Sahodaya Kolhapur Social Science Study Material 2021-22

Multiple Choice Question Bank
Class – X
TERM-I
(Based on Latest CBSE Exam Pattern for the Session)
2021-22
Prepared by
A panel of experts from different CBSE Schools
***************************************************
Sahodaya Complex, Kolhapur
GRADE: X
TOPIC WISE MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
SOCIAL SCIENCE
President
Mrs.Sasmita Mohanty
Director Principal
Sou Suhila Danchand Ghodawat Charitable Trust’s
Sanay Ghodawat International School, Kolhapur
Sl Name of the teachers Designation

No
1 Mr.Amar Pendhare PGT in Social Science
2 Ms.Chitra Hagalhole PGT in Social Science
3 Mr.Gajanan p. Pakhals PGT in Social Science
4 Ms.Jayanti Khatavkar PGT in Social Science
5 Ms.Suneeta patil PGT in Social Science
6 Ms.Vinaya Lokhande PGT in Social Science
7 Mr.Amol Phalake PGT in Social Science
8 Ms.Asawari Desai PGT in Social Science
9 Ms.Nirmala Chougule PGT in Social Science
10 Mr.Sebastian Domanic PGT in Social Science
11 Ms.Sumitra Desai PGT in Social Science
12 Mr.Sasi Krishnan PGT in Social Science
13 Mrs.Asha Anand PGT in Social Science
14 Mr.Bhivare N. B PGT in Social Science
15 Mrs.Geeta Pillai PGT in Social Science
16 Mr.James Abraham PGT in Social Science
17 Mr.Maloji Chandanshive PGT in Social Science
18 Mr.Pragati Todakar PGT in Social Science
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"Sahodaya School Complex Is a concept literally meaning 'Rising
Together'."
It came into existence in the year 1986, to facilitate synergy of ideas
among the school of CBSE, for excellence in education. Sahodaya
School of complex is a group of neighborhood schools voluntarily coming
to share their innovative practices in all aspects of school education
including curriculum design, evaluation, and pedagogy and also
providing support services for teachers and students.
C O N T E N TS
UNIT I
CHAPTERS HISTORY PAGE
Chapter 1 Rise of Nationalism in Europe
UNIT II
GEOGRAPHY
Chapter 1 Resource and Development
Chapter 4 Agriculture
UNIT III
DEMOCRATIC POLITICS
Chapter 1 Power Sharing
Chapter 2 Federalism
UNIT IV
ECONOMICS
Chapter 1 Development
Chapter 2 Sectors of the Indian Economy
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HISTORY
Chapter1
Rise of Nationalism in Europe
1. Introduction, French Revolution and the Idea of the Nation.
1. When did the National Assembly form a Constitution to limit the powers of the monarch?
(a) 1791
(b) 1792
(c) 1793
(d) 1794
2. Who wrote an influential pamphlet ‘What is the third Estate’?

(a) Mirabeau
(b) Abbe Sieyes
(c) Jean-Paul Marat
(d) Olympe de Gouges.
3. Which group of people did not join the Jacobin club?

(a) Artisans
(b) Shopkeepers
(c) Daily-wage workers
(d) Men with property
4. What is called a vision of a society that is so ideal that it is unlikely to actually exist ?
(a) Absolutist
(b) Utopian
(c) Republics
(d) Plebiscite
5. What did the slave wear upon becoming free?

(a) blue cap
(b) white cap
(c) red cap
(d) green cap
6. Who comprised the Third Estate?

(a) Clergy
(b) Nobility
(c) Big businessmen, merchants, lawyers
(d) King
7. Which of the following statements is False about the “Third Estate”?

(a) The Third Estate was made of the poor only
(b) Within the Third Estate some were rich and some were poor
(c) Richer members of the Third Estate owned lands
(d) Peasants were obliged to serve in the army, or build roads
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8. What is the word “livres” stands for?
(a) unit of currency in France
(b) tax levied by the Church
(c) Tax to be paid directly to the state
(d) Indirect tax
9. What was the ‘Subsistence Crisis’ which occurred frequently in France?

(a) An extreme situation endangering the basic means of livelihood
(b) Subsidy in food grains
(c) Large-scale production of food grains
(d) large number of deaths
10. What was ‘Estates General’?

(a) Post of Army General
(b) A political body
(c) Head of all landed property
(d) Advisor of the king
11. What is the term ‘Old Regime’ usually used to describe?

(a) France before 1000 B.C.
(b) Society of France after 1789 A.D.
(c) Society and institutions of France before 1789 A.D.
(d) None of the above
12. Which of these books was written by John Locke?

(a) The Spirit of the Laws
(b) Two Treatises on Government
(c) The Social Contract
(d) What is the third Estate?
13. What did the Bastille stand for?

(a) The Spirit of the Laws
(b) The despotic power of the king
(c) The symbol of the justice
(d) The place of arms.
14. When did the agitated crowd storm and destroyed the Bastille?
(a) 14 July 1798
(b) 14 July 1789
(c) 14 August 1789
(d) 14 August 1798
15. Why did the people's militia enter a number of government buildings?
(a) to kill the officers
(b) to destroy the offices
(c) In search of arms
(d) In search of money
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16. Who was killed in the armed fight at Bastille?
(a) The commander of the Bastille
(b) The king of France
(c) The Prisoner of the Bastille
(d) The clergy of the church
17. What did the people do with the stone fragments of the demolished Bastille?
(a) Took them to the home
(b) Broke in to pieces
(c) Sold in the market.
(d) Threw in the ocean
18. Who did France help to gain the independence from the Britain to?
(a) The French nobility
(b) The French clergy
(c) The Indian Kings
(d) The American colonies
19. What did the French government decide to meet its regular expenses?
(a) To expand overseas trade
(b) To increase taxes
(c) To grow more crops
(d) To reduce the expenditure
20. The French society was divided into how many states?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
21. Who enjoyed certain privileges by birth?

(a) Peasants and farmers
(b) Clergy and nobility
(c) Businessman and industrialist
(d) Court officials and lawyers
22. Who were obliged to render services to the lord?

(a) Workers
(b) Nobles
(c) Peasants
(d) Servants
23. What was the tax extracted by the church called?

(a) Direct tax
(b) Indirect tax
(c) Tithe
(d) Taille
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24. What was the direct tax paid to the states called?
(a) Direct tax
(b) Indirect tax
(c) Tithe
(d) Taille
25. What was the increase in the population from 1750 in to 1718?
(a) 1 million
(b) 3 million
(c) 5 million
(d) 7 million
26. What is an extreme situation where the basic means of livelihood are endangered called?
(a) Feudal System
(b) Subsistence crisis
(c) Financial activities
(d) Feudal Privileges
27. How did the middle class earn their wealth?

(a) By working in the factories
(b) By expanding overseas trade
(c) By growing more crops
(d) By getting more salary from the king.
28. Which class believed that no group in the society should be privileged by birth?
(a) First class
(b) Second class
(c) Middle class
(d) Last class
29. Which country's constitution was an important example for political thinkers in France?
(a) India
(b) America
(c) England
(d) France
30. What was the name of the king of France before the French Revolution?
(a) King Louis 15
(b) King Louis 16
(c) King Louis 17
(d) King Louis 18
Answers
1.a 2.b 3.d 4.b 5.c 6.c 7.a 8.a 9.a 10.b 11.c 12.b
13.b 14.b 15.c 16.a 17.c 18.d 19.b 20.a 21.d 22.c 23.c 24.d
25.c 26.b 27.b 28.c 29.b 30.b
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2. The Making of Nationalism in Europe.
1. Napoleon invaded Italy in
(a) 1767
(b) 1777
(c) 1787
(d) 1797
2. Name the customs union formed by Prussia to abolish tariff barriers.

(a) Elle
(b) Zollverein
(b) Zweibiicken
(d) La Patrie
3. Which one of the following was the basic aim of Zollverein?
(a) The abolition of tariff barriers

(b) To reunite Germany
(c) To reunite Prussia
(d) To promote Democracy
4. Name one kind of revolt that started in Europe in 1848.

(a) Linguistic Revolt in Germany
(b) Artisans, industrial workers and peasants revolted against economic hardships
(c) Revolt against monarchy in Switzerland
(d) Revolt for freedom in Greece
5. Socially and politically dominant class in Europe during mid-eighteenth century was called:.
(a) The Nobility
(b) The landed aristocracy
(c) The Church
(d) The absolute monarchs
6. The denial of universal suffrage in Europe, led to :

(a) Revolutions
(b) Women and non-propertied men organizing opposition movements, demanding equal rights
throughout 19th and early 20th centuries
(c) Demand of equal political rights
(d) Return of monarchy
7. In politics, liberalism emphasized:

(a) End of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and a representative government through
Parliament
(b) The inviolability of private property
(c) The right to vote
(d) Growth and freedom
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8. Friedrich List, a German professor of Economics, hoped to achieve two political ends through
economic measures. They were ______________
(a) Increase in power in Europe
(b) Binding Germans economically into a nation
(c) Educate locals
(d) Awakening national sentiment through a free economic system
9. Which new spirit guided European nations after Napoleon’s defeat?

(a) Fascism
(b) Conservatism
(c) Nazism
(d) Communism
10. All the new regimes, set up in 1815, was autocratic because:
(a) They did not tolerate criticism and dissent
(b) They imposed censorship laws to control what was said in newspapers, plays, songs etc.
(c) They curbed activities which questioned their legitimacy
(d) They were selfish rulers
11. Repression of liberal revolutionaries after 1815, in Europe, led to

(a) Armies being trained by revolutionaries
(b) All revolutionaries trained to overthrow monarchy
(c) Secret societies being formed in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their
ideas
(d) Win democracy
12. The three leaders who helped unification of Italy were :

(a) Giuseppe Mazzini, Victor Emmanuel II, Cavour
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini, Cavour, Giuseppe Garibaldi
(c) Victor Emmanuel, Bismarck, Cavour
(d) Napoleon, Bismarck, Cavour
13. Which one of the following is not regarding the reforms carried out by the Union called
Zollverein?
(a) Creation of a network of railways to promote nationalism
(b) Opposition to unhindered movement of goods, people and capital in member states
(c) Reduction of tariff barriers in states
(d) Reduction of number of currencies in Germany
14. The main function of the Prussian Zollverein was to :

(a) Impose customs duty on imported goods
(b) Abolish tariff barriers
(c) Reduce customs duties
(d) Introduce new rules for trade
15. Which one of the following divisions was having their autonomous rulers?
a. Italy and Switzerland
b. duchies and cantons
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c. England and France
d.Austria and Hungary
16.After the defeat of Napoleon, the European government follows the spirit of
a. Conservatism
b.Absolutism
c.Absolute monarchy
d.Democracy
17. Who among the following formed the secret society called “Young Italy”?.
(a) Otto von Bismarck
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Metternich
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder
18. Zollverein or the Customs Union was formed in Prussia to abolish

a.Monarcy
b. tariff barriers.
d.Democracy
d.Military rule
19. Which one of the following type government was functioning France before the Revolution of 1789?
a) Dictatorship
b) Military
c) Body of French citizen.
d) Monarchy
20. Who among the following hosted, the Congress at Vienna in 1815?
a) King of Netherlands
b) Giuseppe Mazzini
c) Duke Metternich
d) Otto von Bismarck
21. Zollverin started in 1834 in Prussia refers to a

a) Trade union.
b) Customs union.
c) labour union.
d) Farmer union
22. When did French revolution occur?

a) 1777
b) 1785
c) 1789
d) 2004
23. When did the Napoleon introduced civil code?

a) 1804
b) 1904
c) 1708
d) 1928
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24. The civil code was introduced in 1804 by Napoleon is known as----
a) Bar code
b) Group code
c) Napoleonic code
d) Bank code
25. Who was the famous Italian revolutionary born in 1807 and a part of society called as Carbanari?
a) St. Paul
b) Duke Metternich
c) Otto von Bismarck
d) Giuseppe Mazzini
26. French armies moved in Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and Italy in 1907 with which promise
a) Liberating peoples despotic rules.
b) Liberating, people from Royal community people
c) Liberating people from feudal system
d) Liberating people from clergy
27. When was Mazzini went to exile?

a) In 1831
b) In 1832
c) In 1833
d) In 1844
28. What played an important role in creating the idea of nation?

a) Science
b) Culture
c) Technology
d) Internet
29. Which of the following revolution is called as the first expression of “Nationalism”?
a) French Revolution
b) Russian Revolution
c) Glorious Revolutions
d)The Revolution of the liberals
30. The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning:
a. Victory
b. Global
c. World
d. Free
Answers
1d 2b 3a 4b 5a 6b 7d 8c 9b 10d 11d 12b
13b 14b 15b 16a 17b 18b 19d 20c 21b 22c 23a 24c
25 26a 27a 28b 29.a 30d
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3. The Age of Revolutions
1) July revolution that took place in 1830 resulted in destruction of

a) Ottoman Empire
b) Muslim Empire
c) Bourbon dynasty
d) France rule
2) Who has remarked “When France Sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold."?
a) Metternich
b) Giuseppe Mazzini
c) Louis Philippe
d) Johann Gottfried
3) Which of the following Treaty declined Greece I an Independent nation in 1882?

a) Treaty of Versailles
b) Treaty of Greece
c) Treaty of Constantinople
d) Treaty of Tem
4) What is the objective focusing Vernacular language?

a) Raise regional voice against autocrats
b) Recover ancient national spirit
c) Convey modern nationalism message to illiterate
d) Fight against monarchy
5) Which ruler was forced to run away in 1848 due to food shortage and unemployment?
a) Wilhelm wolf
b) Louis Philippe
c) Friedrich Wilhelm IV
d) Louis XIV
.
6) What happened at the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832?
a) Revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off
b) Struggle for independence amongst the Greeks began
c) Greece was recognized as an independent nation
d) European civilization and mobilized public opinion to support its struggle against Muslim empire
7) In which year did Louis Philippe as an independent nation?

a) 1846
b) 1848
c) 1845
d) 1847
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8) Name the English poet who was organized funds and later went to fight in the war of Greek
independent.
a) Lord Byron
b) Mazzini
c) Metternich
d) Johann Gottfried
9) How many elected representatives marched in a festive procession to take their place in the
frankfurt parliament convened in the church of St. Paul.
a) 831
b) 829
c) 832
d) 800
10) Which years was faced great economic hardship Europe.

a) 1830s
b) 1829s
c)1835s
d) 1828s
11) A National Assembly Proclaimed a Republic, granted suffrage to all adult males above age of
a) 25
b) 26
c) 18
d) 21
12) Who had led a revolt against contractors who supplied them raw material and gave them
Orders for finished textiles but drastically reduced their payments
a) Workers in France
b) Weavers in Silesia
c) Nationalist in Europe is
d) Contractors in Silesia
13) What was the name of journalist, who has described the events in a Silesian village?
a) John Gottfried
b) Giuseppe Mazzini
c) Carl walker
d) Wilhelm Wolff
14) Which was the ruler granted more autonomy to the Hungarians in 1867
a) The Habsburg
b) The Greek
c) The German
d) The Italian
15) Who was depicted an incident in which 20,000 Greeks were said to have been killed by Turks on
the island of chios.
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a) Frederic Sorrieu
b) Eugene Delacroix
c) Louise Otto peters
d) Victor Emmanuel II
16) Through which print Delacroix' sought to the emotions of the spectators and create sympathy for
the Greeks.
a) The massacre & at chios
b) Peasants uprising 1848
c) Democratic and social Republics
d) Germania
17 What was the name of German Romantic Philosopher?

a) Giuseppe Mazzini
b) Johann Gottfried Herder
c) Carl walker
d) Wolf Tone
18. What was 'Das Volk' ?

a) Daily news paper from Berlin, Germany
b) It is book written by German philosopher Johann Herder
c) It is periodicals
d] It is a pamphlet
19. Who was celebrated the National struggle through his operas and music’s.
a) Karol Kurpinski
b) The Grimm Brothers
c) Johann Herder
d) Wolf Tone
20. Name the two folk dance that were turned into nationalist Symbol in Europe,
a) Bhangra
b) Garba
c) Polonaise and Mazur
d) lavani
21. Which language was used for church gathering and all religious instruction?
a) Polish
b) German
c) Indian
d) Russian
22. Which language was came to be seen as symbol of the struggle against Russian dominance,
a) German
b) Polish
c) Italian
d Russian
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23. What was the result to use polish language for church gathering and all religious instruction.
a.) As a result a large number of priests and bishops were put in jail
b) As a result large number of priests and bishops were killed
c) AS a result large number of priests and bishops were honored.
24. Where did the Grimm brothers born,

a) German city, Hanau
b) German city, Berlin
d) Russia
d) Prussia
25. Assertion: on 18 may 1848, 831 elected representatives revolted in the Frankfurt parliament
Reason : The elected representatives revolted against the issue of extending political rights to
women.
a. Both assertion and reason is true
b. Both assertion and reason reason is true but reason is not the correct of assertion.
c. both assertion and season are false
d. assertion is true but reason is false
26. Who was the King of Prussia?

a. Friedrich Wilhelm IV
b. Louis XVI
c) Giuseppe Mazzini
d) Grimm
27. When did Lord Byron died because of fever

a) 1823
b) 1824
c) 1826
d) 1822
28. Who was described the events of a Silesian village.

a) A poet Lord Byron
b) philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder
c) Journalist Wilhelm wolf
d) Revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini
29. Who was fled away to a neighboring village in the time of revolt against contractors?
a) Weavers
b) Peasants
c) Teachers
d) Contractor's
30. Which was the event in France brought about the abdication the monarch and a republic based on
universal male suffrage had been proclaimed.
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a. Feb. 1848
b. March 1848
c. May 1848
d. Jan 1848
31. Who founded a women's journal and subsequently a feminist political association.
a) Louise Otto Peters
b) Louis XVI
c) Louis Philippe
d) Jacob.
32. Who was regarded as father of modern nationalism?

(a). Johann Gottlieb Fichte
(b). John Gottfried herder
(c). Carl Welcker
(d). Louise Philippe
33. When Zollverein customs union did was formed at the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of
the German states.
(a). 1834
(b). 1833
(c). 1832
(d). 1835
34. What was the name of customs union which was formed in 1834?
(a). Zollverein
(b). Conservatism
(c). Frankfurt Parliament
(d). National Assembly
35. Why were the revolutions of 1830 and 1848 so widespread?

(a). People opposed nationalism
(b). People supported absolute monarchs
(c). Trade increased and united Europe into a market economy
(d). Enlightenment ideas and nationalism had spread across Europe
36.Who was the great leader of the Hungarians?

(a). Kossuth
(b). Fichte
(c). Harder
(d). Hegel
37.What reforms stayed permanent after the revolutions of 1848 in Australia?

(a). Ending of serfdom
(b). Liberal constitution
(c). Equal rights for Hungarians
(d). Independence for citizens
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38. This nation had a successful revolution in 1830 splitting it from another nation. It was recognized
as a neutral state.
(a). Britain
(b). France
(c). Belgium
(d). Prussia
39. Jacob and Wilhelm the two brothers who developed an interest in collecting old folktales were
called.
(a). Bonn Brothers
(b). Grimm brothers
(c). Twin Brothers
(d). Trinn Brothers
40. When Greek struggle for independence begins?

(a). 1821
(b). 1797
(c). 1850
(d). 1800
41. Romanticism refers to which movement?

(a). Political Movement
(b). Religious Movement
(c). Cultural Movement
(d). Literacy Movement
42. Which country broken away from the ‘United Kingdom’ of the Netherland’ after July Revolution
of 1830?
(a). Belgium
(b). Greece
(c). Ireland
(d). Scotland
43. The artisans, industrial workers and peasants revolted against which one of the following in
1848?
(a). Economic Hardship
(b). Political Instability
(c). Monarchy
(d). Revolutionary war
Answers
1.c 2.a 3.c 4.c 5.b 6.c 7.b 8.a 9.a 10.a 11.d 12.b
13.d 14.a 15.b 16.a 17.b 18.a 19.a 20.c 21.a 22.b 23.a 24.a
25.c 26.a 27.b 28.c 29.d 30.a 31.a 32.b 33.a 34.a 35.d 36.a
37.a 38.c 39.b 40.a 41.c 42.a 43.a
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4. German Unification, Italy Unified.
1. Which among the following group of people often mobilized for promoting state power and achieving
domination over Europe?
a) Nationalists
b) Conservatives
c) Liberals
d) Radicals
2. Among which group of people in Germany nationalist feelings widespread?

a) Low-class Germans
b) High-class Germans
c) middle-class Germans
d) upper-class Germans
3. Which group of people in Germany in 1848 tried to unite the different regions of German Confederation
into a nation state governed by an elected parliament?
a) Upper class Germans
b) middle-class Germans
c) Low-class Germans
d) High-class Germans
4) What were the large landowners of Prussia Called?

a) Punkers
b) Dunkers
C) Hunkers
d) Junkers
5) Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark and France ended in which victory?
a) Prussian victory
b) Danish victory
e) French victory
d) German victory
6) Who is called the art architect of German unification?

a) Kaiser William I
b) Anton Von Werner
c) Otto von Bismarck
d) General von Roon
7 ) Who were the "Junkers"?

a) Soldiers
b) Large landowners
c) Aristocracy
d) Weavers
8). Who was proclaimed the emperor of Germany in 1871?

(a). Otto Von Bismarck
(b). Victor Emmanuel II
(c). Count Cavour
(d). Kaiser William I
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9). In which year was Kaiser William I of Prussia proclaimed the head of the new German Empire?
(a). 18 January 1872
(b). 18 January 1871
(c). 18 January 1870
(d). 18 January 1873
10). The Nation-building process in Germany had demonstrated the dominance of which power?
(a). Prussian state power
(b). Danish State Power
(c). French State Power
(d). Italian State Power
11). After which year did nationalism in Europe move away from its association with democracy and
revolution?
(a). After 1868
(b). After 1858
(c). After 1848
(d). After 1838
12). Who was proclaimed king of united Italy in 1861?

(a). Victor Emmanuel II
(b). Giuseppe Mazzini
(c). Count Cavour
(d). Giuseppe Garibaldi
13). During the 1830s, who had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic.
(a). Giuseppe Garibaldi
(b). Count Cavour
(c). Giuseppe Mazzini
(d). Victor Emmanuel II
14). Who formed a secret society called “Young Italy”?

(a). Count Cavour
(b). Giuseppe Garibaldi
(c). Victor Emmanuel II
(d). Giuseppe Mazzini
15). In which year did the Sardinia-Piedmont succeed in defeating the Austrian forces in order to unite Italy?
(a). 1839
(b). 1849
(c). 1859
(d). 1869
16). How many wars over seven years with Austria Denmark and France ended in Prussian Victory and
completed the process of German unification?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 2
17). In 1861 who was proclaimed the King of United Italy?

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(a). Victor Emmanuel II
(b). Kaiser William I
(c). Napoleon
(d). Giuseppe Mazzini
18). Who was count Cavour?

(a). Revolutionist of Italy
(b). The Chancellor of Germany
(c). The chief Ministry of Italy
(d). The chief Minister of Germany
19). Which of the following state lead the unification of Germany?

(a). Bavaria
(b). Prussia
(c). Rhineland
(d). Hanover
20). What was “Yong Italy”?

(a). Vision of Italy
(b). National Anthem of Italy
(c). Secret society
(d). Sacred Book
21). Assertion: Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one was ruled by an Italian princely house.
Reason: The north was under the domination of the Bourbon Kings of Spain.
(a). Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b). Both A & R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c). A is true but R is false
(d). Both A and R are false
22). Italian princely ruled which of the following states before unification of Italy.
(a). Sardinia – Piedmont
(b). Lombardy
(c). Venetia
(d). Kingdom of two Sicilians
23). Who made a tactful alliance with France and defeated Austrian forces in 1859.
(a). Garibaldi
(b). Cavour
(c). Mazzini
24). Who led the famous expedition to south Italy and Fred the states from Bourbon rules in the year 1860?
(a). Cavour
(b). Garibaldi
(c). Mazzini
25). Which nation controlled the kingdom of the two Sicilia’s before Italian Unification?
(a). Spain
(b). France
(c). Austria
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(d). Greece
26). Following Italy’s Unification, who ruled as its first-king?

(a). Victor Emmanuel I
(b). Victor Emmanuel II
(c). Victor Emmanuel III
(d). Victor Emmanuel IV
27). Who unified much of southern Italy with only a volunteer army in 1860?
(a). Giuseppe Mazzini
(b). Cavour
(c). Emmanuel II
(d). Giuseppe Garibaldi
28). What title was given to William after the successful unification of Germany?
(a). General
(b). Chief Commander
(c). Supreme Highness
(d). Kaiser
29). The first-Kaiser of a unified Germany was?

(a). victor Emmanuel
(b). William I
(c). Nicholas I
(d). Charles I
30). This nation took the lead in the unification of Germany?

(a). Germany
(b). Austria
(c). Bavaria
(d). Holstein
31). Unification is
(a). The belief that one should be loyal to the ruler of a country.
(b). The belief that one should be loyal to the country, not ruler.
(c). The process of uniting separate area into one country.
(d). The process of gaining new colonies.
Answers:
1.b 2.c 3.b 4.d 5.a 6.c 7.b 8.d 9.b 10.a 11.c 12.a
13.c 14.d 15.d 16.b 17.a 18.c 19.b 20.c 21.c 22.a 23.b 24.b
25.a 26.b 27.d 28.d 29.b 30.b 31.c
5. The Strange Case of Britain, Visualizing the Nation.

1. Who was the king of Sardinia - Piedmont?
a) Germania
b) Wolfe Tone
c) Victor Emmanuel - II.
d) Victor Emmanuel I.
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2. When did Ireland forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom’?
a) In 1798
b) In 1807
c) In 1707
d) In 1801
Q.3.Which among the following Union act led the formation of United Kingdom of Great Britain
a) Act of (1707)
b ) Act of (1705)
c) Act of (1807)
d) Act of (1882).
Q.4. Who led the famous expedition of the thousand to South Italy.
a) Wolfe Tone.
b) Victor Emmanuel.
(c) Marianne.
d) Garibaldi
Q.5 The act of Union C1767) was there between England and ________ that resulted in the
formation of the e United Kingdom of the Great Britain.
a) Italy
b) Switzerland
c) Scotland
d) Germany.
Q.6 In which of the following groups Ireland was divided?

a) Scottish
b) Protestants
c) Missionaries
d) Catholic and Protestants.
Q.7. Whose images were marked on coins and Pristina stamps

a) Germania’s.
b) Emmanuel's.
c) Marianne's
d) Garibaldi's
Q.8.What does statues of Marianne’s remind?

a) Heroism
b) Unity.
c) Being freed
d) Willingness to make peace.
Q.9. Where did the Papal States finally joined?

a) To Rome
b) To Italy
c) To Prussia
d) To France
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Q.10 In which Revolution artists used the female allegory portray ideas; such as Liberty Justice,
Republic?
a) In Italic Revolution.
b) In catholic Revolution
c) In German Revolution
d) In French Revolution
Q.11. Who underlined the idea of people's nation?

a) Garibaldi
b) Emmanuel
c) Wolfe Tone
d) Christened Marianne.
.
Q.12. Pick up the symbols of New Britain that promoted nationalism
a) sword
b) crown of oak leaves
c) Union Jack, English language
d) Attributed
Q.13. How did the artists of 18th and 19th ‘centuries portrayed a nation?
a) Soldier figures.
b) Male figures
c) Female figures.
d) Objects
Q.14. How did French Revolution symbolized Justice?

a) By broken chains
b) By tricolour
c) By liberty
d) By blindfolded woman carrying pair of weighing scales.
Q.15 Which female figure became symbol of German nation?

a) Marianne
b) Germania
c) Amelia Earhart
d) German Marianna.
Q.16. What is the meaning of Broken – Chain?

a) Heroism
b) Readiness to fight
c) Being freed
d) Willingness to make peace.
Q.17 Who became the King of United Italy in 1861?

a) Garibaldi
b) Victor Emmanuel – II
c) Mazzini
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d) Emmanuel - I.
Q: 18: Which among the following is symbol of the German Empire - strength?
a) Tricolour
b) Broken chains
c) Sword
d) Breastplate with eagle.
e)
Q.19 What was the significance of olive branch around the sword?
a) Willingness to make peace.
b) Being colonized
c. Beginning of new era
d) Ready to fight.
Q.20. How did ideals represented?

a) Through symbols.
b) Through Justice
c) Through liberty
d) Through symbols and objects
Q.21 Which language was forbidden by the Scottish highlanders?

a) English language
b) Gaelic language
c) Spanish language
d) Greek language
Q.22Which symbol does the statue of christened Marianne Shows?

a) Symbol of Unity
b) Symbol of strength
c) Symbol of poverty
d) Symbol of Justice.
Q.23 From where, the characteristics of christened Marianne drawn?

a) From liberty and Justice
b) From Justice and Republic
c) From liberty and Republic.
d) From liberty
Q.24 Who helped the protestants of Ireland to establish their dominance over a largely Catholic
country?
a) English
b) Spanish
c) Welsh
d) Ethnic
Answers:
1.c 2.d 3.a 4.d 5.c 6.d 7.c 8.b 9.c 10.d 11.d 12.c
13.c 14.d 15.b 16.c 17.b 18.d 19.a 20.d 21.b 22.a 23.b 24.a
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6. Nationalism and Imperialism.
1. The region consisting of modern- -day Romania, Bulgaria,- Albania Greece, Macedonia, Croatia,
Bosnia , Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro was commonly known as
a. Latina
b.Balkan
c. Slavs
d .Welsh.
2. A large part of Balkan area was under the control of

a. British Empire
b.Ottoman Empire
c. French Empire
d. Spanish Empire
3. Conflicts of in Balkan area led to

a. First World War
b. Second World War
c. War of ' Waterloo
d. Napoleonic wars
4. Who were Slavs?

a. Residents of Brazil, Peru, Tunisia
b. Residents of China, Japan, Indonesia
c. Residents of Greece, Serbia, Croatia
d. Residents of England, France, Germany
5. The most serious source of nationalist tension in the year of

a. 1875
b. 1775
c. 1781
d. 1871
6. Both power Russia, Germany, England, and Austro-Hungary was keen on countering the hold of
outer powers over Balkans, this became one of the major reason for
a. First world war
b. Second World War
c. Fallen of Ottoman Empire
d. Integration of the Balkan States
7. Which idea made Balkan region very explosive

a. allegory
b. Conservative ideology
c. Romantic nationalism
d. Socialism
8. In which year Nationalism, aligned with imperialism led Europe to disaster.

a. 1914
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b. 1918
c. 1939
d. 1945
9. Which idea of European came to the accepted as natural and universal?

a. nationalism
b. anti-imperialism
c. nation-states
d. socialism
10. Why the Balkan states were fiercely jealous of each other?
a. to control
b. to gain more territory
c. to secure their culture
d. to secure these customs.
11. Which one of the following areas were the most serious sources of nationalist tension in Europe
after 1871?
a. Italy
b. Germany
c. Britain
d. The Balkan
12. Which is the ethnic group in Balkans?

a. Gypsis
b. Taters
c. Arabs
d. Slavs
13. Ottoman empire belonged to

a. Christian Empire
b. Muslim empire
c. Jewish empire
d. Hindu empire
14. Which of the following is true with reference to Romanticism?

a. concept of government by consent
b. freedom of market
c. cultural movement
d. Freedom of an Individual
15. Which country became important Imperialist country in Europe after second half of 19th
century?
a. Russia,
b. Austria,
c. British,
d. France
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16. The dominations of the world is shown as basis of whose national pride?
a. German
b. Britain
c. France
d America.
17. When did world war first started?

a.1918
b. 1914
c.1928
d. 1924
18. When did World War I ended?

a. 1939
b 1945
c. 1918
d. 1920
19. Most of the imperialist countries belonged to which continent?

a. Asia
b. South America
c. Australia
d. Europe.
20. The early 20th c which movement was developed in European colonies
a. Anti – nationalism
b. Anti - Imperialism
c. Anti-socialism
d. Anti -capitalism.
21. Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia Bosnia, Slovenia Serbia and
Montenegro whose inhabitants were broadly known as
a. Arabs
b. Turks
c. Slavs
d. Tatars
22. Which areas rebellious nationalities thought of their struggles as attempts to win back their long
lost Independence?
a. France
b. Italy
c. Germany
d. Balkan
23. Anti- Imperial movement was developed in

a. European colonies
b. Monorelies
c. Independent nations
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d. Imperialistic countries
24. The domination of the world is shown as the basis of whose national pride?
a. France
b. Germany
c. Prussia
d. Britain
25. Sense of Identity with the nation is known as

a .Imperialism
b. Nationalism
c. Monarchy
d. Socialism
26. Which county is located to Balkan Region?

a. France
b. England
c. Germany
d. Greece
27. North Eastern side of Europe generally known as

a. Turkish region
b. Kurd region
c. Balkan region
d Alps region
28.From where Balkan areas states declared Independence

a. Mongol empire
b. Ottoman Empire
c. Bourbon kingdom
d: Habsburg Empire
29. Who was the head of Ottoman Empire?

a. King
b. Duke
c. Khalifah
d. Chancellor
30. Balkan peoples had once been independent but had subsequently subjugated by whom?
a. Foreign powers.
b. European powers
c. Asian powers
d South American powers.
31. Which one of the following country did not attend hold power in Balkan region?
a. Russia
b. Germany
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c. England
d. Sweden
32. Which one of the following country did not pant of Balkan region?
a. Spain
b. Bulgaria
c. Greece
d. Serbia
33. Which one of au European country did not part of European power?
a Russia
b, Germany
c. England
d, Serbia
34. After 1871 nationalist tension mounted in Europe in the area known as:
a .Austria
b. Alps region
c. Balkan
d. Italia
35. Who led the series of wars in I'm Balkan regions.

a. Asian powers
b. South American powers
c. African powers
d. European powers.
36. Which movements developed nationalism and formed Independent nation states?
a. anti-national movement
b. anti- Imperial movement
c. Socialist movement
d Communist movement
37. "A policy of extending country’s power and Influence through colonization, use of military
force, or other means is known as.
а . Nationalism
b. Liberalism
c. Imperialism
d. Socialism
Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
b b a c d a c a c b d d b c c b b c d
20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
b c d a d b d c b c b d a d c d b c
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GEOGRAPHY
Chapter-1
Resources and Development
7. What is Resource, Types of Resources, and Development of Resources.
(1) Human being interacts with Nature through ……………
(a) Resources
(b) Technology
(c) Institutions
(d) Family members
(2) Who transforms material available in our environment into resources?

(a) Nature
(b) Wild Animals
(c) Human Beings
(d) Plants
(3) What are the resources obtained from biosphere called?

(a) Renewable
(b) Biotic
(c) Abiotic
(d) Non renewable
(4) Which of the following can be called as abiotic resource?

(a) Forest
(b) Wild life
(c) Crops
(d) Minerals
(5) Which of the following is an individual resource?

(a) Water in a well
(b) Water in a river
(c) Water in a sea
(d) Water in an ocean
(6) Who allotted land to farmers against the payment of revenue?

(a) Nature
(b) Government
(c) God
(d) Landowners
(7) Which of the following is a community owned resource?

(a) Forest
(b) Form
(c) Public Park
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(d) Plantation
(8) Which authorities are empowered by the government to acquire land?

(a) Urban development
(b) Ministry of labour and employment
(c)Ministry of consumer affairs
(d) National investigation agency
(9) What is the oceanic area up to 12 nautical miles from the coast termed as………………..
(a) Coastal Area
(b) Territorial area
(c) Exclusive economic Zone
(d) International Water
(10) How many kilometers from the coast are termed as territorial water?
(a) 12 km
(b) 22.2 km
(c) 22 km
(d) 12. 2 km
(11) Which of the following statement is true about the international institutions?
(a) They regulate international resources
(b) They belong to rich countries
(c) They use international resources
(d) They sell the international resources.
(12) What are the resources, found in a region but have not been utilized, called?
(a) Potential resources
(b) Developed resources.
(c) Stock
(d) Reserves.
(13). What does the development of resources depend on?

(a) Technology
(b) Region
(c) Nature
(d) Culture
(14) Which of the following is a developed resource?

(a) Solar energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Petroleum
(d) Wild life
(15) Which type of resources is the subset of the stock?

(a) Potential
(b) Developed
(c) Reserves
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(d) Individual
(16) What purpose can reserves be used?

(a) Development
(b) Future development
(c) Individual requirements
(d) Public goods
(17) What does divide the society into rich and poor?
(a) Overutilization of resources.
(b) Accumulation of resources in few hands
(c) Indiscriminate explanation of resources
(d) Equitable distribution of resources
(18) Why is Resource planning very important in India?

(a) Because India has enormous diversity in the availability of resource.
(b) Because India is very vast country with more population.
(c) Because, In India there is accumulation of resources in few hands.
(d) Because, India follows an equitable distribution of resources.
(19) What is Rajasthan very well endowed with?

(a) Water resource
(b) Major crops
(c) Solar energy
(d) Minerals
(20) Which stage of resource planning involves surveying and mapping?

(a) Identification and inventory of resources.
(b) Evolving a planning structure
(c) Matching the resource development plan with natural development
(d) Utilization of resources.
(21) Which of the following is the reason that some countries were colonized by other?
(a) Because of their natural beauty
(b) Because of the rich resources
(c) For money
(d) For getting human resources
Answer Keys
1.b 2.c 3.b 4.d 5.a 6.b 7.c 8.a 9.b 10.b 11.a 12.a
13.a 14.c 15.c 16.b 17.b 18.a 19.c 20.a 21.b
8. Resource Planning, Resource Planning in India, Conservation of Resources.

1. Resource planning is a complex process which involves the following.
(a) Travelling
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(b) Surveying
(c) Audit
(d) Inspection
2. Evaluating planning structure should be endeared with the following?

(a) Technology
(b) Infrastructure
(c) Blue Print
(d) Planning
3. Which of the following states face acute shortage at same vital resources in India?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Punjab
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Kerala
4. Which of the following state is known as resource rich but economically backward?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Karnataka
(d) Gujarat
5. What was the main attraction for the foreign invaders during colonial period?
(a) Development
(b) Resources
(c) Princely States
(d) Technology
6. Resources and development in India not only in general are referred to as resource development,
but also …………….
(a)Quality of skill
(b) Quality of growth
(c) Quality of human resources
(d) Quality of development
7. What as the following may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems?

(a) Rational consumption of resources
(b)Utilization of resources
(c) Irrational consumption of resources
(d) Usage of resources
8. What has been the main concern of the leaders and thinkers in the past?
(a) Resources planning
(b) Resources conservation
(c) Resources utilization
(d) Resources development
9. Which of the following leader was very apt in varying his concern about resource conservation?
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(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Gandhi ji
(d) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
10. According to Gandhiji, what is the root cause for resource depletion at a global level?
(a) Modern technology
(b) Modern Infrastructure
(c) Modern development
(d) Modern Lifestyle
(11) Identification and inventory of resources are the part of which of the following process?
(a) The process of resources conservation.
(b) The process of resources planning
(c) The process of development
(d) The process of enhancing technology
12. Which of the following state is rich in minerals and coal deposits?
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Maharashtra
d) Kerala
13. The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with, which kind of energy?
a) Tidal energy
b) Wind energy
c) Geothermal energy
d) Biomass energy
14. What out of the following is the objective of the resource planning?
a) To maintain balance of resources.
b) To utilize resources
c) To enhance existing technology
d) To conserve resources
15. Resources planning is the essential for existence of the all form of life.
a) Ecological balance
b) Sustainable
c) Exploitation
d) Eradicating
Assertion and Reason
16. Assertion: Some states of India are economically weak but are rich in resources
Reason: The state of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh are rich in mineral and coal deposits but lack in
infrastructure and development.
Options:
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation as assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason not correct explanation of assertion
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c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
17. Assertion: Consumption of resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems.
Reason: Over use of resources will lead to destruction of forests and raw materials we get from
nature and eventually will lead to affectively wildlife.
Options:
18. Assertion: Resource planning is an easy process in India

Reason: Resources planning is not an easy but very complicated process in India.
Options:
19. Assertion: Resources can be contributed to the development only when they are accompanied by
appropriate technological and institutional changes.
Reason: Technology can help to create resources.
Options:
Answers
1b 2a 3c 4a 5b 6c 7c 8b 9c 10a 11b 12b
13b 14a 15b 16a 17a 18d 19c
9. Land Resources, Land Utilization, Land Use Pattern in India, Land
Degradation and Conservation.
1. What is the percentage of plain land in India?

a) 43
b) 30
c) 27
d) 33
2. How much percentage do mountains account for?

a) 37
b) 27
c) 30
d) 43
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3. What is the total area as the plateau region?
a) 57
b) 32
c) 43
d) 27
4. Which among the following relief features facilitate agriculture?

a) Islands
b) Plains
c) Mountains
d) Plateaus
5. Which among the following relief features facilitates tourism and ecological aspect?
a) Mountains
b) Plains
c) Plateaus
d) Islands
6. Where do you find the possessions of reserves of minerals, fossil fuels and forests?
a) Islands
b) Mountains
c) Plateaus
d) Plains
7. What is the land called which is not available for cultivation?

a) Fallow land
b) Cultivable waste land
c) Current Fallow land
d) Barren and waste land
8. What is the total geographical area of India?

a. 2.38 million sq.km
b. 3.28 million sq.km
c. 3.28 billion sq.km
d. 8.32 million sq.km
9. In which among the following areas, the land use reporting has not been done fully?
a. Assam
b. Eastern states
c. North states
d. North-East states
10. What is the percentage of land use of the total geographical area in India?
a. 39
b. 44
c. 93
d. 33
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11. What is the percentage of net sown area in Punjab and Haryana?
a.80%
b.50%
c.93%
d.85%
12. Which among the following states have the net sown area less than 10%?
a. Bihar
b. Arunachal Pradesh
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Himachal Pradesh
13. What was the desired percentage of forest area?

a. 10%
b. 23%
c. 43%
d. 33%
14. Assertion: Forest of country is far lower than the desired 33% of geographical area.
Reason: It is considered essential for maintenance of the ecological balance.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true and R is the wrong explanation of A
c. A and R is not true
d. A is not true R is true.
15. Assertion: The land under permanent pasture has also decreased.
Reason: This is due to the increase in forest area
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. A is not true but R is correct
c. A is true and R is also true
d. A is true but R is not correct explanation of A
16. Assertion: Most of the other than current follow lands are either of good quality or the cost of
cultivation is very low.
Reason: These lands are cultivated more than once in a year.
a. A is true but R is false
b. Both A and R are false
c. A is false but R is true
d. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
17. Assertion: The pattern of net sown area varies greatly from one state to another.
Reason: This is due to the different relief feature of land.
a. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b. A is true but R is false
d. Both A and R are true and R is wrong explanation of A.
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18. Assertion: -Waste land put to other non-agricultural uses
Reason: - It can be utilized for settlement, roads, railways, industries etc.
a. Both A and R are false
d. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
19. Assertion: Land degradation has been observed more in past many years
Reason: This is due to the continuous use of land over a period of time without taking appropriate
measures to conserve and manage it.
b. A is false but R is true
c. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
d. Both A and R are true and R is wrong explanation of A
20. Assertion: Human activities have brought about degradation of land

Reason: Humans have shown their various skills to achieve this
b. A is false but R is true
c. Both A and R are true and R is wrong explanation of A
21. How much degraded land is in India?

a. 110 million hectors
b. 130 million hectors
c. 120 million hectors
d. 150 million hectors
22. Assertion: Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha have been more deforested
Reason: This is due to mining which has cause severe land degradation.
a. A is false but R is true
23. Assertion: Over irrigation is responsible for land degradation in the states like Gujarat,
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
Reason: More utilization of both land and waste for high production.
b. Both A and R are wrong and R is not correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true
24. Assertion: - In recent years, industrial effluents as waste have become a major source of land
and water pollution
Reason: The land is not under cultivation and water bodies are not used for irrigating the fields.
b. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
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d. A is false but R is true.
25. Assertion: - Over irrigation in Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh is responsible for land
degradation.
Reason: Land degradation in these places is due to water logging which leads to increase in salinity
and alkalinity in the soil.
26. In which among the following areas the planting of shelter belts of plants, control over grazing,
stabilization of sand dunes laid growing thorny brushes are some methods to check land degradation.
a. forests
b. arid areas
c. waste lands
d. suburban areas.
27. What has affected the area other than 56% of water eroded area?
a. Quarrying
b. Mining
c. Deforestation
d. Saline and alkaline deposits
28. Assertion: It is important to use the available land for various purposes with careful planning.
Reason: Land is an asset of finite magnitude
29. Land degradation is a process in which the value of the biophysical environment is affected by a
combination of human induced process acting upon the land.
a. true b. false
30. Which among the following is the method for reducing fallow land?
a. Use fertilizers
b. Use HYV seeds
c. Leave the land without cultivation
d. Irrigation system
31. What is gross cropped area?

a. net sown area
b. Area sown less than once in an agricultural year
c. Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus not sown area
d. Cultivable land
32. Assertion: Human activities have degraded the land

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Reason: 95% of our basic needs are obtained from land
33. Assertion: Along with other north-east states, some areas of Jammu and Kashmir have also not
been surveyed
Reason: As most of the area is occupied by Pakistan and China
a. Both A and R are true and R is wrong explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true
Answers
1.a 2.c 3.d 4.b 5.a 6.c 7.d 8.b 9.d 10.c 11.a 12.b
13.d 14.a 15.d 16.b 17.a 18.d 19.c 20.a 21.b 22.d 23.b 24.a
25.c 26.b 27.d 28.a 29.a 30.a 31.c 32.d 33.c
10. Soil as a Resource, Classification of Soils, Soil Erosion and Conservation.
1. Most important renewable resource, which is medium of plant growth,

a) Metal b) fossil fuels
c) Soil d) Copper
2. How many years it takes to form soil up to a few cm in depth?

a) 10 years b) 75 Years
c) 100 Years d) Millions of years
3. The important factor in the formation of a soil is…….

a) Minerals b) nutrients
c) Soil texture d) vegetation
4. Soil is formed by the process of……..

a) Denudation b) gradation
c) Erosion d) weathering
5. Soil formed by intense leaching is…….

a) Alluvial b) Red soil
c) Laterite soil d) Desert soil
6. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation?

a) Intensive cultivation b) over irrigation
c) Deforestation d) overgrazing
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7. In which one of the following States is terrace cultivation practiced?
a) Punjab b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
c) Haryana d) Uttarakhand
8. In which of the following state is black soil found?
a. Jammu & Kashmir b. Gujarat
c. Rajasthan d. Jharkhand
9. The old alluvial soil is known as……

a. Bangar b. Bhabar
c. Khadar d. Regur
10. Which one of the following methods is ideal for controlling land degradation in coastal areas and
in deserts?
a. strip cropping b. counter ploughing
c. plants of the shelter belts d. plugging of gullies
11. The area brought under cultivation in a year is called…….

a. fallow land b. net sown area
c. Cultivable wasteland d. gross sown area
12. Bangar is also known as………

a. new alluvial soil b old alluvial soil
c. black soil d. red soil
13. Alluvial soil is ideal for the growth of……..

a. tea b. coffee
c. sugarcane d. coconut
14. Black soil is also known as---------------

a. Regur soil b. Alluvial soil
c. Khadar soils d. Bangar soil
15. Which of the following rock is important factor for the formation of black soil?
a. sedimentary soil b. igneous rock
c. parent rock material d. metamorphic rock
16. Which of the following area is covered by black soil?

a. Madhya Pradesh b. Punjab
c. Goa d. Assam
17. Which of the following is not covered by black soil?

a. Chhattisgarh b. Malwa
c. Maharashtra d. Punjab
18. Black soil is generally poor in following content…….

a. Calcium b. Carbonate
c. phosphor d. magnesium
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19. Which soil develop deep crack?
a. Red soil b. Yellow soil
c. Black Soil d. Loam Soil
20. Yellow and Red soil are found in the following part………..
a. Jammu and Kashmir b. Odisha and Chhattisgarh
c. Jharkhand and Bihar d. Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
21. What does mean by Latin word later?

a. Soil b. Rock
c. Sand d. Brick
22. Laterite soil is generally deficient in……….

a. plant nutrients b. phosphoric contents
c. magnesium d. calcium
23. Red laterite soil is useful for the growth of which crop in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and
Kerala.
A. groundnuts b. peanuts
c. cashew nut d. pulses.
24. Due to what reason arid soil lacks humus?

a. wet climate b. low temperature
c. humid conditions d. high temperature.
25. In which area forest soil experiences denudation?

a. In the snow-covered areas of Himalaya’s
b. In the sand covered areas of Rajasthan
c. Black soil covered areas of Madhya Pradesh
d. In Red Laterite soils covered areas of Tamil Nadu.
26. The process of soil formation and erosion go on simultaneously and generally, there is a balance
between the two but sometime this balance is disturbed due to ………
a. human activities b. afforestation
c. Developing gardens d. doing agriculture.
27. In which of the following state mining has caused severe land degradation…………….
a. Jharkhand b. Maharashtra
c. Karnataka d. Uttar Pradesh
28 Shelter belts means……..

a. planning lines of trees b. strip cropping
c. breaks up wind force d. counter ploughing.
Q.29 Bad land means………..

a. The land becomes fit for cultivation
b. The land becomes unfit for cultivation
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c. Land become fit for growing forest
d. Land becomes fit for agriculture.
Answer Keys
1. c 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. c 6. d 7. d 8.b 9. a 10. c
11. c 12. b 13. c 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. c 19. c 20. b
21. d 22. a 23. c 24. d 25. a 26. a 27.a 28. a 29. a
Chapter-2
Agriculture
11. Types of Farming, Cropping Pattern
1. Choose the correctly matched pair about the primitive cultivation in India from the following
a. Dahia- Andra Pradesh
b. Kumari- Jharkhand
c. Khil- Andra Pradesh
d. Koman- Madhya Pradesh
2. A type of millet rich in iron, calcium , other micro nutrients and roughage is----------
a. Bajra
b. Rajma
c. Jowar
d. Ragi
3. Read the source given below and answer the following questions :
Millet: Jowar, Bajra and ragi are the important millets grown in India . Though, these are
known as coarse grains , they have very high nutrients value . For example, ragi is very rich
in iron, calcium other micro nutrients and roughage . Jower is the third most important food
crop with respect to area and production. It is rain fed crops mostly grown in the moist areas
which hardly needs irrigation. Major Jowar producing states are Maharashtra, Karnataka,
Andra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
Answer the following MCQ’s by choosing the most appropriate option.
3.1 Jawar, …………and ragine are important millets grown in India.
a) Bajra
b) Wheat
c) Bariey
d) Maize
3.2 Which of the following millets is very rich in iron, calcium other micro nutrients
and roughage?
a) Bajra
b) Jowar
c) Ragi
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d) Maize
3.3 Which of the following states is the largest producer of Jowar?
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Karnataka
d) Maharashtra
3.4 Jowar is the ………….most important food crop with respect to area and
production
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
4. Which of the following states is the largest producer of maize?
a. Telangana
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Karnataka
5. How much temperature is required for maize?
a. 210 C to 270 C
b. 220C to 280C
c. 180 C to 220C
d. 250C to 300C
6. In the question below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Read the
statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The cultivation of rice is a primary activity.
Reason (R): When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the
primary sector.
Options:
b. Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
c. A is correct but R is wrong
d. A is wrong but R is correct.
7. The main characteristics of commercial farming is……….

a. It is practise
b. d with the help of primitive tools
c. Use of higher doses of modern inputs
d. It depends on monsoon rainfall
e. It is practised with the family/community labour.
8. The main factor that plays an important role in the development of plantation is……..
a. Adequate and cheap labour
b. Well-developed network of transport and communication.
c. High doses of biochemical inputs and irrigations
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d. Availability of port facilities.
9. Land productivity in primitive subsistence farming is low due to………

a. Absence of fertilized and modern inputs
b. Small land holdings
c. Infertile soil
d. Unfavourable climatic conditions
10. Some of the important Rabi crops are ………..

a. Paddy , maize, jowar, bajra and moong
b. Wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard
c. Watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber and sugarcane
d. Sunflower, groundnut, sesame and linseed
11. Which of the following are plantation crops?

a. Rice and maize
b. Wheat and pulses
c. Tea, coffee, banana and sugarcane
d. Pulses and oilseeds
12. The three major cropping seasons of India are…………

a. Aus, Aman, Boro
b. Rabi, Kharif, and Zaid
c. Baisakh, Paus and chait
d. None of the above.
13. The main food crop of Kharif season is:

a. Mustard
b. Pulses
c. Rice
d. Wheat
14. The main food crop of Rabi season is………..
a. Wheat
b. Rice
c. Jowar
d. Maize
15. Rabi crops are……

a. Sown in winter and harvested in summer
b. Sown during rainy season and harvested in winter
c. Sown in summer and harvested in winter
d. None of these
16. Kharif crops are grown ………….

a. With the onset of monsoon and harvested in September- October
b. With the onset of winter and harvested in summer.
c. With the onset of Autumn and harvested in summer
d. None of these
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17. A short season between the Rabi and Kharif season is known as……
a. Aus
b. Baro
c. Zaid
d. None of these
18. Important non-food crops of the country are………….

a. Tea and coffee
b. Millets and pulses
c. Cotton and jute
d. None of these
19. Which is the main food of the eastern and southern part of the country?
a. Rice
b. Wheat
c. Maize
d. Sugarcane
20. The two main wheat Growing regions are……….

a. The Ganga-Sutlej plains and the Deccan trap.
b. North –eastern part and eastern coastal plains
c. Deccan plateau and Western coast
d. None of these
21. Wheat requires annual rainfall between………
a. 50 and 75 cm
b. About 200cm
c. 200 and 300 cm
d. Less than 20cm
22. Which state is the largest producer of Bajra?
a. Rajasthan
b. Maharashtra
c. Gujarat
d. Haryana
23. Which of the right condition for the growth of maize?

a. Temperature between 21 to 270C and old alluvial soil
b. Temperature between 170C and shallow black soil
c. Temperature of 25 and 200cm of rainfall
d. None of the above
24. Which of the following crops is a major source of Protein in a vegetation diet?
a. Wheat
b. rice
c. pulses
d. oilseeds.
25. Which of the following is not true for pulses?

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a. Pulses are given in both Rabi and Kharif season
b. Pulses are leguminous crops
c. They are grown in rotation with other crops
d. Pulses require intense irrigation facilities.
26. Which of the ideal condition for the growth of sugarcane?

a. Temperature of 210c to 270c and on annual rainfall between 75cm and 100cm
b. Temperature below 170c and 50 to 75cm rainfall
c. Temperature of 250c and 200cm of rainfall
d. None of these.
27. What percentage of our cropped area is covered by oilseeds?

a. 21
b. 12
c. 2
d. 4
28. Coffee cultivation was first introduced in……….

a. Himalaya b. Aravali hills
c. Garo Hills d. Babu Budan Hills
29. Cultivation of fruits and vegetables is called

a. Floriculture b. Sericulture
c. Horticulture d. Agriculture
30. Which of the following describes a system of agriculture, where a single crop is grown on a large
area?
a. Shifting agriculture b. Plantation agriculture
c. Intensive agriculture d. Horticulture
31. Which one of the following is not a cropping season?

a. Winter b. Kharif
c. Rabi d. Zaid
32. Which of the following crop is known as Golden Fibre?

a. Wheat b. Rice
c. Groundnut d. Jute
33. Which of the following crop grow well in the Black soil?
a. Jute b. Rice
c. Cotton d. Wheat
34. Which country is the largest producer of oilseed in the world?

a. China b. India
c. USA d. Pakistan
35. What is the rearing of silkworms for the production of silk called?
a. Horticulture b. pisciculture
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c. Sericulture d. Agriculture
36. Which of the following groups of crops are known as beverage crops?
a. Castor seed and sunflower
b. Peas and gram
c. Cotton and jute
d. Tea and coffee
37. India is believed to be the original home of which type of the following fibre crops…………
a. Cotton
b. Jute
c. Hemp
d. Silk
38. Arabica variety of coffee was initially brought to India from which of the following countries?
a. Yemen
b. Vietnam
c. Japan
d. Korea
39. What is primitive subsistence farming known as in north eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya,
Mizoram and Nagaland?
a. Horticulture
b. Penda
c. Jhumming
d. Milpa
40. Which of the following is practiced in areas with high population pressure on land?
a. Primitive subsistence farming
b. Intensive subsistence farming
c. Commercial farming
d. Plantations
41. Which one of the following is an annual crop?

a. Sugarcane b. Cotton
b. Jute d. Cucumber
42. Which of the following are known as coarse grains?

a. Wheat and Rice
b. Millets – Jowar, Bajra and Regi
c. Pulses – Urad, arhar, gram
d. Oilseeds
43. Which one of the following was the main focus of our first five year plan?
a. Cost of food grains
b. Land reforms
c. Industrialization
d. Globalization
e.
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Answer Keys
1. a 2. d 3.1 .a 3.2 . c 3.3 d 3.3- d 3.4- c 4. c 5. d 6. a
7. a 8. a 9.a 10. b 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. c 15. b 16. c
17. a 18. a 19. a 20. c 21. c 22. a 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. b
27. c 28. d 29. c 30. b 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. a 35. c 36. d
37. a 38. a 39. c 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. b
12. Major Crops.

Read the paragraph and answer the following:
India is the largest producer as well as consumer of pulses in the world. These are the
major sources of protein in a vegetarian diet.
(1) What are pulses also called as?

(a) Rabi crops (b) Leguminous crop
(c) Oil seed crops (d) Cash crop
(2) What climatic condition is required to grow pulses?

(a) Frost free climate
(b) Humid climate
(c) Less moisture and even dry condition
(d) Heavy rainfall
(3) Which nutrient is present in pulses?

(a) Vitamin
(b) Protein
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Fats
(4) Which crop is used as raw material in automobile industry?

(a) Jute (b) rubber
(c) Sugar cane (d) Cotton
(5) In which season fodder crops grow.

(a) Zaid season (b) Rabi Season
(c) Kharif Season (d) Monsoon Season
(6) How many cropping seasons does India have?

(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7
(7) Which of the following crops are grown with the onset of monsoon and are harvested in the
month of September-October?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat
(c) Barely (d) Peas
(8) Which of the following are plantation crops?

(a) Rice & Maize (b) tea & Coffee
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(c) Wheat pulses (d) Ragi & Jowar
(9) What are the favourable to grow Maize?

(a) Temperature between 210 C to 270 C and old alluvial soil
(b) Temperature below 170 C and shallow black soil.
(c) Temperature above 320 and loamy soil
(d) Humid temperature and black soil.
(10) What percentage of our cropped area is covered by oilseeds?

(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 12 (d) 21
(11) Where was coffee cultivation was introduced in India?

(a) Garo Hills (b) Budhan Hills
(c) Himalayas (d) Aravali Hills
(12) Which of the following is a food crop?

(a) Cotton (b) Jute
(c) Wheat (d) Sugar cane
(13) What type of soil is required to grow Maize?

(a) Black soil (b) Old alluvial soil
(c) Red Soil (d) Laterite soil
(14) Which is largest producer of sugar cane in world?

(a)India (b) China
(c) Brazil (d) Pakistan
(15) What type of crop is rice?

(a) Rabi crop (b) Kharif crop
(c) Oil seed crop (d) Zaid crop
(16) Which is the leading producer of Jowar?

(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Maharashtra
(c) Assam (d) Rajasthan
(17) Which of the following are known as coarse grains?

(a) Jowar and bajra (b) Wheat-Jowar
(c)Jute – rubber (d) rice – maize
(18) In which favourable temperature do rice grow?

(a) 21 – 250 C (b) 22 – 320 C (high humidity)
(c) 32 – 400 C (d) 22 – 320 C (Low humidity)
(19) Which crops helps in fixing of nitrogen from the air?

(a) Rabi crops (b) Kharif Crops
(c) Leguminous Crops (d) Cash Crops
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(20) Which crop is also known as golden fibre?
(a) Cotton (b) jute
(c) Silk (d) Nylon
(21) Why jute is losing market?

(a) Due to less production (b) Due to low quality
(c) Due to its high cost (d) Due to its less demand
(22) Which fibre is obtained from animal?

(a) Jute (b) Silk
(c) Cotton (d) Rubber
(23) What is the production of silk fibre known as?

(a) Sericulture (b) Silk culture
(c) Vermin Culture (d) Fibre culture
(24) In which season the Rabi crops are harvested?

(a) Winter (b) Summer
(c) Autumn (d) spring
(25) How rice is grown is less rainfall area?

(a) It grows with help of irrigation
(b) It grows with help of well drainage
(c) With the help of temperature control
(d) It grows with help of use of high fertilizers
(26) In which season fodder crops grow.

(a) Zaid season (b) Rabi Season
(c) Kharif Season (d) Monsoon Season
(27) How many cropping seasons does India have?

(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7
(28) Which of the following crops are grown with the onset of monsoon and are harvested in the
month of September-October?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat
(c) Barely (d) Peas
(29).Which of the following are plantation crops?

(a) Rice & Maize
(b) Tea & Coffee
(c) Wheat pulses
(d) Ragi & Jowar
(30) What are the favourable to grow Maize?

(a) Temperature between 210 C to 270 C and old alluvial soil
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(b) Temperature below 170 C and shallow black soil.
(c) Temperature above 320 and loamy soil
(d) Humid temperature and black soil.
(31) What percentage of our cropped area is covered by oilseeds?

(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 12 (d) 21
(32) Where was coffee cultivation introduced in India?

(a) Garo Hills (b) Buden Hills
(c) Himalayas (d) Aravali Hills
(33) Which crop is used as raw material in automobile industry?

(a) Jute (b) rubber
(c) Sugar cane (d) Cotton
34. Who among the following as a spiritual heir of Mahatma Gandhi?

a) Indira Gandhi
b) Lokmanya Tilak.
c) Vinoba Bhave.
d) Pandit Nehru
35 In which state the place Pochampalli is located?

a) Karnataka
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Kerala
d) Andhra Pradesh
36) What is BPL?

a) Behind poverty line
b) Before poverty line
c) Below poverty line
d) Beneath poverty line
37) What has led to reduction in area under irrigation?

a) Periodic scarcity of water
b) Continuous scarcity of water.
c) Heavy rainfall
d) No rainfall.
38) What has led to water logging and salinity?

a) Proper water management
b) Excessive use of water.
c) Efficient water management
d) Inefficient use & water management
(39)Read the paragraph and answer the following:
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India is the largest producer as well as consumer of pulses in the world. These are the major
sources of protein in a vegetarian diet.
(i) What are pulses also called as?

(a) Rabi crops (b) Leguminous crop
(c) Oil seed crops (d) Cash crop
(ii) What climatic condition is required to grow pulses?

(a) Frost free climate
(b) Humid climate
(c) Less moisture and even dry condition
(d) Heavy rainfall
(iii) Which nutrient is present in pulses?

(a) Vitamin (b) Protein
(c) Carbohydrates (d) Fats
Answer Keys
1. b 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. c
11. b 12.c 13. b 14. c 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. b 19. c 20. b
21.c 22. b 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. a 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. a
31. c 32. b 33. b 34.c 35.d 36.c 37.a 38.d 39.i. b 39.ii. c
3.iii. b
13. Technological and Institutional Reforms, Contribution of Agriculture to

Economy, Impact of Globalization on Agriculture.
1. What was the most important focus of First Five Year Plan in India?
a) Green Revolution
b) White Revolution
c) Land Reform
d) Sustainable development
2. What is another name used to White Revolution?

a) Operation Flood
b) Milk Revolution
c) Green Revolution
d) Construction of dam.
3. A comprehensive land reform programme was initiated by government of India in the following
decade:
a) 1960-1970
b) 1970-1980
c) 1980-1990
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d) 1990-2000
4. Find out the correct one which is introduced to help the poor farmers of India.
a) Debit card
b) Credit card
c) KCC
d) NAC
5. Mention the name of insurance scheme introduced for poor farmers of In India.
a) JEEVAN BHEEMA
b) JEEVAN MITRA
c) PAIS
d) KISSAN CREDIT CARD
6. Name the scientist who is considered as the father of Green Revolution.

a) V. J.Kurian
b) M.S. Swaminathan
c) Dr. Amartya Sen
d) Acharya Vinobha Bhave
7. Who introduced White Revolution in India?

a) M.S . Swaminadhan
b) Dadabai Navaroji
c) V.J. Kurian
d) K.C. Panth
8. Name the famous concept of Gandhiji propagated by Vinoba Bhave.

a) Rama Rajya
b) Satyagraha
c) Fast unto death
d) Grama Swrajya
9. Who was the spiritual heir of Mahatma Gandhi after his martyrdom?
a) Sardar Patel
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Vinoba Bhave
d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
10. ……….. was the great person who first gifted his land Vinobha Bhave.
a) Ramanujan
b) Zakir Hussain
c) Dr. Ramakrishna Naidu
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d) Sri Ramachandra Reddy
11. Who introduced Bhoodan- Gramdan movement in India?

a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) Acharya Vinobha Bhave
d) Periyar Ramaswami Naikar
12. What is the other name in which Bhoodan-Gramdan movement is famous for?
a) Bloodless Revolution
b) Bloodshed Revolution
c) Glorious Revolution
d) Spiritual Revolution
13. Which one of the following is announced by the government in support of a crop?
(a) Maximum support price
(b) Minimum support price
(c) Moderate support price
(d) Influential support price
14. Which of the following crop had very much demand in foreign markets even centuries past?
a) Coriander
b) Spices
c) Mustard
d) Pulses
15. Which of the following city was famous for cotton textile industries?
a) New York
b) Manchester
c) Aurangabad
d) Masulipatnam
16. Champaran Satyagraha was associated which of the following crop.

a) Tobacco
b) Cotton
c) Indigo
d) Wheat
17. India had opened its doors for globalization in the following period.
a) After 1990
b) Before1990
c) Before 1947
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d) After 2000
18. The genetic engineering is also called as…….

a) Blue Revolution
b) White Revolution
c) Gene Revolution
d) Genocide
19. What is recognized as a powerful supplement in inventing new hybrid varieties of seeds?
a) Horticulture
b) Sericulture
c) Viticulture
d) Genetic engineering
20. Find out the name of the plant can be used for making bio-diesel.
a) Hibiscus
b) Mulberry
c) Jojoba
d) Marijuana
Answers Keys
1-c 6-b 11-c 16-c
2-a 7-c 12-a 17-a
3-c 8-d 13-b 18-c
4-c 9-c 14-b 19-d
5-c 10-d 15-b 20-c
Page 55 of 104
POLITICAL SCIENCE
Chapter-1
Power Sharing
14. Belgium and Sri Lanka, Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka.
1) The principle of majoritarianism- led to civil war in -

a) Srilanka
b) Georgia
c) Belgium
d) Ukraine
2) Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are called as

a) Sri lankan Tamils
b) Indian Tamils
c) Tamils
d) Muslim Tamil
3) Which language was recognized as the official language after Independence of Sri Lanka?
a) Tamil
b) Hindi
c) Sinhala
d) Telugu
4) Identify the major social group that constituted the largest share in the population of Sri Lanka
a) SrilankanTamils
b) Indian Tamils
c) Muslims
d) Sinhalas
5) The major Social groups of Sri Lanka are

a) Sinhala speaker 74% Tamil speaker 18%
b) Sinhala speaker 75%Tamil Speaker 20%
c) Sinhala speaker 78% Tamil speaker 21%
d) Sinhala speaker 79% Tamil speaker 22%
6) An act was passed in Shrilanka that recognized SINHALA as the only official in______
a)1954
b)1955
c) 1956
d)1957
7) What does Tamil Eelam Mean?

a) Tamil state
b) Tamil government
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c) Tamil nation
d) Tami court
8) A belief that the majority community should be able to rule county in whichever way they want,
by disregarding the wishes. and needs of minority is known as________
a) Majoritarianism
b) Federal government
c) Community government
d) Prudential government
9) What measure was adopted by the democratically elected government of Srilanka to establish
Sinhala supremacy?
a) Constitutional Reforms
b) Monarchy rule
c) Majoritarian measure
d) Community Government
10) Which language was recognized as the Official language after independence in Sri lanka?
a)Tamil
b) Tundi
c) Sinhala
d) Telugu
11) What is the linguistic composition of Belgium?

a) 59% Speaks French, 1^% speaks German , 40% speaks Dutch
b) 59% speaks Dutch, 40% speaks French and 1% speaks German
c) 50% speaks Dutch, 49% speaks French, and 1% speaks German
d) 70% speaks Dutch , 25% speaks French and 5% speaks German..
12) Which of the following does not border Belgium?

a) Germany
b) Ireland
c) France
d) Netherland
13) Which are the two major ethnic groups of Belgium?

a) Dutch and German
b) French and German
c) Dutch and French
d) None of these.
14) The constitution or Sri Lanka protect and foster

a) Christian
b) Buddhism
c) Muslim
d) Hindu
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15) Which community was relatively rich and powerful in Belgium?
a) French
b) Dutch
c) Sinhala
d) Muslim
16) Consider the following statements about power sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka
a) In Belgium the Dutch speaking majority people tried to impose the domination on the minority
French speaking community
b) In Sri Lanka the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhala
speaking majority.
c) The Tamils of the Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to protect their
culture, language end equality of opportunity education and jobs
D) The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one prevented a possible
division of the County on linguistic lines.
Which statements given above are correct?
a) A B C and D
b) A, B, and C
c) C and D
d) B, C, and D
Answer Key
1.A 2.A 3.C 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.A 8.A 9.C 10.C
11.B 12.B 13.C 14.B 15.A 16 D
15. Accommodation in Belgium, Why Power Sharing is Desirable?

1. The Community Government signifies:
(a) The powers of government regarding community development.
(b) The powers of the government regarding law making for the community.
(c) The powers of the government regarding cultural, educational and language related issues
(d) The powers of government regarding capital city.
2. Power sharing is:

(a) The very spirit of democracy
(b) Separation of powers at different levels.
(c) System of checks and balances.
(d) a type of balancing powers.
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3. Choose the correct option:
Power sharing is desirable because it helps:
(a) to increase pressure on government.
(b) to reduce possibilities of conflicts.
(c) to generate awareness among people.
(d) to increase percentage of voters.
4. Prudential reasons of power sharing stress on the facts that:

A. It ensures the stability of political order.
B. It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.
C. It gives a fair share to minority.
D. It is the very spirit of democracy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) A, B (b) A, C and D (c) All are correct (d) A, B & C
5. How many times Belgium had amended their constitution?

A. Three times
B. Four times
C. Only for one time
D. Two times
6. Between which years Belgium had amended its constitution?

A. 1970 and 1993
B. 1973 and 1993
C. 1960 and 1970
D. 1975 and 1995
7. Which is the wrong statement related to Belgium Model of power sharing?

A. the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central
government
B. Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal
representation.
C. Apart from the Central and the State Government, there is a third kind of government-
‘community government.
D. The state governments are subordinate to the Central Government.
8. Who has the power regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues in Belgium?
A. Central government
B. State government
C. Community government
D. European Union
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9. When many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union, was chosen as
its headquarters.
A. New York
B. Amsterdam
C. London
D. Brussels
10. In Belgium, the leaders have realised that the unity of the country is possible only by :
A. Rule of majority community
B. Respecting the feelings and interests of different communities and regions.
C. Respecting the feelings and interests of majority communities.
D. Dividing the country in language wise.
11. Which will undermine the unity of the nation in long run?
A. Power sharing in the country.
B. Imposing the will of majority community over others
C. Accommodation of social diversities.
D. Decentralisation of power.
12. The prudential reasons stress that power sharing will bring out …….
A. Political instability
B. Conflicts and violence
C. better outcomes
D. Better understanding.
13. Identify the correct statement related to the Belgium model of power sharing.
A. Any single community can make decisions unilaterally.
B. The Dutch speaking people accepted equal representation for French in Brussels
C. Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments.
D. The central government has the power regarding cultural, educational and language-
related issues.
14. Which can undermine the unity of the country:

A. respecting the feelings and interests of different communities and regions
B. mutually acceptable arrangements for sharing power
C. Central government shares power with states.
D. if a majority community wants to force its dominance over others and refuses to share
power
15. Moral reasons emphasise the very act of power sharing as ……..
A. creating better outcomes
B. Valuable
C. Time consuming
D. Valueless
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Answer Keys
1. c 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. d 10. b
11. b 12. c 13. c 14.d 15. b
16. Forms of Power Sharing.

(1). Which of the following is an example of horizontal sharing of power?
(a). Power sharing between different states.
(b). Power sharing between different organs of the government.
(c). Power sharing between different levels of the government
(d). Power sharing between different political parties
(2). Division of powers between higher and lower levels of government is called.
(a). Horizontal distribution (b). Parallel distribution
(c). Vertical division (d). Diagonal division
(3). Which one of the following is the 3rd tier of government in India?
(a). Panchayati Raj Government (b). State government
(c). Community Government (d). National Government
(4). Which one of the following organs of the government keeps a check on the functioning of
executive or legislatives?
(a). Legislatives
(b). Executives
(c). Parliament
(d). Judiciary
(5). Community government in Belgium is a good example of which form of power sharing
arrangements.
(a). Vertical division of power
(b). Power sharing among different social groups
(c). Horizontal division of power
(d). Power sharing among political parties, pressure groups & movements.
(6). In India power sharing mechanism does not involve directly to ____
(a). Legislative (b). Judiciary (c). Industry (d). Executive
(7). Which of the following is not one of the three organs of government powers are shared?
(a). Legislative
(b). Bureaucracy
(c). Executive
(d). Judiciary
(8). Assertion: Power sharing is good for democracy.

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Reason: It helps to reduce conflict between social groups
(a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c). A is correct but R is wrong
(d). A is wrong but R is true.
(9). Assertion: In India we have reserved constituencies in assemblies and the parliament of our
country.
Reason: Because India follows community government as in Belgium
10) Assertion - in a democracy we find interest groups such as traders, businessmen, industrialist,
workers who also will have a share in government
Reason - Because power sharing arrangements can also be to seen in the way political parties,
pressure groups control or influence those in Power.
a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) A is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
11) Assertion: In the longer run, Power is shared among different political parties that represent
Reason: Because Power should be concentrated in The hands few
a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) A is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
12) Read the given extract and the following and questions.
The idea of Power sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions undivided political power. For a
long time it was believed that all power of a government must reside in one person or group of
persons located at one place. It was felt that if the power to decide is dispersed, it would not to be
possible take quick decisions and to enforce them. But these notions have changed with the
emergence of democracy. One basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of all
political power. In a democracy people rule themselves through institutions of self-government.in a
good democratic government, power. In a democracy, people rule In a good democratic government,
due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society Everyone has a Voice in the
shaping of policies Therefore it follows that in a political power should be distributed among many
citizens as possible.
Answers the following by choosing the correct option:

1) The basic principle of democracy is
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a) People are the source of Political power
b) None can exercise unlimited Power
c) Power of a government reside in one person
d) To reduce conflict between social groups.
2) Which one of the following is a prudential reason for power sharing?

a) It reduces the possibility of conflict between communities and ensures the stability of political
order
b) It pause the way for conflict and differences in opinion among social groups.
c) Due to power sharing power will be concentrated in few hands
d) It provides opportunities to a single majority group to rule
3) Which of the following option describes good democratic system?

a) Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies
b) Power to take quick decision and to enforce them
c) All powers reside in the hands of a Single person
d) Power is shared among few groups only
4) Which of the following statement is true as good democratic govt. is Concerned?

a) Due respect is not given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society
b) Only few social groups are given Considerations
c) political parties are given importance
d) Due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society
(13). Which of the following is not an element of vertical power sharing?

(a). Power sharing between different levels of government
(b). Supervision of higher organ over lower organ
(c). Sharing of power between government and opposition
(d). Sharing of power central and provisional government
(14). Name the third level of government in Belgium?

(a). Federal Government (b). Democratic Government
(c). Community Government (d). Central Government
Answer Key
1. b 2. c 3. a 4. d 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. c 10.a
11.b 12. i. a 12.ii.a 12.iii.a 12.iv.d 13.c 14.c
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Chapter-2
Federalism
17. What is Federalism? Features of Federalism, Types of Federations.
Q.1 Which of the following is NOT a feature of federalism?
a) There are two or more levels of government
b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens
c) Sources of revenue for each revel of government are clearly specified.
d) The central government can order the state government.
Q.2 Which of the following country is an example of coming together federation"?

a) USA
b) India
c) Spain
d) Belgium
Q.3 Which government has two or more levels?

a) Unitary government
b) Federal government
c) central
d) State government
Q.4 Which of the following country is an example of ‘Holding together federation’?

a) USA
b) Australia
c) India
d) Switzerland
Q.5 Which among the following are examples of ‘coming together federations’?
a) Belgium and Sri Lanka
b) India, Spain and Belgium
c) India, USA and Spain
d) USA, Australia and Switzerland.
Q.6 which among the following are examples of ‘Holding together federation’?
a) India, Spain and Australia
b) India, Spain and Belgium
c) USA, Australia and Switzerland
d)USA, Spain and Belgium
Q.7 Belgium shirted from a unitary form of government to

a) Democratic
b) Authoritarian
c) federal
d) Central
Q.8 In a ‘Holding together federation’ ____

i) A large country divides its power between constituent states and the national government
ii) The Central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the states.
ii) All the constituent stares usually have equal powers.
iv) Constituent states have unequal powers.
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Q. 9 Which type of government does Belgium have?
a) Federal
b) Communist
c) Unitary
d) central
Q. 10 Which type of government does Sri Lanka have ?

a) central
b) Unitary
c) federal
d) communist
Q.11 In federalism, power is divided between various constituent units and ___
a) Central authority
b) States
c) Locals
d) Control authority and states.
Q.12 In federal system, Central government cannot order the

a) Principal
b) Local government
c) State government
d) Local government and principal
Q.13 In which system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the
central government?
a) Unitary
b) Federal
c) Democratic
d) communist
Q.14 In Unitary form of government

a) All the power is divided between the central and the state government.
b) All the power is with the citizens
c) State Government has all the powers.
d) Power is concentrated with the Central Government
Q. 15 Power to interpret the constitution is with the

a) Central Government
b) State Government
c) Judiciary
d) Local Government
Q.16 A system of government in which power is divided between central authority and various constituent
units of the county is called
a) Democracy
b) Federalism
c) Communalism
d) Socialism.
Q.17 State government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the
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a) Central Government
b) Local Government
c) Judiciary
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.18 In India, there is ____ tier system of government

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Six
Q.19. Who want Sri Lanka to become a federal system?

a) Sinhala leaders
b) Buddhist Sinhala leaders
c) Tamil leaders
d) Both Sinhala and Tamil leaders-
Q.20 An ideal federal system has this aspect

a) Mutual trust
b) To safeguard and promote unity of the country.
c) To accommodate regional diversity
d) To concentrate power with central Government.
(21). Choose the option which is most suitable.

Assertion: Belgium and Spain has holding together federalism
Reason: A big country divides power between constituent states and national government
(22). Assertion: USA and Switzerland has holding together federalism

Reason: The central government can pass on orders to the provincial or the local government.
(c). Both A and R are false
(d). A is true but R is false
(23). Assertion: USA, Switzerland and Australia have coming together federalism.
Reason: They divide their power between the constituent units.
(24). Assertion: The federal system has dual objectives.

Reason: Federal government has two or more levels of government
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(25). Assertion: Unitary government has two or more levels of government.
Reason: There is no division of power in unitary form of Government
(26). Assertion: An ideal federal system has aspects.

Reason: To maintain mutual trust and agreement to live together are the most important aspects of the
federal system.

(27). Assertion: India has a federal system.

Reason: Under the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub units are
subordinate to the central government.
(28). Assertion: India is a federation.

Reason: Power resides with the central authority.
(29). Assertion: In coming together federation states come together to form bigger unit.
Reason: India, Belgium and Spain are examples of coming together federation.
Answer Key
1. D 2.A 3.B 4.C 5.D 6.B 7.C 8.B 9.A 10.B
11.A 12.C 13.A 14.D 15.C 16.B 17.A 18.B 19.C 20.C
21. a 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. d 26. a 27. b 28. a 29. c
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18. What Makes India a Federal Country? How is Federalism practiced in India?
1. Who plays an important role in safeguarding the constitutional provisions?
a. Executive
b. legislature
c. judiciary
d. Parliament.
2. How many subjects does the union list consist

a. 93
b. 96
c. 97
d. 99
3. What is the necessary for the success for federalism?

a. Constitutional provisions
b. Parliamentary provisions
c. Central provision
d. State provision
4. Which one of the following states in India had its own constitution before August 2019?
a. Madhya Pradesh
b. Jammu Kashmir
c. Uttar Khand
d. Nagaland
5. Subjects included in union list are

a. Education, forests trade union marriages
b. Police, trade, commerce, agriculture
c. Computer software, terrorism
d. Defense, foreign affairs banking currency
6. In case of clash between the laws made by the centre and a state on a subject in the
concurrent list
a. The state law prevails
b. The central law prevails
c. Both the laws prevail within their respective judiciary
d. The supreme court has to intervene to decide
7. Which of the following subjects is NOT included in the state list?

a. Law and order
b. Education
c. National defense
d. Agriculture
8. What did the constitution declare India after independence ?

a. List of states
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b. Collaboration of states
c. Union of states
d. Combination of states
9. How is the legislative powers divided between center and state?

a. 2 lists
b. 3 lists
c. 4 lists
d. 5 lists
10. Which are the two levels of government recommended by the constitution before 1992
a. Municipal and Panchayat Raj
b. State and municipal corporation
c. Centre and state
d. Center and Panchayat raj
11. Who has the power to legislate on “residuary subjects”?

a. Union government
b. State government
c. Regional government
d. Community government
12. The central government has a special powers in running

a. State territories
b. Regional territories
c. Rural territories
d. Union territories
13. How many languages does the Indian constitution recognize as schedule languages?
a. 22
b. 24
c. 32
d. 34
14. Here are three reactions to the languages policy followed in India which of the following
holds true in case of India
a. The policy of accommodation has strengthen the national unity
b. Language based states have divided us by making every one conscious of their language
c. The language policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of English over other
language
d. The language policy does not give scope over the regional language
15. How can the fundamental provisions of the constitution be changed in federalism?
a. Passed by both the houses of parliament with one third majority
b. Passed by both the houses of parliament with two third majority
c. Passed by both the houses of parliament with one fifth majority
d. Passed by both the houses of parliament with two fifth of majority.
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16. In India’s federal system the state government have the power to legislate on all those
subjects which are included in the
a. Union list
b. State list
c. Concurrent list
d. Residuary list
17. The constitution of India:

a. Divided powers between centre and states in two lists
b. Divided powers between centre and the state in three lists
c. Divided the powers of the state and left the undefined powers to the state
d. Divided the powers of the centre and left the residuary power with the state
18. Which of the following comes under state list in India?

a. Defense
b. Currency
c. Communication
d. Police
19. On which given subject can both the union as well as the state government make laws?
a. Currency
b. Defense
c. Trade unions
d. Agriculture
20. What is meant by residuary subjects

a. Subjects under union list
b. Subjects under state list
c. Subjects under both state and union list
d. Subjects which are not under any lists.
21. Give an example of a subject under residuary list?

a. Currency
b. Irrigation
c. computer software
d. commerce
22. What are the special powers given to a state under constitution of India (Article 371)
a. provision for free trade and commerce
b. protection of land rights of indigenous people
c. special provisions for agriculture in the state
d. special powers for state defense purposes
23. Give one feature of union territories

a. they have equal powers like states
b. they enjoy independent powers
c. the central government has special powers over them
d. they are small states merged with large states
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Q.24 What was the first major test for democratic Politics in our country after independence?
a) Creation of states according to religion
b) Creation of states according language
c) Creation of status according to culture
d) Creation of states according to topography
Q.25 On which basis were states like Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand created?
a) On the basis of commerce and trade
b) On the basis of religion
c) On the basis of culture ethnicity is
d) On the basic on language
Q.26 How much percent of Indians have Hindi as their mother tongue?
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%
Q.27 Besides Hindi, how many other languages recognized as Scheduled language by the
constitutions?
a) 21
b) 23
c) 24
d) 27
Q.28 Which list include subject of national Importance?

a) Union list
b) State list
c) Concurrent list
d) Residuary list
Q.29 The areas which are too small to become independent state but which could not be merged with
any of the existing state is deemed to be
a) Creative state
b) Provincial state
c) Central territory
d) Union territory
Q.30 The number of states and union territories in India are

a) 28 States and 7 union territories
b) 29 States and 7 union territories
c) 28 States and 8 union territories
d) 29 States and 8 union territories
Q.31 The union territories is administered by

a) The president
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b) The vice president
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
d) The central government
Q.32 Who makes a decision in a case of any dispute about the division of powers?
a) The Supreme Court
b) Central Government
c) State Government
d) President
Q.33 The states which were created on the basis of culture, ethnicity, geography
a) Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh
b) Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand
c) Bihar and West Bengal
d) Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh.
Q.34. According to constitution in which year use of English for official purpose was to stop.
a) 1960
b) 1963
c) 1965
d) 1970
Q.35 How many languages are included in the eighth schedule of the Indian constitution beside
Hindi?
a) 21
b) 23
c) 25
d) 27
Q. 36 The state which violently demanded that the use of English for official purpose should be
continued
a) Karnataka
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Kerala
d) Tamil Nadu
Q.37 Who has the power to raise resources by levying taxes, to carry on Government
responsibilities?
a) Centre and state Government
b) Centre and union territory.
c) Centre and municipal corporations
d) Centre and Panchayat
Q. 38. What ensured the spirit of federalism in India?

a) Respect for language and culture
b) Respect for diversity and desire for living together
c) Respect for ethnicity and desire for common language
d) Respect for political parties and desire for power.
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Q. 39. Two or more political parties coming together to form a Government is:
a) central Government
b) State Government
c) Coalition Government
d) Regional government
Answer Key
1. c 2.c 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. b 7. c 8.c 9. c 10. c
11. a 12. d 13. c 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. d 19. c 20. d
21. c 22. b 23. c 24.b 25.c 26.c 27.a 28. a 29.d 30.c
31.d 32.a 33.b 34.c 35.a 36.d 37.a 38.b 39.c
Assertion & Reasoning

Q.1 Assertion (A) – Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, Delhi are union territories
Reason (R) – The central government has special power in administering these areas
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Q.2 Assertion (A) – Banking in India is included in the Union list

Reason (R) – Only the union government makes laws related to banking
Q.3 Assertion (A) – The subjects which are included in the union list, state list and concurrent list
are considered as residuary subjects
Reason (R) – The subjects include that came after constitution was made and thus could not
be classified.
Q.4 Assertion (A) – Coalition government is formed during dearth of coal in the country
Reason (R) – It helps in overcoming coal crisis
(d). both A and R are false
Q. 5 Assertion (A) – It is very simple to make the changes in the basic structure of the constitution
Reason (R) – Both the houses have interdependent power to attend constitution
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(d). both A and R are false
Q.6 Assertion (A) – Hindi is adopted as an official language of India

Reason (R) – 21 other languages are also recognized by the constitution
Q.7 Assertion (A) – In case there is a clash between centre and state on laws of concurrent list
Reason (R) – Supreme Court law prevails
Q.8 Assertion (A) – After 1965, the use of English for official purpose was stopped
Reason (R) – South Indian states demanded that the use of English continue
Q.9 Assertion (A) – Coalition government was formed into alliance of many regional parties
Reason (R) – Give respect and autonomy to state government
Q.10 Assertion (A) – Restructuring the Centre state relations has strengthened federalism
Reason (R) – Constitutional provisions determine these limits
Q.11 Assertion (A) – Centre Government would offer misuse the constitution and dismiss state
government with level parties
Reason (R) – Central government has autonomy on state
b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c). A is correct but R is wrong
d). A is wrong but R is true.
Q.12 Assertion (A) – Language policy was the first major test to the Indian Federation
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Reason (R) – Our constitution did not give the states of national language to any one
language
Q.13 Assertion (A) – Formation of linguistic states has made the country more united
Reason (R) – Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of
India
Q.14 Assertion (A) – All states of India are created on the basis of culture, ethnicity and geography
Reason (R) – Some states were formed on the basis of language
Q.15 Assertion (A) – The constitution declared India as Union of States

Reason (R) – The Indian Union is based on the Principals of federalism
Q.16 Assertion (A) – Union government has power to legislate on ‘residuary subject’
Reason (R) – This is the provision given to the central government by the constitution
Q.17 Assertion (A) – All states in the Indian union do not have identical power
Reason (R) – Some states enjoy special status
Q.18 Assertion (A) – Special provision assists for union territories

Reason (R) – These territories have powers of state
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Q.19 Assertion (A) – The judiciary play an important role in implementation of constitution all
provision
Reason (R) – The union & state government has power to levy taxes
Q.20 Assertion (A) – Common interest subjects to both centre and state are included in concurrent
list
Reason (R) – Subjects include education forest, trade union and marriage
d). A is wrong but R is true
Q.21 Assertion (A) – The basic structure of the constitution is the power sharing between centre and
state
Reason (R) – The parliament cannot on it’s own change this arrangement
Q.22 Assertion (A) – Any changes in the constitutional provisions has to be first passed with two
third majority in both the houses of parliament
Reason (R) – Changes are to be satisfied by the legislatures of at least half of the total states
Answer Key
1. a 2. a 3. d 4.d 5. d 6. d 7. c 8. d 9. a 10. a
11. c 12. d 13. b 14. d 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. a
21. a 22. a
19. Linguistic Diversity of India, Decentralization in India.

1) Which language are declared as official language of India.
a) Hindi and English
b) English and Marathi
c) Telugu and Tamil
d) Hindi and Urdu
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2) Why there is linguistic diversity in India?
a) In 1950 ,the states were reorganized
b) Many language are being spoken in India
c) Different states have different language
d) Many dialects
3) In terms of population, which one of the following Indian state is bigger than Russia?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Maharashtra
4) In terms of population, which one of the following Indian state is bigger than Germany?
a) Odisha
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Maharashtra
d) West Bengal
5) A third-tier of government, in India is called :

a) Central government
b) State government
c) Community government
d) Local government.
6) Which is the national language of India?

a) No national language
b) Marathi
c) Hindi
d) English
7) How many languages are recognized as scheduled languages by the constitution?

a) 22
b) 24
c) 20
d) 26
8) Besides Hindi, there are ______________schedules languages in India.

a) 21
b) 22
c) 24
d) 23
9) Which one of the following language in India is considered as an official as well as scheduled
language?
a)Urdu
b) Konkani
c) Hindi
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d)Tulu
10) Which of the following states was NOT created to recognize difference based on culture,
ethnicity or geography?
a) Uttarakhand
b) Assam
c) Nagaland
d) Jharkhand
11) Which one of the following languages is spoken by majority of the people in India?
a) Hindi
b) Sanskrit
c) Tamil
d) English
12) When was the State Reorganization Commission (SRC) implemented in India?
a) 1947
b) 1956
c) 1991
d) 2006
13) When power is taken away from Central and State governments and given to local government, it
is called
a) Democracy
b) Federalism
c) Power Sharing
d) Decentralisation
14) The basic idea behind decentralisation is that

a) There are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the cental level
b) There are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level.
c) There are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the government level
d) There are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the state level
15) Which is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-
government.
a) Central government
b) Local government
c) Union government
d) State government
15) What is linguistic diversity?

a) Different culture
b) Variety in clothing and food
c) a specific measure of the density of language or concentration of unique languages
d) Different mother languages
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16) How many percent of all positions are reserved for women in local government?
a) Sixty
b) Fifty
c) one-fourth
d) one-third
17) Rural local government is popularly known by the name

a) Panchayati raj.
b) Municipalities
c) Zilla Parishad
d) Mandal
18) The panchayat works under the overall supervision of the following
a) Sarpanch
b) Gram sabha
c) Mayor
d) Chairperson
19) Both municipalities and municipal corporations are controlled by

a) State government
b) elected bodies consisting of people’s representatives
c) Mayor
d) Chairperson
Answer Keys
1.a 2.b 3.c 4.c 5.d 6.a 7.a 8.a 9.c 10.b
11.a 12.b 13.d 14.b 15.b 16.d 17.a 18.b 19.b
ECONOMICS
Chapter-1
Development
20. What Development Promises, Income and other Goals, National
Development.
(1) Developmental goals of the different sections of our society can be achieved
through………………..
(a) Democratic Political Process
(b) Military Force
(c) Violent agitation
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(d) Terrorism
(2) Development or progress involves………………………………………….

(a) Industrialization
(b) Political participation
(c) Education and health
(d) All the aspects of life
(3) All round development in India can be achieved through

(a) Dictatorship
(b) Monopoly
(c) Democracy
(d) Monarchy
(4) Development goals of different categories of person will be _______________

(a) Only income
(b) Income and education
(c) Income and Freedom
(d) Mixed of different goals.
(5) Various categories of people will have a different set of development goals which are often
(a) Conflicting
(b) Favorable
(c) Respectful
(d) Pleasurable
(6) Development for one may not be development for another. It may even be ____________
(a) Enjoyable for the other
(b) Pleasurable for the others
(c) Prosperous for the other
(d) Destructive for the others
(7) The most common important component of development may be _______________

(a) Income
(b) Skilled People
(c) Population
(d) Education
(8) A person who expects more days of work and better wages, quality local school for his children
will be from which following category?
(a) A rich farmer
(b) Landless rural farmer
(c) An industrialist.
(d) Shopkeeper
(9) What will be the top priority in the developmental goals of a landless laborer?
(a) More days of work and better wages
(b) Modern Machinery
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(c) Irrigation Facility
(d) Insurance Policy
(10) There is no social discrimination and have aspiration to become leader in village. This will be
one of the development goals of
(a) A dairy farmer
(b) A prosperous farmer
(c) An unemployed youth
(d) a landless rural laborer.
(11) Identify the developmental goal of a prosperous farmer from Punjab.
(a) Reduction in export duties.
(b) Luxurious life for their children
(c) High support prices for their crops
(d) Availability of schools in their locality.
(12) High family income through hardworking and cheap labour, plus their children should be able
to settle abroad, this can be the developmental goal
of………………………………………………………………..
(a) Business men from Gujarat
(b) Industrial workers of Ahmedabad
(c) Prosperous farmers from Punjab
(d) Poor farmers of Odisha.
(13) What will be the development goal of farmer who depend only rain for growing crops?
(a) Government subsidy
(b) Better irrigation facility
(c) Big land holding
(d) Equal treatment in the society.
(14) Favorable monsoon, better water supply and better irrigation facilities are the developmental
goals of…………………………………………………………………
(a) A house wife
(b) A business woman
(c)Unemployed educated person
(d) A landless agricultural laborer
(15) The development goal for an urban unemployed youth will be ____________
(a). Government should provide employment opportunities
(b). Government should provide loan with zero interest
(c). Equal opportunity in all fields.
(d).To be able to go abroad for higher education.
(16) Apple mobile, standard bike and luxurious life will be the developmental goals of which one of
the following people?
(a) A private school teacher
(b) A government servant
(c) A boy from rich urban family
(d) A well settled urban woman
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(17) What will be the aspiration of a girl from a rich urban family?
(a) To get married to a boy from a rich family
(b) To become a good business woman
(c) As much as freedom as her brother gets
(d) To enter in politics.
(18) No discrimination, equal opportunities and proper education facility are the developmental
goals of ………………………………………………….
(a) A merchant
(b) A business woman
(c) A rural farmer
(d) An Adivasi from tribe.
(19) When industrialists want more dams then why do local people resist it?
(a). They are against industrial production.
(b) Their lands will be submerged
(c). The river water would be polluted
(d).They are against the government.
(20). Different persons can have different developmental goals and what may be development for
one may not be development for the other. Which one among the following will be the appropriate
example of this?
(a). Educational institutions
(b). Banks
(c). Road development
(d). Dam Construction
(21). Money cannot but all the goods and services that we may need to have a good life. A list of
things required for a good life is given below. Which among the following things money cannot
buy?
(a). A pollution free atmosphere in every part of the country
(b). High quality education
(c). High standard of living
(d). Luxury life
(22). Select the two non-material benefits that would increase the welfare of the population.
(a). House and Car
(b). Medical and Insurance facility
(c). Freedom of security
(d). Dignity and High income.
(23). The individuals seek different goals and their motive of national development is also likely to
be different. Under national development, priority is given to which one of the following?
(a). Benefits large number of people.
(b). Benefits given to a small group
(c). Benefits given to all women
(d). Benefit given to the youth.
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(24). Assertion: People not only think of better income but also have goals such as security,
respect for others, equal treatment, freedom etc. in mind.
Reason: Money cannot buy everything.
(c). A is correct but R is false
(d). A is false but R is true.
(25). Assertion: Different person can have different as well as conflicting nations of country’s
development.
Reason: Individuals seek different goals for their personal development.
(c). A is true but R is false.
(26). Assertion: Money is not a factor that brings happiness in the life of the people.
Reason: Quality of life also depends on non-material things like Freedom, Respect of others,
security etc.
Answer Key
1. a 2. d 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. d
11. c 12. c 13. b 14.d 15. a 16. c 17. 18. d 19. d 20. d
21. a 22. c 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. a
21. How to Compare Different Countries? Income and other Criteria,

Public Facilities.
1. The criterion used for the purpose of comparison should depend upon.............
(a) The situation
(b) Need of the time.
(c) Purpose of Comparison
(d) As a formality
2- Which of the following can make country economically developed?

(a) Higher Population
(b) Higher Income
(c) Advanced technology
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(d) Strong defense.
3. What can be called as the income of the country?

(a) Income of an individual
(b) Income of the Government.
(c) Income of the industries.
(d) Income of all the residents of the country.
4. The average income is also called as.......

(a) Per capita income
(b) Family income.
(c) Income of the country
(d) Income of the Society.
5. Under which category does India lie?

(a) Low income country
b) High income country
c) High middle income country
d) Low middle income country
6) How can the development of country be determined?

a). By average literacy level
b) By it's per capita income
c) By the health status of its people.
(d) By the income of government
7) Which one of the following has low infant mortality rate?

a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Kerala
(d) Bihar
8). What is P.D.S.?

(a) Public Data Service
(b) Public Distribution system
(c) Public Demand Service.
d) People Donation system.
9) Which neighboring country from the following has better performance in human development
than India?
a) Sri Lanka
b) Bangladesh
c) Pakistan
d) Nepal
10. The total income of the country divided by total population is called
a) National income
b) Total income
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c) Per capita income
d) Industrial income
11. Which of the following organization publish Human Development Report?

a) WHO
b) UNDP
c) WTO
d) IMF
12. BMI (Body Mass Index) is a method of finding out which of the following?
a) Economic development
b) Longevity
c) Infant mortality
d) Health status.
13. A boy of age 15-16 years is overweight if the Body Mass Index is more than
a) 28
b) 20
c) 22
d)18
14. India's neighboring countries, Nepal and Bangladesh have better performance than India in
which one of the following aspects?
a) Per capita Income
b) Literacy & Health
c) Employment
d) Life expectancy
15. How do the Public Distribution system (PDS) help people?

a) By maintaining the nutritional status of people.
b) By distributing daily wages.
c) By providing continuous work and employment.
d) By providing them free food.
16. In which currency the per capita income of all countries is calculated?
a) Rupees
b) Dollars
c) Yen
d) Pounds
17. Which one is NOT an important goal of our life?

(a) Good education
(b) High salaried Job
(c), Blood Donation
(d) Luxurious life.
18. What kind of resource Ground water is?

a) Renewable
b) Non-renewable
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c) Preserve stock
d) Unreserved Stock
19. Which one of the following is correct explanation of Infant mortality?

a) Malnutrition of the children up to one year.
b) Nutritional health of the children up to one year.
c) Children that die before age of one year.
d) Children that die before age of five year.
20. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) – Money or material things that buy with it, is one factor on which our life depends.
Reason (R) - But the quality of our life does not depend on non-material things.
(a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
21. Assertion (A) - The development goals that people have are not only about better income but
also about other important things in life.
Reason (R) - A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a variety of jobs or
run a business.
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c). A is true but R is false.
d). A is false but R is true.
22. Assertion (A): - We compare the average income which is unevenly distributed income of the
country divided by the half of its population.
Reason (R) Averages hide disparities.
23. Assertion (A):- Non-renewable resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use.
Reason (R) :- Kerala has a low infant mortality rate because it has adequate provision of basic health
& education.
24. Consider that, there are five families in a country. The average per capita income of these
families is Rs. 6000. It’s the income of other form families is Rs.6000, Rs. 9000, Rs. 3000, Rs. 5000.
a) 5500
b) 6000
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c) 7000
d) 7500
Answer Key
1.c 2.b 3. d 4. a 5. d 6. b 7. c 8. b 9. a 10. c
11. b 12. d 13. a 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. a 19. c 20. c
21. b 22. c 23. b
22. Body Mass Index, Human Development Report, And Sustainable

Development.
1. Case study. I Exhaustion of Natural Resources
Table: Crude oil Reserves.
Region / Country Reserves (2016) Number of years Reserves
Thousand Million Barrels will lost
1. Middle East 808 70
2. United States of 50 10
America
3. World 1697 50.2
The table gives an estimate of reserves of crude oil (column 1). More important, it also tells us for
how many years the stock of crude oil will last if people continue to extract it at the present rate. The
reserves would last only 50 years more. This is for the world as a whole. However different
countries face different situations. Countries like India depend on importing oil from abroad because
they do not have enough Stock of their own. If prices of oil increase this becomes a burden for
everyone. There are countries like USA which have low reserves and hence want to secure oil
through military or economic power. The question of sustainability of development raises many
fundamentally new issues about the nature and process of development.
Questions:
1.1. Which area has minimum. Crude oil?
a. India b. Russia c.USA d. Ireland.
1.2. How many reserves does the rest of the world have?
a. 1587 b. 1698 c.1597 d.1697
1.3. How does the countries with low reserve secure oil?
a.They secure oil through economic power
b. They secure oil somewhat through economic power
c. They secure oil through military or economic power
d.They secure oil through only military power
1.4). How does India get oil?
a. India depends on importing oil from abroad because it has enough stocks of its own
b. India depends on importing oil from abroad because it doesn’t have enough stock.
c. India doesn’t need any resources as it has enough reserves.
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d. India imports oil only from Middle East countries.
1.5) How many years would the reserves last if the people continue to use it at the present rate?
a. 10-15 year’s b. 45-50 years
c. 30-35years d. 20-25 years
1.6) How many years would the reserves of Middle East last, if it continues to extract oil at the same
rate?
a. Middle East has maximum 700 thousand million barrels of oil and it will last for 40 years.
b. Middle East has maximum 808 thousand million barrels of oil and it will last for 50 years.
c. Middle fast has 708 thousand million barrels of oil and it will last for 30 years
d. Middle East has 808 thousand million barrels of oil and it will last for 70 years.
2. Case study
Source: Human Development Report
Once it is realized that even though the level of income is important, yet inadequate measure of the
level of development, we begin to think of other criterion. There could be a long list of such criterion
but then it would to not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things
Health and education indicators, such as we used in comparison of Kerala and Haryana, among
them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along
with income as a measure of development. For instance, Human Development Report published by
UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people their health status and per
capita income.
Questions
2.1. Who publishes the Human Development Report?
a. WHO b. UND c. UNDP d. NDP
2.2. Which indicators are used in Human development Report for comparison of Kerala and
Haryana?
a.Income and education b. health and income c. Health and education d. Education only.
2.3. What is Human Development Report?
a) Report which compares Countries based on education levels of people, their health status and per
capita income.
b) Report which compares countries based on their education level of people.
c) Report which compares countries based on their health status and per capita income
d) Report which compares states on the bases of educational level of the people, their health status
and per capita income.
2.4. Identify the correct statement from the following.
a) Over the past century health and education indicators have come to be widely used along with
income as a measure of development
b) Over the past decade or so health and education indicators have come to be widely used along
with income as a measure of development.
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c) Over the past two decades or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used
along with income as a measure of development.
d) Over the past three decades, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along
with income as a measure of development.
3. What is Human Development Report?

a) Report which compares countries based on education levels of people, their health status and per
capita income.
b) Report which compares countries based on their education level of people.
c) Report which compares countries based on their health status and per capita income
d) Report which compares states on the basis of educational level of the people, their health status
and per capita income.
4. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Read the statements and chose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The crude oil reserves are going down for the entire world, and the countries need to
find substitute fuel for crude oil.
Reason (R): A country that is dependent on imports for crude oil will demand more crude oil in
the future.
Options:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Assertion (A): Sustainable development is essential for economic growth of the countries.
Reason (R): Sustainable development ensures that environment friendly measures are adopted for
carrying out production process.
Options:
Assertion (A): Non-renewable resources are abundant in nature.

Reason (R): Non-renewable resources can be replenished over a period of time.
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Options:
Assertion (A): A country that was extremely rich in natural resources has mainly relied on oil
extraction for revenue generations for several decades. However, scientists predict that the country
may become poor in the future if other means of generating income are not devised.
Reason (R): Oil is non-renewable resource, and it is likely to get exhausted if not used
judiciously.
Options:
8) What is the HDI Rank of India according to the HDR of 2018?
a) 145 b)135 c)130 d)125
9) Economic development by maintaining the natural resources for present and future use is known
as
a) Sustainable development b) Planned development.
a) Human development Index c)Development
1o) What would be the most promising source of energy fifty years from now and why?
a) Petroleum, because it is obtained from fossil fuel.
b) Solar energy because it is not exhaustible.
c) Coal based energy because it is pollution free.
d) Forest product based energy because India has abundant forest.
11) Pick out the cause that enhances environmental degradation.

a) Planting of trees
b) Preventing of factory wastes getting mixed up with river water
c) Ban on use of plastic bags
d) Allowing increase in the level of exhaust fumes emitted by cars, buses, trucks etc
12) How can we find out whether we are properly nourished?

a) By measuring height and weight
b) By calculating Body Mass Index
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c) By following Nutrient table
d) By measuring the weight.
13) According to the Human Development Report 2018, which two countries have better Life
expectancy at birth than India?
a) Sri Lanka and Myanmar
b) Pakistan and Nepal
c) Pakistan and Bangladesh
d) Nepal and Bangladesh
Answer Key
1.1) c 1.2)d 1.3)c 1.4)b 1.5)b 1.6)d 2.1)c 2.2)c 2.3)d 2.4)b
3) d 4) a 5) b 6) d 7) a 8) c 9) a 10) b 11) d 12) b
13) d
Chapter-2
Sectors of the Indian conomy
23. Sectors of Economic Activities, Comparing the Three Sectors,
Historical Change.
1. Which one of the following is an economic activity
a. Doing social work
b. House wife looking after households
c. Publishing a book
d. Going to temple
2. Fishing is a primary Sector activity because

a) It is used for consumption
b) It is done by exploiting natural resources
c) It is an age old activity
d) It contributes highly to the economic development
3. Choose the correct meaning of the primary sector

a) The most important economic activities are included in this sector.
b) This sector is independent.
c) The products require some process of manufacturing.
d) It forms the base for all other products.
4. Construction comes under which sector?

A) Primary Sector b) Secondary Sector c) Tertiary Sector d) Service Sector
5. Consider the following statements about of tertiary sector.

A) These are activities that help in the development of primary and secondary sectors. .
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B) These activities by themselves do not produce any goods
C) These activities do not give any income in return
D) These activities generate services rather than goods.

a) A, B, C b) A, B, D c) B, C, D d) A, B, C
6. Which among the following occupations come under the tertiary sector?
a) Bee keeper, Milk vendor, Courier
b) Astronaut, Mill Vendor, Courier
c) Priest, Money vendor, Courier
d) Call centre employee, fishermen, Gardener.
7. Primary and secondary sectors are different from tertiary sector because
a) They produce goods rather than services.
b) They exploit natural resources.
c) Primary and secondary sectors are dependent on each other.
d) They are associated with different stages of production
8. Match the following items in a column A with those of column B. Choose the correct answer from
the options given below.
Column A Column B
A. Real estate 1.Secondary sector
B. Food processing 2. Tertiary sector
C. Oil extraction 3. Primary sector
D. Public administration 4. Tertiary sector
Options:
a) A (4), B (1), C (2), D (3)
b) A (2), B (1), C (3), D (4)
e) A (3), B (1), C (2), D (4)
d) A (2), B (4), C (3), D (1)
9. We use cotton fibre to spin yarn and weave cloth. This activity comes under which of the
following sector?
a) Primary sector b) Secondary sector
c) Tertiary sector d) Agriculture and related sector
10. Identify the wrong statement about service sector.
a) They help in the development of primary and secondary sectors.

b) Service sector also includes some essential services such as teachers, doctors, lawyers etc.
c) Services that directly support primary and secondary sectors are only included in the tertiary
sector
d) In recent times certain new services based on IT have become important.
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11. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as assertion (A) and Reason (R)
read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Diary is a primary sector activity

Reason(R): We are dependent on the biological process of the animals and availability of fodder.

12) In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as assertion (A) and Reason (R)
read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Secondary sector is called as industrial sector
Reason(R): The secondary sector produces raw materials for the industries.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both a and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
13) In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as assertion (A) and Reason(R).
Assertion (A): In recent times, ATM booths, call centers, consultancy services etc, have
become important services.
Reason (R): Tertiary sector is also known as service sector.

14) When the price of fertilizers or pump sets go up, cost of cultivation of the farmer will rise and
their profit will be reduced. It shows that
a) Secondary sector is dependent on the primary sector.
b) Primary sector is dependent on the secondary sector.
c) Primary sector is dependent on the tertiary sector.
d) Both primary and secondary sectors dependent on the tertiary sector.
15) If Indian textile companies decide not to buy from Indian market, then cotton cultivation will
become less profitable and the farmers may even go bankrupt. It shows that
a) Secondary sector is dependent on the primary sector.
b) Primary sector is dependent on the secondary sector.
c) Primary sector is dependent on the tertiary sector.
d) Both primary and secondary sectors dependent on the tertiary sector.
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16) If the truck drivers go for a strike in the towns and cities it would result in the shortage of food
materials and workers in the secondary and tertiary sectors would find it difficult to buy vegetables
and fruits etc, This also would affect the life of farmers who would be unable to sell their crops. In
this context, which one of the following statements is true?
a) Primary sector depends upon the tertiary sector.

b) Tertiary sector depends upon the primary sector.
c) Both tertiary and secondary sectors depends on primary sector for food.
d) All the three sectors are interdependent.
17) Identify the statement that shows the importance of tertiary sector.
a) Loans from the banks support the agriculture and the industries
b) Small scale industries employ large workforce.
c) Textile industry is an agro based industry.
d) Poultry farming can generate good income to farmers.
18) Identify the wrongly matched pair.

a) Trade - service sector.
b) Metallurgy- industrial sector.
c) Basket weaving- service sector.
d) Communication- service sector
19) Identify the correctly match pair.

a) Trade and transport - Support primary and secondary sectors.
b) Teachers and doctors - Essential services.
c) Storage and banking - Personal services.
d) ATM and call centers - IT based services.
20) Industries that depend on primary sector for raw materials are known as
a) Basic industries
b) Agro- based industries
c) Heavy industries
d) Light industries
21) Which of the following statements is true about the economy of a country?
a) One or more sectors are dominant while other sectors are relatively small in size.
b) All the three sector are equally dominant.
c) Two sectors are dominant and the third sector is too small in size.
d) It is difficult to identify the dominant sector.
22) How is it possible to calculate the final production in each sector?

a) Add the number of goods produced in each sector.
b) Add the numbers of goods and services produced in each sector.
c) Add the total value of goods produced in each sector.
d) Add the total value of all goods and services produced in each sector.
23) The following table gives the GDP in rupees and (crores) by the 3 sectors.
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Year Primary sector Secondary sector Tertiary sector
2000 52000 48500 133500
Now calculate the share of primary sector in GDP.
a)25% b)22.22% c)26.47% d)24.12%
24) Identify the intermediary goods in the following manufacturing activity.
Raw cotton -----> Cotton fibre --------> Yarn -----> Fabric ----->Garment
a) Raw cotton and yarn

b) Raw cotton and cotton fibre
c) Fabric and garment
d) Cotton fibre, yarn and fabric
25) The values of different goods during the production of ice cream are given below.
A) Milk - Rs.50
B) Sugar - Rs.25
C)Vanila Essence - Rs.10
D) Ice-Cream - Rs.120
Which of these following values has to be added to the GDP?

a) Rs.50 b) Rs.120 c) Rs.75 d) Rs.85
26. The following table gives the GDP in rupees(crores) by the three sectors
Year Primary sector Secondary sector Tertiary sector
2013 800500 1074000 3868000
Calculate the GDP of the country in 2013.
a) 3868000 b) 5742500 c) 5627410 d) 1874500
27) Identify the correct statement:

The GDP is calculated by including
a) The total value of all goods produced.

b) The total value of all goods and services.
c) The total value of all final goods and services
d) The total value of all primary goods and services
28) Consider the following statements about GDP.

A) GDP of the country shows the size of its economy.
B) GDP is calculated by adding the value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a
particular year.
C) GDP of a country is calculated once in 5 years.
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D) The GDP reveals the contribution of the three sectors to the economy.

a)A,B,C b)A,B,D c)B,C,D d)A,B,C,D
29) Estimation of GDP in India under taken by

a) The central government ministry
b) The central government ministry with the help of various departments of states and UTs.
c) The World Bank
d) National Sample Survey Organization.
30) Match the following items in column A and column B. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
Column A Column B
A GDP 1 Intermediary good
B Biscuit 2 Primary good
C Wheat Flour 3 Final good and services
D Wheat 4 Final good
Options:
a) A (3), B (1), C (2), D (4)
b) A (2), B (1), C (3), D (4)
c) A (3), B (4), C (1), D (2)
d) A (2), B (4), C (3), D (1)
31. Which was the most important sector of economic activity at initial stages of development?
a. primary sector b. secondary sector c. tertiary sector d. industrial sector
32. Identify the wrong statement about the economic activities at the initial stages of development?
a. There were increasing number of craft persons and traders.
b. Buying and selling activities got decreased.
c. Most of the goods produced were natural products.
d. Most of the people were employed in primary sector.
33. Secondary sector gradually became the most important sector because
a. New methods of manufacturing were introduced
b. Agriculture sector received prosperity
c. The methods of farming changed
d. People started to take up alternative activities.
34. The most important sector of economic activity at present in terms of production and
employment is
a. Primary sector
b. Secondary sector
c, Tertiary sector
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d. Industrial sector.
35. The industrial sector has never been dominant in India because
a. Primary sector has been dominant over the years.
b. Tertiary sector has become important sector.
c. Absence of industrialization and lack of industrial growth.
d. Lack of industrial infrastructure
36. Why don’t we include the value of primary and intermediary goods in the calculation of GDP?
a. Primary and intermediary goods are of less value
b. The GDP considers only the value of final goods
c. The values of primary and intermediary goods are already included in the values of final goods.
d. The GDP separately calculates the values of primary and intermediary goods.
37. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(A) Secondary sector gradually become the most important sector in total production and
employment.
(R) People who have worked earlier in farms now began to work in factories.

Read the statement and choose the correct option
(A) Counting the value of flour and wheat separately is not correct.
(R) Then we would be counting the value of same things a number of times.

Read the statement and choose the correct option
(A) In the past hundred years there has a shift from secondary to tertiary sector
(R) Most of the working people are employed in tertiary sector now.

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40. Identify the wrong statement about the historical change in sectors in India.
a. At the initial stages of development, primary sector was the most important sector.
b. Secondary sector had emerged as the leading sector in 1850s
c.Tertiary sector has become the most important sector now.
d. The importance of tertiary sector is rising over the years in India
Answer Keys
1. c 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. c 7.a 8. b 9.b 10.c
11.a 12.c 13.b 14.b 15.b 16.d 17.a 18.c 19.c 20.b
21.a 22.d 23.b 24.d 25.b 26.b 27.c 28.b 29.b 30. c
31. a 32.b 33.a 34. c 35. c 36. c 37. b 38. a 39. b 40. b
24. Importance of Tertiary Sector, Where are the Most People

Employed? How to Create More Employment?
(1). Over the last 40 years production has increased in which sector?
(a). Primary (b). Secondary (c). Tertiary (d). Health
(2). Which of the following service does basic services include?

(a). Restaurants (b). Transport (c). Mechanic (d). Shopping
(3). Development of agriculture and industry leads to development of which services?

(a). Courts (b). Police Station (c). Hospital (d). Storage
(4). Now a days income levels are rising, due to which, there is a demand for which service?
(a). Tourism (b). Government hospital (c). Post Offices (d). Defence
(5). In recent times there is tremendous increase in the tertiary sector but a part of the service sector
is not growing. Which one is the right example for this?
(a). Banking (b). Hospitals (c). Repair Person (d). Private schools
(6). What is another name for tertiary sector?

(a). Agriculture (b). Service (c). Health (d). Industrial
(7). The task of measuring GDP is under taken by

(a). District government (b). Central Government
(c). State Government (d). Provincial Government
(8). A situation in which more persons are employed in a job than are optimally required is
(a). Structural unemployment (c). Disguised unemployment
(c). Cyclical unemployment (d). Seasonal unemployment
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(9). According to share of employment in three sectors in 1972-73 to 2011 – 12, employment in
industry is increased by how many times?
(a). 1 time (b). 2 times (c). 3 times (d). 4 times
(10). Production in service sector in 1972-73 to 2011-12 rose by how many times?
(a). 11 times (b). 12 times (c). 12 times (d). 14 times
(11). In which sector largest number of people are employed?

(a). Primary (b). Secondary (c). Service (d). Tertiary
(12). Which sector contributes the largest share to the GDP of the country?
(a). Primary (b). Secondary (c). Agriculture (d). Tertiary
(13). under employment is a situation when

(a). a person does not have a job
(b). a person do not want to work
(c). A person is capable of doing work.
(d). People are doing work but they are not fully employed
(14). Disguised unemployment mostly occurs in which sector?

(a). Primary (b). Tertiary
(c). Secondary (d). Services
(15). MGNREGA was introduced in how many districts of the country?

(a). 150 districts (b). 200 districts (c). 250 districts (d). 625 districts
(16). How can Laxmi create more employment opportunity in her small plot of unirrigated land?
(a). By irrigating her land (b) By ploughing her land
(c). By spraying pesticides. (d) By applying fertilizers
(17). Choose one requirement needed for a farmer with a small plot of land?
(a). Transportation and storage (b). More labour
(c). School nearby (d). National policy
(18). Percent of population in India in the age group of 5 – 29 years is

(a). 50 (b). 60 (c). 70 (d). 40
(19). According to the Planning Commission estimates, how many numbers of jobs can be created
every year in education sector?
(a). 10 lakh (b). 20 lakh (c). 5 lakh (d). 25 lakh
(20). According to Planning Commission how many additional jobs can be created in tourism sector
every year?
(a). More than 35 lakh (b). More than 25 lakh
(c). more than 10 lakh (d). More than 20 lakh
(21). National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 is referred as

(a). Right to Information (b). Right to work
Page 99 of 104
(c). Right to live (d). Right to study
Answer Key
1. a 2. b 3.d 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. d
11. a 12. d 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. b 20. a
21. b
25. Organized and Unorganized Sectors, How to Protect the Workers?

1. Which sector is characterized by small and scattered units largely outside the control of the
government?
(a) Organized sector
(b) Fixed sector
(c) Temporary sector
(d) Unorganized sector
2. Which sector includes a large number of people that are employed on their own doing small jobs
such as selling on the street or doing repair work?
(a) Service sector
(b) Organized sector
(c) Unorganized sector
(d) Public sector
3. In which sector is it common to see a large number of workers losing their jobs since the 1990’s?
(a) Service sector
(d) Public sector
4. What is protection and support are necessary for the workers in the unorganized sector?
(a) Rural development.
(b) Economic and political development
(c) Social and political development
(d) Economic and social development
5. Which sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are
regular and the people have assured work?
(a) Service sector

(d) Public sector
6. In which sectors are the workers paid for overtime by the employer?
(a) Service sector
Page 100 of 104

(d) Public sector
7. In which sectors do the workers get pensions when they retire?

(a) Service sector
(d) Public sector
8. Who are the vulnerable people in the rural areas, who need protection?
(a) Large scale farmers
(b) Workers in organized sectors
(c) Workers in public sectors
(d) Landless agricultural labourers.
9. How many percent of rural households are in small and marginal farmer category in India?
(a) 10 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 80
10. Identify the vulnerable people in the urban areas who need protection?
(a) Agricultural labourers
(b) Casual workers
(c) Doctors
(d) Engineers
11. Which workers in both rural and urban areas need to be protected?
(a) Agricultural labourers
(b) Casual workers
(c) Workers in organized sector
(d) Industrial workers.
12. In which sectors do the people from scheduled caste, tribal and backward communities find a job
for them?
(a) Organized sector
(b) Fixed sector
(c) Public sector
(d) Unorganized sector
13. Which workers face the social discrimination from the society?
(a) Workers from upper caste
(b) Workers from scheduled caste
(c) Workers from rich families
(d) Workers from poor families.
Answer key
1.d 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. d 9. d 10. b
11. b 12. d 13. b
Page 101 of 104

26. Public and Private Sectors, importance of Public Sector.
1 The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of
a) Employment conditions
b) The nature of economic activities
c) Number of workers' employed
d) Ownership of enterprises
2) When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the...............

a) Secondary sector
b) Tertiary sector
c) Primary sector
d) Organized Sector
3) Government owns most of the assets and provides all the services in………………………..
a) Private sector,
b) Public sector
c) Organized sector
d) Tertiary Sector
4) The value of all final goods and services produced within country during particular year is called as
a) Gross Domestic Product
b) Net Domestic Product
c) National Product
d) Production of tertiary Sector
5) The purpose of the public sector is

a) To earn the profit
b) To promote the public welfare and earn profit
c) To provide only services
d) To produce goods and services.
6) Railways comes under the

a) Public sector
b) Private sector
c) Organized sector
d) Unorganized sector
7) The major purpose of the private sector is

a) To earn profit
b) To promote the public welfare
c) To provide only services
d) To produce goods & services.
8) Construction of dams, roads, bridges, railway track etc. is beyond the capacity of_________
a) Public Sector
b) Private sector
c) Joint sector
d) Organized sector
9) Name the sector that provides services without expecting profit

a)Public Sector
Page 102 of 104
b) Private sector
c)Organized Sector
d)Unorganized sector
10) Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited, Reliance Industries Limited, Wipro etc. are the examples of
a) Public sector
b) Joint sector
c) Organized sector
d) Private sector
11) In any country the services such as hospitals, village administrative offices, municipal corporations,
banks, defense, transport, insurance companies etc. are called as the 'basic services’. In the
Developing countries these services are provided by the
a)Private sector
b) Public sector
c) Human development sector
d) Joint sector
12) For the social and economic development, which sector is important?
a) Private sector
b) Public sector
c) Organized sector
d) Joint sector
13) For more employment possibilities which sector is beneficial?

a)Private sector
b) Public sector
c) Service sector
d) Organized sector
14) This sector promotes redistribution of Income and wealth.

a) Private sector
b) Public sector
c) Joint Sector
d) Organized sector
15) To develop industries, huge Investment is required. It is possible only by…………………….

a) Public sector
b) Private sector
c) Unorganized sector
d) Organized sector
16) Which one of the following sectors contributes immensely towards community development, public
distribution and nutritional services?
a) Public sector
b) Private sector
d) Organized sector
17) This sector promotes rapid economic development through creation and expansion of infrastructure.
A) Public sector
b) Private sector
Page 103 of 104
d) Cooperative sector
18) The sector which plays an important role in the gross domestic capital formation of the country.
a) Private sector
b) Joint sector
c) Public sector
19) The sector that plays a major role in the administration, health and education of the people
a) Private sector
b) Joint sector
c) Public sector
20) The sector which provide a strong Industrial base is

a) Private sector
b) Joint sector
c) Public sector
d) Unorganized sector
21) Which sector promotes balanced regional growth?

a) Private sector
b) Public sector
c) Cooperative sector
d) Joint sector
22) To get reasonable cost services this sector in beneficial

a) Private sector
b) Public sector
c) Cooperative sector
d) Joint sector
23) Who has the ownership of the assets in the public sector?
a) The government.
b) The industrialists.
c) The corporates.
d) The bureaucrats.
Answer Key
1.d 2.c 3.b 4.a 5.b 6.a 7.a 8.b 9.b 10.d
11.b 12.b 13.b 14.b 15.a 16.a 17.a 18.c 19.c 20.c
21.b 22.b 23.a
Page 104 of 104

Multiple Choice Question Bank
Class – X
TERM-I
(Based on Latest CBSE Exam Pattern for the Session)
2021-22
Prepared by
A panel of experts from different CBSE Schools
***************************************************

Sahodaya Kolhapur Social Science Study Material 2021-22

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Multiple Choice Question Bank

Sahodaya Complex, Kolhapur

Sl Name of the teachers Designation

Chapter 1 Resource and Development

Chapter 1 Power Sharing

Chapter 2 Sectors of the Indian Economy

2. Who wrote an influential pamphlet ‘What is the third Estate’?

3. Which group of people did not join the Jacobin club?

5. What did the slave wear upon becoming free?

6. Who comprised the Third Estate?

7. Which of the following statements is False about the “Third Estate”?

9. What was the ‘Subsistence Crisis’ which occurred frequently in France?

10. What was ‘Estates General’?

11. What is the term ‘Old Regime’ usually used to describe?

12. Which of these books was written by John Locke?

13. What did the Bastille stand for?

21. Who enjoyed certain privileges by birth?

22. Who were obliged to render services to the lord?

23. What was the tax extracted by the church called?

27. How did the middle class earn their wealth?

2. Name the customs union formed by Prussia to abolish tariff barriers.

3. Which one of the following was the basic aim of Zollverein?

(a) The abolition of tariff barriers

4. Name one kind of revolt that started in Europe in 1848.

6. The denial of universal suffrage in Europe, led to :

7. In politics, liberalism emphasized:

9. Which new spirit guided European nations after Napoleon’s defeat?

11. Repression of liberal revolutionaries after 1815, in Europe, led to

12. The three leaders who helped unification of Italy were :

14. The main function of the Prussian Zollverein was to :

18. Zollverein or the Customs Union was formed in Prussia to abolish

21. Zollverin started in 1834 in Prussia refers to a

22. When did French revolution occur?

23. When did the Napoleon introduced civil code?

27. When was Mazzini went to exile?

28. What played an important role in creating the idea of nation?

1) July revolution that took place in 1830 resulted in destruction of

3) Which of the following Treaty declined Greece I an Independent nation in 1882?

4) What is the objective focusing Vernacular language?

7) In which year did Louis Philippe as an independent nation?

10) Which years was faced great economic hardship Europe.

17 What was the name of German Romantic Philosopher?

18. What was 'Das Volk' ?

24. Where did the Grimm brothers born,

26. Who was the King of Prussia?

27. When did Lord Byron died because of fever

28. Who was described the events of a Silesian village.

32. Who was regarded as father of modern nationalism?

35. Why were the revolutions of 1830 and 1848 so widespread?

36.Who was the great leader of the Hungarians?

37.What reforms stayed permanent after the revolutions of 1848 in Australia?

40. When Greek struggle for independence begins?

41. Romanticism refers to which movement?

2. Among which group of people in Germany nationalist feelings widespread?

4) What were the large landowners of Prussia Called?

6) Who is called the art architect of German unification?

7 ) Who were the "Junkers"?

8). Who was proclaimed the emperor of Germany in 1871?

12). Who was proclaimed king of united Italy in 1861?

14). Who formed a secret society called “Young Italy”?

17). In 1861 who was proclaimed the King of United Italy?

18). Who was count Cavour?

19). Which of the following state lead the unification of Germany?