CDI 1000 Questions

Republic of the Philippines
CAVITE STATE UNIVERSITY
Don Severino de las Alas Campus
Indang, Cavite
 (046) 8620-290/ (046) 4150-013 loc 221
www.cvsu.edu.ph
College of Criminal Justice
Department of Criminology
First Semester, AY 2016-2017
Name: Date:
Year and Section: Score:
Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of

law if it was
made in the presence of a counsel of his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the
A.National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D.Department of Justice
3.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often used
to question
criminal suspects to determine their probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation
4.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and
unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work
5.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions are taken in not
losing the
subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
6.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the subject’s habits
and
associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated arrival of a
suspect or
observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage
8.An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a building, or
premises with the
purpose of discovering contraband's or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure
9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a
different character to the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
C. Direct evidence
D. Real evidence
10.The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence collected
during the
investigation and present it to the prosecutor.
A. case preparation
B. order maintenance
C. crime prevention
D. public service
11.Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping an capturing the law
breaker during
the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation
B. Inducement
C. Buy bust operation
D. Entrapment
12.A special qualification for an undercover agent.
A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory
13.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of
obtaining
information concerning the identities or activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D. surveillance
14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has
been taken
into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination
15.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at
A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
D. weekdays
16.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or attempts to be present
when they are
committed, through the use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for
wiretapping or
bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures
17.A police activity directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged
criminals and
the accumulation, preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their
alleged crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation
18.An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
A. initial investigation
B.custodial investigation
C.secondary investigation
D.follow-up investigation
19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose
of
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D.Interrogation
20.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent
man to
believe that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in connection
with the
offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D.res ipsa loquitur
21.A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date. Thereafter, it
shall be void.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
22.It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time,date and place,
and that the
person named in his report committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. sufficiency of evidence
C. stare decisis
D. parens patriae
23.Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where crimes might be
committed
and by alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their property
vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial
B. order maintenance
C. criminal investigation
D. police intelligence
24.A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
25.It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or
of some
essential part of the commission of the criminal act itself.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
26.It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an
acknowledgement
of guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
27.The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information
regarding
the personal circumstances of a person who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview
B. personal interview
C. intimate interview
D. pre-game interview
28.It means method of operation.
A. corpus delicti
B. parens patriae
C. stare decisis
D. modus operandi
29.It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to
obtain
conviction.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Inducement
30.The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in
proportion on
their necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
31.The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation.
A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation
32.It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence between the time
of the
commission of the alleged offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept
to a minimum.
A.chain of command
B.chain of custody
C.evidence tracking
D.tracing evidence
33.A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense.
Examples are
fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
A. physical evidence
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. factual evidence
34.Articles and materials which are found in connection with an investigation and
which help in
establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the
crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
A. physical evidence
B. documentary evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. testimonial evidence
35.The following are different techniques in interrogation except one:
A. sympathetic approach
B. emotional appeal
C. financial assistance
D. friendliness
36.This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval.
The
searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
37.The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned
to one
quadrant.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
38.The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the
outside and
circling around a central point.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C.spiral method
D.zone method
39.A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed.
A. Convoy
B. Caravan
C. Tailing
D. Surveillance
40.Another term for tailing.
A.Impersonating
B.Backing
C.Supporting
D.Shadowing
41.A person who gives necessary information to the investigator. He may give the
information
openly and even offer to be a witness or he may inform the investigator
surreptitiously and
request to remain anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant
42.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversations of
other people.
A. Bugging
B. Dubbing
C. Mimicking
D. Tapping
43.The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime,but who
knows about
the crime or individuals involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry
44.An objective of criminal investigation.
A. determine the motive
B. identify criminals
C. rehabilitate criminals
D. prevent crimes
45.A term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire,
when, for
example, most of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their
ignition
temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
46.A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of a solid is very
complicated, since
the proportion of different flammable vapors varies from one material to another
and contact
with oxygen must take place before combustion can begin.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
47.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way
to that of
light.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
48.The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
49.The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to
A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. opportunity in the fire/crime scene
50.Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is either set for
revenge or self
aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter
51.The primary course of action in case of a fire.
A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm Answer: D
52.The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but is an
asphyxia which
lowers the proportion of oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide Answer: D
53.A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially when the air supply
to the fire
is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide Answer: B
54.The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior of a
building material in a
fire, it is used to predict how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it
fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength Answer: A
55.A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely
divided forms;
magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D Answer: D
56.A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other
carbonaceous
materials.Extinguishment of this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D Answer: A
57.The following are components of fire except one:
A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat Answer: A
58.It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel
and point of origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern Answer: A
59.A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring Answer: A
60.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to
establish an
alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper Answer: C
61.It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most common
examples are
gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper Answer: A
62.This catalytic combustion device is the most common means employed to detect
flammable
vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper Answer: B
63.The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience
gratification and
satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia
Answer: C
64.It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”
A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185 Answer: D
65.Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used
to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer Answer: A
66.These are description of materials or compounds that are
easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable Answer: B
67.Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree
Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid Answer: A
68.Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid Answer: A
69.An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an
electric current across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember Answer: A
70.The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat
and light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire Answer: D
71.A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
A. class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D Answer: B
72.A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at one
temperature and
density moves under the influence of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion Answer: B
73.The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point Answer: B
74.The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or to
avoid hazard.
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position Answer: C
75.The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey Answer: A
76.A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two or more
reference points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C . triangulation
D. accident investigation Answer: C
77.The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity Answer: D
78.Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or
more persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious Answer: B
79.The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines”
A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136 Answer: D
80.An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces unintended injury,
death or
property damage.
A. traffic incidents
B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events Answer: B
81.Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident Answer: D
82.An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court,
but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. traffic violation Answer: A
83.The first accidental touching of an object collision course
or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact Answer: D
84.The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and
Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation Answer: D
85.The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”
A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195 Answer: B
86.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change, thought
disruption and
ego distortion. They are called psychedelics.
A. Tranquillizers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants Answer: B
87.Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind
with delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens Answer: B
88.The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for money or profit.
A. Gynecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade Answer: B
89.The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.
A. cannabis sativa L
B. Papaver somniforum
C. deoxyribonucleic acid
D. methamphetamine HCl Answer: A
90.The original components of heroin and morphine.
A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine Answer: C
91.An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal
drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration Answer: A
92.A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity,
wickedness and
corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue Answer: A
93.The most common form of stimulant.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu Answer: D
94.It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these Answer: D
95.A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine Answer: A
96.Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the
seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
C. caffeine components
D. codeine Answer: A
97.Another term for psychological drug addiction.
A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence Answer: D
98.Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or dispensed only by a
physician’s
order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
D. prescription drugs Answer: D
99.Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the
structure and
functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice Answer: C
100.It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine
the origin and
cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection
B. laboratory examination of evidence
C. interview witnesses
D. interrogation of suspects Answer: C
101. The method of operation which will enable investigators to a pattern of
criminal behavior
a. Reconstruction of the crime scene c. Instrumentation
b. Elicitation d. Modus operandi
102. This is where the techniques and principles of both physical and natural
science are
applied and practiced to analyze crime scene evidence
a. Forensic Laboratory c. SOCO
b. Crime laboratory d. Chemistry laboratory
103. A fictional character developed by Sir Arthur Conan Doyle who influenced
crime-
detection methods by using serology, firearm identification, fingerprinting and
questioned
document examination.
a. Sherlock Homes b. Albert Osborne c. Alphonse Bertillion
d. Calvin
Goddard
104. Refers to the uniqueness of some item of evidence made possible by the fact
that no
things in nature are exactly the same.
a. Criminalistics c. Instrumentation
b. Individualizations d. reconstruction of the crime
scene
105. A U.S Army colonel who refined the techniques of bullet comparison and
established the
use of comparison microscope, which is indispensable tool to modern firearms
examiner.
a. Sherlock homes b. Albert Osborne c. Alphonse Bertillion d.
Calvin Goddard
106. He undertook the first definitive study of fingerprints and developed a method
of
classifying them.
a. Albert Osborm b. Leone Lottes c. Francis Galton d.
Calvin Goddard
107. He devised relatively simple procedure for determining the blood group of
dried
bloodstain.
a. Leone Lottes b. Karl Landsteiner c. Albert Osborn d.
Francis Galton
108. In the techniques employed in interrogation , which of the foregoing is not
utilized by
police investigators
a. Friendliness b. Emotional approach c. Sympathetic approach
d. financial
assistance
109. This applicable in oval or circular crime scene wherein the searchers gather
at the middle
and proceed outward along spokes or radius.
a. wheel method b. Spiral method c. strip method
d. Zone
method
110. He was considered as the father of modern toxicology.
a. Mathieu Orfilia b. Alphonse Bertillion c. Francis Galton
d. Leone
Lottes
111. He was the person credited to have devised the first scientific system of
personal
identification by means of anthropometry, which is a method of taking a series
of body
measurements.
a. Mathieu Orfilia b. Alphonse Bertillion c. Francis Galton
d. Leone
Lottes
112. He developed the fundamental principle of document examination and was
responsible
for the acceptance of documents as scientific evidence by the courts.
a. Mathieu Orfilia b. Alphonse Bertillion c. Albert Osborn
d. Leone
Lottes
113. A public prosecutor and later a judge in Graz, Uatria who applied scientific
discipline to
the field of criminal investigation.
a. Mathieu Orfilia b. Alphonse Bertillionc. Hans Gross d.
Edmond Locard
114. He perpetuated his better his belief that when a criminal came into contact
with a person
or object, cross transfer of evidence occurred and was responsible for giving
specific
technical contribtion to criminal investigation
a. Mathieu Orfilia b. Alphonse Bertillionc. Hans Gross d.
Edmond Locard
115. The primary tools in criminal investigation necessary to establish the guilt
of the accused
in criminal action.
a. Information, Interrogation, and Instrumentation
b. Confession, admission and criminalistics
c. Intent, motive and circumstantial evidence
d. Investigation, criminalistics and prosecution
116. A public officer when not being authorized by judicial order, shall enter a
dwelling
against the will of the owner hereof is committing
a. Legal entry b. violation of domicile c. trespassing
d. illegal entry
117. A person undergoing custodial investigation enjoy his constitutional rights
namely:
a. The right to opposed whatever accusation on him
b. The right to plea guilt and not guilty
c. The right to remain silent, counsel and the right to informed such rights
d. The right to face his accuser in public trial
118. A type of I formant reveals information usually of consequences of stuff
concocted of
thin air
a. false informant c. double crosser informant
b. mercenary informant d. self aggrandizing
informant
119. Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are committed in manly places
a. local crime b. local action c. transitory crime d.
transitory action
120. The primary job o an investigator is to determine whether a crime has been
committed, in
order to determine whether a crime has been committed, in order to determine
such, he must
have knowledge of the so-called cardinal questions o investigation. How many
cardinal
questions are there
a. Three b. four c. five d.
six
121. In bank robberies, this person is in charge of transportation by stealing the
vehicle and
providing plate on it.
a. Drivers b. ripper c. wheelman
d. rover
122. Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to facilitate proper sketch
orientation.
a. proper north b. true north c. spiral method
d. strip
method
123. Search methods in which the searchers follow each other in the path of coiled
beginning
form the outside proceeding toward the center.
a. Zone method b. wheel method c. spiral method d.
strip method
124. Taking into custody the property described in the search warrant as a result
of a proper
search, which is to e utilized as evidence in a case.
a. seizure b. detention c. safekeeping d.
confiscation
125. A method of criminal identification whereby the perceptions of witnesses are
key and
criminals are identified by depiction.
a. verbal description b. general photographs c. police
line-up
d. rouge gallery
126. When the subject in prone position what type of search should be implemented.
a. kneeling search b. standing search c. floor search
d. wall search
127. This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the arrest. To discover
weapons or
evidences and determine the identity of the suspects.
a. preliminary search of a person b. wall search c. standing search
d. floor search
128. Most likely place to look for fingerprints o theft in an automobile, which has
been stolen
and abandoned.
a. dash board b. door handles c. steering wheel
d. rear view
mirror
129. Uses his seeming desire to give information to take to the law enforcers in
order to get
more information from them than he gives.
a. Double-crosser informants c. false informants
b. mercenary informants d. self aggrandizing
informants
130. That profession and scientific discipline directed to the recognition,
identification,
individualization and evaluation of physical sciences in matters of law and
science.
a. chemist b. scientist c. Criminalistics
d. toxicologist
131. Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense are committed in one place.
a. local crimes b. local action c. transitory crimes d.
transitory action
132. The number of the persons who handle he evidence from the scene of the crime
between
the time of the commission up to final disposition of cases
a. time of custody b. time of disposition c. time of disposal d.
chain of custody
133. A declaration made under the consciousness of an Impending death.
a. part of rest getae b. confession c. dying declaration
d. admission
134. Principles of science applied to law enforcement.
a. Instumentation b. Forensics c. Legal medicine d.
Criminology
135. Evidence which offers least resistance to decomposition
a. Blood b. semen c. saliva d.
hair
136. Refers to criminals whose identity are furnished witnesses.
a. known criminals c. unknown criminals
b. convicted criminals d. identified criminals
137. This method of identification depends on the ability witness to describe the
person in
committing the crime.
a. Verbal descriptions b. photographic files c. police line up d.
general photograph
138. Criminals whose identity ma be established background identification
a. known criminals b. convicted criminals c. unknown
criminals d.
identified criminals
139. Compilation of known criminals available from police files and records.
a. rouge gallery b. General photograph c. police blotter d. modus
operandi files
140. Types of shadowing where constant surveillance is necessary.
a. loose tail b. rough shadowing c. close tail d.
none of the
forgoing
141. The best way to label clothing to be used as evidence is.
a. place I in the pill box and label it c. place it in a plastic
bag and label it
b. mark it by an inscription in ink at the lining d. tag it with a label
142. To ensure privacy and avoid destruction an interrogation room must e.
a. with no windows or views c. it must be sound proof
b. there should only be one door d. all of the
forgoing
143. In this type of interrogation the investigator must have great knowledge of
the case and is
preferable when the subject is no the talkative type.
a. Narrative type b. question and answer type c. stem type d. simple
interrogation
144. What should the investigator to do protect while in the transport those
collected
evidences from the crime scene?
a. Seal it b. mark it c. pack it properly
d. label it
145. Shadowing has the following purposes, except:
a. to detect evidences of criminals activities
b. to establish association of the suspect
c. to locate wanted persons
d. none of the forgoing
146. “A” wanted to kill “B” the former pointed his gun to the latter, as “A”
pressed the trigger,
the gun jammed and “B” managed. This is example of:
a. Attempted felony b. frustrated felony c. consummated felony d.
consummated
felony
147. Kind of recognition whereby the description and characterized maybe vague that
identification is difficult.
a. Known fugitives b. Professionals fugitives c. ordinary
criminals d. unknown
fugitives
148. The method of determining and finding the best way to remedy the specific
cause or
causes of the complaint or grievance refers to:
a. cross examination b. grievance procedures c. investigative procedure d.
criminal
procedure
149. A type of informant reveals information usually of no consequences of stuff
produced
from then air.
a. false informant b. double-crosser informant
c. mercenary informant d. frightened informant
150. Clandestine operation in police parlance.
a. covert intelligence b. secret activity c. overt intelligence
d. surveillance
151. It is an art which deals with the identity and location of the offender and
provides
evidence of his guilt trough criminal proceedings.
a. Information b. Interrogation c.
Instrumentation d.
interrogation
152. Special crime investigation is more concern on:
a. Physical evidence b. Tracing evidence c. Testimonial evidence
d. Associative
evidence
153. Is a person who provides an investigator with confidential information
concerning a past
or projected crime and does not wish to be known as a source of information.
a. Informants b. Witness c. Informers d.
confidential informants.
154. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge information
a. interview b. interrogation c. investigation
d. all of
forgoing
155. A compilation of photographs of known criminals, utilized in investigation for
identifying suspects in a crime
a. Photographic file b. 201 file c. rogue
gallery d.
cartographic sketch
156. This sketch shows the crime scene with each nearest physical surroundings.
a. finished sketch b. sketch of details c. sketch of locality
d. sketch of
grounds
157. The explanation of any symbols used to identity objects in a sketch.
a. compass direction b. title c. legend d.
scale
158. Such articles and evidences which assist the investigator in locating the
suspect.
a. Physical evidence b. material evidence c. associate evidence d. tracing
evidences
159. Objects or substances which are essential part of the body of the crime.
a. corpus delicti b. Physical evidence c. Material evidence
d. associative evidence
160. The primary consideration in transporting evidences.
a. Markings should e placed c. Avoid altering contents
b. Proper turnover must be observed d. Proper packing to protect the evidence
while in
transit
161. General rule in handling evidences
a. MAC rule b. right of way rule c. last clear chance rule
d. none of the
forgoing
162. In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained areas are usually
encircled. What is the
primary objective
a. to show points of interest c. to avoid
contamination
b. to have proper markings d. to prevent
alterations
163. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve the specimen.
a. Formaldehyde b. saline solution c. alcohol
d. distilled water
164. It is the surprise invasion of a building or an area.
a. assault b. attack c. raid d.
surveillance
165. Primary requisite for conducting raids
a. Search warrant b. raiding team c. firearms
d. back-up
personnel
166. This is an element of crime commission wherein one is induced to commit
the crime
a. Motive b. intent c. opportunity
d. deceit
167. In a police line-up in which the purpose is to eliminate the power of
suggestion as a
factor in identification as a procedure as a procedure how many persons is
needed in such
line-up?
a. 3 to 5 b. 6 to 7 c. 7 to 10
d. 10 o 15
168. It is the physical possibility that the suspect cod have committed the crime.
a. motive b. intent c. opportunity
d. deceit
169. Motive in giving information wherein the informant delights in giving
information to the
gain favorable attention from the police.
a. competition b. repentance c. vanity
d. jealousy
170. Employed where a genera impression of the subjects habit an associative are
required.
a. surveillance b. loose tail shadowing c. rough
shadowing d. lose
tail shadowing
171. More advantageous because it permits immediate changes of men less like to be
recognized.
a. one man shadow b. two man shadow c. Three man
shadow d.
ABC method
172. In this method of search, the searchers proceed slowly at the same pace along
the path
parallel to one side of the rectangle. At the end of the rectangle, the
searcher turns and
proceeds back along new lanes but parallel to the first movement.
a. Zone method b. strip method c. spiral
method d.
wheel method
173. In this method, the area to be searched is divided into quadrant and each
searcher
assigned in each quadrant
a. Zone method b. strip method c. spiral method
d. wheel
method
174. The surroundings of the crime scene must be photograph to show the relative
locations
and distance.
a. Environmental photograph b. Physical reconstruction c.
overview d. over-all
prosecutor
175. Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No scale proportion ignored and
everything
is approximate.
a. sketch b. draft c. rough sketch
d. finished
sketch
176. Most common reason in discharging informants.
a. born out b. too expensive c. lack of loyalty
d. reprehensive
behavior
177. object usually utilized in marking hard objects
a. stylus b. pen c. ink
d. chalk
178. A form of investigation in which an investigator assumes a different and
unofficial
identity.
a. Tailing b. shadowing c. surveillance
d. roping
179. Interrogation fitted for subjects who are wiling to talk
a. Narrative type b. interrogative type c. question and answer type
d.
stern type
180. Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty of a person taken into
custody
a. Protective custody b. detaining for questioning c. police restraint d. all
of the forgoing
181. Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime scene as well as the
objects, what
naturally occurred and what were the circumstances of the crime.
a. crime scene b. physical reconstruction
c. mental reconstruction d. reconstruction of the
crime
182. Paid informants.
a. anonymous informants c. false informants
b. rival elimination informants d. mercenary informants
183. Most common type of shadowing
a. one man shadow b. two man shadow c. three man shadow
d. rough shadow
184. Articles which are found in connection with the investigation and aid in
establishing the
identity of the perpetrator o the circumstances under which the crime was
committed.
a. tracing evidence b. corpus delicti
c. associative evidence d. physical or material evidence
185. instrumental detection and investigation
a. Ballistic Test b. Fingerprint test c. questioned document test
d.
polygraph testing
186. first action of the police unit upon arrival at thee crime scene of homicide.
a. cordon the area c. verification
of death of the victim
b. prevent contamination of evidence d. conduct an
initial investigation
187. The circumstances which must occur to be classified as a crime.
a. elements of the crime c. motive and intent
b. victim and perpetrator d. desire and opportunity
188. Most common motive in committing a crime
a. fame b. revenge c. passion
d. profit
189. They assume jurisdiction in terms of conducting crime scene investigations.
a. SOCO operatives c. First Police unit who arrived
at the crime scene
b. Investigator on case d. CIDG operatives
190. An official inquiry undertaken by the police on the circumstances surrounding
the death
of a person which is always presumed to be unlawful.
a. Criminal Investigation c. Homicide Investigation
b. Special Crime Investigation d. Murder Investigation
191. Systematic search for facts admissible in court to establish the truth of a
criminal case is
done
a. Crime scene b. Sketch c. Modus operandi
d. None of the above
192. Pertinent information taken down during the conduct of an investigation
a. Criminal investigation c. Criminal interrogation
b. Criminal interview d. None of the above
193. Willful and malicious burning of a building
a. Murder b. Fire crime c. Arson
d. none of the above
194. Movement of people, goods, herded or ridden animals, vehicles and other
conveyances
a. Pedestrian b. Traffic c. Exodus d.
None of the above
195. Summary of the habits, techniques and peculiarities of behavior characterizing
the
operational procedure employed by certain criminals
a. Criminal tactic b. Planning c. Modus operandi d.
None of the above
196. Person whose guilt is being considered on reasonable grounds to be a practical
possibility
a. Criminal b. Accused c. Suspect d.
None of the above
197. Questioning technique of a person who is suspected of having committed a crime
thereby
eliciting information the suspect may have known is called
a. Interrogation b. Investigation c. Interview d.
None of the above
198. Self-incriminating statement falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt
a. Confession b. Acceptance c. Admission d.
None of the above
199. Direct acknowledgment of guilt
a. Confession b. Convection c. Admission d.
None of the above
200. Vitiation of freewill by threats and other methods of instilling fear
a. Duress b. Coercion c. Intimidation d.
None of the above
201. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consume
electrical
current beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system
A. self-closing door
B. jumper
C. overloading
D. oxidizing material
202. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from the floor to floor,
as well as for the
base to the top of the building is called
A. sprinkle evidence
B. vertical shaft
C. flash point
D. standpipe system
203. A wall designated to prevent the spread of fire having a fire resistance
rating of not less than
four hours with sufficient structural stability to remain standing even
if construction on either
side collapses under the fire conditions.
A. Wood rack
B. Fire wall
C. Post wall
D. Fire trap
204. Any act that would remove or naturalized a fire hazard
A. Allotment
B. Combustion
C. Distillation
D. Abatement
205. The ____ shall be conducted as a pre-requisite to grant permits and/or license
by local
governments or other government agencies.
A. Fire safety inspection
B. Fire protection assembly
C. Fire alerting system
D. Fire service
206. An instance that may cause fires from the heat accumulated from the rolling,
sliding or
friction in machinery or between two hard surfaces, at least one of which is
usually a metal is
called.
A. static electricity
B. overheating of machine
C. friction heat
D. heat from arching
207. Method of heat transfer by direct contact
A. nuclear fission
B. conduction
C. convection
D. Radiation
208. Instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant
A. hydrant key
B. kilowatts
C. key board
D. bunch of key
209. Energy is transferred from one body to another by thermal interactions.
A. Fire
B. Smoke
C. Heat
D. Ember
210.The transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement of fluids.
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. None of the above
211. Combustion or burning in which substances combine chemically with oxygen from
the air
and typically give out bright light,heat and smoke.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
212. A hot glowing body of ignited gas that is generated by something on fire.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
213. An extensive fire that destroys a great deal of land or property.
A. Conflagration
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
214. Means on fire or very hot or bright.
A. Flame
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
215. The rapid chemical combination of a substance with oxygen involving the
production of
heat and light.
A. Flame
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
216. The quality of being hot or high temperature at which fuel will continue to
burn for atleast 5
seconds after ignition by an open flame.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
217. The natural agent that stimulates sight and makes things visible.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Light
D. Smoke
218. Is one of the 4 fundamental states of matter, the other being solid,liquid and
gas.
A. Flame
B. Plasma
C. Light
D. Smoke
219. The lowest temperature a which the vapor of a combustible liquid can be
ignited in air.
A. Flash point
B. Ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point
220. Is the temperature at which fuel will continue to burn for at least five
seconds after ignition
by an open flame.
A. Flash point
B. Ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point
221. Economic crime is known as:
a. Blue Collar Crime b. White Collar
Crime
c. Wildlife Smuggling d. Wildlife
trafficking
222. It is a program which pretends to do one thing while actually doing something
completely
different:
a. Trojan horse b. Worm
c. Either of the above d. Neither of
the above
223. In an organized crime, he is the one who makes an arrangement for the killing
and injuring
whether physically, economically and psychology of a member or non-member:
a. Corruptee b. Enforcer
c. Corruptee d. Boss
224. It is a set of doctrines or beliefs that form the basis of political, economic
and other systems:
a. Jihad b. Culture
c. Ideology d. Tradition
225. These are Italian Organized Crime, EXCEPT?
a. The Neopolitan Camora b. Sicilian Mafia
c. Cali Cartel d. Sacra Corona Unita
226. A computer or computer network can be a target, tool or incidental to the
commission of a
crime. Which of these acts make use of a computer only as a tool for an offense?
a. Hacking b. Cracking
c. gambling d. denial of service
227. What is the name of the operation launched by US Navy Seals that killed Osama
Bin
Laden?
a. Operation Geronimo b. Operation Neptune Spear
c. Operation Jabbidah d. Operation Merdeka
228. This terrorist organization is responsible for the bombing of the World Trade
Center:
a. Abu Sayyaf b. Hamas
c. Al Qaeda d. Taliban
229. Which of these acts is not punishable under E-commerce Act of 2000?
a. Internet gambling b. Hacking
c. Cracking d. Denial of service attack
230. This terrorist organization in the Philippines is known as “Back to Islam”:
a. Abu Sayyaf b. Moro Islamic Liberation Front
c. Jemaah Islamiya d. Rajah Solaiman Movement
231. INTERPOL stands for:
a. International Police
b. International Police Criminal Organization
c. International Police Organization
d. International Criminal Police Organization
232. These are the limitations of E-commerce Act of 2000, EXCEPT:
a. It successfully promotes deterrence of cybercrimes
b. Internet Service providers are not obligated to cooperate with law
enforcement agencies
c. Internet cafes/ cyber cafes are not legally required to have logs and
records of their
costumers
d. Telecommunication companies are not legally required to cooperate with
law
enforcement agencies
233. The acronym ISP stands for:
a. Internet selected providers’
b. Internet service providers
c. Intellectual service providers
d. Individual service providers
234. It is a kind of hacking similar to an act of vandalism on public property
where teenagers
ruin public walls in an effort to express their taught publicly.
a. Denial of service attack
b. Web Defacement
c. E-commerce shopping
d. Wire transfer
235. It is an unlawful use of force or violence against persons or property to
intimidate or coerce
a government, the civilian population, or any segment thereof, in furtherance of
political or
social objectives:
a. Taliban b. Terrorist
c. Terrorism d. All of these
236. It is a portfolio of a person/ organization/ entity/ company/ which is posted
on the internet
for accessibility worldwide.
a. Facebook b. Friendster
c. website d. Twitter
237. When responding to cyber related crime, it is okay for a responding officer to
turn off the
computer if it is on.
a. The statement is definitely wrong
b. The statement is definitely correct
c. The statement is partly wrong
d. The statement is partly correct
238. What is meant by ICT in Electronic Commerce Act of 2000?
a. Information Connection Technology
b. Information Communication Technology
c. Internet Communication Technology
d. Internet Connection Technology
239. This legislation is also known as the Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2001.
a. RA 9160 b. RA 9165
c. RA 8551 d. RA 6235
240. It is a term used to describe a massive weapon with the capacity to
indiscriminately kill
large numbers of people.
a. Nuclear b. Weapon of mass destruction
c. Anthrax d. Chemical weapons
241. When an Islamic fundamentalist dies as a true believer of their religion, what
will be their
ultimate reward?
a. Be Rendered twenty one gun salute
b. Be recognized as a hero
c. Be awarded of Medal of Valor
d. d. Heaven
242. He is the first person to be convicted for violation of E-commerce Act of
2000:
a. JJ Maria Giner b. Onel De guzman
c. Francesca Rojas d. People of the Philippines vs. Medina
243. This is the famous case involving the virus created by a Filipino, a dropout
from a popular
computer educational institution in the Philippines, that prompted the passage of
E-commerce
Act 0f 2000:
a. I love You Virus b. Love Bug
c. either of the above d. Neither of the Choices
244. This refers to unauthorized access into or interference in a computer system
or server or
information and communication system; or any access in order to corrupt, alter,
steal or destroy
using a computer:
a. Hacking b. Website Defacement
c. Denial of Service Attack d. Spam
245. In Piracy, “Animo Furandi” has literal meaning of:
a. Intent to steal
b. Intent to hide
c. Intent to gain
d. All of the forgoing
246. It is an act known as the Access Devices Act of 1998:
a. RA 8551 b. RA 8484
c. RA 9160 d. RA 9165
247. It refers to all activities done with criminal intent in cyberspace:
a. Hacking b. Cracking
c. Cyber Crime d. Website defacement
248. It is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without
permission or
knowledge of the user:
a. computer virus b. I love you virus
c. love bug d. Trojan horse
249. It is an illegal intrusion into a computer system without the permission of
the computer
owner/ user:
a. Cracking
b. Online gambling
c. Website defacement
d. Cyber terrorism
250. These are the advantages of electronic mails, EXCEPT:
a. Could be sent to a great number of recipients
b. It is faster and easier
c. The sender can maintain his anonymity
d. It is expensive.
251. These are examples of cybercrimes as violation of E-commerce Act of 2000,
EXCEPT:
a. Web defacement b. Internet Pornography
c. Distributed denial of service attack d. Hacking
252. These are the following countries identified by the United States government
as state
sponsors terrorist, EXCEPT
a. Israel, China and Vietnam
b. Iran, North Korea and Iraq
c. Cuba, Sudan and Libya
d. None of the above
253. It is an act of intruding into a server and changing without permission all
the aspect of a
website which the public can see:
a. Web defacement b. Internet gambling
c. cyber stalking d. all of these
254. One of the international terror groups which is based and active in Asian
coutries including
the Philippines, Jemaah Islamiya (or JI) is considered what kind of Islamic Group?
a. Socialist b. Militant
c.Democratic d. Confrontationist
255. In the study of Organized Crime syndicates, Abusayaff is considered one of
them because
they indulged in what kind of crime in Southern Philippines?
a) Murder
b) Kidnapping with Ransom
c) Fraud/Estafa
d) Robbery
256. In terrorism study, religious fanatics including Islam fundamentalist based in
Middle East
are considered fearful terrorist for the reason that they are not afraid to what?
a. Run
b. Die
c. Confess
d. Surrender
257. Conceptualized in the 1920’s and had its first headquarters in Vienna and now
in Lyon,
France and currently have nearly 200 member countries, INTERPOL means?
a. International Police Organization
b. Intelligence Police Organization
c. International Criminal Procedure
d. Intelligence police-making body
258. So far, the latest bio-terrorism activity that targeted Americans in the
mainland USA was
the sending of letter and package containing what kind of substance?
a. None of the above c. Ebola Virus
b. Anthrax d. Adenine
259. Organized Crime groups deposit their money and other assets in the bank and
other
financial institutions. Which of the following is considered as the initial
stage of money
laundering?
a. Placement c. Night Deposit
b. Integration d. Trading
260. In his report in 2005 as a British member of the parliament and foreign
secretary, Robin
Cook defined Al-Qaeda as “The recruited and trained with the help from the?
a. Soviets c. Christians
b. Americans d. Westerners
261. Which of the following can effectively assist the law enforcement agencies in
combating
organized crime and terrorism?
a. Old soldiers because they merely fade but never die
b. War veterans
c. Criminology educators and other stakeholders
d. Community
262. Only a computer forensic expert should search for the any evidence contained
in the
computer hardware.
a. The statement is absolutely correct
b. The statement is absolutely wrong
c. The statement is partially correct
d. The statement is partially wrong
263. Which of these medium can be used in spreading computer virus?
a. CD
b. Floppy disk
c. Neither of the above
d. Either of the above
264. When an Islamic fundamentalist dies he will be brought to paradise and be
given what?
a. Seventy two angels
b. Seventy angels
c. Seventy two virgins
d. Seventy two old virgins
265. It is the maximum imprisonment for the violation of E-Commerce Act of 2000.
a. 20 years c. 12 years
b. 6 years d. 3 years
266. This refers to information generated, sent, received and stored by electronic,
optical or
similar means:
a. electronic key
b. electronic signature
c. originator
d. electronic data message
267. This refers to any distinctive mark, characteristics and/or sound in
electronic form,
representing the identity of a person and attached to or logically associated
with electronic
data message:
a. Electronic key c. Electronic signature
b. Originator d. Electronic data message
268. Terrorism is categorized as International and ______________ according to
their
capabilities to operate.
a. Islamic Fundamentalist c. Islamic radical
b. Domestic d. Right Wing
269. The convention held at Palermo Italy in 2000 provides that an organized
criminal group
must have a membership of at least ____:
a. Three c. 2 or more
b. Below 3 or more d. 3 or more
270. Chain of custody should be observed by the investigating team of cybercrimes?
a. The statement is wrong c. The statement is
true
b. Yes it is necessary d. All of these
271. Attributes of an organized crime group that means to possess no political
agenda on its
own unlike some terrorist.
a. Hierarchical c. Monopolistic
b. Self- perpetuating d. Non-ideological
272. Organized crime groups are designed to persist through time beyond the lives
of the
current member. What attribute is this?
a. Hierarchical c. Monopolistic
b. Self- perpetuating d. Non-ideological
273. Some historian the origin of the word MAFIA to the Sicilian struggle in the
13th century
against the French rule
a. “all francia morte italia anela”
b. “morte alla francia anela italia”
c. ”morte francia anela italia”
d. “morte alla francia italia anela”
274. A structured group of three or more persons, existing for a period of time and
acting in
concert with the aim of committing one or more serious crimes of offenses in
order to
obtain, directly or indirectly, a financial or other material benefit.
a. Organized crime
b. Criminal organization
c. Professional criminal
d. Organized crime group
275. The illegal activities carried out by an organized criminal group or groups of
persons,
having the aim of committing serious crimes.in order to obtain, directly or
indirectly, a
financial or other material benefit.
a. Organized crime
b. Criminal organization
c. Professional criminal
d. Organized crime group
276. Generic type of organized crime group in which they perpetuated for the
attainment of
direct personal gain bur prey upon unwilling victims.
a. Political graft
b. In-group oriented organized crime
c. Mercenary/Predator organized crime
d. Syndicated crime
277. Comes with a structure organization that participates in illicit activity in
society using
force, or intimidation.
a. Political graft
d. Syndicated crime
278. Committed by political criminals for purposes of gaining profit through
violence or force
for the attainment of political goals. (private armies, buying of votes or
threatening voters)
a. Political graft
d. Syndicated crime
279. Manned by semi-organized individual with the end view of attaining
psychological
gratification (adolescent gangs)
a. Political graft
d. Syndicated crime
280. One who make arrangement for killing and injuring (physically, economically
and
psychologically) the member or non-member.
a. Corruptor
b. Corrupter
c. Enforcer
d. Corruptee
281. One who bribes, buys, intimidates, threatens, negotiates and “sweet talk” into
a
relationship with the police, public officials or anyone else who might help the
member
security and maintain immunity from arrest, prosecution and punishments.
a. Corruptor
b. Corrupter
c. Enforcer
d. Corruptee
282. A public official, usually not a member of the organization family, who can
influence on
behalf of the organization interest.
a. Corruptor
b. Corrupter
c. Enforcer
d. Corruptee
283. The head of the family whose primary functions are maintaining order and
maximizing
profits. Subject only to the possibility of being overruled by the national
advisory group, and
his authority in all matters relating to his Family is absolute.
a. Underboss b. Head c. Consigliere d.
Boss
284. Same level as the underboss but operating in a staff capacity, who is a
counselor or
adviser. Often an elder member of the Family who has partially retired from a
career in
crime, he gives advice to family members, including the boss and the underboss,
and
thereby enjoys considerable influence and power.
Boss
285. The vice-president or deputy director of the Family. He collects information
for the boss;
he relays messages to him; and passes his instructions down to his own
underlings. In the
absence of the boss, the underboss acts for him.
Boss
286. The lowest level “members” of a Family. The soldiers or “bottom” men who
report to the
caporegime. A soldier may operate a particular illicit enterprise.
a. Boss b. Underboss c. Caporegime d. Soldati
287. Organized crime group demonstrate a specific division of labor are because of
the
following except.
a. Punishment b. Security c. Specialty d. Governance
288. Connection or relationship between organized crime group and illegal business
in which
members of criminal organization extort money from illegal entrepreneurs under a
threat of
violence.
a. Parasitic b. Mutualism c. Reciprocal d.
Entrepreneurship
in which
members of a criminal organization require legitimate or illegal entrepreneurs
to pay a fixed
or percentage amount but in return provide services such restricting market
entry, debt
collection, and arbitration.
Entrepreneurship
a member
of a criminal organization provides an illegal good such as drugs or a service
such as
enforcement of restraint of trade agreements.
Entrepreneurship
291. The first organization to bear the label was the Sicilian Mafia based in
Italy, known to its
members as Cosa Nostra.
a. True b. Yes c. No d. False
292. Is the code of silence and secrecy of the Sicilians (Mafiosi) that forbids the
common man,
woman or child to cooperate with the police or government called Hara Kiri?
293. The violation of the code of secrecy of the MAFIA is equivalent to death.
294. Is excellent cadaver pertains to the assassination of prominent government
officials.
295. All except one are the families of MAFIA.
a. Bonnano b. Colombo c. Cali d. Genovese e. Luchese
296. Is Sicilian Mafia considered as the oldest type of Mafia and the 2nd largest.
297. Sacra Corona Unita is considered as the largest type of Mafia.
298. Was a drug cartel based in southern Colombia that was founded by the Rodriguez
brothers, Gilberto (The Chess Player) and Miguel.
a. Sicilian Mafia b. Medellin Cartel c. American Mafia d. Cosa
Nostra
299. It was founded by Pablo Escobar Gaviria. Its highest income in a day is $60
million.
Their operation ends when members of the Columbian National Police, after
being
trained by the US Delta Force and the CIA, hunted and killed most of the
members of the
cartel including its founder and leader, Pablo Escobar in 1993.
a. Sicilian Mafia b. Medellin Cartel c. American Mafia d. Cosa
Nostra
300. Its name was originated from the Japanese card game Oicho Kabu, a card game
that
represents the numbers eight, nine and three (8-9-3) – the total is 20, a
useless number that
means also a bad fortune for the player.
a. Triad b. Mafia c. Yakuza d. Tong
301. A Yakuza ritual, for the first offense, the transgressor must cut off the tip
of his left little
finger and hand the severed portion to the boss as a form of penance.
a. Irezumi b. Pearlings c. Yubitsume d. Oichu kabu
302. Hand-poked full-body tattoos for the members through hand-made and hand-held
tools
with needles of sharpened bamboo or steel.
303. One pearl is inserted into the skin of the penis of the member for every year
in prison.
304. Refers to Chinese societies common mystical symbol; an equilateral triangle
representing
Chinese basic concept of Heaven, Earth and Man.
a. Triad b. Mafia c. Yakuza d. Tong
305. Singapore records the lowest cases of organized activities due to stringent
laws and
severe penalties.
306. Formerly called the Dragon or Kuratong Baleleng Group which usually operates
in
Visayas and Mindanao
a. Bahala na Gang b. Francisco Group c. Pentagon Group d.
Sige-sige Gang
307. It is headed by Tahir Alonto and a creation of the Moro Islamic Liberation
Front (MILF)
and most of the members are also listed as members of the MILF.
a. Bahala na Gang b. Francisco Group c. Pentagon Group d. Sige-
sige Gang
308. A tattoo of a Question Mark (?) is their identity as members of the gang
located in any of
the parts of their body.
sige Gang
309. Is one of the largest Gangs in the Philippines. It has thousands of members
all over the
Philippines.
sige Gang
310. The crimes that have actual or potential effect across national borders and
crimes which
are intra-State but which offend fundamental values of the international
community.
a. National b. International c. Multi-national d.
Transnational
311. Known as the Human Security Act of 2007.
a. RA 9208 b. RA 9372 c. RA 7438 d. RA
8484
312. Category of a terrorist group in which dedicated to the overthrow of an
established order
and replacing it with a new political or social structure.
a. Nationalistic b. Ethnocentric c. Revolutionary d.
Transnational
313. Category of a terrorist group in which ideologies are concerned with the
structure and
organization of the forms of government and communities
a. Nationalistic b. Ethnocentric c. Revolutionary d.
Transnational
314. Religiously motivated terrorists see their objectives as holy writ, and
therefore infallible
and non-negotiable
a. Nationalistic b. International c. Religious d.
Transnational
315. Most common type of terrorist attack because IEDs are inexpensive and easy to
make.
They contain very destructive capability
a. Assassination b. Kidnapping c. Bombing d. High
Jacking
316. One of the most difficult but if successful, can give terrorists money,
release of jailed
comrades, and publicity.
a. Assassination b. Kidnapping c. Bombing d. High
Jacking
317. Is a person who speaks Arabic or who originates from an Arabic-speaking
society.
a. Islam b. Arabic c. Muslim d. Arab
318. A person who submits to god.
a. Islam b. Arabic c. Muslim d. Arab
319. Prophetic saying.
a. Hadith b. Idzma c. Qur’an d. Allah
320. Islamic Bible.
a. Hadith b. Idzma c. Qur’an d. Allah
321. How much percent or weight of alcohol in a person's blood will presumed a
person to be
under the influence of intoxicating liquor?
a. 0.05 percent or less c.0.5 to 0.15 percent
b. 0.15 percent or more d.1.5 percent to 1.5%
322. It is the removal of toxic substances from the body as a result of abusing
drugs:
a. Cleansing process c. abstinence
b. aversion treatment d. detoxification
323. A method of therapy on alcoholism that is based on conversion and fellowship
is?
a. Aversion method
b. Psychotherapy method
c. Program of Alcoholic Anonymous
324. State or condition of a person produced by drinking intoxicating liquors
excessively and
with habitual frequency.
a. Drunkard b. Chronic Alcoholics c. Alcoholism
d. Alcoholic Liquor
325. it is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which lead to depravity,
wickedness
and corruption of the mind and body.
a. prostitution b. gambling c. drug addiction d. vice
326. a degree of intoxication when a drunken person does not know the intoxicating
strength of
the beverage he has taken is:
a. intentional intoxication b. involuntary
intoxication
b. habitual intoxication d. moderate
intoxication
327. It is the process of undergoing or producing gradual chemical which later
becomes sour in
taste. It is a breakdown of complex molecules in organic components caused by the
influence of
the yeast or other substance.
a. distillation b. intoxication c. fermentation d.
adulteration
328. Is the degree of intoxication in which the person is argumentative and
overconfident? There
is a slight impairment of mental difficulties, difficulty of articulation, and loss
of coordination of
finer movements.
a. slight inebriation b. drunk c. moderate inebriation
d. very drunk
329. Within how many minutes after the intake of alcoholic beverage is the
absorption faster?
a. 20 to 30 minutes b. 10 to 20 minutes c. 30 to 60 minutes d. 50 to 60
minutes
330. It is the percentage of alcohol blood which indicates that the person is under
the influence of
the liquor (alcohol)?
a. 0.05 b. 0.15 c. 1.5
d. 0.50
is called?
a. aversion method b. program of alcoholic
anonymous
c. psychotherapy method d. none of the above
332. A school of thoughts which originated in French which maintains the idea that
we cannot
do away with prostitution unless we consider the problems and remove the causes of
prostitution.
a. school of total repression c. school of social
control
b. school of regulatory control d. school of
prostitution anonymous
333. Is the term or name used when referring to all kinds of prostitute.
a. whores b. call girl c. knocker d. pickup girl
334. One who provides gratification for the lust of others? A male procurer of
clients for
prostitutes.
a. pimps b. bugaw c. brothels d. papa sam
335. Is the oldest and the most common type of prostitute.
a. street walker b. call girl c. factory girl d. pick-up girl
336. Professional type of prostitutes. She maybe a bar or tavern “pick-up” or a
“street walker”.
a. hustler b. call girl c. factory girl d. pick up girl
337. This is the occasional or selective type of prostitute. She is usually a
newcomer in the
business oftentimes; they are motivated by extreme desire for money due to poverty
or
supporting their other vices.
a. hustler b. call girl c. factory girl d. door knocker
338. Usually ridges several number of factory girls or professional prostitutes and
under the
control of an organized crime ring.
a. massage clinic b. furnished room house c. call houses d.
disorderly houses
339. Usually operated by an experienced “madam” who rent rooms to legitimate
roomers in
order to maintain an appearance of responsibility Purposely, the madam leaves
several rooms not
rented to legitimate roomers for ready use of the prostitution.
disorderly houses
340. This is where the customers call and the madam makes the arrangement and sends
the girls
by a transporter who is a man or woman to the place arrangement.
disorderly houses
341. These houses are operated under a licensed or permit issued by the government
but acts as a
front for prostitution where the act maybe done or as per arrangement.
disorderly houses
342. llegal numbers game where the winning combination is derived from the results
of the last
game of Jai Alai or the Special Llave portion
a. masiao b. last two c. cock fighting d. illegal number
games
343. Any person who lends or provides protection, or receives benefits in any
manner in the
operation of any illegal numbers game.
a. bettor c. protector c. maintainer d. agent
344. Any person, who places bets for himself/herself or in behalf of another
person, other than
the personnel or staff of any illegal numbers game operation.
a. bettor c. protector c. maintainer d. agent
345. Penalizing Betting, Game-fixing or point shaving and Machinations in Sports
Contents.
Approved on June 13, 1974.
a. PD 843 b. PD 348 c. PD 438 d. PD 483
346. They serve as the permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drug Board.
a. PDEA Director General and PNP Director General
b. NBI Director and PDEA Director
c. PNP Director and PDEA Director
d. Secretary of the DILG and Secretary of Justice
347. Otherwise known as “The Revised Penal Code of the Philippines”
a. RA 3815 b. Act 3815 c. RA 9346 d. RA 4136
348. Otherwise known as “The Anti-Bouncing Check Law”
a. BP 22 c. PD 22
b. BP 85 d. Act 4103
349. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as mother drugs of other
Narcotics
substances.
a. Codeine b. Heroin c. Morphine d. Opium Poppy
350. Otherwise known as “Anti-Wire Tapping Law”
a. RA 6975 c. RA 4200
b. RA 7438 d. RA 6809
351. The term of office of the Chairman of the Dangerous Drug Board.
a. 2 years b. 7 years c. 6 years
d. 4 years
352. Otherwise known as “The DILG Act of 1990”
a. RA 6975 b. RA 5487 c. RA 3019 d. RA 6235
353. These drugs are highly addictive but, despite the risk, they remain in medical
use because
no satisfactory non-addictive alternative medication is available example of
these drugs are
AMP, morphine and barbituates.
a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d.
Schedule IV e. Schedule V
354. PDEA is the implementing arm of the Dangerous Drug Board.
a. Yes b. True c. No d. False
355. Otherwise known as the “Dangerous Drug Act of1972”
a. RA 9165 b. RA 6425 c. RA 3019 d. RA 5487
356. The composition of the DDB is the following: __ regular member, __ permanent
member, __ex-officio member.
a. 2, 2, 12 b. 12,3, 2 c. 3, 2, 12 d. 2, 3, 12
357. Otherwise known as “Anti Fencing Law”
a. PD 1602 b. PD 1619 c. PD 1612 d. PD 1184
358. All except one are the legal classifications of drug.
a. Prohibited b. Regulated c. Narcotics d. Volatile substances
359. The “Local Government Code”
a. RA 9165 b. RA 7160 c. RA 3019 d. RA 5487
360. The group of drugs that are considered to be mind altering and gives the
general effect of
mood distortion are generally called
A. Sedatives
B. Hypnotic
C. Hallucinogens
D. Tranquillizers
361. Drugs like glue, gasoline, kerosene, ether, paint, thinner, etc. are called:
A. Solvents
B. Deliriants
C. Inhalants
D. All of these
362. Cocaine is a stimulant drug; LSD is a
A. Hallucinogen
B. Narcotic
C. Solvent
D. Depressant
363. What opium preparation is combined with camphor to produce a household remedy
for
diarrhea and abdominal pain?
A. Tincture of opium
B. Raw opium
C. Paregoric
D. Granulated opium
364. The group of drugs that when introduced into the system of the body can
produce mental
alertness and wakefulness .
A. Stimulants
B. Uppers
C. Speeds
D. All of these
365. The hallucinogenic alkaloid from a small Mexican mushroom used by Mexican
Indians
to induce nausea and muscular relaxation is called:
A. Psilocybin
B. STP
C. DMT
D. Ibogaine
366. What do you call the most powerful natural stimulant?
A. Erythroxylon coca
B. Heroin
C. Beta Eucaine
D. Cocaine Hydrochloride
367. What is the most important constituent of opium?
A. Morphine
B. Heroin
C. Codeine
D. Cocaine
368. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?
A. Heroin
B. Cocaine
C. Marijuana
D. Shabu
369. Which of the following is a drug known in the street as “angel
dust”
A. Mescaline
B. Diethyltryptamine
C. Phencyclidine
D. Psilocybin
370. In its pure form, it is white and made up of shinu, colorless crystals and
called "snow" in
the junkle jargon. Is it a drug from the coca leaves of coca, A south American
Shurb. It is a
central nervous system stimulant. Its use is also referred to as "the king's
habit".
a. Opium b. marijuana c. Shabu
d. Cocaine
371. This refers to the group of drugs which affect the central nervous
system, producing
perceptual alterations, intense and varying emotional changes and thought
disruption.
a. narcotics b. depressant c.hallucinogens
d. stimulants
372. Otherwise known as “The Anti Hi-Jacking Law”/ “Anti-Highway Robbery”
a. RA 6975 b.RA 5487 c.RA 3019 d. RA
6235
373. Otherwise known as “ Anti-Illegal Gambling”
a. PD 1602 b. PD 1619 c. PD 1612 d. PD
1184
374. This serves as the implementing arm of the Board and it shall be responsible
for the
efficient and effective law enforcement of all the provisions of the
Comprehensive
Dangerous Drug Act of 1992.
a. Dangerous Drug Board
b. Drug Enforcement Unit
c. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
d. Anti-Narcotics Command
375. Act Defining the Rights of the Person under Custodial Investigation
a. RA 9165 b. RA 7438 c. RA 3019 d. RA 5487
376. The group of drugs that are considered to be
mind altering and gives the general effect of
mood distortion are generally called
A. Sedatives
B. Hypnotic
C. Hallucinogens
D. Tranquillizers
377. Drugs like glue, gasoline, kerosene, ether, paint, thinner, etc. are called:
A. Solvents
B. Deliriants
C. Inhalants
D. All of these
378. Cocaine is a stimulant drug; LSD is a
A. Hallucinogen
B. Narcotic
C. Solvent
D. Depressant
379. What opium preparation is combined with camphor to produce a household remedy
for
diarrhea and abdominal pain?
A. Tincture of opium
B. Raw opium
C. Paregoric
D. Granulated opium
380. The group of drugs that when introduced into the system of the body can
produce
mental alertness and wakefulness
A. Stimulants
B. Uppers
C. Speeds
D. All of these
381. The hallucinogenic alkaloid from a small Mexican mushroom used by Mexican
Indians
to induce nausea and muscular relaxation is called:
A. Psilocybin
B. STP
C. DMT
D. Ibogaine
382. What do you call the most powerful natural stimulant?
A. Erythroxylon coca
B. Heroin
C. Beta Eucaine
D. Cocaine Hydrochloride
383. What is the most important constituent of opium?
A. Morphine
B. Heroin
C. Codeine
D. Cocaine
384. What drug is known as the "assassins of the youth"?
A. Heroin
B. Cocaine
C. Marijuana
D. Shabu
385. The presence of drug paraphernalia at the drug scene
in the form of syringe and needle,
tourniquet, spoon or bottle top "cookies" and tinfoil packet reveals
that the drug being
administered are:
A. tablet drugs
B. capsule drugs
C. liquid drugs
D. marijuana leaves
386. From among the following, which is correct?
A. RA 6975, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
which took effect on June 7, 2002
B. RA 9165, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
which took effect on July 4, 2002
C. RA 6975, Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972, took effect on
March 2, 1972
D. RA 6425, Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which took effect on
July 4, 2002
387. The drug that is obtained from the alkaloid of the leaves of the Erythorxylon
coca and the
other species of Erthroxlon Linne, or by synthesis from ecgoine and its
derivatives is called:
A. Heroin
B. Sodium Carbonate
C. Codeine
D. Cocaine
388. The presence of the symptom of alcohol intoxication with out smell of
alcoholic breath is
a sign that the suspected person is under the influence of:
A. Amphetamine drug
B. Barbiturates
C. Hallucinogens
D. Narcotics
389. The burning of a small quantity of the suspected substance and
determining the odor or
smell having similar to burnt banana leaves or has a sweetish odor is a field
test that can
reveal the drug ___.
A. Marijuana
B. Opium
C. Coca leaves
D. Peyote Cactus
390. Bennies and dexies are for amphetamines; red devils and double trouble are
for ___.
A. Demerol
B. Sulfates
C. Barbiturates
D. Deliriants
391. It is an act of introducing any dangerous drugs into the body of any person
with or
without his/her knowledge either by injection (hypodermically/intravenously),
inhalation
(nose), ingestion (mouth) or other means.
a. Administer b. Dispense c. Use d. Deliver
392. Deliberate use of medically useful drugs which have the capacity to alter mood
and
behavior without the benefit of a prescription.
a. Drug Dependency b. Drug Addiction c. Drug Tolerance
d. Drug Abuse
393. The amount needed to treat or heal, that is, the smallest amount of drug that
will produce
a therapeutic effect.
a. Maximal dose b. Lethal dose c. Minimal dose
d. Toxic dose
394. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes its
detection quite
difficult. Various techniques were made by its operator in concealing their
activities.
a. Hide-out operation c. Clandestine operation
b. Disguised operation d. Confidential
395. Also known as “The Revised Penal Code of the Philippines”.
a. RA 3815 b. RA 3518 c. Act 3518 d. Act 3815
396. Any chemically active substance rendering a specific effect on the central
nervous system
of man.
a. Stimulants b. Depressants c. Hallucinogens d. Drugs
397. The law that classified drugs into two categories: Prohibited and Regulated.
a. RA 9165 b. RA 6425 c. RA 6975 d. RA 9995
398. The amount of drug that produces untoward effect or symptoms of poisoning.
Maximal dose b. Lethal dose c. Minimal dose
399. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of heroin in Asia is the so called
Golden
Triangle where 80% of the illicit drugs of the world originate. This lies on the
border of?
a. Thailand-Laos-Burma c. Iran-Afghanistan-Pakistan
b. Thailand-Laos-Myanmar d. Peru-Columbia-Pakistan
400. An analytical test using some tools or device design to validate or affirm the
result of a
preliminary or screening test.
a. Screening test c. Confirmatory test
b. Physical test d. Chemical test
401. A type of drugs according to pharmacological classification which often
relieves pain and
induces sleepiness.
a. Hallucinogens c. Stimulants
b. Sedatives d. Narcotics
402. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain
active
components known as Tetrahydro-cannabinol?
a. Mescaline c. Marijuana
b. Ecstacy d. LSD
403. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other
narcotics substance.
a. Codeine b. Heroin c. Morphine d. Opium poppy
404. Refers to the group of drugs that increase alertness also referred to as
“upper”?
a. Stimulants c. Cocaine
b. Caffeine d. Shabu
405. Severe craving for the drug even to the point of interfering with the person’s
ability to
function normally.
a. Habituation b. Tolerance c. Addiction d. Abuse
406. Exhibited when a user relies on a drug to achieve a feeling of well- being.
a. Drug dependence c. Physical dependence
b. Psychological dependence d. Mental dependence
407. Those who use drugs to keep them awake or for additional energy to perform an
important work. Individual may or may not exhibit psychological dependence.
a. Spree user b. Hippies c. Hard core addicts d. Situational
user
408. Those, whose activities revolve almost entirely around the drug experience and
securing
supplies, they show strong psychological dependence on the drug.
a. Spree user b. Hippies c. Hard core addicts d. Situational
user
409. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are quickly absorbed by the rich
capillary
system, it is probably the second most commonly used route of drug
administration.
a. Snorting b. Injection c. Inhalation d. Suppositories
410. The drug is administered by placing them in the buccal cavity just under the
lips and the
active ingredients of the drug will be absorbed into the bloodstream through the
soft tissues
lining of the mouth.
a. Snorting b. Injection c. Buccal d. Suppositories
411. Curiosity or the desire to experience a new state of consciousness. Escape
from physical
and mental pain, relief from boredom and frustration, and desire to escape from
harsh
realities. Unable to conform to social standards; weak personality or low sense
of self-
esteem.
a. Poverty b. Ignorance c. Peer Influence d.
Personality factors
412. Inhalation through the nose of drugs not in gaseous form, it is sometimes
inhaling a
powder or liquid drug into the nose coats of the mucous membrane.
a. Snorting b. Injection c. Inhalation d. Suppositories
413. This is the most prevalent factor that prompt pushers and abusers alike to
indulge in
dangerous drugs.
a. Poverty b. Ignorance c. Peer Influence d.
Personality factors
414. It refers to the illegal process through which narcotics and other illegal
drugs are
produced, transported, and sold.
a. Drug abuse b. Drug education c. Drug Smuggling d. Drug
Trafficking
415. In Southeast Asia the “_________” approximately produced 60% of opium in the
world,
90% of opium in the eastern part of Asia. It is also the officially acknowledged
source of
Southeast Asian Heroin.
a. Golden Crescent b. Golden Pyramid c. Silver Triangle d.
Golden
Triangle
416. In Southwest Asia the “________” is the major supplier of Opium poppy,
Marijuana and
Heroin products in the western part of Asia. It produces at least 85% to 90% of
all illicit
heroin channeled in the drug underworld market.
a. Golden Crescent b. Golden Pyramid c. Silver Triangle d.
Golden
Triangle
417. This is known as the major transshipment point from international drug
traffickers in
Europe and became “the paradise of drug users in Europe”.
a. Europe b. Spain c. Middle East d.
Philippines
418. The second in Mexico as to the production of Marijuana.
a. Europe b. Spain c. Middle East d.
Philippines
419. Almost all the drugs in this schedule are illegal. All have a high potential
for dependence
and abuse, and it is illegal to have them in your possession.
a. Schedule 2 b. Schedule 4 c. Schedule 3 d.
Schedule 1
420. These drugs are highly addictive but, despite the risk, they remain in medical
use because
no satisfactory non-addictive alternative medication is available.
Ex. Cocaine, AMP, morphine and barbiturates.
a. Schedule 2 b. Schedule 4 c. Schedule 3 d.
Schedule 1
421. Yardstick of an effective traffic law enforcement program.
a. Smooth traffic flow
b. Increased traffic enforcement action
c. Less traffic law enforcement officers deployed with the same output
d. Reduction of traffic accidents and delays
422. A suspected drunk driver should undergo this last test.
a. a. Pupils of the eyes b. Walking and turning
b. c. Breath test d. Balance test
423. When traffic officer halts a driver for traffic violation, the remark “do you
know why I
called your attention” should be avoided, mainly because:
a. Implies corruption c. It is a presumption that it is
false arrest action
b. It is leading question d. It invites a denial on the part
of the traffic law
violator
424. A traffic patrol not engaged in taking action against a particular violator;
should without
any instruction:
a. Keep off congested routes but in a location to spot traffic violations
b. Park in position visible to motorist to act as deterrent
c. Use its own discretion in achieving maximum efficiency
d. Maintain visible patrol continuously
425. Most common defect attributed to the human element in cases of traffic
vehicular
accidents.
a. Intellectual b. Decision
c. Perceptual d. Attitudinal
426. This represents the ration of traffic arrests, citations and warnings to the
frequency of
traffic accidents.
a. Enforcement tax b. Crime index
b. c. Non index crime d. Crime rate
427. It is the sum of indulgence or restraint by the public in judging the
reasonableness of the
traffic enforcement program.
a. Traffic tolerance c. Fair play enforcement
b. In the hole enforcement d. all of the foregoing
428. It refers to the practice of traffic law enforcers to hide in places where
they await traffic
violations.
a. In the hole enforcement c. Fair play enforcement
b. Traffic tolerance d. None of the above
429. The installation of traffic lights will logically result to decrease in:
a. Accidents involving right way c. Cross traffic accidents
b. Accidents of confusion d. Accidents due to drunk
driving
430. Statistically it is considered at the most common reason for public utility
vehicular
accidents.
a. Not observing the proper distance and following too close
b. Unnecessary speed
c. Recklessness
d. Discussion regarding fare
431. A passenger AUV skidded on a wet pavement, injuring several bystanders in the
process.
In making the report, apparent good condition should not be employed in
reference to.
a. The injured by-standers b. The brakes c. The
driver d. The tires
432. The predominant factor which causes traffic accidents.
a. Traffic educational background of the traffic law violators
b. Human behavior
c. Unsafe road conditions
d. Speeding
433. The best determine the proper distribution of personnel the best criterion
would be the
number of:
a. Fatal accidents c. Accidents involving negligence
b. reported accidents d. Amount of traffic using the public
road
434. The standard behind selective enforcement in traffic control.
a. A warning for minor offense
b. Direction of enforcement activities to areas prone to traffic danger
c. Selection of strategic areas for strict enforcement
d. Concentration of enforcement activities during peak traffic hours
435. The fundamental rule in traffic accident investigation.
a. Consider road conditions c. Consider the degree of
damage or injury
b. Look for the key event d. Consider the violation of
traffic law
436. In implementing new parking regulations it is most advisable to utilize.
a. verbal warning b. Written warning
c. Issue citation d. Traffic arrest
437. It is considered as the most effective deterrent to traffic accidents.
a. Regular maintenance and check-up of the traffic units
b. Increase insurance premium
c. Arrest and prosecution of traffic law violators
d. Decrease car insurance liability to a minimum
438. In metro Manila the responsibility for developing traffic program primarily
rest with:
a. Department of Transportation and Communication
b. Land Transportation Office
c. Metro Manila Development Authority
d. Land Transportation Franchising Regulatory Board
439. In the Independence Day parade, a traffic officer is instructed not to allow
vehicles to
cross the route where the parade is to pass, however and ambulance vehicle with
an injured
passenger is about to cross the route, the traffic law enforcement officer
should:
a. Direct the driver to the nearest short cut without passing the route
b. Follow the order not to allow any vehicle to cross the route
c. Stop the parade to allow the ambulance to cross the street
d. Call his superior office for the prompt decision
440. It has been observed that the intersection of Lacson and Dimasalang has more
traffic
accidents that any other area in your jurisdiction, the traffic law enforcement
officer assigned
in that area should advised to
a. Park near the intersection within view of passing vehicles to act as
deterrent
b. Park near the intersection hidden from view to surprise traffic law
violators
c. Give an extra attention to the particular intersection but cruise all areas
within his
jurisdiction
d. Park his vehicle in the center of the intersection to help control and
direct traffic flow.
441. Foremost among the preliminary action when the officer receives a call
regarding the
occurrence of an accident.
a. Number of injured c. Name of the victim
b. Seriousness of the injury d. When and where the accident
occurred
442. In interview persons involved in a traffic accident what is the primary
consideration to be
taken by the police investigator.
a. Conduct each interview separately
b. Listen to both sides
c. Listen only to witness because they are not biased
d. Conduct the interview jointly
443. Skid marks as evidence in accident cases would show:
a. If the vehicle was traveling in the wrong direction or on the wrong slide
of the roa
b. If the driver failed to observe the right of way
c. If the driver did not obey the traffic signal
d. All of the foregoing
444. Refers to the distance traveled before applying the brakes.
a. Coefficient of friction b. Drag factor
c. Maximum accident speed d. Reaction time
445. The measurement of the maximum frictional resistance of pavements.
a. a. Skid marks b. Scuff marks
c. Drag factor d. Reaction time
446. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection at the same time that
shall yield the
right of way as a general rule.
a. The driver on the right c. The faster vehicle
b. The driver on the left d. the slower vehicle
447. An executive function, which includes planning, directing, organizing,
supervising,
coordinating, operating, recording and budgeting the affairs of traffic.
a. Traffic management c. Traffic law enforcement
b. Traffic supervision d. all of the foregoing
448. Agency which regulates and prescribes transport reroutes for public utility
vehicles.
a. LTFRB b. LTO
c. DOTC d. MMDA
449. A traffic control signal by which traffic is alternately commanded to stop and
permitted
to precede it accordance with a predetermined time schedule.
a. Fixed time signal c. Alternative system.
b. Simulated system d. Simple progressive system
450. Number of days which constitutes the physical cycle or man’s cycle of
strength.
a. 21 b. 23 c. 28 d. 33
451. It refers to the right to proceed ahead of another vehicle or pedestrian?
a. Right-of-way b. Last clear chance c. go
d. all of the
above
452. It is an accident wherein one or more person was seriously injured or has died
as a result
of the mishap. In the traffic accident investigation how is it classified?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5
453. It is an accident, which always accompanied by an unidentified road user who
usually
flees immediately after said collision.
a. Hit and run accident
b. Motor vehicle non traffic accident
c. Motor vehicle traffic accident
d. d. Non Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
454. It refers to the separation of traffic units involved in a vehicular accident.
a. Final position b. Hazards
c. Disengagement d. Stopping
455. It is the place and time at which the normal person could perceive the unusual
or
unexpected condition or movement.
a. Point of no escape c. Perception of hazards
b. Point of possible perception d. all of the above
456. It is a regulation which prescribe proper conduct and decorum during
confrontation with
or of traffic law
a. Memorandum circular 19-05 c. Memorandum circular 19-0005
b. Memorandum circular 19-005 d. Section 55 of RA 4136
457. In cases wherein a vehicle on the traffic way suddenly stopped due to engine
failure.
What would be then duration period of the validity of the citation given by the
enforcer?
a. 2 days b. 1 day c. 72 hours d. 7
days
458. What refers to an occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces
unintended
death, injury or property damage?
a. Motor vehicle traffic accidents
b. Non motor vehicle non traffic accident
c. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
d. Accident
459. It is defined as telling the drivers and pedestrians when, how and where they
may or may
not move or stand at a particular place.
a. Traffic supervision b. Traffic direction
c. Traffic control d. All of the above
460. It is a means to control the movement of vehicles, pedestrians at certain
point of a certain
area by mechanical objects or manpower.
a. Traffic supervision b. Traffic direction
c. Traffic control d. All of the above
461. Prohibitive signs and restrictive signs shall have:
a. Green background with white and black symbols
b. White background with black symbols and red border
c. Red background with white symbols and red border
d. Blue background and white symbol
462. It refers to any motor vehicle accident occurring on a place other than
traffic way.
a. Motor vehicle traffic accident
b. Non motor vehicle non traffic accident
c. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
d. Non motor vehicle traffic accident
463. What are physical channels within the roadway, which are constructed to
establish
physical channels thru which vehicular traffic is guided without the use of
signals?
a. Traffic signs b. traffic Islands c. Pavement markings
d.
Traffic signals
464. A term used to denote any vehicle used for commercial purposes without any
franchise.
a. Tricycle b. FX c. Mega taxi
d. Colorum
465. What is the real objective of traffic enforcement?
e. To apprehend traffic law violators
f. To improve safety traffic conditions
g. To change the wrong driving habits and attitude of violators
h. To prevent traffic accidents
466. Common cycle length is used at each intersection and the Go indication is
given
independently in accordance to the time along the street at a designed speed.
i. Flexible progressive system c. Simulated system
j. Simple progressive system d. Alternative system
467. All signals along a given street always show the same indication at the same
time.
k. Flexible progressive system c. Simulated system
l. Simple progressive system d. Alternative system
468. A power operated traffic control device by which traffic is warned or directed
to take some
specific action.
a. Traffic signs b. Warning lights c. Traffic Islands
d. Traffic light
signals
468. Period of validity of a professional driver’s license which may be renewable
every 3 birth
months of succeeding years and automatically expires if not renewed on due date.
a. One year b. Two years c. Three years
d. Four years
469. Refers to seeing , feeling or hearing and understanding an unusual or
unexpected
condition indicative of a sign that an accident might take place.
a. Perception of hazard c. Initial contact
b. Start of evasive action d. Maximum engagement
470. In hit and run investigation, what should be the initial step or phase in the
investigative
process?
a. Gather the evidence c. Cordon
area
b. Establish the identity of the persons involved d. check the
victim for
injuries
471. Common type of thing carried away in cases of burglary and hit and run
vehicular
accident.
a. Glass b. Blood c. Hair d.
Metal
472. All lines, patters, words or other gadgets EXCEPT signs set into the surface
or applied
upon or attached to the pavement or curbing officially place for the purpose of
regulating
traffic is called.
a. Pavements marking b. Traffic accidents c.
Traffic signs
d. Traffic engineering
473. Any motor vehicle accident that result in injuries other that fatal to one or
more persons.
a. Non-fatal injury accident c. Fatal accident
b. Traffic accident d. Property damage
accident
474. Refers to traffic signs intended to warn road users of special obligations.
a. Danger warning signs b. Regulatory signs c. Informative signs d.
Mandatory
signs
475. It includes pedestrian, pedal cyclist, drives and passengers utilizing the
public roads.
a. Road users b. Road users system c. Traffic system d.
Enforcement system
476. Traffic warning is an enforcement action which does not contemplate possible
assessments of penalty by the court or otherwise as a result of a warning
alone. What kind of
activities it represents?
a. Preventive activities b. Punitive activities c. Persuasive activitie
d. all of the above
477. It refers to a dangerous conduct and attitude, which indicates lack concern
for injurious
consequences likely to result from such a behavior.
a. Drunk driving b. Reckless driving c. reckless imprudence d. Reckless
negligence
478. It is wholly police responsibility and entails looking for defects in the
behavior of the
motorist, pedestrian, vehicles and roadway condition.
a. Apprehension b. Defection c. Adjudication
d. Prosecution
479. Hazardous traffic law violators are:
a. Unsafe condition and unsafe behavior c.
Disregarding safety of
others
b. Physically handicapped drivers d. Obstructions
480. The theory which asserts that man exhibits a constant variation of life energy
and mood
state.
a. Biorhythm b. last clear chance c. Right of way d. None of
the foregoing
481. A number representing the resistance to sliding of t5wo surfaces in contact is
known as:
a. Attribute b. Traffic jam c. Contact damage d.
Coefficient of friction
482. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or
otherwise to
avoid hazard.
a. Final position c. Start of evasive action
b. Point of possible perception d. Point of no escape
483. Key to determining which traffic unit first tried to prevent the motor vehicle
accident, this
marking is made while the wheel is still turning
a. Pavement markings b. Skid marks c. Scuff marks
d. All of the
above
484. As a rule, traffic control device and aids have elementary requirements before
they are
installed on the roadway, which among the following is not considered as a
requirement for
such device?
a. They should compel attention
b. They should convey meaning which are simple and easy to understand
c. They should command respect
d. They should not allow time for proper response
485. If a traffic law enforcer would decide to arrest a traffic law violator, what
would not be
his basis for such action?
a. The offense is serious
b. Detention is necessary to avoid continued violation
c. There is a reasonable doubt that the person will appear in the court
d. The offender would attend the hearing
486. What is the goal of Traffic safety education for drivers?
a. To give them basis regarding traffic safety
b. To give them actual application of traffic safety knowledge
c. It is a pre-requisite for license
d. To impart traffic morality to drives for safe movement on public roads
487. They are the objects commonly left at the scene of the collision involved
accidents.
a. Debris b. Scuff marks c. Skid marks
d. Hazards
488. It is an enforcement action, wherein the violator is command to appear in
court, but
without detaining him
a. traffic arrest b. Traffic citation c. Traffic warning d. All
of the above
489. It is the last part of the enforcement process wherein penalties are imposed
by the court to
parties found guilty of an offense pertaining to traffic law violation.
a. Adjudication b. Apprehension c. Penalization d.
Prosecution
490. Vehicle speed as calculated from skid marks is usually best taken as an
indication of
a. Average speed during the skid c. Maximum speed at the end of
the skid
b. Minimum speed at the start of the skid d. Minimum speed at the end of
the skid
491. The minimum safe traveling distance between two vehicles traveling 40 mph
is
a. Four car lengths b. Two car lengths c. Six car length d.
Three car lengths
492. The main reason why both traffic officers and signal lights are used on some
intersections
is that
a. Traffic can be kept moving at a faster rate
b. Greater safety to pedestrians and motorist is effected
c. As officer can stop and start traffic is necessity demands
d. Motorists are discouraged from “jumping signals”
493. Form the standpoint of the police administrator, of the following, the most
advantage of
two-wheel motorcycles for traffic work is generally the
a. Objections of the motorists c. Hazard to the
operator
b. Limited equipment they can carry d. Maintenance
expenses
494. A number of traffic regulations revolve around the question of right of way.
For practical
purposes, one of the following is the best definition of the term right of way
a. The personal right to move from one place to another
b. The privilege of the immediately use as a particular section of the
highway
c. A way or place open to the motorists and pedestrians
d. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space which at that time is occupied
by another
vehicle
495. Within the human element which is at fault in large majority of vehicular
accidents, the
most important defect is generally attributed to
a. Attitudinal b. intellectual c. Perceptual d.
Decision
496. The effectiveness of a traffic law enforcement program is best measured by
a. A reduction of traffic accidents and delays
b. An increase in traffic enforcement actions
c. A decreases in the ration of convictions to enforcement actions
d. Smooth flow of the traffic
497. An officer has stopped a traffic offender. As an initial remark the officer
says, “Do you
know why I stooped you?” This remark is undesirable under these conditions
mainly because
a. It could be used as evidence in a false arrest action c.
It is a leading
question
b. It invites a denial and subsequent loss of face by the offender d.

It is a password
for
corruption
498. Where two or more emergency vehicles, operating as such, approach the same
intersection from different directions, creating a probability conflict, an
officer directing
traffic at the intersection must give preference to one and cause the others to
yield the right
way. Of the following, the type of vehicle which should generally be given
preference over
any of the others is the
a. Ambulance b. Police car c. Fire truck
d. Wrecker
499. A unit is assigned to patrol, and is given no special instructions as to
manner of patrol.
During a period when traffic is heavy, the unit when not engaged in taking
action against a
specific violator is expected to
a. Park in a position readily visible to the motorists
b. Maintain “visible patrol” continuously
c. Use its own discretion as to what manner of patrol will yield best
results under the
circumstances
d. Keep off the most congested routes but in a position where it can observe
violations
effectively
500. In testing a suspected intoxicated driver, which one of the following tests
should be given
last?
a. Handwriting b. Balance c. Pupils of eyes
d. Walking and
turning
501. Which of the following approved in issuing a citation to a traffic violator,
where the
violator remains seated at the driver’s wheel of his vehicle throughout the
entire process?
a. Stand on the curb alongside the police vehicle when actually writing the
citation
b. Place foot or hand on the vehicles as means of reducing an awkward
differential in
height between officer and violator
c. Ask the violator if he realizes why he was stopped
d. Immediately after stating the violation, explain the accident hazard
involves in it
502. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic accidents than
any other in the
area. The police unit assigned to the area should
a. Park near the intersection, in plain view and wait for violators
b. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to the intersection
c. Park near the intersection, more or less, hidden from view
d. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution motorists
503. A traffic police officer stationed along the route of a parade has been
ordered by his
superior to allow no cars to cross the route. While the parade is in progress,
an ambulance
driver on emergency rum attempts to drive his ambulance across the rout while
the parade is
passing. Under these circumstances the traffic police officer should
a. Stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to cross the street
b. Direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which will add at
least ten minutes
to run
c. old up the ambulance in accordance with the superior’s order
d. Ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contacts his
superior and obtains
a decision
504. A general principle of traffic accident investigation is to
a. Look for the “key event” that cause the accident and investigate any two-
car collision
as if it were two accidents, each with its own causes
b. Regard any unfavorable factor, existing immediately prior to the
accident, as a cause
c. Consider violations as primary causes and any other factors as secondary
causes
d. Consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than as causes
505. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is
a. Selection of geographic areas fro strict enforcement
b. Direction of enforcement activities to those points of greatest traffic
danger
c. Concentration of enforcement activities as peak traffic hours
d. A warning rather than a citation will act as a preventive for future
violation
506. It would be most correct to state that a very thorough investigation of
traffic accidents,
which would probably include technical measurements and procedures should be
undertaken
a. Principally for the purpose of obtaining evidence for presentation
b. For all traffic accidents regardless of the extent of personal of
property damage
c. Only when a person is killed in an accident or dies as a result of
injuries received in
the accident
d. All of the above
507. The responsibility for developing a traffic program rests primarily with
a. Headquarters of the Police Department c. City
Mayor’s Office
b. The top level of Police Traffic Management d. All of the
foregoing
508. The most effective way to reduce to number of traffic accidents is to
a. Arrest and prosecute traffic violators
b. Increase the premium of insurance and decrease the car insurance
liability to a
minimum
c. Frequent checks on all cars fro mechanical defects
509. With respect to minor traffic violations, the traffic police officer should be
guided
foremost by the consideration that
a. The aim is to discourage violations c. Some traffic
violations are caused
by negligence
b. Violations must be punished d. Some traffic
violations are
intended
510. From among the following measures, on is the most effective in police campaign
directed
at a new parking regulations
a. Written warning b. Citation c. Verbal warning
d. all
of the foregoing
511. The best measures of the effectiveness of police traffic control is the
a. Number of fines and prosecuted for traffic violations
b. Number of citation issued
c. Automobile accident rate
d. Existence of numbers of insurance adjusters
512. The following are the three basic approaches to a traffic safety program
a. Money, management and machinery c. Road,
route and rescue
b. Education, enforcement and engineering d. All of the
foregoing
513. One important purpose of accident investigation is to ascertain the personal
circumstances of traffic violators whoa are involved in the traffic accidents.
Information of
this sort is in turn useful in
a. Traffic and fund raising
b. Basis for traffic educational program
c. Determining the need fro engineering improvements
d. Deploying traffic enforcement officers
e. All of the foregoing
514. The best accident rate criterion for purposes of distribution of personnel is
the number of
a. Accidents involving criminal negligence c. Reported
accidents
b. Fatal accidents d. Accidents
with result in
injuries
515. The overwhelming factor in causing traffic accidents is
a. Human behavior, leading to traffic violations
b. Physical and mental fatigue
c. Combination of drinking and speeding
d. Educational background of traffic violators
516. Which one of the following types of accidents is most decreased by the
installation of
traffic lights
a. Accident of confusion
b. Accident of decision of right of way
c. Cross traffic accident
d. Misunderstanding between motorist and traffic officers
517. In interviewing parties involved in a traffic accident, the investigator
should talk to them
a. At the same time, but insisting that they tell their stories one at a
time
b. Separately, which the others are not hearing but in view
c. Separately, so that others are not aware of the interview
d. At the same time, so that each may correct mistakes in the others
statement
e. All of the foregoing
518. Several persons were injured as a result of a bus skidding on a wet pavement.
In
preparing an accident report, the term “Apparently in good condition” should not
be used in
reference to
a. The brakes b. an injured passenger c. The tires
d. the
operator
519. The greatest single cause of taxi cabs traffic accidents is attributed to
a. Conversation with the fare c.
Unnecessary speed
b. Following too close to other vehicles d. general
recklessness
520. Criminal investigation flowchart as it follows
A) Complaint’ police investigation’ documentation’ filing’ hearing
B) Police investigation’ documentation’ complaint’ filing’ hearing
C) Filing’ complaint’ police investigation’ documentation’ hearing
D) Complaint’ documentation’ police investigation’ filing’ hearing
521. the success of interrogation largely depends on
A) Legality’ topic’ physical insight’ experience

B) Persuasion’ aggression’ patience and productivity
C) Variation’ cooperation’ psychological insight’ imagination
D) Deduction’ aspiration’ logical thinking’ analysis’ experience
522. the 1st goal of criminal investigation is
A) Determine if there’s clue connecting the incident
B) Determine the possibility that the perpetrator is around the scene
C) Determine if crime has been committed
D) All of the above
523. kinds of criminal investigation except
A) In - custody
B) At - large
C) Extra judicial
D) Crime scene
524. in custody investigation assuming that you are a beginner as criminal
investigator if the suspect
are arrested by virtue of warrantless arrest’ before proceeding with the
custodial investigation you
should?
A) Determine the probable cause to be able indict the suspect
B) Determine whether or not the suspect was lawfully arrested
C) Gather files and data which pertinent to the investigation
D) Informed his or her constitutional rights and his rights under custodial
investigation under R.A.
7438
525. this rights cannot be waived except in writing in the presence of the
counsel? (Board exam
question, Oct. 2012)
A) Right to bail
B) Miranda warning
C) Right to due process of the law
D) Constitutional rights
526. the accused must be informed that if he has no lawyer’ one will be provided
for him and that a
lawyer
A) May also be engage by any person on his behalf
B) May also be engage in the prosecution of his behalf
C) May be his partner to escape
D) May also have the right to claim on his behalf
527if the person arrested waives his right to a lawyer he must be inform that?
A) It must be done in writing in the presence of the investigator
B) It must be done in writing in the presence of the counsel
C) It must be reduce to writing in the presence of his behalf
D) Both “A” and “B”
527. that the person arrested must be informed that?
A) He may not indicate any manner at any time or stage of the process that he
does not wish to be
questioned
B) He may indicate any manner at any time or stage of the process that he does
not wish to be
questioned
C) He may indicate at any manner at any time or stage of the process to be
questioned
D) He does not have a right to refuse in a lawful questioning since he is the
subject of investigation
528. roles of an investigator except
A) Confront the victim with the suspect
B) Conduct preliminary investigation
C) Detain the suspect in temporary detention cell
D) Observance of the chain of custody
529. is a mode filing of criminal complaint before prosecutor office against
the arrested suspect?
A) Direct filing
B) Accusatorial filing
C) Inquest filing
D) Prosecutorial filing
530. purposely the inquisitorial investigation is made to
A) Determine probable cause
B) Ensure proper proceeding of the accused
C) Indict the suspect to the offense charge
D) Both “A” and “C”
531. in proving the guilt of the accused in court the following should be in
place except?
A) The fact of the existence of the crime must be establish
B) Defendant must be identified and associate with the crime scene
C) Physical evidence must be appropriately identified
D) The point of inquiry should be the basis of the offense charge
532. at – large investigation is otherwise known as?
A) Out of custody investigation
B) Follow up investigation
C) Aftermath investigation
D) Clandestine investigation
533. it’s a deal for a follow up team to be composed of at least
A) Two detectives
B) Three detectives
C) Four detectives
D) Seven detectives
534. is the existence of a fact that specific loss or injury sustained as a
result of crime?
A) Post mortem injury
B) Ante mortem injury
C) Ipso facto
D) Corpus delicti
535. to prove the body of the crime the state of fact must be proved by positive
and direct evidence’
however ________is sufficient
A) Corroborative evidence
B) Cumulative evidence
C) Prima facie evidence
D) Indirect evidence
536. in police lineup, as a procedure there must be a group of at least?
A) 5-7 person with different appearances
B) 5-7 person with different and similar appearances
C) 5-7 person with similar appearances
D) None of the above
537. a homicide incident where investigating and there are several witnesses
that may give
information on how the crime was transpired if the information should be
extracted among the
witnesses, as practice what should be done?
A) All witness should be collaborate and precisely deliver their testimony to
establish a strong
testimonial evidence
B) All witness should not be allowed interviewed separately
C) All witness are subject for group interview and correlate their facts and
establish the identity of the
suspect
D) All witness must be interviewed separetely
538. is the accomplishment of the act and where it is an element in the
commission of the offense?
A) Motive
B) intent
C) instrumentality/capability
D) all of the above
539. is a pattern of criminal behavior exhibited by the suspect in series of crime
committed?
A) Habit
B) Mannerism
C) Criminal typology
D) Modus operandi
540. a person who gives information without any monetary or valuable
consideration
A) Agent
B) asset
C) informer
D) none the above
541. a kind poison in powder form usually sent through mail? (Board exam
A) Cyanide
B) Ammonia
C) Racumin
D) Anthrax
542. define as the transformation of a compound into one or more other
substances by heat alone?
A) Pyroplactic
B) Pyrolisis
C) Pyrogenesis
D) Pyromania
543. is an individual who informs solely for pecuniary or other material gain he is
to received
A) Concern citizen
B) Legitimate informant
C) Remuneration
D) Intelligence agent
544. if the subject is expected to meet his associates in a drug dealing spree
with the syndicate for
whom he work for what type of surveillance is appropriate? (Board exam
A) Rough shadowing
B) Loose tail
C) Close tail
D) Counter surveillance
645 if the subject is a former intelligence operative with a high degree of counter
surveillance skill what
type of surveillance you wish to be done?
A) Rough shadowing
B) Loose tail
C) Close tail
D) Counter surveillance
545. the (3) Man shadow known as ABC method in this method “A” is following the
subject and
“B”?
A) Follows “A” while “C” follows “B” at corner of intersection across the street
B) Follows the subject and “C” Follows “A” and “B” on the other side of the
street in a opposite
direction
C) Following “A” while “C” may precede the subject approximately opposite of the
subject on
the other side of the street
D) Following “A” while “C” keep an eye on “A’ and the subject while crossing the
turn an twist of
the surveillance
546. in most cases it is preferably- (Board exam question, Oct. 2012)
A) To lose the subject than to alert him
B) To alert the subject than to lose him
C) To alert the subject and apprehend him
D) Apprehend the subject before losing him
547. if the subject takes a bus the surveillant should? (Board exam question,
Oct. 2012)
Board the same bus and sit behind the subject on the same side
A) Board the same bus and sit behind the subject on the other side
B) Board the same bus and sit near the exit on the side of the subject
C) Its either “A” or “C”
548. in this method the accused is place in the line up to where he is identified
by several fictitious
offenses
A) Police lineup
B) Incriminatory lineup
C) Reverse lineup
D) Identification lineup
549. a method of interrogation when there is more than one suspect from whom
the accused both
separated to one another and the one is informed that the other has talk
A) Conspiracy bluff and dope
B) Bluff and split fair
C) Monkey talked
D) Mutt and jeff
550. a judicious application of this technique may be useful to a highly probable
guilty suspect
A) The Sting approach
B) The stun approach
C) The string approach
D) The stern approach
551. when there’s a valid reason to stop and frisk warrantless search may invoke
this also known as?
A) Arizona’s doctrine
B) Incidental search doctrine
C) Freddy’s doctrine
D) Terry’s doctrine
552. in practice the plain view doctrine usually applied where the police officer
is
A) Searching for evidence against the accused
B) Not searching for evidence against the accused
C) Incidental searching of evidence against the accused
553. if a toxicologist is an expert in the area of poison a pathologist is an
expert in the area of
A) Examination of tissues and fluids
B) Examination of skeletal remains
C) Examination of post mortem and ante mortem injury
D) Examination of teeth
554. in order to cover traffic accident homicide and bombing what should be done?
A) Specific incident reconstruction
B) General incident reconstruction
C) Specific event reconstruction
D) Physical evidence reconstruction
555. blood pattern analysis reconstruct the following except?
A) Position and location of the offender
B) Minimum number of blows struck
C) Type of weapon used
D) Physical characteristic of the scene
556. refers to the application of psychological theory to the analysis and
reconstruction of forensic
evidence that relates to the suspect’s crime scene’s victim and behavior? (Board
exam question, Oct.
2012)
A) Criminal profiling
B) Crime scene reconstruction
C) Criminal identification
D) Crime detection
557. it attempts to go beyond the reconstruction and answer questions of intent
and motivation?
(Board exam question, Oct. 2012)
A) Criminal profiling
B) Crime scene reconstruction
C) Criminal identification
D) Crime detection
558. moist or wet evidence from a crime scene can be gathered in plastic
containers and transported
back to the evidence receiving area the storage time for plastic is?
A) 6 hours or less
B) 4 hours or less
C) 2 hours or less
D) 1 hour or less
559. during traffic congestion a violator fails to stop on signals what action
should you initiate?
A) Pursue him immediately and arrest him and inform his violation
B) Deciding to lose him rather than to pursue him at great risk
C) Pursue him and give him the look that you want money
D) Just forget about him you a lazy bum
560. is the application of tradecraft wherein sophistication and unique
clandestine operation is
required?
A) Urban
B) Rural
C) High
D) Low
561. appropriate type of tradecraft should be applied if there’s risk and
security demand
A) Urban
B) Rural
C) High
D) Low
562. Marc is in clandestine operation he accepts information and materials to
somebody and he
surrenders it to another, Marc is a?
A) Moving live drop
B) Live drop
C) Courier
D) Cutout
563. “Snowy” an undercover agent who deliberately puts a piece of paper
containing information into
a pocket of a hotdog vendor without the knowledge of the latter, and to be pick
up by another the
hotdog vendor is a?
A) Moving live drop
B) Live drop
C) Courier
D) Cutout
564. the process of identifying a perception as having experience at some time
in the past
A) Recollection
B) Cohort
C) Recognition
D) Futile
565. refers to a falsified documents and materials prepared by an undercover to
make his cover story
credible?
A) False identity
B) Spurious
C) Backstop
D) Identity theft
566. a fixed surveillance may be referred as?
A) Static
B) Casing
C) Clandestine
D) Stakeout
567. since you know what you looking for it may be best that you should have a
A) Map reconnaissance
B) Personal reconnaissance
C) Strategic reconnaissance
D) Tactical reconnaissance
568. thus this type of information usually gained by the person operating the
area of performing the
casing job
A) Classified information
B) Unified information
C) Dying declaration
D) Hearsay
569. Kozu a member of a dreaded terrorist group called Abunakki tribe held under
custody, Kozu’s
subordinates planted a timed bomb in Quezon City threatening to explode within
12 hours since the
authority didn’t know where the explosive was placed and only Kozu knew where
the bomb was
located in order to defuse the bomb they must find it first, assuming that you
are the interrogator
what method of interrogation should you apply to obtain usable information from
Kozu at the
shortest possible time?
A) The Mutt and Jeff
B) Tactical interrogation
C) Strategic interrogation
D) Intensive interrogation
570. obtaining information through deception, extracting usable information from
a source without
realizing he is under interrogation, this type of interrogation pertains to?
A) Direct
B) Indirect
C) Cross
D) Extraction
571. an interrogation wherein the investigator convinces the source and factual
information is
presented by the interrogator in a persuasive manner and enable to exploit the
psychological and
moral weakness of the source
A) Reverse psychology technique
B) Psychological manipulation technique
C) Fatality technique
D) Futility technique
572. it may be best to indicate that the fire is a criminal design through?
A) Prima facie evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Indirect evidence
D) Conclusive evidence
573. it is not essential to prove in obtaining a conviction for a crime of
arson?
A) Motive
B) Intent
C) Instrumentality
D) All of the above
574. it’s a rule of law that every fire is presumed to be of?
A) Accidental origin
B) Incendiary origin
C) Criminal design
D) Situational origin
575. in a human body the________is usually one of the last organs to be
destroyed by fire
A) Kidney
B) Uterus
C) Liver
D) Lungs
576. a class “A” fire may compose of burning materials such as, except
A) Fiber
B) Paper
C) Woods
D) Gas
577. in case of gasoline, kerosene, fluids grease and alcohol the fire is
classified under?
A) Class A and B
B) Class C
C) Class D
578. dried powder is used to extinguish
A) Class “A” fire
B) Class “B” fire
C) Class “C” fire
D) Class “D” fire
579. a Meralco post fell down during a heavy storm and began to spark in less
than a few minutes it
created a fire-
A) The kind of fire is class “A”
B) The kind of fire is class “B”
C) The kind of fire is class “C”
D) The kind of fire is class “D”
580. is an offense that has international dimension and implies crossing at
least one national border
before during or after the fact?
A) Transitional crime
B) International crime
C) Conventional crime
D) Transnational crime
581. the Mafia’s code of secrecy (Board exam question, Oct. 2012)
A) Cosa Nostra
B) Blood compact
C) Dead letter
D) Omerta
582. in OCG the one who make arrangements for killing and injuring of their
members and non
members is a?
A) Corruptee
B) Enforcer
C) Corrupter
D) Executioner
583. and the one bribes and negotiate is a?
A) Corruptee
B) Enforcer
C) Corrupter
D) Executioner
584. usually not a member of the OCG or the family but wields influence on
behalf of the
organizations interest?
A) Coruptee
B) Enforcer
C) Corrupter
D) Executioner
585. one of the generic type of OCG who’s major goals are psychological
gratification?
A) In – group oriented organized crime
B) Political graft
C) Predatory organized crime group
D) Syndicated organized crime group
586. crimes which include tax evasion theft of goods and services by employees,
the filing of false
expenses report and the like is a vivid example of?
A) Individual occupational crime
B) Economic sabotage crime
C) Pilferage
D) Fraudulent machinations
587. the primary goal of a typical OCG is?
A) Power and influences
B) Political control
C) Economic gain
D) Fear and extortion
588. an investment scheme where the actor solicits an investor in a business
venture promising
extremely high financial return in just a short period of time
A) Pyramiding
B) Racketeering
C) Ponzi
D) Scamming
589. the operation of an illegal business for personal profit
A) Pyramiding
B) Racketeering
C) Ponzi
D) Scamming
590. this type of scheme often involves with prostitute?
A) Pigeon drop
B) African switch
C) Cash drop
D) Jamaican switch
591. actor #1 befriends the victim, actor #2 both shows actor #1 and the victim
a found package
containing a large amount of cash then actor #1 insist that the money should be
divided equally but
only after each person put up his own money to demonstrate good faith all the
money was put in one
package and the package is later switch
A) Pigeon drop
B) African switch
C) Cash drop
D) Jamaican switch
592. conventional crimes are group of crimes categorized as?
A) Index crimes
B) Non index crimes
C) Sub index crimes
D) Sub non index crimes
593. they are the most feared type of robbers they are semi-professionals
robbers who commit
everything from snatching to brutalization of the victim
A) Bandits
B) Burglars
C) Muggers
D) Beggars
594. a destructive acts which have no monetary gain of purpose in mind?
A) Predatory vandalism
B) Vindictive vandalism
C) Wanton vandalism
D) Vandalism
595. conventional property crimes includes
A) Rape, murder, homicide, infanticide
B) Plunder, graft and corruption, malversation , embezzlement
C) Theft, robbery, fence
D) Robbery, theft ,burglary
596. is a violent crime due to means employed usually characterized by violence,
aggression and
domination?
A) Assault
B) Battery
C) Rape
D) Hate crime
597. examples of a non – index crimes are? Except
A) Pilferage
B) Robbery/theft
C) Shoplifting
D) Burglary
598. a group of formal structure whose purpose is to provide elicit services
which are in strong public
demand with assurance of protection necessary for its operation, refers to?
A) In – group oriented organized crime
B) Political graft
C) Predatory organized crime group
D) Syndicated organized crime
599. which country produces over 90% of world’s illegal opium?
A) Columbia
B) Afghanistan
C) Malaysia
D) Iraq
600. the most widely abused and misused drugs, closely associated with violent
crimes of murder,
rape, child and spousal abuse?
A) Methamphetamine
B) Cannabis sativa
C) Alcohol
D) Cocaine
601. which one below does not belong?
A) Mutt and Jeff
B) Warrant of arrest
C) Sworn statement
D) Polygraph
602. is a substance that brings relief from pain and produces sleep by
depressing blood pressure,
pulse rate and breathing, these are?
A) Narcotics
B) Depressants
C) Stimulants
D) Dehydrates
603. a substance used to depress the functions of the central nervous system and
calm irritability and
anxiety and may induce sleep?
A) Narcotics
B) Depressants
C) Stimulants
D) Dehydrates
604. as a general rule criminal investigation is not concern with
A) Identifying the guilty and innocent party
B) Proving the guilt of the accused
C) Arrest of the felon
605. the term “at large” this means the former
A) Can be lawfully arrested without warrant
B) Can be lawfully arrested with or without warrant
C) Cannot be lawfully arrested without warrant
D) Cannot be lawfully arrested with or without warrant
606. as a general rule the person arrested by virtue of warrant of arrest
A) Is covered by criminal investigation
B) Is not covered by criminal investigation
C) Has no criminal liability
D) Subject for summary execution
607. exception to the general rule of the preceding above
A) The person arrested by virtue of warrant of arrest is likewise being held for
separate and distinct
criminal complaint which is the subject of another criminal investigation
B) When the person arrested by virtue of warrant of arrest is charge in the court
as Ricahard doe
C) When the person is placed under arrest as an incident to the execution and
implementation of a
search warrant found in possession of recently stolen articles
D) All of the above
608. is a major asset of an investigator
A) The ability to persuade and convince
B) The ability to think logically and act accordingly
C) The ability to obtain sympathy and confession
D) The ability to secure information
609. is the strategic approach in gathering complete detailed necessary facts
and useful data and
evidence in order to file a specific complaint
A) Avenue of inquiry
B) Evidence matrix
C) Chain of custody
D) Custodial investigation
610. it a strategic and careful approach in gathering all complete data and
evidences on the crime
scene as well as detailed information useful for the filing of specific crimes
committed
A) Avenue of inquiry
B) Evidence matrix
C) Chain of custody
D) Custodial investigation
611. this is the process whereby ways and means are resorted to for the purpose
of trapping and
capturing the lawbreaker in the execution of his criminal plan
A) Instigation
B) Entrapment
C) Oplan
D) Coplan
612. in arson cases to establish and prove the corpuz delicti usually in the
form of
A) Prima facie evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Indirect evidence
D) Conclusive evidence
613. in a crime of qualified theft which element is necessary?
A) Mens rea
B) Habeas corpuz
C) Praeter intentionem
D) Animus locrandi
614. it is one way of recognizing physical evidence?
A) Certainty
B) Quality
C) Identity
D) Similarity
615. Pertains to the number of persons who handle physical evidence from the
time of its collection
from the crime scene up to the disposition of the case?
A) Evidence matrix
B) Chain of evidence
C) Chainsaw of custody
616. each crime is different according to
A) The manner of the crime committed and attending circumstances
B) Physical nature of the scene and the crime or offense involved
C) The number of elements and evidences for the crime or offense involved
D) The means of employed and elements present at the commission of an offense
617. the non – observance of proper documentation in the turnover of evidence
from one another
officer to another or one office to another
A) Evidence matrix
B) Chain of evidence
C) Chain of custody
618. How much percent or weight of alcohol in a person's blood will presumed a
person to be
under the influence of intoxicating liquor?
a. 0.05 percent or less c. .05 to 0.15 percent
b. 0.15 percent or more d. .15 percent to 1.5%
619. This serves as the implementing arm of the Board and it shall be responsible
for the
efficient and effective law enforcement of all the provisions of the Comprehensive
Dangerous
Drug Act of 1992.
a. Dangerous Drug Board
b. Drug Enforcement Unit
c. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
d. Anti-Narcotics Command
620. In its pure form, it is white and made up of shinu, colorless crystals and
called "snow" in the
junkle jargon. Is it a drug from the coca leaves of coca, A south American Shurb.
It is a central
nervous system stimulant. Its use is also referred to as "the king's habit".
a. Opium c. marijuana
b. Shabu d. Cocaine
621. This refers to the group of drugs which affect the central nervous system,
producing
perceptual alterations, intense and varying emotional changes and thought
disruption.
a. narcotics c.. depressant
b. hallucinogens d. stimulants
622. Within how many hours after the filing of the case the court should proceed
with the
inspection of the confiscated dangerous drugs?
a. 24 hours c. 72 hours
b. 48 hours d. 12 hours
623. The Golden triangle is located at the borders of Thailand, Laos and Myanmar.
Which of the
following countries are collective names for Golden Crescent?
I. Afganistan II. Irag III. Iran IV. Pakistan V.
Burma
a. I, II, III b. I, III. IV
c. I, II, V d. I, III, V
624. It is the removal of toxic substances from the body as a result of abusing
drugs:
a. Cleansing process c. abstinence
b. aversion treatment d. detoxification
625. Marijuana also called, marijane or grass or weed is a crude drug made from
cannabis Sativa,
a plant that contains a meal altering ingredient. Which one is NOT an immediate
effect of
marijuana?
a. Acute panic anxiety reaction-external fear of losing control.
b. Altered sense of time/disorientation
c. Impaired reflexes coordination and concentration
d. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate
626. Criminal Investigation is guided by the following cardinal rule?
a. 5W and 2H b. 6W & 1 H
c. 5 W & 1 H d. 6w & 2 H
627. An incriminatory statement given by a person outside of the court falling
short of an
acknowledgment of guilt?
a. judicial admission c. Judicial confession
b. Extra-judicial admission d.extra-judicial confession
628. It is considered to be the second stage in the conduct of money laundering_?
a. Placement c. Integration
b. Layering d. Investment
629. What is the physical evidence which linked the suspect to the crime scene or
offense?
a. Associative Evidence
b. Circumstantial evidence
c. Tracing evidence
d. Corpus Delicti
630. What is the distinct pattern of how the crime was committed and established by
a series of
crimes under one classification?
a. Verbal description c. Physical line-up
b. Physical show-up d. General photograph
631. The accuracy of identification by eyewitness depends on the following factors:
1. Ability of the witness to observe distinct appearance of suspect
2. Visibility condition when the crime was committed
3. Degree of intelligence of the witness
4. Lapse of time in filing the case
a. 1 & 3 is correct c. 1 & 4 is correct
b. 3 & 4 is correct d. 1 & 2 is correct
632. Modus Operandi file was first devised by:
a. Sir Francis Galton c. Sir Robert Pael
b. General Atcherly d. Eugene Vidocq
633. He is a person who provides information to the investigator on a regular
basis. They are
either paid regularly or in a case to case basis.
a. Informant c. Informer
b. Infiltrator d. Sabouter
634. Which of the following is the first duty of a surveillant?
a. Record all activities taking place in the subject area
b. Move the observation post when necessary
c. Relieve another surveillant
d. All of these
635. It refers to the application of the principle of various sciences in the
collection, examination
and evaluation of physical evidence?
a. Police Interview c. Instrumentation
b. Criminal Interrogation d. Criminal Investigation
636. As a police investigator, if you are dealing with a double-crosser informant,
the best
practice to counter this is:
a. Reveal information about facts already known
b. Use third degree interrogation
c. give him false information that will lead to his capture
d. request him to voluntary undergo polygraph examination
637 Evidence that will prove the existence of a fact that specific loss or injury
was sustained as a
result of the crime.
a. Corpus Delicti c. prima-facie
b. Associative d. Mens rea
638. It is the act of observing a place or building similar to an act of
reconnaissance:
a. Surveillance c. Casing
b. Roping d. Elicitation
639. This kind of informant moves around the centers of criminals, group or
syndicate and
delights the police about bits of information.
a. False informant c. Double-crosser informant
b. Mercenary informant d. Self-aggrandizing
informant
640. In the chain of event in traffic accident what is the first action taken by a
traffic unit to
escape from collision course or otherwise avoid hazard is:
a. state of evasive action c. point of no
escape
b. point of possible perception of hazard d. final position
641. It is any facility used for the illegal manufacture of any dangerous drugs and
or controlled
precursor and essential chemical is:
a. Chemical laboratory
b. Clandestine laboratory
c. Controlled precursor laboratory
d. Chemical Diversion Lab.
642. When an enforcement action consist of taking a person into custody for purpose
of holding
or detaining him to answer a charge or violation before a court?
a. Traffic warning c. traffic arrest
b. Traffic citation d. traffic investigation
643. A pattern of deep cracking on the surface of a material that has been burned
indicative of
the point of origin of fire.
a. pavement marking c. alligatoring
b. Charring d. burning
644. Heat transfer can either be conduction, convection or by radiation. What term
that describes
the transfer of heat through the medium of space.
a. conduction c. convection
b. oxidation d. radiation
645. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is
equal to the
atmospheric pressure?
a. flash point c. boiling point
b. ignition temperature d. fire point
646. In cases of fire accident or tragedy, deaths is usually caused by:
a. Burns b. stroke
c. suffocation d. shock
647. There are four methods of extinguishing fire. When a high wind has an
extinguishing effect
on a fire, the most probable extinguishing method is:
a. cooling c. separation
b. smothering d. chemical chain reaction
648. Which of the following fire extinguishing agent is the most effective in
cooling the burning
material below its ignition temperature?
a. H20 b. CO2
c. Dry chemical d. dry powder
649. The burning of low-grade heavy oils or resinous or tarry materials with
sufficient air forms
lamp black commonly known
as:
a. soot b. used petroleum
c. black bone d. black iron
650. The spread of fire from floor to floor in the same building is usually the
result of:
a. fires burning through floors
b. failure to look of fire doors
c. open stairways or shafts
d. external exposures through windows
651. In what part of the body cadaveric spasm is usually observed?
I. arm II. leg III. neck IV. Jaw V. hand
a. I and II b. I and V
c. II and III d. III and IV e. III and V
652. What is the name of the operation launched by US Navy Seals that killed Osama
Bin
Laden?
a. Operation Geronimo
b. Operation Neptune Spear
c. Operation Jabbidah
d. Operation Merdeka
653. This terrorist organization is responsible for the bombing of the World Trade
Center:
a. Abu Sayyaf b. Hamas
c. Al Qaeda d. Taliban
654. This terrorist organization in the Philippines is known as “Back to Islam”:
a. Abu Sayyaf b. Moro Islamic Liberation Front
c. Jemaah Islamiya d. Rajah Solaiman Movement
655. Which of these acts is not punishable under E-commerce Act of 2000?
a. Internet gambling b. Hacking
c. Cracking d. Denial of service attack
656. What class pf fire involves combustible metals?
a. Class A b. Class B
c. Class C d. Class D
657. Every device which is self propelled and every vehicle which is propelled by
electrical
power obtained from overhead trolley wires, but not operated upon rails.
a. skating c. tricyle
b. bicycle d. motor vehicles
658. It is otherwise known as the Revised Fire Code of the Philippines.
a. R.A. 9415 c. P.D. 1614
b. R.A. 9514 d. P.D. 1613
659. The color of the smoke can be a basis in determining the accelerant used in a
fire. What
color of the smoke will indicate the presence of phosphorous?
a. Balck b. Reddish brown c. white
d. gray
660. It indicates the intensity of fire as well as the nature of the combustible
material that is
being burned.
a. flame color c. color of smoke
b. size of fire d. direction of travel
661. Mikee ketong moved by passion of jealousy against Maita Tama on account of her
illicit
relationship with Pedro Penduko (Mikee's husband), destroyed with a bolo one of the
partitions
of MAita's house and burned it. But as the wind was then blowing in the direction
of the house
this was also burned. What is the crime committed by Mikee?
a. Arson
b. malicious mischief
c. Arson thru recless imprudence
d. none of these
662. A combustible material that generates heat because of internal chemical action
of eventually
ignites without any exposure to fire, spark or heat.
a. combustion c. spontaneous combustion
b. burning d. ignition
663. Mr. X collets a rag, soak it with gasoline and place it on the wooden wall of
the house of
Mr. Wong. When Mr. X was about to set fire to the rag, he was bothered by his
conscience thus,
X gets back the rag and left the place. What crime, if any, did X commit?
a. Attempted Arson c. Consummated arson
b. frustrated arson d. none of these
664. Is the result of the succeeding investigation submitted every time or whenever
any
development is accomplished.
a. Initial or advanced report
b. progress of follow-up report
c. final or closing report
d. spot report
665. The acronym ISP stands for:
a. Internet selected providers’
b. Internet service providers
c. Intellectual service providers’
d. Individual service providers
666. It is an unlawful use of force or violence against persons or property to
intimidate or coerce
a government, the civilian population, or any segment thereof, in furtherance of
political or
social objectives:
a. Taliban b. Terrorist
c. Terrorism d. All of these
667. Which of the following is a conclusive sign of death?
a. Dry mouth c. Cessation of circulation
b. Cessation of respiration d. cooling of the body
is?
a. Aversion method
b. Psychotheraphy method
c. Program of Alcoholic Anonymous
669. Preliminary investigation of cases involving dangerous drugs shall be
terminated win a
period of ___?
a. 15 days b. 30 days
c. 45 days d. 60 days
670. It involves a number of people who have handled the evidence between the times
of the
commission of the offense until the ultimate disposition of the case?
a. Chain of custody c. tracing evidence
b. transfer of evidence d. preservation of evidence
680. A man testified that he saw a gay named Mr. Bean leaving the place before it
was burned.
The man's testimony is what kind of evidence?
a. Direct evidence c. indirect evidence
b. commulative evidence d. corroborative evidence
690. After the completion of the search, effort must be made to determine from the
appearance of
the place and object what actually occurred and what the circumstances of the crime
are:
a. Mental reconstruction of the crime
b. background investigation
c. admission
d. modus operandi
691. A written order of the court or any other competent authority consigning an
offender to a
jail or prison for confinement.
a. mittimus c. subpoena
b. commitment order d. letter of invitation
692. A technique that is useful aid in investigation otherwise known as
instrumental detection of
deception.
a. truth serum test c. Fingerprint test
b. ballistics test d. polygraph test
693. Any event that results in an unintended injury or property damage attributed
directly or
indirectly to the action of motor which or its load.
a. Motor vehicle accident
b. motor vehicle non traffic accident
c. motor transportation damage or injury
d. non motor vehicle traffic accident
694. It is a higher form of hacking in which the unauthorized access culminates
with the process
of defeating the security system for the purpose of acquiring money or information
and/ or
availing free services.
a. Cracking b. Malicious E-mail sending
c. on-line auction fraud d. Website Defacement
695. Terrorism is categorized as International and ______________ according to
their
capabilities to operate.
a. Islamic fundamentalist b. Islamic radical
c. Domestic d. Right Wing
intersection is
that:
a. to discourage motorist from "jumping signals".
b. to make the traffic flow fast
c. Greater safety of the pedestrian and motorist is effected.
d. so that officer can stop and start traffic as necessity demands.
697. Which of the following is the best definition of the term "Right of way"?
a. The personal right to move from one place to another.
b. A way of place open to the motorist and pedestrian.
c. The privilege of the immediately use of a particular section of the
highway.
d. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space which at that time is occupied
by another
vehicle.
698. From among the following measure. one is the most effective in police campaign
directed at
a new parking regulations.
a. written warning c. verbal warning
b. citation d. arrest
699. An accusation in writing charging a person with an offense subscribed by the
prosecutor
and filed to court.
a. complaint c. deposition
b. information d. blotter
700. The right of a person undergoing criminal investigation can be found in:
a. Rules of Court c. Rule 115
b. Art. III Sec. 12 of the Constitution d. Rules of
procedure
701. Which of the following types of accidents is most decreased by the
installation of traffic
lights?
a. Cross traffic accident
b. misunderstanding between motorist and traffic officer.
c. Accidents of confusion
d. accidents of decision of right of way
702. Evidence should not only be related to the facts in issue but also that which
is not excluded
by the law?
a. Relevant evidence c. credible evidence
b. material evidence d. competent evidence
703. It refers to the authority or the power of the court to take cognizance of a
case to the
exclusion of the other courts.
a. original jurisdiction c. exclusive jurisdiction
b. appeallate jurisdiction d. concurrent jurisdiction
704. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consume
electrical
current beyond the designated capacity of the existing electrical system.
a. over loading c. self-closing door
b. jumper d. oxidizing material
705. The law that provides for the rights of a person arrested, detained or
otherwise under
custodial investigation.
a. Miranda Doctrine c. R.A. 7438
b. R.A. 7348 d. Rule 115
706. A type of a question which suggest to the person the answer which the
interview desire.
a. direct question c. relevant question
b. leading question d. misleading question
707. Temerity Means ____?
a. fear c. rashness
b. arrogance d. force
708. A person who is appointed by court to serve as a temporary parent of the child
while the
case is on process of trial who will promote the best interest of the child.
a. Support person c. guardian ad litem
b. Interpreter d. Substitute parent
709. What is an ancient document?
a. A document 5 years before and after
b. document made during the ancient time
c. document more than 20 years old
d. document more than 30 years old.
710. Which of the following DOES NOT belong to the type of detainees.
a. undergoing investigation
b. awaiting or undergoing trial
c. awaiting final judgment
d. for safe keeping
711. Adjudication by the court that the defendant is guilty or is NOT guilty of the
offense
charged and the imposition of the penalty prescribed by law for the defendant who
pleads guilty
or is found guilty thereof:
a. judgment c. decision
b. rendition of judgment d. promulgation of
judgment
712. It is a process by which the instigator practically induces the would be
defendant into the
commission of the offense, and himself becomes a co-principal.
a. Instigation c. Entrapment
b. Buy-bust operation d. In flagrante Delicto
713. It is the Anti-Hijacking Law:
a. RA 6955 b. RA 6235
c. RA 8294 d. RA 4200
714. According to the Nations Convention of Transnational Organized Crime (Article
3: 2), an
offense is transnational if it: EXCEPT
a. It is committed in more than one state
b. It is committed in one state and substantial part of its
preparation, planning,
direction or control takes place in the same state
c. It is committed in one state but involves an organized crime group
that engages
in criminal activities in more than one state
d. It is committed in one state but has substantial effects in another
state
715. A declaration made by a person who is conscious of an impending death.
a. Res gestae c. dying declaration
b. declaration against interest d. All of these
716. __________ shall be conducted as a pre-requisite to grant permits and or
licenses by local
governments or other government agencies.
a. Fire safety inspection c. fire protection
assembly
b. Fire alerting system
d. Fire Service
717. Articles or materials which are found in connection with the investigation and
which aid in
establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the
crime was
committed or which, in general assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
a. material evidence c. corpus delicti
b. associative evidence d. tracing evidence
718. A traffic officer stationed along the route of a parade has been ordered by
his superior to
allow no cars to cross the route while the parade is in progress, an ambulance
driver on an
emergency run attempts to drive his ambulance across the route while the parade is
passing.
Under these circumstances the traffic police officer should:
a. ask the driver to wait until the police officer contact his superior.
b. Stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to cross
the street.
c. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior's order.
d. Direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which will add
at least ten
minutes to run.
719. Investigator must be patient to obtain accurate and complete information
especially with
uncooperative subject.
a. logical mind c. perseverance
b. power of self control d. discretion
720. The _____ supervise the enforcement of the law on prohibited and regulated
drugs. It is the
policy-making and strategy-formulating body.
a. DDB c. PDEA Academy
b. PACC d. PNP
721. Who among the following shall serve as permanent consultant of the Board
(DDB).
a. Director of the NBI c. A and B
b. Chief of the PNP d. Director General of PDEA
722.That profession and scientific discipline directed to the recognition,
identification,
individualization and evaluation of physical science by application of natural
sciences in matters
of law.
a. Forensic pathologist c. scientist
b. Criminalistics d. Chemist
723. The following are the three basic approaches to a traffic safety program:
a. Money, management and machinery
b. Education, enforcement and engineering
c. Road, route and rescue
d. all of the above
724. The greatest single cause of Taxi cabs traffic accidents is attributed to:
a. Conversation with the fare
b. following too close to other vehicles
c. unnecessary speed
d. general recklessness
725. Several person were injured as a result of a bus skidding on a wet pavement.
In preparing an
accident report, the term "apparently good condition" should not be used in
reference to:
a. The tires c. The brakes
b. an injured passenger d. the operator.
726. It rigor mortis leads to approximation of time of death and livor mortis leads
to the
determination of position maintained by the body after death. What is the value of
instantaneous
rigor (cadaveric spasm?
a. Sign of death c. time of death
b. cause of death d. kinds of death
727. It is the rapid test performed to establish potential positive result:
a. validity test c. confirmatory test
b. preliminary test d. screening test
728. Any person found in possession of 100 grams of marijuana shall be punished
with:
a. Imprisonment of twenty years and one day to life imprisonment
b. Imprisonment of twelve years and one day to twenty years
c. life imprisonment to death
d. life imprisonment
729. This refers to an altered physiological state brought about by repeated use of
a drug over a
period of time, necessitating continued use of the drug to prevent withdrawals.
a. psychological dependence
b. chemical dependence
c. biological dependence
d. physical dependence
730. The following are derivates of Opium, EXCEPT
a. heroin c. codeine
b. morphine d. cocaine
731. MDMA is the other name for Ecstacy which means:
a. Methylene dioxymethampetamine
b. Methylene diocximethampetamine
c. Methyline dioxy-methampetamine
d. Metyl diosymentampetamine
732. The rule which governs the principle of whether or not bullet is inside the
body of the
victim.
a. Odd-even rule c. Entry and Exit Rule
b. Color coding d. Multiplicity of evidence
733. Which among the following is an accurate way of determining the firing
distance?
a. walkers test
b. visual observation
c. firing a series of test shots from various distances
d. the amount of concentration and powder residue or metal traces
734. The first privately paid group to follow-up investigation of crime….
a. Road runner c. Bow Street Runner
b. CSI d. SOCO
735. A suspected drunk driver should undergo this last test.
a. Pupils of the eyes b. Walking and turning c. Breath test
d. Balance test
736. When traffic officer halts a driver for traffic violation, the remark “do you
know why I called
your attention” should be avoided, mainly because:
a. Implies corruption c. It is a presumption that it is false
arrest action
b. It is leading question d. It invites a denial on the part of the
traffic law violator
737. A traffic patrol not engaged in taking action against a particular violator;
should without any
instruction:
a. Keep off congested routes but in a location to spot traffic violations
b. Park in position visible to motorist to act as deterrent
c. Use its own discretion in achieving maximum efficiency
d. Maintain visible patrol continuously
738. Most common defect attributed to the human element in cases of traffic
vehicular accidents.
a. Intellectual b. Decision c. Perceptual
d. Attitudinal
739. This represents the ration of traffic arrests, citations and warnings to the
frequency of traffic
accidents.
a. Enforcement tax b. Crime index c. Non index crime
d. Crime rate
740. It is the sum of indulgence or restraint by the public in judging the
reasonableness of the traffic
enforcement program.
a. Traffic tolerance c. Fair play
enforcement
b. In the hole enforcement d. all of the foregoing
741. It refers to the practice of traffic law enforcers to hide in places where
they await traffic
violations.
a. In the hole enforcement c. Fair play
enforcement
b. Traffic tolerance d. None of the above
742. The installation of traffic lights will logically result to decrease in:
a. Accidents involving right way c. Cross traffic
accidents
b. Accidents of confusion d. Accidents due to drunk
driving
743. Statistically it is considered at the most common reason for public utility
vehicular accidents.
a. Not observing the proper distance and following too close
b. Unnecessary speed
c. Recklessness
d. Discussion regarding fare
744. A passenger AUV skidded on a wet pavement, injuring several bystanders in the
process. In
making the report, apparent good condition should not be employed in reference
to.
a. The injured by-standers b. The brakes c. The driver
d. The tires
745. The predominant factor which causes traffic accidents.
a. Traffic educational background of the traffic law violators
b. Human behavior
c. Unsafe road conditions
d. Speeding
746. The best determine the proper distribution of personnel the best criterion
would be the number
of:
a. Fatal accidents c. Accidents involving negligence
b. reported accidents d. Amount of traffic using
the public road
747. The standard behind selective enforcement in traffic control.
a. A warning for minor offense
b. Direction of enforcement activities to areas prone to traffic danger
c. Selection of strategic areas for strict enforcement
d. Concentration of enforcement activities during peak traffic hours
748. The fundamental rule in traffic accident investigation.
a. Consider road conditions c. Consider the
degree of damage or injury
b. Look for the key event d. Consider the violation of
traffic law
749. In implementing new parking regulations it is most advisable to utilize.
a. verbal warning b. Written warning c. Issue citation
d. Traffic arrest
750. It is considered as the most effective deterrent to traffic accidents.
a. Regular maintenance and check-up of the traffic units
b. Increase insurance premium
c. Arrest and prosecution of traffic law violators
d. Decrease car insurance liability to a minimum
751. In metro Manila the responsibility for developing traffic program primarily
rest with:
a. Department of Transportation and Communication
b. Land Transportation Office
c. Metro Manila Development Authority
d. Land Transportation Franchising Regulatory Board
752. In the Independence Day parade, a traffic officer is instructed not to allow
vehicles to cross the
route where the parade is to pass, however and ambulance vehicle with an injured
passenger is about
to cross the route, the traffic law enforcement officer should:
a. Direct the driver to the nearest short cut without passing the route
b. Follow the order not to allow any vehicle to cross the route
c. Stop the parade to allow the ambulance to cross the street
d. Call his superior office for the prompt decision
753. It has been observed that the intersection of Lacson and Dimasalang has more
traffic accidents
that any other area in your jurisdiction, the traffic law enforcement officer
assigned in that area
should advised to
a. Park near the intersection within view of passing vehicles to act as
deterrent
b. Park near the intersection hidden from view to surprise traffic law
violators
c. Give an extra attention to the particular intersection but cruise all
areas within his
jurisdiction
d. Park his vehicle in the center of the intersection to help control and
direct traffic flow.
754. Foremost among the preliminary action when the officer receives a call
regarding the occurrence
of an accident.
a. Number of injured c. Name of the victim
b. Seriousness of the injury d. When and where the
accident occurred
755. In interview persons involved in a traffic accident what is the primary
consideration to be taken
by the police investigator.
a. Conduct each interview separately c.
Listen to both sides
b. Listen only to witness because they are not biased d.
Conduct the interview
jointly
756. Skid marks as evidence in accident cases would show:
a. If the vehicle was traveling in the wrong direction or on the wrong
slide of the roa
b. If the driver failed to observe the right of way
c. If the driver did not obey the traffic signal
757. Refers to the distance traveled before applying the brakes.
a. Coefficient of friction b. Drag factor c. Maximum accident speed
d. Reaction time
758. The measurement of the maximum frictional resistance of pavements.
a. a. Skid marks b. Scuff marks c. Drag factor d.
Reaction time
759. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection at the same time that
shall yield the right of
way as a general rule.
a. The driver on the right c. The faster vehicle
b. The driver on the left d. the slower vehicle
760. An executive function, which includes planning, directing, organizing,
supervising, coordinating,
operating, recording and budgeting the affairs of traffic.
a. Traffic management c. Traffic law
enforcement
b. Traffic supervision d. all of the
foregoing
761. Agency which regulates and prescribes transport reroutes for public utility
vehicles.
a. LTFRB b. LTO c. DOTC d.
MMDA
762. A traffic control signal by which traffic is alternately commanded to stop and
permitted to
precede it accordance with a predetermined time schedule.
a. Fixed time signal c. Alternative
system.
b. Simulated system d. Simple progressive
system
763. Number of days which constitutes the physical cycle or man’s cycle of
strength.
a. 21 b. 23 c. 28 d.
33
764. It refers to the right to proceed ahead of another vehicle or pedestrian?
a. Right-of-way b. Last clear chance c. go
d. all of the above
765. It is an accident wherein one or more person was seriously injured or has died
as a result of the
mishap. In the traffic accident investigation how is it classified?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5
766. It is an accident, which always accompanied by an unidentified road user who
usually flees
immediately after said collision.
a. Hit and run accident c. Motor
vehicle non traffic accident
b. Motor vehicle traffic accident d. Non Motor vehicle
non-traffic accident
767. It refers to the separation of traffic units involved in a vehicular accident.
a. Final position b. Hazards c. Disengagement
d. Stopping
768. It is the place and time at which the normal person could perceive the unusual
or unexpected
condition or movement.
a. Point of no escape c. Perception of
hazards
b. Point of possible perception d. all of the above
769. It is a regulation which prescribe proper conduct and decorum during
confrontation with or of
traffic law
a. Memorandum circular 19-05 c. Memorandum
circular 19-0005
b. Memorandum circular 19-005 d. Section 55 of RA
4136
770. In cases wherein a vehicle on the traffic way suddenly stopped due to engine
failure. What would
be then duration period of the validity of the citation given by the enforcer?
a. 2 days b. 1 day c. 72 hours d. 7
days
771. What refers to an occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces
unintended death,
injury or property damage?
a. Motor vehicle traffic accidents c. Non motor vehicle
non traffic accident
b. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident d. Accident
772. It is defined as telling the drivers and pedestrians when, how and where they
may or may not
move or stand at a particular place.
a. Traffic supervision b. Traffic direction c. Traffic control
d. All of the above
773. It is a means to control the movement of vehicles, pedestrians at certain
point of a certain area by
mechanical objects or manpower.
a. Traffic supervision b. Traffic direction c. Traffic control
d. All of the above
774. Prohibitive signs and restrictive signs shall have:
a. Green background with white and black symbols
b. White background with black symbols and red border
c. Red background with white symbols and red border
d. Blue background and white symbol
775. It refers to any motor vehicle accident occurring on a place other than
traffic way.
a. Motor vehicle traffic accident c. Non motor vehicle non
traffic accident
b. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident d. Non motor vehicle traffic
accident
776. What are physical channels within the roadway, which are constructed to
establish physical
channels thru which vehicular traffic is guided without the use of signals?
a. Traffic signs b. traffic Islands c. Pavement markings
d. Traffic signals
777. A term used to denote any vehicle used for commercial purposes without any
franchise.
a. Tricycle b. FX c. Mega taxi
d. Colorum
778. What is the real objective of traffic enforcement?
a. To apprehend traffic law violators
b. To improve safety traffic conditions
c. To change the wrong driving habits and attitude of violators
d. To prevent traffic accidents
779. Common cycle length is used at each intersection and the Go indication is
given independently
in accordance to the time along the street at a designed speed.
a. Flexible progressive system c. Simulated system
b. Simple progressive system d. Alternative
system
780. All signals along a given street always show the same indication at the same
time.
a. Flexible progressive system c. Simulated system
b. Simple progressive system d. Alternative
system
781. A power operated traffic control device by which traffic is warned or directed
to take some specific
action.
a. Traffic signs b. Warning lights c. Traffic Islands
d. Traffic light signals
782. Period of validity of a professional driver’s license which may be renewable
every 3 birth
months of succeeding years and automatically expires if not renewed on due
date.
a. One year b. Two years c. Three years
d. Four years
783. Refers to seeing , feeling or hearing and understanding an unusual or
unexpected condition
indicative of a sign that an accident might take place.
a. Perception of hazard c. Initial contact
b. Start of evasive action d. Maximum engagement
784. In hit and run investigation, what should be the initial step or phase in the
investigative process?
a. Gather the evidence c. Cordon area
b. Establish the identity of the persons involved d. check
the victim for injuries
785. Common type of thing carried away in cases of burglary and hit and run
vehicular accident.
a. Glass b. Blood c. Hair d. Metal
786. All lines, patters, words or other gadgets EXCEPT signs set into the surface
or applied upon or
attached to the pavement or curbing officially place for the purpose of
regulating traffic is called.
a. Pavements marking b. Traffic accidents c. Traffic
signs d. Traffic
engineering
787. Any motor vehicle accident that result in injuries other that fatal to one or
more persons.
a. Non-fatal injury accident c. Fatal accident
b. Traffic accident d. Property damage accident
788. Refers to traffic signs intended to warn road users of special obligations.
a. Danger warning signs b. Regulatory signs c. Informative signs d.
Mandatory signs
789. It includes pedestrian, pedal cyclist, drives and passengers utilizing the
public roads.
a. Road users b. Road users system c. Traffic system d.
Enforcement system
790. Traffic warning is an enforcement action which does not contemplate possible
assessments of
penalty by the court or otherwise as a result of a warning alone. What kind of
activities it represents?
a. Preventive activities b. Punitive activities c. Persuasive
activities d. all of
the above
791. It refers to a dangerous conduct and attitude, which indicates lack concern
for injurious
consequences likely to result from such a behavior.
a. Drunk driving b. Reckless driving c. reckless imprudence d.
Reckless negligence
792. It is wholly police responsibility and entails looking for defects in the
behavior of the motorist,
pedestrian, vehicles and roadway condition.
a. Apprehension b. Defection c. Adjudication
d. Prosecution
793. Hazardous traffic law violators are:
a. Unsafe condition and unsafe behavior c. Disregarding safety of others
b. Physically handicapped drivers d. Obstructions
794. The theory which asserts that man exhibits a constant variation of life energy
and mood state.
a. Biorhythm b. last clear chance c. Right of way d.
None of the foregoing
795. A number representing the resistance to sliding of t5wo surfaces in contact is
known as:
a. Attribute b. Traffic jam c. Contact damage d.
Coefficient of friction
796. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or
otherwise to avoid
hazard.
a. Final position c. Start of evasive action
b. Point of possible perception d. Point of no escape
797. Key to determining which traffic unit first tried to prevent the motor vehicle
accident, this
marking is made while the wheel is still turning
a. Pavement markings b. Skid marks c. Scuff marks
d. All of the above
798. As a rule, traffic control device and aids have elementary requirements before
they are installed
on the roadway, which among the following is not considered as a requirement for
such device?
a. They should compel attention
b. They should convey meaning which are simple and easy to understand
c. They should command respect
d. They should not allow time for proper response
799. If a traffic law enforcer would decide to arrest a traffic law violator, what
would not be his basis
for such action?
a. The offense is serious
b. Detention is necessary to avoid continued violation
c. There is a reasonable doubt that the person will appear in the court
d. The offender would attend the hearing
800. What is the goal of Traffic safety education for drivers?
a. To give them basis regarding traffic safety
b. To give them actual application of traffic safety knowledge
c. It is a pre-requisite for license
d. To impart traffic morality to drives for safe movement on public roads
801. They are the objects commonly left at the scene of the collision involved
accidents.
a. Debris b. Scuff marks c. Skid marks d.
Hazards
802. It is an enforcement action, wherein the violator is command to appear in
court, but without
detaining him
a. traffic arrest b. Traffic citation c. Traffic warning
d. All of the above
803. It is the last part of the enforcement process wherein penalties are imposed
by the court to parties
found guilty of an offense pertaining to traffic law violation.
a. Adjudication b. Apprehension c. Penalization d.
Prosecution
804. Vehicle speed as calculated from skid marks is usually best taken as an
indication of
c. Average speed during the skid c. Maximum speed at
the end of the skid
d. Minimum speed at the start of the skid d. Minimum speed at
the end of the skid
805. The minimum safe traveling distance between two vehicles traveling 40 mph is
a. Four car lengths b. Two car lengths c. Six car length
d. Three car lengths
intersections is that
a. Traffic can be kept moving at a faster rate
b. Greater safety to pedestrians and motorist is effected
c. As officer can stop and start traffic is necessity demands
d. Motorists are discouraged from “jumping signals”
807. Form the standpoint of the police administrator, of the following, the most
advantage of two-
wheel motorcycles for traffic work is generally the
c. Objections of the motorists c. Hazard to the
operator
d. Limited equipment they can carry d. Maintenance
expenses
808. A number of traffic regulations revolve around the question of right of way.
For practical
purposes, one of the following is the best definition of the term right of way
e. The personal right to move from one place to another
f. The privilege of the immediately use as a particular section of the
highway
g. A way or place open to the motorists and pedestrians
h. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space which at that time is occupied
by another vehicle
809. Within the human element which is at fault in large majority of vehicular
accidents, the most
important defect is generally attributed to
Attitudinal b. intellectual c. Perceptual d.
Decision
810. An international syndicate involved in drug trafficking and cybercrimes.
a. American Drug Syndicate
b. African Drug Syndicate
c. Korea Drug Syndicate
d. Mexico Drug Syndicate
811. For one suspect to be mixed with innocent persons in a police line-up, how
many persons
must be included in the line-up?
a. 5-6 persons c. 7-15 persons
b. 7-8 persons d. 7-10 persons
812. Pieces of evidence which will link the suspect to the crime scene, such as
fingerprints,
foot or shoe impressions
a. Associative evidence c. Corpus Delicti
b. Tracing evidence d. Corpus Delicti
813. Sketch with a scale of proportion and drawn by a draftsman
a. Sketchers c. Rough sketch
b. Sketch of locality d. Finished Sketch
814. An element of the finished sketch. This is the proportion of the finished
sketch to the
actual size or measurement at the scene. Ex. 1:50 = 1 inch in the sketch
measurement is 50
inches in the actual scene measurement.
a. Scale of proportion c. Rough sketch
b. Compass direction d. Legend
815. Sketching method that makes measurements along and from a single reference
line called
a baseline
a. Triangulation method
b. Baseline method
c. Coordinates method
d. none of these
816. Why is it important for a perishable material to be preserved by the way or
the methods
of preservation?
a. So that the evidence will not be destroyed
b. In order that this evidence will reach the court in the same physical
condition as
when they were collected
c. To avoid the miscarriage of justice by the acquittal of the accused
d. All of the above
817. It is the assessment made by the investigator after the crime scene
investigation, of how
the crime committed
a. Physical Reconstructions
b. Mental Reconstructions
c. Reconstruction of the crime
d. None of these
818. It is an official record of information relevant to the investigation which
the investigator
submits to his superior
a. Investigative report
b. Case Records
c. Progress Report
d. Traffic Report
819. Among the following, which is not a purpose of foot surveillance?
a. To detect pieces of evidence of criminal activities
b. To establish the associates of the subject
c. To locate a wanted person, or a missing person
d. To protect witnesses or complainants
e. None of the foregoing
820. It is the process by which the pathologist or the medico-legal officer
conducts an
examination on the cadaver to determine the exact cause of death
a. Autopsy Report c. Post Mortem
b. Necropsy Report d. Autopsy
821. Forcible application of a sharp-pointed with sharp edges
a. Contusion c. Stab Wound
b. Abrasion d. Incised wound
822. It is the chemical process of restoring erased or tampered engine and chassis
number.
The process is by continuous application of strong acid on the suspected
tampered or erased
numbers
a. Macro Etching c. Etching
b. Micro Etching d. Restoration
823. The technique used in clearing a building of smoke and with the use of smoke
ejector is:
a. Smoke ejector
b. Forced ventilation
c. Horizontal ventilation
d. Vertical ventilation
824. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point of the roof is
referred to as:
a. Vertical ventilation
b. Cross ventilation
c. Forced ventilation
d. cross horizontal
825. These are also known as the selective prostitute. These are called
a. professional c. call girl
b. pick-up girls d. occasional
826. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?
a. Heroin c. Cocaine
b. Marijuana d. Shabu
827. Which of the following refers to acute cases of withdrawal of drugs that
causes serious
physical illness?
a. Psychological dependence
b. Physical dependence
c. Addiction
d. Withdrawal syndrome
828. The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from injection of hypodermic needles
is
mostly addicted to
a. liquid amphetamine
b. shabu
c. heroin
d. freebase cocaine
829. What is the psychological desire to repeat the use of drugs intermittently or
continuously?
a. Addiction c. Habituation
b. Potency d. Toleration
830. What term refers to the distance traveled before applying the brakes?
a. Braking distance
b. reaction distance
c. reaction time
d. braking reaction
831. The color of the background for regulatory sign is:
a. blue c. Green
b. yellow d. White
832. Who serves as the Chairman of the Presidential anti-organized Crime
Commission?
a. NBI Director c. PNP Chief
b. Senate President d. President
833. It is the enforcement arm of the Presidential Anti-Organized Crime Commission
(PAOCC), marred with allegations of abuses such as kidnapping and murder
perpetrated by
its members.
a. Anti-Organized Tasked Force
b. Presidential Anti-Organized Crime Task Force
c. Presidential Security Guard
d. A and B
834. It reorganized the structure of Presidential Anti-Organized Crime Commission
by
designating the National Security Adviser as the Vice Chairman.
a. E.O. 256 c. E.O. 285
b. E.O. 732 d. E.O. 295
835. It is attributes or quality of an organized crime wherein members
eschews/avoid
competition and strive hegemony/domination/control/power over a particular
geographic area
a. Specialization/Division of labor
b. Monopolistic
c. Constitute a unique subculture
d. governed by rules and regulation
836. Bacillus Anthraces is also known as?
a. Anthrax
b. Trojan Virus
c. Bacillus Traces
d. all of the above
837. Is the terrorist group which was founded by Osama Bin Laden in 1980?
a. AL QAEDA
b. BIN LADENSHIAN
c. JIHAD
d. Abu Sayyaf
838. Is the category of terrorist organization which is aimed at establishing a
dominant or
superior race that will be looked upon by the entire populace in the world
a. Political terrorist
b. ethnocentric
c. Revolutionary
d. separalist
839. 1st Driver’s license is a matter of right not only a privilege.
2nd Driver’s License is issued to a person, who has all the qualification as
provided by law
3rd Driver’s License is a public document
a. The 1st and 2nd statements are correct
b. The 1st and 3rd statements are incorrect.
c. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
d. All statements are correct
840. Blowouts of tires are blame for more catastrophes that they cause,
nevertheless as a factor
it should be accompanied by a corresponding factor of lack of skill of the
driver:
a. Absolutely true c. Partly true
b. Absolutely false d. Partly false
841. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is-
a. selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement
b. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
c. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
d. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive measure for future
violation
842. Considering, sense or hearing and understanding the usual or unanticipated
movement or
condition that could be taken as a sign of the accident bout to happen:
a. Point of no Escape
b. Perception Hazard
c. Perception delay
d. Evasive Action
843. Any accident occurs on traffic way or that occurs after the motor vehicle runs
off
roadways but before events are stabilized:
a. Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
b. Motor Vehicle Non-Traffic Accident
c. Motor Vehicle Accident
d. Non-Motor Vehicle Non-Traffic Accident
844. It is the movement of traffic units in a public thoroughfare:
a. Traffic
b. Non-Traffic
c. Park Vehicle
d. Slow-moving Vehicle
845. It refers to the movement of persons, goods and vehicles either powered by
animal or
animal drawn vehicles or by combustion system from one place to another for the
purpose of
safe travel.
a. Traffic signs c. Education
b. Traffic d. Enforcement
846. If Mr. Wang vehicle has a plate number of ABC 120, his vehicle must be
registered in the
month of?
a. October c. January
b. December d. Any month
847. What is the maximum load allowed for a truck with tandem near axles?
a. 15 tons GW
b. 27 tons GW
c. 20 tons GW
d. 30 tons GW
848. Which of the following is not a function of warning symbol?
a. To call the decrease of speed
b. To seek carefulness on the part of motorist of the
approaching
danger
c. To direct motorist along the establish direction
d. To notify traffic units an approaching hazardous circumstance either on or
adjacent to
road.
849. It refers to a breaking skid mark which is interrupted by release and
reapplication of
brakes or which terminates by release of brakes before collision:
a. Gap Skid c. Skip Skid
b. Skid Mark d. Scuffmarks
850. It refers to an underground conduit running entirely under the ground for fast
travel route
of commuters:
a. Expressway c. Subway
b. Skyway d. Tunnel road
851. What are to be used when directing traffic at night?
a. Flashlights
b. Reflectorized gloves & vest
c. Reflectorized Gloves
d. None of these
852. This refers to the place and time after beyond which the accident cannot be
prevented by
a particular unit:
a. Point of no Escape
b. Perception Hazard
c. Perception delay
d. Point of possible Perception
853. He is bound to observe or comply with the existing traffic management
procedure and
guideline for his protection; he’s the one who travel’s on foot:
a. Pedestrian c. Passenger
b. Operator d. Conductor
854. Is the percentage of alcohol in the in the blood which constitutes that a
person is under
the influence of liquor.
a. 0.05 percent or less
b. 0.15 percent or more
c. 0.05 to 0.15 percent
d. 0.20 percent or more
855. A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes stuperous or in comatose
condition
a. moderate Inebriation
b. Drunk
c. Comatose
d. Very Drunk
856. A kind of intoxication wherein drunken person doesn’t know the intoxication
strength of
the beverage he has taken.
a. Involuntary c. Incidental
b. Habitual d. Intentional
857. Refers to the fermented juice fruits or plants which contain alcohol.
a. beer c. brandy
b. whisky d. wine
858. A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes argumentative and over-
confident.
a. moderate Inebriation c. Drunk
b. slight Inebriation d. Very Drunk
859. It is the person who sets up and furnishes the means with which we carry on
the gambling
game.
a. Operator c. Organizer
b. Knocker d. Maintainer
860. There are two schools of thoughts as regards prostitution. What school of
thoughts
believes that prostitution is both a crime and vice and should be repressed and
prohibited?
a. The School of Regulatory Control
b. The School Of Prostitution Control
c. The School of Total Repression
d. The School of Total Control and Repression
861. A liquid fuel is __________ by heat before ignition takes place:
a. Vaporized c. Oxidized
b. Decomposed d. Consumed
862. It is caused by spark or exothermic reaction:
a. Mechanical energy
b. Nuclear energy
c. Chemical energy
d. Electrical energy
863. No part of the building was burned but its contents were razed by fire:
a. Malicious mischief was committed
b. Consummated crime of setting fire to the building
c. No arson because no part of the building was burned
d. Frustrated arson
864. The law presumes that a fire is accidental min origin. What must be shown
therefore to
constitute arson?
a. Confession
b. Burned parts of the property
c. Evidence
d. Criminal design
865. Before setting fire to his house, X removes som articles with sentimental
value. Can this
be a case of intentional fire?
a. No, because there was no fire at all
b. Yes, because with intent, X is going to fire his house
c. No, because it was mere intention to set a fire
d. Yes, because the removal is considered as evidence showing intent
866. Can a person who is temporarily afflicted with mental illness be competent to
testify to a
crime which he saw while in sanity?
a. Yes, because he was in normal state when he wittiness the crime
b. No because his credibility will be put into questions
c. Yes, because to be competent he must only know the obligation of an oath
d. No, because he would not able to recall completely what happened
867. Is circumstantial evidence sufficient to convict a criminal?
a. Yes, if there are more than one circumstances
b. No, because positive evidence is required
c. Yes, because it is one of the major classification of evidence
d. No, because the evidence should be proof beyond reasonable doubt
868. Any liquid which causes fire when in contact with organic matter or with
certain
chemicals.
a. Corrosive Liquid
b. Combustible Liquid
c. Cryogenic
d. Hypergolic Fuel
869. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
a. Abatement c. Flash Point
b. Blasting Agent d. None of the above
870. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off
explosives.
a. Pyroxylin c. Blasting Agent
b. Organic Peroxide d. Pyrophoric
871. A vertical panel of non-combustible or fire resistive materials attached to
and extending
below the bottom chord of the roof trusses, to divide the underside of the roof
into separate
compartments so that heat and smoke will be directed upwards to a roof vent.
a. Damper c. Duct System
b. Curtain Board d. Electrical Arc
872. A continuous passageway for the transmission of air.
a. Sprinkler System
b. Standpipe System
c. Duct System
d. Curtain Board
873. A strong oxidizing organic compound which releases oxygen readily. It causes
fire when
in contact with combustible materials especially under conditions of high
temperature.
a. Pyroxylin
b. Blasting Agent
c. Organic Peroxide
d. Nitro Cellulose
874. The following are markings required on fire extinguisher EXCEPT:
a. Date of original filing
b. Amount of Extinguisher
c. Chemical contents
d. Type of extinguisher
875. Contains sodium bicarbonate and a foam-stabilizing agent in a larger
compartment and a
solution of aluminum sulfate in an inner cylinder; reaction between the two
solutions form
stabilized foam of carbon dioxide bubbles
a. Water Fire Extinguisher
b. Soda-acid Fire Extinguisher
c. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher
d. Foam Extinguisher
876. It is an action taken by the fire fighters to cover or secure other
building/s, people from
exposing themselves near the affected area or danger from fire.
a. Confine the fire
b. Locate the fire
c. Extinguish the fire
d. Exposures
877. The Dangerous Drug Board is managed by a Board composed of 17 members.
a. True c. Partially True
b. False d. Partially False
878. Prior to the enactment of RA 9165, PNP is the law enforcement agency that
enforces the
law on dangerous drugs.
879. It contains chemical powder intended to fight all classes of fires.
a. Liquefied Fire Extinguisher
b. Soda- Acid Fire Extinguisher
c. Water Fire Extinguisher
d. Dry Chemical Extinguisher
880. The fire may take as a little water as that use in a booster line, or it may
take thousands of
gallons played through heavy appliance.
a. Confine the fire
b. Locate the fire
c. Extinguish the fire
d. Exposures
881. When sufficient heat is confined in the area the temperature of combustible
material rises
to their ___________.
a. Ignition point c. Fire point
b. Flash point d. Kindling point
882. It refers to an electric plug in an electric panel box that opens an
electrical circuit when it
becomes overloaded:
a. Circuit Breaker c. Fuse
b. Starter d. Electric Box
883. Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind
with
delusions.
a. Stimulants c. Narcotics
b. depressants d. hallucinogens
884. Opium synthesized directly from the extracts of the Opium Poppy.
a. Heroin c. Codeine
b. Opium d. Ecstasy
885. The head of the PDEA has a fixed term of office.
886. In case of flagrante delicto, PNP personnel can arrest a person violating
provision of RA
9165 even without coordination with PDEA.
887. An order that authorized PNP to create task force against illegal drugs
a. EO 215 c. EO 217
b. EO 216 d. EO 218
888. Includes solvents, bases and aerosol, rugby, gasoline, hair spray, lighter
fluid and air
freshener
a. Inhalants c. Sedatives
b. Depressants d. All of the above
889. The deliberate inhalation of volatile chemical substance that contain psycho
active vapors
to produce a state of intoxication
a. Drug Abuse c. Inhalant Abuse
b. Alcohol Abuse d. All of the above
890. A drug from the leaves of the Coca plant, a shrub that originated in South
America
a. Cocaine c. Opium
b. Shabu d. Opium Poppy
891. The following are the methods of the concealment being used by drug mules,
except.
a. Hidden in luggage/suitcases
b. Ingestion/Swallowing
c. Placed in shoes
d. Handcarry
892. 77. An order issued for the creation of Task Force Drug Couriers.
a. EO 218 c. AO 217
b. AO 279 d. EO 278
893. The following are the members of the Task Force Drug Couriers, except.
a. National Youth Commission
b. Bureau of Immigration
c. Bureau of Customs
d. Commission on Higher Education
894. It is the composite representation reduced to a drawing of the suspect’s face,
made by an
artist, and based on the descriptions furnished by the witnesses
a. Rogue’s Gallery
b. Cartographic Sketch
c. General Photographs
d. Verbal Description
895. The Deputy Director General of the PDEA is appointed by the head of the
Dangerous
Drug Board.
896. The head of the PDEA is assisted by three (3) Deputy Director.
897. The policy-making & strategy-formulating body in the planning & formulation of
Policies & programs on drug prevention & control.
a. PDEA c. DOJ
b. Executive Secretary d. DDB
898. Why is it important for a perishable material to be preserved by the way or
the methods
of preservation?
a. So that the evidence will not be destroyed
b. In order that this evidence will reach the court in the same physical
condition as
when they were collected
c. To avoid the miscarriage of justice by the acquittal of the accused
d. All of the above
899. Any person found guilty of the violation of trafficking of persons under
Section 4 of RA
9208 shall suffer the penalty of imprisonment of: and a fine of:
a. Twenty Years (20) and a fine of not less than 1 million but not more than 2
million
b. Life Imprisonment and a fine of not less than 2 million but not more than 3
million
c. Reclusion Temporal and a fine of Not more than 1 million
d. Afflictive Penalty
900. In cybercrimes the culprit access without authority the security system for
the purpose of
acquiring money or information and/or availing free service:
a. Hacking c. Cracking
b. Theft d. none of the above
901. Known as the Access Devices Act of 1998, concerning the illegal use of one’s
credit
cards etc.
a. RA 8484 c. RA 9372
b. RA 9208 d. RA 9160
902. Considered as the major concerns of the PCTC, except:
a. Information Exchange
b. Strategic studies and capacity building
c. Law enforcement coordination
d. none of these
903. What color-coded notice is based on national arrest warrants, which is used to
seek the
arrest and extradition of suspects?
a. Blue c. Red
b. Green d. Yellow
904. What is often regarded as the archetype of organized crime and has been the
suspect of
controversy?
a. Cali Cartel c. Sicilian Mafia
b. Mendelin Syndicate d. Yakuza
905. These are groups manned by semi-organized individual whose major goals are for
psychological gratification such as adolescent’s gangs.
a. Federation c. Sorority
b. Fraternity d. In – Group Oriented
906. A public official, usually not a member of the organization family, who can
manipulate
influence on behalf of the organization interest.
a. Corruptee c. Corrupter
b. Enforcer d. None of these
907. Is a crime whereby the proceeds of an unlawful activity are transacted making
them
appear to have originated from legitimate sources.
a. Illicit Trade of Weapons
b. Money Laundering
c. Smuggling
d. Trafficking
908. Refers to the term used to describe a massive weapon with the capacity to
indiscriminately kill large numbers of people.
a. Nuclear, Biological and Chemical Weapons (NBC)
b. Weapon of Mass Destruction (WMD)
c. Biological Weapons
d. Commercial Nuclear Weapon (CNW)
909. The penal provision of “Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines”.
a. RA 9262 c. RA 9263
b. RA 8293 d. RA 9362
910. It requires that standard samples and elimination prints always be obtained
when
appropriate.
a. Maintenance of control
b. Conceptualization
c. Rule of inclusiveness
d. Caution
911. The purpose is to obtain physical evidence useful in establishing that, in
fact, an offense
has been committed, identify the method of operation employed by the
perpetrator; reduced
the number of suspects; identify the perpetrator.
a. Preliminary Investigation
b. Crime scene search
c. Follow-up investigation
d. Investigation
912. These are the international crimes, which are distinguished from a domestic
crime on the
basis that its breaches are common to the whole of the international community
and as a
consequence invokes international jurisdiction.
a. Crimes against Humanity
b. Crimes against the Fundamental Laws of the land
c. Crimes against National Security
d. Crimes against the State
913. When Police officer visually observe a weapon during pat-down search, a more
secure
search position may be-
a. Standing position
b. Lying Face down Position
c. Hands placed against a stationary object, and feet spread apart.
d. Squat at 45 degrees hands-up
914. The following are the circumstances which may justify pat-down search, EXCEPT:
a. The appearance and demeanor of the suspect
b. The time of the day and the location where the pat-down search took
c. Where the police officer handles several suspects
d. None of these
915. The word investigation may have been derived from “vestigium,” another Latin
word
which literally meant
A. Footprint C. To track E. Inquiry
B. To trace D. B and or C
916. This refers to official inquiry conducted by a government agency in an effort
to uncover
facts and determine the truth.
a. Inquest C. Formal Investigation
E. Research
b. Inquisition D. Probe
917. This type of investigation is most often employed to refer the careful,
patient
investigations done by scientists or scholars in their efforts to identify
original sources of data
or causes of problem.
a. Inquest C. Formal Investigation E.
Research
b. Inquisition D. Probe
918. Which of this is defined as the process of carefully examining or researching
what
transpired in a criminal act?
a. Preliminary investigation C. Criminal Investigation E. Police
Investigation
b. Inquest D. All of these
919. He is the proponent of “employing a thief to catch another thief.”
a. John Fielding C. Henry Fielding E. A and C
b. Jonathan Wild D. Allan Pinkerton
920. He coined the word “detective.”
a. Dr, Arthur Conan Doyle C. Hans Gross
E. Dr. Paul
Kirk
b. Howard Vincent D. Charles Dickens
921. Criminal investigation as an art is governed by the following, except:
a. Rigid rules C. Felicity of inspiration E. None of
these
b. Intuition D. Chance or luck
922. As a process, criminal investigation is composed of five functions stated as
follows: 1 -
Collection; 2 - Preservation; 3 - Evaluation; 4 – Presentation; and 5 –
Recognition. As a rule,
these functions are enumerated in the right order as –
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 E. 5, 1, 2,
3, 4
b. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 D. 4, 5, 2, 3, 1
923. It mandates that prior to questioning; the police must inform the rights of
the suspect.
a. Exclusionary rule C. Miranda doctrine E. A and C
b. Fruit of the Poisonous tree D. Rights of the accused
924. There are crimes that take months before they are finally solved. Because of
this,
investigators must possess –
a. Integrity C. Dedication E.
Reliability
b. Intelligence D. Patience
925. This involves the examination of the evidence and particulars of a case and
the use of this
information as a basis for formulating a unifying and internally consistent
explanation of the
event or crime.
a. Logical mind C. Deductive reasoning E.
Rationality
b. Inductive reasoning D. Keen observation
926. Among the following, which is the primary reason why crimes are investigated?
A. Establish, in fact, a crime was committed
B. Identify and apprehend the suspect
C. Recover stolen properties
D. Preserve knowledge or information about a case
E. Provide accurate details about a case
927. In protecting the citizen or public, which is the first line of defense?
a. Criminal investigation C. Crime suppression E. All of
these
b. Crime prevention D. Community support
928. This anticipates criminal activity, as with many vice and organized crime
investigations.
Here, the investigation is conducted before the crime is committed (rather than
after), and the
suspect is identified before he or she commits the crime.
a. Reactive C. Preventive E. None of these
b. Proactive D. Expective
929. The primary purpose of criminal investigation is the establishment of facts
and the
removing of doubts that a crime has in fact been committed and it aims to,
except -
A. Prevent crime D. Preserve information about the crime
B. Apprehend criminals E. None of these
C. Recover stolen properties
930. What stage of investigation focuses in tracing, locating, and eventually
arresting
suspects?
a. Preliminary investigation C. Final Investigation E. C
and D
b. In-depth investigation D. Concluding Investigation
931. Investigation at the crime follows delineated stages. Of these, which is the
last to be
done?
A. securing the crime scene
B. considering the possible arrest of the suspect
C. locating and questioning witnesses and victims
D. documenting the crime scene
E. collecting evidence
932. Processing the crime scene involves the following, except –
a. Documentation D. Observance of the
chain of
custody
b. Marking handling, and tagging of evidence E. None of these
c. Searching
933. Criminals’ bad lucks are unconscious or subliminal act aiming at self-betrayal
or also
known as "VEBRECHERPECH" clue which may a result of the perpetrator’s, except -
A. Prudence C. Faulty acts E. Vanity
B. Carelessness D. Negligence
934. It is an effort made to determine the appearance of the place and the objects
as to what
actually occurred and the circumstances of the crime.
a. Evaluation C. Analysis E. Picturing
b. Reconstruction D. Visualization
935. It is an express acknowledgment by the accused in a criminal case of the truth
of his guilt
as to the crime charged, or of some essential part thereof.
a. Admission C. Confession E. None of these
b. Acknowledgment D. Interview
936. What kind of subject whom this can be applied: Remove his anxiety or fear and
let him
think that his uncooperativeness will work against him?
A. Know-nothing type C. Drunken type E. Talkative
B. Disinterested type D. Suspicious type
937. Shift his loquaciousness to those matters useful in the investigation is the
best approach
subjects who are -
938. This type of subject needs extensive warm-up and presenting him multiple
questions then
lead him to relevant questions.
939. The interviewer must possess insights, intelligence and persuasiveness, and
his voice
should be suited to the occasion. This qualification of a police interviewer is
called -
A. Rapport C. Forceful character E. None
of these
B. Breadth of interest D. Salesman
940. What qualification of an interviewer in which the interviewer must be able to
develop
meeting ground with the subject?
A. Rapport C. Forceful character E. None of
these
941. What qualification of an interviewer in which the interviewer must induce
trust and
confidence by his dominant personality?
of these
942. The interviewer must develop good relationship with the subject. This is
attained by
having a -
of these
943. They are the most alert and their perception is not dulled by pre-occupation.
A. Children C. Boys E. Middle-aged
persons
B. Girls D. Young persons
944. They have the tendency to fantasize things.
persons
945. They are usually pre-occupied which prevents them from being ideal witnesses
but they
are inclined to be truthful but their testimony is not strengthened by any power
of great
observation.
persons
946. They could be excellent sources of information because of their ability to
observe even
those intrinsically boring things. However, they may be dangerous because of
tendency of
fantastic interpretation.
persons
947. They are good witnesses but are prone to exaggeration.
A. Honest C. Timid E. Egocentric
B. Deceitful D. Refusal to talk
948. Employ friendly approach and explain to him that the interview will be
confidential.
A. Honest C. Timid E. Egocentric
B. Deceitful D. Refusal to talk
949. The witness provides vivid description (strong and clear mental picture) or
pictorial
physical appearance of the criminal. He may do it by direct description or by
comparison.
A. Police Line-up C. Cartography E. General
Photographic
Method
B. Rogues Gallery D. Portrait Parle
950. Based on the description provided by the witness, the artist draws on
composite face that
approximates the criminal’s facial appearance.
Photographic
Method
951. The witness is invited to the police station and then requested to examine
photographic
files of known criminals.
Photographic
Method
952. In this method, the investigator shows variety of facial types that may not
necessarily/directly represent the face of the criminal.
Photographic
Method
953. This involves a process of letting/allowing a witness to select the primary
suspect from a
group of chosen persons (suspects and innocent persons).
Photographic
Method
954. POIII Max Hine, during interrogation, elicited information from Joe Knot. In
the elicited
information, Mr. Knot admitted killing the victim because of jealousy. The
admission of Mr.
Knot is called -
a. Admission C. All of these E.
Information of
Guilt
b. Sworn Statement D. Confession
955. Information developed after comparing questioned latent prints with inked
fingerprints
which establishes the identity of the suspect is called
a. Tracing identification D. All of these
b. Circumstantial Identification E. Positive Identification
c. Suspect Identification
956. Which is not a scientific method of identification?
a. DNA C. Portrait Parle E. None
of these
b. Blood Typing D. Questioned Documents
957. Pre-surveillance activities are normally done as part of the preparation for
undercover
operations. These activities are: 1. Briefing; 2. Physical Preparation; 3.
Planning; and 4.
Coordination and communication. Which of the following would be the
correct
chronological listing of these activities?
a. 3, 2, 4, and 1 C. 3, 4, 1, and 2 E. 4, 2,
3, and 1
b. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 3, 1, 4, and 2
958. It is the commonly applied form of undercover assignment which involves covert
observation of persons, places, and things or events to obtain information
concerning the
identities or activities of suspected criminals. This is known as -
a. Covert operation C. Elicitation E. all
of these
b. Surveillance D. Espionage
959. In conducting foot surveillance, there are some “don’ts” which govern the
activity.
Which is not a part of it?
a. Meeting the eye of the contact
b. Adopting a slinking, creeping, or “hacksaw” manner
c. Wearing story-book disguise
d. Carrying articles that do not attract attention
e. Greeting fellow officers or allowing them to greet you
960. In this tool of identification, the witness provides vivid description (strong
and clear
mental picture) or pictorial physical appearance of the criminal. He may do it
by direct
description or by comparison.
A. Police Line-up C. Cartography E.
General
Photographic
961. Based on the description provided by the witness, the artist draws on
composite face that
approximates the criminal’s facial appearance. What tool of identification is
applied?
General
Photographic
962. The witness is invited to the police station and then requested to examine
photographic
files of known criminals. These photographic files are known as
General
Photographic
B. Rogues Gallery D. Known Fugitives
963. In this method, the investigator shows variety of facial types that may not
necessarily/directly represent the face of the criminal.
A. Unknown Fugitives C. Cartography E.
General
Photographic
B. A and D D. Known Fugitives
964. Among the following, which one is the most reliable method of identification
of dead
persons before the onset of decomposition or before the body start to decompose?
A. Odontology C. Blood Identification E. All
of these
B. Fingerprinting D. Anthropometry
965. For a person to qualify as a witness, the following are some of the
requirements, except:
A. He must have actually seen the commission of the crime
B. He must have personal knowledge regarding the matter under investigation
C. He must be free from prejudices
D. He must have the incapability to perceive
E. None of these
966. What kind of evidence links the suspect to the crime scene or offense?
A. Associative C. Physical E. All of these
B. Tracing evidence D. Corpus Delicti
967. A trespassing was reported to the police. Officers responding to the scene
found a point
of forced entry. Upon searching the immediate vicinity, they chanced upon a
young man
hiding behind the bushes. Valuable items, later identified as taken from the
building, were
frisked from the suspect. The recovered items are called –
a. Tracing evidence C. Circumstantial Evidence E. None of these
b. Associative evidence D. Valuable evidence
968. An incident of peeping tom was reported to the police station. The officer
responded to
the call found a man’s wallet on the floor of the men’s room. A records check on
the
identification contained in the wallet revealed the identity of the suspect.
Among the classes
of physical evidence, the collected wallet is called –
a. Tracing evidence C. Circumstantial Evidence E. None of these
b. Associative evidence D. Valuable evidence
969. To detect dishonest employees and of illegal transactions involving money,
fluorescent
substances or chemicals are placed on items or paper bills that will stain a
person’s clothing
or skin. The staining will facilitate detection on the person being watched.
This is called -
A. Contact surveillance D. Scientific surveillance
B. Technical surveillance E. Tracer surveillance
C. None of these
970. During undercover operations, which of the following evidence are inadmissible
as
evidence?
A. Confession of the suspect while accompanied by his counsel
B. Secret photograph taken while the illegal transaction is going on
C. Recorded conversation by intercepting the communication lines of the suspect
D. Marked money used during entrapment operation
E. All of these apply
971. The following are the “DON’TS” in conducting shadowing by foot, except -
A. meeting the eye of the subject
B. adopting a slinking, creeping, peeking, or “hacksaw” manner
C. wearing inconspicuous disguise
D. carrying articles that attract attention
E. none of these
972. George when arrested confessed that he was at the crime scene before the crime
was
committed. What do you call George’s statement?
A. Admission C. Confession
E. A and C
B. Information D. Deposition
973. Which is not true about surveillance?
A. The most common form of undercover operation
B. Involves overt observation of persons, places, and things
C. The purpose is to obtain information concerning identities and/or activities
of suspected
criminals
D. It also uses of ruse and disguises
974. According to the nature of the investigation, surveillance is classified as -
A. Continuous and sporadic D. Visual, audio, and
contact
B. Fixed and moving E. None of these
C. Long-range and short range
975. Based on fixed visual surveillance, surveillance of places maybe categorized
into -
A. Long-range and short-range C. continuous and sporadic
B. Moving and stationary D. stake-out or stake-in
976. What form of undercover operation is best applied in extortion cases?
A. Surveillance C. Roping E. All of
these
B. Entrapment D. Penetration
977. Surveillance of place is called -
A. roping C. reconnaissance E. B or C
B. casing D. stake-out
978. What type of cover is applied by a police officer posing as a buyer to
validate the trading
story of an undercover man?
A. Cover within a cover C. Multiple E. None of
these
B. Natural D. Artificial cover
979. Which of the following ought to be avoided by an investigator while securing a
dying
declaration?
A. Advising the dying person of the importance of making such
B. Memorizing the victim’s statement
C. Manifest an atmosphere of an impending death
D. Asking leading questions
980. What is that means of identifying physical evidence, in which the investigator
inscribes
initial, date and time directly on the evidence?
A. Marking C. Labeling E. Initialing
B. Tagging D. None of these
981. That type of reasoning used in reconstruction of the crime whereby the
detective
assumes a theory based on collected information is referred to as:
A. Deduction D. Inductive approach
B. Logical reasoning E. None of these
C. Positive approach
982. Jun witnessed the killing of the victim. Later in the day, he was invited to
the police
station where photographs of varied facial types which do not necessarily
represent the
criminal were shown to him. What file of photographs was shown to Jun?
A. General photographs C. Rogues gallery
B. Mug files D. Photographic files
983. DNA uses the complex molecular structure forming the principal constituent of
the genes
to identify persons. DNA stands for –
A. Deoxirybonucleic Acid C. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
B. Deoxyribonucliec Acid D. None of these
984. The word “traffic” is believed to have originated from the French word
“Trafic” from old
French “trafique,” and or from Italian word “traffic” or “trafficare.”
(Italian). These ancient
words mean the following, except –
A. to trade D. carry on trade
B. commerce E. none of these
C. to move
985. The English term nomad came from the Greek word nomas or nomein which
originally
refers to –
A. All of these apply
B. Groups of people travelling by foot to look for foods
C. People who wander for foods
D. Groups that migrate in an established pattern to find pasture lands for their
domestic
livestock
E. Tribes who were primarily engaged in nomadic lifestyle
986. What was the contribution of Etienne Lenoir as far as transportation is
concerned?
A. Pneumatic tires D. Motor vehicle
B. Dandy horse E. Internal Combustion Engine
C. Hobby horse
987. Henry Ford is known in Land Transportation as the –
A. inventor of the internal combustion engine D. pioneer in mass production of
vehicles
B. inventor of the popular Model T E. Both B and D
C. pioneer in making horseless carriage
988. A road that interconnects cities and municipalities are classified to as –
A. City road or highway D. Provincial Road or
highway
B. Municipal road or highway E. Either A or B
C. National Road or highway
989. Safety campaigns are usually carried on through the –
A. Local Government Units D. PNP Traffic Management
Bureau
B. Mass Media E. Citizen Support Groups
C. Land Transportation Office
990. The government agency having the primary responsibility of enforcing the R.A.
4136 is
the –
A. DOTC D. Both B and C
B. LTO E. All of these
C. LTFRB
991. Training of traffic auxiliary personnel answers the problem concerning –
A. Human errors D. Physical inadequacy
B. Poor control measures E. All of these
C. Poor maintenance
992. The conducting of fact-finding activities, surveys, and recommendations of
traffic rules
and regulations is a function of –
A. Traffic Enforcement D. Traffic Education
B. Traffic Engineering E. All of these
C. Traffic Environment
993. In general, drivers’ training and education aims primarily to –
A. Teach the rudiments of driving
B. Instill awareness of one’s legal and moral responsibilities in traffic
C. Teach the abilities required for one to be eligible for a driver’s license
D. Prepare the student pass the regulatory testing for driver’s license
E. All of these
994. PO2 Vargas apprehended Miss Mindurown B. Isness for traffic infraction. The
infraction
involves a violation of a provision of R.A. 4136. If you are PO2 Vargas, which
will you
issue as receipt of confiscation of the latter’s driver’s license?
A. Traffic Citation Ticket D. Traffic
Infraction Receipt
B. Traffic Violator’s Receipt E. Any of these can be
issued
C. Temporary Operator’s Permit
995. There are five essential steps in the traffic enforcement process: 1)
apprehension; 2)
adjudication; 3) prosecution; 4) detection; and 5) penalization. Which is
correct enumeration
in reverse chronology?
A. 1, 2, 3 4, & 5 D. 1, 4, 3, 2, & 5
B. 2, 3, 4, 5, & 1 E. 3, 4, 2, 5 & 1
C. 4, 1, 3, 2, & 5
996. The reduction of number of traffic violators particularly those related to
traffic
obstruction to have free-flow of traffic is a goal of traffic law enforcement
which is to –
A. All of these D. increases safety level
B. Increase traffic efficiency E. insure harmonious and comfortable
environment
C. Increase traffic mobility
997. There are two major functions in traffic law enforcement. Whose function the
enforcement of traffic laws deterrent to law violations, special assistance to
prosecutors and
courts?
A. Traffic Enforcement D. Either B or C
B. Police Traffic Law Enforcement E. None of these
C. Court Traffic Law Enforcement
998. There are three elements of traffic enforcement system. Which one is consist
of
legislation, police, and courts?
A. Enforcement system D. Traffic System
B. Road User System E. Trafficway System
C. Road System
999. One of the specific causes of traffic accidents is misperceiving or misjudging

the road
situation ahead. This cause is under the factor involving –
A. Driver’s condition D. Human errors
B. Main Vehicle or motor vehicle factors E. A or D
C. Road Factors
1000. Under the three principles of preventing or reducing traffic accidents, the
preceding
condition can be corrected by “E” or pillar of traffic?
A. Enforcement D. Engineering
B. Education E. Economy
C. Environment or ecology
Prepared by: Reviewed by:

Emerson C. Avendaño Famela Iza C. Matic PhD.
Instructor, CCJ Dean, CCJ

CDI 1000 Questions

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Republic of the Philippines

CAVITE STATE UNIVERSITY

Don Severino de las Alas Campus

 (046) 8620-290/ (046) 4150-013 loc 221

College of Criminal Justice

First Semester, AY 2016-2017

Year and Section: Score:

Choose the letter of the best answer.

1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of

b. It invites a denial and subsequent loss of face by the offender d.

521. the success of interrogation largely depends on

A) Legality’ topic’ physical insight’ experience

999. One of the specific causes of traffic accidents is misperceiving or misjudging

Prepared by: Reviewed by:

Instructor, CCJ Dean, CCJ

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