*6001CMD30302123SRG005*Test Pattern

(6001CMD30302123SRG005)
English

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

SRG TEST
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 23-07-2023

PRE-MEDICAL : IT-5/SRG ENTHUSIAST) PHASE-1&2

Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 33 pages.

Q2 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology. 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A
and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.
5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE Copy) to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
9. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time,
will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination
Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
16. Compensatory time of one hour five minutes will be provided for the examination of three hours and 20 minutes duration,
whether such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of scribe or not.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Form Number : in figures
: in words
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature :
 2 English

Topic : Basic Mathematics used in physics & Vectors, Units, Dimensions and Measurements, Kinematics, Laws
of Motion and Friction, Work, Energy & Power, Circular Motion, Collisions and Centre of Mass, Rotational
Motion

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 4. A solid spherical ball rolls on an inclined plane

without slipping. The ratio of rotational energy
1. Find the moment of inertia of a uniform solid and total energy is :
sphere of mass “M” and Radius “R” about axis (1) 2/5 (2) 2/7 (3) 3/5 (4) 5/3
AB. If O is the center of the sphere.
5. →
The position vector of the centre of mass r cm of
an symmetric uniform bar of negligible area of
cross-section as shown in figure is :

(1) 2 (2) 2
MR2 MR2
5 3
(3) 13 (4) 11
MR2 MR2
20 3
2. Consider the solid sphere moving on horizontal (1)
surface. At some instant it has linear velocity v0
and angular velocity v0 about center of mass. (2)
2R
The translational velocity after the sphere starts
pure rolling: (3)

(4)

(1) 5v0 (2) 6v0

6. If the KE of a body becomes four times its initial
7 7
value, then the new momentum will be more
(3) 3v0 (4) 3v0
4 5
than its initial momentum by;
3. A particle is projected from point A on a smooth (1) 50% (2) 100%
vertical track OABCD as shown in fig. What (3) 125% (4) 150%
should be the minimum speed at A so that it can
reach point C? 7. The centre of mass of a non-uniform rod of
length L whose mass per unit length ρ varies as
k. x2
ρ = where k is a constant and x is the
L
distance of any point from one end is :-
(1) 3 (2) 1
L L
4 4
(1) 60 m/s (2) 100 m/s (3) k (4) 3k
L L
(3) 80 m/s (4) 20 m/s
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8. A smooth sphere of mass m is moving on a 12. Two moving particles P & Q are 10 m apart at
horizontal plane with a velocity (3i^ + ^j ). It an instant. Velocity of P is 8 m/s and that of Q is
collides with smooth vertical wall which is 6 m/s at 30° angle with the line joining P & Q.
parallel to the vector ^j . If coefficient of restitution Calculate the angular velocity of P w.r.t. Q
1
e = , then impulse that acts on the sphere is
2
(1) 9 ^ (2) 3
− mi ( − ^i + ^j )
2 2
(3) 3 ^ (4) 3 1
mj ( mj^ + mi^)
2 2 2 (1) 0.5 rad/s (2) 0.7 rad/s
9. A ball falls from a height of 16 m on a floor and (3) 0.3 rad/s (4) 1 rad/s
rebounds to a height of 4 m. The coefficient of
restitution for collision is :- 13. A block is rotating in contact with vertical wall
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 1 (rotor) as shown. Find the minimum value of ω
4 2 4 8 so that the block does not slide down.
10. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : Two blocks of masses m1 & m2 are
at rest. They are now moving towards each other
under a mutual internal force. The velocity of centre
of mass is zero.
Reason (R) : If no external force acts on the system,
then velocity of centre of mass remains unchanged (1) g (2) g (3) μR (4) gR
√ √ √ √

but can never be zero. μ μR g μ

In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT
the correct explanation of (A).
14. A body is tied up by a string of length ℓ and
rotated in vertical circle at minimum speed.
When it reaches at highest point string breaks
and body moves on a parabolic path in presence
of gravity according to figure. In the plane of
point A, value of horizontal range AC will be :

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
11. A man of mass M stands at one end of a plank of
length L which lies at rest on a frictionless (1) x = ℓ (2) x = 2ℓ
horizontal surface. The man walks to the other
end of the plank. If the mass of the plank is M/3, (3) x = √ 2ℓ (4) x= 2 √ 2ℓ
the distance that the plank moves relative to the 15. A car of mass 900 kg negotiates a banked curve
ground is :- of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the
(1) 3L/4 (2) 4L/5 banking angle is 45°, the optimum speed of the
car is (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) L/4 (4) None of these
(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s (3) 15 m/s (4) 30 m/s
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16. A motor car is travelling at 60 m/s on a circular 21. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m,
road of radius 1200 m. It is increasing its speed at respectively, are connected by a massless and
the rate of 4 m/s2. The acceleration of the car is :- inextensible string. The whole system is
(1) 3 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2 (3) 5 m/s2 (4) 7 m/s2 suspended by a massless spring as shown in the
figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and
17. A small metallic sphere of mass m is suspended B, immediately after the string is cut, are
from the ceiling of a car accelerating on a respectively :-
horizontal road with constant acceleration a. The
tension in the string attached with metallic
sphere is
(1) mg (2) m(g + a)
(3) m(g – a) (4) m √ g 2 + a2

18. n bullet strike per second elastically on a wall

(1) g/4, g/2 (2) g/2, g
and rebound. What will be the force exerted on
the wall by bullets if mass of each bullet is m (3) g, g (4) g/2, g/2
(1) mnv (2) 4 mnv (3) 2 mnv (4) 0 22. A stone is projected with speed 20 m/s at angle
37° with the horizontal and it hits the ground
19. Block of mass 10 kg is moving on inclined plane
with speed 12 m/s due to air resistance. (Assume
with constant velocity 10m/sec. The coefficient
the effect of air resistance to redue only
of kinetic friction between inclined plane and
horizontal component of velocity). Then the time
block is : –
of flight will be -
(1) greater than 2.4 sec (2) less than 2.4 sec.
(3) 2.4 sec. (4) depends on other data
23. Two particles A and B are released from the top
of incline. If mA > mB then :
(1) 0.75 (2) 0.57
(3) 0.5 (4) None of these
20. In the below figure the coefficient of friction
between two blocks is μ . Find the maximum
force F to be applied on upper block for the (1) Both will reach simultaneously if A is
system to be in equilibrium released before B
(2) Both will reach simultaneously if A is
released after B
(3) Both will reach simultaneously if both are
(1) μ mg (2) 2 μmg released together.
(3) μ mg (4) Both may reach simultaneously if both are
(4) zero
2 released together and A is given some
initial velocity.
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24. In following diagram find value of T3. (g = 10 28. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2.
m/s2) At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a
person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and
acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s ?
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2
(2) 20 m/s, 0
(1) 12 N (2) 6 N (3) 4 N (4) 1 N (3) 20√2 m/s , 0
25. A block of mass m lying on a rough horizontal
surface of friction coefficient μ is pulled by a
(4) 20√2 m/s , 10 m/ s2
force F as shown, the limiting friction between 29. A time dependent force F = 6t acts on a particle
the block and surface will be of mass 1 kg. If the particle starts from rest, the
work done by the force during the first 1 sec.
will be -
(1) 4.5 J (2) 22 J (3) 9 J (4) 18 J
30. The diameter of a cylinder is measured using a
(2)
(1) vernier calliper with no zero error. It is found
that the zero of the Vernier scale lies between
5.10 and 5.15 cm of the main scale. The vernier
(3) (4) scale has 50 divisions equivalent to 2.45 cm. The
24th division of the Vernier scale exactly
coincides with one of the main scale divisions.
26. In the three cases, as shown in the figure, blocks The diameter of the cylinder is
are moving with constant velocity, the friction in
(A), (B) and (C) is fA, fB and fC. Then (1) 4.112 cm (2) 5.124 cm
(3) 5.136 cm (4) 5.148 cm
31. In the simple pendulum experiment, a student
makes an error of 1% in the measurement of
length of the pendulum and an error of 3% in the
(1) fA > fB > fC (2) fC > fB > fA measurement of time-period. The maximum
(3) fC > fA > fB (4) fA = fB = fC percentage error in the computed value of g
would be:-
27. A person sitting in the ground floor of a building
notices through the window, of height 1.5 m, a (1) 2% (2) 4% (3) 7% (4) 10%
ball dropped from the roof of the building
crosses the window in 0.1 s. What is the velocity
of the ball when it is at the topmost point of the
window ? (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 15.5 m/s (2) 14.5 m/s
(3) 4.5 m/s (4) 20 m/s
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32. Assertion (A) :- In non-uniform circular motion, SECTION-B ( PHYSICS )

velocity vector and acceleration vector are not
perpendicular to each other.
Reason (R) :- In non-uniform circular motion,
particle has normal as well as tangential
acceleration.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
36. A ball is hit by a batsman at an angle of 37° as
shown in figure. The man standintg at P should
run at what minimum velocity so that he catches
the ball before it strikes the ground. Assume that
height of man is negligible in comparison to
maximum height of projectile :-

(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(1) 3 ms – 1 (2) 5 ms – 1
33. Resultant of two vectors A → and B → is of
(3) 9 ms – 1 (4) 12 ms – 1
magnitude P. If B→ is reversed, then resultant is of
magnitude Q. What is the value of P2 + Q2? 37. A bus starts from rest and moves with constant
acceleration 8 m/s2. At the same time, a car
(1) 2(A2 + B2) (2) 2(A2 – B2) travelling with constant velocity 16 m/s
(3) A2 – B2 (4) A2 + B2 overtakes and passes the bus. At what distance,
bus overtakes the car ?
34. 2π

Find the value of ∫ ydx = ? (1) 24 m (2) 32 m (3) 60 m (4) 64 m

0
38. The acceleration-time graph of a particle moving
along a straight line is an shown in figure. At
what time the particle acquires its initial
velocity?

(1) 1 (2) -1
(3) 0 (4) None of these
35. At a metro station, a girl walks up a stationary
escalator in time t1 If she remains stationary on
the escalator, then the escalator take her up in (1) 12s (2) 5s (3) 8s (4) 16s
time t2. The time taken by her to walk up on the 39. A man cross a river of width 160 m ion a boat If
moving escalator will be : he cross the river in miniumum time he takes 10
(1) (t1 + t2)/2 (2) t1 t2/(t2 – t1) min with a drift of 120 m. What is the speed of
(3) t1 t2 / (t2 + t1) (4) t1 – t2 current.
(1) 0.1 m/s (2) 0.2 m/s
(3) 0.3 m/s (4) 0.4 m/s

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40. Raindrops are falling downwards with speed of 43. Consider case of rectilinear motion with the sign
10m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road the convention given in figure. Choose
raindrops appear to be coming with a speed of INCORRECT statement :
20m/s. The speed of cyclist is.
(1) 10m/s (2)
(3) 20m/s (4)
41. Three forces start acting simultaneously on a
particle moving with velocity →ν . These forces are (1) v > 0, a > 0 particle is speeding up
represented in magnitude and direction by the (2) v > 0 , a < 0 particle is slowing down
three sides of a triangle ABC as shown in the (3) v < 0, a < 0 particle is speeding up
figure. The particle will now move with velocity :
(4) v < 0, a > 0 particle is speeding up
44. A particle moves half the time of its journey with
velocity ‘u’. The rest of the half time it moves
with two velocities v1 and v2 such that half the
distance it covers with v1 and the other half with
velocity v2. Then the average velocity will be.
(1) Less than →ν
(1) (2)
(2) Greater than →ν
(3) →ν , remaining unchanged
(3) (4)
(4) |→ν |
in the direction of the largest force
−−
→
along BC 45. A particle of unit mass undergoes one-
42. Assertion : If at certain instant velocity of a dimensional motion such that its velocity varies
particle is – 4 m/s and its acceleration is +2 m/s2, according to
speed of particle is decreasing. v(x) = β x – 2n
Reason : When velocity and acceleration have where β and n are constants and x is the position
opposite sign, particle retards. of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and a function of x, is given by :
Reason is the correct explanation of (1) – 2n β 2x – 4n – 1 (2) – 2 β 2x – 2n+1
Assertion. (3) – 2n β 2e – 4n+1 (4) – 2n β 2x – 2n – 1
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

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46. Assuming potential energy 'U' at ground level to 49. The period T of a soap bubble under SHM is
be zero. given by T = PaDbSc, where P is pressure, D is
density and S is surface tension. Then the value
of a, b and c are :-
(1) 3 1 (2) – 1, – 2, 3
All objects have same mass. − , ,1
2 2
UP = Potential energy of solid sphere (3) 1 3 (4) 3
, − , −1/2 1, 2,
UQ = Potential energy of solid cube 2 2 2
UR = Potential energy of solid cone 50. The block of mass M moving on the frictionless
US = Potential energy of solid cylinder horizontal surface collides with the spring of
(1) US > UR (2) UQ > US spring constant k and compresses it by length L.
The momentum of the block before collision is-
(3) UP > UQ (4) UP > US
47. Minimum force F required to make the block
topple is

(1) √ Mk L (2) kL2

2M
(3) zero (4) ML2
k
(1) 2 mg/3 (2) 3 mg/2 (3) 4 mg/3 (4) 3 mg/4
48. An ice cube is sliding down in the inner surface
of a hemispherical bowl from the one edge. The
friciton between the ice cube and the bowl
surface is zero. The velocity of the ice cube at
the least point of its path is-

(1) √ gR (2) √ πgR

(3) √ 2gR (4) None of these

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Topic : Some basic concepts of Chemistry, Mole Concept, Atomic Structure, Periodic Table, Chemical
Bonding,Chemical Equilibrium, Ionic Equilibrium, Thermodynamics & Chemical Energetics, Hydrogen & It’s
Compounds

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 56. Assertion : The equivalent mass of an element is

variable.
51. An organic compound on analysis give the Reason : It depends on the valency of the
following data : C = 57.82%, H = 3.6% and rest element.
is oxygen. Its vapour density is 83, then calculate (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
its molecular formula ? Reason is the correct explanation of
(1) C8H6O6 (2) C8H6O4 Assertion.
(3) C4H3O2 (4) C6H6O6 (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
52. What is the mass of the precipitate formed when Assertion.
50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is mixed
with 50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution ? (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5) (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(1) 7g (2) 14 g (3) 28 g (4) 3.5 g 57. Arrange the following wavelengths ( λ ) of given
53. Mole fraction of a solute in an aqueous solution emissions lines of H-atom in increasing order.
λ1
is 0.2. The molality of the solution will be : (A) n = 3 −→ n=1
λ3
(1) 13.88 (2) 1.388 (B) n = 12 −→ n = 10
λ2
(C) n = 5 −→ n=3
(3) 0.138 (4) 0.0138 λ4
(D) n = 22 −→ n = 20
54. Calculate the mass of lime (CaO) obtained by Choose the correct option :
heating 200 kg of 90% pure lime stone (CaCO3) :-
(1) λ 4 < λ 3 < λ 2 < λ 1 (2) λ 4 < λ 2 < λ 3 < λ 1
(1) 104.4 kg (2) 105.4 kg
(3) λ 1 < λ 2 < λ 3 < λ 4 (4) λ 1 < λ 3 < λ 2 < λ 4
(3) 212.8 kg (4) 100.8 kg
58. The energy of the second bohr orbit in the
55. Assertion : The number of molecules of SO2, hydrogen atom is – 3.41 eV. The energy of the
CH4, and O2 are same in same volume container second Bohr orbit of He+ ion would be :-
at same temperature and pressure.
Reason : They contains same mass in same (1) – 0.85 eV (2) – 13.64 eV
volume container at same temperature and
pressure. (3) – 1.70 eV (4) – 6.82 eV

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and 59. If n and ℓ are principal and azimuthal quantum
Reason is the correct explanation of numbers respectively, then the expression for
calculating the total number of electrons in any
Assertion. energy level is :-
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but (1) ℓ= n (2) ℓ= n

Reason is not the correct explanation of ∑ 2(2ℓ + 1) ∑ 2(2ℓ + 1)

ℓ=0 ℓ=1
Assertion.
(3) ℓ= n (4) ℓ= n − 1
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. ∑ (2ℓ + 1) ∑ 2(2ℓ + 1)
ℓ=0 ℓ=0
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
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60. Assertion :- In H-atom, the energy of 3d-level is 63. Assertion : The density of nucleus increases as
smaller than 4s-level. the mass number of atom increases.
Reason :- In multi-electron species, an orbital Reason : e/m ratio of cathode rays depends upon
the nature of gas taken inside the discharge tube
with lower value of (n + ℓ ) has energy smaller and nature of electrode taken in discharge tube.
than the orbital with larger value of (n + ℓ ).
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is the correct explanation of
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
64. Which of the following has maximum EA, EN
61. The number of electrons in Cu (Z = 29) for and I.P. respectively ?
which n + ℓ + m = 7 (A) A = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6
(B) B = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p5
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 10 (C) C = 1s2, 2s2, 2p5
62. Assertion : According to Heisenberg’s (D) D = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
uncertainty principle position as well as (1) A, B, D (2) B, C, A
momentum of a moving microscopic particle
(3) B, A, C (4) C, B, D
can’t be determined simultaneously and
accurately. 65. Which is not a correct match :-
Reason : Δx ⋅ Δp ⩽
h
. (1) (n – 2)ƒ1 – 14 (n – 1)d0 – 1 ns2 = ƒ-block
4π elements
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(2) (n – 2)ƒ0 (n – 1)d0 ns1 – 2 = s – block
Reason is the correct explanation of
elements
Assertion.
(3) ns2 np1 – 6 = p – block elements
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of (4) (n – 2) ƒ1 – 14 (n – 1)d0 – 1 ns2 = d-block
Assertion. elements
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 66. Which of the following pair of elements are
different from other three.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(1) Al, Ga (2) Zr, Hf
(3) Na, F (4) Fe, Co, Ni
67. If the value of IP1, for He atom is 24.6 eV, then
find out the amount of energy required for the
conversion of He —→ He+2 + 2e – .
(1) 12 eV (2) 24.6 eV
(3) 30.6eV (4) 79 eV
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68. Assertion :- Vanderwaal radii of Ne is more than
the covalent radii of F.
Reason :- Ne has more Zeff than F.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
69. Assertion A: C, N and O are element with
Dobereiner Triad
Reason R: Triad have similar chemical
properties
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not
correct explanation
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct
70. Assertion :- Atomic radius of Cl is more than
that of F.
Reason :- Cl has one more shell than F.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
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71. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R),
Assertion (A): Dipole moment of NF3 is less
than that of NH3
Reason (R): Polarity of N—F bond is less than
that of N—H bond.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
72. The correct order of solubility is
(1) LiOH > NaOH > KOH > RbOH > CsOH
(2) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 <
BaCO3
(3) NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl3
(4) LiF > NaF > KF > RbF > CsF
73. The correct order of bond-strength is
(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(2) N2 > O2 > H2 > F2
(3) 1s-1s > 1s-2p > 1s-2s > 2p π -2p π > > 2p –
2p
(4) C – C > C = C > C ≡ C
74. Total planar species among following are :-
SO3, H2SO4, NH3, H2O, XeF2, BeCl2, F2, HCl
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 4 (4) None
75. Which of the following set is not correct :-
(1) N2O, O3, all have coordinate bonds
(2) H2O, NO2, all are 'V' shape molecules
(3) I3− , ICl−2 , NO+2 all are linear molecular
(4) SF4, SiF4 XeF4 are tetrahedral in shape
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76. Which of the following statement is wrong? 81. Naphthalene, a white solid used to make moth
balls has a vapour pressure of 0.10 mm Hg at
(1) Boiling point of ortho-nitrophenol is 27°C. Hence Kp (in atm) and Kc (in M) for the
greater than para-nitrophenol equilibrium are:
(2) in S3O9 number of bridge oxygen is 3 C10H8(s) ⇌ C10H8(g)
(3) in SO3 p π -d π bond is present (1) 0.10, 0.10
(4) All of these (2) 1.10, 4.1 × 10 – 3
77. Correct order of ionic mobility in water:- (3) 1.32 × 10 – 4, 5.34 × 10 – 6
(1) Be+2 > Ba+2 (2) Li+ > Cs+ (4) 5.36 × 10 – 6, 1.32 × 10 – 4
(3) Ca+2 > Mg+2 (4) Na+ > K+ 82. The preparation of SO3(g) by reaction
For true statement use 'T', for false use 'F' :- 1
78. SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ SO3 (g) is an exothermic
(a) KO2 can be used in oxygen cylinders of 2
reaction. If the preparation follows the following
space craft. temperature-pressure relationship for its % yield.
(b) In electrolysis of fused NaCl at anode Cl – is then for temperatures T1, T2 and T3. The correct
oxidised option is :-
(c) NaHCO3 & Mg(OH)2 used as antacid
medicine
(d) Calgon also known as sodium hexa meta
phosphate Na2[Na4(PO3)6]
(e) The oxidation state of the same element is
increased as well as decreased known as redox
reaction
(f) B.P. order → H2O2 > D2O > H2O > D2 > H2
(1) T F T F T F (2) F T F T F T
(3) T T T T F T (4) T T F F T T (1) T3 > T2 > T1

79. Hydrogen will not reduce :- (2) T1 > T2 > T3

(1) Heated cupric oxide (3) T1 = T2 = T3
(2) Heated ferric oxide (4) Nothing could be predicted about
(3) Heated stannic oxide temperature through given information
(4) Heated Aluminium oxide 83. An exothermic reaction is represented by the
Match the column :- graph :-
80.
Column-I Column-II (1) (2)
Used as air
(1) Hydrogen peroxide (a) purifier
in submarines
(2) Calcium sulphate (b) Used for
hemihydrate water softening
(3) (4)
(3) Potassium
superoxide (c) Antiseptic
(4) Calgon (d) Plaster of paris
(1) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b (2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
(3) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a (4) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
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84. For the dissociation reaction N2O4(g) ⇌ 89. A solution has a pH = 9, it is 1000 times more
2NO2(g), the degree of dissociation ( α ) in terms basic than the original solution. What was the pH
of Kp and total equilibrium pressure P is :- of the original solution?
(1) P + Kp (2) Kp (1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 10
α =√ α=√
Kp 4P + Kp
90. pH when equal volume of 0.1 M HA (Ka = 10 – 5)
(3) (4) 4P + Kp
α=√
Kp
α=√ and 1 M HB (Ka = 10 – 6) are mixed?
4P Kp
(1) 3 + log 2 (2) 1
85. Which of the following is a buffer solution ? 3− log 2
2
(1) 500mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL of (3) 3+
1
log 2 (4) 3
0.1N NaOH 2
(2) 500mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL of 91. Assertion (A):- At 25°C pH of 10 – 8 M HCl
0.1N HCl solution is 8.
(3) 500 mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL of Reason (R):- At 25°C, pH of an acidic solution
0.2N NaOH will always be less than 8.
(4) 500 mL of 0.2 N CH3COOH + 500 mL to
0.1N NaOH (1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and
SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY ) Reason is correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct
86. What will the solubility of AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 × but Reason is not correct explanation for
10 – 10) in 0.01 M Ag2SO4 solution : – Assertion.
(1) 1.8 × 10 – 8 M (2) 9 × 10 – 9 M (3) Assertion is correct but Reason is not
– 11 –7 correct.
(3) 1.8 × 10 M (4) 9 × 10 M
87. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4+ (4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect.
and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the H
ion concentration in the mixture :- 92. Assertion (A): Addition of HCl(aq) to
(1) 3.7 × 10 – 3 M (2) 1.11 × 10 – 3 M HCOOH(aq), decrease the ionization of
HCOOH(aq)
(3) 1.11 × 10 – 4 M (4) 3.7 × 10 – 4 M
Reason (R): Due to common ion effect of H+,
88. Given the acid ionization constants, when the ionization of HCOOH decreased.
conjugate bases are arranged in order of
increasing base strength, which order is correct? (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Acid Ionization Constant, Ka correct explanation of (A)
HClO 3.5 × 10−8 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
HClO2 1.2 × 10−2 correct explanation of (A)
HCN 6.2 × 10−10 (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
H2 P O−4 6.2 × 10−8 (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(1) ClO2 – , ClO – , HPO42 – , CN –
(2) ClO2 – , HPO42 – , ClO – , CN –
(3) CN – , HPO42 – , ClO – , ClO2 –
(4) CN – , ClO2 – , HPO42 – , ClO –
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93. Assertion (A) :- The magnitude of enthalpy of 97. An ideal gas is taken around the cycle ABCA is
combustion of But-2-ene is less than that of 1- shown in P-V diagram. The net work done
Butene. during the cycle is equal to :-
Reason (R) :- 2-Butene is thermodynamically
more stable than 1-Butene.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (1) KP1V1 (2) 6P1V1
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct (3) 5P1V1 (4) P1V1
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the 98. Work done during isothermal irreversible
correct explanation of (A) expansion of 5 mole of an ideal gas from 10 atm
94. Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2,Cl2 and HCl to 1 atm at 300 K is :-
are 434, 242 and 431 kJmol – 1 respectively. (1) – 15.921 kJ (2) – 11.224 kJ
Enthalpy of formation of HCl is:-
(3) – 110.83 kJ (4) None of these
(1) – 93 kJmol – 1 (2) 245 kJmol – 1
99. Which of the following is/are true about the
(3) 93 kJmol – 1 (4) – 245 kJmol – 1 reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas?
95. NH3(g) + H2O → NH3(aq) ; Δ H = – 8.4 k cal (a) Δ U = 0
HCl(g) + H2O → HCl(aq) ; Δ H = – 17.3 k cal (b) q = 0
NH3(aq) + HCl(aq) → NH4Cl(aq); Δ H = – 12.5 k (c) Δ T = 0
cal V2
(d) q = 2.303 nRT log10 ( )
V1
NH4Cl(s) + H2O → NH4Cl(aq); Δ H = +3.9 k cal
Find the heat change in the reaction for (1) a, c (2) a, c, d
NH3(g) + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s) (3) b, d (4) a, d
(1) – 42.1 (2) – 34.3 (3) +34.3 (4) +42.1 100. Consider the following statements :
96. If :- (A) Entropy of the universe is continuously
B.E. (C – H) = 400 kJ/mol increasing and tends to a maximum.
B.E. (C – C) = 300 kJ/mol (B) Total entropy change for a reversible
B.E. (C=O) = 750 kJ/mol isothermal cycle is zero.
B.E. (O=O) = 500 kJ/mol (C) In any irreversible cyclic, process, there is a
B.E. (H – H) = 450 kJ/mol decrease in entropy.
Out of these statements :-
Δ Hsub C(s) = 700 kJ/mol
then the standard enthalpy of formation of (1) A, B and C are correct
acetone (g) is :- (2) B and C are correct
(1) – 2100 kJ/mol (2) – 150 kJ/mol (3) A and B are correct
(3) – 1100 kJ/mol (4) – 50 kJ/mol (4) A alone is correct

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Topic : The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom, Morphology Of Flowering Plants, Anatomy
Of Flowering Plants, Cell : The Unit Of Life, Cell Cycle And Cell Division.
SECTION-A ( BOTANY )
101. Assertion : The fungi are widespread in
distribution and they even live on or inside other
plants and animals.
Reason : Fungi are able to grow anywhere on
land, water or on other organisms because they
have a variety of pigments, including
chlorophyll, carotenoids, fucoxanthin and
phycoerythrin.
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
102. Assertion : PPLOs are pleomorphic and non-
motile.
Reason : They are resistant to penicillin.
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
103. Match the column I and II, and choose the
correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
(Group Protista) (Example)
A Chrysophytes i Paramoecium
B Dinoflagellates ii Euglena
C Euglenoids iii Gonyaulax
D Protozoan iv Diatoms
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
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104. Assertion : Botanical gardens are specialised
gardens having collection of living plants for
reference.
Reason : Zoological parks are the places where
wild animals are kept in protected environments
under human care.
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
105. Assertion : In unicellular organisms, we are not
very clear about usage of these two terms-growth
and reproduction.
Reason : In unicellular organisms reproduction is
synonymous with growth.
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
106. Among the following, select the correct
statements.
(a) In majority of higher plants and animals,
growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive
events
(b) In non-living objects growth is by
accumulation of material on the surface.
(c) An isolated metabolic reaction outside the
body of an organism, performed in a test tube is
neither living nor non-living.
(d) All organisms, from the prokaryotes to the
most complex eukaryotes can sense and respond
to environmental cues.
(1) b, c, d (2) a, b, c
(3) a, d, c (4) a, b, c, d
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107. In the following flow diagram, identify the 110. Assertion : Red algae contributes in producing
correct categories according to the taxonomic coral reefs.
hierarchy. Reason : Some red algae secrete and deposit
calcium carbonate over their walls.
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
111. Match the following and select the correct
option.
Column I Column II
(a) Primata, diptera and carnivora belong to p Pteris i Gymnosperm
category 1 q Cycas ii Bryophyte
(b) Petunia, Datura and Solanum belongs to r Sphagnum iii Algae
same category 2
(c) Angiospermae belongs to category 5 s Sargassum iv Pteridophyta
(d) Man and dog shows maximum similarity at (1) p - (ii), q - (iv), r - (iii), s - (i)
category 4
(e) Category 3 is same for lion, tiger and leopard (2) p - (iv), q - (i), r - (ii), s - (iii)
Select the correct statement: (3) p - (iv), q - (ii), r - (i), s - (iii)
(1) a, b, d, e (2) b, c, d, e (4) p - (ii), q - (iii), r - (iv), s - (i)
(3) a, b, c (4) a, b, e 112. Gametophyte is photosynthetic, sexually
108. The following are included on the label placed in producing and independent in
herbarium sheet except (1) Bryophyta (2) Pteridophyta
(1) Family (3) Gymnosperm (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Date and time of collection
113. A floral diagram provides information about all
(3) Scientific name except
(4) Name of collector.
(1) Adhesion of stamen
109. Assertion: Conifer trees produce a large quantity (2) Placentation in ovary
of wind-borne pollen grains.
Reason: The pollen grains have wings. (3) Arrangement of petals
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is (4) Position of ovary with respect to other
the correct explanation of the assertion. floral parts
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is 114. Mono adelphous anther is the characteristic of
not the correct explanation of the assertion. the members of family
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false (1) Malvaceae (2) Solanaceae
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. (3) Liliaceae (4) Brassicaceae
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115. The epiphytic roots are present in
(1) Vanda (2) Rhizopus
(3) Cuscuta (4) Rhizophora
116. Arrange in correct order according to the given
figures.
(1) A - Imbricate, B - Vexillary, C - Valvate, D
- Twisted
(2) A - Vexillary, B - Valvate, C - Twisted, D -
Imbricate
(3) A - Imbricate, B - Twisted, C - Vexillary,
D - Valvate
(4) A - Valvate, B - Twisted, C - Imbricate, D -
Vexillary
117. Leaves are modified into tendrils, hooks,
pitchers and bladders respectively in
(1) Sweet pea, Cat's nail, Nepenthes, Utricularia
(2) Sweet pea, Cat's nail, Utricularia, Nepenthes
(3) Nepenthes, Sweet pea, Cat's nail,
Utricularia.
(4) Utricularia, Nepenthes, Cat's nail, Sweet pea
118. Assertion : In opposite phyllotaxy two leaves are
borne on the opposite sides of a single node.
Reason : Opposite phyllotaxy is seen in China
rose and Nerium.
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
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119. Assertion : Generally, dicotyledonous plants
have tap roots and reticulate venation while
monocotyledonous plants have fibrous roots and
parallel venation.
Reason : The morphological feature of stem like
the presence of nodes and internodes,
multicellular hair and positively phototrophic
nature help to differentiate the stems from roots.
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
120. Match the columns I and II, and choose the
correct combination from the options given
Column-I Column-II
(Organelle) (Size)
a Cisternae of GB K 2 − 4μm
b Length of mitochondria L 0.2 − 1.0μm
c Diameter of mitochondria M 5 − 10μm
d Length of chloroplast N 0.5 − 1.0μm
e Width of chloroplast O 1.0 − 4.1μm
(1) a-L, b-M, c-N, d-O, e-K
(2) a-N, b-O, c-K, d-M, e-L
(3) a-L, b-O, c-N, d-M, e-K
(4) a-N, b-O, c-L, d-M, e-K
121. Read the following statements and find out the
correct statement.
(i) Mitochondria are typically sausage shaped or
cylindrical
(ii) The inner compartment of the mitochondria
is called stroma and of chloroplast is called
matrix
(iii) Mitochondria and bacteria both divide by
fission
(iv) Chromoplasts have fat insoluble carotenoid
pigments like carotene and xanthophylls
(v) Plastids are found in all plants cells and
euglenoids
(1) (ii), (iii) and (v) (2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (iii), (iv) and (v) (4) (i), (iii) and (v)
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122. Which of the following is the only enzyme of 125. Read the following statements:
Krebs cycle associated with inner membrane of (i) Peroxisomes are involved in photorespiration
mitochondria? of the non-green cell of plants and also perform
β-oxidation of fatty acids in animal cells
(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (ii) Mitochondria possess enzymes for the β-
(2) Succinylthiokinase oxidation of fatty acids
(iii) The fluid mosaic model of plasma
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase membrane explains both structural and
(4) Fumerase functional aspects
(iv) The movement of cilia and flagella is due to
123. Match the column I with column II and choose the presence of dynein proteins
the correct option from the following : (v) Lysosomes orignate from Golgi complex.
Column I Column II How many of the above statements are correct?
Cellular (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five
a Endoplasmic reticulum i
respiration 126. Assertion: Every chromosome essentially has a
Osmoregulation kinetochore on the sides of which centromeres
b Free ribosome ii are present.
and excretion
Reason: Based on the position of centromere or
Synthesis of primary constriction, chromosomes can be
c Mitochondrion iii
lipids classified into five types.
Synthesis of (1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
d Contractile vacuole iv non-secretory the correct explanation of the assertion.
proteins
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (3) Assertion is true but reason is false
124. Which one is the wrong statement regarding cell (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
organelles? 127. Assertion : Pili and fimbriae are known to help
(1) Lysosomes are double-membraned vesicles the bacteria to become motile.
budded off from Golgi bodies and contain Reason: Unlike flagella, pili and fimbriae are
digestive enzymes. also surface appendages of bacteria.
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum consists of a (1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
network of membranous tubules and helps the correct explanation of the assertion.
in transport, synthesis and secretion. (2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
(3) Leucoplasts are bound by two membranes, not the correct explanation of the assertion.
lack pigments but contain their own DNA (3) Assertion is true but reason is false
and protein synthesising machinery.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
(4) Sphaerosomes are single membrane bound
and are asociated with synthesis and
storage of lipids.

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128. Assertion: Interphase is also called resting stage.
Reason: The interphase cell is metabolically
inactive.
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
129. Which of the following graphs indicate the
relative change in the amount of chloroplast
DNA of a cell showing mitosis ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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130. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in
possessing
(1) Same number of chromosomes and same
number of chromatids
(2) Half number of chromosomes and half
number of chromatids
(3) Half number of chromosomes and same
number of chromatids
(4) Same number of chromatids and double
number of chromosomes
131. At what stage does the number of chromosomes
become half?
(1) Prophase I (2) Metaphase I
(3) Anaphase I (4) Telophase II
132. Well developed pith is found in
(1) Monocot root and monocot stem
(2) Monocot stem and dicot root
(3) Monocot root and dicot stem
(4) Dicot root and dicot stem
133. Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and
spongy tissues in
(1) Extremely
(2) Hydrophytic leaves
xerophytic leaves
(3) Monocot leaves (4) Dicot leaves
134. Assertion: During secondary growth, the amount
of secondary xylem produced is more than
secondary phloem and soon forms a compact
mass.
Reason : The vascular cambium (cambial ring) is
generally more active on the inner side than on
the outer side.
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
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135. Assertion : Thick cuticle is mostly present in the 138. How many meiotic divisions are required to
disease resistant plants. produce 100 grains (seeds).
Reason : Disease causing agents cannot grow on (1) 125 (2) 200 (3) 325 (4) 400
cuticle and they cannot invade the cuticle.
139. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is correct one for bivalent?
the correct explanation of the assertion. (i) These are formed during zygotene
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is (ii) One bivalent is actually four chromosomes
not the correct explanation of the assertion. put together
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false (iii) Bivalents later form tetrad
(iv) A human male somatic cell forms 23
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. bivalents
SECTION-B ( BOTANY ) (v) The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
non-homologous chromosomes is called bivalent
136. Assertion : In the cell membrane, the non-polar or a tetrad
tail of saturated hydrocarbons is protected from (1) (iii), (iv) and (v) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
the aqueous environment.
Reason : The lipids are arranged within the (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (iv) and (v)
membrane with the polar head towards the outer 140. Which of the following statements is/are true?
sides and the hydrophobic tail towards the inner (i) Uneven thickening of cell wall is
part. characteristic of sclerenchyma.
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is (ii) Periblem forms cortex of the stem and the
the correct explanation of the assertion. root.
(iii) Tracheids are the chief water transporting
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is elements in gymnosperms.
not the correct explanation of the assertion. (iv) Companion cell is devoid of nucleus at
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false maturity.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. (v) The commercial cork is obtained from
Quercus suber.
137. Assertion : Chloroplast, mitochondria and
peroxisomes are not considered as a part of the (1) (i) & (iv) only
endomembrane system. (2) (ii) & (v) only
Reason : Functions of chloroplast, mitochondria
(3) (iii) & (iv) only
and peroxisomes are not coordinated with ER,
Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles. (4) (ii), (iii) & (v) only
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is 141. Tyloses occur in
the correct explanation of the assertion. (1) Heart wood
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is (2) Sap wood
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Hard wood
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Soft wood
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
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142. Match the columns I and II, and choose the 147. Cycas has two cotyledons but is not included in
correct combination from the options given angiosperm because it has
Column I Column II
(1) Tracheids (2) Haploid Endosperm
(Types of spore) (Production)
A Zoospores i Exogenous (3) Naked seeds (4) Flowers
B Aplanospores ii Endogenous 148. A dominant gametophytic phase alternated by
C Conidia multicellular dependent sporophytic phase is
D Ascospores represented by
E Basidiospores (1) Adiantum (2) Polytrichum/Funaria
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-i, D-ii, E- i (3) Chlamydomonas (4) All of these
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-ii, D-i, E-ii 149. Match the columns I and II, and choose the
(3) A-ii, B-ii, C-i, D-ii, E- i correct combination from the options given.
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-i, D-ii, E- ii Column I Column II
143. N2 - fixing actionomycetes member is symbiotycally (Medicinal plant) (Family)
associated with the root nodules of all except a Aloe 1 Brassicaceae
(1) Alnus (2) Casuarina b Belladonna 2 Fabaceae
(3) Cycas (4) Myrica c Muliathi 3 Solanaceae
144. Which of the following is/are true with reference d Ashwagandha 4 Liliaceae
to taxonomical aids?
1. Separate taxonomic keys are required for each (1) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 (2) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
taxonomic category
2. Herbarium is a store house of collected plants (3) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-3 (4) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-3
and animals 150. Assertion: Ray florets of sunflower have inferior
3. Each statement in the key is called couplet
4. Keys are used for identification purpose ovary.
Reason : Other floral parts of flower arise below
(1) 1 & 2 (2) 1 & 4 (3) 1 & 3 (4) 3 & 4
the ovary.
145. If two plants belong to same division but in
different order, they may belong to the same (1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(1) Genus (2) Family (3) Class (4) Species
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
146. Assertion: Sphagnum is slowly carbonized,
compressed and fossilized over thousands of not the correct explanation of the assertion.
years to produce a dark spongy mass called peat. (3) Assertion is true but reason is false
Reason: Peat helps to keep soil porous and it also
proves water holding capacity of the soil. (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
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 22 English

Topic : Structural Organisation In Animals (Animal Tissue), Animal Kingdom, Cockroach, Earthworm, Frog,
Enzyme, Biomolecules, Digestion And Absorption (Digestive System), Breathing And Exchange Of Gases.

SECTION-I ( ZOOLOGY ) 153. Given figures (I and II) show two specialised
connective tissues. Identify the figures I, II and
151. Assertion : Hardest connective tissue of the body the parts labelled as A and B.
is bone
Reason : Hardness of the bone is due to the
calcification of its matrix.
(1) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(2) Assertion is fales but reason is true
(3) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
I II A B
(4) Both assertion and reason are true but Collagen
reason is not the correct explanation of (1) Cartilage Bone Chondrocyte
fibres
assertion Collagen
(2) Cartilage Bone Chondroclast
152. Assertion : The squamous epithelium is made of fibres
a single thin layer of flattened cells with (3) Bone Cartilage Microtubules Osteoblast
irregular boundaries. Collagen
(4) Bone Cartilage Osteoblast
Reason : They are found in walls of blood fibres
vessels and air sacs of lungs. 154. Which amongst the following epithelia
(1) Assertion is true but the reason is false represented in figures given below as A to D,
(2) Assertion is fales but reason is true cover the dry surface of the skin, the moist
surface buccal cavity, pharynx and inner lining
(3) Both assertion and reason are true and the of ducts of salivary glands and of pancreatic
reason is the correct explanation of ducts ?
assertion
(4) Both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion

(1) A only (2) B only

(3) B and C (4) D only

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155. 158. Mark the incorrect statement :-
(1) Cardiac muscles are striated and
involuntary
(2) Skeletal muscles are voluntary and
uninucleated
Firstly identify structures A and B after that
identify type of tissue (3) Visceral muscles are located in the inner
walls of hollow visceral organs
(1) A-Ligament-Dense irregular connective
B-Tendon-Dense irregular tissue (4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle
fibres is the store house of calcium ions
(2) A-Tendon-Dense regular connective
B-Ligament-Dense irregular tissue 159. Identify the location of following muscle tissue
in our body :-
(3) A- Ligament-Dense regular connective
B-Tendon-Dense regular tissue
(4) A-Tendon-Dense regular tissue
B-Ligament-Dense regular connective
156. Mark the incorrect statement regarding the cell a b c
shown in the below figure? Stomach,
(1) intestine biceps heart

(2) Stomach, heart biceps

intestine
(3) Biceps heart stomach,
intestine
(4) Biceps stomach, heart
intestine

(1) Used for defense and capturing of prey

(2) Used one time only
(3) Found in all coelenterates
(4) Found in most of coelenterates and some
ctenophores
157. Tissue which helps in movement and locomotion :-
(1) Nervous tissue (2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue (4) Epithelial tissue

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 24 English

160. Recognise the figure and find out the correct 162. Which of the following represents the correct
matching :- combination ?
Characteristics Class
6-15 Pairs gill slits,
Endoparasites,
(1) Sucking and circular Cyclostomata
mouth, Closed
circulatory system
Cartilagenous
endoskeleton,
(2) Ventral mouth, Chondrichthyes
Air bladder absent,
(1) a-axon, b-cell body, c-myelin sheath, d- External fertilization
dendrites, e-node of Ranvier, f-Schawnn All aquatic,
cell Terminal mouth,
(3) Osteichthyes
(2) a-dendrites, b-axon, c-Schawnn cell, d-cell Operculum present,
body, e-myelin sheath, f-Node of Ranvier Cold blooded
(3) a-dendrites, b-cell body, c-Schawnn cell, d- Scale-less body,
axon, e-myelin sheath, f-node of Ranvier Two pairs limbs,
(4) Amphibia
4-chambered heart,
(4) a-synaptic knobs, b-cell body, c-myelin
External fertilization
sheath, d-axon, e-Schawnn cell, f-node of
Ranvier 163. Which one of the following is most important
161. Nissl's granules are absent in :- feature of insects :-

(1) Soma (2) Axon (1) Compound eyes (2) Long abdomen

(3) Cell body (4) Dendrites (3) Three pairs of legs (4) Two pairs of wings

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164. Match the following columns 165. Match the following column :-
Column-I Column-II (A) Sexes are
Diploblastic, radial separate and fertilisation (i) (a)
symmetry and is internal. They Epidermal
(A) (1) Round Worms are viviparous with few scales/scutes
tissue level
organisation exceptions
Triploblastic, (B) They are
pseudocoelomates oviparous and (ii) (b) Skin
(B) (2) Flat Worms development is direct dry without
and complete
digestive system with fully ossified glands
endoskeleton
Bilateral symmetry,
incomplete (C) Sexes are separate (iiii)
(C) digestive system, (3) Echinodermata fertilisation is external, (c) Skin
organ level of oviparous and indirect with hair
organisation development
Triploblastic, (D) Oviparous,
(D) coelomate, radial (4) Balanoglossus direct development, (iv) (d) Moist
symmetry body is covered by skin
dry and cornified skin
(5) Hydra
CODES : (1) A-iv-c, B-iii-b, D-ii-d, C-i-a
A B C D (2) B-iii-b, A-iv-c, C-ii-a, D-i-d
(1) 2 1 4 5 (3) A-i-d, B-ii-c, D-iii-b, C-iv-a
(2) 3 2 1 5 (4) B-iii-b, A-iv-c, C-i-d, D-ii-a
(3) 4 3 2 5 166. In the given examples, how many animals are of
(4) 5 1 2 3 Class-Reptilia :
Corvus, Columba, Pteropus, Macropus, Calotes,
Hemidactylus, Psittacula, Struthio and Macaca
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Two
167. Out of these animals choose oviparous animals:-
(A) Calotes (B) Psittacula
(C) Aptenodytes (D) Delphinus
(E) Ornithorhynchus (F) Balaenoptera
(G) Pteropus
Options:
(1) A,B, C and E (2) A, C, D, E & G
(3) B, C,E, F & G (4) A, B, C only

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168. Which structure provides the positional 174. Which factors are favourable for dissociation of
information of amino acids in a protein ? oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin ?
(1) Primary structure (A) Lower temperature
(B) Higher H + concentration
(2) Secondary structure (C) High PCO2
(3) Tertiary structure (D) Low PO2
(4) Quaternary structure (1) A, D, E (2) B, C, D
169. The abnormal frequency of bowel movement and (3) A, B, C (4) B, C, E
increased liquidity of the faecal discharge is 175. Deoxyribose is :-
known as :
(1) Pentasaccharide (2) Tetrose
(1) Vomiting (2) Constipation
(3) Heptose (4) Pentose
(3) Diarrhoea (4) Indigestion
176. Which one of the following structural formulae
170. If the amount of Adenine is 20% in a double- of two organic compounds is correctly identified
stranded DNA, then what will be the amount of along with its related function ?
Cytosine in that ?
(1) 20% (2) 40% (3) 10% (4) 30%
171. Arrange the following molecules in a descending
order w.r.t. their average fraction in a cellular
mass
(a) Proteins, (b) Lipids
(c) Nucleic acids, (d) Carbohhydrates
(1) (a) – (c) – (d) – (b)
(2) (a) – (d) – (b) – (c)
(3) (c) – (b) – (d) – (a)
(4) (c) – (d) – (b) – (a)
(1) B : adenine - a nucleotide that makes up
172. Stratified and non-keratinised squamous nucleic acids
epithelium occurs in
(2) A : Triglyceride - major source of energy
(1) Epidermis of skin (2) Vagina
(3) B : Uracil - a component of DNA
(3) Buccal cavity (4) Both 2 and 3.
(4) A : Lecithin - a component of cell
173. In human beings, digestion of protein, fats and membrane
carbohydrates starts from :
(1) Stomach, intestine, mouth respectively
(2) Mouth, stomach, intestine respectively
(3) Intestine, stomach, mouth respectively
(4) Mouth, intestine, stomach respectively
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177. The figure given below shows the conversion of
a substrate into product by an enzyme. In which
one of the four options (1 -4) the components of
reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified
correctly?
(1) A-Transition state, B-Potential energy, C-
Activation energy without enzyme, D-
Activation energy with enzyme
(2) A- Potential energy, B- Transition state, C-
Activation energy without enzyme, D-
Activation energy with enzyme
(3) A- Activation energy with enzyme, B-
Transition state, C-Activation energy
without enzyme, D- Potential energy
(4) A- Potential energy, B- Transition state, C-
Activation energy with enzyme, D-
Activation energy without enzyme
178. Assertion : There is no uncatalysed metabolic
conversion in living system.
Reason : Metabolism is a process which provides
a mechanism for the production of energy.
(1) Assertion and Reason both are correct but
Reason is not correct explanation of
Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(3) Assertion and Reason both are incorrect.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are correct and
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
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179. Assertion : Human beings have two sets of teeth
during their life.
Reason : Human beings have thecodont
dentition.
(1) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(2) Assertion is fales but reason is true
(3) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
(4) Both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
180. Assertion :- Chylomicrons are transported into
lymph vessels in villi during absorption.
Reason :- Chylomicrons are large lipoproteins
which cannot be absorbed in to blood vessels.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
181. Diagramatic representation show different types
of teeth in the jaw. (Identify A, B, C, D) :-
(1) (A) Incisor, (B) Canine, (C) Premolars, (D)
Molars
(2) (A) Incisor, (B) Molars, (C) Canine, (D)
Premolars
(3) (A) Canine, (B) Molars, (C) Premolars, (D)
Incisor
(4) (A) Incisor, (B) Molars, (C) Premolars, (D)
Canine
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182. Identify the structure labelled "A" in Human 185. Amphibians, e.g., frogs respire through
digestive system and correlate it with its exact
function. (1) Moist skin (2) Lungs
(3) Buccopharyngeal
(4) All of these
cavity
SECTION-II ( ZOOLOGY )

186. Statement-I : An oblique muscle layer is present

in some regions of alimentary canal.
Statement-II : Muscularis of alimentary canal is
Structure Function formed by skeletal muscles.
(1) Liver lobule Bile formation (1) Statement I and II both are correct
(2) Gall bladder Synthesis of bile
(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Liver lobule Storage of bile
(4) Gall bladder Stroage of bile (3) Only statement I is correct
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (4) Only statement II is correct
183. 187. Statement-I :- Enterokinase is secreted from
intestinal mucosa.
Statement-II :- Trypsinogen acts in acidic
medium.
(1) Both statement-I and II are correct
(2) Both statement-I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
Identify the labelling that represents villi, Lacteal incorrect
and crypts of lieber kuhn respectively : (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
(1) C, B, A (2) B, C, A correct
(3) B, A, C (4) A, B, C 188. Identify the enzymes X, Y and Z :
X Y
184. Statement-1 : Presence of HCl in stomach is (i) Nucleotides −→ Nucleosides → Nitrogenous
necessary for the process of digestion. base + Pentose sugars
Statement-2 : HCl kills and inhibits the Z
growth of bacteria in the stomach. (ii) Dipeptides → Amino acids
(1) Both statement-1 & Statement-2 are true (1) X = Nucleotidase, Y = Nucleosidase,
and Statement-2 is correct explanation Z = Dipeptidase
of Statement-1.
(2) Both statement-1 & Statement-2 are true (2) X = Nuclease, Y = Nucleotidase,
but Statement-2 is not correct Z = Dipeptide
explanation of Statement-1. (3) X = Nuclease, Y = Nucleosidase, Z =
(3) Statement-1 is a true Statement Pepsin
but the Statement-2 is false.
(4) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are false (4) X = Nucleotidase, Y = Nuclease, 7 =
Trypsin
Statement.
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189. Match the following : 192. Under normal condition ________ of CO2 is
Column-I Column-II delivered to the alveoli by every 100 mL of
deoxygenated blood.
1. Tidal Volume A. TV + IRV + ERV
(1) 30 mL (2) 105 mL
Additional amount of
Residual (3) 20 mL (4) 4 mL
2. B. air inhaled beyond TV
volume
during a deep breath 193. Statement-I : The lungs are situated in the
Expiratory Amount of air thoracic chamber which is anatomically an air
3. reserve C. remaining in lungs tight chamber.
volume after ERV Statement-II : Any change in the volume of the
Inspiratory thoracic cavity will be reflected in the lung
4. reserve D. TV + IRV cavity.
volume (1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are
Inspiratory Volume of air in of correct.
5. E.
capacity one breath (2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
Amount of air exhaled incorrect.
6. Vital capacity F.
in forced exhalation (3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
correct.
(1) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-F, 5-D, 6-A
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is
(2) 1-E, 2-F, 3-C, 4-B, 5-A, 6-D
incorrect.
(3) 1-E, 2-C, 3-F, 4-B, 5-D, 6-A
194. Statement-I : Respiratory rhythm centre is
(4) 1-E, 2-C, 3-B, 4-F, 5-A, 6-D primarily responsible for regulation of
190. The factor which does not affect the rate of respiration.
alveolar diffusion is : Statement-II : The role of oxygen in the
regulation of respiratory rhythm centre is more
(1) Solubility of gases significant.
(2) Thickness of the membranes (1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are
(3) Pressure gradient correct.
(4) Reactivity of the gases (2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
191. Trachea is a straight tube extending upto mid- incorrect.
thoracic cavity which divide at a level of (3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
___A____ vertebra into a right and left ___B___ : correct.
(1) A – 1st lumbar; B – Primary bronchi (4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is
(2) A – 5th thoracic; B – Primary bronchioles incorrect.

(3) A – 7th thoracic; B – Initial bronchioles

(4) A – 5th thoracic; B – Primary bronchi

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195. Statement-I : Binding of oxygen with
hemoglobin is primarily related to partial
pressure of O2.
Statement-II : O2 gets dissociated from
hemoglobin in the lung surface and get bound at
tissues.
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are
correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is
incorrect.
196. Some symptoms of a disorder are given read
them and identify the disorder :
(a) Alveolar walls are damaged
(b) Respiratory surface is decreased
(c) Smoking is the major cause
(1) Asthma (2) Emphysema
(3) Silicosis (4) Pneumonia
197. Which of the following can moderate the
functions of respiratory rhythm centre ?
(1) Pneumotoxic centre
(2) Chemo sensitive area
(3) Chemo sensitive centre
(4) Dorsal respiratory group
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198. The segment that contains mouth in earthworm
is called :-
(1) Prostomium (2) Peristomium
(3) Cingulum (4) Pygidium
199. Vocal sac are found in ?
(1) Male frog (2) Female frog
(3) Tadpole larva (4) Both 1 & 2
200. Assertion : In present of competitive
inhibitor reaction ultimately reaches a maximum
velocity, then velocity is not exceeded by any
further rise in concentration of the substrate.
Reason : Competitive inhibitor binds to with
active site by which Km constant increases,
while ν max remains unchanged.
(1) Assertion and Reason both are correct but
Reason is not correct explanation of
Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion and Reason both are incorrect.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are correct and
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
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