Professional Documents
Culture Documents
BUDGETING
Particulars Rs.
Sales revenue xxx
Less : Variable Cost xxx
Contribution xxx
Less : Fixed Cost xxx
Earning before Depreciation and Taxes xxx
(EBDT)
Less : Depreciation xxx
Earning Before Taxes (EBT) xxx
Less : Taxes xxx
Earning After Tax (EAT) xxx
Add: Depreciation xxx
Cash Flows After Tax (CFAT) or xxx
Earning after Taxes but Before
Depreciation (EATBD)
Machine
X Y
(Rs.) (Rs.)
Capital Cost 6,00,000 6,00,000
Sales 10,00,000 8,00,000
Cost of Prod. : D. Material 80,000 1,00,000
D. Labour 1,00,000 60,000
Factory O.H. 1,20,000 1,00,000
Adm. Overheads 40,000 20,000
Selling & Dist. Exps. 20,000 20,000
Solution :
Calculation of Cash flows After taxes (CFAT)
Machine Machine
Particulars
(X) (y)
Sales revenue 10,00,000 8,00,000
Less : Variable & Fixed cost
Direct Material 80,000 1,00,000
Direct Labour 1,00,000 60,000
Factory O/H 1,20,000 1,00,000
Administrative O.H 40,000 20,000
Selling & Distribution Cost 20,000 20,000
Solution :
Working notes :
Calculation of Average Annual Income After
Depreciation and Taxes
Project X Project Y
Particulars (Rs.) (Rs.)
Average EBDT 8,00,000 9,33,333
Less: Depreciation 2,25,000 2,25,000
Average EBT 5,75,000 7,08,333
Less : Taxes @ 50 % 2,87,500 3,54,166
Average EAT 2,87,500 3,54,167
Calculation Depreciation
Project X : (10,00,000-1,00,000)/4 = Rs.2,25,000
Calculation EBIT
Project X : 32,00,000/4 = 8,00,000
Project y : 56,00,000/6 = 9,33,333
Accept-Reject Rule
IRR = A +{ (C - O)/(C - D) } x (B - A)
Where
A = Discounted factor of low trial
B = Discounted factor of high trial
C = Present value of cash inflow in low trial
D = Present value of cash inflow in high trial
O = Original or initial outlay
Solution :
we know that IRR is the rate at which project
will have a zero NPV. As a first step, we try a
20% discount rate. The project's NPV at 20%
is.
Where
A = 15%
B = 16%
C = Rs.16,200
D = Rs.15,943
O = Rs.16,000
Accept-Reject Rule
Accept : PI >1
Reject : PI < 1
considered :PI = 1
Capital Rationing
They are
(A) Ordinary techniques or general
techniques, such as (i) risk adjusted
discount rate and (ii) certainly equivalent
coefficient.
(B) Quantitative techniques such as (i)
Sensitivity Analysis, (ii) Probability
Assignment, (iii) Standard Deviation, (iv)
Coefficient of Variance and (v) Decision
Tree.
Solution :
First Step : Calculation of Risk-Adjusted Discount
Rate.
For Project A
For Project B
1 25,000 .7 30,000 .6
2 30,000 .5 35,000 .5
3 20,000 .4 25,000 .4
4 15,000 .3 12,000 .2
5 10,000 .2 10,000 .1
Solution :
Project X
Risk Adjusted
Est.Cash PVF @ Present Value
Years CEC Cash Flows
Flow (Rs.) 15% (Rs.)
(Rs.)
(25,000 x .7) (17,500 x .870)
1 25,000 0.7 = 17,500
0.870 = 15,225
(30,000 x .5) (15,000 x .756)
2 30,000 0.5 = 15,000
0.756 = 11,340
(20,000 x .4) (8,000 x .658)
3 20,000 0.4 = 8,000
0.658 = 5,264
(15,000 x .3) (4,500 x .572)
4 15,000 0.3 = 4,500
0.572 = 2,574
(10,000 x .2) (2,000 x .497)
5 10,000 0.2 = 2,000
0.497 = 994
Gross Present Value 35,397
Less : Initial Capital outlay 30,000
Net Present Value 5,397
Project Y
(i) Pessimistic
(ii) Most likely and
(iii) Optimistic
Illustration:
A company has two capital investment proposals,
A and B under consideration both the projects
require investment of Rs.6,000.
Project A Project B
Probable Cash Cash
Probability Probability
cash inflow inflow
Assign. Assign.
inflows Rs. Rs.
A 5,000 0.20 10,000 0.15
B 6,000 0.30 8,000 0.25
C 8,000 0.40 8,000 0.30
D 8,000 0.20 6,000 0.25
E 10,000 0.10 5,000 0.20
You are required to give your opinion regarding
the selection of the project.
Solution :
Project A
Probable Cash
Probability
cash inflow Expected Monetary Value
Assign.
inflows Rs.
A 5,000 0.20 5,000 x .20 = 1,000
B 6,000 0.30 6,000 x .30 = 1,800
C 8,000 0.40 8,000 x .40 = 3,200
D 8,000 0.20 8,000 x .20 = 1,600
E 10,000 0.10 10,000 x .10 = 1,000
Total Expected monetary
8,600
value
Project B
Illustration :
Possible
Project A Project B
Events Cash inflow Probability Cash inflow Probability
Rs. Assign. Rs. Assign.
A 5,000 0.20 12,000 0.20
B 7,000 0.15 10,000 0.20
C 9,000 0.30 9,000 0.40
D 9,000 0.20 8,000 0.15
E 10,000 0.10 6,000 0.10
Solution :
Project A
Possi Cash Deviation from the Deviation Probability Product of
ble inflow A.mean Squared Assign. Standard
Event Rs. up deviation. &
Probability
A 5,000 8,000 - 5,000 = 3,000 90,00,000 0.20 90,00,000 x
0.20 =
18,00,000
B 7,000 8,000 - 7,000 = 1,000 10,00,000 0.15. 1,50,000
C 9,000 0.30 3,00,000
D 9,000 0.20 2,00,000
E 10,000 0.10 4,00,000
Total of Product of squared deviations and Probability 28,50,000
Standard Deviation = Square root of 28,50,000
= 1688.19
Project B
Project A
Coefficient of variation = (Standard Deviation x
100)/ Mean
= 1688.19/8,000 = 0.21
Project B
Coefficient of variation = (Standard Deviation x
100)/ Mean
= 1746.42/9,000 = 0.19