SEBI Grade A - Legal - AIM

7/30/23, 9:17 AM Paper 1 - Live from 10 AM to 11 AM-complete-test
Paper 1 - Live from 10 AM to 11 AM

Quantitative Aptitude
Q.1) The question consists of two statements numbered "I and II" given below it. You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Find the time taken by train 'A' to overtake train 'B', given that train 'B' is twice as long as train 'A'.
Statement I: Train 'A' takes 8 seconds to cross a pole, whereas train 'B' can cross the same pole in 20 seconds.
Statement II: While travelling in opposite directions, the given trains take (40/3) seconds to cross each other.
[A] The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is
not sufficient to answer the question.
[B] The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is
[C] The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
[D] The data given in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question.
[E] The data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question.
Q.2) The question consists of two statements numbered "I and II" given below it. You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
The average of cost price of articles 'A' and 'B' together is Rs. 2,100. Find the cost price of article 'A'.
Statement I: If article 'A' was marked by 50% above its cost price and sold after a discount of 20%, then its
selling price would have been Rs. 240 less than the cost price of article 'B'.
Statement II: If articles 'A' and 'B' were sold at profit of 25% and loss of 15%, respectively, then overall profit
earned on the entire transaction would have been Rs. 90.
[A] The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are
[B] The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are
[C] The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
[D] The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
[E] The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Instruction: In the questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations to establish
the correct relation between x and y and choose the correct option.
Q.3) I. (y - 3)4= 4096
https://edutap.learnyst.com/admin/products/all-questions/417809 1/73
II. 2x²- 27x + 55 = 0

[A] x > y
[B] x < y
[C] x = y or the relationship cannot be established
[D] x ≥ y
[E] x ≤ y
Instruction: In the questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations to establish
the correct relation between x and y and choose the correct option.
Q.4) I. 3x²- 23x + 44 = 0
II. 2y²- 19y + 45 = 0

[A] x > y
[B] x < y
[D] x ≥ y
[E] x ≤ y
Q.5) In the questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations to establish the
correct relation between x and y and choose the correct option.
I. 14²+ x²= 2.5% of 1400x
II. y²+ 960 = 62y
[A] x > y
[B] x < y
[D] x ≥ y
[E] x ≤ y
Q.6) The following numbers form a series. Find the odd one out.
2835, 5670, 3780, 1512, 432, 144
[A] 144
[B] 432
[C] 3780
[D] 1512
[E] 5670
125, 141, 177, 241, 343, 485
[A] 177
[B] 141
[C] 485
[D] 241
[E] 343
30, 56, 132, 182, 304, 380
[A] 52
[B] 132
[C] 182
[D] 304
[E] 380
Q.9) Solution 'A', contains 40% milk and rest juice while solution 'B', contains 'x%' milk. If 480 litres of
solution 'A' is mixed with 360 litres of solution 'B', then a solution containing 285.6 litres milk is obtained.
Find the value of 'x'.
[A] 32
[B] 34
[C] 26
[D] 28
[E] None of these
Q.10) Pipes 'A' and 'C' together can fill a tank in 72 minutes while pipes 'B' and 'C' together can fill the same
tank in 6 hours and pipes 'A' and 'B' together can fill the tank in 3 hours. If only pipe 'B' is an outlet pipe, then
find the time taken by pipe 'B' to empty the entire tank alone.
[A] 2 hours
[B] 5 hours
[C] 3 hours
[D] 6 hours
[E] 4 hours
Q.11) Find the number of ways of picking a group of 3 boys and 4 girls out of a class of 15 students out of
which 40% are girls and rest boys.
[A] 1080
[B] 1260
[C] 1600
[D] 1280
[E] 960
Q.12) 'A' and 'B' started a business by investing Rs. '10x' and Rs. '20x', respectively. Six months later, 'B'
increased his investment by 25%. After 6 more months, 'A' doubled his investment and 'C' joined the business
by investing Rs. 5,000. If at the end of two years, the profit share of 'A' was Rs. 2,400 out of total profit of Rs.
10,200, then find the initial investment of 'B'.
[A] Rs 2000
[B] Rs 6000
[C] Rs 5000
[D] Rs 8000
[E] Rs 10000
Q.13) A rectangle of length 'L' cm and breadth 'B' cm is divided into two identical parts by making a single
cut. Which of the following options represents the maximum possible sum of the perimeters of the two new
polygons?
[A] {L + B + √(L²+ B²)} cm
[B] {2 X √(L²+ B²)} cm

[C] 2 X (2L + B) cm
[D] 2 X {L + B + √(L²+ B²)} cm
[E] 2 X (2B + L) cm
Q.14) A man invested Rs. 40,000 at in three different parts, each at simple interest. He invested Rs. 12,000 at
12% p.a., Rs. 18,000 at 10% p.a. and rest at r% p.a., each for 1 year. If he earned a total interest of 12.5% p.a.,
then find the interest the man would earn each year by investing the whole amount at simple interest of r%
p.a.
[A] Rs 8240
[B] Rs 7040
[C] Rs 7840
[D] Rs 7000
[E] None of these
Q.15) A shopkeeper uses a faulty weight to sell his goods. For every 1 kg of goods sold by him, the weight
shows 1.2 kg. A man bought some goods from the shopkeeper and sold them after marking up the price of
the goods by 26%. Find the total profit percentage earned by the man.
[A] 5%
[B] 5.55%
[C] 20%
[D] 26%
[E] None of these
Q.16) Boat 'A' takes 60 seconds to cover entire length of the river when travelling with the stream. Had the
speed of the stream been double, then the boat would've saved 10 seconds to complete the same journey.
Find the time taken by a hat that is floating in the river to cover the same distance, if the stream is flowing at
the original speed.
[A] 150 seconds

[B] 75 seconds
[C] 300 seconds
[D] 225 seconds
[E] 250 seconds
Instruction: Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
The line graph given below shows the percentage of people who have taken home loan, percentage of people
who have taken personal loan and number of people who have taken study loan from the SBI’s Gomia branch
during five different years.
Note: SBI’s Gomia branch provides only three types of loan i.e. home loan, personal loan and study loan. All the
percentage are with respect to total number of people who have taken loan from the bank in the respective
years.
Q.17) What is the total number of people who took loan in 2011 and 2012 together?
[A] 2600
[B] 2400
[C] 2500
[D] 2800
[E] None of these
years.
Q.18) What is the ratio of total number of people who took home loan in 2011 to number of people who took
home loan in 2014?
[A] 6: 11
[B] 7: 11
[C] 5: 6
[D] 7: 10
[E] None of these
years.
Q.19) What is the average number of people who took personal loan in 2012 and 2014 together?
[A] 340
[B] 360
[C] 380
[D] 350
[E] None of these
years.
Q.20) Number of people who took personal loan in 2013 is how much percent more/less than number of
people who took personal loan in 2015.
[A] 30%
[B] 35%
[C] 20%
[D] 25%
[E] None of these
REASONING ABILITY
Instruction: Study the given information carefully then answer the following questions.
Avni started walking in the east direction from point A and walked for 6 m and after that Avni took a left turn and
walked for 14 m to reach point B. Then again she takes a left turn and walks for 7 m to reach point C. Then she takes a
right turn and walks for 3 m to reach point D. Then again she takes a right turn and walks for 10 m to reach point E.
Then she takes a right turn and walks for 8 m to reach point F. Then again she takes a left turn and walks for 15 m to
reach point G. From point G she takes a right turn and walks for 2 m to reach point H. Then again she takes a right turn
and walks for 6 m to reach point I. Then she takes a right turn and walks for 8 m to reach point J. From there she takes a
left turn and walks for 11 m to reach point K. Then she takes a final left turn to reach point L and walks for 10 m.
Q.1) In which direction is point G with respect to point D?
[A] East
[B] Southeast
[C] South
[D] Northwest
[E] West
Q.2) If Avni meets her friend Sanvi at point E and then both of them walk together to reach point H, then what is the
total distance covered by them?
[A] 25 m
[B] 26 m
[C] 31 m
[D] 39 m
[E] 50 m
Q.3) In which direction is Avni facing at point L?
[A] Southeast
[B] South
[C] East
[D] West
[E] North
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H go to Delhi on two different dates i.e. 23 and 28. They go to Delhi in four different
months i.e. January, February, April, and May such that only two persons go in each month. No two persons who go to
Delhi in the same month go on the same date. Each of them uses a mobile of different brands i.e. Samsung, Xiomi,
Asus, Dell, Apple, Redmi, Oppo, and Vivo. A goes to Delhi on one of the even-numbered dates and uses samsung’s
mobile. The one who uses Asus does no go immediately after D. A and B go in the same month but not in a month that
has more than 30 days. Two people go to Delhi between the one who goes on 28 february and H, who either uses Asus
or Dell’s mobile and he is neither the first or last one. G does not go in a month after the month that has less than 30
days. Only one person goes between H and E, who uses vivo. The one who uses Xiomi goes on the same date as E. Only
three people go between the one who uses oppo and D. As many people go after H as before C. The number of persons
go before the one who uses Apple is same as the number of persons go after the one who uses redmi. The one who
uses Apple’s mobile does not go on an odd numbered date and he goes to Delhi in one of the months after april.
Q.4) Who among the following uses Oppo’s mobile?
[A] C
[B] F
[C] The one who uses redmi
[D] E
[E] The one who uses vivo
Q.5) Who among the following goes to Delhi on 23rd may?
[A] A
[B] H
[C] F
[D] D
[E] G
Q.6) Who among the following goes on an even numbered date in a month that has less than 30 days?
[A] C
[B] B
[C] A
[D] G
[E] H
Q.7) Find the odd one out.
[A] H
[B] G
[C] B
[D] E
[E] C
Q.8) Who among the following goes to Delhi in January and uses which phone?
[A] C- Oppo
[B] G- Redmi
[C] F-Apple
[D] Both (a) and (b)
[E] Both (a) and (c)
Instruction: Direction: In the following question three statements are followed by three conclusions. You have to take
the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the
statements and decide which of the given conclusion/conclusions logically follows from the given statements.
Q.9) Statement:
Only Goat is Pony.
Only a few Goat is Sheep.
No Goat is Bull.
Conclusions:
I. All Sheep can be Bull
II. Some Goat is Pony
III. No Pony is Bull

[A] Only II follows
[B] Only III follows
[C] Only I and III follow
[D] Only II and III follows
[E] All follows
Instruction: Direction: In the following question four statements are followed by three conclusions. You have to take
the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the
statements and decide which of the given conclusion/conclusions logically follows from the given statements.
Q.10) Statements:
Few Star are Light
Only a few Boat are Glow
All Light are Love
Only a few Star are Glow
Conclusions:
I. All Star being Glow is a possibility
II. No Love is Glow
III. All Boat being Star is a possibility
[A] Only II follows
[B] Only III follows
[C] Only I and III follows
[D] Only II and III follows
[E] All follows
Instruction: Study the following Alphanumeric series carefully and answer the following questions.
Q*2#4FJ(=L@YX*!0O5D9I<?>GH@XM/?9
Q.11) How many symbols are there between Q and > ?
[A] 9
[B] 7
[C] 8
[D] 10
[E] 11
Instruction: Study the information carefully and answer the following questions.
X % Y means X is the father of Y.
X + Y means X is the mother of Y.
X & Y means X is the sister of Y.
X = Y means X is the brother of Y.
X ! Y means X is the son of Y.
X * Y means X is the daughter of Y.
Q.12) If R & Y * U % I = O + P, then how Y is related to O?
[A] Brother
[B] Cousin
[C] Aunt
[D] Sister
[E] Niece
Q.13) If E ! D ! F = H & N % B * V, then how is V related to N?
[A] Wife
[B] Husband
[C] Either (a) or (b)

[D] Sister
[E] Mother
Q.14) If T * Q * S = X + B ! U, then who is the husband of X?
[A] B
[B] U
[C] S
[D] T
[E] Q
Instruction: Direction: In the following question statements are followed by some conclusions. You have to take the
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the statements
and decide which of the given conclusion/conclusions logically follows from the given statements.
A % B means A is greater than B
A ^ B means A is smaller than B
A & B means A is neither greater nor smaller than B
A $ B means A is not greater than B
A ! B means A is not smaller than B
Q.15) Statement: O $ T ! U & W ^ P % J & Q
Conclusions :
I. W^Q
II. T%Q
[A] Only II follows
[B] Only I follows
[C] Neither I nor II follows
[D] Both I and II follow
[E] Either I or II follows
In a certain code language,
“Amber Anik Anuj Arman” is coded as “ Z@32 Z%23 Z$67 Z!22”
“Arman Ashu Abhinav Ashtha” is coded as “Z!22 Z*6 Z@12 Z=13”
“Ashtha Anik Ambuj Anju” is coded as “Z@12 Z%23 Z*37 Z#39”
“Ashu Amber Ajooni Aviral” is coded as “Z*6 Z@32 Z$78 Z+41”
“Ambuj Aviral Animal Anuj” is coded as “Z*37 Z+41 Z$67 Z#9”
Q.16) What is the code for “Animal”?
[A] Z#9
[B] Z$67
[C] Z$6
[D] Z+41
[E] Z*37
Q.17) What is the possible code for “Anju Abhinav”?
[A] Z+41 Z$64
[B] Z#39 Z=32
[C] Z#39 Z=13
[D] Either (a) or(b)
[E] Both (a) and (b)
Q.18) Which of the following word is coded as “Z$78”?
[A] Abhinav
[B] Ajooni
[C] Anju
[D] Anuj
[E] Amber
Instruction: Directions: Study the following question carefully and choose the right answer:
Q.19) In which of the following expression S > P definitely holds true.
[A] A < E > P = H ≤ L ≤ S
[B] A ≥ E = P > H ≤ L < S

[C] A > E > P = H < L ≤ S
[D] A = E < P > H ≤ L < S
[E] None of these
Instruction: Directions: Study the following question carefully and choose the right answer:
Q.20) What is the possible values of @ and # if B > N definitely holds true?
A>B@C≥D=F#N<G≥E>S
[A] ≥ ≥
[B] ≥ >
[C] = ≥
[D] > <
[E] < =
English
Instruction: Read the passage carefully then answer the questions given below.
The electronics laboratory sessions at the engineering college were eventful. A motley set of equipment lay
scattered on the table — a breadboard, a display screen, a clump of wires and colourful beads comprising
resistors, transistors and capacitors. The objective was simple: to follow a set of instructions, create an
electronic circuit on the breadboard and read the resultant output waveform on the display screen. The
breadboard had tiny holes into which you inserted the resistors and capacitors and connected them up with
wires.
It would be unnerving especially if you were doing it for the first time. You had to contend with multiple
challenges — instructions that were unclear, the pressure of time and the overbearing presence of the
professor who looked out for the slightest error to give you an earful! It was often an exercise in futility, and
there were days when the experiments completely failed despite your best efforts. Still, you soldiered on. If you
managed to get the desired output waveform and successfully completed the lab work, it was deemed a
miracle.
One afternoon, a miracle did happen. The display screen suddenly sprang to life, and registered this most
beautiful waveform. It was a sight to behold — a rainbow of sorts for our thirsty eyes!
We were a team of three and had struggled through the entire afternoon putting the pieces of the circuit
together until the breadboard resembled a wild jungle... with wires hanging all over!
We impatiently waited until the professor was at the table to evaluate our artwork. It was our crowning glory
moment. The professor’s expression was inscrutable — he looked at the waveform with interest and then
looked at each of us with equal interest. He carefully removed one of the resistors from the breadboard,
reaching out for it between the wild undergrowth of wires. “Watch, my dears; the waveform output is still
intact!” Our response was muted. “Yes, sir,” we mumbled. In such a complicated circuitry, there could be some
scope for redundancy, where the loss of a body part need not affect the overall health, or so we thought.
What happened from this point on was nothing short of dramatic. The professor did quick work: he removed a
capacitor here, a resistor there and uprooted wires by the handful. Like dead pieces outside a chessboard, there
was a now a growing heap of deadwood piling up outside the breadboard. “My dears, your waveform is still
intact!”
We knew something was wrong. Soon, the professor plunged his entire fist into the breadboard and exhumed
whatever came in his grasp and exclaimed, “My dears, your waveform has still not changed!” Eventually, in a
manic rage, he had emptied the entire breadboard of all its components. The waveform still smiled back at us,
unaffected. The rest of the afternoon was not pleasant. The professor asked for the lab record-books and
scrawled, “repeat the experiment” in red across the entire page. He was evidently angry.
The above incident is actually several decades old. To this day, I am baffled how the waveform output could be
so precise especially when the breadboard was emptied out. There are plausible explanations, no doubt, of the
circuit being ‘shorted’ or the display wires possibly connected back-to-back. I do not know. However, I do know
this incident has taught some valuable lessons for life.
Q.1) What are the challenges faced by the students in achieving the desired objectives of the experiment?
[A] Complicated instructions
[B] Nervousness due to presence of professor
[C] Myriad of time
[D] Both [a] and [b]
[E] All of the above.
wires.
miracle.
We impatiently waited until the professor was at the table to evaluate our artwork. It was ourcrowning glory
intact!”
Q.2) What made the students think that something was wrong with their circuit?
[A] Load of wires hanging all over the breadboard
[B] Failure in experiment despite best efforts
[C] Stable waveform despite circuit changes by professor
[D] Change in the attitude of the professor
[E] None of these.
wires.
miracle.
intact!”
Q.3) What are the possible reasons mentioned in the passage for the intact waveform?
[A] Fault in the wire connection
[B] Negligence of instructions

[C] Short circuited circuit
[D] Both [a] and [c]
[E] None of these.
wires.
miracle.
intact!”
Q.4) Which of the following is similar to the word ‘ UNNERVING’ as used in the passage?
[A] Hearten
[B] Dispirit
[C] Fortify
[D] Vitalize
[E] None of these.
wires.
miracle.
intact!”
Q.5) Which of the following statement(s) is/are false in context of the given passage?
[A] The experiment seemed a herculean task for the students
[B] Breadboard acts as a base for various electronic components
[C] Professor maintained his tranquil composure
[D] Both [b] and [c]
[E] None of these.
wires.
miracle.
intact!”
Q.6) In the given passage, which incident has been considered as the crowning moment for the students?
[A] Arrival of professor for checking their work
[B] The inscrutable expression of the professor
[C] Obtaining the waveform
[D] Appreciation by the professor for their work
[E] None of these.
Instruction: In each of the questions given below a part of the sentence is given in bold. It is then followed by
three options. Find the alternative that can replace the given bold part to make the sentence grammatically and
contextually correct. If none of the alternatives is correct and the sentence is correct as it is then select option
(E) as your choice.
Q.7) Scientists from the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER) Kolkata were in for a surprise
as the total solar eclipse proved their prediction correct in its major features.
(i) were at a pleasant surprised
(ii) were in the surprised
(iii) were in for a pleasant surprise
[A] Both (i) and (iii)

[B] Only (i)
[C] Both (ii) and (iii)
[D] Only (iii)
[E] No correction required
(E) as your choice.
Q.8) The team led by Dr. Manjari Jain from the Department of Biological Sciences at IISER Mohali found that
with acclimatisation to turbid conditions zebrafish did overcame the challenges posed by reduced visibility.
(i) zebrafish did overcome the challenges
(ii) zebrafish had overcome the challenges
(iii) zebrafish overcame the challenges

[B] Only (i)
[D] Only (iii)
(E) as your choice.
Q.9) A hydrogel-based adhesive that combines strength and reversibility has been developed by a collaboration
of researchers based in the U.S. and Korea.
(i) which combined strength
(ii) that is combining strength
(iii) of which combined strength

[B] Only (i)
[D] Only (iii)
(E) as your choice.
Q.10) Studying a combination of El Nino, Antarctic Oscillation and the anomalies in sea surface temperature
during autumn, can helped in forecasting the pollution conditions in winter.
(i) can help forecasts
(ii) can help in forecasting

(iii) can help forecast

[B] Only (i)
[D] Only (iii)
Instruction: Each question below has one blank, which is indicating that something has been omitted. Find out
which option can be used to fill up the blank in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully
complete.
Q.11) In a coordinated operation of the NDRF, the Army and the Navy on Saturday ______________ over a
thousand passengers stranded on the -Kolhapur Mahalaxmi Express near Badlapur
[A] Refrained
[B] Deferred
[C] Obscured
[D] Rescued
[E] None of these.
complete.
Q.12) The panel dismissed key ________________ made by the Finance Ministry’s Department of Economic
Affairs (DEA) and the NITI Aayog to improve criteria for selecting bidders.
[A] Potency
[B] Suggestions
[C] Information
[D] Amputation
[E] None of these.
complete.
Q.13) A Nano fibre sensor capable of sensing _____________ variations in relative humidity levels in the
exhaled breath has been fabricated by a team at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras.
[A] Minute
[B] Composure
[C] Poise
[D] Ascetic
[E] None of these.
complete.
Q.14) The occurrence of precipitation is subject to the ________________ of nature, leading to unexpected
droughts and floods.
[A] Transpose
[B] Adversary
[C] Accumulation
[D] Vagaries
[E] None of these.
complete.
Q.15) Debt funds have been in the news for quite some time, _____________ for the wrong reasons.
[A] Owing
[B] Mostly
[C] Laudable
[D] Gauging
[E] None of these.
complete.
Q.16) British Prime Minister Boris Johnson _______________ the EU on Saturday that the “anti-democratic”
Irish backstop must be ditched if they were to strike a Brexit divorce deal.
[A] Warned
[B] Incurred
[C] Cautioned
[D] Vested
[E] None of these.
Instruction: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error,
if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the
answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
Q.17) Hardly had the teacher stopped (A)/writing then the lights went out (B)/ and there was (C)/ shouting in
the class (D)/ No error (E)
[A] A
[B] B
[C] C
[D] D
[E] E
Q.18) My brother suggested (A)/me that I should (B)/be written to him at least (C)/ one letter every month (D)/
No error (E)
[A] A
[B] B
[C] C
[D] D
[E] E
Q.19) The tweet ended up (A)/ dividing Twitter users on (B)/ religious lines and could (C)/ stokes communal
disharmony (D)/ No error (E)
[A] A
[B] B
[C] C
[D] D
[E] E
Q.20) The coach said that(A)/ his team would not(B)/ repeat the mistakes(C)/ done by the previous teams(D)/
No error(E)
[A] A
[B] B
[C] C
[D] D
[E] E
General Awareness
Q.1) Recently (June 2023), ________ has launched its payment gateway with zero setup, annual maintenance fee for
MSME merchants
[A] Paytm
[B] Google Pay
[C] Groww
[D] PhonePe
[E] Zerodha
Q.2) Which of the following is the capital of Papua New Guinea?
[A] Port Moresby

[B] Hanoi
[C] Warsaw
[D] Port-au-Prince
[E] San Juan
Q.3) Recently (June 2023), according to a recent data released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the outstanding
portfolio under education loans grew _________ to Rs 96,847 crore in 2022-23 as compared to 2021-22.
[A] 12%
[B] 17%
[C] 24%
[D] 18%
[E] 35%
Q.4) Meitei community has recently (May 2023) been in news. The community is a part of which of the following
states?
[A] Assam
[B] Nagaland
[C] Manipur
[D] Odisha
[E] Karnataka
Q.5) Recently (July 2023), who among the following has won the 2023 Canada Open (badminton tournament) in
Men’s category?
[A] Li Shi Feng

[B] B. Sai Praneeth
[C] Lakshya Sen
[D] S. Kidambi
[E] K. Naraoka
Q.6) Recently (April 2023), who among the following has authored the book ‘Courting India: England, Mughal
India And The Origins Of Empire’?
[A] Romila Thapar

[B] Nandini Das
[C] Irfan Habib

[D] Bipan Chandra
[E] R. C. Majumdar
Q.7) Recently (May 2023), 57th Jnanpith Award has been won by which of the following writers/authors?
[A] Damodar Mauzo
[B] Nilmani Phookan Jr
[C] Krishna Sobti
[D] Akkitham Achuthan Namboothiri
[E] Amitav Ghosh
Q.8) Recently (April 2023), Reliance General Insurance has become the first company to start accepting
premium payments in eRupee or the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) - through a partnership with
__________.
[A] Bank of Baroda

[B] Razorpay
[C] Axis Bank
[D] Punjab National Bank
[E] Yes Bank
Q.9) Recently (June 2023), ________ has become the 1st PSB in India to introduce the facility of UPI payments to
merchants through RuPay Credit Card.
[A] Canara Bank

[B] Bank of Baroda
[C] Union Bank of India
[D] Indian Overseas Bank
[E] Punjab National Bank
Q.10) What is the theme of the World Press Freedom Day 2023, which was observed on 3rd May?
[A] Journalism without Fear or Favour
[B] Information as a Public Good
[C] Journalism under Digital Siege
[D] Shaping a Future of Rights: Freedom of expression as a driver for all other human
rights
[E] None of the above
Q.11) As per recent (July 2023) news, IIT Madras will set up its first international campus in which of the
following countries?
[A] Tanzania
[B] Uganda
[C] UAE
[D] Saudi Arabia
[E] Italy
Q.12) As per recent (June 2023) news, which of the following has become the first Indian state to launch its own
broadband service?
[A] Tamil Nadu

[B] Uttar Pradesh
[C] Kerala
[D] Gujarat
[E] Bihar
Q.13) As per recent (June 2023) news, India & US will undertake joint mission to international space station in
__________.
[A] 2027
[B] 2025
[C] 2030
[D] 2026
[E] 2024
Q.14) Recently (June 2023), the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has introduced a stricter timeline of
three months for listed companies to fill up the vacancies of their Key Managerial Personnel (KMPs) & directors. The
Companies Act 2013 provides a __________ window to fill up the vacancies of KMPs.
[A] twelve months

[B] three months
[C] six months
[D] nine months
[E] fifteen months
Q.15) Recently (June 2023), Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) has cleared acquisition of 30 MQ-9 Reaper armed
drones from which of the following companies?
[A] Lockheed Martin Corp

[B] Boeing Co
[C] General Atomics
[D] BAE Systems
[E] General Electric
Q.16) Recently (May 2023), Great Prayer Festival ‘Monlam Chenmo 2023’ has been held in which of the following
states/UTs?
[A] Puducherry
[B] Ladakh
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] Sikkim
[E] Arunachal Pradesh
Q.17) Recently (May 2023), _________ has introduced a customized programme ‘Vishesh’, for SURU (semi-
urban and rural) areas, offering a blend of financial and wellness benefits to customers in these geographies by
adding 675 branches in semi urban and rural geographies in FY24.
[A] HDFC Bank

[B] State Bank of India
[C] India Post Payments Bank
[D] ICICI Bank
[E] Axis Bank
Q.18) Recently (May 2023), Zomato has inked pact with ________ to launch its own UPI.
[A] IndusInd Bank
[B] IDFC First Bank
[C] Axis Bank
[D] ICICI Bank
[E] State Bank of India
Q.19) 2024 Summer Olympics will be held at which of the following place?
[A] Rome, Italy
[B] Los Angeles, USA

[C] London, United Kingdom
[D] Paris, France
[E] Tokyo, Japan
Q.20) Who among the following has recently (June 2023) been appointed as Director of United Nations Office of
Outer Space Affairs (UNOOSA)?
[A] Simonetta Di Pippo

[B] Aarti Holla-Maini
[C] Ravi Sinha
[D] Samant Kumar Goel
[E] Nahida Khan

Answers
Q.1)A Q.2)C Q.3)C Q.4)B Q.5)B Q.6)A Q.7)E Q.8)D Q.9)C Q.10)D Q.11)B Q.12)A
Q.13)D Q.14)B Q.15)A Q.16)C Q.17)D Q.18)A Q.19)C Q.20)B
REASONING ABILITY
Q.1)B Q.2)A Q.3)B Q.4)A Q.5)B Q.6)C Q.7)E Q.8)D Q.9)D Q.10)B Q.11)A Q.12)D
Q.13)A Q.14)B Q.15)C Q.16)A Q.17)C Q.18)B Q.19)C Q.20)B
English
Q.1)D Q.2)C Q.3)D Q.4)B Q.5)C Q.6)C Q.7)D Q.8)A Q.9)E Q.10)C Q.11)D Q.12)B
Q.13)A Q.14)D Q.15)B Q.16)A Q.17)B Q.18)C Q.19)D Q.20)D
General Awareness
Q.1)D Q.2)A Q.3)B Q.4)C Q.5)C Q.6)B Q.7)A Q.8)E Q.9)A Q.10)D Q.11)A Q.12)C
Q.13)E Q.14)C Q.15)C Q.16)B Q.17)A Q.18)D Q.19)D Q.20)B

Explanations
Q.1) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
Let the length of train 'A' be 'd' metres
So, length of train 'B' = '2d' metres
Let the speed of train 'A' be 'x' m/s and speed of train 'B' be 'y' m/s.
Statement I:
According to statement;
(d/x) = 8
Or, d = 8x.... (I)
Also, (2d/y) = 20
Or, d = 10y.... (II)
Using equation (I) and (II), we have;
8x = 10y
Or, (x/y) = (5/4)
So, speed of train 'B' = x X (4/5) = '0.8x' m/s
So, required time = {3d/(x - 0.8x)} = (3d/0.2x) = (15d/x) = {(15 X 8x)/x} = 120 seconds
So, data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement II:
According to statement;
{3d/(x - y)} = (40/3)
Or, 9d = 40(x - y)
So, data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
So, the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is
Q.2) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
Sum of cost price of articles 'A' and 'B' = 2100 X 2 = Rs. 4,200
Let the cost price of article 'A' = Rs. 'y'

Then, cost price of article 'B' = Rs. (4200 - y)
Statement I:
Selling price of article 'A' = y X 1.5 X 0.8 = Rs. '1.2y'
According to the statement,
1.2y = (4200 - y) – 240
Or, 2.2y = 3960

So, y = 3960 ÷ 2.2 = 1800
So, cost price of article 'A' = Rs. 1,800
So, data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement II:
Selling price of article 'A' = y X 1.25 = Rs. '1.25y'
Selling price of article 'B' = (4200 - y) X 0.85 = Rs. (3570 - 0.85y)
So, overall selling price = 1.25y + 3570 - 0.85y = Rs. (0.4y + 3570)
According to the statement,
0.4y + 3570 = 4200 + 90
Or, 0.4y = 4290 – 3570
So, y = 720 ÷ 0.4 = 1800
So, cost price of article 'A' = Rs. 1,800
So, data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Therefore, the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Q.3) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
From I:
(y - 3)4 = 4096
Or, (y - 3) = ±8
So, y = 11 or -5
From II:
2x²- 27x + 55 = 0
Or, 2x²- 22x - 5x + 55 = 0
Or, 2x(x - 11) - 5(x - 11) = 0

Or, (2x - 5)(x - 11) = 0
So, x = 2.5 or 11
‘x’ Relation ‘y’

2.5 < 11
2.5 > -5
11 = 11
11 > -5
So, no relation can be established between 'x' and 'y'.
Q.4) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
From I:
3x²- 23x + 44 = 0
Or, 3x²- 12x - 11x + 44 = 0
Or, 3x(x - 4) - 11(x - 4) = 0
Or, (3x - 11)(x - 4) = 0
Or, x = (11/3) or 4
From II:
2y²- 19y + 45 = 0
Or, 2y²- 10y - 9y + 45 = 0
Or, 2y(y - 5) - 9(y - 5) = 0
Or, (2y - 9)(y - 5) = 0
Or, y = 4.5 or 5
‘x’ Relation ‘y’
11/3 < 4.5
11/3 < 5
4 < 4.5
4 < 5
So, x < y
Q.5) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
From I:
14²+ x²= 2.5% of 1400x
Or, 196 + x²= 35x
Or, x²- 35x + 196 = 0
Or, x²- 28x - 7x + 196 = 0
Or, x(x - 28) - 7(x - 28) = 0
Or, (x - 28)(x - 7) = 0
So, x = 28 or x = 7
From II:
y²+ 960 = 62y
Or, y²- 62y + 960 = 0
Or, y²- 62y + 960 = 0
Or, y²- 30y - 32y + 960 = 0
Or, y(y - 30) - 32(y - 30) = 0

Or, (y - 30)(y - 32) = 0
So, y = 30 or y = 32
‘x’ Relationship ‘y’

28 < 30
28 < 32
7 < 30
7 < 32
Therefore, y > x
Q.6) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
2835 ÷ 0.5 = 5670

5670 ÷ 1.5 = 3780
3780 ÷ 2.5 = 1512
1512 ÷ 3.5 = 432
432 ÷ 4.5 = 96
Therefore, 96 should come in place of 144.
Q.7) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
125 + 4²= 141
141 + 6²= 177
177 + 8²= 241
241 + 10²= 341
341 + 12²= 485

Q.8) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
The following series follows the pattern as: (Consecutive prime numbers starting from 5)² + the same number
5²+ 5 = 30
7²+ 7 = 56
11²+ 11 = 132
13²+ 13 = 182
17²+ 17 = 306
19²+ 19 = 380
Q.9) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
Total quantity of new solution = 360 + 480 = 840 litres
Percentage of milk in new solution = (285.6/840) X 100 = 34%
Ratio of solution 'A' and 'B' in new mixture = 480:360 = 4:3
Let quantity of solution 'A' and solution 'B' that were mixed with each other be 4y litres and 3y litres,
respectively
ATQ;
{(40% X 4y) + (x% X 3y)} ÷ (4y + 3y) = 34%

Or, 160 + 3x = 238
Or, 3x = 78
So, x = 26
Q.10) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
Pipe 'A' and 'C' together can fill the tank in 72 ÷ 60 = 1.2 hours
Let the capacity of the tank be '60x' units.
Let the efficiency of pipes 'A', 'B' and 'C' be 'a' litres/hour, 'b' litres/hour and 'c' litres/hour
ATQ;
(a + c) = (60x/1.2)
Or, a + c = 50x...... (I)
Similarly, (c - b) = (60x/6)
Or, c - b = 10x...... (II)
And a - b = (60x/3)
Or, a - b = 20x........ (III)
On subtracting equation (II) from equation (I), we have;
(a + c) - (c - b) = 50x - 10x
Or, a + b = 40x....... (IV)
On adding equation (III) and (IV), we have;
(2a = 60x)
Or, a = 30x
So, b = 40x - 30x = 10x
So, time taken by pipe 'B' to empty the tank alone = 60x ÷ 10x = 6 hours
Q.11) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
Number of boys in the class = 15 X 0.6 = 9
Number of girls in the class = 15 X 0.4 = 6
So, required number of ways =9C₃ x 6C₄ = 84 x 15 = 1260
Q.12) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
Ratio of profit shares of 'A', 'B' and 'C':
= {(10x X 12) + (10x X 2 X 12)}:{(20x X 6) + (18 X 1.25 X 20x)}:{12 X 5000}
= {120x + 240x}:{120x + 450x}:60000
= 360x:570x:60000 = 12x:19x:2000
ATQ;
{12x/(31x + 2000)} = (2400/10200)
Or, 12x X 102 = 24 X (31x + 2000)
Or, 51x = 31x + 2000
Or, 20x = 2000
So, x = 100
So, investment of 'B' = 100 X 20 = Rs. 2,000
Q.13) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
The perimeter of the new polygon will be maximum, when the rectangle is cut diagonally.
So, length of the diagonal of the given rectangle = √(L²+ B²)} cm
So, perimeter of each polygon = {L + B +√(L²+ B²)} cm
So, required perimeter = 2 X {L + B +√(L²+ B²)} cm
Q.14) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
Total interest earned = 40000 X 0.125 = Rs. 5,000
Interest earned on Rs. 12,000 = 12000 X 0.12 = Rs. 1,440
Interest earned on Rs. 18,000 = 18000 X 0.1 = Rs. 1,800
And interest earned on remaining part = 5000 - 1440 - 1800 = Rs. 1,760
Amount invested at r% p.a. = 40,000 - 12000 - 18000 = Rs. 10,000
ATQ;
1760 = {(10000 X r X 1)/100}
Or, r = 17.6
So, required interest = 40000 X 0.176 = Rs. 7,040
Q.15) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
Let the cost price of the goods purchased by the man be Rs. 120x
So, actual worth of the goods = 120x X (1/1.2) = Rs. 100x
Selling price of the goods sold by the man = 120x X 1.26 = Rs. 151.2x
But since he didn't actually sell 1.2 kg goods, the actual selling price of the goods sold by the man =151.2x ÷ 1.2
= 126x
So, profit earned = 126x - 120x = Rs. 6x
So, profit percentage = (6x/120x) X 100 = 5%
Q.16) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
Let the speed of the boat in still water be 'x' m/s and speed of the stream be 'y' m/s.
Let the total distance be ’d’ metres

ATQ;
{d/(x + y)} = 60
Or, d = 60 X (x + y)........ (I)
Also, {d/(x + 2y)} = 60 – 10

Or, d = 50 X (x + 2y)........ (II)
On equating equation (I) and (II), we have;
60x + 60y = 50x + 100y
Or, 10x = 40y
So, x = 4y
ATQ;
d = 60 X (4y + y)
Or, d = 300y
So, required time = 300y ÷ y = 300 seconds
Q.17) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
Years Total Number of people Number of people who Number of people who
who took loan took home loan took Personal loan
2011 240/0.20 = 1200 0.45 * 1200 = 540 0.35 * 1200 = 420
2012 400/0.25 = 1600 0.50 * 1600 = 800 0.25 * 1600 = 400
2013 450/0.30= 1500 0.25 * 1500 = 375 0.45 * 1500 = 675
2014 450/0.25 = 1800 0.55 * 1800 = 990 0.20 * 1800 = 360
2015 800/0.40 = 2000 0.35 * 2000 = 700 0.25 * 2000 = 500
Total number of people who took loan in 2011 and 2012 together = 1200 + 1600 = 2800
Q.18) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
2011 240/0.20 = 1200 0.45 * 1200 = 540 0.35 * 1200 = 420
2012 400/0.25 = 1600 0.50 * 1600 = 800 0.25 * 1600 = 400
2013 450/0.30= 1500 0.25 * 1500 = 375 0.45 * 1500 = 675
2014 450/0.25 = 1800 0.55 * 1800 = 990 0.20 * 1800 = 360
2015 800/0.40 = 2000 0.35 * 2000 = 700 0.25 * 2000 = 500
Desired ratio = 540:990 = 6:11
Q.19) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
2011 240/0.20 = 1200 0.45 * 1200 = 540 0.35 * 1200 = 420
2012 400/0.25 = 1600 0.50 * 1600 = 800 0.25 * 1600 = 400
2013 450/0.30= 1500 0.25 * 1500 = 375 0.45 * 1500 = 675
2014 450/0.25 = 1800 0.55 * 1800 = 990 0.20 * 1800 = 360
2015 800/0.40 = 2000 0.35 * 2000 = 700 0.25 * 2000 = 500
Desired Average = (400 + 360)/2 = 380
Q.20) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
2011 240/0.20 = 1200 0.45 * 1200 = 540 0.35 * 1200 = 420
2012 400/0.25 = 1600 0.50 * 1600 = 800 0.25 * 1600 = 400
2013 450/0.30= 1500 0.25 * 1500 = 375 0.45 * 1500 = 675
2014 450/0.25 = 1800 0.55 * 1800 = 990 0.20 * 1800 = 360
2015 800/0.40 = 2000 0.35 * 2000 = 700 0.25 * 2000 = 500
Desired Percentage = [(675 – 500)/500] × 100 = 35%
REASONING ABILITY
Q.1) Explanation:
Explanation-
From the given information we get all the distances and directions traveled by Avni.
Point G is southeast of point D.
Q.2) Explanation:
Explanation-
Both of them walked 25 m together.
Q.3) Explanation:
Explanation-
Avni is facing south at point L.
Q.4) Explanation:
Explanation-
A goes to Delhi on one of the even-numbered dates and uses samsung’s mobile.
A and B go in the same month but not in a month that has more than 30 days. (Here we have two cases i.e. Case 1 and
Case 2.)
Two people go to Delhi between the one who goes on 28 february and H, who either uses Asus or Dell’s mobile and he is
neither the first or last one.
Case 1 Case 2
Months/Date 23 28 23 28
January
February B A (Samsung)
April B A (Samsung)
May H (Asus/Dell) H (Asus/Dell)
The one who uses Apple’s mobile does not go on an odd numbered date and he goes to Delhi in one of the months after
april.
As many people go after H as before C. (This means C goes on 28 january.)
The number of persons go before the one who uses Apple is same as the number of pesons go after the one who uses
redmi.
Case 1 Case 2
January (Redmi) C (Redmi) C
April B A (Samsung)
May H (Asus/Dell) (Apple) H (Asus/Dell) (Apple)
Only one person goes between H and E, who uses vivo. (here case 2 is canceled.)
The one who uses Xiomi goes on the same date as E. (This means B uses Xiomi.)
Only three people go between the one who uses oppo and D. (This means C uses oppo.)
The one who uses Asus does not go immediately after D. (This means D uses Asus and H uses Dell’s mobile.)
G does not go in a month after the month that has less than 30 days. (This means G goes on 23 january.)
Now only F is remaining so he goes on 28 may.
This is our final arrangement:
Case 1
Months/Date 23 28
January G (Redmi) C (Oppo)
February B (Xiomi) A (Samsung)
April E (Vivo) D (Asus)
May H (Dell) F (Apple)
C uses Oppo’s mobile phone.
Q.5) Explanation:
Explanation-
Case 2.)
Case 1 Case 2
January
April B A (Samsung)
april.
redmi.
Case 1 Case 2
April B A (Samsung)
Case 1
Months/Date 23 28
H, goes on 23rd may.
Q.6) Explanation:
Explanation-
Case 2.)
Case 1 Case 2
January
April B A (Samsung)
april.
redmi.
Case 1 Case 2
April B A (Samsung)
Case 1
Months/Date 23 28
A goes on an even numbered date in a month that has less than 30 days.
Q.7) Explanation:
Explanation-
Case 2.)
Case 1 Case 2
January
April B A (Samsung)
april.
redmi.
Case 1 Case 2
April B A (Samsung)
Case 1
Months/Date 23 28
All the people except for C go on an odd numbered date.
C is the odd one.
Q.8) Explanation:
Explanation-
Case 2.)
Case 1 Case 2
January
April B A (Samsung)
april.
redmi.
Case 1 Case 2
April B A (Samsung)
Case 1
Months/Date 23 28
C who uses oppo and G who uses Redmi go to Delhi in January.
Q.9) Explanation:
Explanation-
By making the least possible venn diagram:
Conclusions:
I. All Sheep can be Bull: False (As No Goat is Bull and Only a few Goat is Sheep, this means that all Sheep can never be a
part of Bull. )
II. Some Goat is Pony: True (As Only Goat is Pony)
III. No Pony is Bull: True (As Only Goat is Pony)
Thus, Only II and III follow.
Q.10) Explanation:
Explanation-
By making the least possible venn diagram:
Conclusions:
I. All Star being Glow is a possibility: False (As it is given that ‘Only a few Star are Glow’, therefore all star being glow is
never a possibility.)
II. No Love is Glow: False (As no direct negative relationship between Love and Glow is given)
III. All Boat being Star is a possibility: True (It is a possibility)
Thus, only conclusion III follows.
Q.11) Explanation:
Explanation-
Given series: Q * 2 # 4 F J ( = L @ Y X * ! 0 O 5 D 9 I < ? > G H @ X M / ? 9
Clearly, there are 9 symbols between Q and >.
Q.12) Explanation:
Explanation-
By making the family tree diagram for R & Y * U % I = O + P, we get the gender and relationships of all the family
members.
Y is the sister of O.
Q.13) Explanation:
Explanation-
By making the family tree diagram for E ! D ! F = H & N % B * V, we get the gender and relationships of all the family
members.
From the diagram it is clear that V is the wife of N.
Q.14) Explanation:
Explanation-
By making the family tree diagram for T * Q * S = X + B ! U, we get the gender and relationships of all the family members.
U is the husband of X.
Q.15) Explanation:
Explanation-
Statement: O $ T ! U & W ^ P % J & Q
Decoding the statement: O ≤ T ≥ U = W < P > J = Q
Conclusions:
I. W ^ Q (W < Q): False (W < P > J = Q; opposite signs between the elements.)
II. T % Q (T > Q): False (T ≥ U = W < P > J = Q; opposite signs between the elements.)
Thus neither I nor II follows.
Q.16) Explanation:
Explanation-
Decoding the codes:
Amber- Z@32
Anik- Z%23
Anuj- Z$67
Arman- Z!22
Ashu- Z*6
Abhinav- Z=13
Ashtha- Z@12
Ambuj- Z*37
Anju- Z#39”
Ajooni- Z$78
Aviral- Z+41
Animal- Z#9
Z#9 is the code for Animal.
Q.17) Explanation:
Explanation-
Decoding the codes:
Amber- Z@32
Anik- Z%23
Anuj- Z$67
Arman- Z!22
Ashu- Z*6
Abhinav- Z=13
Ashtha- Z@12
Ambuj- Z*37
Anju- Z#39”
Ajooni- Z$78
Aviral- Z+41
Animal- Z#9
Z#39 Z=13 is the possible code for “Anju Abhinav”.
Q.18) Explanation:
Explanation-
Decoding the codes:
Amber- Z@32
Anik- Z%23
Anuj- Z$67
Arman- Z!22
Ashu- Z*6
Abhinav- Z=13
Ashtha- Z@12
Ambuj- Z*37
Anju- Z#39”
Ajooni- Z$78
Aviral- Z+41
Animal- Z#9
Ajooni is coded as Z$78.
Q.19) Explanation:
Explanation:
A>E>P=H<L≤S
So, in this P < S or S > P definitely holds true.
Hence option C.
Q.20) Explanation:
Explanation:
A>B≥C≥D=F>N<G≥E>S
So, this makes B > N to be definitely true.
Hence option B.
English
Q.1) Explanation:
Option (d) is the correct answer.
The correct answer to the given question can be inferred from the second paragraph of the passage in which it
is stated that, ‘ You had to contend with multiple challenges — instructions that were unclear, the pressure of
time and the overbearing presence of the professor who looked out for the slightest error to give you an
earful!’ From the given statement both option (a) and (b) can be inferred whereas option (c) is opposite of what
is mentioned in the given passage. Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (d).
Q.2) Explanation:
Option (c) is the correct answer.
The correct answer to the given question can be inferred from the last line of the fourth paragraph in which it is
stated that, ‘ Like dead pieces outside a chessboard, there was a now a growing heap of deadwood piling up
outside the breadboard. “My dears, your waveform is still intact!”’. From the given statement option (c) can be
inferred clearly. Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (c).
Q.3) Explanation:
The correct answer to the given question can be inferred from the last paragraph of the given passage in which
it is stated that, ‘ There are plausible explanations, no doubt, of the circuit being ‘shorted’ or the display wires
possibly connected back-to-back.’. Hence, the correct answer choice for the given question would be option (d)
Q.4) Explanation:
Option (b) is the correct answer.
Unnerving means causing one to lose courage or confidence; disconcerting
From the given options, only option (b) is similar in meaning to the given word, remaining options are antonyms
of the given word. Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (b)
Q.5) Explanation:
From the given statements, statement given in option (c) is false. The evidence in support of the given
argument can be inferred from the last line of the fifth paragraph in which it is stated that, ‘The professor asked
for the lab record-books and scrawled, “repeat the experiment” in red across the entire page. He was evidently
angry.’
Q.6) Explanation:
The correct answer to the given question can be inferred after reading the third paragraph of the given passage
in which the give statement is mentioned. So, the correct answer choice for the given option would be option
(c)
Q.7) Explanation:
In the highlighted part the phrase ‘were in for a surprise’ is an idiomatic phrase which means ‘To be guaranteed
to receive or experience an unexpected outcome, especially a negative one’ but going through the sentence it
can be seen the predictions of the scientist were correct so the use of the idiom is incorrect but replacing it with
option (iii) will make the given sentence both grammatically and contextually correct whereas remaining
options fail to do so. Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (d)
Q.8) Explanation:
Option (a) is the correct answer.
The use of the verb ‘Overcame’ here is incorrect because as per the sentence structure we use did + V1, so it
should be ‘overcome’ as used in option (i). Also, removing ‘did’ will make the given sentence grammatically as
well as contextually correct. Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (a)
Q.9) Explanation:
Option (e) is the correct answer
The bold part in the given sentence is correct, no correction would be required in the given question. Hence,
the correct answer choice would be option (e)
Q.10) Explanation:
The use of ‘helped’ here is incorrect because with ‘could/can’ we always use ‘V1’ as used in option (ii). Apart
from this, the sentence structure given in option (iii) will also make the given sentence both grammatically and
contextually correct. Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (c).
Q.11) Explanation:
From the given options, only option (d) will fill the given blank to make the given sentence both grammatically
and contextually correct. Hence, the correct answer choice.
Refrained means stop one from doing something.
Deferred means put off (an action or event) to a later time; postpone.
Obscured means keep from being seen; conceal
Q.12) Explanation:
From the given options, only option (b) will fill the given blank to make the given sentence both grammatically
and contextually correct. Hence, the correct answer choice.
Amputation means the action of surgically cutting off a limb.
Q.13) Explanation:
From the given options, only option (a) fills the given blank to make the given sentence both grammatically
correct and contextually meaningful whereas the remaining options fail to do so. Hence, the correct answer
choice would be option (a)
Ascetic means characterized by severe self-discipline and abstention from all forms of indulgence.
Q.14) Explanation:
Taking the cue from the last part of the sentence which is talking about ‘unexpected drought and floods’. So the
most appropriate word to fill the given blank would be ‘Vagaries’ which means ‘an unexpected and inexplicable
change in a situation’. Hence, the most appropriate answer choice would be option (d)
Adversary means one's opponent in a contest, conflict, or dispute
Transpose means cause (two or more things) to exchange places
Q.15) Explanation:
Option (b) is the correct answer
The most appropriate answer choice for the given blank is option (b) because option (a) fails to match the
sentence structure of the given sentence. Also, option (c) and (d) fails to make the given sentence contextually
meaningful.
Laudable means deserving praise and commendation
Gauging means estimate or determine the amount, level, or volume of
Q.16) Explanation:
From the given options, option (a) will make the given sentence grammatically incorrect whereas option (b) and
(d) fails to make a contextually meaningful sentence. Hence, the remaining option (c) which makes the given
sentence both grammatically and contextually correct is the most appropriate answer choice.
Incurred means become subject to as a result of one's own behaviour or actions.
Vested means confer or bestow (power, authority, property, etc.) on someone.
Q.17) Explanation:
The error lies in part (b) of the given sentence. The use of ‘then’ here is incorrect instead it should be ‘when’
because ‘Hardly’ is followed by ‘when’. Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (b)
Q.18) Explanation:
The error lies in part (c) of the given sentence. ‘Be written’ should be replaced with ‘write’ because ‘I’ is the
active subject in the given sentence and an active verb is needed to complement the same. Hence, the correct
answer choice would be option (c)
Q.19) Explanation:
Option (d) is the correct answer..
The error lies in part (d) of the given sentence. The use of ‘stokes’ here is incorrect because after modal verb we
use base verb 'stoke'. Hence, the correct option choice would be option (d)
Q.20) Explanation:
There is grammatical error in part (d) of the sentence, instead of ‘done’ ‘made’ would be used because ‘make a
mistake’ is idiomatic. So if it is to be used in the passive form it would be used as ‘mistakes made’. Hence, the
correct answer choice would be option (d)
General Awareness
Q.1) Explanation:
Program / Initiative / Launched Key Facts

Landmarks /
Developed
by
PhonePe Payment PhonePe It is offering free onboarding to new

Gateway merchants, while most payment gateways
charge a standard transaction fee of 2%.
The initiative has been launched to promote ease
of doing business for Micro, Small & Medium
Enterprises (MSMEs).
Q.2) Explanation:
Place Why in News Key Facts
Port Moresby, Prime Minister of India First visit by an Indian Prime

Papua New arrived at Port Moresby Minister to Papua New Guinea
Guinea
Q.3) Explanation:
According to a recent data released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the
outstanding portfolio under education loans grew 17% at Rs 96,847 crore in
2022-23 as against Rs 82,723 crore in 2021-22.
For the first time in five years, growth in education loans not only turned
positive but also registered a 17% surge in 2022-23.
The Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) in education advances stood at 7.82% of a
total outstanding portfolio of Rs 80,000 crore at the end of the first quarter
of FY23.
Priority sector educations loans registered 0.9% growth in FY23
Q.4) Explanation:
Focus Area Venue Key Facts
Meet to restore New Delhi Agenda of the meet: To review the measures taken
peace in for restoring peace in Manipur that has witnessed
Manipur violent clashes between two ethnic communities
of Meitei and Kuki
Meitei and Kuki communities are a part of
Manipur
Q.5) Explanation:
Tournament Venue Winner / Looser
2023 Canada Open Calgary, Canada Winner: Lakshya Sen (India)

(badminton
Runner-up: Li Shi Feng (China)
tournament)
Q.6) Explanation:
Book Title Author Key Facts

Courting India: England, Nandini Das She is a historian and it’s her debut
Mughal India and the book
Origins of Empire
Q.7) Explanation:
57th Jnanpith Award Damodar Mauzo Damodar Mauzo is a Konkani Writer

from Goa.
'Karmelin' is his famous novel
Q.8) Explanation:
· Recently, Reliance General Insurance has become the first general insurance company to accept Central
Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)- Retail or e-Rupee (e₹) for premium payments.
· Reliance General Insurance has partnered with YES Bank to launch the service.
Q.9) Explanation:
News Initiative of Key Facts
First Public Sector Bank in India Canara Bank Canara Bank has launched the
to introduce the facility of facility in association with National
Unified Payments Interface Payments Corporation of India
(UPI) payments to merchants (NPCI).
through RuPay Credit Card-
The facility is available in ‘Canara
ai1’ Banking Super App of the Bank.
At present only merchant payments
are available under this facility.
Q.10) Explanation:
Days Date Themes & Misc.
30th World May 3 Theme: Shaping a Future of Rights: Freedom of Expression as a Driver for all
Press Freedom other human rights
Day
Q.11) Explanation:
News Place Key Facts
First Indian Institute of To be set up at: The classes are planned to

Technology (IIT) to be set up Zanzibar, Tanzania start by: October 2023
abroad (Africa) – ‘IIT Madras’
Q.12) Explanation:
News Key Facts

First Indian state to launch its own Kerala has achieved this milestone by launching Kerala Fibre Optic
broadband service- Kerala Network (K-FON).
Q.13) Explanation:
Initiatives / Launched by / Developed by Key Facts

Programs in News
Joint mission to the To be launched by: National Aeronautics It is aligned with India’s decision to join Artemis Accords
International Space and Space Administration (NASA) & Indian
Station (ISS) in 2024. Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Q.14) Explanation:
Recently, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has introduced a stricter timeline of three
months for listed companies to fill up the vacancies of their Key Managerial Personnel (KMPs) &
directors.
o KMPs- CEO, CFO, MD, Wholetime Director, Manager and Compliance officer.
The new timeline has been introduced by amending SEBI’s Listing Obligations and Disclosure
Requirements (LODR) regulations.
Also, listed companies cannot fill vacancies of KMPs by appointing a person in an interim capacity.
o Such appointments can be allowed only in accordance with the laws applicable in case of a fresh appointment
to such office and the obligations under such laws are made applicable to the person coming in an interim capacity.
The decision is based on the recommendations of SEBI’s consultation paper on ‘Streamlining

Disclosures by Listed Entities and Strengthening Compliance with SEBI (Listing Obligations and
Disclosure Requirements (LODR)) Regulations, 2015‘.
Additional Information
Under LODR regulations, one of the key functions of the Board of directors of a listed entity is to
oversee succession planning of KMP.
The Companies Act 2013 provides a six months window to fill up the vacancies of KMPs.
Q.15) Explanation:
Initiative / Missile /
Launched / Developed by Key Facts
Technology
Predator (MQ-9 Reaper) Manufactured by: General The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC),
drones Atomics Aeronautical Systems, Union Ministry of Defence has recently
USA approved a deal to procure 31 ‘predator
drones’ from the United States.
Lead Agecny of the deal: Indian Navy
Q.16) Explanation:
Festival Country / Key Facts

State
Ladakh Monlam Ladakh It is Ladakh’s annual five-day group prayer

Chenmo 2023 camp of Buddhist monks and nuns, also
known as Great Prayer Festival
It is the most important Tibetan Buddhist
celebration of the year
Q.17) Explanation:
· HDFC Bank on Thursday launched its retail banking programme ‘Vishesh’ for customers in semi-urban
and rural geographies wherein it plans to onboard around 1 lakh new customers.
· As a part of this, the bank plans to add more branches and launch customised, tailor-made products and
financial solutions for this market segment.
Q.18) Explanation:
Focus Area Signed Between Key Facts
Partnership to Zomato and ICICI Aim: To make direct payments within

introduce own Bank the Zomato app by creating
Unified Payments Customer’s own UPI ID
Interface (UPI)
service
Q.19) Explanation:
Initiatives / Programs in Launched by / Developed by Key Facts

News
"Bharat in Paris" campaign Launched by: Indian Olympic Association (IOA) Aim: to create awareness and
promote sports across India
Flagged off from: JL Nehru Stadium in New
ahead of the 2024 Paris
Delhi
Olympics games.
Q.20) Explanation:
Person Position Organization / Key Facts

Country / State /
Company
Aarti Holla-Maini (to Director United Nations Office of Aarti Holla-Maini is from United Kingdom
succeed Simonetta Di Outer Space Affairs
She is an Indian-origin satellite industry
Pippo of Italy) (UNOOSA)
expert.
7/30/23, 9:18 AM Paper 2 - Live from 11 AM to 11:40 AM-complete-test
Paper 2 - Live from 11 AM to 11:40 AM

Paper 2 - 30 July - 11 AM to 11:40 AM
Q.1) Right to free education to children of 6 years to 14 years of age has been granted by 86th constitutional
amendment, 2002. It became a part of:
[A] Enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy
[B] Made a Fundamental Right
[C] Outlined in the Preamble of the Constitution
[D] Ignored by the Constitution
[E] Marginal Notes
Q.2) ‘Right to life’ under Article 21 of the Constitution does not include ‘right to die’. This observation was
made by the Supreme Court in____.
[A] P. Rathinam V. Union of India
[B] Gian Kaur V. State of Punjab
[C] A. M. Gopalan v State of Gujarat
[D] Both (A) and (B) above.
Q.3) Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with____________.
[A] Arbitration
[B] Mediation
[C] Enforcement of Certain Foreign Awards
[D] Conciliation
[E] Supplementary Provisions
Q.4) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

[A] Certiorari means a writ by which orders passed by an inferior court is quashed.
[B] Damnum sine injuria means injury without damage.
[C] Corpus means a body.
[D] Corpus delicti means the facts and circumstances constituting a crime and Concrete evidence of a crime,
such as a corpse (dead body
[E] Caveat emptor means let the buyer beware.
Q.5) The concept of written constitution first originated in____________.

[A] Japan
[B] Switzerland
[C] Britain
[D] U.S.A.
[E] Germany
Q.6) An agreement without consideration will be_________________.

[A] Voidable
[B] Void
[C] Illegal
[D] Inoperative
[E] Acceptable
Q.7) Which of the following meaning of legal maxim is correct?

1. Actus non reum facit reum nisi mens sit rea – To constitute a crime, it is not enough that the act is criminal;
it must also be accompanied by a blameworthy mind.
2. Auctoritate judicis – By Judicial Authority.
3. Causa causae est causa causati – The immediate and not the remote cause is to be considered.
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] 1 and 2
[D] 2 and 3
[E] 1, 2, 3
Q.8) Which of the following is transferred in sale in exchange for a price paid or promised or part-paid and
part-promised?
1. ownership
2. name
3. property
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Both 2 and 3
[E] 1, 2, 3
Q.9) Which of the following meaning of legal maxim is incorrect?

1. Causa proxima et non remota spectator – The immediate and not the remote cause is to be considered.
2. Causa sine qua non – – The cause of a cause is the cause of the effect.
3. Consensus, non concubitus, facit matrimonium – It is the consent of the parties, not their cohabitation
which constitutes a valid marriage.
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Only 3
[D] 1 and 3
[E] 1, 2, 3
Q.10) Lex tallienis denotes___________.

[A] The law of the place
[B] The law of the strong
[C] Oral law
[D] The law of Retributive Justice
[E] The law of the land
Q.11) Mala fide means________.

[A] Man of Faith
[B] In utmost good faith
[C] In bad faith
[D] In good faith
[E] faith in god
Q.12) An instrument whereby the destination or devolution of successive interests in movable or immovable
property is disposed of, or is agreed to be disposed of, is called ________________.
[A] Will
[B] Testament
[C] Settlements
[D] Deed
[E] Trust
Q.13) The pigeon-hole theory for the law of tort was given by____________.
[A] Salmond
[B] Winfield
[C] Lord Macaulay
[D] Austin
[E] Hans Kelsen
Q.14) Where the mortgagor delivers possession or expressly or by implication binds himself to deliver
possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee, and authorises him to retain such possession until
payment of the mortgage-money, and to receive the rents and profits accruing from the property or any part
of such rents and profits and to appropriate the same in lieu of interest, or in payment of the mortgage-
money, or partly in lieu of interest or partly in payment of the mortgage-money, the transaction is called-
[A] Simple mortgage
[B] Mortgage by conditional sale
[C] Usufructuary mortgage
[D] English mortgage
[E] Anomalous mortgage
Q.15) Which section of Transfer of Property Act , 1882 defined “Sale” ?

[A] Section 54 of Transfer of Property Act , 1882
[B] Section 31 of Transfer of Property Act , 1882
[C] Section 21 of Transfer of Property Act , 1882
[D] Section 57 of Transfer of Property Act , 1882
[E] Section 29 of Transfer of Property Act , 1882
Q.16) The Specific Relief (Amendment) Act 2018 came into force on______________________.
[A] 1st October 2018
[B] 1st August 2018
[C] not yet came into force
[D] 1st January 2020
Q.17) When the seller delivers the goods to the buyer without any contract of sale or transfer of ownership, it
is known as _____________.
[A] Sale
[B] Bailment
[C] Gift
[D] Barter
[E] Exchange
Q.18) A.K. Kraipak vs Union Of India, is a landmark judgment in relation to________.

[A] Separation of power
[B] Bias
[C] Delegated legislation
[D] Corporations
[E] Rule of law
Q.19) A contract dependent on the happening or non-happening of future uncertain event, is a

[A] Contingent contract
[B] Uncertain contract
[C] Void contract
[D] Voidable contract
Q.20) Which one of the following is the guardian of Fundamental Right?

[A] Legislature
[B] Executive
[C] Political parties
[D] Judiciary
1. The transferor is called the lessor.
2. The transferee is called the lessee.
3. The money, share, service or other thing to be so rendered is called the premium.
4. The price is called the rent.

[A] Only 1
[B] Only 3
[C] 1 and 2
[D] 3 and 4
[E] 2, 3, 4
Q.22) As per Consumer Protection Act, 2019, "Central Authority" means the Central Consumer Protection
Authority established under_____________.
[A] Section 2
[B] Section 4
[C] Section 6
[D] Section 8
[E] Section 10
Q.23) Which of the following statements is true regarding the passing of property in specific goods ?
[A] Property passes when the parties intend it to pass.
[B] Property passes when the goods are physically delivered.
[C] Property passes when the goods are identified to the to the contract.
[D] All of the above.
[E] None of the above.
Q.24) The juristic concept of contract consist of __________________.

[A] free consent and capacity
[B] offer and acceptance
[C] consideration and undue influence
[D] agreement and obligation
[E] free consent and obligation
Q.25) The provisions in constitution relating to the Cooperative societies are dealt in:
[A] Part IX
[B] Part VIII
[C] Part IX B
[D] Part X
[E] Part IX
Q.26) Goods are defined under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, as __________.
[A] Tangible movable property
[B] Intangible property
[C] Services
[D] Both a) and b)
[E] Both a) and c)
Q.27) "Jurisprudence is the knowledge of things, human and divine; the science of just and unjust." has been
said by____________.
[A] Keeton
[B] Ulpian
[C] Julius Stone
[D] Austin
[E] H.L.A. Hart
Q.28) Which one of the following sections of the CPC deals with institution of suits?
[A] Section 29
[B] Section 13
[C] Section 27
[D] Section 26
[E] Section 30
Q.29) Who called the Preamble as the Identity Card of Constitution ?

[A] N A Palkhivala
[B] Ernest Barker
[C] K.M. Munshi
[D] Pandit Thakur Das Bhargava
[E] Jawahar Lal Nehru

[A] Assentio mentium means the meeting of minds, i.e mutual assents.
[B] Audi alteram partem means no man shall be condemned unheard.
[C] Caveat actor means let the buyer beware.
[D] Bona fide means in good faith.
[E] Bona vacantia means goods without an owner.
Q.31) A decision in a suit may operate as res-judicata against persons not expressly named as parties to the
suit by virtue of explanation________________.
[A] II to section 11 of CPC
[B] IV to section 11 of CPC
[C] VI to section 11 of CPC
[D] VII to section 11 of CPC
[E] VIII to section 11 of CPC
Q.32) Which of the following statement is not correct?

[A] A complaint relating to violation of consumer rights or unfair trade practices or false or misleading
advertisements which are prejudicial to the interests of consumers as a class, may be forwarded only in
writing.
[B] A complaint relating to violation of consumer rights or unfair trade practices or false or misleading
advertisements which are prejudicial to the interests of consumers as a class, may be forwarded to any one of
the authorities, namely, the District Collector or the Commissioner of regional office or the Central Authority.
[C] The Central Authority shall protect, promote and enforce the rights of consumers as a class, and prevent
violation of consumers rights under this Act.
[D] The Central Government may appoint a Director-General and such number of Additional Director-General,
Director, Joint Director, Deputy Director and Assistant Director, from amongst persons who have experience
in investigation and possess such qualifications, in such manner, as may be prescribed.
[E] The Central Authority shall have an Investigation Wing headed by a Director General for the purpose of
conducting inquiry or investigation under this Act as may be directed by the Central Authority.
Q.33) Which of the following statements is not true?

[A] The date of implementation of the Indian Constitution is November 26, 1949.
[B] The “Secular” word was added by the 42nd Constitution Amendment.
[C] The 42nd Constitutional Amendment was done in 1976.
[D] Social, Economic and Political justice has been taken from the Russian Revolution in the Indian
Constitution.
[E] NONE
Q.34) As per Consumer Protection Act, 2019, "complaint" means any allegation in writing, made by a
complainant for obtaining any relief provided by or under this Act, that:
(1) an unfair contract or unfair trade practice or a restrictive trade practice has been adopted by any trader or
service provider;
(2) the goods bought by him or agreed to be bought by him suffer from one or more defects;
(3) the services hired or availed of or agreed to be hired or availed of by him suffer from any deficiency.
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 3
[C] 1 and 2
[D] 2 and 3
[E] 1, 2, 3
Q.35) Suit relating to immovable property can be filed under Section 16 of Civil Procedure Code in such a
court within whose local jurisdiction____________.
[A] the defendant resides

[B] the defendant carries on business
[C] the property is situated
[D] the plaintiff resides or carries on business
[E] Both C and D
Q.36) Which section of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with Personal profits named by partners?
[A] Section 16 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
[B] Section 24 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
[C] Section 13 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
[D] Section 18 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
[E] Section 27 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
Q.37) Which of the following was not inserted in the Preamble of the Constitution of India through the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act 1976?
[A] Socialist
[B] Secular
[C] Dignity
[D] Integrity
Q.38) Section 35 of the Indian partnership Act, 1932 deals with_____________________.

[A] Expulsion of a partner
[B] Liability of the firm for misapplication by partners
[C] Liability of the estate of a deceased partner
[D] Compulsory dissolution
[E] Rights and duties of partners
Q.39) Personal Bias means_________.

[A] When the person sits as a judge and one of the parties is his relative
[B] When he holds the shares in the company which is one of the parties before him
[C] When he wants some share in the property which is the subject matter of the dispute
[D] When he wants to be elevated
[E] Both A and B
Q.40) Article 13 of Indian Constitution uses the words "to the extent of such inconsistency be void." Under
which doctrine this can be placed?
[A] Doctrine of Eclipse
[B] Doctrine of Wavier
[C] Doctrine of Severability
[D] Doctrine of lapse
[E] Doctrine of pith and substances.
Q.41) Which of the following model law was used by the Indian Arbitration and conciliation Act 1996?
[A] Constitution of India
[B] Guidelines of Supreme Court of India
[C] European Commercial Arbitration Procedure
[D] UNCITRAL, 1985
[E] State of Maharashtra vs Union of India
Q.42) Which of the following deals with the power of Supreme Court to transfer suits, etc. in the Code of Civil
Procedure?
[A] Section 18
[B] Section 20
[C] Section 25
[D] Section 28
[E] Section 32
Q.43) Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom?

[A] Mandamus
[B] Habeas Corpus
[C] Quo Warranto
[D] Certiorari
[E] Prohibition
Q.44) The main supporter of the theory that “it is a law of Tort” and “not law of Torts” is_______.
[A] Winfield
[B] Salmond
[C] Fleming
[D] Heuston
Q.45) Courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except suits, the cognizance of which is either
expressly or impliedly barred, by virtue of_________________.
[A] Section 7 of the CPC
[B] Section 8 of the CPC
[C] Section 9 of the CPC
[D] Section 6 of the CPC
[E] Section 10 of the CPC
Q.46) Which of the following means that contemporaneous exposition is the best and strongest in law?
[A] Ejusdem generis
[B] Contemporanea Exposition Est Optima Est Fortissima in Lege
[C] Noscitur a sociis
[D] Noscitur generis
[E] All of the above
Q.47) A suit for possession of an immovable property, under section 6 of the Specific Relief Act can be filed
within _____of dispossession.
[A] 12 years
[B] 3 years
[C] 1 year
[D] 6 months
[E] 5 years
Q.48) The Indian Contract Act, applies to the_____________.

[A] Whole of India excluding Jammu & Kashmir
[B] Whole of India including Jammu & Kashmir
[C] States notified by the Central Government from time to time
[D] States notified by the Commission from time to time
Q.49) An arbitral award made under Part l of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall be considered as
a____________.
[A] domestic award
[B] foreign award
[C] general arbitral award

[D] international award
[E] Both A and C
Q.50) The Limitation Act, 1963, applies to the whole of India except___________.
[A] Jammu and Kashmir
[B] Northeastern states
[C] Union territories
[D] All of the above

Answers
Q.1)B Q.2)B Q.3)A Q.4)B Q.5)D Q.6)B Q.7)C Q.8)A Q.9)B Q.10)D Q.11)C Q.12)C
Q.13)A Q.14)C Q.15)A Q.16)A Q.17)B Q.18)B Q.19)A Q.20)D Q.21)D Q.22)E Q.23)D
Q.24)B Q.25)C Q.26)A Q.27)B Q.28)D Q.29)A Q.30)C Q.31)C Q.32)A Q.33)A Q.34)E
Q.35)C Q.36)A Q.37)C Q.38)C Q.39)A Q.40)C Q.41)D Q.42)C Q.43)B Q.44)A Q.45)C
Q.46)B Q.47)D Q.48)B Q.49)A Q.50)E

Explanations
Q.1) Explanation:
The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to
provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a
Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine.
Q.2) Explanation:
Prior to Aruna Shanbaug's case, the Supreme Court had formulated an opinion on legality of suicide in Gian
Kaur v. State of Punjab, in which it had held that the right to life under Article 21 does not include the right to
die.
Q.3) Explanation:
Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with arbitration.
Q.4) Explanation:
Damnum sine injuria means damage without injury.
Q.5) Explanation:
First country to make the constitution: USA
The concept of the Constitution first originated in England, Britain. This idea was refined and extended by the
English barony when they forced King John to sign Magna Carta in 1215.
Q.6) Explanation:
A contract without consideration is void because it is not legally enforceable. "Consideration" means that each
party must provide something of value to the other party as designated by the contract terms.
Q.7) Explanation:
Causa causae est causa causati means the cause of a cause is the cause of the effect.
Q.8) Explanation:
As per section 54, ‘Sale‘ is a transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid or promised or part-paid and
part-promised.
Q.9) Explanation:
Causa sine qua non means factor essential to the occurring of events.
Q.10) Explanation:
Lex tallienis is the principle or law of retaliation that a punishment inflicted should correspond in degree and
kind to the offense of the wrongdoer, as an eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth; retributive justice.
Q.11) Explanation:
Bad faith (Latin: mala fides) is double mindedness or double heartedness in duplicity, fraud, or deception. It
may involve intentional deceit of others, or self-deception.
Q.12) Explanation:
Section 2(b) defines the word settlement. It means an instrument [other than a will or codicil as defined by the
Indian Succession Act, 1925 (39 of 1925)] whereby the destination or devolution of successive interests in
movable or immovable property is disposed of or is agreed to be disposed of; Recovery of specific immovable
property.
Q.13) Explanation:
According to Salmond if one person commits any wrong and that wrong can be placed in a pigeon hole or he
opined that there is no general principle and if the plaintiff can by any mean put that wrong in the pigeon-hole
which has all the labelled torts, then the plaintiff could succeed.
Q.14) Explanation:
Usufructuary Mortgage is defined under Section 58(d) of Transfer of Property Act, 1882. In this mortgage, the
mortgagor delivers the possession of the property to the mortgagee and authorises the mortgagee to retain
such property until the payment is made by the mortgagor and further authorise him to receive the rent or
profit arising from such mortgaged property and to appropriate the same instead of payment of interest.
Such a transaction is called a Usufructuary transaction.
Q.15) Explanation:
Section 54 of Transfer of Property Act , 1882 explains the meaning of sale and how sale can be made.
Q.16) Explanation:
The Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, has received the presidential assent on 01.08. 2018 and came into
force on 01.10. 2018.
Q.17) Explanation:
When the seller delivers the goods to the buyer without a contract of sale, it constitutes a bailment where the
seller retains ownership of the goods.
Q.18) Explanation:
A.K. Kraipak vs Union Of India, is a landmark judgment in relation to Bias
Q.19) Explanation:
The ‘contingent contract’ means enforceability of that contract is directly depends upon happening or not
happening of an event.
Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines the term ‘Contingent Contract’ as follows: ‘A contingent
contract is a contract to do or not to do something, if some event collateral to such contract does or does not
happen’.
Q.20) Explanation:
The body which acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights is the Supreme Court. The court protects the
Fundamental Rights of the citizens from being exploited. The Supreme Court, as the Guardian of Fundamental
Rights, can declare any law null and void if it violates fundamental rights.
Q.21) Explanation:
As per section 105 the money, share, service or other thing to be so rendered is called the rent and the price
is called the premium.
Q.22) Explanation:
Section 2(4) states that "Central Authority" means the Central Consumer Protection Authority established
under section 10.
Q.23) Explanation:
Property in specific goods can pass based on the intention of the parties, physical delivery of the goods, or
identification of the goods to the contract.
Q.24) Explanation:
In every contract an offeror makes an offer to enter into a contract with an offeree. The offeror offers to do
something in particular (or to refrain from doing something in particular), and if the offeree accepts this offer,
a contract is created. As you can also see, both offer and acceptance must meet certain conditions.
Q.25) Explanation:
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act comprised of part IX-B which dealt with the functioning of ‘co-
operative societies’ in the country.
Q.26) Explanation:
Goods under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, refer to tangible movable property and exclude money and
actionable claims.
Q.27) Explanation:
ULPIAN'S DEFINITION:- The celebrated Roman jurist, Ulpian defined jurisprudence as. “the observation of
things human and divine, the knowledge of the just and unjust”. The definition is too broad and might well
apply to religion, ethics or philosophy.
Q.28) Explanation:
Section 26 provides that every suit shall be instituted by the presentation of a plaint or in such other manner
as may be prescribed. Order 4 Rule 1 lays down the procedure for institution of suit; but does not speak of
any ‘other manner’ for the purpose.
Q.29) Explanation:
PREAMBLE (CONSTITUTION OF INDIA)
N A Palkhivala, an eminent jurist and constitutional expert, called the Preamble as the 'identity card of the
constitution.
Other important terminology used for preamble are as follows:
HEART AND SOUL - Thakur Das Bhargava
KEY- ErnestT Barker
POLITICAL HOROSCOPE - KM Munshi.
Q.30) Explanation:
Caveat actor means let the doer beware.
Q.31) Explanation:
Explanation VI to Section 11 deals with representative suits, i.e. suits instituted by or against a person in his
representative, as distinguished from individual capacity. It provides that where persons litigate bonafide in
respect of a public right or of a private right claimed in common for themselves and others, and all persons
interested in such right shall, for the purposes of Section 11, be deemed to claim under the persons so
litigating.
Q.32) Explanation:
Section 17 states that a complaint relating to violation of consumer rights or unfair trade practices or false or
misleading advertisements which are prejudicial to the interests of consumers as a class, may be forwarded
either in writing or in electronic mode, to any one of the authorities, namely, the District Collector or the
Commissioner of regional office or the Central Authority.
Q.33) Explanation:
On November 26, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India formally adopted the Constitution of India. It came
into force on January 26, 1950. Prime Minister Narendra Modi marked November 26 as the Constitution Day
of India in 2015.
Q.34) Explanation:
Under 2(6) of the act, complaint is defined as any allegation in writing, made by a complainant for obtaining
any relief provided by or under this Act, that:
(1) an unfair contract or unfair trade practice or a restrictive trade practice has been adopted by any trader or
service provider;
(2) the goods bought by him or agreed to be bought by him suffer from one or more defects;
(3) the services hired or availed of or agreed to be hired or availed of by him suffer from any deficiency.
Q.35) Explanation:
Section 16 states that subject to the pecuniary or other limitations prescribed by any law, suits relating to
immovable property shall be instituted in the Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the property is
situate.
Q.36) Explanation:
Section 16 provides that all the partners should act towards achieving the common goal. they must not
engage in other profession or engage in any competitive business venture. If they earn any personal gains
from the conduct of business then they should hand over to all the partners.
Q.37) Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 changed the description of India from a "sovereign democratic
republic" to a "sovereign socialist secular democratic republic", and also changed the words "unity of the
nation" to "unity and integrity of the nation".
Q.38) Explanation:
Generally, the partnership comes to end on the death of a partner but if there is a contract between partners
to continue with the partnership on the death of a partner then surviving partner continues with the business
after clearing the deceased partner estate from any liability for the future acts of the firms. This is provided in
section 35.
Q.39) Explanation:
Personal bias arises from a certain relationship equation between the deciding authority and the parties
which incline him unfavourably or otherwise on the side of one of the parties before him. Such equation may
develop out of varied forms of personal or professional hostility or friendship.
Q.40) Explanation:
The doctrine of severability means that when some particular provision of a statute offends or is against a
constitutional limitation, but that provision is severable from the rest of the statute, only that offending
provision will be declared void by the Court and not the entire statute.
Q.41) Explanation:
UNCITRAL, 1985 is adopted by Arbitration and conciliation Act 1996. It is mentioned in the preamble of the
act.
Q.42) Explanation:
The power of the Supreme Court to transfer suits, is provided in section 25 of the Code. On the application of
a party to the hearing of a suit, appeal or other proceeding pending in a High Court or civil court in one State
and after notice to the parties, and after hearing them, the Supreme Court may, at any stage, if satisfied that
an order under this section is expedient for the ends of justice, direct transfer of such suit, appeal or other
proceeding to another High Court or other civil court in another State.
Q.43) Explanation:
Habeas corpus is a bulwark of personal freedom. It is a legal writ through which a person can seek relief from
the unlawful detention of him or herself, or of another person.
Q.44) Explanation:
Indian judiciary supported Winfield's theory in the case of M.C Mehta v. Union of India.
Winfield's theory of tort: According to the law of “tort” theory, all the unjustifiable harm for which there is no
excuse will be treated as a tort. The Chief supporter of this theory in Winfield, according to him if any injury is
done to the neighbor he can sue the other person no matter if the wrong happened has a particular name or
not. The person held liable should prove lawful justification.
Q.45) Explanation:
Section 9 of the Civil Procedure Code mentions the court can try any civil case and the court is not expressly
or impliedly barred from taking the cognizance of the suit.
Conditions:
1. The case tried in the court should be civil.

2. The court should not be expressly or impliedly barred from trying the case.
Q.46) Explanation:
Contemporanea Expositio Est Optima Et Fortissima In Lege – Legal Maxim. A contemporaneous exposition is
best and most powerful in law. In legal context the maxim Contemporanea Expositio Est Optima Et Fortissima
In Lege means that the best way to construe a document is to read it as it would have read when made.
Q.47) Explanation:
Section 6 is only applicable if the plaintiff proves that he is in juridical possession of the immovable property
in dispute. That he had been dispossessed of without his consent and without due process of law. A suit for
possession of an immovable property can be filed within 6 months of dispossession.
Q.48) Explanation:
The Indian Contract Act, 1872 prescribes the law relating to contracts in India and is the key act regulating
Indian contract law. The Act is based on the principles of English Common Law. It is applicable to all the states
of India.
Q.49) Explanation:
Section 2(7) states that an arbitral award made under this Part shall be considered as a domestic award.
Q.50) Explanation:
The Limitation Act, 1963, applies to the whole of India .

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7/30/23, 9:17 AM Paper 1 - Live from 10 AM to 11 AM-complete-test

Paper 1 - Live from 10 AM to 11 AM

II. 2x²- 27x + 55 = 0

[C] x = y or the relationship cannot be established

Q.4) I. 3x²- 23x + 44 = 0

II. 2y²- 19y + 45 = 0

[C] x = y or the relationship cannot be established

II. y²+ 960 = 62y

[C] x = y or the relationship cannot be established

2835, 5670, 3780, 1512, 432, 144

125, 141, 177, 241, 343, 485

30, 56, 132, 182, 304, 380

[E] None of these

[A] {L + B + √(L²+ B²)} cm

[B] {2 X √(L²+ B²)} cm

[D] 2 X {L + B + √(L²+ B²)} cm

[E] None of these

[A] 150 seconds

[C] 300 seconds

[D] 225 seconds

[E] 250 seconds

[E] None of these

[E] None of these

[E] None of these

[E] None of these

Q.1) In which direction is point G with respect to point D?

Q.3) In which direction is Avni facing at point L?

Q.4) Who among the following uses Oppo’s mobile?

[C] The one who uses redmi

[E] The one who uses vivo

Q.5) Who among the following goes to Delhi on 23rd may?

Q.7) Find the odd one out.

[D] Both (a) and (b)

[E] Both (a) and (c)

Only Goat is Pony.

Only a few Goat is Sheep.

I. All Sheep can be Bull

II. Some Goat is Pony

III. No Pony is Bull

[B] Only III follows

[C] Only I and III follow

[D] Only II and III follows

[E] All follows

Few Star are Light

Only a few Boat are Glow

All Light are Love

Only a few Star are Glow

I. All Star being Glow is a possibility

II. No Love is Glow

III. All Boat being Star is a possibility

[A] Only II follows

[B] Only III follows

[C] Only I and III follows

[D] Only II and III follows

[E] All follows

Q.11) How many symbols are there between Q and > ?

X % Y means X is the father of Y.

X + Y means X is the mother of Y.

X & Y means X is the sister of Y.

X = Y means X is the brother of Y.

X ! Y means X is the son of Y.

X * Y means X is the daughter of Y.

Q.12) If R & Y * U % I = O + P, then how Y is related to O?