  1.6  10 −19
The photon having wavelength equal to 8250Å or more than this will not able to overcome the energy gap of
silicon.
91. Ans (c)
92. Ans (b)
93. Ans (a)
94. Ans (b)
95. Ans (c )
96. Forward bias decreases a diode's resistance, and reverse bias increases a diode's resistance. Also in
forward bias the current is due to the flow of majority carriers and in reverse bias the current is due to the flow
of minority carriers.
97.
278
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
ERNAKULAM REGION
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 1 (2023-24)
CLASS XII – PHYSICS (THEORY)
Maximum Marks: 70 Marks Time Allowed: 3 hours.
General Instructions:
(1) There are 35 questions in all. All questions are compulsory
(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E. All the
sections are compulsory.
(3) Section A contains eighteen MCQ of 1 mark each, Section B contains seven questions of two marks
each, Section C contains five questions of three marks each, section D contains three long questions of five
marks each and Section E contains two case study-based questions of 4 marks each.
(4) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section B, C, D and E. You
have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
(5) Use of calculators is not allowed.
SECTION A
Q No. MARKS
1 Two large vertical and parallel metal plates having a separation of 1 cm are 1
connected to a dc voltage source of potential difference X. A proton is released at
rest midway between the two plates. It is found to move at 45 0 to the vertical just
after release. Then X is nearly
(a) 1x10-5 V
(b) 1x 10-7V
(c) 1×10-9 V
(d) 1x 10-10 V
2 The electric flux for Gaussian surface A that encloses the charged particles in free 1
space is
(Given q1=-14nC, q2=78.85 n C, q3=-56nC)
( a) 103 Nm²C-1
(b) 103 CN-1m-2
(c) 6.32 x 103 Nm² C-1
(d) 6.32 x 103 CN-1m-2
3 Two capacitors of capacitances C1 and C2 are connected in parallel. If a charge q is 1

given to the assembly, the charge gets shared. The ratio of the charge on the
capacitor C1, to the charge that on C2, is
(a)C1/ C2
(b)C2/C1
(c) C1C2
(d) 1/C1C2
279
4 The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. Due to the consequent 1
decrease in diameter, the change in the resistance of the wire will be
(a) 200% (b) 100% (c) 50% (d) 300%
5 An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same 1
material, connected in parallel. If the lengths and radii of the wires are in the ratio
of 4/3 and 2/3, then the ratio of the currents passing through the wire will be
(a)3 (b)1/3 (c)8/9 (d)2
6 The magnetic field at a distance r from a long wire carrying current I is 0.4 tesla. The 1
magnetic field at a distance
(a) 0.1 tesla (b)0.2 tesla (c) 0.8 tesla (d) 1.6 tesla
7 Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the same wire but the radius of the first 1
coil is twice that of the second coil. What ratio of the potential difference (in volt)
should be applied across them, so that the magnetic field at their centres is the
same?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
8 The variation of magnetic susceptibility with the temperature of a 1
ferromagnetic material can be plotted as
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
280
9 A coil having n turns and resistance R Ω is connected with a galvanometer of 1
resistance 4R Ω. This combination is moved in time t seconds from a magnetic flux
ɸ1 weber to, ɸ2 weber. The induced current in the circuit is
(a) (ɸ1-ɸ2)/5 R n t
(b) -n(ɸ1-ɸ2)/5Rt
(c) -( ɸ1-ɸ2)/R n \]t
(d) -n(ɸ1-ɸ2)/Rt
10 In an LCR circuit, capacitance is changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to
remain unchanged, the inductance should be changed from L to
(a)4L 1
(b)2L
(c)L/2
(d)L/4
11 An electromagnetic wave of frequency 3 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric 1
medium with permittivity ε= 4. Then,
(a) wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged.
(b) wavelength is doubled and the frequency remains unchanged.
(c) wavelength is doubled and the frequency becomes half.
(d) wavelength is halved and the frequency remains unchanged.
12 If wavelength of light in air is 2400 x 10-10 m, then what will the wavelength of light 1
in glass (µ = 1.5)?
(a) 1600 Å
(b) 7200 Å
(c) 1080 Å
(d) none of these
13 The threshold frequency for photoelectric effect on sodium corresponds to a 1

wavelength of 5000 Å. Its work function is
(a) 4× 10-19 J
(b)1 J
(c) 2 × 10-19 J
(d) 3 x 10-19 J
14 The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an excited state to the 1
ground state. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Its kinetic energy increases and its potential and total energies decrease.
(b) Its kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases and its total energy
remains the same
(c) Its kinetic and total energies decrease and its potential energy increases
(d) Its kinetic, potential and total energies decrease
15 If the binding energy per nucleon in 3Li7 and 2He4 nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 1
MeV respectively, then in reaction
1 7 4
1H + 3Li → 2 2He energy of proton must be
(a) 28.24 MeV
(b) 17.28 MeV
(c)1.46 MeV
(d) 39.2 MeV
16 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason 1
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d)
as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
281
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
Assertion: It is not possible to have interference between the waves produced by
two violins.
Reason: For interference of two waves the phase difference between the waves
must remain constant.
as given below.
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A 1
Assertion: The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature.

Reason: The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with larger amplitudes at higher
temperatures thereby increasing its resistivity.
as given below.
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A 1
Assertion: In photoelectron emission, the velocity of electron ejected from near the
surface is larger than that coming from interior of metal.
Reason: The velocity of ejected electron will be zero
SECTION B
19 Name the constituent radiation of electromagnetic spectrum which i 2
a. used to study crystal structure
b. suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation.
Write one another application of each of these radiations.
20 Two similar bars, made from two different materials P and Q, are placed one by 2
one, in a non-uniform magnetic field. It is observed that
a) bar P tends to move from the weak to the strong field region.
b) bar Q tends to move from the strong to the weak field region. Identify the
magnetic material used for making these two bars. Show with the help of
diagrams, the behaviour of the field lines, due to an external magnetic field, near
each of these two bars.
21 Find the ratio between the wavelengths of the ‘most energetic’ spectral lines in 2
the Balmer and Paschen series of the hydrogen spectrum.
OR
The Bohr radius of Hydrogen atom is 5.3 x 10-11m. Find its radius in the first
excited state. Also calculate the total energy in this state.
282
22 Use the mirror equation to show that an object placed between F and 2F of a 2
concave mirror produces a real image beyond 2F.
23 Two material bars A and B of equal area of cross-section are connected in series 2
to a dc supply. A is made of usual resistance wire and B of an n-type
semiconductor. In which bar is the drift speed of free electrons greater? Why?
OR
Draw the energy band diagram of an n-type semiconductor. How does the energy
gap of an intrinsic semiconductor vary with increase in temperature?
24 Determine the angular separation between central maximum and first order 2
maximum of the diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 0.25mm when
light of wavelength 5890A0 is incident on it normally.
25 A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance ‘C’ is charged to a potential ‘V’. It is then 2

connected to another uncharged capacitor having the same capacitance. Find out
the ratio of the energy stored in the combined system to that stored initially in
the single capacitor.
SECTION C
26 State Ampere’s circuital law. Use this law to obtain the expression for magnetic 3
field at a normal distance ‘r’ from an infinitely long current carrying straight
wire. How will the magnetic field intensity at the centre of a current carrying
circular coil change, if the current through the coil is doubled and the radius of
the coil is halved?
27 An inductor L of reactance XL is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC 3

source. How would the brightness of the bulb change when
a) The number of turns in the inductor is reduced
b) An iron rod is inserted in the inductor and
c)A capacitor of reactance Xc = XL is inserted in series in the circuit. Justify your
answer in each case.
OR
A capacitor of unknown capacitance, a resistor of 100Ω and an inductor of self-
inductance L= 4/π2 henry are connected in series to an ac source of 200V and
50Hz. Calculate the value of the capacitance and impedance of the circuit when
the current is in phase with the voltage.
28 a) State Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction. 3

b) A metallic rod of 1m length is rotated with a frequency of 50 rev/s, with one
end hinged at the centre and the other end at the circumference of a circular
metallic ring of radius1m, about an axis passing through the centre and
perpendicular to the plane of the ring. A constant uniform magnetic field of 1T
parallel to the axis is present everywhere. What is the emf between the centre
and the metallic ring?
29 Draw a graph between the frequency of incident radiation (ϒ) and the maximum 3
kinetic energy of the electrons emitted from the surface of a photo sensitive
283
material. State clearly how this graph can be used to find a) Planck’s constant
and b) work function of the material.
OR
The work function of Caesium metal is 2.14eV. When light of frequency 6x
1014Hz is incident on the metal surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. What
is
a) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron
b) stopping potential and
c)maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons
30 Draw a schematic arrangement of Geiger- Marsden experiment. Calculate the 3

distance of closest approach when a 7.7MeV α-particle approaches a gold nucleus
(Z = 79)
SECTION D
31 a) Derive an expression for the electric field ‘E’ due to a dipole of length ‘2a’ at a point, 5
distant ‘r’, from the centre of the dipole, on the axial line.
b) Draw a graph of E varies ‘r’ for r>>a.
c) Four equal point charges each 16µC are placed on the four corners of a square of
side 0.2m. Calculate the force on any one of the charges
OR
a) Using Gauss’ law, deduce the expression for the electric field due to a uniformly
charged spherical conducting shell of radius ‘R’ at a point i) outside and ii) inside the
shell.
b) Two charges of magnitude -2Q and +Q are located at point (a,o) and (4a, o)
respectively. Find the electric flux due to these charges through a sphere of radius 3a
with its centre at the origin.
32 a) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation by a combination of two thin 5
convex lenses in contact.
b) Obtain the expression for power of the combination in terms of focal length of the
lenses.
c)You are given the following three lenses. Which two lenses will you use as an eye
piece and as an objective to construct an astronomical telescope? Give reason.
Lenses Power (D) Aperture (cm)

L1 3 8
L2 6 1
L3 10 1
OR
a) Define a wave front.
b) Use Huygen’s geometrical construction to show the propagation of plane
wavefront from a rarer medium to a denser medium.
Hence derive Snell’s law of refraction.
c)What is the effect on the interference fringes in Young’s double slit experiment, if
the separation between the two slits is decreased? Justify your answer.
284
33 Define relaxation time of free electrons drifting in a conductor. How is it related to the 5
drift velocity of free electrons? Use this relation to deduce the expression for electrical
resistivity of the material.
What is the effect of temperature on the relaxation time of electrons in a metal?
OR
a) State the two Kirchhoff’s rules
b) Obtain the balancing condition in a Wheatstone bridge
c)Using Kirchohoff’s rules, calculate the values of I1, I2 and I3
SECTION E
34 Case Study: Read the following paragraph and answer the questions. 4
Two sources of light which continuously emit light waves of same frequency (or
wavelength) with a zero or constant phase difference between them, are called
coherent sources. Two independent sources of light cannot act as coherent sources,
they have to be derived from the same parent source.In Young's double slit
experiment, two identical narrow slits S1 and S2 are placed symmetrically with
respect to narrow slit S illuminated with monochromatic light. The interference
pattern is obtained on an observation screen placed at large distance D from S1 and
S2.
a) Mention any 2 conditions for sustained interference.
b) In the Young's double slit experiment using a monochromatic light of wavelength
λ, what is the path difference (in terms of an integer n) corresponding to any point
having half the peak intensity?
c)Calculate the ratio of the fringe width for bright and dark fringes in YDS
experiment.
285
OR
c)In Young's double slit experiment, while using a source of light of wavelength 4500
Å, the fringe width obtained is 0.4 cm. If the distance between the slits and the
screen is reduced to half, calculate the new fringe width.
Case Study: Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
35 A p-n junction is a single crystal of Ge or Si doped in such a manner that one half 4
portion of it acts as p-type semiconductor and other half functions as n-type
semiconductor. As soon as junction is formed, the holes from the p-region diffuse
into the n-region and electrons from -region diffuse into p-region. This results in the
development of potential barrier VB across the junction which opposes the further
diffusion of electrons and holes through the junction. The small region in the vicinity
of the junction which is depleted of free charge carriers and has only immobile ions
is called the depletion region.
a) Why is germanium preferred over silicon for making semiconductor devices?
b) Which type of biasing results in a very high resistance of a p n junction diode.
Draw a diagram showing this bias.
c)How does the width of the depletion region of a pn junction vary, if the reverse
bias applied to it decreases.
OR
(c)Name the 2 important processes involved in the formation of a p n junction.
286
ERNAKULAM REGION
(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and
Section E. All the sections are compulsory.
(3) Section A contains eighteen MCQ of 1 mark each, Section B contains seven questions
of two marks each, Section C contains five questions of three marks each, section D
contains three long questions of five marks each and Section E contains two case study
based questions of 4 marks each.
(4) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section
B, C, D and E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
(5) Use of calculators is not allowed.
Section A
Q.No Marks
1 If an object contains n1 protons and n2 electrons the net charge on the object is 1
i)(n1 + n2)e ii) (n1- n2)e iii)(n2-n1)e iv) Zero
2 When the separation between two identical charges is increased the electric potential 1
energy of the charges
i) increases ii) decreases
iii) remains same iv) may increase or may decrease
3 The current - voltage graph for a given metallic wire at two different temperatures T1 1
and T2 as shown in figure, then
i) Temperature T2 is greater than T1

ii) Temperature T1 is greater than T2
iii) Both T1 and T2 are equal
iv) Resistance of metallic wire is independent of temperature
287
4 An electron travelling west to east enters a chamber having a uniform magnetic field 1
in north to south, then the direction of deflection is
i) Upwards ii) Downwards iii) North iv)South
5 Two rings, each having equal radius R, are placed mutually perpendicular to each other and 1
each have common centre at the origin of coordinate system . If the current i is flowing
through each ring then the magnitude of the magnetic field at the common centre is
𝜇0 𝑖 𝜇0 𝑖 𝜇0 𝑖 𝜇0 𝑖
i) ii) iii) d)
√2𝑅 2𝑅 𝑅 4𝑅
6 Needles N1,N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic , paramagnetic and diamagnetic 1

substance respectively . A magnet is brought close to them will
i)Attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3
ii)Attract N1 strongly , but repel N2 and N3 weakly
iii)Attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
iv)Attract all these of them.
7 An iron cored coil is connected in series with an electric bulb with an AC source as shown in 1
figure. When iron piece is introduced into the coil, the brightness of the bulb will
i) increase ii) decrease

iii) remains unaffected iv) fluctuate
8 Which of the following rays has minimum frequency? 1
i) U V rays ii) X-rays iii) Microwaves iv) Infrared rays
9 A Current carrying wire is placed below a coil in its plane, with current flowing as 1
shown. If the current increases.
i)No current will be induced in the coil.

ii) An anti clock wise current will be induced in the coil.
iii) A clockwise current will be induced in the coil.
iv) The current induced in the coil will be first anti clockwise and then clockwise.
288
10 The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity in the interference pattern is 25:1 . Then 1
the ratio of amplitudes of the interfering beam is
i) 3:2 ii)5:1 iii)2:3 iv)5:3
11 A metal of work function 4eV is exposed to a radiation of wavelength 1400Å then the 1
maximum energy of photoelectrons
i) 2.43eV ii) 4.86eV iii) 5.24eV iv) 6.24eV

12 The energy of electron in the ground state of Hydrogen atom is -13.6eV. The kinetic 1
energy of the electron is the 4th orbit is
i)3.4eV ii)0.85eV iii) 1.7eV iv) 0.425eV
13 Which of the following is not correct about nuclear forces. 1
i) They are short range attractive forces
ii) They are independent of charge
iii) They change to repulsive at very close distance
iv) They obey inverse square law
14 In an LCR series circuit , the voltage across R,L and C at resonance are 40V,50V and 1
50V respectively. The applied voltage is
i) 50V ii) 40V iii) 140V iv) 90V
15 A slab of copper of thickness y is inserted in between the plates of parallel plate 1
capacitor. The separation between the plates is d. If y =d/4 , then the ratio of
capacitance of the capacitor after and before inserting the slab is
i) 4:3 ii) 1:2 iii) 1:1 iv) 3:2
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.

Assertion: When a diode is forward biased it acts like a conductor.

Reason: Width of depletion layer increases in forward bias.
given below.

Assertion: In Young’s double slit experiment interference pattern disappears when

one of the slits is closed.
Reason: Interference occurs due to superposition of light waves from two coherent
sources.
289
given below.
Assertion: Maximum photoelectric current in a photocell depends upon intensity of

incident light if the frequency of incident light is above threshold frequency.
Reason: Greater the frequency of incident light, greater will be the maximum velocity
of emitted electrons
Section B
19 Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is 2

(i) suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation.
(ii) used to kill germs in water purifier.
20 (a) The susceptibility of a magnetic materials is – 4.2×10–6. Name the type of 2
magnetic materials it represents.
(b) State any two properties of the above type of materials.
21 A difference of 2.3 eV separates two energy levels in an atom. What is the frequency 2
of radiation emitted when the atom makes transition from the upper level to the
lower level?
OR
Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 1 : 8. What is the ratio of their nuclear
radii?
22 A ray of light passes through an equilateral glass prism such that the angle of 2
incidence is equal to angle of emergence and each of these angles is equal to
3
of angle of prism. What is the value of angle of deviation?
4
23 Write two characteristic features to distinguish between n-type and p-type
semiconductors.
OR
Draw energy band diagrams of an n-type and p-type semiconductor at temperature
T > 0 K.
24 How does the fringe width of interference fringes change, when the whole apparatus 2
of Young’s experiment is kept in water (refractive index 4/3) ?
25 Two concentric metallic spherical shells of radii R and 2R are given charges Q1 and Q2 2
respectively. The surface charge densities on the outer surfaces of the shells are
equal. Determine the ratio Q1 : Q2.
Section C
26 Deduce an expression for magnetic dipole moment of an electron revolving around a 3

nucleus in a circular orbit. Indicate the direction of magnetic dipole moment. Use the
expression to derive the relation between the magnetic moment of an electron
moving in a circle and its related angular momentum.
290
27 A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small loop of area 2.0 cm2 placed inside 3
normal to the axis of the solenoid. The current carried by the solenoid changes
steadily from 2A to 4A in 0.1s, what is the induced emf in the loop while the current is
changing?
28 A series LCR circuit with R=20 Ω, L =1.5 H and C = 35 µF is connected to a variable 3
frequency 200V ac supply. When the frequency of the supply equals the natural
frequency of the circuit, what is the average power transferred to the circuit in one
complete cycle?
OR
Obtain the resonant frequency of a series LCR circuit with L = 2.0 H, C=32 µF and R =
10 Ω. What is the quality factor (Q) of this circuit?
29 (a) If the potential difference used to accelerate electrons is doubled, by what 3
factor does the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons change?
(b) Show on a graph the variation of the de Broglie wavelength (λ) associated
with an electron, with the square root of accelerating potential (V).
(c) An electron and a proton have the same kinetic energy. Which one of the
two has the larger de Broglie wavelength and why?
OR
(a) Draw a graph showing variation of photocurrent with anode potential for a
particular intensity of incident radiation. Mark saturation current and
stopping potential.
(b) How much would stopping potential for a given photosensitive surface go
up if the frequency of the incident radiations were to be increased from
4×1015 Hz to 8 × 1015 Hz?
30 A photon emitted during the de-excitation of electron from a state n to the first 3
excited state in a hydrogen atom, irradiates a metallic cathode of work function 2 eV,
in a photo cell, with a stopping potential of 0.55 V. Obtain the value of the quantum
number of the state n.
Section D
31 (a) A point charge of 2.0 nC is at the centre of a cubic gaussian surface 9.0 cm 5
on edge. What is the net electric flux through the surface?
(b) Two large, thin metal plates are parallel and close to each other. On their
inner faces, the plates have surface charge densities of opposite signs and of
magnitude 17.0 × 10–22 C/m2 . Calculate the electric field strength E:
(i) in the outer region of the first plate
(ii) in the outer region of the second plate
(iii) between the plates
OR
(a) A regular hexagon of side 10 cm has a charge 5 μC at each of its vertices.
Calculate the potential at the centre of the hexagon.
(b) Derive an expression for the electric potential at an axial point due to an
electric dipole of dipole length 2a.
(c) What is the electric potential at any point on the equatorial line of an electric
dipole?
291
32 (a) Plot a graph showing the variation of resistance of a conducting wire as a 5
function of its radius, keeping the length of the wire and its temperature as
constant.
(b) Prove that the current density of a metallic conductor is directly proportional
to the drift speed of electrons.
(c) The number density of free electrons in a copper conductor is 8.5×1028m3 .
How long does an electron take to drift from one end of a wire 3 m long, to its
another end? The area of cross section of the wire is 2.0 ×10–6 m2 and it is
carrying a current of 3.0 A.
OR
(a) Use Kirchhoff ’s laws to determine the value of current I1 in the given
electrical circuit.
(b) Draw a circuit diagram showing balancing of Wheatstone bridge. Use

Kirchhoff ’s laws to obtain the balance condition in terms of the resistances of
four arms of Wheatstone Bridge.
33 (a) The focal length of an equiconvex lens is equal to the radius of curvature of 5
either face. What is the value of refractive index of the material of the lens?
(b) Draw the diagrams to show the behaviour of plane wavefronts as they
(i) pass through a thin prism
(ii) pass through a thin convex lens
(iii) reflect by a concave mirror.
OR
(a) Draw the intensity distribution for
(i) the fringes produced in interference
(ii) the diffraction bands produced due to single slit.
(b) Draw a ray diagram for formation of image of a point object by a thin double
convex lens having radii of curvature R1 and R2. Hence, derive lens maker’s
formula for a double convex lens.
292
Section E
34 Case Study: 4
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
When light moves from one medium to another, part of the light gets refracted and
the remaining part of it will get reflected back into the same medium. Under certain
conditions, the whole of the light can be made to be reflected back into the same
medium. This phenomenon is called total internal reflection.
(i) Define critical angle for a pair of media.
(ii) Write the relation between the refractive index and critical angle for a given
pair of optical media.
(iii) What are the two essential conditions required for total internal reflection
to take place?
OR
(iii) Write any two advantages of totally reflecting prisms over plane mirrors.
35 Case Study: 4
A P-N junction is an interface or a boundary between two semiconductor material
types, namely the p-type and the n-type, inside a semiconductor. In a semiconductor,
the P-N junction is created by the method of doping. p–n junctions are elementary
"building blocks" of semiconductor electronic devices such as diodes, transistors,
solar cells, LEDs, and integrated circuits; they are the active sites where the electronic
action of the device takes place.
(i) For the same order of doping, why does n-type semiconductor exhibit larger
conductivity than p-type semiconductor?
(ii) Give one application of P-N junction diodes.
(iii) Why does a potential barrier set up across the P-N junction?
OR
(iii) What are the two types of biasing in P-N junction diode? Draw the
respective diagrams.
293
ERNAKULAM REGION
1. There are 35 questions in all. All questions are compulsory

2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
All the sections are compulsory
3. Section A contains eighteen MCQ of 1 mark each, Section B contains seven questions of two
marks each, Section C contains five questions of three marks each, section D contains three
long question of five marks each and Section E contains two case study-based questions of 4
marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section B, C, D
and E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
5. Use of calculators is not allowed
SECTION A
Q Question Marks
No.
1. Figure shows electric field lines in which an electric dipole P is placed as shown.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The dipole will not experience any force.

b. The dipole will experience a force towards right.
c. The dipole will experience a force towards left
d. The dipole will experience a force upwards.
2. Two equal and opposite charges (+q and -q) are situated at a distance x from each
other. The value of potential at very far point will depend upon
a. Only on q 1
b. Only on x
c. On q.x
𝑞
d. On 𝑥
3. The temperature coefficient of resistance of an alloy used for making resistors is
a. Small and positive
b. Small and negative 1
c. Large and positive
d. Large and negative
294
4. A current l flows through a long straight conductor which is bent into a circular loop of
radius R in the middle as shown in the figure
The magnitude of the net magnetic field at point 0 will be

a. Zero
𝜇0𝐼
b. 2𝑅 (1+𝜋)
𝜇˳𝐼
c. 4𝜋𝑅
𝜇˳𝐼 1
d. (1-𝜋)
2𝑅
5. Two long conductors, separated by a distance d carry currents l1 and l2 in the same
direction. They exert a force F on each other. Now, the current in one of them is
increased to two times and its direction is reversed. The distance is also increase to 3d.
The new value of the force between them is
𝐹
a. -3 1
𝐹
b. 3
2𝐹
c. 3
−2𝐹
d. 3
In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is
a. Virtual, erect and magnified
6. b. Real, erect and magnified 1
c. Real, inverted and magnified
d. Virtual erect and reduced
7. An indictor ‘L’ of reactance XL, is connected in series with a bulb ‘B’ to an a.c.
When the number of turns of the inductor is reduced, the brightness of the bulb will
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remain unaffected
d. fluctuate
8. The magnetic field in a travelling electro-magnetic wave has a peak value of 20 nT.
The peak value of electric field strength is
a. 3 V/m
1
b. 6 V/m
c. 9 V/m
d. 12 V/m
295
9. A square loop of wire, side length 10 cm is placed at angel of 45° with a magnetic field
that changes uniformly form 0.1 T to zero in 0.7s. The induced current in the loop (its
resistance is 1Ω is
a. 1.0 mA 1
b. 2.5 mA
c. 3.5 mA
d. 4.0 mA
10. In an AC circuit the emf (e) and the current (i) at any instant are given respectively by,
e= Eo sin ωt and i = lo sin (ωt -ɸ) The average power in the circuit over one cycle of AC
is
𝐸ₒ𝑙ₒ
a. 1
2
𝐸ₒ𝑙ₒ
b. sin ɸ
2
𝐸ₒ𝑙ₒ
c. 2 cos ɸ
d. Eₒlₒ
11. A parallel plate capacitor with oil between the plates (dielectric constant of oil, K=2)
has a capacitance C. If the oil is removed, then capacitance of the capacitor becomes
a. 4C
1
b. 2C
c. C/2
d. Zero
12. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. Photographic plates are sensitive to infrared rays
b. Infra-red rays are invisible but can cast shadows like visible light 1
c. Photographic plates are sensitive to ultraviolet rays
d. Infrared photons have more energy than photons of visible light.
13. If the electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from third orbit to second orbit to second
orbit, the wavelength of the emitted radiation in terms of Rydberg constant is
6
a. 5𝑅
36 1
b.
5𝑅
64
c. 7 𝑅
d. None of the above
14. Mp denotes the mass of a proton and Mn that of a neutron. A given nucleus of binding
energy B, contains Z protons and N neutrons. The mass M(N, Z) of the nucleus is by
(where c is the velocity of light)
a. M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – Bc2 1
b. M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + Bc2
c. M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2
d. M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + B/c2
15. The wave front of distant source of unknown shape is approximately
a. Spherical
b. Cylindrical 1
c. Elliptical
d. Plane
296
16. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the 1 other labelled Reason
given below.
1
Assertion: Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.
Reason: The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light.
given below.
c) A is true but R is false 1
Assertion: The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature
Reason: The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with larger amplitudes at higher
temperature thereby increasing its resistivity.
given below.
1
Assertion: it is not possible to have interference between the waves produced by two
violins
Reason: For interference of two waves the phase difference between the waves must
remain constant.
SECTION B
Name the Constituent radiation of electromagnetic spectrum which
a. Is used in satellite communication
19 b. Is used for studying crystal structure
c. Is similar to the radiations emitted during decay of radioactive nuclei 2
d. Has a wavelength range between 390 nm and 770 n.
Draw magnetic field lines when a (i) diamagnetic (ii) paramagnetic substance is placed
in an external magnetic field.
20 2
OR
297
The susceptibility of a magnetic material is -2.6 x10-5. Identify the type of magnetic
material and state its two properties.
What changes in the focal length of a (i) concave mirror and (ii) convex lens occur,
21 when the incident violet light on them is replaced with red light? 2
The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and
22 2
potential energies of the electron in his state?
In the following diagrams, indicate which of the diodes are forward biased and which
are reverse biased.
23 OR
A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band gap of 2.8 eV. Can it
detect a wavelength of 6000 nm?
2
In Young’s experiment, the width of the fringes obtained with light of wavelength
24 6000 Å is 2.0 mm. Calculate the fringe width if the entire apparatus is immersed in a 2
liquid medium of refractive index 1.33.
A uniformly charged conducting sphere of diameter 2.5 m has a surface charge density
100 µC/m2 calculate
25 2
1. Charge on the sphere and
2. Total electric flux passing through the sphere
SECTION C
26
Draw labeled diagram of a moving coil galvanometer and explain its working. What is 3
the function of radial magnetic field inside the coil?
27 A 0.5m long metal rod PQ completes the circuit as shown in fig: The area of the circuit 3
is perpendicular to the magnetic field of flux density 0. 15T.If the resistance of the total
circuit is 3ᾩ, calculate the force needed to move the rod in the direction as indicated
with a constant sped of 2ms-1.
298
28 An a.c. source generating a voltage ε = ε0 sin ωt is applied to a series LCR circuit. 3
Derive the expression for the average power dissipated over a cycle. Under what
condition is (i ) no power dissipated even though the current flows through the circuit
(ii)maximum power dissipated in the circuit .
OR
An ac voltage V = V0 sin ωt is applied across a series LCR circuit. Obtain an
expression for the impedance of the circuit. Obtain an expression for the resonant
frequency.
29 The graphs show the variation of the stopping potential V0 with the frequency (υ) of the 3
incident radiation for two different photosensitive materials M1and M2..(i) What are the
values of work functions for M1 and M2..(ii) The values of stopping potential for M1and
M2 for a frequency of incident radiations are V1 and V2 respectively. Show that the
𝑉1−𝑉2
slope of the lines =
𝜐01−𝜐02
OR
(a)Find the ratio of De-Broglie wavelength associated with (i) protons through the
potential difference of 128V (ii) alpha particles accelerated through a potential
difference of 64V
(b) What is the rest mass of a photon?
30 The energy levels of an atom are as shown in figure. (a) Which one of these transitions 3
will result in the emission of photon of wave length 275nm? (b) Which transition
corresponds to emission of radiation of maximum wave length?
SECTION D
31 a) What work must be done in carrying an alpha particle across a 5
potential difference of 1volit?

(b) A uniform field E exists between two charged plates as shown in fig. What would
be the work done in moving a charge q along the closed rectangular path ABCDA?
299
(c) A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a potential difference V by a d.c source.
The battery remains connected and a dielectric slab of thickness d and dielectric
constant K is introduced between the plates of the capacitor. How the following will
change: (i) Electric field between the plates (ii) capacitance and(iii) charge on the plates
of the capacitor
OR
(a) S1 and S2 are two parallel concentric spheres enclosing charges Q and 2Q as shown
in fig.
(i) What is the ratio of the electric flux through S1 and S2?
(ii) How will the electric flux through the sphere S1 change, if a medium of dielectric
constant 5 is introduced in the space inside S1 in place of air?
(b) Obtain the expression for the electric field intensity due to a uniformly charged
infinite plane sheet
32 (a) Define drift speed? 5
(b) The electron drift speed is estimated to be very low. How there is current
established almost instant a circuit is closed?
(c) Four identical cells each of emf 2V are joined in parallel providing supply of
current to external circuit consisting of two 15-ohm resistors joined in parallel.
The terminal voltage of the cells as read by an ideal voltmeter is 1.6v. Calculate
the internal resistance id each cell
300
OR
(a)Draw the circuit diagram showing a Wheatstone’s bridge

Use Kirchhoff’s laws to obtain the balanced condition in
terms of the values of the four resistors
(b) In the network shown P=2Ω, Q=2Ω, R=3Ω, S=7Ω C=3µF and E=6V.
(i) Find the charge and energy stored in the capacitor.
(ii) For what value of Q, the charge on the capacitor will be zero?
33 (a)What is the effect on the interference fringes in a Youngs doble slit experiment due 5
to each of the following conditions? (i) screen is moved away from the plane of the slits
(ii) The monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of shorter
wavelength
(b)A ray of light is incident normally on one of the faces of a prism of apex angle 30°
and refractive index √2. Find the angle of deviation for the ray of light.
OR
1. In a single slit diffraction pattern, how is the width of the central bright maximum
changed when,
a) the slit width is decreased?
301
b) the distance between the slit and the screen is increased
2. AB and CD are two slabs. The medium between the slabs has refractive index 2. Find
the minimum angle of incidence at Q, so that the ray is totally reflected by both the slabs
a)
SECTION E
34 Case Study:1 4

If light travels from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, then at the interface,
the light is reflected back into the denser medium and partly refracted to the rarer
medium. This reflection is called internal reflection. As the angle of incidence i
increases, the angle of refraction r also increases. At a certain value of I, the angle of
refraction becomes 90°.This angle of incidence is known as critical angle. If the angle
of incidence exceeds critical angle, the incident ray is totally reflected to the denser
medium. This phenomenon is called total internal reflection. Brilliance of diamond,
totally reflecting prisms and mirage are some of the applications of total internal
reflection.
(i) What are the conditions for producing total internal reflection?
(ii) What is the maximum possible angle of refraction?
(iii Light takes t1 sec to travel a distance x in vacuum and the same light takes t2 sec
to travel 10x cm in a medium. Critical angle for corresponding medium will be
−1  10t 2  −1  t  −1  10t  −1  t 
(a) sin   (b) sin  2  (c) sin  1  (d) sin  1 
 t1   10t 1   t2   10t 2 
OR
(iii) A fish looking through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular
horizon. If the refractive index of water is 4/3 and fish is 12 cm below the
surface, then the radius of the circle in cm is
(a) 12 × 3 × 5 (b) 4  5 (c) 12  3  7 (d) 12 3 / 7
35 Case study: 2 4
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions
A P-N junction is the key to all semiconductor devices. When such a junction diode is
made, a depletion layer is formed consisting of immobile ions devoid of their electrons
or holes. This is responsible for a junction potential barrier. By changing the external
applied voltage, junction barrier can be changed. In forward bias, the barrier is
302
decreased while the barrier increases in reverse bias. Hence, forward bias current is
more while it is very small in reverse biased junction diode.
(i). How the reverse current is formed in a PN junction diode?

(ii) Name the two processes, by which PN junction is formed?
(iii) The diodes in the circuit have a forward resistance of 50 Ohm and infinite
backward resistance. Find the current through the 100ohm resistance?
OR
(iii) What will happen to the intrinsic semiconductor, when placed at absolute zero?
303
ERNAKULAM REGION
(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and
Section E. All the sections are compulsory.
(3) Section A contains eighteen MCQ of 1 mark each, Section B contains seven questions
of two marks each, Section C contains five questions of three marks each, section D
contains three long questions of five marks each and Section E contains two case study
based questions of 4 marks each.
(4) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section
B, C, D and E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
5. Use of calculators is not allowed.
SECTION A
1. A solid spherical conductor has charge +Q and radius R. It is surrounded by a solid spherical shell
with charge -Q, inner radius 2R, and outer radius 3R. Which of the following statements is true?
(i)The electric potential has a maximum magnitude at C and the electric field
has a maximum magnitude at A
(ii) The electric potential has a maximum magnitude at D and the electric field
has a maximum magnitude at B.
(iii) The electric potential at A is zero and the electric field has a maximum
magnitude at D.
(iv). Both the electric potential and electric field achieve a maximum
magnitude at B.
2, A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 μF capacitor and 40𝛺 resistor is connected to 230
V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to
the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be:
(1) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s (2) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
(3) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s (4) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
304
3. Drift velocity of the free electrons in a conducting wire carrying a current i is v. If in a wire of the
same metal, but of double the radius, the current be 2i then the drift velocity of the
electrons will be
(a) v/4 (b) v/2 (c) v (d) 4v
4. An electromagnetic wave of frequency = 3 MHz passes from vacuum into dielectric medium with
permittivity Er =4 then:
(a) Wavelength is doubled and the frequency remains unchanged
(b) Wavelength is doubled and the frequency become half
(c) Wavelength is halved and the frequency remains unchanged
(d) Wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
5. Velocity of light in a liquid is 1.5 X 108 m and in air, it is 3 X 108 m/s. If a ray of light passes from
liquid into the air, the value of critical angle is
A) 450 B) 350 C)300 D) 250
6. The power factor of a series LCR circuit at resonance will be
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/ √2
7. In the  particle scattering experiment, the shape of the trajectory of the −particles depend upon :−
(a) only on impact parameter
(b) only on the source of −particles.
(c) both impact parameter and source of −particles
(d) impact parameter and the screen material of the detector.
8. Which of the following statements is incorrect for the depletion region of a diode?
(a) There the mobile charges exist.
(b) Equal number of holes and electrons exist, making the region neutral.
(c) Recombination of holes and electrons has taken place.
(d) None of these
9. Find the ratio of maximum wavelength of minimum wavelength for the lines of Balmer series in hydrogen
spectrum.
A) 5/9 B) 9/5 C) 5/36 D) ¼

10. In figure given, assuming the diodes to be ideal.
(a) D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased and hence current flows from A to B.
(b) D2 is forward biased and D1 is reverse biased and hence no current flows from B to A and vice
versa.
(c)D1 and D2 are both forward biased and hence current flows from A toB.
(d) D1 and D2 are both reverse biased and hence no current flows from A to B and vice versa.
11. A charge q is accelerated through a potential difference V. It is then passed normally through a uniform
magnetic field, where it moves in a circle of radius r. The potential difference required to move it in a circle of
radius 2r is?
A) 1V B) 4V C) 3V D) 2V
12. A convex lens is made of a material having refractive index 1.2 Both the surfaces of the lens are
convex. If it is dipped into water (μ = 1.33), it will behave like
(a) a convergent lens (b) a divergent lens
(c) a rectangular slab (d) a prism.
305
13. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery as shown in figure. Consider two situations
(i) key K is kept closed and plates of capacitors are moved apart using insulating handle
(ii) key k is opened and plates of capacitors are moved apart using insulating handle.
Which of the following statement is correct?
A) In (i) Q remains same but C changes

B) In (ii) V remain same but C changes
C) In (i) V remain same but Q changes
D) In (ii) both Q and V changes
14. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is situated near a long straight wire such that the
wire is parallel to the one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current I
is established in wire as shown in figure, the loop will
(a) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire.

(b) Move away from the wire or towards right.
(c) Move towards the wire or towards Left.
(d) Remain stationary.
15. A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper is placed in a uniform electric field E(volt/m)
acting along the same plane at an angle with the horizontal side of the square as shown in figure. The electric flux
linked to the surface,in units of volt−m, is
A) EL2
B) ZERO
C) EL2COSθ
D) EL2SINθ
306
ASSERTION REASON
16. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select
the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion (A): Total induced emf in a loop is not confined to any particular point but it is distributed
around the loop in direct proportion to the resistances of its parts.
Reason (R): In general when there is no change in magnetic flux, no induced emf is produced.
Assertion (A): When a pure semiconductor is doped with a pentavalent impurity, the number of
conduction electrons is increased while the number of holes is decreased.
Reason (R): Some of the holes get recombined with the conduction electrons as the concentration of
the conduction electrons is increased
Assertion (A): The voltage sensitivity may not necessarily increase on increasing the current
sensitivity.
Reason (R): Current sensitivity increases on increasing the number of turns of the coil
SECTION B
19. A square loop of side 20 cm carrying current of 1A is kept near an infinite long
straight wire carrying a current of 2A in the same plane as shown in the figure.
Calculate the magnitude and direction of the net force exerted on the loop due to the current carrying
conductor.
307
20. A lamp is connected in series with a capacitor. Predict your observations for dc and ac connections.
What happens in each case if the capacitance of the capacitor is reduced?
21. Write down the expression for the displacement current. The charging current of a capacitor in a
circuit is 0.25 mA, find the displacement current n the circuit?
22. Define wave front of a travelling wave. Which type of wave front is there for a source at infinity?
OR
Find the intensity at a point on a screen in Young’s double slit experiment where the interfering
waves of equal intensity have a path difference of (i) /4, and (ii) 3.
23. Write two main observations of photoelectric effect experiment which could only be explained by
Einstein’s photoelectric equation.
24. A hydrogen atom is in its third excited state. How many spectral lines can be emitted by it before
coming to the ground state ? Show these transitions in the energy level diagram.
25. Define the' distance of closest approach. An a-particle of kinetic energy 'K' is
bombarded on a thin gold foil. The distance of the closest approach is 'r'. What will be
the distance of closest approach for an a-particle of double the kinetic energy ?
OR
Write two important limitations of Rutherford nuclear model of the atom.
SECTION C
26. Two parallel plate capacitors X and Y have the same area of plates and same
separation between them. X has air between the plates while Y contains a dielectric
medium of ɛr = 4.
(i) Calculate capacitance of each capacitor if equivalent capacitance of the combination is 4 μF.
(ii) Calculate the potential difference between the plates of X and Y.
(iii) Estimate the ratio of electrostatic energy stored in X and Y.
27. Derive the expression for the magnetic energy stored in a solenoid in terms of
magnetic field B, area A and length l of the solenoid carrying a steady current I.
How does this magnetic energy per unit volume compare with the electrostatic energy
density stored in a parallel plate capacitor?
OR
Figure shows planar loops of different shapes moving out of or into a region of a magnetic field
which is directed normal to the plane of the loop away from the reader. Determine the direction of
induced current in each loop using Lenz’s law.
308
28. Define the term ‘critical angle’ for a pair of media. A point source of monochromatic light ‘S’ is kept
at the centre of the bottom of a cylinder of radius 15.0 cm. The cylinder contains water (refractive
index 4/3) to a height of 7.0 cm. Draw the ray diagram and calculate the area of water surface
through which the light emerges in air.
29. Derive an expression for the fringe width of interference pattern obtained in Young’s double slit
experiment.
30. Draw a graph showing the variation of de Broglie wavelength of a particle of charge q
and mass m with the accelerating potential. Proton and deuteron have the same de
Broglie wavelengths. Explain which has more kinetic energy.
OR
The work function of caesium is 2.14 eV. Find
(a) the threshold frequency for caesium,
(b) the wavelength of the incident light if the photocurrent is brought to zero by a stopping potential
of 0.60 V.
SECTION D
31 (a) Two thin lenses are placed coaxially in contact. Obtain the expression for the focal length of this
combination in terms of the focal lengths of the two lenses.
(b) . A glass convex lens has a power of + 10 D +10D . When this lens is totally immersed in a
liquid, it acts as a concave lens of focal length 50 c m 50cm. Calculate the refractive index of the
liquid. Given . a n g = 1.5
OR
(i) Plot a graph to show variation of the angle of deviation as a function of angle of incidence for
light passing through a prism. Derive an expression for refractive index of the prism in terms of
angle of minimum deviation and angle of prism.
(ii) A ray of light incident normally on one face of a right isosceles prism is totally reflected as
shown in fig. What must be the minimum value of refractive index of glass ? Give relevant
calculations.
309
32. (i) Define the term drift velocity.
(ii) On the basis of electron drift, derive an expression for resistivity of a conductor in terms of
number density of free electrons and relaxation time. On what factors does resistivity of a conductor
depend ?
(iii) Why alloys like constantan and manganin are used for making standard resistors ?
OR
(i) State kirchhoff’s loop rule. (2)
(ii) Determine the current in each branch of the network shown in figure: (3)
33. (a) Define torque acting on a dipole of dipole moment P placed in a uniform electric field Express it
in the vector form and point out the direction along which torque acts.
(b) What happens if the field is non-uniform ?
(c) What would happen if the external field E is increasing (i) parallel to P and (ii) anti-parallel to P
?
(d) An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of intensity 3 × 104 N ⁄
C. It experiences a torque of 5 Nm. Calculate the charge on the dipole if the dipole length is
5 cm
OR
Find the electric field intensity due to an infinetly thin uniformly charged plane sheet of
surface charge density σ using Gauss’s theorem. A charge +Q is located somewhere inside a vertical
cone such that the depth of the charge from the free surface of the cone is H. It is formed that the flux
associated with the cone with thw curved surface is 3Q/5ϵ0
If the charge is raised vertically through a height 2H then what is the flux through the curved surface.
310
SECTION E
34. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions
P-N junction diode : P-N junction is a semiconductor diode. It is obtained by bringing p-

type semiconductor in close contact with n- type semiconductor. A thin layer is developed at the p- n
junction which is devoid of any charge carrier but has immobile ions. It is called depletion layer. At
the junction a potential barrier appears, which does not allow the movement of majority charge
carriers across the junction in the absence of any biasing of the junction. p-n junction offers low
resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse biased.
(i) Can we take one slab of p-type semiconductor and physically join it to
another n-type semiconductor to get p-n junction? 1 mark
(ii) Is p-type semiconductor a charged material? 1mark
(iii) Draw the energy level diagram shows the variation of Barrier potential
under forward bias and reverse bias.
OR
Draw circuit diagram of p-n junction diode under forward bias and reverse bias.
2marks
35. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions
Magnetic materials: All substances exhibit some type of magnetism. Magnetic materials are
classified according to their bulk susceptibility. Ferromagnetism is responsible for most of the effects
of magnetism encountered in everyday life, but there are actually several types of
magnetism. Paramagnetic substances, such as aluminum and oxygen, are weakly attracted to an
applied magnetic field; diamagnetic substances, such as copper and carbon, are weakly repelled;
while antiferromagnetic materials, such as chromium and spin glasses, have a more complex
relationship with a magnetic field.
(i) The susceptibility of a magnetic material is −0.085. Identify the type of magnetic material .
1mark
(ii) From the figure, identify the material suitable for making permanent magnet.
1 mark
(iii) Why soft iron is preferred for making the core of electromagnet?
OR
Suggest a method to move a device in Physics Lab without affecting magnetic field.
2marks
311
ERNAKULAM REGION
1) There are 35 questions in all.All questions are compulsory.
2) There are five sections Section A, Section B, Section C,Section D and Section E.
3) Section A contains eighteen MCQ of 1mark each, Section B contains 7 questions of 2marks each,
Section C contains five questions of 3marks each, Section D contains three long answer type
questions of 5marks each and Section E contains two case study questions of 4marks each.
SECTION A
1. If a charge ‘q ‘is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q such that 1
the system is in equilibrium,the the value of ‘q ‘ is
i) Q/2 ii) -Q/2 iii) Q/4 iv) -Q/4
2. A cube of metal is given a positive charge Q. For the above system, which of the 1
following statement is true?
i)Electric potential at the surface of the cube is zero ii) electric potential within the
cube is zero iii) Electric field is normal to the surface of the cube iv) Electric field
varies within the cube
3. A piece of copper and another of Germanium are cooled from room temperature 1
77K.The resistance of
i)copper decreases and Ge increases ii) copper increases and Ge decreases iii) each of
them increases iv) each of them decreases
4. Two identical circular wires P and Q each of radius Rand carrying current I are kept 1
in perpendicular planes such that they have a common centre. The magnitude of the
net magnetic field at the common centre of the two coils is
𝜇 𝐼 𝜇 𝐼
i) 2𝑅𝑜 ii) 𝜇𝑜 𝐼𝑅 iii) zero 𝑜
iv) √2𝑅
5. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a constant current i.It is placed in a 1
uniform magnetic field Bo such that Bo is perpendicular to the plane of the loop.The
magnetic force on the loop is
i) Ir Bo ii) 2πirBo iii) πirBo iv) zero
6. The magnetic susceptibility of a material of a rod is 499,permeability of vacuum is 4π 1
x 10-7 H/m.Absolute permeability of the material of the rod in H/m is
i) π x 10-4 ii) 2π x 10-4 iii) 3π x 10-4 iv) 4π x 10-4
312
7. 1
In the circuit diagram shown ,voltage across the capacitor is

i)in phase with the source voltage ii) leads the source voltage by 90o iii) leads the
source voltage by an angle between 0o and 90o iv) lags behind the source voltage by
an angle between 0o and 90o
8. Pick out the statement which is not true 1
i) Sun is a natural source of UV radiations
ii) UV radiations have wavelength extending from 200nm to 400nm
iii) Shortest wavelength UV radiations are beneficial to living tissues while
longer wavelength UV rays are harmful.
iv) UV radiations are used for sterilisation of water.
9. The flux linked with a coil at any instant ‘t’ is given by 1
φ=10t2-50t+250
The induced emf at t=3s is
i) 10V ii) 190V iii) -190V iv) -10V
10. Two coherent sorces of different intensities send waves which interfere.The ratio of 1
maximum intensity to minimum intensity is 25.The intensities of the sources are in
the ratio
i) 25:1 ii) 5:1 iii) 9:4 iv) 625:1
o
11. Light of wavelength 200A falls on a metallic surfaceof work function4.21eV.The 1
stopping potential is
i) 2V ii) 4V iii) 9V iv) 0V
12. In the Bohr model of Hydrogen atom,the lowest orbit corresponds to 1

i) Infinite energy ii) the maximum energy iii) the
minimum energy iv) zero energy
13. Which of the following statement is correct? 1

i) The current in a photo cell increases with increasing frequency of light ii) The
photo current is proportional to applied voltage iii)The stopping
potential increases with increasing intensity of incident light
iv) The photo current increases with increasing intensity of incident light
14. In the circuit the phase difference between the p.d across C and L is 1
i) π/2 ii) zero iii) π/4 iv) π

15. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5cm is charged such that potential on its surface is 1
10V.The potential at a distance of2cm from the centre of the sphere is :
i) zero ii) 10 V iii) 4V iv) 10/3 V
For Q16 to 18 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a),
(b), (c) and (d) as given below.
16. ASSERTION(A): Convex mirrors cannot form real images 1
313
REASON(R): Convex mirror converges the parallel rays that are incident on it.
17. ASSERTION(A): When the Temperature of a semiconductor is increased, the its 1
resistance decreases
REASON(R): The energy gap between valence band and conduction band is very
small for semiconductors
18. ASSERTION(A): Photo electric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light 1
REASON(R): The number of photoelectron s is proportional to the frequency of
incident light
SECTION B
19. a. Write the following radiations in ascending order in respect of their frequencies. 2
X-ray, microwaves, UV Rays, radio waves, Gama rays
b. Name the em wave used in radar.
20. The susceptibility of a magnetic material is 2.6x10 -5 . Identify the type of magnetic 2
material and state its two properties.
21. The radius of the first electron of the hydrogen atom is 5.3x10 -11 m. What is the 2
radius of the second orbit.
(OR)
The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6eV. What are the kinetic energy
and potential energy of the electron in this state.
22. 22. Double convex lenses are to be manufactured from a glass of refractive index 2
1.55, with both faces of the same radius of curvature. What is the radius of curvature
required if the focal length is to be 20cm.
23. In a single slit detraction experiment, first minimum of red light (660nm) coincides 2
with the first maximum of some other wavelength λ. Calculate λ.
24. A spherical conducting shell of inner radius r1 and outer radius r2 has charge Q. 2
a) A charge q is placed at the centre of the shell. What is the surface charge density on
the inner and outer surfaces of the shell?
25. a) Two plane sheets of charge having charge densities σ and - σ are parallel to each 2
other. What will be the magnitude of electric field at a point between the plates? b)
State Gauss’s law in electrostatics.
SECTION C
26. A circular coil of radius ‘R’ carries a current ‘I’ .Obtain the expression for the 3
magnetic field due to this coil at a point on the axis of the loop using Biot-Savart’s
law.
27. Define mutual inductance between a pair of coils. Derive an expression for the mutual 3
inductance of two long coaxial solenoids of same length wound one over the other.
28. 3
The above fig. shows how the reactance of an inductor varies with frequency
1. Calculate the value of the inductance of the inductor using the information
given in the graph
2. If this inductor is connected in series to a resistor of 8Ω, find what would be
the impedance at 300Hz
314
OR
An a.c. source generating a voltage ε = ε0 sin ωt is connected to a capacitor of
capacitance C. Find the expression for the current I flowing through it. Plot a
graph of ε and I versus t to show that the current is ahead of the voltage by
π/2.
29. The graph shown in fig 1 and 2 are for the phenomenon of photoelectric effect 3
1)
2)
i) Identify which of the characteristics of(intensity/frequency) incident light,

is being kept constant in each case.
ii) A metal has a work function of2eV and is illuminated by monochromatic
light of wavelength500nm (a) calculate the threshold wavelength (b) the
stopping potential
OR
(1) Sketch the graph showing the variation of stopping potential with frequency of
incident radiation for two photo sensitive materials A and B having threshold
frequencies νA >νB.
(2) In which case is the stopping potential more and why?
(3) Does the slope of the graph depend on the nature of the material? Explain.
30. A hydrogen atom initially in the ground state absorbs a photon which excites it to the 3
n=4 level. Determine the wavelength and frequency of photon.
SECTION D
31. (a) What is electrostatic shielding? Write its two applications 5
(b) An electric field E0=3x104V/m is established between the plates,0.05m apart, of a
parallel plate capacitor. After removing the charging battery, an uncharged metal
plate of thickness t=0.01mm is inserted between the plates. Find the p.d
(i) before and (ii) after the introduction of the metal plate (iii) what would be the p.d
if a dielectric slab(K=2) were introduced in place of metal plate?
OR
(a) Two point charges 20x10 C and -4x10-6 C are separated by a distance of
-6
50cm in air (i) Find the point on the line joining the charges, where the
315
electric potential is zero (ii) Find the electrostatic potential energy of the
system.
(b) Obtain the expression for electric field at a point near a thin infinite plane
sheet of charge density σ Cm-2
32. (a) Define relaxation time of the free electrons drifting in a conductor. Write the 5
relation between drift velocity of free electrons and relaxation time.
(b) Derive the condition for balance in a Wheatstone bridge.
OR
(a) (i)What is internal resistance of a cell. Write two factors on which it depends.
(ii) A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is connected to a resistance
R,a current I flows through it.Derive the relation between E,I, r and R
(b) Two cells of e.m.fs and internal resistances E1,r1 and E2,r2 are connected in
series. Obtain expressions for the equivalent emf and resistance of the
combination.
33. (a) State Huygens principle. Define the term wavefront. 5
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the working of a compound microscope. Derive
an expression for its magnifying power.
OR
(a) Write two points of difference between interference pattern and diffraction
pattern.
(b) Draw the ray diagram to show the working of a refracting telescope. Derive an
expression for its magnifying power (normal adjustment).
SECTION E
34. Case study 4
The total internal reflection of the light is used in polishing diamonds to create a
sparkling brilliance by polishing the diamond with specific cuts, it is adjusted so that
most of the light rays approaching the surface are incident with an angle of incidence
greater than critical angle. Hence, they suffer multiple reflections and this gives the
diamond a sparkling brilliance.
(i) Light cannot easily escape a diamond without multiple internal

reflections. What is the reason?
(ii) The critical angle for diamond is 24.4o. What is its refractive index?
(iii) Write two conditions for total internal reflection
OR
Name a device used in communication which is based on the principle of total
internal reflection. Write one more application of it.
35 Case study 4
Semiconductors may exist as elemental semiconductors and also compound
semiconductors. Si and Ge are elemental semiconductor and CdS, GaAs, CdSe,
anthracene, poly pyrrole etc. are the compound semiconductors. Each electron in an
atom has different energy level and such different energy levels continuing forms the
band of energy called as energy bands. Those energy band which has energy levels of
Valence electrons is called as Valence band. And the energy band which is present
above the Valence band is conduction band. On the basis of energy bands materials are
316
also defined as metals, semiconductors and insulators. In case of metals, conduction
band and Valence band overlaps with each other due to which electrons are easily
available for conduction. In case of insulators, there is some energy gap between
conduction band and Valence band due to which no free electrons are easily available
for conduction. In semiconductors, there is a small energy gap between conduction
band and Valence band and if we give some external energy then electron from Valence
band goes to conduction band due to which conduction will be possible. These
semiconductors are classified as intrinsic semiconductors and extrinsic semiconductors
also. Intrinsic semiconductors are those semiconductors which exist in pure form. The
semiconductors doped with some impurity in order to increase its conductivity are
called extrinsic semiconductors.
(i) What is the energy gap between valence band and conduction band for a pure
germanium semiconductor?
(ii) Draw the energy band diagram of a metal.
(iii) Carbon, silicon and germanium have the same lattice structure. Why is carbon
insulator while silicon and germanium intrinsic semiconductor.
Or
Name dopants used to make i) n-type semiconductor ii) p-type semiconductor
317
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SAGATHAN
ERNAKULAM REGION
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 1 -ANSWER KEY
Marks
SUBJECT:
PHYSICS
SECTION A
1 (c) When the proton moves at 45° with vertical, 1
qE=mg
q.(X/d) = mg
1.6 × 10-9 × (X/0.01) = 1.6 X 10-27 X 10
X = 1× 10-9 V
2 (a) ΦE =qnet/ε0 1
= [ (-14+78.85-56) × 10-9] / [8.85x10-12]
= [ 8.85x10-9] / [8.85x10-12]
= 1000 Nm²C-1.
3 (a) For the two capacitors connected in parallel, 1
V₁ = V2
C1/q1 = C2/q2
or q1/q2 = C1/C2
4 (d) When the length is increased by 100%, it becomes 2l and area of cross- 1
section decreases to A/2. New resistance,
R'= ⍴(l’/A’) = ⍴( 2l / [A/2] ) = 4⍴(l/A) = 4R
Change in resistance,
[(R'-R)/ R] x100 = [(4R-R)/ R] × 100 = 300%.
5 (b) R1/R2 = (l1/ l2 ). (A2/A1) = ( l1/l2) .(πr22/ πr12) = (l1/l2) . (r2/r1)=(4/3).(3/2)2 = 3 1
For wires connected in parallel, V1 = V2 OR I1R1 = I2R2
I1/I1 = R1/R2 = ⅓
6 (b)For a straight current carrying wire, 1
B∝ 1/r
B’/B = r/2r = ½
OR
B’ = (1/2)B = (1/2) x 0.4 = 0.2 T
7 (c) Let the radii of the two coils be 2a and a, then their resistances will be 2 R 1
and R respectively.
Given
B₁ = B₂
(μ0I1)/(2x2a)= (μ0I2)/2a
OR
(μ0/4a).(V1/2R) = (μ0/2a).(V2/R)
OR
V1/V2=4
318
8 (b) Susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material decreases with the increase in 1
temperature and above the Curie temperature TC, it becomes paramagnetic
9 (b) The emf induced in the coil, 1
੬= Total resistance,
R’=R+4R=5RΩ
Induced current, I = ੬/R’ = -n( ɸ1-ɸ2)/5Rt
-n(dɸ/dt) = -n( ɸ1-ɸ2)/t
10 (c) Resonance frequency, 1

fr=1 / [2π√(LC)]
when C is changed to 2C, L should be changed to L/2 so that f, remains
unchanged
11 (d) The frequency of the e.m. wave remains same when it passes from one 1
medium to another.
Refractive index of the medium, n = √(ε/ε0)=√(4/1)= 2
Wavelength of the electromagnetic wave in the medium.

λmed =λ/n = λ/2.
12 (a) μ = λa/λg 1
λg = λa/ μ= (2400 x 10-10m )/15 = 1600 Å
13 (a) Wo= hc/ λ0 = (6.63×10-34×3×108 ) / (5000 × 10-10 )J 1
= 4 × 10-19 J.
14 (a) P.E. of an electron = -kZe2/r 1
K.E. of an electron= (1/2) kZe2/r
Total energy of an electron =-(1/2) kZe2/r
When an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground

state, the value of r decreases.
K.E. increases
P.E. decreases as it becomes more negative.
Total energy decreases as it becomes more negative.
(b) Energy released,

15 =2B.E(2He4)-B.E(1H1+ 3Li7 ) 1
=2x4x7.06-[0+7x 5.60]
=56.48-39.20=17.28 MeV.
16 (a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct 1
explanation of the assertion. The waves produced by the two violins are not
coherent
17 d) Both the assertion and reason are false. 1
Resistivity of a semiconductor decreases with temperature. Larger amplitudes
of atoms at higher temperatures increase conductivity of a semiconductor.
18 (c) For an incident photon of given energy, velocity of photoelectron ejected 1
from near the surface is larger than that coming from the interior of the metal
because less energy is required to eject an electron from the surface than from
the interior. The velocity of ejected electron may not be zero.
319
SECTION B
19 a. X rays - Used as a diagnostic tool in medicine 2
b. Micro wave - Used in micro wave oven
Any one other application of each
20 2
a. Paramagnetic
b. Diamagnetic
21 Balmer, ni = α and nf = 2 2
Paschen, ni = α and nf = 3
1/ λ = R ( 1/nf 2 - 1/ni 2 )
ΛB / λP = 4/9
OR
For first excited state, n = 2
r2 = n2 a0 = 22 x 5.3 x 10-11 = 21.2 x 10-11 m
Total energy = - 13.6/ n2 eV = -13.6/ 4 = -3.4Ev
22 From mirror formula,1/v = 1/f – 1/u , Now for a concave mirror, f < 0 and for an
object at u < 0, 2f<u<f or 1/2f> 1/u >1/f
1/2f < 1/v < 0
This implies that v < 0 so that image is formed on left.
Also the above inequality implies 2f>v OR I2 f l <l v l [2 f and v are negative]
i.e., the real image is formed beyond 2f.
23 Drift speed in B is higher. Since the two bars are connected in series, the 2
current through both same.
I = neAvd , vd α 1/n. Since n is much lower in semiconductors, drift velocity will
be more.
OR
320
The energy gap does not change with temperature
24 λ = 5890 x 10-10m, a= 0.25 x 10-3m 2

Angular separation Ɵ= 3λ/ 2a = 3.534 x 10-3 radian
25 Energy stored in the capacitor = ½ CV2 2
When it is connected to another uncharged capacitor, common potential

V’ = V/2
Energy stored in the combined system = ½ ( C+ C ) x ( V/2)2
= 1/4 c v2
Required ratio = 1/2
SECTION C
26 Statement of Ampere’s law 3

Expression for magnetic field
Magnetic field at the centre B = μ I/2a
0
If I = 2I and a= a/2, B’ = 4B
27 a. As n decreases, L= μ0 n2 Al decreases, XL = Lω decreases, brightness increases 3
b. When an iron rod is inserted, L increases, XL = Lω increases, brightness
decreases
c. When a capacitor is introduced, since XL = Xc , impedance = R, minimum,
hence brightness increases.
OR
R = 100Ω, L= 4/π2 H, Vrms = 200V, v = 50Hz

At resonance, Impedance Z = R = 100Ω
Lω = 1/ Cω, C = 1/ ω2 L
ω = 2πv = 2π x 50 = 100π
C= 1/400 farad
28 Statement of Faraday’s law 3
Emf induced = ½ BR2ω
B = 1T, R = L = 1m, ω = 2πv = 2π x 50 = 100π
Emf = ½ x 1x 12x 2π x 50 = 50π = 157V
321
29 3
K = hv – Ф0
max
Slope of the graph gives the value of Planck’s constant
Intercept on the negative Y axis gives the value of work function
OR
Ф0 = 2.14eV, v = 6 x 1014Hz
1.K = hv – Ф0 = 0.34eV
max
2.K
max = eV0
V = 0.34V
0
3.Kmax = ½ m v2max
v2max = 345.8 x 10
3 m/s
30 3
K = 7.7MeV = 7.7 x 106x 1.6 x 10-19
K = Ze x 2e / 4πϵ0 r0
Substituting, r0 = 30fm
322
SECTION D
31 a.Derivation of expression for electric field 5
F= q1 q2 / 4πϵ0r2
F1 = 57.6N along AD produced
F2 = 28.8N along BD produced
F3 = 57.6N along CD produced
Resultant of F1 and F3 is 81.5N
Total force on q4 = 28.8 + 81.5 =110.3 N along BD produced
OR
a.Expression for electric field
b.ФE = Net charge enclosed / ϵ0 = -2Q/ ϵ0
32 a.Ray diagram 5
b.Expression for powe
c. m = f0/ fe , P = 1/f
323
To increase magnification, focal length of objective maximum and focal length
of eye piece minimum. To increase the light gathering power, aperture of
objective must be maximum. Hence objective is L1 and eyepiece is L3
OR
a. Defenition of wavefront
b.Geometrical construction
c.Derivation of Snell’s rule
d.Fringe width = λD/d
As d decreases, fringe width increases
33 Defenition of relaxation time 5

Drift velocity vd = eEԎ/m
Derivation of the expression Resistivity = m/ne2 Ԏ
In metals, as temperature increases, relaxation time decrases
OR
a.Statement of Kirchhoff’s rules

b.Obtaining the balancing condition in a Wheatstone bridge
c.Applying Kirchhoff’s rules, I1 + I2 = I3
For the loop ABEFA, 2I3 + 5I1 = 12
For the loop BCDEB, -2I3 – 3I2 = -6
Solving the above equations, I1 = 48/31 A, I2 = 18/ 31 A, I3 = 66/31 A
34 a.Conditions for sustained interference 4

b.I = I0 Cos2Ф/2
Cos2Ф/2 = ½
Cos Ф/2 = 1/√2
Ф/2 = π/4
Ф = π/2 (2n+1)
∆x = λ/2π (Ф) = = λ/2π x π/2( 2n+1)
= λ/4 (2n+1)
a.Ratio = 1:1
β = λ D/ d
35 Taking the ratio new fringe width is half the first one = 0.2cm 4
a. This is because the energy gap for Ge (E=0.7 eV) is smaller than the energy
gap for Si (E=1.1 eV).
b. Reverse Bias, figure
324
c. if the reverse bias decreases the width of the depletion region decreases
OR
c.Drift and Diffusion.
325
ERNAKULAM REGION
Section A
Q.No Marks
1 ii) (n1- n2)e, additivity of charges 1
2 ii) Decreases 1
3 ii) Temperature T1 is greater than T2 1

Slope of the graph is inverse proportional resistance and resistance increases
with the temperature.
4 i) Upwards , Flemings left hand rule 1
5 𝜇0 𝑖 1
i) The magnetic field mutually perpendicular to each other.
√2𝑅
6 iii)Attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly 1
7 ii) decrease 1
When it is inserted there will be induction current effect and bulb glows with
less intensity.
8 iii) Microwaves 1
9 iii) A clockwise current will be induced in the coil. 1
10 i) 3:2 1
11 ii) 4.86eV 1
12 ii)0.85eV 1
13 iv) They obey inverse square law 1
14 ii) 40V 1
15 i) 4:3 1
16 c) A is true but R is false 1
17 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 1
18 b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A 1
326
Section B
19 (i) microwaves 1+1

(ii) Ultra violet rays
20 (a) Diamagnetic materials 1+1

(b) any two properties of diamagnetic materials
21 2
OR
22 2
23 N-type 1+1
1. It is formed by doping pentavalent impurities.
2. The electrons are the majority carriers and holes are
minority carriers.
P -type
1. It is formed by doping trivalent impurities.
2. The electrons are the minority carriers and holes are
majority carriers.
OR
24 3
Fringe width equation. fringe width decreases to 4times. 1+1
327
25 2
Section C
26 Derivation 1+1+1
Perpendicular to the plane of loop directed outwards for anticlockwise
current in loop and is directed inwards for clockwise current in loop.
Relation between the magnetic moment of an electron moving in a circle and

its related angular momentum.
27 1+1+1
28 3
OR
29 (a) 3
(b)
328
(c) DeBroglie wavelength is inversely proportional to mass for a given value
of
kinetic. As an electron has a smaller mass than a proton, an electron has
larger de Broglie wavelength than a proton for the same kinetic energy.
OR
(a)
(b)
30 3
329
Section D
31 (a) 5
(b)
(i) In the outer region of plate I, there is no charge enclosed by
plate I.Thus, the intensity of electric field is zero in the outer region of plate
I.
(ii) In the outer region of plate II, there is no charge enclosed by plate II.
Thus, the intensity of electric field is zero in the outer region of plate II.
(iiii)
OR
(a)
(b) Derivation.
(c) Zero since angle is 900.
32 (a) 5
330
(b) Derivation.
(c)
OR
(a)
(b) Diagram, Derivation.
33 (a) 5
(b)
(i)
331
(ii)
(iii)
OR
(a)
(b) Diagram, Derivation.

Section E
34 (i) It is the angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction is 90 0. 1+1+2
(ii)
(iii) * Light ray should move from denser medium to rarer medium
* The angle of incidence should be greater than critical angle
OR
(iii) *When light is reflected from total reflecting prism , whole of the light is
totally internally reflected Intensity of reflected light is more in prism than
that of the light reflected from plane mirror .
*No multiple reflections take place in total reflecting prism as compared
with that of plane mirror .
332
35 (i) It is because the mobility of electrons is greater than that of hole. 1+1+2
(ii) Used as rectifiers (or any other application)
(iii) The accumulation of negative charges in the p region and positive charges
in then region sets up a potential difference across the junction.
OR
(iii) Forward biasing and reverse biasing, Diagrams
333
ERNAKULAM REGION
Q. No: SECTION A MARKS
1. c). The dipole will experience a force towards left 1
2. c). On q.x 1
3. a). Small and Positive 1
4. 𝜇˳𝐼 1 1
d). 2𝑟 (1-𝜋)
5. −2𝐹 1
d). 3
6. c). real, inverted and magnified 1
7. b). increase 1
8. b). 6 V/m 1
9. a). 1.0 mA 1
10 𝐸ₒ𝑙ₒ 1
𝑐). cos ɸ
2
11. c). C/2 1

12. d). Infrared photons have more energy than photons of visible light 1
13. 36 1
b). 5 𝑅
14. c). M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2 1

15. d). Plane 1
16. d). A is false and R is also false 1
17. d). A is false and R is also false 1
18. a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
SECTION B
19. a. Microwaves ½
b. X-rays ½
c. gamma rays ½
d. Visible light ½
20. Diamagnetic - diagram 1
Paramagnetic – diagram 1
OR
Diamagnetic 1
Two properties ½ +½
21. For a concave mirror, f is independent of the wavelength of light. ½
Hence focal length remains the same. ½
For a convex lens, f α 1/n-1
NR < nv,, fR > fV ½
So focal length increases ½
22. KE = -E = 13.6 eV 1
P.E = 2TE = x 2 x -13.6 =-27.2eV 1
23. a. Forward biased ½
b. Reverse biased ½
c. Forward biased ½
d. Reverse biased ½
334
OR
E = hc/λ ½
E = 0.207 eV 1
E < Eg, cannot detect the wavelength 6000 nm ½
24. n = λ /λ’ ½
In air ꞵ = Dλ /d ½
In liquid ꞵ’ = Dλ’ /d = 1.5 mm 1
25. (i) Q = ϭ. 4ΠR2 ½
Q = 1.96mC ½
(ii) φ = Q /Ɛ
0 = 2.21 x 108 Nm2/C 1
SECTION C
26. Labelled diagram 1
Theory and working 1
When the magnetic field is radial, torque will be maximum and hence the 1
sensitivity of galvanometer increases
27 E=Blv=0.15v 1
I=E/R=0.05A 1
F=Bil=3.75 × 10−3 N 1
28 Derivation of power dissipated in LCR circuit 1½

(1) No power dissipated when R=0 or Ф=90° ½
(2) Maximum power dissipated at resonance when 𝑋𝐿=XC,Ф=0 1
𝑉0𝐼0
Then Pmax = 2
OR
Expression for impedance
1½
Expression for resonant frequency
1½
29 (i) Work function for the material M1,ω1=h υ01 1½

And for material M2, ,ω2=h υ02
difference in stopping potentials V1−V2 1½

(ii) The slope of the graphs,=difference in threshold freqencies =υ01
−υ02
OR
M
λP √ PQp VP
2
(a) = =2
λᵪ
√Mᵪ Qᵪ Vᵪ
(b) Zero
1
30 (a)For λ=275nm, E = hc/λ=4.5eV.The photon of energy 4.5eV will be emitted 2
,corresponding to the transition B.
(b) The transition A corresponds to emission of radiation of minimum energy and 1
hence maximum wavelength.
335
SECTION D
31 (a) W=q×dV=2× 𝑒 × 1 1
=3.2× 10−19 J
(b) Zero .Work done in moving a charge in a closed path is zero. 1
(c) (i) Since the battery remains connected, the potential difference remains
constant, hence E also remain unchanged 1
(ii)Capacitance becomes K times
(iii).Charge becomes K times since capacitance becomes K times. 1
OR 1
𝑄 3𝑄 Ф 1
(a) (i) Ф1 = 𝜀 and Ф2 = so Ф1 =3
0 𝜀0 2
𝑄
(ii) Ф1 = ∫ 𝐸. 𝑑𝑆 = 𝜀
0
.On introducing medium of dielectric constant L inside the sphere 1
S1,the eelectic field becomes K times
𝑄 𝑄
Now the new flux Ф1′ = 𝐾𝜀 On solving K=5 .So new flux Ф1′ = 5𝜀
0 0
(b) Derivation of electric field intensity

2
2
32 (a) Definition of drift speed 1
(b) All the electrons in the conductor drift simultaneously under the action of 1
an electric field
(c) Net emf =2V
𝑟
Total internal resistance = 4
Net resistance of the two external resistors= 7.5 ohm
𝐸
The internal resistance of the parallel combination of cells =(𝑉 − 1)R. On 3
solving r=7.5 ohm
OR
(a) Circuit diagram and derivation of balancing condition of Wheatstone’s
bridge
(b) (i)In steady state capacitor behaves as an open path. Now 𝑉𝐴 =6V and
𝑉𝑐 = 0
Since battery is connected across the series combination of P and Q ½ + 1½
,𝑉𝐵 =3V
Since the battery is connected across the series combination of R and S
, 𝑉𝐷 =4.2 V
Now 𝑉𝐷−𝑉𝐵 =1.2V
Charge on the capacitor=C(𝑉𝐷−𝑉𝐵 )=3.6μC.
1
So energy stored in the capacitor= C(𝑉𝐷−𝑉𝐵 )2
2 2
=2.16× 10−6 J
(ii) When 𝑉𝐵= 𝑉𝐷 means bridge is balanced, no charge will be stored in
2 3
the capacitor. The value of Q for balanced bridge is given by 𝑄 =7
14
So Q= 3 ohm .
1
336
33 (a) (i) When the screen is moved away from the plane of the slits, D 1
increases and hence fringe width will increase
(ii)the decrease in λ will decrease fringe width
1 𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑖 1 𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑖30 1
(b) 𝜇 =𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟 or = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟
√2
1
Sin r = r=45° δ=I - r=15°
√2
3
OR
1. (a) the width of the central maximum is

2𝐷λ
𝛽 = 𝑎 . From the eqation, when the slit width is decreased, the width of
1
the central maximum will increase.
(c) As the distance between slit and the screen is increased, the width of the
central maximum will also increase. 1
2. Let C1 and C2 be the values of critical angle at the points Q and R
respectively. Then
𝜇1 1
SinC1=𝜇2 = C1=45°
√2
𝜇3 √3
SinC2 =𝜇42 = C2=60°
2
SECTION E
34 (i) Light should travel from a denser medium to rare medium. Angle of 1
incidence should be greater than critical angle
(ii) 90° 1
 10t 
(iii) sin −1  1 
 t2  2
OR
(III) 12 3 / 7
2
35 (i) The reverse current is due to the presence of minority charge carriers 1
(ii) Diffusion and drift 1
(iii) Due to infinite reverse resistance,D2 will not conduct
Total resistance= 300ohm
6
So current I=V/R=300 =0.02A.
2
OR
(iv) When an intrinsic semiconductor is placed at absolute zero, the
electrons in the conduction band come to the valence band. hence no
free electrons will be available for conduction. Hence an intrinsic
semiconductor at absoluter zero behaves like an insulator.
2
337
ERNAKULAM REGION
1. (iv). Both the electric potential and electric field achieve a maximum 1
magnitude at B
2 . (4) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s 1
3. (b)I =neAVd as per question I=neπr 2V than for 2I= neπ(2r) 2 V2 by 1

solving V2=V/2
4 (c) Wavelength is halved and the frequency remains unchanged 1
5 (C) 1
6 a) 1 1
7 (a) only on impact parameter 1
8 (a) There the mobile charges exist 1

9 B) 9/5 1
10 Correct option is D) 1
In circuit, A is at −10V and B is at 0V. So, B is positive than A. So, D2 is in
forward bias and D1 is in reverse bias so no current flows from A to B or B to A
11 Correct option is B) 1
½ mv2=qV
⇒r = √2mqV r α √V Since r is doubled; V becomes 4 times
qB
12 d) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion 1
between nuclei
13 (C . In (i) V remain same but Q changes 1
14 (c) Move towards the wire or towards Left. 1
1
15. (b) , The angle between the area vector and the field lines is 90o.
Thus, ϕE=EAcosθ=0
16 (B). Both are correct but reason is not correct explanation of 1

assertion
17 (A )Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of 1
assertion
18 ( A )Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of 1
assertion
19. Here I1=2A ; I2=1A d1 =10 cm ; d2=30 cm μo=4π × 10-7 Tm A-1 ½

We have
𝜇0 𝐼2 𝐼1 𝑙
F = 2𝜋𝑑 ½
𝜇0 2∗ 1∗20∗ 10−2 1 1
Net force on ab and cd = [ 10∗ 10−2 -30∗ 10−2 ] = 5.33 × 10-7 N 1
2𝜋
This net force is directed towards the infinitely long straight wire. ½
20. When a dc source is connected to a capacitor, the capacitor gets charged and after charging no
current flows in the circuit and the lamp will not glow. ½
338
There will be no change even if C is reduced. ½
With ac source, the capacitor offers capacitative reactance (1/wC) and the current flows in the circuit.
Consequently, the lamp will shine. Reducing C will increase reactance and the lamp will shine less
brightly than before 1
𝑑𝜑
21. Id = ∈ 0 𝑑𝑡𝐸 1
Charging current = displacement current = 0.25 mA 1
22. The locus of all point which has same phase of vibration is called a wave front. 1
Plane wave front. 1
OR
2
𝐼 = 4𝐼0 cos (∅/2)
(i) Path difference 𝜆/4⟹ phase difference 𝜋/2 ½
𝐼1 = 4𝐼0 𝑋1/2 = 2𝐼0 ½
(ii) Path difference 𝜆/4⟹ phase difference 2𝜋/3 ½
𝐼1 = 4𝐼0 𝑋1/4 = 𝐼0 ½
23. (a) (i) There in minimum frequency required for the incident light to produce photoelectric effect.
1
(ii) Stopping potential does not changes with intensity of light. 1
24. number of spectral lines =6 1

energy level diagram
25. It is the distance of charged particle from the centre of the nucleus, at which the whole of the initial
kinetic energy of the (far off) charged particle gets converted into the electric potential energy of the
system. ½
1 ×2𝑍𝑒 2
Distance of closest approach (r) is given by, r = 4𝜋∈0 ½
𝐾
Therefore when K is doubled r becomes r/2 1
OR
1. According to Rutherford model, electron orbiting around the nucleus, continuously radiates energy
due to the acceleration; hence the atom will not remain stable. 1
2. As electron spirals inwards; its angular velocity and frequency change continuously; therefore it
will emit a continuous spectrum. 1
26. i) Let Cx = C, Cy= 4C
For series combination C = CxCy / (Cx+Cy)
4 µF = 4C/5
C = 5 µF
Cx = 5 µF , Cy = 20 µF 1
ii) Total charge Q = CV = 4 µF *15V = 60 µC
Vx = Q/ Cx = 60/5 = 12 V
Vy = Q/ Cy =60/20 = 3 V 1
iii) Ex/ Ey = (½ QX2/CX) / (½ QY2/CY) = 20/5 = 4:1 1
27. Derivation of the equation E = ½ LI2 and hence arrive the equation energy
339
Energy = ½ ɛ0 E2 3
OR
(i) Direction of induced current is abcda ( Clockwise ) 1
(ii) Direction of induced current is acba ( Clockwise ) 1
(iii) Direction of induced current is abcda (Clockwise ) 1
28. For an incident ray, travelling from an optically denser medium to optically rarer medium, the angle
of incidence, for which the angle of refraction is 90o, is called the critical angle.
1
2
29. Derivation of the expression β = Dʎ/d 3
30.
1
ℎ ℎ
ʎ= = , now md > mp 1
√2𝑚𝑞𝑉 √2𝑚𝐾
For the same ʎ we must have Kp > Kd
i.e Proton has more kinetic energy. 1
OR
(a) For the cutoff or threshold frequency, the energy h𝜗0 of the incident radiation must be equal
to work function 𝜑0 so that
𝜑0
𝜗0 = ℎ = 5.16 ×1014 Hz 1
340
(b) Photocurrent reduces to zero, when maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons
equals the potential energy e V0 by the retarding potential V0. Einstein’s Photoelectric equation is
1
eV0 = h𝜗 – 𝜑0= hc/ ʎ - 𝜑0
ʎ = hc / (eV0+ 𝜑0) = 454 nm 1
31 (a) diagram 1
derivation 2
(b)
OR
i) Plot showing the variation of the angle of deviation as a function of angle of incidence(1)
ii)
Derivation of expression of refractive index 2

i= (A+D)/ 2
𝜇 = sin i/ sin r = sin [(A+D)/2] / sin(A/2)
ii) Calculation of minimum value of refractive index 2

For total internal reflection I = c
45 ≥ c
Sin (45) ≥ sin c
1/ √2 ≥ 1/ n
i.e. n ≥ √2
Hence minimum value of refractive index must be √2
341
32. i) Average velocity acquired by the electrons in the conductor in the presence of external electric
field. (1)
We know that vd = - eE𝜏/m
Where E = V/l
vd = - eV𝜏/ml
Current I = nAe vd = nAe2V𝜏 / ml
I/V = nAe2𝜏 / ml
1/R = nAe2𝜏 / ml
RA/l = m/ ne2𝜏
𝜌 = m/ ne2𝜏 (2)
(ii) Resistivity of the material of a conductor depends on the relaxation time, i.e.,
temperature and the number density of electrons. (1)
iii) Because constantan and manganin show very weak dependence of
resistivity on temperature (2)
OR
Kirchhoff’s loop rule statement (2)
(3)
33. (a) Definition , Vector form and direction of torque (½+ ½ )

a. Torque , 𝜏 = pE sin 𝜃
𝜏⃗ = 𝑝⃗ × 𝐸⃗⃗
b. If the field is non uniform the net force on the dipole will not be zero. There will be translatory
motion of the dipole. (1)
c . Net force will be in the direction of increasing electric field.
342
(ii)Net force will be in the direction opposite to the increasing field.
or in the direction of decreasing field
d) The torque on a dipole in electric field is given by:
τ = PE sin θ
q = τ ⁄ l E sin θ = 5 ⁄ (0.05 × 3 × 104 × sin30°) C
= 6.7 mC
Hence, charge on the dipole is 6.7 mC.
OR
a) Diagram (1)
Derivation (2)
b) If we place another similar cone on this, net flux = Q/ ∈ 0
Flux with the upper cone = Q/ ∈ 0 – 3Q /5 ∈ 0 = 8Q / 20∈ 0
This must also be the flux associated with the lower when charge is raised through a height
2H because of symmetry. ( 2)
34.
(i) No! Any slab, howsoever flat, will have roughness much larger than the inter-atomic crystal
spacing (~2 to 3 Å) and hence continuous contact at the atomic level will not be possible.
(ii) No. P semiconductor material didn’t lost or gains electrons. Hence it is neutral material.
(iii)
OR
35.
(i) Diamagnetic material
(ii) Material A is ferromagnetic because here its slope is more. Hence material A is suitable for
making permanent magnet.
(iii) The core of electromagnet should have high permeability, low retentively and low coercivity.
Hence soft iron used.
OR
Keep the device in an iron cavity and move. Iron has high permeability hence it converges all
the magnetic filed through it and the device will be safe.
343
ERNAKULAM REGION
QNo Marks
SECTION A
1 (iv) 1
2 (iii) 1
3 (i) 1
4 (iii) 1
5 (iii) 1
6 (ii) 1
7 (iv) 1
8 (iii) 1
9 (iv) 1
10 (iii) 1
11 (i) 1
12 (iii) 1
13 (iv) 1
14 (i) 1
15 (iv) 1
16 A is true but R is false 1
17 Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation 1
of A
18 Both A and R are false 1
19 a) Radio waves, micro waves, uv rays, x-ray, gamma 1
ray.
b) micro wave 1
20 a) Paramagnetic 1
b) any two properties 1
21 rnαn2 . r2/r1=4 1
r2=2.12x10-10m 1
(or)
K=_ve of total energy. K= 13.6eV 1
Potential energy= -13.6-13.6=-27.2eV 1
344
1
22 =(n21-1) (1/R1-1/R2) 1
𝑓
Substitution, calculation and result 1
R=22cm
23 For diffraction minimum,sin ϴ= nλ/d 1
For diffraction maximum,sin ϴ=(2n+1)λ/2d 1
Λ= 2/3x660=440 nm
24 Surface charge densityon the inner surface=-q/4πr12 1
Surface charge density on outer surface=Q+q/4πr22 1
25 Gauss’s law 1
E=σ/ϵ0
1
26 Diagram 1
derivation
2
27 Definition 1
derivation
2
28 L=XL/2πf = 1/2π X slope of the graph = 3.18x10-3 Hz 2
Z=(R2+XL2)1/2 =10ohm 1
29 a)Intensity, frquency 1
b) λ0=hc/Ф0 = 6.18x10 m -7
2
(OR)
1) graph
2) V0=h/e (ѵ-ѵ0) V0 is more for B 1
3) Slope = h/e so it does not depend on the material 1
1
30 En=-13.6/n2
E4-E1= 12.75Ev 2
λ = hc/E4-E1= 0.97x10-7m
ѵ = c/ λ = 3.07x1015Hz 1
31 1) making a region free from electric field. It is based 1
on the fact that electric field vanishes inside the
cavity of a hollow conductor.
2) Two applications
b) (i) V0=E0Xd=1500V 1
(ii) V=E0(d-t)=1200V 1
(iii) E0(d-t)+(E0/k) t=1350V
(OR)
20𝑋10−6 4𝑋10−6 1
a) V= 𝑘[ 𝑋 - 50−𝑥 ] =0
x= 41cm 1
1 𝑞1𝑞2
u=4𝜋€𝑜 = -1.44J 1
𝑟
derivation of electric field 3
345
32 i)Definition 1
Two factors 1
ii) Diagram
𝐸
I= 𝑅+𝑟 1
b) cells in series, diagram, derivation 2
(OR)
Definition 1
Relation, vd=Ee/m𝜏 1
derivation 3
33 Huygens principle 1
Definition 1
Ray diagram 1.5
derivation 1.5
33 OR
Two points 2
Ray diagram 1.5
derivation 1.5
34 CASE STUDY
(i)since its critical angle with reference to air is very 1
small. 1
(ii)2.42
(iii)angle of incidence must be greater than critical
angle.ray should travel from denser to rarer medium 2
Or
Optical fibre,any one use
35 (i)nearly 0.75 eV 1
(ii) E B diagram 1
Iii Energy gap will be least for Ge,followed by Si and
highest for C.Hence number of free electrons is 2
negligible in C.
Or
As,Sb,P (any one)/Ga ,In,Al (any one)
346

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MESSAGE BY THE DEPUTY COMMISSIONER

I am delighted to announce the release of Support Material/Study material for the

With warm regards

Electric Charges Ms. Leena Mary KV Kollam Ms. K V Sudha,

Sample Question Ms. Bindu R KV ERNAKULAM

Sample Question Mr. Binoj Bose KV Pattom Shift I

Sample Question Ms. Padmaja M G Pattom Shift II Ms. Beena Mathews,

S.No Content Page No

❖ Every Chapter Contains:

Time: 3 hrs. Max Marks: 70

Unit-II Current Electricity

Chapter–10: Wave Optics

Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields

Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Unit II: Current Electricity 18 Periods

Chapter–3: Current Electricity

Unit III: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism 25 Periods

Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism

Concept of magnetic field, Oersted's experiment.

Unit IV: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents 24 Periods

Unit V: Electromagnetic waves 04 Periods

Unit VI: Optics 30 Periods

Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Chapter–10: Wave Optics

Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Matter waves-wave nature of particles, de-Broglie relation.

Composition and size of nucleus, nuclear force

Unit IX: Electronic Devices 10 Periods

Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits

Semiconductor diode - I-V characteristics in forward and reverse bias, application of

Two experiments one from each section 7+7 Marks

3. To verify the laws of combination (series) of resistances using a metre bridge.

6. To find the frequency of AC mains with a sonometer.

1. To study various factors on which the internal resistance/EMF of a cell depends.

S No. Typology of Questions Total Approximate

2 Applying: Solve problems to new situations by applying 22 32%

16. Which statement is true for Gauss law?

17. Electric field provides information about

18.The unit of dipole moment is (

22. Electric field at a point is

Assertion- Reason Questions.

5. Force on water drop due to electric field = Weight of water drop.

To find equatorial field: - Distance x= √(15^2 + 10^2 )= 18cm

E= √Ex2 + √Ey 2 = 6.6 x 105 NC-1

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS-3 MARKS

CASE STUDY QUESTIONS

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS ( 5 MARKS )

ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL EQUIPOTENTIAL

Potential due to Electric dipole 1 𝑝 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃

Potential difference between two points (i)𝑉𝐴 > 𝑉𝐵 ; 𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐵 = +𝑣𝑒

Two equal +ve charges Uniform electric field Electric dipole

The area under V-Q graph

Combination of capacitors: Parallel n

Energy density : Energy stored per unit volume of a capacitor 1 𝜎2

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (1 MARK)

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2MARK)

34. Find the charge on the 6 μF capacitor shown in the figure.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

60. (a) Define Electrostatic potential due to point charge.

(i) If an isolated sphere has a capacitance 50pF. Then radius is

POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE - ANSWERS

3. (a) 6V/m along -x axis