1st Week

Week ly Optimum Current Q & A P DF – B ased On Recent E x am Trends Firs t Week of J uly (1 s t J uly – 8 t h J uly 2023)
National /State News
1. In July as per report Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission on 1st July in the
__________ district of Madhya Pradesh.
A. Shahdol
B. Indore
C. Rewa
D. Bhopal
E. Jabalpur
• National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission to be launched by PM Modi in Madhya Pradesh.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi will launch the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission on 1st July in
the Shahdol district of Madhya Pradesh.
• During the event, the PM will also distribute sickle cell genetic status cards to beneficiaries.
• He will also start the distribution of about 3.57 crore Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
cards in Madhya Pradesh.
• The main aim of the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission is to resolve the health challenges posed
by sickle cell disease, particularly among the tribal population.
• The mission's launch will play a crucial role in the Government’s ongoing efforts to eliminate sickle cell disease
as a public health problem by 2047.
• The National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission was announced in the Budget of 2023.
• It will be implemented in 278 districts of 17 states. This includes Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Madhya
Pradesh, West Bengal, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Assam, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
• Sickle-cell anaemia is caused by a defective gene, Haemoglobin S.
• In this disease, red blood cells become stiff sickle-shaped cells. It obstructs the flow of blood in the body.
2. Consider the following statement regarding Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0 for 2021-22. Which of the
following statement is incorrect?
A. The Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education has created PGI for states and UTs.
B. The PGI for states/UTs was first released for the year 2017-18.
C. No states/UTs have attained the highest grade ‘Daksh’.
D. Only Punjab and Chandigarh have attained Grade Prachesta -2 (score 641-700).
E. The PGI 2.0 classified states/UTs into 8 grades.
• Ministry of Education released Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0 for 2021 -22.
• For 2021-22, Government has released Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0 for states and union territories.
• The Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education has created PGI for states and UTs.
• For a comprehensive analysis, this index assesses the performance of the school education system at the
state/UT level.
• The PGI for states/UTs was first released
for the year 2017-18.
• The new PGI is more focused on qualitative assessment, digital initiatives and teacher education.
• It comprises 1,000 points across 73 indicators grouped into two categories- Outcomes and Governance management.
• These categories are further divided into six domains, namely learning outcomes (LO), access (A), infrastructure and facilities (IF), equity
(E), governance process (GP), and teachers education and training (TE&T).
• The PGI 2.0 classified states/UTs into ten grades. The highest grade is 'Daksh' (Score of more than 940 points).
• The lowest grade is Akanshi-3 which is for score up to 460.
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• The indicators of the Performance

Grading Index 2.0 have been aligned
with the policy initiatives and strategies
introduced after the implementation of
the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020
for proper tracking of the progress.
• No states/UTs have attained the highest
grade ‘Daksh’.
• Only Punjab and Chandigarh have
attained Grade Prachesta -2 (score 641-
700).
• Chandigarh received a score of 659.0
while Punjab get a score of 647.4.
• Six states/UTs attained Grade Prachesta
- 3 (score 581-640)
• Three states namely Arunachal Pradesh,
Meghalaya and Mizoram got Grade
Akanshi – 3 in the PGI 2.0.
• 13 States/ UTs attained Akanshi-2.
3. In July as per report _____________hackathon has been announced by centre to generate innovative ideas for the availability and fair
pricing of tomatoes.
A. Onion Grand Challenge
B. Tomato Grand Challenge
C. Potato Grand Challenge
D. Cotton Grand Challenge
E. Brinjal Grand Challenge
• Tomato Grand Challenge (TGC)

hackathon has been announced by
centre to generate innovative ideas
for the availability and fair pricing of
tomatoes.
• The Secretary, Department of
Consumer Affairs, Shri Rohit Kumar
Singh has announced the TGC
hackathon.
• Department of Consumer Affairs has formulated TGC in collaboration with the Ministry of Education (Innovation Cell).
• Students, Research Scholars, Faculty Members, Industry individuals, Indian start -ups, Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), Limited
Liability Partnerships (LLPs), and Professionals can take part in the TGC.
• TGC has been announced to invite innovative ideas at various levels of the tomato value chain so that consumers get tomatoes at
affordable prices and tomato farmers get value for the produce.
• Tomato is produced almost in all the states in India. Maximum production is in the southern and western regions of India.
4. In July as per report which state seven products have received Geographical Indication tag from the Geographical Indications Registry in
Chennai?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Karnataka
C. Maharashtra
D. Uttar Pradesh
E. Odisha
• UP’s seven products have received Geographical

Indication tag from the Geographical Indications
Registry in Chennai.
• These products are ‘Amroha Dholak’, ‘Mahoba
Gaura Patthar Hastashlip’, ‘Mainpuri Tarkashi’,
‘Sambhal Horn Craft’, ‘Baghpat Home Furnishings’,
‘Barabanki Handloom Product’ and ‘Kalpi Handmade
Paper’.
• Amroha Dholak is made of woods such as Mango,
jackfruit and teakwood.
• This musical instrument is created by using wood from mango and sheesham trees to carve the hollow blocks, which are later fitted with
animal skin, mostly goatskin.
• Baghpat is famous for its handloom home furnishing product.
• Only cotton yarn is used in the handloom weaving process. Baghpat is known for weaving on the f rame loom instead of the pit loom.
• Historically, Kalpi has been a centre of handmade paper manufacturing. It was formally introduced at Kalpi by Munnalal ‘Khadd ari’, a
Gandhian, in 1940s.
• The Mahoba Gaura Patthar Hastashlip is a stone craft. It is made using white-coloured stone that is mainly found in this region.
• Tarkashi is a famous art form from Mainpuri in Uttar Pradesh. It is mainly brass wire inlay work on wood.
• It was primarily used for khadaous (wooden sandals).
• Sambhal Horn Craft is made using raw material from dead animals.
5. In July as per report PM participated in the centenary celebrations of _________and laid the foundation stone of three buildings.
A. Magadh University
B. Nalanda University
C. Lucknow University
D. Delhi University
E. Punjab University
• PM participated in the centenary celebrations of Delhi University and laid the foundation stone of three buildings.
• On 30 June, PM Narendra Modi took part in the Valedictory Ceremony of the Centenary celebrations of Delhi University and laid the
foundation stone of three buildings of the University.
• PM laid the foundation stone of the Delhi University Computer Center and the building of the Faculty of Technology, and the a cademic
block, which will be built in the North Campus of the University.
• On 30 June, the Prime Minister took a metro ride from Lok Kalyan Marg Metro Station to Vishwa Vidyalaya Metro Station to visi t Delhi
University.
• On May 1, 1922, the University of Delhi was established.
• In these years, the university has grown and expanded tremendously and now has 86 departments, 90 colleges, and over 6 lakh students
and has contributed immensely to nation-building.
6. In July as per report India’s first ‘Police Drone Unit’ has been launched in ___________for aerial surveillance over vast areas and quick
detection of criminal activities.
A. Kochi
B. Chennai
C. Mumbai
D. Lucknow
E. Srinagar
• On June 29, the ‘Police Drone Unit’ has been launched by the Greater Chennai City Police (GCP) for aerial surveillance over v ast areas and
quick detection of criminal activities.
• The newly-created special unit has been inaugurated by the Director General of Police (DGP) and Head of Police Force C Sylendra Babu at
Besant Avenue, Adyar.
• The unit has been set up at a cost of ₹3.6 crore.
• The unit has been established at a two-storey building, which will function with over 20 trained police personnel.
• Currently, drones have been operated around Marina and Elliot's Beaches.
• In this Drone Police Unit, there are a total of nine drones under three categories as Quick response surveillance drones, Heavy lift
multirotor drones, and long-range survey wing planes.
• They are equipped with in-built artificial intelligence (AI) capabilities and can be operated up to a distance of 5 -10 kilometers from the
ground station.
7. According to the ‘Plant Discoveries 2022’ published by the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) India added ________ animal species to its
faunal database.
A. 772
B. 695
C. 664
D. 584
E. 748
• In 2022, India added 664 animal species

to its faunal database.
• Union Minister for Environment, Forest
and Climate Change Bhupendra Yadav
released the details of new discoveries
and new records in Kolkata.
• India added 664 animal species to its
faunal database, which includes 467
new animal species and 197 new
records.
• India has also added 339 new plant
species which includes 186 taxa that are
new to science and 156 taxa as new
distributional records from the country
in the year 2022.
• The discoveries details of animal species
have been compiled by the Zoological
Survey of India (ZSI) in the publication
titled ‘Animal Discoveries - New Species
and New Records 2023’.
• Floral discoveries are in ‘Plant
Discoveries 2022’ published by the
Botanical Survey of India (BSI).
• Out of the total discovered species, there are three new species and one new record of mammals, two new records of birds, 30 new
species and two new records of reptiles, six new species and one new record of amphibia and 28 new species and eight new reco rds of
fishes.
• Out of total 664 animal species, 583 species are invertebrates while 81 species are vertebrates.
• The maximum number of new discoveries have been recorded from Kerala with 14.6% of new species.
• Tamil Nadu (12.6%) and West Bengal (7.6%) came second and third, respectively.
• In 2022, the highest number of new discoveries has been recorded in the last 10 years.
8. Recently, the union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has issued scheme guidelines for implementation of strategic
interventions for green hydrogen transition (SIGHT) programme.
Which of the following will be the implementing agency responsible for the scheme’s execution?
A. Power Grid Corporation of India
B. Bureau of Energy Efficiency, India
C. Rural Electrification Corporation Limited
D. Solar Energy Corporation of India
E. Power Finance Corporation Ltd
• Recently, the union Ministry of New and

Renewable Energy (MNRE) has issued scheme
guidelines for implementation of strategic
interventions for green hydrogen transition
(SIGHT) programme.
• It is a sub component under the National Green
Hydrogen Mission.
• Component 1 of SIGHT : It aims at providing
electrolyzer manufacturing incentives with a total
outlay of INR 4440 crore for the period FY26 to
FY30.
• Component 2 of SIGHT: It focuses on green
hydrogen production with financial outlay of INR
13050 crore.
• The Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) would be the implementing agency responsible for the scheme’s execution.
• National Green Hydrogen Mission was launched in 2022, with the goal of making India energy independent and decarbonising majo r
sectors of the economy.
• India’s Green Hydrogen production capacity is likely to reach at least 5 MMT per annum, with an associated renewable energy c apacity
addition of about 125 GW.
• The targets by 2030 are likely to bring in over Rs. 8 lakh crore investments.
• Nearly 50 MMT per annum of CO2 emissions are expected to be averted by 2030.
9. Recently as per report _________ Nano Urea plants are to be set up across the country by 2025.
A. 7
B. 8
C. 6
D. 9
E. 12
• Recently, the Chemical and Fertilizer Minister said Nine Nano Urea plants to be set up across the country by 2025.
• The ministry is aiming to manufacture 44

crore bottles of Nano Urea by the year 2025.
• To achieve the target nine plants will be set
up across the country.
• It is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary
Agri-input that provides nitrogen to plants.
• It is developed and patented by the Indian
Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited
(IFFCO).
• IFFCO Nano Urea is the only nano fertilizer

approved by the Government of India and
included in the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO).
• It contains 4.0 % total nitrogen.
10. In July as per report Home Minister Amit Shah approved release of Rs. 6,194 crore state disaster relief funds to _________ States.
A. 16
B. 18
C. 19
D. 21
E. 15
• Recently, Home Minister approves release of Rs.

6,194 crore state disaster relief funds to 19 States.
• The amount includes Rs.1,209.60 crore as Central
share of the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) to
four States (Chhattisgarh, Meghalaya, Telangana,
Uttar Pradesh) for year 2022-23 and Rs.4,984.80
crore to 15 States (Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal
Pradesh, Assam, Bihar etc.)
• The release of funds will help States undertake relief measures during the current Monsoon season.
• The State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF), constituted under Section 48 (1) (a) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
• It is the primary fund available with State Governments for responses to notified disasters.
• Contribution:
• The Central Government contributes 75% of SDRF allocation for general category States/UTs and 90% for special category States /UTs (NE
States, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir).
• Disaster (s) covered under SDRF: Cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloudburst, pest
attack, frost and cold waves.
• Based on the 15th Finance Commission recommendations, the Central Government has allocated over one lakh 28 thousand crore ru pees
for SDRF for the years 2021-22 to 2025-26.
11. On 2nd July, Regional Symposium on Child Protection, Safety and Child Welfare was organized by the Ministry of Women and Child
Development (MWCD).
Recently as per report amount offered to non-institutional childcare has been also increased from Rs 2000 per month to Rs __________ per
month.
A. Rs 1000 per month
B. Rs 2000 per month
C. Rs 3000 per month
D. Rs 4000 per month

E. Rs 5000 per month
• On 2nd July, Regional Symposium on Child Protection, Safety and Child Welfare was organized by the Ministry of Women and Child
Development (MWCD).
• Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and UTs of Delhi, Chandigarh, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh have
participated in the event.
• More than 2000 representatives from Child Welfare Committ ees (CWCs), Juvenile Justice Boards (JJBs), Members of Village Child Protection
Committee (VCPC) and Anganwadi Workers attended the event.
• It is part of the series of regional symposiums to be held for raising awareness about child protection, safety and w elfare issues.
• The main focus of the programme was on amendments to the Juvenile Justice Act, Rules.
• MWCD in collaboration with the LBSNAA, Mussoorie has developed an online Training Module on the JJ Act. It was launched on th e
Karmayogi Igot platform.
• Under Vatsalya Mission, State CWCs and JJBs have been also formed in every district.
• The amount offered to non-institutional childcare has been also increased from Rs 2000 per month to Rs 4000 per month.
• Union Minister Smriti Zubin Irani said that around 3 lakh missing children have been reunited with their parents in the last 9 years by
DCPUs and police administration.
12. In July as per report Jharkhand’s Agriculture Minister Badal Patralekh inaugurated Shravani Mela in ________ on 03 July 2023.
A. Hazaribagh
B. Asansol
C. Deoghar
D. Ranchi
E. Dhanbad
• Jharkhand’s agriculture minister

Badal Patralekh inaugurated
Shravani Mela in Deoghar on 03
July 2023.
• The minister inaugurated the fair
by offering prayers on the
occasion of ‘Ashadha Purnima’ at
Baba Baidyanathdham temple in
Deoghar, Jharkhand.
• The arrangements have been made by the state government for Kanwariyas to perform the Jal Abhishek puja of Baba Baidyanath.
• Shravani Mela is a two-month long fair. It is being organised from the 3rd of July to t he 7th of September.
• Baba Baidyanathdham Temple is one of the 12 Jyotirlingas in the country.
13. What is the name of the mobile launched by Deendayal Antyodaya Yojna- National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) that will add to
eCommerce initiatives for products made by the SHGs?
A. eSARTHQ
B. eSAMRIDHI
C. eSTAR
D. eSAMPURN
E. eSARAS
• eSARAS mobile App has been launched by Deendayal Antyodaya Yojna- National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM).
• Shailesh Kumar Singh, Secretary, Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India launched the eSARAS mobile App.
• He also inaugurated eSARAS Fulfillment Centre, which is located at the Ministry’s Janakpuri office in New Delhi.
• The Foundation for Development of Rural Value Chains (FDRVC) will manage the eSARAS fulfillment centre.
• FDRVC is a Not for Profit Company constituted jointly by Ministry of Rural Development and Tata Trust.
• eSARAS is an e-commerce mobile app. It will be used as a platform for marketing of the products made by women of self -help groups.
• It is an initiative conceptualized by the DAY-NRLM, Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD).
14. Recently seen in news Palanhar Yojana has been launched by which of the following state government?
A. Odisha
B. Karnataka
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Uttar Pradesh
E. Rajasthan
• The Rajasthan government has launched the “Rajasthan Palanhar Yojana” to care for
orphans and destitute children in the state, under this scheme the government will not be
supported to raise, educate, etc, all orphaned children.
• This is done by making the person interested in raising children in the family of the
orphans’ relatives/acquaintances. Rs 500 per month for children up to 5 years old by the
government to Palanhar. After admission to the school, until the age of 18, a grant of Rs.
1,000 is provided every month.
• Rs. 500 to care for orphans under the Palanhar scheme up to the age of five.
• From admission to school until the age of 18, 1000 rupees will be offered every month.
• Also, under Rajasthan Palanhar Yojana, the government provides 2000 rupees each year
for orphaned children for basic work like shoes, jackets, clothes, etc.
• Under the Palanhar scheme, grants are awarded to Palanhar to bring up orphans, their
education, etc.
• The annual income of the Palanhar family should not exceed Rs 1.20 lakh.
• It is mandatory to send orphaned children to the Anganwadi Center at the age of two and
to school at the age of six.
15. In July as per report the union government approved the formation of India’s first
domestically regulated carbon market through a gazette notification.
As per guidelines which of the following will act as the carbon market regulator?
A. National Steering Committee
B. A Technical Committee,
C. An Accredited Carbon Verification Agency
D. Central Electricity Regulatory Commission
E. All of the above
• On 30 June, the union government approved the formation of India’s first domestically regulated carbon market through a gazette
notification.
• The 'Carbon Credit Trading Plan 2023', announced for the first time under the Energy Conservation Act, aims to set up a carbon credit
trading market in the country.
• The Bureau of Energy Efficiency, a wholly owned subsidiary of the Ministry of Power
has drafted the scheme.
• The scheme will include the

formation of a “National Steering
Committee, a Technical Committee,
an Accredited Carbon Verification
Agency, and the Central Electricity
Regulatory Commission (CERC) as the
carbon market regulator.
• The Grid Controller of India will act as
the registry of the Indian carbon
market.
• The Steering Committee will be
responsible for laying down the rules,
procedures, and guidelines for the
functioning of the carbon market.
• The technical committee will be responsible for compliance with the above rules and regulations.
• The Bureau has entrusted the existing power exchanges for t he carbon credit certificate trading.
• Any project or entity that saves on emissions can issue carbon credits against its savings. These will be usually energy effi ciency, renewable
energy, and sustainable agriculture projects.
• These credits can be purchased by an entity that is a carbon emitter.
• A carbon credit allows its owner to emit a certain amount of carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases.
• One credit is equal to one tonne of carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases.
• However, the notification did not specify the activities that would be eligible under the Carbon Trading Scheme.
16. As per report __________ Birth Anniversary of Alluri Sitarama Raju was celebrated on 4 July.
A. 100 th
B. 125 th
C. 150 th
D. 200 th
E. 250 th
• The 125th Birth Anniversary of Alluri Sitarama Raju was

celebrated on 4 July.
• President Droupadi Murmu took part in the valedictory
event of the birth anniversary celebrations of legendary
freedom fighter Alluri Sitarama Raju to be held in
Hyderabad.
• She presided over the event to be organized at Gachibowli
in Hyderabad.
• On July 4, 2022, PM Modi had launched the yearlong
125th birth anniversary celebration of Alluri Sitarama Raju
in Bhimavaram, Andhra Pradesh.
• The celebration started with the unveiling of a 30-foot bronze statue of Sitarama Raju by the Prime Minister.
• Alluri Sitarama Raju was born on 4 July 1897.
• He is remembered for his fight against the British to protect the interests of the tribal communities in the Eastern Ghats region (in Andhra
Pradesh).
• He had led the Rampa rebellion, which was launched in 1922.
• The local people know him as 'Manyam Veerudu' (Hero of the forests).
17. In July as per report Government has launched a scheme for pregnant minor rape victims “critical care and support for accessing justice to
rape/gang rape survivors and minor girls who get pregnant” with an outlay of __________.
A. Rs 45.60 crore
B. Rs 57.80 crore
C. Rs 74.10 crore
D. Rs 78.90 crore
E. Rs 56.20 crore
• Government launched a scheme for pregnant minor rape victims.

• A scheme for providing shelter, food and legal aid to pregnant minor victims of sexual assault,
who have no family support, has been launched by Union Minister Smrit i Irani.
• Women and Child Development Ministry has approved the proposal for “critical care and
support for accessing justice to rape/gang rape survivors and minor girls who get pregnant”.
• It has been launched with an outlay of Rs 74.10 crore and becomes applicable across the
country very soon.
• The government will also provide medical infrastructural support, apart from financial support
to victims.
• Under this scheme, minor girls who have been abandoned by their families due to forced
pregnancy, either due to rape or gang rape or due to any other reason will get support.
• NCRB reported 51, 863 cases under the POCSO Act in 2021. Out of total cases, 33,348 cases
were reported under sections 3 and 5 of the Act.
• The government has set up 415 POCSO fast-track court for accelerating access to justice for
minor victims of rape.
18. In July as per report an MoU was signed between the Ministry of Education (MoE), Govt. of India,
IIT Madras and which country for establishing first ever IIT campus outside India?
A. Singapore
B. UAE
C. Tanzania
D. Australia
E. Japan
• MoU for the

establishment of the IIT
Madras campus in
Zanzibar- Tanzania was
signed on 06 July 2023.
• The MoU was signed
between the Ministry
of Education (MoE),
Govt. of India, IIT
Madras and the
Ministry of Education
and Vocational
Training (MoEVT)
Zanzibar- Tanzania.
• This is the first ever IIT campus to be established outside India.
• Union Minister for Education Shri Dharmendra Pradhan said that National Education Policy 2020 is paving the way for making kn owledge
a key component of bilateral relations.
• NEP 2020 recommends that “High performing Indian universities will be encouraged to set up campuses in other countries”.
• IIT Madras will provide academic programs, curricula, student selection aspects and pedag ogical details.
• The government of Zanzibar-Tanzania will meet the capital and operating expenditure.
• IIT Madras degrees will be awarded to the students enrolled in this campus.
19. In July as per report PM Modi dedicated nation the LPG bottling plant of Indian Oil located in _________.
A. Kevti
B. Antagarh
C. Korba
D. Rewa
E. Raipur
• PM Modi laid the foundation stone of ten projects worth around rupees 7,600 crores in Raipur, Chhattisgarh.
• He dedicated to the nation two National Highway projects built at a cost of about rupees thirteen hundred crores.
• He laid the foundation stone of three other National Highway projects.
• He also dedicated to the nation the LPG bottling plant of Indian Oil located in Korba.
• He also dedicated to the nation doubling of the Raipur-Khariar road rail line and Kevti-Antagarh new rail line project.
• Shri Modi inaugurated the new train service between Antagarh to Raipur.
• He started the distribution of 75 lakh cards to the beneficiaries under the Ayushman Bharat scheme.
20. In July as per report Government launched India's first Tele-MANAS chat-bot in __________which will ensure round the clock services of
health counsellors, clinical psychologists and consultants.
A. Maharashtra
B. Karnataka
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Odisha
E. Jammu & Kashmir
• The Government launched India's first Tele-MANAS chat-bot in the

Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir, which will ensure round the
clock services of health counsellors, clinical psychologists and
consultants.
• The Centre had in Budget 2022 announced the National Tele Mental
Health Programme of India, Tele Mental Health Assistance and
Networking Across States (Tele-MANAS).
• Tele-MANAS is a two-tier system.
• Tier 1 comprises State Tele MANAS cells, which includes trained
counsellors and mental health specialists.
• Tier 2 comprises specialists at District Mental Health Programme
(DMHP)/Medical College resources for physical consultation and/or
eSanjeevani for audio visual consultation.
• The MoU inked between the J-K Health and Medical Education
Department and the Homi Bhabha Cancer Hospital and Research
Centre will provide significant technical support to improve cancer
care services in the UT and help us to establish preventive oncology
service, day care centres and palliative care service at district
hospitals.
• Another important MoU signed with NIMHANS Bengaluru will improve mental health services, training and capacity building of me dical
officers and nursing staff.
• Lt Governor also rolled out and launched several new initiatives to strengthen health system resilience
including T3 - Test, Treat and Talk.
21. Recently seen in news ‘Ama Pokhari’ Yojana is related to which of the following state?
A. Maharashtra
B. Odisha
C. Karnataka
D. Kerala
E. Gujarat
• CM Naveen Patnaik launched ‘Ama Pokhari’ Yojana.

• This initiative has been launched to rejuvenate around 2,000 large water bodies in all 115 urban local bodies of the state.
• Rs 120 crore has been allocated to the implementation of the initiative.
• The project will be implemented using natural and organic methodology to improve the climate of surrounding areas.
• The renovation and maintenance of these water bodies will be done in collaboration with members of Mission Shakti.
• The water bodies will also be developed for the recreation of citizens. It will also help in strengthening the ecological fabric of cities.
• This initiative will also help in improving the quality of life in urban areas.
• This initiative was implemented by Bhubaneswar, Cuttack, and Berhampur Municipal Corporation as a pilot project.
• The chief minister also felicitated Anand Malligavad. He is known as the ‘lake man’ of India.
22. Recently seen in news 32nd Annual Mango Festival was held in ____________.
A. Delhi
B. Pune
C. Lucnknow
D. Mumbai
E. Bhopal
• Tourism Minister Atishi inaugurated the

32nd Annual Mango Festival at Dilli Haat,
Janakpuri. It will conclude on July 9.
• During this three-day festival, people can
enjoy various cultural programs along with
different types of mangoes from 12 pm to
10 pm. There is no entry fee for the festival.
• The event is organised by Delhi Tourism in association with Delhi government.
• The last mango Fest in Delhi was held in 2019.
23. In July as per report dedicated ‘monkey forests’ (Vanar Vans) will be created in __________.
A. Chennai
B. Lucknow
C. Ranchi
D. Kolkata
E. Kanpur
• Lucknow will soon have four dedicated 'monkey forests' on its outskirts to check the growing monkey
menace within the city limits.
• These Vanar Vans will be created in three categories—by nagar nigam, forest and rural development
departments.
• As a pilot project, the first monkey forest would be developed in six acres of area in the Umaria village of
Bakshi-Ka-Talab area, following which similar forests would be developed in four corners of the city.
• The Umaria monkey forest would be called Laxman Vanar Van.
24. In July as per report secretary of Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances launched the
_________ edition of the National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment (NeSDA) portal.
A. 2 nd
B. 3 rd
C. 4 th
D. 5 th
E. 1 st
• Recently, secretary of Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances launched the
third edition of the National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment (NeSDA) portal.
• NeSDA framework, launched in August 2018 was conceptualized with an overall objective to
measure the depth and effectiveness of existing e-Governance service delivery mechanisms.
• The Department has successfully released 2 editions of NeSDA study, viz., NeSDA 201 9 and NeSDA
2021.
• This framework is based on the Online Service Index (OSI) of UN eGovernment Survey.
• The framework covers six sectors, Finance, Labour & Employment, Education, Local Government
& Utilities, Social Welfare (including Agriculture & Health) and Environment (including Fire)
sectors.
• NeSDA helps the respective governments improve their delivery of citizen centric services and
shares best practices across the country for all States, UTs and Central Ministries to emulate.
• It can also have Indian students.
25. In July as per report PM Modi inaugurated the Sai Hira Global Convention Centre in Puttaparthi
located in which of the following states?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Karnataka
C. Odisha
D. Kerala
E. Telangana
• PM Modi inaugurated the Sai Hira Global Convention Centre in Puttaparthi, Andhra Pradesh
through video conferencing.
• The Sri Sathya Sai Central Trust has constructed Sai Hira Global Convention Centre at Prasanthi
Nilayam in Puttaparthi.
• Prasanthi Nilayam is the main ashram of Sri Sathya Sai Baba.
• The convention centre is donated by philanthropist Shri Ryuko Hira.
• It is a testament to the vision of promoting cultural exchange, spirituality, and global harmony.
• Shri Ryuko Hira was conferred with the Padma Shri award in 2022 for his contribution to the
trade and industry.
• Ryuko Hira is an investor and philanthropist. He is the president of HMI Hotel Group and Ora
Group of companies in Japan. He was born in India.
26. Recnetly as per report Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced that the next 25 years of India's Independence are
going to be ___________.
A. Anushaasan Kaal
B. Prerna Kaal
C. Nirmaan kaal
D. Kartvya Kaal
E. Vijay Kaal
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced that the next 25 years of

India's Independence are going to be "Kartvya Kaal," as the country
is giving top priority to its "Kartavya" (duties).
• Moving towards the goal of completing 100 years of independence,
the government has named "Amrit Kaal" as 'Kartavya Kaal'.
• These pledges include the guidance of spiritual values and
resolutions for the future. It has both Vikas (development) as well as
Virasat (heritage).”
• Today, India is progressing in various fields including technology
and economy.
• India has now become one of the top 5 economies in the world
supporting the world's 3rd largest startup eco-system.
• India is competing with the world's leading countries in areas such
as digital technology and 5G.
• 40% of the world's real-time online transactions are happening in
India.
• In 2021, PM Modi first mentioned 'Amrit Kaal' during the 75th
Independence Day celebrations.
27. In July as per report Social Enterprise Conclave was organized by the Institute of Rural
Management, Anand in partnership with ____________ in New Delhi.
A. LIC Housing Finance Limited
B. Muthoot Finance
C. Bajaj Finserv
D. Piramal Finance
E. Shriram Finance
• On 4 July, Social Enterprise Conclave was organized by the Institute of Rural Management, Anand in partnership with LIC Housing Finance
Limited in New Delhi.
• At this event, Shri Pradhan launched the second edition of the Social Trailblazer Program.
• The aim of this program is to further boost the social entrepreneurship ecosystem at the grassroots level and nurture early-stage
entrepreneurs.
• Shri Pradhan said that the collective effort of IRMA and LIC HFL to help social enterprises is indeed commendable.
• New India is entering a new phase driven by the spirit of innovation and enterprise of youth power and such innovative initiatives will help
youth in their endeavor to make a greater impact towards social good.
• Social enterprises will have a key role to play in the growth of Country.
28. Recently seen in news Kakrapar Atomic Power

Project is located in which of the following
state?
A. Rajasthan
B. Gujarat
C. Maharashtra
D. Jharkhand
E. Odisha
• 700 MW nuclear power reactor at the Kakrapar

Atomic Power Project in Gujarat started
commercial operations on 30 June 2023.
• It is India’s first indigenously developed 700 MW
nuclear power reactor.
• It is presently operating at 90% of its total
power.
• Two 700 MW pressurised heavy water reactors
(PHWRs) are being built by the Nuclear Power
Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) at
Kakrapar.
• Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited
(NPCIL) plans to build sixteen 700 MW PHWRs
across India.
• Construction of 700 MW nuclear power plants is
being carried out at Rawatbhata in Rajasthan
and at Gorakhpur in Haryana.
• The construction of 10 indigenously developed
PHWRs at four locations has been approved by
the government.
• These locations are Gorakhpur in Haryana,
Chutka in Madhya Pradesh, Mahi Banswara in
Rajasthan and Kaiga in Karnataka.
29. Recently as per report Centre has identified

___________ critical minerals, including lithium,
cobalt, nickel, graphite, tin and copper, which
are essential for the country’s economic
development and national security.
A. 27
B. 30
C. 31
D. 17
E. 16
• In a strategic move, the Centre has identified 30 critical minerals, including lithium, cobalt, nickel, graphite, tin and cop per, which are
essential for the country’s economic development and national security.
• In a strategic move, the Centre has identified 30 critical minerals, including lithium, cobalt, nickel, graphite, tin and copper, which are
essential for the country’s economic development and national security.
• In November 2022, the Ministry of Mines had constituted a seven-member Committee to identify a list of minerals critical to our country
and the panel decided to have a ‘three-stage assessment’ to arrive at a list of critical minerals.
• The committee also called for a need for establishing a National Institute or Centre of Excellence on crit ical minerals on the lines of
Australia’s CSIRO, which is one of the largest R&D organisations in the world.
• A wing in the Ministry of Mines can be established as a Centre of Excellence for Critical Minerals.
• The Geological Survey of India, an attached office of Ministry of Mines, has carried out a G3 stage mineral exploration (fairly advanced) in
Salal-Haimna areas of Reasi district, Jammu & Kashmir, and estimated an inferred resource of 5.9 million tonnes of lithium ore.
• The US has declared 50 minerals critical in light of their role in national security or economic development.
• The UK considers 18 minerals critical, the European Union has declared 34 minerals critical, and Canada and Japan 31 each. Au stralia has
26 critical minerals.
30. In July as per report Amit Shah laid the foundation stone of the country’s first cooperative-run Sainik School in ___________.
A. Odisha
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Gujarat
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. Karnataka
• The foundation stone of India's first co-operative-run Sainik School was laid in Gujarat.
• On 4 July, this foundation stone was virtually laid by Amit Shah in Gujarat.
• The Sainik School will be established at Boriyavi village, 11 kilometers away from Mehsana city.
• It will be established by the leading cooperative Dudh Sagar Dairy at the cost of 75 crores rupees.
• This Sainik School has been started on the PM Narendra Modi's appeal to start 100 new Sainik Schools on a PPP basis in the co untry.
• The then Chief Minister and current Prime Minister Narendra Modi did the work of water revolution in Gujarat.
• Shri Modi has worked to increase the water level in Gujarat through Sujalam Sufalam Yojana.
• The central government has done the work of connecting people with the cooperative sector.
31. In July as per report a campaign has been launched by the government to transform 75 _______________into Tourism Spots.
A. Bus Stands
B. Railway Station
C. Lighthouses
D. Beaches
E. All of the above
• A campaign has been launched by the government to transform 75 Lighthouses into Tourism Spots.
• Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal launched this campaign from Dwarka in Gujarat on 2nd July.
• The main of the campaign is to showcase the rich culture and significance of the magnificent structures of Lighthouses. It wi ll also help in
boosting the tourism and local economy.
• The newly developed lighthouses will have many tourist attractions such as musical fountains, museums, selfie points and othe rs.
• The Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal inaugurated the first three iconic Lighthouses at Dwarka, Gopnat h and Veraval in Gujarat.
• These historic lighthouses have been renovated with adequate facilities to convert them into tourist spots.
• He also urged business leaders to invest in the inland waterways sector of India in B2B as well as B2C businesses.
• Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal also attended the CII B20 Meet at Surat. He also called for investment in the rich river cruise to urism.
• He said that Government is committed towards transitioning in green energy in India’s maritime sectors.
32. Recently as per report India’s first-ever public hospital dedicated to organ transplants will be set up at ___________.
A. Hyderabad
B. Bengaluru
C. Pune
D. Mumbai
E. Delhi
• Karnataka CM Siddaramaiah presented the state budget with a total outlay of Rs 3.27 lakh crore for 2023-24.
• Approximately Rs 12,000 crore will be spent through various schemes for the development of Bengaluru.
• During his speech, CM promised to submit the detailed project report of the 37 -km Hebbal-Sarjapura road Metro line to the Government of
India for approval.
• Rs 1,000 crore has been allocated for the Bengaluru Suburban Railway Project.
• A Blackbuck Conservation Reserve has been declared in Bidar district at a cost of ₹2 crore.
• On 1st November 2023, Karnataka will complete 50 years of renaming Karnataka from Mysore state.
• On this occasion, programs will be organized throughout the year in the name of ‘Hesarayithu Karnataka, Usiragali Kannada’.
• India’s first-ever public hospital dedicated to organ transplants will be set up at NIMHANS at the co st of ₹146 crore. For this, ₹ 30 crore is
provided in the current year.
• Film City will be developed in the Mysuru district under the Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.
• CM allocated ₹100 crore for the maintenance of Indira canteens in the State. Petrol bunks will be opened at 100 places under the Udyama
Shakti scheme.
• A new program named ‘Sasya Shamala’ will be launched to plant 50 lakh saplings in schools.
33. In July as per report a single window NCC Integrated Software has been launched by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh for Cadets.
Which of the following has developed this software?
A. Tata Institute of Fundamental Research
B. Indraprastha Institute of Information Technology
C. Bhaskaracharya Institute for Space Applications and Geoinformatics
D. Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research
E. National Institute of Mental Health & Neuro Sciences
• A single window NCC Integrated Software

launched by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh for
Cadets.
• On 07 July, it has been launched in New Delhi
as a major step towards promoting
digitization and in line with the Digital India
Mission.
• It has been developed in partnership with the
Bhaskaracharya Institute for Space
Applications and Geoinformatics (BISAG), and
is a single-window interactive software
designed on the Entry to Exit Model'.
• NCC Integrated Software is based on Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi's vision of "Once a cadet is always a cadet".
• It will digitize the entire process from the stage of enrollment as a cadet in NCC to exit registration as an alumnus.
• This will help in the seamless issuance of certificates, and the creation of a pan-India database of NCC cadets at the time of employment.
• During the event, NCC and State Bank of India signed an MoU for opening zero balance accounts for all NCC cadets with debit cards,
checkbooks, and passbook facilities under SBI's "Pehli Udaan" scheme.
• This MoU will benefit about 5 lakh cadets every year.
• This account will remain in operation till the completion of training or till attaining the age of 18 years, whichever is later.
• This will not only introduce the cadets to the national banking system but will also provide them a ready platform to avail b enefits of other
government schemes through DBT (Direct Benefit Transfer) of funds in their accounts.
34. In July as per report ____________university researchers have developed a new variety of wheat.
A. Haryana Agricultural University
B. Bihar Agricultural University
C. Jharkhand Agricultural University
D. Punjab Agricultural University
E. Uttar Pradesh Agricultural University
• Punjab Agricultural University researchers developed a new variety of wheat.

• The Ludhiana-based Punjab Agricultural University, which had played a vital
role during the Green Revolution, has develop a new variety of wheat.
• It has developed a new wheat variety with high amylose starch content. It will
help in reducing the risks of type-2 diabetes and cardiovascular diseases.
• The chapatis made of this new variety of wheat called PBW RS1 won’t
immediately increase glucose levels.
• The wheat containing high amylose and resistant starch ensure that glucose gets released more slowly into the bloodstream.
• PBW RS1 has a significant drawback. The average grain yield from this variety has been recorded at 43.18 quintals per hectare.
• PBW RS1 has 56.63 per cent amylose compared to only 21-22
per cent in other varieties.
• A team of wheat breeders led by Dr V S Sohu has developed
this variety over 10 years.
• Punjab Agricultural University is the first to combine five
novel alleles (genes) affecting resistant starch levels for
developing this variety.
• PAU had earlier released two varieties of wheat- PBW Zn1
with high zinc content, and PBW1.
35. Recently seen in news Bhadrakali temple is located in which

of the following state?
A. Telangana
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Karnataka
D. Rajasthan
E. Assam
• PM Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone of several

infrastructure projects in Warangal, Telangana on 8 July.
• Shri Modi reached Hakimpet airport in a special flight from
Varanasi.
• After visiting the famous Bhadrakali temple, the Prime Minister laid the foundation stone of infrastructure projects worth si x thousand crore
rupees through virtual medium.
• The Prime Minister also addressed a public meeting at the Arts College Ground in Hanamkonda.
• PM Modi laid the foundation stone of several infrastructure projects in Warangal.
• These include a 176 km long national highway to be built at a cost of Rs 5500 crore and a railway manufacturing unit to be built at a cost of
more than Rs 500 crore.
• The PM also laid the foundation stone for the 108 km Mancherial-Warangal section of the Nagpur-Vijayawada corridor, which will reduce
the distance on the two national highways by 34 km.
• He also laid the foundation stone for the conversion of the 68 km long Karim Nagar -Warangal section from two-lane to four-lane.
• This will improve connectivity to the Hyderabad-Warangal Industrial Corridor, Kakatiya Mega Textile Park, and Special Economic Zone in
Warangal.
• The Prime Minister also laid the foundation stone of a railway manufacturing unit at Kazipet, which will improve manufacturin g capacity
and generate employment opportunities for the local youth.
36. In July as per report __________won the GeM award in the "Timely Payments (CPSEs)" category for 2023.
A. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
B. NTPC Limited
C. NHPC Limited
D. NLC India Limited
E. Power Finance Corporation
• NLC India Limited (NLCIL) bagged the GeM award in the category "Timely Payments (CPSEs)"
• It has received the award for its outstanding contribution in improving the credibility of e-market practices in line with the vision of GeM.
• GEM's vision is to promote transparent, inclusive and efficient public procurement in India.
• NLCIL was on boarded on GeM portal in the year 2017 and started procurement from a small value of Rs 2.21 crore during the year 2018 -
19.
• NLC India's Director (Planning and Projects) K Mohan Reddy received the award on the behalf of company.
• Government e-Marketplace (GEM) is a dedicated online platform to facilitate the procurement of goods and services by various
government departments and organizations.
• NLC India Limited is a Navratna public sector enterprise under the Ministry of Coal.
• It was founded in 1956, It is headquartered in Neyveli, Tamil Nadu.
37. In July as per report Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) India has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the
___________ for cooperation in Unmanned Aircraft Systems and Innovative Air Mobility.
A. Japan Union Aviation Safety Agency
B. Australian Union Aviation Safety Agency
C. Russian Union Aviation Safety Agency
D. European Union Aviation Safety Agency
E. German Union Aviation Safety Agency
• DGCA and EASA have signed a MoU for cooperation in Unmanned Aircraft Systems and Innovative Air Mobility.
• The MoU will facilitate collaboration on unmanned aircraft and innovative air mobility between the Directorate General of Civ il Aviation
(DGCA) and the European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA).
• It will also focus on information sharing between the two civil aviation authorities on technological developments and research.
• The signing of this MoU will boost the growth of the Indian unmanned aviation sector.
• A letter of intent (LoI) on Unmanned Aircraft Systems and Innovative Air Mobility was signed by DGCA with the EASA during EU -India
Aviation Summit held in New Delhi on 20th April 2023.
• EASA is an agency of the European Union (EU). It is responsible for civil aviation safety.
38. In July as per report Atal Innovation Mission launched ‘ATL Industry Visit’ in collaboration with ___________.
A. Sygneta
B. Natrure.Faram
C. Bayer
D. Life
E. AgriGrow
• Recently, the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) in collaboration with Bayer launched a unique industry visit initiative under Atal Tinkering labs
at Bayer’s manufacturing facility in Vapi, Gujarat.
• Atal Innovation Mission is the Government of India’s flagship initiative to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurs hip in the
country and was set up in 2016.
• Objective: To create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, re search
institutions, MSME and industry levels.
• All the initiatives of AIM are currently monitored and managed syst ematically using real-time MIS systems and dynamic dashboards.
• Implementing Agency: NITI Aayog.
• Atal Tinkering Labs:These are state-of-the-art space established in a school with a goal to foster curiosity and innovation in young minds,
between grade 6th to 12th across the country through tools and technologies such as Internet of Things, 3D printing, rapid prototyping
tools, robotics etc.
39. Recently as per report in order to resemble vintage Steam loco, _________ Railways will soon launch Steam heritage special train for
tourists.
A. Western Railways
B. Eastern Railways
C. Central Railways
D. Northern Railways
E. Southern Railways
• In order to resemble vintage Steam locos, Southern

Railways will soon launch Steam heritage special train
for tourists. Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw
inspected the special tourist train at M G R Central
Railway Station, Chennai.
• For the newly rolled out Steam heritage special train, the
Driving Trailer Cars of MEMU have been modified to
resemble vintage Steam locos and attached to both ends
of tourist train. The Steam heritage special train is
exquisitely designed coaches have been equipped with
world class facilities.
• Other than this, Shri Jagannath Yatra, a Bharat Gaurav Tourist Train, was launched from Delhi`s Safdarjung Rail way Station by Union
ministers Dharmendra Pradhan and Ashwini Vaishnaw and G Kishan Reddy, earlier this year.
• Railway Minister Ashwani Vaishnaw visited ICF in Chennai, where the manufacturing of the semi-high-speed trains are being done. During
his visit, the Railway Minister inspected and approved the new colour scheme of Vande Bharat train
• The Indian Railways is expected to change the colour of the Vande Bharat trains, whose manufacturing and makeover are current ly going
in Integral Coach Factory(ICF) in Chennai.
• The newly manufactured Vande Bharat trains will be getting a colour combination of saffron, white and black, after its makeov er.
40. Recently as per report PM Modi to attend Gita Press Centenary

Celebrations in Gorakhpur. Geeta Press was founded by
________.
A. Jaya Dayal Goyanka
B. Ghanshyam Das
C. Gautam Lal
D. Only A and B
E. All of the above
• PM Modi has begun his two day visit to Uttar Pradesh. He will
attend the centenary celebrations of the Gita Press and flag off
two Vande Bharat trains.
• He will also inaugurate a special issue of Shiv Puran, with 200
colour pictures of Shiva Lila.
• He will address a public rally at Wajidpur of more than 50,000
Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) workers.
• He will also lay the foundation stone of schemes worth Rs 1,800
crore and inaugurate projects worth about 10,000 crore at
Varanasi.
• PM Modi will flag off two Vande Bharat Trains — the Gorakhpur-
Lucknow Vande Bharat Express and the Jodhpur-Sabarmati Vande
Bharat Express.
• Gita Press is the world's largest publisher of Hindu religious texts.
• It was founded on 29 April 1923 by Jaya Dayal Goyanka and
Ghanshyam Das.
• Geeta Press has published more than 1800 types of books in 15
languages.
• Gita Press has been recently named for the prestigious Gandhi
peace prize.
41. In July as per report ____________has been honoured by British

PM Rishi Sunak with a Points of Light honour.
A. Marry Kom
B. Rajvinder Dhillon
C. V Vaidyanathan
D. Abhijit Sinha
E. Rajindhar Singh Dhatt
• Rajindhar Singh Dhatt has been honoured by British PM Rishi

Sunak with a Points of Light honour.
• Rajindar Singh Dhatt is one of the last surviving Sikh soldiers who
fought in the 2nd World War.
• United Kingdom's PM Rishi Sunak presented the Points of Light
award to Rajindar Singh Dhatt at a reception held to celebrate
India Global Forum’s UK-India Week 2023 in London.
• Dhatt is 101-year old. He was recognized for his work running the “Undivided India Ex-Servicemen’s Association”, which brought together
British Indian war veterans.
• Dhatt was born in pre-Partition India in 1921. Dhatt fought with the Allied forces during the British colonial period.
• Dhatt joined the British Indian Army during the 2nd World War.
• The Points of Light recognise outstanding people whose service is making a difference in their communities.
42. Which article of the Indian constitution states that the state shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for its citizens?
A. Article 42
B. Article 40
C. Article 41
D. Article 44
E. Article 45
• The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel,

Public Grievances, Law and Justice held a meeting under
the chairmanship of Sushil Modi on the Uniform Civil Code
(UCC). Seventeen members participated in the Meeting.
• At present, the personal laws of various communities are
governed by their religious scriptures.
• The Uniform Civil Code provides uniformity in the laws of
marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption etc. for all
religious communities.
• The Central government may introduce a bill on
implementing the UCC during the upcoming monsoon
session of Parliament.
• Uniform Civil Code refers to having a common set of laws
governing personal matters such as marriage, divorce,
inheritance, etc. for all citizens irrespective of their religion.
• Article 44 of the Indian constitution states that the state
shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for its
citizens
• Hindus, Muslims, Christians, and Sikhs have their own different personal laws.
• Uniform Civil Code main aim is to protect vulnerable sections including women and religious minorities.
• UCC is being opposed by some people because they argue that UCC could undermine the cultural fabric of the country and will restrict
religious freedom.
43. Recently as per report ____________species of birds have been found in the latest Bird Census of Bihar.
A. 221 species
B. 278 species
C. 222 species
D. 218 species
E. 205 species
• 205 species of birds have been found in the latest Bird Census of Bihar.
• The latest bird census in Bihar has been done by the Department of forests, environment and climate change in collaboration w ith the
Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS).
• 202 species of birds were found in the 2022 census.
• This year’s bird census was conducted in 26 districts of the state, covering 76 wetlands and three river systems.
• The survey team also visited nearly two dozen reservoirs, fishponds,
freshwater marshes and freshwater lakes.
• Government is conducting annual survey of birds since 2022 for

reviewing the status of birds and their habitats.
• The birds which were counted during survey includes water birds,
wetland dependent birds and land birds.
• The wetlands located in districts like Jamui, Patna, Bhagalpur,
Begusarai, and Vaishali are famous for migratory birds.
• Kalraw, a bird festival, was also organized by the forest department in
January 2021. Its main aim was to create awareness among people
about the conservation of birds.
• The forest department of Bihar had signed a memorandum of
understanding (MoU) with the Bombay Natural History Society in
2020 and set up a Bird Research Ringing, Monitoring and Awareness
Centre at Bhagalpur.
44. In July as per report an MoU has been signed between Sri Lanka's
Jaffna University and which IIT Institute to foster academic
collaboration and promote research initiatives?
A. IIT Ropar
B. IIT Kanpur
C. IIT Madras
D. IIT Bombay
E. IIT Delhi
• An MoU has been signed between Sri Lanka's Jaffna University and IIT
Madras.
• The MoU has been signed to foster academic collaboration and
promote research initiatives.
• The agreement provides for several opportunities for benefits including
the exchange of students and faculty between the two institutions.
• Initially, there will be an exchange of about ten students and faculty at
the undergraduate and postgraduate levels.
• The goal of this collaboration is to learn from the cultural experiences
of both countries and to promote educational diversity.
• Joint research will involve cooperation in specific areas, with a special
focus on renewable energy.
• IIT Madras has offered its expertise in creating a platform for joint
research in this area.
• Jaffna University also proposed setting up an incubation cell as in IIT
Madras.
• The partnership between the two institutions will prove to be a
milestone toward academic excellence and innovation in research.
• In 2021, the government formed a 16-member committee, headed by
the chairman of the standing committee of IIT Council, K
Radhakrishnan, to prepare a framework for setting up campuses
abroad.
45. In July as per report Taiwan has decided to open Taipei Economic and Cultural Centre in ___________.
A. Lucknow
B. Bengaluru
C. Jaipur
D. Hyderabad
E. Mumbai
• Taiwan has decided to open Taipei Economic and Cultural Centre in the commercial capital, Mumbai.
• Taipei Economic and Cultural Centre (TECC) are present in New Delhi and Chennai.
• The main aim of opening the Cultural Centre is to enhance cooperation between both countries.
• India and Taiwan do not maintain formal diplomatic ties.
• Many companies in Taiwan are looking to relocate their production bases to India from China.
• At present, India has the India-Taipei Association (ITA) office in Taipei.
• India and Taiwan’s cooperation has increased in the area of trade, critical supply chains, science and
technology, culture, and education in recent years.
• India has expressed interest in setting up manufacturing facilities of top Taiwanese companies,
especially world's largest chip maker Taiwan Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation (TSMC) in
India.
46. In July as per report Ministry of Home Affairs has launched a Scheme for Expansion and Modernization
of Fire Services in the States with an outlay of ___________.
A. Rs.1,000 Crore
B. Rs.2,000 Crore
C. Rs.3,000 Crore
D. Rs.4,000 Crore
E. Rs.5,000 Crore
• Ministry of Home Affairs has launched a Scheme for Expansion and Modernization of Fire Services in the
States.
• The scheme has a total outlay of Rs.5,000 Crore. Out of the total outlay, the government has kept an
amount of Rs. 500 crore for incentivizing the States on the basis of their legal and infrastructure-based
reforms.
• It was announced by Union Home Minister, Shri Amit Shah while chairing a meeting with Ministers of Disaster Management of the
States/Union Territories in New Delhi on 13th June, 2023.
• The scheme aims to expand and modernize Fire Services within National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF).
• In order to seek funds for the projects/proposals under the Scheme, the concerned State Governments are required to contribute 25% of
the total cost of such projects/proposals from their budgetary resources.
• The North-Eastern and Himalayan (NEH) States shall contribute 10% of the total cost of projects/proposals from their budgetar y resources.
• The scheme has its origins in the recommendations of the Fifteenth Finance Commission.
• It allows an allocation of 12.5% of each of the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) and State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF ) for the
Funding Window of Preparedness and Capacity Building.
47. In July as per report Union Cabinet approved the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2022.
The Bill proposes to levy a penalty of up to _______ crore on entities for every instance of violation of norms.
A.₹100 crore
B. ₹200 crore
C. ₹250 crore
D.₹300 crore
E. ₹350 crore
• The Union Cabinet approved the Digital Personal

Data Protection Bill, 2022 on 5 July.
• The bill is likely to be introduced in the upcoming
Monsoon session, which is starting from 20 July.
• Under this bill, there is a provision to form a Data
Protection Board to monitor the provisions of the
Act.
• The Bill proposes to levy a penalty of up to ₹250
crore on entities for every instance of violation of
norms.
• All online and offline data in India will come under
its legal domain.
• As per the bill, Personal data may only be processed
with the explicit consent of the individual.
• However, there will be exceptions in cases where
the government requires access to data for reasons
of national security and maintaining law and order.
• The Data Protection Bill was first drafted in
November 2022.
• The Supreme Court has considered privacy as a
fundamental right.
• Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(MeitY) considered 21,666 suggestions for the draft
of the Bill.
48. In July as per report Election Commission of India

launched a portal for parties to file _________.
A. Complaint
B. Financial statements
C. Candidate nominations
D. Symbols allocation
E. All of the above
• On 3 July, the portal was launched to allow registered political parties to file
their financial statements, including contribution reports, audited annual
accounts, and poll expenditure statements.
• The Commission has taken this step with two objectives - to facilitate
political parties to overcome difficulties in filing physical reports and to
ensure timely filing of financial statements in a standardized format.
• Online availability of data is expected to increase the level of compliance
and transparency.
• As per the Representation of the People Act, 1951, and the Transparency
Guidelines issued by the Commission, political parties are required to submit
financial statements to the Election Commission/Chief Electoral Officers of
States/UTs.
• The online portal also has a facility to send reminders as messages on the registered mobile numbers and registered emails of the
authorized representatives of the political party to adhere to the deadline.
• A comprehensive guide manual with graphical representations and FAQs has also been sent to political parties explainin g the process of
online modules and online report filing.
• Political parties who do not wish to file their financial reports through online mode shall inform the Commission in writing of the reasons
for not filing them online.
• They may continue to file their reports in hard copy along with CD/pen drive in the prescribed format.
49. In July as per report Indian Coast Guard & Indian Navy have signed an MoU with Indian Port Rail & Ropeway Corporation Ltd for the
planning, development, construction, and commissioning of a gallery at the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC).
National Maritime Heritage Complex is bieng constructed at ___________.
A. Dholavira
B. Harrapa
C. Surkotada
D. Alamgirpur
E. Lothal
• Indian Coast Guard & Indian Navy have signed an MoU

with Indian Port Rail & Ropeway Corporation Ltd in
Gandhinagar.
• On July 2, the MoU was signed for the planning,
development, construction, and commissioning of a
gallery on the theme “Evolution of Indian Navy & Indian
Coast Guard” at the National Maritime Heritage
Complex (NMHC).
• It will be constructed at the historic Indus Valley
civilization region of Lothal (Gujarat).
• The Central Government under the aegis of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways is building a National Maritime Heri tage
Complex (NMHC).
• In March 2019, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone for the NMHC project.
• It will include a Maritime Museum, Light House Museum, Maritime Theme Park, Amusement Park Centre, etc.
• NMHC will showcase the country's maritime heritage from ancient to modern times, adopting an education and entertainment approach
using latest technology to spread awareness about India's maritime heritage.
• It will have several innovative and unique features, such as the Lothal mini-recreation to recreate Harappan architecture and lifestyle.
• It will have four theme parks: the Memorial theme Park, the Maritime and Navy theme Park, the Climate theme Park, and the Adv enture
and Amusement theme Park.
• It will have fourteen galleries highlighting India’s maritime heritage starting from the Harappan times till now and a Coastal States
pavilion displaying the diverse maritime heritage of states and UTs, among others.
International / Report News
50. In July as per report __________has announced the establishment of a new Ministry of Investment aimed at developing the investment
vision of the country and enhancing its competitiveness in the global market.
A. UAE
B. Nepal
C. Bangladesh
D. Japan
E. Sri Lanka
• The United Arab Emirates (UAE) has announced the establishment of a new Ministry of Investment aimed at developing the investment
vision of the country and enhancing its competitiveness in the global market.
• Sheikh Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum, Vice President, Prime Minister of the UAE, and Ru ler of Dubai, chaired the UAE Cabinet
meeting where the decision was made. Under the directives of President Sheikh Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan, the UAE Cabinet
approved the establishment of the Ministry of Investment and appointed Mohamed Hassan Al Suwaid i as the minister.
• The ministry's main responsibilities will include proposing investment policies, preparing strategies and legislation, and implementing
national programs to promote the investment environment and enhance its competitiveness.
• The establishment of the Ministry of Investment reflects the UAE's commitment to attracting investments in various sectors and leveragin g
its world-class infrastructure as a global platform.
• The ministry will work in coordination with relevant authorities to support the country's business objectives and investment policies.
51. In July as per report International Monetary Fund (IMF) has agreed to provide ___________ billion to Pakistan in badly needed relief to
help bail out the impoverished country's ailing economy.
A. $1 billion
B. $2 billion
C. $3 billion
D. $4 billion
E. $5 billion
• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has reached

a staff-level pact with Pakistan on a $3 billion stand-
by arrangement, the lender said, a decision long
awaited by the South Asian nation which is teetering
on the brink of default.
• The deal, subject to approval by the IMF board in July, comes after an eight -month delay and offers some respite to Pakistan, which is
battling an acute balance of payments crisis and falling foreign exchange reserves.
• The International Monetary Fund is a major financial agency of the United Nations, and an international financial institution ,
headquartered in Washington, D.C., consisting of 190 countries.
52. Recently as per report India along with Pakistan will account for half the growth in global milk production
between 2023 and _________.
A. 2028
B. 2030
C. 2032
D. 2038
E. 2050
• According to the new agricultural outlook released by the Organisation for Economic Co -operation and
Development (OECD) and Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) India along with Pakistan will account for
half the growth in global milk production between 2023 and 2032, even as the rate of growth is expected to
decline.
• While the country's ethanol production is expected to more than double by 2032, its consumption will still be
higher.
• Production growth of major cereals, except coarse grains, and oilseeds is also expected to decline compared
to previous decade.
• Although the annual growth in milk production is expected to slow down t o 2.54% in 2023-32 compared with
3.78% in 2013-22, India's global share is expected to increase to 24% from 21% on average estimated for
2020-22.
• However, in the case of pulses, production growth is expected to be faster between 2023 -32 than in previous decade.
• The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads internat ional efforts
to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security.
• Headquarters: Rome, Italy.
• The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development is an intergovernmental organisation with 38 Member countries, founded
in 1961 to stimulate economic progress and world trade.
• Headquarters: Paris, France.
53. In July as per report which of the following have released the One Health Priority Research Agenda on Antimicrobial Resistance through a
webinar?
A. Food and Agriculture Organization
B. UN Environment Programme
C. World Health Organization
D. World Organisation for Animal Health
E. All of the above
• Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), the UN Environment Programme (UNEP), the World Health Organization (WHO) and the World
Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) have released the One Health Priority Research Agenda on Antimicrobial Resistance throu gh a
webinar.
• These organizations work specifically in the areas of human, animal, plant and environmental health.
• The agenda will act as a guide for countries, research institutes and funding bodies to support One Health AMR research.
• It will also allow policymakers, researchers, and the multidisciplinary scientific community to collaborate.
• It defined ‘One Health’ as a unifying approach, which aims to sustainably balance and optimise the health of people, animals and
ecosystems.
• Similarly, on June 22, 2023, WHO launched a global research agenda on AMR in human health.
• It also aims to guide stakeholders in generating new evidence to address antimicrobial resistance.
• With the mixed method approach, global experts have identified five key pillars as well as three cross-cutting themes.
• The five key pillars are- Transmission, Integrated surveillance, Interventions, Behavioural insights and change and Economics and policy.
54. Recently as per report __________ is the first country that has banned thin plastic bags for carrying fresh produce from supermarkets.
A. Australia
B. New Zealand
C. England
D. Germany
E. France
• New Zealand is the first country that has banned thin plastic bags for carrying fresh produce from supermarkets.
• The ban is also applicable to plastic straws and silverware.
• The government started a campaign against single-use plastics in 2019. The government is now expanding this campaign.
• In 2019, the government banned the thicker plastic shopping bags that were used by customers to carry home their grocery item s.
• Lightweight plastic bags are banned across Australia. Plastic straws, cutlery and food and drink containers are also being banned by some
jurisdictions.
• In India, the amended Plastic Waste Management Rules 2016 provide the statutory framework and the prescribed authorit ies for
enforcement of the rules, including ban on identified single use plastic items.
• Single use plastic items, which have low utility and high littering potential, have been prohibited, with effect from 1st Jul y, 2022.
55. Recently as per report World Mining Congress (WMC) 2023 was held in ___________.
A. Paris
B. Zurich
C. New York
D. Brisbane
E. Dubai
• World Mining Congress (WMC) 2023 held in Brisbane, Australia.

• India pavilion was represented by NLC India Ltd (NLCIL), Coal India Limited (CIL) and NMDC at the World Mining Congress (WMC) 2023 in
Brisbane, Australia.
• The World Mining Congress (WMC) is an UN-affiliated independent international organization promoting the importance of minerals,
advancing sustainable mining practices and contributing to the wellbeing of the global society.
• The World Mining Congress (WMC) was initiated in 1958 when prof. Bolesław Krupiński - a prominent Polish scientist and mining engineer
organized the first congress in Warsaw.
• World Mining Congresses shall normally be held at intervals of three years.
• The NLC India Limited (NLCIL) is a Navratna Enterprise, under the administrative control of Ministry of Coal. It was incorpor ated in 1956.
• Coal India Limited (CIL) is a Maharatna Central public sector undertaking under the ownership of the Ministry of Coal.
• National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) is an Indian public sector undertaking under the administrative control of Mi nistry of
Steel.
56. According to a World Bank and WTO report, India’s share in global commercial services exports has increased from 2% in 2005 to
________% in 2022.
A. 2.1%
B. 4.9%
C. 5.1%
D. 3.9%
E. 4.4%
• According to a World Bank and WTO

report, India’s share in global
commercial services exports has
increased from 2% in 2005 to 4.4% in
2022.
• China and India have doubled their
share of global commercial services
exports between 2005 to 2022.
• The report titled ‘Trade in services for development’ states that India has become a popular destina tion for medical travel.
• Around 3.5 million foreign patients came to India between 2009 to 2019.
• Foreign patients from United Kingdom, the United States, Bangladesh, Nepal and Sri Lanka visited India in search of cost -effective and
high quality treatment.
• As per the report, in India, South Africa and Türkiye, jobs directly linked to cross-border services exports are more than 10% of total
services sector jobs.
• The trade-in service has expanded mainly due to China, Hong Kong, Singapore, and India.
• According to the report, India and the Philippines will need to skill their workforce and invest primarily in research and development to
grow their domestic service sectors.
• In 2018, Services value-added accounted for over 51% of India's total exports.
• Global commercial services exports have almost tripled between 2005 and 2022.
57. Recently in June Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Heads of State adopted New Delhi Declaration.
Where will the next meeting of the SCO Council of Heads of State be held in 2024?
A. Kazakhstan
B. Kyrgyzstan
C. Pakistan
D. Iran
E. Russia
• Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Heads of State

adopted New Delhi Declaration.
• A virtual meeting of the Council of Heads of State of SCO
was held on 04 July 2023.
• According to the New Delhi Declaration, the Member
States will develop common principles and approaches to
form a unified list.
• This unified list will be of terrorist, separatist and
extremist organizations whose activities are prohibited on
the territories of the SCO Member States.
• The Member States stressed the need for a joint and
balanced approach to countering the trafficking of illicit
drugs.
• The Member States called for compliance with the Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling, a nd Use of
Chemical Weapons and on Their Destruction.
• Member states agreed to declare 2024 as the SCO Year of Environment.
• The presidency of the SCO is handed over to Kazakhstan.
• The next meeting of the SCO Council of Heads of State will be held in 2024 in Kazakhstan.
• One important achievement of the Summit is that Iran has become a member state of SCO. Now, the SCO has 9 member states.
• Nine SCO member states are China, India, Iran, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan.
58. Recently India virtually hosted the ___________ Summit of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization on 4 July.
A. 21 st
B. 22 nd
C. 23 rd
D. 24 th
E. 25 th
• India virtually hosted the 23rd Summit of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization on 4 July.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi chaired the 23rd Summit of the SCO Council of Heads of State.
• All SCO member states China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan were invited to participate in the
summit.
• Iran, Belarus and Mongolia were invited as observers. As per SCO tradition, Turkmenistan was also invited as the guest chair.
• The heads of two SCO bodies, the Secretariat and the SCO's Regional Anti-Terrorism Structure - the Rats, also participated in the summit.
• The theme of India’s Chairmanship of SCO-SECURE is derived from the acronym given by the Prime Minister at the 2018 SCO Qingadao
Summit.
• ‘Secure’ means Security, Economic development, Connectivity, Unity, Respect for sovereignty and territorial integrity, and En vironmental
protection.
• India has established new pillars of cooperation under its chairmanship by prioritizing startups and innovation, traditional medicin e, digital
inclusion, youth empowerment, and shared Buddhist heritage.
• India has chaired a total of 134 meetings and events, including 15 ministerial meetings.
59. In July as per report India Post recently entered into an agreement with ________ Post to introduce International Tracked Packet Service
(ITPS) between the two countries to facilitate e-commerce exports.
A. France
B. Sri Lanka
C. Bangladesh
D. Nepal
E. Canada
• India Post has entered into an agreement with Canada Post to introduce International Tracked Packet
Service between two countries to facilitate e-commerce exports from July 1.
• The International Tracked Packet Service (ITPS) is a competitive service that enables the transmission and delivery of packets and is
designed to meet the cross-border shipping requirements of e-commerce exporters, including MSMEs, small businesses, merchants, etc to
promote exports of their products using local post offices.
• India Post already provides ITPS service with 38 partner countries and Canada will be the 39th.
• The service was expanded to 38 countries from 16 nations by adding 22 new partners, including Britain, France, UAE, Egypt, Om an, etc.
from June 01, 2023.
60. In July as per report __________recently developed a new, autonomous fish robot named Belle, capable of giving conservationists a
clearer picture of the organisms that live under the sea without disturbing the marine environment.
A. Germany
B. China
C. France
D. Spain
E. Switzerland
• Researchers in Switzerland recently developed a new, autonomous fish robot named Belle, capable of giving conservationists a clearer
picture of the organisms that live under the sea without disturbing the marine environment.
• It is an autonomous underwater robot designed to collect DNA samples and film underw ater without disrupting the delicate ecosystem it
explores.
• By analyzing DNA samples and video footage collected by the robot, researchers aim to better understand the impact of human a ctivities
on marine life and develop targeted conservation strategies.
61. In July as per report India & _____________ signed MoU on Electoral Cooperation.
A. Australia
B. Japan
C. Singapore
D. Panama
E. Egypt
• The Election Commission of India and Electoral Tribunal (ET) of Panama signed a Memorandum of Understanding in Panama City to
establish the institutional framework for their ongoing cooperation in the field of election management and administration.
• ECI has been expanding its links and cooperation with foreign Election Management Bodies (EMBs) through its ‘International Coopera tion
Programme’. Having signed MoUs with Mexico, Brazil and Chile in the past years, this is the fourth MoU signed by ECI with an EMB in the
Latin Americas region, with an overall 31 MoUs with EMBs and international organisations across the world.
• The Election Commission of India and the Electoral Tribunal of Panama are members of the Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB).
• The ECI delegation will be attending the 11th Executive Board Meeting of A-WEB and an International Conference at Cartagena, Colombia.
• The Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB) is the largest association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide with 119
EMBs as Members & 20 Regional Associations/Organisations as Associate Members.
62. In July as per report India signed a Protocol document with Singapore to enhance cooperation till _________.
A. 2025
B. 2023
C. 2024
D. 2026
E. 2028
• India signed a Protocol document with Singapore to enhance cooperation till 2028.
• On 6 July, India and Singapore signed a Protocol document to extend the existing MoU on enhancing cooperation in the field of Personnel
Management and Public Administration for five years.
• It was signed by Secretary V Srinivas on behalf of the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances and Simon W ang, High
Commissioner of Singapore to India.
• It aims to strengthen the partnership between the two countries by enhancing cooperat ion between civil service officers of India and
Singapore.
• The MoU provides for cooperation in the areas of administrative reforms and public sector transformation, leadership and tale nt
development, e-governance, capacity building and training.
63. Recently, India became the ___________ signatory to the Artemis Accords, a set of non-binding guidelines that underpin the Artemis
programme, a U.S.-led project to return humans to the moon permanently.
A. 25 th
B. 26 th
C. 27 th
D. 28 th
E. 29 th
• Recently, India became the 27th signatory to the Artemis Accords, a set of non-binding guidelines that underpin the Artemis programme, a
U.S.-led project to return humans to the moon permanently.
• Artemis, named after the Greek Moon goddess, represents a comprehensive agreement drawn up by the US to bring together nations that
share a common vision for civil space exploration.
• It serves as a framework for cooperation and collaboration in space exploration, building upon the foundation of the Outer Sp ace Treaty of
1967.
• The Artemis Accords were jointly launched by the United States Department of State and NASA on October 13, 2020, with seven partn er
countries, such as Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, UAE, and the UK.
• The Accords have been signed by 26 countries as of June 23, including the original eight. These include traditional US allies like Japan,
Australia, the UK, France, and Canada, but also countries with relatively less developed space programmes like Colombia, Rwan da,
Nigeria, and Mexico.
• The Artemis programme includes plans for a base on the lunar surface, multiple spacecraft to ferry humans and cargo, an orbiting space
station, and a constellation of satellites to help with navigation and communication. The first Artemis crewed mission to the moon’s
surface is likely in 2026.
• By joining the Artemis Accords, ISRO gains access to valuable technologies and opportunities for scientific and technological
advancements. Collaboration with NASA would enable knowledge-sharing and technology transfer and enhance India’s space exploration
efforts.
• The joint mission to the International Space Station (ISS) in 2024, coupled with the Gaganyaan human module flights, would se t the stage
for India to raise its space aspirations.
64. Consider the following statement regarding Global Peace Index. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. It is released annually by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP).
B. Iceland is the most peaceful country in the world
C. Afghanistan is the least peaceful country in the world
D. India has occupied the 136th spot in the rankings
E. All of the above are correct
• The 2023 Global Peace Index (GPI) recently released its annual ranking of the most peaceful countries in the wo rld.
• It is released annually by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP).
• 2023 Global Peace Index (GPI) ranked 163 independent states and territories according to their level of peacefulness.
• It measures the state of peace across three domains: Societal safety and security; Ongoing domestic and international conflict;
Militarization.
• The average level of global peacefulness deteriorated by 0.42 per cent.
• Iceland is the most peaceful country in the world – a title it has held since 2008. It is accompanied at the top by Denmark, Ireland, New
Zealand, and Austria.
• Conversely, Afghanistan is the least peaceful country in the world for the eighth consecutive year. It is followed by Yemen, Syria, South
Sudan, and the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
• India has occupied the 126th spot in the rankings, two higher than its previous position.
• The report stated that India experienced an improvement of 3.5 per cent in overall peacefulness over the past year, owing to
improvements in violent crime, neighbouring countries’ relations, and political instability.
• Among other countries, Nepal, China, Sri Lanka, United States of America, and Pakistan, and have been ranked 79, 80, 107, 131 , 146,
respectively.
65. In July as per report _________ launched the "digital nomad strategy" which will make temporary arrangements for foreigners looking for
jobs.
A. Germany
B. France
C. Australia
D. Canada
E. Japan
• Canada launched the "digital nomad strategy" which will make temporary arrangements for foreigners looking for jobs.
• This strategy will allow foreign workers to stay in Canada for up to six months.
• If they get a job offer then an individual can remain in Canada for longer.
• Canada’s government is looking to poach talent from abroad through three new initiatives.
• Canada government will develop an immigration stream, which will allow the world’s most talented people to work for tech companies.
• The government will also create an innovation stream under its international mobility program for skilled workers.
• Government will create an open work-permit stream to allow 10,000 American H-1B visa holders to come and work in Canada.
66. Recently as per report UAE-India Economic Summit was held on 3 July at the ADGM Auditorium in Al Maryah Island, Abu Dhabi under the
theme: "Fostering Synergies – Uniting the Falcon and Tiger Economies".
Which of the following organized the summit?
A. 5paisa
B. Nippon Life India AMC
C. SBI Capital Markets Limited
D. HDFC AMC
E. Central Depository Services Limited
• The UAE-India Economic Summit was

held on 3 July at the ADGM Auditorium
in Al Maryah Island, Abu Dhabi.
• It has been organized under the theme:
"Fostering Synergies – Uniting the
Falcon and Tiger Economies".
• It has been jointly hosted by SBI Capital
Markets Limited (SBICAPS) and Abu
Dhabi Global Market (ADGM).
• It has brought industry leaders from
India and the UAE and marked the
official opening of the SBICAPS ADGM
Branch Office.
• During the summit, many topics such as
startups, green energy, capital markets,
and stressed asset resolution have been
discussed.
• The conference featured a series of
panel discussions addressing key topics
in the new economy.
• The sustainability and green energy panel discussed on financing options for sustainable projects, climate-conscious investments,
regulatory aspects of sustainable finance, and the impact of carbon trading.
• The UAE-India Economic Summit has not only strengthened ties between both countries but also open the way for investments and
prosperity for both countries.
67. Recently as per report ___________emerged as the first country to endorse and support the Startup20's call to allocate an ambitious sum
of $1 trillion per annum into the startup ecosystem by 2030.
A. India
B. Japan
C. Brazil
D. Saudi Arabia
E. France
• The Startup20 Shikhar Summit, organized by the Startup20 Engagement Group under the India G20 Presidency, concluded in Gurugram
with overwhelming success.
• During the closing ceremony, Dr. Chintan Vaishnav, Chair of Startup20, officially handed over the torch to Brazil, as the cou ntry has G20
presidency for the next year and has committed to continue the Startup20 initiative in 2024.
• This continuations of Startup20 with the Brazil presidency a true success for the group and a milestone in the advancement of startup
ecosystem worldwide.
• Highlighting the importance of Startup20, Saudi Arabia, represented by HRH Prince Fahad Bin Mansoor, emerged as the first country to
endorse and support the Startup20's call to allocate an ambitious sum of $1 trillion per annum into the startup ecosystem by 2030.
• HRH made this announcement during his address at the Gurugram Shikhar Summit, recognizing the potential of startups in making
startups a true force for the global good.
• By pledging support for the $1 trillion funding milestone, Saudi Arabia sets a precedent for oth er nations to follow, demonstrating their
commitment to driving a disruptive innovation ecosystem and propelling the economic growth.
Banking / Economy News
68. Recently HDFC Bank and Housing Development Finance Corporation merger becomes effective from 1 July.
The merger of both entities will make it the __________largest lender in the world by market capitalization.
A. First
B. Second
C. Fourth
D. Third
E. Fifth
• HDFC Bank and Housing Development Finance

Corporation merger becomes effective from 1
July.
• HDFC Bank has announced the merger of
Housing Development Finance Corporation Ltd.
(HDFC) with itself.
• From July 7, all commercial papers of HDFC Ltd
will be transferred in the name of HDFC Bank.
• Housing Development Finance Corporation
shareholders will get 42 new HDFC Bank shares
for every 25 shares held by them.
• The merger of both entities will make it the
fourth-largest lender in the world by market
capitalization. The market cap of the combined
entity is estimated to be $172 billion.
• It will rank fourth in equity market capitalisation, behind JPMorgan Chase & Co, Industrial and Commercial Bank of China., an d Bank of
America Corp, as per data compiled by Bloomberg.
• The new HDFC Bank will have 120 million customers and more than 1,77,000 employees. It will increase its branch network to more than
8,300.
• HDFC Bank will also leave behind State Bank of India (market capitalisation of about $62 billion) and ICICI Bank (market capi talisation of
about $79 billion).
• The merger of both entities was announced on 4 April 2022.
• Now, HDFC Bank will be completely owned by public shareholders and existing shareholders of HDFC Ltd will own a 41 per cent s take in the
bank.
• The merger would allow more credit to flow to the economy. It will also allow for the underwriting of larger-ticket loans.
• All employees of HDFC Ltd below the age of 60 would become HDFC Bank employees.
• Currently, HDFC Securities Ltd., HDB Financial Services Ltd., HDFC Asset Management Co. Ltd, HDFC ERGO General Insuran ce Co. Ltd., and
HDFC Capital Advisors Ltd are the subsidiaries of HDFC Bank.
69. In July as per report HDFC Ltd has acquired an additional 0.5097 percent stake in HDFC Ergo to make it a subsidiary.
As of July HDFC Ltd holds _________ % stake in HDFC Ergo.
A. 60.40 percent
B. 75.40 percent
C. 51.70 percent
D. 56.90 percent
E. 50.50 percent
• HDFC Ltd has acquired an additional 0.5097 percent stake in HDFC Ergo to make it a
subsidiary.
• HDFC Limited acquired 36,42,290 equity shares of HDFC Ergo, representing 0.5097 percent of
its total issued and paid-up share capital from ERGO International AG, the other promoter.
• HDFC Limited holds 50.50 percent of the total paid-up share capital of HDFC Ergo. Accordingly, HDFC Ergo has become a subsidiary of HDFC
Limited.
• This is part of the reverse merger exercise of HDFC Ltd with its banking
subsidiary HDFC Bank from July 1.
• The RBI had permitted the transfer of shareholding of HDFC Limited in
HDFC Ergo to HDFC Bank and advised that HDFC Limited or HDFC Bank
should increase the shareholding in the general insurance company to
more than 50 percent before the effective date of the merger Scheme.
70. Consider the following match the coloumn in respect with small
savings schemes for Q2. Which of the following is matched
incorrectly?
A. Public Provident Fund - 7.1 %
B. Senior Citizens' Savings Scheme – 8.2 %
C. Kisan Vikas Patra – 7.5 %
D. Sukanya Samriddhi – 8 %
E. National Savings Certificate – 7.7
• The government has hiked the interest rates of small savings schemes
by up to 30 bps for the July-September 2023 quarter.
• The interest rate on the national savings certificate has been hiked by
70 basis points (bps), the highest for any instrument in this revision.
• The interest rates of schemes like the 1-and 2-year post office time
deposit, 5-year recurring deposits have been hiked.
• As per the notification issued by the Union Finance Ministry, the
government has increased the interest rate for 1-year, 2-year, from
6.8 per cent, 6.9 per cent, in the last quarter to 6.9 per cent, 7.0 per
cent, respectively.
• The interest rate on the Public Provident Fund (PPF) has yet again been kept unchanged at 7.1 per cent.
• The interest rates for Post Office Recurring Deposit has been hiked to 6.5 per cent in the September quarter.
• The interest rates for Senior Citizens' Savings Scheme, Monthly Income Scheme, National Savings Certificate, Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP),
Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana have been kept at the same level.
• The government is also launching a one-time new small savings scheme — the Mahila Samman Bachat Patra — from April 1.
• Mahila Samman Bachat Patra can now be opened in 12 public sector banks and four private sector banks. The scheme was announce d in
the Union Budget this year, and was only available through post offices.
• The small savings scheme, available up to March 2025, offers deposit facility up to Rs 2 lakh in the name of
women or girls, for a tenor of 2 years at a fixed interest rate of 7.5 per cent
71. In July as per report SEBI has levied a penalty of ___________ lakh on Anil Agarwal-owned Vedanta for
breaching disclosure norms.
A. ₹30 lakh
B. ₹70 lakh
C. ₹50 lakh
D. ₹60 lakh
E. ₹40 lakh
• Capital market regulator SEBI has levied a penalty of ₹30 lakh on Anil Agarwal-owned Vedanta for
breaching disclosure norms.
• Last February, a news agency had published a news item saying Vedanta partners with Foxconn to make
semiconductors in India. When exchanges had sought clarification, the company said the proposed business
of manufacturing semiconductors is not under Vedanta and we understand that it will be undertaken by the
holding company of Vedanta, Volcan Investments.
• In contradiction, last September the company issued a press release stating that “Vedanta signs MoUs with
Gujarat Government to set up semiconductors and display fab units”.
• Following this, SEBI has levied the penalty on the company for making false representations through press
release on its letterhead regarding a material event, which was not pertaining to the listed entity a nd
publishing the press release on its website.
72. Recently as per report __________emerged as India’s top

electronics exporter.
A. Odisha
B. Gujarat
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu
E. Karnataka
• Tamil Nadu’s electronics exports nearly tripled in one year to

$5.37 billion in FY23 from $1.86 billion in the previous year.
From the fourth spot in FY22, Tamil Nadu moved to the top
spot in FY23.
• Companies like Tata Electronics and Pegatron starting
production have helped Tamil Nadu overtake three states -
Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra - to become
India’s top exporter of electronic goods in FY23. Tamil Nadu
retained the top spot in the first two months of the current
fiscal year.
• Tamil Nadu is now home to over 15 leading electronics manufacturers, including Foxconn, Tata Electronics, Salcomp and Pegatron.
• In the current fiscal, Tamil Nadu continued to top the trend by being the top exporter, followed by Karnataka and Uttar Prade sh.
• In FY23, Tamil Nadu exported electronic goods worth $5.37 billion, w hile Uttar Pradesh was second with $4.90 billion and Karnataka third
with $4.52 billion. In FY22, Karnataka was the top exporter of electronic goods with $3.87 billion; Uttar Pradesh was second with $3.77
billion; Maharashtra was third with $2.08 billion.
73. In July as per report Shriram Finance has entered into a partnership with___________ to offer a range of financial services, including small
business loans.
A. Paytm
B. Phone Pe
C. Microsoft
D. Google
E. Apple
• Paytm, a major player in QR and mobile payments, and Shriram

Finance, a leading retail NBFC, have entered into a partnership,
under which the former’s users will be offered a range of financial
services, including small business loans, by the latter.
• The core objective is to target small merchants who don’t have
assets or documents to avail loans from the formal sector.
• With this tie-up, Shriram Finance will be able to service new kinds of customers including its existing customers such as taxi operators, w ho
are all on the Paytm platform.
• Vijay Shekhar Sharma, Founder & CEO, Paytm.
74. In July as per report _____________ has appointed four directors Ketan Shivji Vikamsey ,Mrugank Madhukar Paranjape, Rajesh Kumar
Dubey and Dharmendra Singh Shekhawat on the central board of the bank.
A. Punjab National Bank
B. State Bank Of India
C. Reserve Bank Of India
D. Canara Bank
E. Bank Of Baroda
• State Bank of India (SBI) has appointed four directors on the central board of the bank.
• According to the disclosure under Regulation 30 (4) of the SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements)
Regulations, 2015, SBI has reappointed Ketan Shivji Vikamsey and Mrugank Madhukar Paranjape to its board
and has added Rajesh Kumar Dubey and Dharmendra Singh Shekhawat as directors.
• The appointment is for a period of three years, from June 26, 2023, to June 25, 2026.
75. In July as per report ___________has signed an memorandum of understanding (MoU) with Mahindra and
Mahindra Ltd (Automobile division) for providing the latter’s dealers with financing solutions.
A. Canara Bank
B. Axis Bank
C. Bandhan Bank
D. RBL Bank
E. South Indian Bank
• South Indian Bank (SIB) has signed an memorandum of understanding (MoU) with Mahindra and Mahindra Ltd (Automobile division) for
providing the latter’s dealers with financing solutions.
• South Indian Bank is a leading Kerala-based Private sector bank with a nationwide presence.
• Mahindra & Mahindra Limited is an Indian multinational automotive manufacturing corporation headquartered in Mumbai. It was
established in 1945 as Mahindra & Mohammed and later renamed as Mahindra & Mahindra. CEO: Anish Shah.
76. In July as per report RBI panel recommended measures to internationalise rupee.
Who chaired the Inter-departmental group of RBI that recommended measures to internationalise rupee?
A. R. Subramanian
B. Rohit Jain
C. Radha Shyam Ratho
D. Jayant Kumar Dash
E. Vivek Deep
• RBI panel recommends measures to internationalise rupee.

• It recommended facilitating a Local Currency Settlement (LCS)
framework for bilateral transactions in local currencies.
• It also recommended encouraging opening of INR accounts for
non-residents, both within and outside India.
• Inter-departmental group (IDG) of the Reserve Bank of India was
chaired by RBI Executive Director Radha Shyam Ratho.
• It also recommended recalibrating the Foreign Portfolio
Investment (FPI) regime.
• It recommended the exporters should be provided equitable
incentives for INR trade settlement.
• IDG recommended allowing banking services in INR outside India
through foreign branches of Indian banks.
• Over the short-term, IDG recommended nine measures.
• IDG recommended facilitating the launch of BIS Investment Pools
(BISIP) in INR.
• It recommended inclusion of government securities in global bond
indices.
• Over the medium-term horizon, IDG’s recommendations include a
review of taxes on masala bonds and other measures.
77. In July as per report __________has launched virtual branch in the Metaverse.
A. SBI
B. PNB
C. Union Bank of India
D. Axis Bank
E. HDFC Bank
• Punjab National Bank has launched virtual branch in the Metaverse, PNB Metaverse.
• In the branch, PNB’s customers will get access to its virtual environment from their home or office
through their mobile phones and laptops.
• The bank will provide an immersive 3D experience to the customers while carrying out banking activities through their digital avatars.
• The virtual branch will deliver a unique banking experience to existing and new customers.
• Customers can explore bank’s products and services and government flagship schemes.
• Metaverse is defined as a virtual world in which people can create their virtual avatars, interact, attend events and explore.
78. In July as per report IBA has constituted a working group for implementing the recommendations of RBI’s committee on working of the
Asset Reconstruction Companies. This committee was set up under the chairmanship of _______________.
A. R. Subramanian
B. Sudarshan Sen
C. Radha Shyam Ratho
D. Jayant Kumar Dash
E. Vivek Deep
• A five-member working group has been

constituted by the Indian Banks’
Association (IBA).
• The group has been constituted for
implementing the recommendations of
the Reserve Bank of India’s committee on
the “working of the Asset Reconstruction
Companies (ARCs)”.
• The Group comprises Ajit Kumar, MD, and
CEO, of the Secondary Loan Market
Association (SLMA), and Hari Hara
Mishra, CEO, of the Association of ARCs in
India.
• Other members are Mythili
Balasubramanian, Executive Director,
Edelweiss ARC, and senior officials from
the State Bank of India (Dharmendra Pali)
and ICICI Bank (Anupama Ranade).
• The group has been formed on the orders of RBI.
• The central bank desires that the IBA and SLMA, in consultation with the lenders and ARCs, take appropriate measures for earl y
implementation of the recommendations of the committee.
• Committee’s recommendations aimed at enabling ARCs to fulfil the increasing financial sector demand.
• The working group will undertake a thorough review of the assignment agreements and trust deed templates.
• This review will focus on the acquisition of stressed assets from lenders by ARCs and will include necessary updates in line with evolving
changes and expectations within the ARC sector.
• On April 28, 2021, under the chairmanship of Sudarshan Sen, former ED, RBI, RBI had set up a committee to undertake a compreh ensive
review of the working of ARCs.
• On November 2, 2021, the report of the committee was released.
• The ARC framework is designed to allow originators to focus on their core function of lending by removing stressed financial assets.
• According to the committee, ARCs act as primary agents for recovery on the acquisition of such financial assets.
79. Which of the following bank is celebrating its centenary year in 2023-24?
A. Bandhan Bank
B. Karnataka Bank
C. Axis Bank
D. RBL Bank
E. DBS Bank
• Karnataka Bank has opened a Technology and Digital Hub in Bengaluru.

• Pradeep Kumar, Chairman of Karnataka Bank, inaugurated the hub.
• It consolidated all its technology and digital operations under one roof.
• Karnataka Bank is celebrating its centenary year in 2023-24.
• Karnataka Bank is a Scheduled Commercial Bank based in Mangaluru, Karnataka.
• It is a private sector bank. It was founded in February 1924. Srikrishnan Hari Hara Sarma is its MD and CEO.
80. In July as per report World Bank has approved __________ billion financing for scaling up renewable energy, producing green hydrogen,
supporting carbon markets and stimulating climate financing.
A. $2.5 billion
B. $3.5 billion
C. $5.5 billion
D. $5.5 billion
E. $1.5 billion
• The World Bank said that it approved a $1.5 billion (around

₹12,600 crore) financing for scaling up renewable energy,
producing green hydrogen, supporting carbon markets and
stimulating climate financing.
• The First Low-Carbon Energy Programmatic Development
Policy Operation – the first in a series of two envisaged
operations – will support India in developing green hydrogen.
• The program will support the successful implementation of
the National Green Hydrogen Mission that aims to stimulate
$100 billion in private sector investment by 2030.
• The World Bank remains committed to supporting India’s low-carbon transition by complementing public financing and enabling private
sector investments.
• The program aims to scale up renewable energy supply thereby reducing costs and improving grid integration. This will help In dia reach its
committed 500 GW of renewable energy capacity by 2030.
81. Consider the following statement regarding QS World University Rankings 2024. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. 45 educational institutions from India have found place in the annual international university rankings done by Quacquarelli Symonds
(QS).
B. Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras emerged as the best Indian institution by securing 149th rank.
C. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) (United States), University of Cambridge and University of Oxford (United Kingdom)
secured first, second and third positions in the ranking.
D. National University of Singapore (NUS) became the first Asian university to break into the top 10, at number eight.
E. Chandigarh University (CU) ranked first rank among India’s private universities.
• Forty-five educational institutions from India have found place in the annual international university rankings done by Quacquarell i
Symonds (QS).
• In the 20th anniversary edition of the rankings for 2024, Indian Institute of
Technology (IIT) Bombay emerged as the best Indian institution by
securing 149th rank.
• Last year, IIT Bombay was in 172nd position.
• Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) (United States), University of
Cambridge and University of Oxford (United Kingdom) secured first,
second and third positions in the ranking
• Nine out of the top ten spots were taken by universities from the US and
Europe — the National University of Singapore (NUS) became the first
Asian university to break into the top 10, at number eight.
• The ranking criteria comprise the following nine indicators: Academic
Reputation (30 per cent), Employer Reputation (15 per cent), Faculty
Student Ratio (10 per cent), Citations per Faculty (20 per cent),
International Faculty Ratio (5 per cent), International Student Ratio (5 per
cent), International Research Network (5 per cent), Employment Outcomes
(5 per cent) and Sustainability (5 per cent).
• Chandigarh University (CU) has achieved a significant milestone by
securing the first rank among India’s private universities in the latest
edition of the coveted Quacquarelli Symonds (QS) World University
Ranking.
82. Recently Executive Committee of the Central Board (ECCB) of the State Bank
of India (SBI) has accorded approval to the Bank for acquiring the entire
________ per cent stake held by SBI Capital Markets (SBICAPS) in SBI
Pension Funds.
A. 7 %
B. 14 %
C. 10 %
D. 18 %
E. 20 %
• The Executive Committee of the Central Board (ECCB) of the State Bank of
India (SBI) has accorded approval to the Bank for acquiring the entire 20
per cent stake held by SBI Capital Markets (SBICAPS) in SBI Pension Funds.
• The acquisition by the Bank is subject to receipt of all regulatory approvals.
• Currently, SBI has a 60 per cent stake in SBI Pension Funds, with the balance
stake being held by SBICAPS (20 per cent) and SBI Funds Management (20
per cent).
• SBICAPS is a wholly-owned subsidiary of SBI. It provides Investment
Banking and Corporate Advisory Services to its clients. SBI Pension Funds is
a Pension Fund Manager (PFM), managing the pension corpus under the
National Pension System (NPS).
83. In July as per report ___________launched “Centralised Pool Buy-Out and Co-Lending Cell” to boost priority sector lending.
A. Canara Bank
B. Bank Of India
C. Central Bank Of India
D. Bank Of Baroda
E. Punjab National Bank
• Bank of India has launched a ‘Centralized Pool Buy-Out and Co-Lending Cell’ to boost priority sector lending.
• The Cell, which is housed in the Bank’s Mumbai headquarters, will be equipped with an end-to-end digital underwriting system to onboard
pool buy-out and co-lending of loans in partnership with NBFCs (non-banking finance companies).
• Through this platform, seamless integration will be provided between the Bank and multiple NBFCs.
• The Cell will onboard loan assets under Retail, MSME and the Agriculture segment with a dedicated team.
• So far, the Bank had been underwriting the aforementioned loans via various branches spread across the country.
• Rajneesh Karnatak – MD & CEO, Bank of India.
84. Recently as per report growth in the Core sector remains stable at ___________% in May.
A. 2.1%
B. 25%
C. 3.5%
D. 4.3%
E. 4.9%
• The pace of growth of eight key infrastructure sectors remains 4.3% due decline in the
production of crude oil, natural gas and electricity in May 2023.
• As per the data released by the government, during April-May of this fiscal, the output
growth of these eight sectors has slowed down to 4.3% against 14.3% of same period of
last 2022.
• Cement and steel production remained highest robust. The output of crude oil has
contracted by 1.9%.
• The coal output growth rate declined to 7.2% in May as compared to last year.
• The rate of growth in the production of fertilizer, steel and cement slowed down to 9.7%,
9.2% and 15.5%, respectively.
• Another separate data has been also released by the Controller General of Accounts
(CGA).
• It shows that the central government's fiscal deficit stood at Rs 2.1 lakh crore (11.8% of
the full-year budget estimates) by May-end 2023.
• The government is aiming to bring down the fiscal deficit during the current financial
year to 5.9 per cent of the gross domestic product (GDP).
• The eight Core Industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products (28.04)> Electricity (19.85)> Steel (17.92)> Coal (10.33)>
Crude Oil (8.98)> Natural gas(6.88)> Cement (5.37)> Fertilizers (2.63).
• The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27% of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
85. In July as per report Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime, the GST Network (GSTN) made the geocoding functionality live for all states and
union territories.
What is the total percantage of stake that Centre and State governments together holds in GSTN?
A. 30 %
B. 49 %
C. 51 %
D. 74 %
E. 90 %
• Recently, the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) made the geocoding functionality live for all states and
union territories.
• There are concerns over fake registrations and fraudulent availment of input tax credit under the Goods and
Services Tax (GST) regime.
• It converts an address or description of a location into geographic coordinates.
• It has been introduced to ensure the accuracy of address details in GSTN records and streamline the address
location and verification process.
• GST Network has already geocoded 1.8 crore principal places of businesses.
• The functionality is available for normal, composition, SEZ units, SEZ developers, input service distributor and
casual taxpayers who are active, cancelled, and suspended.
• This is a one-time activity and once submitted, revision in the address is not allowed.
• GSTN is a nonprofit non-government company registered under Section 8 of the Companies act, 2013.
• It will provide shared IT infrastructure and service to both central and state governments including t ax payers and
other stakeholders.
• The private players hold 51% equity in the GSTN and the Centre and State governments together holds 49% equity
in GSTN.
86. In July as per report Central Government recently issued a notification to bring the Goods & Services Tax Network
(GSTN) under the purview of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
Whom among the following is responsible for investigating the offences of money laundering under the PMLA?
A. Department of Economic Affairs
B. Department of Revenue
C. Department of Expenditure
D. Department of Investment and Public Asset Management
E. Department of Financial Services
• The Central Government recently issued a notification to bring the Goods &
Services Tax Network (GSTN) under the purview of the Prevention of Money
Laundering Act (PMLA).
• It is an Act to prevent money laundering and to provide for the confiscation of
property derived from or involved in money laundering.
• The Act was formulated for the following objectives:
• Prevent money-laundering.
• Combat/prevent channelising of money into illegal activities and economic
crimes.
• Provide for the confiscation of property derived from, or involved/used in,
money laundering.
• Provide for matters connected and incidental to the acts of money laundering.
• The Enforcement Directorate (ED) in the Department of Revenue, Ministry of
Finance, is responsible for investigating the offences of money laundering under
the PMLA.
• India (FIU-IND), under the Department of Revenue is the central national agency
responsible for receiving, processing, analysing, and disseminating information
relating to suspect financial transactions.
• The scheduled offences are separately investigated by agencies mentioned
under respective acts, for example, the local police, CBI, customs departments,
SEBI, or any other investigative agency, as the case may be.
87. Recently as per report government has allowed all Public Sector Banks to implement and operationalise Mahila Samman Savings
Certificate, 2023.
Under this scheme, a minimum of ________ rupees can be deposited within the maximum limit of two lakh rupees.
A. Rs 100
B. Rs 500
C. Rs 1000
D. Rs 2000
E. Rs 5000
• The government has allowed all

Public Sector Banks to
implement and operationalise
Mahila Samman Savings
Certificate, 2023.
• The government has also
allowed eligible Private Sector
Banks to implement and
operationalize this scheme.
• The scheme is now available for
subscription in Post Offices, and
eligible Scheduled Banks.
• As part of this scheme, an account can be opened on or before the 31st March 2025 for two y ears.
• The scheme is in operation since 1st April 2023 through the Department of Post.
• Under this scheme, a minimum of 1,000 rupees and any sum in multiples of 100 can be deposited within the maximum limit of two lakh
rupees.
• Under the scheme, the interest rate for the deposits is 7.5% per annum. It will be compounded quarterly.
• Therefore, the effective interest rate will be roughly 7.7%.
• The central government announced the scheme in the Union Budget 2023 -24.
• The account holder can withdraw a maximum of up to 40% of the eligible balance in the scheme
account.
88. According to the data released by the RBI on 30 June, India's external debt rose marginally to
_________billion at the end of March 2023.
A. USD 624.7 billion
B. USD 425.8 billion
C. USD 784.6 billion
D. USD 841.2 billion
E. USD 454.7 billion
• According to the data released by the RBI on 30 June, India's external debt rose marginally to USD
624.7 billion at the end of March 2023, although the debt -to-GDP ratio declined.
• External debt stood at US$ 619.1 billion at the end of March 2022, which has increased further by
US$ 5.6 billion by March 2023.
• The ratio of external debt to GDP declined to 18.9 per cent at the end of March 2023 from 20 per
cent at the end of March 2022.
• The valuation gain stood at US$ 20.6 billion due to appreciation of the US dollar against the Indian
rupee and major currencies such as yen, SDR and euro.
• The long-term debt (with an original maturity of more than one year) was stood at US$496.3 billion at end -March 2023, a decline of US$
1.1 billion compared to end-March 2022.
• The share of short-term debt (with an original maturity of up to one year) in total external debt increased from 19.7% at end -March 2022
to 20.6% at end-March 2023.
• Similarly, the ratio of short-term debt (original maturity) to foreign exchange reserves increased from 20% at end-March 2022 to 22.2% at
end-March 2023.
• Loans remained the largest component of external debt with a share of 32.5%, followed by currency and deposits (22.6%), trade loans and
advances (19.9%) and debt securities.
89. Recently as per report GST collections rose 12 per cent to over Rs 1.61 lakh crore in June, 2023.
GST came into effect from July ___________.
A. 2016
B. 2017
C. 2018
D. 2019
E. 2015
• The Finance Ministry said that the GST collections rose

12 per cent to over Rs 1.61 lakh crore in June, 2023.
• The gross GST collection has crossed Rs 1.60 lakh crore
mark for the fourth time since the roll-out of the indirect
tax regime six years ago on July 1, 2017.
• The revenues had touched a record high of Rs 1.87 lakh
crore in April, 2023.
• Goods and Services Tax is a single indirect tax which has
replaced multiple indirect taxes in India such as the
excise duty, VAT, services tax, etc.
• GST is levied on the supply of goods and services in
India. It came into effect from July 2017.
• The GST council has fitted over 1300 goods and 500
services under four tax slabs of 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%
under GST.
• 7% of goods and services fall under exempted GST Rate Slab i.e. 0% tax.
• Some of these that are of regular consumption include fresh fruits and vegetables, milk, butter milk, curd, natural honey, flour, etc.
• It was introduced by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016.
90. In July as per report ___________has opened its first all-women branch “Maitreyi” in the country at Tripunithura, a suburban area in
Kochi.
A. Mahindra Finance
B. Piramal Finance
C. Tata Finance
D. Bajaj Finance
E. Muthoot Finance
• Piramal Finance, a leading housing finance company, has opened its first all-women branch “Maitreyi” in the country at Tripunithura, a
suburban area in Kochi.
• This is part of strategic expansion and the company has identified four more cities such as Jaipur, Mumbai, Mohali and New D elhi to open
branches shortly.
• Each Maitreyi branch will have a dedicated team of 7-15 women employees to cater to the needs of customers which offer a range of
services including home loans, MSME loans, and so on.
• Piramal Capital and Housing Finance Limited is a non-deposit taking housing finance company,
headquartered in Mumbai with branches in major cities across India.
• Jairam Sridharan, Managing Director, Piramal Finance.
91. In July as per report ________has launched its upgraded digital banking application, ‘YONO for
Every Indian’, and Interoperable Cardless Cash Withdrawal (ICCW) facilities.
A. State Bank Of India
B. Punjab National Bank
C. Canara Bank
D. Bank Of Baroda
E. Bank Of India
• State Bank of India (SBI) has launched its

upgraded digital banking application, ‘YONO
for Every Indian’, and Interoperable Cardless
Cash Withdrawal (ICCW) facilities.
• With YONO’s new avatar, now customers will
have access to UPI features like scan and pay,
pay by contacts, request money, among
others, according to a statement by India’s
largest bank.
• With the rollout of the Interoperable Cardless
Cash Withdrawal facility, customers of SBI, as
well as other banks, can withdraw cash
seamlessly from ICCW-enabled ATMs of any
bank by using the ‘UPI QR Cash’ functionality.
• Dinesh Kumar Khara, Chairman, State Bank of
India.
92. Recently as per report Cabinet Committee on

Economic Affairs (CCEA) has recently approved
the PM-PRANAM scheme with a total outlay
of ____________.
A. ₹3,60,128.7 crore
B. ₹3,70,128.7 crore
C. ₹3,80,128.7 crore
D. ₹3,90,128.7 crore
E. ₹3,50,128.7 crore
• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

(CCEA) has recently approved the PM-
PRANAM scheme with a total outlay of
₹3,70,128.7 crore for three years ending
March 2025.
• PM-PRANAM will promote use of nutrient-based, biofertilizers for sustainable agriculture.

• The name of scheme stands for- PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Generation, Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth.
• The PM-PRANAM scheme will ty to conserve the soil by promoting sustainable and balanced use of fertilizers.
• The Centre would incentivise those States which would adopt alternative fertilizers using the amount of subsidy that was save d by reducing
the use of chemical fertilizers.
• The scheme includes various schemes which can boost farmers’ income, strengthen natural or organic farming, rejuvenate soil p roductivity,
and ensure food security.
• The Sulphur coated Urea (Urea Gold) is being introduced in the country for the first time u nder this scheme.
• The scheme will not have a separate budget.
• It will be financed by the savings of existing fertiliser subsidy under schemes run by the Department of fertilisers.
• At present, the MRP of urea is Rs.242 per 45 kg bag of urea (exclusive of charges towards neem coating and taxes as applicable), whereas
the actual cost of the bag comes around Rs. 2200.
• By 2025-26, eight Nano urea plants with production capacity of 44 Crore bottles equaling to 195 LMT of conventional urea will be
commissioned.
• The outlay also provides for the setting up and revival of 6 urea production units (at Chambal Ferti ltd. - Kota Rajasthan, Matix ltd.
Panagarh West Bengal, Ramagundam-Telangana, Gorakhpur-UP, Sindri-Jharkhand and Barauni-Bihar) to reduce the current import
dependency for urea and make India self-sufficient in this aspect by 2025- 26.
• The Cabinet approved ₹1,451.84 crore for Market Development Assistance (MDA) for promoting organic fertiliser from Gobardhan Plants.
• Under the scheme, a subsidy of ₹1,500 per tonne will be provided.
• This subsidy will be provided to support the marketing of organic fertilisers produced as by-products from Biogas Plants/Compressed
Biogas (CBG) Plants set up under umbrella GOBARdhan initiative.
93. In July as per report Capital market regulator SEBI has allowed asset management companies to become self-sponsored in case the
existing sponsors want to disassociate themselves from the business.
For becoming a self-sponsored AMC should have been in the financial services business for over ___________ years and positive networth
in all the immediately preceding five years.
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
E. 8 years
• Capital market regulator SEBI has

allowed asset management
companies to become self-sponsored
in case the existing sponsors want to
disassociate themselves from the
business.
• For becoming a self-sponsored AMC,
it should have been in the financial
services business for over five years
and positive networth in all the
immediately preceding five years.
• Sponsor, proposing to disassociate,
should have been associated with
the mutual fund for at least five
years.
• The regulator has also allowed private equity (PE) funds to become sponsors of mutual funds.
• Considering the evolution of the mutual fund industry and significant shift in the nature of roles and responsibilities of the AMCs in the last
few decades, most of the AMCs are well-prepared to stand on their own and create trust among their investors.
• In view of the above, it has been decided to allow a sponsor to voluntarily reduce its stake in an AMC.
• A self-sponsored AMC should have registered a profit in each of the immediately preceding five years with average net annual profit of at
least ₹10 crore.
• Any sponsor proposing to disassociate may undertake to reduce shareholding below 10 per cent in five years in case of listed AMCs and in
three years in case of unlisted AMCs.
• The PE companies should have a minimum of five years experience and should have managed committed and drawn -down capital of over
₹5,000 crore. The PE funds should have an initial shareholding of sponsor equivalent to capital contributed to an AMC to the extent of over
₹150 crore which will be locked-in for five years.
94. Consider the following statement regarding Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF). Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. National Housing Bank (NHB) has operationalised the ₹10,000 -crore Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF).
B. It is for creation of urban infrastructure in tier-2 and tier-3 cities.
C. Interest rate on UIDF loans has been kept at bank rate minus 1.5 percent i.e., 5.25 percent at present.
D. The minimum size and maximum size of the project proposal shall be ₹10 crores (₹ 1 crore for northeast & hilly States) and ₹ 100 crore
respectively.
E. All of the above are correct.
• The National Housing Bank

(NHB) has operationalised
the ₹10,000-crore Urban
Infrastructure Development
Fund (UIDF) announced in
this year’s Budget for
creation of urban
infrastructure in tier-2 and
tier-3 cities.
• The initial corpus for this fund — managed by NHB— is ₹10,000 crore. UIDF has been launched to supplement efforts of the State
governments by providing stable and predictable source of finance for creation of urban infrastructure in tier -2 and tier-3 cities.
• As many as 459 tier-2 cities with population of 50,000 to less than a lakh and 580 tier -3 cities with population of one lakh to less than a
million as per 2011 census are being covered under UDIF as of now.
• It maybe recalled that Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman had in her budget speech this year announced setting up of the UIDF
through use of priority sector lending shortfall for creation of urban infrastructure in tier 2 and tier 3 cities.
• Interest rate on UIDF loans has been kept at bank rate minus 1.5 percent i.e., 5.25 percent at present.
• The loan (principal) will be repayable in five equal annual instalments within seven years from the date of withdrawal, inclu ding a
moratorium period of two years while interest will be payable on quarterly basis.
• Focus will be on basic services like sewerage and solid waste management, water supply and sanitation, construction and impro vement of
drains/storm water drains, etc. and impact-oriented projects would be prioritised.
• The minimum size and maximum size of the project proposal shall be ₹5 crores (₹ 1 crore for northeast & hilly States) and ₹ 100 crore
respectively.
• Town planning schemes for greenfield development and parks with open gym not involving major construction work.
• The fund shall not be utilised for any type of maintenance works or for administrative/establishment expenses.
• Further, housing, power and telecom, rolling stock like buses and trams, urban transport, health and education institutions w ould remain
out of the purview of UIDF.
• Both new and ongoing projects are eligible to access UIDF and shall be aligned to the various urban missions and programmes of
Government of India.
• The normative allocation of first tranche of ₹ 10,000 crore under UIDF for 2023 -24 has been advised by NHB to States and UTs inviting
project proposals under the Fund.
• Allocation has been done based on the urban population percentage in respective States/ UTs in the eligible towns/cities out of total
population in eligible town/cities in the country.
• Finance Department of States/ UTs have been designated as the nodal department for implementation of the fund while NHB is
operationalising the fund through their regional offices spread across the country.
95. In July as per report India and __________ have started trade settlements in local currencies.
A. Panama
B. Egypt
C. Tanzania
D. New Zealand
E. Cyprus
• External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar announced that India and Tanzania have started trade
settlements in local currencies.
• This new initiative of India and Tanzania will help in promoting commerce between both
countries.
• In 2022, RBI and Indian Finance Ministry had instructed the top management of banks and
representatives of trade bodies to promote export and import transactions in the rupee.
• 18 countries have opened special Vostro accounts with Indian banks.
• Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, and Canara Bank are operating in Tanzania.
• S Jaishankar also inaugurated a bust of Swami Vivekananda at India's cultural centre in Dar es Salaam.
• India and Tanzania have agreed on a roadmap to further boost their ties in new areas of cooperation.
• IIT Madras will open its overseas campus with a batch of 50 undergraduate students and 20 master's students in Tanzania.
• Capital: Dodoma, Currency: Tanzanian Shilling.
96. In July as per report ___________has partnered with Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation Ltd (GCMMFL), better known as
Amul, to offer financial services to federation's supply network pan-India under the MUDRA scheme.
A. State Bank Of India
C. Bank Of Baroda
D. Canara Bank
E. Axis Bank
• State-owned Punjab National Bank (PNB) has partnered with Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation Ltd
(GCMMFL), better known as Amul, to offer financial services to federation's supply network pan-India under the
MUDRA scheme.
• A memorandum of understanding to this effect was signed between PNB and GCMMFL (Amul) on July 1.
• Through small ticket financing under MUDRA, the bank will be financing Amul's retailers, wholesale dealers/area
milk distributors and exclusive Amul preferred outlets-milk parlours.
• Other services will include integrating various digital channels like QR codes, POS (point of sale), UPI (Unified
Payment Interface), etc., supply chain finance and EMI collection digitally, and providing working capital limits,
among others.
• Jayen Mehta, MD, GCMMFL.
97. Recently as per report public sector banks' profit in the last __________ years has tripled to Rs 1.04 lakh crore
due to initiatives taken by the government and underlined the need for continuing the momentum to fuel the
economy.
A. 7 years
B. 8 years
C. 9 years
D. 6 years
E. 5 years
• Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said the public sector banks' profit in the last nine
years has tripled to Rs 1.04 lakh crore due to initiatives taken by the government and
underlined the need for continuing the momentum to fuel the economy.
• The net profit of public sector banks has almost tripled to Rs 1.04 lakh crore in FY23 from
Rs 36,270 crore in FY2014.
• She said that the performance of the public sector banks has improved on account of
various initiatives taken by the Modi government since 2014.
• There was an improvement in all critical parameters like return on asset, net interest
margin and provisioning coverage ratio.
• The 4R strategy followed by the Modi government to revitalise the state-owned banks
has yielded results.
• The 4R strategy refers to recognising the problem of non-performing assets, recapitalising
the banks, resolving their problems, and reforming them.
98. In July as per report ____________ has introduced digital payment facility through
WhatsApp and Unified Payments Interface (UPI).
A. Tata AIA Insurance
B. HDFC Standard Insurance
C. Max Insurance
D. SBI General Insurance
E. Reliance General Insurance
• Digital payment facility has been introduced by Tata AIA Insurance.

• It has launched digital payments through WhatsApp and Unified Payments Interface (UPI).
• With this feature, customers will be able to pay policy premiums digitally.
• They will instantly receive confirmation acknowledgment.
• This digital payment option is first-of-its kind in the insurance industry.
• Tata AIA is the life insurance arm of Tata Group. It has enabled renewal premium collections via multiple Digital modes.
• The company has performed well in terms of claim settlement ratio and persistency ratio, which shows the percentage of consumers who
renew their policies with Tata AIA.
99. In June 2023, Unified Payments Interface (UPI) transactions declined __________.
A. 0.7%
B. 0.9%
C. 1.2%
D. 1.6%
E. 1.8%
• Unified Payments Interface (UPI) transactions declined 0.9% in June 2023.

• This is the first decline in transaction volume since February 2023.
• UPI transactions in June 2023 declined both in terms of volumes and value of
transactions.
• UPI transaction amount in June 2023 declined to ₹14.75 lakh crore and 933
crore transactions were processes in the same month as per NPCI data.
• In May 2023, UPI transactions count had crossed the number of 900 cr ore per
month.
• In its annual report for 2022-23, RBI said UPI-led retail digital payments
increased at a compounded annual growth rate (CAGR) of 50% in terms of
volume between 2016-17 and 2021-22.
• In the same report, RBI said UPI-led retail digital payments grew at a CAGR of
27% in terms of value between 2016-17 and 2021-22.
• According to a report by PwC India, UPI transaction will cross 100 crore
transactions per day by FY27.
100.How much was the centre’s fiscal deficit at the end of May 2023?
A. ₹1.1-lakh crore
B. ₹1.6-lakh crore
C. ₹1.9-lakh crore
D. ₹2.1-lakh crore
E. ₹2.7-lakh crore
• The centre’s fiscal deficit at the end of May 2023 was

11.8% of budget estimates for FY24.
• It was 12.3% of the FY23 budget estimate in the same
period of the last year.
• According to the data of the Controller General of
Accounts (CGA), the fiscal deficit was ₹2,10,287 crore
(₹2.1-lakh crore) at end of May 2023.
• As per Union Budget, the government’s aim is to reduce
the fiscal deficit during the FY24 to 5.9% of GDP. The
deficit was 6.4% of the GDP in FY23.
• In end of March 2024, the fiscal deficit is estimated at
₹17.86 lakh crore as per the Budget.
• CGA released the revenue-expenditure data of the Union
government for the first two months (April-May) of the
FY24.
• It said the net tax revenue was ₹2.78 lakh crore or 11.9%
of the Budget Estimate.
• Government’s total expenditure was ₹6.25 lakh crore or 13.9%
of the estimates in the Union Budget for FY24.
101.In July as per report beta live coverage of Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) has been expanded to how many more cities?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
E. 9
• Beta live coverage of ONDC has been expanded to five more cities.
• These five cities are Mumbai, Delhi NCR (including Noida, Gurgaon and
Faridabad), Chennai, Hyderabad and Kolkata.
• Bengaluru and Meerut were selected for the Beta live coverage in September
2022 and December 2022, respectively.
• The ONDC is now accessible to buyers and sellers in five more cities.
• The beta live coverage is aimed at allowing consumers to experience the ONDC
for the first time, collect real-time feedback and test the network before all-
India launch.
• Consumers can purchase from the sellers on the ONDC through four active buyer
applications.
• These applications are Paytm, Mystore, Spice Money, and Magicpin.
• Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative of the Department
of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce. It
had its alpha rollout in April 2022 in five cities.
102.In July as per report _________becomes the first bank to officially launch the
Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) scheme.
A. Canara Bank
B. Yes Bank
C. Bank Of India
D. State Bank Of India
E. Bank Of Baroda
• Bank of India becomes the first bank to officially launch the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) scheme.
• This scheme, announced by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman during this year's Budget speech, offers an interest rate of 7.5% per
annum, compounded quarterly.
• The MSSC allows individual girls or women to open accounts, while guardians can also open accounts on behalf of minor girls.
• The accounts mature after two years from the opening date, and customers can open accounts under this scheme until March 31, 2025.
• Bank of India's statement indicates that the minimum investment required is Rs
1,000, and any amount in multiples of Rs 100 can be deposited, with a maximum limit
of Rs 2 lakh.
• Customers can open multiple accounts with a three-month gap between each
account, as long as the overall investment cap of Rs 2 lakh is not exceeded.
• The applicable interest rate upon closure will be adjusted to 5.5%, as stated by the
bank.
• While earnings under the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate are taxable according
to existing income tax provisions, the scheme stands out by not deducting TDS (Tax
Deducted at Source).
• Previously, only post offices were authorized to open accounts under the Mahila
Samman Savings Certificate.
103.Recently as per report _____________ small finance will launch its ₹500 crore initial
public offering (IPO) on July 12, with the price band being set at ₹23-25.
A. Equitas Small Finance Bank
B. Suryoday Small Finance Bank
C. Utkarsh Small Finance Bank
D. Capital Small Finance Bank
E. Ujjivan Small Finance Bank
• Utkarsh Small Finance Bank will launch its ₹500 crore initial public offering (IPO) on July 12, with the price band being set at ₹23 -25.
• The IPO, entirely a fresh issue of shares, will close for subscription on July 14. Minimum Bid Lot is 600 equity shares.
• While not less than 75 per cent of the issue would be available for allocation to QIBs, up to 15 per cent is reserved for non-institutional
investors and the balance 10 per cent for retail individual investors.
• The IPO proceeds will be used to expand the bank’s business over the next two years and help it become a multi-product bank.
• The Varanasi-based SFB has operations across 26 States and Union Territories with 830 Banking Outlets and 15,424 employees
• Incorporated in 2016, Utkarsh Small Finance Bank is a small finance bank in India. Mr. Govind Singh is the Manag ing Director and chief
executive officer.
104.In July as per report Harley-Davidson partnership with ________ to offer locally-produced premium models in India.
A. Tata Group
B. Bajaj
C. Royal Enfiled
D. Kia
E. Hero Motors
• With high customs duty impeding

sales of its imported big bikes in
India, Harley-Davidson is banking
on the partnership with Hero
MotoCorp to offer locally-
produced premium models in the
country.
• Last week, Harley and Hero
introduced their first co-
developed product in India --
Harley-Davidson X 440 -- with
price starting at Rs 2.29 lakh. The
bike is being produced by Hero
MotoCorp at its Neemrana-based
plant.
• Harley-Davidson had announced to discontinue sales and manufacturing operations in India in September 2020. Before that it had an
assembly plant at Bawal in Haryana. In October 2020, Hero MotoCorp and Harley-Davidson announced a partnership for the Indian
market.
• Chairman, President and CEO Jochen Zeitz.
105.In July as per report Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI) has maintained the status quo on obligatory cession of
business for the financial year 2023-24 at ________ per cent for f General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re).
A. 1 %
B. 2 %
C. 3 %
D. 4 %
E. 5 %
• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI) has

maintained the status quo on obligatory cession of business for the
financial year 2023-24 at 4 per cent in favour of General Insurance
Corporation of India (GIC Re).
• The government had notified the move recently saying that the entire
Obligatory Cession is to be placed with GIC Re only. Obligatory cession
refers to the part of the business that general insurance companies have
to mandatorily cede to the national reinsurer GIC Re.
• Understandably, private general insurers are against any obligatory
cession to GIC Re as it doesn’t give them any freedom to place the
reinsurance business the way they like and with the reinsurers they like.
• The IRDAI had constituted a panel under Bhargava Dasgupta, MD of
ICICI Lombard General Insurance, to suggest measures to phase out
obligatory cession and the panel had suggested phase-out the
obligatory business along with the right to first refusal by the GIC Re.
• Under the right to first refusal, GIC Re has the first right to choose the
reinsurance business from the general insurers and then it can be placed
with other reinsurers. The obligatory cession was reduced from 5 per
cent to 4 per cent in FY23.
• The approximate size of the Indian reinsurance market is around Rs
70,000 crore in FY2022-23. There are now over 10 foreign reinsurers who
are operating in India.
• IRDAI had named LIC, GIC Re and New India Assurance as domestic
systematically important insurers — which are considered as “too big or
too important to fail”.
• General Insurance Corporation of India Limited, abbreviated as GIC Re, is an Indian public sector reinsurance company which has its
registered office and headquarters in Mumbai. It was incorporated on 22 November 1972 under Companies Act, 1956. Devesh Sriva stava;
(Chairman-and-Managing Director).
106.In July as per report _________ has filed its Draft Red Herring prospectus (DRHP) SEBI to raise
₹629.04 crore through for its initial public offering (IPO).
A. Jana Small Finance Bank
B. Utkarsh Small Finance Bank
C. Unity Small Finance Bank
D. ESAF Small Finance Bank
E. Equitas Small Finance Bank
• ESAF Small Finance Bank Ltd has filed its Draft Red Herring prospectus (DRHP) SEBI to raise
₹629.04 crore through for its initial public offering (IPO).
• The bank had earlier filed its DRHP in July 2021.
• The IPO will include a fresh issue up to ₹486.74 crore and an offer for sale of up to ₹142.30 crore
by promoter and other selling shareholders.
• The offer for sale comprises of up to ₹119.26 crore by ESAF Financial Holdings Private Ltd, up to
₹12.67 crore by PNB MetLife India Insurance Company Ltd, up to ₹10.37 crore by Bajaj Allianz Life
Insurance Company Ltd.
• As per the DRHP, the proceeds from the fresh issue will be used towards augmenting the bank’s
Tier– I capital base to meet its future capital requirements.
• ESAF Small Finance Bank is an Indian small finance bank providing banking services and small
loans to the underbanked. It was founded as a small finance bank in March 2017. Headquarters:
Thrissur, K. Paul Thomas (MD & CEO).
107.Recently as per report HDFC Bank and State Bank of India will sell a _________per cent stake in the initial public offering (IPO) of National
Securities Depository (NSDL).
A. 2 %
B. 5 %
C. 7 %
D. 6 %
E. 9 %
• HDFC Bank will sell a 2 per cent stake in the initial public offering (IPO) of National
Securities Depository (NSDL).
• The lender holds a 8.95 per cent stake in NSDL, which handles most of the securities held
and settled in dematerialised form in the Indian capital market.
• In its draft red herring prospectus (DRHP) dated July 7, the depository said the I PO will
see sales of 57.3 million shares by its six shareholders.
• State Bank of India (SBI) said it proposes to sell 2% stake by offloading 40 lakh shares in
depository organisation NSDL.
• SBI holds 5 per cent stake in the NSDL while it intends to divest 2 per cent in the Offer For Sale (OFS) subject to
the terms of the proposed IPO.
• IDBI Bank will sell up to 22.2 million shares, while National Stock Exchange will sell 18 million shares it owns in
the depository.
• Union Bank of India will sell 5.62 million shares, and State Bank of India, and Administrator of the Specified
Undertaking of the Unit Trust of India (SUUTI) will sell 4 million and 3.4 million shares, respectively. The sixth
shareholder participating in the IPO is HDFC Bank.
• As of March 2023, the company is the largest depository in India in terms of the number of issuers, number of
active instruments, market share in demat value of settlement volume, and value of assets held under custody.
• National Securities Depository Limited is an Indian central securities depository, based in Mumbai. It was
established in August 1996 as the first electronic securities depository in India with national coverage. CEO:
Padmaja Chunduru.
108.In July as per report __________has launched 34 Transaction Banking Hubs in the top 21 district centres for
efficient solutions.
A. State Bank of India
C. Union Bank of India
D. Axis Bank
E. ICICI Bank
• Transaction Banking Hubs has been launched by State Bank of India for efficient solutions.
• The aim of these hubs is to provide comprehensive solutions for transactions, payments, and collections.
• They also aim to facilitate connectivity with other financial services within the SBI Group.
• Total 34 Transaction Banking Hubs has been launched in the top 21 district centres across the country.
• Dinesh Kumar Khara, Chairman, SBI, launched the Transaction Banking Hubs on SBI’s 68th foundation day (1 July).
109.What is the name of the app launched by Meta Platforms to tackle its rival Twitter?
A. Gather
B. Metahero
C. Roblox
D. Rooom
E. Threads
• Meta launched Instagram Threads, a text-based messaging app.

• Threads looks very similar to Twitter. People can use their Instagram
usernames on Threads.
• Meta’s CEO, Mark Zuckerberg, announced the launch of Threads on 05 July
2023.
• Threads is a text-based social messaging app. In this, users are able to post
short messages.
• Others can share, like and comment upon the messages.
• The Threads is available for free on Apple App Store and Google Play online
store in more than 100 countries.
• People can publish 500 characters long Threads posts. They can also share
links, photos and videos that can be 5 minutes long.
• Threads will use decentralized technology, called ActivityPub.
• BlueSky, a rival social messaging app is built on the decentralized networking
technology called the AT Protocol.
• Meta (formerly Facebook) is an American multinational technology
conglomerate. It is based in Menlo Park, California.
• Instagram was released in 2010. It is owned by Meta. It is a photo and video -
sharing social networking service.
110.In July as per report _____________has relaunched its private banking business in India almost eight years after it shut down the business
in the country.
A. Citigroup
B. Hong Kong and Shanghai Banking Corp Ltd
C. JPMorgan Chase & Co
D. Bank of America
E. Berkshire Hathaway
• Hong Kong and Shanghai Banking Corp Ltd

(HSBC) has relaunched its private banking
business in India almost eight years after it
closed the division amid an investigation by
India’s tax department against individuals who
had unaccounted foreign currency accounts in
the bank’s Swiss branch.
• The private banking business serves high-net-
worth (HNW) and ultra-high-net-worth
(UHNW) individuals and families with
investable assets of more than $2 million.
• India surpassed the UK as the world's fifth largest economy in 2022 and is expected to overtake Japan and Germany by 2027 -28 according
to the UN department of economic and social affairs.
• The bank quoted a Knight Frank wealth report which said that the number of ultra high net worth individuals in India with more than $30
million to invest will increase 58% by 2027.
• The UK based lender will offer private banking clients traditional lending and investment products and also give them access to structured
products, alternative investments and direct equity execution platform.
• Last year HSBC had completed the acquisition of L&T Mutual Fund for a total consideration of $425 million. Before its relaunc h in India, the
bank had introduced private banking in Thailand in 2021, and in Mexico, UAE, and Chengdu, Hangzhou and Shenzhen in mainland China in
2022.
• The Hongkong and Shanghai Banking Corporation Limited, commonly known as HSBC, is the Hong Kong -based Asia-Pacific subsidiary of
the HSBC banking group, for which it was the parent entity until 1991.
111.In July as per report Indian Bank in collaboration with National E-Governance Services Ltd introduced an electronic bank guarantee (e-BG)
service to ease traditional paper-based processes under which project?
A. Project ROSHINI
B. Project KARMA
C. Project NIRMAN
D. Project KARTVYA
E. Project WAVE
• Indian Bank launched new services under its digital transformation initiative — Project
WAVE (World of Advance Virtual Experience).
• Indian Bank in collaboration with National E-Governance Services Ltd introduced an
electronic bank guarantee (e-BG) service to ease traditional paper-based processes.
• It will help in reducing the turn-around time of the bank guarantee issuance, and
delivery to the beneficiary.
• This facility will replace the physical stamp paper and physical signatures of customer s
with digital stamping and e-signing.
• Indian Bank has launched a facility to avail pre-approved business
loans.
• The newly launched digital vehicle loan product of Indian Bank will
help customers to buy their dream vehicle with hassle-free loan
processes.
112.In July as per report IDFC First Bank’s board of directors approved the
programme of amalgamation of its parent IDFC Ltd with IDFC First
Bank.
Who is the current MD & CEO of IDFC First Bank?
A. J. Venkatramu
B. Nageswara Rao
C. Amitabh Choudhary
D. Padmaja Chunduru
E. V. Vaidyanathan
• IDFC First Bank’s board of directors approved the programme of

amalgamation of its parent IDFC Ltd with IDFC First Bank.
• According to the approved scheme of amalgamation, the share
exchange ratio will be 155 equity shares of face value of Rs 10 of IDFC
First Bank for every 100 equity shares of face value of Rs 10 of IDFC
Ltd.
• IDFC Ltd’s shares have a market capitalisation of Rs 17,455 crore.
• IDFC First Bank has a market capitalization of Rs 54,311 crore.
• After the merger, the bank’s standalone book value per share would increase by 4.9%, as calculated on audited financials as o f March 31,
2023.
• IDFC First Bank is an Indian private-sector bank. It was founded in 2015. It is headquartered in Mumbai. V. Vaidyanathan is its MD & CEO.
• Infrastructure Development Finance Company Limited (IDFC) is a finance company under the Department of
Financial Services, Government of India.
• It was founded in 1997. It is headquartered in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
113.According to People Research on India’s Consumer Economy (PRICE), India’s middle class will increase from 432 million in 2021 to 715
million by ______.
A. 2024
B. 2025
C. 2027
D. 2031
E. 2041
• India’s middle class will increase from 432 million in 2021 to 715 million by 2031.
• India’s middle class will increase to around 1.02 billion when India turns 100 in 2047.
• These are the findings of a study by People Research on India’s Consumer Economy (PRICE), an independent think tank.
• The study is titled “The Rise of the Middle Class: A Force to Reckon With”.
• It was released recently on July 5 by Amitabh Kant, G20 Sherpa and others.
• The report defines the middle class as those having an annual average household income at 2021 prices of ₹5 lakh to ₹30 lakh and per
capita per day income between ₹298 and ₹1,770.
• The study notes that the structure of India’s demographics will change from the present inverted pyramid to a diamond shape.
• In inverted pyramid, small rich class is on the top. It is followed by a bigger middle class and a huge low-income class.
• In diamond shape, large number of poor will move into the middle class bracket.
• The report notes the income demographics will be changed.
• The percentage of people grouped as destitute will come down fr om 14% in 2020-21 to 5% of the population by 2030-31.
• Indian middle class increased from 14% in 2004-05 to nearly 31% in 2020-21.
• It will increase to 47% in 2030-2031 and comprise 61% by 2046-47.
• Middle class has largest concentration in southern and cent ral India.
114.According to a recently released study by the think tank People Research on

India’s Consumer Economy (PRICE), titled The Rise of the Middle Class: A Force to
Reckon With , ____________ have the most number of rich households in India.
A. Gujarat
B. Maharashtra
C. Karnataka
D. Odisha
E. Uttar Pradesh
• Ten Indian states account for more than 80 per cent of the rich households,
according to a newly released study.
• Maharashtra houses a majority of them - 2.62 million.
• It is followed by Tamil Nadu with 0.9 million.
• This is according to a recently released study by the think tank People Research
on India’s Consumer Economy (PRICE), titled The Rise of the Middle Class: A Force
to Reckon With.
• It also notes that close to 4 per cent of India’s households are rich. That is 10.67
million households in India as of FY21.
• This is a 10 per cent increase from FY16.
• A household with an annual income of more than ₹30 lakh is categorised as rich
by the study.
• While a middle-class household earns between ₹5 lakh and ₹30 lakh, aspirers
make somewhere between ₹1.25 and ₹5 lakh.
• The destitute make less than ₹1.25 lakh a year. It also notes that the proportion
of aspirers and destitute are reducing in the country.
115.According to RBI’s Financial Stability Report, the write-offs to gross non-

performing assets (GNPAs) ratio of private sector banks stood at __________% in
FY23.
A. 42.3%
B. 47.9%
C. 41.4%
D. 44.5%
E. 50.2%
• Write-offs to gross non-performing assets ratio of

private sector banks was much higher than that of
public sector banks.
• According to RBI’s Financial Stability Report, the
write-offs to gross non-performing assets (GNPAs)
ratio of private sector banks stood at 47.9% in
FY23.
• The write-offs to gross non-performing assets
(GNPAs) ratio of public sector banks was 22.2%.
• The write-offs to GNPAs ratio of private sector
banks in FY22 and FY21 was at 26.2% and 31%,
respectively.
• The write-offs to GNPAs ratio of public sector
banks in FY22 and FY21 was at 17.7% and 17.3%,
respectively.
• The write-offs to GNPAs ratio is the ratio of write-
off during a financial year to GNPA at the
beginning of the year.
• In write-off, loans are transferred to the off-
balance sheet records. Writing-off a loan does not
entail forgiving the debt. The borrower still owes
money to the bank.
116.According to data from the General Insurance Council gross direct

premium underwritten for general insurance companies grew 18 per cent
y-o-y at __________ in quarter 1 of FY24.
A. ₹63,478 crore
B. ₹65,458 crore
C. ₹61,356 crore
D. ₹60,256 crore
E. ₹64,263 crore
• Gross direct premium of 24 non-life insurance companies for the first

quarter of FY24 grew 18 per cent y-o-y at ₹64,263 crore.
• In Q1 of this fiscal, barring two PSU players — New India Assurance Co Ltd
and United India Insurance Co Ltd — most of the other non-life players
reported double-digit growth in their gross director premium underwritten
(GDPW). Navi General Insurance and Raheja QBE reported a decline in
GDPW.
• However, PSU firm New India remained the non-life segment market
leader with a wide gap, and saw its GDPW gross at ₹10,000 crore in Q1 of
this fiscal.
• The company’s GDPW grew 9 per cent at ₹10,378 crore, compared to ₹9,550 crore in Q1 of FY23.
• ICICI Lombard General Insurance was the second largest player after New India in Q1, and its GDPW grew 19 per cent y-o-y at ₹6,387 crore
(₹5,370 crore).
• Bajaj Allianz grabbed the Number two position among the private non-life players and its GDPW saw an increase of 22 per cent at ₹3,789
crore (₹3,100 crore). HDFC Ergo, the third big player in the private sector category, reported a 11 per cent increase in its GDPW at ₹3,422
crore (₹3,073 crore).
• Star Health retained its top position in its health insurance sector, Care Health was the second big health player .
117.In July as per report Asian Development Bank (ADB) approved ___________ additional financing for the Rajasthan secondary towns
development sector project.
A. USD 100 million
B. USD 250 million
C. USD 300 million
D. USD 200 million
E. USD 150 million
• The Asian Development Bank (ADB) recently approved USD 200 million additional financing for the Rajasthan secondary towns
development sector project.
• The ongoing project— earlier approved in September 2020 has so far laid 1,451 kilometre (km) of water supply pipes a nd 1,110 km of
sewer pipes and connected 68,098 households to water services in selected secondary towns in Rajasthan.
• Sanitation systems will be upgraded in at least eight project towns by rehabilitating about 580 km of sewers, building seven sewage
treatment plants with co-treatment units to process faecal sludge and septage and connecting more than 50,000 households to the
sewage system.
• The project will encourage private sector investments and financing to improve water services in Rajasthan’s manufactu ring areas
• Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a multilateral development bank established on 19th December 1966.
• Headquarters: Manila, Philippines.
118.Consider the following statement regarding World Investment Report 2023. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) released its World Investment Report 2023.
B. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in developing countries remained at $662 billion.
C. India stayed at eighth position in terms of FDI inflows.
D. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) flows into India rose by 10 per cent to $56 billion in 2022.
E. All of the above are correct.
• The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) released its
World Investment Report 2023.
• During 2022, Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in developing countries remained at
$662 billion.
• Among developing countries, 80% of FDI inflows of the region went to China,
Singapore, India and UAE.
• In 2022, FDI inflows to India rose by 10% ($49 billion) while China registered a 5%
yearly growth.
• Developing countries including India attracted FDI worth $544 billion in clean energy
in 2022.
• FDI inflows to ASEAN member countries grown by 41% to $222 billion.
• Overall global FDI has declined by 12% to $1.3 trillion in 2022.
• The decline in global FDI is due to the lower volumes of financial flows and
transactions in developed countries.
• According to the World Investment Report 2023, developing countries are facing a
growing annual investment deficit to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs) by 2030.
• The gap in investment deficit has now increased to $4 trillion per year.
• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) flows into India rose by 10 per cent to $49 billion in
2022, making it the third largest host country for announced greenfield projects and
the second largest for international project finance deals.
• Amid declining trends in global FDI, India stayed at eighth position in terms of FDI
inflows.
• Unctad said among the largest announced greenfield projects in India were the
plans by Foxconn and Vedanta Resources to build one of the first chip factories in
India for $19 billion and a $5 billion project to produce urea from green hydrogen by
a joint venture of TotalEnergies of France and the Adani group.
• United Nations Conference on Trade and Development is a permanent inter -
governmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1964.
• Members: 195 countries, Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
119.In July as per report __________released its first open-source desktop operating
system, named OpenKylin.
A. China
B. Japan
C. Israel
D. North Korea
E. Singapore
• China recently released its first open-source desktop operating

system, named OpenKylin.
• It is China's first open-source desktop operating system (OS).
• It is a Linux-based operating system built by a community of about 4,000
developers.
• OpenKylin users have access to the software’s lines of code and can modify them as they wish, unlike Microsoft and Apple, whi ch keep the
workings of Windows and MacOS systems secret.
• It is China's first open-source desktop operating system (OS).
• It is a Linux-based operating system built by a community of about 4,000 developers.
• OpenKylin users have access to the software’s lines of code and can modify them as they wish, unlike Microsoft and Apple, which keep the
workings of Windows and MacOS systems secret.
120.In July as per report Flipkart has teamed up with _________ bank to introduce a personalised loan service catering to its customer base of
450 million.
A. HDFC Bank
B. ICICI Bank
C. Axis Bank
D. Yes Bank
E. Canara Bank
• E-commerce marketplace Flipkart has teamed up with Axis Bank to

introduce a personalised loan service catering to its customer base of
450 million.
• The new offering will provide customers access to competitive loan
options, enabling them to secure amounts of up to Rs 5 lakh, and
flexible repayment cycles ranging from 6 to 36 months.
• It offers a line-up of credit offerings and comprehensive financial
solutions, including Pay Later, Product Financing, Seller Financing,
Credit Cards, and expansion into Personal Loans.
Appointment News
121.In July as per report Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has approved re-appointment of the ___________ as Solicitor General of
India for a period of three years.
A. N Venkataraman
B. SV Raju
C. Aishwarya Bhati
D. Tushar Mehta
E. Balbir Singh
• The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has approved re-appointment of the Tushar Mehta as Solicitor General of India.
• Solicitor General is the second most senior law officer after Attorney General.
• The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet also approved the re-appointment of other six law officers Vikramjit Banerjee, KM Nataraj,
Balbir Singh, SV Raju, N Venkataraman and Aishwarya Bhati as Additional Solicitor General for the Supreme Court for a period of three
years.
• Mehta was appointed as Solicitor General for the first time in October 2018 and his period was later extended from time to time.
122.In July as per report ____________ has been appointed as Federal Bank's chairman following approval from the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI).
A. Ketan Shivji Vikamsey
B. Abhishek Choudhary
C. Abhay Prasad Hota
D. Surinder Chawla
E. Rajesh Kumar Dubey
• Federal Bank said Reserve Bank of India has approved the appointment of AP Hota, the man behind the
runaway success of the NPCI and Rupay cards, as its non-executive chairman.
• The appointment is effective from June 29 and up to January 14, 2026.
• Abhay Prasad Hota has been an independent director on the board of the bank since January 2018.
• Hota worked for 27 years in Reserve Bank of India (RBI) between 1982 and 2009.
• He was the architect of the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and was its mana ging director
and chief executive officer between 2009 and 2017.
• Federal Bank Limited is an Indian private sector bank headquartered in Aluva, Kochi, Kerala.
123.In July as per report __________has been appointed as National Cybersecurity Coordinator.
A. Gulshan Rai
B. M U Nair
C. Rajkrishnan Kumar
D. Abhijit Choudhary
E. Atanu Kumar Das
• The government has appointed Lt Gen M U Nair as the new National Cybersecurity Coordinator (NCSC).
• Lt Gen Nair was earlier appointed as the 28th Signal Officer-in-Chief in July 2022.
• It has provided him experience and expertise in the field of cyber warfare, signal intelligence, and communication and information
technology.
• He is the third cyber security chief after Lt Gen Pant and first chief Gulshan Rai.
• NCSC is currently updating and replacing the 2013 National Cyber Security Strategy.
• It works as a comprehensive guide for critical sectors such as banking, telecom, power and energy, transportation, and govern ment
enterprises.
• National Cybersecurity Coordinator works under the National Security Council Secretariat.
• It also plays a key role in establishing coordination with various central-level agencies.
124.In July as per report ___________has been appointed as Chief Executive Officer of Financial Planning Standards Board of India (FPSB
India).
A. Ravi Sinha
B. Tushar Mehta
C. Krishan Mishra
D. Anand Bajaj
E. Kailash Satyarthi
• Krishan Mishra has been appointed as Chief Executive Officer by the FPSB India.
• His appointment will be effective from 1 August 2023.
• As CEO, he will lead the strategy and operations of FPSB India.
• Financial Planning Standards Board of India (FPSB India) is the Indian subsidiary of FPSB.
• FPSB is the global standards-setting body for the financial planning profession.
• The government has appointed Lt Gen M U Nair as the new National Cybersecurity Coordinator (NCSC).
• Tushar Mehta has been reappointed as the Solicitor General of India. He was appointed as Solicitor General
for the first time in October 2018.
125.In July as per report government has appointed _____________as the next Chairperson of the International Financial Services Centres
Authority (IFSCA).
A. Injeeti Srinivas
B. Hasmukh Adhiha
C. K Rajaraman
D. Ravi Sinha
E. Vinay Sharma
• The government has appointed Telecom Secretary K Rajaraman as the next Chairperson of the International
Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA).
• Rajaraman has been appointed for a period of three years.
• Rajaraman is expected to take charge with immediate effect. He will succeed the first ever IFSCA Chairperson Injeti
Srinivas who has led the authority since July 9, 2020.
• The IFSCA was set up in April 2020 under the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019, at the
Gujarat International Finance Tech (GIFT) city in Gandhinagar. It is currently being heavily pushed by the
government as a global financial services hub.
• At present, the GIFT IFSC is the maiden international financial services centre in India. Prior to the establishment
of IFSCA, RBI, Sebi, PFRDA and Irdai regulated the business in IFSC.
126.Recently as per report ____________will become MD & CEO of L&T Finance Holdings with effect from January 24,
2024.
A. Sudipta Roy
B. Dinanath Dubhashi
C. Kameshwar Rao Kodavanti
D. Ravi Sinha
E. Sudipta Roy Nitin Sharma
• Sudipta Roy will become MD & CEO of L&T Finance Holdings with effect from January 24, 2024.
• This is subject to necessary regulatory and/or statutory approvals.
• The Board of Directors of L&T Finance Holdings announced appointment of Roy as the company’s Chief
Operating Officer (COO).
• He joins the non-banking finance company (NBFC) from ICICI Bank.
• His appointment as COO and elevation as MD & CEO is part of the NBFC’s succession planning.
• Dinanath Dubhashi, MD & CEO, L&T Finance Holdings, will superannuate from the Company on April 30, 2024.
• SBI has appointed Kameshwar Rao Kodavanti as Chief Financial Officer (CFO). He has been appointed with
effect from July 1, 2023.
• Debadatta Chand took charge as MD & CEO of Bank of Baroda with effect from July 1, 2023.
127.In July as per report Zupee has announced __________as its new brand ambassador.
A. Kiara Advani
B. SuryaKumar Yadav
C. Alia Bhatt
D. Kapil Sharma
E. KL Rahul
• Cashgrail Private Limited-owned Zupee, a gaming platform, has announced comedian and actor Kapil Sharma as it s new brand
ambassador.
• Sharma will be seen in the company’s new ad film which will have a 360 degree campaign.
• Zupee sells gaming products like Ludo and other board and casual games.
• Dilsher Singh Malhi, CEO and founder of the company.
128.In July as per report __________took oath as Maharashtra Deputy Chief Minister.
A. Jitendra Awhad
B. Sharad Pawar
C. Ajit Pawar
D. Aditya Thackrey
E. Ramesh Singhal
• Ajit Pawar takes oath as Maharashtra Deputy Chief

Minister.
• On 2nd July 2023, the Nationalist Congress Party
(NCP) leader Ajit Pawar joined Eknath Shinde-led
Shiv Sena and the BJP government in Maharashtra.
• Now, Maharashtra will have two deputy chief
ministers. Devendra Fadnavis is the other deputy
chief minister.
• Along with Ajit Pawar, eight other NCP Leaders also
took oath as ministers.
• Earlier, Ajit Pawar resigned as Leader of the
Opposition after a meeting with NCP MLAs.
• Ajit Pawar claimed that most of the party MLAs are
with him.
• NCP Chief Sharad Pawar said that party MLAs will decide about any action against the rebel leaders.
• Jitendra Awhad was appointed as the new Leader of the Opposition in the state Assembly.
• Maharashtra now has a Shiv Sena-BJP-NCP alliance. Ajit Pawar also staked claim over the party.
• He said the party would contest the 2024 Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha elections with the 'watch' election symbol,
forming a pre-poll coalition with the BJP and its allies.
• Nationalist Congress Party was formed on 10 June 1999. It is a state party. Its election symbol is a watch.
129.Recently as per report ___________stepped down from the post of chairman of HDFC after serving the mortgage lender
for 46 years.
A. Rohit Jawa
B. Bharat Parekh
C. Arun Choudhary
D. Charanjit Sahota
E. Deepak Parekh
• HDFC chairman Deepak Parekh (78) stepped down after serving the mortgage lender for 46 years.
• He left his Chase Manhattan Bank job in 1978 to join HDFC when he was 33 and built it India’s largest private sector
housing finance company.
• Parekh earlier this week had said June 30 will be his last working day after spending 46 years at the Corporation and
when asked what he will do after the Board meeting.
• The merger of HDFC corporation with the country's largest private lender HDFC Bank will likely take effect July 1.
• The combined entity will have an asset base of around Rs 18 lakh crore.
130.In July as per report __________ has been appointed as chairman of the Senior Men’s Cricket Selection Committee.
A. VVS Lakshman
B. Irfan Pathan
C. Harbhajan Singh
D. Ashsih Nehra
E. Ajit Agarkar
• Ajit Agarkar has been appointed as chairman of the Senior Men’s Cricket Selection Committee.
• The Selection Committee now consists of Ajit Agarkar, Shiv Sundar Das, Subroto Banerjee, Salil
Ankola, and Sridharan Sharath.
• As a former fast bowler, he was part of India's victorious squad in the inaugural T20 World Cup
held in South Africa in 2007.
• He still holds the record for the fastest half-century by an Indian batter in ODI, achieved with a
21-ball fifty against Zimbabwe in 2000.
• He also held the record for being the fastest to reach 50 ODI wickets for nearly a decade,
accomplishing the milestone in just 23 matches.
131.In July as per report India joined the Champions Group of Global Crisis Response Group.
Whom among the following has been designated as Sherpa to the GCRG process?
A. Shri Suresh Sharma
B. Shri Rahul Rathi
C. Shri Sanjay Verma
D. Shri Kartik Prasad
E. Shri Ravi Sinha
• India joined the Champions Group of Global Crisis Response Group.

• The Global Crisis Response Group (GCRG) was formed by the UN Secretary-General (UNSG) in
March 2022.
• The 32-member Group ensures the resolution of inter-connected challenges of food security,
energy, and financing.
• The GCRG is looked after by the Champions Group which includes the HoS/HOGs of Bangladesh,
Barbados, Denmark, Germany, Indonesia and Senegal.
• GCRG helps decision-makers to develop strategies for resolving interlinked issues of food, energy
and finance.
• India’s decision to join the group reflects its increasing global leadership and commitment to resolving current global challenges.
• India’s joining of the group will boost the efforts of the UN in finding result -oriented solutions to developmental issues specifically issues
impacting developing countries.
• Shri Sanjay Verma, Secretary (West), Ministry of External Affairs has been designated as Sherpa to the GCRG process.
132.In July as per report _____________has been appointed acting chairperson of the National Green Tribunal (NGT).
A. Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel
B. Justice Sheo Kumar Singh
C. Justice Sudhir Agarwal
D. Justice Arun Kumar
E. Justice Dinesh Kumar Singh
• Justice Sheo Kumar Singh has been appointed acting chairperson of the National Green
Tribunal (NGT).
• He would act as the chairperson until an appointment is made to the post.
• He was already serving as a judicial member of the National Green Tribunal (NGT).
• He has been appointed as acting chairperson after the retirement of Justice Adarsh Kumar
Goel.
• Earlier, Supreme Court had appointed him Observer, Ram Janam Bhumi, Ayodhya, Faizabad to
monitor the excavation work carried out by the team of Archeological Survey of India (ASI).
• He also served as a judge, Industrial Tribunal, UP. He also served as chairman of the oversight
committee, UP constituted by NGT.
• The five years tenure of Adarsh Kumar Goel was completed on 06 July 2023.
• He had taken over as NGT chairperson on July 6, 2018.
• National Green Tribunal (NGT): It was established under the National Green Tribunal Act,
2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of environmental disputes.
• The central government appoints the chairperson of the NGT in consultation with the Chief
Justice of India (CJI).
133.In July as per report __________became the first openly gay head of state in the EU.
A. Charles Michel
B. Edgars Rinkevics
C. Kaja Kallas
D. Leo Varadkar
E. Mette Frederiksen
• Latvia’s Edgars Rinkevics became the first openly gay head of state in the EU.
• Rinkevics took oath as Latvia’s new President. Rinkevics is the longest -serving Foreign Minister
of Latvia.
• European Union never had a gay head of state before. It has had openly gay heads of governments before.
• Although the position of Latvia’s president is generally ceremonial, Latvia’s president can veto legislation and call referen dums.
• Gay marriage is illegal in Latvia. Latvia's constitutional court recognised same-sex unions last year.
• Latvia currency is Euro. Its capital is Riga.
134.In July as per report National Statistical Commission (NSC) has constituted five expert committees to look into ways to improve the survey
process as India looks to revamp the government's statistical surveys to improve data quality.
Who is the chairman of National Statistical Commission?
A. Kartik Tyagi
B. Sourav Mathur
C. Krishna Bajpai
D. RL Karandikar
E. Ravi Sinha
• The National Statistical Commission (NSC) has constituted five expert committees to
look into ways to improve the survey process as India looks to revamp the
government's statistical surveys to improve data quality.
• These committees will give their recommendations to the NSC on issues including
incorporating technology in surveys, sampling methodology, data collection process
and statistical methods.
• The committee will look at going beyond traditional statistical methods like
averages in dealing with survey data to further improve accuracy.
• Quality of statistics and data collection methods have been questioned in the past,
with experts claiming a bias in sample selection. The government discarded 2017 -18
Consumer Expenditure Survey citing data inconsistencies.
• The National Statistical Commission of India is an autonomous body which formed in
June 2005 under the recommendation of Rangarajan commission. The NSC is
currently headed by Prof. Rajeeva Laxman Karandikar who was appointed as
Chairperson of the Commission on 30 Nov 2022 for a period of three years.
135.In July as per report __________has appointed Shri P. Vasudevan as Executive

Director (ED) with effect from July 03, 2023.
A. State Bank of India
B. Bank of India
C. Reserve Bank of India
D. Bank of Baroda
E. Canara Bank
• P Vasudevan has been appointed as the Executive Director (ED) of RBI.

• He will look after the three departments including the currency management.
• His appointment has become effective from 3 July.
• Before this appointment, he was the Chief General Manager-in-charge of the Department of Payment and
Settlement Systems.
• He has earlier served in banks and non-banking financial companies, payment and settlement systems.
Days and Obituary News
136.National Doctors' Day is celebrated in India on 1 July in memory of__________.

A. Kadambini Ganguly
B. Bidhan Chandra Roy
C. CV Raman
D. Indira Hinduja
E. Sudhansu Bhattacharyya
• National Doctors' Day is celebrated in India on 1 July. It is celebrated in memory of Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy.
• It is celebrated every year to honour the contribution of Doctors.

• The Indian Medical Association (IMA) observes the day in India to honor all physicians and healthcare professionals.
• The first National Doctor's Day was celebrated on 1 July in 1991.
• This year's theme for National Doctor's Day is “Celebrating Resilience and Healing Hands".
• Dr Bidhan Chandra Roy was a renowned physician, educator, independence fighter, and social worker.
• He also served as the second Chief Minister of West Bengal from 1948 to 1962.
• He was born Patna, Bihar on July 1, 1882.
137.International Plastic Bag Free Day is observed every year on __________ to raise awareness about the harmful effects of plastic.
A. 1 st July
B. 2 nd July
C. 3 rd July
D. 4 th July
E. 5 th July
• International Plastic Bag Free Day is observed every year on 3rd July.
• The main goal of this day is to raise awareness about the harmful effects of plastic.
• Items made from single-use plastics are also polluting rivers and oceans.
• On 3 July 2008, it was first observed by Rezero, a member of Zero Waste Europe (ZWE).
• In 2002, Bangladesh became the first nation to ban plastics.
• A plastic bag takes 1,000 years to disintegrate in a landfill.
• India has imposed a ban on single-use plastics from 1 July, 2022.
• Nearly 300 million tons of plastic are produced by humans each year. Only 10 -13% of plastic items get recycled.
138.Chartered Accountants Day is celebrated every year on 1 July to mark the foundation of the Institute of Charter ed Accountants of India
(ICAI).
ICAI was formed on _________.
A. 1 July 1947
B. 1 July 1948
C. 1 July 1949
D. 1 July 1950
E. 1 July 1951
• Chartered Accountants Day is celebrated every year on 1 July to mark the foundation of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(ICAI).
• It is celebrated to applaud the contribution of Chartered Accountants in society.
• This year, the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is celebrating its 75th foundation day.
• President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated the 75th Foundation Day celebrations of ICAI on 1 July 2023.
• 'Empowering Financial Excellence' is the theme of Chartered Accountants Day 2023.
• The theme emphasized on the economic growth and financial stability brought by Chartered Accountants across the cou ntry.
• ICAI was formed on 1 July 1949 after the passing of the Chartered Accounts Act of 1949.
• The 6th Goods and Services Tax (GST) Day was observed on 1st July 2023. GST was first implemented in India on 1 July 2017.
• This year's GST Day theme is 'Celebrating Simplification and Economic Growth'.
139.On 01 July 2023, Union Minister Bhupender Yadav inaugurated a three-day celebration programme for the ______ Zoological Survey of
India Day.
A. 121 st
B. 101 st
C. 108 th
D. 111 th
E. 115 th
• Union Minister Bhupender Yadav

inaugurated a three-day
celebration programme for the
108th ZSI Day.
• The programme of the 108th
Zoological Survey of India (ZSI)
Day with a Special Focus on
‘Mission Life' was inaugurated in
Kolkota on 01 July 2023.
• Union Minister of State for Environment, Forest and Climate Change Shri Ashwini Kumar Choubey also attended the event.
• Shri Choubey said that ZSI should focus on the research and conservation of wetlands of Gangetic plains as ‘Sarovar Mitra’.
• As part of the celebration, ZSI organised the first two-day Animal Taxonomy Summit.
• In this summit, 400 delegates from across India and abroad including the Natural History Museum, London participated.
• ZSI signed three MoUs with the Royal Government of Bhutan, IIT Jodhpur and the University of Burdwan.
• It signed MoU with the Royal Government of Bhutan to conduct a population assessment of the Red Panda, through a non -invasive
method.
• It signed MoUs with the IIT Jodhpur and the University of Burdwan for research collaborations and student exchange programmes .
• Zoological Survey of India was established on 1 July 1916. It is the premier taxonomic research organization in India.
• It works under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• Headquarters: Kolkata, Director: Dr. Dhriti Banerjee.
140.According to data from the U.S. National Centers for Environmental Prediction ___________ was recorded as the hottest day at the global
level.
A. 1 st July
B. 2 nd July
C. 3 rd July
D. 4 th July
E. 5 th July
• July 3rd was the hottest day recorded

at the global level according to data
from the U.S. National Centers for
Environmental Prediction.
• The average global temperature
crossed 17.01 degrees Celsius.
• This new record temperature was
greater than the August 2016 record
of 16.92 degrees Celsius.
• The reason for this is said to be the effect of El Nino.
• The US has been suffering under an intense heat dome recently amid extreme weather.
• When the atmosphere traps hot ocean air, a heat dome is caused.
• Heat domes happen as a result of combining of strong high-pressure atmospheric conditions with the influence of a La Nina.
• Antarctica, currently in its winter, recorded unusually high temperatures.

• Ukraine’s Vernadsky research base recently broke its July temperature record with a reading of 8.7 degrees Celsius.
• The Vernadsky Research Base is a Ukrainian Antarctic research station on Galindez Island in the Argentine Islands.
141.National Fish Farmers Day is celebrated on ________ every year to demonstrate solidarity with all fisher folk, fish farmers and concerned
stakeholders throughout the Country.
A. 7th July
B. 8th July
C. 9th July
D. 10th July
E. 11th July
• National Fish Farmers Day is celebrated on 10th July every year to demonstrate solidarity with all fisher folk, fish farmers and concerned
stakeholders throughout the Country.
• National Fish Farmers Day Meet - 2023 was celebrated at the historic city of Mahabalipuram.
• The Department of Fisheries launched the Fisheries Startup Grand Challenge in partnership with Startup India hub and DPIIT to identify,
reward and recognize startups creating exceptional impact in the fisheries ecosystem. The challenge received applications fro m 121
startups across the problem statements. After a rigorous analysis, 12 startups were selected as winners of the cha llenge.
• The selected startups under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana were provided with a cash award of INR 2 lakhs to help t hem to
continue building their innovations.
• Tamil Nadu stands at 2nd position in Ornamental Fish Production.
• Indian Fisheries Sector made a record Fish production of 162.48 lakh tons during the year 2021 -22. The Inland fisheries and Aquaculture
Production nearly doubled from 61.36 Lakh tons in 2014 -2015 to 121.21 Lakh tons in 2021-2022 with the Average Annual Growth rate of
fisheries sector around 9%, fish production around 7% and Inland fisheries and Aquaculture around 9% since 2014 -15.
• The Fisheries Sector Contributes around 1% to National GVA.
142.World Population Day is observed every year on _________ to spread awareness about population issues around the world.
A. 7 th July
B. 8 th July
C. 9 th July
D. 10 th July
E. 11 th July
• World Population Day is observed every year on July 11.

• It is observed to spread awareness about population issues around the world.
• The theme for World Population Day 2023 is ‘Unleashing the power of gender equality: Uplifting the voices of women and girls to unlock
our world’s infinite possibilities’.
• In 1989, the Governing Council of the United Nations Development Programme established World Population Day.
• In 2011, the global population reached the 7 billion mark. It is likely to grow to around 8.5 billion in 2030.
143.Recently as per report Union health ministry will observe ___________ as Indian Organ Donation Day, as part of a larger campaign
meant to increase awareness on organ donation in the country.
A. 5 th August
B. 8 th August
C. 11 th August
D. 3 rd August
E. 15 th August
• The central health ministry has announced that July will be observed as organ donation month even as the city
witnessed two donations in the first week itself.
• The central health secretary Rajesh Bhushan wrote to all state health departments announcing that an
awareness campaign titled 'Angdaan Mahotsav' — on the lines of the 'Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav' to
commemorate the 75th year of independence — will be carried out through the year.
• August 3 will be celebrated as the Indian Organ Donation Day to commemorate the first deceased donor organ
transplant carried out after the promulgation of the Transplantation of Human Organs Act in July 1994.
144.Nirmala Buch who passed away recently was the first woman chief secretary of
__________.
A. Karnataka
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Gujarat
D. Bihar
E. Jharkhand
• Retired Indian Administrative Services (IAS) officer and Madhya Pradesh’s first woman
chief secretary Nirmala Buch died of a prolonged age-related illness.
• Known for her image of a “strict administrator” in bureaucratic circles, the 1960 -batch
IAS officer, Buch had served the Chief Secretary of Madhya Pradesh from September
1991 to 1993.
• She had also served as financial and education secretary from 1975-1977. Before that,
Buch had served the Yojana Aayog (now NITI Ayog) and she did a pioneering role in
framing of ‘gramin vikas’ and ‘panchayati raj’ system in MP.
145.In July as per report Namboothiri passed away at the age of 97. He was related to which
field?
A. Acting
B. Painting
C. Mountaineer
D. Athlete
E. Singer
• Renowned painter Namboothiri passed away at the age of 97

years old.
• On July 6, he passed away at a private hospital in Kottakkal in
Malappuram district.
• Noted litterateur Namboothiri, famous for his line art and copper
relief works, illustrated for many leading Malayalam writers
including Thakazhi Sivasankar Pillai, MT Vasudevan Nair, Urub and
SK Pottakkad.
• His works blended tradition with modernity, seamlessly blend the
past and the present.
• He was a chairman of the Kerala Lalithakala Akademi.
• He was awarded the Raja Ravi Varma Award of the Kerala Lalitha Kala Academy in 2003.
• He was also awarded the Kerala State Film Award for Best Art Director.
Sports Award Books News
146.In July as per report Neeraj Chopra won the Lausanne Diamond League title with a throw of __________.
A. 88.9m
B. 90.3m
C. 86.7m
D. 87.6m
E. 85.4m
• Javelin thrower Neeraj Chopra won the Lausanne Diamond League

title.
• Olympic champion Neeraj made a spectacular comeback after
injury and clinched the title with a throw of 87.6m.
• This year, he also won the Doha Diamond League in May.
• Germany's Julian Weber finished second in the competition with a
javelin throw of 87.03m.
• Jakob Wadlich of the Czech Republic finished third with an 86.13 -
meter throw.
• Now, Neeraj will compete in the Monaco and Zurich stages on July
21 and August 31 before the Diamond League Grand Finale in
Eugene, USA on September 16-17.
• In the men's long jump, India's Murali Sreeshankar finished 5th
with a jump of 7.88m, which he achieved in the third round.
147.In July as per report ___________has been honoured with the

Philippe Chatrier Award, the highest recognition from the
International Tennis Federation (ITF).
A. Martina Hengis
B. Sarena Williams
C. Justine Henin
D. Maria Sharapova
E. Roger Fedrer
• Former world No. 1 and seven-time Grand Slam champion Justine Henin has been honoured with
the Philippe Chatrier Award, the highest recognition from the International Tennis Federation
(ITF).
• The Belgian star was presented with the award at the ITF World Champions Awards in London
on, July 8.
• The Philippe Chatrier Award, named after the former ITF president, was introduced in 1996 and
recognizes individuals or organizations that have made significant contributions to the sport of
tennis both on and off the court. Henin joins a distinguished list of past winners that includes
Billie Jean King, Martina Navratilova, John McEnroe, and Neale Fraser.
• Henin had a remarkable career that spanned over a decade and saw her win four French Open
titles, two US Open titles, one Australian Open title, and an Olympic gold medal at the 2004
Athens Games.
• Henin reached the No. 1 ranking for the first time in 2003 and held it for a total of 117 weeks. The Belgian retired from the sport in 2008,
briefly returned in 2010 and then retired for good in 2011 due to injuries.
148.In July as per report India defeated ________ to win the Asian Kabaddi Championships title.
A. Nepal
B. Bangladesh
C. Pakistan
D. Iran
E. Sri Lanka
• India defeated Iran to win the Asian Kabaddi Championships title.

• Indian men’s kabaddi team defeated Iran by 42-32 in the finals of the Asian Kabaddi
Championships.
• It is India’s eighth Asian Kabaddi championship title.
• Both teams displayed remarkable determination and skill throughout the high-voltage
match.
• India was leading by 23-11 at half time but Iran put pressure in the second half.
• India had won the last edition of the Asian Kabaddi championship in 2017.
• India has become the most effective team in the Asian Kabaddi championship.
• This year’s, Asian Kabaddi Championship was held in South Korea.
• The first Asian Kabaddi Championship was hosted by India in Kolkata, India in 1980.
149.In July as per report ___________has made history by becoming the first Indian cricketer to be signed for the Women's Caribbean Premier
League (WCPL).
A. Shreyanka Patil
B. Smriti Mandhana
C. Jemima Rodrigues
D. Shafali Verma
E. Deepti Sharma
• Young spin bowler Shreyanka Patil has made history by becoming the first Indian cricketer to be signed for the Women's Caribb ean Premier
League (WCPL).
• Interestingly, Patil is also the first Indian player to be offered a contract in an overseas league before making her interna tional debut.
• Shreyanka Patil made a name for herself when she was selected for Royal Challenger's Bangalore (RCB) in the inaugural edition of the
WPL. In the 7 matches she played for RCB, the all-rounder took 6 wickets and scored 62 runs.
• Patil has been selected for Guyana Amazon Warriors in the WCPL, which will be held from 31 August to 10 September. BCCI has a llowed
Indian women cricketers to play in foreign cricket leagues and senior players like Harmanpreet Kaur, Smriti Mandhana, Jemima Rodrigues,
Shafali Verma, Deepti Sharma and Richa Ghosh have played in the WBBL or The Hundred.
• The 20-year-old was recently named Player of the Tournament at the Women's Emerging Asia Cup in Hong Kong. While playing for India A,
she took nine wickets in her two matches.
150.In July as per report Dipika Pallikal and Harinderpal Singh Sandhu won the gold medal at the Asian Mixed Doubles Squash Tournament
which was held in _________.
A. China
B. Australia
C. Japan
D. Serbia
E. France
• Dipika Pallikal and Harinderpal Singh Sandhu won the gold medal at the
Asian Mixed Doubles Squash Tournament in Hangzhou, China.
• Dipika and Harinder defeated Ivan Yuen and Rachel Arnold of Malaysia by 2-
0.
• Dipika Pallikal participated in the tournament for the first time since the
2022 Commonwealth Games.
• The other Indian duo, Anahat Singh and Abhay Singh also won the Bronze
medal.
• The mixed doubles event is being held as a trial event for the Hangzhou
Asian Games.
• The trial event started on June 26. 21 teams consisting of 42 athletes from 10
countries and regions took part in the event.
• China will host the 19th Asian Games in September 2023.
• The Squash Mixed doubles event will be included for the first time in the Hangzhou Asian Games.
• China is hosting an Asian-level squash mixed doubles competition for the first time.
151.In July as per report with which of the following has National Anti-Doping Agency,
India (NADA India) signed an MoU to increase regional cooperation in anti-doping
in sports?
A. Central Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization
B. East Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization
C. West Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization
D. South Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization
E. All of the above
• National Anti-Doping Agency, India (NADA India) has signed MoU with South Asia
Regional Anti-Doping Organization (SARADO).
• The aim of the MoU is to increase regional cooperation in anti-doping in sports.
• The MoU was signed at the NADA India – SARADO Cooperation Meet in New Delhi.
• It was signed in the presence of Shri Anurag Singh Thakur Minister of Youth Affairs
& Sports and Information & Broadcasting.
• Shri Thakur said that India’s increasing contributions to the World Anti-Doping
Agency and UNESCO International Convention Against Doping in Sport reflect
India’s willingness to be involved in furthering the anti-doping movement globally.
• SARADO includes anti-doping organisations from Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives,
Nepal and Sri Lanka.
• UNESCO International Convention Against Doping in Sport was adopted in Paris on
19 October 2005. It entered into force on 1 February 2007.
152.India have lifted the SAFF Championships trophy for the __________ time by beating Kuwait 5-4 in the penalty shoot-out in the final after
a 1-1 stalemate at the end of regulation time.
A. 8 th
B. 9 th
C. 7 th
D. 6 th
E. 5 th
• India have lifted the SAFF Championships trophy for the ninth time, beating
Kuwait 5-4 in the penalty shoot-out in the final after a 1-1 stalemate at the
end of regulation time at Sree Kanteerava Stadium in Bengaluru.
• A thrilling penalty shootout saw the game go down the wire after Udanta
Singh missed his kick. Goalkeeper Gurpreet Singh again turned out as the
hero for the Indian side, saving the final kick from the Kuwaiti captain.
• The Indian team made it to the final after beating Lebanon in a semi-final
while Kuwait defeated Bangladesh 1-0 in the other last-four clash.
• This was the second meeting of India and Kuwait in this tournament with the
earlier Group stage meeting ending in a 1-1 draw.
• With this win, Indian head coach Igor Stimac becomes the first foreign head
coach to win back-to-back SAFF Championship titles.
• Nepal wins the Fair Play Award for showing the greatest spirit of the game.
• Best goalkeeper of the competition: Anisur Rehman – Bangladesh.
• Golden Boot: Sunil Chhetri.
• Golden Ball: Sunil Chhetri.
153.Recently as per report which of the following ICC world cup winning team has failed to qualify for the first time for ICC World Cup 2023?
A. Zimbawae
B. Sri Lanka
C. West Indies
D. Australia
E. England
• Two-time champions West Indies failed to qualify for the 2023 ODI World
Cup in India after suffering a shock seven-wicket defeat against Scotland
in a Super Six match of the qualifier in Harare on 1st July 2023.
• West Indies needed a win against the Scots to keep their slim
qualification hopes alive but were bowled out for 181.
• Riding on Matthew Cross and Brandon McMullen knocks, Scotland
chased down the target with 6.3 overs to spare.
• The champions of the 1975 and 1979 editions, this is the first time in the
48 years of tournament history that West Indies won't feature among the
top 10 teams in limited-overs cricket.
• It was also Scotland's first-ever win over the Caribbean side in the ODIs.
• Ironically, West Indies were forced to play the qualifier before the 2019
World Cup also but eventually managed to finish in the top two along
with Afghanistan to save themselves from embarrassment.
154.According to the latest FIFA world rankings India's national men's football
ranked __________.
A. 102
B. 98
C. 100
D. 104
E. 96
• India's national men's football team has made a significant improvement in its position in the recently released FIFA World R ankings.
• Indian team has reached from 101st to 100th position. The team achieved this position leaving behind Lebanon and New Zealand.
• This achievement has made India the 18th-ranked team in Asia and the Asian Football Confederation (AFC).
• In the month of June, India gained 4.24 ranking points in seven matches.
• This success of the Indian men's football team will have a huge impact on the upcoming 2026 World Cup qualifiers draw.
• Due to Lebanon's one-point deficit after their loss to India in the Intercontinental Cup final, the positions of the two countries changed in
the AFC standings.
• FIFA World Cup 2022 winners Argentina have retained the top spot above France.
• Brazil, England, and Belgium are the next three teams on the list. On number 6th is Croatia, then the Netherlands, I taly on 8th, and the
last two spots in the top 10 are with Portugal and Spain.
• Pakistan is ranked 201, among the last teams in the FIFA rankings. Other South Asian football teams are also way below India like Sri
Lanka is ranked 207, Bangladesh at 192, and Nepal at 175.
• The Indian women's football team is now ranked 60 in the world according to FIFA rankings. The side was 61 in the month of Ma rch 2023
and betters its rank by one position.
• India's highest ever FIFA rank in women's football stands at 49 and w as achieved almost a decade back in 2013, showcasing their potential
to rise further in the future.
• U.S. women’s national team maintained its hold on No. 1.
• The top of the rankings didn’t see any movement from the last update in March, with Germany, Sweden, England and France rounding out
the top five.
155.In July as per report _________were crowned champions of inaugural Global Chess League.
A. Triveni Continental Kings
B. upGrad Mumba Masters
C. Ganges Grandmaster
D. SG Alpine Warriors
E. Chingari Gulf Titans
• Triveni Continental Kings emerged champions of the inaugural Global Chess League, triumphing over
the upGrad Mumba Masters following a thrilling marathon finale.
• Led by Levon Aronian, one of the strongest grandmasters in the world and a replacement icon player
on the eve of the tournament, the Kings showcased remarkable resilience to finish on an impressive
six-match winning streak in winning the coveted title.
• The finals consisted of two rapid matches. For a team to win, it had to win both of the rapid ma tches.
In case of a draw (each team winning one match), the winner would have been decided in a blitz
match.
• Triveni Continental Kings — who hit the bottom of the table at the start of the League and had
setbacks with the team — in the end, clinched the title.
• The Global Chess League is an over-the-board rapid chess league comprising six franchises that
compete over a period of two weeks.
156.In July as per report ___________won the Austrian Grand Prix.

A. Max Verstappen
B. Charles Leclerc
C. Sergio Perez
D. Lewis Hamilton
E. Sebstian Vettel
• Max Verstappen won the Austrian Grand

Prix to take another step towards a third
successive world title.
• Ferrari's Charles Leclerc finished second to
split the Red Bulls at their home circuit
with Sergio Perez completing the podium
at Spielberg.
• This was double world champion
Verstappen's seventh win out of nine this
season and his fifth successive victory.
• Perez has won the other two races.
157.In July as per report __________ has been honoured with the Global Indian Icon of the Year award at the annual UK-India Awards in
Windsor, south-eastern England.
A. Neeraj Chopra
B. Virat Kohli
C. Mary Kom
D. Sunil Chettri
E. PV Sindhu
• Sporting legend and India’s first-ever Olympic medallist in women’s boxing, Mary Kom, has been honoured with the Global Indian Icon of
the Year award at the annual UK-India Awards in Windsor, south-eastern England.
• The 40-year-old former Rajya Sabha member spoke of her 20-year journey of hard work and devoting her life to boxing as she accepted the
award from Indian High Commissioner to the UK Vikram Doraiswami.
• Filmmaker Shekhar Kapur, behind Oscar-nominated ‘Elizabeth: The Golden Age’ received a Lifetime Achievement Award for his
contribution to the field of cinema across both nations at the awards, organised by India Global Forum (IGF) as part of UK-India Week.
• The Nehru Centre in London, the cultural wing of the Indian High Commission, won the UK -India Award for Significant Contribution to UK-
India Relations.
• UK-India Award for Business Promotion Organisation of the Year was conferred upon the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce &
Industry (FICCI) UK.
158.In July as per report Dream11 bagged team India jersey sponsor rights at base price of __________.
A. Rs 245 crore
B. Rs 358 crore
C. Rs 340 crore
D. Rs 320 crore
E. Rs 378 crore
• Fantasy sports platform Dream11 is set to bag the BCCI lead sponsor rights for Rs 358 crore, which was the base price, by rep lacing Byju's.
• Dream11 will replace Byju's on Team India jersey the next four years.
• In June 2022, Byju’s had extended its jersey sponsorship agreement with the Board until November 2023 for an
estimated $35 million, but the embattled edtech firm has terminated the agreement in March 2023.
• Byju's had replaced Oppo back in 2019. Byju’s was also one of the sponsors of the 2022 FIFA World Cup in Qatar.
• Recently, Adidas was announced as the apparel sponsor of the team.
• In the past, Dream11 had sponsored the Indian Premier League. When Vivo decided to take a break in their IPL
title sponsorship deal, Dream11 stepped in for a one-year deal as the title sponsor.
• Several Indian cricketers have also been the brand ambassadors of this platform.
• Indian cricket team will likely wear their new kits in the upcoming away series against West Indies, starting July
12.
159.In July as per report Indian pair of Priyansh and Avneet Kaur won gold by defeating which team at the World
Youth Archery Championships in Ireland?
A. Ireland
B. Israel
C. USA
D. South Korea
E. Mexico
• Indian archers Priyansh and Avneet Kaur have won the gold medal in the junior mixed event in the compound
event at the World Youth Archery Championships in Ireland.
• In a nail-biting contest on 5 July, the Indian players defeated Israel in the final in Limerick, Ireland by 146 points to
144.
• India's pair of Manav Jadhav and Aishwarya Sharma also won the bronze medal after defeating Mexico in the
Cadet Mixed Compound event.
• The World Youth Archery Championship is being held at the University of Limerick in Ireland from July 3 to 9.
• The World Archery Youth Championships, an international competition in archery. It is being organized once in two years since 1991.
160.Who is the author of the book titled 'Vajpayee — the Ascent of the Hindu Right (1924–1977)?’
A. Surinder Chawla
B. Sandeep Sahu
C. Abhishek Choudhary
D. Kamlesh Sharma
E. Sanjana Sharma
• The first volume of the former PM’s biography gives a fascinating glimpse into his early political journey.
• As Prime Minister, Atal Bihari Vajpayee excelled. He weaponised India’s nuclear programme. His Golden
Quadrilateral highway project triggered a vast infrastructure development initiative now globally
acknowledged as a spectacular success.
• Choudhary’s first volume on Vajpayee’s life is written with a good biographer’s detachment and
objectivity and lives up to Ramachandra Guha’s praise for it as the finest biography of an Indian Prime
Minister.
• Called Vajpayee: The Ascent of the Hindu Right 1924–1977, the book’s author Abhishek Choudhary spent seven years trying to peel the
layers off one of the most enigmatic politicians of the BJP.
161.In July as per report __________has been awarded the prestigious PEN Pinter Prize 2023.
A. Michael Rosen
B. Hanif Kureishi
C. Salman Rushdie
D. Lemn Sissay
E. Malorie Blackman
• Recently, the British children’s writer and performance poet Michael Rosen has been awarded the prestigious PEN Pinter Prize 2023.
• It was established in 2009 in memory of Nobel-Laureate playwright Harold Pinter.
• The winner must be the author of a significant body of plays, poetry, essays, or fiction of outstanding literary merit, writt en in English.
• It is given to a writer from the UK, Ireland and the Commonwealth whose work is committed to a fearless exposition of truth a bout
contemporary life.
• The prize is shared with an international writer of courage selected by English PEN’s Writers a t Risk Committee in association with the
winner.
• Rosen will receive the award on October 11 alongside another ‘Writer of Courage’, whose work upholds freedom of expression, o ften at
great personal risk, and who will be chosen by Rosen from “a shortlist of international cases supported by English PEN”.
• Writer Malorie Blackman won it last year.
162.In July as per report Lakshya Sen won Men’s Singles title of Canada Open 2023 badminton tournament . He defeated Li Shi Feng of
_____________.
A. Japan
B. China
C. Singapore
D. North Korea
E. South Korea
• Lakshya Sen gets Men’s Singles title of Canada Open 2023 badminton tournament.
• He defeated Li Shi Feng of China in Calgary, Canada.
• He won the first game by 21-18. He won the second game by 22-20.
• This is the first BWF World Tour title of Lakshya Sen after almost a year.
• This is the second Super 500 title of his career after the India Open.
• Lakshya Sen is an Indian shuttler (badminton player). He is ranked world number 19.
• The 2023 Canada Open took place from 4 July to 9 July 2023 in Calgary, Canada.
163.Recently as per report Novak Djokovic has joined Roger Federer and __________
in an elite list of players to feature in 100 Wimbledon matches.
A. Andre Agassi
B. Jimmy Connors
C. Rafael Nadal
D. Pete Sampras
E. Björn Borg
• Novak Djokovic contests his 100th Wimbledon as he continues his quest for a
record-equalling eighth title while the All England Club witnessed the birth of a
new star in 16-year-old Mirra Andreeva.
• 23-time Grand Slam winner Novak Djokovic has joined Roger Federer and Jimmy
Connors in an elite list of players to feature in 100 Wimbledon matches.
• Swiss champion Roger Federer has won the most men's singles titles at SW19,
lifting the trophy a staggering eight times.
• Overall, he has played 119 matches at the Grand Slam, winning 105 of those.
• Pete Sampras is the joint-second most successful male Wimbledon champion in
the Open era, with a tally of seven wins, level with Novak Djokovic, and ahead of
Bjorn Borg.
164.Recently as per report _________won the British Grand Prix.

A. Max Verstappen
B. Lando Norris
C. Lewis Hamilton
D. Oscar Piastri
E. Esteban Ocon
• Max Verstappen reeled off his sixth straight win in British Grand Prix with Lando
Norris for McLaren in second. Mercedes’ Lewis Hamilton completed the Silverstone
podium.
• Verstappen’s first-ever British Grand Prix win drew Red Bull level with McLaren’s
record run of 11 consecutive race victories in 1988.
165.Who is the author of the book titled ' Free Trade Agreements: India and the World'?
A. Rohan Bajpai
B. Mukul Rahtogi
C. Krishnan Bajpai
D. VS Seshadri
E. Anup Paul
• Through his book Free Trade Agreements: India and the World, VS Seshadri, a career
diplomat and an expert in international trade and economics, takes readers on a
comprehensive journey through the origins and evolution of Free Trade Agreements
(FTAs) globally and specifically in the context of India’s economic policies.
• This insightful book delves into the intricacies of India’s foray into FTAs and examines the
underlying factors behind the much-debated question – have the FTAs delivered.
• Published by Oxford University Press, the book begins with a discerning overview of the
historical origins of FTAs worldwide.
166.In July as per report Minnu Mani became the first woman cricketer from ____________to play for the India senior team.
A. Odisha
B. Kerala
C. Karnataka
D. Tamil Nadu
E. Assam
• Minnu Mani creates history as the first

woman cricketer from Kerala to represent
the Indian senior team. Her debut
performance includes a wicket in the first
over, impressing teammates and coaches
alike.
• As India and Bangladesh women’s cricket
teams were preparing for the first T20I in
Mirpur Sunday noon, far away at
Mananthavady in Kerala’s Wayanad
district, the Mani household suddenly
came alive.
• Nonetheless, Minnu finished with
respectable figures of 3-0-21-1,
contributing to India's effort in restricting
Bangladesh to 114/5. India later secured
a comfortable seven-wicket victory,
chasing down the target in just 16.2
overs.
• Hailing from the Kurichiya tribe in Wayanad, Minnu had previously made waves by being the sole player from Kerala to participate in the
Women's Premier League (WPL), where she was bought by the Delhi Capitals for a staggering Rs 30 lakh.
167.In July as per report ___________was named the AIFF Men's Footballer of the Year for 2022-23.
A. Sunil Chettri
B. Lallianzuala Chhangte
C. Gurpreet Kaur
D. Sandesh Jhingan
E. Suresh Kumar
• Indian football team midfielder Lallianzuala Chhangte was named the AIFF Men’s
Footballer of the Year for 2022-23 while Manisha Kalyan won her second
consecutive Women’s Footballer of the Year award.
• The 26-year-old Lallianzuala Chhangte beat Nandhakumar Sekar and Naorem
Mahesh Singh of East Bengal to win the award.
• Lallianzuala Chhangte bagged the award on the back of some stellar performances
for the Indian national team and Mumbai City FC, his club.
• Lallianzuala Chhangte became only the second player from Mizoram, after Jeje
Lalpekhlua (2016), to win the AIFF Men's Player of the Year award.
• Meanwhile, Manisha Kalyan pipped Dalima Chhibber and Ngangbam Sweety Devi
to the AIFF Women’s Player of the Year 2022-23 award. It was her second Player of
the Honour in two seasons.
• The 21-year-old Manisha Kalyan, who won the 2020-21 AIFF Women's Emerging Footballer of the Year, currently plays as a forward for
Apollon, a first division football club in Cyprus.
• Manisha Kalyan became only the third Indian female footballer to win the individual award two or more times after Bala Devi ( three) and
Bembem Devi (two).
• Among the other awardees, Akash Mishra was named the AIFF Men's Emerging Player of the Year for the 2022 -23 season. Shilji Shaji was
conferred the AIFF Men's Emerging Player of the Year award.
• Akash Mishra became only the third defender to receive this award after Sandesh Jhingan and Pritam Kotal.
• Meanwhile, the AIFF's Men's and Women’s Coach of the Year awards went to Clifford Miranda and Priya Parathi Valappil, respect ively.
Science Technology Defence And Environment
168.In July as per report Defence Ministry signed mou with Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited for Medium Refit with Life Certification (MRLC)
of Submarine INS Shankush worth amount __________.
A. Rs 3,789 crore
B. Rs 2,458 crore
C. Rs 2,781 crore
D. Rs 2,364 crore
E. Rs 2,725 crore
• Rs 2,725 crore of a contract signed by the Defence Ministry with Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited.
• The contract has been signed for Medium Refit with Life Certification (MRLC) of Submarine INS Shankush.
• INS Shankush, a sub-surface warfare class submarine, will undergo a minor overhaul at Mazagon Dock
Shipbuilders Limited, Mumbai.
• The submarine will be delivered in 2026 post MRLC as per the contract.
• After completion of MRLC, INS Shankush will be combat-ready and will be inducted into the active fleet of the
Indian Navy.
• This project is a significant step towards the growth of Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited.
• The project will cover more than 30 micro, small, and medium enterprise sectors.
• The project will be the proud flag bearer of Atmanirbhar Bharat in line with the Government's Make-in-India
initiative.
• INS Shankush belongs to Shishumar class of submarines and has a speed of 22 knots.
• It is a Sub-Surface Killer (SSK) Class diesel-electric submarine.
• These submarines are developed by the German yard Howaldtswerke-Deutsche Werft (HDW).
• The first two of these vessels (INS Shishumar and Shankush) were built by HDW at Kiel, while the remainder
(Shalki and Shankul ) have been built at Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) Mumbai.
169.In July as per report Indian Naval ships INS Rana and INS Sumedha undertook a Maritime Partnership Exercise with __________ Navy ship
FS Surcouf in the Bay of Bengal on 30th June 2023.
A. Germany
B. UAE
C. Singapore
D. Egypt
E. France
• Indian Naval ships INS Rana and INS Sumedha undertook a Maritime Partnership Exercise with French Navy ship FS Surcouf in the Bay of
Bengal on 30th June 2023.
• INS Rana, a guided missile destroyer and INS Sumedha, an indigenously built offshore
patrol vessel were from the Indian Navy side.
• The French Navy’s La Fayette class frigate Surcouf participated in a variety of activities
with Indian Navy ships.
• The Exercise included tactical manoeuvres, replenishment at sea approaches, air defence
against fighter aircraft and cross deck helicopter operations.
• Location: Bay of Bengal.
• The Partnership Exercise signifies the strong navy-to-navy links, interoperability and
strong bonds between Indian Navy and French Navy.
170.Recently as per report __________completed seven years of service in the Indian Air Force
(IAF) on July 1.
A. Chinook
B. Sukhoi-30
C. Rafale
D. Apache
E. Tejas
• Indigenous Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas completed seven

years of service in the Indian Air Force (IAF) on July 1.
• The Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) program was started in the
early 1980s, with the Government of India (GoI) establishing
the project in 1983 to replace Mig-21 fighters.
• The first prototype took its first flight in January 2001 and the
fighter was named
• After more than a decade of trials, the first jet was finally
inducted by the IAF in 2016 in the No. 45 squadron 'Flying
Daggers'.
• In 2020, the No.18 squadron 'Flying Bullets' became the second
squadron to start operating the jet.
• The Tejas Mk-1 is light supersonic multirole jet.
• Designed by the Defence Research & Development
Organisation (DRDO), the multi-role Tejas fighter can perform
the roles of air defence, maritime reconnaissance and strike,
switching between roles with the press of a button.
171.In July as per report ____________ has partnered with ‘Vidya

Shakti’ to take education to the rural areas of Uttar Pradesh
through the use of Online Classes and Virtual Reality (VR) .
A. IIT Ropar
B. IIT Delhi
C. IIT Kanpur
D. IIT Bombay
E. IIT Madras
• IIT-Madras Pravartak Technologies Foundation has partnered with ‘Vidya Shakti’ to take education to the rural areas of Uttar Prad esh
through the use of Online Classes and Virtual Reality (VR) .
• The initiative has already been implemented in 100 villages of Varanasi district with the sessions being conducted in Hindi medium for
students of classes VI to VIII.
• The initiative is intended to tackle the ‘knowledge gap’ created by Covid-19 between students from urban and rural areas. The classes are
focused on the fundamentals of languages as well as on maths and science
• The rural interaction centres (RIC) established at Uttar Pradesh, under Vidya Shakti project will work towards this important social goal.
• The RICs established in Tamil Nadu have resulted in commendable success during the academic year 2022-23, that has encouraged to
scale this concept to other States.
172.What is the name of the telescope launched by European Space Agency to better understand dark energy and dark matter by accurately
measuring the acceleration of the universe?
A. Euclid Space Telescope
B. Hubble Space Telescope
C. Hobby Eberly Telescope
D. Keck Observatory
E. Magllengan Telescope
• In an unprecedented effort, the European Space Agency plans to survey billions of galaxies
using the Euclid Space Telescope, which is to be launched on July 1.
• It is named after the Greek mathematician Euclid of Alexandria.
• This mission is part of ESA’s Cosmic Vision programme, which plans to explore the origin
and components of the Universe and the fundamental laws that govern it.
• The spacecraft will have a 1.2-metre-wide telescope and two instruments a visible-
wavelength camera and a near-infrared camera/spectrometer.
• It will be floating 1.5 million kilometres above the Earth, and the telescope hopes to deliver
images that are at least four times sharper than ground-based ones.
• The spacecraft measures approximately 4.7 metres tall and 3.7 metres in diameter.
• It will be launched on a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket and will remain operational for a minimum
of six years.
• In 2027, the Nancy Grace Roman Telescope will join Euclid in orbit, collaborating to study
cosmic acceleration and construct 3D universe maps.
173.Recently as per report ___________has become the youngest commercial pilot in

India.
A. Maitri Patel
B. Sanjana Verma
C. Sakshi Sinha
D. Palak Girdhar
E. Sakshi Kochhar
• At 18, Sakshi Kochhar has become the youngest commercial pilot in India. She
achieved this milestone by surpassing Maitri Patel, who previously held the record by
obtaining her license at the age of 19.
• Hailing from Parwanoo (Himachal Pradesh), the pilot shares that she always wanted
to get into a profession that was offbeat. She confesses to initially wanting to be a
choreographer.
• Her first solo flight was on December 21, 2022, and this year, she received her
commercial pilot licence from the US on May 30, which is also her birthday.
174.In July as per report Union Minister for Home and Cooperation Amit Shah virtually launched the ‘Akshar River Cruise’ on Sabarmati
Riverfront.
The cruise is the first passenger catamaran built in the country under Make in India at a cost of Rs _______ crore.
A. Rs 10 Cr
B. Rs 15 Cr
C. Rs 20 Cr
D. Rs 25 Cr
E. Rs 30 Cr
• Union Minister for Home and Cooperation Amit Shah virtually launched the ‘Akshar River
Cruise’ on Sabarmati Riverfront.
• Developed by the Ahmedabad Municipal Corporation (AMC) and Sabarmati Riverfront
Development Corporation Limited, the cruise is the first passenger catamaran built in the
country under Make in India at a cost of Rs 15 crore with twin engines where 165 passengers
can travel safely for one-and-a-half hours.
• This luxury river-cruise will be a new attraction for all the citizens of Ahmedabad.
• This cruise is developed under Public Private Partnership by Ahmedabad Municipal
Corporation and Sabarmati Riverfront Development Corporation Limited.
• The Akshar River Cruise places paramount importance on passenger safety. It is equipped with
180 life safety jackets, ensuring the well-being of all passengers on board.
175.In July as per report __________edition of bilateral Japan-India Maritime Exercise (JIMEX)
2023 hosted by the Indian Navy at Visakhapatnam.
A. 5 th
B. 6 th
C. 7 th
D. 8 th
E. 9 th
• 7th edition of bilateral Japan-India Maritime Exercise (JIMEX) 2023 hosted by the Indian Navy.
• The exercise is being conducted from 5 July to 10 July 2023 at Visakhapatnam.
• This edition marks the 11th anniversary of JIMEX since its inception in 2012.
• Japan Maritime Self Defence Force (JMSDF) units under the command of RAdm Nishiyama Takahiro, Commander Escort Flotilla One are
participating in the exercise.
• Indian Naval ships under the command of RAdm Gurcharan Singh, Flag Officer Commanding Eastern Fleet are participating in the exercise.
• JIMEX 2023 will see the participation of INS Delhi, India's first indigenously built Guided Missile Destroyer, INS Kamorta, a n indigenously
designed and built Anti-Submarine Warfare Corvette.
• The JMSDF will be represented by the guided missile destroyer JS Samidare and its integral helicopters.
• The exercise will be conducted over six days in two phases- a harbor phase at Visakhapatnam which will include professional, sports and
social interactions.
• In the second phase, both the navies will jointly hone their warfare skills at sea and enhance interoperability in the surface, sub-surface
and air domains through complex multi-discipline operations.
176.In July as per report ____________has introduced the state's first artificial intelligence (AI) news anchor named Lisa.
A. Karnataka
B. Odisha
C. Maharashtra
D. Tamil Nadu
E. Uttar Pradesh
• Odisha Television Limited (OTV) has introduced the state's first artificial intelligence (AI)
news anchor named Lisa.
• The introduction of Lisa, the AI news anchor, took place at a ceremony held in Bhubaneswar.
• The introduction of Lisa, the first AI anchor in Odisha's regional television broadcasting
arena, signifies a new era in television journalism.
• Lisa currently presents news in Odia and English on OTV's television and digital platforms.
However, efforts are underway to enhance Lisa's proficiency in Odia.
• India’s first Humanoid Sana AI Anchor Robot was launched by Aaj Tak news channel.
177.In July as per report Seventh edition of Indian Navy – US Navy (IN – USN) Salvage and
Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) exercise, SALVEX was conducted at _________.
A. Kochi
B. Vishakapatnam
C. Kolkata
D. Mumbai
E. Jaipur
• The Seventh edition of Indian Navy – US Navy (IN – USN) Salvage and Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) exercise, SALVEX was conducted
from 26 Jun – 06 Jul 23 at Kochi.
• It was focused on boosting interoperability and operational coordination.
• Both navies are participating in the Salvage and Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) exercise since 2005.
• Frontline warship and specialist diving and EOD teams took part in the exercise.
• Diving teams of both the countries shared experiences on Maritime Salvage and trained together in various facets of EOD Operations on
land as well at sea.
• The exercise was conducted to enhance cohesiveness and share best practices in maritime salvage and
EOD operations.
178.In July as per report Ministry of Defence signed a contract with Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL) for
procurement of two Dornier aircrafts along with associated engineering support package for Indian Coast
Guard (ICG) at a cost of _________.
A. ₹448.87 crore.
B. ₹458.87 crore.
C. ₹468.87 crore.
D. ₹498.87 crore.
E. ₹488.87 crore.
• The Ministry of Defence signed a contract with Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL) for procurement of two
Dornier aircrafts along with associated engineering support package for Indian Coast Guard (ICG) at a cost of
₹458.87 crore.
• The aircraft, to be procured under the Buy (Indian) category, will be fitted with a number of advanced equipment like glass c ockpit,
maritime patrol radar, electro optic infra-red device, and mission management system, officially stated the MoD.
• As per the contract, the Dornier aircraft will be manufactured indigenously at HAL’s Transport Aircraft Division in Kanpur.
• According to ICG, the high winged aircraft is operated in two variants in 228 –100 and 228–200 series.

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Week ly Optimum Current Q & A P DF – B ased On Recent E x am Trends Firs t Week of J uly (1 s t J uly – 8 t h J uly 2023)

National /State News

• The indicators of the Performance

• Tomato Grand Challenge (TGC)

• UP’s seven products have received Geographical

• In 2022, India added 664 animal species

• Recently, the union Ministry of New and

• The ministry is aiming to manufacture 44

• IFFCO Nano Urea is the only nano fertilizer

• Recently, Home Minister approves release of Rs.

D. Rs 4000 per month

• Jharkhand’s agriculture minister

• The scheme will include the

• The 125th Birth Anniversary of Alluri Sitarama Raju was

• Government launched a scheme for pregnant minor rape victims.

• MoU for the

• The Government launched India's first Tele-MANAS chat-bot in the

• CM Naveen Patnaik launched ‘Ama Pokhari’ Yojana.

• Tourism Minister Atishi inaugurated the

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced that the next 25 years of

28. Recently seen in news Kakrapar Atomic Power

• 700 MW nuclear power reactor at the Kakrapar

29. Recently as per report Centre has identified

• A single window NCC Integrated Software

• Punjab Agricultural University researchers developed a new variety of wheat.

35. Recently seen in news Bhadrakali temple is located in which

• PM Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone of several

• In order to resemble vintage Steam locos, Southern

40. Recently as per report PM Modi to attend Gita Press Centenary

41. In July as per report ____________has been honoured by British

• Rajindhar Singh Dhatt has been honoured by British PM Rishi

• The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel,

• Government is conducting annual survey of birds since 2022 for

• The Union Cabinet approved the Digital Personal

48. In July as per report Election Commission of India

• Indian Coast Guard & Indian Navy have signed an MoU

International / Report News

• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has reached

• World Mining Congress (WMC) 2023 held in Brisbane, Australia.

• According to a World Bank and WTO

• Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Heads of State

• The UAE-India Economic Summit was

Banking / Economy News

• HDFC Bank and Housing Development Finance

72. Recently as per report __________emerged as India’s top

• Tamil Nadu’s electronics exports nearly tripled in one year to

• Paytm, a major player in QR and mobile payments, and Shriram

E. South Indian Bank

• RBI panel recommends measures to internationalise rupee.

• A five-member working group has been

• Karnataka Bank has opened a Technology and Digital Hub in Bengaluru.

• The World Bank said that it approved a $1.5 billion (around

• The government has allowed all

• The Finance Ministry said that the GST collections rose

• State Bank of India (SBI) has launched its

92. Recently as per report Cabinet Committee on

• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

• PM-PRANAM will promote use of nutrient-based, biofertilizers for sustainable agriculture.

• Capital market regulator SEBI has

• The National Housing Bank

• Digital payment facility has been introduced by Tata AIA Insurance.

• Unified Payments Interface (UPI) transactions declined 0.9% in June 2023.

• The centre’s fiscal deficit at the end of May 2023 was

E. Ujjivan Small Finance Bank