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Omar SDLE Notes 5
Omar SDLE Notes 5
Twitter: @OMARSALMAJED
1) From 15/6 exam: Bacteria associated with Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG):
Treponema spp., Selenomonas spp., Fusobacterium spp., and Prevotella intermedia
(P.Intermedia). T.Denticola is associated with ANUG and ANUP.
o Broken files:
o Perforation:
o Root fracture:
4) From 15/6 exam: In Partial thickness flap the periosteum covers the bone. Whereas, in
the full thickness flap all tissues including the periosteum is reflected.
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6) From 15/6 exam: Camouflage extraction in Orthodontics:
1. Class I molar relationship: In case of crowding extract the same tooth from both
arches to maintain the molar relationship.
2. Class II molar relationship Division 1:
7) From 15/6 exam: Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy (BSSO): is used to setback or
forward mandible movement.
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9) From 15/6 exam: Transoral vertical ramus osteotomy (TOVRO) : is used only to
setback the mandible.
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12) From 15/6 exam: Vertical dimension in Complete denture:
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14) From 15/6 exam: Orthodontic appliances:
• Cervical pull headgear: Indicated in Class II with Deep Bite.
• High pull headgear: Indicated in Class II with increased vertical dimension and
minimum overbite.
• Straight pull headgear: Indicated in Class II division 1.
• Reverse pull head gear and Face mask: Indicated in Class III for protraction of
Maxilla.
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15) From 15/6 exam: Major connectors:
16) From 16/6 exam: In the resistance form for amalgam cavosurface angle is 90 degrees
to protect enamel rods. In composite >=90 degree.
18) From 16/6 exam: ISO Files lengths: 21mm, 25mm, and 31mm.
19) From 16/6 exam: Varnish is used under amalgam restoration because it reduces
significantly the leakage around the margins and walls of the restoration and reduces
discoloration.
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20) From 16/6 exam: Types of Veneers Preparation:
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22) From 16/6 exam: Papillon- Lefevre Syndrome:
25) From 16/6 exam: The ability of a material to resist fracture is called toughness.
26) From 17/6 exam: Valsalva maneuver is a breathing technique that can be used
to unclog ears, restore heart rhythm or diagnose an autonomic nervous system (ANS).
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27) From 17/6 exam: TMJ Disorders with or without reduction:
28) From 17/6 exam: The space infected with cavernous sinus thrombosis is the
infratemporal space.
29) From 17/6 exam: Stillman’s cleft and McCall festoon pictures:
30) From 18/6 exam: The lingual nerve is one of the sensory branches of the mandibular
division of the trigeminal nerve.
31) From 18/6 exam: After scaling and root planning healing occur by long junctional
epithelium.
32) From 18/6 exam: Submandibular abscess drainage is done extraorally at the
mandibular angle area.
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33) From 18/6 exam: Bluegrass appliance is used to prevent thumb sucking.
34) From 18/6 exam: Cherubism: Bilateral swelling of the submandibular area.
35) From 18/6 exam: Calcium hydroxide (CaOH) is used under composite as a liner and if
base is needed either GIC or RMGI can be used.
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36) From 18/6 exam: Regional odontodysplasia: Abnormal enamel, dentin, and pulp in a
quadrant.
37) From 18/6 exam: Spedding principle is used for selection of stainless-steel crowns size.
38) From 18/6 exam: Granulomatous Cheilitis: Diffuse swelling of the upper lip.
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39) From 19/6 exam: The base of the flap is wider than incision to increase the blood
supply.
40) From 19/6 exam: Light cure equipment factors:
41) From 19/6 exam: Sir lace research about periodontal disease progression in Sri
Lankan population:
42) From 19/6 exam: The question was about a patient came to clinic using Pulmicort.
Pulmicort is used by asthmatic patients to control and prevent symptoms of asthma.
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44) From 20/6 exam: Cross section of endodontic files: * The question was about the file
with a circular cross section.
45) From 21/6 exam: The most common side effect for hypertensive patients taking
thiazide diuretic is lichenoid reactions and Xerostomia.
46) From 21/6 exam: The function of the indirect retainer is to prevent rotational
displacement of denture from tissue base. Retention occurs around rests.
47) From 21/6 exam: The curvature of upper teeth in smile line follows the lower lip.
48) From 21/6 exam: The cause of PMMA porosity: Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA)
o Air entrapment during mixing, monomer contraction during the polymerization,
monomer vaporization associated with exothermic reaction, the presence of
residual monomer, insufficient mixing of monomer and polymer.
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50) From 21/6 exam: Functions of clasp arms:
I. Stabilization
II. Reciprocation
III. Retention.
51) From 21/6 exam: Advanced glycation end products (AGEs) are proteins or lipids that
become glycated as a result of exposure to sugars. They are found in Diabetes, Chronic
kidney disease, atherosclerosis, Alzheimer’s disease.
52) From 21/6 exam: The most common congenitally missing permanent teeth with the
exception of the maxillary and mandibular third molars, are the mandibular second
premolars, followed by the maxillary lateral incisors, and the maxillary second
premolars.
53) From 22/6 exam: Bence-Jones proteins are present in the urine of patients with
multiple myeloma.
54) From 24/6 exam: Koplik spots looks like a small, bluish-white spot with a red
background on the inside of the cheek. These spots are early oral signs of the measles
virus.
55) From 24/6 exam: Zometa drug is used to treat a number of bone diseases. These
include osteoporosis, high blood calcium due to cancer, and bone breakdown due to
cancer. Osteonecrosis has been reported in some patients taking Zometa.
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56) From 24/6 exam: Free gingival graft (FGG) VS Modified apically repositioned flap
(MARF):
57) From 24/6 exam: The most often seen primary sites that tumor metastasizes to the
oral region are the lung, kidney, liver, prostate for men, and breast for women.
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61) From 24/6 exam: Procaine side effects:
I. Allergic reaction (Difficulty breathing, closing of the throat, swelling of the lips,
face, or tongue).
II. Chest pain or slow or irregular heartbeats.
III. Dizziness.
IV. Anxiety or restlessness.
V. Nausea or vomiting
VI. Seizures or shaking.
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65) From 26/6 exam: Osteoid osteoma is a benign bone tumor characterized by pain which
is relieved by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as aspirin.
66) From 27/6 exam: Ammonia breath is associated with chronic kidney disease.
67) From 28/6 exam: Smoker classification: The question was about the heavy smoker.
• Light smoker: a smoker who smokes 1-10 cigarettes per day.
• Moderate smoker: a smoker who smokes between 11-19 cigarettes per day.
• Heavy smoker: a smoker who smokes 20 cigarettes or more per day.
71) From 29/6 exam: First line drug to treat ulcerative lichen planus is Fluocinonide (High
potency topical corticosteroid).
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72) From 29/6 exam: Calcium hydroxide uses:
I. Cavity liner and bases
II. Pulp capping
III. Pulpotomy
IV. Apexification
V. Intracanal medicament
VI. Root canal sealer
VII. Repair of perforations
VIII. Prevention and treatment of root resorption
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